G3 Self Check

Gulfstream III
Self-Check Exercises
Copyright 2000, SimuFlite Training International.

All rights reserved.
Printed in the United States of America.
ABC-POD-06/00
Orientation
Welcome to
SimuFlite
SimuFlite Training International welcomes you to one of the worlds

premier aviation training facilities. Our goal is to provide training that
increases your ability to operate your aircraft at the highest professional
standards. In pursuit of this goal, we conduct training in accordance with
Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) standards to ensure a level of competency
and safety unsurpassed in the business aviation industry.
Use of these
Self-Check
Exercises
SimuFlite developed these exercises to reinforce your training.
Gulfstream III
June 2000
The questions parallel your course. Refer to your training guide for
completion schedule of exercises.
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Orientation
Table of Contents
Self-Check 1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Self-Check 2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
Self-Check 3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27
Self-Check 4 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 39
Self-Check 5 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 49
Self-Check 6a . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 53
Self-Check 6b . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 67
Self-Check 6c . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 73
Self-Check 1 Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Self-Check 6a Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Self-Check 6b Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Self-Check 6c Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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June 2000
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Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 1
Self-Check 1
Electrical
(DC Aircraft [S/N 249, 252, 300
to 401 and 875, except 357])
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5C

Multiple Choice
1. What is the rated output of each generator?
a. 250A
b. 200A
c. 300A
d. 350A
2. What voltage do the generators provide?
a. 28V
b. 28.5V
c. 25 to 27V
d. 24V
3. What does an L or R GEN annunciator light mean?
a. That the generator is not on-line
b. That the generator is on-line
c. That the generator is working properly
d. That the generator is broken
4. What does the TRIP position of the L/R GEN switch do?
a. This switch position is not functional in the Gulfstream
b. Manually breaks the field of the generator
c. Prepares the generator for travel
d. Re-establishes the field circuit of the generator
5. What is the function of the emergency generator switches?
a. Allow the crew to re-establish the generator field circuit if the
batteries are totally depleted
b. Provide relays to connect the generator to its battery and main
buses
c. Both a and b are correct
d. Neither a nor b are correct
Gulfstream III
June 2000
6. Under normal conditions in flight, which of these statement(s)

are true?
a. Both generators are connected in parallel with both batteries
b. Both Main and Essential DC buses are powered
c. A transformer/rectifier is available if generator power is lost
d. All of the above
7. The NORM position of the battery switch ___________.
a. ensures that both batteries connect to the Main bus and then the
Essential bus
b. ensures that both batteries connect to the Essential bus and then
the Main bus
c. ensures that both batteries connect to the Main bus
d. ensures that both batteries connect to the Essential bus
8. During everyday operation, what use is made of the transformer/
rectifier?
a. The T/R is saved for emergency use only
b. The T/R is used to convert battery power to AC current
c. The T/R is used to convert APU alternator output to DC power
d. The T/R converts external DC to a more useful voltage
9. Which of these switch(es) provide grounds to relays to aid in controlling distribution of DC power?
a. The battery switch
b. The T/R switch
c. The emergency generator switches
d. a and b above
e. All of the above
10. The engine-driven alternators provide what sort of power?
a. Single phase 115V, 400 CPS
b. Three phase 115V, 400 CPS
c. Three phase 115V, variable frequency
d. 28.5V DC that acts like AC
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 1
11. Which of these statements is true?
a. AC power sources parallel to provide redundancy
b. AC power sources are phase- and frequency-matched to allow
momentary parallel operation
c. AC power sources are never used to power the same buses at the
same time
d. Only the two engine-driven alternators are permitted to share buses
12. Which of these units can use AC power without regard to its frequency?
a. The SPZ-800 autopilot
b. The engine instruments
c. The windshield heat
d. The No. 1 IRU
13. Which of these inverters cannot power the Instrument Inverter bus
(directly or indirectly)?
a. A inverter
b. B inverter
c. C inverter
d. E inverter
14. Which of these inverters can power the Secondary Inverter bus?
a. A or B inverter
b. B or C inverter
c. C or D inverter
d D or E inverter
15. Which of these inverters can power the Main Inverter bus?
a. A or B inverter
b. B or C inverter
c. C or D inverter
d D or E inverter
16. Which of these inverters is located in the pressurized section of
the aircraft?
a. A and B inverters
b. B and E inverters
c. C and D inverters
d. A and C inverters
Gulfstream III
June 2000
17. If the main and secondary inverter switches are both placed to STBY
in flight, what happens?
a. Its hard to tell
b. The Secondary Inverter bus will lose power
c. The Main and Secondary Inverter buses will share power
d. The Main Inverter bus will lose power
18. Which Inverter bus switching is automatic?
a. The E inverter will power the Instrument Inverter bus (its switch
in NORM) if Main Inverter bus is depowered
b. The B inverter will power the Main Inverter bus (its switch in
NORM) if A Inverter is depowered
c. The B inverter will power the Secondary Inverter bus (its switch
in NORM) if C Inverter is depowered
d. The E inverter will power the Main Inverter bus (its switch in
NORM) if the A Inverter is depowered
19. Which of these statement(s) are true?
a. The T/R is the only way to power DC buses using alternator output
b. The E inverter takes Essential DC power directly to power the
Instrument Inverter bus
c. The inverter alternate power switch can route DC power directly to the A or C inverter
d. All of the above
20. When is generator cooling augmented by an ejector system?
a. Whenever the aircraft is on the ground or flaps are not up, assuming HP bleed air is available
b. Whenever the aircraft is on the ground or flaps are not up, assuming Main DC power is available
c. Whenever the aircraft is on the ground or flaps are not up, assuming LP bleed air is available
d. Whenever the aircraft is on the ground or flaps are not up, assuming a boost pump is on
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 1
Electrical
(AC Aircraft [S/N 357, 402 and
subsequent, except 875])
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5C

Multiple Choice
1. What normally powers the Essential AC bus in flight?
a. The Left Main AC bus
b. The Right Main AC bus
c. The left converter directly
d. The E inverter
2. If only battery power is available, which of these buses can be powered?
a. Main AC buses
b. Main DC buses
c. Essential AC bus
d. Essential DC bus
3. If a power source for the EPMP power supply is not available, what
warning light illuminates?
a. There is no warning light for this problem
b. L or R PWR
c. EPMP PS
d. BATT SW OFF
4. Referencing an electrical system diagram, which of the following is
powered by Main AC buses?
a. Engine instruments
b. Windshield heat
c. Fuel boost pumps
d. Pilots navigation instruments
powered by the Essential AC bus?
a. Engine instruments
b. Windshield heat
c. Fuel boost pumps
d. Pilots navigation instruments
Gulfstream III
June 2000

powered by the Essential DC bus?
a. All fuel boost pumps
b. Alternate fuel boost pumps
c. Main fuel boost pumps
d. Essential fuel boost pumps
powered by the Right Main DC bus?
a. Fuel boost pumps
b. Alternate fuel boost pumps
c. Main fuel boost pumps
d. Essential fuel boost pumps
8. Referencing an electrical system diagram, which of the following
is/are powered by the Battery Tie bus?
a. APU starter
b. Auxiliary hydraulic pump
c. Essential DC bus, during battery only operation
d. All of the above
9. Where is the load center for the electrical system and what is it called?
a. In the aft equipment compartment, called the PDB
b. In the radio rack, called the junction box
c. In the radio rack, called the PDB
d. In the aft equipment compartment, called the junction box
10. What is the rated output of either of the converters?
a. 30 kVA AC, 250A DC
b. 30 kVA AC, 300A DC
c. 23 kVA AC, 250A DC
d. 23 kVA AC, 300A DC
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Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 1
11. Which statement(s) correctly describe battery chargers?
a. They use Main AC power to charge the batteries
b. They automatically shut down for a variety of reasons
c. They will parallel with their respective battery to assist it
(T/R mode)
d. All of the above
12. Which statement correctly describes the transformer/rectifier unit?
a. The TRU converts Main DC power to AC to run the Essential
AC bus
b. The TRU converts Main AC power to DC to run the Essential
DC bus
c. The TRU converts Main AC power to DC to power either or
both Main DC buses
d. The TRU is only usable on the ground
13. Which statement correctly describes the emergency inverter?
a. It enables the Essential DC bus to power the Essential AC bus
b. It enables the Essential AC bus to be powered by external AC
c. It enables the Left Main AC bus to power the Essential AC bus
d. It enables the Right Main AC bus to power the Essential AC bus
14. Which bus(es) can be powered (directly or indirectly) by external
AC power?
a. Essential AC and DC
b. L and R Main AC
c. L and R Main DC
d. Battery Tie Bus
e. All of the above
15. Which bus(es) cannot be powered (directly or indirectly) by external
DC power?
b. L and R Main AC
c. L and R Main DC
d. Battery Tie Bus
Gulfstream III
June 2000
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16. What is the rated output of the TRU?

