Вы находитесь на странице: 1из 55

General Knowledge Today

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016


Last Updated: February 25, 2016
Published by: GKTODAY.IN
GKToday 2016 | All Rights Reserved
GKToday has authorized the download by you of an unrestricted number of copies of
this document in PDF format. GKToday grants you a nonexclusive, non-transferable
license to use this document for your personal use only. The document is a property
of GKToday and is protected by India and international copyright and other
intellectual property laws. Unauthorized duplication, redistribution and resale of this
document and content herein is not permitted.

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


2016 Full Length Test Series: Test-5
1. Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana:
1. will be implemented by Gram Panchayats in their respective districts
2. mandates approval of the Gram Sabha for projects to be taken up under PMKKKY in villages
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [B] Only 2
First statement is incorrect because the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana
(PMKKKY) will be implemented by the District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) of the respective
districts.
2. Consider the following statements with respect to newly formed Tax Policy Research Unit:
1. The unit will assist Tax Policy Council chaired by Finance Secretary.
2. It will be headed by an officer of level of Chief Commissioner, who will report to Finance
Minister.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [D] Neither 1 nor 2
First statement is incorrect because the unit will assist Tax Policy Council chaired by Finance
Minister. Second statement is incorrect because the unit will be headed by an officer of the level of
Chief Commissioner at functional level alternatively from CBDT and CBEC for a fixed tenure,
who will directly report to Revenue Secretary.
3. Consider the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA):
1. The act mandates at least one-third of beneficiaries to be women.
2. It mandates Central Government to pay 100% of unemployment allowance.
3. It mandates at least 50% of the works in terms of cost under the Scheme to be implemented
through GPs.
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 1 & 3
Second statement is incorrect because 100% of unemployment allowance is to be given by state
governments and not by central government.
4. Consider the following statements about Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act,
2015:
1. The act extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. It envisages State Governments, to constitute for every district, one or more Juvenile Justice
Boards.
3. Jurisdiction for accused in age group of 16-18, will be based on principles of natural justice,
rather than Code of Criminal Procedure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1 & 2
Third statement is incorrect because the Juristiction will be based on Code of Criminal Procedure.
Rest two statements are correct.
5. Avalanches in Himalayas have been a reason behind many causalities of trekkers, soldiers etc. since
long time. With this reference, consider the following statements:
1. The Himalayan range experiences more avalanches than any other place on Earth.
2. Snowmobiling is one of the major reasons for avalanches.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


Answer: [C] Both 1 & 2
An avalanche is a sudden flow of snow down a slope, such as a mountainside. The first statement is
correct because Himalayan range experiences more avalanches than any other place on Earth.
Second statement is also correct because snowmobile leads to to avalanches if slab is not well
anchored to the ground, leading to severe avalanche conditions.
6. Consider the following statements about the Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation)
Amendment Act, 2015:
1. The act introduces a mandatory provision to establish District Mineral Foundation (DMF) in
all districts of India.
2. The act increased all mining leases for a period of fifty years with only one time renewal
policy.
3. The act allows transfer of mining leases after approval from State Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 3
First statement is incorrect because the amendment act introduced a mandatory provision to
establish a trust, a non-profit body known as the District Mineral Foundation (DMF) in all
districts where mining related operations take place. Second statement is incorrect because the act
says that there will be no renewal of any mining concession and all mining leases would be put for
auction at the completion of the tenure.
7. Jan Aushadhi Scheme:
1. envisages the availability of quality generic medicines only to BPL families
2. mandates state governments to provide one time monetary grant for opening Jan Aushadhi
Outlet
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [D] Neither 1 nor 2
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

First statement is incorrect because Jan Aushadhi Scheme envisages availability of quality generic
medicines at affordable prices to all, and not only to BPL families. Second statement is incorrect
because the scheme mandates Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) to provide one-time
assistance of Rs.2.50 lakhs as furnishing and establishment costs for setting up a Jan Aushadhi
Outlet in government hospitals. State Governments are required to provide space in Government
Hospital premises or any other suitable locations for the running of the Jan Aushadhi Stores (JAS).
8. Zero Budget Natural Farming:
1. requires almost no monetary investment
2. advocates practice of organic farming in India
3. envisages use of Jeevamrutha and Beejamrutha
Which of the above is/are correct statements?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [B] Only 1 & 3
Second statement is incorrect because Zero Budget Natural Farming is different from organic
farming.
9. Consider the following statements with respect to LIGO project:
1. LIGO project helps to understand Earth's interior by studying seismic waves.
2. India is a partner in LIGO project.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [B] Only 2
First statement is incorrect because LIGO project is related to study of gravitational waves in
space. Second statement is correct. Also, we note that LIGO-India, or INDIGO, is a planned
collaborative project between the LIGO Laboratory and the Indian Initiative in Gravitational-wave
Observations (IndIGO) to create a world-class gravitational-wave detector in India.
10. Consider the following:
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


1. Regressive taxation policy
2. Lowering interest rates by RBI
3. Increase in number of angel investors
4. Widening of the tax base by government
Which of the above will help to boost the Start-up India programme?
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 2, 3 & 4
[C] Only 1, 2 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [B] Only 2, 3 & 4
A regressive tax is a tax that takes a larger percentage from low-income people than from highincome people. As the income rises, the tax rate decreases in regressive taxation. So, it will prove
to be a hindrance to Start-up India programme. Widening of the tax base will reduce the revenue
deficit and hence will help to boost Start-up initiatives.
11. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund:
1. provides equity support only to greenfield projects
2. comes under the SEBI Regulation
3. has maximum limit of government contribution to 51%
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 2
First statement is incorrect because the fund supports both greenfield and brownfield projects in
the country. Third statement is incorrect because government's contribution/share in the corpus
will be 49% in each entity set up as an alternate Investment Fund (AIF) and will neither be
increased beyond, nor allowed to fall below, 49%.
12. CubeSats:
1. are small satellites of 10 cm cubic dimension
2. launching is much cheaper than traditional satellites
3. are usually placed in geostationary earth orbit
Which of the above statements is / are correct?
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1 & 2
Third statement is incorrect because CubeSats are usually placed in low earth orbits.
13. Consider the following statements:
1. While Real GDP calculation takes inflation in account, Nominal GDP does not.
2. Nominal GDP is often higher than real GDP.
3. GDP in India is calculated by the Central Statistics Office.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
All are correct statements.
14. Consider the following differences between biosimilars and generics:
1. While generics are made of complex chemical synthesis, biosimilars are simple structure
made of living cells.
2. Biosimilars are usually higher in purity and potency compared to generics.
Which of the above is/are correct statements?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [D] Neither 1 nor 2
The generic versions of biological products are referred to as biosimilars. First statement is
incorrect because generics are simple structure, while biosimilars are complex. Second statement is
incorrect because there is generally no difference between the biological product and their
biosimilars, in terms of the safety, purity, and potency of the product.
15. Consider the following crops:
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


1. Cotton
2. Maize
3. Tomato
4. Mustard
Which of the above have natural hybridisation system?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [B] Only 1, 2 & 3
Natural hybridization is defined as the secondary contact between two populations that have
evolved separately over a long period of time. There is no natural hybridisation system in mustard.
16. Organic farming helps:
1. in increasing carbon sequestration in the soil
2. to reduce water footprint
3. in soil conservation
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
All are correct statements
17. Integrated Power Development project:
1. envisages Central Government to provide financial assistance to State owned Discoms/Power
Departments only in urban areas
2. allows to convert 75% of DISCOM debt into state-backed bonds
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [A] Only 1
Second statement is incorrect because it is a feature of UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana)
18. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) in India:
1. has been provided with financial assistance from UNICEF and World Bank
2. offers health, nutrition and hygiene education to mothers
3. offers services only through government hospitals
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1 & 2
Third statement is incorrect because services are delivered in an integrated manner at the
anganwadi, or childcare centre.
19. As per recent health reports, one in every three children in India does not get a full course of
DPT immunization. Which of the following infections is not included in DPT immunization?
[A] Whooping cough
[B] Tetanus
[C] Diphtheria
[D] Pneumonia
Answer: [D] Pneumonia
DPT includes diphtheria, pertussis (Whooping cough) and tetanus immunization.
20. Consider the following statements about the Ganga Gram Yojana, which was recently launched
from Village Puth in Hapur district of Uttar Pradesh:
1. It envisages every household in the course of the Ganges to have functional toilets
2. It envisages development of 1600 selected villages along the banks of river Ganga
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


Answer: [C] Both 1 & 2
Both are correct statements. {Reference}
21. Consider the following:
1. President
2. Vice President
3. Council of Ministers
4. Attorney General
5. Comptroller and Auditor General
Who among the above make the Union Executive?
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 1, 2, 3 & 4
[C] 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
[D] Only 1 & 3
Answer: [B] Only 1, 2, 3 & 4
The Union Legislature is Only Parliament
The Union Executive is President, Vice President, Council of Ministers and Attorney General.
The Union Judiciary is Only Supreme Court.
22. Who among the following is / are parts of the Electoral College that elects the President of India?
1. Elected Members of Parliament
2. Nominated Members of Parliament
3. Elected Members of State Legislative Assemblies
4. Elected Members of State Legislative Councils
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] Only 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [C] Only 1 & 3
The president is elected for a term of 5 years. He may terminate his own term by writing a
resignation addressed to Vice president. He can be removed from the office ONLY by
impeachment. He is eligible to re-elected for the same office for unlimited times. The president is
not elected by the people directly. A president is elected by an electoral college. This Electoral
College consists of the following:
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

