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First statement is incorrect because Jan Aushadhi Scheme envisages availability of quality generic
medicines at affordable prices to all, and not only to BPL families. Second statement is incorrect
because the scheme mandates Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) to provide one-time
assistance of Rs.2.50 lakhs as furnishing and establishment costs for setting up a Jan Aushadhi
Outlet in government hospitals. State Governments are required to provide space in Government
Hospital premises or any other suitable locations for the running of the Jan Aushadhi Stores (JAS).
8. Zero Budget Natural Farming:
1. requires almost no monetary investment
2. advocates practice of organic farming in India
3. envisages use of Jeevamrutha and Beejamrutha
Which of the above is/are correct statements?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [B] Only 1 & 3
Second statement is incorrect because Zero Budget Natural Farming is different from organic
farming.
9. Consider the following statements with respect to LIGO project:
1. LIGO project helps to understand Earth's interior by studying seismic waves.
2. India is a partner in LIGO project.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [B] Only 2
First statement is incorrect because LIGO project is related to study of gravitational waves in
space. Second statement is correct. Also, we note that LIGO-India, or INDIGO, is a planned
collaborative project between the LIGO Laboratory and the Indian Initiative in Gravitational-wave
Observations (IndIGO) to create a world-class gravitational-wave detector in India.
10. Consider the following:
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Whereas attorney general for India is appointed by the President under Article 76(1) of the
Constitution, the solicitor general of India is appointed to assist the attorney general along with
four additional solicitors general by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. The proposal
for appointment of Solicitor General, Additional Solicitor General is generally moved at the, level
of Joint secretary/Law Secretary in the Department of Legal Affairs and after obtaining the
approval of the Minister of Law & Justice, the proposal is sent to the Appointments Committee of
the Cabinet for its approval.
Lokpal
The Chairperson and Members shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the
recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime MinisterChairperson; the
Speaker of the House of the PeopleMember; the Leader of Opposition in the House of the
PeopleMember; the Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by
himMember; one eminent jurist, as recommended by the Chairperson and Members, to be
nominated by the PresidentMember.
28. The resignation letter of which among the following constitutional / statutory functionaries is
addressed to president of India?
1. Judges of High Court
2. Chairman of Finance Commission
3. Judges of Supreme Court
4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
5. Lokpal
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 2, 3 & 4
[B] Only 2, 4 & 5
[C] Only 1, 2, 3 & 5
[D] 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
Answer: [D] 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
29. Consider the following statements:
1. An ordinance-making power of the President of India is not a discretionary power.
2. An ordinance promulgated by president cannot be retrospective in nature.
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
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35. The president of India can summon joint session of the Parliament in case of a deadlock between
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1
Joint sitting is called in the following situation:
1. Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House and it is rejected by the
other House
2. Both houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill
3. More than 6 months elapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House without
the Bill being passed by it.
Please note that if there is a deadlock between the two houses on a Constitution amendment Bill,
there cannot be a joint sitting. In case of Money bills, the rejection of Rajya Sabha is immaterial.
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40. In which among the following, the speed of sound would be maximum?
[A] Dry air at 0C
[B] Dry air at 30C
[C] Humid air at 0C
[D] Humid air at 30C
Answer: [D] Humid air at 30C
The speed of sound in a medium depends on temperature of the medium. The
speed of sound decreases when we go from solid to gaseous state. In any
medium as we increase the temperature the speed of sound increases.. The
speed of sound will be highest in humid air at 30C.
41. The ultrasound technique is used frequently in obstetrics instead of X-Rays based techniques.
What is / are the principles behind this?
1. Ultrasound is a non-ionizing imaging technique
2. Ultrasound gives a clear picture of soft tissues, which do not show up in X-rays
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43. We can hear a whooshing sound when we hold a spiral conch shell near our ears. What is the
most likely reason behind this?
[A] The sound we hear is echoing of our blood rushing through the blood vessels of our ear
[B] The sound is generated by air flowing through the shell - in and out
[C] The ambient noise around us resonates inside the shell
[D] None of the reasons mentioned in statements A, B or C is correct
Answer: [C] The ambient noise around us resonates inside the shell
The most likely explanation for the wave-like noise is ambient noise from
around us. The seashell that we hold just slightly above our ear captures this
noise, which resonates inside the shell.
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46. Consider the following statements with reference to the pink noise?
