2016 01 02 16 47 46 PDF

MAJOR TEST(MT)
Code
(JEE ADVANCED PATTERN)

TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2016
PAPER-1
P18-15
Date : 31-12-2015
COURSE : VISHWAAS (JF)
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks : 240
1.
2.
The sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are instructed to do so.
The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and the right hand top corner of the
back cover of this booklet.
Use the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the question.
Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
Write your Name and Roll Number in the space provided on the below cover.
After the open booklet, verify that the booklet contains all the 60 questions along with the options are legible.
3.
4.
5.
6.
QUESTION PAPER FORMAT AND MARKING SCHEME :

7.
8.
9.
The question paper has three parts : Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry. Each part has two sections.
Carefully read the instructions given at the beginning of each section.
Section 1 contains 15 multiple choice questions with one or more than one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 2 in all other cases.
10.
Section 2 contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both
inclusive).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 1 in all other cases.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

11.
12.
13.
14.
Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.

The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS.
Write your name, roll number and the name of the examination centre and sign with pen in the space provided for
this purpose on the original. Do not write any of these details anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble
under each digit of your roll number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

15. Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet.
16. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
17. Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer.
18.
The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here :
19.
20.
There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened bubble.

The marking scheme given at the beginning of each section gives details of how darkened and not darkened
bubbles are evaluated.
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : ..

ROLL NO. : ..
I have read all the instructions
and shall abide by them
------------------------Signature of the Candidate
I have verified the identity, name and roll number

of the candidate.
------------------------Signature of the Invigilator
Resonance Eduventures Ltd.

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P18.1
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DO NOT BREAK THE SEAL WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
GENERAL %
MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1 : (Maximum Marks : 60)
This section contains FIFTEEN questions
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS
Marking scheme :
+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened
0 f none of the bubbles is darkened
2 In all other cases
1.
If the line x = y = z intersect the planes b2 x + (2 4a)y + z = 1 and a2 x + (1 2b) y + z = 1, at

the same point then the all possible values of a and b are
(A) a = 1
2.
(B) a = 2
2
(D) b = 2
2
If a, b are the roots of x + px + 1 = 0 and c, d are the roots of x + qx + 1 = 0 then

(a c)(b c)(a + d)(b + d) is divisible by
(A) a + b + c + d
(B) a + b c d
3.
(C) b = 1
(C) a b + c d
(D) a b c d
The co-ordinates of the points A and B are represented by (3, 2) and (2, 3) respectively. P and Q
are point on the line joining A and B such that AP = PQ = QB. A square PQRS is constructed on
PQ as one side, the co-ordinates of R can be
4 7
(A) ,
3 3
13
(B) 0,
3
1 8
(C) ,
3 3
2
(D) ,1
3
Space for Rough Work
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P1JFMTADV311215C0-1
MATHEMATICS
PART : I MATHEMATICS
4.
The equation of tangent at P(4, 3) on the parabola whose axis parallel to x-axis is 2y x 2 = 0 then
(A) slope of focal chord through P is
4
3
(B) The equation of focal chord through P is 4x 3y = 7

(C) slope of focal chord through P is
4
3
(D) the equation of focal chord through P is 4x + 3y + 7 = 0
5.
If z0, z1 represent points P, Q on the locus |z 1| = 1 and the line segment PQ subtends an angle
at the point z = 1 then z1 is equal to :

2
(A) 1 + i(z0 1)
6.
(B)
i
z0 1
(C) 1 i (z0 1)
(D) i(z0 1)
tan |x| = |tan x| if
(2k 1)
(A) x
, k k N
2
(2k 1)
(B) x k,
k N
2
(2k 1)
(C) x k,
k N
2
(2k 1)
(D) x
, k k N
2
P1JFMTADV311215C0-2
MATHEMATICS
MATHEMATICS
MATHEMATICS
8.
In a triangle ABC, if cosA + 2cosB + cosC = 2, then :

(A) tan
A
C
tan = 3
2
2
(B) cot
(C) cot
A
C
B
cot = 2cot
2
2
2
(D) a, b, c are in A.P.
If
MATHEMATICS
7.
A
C
cot = 3
2
2
1
< [|x| 1] 1 then which of the following is/are real (where [ ] represent greatest integer
2
function)
1
(A) sin x
9.
(B) tan x
(C) sec x
(D) cos x
If function f(x) = | 3 x 31 x | 2 and g(x) = tan x. Then domain of fog(x) is m, m 1 m 1 ,m 3 ,