10

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


Elected members of parliament (MPs from Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha).
Elected members of State legislative members, including that if NCT of Delhi and Pondicherry
Members of legislative councils in the states where there are bicameral legislatures can NOT
participate in election of President.
23. The President of India has power of pardon for the offenses against the laws on subjects listed in :
1. Union List
2. Concurrent List
3. State List
Choose the correct option:
[A] Only 1
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1 & 3
Answer: [C] 1, 2 & 3
It does not matter what crime was committed as far as presidents power of pardon is concerned.
24. The power of the president to nominate members in Rajya Sabha includes the nomination of :
1. Distinguished personalities in Art, literature, Science etc.
2. Members of Anglo Indian Communities
3. Members of Depressed Classes
Choose the correct option:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1
Anglo Indian Communities 2 members in Lok Sabha
25. In context with the Financial Powers of the President, consider the following:
1. No money bill can be introduced without his prior approval
2. President is responsible for causing the budget to be laid before Parliament
3. Finance Commission is appointed by him
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

11

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[B] 1 & 2
[C] 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
All given statements are correct.
26. Consider the following statements about various provisions related to the relations of President
and Council of Ministers:
1. The council of ministers has been provided to aid and advise the president in exercising his / her
powers
2. The President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice
3. President is bound to act in accordance with the advice of Council of Ministers
Which among the above statements is/ are correct?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] 2 & 3
Answer: [C] 1, 2 & 3
Via Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978, it was inserted in Constitution of India
that : President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or
otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such
reconsideration. (This is article 74)
27. The president of India makes appointments of __:
1. Attorney General
2. Comptroller and Auditor General
3. Solicitor General
4. Lokpal
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] 1, 2, & 3
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1, 2 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [C] 1, 2 & 4
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

12

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

Whereas attorney general for India is appointed by the President under Article 76(1) of the
Constitution, the solicitor general of India is appointed to assist the attorney general along with
four additional solicitors general by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. The proposal
for appointment of Solicitor General, Additional Solicitor General is generally moved at the, level
of Joint secretary/Law Secretary in the Department of Legal Affairs and after obtaining the
approval of the Minister of Law & Justice, the proposal is sent to the Appointments Committee of
the Cabinet for its approval.
Lokpal
The Chairperson and Members shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the
recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime MinisterChairperson; the
Speaker of the House of the PeopleMember; the Leader of Opposition in the House of the
PeopleMember; the Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by
himMember; one eminent jurist, as recommended by the Chairperson and Members, to be
nominated by the PresidentMember.
28. The resignation letter of which among the following constitutional / statutory functionaries is
addressed to president of India?
1. Judges of High Court
2. Chairman of Finance Commission
3. Judges of Supreme Court
4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
5. Lokpal
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 2, 3 & 4
[B] Only 2, 4 & 5
[C] Only 1, 2, 3 & 5
[D] 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
Answer: [D] 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
29. Consider the following statements:
1. An ordinance-making power of the President of India is not a discretionary power.
2. An ordinance promulgated by president cannot be retrospective in nature.
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

13

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [A] Only 1
Second statement is incorrect because an ordinance promulgated by president can be retrospective
in nature.
30. Who among the following is appointed as the Returning Officer in President Elections?
[A] Election Commissioner
[B] Lok Sabha Secretary General
[C] Lok Sabha speaker
[D] A person nominated by Election Commission
Answer: [B] Lok Sabha Secretary General
By convention, the Secretary General, Lok Sabha and the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha are
appointed as the Returning Officers by rotation. For the 2007 Presidential Election, the Secretary
General, Lok Sabha was appointed as Returning Officer. Therefore, for the 2012 Presidential
Election, the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha has been appointed as the Returning Officer. Two
other senior officers of Rajya Sabha Secretariat and the Secretaries and one more senior officer of
Legislative Assemblies of all States including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry
have also been appointed as the Assistant Returning Officers.
31. The members of legislative assemblies of states need to vote in case of election of :
1. President of India
2. Vice President of India
3. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Choose the correct option:
[A] Only 1
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1
Members of state legislative assemblies do not vote in election of vice president. Deputy Chairman
of Rajya Sabha is elected from amongst the RSs members.
32. The president of India can return a bill to the house for reconsideration if it is a __:
1. Ordinary Bill
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

14

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1
If it is an ordinary Bill
In case of an ordinary bill or a bill got introduced by a private member and passed by both houses,
the president can just withhold assent. It is similar to the Pocket Veto in US.
If it is a constitution amendment Bill
The President has no veto power in respect of a constitutional amendment bill. The 24th
Constitutional amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a
constitutional amendment bill.
If it a money bill
The President may either give or withhold his assent to a Money Bill. Under the Constitution, a
Money Bill cannot be returned to the House by the President for reconsideration.
33. Consider the following comparisons of President and Vice-President of India:
1. Both President and Vice-President are parts of Indian Parliament
2. Both President and Vice-President are elected by same electoral collage
3. Doubt and dispute arising out of election of President and as well as Vice President can be
challenged only in the Supreme Court
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 4
Answer: [C] Only 3
Vice-President is not the part of Indian Parliament. Electoral collage is different for election of
President and Vice-President of India.
34. A person who wants to contest the election of the Vice President of India should be:
1. Qualified to become a member of Rajya Sabha
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

15

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


2. Subscribed by at least 50 electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders on nomination paper
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [A] Only 1
A prospective Presidential candidate should get his nomination paper
subscribed by at least fty electors as proposers, and at least fty electors as
seconders. In the case of prospective Vice-Presidential candidate, the
nomination paper should be subscribed by at least twenty electors as proposers,
and at least twenty electors as seconders. No elector shall subscribe whether as
proposers or as seconder, more than one nomination paper at the same election
and if he does so, his signature shall be inoperative on any paper other than the
one rst delivered.

35. The president of India can summon joint session of the Parliament in case of a deadlock between
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1
Joint sitting is called in the following situation:
1. Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House and it is rejected by the
other House
2. Both houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill
3. More than 6 months elapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House without
the Bill being passed by it.
Please note that if there is a deadlock between the two houses on a Constitution amendment Bill,
there cannot be a joint sitting. In case of Money bills, the rejection of Rajya Sabha is immaterial.
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

16

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


36. Consider the following statements:
1. Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior consent of the President
2. Bills seeking alterations of State boundaries or changes in the names of State again has to be
introduced in the Parliament with the prior consent of the President
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [C] Both 1 & 2
Both are correct statements
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Any bill which, if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from the
consolidated fund of India, needs prior recommendation from President before its consideration by
house
2. President of India has power to order advances from Contingency Fund of India to meet
unforeseen expenditure pending its authorization by the Parliament
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [C] Both 1 & 2
Both the statements are correct
38. Which among the following statutory officers are appointed by President:
1. Central Chief Information Commissioner
2. Central Vigilance Commissioner
3. Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 2
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

17

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
39. The vice president of India is elected by an electoral college comprising:
1. Elected members of Lok Sabha
2. Nominated Members of Lok Sabha
3. Elected Members of Rajya Sabha
4. Nominated Members of Rajya Sabha
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 3
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of
both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such
election is by secret ballot. In contrast, Electoral College for electing the
President of India comprises of only the elected members of Parliament and
State Legislative Assemblies.

40. In which among the following, the speed of sound would be maximum?
[A] Dry air at 0C
[B] Dry air at 30C
[C] Humid air at 0C
[D] Humid air at 30C
Answer: [D] Humid air at 30C
The speed of sound in a medium depends on temperature of the medium. The
speed of sound decreases when we go from solid to gaseous state. In any
medium as we increase the temperature the speed of sound increases.. The
speed of sound will be highest in humid air at 30C.

41. The ultrasound technique is used frequently in obstetrics instead of X-Rays based techniques.
What is / are the principles behind this?
1. Ultrasound is a non-ionizing imaging technique
2. Ultrasound gives a clear picture of soft tissues, which do not show up in X-rays
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

18

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


3. Ultrasound causes almost no health problems (for a mother or unborn foetus)
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] Only 1 & 3
Answer: [C] 1, 2 & 3
Ultrasound, also called sonography, is another type of 3-D computerized imaging. Using brief
pulses of ultrahigh frequency acoustic waves (lasting 0.01 seconds), it can produce a sonar map of
the imaged object. The technique is similar to the echolocation used by bats, whales, and dolphins.
By measuring the echo waves, it is possible to determine the size, shape, location, and consistency
(whether it is solid, fluid-filled, or both) of an object.
Why is ultrasound used frequently in obstetrics?
Ultrasound is a very safe, noninvasive imaging technique. Unlike X-rays, sonography does not use
ionizing radiation to produce an image. It gives a clear picture of soft tissues, which do not show
up in X-rays. Ultrasound causes no health problems (for a mother or unborn fetus) and may be
repeated as often as necessary. Current evidence indicates that diagnostic ultrasound is safe for the
unborn child, unlike radiographs, which employ ionizing radiation. However, no randomized
controlled trials have been undertaken to test the safety of the technology, and thus ultrasound
procedures are generally not done repeatedly unless medically indicated.
42. While playing a flute, the flute player opens and closes the holes in the body of the flute to make
changes in __:
1. Pitch
2. Resonant Frequency
3. Timbre
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 3
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
The player changes the pitch of the sound produced by opening and closing
holes in the body of the instrument, thus changing the eective length of the
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

19

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


resonator and its corresponding resonant frequency. By varying the air
pressure, a ute player can also change the pitch of a note by causing the air in
the ute to resonate at a harmonic other than the fundamental frequency
without opening or closing any holes. Please note that Timbre is quality which
dierentiates two dierent instruments producing the sound of same frequency,
playing the same note at the same loudness. Closing one or more holes
downstream of the rst open hole also gives dierent timbre to adjacent notes.