1. It is a sound that has equal energy for each frequency.
2. It is primarily consisted of low frequency sounds.
3. Heartbeat produces pink noise.
Choose the correct option from codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 2 & 3
Pink noise, also known as 1/f noise, is a sound that has equal energy in all octaves. It primarily
consists of low frequency sounds. Due to practical constraints, pink noise can be produced only
over a certain range of frequencies and occurs naturally. Astronauts listening to electromagnetic
radiation in outer space have noted it being emitted from certain stars. In biology, it is produced by
the heartbeat and has shown up in DNA sequence statistics.
47. On which among the following, the speed of the sound depends?
1. Amplitude
2. Wavelength
3. Humidity
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 3
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] 1, 2 & 3
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49. Ultrasounds are used extensively in industries and for medical purposes. Which among the
following is / are applications of Ultrasound?
1. Detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks
2. Echocardiography
3. Treatment of Kidney stones
4. Cleaning of odd shaped objects
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Applications of Ultrasound (From NCERT Class IX Textbook on Science)
Ultrasounds are high frequency waves. Ultrasounds are able to travel along well defined paths even
in the presence of obstacles.
Ultrasounds are used extensively in industries and for medical purposes. Ultrasound is
generally used to clean parts located in hard-to-reach places, for example, spiral tube, odd
shaped parts, electronic components etc. Objects to be cleaned are placed in a cleaning
solution and ultrasonic waves are sent into the solution. Due to the high frequency, the
particles of dust, grease and dirt get detached and drop out. The objects thus get thoroughly
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52. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is considered a better imaging technology than CAT scan
because:
1. MRI does not include invasive radiations
2. MRI is a non-ionizing diagnostic technique
3. MRI uses the oxygen atoms inside the body to resonate in body tissues
4. MRI can effectively differentiate between healthy and diseased tissues
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3 are correct
[B] Only 1, 2 & 4 are correct
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4 are correct
[D] Only 1 & 2 are correct
Answer: [B] Only 1, 2 & 4 are correct
MRI uses hydrogen atom inside the body to resonate in body tissues.
53. Consider the following statements with respect to the moderators used in Nuclear reactions:
1. Both normal water & heavy water can be used as Moderators in Nuclear reaction
2. Moderators are used both in Nuclear Reactors and Nuclear Bombs
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54. With reference to the Radioactivity, which among the following is called an isomeric transition?
[A] Alpha emission
[B] Gamma emission
[C] Beta emission
[D] X-Ray emission
Answer: [B] Gamma emission
An isomeric transition is a radioactive decay process that involves emission of a gamma ray from
an atom where the nucleus is in an excited metastable state, referred to in its excited state, as a
nuclear isomer. The emission of a gamma ray from an excited nuclear state allows the nucleus to
lose energy and reach either a lower energy state, sometimes its ground state. In certain cases, the
excited nuclear state following a nuclear reaction or other type of radioactive decay, has a half live
that is more than 100 to 1000 times longer than the average 10-12 seconds, and this excited state is
referred to as a metastable nuclear excited state. Some nuclei are able to stay in this metastable
excited state for minutes, hours, days, or occasionally far longer, before undergoing gamma decay,
in which they undergo radioactive decay with primary emission of a gamma ray.
55. After a nuclear disaster, the Strontium-90 becomes an health issue of great concern. What is the
major concern about this particular isotope?
[A] Strontium-90 gets deposited in the Red Blood Cells and causes Blood Cancer
[B] Strontium-90 gets deposited in the Liver cells and causes Liver Cirrhosis
[C] Strontium-90 gets deposited in bones and bone marrow and causes cancer
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58. On which among the following dates at 12.00 noon in New Delhi, the speed of sound waves will
be maximum, assuming the same humidity / density of air on all dates?
[A] January 1
[B] March 5
[C] June 15
[D] October 15
Answer: [C] June 15
The speed of the sound increases when there is an increase in the temperature
as well as moisture. The questions mentions that we have to keep moisture
constant. In the given dates, June 15 is supposed to be the hottest day, among
all and this would be the correct answer. Here please note that , the speed at
temperature Y (Vy) would be 331.3 m/s Plus 0.61 x temperature. This means
that the speed of the sound increases by 0.61 meter per second for each
increase in temperature. And at 0C, in dry air, the speed of sound is 331.3 m/s
We assume that at 12.00 noon in New Delhi on January 1 the temperature is 8C
and that on June 15 is 38C, then : V(8C) = 331.3 + (0.61 X 8) = 336.18 meter
per second; V(38C) = 331.3 + ( 0.61 X38)= 354.48 meter per second The
speed will be in between for other two options.
