Mechanical Engineering Mcqs

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING MCQS
1. FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDERALIC MACHINES

1.
A perfect gas
A.
Has zero viscosity B.
C.
Satisfies the relation PV = mRT D.
E.
None of the above
Has constant viscosity

Is incompressible
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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2.
An ideal fluid is
A.
Similar to a perfect gas
B.
Frictionless and incompressible
C.
One which obeys Newton's law of viscosity
continuity equation
E.
D.
One which satisfies
One which flows through pipes with least friction

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

3.
An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the following:
A.
Newton's law of viscosity B.
Newton's law of motion
C.
Boundary layer theory
Pascals law
E.
Continuity equation
D.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

4.
The velocity of a fluid particle at the centre of the pipe section is
A.
Maximum
B.
Minimum
C.
Average
D.
r.m.s.
E.
Logarithmic average.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

5.
The shear stress velocity gradient relation of the Newtonian fluids is
A.
Linear B.
Parabolic
C.
Hyperbolic
D.
E.
There is no such relation
Involutic

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
6.
The units of kinematic viscosity are
A.
kg/m2-sec
B.
kg sec/m2
C.
m/kg sec
D.
m2/sec
E.
m kg/sec.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

7.
The units of dynamic viscosity are
A.
Newton-sec/m2
B.
C.
kg-sec/m
kg m2/sec
E.
m2/sec
D.
Newton/m2-sec

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

8.
The units of surface tension are
A.
Same as units of force
B.
C.
Force/unit area
It is dimensionless
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
D.
Energy/unit area
Explanation:

9.
Density in terms of viscosity is
A.
Kinematic viscosity/Dynamic viscosity B.
viscosity
Dynamic viscosity/Kinematic
C.
Kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity
D.
E.
None of the above
Any of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

10.
Newton's law of viscosity relates
A.
Shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid
stress, rate of angular deformation and viscosity
C.
Pressure, velocity and viscosity D.
and velocity
E.
B.
Yield shear
Shear stress, temperature, viscosity
Pressure, vicosity and rate of angular deformation
Answer: Option A
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11.
SI unit of viscosity is
A.
10 times poise
C.
1/9.81 times poise D.
E.
None of the above
B.
9.81 times poise

Equal to poise

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

12.
Identify the incorrect statement. Apparent shear forces
A.
Can never occur in frictionless fluid regardless of its motion
never occur when the fluid is at rest
C.
Depend upon cohesive forces
momentum
E.
D.
B.
Can
Depend upon molecular interchange of
May occur owing to cohesion when the fluid is at rest

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
13.
The upper critical Reynolds number is
A.
Important from a design view point
flow changes to laminar flow
B.
The number at which turbulent
C.
About 2000 D.
Not more than 2000
E.
Of no practical importance in pipe flow problems

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

14.
The Reynolds number for pipe flow is given by
A.
VD/v B.
VD
C.
VD ? / D.
VD /
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

15.
Alcohol is used in manometers because
A.
It provides a suitable meniscus for the inclined tube B.
Its density being
less can provide longer length for a pressure difference, thus more accuracy can be
obtained
C.
(A) and (B) above D.
E.
Its vapour pressure is low
Cheap and easily availale

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

16.
The Reyonlds number may be defined as the ratio of
A.
Viscous forces to inertial forces B.
Elastic forces to pressure forces
C.
Viscous forces to gravity forces D.
Gravity forces to inertial forces
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

17.
Select the quantity in the following that is not a dimensionless parameter:
A.
Pressure coefficientB.
C.
Darcy weisbach friction factor
E.
Weber number
Froude number
D.
Kinematic viscosity

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
18.
The Weber number is the ratio of
A.
Inertial forces to surface tension force B.
C.
Elastic forces to pressure forces D.
E.
Elastic forces to gravity
Intertial forces to viscous forces
Viscous forces to gravity

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

19.
Froude number is useful in calculations for
A.
Water hammer
B.
Flow through pipes
C.
Hydraulic jump
D.
Surface tension force
E.
Compressible flow problems

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

20.
The normal stress is the same in all directions at a point in fluid
A.
Regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer B.

When there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
C.
Only when the fluid is frictionless
and incompressible
E.
D.
Only when fluid is frictionless
Only when the fluid has zero viscosity and is at rest
Answer: Option B
21.
When a venturimeter is used in an inclined position, it will show
A.
Sale reading B.
More reading
C.
Less reading D.
Depends on vescosity of fluid
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

22.
The critical depth on a channel is given by
A.
h = v2/g
B.
h = v2/2g
C.
h = v/2g
D.
h = 2v/g
E.
h = v/g

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

23.
The increase of temperature
A.
Increases the viscosity of a fluid B.
Decreases the viscoisty of a fluid
C.
Decreases the viscosity of a gas D.
Increases the viscosity of a gas
E.
None of the above
Answer: Option B,D
Explanation:

24.
The bulk modulus of elasticity
A.
Is independent of temperature
B.
Increases with the pressure
C.
Is independent of pressure and viscosity
more compressible
E.
D.
Is larger when the fluid is
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

25.
A liquid compressed in a cylinder has a volume of 1 litre at 1 MN/m2 and a
volume of 995 cu-cm at 2 MN / m2. The bulk modulus of elasticity would be
A.
200 Mpa
B.
Mpa
C.
5 Mpa D.
10 Mpa
E.
20 Mpa

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
26.
One poise is equivalent to
A.
360 kg/m-hr B.
C.
1/98.1 kgf sec/m2 D.
E.
Any of the above
1 dyne sec/cm2
10-1 kg/m-sec

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

27.
An object having 20 kg mass weighs 19.60 kg on a spring type balance. The
value of 'g' in m/sec2 for the place is
A.
1000 B.
9.8
C.
9.9
10.2
E.
10.1
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

28.
If a barometer carries wter instead of mercury, the height of column for a
pressure equivalent to 75 cm of mercury will be
A.
1020 cm
B.
1000 cm
C.
1034 cm
D.
1040 cm
E.
1050 cm
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

29.
The length of mercury column at a place at an altitude will vary with respect
to that at ground in a
A.
Linear relation
B.
Hyperbolic relation
C.
Parabolic relation
D.
Will remain constant
E.
First slowly and then steeply

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

30.
Mercury is suitable for manometers because
A.
It has high density B.
C.
It does not stick to tube walls
E.
It is generally not used in manometers
It can be easily seen in tube

D.
It moves easily

Answer: Option E
31.
The density of air at 10?C and 1 Mpa abs in SI units is
A.
12.31 B.
1.231
C.
118.4 D.
65
E.
None of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

32.
The depth of oil having specific gravity 0.6 to produce a pressure of 3.6
kg/cm2 will be
A.
40 m of oil
B.
36 m of oil
C.
50 m of oil
D.
60 m of oil
E.
120 m of oil

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

33.
In a flowing fluid, a particle may possess
A.
Inertial energy
B.
Pressure energy
C.
Kinetic energy
D.
Elevation or gravitation potential energy
E.
All the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

34.
Select the statement which is correct
A.
Standard atmospheric pressure is 1 kg/cm2 B.
A barometer reads the
difference between load and standard atmospheric pressure
C.
Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure at sea
level D.
Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric
pressure
E.
Local atmospheric pressure depends upon the elevation of the locality only

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

35.
A barometer is used to measure
A.
Very low pressures B.
C.
line
Pressure differeuce between two points
E.
Atmospheric pressure
Very high pressures

D.
Pressure of fluid in a pipe

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

36.
Mercury is generally used in barometer because
A.
Of higher density due to which the height of barmeter will be small

It has practically zero vapour pressure
C.
It shines and can be easily read D.
E.
All above
B.
It does not stick to the tube walls

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

37.
The vertical component of pressure force on a submerged curved surface is
equal to
A.
Its horizontal component B.
curved surface
The force on a vertical projection of the
C.
The product of pressure at centroid and surface area
of liquid vertically above the curved surface
E.
D.
The weight
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

38.
1 atm pressure is equivalent to
A.
1.01315 x 105 N/m2
C.
1.0133 x 105 kg/m-sec2 D.
E.
Any of the above
B.
700 mm Hg
1.0133 x 106 kg/cm-sec2

Answer: Option E
41.
A hydro-electric site has a head of 100 m and an average discharge of
10m3/s. Assume 92% efficiency, for a greater speed of 6000 rpm, the specific speed
of turbine would be
A.
600
B.
1000
C.
1500 D.
1900
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

42.
Four piezometer openings in the same cross-section of a cast iron pipe
indicate the following pressure for simultaneous reading: 43, 42.6, 42.4 37 mm Hg.
What value should be taken for the pressure?
A.
41.5
B.
43
C.
37
D.
42.67
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

43.
The horizontal component of force on a curved surface is equal to the
A.
Weight of liquid vertically above the curved surface B.
retained by the curved surface
C.
Product of pressure at its centroid and area
the curved surface into a vertical plane
E.
D.
Scalar sum of all elemented horizontal components
Weight of liquid
Force on a projection of
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

44.
1 N/m2 pressure is equivalent to
A.
1 pascal
C.
10-2 kg/m sec2
E.
Any of the above
B.
10-5 bar
D.
7.5 x 10-3 mm Hg

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

45.
1 lb/in2 pressure is equivalent to
A.
144 lb/ft2
C.
6.8947 x 103 kg/m-sec2 D.
E.
Any of the above
B.
6.8046 x 10-2
0.06895 bar

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
46.
A stationary body immersed in a river has a maximum pressure of 69 Kpa
exerted on it at a distance of 5.4 m below the free surface. What velocity of river
could be expected ?
A.
9 m/sec
B.
5.4 m/sec
C.
3.82 m/sec
D.
5.67 m/s
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

47.
The pressure in millimetres of mercury gauge, equivalent to 68 mm H2O plus
54.4 mm manometer fluid, sp. Gr. 2.5 is
A.
10
B.
12.5
C.
15.5
D.
17.5
E.
20

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

48.
A mercury water manometer indicates a gauge difference of 400 mm. The
difference in pressure, measured in metres of water, is
A.
0.4
B.
0.8
C.
1088 D.
E.
None of the above
5.44

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

49.
A pilot tube is used for the measurement of
A.
Pressure
B.
Velocity
C.
Viscosity
D.
Surface tension
E.
Flow rate

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

50.
A rotameter is a device used to measure
A.
Velocity of fluid in pipes
C.
Vortex flow D.
E.
Density of fluids
B.
Velocity of gauges
Flow of fluids

Answer: Option D
51.
A hydrometer is used to determine
A.
Relative humidity
C.
Specific gravity of liquids D.
E.
Surface tension
B.
Buoyancy force
Viscosity of liquids

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

52.
In isentropic flow, the temperature
A.
Cannot exceed the reservoir temperature
increase again downstream
C.
Is independent of Mach number D.
E.
Remains constant in a duct flow
B.
Cannot drop and then
Is a function of Mach number only

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

53.
In an isothermal atmosphere
A.
over
Pressure decreases linearly with elevation
C.
Pressure varies in the same way as density
directly as the square of height
E.
Pressure varies exponentially with density

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
B.
Pressure is constant all
D.
Pressure increases

54.
The dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in gas temperature
A.
Increases
C.
Increses inversely as ?T
E.
Does not change significantly
B.
Increases as ?T
D.
Decreases

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

55.
The flow of water in a pipe of diameter 3000 mm can be measured by
A.
Venturimeter
B.
C.
Nozzle
Pitot tube
E.
Orifice plate
D.
Rotameter

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

56.
A fluid is a substance that
A.
Always expands until it fills any container
stress at a point regardless of its motion
B.
Has the same shear
C.
Cannot remain at rest under action of any sher force
subjected to shear forces
D.
Cannot be
E.
Is practically incompressible

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

57.
The resultant hydrostatic force acts through a point known as
A.
Centre of gravity
C.
Centre of Pressure D.
B.
Centre of buoyancy
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

58.
The hydrostatic law states that rate of increase of pressure in a vertical
direction is equal to
A.
Density of the fluid B.
Specific weight of the fluid
C.
Weight of the fluid D.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

59.
An ideal fluid is
A.
Very viscous B.
One which obeys Newton's law of viscosity
C.
A useful assumption in problems in conduit flow
incompressible
E.
D.
Frictionless and
None of these answers

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

60.
An ideal flow of any liquid must fulfil
A.
Newton's second law of motion B.
Bernulli's theorem
C.
The Newton's law of viscosity
Law of conservation of energy
E.
Countinuity equation
D.