43. We can hear a whooshing sound when we hold a spiral conch shell near our ears. What is the
most likely reason behind this?
[A] The sound we hear is echoing of our blood rushing through the blood vessels of our ear
[B] The sound is generated by air flowing through the shell - in and out
[C] The ambient noise around us resonates inside the shell
[D] None of the reasons mentioned in statements A, B or C is correct
Answer: [C] The ambient noise around us resonates inside the shell
The most likely explanation for the wave-like noise is ambient noise from
around us. The seashell that we hold just slightly above our ear captures this
noise, which resonates inside the shell.

44. Consider the following statements:


1. Bats, Dogs as well as Dolphins can perceive the frequency range of more than 20,000 Hz
2. Bats detect the obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected infrasonic waves
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [A] Only 1
Human audible range is from 12-16 Hz to 20000 Hz. In Dogs, it is within the range of
approximately 40 Hz to 60,000 Hz. The Dog whistles are blown at around 22-25000 Hz, which
seem silent to us but can bring a dog in action, thus used in their training. Bats use the concept of
echolocation and their frequency range is between 20 Hz and 120,000 Hz. Dolphins range anything
between 0.25 to 150 kHz. The second statement is not correct because Bats detect the obstacles in
their path by receiving the reflected ultrasonic waves.
45. If the time taken in an echo is 5 seconds, which among the following will be the approximate
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

20

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


distance of the object from source of sound? (assume normal room temperature at 20C)
[A] 1715 meters
[B] 1256 meters
[C] 857 meters
[D] 554 meters
Answer: [C] 857 meters
The time taken by the sound waves in going and coming back is 5 seconds, i.e.
2.5 second to reach and 2.5 seconds to come back. So the object is placed 343
x 2.5= 857 meters

46. Consider the following statements with reference to the pink noise?
1. It is a sound that has equal energy for each frequency.
2. It is primarily consisted of low frequency sounds.
3. Heartbeat produces pink noise.
Choose the correct option from codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 2 & 3
Pink noise, also known as 1/f noise, is a sound that has equal energy in all octaves. It primarily
consists of low frequency sounds. Due to practical constraints, pink noise can be produced only
over a certain range of frequencies and occurs naturally. Astronauts listening to electromagnetic
radiation in outer space have noted it being emitted from certain stars. In biology, it is produced by
the heartbeat and has shown up in DNA sequence statistics.
47. On which among the following, the speed of the sound depends?
1. Amplitude
2. Wavelength
3. Humidity
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 3
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] 1, 2 & 3
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

21

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[D] None
Answer: [A] Only 3
Speed of sound does not depend on amplitude and wavelength.
48. Echoes are heard when we shout in an empty hall. But when the hall is full of people no echoes
are heard why?
[A] Echoes are subdued in the noise of people
[B] Soft clothes of people absorb sound instead of reflecting it
[C] Destructive interference of sound takes place
[D] Excessive reverberations take place
Answer: [D] Excessive reverberations take place
Echoes are heard when we shout in an empty hall. But when the hall is full of
people no echoes are heard because excessive reverberations take place.

49. Ultrasounds are used extensively in industries and for medical purposes. Which among the
following is / are applications of Ultrasound?
1. Detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks
2. Echocardiography
3. Treatment of Kidney stones
4. Cleaning of odd shaped objects
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Applications of Ultrasound (From NCERT Class IX Textbook on Science)
Ultrasounds are high frequency waves. Ultrasounds are able to travel along well defined paths even
in the presence of obstacles.
Ultrasounds are used extensively in industries and for medical purposes. Ultrasound is
generally used to clean parts located in hard-to-reach places, for example, spiral tube, odd
shaped parts, electronic components etc. Objects to be cleaned are placed in a cleaning
solution and ultrasonic waves are sent into the solution. Due to the high frequency, the
particles of dust, grease and dirt get detached and drop out. The objects thus get thoroughly
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

22

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


cleaned.
Ultrasounds can be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks. Metallic components
are generally used in construction of big structures like buildings, bridges, machines and
also scientific equipment. The cracks or holes inside the metal blocks, which are invisible
from outside reduces the strength of the structure. Ultrasonic waves are allowed to pass
through the metal block and detectors are used to detect the transmitted waves. If there is
even a small defect, the ultrasound gets reflected back indicating the presence of the flaw or
defect.
Ordinary sound of longer wavelengths cannot be used for such purpose as it will bend
around the corners of the defective location and enter the detector.
Ultrasonic waves are made to reflect from various parts of the heart and form the image of
the heart. This technique is called echocardiography.
Ultrasound scanner is an instrument which uses ultrasonic waves for getting images of
internal organs of the human body. A doctor may image the patients organs such as the
liver, gall bladder, uterus, kidney, etc. It helps the doctor to detect abnormalities, such as
stones in the gall bladder and kidney or tumours in different organs. In this technique the
ultrasonic waves travel through the tissues of the body and get reflected from a region
where there is a change of tissue density.
50. In recent decades, breeder reactors are of research interest. Which among the following
statements with this reference is / are correct?
1.A breeder reactor produces more fissionable material than it burns
2.Breeder reactors are known for low fuel efficiency
3.Breeder reactors can be helpful in controlling nuclear waste
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 1 & 3
A breeder reactor is a nuclear reactor that generates more fissile material than it consumes. Also,
the controlled chain reaction helps in controlling the nuclear waste. Second statement is incorrect
because breeder reactors are said to have high fuel efficiency.
51. With reference to the nuclear fuels, how the Fissile material is different from the Fertile
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

23

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


material?
1. While Fissile material undergoes nuclear fission, Fertile material undergoes nuclear fusion
2. While Fissile material can be directly used, Fertile material can not be used directly in nuclear
reactors
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: [B] Only 2 is correct
The ssile material is the one which undergoes nuclear ssion (splitting of atom)
upon bombardment by slow/fast neutrons. The ssile materials used are
Uranium 235, Plutonium239 and Uranium233. (India is the only country in the
world to use U 233 fuel, used in Purnima & Kamini Reactors. Fertile material is
the one which by itself is not ssionable but will capture the neutron and will get
converted to a ssile material. Examples are Uranium 238 becoming Plutonium
239. Thorium 232 becoming Uranium 233 etc.

52. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is considered a better imaging technology than CAT scan
because:
1. MRI does not include invasive radiations
2. MRI is a non-ionizing diagnostic technique
3. MRI uses the oxygen atoms inside the body to resonate in body tissues
4. MRI can effectively differentiate between healthy and diseased tissues
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3 are correct
[B] Only 1, 2 & 4 are correct
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4 are correct
[D] Only 1 & 2 are correct
Answer: [B] Only 1, 2 & 4 are correct
MRI uses hydrogen atom inside the body to resonate in body tissues.
53. Consider the following statements with respect to the moderators used in Nuclear reactions:
1. Both normal water & heavy water can be used as Moderators in Nuclear reaction
2. Moderators are used both in Nuclear Reactors and Nuclear Bombs
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

24

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: [C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
Moderator is a medium that reduces the speed of fast neutrons, thereby turning
them into thermal neutrons capable of sustaining a nuclear chain reaction
involving uranium-235. Commonly used moderators include regular (light) water
(roughly 75% of the worlds reactors), solid graphite (20% of reactors) and
heavy water (5% of reactors). Beryllium has also been used in some
experimental types, and hydrocarbons have been suggested as another
possibility. Moderators are used in nuclear bombs too.

