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1. A pregnant client tells the clinic nurse that she wants to know the
sex of her baby as soon as it can be determined. The nurse
understands that the client should be able to find out at 12
weeks' gestation because by the end of the twelfth week the sex
of the fetus can be determined:
a.
b.
c.
d.
4. A client arrives at the clinic for the first prenatal assessment. The
client tells a nurse that the first day of her last menstrual period
was October 19, 2012. Using Naegele's rule, the nurse determines
the estimated date of confinement is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
5. A pregnant client asks a nurse in the clinic when she will be able
to begin to feel the fetus move. The nurse responds by telling the
mother that fetal movements will be noted between which of the
following weeks of gestation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6 and 8
8 and 10
10 and 12
16 and 20
10.
A nurse is instructing a pregnant client regarding measures to
increase iron in the diet. The nurse tells the client to consume
which food that contains the highest source of dietary iron?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Milk
Potatoes
Cantaloupe
Dark green leafy vegetables
11.
A pregnant adolescent client asks the nurse about the
menstrual cycle. The nurse describes the cycle and tells the
adolescent that its normal duration is about how many days?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14
28
30
45
12.
A nurse is reviewing the record of a pregnant client seen in
the health care clinic for the first prenatal visit. Which of the
following data, if noted on the client's record, would alert the
nurse that the client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Age of 35 years
History of syphilis
History of genital herpes
History of diabetes mellitus
13.
A pregnant client has been diagnosed with a vaginal infection
from the organism Candida albicans. Which of the following
findings would the nurse expect to note on assessment of the
client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14.
A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes
tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing
frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which of the following would the
nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stridor
Crackles
Scattered rhonchi
Diminished breath sounds
15.
A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions.
A nurse would place priority on assessment of which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sensation of palpitations
Causative factors, such as caffeine
Precipitating factors, such as infection
Blood pressure and oxygen saturation
16.
A nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who
returned to the surgical nursing unit 4 hours ago after undergoing
aortoiliac bypass graft. The affected leg is warm, and the nurse
notes redness and edema. The pedal pulse is palpable and
unchanged from admission. How would the nurse correctly
interpret the client's neurovascular status?
a. The neurovascular status is normal because of
increased blood flow through the leg.
b. The neurovascular status is moderately impaired, and the
surgeon should be called.
c. The neurovascular status is slightly deteriorating and should
be monitored for another hour.
d. The neurovascular status is adequate from an arterial
approach, but venous complications are arising.
17.
A client with angina complains that the anginal pain is
prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day,
most often at rest in the absence of precipitating factors. How
would the nurse best describe this type of anginal pain?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stable angina
Variant angina
Unstable angina
Nonanginal pain
18.
A clinic nurse is providing instructions to a client with
hypertension who will be taking captopril (Capoten). Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with varicose
veins in whom skin breakdown occurred over the varicosities as a
result of secondary infection. A priority intervention in the plan of
care is to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.
The clinic nurse is reviewing the assessment findings for a
client who has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) for
treatment of hypertension. Which of the following, if noted in the
client's record, would indicate that the client is experiencing a
side effect related to the medication?
a.
b.
c.
d.
21.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been hospitalized with a
diagnosis of angina pectoris. The client is receiving oxygen via
nasal cannula at 2 L/min. The client asks why the oxygen is
necessary. The nurse accurately explains that:
a. Oxygen has a calming effect.
b. Oxygen will prevent the development of any thrombus.
c. Oxygen dilates the blood vessels so they can supply more
nutrients to the heart muscle.
d. The pain of angina pectoris occurs because of a
decreased oxygen supply to heart cells.
22.
A nurse has an order to remove the nasogastric (NG) tube
from a client on the first postoperative day after cardiac surgery.
The nurse would question the prescription if which of the following
was noted on assessment of the client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
23.
A home health nurse is visiting an older client whose family
has gone out for the day. During the visit, the client experiences
chest pain that is unrelieved by three sublingual nitroglycerin
Parietal pericardium
Visceral pericardium
Myocardium
Endocardium
25.
A nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip
for a client. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR
interval is 0.14 second, and the QRS complexes measure 0.08
second. The overall heart rate is 82 beats/min. The nurse
interprets the cardiac rhythm to be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sinus bradycardia
Sick sinus syndrome
Normal sinus rhythm
First-degree heart block
26.
A nurse is teaching a client with cardiomyopathy about home
care safety measures. The nurse addresses which of the following
as the most important measure to ensure client safety?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Assessing pain
Avoiding over-the-counter medications
Administering vasodilators
Moving slowly from a sitting to a standing position
27.
A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) complains of a
headache. A nurse notes that the client has an increased blood
pressure, bounding pulse, jugular vein distention, and crackles
bilaterally. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing
which complication of PN therapy?
a. Sepsis
b. Air embolism
c. Hypervolemia
d. Hyperglycemia
28.
A nurse on the day shift walks into a client's room and finds
the client unresponsive. The client is not breathing and does not
have a pulse, and the nurse immediately calls out for help. The
next nursing action is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
29.
A nurse is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on
a 7-year-old child. The nurse delivers how many breaths per
minute to the child?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6
8
10
20
30.
A nurse caring for a client with a chest tube turns the client to
the side and the chest tube accidentally disconnects. The initial
nursing action is to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.
The nurse is administering fluids intravenously as prescribed
to a client who sustained superficial partial-thickness burn injuries
of the back and legs. In evaluating the adequacy of fluid
resuscitation, the nurse understands that which of the following
would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the
adequacy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vital signs
Urine output
Mental status
Peripheral pulses
32.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone
hydrochloride (Narcan) intravenously to a client with an
intravenous opioid overdose. Which supportive medical
equipment would the nurse plan to have at the client's bedside if
needed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nasogastric tube
Paracentesis tray
Resuscitation equipment
Central line insertion tray
33.
A client who had cardiac surgery 24 hours ago has a urine
output averaging 20 mL/hr for 2 hours. The client received a
single bolus of 500 mL of intravenous fluid. Urine output for the
subsequent hour was 25 mL. Daily laboratory results indicate that
the blood urea nitrogen level is 45 mg/dL and the serum
creatinine level is 2.2 mg/dL. Based on these findings, the nurse
would anticipate that the client is at risk for which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hypovolemia
Acute renal failure
Glomerulonephritis
Urinary tract infection
34.