a. 23 kVA
b. 30 kVA
c. 250A
d. 300A
17. What is the rated output of the APU?
a. 23 kVA
b. 30 kVA
c. 250A
d. 300A
18. Which statements correctly describe the operation of the Avionics
inverters?
a. The Avionics #1 inverter receives power from the Essential
DC bus
b. The Avionics #2 inverter receives power from the Right Main
DC bus
c. If the Avionics #1 inverter fails, the Avionics bus it powers is
switched to Essential AC bus power
d. If the Avionics #2 inverter fails, the Avionics bus it powers is
switched to Right Main AC bus power
e. All of the above
19. Which statement concerning the external battery switch is true?
a. It allows both batteries to connect to the Main DC buses
b. It allows an external battery to connect to the Battery Tie bus
c. It allows only the No. 2 battery to connect to the Battery Tie bus
d. It allows both batteries to connect to the Battery Tie bus
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Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 1
Lighting
Multiple Choice
1. Cockpit lighting follows which general rule?
a. Edge and integral lights are 28V DC while floodlights are 5V AC
b. Edge and integral lights are 5V AC while floodlights are 28V DC
c. Edge, integral and flood-type lights are all 28V DC
d. Edge, integral and flood-type lights are all 5V AC
2. What does the floodlight override switch do?
a. It provides alternative lighting to overcome any floodlight available
b. It turns all floodlights off regardless of switch position
c. It turns all floodlights to full intensity regardless of switch position
d. It receives AC from the inverter, converts it to DC and returns it
to modulated AC
3. Where is the switch for the wheel well utility lights?
a. On the right side console in the cockpit
b. On the left side console in the cockpit
c. On the door control panel at FS 133
d. In the nosewheel well
4. Which statement(s) are true regarding taxi lights?
a. They automatically extinguish when the gear is retracted
b. They automatically extinguish when the aircraft becomes airborne
c. They do not automatically extinguish
d. They pivot with the main gear to allow light in a turn
5. What arrangement of strobe lights is common to all Gulfstreams?
a. The number and arrangement of strobe lights vary
b. One in each wingtip and one in the tailcone
c. Two in each wingtip and one in the tailcone
d. One in one wingtip, one on the nose and one in the galley
Gulfstream III
June 2000
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Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 2
Self-Check 2
Fuel
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5F

Multiple Choice
1. All normal fuel requirements for the engines are taken from what area?
a. The filler assembly of the respective wing fuel tank
b. The vent system of the respective wing fuel tank
c. The fuel hopper of the respective wing fuel tank
d. The plenum chamber of the respective wing fuel tank
2. When does the fuel low level light illuminate?
a. The appropriate fuel hopper is nearing half empty
b. The appropriate fuel tank gages read 650 or 700 lbs
c. The engine senses impending fuel starvation
d. The preset minimum fuel quantity for the particular flight
is reached
3. How are the fuel boost pumps powered?
a. Essential pumps from Essential DC, main pumps from Main DC
b. Main pumps from Essential DC, secondary pumps from
Main DC
c. Main pumps from Essential DC, alternate pumps from Main DC
d. Essential pumps from Essential AC, main pumps from Main AC
4. How does the crew operate the main fuel shutoff valves?
a. With the HP fuel cocks
b. With the fuel shutoff switches
c. By pulling the respective fire pull T-handle
d. The main fuel shutoff valves close whenever Essential DC power
is lost
Gulfstream III
June 2000
15
5. What is the function of the fuel crossflow valve?

a. Enables fuel to gravity flow from one wing to the other
b. Enables both engines to receive fuel from one wing tank
c. Enables the fuel transfer pump to move fuel from one wing to
the other
d. Enables the fuel crisscross circuitry to feed each engine from the
opposite tank
6. What is the function of the intertank shutoff valve?
a. Enables fuel to gravity flow from one wing to the other
b. Enables both engines to receive fuel from one wing tank
c. Shuts down any intermixing of fuel from one plenum to the other
d. Enables the fuel interline circuitry to aspirate the framostat tank
7. Which statement(s) are true?
a. It is impossible to safely single point refuel without electrical
power
b. There is no provision for gravity fueling
c. Gravity fueling should be accomplished from behind the wings
d. It is impossible to dump fuel in flight
8. What fuel truck pressure is optimum for pressure fueling?
a. 25 to 45 PSI
b. 35 to 55 PSI
c. 45 to 65 PSI
d. 55 to 75 PSI
9. When will the L/R MAIN FUEL and L/R ALT FUEL warning lights
illuminate?
a. When the appropriate fuel pump is turned off
b. When the appropriate fuel pump pressure is low regardless of
its switch position
c. When the appropriate fuel pump pressure is low when its switch
is on
d. When the appropriate fuel pump circuit breaker is popped
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Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 2
10. Which statement correctly describes fuel heater operation?
a. It will heat fuel at the engine using HP bleed air if engine oil
temperature is not sufficient to do so
b. It will heat fuel at the engine using engine oil if HP air temperature is not sufficient to do so
c. It will heat fuel in the hopper using hydraulic fluid
d. It uses fuel to heat the cabin whenever interior temperature
decreases to 10C
Gulfstream III
June 2000
17
Powerplant
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5L

Multiple Choice
1. What LP air service is only provided by the right engine?
a. Internal engine cooling and sealing
b. Emergency pressurization
c. Right engine anti-ice
d. Precooling of HP bleed air
2. What two items are on the left hand gearbox?
a. The alternator and air oil separator
b. The rotation light and starter
c. The LP shaft governor and the LP tachometer.
d. The LP shaft governor and the hydraulic pump
3. Which statement correctly characterizes the Spey engine?
a. A turbojet, it thrives at high altitude but is noisy and inefficient
at low altitudes
b. A high bypass turbofan, it thrives at low altitude but is not particularly efficient at high altitudes
c. A very low bypass engine, it is relatively good at altitude but
somewhat noisy at low altitude
d. As a modern turbofan, instant response to power lever movement is always assured
4. Which statement(s) are true concerning the engine oil system?
a. Once serviced, it is entirely self-contained on the engine
b. Oil is cooled by a fuel/oil heat exchanger
c. Oil pressure and temperature can be monitored by the pilot
d. All of the above
5. How do engine power levers operate?
a. They control engine power through a FADEC system
b. They control engine HP shaft speed (and hence power) through
mechanical linkage
c. They control engine LP shaft speed (and hence power) through
mechanical linkage
d. They control engine fuel flow directly (and hence power) through
mechanical linkage
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Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 2
6. Which statement(s) concerning engine synchronization are true?
a. Use of synchronization during takeoff and landing is prohibited
b. The left engine is slaved to the right whenever engine synchronization is engaged
c. Engine synchronization has a limited range of HP or LP RPM
d. All of the above
7. What three positions does the start master switch have?
a. START/OFF/CRANK
b. LEFT/NEITHER/RIGHT
c. CRANK/OFF/START
d. READY/SET/GO
8. What services does the APU provide?
a. Bleed air for air conditioning and engine start
b. 115V, 400 cycle AC power and, through a transformer rectifier,
DC power
c. An emergency inflight source of bleed air
d. a and b
9. Which statement is correct concerning fuel supply to the APU?
a. The APU has a self-contained supply of fuel
b. The APU uses fuel from the left fuel boost pump manifold
c. The APU uses fuel from the right fuel boost pump manifold
d. The APU does not need fuel; it is electric
10. Which statement is not correct concerning the APU?
a. An electronic control unit (ECU) controls APU function
b. A left fuel boost pump must be on during APU starting
c. A left fuel boost pump must be on during APU operation
d. The APU air inlet has a motorized door
Gulfstream III
June 2000
19
Fire Protection
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5D

Multiple Choice
1. Which is a characteristic of the engine fire detection system?
a. Once activated by an actual fire, it must be reset by qualified
maintenance personnel
b. It is activated by flame sensing technology that virtually eliminates false warnings
c. It reacts to heating only and will reset itself if the heating ceases
d. A klaxon is triggered that will only silence when the fire is
extinguished
2. Engine and APU fire bottle pressure should be within what range?
a. 600 25 PSI for any conditions
b. 600 to 625 PSI for any conditions
c. 600 to 625 PSI at 15C
d. 600 to 625 PSI at 70F
3. Which of the following lights should illuminate during a test of the
fire detection system?
a. Both bulbs in both fire pull T-handles
b. APU fire light
c. L/R engine hot annunciators
d. L/R warning lights
e. All of the above, plus the mute button for the fire bell, if installed
and pushed
f. a, b, and d, plus the mute button for the fire bell, if installed
and pushed
4. Which hydraulic systems have a warning light in the event their
hydraulic fluid overheats?
a. Combined, Flight, Utility and Auxiliary
b. Combined, Flight and Auxiliary
c. Combined and Flight only
d. None of the hydraulic systems have such a provision
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Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 2
5. Which describes the function of the fire pull T-handle?
a. Shuts off fuel, hydraulics, thrust reverser and electric generation
and exposes the fire extinguisher switch
b. Shuts off fuel, pneumatics and electric generation and exposes the
fire extinguisher switch
c. Shuts off hydraulics, thrust reverser and electric generation and
exposes the fire extinguisher switch
d. Shuts off fuel, hydraulics, thrust reverser and electric generation
and fires the fire extinguisher
6. How does the APU fire extinguishing system work?
a. The APU is forcibly ejected from the aircraft and may land up to
25 ft away
b. A fire bottle is discharged into the APU enclosure
c. Engine fire bottles discharge into the aft equipment compartment, simultaneously extinguishing an APU fire
d. The APU enclosure is constructed of stainless steel and does not
require a fire extinguisher
7. A bootstrap overheat will cause which of the following to occur?
a. A warning annunciator called BOOTSTRAP OVERHEAT
illuminates
b. A warning annunciator called COOL TURB HOT illuminates
c. An automatic shutdown of the air conditioner
d. An automatic shutdown of the air conditioner, but only if on
the ground
Gulfstream III
June 2000
21
Hydraulics
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5G