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Light Waves
Require a medium.
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61. Which among the following is / are features of the Post-Gupta society of India?
1. Presence of wide range of semi-autonomous rulers
2. Rise of secular as well as religious land grants
3. Exorbitantly high rates of taxation
4. Increased spatial and occupational mobility
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 1, 3 & 4
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [A] Only 1, 2 & 3
The summary of the societal conditions in early medieval India are as follows:
Political decentralization: The new polity is characterized by decentralization and hierarchy,
features suggested by the presence of a wide range of semi-autonomous rulers, Samantas,
Mahasamantas and others and the hierarchized positioning of numerous Rajapurushas employed
by royal courts.
Emergence of Landed intermediaries: This is the hallmark of Indian feudal social formation and
is seen to be linked both to the disintegration and decentralization of state authority and to major
changes in the structure of agrarian relations. The emergence of landed intermediaries- a
dominant landholding social group absent in the early historical period- is linked to the practice of
land grants which began with the Satavahanas. The earliest land grants belonging to the first
century BC were given to the Buddhist priests and Brahmans and other religious establishments.
However, in the post- gupta period even administrative officials were granted land. The landed
beneficiaries were given both powers of taxation and coercion, leading to the disintegration of the
central authority. The secular recipients of the grants and the autonomous holders of land are
generally termed as fief holders and free holders.
Localization of economy: There was a economy to self-sufficient villages as units of production.
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Following is an excerpt from Romila Thapars magnum opus. 1966 Romila Thapar
The Gupta kings took exalted imperial titles the Great King of Kings, the Supreme Lord, etc.,
yet in the case of the later rulers these titles were exaggerated, since their claimants could hardly
compare with the emperors of earlier centuries, their political sway being limited. In the Ganges
valley, which was under the direct control of the Guptas, the administrative hierarchy was
superficially akin to that of the Mauryas. The king was the centre of the administration, helped by
the crown prince. The other princes were appointed as viceroys of provinces. Ministers of various
kinds and advisers assisted the king. The province (desha or bhukti) was divided into a number of
districts (pradesha or vishaya), each district having its own administrative offices. But local
administration was for all practical purposes independent of the centre. Decisions whether of
policy or in relation to individual situations were generally taken locally, unless they had a specific
bearing on the policy or orders of the central authority. The officers in charge of the districts
(ayukta) and a yet higher provincial official (with the title of kumaramatya) were the link between
local administration and the centre. This was the significant difference between the Mauryan
administration and that of the Guptas: whereas Ashoka insisted that he must know of the doings
of even the smaller officials in the districts, the Guptas were satisfied with leaving it to the
kumaramatyas and the ayuktas.
The Gupta system of government did share some similarities with the Mauryan setup but was on
the whole a different style of government. Like the Mauryan system the Gupta kings were the
center of the administration. The empire was divided into several provinces each of which had
viceroys who were appointed from amongst the members of the royal family. The provinces were
further sub-divided into a series of districts. Each district had its own administrative centre. The
local administration of the district was free to make decisions on governing the area, essentially
free from central control, except in matters which may have dealt with central policies. The
highest officer in a district was known as the kumaramatya and he was the link between centre and
the district. Unlike their Mauryan predecessors, the Gupta kings were not concerned with every
nuance of local administration leaving such matters to the kumaramatya.
Villages were organized under rural bodies which consisted of the headman and village elders. In
the cities there was a council which had several officers like the President of the City corporation,
the chief representative of the guild of merchants, a representative of the artisans and the chief
scribe. The Gupta system of urban and rural administration was based on encouraging as much
local participation unlike the Mauryan system where royally appointed councils were the norm.
A significant change that had taken place was the increasing trend of paying salaries in land grants
rather then in cash. Land grants usually gave the beneficiary hereditary rights over the land,
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Around 54 % of the total installed electricity generation capacity is coal based in India and 67%
of the capacity planned to be added during the 11 Five year Plan period (2007-12), is also coal
based. Furthermore, over 70 % of the electricity generated is from coal based power plants.
These data prove the coal dependence of Indian economy.
Second statement is incorrect Maximum use of imported coal is in Iron and Steel Industry
At present, India imports about 85 million tons of coal. Out of this, about 25 million tons
is metallurgical coking coal for the iron & steel industry. The balance is thermal coal used by
power plants (50%), cement industry (17%) and other industries (33%). Presently, main
sources of thermal coal imports are Indonesia, Australia, New Zealand and South Africa.
