Вы находитесь на странице: 1из 604

1

NCEES Fundamentals of
Engineering (FE) Examination

FE-CBT Mechanical

Dr. Sri Susarla

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

Mathematics
Total Questions 6-9

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Analytic geometry
Calculus
Linear algebra
Vector analysis
Differential equations
Numerical methods

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

PART-I
QUESTION 1.
The center of the ellipse
( + 2)2 ( )2
+
= 1
9
16
A.
B.
C.
D.

(0,0)
(1,1)
(1,0)
(0,1)

QUESTION 2.
The length of the tangent from (0, 0) to the circle 2(x2 +y2) + x y + 5 = 0 is
A.
B.
C.
D.

5
5/2
2
5/2

QUESTION 3.
The area enclose by the parabola y2 = 8x and the line y =2x is:
4

A. 3
B.
C.
D.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

QUESTION 4.
The eccentricity of the ellipse
9x2 + 5y2 -30y = 0 is
A.
B.

1
3
2
3

C.
D.

QUESTION 5.
If the length of the major axis of an ellipse is three times the length of minor axis, its eccentricity
is:
A. 1/3
1
B.
C.
D.

3
1

2
22
3

QUESTION 6.
The length of the latus rectum of the hyperbola x2 4y2 = 4 is
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

QUESTION 7.
The area of the triangle formed by the coordinate axes and the line 4x + 5y = 20 is:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

QUESTION 8.
The angle between the lines formed by joining (2, -3), (-5, 1) and (7,-1) and (0, 3) is
A.
B.
C.
D.

/2
/4
0
/6

QUESTION 9.
Axis of the parabola x2 3y 6x + 6 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

x = -3
x=3
y = -1
y=1

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

QUESTION 10.
The eccentricity of the hyperbola 9x2 - 16 y2 72x -32y 16 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

5
4
4
5
9
16
16
9

QUESTION 11.
Area bounded by the curves y = x and y = x3 is:
A.
1
B. 6
C.
1
D. 12

QUESTION 12.
The area bounded by the curve = 1 +
A.
B.
C.
D.

8
2

and x =2 and x = 4 is:

2
3
4
5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

QUESTION 13.
A polygon has 35 diagonals. The number of sides of the polygon is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
15
20
25

QUESTION 14.
The eccentricity of the ellipse 9x2 + 16y2 = 144 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
7
2
7
7
4
7
3

QUESTION 15.
An ellipse has the coordinate axes as its axes on its foci at (4,0) and its eccentricity is 4/5. The
equation of the ellipse is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

+
25
2
9
2
5
2
4

+
+
+

2
9
2
25
2
4
2
5

=1
=1
= 25
= 25

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

QUESTION 16.
The equation of a circle with center (4,1) and touching the tangent 3x + 4y -1 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

x2 + y2 -8x -2y -8 = 0
x2 + y2 -8x -2y +8 = 0
x2 + y2 -8x +2y +-8 = 0
x2 + y2 -8x -2y +4 = 0

QUESTION 17.
The equation of the directrix to the parabola y2 2x - 6y 5 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2x + 15 = 0
x+5=0
2x + 3 = 0
x+2=0

QUESTION 18.
The equation r = 5cos + 12 sin represents:
A.
B.
C.
D.

A circle
An ellipse
A parabola
A Straight line

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

10

QUESTION 19.
The equation of the straight line making an intercept of 3 units on the y-axis, and inclined at 45o
to the x-axis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

y=x1
y=x+3
y= 45x + 3
y = x + 45

QUESTION 20.
The vortex of the parabola x2 + 12x 9y = 0 is
A.
B.
C.
D.

(6,-4)
(-6,4)
(6,4)
(-6,-4)

QUESTION 21.
The focus of the parabola y2 4y - 8x - 4 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

(1,1)
(1,2)
(2,0)
(2,2)

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

11

QUESTION 21 A.
1

The equation = 8 + 8 represents:


A.
B.
C.
D.

Circle
Parabola
Ellipse
Hyperbola

QUESTION 22.
The equation of the tangent to the curve y = x3 2x + 7 at point (1,6) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

y=x+5
x+y=7
2x + y = 8
X + 2y = 13

QUESTION 23.
The angle between the curves y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y at (4,4) is:
1

A. 1 (2)
3

B. 1 (4)
1

C. 1 (3)
D.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

12

QUESTION 24.
The equation of the tangent to the circle x2 + y2 + 6x + 4y -3 = 0 at (1,-2) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

y+1=0
y+2=0
y+3=0
y2=0

QUESTION 25.
The equation 16x2 + y2 + 8xy 74x 78y + 212 = 0 represents:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Circle
Parabola
Ellipse
Hyperbola

QUESTION 26.
The equation of the curve represents:
1

= 22

A.
B.
C.
D.

Straight line
Parabola
Circle
Ellipse

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

13

QUESTION 27.
The equation of the tangent to the curve 6y = 7 x3 at (1,1) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2x + y = 3
x + 2y = 3
x + y = -1
x+y+2=0

QUESTION 28.
The equation of the parabola with the focus (3,0) and the directrix x + 3 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

y2= 3x
y2= 6x
y2= 12x
y2= 2x

QUESTION 29.
If e and e are the eccentricities of the ellipse 5x2 + 9y2 = 45 and the hyperbola 5x2 4y2 = 45,
respectively, then ee =
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
4
5
9

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

14

QUESTION 30.
The angle between the curves y = sin x and y = cos x is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1 (22)
1 (32)
1 (33)
1 (52)

QUESTION 31.
The eccentricity of the conic 36x2 + 144y2 - 36x 96y -119 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3
2
1
2
3
4
1
3

QUESTION 32.
1

The polar equation cos + 7 sin = represents:


A.
B.
C.
D.

Circle
Parabola
Straight line
Hyperbola

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

15

QUESTION 33.
The center of the circle r2 4r (cos + sin) -4 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

(1,1)
(-1,-1)
(2,2)
(-2,-2)

QUESTION 34.
The Cartesian form of the polar equation = 1 2 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

x = 2y
y = 2x
x = 4y
y = 4x

QUESTION 35.
The equation of the units circle concentric with x2 + y2 -8x +4y -8 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

x2 + y2 -8x +4y - 8 = 0
x2 + y2 -8x +4y + 8 = 0
x2 + y2 -8x +4y - 28 = 0
x2 + y2 -8x +4y + 19 = 0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

16

QUESTION 36.
The smallest possible value of x satisfying the equation:
logcos x (sin x) + logsin x (cos x) = 2 is
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
1
/4
/2

QUESTION 37.
The value of the expression:
log4 (x3 + x2) log4 (x + 1) = 2
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

QUESTION 38.
log 32 324 =
A.
B.
C.
D.

3
4
6
8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

17

QUESTION 39.
If x = 27 and y = log3 4, then xy =
A. 16
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256

QUESTION 40.
log8128 =
1

A. 16
B. 16
3
C. 7
D.

7
3

QUESTION 41.
lim

A.
B.
C.
D.

1 + 1
2 1

2
1
1/2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

18

QUESTION 42.
lim

A.
B.
C.
D.

+42

2
4
8

QUESTION 43.
[3 2 + 1]
lim
=
[2 2 + 1]
2

A. 3
3

B. 2
2

C.

3
3

D.

QUESTION 44.
2 + 7 sin
=
4 + 3 cos
lim

A. 1
B. -1
C.
1

D. 2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

19

QUESTION 45.
3+4

If 2 3+2 = 2 1 , then values of A and B are:


A.
B.
C.
D.

7,10
10, 7
10, -7
-10, 7

QUESTION 46.
If

1
(12)(1+3)

A.
B.
C.
D.

+
12

1+3

, then 2B =

A
2A
3A
4A

QUESTION 47.
3

=+
+
+
(2 1)( + 2)( 3)
2 1 + 2 3
A=
A.
1
B. 50
8

C. 25
D.

25
27

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

20

QUESTION 48.
The roots of the equation x3 3x 2 = 0 are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-1,1-2
-1,-1,2
-1,2,-3
-1,-1,-2

QUESTION 49.
2

If x = t2, y = t3, then 2 =

A. 3/2
B.
C.
D.

3
4
3
2
3
2

QUESTION 50.

If 3 sin (xy) + 4 cos (xy), then =


A.
B.
C.
D.

y/x
tan (x+y)
x
y

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

21

QUESTION 51.
The solution of the differential equation is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

(1+ 2 )
1+ 2

y x = c(1 + xy)
y + x = c (1 + xy)
y + x = c ( 1- xy)
y x = c( (1- xy)

QUESTION 52.
The solution of the differential equation:

2
1+ 2

= 0 is

A. y = A (1 + x2)

B. y =1+ 2
C. y = A1 + 2
D. y = A/1 + 2

QUESTION 53.
The order of the differential equation is:

( )4 + ( )2 + 4 = 0

A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

22

QUESTION 54.

The solution of 2 = 1 + 2 is
A.
B.
C.
D.

1 - y2 = cx
1 + y2 =cx
1 x2 = cy
1 + x2 = cy

QUESTION 55.
The solution of x dx + y dy = x2ydy xy2 dx is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

x2 -1 = c(1+ y2)
x2 + 1 = c(1- y2)
x2 - 1 = c(1+ y3)
x2 +1 = c(1+ y3)

QUESTION 56.

The solution of 2 + 2 = 4 is:


A.
B.
C.
D.

x2 + y2 = 12x + c
x2 + y2 = 3x + c
x3 + y3 = 3x + c
x3 + y3 = 12x + c

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

23

QUESTION 57.

The solution of + 3 = 1 is
A.
B.
C.
D.

y = 3 + cex/3
y = 3 + ce-x/3
3y = c + ex/3
3y = c + e-x/3

QUESTION 58.

The solution of + 2 = is:


A.
B.
C.
D.

y + x2 + 2x + 2 = cex
y + 2x2 + 2x + 2 = cex
y + x2 + x + 2 = ce2x
y2 + x2 + 2x + 2 = cex

QUESTION 59.
The maximum value of x3 -3x in the interval [0,2] is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-2
0
1
2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

24

QUESTION 60.
The maximum value of f(x) = 2x3 21x2 + 36x + 20 in the interval 0 x 2 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

30
32
37
44

QUESTION 61.
A particle is projected vertically upward follows the relation S = 60 t 16 t2. The velocity (m/s)
of the particle when hits the ground is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

30
45
60
90

QUESTION 62.
A particle moving along a straight line as S = 6t t3, the maximum velocity (m/s) during the
motion is:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

25

QUESTION 63.
The distance travelled by a particle is given by x (m) = t3 12t2 + 6t + 8. The velocity (m/s) of
the particle, when acceleration is zero equals to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-48
-42
42
48

QUESTION 64.
In a triangle ABC, the maximum value of cos A + cos B + cos C is equal to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
3/2
2

QUESTION 65.
The values of (0 < < 360o) that satisfies the equation are:
cosec + 2 = 0
A.
B.
C.
D.

210, 300
340, 300
210, 240
210, 330

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

26

QUESTION 66.
If x = y cos (2/3) = z cos (4/3), then xy + yz + ax =
A.
B.
C.
D.

-1
0
1
2

QUESTION 67.
If sin1 + sin2 + sin3 = 3, then cos1 + cos2 + cos3 =
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
1
2
3

QUESTION 68.
If A lies in the third quadrant and 3tan A 4 = 0, then
5 sin 2A + 3 Sin A + 4 cos A

A. 0
B.
C.
D.

24
5

24
5
48
5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

27

QUESTION 69.
If sin x + sin2x = 1, then
Cos8x + 2 cos6x + cos4x =

A.
B.
C.
D.

-1
0
1
2

QUESTION 70.
1

tan-1 (4) + tan-1 (9) =


3

A. cos-15
3

B. tan-1 5
13

C. tan ( 5 )
D. tan-1

QUESTION 71.
The domain of sin-1 x is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

(0, 2)
(-1, 1)
(-, )
(1,1)

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

28

QUESTION 72.
2

14

The value of cos (15 ) cos ( 15 ) cos ( 15 ) cos ( 15 ) =


A.

1
16
1

B. 8
C.
1
D. 12

QUESTION 73.
sin + sin 2
=
1 + + 2
A.
B.
C.
D.

sin
cos
tan
cot

QUESTION 74.
If tan + cot = 2, then sin =
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
1
3
1
4
1
5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

29

QUESTION 75.
In a ABC, if b = 20, c = 21 and sin A = 3/5, then a =
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
13
14
15

(No solutions for problems 76 through 104)


QUESTION 76.
The distance between the foci of the hyperbola x2 3y2 - 4x 6y 11 = 0 is:
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12

QUESTION 77.
If the distance between the foci of an ellipse is 6 and the length of the minor axis is 8, then the
eccentricity is:
A.
B.
3
C. 5
D.

4
5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

30

QUESTION 78.
A polygon has 54 diagonals. The number of sides is:
A. 7
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12

QUESTION 79.
The equation of the line passing through (-5,2) and (4,-3) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

5x + 9y + 7 = 0
2x + 3y -7 = 0
x+3y=0
2x + 2y + 7 = 0

QUESTION 80.
The characteristic equation 4x2 11xy + 26y2 + 3x + 4y 12 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Straight line
Circle
Ellipse
Hyperbola

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

31

QUESTION 81.
The angle (degrees) between the lines 2x y + 1 = 0 and x y + 3 = 0 is:
A. 9
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24

QUESTION 82.
A circle of radius 5 is drawn about the origin as center. The equation of the tangent to the circle
at the point (-3,-4) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2x + 4y = 16
3x 4y = 16
3x 4y = 25
3x + 4y = 25

QUESTION 83.
The distance from the line 4x 3y + 15 = 0 to the point (-3,6) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

32

QUESTION 84.
The equation of the circle (2,-3) and tangent to the line 12x - 5y + 13 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

x2 + y2 4x + 6y 3 = 0
x2 + y2 + 4x + 6y + 3 = 0
x2 + y2 6x + 8y 13 = 0
x2 + y2 14x + 16y 23 = 0

QUESTION 85.
The center of the equation is 9x2 + 9y2 12x + 54y + 49 = 0 is:
1

A. ( ,2)
2
2

B. (3 , 4)
C. (4,6)
2

D. (3 , 3)

QUESTION 86.
The length of the tangent from the point (3,-2) to the circle 2x2 + 2y2 x + 3y 1 = 0 is :
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.8
2.8
3.8
4.8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

33

QUESTION 87.
The slope of the curve 3x2 8xy + y2 6x + 3y 21 = 0 at (1,-3) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

11
24
23
24
24
11
22
17

QUESTION 88.
The tangent to the ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 100, parallel to the line 3x + 8y 7 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3x + 8y -50 = 0
2x + 2y = 11
3x 8y + 50 = 0
2x + 8y 45 = 0

QUESTION 89.
The equation of the hyperbola whose directrix is the line 3x 4y + 14 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

8x2 -24xy + 15y2 + 90x 108y + 183 = 0


6x2 -24xy + 5y2 + 90x 108y - 183 = 0
8x2 -12xy - 15y2 + 90x + 108y + 183 = 0
x2 -24xy + y2 + 90x 108y + 183 = 0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

34

QUESTION 90.
The intercept of the line 3x 6y 8z + 24 = 0 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3, -4,-8
1,1,1
2,3,4
3,4,-8

QUESTION 91.
The distance from the plane whose intercepts are 3,-2,1 to the point (2,3-4) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-2
-3
-5
-9

QUESTION 92.
2x + 3y = 8
3x + 2y = 2
The values of x and y:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0, 2
2, 2
-2, 4
3,5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

35

QUESTION 93.
The roots of the equation x3 = x2 + 6x are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0,3,-2
1,0,0
2,3,1
1,1,1

QUESTION 94.
The roots of the equation 12x2 8x 15 = 0 are:
A. ,
B.
C.

2
3
3

,6
5

,6
2
1

D. , 4

QUESTION 95.
The roots of the equation x4 13x2 + 36 = 0 are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2,-2,-3
2,2,3
1,2,-3
1,-4,5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

36

QUESTION 96.
4 + 8 + 1 =
The value of x =
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
-4
5
7

QUESTION 97.
2x + 4y 3z = -9
3x + y -2z = 4
5x + 2y + 4z = 28
The values of x, y, z are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1,1,1
3,-2,4
3,4,5
4,-2,3

QUESTION 98.
(3 + ) 7 + (3 ) 7 =
A.
B.
C.
D.

2563
2563
1283
1283

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

37

QUESTION 99.
The value of (23 + 2). (3 + 33) is:
A. 85 12
B. 123 12
C. 125 + 12
D. 125 10

QUESTION 100.
The sum of the series:
1 + 2 +3 +4 ..n
A.
B.

is:

( + 1)

C. (n + 1)
D. N

QUESTION 101.
The sum of the progression 32, -16, 8, ..1/8 is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

11
21
33
44

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

38

QUESTION 102.
The sum of first fifteen numbers in the series is:
10 20 40
5+
+
+
+
3
9 27
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

QUESTION 103.
The sum of the series: 2.1 + 0.021 + 0.00021 + .. is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

QUESTION 104.
The sum of the series:
1 1 1
1
1 + + + + ..
2 4 8
2 1
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

39

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
The function y for the following second order linear homogeneous differential equation is:
y'' + 6y' + 9y = 0, when y(0) = 0, y' (0) = 3
A. 3x + e3x
B. 3xe3x
C. 2x2e1/x
D. x + e3x1

QUESTION 2.
The function y for the following first order linear homogeneous differential equation is:
y' + 5y = 0, when y(0) = 1
A. e5t
B. e-5t
C. 5et
D. -5et

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

40

QUESTION 3.
The solution for (xy + x)2y' + (xy + y)2 = 0 is:

a) 2 x 2 y

1
ln x 2 y C
xy

1
1
b) xy 2 2 ln xy 2 C
y
x
1 1
c) x 2 y 2 ln xy C
xy y
1 1
d) x y ln x 2 y 2 C
x y

QUESTION 4.
Given the following information, the function y equals:
y' = 3(xy)2; y(1) = 1
A. y = (2 x3)-1
B. y = (3 2x2)-2
C. y = (2 + 2x x2)1
D. y = 3x(2 x)3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

41

QUESTION 5.
A general solution for the following differential equation is:
(2 x)y' = y2
A. y2 + 1 / (ln | x 2 |) = C
B. y / (ln | x 2 |) = C
C. y ln | x 2 | = C
D. y-1 + ln | x 2 | = C

QUESTION 6.
The unit vector perpendicular to the following vectors is:
V1 = (1, 2, 1) and V2= (2, 1, 2)
A. (

1
2

, 0,
1

B. (2, 2 , 0)

C. (0,2, 2)
1

D. 1, 2 , 1/2)

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

42

QUESTION 7.
The determinant of A is:

1 2 1
A 3 0
2
2 2 1

A. 4
B. 16
C. 24
D. -16

QUESTION 8.
The inverse of the following matrix is:
1 4

3 11

11 4
]
3
1
11 3
B. [
]
4
1
11 4
C. [
]
3 1
11 4
D. [
]
3 1
A. [

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

43

QUESTION 9.
For the differential equation
2y = 3xy +1
The integrating factor is close to:
A. 3x
3
B. 2

3 2

C. 2

3 2

D. 4

QUESTION 10.
Given
2y = 3xy +1
The solution is:
3

A. = ln (2 2 ) +
3

B. = 2 +
3 2

C. = 4 3
3 2

3 2

D. = [ 4 ] [2 4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

44

QUESTION 11.
The solution for the differential equation is:
8 = 2 10 2
y(0) =1
y(0) = -3/2
9

A. = 4 ln(2)
9

B. = 4 2 4
41

11

C. = 108 108 4 + 36 2
1

D. = + 4 4 4 2

QUESTION 12.
The general solution of the following differential equation:

( 2 + 9)
=

A.
B.
C.
D.

= ( 2 + 9) +
= 2 + 9
= ( 2 + 9)
= 2 9

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

45

QUESTION 13.
The approximate value for the following integral for n =5 is:
1

2 + 1
0

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.00
1.25
1.50
2.00

QUESTION 14.
3

Approximate 2
A.
B.
C.
D.

=1

using Simpsons Rule with n=4

0.187
0.287
0.555
0.875

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

46

QUESTION 15.
A unit vector parallel to the resultant of vectors r1 = 2i +4j -5k, r2 = i+2j+3k is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3
7
1
7
3
5
1

+ 7 7
+ 7 7
+ 7 + 4

+ 7 + 7

QUESTION 16.
The angle between A = 2i +2j k and B = 6i -3j +2k is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

29
49
79
90

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

47

QUESTION 17.
The projection of the vector A = I -2j +k on the vector B =4i -4j +7k is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
19
2
19
19
9
3
19

QUESTION 18.
Determine a unit vector perpendicular to the plane of A = 2i -6j -3k and B = 4i +3j k is:
A.

3
7
1

7 + 7
3

B. +
7
7
C. +
D. 2 3 + 4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

48

QUESTION 19.
The work done in moving an object along a vector r = 3i +2j -5k, if the applied force is F = 2i j
k is:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

QUESTION 20.
The distance from the origin to the plane of vectors A = 2i +3j +6k and B = i+5j+3k is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
5
7
9

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

49

QUESTION 21.
If A x B =0 and if A and B are not zero, then the angle between A and B is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
25
45
90

QUESTION 22.
||2 + |. |2 =
A.
B.
C.
D.

A.B
||2 ||2
2 2
. 2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

50

QUESTION 23.
If A = 2i -3j-k and B = i+4j -2k then, (A+B) x (A-B) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-10i +10j -12k


-20i 6 j- 22k
-5i +2j +k
10i +10k

QUESTION 24.
If A = 3i j +2k and B = 2i +j k, C = i -2j +2k, then A x (B x C) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

24i +7j -5k


12i j k
24i -5k +7k
7i -24j -5k

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

51

QUESTION 25.
The area of the triangle with vertices at P(1,3,2), Q(2,-1,1) and R(-1,2,3) is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
1
3
1
2
5
6

54
107
107
10

QUESTION 26.
A unit vector perpendicular to the plane of A = 2i -6j -3k and B = 4i +3j k is:

A.

3
7

7 + 7
3

B. 7 7 + 7
2

C. 7 7 7
D. 15 10 + 30

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

52

QUESTION 27.
The value of (2i-3j).[(i+j-k) x(3i-k)] is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

QUESTION 28.

R = Sint i + Cost j + tk, the magnitude of | | =


A.
B.
C.
D.

2
1
12
5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

53

QUESTION 29.
A particle moves along a curve whose parametric equations are x = e-t, y =2cos 3t and z = 2sin
3t, where t is the time. The magnitude of its velocity at time t = 0 is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

37
9
101
21

QUESTION 30.
A particle moves along the curve x = 2t2, y =t2 -4t, z = 3t-5, where t is the time. The magnitude
of the direction at time t =1 in the direction i-3j +2k is:

16

A.
14
B. 14
C. 12
D. 16

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

54

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

55

SOLUTIONS

PART-I
QUESTION 1
Center:
( 1)2 ( 1)2
+
=1
9
16
The center is (1,1)
QUESTION 2
2 + 2 +
Therefore:

5
+ =0
2 2 2

0 + 0 + 0 0 +

5
5
=
2
2

QUESTION 3
Given:
2 = 8 = 2
2 = 4 2
Equating the two ys
4 2 = 8, 4 2 8 = 0
= 0, 2
The area under the curve:
2

= 2 8
0

= [ 2

42 3
2]
3

Substituting the limits:


= 4

16 4
=
3
3

QUESTION 4
9 2 + 5 2 30 = 0
9 2 + 5( 2 6) = 0
9 2 + 5( 3)2 = 45
Or
2 ( 3)2
+
=1
5
9
The eccentricity can be found using:
2 = 2 (1 2 )
5 = 9(1 2 ) = 2/3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

56

QUESTION 5
2 = 2 (1 2 )
Given, 2a =3; and a = 3b
2 = 9 2 (1 2 ) =

22
3

QUESTION 6
Length of latus rectum of 2 4 2 = 4
2 2

=1
4
1
2 2
2
=
= =1

2
QUESTION 7
4 + 5 = 20

+ =1
5 4
Area:
1
20 = 10
2
QUESTION 8
4
Slope of (2,-3) and (-5,1) is 7 = 1
4

Slope of (7,-1) and (0,3) is 7 = 2


Since the slopes are equal, the lines are parallel to each other and the angle is zero
QUESTION 9
Given:
2 3 6 + 6 = 0
( 3)2 = 3 6 9
( 3)2 = 3( 1)
Axis of the parabola x =3
QUESTION 10
9 2 16 2 + 72 32 16 = 0
9( 2 + 8) 16( 2 + 2) = 16
9( + 4)2 16( + 1)2 = 16 16 + 144
( + 4)2 ( + 1)2

=1
16
9
2 = 2 (1 2 )
5
9 = 16 ( 2 1) =
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

57

QUESTION 11
Given
= = 3
Finding the roots of equation for x; x = 0 or 1
1

= ( 3 )
0

[ 4 /4 ]
Substituting the limits for x 0 and 1, we have the area under the curve as

QUESTION 12
Given
= 1 + 8/ 2
The area under the curve is:
4

[1 + 8/ 2 ]
2

Or
[ 8/]4
Substituting the limits, the area under the curve is: 4 units
QUESTION 13
The number of diagonals of a polygon is:
( 3)
= 35 = 10
2
QUESTION 14
Eccentricity is calculated as:
2 2
16 9 7

=
=
=
2
16
4
QUESTION 15
4
Given (, 0) = (4,0); = 5
a = 5;
2 = 2 (1 2 ) = 9
2 2
+
=1
25 9
QUESTION 16
Given 3x +4y -1 = 0, is a tangent to the circle with a center (4,1)
Radius of the circle is:
(3)(4) + 4 1
=3
32 + 42
The equation of the circle is:
( 4)2 + ( 1)2 = 9
Or
2 + 2 8 2 + 8 = 0
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

58

QUESTION 17
Equation of the parabola is:
2 2 6 5 = 0
2 6 + 9 = 2 + 14
( 3)2 = 2( + 7)
Equation of the directrix is:
+7+
QUESTION 18

1
= 0 2 + 15 = 0
2

= 5 + 12
2 = 5 + 12
2 + 2 = 5 + 12
2
+ 2 5 12 = 0
Therefore the equation is a circle.
QUESTION 19
Equation of the line: = +
Slope m = 1
y intercept c =3
=+3
QUESTION 20
Given:
2 + 12 19 = 0
( + 6)2 = 9( + 4)
Vertex therefore (-6,-4)
QUESTION 21
Given
2 4 8 4 = 0
( 2)2 = 8( + 1)
Focus:
( + , ) = (1 + 2, 2) = (1,2)
QUESTION 22
Given:
1 1 3
= +
8 8
8
= 1 + 3

e=3, therefore the equation is a hyperbola

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

59

QUESTION 23
Given:
= 3 2 + 7

= 3 2 2

dy/dx at (1,6)
3(1)2 2 = 1
Therefore, the equation of the tangent is:
6 = 1( 1)
=+5
QUESTION 24
Given y2 = 4x

1
(4,4) = (1 )

For x2 = 4y

(4,4) = 2 (2 )

1 2
=
1 + 1 2
Substituting the values,
3
= 1 ( )
4
QUESTION 25
Given
2 + 2 + 6 + 4 3 = 0
(3, 2)
The tangent that passes through the center at (1,-2) is:
+2=0
QUESTION 26
Given:
16x2 + y2 + 8xy 74x 78y + 212 = 0
2 = 16 16 = 0
Therefore, the equation is a parabola.
QUESTION 27.
Given:
1

= 22

1
= 1

Or e= 1, the equation is a circle

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

60

QUESTION 28
Given:
6y = 7 x3

1
(1,1) =

2
Equation of the tangent is:
1
1 = ( 1)
2
+ 2 3 = 0
QUESTION 29
Focus is (a,0) or (3,0), therefore a =3
Directrix:
+ = 0 + 3 = 0
Equation of the parabola is:
2 = 4
2 = 12
QUESTION 30
Ellipse:
2 2
+
=1
9
5
=

2 2
95 2

=
=
2
9
3

Hyperbola:
2

45 = 1
9
4
2

45
(9 + 4 ) 3
2 + 2

=
=
=
2
9
2

Therefore e.e:
2 3
= =1
3 2
QUESTION 31
Given:
= , =

1 =
= = cos ( ) = 1/2

2 =
= = sin ( ) = 1/2

4
1 2
1
= [
]
1 + 1 2
1 (22)

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

61

QUESTION 32
Given: 36x2 + 144y2 - 36x 96y -119 = 0
=

144 36 3
=
144
2

QUESTION 33
Given: r2 4r (cos + sin) -4 = 0
The Cartesian equation of the circle is:
2 + 2 4 4 4 = 0
( 2)2 + ( 2)2 = 4
Center is: (2,2)
QUESTION 34
Given: = 1 2
= 2

2 = 0 = 2

QUESTION 35
Given: x2 3y2 - 4x 6y 11 = 0
( 2)2 ( + 1)2
+
=1
12
4
Distance between the foci can be calculated as: 2ae
= 22 + 2 = 8
QUESTION 36
2 + 2 8 + 4 + = 0
(4, 2); : 16 + 4
20 = 1 = 19
Therefore,
2 + 2 8 + 4 + 19 = 0
QUESTION 37
= log cos sin
1
+ = 2 2 2 + 1 = 0

( 1)2 = 0 = 1

log cos sin = 1 =


4
QUESTION 38
log 4 [ 3 + 2 ] log 4 ( + 1) = 2
3 + 2
log 4
=2
( + 1)
2 log 4 = 2 = 4
QUESTION 39
log 32 324 = log 32 [32]4 = 4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

62

QUESTION 40
= 27, = log 3 4
= (27)log3 4
= 33 log3 4 = 3log3 64 = 64
QUESTION 41
lim

1 + + 1

2 1

1
+ 1

1
2

QUESTION 42
( + 4 + 2
=4
0 ( + 4) 4
lim

QUESTION 43
1
3+ 2 3
3 2 + 1

lim
= lim
=
1
2 2 + 1

2+ 2 2

QUESTION 44
7
2+
2 + 7 sin
2 1
lim
= lim
=
3 4 2
4 + 3

4 +
QUESTION 45
3 + 4

=
+
3 + 2
( 2) 1
3 + 4

=
+
( 2)( 1) ( 2) 1
6+4
3+4
=
= 10 =
= 7
1
1
2

QUESTION 46
1

=
+
(1 2)(1 + 3)
1 2 1 + 3
1 = (1 + 3) + (1 2)
1
3
= ; =
3
5
1
= ; = 2/5
2
6
2 = = 3
5
QUESTION 47
3
3

=
+
+
+
3
(2 1)( + 2)( 3)
2 1 2 3
1
1
3 = =
2
2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

63

QUESTION 48
By observing the equation, the roots are -1,1, and -2 (one can work backwards)
QUESTION 49
= 2; = 3
3 2 3
=
=
2
2
3

3
3
=

=
2
2.2 4
QUESTION 50
3 sin() + 4 cos() = 5
=
3 sin + 4 cos = 5

[3 cos 4 sin ]
= 0

[3 cos 4 sin ] [
+ ] = 0

QUESTION 51

1 + 2
=

1 + 2

=
2
1+
1 + 2
tan1 tan1 = tan1

= = (1 + )
1 +

QUESTION 52

2
=
1 + 2
1
2

= 0

1 + 2
log log(1 + 2 ) = log
= (1 + 2 )
QUESTION 53
The order of the differential equation is 1
QUESTION 54

= 1 + 2

=
2
1+

2)
log(1 + = log + log
1 + 2 =
2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

64

QUESTION 55
+ = 2 2
(1 + 2 ) = (1 2 )

2
1
1 + 2
log( 2 1) = log(1 + 2 ) +
2 1 = (1 + 2 )
QUESTION 56

=4

(4 2 ) = 2
2 + 2

Integrating both sides:


3 + 3 = 12 +
QUESTION 57

+ =1
3
Integrating factor:
1

3 = 3

3 = 3

3 = 3 3 +

= 3 + 3

QUESTION 58
+ 2 =

= 2

Integrating factor:

= 1 =
Solution:
= 2
= [ 2 + 2 + 2] +
+ 2 + 2 + 2 =
QUESTION 59
() = 3 3
() = 3 2 3 = 0; = 1
() = 6 < 0; 6 = 1
= 1 + 3 = 2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

65

QUESTION 60
() = 2 3 21 2 + 36 + 20

= 6 2 42 + 36 0 = 1 2
() = 12 42
(1) = 30 < 0
(2) = 24 42 = 18 < 0
(1) = 37 (2) = 24
Therefore, the maximum value is 37
()

QUESTION 61

= 60 32

For initial velocity t=0, h = 60


QUESTION 62

3
= 6 2

2
2
= 3
2

For maximum velocity, 2 = 0


At t= 0, the maximum velocity is 6 m/s
QUESTION 63
= 3 12 2 + 6 + 8

=
= 3 2 24 + 6

=
= 6 24 = 0

At t= 4, V = -42 m/s
QUESTION 64
= + = 60
1 1 1 3
+ + = + + =
2 2 2 2
QUESTION 65
+ 2 = 0
= 2 sin =
= 120 330

1
2

QUESTION 66
2
4
= cos
= cos
3
3

= = =
2
2
2
2
+ + =
+ 2
=0
2
2
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

66

QUESTION 67
sin 1 + sin 2 + sin 3 = 3

1 +2 + 3 =
2
cos 1 + cos 2 + cos 3 = 0
QUESTION 68
3 4 = 0
4
tan =
3
24
4
3
5 sin 2 + 3 sin + 4 = 5
3 4 = 0
25
5
5
QUESTION 69
+ 2 = 1
sin = 2
8 + 2 6 + 4 = ( 4 + 2 )2
(2 + 2 )2 = 1
QUESTION 70
1 2
+
1
2
1
tan1 + tan1 = tan1 4 9 = tan1
2
4
9
2
1 36
QUESTION 71
Domain of sin1 [0. 2]
QUESTION 72
cos

2
4
8
14
1
cos
cos
cos
=
15
15
15
15
16

QUESTION 73
sin + sin 2
sin + 2 sin cos
=
1 + cos + 2
cos + 2 2
sin (1 + 2)
=
= tan
cos (1 + 2 )
QUESTION 74
1
=2

= 45 225
1
sin =
2

tan +

QUESTION 75
3
4
, =
5
5
2 = 2 + 2 2
sin =

Substituting the values, a = 13

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

67

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
Characteristic equation:
r2 + 6r + 9 = 0
a2 = 4b
General homogeneous solution: y = c1e-3x + c2xe-3x
Initial Condition

y(0) = 0
0 = c1e0 + 0
c1 = 0
y = c2xe-3x and
y' = c2e-3x 3c2xe-3x

Initial Condition

y'(0) = 3
3 = c2 0
c2 = 3

Initial value problem solution: y = 3xe-3x


QUESTION 2.
General first order homogeneous solution:
y + ay = 0

with solution of y = Ce-at

so,
y + 5y = 0
y = Ce-5t
Initial Condition
y(0) = 1:
1 = Ce-5(0)
C=1
Initial value problem solution: y = e-5t

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

68

QUESTION 3.
This is a separable first order differential equation and we write it as:
(xy + y)2dx + (xy + x)2dy = 0
y2(x + 1)2dx + x2(y + 1)2dy = 0

x 12 dx y 12 dy 0
x2

y2

x2 2x 1
y2 2 y 1

dy 0
dx

x2
y2

Therefore, the solution is given by:

2 1
1
dx 1 2 dy c
2

y y

1 x x

Where, c is an arbitrary constant.


By integration we obtain:
1 1
x y lnx 2 y 2 c
x y

QUESTION 4.
y1 3(xy)2
dy
Rewrite:
3x 2 y 2
dx
dy
3x 2 dx
y2
dy
2
yz 3x dx c
1
x3 c
y

Initial values:
-1 = 1+c
c = -2

1
= 3 2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

69

1
= 2 3

1
=
2 3
QUESTION 5.
dy
y2

dx 2 x
y 2 dy

dy

dx
x2

dx
C
x2

1
ln x 2 C
y

QUESTION 6.
First, find a vector orthogonal to v1 and v2 by taking the cross-product:

v 3 v1 v 2


i j k
1 2 1 (22 12 , 2 2, 12 22 )

2 1 2

= (3, 0, 3)
Now, make it a unit vector by dividing it by its own length:
v unit

v3

v3

3,0, 3
2
32 02 3

3,0, 3
3 2

1
1

,0,

2
2

QUESTION 7.

1 2 1
A 3 0
2
2 2 1

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

70

A = (1)(0)(-1) + (2)(2)(2) + (-1)(3)(-2) (-1)(0)(2) (2)(3)(-1) (1)(2)(-2)


A = (0) + (8) + (6) (0) (-6) (-4)
A = 8 + 6 + 6 + 4 = 24

QUESTION 8.
We write down an augmented matrix consisting of the given one followed by the identity matrix.
Then we perform row operations so that the identity matrix appears on the left.
1 4
3 11

1 4
0 1

1 0
0 1
0
3 1
1

1 4
0 1

1 0
3 1

1 0
0 1

11
3

The inverse is

Multiply first row by (3) and add to second row

Multiply second row by 1


Multiply second row by (4) and add to first row

4
1
11 4
3
1

QUESTION 9.
The differential equation can be arranged as:
=

3
+ 1
2

The integrating factor is:

3 2

0 2 = 4
QUESTION 10.
=

1
( ()() + )
()

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

71

3
2 1
4
( ) +
3 2 (
2

4
3 2 1
3 2
4 ( 4 + )

QUESTION 11.
The homogeneous equation:
2 + 10 + 8 = 0
The characteristic equation is:
2 + (

10
8
) + = 0
2
2

The roots of the equation are:


( 1)( 4) = 0; = 1; 4
Therefore,
5
25
2 = ( )2 =
>=4
2
4
= 1 1 + 2 2
= 1 + 2 4
Assume the particular solution is of the form e-2x since that is the form of the non homogeneous
forcing function.
= 3 2
The first and second derivatives are:
= 23 2
= 43 2
2 + 10 + 8 = 2
2(43 2 ) + 10(23 2 ) + 8(3 2 ) = 2
1
83 203 + 83 = 1; 3 =
4
Complete solution:
= +
1
1 + 2 4 2
4
Evaluate the unknown coefficients:
1
(0) = 1 = 1 (0) + 2 4(0) 2(0)
4
1
1 = 1 + 2
4
1 + 2 = 5/4
3
(0) =
2
1
= 1 (0) 42 4(0) + 2(0)
2
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

72

3
1
= 1 42 +
2
2
Solving for C1 and C2;
1 = 1; 2 =

1
4

The complete solution is:

= +

QUESTION 12.
Separate the variables:
( 2 + 9) = ()

=( 2
)

+9
Integrate

= ( 2
)

+9
1
() = ln( 2 + 9) +
2
= 2 + 9

The general solution is:


= 2 + 9
QUESTION 13.
Here a = 0 and b =1
10
=
= 0.2

5
(0) = () = (0) = 02 + 1 = 1
=

1 = ( + ) = (0.2) = 0.22 + 1 = 1.0198039


2 = ( + 2) = (0.4) = 0.42 + 1 = 1.0770330
3 = ( + 3) = (0.6) = 0.62 + 1 = 1.166904
4 = ( + 4) = (0.8) = 0.82 + 1 = 1.2806248
1 = ( + 5) = (1.0) = 12 + 1 = 1.4142136
So the area:
1
1
= 0.2 ( 1 + 1.01198039 + 1.0770330 + 1.1661904 + 1.2806248 + 1.4142136) = 1.150
2
2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

73
QUESTION 14.

32
= 0.25
4

1
= 0.3333
2+1
1
1 = ( + ) = (2.25) =
= 0.3076923
2.25 + 1
1
2 = ( + 2) = (2.5) =
= 0.0.2857142
2.5 + 1
1
3 = ( + 3) = (2.75) =
= 0.266667
2.75 + 1
1
4 = ( + 4) = (3.0) =
= 0.25
3+1
(0) = () = (2) =

= () =

0.25
[0.333333 + 4(0.3076923) + 2(0.2857142) + 4(0.2666667) + 0.25 = 0.2876831
3

QUESTION 15.
Resultant R = r1 + r2
(2 + 4 5) + ( + 2 + 3) = 3 + 6 2
= || = |3 + 6 2| = 32 + 62 + 22 = 7
A unit vector parallel to R is R/7.
3 + 6 2 3
6
2
=
= +
7
7
7
7 7
QUESTION 16.
. =
= 22 + 22 + (1)2 = 3; = 62 + (3)2 + 22 = 7
.
4
=
=
= 0.1905; = 79
(3)(7)

QUESTION 17.

A unit vector in the direction B is b = ||


=

4 4 + 7

4
4
7
+
9
9
9

42 + (4)2 + 72
The projection of A on the vector B = A.b
4
4
7
4
4
7
19
( 2 + ) ( + ) = (1) ( ) + (2) ( ) + (1) ( ) =
9
9
9
9
9
9
9

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

74

QUESTION 18.
Let vector C =c1i +c2j +c3k be perpendicular to the plane of A and B. Then C is perpendicular to
A and also to B. Hence:
. = 21 62 33 = 0
. = 41 + 32 3 = 0
Solving the above equations, we have:
1
1 = 3
2
1
2 =

3 3
1
1
= 3 ( + )
2
3
Then a unit vector in the direction of C is C/[C]
1
1
3 (2 3 + )
3
2 6
=
= +
2
7
7 7
32 [1 + ( 1)2 + 12 ]
2
3
QUESTION 19.
Work done = (magnitude of force in the direction of motion)(distance moved)
()() = .
(2 )(3 + 2 5) = 6 2 + 5 = 9
QUESTION 20.
The distance from the origin to the plane is the projection of B on A
A unit vector in the direction of A is a

2 + 3 + 6
2
3
6
=
=
= + +
||
7
7
22 + (3)2 + 62 7
Then projection of B on A is B.a
2
3
6
( + 5 + 3). ( + + ) = 5
7
7
7
QUESTION 21.
= = 0, = 0, = 0 180
QUESTION 22.
= = ||2 + ||2
2 2 2 + 2 2 2 = 2 2 = ||2 ||2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

75

QUESTION 23.
+ = (2 3 ) + ( + 4 2) = 3 + 3
= (2 3 ) ( + 4 2) = 7 +
Then
( + ) ( ) = (3 + 3) ( 7 + )

[3
1

1 3
3 1
3 3
][
]+[
] = 20 6 22
1 3] = [
7 1
1 1
1 7
7 1

QUESTION 24.

= [2 1 1] = 0 5 5
1 2 2


() = (3 + 2)(5 5) = [3 1 2] = 15 + 15 15
0 5 5
QUESTIOIN 25.
= (2 1) + (1 3) + (1 2) = 4
= (1 1) + (2 3) + (3 2) = 2 +
The area of triangle:
1
1
| | = |( 4 )(2 + )|
2
2

1
1
1
1
[ 1
4 1] = |5 + 9| = 52 + 12 + 92 = 107
2
2
2
2
21 1 1
QUESTION 26.
Ax B is a vector perpendicular to the plane of A and B

= [2 6 3] = 15 10 + 30
4 3 1
QUESTION 27.
2 3 0
[1 1 1] = 4
3 0 1

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

76

QUESTION 28.

= () + (cos ) + () = +

| | = ()2 + ()2 + (1)2 = 2

QUESTION 29.
The position vector of the particle:
= + +
Then the velocity is:

=
= 6 sin 3 + 6 cos 3

At t = 0,

= 1 + 6

The magnitude of the velocity at t =0 is:


(1)2 + (6)2 = 37
QUESTION 30.
Velocity:

= [2 2 + ( 2 4) + (3 5)]

= 4 + (2 4) + 3 = 4 2 + 3 = 1
Unit vector in the direction i-3j +2k is:
3 + 2

3 + 2

14
12 + (3)2 + (2)2
Then the component of the velocity in the given direction is:
(4 2 + 3). ( 3 + 2)
16
=
14
14

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

77

Probability and Statistics


Total Questions 4-6
A. Probability distributions
B. Regression and curve fitting

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

78

PART-I
QUESTION 1.
The probability of drawing a pair of aces in two cards, when an ace has been drawn on the first
card is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1/13
1/26
3/51
4/51

QUESTION 2.
There are ten defective parts per 1000 parts of a product. The probability that there is one and
only one defective part in a random lot of 100 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

99 x 0.0199
0.01
0.5
0.9999

QUESTION 3.
The probability that both stages of a two-stage missile will function correctly is 0.95. The
probability that the first stage will function is 0.98. The probability that the second stage will
function correctly given that the first one does is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.95
0.97
0.98
0.99

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

79

QUESTION 4.
A standard deck of 52 playing cards is thoroughly shuffled. The probability that the first four
cards dealt from the deck will be four aces is closet to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4 x 10-6
4 x10-4
8 x 10-2
2 x 10-1

QUESTION 5.
The number of teams of four can be formed from 35 people is:
A. 25,000
B. 50,000
C. 75,000
D. 100,000

QUESTION 6.
The number of three-letter codes may be formed from the English alphabet if no repetitions are
allowed is:
A.
8
B. 5900
C. 15,600
D. 22,100

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

80

QUESTION 7.
A tool has three parts, A, B and C with probabilities of 0.1, 0.2 and 0.25, respectively of being
defective. The probability that exactly one of these parts is defective is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.005
0.375
0.55
0.95

QUESTION 7.
If three students work on a certain math question, student A has a probability of success of 0.5,
student B, 0.4 and student C, 0.3. If they work independently, the probability that no one works
the question successfully is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.12
0.21
0.25
0.32

QUESTION 9.
The probability of drawing an ace or a spade or both from a deck of cards is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3/13
4/17
4/13
5/13

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

81

QUESTION 10.
Six dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that all will show different faces is:
A.
B.
C.

5!
65
5!
63
5!
64

D. 36

QUESTION 11.
If standard deviation for two variable X and Y is 3 and 4, respectively and their covariance is 8,
the correlation coefficient between them is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2/3
2/9
1/6
1/3

QUESTION 12.
Two cards drawn in succession from a pack of 52 cards. First card should be a king and the
second a queen. The probability when the first card is replaced is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1/169
2/663
4/169
3/169

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

82

QUESTION 13.
From a pack of regular playing cards, two cards are drawn at random. The probability that both
cards will be kings, if the first card is not replaced is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.26
1/52
1/169
1/221

QUESTION 14.
Standard deviation for 7, 9,11,13,15 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.2
2.4
2.6
2.8

QUESTION 15.
A bin contains 12 good parts and 6 minor defective parts and 2 major defective parts. A part is
chosen at random, the probability the part is good is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3/5
3/10
2/5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

83

QUESTION 16.
When two balls are drawn from a bag containing 2 white, 4 red and 6 black balls, the probability
that both of them would be red is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4/11
3/11
2/11
1/11

QUESTION 17.
A box contains 10 parts out of which 4 are defective. Two parts are taken out together, one of
them is found to be good, and the probability that the other part is also good is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1/3
8/15
5/13
2/3

QUESTION 18.
A question is given to three students. The chance of solving it individually is 1/3, , 1/5. The
probability that the question will be solved is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1/5
2/5
3/5
4/5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

84

QUESTION 19.
The probability of getting a total of 10 in a single throw of two dice is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1/9
1/12
1/6
5/36

QUESTION 20.
The probability of getting exactly 2 tails from 6 tosses of a fair coin is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3/8

15/64
49/44

QUESTION 21.
How many different committees of 5 can be formed from 6 men and 4 women on which exactly
3 men and 2 women serve?
A.
6
B. 20
C. 60
D. 120

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

85

QUESTION 22.
The probability of success that A can solve a question is 2/3 and B can solve is . What is the
probability that the question can get solved is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

11/12
7/12
5/12
9/12

QUESTION 23.
Six coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting at least 4 heads is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

11/64
11/32
15/44
21/32

QUESTION 24.
If P(A) = , P(B) = , P(A u B) = 5/8, then P(AB) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3/8
1/8
7/8
5/8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

86

QUESTION 25.
The probability that a number selected at random from the set of numbers (1, 2, 3100) is a
perfect cube is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1/25
2/25
3/25
4/25

QUESTION 26.
When two dice are thrown, the probability of getting a total of 10 or 11 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

7/36
5/36
5/18
7/18

QUESTION 27.
If A and B are two events such that P(A u B) = 5/6 P (AB) = 1/3, P(A) = 2/3 then A and B are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dependent events
Independent events
Mutually exclusive events
Mutually exclusive and independent

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

87

QUESTION 28.
Two dice are thrown at a time and the sum of the numbers on them is 6. The probability of
getting the number 4 on any of the dice is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2/5
1/5
2/3
1/3

QUESTION 29
A coin is tossed 3 times. The probability of getting head once and tail two times is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1/3

3/8

QUESTION 30.
The probabilities of two events A and B are 0.25 and 0.40, respectively. The probability of that
both A and B occur is 0.15. The probability that neither A nor B occurs is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.35
0.65
0.50
0.75

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

88

QUESTION 31.
A bag contains 5 black balls, 4 white balls and 3 red balls. If a ball is selected at random, the
probability that it is a black or red ball is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1/3

5/12
2/3

QUESTION 32.
In a binominal distribution, the probability of getting a success is and the standard deviation is
3. The mean is:
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

QUESTION 33.
A bag contains 6 white and 4 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random. The probability that
they are of the same color is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
15
2
5
4
15
7
15

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

89

QUESTION 34.
Given that the events A and B are such that P(A) = , P(AB) = and P(BA) = 2/3, then P(B)
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1/6
1/3
2/3

QUESTION 35.
The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5 and 10 is 6 and the variance is 6.80. The possible values of a
and b:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3,4
0,7
5,2
1,6

QUESTION 36.
Suppose A and B are two events that P(AB) = 3/25, and P(A-B) = 8/28. The P(B) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

11/25
3/11
1/11
9/11

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

90

QUESTION 37.
In a normal distribution the mean plus two standard distributions estimates the _____ percentile
of the distribution.

A.
B.
C.
D.

97.5
95.0
Lower 90.0
Middle 84.0

QUESTION 38.
Given the following set of numbers 10, 12, 14, and 18 what is the Standard Deviation (SD)?