Multiple Choice
1. Which statement is true concerning reservoirs?
a. Gulfstreams have 4 reservoirs: Combined, Flight, Utility and
Auxiliary
b. Gulfstreams have 3 reservoirs: Combined, Flight and Auxiliary
c. Gulfstreams have 3 reservoirs: Combined, Flight and Utility
d. Gulfstreams have 2 reservoirs: Combined and Flight
2. What is the approximate relative size of the Flight and Combined
reservoirs (and systems)?
a. The Combined system is more than 3 times the size of the Flight
b. The Flight system is roughly 3 times the size of the Combined
c. They are about the same size
d. The Combined system is more than 10 times the size of the Flight
3. What is a characteristic of both the Flight and Combined hydraulic
pumps?
a. They both normally run at 1,500 PSI unless a failure occurs
b. They both will run at 1,500 PSI if electrical power failure occurs
c. They both are capable of 22.5 gallons per minute flow rate at
takeoff RPM
d. They both are capable of 22.5 gallons per minute flow rate at
any time
4. What is the precharge pressure for the Combined and Flight
accumulators?
a. 2,200 PSI
b. 1,200 PSI
c. 1,000 PSI
d. 800 PSI
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Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 2
5. What is the precharge pressure for the parking brake accumulator
(at 70F)?
a. 2,200 PSI
b. 1,200 PSI
c. 1,000 PSI
d. 800 PSI
6. When (if ever) will the Combined system be pressurized at 3,000 PSI?
a. The Flight system pressure falls below 800 PSI
b. The landing gear handle is down, or the gear doors are still open
during retraction
c. The flap handle is not up, or the flaps are not up
d. Any or all of the above conditions
7. What action does pulling a fire pull T-handle cause hydraulically?
a. The respective pump is depressurized
b. A suction line shutoff valve is closed
c. A pressure line shutoff valve is closed
d. The respective pump switch is de-energized
8. Which statement is true concerning the Utility pump?
a. Its operation is automatic when the Utility hydraulic pump switch
is in normal
b. It must be turned on if needed
c. It pressurizes Flight system fluid using an electric motor
d. Override will bypass all safety features and shut off the pump
9. What powers the Auxiliary hydraulic pump?
a. A motor in the Flight system
b. AC electric power
c. DC electric power
d. The auxiliary power thing
10. Which statement concerning the Auxiliary pump is true?
a. It cannot be operated in flight
b. It can only power the landing gear system through a ground
service valve
c. It has a similar flow rate capability to the Flight or Combined
pump
d. It pressurizes the door seals to 1,500 PSI
Gulfstream III
June 2000
23
Landing Gear
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5I

Multiple Choice
1. What is the maximum speed at which to operate the landing gear?
a. 250 KCAS
b. 225 KCAS
c. 220 KCAS
d. 170 KCAS
2. Which hydraulic pressure sources can raise and lower the landing
gear in flight?
a. Combined, Flight or Utility
b. Combined or Utility
c. Combined, Utility or Auxiliary
d. Combined, Utility or nitrogen
3. Which statement concerning the main gear downlocks is true?
a. Once locked, they will remain locked with or without hydraulic
pressure
b. Hydraulic pressure must remain applied to keep them locked
c. A green light above the landing gear handle means that gear is
down, but not necessarily locked
d. There are no main gear downlocks
4. Which of the following is a correct regarding landing gear
sequencing?
a. Sequencing by microswitches
b. Sequencing by purely mechanical means
c. Sequencing by computer
d. No sequencing
5. Which statement concerning nosewheel steering true?
a. Nosewheel steering through 82 using steering wheel, 15 using
rudder pedals
b. Nosewheel steering through 15 using steering wheel, 82 using
rudder pedals
c. Nosewheel steering through 82 using steering wheel or rudder
pedals
d. Nosewheel steering through 82 using steering wheel
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June 2000
Self-Check 2
6. Which statement concerning the nutcracker system is true?
a. It is rated at a minimum of unripe Brazil, to include all Walnut
varieties
b. Relays are energized to the flight mode
c. Relays are energized to the ground mode
d. Nutcracker relays do not require electrical power
7. Which of the following is/are true concerning gear operation?
a. Make sure the landing gear handle is down when on the ground
b. During preflight, ensure that all three uplocks are open
c. Combined hydraulic fluid must be available for normal operation
d. All of the above
8. If Combined hydraulic fluid is available, which pump(s) can actuate
the gear on the ground?
a. Combined
b. Utility
c. Auxiliary (through ground service valve)
d. All of the above
Gulfstream III
June 2000
25
26
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 3
Self-Check 3
Brakes
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5I

Multiple Choice
1. Which statement(s) correctly describe normal brake application?
a. The toe portion of the rudder pedals allows left/right brakes to
be applied individually or together
b. The centrally located brake pedal allows vacuum-assisted brakes
to be applied
c. LVDTs attached to the rudder pedals input pilot desires into the
brake-by-wire system
d. All of the above
2. Combined, Utility or Auxiliary pump pressure can give full anti-skid
brakes.
a. True
b. False
c. Indeterminant
3. Pulling the parking brake lever does which of the following?
a. Applies pressure to the parking brake
b. Applies parking brake accumulator pressure to the brakes
c. Allows the locking-in of normal brake pedal deflection
d. Uses ambient air to activate the brakes
4. Which statement is false concerning the anti-skid system?
a. The anti-skid incorporates a test switch used during taxi for takeoff
b. The anti-skid makes use of nutcracker information
c. The parking brake is partially anti-skid protected
d. The anti-skid makes use of wheel spinup information
5. What does touchdown protection do?
a. Guarantees a soft touchdown each time
b. Ensures brakes are applied prior to touchdown to shorten
landing roll
c. Limits brake application prior to touchdown
d. Prevents brake application prior to landing
Gulfstream III
June 2000
27
Thrust
Reversers
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5J

Multiple Choice
1. Which statement concerning thrust reverse use is true?
a. Inflight deployment of thrust reversers is prohibited
b. Inflight deployment of thrust reversers is physically impossible
c. Inflight deployment of thrust reversers is a wonderful technique
d. Inflight deployment of thrust reversers is OK if you are not
too high
2. Which of these correctly describe thrust reverse use during landing?
a. Maximum reverse thrust may be used at speeds above 70 KCAS
b. Below 70 KCAS, gradually reduce to reverse idle by 50 KCAS
c. Stow reversers by normal taxi speed
d. All of the above
3. Thrust reversers use hydraulic pressure from which hydraulic pumps?
a. Combined/Utility and Flight (aircraft with split thrust reversers)
b. Combined/Utility for most G3s
c. Combined/Utility/Auxiliary
d. a or b above
4. Which condition arms the thrust reversers?
a. Nutcrackers in the ground mode
b. Gear handle down
c. Restow switch down and guarded
d. Throttle snatcher senses reverser deployment
5. Where are the thrust reverse control valves?
a. Piggy-backed on the power levers
b. On each engine near the exhaust nozzle
c. One in each pylon
d. In the aft equipment compartment
28
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 3
Flight Controls
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5E

Multiple Choice
1. Which statement is true concerning primary flight controls?
a. The G3 uses fly-by-wire technology for primary flight control
input
b. The G3 uses mechanical flight controls boosted hydraulically
c. The G3 uses hydraulic flight controls
d. The G3 uses fly-by-light technology for primary flight control
input
2. What hydraulic pressure(s) are used by the flight controls?
a. 1,500 PSI from Combined and Flight systems
b. 3,000 PSI from Combined if Flight pressure is lost
c. 3,000 PSI from Flight if Combined pressure is lost
d. All of the above
3. How much travel do the ailerons have?
a. 10 up and down
b. 15 up and down
c. 20 up and down
d. 25 up and down
4. Which flight control surfaces augment the ailerons?
a. The flight spoilers
b. The ground spoilers
c. The aileron boost vanes
d. The speedbrakes
5. Which statement is correct concerning pitch trim?
a. Trim tabs may be moved only mechanically
b. Trim tabs may be moved electrically or mechanically
c. Stabilizer jack screw movement is electric for autopilot and
Mach trim
d. Stabilizer jack screw movement is mechanical only using pitch
trim wheels
Gulfstream III
June 2000
29
6. Which statement(s) are correct concerning the single rudder limit

light?
a. Proper operation will illuminate the light with right engine only
operation (no Combined pressure)
b. The light should be extinguished with both engines running
(Combined pressure to the rudder)
c. Illumination of the light with both engines running means only
the internal limiter is available
d. All of the above
7. The gust lock helps protect the flight controls from what strength
of gust?
a. 50 kts
b. 60 kts
c. 70 kts
d. 60 mph
8. Which hydraulic systems can be used to activate the flaps?
a. Combined and Utility
b. Combined and Flight
c. Combined, Utility and Flight
d. Combined, Utility and Auxiliary
9. Which speeds correspond to the maximum flap speeds for 10, 20,
and 39?
a. 250, 200, 170
b. 200, 180, 160
c. 250, 220, 170
d. 200, 170, 150
10. What conditions allow the ground spoilers to deploy?
a. Both power levers in hard stop, both nutcrackers in ground mode,
switch armed
b. Both power levers in soft stop, both nutcrackers in ground mode
c. Both power levers in hard stop, either nutcracker in ground mode,
switch armed
d. Either power lever in idle, both nutcrackers in ground mode
30
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 3
11. What warning light illuminates upon landing if ground spoilers do not
deploy?
a. A NO GND SPLR annunciator on the master warning panel
b. A GND SPLR annunciator on the windshield center post
c. A NO GND SPLR annunciator on the windshield center post
d. A GND SPLR annunciator on the master warning panel
12. Which statement is true concerning the stall barrier system?
a. The system will push the yoke forward to the instrument panel
b. The system will push the yoke forward, but no more than an inch
c. The system operates as a subset of the yaw damper
d. Either pilot can override the pusher using approximately 5.5 lbs
of pull
13. What is the easiest way for a pilot to counter an unwanted pusher?
a. Yank back on the yoke with gusto
b. Find the stall barrier switch and turn it off
c. Press and hold the autopilot disconnect button
d. Activate electric pitch trim
Gulfstream III
June 2000
31
Pneumatics
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5K