54. With reference to the Radioactivity, which among the following is called an isomeric transition?
[A] Alpha emission
[B] Gamma emission
[C] Beta emission
[D] X-Ray emission
Answer: [B] Gamma emission
An isomeric transition is a radioactive decay process that involves emission of a gamma ray from
an atom where the nucleus is in an excited metastable state, referred to in its excited state, as a
nuclear isomer. The emission of a gamma ray from an excited nuclear state allows the nucleus to
lose energy and reach either a lower energy state, sometimes its ground state. In certain cases, the
excited nuclear state following a nuclear reaction or other type of radioactive decay, has a half live
that is more than 100 to 1000 times longer than the average 10-12 seconds, and this excited state is
referred to as a metastable nuclear excited state. Some nuclei are able to stay in this metastable
excited state for minutes, hours, days, or occasionally far longer, before undergoing gamma decay,
in which they undergo radioactive decay with primary emission of a gamma ray.
55. After a nuclear disaster, the Strontium-90 becomes an health issue of great concern. What is the
major concern about this particular isotope?
[A] Strontium-90 gets deposited in the Red Blood Cells and causes Blood Cancer
[B] Strontium-90 gets deposited in the Liver cells and causes Liver Cirrhosis
[C] Strontium-90 gets deposited in bones and bone marrow and causes cancer
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

25

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[D] None of the above is a correct statement
Answer: [C] Strontium-90 gets deposited in bones and bone marrow and causes cancer
Strontium-90 is a bone seeker that exhibits biochemical behaviour similar to calcium, the next
lighter Group 2 element. After entering the organism, most often by ingestion with contaminated
food or water, about 7080% of the dose gets excreted. Virtually all remaining strontium-90 is
deposited in bones and bone marrow, with the remaining 1% remaining in blood and soft tissues.
Its presence in bones can cause bone cancer, cancer of nearby tissues, and leukaemia. (wikipedia)
56. Which among the following carbon isotopes are used in Carbon dating?
1. C12
2. C13
3. C14
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 3
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
Carbon Dating is a method to determine the age of plants and fossils. Of the three isotopes, C14 is
radioactive in nature and has a half-life (decays to half the strength) of 5,730 years. Scientists
measure the strength of C14 in the plant or fossil, and compare it with the expected strength of
C14 in the atmosphere, to compute the age. Also known as radio carbon dating, this technique was
developed by Willard Libby in 1949. He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1960.
When plants fix atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2) into organic material during photosynthesis
they incorporate a quantity of 14C that approximately matches the level of this isotope in the
atmosphere (a small difference occurs because of isotope fractionation, but this is corrected after
laboratory analysis. After plants die or they are consumed by other organisms (for example, by
humans or other animals) the 14C fraction of this organic material declines at a fixed exponential
rate due to the radioactive decay of 14C. Comparing the remaining 14C fraction of a sample to that
expected from atmospheric 14C allows the age of the sample to be estimated. In carbon dating we
calculate the 14C/12C or 14C/13C ratio. While the amount of carbon-12 or carbon-13 remains
constant, carbon-14 is unstable and decays with its half-life of 5,700 years.
57. Which among the following can increase or decrease the half-life of a particular radionuclide ?
1. Temperature and Pressure
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

26

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


2. Duration
3. Chemical Combination
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 3
[B] Only 2& 3
[C] Only 3
[D] None of them
Answer: [D] None of them
Half-life is the time it takes for the number of radioactive nuclei originally
present in a sample to decrease to one-half of their original number. Thus, if a
sample has a half-life of one year, its radioactivity will be reduced to half its
original amount at the end of a year and to one quarter at the end of two years.
The half-life of a particular radionuclide is always the same, independent of
temperature, chemical combination, or any other condition.

58. On which among the following dates at 12.00 noon in New Delhi, the speed of sound waves will
be maximum, assuming the same humidity / density of air on all dates?
[A] January 1
[B] March 5
[C] June 15
[D] October 15
Answer: [C] June 15
The speed of the sound increases when there is an increase in the temperature
as well as moisture. The questions mentions that we have to keep moisture
constant. In the given dates, June 15 is supposed to be the hottest day, among
all and this would be the correct answer. Here please note that , the speed at
temperature Y (Vy) would be 331.3 m/s Plus 0.61 x temperature. This means
that the speed of the sound increases by 0.61 meter per second for each
increase in temperature. And at 0C, in dry air, the speed of sound is 331.3 m/s
We assume that at 12.00 noon in New Delhi on January 1 the temperature is 8C
and that on June 15 is 38C, then : V(8C) = 331.3 + (0.61 X 8) = 336.18 meter
per second; V(38C) = 331.3 + ( 0.61 X38)= 354.48 meter per second The
speed will be in between for other two options.

59. Consider the following statements:


1. Low pitch sound has low frequency and high pitch of sound has high frequency
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

27

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


2. Soft sound has small pitch and louder sound has large pitch
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [A] Only 1
Excerpt from NCERT Class IX Science.
How the brain interprets the frequency of an emitted sound is called its pitch. The faster the
vibration of the source, the higher is the frequency and the higher is the pitch. Thus, a high pitch
sound corresponds to more number of compressions and rarefactions passing a fixed point per
unit time. Objects of different sizes and conditions vibrate at different frequencies to produce
sounds of different pitch. The loudness or softness of a sound is determined basically by its
amplitude. The amplitude of the sound wave depends upon the force with which an object is made
to vibrate. If we strike a table lightly, we hear a soft sound because we produce a sound wave of
less energy (amplitude). If we hit the table hard we hear a loud sound. Can you tell why? Loud
sound can travel a larger distance as it is associated with higher energy. A sound wave spreads out
from its source. As it moves away from the source its amplitude as well as its loudness decreases.
60. Light waves are different from sound waves because__:
1. Light waves are electromagnetic but sound waves are not
2. Light waves can travel through water but sound waves cannot
3. Light travels with the same speed in all media
4. Light waves produce interference but sound waves do not
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 4
[D] None
Answer: [A] Only 1
Sound Waves

Light Waves

Travel with a speed of 332 m/s at 0 C.

Travel with a speed of 3 *10 8 m/s.

Require a medium.

Do not require a medium

2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in


General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

28

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

Are longitudinal waves consisting of


compressions and rarefactions.

Are electromagnetic waves consisting of varying


electric and magnetic elds.

Are of dierent frequencies, giving notes


of dierent pitches.

Are of dierent frequencies, resulting in dierent


colors.

Do not travel far as their energy is


dissipated easily.

Can travel through a much

61. Which among the following is / are features of the Post-Gupta society of India?
1. Presence of wide range of semi-autonomous rulers
2. Rise of secular as well as religious land grants
3. Exorbitantly high rates of taxation
4. Increased spatial and occupational mobility
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 1, 3 & 4
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [A] Only 1, 2 & 3
The summary of the societal conditions in early medieval India are as follows:
Political decentralization: The new polity is characterized by decentralization and hierarchy,
features suggested by the presence of a wide range of semi-autonomous rulers, Samantas,
Mahasamantas and others and the hierarchized positioning of numerous Rajapurushas employed
by royal courts.
Emergence of Landed intermediaries: This is the hallmark of Indian feudal social formation and
is seen to be linked both to the disintegration and decentralization of state authority and to major
changes in the structure of agrarian relations. The emergence of landed intermediaries- a
dominant landholding social group absent in the early historical period- is linked to the practice of
land grants which began with the Satavahanas. The earliest land grants belonging to the first
century BC were given to the Buddhist priests and Brahmans and other religious establishments.
However, in the post- gupta period even administrative officials were granted land. The landed
beneficiaries were given both powers of taxation and coercion, leading to the disintegration of the
central authority. The secular recipients of the grants and the autonomous holders of land are
generally termed as fief holders and free holders.
Localization of economy: There was a economy to self-sufficient villages as units of production.
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

29

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


Thus, ruralisation was an important dimension of the transition process. This change was the
result of the decline of early historical urban centres and commercial networks leading to the
practice of payment in land grants instead of earlier practice of remuneration in cash, migration of
different urban social groups to rural areas, expansion of agrarian space and the crystallization of
Jajmani type of relationships in the rural areas. According to one formulation, fief holders and
free-holders in rural society emerged as agents of social change in the later phase of early medieval
society, generating once again such features of early historical economy as trade, urbanization and
a market economy.
Subjection of the peasantry : Likened sometimes to serfdom, characterizing the of the subjection
of peasantry , such as immobility, forced labour (vishti) and the payment of revenue at exorbitantly
high rates- all point to the nature of stratification in Post-Gupta society. The condition of the
peasantry in this pattern of rural stratification was in sharp contrast to what the agrarian structure
in early historical India represented, since that structure was dominated by free vaishya peasants
and labour services provided by the Shudras. It is important to note here that although the earliest
example of sharecroppers being transferred along with the land can be traced in the third century
pallava inscription from Andhra, Orissa and Deccan, from the sixth century AD onwards
sharecroppers and peasants were particularly asked to stick to the land granted to the beneficiaries.
The custom became fairly common in the post-gupta period and the villages transferred to the
grantees are known as dhana-jana-sahita, janata-samriddha and saprativasi-jana- sameta. Thus the
artisans and peasants were asked not to leave the village granted to the beneficiaries or migrate to
tax-free village.
Proliferation of castes : A striking social development from about the seventh century onwards
was the proliferation of castes. The Brahmavaivarta Purana, a seventh century work, counts 100
castes including 61 castes noted by Manu, but the Vishnudharmottara Purana (8th century) states
that thousands of mixed castes are produced by the connection of vaishyas women with men of
lower castes. In fact, proliferation affected the brahmanas, the Rajaputs, and above all, the shudras
and untouchables. Increasing pride of birth, characteristic of feudal society, and the accompanying
self-sufficient village economy, which prevented both spatial and occupational mobility, gave rise
to many castes. The guilds of artisans gradually hardened into castes due to lack of mobility in
post-gupta times. The absorption of the tribal peoples into the brahmanical fold, though as old as
vedic times, was mainly based on conquests. Coupled with the process of large-scale religious land
grants. Acculturation assumed enormous dimensions and considerably added to the variety of the
shudras and so-called mixed castes.
According to Prof. R.S. Sharma social changes were mainly the product of certain economic
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