A.
B.
C.
D.

13.5
11.67
5.6
3.4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

91

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
A firm rents cars from three rental agencies: 60% from agency D, 20% from agency E, and the
rest from agency F. If 12% of the cars from D have bad tires, 4% from E have bad tires, and 10%
from F have bad tires, what is the probability that a car that is rented will have bad tires?
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.02
0.10
0.20
0.24

QUESTION 2.
Suppose a set of ten parts is known to contain 20% defects. What is the best answer for the
probability of selecting two good parts when sampling without replacement?

A. 0.80
B. 0.64
C. 0.62
D. 0.16

QUESTION 3.
A machine is producing metal pieces that are cylindrical in shape. A sample of the pieces is
taken and the diameters (in cm) are:
1.01, 0.97, 1.03, 1.04, 0.99, 0.98, 1.01, and 1.03.
The variance for the sample is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.000057
0.00057
0.0057
0.057

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

92

QUESTION 4.
A production process outputs plastics with strengths that follow a normal distribution function.
The mean strength of plastics produced is 32.0kN/m2 and the standard deviation is 2.5 kN/m2.
What is the probability that a sample of plastic chosen from this process with have a strength less
than 36.0 kN/m2?

A. 0.8159
B. 0.9032
C. 0.9192
D. 0.9452

QUESTION 5.
The traffic light at Main Street and Broadway is either green, red, or yellow for Main Street
traffic with the following probabilities:
P(green) = 0.7 P(red) = 0.25 P(yellow) = 0.05
What is the probability that 3 out of 5 cars on Main Street get a green light at the intersection?
A. 0.1852
B. 0.3087
C. 0.4242
D. 0.6030

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

93

QUESTION 6.
The standard deviation of the daily production at a steel mill is s = 10 tons. After sampling for
the past 30 days, the average output was 125 tons. What is the best choice for a 90% confidence
interval for the true population mean of daily production?

A. [122, 128]
B. [115, 135]
C. [118, 132]
D. [110, 140]

QUESTION 7.
From a large group of people, 4 persons were weighed as: 139, 152, 160, and 173 lbs. What is a
good estimate for a 95% confidence interval for the whole group mean?
A. [153, 159]
B. [148, 164]
C. [145, 167]
D. [133, 179]

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

94

QUESTION 8.
What is most nearly the sample standard deviation using the following data?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.091
0.098
0.198
0.320

QUESTION 9.
Testing has shown that, on the average, 3% of the bearings produced at a factory are defective.
12 bearings are chosen at random. The probability that exactly two of them are defective is most
nearly
A. 0.036
B. 0.044
C. 0.059
D. 0.066

QUESTION 10.
The final scores of students in a graduate course are distributed normally with a mean of 72 and a
standard deviation of 10. What is the probability that a students score will be between 65 and
78?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.28
0.38
0.48
0.58

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

95

QUESTION 11.
The least squares method is used to plot a straight line through the data points (5,5), (3,2),
(2,3), and (1, 7). The correlation coefficient is most nearly
A. 0.80
B. 0.88
C. 0.92
D. 0.97

QUESTION 12.
The best curve of the form
y ab x

is fitted to the (x, y) points (2.0, 8.8), (3.1, 9.5), (5.5, 10.8), and (6.8, 11.3). The value of b is
most nearly

A. 0.015
B. 0.48
C. 0.52
D. 2.1

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

96

QUESTION 13.
When operating properly, a plant has a daily production rate that is normally distributed with a
mean of 144 kg/d and a standard deviation of 25 kg/d. During an analysis period, the output is
measured on 30 consecutive days, and the mean output is found to be 135 kg/d. The probability
(%) that the plant is not operating properly is most nearly
A. 1
B. 5
C. 95
D. 99

QUESTION 14.
Suppose that the life of light bulbs forms a normal distribution with a mean life of 5000 hours
and a standard deviation of 1000 hours. The probability that the life of a randomly selected light
bulb will last more than 6500 hours most nearly is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.0500
0.0668
0.1023
0.1732

QUESTION 15.
Four data points have been observed as follows:
i
1
2
3
4

xi
yi
2.0 5.1
1.5 4.2
3.6 7.5
5.7 10.4

Using linear least-square regression, the equation that best fits this data is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

y = 2.3 +1.5x
y = 2.3 +2.1x
y = 1.5 +2.1x
y = 1.5 +1.5x
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

97

QUESTION 16.
The yield of a chemical process is being studied. The past 5 days of plant operation have resulted
in the following yields: 91.5, 88.7, 90.8, 89.9 and 92.1. Test hypotheses are H0 = mean yield,
=90% versus H1; 90%. The P-value of this statistical test most nearly is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.0500
0.2515
0.3125
0.4975

QUESTION 17.
The life in hours of batteries is known to be approximately normally distributed with a standard
deviation of 25 hours. A random sample of 10 batteries resulted in the following data: 535, 541,
562, 551, 573, 528, 565, 548, 543, 567 hours. The 95% two sided confidence interval on the
mean battery life is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

[525.1, 560.4]
[535.8, 566.8]
[528.0, 573.0]
[545.3, 557.3]

QUESTION 19.
The sample standard deviation of 5 data points 1,3,4,6 and 6 is:

A. 35
B. 3/2
C. 3
D. 5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

98

QUESTION 20.
Two cards are randomly selected from a deck of 52 playing cards (excluding the two jokers).
The probability that the both selected cards are diamonds most nearly is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

1
52
1
26
1
17
1
13

QUESTION 21.
The number of messages sent per hour over a computer network has the following distribution:
x= number of messages 10
11
12
13
14
15
f(x)
0.08 0.15 0.30 0.20 0.20 0.07
The expected number of messages sent per hour over the computer network is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

11.0
11.5
12.0
12.5

QUESTION 22.
The number of messages sent per hour over a computer network has the following distribution:
x= number of messages 10
11
12
13
14
15
f(x)
0.08 0.15 0.30 0.20 0.20 0.07
The standard deviation of the number of messages sent per hour over the computer network is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.00
1.25
1.36
1.50
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

99

QUESTION 23.
The amount of a particular impurity in a batch of a certain chemical product is a random variable
with mean value 4.0g and a standard deviation 1.5g. If 50 batches are independently prepared,
what is probability that the sample average amount of impurity is between 3.5 and 3.8 g?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1345
0.1445
0.1545
0.1645

QUESTION 24.
A mutual fund company offers its customers several different funds: a money market fund, three
different bond funds (moderate and high-risk) and a balanced fund. Among customers who own
shares in just one fund, the percentages of customers in the different funds are as follows:
Money market:20%
Short bond: 15%
Intermediate bond: 10%
Long bond: 5%
High risk stock: 18%
Moderate risk stock: 25%
Balanced: 7%

A customer who owns shares in just one fund is randomly selected. The probability that the
selected individual does not won shares in a stock fund is nearly:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.27
0.37
0.47
0.57

QUESTION 25.
Consider the type of clothes dryer (gas or electric) purchased by each of five different customers
at a certain store. If the P (all five purchase gas) is 0.116 and P(all five purchase electric) =
0.005, the probability that at least one of each type is purchased is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.478
0.599
0.687
0.879
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

100

QUESTION 26.
A little league team has 15 players on its roster. Suppose 5 of the 15 players are left-handed.
How many ways are there to select 3 left-handed outfielders and have all 6 other positions
occupied by right handed players?

A.
B.
C.
D.

1,700
2,100
2,300
2,700

QUESTION 27.
A box in a certain supply room contains four 40-W light bulbs, five 60-W bulbs, and six 75bulbs. If two bulbs are randomly selected from the box, and at least one of them is found to be
rated 75W, the probability that both of them are 75-W bulbs is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1872
0.2022
0.2174
0.3234

QUESTION 28.
A chemical engineer is interested in determining whether a certain impurity is present in a
product. An experiment has a probability of 0.80 of detecting impurity if it is present. The
probability of not detecting the impurity if it is absent is 0.90. The prior probabilities of the
impurity being present and being absent are 0.40 and 0.60, respectively. Three separate
experiments result in only two detections. The probability that the impurity is present:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.715
0.825
0.905
0.995
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

101

QUESTION 29.
A system consists of two components. The probability that the second compound functions in a
satisfactory manner during its design life is 0.9, the probability that at least one of the two
components does so is 0.96 and the probability that both components do so is 0.75. Given that
the first component functions in a satisfactory manner throughout its design life, the probability
that the second one does also is nearly:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.526
0.666
0.816
0.926

QUESTION 30.
The number of major defects on a randomly selected appliance of a certain type is:
x
P(x)

0
0.08

1
0.15

2
0.45

3
0.27

4
0.05

The expected value is close to:


A.
B.
C.
D.

1.06
2.06
3.06
4.06

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

102

QUESTION 31.
The number of major defects on a randomly selected appliance of a certain type is:
x
P(x)

0
0.08

1
0.15

2
0.45

3
0.27

4
0.05

The variance is:


A.
B.
C.
D.

0.7342
0.8123
0.9364
0.9786

QUESTION 32.
A chemical supply company currently has in stock 100 lb of a certain chemical, which it sells to
customers in 5-lb lots. The distribution of the lots is given below:
x
P(x)

1
0.20

2
0.40

3
0.30

4
0.10

The expected number of pounds left after the next customers order is shipped is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

75.5
88.5
95.5
98.5

QUESTION 33.
A company that produces fine crystal knows from experience that 10% of its goblets have
cosmetic flaws and must be classified as seconds. Among six randomly selected goblets, how
likely is it that only one is second?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1435
0.3543
0.4167
0.5000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

103

QUESTION 34.
Twenty percent of all telephones of a certain type are submitted for service while under
warranty. Of these, 60% can be repaired, whereas the other 40% must be replaced with new
units. If a company purchases ten of these telephones, what is the probability that exactly two
will end up being replaced under warranty?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1478
0.2466
0.3476
0.4989

QUESTION 35.
Suppose that 90% of all batteries from a certain supplier have acceptable voltages. A certain type
of flashlight requires two type-D batteries, and the flashlight will work only if both its batteries
have acceptable voltages. Among ten randomly selected flashlights, what is the probability that
at least nine will work?
A. 0.207
B. 0.317
C. 0.407
D. 0.555

QUESTION 36.
If the temperature at which a certain compound melts is a random variable with mean value
120C and standard deviation 2C, the standard deviation is oF is:
A. 1.6
B. 2.6
C. 3.6
D. 4.6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

104

QUESTION 37.
Suppose that force acting on a column that helps to support a building is normally distributed
with mean 15.0 kips and standard deviation 1.25 kips. The probability that the force is almost 18
kips is close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1452
0.5674
0.8765
0.9452

QUESTION 38.
If a normal distribution has =30 and = 5, what is the 91st percentile of the distribution?
A. 30.1
B. 33.6
C. 36.7
D. 39.9

QUESTION 39.
The distribution of resistance for resistors of a certain type is known to be normal, with 10% of
all resistors having a resistance exceeding 10.256 ohms and 5% having a resistance smaller than
9.671 ohms. The standard deviation of the resistance distribution is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.10
0.20
0.30
0.40

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

105

QUESTION 40.
Let X = the time between two successive arrivals at the drive-up window of a local bank. If X
has an exponential distribution with = 1 (which is identical to a standard gamma distribution
with =1). The probability that 2 X 5 occurring is nearly:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.101
0.115
0.129
0.155

QUESTION 41.
The inside diameter of randomly selected piston ring is a random variable with mean 12 cm and
standard deviation 0.04 cm. The distribution of diameter is normal. The P (11.99 X 12.01)
when n =16 is close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.6826
0.7224
0.8114
0.9867

QUESTION 42.
Rockwell hardness of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard
deviation of 1.2. If the distribution is normal, what is the probability that the sample mean
hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.0040
0.0051
0.0062
0.0075

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

106

QUESTION 43.
A gas station sells three grades of gasoline; regular, extra and super. These are priced at $21.20,
$21.35 and $21.50 per gallon, respectively. Let X1, X2, and X3 denote the amounts of these
grades purchased (gallons) on a particular day. The Xi are independent with 1 = 1000, 2 = 500
and 3 = 300; 1 =100, 2 = 80 and 3 = 50. The standard deviation is nearly:

A.
B.
C.
D.

222
322
422
505

QUESTION 44.
Let X1, X2, and X3 represent the times necessary to perform three repair tasks at a certain service
facility. If 1 = 2=3 = 60 and 12 = 22 = 23 = 12, the value P(X1 + X2 + X3 200) is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1198
0.2298
0.7899
0.9986

QUESTION 45.
For a normal distribution, is known. What is the confidence level for the interval
2.81/:
A. 89.5%
B. 91.5%
C. 95.5%
D. 99.5%

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

107

QUESTION 46.
Assume that the helium porosity (in percentage) of coal samples taken away from any particular
seam is normally distributed with true standard deviation 0.75. The 95% CI for the true average
porosity of a certain seam if the average porosity for 20 specimens from the seam was 4.85 is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

(4.52, 5.18)
(4.66; 5.22)
(4.87; 5.22)
(5.22, 6.18)

QUESTION 47.
A sample of 50 kitchens with gas cooking appliances monitored during a one-week period, the
sample mean CO2 level (ppm) was 654.16 and the sample standard deviation was 164.43. The
95% CI for true average CO2 level in the population of all homes from which the sample was
selected is close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

(608.58; 699.74)
(609.23; 701.24)
(607.99; 700.25)
(608.58; 688.74)

QUESTION 48.
The calibration of a scale is to be checked by weighing a 10-kg test specimen 25 times. Suppose
that the results of different weighings are independent of one another and that the weight on each
trial is normally distributed with = 0.200 kg. Let denote the true average weight reading on
the scale. Suppose the scale is to be recalibrated if either 10.1032 9.8968. What is
the probability that recalibration is carried out when it is actually unnecessary?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.01
0.02
0.03
0.04
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

108

QUESTION 49.
For which of the given P-values would the null hypothesis not rejected when performing a level
0.05 test?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.021
0.078
0.047
0.039

QUESTION 50.
Let 1 denote the true average tread life for a premium brand of P205/65R15 radial tire and let 2
denote the true average tread life for an economy brand of the same size. Test H 0: 1-2 = 5000
versus, Ha: 1-2 >5000 at level 0.01 using the following data: m = 45, = 42,500, s1 =2200, n
=45, = 36,800, and s2 = 1500.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Life of radial tires is better than economy brand tires


Life of economy tires is better than radial tires
Both have similar life span
None of the above

QUESTION 51.
The data on corn yield x and peanut yield y (mT/ha) for eight different types of soil is given
below:
X
Y

2.4
1.33

3.4
2.12

4.6
1.80

3.7
1.65

2.2
2.00

3.3
1.76

4.0
2.11

2.1
1.63

The sample correlation coefficient is:


A.
B.
C.
D.

0.147
0.247
0.347
0.447

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

109

SOLUTIONS

PART-I
QUESTION 1
This is a conditional probability problem. Let B be draw an ace and let A be draw a second
ace.
4
3
() =
; () =
52
51
Therefore, the probability of getting an ace when an ace is already drawn is 3/51
QUESTION 2
=

10
= 0.01
1000

The probability that one item is good is:


= 1 0.01 = 0.99
The probability that exactly one defective will be found in random sample of 100 items is:
= 100 (0.01)(0.99)99 = (0.99)99
QUESTION 3
Given the probability of success of first stage is 0.98 and the overall probability is 0.98
The probability of success of second stage is:
0.95
( ) =
= 0.97
0.98
QUESTION 4
The probability of drawing an ace on the first card:
4/52
The probability of drawing a second ace:
3/51
The probability of drawing a third ace:
2/50
The probability of drawing a fourth ace:
1/49
Overall probability:
4 3
2
1

= 3.7106
52 51 50 49
QUESTION 5
The number of teams that can be formed is:
35.34.33.32
= 52,360
4.3.2.1
QUESTION 6
There are 26 choices for the first letter, 25 remain for the second and 24 for the third.
The number of words can be formed is: 26.25.24
QUESTION 7
The probability that only A is defective is:
= 0.1(1 0.2)(1 0.25) = 0.06
The probability that only B is defective:
= (1 0.1) 0.2 (1 0.25) = 0.135
The probability that only C is defective:
(1 0.1)(1 0.2)0.25 = 0.18
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

110

The final probability is:


= 0.06 + 0.135 + 0.18 = 0.375
QUESTION 8
Multiplying the complimentary probabilities:
(1 0.5)(1 0.4)(1 0.3) = 0.21
QUESTION 9
4
The probability of drawing an ace from a deck of cards:
52
The probability of drawing a card of spades:

13
52
1

The probability of drawing an ace of spades:


52
Since the two events, i.e, a card being an ace and a spade are not mutually exclusive, the
probability of drawing an ace or a spade is:
4 13 1
4
=
+

=
52 52 52 13
QUESTION 10
Number of ways different numbers can occur on six dice =
6!
The total number of ways if five dice are thrown
65
6!
5!
The probability:
= 64
65
QUESTION 11
(, )
8
2
(, ) =
=
=

34 3
QUESTION 12
4
1
The probability of drawing a king:
= 13
52
If the card is replaced, the deck will have 52 cards.
1
The probability of drawing a queen:
13
The two events being independent, the probability of drawing both cards in succession is:
1 1

= 1/169
13 13
QUESTION 13
The probability of both cards being kings:
4 3
1
=

=
52 51 221
QUESTION 14
7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15
=
= 11
5
=

(11 7)2 + (11 9)2 + (11 11)2 + (11 13)2 +(11 15)3
= 2.2
5

QUESTION 15
The total number of parts:
The probability of good part:
QUESTION 16
Favorable events:
Total number of events:

12+6+2 = 20
12
3
=5
20
42 = 6
122 = 66
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

111

Probability:

= 66 = 11

QUESTION 17
62
65
1
=
=
102 109 3
QUESTION 18
1
1 2
; () = 1 =
3
3 3
1
1 3
() = ; ( ) = 1 =
4
4 4
1
1 4
() = ; ( ) = 1 =
5
5 5
Probability of solving the problem:
2 3 4 3
1 =
3 4 5 5
QUESTION 19
Favorable events are:
(5,5), (4,6) and (6,4)
3
1
:
=
36 12
QUESTION 20
1 4 1
62 = ( ) ( )4 = 15/64
2
2
QUESTION 21
63 42 = 20 6 = 120
QUESTION 22
2
2 1
() = ; () = 1 =
3
3 3
3
3 1
() = ; ( ) = 1 =
4
4 4
1
( ) =
12
1
11
( ) = 1
=
12 12
QUESTION 23
1
1
(4) = 64 ( )4 ( )2
2
2
1 5 11
(5) = 65 ( ) ( )
2
2
1 0 1 6
(6) = 66 ( ) ( )
2
2
15 + 6 + 1 22 11
=
=
64
64 32
() =

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

112

QUESTION 24
1
() = ()
4
1
5
= ( ) =
2
8
5 1 1
1
= + ( ) =
8 4 2
8
QUESTION 25
Between 1 and 100, there are 4 cubes, 1, 8, 27, 64
4
1
Probability:
= 25
100
QUESTION 26
Getting a total of 10:
Getting a total of 11:
Probability:

(5,5), (6,4) and (4,6) (three possibilities)


(5,6) and (6,5) (two possibilities)
5
5
= 66 = 36

QUESTION 27
( ) = () + () ( )
5 2
1
1
= + () () =
6 3
3
2
2 1 1
(). () = = = ( )
3 2 3
QUESTION 28
Let E1 be the event of getting the sum of 6 and E2 be the event of getting the number 4 on any of
the dice.
(1) = (1,5), (2,4), (3,3), (4,2) (5,1)
(2) = (2,4) (4,2)
2
=
5
QUESTION 29
11
1 3 3
31 = ( ) ( ) =
2
2
8
QUESTION 30
() = 0.25; () = 0.4
( ) = 0.15
( ) = 1 [() + () ( )] = 0.5
QUESTION 31
() = 121 = 12
() = 81 = 8
8
2
=
=
12 3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

113

QUESTION 32
1
; = 3
4
3
=
4
1 3
( ) ( ) = 9 = 48
4 4
1
= 48 = 12
4
=

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

114

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
Let B = event of having bad tires
P(D) = 0.6 P(E) = 0.2
P(F) = 0.2
(probabilities of renting from agencies)
P(B|D) = 0.12

P(B|E) = 0.04

P(B|F) = 0.10

P(B) = P(D) P(B|D) + P(E) P(B|E) + P(F) P(B|F)


= (0.6)(0.12) + (0.2)(0.04) + (0.2)(0.10) = 0.10
QUESTION 2.
P{ A | B}

P{ A B}
P{B}

P(drawing two good parts) =


P(good 1st draw) x P(good 2nd drawgood 1st draw)
= (

8
7
) ( ) = 0.62
10
9

QUESTION 3.
Sample Mean:
n

X 1 / n X i
i 1

(1/ 8)0.97 0.98 0.99 1.01 1.01 1.03 1.03 1.03 1.00625
Sample Variance:
n

s 2 1 /( n 1) ( X i X ) 2
i 1

(1 / 7) (0.97 1.01) 2 (0.98 1.01) 2 ... 0.00057

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

115

QUESTION 4.
To find a probability for less than 36.0, we want to find a z value in order to locate F(z) in the
standard probability table.
z

36.0 32.0
1.6
2. 5

F (1.6) 0.9452
QUESTION 5.
Use the binomial distribution because there are 2 outcomes (green or not green).

p = probability of green = 0.7


q = probability of not green = 0.25 + 0.05 = 0.3
n= 5

and

x=3

P5 (3) C (5,3)(0.7) 3 (0.3) 53

5!
(0.7) 3 (0.3) 53
3!(5 3)!

The correct answer is (b) 0.3087


QUESTION 6.
Given:
= 10
n = 30
90% CI:
0.10

X 125

Z a / 2 1.6449
X Za / 2

125 1.6449

10
125 3.003
30

CI: [(125 3), (125 + 3)]


QUESTION 7.
Given sample: 139, 152, 160, 173

n=4

= (1/4)(139 + 152 + 160 + 173) = 156


is not known, therefore we calculate s:

1 /( n 1) X i X 2
n

i 1

(1 / 3) (139 156) 2 (152 156) 2 ... 14.26


FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

116

0.05
df = 4 1 = 3, and from t-table:

ta / 2 3.182

X ta / 2

s
14.26
156 (3.182)
156 22.69
n
4
CI: [(156 23), (156 + 23)]

QUESTION 8.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

117

QUESTION 9.
Use the binomial distribution.
p = 0.03
q = 1 p = 0.97

QUESTION 10.
Calculate standard normal values for the points of interest, 65 and 78.
Z

78 72
10
0.60

Z 78

65 72
10
0.70

Z 65

The probability of a score falling between 65 and 78 is equal to the area under the unit normal
curve between these two standard normal values. Determine this area by subtracting F(Z65) from
F(Z78). Although the F(Z) statistic is not tabulated for negative x values, the curves symmetry
allows the R(x) statistic to be used instead.
F(x) = R(-x)
P(65 < x < 78) = F(Z78) F(Z65)
= F(Z78) R(-Z65)
= F(0.60) R(0.70)
= 0.7257 0.2420
= 0.4837

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

118

QUESTION 11.
First calculate the following values.

The correlation coefficient is:


Sxy =

QUESTION 12.
Obtain a linear relationship by letting z equal Then plot a straight line of the form y = a+bz
through the points (1.414, 8.8), (1.761, 9.5), (2.345, 10.8), and (2.608, 11.3).
Calculate the following values.
= 1.414 + 1.761 + 2.345 + 2.608 = 8.128

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

119

= 8.8 + 9.5 + 10.8 + 11.3 = 40.4

The slope of the line y = z + bz is:

QUESTION 13.
Because a specific direction in the variation is not given, a two-tail hypothesis test is used. The zvalue corresponding to the confidence level is

Comparing the calculated value of z = 1.97 with a table of z-values for various confidence levels
in the Table for the Values of Z/2 in the NCEES FE Handbook p. 44 shows that the confidence
interval is most nearly 95%.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

120

QUESTION 14.
If X is a normal random variable with a mean and a standard deviation , then
=

is a standard normal random variable.


Let X be the life of a light bulb selected at random. Then X is normal with =5000 and =1000.
Hence
P(the life of a randomly selected light bulb will last more than 6500 hours)
= ( > 6500)
= ( >

6500 5000
)
1000

= ( > 1.5) = 0.0668


QUESTION 15.
The data averages are:
2 + 1.5 + 3.6 + 5.7
= 3.2
4
5.1 + 4.2 + 7.5 + 10.4
=
= 6.8
4
=

The numerator:
4

( )( ) = 15.74
=1

The denominator:
4

( )2 = 10.74
=1

Therefore,
=

( )( ) 15.74
=
= 1.47
( )2
10.74

And
= = 6.8 1.473.2 = 2.1
Therefore, the equation that best fits this data is:
= 1.5 + 2.1

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

121

QUESTION 16.
HINT: Since the variance of the yield is unknown, t-distribution must be used. The P-value for a
two-sided test is 2P(Tn-1 > t0), where, n-1 are the degrees of freedom. Reject the null hypothesis
H0 at (1-) significance level if <P-value.
The sample size is n =5. Compute the sample average and sample standard deviation as:
= 90.6 = 1.8
0 =

0
/

90.6 90
1.8/5

= 0.745

= 2(4 > 0.745) = 0.4975


QUESTION 17.
HINT: when the variance is known, the standard normal distribution is used, and the 100(1-)%
confidence interval on mean is

/2 ,

, +

/2 ,

The sample size n =10.


A 95% confidence interval means, = 0.05 0.025 = 1.96
Compute the sample average as:
=

535 + 541 + 562 + 551 + 573 + 528 + 565 + 548 + 543 + 567
= 551.3
10

Calculate :
551.3

1.96 25
10

= [535.8, 566.8

QUESTION 18.
HINT: Two events A and B are independent if P(AB)=P(A)P(B)
Events A and B are mutually exclusive, that is:
=0
Therefore,
( ) = (0) = 0
On the other hand,
()() = 0.5 0.4 = 0.2 ( )

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

122

Hence events A and B are independent.


QUESTION 19.
HINT: Sample standard deviation is given by:
( )2
=
1
n=5
1+3+4+6+6
=4
5
[(1 4)2 +(3 4)2 +(4 4)2 +(6 4)2 +(6 4)2 ]
2 =
= 9/2
(5 1)
=

Therefore,
=

9
2

QUESTION 20.
N = 52, M =13 and n = x =2

13 52 13
)
( )(
) ( )(
2

2
( = 2) =
=

52
( )
( )

2
13!
39!

1
2! (13 2)! 0! (39 0)!
=
52!
17
2! (52 2)!
QUESTION 21.
HINT:
Given the probability mass function f(xj) of a discrete random variable X with possible values xj
(1,2n), the expected value of X, E(X) is computed by:

() = ( )
=1

n =6
6

() = 100.08 + 110.15 + 130.2 + 140.2 + 150.07 = 12.5


=1

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

123

QUESTION 22.
HINT: Given the probability mass function f(xj) of a discrete random variable X with possible
values xj(1,2,3n), the standard deviation of X denoted as is computed by:

= = 2 ( ) (())2
=1
6

() = 100.08 + 110.15 + 120.3 + 130.2 + 140.2 + 150.07 = 12.5


=1
6

2 ( ) = 102 0.08 + 112 0.15 + 122 0.3 + 132 0.2 + 142 0.2 + 152 0.07 = 158.1
=1

= 158.1 12.52 = 1.36


QUESTION 23.
Given n =50, is large enough for the Central Limit Theorem to be applicable. then has
approximately a normal distribution with mean = 4.0 and
1.5
=
= 0.2121
50
So,
3.5 4.0
3.8 4.0
(3.5 3.8) = [

]
0.2121
0.2121
= (0.94) (2.36) = 0.1645
QUESTION 24.
Let event A = selected customer owns stocks. Then the probability that a selected customer does
not own a stock can be represented by:
( ) = 1 () = 1 (0.18 + 0.25) = 0.57
QUESTION 25.
Let event A be the event that all purchase gas. Let event B be the event that all purchase electric.
All other possible outcomes are those in which at least one of each type is purchased. Thus the
desired probability:
1 () () = 1 0.116 0.005 = 0.879

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

124

QUESTION 26.
10
5
[ ] [ ] = 2,100
5
3
QUESTION 27.
The first desired possibility is P(both bulbs are 75 wattsat least one is 75 watt).
P(at least one is 75 watt) = 1- P(none are 75 watt)
9
( )
36
69
1 2 =1
=
15
105 105
( )
2
6
( )
15
= ( 75) = 2 =
15
105
( )
2
So P(both bulbs are 75 wattat least one is 75watt)
15
15
105
=
=
= 0.2174
69
69
105
QUESTION 28.
When three experiments are performed, there are 3 different ways in which detection can occur
on exactly 2 of the experiments: 1) #1 and #2 and not #3; 2) #1 and #2 and #3; 3)not#1, and #2
and #3. If the impurity is present, the probability of exactly 2 detections in three(independent)
experiments is:
(0.8)(0.8)(0.2) + (0.8)(0.2)(0.8) + (0.2)(0.8)(0.8) = 0.384
If the impurity is absent, the analogous probability is:
3(0.1)(0.1)(0.9) = 0.027
Thus, P(presentdetected in exactly 2 out of 3):
(0.384)(0.4)
( 2 )
=
= 0.905
(0.384)(0.4) + (0.027)(0.6)
( 2)

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

125

QUESTION 29.
Let A =1st functions, B = 2nd function, so, P(B) = 0.9, P(AUB) = 0.96, P(AB) = 0.75. Thus:
( ) = () + () ( )
= () + 0.90 0.75 = 0.96
Therefore, P(A) = 0.81
This gives:
(|) =

( ) 0.75
=
= 0.926
()
0.81

QUESTION 30.
4

() = . ()
=0

= (0)(0.08) + (1)(0.15) + (2)(0.45) + (3)(0.27) + (4)(0.05) = 2.06


QUESTION 31.
The variance is:
() = ( )2 . ()
4

= (0 2.06)2 (0.08) + (4 2.06)2 (0.05) = 0.9364


=0

QUESTION 32.
4

() = . ()
=0

(1)(0.20) + (2)(0.40) + (3)(0.30) + (4)(0.10) = 2.30


() = ( )2 . () = 0.81
Each lot weighs 5 lbs, so weight left = 100- 5X. Thus the expected weight left is 100-5E(x) =
88.5.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

126

QUESTION 33.
X = Bin(6, 0.10)

6
( = 1) = ( ) () (1 ) = ( ) (0.1)1 (0.9)5 = 0.3543

1
QUESTION 34.
Let S represent a telephone that is submitted for service while under warranty and must be
replaced. Then p = P(S) = P(replacedsubmitted). P(submitted) = (0.40)(0.20) = 0.08. Thus, X
the number among the companys 10 phones that must be replaced has a binomial distribution
with n = 10, p =0.08, so p(2) = P(X=2) =
= (

10 (0.08)2 (0.92)8
)
= 0.1478
2

QUESTION 35.
X = number of flashlights that work. Let B (battery has acceptable voltage). Then P(flashlight
works) = P(both batteries work) = P(B)P(B) = (0.9)(0.9) = 0.81.
X = Bin(10,0.81)
10 (0.81)9 (0.19)
10
)
+ ( ) (0.81)10 = 0.407
9
10

( 9) = ( = 9) + ( = 10) = (
QUESTION 36.

With X = temperature in C, temperature in F = 5 + 32


9

So, (5 + 32) = 5 (120) + 32 = 248


9
9
[ + 32] = ( )2 (2)2 = 12.96; = 3.6
5
5
QUESTION 37.
( 18) =

18.5 15
= ( 2.4) = (2.4) = 0.9452
1.25

QUESTION 38.
+ . (91 ) = 30 + 5(1.34) = 36.7

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

127

QUESTION 39.
Since 1.28 is the 90th z percentile and -1.645 is the 5th z percentile (Z0.05 = 1.645), the given
information implies that + (1.28) = 10.256 and + (1.645) = 9.671, from which (2.925) = -5.85, = 0.20.

QUESTION 40.
(2 5) = 1 (1)(5) [1 (1)(2) ] = 0.129
QUESTION 41.
Given, = 12 cm, = 0.04cm, for n =16
11.99 12
12.01 12

]
0.01
0.01

(11.99 12.01) = [

(1 1) = (1) (1) = 0.8413 0.1587 = 0.6826


QUESTION 42.
Given , = 50, = 1.2, for n =9

( 51) = (

51 50
) = ( 2.5) = 1 0.9983 = 0.0062
1.2
9

QUESTION 43.
The revenue from sales is:
= 21.21 + 21.352 + 21.53
() = 21.21 + 21.352 + 21.53
() = (21.2)2 12 + (21.35)2 22 + (21.5)2 32 = 104,025
= 104,025 = 322.53

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

128

QUESTION 44.
(1 + 2 + 3 ) = 180
(1 + 2 + 3 ) = 45
1 +2 +3 = 6.708
(1 + 2 + 3 200) = (

200 180
) = ( 2.98) = 0.9986
6.708

QUESTION 45.
Z/2 = 2.81 implies that /2 = 1-(2.81) = 0.0025, so = 0.005 and the confidence level is 100(1) = 99.5%
QUESTION 46.
4.85

(1.96)(0.75)
20

= 4.85 0.33 = (4.52, 5.18)

QUESTION 47.
0.025

= 654.16 1.96

164.43
50

= (608.58; 699.74).

We are 95% confident that the true average CO2 levels in the population of homes with gas
cooking appliances is between 608.58 ppm and 699.74 ppm.
QUESTION 48.
=rejecting H0 whenH0 is true.
( 10.1032 9.8968 when = 10. Since is normally distributed with standard
deviation / = 0.2/5 = 0.04, = ( 2.58 2.58) = 0.005 + 0.005 = 0.01
QUESTION 49.
P value = 0.001 < 0.05 so reject H0. The correct answer is C. Since all other values are lower
than 0.05

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

129

QUESTION 50.
The test static value is:
=

( ) 5000
2
2
1 + 2

And H0 will be rejected at level 0.01 if z 2.33


=

(42,500 36,800) 5000


2

2200 + 1500
45
45

700
= 1.76
396.33

Which is less than 2.33, so we dont reject H0 and conclude that the true average life for radials
does not exceed that for economy brand.

QUESTION 51.
= 25.7; = 14.40; 2 = 88.31, = 46.856, 2 = 26.4324

(25.7)2
= 88.31
= 5.75
8

(14.40)2
= 26.4324
= 0.5124
8

= 46.856
=

(25.7)(14.40)
= 0.5960
8

0.5960
5.750.5124

= 0.347

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

130

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

131

Computational Tools
Total Question 3-5
A.
B.

Spreadsheets
Flow charts

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

132

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is false?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Flowcharts use symbols to represent input/output, decision branches


Pseudo code is an English-like description of a program
Pseudo code uses symbols to represent steps in a program
Structured programming breaks a program into logical steps or calls to subprograms

Question 2.
In pseudo code, the following is a true statement for DOWHILE function:
A.
B.
C.
D.

DOWHILE is normally used for decision branching


DOWHILE test condition must be false to continue the loop
DOWHILE test condition tests at the beginning of the loop
DOWHILE test condition tests at the end of the loop

Question 3.
A spreadsheet contains the following formulas in the cells:
________________________________________________________________
A
B
C
________________________________________________________________
1
A1+1
B1+1
2
A1^2
B1^2
C1^2
3
Sum (A1:A2)
Sum (B1:B2)
Sum (C1:C2)
________________________________________________________________
If 2 is placed in cell A1, the value of cell C3 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
20
28
48

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

133

Question 4.
A spreadsheet contains the following:

______________________________________________________________________________
A
B
C
D
______________________________________________________________________________
1
3
4
5
2
2
A$2
3
4
4
6
If the formula from B2 is copied into D4, the equivalent formula in the cell D4 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

A$2
C4
$C$4
C$2

Question 5.
Transmission protocol: Serial, asynchronous, 8-bit ASCII, 1 Start, 1 Stop, 1 Parity bit, 9600 bps.
The time (s) it takes to transfer a 1-Kbyte file is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.85
0.96
1.07
1.17

Question 6.
Transmission protocol: Serial, synchronous, 8-bit ASCII, 1 parity bit, 9600 bps. The time (s) it
takes to transfer a 1-Kbyte is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.85
0.96
1.07
1.17

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

134

Question 7.
The binary representation 10101 corresponds to the number
A.
B.
C.
D.

3
16
21
10,101

Question 8.
For the base-10 number of 30, the equivalent binary number is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1110
0111
1111
11110

Question 9.
On a personal computer, the data storage device with the largest capacity is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3 diskette
Hard disk
Random access memory
1 GB USB flash drive

Question 10.
All of the following statements are true of spreadsheets, EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.

A cell may contain label, value, formula or function


A cell reference is made a numbered column and lettered row reference
A cell content that is displayed is the result of a formula entered in the cell
Line graphs, bar graphs and pie charts are typical graphs created from spreadsheets

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

135

Question 11.
In the structured programming shown below, line 2 is described as a(n)
1
2
3
4
A.
B.
C.
D.

REAL X, Y
X=3
Y = COS (X)
PRINT Y

Assignment
Command
Declaration
Function

Question 12.
A program contains the following structured programming segment
INPUT X
Y=0
Z =X+1
FOR K = 1 TO Z
Y = Y+Z
NEXT K
Y = Y (2*Z-1)
The final value of Y in terms of Z is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

X2 -1
X2
X2 +1
X2 +2X +1

Question 13.
In a typical spreadsheet program, the cell directly below cell AB4 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

AB5
AC4
AC5
BC4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

136

Question 14.
A spreadsheet contains the following values as shown below. The formula B1+$A$1*A2 is
entered into cell B2 and then coped into B3 and B4. The value displayed in cell B4 is:
______________________________
A
B
______________________________
1
3
111
2
4
3
5
4
6
______________________________
A.
B.
C.
D.

123
147
156
173

Question 15.
Data are being collected automatically from an experiment at a rate of 14.4kbps. The time (min)
it takes to completely fill a diskette with a capacity of 1.44 MB is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.67
10.0
13.3
14.0

Question 16.
The acronym ALU is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Arithmetic and Logic Unit


Arithmetic Logic user
Analog and Logic Unit
Address Last Unit

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

137

Question 17.
A byte is defined as:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Eight bits typically used to encode a single character of text


The smallest number of bits that can be used in arithmetic operation
The basis unit of information accessed by a computer
A binary digit that represents one of two equally accessible values or states

Question 18.
A bit is defined as:
A. A basic unit of a computer used to encode a single character of text
B. The smallest portion of computer memory that can represent a distinct computer
address
C. A binary digit that represents one of two possible values or states
D. Computer memory that can represent one of two possible values or states

Question 19.
The time (min) it takes to transmit 400-Kbyte text file using a 28.8k modem in synchronous
mode is close to:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 11
D. 14

Question 20.
The number of 8-bit bytes is in 2-MB of memory is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

16,000
16,256
2,000,000
2,097,152

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

138

Question 21.
A hard disk drive with three 5-cm diameter platters turns at 3000 rpm. The average latency for
the drive (seconds) is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.003
0.01
0.02
0.04

Question 22.
A 12.7 diameter disk drive platter spins at 5600 rpm. The average access time is 11ms. The
average (ms) rotational delay is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

5.17
5.36
5.50
5.64

Question 23.
The number of bits in 5 GB hard drive is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4.29 x 109
5.00 x 109
40.0 x 109
42.9 x 109

Question 24.
The acronym RDRAM is defined as:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Rambus Dynamic Random Access Memory


Rambus Direct Random Access Memory
Redundant Dual Random Access Memory
Random Duplex Random Access Memory

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

139

Question 25.
The number of cells in the range C5Z30:
A.
B.
C.
D.

575
598
600
624

Question 26.
A spreadsheet contains the following:
______________________________________________________________________________
A
B
C
D
______________________________________________________________________________
1
4
-1
3
0
2
3
A3+C1
-3
6
3
0.5
m
33
2
4
John
1
B2*B3
C4
5
The value of n in the following macro commands is close to:
m=5
p = m*2 +6
n = D4 3*p^0.5
A. 4.1
B. 5.5
C. 10.5
D. 1041

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

140

Question 27.
Consider the following spreadsheet. The value of C1 is set to (A1+B1)/2. This formula is copied
into the range of cells C1:C4. The value of cell C5 is set to Sum(C1:C4)*0.05. The number in
cell C5 is:
_______________________________________
A
B
C
_______________________________________
1
1
5
2
2
6
3
3
7
4
4
8
_______________________________________

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.40
0.55
0.60
0.90

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

141

Question 28.
Consider the following algorithm:
INPUT X
N=0
T=0
DO WHILE N < X
T = T +XN
N=N+1
END DO
OUTPUT T
If the input value of X is 5, the output value of T is:
A. 156
B. 629
C. 781
D. 3906

Question 29.
Consider the following spreadsheet:
___________________________________________________________
A
B
C
D
___________________________________________________________
1
10
11
12
13
2
1
A2^2
B2*A$1
3
2
A3^2
B3*B$1
4
3
A4^2
B4*C$1
5
4
A5^2
B5*D$1
___________________________________________________________

The values in column C are:


A.
B.
C.
D.

12, 1, 4, 9, 16
12, 10, 44, 108, 208
12, 19, 84, 207, 408
12, 19, 100, 250, 500

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

142

Question 30.
A spreadsheet evaluating the performance of a resistive element in a direct-current circuit is
shown. The value displayed in cell C2 is:
____________________________________
A
B
C
____________________________________
1
amps
ohms
watts
2
5.0
2.0
____________________________________
A.
B.
C.
D.

10.0
12.5
20.0
50.0

Question 31.
Consider the following spreadsheet: the contents of column B are copied and pasted into
columns C and D. The value in cell D4 is:
______________________________________________________
A
B
C
D
______________________________________________________
1
5
A$1
2
7
$B1
3
-3
B2+A2
4
0
A$3*B3
______________________________________________________

A. 47
B. 60
C. 100
D. 150

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

143

Question 32.
In a spreadsheet, the formula $A$4 + B$2 + B2 is entered into cell C3. The contents of cell C3
are copied and pasted into cell D5. The formula in cell D5 is:
A. $A$4 + C$2 + C4
B. $B$6 + C$4 + C4
C. $A$4 + C$4 + C4
D. $A$4 + B$2 + B2

Question 33.
In a spreadsheet, the number in cell A4 is set to 6. Then, A5 is set to A4 +$A$4. This formula is
copied into cells A6 and A7. The number shown in cell A7 is most nearly
A. 12
B. 24
C. 36
D. 216

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

144

Question 34.
What is the value of X at the completion of the flow diagram shown?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 12

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

145

Question 35.
A computer structured programming program contains the following program segment. What is
the value of X after the segment is executed?
X=2
T=3
IF X * 2 >T THEN T = X * 2
IF T > X THEN X = T * 2
IF T < X THEN X = T + 3
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. 11

Question 36.
A computer structured programming program contains the following program segment. What is
the value of X after the segment is executed?

X=4
T=8
T=T1
X=X+1
IF X < T THEN GOTO 1
A. 6
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

146

Question 37.
A computer structured programming program contains the following program segment. What is
the value of X after the segment is executed?
X=4
T=8
DO WHILE T X
T=T2
X=X+2
ENDWHILE
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

Question 38.
A computer structured programming program contains the following program segment. What is
the value of X after the segment is executed?
X=0
FOR T = 1 TO 2
X=X+T
NEXT T

A.
B.
C.
D.

2
3
4
6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

147

Question 39.
The numbers 3, 5, 2, 6, 1, 3 are in a file to be read and processed by the structured
programming that follows.
I=1
Y=0
WHILE I 3
Read a value from the file and set X equal to that value.
If X < 0 GOTO 1
ELSE Y = Y + X*X
1I=I+1
ENDWHILE
Z = Y/I

A. 7.3
B. 9.7
C. 19.5
D. 26.0

Question 40.
Flash memory is classified as which type of memory?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ROM
WORM
RAM
EPROM

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

148

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

149

Ethics and Professional Practice


Total Questions 35
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Codes of ethics
Agreements and contracts
Ethical and legal considerations
Professional liability
Public health, safety, and welfare

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

150

QUESTION 1.
Which of the following methods of advertising is most likely to violate an ethical standard for
engineers?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Radio or television advertising


Yellow pages
Distribution of company calendars to clients
Company brochures using self-laudatory language

QUESTION 2.
Whistle blowing is best described as calling public attention to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Your own previous unethical behavior


Unethical behavior of employees under your control
Secret illegal behavior by the employer
Unethical or illegal behavior in a government agency

QUESTION 3.
It is generally considered unethical to moonlight as a consulting engineer while you are working
for your primary employer because
A. You should not be competing with your primary employer
B. You cant do a good job for your primary employer if you come to work in the
morning tired
C. You might be tempted to use proprietary information from your current employer
D. Double dipping (i.e. drawing two paychecks) is unfair to other engineers in the
company

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

151

QUESTION 4.
Which of the following could you accept within most codes of ethical behavior?
A. A trip to Bahamas from a vendor to learn about that vendors products
B. A pen-and-pencil set sent by a blueprint reproduction company
C. A smoked Thanksgiving turkey by a previous client in gratitude for a previous
successful job
D. A monetary incentive sent from a vendor in a country where such incentives are legal
and common

QUESTION 5.
A professional engineer who took the licensing examination in mechanical engineering:
A. May not design in electrical engineering
B. May design in electrical engineering if she feels competent
C. May design in electrical engineering if she feels competent and the electrical portion
of the design is insignificant and incidental to the overall job
D. May design in electrical engineering if another engineer checks the electrical
engineering work

QUESTION 6.
An environmental engineer with five years of experience reads a story in the daily paper about a
proposal being presented to the city council to construct a new sewage treatment plant near
protected wetlands. Based on professional experience and the facts presented in the newspaper,
the engineer suspects the plant would be extremely harmful to the local ecosystem. Which of the
following would be an acceptable course of action?
A. The engineer should contact appropriate agencies to get more data on the project
before making a judgment
B. The engineer should write an article for the papers editorial page urging the council
not to pass the project
C. The engineer should circulate a petition through the community condemning the
project, and present the petition to the council
D. The engineer should do nothing because he doesnt have enough experience in the
industry to express a public opinion on the matter

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

152

QUESTION 7.
An engineer is consulting for a construction company that has been receiving bad publicity in the
local newspapers about its waste-handling practices. Knowing that this criticism is based on
public misperception and the papers thirst for controversial stories, the engineer would like to
write an article to be printed in the papers editorial page. What statement best describes the
engineers ethical obligations?
A. The engineers relationship with the company makes it unethical for him to take any
public action on its behalf
B. The engineer should request that a local representative of the engineering registration
board review the data and write the article in order that an impartial point of view be
presented
C. As long as the article is objective and truthful, and presents all relevant information
including the engineers professional credentials, ethical obligations have been
satisfied
D. The article must be objective and truthful, present all relevant information including
the engineers professional credentials, and disclose all details of the engineers
affiliation with the company

QUESTION 8.
An engineering firm is hired by a developer to prepare plans for a shopping mall. Prior to the
final bid date, several contractors who have received bid documents and plans contact the
engineering firm with requests for information relating to the project. What can the engineering
firm do?
A. The firm can supply requested information to the contractors as long as it does so
fairly and evenly. It cant favor or discriminate against any contractor
B. The firm should supply information to only those contractors that it feels could safely
and economically perform the construction services
C. The firm cant reveal facts, data or information relating to the project that might
prejudice a contractor against submitting a bid on the project
D. The firm cant reveal facts, data or information relating to the project without the
consent of the client as authorized or required by law

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

153

QUESTION 9.
Without your knowledge, an old classmate applies to the company you work for. Knowing that
you recently graduated from the same school, the director of engineering shows you the
application and resume your friend submitted and asks your opinion. It turns out that your friend
has exaggerated his participation in campus organizations, even claiming to have been an office
in an engineering society that you are sure he was never in. On the other hand, you remember
him as being highly intelligent student and believe that he could really help the company. How
should you handle the situation?
A. You should remove from the ethical dilemma by claiming that you dont remember
enough about the applicant to make an informal decision
B. You should follow your instincts and recommend the applicant. Almost everyone
stretches the truth a little in their resumes and the thing you are really being asked to
evaluate his usefulness to the company. If you mention the resume padding, the
company is liable to lose a good prospect
C. You should recommend the applicant, but qualify your recommendation by pointing
out that you think he may have exaggerated some details on his resume
D. You should point out the inconsistencies in the applicants resume and recommend
against hiring him

QUESTION 10.
While working to revise the design of the suspension for a popular car, an engineer discovers a
flaw in the design currently being produced. Based on the statistical analysis, the company
determines that although this mistake is likely to cause a small increase in the number of
fatalities seen each year, it would be prohibitively expensive to do a recall to replace the part.
Accordingly, the company decides not to issue a recall notice. What should the engineer do?
A. The engineer should go along with the companys decision. The company has
researched its options and chosen the most economic alternative
B. The engineer should send an anonymous tip to the media, suggesting that they alert
the public and begin an investigation of the companys business practices
C. The engineer should notify the National Transportation Safety Board, providing
enough details for them to initiate a formal inquiry
D. The engineer should resign from the company. Because of standard nondisclosure
agreements, it would be unethical as well as illegal to disclose any information about
the situation. In addition, the engineer should not associate with a company that is
engaging in such behavior.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

154

QUESTION 11.
If you check the calculations for a licensed (registered) friend who has gone into a consulting
engineering business for himself/herself
A.
B.
C.
D.