Answer: Option E
61.
The continuity equation
A.
Expresses relationship between hydraulic parameters of flow

Expresses the relation between work and energy
C.
Is based on Bernoulli's theorem D.
unit volume for two points on a stream line
E.
Is a relation for the momentum per
Relates the mass rate of flow along a stream line

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
B.

62.
The equation of continuity of flow is applicable when
A.
The flow is one dimensional
B.
C.
The flow is compressive
The velocity is uniform over the cross section
E.
None of the above
D.
The flow is steady

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

63.
One dimensional flow is
A.
Restricted to flow in a straight line
a transverse direction
C.
Steady uniform flow
E.
None of the above
D.
B.
Flow which neglects changes in
Uniform flow

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

64.
Uniform flow occurs when
A.
Conditions do not change with time at any point
velocity of fluid is zero
B.
Rate of change of
C.
At every point the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction for
any given instant D.
The change in transverse direction are zero
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

65.
Steady flow occurs when
A.
The pressure does not change along the flow B.
change
C.
Conditions change gradually with time D.
the path of flow
E.
The velocity does not
There are no obstructions on
Conditions do not change withtime at any point

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

66.
If the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to point in
magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, the flow is said to be
A.
Uniform flow B.
Steady flow
C.
Turbulent flow
D.
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Laminar flow
Explanation:

67.
A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not
cross each other is called
A.
Steady flow B.
Uniform flow
C.
Stream line flow
D.
E.
None of the above
Turbulent flow

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

68.
A flow is said to be laminar when
A.
high
The fluid particles moves in a zig-zag way
B.
The Reynold number is
C.
The fluid particles move in layers parallel to the boundary D.
above
None of the

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

69.
The loss of pressure head for the laminar flow through pipes varies
A.
As the square of velocity B.
Directly as the velocity
C.
As the inverse of the velocity
D.
None of the above

70.
The equation of continuity of flow is based on the principle of conservation of
A.
Momentum B.
Mass
C.
Energy
All above
E.
None of the above
D.

Answer: Option B
71.
The general energy equation is applicable to
A.
Steady flow B.
Unsteady flow
C.
Non-uniform flow
D.
E.
Laminar flow
Turbulent flow

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

72.
The continuity equation in ideal fluid flow
A.
States that the net rate of in-flow into any small volume must be zero
Applies to irrotational flow only
C.
Impulses to existence of a velocity potential D.
remains constant along stream line
E.
States that the energy
States that energy is constant everywhere in the fluid

Answer: Option E
B.
Explanation:

73.
If the forces due to inertia, gravity and frictional resistance are insignificant,
the design of a channel may be made by comparing
A.
Weber number
B.
Reynolds number
C.
Froude's number
D.
Prandt number
E.
Schmidt number

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

74.
If the Mach number of a flow is 3 the flow is known as
A.
Super-supersonic
C.
Sonic D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Supersonic
Sub-sonic

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

75.
Which one of the following is laminar flow
A.
Rise of water in plants through roots
arteries of a human body
B.
Movement of blood in the
C.
Flow of oil in measuring instruments
E.
None of the above
D.
All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

76.
A control volume refers to
A.
A closed system
C.
A isolated system D.
E.
A fixed region in space
B.
An open system
A specified mass

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

77.
The eddy viscosity for turbulent flow is
A.
Part of dynamic viscosity B.
C.
Dependent on fluid temperature D.
E.
Independent of the nature of flow

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A property of the fluid

Dependent on flow

78.
The pressure centre is
A.
At the centroid of the submerged area B.
prism
The centroid of the pressure
C.
Independent of the orientation of the area
action of the resultant force
D.
E.
A point on the line of
Always above the centroid of area

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

79.
A fluid in which resistance to deformation is independent of the shear stress
is known as
A.
Bingham plastic fluid
C.
Dilatant fluidD.
E.
None of the above
B.
Pseudo plastic fluid
Newtonian fluid

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

80.
Which mouthpiece is having maximum coefficient of discharge?
A.
External mouthpiece
B.
Convergent-Divergent mothpiece
C.
Internal mouthpiece
D.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
81.
The principle, "The buoyancy is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced and
the line of action is through the centroid of the displaced mass" is known as
A.
Law of buoyancy
B.
C.
Archimedes principle
E.
Bernoulli's law
Newton's law
D.
First law of fluid mechanics

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

82.
Gradually varied flow is
A.
Steady uniform flow
B.
Steady non-uniform flow
C.
Unsteady uniform flow
D.
Unsteady non-uniform flow
E.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

83.
If a centrifugal pump takes too much power, the cause may be
A.
Low speed
C.
Air leakage D.
B.
Air in water
Foot valve too small
E.
Heavy liquid.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

84.
In a centrifugal pump the pressure energy of water is increased because of
A.
Rotation of impeller
B.
Centrifugal force
C.
Momentum of particles
D.
Lift of particles
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

85.
A Kaplan turbine is suitable for
A.
High head low discharge B.
High head high discharge
C.
Low head low discharge
Low head high discharge
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
D.

86.
Under which two of the following regimes would the assumption of a
continuum be reasonable (1) Free molecule flow (2) Gas dynamics (3) Slip flow (4)
Complete vacuum (5) Liquid flow
A.
1,2
B.
2,3
C.
3,5
D.
1,4
E.
1,5.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

87.
In case of forced vortex
A.
Velocity decreases with radius
B.
Velocity increases with radius
C.
The fluid rotates as a composite solid D.
random
E.
The motion of fluid varies at
The fluid rotates with radial as well vertical velocities.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

88.
In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller is
A.
Rectilinear flow
B.
C.
Radial flow
Forced vortex motion
D.
Centrifugal flow
E.
Free vortex motion

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

89.
Boundary layer thickness (?) is the distance from the surface of the solid body
in the direction perpendicular to flow, where the velocity of fluid is equal to
A.
Free stream velocity
B.
0.9 times the free stream velocity
C.
0.99 times the free stream velocity
D.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

90.
105 N/m2 pressure is eqrivalent to
A.
1 bar B.
C.
0.98682 atm D.
E.
Any of the above
750.06 mm Hg
401.85 m H2O

Answer: Option E
91.
In the theory of lubrication the assumption is made that
A.
The velocity distribution is the same at all cross-sections B.
distribution at any section is the same as if the plates were parallel
The velocity
C.
The pressure variation along the bearing is the same as if the plates were
parallel
D.
The velocity varies linearly between the two surfaces
E.
The velocity varies linearly between the two surfaces

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

92.
The distance r from the centre of a tube of radius r0 where the average
velocity occurs in laminar flow is
A.
0.5 r0 B.
0.707 r0
C.
0.8 r0 D.
r0
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

93.
The Reynolds number for flow of 0.3 m3/s of oil sp. Gr. 0.86,
A.
29.2
C.
2920 D.
E.
None of the above
B.
292
22930

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

94.
The result of pressure of a liquid on the wetted surface of a rigid body is
A.
The single force which, acting at a point on that surface would produce the
same effect on the body as the liquid pressure on it B.
The single resultant force
acting on the body
C.
The point where vertical component of resulting force is zero
single point where resultant horizontal force is zero
E.
D.
The
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

95.
The Boundary layer on a flat plate is calld laminar boundary layer if
A.
Reynold No. is less than 2000
C.
Reynold No. is less than 5 x 105 D.
B.
Reynold No. is less that 4000

None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

96.
Which two forces are most important in laminar flow between closely spaced
parallel plates
A.
Inertial, viscous
B.
Pressure, inertial, inetial
C.
Gravity, pressure
E.
None of the above
D.
Viscous, pressure

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

97.
Which two forces are most important in floating bodies
A.
Inertial, pressure
C.
Buoyancy, gravity D.
E.
Pressure, viscous
B.
Gravity, inertial
Viscous, buoyancy

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

98.
A piece of metal of specific gravity 3.4 floats in mercury of specific gravity
13.6. What fraction of its volume is under mercury
A.
Full
B.
0.25
C.
0.5
D.
0.75
E.
0.9

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

99.
A piece of cork weighing 4 kg floats in water with 40% of its volume under the
liquid. Determine specific gravity of cork.
A.
B.
0.16
C.
0.4
D.
0.6
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

100.
The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
A.
Centre of gravity of any submerged body
floating body
B.
Centroid of gravity of any
C.
Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
fluid vertically above the body
D.
Centroid of the volume of
E.
Centroid of the horizontal projection of the body

Answer: Option C
101.
Buoyant force is
A.
The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
resultant force acting on a floating body
B.
C.
The force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body

A non-vertical force on symmetrical bodies
E.
Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
The
D.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

102. A piece of metal weights 10 kg in air and 8 kg in water. The specific gravity of
the metal is
A.
10
B.
C.
D.
E.
0.8

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

103.
A piezometer is not used for pressure measurement in pipes when
A.
The pressure is very low B.
The pressure drop in the pipe is low
C.
Velocity of fluid is high
Velocity of fluid is low
E.
The fluid in the pipe is a gas
D.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

104.
The centre of pressure on an immersed surface is
A.
At the cantre of gravity
B.
C.
Below the centre of gravity
E.
Depends on the density of fluid
Above the centre of gravity

D.
Depends on the viscosity of fluid

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

105. The angle of divergence for the divergent cone of a venturimeter which will
give most efficient conversion of kinetic energy is about
A.
B.
C.
10
D.
12
E.
15

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

106.
that
The assumptions made in the most familiar form of Bernoulli's equation is
A.
Flow is along the streamlines
C.
Fluid is non-viscousD.
E.
All the above

Answer: Option E
B.
Flow is steady
Fluid is homogeneous
Explanation:

107.
In a venturimeter
A.
Length of divergent cone is equal to the length of conergent cone

Length of divergent cone is half that of convergent cone
C.
Divergent cone is kept shorter than convergent cone
cone is kept longer than the convergent cone
E.
D.
B.
Divergent
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

108.
Pascal's law states that pressure at a point is equal in all directions
A.
In a liquid at rest
B.
In a fluid at rest
C.
In a laminar flow
D.
In a turbulent flow

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

109. The turbulent flow is hydraulically smooth if the ratio height of roughness
projection/the thickness of laminar sub-layer is less than
A.
B.
0.8
C.
0.75
D.
0.5
E.
0.25

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

110.
The flow in a pipe is laminar if the Reynolds number is
A.
Less than 2000
C.
Between 4000 and 6000 D.
E.
Equal to 10000
B.
Between 2000 and 4000

Equal to 6300

Answer: Option A
111. In which of the following cases it is possible for flow to occur from low
pressure to high pressure?
A.
pipe
Flow through a converging section
B.
C.
Flow of liquid in a vertical pipe
Flow of air downward in a pipe
E.
None of the above
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Adiabatic flow in a horizontal
112. At point A in a pipe line carrying water the diameter is 1 m, the pressure 98
kPa and the velocity 1 m/s. At point B, 2 m higher than A, the diameter is 0.5 m and
the pressure 20 kPa. The direction of flow would be
A.
A to B B.
B to A
C.
Cannot be ascertained from data

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

113.
Identify the correct statement
A.
Frictional resistance in a pipe decreases with density of the fluid B.

Frictional resistance in a pipe is dependent on the fluid pressure
C.
Frictional resistance in a pipe is independent on surface roughness

D.
Frictional resistance in a pipe depends on the square of area of the wetted
surface
E.
Frictional resistance in a pipe increases with the square of velocity

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

114.
Pressure co-efficient is a ratio of pressure forces to
A.
Viscous forces
B.
Intertial forces
C.
Gravity forces
D.
Surface tension forces
E.
Elastic energy forces

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

115.
Eulers dimensionless number relates
A.
Pressure force and inertia force B.
Inertia force and gravity force
C.
Buoyant force and inertia force D.
Buoyant force and viscous force
E.
Viscous force and inertia force

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

116.
The velocity distribution for flow between two fixed parallel plates
A.
Is constant over the cross-section
section
B.
Varies parabolically across the
C.
Is zero at the plates and linearly increases towards the plates
zero in the middle and increases linearly towards the plates
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
D.
Is