A client in ventricular fibrillation is about to be defibrillated. A
nurse knows that to convert this rhythm effectively, the biphasic
defibrillator should be set at which of the following energy levels
(in joules, J)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
50 J
80 J
200 J
360 J
35.
A community health nurse is providing a teaching session to
firefighters in a small community regarding care of a burn victim
at the scene of injury. The nurse instructs the firefighters that in
the event of a tar burn, the immediate action should be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
36.
A nurse has developed a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective
airway clearance for a client who sustained an inhalation burn
injury. Which of the following nursing interventions should the
nurse include in the plan of care for this client?
a. Monitor oxygen saturation levels every 4 hours.
b. Encourage coughing and deep breathing every 4 hours.
Ability to swallow
Pain level
Lung sounds
Laboratory results
38.
A client is brought into the emergency department in
ventricular fibrillation (VF). The advanced cardiac life support
(ACLS) nurse prepares to defibrillate by placing conductive gel
pads on which part of the chest?
a. The upper and lower halves of the sternum
b. The right of the sternum, just below the clavicle and
to the left of the precordium
c. The right shoulder and the back of the left shoulder
d. Parallel between the umbilicus and the right nipple
39.
A nurse receives a telephone call from a neighbor, who states
that her 3-year-old child was found sitting on the kitchen floor
with an empty bottle of liquid furniture polish. The mother of the
child tells the nurse that the bottle was half full, that the child's
breath smells like the polish, and that spilled polish is present on
the front of the child's shirt. The nurse tells the mother to:
a. Call the poison control center.
b. Wait until the nurse comes to bring the child to the
emergency department.
c. Call the pediatrician.
d. Induce vomiting immediately.
40.
Which of the following should the nurse do when setting up an
arterial line?
a.
b.
c.
d.
41.
When communicating with a client who speaks a different
language, the best practice for a nurse is to:
a. Speak loudly and slowly.
b. Stand close to the client and speak loudly.
c. Arrange for an interpreter when communicating with
the client.
d. Speak to the client and family together to increase the
chances that the topic will be understood.
42.
An antihypertensive medication has been prescribed for a
client with hypertension. The client tells a clinic nurse that she
would like to take an herbal substance to help lower her blood
pressure. The nurse should take which appropriate action?
a. Tell the client that herbal substances are not safe and should
never be used.
b. Encourage the client to discuss the use of an herbal
substance with the physician.
c. Teach the client how to take her blood pressure so that it can
be monitored closely.
d. Tell the client that if she takes the herbal substance she will
need to have her blood pressure checked frequently.
43.
The nurse understands that which of the following statements
regarding herbal and health therapies is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
44.
A nursing student is discussing cultural diversity issues in a
clinical conference when the nursing instructor asks the student
to describe ethnocentrism. Which of the following statements, if
made by the student, would indicate a lack of understanding of
the concept of ethnocentrism?
a. "It is a tendency to view one's own ways as best."
b. "It is acting in a superior manner toward other cultures."
c. "It is believing that one's own way is the only acceptable
way."
d. "It is imposing one's beliefs on individuals from
another culture."
45.
A nurse is implementing the complementary therapy of
therapeutic touch when caring for clients. When performing
therapeutic touch, the nurse should:
a.
b.
c.
d.
46.
A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. In planning client
rounds, which client should the nurse assess first?
a.
b.
c.
d.
47.
A registered nurse is planning the client assignments for the
day. Which of the following is the most appropriate assignment for
a nursing assistant?
a.
b.
c.
d.
48.
The nurse determines that a client is having a transfusion
reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action
should immediately be taken next?
a.
b.
c.
d.
49.
The nurse manager is observing a new nursing graduate
caring for a burn client in protective isolation. The nurse manager
intervenes if the new nursing graduate planned to implement
which incorrect component of protective isolation technique?
a. Using sterile sheets and linens
b. Performing strict hand-washing technique
c. Wearing gloves and a gown only when giving direct
care to the client
d. Wearing protective garb, including a mask, gloves, cap, shoe
covers, gowns, and plastic apron
50.
The police arrive at the emergency department with a client
who has seriously lacerated both wrists. The initial nursing action
is to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
51.
A community health nurse is working with disaster relief after
a tornado. The nurse's goal for the community is to prevent as
much injury and death as possible from the uncontrollable event.
Finding safe housing for survivors, providing support to families,
organizing counseling, and securing physical care when needed
are all examples of which type of prevention?
a. Primary level of prevention
b. Secondary level of prevention
c. Tertiary level of prevention
d. Aggregate care prevention
52.
A nurse educator presents an in-service training session on
case management to nurses on the clinical unit. During the
presentation the nurse educator clarifies that a characteristic of
case management is that it:
a. Requires a case manager who plans the care for all of the
clients
b. Requires that one nurse take care of one client
c. Uses a team approach but one nurse supervises all of the
other employees
d. Promotes appropriate use of hospital personnel
53.
The emergency department nurse is caring for a child with
suspected epiglottitis and has ensured that the child has a patent
airway. The next priority in the care of this child would be which of
the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
54.
The nurse would instruct the nursing assistant to use an
electric razor for which of the following clients?
a. The postoperative client
56.
A clinic nurse is preparing to discuss the concepts of moral
development with a mother. The nurse understands that
according to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, in the preconventional level, moral development is thought to be motivated
by which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Peer pressure
Social pressures
Parents' behavior
Punishment and reward
57.
The mother of an 8-year-old child tells the clinic nurse that she
is concerned about the child because the child seems to be more
attentive to friends than anything else. Using Erikson's
psychosocial development theory, the appropriate nursing
response is which of the following?
a. "You need to be concerned."
b. "You need to monitor the child's behavior closely."
c. "At this age, the child is developing his own
personality."
d. "You need to provide more praise to the child to stop this
behavior."
58.
A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to present a
clinical conference to peers regarding Freud's psychosexual
stages of development, specifically the anal stage. The student
plans the conference, knowing that which of the following most
appropriately relates to this stage of development?
a. This stage is associated with toilet training.
b. This stage is characterized by the gratification of self.
c. This stage is characterized by a tapering off of conscious
biological and sexual urges.
60.
A nurse is evaluating the developmental level of a 2-year-old.