Canada, Mozambique and the USA are amongst the emerging supply sources. Present coal
handling capacity at the ports is around 85-90 million tons per annum. This has to be
augmented to at least 120 million tons per annum in next two years. Further it has to be
doubled the present capacity by the end of the 12 Five Year Plan period.
78. With reference to the subsidies in India, which among the following is / are non-merit subsidies?
1. Food subsidy
2. Fertilizer subsidy
3. Subsidy on elementary education
4. Subsidy on rural infrastructure development
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [A] Only 1 & 2
Merit and Non-Merit Subsidies
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Merit subsidy is for sectors like elementary education, research, forestry, environment, information etc.
where the benets are reaped by the society as a whole. Non-merit subsidy is directed towards specic
groups of population, such as subsidy on food, fertilizer, petroleum, electricity etc.
80. Consider the following statements with respect to trends in Indias merchandise exports in recent
times:
1. Most of Indias merchandise exports belong to textiles and gems & jewellery sector
2. In recent times, the import of crude oil has increased, whereas exports of pharmaceuticals has
decreased
3. More and more companies in India are moving towards exports of intellectual property-driven
products
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82. Apart from saving foreign exchange, the government of India wishes to reap the environment
dividend by its Ethanol Blending Programme. What happens to Gasoline when Ethanol is blended in
it?
1.Octane number of Gasoline is raised
2.Energy content per volume of the fuel mixture is increased
3.The engine is less likely to suffer damage
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] Only 3
Answer: [C] Only 1 & 3
Second statement is incorrect because it reduces its energy content per volume.
83. Consider the following statements made in context with the National Green Tribunal (NGT) :
1.A decision by NGT is equivalent to a decree of a civil court
2.A decision by NGT is subject to judicial review by Supreme Court
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
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The broad objective of the Non-Lapsable Central Pool of Resources (NLCPR) is to ensure
speedy development of infrastructure in the North Eastern Region and Sikkim by increasing
the flow of budgetary financing for specific viable infrastructure projects/schemes in the
region. The provision is for funding these projects. The outlay includes a provision of Rs. 50
crore for funding special projects/schemes for the economic development of the Karbi Anglong
Autonomous Territorial Council (KAATC) area in Assam
86. The government of India has a say in the prices of which among the following fuels?
1. Natural Gas
2. Gasoline
3. Diesel
4. Kerosene
Choose the correct option:
[A] Only 2 & 4
[B] Only 1, 2 & 4
[C] 1, 2, 3 & 4
[D] Only 1, 3 & 4
Answer: [C] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Though the prices of Gasoline are deregulated, yet it means that the increases will be made by the
Public Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) in consultation with the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural
Gas. It has also been decided that in case of a high rise and volatility in international oil prices,
Government will suitably intervene in the pricing of Petrol and Diesel.
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The term shadow banking system was first used in 2007 and refers to the bank-like functions
performed by entities outside the regular banking system.
The more comprehensive definition, as adopted by the Financial Stability Board (FSB), i.e.,
credit intermediation involving entities and activities (fully or partially) outside the regular
banking system has been globally accepted. This definition has two important components:
Non bank financial entities or entities outside the banking system that engage in the bank
like activities of maturity transformation, undertaking credit risk transfer and using direct or
indirect financial leverage.
Activities such as securitization, securities lending and repo transactions that act as
important sources of funding for non bank entities.
Thus, shadow banks comprise entities which conduct financial intermediation directly, such as
finance companies or NBFCs, and entities which provide finance to such entities, such as
mutual funds. Globally, shadow banking entities could be covered under the broad heads of
Hedge Funds
Securitisation vehicles.
The Shadow banking institutions function as intermediaries between the investors and the
borrowers, providing credit and generating liquidity in the system. Although these entities do
not accept traditional demand deposits offered by banks, they do provide services similar to
what commercial banks offer. And this was one reason why they escaped regulation abroad.
The shadow banking system had overtaken the regular banking system in offering loans in US
before the financial crisis erupted in 2008.
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Money laundering is the process by which large amounts of illegally obtained is given the
appearance of having originated from a legitimate source. So basically, all the ways to convert
the black money into white money are Money laundering. But in Money laundering, the black
money must involve a predicate crime such as the violation of Indian Penal Code, IPC,
Narcotics, Prevention of Corruption Act and Human Trafficking. This is because in India,
stashing black money is simply a civil crime involving tax evasion, money laundering has
criminal dimensions related to black money. That is why, we use the term Dirty Money in this
context.