117.
Bernoulli's theorem deals with the principle of conservation of
A.
Energy
B.
C.
Mass D.
Force
E.
Hydraulic pressure
Momentum

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

118. The friction factor in turbulent flow in smooth pipes depends upon the
following:
A.
V, D, ?, L,
B.
L,
C.
(L, D, ?, ?,
D.
V, D,
E.
L, D, Q, V.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

119.
The head loss in turbulent flow in a pipe
A.
Varies inversely with diameter
C.
Varies conversely as square of velocity D.
E.
Varies approximately as square of velocity
B.
Varies conversely with diameter

Varies directly as velocity
Answer: Option E
Explanation:

120.
Falling drops of water become spherical due to
A.
Adhesion
C.
Dynamic viscosity D.
E.
Surface tension
B.
Cohesion
Kinematic viscosity

Answer: Option E
121. If a water tank partially filled with water is being carried on a truck with a
constant horizontal acceleration, the level of liquid will
A.
Rise on the front side of the tank
B.
Fall on the front side of the tank
C.
Rise on the back side of the tank and fall on front
side of the tank and rise on front
E.
D.
Fall on the back
Front side fluctuate considerably

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

122.
Select the pressures that are equivalent
A.
10 psi, 23.1 ft H2O, 4.91 in. Hg B.
10 psi, 4.33 ft H2O, 20.3 in. Hg
C.
10 psi, 20.3 ft H2O, 23.1 in. Hg D.
4.3 psi, 10 ft H2O, 20.3 in. Hg
E.
4.33 psi, 10 ft H2O, 8.83 in. Hg

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

123.
A current meter is used for the measurement of
A.
Pressure
B.
Velocity
C.
Viscosity
D.
Electrical charge on fluids
E.
Electrical conductivity

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

124.
An orifice is said to be a large orifice when
A.
The cross-section of orifie is not less than 10% of the cross-section of tank
B.
An orifice can discharge fluid within 10 minutes
C.
The head over the orifice is smaller than its vertical dimensions

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

125.
A mouthpiece cannot be used under very large head because
A.
The variation in discharge is large
erratic
B.
C.
Vortex is created at the vena contractaD.
contracta
E.
The flow through mouthpiece is

Cavitation occurs at the vena
Of practical difficulties in contraction

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

126. A short tube mouthpiece will not run full at its outlet if the head under which
the orifice work is
A.
Less than 5 m of water
B.
C.
Less than 10 m of water D.
E.
Less than 3 m of water
More than 12.5 m of water

Between 5 and 10 m of water

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

127.
Select the correct statement regarding frictionless flow
A.
In diverging conduits the velocity always decreases B.
always sonic at the throat of a converging diverging tube
The velocity is
C.
On supersonic flow the area decreases for increasing velocity
D.
velocity cannot be exceeded at the throat of a converging diverging tube
Sonic
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

128.
A hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement of
A.
Pressure of gases
C.
Viscosity of gases D.
E.
Density of liquids
B.
Velocity of gases
Viscosity of liquids

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

129.
area
A most economical channel section is one which for a given cross-section
A.
Has maximum velocity of fluid
C.
Has maximum depth of fluid flowing
E.
Has maximum hydraulic radius
B.
Has maximum discharge

D.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

130.
Capillary action is due to the
Has maximum wetted perimeter
A.
Viscosity of liquid
B.
Cohesion of liquid particles
C.
Surface tension
D.
Adhesion of liquid particles on the surface
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
131.
The most efficient cross-section for a channel is
A.
Semi-circular
B.
C.
Rectangular D.
Triangular
E.
Half hexagon in the form of a trapezoid
Square

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

132.
The most economical section of a triangular channel is
A.
A right angled triangle
B.
An equilateral triangle
C.
An isosceles triangle with vertex angle of 45? D.
with vertex angle of 60?
E.
An isosceles triangles
An isosceles triangle with vertex angle of 90?

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

133.
The upper surface of the weir over which water flows is known as
A.
NappeB.
Crest
C.
Sill
Vein
E.
Contracta
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

134.
Manning's formula is used to determine
A.
Friction hed loss in pipes running full
running partially full
B.
Friction head loss in pipes
C.
Friction head loss in open channels
sections
D.
Friction head loss in irregular
E.
Discharge through weirs and notches

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

135.
A critical depthmeter is used to measure
A.
Effective head of fluid flowing in a pipe B.
C.
Rise in head during water hammer
jump
E.
Discharge in an open channel
D.
Depth of oceans and rivers

Rise in head during hydraulic
Answer: Option E
Explanation:

136.
The width of a weir with end contractions is
A.
Equal to the width of the channel
channel
B.
C.
Half the width of the channel
One fourth the width of the channel
E.
None of the above
D.
Less than the width of the

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

137.
The horizontal to vertical side slope in case of Cpppoletti weir is
A.
I:I
B.
1 : ?2
C.
I:2
D.
4:I
E.
I:4

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

138.
The losses in an open channel vary
A.
As the velocity
B.
As the square of velocity
C.
As the cube of velocity
E.
Inversely as the hydraulic radius
D.
Inversely with a gradient

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

139.
A critical depthmeter is always
A.
Associated with surge
C.
Associated with hydraulic jump D.
E.
Associated with tranquil flow
B.
Associated with water hammer

Associated with steep gradient

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

140.
A stepped notch is
A.
A notch of varying shapes along the line of flow
section
B.
Semi-elliptical in
C.
A combination of triangular and a circular section
rectangular notches of different sizes
D.
A combination of
E.
A combination of triangular notches of different sizes

Answer: Option D
141. When the water flows over a rectangular suppressed weir the pressure
beneath the nappe is
A.
Very high
B.
C.
Atmospheric D.
E.
Vacuum
Slightly above atmospheric

Negative

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

142. The effect of negative pressure beneath the nappe in case of flow of water
over a rectangular suppressed weir is to
A.
Decrease the discharge
B.
C.
Increase frictional resistance
E.
None of the above
Increase the discharge

D.
Reduced frictional resistance

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

143. In order that the water shall never rise more than 100 cm above the crest for
a discharge of 5 cube metres per second, the length of weir will be
A.
1 metre
B.
C.
2.49 metres D.
E.
2.00 metres
2.5 metres
2.51 metres

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

144.
The hydraulic gradient line
A.
Is always below the total energy line
B.
Is always parallel to the bottom
C.
line
Is same as central line of section
D.
Is always above the total energy
E.
Is always below the total energy line

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

145.
Force on a flat stationary plate is
A.
Velocity of jet before impact - velocity after impact B.
velocities of jet in the direction normal to plate
Difference in
C.
Mass of water x (difference in velocities of jet)
D.
Mass of striking
water x (velocity before impact in the direction normal to plate-velocity fter impact
in the direction normal to plate).
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

146.
Undershot water wheels are those on which water acts
A.
Purely by impulse B.
Partly by impulse and partly by reaction
C.
Purely by reaction D.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

147.
Out ward radial flow turbines
A.
Are impulse type
C.
Are partly impulse partly reaction
E.
None of the above
B.
Are reaction type

D.
May be impulse or reaction type

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

148.
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of a pump
A.
Of unit size with unit discharge at unit head
requires unit power for unit head
B.
Of such size that it
C.
Of such size that it delivers unit discharge at unit head
that it delivers unit discharge at unit power
E.
D.
Of such size

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

149.
Cavitation is caused by
A.
High velocityB.
Low barometric pressure
C.
High pressure
D.
E.
Low velocity
Low pressure

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

150.
In Red wood viscometer
A.
Absolute value of viscosity is determined
utilised in overcoming friction
B.
Part of the head of fluid is
C.
The fluid discharges through orifice with negligible velocity
fluid should rapidly flow out of the orifice
E.
D.
The
Comparison of viscosity is done

Answer: Option E
151.
is
In a centrifugal pump installation while starting, the position of delivery valve
A.
Fully open
B.
Fully closed
C.
Half open
D.
E.
Less than half open
More than half open

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

152.
A body floats in stable equilibrium
A.
When the C.G. of body is below the centre of buoyancy
C.G. of body is above the surface of water
C.
C.G.
When the metacentric height is zero
E.
When the metacentre is below C.G.
D.
B.
When the
When the metacentre is above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

153.
The centre of buoyancy is
A.
The point of intersection of the buoyant force and the centre line of the body
B.
Centre of gravity of the body
C.
Centroid of displaced volume of fluid
metacentre
Answer: Option C
D.
Mid-point between C.G. and
Explanation:

154.
The metacentre is
A.
Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
displaced volume of fluid
B.
Centre of pressure of the
C.
Point of intersection of buoyant force and gravitational force
of intersection of buoyant force and centre line of body
E.
D.
Point
Mid-point between C.G. and centre of buoyancy of a body

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

155. The gentre of gravity of the volume of liquid displaced by an immersed body
is called
A.
Wet C.G.
B.
Metacentre
C.
Centre of pressure D.
E.
Centre of buoyancy
Wet centre

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

156.
Air vessels in a reciprocating pump are fitted to
A.
Reduce the acceleration head
B.
C.
Increase delivery head
Smoothen delivery head
E.
Increase the opening speed of pump
D.
Reduce suction head

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

157.
Air vessels in a reciprocating pump is
A.
Fitted in the suction line
B.
Fitted in the delivery line
C.
A cast iron chamber having an opening at the base D.
together
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

158.
1 m of water column is equivalent to
A.
0.1 kN/m2
B.
1.0 kN/m2
C.
10 kN/m2
D.
100 kN/m2
E.
1000 kN/m2

Answer: Option C
A, B and C above
Explanation:

159. If the specific speed of a pump is in the range 170 to 400, the type of pump
would be
A.
Axial flow
B.
Radial flow
C.
Mixed flow
D.
Turbine type
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

160.
Type of impeller used in mud pumps is
A.
Shrouded
B.
C.
Open D.
Double suction
E.
Any of the above
One side shrouded

Answer: Option C
161.
In turbulent flow
A.
The fluid particles move in an orderly manner
transfer is on a molecular scale only
B.
Momentum
C.
Shear stresses are generally larger than in similar laminar flow D.

Cohesion is more effective than momentum transfer in causing shear stress
E.
One lamina of fluid flides smoothly over another
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

162.
Multistage centrifugal pumps are used
A.
To produce high heads
B.
To give high discharge
C.
A and B above together
D.
To pump viscous liquids
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

163.
Specific speed of a impulse turbine ranges from
A.
0 - 4.5B.
100 - 140
C.
100 - 200
D.
E.
300 - 800
200 - 300

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

164.
For pumping highly viscous fluid viscous, the type of pump enerally used is
A.
Centrifugal
B.
C.
Sliding vane type
E.
Screw pump
Multistage centrifugal
D.
Gear vane type

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

165.
The boundary condition for steady flow of an ideal fluid is that the
A.
Velocity is zero at the boundary B.
boundary is zero
Velocity component normal to the
C.
Velocity component tangent to the boundary is zero D.
must be stationary
E.
Boundary surface
Continuity equation must be satisfied

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

166.
Which type of pump is different from others in the same group?
A.
Gear pump B.
Screw pump
C.
Lobe pump D.
Cam and piston pump
E.
Plunger pump

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

167. A turbine model test with 260 mm diameter showed an efficiency of 90
percent. The efficiency that can be expected from a 1.2 m diameter impeller is
A.
90 percent
B.
81 percent
C.
91 percent
D.
93.18 percent
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

168. Identify the statement which is not one of the assumptions made for the
derivation of Bernoulli's theorem
A.
The flow is steady and continuous
C.
Fluid is ideal D.
E.
All the above
B.
Fluid is incompressible

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

169.
A Francis turbine is
The flow is two dimensional
A.
Inward flow reaction turbine
B.
Inward flow impulse turbine
C.
Outward flow reaction turbine
D.
Outward flow impulse turbine
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

170.
Fluid statics deals with
A.
Viscous and pressure forces
B.
Viscous and gravity forces
C.
Gravity and pressure forces
D.
Surface tension and gravity forces

Answer: Option C
171.
Which is the correct statement
A.
In volute casing the velocity of water decreases but pressure increases B.