Which of the following does the nurse expect to observe in this
child?
a.
b.
c.
d.
61.
A mother arrives at a clinic with her toddler and tells a nurse
that she has a difficult time getting the child to go to bed at night.
Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest to
the mother?
a.
b.
c.
d.
62.
The mother of a 3-year-old is concerned because her child still
is insisting on a bottle at nap time and at bedtime. Which of the
following is the appropriate suggestion to the mother?
a.
b.
c.
d.
63.
The nurse is teaching an older client about measures to
prevent constipation. Which statement, if made by the client,
indicates that further teaching about bowel elimination is
necessary?
a. "I walk 1 to 2 miles every day."
65.
A clinic nurse provides information to the mother of a toddler
regarding toilet training. Which statement by the mother indicates
a need for further information regarding toilet training?
a. "Bladder control usually is achieved before bowel
control."
b. "The child should not be forced to sit on the potty for long
periods."
c. "The ability of the child to remove clothing is a sign of
physical readiness."
d. "The child will not be ready to toilet train until the age of
about 18 to 24 months."
66.
A nurse in the pediatric unit is admitting a 2-year-old child.
The nurse plans care, knowing that the child is in which stage of
Erikson's psychosocial stages of development?
a.
b.
c.
d.
67.
During a home care visit, an older client complains of chronic
constipation. The nurse tells the client to:
a. Include rice and bananas in the diet.
b. Increase the intake of sugar-free products.
c. Increase fluid intake to at least eight glasses a day
and increase dietary fiber.
d. Increase potassium in the diet.
68.
A nurse at a well-baby clinic is providing nutrition instructions
to the mother of a 1-month-old infant. The nurse should instruct
the mother:
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
The client is diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear.
Which of the following is the most common client complaint
associated with a disorder involving this part of the ear?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pruritus
Tinnitus
Hearing loss
Burning in the ear
70.
The nurse notes that the physician has documented a
diagnosis of presbycusis on the client's chart. The nurse plans
care knowing that the condition is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.
A client arrives at the emergency department with a foreign
body in the left ear and tells the nurse that an insect flew into the
ear. Which intervention should the nurse implement initially?
a.
b.
c.
d.
72.
A nurse is caring for a client with acute otitis media. In order
to reduce pressure and allow fluid to drain, the nurse anticipates
that which of the following would most likely be recommended to
the client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
73.
A nurse is assigned to care for a client after a mastoidectomy.
Which nursing intervention would be appropriate in the care of
this client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
74.
A nurse instructs a client in the use of a hearing aid. The nurse
includes which of the following instructions?
a. Check the battery to ensure that it is working before
use.
b. Leave the hearing aid in place while showering.
c. Hearing aids do not require any care.
d. A water-soluble lubricant is used on the hearing aid before
insertion.
75.
A nurse has given a client who is at risk for motion sickness
suggestions about medications that can prevent an occurrence.
The nurse determines that the client has correctly learned the
information if the client states that the medication is taken at
what time before the triggering event?
a.
b.
c.
d.
76.
An adult client makes an appointment with an ear specialist
because of the frequent recurrence of middle ear infections. In
performing an intake assessment of the client, the nurse would
ask about which of the following as a risk factor related to
infection of the ears?
a.
b.
c.
d.
77.
A nurse is educating a client on how to eliminate whistling
from a hearing aid. The nurse recognizes that additional
instruction is needed when the client states which of the
following?
a. "I will cleanse my ear mold."
Low-fat diet
Low-sodium diet
Low-cholesterol diet
Low-carbohydrate diet
79.
The nurse is preparing to care for a client with acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who has Pneumocystis
jiroveci pneumonia. In planning infection control for this client,
which of the following would be the appropriate form of isolation
to use to prevent the spread of infection to others?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Strict isolation
Contact precautions
Enteric precautions
Blood and body fluid precautions
80.
A client has a prescription for continuous monitoring of oxygen
saturation by pulse oximetry. The nurse performs which of the
following as the best action to ensure accurate readings on the
oximeter?
a. Apply the sensor to a finger that is cool to the touch.
b. Place the sensor distal to an intravenous (IV) site with a
continuous IV infusion.
c. Apply the sensor to a finger with very dark nail polish.
d. Ask the client to limit motion in the hand attached to
the pulse oximeter.
81.
A community health nurse is providing an educational session
to a group of community members at a local high school
regarding the issue of organ donation. A member of the group
asks the nurse, "How old does someone have to be to provide
consent for organ donation?"; The nurse accurately responds by
telling the member:
a. A person can sign papers to become a donor at 16 years of
age.
b. Written consent is never required to become a donor.
Monitoring temperature
Administering intravenous (IV) fluids
Assessing lung sounds
Performing range-of-motion exercises to the extremities
83.
The hospice nurse visits a client who is dying of ovarian
cancer. During the visit, the client says, "If I can just live long
enough to attend my daughter's graduation, I'll be ready to die."
Which of the following phases of coping is this client
experiencing?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Anger
Denial
Bargaining
Depression
84.
A nurse is caring for a client who is terminally ill. When
assessing the client, the nurse recognizes which of the following
as the most common distress symptom near the end of life?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pain
Withdrawal
Anxiety
Depression
85.
The wife of a terminally ill client steps out of his room in tears.
She tells the nurse, "I don't know what I'm going to do when he's
gone!" What is the nurse's best response?
a.
b.
c.
d.
86.
A client is brought to the emergency department in an
unresponsive state, and a diagnosis of hyperglycemic
Endotracheal intubation
100 units of NPH insulin
Intravenous infusion of normal saline
Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate
87.
A nurse is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with diabetes
mellitus for signs of complications. Which of the following, if
exhibited in the client, would indicate hyperglycemia and warrant
physician notification?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Polyuria
Diaphoresis
Hypertension
Increased pulse rate
88.
A client is admitted to an emergency department, and a
diagnosis of myxedema coma is made. Which action would the
nurse prepare to carry out initially?
a.
b.
c.
d.
89.
A nurse is caring for a postoperative parathyroidectomy client.
Which client complaint would indicate that a serious, lifethreatening complication may be developing, requiring immediate
notification of the physician?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Laryngeal stridor
Abdominal cramps
Difficulty in voiding
Mild to moderate incisional pain
90.