You should be paid for your work


Your friends client should be told of your involvement
You do not need to be licensed or registered yourself
Your friend assumes all the liability for your work

QUESTION 12.
While supervising a construction project in a developing country, an engineer discovers that his
clients project manager is treating laborers in an unsafe and inhumane (but for that country,
legal) manner. When he protests, the engineer is told by the company executives that the
company has no choice in the matter if it wishes to remain competitive in the region he should
just accept the way things are. What should ethics require the engineer to do?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Take no action-the company is acting in a perfectly legal manner


Withdraw from the project, returning any fees he may already have received
Report the company to the proper authorities for its human rights abuses
Assist the laborers in organizing a strike to obtain better working conditions

QUESTION 13.
An engineering professor with a professional engineering license and 20 years of experience in
engineering education is asked to consult on a building design. Can the professor accept the
request?
A. Yes, but the professor should review and comment on only those portions of the
project in which she is qualified by education and experience
B. Yes, a professor is a subject matter expert and as such should be fully competent to
review the design
C. Yes, as a licensed professional engineer, the professor has demonstrated the
competence in engineering and may review the design
D. No, there is a tremendous difference between working in academia and having
professional experience. The review should be conducted by a practicing engineer

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

155

QUESTION 14.
Two engineers submitted sealed bids to a prospective client for a design project. The client told
engineer A how much engineer B had bid and invited engineer A to beat that amount. Engineer
A really wants the projects and honestly believes that he can do a better job than engineer B.
What should engineer A do?
A. He should submit another quote, but only if he can perform the work adequately at
the reduced price
B. He should withdraw from consideration for the project
C. He should remain in consideration for the project, but not change his bid
D. He should bargain with the client for the cost of the work

QUESTION 15.
A local engineering professor acts as technical advisor for the city council in a town. A few
weeks before the council is scheduled to award a large construction contract, the professor is
approached by one of the competing companies and offered a consulting position. Under what
conditions would it be ethical to accept the job?
A. Both the company and the council must know about and approve of the arrangement
B. The professor should arrange not to begin work until after the councils vote
C. The professor may accept the job if the advisory position to the council is on a
volunteer basis
D. The professor must not participate in any discussion concerning the project for which
the company is competing

QUESTION 16.
Guidelines of ethical behavior among engineers are needed because:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Engineers are analytical and they dont always think in terms of right or wrong
All people, including engineers are inherently unethical
Rules of ethics are easily forgotten
It is easy for engineers to take advantage of clients

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

156

QUESTION 17.
Plan stamping is best defined as:
A. The legal action of signing off on a project you didnt design but are taking full
responsibility for
B. The legal action of signing off on a project you didnt design or check but didnt
accept money for
C. The illegal action of signing off on a project you didnt design but did work
D. The illegal action of signing off on a project you didnt design or check

QUESTION 18.
An engineer working for a design firm has decided to start a consulting business, but it will be a
few months before she leaves. How should she handle the impending change?
A. The engineer should discuss her plans with the current employer
B. The engineer may approach the firms other employees while still working for the
firm
C. The engineer should immediately quit
D. The engineer should return all of the pens, pencils and other equipment she has
brought home over the years

QUESTION 19.
During the day, an engineer works for a scientific research laboratory doing government
research. During the night, the engineer uses some of the labs equipment to perform testing
services for other consulting engineers. Why is this action probably unethical?
A. The laboratory has not given its permission for the equipment use
B. The government contract prohibits misuse and misappropriation of the equipment
C. The equipment may wear out or be broken by the engineer and the replacement cost
will be borne by the government contract
D. The engineers fees to the consulting engineers can undercut local testing services
fee because the engineer has a lower overhead

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

157

QUESTION 20.
During routine inspections, a field engineer discovers that one of the companys pipeline is
leaking hazardous chemicals into the environment. The engineer recommends that the line be
shut down so that seals can be replaced and the pipe can inspected more closely. His supervisor
commends him on his thoroughness and says the report will be passed on to the companys
maintenance division. The engineer moves on to his next job, assuming things will be taken care
of in a timely manner. While working in the area again several months later, the engineer notices
that the QUESTION hasnt been corrected and in fact getting worse. What should the engineer
do?
A. Give the matter some more time. In a large corporate environment, it is
understandable that some things take longer than people would like them to
B. Ask the supervisor to investigate what action has been taken on the matter
C. Personally speak to the director of maintenance and insist that this project be given
high priority
D. Report the company to EPA for allowing the situation to worsen without taking any
preventive measures

QUESTION 21.
A senior licensed professional engineer with 30 years of experience in geotechnical engineering
is placed in charge of a multidisciplinary design team consisting of a structural group, a
geotechnical group, and an environmental group. In this role, she is responsible for supervising
and coordinating the efforts of the groups when working on a large interconnected project. In
order to facilitate coordination, designs are prepared by the groups under the group leader, and
they are submitted to her for review and approval. This arrangement is ethical as long as:
A. She signs and seals each design segment only after being fully briefed by the
appropriate group leader
B. She signs and seals only those design segments pertaining to geotechnical
engineering
C. Each design segment is signed and sealed by the licensed group leader responsible for
its preparation
D. She signs and seals each design segment only after it has been reviewed by an
independent consulting engineer who specializes in the field in which it pertains

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

158

QUESTION 22.
An engineer works at a large firm for several years during which he participates in the
development of a new production technique. After leaving the company to start a consulting
business, a competitor of his original employer asks for help with a similar question and the
engineer is sure that the only solution is to use the process developed by his previous employer.
Can the engineer ethically accept the job?
A. No. This would constitute accepting payment from more than one party for the same
project
B. No. The engineer would have to use information obtained while working for his
original employer
C. Yes. Because he is no longer employed by the original company any nondisclosure
agreements are invalid
D. Yes. It is understood that consulting engineers often work for competing clients, and
that some knowledge transfer is inevitable

QUESTION 23.
A new junior engineer in a design company notices a detail in a design that she feels has the
potential to be dangerous to end users. Her supervisors explain that this detail was incorporated
in the design by the company to save manufacturing time. Furthermore, they assure her that
although the analysis is technically correct, this shortcut has been used for several years and the
company has never been accused of any wrongdoing. What should the engineer do?
A. Go along with the advice of the more senior engineers. They have more experience in
the field and are most likely right. Besides, if some harm does come from the design,
they will take the blame
B. Ask one of her college professors an expert in the field, to look at the plans and make
a recommendation
C. Bring the issue to the attention of the companys upper nontechnical management
D. Report the companys violation to the state board and any other appropriate
regulatory agencies

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

159

QUESTION 24.
Engineers are to uphold the health, safety and public.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Trust
Welfare
Confidence
Good

QUESTION 25.
Information that is proprietary to a client:
A.
B.
C.
D.

May not be used in the work performed for the client


May be divulged to third parties
May be shared with other members of your design firm
Should be kept absolutely confidential

QUESTION 26.
After making a presentation for an international project, an engineer is told by a foreign official
that his company will be awarded the contract, but only if it hires the officials brother as an
advisor to the project. The engineer sees this as form of bribery and informs his boss. His boss
tells him that, while it might be illegal in the United States, it is a customary and legal business
practice in the foreign country. The boss impresses upon the engineer the importance of getting
the project, but leaves the details up to the engineer. What should the engineer do?
A. He should hire the officials brother, but insist that he perform some useful function
for his salary
B. He should check with other companies doing business in the country in QUESTION,
and if they routinely hire relatives of government officials to secure work, then he
should do the same
C. He should withdraw his company from consideration for the project
D. He should inform the government official that his company will not hire the officials
brother as a precondition for being awarded the contract, but invite the brother to
submit an application for employment with the company
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

160

QUESTION ANSWER
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26

D
C
B
C
C
A
D
D
C
C
B
B
A
C
D
D
D
A
D
B
C
B
C
B
D
D

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

161

Engineering Economics
Total Questions 3-5
A.
B.
C.
D.

Time value of money


Cost, including incremental, average, sunk, and estimating
Economic analyses
Depreciation

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

162

PART-I
QUESTION 1
A small company borrowed $10,000 to expand its business. The entire principal of $10,000 will
be repaid in two years, but quarterly interest of $330 must be paid every three months. The
nominal interest (%) the company is paying is nearly:
A. 3.3
B. 5.0
C. 6.6
D. 13.2

QUESTION 2
A deposit of $300 was made one year ago into an account paying monthly interest. If the account
now has $320.52, the effective annual interest rate (%) is close to:
A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

QUESTION 3.
A store charges 1.5% interest per month on credit purchases. This is equivalent to a nominal
interest rate (%) of:
A. 1.5
B. 15.0
C. 18.0
D. 21.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

163

QUESTION 4.
A stores policy is to charge 3% interest every two months on the unpaid balance in charge
accounts. The effective interest rate (%) is close to:
A. 6
B. 12
C. 15
D. 19

QUESTION 5.
The effective interest rate on a loan is 19.56%. If there are 12 compounding periods per year, the
nominal interest rate (%) is close to:
A. 1.5
B. 4.5
C. 9.0
D. 18.0

QUESTION 6.
If 10% nominal annual interest is compounded daily, the effective annual interest rate (%) is
nearest to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10.05
10.38
10.50
10.75

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

164

QUESTION 7.
An individual wishes to deposit a certain quantity of money now so that he will have $500 at the
end of five years. With interest at 4% per year, compounded semiannually, the amount ($) of the
deposit is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

340
400
410
416

QUESTION 8.
A retirement fund earns 8% interest compounded quarterly. If $400 is deposited every three
months for 25 years, the amount ($) in the fund at the end of 25 years is nearest to:
A. 50,000
B. 75,000
C. 100,000
D. 125,000

QUESTION 9.
The repair costs for some handheld equipment are estimated to be $120 the first year, increasing
by $30 per year in subsequent years. The amount a person needs to deposit ($) into a bank
account paying 4% interest to provide for the repair costs for the next five years is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

500
600
700
800

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

165

QUESTION 10.
An engineer bought a machine with one years free maintenance. In the second year the
maintenance cost is estimated to be $20. In subsequent years the maintenance costs will increase
$20 per year. The amount ($) that must be set aside now at 6% interest to pay the maintenance
costs on the machine for the first six years is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

101
164
229
284

QUESTION 11.
One thousand dollars is borrowed for one year at an interest of 1% per month. If this same sum
of money were borrowed for the same period at an interest rate of 12% per year, the saving ($) in
interest charges would be close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
3
5
7

QUESTION 12.
An investor is considering buying a 20-year corporate bond with a face value of $1000 paying
6% interest per year in two semi-annual payments. The purchaser will receive $30 every six
months and in addition he will receive $1000 at the end of 20 years along with the last $30
interest payment. If the investor thinks that he should receive 8% interest rate compounded
semiannually, the amount ($) he is willing to pay is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

500
600
700
800

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

166

QUESTION 13.
Annual maintenance costs for a particular section of highway pavement are $2000. The
placement of a new surface would reduce the annual maintenance costs to$500 per year for the
first five years and to $1000 per year for the next five years. The annual maintenance after 10
years would again be $2000. If the maintenance costs are the only saving, the maximum
investment ($) that can be justified for the new surface, with an interest of 4% is close to:
A. 5500
B. 7170
C. 10,000
D. 10,340

QUESTION 14.
A project has an initial cost of $10,000, uniform annual benefits of $2400 and a salvage value of
$3000 at the end of its 10-year useful life. At 12% interest rate, the net present worth ($) of the
project is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2500
3500
4500
5500
NPW = A (P/A, i, n) + S (P/F, i,n) - Cost

QUESTION 15.
A person borrows $5000 at an interest rate of 18%, compounded monthly. The monthly
payments of $167.10 are agreed. The length (months) of the loan is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
20
24
40

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

167

QUESTION 16.
A machine costing $2000 to buy and $300 per year to operate will save labor expenses of $650
per year for eight years. The machine will be purchased if its salvage value at the end of eight
years is sufficiently large to make the investment economically attractive. If an interest rate of
10% is used, the minimum salvage ($) value must be close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
200
300
400

QUESTION 17.
The amount of money deposited 50 years ago at 8% interest that would now provide a perpetual
payment ($) of $10,000 per year is close to:
A.
3,000
B.
8,000
C. 50,000
D. 125,000

QUESTION 18.
With an interest rate of 2% per month, money will double (months) in value in:
A.
B.
C.
D.

20
22
24
35

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

168

QUESTION 19.
An industrial firm must pay a local jurisdiction the cost to expand its sewage treatment plant. In
addition, the firm pays $12,000 annually toward the plant operating costs. The industrial firm
will pay sufficient money into a fund that earns 5% per year to pay its share of the plant
operating costs for ever. The ($) amount to be paid to the fund is close to:
A. 15,000
B. 30,000
C. 60,000
D. 240,000

QUESTION 20.
An engineer deposited $200 quarterly in her savings account for three years at 6% interest,
compounded quarterly. Then for five years, she made no deposits or withdrawals. The amount
($) in the account after eight years is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1200
1800
2400
3600

QUESTION 21.
If $200 is deposited in a savings account at the beginning of each year for 15 years and the
account earns interest at 6%, compounded annually the value ($) of the account at the end of 15
years will be most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4500
4700
4900
5100

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

169

QUESTION 22.
The maintenance expense on a piece of machinery is estimated as follows:
_________________________________________________________
Year
1
2
3
4
Maintenance ($)
150
300
450
600
_________________________________________________________
If interest is 8%, the equivalent uniform annual maintenance cost is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

250
300
350
400

QUESTION 23.
A manufacturer purchased $15,000 worth of equipment with a useful life of six years and a
$2000 salvage at the end of the six years. Assuming a 12% interest rate, the equivalent uniform
annual cost ($) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1500
2500
3500
4500

QUESTION 24.
The equivalent uniform cost ($) for the machine based on 10% interest for the following data is
nearly:
Initial cost: $80,000
Salvage value: $20,000
Annual operating cost: $18,000
Useful life: 20 years
A.
B.
C.
D.

21,000
23,000
25,000
27,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

170

QUESTION 25.
Consider the following data:
Initial cost: $80,000
Annual operating cost: $18,000
Useful life: 20 years
Interest rate: 10%
The salvage value ($) of the machine at the end of 20 years for the machine to have an equivalent
uniform annual cost of $27,000 is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10,000
23,000
30,000
40,000

QUESTION 26.
The rate of return (%) for a $10,000 investment that will yield $1000 per year for 20 years is
close to:
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12

QUESTION 27.
An engineer invested $10,000 in a company. In return he received $600 per year for six years
and his $10,000 investment back at the end of the six years. The rate of return (%) on the
investment is close to:
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

171

QUESTION 28.
An engineer made 10 annual end of year purchases of $1000 common stock. At the end of the
tenth year, just after the last purchase, the engineer sold all the stock for $12,000. The rate of
return (%) on the investment is nearly:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 10

QUESTION 29.
Consider the following data:
Initial cost: $80,000
Salvage value: $20,000
Annual operating costs: $18,000
Useful life: 20 years
The machine will produce an annual savings in material of $25,700. The rate of return (%) is
nearly:
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 15

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

172

QUESTION 30.
Two mutually exclusive alternatives are being considered:
___________________________________________
Year
A
B
___________________________________________
0
-$2500
-$6000
1
+$746
+$1664
2
+$746
+$1664
3
+$746
+$1664
4
+$746
+$1664
5
+$746
+$1664
____________________________________________
The rate of return (%) on the difference between the alternatives is close to:
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

QUESTION 31.
A project will cost $50,000. The benefits at the end of the first year are estimated to be $10,000,
increasing $1000 per year in subsequent years. Assuming a 12% interest rate, no salvage value,
and an eight-year analysis period, the benefit-cost ratio is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.78
1.00
1.28
1.45

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

173

QUESTION 32.
Two alternatives are being presented below:
_____________________________________________
A
B
_____________________________________________
Initial cost
$500
$800
Uniform annual benefit
$140
$200
Useful life years
8
8
_____________________________________________
The benefit-cost ratio of the difference between the alternatives, based on a 12% interest rate, is
close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.60
0.80
1.00
1.20

QUESTION 33.
A piece of property is purchased for $10,000 and yields a $1000 yearly profit. If the property is
sold after five years, the minimum price to break even, with interest at 6% is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

5000
6500
7700
8300

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

174

QUESTION 34.
The benefit-cost ratio for the following data:
Project cost: $60,000,000
Gross income: $ 20,000,000 per year
Operating costs: $5,500,000 per year
Salvage value after 10 years: none
The project life is ten years. Using 8% interest rate, the benefit-cost ratio is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.80
1.00
1.20
1.60

QUESTION 35.
Given two machines:
_________________________________________________
A
B
_________________________________________________
Initial costs
$55,000
$75,000
Total annual costs
$16,200
$12,450
_________________________________________________
With interest at 10% per year, at what service life (years) do these two machines have the same
equivalent uniform annual cost?
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
5
6
8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

175

QUESTION 36.
Two alternatives are being considered:
_______________________________________________________
A
B
_______________________________________________________
Cost
$1000
$2000
Useful life in years
10
10
Salvage value
$100
$400
_______________________________________________________
The net annual benefit of alternative A is $150. If interest rate is 8%, what must be the net annual
benefit ($) of alternative B for the two alternatives to be equally desirable?
A.
B.
C.
D.

150
200
225
275

QUESTION 37.
A firm has determined that the two best paints for its machinery are Tuff coat at $45 per gallon
and Quick at $22 per gallon. The Quick paint is expected to prevent rust for five years. Both
paints take $40 of labor per gallon to apply, and both cover the same area. If a 12% interest rate
is used, how long (years) must the Tuff coat paint prevent rust to justify its use?
A.
B.
C.
D.

5
6
7
8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

176

QUESTION 38.
A municipal bond is being offered for sale for $10,000. It is a zero-coupon bond that pays no
interest during its 15 year life. At the end, the owner of the bond will receive a single payment of
$26,639. The bond yield (%) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
5
6
7

QUESTION 39.
Special tools for the manufacture of finished plastic products cost $15,000 and have an estimated
$1000 salvage value at the end of an estimated three year useful life and recovery period. The
third-year straight line depreciation ($) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3000
3500
4000
4500

QUESTION 40.
A firm is considering purchasing $8000 of small hand tools for use on a production line. It is
estimated that the tools will reduce the amount of required overtime work by $2000 the first
year, with this amount increasing by $1000 per year thereafter. The payback period (years) for
the hand tools is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.00
2.50
2.75
3.00

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

177

QUESTION 41.
An engineer is considering the purchase of an annuity that will pay $1000 per year for 10 years.
The engineer feels he should obtain a 5% rate of return on the annuity after considering the effect
of an estimated 6% inflation per year. The amount he would be willing to pay to purchase the
annuity is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1500
3000
4500
6000

QUESTION 42.
An automobile costs $20,000 today. You can earn 12% tax-free on an auto purchase account. If
you expect the cost of the auto to increase by 10% per year, the amount you would need to
deposit ($) in the account to provide for the purchase of the auto five years from now is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12,000
14,000
16,000
18,000

QUESTION 43.
An engineer purchases a building lot for $40,000 cash and plans to sell it after five years. If he
wants an 18% before tax rate of return, after taking the 6% annual inflation rate into account, the
selling price ($) is nearly:
A. 55,000
B. 65,000
C. 75,000
D. 125,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

178

QUESTION 44.
Consider the following cash flow:
___________________________
Year
Cash flow
___________________________
0
+P
1
0
2
0
3
-400
4
0
5
-600
___________________________
Assuming a 12% interest rate, P is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

200
400
600
800

QUESTION 45.
Jim would like to purchase a land that costs $1000. The amount he needs to deposit ($) in the
savings account each month at 6% interest rate is:
A. 41
B. 81
C. 120
D. 150

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

179

QUESTION 46.
Consider the following cash flows:
___________________________________
Year
Cash flow
___________________________________
1
+100
2
+100
3
+100
4
0
5
-F
___________________________________
With a 15% interest, the value of F is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

460
520
640
720

QUESTION 47.
A county will build an aqueduct to bring water in two ways. It can build at a reduced size now
for $300 million and be enlarged 25 years hence for an additional $350 million. An alternative is
to construct the full sized aqueduct for $400 million. Both alternatives provide the needed
capacity for the 50 years analysis period. Maintenance costs are negligible. At 6% interest rate
which alternative should be selected?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Two-stage construction
Single stage construction
Either alternative is OK
In sufficient information provided in the question

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

180

QUESTION 48.
A firm is trying to decide which of two weighing scales it should install to check a packagefilling unit. If both scales have same useful life period of 6 years, which one should be selected
and the estimated savings will be with an interest rate of 8%:
Alternatives

Cost

Scale A
Scale B

$2000
$3000

A.
B.
C.
D.

Benefits
$450
$600

Salvage value
100
700

Scale A; $72
Scale B; $72
Scale A; $90
Scale B: $90

QUESTION 49.
In the construction of an aqueduct to expand the water supply to a city, two alternatives are
proposed. A tunnel through the mountain or a pipeline go around the mountain. Assuming an
interest rate of 6%, which alternative must be selected? The following data apply:
_______________________________________________
Tunnel
Pipeline
_______________________________________________
Initial cost ($)
5.5 million
5 million
Maintenance
0
0
Useful life
Permanent
50 years
Salvage value
0
0
_______________________________________________
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pipeline
Tunnel
Either option
None of the above

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

181

QUESTION 50.
Consider the following mutually exclusive alternatives:
_____________________________________________________
A
B
C
_____________________________________________________
Initial cost ($)
2,000
4,000
6,000
Uniform annual benefit ($)
410
639
700
_____________________________________________________
Each alternative has a 20-year life and no salvage value. If the minimum attractive rate of return
is 6%, which alternative should be selected?
A.
B.
C.
D.

A
B
C
None of the above

QUESTION 51.
A firm is trying to decide which of two weighing scales it should install to check a packagefilling operation in the plant. If both scales have a 6-year life, and with an interest rate of 8%,
the payback period (years) for the alternative A is:
____________________________________________________________
Alternative
Cost
Annual benefit
Salvage value
____________________________________________________________
A
2,000
450
100
B
3,000
600
700
____________________________________________________________
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.4
3.4
4.4
5.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

182

QUESTION 52.
Consider the following cash flows:
___________________________________________
Gross income from sales ($)
200
Purchase of tools ($)
(Useful life 3 years)
-60
All other expenditures ($)
-140
___________________________________________
The taxable income ($) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
20
30
40

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

183

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
A piece of machinery costs $900. After 5 years, the salvage value is $300. Annual maintenance
costs are $50. If the interest rate is 8%, the equivalent uniform annual cost (EUAC) is most
nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

$220
$300
$330
$350

QUESTION 2.
A project is being considered wherein a small airfield will be built. Land for the project will cost
$350,000, construction costs will be $800,000, and annual maintenance will be $25,000/year.
Annual benefits expected from this project are $250,000 per year. The Benefit-Cost ratio
assuming a rate of 6% and a life of 20 years is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.98
0.99
1.20
2.00

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

184

QUESTION 3.
The payback period for the following investment, assuming an interest rate of 6% is nearly:
End of Year
0
1
2
3
4
5
6

A.
B.
C.
D.

Investment A
- $10,000
$0
$ 2,000
$ 4,000
$ 4,000
$ 2,270
$ 4,000

2
3
4
5

QUESTION 4.
A company is trying to determine at what level they must operate their plant just to break even.
Their fixed costs are $7500/month and their variable costs are $3.00 per unit. Revenue is
expected to be $10/unit.

A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
QUESTION 5.
The annual maintenance costs for a drilling machine are estimated at $750 the first year,
increasing by $50 every year. Assuming a useful life of 8 years and a 6% inflation rate, the
equivalent uniform annual cost (EUAC) for maintenance over the useful life is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

$ 800
$ 900
$1,000
$1,100
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

185

QUESTION 6.
A company purchases a plastic injection system that will save the company $43,000 during the
first year of operation, decreasing by $2,000 every year to $41,000 the second year, $39,000 the
third year, and so forth. Given a MARR of 10% per year, the present worth of the savings over
the 4-year life of the machine is closest to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

$125,500
$126,500
$127,500
$128,500

QUESTION 7.
A company is considering two mutually exclusive alternative projects to enhance its production
facility. The respective financial estimates for each project are as follows:

Project A

Project B

Initial Cost

75,000

105,000

Annual Savings

16,000

24,000

Salvage Value

9,000

If the useful life of Project A is 4 years, with a MARR of 15%, the useful life in years of Project
B that makes both projects equally desirable is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
5
6
7

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

186

QUESTION 8.
An engineering department is considering purchase of an advanced computational fluid
dynamics software system to enhance productivity. The initial cost of the software is $55,000 but
is expected to result in efficiency savings of $25,000 the first year, with this amount decreasing
by $5,000 per year thereafter. The payback period (years) for the software is closest to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.00
2.67
3.00
3.67

QUESTION 9.
Which of the following alternatives is superior over a 30-year period if the interest rate is 7%?
Type
Life
Initial cost
Maintenance

A.
B.
C.
D.

Alternate A Alternate B
Brick
Wood
30 years
10 years
$1800
$450
$5/year
$20/year

Alternative A
Alternative B
Either A or B
None of the above

QUESTION 10.
A corporation that pays 53% of its profit in income taxes invests $10,000in an asset that will
produce $3000 annual revenue for eight years. If the annual expenses are $700, salvage after
eight years is $500 and 9% interest is used. What is the after-tax present worth? Neglect
depreciation.
A.
B.
C.
D.

-$1,000
-$2,500
-$3,700
-$5,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

187

QUESTION 11.
It costs $1000 for hand tools and $1.50 labor per unit to manufacture a product. Another
alternative is to manufacture the product by an automated process that costs $15,000 with a
$0.50 per unit cost. With annual production rate of 5,000 units, how long (years) it take to reach
the breakeven point?
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.0
2.8
3.6
5.0

QUESTION 12.
A loan of $10,000 is made today at an interest rate of 15% and the first payment of $3,000 is
made 4 years later. The amount ($) that is still due on the loan after the first payment is most
nearly:
A. 7,000
B. 8,050
C. 8,500
D. 14,500

QUESTION 13.
A subsurface remedial treatment technology costs $245,000 to construct initially with annual
operation and maintenance costs of $9000 for a 5-yr operational life. Using an annual interest
rate of 7%, and no equipment salvage value, the annualized cost for the remedial treatment
technology is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

$58,000
$60,000
$65,000
$69,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

188

QUESTION 14.
A manufacturing process has present operating costs of $ 10.9 million annually and waste
disposal costs of $ 3.3 million. The plant manager wishes to upgrade the process by installing
new equipment at a capital cost of $ 23.3 million. This will reduce the annual operating and
waste disposal costs to $ 7.1 and $ 1.4 million respectively. The saving (in million dollars) from
the new process using present worth analysis is close to:
Assume no salvage value. Use 12 percent interest for 10 years as a basis for calculations.
A.
B.
C.
D.

8.9
7.5
3.2
1.0

QUESTION 15.
The total quantity of contaminated soils at the Peppers steel and alloy site was 120,000 tons.
Estimate the savings (million dollars) from the land filling option versus stabilization for the
management of the hazardous waste at this site. Each truck can carry 31,500 pounds to the
nearest landfill site at a distance of 850 miles. The trucking cost per mile was $2.00 and the total
stabilization cost was $67 per ton.
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.9
3.1
4.5
5.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

189

QUESTION 16.
A company must purchase a cyclone to control dust from a foundry operation. The lowest bid
that would meet all requirements with installed cost of $40,000. The cyclone has a service life of
5 years. A bid was also received from another manufacturer that is guaranteed for 10 years and
would lower maintenance costs by $1000 per year. The installed cost is $60,000. Both cyclones
have zero salvage values. If the company currently receives a 12% return before taxes on all
investments, the incremental ROI (%) is nearly:

A.
B.
C.
D.

10
15
20
25

QUESTION 17.
Company A and B brought identical venture scrubbers in 1992 that cost $75,000 each. In both
applications, the service life was estimated to be 5 years with zero salvage value. The corporate
income tax rate for both companies was 50%. Company A used straight-line depreciation and
Company B used the MACRS method. The money Company B saved over the first 3 years of
service based on its depreciation procedure is close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

$ 2,500
$ 4,000
$ 6,000
$ 9,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

190

QUESTION 18.
In the design of a cold storage warehouse, the specifications are for a maximum heat transfer
through the warehouse of walls of 30,000 J/m2 of wall when there is a 30C temperature
difference between the inside surface and outside surface of the insulation. The two insulation
materials considered are:

Insulation material Cost per cubic meter Conductivity


$ (J-m/m2-oC-hr)
Rock wool
12.50
140
Foamed insulation
14.00
110

The savings ($) that can be achieved by selecting the low cost material per square meter is close
to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.10
0.15
0.20
0.30

QUESTION 19.
A firm is considering which of two mechanical devices to install to reduce costs in a particular
situation. Both devices cost $1000 and have useful lives of 5 years and no salvage value. Device
A can be expected to result in $300 savings annually. Device B will provide cost savings of $400
the first year but will decline $50 annually, making the second year savings $350, the third year
$300 and so forth. With interest at 7%, the device that should be purchased and the cost savings
are close to:
A. Device A; $30
B. Device B; $30
C. Device A; $10
D. Device B; $ 0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

191

QUESTION 20.
Fairfax county will build an aqueduct to bring water in from the upper part of the state. It can be
built with a reduced size now for $300 million and be enlarged 25 years hence for an additional
$350 million (Alternate A). An alternative (B) is to construct the full-sized aqueduct now for
$400 million. Both alternatives would provide the needed capacity for the 50-year analysis
period. Maintenance costs are small and may be negligible. At 6% interest which alternative
should be selected and the cost savings (million dollars) are close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Alternate A; 20
Alternate A; 10
Alternate B; 20
Alternate B; 10

QUESTION 21.
A purchasing officer received two quotes with the following information:

Manufacturer Cost Useful life Salvage value


($)
(years)
($)
Speedy
1500
5
200
Allied
1600
5
325

For a 5-year analysis period, which manufacturers equipment should be selected? Assume 7%
interest and equal maintenance costs.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Speedy
Allied
Both offer same benefits
Not enough information provided to evaluate

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

192

QUESTION 22.
A firm is trying to decide which of the two weighing scales it should install to check a package
filling operations in the plant. If both scales have lies equal to the 6-year analysis period, the cost
savings ($) are close to:
Assume an 8% interest rate.
Alternatives

Cost ($)

Atlas scale
Thumb scale

2000
3000

A.
B.
C.
D.

Uniform annual
Benefit ($)
450
600

Salvage Value
($)
100
700

20
40
70
90

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

193

QUESTION 23.
After purchasing a quarry and basic crushing equipment, the contractor is considering an
alternative plan to improve the operation of the quarry. The alternative plan will produce an
equal
amount
of
crushed rock and
Parameter
Present
Alternative
equal revenue.
plan
plan
First cost ($)
0
10,000
Salvage
0
1,000
Annual cost ($) 250,000
248,000
Life (years)
5

The benefit-cost ratio of the alternative plan (using a 10% rate of return on investment) when
compared to the present plan is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.6
0.8
1.0
1.2

QUESTION 24.
A contractor has been awarded the contract a 6-mile long tunnel in the mountains. During the 5year construction period, the contractor will need water from a nearby stream. He will construct
a pipeline to convey the water to the main construction yard. An analysis of costs for various
pipe sizes is as follows:
Pipe size (in)
Installed cost of
pipeline and
pump
Cost per hour for
pumping

2
$ 22,000

3
$ 23,000

6
$ 25,000

$30,000

$ 1.20

$ 0.65

$0.50

$0.40

The pipe and pump will have a salvage value at the end of 5 years, equal to the cost to remove
them. The pump will operate 2000 hours per year. The lowest interest rate at which the
contractor is willing to invest money is 7%. The pipe size that can be selected is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
3
4
6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

194

QUESTION 25.
An investor paid $8000 to a consulting firm to analyze what he might do with a small parcel of
land on the edge of town that can be bought for $30,000. In their report, the consultants
suggested four alternatives:
Alternatives

Total investment Uniform net annual benefit Salvage value


Including land
($)
($)
($)
Do nothing
0
0
0
Vegetable market
50,000
5,100
30,000
Gas station
95,000
10,500
30,000
Small motel
350,000
36,000
150,000

Assuming 10% is the minimum attractive rate of return, the best option is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Do nothing
Vegetable market
Gas station
Small motel

QUESTION 26.
A piece of land may be purchased for $610,000 to be strip-mined for the underlying coal. Annual
net income will be $200,000 per year for 10 years. At the end of the 10 years, the surface of the
land will be restored to the original condition. The reclamation will cost $1.5 million more than
the resale value of the land after it is restored. Using a 10% interest rate, the net present worth of
the project is close:
A. 40
B. 80
C. 120
D. 180

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

195

QUESTION 27.
A firm is considering which of the two devices to install to reduce costs in a particular situation.
Both devices cost $1000 and have useful lives of 5 years with no salvage value. Device A can be
expected to result in $300 savings annually. Device B will provide cost savings of $400 the first
year, but will decline $50 annually, making the second year savings $350, the third year savings
$300 and so forth. With interest rate at 7% which device should the firm purchase?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Device A
Device B
Either A or B
Not enough information provided

QUESTION 28.
Two pumps are being considered for purchase. If interest 7%, which pump should be bought?
Pump A

Pump B

Initial cost

$7000

$5000

Salvage value

$1,500

$1,000

Useful life
A.
B.
C.
D.

12

Pump A
Pump B
Both are suitable
Not enough information is provided

QUESTION 29.
A firm is trying to decide which of two devices to install to reduce costs in a particular situation.
Both devices cost $1000 and have useful life of 5 years and no salvage value. Device A can be
expected to result in $300 savings annually. Device B will provide cost savings of $400 the first
year, bust savings will decline by $50 annually, making the second year savings $350, the third
year savings $300 and so forth. With interest at 7%, which device should the firm purchase?
A. Device A
B. Device B
C. Either Device A and B
D. Neither Device A or B

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

196

QUESTION 30.
The cash flow for two alternatives is as follows:

Year
A
B
0
-1,000 -2,783
1
+200 +1,200
2
+200 +1,200
3
+1,200 +1,200
4
+1,200 +1,200
5
+1,200 +1,200
Based on payback period, which alternative should be selected?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Alternative A
Alternative B
Either A or B
Neither A or B.

QUESTION 31.
Consider the relocation and construction of a section of a rural highway. Data on costs are given
in the table below. All values are in thousands of dollars. Use a 20-year analysis period with a
10% annual interest rate. Major maintenance will not be done in the 20th year.
________________________________________________________
First cost
$ 6,000
Annual maintenance for first 10 years
$50
Annual maintenance for second 10 years
$75
Major maintenance every 10 years
$300
Residual value
$3,000
Annual road user costs
$660
________________________________________________________
The present value or present worth of the highway costs ($), ignoring user costs, is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

6,000,000
6,150,000
6,350,000
6,600,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

197

QUESTION 32.
A utility company can borrow at 6% interest. The company can buy a packaged wastewater plant
for $10,000,000 payable up-front and estimates $200,000/year for maintenance. Another option
is to lease the plant with a $1,000,000 down payment and $600,000 semi-annual payments
(including maintenance) for the 20-year lease period. Assume the plant has a useful life for 20
years and a salvage value of zero. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Buying is better by $2.6 million


Buying is better by $4.9 million
Leasing is better by $4.4 million
Buying and leasing costs are about the same

QUESTION 33
A company purchases a plant for $14.5 million. The plant has a salvage value of $0.5 million at
the end of 10 years. Based on the straight-line method for depreciation, the first year depreciation
($) is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.80 million
1.50 million
1.45 million
1.40 million

QUESTION 34.
A subdivision developer asks your opinion on whether to construct roads all at once or stages.
He finds he can put in the base course and pavement complete now for $210,000. As an
alternative, the county engineer will permit him to install only base course now (cost estimated at
$120,000), with the paving installed two years from now (cost estimated at $100,000). If the
developer borrows at 10% interest, which do you recommend as the more economical
alternative?
A.
B.
C.
D.

All at once
Stage Construction
Both options are OK
None of the above

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

198

QUESTION 35.
A city finances its park acquisitions from a special tax of $0.02 a bottle, can or glass of all
beverages sold in the city. It derives $100,000 a year from this tax. The city has an option to buy
a 40-acre lakefront park site for $1,000,000 as soon as the money is available. How soon will this
be if the tax receipts are invested annually at the end of each year at 6 percent interest?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

QUESTION 36.
A young engineer decides to save for a down payment on a new car to be purchased 2 years
from now. She decides to deposit 450 per month into a savings account paying 6% nominal
interest compounded monthly. She plans to make a series of 20 regular monthly deposits with the
first deposit scheduled for one month from today. The account will then receive no more deposits
but will receive monthly compound interest on the balance for another 10 months. The amount of
money ($) in the account at the end of 30-month period is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1000
1100
1200
1300

QUESTION 37.
A new retirement community will need to add a second unit to the new water treatment plant
when the population reaches 40,000. The community has just been built and is starting out now
with zero population. An average of 6,000 new residents is expected to move into the community
each year. The estimated birthrate for the community is 8 per 1,000 and the death rate is 14 per
1000 resulting in a negative increase of -0.6 percent. The time required before the second unit is
needed for the new water treatment plant is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
5
7
9

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

199

QUESTION 38.
A contractor buys a $10,000 truck for nothing down and $2,600 per year for five years. The
interest rate she is paying is close to:
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

QUESTION 39.
A new civic auditorium is estimated to cost $5,000,000 and produce net annual revenue of
$500,000. If funds to construct the auditorium are borrowed at 8% interest, how many annual
payments of $500,000 are required to retire the debt?
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
20
30
40

QUESTION 40.
A bridge authority collects $0.25 per vehicle and deposits the revenue once a month in an
interest bearing account. Currently 600,000 vehicles a month cross the bridge and the number is
expected to increase at a rate of 3,500 vehicles per month. The equivalent uniform monthly
revenue ($) would be generated over the next five years if the interest in the account were 6%
nominal compounded monthly is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100,000
125,000
150,000
175,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

200

QUESTION 41.
You are asked to compare current garbage pickup costs versus the cost of a new mechanical arm
extending from the garbage truck which pick up garbage cans at curbside and empties them into
the truck. The estimated costs are:
New mechanical arm: $22,000
Salvage value in 10years: $2000
O&M first year: $500/year
Increase in O&M per year: $100/year
Interest rate: 6%
The mechanical arm will replace one person on the crew who now draws $4,000/year with
anticipated increase of $300/year. The cost savings ($) that can be realized by choosing an
alternative is:
A. 7,800
B. 9,800
C. 10,850
D. 12,440

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

201

QUESTION 42.
A county engineer has a choice of paving with either type A pavement or type B pavement. Type
A pavement has a life expectancy of ten years, after which part of the material can be salvaged
and reused. Type B pavement only lasts five years but is much less expensive. Which is the
better alternative? Consider two sequential five-year installations of type B are compared to one
ten year-life of type A.

Cost new
Annual
maintenance
Estimated
life
i
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pavement cost ($)


per mile
Type A Type B
20,000
5,000
1,000
2,000
10
years
6%

5 years
6%

Type A
Type B
Both A and B provide same cost savings
None of the above

QUESTION 43.
A contractor has just bought a dragline for $50,000. He expects to keep the dragline for seven
years and then sell it. His installment payment contract on the machine runs for five years. He
paid $10,000 down and will pay the balance of $40,000 in 60 monthly installments with 1% per
month interest on the unpaid balance. The amount of money ($) he needs to charge per cubic
yard of earth moved in order to cover the following costs:
P&I (Principal and interest) payments
O&M costs: $2,000/month
Resale value at the end of seven years: $15,000
i =1.5% month on invested capital
Production is estimated to average 10,000 yd3 of material per month
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.150
0.210
0.268
0.286

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

202

QUESTION 44.
A bulldozer is scheduled for a major overhauling costing $10,000 at the end of the third year of
its seven year economic life. The equivalent cost over the seven year period for an interest rate of
10% is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1,000
1,100
1,350
1,550

QUESTION 45.
A marine dredge has an expected life of 12 years. The estimated maintenance costs for years 3
through 6 years are estimated at $15,000 per year payable in this case at the beginning of the
year. The equivalent annual cost ($) over the 12-year life of the dredge with an interest rate of
7% is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3,000
6,000
7,500
9,000

QUESTION 46.
An airport runway is expected to incur no maintenance costs for the first five years of its life. In
year 6 maintenance should cost $1,000, in year 7 maintenance cost is $2,000 and each year
thereafter until resurfacing the runway is expected to increase in maintenance by $1,000 per year.
If the resurfacing is expected after 15 years of services, the equivalent uniform annual
maintenance cost is incurred if i=7% is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2,700
2,800
3,100
3,300

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

203

QUESTION 47.
Two roofs are under consideration for a building needed for 20 years. Their anticipated costs and
lives are:
Cost new
Replacement
cost
Life of roof
Salvage
value@ 20
years
Interest rate
(%)

Roof C
50,000
20 years
0

Roof D
25,000
Rise
10%/year
10 years
0

12

12

Based on the annual worth, the roof that provides the lowest cost option is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Roof C
Roof D
Both provide similar costs
None of the above

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

204

QUESTION 48
A consulting firm has a choice of two word processing machines. Each machine will permit a
reduction in clerical staff. Estimated costs, lives and salary savings are tabulated below. Assume
i=15%
Processor A Processor B
Cost new
-8,000
-17,000
Salary savings
+3,500
+4,800
Life (yr)
5
6
Salvage value
0
+4,000
The processor that must be selected is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Processor A
Processor B
Both A and B
None of the above

QUESTION 49.
An income of $1,000 per year is expected from a certain enterprise at the end of years 1 through
6. These funds will be invested at 10 percent as soon as received and remain invested at that
interest until the end of year 10. The amount ($) of money the account worth at the end of 10 th
year is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

10,300
11,300
12,600
14,900

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

205

QUESTION 50.
A contractor is arraigning financing for a project he is about to construct. He needs to borrow
$1,000 at the beginning of the first month, $2,000 at the beginning of the second month, and
increase the amount borrowed by $1,000 through the beginning of the tenth month. He expects
payment for the entire job from the owner at the end of the twelfth month. The bank agrees to
loan the money at 1% interest compounded monthly on the amount borrowed. The amount ($)
the contractor have to repay at the end of the twelfth month is nearly:

A.
B.
C.
D.

34,800
44,800
54,400
58,400

QUESTION 51.
A $1000 cost resulted in a lump sum payment of $2,500 at the end of ten years. The rate of
return on this investment is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

6.6
7.6
8.6
9.6

QUESTION 52.
A bus company is for sale for $150,000. The net income this year is $50,000 but is expected to
drop $6,000 per year next year and each year thereafter. At the end of ten years the franchise will
be terminated and the company assets sold for $50,000. The rate of return (%) on this investment
is:

A. 8
B. 10
C. 15
D. 18

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

206

QUESTION 53.
The purchase of an existing ready mixed concrete plant in good operating condition requires a
capital investment of $3,700,000 (plant, trucks, property etc). Calculation of O&M costs of
producing concrete are $20.52 per cubic yard of concrete (this includes material costs for cement
and aggregate as well as O&M costs for the equipment). If the concrete is sold for $45.00 per
cubic yard, what annual volume (yd3) of concrete must the company sell to breakeven if their
before tax MARR is 20 percent? Assume a 20 year plant life with no salvage value.

A.
B.
C.
D.

27,000
31,000
38,000
44,000

QUESTION 54
A small, but profitable consulting engineering firm is considering hiring another engineer for
$30,000 salary +$30,000 benefits per year. Currently their fixed costs total $740,000 per year
and their variable costs average $11,200 per engineering contract. Their income per engineering
contract averages $19,300. If the new engineer is hired and his costs are all fixed costs, how
many more contracts must be acquired for the company to breakeven?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

QUESTION 55.
A water and sewer utility department is considering the acquisition of a bell holder which will
dig small bell holes for pipe joints. The equipment costs $5,000 with no predictable salvage after
ten years. The machine can dig five holes an hour and requires one operator at $8 an hour. Fuel,
maintenance and overheads add another $2 per hour. At present the bell holes are hand dug by
laborers at $5 per hour averaging two holes per person per hour. How many holes per year is the
breakeven point if i=10 percent?

A.
B.
C.
D.

1320
1420
1520
1620
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

207

QUESTION 56.
A dozer is used to push load a fleet of five scrapers. If the dozer is out of service, production
stops. Production is usually at 1,000 yd3/hr with costs at $900 per hour and income at $1.20 per
cubic yard. With the dozer out of service, the costs continue at $900 per hour but production
stops. A standby unit may be rented at $35 per hour. Should the unit be rented? Assume 95.5%
availability of the dozer.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Yes rent the dozer


No, the unit is expensive to rent
Buy a new dozer
Not enough information provided.

QUESTION 57.
Find the after-tax present worth of taxable income of $410,000 per year for ten years with i-10%.
The tax payer is in the 30% tax bracket.

A.
B.
C.
D.

23,000
33,000
43,000
53,000

QUESTION 58.
A $1,000 bond paying 6% semiannually ($30) have five years to go until maturity. The current
market for these bonds is 8%. That is investors are willing to buy the bond if they can receive a
nominal interest rate of 8 percent on their investment. How much will the bond be worth?

A.
B.
C.
D.

919
939
949
999

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

208

QUESTION 59.
An investor group holds 3,000acres of undeveloped land which they purchased at $1,000 per
acre five years ago. The land is assessed at $500 per acre and the tax rate is $10 per acre per
year. At the end of the fourth year they put in some access trails at a cost of $50,000. What must
they sell (Million $) it for at the end of the fifth year to realize a before-tax rate of return of 15 %
on their investment?

A.
B.
C.
D.

4.3
6.3
8.3
9.9

QUESTION 60.
A ten-unit apartment house can be constructed for $200,000. The mortgage company will furnish
an 80 percent mortgage at 8 percent for 25 years. Operating expenses are estimated at $3,000 per
year. If 90% occupancy is expected, what annual rent ($) is required to return 15% on the
investment the first year before any income tax considerations and with zero depreciation?

A.
B.
C.
D.

1,400
2,400
3,200
3,600

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

209

QUESTION 61.
An automobile is purchased for $8000. Anticipated annual maintenance costs and salvage values
are shown below:

Year

1
2
3
4
5

Annual
maintenance cost
($)
0
1000
2000
3000
4000

End of year
salvage value ($)
6000
5000
4000
3000
2000

For a i=15%, the economic life of the automobile is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

2
4
6
8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

210

QUESTION 62.
A recreation facility is being designed for use by the public. At this point two maintenance
programs are being considered with cots and income as shown:
Maintenance
Level A

Maintenance
Level B

First cost ($)

100,000

100,000

O&M costs

50,000/year

13,000/year

Expected life

20 years

5 years

Income

60,000/year

60,000/yr
Decreasing 10,000/year

Which level of maintenance should be selected if i=8%?