Multiple Choice
1. The bleed air manifold can be pressurized by which sources?
a. Engine HP air, APU air or external air
b. Engine LP air, APU air or external air
c. A mixture of engine HP and LP air, APU air or external air
d. Combined, Utility or Auxiliary air
2. What does an HP regulating valve do?
a. Maintains proper pressure of HP air from the engine
b. Maintains proper temperature of HP air from the engine
c. Enables the engine to be isolated from the bleed air manifold
d. Regulates using inputs from the HP control system computer
3. What does an LP valve do?
a. Increases the setting of the HP air refrigeration unit
b. Allows for extra LP air through the precooler to cool HP air
as required
c. Decreases LP air temperature using reverse osmosis
d. Provides a steady flow of LP gas to the galley
4. If the aircraft APU is not working, what is needed to start the engines?
a. Nothing extra, a battery start can be made
b. An air cart or bottle for air and external DC for electrical power
c. An air cart or bottle for air
d. External DC power, or, if not available, external AC power
5. If an HP valve fails to regulate properly and pressure exceeds 90 PSI,
what happens?
a. The bleed air manifold will explode and the aircraft will be lost
b. A BLEED PRESS warning will illuminate
c. A BLEED HOT warning will illuminate
d. Nothing, because normal bleed pressure range is 80 to 250 PSI
32
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 3
Air Conditioning

Multiple Choice
1. What powers the air conditioning system?
a. Electric motors and Freon pumps
b. High pressure bleed air
c. High and low pressure bleed air
d. Combined, Utility or Auxiliary hydraulic pressure
2. What happens when the cabin air switch is set to RAM?
a. Opens a ram air scoop at the base of the tail to allow extra
ventilation
b. Provides a pneumatic signal to allow the air conditioner to
shut down electrically
c. Provides an electric signal to allow the air conditioner to shut
down pneumatically
d. All of the above
3. Why does the air conditioner have a ground cooling fan?
a. To enhance airflow through the heat exchangers on the ground
b. To enhance airflow into the cabin when on the ground
c. To enhance airflow to cool the ground
d. To provide moral support and encouragement in a neat,
earthy way
4. What is the function of the water separator?
a. It separates the water into H and O for use in aircraft systems
b. It keeps the water tanks separate from the galley waste storage
to prevent confusion
c. It separates water from the cooling turbine outlet airflow and
drains it overboard
d. It adds water to the airflow to prevent dehydration on long,
high altitude segments
Gulfstream III
June 2000
33
5. Which statement about the cooling turbine is correct?

a. It increases the temperature and pressure of the bleed air by
extracting energy to drive a turbine
b. It decreases the temperature and pressure of the bleed air by transferring this energy to drive a turbine
c. The turbine spins slowly to prevent excessive damage if its oil
supply is contaminated
d. It is a type of hat worn in desert climates
34
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 3
Pressurization

Multiple Choice
1. During routine taxi for takeoff, what is the status of the pressurization system?
a. Auto, flight and outflow valve fully open
b. Auto, landing and outflow valve fully open
c. Auto, flight and outflow valve adjusting to maintain 0.25 PSID
d. Manual, outflow valve closed
2. What does the outflow valve do in landing, auto, when the aircraft
touches down?
a. It opens fully
b. It closes fully
c. It remains as it was during the descent
d. It depends
3. Which pressurization system component protects against overpressurization?
a. The emergency pressurization valve
b. The safety valve
c. The overpressure management valve
d. The cabin air pressure controller
4. Pressurization or depressurization rate limiting functions react to
what rate?
a. 1,500 fpm
b. 3,000 fpm
c. 6,000 fpm
d. 340 KCAS
Gulfstream III
June 2000
35
Ice and Rain

Protection
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5H

Multiple Choice
1. How does the wing anti-ice system operate?
a. HP bleed air is routed through one valve for each wing
b. HP bleed air is routed through one valve for each wing with a
provision for crossover
c. Deicing boots controlled by Essential DC cycle four times
every minute
d. Two valves for each wing provide redundancy
2. At what temperature will a green light associated with wing anti-ice
illuminate?
a. 100C
b. 100F
c. 130C
d. 130F
3. Which statement(s) are true concerning wing anti-ice?
a. There is no time limit associated with the use of wing anti-ice
b. A wing overheat will be annunciated whether or not the associated wing anti-ice switch is on
c. Essential DC provides all electrical control of wing anti-ice
d. All of the above
4. Which statement is true concerning engine anti-ice?
a. When engine anti-ice is turned on, the respective pitot heat is
automatically turned on
b. Engine anti-ice valves do not require electrical power for
operation
c. Engine anti-ice will be available when only the Essential DC bus
is powered
d. There is no way to detect an engine anti-ice valve that does not
work
36
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 3
5. When is engine anti-ice required to be on in flight?
a. Free air temperature below 10C, static temperature above -40,
and visible moisture, precipitation or icing
b. Static air temperature between +10 and -40C with visible
moisture
c. Engine anti-ice is always used for flight
d. Whenever the aircraft weighs less than 48,000 lbs
6. How are the windshields heated?
a. Trick question they are not heated
b. A current-conducting coating within the layered windshield uses
AC power for heat
c. HP bleed air from the central bleed air manifold is ducted against
the outside of the windshield
d. HP bleed air from the central bleed air manifold is ducted against
the inside of the windshield
Gulfstream III
June 2000
37
38
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 4
Self-Check 4
Avionics
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5B

Multiple Choice
1. Which statement correctly describes the emergency gyro horizon?
a. The emergency gyro horizon is vacuum-driven to function with
loss of electric power
b. The emergency gyro horizon is powered from the Essential DC
bus or emergency battery
c. The emergency gyro horizon requires no power source
d. The emergency gyro horizon is hydraulically powered from
Combined or Flight systems
2. The free air temperature indicator indicates ___________.
a. corrected outside air temperature, including ram rise
b. corrected outside air temperature
c. uncorrected outside air temperature, including ram rise
d. uncorrected outside air temperature
3. Which autopilot directional mode has highest priority and will
override all others?
a. The turn knob
b. Heading mode
c. NAV/LOC tracking mode
d. APP tracking mode
4. What is the function of the Mach trim?
a. Helps prevent aircraft tuck-under or pitch down at low Mach
numbers
b. Helps prevent aircraft tuck-under or pitch down at high Mach
numbers
c. Relieves the pilot from having to trim the aircraft when
supersonic
d. Has no function on this aircraft because Mach is limited
Gulfstream III
June 2000
39
5. What does the AOA system provide?

a. A stick shaker to alert the pilot of a reduced stall margin
b. A stick pusher (stall barrier) to prevent stalling
c. A useful backup for airspeed indications
d. All of the above
6. Which statement is true concerning the compass controllers?
a. They function only in the slaved mode
b. The latitude correction is active only in the slaved mode
c. The latitude correction is active only in the directional gyro mode
d. They utilize the latest in GPS updates to ensure precise heading
information
7. Which VHF receiver operates using power from the Essential
DC bus?
a. No. 1
b. No. 2
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
8. What is true about ADF bearing information?
a. ADF bearing is unreliable if compass input is lost
b. ADF bearing is relative and will still point to the station without compass input
c. The ADF to-from indicator is inoperative without a compass
d. I never use ADFs anyway
9. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Pitot heat is provided by engine exhaust
b. Cabin altimeter is from the pilots pitot/static system
c. Overspeed warning is associated with the copilots pitot system
d. Vertical speed is instantaneously presented on each vertical
speed indicator
40
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 4
10. What action should the pilot take if an autopilot hardover occurs?
a. Refer to the flight manual for the correct procedure
b. Fight the autopilot using up to 125 lbs of force
c. Disconnect the autopilot using the autopilot disconnect button
d. Disable the autopilot by pulling the autopilot circuit breaker on
the copilots CB panel
Gulfstream III
June 2000
41
Oxygen

Multiple Choice
1. What action(s) will probably result in inadvertent passenger oxygen
mask deployment?
a. Turning the passenger oxygen control knob to auto without the
supply lever or knob on
b. Turning the supply lever or knob on with the passenger oxygen
control knob in auto
c. Allowing the cabin altitude to climb above 10,000 ft
d. Any of the above
2. Where may oxygen pressure be verified?
a. On an external gage at any time
b. On an external gage if Essential DC power is available
c. On a cockpit gage if supply lever or knob is off
d. All of the above
3. What is a general description of the Gulfstream oxygen system?
a. A liquid oxygen (LOX) system with long range capability
b. A low pressure system with long range cylinders provided by
mail order
c. A low pressure system with a radome-mounted cylinder standard
d. A canister-type system using dangerous nitromethane fuel
42
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 4
Emergency
Equipment

Multiple Choice
1. An alternating high/low tone as power is advanced for takeoff could
indicate __________.
a. a thrust reverser is unlocked
b. the ground spoilers are not safely stowed
c. flaps are not in a valid takeoff position
d. speedbrakes not stowed
e. any of the above
2. Which sound indicates an overspeed condition?
a. Klaxon
b. Bell
c. Warble
d. Cricket
3. When will the landing gear warning horn (Klaxon) sound?
a. When power levers are retarded below approximately 70% if the
gear is not down
b. When flaps are extended beyond approximately 20 without the
gear down
c. When the tone test is pressed with the rotary selector in the
No. 1 position
d. All of the above
4. Which actions will result in an alternating high/low tone warning?
a. Putting the gear down without first selecting flaps (in flight)
b. Putting the flaps to 39 without first extending the gear
c. Extending the speedbrake with the landing gear down (in flight)
d. Extending the speedbrake with flaps extended
5. A warbling tone alerts the crew to what circumstance?
a. The cabin altitude has exceeded the flight altitude
b. The cabin altitude has exceeded 10,000 ft
c. The cabin altitude has exceeded 13,000 500 ft
d. The cabin altitude has exceeded all expectations
Gulfstream III
June 2000
43
6. What does an AFT EQUIP HT annunciator mean?

a. The galley is ready for cooking
b. A fire or bleed air leak in the aft equipment compartment
c. All aft equip, like rudder, elevators and static wicks, are HT
d. That, relative to FOR equip, AFT equip is OK
7. What warning light should accompany the oxygen warble?
a. CAB OXY ON
b. CAB PRESS LO
c. CAB TAKEN
d. a and b should both be on
44
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 4
Checklist
Procedures
Reference: Technical Manual Chapters 3A and 3B