4
4
4
then m can be :
(A) k +
1
,k
4
(B) k
1
, k
4
(C) k +
1
, k
2
(D) k
1
,
2
P1JFMTADV311215C0-3
10.
1
1
If f(x) is a polynomial function satisfying the condition f(x). f = f(x) + f , x R {0} and f(2) = 9,
x

x
then :
(A) 2f(4) = 3f(6)
11.
(C) 9f(3) = 2f(5)
(D) f(10) = f(11)
Which of the following function (s) has/have the same range ?
(A) f(x) =
12.
(B) 14f(1) = f(3)
1
1 x
(B) f(x) =
1
1 x2
(C) f(x) =
1
1 x
(D) f(x) =
1
3x
cos x x 2n sin(x 1)
If f(x) = lim
, n N, then f(x) is
n
1 x 2n 1 x 2n
(A) continuous at x = 0
(B) continuous at x = 1
(C) discontinuous at x = 1
(D) continuous everywhere
P1JFMTADV311215C0-4
MATHEMATICS
MATHEMATICS
13.
(A) f(x) is increasing in (,0)

(B) f(x) is increasing in 0,
2

(C) f(x) is increasing in ,
2
(D) In (, ) maximum value of f(x) is
14.
Let I =
[e[x ] ] dx, where [ ] denotes greatest integer function, then :
100
(A) = 0, if b < 0
15.
(B) = b, if 0 < b < 1
(C) = 2b, if 1 < b < 2
(D) only (A) and (B)
The area enclosed by the curve xy = 4(2 x) and y-axis is sq. unit, then
(A) is fundamental period of g(x) = cos(cos x) + sin(cos x)
(B) || 8
(C) is period of sin
2
(D) =
x
2
8 4x
dx
x
P1JFMTADV311215C0-5
MATHEMATICS
MATHEMATICS
tan1(tan x) x 0
f(x) =
x0
1 2
cot (cot x) x 0
16.
This section contains FIVE questions

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS
Marking scheme :
+4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened
1 2 2
If 3A = 2 1 2 and AA = , then x + y + 7 is equal to.
x 2 y
17.
The number of ways in which a nine digit number can be made in which 1, 2 are always included
( !) 65
and are in order and repetition of digits is not allowed, is
, then is equal to
2
18.
The probability that atleast one of the events A, B happens is 0.6. If probability of their
simultaneously happening is 0.2, then 5(P (A) + P (B) ) is
19.
If 1 =
(2 x
0
20.
x 2 dx
3
)e x
, 2 =
e x dx
0 1 x and 2 = k1 , then value of [k] is (where [.] denotes G.I.F.)
1 1
8 8
If a chord of the circle x 2 y 2 4x 2y 5k 0 is trisected at the points , and , , then
3 3
3 3
k is equal to
P1JFMTADV311215C0-6
MATHEMATICS
MATHEMATICS
PHYSICS
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct
Marking scheme :
21.
Two cavities each of radius R/2 are cut from a uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R and
charge density . The centre O of the solid sphere is at (0, 0, 0) and the centres of the two
cavities cut are at (R/2, 0, 0) and ( R/2, 0, 0) respectively. Then choose the correct option(s)

OA .
3 0

OB .
(B) Electric field at all points inside cavity 2 is uniform and is equal to
3 0

OA .
(C) Electric field at A is equal to
4 0

OB .
(D) Electric field at B is equal to
4 0
(A) Electric field at all points inside cavity 1 is uniform and is equal to
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PHYSICS
PART - II : PHYSICS
PHYSICS
Voltage sensitivity of a DC voltmeter can be decreased by :

(A) Increasing the resistance (used for conversion into voltmeter) connected in the series with the
galvanometer
(B) Increasing the torsional stiffness of the torsional spring used in galvanometer
(C) Increasing the magnetic field in the galvanometer
(D) Decreasing the number of turns in the coil of galvanometer
23.
When an electron in hydrogen like atom jumps from a higher energy level to a lower energy level.
(A) Angular momentum of the electron remains constant
(B) Kinetic energy of electron increases
(C) Wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with motion of the electron decreases
(D) None of these
24.
Which of the following statements is/are correct for an x-ray tube ?