In volute casing the velocity of water and also pressure increase
C.
Volute casing is improvement over the vortex casing
casing provides diffusering
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

172.
Atmospheric pressure held in terms of water column is
D.
Volute
A.
7.5 m B.
8.5 m
C.
9.81 m
D.
10.30 m

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

173.
Which type of pump is different from the others?
A.
Simplex pump
B.
C.
Piston pump D.
Duplex pump
E.
Centrifugal pump
Plunger pump

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

174. The statement "For laminar flow through a fine porous bed or capillary
passages in a solid, the velocity based on the total cross-section is proportional to
the ratio of pressure gradient to viscosity" is known as
A.
Fick's law
B.
C.
Schmidt's law
E.
Darcy's law of permeability

Answer: Option E
Reynolds hypothesis
D.
Stock's law
Explanation:

175.
Which one is different from the others?
A.
Axial flow impeller B.
Mixed flow impeller
C.
Warped vane impeller
D.
E.
Shrouded impeller
Open impeller

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

176.
In axial flow turbine
A.
Only part of the available head is converted into velocity before the water
enters the wheel B.
Water admitted over part of the circumference
C.
It is necessary that wheel should always run full
regulate the flow
E.
D.
It is possible to
Depends upon other factors

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

177.
A Pelton wheel is
A.
B.
C.
E.
Axial flow impulse turbine
D.
Aoutward flow reaction turbine

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

178.
Runway speed of a Pelton wheel is
A.
Actual operating speed
B.
C.
Full load speed
No load speed when governor mechanism fails
E.
90% greater than normal speed
D.
No lead speed

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

179.
Spouting velocity is
A.
Ideal velocity of jet B.
C.
Actual velocity of jet
conditions
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
50% of ideal velocity of jet

D.
Velocity of jet under some specified

180.
In a reaction turbine
A.
It is possibel to regulate the flow without loss B.
foot of the fall and above the tail race
C.
It must be placed at the
Work done is purely by the change in the kinetic energy of the jet
D.
Only part of the head is converted into velocity before the water enters the
wheel
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
181.
A Founeyron turbine is
A.
Outward flow reaction turbine
B.
C.
D.
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

182.
Which type of pump is different from others?
A.
Centrifugal pump
B.
C.
Gear pump D.
Sliding vane pump
E.
Fuel pump for diesel engine

Answer: Option E
Lobe pump
Explanation:

183.
Which type of turbine is different from others?
A.
Pelton wheel B.
Banki turbine
C.
Girard turbine
D.
E.
Kaplan turbine
Jonval turbine

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

184. If the absolute pressure at a point in a hydraulic system is less than
atmospheric pressure, the point is said to possess
A.
Positive head
B.
C.
Absolute positive head
E.
Manometric head
Negative head
D.
Gross positive head

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

185.
In a turbine installation gross head is defined as
A.
The difference of level between the head race and the tail race
difference of level between reservoir and downstream
B.
The
C.
The difference of head between axis of turbine to discharge stream level

D.
The head actually used in developing power
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

186.
Relative velocity is
A.
The difference between two velocities B.
higher velocity and average velocity
C.
Average velocity
D.
E.
Vector difference of two velocities
Sum of two velocities

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

187.
Which is higher head
A.
33 inch Hg
C.
1.013 kg/cm2
E.
14.1 psi
B.
31.6 ft water
D.
The difference between the
75.6 cm of Hg
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

188.
If the specific speed of a turbine is 6 then the turbine should be
A.
Francis
C.
Pelton wheel D.
E.
Fourneyron
B.
Kaplan
Thomson

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

189.
In working out the reltion for the specific speed, the assumption is made that
A.
All pumps are similr
B.
All pumps of a given type are similar
C.
All pumps of a given type are geometrically similar D.
hydraulically similar
E.
All pumps have similar ratios in all dimensions

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

190.
Specific speed for reaction turbine ranges from
All pumps are
A.
3 - 710
B.
10 - 110
C.
125 - 180
D.
200 - 300
E.
More than 300

Answer: Option B
191.
If the specific speed of a turbine is 800 the turbine should be
A.
Francis
B.
C.
Girard D.
Pelton wheel
E.
Fourneyron
Kaplan

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

192. It is desired to predict the performance of a large centrifugal pump from that
of a scale model one fourth the diameter. The model absorbs 20 HP when pumping
under test head of 20 m at its best speed of 400 r.p.m. The large pump is required
to pump against 60 m head. The following will be the speed of the pump
A.
100 RPM
B.
153 RPM
C.
167 RPM
D.
173 RPM
E.
208 RPM

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

193.
In above problem, what will be the horse power required to drive the pump?
A.
1000 B.
1450
C.
1570 D.
1670
E.
1900

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

194.
In above problem what will be the ratio of discharge?
A.
2.77
B.
27.7
C.
277
D.
83.5
E.
100

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

195.
The specific speed for axial flow turbine varies from
A.
0 - 45 B.
10 - 100
C.
80 - 200
D.
E.
None of the above
200 - 300
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

196.
An impulse turbine
A.
Always operates submerged
B.
Makes use of a draft tube
C.
Is most suited for low head installations
into velocity head throughout the vanes
E.
D.
Converts pressure head
Operates by initial complete conversion to kinctic energy

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

197.
Two units are homologous when they are geometrically similar and have
A.
Similar stream lines
B.
C.
Same efficiency
Same Froud's number
E.
D.
Same Reynolds number

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

198.
The purpose of surge tank in a pipe line is to
A.
Smoothen the flow of water
B.
Minimise friction losses in pipe
C.
Prevent occurrence of hydraulic jump D.
water hammer
E.
To relieve the pressure due to
To maintain the flow of water under emergency conditions

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

199.
A syphon is used to
A.
To connect two reservoirs B.
another
To disconnect water from one reservoir to
C.
To fill water from a reservoir at lower level to another reservoir with the help
of a pump D.
To connect two water reservoirs at different levels intervened by
a mountain
E.
To distribute water from a reservoir at higher level to reservoirs at lower
levels
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

200.
An air vessel is provided at the summit in a syphone to
A.
Regulate the flow
B.
Increase discharge
C.
Increase velocity
D.
Avoid an interruption in the flow
E.
Maintain pressure difference

Answer: Option D
201.
In case of channels, shooting flow does not occur
A.
In a channel with low gradient
C.
In a steep channel D.
E.
Directly after a hydraulic jump
B.
In a horizontal channel
In a trapezoidal channel

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

202.
A stream line
A.
Is the line of equal velocity in a flow
of pressure drop is uniform
B.
Is the line along which the rate
C.
Is the line along the geometrical centre of the flow D.
of flow
E.
Occurs in all types
Is fixed in space in steady flow

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

203.
In laminar flow
A.
Experimentation is required for the sirmplest flow cases
law of viscosity applies
B.
Newton's
C.
The fluid particles move in irregular and haphazard paths D.
is unimportant
The viscosity

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

204.
A hydraulic ram is a device
A.
To generate high pressures
water
B.
To temporarily store the energy of
C.
To increase the intensity of pressure
D.
To lift small quantity of water to
a greater height by means of large quantity of water falling through small height
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

205. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the
wirght of the fluid displaced by the body. This is known as
A.
Pascals law B.
C.
Archimedes principle
E.
Bernoulli's theorem

Answer: Option C
Reynolds principle
D.
Schmidt's hypothesis
Explanation:

206.
The hydraulic radius is given by
A.
Wetted perimeter divided by area
wetted perimeter
C.
Square root of area D.
E.
B.
Area divided by square of
Area divided by wetted perimeter

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

207.
A hydraulic intensifier is a device
A.
To lift small quantities of water through large head by means of large quantity
of water falling through small height B.
To generate high pressure
C.
To increase the intensity of pressure of water by means of the energy of a
large quantity of water at low pressure D.
To temporarily store the energy of
water
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

208.
In reaction turbine the draft tube is used
A.
To transport water to downstream without eddies
B.
To reconvert
kinetic energy to flow energy by a gradual expansion of the flow cross-section
C.
To increase the effective head
E.
To run the turbine full
D.
To prevent air from entering

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

209.
Mach number is significant in
A.
High speed flow of water B.
Flow of highly viscous fluids
C.
Flow of metallic fluids
Flow in air at speeds more than that of sound
E.
Flow in space above the atmosphere of air
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

210.
In an open channel the discharge corresponding to critical depth is
A.
Minimum
B.
C.
Zero D.
Average
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Maximum
211. Select a common dimensionless parameter in fluid mechanics from the

following:
A.
Angular velocity
B.
Kinematic viscosity
C.
Specific gravity
D.
Specific weight
E.
None of the these answers

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

212.
The boundary layer separation takes place if
A.
Pressure gradient is zero B.
Pressure gradient is positive
C.
Pressure gradient is negative
D.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

213.
The surface tension has the units
A.
Newtons/m B.
Newtons/m2
C.
Newtons/m2 D.
Newtons
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

214.
Separation is caused by
A.
Reduction of pressure to vapour pressure
gradient to zero
C.
An adverse pressure gradient
to zero
E.
D.
B.
Reduction of pressure
The boundary layer thickness reducing

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

215.
The wake
A.
Is a region of high pressure
B.
Is the principal cause of skin friction
C.
Always occurs when deformation drag predominates
occurs after a separation point
E.
Is none of these answers

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

216.
The magnitude of water hammer depends on
D.
Always
A.
The length of pipeline
B.
The speed at which the valve is closed
C.
To elastic properties of the liquid flowing through the pipe D.
properties of the pipe material
E.
The elastic
All of the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

217. When power is transmitted through a considerable distance by means of
water under pressure, the maximum power is transmitted when
A.
Frictional loss of head is one third of the total head supplied

Frictional loss of head is half of the total head supplied
C.
Frictional loss of head is 10% of the total head
transmission is 75%
E.
D.
B.
Eficiency of
Loss in transmission is 17.7%.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

218.
Hammer blow in pipe occurs when
A.
Pipe is hit with hammer
B.
Pipe bursts under high fluid pressure
C.
Excessive leakage occurs in pipe
D.
gradually brought to rest by the closing of valve
Flow of fluid through pipe is
E.
Flow of fluid through pipe is suddenly brought to rest by the closing of the
valve

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

219. The ratio inertia forces/surface tension force gives a non-dimensional number
known as
A.
Weber number
B.
Shround number
C.
Cauchy number
D.
Euler number
E.
Froude number

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

220. The ratio of inertia force to pressure forces is related with a non-dimensional
number known as
A.
Reyonolds number B.
Euler number
C.
Nusselt number
Mach number
E.
Weber number
D.

Answer: Option A
221.
If a centrifugal pump is noisy in operation, the cause may be
A.
Priming faulty
B.
C.
Air in water D.
Discharge head too high
Suction head too high
E.
Mechanical defect

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

222.
In axial flow turbines
A.
Water enters radially but leaves axiallyB.
radially
Water enters axially but leaves
C.
Water enters at an angle but leaves axially
leaves axially
D.
E.
Water enters axially and
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

223.
Mixed flow turbine are
A.
Radial inward flow type
B.
Radial outward flow type
C.
Partly rdial partly axial
D.
Parallel flow type
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

224.
In an impulse turbine
A.
Water must be admitted over the whole circumference
possible to regulate the flow without loss
B.
C.
It is not
Wheel must run full and kept entirely submerged in water below the tailrace
D.
The pressure in the driving fluid as it moves over the vanes is
atmospheric
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

225.
In MLT system the dimensions of angular momentum would be
A.
MLT-1 B.
ML2T
C.
ML2T-1
D.
E.
MLT-2
ML2T-2

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

226.
Which of the following forces do not act on fluids
A.
InertiaB.
Viscous force
C.
Gravity
E.
Torsion
D.
Pressure

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

227.
Which of the following forces does not act in case of fluids?
A.
Centrifugal force
B.
Tensile force
C.
Vibratory force
D.
Elastic force
E.
Gravity force

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

228.
Capillarity is due to
A.
Cohesion
C.
Adhesion and cohesion
E.
Gravity
B.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Adhesion
D.
Molecular structure

229. The pressure in metres of oil (specific gravity 0.85) equivalent to 42.5 m of
water is
A.
42.5 m
B.
50 m
C.
52.5 m
D.
85 m
E.
100 m

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

230. In order to avoid a correction for the effect of capillarity in manometers, the
diameter of the tube should be
A.
Less than 1 mm
B.
C.
Less than 4.5 mm D.
E.
None of the above
Less than 3 mm
Greater than or equal to 6 mm