30

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


developments, such as land grants and large scale transfers of land revenues and land to both
secular and religious elements, decline of trade and commerce, loss of mobility of artisans, peasants
and traders, unequal distribution of land an power etc. He holds the economic factor responsible
for the emergence of certain new castes and decline of certain old ones. Thus the constant transfer
of land of land revenues made by princes to priests, temples and officials led to the rise and growth
of the scribe or the Kayastha community which undermined the monopoly of Brahmans as writers
and scribes. Similarly, the decline of trade and commerce led to the decline in the position of the
Vaishyas. The process of proliferation and multiplication of castes was yet another marked feature
of the social life of the period.
62. With reference to the religion in early medieval India, which among the following observations
is / are correct?
1. Bhakti became a distinct feature of religion
2. Tantrism permeated Jainism, Buddhism, Shaivism as well as Vaishnavism
3. Theory of incarnation became very prominent
4. Earlier practice of Yajnas gave way to practice of Puja (worship)
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1, 2 & 4
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Apart from the regional formations other aspects of culture also acquired feudal character. In the
field of art and architecture this period ushered in a new age marked by regional styles in sculpture
and construction of temples, which became particularly prominent in south India from the eighth
century onwards. All over the country the post-gupta iconography prominently displays a divine
hierarchy which reflects the pyramidal rank in society. Vishnu, Shiva and Durga appear as
supreme deities, lording over many other divinities of unequal sizes and placed in lower positions
as retainers and attendants. The supreme mother goddess is clearly established as an independent
divinity in iconography from this time and is represented in a dominating posture in relation to
several minor deities. The pantheons do not so much reflect syncretism as forcible absorption of
tribal and lower order deities. The reality of unequal ranks appears in the shivite, jain and tantric
monastic organizations in which as many as five pyramidal ranks are enumerated. The ceremonies
recommended for the conservation of the Acharya, the highest in rank, are practically the same as
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

31

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


those for the coronation of the prince.
In this period the Mahayajnas and danas gave way to a system known as puja. With the puja was
interlinked the doctrine of bhakti or complete self-surrender of the individual to his god, which
became a distinct feature of medieval religion, especially a distinct feature of medieval religion,
especially in south india from the seventh century. Bhakti reflected the complete dependence of the
tenants or semi-serfs on the landowners in early medieval imes. Both puja and bhakti became
integral ingredients of tantricism, which arose outside mid-india in the aboriginal , peripheral
areas on account of the acculturation of the tribal people through large-scale religious land-grants.
Brahmanical land rights in the new territories could be maintained by adopting tribal rituals and
deities, especially the mother goddess, which eventually produced the tantras. In the fifth- seventh
centuries many Brahmanas received lands in Nepal, Assam, Bengal, Orissa, central india, and the
Deccan where tantric texts, shrines and practices appeared about this time. In Tamil Nadu
Brahmanas settled in large number from the 8th century, and the Agamas were compiled from the
9th century. Tantricism permeated Jainism, Buddhism, shaivism and Vaishnavism, and from the
seventh century continued to hold ground throughout the medieval period. The theory of
incarnation, though beginning from the earlier period, became very prominent during this period.
The local gods and goddesses were identified as incarnation of Vishnuu, Shiva and Durga.
Undoubtedly, the establishment of the Turkish rule introduced certain significant changes in the
social, economic and political organization of the country. But most features such as feudal state
organization, reversion to closed economy, proliferation of castes, regional identity in art, script
and language, puja, bhakti and tantra which developed in medieval times and continued later, can
be traced back to the sixth and seventh centuries. It would then appear that in these two centuries
ancient India was coming to an end and medieval india was taking shape. The period is thus
known as early medieval India.
63. The period of 8th to 10th century in India is known for a Tripartite struggle. Who among the
following were the parties to this tripartite struggle?
[A] Rastrakutas, Palas and Gurjara Pratiharas
[B] Palas, Solankis and Chamhanas
[C] Palas, Gangas and Senas
[D] Rastrakutas, Gurjar Pratiharas and Solankis
Answer: [A] Rastrakutas, Palas and Gurjara Pratiharas
The Tripartite struggle describes the period between the 8th century and the 10th century in
which India witnessed a struggle for the resources of the rich Gangetic Plains. The three (tri-)
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

32

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


parties involved in this struggle were The Rashtrakutas in the South, The Pala dynasty of Bengal
and the Gurjara Pratihara dynasty reigning from Malwa.The Tripartite struggle was a struggle for
power and control over the central Gangetic valley among three major empires in India during the
8th Century.
Thus lured by the immense strategic and economic potentialities of the kingdom of Kannauj, the
Gurjara-Pratiharas of Bhinmal (Rajasthan), the Palas of bengal and the Rashtrkutas of Manyaketa
(Maharashtra) fought against each other. This tripartite struggle continued for nearly a century
and ultimately ended in favour of the Gurjara- Pratihara ruler Nagabhata II who founded the
Gurjara-Pratihara kingdom at Kannauj which survived for nearly to centuries.
64. During the early medieval India, founders of which among the following dynasty was elected by
the people?
[A] Pratiharas
[B] Palas
[C] Gangas
[D] Solankis
Answer: [B] Palas
The history of Bengal from the death of Harsha up to the ascendancy of the Palas is shrouded in
bscruity. At this time, west bengal was known as Gauda and East Bengal as Vanga. Bengal was
subjected to internal disorder what is called Matsya Nyaya (the rule of strong devouring the weak),
leading up to a revolution by which a local chief Gopala (AD 750-770) was elected (Grahita) by the
people. This is however, to be taken not in a strictly democractic or constitutional sense which was
not possible in these days. Perhaps the election was nothing but his acceptance as a ruler by the
people.
65. In what way, the administration of the Guptas was different with the Mauryas?
1. The Kings in Gupta era became more and more interested in local administration in comparison
to Mauryas
2. The Gupta era saw an increasing trend of paying salaries in cash in comparison to Mauryas
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [D] Neither 1 nor 2
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

33

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

Following is an excerpt from Romila Thapars magnum opus. 1966 Romila Thapar
The Gupta kings took exalted imperial titles the Great King of Kings, the Supreme Lord, etc.,
yet in the case of the later rulers these titles were exaggerated, since their claimants could hardly
compare with the emperors of earlier centuries, their political sway being limited. In the Ganges
valley, which was under the direct control of the Guptas, the administrative hierarchy was
superficially akin to that of the Mauryas. The king was the centre of the administration, helped by
the crown prince. The other princes were appointed as viceroys of provinces. Ministers of various
kinds and advisers assisted the king. The province (desha or bhukti) was divided into a number of
districts (pradesha or vishaya), each district having its own administrative offices. But local
administration was for all practical purposes independent of the centre. Decisions whether of
policy or in relation to individual situations were generally taken locally, unless they had a specific
bearing on the policy or orders of the central authority. The officers in charge of the districts
(ayukta) and a yet higher provincial official (with the title of kumaramatya) were the link between
local administration and the centre. This was the significant difference between the Mauryan
administration and that of the Guptas: whereas Ashoka insisted that he must know of the doings
of even the smaller officials in the districts, the Guptas were satisfied with leaving it to the
kumaramatyas and the ayuktas.
The Gupta system of government did share some similarities with the Mauryan setup but was on
the whole a different style of government. Like the Mauryan system the Gupta kings were the
center of the administration. The empire was divided into several provinces each of which had
viceroys who were appointed from amongst the members of the royal family. The provinces were
further sub-divided into a series of districts. Each district had its own administrative centre. The
local administration of the district was free to make decisions on governing the area, essentially
free from central control, except in matters which may have dealt with central policies. The
highest officer in a district was known as the kumaramatya and he was the link between centre and
the district. Unlike their Mauryan predecessors, the Gupta kings were not concerned with every
nuance of local administration leaving such matters to the kumaramatya.
Villages were organized under rural bodies which consisted of the headman and village elders. In
the cities there was a council which had several officers like the President of the City corporation,
the chief representative of the guild of merchants, a representative of the artisans and the chief
scribe. The Gupta system of urban and rural administration was based on encouraging as much
local participation unlike the Mauryan system where royally appointed councils were the norm.
A significant change that had taken place was the increasing trend of paying salaries in land grants
rather then in cash. Land grants usually gave the beneficiary hereditary rights over the land,
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

34

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


although technically the king retained the right to repossess the land if he was unhappy with the
conduct of the beneficiary. Brahmins were usually granted tax free lands which was another
concession to an already privileged class. Land grants undermined the authority of the king as
more and more land was taken away from his direct control. Also since the beneficiaries of land
grants were usually Brahmins or government officials the king was not really able to exercise the
repossession option fearing political backlash. The government revenue essentially came from land
as commercial activity was no longer as big a contributor as it once was. Land revenue came from
a variety of sources, like direct tax on the land as well as a tax on the produce of the land.
The Guptas also had a fairly good judicial system. At the bottom, were various councils which
were authorized to resolve disputes that arose. Examples of these were the village assembly or the
trade guild. Hence justice was usually available in the place a person lived or worked. The king
presided over the highest court of appeal and he was assisted by various judges, ministers and
priests etc, their presence dependent on the nature of the case. The judgment were usually made
based on legal texts, social customs or specific edicts from the king.
Another significant feature of this period was that salaries were sometimes paid not in cash but in
grants of land, as is evident both from the frequency of land-grant inscriptions (in stone and metal)
found from this period onwards and also from the specific reference to this practise by Hsuan
Tsang in his account of India. Cash salaries were paid for military service alone. Land grants were
of two varieties. One was the agrahara grant which was restricted to brahmans and was tax free
66. Consider the following statements:
1. The Gupta era saw an increased trade with the regions in todays South East Asia
2. Tamralipti, Ghantashala, and Kadura ports on east coast handled the north-Indian trade with
south-east Asia
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [C] Both 1 & 2
The campaigns of Samudra Gupta to the east and the south and the repeated tours of Harsha
ensured the continuation of efficient communication, and goods moved easily to all parts of India.
On the roads, pack animals and ox-drawn carts were used, and in certain areas elephants were
used. The lower reaches of the large rivers such as the Ganges, Yamuna, Narmada, Godavari,
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