A nurse is performing an assessment on a client with
pheochromocytoma. Which of the following assessment data
would indicate a potential complication associated with this
disorder?
a.
b.
c.
d.
91.
A client received 20 units of Humulin NPH insulin
subcutaneously at 8:00 AM. A nurse should assess the client for a
hypoglycemic reaction at:
a.
b.
c.
d.
10:00 AM
11:00 AM
5:00 PM
11:00 PM
92.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is to begin an exercise
program, and the nurse is providing instructions regarding the
program. Which of the following does the nurse include in the
teaching plan?
a.
b.
c.
d.
93.
A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of Addison's
disease. The nurse is monitoring the client for signs of Addisonian
crisis. The nurse should assess the client for which manifestation
that would be associated with this crisis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Diaphoresis
Agitation
Restlessness
Severe abdominal pain
94.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is
scheduled for a thyroidectomy. The nurse develops a nursing
diagnosis related to psychosocial needs, knowing that which of
the following is likely to occur in the client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
95.
A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy. The client
expresses concern about the postoperative voice hoarseness she
is experiencing and asks if the hoarseness will subside. The nurse
explains that the hoarseness:
a. Indicates nerve damage
b. Is permanent
c. Will worsen before it subsides, which may take 6 months
Calcium
Magnesium
Phosphorus
Iodine
97.
A test to measure long-term control of diabetes mellitus has
been prescribed for a client. In instructing the client about the
test, the nurse explains that long-term control can be measured
because chronic high blood glucose levels lead to irreversible
glucose binding onto:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Muscle tissue
Adipose tissue
Red blood cells
Platelets
98.
A nurse hears a client calling out for help, hurries down the
hallway to the client's room, and finds the client lying on the floor.
The nurse performs a thorough assessment, assists the client
back to bed, notifies the physician of the incident, and completes
an incident report. Which of the following should the nurse
document on the incident report?
a.
b.
c.
d.
99.
A registered nurse arrives at work and is told to report (float)
to the intensive care unit (ICU) for the day because the ICU is
understaffed and needs additional nurses to care for the clients.
The nurse has never worked in the ICU. The nurse should take
which action first?
a.
b.
c.
d.
100. A nurse who works on the night shift enters the medication
room and finds a co-worker with a tourniquet wrapped around the
upper arm. The co-worker is about to insert a needle, attached to
a syringe containing a clear liquid, into the antecubital area. The
appropriate initial action by the nurse is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Call security.
Call the police.
Call the nursing supervisor.
Lock the co-worker in the medication room until help is
obtained.
105. During a home visit, the nurse discusses health care concerns
with the client and establishes mutual goals to help the client
become more independent. In this role, the nurse is functioning
as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A researcher
A resource linker
An advocate
A collaborator
Creatinine level
Prothrombin time
Sedimentation rate
Blood urea nitrogen level
Frequent swallowing
A decreased pulse rate
Complaints of discomfort
An elevation in blood pressure
Side or prone
Back or prone
Stomach with the face turned
Back rather than on the stomach
During sleep
When changing the infant's diapers
When the mother is holding the infant
When drawing blood for electrolyte level testing
111. A child with croup is being discharged from the hospital. The
nurse provides instructions to the mother and advises the mother
to bring the child to the emergency department if which of the
following occurs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
112. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for the client with
glaucoma. Which of the following instructions would the nurse
include in the plan of care?
a. Avoid overuse of the eyes.
b. Decrease the amount of salt in the diet.
c. Eye medications will need to be administered for the
client's entire life.
d. Decrease fluid intake to control the intraocular pressure.
113. The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a
suspected diagnosis of cataract. The chief clinical manifestation
that the nurse would expect to note in the early stages of cataract
formation is:
a. Diplopia
b. Eye pain
c. Floating spots
d. Blurred vision
114. The client sustains a contusion of the eyeball following a
traumatic injury with a blunt object. Which intervention is initiated
immediately?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
b. Confusion
c. Muscle weakness
d. Depressed deep tendon reflexes
124. The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an acute
episode of cholecystitis. Where should the nurse anticipate the
location of the pain?
a. Right lower quadrant, radiating to the back
b. Right lower quadrant, radiating to the umbilicus
c. Right upper quadrant, radiating to the left scapula and
shoulder
d. Right upper quadrant, radiating to the right scapula
and shoulder
125. A client has just had a hemorrhoidectomy. What nursing
intervention is appropriate for this client?
a. Instruct the client to limit fluid intake to avoid urinary
retention.
b. Instruct the client to eat low-fiber foods to decrease the bulk
of the stool.
c. Apply and maintain ice packs over the dressing until
the packing is removed.
d. Help the client to a Fowler's position to place pressure on the
rectal area and decrease bleeding.
126. The physician has determined that the client with hepatitis
has contracted the infection from contaminated food. The nurse
understands that this client is most likely experiencing what type
of hepatitis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
127. The nurse is monitoring a client for the early signs and
symptoms of dumping syndrome. Which of the following indicate
this occurrence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Low protein
High carbohydrate
Low fat
Liquid
A tongue blade
A stethoscope
A tuning fork
A reflex hammer
Soccer
Basketball
Swimming
Field hockey
Weight gain
Subnormal temperature
Elevated red blood cell count
Rash on the face across the bridge of the nose and on
the cheeks
Blood culture
Blood glucose level
Complete blood count
Blood urea nitrogen level
a.
b.
c.
d.
Possible trauma
Possible sexual abuse
Presence of an allergy
Presence of a respiratory infection
A cold
Otitis media
Mild diarrhea
A severe febrile illness
Patch test
Skin biopsy
Culture of the lesion
Wood's light examination
Intact skin
Full-thickness skin loss
Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle
Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis
156. A client who is being evaluated for thermal burn injuries to the
arms and legs complains of thirst and asks the nurse for a drink.
Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hirsutism
Alopecia
Xerosis
Hyperhidrosis
Increased vascularity
Excess keratin formation
Decreased vitamin D synthesis
Defects in the sebaceous glands
Hourly
Every 15 minutes
Every 30 minutes
Before each contraction
Dehydration
Heart failure
Iron deficiency anemia
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
173. A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas analysis results for
a client in the respiratory care unit and notes a pH of 7.38, PaCO2
of 38 mm Hg, PaO2 of 86 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 23 mEq/L. The
nurse interprets that these values indicate which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Normal results
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
0.1 ng/mL
0.3 ng/mL
1.8 ng/mL
2.4 ng/mL
2000 cells/mm3
3800 cells/mm3
8400 cells/mm3
12,500 cells/mm3
c. Infiltration
d. Thrombosis
177. The nurse is inserting an intravenous line into a client's vein.
After the initial stick, the nurse continues to advance the catheter
if:
a. The catheter advances easily.
b. The vein is distended under the needle.
c. The client does not complain of discomfort.
d. Blood return shows in the backflash chamber of the
catheter.