Multiple Choice
1. Where does the exterior preflight begin?
a. At SimuFlite
b. At the base of the main entry door stairs
c. In the cockpit, with a check of cockpit setup and essential functions
d. In the galley, with a hot cup of java
2. An initial check of the cockpit should include which of these items?
a. Landing gear lever down
b. All CBs pulled
c. Overhead switches in the NORMAL/ON positions
d. HP fuel cocks should be in the start position
3. Which is true when checking parking brake accumulator precharge?
a. Ensure the auxiliary pump is on so you can read its pressure
b. A reading of 1,200 PSI is normal at 70F
c. A gage in the nosewheel well is the only place to check this
pressure
d. Preload can be checked without loss of parking brake action
4. What is the normal position of the flaps for an exterior inspection?
a. Up
b. At least 10
c. At least 20
d. Fully extended
5. What should the landing gear emergency air bottle read?
a. 1,000 PSI
b. 1,200 PSI
c. 2,000 PSI
d. 3,000 PSI
6. What is the minimum battery voltage during a battery check?
a. 12V
b. 22V
c. 24V
d. 115V
Gulfstream III
June 2000
45
7. Which light(s) illuminate when testing the fire warning system?

a. L/R FIRE PULL T-handles
b. L/R ENG HT
c. APU FIRE
d. Master warning lights
e. All of the above
8. Mach trim should move how far during test?
a. 4.5 nose-up
b. 4.5 nose-down
c. 8 to 12 nose-up
d. 8 to 12 nose-down
9. Which preflight test switch is limited to 15 seconds activation?
a. Oral warning test
b. Fire detection system test
c. AFGCS TEST switch (SPZ800 AFGCS)
d. None of the above
10. Which summarizes the engine starter duty cycle?
a. 15 seconds on, 1 minute off. Three cranks then delay for
15 minutes
b. 30 seconds on, 1 minute off. Three cranks then delay for
15 minutes
c. 30 seconds on, 3 minutes off. Three cranks then delay for
15 minutes
d. 30 seconds on, 3 minutes off. Three cranks then delay for
30 minutes
11. During a normal start, when should the start valve, ignition and
rotation lights extinguish?
a. When the engine starts
b. Approximately 40% HP RPM
c. Approximately 40% LP RPM
d. When the pilot cancels the start/crank switch
46
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 4
Flight Profiles/
Maneuvers
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 3D

Multiple Choice
1. When is the Takeoff checklist designed to be accomplished?
a. Just prior to starting takeoff roll
b. While holding number one for takeoff
c. Anytime during taxi prior to takeoff
d. While rolling, but below 60 kts on takeoff
2. Which of these statement(s) concerning FLEX takeoffs are true?
a. FLEX takeoffs are always the way to go
b. A minimum of 90% HP RPM must be observed
c. Wet runways are OK, but icy will require a MIN takeoff
d. All of the above are true
3. When are flaps retracted from 10 during a Quiet Flying takeoff?
a. At VFS
b. At a minimum of 3,000 ft MSL
c. At a minimum of 3,000 ft AGL
d. Whenever desired
4. Which of these statement(s) are true during practice approaches to
stalls?
a. For all recoveries, maintain the pitch attitude at the time of
shaker onset
b. For all recoveries, a 5 pitch down will aid a proper recovery
c. FLEX takeoff power is plenty for a prompt recovery
d. Landing gear should immediately be retracted to speed recovery
5. Which of these statement(s) are true concerning a Quiet Flying
takeoff?
a. Set 1.3 EPR prior to brake release
b. Set EPR to computed value prior to 50 KIAS
c. At rotate speed, smoothly attain an attitude of 10 to 15
d. All of the above are true
Gulfstream III
June 2000
47
6. Which of these statement(s) are true regarding the Emergency Descent

procedure?
a. Power levers should be retarded to soft stops
b. A nose-down pitch of 30 is recommended to ensure rapid
descent rate
c. Allow the aircraft to accelerate to VSB/MSB (VMO/MMO) prior
to speedbrake deployment
d. Level off at 10,000 ft MSL regardless of terrain
7. What is a recommended speed regime for maneuvering to a visual
landing?
a. 250, 220, 170 KIAS for 0, 10, 20 flaps
b. 220, 200, 180 KIAS for 0, 10, 20 flaps
c. 200, 180, 160 KIAS for 0, 10, 20 flaps
d. 160 for any flap setting
8. Zero flap VREF speed is __________.
a. full flap VREF plus 20 kts
b. full flap VREF plus 25 kts
c. full flap VREF plus 15 kts
d. only available in the flight manual
9. Which actions occur simultaneously during a missed approach?
a. Apply power, rotate to 8 to 12, retract the gear
b. Apply power, rotate to 8 to 12, set flaps to 20
c. Rotate to 8 to 12, set flaps to 20, retract the gear
d. Apply power, set flaps to 20, retract the gear
48
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 5
Self-Check 5
Flight Planning:
Weight and Balance,
Trip Planning,
Performance
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 4

Multiple Choice
1. What is the normal fuel allowance for taxi and takeoff?
a. 1,000 lbs
b. 500 lbs
c. 400 lbs
d. 300 lbs
2. The normal climb schedule may be summarized by which of these
statements?
a. Maintain 250 until reaching 300 until reaching 0.75 Mach
b. Maintain 250 until reaching 10,000 ft then 300 until reaching
0.75 Mach
c. Maintain an angle of attack of about 0.4 or so
d. Maintain 250 all the way to cruise altitude
3. Which of the following would be considered payload for weight and
balance purposes?
a. Paying passengers and their bags
b. All passengers, crew and baggage
c. Passengers and baggage excluding pets
d. Passengers, baggage and cargo
4. What is the most common way to load fuel on a Gulfstream and push
the CG out of limits?
a. Filling only the extended range tanks
b. Putting too much fuel in the forward fuselage tank
c. Neglecting to proportion fuel between the wings and the aft equipment compartment
d. Trick question there is no way fuel will alter the CG to exceed
the limits
Gulfstream III
June 2000
49
5. What does basic operating weight include?

a. Crew and their bags and equipment
b. Galley supplies
c. Water supplies, including the blue water
d. All of the above
6. Adding baggage to the baggage compartment __________.
a. will have no effect on CG
b. will move the CG aft
c. will move the CG forward
d. will move the CG at first forward then sideways
7. How is takeoff trim setting determined?
a. It is always 8
b. From the zero fuel CG
c. From the takeoff CG
d. Trim is not used for takeoff
8. Takeoff distance may be described by which of these statements?
a. Ground roll after brake release
b. Ground roll after brake release if both engines are operating
c. Accelerate-stop or accelerate-go distance, whichever is longer
d. Accelerate-stop or accelerate-go distance, whichever is shorter
9. What speed produces the best climb gradient for single engine climb
after takeoff?
a. V2
b. VFS
c. V2 + 10
d. VSE
10. Reference accelerate stop is __________.
a. decreased by failure of the anti-skid system
b. decreased by the use of anti-ice systems
c. decreased by a tailwind
d. decreased by an upslope
e. all of the above
50
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 5
11. When will tire speed be a possible limitation for takeoff?
a. Only with a tailwind while accomplishing a 10 flap takeoff
b. Any time the density altitude exceeds 10,000 ft
c. Only when ambient temperature exceeds 40C
12. When will brake energy be a possible limitation for takeoff?
a. Never with flaps 10
b. Never with flaps 20
c. One must always consider brake energy limiting
d. One need never consider brake energy limiting
13. When using the takeoff planning charts, one should use which of the
following?
a. Interpolated weight, temperature, pressure altitude and field length
b. Rounded off weight, temperature, pressure altitude and field length
c. The next more restrictive weight, temperature, pressure altitude
and field length
d. Exact weight, temperature, pressure altitude and field length
Gulfstream III
June 2000
51
52
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6a
Self-Check 6a
Powerplant
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5L, Operating Handbook

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following might result in an engine tailpipe fire?
a. Inadvertently opening a fuel cock during prestart activities with
a boost pump on
b. Late ignition of fuel due to faulty ignition relay contacts
c. Neglecting to perform an engine crank cycle (motoring) after
previous start difficulties
d. Any of the above
2. Which situation might suggest that maximum braking is appropriate
during a rejected takeoff?
a. Visibility is low in fog
b. The runway length is close to balanced field length
c. Any doubt at all exists about the ability to stop
d. Any of the above
3. Which statement is true concerning power lever movement during a
rejected takeoff?
a. Smoothly bring the power levers to idle to ease passenger
discomfort
b. Rapidly bring the power levers to hard stop to deploy automatic
ground spoilers
c. Rapidly bring the power levers to hard stop to help directional
control
d. Both b and c are correct
4. Which statement is true concerning the Engine Failure During Takeoff
Below V1 Speed procedure?
a. First bring power levers to IDLE, then apply brakes
b. First apply brakes, then bring the power levers to IDLE
c. Apply brakes as power levers are brought to idle
d. Call for the checklist to ensure the correct order
Gulfstream III
June 2000
53