Answer: Option D
231. A type of flow in which the fluid particles while moving in the direction of flow
rotate about their mass centre, is known as
A.
Steady flow B.
Uniform flow
C.
Laminar flowD.
Turbulent flow
E.
Rotational flow

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

232. When a fluid flows through a tapering pipe at a constantly increasing rate,
the flow is said to
A.
Unsteady flow
B.
C.
Unsteady non-uniform flow
E.
Irrotational flow
D.
Turbulent flow

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

233. An imaginary curve drawn through a flowing fluid in such a way that the
tangent to it at any point gives the direction of the velocity of flow at that point, is
known as
A.
Flow-contourB.
Line of flow
C.
Flow line
Path line
E.
Streak line
D.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
234. The line traced by a single fluid particle as it moves over a period of time is
known as
A.
Line of force B.
Filament line
C.
Flow line
Path line
E.
Streak line
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

235.
A practical example of steady non-uniform flow is given as the
A.
Motion of a river around the pillars of a bridge
venturimeter
B.
C.
Flow through delivery pipe of a reciprocating pump D.
decreasing flow through a reducing section
E.
Flow through
Steadily
Constant discharge through straight tapering draft tube turbine

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

236. The oscillatory motion of a ship or a boat about its longitudinal axis is
designated as
A.
Vibration
B.
Simple harmonic motion
C.
Rolling
D.
Pitching
E.
Gyro-mtion

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

237.
as
The oscillatory motion of a ship or a boat about its transverse axis is termed
A.
Transverse motion B.
C.
Rolling
E.
Gyro-motion
D.
Transverse harmonic motion
Pitching

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

238.
The metacentric height of ocean going vessels is usually of the order of
A.
30 cm to 1.2 m
B.
C.
3 m to 5 m
5 m to 7 m
E.
8 m to 10 m
D.
1.8 m to 2.0 m

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
239. A small plastic boat loaded with pieces of steel rods is floating in a bath tub.
It the cargo is dumped into the water allowing the boat to float empty, the water
level in the tub will
A.
Rise
B.
Fall
C.
Not change D.
E.
Fall and then rise
Rise and then fall

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

240.
Buoyant force is
A.
Resultant of upthrust and gravity forces acting on the body

Resultant force on the body due to the fluid surrounding it
C.
Resultant of static weight of body and dynamic thrust of fluid
to the volume of liquid displaced by the body
E.
B.
D.
Equal
The resultant force acting on the body

Answer: Option D
241. A closed cubical box 0.8 m on each side is half filled with water and the other
half being filled with oil of specific gravity 0.75. Now if the box is accelerated
upwards at the rate of 4.905 m/sec2 the pressure difference in kg/m2 between the
top and bottom layers would be
A.
490.5 B.
545.5
C.
981
1050
E.
1800
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

242. If the box in above problem is accelerated in a horizontal direction parallel to
a pair of sides at the rate of 1 m/sec2, maximum pressure on the top of the box in
metres of water would be
A.
0.225 B.
0.3
C.
0.49
0.563
E.
0.6
D.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

243. A cylinder is kept on a horizontal boundary past which an ideal fluid flows
perpendicular to cylinder axis. It will then experience
A.
No lift force B.
Some lift force
C.
Lift force in vertically downward direction
upward direction
E.
D.
Lift force in vertically
Lift force depends on velocity of flow and mass of cylinder and its contents

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

244.
In parallel pipe problems
A.
The pressure gradient remains the same through all the pipes
hydraulic gradient remains the same through all the pipes
C.
The head loss is the same through each pipe D.
each pipe are added to obtain the total head loss
E.
B.
The
The head losses through
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

245. The value of mannings roughness coefficient n, in Manning's formula for flow
of fluids through pipes, is expected to be highest in case of
A.
Brass pipe
B.
Glass pipe
C.
Asbestos cement pipe
E.
Vitrified sewer pipe
D.
Corrugated iron pipe

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

246.
Tranqil flow must always occur
A.
At normal depth
C.
Below normal depth
B.
Above normal depth

D.
Below critical depth
E.
Above critical depth

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

247. The value of n in Manning's formula for flow through channel is expected to
be least in case of
A.
Glass surfaces
B.
Corrugated metals surface
C.
Unfinished cement surface
E.
Vitrified clay.
D.
Cement concrete finish

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

248.
In a channel the flow at critical depth occurs when
A.
Normal depth and critical depth coincide for a channel
energy is a maximum for a given discharge
C.
Hydraulic gradient and slope coincide D.
more specific energy
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
B.
Specific
Any changes in depth require

249.
Geometric similarity between model and prototype means
A.
The similarity of discharge
B.
C.
The similarity of motion
The similarity of forces
D.
The similarity of linear dimensions

Answer: Option B
250.
Kinematic similarity between model and prototype means
A.
The similarity of forces
B.
The similarity of shape
C.
The similarity of motion
D.
The similarity of discharge
Answer: Option A
251.
Euler's equation of motion can be integrated when it is assumed that
A.
The fluid is incompressible
C.
Continrity equation is satisfied
density is constant
E.
B.
Bernoulli's satisfied
D.
Velocity potential exists and the
The flow is rotational

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

252.
Navier-stokes equation is useful in the analysis of
A.
Viscous flow B.
Non-viscous flow
C.
Rotational flow
D.
E.
Any of the above
Turbulent flow
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

253.
For hydrodynamically rough boundary the friction coefficient
A.
Remains constant B.
Varies with Reynold's number
C.
Depends on relative roughness D.
pressure gradient and relative roughness
E.
Depends on Reynolds number,
Depends on velocity and relative roughness

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

254.
Stremlines, streak lines and path lines are all identical in case of
A.
Uniform flow B.
Non-uniform flow
C.
Rotation flow
D.
E.
Unsteady flow
Steady flow

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

255.
An equipotential line
A.
Has no velocity component tangent to it
dynamic pressure
B.
Has uniformly varying
C.
Has no velocity component normal to it
rotational flow
D.
Exists in case of
E.
Exists in case of turbulent flow only

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

256.
In laminar flow through a pipe, discharge varies
A.
Linearly as the viscosity
B.
Linearly as pipe diameter
C.
Inversely s the viscosity
D.
Linearly as the pressure drop
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

257.
The terminal velocity of a small sphere setting in a viscous fluid varies as the
A.
Inverse of the diameter
B.
C.
Fluid viscosity
Inverse of the fluid viscosity
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
D.
Inverse square of the diameter
Explanation:

258. A right circular cylinder open at the top is filled with liquid (specific gravity
1.2) and rotated about its vertical axis at such speed that half the liquid spills out.
The pressure at centre of the bottom is
A.
Zero B.
One eighth of its value when cylinder was full
C.
One fourth of its value when cylinder was full D.
cylinder was full
E.
Half of its value when
Same as before rotation

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

259. The motion of a fluid in which the fluid mass rotates without the external
force is known as
A.
Rotary motion
B.
Circulatory motion
C.
Irrotational motion D.
Free vortex motion
E.
Forced vortex motion

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
260. A tank 2 m square contains one metre of water. Now the tank is accelerated
in the horizontal direction parallel to a pair of sides at the rate of 4 m/sec2. In order
that there may be no spilling of water the minimum height of the tank should be
A.
1m
B.
1.41 m
C.
2m
D.
2.32 m
E.
4m

Answer: Option B
261.
Hydraulic jump is used for
A.
Increasing the flow rate
C.
Reducing the velocity of flow
E.
Reducing turbulence
B.
Reducing the flow rate

D.
Reducing the energy of flow

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

262.
Hydraulic jump occurs when
A.
Flow is sub-critical B.
Flow is supercritical
C.
Adequate downstream depth is available
adequate down streamdepth is available
E.
D.
Flow is sub-critical and
Flow is supercritical and adequate downstream depth is available

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

263. If the specific speed of a pump is calculated as 5000, the type of pump that
should be selected is
A.
Slow speed radial flow
B.
Medium speed radial flow
C.
High speed radial flow
D.
Mixed flow or screw pump
E.
Axial flow or propeller pump

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

264.
The unit of specific speed is
A.
R.P.M. B.
C.
Dimensionless
E.
None of the above
Metres/sec
D.
Any of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

265.
Specific speed (metric) = k x specific (FPS) where k has the value of
A.
B.
1.75
C.
2.37
D.
0.67
E.
0.41

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

266. While calculating the specific speed of double suction pump, the discharge to
be considered is
A.
Double of the actual discharge
C.
Actual discharge
E.
Square root of actual discharge
D.
B.
Square of the actual discharge
Half of actual discharge

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

267. A concrete masonry block on a hill side for supporting and fixing the penstock
is known as
A.
Anchor blockB.
Support block
C.
Concrete block
D.
E.
Any of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Base block

268. A small-size nozzle is built into a Pelton turbine for directing its water jet
towards the back of the bucket, so that machine can be stopped quickly, is known
as
A.
Reverse nozzle
B.
Compensating nozzle
C.
Brake nozzle D.
Any of the above
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

269. The lowest portion of storage basin from where the water is not drawn
usually, is
A.
Bottom storage
B.
Sub-soil storage
C.
Spring reserve
D.
Dead storage
E.
Reserve storage

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

270. The portion of the power canal that extends from the intake works to the
power house, is known as
A.
Lead race
B.
C.
Diversion canal
Main storage
D.
Head race
E.
Tail race

Answer: Option D
271. The part of a reservoir water which can be utilized for pwer production or
other purposes, is known as
A.
Power storage
B.
Main storage
C.
Useful storage
D.
Dead storage
E.
Live storage

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

272. The portion of the power canal which extends from the power house to the
recepient water course, is known as
A.
Tail race
B.
Discharge channel
C.
Exhaust
D.
Tail surge channel
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

273.
The force acting on a gravity dam which causes stability is
A.
Reservoir water pressure B.
Wind pressure
C.
Earth and silt pressure
E.
Weight of the dam
D.
Uplift

274.
Abnormal load on a earth dam is
A.
Water pressure corresponding to full reservoir level B.
structure above it
C.
Uplift D.
Weight of dam and
Wave pressure

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

275.
A hydro-electric plant is usually temed as high head plant when the head is
A.
more than 5 m
B.
more than 15 m
C.
more than 25 m
D.
more than 35 m
E.
more than 45 m

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

276.
The turbine that cannot be installed in high head plant is
A.
Pelton wheel, horizontal
C.
Francis turbine, horizontalD.
E.
Kaplan turbine
B.
Pelton wheel, vertical

Francis turbine, vertical

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

277.
World's largest capacity hydro-electric generating plant is located in
A.
U.S.A. B.
U.S.S.R.
C.
Germany
D.
E.
India
France

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

278. The generating capacity of world's largest capacity hydroelectric plant is of
the order of
A.
1000 MW
B.
2000 MW
C.
3000 MW
D.
4000 MW
E.
5000 MW

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
279. Which one of the following method is used to check the stability of gravity
dams
A.
Pigeaud's method B.
Finite element method
C.
Slab analogy method
D.
E.
All of the above
Lattice analogy method

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

280. For safety against overturning in a gravity dam, the resultant of all the forces
acting on a dam must pass
A.
Outside the base
B.
Just at extreme edge of the base
C.
Within 10% of the extreme edge D.
E.
First third of the base
Middle third of the base

Answer: Option D
281. In case the resultant of all the forces acting on a dam passes outside the
base, the dam would overturn unless
A.
It can resist tensile stress B.
the dam
Additional weight is provided on the body of
C.
Friction pads are providedD.
Anchor blocks are provided
E.
Coefficient of driction of the material is increased

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

282. The stress in the dam should be within the specified limits for the body of
dam in the foundations. If the stress at the toe and heel are excessive, they can be
brought within permissible limits by
A.
Grouting
B.
Providing anchor blocks
C.
Providing friction blocks
E.
Any of the above
D.
Providing filters

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

283. By the usual gravity analysis as per B.I.S., the permissible tensile stresses at
the upstream face of the dam under earthquake loading, should not exceed
A.
50 kg/ cm2 B.
100 kg/ cm2
C.
150 kg/ cm2 D.
200 kg/ cm2
E.
Zero