178. The nurse notes that the site of a client's peripheral
intravenous (IV) catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly
edematous proximal to the insertion point of the IV catheter. After
taking appropriate steps to care for the client, the nurse
documents in the medical record that the client experienced:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hematocrit level
Erythrocyte count
Hemoglobin level
White blood cell count
18 gauge
21 gauge
22 gauge
24 gauge
0.5 cm
1 cm
2 cm
2.5 cm
Working
Trusting
Orientation
Termination
Milieu therapy
Aversion therapy
Self-control therapy
Systematic desensitization
At bedtime
At midmorning
Before supper
After breakfast
Oliguria
Flat fontanels
Pale skin color
Moist mucous membranes
b. Serous drainage
c. Pain at a pin site
d. Purulent drainage
200. A nurse is admitting a client with multiple trauma to the
nursing unit. The client has a leg fracture and had a plaster cast
applied. In positioning the casted leg, the nurse should:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Yogurt
Turkey
Spaghetti
Shellfish
b. Blurred vision
c. Diarrhea
d. Joint swelling
205. A client with a 4-day-old lumbar vertebral fracture is
experiencing muscle spasms. The nurse avoids using which of the
following in an effort to relieve the spasm?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Emergency cart
Tracheotomy set
Padded tongue blade
Suctioning equipment and oxygen
Poor hygiene
Difficulty walking
Fear of the parents
Bald spots on the scalp
b. Semiprivate room
c. Four-bed ward room
d. Contact isolation room
210. A child is brought to the hospital emergency department for
an injury to the lower right arm that occurred in a fall off a bicycle.
On assessment the nurse notes that the skin at the site of the
injury is intact. A fracture is suspected, and a radiograph is taken.
The nurse can see on the radiograph viewer that the fracture of
the bone is across the entire bone shaft with some possible
displacement. The nurse determines that this child's fracture is a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Simple fracture
Compound fracture
Greenstick fracture
Comminuted fracture
211. A nurse is caring for a child who sustained a head injury after
falling from a tree. On assessment of the child, the nurse notes
the presence of a watery discharge from the child's nose. The
nurse will immediately test the discharge for the presence of
which of the following substance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Glucose
Protein
White blood cells
Neutrophils
Sternal rub
Nail bed pressure
Pressure on the orbital rim
Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
A hearing aid
A walker
Eyeglasses
A bath thermometer
Vitamin A
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Milk
Oranges
Bananas
Chicken
c. Weight gain
d. Enlarged lymph nodes
224. A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma and the client
asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response
on which description of this disorder?
a.
b.
c.
d.
226. The nurse is assessing the colostomy of a client who has had
an abdominal perineal resection for a bowel tumor. Which of the
following assessment findings indicates that the colostomy is
beginning to function?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pneumonia
Fluid imbalance
Pulmonary embolism
Carbon dioxide retention
Tinnitus
Diarrhea
Constipation
Decreased respirations
Nausea
Loss of appetite
Diarrhea
Metallic taste in the mouth
235. A nurse in the postpartum unit is caring for a client who has
just delivered a newborn infant following a pregnancy with a
placenta previa. The nurse reviews the plan of care and prepares
to monitor the client for which risk associated with placenta
previa?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Infection
Hemorrhage
Chronic hypertension
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
3 days postpartum
7 days postpartum
On the day of delivery
Within 2 weeks postpartum
Pyelonephritis
Glomerulonephritis
Trauma to the bladder or abdomen
Renal cancer in the client's family
241. The nurse is reviewing the client's record and notes that the
physician has documented that the client has a renal disorder. On
review of the laboratory results, the nurse most likely would
expect to note which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
242. A nurse is caring for a client with acute renal failure (ARF).
When performing an assessment, the nurse would expect to note
which of the following breathing patterns?
a. Decreased respirations
b. Apnea
c. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
d. Kussmaul's respirations
243. An emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has
sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which of these signs
would indicate the presence of a pneumothorax in this client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 minute
5 seconds
10 seconds
30 seconds
Sitting up in bed
Side-lying in bed
Sitting in a recliner chair
Sitting on the side of the bed and leaning on an
overbed table
249. A nurse develops a plan of care for a client with deep vein
thrombosis. Which client position or activity in the plan will be
included?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hand-washing daily
Hepatitis B (HBV) vaccine
Proper personal hygiene
Immune globulin
d) 30 seconds
253. An oxygen delivery system is prescribed for a client with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to deliver a precise oxygen
concentration. Which oxygen delivery system would the nurse
anticipate to be prescribed?
a) Face tent
b) Venturi mask
c) Aerosol mask
d) Tracheostomy collar
254. A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. A nurse
assesses for which symptom, which is most commonly reported?
a) Hot, flushed feeling
b) Sudden chills and fever
c) Dyspnea when deep breaths are taken
d) Chest pain that occurs suddenly
255. A nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who is retaining
carbon dioxide (CO2) because of respiratory disease. The nurse
plans care anticipating that as the clients CO2 level rises, the pH
should:
a) Rise
b) Fall
c) Remain unchanged
d) Double
256. A nurse is assessing the patency of a clients left arm
arteriovenous fistula prior to initiating hemodialysis. Which finding
indicates that the fistula is patent?
a) Palpation of a thrill over the fistula
b) Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist
c) Absence of a bruit on auscultation of the fistula
d) Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the
fingers on the left hand
257. A nurse in the postpartum unit is caring for a client who has
just delivered a newborn infant following a pregnancy with a
placenta previa. The nurse reviews the plan of care and prepares
to monitor the client for which risk associated with placenta
previa?
a) Infection
b) Hemorrhage
c) Chronic hypertension
a) Pneumonia
b) Fluid imbalance
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Carbon dioxide retention
263. A nurse is monitoring the status of a postoperative client. The
nurse would become most concerned with which of the following
signs that could indicate an evolving complication?