A.
B.
C.
D.

Maintenance A
Maintenance B
Either A or B
Neither A or B

QUESTION 63.
A water service line is required for a new subdivision. Estimate on the costs of the alternative
installations are shown. Funding may be through utility revenue bonds currently selling at 6
percent interest.
Alternate
A

Life
10 years

40 years

Capital cost
100,000 replacement
increases $50,000 each
10 years
$300,000

Annual maintenance
$10,000 increasing
$5,000/year for 10 years
until replacement
$10,000 increasing
$1,000 per year

No salvage value is anticipated in either case. Which of the two proposals is more economical if
owned by a tax exempt municipality?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Proposal A
Proposal B
Either A or B
None of the above

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

211

SOLUTIONS

PART-I
QUESTION 1
The interest paid per year is:

$330

4 = $1320

$1320

The nominal interest rate is: $10,000 100 = 13.2%

QUESTION 2
The amount of interest earned = $320.52 $300.00 = $20.52
The effective annual interest rate =

$20.52
$300

100 = 6.84%

QUESTION 3
The nominal interest rate is the annual interest rate without compounding.
The nominal interest rate = 1.5% 12 = 18%

QUESTION 4

The effective interest rate can be calculated as: = (1 + ) 1


r = 3% for every two months
= 18% for one year
m = 6 time periods
= (1 +

18% 6
) 1 = 0.194 19.4%
6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

212

QUESTION 5

The effective interest rate can be calculated as: = (1 + ) 1


(1 +
(1 +


) = 1 +

) = (1 + )1/

Or

= (1 + )1/ 1

= (1 + 0.1956)1/12 1 = 0.015

= 0.015 12 = 18%
QUESTION 6

The effective interest rate can be calculated as: = (1 + ) 1


= (1 +

10% 365
) 1 = 0.1052 10.52%
365

QUESTION 7
Given
F = $500
i = 4% compounded semi-annual
i = 5 years
Therefore,
i = 4%/2 = 2% semi-annually
n = 5 x 2 = 10 time periods

= [ , , ] = $500[ , 2%, 10]

500[0.8203] = $410

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

213

QUESTION 8
Given
A = $400
i = 8% compounded quarterly or 2% per quarter
n = 25 years or 100 time periods

= [ , , ] = $400 [ , 2%, 100]

$400[312.23] = $125,000
QUESTION 9

= [ , , ] + [ , , ]

= $120 [ , 4%, 5] + $30 [ , 4%, 5]

= $120[4.452] + $30[8.555] = $791


QUESTION 10
Given
G = $20
i = 6%
n= 6

= [ , , ] = $20 [ , 6%, 6]

= $20[11.459] = $229
QUESTION 11
At i = 1% per month, = $1000 (1 + 0.01)12 = $1126.83
At i = 12% per year, = $1000 (1 + 0.12)1 = $1120.00
Savings in interest charges: $1126.83 $1120 =$6.83
QUESTION 12

= $30 [ , 4%, 40] + $1000[ , 4%, 40]

= $30[19.793] + $1000[0.2083] = $802


QUESTION 13
Benefits are $1500 per year for first five years and $1000 per year for the next five years.
The benefits may be considered as $1000 per year for 10 years plus an additional benefit of $500
for first five years.
Maximum investment:

$1000 [ , 4%, 10] + $500 [ , 4%, 5]

$1000[8.111] + $500[4.452] = $10,337


FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

214

QUESTION 14
=
= +

$2400 [ , 12%, 10] + $3000 [ , 12%, 10] $10,000 = $4526

QUESTION 15
=

$5000 = $167.10[ , 1.5%, ]

$5000
[ , 1.5%, ] =
= 29.92

$167.10
From 1.5% interest tables, and in P/A column, n = 40 months
QUESTION 16
=
To get minimum salvage value, we equate the equation to zero

[$650 $300] [ , 10%, 8] + [ , 10%, 8] $2000 = 0

$350[5.335] + [0.4665] = $2000


= $285
QUESTION 17
The amount of money needed now to begin perpetual payments is:
$10,000
= =
= $125,000

0.80
Compute P, that would need to have been deposited 50 years ago as:

= $125,000 [ , 8%, 50]

= $125,000[0.0213] = $2663
QUESTION 18

2 = 1 [ , , ]

2 = 1 [ , 2%, ]

From 2% interest tables, n = 35 months


QUESTION 19
=

$12,000
=
= $240,000

5%

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

215

QUESTION 20

= $200 [ , 1.5%, 12] [ , 1.5%, 20]

= $200[13.041][1.347] = $3513
QUESTION 21

= [ , , ] = $200 [ , 6%, 15]

= $200[23.276] = $4655.20

= [ , , ] = $4655.20 [ , 6%, 1]

$4655.20[1.06] = $4935
QUESTION 22

() = $150 + $100 [ , 8%, 4]

= $150 + $150[1.404] = $361


QUESTION 23

= $15,000 [ , 12%, 6] $2000 [ , 12%, 6]

= $15,000[0.2432] 2000[0.1232] = $3402


QUESTION 24

= $80,000 [ , 10%, 20] + 18,000 $20,000[[ , 10%, 20]

= $80,000[0.1175] + $18,000 $20,000[0.0175] = $27,050


QUESTION 25
=

$27,000 = $80,000 [ , 10%, 20] + $18,000 [ , 10%, 20]

$27,000 = $80,000[0.1175] + $18,000 [0.0175]


= $22,857
QUESTION 26

= $1000 [ , , 20] $10,000 = 0

$10,000
[ , , 20] =
= 10

$1,000
From the choices provided, chose choice B or C and look up in the interest rate tables to check
for n = 20, P/A column, , the value is 10. If not correct, select the next choice. The correct
interest rate is 8%.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

216

QUESTION 27
$600

The rate of return = $10,00 100 = 6%


QUESTION 28

= [ , , ]

$12,000 = $1000 [ , , 10]

$12,000
[ , , 10] =
= 12

$1000

In 4% interest tables, [ , , 10] = 12.006


Therefore, i = 4%
QUESTION 29
=

$80,000 = [$25,700 $18,000] [ , , 20] + $20,000[ , , 20]

Try 8% interest rate


$80,000 = $7,700[9.9818] + $20,000[0.2145] = $79,889
Therefore i =8%
QUESTION 30
The key word is difference between the alternatives
Incremental costs:$6000 $2500 = $3500
Incremental benefits:$1664 $746 = $918
=

$3500 = $918[ , , 5]

$3500
[ , , 5] =
= 3.81

$918
Therefore, i = 10%
QUESTION 31

$10,000 [ , 12%, 8] + $1000[ , 12%, 8]


=
$50,000
$10,000[4.968] + $1000[14.471]
=
= 1.28
$50,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

217

QUESTION 32

$60[ , 12%, 8]
$60[4.968]
=
=
= 1.00
$300
$300
QUESTION 33

= $10,000 [ , 6%, 5] $1000 [ , 6%, 5]

= $10,000[1.338] $1000[5.637] = $7743


QUESTION 34

$20,000,000 $5,000,000
=
=
= 1.62


$60,000,000[[ , 8%, 10]
QUESTION 35
[ ] = [ ]

$55,000 + $16,200 [ , 10%, ] = $75,000 + $12,450 [ , 10%, ]

$75,000 $55,000
[ , 10%, ] =
= 5.33

$16,200 $12,450
From 10% interest rate tables, n = 8 years
QUESTION 36
At breakeven, [ ] = [ ]

$150 [ , 8%, 10] + $100 [ , 8%, 10] $1000

= [ ] [ , 8%, 10] + $400 [ , 8%, 10] $2000

= $278
QUESTION 37
[] = []

[$45 + $40] [ , 12%, ] = [$22 + $40][ , 12%, 5]

$17.20
[ , 12%, ] =
= 0.202

$85
From 12% interest rate tables, n =8 years

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

218

QUESTION 38
Given
P =$10,000
F =$26,639
n = 15 years
i=?
= [1 + ]
$26,639 = $10,000[1 + ]15
i = 6.75%
QUESTION 39
Straight-line depreciation: =

$15,000 $1000
= $4666
3

QUESTION 40
The annual benefits are $2000, $3000 and $4000. The payback period is the time when $8000 of
benefits is received. This will occur in 2.75 years.
QUESTION 41
= + + [ ]
= 0.05 + 0.06 + [0.05 + 0.06] = 0.113 11.3%

= [ , 11.3%, 10]

Since the interest rate is not given, we need to use the equation in page 127, given A finding P
(1 + 0.113)10 1
= $1000 [
] = $5816
0.113(1 + 0.113)10
QUESTION 42
Cost of automobile after five years: = [1 + ]
= $20,000[1 + 0.10]5 = $32,210
Amount of deposit now to have $32,210 available in five years is:

= [ , , ]

= $32,210 [ , 12%, 5] = $32,210[0.5674] = $18,276

QUESTION 43

Selling price: $40,000 [ , 18%, 5] [ , 6%, 5]


= $40,000[2.288][1.338] = $122,500

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

219

QUESTION 44

= $400 [ , 12%, 3] + $600 [ , 12%, 5]

= $400[0.7118] + $600[0.5674] = $625.16


QUESTION 45
Given
F = $1000
n = 12 years
i = %
A=?
1
= $1000 [ , %, 12]
2
= $1000[0.0811] = 81.10
QUESTION 46
= 1 + 2 + 3

= $100 [ , 15%, 4] + $100 [ , 15%, 3] + $100[ , 15%, 2]

$100[1.749] + $100[1.521] + $100[1.322] = $459.20


QUESTION 47
For the two-stage construction:

= $300 + +$350 [ , 6%, 25]

= $300 + $81.6 = $381.6


For the single-stage construction:
= $400
The two-stage construction has a smaller present worth of cost and is the preferred construction
plan
QUESTION 48
Scale A:

= $450[ , 8%, 6 + $100 [ , 8%, 6] $2000

= $450[4.623] + $100[0.6302] $2000 = $143


Scale B:

= $600 [ , 8%, 6] + $700 [ , 8%, 6] $3000

= $600[4.623] + $700[0.6302] $3000 = $215


The criteria is to maximize the PW of benefits minus the PW of cost, the preferred option is
Scale B.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

220

QUESTION 49
Tunnel:
=
$5.5 [0.06] = $330,000
Pipeline:

= $5 [ , 6%, 50]

= $5[0.0634] = $317,000
For fixed output, minimize EUAC, select pipeline
QUESTION 50

= ( ) [ , 6%, 20]

PW of benefits:
Alternate A:$410[11.470] = $4703
Alternate B:$639[11.470] = $7329
Alternate C:$700[11.470] = $8209
QUESTION 51
Scale A:
=

$2000
=
= 4.4

$450

Scale B:
=

$3000
=
= 5

$600

Chose Scale A based on payback period


QUESTION 52
Annual depreciation charge:
[$60 0]
=
= $20

3
Taxable income:
$200 $140 $20 = $40

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

221

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
EUAC = $900( A/P,8%,5) + $300( A/F,8%,5) $50
(These factors are in the NCEES FE Reference Handbook.)
EUAC = -( $900)(0.2505) + ($300)(0.1705) - $50
= -$225.45 + $51.15 - $50 = $224.30
Answer is (A).
QUESTION 2.
Present Worth of Benefits
= A(P/A,i.n) = $250,000(P/A,6%,20)
= $250,000(11.4699) = $2,867,475
Present Worth of Costs
= $350,000 + $800,000 + A(P/A,i,n)
= $350,000 + $800,000 + $25,000(P/A,6%,20)
= $1,436,475
Then
B/C = $2,867,475/$1,436,475 > 1.0 and project should be considered.
QUESTION 3.
Thus at the end of the 0th year, we are $ 10,000 in the hole.
For year 1, we add an additional present value of
$0 * (P/F, 6%,1) = $0
For the end of year 2, we would add $2000 * (P/F, 6%,2) = $1780
At the end of year 3, we would add $4000 * (P/F, 6%,3) = $3358

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

222

At the end of year 4, we add $4000 * (P/F, 6%,4) = $3168


At the end of year 5, add $2270 * (P/F, 6%,5) = $1696
At the end of year 6, add $4000 * (P/F, 6%,6) = $2820
Thus, adding the additional present values year by year, we see that after the 5th year, we would
have our money back, including the effect of interest and the fact that someone else was enjoying
our money instead of us.
QUESTION 4.
The Fixed costs are given as $7500/month, and a variable cost of $ 3.00/unit is given
Solving for X, the number of units required to break even:
Costs = Benefits
$7500 + $3.00X = $ 10.00X
X = 1071 units
Thus we must make at least 1071 units, just to break even.
QUESTION 5.
EUAC = $750 + $50 (A/G, 6%, 8)
= $750 + $50 (3.1952) = $910
The correct answer is (b) $900.
QUESTION 6.
P = $43,000 (P/A, 10%, 4) $2,000 (P/G, 10%, 4)
= $43,000 (3.1699) $2,000 (4.3781) = $127,550
The correct answer is (c) $127,500.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

223

QUESTION 7.
PA = $75,000 + $16,000(P/A, 15%, 4) + $9,000(P/F, 15%, 4)
= $75,000 + $16,000(2.85498) + $9,000(0.57175)
= $24,175
PB = $24,175 = $105,000 + $24,000 (P/A, 15%, n)
($24,175 + $105,000) / $24,000 = (P/A, 15%, n)
3.36771 = (P/A, 15%, n)
The correct answer is (b) 5.
QUESTION 8.
The payback period is the time when total income to date is equal to the total costs.
Costs = $55,000
Since the income is stated as $25,000 per year, one can assume that savings occur uniformly
throughout the year.

Costs = Income = $25,000 + $20,000 + $15,000 +


Therefore, the payback period is 2.67 years.
The correct answer is (b) 2.67.
QUESTION 9.

() = 1800 ( , 7%, 30) + 5

= 1800(0.080) + 5 = $150

() = 450 ( , 7%, 10) + 20

= 450(0.1424) + 20 = $84
Based on the above Alternative B is attractive, therefore select Alternative B.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

224

QUESTION 10.
P
P
p
P = $10,000 + $3000 ( , 9%, 8) (1 0.53) $700 ( , 9%, 8) (1 00.53) + $500 ( , 9%, 8)
A
A
F
= 10,000 + 3000(5.5348)(0.47) 700(5.5348)(0.47) + 500(0.5019)
= $3766
QUESTION 11.
Cumulative cost (hand tools) = $1000 +$1.50 x, where x is the number of units
Cumulative cost (automated) = $15,000 +$0.50 x
Set both costs equal to get the breakeven:
$1000 +$1.50 x = $15,000 +$0.50 x
X = 14,000 units.
t (breakeven) = 14,000/5000 = 2.8 years

QUESTION 12.
Loan due:

$10,000 ( , 15%, 4) $3,000

($10,000)(1 + 0.15)4 $3,000


$10,000(1.7490) $3,000 = $14,500
QUESTION 13.

Given:
i = 7%
n = 5 years
P = $ 245,000
From the interest tables, A = 0.2439
Annualized cost

0.2439 (245,000) + 9000

$68,756

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

225
QUESTION 14.

The present worth factor is:


((1 + ) 1)
(1 + 0.12)10 1
=
=
= 5.650
(1 + )
0.12 1.1210
For the present process:
PW = (10.9 +3.3)(5.65) = $80.233 million
For the new process:
PW = 23.3 + (7.1+1.4)(5.650) = $ 71.327 million
On a present worth basis, the new process saves $ 8.9 million.

QUESTION 15.

Stabilization cost estimate: 120,000 tons x $67/ton = $ 8,040,000


Trucking cost estimate:
120,000 x 2000 pounds/ton/31,500 pounds/truck = 7619 trucks
7619 trucks x 850 miles/truck x $ 2.00/mile
=

$ 12,952,381

The total savings are close to $ 5 million


QUESTION 16.

Depreciation on carbon-steel cyclone = $40,000/5 = $8000/year


Depreciation on stainless steel cyclone = $60,000/10 = $6000/year
Total yearly savings with stainless cyclone
= ($8000 - $6000) + $1100 = $3100/year
Incremental investment = $60,000 - $40,000 = $20,000
Incremental ROI = $3100/$20,000 = 15.5%

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

226
QUESTION 17.

Depreciation claimed by Company A:


=

$75,000
3 = $45,000
5

Depreciation claimed by Company B: The MACRS depreciation in the first three


years totals 76% of the initial cost. The depreciation charged during those years is
= $75,000 0.76 = $57,000
Since corporate tax rate for each company is 50%, Company B saved:
0.50 ($57,000 - $45,000) = $6000
QUESTION 18.

The basic equation for heat conduction through the wall is:
=

Where,
Q = Heat transfer (J/hr/m2 of wall)
K = conductivity (J.m/m2-oC.hr)
T = difference in temperature between two surfaces, oC
L = thickness of insulating material, m
Required insulation thickness:
:
30,000 =

140(30)
; = 0.14

Foamed insulation:
30,000 = 110

30
; = 0.11

Cost of insulation per square meter of wall:


Rockwool:
$12.50 0.14 = $1.75
Foamed insulation:
$14.00 0.11 = $1.54
Cost savings:
$1.75 1.54 = $0.20

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

227

QUESTION 19.
The analysis period can conveniently be selected as the useful of the devices or 5 years. Since
both devices cost $1000, there is a fixed input (cost) of $1000 regardless of whether A or B is
chosen. The appropriate decision criterion is to choose the alternative that maximized the present
worth of benefits.
PW of benefits A

= 300 ( , 7%, 5) = 300(4.100) = $1230

PW of benefits B

= 400 ( , 7%, 5) 50 ( , 7%, 5)

= 400(4.100) 50(7.647) = $1257.65


Device B has the present worth of benefits and is therefore, the preferred alternative. The cost
savings are approximately $30.
QUESTION 20.
This problem illustrates staged construction. The aqueduct may be built in a single stage or in a
smaller first stage followed many years later by a second stage to provide the additional capacity
when needed.
For the Two-stage construction:

= $300 + 350 ( , 6%, 25)

= $300 + 81.6 = $381.6


For the single stage construction:
= $400
The two stage construction has a smaller present worth of cost and is preferred construction plan.
The cost savings are $20 million.

QUESTION 21.
For the fixed output, the criterion is to minimize the present worth of cost.
Speedy:

= 1500 200 ( , 7%, 5)

= 1500 200(0.7130) = $1357

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

228

Allied:

1600 325 ( , 7%, 5)

= 1600 325(0.7130) = $1368


Since it is only the difference between alternatives that are relevant, maintenance costs may be
left out of the economic analysis. Although the PW of cost for all alternatives are nearly
identical, we would nevertheless, choose the one with minimum present worth of cost unless
there were other tangible or intangible differences that would change the decision. Buy the
speedy equipment.

QUESTION 22.
Atlas scale

= 450 ( , 8%, 6) + 100 ( , 8%, 6) 2000

= 450(4.623) + 100(0.6302) 2000 = $143


Thumb Scale

= 600 ( , 8%, 6) + 700 ( , 8%, 6) 3000

= 600(4.623) + 700(0.6302) 3000 = $215


The salvage value of the scale, it should be noted is simply treated as another benefit of the
alternative. Since the criterion is to maximize the present worth of benefits minus the present
worth of cost, the preferred alternative is the Thumb scale. The cost savings are $70.

QUESTION 23.
Benefit = reduction in annual costs
= 250,000 248,000 = $2,000
4 10%
= 9000 ( )
+ 1,000 (0.10)
5
= 2,374 + 100 = 2,474
Alternatively,
4 10%
4 10%
= 10,000 ( )
1,000 ( )
5
5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

229

2,638 164 = 2,474


2,000
=
= 0.81
2,474
QUESTION 24.
We can compute the present worth of cost for each alternative. For each pipe size, the present
worth of cost is equal to the installed cost of the pipeline and pump plus the present worth of 5
years of pumping costs.

Installed cost of pipeline and pump


1.20x2000 hr (P/A, 7%,5)
0.65 x 2000hrx(P/A, 7%,5)
0.50 x 2000 hr x 4.100
0.40 x 2000hr x 4.1000
Present worth of cost

2
22,000
9,840

3
23,000

4
25,000

6
30,000

5,330
4,100
3280
31840

28330

29100

33280

Based on the above, select 3 pipe size


QUESTION 25.
Alternative A represents the do-nothing alternative. Generally, one feasible alternative in any
situation is to remain in the present status and do nothing. In this problem, the investor could
decide that the most attractive alternative is not to purchase the property and develop it. This is
clearly a do-nothing decision.
We note, however that if he does nothing, the total venture would not be a very satisfactory one.
This is because the investor spent $8000 for professional advice on the possible uses of the
property. But because the $8000 is a past cost, it is a sunk cost. The only relevant costs in an
economic analysis are present and future costs; past events and past, or sunk costs are gone and
cannot be allowed to affect future planning. The past should not deter the investor from making
the best decision now, regardless of the costs that brought him to this situation and point of time.
This problem is one of neither fixed input nor fixed output, so our criterion will be to maximize
the present worth of benefits minus the present worth of cost or simply, stated maximize net
present worth.

Alternative A, Do nothing:
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

230

= 0
Alternative B, Vegetable market

= 50,000 + 5100 ( , 10%, 20) + 30,000 ( , 10%, 20)

= 50,000 + 5100(8.514) + 30,000(0.1486) = $2120


Alternative C, gas station

= 95,000 + 10,500 ( , 10%, 20) + 30,000 ( , 10%, 20)

95,000 + 89,400 + 4460 = $1140


Alternative D, small motel

350,000 + 36,000 ( , 10%, 20) + 150,000 ( , 10%, 20)

350,000 + 306,500 + 22,290 = $21.210


The criterion is to maximize net present worth. In this situation, one alternative has NPW equal
to zero and three alternatives have negative values for NPW. We will select the best of the four
alternatives, namely the do-nothing Alternative A, with NPW equal to zero.

QUESTION 26.
The investment opportunity may be described by the following cash flow:
Year
0
1-10
10

Cash flow (thousands)


-$610
+200 (per year)
-1500

= 610 + 200 ( , 10%, 10) 1500 ( , 10, % 10)

= 610 + 200(6.145) 1500(0.3855) = $41

Since NPW is positive, the project is desirable

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

231

QUESTION 27.
Device A
= $300
Device B

= 400 50 ( , 7%, 5)

= 400 50(1.865) = $306.75


To maximize EUAB select Device B.
QUESTION 28.
The annual cost for 12 years for pump A

= ( ) ( , , ) +

= (7000 1500) ( , 7%, 12) + 1500(0.07)

= 5500(0.1259) + 105 = $797


The annual cost for 6 years of Pump B

= (5000 1000) ( , 7%, 6) + 1000(0.07)

= 4000(0.2098) + 70 = $909
Based on the annual cost select Pump A.

QUESTION 29.
Device A
= $1000

= 300 ( , 7%, 5) = 1230

1230
=
=
= 1.23


1000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

232

Device B
= $1000

= 400 ( , 7%, 5) 50( , 7%, 5) = 1258

1258
=
=
= 1.26


1000
To maximize the benefit-cost ratio, select Device B.

QUESTION 30.
Payback period is the period of time required for the profit or other benefits of an investment to
equal the cost of the investment. In the first 2 years, only $400 of the $1000 cost is recovered.
The remaining $600 cost recovered in the first half of Year 3. Thus the payback period of
Alternative A is 2.5 years.
Alternative B
Since the annual benefits are uniform, the payback period is simply:
=

$2783
= 2.3
$1200

To minimize the payback period, choose alternative B.


QUESTION 31
Calculate the present worth for the annual maintenance

= ( 10 ) ( , 10%, 10)

+ ( 10 ) ( , 10%, 10) ( , 10%, 10)

= $50,000(6.1446) + $75,000(6.1446)(0.3855) = $485,000


Calculate the present worth for the major maintenance

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

233

= ( ) ( , 10%, 10)

= $300,000(0.3855) = $116,000
Calculate the present worth of residual value

= ( ) ( , 10%, 20)

= $3,000,000(0.1486) = $446,000
Calculate the sum, noting that the present worth of the first cost P FC = $6,000,000 and the
residual value RRV is a deduction.
= + +
= $6,000,000 + 485,000 + 116,000 446,000 = $6,155,000
QUESTION 32

= $10,000,000 + $200,000 ( , 20,6%)

= $12.29

= $1,000,000 + $600,000 ( , 40, 3%)

= $14.87
= 12.29 14.87 = $2.58
PB is better by almost $2.6 million
QUESTION 33.
Straight-line depreciation:
=


()

14,500,000 500,000
= $1,400,000
10

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

234

QUESTION 34.
The present worth (cost in this case) of each alternative may be determined, and the alternative
with the lowest cost selected.
Present cost of future pavement cost:

= ( , , )

= 100,000 ( , 10%, 2) = 82,640

Present cost of base course: $120,000


Total present cost of alternative:
= $82,640 + $120,000 = $202,640
In other words, the developer can either allocate $210,000 (alternative A) for the base and
pavement installation all at once now, or allocate $ $202,640 (alternative B) for stage
construction. The developer saves (210,000 202,640) = $7,360 by utilizing stage construction.
QUESTION 35.

= ( , , )

100,000 = 1,000,000 ( , 6%, )

Then,

100,000
( , 6%, ) =
= 0.1000

1,000,000
Find in the 6% table,

( , 6%, 8) = 0.1010

This is close to 0.1000.


Therefore, the time required is 8 years.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

235

QUESTION 36.
With 6% interest, = 0.5% per month
First find the lump sum future amount in the account at the end of the first 20-month period:
(1 + ) 1
(1.005)20 1
1 = [
] = 50 [
] = $1,049

0.005
Second, find the future amount that will accumulate as a result of the lump sum balance +
monthly payments without any additional deposits for the final ten-month period.
2 = (1 + ) = 1,049(1 + 0.005)10 = $1,103
QUESTION 37.
The population must reach 40,000 before the second unit is needed, so that F =40,000. The
number of new residents expected each year is 6,000, so A =6,000. The residents that are there
should have a natural rate of increase of i = -0.006
To solve for the number of years:

[(1 + ) 1]
=

40,000
(0.994) 1
=
6,000
0.006
Solving for n yields 6.8 years
QUESTION 38.

= ( , , 5)

2600 = 10,000 ( , , 5)

0.26 = ( , , 5)

From the answer choices, look up the interest rate tables, for n =5, the interest rate is close to
10%.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

236

QUESTION 39.

= ( , , )

5,000,000 = 500,000 ( , 8%, )

10 = ( , 8%, )

From the 8% interest rate tables, for 20 years it is close to 9.8181 and for 21 years it is 10.0168.
The time required therefore is close to 20 years.
QUESTION 40.
The monthly costs for the problem in terms of A and G are determined as follows:
= 600,000

= 3,500

$0.25
$150,000

$0.25
$875

= 5

12
= 60

The cash flow:


1 = $120,000

2 = 875 ( , 0.5%, 60) = $24,500

120,000 + 24,500 = $174,500


QUESTION 41.
Mechanical Arm:
Salvage:

-$22,000

+2,000 ( , 6%, 10) = +1,120

O&M:

500 ( , 6%, 10) = 3,680

Increase in O&M:

NPW of mechanical arm:

100 ( , 6%, 10) = 2,960

-$27,520

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

237

Manual loading:

4,000 ( , 6%, 10) = 29,440

Increase in wages:

300 ( , 6%, 10) = 8,800

-$38,320

NPW of manual loading:

The cost savings from mechanical arm is close to $10,800


QUESTION 42.
Type A
Cost new:

$-20,000

Annual maintenance: = 1,000 ( , 6%, 10) = 7,360

Less salvage: = 2,500 ( , 6%, 10) = +1,396


NPW:

$-25,964

Type B
Cost new first application:

-$5,000

Second application: = 5,000 ( , 6%, 10) = 3,736

Annual maintenance: = 2,000 ( , 6%, 10) = 14,720


NPW:
$-23,456
Based on the NPW, type B is less expensive and the preferred option.
QUESTION 43.
Find the present worth of all costs, then find equivalent monthly cost and divide by monthly
production to obtain dollar per cubic yard charges. The monthly payments for the dragline in 60
months are:

1 = 40,000 ( , 1%, 60) = $890/

The present worth of all costs and resale value with i=1.5% per month is:
Down payment:

$-10,000

Monthly payments:890 ( , 1.5%, 60) =

O&M:2,000 ( , 1.5%, 84) =

$35,050
$95,140

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

238

Resale:15,000 ( , 1.5%, 84) =

+4,290

Total:

$135,900

Monthly equivalent:

2 = $135,900 ( , 1.5%, 84) = $2,857

The charge per cubic yard:


$2,857
= $0.286 3
10,000

QUESTION 44.
The problem can be solved by converting the lump sum to an equivalent lump sum at the
beginning of the periodic series, and then converting again to a periodic series as follows:

= ( , , ) ( , , )

$ 1,543
= 10,000 ( , 10%, 3) ( , 10%, 7) =

QUESTION 45.
The problem may be solved by converting the series to an equivalent lump sum at the beginning
of the series, then converting the lump sum to another equivalent lump sum at the of the desired
equivalent periodic series, and then converting that last lump sum into the desired period series
with n equal to proper n for the whole problem.

2 = 1 ( , , ) ( , , ) ( , . )

1 = 15,000 ( , 7%, 4) ( , 7%, 1) ( , 7%, 12)

( , 7%, 4) = 3.3872; ( , 7%, 1) = 0.9346; ( , 7%, 12) = 0.1259

1 = $5,979 12 .

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

239

QUESTION 46.

$2,719
= 1,000 ( , 7%, 11) ( , 7%, 15) =

( , 7%, 11) = 68.3371; ( , 7%, 15) = 0.03979

QUESTION 47.
Roof C

1 = 50,000 ( , 12%, 20) = 6,695

Roof D

2 = 25,000 ( , 12%, 20) = 3,348

3 = 25,000 ( , 10%, 10) ( , 12%, 10) ( , 12%, 10) = 2,796

Net annual worth:


-$6,144 per year
Based on the cost analysis, Roof D is the best option.
QUESTION 48.
The procedure is to calculate the net annual worth for i=15 percent and select the alternative with
the greatest net annual worth.

Processor A:( , 15%, 5) = 0.2983

= 8,000 ( , 15%, 5) + 3,500 = +$1,114

( , 15%, 5) = 0.2983

Processor B: ( , 15%, 6) = 0.2642; ( , 15%, 6) = 0.1142

= 17,000 ( , 15%, 6) + 4,800 + 4,000 ( , 15%, 6) = +$765

The results indicate that processor A has the greatest positive net annual worth.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

240

QUESTION. 49.

= ( , , 1 ) ( , , 2 )

= $1,000 ( , 10%, 6) ( , 10%, 10) = $11,300

*QUESTION 50.
P
F
F = G ( , i, n1 ) ( , i, n2 )
G
P

= 1,000 ( , 1%, 11) ( , 1%, 14) = $58,400

QUESTION 51.
PW of benefits:

1
= 2,500 ( , , ) = 2,500 (
)
(1 + )10

PW of costs: 1,000
NPW:
2,500 (

1
) 1,000 = 0
(1 + )10

Solving for i gives a value of 9.6%.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

241

QUESTION 52.
From the choices, try i=15%
1 = $150,000

2 = ( , 15%, 10) = 600016.979 = $101,890

3 = ( , 15%, 10) = 50,0005.0187 = +$250,950

4 = ( , 15%, 10) = 50,0000.2472 = +$12,360

= 1 + 2 + 3 + 4= + $11,420
The rate of return when PW of income equals the PW of cost.
Therefore, the interest rate is 18%.

QUESTION 53.
The annual fixed cost of the investment is:

= 3,700,000 ( , 20%, 20) = $759,830

To solve the breakeven:


759,830 + 20.52 = 45
= $31,0403
QUESTION 54.
The existing breakeven is:
() =

740,000
= 91.4
(19,300 11,200)

The new breakeven is:


() =

740,000 + 60,000
98.9
19,300 11,200

Additional contracts for breakeven = 98.8 91.4 = 7.4 or 8 contracts


FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

242

QUESTION 55.
Annual capitalization cost of bell holder:

= 5,000 ( , 10%, 10) = $813.50

There is no salvage value in ten years. Per hole operating costs for bell holer are:
Operator: $8/hr
Fuel etc: $2/hr
Total: 10/hr/5holes/hr = $2/hole

Total cost for bell holer/hole:


=

$2
813.50
+(
)/(. )

Total cost for hand labor/hole:


$5

= $2.50/
$2/
Breakeven point:
$2.50 = $2.00 + $813.50/
Y = 1627 holes/yr
QUESTION 56.
Without standby,
$1.20 10003 $1,146
= 0.955

=
3

= 900/
= 246/
With standby

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

243

$1.20 10003 $1,200


=

=
3

$900 $35
+
= $935/

= $265/

The results indicate that a standby unit would be profitable any cost less than $1200-$1146 = $54
per hour. Since this one is available at $35 per hour it is profitable to have on hand.

QUESTION 57.
Find the after-tax cash flow as:
= (1 ) = 10,000(1 0.3)

= 10,000 0.7 ( , 10%, 10) = $43,010

QUESTION 58.
Find the present worth of the remaining ten coupons representing $30 income every six months
plus redemption value of $1,000 after five years at 8 percent. Since the payments are semin
annual, n = 5x2 = 10 and i =8/2 = 4%
PW of 10 semi annual payments:

1 = ( , , ) = $30 ( , 4%, 10) = $243

PW of the $1,000 redemption value in 5 years:

2 = ( , , ) = $1,000 ( , 4%, 10) = $676

Total = $919. The bond should sell for $919 for an 8% nominal interest rate.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

244

QUESTION 59.
Future value of cost
1 = 3000
2 = 3,000

1,000

( , 15%, 5) = $6,034,100

$10

( , 15%, 5) = $202,300

3 = $50,000 ( , 15%, 1) = $57,500

Selling price required after 5 year for 15% return = $6,293,900

QUESTION 60.
Amount invested:
0.20 $200,000 = $40,000
15% = 0.15 $40,000 = $6,000
= 0.08$160,000 = 12,800
= $3,000
= $21,800
=

$21,800 $2,422
=
100.9

QUESTION 61.

Year Annual worth of purchase Annual maintenance Annual salvage Net Annual
$8,000(A/P,15%,n)
$1000(A/G,15%,n) F(A/F,15%,n)
worth
1
-9200
0
+6000
-3200
2
-4920
-464
+2324
-3060
3
-3504
-908
+1152
-3260
4
-2800
-1326
+600
-3526
5
-2384
-1728
+296
-3816

The economic life is two years based on the information in the last column.
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

245

QUESTION 62.
Plan A

= 100,000 ( , 8%, 20) = 10,190

, & = 60,000 50,000 = +10,000


= 190
Plan B

= 100,000 ( , 8%, 5) = 25,050

= 60,000 10,000 ( , 8%, 5) = +41,535

& = 13,000
= 3,485
Chose Plan B.
QUESTION 63.
Find the present worth of each proposal and compare.
Proposal A
= 100,000

10 = ( , 6%, 10) = 150,0000.5584 = 83,760

20 = 200,000 ( , 6%, 20) = 62,360

30 = 250,000 ( , 6%, 30) = 43,525

= ( , 6%, 40) = 10,000 15.046 = 150,460

= ( , 6%, 10) ( , 6%, 40) = 302,583

40 = $742,688
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

246

Proposal B
= $300,000

= ( , 6%, 40) = 10,000 15.046 = 150,460

= ( , 6%, 40) = 1,000 185.957 = 185,957

40 = $636,417
The totals indicate that Proposal B is the preferred alternative under these circumstances.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

247

Electricity, Power, and Magnetism


Total Questions 3-5

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Charge, current, voltage, power, and energy


Current and voltage laws (Kirchhoff, Ohm)
Equivalent circuits (series, parallel)
AC circuits
Motors and generators

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

248

Question 1.
A point charge of 0.3 x 10-3 C is at origin. The magnitude of the electrical field intensity (kV/m)
at a point located 2-m in x-direction, 3-m in y-direction and 4-m in z-direction from the origin is:
A.
5
B. 50
C. 93
D. 930

Question 2.
A 15C point charge is located on the y-axis at (0, 0.25). A second charge of 10C is located on
the x-axis at (0.25, 0). If the two charges are separated by air, the force (N) between the charged
particle is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.09
0.34
3.49
10.8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

249

Question 3.
A thin metal plate, 20cm x 20cm carries a total charge of 24C. The magnitude of the electrical
field (N/C) 2.5 cm away from the center of the plate is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.27 x 103
3.70 x 106
3.39 x 107
4.34 x 108

Question 4.
A parallel plate capacitor separated by an air gap of 1cm and with an applied voltage across the
plates of 500 V. The force (N) on an electron mass of 18.2 x 10-31 kg inserted in the space is
nearly:
The mass of an electron: 9.1 x 10-31 kg
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.6 x 10-14
3.2 x 10-14
9.1 x 10-31
1.6 x 10-19

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

250

Question 5.
Two long wires, bundled together have a magnetic flux density around them One wire carries a
current of 5 A and the other a current of 1A in the opposite direction. The magnitude of the flux
density (T) at a point 0.2m away is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2 x 10-6
4 x 10-6
4 x 10-6
16 x 10-6

Question 6.
For a coil of 100 turns wound around a toroidal core of iron with a relative permeability of 1000.
The current needed to produce a magnetic flux density of 0.5T in the core is close to:
R = 5 cm
r = 1 cm

A. 1.2
B. 12
C. 39
D. 390

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

251

Question 7.
A current passes through a 0.2 H inductor. The current increases in linear fashion from a zero at
t=0 to 20A at t=20s. The amount of energy stored in the inductor at 10s is nearly:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 40

Question 8.
The expression for the complex number 3 + j4 in polar form is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

336.87o
5 36.87o
3 53.13o
5 53.13o

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

252

Question 9.
If z1 = 525 and z2 = 340 then z1 +z2 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4.07 81.72
5.81 47.21
7.64 32.57
7.94 30.60

Question 10.
If z1 = 24.2 32.3 and z2 = 16.2 45.8 , z1 x z2 and z1/z2 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

40.478.1 ; 8.01 13.5


39278.1 ; 1.49 13.5
39839.1 ; 8.03 1.4
241268.5 ; 135 38.5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

253

Question 11.
A heating element consists of two wires of different materials connected in series. At 20C, they
have resistances 600 and 300 and average temperature coefficients of 0.001 /C and 0.004/C,
respectively. The total resistance () of the heating element at 50C is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

900
950
980
990

Question 12.
A solid copper conductor at 20C has the following parameters:
Resistivity: 1.77 x 10-8.m
Diameter: 5mm
Length: 5000m
The resistance () of the conductor is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.02
4.55
12.1
18.9

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

254

Question 13.
A power line is made of copper having a resistivity of 1.83 x 10-6.m. The wire diameter is 2cm.
The resistance () of 5km of power line is:
A.
0.03
B. 30
C. 67
D. 303

Question 14.
A 10kV power line 5km long has a total resistance of 0.7. The current flowing is 10A. The
power (W) dissipated in the line resistance is:
A.
7
B. 14
C. 70
D. 700

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

255

Question 15.
Two terminals are connected to 20V source and a current of 10A is measured through a 10
resistance. The current (A) that would flow through the resistance if a 30V source is connected
across the terminals is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
15
17
20

Question 16.
A current of 10A flows through a 1mm diameter wire. The average number of electrons per
second that pass through the cross-section of the wire is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.6 x 1018
6.2 x 1018
1.6 x 1019
6.3 x1019

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

256

Question 17.
The internal resistance of 9V battery that delivers 100 A when the terminals are shorted is close
to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.09
1.0
11
90

Question 18.
The reactances of a 10mH inductor and a 0.2F capacitor are equal if the frequency (kHz) is:
A. 3.56
B. 7.12
C. 14.76
D. 21.55

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

257

Question 19.
The resonance frequency (rad/s) of a circuit if 3H, 5 and 8F are connected in series is close
to:
A.
0
B. 20
C. 100
D. 200

Question 20.
A two-pole AC motor operates on a three-phase, 60Hz 200 V line-to-line supply.
synchronous speed (rpm) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

The

1000
1800
2400
3600

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

258

Question 21.
A three-phase synchronous generator is operating at 1200 rpm with an output frequency of 60
Hz. The number of poles in the generator is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
4
6
8

Question 22.
A two-pole induction motor operates on a three phase, 60Hz, 240 V line-to-line supply. The
motor speed is 3420 rpm. The slip (%) is:
A. 5
B. 7
C. 11
D. 15

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

259

Question 23.
A four-pole induction motor operates on a three-phase 60Hz, 240Vrms line-to-line supply. The
slip is 2%. The operating speed (rpm) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1240
1660
1760
1800

Question 24.
A charge is placed at the center of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of 3 charges
will be in equilibrium, if Q is equal to:
Q

A. 2

B. 4
C.
D.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

260

Question 25.
If A and B are mutually perpendicular vectors give by A = 5i + 7j 3kk and B = 2i + 2j ck, the
value of C is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-8
-6
-2
0

Question 26.
Four two-ohms resistors are connected together along the edges of a square. A 10V battery of
negligible resistance is connected across a pair of the diagonally opposite corners of the square.
The power (J) dissipated in the circuit is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

20
30
40
50

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

261

Question 27.
A 2 F conductance is charged to 500 V and then the plates are joined through a resistance. The
heat (J) produced in the resistance is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.25
0.50
0.75
1.0

Question 28.
The ratio of L/R, where L is inductance an R is resistance have the same dimensions as:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Velocity
Acceleration
Time
Force

Question 29.
A varying current in a circuit changes from 10A to zero in 0.5s. If the average emf induced in the
circuit is 220V, the inductance (H) is close to:
A. 5
B. 8
C. 9
D. 11

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

262

Question 30.
A current is passed through two resistances (R1 and R2) connected in series. The voltage
difference across the first resistance is 3 V and in the second resistance is 4.5. If the R 1 is 2
ohms, the R2 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3
5
7
9

Question 31.
The dimensions of resistance x capacitance are same as:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency
Energy
Time period
Current

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

263

Question 32.
The electrical potential at the center of a charged conductor is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Zero
Twice that on the surface
Half that on the surface
Same as on the surface

Question 33.
Four bulbs each marked 40W, 250V are connected in series with a 250V source. The total power
(W) output is:
A. 10
B. 40
C. 80
D. 160

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

264

Question 34.
Two capacitors 2F and 4 F are connected in series to a 100V battery. The energy (J) stored in
the capacitors is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.0033
0.0067
0.057
0.067

Question 35.
A current passes through a long straight wire. At 5cm distance, the magnetic field is B, the
magnetic field at 20cm will be:
A. B
B
B. 2
C. 2B
B
D. 4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

265

Question 36.
If M, L, T and I are mass, length, time and electrical current, respectively, the dimensional
formula for capacitance is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

M-1L2T-4I2
M-1L-2T4I2
ML2T4I2
ML2T-4I-2

Question 37.
Three capacitors 3F, 10F and 15F are connected in series to a 100V source. The charge (C)
on 15F capacitance is:
A.
22
B. 100
C. 200
D. 2,800

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

266

Question 38.
Two charges 5C and 10C are placed 20cm apart. The electric field at midpoint between the
two charges is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4.5 x 106 N/C directed towards 5C


4.5 x 106 N/C directed towards 10C
13.5 x 106 N/C directed towards 5C
13.5 x 106 N/C directed towards 10C

Question 39.
Two equal charges placed 3cm apart attract each other with a force of 40N. The magnitude of
each charge is:
1

Assume 4 =9 x 109 in SI Units


0

A.
0.2
B.
2
C. 20
D. 200

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

267

Question 40.
The electric intensity in air at 20 cm from a point charge is 4.5 x 105 N/C, the magnitude of the
charge is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1
0.2
1
2

Question 41.
Two long parallel wires separated by 1m carry a current of 3A. The force (N/m) between the
wires is:
0 = 4 x 10-7 in SI units
A. 2 x 10-7
B. 5 x 10-7
C. 12 x 10-7
D. 18 x 10-7

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

268

Question 42.
Four resistances 10, 5, 7, and 3 ohms connected to form sides of a rectangle AB, BC, CD and
DA, respectively. Another resistance 10 ohms is connected across the diagonal AC. The
equivalent resistance between A and B is:
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10

Question 43.
A wire carries a current of 2A. The magnetic induction (T) at distance 5m from the wire is:
A. 4 x 10-8
B. 8 x 10-8
C. 12 x 10-8
D. 16 x 10-8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

269

Question 44.
Electrical charges of 1C, -1C and 2C are placed in the corners for an equilateral triangle
ABC having a length of 10cm on each side. The resultant force (N) on the charge C is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.9
1.8
2.7
3.6

Question 45.
Two long parallel wires carry a current of 5A each in opposite direction. If the wires are
separated by 0.5m, the force (N) between them is:
A.
10-5 attractive force
B.
10-5 repulsive force
C. 2 x 10-5 attractive force
D. 2 x 10-5 repulsive force

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

270

Question 46.
A capacitor 4F is charged to 80V, while another capacitor of 6F is charged to 30V, when they
are connected together, the energy (mJ) lost by 4F capacitor is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.5
3.2
4.6
7.8

Question 47.
A 4A current passes through a 50 cm long wire with 1mm2 cross sectional area when connected
to a 2V battery. The resistivity (ohm.m) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1 x 10-6
2 x 10-7
3 x 10-7
4 x 10-7

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

271

Question 48.
An electron moves with a velocity of 2 x 105 m/s along a positive x-direction in the presence of a
magnetic induction B (T) = i + 4j 3k. The magnitude of the force experienced by the electron
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.18 x 10-13
1.28 x 10-13
1.61 x 10-13
1.72 x 10-13

Question 49.
A capacitance of 10F is charged to 40V and a second capacitance of 15F is charged to 30V. If
they are connected in parallel, the amount of charge (C) that flows from 10F to 15F is:
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

272

Question 50.
The time (s) required to produce a potential difference of 20V across a capacitor of 1000F
when it is charged at a steady rate of 200C/s is:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Question 51.
A resistance R is cut into 20 pieces. Half of them joined in series and the rest in parallel. If these
two combinations joined in series, the equivalent resistance will be:
A. R
R
B. 2
C.
D.

101R
200
201R
200

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

273

Question 52.
The dimensional equation for magnetic flux is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

ML2T-2I-1
ML2T-2I-2
ML-2T-2I-1
ML-2T-2I-2

Question 53.
A current of 30A flows in a straight wire placed in a magnetic field of 4 x 10-4 T. The magnetic
induction (T) 2 cm away from the wire is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1 x 10-4
3 x 10-4
5 x 10-4
6 x 10-4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

274

Question 54.
The temperature coefficient of resistivity of a material is 0.0004/K. When the temperature
increased by 50C, the resistivity increases by 2 x 10-8 .m. The initial resistivity (.m) of the
material is:
A. 50 x 10-8
B. 100 x 10-8
C. 150 x 10-8
D. 200 x 10-8

Question 55.
A magnetic flux of 500Wb passing through a 200 turn coil reversed in 20ms. The average emf
(V) induced in the coil is:
A. 2.5
B. 5.0
C. 7.5
D. 10.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

275

Question 56.
A capacitor of 3pF is connected in series with an inductance L to produce a frequency of 1MHz,
the inductance is close to:
A. 8.44
B. 84.4
C. 844
D. 8440

Question 57.
A 4F capacitor is connected to a 200V battery. It is disconnected from the battery and now
connected with a 2F capacitor. The loss of energy (J) during the process is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
2.6 x 10-2
4.0 x 10-2
5.3 x 10-2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

276

Question 58.
Two charges 2C and 6C are separated by a finite distance. If a charge of -4C is added to each of
them, the initial force of 12 x 103N changes to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1 x 103
2 x 103
3 x 103
4 x 103

Question 59.
A 1H inductance in series with a 220V and at a frequency 50Hz. The inductive reactance () is:
A.
2
B.
50
C. 100
D. 1000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

277

Question 60.
Two unit negative charges are placed on a straight line. A positive charge q is placed at the
mid-point between the charges. If the three charges are in equilibrium, the value of q (C) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.25
0.50
0.75
1.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

278

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

279

Statics
Total Questions 812
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.

Resultants of force systems


Concurrent force systems
Equilibrium of rigid bodies
Frames and trusses
Centroids
Moments of inertia
Static friction

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

280

Question 1.
Find the maximum force (N) acting on the 100 kg block as shown in the figure is close to:
Assume the static friction is 0.30.
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
180
280
380

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

281

Question 2.
The maximum static friction force (N) acting on a 100-kg block as shown, if P = 500N is close
to:
Assume the forces are applied with the block initially at rest.
Static friction: 0.20
Kinetic friction: 0.17
A. 65
B. 135
C. 185
D. 215

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

282

Question 3.
The single threaded screw of the vise has a mean diameter of 1inch and has 5 square threads per
inch. The coefficient of static friction in the threads is 0.20. A 60-lb pull applied normal to the
handle at A produces a clamping force of 1000 lbs between the jaws of the vice. The frictional
moment (lb-in) developed at B due to the thrust of the screw against the body of the jaw is:
Assume helix angle = 3.64o and friction angle = 11.31o

A.
B.
C.
D.

106
166
266
466

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

283

Question 4.
The single threaded screw of the vise has a mean diameter of 1inch and has 5 square threads per
inch. The coefficient of static friction in the threads is 0.20. A 60-lb pull applied normal to the
handle at A produces a clamping force of 1,000 lbs between the jaws of the vice. The moment
acting on the screw is 266 lb-in. The force applied normal to the handle at A required to loosen
the vise is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

10
30
50
60

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

284

Question 5.
A flexible cable supports a 100-kg load is passed over a fixed circular drum and subjected to a
force P to maintain equilibrium. The coefficient of static friction between the cable and the
fixed drum is 0.30. For = 0, the maximum and minimum values P may have in order not to
raise or lower the load is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1600; 600
1200; 400
1000; 800
600; 1500

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

285

Question 6.
A flexible cable supports a 100-kg load is passed over a fixed circular drum and subjected to a
force P to maintain equilibrium. The coefficient of static friction between the cable and the
fixed drum is 0.30. For P = 500 N, the minimum value which the angle may have before the
load begins to slip is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

20
40
60
90

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

286

Question 7.
The area moment of inertia (mm)4 of the area under the parabola about the x-axis is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

5
10
15
20

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

287

Question 8.
The area moment of inertia (104)(mm4) about the x-axis of the semi-circular area is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
20
30
40

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

288

Question 9.
The resultant of the two forces 800 lb and 600 lb in the figure shown is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

125
525
725
925

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

289

Question 10.
The 500-N force F is applied to the vertical pole as shown. The force in terms of unit vectors i
and j is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

(220i 430j)N
(120i 540j)N
(250i 433j)N
(433i 250j)N

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

290

Question 11.
The magnitude of moment about the base point O of the 600-N force is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2,600
3,250
4,570
8,460

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

291

Question 12.
The rigid structural member is subjected to a couple consisting of 100-N forces. If this couple is
replaced by an equivalent couple consisting of the two forces P and P, each of which has a
magnitude of 400N. The proper angle is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

51.3
75.5
12.4
17.6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

292

Question 13.
The resultant force acting on the plate and the angle is:
A. 50; 15
B. 100; 63
C. 150; 63
D. 150; 46

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

293

Question 14.
The turnbuckle is tightened until the tension in cable AB is 2.4 kN The magnitude of the moment
about point O is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.52
5.62
8.34
9.89

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

294

Question 15.
A force of 40 lb is applied at A to the handle of the control lever which is attached to the fixed
shaft OB. The magnitude of the moment about O is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
200
300
400

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

295

Question 16.
Determine the tension T (lb) in the cable which supports the 1,000 lb load with the pulley
arrangement as shown in the figure. Each pulley is free to rotate about its bearing and the
weights of all parts are small compared with the load.
A. 50
B. 150
C. 250
D. 450

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

296

Question17.
A simple pendulum weighs 4 lb and has a torsional spring with a spring constant of 100lb-in/rad
(see figure). When =0, the torsional spring is undeformed. The potential energy (in-lb) of the
system when = 45o is close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.0
1.5
2.0
2.5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

297

Question 18.
A rope is used to lift a 100-lb weight using the locked pulley as shown in figure. If = 0.2, the P
necessary to begin lifting the weight is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

230
300
370
460

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

298

Question 19.
The jackscrew having 5 threads/in is to be used to lift a weight. The maximum magnitude of
force P which produces the uplifting moment is 500 lb. If o = 0.3, the weight (lb) that can be
lifted is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

23,000
32,500
47,300
65,200

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

299

Question 20.
A block weighing 100 lb is pulled by a rope. The coefficient of friction is 0.6. The tension (lb)
needed in the rope to start the block moving is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

20
40
60
80

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

300

Question 21.
A circular cylinder has a right circular cone attached to it as shown in the figure. If the body
weighs 490 lb/ft3, the moment of inertia (lb-ft.s2) for the cylinder in AA axis is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.50
1.15
2.50
4.45

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

301

Question 22.
For the triangle shown, the centroidal moment of inertia (in4) about x-axis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
24
36
48

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

302

Question 23.
The moment of area (in4) of the rectangle about the y-axis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
25
35
45

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

303

Question 24.
The moment of inertia (in4) about the y-axis for the shaded area as shown in figure for a = 2in
and b = 10in is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
24
36
48

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

304

Question 25.
For the beam shown in figure, the reaction at support B (lb) is:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 350

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

305

Question 26.
The beam shown in figure has an applied load of 200 lb at its center and a triangular distributed
load whose ordinate value at point A is 100 lb/ft. The reaction at support B (lb) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

300
600
750
975

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

306

Question 27.
The area is measured to be 6.25 in2. The area revolved about x-axis, generates body which is
later submerged in a circular cylinder tank of water. The tanks radius measures 5in and the
water rises 1in when the body is submerged. The (in) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

307

Question 28.
The volume (in3) generated by revolving the area shown in figure about the x-axis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

135
225
270
400

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

308

Question 29.
The centroid in the figure is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

309

Question 30.
The centroid for the area for the figure is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.9 and 3.7


4.1 and 1.3
3.6 and 1.8
4.0 and 2.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

310

Question 31.
The centroid of an area bounded by the curve y = -x2 + 4, the y-axis as shown in the figure:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.25, 1.00
0.50, 1.28
0.75, 2.34
1.25, 3.21

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

311

Question 32.
Find the centroid of the line from point A to point B is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

312

Question 33.
The area under the curve y = x2 between the interval x =0 to x = 6 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
24
48
72

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

313

Question 34.
Two forces are applied to a cantilever beam as shown in the figure. The moment (lb-ft) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

250
500
750
999

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

314

Question 35.
A force of 100 lb is applied to a beam as sown in figure. The beam weighs 50lb. The reaction at
B (lb) is:
A. 35
B. 105
C. 145
D. 203

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

315

SOLUTIONS

QUESTION 1
The friction force on the block acts down the plane.
The weight mg = 100 (9.81) = 981 N.
The equations of equilibrium give:
981 20 = 0
= 922
= = 0.30 921 = 277
QUESTION 2
A balance of forces in both x and y directions give:
= 0; 20 + 981 20 = 0
= 0; 20 981 20 = 0
Given P =500N
= 1093
The maximum static friction force is:
= = 0.20 1093 = 219
QUESTION 3
The moment applied about the screw-axis is:
60 8 = 480
in the clock wise direction.
The frictional moment MB due to the frictional forces acting on the collar at B is in the counterclock wise direction to oppose the impending motion.
1000(16) 10 = 0 = 1600
= ( + )
480 = 1600(0.5) tan(3.64 + 11.31)
= 266
QUESTION 4
Using the equation:
= ( )
266 = 1600 0.5 tan(11.31 3.64)
= 374
The force on the handle required to loosen the vise is:
374
=
=
= 46.8

8
QUESTION 5
With = 0, the angle of contact is = /2 rad.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

316

For impending upward motion of the load,


2 = ; 1 = 981

= (0.30)/2
981
= 1572
For impending downward motion of the load:
2 = 981; 1 =
981
= (0.30)/2

= 612
QUESTION 6
With T2 = 981N, T1 = P = 500N
981
= 0.30
500
= 2.25
= 2.25

360
= 128.7
2

128.7 90 = 38.70
QUESTION 7
The constant K =4/9 is obtained first by substituting x=4 and y=3 into the equation for the
parabola.
The moment of inertia of the strip about the x-axis is: y2dA
2
= (4 ) = 4(1 )
9
= 2
3

2
72
4 (1 ) =
14.40
9
5
0
2

QUESTION 8
The moment of inertia of the semi-circular area is one-half of the complete circle.
1 4 204
=
=
= 2 (10)4 4
2 4
8
4 4(20) 80
=
=
=

3
3
3
= 2
202 80 2
= 2 (10)4
( ) = 1.755(10)4 4
2 3
Transfer from the centroid x0-axis to the x-axis
= + 2
202
80
4
4
= 1.755(10) +
(15 + )2
2
3
= 36.4 (10)4 4
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

317

QUESTION 9
tan =

= (6 sin 60) /(3 + 6 cos 60) = 0.866

= 40.9

The law of cosines gives:


2 = (600)2 + (800)2 2(600)(800) cos 40.9
= 525
QUESTION 10
= ( ) 9 sin )
(500 cos 60) (500 sin 60)
= (250 433)
QUESTION 11
The moment arm to the 600N force is:
= 4 cos 40 + 2 sin 40 = 4.35
= = 600 4.35 = 2610 .
QUESTION 12
The original couple is counter-clockwise when the plane of the forces is viewed from above.
= 100 0.1 = 10 .
The forces P and P produce a counter-clockwise couple.
10 = (0.04)(400 )
10
= cos 1
= 51.3
16
QUESTION 13
Point O is selected as a convenient reference point for the force-couple system.
= 40 + 80 cos 30 60 cos 45
= 66.9
= 50 + 80 sin 30 + 60 cos 45
= 132.4
= (66.9)2 + (132.4)2 = 148.3
132.4
= tan1
= 63.2
66.9
QUESTION 14
Writing the force as a vector:
0.8 + 1.5 2
= 2.4 [
]
(0.8)2 + (1.5)2 + (2)2
= 0.731 + 1.371 1.829
The moment of the force at the point O is:
0 = = (1.6 + 2)(0.731 + 1.371 1.829 )
= 2.74 + 4.39 + 2.19 .
The magnitude of the moment is:
(2.74)2 + (4.39)2 + (2.19)2 = 5.62 .