a. Stopping performance is based on maximum reverse thrust
b. Stopping performance is based on maximum braking with antiskid on
c. Stopping performance is based on immediate use of the parking
brake
d. Stopping performance is accurate for all runway surface
conditions
a. At the completion of the procedure, brake temperature is of immediate concern
b. At the completion of the procedure, brake temperature is never
a problem on the Gulfstream
c. At the completion of the procedure, an immediate return to the
parking ramp is indicated
d. At the completion of the procedure, an immediate takeoff may be
made if the engine starts
a. Wait until clearing the active runway until advising tower you
have had a problem
b. Advise tower as soon as possible of your actions and needs
c. Stop straight ahead, catch your breath, do the shutdown checklist and then tell tower
d. Stop straight ahead, set the parking brake and immediately
evacuate the aircraft
Above V1 Speed procedure?
a. The maneuver is straight ahead under normal circumstances
b. If maneuvering is necessary just after takeoff, the time to decide
is when the engine fails
c. In the real aircraft, getting the flaps to 10 from 20 is a wonderful idea as soon as the gear is up
d. The pilot flying should stare at the airspeed indicator and chase
V2 as necessary
54
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6a
a. An approximate pitch attitude of 5 will achieve V2
b. An approximate pitch attitude of 10 will achieve V2
c. An approximate pitch attitude of 20 will achieve V2
d. An approximate pitch attitude of 30 will achieve V2
a. It is necessary to advance the good engine to maximum thrust
to achieve charted performance
b. It is prohibited to add power on the good engine
c. It is safe to assume that if one engine fails the other is operating
normally
d. If the good engine is normal and still at computed takeoff power,
no power addition should be necessary
11. Prior to initiating checklist action for an engine fire, which of these
actions might take priority?
a. Confirm that the temperature in the fire zone is at least 440
b. Mute that bell and fly the aircraft
c. Grab the illuminated T-handle and yank
d. Look out your window to see if the engine is smoking
12. If the engine fire indications cease when the power lever is retarded
to idle, what happened?
a. Obviously the fire was not real press on
b. If the loop still tests, perhaps a bleed air leak was the culprit
c. If the loop does not test, perhaps it was a false indication
d. One must assume a fire and proceed to shut down the engine
13. Which of the following statement(s) apply to all engine shutdown
in flight circumstances?
a. Adjust power on operating engine as necessary
b. Retrim aircraft for continued flight
c. Power lever to idle, then fuel cock to shut
d. All of the above
Gulfstream III
June 2000
55
14. Which of these engine failures during takeoff require immediate

power lever movement to idle?
a. Engine fire
b. Engine hot
c. Thrust reverser unlocked or deployed
d. Engine failure
15. Engine out driftdown guidance suggests which of the following?
a. Maintain maximum continuous power on the operating engine
b. Maintain maximum power on the operating engine
c. Maintain normal cruise power on the operating engine
d. Retard the operating engine to idle to descend quickly
16. What actions are required when an engine is shut down above
35,000 ft?
a. Turn the autopilot off until below FL 350
b. Turn the yaw damper off until below FL 350
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
17. Which statement is true about engine failure during takeoff above
V1 speed?
a. Maintain takeoff flaps and V2 until at least 1,500 ft MSL
b. Maintain takeoff flaps and V2 until at least 1,500 ft AGL
c. Setting flaps to 10 will enhance climbout
d. Landing gear retraction is unimportant
56
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6a
APU
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5L, Operating Handbook

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. Which is true when an APU fire occurs?
a. Turning the master switch off shuts down the APU
b. Turning the master switch closes the inlet door; the APU is already
shut down
c. The APU extinguisher switch fills the APU with demineralized
water
d. The fire indication is provided by the APU fire loop
Gulfstream III
June 2000
57
Fuel
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5F, Operating Handbook

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. How might one describe the impact of a boost pump failure?
a. Minimal; the other boost pump will maintain engine operation
b. Troublesome; the engine might quit if boost pump failure is not
corrected
c. Dramatic; open the crossflow immediately to preclude engine
failure
d. Catastrophic; better land immediately
2. If a second boost pump on the same side fails, what must you do?
a. Use the crossflow valve to regain fuel pressure to the engine
b. Use the intertank valve to maintain fuel balance
c. Get the problem fixed as soon as convenient
d. a and b above
3. What might cause a fuel pressure warning?
a. Turning off two boost pumps on a side without having opened the
crossflow valve
b. Multiple pump failures without failure indication
c. A fuel leak somewhere
d. All of the above
4. Why is a fuel filter light an extremely unwelcome indication?
a. The filter has no bypass
b. Many things could cause a filter to become clogged
c. If one filter clogged, is the other engine far behind
d. All of the above
58
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6a
Electrical
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5C, Operating Handbook

E-pages
(DC Aircraft [S/N 249, 252, 300

to 401 and 875, except 357])
1. Prior to moving the battery switch in flight, which action(s) are

suggested by procedures?
Multiple Choice
a. Fuel boost pumps all on

b. Crossflow open
c. Battery disconnect lights out
d. All of the above
2. When might the Electrical System Emergency checklist be
appropriate?
a. The galley has a microwave oven self-destructing
b. The primary passengers light fixture is sizzling
c. You have got a serious electrical fire and no clue where it
is coming from
d. It has been a boring trip and a little excitement is needed
3. Which of the following equipment will you lose during the initial
steps of the Electrical System Emergency checklist?
a. Radar
b. Many galley and cabin items
c. The right seats instrumentation, radios and navigation capability
d. All of the above
4. Which is a possible step in the fault isolation process of the Electrical
System Emergency checklist?
a. Pull all Main DC bus feeder circuit breakers at the same time
b. Pull all Essential DC bus feeder circuit breakers at the same time
c. Pull all Alternator bus feeder circuit breakers
d. Pull all Normal DC bus feeder circuit breakers
5. Which would you do if operating with batteries as the only power
source?
a. Continue the flight normally while attempting reset of generators and/or alternators
b. Land as soon as possible
c. Land as soon as practical, considering maintenance and passenger
convenience as always
d. Obtain a phone patch to Gulfstream and if possible head to
Savannah
Gulfstream III
June 2000
59
6. The illumination of L GEN or R GEN on the Master Warning Panel

demands what action?
a. Calmly call for the checklist
b. Turn the generator off, then call for the checklist
c. Select T/R to ESS, then call for the checklist
d. Disable the warning light and investigate after landing
7. Whenever an electrical problem occurs, what is good common
practice?
a. Pull and reset as many CBs as you can
b. Always turn the offending system off, hit switches that might
help, then call for the checklist
c. Carefully verify system status, both the problem area indicated
and others, prior to initiating action
d. Recycle whatever switch seems likely and hope the problem was
a glitch
8. Which statement correctly describes split bus operation?
a. I never split the buses
b. I always split the buses
c. Split bus operation may be an appropriate means to lighten the
load on an alternator
d. Split bus operation may be an appropriate means to lighten the
load on a generator
9. Which statement correctly describes split bus operation?
a. The subsequent loss of generator power will fail the Main
DC bus
b. The subsequent loss of alternator power will have un-annunciated
DC implications
c. Split bus operation is normal and has no negative aspects
d. a and b are both true
10. Which of these switches might you need to find with little or no
cockpit lighting?
a. The Instrument Inverter bus switch
b. The T/R switch
c. Either generator switch
d. Either emergency generator switch
60
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6a
11. What equipment requires the Right DC Feeder to be powered?
a. The auxiliary hydraulic pump
b. The APU starter
c. The Essential DC bus
12. What does disconnecting a battery mean?
a. The disconnect switch detaches the battery from the aircraft
b. The disconnect switch opens all relays between a battery bus and
the tie buses
c. The disconnect switch routes power from the left (or right)
framostat to empty the battery
d. The disconnect switch bathes an overheating battery in icewater
to guard against explosion
13. Why is there no Essential DC bus failure light on the master warning light panel?
a. The Essential DC bus is not important
b. Failure of the Essential DC bus poses no immediate hazard to
continued flight
c. Master warning light panel lights are powered by Essential DC
d. I think a serious oversight has happened in the hasty development of this aircraft
14. Which statement is true concerning the inverter alternate power
switch?
a. The INV ALT PWR switch is automatic regarding the Instrument
Inverter bus
b. DC power is used to support inverter operation directly
c. The INV ALT PWR switch can only be used to power the copilots
Inverter bus
d. The INV ALT PWR switch allows inverter power to replace the
alternators
15. Which of these warning lights might be caused by a bleed air leak?
a. INV A HT, INV B HT, INV C HT or INV E HT
b. INV A HT, INV C HT or INV E HT
c. T/R HT, INV B HT or INV E HT
d. T/R HT, INV A HT or INV C HT
Gulfstream III
June 2000
61
16. Which one of these warning lights might require the resetting of a bus
control CB?
a. INV A HT
b. INV B HT
c. INV C HT
d. INV E HT
62
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6a
Electrical
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5C, Operating Handbook