a) Increasing restlessness
b) A pulse of 86 beats/min
c) Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
d) Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants
264. A nurse is providing home care instructions to the parents of
an infant who had a surgical repair of an inguinal hernia. The
nurse instructs the parents to do which of the following to prevent
infection at the surgical site?
a) Change the diapers as soon as they become damp
b) Report a fever immediately
c) Soak the infant in a tub bath twice a day for the next 5 days
d) Restrict the infant's physical activity
265. The nurse is preparing a preoperative client for transfer to the
operating room. The nurse should take which of the following
actions in the care of this client at this time?
a) Ensure that the client has voided
b) Administer all the daily medications
c) Have the client practice postoperative breathing exercises
d) Verify that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours
266. The client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected
diagnosis of Hodgkins disease. Which assessment finding would
the nurse expect to note specifically in the client?
a) Fatigue
b) Weakness
c) Weight gain
d) Enlarged lymph nodes
267. The nurse is assessing the colostomy of a client who has had
an abdominal perineal resection for a bowel tumor. Which of the
following assessment findings indicates that the colostomy is
beginning to function?
a) 2 years
b) 4 years
c) 12 months
d) 22 months
296. The nurse prepares to give a bath and change the bed linens
of a client with cutaneous Kaposis sarcoma lesions. The lesions
are open and draining a scant amount of serous fluid. Which of
the following would the nurse incorporate into the plan during the
bathing of this client?
a) Wearing gloves
b) Wearing a gown and gloves
c) Wearing a gown, gloves, and a mask
d) Wearing a gown and gloves to change the bed linens and
gloves only for the bath
297. A client is suspected of having systemic lupus erythematous.
The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following
is one of the initial characteristic signs of systemic lupus
erythematous?
a) Weight gain
b) Subnormal temperature
c) Elevated red blood cell count
d) Rash on the face across the bridge of the nose and
on the cheeks
298. The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome has
begun therapy with zidovudine (Retrovir, azidothymidine, AZT,
ZDV). The nurse carefully monitors which of the following
laboratory results during treatment with this medication?
a) Blood culture
b) Blood glucose level
c) Complete blood count
d) Blood urea nitrogen level
299. A nurse is providing home care instructions to the mother of a
10-year-old child with hemophilia. Which of the following activities
should the nurse suggest that the child could participate in safely
with peers?
a) Soccer
b) Basketball
c) Swimming
d) Field hockey
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin E
310. A child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. The
nurse monitors the child closely for:
a) Diarrhea
b) Metabolic acidosis
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Hyperactive bowel sounds
311. A clinic nurse is assessing jaundice in a child with hepatitis.
Which anatomical area would provide the best data regarding the
presence of jaundice?
a) The nail beds
b) The skin in the abdominal area
c) The skin in the sacral area
d) The membranes in the ear canal
312. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of
the clients medical records, the nurse determines that which
client is at risk for a fluid volume deficit?
a) A client with a colostomy
b) A client with congestive heart failure
c) A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy
d) A client receiving frequent wound irrigations
313. A nurse is performing an assessment on a client admitted to
the hospital with a diagnosis of dehydration. Which of the
following assessment findings should the nurse expect to note?
a) Bradycardia
b) Changes in mental status
c) Bilateral crackles in the lungs
d) Elevated blood pressure
314. A woman was working in her garden. She accidentally sprayed
insecticide into her right eye. She calls the emergency
department frantic and screaming for help. The nurse should
instruct the woman to take which immediate action?
a) Call the physician
b) Come to the emergency room
c) Irrigate the eyes with water
d) Irrigate the eyes with diluted hydrogen peroxide
320. A client who suffered a severe head injury has had vigorous
treatment to control cerebral edema. Brain death has been
determined. The nurse prepares to carry out which of the
following measures to maintain viability of the kidneys before
organ donation?
a) Monitoring temperature
b) Administering intravenous (IV) fluids
c) Assessing lung sounds
d) Performing range-of-motion exercises to the extremities
321. The client is diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear.
Which of the following is the most common client complaint
associated with a disorder involving this part of the ear?
a) Pruritus
b) Tinnitus
c) Hearing loss
d) Burning in the ear
322. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to present a
clinical conference to peers regarding Freud's psychosexual
stages of development, specifically the anal stage. The student
plans the conference, knowing that which of the following most
appropriately relates to this stage of development?
a) This stage is associated with toilet training
b) This stage is characterized by the gratification of self
c) This stage is characterized by a tapering off of conscious
biological and sexual urges
d) This stage is associated with pleasurable and conflicting
feelings about the genital organs
323. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. In planning client
rounds, which client should the nurse assess first?
a) A client scheduled for a chest x-ray
b) A client requiring daily dressing changes
c) A postoperative client preparing for discharge
d) A client receiving nasal oxygen who had difficulty
breathing during the previous shift
324. A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) complains of a
headache. A nurse notes that the client has an increased blood
pressure, bounding pulse, jugular vein distention, and crackles
bilaterally. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing
which complication of PN therapy?
a) Sepsis
b) Air embolism
c) Hypervolemia
d) Hyperglycemia
325. A nurse is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on
an infant. When performing chest compressions, the nurse
compresses at least:
a) 60 times per minute
b) 80 times per minute
c) 100 times per minute
d) 160 times per minute
326. A female client who has had a myocardial infarction asks the nurse
why she should not bear down or strain to ensure having a bowel
movement. The nurse incorporates in a response that this would
trigger: Options:
a. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart
rate and cardiac contractility .
b. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing an increase in heart rate and
cardiac contractility
c. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing an increase in heart
rate and cardiac contractility
d. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart
rate and cardiac contractility
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Serotonin
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
339. A client is scheduled for elective cardioversion to treat chronic highrate atrial fibrillation. The nurse determines that the client is not yet
ready for the procedure after noting which of the following? Options:
a. The client s digoxin (Lanoxin) has been withheld for the last
48 hours .
b. The client has received a dose of midazolam (Versed)
intravenously.
c. The client is wearing a nasal cannula delivering
oxygen at 2 L/min .
d. The defibrillator has the synchronizer turned on and is set at
50 joules (J).
340. A nurse is assisting in the care of a client scheduled for
cardioversion. The nurse plans to set the defibrillator to which of the
following starting energy range levels, depending on the specific
physician order?
