PHILIPPINE ASSOCIATION OF COLLEGES OF PHARMACY

(PACOP)
REFRESHER PROGRAM
Batch 14 2013

MODULE 6
MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY WITH PUBLIC HEALTH
PRE-TEST
A 1. A statement of the steps required to establish a microorganism as the cause of a disease
A. Kochs postulates
D. Control of microbial growth
B. Growth curve
E. Sterilization
C. Phagocytosis
C 2. The outermost covering of Mycoplasma is referred to as ___
A. Periplasmic space
D. Cell wall
B. Capsule
E. Mycolic acid
C. Plasma membrane
C 3. Area in a prokaryotic cell where DNA are found
A. Nucleus
D. Nucleolus
B. Golgi apparatus
E. Cytoskeleton
C. Nucleoid
C 4. Flagellar arrangement of Spirillum serpens
A. Monotrichous
D. Axial filament
B. Peritrichous
E. Lophotrichous
C. Amphitrichous
A 5. The transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact
A. Conjugation
D. Sporulation
B. Mitosis
E. Budding
C. Binary fission
C 6. This process results in the reproduction of a living prokaryotic cell by division into two parts that each have
the potential to grow to the size of the original cell
A. Conjugation
D. Sporulation
B. Mitosis
E. Budding
C. Binary fission
B 7. Primary stain in endospore staining
A. Carbolfuchsin
D. Nigrosin
B. Malachite green
E. Safranin
C. Methylene blue
B 8. The anaerobic conversion of sugar to carbon dioxide and alcohol by a microorganism
A. Carbon dioxide fixation
D. Protein denaturation
B. Fermentation
E. Disinfection
C. Incubation
A 9. An organism whose cells contain complex structures enclosed within membranes:
A. Protozoa
D. Mycoplasma
B. Virus
E. Methanogens
C. Prions
A 10. The protein shell of a virus
A. Capsid
D. Capsule
B. Cell wall
E. Cell membrane
C. Bacteriophage
A 11. What method of identification uses bacteria spread over the surface of an agar plate and allowed to
grow?
A. Kirby-Bauer
D. Western blotting
B. Serology
E. Electrophoresis
C. Phage typing
D 12. General term referring to an infectious microorganism that is normally a commensal or does not harm its
host but can cause disease when the hosts resistance is low
A. Parasite
D. Opportunistic pathogen
B. Saprophyte
E. Normal flora
C. Symbionts
D 13. All of the following structures are used for cell motility, except:
A. Flagella
D. Fimbriae

B. Pseudopods
E. None of the above
C. Cilia
D 14. Human or animal serum containing antibodies that are specific for one or more antigens
A. Toxoid
D. Antitoxin
B. Interleukin
E. Antisera
C. Vaccines
E 15. Long fatty acids that bind strongly to Carbolfuchsin
A. N-acetylglucosamine
D. N-acetylmuramic acid
B. Pseudomurein
E. Mycolic acid
C. Lipid A
B 16. It is an indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host:
A. Virulence
C. Attenuation
B. Pathogenicity
D. In vitro growth rates
17. It refers to the killing of many, but not all, microorganisms:
A. Sterilization
C. Antisepsis
B. Disinfection
D. Asepsis
18. It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice:
A. Chlorine
C. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Merthiolate
D. Iodine
19. Drug of choice for Sporotrichosis:
A. Selenium sulfide
C. Silver sulfadiazine
B. Potassium iodide
D. Hydrogen peroxide
20. The smallest known free-living organisms are:
A. Viruses
C. Rickettsiae
B. Mycoplasma species
D. Chlamydiae
21. It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat-sensitive solutions:
A. Autoclave
C. Radiation
B. Filtration
D. Pasteurization
22. This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose mother
has Gonorrhoea:
A. Merthiolate
C. Silver sulfadiazine
B. Mercurochrome
D. Silver nitrate
23. The DPT vaccine is composed of which of the following:
A. Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat killed Bordetella pertussis
B. Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat killed Bordetella pertussis
D. Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
24. The following structures normally contain microbial flora, except:
A. Teeth
D. Skin
B. Urethra
E. None of the above
C. Bronchi
25. They mediate the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the
necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms:
A. Flagella
C. Capsule
B. Fimbriae
D. Endospores
26. The following are true for endospores, except:
A. Highly resistant to disinfectants
B. Can survive for many years, especially in soil
C. Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation
D. Killed by heating at 100oC
E. None of the above
27. The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity
occurs but cells do not divide:
A. Stationary phase
C. Lag phase
B. Exponential phase
D. Death phase
28. It is the relationship between the host and the normal microbiota
A. Disease
C. Symbiosis
B. Infection
D. Parasitism
29. Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time, therefore it is:
A. Acute
C. Chronic
B. Subacute
D. Latent
30. Bacteria lack all of the following, except:
A. Mitochondria
D. DNA
B. Nucleus
E. None of the above
C. Mitotic apparatus
31. Cause paralysis by blocking the release of acetylcholine:
A. Diphtheria toxin
D. TSS toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
E. Cholera toxin

C. Botulinum toxin
32. These are DNA-cutting enzymes found in bacteria
A. DNA polymerase
D. Catalase
B. Bacterial kinases
E. Restriction enzymes
C. Nucleases
33. A substance capable of deepening the reaction of a specimen to a stain
A. Primary stain
D. Counterstain
B. Mordant
E. Decolorizer
C. Special stain
34. These are enzymes that catalyze the formation of sequences of DNA or RNA using an existing strand of
DNA or RNA as a template
A. DNA/RNA gyrase
D. Lecithinase
B. Polymerase
E. Hyaluronidase
C. Collagenase
35. Which of the following materials can fix a smear on a slide?
A. Methanol
D. Methylene blue
B. Formaldehyde
E. Grams Iodine
C. Acetone-alcohol solution
For numbers 36-40: Classify the following as either DNA or RNA virus
Key Choices:

A. RNA virus

B. DNA virus

36. Picornavirus
37. Arenavirus
38. Hepadnavirus
39. Adenovirus
40. Paramyxovirus
For numbers 41-45: Classify the following Cephalosporins
Key Choices:

A. 4th generation
B. 3rd generation

C. 2nd generation
D. 1st generation

41. Cefprozil
42. Cefoxitin
43. Cefazoline
44. Cefdinir
45. Cefalexin
For numbers 41-45: Classify the following Quinolones
Key Choices:
46. Nalidixic acid
47. Moxifloxacin
48. Levofloxacin
49. Gatifloxacin
50. Norfloxacin

A. 4th generation
B. 3rd generation

C. 2nd generation
D. 1st generation

Answer key
1.