E-pages

1. Illumination of the L AC PWR and L DC PWR lights indicates what

problem?
Multiple Choice
a. Failure of the left alternator

b. Failure of the left converter
c. Loss of power to the left main DC and AC buses
d. a or b, you cant tell which
2. If the normal inflight power source to the Right Main bus fails, what
is the pilots first action?
a. Land as soon as possible
b. Observe the EPMP for proper transfer to the secondary power
source
c. Turn on the transformer/rectifier because it will be the next power
source of choice
d. Turn the power transfer switch to LEFT to power the right bus
from the left converter
3. What does the following Alternator/Converter Failure Dual
checklist aim to achieve?
a. 30 minutes of battery power to allow a safe landing
b. Either 30 minutes of battery power or inflight starting of the APU
c. 30 minutes of battery power and one APU start
d. 30 minutes of battery power and two APU start attempts
4. APU inflight starting is assured if airspeed is less than 250 kts and
altitude is what or below?
a. 30,000 ft
b. 22,000 ft
c. 20,000 ft
d. 15,000 ft
5. Once the APU is started and supplying power, how high can you fly
and use 100% of its output?
a. 30,000 ft
b. 22,000 ft
c. 20,000 ft
d. 15,000 ft
Gulfstream III
June 2000
63
6. Once the APU is started and supplying power, how high can you fly
and use 50% of its output?
a. 30,000 ft
b. 22,000 ft
c. 20,000 ft
d. 15,000 ft
7. Both converters fail at altitude. During the battery only descent,
which equipment is powered and available?
a. The radar
b. The HF radios
c. Engine and wing anti-ice
8. If an electrical situation requires reduced load, what is the best choice
for load shedding?
a. Turn off either main or alternate boost pumps
b. Do not shed the main boost pumps because only they can be
powered by the batteries
c. Do not shed the alternate boost pumps because only they can be
powered by the batteries
d. Never consider turning off any boost pumps
9. An AV INV 2 FAIL light illuminates. What probably happened?
a. An avionics inverter failed, and the equipment powered is inoperative
b. An avionics inverter failed, but the other avionics inverter will
power its equipment
c. An avionics inverter failed, but the avionics alternate feeder
should take over
d. An avionics inverter failed, and continued flight is questionable
10. How long may you operate an alternator once a failed bearing indication is illuminated?
a. 5 hours at full load
b. 15 hours at full load
c. 25 hours at full load
d. 50 hours at full load
64
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6a
11. What is the first step in the Electrical Fire checklist?
a. Essential DC Bus BATT Switch DEPRESS
b. AC And DC Reset Buttons DEPRESS BOTH
c. Descend To The Proper Altitude And Start The APU
d. There is no Electrical Fire checklist
12. What are the three possibilities that might send you to the Bus Fault
checklists?
a. A glitch, a snitch or a witch
b. A glitch, a bus fault or a relay logic problem
c. A spike, a short or a touchdown
d. I am intimidated by those and have resolved never to use them
13. In laymans terms, what is a bus fault?
a. A short on a bus that circuit protection did not protect you from
b. A problem with mass transit
c. First tell me what a bus is
d. An overvoltage situation caused by stray electrons
14. When isolating a bus fault, which rule is true?
a. Always disable a bus by pulling all its feeders on the PDB
b. Never disable an entire bus by pulling all its feeders on the PDB
c. Pull only one Essential DC circuit breaker at a time on the PDB
d. Disconnect the battery prior to working on the engine
15. When landing with battery power only, what buses are available?
b. Left Main AC and DC
c. Right Main AC and DC
d. All of the above
16. When landing with APU power, what buses are available?
b. Left Main AC and DC
c. Right Main AC and DC
d. All of the above
Gulfstream III
June 2000
65
66
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6b
Self-Check 6b
Pneumatics
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5K, Operating Handbook

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. Which of these warning light(s) are indicative of a ruptured bleed
manifold?
a. L PYLON HT
b. R PYLON HT
c. AFT EQUIP HT
d. Any of the above
2. A rupture occurs in the bleed manifold, between the HP valves.
Which is true?
a. Turning the correct (left or right) HP valve off will solve the
problem
b. Turning the correct (left or right) HP valve off may solve the
problem
c. Both HP valves must be turned off because the leak can be fed
by either
d. Bleed air is not dangerous, what is the big deal
3. How can the pilot check to confirm that a pylon hot warning is true?
a. Check the pylon temperature indicator for a temperature of 325
b. Vary the power lever on that side to see if the light varies in
intensity
c. There really is no way to confirm the validity of the light
d. All of the above
4. How would the failure of a precooler to sufficiently cool the HP air
be annunciated?
a. L or R PYLON HT
b. L or R BLEED HT
c. AFT EQUIP HT
d. PRE COOL NO WORK
Gulfstream III
June 2000
67
5. Which of these is/are true concerning a BLEED PRESS annunciation?

a. One can verify it using the bleed air pressure indicator (gage)
b. If verified, one or both HP valves are not correctly regulating
pressure from the engine
c. Even if the offending valve will not close, one can control
pressure with the power lever(s)
d. All of the above
68
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6b
Air Conditioning
Abnormals/
Emergencies

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. If a COOL TURB HT annunciator illuminates, what action is
required?
a. Shut the air conditioner system off
b. Adjust the turbine temperature control switch toward cool
c. Use wing anti-ice to control bleed temperature
d. Trick question no action is required
2. Selecting the cabin air switch to RAM accomplishes what actions?
a. Opens a special ram scoop to blow air through the aircraft
b. Shuts the air conditioner flow control and shutoff valve
c. Cranks up the air conditioner to a higher plane
d. a and b are both correct
3. Selecting the cabin pressurization switch to EMERG accomplishes
what action(s)?
a. Opens a special ram scoop to blow air through the aircraft
b. Shuts the air conditioner flow control and shutoff valve
c. Provides right engine LP air to the cabin ducts
d. b and c are both correct
4. Which statement is correct concerning emergency pressurization?
a. Normal temperature control functions continue to operate
b. The system is best used at low altitudes
c. The right power lever becomes flow and temperature control
d. The outflow valve is shifted to the DC motor
5. If temperature control cannot be accomplished from the cockpit,
what can one do?
a. Nothing
b. Use manual temperature control knobs on the right console
c. Use manual temperature control knobs in the baggage area
d. Opening the refrigerator might help
Gulfstream III
June 2000
69
Pressurization
Abnormals/
Emergencies

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. Which statement(s) are true concerning a rapid loss of pressurization?
a. The outflow valve should automatically close
b. A door seal is a likely cause
c. Oxygen masks should immediately be donned
d. All of the above
2. Which statement is true concerning a rapid loss of pressurization?
a. Selecting CABIN PRESS EMERG is always a good idea
b. Unless the normal air conditioner is not working, do not use
CABIN PRESS EMERG
c. During and after an emergency descent, emergency pressurization is better than air conditioning
d. If one simply remains at altitude, all problems will solve themselves
3. If smoke and fumes need to be evacuated, which statement is true?
a. If at cruise, lowering the cabin altitude will increase flow
b. If at cruise, selecting cabin air to RAM will increase flow
c. Descending to below 15,000 ft (terrain permitting) will increase
flow
d. If pressurized, selecting RAM will result in a blast of airflow
4. If smoke and fumes need to be evacuated, which statement(s) are true?
a. If smoke is not coming from the air conditioner, leave it on
b. Raising the cabin increases airflow
c. Passenger masks may not protect them from smoke inhalation
d. All of the above
5. Which statement is true concerning manual pressurization control?
a. Make sure the outflow valve is open when landing
b. Crank the knob until the light blinks rapidly
c. Manual pressurization is prohibited
d. No safety features are available
70
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6b
Ice and Rain
Protection
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5H, Operating Handbook

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. Illumination of a wing hot warning means that_______________.
a. The temperature of the affected wing is 180F
b. The temperature of the affected wing is 180C
c. The temperature of the affected wing is at least 180F
d. The temperature of the affected wing is at least 180C
2. Which statement concerning the WING HT procedure is true?
a. If the wing warm light goes out when a switch is turned off, the
WING HT must be a bad indication
b. Turning off a wing heat switch results in loss of wing heat to that
side
c. Wing anti-ice valves require Essential DC to power close
d. Turning off the appropriate wing heat switch should solve the
problem
3. If windshield heat is inoperative or turned off, which statement is true?
a. As long as you are not in winter conditions, there is no impact
b. Fogging in summer can be as nasty as icing in winter
c. If the windshield is cracked, lowering the cabin pressure is probably a good idea
d. Windshield heat using battery power tends to use up the
batteries
4. How would failure of engine anti-ice be discovered by the crew?
a. An ENG ANTI ICE FAIL light on the Master Warning Panel
b. A lower pressure on the engine anti-ice pressure gage when com
pared to the other engine
c. Seizure of the LP compressor due to ice
d. Ignorance is bliss
5. Which statement concerning engine anti-ice is true?
a. Anti-ice will help an engine start in cold weather
b. Engine anti-ice should be turned on immediately prior to takeoff,
if required
c. Engine anti-ice should be turned on immediately after start,
if required
d. Engine anti-ice results in significant power loss
Gulfstream III
June 2000
71
72
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6c
Self-Check 6c
Hydraulics
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5G, Operating Handbook

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. Why is it recommended to fly at less than 250 KIAS and 25,000 ft
with a hydraulic failure?
a. With loss of either pump, flight control power is cut in half
b. Should the remaining system fail, manual reversion will occur
c. I have never heard of such a thing
d. Hydraulic trim may not keep up at higher speeds and altitudes
2. With the loss of the Combined pump, what equipment is not available?
a. Nosewheel steering, automatic ground spoilers, thrust reversers,
flaps and brakes
b. The yaw damper is the only equipment not powered
c. If fluid is available and the Utility pump is operational, all items
are powered
d. The Flight pump powers the flight controls and the Auxiliary
pump powers everything else
3. Which statement is true concerning Combined or Flight hot lights?
a. They are not a serious problem
b. They might be caused by a bleed air leak
c. The checklist will allow you to fix the overheat condition
d. Because of hydraulic cooling in the hoppers, these lights cannot
occur
4. When electrical power is completely lost, what happens to hydraulic
pumps?
a. Assuming the engines stay running, Combined 3,000; Flight
3,000; Utility 3,000
b. I do not know because none of the gages work
c. Assuming the engines stay running, Combined 1,500; Flight 1,500;
Utilility 1,500
d. Only the Auxiliary pump will be available for landing
Gulfstream III
June 2000
73
5. Which statement correctly summarizes the function of the Utility

pump?
a. It uses Combined fluid but is powered by the Flight system
b. It uses Flight fluid but is powered by the Combined system
c. It can completely replace the Combined pump when needed
d. It is used primarily to close the entry door
6. Which statement correctly summarizes the function of the Utility
pump switchs override position?
a. Override turns on the Utility pump
b. Override de-powers the Utility pump shutoff valve open
c. Override powers the Utility pump relay on
d. Override will always result in 3,000 PSI Utility pressure if
Combined fluid is available
7. If Flight system fluid is lost, what systems are inoperative?
a. Landing gear, except for emergency T-handle
b. Flight controls
c. The yaw damper
d. The auxiliary pump
8. Which statement regarding Combined system fluid loss is accurate?
a. Loss may occur on landing roll
b. Loss only happens in flight with plenty of time to use the checklist
c. The Utility pump will automatically assume Combined duties
d. The Flight system still powers everything
9. When would the override position of the Utility hydraulic pump
switch be used?
a. When systems are normal and you wish to check out the Utility
pump
b. For charging of the parking brake accumulator
c. Whenever you are relying on the Utility pump and do not want
it to stop
d. Whenever you do not want the Utility pump to operate
74
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6c
Landing Gear/Brakes
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5I, Operating Handbook