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

318

QUESTION 15
The couple may be expressed in vector notation
=
= 8 = 5 = 40
= (8 + 5)(40)
= 200 + 320
The magnitude of the moment is:
= (200)2 + (320)2 = 377
QUESTION 16
0 = 0;
1 2 = 0 1 = 2
= 0; 1 + 2 1000 = 0
21 = 1000 1 = 500
2 500
3 = 4 = =
= 250
2
2
For pulley C, the angle =30, in no way affects the moment of T about center of the pulley, so
the moment equilibrium requires:
= 3 = 250
QUESTION 17
The potential energy of the spring is:
=
For = /4,

1
2
2

1
= 4(10 cos 45) + (100)(/4)2
2
= 28.3 + 30.8 = 2.5
QUESTION 18
The tension force P must be greater than the weight since frictional forces have to overcome. The
angle of contact is:

= 240
= 4.19
180

= 4.19 0.2 9
100
= 231
QUESTION 19
Since the screw moves through 5 turns and travels 1 inch, it moves 0.2 inches per turn. Therefore
0.2 is the pitch of the thread. The pitch (l) is related to the angle by:

0.2
tan =
=
= 0.0637
2 0.52
= 3.6
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

319

= tan1 0.3 = 16.7 ( )


0.5
(500)(1) = ( ) tan(16.7 + 3.6)
12
= 32,400
QUESTION 20
The force F must overcome the frictional force:
=
= 0.6 100 = 60
QUESTION 21
For the cylinder:
= (4)2 (10) = 502 3 0.291 3
= 490 0.291 = 142.5
142.5
=
=
= 4.43 . 2 /

32.2

=
[3 2 + 42 ]
12
4.43
4 2
10 2
[3( ) + 4 ( ) = 1.15 . . 2
12
12
12
QUESTION 22
The moment of inertia for the triangle is:
3
=
12
H = L = 6in
=

6 63
= 108 4
12

QUESTION 23
The moment of inertia for the rectangle is:
=

2
3

(5)(3)(3)2
= 454
3
QUESTION 24
From the figure, the differential area parallel to the Y-axis is:
=
3
Since x = ky
= 3 2 ,
= 3 3
The moment of area becomes:

= 2 = ( 2 6 )( 3 3 )

= 3 3 9 =
x =a and y= b; k = a/b3

3 3 10
10

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

320

310 3 33
=
=
10 9
10

Given a= 2 and b = 10

= 24 4
QUESTION 25
The figure shows two resultant forces, F1 and F2, where F1 is due to the triangular load on the left
of x = 3ft and F2 is due to the triangular load to the right of x=3ft. Their magnitudes are:
1
1
1 = 50 3 = 75 2 = 50 12 = 300
2
2
The beam reaction at B is:
= 0
15 2(75) 7(300) = 0 = 150
QUESTION 26
1
= (100)(12) = 600
2
F equals the area under the triangle whose base equals the length of the loading and the height
equals the maximum magnitude of the load.
= 0
12 49600) 6(200) = 0 = 300
QUESTION 27
The volume of the body equals the volume of water displaced. Therefore,
= 2 = (25)(1) = 25 3
Since,
= 2
25
=
= 2"
2(6.25)
QUESTION 28
The area of the semi-circle is:
1
(4)2
= 2 =
= 25.1 2
2
2
The generated volume about the x-axis is:
= 2
4
=
= 1.70
3
Therefore,
= 2(25.1)(1.70) = 268 3
QUESTION 29
Let the body be represented by 7in x 2in x 4in block and three negative volumes, each being a
circular cylinder of radius 1/2in and height 2.
= 1 2 3 4
1 2
1
1
= 7(4)(2) ( ) (2) ( )2 (2) ( )2 (2) = 51.33
2
2
2
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

321

= 1
1 2
2 3
3 4
4
= 56(2) 1.57(1) 1.57(1) 1.57(1) = 104.1
= 2.03
QUESTION 30
It is convenient to divide the area into three parts. A semi-circular area A1, a 4in x 8in rectangle
A2, and a negative area A3 representing the hole of radius of 1in. We include the hole in A2 and
subtract the contribution of A3.
= 1 + 2 3

2
= (4) + 4 8 (1)(1) = 54 2
2
= 1
1 + 2
2 3
3
= 25.12(4) + 32(4) 3.14(6) = 209
= 3.87
= 1
1 + 2
2 3
3
4 4
= 25.12(4 + ( ) + 32(2) 3.14(2) = 201
3
= 3.72
QUESTION 31
Let the element of area be:
= = (4 2 )
2
3
= (4 2 ) = [4 ] (0,2) = 5.33
3
0
2
1
1
= =
(4 2 3 ) = 1.25

5.33 0
2
1
1
= =
(4 2 )2 = 3.21

5.33 0
QUESTION 32
The differential element dL is:
= 2 + 2
= (1 +

2
)

Since

= 1

= 2

= 2;
6

= 2 = 62
0

1
=

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

322

1 2
( )
1 6
= 2 = 6
(0,6) = 3
0
2
QUESTION 33
6

= 2
0

3
(0,6)
3
216
= 72
3
QUESTION 34
= 0
0 = + 0.707(100)(5) 12(50)
M = 246 lb-ft
QUESTION 35
= 0
5(50) 8(100) + 10 = 0
B = 105 lb

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

323

Dynamics, Kinematics and Vibrations


Total Questions 9-14
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
K.

Kinematics of particles
Kinetic friction
Newtons second law for particles
Work-energy of particles
Impulse-momentum of particles
Kinematics of rigid bodies
Kinematics of mechanisms
Newtons second law for rigid bodies
Work-energy of rigid bodies
Impulse-momentum of rigid bodies
Free and forced vibrations

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

324

Question 1.
The velocity (m/s) of a falling particle is described by the equation
v = 32 + t + 6t2
The acceleration (m/s2) at t =2 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

9.8
25
32
58

Question 2.
The location of a particle moving in x-y plane is given by the parametric equations
x = t2 +4t
y = t4 -60t
where, x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The particle velocity (m/s) at t = 4 s is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

8.95
11.3
12.6
16.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

325

Question 3.
The position of a particle is defined by the equation:
s = 2 sin ti + 4 cos tj (t in radians)
The magnitude of the particle velocity at t = 4 rads is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.61
2.75
3.30
4.12

Question 4.
The position of a particle is defined by the equation:
s = 2 sin ti + 4 cos tj (t in radians)
The magnitude of the particles acceleration at t = is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.00
2.56
3.14
4.00

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

326

Question 5.
A particle motion is represented by the following equation:
S = 20t + 4t2 - 3t3
The maximum speed (m/s) is reached by the particle is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

21.8
27.9
34.6
48.0

Question 6.
A particle has a tangential acceleration at, when it moves around a point in a curve with
instantaneous radius of 1m.
at = 2t sin t +3 cot t (in m/s2)
The instantaneous angular velocity (rad/s) of the particle is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

t2 + cos t + 3 ln csc t
t2 - cos t + 3 ln csc t
t2 - cos t +3 ln sin t
t2 +cos t +3 ln sin t

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

327

Question 7.
For a reciprocating pump, the radius of curvature r =0.3m and the rotational speed is 350 rpm.
The tangential velocity (m/s) on the crank corresponding to an angle of 35o from the horizontal
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
1.15
11.0
15.0

Question 8.
A motorist travelling at 70 km/h sees a traffic light in an intersection 250m ahead turn red. The
lights red cycle is 15s. The motorist wants to enter the intersection without stopping his vehicle
when the light is green. The uniform deceleration (m/s2) of the vehicle will just put the motorist
in the intersection when the light turns green is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.18
0.25
0.37
0.95

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

328

Question 9.
The position (radians) of a car travelling around a curve is described by the following equation:
= t3 2t2 4t + 10
The angular acceleration (rad/s2) at t = 5s is:
A. 4
B. 6
C. 16
D. 26

Question 10.
A 5 kg block begins from rest and slides down an inclined surface. After 4s, the block has a
velocity of 6 m/s. If the angle of inclination is 45o, the distance travelled by the block in 4s is:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

329

Question 11.
A 100 kg block is pulled along a smooth, flat surface by an external 500 N force at an angle of
30o. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is 0.15, the acceleration
(m/s2) experienced by the block due to external force is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.23
3.80
4.33
5.00

Question 12.
A 5 kg block begins from rest and slides down an inclined surface. After 4s, the block has a
velocity of 6 m/s. If the angle of inclination is 45o, the coefficient of friction between the plane
and the block is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.15
0.22
0.78
0.89

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

330

Question 13.
A block-spring system oscillates once every 3s with negligible friction. The spring constant is 6
N/m, the approximate mass (kg) of the block is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.37
5.47
13.7
23.7

Question 14.
A mass of 10kg is suspended from a vertical spring with a spring constant of 10N/m. The period
(s) of vibration is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.30
0.60
0.90
6.35

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

331

Question 15.
A variable force (40N) cos is attached to the end of a spring whose spring constant is 50 N/m.
At what angle, will the spring deflect 20 cm from the equilibrium position?
A.
B.
C.
D.

-14
25
64
76

Question 16.
A spring has a constant of 50N/m. The spring is hung vertically, and a mass is attached at the
end. The spring end displaces 30 cm from its equilibrium position. The same mass is removed
from the first spring and attached to a second spring, and the displacement was 25 cm. The
spring constant (N/m) for the second spring is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

46
56
60
90

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

332

Question 17.
A 6kg sphere moving at 3m/s collides with a 10kg sphere travelling 2.5m/s in the same direction.
The 6kg ball comes to a complete stop after the collision. The new velocity (m/s) of the 10kg
ball after the collision is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.5
2.8
4.3
5.8

Question 18.
A 2kg ball of clay moving at 40m/s collides with a 5kg ball of clay moving at 10m/s directly
towards the first ball. The final velocity (m/s) if both balls stick together after collision is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4.29
42.9
53.7
65.8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

333

Question 19.
A 60,000kg railcar moving at 1km/h is instantly coupled to a stationary 40,000kg railcar. The
speed (km/h) of the coupled cars is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.40
0.60
0.88
0.99

Question 20.
A 50kg cylinder has a height of 3m and a radius of 50cm. The cylinder sits on the x-axis and is
oriented with its major axis parallel to the y-axis. The mass moment of inertia (kg.m2) about the
x-axis is:
A.
4.1
B. 16
C. 41
D. 150

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

334

Question 21.
Traffic travels at 100 km/h around a banked highway curve with a radius of 1000m. The banking
angle necessary such that friction will not be required to resist the centrifugal force is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.4
2.8
4.5
46

Question 22.
A 1530kg car is towing 300 kg trailer. The coefficient of friction between all tires and the road is
0.80. The car and the trailer are travelling at 100 km/h around a banked curve of radius 200m.
The necessary banking angle such that the friction will not be necessary to prevent skidding is
close to:
A. 8
B. 21
C. 36
D. 78

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

335

Question 23.
A 1530kg car is towing 300 kg trailer. The coefficient of friction between all tires and the road is
0.80. How fast (km/h) can the car and travel around an unbanked curve of radius of 200m
without either the car or trailer skidding?
A. 40
B. 70
C. 108
D. 145

Question 24.
An automobile travels on a perfectly horizontal unbanked circular track of radius r. The
coefficient of friction between the tires and the track is 0.3. If the cars velocity is 10m/s, the
smallest radius (m) possible without skidding is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
34
50
68

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

336

Question 25.
A car with a mass of 1,530 kg tows a trailer of 200 kg at 100 km/h. The total momentum (N.s) of
the car-trailer combination is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

16,000
22,000
37,000
48,000

Question 26.
A 60,000 kg railcar moving at 1km/h is coupled to a secondary stationary railcar. If the velocity
of the two cars after coupling is 0.2 m/s and the coupling is completed in 0.5s, the average
impulsive force (N) on the 60,000 kg railcar is:
A. 520
B. 990
C. 3,100
D. 9,300

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

337

Question 27.
A 1,500 kg car travelling at 100 km/h is towing a 250kg trailer. The coefficient of friction
between the tires and the road is 0.8 for both the car and the trailer. The energy (kJ) dissipated by
the brakes if the car and trailer are braked to a complete stop is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

125
375
579
675

Question 28.
A 3,500kg car travelling at 65km/h skids and hits a wall 3s later. The coefficient of friction
between the tires and the road is 0.60. The speed (m/s) of the car when it hits the wall is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.14
0.40
5.1
7.5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

338

Question 29.
Keeping the bank angle same to increase the maximum speed with which a vehicle can travel on
a curved road by 10 percent the radius of curvature of road has to be changed from 20m to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

16
18
24
31

Question 30.
The physical quantities having the same dimensional formula is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Angular momentum and torque


Torque and entropy
Entropy and power
Power and angular momentum

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

339

Question 31.
A ball of mass M moving with a velocity V collides elastically with another ball of the same
mass M, but moving in the opposite direction with the same velocity V. After the collision:
A.
B.
C.
D.

The velocities are exchanged between the balls


Both balls come to rest
Both the balls move at right angles to the original line of motion
One ball comes to rest and the other ball travels back with a velocity 2V.

Question 32.
A vehicle is moving with a speed of 35 m/s on a curvy road having a radius of 490 m. the
banking angle is:
A.
B.
4
C. 5
D.

7
8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

340

Question 33.
A 2 kg body and a 3 kg body have equal momentum. If the kinetic energy of a 3kg body is 10 J,
the kinetic energy in 2 kg body will be:
A.
B.
C.
D.

7
15
23
45

Question 34.
All of the following have the same dimensional formulas, EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Acceleration, gravitational field strength


Torque, angular momentum
Pressure, modulus of elasticity
Velocity, speed

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

341

Question 35.
A spring with a force constant K is cut into two equal parts. The force constant in each part is:
A. K
B. 2K
C. 3K
D. 4K

Question 36.
A 2 kg mass moving on a smooth frictionless surface with a velocity of 10m/s collides with
another 2 kg mass at rest in an elastic collision. After collision, if they move together:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Both travel with a velocity of 5m/s in the same direction


Both travel with a velocity of 10m/s in the same direction
Both travel with 5m/s in the opposite direction
Both travel with 10m/s in the opposite direction

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

342

Question 37.
A car with a mass of 300 kg is moving with a velocity of 25m/s was brought to rest in 15 m
distance. The force (N) applied on the brakes is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2,500
4,500
6,250
7,500

Question 38.
The coefficient of friction between a body and a surface of an inclined plane at 45o is 0.50. The
acceleration of the body (m/s2) is:
4.9

A.
2
B. 4.9
C. 492
19.6
D.
2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

343

Question 39.
Which of the following parameters has no dimensions?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Angular velocity
Momentum
Angular momentum
Strain

Question 40.
The displacement of a particle moving in a straight line is given by x = 2t2 + t + 5, where x in
meters and t in s. The acceleration (m/s2) at t =2 s is:
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 15

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

344

Question 41.
The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about a tangent is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
5
7
5
2
3
5
3

2
2
2
2

Question 42.
The modulus of elasticity is dimensionally equivalent to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Stress
Surface tension
Strain
Coefficient of viscosity

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

345

Question 43.
A solid wooden block resting on a frictionless surface is hit by a bullet. The bullet gets
embedded. During the process:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Only kinetic energy is conserved


Only momentum is conserved
Both momentum and kinetic energy is conserved
Neither momentum nor kinetic energy are conserved

Question 44. The angular velocity of a radial tire is 70 rad/s. If the radius of the tire is 0.5m, the
linear velocity (m/s) is:
A. 1
B. 10
C. 30
D. 70

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

346

Question 45.
A weight of 50 N is placed on a smooth surface. If the force required to move the body on the
smooth surface is 30N, the coefficient of friction is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.35
0.61
1.20
1.67

Question 46.
A motor cycle is travelling on a curved track of radius 500 m. If the coefficient of friction
between the tires and the road is 0.5.The maximum speed (m/s) to avoid skidding is:
A. 10
B. 50
C. 250
D. 500

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

347

Question 47.
A wheel of mass 10 kg has a moment of inertia of 160kg.m2 on its own axis. The radius of
gyration (m) is close to:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10

Question 48.
A force F equal to 3i + cj + 2k acting on a particle causes a displacement of -4i + 2j + 3k in its
own direction. If the work done is 6 J, the value of c is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
1
6
12

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

348

Question 49.
A constant torque of 1,000 N-m turns a wheel with a moment of inertia 200 kg-m2 about an axis
through its center. The angular velocity (rad/s) after 3 s is:
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

Question 50.
A thin metal disc with a mass of 2 kg and a radius 0.25m rolls down an inclined surface. If the
kinetic energy is 4J at the foot of the inclined plane, the linear velocity (m/s) is:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 20

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

349

Question 51.
The dimensions of impulse are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

MLT-2
M2LT-1
MLT-1
ML2T-1

Question 52.
A body is projected along a rough horizontal surface with a velocity of 6 m/s. if the body comes
to rest after 9m, the coefficient of friction is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.2
0.4
0.5
0.6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

350

Question 53.
An elevator is moving with a retardation of 5 m/s2. The percentage change in the weight of a
person in the elevator is:
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100

Question 54.
Which of the following are conserved in an elastic collision are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Momentum, kinetic energy and temperature


Momentum and kinetic energy
Momentum
Kinetic energy

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

351

Question 55.
The relation F = ma cannot be derived from Newtons second law, if:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Force depends on time


Momentum depends on time
Acceleration depends on time
Mass depends on time

Question 56.
A force 100N acts on a 2 kg body for 10s. The change in momentum (N.s) is:
A. 100
B. 250
C. 500
D. 1000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

352

Question 57.
The kinetic energy of a body is four times its momentum. The velocity (m/s) is:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Question 58.
A van is moving with a speed of 72 km/h on a straight road having a friction of 0.5. The
minimum radius of curvature (m) for safe driving of the van is:
A. 4
B. 20
C. 40
D. 80

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

353

Question 59.
The unit of moment of inertia is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Kg/m2
Kg/m2
N/m2
N.m2

Question 60.
A ball moving with a speed of 90m/s collides directly with another identical ball moving with a
speed of V m/s. The second ball comes to rest after collision. If the coefficient of restitution is
0.8, the speed (m/s) of second ball is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
23
80
90

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

354

Question 61.
The physical quantity which has the same dimensional formula of [Energy/(mass x length)] is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Force
Power
Pressure
Acceleration

Question 62.
A body is moving with a uniform acceleration is 0.34 m/s covers a distance of 3.06m. If the
change in the velocity of the body is 0.18 m/s during this distance, the uniform acceleration
(m/s2) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.01
0.02
0.03
0.04

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

355

Question 63.
A constant force acts on 0.9 kg mass at rest for 10 s. If the body moves a distance of 250m, the
magnitude of the force (N) is:
A. 1.0
B. 4.5
C. 8.5
D. 36.0

Question 64.
A mass of 5 kg rests of a rough horizontal surface ( = 0.2). The mass is pulled through a
distance of 10m by a horizontal force of 25N. The kinetic energy (J) required is:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

356

Question 65.
The average force that must act on a 5 kg mass to reduce the speed from 65 cm/s to 15 cm/s is:
A. 12
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100

Question 66.
A force of 5N making an angle with the horizontal displaces a body by 0.4m along the
horizontal direction. If the body gains 1 J of kinetic energy, the horizontal component of the
force (N) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.5
2.5
3.5
4.5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

357

Question 67.
A body of mass m1 moving with a velocity of 10 m/s collides with another body at rest with a
mass m2. After collision, the velocities of the two bodies are 2 m/s and 5 m/s, respectively, along
the direction of motion. The ratio of m1/m2 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

5
12
5
8
8
5
12
5

Question 68.
The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass M and radius R about an axis passing through its
center is 2/5 MR2. The radius of gyration of the sphere about a parallel axis to the above and
tangent to the sphere is:
A.
B.

7
5
3
5
7

C. 5
D.

8
5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

358

Question 69.
A wheel spins at 1,200 rpm and made to slow down to 4 rad/s. The number of revolutions the
wheel makes before coming to rest is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

143
272
314
722

Question 70.
The dimensional formula of a product of two physical quantities P and Q is ML2T-2. The
dimensional formula of P/Q is MT-2. P and Q are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Force, velocity
Momentum displacement
Force, displacement
Work, velocity

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

359

Question 71.
The initial velocity of a particle is 4i + 3j, its uniform acceleration is 0.4i + 0.3j. The velocity
after 10s is:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 10

Question 72.
A body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 50m/s. The percentage of the kinetic
energy converted to potential energy after 4s is:
A. 4
B. 24
C. 50
D. 96

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

360

Question 73.
A block of weight 200N is pulled along a rough horizontal surface at constant speed by a force
100N acting at 30o above the horizontal. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and
the surface is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.43
0.58
0.75
0.83

Question 74.
A mass of 6kg under a force causes a displacement by S = t2/4. The work (J) done by the force in
2s is:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

361

Question 75.
The velocities of three particles of masses 20, 30 and 50 kg are 10i, 10j and 10k, respectively.
The velocity of the center of the mass of the three particles is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2i + 3j + 5k
10(i + j + k)
20i + 30j + 5k
2i + 30j + 50k

Question 76.
A weight of 64 N is pushed with a minimum force to start to move on a horizontal force. If the
coefficients of static and dynamic frictions are 0.6 and 0.4, respectively, the acceleration (m/s 2)
of the body is: (g = acceleration due to gravity)
A. 0.2g

B. 64
C. 0.64g

D. 3 2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

362

Question 77.
A mass of 50 kg is pulled on an inclined surface 12m long and 2m high by a constant force of
100N at 2m/s. The work (J) done by friction when it reaches to the top is:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Question 78.
A body moves along a 5m circular path. The coefficient of friction is 0.5. The angular velocity
(rad/s) required so that the body does not skid is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

363

Question 79.
Two springs with spring constants of 1,000 N/m and 2,000 N/m are stretched by the same force.
The ratio of their potential energies is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2:1
1:2
4:1
1:4

Question 80.
A mass of 4kg is moving with a momentum of 8 kg/m.s. A force of 0.2N acts in the direction of
motion for 10 s. The increase in the kinetic energy (J) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.5
4.5
7.5
9.5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

364

Question 81.
A mass of 2kg starts moves in uniform acceleration. The velocity of the mass is 20 m/s in 4s.
The power (W) exerted on the body in 2s is:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Question 82.
The diameter of a flywheel is 1m with a mass of 20kg. If the angular speed is 120 rpm, the
angular momentum (kg.m2/s) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

13.4
31.4
41.4
43.4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

365

Question 83.
The equation of motion of a projectile is given by x = 36t and 2y = 96t 9.8t2. The angle of
projection is:
4

A. 1 (5)
3

B. 1 (5)
4

C. 1 (3)
3

D. 1 (4)

Question 84.
Two bodies with masses of 200g and 500g have velocities of 10i m/s and 3i + 5j m/s. The
velocity (m/s) of the center of the mass is:
A. 5i 25j
5
B. 7 25
C. 5i +

25

7
5

D. 25i 7

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

366

Question 85.
A 2kg ball moving at 24 m/s collides inelastically head on with 4kg ball moving at 48 m/s. If the
coefficient of restitution is 2/3, their velocities after impact are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-56, -8
-28, -4
-14, -2
-7, -1

Question 86.
A mass of 2 kg is initially at rest on a horizontal frictionless surface. A force F = (9 x2)i N is
applied, when the block is at rest. The kinetic energy of the block when x = 3 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

15
18
20
24

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

367

Question 87.
A block of wood resting on an inclined plant at an angle of 30o starts moving down. If the
coefficient of friction is 0.2, the velocity (m/s) after 5 s is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

13
16
18
20

Question 88.
A 2kg block slides on a horizontal force with a speed of 4m/s and compresses a spring till the
block is motionless. The kinetic friction force is 15N and the spring constant is 10,000 N/m. The
spring compresses to:
A. 2.5
B. 5.5
C. 8.5
D. 10.5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

368

Question 89.
Angular momentum of the particle rotating with a central force is constant due to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Constant torque
Constant force
Constant linear momentum
Zero torque

Question 90.
A particle is projected at 60o to the horizontal with a kinetic energy of K. The kinetic energy at
the highest point is:
A. 0

B. 2

C. 4
D. K

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

369

Question 91.
A sphere of mass m moving with a constant velocity u collides with another stationary sphere
of same mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution, the ratio of final velocities of the spheres is:
A.
B.

1
1+
1

C. 1+
D. None of the above

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

370

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

371

SOLUTIONS
QUESTION 1
=

= 1 = 12

At t =2s
= 1 + 122 = 25

QUESTION 2

= ( 2 + 4) = 2 + 4

4
= ( 60) = 3 60
4

At t =4s,
= 12

; = 4

= 2 + 2 = 122 + 42 = 12.6

QUESTION 3
() = 2 sin + 4 cos

() =
= 2 = 4 sin

At t =4 rad
(4) = 2 cos(4) 4 sin (4)
= 1.31 + 3.03

|| = (1.31)2 + (3.03)2 = 3.30

QUESTION 4
9) = 2 4 sin

=
= 2 sin 4

t=

() = 2 sin 4 cos
0 + 4

|| = 02 + 42 = 4 2

QUESTION 5

= 20 + 4 2 3 3

=
= 20 + 8 9 2

= 8 18 = 0

8
=
= 0.444
18

= 20 + 8(0.444) 9(0.444)2 = 21.8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

372

QUESTION 6
=

= (2 sin + 3 cos )
= 2 + cos + 3 ln|sin |
+ cos + 3 ln|sin |
= =
= 2 + cos + 3 ln|sin |

1
2

QUESTION 7
=

= 350
2

= 36.65
1

60

= 0.3 36.65

= 11

QUESTION 8
The initial speed is:

1
1000

= 19.44 /

3600
The distance travelled under a constant deceleration is:
1
= 0 + 0 2
2
Initial distance x0 = 0
0
19.44 15 250

=2
= 2[
] = 0.37 2
2

15 15

QUESTION 9
Angular acceleration:
2
= 2 = 6 4

At t = 5s

= 65 4 = 26 2

QUESTION 10
() = 0 + 0
6 0

() 0

0 =
=
= 1.5 2

1
2
() = 0 + 0 () + 0
2
1
= 0 + 0 + 1.5 42 = 12
2
0 = 70

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

373

QUESTION 11
The frictional force
= = [ ]
= 0.15[1009.81 500 sin 30] = 110
=
[500 sin 30 110]

=
= 3.23 2
100

QUESTION 12
= =
= sin 45 cos 45
=

9.81 sin 45 1.5


= 0.78
9.81 cos 45

QUESTION 13
The angular frequency is:
2
= =

4 2
= 2

2
6 (3)
= 2 = 1.37
4
QUESTION 14

10
= 2 = 6.3

10

= 2
QUESTION 15
From Hooks law:


20
40 cos = 50
= 0.25
100
= 76
QUESTION 16
From Hooks law:
= 1 1 = 2 2
1 1
30

2 =
= 50
= 60
2
25

QUESTION 17
Using conservation of momentum equation:
1 1 + 2 2 = 1 1 + 2 2

6 3 + 10 2.5 = 6 0 + 10 2

2 = 4.3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

374

QUESTION 18
1 1 + 2 2 = 1

2 40 + 5 (10 ) = (2 + 5)

= 4.29

QUESTION 19
Using the conservation of momentum equation:
1 1 + 2 2 = (1 + 2 )

60000 1
+ 40,000 0
= (60000 + 40000)

= 0.6

QUESTION 20
The mass moment of inertia in x-direction is:

=
[3 2 + 4 2 ]
12
30
[3 (0.5)2 + 4 (3)2
12
= 150 . 2
QUESTION 21
The banking angle is given by:
2
tan =

2
= tan1

1
[100
1000
3600 ]

tan1
= 4.5
9.81 1000
QUESTION 22
The velocity is:

= 100
1000

= 27.78

3600

= tan1

[27.78 ]
tan1
= 21
9.81 200

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

375

QUESTION 23
=

=
=
=

= 0.8 9.81 = 7.84 2

0 =
= 0 = 7.84 200 = 39.6

3600
1

= 39.6

= 143

1000

QUESTION 24
The centrifugal force:
=

The frictional force


= =
2
=

2
10 10
=
=
= 34

0.3 9.81
QUESTION 25
Velocity:

100

= 27.78

3600

= (1530 + 200) 27.78 = 48,000 .

= 100

QUESTION 26
The original velocity = 0.277 m/s
Using the impulse-momentum principle:
=
= 60,000

[0.277 0.2]
= 9300
0.5

QUESTION 27
The original velocity of car and trailer:

= 100
1000

= 27.78

3600

1
= 2
2
1

= (1500 + 250) (27.78 )2 = 675


2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

376

QUESTION 28
The initial velocity:
= 65,000

= 18.06
3600

The frictional force decelerating the car is:


= =
= 0.6 3500 9.81 = 20,600
Using the impulse-momentum principle:
=
20,600 3 = 3500[18.06 2 ]

2 = 0.40

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

377

Mechanics of Materials
Total Questions 812
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
K.

Shear and moment diagrams


Stress types (axial, bending, torsion, shear)
Stress transformations
Mohrs circle
Stress and strain caused by axial loads
Stress and strain caused by bending loads
Stress and strain caused by torsion
Stress and strain caused by shear
Combined loading
Deformations
Columns

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

378

Question 1.
A cylindrical vessel has an inner diameter of 4ft and a thickness of inch. The maximum
internal pressure it can sustain so that neither its circumferential nor its longitudinal stress
component exceeds 20,000 psi is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
200
300
400

Question 2.
A force of 150 lb is applied to the edge of the member as shown in figure. The bending moment
is nearly:
A. 7.25
B. 11.25
C. 15.75
D. 22.50

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

379

Question 3.
A steel tank (specific weight = 490 lb/ft3) has an inner diameter of 24 in. and a thickness of 0.5
in. It is filled to the top with water having a specific weight of 62.4 lb/ft3. If the pressure on the
tank is 1.30 psi, the circumferential stress (psi) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

32.2
48.6
62.4
98.6

Question 4.
A thin-walled box (as shown in figure) is subjected to a shear of 10,000 psi. The transverse shear
flow is close to:
Assume the first moment Q = 17.5 in3.
A.
B.
C.
D.

1,500
2,500
4,800
5,200

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

380

Question 5.
An aluminum (E = 70 GPa) rod has a circular cross section and is subjected to an axial load of
10kN. The approximate elongation (mm) of the rod when the load is applied is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
18
24
36

Question 6.
A steel bar with dimensions of 1.5 m (L) x 100 mm (W) x 50 mm (thick) is subjected to a load of
80 kN. The axial elongation (m) of the bar after applying the load is close to:
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

381

Question 7.
An aluminum specimen has a diameter of 25mm and length of 250 mm. If a force of 165 kN
elongates the length by 1.20mm, the modulus of elasticity (GPa) is nearly:
A. 35
B. 70
C. 105
D. 150

Question 8.
An aluminum specimen has a diameter of 25mm and length of 250 mm. A force of 165 kN
elongates the length by 1.20mm. Assume the modulus of elasticity for the material is 70 GPa and
shear modulus is 26 GPa. The contraction (mm) of the diameter is close to:
Assume the elongation = 0.00480 mm/mm
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.042
0.064
0.088
0.098

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

382

Question 9.
The assembly shown in the figure consists of an aluminum tube AB having a cross-sectional area
of 400 mm2. A steel rod having a diameter of 10mm is attached to a rigid collar and passes
through the tube. If a load of 80 kN is applied to the rod, the deformation (m) in steel rod is close
to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.0011
0.0022
0.0033
0.0044

Question 10.
A steel bar (0.5 in) is constrained to just fit between two fixed supports when the temperature is
60 F. If the temperature is raised to 120 F, the average stress (psi) is close to:
Assume temperature coefficient of expansion: 6.60 x 10-6/F and Esteel = 29 x 106 psi
A. 7,500
B. 9,500
C. 11,500
D. 15,500

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

383

Question 11.
A solid shaft, 2-in in radius is subjected to 8,000 psi torsion stress; the resultant internal torque
(kilo pounds/in2) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
200
300
400

Question 12.
A pipe has inner diameter of 80mm and an outer diameter of 100 mm. If a torque of 40 N.m is
applied, the outside torsion stress (MPa) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.245
0.345
0.755
0.975

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

384

Question 13.
A tubular shaft having an inner diameter of 30 mm and an outer diameter of 42 mm is to be used
to transmit 90 kW of power. The frequency (Hz) of rotation of the shaft so that the shear stress
will not exceed 50 MPa is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

15
27
45
76

Question 14.
The gears attached to the fixed-end steel shaft are subjected to the torques as shown in figure. If
the shear modulus is 80 GPa and the shaft has a diameter of 14mm, the total twist (rad) is close
to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-0.212
0.212
-0.422
0.422

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

385

Question 15.
The two solid steel shafts are coupled together using the meshed gears as shown in the figure.
The angle of twist of end A of shaft when a torque of 45N.m is applied is nearly:
Diameter of shaft: 20mm
Shear modulus: 80 GPa
A.
B.
C.
D.

-0.072
+0.072
0.88
-0.88

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

386

Question 16.
A bronze tube with a rectangular cross-section of 60mm (3mm thick) x 40mm (5mm thick) is
subjected to a torque of 35 N.m. The shear stress (MPa) along the height of the tube is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.50
1.00
1.25
1.75

Question 17.
A square (3 in x 3 in) aluminum tube is subjected to a torque of 85 lb.ft. If the thickness of the
tube is 0.5, the shear stress (psi) is close to:
A. 80
B. 120
C. 160
D. 220

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

387

Question 18.
A wooden beam (5in x 4in) is subjected to a resultant internal vertical shear force of V = 3,000
psi. The maximum shear stress in the beam is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1250
2250
4500
7500

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

388

Question 19.
A beam is constructed from four boards is glued together is subjected to a shear of V = 850kN,
the shear flow (MN/m) at B is close to:
Moment of inertia: 87.52 x 10-6 m4
Q at location B: 0.271 x 10-3 m3
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.00
1.76
2.63
3.75

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

389

Question 20.
A box beam is to be constructed from four boards nailed together is subjected to a vertical force
of 80 lb. The shear flow is nearly:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12

Question 21.
The state plane stress at a point on a body are given as x = -20 MPa, y = 90 MPa. xy = 60 MPa,
the principal stresses (MPa) are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

80, 100
120, -50
100, -80
150, -100

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

390

Question 22.
The state of plane stress at a point on a body is represented by x = -20 MPa, y = 90 MPa. xy =
60 MPa, the maximum in-plane shear stress (MPa) and the average normal stress (MPa) is close
to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

81; 35
35; 88
55; 81
81; 45

Question 23.
Given, x = -12,000 psi, y = 0 psi and xy = 6,000 psi, the principal stresses (x1000psi)are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.5, 10.5
2.5, - 15
4.5, -20
-1.5, 15

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

391

Question 24.
Given x = -8,000 psi, y = 12 psi and xy = -6,000 psi, the average stress (x1000 psi) and
maximum in plane stress (x1000 psi) are close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1,000, 12,000
1,500, 10,000
2,000, 12,000
1,500, 15,000

Question 25.
A beam (0.1075 x 0.175m x 0.015m) is subjected to a shear force of 84 kN and a moment of 30.6
KN.m, given I = 67.4 (10-6) m4, y = 0.1m; the stress (MPa) components (,) are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-45; 35
-35; 45
55; -75
-25; 55

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

392

Question 26.
Due to the applied loading, the element at the point on the frame in figure is subjected to the state
of plane stress as shown in the figure. The absolute maximum shear stress (psi) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

20
40
60
80

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

393

Question 27.
The state of plane strain at a point is represented by the strain components x = -400 (10-6), y =
200 (10-6), xy = 150 (10-6). The maximum in plane shear strain and the absolute maximum shear
strain are close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100 x 10-6; 800 x 10-6


210 x 10-6; 620 x 10-6
310 x 10-6; 800 x 10-6
400 x 10-6; 900 x 10-6

Question 28.
A bracket is made of steel for which E = 200 GPa, the Poisson ratio is 0.3, the shear modulus
(GPa) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

47
57
67
77

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

394

Question 29.
A copper bar is subjected to a uniform loading of x = 800 MPa, y = -500 MPa. xy = 0 MPa and
z = 0. Take Ecu = 120 GPa and cu = 0.34. The normal strains are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.008, -0.006, -0.00085


0.005, -0.006, -0.0085
0.1, -0.005, -0.009
0,0,0

Question 30.
A rectangular block (4in x 3in x 2in) is subjected to a uniform pressure of 20 psi. The change in
length of each side is nearly:
E = 600 psi
= 0.45
A.
B.
C.
D.

-0.10; -0.055; -0.045


-0.055; -0.0034; -0.030
-0.0111; -0.0577; - 0.020
-0.0133; -0.00667; -0.010

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

395

Question 31.
A solid cast-iron shaft is subjected to a torque 400 lb.ft. The smallest radius (inches) so that it
does not fail according to the maximum normal stress theory is:
ult = 20,000 psi

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.28
0.33
0.42
0.54

Question 32.
A steel pipe has an inner diameter of 60mm and an outer diameter of 80mm. It is subjected to a
torsional moment of 8kN and a bending moment of 3.5kN.m. If 1 = 76.1 MPa and 2 = -178.0
MPa, determine if these loadings cause failure as defined by the maximum-distortion theory. The
yield stress for the steel found from a tension test is Y = 250 MPa.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The pipe will fail


The pipe will not fail
Distortion theory cant predict failure
Not enough information is provided

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

396

Question 33.
A steel solid shaft has a radius of 0.5in has a yielding stress of 1 = 9,560 psi. Given 2 = -28,660
psi and y = 36,000 psi, determine if these loadings cause the shaft to fail according to the
maximum-shear-stress theory?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The material will fail


The material will not fail
Cant be predicted using this theory
Not sufficient information is provided

Question 34.
A 24-ft long steel having an outside diameter of 3.0 in with a thickness of 0.25in is to be used as
a pin-ended column. The maximum allowable axial load (x 1000 psi) the column can support is
close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

15
35
65
88

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

397

Question 35.
A 12-ft long steel member is to be used as pin-connected column. The average compressive
stress (psi) in the columns is:
Given:
Cross-section area: 9.13in2
Moment of inertia: 37.1in4
E: 29,000 psi
A.
B.
C.
D.

14.000
22.000
42.000
56.000

Question 36.
A 5m long aluminum column in fixed at its bottom and is braced at its top by cables so as to
prevent movement at the top along the x-axis. The largest load (kN) that can be applied is:
Factor of safety:
Eal:
Y:
A:
Ix:
Iy:
K (x-x buckling)
K (y-y buckling)
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.0
70 GPa
215 MPa
7.5 x 10-3 m2
61.3(10-6)m4
23.2(10-6)m4
2.0
0.7

100
120
140
160

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

398

Question 37.
A high strength steel bolt with 2.25in in length and 0.731in in diameter is chosen to support a
tensile loading. The elastic strain energy (in x 1000 psi) that the bolt can absorb is:
Y = 44,000 psi
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.011
0.022
0.032
0.044

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

399

SOLUTIONS
QUESTION 1
The maximum stress occurs in the circumferential direction:

(24)
20,000 =
= 417
1

2
QUESTION 2
The maximum stress is:

= 150 5 = 750
=
QUESTION 3

[750 5]
1
3
12 (4)(10)
=

= = 62.4
= 1.30

= 11.25

= 1.30
3
1442

1
24
= 62.4
2

0.5

QUESTION 4
The moment of inertia:
=

1
(6)(8)3 = 184 4
12

10,000 17.53 /2
=
= 47 60
184 4
=

QUESTION 5
The normal stress within each segment is:

10(10)3
= =
= 31.83

(0.01)2

10(10)3
= =
= 56.59

(0.0075)2
31.83 106
=
= 0.0004547 /
70 109
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

400

56.59 106

= 0.045
9
70 10

The elongation of the rod is:


= 0.0004547(600) + 0.045(400) = 18.3
QUESTION 6
The normal stress in the bar is:
=

80,000
=
= 16 106
0.1 0.05

E (steel) = 200 GPa (from NCEES reference handbook table)


=

16 106
=
= 80 106 /
() 200 109

The axial elongation of the bar is:


= = 80 106

1.5 = 120

QUESTION 7
The normal stress is:

165 103
=
= 336.1
2

(0.025)
4
1.20

= =
= 0.00480
250

The modulus of elasticity E:


=

336.1
=
= 70

0.00480

QUESTION 8
The Poissons ratio for the material is:

2 (1 + )
70
26 =
= 0.347
2(1 + )
=

0.347 =

= 0.00166
0.00480

The contraction of the diameter is:


= (0.00166)(25) = 0.0416
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

401

QUESTION 9
The displacement of end C with respect to B is:

80 103 (0.6)
/ =
=
= +0.003056

(0.005)2 (200 109 2 )

The positive sign indicates that end C moves to the right


The displacement of end B with respect to fixed A is:
80 103 (0.4)
= 0.001143
106 2

2
9
(400)
(70 10 2 )
2

The negative sign indicates that the tube shortens, so B moves to the right relative to A. Since
both displacements are to the right, the resultant displacement is:
= 0.001143 + 0.003056 = 0.0042
=

QUESTION 10

=
= 6.60 106 (120 60)(0.5)2 (29 106 ) = 2.87 103
2.87 103
=
= 11,500
(0.5)2
=

QUESTION 11
The polar moment of inertia for the cross-sectional area is:

= (2)4 = 25.13 4
2

(2)
8000 =
= 101 .
25.134
QUESTION 12
The polar moment of inertia for the pipes cross-sectional area is:

= ((0.05)4 (0.04)4 ) = 5.80 106 4


2
0 40. (0.05)
0 =
=
= 0.345

5.80 106 4
QUESTION 13
The maximum torque that can be applied to the shaft is determined from the torsional formula:

(0.021)
50 106 2 =
4
4

2 [(0.021) (0.015) ]
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

402

= 538 .
= 2

90 103 . = 2(538 . )

= 26.6
QUESTION 14
Using the sign convention (right hand rule), the positive torque is directed away from the
sectioned end of the shaft.
= +150 . ; = 130 . ; = 170 .
The polar moment of inertia:

= (0.075)4 = 3.77 109 4


2
Angle of twist:

150 . 0.4
3.77 109 4 80 109

130 . 0.3
3.77 109 4 80 109

170 . 0.5

3.77 109 4 80 109

= 0.212

QUESTION 15
The angle of twist of end A is:
=

45 . 2

4
9
2 (0.010) 8010

= +0.0716

QUESTION 16
The internal torque is 35 N.m
The cross sectional area is:
= (0.035)(0.057) = 0.00200 2

35 .
=
=
= 1.75
2
2 0.005 0.00200 2
QUESTION 17
The cross-sectional area is:
= (2.5 )(2.5) = 6.252

85
.

12

=
=
= 163
2 2 0.5 6.252
QUESTION 18
The maximum shear stress occurs at neutral axis, since t is constant throughout the cross-section:

=
2.5
=
4 2.5 = 12.5 3
2

3000 12.5 3
=
=
= 2250

41.7 4 4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

403

QUESTION 19
=

850 0.271 103 3

=
= 2.63
6
3

87.52 10

QUESTION 20
The moment of inertia of the cross-sectional area about the neutral axis can be determined as:
1
1
= (7.5)(7.5)3
(4.5)(4.5)3 = 229.5 4
2
12
= 93)(7.5)(1.5) = 33.75 3
=
80 33.75 3

=
=
=
11.76

229.5 4

QUESTION 21
Principal stresses:
+
, =
(( )/) +

+

[
] + () = .

= ; = .

QUESTION 22
Maximum stress:
= (( )/) +
= [


] + () = .

Average normal stress is:


=
QUESTION 23

20 + 90
= 35
2

12 + 0
= 6; 1 = 1000
2
= (12 6)2 (6)2 = 8.49

1 = 8.49 6 = 2.49
2 = 6 8.49 = 14.5
QUESTION 24
The average stress is:
8000 + 12,000
= 2000
2
= (10)2 + (6)2 = 11.66 11,660
=

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

404

QUESTION 25

30.6 103 0.100


=
= 45.4
67.4 106 4

84 103 0.1075 0.175 0.015


=
=
= 35.2

67.4 106 4 0.010


QUESTION 26
The in-plane principal stresses can be determined from Mohrs circle. The center of the circle is
on the -axis at:
20 + 0
=
= 10
2
= (20 10)2 + (40)2 = 41.2
=

= 10 + 41.2 = 31.2
= 10 41.2 = 51.2
=


31.2 (51.2)
=(
) = 41.2
2
2

QUESTION 27
400 + 200
= 100
2
Since xy/2 = 75 x 106, the reference point has the coordinates A (-400 x 106, 75 x 106).
The radius of the circle is:
= [(400 100)2 + (75)2 ] 106 = 309 106
=

In place principal strains we have are:


= (100 + 309)106 = 209 106
= (100 309) 106 = 409 106
The maximum in-plane shear strain is:
[209 (409)] 106 = 618 106
QUESTION 28
The shear modulus is given by:

200
=
=
= 76.9
2(1 + ) 2(1 + 0.3)
QUESTION 29
From Hooks law the normal strains are:

= ( + )

800
0.34
(500) = 0.00808
=

3
120 10 120 103
= 0.00643; = 0.000850

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

405

QUESTION 30
The dilation can be determined using:
1 2
( + + )

1 20.45
3
=
(3 (20)) = 0.01 3
600

The normal strain on each side can be determined from Hooks law:
=


( + )

[20 0.45(20 20)] = .00333


600

Thus the change in length of each side is:


= 0.003334 = 0.0133
=

= 0.00333 2 = 0.00667
= 0.00333 3 = 0.100
QUESTION 31
Assuming the shaft has a radius of r, the shear stress is:

12
400 .
3055.8 .