89. Consider the following invasive plants:
1. Lantana
2. Parthenium
3. Eupatorium
Which among the above came to India along with foodgrains imported from America?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 2 & 3
Woody shrub Lantana (Lantana camara) was introduced in India from South and Central America. Two other owering
shrubseupatorium (Chromolaena odorata) and parthenium (Parthenium hysterophorus) came to India along with
foodgrains imported from America. These weeds are known for aggressively occupying the forest oor and are
responsible for illnesses and deaths in cattle. The presence of these invasive weeds, particularly in the Western Ghats,
also aects the food habits of the herbivores in the region elephants, bison and deer, to name a fewwho are forced to
migrate to agricultural elds in search of food. This results in man-animal conict. Eco lo gists and wildlife management
ocials should either look at the option of mechanically uprooting these weeds or provide scientic solutions to arrest
their growth to preserve the local ora and fauna of the Western Ghats.
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90. The formation of the Red Sanders Anti-Smuggling Task Force (RSASTF) has succeeded in
preventing infiltration of smugglers to forests in with presence of red sanders. Consider the
following statements with this reference:
1. Red Sanders is found only in Andhra Pradesh
2. To export Red Sanders, India needs permission from CITES
3. This species is listed as Endangered by the IUCN
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 2 & 3
Red Sanders
Red Sanders is an endangered species found naturally only in four districts of Andhra Pradesh.
However, it is also found in wild in some adjacent districts of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
The tree growth is extremely slow and takes decades to gain thickness. The deep red-coloured
wood is sturdy and does not lose shape even in harsh temperatures and humidity. It is easy to
carve and a tonne of the wood fetches between Rs. 20 lakh to ` 40 lakh in the international
market. Red Sanders is in huge demand in countries like China and Japan, where it is used in
making musical instruments, sculpture, furniture and medicines. Unconfirmed repo rts say it
is also used as a coolant in nuclear reactors in China. As per the estimates of Andhra Pradesh
forest department, 3,000 tonnes of Red Sanders is illegally removed from its forests every year
Exporting Red Sanders requires permission from the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of wild fauna and flora (CITES), a binding treaty between 179 countries to
control trade of exotic wildlife species. India is a signatory to CITES. CITES had banned the
export of Red Sanders from India in June 2010 citing irregularities in certification of products
being exported and Indias failure to conduct Non-Detriment Find ing (NDF), a study to
establish conservation status of the species and the impact of trade on it. Recommendation to
carry out NDF was made by CITES in 2007. Red Sanders is smuggled from India mainly to
China, Japan, UAE, Malaysia and Singapore. Smuggling to China is mostly done by road via
Nepal, and to Malaysia and Singapore from the Chennai port. For UAE, the Mumbai port acts
as the transit point. Smuggling to Japan and China also takes place from Manipur and
Mizoram. (Down To Earth)
91. Why Trans Fatty Acids (TFAs) are used in food items?
1. They increase the shelf life of products
2. They stabilize the flavour and texture of food
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Besides carbon dioxide, agricultural practices also contribute significantly to global warming by
releasing methane and nitrous oxide in the air. A substantial part of methane in the atmosphere
comes from flooded rice paddies. Similarly, nitrogen fertilisers are a major source of nitrous
oxide in the atmosphere. Elevated levels of carbon dioxide can benefit crops and can be
sequestered in carbon sinks. But no such benefits can accrue from methane and nitrous oxide.
Moreover, the heat-trapping capacity of methane and nitrous oxide is much more than that of
carbon dioxide. While methane has a half-life of 10 years in the atmosphere, nitrous oxide can
remain in the atmosphere as long as carbon dioxide. Again, de-nitrification of nitrogenous
fertilizers produces dinitrogen oxide which has the potential to destroy the Ozone layer.
94. The tri-generation system is the latest buzzword in energy technology in India. What is / are the
benefits of tri-generation system?
1. It disallows the Green House Gases to escape to environment
2. It can produce electricity, heating and cooling simultaneously from a single fuel
3. It is efficient in comparison to the conventional systems
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
All are correct statements.
Trigeneration is the process, by which some of the heat produced by a cogeneration plant is used to
generate chilled water for air conditioning or refrigeration.
95. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana:
1. covers all savings bank account holders in the age 18 to 70 years
2. provides cover for five years, renewable after every five years
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
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Aedes aegypti mosquitoes, which spread Dengue virus prefer to breed in man made containers.