Options:
a. 50 to 100 joules
b. 150 to 200 joules
c. 250 to 300 joules
d. 350 to 400 joules
341. A client has developed atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of
150 beats/min . The nurse assesses the client for:
Options:
a. Hypotension and dizziness
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Hypertension and headache
d. Flat neck veins
understands the impact of this medication on the diet if the client states
to avoid which of the following fruits?
Options:
a. Apples
b. Pears
c. Bananas
d. . Cranberries
344. The health care provider prescribes bedrest for a client in whom a
deep vein thrombosis develops after surgery. From the following list,
select all appropriate nursing interventions to include in this client s
plan of care.
Options:
a. Place in Fowler s position for eating.
b. Encourage increased oral intake of water daily.
c. Encourage coughing with deep breathing.
d. Place thigh-length elastic stockings on the client.
e. Encourage the intake of dark, green leafy vegetables.
e. Place sequential compression boots on the client.
Answer:
b.c.d.
345. Spironolactone (Aldactone), a diuretic, is prescribed for a client with
congestive heart failure. In providing dietary instructions to the client,
the nurse identifies the need to avoid foods that are high in which
electrolyte?
Options:
a. Calcium
b. Potassium
c. Magnesium
d. Phosphorus
346. A client is seen in the urgent care center for complaints of chest
pain that began 3 days earlier. Since that time the client has not been
feeling well and fatigues easily. The nurse would suspect myocardial
infarction at the time of chest pain if a test for which of the following
isoenzymes for lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) came back positive?
Options:
a. LDH 1
b. LDH 3
c. LDH 4
d. LDH 5
347. In planning a low-sodium diet for the client who has recently been
diagnosed with congestive heart failure, the nurse should ask the client
if she would like to have which food item?
Options:
a. Chicken breast
b. Cottage cheese
c. Grilled cheese
d. Beef bouillon
356. A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored.
If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the
following patient's medication does not cause urine discoloration?
A. Sulfasalazine
B. Levodopa
C. Phenolphthalein
D. Aspirin
357. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's
refrigerator. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it
should be removed from the refrigerator's contents?
A. Corgard
B. Humulin (injection)
C. Urokinase
D. Epogen (injection)
358. A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an
autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is
pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that
will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
359. A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick
while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Parkinson's disease type symptoms
366. A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to
your floor. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this
patient is?
A. Let others know about the patient's deficits
B. Communicate with your supervisor your concerns about the
patient's deficits.
C. Continuously update the patient on the social environment.
D. Provide a secure environment for the patient.
367. A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. The patient
has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily
concerned about their ability to breath easily. Which of the
following would be the best instruction for this patient?
A. Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels.
B. Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.
C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization
D. Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during
meals.
368.
A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been
diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following
clinical signs would most likely be present?
A. Slow pulse rate
B. Weight gain
C. Decreased systolic pressure
D. Irregular WBC lab values
369. A mother has recently been informed that her child has
Down's syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at
shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not
associated with Down's syndrome?
A. Simian crease
B. Brachycephaly
C. Oily skin
D. Hypotonicity
370. A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4
hours. Which of the following medications would most like be
administered?
A. Streptokinase
B. Atropine
C. Acetaminophen
D. Coumadin
371. A patient asks a nurse, My doctor recommended I increase
my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain folic acids?
A. Green vegetables and liver
B. Yellow vegetables and red meat
C. Carrots
D. Milk
372. A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis.
Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to
meningitis in humans?
A. S. pneumonia
B. H. influenza
C. N. meningitis
D. Cl. difficile
373. A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low
hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC's last in my
body? The correct response is.
A. The life span of RBC is 45 days.
B. The life span of RBC is 60 days.
C. The life span of RBC is 90 days.
D. The life span of RBC is 120 days.
374. A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for
spinal stenosis surgery. When does the discharge training and
planning begin for this patient?
A. Following surgery
B. Upon admit
C. Within 48 hours of discharge
D. Preoperative discussion
375. A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the
hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the
child in?
A. Trust vs. mistrust
B. Initiative vs. guilt
C. Autonomy vs. shame
D. Intimacy vs. isolation
376. A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted
into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following
stages is the toddler in?
A. Trust vs. mistrust
B. Initiative vs. guilt
C. Autonomy vs. shame
D. Intimacy vs. isolation
377. A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted
into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following
stages is the adult in?
A. Trust vs. mistrust
B. Initiative vs. guilt
C. Autonomy vs. shame
D. Intimacy vs. isolation
378. A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the
following vital signs is abnormal?
381. Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief
process?
A. Denial
B. Anger
C. Bargaining
D. Rejection
382. Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a
weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?
A. Compensation
B. Projection
C. Rationalization
D. Dysphoria
383. Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found
with light sleepers?
A. Theta
B. Alpha
C. Beta
D. Zeta
C. Moro
D. Flexion
392. Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?
A. 5-10 months
B. 10-14 months
C. 12-24 months
D. 24-48 months
393. Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?
A. Dyspnea
B. Hyperventilation
C. Moist mouth
D. GI symptoms
394. Which of the following best describes a person that is
completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?
A. Cataplexy
B. Narcolepsy
C. Transitional sleep
D. REM absence
395. Which of the following best describes a person that is unable
to tell you were there hand or foot is?
A. Autotopagnosia
B. Cataplexy
C. Ergophobia
D. Anosognosia
396. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic
disorder?
A. Nausea
B. Excessive perspiration
C. Urination
D. Chest pain
397. Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult
be placed in?
A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Longevity vs. Guilt
398. Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult
be placed in?
A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Longevity vs. Guilt
399. Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult
be placed in?
A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
B. Right subclavian
C. Left common carotid
D. Right thoracic artery
433. Which of the following arteries creates the left spenic, hepatic
and gastric arteries?
A. Left sacral artery
B. Celiac artery
C. Suprarenal artery
D. Phrenic artery
434. Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of
the descending thoracic aorta?
A. Mediastinal artery
B. Renal artery
C. Bronchial artery
D. Posterior intercostals artery
435. Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of
the abdominal aorta?
A. Phrenic artery
B. Common iliac artery
C. Gonadal artery
D. Mediastinal artery
436. Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of
the femoral artery?