35

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


Krishna, and Kaveri were the main waterways. The ports of the east coast, Tamralipti,
Ghantashala, and Kadura handled the north-Indian trade with south-east Asia, and those of the
west coast, Broach, Chaul, Kalyan and Cambray, traded with the Mediterranean and west Asia but
the more southerly of these ports were outside Gupta control. The export of spices, pepper,
sandalwood, pearls, precious stones, perfumes, indigo, and herbs continued as before but the
commodities that were imported differed from those of earlier times. Chinese silk came in greater
quantity, as did ivory from Ethiopia. The import of horses, coming from Arabia, Iran, and Bactria,
either overland to centres in the north-west or by sea to the west coast, increased during this
period. It is strange that India never bred sufficient horses of quality, the best blood having always
to be imported; this was to have disastrous consequences on the cavalry arm of Indian armies,
eventually making the cavalry ineffective, particularly in comparison with central Asian
horsemen.
67. Pataliputra, once the capital of most north Indian dynasties, lost its status by the time of __?
[A] Samudragupta
[B] Pushyamitra Shunga
[C] Harsha
[D] Skandagupta
Answer: [C] Harsha
By the time of Harsha, Pataliputra, once the capital of most north Indian dynasties, lost its status,
and instead Kanauj (in western Uttar Pradesh) came to dominate the Ganges plain.
68. The source of funding for supporting the ancient Nalanda university was __?
[A] Grants by central government
[B] Daily alms collected by the Buddhist monks
[C] Commercial activities of the Buddhist Sangha
[D] Villages and Estates of university acquired via donations
Answer: [D] Villages and Estates of university acquired via donations
Nalanda was supported by the income from a number of villages which the monastery acquired
over the years through donations. These villages and estates covered the expenses of the
university, which was thus able to provide free educational facilities and residence for most of its
students.
69. Identify the classical work by the following information:
1. Its a Classical Sanskrit text attributed to Matanga Muni
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

36

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


2. It is the first text that speaks directly of the raga and distinguishes the classical (marga) and the folk
(desi)
3. It introduced sargam notation in Indian Classical Music
Choose the correct option:
[A] Natya Shashtra
[B] Brihaddeshi
[C] Sangeet Parijat
[D] Sangeet Maakrand
Answer: [B] Brihaddeshi
Brihaddeshi is a Classical Sanskrit (dated ca. 6th to 8th century) text on Indian classical music,
attributed to Matanga Muni. It is the first text that speaks directly of the raga and distinguishes the
classical (marga) and the folk (desi). It also introduced sargam notation. In Matangas discussion of
musical scales and micro-tonal intervals he clarifies Bharata Munis Natya Shastra on which the
author based his work. It clarifies many issues related to shruti that were presented tersely by
Bharata.
70. Which among the following was / were the fallouts / results of the Feudalism in medieval India?
1. Creation of smaller nuclei of Power
2. Creation of secure and sacrosanct political pockets
3. Improvement in the position of Shudras to some extent
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
In the post-Gupta period, it is assumed that the position of Shudras in the society had come up to
the status of peasants from their earlier position of servants and domestic slaves.Huen-Tsang, in
his accounts characterises Shudras as agriculturists.
71. During the early medieval India, the feudatories were largely drawn from__:
1. Government officers and military chiefs
2. Local hereditary chiefs and aristocrats
3. Tribal leaders
4. Brahmins
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

37

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] 1, 2 & 3
[C] 1, 2, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2 & 4
Answer: [C] 1, 2, 3 & 4
72. With reference to the feudal system, which among the following is / are correct observation?
1. It obviated the need for a centrally administered bureaucracy
2. The administration became more and more responsible to the need of the local people
3. It resulted in different kinds of taxes which the peasant was forced to pay in addition to the basic
land tax
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 1
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [B] Only 1 & 3
Second statement is incorrect because the administrative condition deteriorated, as powers got
concentrated mainly in the hands of few feudal families.
73. With reference to the nature of Indian economy / society in early medieval India, which among
the following statements is / are correct?
1. Practice of agriculture got confined to only Vaishyas and Shudras
2. The Vaisyas gradually lost their economic status due to decline of trade and commerce
3. The Brahmins adopted the occupation of agriculture only in times of distress
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 2
Agriculture was viewed more or less as a regular vocation of the Brahmin, and not as an
occupation to be adopted only in distress. In fact Agriculture was included as a Samanya Dharma
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

38

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


of all varnas.
74. Consider the following observations:
1. In the medieval times, both Jainism and Buddhism had become incapable of offering any serious
challenge to brahmanism
2. Both Jainism and Buddhism were affected by Tantrism to almost equal extent
Which among the above observations is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [A] Only 1
Second statement is incorrect because the Jains, however, like the Buddhists, did adopt tantric
practices, but it did not affected the Jain moral norms such as, chanting and meditating on
mantras.
75. Which among the following is / are traits of early medieval India?
1. Development of diverse regional culture of India
2. Formation of diverse regional languages of India
3. Reinvention of Vedic Gods in Hinduism
4. Development of regional style in sculpture and construction of temples
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 1, 2 & 4
[C] Only 1, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [B] Only 1, 2 & 4
Third statement is incorrect because there was no reinvention of vedic gods in medieval India.
Infact, gods were worshiped as avatars of the Absolute Spirit during medieval India.
76. The latest Census data has made some journalists put forward that Indian population is
undergoing distress migration. A migration stimulated by which among the following is called
distress migration?
1. Extreme economic deprivation
2. Favourite labour or climate conditions
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

39

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


3. Natural and environmental disasters
4. Social oppression
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [C] Only 1, 3 & 4
India is under distress migration- this is what is the finding of P Sainath, of The Hindu. According
to him, Indias urban population has risen more (91 million more than in the 2001 census) than the
rural population (90.6 million more than in the 2001 census). Nearly half the people in states like
Tamil Nadu already live in urban settlements. Distress migration has been defined as such
movement from ones usual place of residence, which is undertaken in conditions where the
individual and/or the family perceive that there are no options open to them to survive with
dignity, except to migrate. Such distress is usually associated with extreme paucity of alternate
economic options, and natural calamities such as floods and drought. But there may also be acute
forms of social distress which also spur migration, such as fear of violence and discrimination
which is embedded in patriarchy, caste discrimination, and ethnic and religious communal
violence. In other words, migration is distress if it is motivated by extreme economic deprivation,
natural and environmental disasters, or forms of gender and social oppression which are perceived
to be intolerable.
In this statement, second statement is not correct because its a definition of seasonal migration.
77. Consider the following statements:
1. Largest fraction of electricity generated in India is coal based
2. Majority of imported coal in India is used in electricity production
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [A] Only 1
Bits on Coal import and Usage

2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in


General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

40

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

First statement is correct We are more dependent on coal

Around 54 % of the total installed electricity generation capacity is coal based in India and 67%
of the capacity planned to be added during the 11 Five year Plan period (2007-12), is also coal
based. Furthermore, over 70 % of the electricity generated is from coal based power plants.
These data prove the coal dependence of Indian economy.
Second statement is incorrect Maximum use of imported coal is in Iron and Steel Industry
At present, India imports about 85 million tons of coal. Out of this, about 25 million tons
is metallurgical coking coal for the iron & steel industry. The balance is thermal coal used by
power plants (50%), cement industry (17%) and other industries (33%). Presently, main
sources of thermal coal imports are Indonesia, Australia, New Zealand and South Africa.
Canada, Mozambique and the USA are amongst the emerging supply sources. Present coal
handling capacity at the ports is around 85-90 million tons per annum. This has to be
augmented to at least 120 million tons per annum in next two years. Further it has to be
doubled the present capacity by the end of the 12 Five Year Plan period.

78. With reference to the subsidies in India, which among the following is / are non-merit subsidies?
1. Food subsidy
2. Fertilizer subsidy
3. Subsidy on elementary education
4. Subsidy on rural infrastructure development
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [A] Only 1 & 2
Merit and Non-Merit Subsidies

2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in


General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

41

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

Merit subsidy is for sectors like elementary education, research, forestry, environment, information etc.
where the benets are reaped by the society as a whole. Non-merit subsidy is directed towards specic
groups of population, such as subsidy on food, fertilizer, petroleum, electricity etc.

At present, the bulk of the subsidy expenditure in India is on non-merit subsidy.