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. Normal operation of the landing gear requires which of the
following?
a. Essential DC power for sequencing of gear doors
b. Essential DC power for sequencing of gear doors and indications
c. Essential DC power for indications only
d. Combined or Flight hydraulic systems
2. Extension of the landing gear without Combined hydraulic fluid
relies upon which of the following?
a. Manual release of uplocks and gravity extension
b. Utility pump pressure
c. A nitrogen bottle to unlock the uplocks, activate dump valves,
open doors and extend/lock the gear
d. An auxiliary system
3. If an emergency extension using the T-handle is attempted with the
gear handle up, what happens?
a. The gear should extend, but no lights will indicate properly
b. The gear should extend, but the red light will stay on in the
gear handle
c. The gear will blow up
d. Nothing
4. If the auxiliary pump must be used for braking, which is true?
a. If the brake pressure gage is reading 3,000, normal braking power
is available
b. Auxiliary pump pressure can give brakes, but not anti-skid
c. Auxiliary pump pressure can give brakes with full anti-skid protection
d. The auxiliary pump cannot operate the pedal brakes
5. Which is true concerning landing with an ANTI-SKID light
illuminated?
a. Turn the anti-skid off and use normal braking
b. Turn the anti-skid off and use light braking below 100 kts
c. Leave the anti-skid on and use normal braking
d. Leave the anti-skid on and use light braking below 100 kts
Gulfstream III
June 2000
75
Flight Controls
Abnormals/
Emergencies
Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5E, Operating Handbook

E-pages
Multiple Choice
1. What switch is key to several controllability checklists?
a. Autopilot disengage button
b. Go-around button
c. Pitch trim switch
d. Manual trim wheel
2. If Mach trim compensation fails in flight, what is the limitation?
a. Maintain at least 0.8 Mach
b. Do not exceed 0.8 Mach
c. Do not exceed 0.75 Mach
d. Maintain at least 200 KIAS or descend below 28,000 ft
3. Which statement is true concerning manual reversion?
a. Hold attitude changes to a minimum
b. Do not attempt to land
c. Maintain at least 200 KIAS or descend below 28,000 ft
d. Do not exceed 0.75 Mach
4. Which statement(s) are true concerning flap movement?
a. If the FLAP CONT CB trips, the emergency flap control (plunger)
should work
b. If the MAN FLAP CONT CB trips, the flaps cannot be moved
c. If the flaps stick prior to stabilizer movement on extension, perhaps the stabilizer actuator is the problem
d. All of the above
5. Which statement regarding ground spoiler deployment in flight is true?
a. Immediate action to disable/deactivate is warranted
b. Continue flight; investigate after landing
c. They cannot deploy in flight because of the airloads
d. Selecting takeoff/restow to restow should do the trick
76
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 1
Answer Key
Self-Check 1
Answer Key
Refer to page 5.
Electrical
(DC Aircraft [S/N 249, 252, 300 to
401 and 875, except 357])
Electrical
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
1. c
1. a
2. b
2. c, d
3. a
3. c
4. d
4. b
5. c
5. a
6. d
6. c
7. a
7. b
8. c
8. d
9. e
9. c
10. c
10. c
11. c
11. d
12. c
12. c
13. c
13. a
14. e
14. a, b, c, d
15. a
15. b
16. b
16. d
17. b
17. b
18. e
18. a, b, c, d
19. d
19. d
Lighting
Multiple Choice
1. b
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. b
20. c
Gulfstream III
June 2000
77
78
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 2
Answer Key
Self-Check 2
Answer Key
Refer to page 15.
Fuel
Fire Protection
Landing Gear
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
1. c
1. c
1. b
2. a
2. d
2. b
3. c
3. e
3. a
4. c
4. c
4. b
5. b
5. a
5. d
6. a
6. b
6. c
7. d
7. b, d
7. d
8. b
9. c
10. a
8. d
Hydraulics
Multiple Choice
1. d
Powerplant
2. a
Multiple Choice
3. c
1. b
4. c
2. c
5. b
3. c
6. d
4. d
7. b
5. b
8. a
6. d
9. c
7. a
10. b
8. d
9. b
10. c
Gulfstream III
June 2000
79
80
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 3
Answer Key
Self-Check 3
Answer Key
Refer to page 27.
Brakes
Flight Controls
Air Conditioning
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
1. a
1. b
1. b
2. a
2. d
2. c
3. b
3. a
3. a
4. c
4. a
4. c
5. d
5. b
5. b
6. d
Thrust Reversers
7. b
Pressurization
Multiple Choice
8. d
Multiple Choice
1. a
9. c
1. c
2. d
10. a
2. a
3. d
11. c
3. b
4. a
12. b
4. b
5. c
13. c
Ice and Rain Protection
Pneumatics
Multiple Choice
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Multiple Choice
1. b
1. a
2. b
2. a and c
3. d
3. b
4. c
4. c
5. a
5. b
6. b
81
82
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 4
Answer Key
Self-Check 4
Answer Key
Refer to page 39.
Avionics
Checklist Procedures
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
1. b
1. c
2. c
2. a
3. a
3. b
4. b
4. b
5. d
5. d
6. c
6. b
7. a
7. e
8. b
8. a
9. c
9. c
10. c
10. c
11. b
Oxygen
Multiple Choice
1. b
Flight Profiles/Maneuvers
Multiple Choice
2. a
1. a
3. c
2. b
3. c
Emergency Equipment
4. a
Multiple Choice
5. a
1. e
6. c
2. d
7. c
3. d
8. a
4. c
9. b
5. c
6. b
7. d
Gulfstream III
June 2000
83
84
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 5
Answer Key
Self-Check 5
Answer Key
Refer to page 49.
Flight Planning: Weight and

Balance, Trip Planning,
Performance
Multiple Choice
1. b
2. b
3. d
4. d
5. d
6. b
7. c
8. c
9. c
10. e
11. a
12. b
13. c
Gulfstream III
June 2000
85
86
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6a
Answer Key
Self-Check 6a
Answer Key
Refer to page 53.
Powerplant
Abnormals/Emergencies
Fuel
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
1. d
1. a
2. d
2. d
3. d
3. d
4. c
4. d
5. b
6. a
Multiple Choice
1. d
2. b
3. d
4. d
8. a
Electrical
(DC Aircraft [S/N 249, 252, 300 to
401 and 875, except 357])
9. b
Multiple Choice
7. b
Electrical
10. d
1. d
11. b
2. c
12. b
3. d
13. d
4. a
14. c
5. b
15. a
6. a
16. c
7. c
17. b
8. d
5. b
6. a
7. c
8. b
9. c
10. b
11. d
12. b
13. a
14. c
15. a
16. d
9. d
APU
Multiple Choice
1. b
10. b
11. a
12. b
13. c
14. b
15. d
16. b
Gulfstream III
June 2000
87
88
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6b
Answer Key
Self-Check 6b
Answer Key
Refer to page 67.
Pneumatics
Pressurization
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
1. d
1. d
2. c
2. b
3. c
3. c
4. b
4. d
5. d
5. a
Air Conditioning
Ice and Rain Protection

Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
1. a
1. c
2. b
2. d
3. d
3. b
4. c
4. b
5. c
5. c
Gulfstream III
June 2000
89
90
Gulfstream III
June 2000
Self-Check 6c
Answer Key
Self-Check 6c
Answer Key
Refer to page 73.
Hydraulics
Flight Controls
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
1. b
1. a
2. c
2. c
3. b
3. a
4. a
4. d
5. a
5. a
6. b
7. c
8. a
9. c
Landing Gear/Brakes
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. d
Gulfstream III
June 2000
91
Bar Code
June 2000

G3 Self Check

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Gulfstream III

Copyright 2000, SimuFlite Training International.

SimuFlite Training International welcomes you to one of the worlds

SimuFlite developed these exercises to reinforce your training.

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5C

6. Under normal conditions in flight, which of these statement(s)

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5C

6. Referencing an electrical system diagram, which of the following is

16. What is the rated output of the TRU?

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5F

5. What is the function of the fuel crossflow valve?

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5L

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5D

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5G

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5I

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5I

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5J

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5E

6. Which statement(s) are correct concerning the single rudder limit

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5K

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5K

5. Which statement about the cooling turbine is correct?

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5K

Ice and Rain

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5H

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5B

5. What does the AOA system provide?

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5J

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5J

6. What does an AFT EQUIP HT annunciator mean?

Reference: Technical Manual Chapters 3A and 3B

7. Which light(s) illuminate when testing the fire warning system?

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 3D

6. Which of these statement(s) are true regarding the Emergency Descent

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 4

5. What does basic operating weight include?

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5L, Operating Handbook

5. Which statement is true concerning the Engine Failure During Takeoff

14. Which of these engine failures during takeoff require immediate

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5L, Operating Handbook

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5F, Operating Handbook

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5C, Operating Handbook

(DC Aircraft [S/N 249, 252, 300

1. Prior to moving the battery switch in flight, which action(s) are

a. Fuel boost pumps all on

6. The illumination of L GEN or R GEN on the Master Warning Panel

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5C, Operating Handbook

(AC Aircraft [S/N 357, 402 and

1. Illumination of the L AC PWR and L DC PWR lights indicates what

a. Failure of the left alternator

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5K, Operating Handbook

5. Which of these is/are true concerning a BLEED PRESS annunciation?

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5K, Operating Handbook

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5K, Operating Handbook

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5H, Operating Handbook

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5G, Operating Handbook

5. Which statement correctly summarizes the function of the Utility

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5I, Operating Handbook

Reference: Technical Manual Chapter 5E, Operating Handbook

Flight Planning: Weight and

Ice and Rain Protection

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