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

284.
Which assumption is not valid in the analysis of gravity dams
A.
The material in the foundation and in the body of the dam is isotropic and
homogeneous
B.
The foundation and the dam behave as one unit, the joint
being a perfect one
C.
No loads are transferred to abutments by beam action
D.
the foundation and the body of the dam are within plastic limits
E.
The stress in
No movements are caused in the foundations due to transference of the load

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

285.
Essentially the gravity dam resists the loads to which it is exposed, due to its
A.
Size
C.
Mass D.
E.
Gravity
B.
Volume
High tensile stress

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

286.
In a Buttress dam the inclination of the deck with horizontal is kept between
A.
10? to 15?
B.
15? to 20?
C.
25? to 30?
D.
35? to 40?
E.
60? to 75?
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

287.
In case of Buttress dams, too steep slopes
A.
Increase the tendency to sliding B.
Increase inclined stress at heel
C.
Increase tendency to over turning
D.
E.
Increase tensile stress on upstream side of dam
Increase stresses at heels only

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

288.
In Buttress dam, too flat a slope causes
A.
Excessive tensile stress on upstream face
stress at the heel
B.
A very high inclined
C.
Overloading of buttress sections D.
Increased tendency to overturning
E.
Excessive tensile stresses in the foundation and the body of the dam

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
289. Which one of the following is not usually considered particular advantage of a
Buttress dam?
A.
Economy in use of concrete
B.
Less uplift force
C.
The power house and switchyard etc. can be located between the buttresses
D.
Because of thin members, the volume changes are significant
E.
Due to thin section, the problem of temperature control is minimised.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

290.
Which one of the following is not a disadvantage due to a Buttress dam?
A.
The structure being self-sealing, it is not sensitive to accidental rise in water
level above the designed full supply level
B.
Bearing stress of the foundtions
are higher
C.
Problems arising out of large number of joints in the dam D.
of volume changes of thin members
E.
Significance
Overflow arrangements

Answer: Option A
291. In a Buttress dam, when the height of dam is 10 m to 25 m, the spacing of
buttress is usually restricted to
A.
1m
B.
C.
4.5 to 6 m
E.
20 to 25 m.
1.5 m
D.

Answer: Option C
10 to 15 m
Explanation:

292. In Buttress dam the column or slenderness ratio is usually maintained
between
A.
2 to 5 B.
5 to 7
C.
7 to 10
D.
E.
20 to 25
12 to 15

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

293.
The arch dam is not suitable for
A.
Narrow sites B.
Wider sites
C.
Small discharge
D.
E.
Small discharge and low heads
Low heads

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

294.
In case of Constant Angle Arch Dam, the most favourable central angle is
A.
170? B.
165?
C.
133? D.
E.
73?
90?

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

295.
The magnitude of earthquake pressure on a dam varies as a function of
A.
Frequency of vibration
C.
Frequency of vibration and amplitude D.
E.
Richard's scale number
B.
Amplitude
Amplitude and intensity

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

296.
The simplest type of controls for reservoir outlets is provided by
A.
Slide gates
C.
Radial gates D.
E.
Cylindrical gates
B.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Height pressure gates

Jet flow gates

297. In order to keep out debris and other materials carried by water which are
likely to damage turbine, provision is made by
A.
Trash racks B.
Radial gates
C.
Trunions
Jet flow gates
E.
Ensign valve
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

298.
Rocks which contain neither joints nor hair cracks, are known as
A.
Hard rocks
C.
Squeezing rocks
E.
Schistos rocks
B.
Popping rocks
D.
Stratified rocks

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

299.
Rocks with excessive internal stresses which may cause spalling are known as
A.
Stratified rocks
B.
Popping rocks
C.
Crushed rocks
D.
Swelling rocks
E.
Schistos rocks

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

300. Rocks that undergo notable expansion without flow due to preence of clay
minerals, are known as
A.
Squeezing rocks
B.
Moderately jointed rocks
C.
Seamy rocks D.
Schistos rocks
E.
Swelling rocks

Answer: Option E
301.
Layered or bedded rocks having planes of reltively easy separation are called
A.
Swelling rocks
B.
Seamy rocks
C.
Squeezing rocks
D.
Stratified rocks
E.
Schistos rocks

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

302. Chemically inact relatively unstable blocks, large or small with three or more
sets of joints and seams are known as
A.
Schistos rocks
B.
Crushed rocks
C.
Chemical rocks
D.
Moderately jointed rocks
E.
Block or seamy rocks

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

303. Micaceous rocks with closely spaced cleavage planes along which easy
separation can be affected, are known as
A.
Intact rocks B.
Schistos rocks
C.
Stratified rocks
D.
E.
Sedimentary rocks
Popping rocks

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

304.
Which conduit entrance is expected to have least loss coeffieient?
A.
Inward projecting entrances
B.
Square bell mouth entrances
C.
Circular bell mouth entrances
D.
Slightly rounded entrance
E.
Square cornered entrance

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

305.
Which conduit entrance is expected to have highest loss coefficient?
A.
Inward projecting entrances
x/D>0.15
B.
Fully rounded entrance having
C.
Gate in thin wall-unsuppressed contraction
and side suppressed
E.
D.
Gate in thin wall-bottom
Gate in thin wall-corners rounded

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

306.
Permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete tunnel is usually
A.
4 - 5 m/s
C.
12 - 12 m/s D.
E.
25 m/s
B.
10 - 12 m/s
20 m/s

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

307.
Presence of air in a pressure tunnel may result in
A.
Increased discharge
B.
C.
Water hammer
Bulking of flow
E.
Any or all of the above
D.
Increased head loss

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

308.
Formation of air pockets in pressure tunnel may be avoided by
A.
Avoiding partial gate opening
crown
B.
Avoiding traps or pockets along the
C.
Avoiding vortices formation
D.
Avoiding small intakes
E.
Any of the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

309.
Which rock is expected to have highest strength grade?
A.
Sand stone rock
B.
C.
Marble rocks D.
Solid quartzite rock
E.
Granite rock
Limestone rock

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
310.
The advantages of burried penstocks is
A.
Less accessible in inspection
C.
Location difficult
E.
Need for special coating against the corrosive action of salts present in soil
D.
B.
Tendency to slide along steep slopes
No expansion joints needed

Answer: Option D
311.
The disadvantage of burried penstocks is
A.
Protection against effect of temperature because of soil cover

Protection against freezing of conveyed water
C.
Protection against earthquake shock
avalanches and falling tree
E.
D.
B.
Immunity against rock sides,
Difficulty in repair and maintenance

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

312.
The advantage of exposed penstock is
A.
Safety against sliding
temperature
B.
C.
Expansion joints necessary
frozen in severe cold climates
E.
Full exposure to external variation in

D.
Changes of water conveyed being
Longitudinal stresses may develop owing to anchorages

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

313.
Anchor blocks are provided to hold the pipe line so as to
A.
Prevent the pipe line sliding down the hill
expansion
B.
Control the direction of
C.
Resist the unbalanced hydrostatic forces at a change of direction of the pipe
line D.
Prevent movement of the pipe line on account of vibration or water
hammer pressures
E.
All of the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

314. In which contact condition case the value of coefficient of friction is expected
to be highest?
A.
Steel on concrete
B.
Steel on steel
C.
Steel on steel, greased plates
E.
Steel on steel with two layers of graphite service in between
D.
Packing and liner

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

315.
Highest value of sliding factor may be expected in case of
A.
Concrete on sand
B.
C.
Concrete on clayey soil
E.
Concrete on fine gravel
Concrete on rock
D.
Concrete on gravel

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

316. The maximum continuous power available from a hydro-electric plant under
the most adverse hydraulic conditions is known as
A.
Base power B.
Firm power
C.
Primary power
D.
E.
Installed capacity
Secondary power

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

317.
A plot between power generated in MW and time is known as
A.
Load curve
C.
Load factor D.
E.
None of the above
B.

Answer: Option A
Load duration curve

Demand curve
Explanation:

318.
The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity is known as
A.
Load factor B.
C.
Maximum load factor
E.
Plant factor
Utilization factor
D.
Capacity factor

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

319. Portion of the installed reserve kept in operable condition but not placed in
service to supply the peak load is known as
A.
Operating reserve B.
C.
Cold reserve D.
E.
None-spinning reserve
Spinning reserve
Hot reserve

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

320. Capacity of a hydro-electric plant in service in excess of the peak load is
known as
A.
Operating reserve B.
Spinning reserve
C.
Cold reserve D.
E.
Peak reserve
Hot reserve

Answer: Option A
321.
Which one of the following is an integrator
A.
Transformer B.
C.
Lightning arrestor D.
E.
Bus-bar
Exciter
Oil circuit breaker

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

322.
Which one of the following results in loss in an electric generator
A.
Air drag
B.
Friction in bearing
C.
Direct current power for excitation
winding
E.
D.
Heat generated in armature
All of the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

323. Specific speed (fps) = k x specific speed (metric where value of k is (for
turbines)
A.
B.
C.
4.45
D.
8.91
E.
9.81

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

324.
An electric overhead crane is specified by
A.
Capacity in tons
C.
Travel D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Span
All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

325.
Critical speed of turbine is
A.
Same as maximum operating speed
B.
Same as run away speed
C.
The speed at which shaft will break
D.
The speed at which the number
of natural vibrations or natural frequency equals the number of revolutions per
minute
E.
The speed equal to synchronous speed of generator

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

326.
is
The most popular generation voltage in hydro-electric power stations in India
A.
220 V B.
440 V
C.
6600 V
D.
E.
440 kV
11000 V

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

327.
The highest voltage at which power is transmitted in India is
A.
11 kV B.
33 kV
C.
132 kV
D.
E.
440 kV
400 kV

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

328.
Bhakra dam is constructed on river
A.
Yamuna
B.
Sutlej
C.
Chambal
E.
Chenab
D.
Beas

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

329.
Nagarjuna Sugar dam has been constucted on river
A.
Periyar
B.
C.
Kali
Krishna
E.
Mabanadi
D.
Cauvery

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

330.
The state in which Hirakund dam is established is
A.
West Bengal B.
C.
Orissa D.
E.
Uttar Pradesh
Bihar
Madhya Pardesh

Answer: Option C
331.
The dam constructed on river chambal is
A.
Jawaha Sagar
B.
Rana Pratap Sagar
C.
Gandhi Sagar
E.
None of the above
D.
All of the above three

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

332.
Koyna dam is located in
A.
Gujrat B.
C.
Maharashtra D.
E.
Rajasthan
Karnataka
Madhya Pradesh

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

333.
The falling drops of rain acquire spherical shape on account of
A.
Viscosity
C.
Compressibility
E.
Vapour pressure
B.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Surface tension
D.
Buoyancy

334. Which of the following pumping device for supplying water to boiler does not
have moving parts?
A.
Single stage centrifugal pump
C.
Steam injector
E.
Duplex pump
D.
B.
Multistage centrifugal pump
Simplex pump

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

335.
A foot valve is provided on
A.
Centrifugal pumps B.
Kaplan turbines
C.
Pelton wheels
High pressure devices
E.
All of the above
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

336.
The foot valve is provided
A.
On suction line
C.
Both suction and delivery line
B.
On delivery line
D.
Neither suction nor delivery lines
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

337. Which of the following component of a reciprocating pump is not made of
cast iron?
A.
Cylinder
B.
Air vessel
C.
Foot valve
D.
Shaft
E.
All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

338.
The breaking up of a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called
A.
Vaporization B.
Atomization
C.
Venturi effect
D.
E.
Carburetion
Osmosis

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

339.
Red wood viscometer
A.
Compares viscosities of fluids
B.
Measures absolute viscosity
C.
Measures dynamic viscosity
D.
Measures kinematic viscosity
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

340.
Which of the following is not a dimensionless quantity?
A.
Specific gravity
C.
Darcy weisbach friction factor
B.
Pressure coefficient
D.
Kinematic viscosity

Answer: Option D
341.
Pressure drag results from
A.
Skin friction B.
C.
Development of a stagnation point
Deformation drag
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

342.
Concentrated solution of sugar is a
A.
Dilatant fluidB.
Pseudo plastic fluid
C.
Newtonian fluid
D.
Ideal fluid
Occurrence of a wake
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

343. In case the adhesion between moleules of a fluid is greater than cohesion
between fluid and the glass, then the free level of the fluid in glass tube dipped in
the glass vessel will be
A.
Same as the surface of the fluid B.
C.
Higher than the surface of the fluid
pressure
E.
Lower than the surface of the fluid

D.
Dependent on atmospheric
Dependent on atmospheric temperature

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

344. A low pressure of the order of 10-10 torr is to be measured in a chamber.
Which of the following device can be used for this?
A.
Manometer B.
Bourdon vacuum gauge
C.
Pirani gauge D.
Ionisation chamber
E.
McLeod gauge

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

345.
Which of the following principle is used in the operation of Mc Leod gauge?
A.
Charles law B.
Boyles law
C.
Daltons law D.
Pascals law
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

346.
The speed of a submariue can be measured by
A.
Pitot tube
C.
Pirani gauge D.
E.
Any of the above
B.
Hot wire anemometer

Inclined manometer

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

347. The thickness of laminar boundary layer at a distance x from the leading
edge over a flat plate varies as
A.
B.
x2
C.
x1/2
D.
x4/5
E.
x3/5

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

348. The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance x from the leading
edge over a flat plate varies as
A.
x4/5
B.
x5/4
C.
x3/5
D.
x5/3
E.
x1/2

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

349. Which of the following gauge can be used for the measurement of velocity of
an aircraft?
A.
Pilot tube
B.
C.
Venturimeter
E.
Inclined manometer

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Ionization chamber
D.
Hot wire anemometer

350.
The flow in venturi flume takes place at
A.
Atmospheric pressure
B.
C.
High pressure
Varying pressure
E.
None of the above
D.
Vacuum

Answer: Option A
351.
The angle of taper on a draft tube is
A.
Less than 7 B.
Around 10?
C.
Around 15? D.
More than 15?
E.
More than 20?