The merit subsidies are as follows:
Elementary education, primary health centres, prevention and control of diseases, social welfare and
nutrition, soil and water conservation, and ecology and environment; Sports and youth services, family
welfare, urban development, forestry, agricultural research and education, other agricultural
programmes, special programmes for rural development, land reforms, other rural development
programmes, special programmes for north-eastern areas, flood control and drainage, non-conventional
energy, village and small industries, ports and light houses, roads and bridges, inland water transport,
atomic energy research, space research, oceanographic research, other scientific research, census surveys
and statistics, meteorology.
All other subsidies are non-merit subsidies.
79. The government has established an Independent Evaluation Office in recent past. The IEO has
been started to undertake assessment of __:
[A] Government schemes and programmes
[B] FDI proposals
[C] Public Capital Expenditure
[D] Government Borrowing Programmes
Answer: [A] Government schemes and programmes
Independent Evaluation Oce
Independent Evaluation Oce (IEO) has been established to undertake impartial and objective
assessment of the various public programmes and improve the eectiveness of public interventions.
The oce has functional autonomy and is attached to Planning Commission under a Governing Board
chaired by the Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission. It is funded by the Planning Commission and
has as its head, a full-time Director General (DG) in the rank and status of Member, Planning
Commission. It imparts advice to Planning Commission and the implementing agencies in developing
appropriate management systems consistent with the evaluation objectives.

80. Consider the following statements with respect to trends in Indias merchandise exports in recent
times:
1. Most of Indias merchandise exports belong to textiles and gems & jewellery sector
2. In recent times, the import of crude oil has increased, whereas exports of pharmaceuticals has
decreased
3. More and more companies in India are moving towards exports of intellectual property-driven
products
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

42

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
All are correct statements
81. The Biotechnology sector in recent times is dominated by Biosimilar products. How the
Biosimialars are different from ordinary drugs?
1. While ordinary drugs are of chemical origin, Biosimialars are essentially made from living cells
2. While ordinary drugs are relatively stable, Biosimialars are sensitive to environmental conditions
3. While ordinary drugs dont pose problems of immunogenicity, Biosimialars pose such problems
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3

2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in


General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

43

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

82. Apart from saving foreign exchange, the government of India wishes to reap the environment
dividend by its Ethanol Blending Programme. What happens to Gasoline when Ethanol is blended in
it?
1.Octane number of Gasoline is raised
2.Energy content per volume of the fuel mixture is increased
3.The engine is less likely to suffer damage
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] Only 3
Answer: [C] Only 1 & 3
Second statement is incorrect because it reduces its energy content per volume.
83. Consider the following statements made in context with the National Green Tribunal (NGT) :
1.A decision by NGT is equivalent to a decree of a civil court
2.A decision by NGT is subject to judicial review by Supreme Court
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

44

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: [C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
Jurisdiction and Powers of NGT
Jurisdiction:
NGT has Original as well as Appellate jurisdiction on over all civil cases where a substantial
dispute is related to the matters that are connected to Water Pollution, Forest Conservation, Air
Pollution, Environment Protection and Biological Diversity. These disputes may be related to any
of the following acts:
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974;
2. The Water (Prevention and Control o[Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;
3. The Forest (Conservation) Act
4. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981;
5. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;
6. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991;
7. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
Powers:
The Tribunal has power to provide
1. Relief and compensation to the victims of pollution and other environmental damage
2. Restitution of property damaged;
3. Restitution of the environment for such area or areas, as the Tribunal may think fit.
84. Which among the following would adversely affect the current account deficit (CAD) of the
India?
1. Increase in the Global Oil Prices
2. Increase in the Gold Imports
3. Decrease in the prices of Edible Oils
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [B] Only 1 & 2
Factors Affecting CAD
We should know that CAD refers to net flow of income out of the country, barring capital
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

45

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


movements. Current Account consists of two major items viz. Merchandise exports & imports
and Invisible exports and imports, which refer to sale of services. Higher CAD leads to greater
vulnerability of economy on external front and could lead to depreciation of the currency. Since,
Oil constitutes about one-third Indias total imports, fluctuation in its prices will impact Indias
Current Account Deficit.
85. What is the objective of the Central Government in creating the Non-lapsable Central Pool of
Resources?
[A] To provide development funding in Naxalite affected areas
[B] To provide additional development grant to most backward 200 districts all over country
[C] To provide time to time fiscal stimulation to the economy
[D] To provide development funding to North East and Sikkim
Answer: [D] To provide development funding to North East and Sikkim
NLCPR

The broad objective of the Non-Lapsable Central Pool of Resources (NLCPR) is to ensure
speedy development of infrastructure in the North Eastern Region and Sikkim by increasing
the flow of budgetary financing for specific viable infrastructure projects/schemes in the
region. The provision is for funding these projects. The outlay includes a provision of Rs. 50
crore for funding special projects/schemes for the economic development of the Karbi Anglong
Autonomous Territorial Council (KAATC) area in Assam
86. The government of India has a say in the prices of which among the following fuels?
1. Natural Gas
2. Gasoline
3. Diesel
4. Kerosene
Choose the correct option:
[A] Only 2 & 4
[B] Only 1, 2 & 4
[C] 1, 2, 3 & 4
[D] Only 1, 3 & 4
Answer: [C] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Though the prices of Gasoline are deregulated, yet it means that the increases will be made by the
Public Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) in consultation with the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural
Gas. It has also been decided that in case of a high rise and volatility in international oil prices,
Government will suitably intervene in the pricing of Petrol and Diesel.

2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in


General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

46

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

87. With reference to India, the components of Shadow Banking is / are?


1.Money Market Funds
2.Credit investment Fund
3.Hedge Funds
4.NBFCs
Choose the correct option:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 3 & 4
[C] Only 1, 2 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Shadow Banking in Indian Context

The term shadow banking system was first used in 2007 and refers to the bank-like functions
performed by entities outside the regular banking system.
The more comprehensive definition, as adopted by the Financial Stability Board (FSB), i.e.,
credit intermediation involving entities and activities (fully or partially) outside the regular
banking system has been globally accepted. This definition has two important components:

Non bank financial entities or entities outside the banking system that engage in the bank
like activities of maturity transformation, undertaking credit risk transfer and using direct or
indirect financial leverage.

Activities such as securitization, securities lending and repo transactions that act as
important sources of funding for non bank entities.
Thus, shadow banks comprise entities which conduct financial intermediation directly, such as
finance companies or NBFCs, and entities which provide finance to such entities, such as
mutual funds. Globally, shadow banking entities could be covered under the broad heads of

Money Market Funds,

Credit investment Fund

Hedge Funds

Finance Companies accepting deposits or deposit like funding

Securities brokers dependent on wholesale funding

Credit insurers, financial guarantee providers

Securitisation vehicles.
The Shadow banking institutions function as intermediaries between the investors and the
borrowers, providing credit and generating liquidity in the system. Although these entities do
not accept traditional demand deposits offered by banks, they do provide services similar to
what commercial banks offer. And this was one reason why they escaped regulation abroad.
The shadow banking system had overtaken the regular banking system in offering loans in US
before the financial crisis erupted in 2008.
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

47

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


88. With reference to the Money laundering, sometimes a term Dirty Money is used. How Dirty
Money is different from Black Money?
1. While stashing black money is a criminal act, Dirty Money (Money Laundering) is a civil crime
2. Usually, source of Dirty money is known, but source of black money is not known
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: [D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Dirty Money versus Black Money

Money laundering is the process by which large amounts of illegally obtained is given the
appearance of having originated from a legitimate source. So basically, all the ways to convert
the black money into white money are Money laundering. But in Money laundering, the black
money must involve a predicate crime such as the violation of Indian Penal Code, IPC,
Narcotics, Prevention of Corruption Act and Human Trafficking. This is because in India,
stashing black money is simply a civil crime involving tax evasion, money laundering has
criminal dimensions related to black money. That is why, we use the term Dirty Money in this
context.
89. Consider the following invasive plants:
1. Lantana
2. Parthenium
3. Eupatorium
Which among the above came to India along with foodgrains imported from America?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 2 & 3
Woody shrub Lantana (Lantana camara) was introduced in India from South and Central America. Two other owering
shrubseupatorium (Chromolaena odorata) and parthenium (Parthenium hysterophorus) came to India along with
foodgrains imported from America. These weeds are known for aggressively occupying the forest oor and are
responsible for illnesses and deaths in cattle. The presence of these invasive weeds, particularly in the Western Ghats,
also aects the food habits of the herbivores in the region elephants, bison and deer, to name a fewwho are forced to
migrate to agricultural elds in search of food. This results in man-animal conict. Eco lo gists and wildlife management
ocials should either look at the option of mechanically uprooting these weeds or provide scientic solutions to arrest
their growth to preserve the local ora and fauna of the Western Ghats.