(A) On increasing potential difference between filament and target, photon flux of x-rays increases
(B) On increasing potential difference between filament and target, frequency of x-rays increases
(C) On increasing filament current, cutoff wavelength increases
(D) On increasing filament current intensity of x-rays increases
P1JFMTADV311215C0-8
PHYSICS
22.
PHYSICS
Figure shows a LCR circuit connected with a dc battery of emf and internal resistance R. After
PHYSICS
25.
a long time (initially the capacitor was uncharged):
(A) Current through the inductor is
8R
(B) Charge stored in the capacitor is
C
4
(C) Charge stored in the capacitor is
C
2
(D) Potential difference across the terminals of battery is
26.
10 electrons are non uniformly distributed on the circumference of non-conducting ring. At any
point on the axis (passing through the centre and normal to the plane of ring) of the ring
(A) Electric field must be along the axis
(B) Electric field may be along the axis
(C) Electric potential does not depend upon the distribution of electrons on the ring
(D) Electric potential is smaller than that of at the centre of the ring
P1JFMTADV311215C0-9
27.
Figure shows a long conducting rod AB which can move on fixed smooth rails. A uniform magnetic
field of magnitude
3 T exists perpendicular to the plane of paper and directed inwards. Initially
the long conducting rod AB is at the corner P (x = 0) of long conducting rails at rest. If the rod is
moved towards right side with a constant acceleration
3 m/s2
then, select the correct
option/options.
(A) Ratio of induced emf at t = 1 sec. and t = 10 sec. is
1
.
1000
(B) Magnetic flux through the loop is proportional to square of time.

(C) Magnetic flux through the loop is proportional to fourth power of time.
(D) At t = 2 sec induced emf is 24 volt.
P1JFMTADV311215C0-10
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
Select the correct alternative/alternatives :
PHYSICS
28.
(A) Current in circuit = 2 sin [100 (sec ) t 37] Ampere.

(B) Average power consumption in the circuit is 8 Watt.
(C) Power factor of circuit is
4
.
5
(D) Resonance frequency of circuit is less than 50 Hz.
29.
A hydrogen atom in a state having a binding energy of 0.85 eV, makes a transition to a state with
an excitation energy of 10.2 eV. Choose correct options :
(A) Energy of emitted photon is 2.55 eV.
(B) Jump takes place from n = 4 to n = 2
(C) Energy of emitted photon is 10.2 eV.
(D) Jump takes place from n = 2 to n = 1
PHYSICS
Consider three fixed surfaces shown in the figure. Three blocks each of mass m are released from
rest from top of the three surfaces. All blocks reach ground with same speed. Length of path
travelled by the blocks is same for second and third surface. If coefficient of friction of three
surfaces are 1, 2 and 3 respectively then
(A) 1 = 2
31.
(B) 1 > 2
(C) 2 = 3
(D) 2 < 3
Consider a fixed and rough inclined plane of inclination 37. Two block A and B each of mass 5 kg
placed on it and a time deepened force F= 10t + 8 acting along the surface of inclined plane as
shown in figure. Then which of the following options is/are true : (F is in Newton and t is in second)
(A) At t = 0 friction force on block B is 32 N

(B) Friction force on block B is zero at t = 3.2 sec.
(C) minimum tension in string is zero.
(D) friction force on block A is 18 N downward at t = 7.2 sec.
PHYSICS
30.
32.
Two masses m and 2 m are placed in a fixed horizontal circular hollow tube as shown. The
mass m is moving with speed u and the mass 2 m is stationary. The time instants at which the
particles will collide are : (coefficient of restitution e = 1/2)
(A)
33.
r
2u
(B)
9r
2u
(C)
3 r
(D)
4r
u
A particle starts moving from the origin & moves along positive x-direction. Its rate of change of
kinetic energy with time shown on y-axis varies with time t as shown in the graph. If position,
velocity, acceleration & kinetic energy of the particle at any time t are x, v, a & k respectively then
which of the option (s) may be correct ?
(A)
(B)
k
(C)
(D)
x
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
34.
All pulleys are light & smooth, strings are light & inextensible. Consider the case when M =
(see figure) choose correct options
(A) Acceleration of m is g upward
(B) Net force on m is mg/3 upward
(C) Tension in the string connecting M is
35.
4mg
9
(D) Tension in the string connecting m is 2 mg
A small ball of mass m is released from rest at a height h1 above ground at time t = 0. At time t = t0,
the ball again comes to rest at a height h2 above ground. Consider the ground to be perfectly rigid
and neglect air friction. In the time interval from t = 0 to t = t0, pick up the correct statements.
(A) Work done by gravity on ball is mg(h1 h2)
(B) Work done by gravity on ball is mg(h2 h1)
(C) Average acceleration of the ball is zero.
(D) Net work done on the ball by all forces except gravity is mg (h2 h1).
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
Marking scheme :
36.
A uniform solid hemisphere of mass m and radius R is attached to the roof with a chord of torsional
constant C and performing torsional SHM. Then the time period (in seconds) of SHM is
(Take m = 15 kg, R =
37.
2
m, C = 6 Nm/rad.)
A small block is projected up from the bottom of a fixed incline, inclined at 60 from the horizontal.
Coefficient of friction between the block & the incline is
3
. If the ratio of descending time to
2
ascending time is then find the value of ?