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

352. When the dynamic viscosity of a fluid is 0.6 poise and specific gravity is 0.6,
the kinematic viscosity of that fluid will be
A.
0.36 poise
B.
0.6 poise
C.
1 poise
D.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

353. When a liquid rotates at a angular velocity above a vertical axis as a rigid
body, the pressure intensity varies
A.
inversely with radial distance
distance
B.
inversely with the square of radial
C.
directly with radial distance
distance
D.
Directly with square of the radial

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

354.
1 Kilo-Pascal is the same as
A.
1000 n/mm2 B.
1000 N/cm
C.
1000 N/cm2 D.
1000 N/m2
E.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

355.
Surface tension is due to
A.
cohesion only
C.
cohesion and adhesion only
B.
adhesion only
D.
neither cohesion nor adhesion

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

356.
The motion of air mass in a tornado is
A.
forced vertex at the centre and free vortex outside B.
the centre as well as outside
forced cortex at
C.
free vortex at the centre and forced vortex outside D.
centre as well as outside
free vortex at the

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

357.
The size of a venturimeter is specified by
A.
fluid pressure
B.
Discharge channel
C.
pipe diameter
D.
pipe diameter and throat diameter

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

358.
Pascal-second is the unit of
A.
pressure
B.
surface
C.
kinematic viscosity D.
dynamic viscosity

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

359.
As the temperature increases, the viscosity of a gas
A.
increases, increases
B.
decreases, decreases
C.
increases, decreases
D.
decreases, increases

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

360.
The centre of buoyancy always coincides with
A.
centre of gravity of the body
C.
metacentre D.
B.
centroid of the volume displaced
None of the above

Answer: Option B
361. A vessel containing water moves downward with a constant acceleratin equal
to 'q' then
A.
the liquid mass will be in turbulence
pressure below the atmospheric pressure
B.
the liquid mass will be under a
C.
the liquid mass will be under a pressure double the atmospheric pressure
D.
the pressure throughout the liquid mass will be atmospheric

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

362. If the forces due to inertia, gravity and frictional resistance are insignificant,
the design of a channel may be made by comparing
A.
Weber number
B.
Reynolds number
C.
Froude's number
D.
Prandt number

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

363.
A hydraulic jump can occur under all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A.
on the upstream side of the sluices
C.
B.
at the foot of the spillways
where the gradient suddenly chauges from a steep slope to a flat slope D.
when water moving in shooting flow impacts with water having a larger depth
with streaming flow
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

364. The distance from pipe boundary, at which the point velocity is equal to
average velocity in case of turbulent flow (when R is the radius of the pipe), is
A.
0.111 R
B.
0.223 R
C.
0.446 R
D.
0.892 R

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

365.
The miaimum thickness of boundary layer in a pipe of radius R is
A.
0.1 R B.
0.22 R
C.
0.5 R D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

366.
The wake
A.
is a region of high pressure intensity
separation point
B.
C.
always occurs after a separation point D.
separation point.
Answer: Option C
always occurs before a

always occurs before and after
Explanation:

367. The shear stress distribution for a fluid flowing in between the parallel plates,
both at rest, is
A.
constant over the cross-section B.
linearly wth distance from mid-plane
C.
maximum at the mid-plane and varies
zero at the mid-point and varies linearly with distance from mid-plane D.
zero at the plates and varies exponentially to mid-point

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

368. The ratio of average velocity to mzximum velocity for steady laminar flow in
circular pipes is
A.
D.
B.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

369. Identify the case in which the friction drag is generally larger than pressure
drag?
A.
Flow past a sphere B.
Flow past a cylinder
C.
Flow past an aerofoil
D.
Flow past a thin sheet

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

370.
Stanton diagram is a plot of
A.
friction factor against Reynolds number
of Reynolds number
B.
C.
log of friction factor against Reynolds number
factor against log of Reynolds number
friction factor against log

D.
log of friction

Answer: Option D
371.
Drag force in not a function of
A.
projected area of the body
B.
C.
mass density of the body D.
mass density of the fluid
velocity of the body

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

372.
In which of the following types of flow the losses are maximum?
A.
Laminar flowB.
Turbulent flow
C.
Critical flow D.
Transition flow

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

373.
In case of shooting flow, the Froude number is
A.
infinitely high
C.
D.
B.
zero
more than one

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

374.
Best section for open channel flow is
A.
semi-circle
C.
rectangular D.
B.
triangular
trapezoidal

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

375.
The best draulic channel cross-section is the one which has
A.
maximum wetted perimeter
B.
minimum wetted perimeter
C.
maximum area for a given flow D.
least cost

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

376.
Hydraulic jump is a
A.
Steady uniform flow
C.
non-steady non-uniform flow
B.
Non-steady uniform flow

D.
Steady non-uniform flow

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

377.
Surge wave is an example of
A.
steady uniform flow
B.
steady non-uniform flow
C.
unsteady uniform flow
D.
unsteady non-uniform flow

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

378.
A froude number of 2 indicates
A.
a weak jump B.
a medium jump
C.
a strong jump
D.
a very strong jump

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

379.
Which fluid is the heaviest?
A.
Air
C.
Glycerine
B.
Castor oil
D.
Carbon tetrachloride

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

380.
In a jet pump
A.
energy of high pressure fluid is converted into low pressure fluid B.

energy of high velocity stream is converted into pressure energy
C.
kinetic energy of fluid is regained as potential energy
energy of fluid is converted into rotational energy
D.
potential

Answer: Option A
381. The minimum diameter necessary to avoid the capillary rise in the
manometer is
A.
1 mm B.
3 mm
C.
6 mm D.
15 mm

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

382.
Notch is a device used for measuring
A.
Rate of flow through pipes
B.
C.
Velocity through a pipe
Velocity through a small channel
D.
Rate of flow through a small channel

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

383.
be
When the rheogram is linear but does not pass through origin, fluid is said to
A.
Newtonian
C.
Ideal plastic D.
B.
Non-newtonian
Bingham.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

384.
The glass is considered as a
A.
solid B.
crystal
C.
frozen liquid D.
liquid metal

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

385.
One poise is equivalent to
A.
1 gm/cm sec B.
9.8 dyne/sec
C.
98 kgf sec/m2
D.
1 kg/m-hr

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

386.
A hydrograph is is a plot of
A.
Rainfall intensity against time
C.
Cumulative rainfall against time D.
B.
Discharge against time

Cumulative run off against time

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
387.
A bulb turbine is a
A.
low head turbine
C.
high head turbine D.
B.
medium head turbine

high head high rpm turbine

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

388.
The coefficient of discharge (Cd) of an orifice varies with
A.
Reynold number
B.
Weber number
C.
Froude number
D.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

389. Under which of the following conditions, Bernoulli's equation cannot be
applied?
A.
When the flow is rotational
B.
When the flow is turbulent
C.
When the flow is unsteady
D.
All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

390.
The river flow during floods can be classified as
A.
Steady uniform flow
C.
steady non-uniform flow D.
B.


Answer: Option D
391.
In a flow field, at the stagnation point
A.
pressure is zero
B.
total energy is zero
C.
pressure head is equal to velocity head
converted into pressure head
D.
All the velocity head is

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

392. In which of the following case of modelling, Reynold number will be used for
studying?
A.
Hydraulic jump
B.
Flow configuration of harbours
C.
Flow of castor oil through pipes D.
All of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

393.
Ogee is
A.
overfall of a spillway in the shape of double or S-curve which is convex at the
top and concave at the bottom B.
the channel between the silt extractor and
the river through which the escapage water is discharged
C.
the channel conducting water away from a water wheel
above
D.
none of the

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

394.
Prandtl's mixing length hypothesis is based on
A.
eddy viscosity
motion
C.
B.
momentum exchange that occurs due to random
similarity of turbulent flow pattern
D.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

395.
When the Reynolds number is less than 500 the flow is said to be laminar for
A.
pipe flow
C.
free surface flow
B.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
flow between parallel plates

D.
all of the above

396.
In a sudden expansion in a pipe
A.
total energy line rises in the down-stream direction B.
gradually increases
C.
velocity head
piezometric head gradually rises in the downstream direction

frictional resistance is negligible
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

397.
Separation is caused by
A.
zero
an adverse pressure gradient
C.
laminar flow changing to turbulent flow
B.
boundary layer thickness reducing to

D.
all of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

398. Darcy's equation for flow through porous media valid as long as the flow
remains
A.
steady
B.
critical
C.
laminar with negligible internal effects D.
effects.
turbulent with negligible inertial

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

399. If one of the walls moves in the direction of flow with uniform velocity while
the other wall is stationary, then the resulting flow between parallel walls is called
A.
Plug flow
B.
Stoke's flow
C.
Couette flow D.
Euler's flow

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

400. For a flow between two stationary parallel plates the velocity distribution is
parabolic. In this case the mean velocity is equal to
A.
maximum velocity B.
half the maximum velocity
C.
one-third of the maximum velocity
velocity
D.
two-third of the maximum

Answer: Option D
401. The unit hydrograph may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct
run-off hydrograph of a storm by
A.
direct run-off volume
C.
duration of unit hydrograph
B.
storm duration
D.
total run off volume
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

402.
Which of the following statement regarding the buoyant force is incorrect?
A.
Buoyant force has no horizontal component B.
The magnitude of the
buoyant force is equal to the weight of fluid displaced by the body
C.
The buoyant force acts through the centre of gravity of the body D.
of the above
None

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

403. A structure in a channel having narrow throat and a raised floor in the bottom
which is used to measure the discharge is known as
A.
Partial flume B.
Standing wave flume
C.
Venturi flume
D.
Tilting flume

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

404.
A rotameter should always be installed in
A.
horizontal position B.
vertical position
C.
inclined at 30? to vertical D.
inclined at 45? to vertical

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

405. When the relationship between Reynolds number and the friction factor is
represented by a straight line the flow is said to be
A.
isentropic flow
B.
laminar flow
C.
turbulent flow
D.
vortex flow

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

406. Which of the following is the result of the formation of a region of low
pressure developed on the downstream side due to separation of flow?
A.
Cavities
B.
C.
WakesD.
Vortex street

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Holes

407. The velocity of flow through homogeneous porous media under constant
head is
A.
inversely proportional to the coefficient of permeability
proportional to the square of the coefficient of permeability
B.
inversely
C.
directly proportional to the coefficient of permeability
proportional to the square of the coefficient of permeability
D.
directly

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

408.
In a flow between two stationary parallel plates the shear stress is zero at
A.
the base
B.
the top
C.
both at the base and at the top D.
maximum
at the centre where velocity is

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

409. Capallary waves in channels, capillary rise in narrow passages are the
instances where
A.
elastic forces are prefominant
C.
surface tension cannot be neglected
B.
viscous forces play a dominant role