=
=
4
3

2
The smallest radius of the shaft is determined from:
3055.8 .
= 20,000
3
= 0.535
QUESTION 32
From the distortion theory:
12 1 2 + 22 2
(76.1)2 (76.1)(178.0) + (178)2 (250)2
51,000 < 62,500
Since the criterion has been met, the material within the pipe will not fail according to maximum
distortion theory
QUESTION 33
According to the maximum distortion theory:
|1 2 |
|9.56 (28.66)| 36
38.2 > 36
Thus shear failure of the material will occur.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

406

QUESTION 34
2
=
2
1
1
2 (29 103 ) [4 (3)4 4 (2.75)4 ]4
=
= 65,000
12 2
[24 (
)]

QUESTION 35
2
2
2 (29
3

10 )(37.1)4
=
= 512,000
12 2
[12 (
)]

When fully loaded, the average compressive strength in the column is:

512,000
=
= 56,100
9.13 2
QUESTION 36
2
=
()2

2 (70109 2 ) (61.3 106 4 )

=
= 424
(10)2
The allowable load is:
424
=
= 141

3.0
QUESTION 37
If the bolt is subjected to its maximum tension, the maximum stress y = 44 ksi will occur within
the 0.25in region. The tension force is:
0731 2
= = 44 (
) = 18.47
2
=

2
2
(18.47)2 (0.25)
(18.47)2 (2)
=
+
= 0.0231 .
0.731 2
0.875 2
3
3
2 [ 2 ] (29 10 ) 2 [ 2 ] (29 10 )
=

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

407

Materials Properties and Processing


Total Questions 8-12
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
K.
L.

Properties, including chemical, electrical, mechanical, physical, and thermal


Stress-strain diagrams
Engineered materials
Ferrous metals
Nonferrous metals
Manufacturing processes
Phase diagrams
Phase transformation, equilibrium, and heat treating
Materials selection
Surface conditions
Corrosion mechanisms and control
Thermal failure

M.
N.
O.

Ductile or brittle behavior


Fatigue
Crack propagation

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

408

QUESTION 1.
The number of atoms in 100 g of silver (Ag) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.38 x 1021
5.58 x 1023
6.75 x 1024
7.78 x 1025

QUESTION 2.
The number of Fe atoms for the following data is close to:
The radius of a particle: 1.5 nm
Density of iron: 7.8 g/cm3
Particle shape: sphere
Atomic weight of iron: 56 g/mol
A.
B.
C.
D.

1,200
2,100
2,300
2,600

QUESTION 3.
The number of valance electrons in 10 cm3 of silver is close to:
Density of silver: 10.49 g/cm3
Atomic weight of silver: 107.868 g/mol

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.85 x 1023
3.85 x 1023
4.85 x 1023
5.85 x 1023

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

409

QUESTION 4.
The activation energy, Q for aluminum in a copper solvent at 575 oC is 1.6 x 108 J/kmol. The
diffusion coefficient in (m2/s) if the constant proportionality D0 is 7 x 10-6 m2/s is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4.04 x 10-47
2.04 x 10-20
9.75 x 10-16
2.31 x 10-5

QUESTION 5.
Calculate the length after deformation of a bar, if initial length was 50 inches when a stress of
30,000 psi applied is close to:
Youngs modulus: 10 x 106 psi
A.
B.
C.
D.

49.85
50.15
50.50
50.95

QUESTION 6.
An aluminum alloy has an initial length of 2 inches and final length of 2.195 inches. The initial
and final diameters were 0.505 and 0.398 inches, respectively. The ductility (%) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

11 and 38
10 and 45
10 and 38
12 and 45

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

410

QUESTION 7.
An impact test measures:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Brittleness
Hardness
Toughness
Ductility

QUESTION 8.
A large steel plate used in a nuclear reactor has a plain strain fracture toughness of 80,000 psi in
and is exposed to a stress of 45,000 psi during service. Assuming a geometric parameter of 1.12,
the crack length (inches) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.20
0.40
0.60
0.80

QUESTION 9.
A high-strength steel plate has a plane strain fracture toughness of 80 MPA m is alternately
loaded in tension to 500 MPa and in compression to 60 MPa. The crack size (mm) (assuming the
geometric parameter equal to 1) is close to:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

411

QUESTION 10.
The ratio between the lateral and longitudinal strain in the elastic region is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Youngs modulus
Poissons ratio
Hoopss ratio
Diffusion coefficient

QUESTION 11.
The heat treatment process used to eliminate some or all of the effects of cold working is known
as:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Annealing
Hardening
Stress relief
Yield strength

QUESTION 12.
A mixture of ice and water is held at a constant temperature of 0oC. The degrees of freedom of
the mixture is (are):
A.
B.
C.
D.

-1
0
1
2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

412

QUESTION 13.
The degrees of freedom in a Cu-40%, Ni alloy at 1300oC using the following phase diagram is
(are):

A.
B.
C.
D.

0
1
2
3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

413

QUESTION 14.
The composition (%) of each phase in a Cu-40%, Ni alloy at 1250oC (use the above figure) is
nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

50 Cu and 50 Ni
45 Cu and 50 Ni
32 Cu and 40 Ni
32 Cu and 45 Ni

QUESTION 15.
The amount of and L at 1250oC in the Cu-40% Ni alloy from the above figure is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

62% and 38%


70% and 30%
65% and 35%
55% and 45%

QUESTION 16.
The amount of each phase in Cu-40% Ni alloy at 1270oC is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

70% and 30%


77% and 23%
65% and 35%
60% and 40%

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

414

QUESTION 17.
A brass alloy is 40% zinc and 60% copper by weight. The approximate mole fraction (%) of zinc
is:
A. 5
B. 26
C. 39
D. 50

QUESTION 18.
The composition of lead-tin alloy at 61.9% Sn using Lever rule is nearly:

A.
B.
C.
D.

45% and 55%


40% and 60%
50% and 50%
55% and 45%

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

415

QUESTION 19.
The maximum percentage of carbon in cementite (Fe3C) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.34
3.78
4.98
6.67

QUESTION 20.
The percentage of carbon in pearlite is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.25
0.33
0.77
0.99

QUESTION 21.
The hardest form of steel is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pearlite
Ferrite
Bainite
Martensite

QUESTION 22.
Steel is alloy of the following elements:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Iron and silicon


Iron and carbon
Iron and chromium
Iron and molybdenum

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

416

QUESTION 23.
The amount of Fe3C in Fe-0.60% and 0.0218% C at 726 is close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

91% and 9%
90% and 10%
80% and 20%
70% and 30%

QUESTION 24.
Cast iron is an alloy of:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Iron, carbon and nickel


Iron, carbon and zinc
Iron, carbon and silica
Iron, carbon and silver

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

417

QUESTION 25.
To make 1000 kg of BaTiO3 ceramic from BaCO3 and TiO2, approximately, how much (kg)
barium carbonate and titanium dioxide should be mixed together?
3 + 2 3 + 2
A.
B.
C.
D.

800 and 400


850 and 340
900 and 200
700 and 300

QUESTION 26.
Silicon carbide particles are compacted and fired at high temperatures to produce a strong
ceramic shape. The specific gravity of SiC is 3.2 g/cm3. The ceramic shape subsequently is
weighed when dry (360 g), after soaking in water (385 g) and while suspended in water (22g).
The porosity (%) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
12
14
16

QUESTION 27.
An example of a thermoplastic material is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Polyurethane
Polyethylene
Natural rubber
None of the above

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

418

QUESTION 28
The number of monomers in 1 kg of polyethylene with an average molecular weight of 200,000
g/mol is close to:
Molecular weight of ethylene: 28 g
A.
B.
C.
D.

215 x 1023
325 x 1023
450 x 1023
555 x 1023

QUESTION 29.
The degree of polymerization if 6,6-nylon has a molecular weight of 120,000 g/mol is nearly:
The molecular weight of 6,6-nylon is 226 g/mol
A.
B.
C.
D.

260
420
530
720

QUESTION 30.
A polyethylene sample contains 4,000 chains with molecular weight between 0 and 5,000 g/mol,
8,000 chains with molecular weights between 5,000 and 10,000 g/mol, 7,000 chains with
molecular weights between 10,000 and 15,000 g/mol, and 2000 chains with molecular weights
between 15,000 and 20,000 g/mol, the number average molecular weight is close to:
Assume the total number of chains: 21,000
A.
B.
C.
D.

5,160
7,160
8,260
9,160

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

419

QUESTION 31.
An example of a heat stabilizer material added to thermoplastics to absorb heat and protect the
polymer matrix is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Limestone
Carbon black
Antimony compounds
Halogen compounds

QUESTION 32.
To help improve the resistance of plastics to ultraviolet degradation, the following is commonly
added to the polymer:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Limestone
Hydrated alumina
Carbon black
Talc

QUESTION 33.
To retard the flammability of polymer the following is compound is additive is mixed:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Limestone
Carbon black
Talc
Magnesium bromide

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

420

QUESTION 34.
A storage tank for liquid hydrogen will be made of metal, but must be coated with a 3-mm
thickness of polymer as an intermediate layer between metal and additional insulation layers.
The temperature of intermediate layer may drop to -80 C. The material suitable for this
application is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Natural rubber
Thermoplastic
Elastomer
Carbon black

QUESTION 35.
A 2% weight thallium oxide is added to nickel. Each thallium oxide particle has a diameter of
1000 Ao. The number of particles present in each cubic centimeter is close to:
The density of nickel: 8.9 g/cm3
The density of thallium oxide: 9.69 g/cm3
A.
B.
C.
D.

35 x 1012
45 x 1012
55 x 1012
75 x 1012

QUESTION 36.
A cemented carbide cutting tool used for machining contains 75 wt% tungsten carbide (WC), 15
wt% titanium carbide (TiC), 5 wt% tantalum carbide (TaC) and 5 wt% of cobalt. The density of
the composite (g/cm3) is close to:
Density of WC: 15.77 g/cm3
Density of TaC: 14.5 g/cm3
Density of TiC: 4.94 g/cm3
Density of Co: 8.90 g/cm3
A.
B.
C.
D.

9.50
11.50
13.50
15.50

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

421

QUESTION 37.
A silver-tungsten composite for an electrical contact is produced by first making a porous
tungsten powder metallurgy compact, then infiltrating pure silver into the pores. The density of
the tungsten compact before infiltration is 14.5 g/cm3. The weight percent of silver in the
compact after infiltration is nearly:
Density of tungsten: 19.3 g/cm3
Density of silver: 10.49 g/cm3
Fraction of pores: 0.25
A.
B.
C.
D.

10.3
12.3
15.3
18.3

QUESTION 38.
A clay-filled polyethylene composite suitable for injection molding of inexpensive components
is designed. The final part must have a tensile strength of at least 3000 psi and a modulus of
elasticity of at least 80,000 psi. The density of polyethylene is 0.95 g/cm3and that of clay is 2.4
g/cm3. The composite density (g/cm3) assuming the fraction of clay is 0.35 is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.45
0.90
1.45
2.45

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

422

QUESTION 39
Boron coated with SiC reinforced aluminum containing 40 vol% fibers is an important hightemperature, lightweight composite material. The modulus of elasticity (psi) of the composite
material is close to:
Material

Density
g/cm3

Fibers
Aluminum

2.36
2.70

A.
B.
C.
D.

Modulus of Elasticity
psi
55,000,000
10,000,000

Tensile strength
psi
400,000
5,000

4190
0.149 x 106
1.49 x 106
14.9 x 106

QUESTION 40.
The half-life of an element is 4.3 days. The time (days) required to reduce the original amount to
1% is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
12
19
29

QUESTION 41
A green wood has a density of 0.86 g/cm3 and contains 175% water. The density (g/cm3) of the
wood after it has completely dried:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.113
0.313
0.413
0.513

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

423

QUESTION 42.
The minimum water-cement ratio required for workability is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1
0.2
0.3
0.4

QUESTION 43.
The workability of a concrete structure can be measured by:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Slump test
Water test
Air-entrapment test
Aggregate test

QUESTION 44.
Calculate the total volume (ft3/sack) of concrete in 5 cubic yards of concrete bag, assuming that
we want to obtain a water/cement ratio of 0.4 (by weight) and that the cement/sand/aggregate
ratio is 1:2.5:4 (by weight). A normal aggregate will be used, containing 1% water, and the
sand contains 4% water. Assume that no air is entrained into the mixture.
Each sack of cement contains: 94 lbs
Density of cement: 190 lb/ft3
Density of sand: 160 lb/ft3
Density of gravel: 170 lb/ft3
Density of water: 62.4 lb/ft3
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.4
3.2
4.8
5.6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

424

QUESTION 45.
A count of 16 grains per square inch in a photomicrograph was taken at magnification x250. The
ASTM grain size number is:
A. 7.64
B. 8.92
C. 10.69
D. 12.45

QUESTION 46.
The electrical conductivity (ohm-1cm-1) of pure copper at -100 C is:
Conductivity of pure copper: 6.98 x 10 ohm-1cm-1
Resistivity at 25C: 1.67 x 10-6 ohm.cm
Temperature resistivity coefficient: 0.0068 ohm.cm/C
A.
B.
C.
D.

20 x 105
40 x 105
60 x105
80 x 105

QUESTION 47.
The amount of heat that must be supplied to 250 g of tungsten to raise its temperature from 25 C
to 650 C:
Specific heat of tungsten: 0.032 cal/(g.K)
A.
B.
C.
D.

1,500
2,000
3,500
5,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

425

QUESTION 48.
The temperature of 50 g of niobium (atomic weight: 92.91 g/mol) increases 75 C when heated
for a period. The heat in calories required is nearly:
The heat capacity of niobium: 6 cal/(mol.C)
A.
B.
C.
D.

120
180
240
480

QUESTION 49.
The dimensions (cm x cm x cm) of a pattern that will be used to produce a rectangular shaped
aluminum casting having dimensions at 25C of 25 cm x 25 cm x 3 cm are:
Linear coefficient of thermal expansion for aluminum: 25 x 10-6 1/C
Aluminum solidification temperature: 660 C
A.
B.
C.
D.

25.1 x 25. 1 x 3.20


25.4 x 25.4 x 3.05
25.4 x 25.4 x 3.12
25.4 x 20.4 x 3.05

QUESTION 50.
The chemical compound known as rust is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

FeO
FeO3
Fe(OH)3
Fe2O3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

426

QUESTION 51.
1 gram of Cu2+ is dissolved in 1000 g of water to produce an electrolyte. The electrode potential
(V) of the copper half-cell in this electrolyte is close to:
Atomic weight of copper: 63.54 g/mol
Standard potential: + 0.34V
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.15
0.30
0.45
0.60

QUESTION 52
A cold drawn steel wire is formed into a nail by additional deformation, producing the point at
one end and the head at the other. The corrosion of the nail will occur at:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Head and point


Shank
Throughout the nail
Head

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

427

QUESTION 53.
The time (years) required for a 0.1 cm nickel sheet to oxidize completely is:
k for nickel: 3.9 x 10-12 cm2/s
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
15
20
25

QUESTION 54.
Austenite and martensite are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Equilibrium solutions of carbon and iron


An equilibrium solution and a non-equilibrium solution, respectively of C and Fe
A non-equilibrium solution and an equilibrium solution of C and Fe
Both non-equilibrium solutions of C and Fe

QUESTION 55.
The average molecular mass of polyvinylchloride molecules is 50,000 g. The number of mers
present are:
Molecular weight = 62 g/mol
A. 200
B. 400
C. 600
D. 800

QUESTION 56.
The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as:
A. Elastic range
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Scant modulus
D. Irreversible range
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

428

QUESTION 57.
All of the following procedures may reduce corrosion, except:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Avoidance of bimetallic contacts


Sacrificial anodes
Aeration of feed water
Impressed voltages

QUESTION 58.
All of the following metals will corrode if immersed in fresh water, except:
A. Copper
B. Magnesium
C. Nickel
D. Aluminum

QUESTION 59.
The movement of defects through a crystal by diffusion is described by:
A. Boyles law
B. Ficks law
C. Daltons law
D. Gibbs law

QUESTION 60.
The process of annealing can be used to achieve all of the following, except:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Stress relief
Recrystallization
Grain growth
Toughness

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

429

QUESTION 61.
A cylindrical test specimen with a 15 mm diameter is tested axially in tension. A 0.20 mm
elongation is recorded in a length of 200 mm when the load on the specimen is 36 kN. The
material behaves elastically during testing. The material of the specimen sample is:
A. Aluminum
B. Magnesium
C. Polystyrene
D. Steel

QUESTION 62.
The number of atoms in a hexagonal close-packed cell is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
4
6
8

QUESTION 63.
The ratio of stress-strain below the proportionality limit is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Modulus of rigidity
Hookes constant
Poissons ratio
Youngs modulus

QUESTION 64.
What does the Charpy test determine?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Endurance
Yield strength
Ductility
Toughness

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

430

QUESTION 65.
The material property that depends only on the basic crystal structure is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Elastic constant
Fatigue strength
Work hardening
Fracture strength

QUESTION 66.
The crystal structure of austenite is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Body centered cubic


Face centered cubic
Hexagonal closed packed
Body centered tetragonal

QUESTION 67.
The operation in which oil is permeated into the pores of a powder metallurgy product is known
as:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mixing
Sintering
Impregnation
Infiltration

QUESTION 68.
The effective number of lattice points in the unit cell of simple cubic, body centered cubic and
face centered cubic space lattices, respectively, are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1,2,2
1,2,4
2,3,4
2,4,4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

431

QUESTION 69.
The entrained air in concrete:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Increases workability
Decreases workability
Increases strength
None of the above

QUESTION 70.
After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Shrinks
Expands
Remain unchanged
None of the above

QUESTION 71.
Workability of concrete can be improved by the addition of:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Iron
Sodium
Zinc
Sulfur

QUESTION 72.
Workability of concrete can be improved by:
A.
B.
C.
D.

More sand
More cement
More fine aggregate
Fineness of coarse aggregate

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

432

QUESTION 73.
Workability of concrete can be improved by:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Increasing size of aggregate


Decreasing aggregate
Increasing fine aggregate
Increasing flaky aggregate

QUESTION 74.
Workability of concrete is inversely proportional to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Water cement ratio


Size of aggregate
Time of transit
None of the above

QUESTION 75.
Strength of concrete is directly proportional to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cement water ratio


Water cement ratio
Water aggregate ratio
Sand cement ratio

QUESTION 76.
Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ration is determined by:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Slump test
Tensile strength test
Compaction factor test
Flexural strength test

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

433

QUESTION 77.
Minimum water-cement ratio required for full hydration of cement is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.18
0.36
0.54
0.60

QUESTION 78
Presence of entrained air in the cement results in:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Reduced bleeding
Lower density
Decreased strength at all ages
All of the above

QUESTION 79.
For a satisfactory workable concrete with a constant W/C ratio, increase in aggregate-cement
ratio:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Increases strength of concrete


Decreases strength of concrete
No effect on strength of concrete
None of the above

QUESTION 80.
Three main raw materials used in Portland cement are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Limestone, sandstone, clay


Lime, silica and clay
Lime, clay and gypsum
Silica, aluminum and gypsum

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

434

QUESTION 81.
When water is added to cement:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Heat is generated
Heat is absorbed
Chemical reaction is started
Impurities are washed out

QUESTION 82.
Cement is useless if it absorbs moisture in excess (%) of:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
4
5

QUESTION 83.
If air is entrained in cement concrete:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Workability is decreased
Workability is increased
Strength is increased
permeability is increased

QUESTION 84.
Superplasticizer in cement is added to:
A. Increase extreme workability
B. Reduce amount of water required
C. Increase bonding properties
D. All of the above
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

435

QUESTION 85.
Strength of cement concrete decreases:
A. If W/C is less than 0.38
B. If W/C ratio is less than 0.60
C. With entrapped air
D. If cement is increased

QUESTION 86.
The lower water cement ratio in concrete introduces:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Smaller creep and shrinkage


Greater density and smaller permeability
Improved frost resistance
All of the above

QUESTION 87.
Water cement ratio is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Density of water to that of cement


Weight of water to that of cement
Weight of concrete to that of water
Volume of concrete to that of water

QUESTION 88.
Placing of concrete should preferably be done at a temperature (C) of:
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 27
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

436

QUESTION 89.
The factor (s) which affects workability is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Water content and its temperature


Shape and size of the aggregate
Air entraining agents
All of the above

QUESTION 90.
Workability of concrete for given water content is good if the aggregates, are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Rounded aggregate
Irregular aggregate
Angular aggregate
Flaky aggregates

QUESTION 91.
If the average compressive strength is 4,000 kg/cm2 and standard deviation is 500, the coefficient
of variation (%) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10.5
12.5
15.5
18.5

QUESTION 92.
Portland cement is manufactured from:
A. Limestone and clay
B. Gypsum and clay
C. Sand, clay and limestone
D. Lime, pozzolana and clay

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

437

SOLUTIONS
QUESTION 1
Number of silver atoms:

100 6.023 1023


= 5.58 1023

107.868

QUESTION 2
Volume of each iron magnetic particle:
4
(1.5107 ) = 1.4137 1020 3
3
Mass of each iron particle:

7.8 3 1.4137 1020 3 = 1.102 1019

One mole or 56 g of iron contains, 6.023 1023 , therefore


The number of atoms in one nano particle is:
1.102 1019

6.023 1023
= 1186
56

QUESTION 3
The valance electron of silver is one, and only one electron is expected to conduct the electricity.
Mass of silver:

103 10.49 3 = 104.9

Number of atoms:

104.9 6.023 1023


= 5.85 1023

107.868

Number of valance electron:



5.85 1023 1
= 5.85 1023

QUESTION 4
The diffusion coefficient is given by:
= 0 /
1.6108
2
= 7 106 8314 848 = 9.75 1016

QUESTION 5
From Hooks law:
30,000
= =
= 0.0003

10106
0
= 0 + 0
0
50 + 0.000350 = 50.15

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

438

QUESTION 6
% =

0
100
0

2.195 2.000
100 = 9.75%
2.000
0
% =
100
0

2
2
4 (0.505) 4 (0.398) 100 = 37.9%

2
4 (0.505)
QUESTION 8
=
80,000 = (1.12)(45,000)
= 0.80
QUESTION 9
The critical crack size (ac), using the fracture toughness and the maximum stress is:
=
80 = (1)(500)
= 0.0081 8.1
QUESTION 13
At 1300C, P = 1 since only one phase (liquid) is present; C =2 since both copper and nickel
atoms are present. Therefore,
1+ =+
1 + 2 = + 1 = 2
QUESTIO 14
At 1250C, two phases are present. The tie line drawn at this temperature shows that the liquid
contains 32% Ni and the solid contains 45% Ni.
QUESTION 15
Using the Lever rule:
(% ) (% )
(% ) (% )
40 32
= 0.62
45 32
If we convert mass fraction to mass percent, the alloy at 1250C contains, 62% and 38% L
=

QUESTION 16
At 1270C,
40 37
100 = 23%
50 37
50 40
% =
100 = 77%
50 37

% =

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

439

QUESTION 17
Moles of Zn:
=

40
= 0.612
65.3

Moles of Cu:
=

60

= 0.944
63.456

Total moles: 0.612 + 0.944 = 1.556


Mole fraction of Zn:
0.612
= 0.39 39%
0.944
QUESTION 18
97.5 61.9
% ( 19%) =
100 = 45.35%
97.5 19
61.9 19.0
% ( 97.5%) =
= 54.65%
97.5 19.0
QUESTION 25
From the reaction, one mole of BaCO3 reacts with one mole of TiO2 to form one mole of BaTiO3
and one mole of CO2.
Molecular weights:
BaCO3 = 197 g/mol
TiO2 = 80 g/mol
BaTiO3 = 233 g/mol
CO2 = 44 g/mol
Since 233 g of BaTiO3 is produced using 197 g of BaCO3, for 1000 kg of BaTiO3, we need 845.5
kg of BaCO3. Similarly, 233g of BaTiO3 is produced using 80 g of TiO2, for 1000 kg of BaTiO3,
343.3 kg of TiO2 is needed.
QUESTION 26
The porosity:

100

385 360
100 = 15. %%
385 224
QUESTION 28
For 100% efficiency, we need one molecule of benzyl peroxide for each polyethylene chain. One
of the free radicals would initiate one chain, the other free radical a second chain then the two
chains combine into one larger one. The Molecular Weight of ethylene = 28 g/mol.
The degree of polymerization:

200,000
= 7143

28

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

440

1000 6.02 1023

= 215 1023

28

QUESTION 29
The molecular weight of repeat unit is the sum of the molecular weights of two monomers,
minus that of two water molecules that are generated.

= 16 + 146 2(18) = 226

Degree of polymerization:
120,000
=
= 531
226
QUESTION 30
Number of chains Mean M per chain (Mi)
4000
2500
8000
7500
7000
12,500
2000
17,500
=21,000

xi
0.191
0.381
0.333
0.095

xiMi
477.5
2857.5
4162.5
16625
=9160

Note: xi =2500/21,000 = 0.191


QUESTION 35
The volume fraction:
2 =

2
9.69

= 0.0184
2
98
+
9.69 8.9
Therefore, there is 0.0184 cm3 of ThO2 per cm3 of composite. The volume of each ThO2 sphere
is:
4
4
= 3 = (0.5 105 )3 = 0.52 1015 3
3
3
Concentration of ThO2 particles:
0.0184

=
= 35.4 1012
15
3
0.52 10

3
QUESTION 36
Convert weight percentage to volume fractions
75/15.77
=
= 0.547
75
15
5
5
+ 4.94 +
+ 8.9
15.77
14.5
= 0.349
= 0.040
= 0.064
From the rule of mixtures, the density of the composite:
= ( ) = (0.547)(15.77) + (0.349)(4.94) + (0.040)(14.5) + (0.064)(8.9)

= 11.50 3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

441

QUESTION 37
From the rule of mixtures,
= +
14.5 = (19.3) + (0)
= 0.75; = 1 0.75 = 0.25
After infiltration, the volume fraction of silver equals the volume fraction of pores
= = 0.25
0.25 10.49
% =
= 15.3%
(0.25)(10.49) + (0.75)(19.3)
QUESTION 38
The composite density:

= (0.35)(2.4) + (1 0.35)(0.95) = 1.4575 3

QUESTION 39
The modulus of elasticity perpendicular to the fibers:
1
0.6
0.4
=
+
= 0.06727 106
6
6

10 10
55 10
= 14.9 106
QUESTION 40
0.693
0.693
1/2 =
=
= 0.1733 1

4.3

=
0
0.1733
1

=
= 29
100
QUESTION 41
A 100-cm3 sample of wood would weight 86g

% =
100 = 175

100
=
275
100 86
=
= 31.3
275
Density of wood:
31.3

= 0.313 3
3
100

QUESTION 44
For each sack of cement we use the volume of materials required as:
94
= = 0.495 3

190 3

2.5 94
=
= 1.469 3

160 3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

442

4 94
= 2.212 3

170 3

0.4 94
=
= 0.603 3

62.4 3

Total volume of concrete = 4.779 ft3/sack of cement.


QUESTION 45
If we count 16 grains per square inch at magnification x 250 then at magnification x 100 must
have:
250 2

=(
) 16 = 100
= 21
100
2
log(100) = ( 1) log 2
= 7.64
QUESTION 46
At -100C
= (1.67 106 )(1 + 0.0068(100 25)) = 0.251 106 .
1
1
= =
= 39.5 105 (. )1
0.251 106
QUESTION 47
Heat required:
=

= 0.032
250 (650 25) = 5000

QUESTION 48
6

=
= 0.0646
92.91

The total heat required is:

= 0.0646
50 75 = 242

QUESTION 49
The change in any dimension is given by:
= 0 = 0
For the 25 cm dimension, lf = 25 cm
0 25 = (25 106 )(0 )(635) 0 = 25.40
For 3-cm dimension:
0 3 = (25 106 )(0 )(635) 0 = 3.05
If we design the pattern to the dimension 25.40 cm x 25.40 cm x 3.05 cm, the casting should
contract to the required dimensions
=

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

443

QUESTION 51
The concentration of copper when 1 g is added:
1
=
= 0.0157
63.54
From the Nersts equation, n =2, E0 = +0.34C
0.0592
= 0 +
log( )

0.0592
= 0.34 +
log(0.0157) = 0.29
2
QUESTION 53
Assuming that the sheet oxidizes from both sides:
=
= 3.9 1012

2
()

0.1
= 0.05
2
(0.05)2
=
= 20.3
2
12
3.910

QUESTION 55
The number of mers:
50,000
= 800
62 /
QUESTION 61
Stress:

Strain:

36
=
= 203.7
2

(0.015)
4
=

0.02
=
= 0.001
200

Modulus of elasticity:
203.7
=
= 203

0.0001
From the tables, we can find that the material is steel.
=

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

444

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

445

Fluid Mechanics
Total Questions 9-14
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.

Fluid properties
Fluid statics
Energy, impulse, and momentum
Internal flow
External flow
Incompressible flow
Compressible flow
Power and efficiency
Performance curves
Scaling laws for fans, pumps, and compressors

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

446

QUESTION 1.
A vessel is initially connected to a reservoir open to the atmosphere. The connecting valve is
closed and a vacuum of 65.6 kPa is applied to the vessel. The absolute pressure (kPa) in the
vessel is nearly:
Assume standard atmospheric pressure
A. 36
B. 66
C. 86
D. 110

QUESTION 2.
The height (m) of the capillary rise for the following conditions is:
Surface tension: 0.073 N/m
Contact angle: zero
Diameter of the capillary: 0.1mm
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.02
0.13
0.30
0.45

QUESTION 3.
100 g of water is mixed 150 g of fluid (density = 790 kg/m3). The specific gravity of the mixture
assuming complete mixing is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.63
0.82
0.92
0.99

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

447

QUESTION 4.
The film width in a surface tension (0.52 N/m) experiment is 10 cm. The maximum force (N)
that can be applied is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.052
0.104
0.208
0.412

QUESTION 5.
Oil with a specific gravity of 0.72 is used as the indicating fluid in a manometer. The difference
in oil levels (m) if the differential pressure is 7 kPa is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.23
0.46
0.86
1.00

QUESTION 6.
A pressure of 35 kPa is measured 4 m below the surface of an unknown liquid. The specific
gravity is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.09
0.89
1.00
1.25

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

448

QUESTION 7.
The absolute pressure (MPa) at a depth of 3000 m of sea, if the SG of sea water is 1.15 is close
to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

21
34
42
59

QUESTION 8.
The height (m) of a mercury column equal to a pressure of 700 kPa is close to:
Density of mercury: 13,500 kg/m3
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.6
3.4
5.3
6.9

QUESTION 9.
A fluid with a vapor pressure (VP) of 0.2 Pa and a SG of 1.2 is used in a manometer. If the fluid
column length is 1 m, the atmospheric pressure is close to:
A. 9.8
B. 75
C. 98
D. 118

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

449

QUESTION 10.
The resultant force (kN) on one side of a 25 cm diameter vertical plate standing at the bottom of
a 3 m pool of water is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.38
1.63
1.90
2.76

QUESTION 11.
The mass flow rate (kg/s) of a liquid (density = 0.690 g/cm3) flowing through a 5-cm diameter
pipe at 8.3 m/s is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

11
22
69
96

QUESTION 12.
Water flows through a horizontal pipe at an entrance velocity of 3.0 m/s and exits at 2.1 m/s.
Neglecting frictional losses, the pressure difference (kPa) between these two points is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.23
2.33
4.65
9.24

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

450

QUESTION 13.
The headloss (m) for water passing through a horizontal pipe, if the gage pressure at the entrance
is 1.03 kPa and at the exit is 1.00 kPa, assuming the velocity is constant is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.1 x 10-3
3.1 x 10-3
2.3 x 10-2
3.2 x 10-2

QUESTION 14.
The Reynolds number for the following data is:
Temperature: 40C
Diameter: 47 mm
Kinematic viscosity: 6.58 x 10-7 m2/s
Velocity: 1.5m/s
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.02 x 103
1.02 x 104
1.02 x 105
1.02 x 106

QUESTION 15.
The pump power (kW) required to pump water flowing at 10m3/s with 5m head at 70%
efficiency is nearly:

A. 70
B. 350
C. 700
D. 960

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

451

QUESTION 16.
The velocity of water in a stream using a pitot tube is 1.2 m/s. The height (cm) of water in the
pitot tube is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

3.7
4.6
7.3
9.2

QUESTION 17.
A pitot tube measured the flow of a fluid (density = 926 kg/m3) to be 2 m/s with a stagnation
pressure of 14.1kPa. The static pressure (kPa) of the fluid when the measurement was taken is
close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10.4
11.7
12.2
13.5

QUESTION 18.
A sharp edged orifice with a 50-mm diameter opening in the vertical side of a large tank
discharges water under a head of 5m. If the coefficient of contraction is 0.62 and the coefficient
of velocity is 0.98, the discharge (m3/s) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.003
0.006
0.008
0.012

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

452

QUESTION 19
A 2 m tall, 0.5 m diameter tank is filled with water. A 10 cm hole is opened at 0.75 m from the
bottom of the tank. The velocity (m/s) of exiting water is nearly:
Assume the contraction is equal to 1.
A.
B.
C.
D.

4.75
4.85
4.95
5.25

QUESTION 20.
The hydraulic diameter of a rectangular conduit 0.6m wide and 0.3m high is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1
0.2
0.3
0.4

QUESTION 21.
A manometer containing mercury is connected to the pitot tube indicates a height of 150 mm. If
the specific weight of mercury is 133,400 N/m3, the velocity of water (m/s) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
4
6
8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

453

QUESTION 22.
The pressure (kPa) at a depth of 100 m in fresh water is close to:
A. 9.81
B. 98.1
C. 981
D. 1980

QUESTION 23.
An open-topped cylindrical water tank has a horizontal circular base of 3m diameter. If the water
is filled to a height of 2.5 m, the force (N) on the base is close to:
A. 17,000
B. 172,000
C. 510,000
D. 680,000

QUESTION 24.
A floating cylinder 8 cm in diameter and weighing 9.32 N is placed in a cylindrical container that
is 20 cm in diameter which is partially filled with water. The increase in depth of water (cm)
when the float is placed in it is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
3
5
10
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

454

QUESTION 25.
The velocity of dwater (m/s) in a pipe of 1 cm diameter, if the flow is 10L/min is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.13
21.3
44.4
82.6

QUESTION 26.
The energy data for water flowing at two sections across the pipe is given below:
_______________________________________________
Section A
Section B
_______________________________________________
Potential energy
20
40
Kinetic energy
15
15
Flow energy
100
75
Total
135
130
_______________________________________________
The headloss (m) in the pipe is:
A.
0
B.
5
C. 130
D. 265

QUESTION 27.
The power (kW) required to pump water at 400 L/min from a reservoir to a tank 120 m high is
close to:
A. 4
B. 8
C. 15
D. 30

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

455

QUESTION 28.
The head corresponding to a fluid velocity of 10m/s is nearly:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 25

QUESTION 29.
The theoretical velocity (m/s) generated by a 10m hydraulic head is:
A. 3
B. 9
C. 14
D. 18

QUESTION 30.
A stream of fluid flowing at 30 kg/s and a velocity of 6m/s to the right has its direction reversed
180o in a U fitting. The force (N) exerted by the fluid on the fitting is nearest to:
A. 90
B. 180
C. 270
D. 360

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

456

QUESTION 31.
The thrust (N) exerted by an aircraft jet engine on takeoff for each 1 kg/s of exhaust products
whose velocity has been increased from 0 to 150 m/s, is close to:
A.
0
B. 15
C. 75
D. 150

QUESTION 32.
A 60-cm diameter pipe carries a flow of 0.1m3/s. At point A the elevation is 50 meters and the
pressure is 200 kPa. At point B downstream from A, the elevation is 40 meters and the pressure
is 230 kPa. The headloss between the two points A and B is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.92
6.94
9.87
14.7

QUESTION 33.
A rectangular tank has dimensions of 3m long by 1m wide and 2m high. The tank is filled with
water to the top, which is open to the atmosphere. The force (N) on the 1-m side is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
20
30
40

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

457

QUESTION 34.
The water flow rate in a 15-cm diameter pipe is measured with a differential pressure gage
connected with a static pressure tap in the pipe wall and a pitot tube located in the pipe
centerline. If the differential pressure is 7 kPa, the flow rate is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.005
0.066
0.50
0.65

QUESTION 35.
A 0.5 m x 0.2 m flat plate is towed at 5 m/s on a 2-mm thick layer of SAE-30 oil (viscosity =
0.1) at 38C that separates it from a flat surface. The velocity distribution between the plate and
the surface is assumed to be linear. The force (N) required if the plate and the surface are
horizontal is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

150
200
225
250

QUESTION 36.
A car tire is pressurized in Ohio to 250 kPa when the temperature is -15C. The car is driven to
Arizona where the temperature of the tire on the asphalt reaches 65C. The gage pressure in the
tire in Arizona assuming no air has leaked out and the column remains constant is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

475
525
575
750

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

458

QUESTION 37.
A pressure of 230 kPa when converted to inches of mercury is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

13
26
52
68

QUESTION 38.
A river flowing through a campus (20C) appears quite placid. A leaf floats by and the average
velocity to be about 0.2 m/s. The depth is 0.6m. The Reynolds number is close to:
A. 10,000
B. 50,000
C. 100,000
D. 120,000

QUESTION 39.
A flow of 20C water in an 8-mm diameter pipe is desired. A 2L container used to catch the
water, which was filled in 82 s. The Reynolds number is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1000
4000
6000
8000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

459

QUESTION 40.
A nozzle on a hose accelerates water from a 4-cm diameter to 1-cm diameter. If the pressure is
400 kPa upstream of the nozzle, the maximum velocity (m/s) exiting the nozzle is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
15
25
35

QUESTION 41.
Water flows in a 6-cm diameter with a flow rate of 0.02m3/s. The pipe is reduced in diameter to
2.8 cm. The mass flux (kg/s) is nearly:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

QUESTION 42.
Water flows from a reservoir with elevation 30m out of a 5-cm diameter pipe that has 2-cm
diameter nozzle attached to the end. The loss coefficient for the entire pipe is given as K =1.2,
the velocity through the pipe is:
Assume the nozzle is at an elevation of 10m.
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
20
40
60

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

460

QUESTION 43.
A farmer decides to dam up the creek next to their cabin and estimates that a head of 4m can be
established above the exit to a turbine. The creek is estimated to have a flow rate of 0.8m3/s.
What is the maximum power output (kW) of the turbine assuming no losses and a velocity at the
turbine exit of 3.6 m/s is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

16
26
44
85

QUESTION 44.
Air at 40C and 250 kPa is flowing in a 32-cm diameter pipe at 10 m/s. The pipe changes to 20cm
and the density of the air changes to 3.5 kg/m3. The velocity in the smaller diameter pipe is
nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

28.5
32.7
45.6
81.3

QUESTION 45.
A dam is proposed on a remote stream that measures approximately 25 cm deep by 350-cm wide
with an average velocity of 2.2 m/s. If the dam can be constructed so that the free subsurface
above a turbine is 10m, the maximum power output (kW) of an 88 percent efficient turbine is
close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
170
210
330

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

461

QUESTION 46.
A clever design of the front of a ship is to be tested in a water basin. A drag of 12.2 KN
measured on the 1:20 scale model when towed at a speed of 3.6 m/s. The corresponding drag (N)
that can be expected is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

41,000
43,000
45,000
54,000

QUESTION 47.
A pressure drop of 500 kPa is measured over 200 m of horizontal length of 8-cm diameter cast
iron pipe transporting water at 20C. The flow rate (m3/s) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.015
0.020
0.035
0.055

QUESTION 48.
Water at 20C is flowing in a 2m wide rectangular, brick channel (n = 0.016) at a depth of 120
cm. The slope is 0.0012. The flow rate (m3/s) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.5
2.5
3.5
4.5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

462

QUESTION 49.
Water at 15C is transported in a 6-cm diameter wrought iron pipe at a flow rate of 0.004m3/s.
The pressure drop (kPa) over 300m of horizontal pipe is nearly:
A. 55
B. 113
C. 143
D. 245

QUESTION 50.
A trapezoidal channel with bottom width of 3m and side slope of 1V:1:5H carries a discharge of
8.0m3/s with the flow depth of l.5m. The Froude number of the flow is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.089
0.112
0.264
0.316

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

463

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
A venturi meter (Cv = 0.98) is to be installed in a Sch.40 4-in pipe (ID = 10.22cm) to measure the
flow of water. The maximum flow rate expected is 1,400L/min at a temperature of 20C. A
vertical manometer with a useful length of 100 cm, filled with mercury (sp.gr. = 13.6) is
available to measure the pressure drop across the venturi. The leads to the manometer are filled
with water. If the ratio of the throat area to the pipe flow area is small, the required throat
diameter (cm) of the venturi for the maximum flow is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

8.2
7.7
5.2
4.4

QUESTION 2.
A 12-in diameter concrete sanitary sewer (n=0.013, constant with depth) flows half-full and is
constructed on a grade of 0.5%. The flow velocity (ft/s) in this sewer is most nearly:
A. 1.6
B. 2.0
C. 3.2
D. 32.4

QUESTION 3.
Two tanks are connected by a 500-ft length of 1-in. ID PVC pipe. The appropriate value for the
Hazen-Williams coefficient is 150. Water at 60F is flowing through the pipe at a velocity of
10ft/s. The tanks are open to the atmosphere. Entrance, exit and minor losses are negligible. The
difference in water surface elevation (ft) between the two tanks is most nearly:
A. 81
B. 167
C. 182
D. 447

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

464

QUESTION 4.
Waste activated sludge can be described as a Newtonian fluid with a kinematic viscosity of 20 x
10-5 ft2/s. At the same temperature, the kinematic viscosity of water is 10-5 ft2/s. The relative
roughness of the piping system is 0.001. The pressure drop for flow of water at a Reynolds
number of 107 in this piping system was determined to be 1.0psi. If the waste activated sludge
flows at the same velocity through the piping system, the pressure drop (psi) is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.0
2.0
3.0
4.0

QUESTION 5.
The Reynolds number for water flowing (170 oC) at 1.5m/s inside 3-m long tubes with an ID of
2.5 cm is most nearly:
A. 53,000
B. 106,000
C. 212,000
D. 424,000

QUESTION 6.
An 18-in diameter pipe in a potable water distribution system with a Hazen-Williams coefficient
(C) equal to 120 is flowing at 8cfs. The pressure drop (psi) in a 1,000-ft length of pipe is most
nearly:
A. 0.84
B. 1.89
C. 4.27
D. 10.06

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

465

QUESTION 7.
A sanitary sewer has the following characteristics:
Mannings roughness coefficient (n) = 0.014
Slope (s) = 0.5%
Diameter = 1m
The discharge (m3/s) when the sewer is flowing full is most nearly:
A. 1.6
B. 2.3
C. 2.5
D. 15.7

QUESTION 8.
Two open tanks are connected by a single pipe. The water surface elevations of the upstream and
downstream tank are 103.0 ft and 101.o ft, respectively. The pipe is 60 ft long and 6 inches in
diameter. The Darcy friction factor (f) is 0.020. The pipes are connected to the tanks with a sharp
entrance and sharp exit. There are no other fittings. The expected flow rate in the pipe (cfs) is
most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.13
1.44
1.71
5.75

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

466

QUESTION 9.
The swale shown below has a mannings roughness coefficient of 0.02 and a slope of 0.5%. At a
flow of 30cfs, the depth (in) of water in the swale is most nearly:

A. 6
B. 9
C. 12
D. 15

QUESTION 10.
A proposed storm sewer will have a slope of 0.20%. The design flow for the line has been
determined to be 16 cfs. Assume steady, uniform flow and a Mannings roughness coefficient of
0.012 that is constant for all depths of flow. The minimum circular pipe size (in) that will
accommodate the design flow is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

30
24
18
12

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

467

QUESTION 11.
A 2,000-ft long pipeline conveys water at 70F from a reservoir with a water elevation of 100 ft to
a lower reservoir. The pipe is 12-in diameter non-riveted steel pipe with a fully open globe valve
and a closed gate valve. Both the pipe entrance and exit are square edged. Assuming a flow of
7cfs and a friction factor of 0.015, the elevation of the lower reservoir (ft) is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

47.4
52.6
56.2
84.4

Typical Loss Coefficients


Gate Valve

Globe valve
Pipe exit
Pipe entrance

Fully Open
Closed
Closed
Closed
Fully open
Square edged
Square edged

0.19
1.15
5.6
24
10
1.0
0.50

QUESTION 12.
The average velocity (fps) of a steady uniform flow in a 15-in diameter sewer line with a slope of
0.35% a depth of 3in and a Mannings roughness coefficient of 0.012 is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.4
2.1
3.0
6.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

468

QUESTION 13.
A long concrete-lined drainage channel has a slope of 0.001ft/ft, a bottom width of 10 ft and 2:1
(H:V) side slopes. The water depth is 5ft, and the Mannings roughness coefficient is 0.012. The
Froude number for the channel is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.08
0.18
0.66
0.80

QUESTION 14.
The discharge (cfs) through a 6-inch diameter square edged orifice discharging freely is close to:
Water surface elevation of the impoundment = 220 feet
Elevation of the center of the orifice = 200 feet

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.2
4.4
6.6
9.0

QUESTION 15.
The discharge (cfs) flowing over a 60o V-notch weir if H = 4 inches is close to:
Assume C = 2.5
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.001
0.01
1.0
10.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

469

QUESTION 16.
The discharge (cfs) flowing over a rectangular broad-crested weir with a breadth 9 inches, length
4 feet and head of 1.25 feet is close to:
Assume C = 3.215
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
14
18
22

QUESTION 17.
The normal depth (feet) in a 10 foot wide concrete (n = 0.013) rectangular channel having a
gradient of 0.0150 ft/ft and carrying a flow of 400 cfs is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.05
2.15
3.22
4.85

QUESTION 18.
The discharge of a trapezoidal channel having a brick bottom and grassy sides for the following
conditions is:
Depth = 6 feet
Bottom width = 18 feet
Top width = 18 feet
Slope = 0.002
Mannings coefficient = 0.017 (for brick)
Mannings coefficient = 0.025 (for grassy sides)

A.
B.
C.
D.

250
450
760
990

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

470

QUESTION 19.
The water flow (gpm) through a venture meter with 5-1/16 inches throat diameter when measured
pressure differential is 160 inches water is nearly:
Assume C =0.95 and water temperature of 50F.

A.
B.
C.
D.

1250
1400
1750
2150

QUESTION 20.
A water treatment plant pumps its raw water from a reservoir next to the plant. The intake is 12
feet below the lake surface at elevation 588. The lake water is pumped to the plant influent at
elevation 611. Assuming the suction head loss for the pump is 10 feet and the loss of head in the
discharge line is 7 feet. The overall efficiency of the pump is 72 percent. The plant serves 44,000
people and the water consumption is 200 gallons per capita per day. The horsepower of the pump
is close to:

A. 86
B. 100
C. 134
D. 176

QUESTION 21.
Water flows in a 1000-m long pipeline of diameter 200 mm at a velocity of 5m/s. the pipeline is
new cast iron pipe with = 0.00026m. The head loss (m) in the pipe is nearly:
Assume = 1.007 x 10-6 m2/s
A. 50
B. 78
C. 135
D. 252

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

471

QUESTION 22.
A pump operating at 1800 rpm delivers 180gpm at 80 feet head. If the pump is operated at 2160
rpm, head is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

115
125
105
240

QUESTION 23.
The head loss in 1000 ft of 6-ft diameter smooth concrete pipe carrying 80 cfs of water at 80o F is
most nearly:
Assume C = 0.001 ft; f = 0.014

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.10
0.15
0.21
0.31

QUESTION 24.
A turbine is to be selected for an installation where the net head is 600 ft. and the permissible
flow is 200 cfs. Calculate the power (hp) required for 90% efficiency.

A. 10,500
B. 11,800
C. 12,500
D. 14,800

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

472

QUESTION 25.
A pressure drop of 500 kPa is measured over 200 m of a horizontal length of 8-cm diameter cast
iron pipe transporting water at 20o C. The flow rate (m3/s) is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.02
0.05
0.09
0.15

QUESTION 26.
A 1.5-cm diameter, 20-m long plastic pipe transports water from a pressurized 400-kPa tank out
a free-open end located 3 m above the water surface in the tank. There are three elbows in the
water line and a square-edged inlet from the tank. The flow rate (m3/s) is most nearly:
A. 8.8 x 10-3
B. 10.4 x 10-4
C. 15.8 x 10-4
D. 8.8 x 10-4

QUESTION 27.
Water at 15o C is transported in a 6-cm diameter wrought iron pipe at a flow rate of 0.004 m3/s.
The pressure drop (kPa) over 300 m of horizontal pipe is nearly:
A. 55
B. 115
C. 230
D. 315

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

473

QUESTION 28.
A pressure drop of 200 kPa is measured over a 400-m length of 8-cm diameter horizontal cast
iron pipe that transports water at 20o C. The flow rate (m3/s) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.0045
0.0088
0.0105
0.0210

QUESTION 29.
A cast iron pipe (L = 400 m, D = 150 mm) is carrying 0.05 m3/s of water at 15o C. The loss due
to friction (m) is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

13
18
26
34

QUESTION 30.
A cast iron pipe (L = 400 m, D = 150 mm) is carrying water at 15o C. The difference in
piezometric head is 20 m. Assume the minor loss coefficients amount to K = 2.5 and f =
0.0025. The discharge (m3/s) is close to:
A. 0.015
B. 0.025
C. 0.035
D. 0.045

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

474

QUESTION 31.
A small community is building a water storage standpipe. The community wants to maintain a
minimum system pressure of 30 psi and not exceed a maximum system pressure of 50 psi, while
providing the largest useable storage volume for the standpipe. Assume 5 psi system losses and a
10-ft tank diameter. The high water level (ft) in the standpipe and the useable storage volume
(gallons) respectively, are most nearly:

A.
B.
C.
D.

115.0; 27,000
115.0; 67,500
127.0; 27,000
127.0; 74,300

QUESTION 32.
A trapezoidal channel with bottom width of 3m and side slope of 1V:1:5H carries a discharge of
8.0 m3/ sec with the flow depth of l.5m. The Froude number of the flow is:
E.
F.
G.
H.

8.24
7.82
7.64
7.38

QUESTION 33.
A very tiny sphere is settling down in a viscous fluid at Reynolds number = 0.2. What is the
value of its drag coefficient?
A.
B.
C.
D.

320
120
80
5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

475

QUESTION 34.
What is the velocity (mm/s) of flow of oil =0.5 poise, density 800 kg/m3 through a pipe of
diameter 9 mm and 12 m long when the head lost is 0.75 m?
A.
B.
C.
D.