It can be recognized by white markings on leg. Dengue mosquito is a day biting mosquito. The
dengue viruses are the only known arboviruses that have fully adapted to humans and do not
need an animal reservoir, although dengue has been observed to also circulate in nonhuman
primates. They are transmitted from human-to-human by the urban-dwelling Aedes aegypti
mosquito, which has adapted to humans, laying their eggs in artificial containers in and around
houses and feeding only on humans, and by Ae albopictus (the Asian tiger mosquito) and Ae
polynesiensis. These latter mosquitoes feed on birds, reptiles, rats, cows, and humans. DV may
be transmitted vertically from the female mosquito to her offspring. Most cases of transmission
from human-to-human are through female mosquitoes which previously became infected
when feeding on an infected person. Only Females spread the disease.
97. Rising meat production and consumption leads to rise in __:
1. Water footprint
2. Phosphorous footprint
3. Carbon foot print
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 3
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Rising meat consumption in the last five decades has also caused a 38 per cent increase in the
worlds per capita phosphorus footprint. This is because it takes many kilogrammes of feed,
grown using phosphate fertilizers, to breed a cattle for its meat. Phosphorus is being mined for
these fertilisers at amuch faster rate than geological cycles can replenish it. Inclusion of diet
change strategies in phosphorus management studies could bring down the demand for mined
phosphorus.
Meat production also increases Carbon footprint.
98. With reference to the energy efficiency, which among the following is correct statement
explaining the Embodied Energy (EE)?
[A] Energy used in the maximum useful work possible
[B] All energy used in the construction process
[C] Total flow of energy through ecological systems
[D] None of the above is a correct definition
Answer: [B] All energy used in the construction process
Embodied Energy
Appliances consume energy to operate, but materials used in the construction of buildings
consume energy, too. Embodied energy, or EE, is the sum of all energy used in the construction
processright from extraction of raw materials, manufacture of products to their
transportation and incorporation in buildings. Lesser the extraction, processing and refining,
lower is the EE, and greener the product. Cement, steel and bricks, the basic construction
materials, are the major EE contributors. Their use can be reduced only to an extent. Materials
like ceramic and vitrified tiles, which are highly energy intensive, can be easily replaced with
energy-benign materials like stone.
99. Which among the following is / are Tiger Range Countries (TRCs)?
1.Bhutan
2.Myanmar
3.Laos
4.Vietnam
5.Cambodia
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
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General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016
53
The 13 Tiger Range Countries (TRCs) are Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Indonesia,
Cambodia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand and Vietnam. However, these 13
Tiger Range Countries cannot implement the global tiger recovery programme without the
support of the countries which are destination or transit points for the illegal tiger trade. The
total wild population of tigers is 3200. Only 6 subspecies exist viz. Sumatran, Bengal, Amur,
Indochinese, South China and Malayan tiger. The number of Sumatran tigers is 400 and it is
12% of the global tiger population. In India 1400 tigers are left. Indias project tiger was
launched in 1973. The first governmental meeting on tiger conservation was held in
Kathmandu, Nepal in October 2009. This meeting had recommended a series of 15 global
actions that need to be taken to change the trajectory of tigers from extinction to recovery, as
well as commitments from several tiger range countries. Later, first Asian ministerial
conference on tiger conservation was held in Hua Hin, Thailand in January 2010. This
conference adopted the goal of doubling the number of tigers by 2022. 2022 is the next Year of
the Tiger. In July 2010, the Indonesian Island Bali had hosted a Pre-Tiger Summit Partners
Dialogue Meeting in which a Global Tiger Recovery programme was drafted. After that, the
World Tiger Heads of Government Summit was held at St Petersburg in Russia from
September 15 to 18, 2010. After two years of deliberations, 13 Tiger-range countries finalized
an ambitious global programme for restoring the population of wild tigers, whose count now
stands less than 3,000 across the world. According to the Global Tiger Initiative (GTI), the
GTRP has a high probability of success because all 13 TRCs are working in concert.
100. Most of the developing countries of the world posses which among the following features?
1. Highly skewed income distribution
2. Very low ratio of Labour/ Capital
3. Negative Balance of Payment
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1
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General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016
54
The rst statement which says that in Developing Countries the income distribution is highly skewed is a
correct statement. The second statement, which says that in Developing countries the ratio of Labour/
Capital is generally very low is incorrect. The ratio would be high, as these countries will have less
capital and more labour. The third statement is almost irrelevant as one can not link the stage of
development with the Balance of payments.
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