38.
Consider a L-R circuit shown in the figure. It was found that current through the inductor became
constant after a long time. Then the power supplied (in Watt) by battery to R after long time will be
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
39.
A block of mass 5 kg is held against a wall with a force of 100 N. as shown in figure. It is moved
horizontally slowly by applying a force parallel to the wall. Then the frictional force on the block due
2
to wall is 25x newton. Find x. (Given = 0.5 and g = 10 m/sec )
40.
An electron is moving in an orbit of a hydrogen atom from which there can be a maximum of six
transitions. An electron is moving in an orbit of another hydrogen atom from which there can be a
maximum of three transitions. If ratio of the speed of the electron in these two orbits is
a
(in lowest
b
form), then find the value of a + b. Here a and b are integer :
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct
Marking scheme :
0 f none of the bubbles is darkened
41.
A radioactive substance decays with a decay constant . If N nuclei are present in the beginning,
then identify the correct option(s):
(A) Number of nuclei left at time t = Ne t
(B) Number of nuclei decayed in average life-time = N (1-e)
(C) Fraction of nuclei remaining at average life-time =
N
e
(D) Half-life is independent of temperature.
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CHEMISTRY
PART - III : CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY
42.
The correct statements among the following is/are :
CHEMISTRY
(A) beryllium oxide is amphoteric in nature.

(B) MgO dissolves in NaOH.
(C) MgSO4 is water soluble.
(D) Berylium has diagonal relationship with alumunium.
43.
Which of the following are correct on basis of above ellingham diagram for carbon.
(A) Upto 710C, the reaction of formation of CO2 is energetically more favourable, but above
710C the formation of CO is preferred.
(B) In principle, carbon can be used to reduce any metal oxide at a sufficiently high temperature.
(C) S (C(s)+
1
CO(g)) < S (C(s) + O2(g)
CO2(g))
O2 (g)
2
(D) Reducing power of carbon is high at 1500 C than that at 710 C because G v/s temperature
line has a negative slope.
CHEMISTRY
2 moles of a mixture of O2 and O3 is reacted with excess of acidified solution of KI. The iodine
liberated require 1L of 2M hypo solution for complete reaction. The weight % of gases in the initial
sample is (A) 60
45.
(B) 40
(C) 80
(D) 20
The PV isotherm shown here may be applicable for
(A) a real gas

(B) vapor - liquid equilibrium of a pure substance
(C) vapor - liquid equilibrium of an ideal mixture of volatile liquids
(D) azeotropic liquid mixture
46.
10 ml of a sample of H2O2 solution liberates 112 ml of O2 gas at STP upon decomposition. Identify
the correct statement(s) :
(A) Normality of the above sample of H2O2 is 0.5 N
(B) 15 ml of the same sample of H2O2 solution liberates 224 ml of O2 gas at 1.5 atm and 273C
(C) Milliequivalents of hypo required for the titration of liberated I2 when 10 ml of the same sample
of H2O2 solution is treated with excess of acidified solution of KI are 20
(D) % (w/v) of given sample of H2O2 is 3.4 %.
CHEMISTRY
44.
CHEMISTRY
When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have
maximum kinetic energy (K.E)A and de-Broglie wavelength is A. The maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by photons of energy 4.7 eV is (KE)B, where
(KE)B = (KE)A 1.5 eV. If the de-Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is B (= 2A), then :
48.
(A) The work function of metal A is 2.25 eV
(B) The work function of metal B is 4.20 eV
(C) (KE)A = 2 eV
(D) (KE)B = 2.75 eV
Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process A to B as shown in VT diagram :
Then, which of the following statements is/are correct : [R is gas constant]

2
(A) For the given process PV = constant.