25
35
30
40

QUESTION 35.
A 0.20 m diameter pipe 20 km long transports oil at n flow rate of 0.01m3/s. The power (kW)
required to maintain the flow if dynamic viscosity and density of oil are 0.08P and 900 kg/ m,
respectively, will be
A.
B.
C.
D.

405
808
908
3.6

QUESTION 36.
Water flows in a 1000-m long pipeline of diameter 200 mm at a velocity of 5m/s. the pipeline is
new cast iron pipe with ks = 0.00026m. The head loss (m) in the pipe is nearly:
Assume = 1.007 x 10-6 m2/s
A. 50
B. 78
C. 135
D. 252

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

476

QUESTION 37.
The discharge (cfs) through a 6-inch diameter square edged orifice discharging freely is close to:

Water surface elevation of the impoundment = 220 feet


Elevation of the center of the orifice = 200 feet

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.2
4.4
6.6
9.0

QUESTION 38.
The discharge (cfs) flowing over a rectangular broad-crested weir with a breadth 9 inches, length
4 feet and head of 1.25 feet is close to:
Assume C = 3.215
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
14
18
22

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

477

QUESTION 39.
In the figure below, the pipe is steel with an internal diameter of 100 mm. Water is pumped
through the system; its velocity at Point C is 2.5 m/s. The pressure at Point A is atmospheric, the
gage pressure at Point B is 125 kPa, and the gage pressure at Point C is 175 kPa. The discharge
at Point D is to the atmosphere.

Viscoity = 1.0 x 10-3 N.s/m2


Kinematic viscosity = 1.0 x 10-6 m2/s
Density = 1,000 kg/m3

The pumping rate (m3/min) is most nearly:


A.
B.
C.
D.

1.02
1.18
1.50
4.71

QUESTION 40.
The pressure drop (Pa) across each elbow is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1,100
2,800
3,100
5,600

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

478

QUESTION 41.
Ideally, the work that must be supplied to the pump (J/kg) is most nearly:
A.
50
B.
125
C.
175
D. 50,000

QUESTION 42.
The centrifugal pump shown in the figure is to deliver 40 kg/s of water from a condenser
maintained at 10 kPa to a deaerating heater maintained at 200 kPa.

Preliminary design data are as follows:


Elevation head on suction, referred to pump centerline
Friction head loss in suction line
Diameter of suction line
Diameter of pump discharge line
Elevation head on discharge into heater, referred to pump
centerline
Friction head loss in discharge line, including valves
Elevation head at pump discharge, referred to pump centerline

5.0m
0.60m
15cm
10 cm
20 m
25m
0.5 m

The total head (m) at discharge of the pump is most nearly:


A.
B.
C.
D.

1.3
21
46
66

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

479

QUESTION 43
A mercury ( = 13.59water) barometer has a column height of 728.2 mm at 20C. The barometric
pressure (kPa) is close to:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

QUESTION 44.
What is the maximum discharge in L/s of glycerin at 30C and standard atmospheric pressure
from a 20 mm id (internal diameter) tube if laminar flow is maintained? ( = 0.0005 m2/s)

A. 5
B. 16
C. 21
D. 33

QUESTION 45.
A model is used in the design of a spillway for a dam. For a model-to-prototype ratio is 1:10.
What is the velocity at a point in the prototype when the velocity at the corresponding point in
the model is 1.4 m/s?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.33
2.33
3.33
4.33

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

480

QUESTION 46.
A flow meter model is1/6 the size of its prototype. The model is tested with 20C water ( = 1.006
x 10-6 m2/s) while the prototype operates at 80C ( =0.364x10-6 m2/s). For a velocity of 3.05m/s
in the 0.3m diameter throat of the prototype, what discharge (m3/s) is required in the model for
similitude?
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.001
0.01
0.1
1.0

QUESTION 47.
A pitot tube is used with a mercury manometer to measure the flow of an inviscid fluid with SG
=1 in a 4 inch diameter pipe. The flow rate (gpm) through the duct is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

250
450
650
750

QUESTION 48.
Gasoline with a specific gravity SG =0.82 flows with negligible loss through a divergent section
at a rate of 0.028 m3/s. What is the pressure (N/m2) at station 2 if the pressure at section 1 is 1.8 x
105 N/m2? The gasoline temperature is at 20C. The diameters at point 1 and 2 are 0.10 m and
0.18m, respectively.
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.0 x 105
2.0 x 105
3.0 x 105
5.0 x 105
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

481

QUESTION 49.
A centrifugal air compressor receives ambient air at 1 atm pressure and 300K. At a discharge
pressure of 4.0 atm, a temperature of 477K and a velocity of 90 m/s, what power is required to
drive the compressor for a mass flow rate of 90 kg/min?
The specific heat of air is 1012.9 J/kg.K
A.
B.
C.
D.

250
370
425
575

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

482

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

483

SOLUTIONS
QUESTION 1
For vacuum pressure:
=
101.3 65.5 = 36
QUESTION 2
The height of the capillary rise is given by:
4

4 0.073 0
=
= 0.30
1000 9.81 0.0001
=

QUESTION 3

100
150
3
+ =
+

= 289.87
1 3 0.79 3

+ (100 + 150)

=
=
= 0.862 3
3
+
289.87

0.862 3
= 0.862
=

1 3

QUESTION 4

10
= 2 0.52
= 0.1
100

Note: 2 represent the two sides of the bubble


QUESTION 5
The density of oil is:
= () = 0.72 1000

= 720 3
3

=
7000
=
= 1

720 3 9.81 2

QUESTION 6

=
= ()
35,000
= 0.89

1000 3 9.81 2 4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

484

QUESTION 7
= 0 +

101.3 + (1.15) (1000 3 ) (9.81 2 ) (3000) = 3.39 10 7 34

QUESTION 8
=

700
=
=
= 5.3

13,500 3 9.81 2

QUESTION 9
= +

0.2 + (12) (1000 3 ) (9.81 2 ) 1 = 118,000 118

QUESTION 10
The resultant force is calculated from the average pressure on the plate which is the pressure at
the plates centroid.
= 3 0.125 = 2.875
=

= 1000 3 9.81 2 2.875 = 28204

= = 28204 (0.125)2 = 1.38


QUESTION 11
The mass flow rate is given by:
=

0.690 3 (5)2 8.3 100


= 11,245 11
4
1

QUESTION 12
From Bernoullis equation:
2 22
1 12
+
+ 2 + =
+
+ 1
2
2
Since the pipe is horizontal, z1 and z2 are equal.
[12 22 ] [12 22 ]
2 1 =
= [
]
2
2
2
[32 2.12 ]
1000 3
= 2300 2.3

2
QUESTION 13
Using Bernoullis equation:
2 22
1 12
+
+ 2 =
+
+ 1
2
2
Since, z1 and z2 are equal, v1 and v2 are equal.
1 2 [1003 1000]
=
=
= 3.1 103

1000 3 9.81 2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

485

QUESTION 14

1.5 0.0447
= 1.02 105
2
7
6.58 10
2
=

QUESTION 15
The pump power is given by:

10

1000 3 9.81 2 5
=
=
= 700

0.70
QUESTION 16
The equation for pitot tube is:
2(0 )
2
=
=
= 2

2
(1.2)2
=
= 7.3
2
2 9.81 2

QUESTION 17
The equation for pitot tube is:
=

2(0 )

2
926 3 (2 )
2

= 0
= 14.1
= 12.2

2
2 1000
QUESTION 18
= 2

= (0.05)2 = 0.00196 2
4
= = 0.62 0.98 = 0.6076
= 0.6076 0.0019629.815 = 0.012

QUESTION 19
The hydraulic head at the hole is:
2 0.75 = 1.25
= 2 = 29.81 1.25 = 4.95

QUESTION 20
= 0.6 0.3 = 0.18 2
= 2[0.6 + 0.3] = 1.8

0.182
= 4
=
= 0.4

1.8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

486

QUESTION 21

133,400

1] = 29.81 0.15 [
1] = 6.09

9810

= 2[

QUESTION 22
= =
9810 100 = 981,000 981
QUESTION 23
The pressure at the base of the tank:

Force on the tank base:

= = 9810 2.5 = 24325 2

2
= (3) = 7.072
4
= = 24325

7.072 = 171,978
2

QUESTION 24
9.32
= 0.00095 3 = 950 3
9810 /3
The change in total volume beneath the water surface equals the area of the cylindrical
container A x the change in water level dh or

= ; =

950 3
=
= 3.02
2

20

4
=

QUESTION 25
=

1 3 1
3
6
= 10

= 167 10
100 60

2
6
2
= (0.01) = 78.5 10
4
3
6
167 10
= 2.13
= =
6
78.5 10 2

QUESTION 26
Applying the energy balance:
= + =
135 = 130 + 0 = 5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

487

QUESTION 27
Power required:

1 3 1
3
= 400

= 6.67 103
100 60

= 9810 6.67 103


120 = 7.85

QUESTION 28
The head is:
2 (10)2
=
=
= 5.10
2 2 9.81
QUESTION 29
2
= 2
2

= 29.8110 = 14

QUESTION 30
The impulse-momentum equation:
= [2 1 ]
If the pressure is zero at each end of the tube, then

.
[6 6] = 360
= 30
= 360

2
QUESTION 31
The impulse momentum equation is:
= [2 1 ]

[150 0] = 150
=1

QUESTION 32
Using the Bernoullis equation:
2 22
1 12
+
+ 2 + =
+
+ 1
2
2
The pipe diameter is unchanged; continuity equation requires that velocity be the same at both
points. The equation reduces to:
2
1
+ 2 + =
+ 1

[200 230]
=
+ 50 40 = 6.94
9.81
QUESTION 33
=

9.81 3 1 (12) = 19.6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

488

QUESTION 34
The equation for pitot tube is:
2
7000

=
= 29.81
= 3.74

9810

= =

3
(0.15)2 3.74 = 0.0661
4

QUESTION 35
The velocity gradient is calculated as:

50
=
= 2500

0.002
The force is the stress multiplied by the area:

= =

= 0.1 2500 0.5 2 = 250


QUESTION 36
Assuming the volume does not change:
2 2
=
1 1
423
2 = (250 + 100)
= 574
258
QUESTION 37
=
230,000 = (13.6 9800)
= 1.726

= 1.726 3.281 12 = 68

QUESTION 38
=

0.2 0.6
=
= 120,000

106

QUESTION 39

2103
=
= 0.485

(0.004)2 82
0.485 0.008 0.5
=
= 3880
106
=

QUESTION 40
The continuity equation relates the velocities as:
1 1 = 2 2
(2)2 1 = (0.5)2 2
2 = 161
Using the Bernoullis equation:
12 400,000
25612 100,000
+
+ 1 =
+
+ 2
2
1000
2
1000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

489

Solving for v1:


1 = 1.534

2 = 24.5

QUESTION 41
The mass flux is:
= = 0.02

1000 3 = 20

QUESTION 42
The energy equation is written in the form:

22
2
12
1
2
=
+ 2 +
1 +
2
2 2
1
2
Where the pressure is zero at the surface.
The velocities are related as:
2
22
4
=
2 2 2 =

25 2
22
4 2 22
0=
+ 10 30 + 1.2 ( )
2
25 2

2 = 19.5

QUESTION 43
The mass flow rate:

= = 1000 0.8 = 800

12
=
2
(3.6)2
= 800 9.81 4 800
= 26.2
2
QUESTION 44
The continuity equation
1 1 1 = 2 2 2
1 2

1 1 = 2 22 2
1 4
4
Calculating for v2:
(0.32)2 350

10
=
28.5
3.5 (0.2)2 0.287 313

QUESTION 45
The flow rate of water passing through the turbine:
3
= 0.25 3.5 2.2 = 1.925

The energy equation is applied between the surface of the reservoir behind the dam, where P1 =0,
v1 = 0; z1 = 0, z1 = 10m, v2 = 0, P2 = 0, and z2 = 0
= = 1000 1.925 9.981 10 = 189,000
The maximum turbine output is:
= 0.88 189 = 166

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

490

QUESTION 46
The Froude number guides the model study of ship, since gravity effects are more significant
than viscous effects.

=


Where, p = prototype and m = model

= = 3.6 20 = 16.1

QUESTION 47
The relative roughness (from Moodys diagram)
0.26
=
= 0.00325

80
From Moodys friction diagram: f = 0.026
The headloss is given by:
500,000
=
=
= 51

9810
The average velocity is:
2
29.810.0851

=
=
= 3.92

0.026200

The volumetric flow rate:

3
= = (0.04) 3.92 = 0.0197

QUESTION 48
The hydraulic radius is:
=

21.2
=
=
= 0.545
+ 2 2 + 21.2

Using the Mannings equation:


=
=

1 2/3 1/2

1
3
(21.2)(0.545)2/3 (0.0012)1/2 = 3.47
0.016

QUESTION 49
The average velocity and Reynolds number are:

0.004

= =
= 1.415
2
(0.03)

1.415 0.06
=
= 7.44 104
1.14 106
From Moodys diagram:
0.046
=
= 0.00077

60
The friction factor f = 0.0225
The pressure drop:

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

491

2
= =
2
300 (1.415)2
= 1000 0.0225

= 113,000 113
0.6
2
QUESTION 50
Q = 8 m3/s
1
[3 + 7.5] 1.5 = 7.8752 2
2

= =
= 1.015
7.8752

1
1.5
=
= 2.25
1.5

= 3 + 2 2.25 = 7.5
7.875
= =
= 1.05

7.5

1.05
=
=
= 0.316
9.81 1.05
=

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

492

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
For a venturi, the relationship between flow and pressure drop is given under Venturi Meters in
the Fluid Mechanics section of the FE Reference Handbook.

2 2 ( 1 + 1 2 2 )
2
1 (2 )

Where, Point 2 is at the throat of the venturi.

Assume 1 (2 ) is approximately unity.


1

Z2 = Z1

A2 = 4 22
=

4 22 2(1 2 )/
4

For a manometer measuring the pressure difference between Points 1 and Points 2, the equation
from Manometry in the Fluid mechanics section of the FE Reference Handbook can be used.
1 2 = (2 1 ) = 1 ( 1)
1 2
980.7
= (( 1) = (
) (100)(13.6 1) = 1.236 106 2 / 2

2
Solving the venturi equation for D22 gives:
22 =

4 1,400 /
(0.98)(2)(1.236 106

2
)
2

1,0003 1
)(
) = 19.3 2

60

2 = 4.4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

493

QUESTION 2.
=

1.486 2/3 1/2



0.013

Where,
=

1.0
4

= 0.25
=

2
1
1.486

(0.25)3 (0.005)2 = 3.208


0.013

From the Hydraulic-elements graph for Circular sewers in the Civil Engineering section of the
FE Supplied-Reference Handbook, the velocity in a pipe flowing half-full is the same as for a
pipe flowing full.

QUESTION 3.
Use Hazen-Williams equation.
= (1.318) 0.63 0.54
=[

]0.54
0.63
1.318

= = (500 )[

10

0.54
0.63 ]

1
12
1.318(150) ( 4 )

= 182
QUESTION 4.
2
= ( )( )
2
For the piping system and velocity, HL is proportional to f. For this case, the Reynolds number is
very large, corresponding to fully turbulent flow conditions. Referring to the Moodys Stanton
diagram in the Fluid Mechanics section of the FE Supplied-Reference Handbook, it is apparent
that f depends on the pipe roughness but not Reynolds number for e/D = 0.001, and Reynolds
number >106. Thus, f = 0.002 for both applications, and pressure drops are equal.
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

494

QUESTION 5.
The Reynolds number is found in the Fluid Mechanics section of the FE Supplied-Reference
Handbook.
=

V = 1.5 m/s
D = 2.5 x10-2 m
= 898 kg/m3
= 1.59 x 10-4 N.s/m2

1.5
( ) (2.5 102 ) (898 3 )

=
= 211,792
.

4
1.59 10 ( 2 )

QUESTION 6.
= 1 0.63 0.54
=

8
= 4.527
18 2
(
)
12
4

C = 120
K1 = 1.318 (English units)
R=

18
)
12

= 0.375
=

1000

= 1,000[
= 1,000[

0.54
]
1 0.63

1
4.527
0.54 = 4.355
]
(1.318)(120)(0.375)0.63

62.4
)
3
= 1.89
144 2 / 2

(4.355)(
= =

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

495

QUESTION 7.
=

2/3 1/2

k = 1 (metric units)
n = 0.014
2

(1)2

= 4 = 0.7852
4
1
= =
= 0.25
4
4
S = 0.5% = 0.005
A=

2
1
1
(0.785)(0.25)3 (0.005)2 = 1.573 /
0.014

QUESTION 8.
Energy equation:
1
12
2
22
+ 1 +
+ =
+ 2 +
+

2
1
2 12
22
=
;
=
= 0, = 0 ( )

2
2
2
2
=
+
2
2
Therefore,
1 2 = [

2
+ ]

Entrance k = 0.5
Exit k = 1.0
f =0.020
L = 60 ft
D = 0.5 ft
g = 32.2 ft/s2
z1 = 103.0ft
z2 = 101.0 ft

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

496

1
1 2
= [(
) 2]2

+
1
2

= [(

103.0 101.0

) 2(32.2)] = 5.75
60

(0.02) ( ) + 1.5
0.5

= = 5.75

(0.5)2

= 1.128

QUESTION 9.
The depth may be found using a trial and error method to solve Mannings equation (below) for
the depth y.
=

1.486 2/3 1/2


Where,
A = area
R = hydraulic radius
S = slope = 0.5% = 0.005
n = 0.02
= ( + )
Where,
b = the bottom width and z = 3
Since the side slopes are 3:1 (H:V)
=

( + )
+ 21 + 2

1.486
2/3 (0.005)1/2 = 30
0.02

Trial Depth (in) Depth(ft) R (ft) A (ft2) Q (cfs)


1
12
1.00
0.601 5.00
18.7
2
15
1.25
0.726 7.188
30.5
The depth is most nearly 15 inches.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

497

QUESTION 10.
Solve Mannings equation for the diameter D.
2.159 3/8
= [
]
1/2
Q = 16cfs
n = 0.012
s = 0.20% = 0.002
=[

2.159 16 0.012
1
(0.002)2

3
8

] = 2.30

12
= 27.65

QUESTION 11.
Determine the combined minor loss coefficient for the gate valve, the globe valve, the pipe
entrance and the pipe exit.
= 1.15 + 10 + 1.0 + 0.5 = 12.65
2
=
2
Where,
hL = headloss
K = minor loss coefficient
V = velocity, Q/A
g = acceleration due to gravity
Q = flow rate
A = area
2
( )
7
1
= 12.65
= 12.65 (
)2
= 15.6
2
232.2
3.10.5 232.2
Find the headloss in the pipe using Darcy-Weisbach equation.
2
=
2
2,00079.516
= 0.015
= 37
(2132.2)
Total headloss = 37 + 15.6 = 2.6
The water elevation of the lower reservoir is equal to the water elevation of the upper reservoir
minus the total headloss which is: 100 ft-52.6ft =47.4 ft

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

498

QUESTION 12.
=

1.486 2/3 1/2


Where,
n = 0.012
S = 0.35% = 0.0035 ft/ft
R = 0.151 ft (hydraulic radius)
1.486
=
(0.151)2/3 (0.0035)1/2 = 2.08
0.012

QUESTION 13.
Use Mannings equation to calculate the velocity of flow, and then calculate the Froude number.
Mannings equation:
=

1.486 2/3 1/2


By geometry of trapezoid:

1
= = ( + )
2
=

1
(10 + 30)5 = 100 2
2

= = 11.18 + 10 + 11.18 = 32.36


=

100
=
= 3.09
32.36

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

499

2
1
1.486
(3.09)3 (0.001)2 = 8.31
0.012

Hydraulic depth:
=

100 2
=
= 3.33

30

Froude number:
=

Where,
V = velocity
g = acceleration due to gravity
Dh = hydraulic depth

8.31
32.2 2 3.33

= 0.80

QUESTION 14.
The cross sectional area:
= 2 = 0.196 2
The total head is calculated as the difference between elevations:
= 220 200 = 20
The discharge:
= 2 = (0.62)(0.196 2 )2 32.2

20 = 4.4
2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

500

QUESTION 15.
The angle:
=

60
= 30
2

The discharge:
5

= () 2
5

4 2
= 2.5 (tan 30) (
) = 0.090
12

QUESTION 16.
The discharge:
3

= 2 = 3.215 4 (1.25)2 = 18

QUESTION 17.
In open channel problems, when Q is given D is found by trial and error.
From the answer choices given, please select B or C.
Select Depth = 2.15 ft (from the choics)
Hydraulic radius:
= 21.5 2
= 14.3
=
=

21.5
= 1.50
14.3

2
1
1.49
21.5 2 (1.5)3 (0.015)2 = 396
0.013

This is close to 400cfs given in the problem statement. Therefore the normal depth = 2.15 ft

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

501

QUESTION 18.
The discharge portion of flow in the rectangular section:
( ) =
=

6 12
= 6
12

2
1
1.49
72 2 (6)3 (0.002)2 = 930.75
0.017

The discharge portion in the grassy subsection of the channel:


1
= ( ) (3)(6) = 9 2
2
=

9 2
= 1.35
4

For both sides of flow:


2
1
1.49
9 2 (1.35)3 (0.002)2 ] = 58.59
0.025

= 2[

Total discharge from the channel is:


930.75 + 58.59 = 989.34

QUESTION 19.
Flow in a venture can be calculated as:
1 2 0.5
= [2
]

(0.422)2
160 62.4 0.5
= 0.95
[2 32.2
] = 3.90 1750
4
12 62.4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

502

QUESTION 20.
The discharge Q:
44,000 200 = 8.8 = 13.6
The effective head:
= (611 588) + 10 + 7 = 40
The overall horsepower:
62.4
13.6 3 40
=
=
= 85.7
550
550
0.72
.
QUESTION 21.
The headloss is computed b Darcy-Weisbach equation:
=

To determine the friction factor from Moodys diagram, the Reynolds number must be
computed:

=
=
=

200
5 1000
2
1.007 106

= 9.93 105

The relative roughness:


0.00026
=
= 0.0013

0.20
From the Moodys diagram, f = 0.021
5 2
(
1000
) = 133.8
= 0.021

200
29.81 2

1000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

503

QUESTION 22.
1
12
= 2
2
2
2160 = 1800 [

2160 2
] = 115
1800

QUESTION 23.

804

=
= 2.83
6 6

6 2.83
=
= 1.20 106
5

1.41 10

Given C = 0.001 ft;


0.001
=
= 0.00017

6
Given f = 0.014
Using head-loss equation:

2
1000 2.832
=
= 0.014
= 0.29
2
6 64.4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

504

QUESTION 24.
The turbine power can be calculated using:
=

550

Where,
P = power in hp
= Specific weight of water
Q = volumetric flow of fluid
= efficiency
With a 90% efficiency, the available power is:
=

62.4 200 600 0.9


= 12,300
550

QUESTION 25.

Step 1:
The relative roughness is:
0.25
=
= 0.00325

80
Assuming a completely turbulent flow, the friction factor from Moodys diagram is
f =0.025.

Step 2:
The head loss is:
=

500,000
=
= 51

9800

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

505

Step 3:
The average velocity is:
=

2
29.80.0851
=
= 3.92 /

0.025 200

(Note: make sure the Reynolds number is in the turbulent region)


Step 4:
The flow rate is:
Q

VA

x (0.04)2 x 3.92
0.02 m3/s

QUESTION 26.
The energy equation is applied between the tank and the faucet exit:
0=

22 12
2

2 1

+ 2 1 +

Where,
= [

+ 3 + ]

2
2

Assuming that the pipe has e/D = 0, and that Re = 2x105, so that the Moody
diagram yields f =0.016. The energy equation yields:
2
400,000
0.01620
2
0=

+3+[
+ 31.6 + 0.5]
29.8
9800
0.015
29.8
V = 5.18 m/s (By trial and error method)
The Reynolds number is then:
=

5.180.15
106

= 7.8 x104

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

506

Try f =0.018, then


2
400,000
0.01820
2
0=

+3+[
+ 31.6 + 0.5]
29.8
9800
0.015
29.8
V = 4.95 m/s (By trial and error method)
Thus the Reynolds number equals to:
=

4.95 0.15
= 7.4104
6
10

This is close enough so use V = 5.0 m/s, the flow rate is:
x 0.00752 x 5 = 8.8x10-4 m3/s

Q = VA =

QUESTION 27.

The average velocity is:


=

0.004
0.032

= 1.415 /

The Reynolds number is:


=

1.4150.06
1.14106

= 7.44x104

The value of e is found on the Moody diagram so that


0.046
=
= 0.00077

60
The friction factor is found from the Moody diagram to be: f = 0.0225
The pressure drop in the pipe is:
2
300 1.4153
= =
= 10000.0225

= 113.000
2
0.06
2
=113 kPa

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

507

QUESTION 28.
The relative roughness is:
0.26
=
= 0.00325

80
The head loss is:
=

200 000
=
= 20.41

9800

Assuming completely turbulent flow, Moodys diagram yields: f = 0.026

The average velocity in the pipe is:


2
220.410.089.81
=
=
= 1.76 /

0.026400

The Reynolds number is:


=

1.76 0.08
=
= 1.4105

106

At this Reynolds number and e/D = 0.0325, Moodys diagram provides f = 0.026,
so the friction factor does not have to be adjusted. The flow rate is then expected to
be:
Q =VA = x 0.042 x 1.76 = 0.0088 m3/s

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

508

QUESTION 29.
First determine the friction factor and the Hazen-Williams coefficient
=

0.054

=
=
2.83
0.152

= 1.141x10-6 m2/s

= 3.72 105

0.26
150

=0.00173

From Moodys diagram, f = 0.024, C=100


Using Hazen-Williams formula:
=

10.59400
0.051.85 = .
1001.85 0.154.87

QUESTION 30.
First compute the resistance coefficient:
=

[
+ ]
22

1
400
2
4
=
+ 2.5] = 1.1310 5
[0.025
29.810.150.15
0.15

4
The discharge is:
=

20
1.13104

= 0.042 m3/s

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

509

QUESTION 31.
Change the pressure from psi to ft as:
30 =

2.31
= 69.3

50 =

2.31
= 115.5

5 =

2.31
= 11.55

Maximum height = 115.5 ft + 11.55 ft = 127.05 ft


=

102
4

(115.5 69.3) = 3.628.5 3

3528.5 3 7.48

= 27,141 gal

QUESTION 32.
Area:
=

1
(3 + 7.5) 1.5 = 7.852 2
2

Velocity:

=
= 1.015
7.852

Since the ration of horizontal to vertical is 1:1.5


1
1.5
=
; = 2.25
1.5

Wetted perimeter:
= 3 + 22.25 = 7.5
Hydraulic diameter:
7.875
= 1.05
7.5
Froude number:
=

1.05
9.81 1.05

= 0.316

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

510

QUESTION 33.
For Re < 0.2,
=

24 24
=
= 120
0.2

QUESTION 34.
Given, = 0.5 poise = 0.05 Pa
=

800 0.009
=
= 144

0.05
=

64
64
=
= 0.444
144
=

2
2

0.444
2
1
0.0248

0.75 =
12

24.8

2 9.81 9103

QUESTION 35.
Velocity:
=

0.01
1
=
= /
2

4 (0.2)

Reynolds number:
1
900 0.02
=
=
= 716 < 2100

0.08
The flow is laminar.
Loss of head for laminar flow:
=

32
32 0.8(201000) 1/
=
= 4527
2

900 (0.2)2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

511

Power required to maintain the flow:


=

9000.014527
=
= 542 405
75
75

QUESTION 36.
The headloss is computed by Darcy-Weisbach equation:
=

2
2

To determine the friction factor from Moodys diagram, the Reynolds number must be
calculated.
200
5(1000)

=
=
= 9.93105

1.007106
The relative roughness is:
0.00026
=
= 0.0013

0.2
From Moodys diagram, the friction factor, f = 0.021
= 0.02

1000
52

= 133.8
200 2 9.81
1000

QUESTION 37.
The cross-sectional area:
= 2 = 0.196 2
The total head as the difference between elevations:
= 220 200 = 20
= 2 = (0.62)(0.196)232.2 20 = 4.4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

512

QUESTION 38.
= 3/2 = 3.2154(1.25)3/2 = 18

QUESTION 39.
The cross sectional area of the pipe is:

= 2 = (0.10)2 = 0.0078542
4
4
The flow rate is:
= 0.007854(2.5)(60) = 1.178 3 /
QUESTION 40.

2
1,000 (2.5)2
(0.9) = 2,812.5
=
=
2
2

QUESTION 41.
=

175 125

=
=
= 0.050
= 50

1,000

QUESTION 42.
The cross sectional area of the pipe is:
=

2
= (0.10)2 = 0.0078542
4
4

The velocity of flow in the discharge pipe is:


=

40

=
= 5.093
1000(0.007854)

The head at the discharge into the heater is:


(5.903)2

2
200,000
=
+
+ 2 =
+
+ 20 = 41.7
2
1000 (9.807) 2(9.807)
The head at the pump discharge is:
= 41.7 0.5 + 25 = 66.2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

513

QUESTION 43.
A force balance on the fluid column gives:
= = + (. )
The vapor pressure of mercury is negligible. Therefore,
=

= (9.81 2 ) (13579 3 ) = 133165 2 2

= 133165 2 2 0.728 = 96,944



. 2
QUESTION 44.
To assure laminar flow the Reynolds number should not exceed 2000. Therefore

2000
=
2000 =

2000 0.0005

= 50
20 103

And the maximum discharge is:



1000

= = 50 (0.02)2 (
) = 15.7
3
4

QUESTION 45.
Assuming geometric similarity of model and prototype, equal Froude numbers assure dynamic
similarity.

=


Since gm = gp,
=

= 1.4 10 = 4.43

QUESTION 46.
For incompressible flow, identical Reynolds numbers will assure similarity, assuming
geometrical similarity. Therefore:
=


=

1.006 106

= 6
3.05 = 50.6
6
0.364 10

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

514

This velocity results in a discharge volumetric flow rate of:



0.3 2
3
= = 50.6 ( ) = 0.1
4
6

QUESTION 47.
Assume that the flow is steady, incompressible and frictionless, making Bernoullis equation
valid:
1
12 2
22
+ 1 +
= + 2 +

2
Station 2 is a stagnation point, where the flow is completely stopped (V2 =0) and the two stations
are at the same elevation (z1=z2), therefore
12 2 1
=
2

The pressure differential can be determined by using the hydrostatic equation P=h, along the
path 1-3-4-2 through the manometer.
1 + + 0 ( + 0 ) = 2
2 1
=
0 = 0 ( 1)

0
Substituting for

2 1

1 = 20 ( 1) = 2 32.2
= =

( )(13.6 1) = 11.63
2
12

60
(4/12) 2 (11.63 ) (7.48 3 ) (
) = 455.49 /
4

min

QUESTION 48.
The volumetric flow Q is constant and
= 1 1 = 2 2
3
0.028

1 =
= 3.56 ; 2 = 1.10
2

4 (0.18)
From Bernoulli equation:
2 = 1 +

(12 22 )
2

Substituting the values gives:


2 = 1.8 105 + 820

3.562 1.102

= 1.847 105 2
3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

515

QUESTION 49.
Assume the inlet velocity so low that its effect is negligible. Take the flow as steady, assume the
process is adiabatic (no heat transfer) and neglect elevation changes. The energy equation
reduces to:
22
= 1 2
2
The corresponding rate equation is assuming a constant specific heat:
22
= [ (1 2 )
2

(90)2
= 1.5
[1012.9(300 477)
= 369

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

516

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

517

PART-III
QUESTION 1
Methane at 22C flows through a pipeline at a velocity of 416.4 m/s. The flow is:
Assume:
k = 1.32; R = 52.9
A.
B.
C.
D.

Subsonic
Supersonic
Hypersonic
None of the above

QUESTION 2
Chlorine gas at 51F flows through a pipeline. The velocity at which the flow will be sonic is:
Assume:
k = 1.34; R = 21.8
A.
B.
C.
D.

500
600
700
800

QUESTION 3
Air flows past an object at 500 fps. The stagnation temperature (F) in the standard atmosphere at
elevation of 5000 ft is:
Assume:
Cp = 6000 lb-ft/slug R
R = 1716 lb-ft/slug R
Standard temperature = 60F

A.
B.
C.
D.

-27
50
62
79

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

518

QUESTION 4
Air flows past an object at 180 m/s at an elevation of 2km. The stagnation temperature in the
standard atmosphere at the above elevation is close to:
Assume:
R = 287
Cp = 1003
Temperature at 2km = 2C
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
18
24
36

QUESTION 5
Air at 250 psia is moving at 550 fps in a high-pressure wind tunnel at a temperature of 100F. The
stagnation pressure is close to:
Assume k = 1.40
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
200
300
400

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

519

QUESTION 6
A cylinder containing 2kg nitrogen at 0.14MPa absolute and 5C compressed isentropically to
0.30 MPa abs. The final temperature (C) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

23
33
53
73

QUESTION 7
The speed of sound in dry air when temperature is -67F is close to:
Assume R = 1716
A.
B.
C.
D.

670
970
1017
1210

QUESTION 8
In an isentropic process, 1 kg of oxygen at 17C has its absolute pressure doubled. The final
temperature (C) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

24
64
84
99

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

520

QUESTION 9
A projectile moves through water at 80F at 1800 fps. The Mach number is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.167
.0254
0.367
0.555

QUESTION 10
The speed of sound through hydrogen at 75F is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2300
4300
6925
7891

QUESTION 11
The speed of sound in carbon monoxide at 200C is:
Assume R = 0.297 kJ/kg.K
A. 443
B. 520
C. 625
D. 877

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

521

QUESTION 12
Steam at 450F and 80 psia is compressed isentropically to 100 psia. The new temperature (F) is:
Assume an ideal gas with k = 1.33
A.
B.
C.
D.

200
300
400
500

QUESTION 13
An airplane flies at 360 m/s through air at -10C, and 40kPa. The airplane is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Subsonic
Supersonic
Hyper sonic
None of the above

QUESTION 14
Isentropic flow of air occurs at a section of a pipe where p = 50 psia, T = 100F and v = 540 ft/s.
An object is immersed in the flow, which brings the velocity to zero. The temperature (F) and
pressure (psia) at stagnation point are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100; 60
125; 58
100; 58
58;124

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

522

QUESTION 15
Air flows from a reservoir at 80C and 6atm. The temperature (C) at a section where M = 0.65 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

25
52
65
75

QUESTION 16
Air flows from a reservoir at 80C and 6atm. The pressure at a section where M = 0.65 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

258
358
458
678

QUESTION 17
A flow of air (Cp = 1005 J/kg.K, k = 1.40) has V = 850 m/s,p = 130kPa and T= 180C. The
pressure (kPa) and temperature (C) of the air if brought isentropically to rest are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1000; 540
540; 1000
500; 500
1000; 1000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

523

QUESTION 18
Compute the frontal stagnation temperature (C) of an airplane flying at a Mach of 2.0 at 8000 m
altitude. Assume the temperature to be 236.1K
A.
B.
C.
D.

125
150
175
200

QUESTION 19
At what Mach number a plane would fly to have a frontal stagnation temperature of 380C?
Assume the plane altitude is 800m (T = 236.1K)
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
5

QUESTION 20
Air flows adiabatically through a duct. At one section, v1 = 420 fps, T1 =210F, and p1 =35psia.
While farther downstream, v2 = 1000 fps, and p2 = 18psia. The ratio of p01/p02 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.25
0.50
0.75
1.00

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

524

QUESTION 21
Air flows isentropically from a reservoir, where p = 320 kPa and T = 490K, to section 1 in a
duct, where A1 = 0.2 m2 and v1 = 600 m/s. Compute the temperature (T1):
A.
B.
C.
D.

100K
200K
310K
420K

QUESTION 22
Air flows isentropically from a reservoir, where p = 320 kPa and T = 490K, to section 1 in a
duct, where A1 = 0.2 m2 and v1 = 600 m/s. Compute p1 (kPa)
A.
B.
C.
D.

25
45
58
65

QUESTION 23
A perfect gas at 305 kPa expands isentropically through a supersonic nozzle with an exit area 5
times its throat area. If the exit Mach number is 3.8, the specific heat ratio of the gas is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.1
1.3
1.5
1.7

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

525

QUESTION 24
A perfect gas at 305 kPa expands isentropically through a supersonic nozzle with an exit area 5
times its throat area. If the exit Mach number is 3.8, and the specific heat ratio of the gas is 1.67,
the exit pressure (kPa) of the gas is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.72
3.72
8.98
9.75

QUESTION 25
The pressure, velocity and temperature just upstream of a normal shock wave in air are 12 psia,
2300 fps and 24F. The pressure (psia) just downstream of the wave is nearly:
Assume k = 1.4 and R = 1715
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120

QUESTION 26
Consider a supersonic flow of air through a stationary duct wherein a stationary shock is present.
The Mach ahead of the shock is 2.1 and the pressure and temperature are 101.3 kPa absolute and
37C. What is the velocity (m/s) of propagation of the shock relative to the air ahead of the
shock?
A.
B.
C.
D.

371
522
741
981

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

526

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

527

SOLUTIONS
QUESTION 1
=

416.4
(1.32)(9.807)(52.9)(22 + 273)
Since NM <1.0, the flow is subsonic.
QUESTION 2
=
1.0 =

= 0.93

(1.34)(32.2)(21.8)(51 + 460)

V = 693 ft/s
QUESTION 3
The stagnation temperature is given by:
02
2
Substituting the values, the stagnation temperature is 62F
= 0 +

QUESTION 4
= = (1.40)(287)(2 + 273) = 332
02
= 0 +
2
2
(180)
= 2+
= 18
2 1003

QUESTION 5
= = (1.40)(1716)(100 + 460) = 1160
=

550
=
= 0.474
1160

Since v= 550ft/s < c =1160 ft/s


0 2
(
) ( 1)

= [1 + 0
]1
0
2

550 )2 (1.40 1) 1.40


= [1 + (
]1.401 = 292
250
1160
2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

528

QUESTION 6

2
2 = 1 [ ](1)/
1
0.30 1.401
= (273 + 5)[
] 1.4 = 346 73
0.14

QUESTION 7
The speed of sound can be calculated using:
= = (1.40)(1716)(460 67) 972
QUESTION 8

2
2 = 1 [ ](1)/
1
1.401
1.40

2 = (17273 )[2]

= 354 84

QUESTION 9
(322,000)(144)

= =
= 4902

1.93

1800
= =
= 0.367
4902
QUESTION 10
= = (1.40)(24649)(75 + 460) = 4297

QUESTION 11
= = (1.40)(297)(200 + 273) = 443
QUESTION 12

2
2 = 1 [ ](1)/
1
100 1.331
2 = (450 + 460)[
] 1.33 = 962 502
80

QUESTION 13

= = (1.40)(287)(273 10) = 325

360
= =
= 1.1
325
Since NM > 1.0, it is supersonic.

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

529

QUESTION 14
2

=[
] ( )
2
1 0
(540)2 [1.40)(1716)
=
[0 (100 + 460)]
2
1.40 1
0 = 584 124
2
2 = 1 [ ](1)/
1
584
= (2 /50)(1.401)/1.40 2 = 57.9
100 + 460
QUESTION 15
0
1 2
= 1+[
]

2
273 + 80
1.4 1
=1+[
] (0.65)2

2
= 325 52
QUESTION 16
0
1 2
= { 1 + ([
] }1

2
6 101.310
1.4 1
= {1 + [
] (0.65)2 }1.40/(1.401) = 458

2
QUESTION 17
(850)2
2
(180
0 = +
=
+ 273) +
= 812 539
2
21005
1.67
0
1150
0 = ( )1 = (130)[
]1.671 = 1326

180 + 273
QUESTION 18
0
1 2
= 1+[
]

2
1.40 1
0 = 236.1 [1 +
] (2)2 = 425 152
2
QUESTION 19
0
1 2
= 1+[
]

2
(380 + 273) = 236.1{1 + (1.40 1)/2 }2
= 2.97

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

530

QUESTION 20
0 = (){[1 +
1 =

= 0.331
(1.40)(1716)(210 + 460)
1.40
[1.40 1)
(0 )1 = 35{1 +
](0.331)2 }1.401 = 37.76
2
1.40
[1.40 1)
(0 )2 = 18{1 +
](0.831)2 }1.401 = 28.31
2
(0 )1 28.31
=
= 0.75
(0 )2 37.76
1

1 2
] }1
2
420

QUESTION 21
1 = 0

(600)2
12
= 490
= 311
(2)(1005)
29

QUESTION 22
1 = (0 )/{[1 +
320

1 2
]1 }1
2
1.40

= 64.8

1.401
1.40 1
(1.70)2 }
{1 + [
]
2

QUESTION 23
[2 + ( 1)()2 ] (+1)/2(1)

1
=
[
]
{
}

+1
Substituting the values,
( 1)(3.8)2 ] +1
1
5 = ( ) {[2 +
}2(1)
3.8
+1
By trial and error, k = 1.67
QUESTION 24
= (0 )/{[1 +
=

1 2
] }1
2

305
1.66 = 3.72
1.66 1
2 }1.661
{1 + [
](3.8)
2

QUESTION 25
1
}
+1
= = (1.4)(1715)(484) = 1078
2300
= =
= 2.13
1078
[2(1.4)(2.13)2 0.4]
(12)
2 =
{
} = 61.5
2.4
2 = 1 {[2( )12

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

531

QUESTION 26
1 =
2.1 =

1
1
=
1 1
1

(1.40)((287)(37 + 273)

= 741

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

532

Thermodynamics
Total Questions 13-20
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
K.

Properties of ideal gases and pure substances


Energy transfers
Laws of thermodynamics
Processes
Performance of components
Power cycles, thermal efficiency, and enhancements
Refrigeration and heat pump cycles and coefficients of performance
Nonreacting mixtures of gases
Psychrometrics
Heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning (HVAC) processes
Combustion and combustion products

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

533

PART-I
QUESTION 1.
2 m3 of an ideal gas are compressed from 100 kPa to 200 kPa. As a result of the process, the
internal energy of the gas increases by 10 kJ and 140 kJ of heat is transferred to the
surroundings. The work (kJ) done by the gas during the process is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-150
-130
-85
-45

QUESTION 2.
During a process, 30 J of work are done by a closed stationary system on its surroundings. The
internal energy of the system decreases by 40 J. The heat transfer is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10 J released to surroundings
10 J absorbed by the system
70 J released to the surroundings
70 J absorbed by the system

QUESTION 3.
55 m3 of water passes through a heat exchanger and absorbs 2,800,000 kJ. The exit temperature
is 95C, the entrance temperature (C) is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

49
56
68
83

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

534

QUESTION 4.
The mass flow of a Freon refrigerant through a heat exchanger is 5 kg/min. The enthalpy of entry
Freon is 238kJ/kg, and the enthalpy of exit Freon is 60.6kJ/kg. Water coolant is allowed to rise
6C. The water flow rate in kg/min is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

24
35
83
99

QUESTION 5.
A 35 m x 15 m swimming pool is filled with water to depth of 3m. The amount of heat (GJ)
required to raise the temperature of the water in the pool from 10C to 25C is nearly:
A.
99
B. 230
C. 990
D. 1,900

QUESTION 6.
The change in specific internal energy (kJ/kg) of air cooled from 550C to 100C is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

320
390
450
550

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

535

QUESTION 7.
Gas initially at 1 MPa and 150C receives 7.2MJ of work while 1.5 kW of heat removed from the
system. The internal energy (MJ) change for the system over a period of an hour is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-5.7
1.8
8.7
13

QUESTION 8.
A fluid has a mass of 5 kg and occupies a volume of 1 m3 at a pressure of 150 kPa. If the internal
energy is 2,500 kJ/kg, the total enthalpy is:
A. 2.5
B. 9.8
C. 12.7
D. 20.7

QUESTION 9.
An ideal gas at a gage pressure of 0.3 MPa and 25C is heated in a closed container to 75C. The
final pressure (MPa) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.35
0.47
0.90
1.20

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

536

QUESTION 10.
Steam exists at a pressure of 120 Pa at a temperature of 250K. The number of molecules present
in 2 cm3 at these conditions is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

5 x 1012
5 x 1016
7 x 1016
8 x 1018

QUESTION 11.
A 2 m3 tank contains 40 kg of oxygen at 40C. The gage pressure (MPa) in the tank is:
Specific gas constant: 0.259 kJ/kg.K
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.61
1.10
1.30
1.53

QUESTION 12.
A total of 3 kg of air is in rigid container at 250 kPa and 50C. The volume (m3) of the container,
if the gas constant is 0.287 kJ/kg.K is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.1
2.2
2.8
3.1

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

537

QUESTION 13.
The density (kg/m3) of air 1 atm and 600 C is close to:
(Molecular Weight of air: 28.967g)
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.12
0.40
0.59
0.68

QUESTION 14.
A boy on the beach holds a spherical balloon filled with air. At 10AM, the temperature on the
beach is 20C and the balloon has a diameter of 30 cm. Two hours later, the balloon diameter is
30.5cm. Assuming that the air is an ideal gas and that no air was lost or added, the temperature
(C) at noon is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

21
25
32
35

QUESTION 15.
A mixture at 100 kPa and 20C consists of 30% by weight of CO2 (MW=44) and 70% by weight
of nitrogen (MW=28). The partial pressure of CO2 (kPa) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

21.4
31.5
68.3
78.6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

538

QUESTION 16.
Dry air has an average molecular weight of 28.79 consists of 21 mole-percent oxygen and 78
mole-percent of nitrogen and 1 mole-percent of argon. The weight percent of oxygen is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

21.0
22.4
23.2
24.6

QUESTION 17.
A 0.75 m3 tank contains nitrogen at 150 kPa and 40C. 2.0 kg of oxygen are added to the tank.
The final volumetric percentage of nitrogen is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

14
17
38
41

QUESTION 18.
By weight, atmospheric air is approximately 23.15% oxygen and 76.85% nitrogen. The partial
pressure (kPa) of oxygen in the air at standard temperature and pressure is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

21
23
26
30

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

539

QUESTION 19.
A Carnot machine operates between a reservoir at 200C and a cold reservoir at 20C. When
operated as an engine, it receives 1000 kJ/kg. The work output (kJ/kg) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

181
281
381
481

QUESTION 20.
The maximum thermal efficiency that can be obtained in an ideal reversible heat engine
operating between 833 C and 170 C is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

60
70
80
90

QUESTION 21.
A 2.2 kW refrigerator or heat pump operates between -17C and 38C. The maximum theoretical
heat (kW) can be transferred from the cold reservoir is nearest to:
A. 4.7
B. 7.6
C. 10.2
D. 15.6

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

540

QUESTION 22.
At the start of compression in an air-standard Otto cycle with a compression ratio 10, air is at
100 kPa and 40C. A heat addition of 2,800 kJ/kg is made. The thermal efficiency is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

52
60
64
70

QUESTION 23.
A Carnot refrigeration system receives heat from a cold reservoir at 0C. The power input is 1,750
W per ton of refrigeration. The COP is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.4
1.6
1.8
2.0

QUESTION 24.
A Carnot engine receives 100 kJ of heat from a hot reservoir at 370 C and rejects 37 kJ of heat.
The temperature (C) of the cold reservoir is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

- 35
100
130
230

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

541

QUESTION 25.
A refrigeration cycle has a coefficient of performance 80% of the value of a Carnot refrigerator
operating between the temperature limits of 50C and -5C for a 3 kW of cooling, the power input
(KW) required is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.53
0.62
0.77
0.89

QUESTION 26.
A heat pump takes from groundwater at 7C and maintains a room at 21C. The COP possible for
this heat pump:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.4
2.8
5.6
21

QUESTION 27.
A Carnot cycle refrigerator operates between -11C and 22C. The COP is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.50
1.1
4.3
7.9

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

542

QUESTION 28.
A reversible thermodynamic system is made to follow the Carnot cycle between the temperature
limits of 300C and 75C. 300 kW of heat are supplied per cycle to the system. The change in
entropy (kW/K) during the heat addition is close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.52
0.86
1.0
4.0

QUESTION 29.
A plane wall is 2m high 3m wide and is 20 cm thick. It is made of material that has thermal
conductivity of 0.5 W/(m.K). A temperature difference of 60C is imposed on the two large faces.
The heat flow (W) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

450
600
750
900

QUESTION 30.
A steam pipe with a surface area of 5 m2 and a surface temperature of 600C radiates into a large
room. The surface of which is at 25C. The emissivity is 0.6. The heat flux (W/m2) in the room:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.95 x 104
2.50 x 105
3.50 x 106
4.50 x 107

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

543

QUESTION 31.
Water at an average temperature of 20C flows through a 5-cm diameter pipe is 2m long. The
pipe is heated by steam and is held at 100C. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 2.2 x 10 4
W/m2.K. The heat flux (MW/m2) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.26
1.76
2.76
4.34

QUESTION 32.
A well-insulated copper wire 1m long with a cross-sectional area of 0.084 m2 connects two
reservoirs, one with boiling water at 100C and the other with ice at 0C. The time it takes for 100
cal energy to move through the wire is nearly:
Assume K for copper = 388 W/m.K
A. 7
B. 14
C. 21
D. 35

QUESTION 33.
In 1 hr, the amount (kJ) of black-body radiation escapes a 1cm x 2cm rectangular opening in a
kiln operating at 980C is:
A. 20
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

544

QUESTION 34.
A 3m x 3m plate at 500C is suspended vertically in a very large room. The plate has an
emissivity of 0.13. The net heat transfer (kW) in the room with an initial temperature of 25C is
nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

8.3
24
46
86

QUESTION 35.
On a hot summer day, a stone will reach a maximum temperature of 50C. The stone has an
emissivity of 0.95. The radiant heat energy transfer (W/m2) from the wall per square meter of
this wall at that temperature is close to:
A. 190
B. 590
C. 1100
D. 3800

QUESTION 36.
Hot air at an average temperature of 100C flows through a 3m long tube with an inside diameter
of 60mm. The temperature of the tube is 20C along its entire length. The convective film
coefficient 20.1W/m2K. The rate of convective heat transfer from the air to the tube:
A. 520
B. 850
C. 910
D. 1070

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

545

QUESTION 37.
The isentropic compression of 1m3 of air from 20 kPa to 100 kPa results in a final volume of:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.16
0.20
0.32
0.40

QUESTION 38.
The work (kJ) of a polytropic (n= 1.21) compression of air from 15 kPa with a1m 3 volume to
150 kPa and 0.15 m3 volume is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-35.7
- 324
1,080
5,000

QUESTION 39.
Air is compressed isentropically such that its pressure is increased by 50%.The initial
temperature is 70C and the final temperature (C) is close to:
A. 80
B. 110
C. 140
D. 240

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

546

QUESTION 40.
A gas (MW=55) is initially at 2MPa, 200C and 0.5 m3 expands with the relation of PV1.35 = C to
0.2 MPa. The work for the expansion process is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.3
2.3
4.1
5.9

QUESTION 41.
Air is compressed in a piston-cylinder arrangement to 1/10 of its initial volume. If the initial
temperature is 35C and the process is frictionless and adiabatic, the final temperature (K) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

350
460
620
770

QUESTION 42.
The state of an ideal gas in an open system is changed in a steady-state process from 400 kPa and
1.2 m3 to 300 kPa and 1.5 m3. The relationship between pressure and volume during the process
is PV1.3 = constant. The work (kJ) performed is close to:
A. 130
B. 930
C. 1210
D. 2500

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

547

QUESTION 43.
Argon (MW = 40) is compressed in a closed system from 100 kPa and 30C to 500 kPa and
170C. The specific entropy (kJ/kg.k) change is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-0.010
-0.14
0.37
0.56

QUESTION 44.
The volume occupied by 10 kg of water at 200C and 2 MPa is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.099 m3
0.012 m3
9.4 L
11.8 L

QUESTION 45.
The temperature (K) of 2kg of air contained in a 40L volume at 2MPa is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

120
140
160
180

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

548

QUESTION 46.
A 200-mm diameter piston is lowered by increasing the pressure from 100 kPa to 800 kPa such
that the P-V relationship PV2 = constant. The work done (kJ) on the system if V1 =0.1 m3 is
nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-18.3
-24.2
-31.6
-42.9

QUESTION 47.
Ten kilograms of air at 800 kPa is heated at constant pressure from 170C to 400 C. The work
(kJ) required is:
A. 115
B. 660
C. 960
D. 1150

QUESTION 48.
Ten kilograms of saturated steam at 800 kPa is heated at constant pressure to 400C. The work
(kJ) required is:
A. 115
B. 660
C. 960
D. 1150

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

549

QUESTION 49.
The work (kJ) needed to compress 2 kg of air in an insulated cylinder from 100 kPa to 600 kPa if
T1 = -20C is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-469
-390
-280
-220

QUESTION 50.
Air is compressed adiabatically from 100 kPa and 20C to 800 kPa. The new temperature (C) is
close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

260
290
360
440

QUESTION 51.
The work (kJ) required to compress 2kg of an air insulated cylinder from 100C and 100 kPa to
600 kPa is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

220
280
360
460

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

550

QUESTION 52.
Methane is heated at constant pressure of 200 kPa from 0C to 300C. The amount of heat (kJ/kg)
needed is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

623
676
692
731

QUESTION 53.
The equilibrium temperature if 10 kg of ice at 0C is mixed with 60kg of water at 20C is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.1
2.1
5.8
12

QUESTION 54.
One kilogram of air is heated in a rigid temperature from 20C to 300C. The entropy change
(kJ/K) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.34
0.48
0.54
0.64

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

551

QUESTION 55.
The work (kJ) required to isentropically compress 2 kg of air in a cylinder at 400 kPa and 400C
to 2MPa is:
A. 560
B. 780
C. 940
D. 1,020

QUESTION 56.
200 kg of a solid at 0C is added to 42 kg of water at 80C. The final temperature (C) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

42
48
52
58

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

552

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

553

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
A low-energy gas is burned in a furnace with excess air. The feed rate is 2,500 m 3/h of gas at 0C
and 1 atm.