A. Superficial pudendal arteries
B. Deep external pudendal arteries
C. Superficial circumflex iliac artery
D. Deep circumflex iliac artery
437. Which of the following is not considered a tributary of the
portal vein?
A. Inferior mesenteric vein
B. Splenic vein
C. Left gastric vein
D. Subclavian vein
438. Inside the cranial cavity the vertebral arteries form the ____
artery.
A. Basilar
B. Common Carotid
C. MCA
D. PCA
439. Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the _____.
A. Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure
B. The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressure
C. The inverse of the blood pressure
D. Half of the systolic pressure
440. _____ nerves can be found joining the SA and AV nodes in the
heart.
A. Accelerator
B. Phrenic
C. Thoracic
D. Gastric
441. Insulin inhibits the release of _______.
A. Glucagon
B. ADH
C. Beta cells
D. Somatostatin
442. Which of the following is caused by insulin release?
A. Increased breakdown of fats
B. Increase breakdown of proteins
C. Decreased blood sugar
D. Causes glucose to be phosphorylated in kidney
443. Glucagon causes increased blood sugar and causes slow
breakdown of glycogen in the liver.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
444. As blood glucose decreases glucagon is inhibited.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
445. Glucagon increases blood levels of glucose by causing liver to
breakdown glycogen.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
446. Which of the following is not true about Type I DM?
A. May be linked to autoimmunity
B. Onset usually prior to age 20
C. Beta islet cells destroyed
D. Does not require insulin injections
447. Which of the following is not true about Type II DM?
A. Considered adult onset diabetes
B. Cause unknown may be due to genetics
C. Require insulin 80% of cases
D. May take a drug that sensitize cells or increase insulin release
448. Which of the following is not an effect of diabetes?
A. Small vessel occlusion
B. Necrosis of extremities
C. Plasma cells
D. Acinar cells
456. Which of the following would not be considered an acute
effect of diabetes mellitus?
A. Polyuria
B. Weight gain
C. Polydipsia
D. Polyphagia
457. Which of the following is not an accurate test for diabetes?
A. Glucose tolerance test
B. HbA
C. Fasting serum glucose
D. Fasting glucagon test
458. Which of the following is not an indicator of diabetic
ketoacidosis?
A. Hyperthermia
B. Nausea/Vomiting
C. Slow and shallow breathing
D. Psychosis leading to dementia
459. Which of the following is not related to a chronic diabetes
mellitus condition?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Neuropathy
C. Glaucoma
D. Hypotension
460. Which of the following conditions is not linked to diabetic
ketoacidosis?
A. Cerebral edema
B. Arrhythmias
C. Peptic ulcers
D. Mucormycosis
461. Which of the following is not a muscle identified in the rotator
cuff?
A. Teres Major
B. Teres Minor
C. Infraspinatus
D. Supraspinatus
462. Which of the following is not a component of the unhappy
triad?
A. MCL
B. PCL
C. ACL
D. Medial Meniscus
463. Which of the following is not included in the femoral triangle?
A. Femoral Artery
B. Femoral Nerve
C. Femoral Vein
D. Femoral Ligament
464. Which of the following is not a component of the carotid
sheath?
A. Cranial nerve X
B. Common carotid artery
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Cranial nerve IX
465. Which of the following spinal dermatome level corresponds
with the landmark of the inguinal ligament?
A. T10
B. L1
C. L3
D. L5
466. Which of the following nerves innervates the deltoid?
A. Radial
B. Cranial nerve XI
C. Subscapular
D. Axillary
467. Wrist extensors are primarily controlled by what nerve?
A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Median
D. Tibial
468. Adductor pollicis in the hand is controlled by which nerve?
A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Median
D. Tibial
469. Which of the following arteries is the most frequent site of
coronary artery stenosis?
A. LCA
B. RCA
C. LAD
D. PD
470. Which of the following nerves is not directly linked to the L2L3 spinal level?
A. Tibial
B. Obturator
C. Femoral
471. Which of the following passageways contain the maxillary
nerve and blood vessels?
A. Stylomastoid foramin
B. Inferior orbital fissure
C. Foramen ovale
D. Carotid canal
472. Which of the following passageways contain the facial nerve
and blood vessels?
A. Stylomastoid foramin
B. Inferior orbital fissure
C. Foramen ovale
D. Carotid canal
473. Which of the following passageways contain the internal
carotid artery?
A. Foramen rotundum
B. Condylar canal
C. Foramen ovale
D. Carotid canal
474. Which of the following is the most common site of disc
herniation?
A. C6-7
B. T12-L1
C. L4-5
D. L5-S1
475. Which of the following ligaments is not found in the knee?
A. Patellar ligament
B. Oblique popliteal ligament
C. Arcuate popliteal ligament
D. Deltoid ligament
476. Which of the following nerves innervates the teres minor
muscle?
A. Subscapular nerve
B. Suprascapular nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Pectoral nerve
477. Which of the following nerves innervates the pronator teres
muscle?
A. Radial
B. Median
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Ulnar
478. Which of the following supplies the muscles of the perineum?
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Tibial nerve
479. Which of the following eye muscles rotates the eye downward
and away from midline?
A. Inferior oblique
B. Superior oblique
C. Inferior rectus
D. Superior rectus
480. Which of the following eye muscles rotates the eye upward
and toward midline?
A. Inferior oblique
B. Superior oblique
C. Inferior rectus
D. Superior rectus
481. Which of the following is a longitudinal incision through eschar
and down to subcutaneous tissue?
A. Escharotomy
B. Dehiscence
C. Transection
D. Escharotic's procedure
482. Which of the following types of wounds match the criteria:
plantar aspect of foot, met heads, heel?
A. Arterial
B. Plantar
C. Venous
D. Diabetic
483. Which of the following terms matches: water and electrolytes
(clear)?
A. Exudate
B. Transudate
C. Serosanguineous
D. Induration
484. Which of the following edema assessment levels corresponds
with: Depression resolving in 10-15 sec?
A. +1
B. +2
C. +3
D. +4
485. Which of the following terms matches the statement: to
increase the fibrous element; to make hard as in the presence of
cellulites?
A. Induration
B. Necrosis
C. Eschar
D. Maceration
486. Following the rule of nines. What percent would a third degree
burn to the entire arm and back cover?
A. 28%
B. 27%
C. 20%
D. 18%