(B) For the given process
PA VA
PV
= B B
TA
TB
(C) For the process PAVA = PBVB.

(D) Molar heat capacity for gas =
R
.
2
CHEMISTRY
47.
CHEMISTRY
Consider the reactions shown below ;
CHEMISTRY
49.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct ?

(A) [X] is a yellow coloured precipitate.
(B) [X] is soluble in ammonia solution.
(C) [Y] gives green coloured solution with excess of sodium hydroxide solution.
2
(D) The conversion of Cr2O7

50.
to [Y] is an redox reaction.
The two projection formulae that represent a pair of enatiomers are:
HO
H
C2H5
CH3
CH3
Cl
Cl
C2H5
I
(A) I and III
OH
H
H 5 C2
HO
Cl
CH3
C2H5
II
(B) II and IV
Cl
OH
CH3
III
(C) I and II
IV
(D) III and IV
CHEMISTRY
Which of the compound will give the Tollen's test.

CH2OH
O
(A)
H
OH
H
OH
H
O
H
OH
52.
H
OH
OH
CH 2OH
(C)
CH2OH
O
H
CH2OH
OH
H
OH
OH
OH
OH
OH
H
OH
OH
OH
H
OH
CH2OH
(D)
CH2OH
O
H
CH2OH
O
(B)
H
OH
OH
CH2OH
O
H
OH
OH
CH2OH
O
H
H
H
O
H
OH
OCH3
OH
H H
OH
Select incorrect statement(s).

(A) Methoxy ethane give iodoethane with one equivalent anhydrous HI
(B) Order of basicity in aqueous medium MeNH2 < Me2NH < Me3N
(C) Optically active alkahol will show total retaintion of configuration during its reaction with SOCl2.
(D) S-2-bromobutane gives R-2-methyl butane nitrile with AgCN as major product.
CHEMISTRY
51.
CHEMISTRY
Which of the following produce chiral molecule after treatment with H2 Lindlar's catalyst?
(A)
54.
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which of the following will produce aromatic product.

Re dhot
(A) MeC CH
Fe tube
Al2 O 3
(B) n-Hexane
Cr2 O3 ,
NH2
CHCl3
(C)
55.
KOH
CHO
+ |
(D)
NH2
CHO
Which of the following will give yellow precipitate with NaOH / I2

(A) Ph CH M e
(B) CI3CHO
(C) Me C| | C|| Me
(D) EtOH
|
OH
O O
CHEMISTRY
53.
CHEMISTRY
Marking scheme :
CHEMISTRY

56.
Determine the moles of a real gas (molecular mass = 44) required to occupy 1.44 m volume at its
1
Boyle's temperature and 0.1 atm pressure. Take R = 0.082 L atm K mol .
2
Given : vander Waal constants 'a' and 'b' for the real gas are 1.2 atm L mol
and 0.05 L mol
respectively.
57.
Find the normality of 1M FeS 2 O 3 against alkaline KMnO 4 .
58.
When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C11H8O2) is dissolved in 50 g of benzene (Kf = 1.72 K kg mol ).
If the Van't Hof factor of naphthoic acid is 0.5 then the value of depression in freezing point (K) will
be :
CHEMISTRY
Identify number of correct statements.

(a) Rate of sulphonation of C6H6 & C6D6 will be equal.
OH
SO3H
(b) On treatment of
with Br2 / water (in excess) it results in a dibromo product.
(c) When HCOOEt is treated with MeMgBr in excess followed by hydrolysis it will results in the
formation of tertiary alcohol.
M e Cl
|
|
aq.KOH
Product. Product is enantiomer of the reactant.
(d) M eCH2 CH CH M e
2
SN
Optically pure
(e) Methane cannot be prepared by catalytic hydrogenation of alkene.

(f) All isomers of the formula C6H14 can be prepared by catalytic hydrogenation of alkene.
(g) All isomers of the formula C5H12 can be prepared by catalytic hydrogenation of alkene.
D
(h)
H2
Ni
product obtained show no optical rotation
60.
Dicoumarol (X) is an anticoagulant. Give the number of possible monochloro substituted isomeric
derivatives with Cl2 + AlCl3.
CHEMISTRY
59.

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If the line x = y = z intersect the planes b2 x + (2 4a)y + z = 1 and a2 x + (1 2b) y + z = 1, at

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Voltage sensitivity of a DC voltmeter can be decreased by :

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