Low
energy gas
CO
CO2
H2
CH4

Mol
%
16.0
12.6
19.0
52.4

Gas Composition
MW
Flue gas
(dry basis)
28
CO2
44
N2
2
O2
16

Mol%
13.5
84.4
2.1

The amount of air supplied per 100 kmol of dry gas is almost nearly:
A. 10
B. 17
C. 110
D. 400

QUESTION 2.
It is desired to burn liquid propane, C3H8 with excess air, both supplied at 25C. Assume that air
is 21vol% oxygen, and the balance is nitrogen. If 1.0 mol of propane is burned with x moles of
air, how many moles of oxygen appear in the combustion products?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.0 + 0.21x
4.0 + 0.79x
0.79x
0.21x -5.0

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

554

QUESTION 3.
A 30-L cylinder is filled with air to a pressure of 10 MPa. The valve to the cylinder is then
closed. Thermodynamic data for dry air are given in the table below.

Assuming that the temperature in the cylinder immediately after filling is 600K and that no air
has been removed from the cylinder, the pressure (MPa) in the cylinder a week after filling
(when the temperature is 300K) is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4.17
4.94
5.06
5.20

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

555

QUESTION 4.
The experimental heat capacity of a particular ideal gas is tabulated below:
Temperature
(C)
20
40
60
80
100

Cp
22
22.5
23.4
23.8
24.4

Enthalpy change is: = 2 ()


1

If this gas is heated from 20 to 100 C, the enthalpy change for 1 mole of gas can be calculated
using numerical integration. Using Simpsons rule, the result is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

h = 20(22+22.5+23.4+23.8)
h = 20(22.5+23.4+23.8+24.4)
h = 20/3(22+4(22.5) + 2(23.4)+ 4(23.8) +24.4)
h = 20/2 (22+ 2(22.5 + 23.4+23.8) + 24.4)

QUESTION 5.
An insulated, steam-heated single-stage laboratory evaporator is used to determine data for the
design of large units. Saturated steam at 150C is used as the heating medium. The steam
condensate is all liquid at 150C. The total heat duty is 225 kW. The required steam rate (kg/s) is
most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

9.40
8.56
0.11
0.08

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

556

QUESTION 6.
One mole of an ideal gas with Cp = 3.5 and Cv = 2.5 , where is the universal gas constant
expands from P1 = 103 kPa and V1 = 0.001m3 to P2 = 100kPa. If the gas follows a path such that
the volume of the gas is constant, then the amount of work (kJ) done for the process is most
nearly:
A. 0.0
B. 1.4
C. 20.8
D. 29.0

QUESTION 7-8. The pump shown in the figure is used to pump 50,000 kg of water per hour into
a boiler. Pump suction conditions are 40C and 100kPa. Pump discharge conditions are 40C and
14.0 MPa. Boiler outlet conditions are 500C and 14.0 MPa. The boiler efficiency is 88%.

P
T
Condition
H
(MPa)
C
(kJ/kg)
14.0
40
Compressed liquid 167.6
14.0 336.75 Saturated liquid 1,571.1
14.0 336.75
Saturated valor
2,637.6
14.0
500
Superheated vapor 3,322

If the pump efficiency is 80%, the pump power requirement (kW) is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

150
190
240
300

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

557

QUESTION 8 (DATA FROM ABOVE).


The total heat transfer (MW) to the working fluid that occurs in the boiler is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
15
29
44

QUESTION 9.
Air is to be considered as an ideal gas with the following properties:

Cp = 1.0 kJ/(kg.K)
Cv = 0.718 kJ/(kg.K)
k = 1.4
R = 0.287 kJ/(kg.K)
One kilogram of air at 172 kPa and 100C is heated reversibly at constant volume until the
pressure is 344 kPa.
The specific volume of the air (kJ/kg) at State 1 is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.17
0.62
0.93
1.28

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

558

QUESTION 10 (DATA FROM ABOVE QUESTION).


The change in entropy [kJ(kg.K)] between States 1 and 2 (s2-s1) is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

-0.498
0
0.498
0.693

QUESTION 11-13.
A vapor-compression refrigeration cycle using HFC-134a as the refrigerant has the pressureenthalpy diagram shown below. The evaporator temperature is 0C, and the condenser
temperature is 40C.

Assume the compression process is reversible and adiabatic. If the vapor entering the compressor
is saturated, the work done on the compressor (kJ/kg) is most nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

15
25
35
42

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

559

QUESTION 12.
The cooling produced by the evaporator (kJ/kg) is most nearly:
A. 28
B. 143
C. 169
D. 210

QUESTION 13.
The process 3-4 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Constant entropy
Constant enthalpy
Reversible
Both constant entropy and enthalpy

QUESTION 14.
A 200kg automobile travelling at 90km/h hits the rear of a stationary, 1000-kg automobile. After
the collision that large automobile slows to 50 km/h, and the smaller vehicle has a speed of
88km/h. The increase in internal energy (kJ) taking both vehicles as the system is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
159
176
210

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

560

QUESTION 15.
Four kg of water is heated at a pressure of 220 kPa to produce a mixture with quality x =0.8. The
final volume (m3) occupied by the mixture is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.7
3.7
4.7
5.7

QUESTION 16.
An automobile tire with a volume of 0.6 m3 is inflated to a gage pressure of 200 kPa. The mass
of air in the tire if the temperature is 20C is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.14
2.14
3.14
4.14

QUESTION 17.
Ten pounds of steam is contained in a volume of 50 ft3. The quality of the steam if the
temperature is 263 F is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.22
0.33
0.44
0.55

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

561

QUESTION 18.
Water is contained in a rigid vessel of 5 m3 at a quality of 0.8 and a pressure of 2MPa. If the
pressure is reduced to 400 kPa by cooling the vessel, the mass (kg) of vapor is:
A. 6.69
B. 8.89
C. 10.69
D. 12.78

QUESTION 19.
A pressurized can contains air at a gage pressure of 40 Psi when the temperature is 70F. The can
will burst when the gage pressure reaches 200 psi. At what temperature (F) the can will burst?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1000
1250
1420
1620

QUESTION 20.
One kg of steam with a quality of 20 percent is heated at a constant pressure of 200 kPa until the
temperature reaches 400C. The work (kJ) done by the steam is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

125
175
250
275

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

562

QUESTION 21.
Energy is added to a piston-cylinder arrangement and the piston is withdrawn in such a way that
the quantity PV remains constant. The initial pressure and volume are 200 kPa and 2m3,
respectively. If the final pressure is 100 kPa, the work done by the gas on the piston is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

107
157
177
280

QUESTION 22.
The horse power required to overcome the wind drag on a modern car travelling 25m/s if the
drag coefficient is 0.2 is nearly:
The drag formula is given by: FD = V2ACD
The density of air = 1.23 kg/m3
Area = 2.3 m2
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
4
6
8

QUESTION 23.
A 10-m long by 3 m high wall is composed of an insulation layer with R = 2 m 2.K/W and a
wood layer with R = 0.5 m2.K/W. The heat transfer rate through the wall if the temperature
difference is 40C is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

240
480
670
980

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

563

QUESTION 24.
The heat transfer from a 2-m diameter sphere to a 25C air stream over a time interval of one hour
is 3000kJ. The surface temperature of the sphere if the heat transfer coefficient is 10 W/m2.K- is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

16
32
64
88

QUESTION 25.
Air is compressed in a cylinder such that the volume changes from 100 to 10 m 3. The initial
pressure is 50 psia and the temperature is held constant at 100F. The work done is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

250
-250
960
-960

QUESTION 26.
A 5-hp fan is used in a large room to provide for air circulation. Assuming a well-insulated
sealed room, the internal energy (J) increase after 1 h of operation is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.3 x 104
1.3 x 105
1.3 x 106
1.3 x 107

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

564

QUESTION 27.
The specific heat of superheated steam at approximately 150 kPa can be determined by the
equation:
400
= 2.07 +
1480 .
The enthalpy change between 300 C and 700 C for 3 kg of steam is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2100
2250
2350
2550

QUESTION 28.
A piston-cylinder arrangement contains 0.02 m3 of air at 50C and 400kPa. Heat is added in the
amount of 50kJ and the work is done by the paddle wheel until the temperature reaches 700C. if
the pressure is held constant, how much paddle-wheel work (kJ) must be added to the air?
A.
B.
C.
D.

-1.5
-2.5
-5.1
-6.1

QUESTION 29.
Steam enters a turbine at 4000 kPa and 500C and leaves as shown. For an inlet velocity of 200
m/s, the turbine power (MW) output is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.5
2.5
3.5
4.5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

565

QUESTION 30.
A liquid flowing at 100 kg/s, enters a heat exchanger at 450C and exists at 350C. The specific
heat of the liquid is 1.25kJ/kg.C. Water enters at 5000 kPa and 20c. The minimum mass flux of
the water so that the water does not completely vaporize is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.6
2.6
3.6
4.6

QUESTION 31.
A refrigerator is situated in an insulated room, it has a 2-hp motor that drives a compressor. Over
a 30-minute period of time it provides 5300 kJ of cooling to the refrigerated space and 8000 kJ of
heating from the coils on the back of the refrigerator. The increase in the internal energy (kJ) in
the room is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1200
1800
2600
4400

QUESTION 32.
A 5kg block of copper at 300C is submerged in 20 liters of water at 0C contained in an insulated
tank. The final equilibrium temperature is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.8
4.8
6.8
9.8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

566

QUESTION 33.
Helium is contained in a 2 m3 rigid volume at 50C and 200 kPa. The heat transfer (kJ) needed to
increase the pressure to 800 kPa is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1200
1400
1600
1800

QUESTION 34.
The air in the cylinder of an air compressor is compressed from 100 kPa to 10Mpa. The work
(kJ/kg) required if the air is initially at 100C is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

139
259
739
980

QUESTION 35.
Steam with a mass flux of 600 lbm/min exits a turbine as saturated steam at 2 psia and passes
through a condenser (a heat exchanger). The mass flux of cooling water is needed if the steam is
to exit the condenser as saturated liquid and the cooling water is allowed a 15F temperature rise
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

21,000
41,000
62,000
88,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

567

QUESTION 36.
A refrigeration unit is cooling a space to -5C by rejecting energy to the atmosphere at 20C. It is
desired to reduce the temperature in the refrigerated space to -25C. The minimum percentage in
work required assuming a Carnot refrigerator is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

74
84
94
99

QUESTION 37.
A power utility company desires to use the got groundwater from a hot spring to power a heat
engine. If the groundwater is at 95C, the maximum power (kW) output if a mass flux of 0.2 kg/s
is close to:
Assume the atmosphere at 20C.
A. 7
B. 13
C. 19
D. 21

QUESTION 38.
Two Carnot engines operate in series between two reservoirs maintained at 600F and 100F,
respectively. The energy rejected by the first engine is input into the second engine. If the first
engines efficiency is 20 percent greater than the second engines efficiency, the intermediate
temperature (F) is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

285
326
421
555

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

568

QUESTION 39.
A heat engine operates on a Carnot cycle with an efficiency of 75%. What COP would a
refrigerator operating on the same cycle have? The low temperature is 0C.
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.111
0.222
0.333
0.444

QUESTION 40.
Two Carnot refrigerators operate in series between two reservoirs maintained at 20C and 200C,
respectively. The energy output by the first refrigerator is used as the heat energy input to the
second refrigerator. If the COPs of the two refrigerators are the same, the intermediate
temperature (C) is close to:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

QUESTION 41.
Air is contained in an insulated, rigid volume at 20C and 200 kPa. A paddle-wheel inserted in the
volume does 720 kJ of work on the air. If the volume is 2 m3, the entropy increase (kJ/K)
assuming constant specific heats is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.1
1.3
1.6
1.9

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

569

QUESTION 42.
After a combustion process in a cylinder the pressure is 1200 kPa and the temperature is 350C
the gases are expanded to 140kPa with a reversible adiabatic process. The work done by the gas
(kJ/kg) is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
200
300
400

QUESTION 43.
Two kg of superheated steam at 400C and 600 kPa is cooled at constant pressure by transferring
heat from a cylinder until the steam is completely condensed. The surroundings are at 25C. The
entropy change (kJ/K) of the universe during the process is:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

QUESTION 44.
A Carnot engine delivers 100 kW of power by operating between temperature reservoirs at 100
C and 1000C. The net entropy change (kJ/kg) of the two reservoirs after 20 min operation is
nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
1
2
3

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

570

QUESTION 45.
Two kilograms of air is heated at constant pressure of 200 kPa to 500C. The entropy change
(kJ/kg) if the initial volume is 0.8 m3 is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

QUESTION 46.
Air expands from 200 to 1000 cm3 in a cylinder while the pressure s held constant at 600 kPa. If
the initial temperature is 20C, the heat transfer is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.1
1.3
1.7
2.5

QUESTION 47.
The steam in a Carnot engine is compressed adiabatically from 10 kPa to 6 MPa with saturated
liquid occurring at the end of the process. If the work output is 500 kJ/kg, the quality at the end
of the isothermal expansion is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.36
0.56
0.76
1.00

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

571

QUESTION 48.
Steam expands isentropically through a turbine from 6MPa to 10 kPa. The power output (kW) if
the mass flux is 2 kg/s is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2770
2915
3254
4851

QUESTION 49.
An adiabatic compressor receives 20m3/min of air from the atmosphere at 20C and compresses it
to 10MPa. The minimum power requirement is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

217
317
525
874

QUESTION 50.
A six-cylinder engine with a compression ratio of 8 and a total volume of 600 mL intakes
atmospheric air at 20C. The maximum temperature during a cycle is 1500C. Assuming an Otto
cycle, the heat supplied per cycle is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.4
2.4
3.4
4.5

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

572

QUESTION 51.
Air enters the compressor of a simple gas refrigeration cycle at -10C and 100 kPa. For a
compression ratio of 10 and a turbine inlet of 30C, the COP is close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.70
1.07
2.10
3.52

QUESTION 52.
A rigid tank contains 2kg of nitrogen and 4kg of CO2 at a temperature of 25C and 2 MPa. The
partial pressure of nitrogen is nearly:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.44
0.66
0.88
1.00

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

573

QUESTION 53.
Gravimetric analysis of a mixture of three gases indicates 20% nitrogen, 40% CO2 and 40%
oxygen. The heat transfer needed to increase the temperature of 20 lbm of the mixture from 80F
to 300 F in a rigid tank is close to:

A.
B.
C.
D.

500
700
800
900

QUESTION 57
Determine the steady state rate of heat transfer per unit area through a 4.0 cm thick homogeneous
slab with its two faces maintained at uniform temperatures of 38 C and 21C. The thermal
conductivity of the material is 0.19W/m.K
A.
B.
C.
D.

20
40
60
80

QUESTION 58
The forced convective heat transfer coefficient for a hot fluid flowing over a cool surface is 225
W/m2 C for a particular question. The fluid upstream of the cool surface is 120C and the surface
is held at 10C. The heat transfer rate (W/m2) per unit area from the fluid to the surface is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12,500
25,000
50,000
75,000

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

574

QUESTION 59
The air inside an electronics package housing has a temperature of 50C.A chip in this house has
internal thermal power generation rate of 3x10-3W. This chip is subjected to an airflow resulting
in a convective coefficient of 9W/m2 over its two main surfaces which are 0.5cm x 1.0 cm. The
chip surface temperature (C) neglecting radiation and heat transfer from the edges is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

23
33
53
63

QUESTION.60
A laboratory furnace wall is constructed of 0.2m thick fireclay brick having Ka = 1.0 W/m.K.
This is covered on the outer surface with a 0.03 m thick layer of insulating material having Kb =
0.07 W/m.K. The furnace inner brick surface is at 1250K and the outer surface of the insulation
material is 310K. The interfacial temperature T2 (K) between the brick and the insulation is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

278
678
951
998

QUESTION 61
A composite three-layered wall is formed of a 0.5 cm thick aluminum plate, a 0.25 cm thick
layer of sheet asbestos, and a 2cm thick layer of rock wool; the asbestos is the central layer. The
outer aluminum surface is at 400C and the outer rock wool surface is at 50C. The heat flow (W)
per unit area is:
Kal = 249 W/m.K
Kasb = 0.166 W/m.K
Krw = 0.0548 W/m.K
A.
B.
C.
D.

250
400
600
920

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

575

QUESTION 62
A steel pipe (K = 45 W/m.K) having a 5 cm OD is covered with a 4.2 cm thick layer of magnesia
(K = 0.07 W/m.K) which is in turn covered with a 2.4 cm layer of fiberglass insulation (K =
0.048 W/m.K). The pipe wall outside temperature is 370K and the outside surface temperature of
the fiberglass is 305K. The interfacial (K) temperature between the magnesia and the fiberglass
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

130
230
330
425

QUESTION 63
A thick walled copper cylinder has an inside radius of 1cm and an outside radius of 1.8cm. The
inner and outer surface temperatures are held at 305C and 295C, respectively. Assume K =367
W/m.K, the heat loss (kW) per unit length is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

39
49
59
69

QUESTION 64
A 6inch concrete wall, having a thermal conductivity of 0.50 Btu/h.ft.F is exposed to air at 70F
on one side and air at 20F on the opposite side. The heat transfer coefficients are 2.0 Btu/h.ft2.F
on the 70F side and 10 Btu/h.ft2. F on the 20F side. The heat transfer rate (Btu/h.ft2) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
20
35
45

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

576

QUESTION 65
In a food processing plant a brine solution is heated from 6C to 12C in a double-pipe heat
exchanger by water entering at 50C and leaving at 40C at the rate of 0.166 kg/s. If the overall
heat transfer coefficient is 859 W/m2, the heat exchanger area (m2) is required for a parallel flow
is:
A. 0.15
B. 0.23
C. 0.58
D. 0.75

QUESTION 66
In a double-pipe counter flow heat exchanger, water at the rate of 60 lbm/min is heated from 65F
to 95F by oil having a specific heat of 0.36 Btu/lbm.F. The oil enters the exchanger at 200F and
leaves at 140F. The heat exchanger area (ft2) for an overall heat transfer coefficient of 50
Btu/h.ft2.F is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

12
25
37
43

QUESTION 67
When new, a heat exchanger transfers 10% more heat than it does after being in service for six
months. Assuming that it operates between the same temperature differentials and that there is
insufficient scale buildup to change the effective surface area, the effective fouling factor in
terms of its clean (new) overall heat transfer coefficient is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.10
0.15
0.20
0.30
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

577

QUESTION 68
Water enters a counterflow, double-pipe heat exchanger at 38C, flowing at the rate of 0.75 kg/s.
It is heated by oil (Cp =1.884 kJ/kg.K) flowing at the rate of 1.5 kg/s from an inlet temperature
of 116C. For an area of 13 m2 and an overall heat transfer coefficient of 340 W/m2.K, the
number of transfer units are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.57
1.57
2.57
3.33

QUESTION 69
The total incident radiant energy upon a body which partially reflects, absorbs and transmits
radiant energy is 2200 W/m2. Of this amount, 450 W/m2 is reflected and 900 W/m2 is absorbed
by the body. The transmissivity is close to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.186
0.386
0.486
0.666

QUESTION 70
The total emissivity power of a black body at 1000C is nearly:
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
150
200
350

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

578

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

579

SOLUTIONS

PART-I
QUESTION 1
Applying the first law of thermodynamics:
=
When heat is transferred to the surroundings, it is negative.
= 140 10 = 150
QUESTION 2
From first law of thermodynamics
= +
= 40 + 30 = 10
Heat is released to the surroundings.
QUESTION 3
=

(95 1 )
2,800,000 = 553 1000 3 4.18

.
= 82.8
QUESTION 4
Over 1min period, the heat is given by water equals the heat loss by Freon
= [1 2 ]

(6) = 5[238 60.6]


4.18
.
= 35.2 /
QUESTION 5
= = 35 15 3 = 15753

= ; 1000 3 15753 = 1.575 106

= 1.575 106 4.18


(25 10) = 99
.
QUESTION 6
=

= 0.718
.

= 0.718 (550 100) = 323

QUESTION 7
For a closed system and from first law of thermodynamics,
=

= 1500 3600 (1) + 7.2 106 = 1.8 106 = 1.8

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

580

QUESTION 8
13
3
=
= 0.2
5

= +

= 2500
+ (150 2 ) (0.2 ) = 2530

= = 5 2530
= 12,650 12.7

QUESTION 9
From ideal gas equation:
1 1 2 2
=
1
2
Since volumes are equal,
1 2 (0.3 + 0.101 )(75 + 273)
2 =
=
= 0.468
1
25 + 273
QUESTION 10
=

120 2 106 3
=
=
= 1.155 1010
8314 3 . 250
.
Number of molecules:

= 1.155 1010 100


6.023 1023
= 71016

QUESTION 11
=

40 0.2598 . (40 + 273)


=
=
= 1627

2 3
() =
= 1627 101.3 = 1530 1.53
QUESTION 12
=
250 = 3 0.287 323 = 1.113
QUESTION 13
=

= =

1 101.3

= 0.404 3

0.2870 . (600 + 273)

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

581

QUESTION 14
Volume of balloon at 20C:
4
4 0.3 3
= 3 = (
) = 0.014143
3
3
2
Volume of balloon at T:
=

4 0.305 3
(
) = 0.014863
3
2

Since pressure is constant


2 =

2
0.01486(20 + 273)
1 =
= 308
1
0.01414
2 = 308 273 = 35

QUESTION 15
Moles of carbon dioxide:
0.30
= 0.00682
44
Moles of nitrogen:
0.70
= 0.25
28
= 0.03182
Mole fraction of carbon dioxide:
=

0.00682
100 = 21.4
0.03182

QUESTION 16
Component MW Mole Fraction Weight (Kg) Wt (%)
Oxygen
32
0.21
6.72
23.2
Nitrogen
28
0.78
21.80
75.4
Argon
40
0.01
0.42
1.4
QUESTION 17
For nitrogen:
=
150 0.753
=
= 0.0432

8.3134
(40 + 273)
.
For oxygen:
2
= 0.0625
32
Mole fraction of nitrogen:
0.0432
100 = 41%
0.0432 + 0.0625
QUESTION 18
Mole fraction of oxygen:
0.2315
32
=
= 0.209
0.2315 0.7685
32 + 28
Partial pressure:
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

582

= = 0.209 101 = 21.1


QUESTION 19
3 8 + 52 = 32 + 42
344 + 418

=
=

312 + 81
11
X = 51g

QUESTION 20
200 20
=
= 0.381

473

= = 0.381 1000
= 381

QUESTION 21
The maximum efficiency is achieved with Carnot engine.
= 170 + 273 = 443 = 833 + 273 = 1106
1106 443
=
=
= 60%

1106
QUESTION 22

256
=
=
= 4.56
311 256

= ; = 4.56 2.2 = 10.2

QUESTION 23
The efficiency of Otto cycle is:
= 1 1
= 1 1011.4 = 0.602 60%
QUESTION 24
The COP is the ratio of heat transfer to work input. In SI system, one tone of refrigeration
corresponds to 3516 W

3516
=
=
= 2.0
1750

QUESTION 25

100 37
=
=
= 63%

100
For Carnot cycle, thermal efficiency is:
(370 + 273) ( + 273)

=
= 0.63 =

(370 + 273)
= 35

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

583

QUESTION 26
=

5 + 273
=
= 4.87
(50 + 273) (5 + 273)

= ; =

3
=
= 0.77
0.84.87

QUESTION 27
The upper limit for the COP of a heat pump is set by the COP of a Carnot heat pump.

21 + 273
=
=
= 21
(21 + 273) (7 + 273)

QUESTION 28
The COP of a refrigeration cycle is:

11 + 273
=
=
= 7.9
(22 + 273) (11 + 273)

QUESTION 29
The heat addition occurs during the isothermal process at high temperatures

300

=
=
= 0.524
0 (300 + 273)

QUESTION 30
0.5(32)(60)
=
=
= 900

0.2
QUESTION 31
= [14 24 ]
= 5.67 108 52 0.6[(600 + 273)4 (25 + 273)4 ] = 9.75 104
Heat flux:

9.75104

=
= 1.95 104 2
2

QUESTION 32
= [ ]
= 2.2 104 (0.052)(100 20) = 5.53 105

5.53 105

=
= 1.76 2
(0.052)

QUESTION 33
1 2
1 2
=
=

4.18
100
1

=
= 21
1 2

(100 ) (388 ) (0.0839) 60 / min 100

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

584

QUESTION 34
= 4
1 2
8
2
= (1)( 5.67 10 )(2 ) (
) (900 + 273)4 = 28
100

= = 28 1 3600 = 100

QUESTION 35
The plate has two surfaces which can radiate.
= [14 24 ]
8
= 5.67 10 2(3 3)0.13[(500 + 273)4 (25 + 273)4 ] = 46
QUESTION 36
= 4

= 4 = (0.95)(5.67 108 )(50 + 273)4 = 586 2

QUESTION 37
The heat transfer area:
60
= =
30 = 0.565 2
1000/
= [ ]
= 20.10.565[100 20] = 910
QUESTION 38

1 1 = 2 2 ; =

1.4
20(1) = 100(2 )
2 = 0.317 3
QUESTION 39
2 2 1 1
=
1
[1500.15 151.0]
=
= 35.7
1 1.21
Which is work done on the gas
QUESTION 40
For a closed isentropic system:
1
2 1
=[ ]
2
1
1 11.4
2 = 343 ( ) 1.4 = 385.1 112
1.5
QUESTION 41
1 1 = 2 2
21.35 =

2
(0.53 )1.35 = 2.752 3
0.2

For a polytropic closed system:


(0.22.751) (20.5)
2 2 1 1
=
=
= 1.285
1
1 1.35
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

585

QUESTION 42
2
1
= [ ]1
1
2
10 1.41
2 = (35 + 273) ( )
= 773
1
QUESTION 43
The work for an open polytropic process:
[2 2 1 1 ] 1.3[(3001.5) (4001.2)
=
=
= 130
1
1 1.3
QUESTION 44
2
2
= ln ( ) + ln( )
1
1

1 2
= ln ( ) +
ln[
]
1

2 1
170 + 273
8.314 ln[100(170 + 273)]

= 0.312 [
]+(
)
= 0.14
[500(30 + 273)]
30 + 273
40

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

586

PART-II
QUESTION 1.
A nitrogen balance ties the flue gas to the air:
N2 in the flue gas:
= (100 )(

0.844 2
) = 84.4 2

N2 in air:
= ( )(0.70

2
= 2

84.4 2
= 107
0.79

QUESTION 2.
Propane is burned with oxygen according to the following raction:
3 8 + 52 32 + 4 2
Since there are x moles of air furnished, if 1 mole of propane is burned, the O2 remaining will
be: 0.21x -5
QUESTION 3.
Given the following:
1. Rigid walled cylinder, 30L volume
2. Initial state of air in the cylinder: 10 MPa, 600K
3. Final state of air in the cylinder: ?MPa, 300K
Volume of gas and number of moles of gas are fixed.
Initially at 10MPa, 600K, = 0.018 m3/kg
Final state: = 0.018 m3/kg, T = 300K
Interpolate between 4 and 6 MPa in the table.
P is proportional to 1/
=4+

0.018 0.0214
= 4.94
0.0142 + 0.0214

QUESTION 4.
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

587

Simpsons rule is under Numerical methods in the Mathematics section of the FE Reference
Handbook. Options A and B are rectangular integration. Option D is the Trapezoidal rule.
Therefore, the correct answer is Choice B.

QUESTION 5.
Referring to the Thermodynamics section of the FE Reference Handbook, Hvap of steam at
150C is 2,114.3 kJ/kg.
225

= 0.106 /
. 2,114.3

QUESTION 6.
Given:
1. Closed system
2. Only boundary expansion work
=
With a constant volume path, dv = 0
So the work done is zero.
QUESTION 7.
1 = 0.001 m3/kg
The pump power is:
=

1 (2 1 )

50,000 0.0013
(14,0000100)/2 )
3600 ( )
=
= 241.3
0.80
QUESTION 8.
= (3 2 ) =

50,000 (3,322 167.6)


= 43,811 = 44
3600

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

588

QUESTION 9.
The specific volume is found using the ideal gas equation of state.
=
0.287
( . ) (273 + 100)
3
=
=
= 0.622

172

QUESTION 10.
The change in Entropy is found from the equations in the Thermodynamics section of the FE
Reference Handbook.
2
2
= ln ( ) ln ( )
1
1
For a constant volume process,
1 2
=
1 2
Therefore,
2 2
=
1 1
2
2
= ln ( ) ln ( )
1
1
2
2
= ( ) ln ( ) = ln ( )
1
1

= 0.718 ln(2) = 0.498


.
QUESTION 11.
From the P-h Diagram for Refrigerant HFC-134a given in the Thermodynamics section of the FE
Supplied-Reference Handbook:
h1 = 400 kJ/kg
h2 = 425 kJ/kg
h3 = h4 = 257 kJ/kg

25
= (2 1 ) = (425 400) =

QUESTION 12.
Evaporator cooling,

= (1 4 ) = (400 257) = 143

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

589

QUESTION 13.
The process from 3 to 4 is a throttling process, which involves both a drop in pressure and
temperature. It is an irreversible process, generally considered a constant enthalpy.
QUESTION 14.
Change all speeds to m/s.
The kinetic energy before the collision is:
1
1
1 = 2 = 2200 252 = 687,500
2
2
After the collision, the kinetic energy is:
1
1
1
1
2 = 2 + 2 = 2200 13.892 + 1000 24.442 = 510,900
2
2
2
2
The conservation of energy requires that 1 + 1 = 2 + 2
2 1 = 687500 510 900 = 176, 600 176.6
QUESTION 15.
To determine the steam volume, we linearly interpolate between 0.2 and 0.3 MPa. This provides,
at 220 kPa,
220 200
3
3
= (
) (0.6508 0.8857) + 0.8857 = 0.8297
, = 0.0011
300 200

3
= + ( ) = 0.0011 + 0.8((0.8927 0.0011) = 0.6640

The total volume occupied by 4 kg is


3
= = 4 0.6640
= 2.6563

QUESTION 16.
In the ideal gas equation, we use absolute pressure and absolute temperature.
P = 200 +103 = 303 kPa
T = 20 +273 =293 K
The mass is then calculated as:
300,000
0.63

=
=
= 2.14
(287. . ) (293)

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

590

QUESTION 17.
We interpolate between temperatures of 260F and 270F to find:
3
= ( ) (10.066 11.768) + 11.768 = 11.257, = 0.017
10
From the given information we calculate:
50
3
= =
= 5.0
10

The quality is found as:


5 = 0.017 + (11.257 0.017) = 0.4433
QUESTION 18.
The initial specific volume is found as:
3

Since the vessel is rigid, the specific volume does not change. Hence the specific volume at a
pressure of 400 kPa is also 0.07994. We can then find the quality as follows:
= + ( ) = 0.00118 + 0.8(0.09963 0.00118) = 0.07994

0.07994 = 0.0011 + (0.4625 0.0011) = 0.1709


The total mass of water is: =

= 0.07994 = 62.55

The mass of vapor: = = (0.1709)(62.55) = 10.69

QUESTION 19.
We will assume the volume to remain constant a the temperature increases.
1
2
=
1
2
2 = 1

(200 + 14.7)(144)
2
= (70 + 460)
= 2080 1620
(40 + 14.7)(144)
1

QUESTION 20.
The work is given by:
= = (2 1 ) = (2 1 )
To evaluate work we must know, v1 and v2.
3

From the superheated table we locate state 2 at T2 = 400C and P2 = 0.2 MPa; v2 = 1.549 m3/kg.
1 = + ( ) = 0.001061 + 0.2(0.8857 0.001061) = 0.1780

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

591

The work is then:


= (1)(200)(1.549 0.1780) = 274.2
QUESTION 21.
The work is found from:
2

2
2
Where, we have used PV =C. To calculate the work we must find C and V2. The constant C is
found from
= 1 1 = (200)(2) = 400
To find V2 we use, P2V2 = P1V1, the equation that would result from an isothermal process
involving an ideal gas. This can be written as:
(200)(2)
2 =
= 43
100
The work done is:
4
400
ln 4
=
= 400
= 277
2
2
QUESTION 22.
The drag force is:
1
= 1.23 252 2.3 0.2 = 177
2
To move this drag force at 25 m/s, the engine must do the work at the rate:
= = 177 25 = 4425
The horsepower is:
4425
= 5.93
746 /
= =

QUESTION 23.
The total resistance to heat flow through the wall is:
= + = 2 + 0.5 = 2.5 2 . /
The heat transfer rate is then:
=

103
40 = 480
2.5

QUESTION 24.
The heat transfer is:
= ( )
3 106 = 10 4(1)2 ( 25) 3600 = 31.6
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

592

QUESTION 25.
The work is given by:
=
For the isothermal process, the equation of state allows us to write
= =
Since the mass m, the gas constant R and the temperature T are all constant. Therefore,
2

= 1 1
1

100
10
= (50)(144) (
) ln (
) = 959

1728
100

QUESTION 26.
By assumption, Q = 0, with PE = KE =0, the first law becomes, -W = U
The work input is:

= (5)(1) (746 ) (3600 ) = 1.343 107

The negative sign results because the work is input to the system. Finally the internal energy
increase is:
= ( 1.343 107 ) = 1.343 107
QUESTION 27.
The enthalpy change is found to be:
2

700

= = 3
1

300

[2.07 +

400
] = 2565
1480

QUESTION 28.
The first law may be written as:
= (2 1 ) = (2 2 )
To find m we use the ideal gas equation. It gives us:

400,0000.02
=
=
= 0.0863
(287)(273 + 50)
From the first law the paddle-wheel work is found to be:
= (2 2 ) = 50 (0.0863)(1.00)(700 50) = 6.095

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

593

QUESTION 29.
The energy equation in the form:
(2 1 )
200
(0.025)2 (0.08643)
1

= 1 1 1 =
1 1 =
4.544
1
0.08643

The enthalpies are found from the table:

1 = 3445.2
, 2 = 2665.7

The maximum power output is then:

(2665.7 3445.2)(4.544) = 3542 , 3.542

QUESTION 30.
The energy equation is:
(1 2 ) = (1 2 )
Using the given values, and using steam tables:
100(1.25)(450 350) = (2792.8 88.7)
= 4.623

QUESTION 31.
For an insulated room (Q=0), the first law provides:
=

= (2) (0.746
) (1800 ) = 2686

QUESTION 32.
Conservation of energy requires that the energy lost by the copper block is gained by the water.
This is expressed as:
, () = , ()
Using the values from the tables in FE-Reference handbook
(5)(0.30)(300 2 ) = (0.02)(1000)(4.18)(2 0)
Solving for T2:
2 = 6.84

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

594

QUESTION 33.
The work is zero for this constant volume process. The first law gives:
= = =

( 1 )
2

The ideal gas PV = mRT allows us to write:


1 2 200 800
=
;
=
; 2 = 1292
1 2 323
2
The heat transfer is given by:
(200)(2)
(3.116)(1292 323) = 1800
=
(2.077)(323)
QUESTION 34.
The final temperature in the adiabatic process is:
1.41

2 1
10,000 1.4
2 = 1 [ ] = (373) (
)
= 1390
1
100
The work is found by using the first law with Q = 0
= = (2 1 ) = (0.717)(1390 373) = 729 /
QUESTION 35.
The heat transfer rate for the steam is assuming no pressure drop through the condenser is:
= (2 1 ) = 600(94.02 1116.1) = 613,200 /
The energy is gained by the water. Hence:
= (2 1 ) = 613,200 = (1.00); = 40,880 /
QUESTION 36.
For a Carnot refrigerator:

1
=
=

For the first situation, we have

293
1 = ( 1 ) = (
1) = 0.0933

268
For the second situation:
293
2 = (
1) = 0.181
248

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

595

The percentage increase in work is then:


2 1 0.181 0.0933
=
100 = 94%
1
0.0933
QUESTION 37.
The maximum possible efficiency is:

293
=1
= 0.2038

368
Assuming the water is rejected at atmospheric temperature. The rate of heat transfer from the
energy source is:
= = (0.2)(4.18)(95 20) = 62.7
The maximum power output is:
= = (0.2038)(62.7) = 12.8
=1

QUESTION 38.
The efficiencies of the two engines are:

560
; 2 = 1
1060

Where T is the unknown intermediate temperature in R. It is given that:


1 = 1

1 = 2 + 0.22
Substituting for 1 2 we have:

560
= 1.2[1
]
1060

2 + 212 712,320 = 0; = 744.6 285


1

QUESTION 39.
The efficiency of a heat engine is given by:

273
=
=
= 1092
1 1 0.75
= 1

The COP for the refrigerator:


=

273
=
= 0.333

1092 273

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

596

QUESTION 40.
The COP for a refrigerator is given by:
=

Requiring that the two COPs be equal gives:


293

=
293 473
2 = 138589; = 100
QUESTION 41.
To determine the final state of the process we use the energy equation, assuming zero heat
transfer. We have W = U = mCpT. The mass m is found from the deal-gas equation as:
(200)(2)

=
=
= 4.76
(0.287)(293)
From the first law, taking the paddle wheel work as negative is then:
720 = (4.76)(0.717)(2 293), 2 = 504
For the constant volume process:
2
504
= ln = (4.76)(0.717) ln (
) = 1.851 /
1
293
QUESTION 42.
The first law can be applied with zero heat transfer to give
= = (2 1 )
The temperature T2 is found from:
1.41
1.4

2 1
140
2 = 1 [ ] = 623 (
)
1
1200

= 337

The work is:


(0.717(623 337) = 205 /

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

597

QUESTION 43.
The entropy of the steam which defines our system decreases since the heat is transferred from
the systems to the surroundings. From the steam tables this change is found to be:

The heat transfer to the surrounds occurs at constant temperature. Hence the entropy change of
the surrounds is:

=
=

The heat transfer for the constant-pressure process is:


= = 2(3270.2 670.6) = 5199
= (2 1 ) = (2)(1.9316 7.7086) = 11.55

Giving =

5199
298

= 17.45

= + = 17.45 11.55 = 5.90

QUESTION 44.
The efficiency of the engine is given by:

373
= 1
=1
= 0.7070

1273
The high-temperature heat transfer is then:

100
=
=
= 141.4

0.7070
The low-temperature heat transfer is:
= = 141.4 100 = 41.4
The entropy change of reservoirs are then
(141.4)(20)(60)

=
=
= 133.3

1273

(41.4)(20)(60)


=
=
=
= 133.2 /

373
The net entropy change of the two reservoirs is zero.
=

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

598

QUESTION 45.
The initial temperature is:
1 =

1 1 (200)(0.8)
=
= 278.7
(2)(0.287)

The entropy change can be found:


2
273

= [ ln ln(1)] = 2(1.00) ln
= 2.040
1
278.7

QUESTION 46.
The air mass is:
=

(600)(200 106 )
=
= 0.001427
(0.287)(293)

The final temperature is found using ideal gas:


1 2
1000
= (293) (
) = 1465
1
200
The heat transfer (constant pressure process):
2 =

= (2 1 ) = (0.001427(1465 293) = 1.672

QUESTION 47.
For a cycle, the work output equals the net heat input so that:
=
500 = (275.6 45.8)(2 3.0273), 2 = 5.203 /
The s2 is the entropy at the end of the isothermal expansion. Using the values of sf and sfg at
6MPa,we have:
5.203 = 3.0273 + 2.8627 2
Therefore the quality is 0.760
QUESTION 48.
The exit state is at the same entropy as the inlet. This allows us to determine the exit quality as
follows:
2 = 1 = 7.1685 = 0.6491 + 7.50192 ; 2 = 0.8690
The exit enthalpy is:
2 = + 2
= 191.8 + (0.8690)(2392.8) = 2271 /
The power output is:
= (2 1 ) = (2)(2271 3658.4) = 2774
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

599

QUESTION 49.
An isentropic compression requires the minimum power input for an adiabatic compressor. The
outlet temperature for such process is:
2 1
10000 0.2857

2 = 1 [ ]
= 293 (
)
= 1092
1
100
To find the mass flux, we must know the density.

100

=
=
= 1.189 3
(0.287)(293)

The mass flux is then


20

= = (1.189) ( ) = 0.3963
60

The minimum power requirement is:


= (2 1 ) = (0.3963)(1.00)(1092 293) = 317
QUESTION 50.
The compression ratio of 8 allows us to calculate:
1
2 = 1 [ ]1 = 293(8)0.4 = 673.1
2
The heat supplied is then:
= (3 2 ) = 0.717 (1773 673.1) = 788.6

The mass of air in six cylinders is:


1 1 (100)(600106 )
=
=
= 0.004821
(0.287)(293)
1
The heat supplied per cycle is:
= = (0.004281)(788.6) = 3.376
QUESTION 51.
Assuming isentropic compression and expansion, we find:
3 1
3 = 2 [ ] = 263(10)0.2857 = 508
2
1 1
1 0.2857
1 = 4 [ ] = (303) ( )
= 157
4
10
The COP now calculated as:
= (2 1 ) = (1.00)(263 157) = 106 /
= (3 2 ) = (1.00)(508 263) = 245 /

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

600

= (4 1 ) = (1.00)(303 157) = 146 /


=

106
=
= 1.07
245 106

QUESTION 52.
To find the partial pressures we need the mole fraction. The moles of nitrogen and CO2 are:
1
2
=
= 0.0714
1 28
2
4
2 =
=
= 0.0909
2 44

1 =

Total moles N = 0.1623 moles


The mole fractions are:
1 =

1 0.0714
=
= 0.440
0.1623

The partial pressure of nitrogen is:


1 = 1 = (0.44)(2) = 0.88
QUESTION 53.
The heat transfer needed is given by the first law (the work is zero for a rigid tank)
= = =
= 1 ,1 + 2 ,2 + 3 ,3 = (0.2)(0.177) + (0.4)(0.158) + (0.4)(0.157) = 0.161
= (20)(0.161)(300 80) = 708
QUESTION 54.
The reaction equation for theoretical air is:
4 10 + 6.6(2 + 3.762 ) 42 + 52 + 24.442
The air to fuel ratio for theoretical air is:
(6.5)(4.76)(29)

=
=
= 15.47
(1)(58)


This represents 100% theoretical air. The actual air-fuel ratio is 20. The excess air is then:

20 15.47
% =
100 =
100 = 29.28%

15.47

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

601

QUESTION 55.
The problem is solved assuming that there is 100 moles of dry products. The chemical equation
is:
4 10 + (2 + 3.762 ) 2 + 1 + 3.52 + 84.52 + 2
We perform the following balances:
: 4 = 11 + 1, = 3
: 10 = 2, = 15
: 2 = 22 + 1 + 7 + ; = 22.5
Dividing through the chemical equation by the value of a so that we have 1 mol of fuel:
14 10 + 7.5(2 + 3.762 ) 3.672 + 0.33 + 1.172 + 28.172 + 52
The air-fuel ratio is:
% = (

7.5
) 100 = 108%
6.5

QUESTION 56.
The stoichiometric equation is:
2 6 + 3.5(2 + 3.762 ) 22 + 32 + 6.582
The required combustion is:
2 6 + 5(2 + 3.762 ) 22 + 32 + 18. 2 + 1.52
The excess air since the actual reaction used 5 mol of oxygen rather than 3.5 mol. The percent
excess air is:
% =

5 3.5
100% = 42.9%
3.5

QUESTION 57
The heat transfer per unit area is given by:

2 1
0.19(21 38)

= (
)=
= 80.75 2

2 1
0.04

QUESTION 58
The heat transfer rate per unit surface area:

= ( ) = 225(120 10) = 24,750 2

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

602

QUESTION 59
The heat transfer rate is:

= ( )

The surface area:


0.5
1.0
)(
) = 104 2
100 100

3103
= +
= 50 +
= 50 + 3.33 = 53.33

9 104
2(

QUESTION 60
The heat transfer rate per unit area is given by:

1 3
1250 310

=
=
= 1495 2
0.2 0.03

1.0 + 0.07
+
The interfacial temperature can be found using:
1 2

=
; 2 = 1

0.2
= 1250 1495 ( ) = 951 678
1.0
QUESTION 61
The heat transfer per unit area of a composite wall is:

400 50

=
= 920.95 2
2
2
2
0.510
0.2510
2.010

[ 249 + 0.166 +
]
0.0548
QUESTION 62
The heat transfer per unit length is given by:

2(370 305)
2(65)

=
=
= 18.04
1
6.7
1
10.1

[0.07 ln ( ) + 0.048 ln ( 6.7 )) 14.08 + 8.55


2.5
The interfacial temperature desired is T2:
2(0.07)(370 2 )
18.04 =
; 2 = 329.6
6.7
ln( )
2.5
QUESTION 63
The heat transfer per unit length is given by:

2 1
= 2

ln(2 )
1

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

603

295 305
= 2(367) (
) = 39.20 /
1.8
ln (1.0)
QUESTION 64
The heat transfer per unit area is:


70 20

=
=
= 31.25
1
1
1 0.5
1

2
+
+
[2 + 0.50 + 10]
QUESTION 65
The heat transfer from the water is given by:
=
= (0.166)(4.180)(50 40) = 6.967103
The log-mean temperature difference is given by:
2 1
=
ln(2 /1 )
1 = 50 6 = 44; 2 = 40 12 = 28
28 44
= 35.4
28
ln (44)
6.967103
=
= 0.231 2
850 35.4

=
=

QUESTION 66
The total heat transfer to the water is:
=

= (60
= 108,000
60 1.0

min) (
)(
) (95 65)

The log-mean temperature difference is given by:


2 1
=
ln(2 /1 )
1 = 200 95 = 105; 2 = 140 65 = 75
75 105
=
= 89.16
75
ln (
)
105
FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla
www.licensingexamprep.com

604

108,000

=
=
= 24.23 2

50
89.16
. 2
QUESTION 67
The heat exchanger ratio may be written as:

=
= 1.10 =


1.10
The fouling factor is given by:
=

1.10
1
0.10

QUESTION 68
The total heat transfer to the water is:
= , = (0.75

) (4.18
) = 3.14

The heat transfer from oil is:


, = (1.5

) (1.88
) = 2.82

.
.

2.82
=
= 0.90
3.14
=

340 13
=
= 1.57

2.82

QUESTION 69
=1 =1

450
900

= 0.386
2200 2200

QUESTION 70
= 4
= 5.6697 108

(1273)4 = 148 967 2 = 149 2


2
4

FE-CBT-Mechanical/Dr. Sri Susarla


www.licensingexamprep.com

Вам также может понравиться