2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in


General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

48

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

90. The formation of the Red Sanders Anti-Smuggling Task Force (RSASTF) has succeeded in
preventing infiltration of smugglers to forests in with presence of red sanders. Consider the
following statements with this reference:
1. Red Sanders is found only in Andhra Pradesh
2. To export Red Sanders, India needs permission from CITES
3. This species is listed as Endangered by the IUCN
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [C] Only 2 & 3
Red Sanders

Red Sanders is an endangered species found naturally only in four districts of Andhra Pradesh.
However, it is also found in wild in some adjacent districts of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
The tree growth is extremely slow and takes decades to gain thickness. The deep red-coloured
wood is sturdy and does not lose shape even in harsh temperatures and humidity. It is easy to
carve and a tonne of the wood fetches between Rs. 20 lakh to ` 40 lakh in the international
market. Red Sanders is in huge demand in countries like China and Japan, where it is used in
making musical instruments, sculpture, furniture and medicines. Unconfirmed repo rts say it
is also used as a coolant in nuclear reactors in China. As per the estimates of Andhra Pradesh
forest department, 3,000 tonnes of Red Sanders is illegally removed from its forests every year
Exporting Red Sanders requires permission from the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of wild fauna and flora (CITES), a binding treaty between 179 countries to
control trade of exotic wildlife species. India is a signatory to CITES. CITES had banned the
export of Red Sanders from India in June 2010 citing irregularities in certification of products
being exported and Indias failure to conduct Non-Detriment Find ing (NDF), a study to
establish conservation status of the species and the impact of trade on it. Recommendation to
carry out NDF was made by CITES in 2007. Red Sanders is smuggled from India mainly to
China, Japan, UAE, Malaysia and Singapore. Smuggling to China is mostly done by road via
Nepal, and to Malaysia and Singapore from the Chennai port. For UAE, the Mumbai port acts
as the transit point. Smuggling to Japan and China also takes place from Manipur and
Mizoram. (Down To Earth)
91. Why Trans Fatty Acids (TFAs) are used in food items?
1. They increase the shelf life of products
2. They stabilize the flavour and texture of food
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

49

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


3. They raise the HDL and lower the LDL
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1 & 2
Naturally occurring trans fatty acids, or TFAs, are present in minimal quantity in meat and dairy
products from ruminants. Most of the TFAs are created artificially during the process of partial
hydrogenation of vegetable oils. TFAs increase the shelf life of products, improve the texture of
food and stabilize the flavor. These features have resulted in partially hydrogenated vegetable oils
to be used excessively in our food industry in baked foods, like cakes, burgers and biscuit raising
the level of LDL, but, unlike saturated fat, it has the additional effect of decreasing levels of HDL.
92. Recently, the scientists have discovered perfluorotributylamine or PFTBA, which is the
radiatively efficient chemical ever. What does the Radiative efficiency measure?
[A] The capacity to emit radioactive particles
[B] The capacity to impact climate
[C] The capacity to transfer heat produced by the device to other devices (coolant)
[D] None of the above
Answer: [B] The capacity to impact climate
Radiative Eciency

Scientists have discovered the most radiatively efficient chemical


everperfluorotributylamine or PFTBA. Radiative efficiency is a measure of a chemicals
capacity to impact climate. Over a 100-year-period, one molecule of PFTBA has the same
climate impact as 7,100 molecules of carbon dioxide. PFTBA does not occur naturally and there
are no known natural processes to destruct or alter it, hence it has a very long life.
93. The agricultural practices contribute significantly to global warming by releasing__
1. Carbon Dioxide
2. Methane
3. Nitrous Oxide
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

50

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
GHG Emission by Farming Activities

Besides carbon dioxide, agricultural practices also contribute significantly to global warming by
releasing methane and nitrous oxide in the air. A substantial part of methane in the atmosphere
comes from flooded rice paddies. Similarly, nitrogen fertilisers are a major source of nitrous
oxide in the atmosphere. Elevated levels of carbon dioxide can benefit crops and can be
sequestered in carbon sinks. But no such benefits can accrue from methane and nitrous oxide.
Moreover, the heat-trapping capacity of methane and nitrous oxide is much more than that of
carbon dioxide. While methane has a half-life of 10 years in the atmosphere, nitrous oxide can
remain in the atmosphere as long as carbon dioxide. Again, de-nitrification of nitrogenous
fertilizers produces dinitrogen oxide which has the potential to destroy the Ozone layer.
94. The tri-generation system is the latest buzzword in energy technology in India. What is / are the
benefits of tri-generation system?
1. It disallows the Green House Gases to escape to environment
2. It can produce electricity, heating and cooling simultaneously from a single fuel
3. It is efficient in comparison to the conventional systems
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
All are correct statements.
Trigeneration is the process, by which some of the heat produced by a cogeneration plant is used to
generate chilled water for air conditioning or refrigeration.
95. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana:
1. covers all savings bank account holders in the age 18 to 70 years
2. provides cover for five years, renewable after every five years
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2

2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in


General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

51

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [A] Only 1
Second statement is incorrect because the scheme will be a one year cover, renewable from year to
year.
96. Consider the following statements with respect to the Dengue mosquito (Aedes aegypti):
1. Its a day biting mosquito
2. It transfers the virus generally human to human, without any animal reservoir
3. It can be recognized by white markings on legs
4. Only the female can spread Dengue
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3 are correct
[B] Only 2, 3 & 4 are correct
[C] 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct
[D] Only 1 & 3 are correct
Answer: [C] 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct
Identication of Dengue

Aedes aegypti mosquitoes, which spread Dengue virus prefer to breed in man made containers.
It can be recognized by white markings on leg. Dengue mosquito is a day biting mosquito. The
dengue viruses are the only known arboviruses that have fully adapted to humans and do not
need an animal reservoir, although dengue has been observed to also circulate in nonhuman
primates. They are transmitted from human-to-human by the urban-dwelling Aedes aegypti
mosquito, which has adapted to humans, laying their eggs in artificial containers in and around
houses and feeding only on humans, and by Ae albopictus (the Asian tiger mosquito) and Ae
polynesiensis. These latter mosquitoes feed on birds, reptiles, rats, cows, and humans. DV may
be transmitted vertically from the female mosquito to her offspring. Most cases of transmission
from human-to-human are through female mosquitoes which previously became infected
when feeding on an infected person. Only Females spread the disease.
97. Rising meat production and consumption leads to rise in __:
1. Water footprint
2. Phosphorous footprint
3. Carbon foot print
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 3
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

52

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[C] Only 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
Most of you know about the water footprint caused by meat production.

Rising meat consumption in the last five decades has also caused a 38 per cent increase in the
worlds per capita phosphorus footprint. This is because it takes many kilogrammes of feed,
grown using phosphate fertilizers, to breed a cattle for its meat. Phosphorus is being mined for
these fertilisers at amuch faster rate than geological cycles can replenish it. Inclusion of diet
change strategies in phosphorus management studies could bring down the demand for mined
phosphorus.
Meat production also increases Carbon footprint.
98. With reference to the energy efficiency, which among the following is correct statement
explaining the Embodied Energy (EE)?
[A] Energy used in the maximum useful work possible
[B] All energy used in the construction process
[C] Total flow of energy through ecological systems
[D] None of the above is a correct definition
Answer: [B] All energy used in the construction process
Embodied Energy

Appliances consume energy to operate, but materials used in the construction of buildings
consume energy, too. Embodied energy, or EE, is the sum of all energy used in the construction
processright from extraction of raw materials, manufacture of products to their
transportation and incorporation in buildings. Lesser the extraction, processing and refining,
lower is the EE, and greener the product. Cement, steel and bricks, the basic construction
materials, are the major EE contributors. Their use can be reduced only to an extent. Materials
like ceramic and vitrified tiles, which are highly energy intensive, can be easily replaced with
energy-benign materials like stone.
99. Which among the following is / are Tiger Range Countries (TRCs)?
1.Bhutan
2.Myanmar
3.Laos
4.Vietnam
5.Cambodia
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

53

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]


[A] 1, 2 & 3
[B] 1, 2, 3 & 4
[C] 1, 2, 4 & 5
[D] 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
Answer: [D] 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
Tiger Range Countries

The 13 Tiger Range Countries (TRCs) are Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Indonesia,
Cambodia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand and Vietnam. However, these 13
Tiger Range Countries cannot implement the global tiger recovery programme without the
support of the countries which are destination or transit points for the illegal tiger trade. The
total wild population of tigers is 3200. Only 6 subspecies exist viz. Sumatran, Bengal, Amur,
Indochinese, South China and Malayan tiger. The number of Sumatran tigers is 400 and it is
12% of the global tiger population. In India 1400 tigers are left. Indias project tiger was
launched in 1973. The first governmental meeting on tiger conservation was held in
Kathmandu, Nepal in October 2009. This meeting had recommended a series of 15 global
actions that need to be taken to change the trajectory of tigers from extinction to recovery, as
well as commitments from several tiger range countries. Later, first Asian ministerial
conference on tiger conservation was held in Hua Hin, Thailand in January 2010. This
conference adopted the goal of doubling the number of tigers by 2022. 2022 is the next Year of
the Tiger. In July 2010, the Indonesian Island Bali had hosted a Pre-Tiger Summit Partners
Dialogue Meeting in which a Global Tiger Recovery programme was drafted. After that, the
World Tiger Heads of Government Summit was held at St Petersburg in Russia from
September 15 to 18, 2010. After two years of deliberations, 13 Tiger-range countries finalized
an ambitious global programme for restoring the population of wild tigers, whose count now
stands less than 3,000 across the world. According to the Global Tiger Initiative (GTI), the
GTRP has a high probability of success because all 13 TRCs are working in concert.
100. Most of the developing countries of the world posses which among the following features?
1. Highly skewed income distribution
2. Very low ratio of Labour/ Capital
3. Negative Balance of Payment
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: [A] Only 1
2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

54

2016 Mock Test -5 [Solution]

The rst statement which says that in Developing Countries the income distribution is highly skewed is a
correct statement. The second statement, which says that in Developing countries the ratio of Labour/
Capital is generally very low is incorrect. The ratio would be high, as these countries will have less
capital and more labour. The third statement is almost irrelevant as one can not link the stage of
development with the Balance of payments.

2016 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | www.gktoday.in


General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

55

Вам также может понравиться