D.
surface tension is negligible
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

410.
A normal shockwave is analogous to
A.
open channel flow with Fr < 1.0 B.
C.
hydraulic jump
D.
open channel flow with Fr > 1.0
a small amplitude wave in open channels

Answer: Option C
411.
Viscosity will be the most important property in which of the following case:
A.
Travel of a bullet through air
B.
Water jet issuing from a fire hose
C.
Formation of soap bubbles
D.
Flow of castor oil through a tube

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

412.
A surge tank is provided in the hydropower schemes to
A.
strengthen the penstocks B.
reduce water hammer pressures
C.
reduce frictional losses in the system D.
power development
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
minimize the cost of hydro-

413.
The pressure gradient in laminar motion along the flow dirction is equal to
A.
velocity gradient
direction of flow
B.
the rate of change of velocity normal to the
C.
the rate of change of shear stress along the direction of flow
rate of change of shear stress normal to the direction of flow
D.
the

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

414. The ratio between inertial forces and the square root of pressure forces is
known as
A.
Euler number
B.
Weber number
C.
Froude number
D.
Mach number

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

415. How many dimensionless parameters can be obtained for a physical
phenomenon having 7 varieables involving 3 fundamental dimensions?
A.
10
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

416. If the pressure at any point in the liquid approaches the vapour pressure, the
liquid starts vapourising and creates pockets or bubbles of dissolved gases and
vapours. This phenomenon is known as
A.
surface tension
B.
adhesion
C.
vaporisation D.
cavitation

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

417.
The lift on the cylinder caused by the circulation is independent of
A.
velocity
C.
magnitude of circulation D.
B.
cylinder diameter
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

418.
In a free vortex flow, the tangential velocity is
A.
directly proportional to the radial distance
the square of the radial distance
B.
C.
inversely proportional to the radial distance D.
directly proportional to
inversely proportional to

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

419. A Rankine body can be developed when a source of constant discharge is
placed at the origin and in a
A.
uniform flow B.
gradually varying flow
C.
non-uniform flow
D.
vortex flow

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

420.
In a flow field, stagnation point is a point where the
A.
velocity is zero
C.
both pressure and velocity are zero
B.
pressure is zero
D.
gravitational effect is zero

Answer: Option A
421.
The radial component of velocity in a free vortex is
A.
zero
B.
directly proportional to the radial distance
C.
inversely proportional to the radial distance D.
inversely proportional to

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

422.
The loss of head due to sudden enlargement is attributed to
A.
viscosity of fluid
B.
C.
roughness of the pipe
energy
generation of heat
D.
production and dissipation of turbulent

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

423.
The capillary rise in a narrow two-dimensional slit of width 'W' is
A.
helf of that in a capillary tube of diameter 'W' B.
capillary tube of diameter 'W'
two-thirds of that in a
C.
One-third of that in a capillary tube of diameter 'W' D.
in a capillary tube of diameter 'W'
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
One-fourth of that

424. When the rheogram for a fluid at any temperature and pressure is a straight
line passing through origin, the fluid is said to be
A.
Ideal plastic B.
Bingham
C.
Newtonian
Non-Newtonian
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

425.
When the shear stress acting on a fluid is removed
A.
the body retains its new shape and position
original shape and position slowly
B.
the body regains its
C.
the body regains its original shape and position immediately
body regains its original shape but remains in the new position
D.
the

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

426. An imaginary line drawn through a flow field such that the tangent at any
point gives the velocity vector at an instant is known as
A.
path line
B.
streak line
C.
steam line
D.
either of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

427.
For a floating ship to be in equilibrium the metacentre should be
A.
exactly at the centre of gravity B.
close to centre of gravity
C.
below the centre of gravity
above the centre of gravity
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

428.
Submerged weight of a body is
A.
greater than its weight in vacuum
C.
equal to its weight in air D.
B.
greater than its weight in air
less than its weight in air

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

429.
The centre of pressure of a fully submerged body is almost always located
A.
above the centroid B.
at the centroid
C.
closer to the centroid
D.
bolow the centroid
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

430.
The existence of velocity potential in fluid indicates that
A.
the flow is rotational
B.
C.
the vorticity must be non-zero
curve must have a definite value
the vorticity must be zero

D.
the circulation around any closed

Answer: Option B
431. In case the velocity vector at different points along a stream line remains
unchanged then the flow is termed as
A.
Stoke's flow B.
Uniform flow
C.
Rotational flow
D.
Irrotational flow

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

432.
The flow between any two stream lines
A.
is always zero
C.
increases along its path

Answer: Option B
B.
remains the same

D.
decreases along its path
Explanation:

433. Which two forces are most important in laminar flow between closely parallel
plates?
A.
Inertial and viscousB.
Viscous and pressure
C.
Gravity and pressure
D.
Pressure and inertial

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

434.
A body with a rounded nose and along tapering tail is usually best suited for
A.
Laminar flowB.
turbulent subsonic flow
C.
sonic flow
supersonic flow
D.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

435.
Priming is required in
A.
centrifugal pumps B.
gear pumps
C.
reciprocating pumps
D.

Answer: Option A
all of the above
Explanation:

436.
A draft tube converts
A.
pressure energy into kinetic energy
head
B.
velocity head into potential
C.
potential head into pressure head
energy
D.
kinetic energy into mechanical

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

437.
In a mixed flow turbine water enters
A.
axially and leaves radiallyB.
C.
tangentially and leaves radially D.
radially and leaves axially

tangentially and leaves axially

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

438. If 1% error is encountered in the measurement of head over crest of a
rectangular weir, the error in discharge will be nearly
A.
5%
B.
1%
C.
1.50%D.
2%

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

439.
If a weir is constructed for full width of channel, it is known as
A.
suppressed weir
B.
sharp crested weir
C.
submerged weir
D.
sultro weir

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

440. A trapezoidal weir of horizontal crest with side slopes of one horizontal to four
vertical is called
A.
trapezoidal weir
B.
C.
sultro weir
None of the above
D.
cippoletti weir

Answer: Option B
441.
A hydraulic jump is classified on the basis of initial
A.
Weber number
B.
Mach number
C.
Reynolds number
D.
Froude number

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

442.
In open channels, under critical flow conditions, the velocity head is equal to
A.
the depth of flow
C.
half the depth of flow
B.
two-thirds of the depth of flow

D.
one-fourth the depth of flow

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

443.
In an open channel, under critical depth
A.
specific energy is zero
C.
specific energy is maximum
B.
specific energy is minimum

D.
specific energy is least varying

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

444. For a given bed, roughness and discharge when the wetted perimeter is
minimum, the which of the following is also minimum?
A.
velocity
B.
C.
hydraulic radius
discharge
D.
cross-sectional area.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

445. The maximum velocity through a circular channel takes place when the depth
of flow is equal to
A.
0.95 times the diameter B.
0.81 times the diameter
C.
0.50 times the diameter D.
E.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

446.
For a supersonic flow, velocity
A.
increases with decrease in area of flow B.
of flow
C.
increases with increase in area
does not change with variation in area of flow

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
D.
None of the above
447. The angle of contact (0) between water and glass tube in case of capillary
rise is equal to
A.
0?
B.
10?
C.
90?
D.
128?
E.
157?

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

448. What flow rate in m3/s, is needed using a 20 : 1 scale model of a dam over
which 4m3/s of water flows?
A.
0.01
B.
C.
0.0057
E.
0.0015
0.0068
D.
0.0022

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

449. It is proposed to model a submarine moving at 10 m/s by taking a 10 : 1 scale
model. What velocity, in m/s, would be needed in the model study?
A.
3.16
B.
10
C.
40
D.
80
E.
100

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

450. The drag force on a 40 : 1 scale model of a ship is measured to be 10 N. What
force, in kN, is expected on the ship?
A.
640
B.
520
C.
320
D.
160
E.
80

Answer: Option A
451. The power output of a 10 : 1 scale model of a hydro turbine is measured to be
20 W. The power output in kW expected from the prototype is
A.
200
B.
150
C.
100
D.
63
E.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

452. The velocity in a 2 cm-diameter pipe is 20 m/s. If the pipe enlarges to 5 cm
diameter velocity, in m/s, will be
A.
B.
6.4
C.
5.2
E.
3.2
D.
4.8

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

453. The angle of contact (0) between mercury and glass tube in case of capillary
depression is
A.
0?
B.
10?
C.
90?
D.
128?
E.
157?

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

454.
The locus of elevations that water will rise in a series of pitot tube is called
A.
the hydraulic grade line
B.
the pressure head
C.
the energy grade line
D.
the velocity head
E.
the head loss

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

455.
In a completely turbulent flow the head loss
A.
increases with the velocity
B.
C.
increases with flow rate
decreases with wall roughness
E.
increases with the velocity squared
D.
increases with diameter

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

456. Four cars, with a mass of 1500 kg each, are loaded on a 6 m wide, 12 m long
small car ferry. How far, in cm, will it sink in the water?
A.
15.2
B.
11.5
C.
10.2
D.
9.6
E.
8.3

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

457.
Bluff body
A.
Surface is smooth so that friction can be neglected B.
with stream lines
Surface coincides
C.
Surface does not coincide with stream lines
stream lines
D.
Surface perpendicular to

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

458.
When a fluid is at rest, the shear stress is
A.
maximum
C.
between zero and maximum
B.
zero
D.
unpredictable

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

459.
The flow of a fluid in a pipe takes place from
A.
higher level to lower level B.
small end to large end
C.
higher pressure to lower pressure
pressure
E.
higher energy to lower energy

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
D.
lower pressure to higher

460. A pressure of 500 kPa applied to 2 m3 if liquid results in a volume change of
0.004 m3. The bulk modulus, in Mpa, is
A.
2.5
B.
25
C.
250
D.
2500
E.
2.5 x 106

Answer: Option C
461.
Water at 20? C will rise, in a clean 1 mm dia. Glass tube, a distance, in cm, of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

462. Water at 20? C flows in a piping system at a low velocity. At what pressure, in
kPa absolute, will cavitation result?
A.
35.6
B.
20.1
C.
10.6
D.
5.67
E.
2.45

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

463.
In MLT units, velocity potential is expressed as
A.
L2T
C.
L2T-1 D.
B.
L2T-2
LT-2

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

464.
The locus of elevations that water will rise in a series of pitot tubes is called
A.
the hydraulic grade line
B.
the pressure head
C.
the energy grade line
D.
the velocity head

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

465.
As the temperature decreases, the viscosity of a gas
A.
increases, increases
B.
decreases, decreases
C.
increases, decreases
D.
decreases, increases

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

466. A 2 cm dia. Pipe transports water at 20 m/s. If it exits out 100 small 2 mm
dia. Holes, the existing velocity, in m/s will be
A.
120
B.
80
C.
40
D.
20
E.
10

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

467. Water flows through a 2 cm dia. Pipe at 20 m/s. It then flows radially outward
between two discs, 2 mm apart. When it reaches a radius of 40 cm its velocity, in
m/s will be
A.
B.
2.5
C.
2.25
D.
1.85
E.
1.25

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

468.
Viscosity will be the most important property in which of the following case:
A.
Travel of a bullet through air
B.
Water jet issuing from a fire hose
C.
Formation of soap bubbles
D.
Flow of castor oil through a pipe.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

469.
Dynamic viscosity : Poise : kinematic viscosity:
A.
A.P.I. B.
N/m2
C.
Stoke D.
Slug

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

470.
Drag force is not a function of
A.
projected area of the body
B.
C.
mass density of the body D.
mass density of the fluid
velocity of the body

Answer: Option C
471.
Stanton diagram is a plot of
A.
friction factor against Reynold number B.
Reynold number
friction factor against log of
C.
log of friction factor against Reynold number D.
against log of Reynold number
log of driction factor

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

472. To determine the reservoir storage capacity for a given uniform demand, one
of the following data is most useful:
A.
Unit hydrograph of the basin
stream at the reservoir site
B.
Stage discharge relation for the
C.
Daily flow-duration curve of the stream at the dam site
of the flow volume for several consecutive years
D.
Mass curve

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

473. A container carrying water is moved in a horizontal direction with an
acceleration of 2.45 m/s2. The angle of inclination of the free water surface to the
horizontal is
A.
14.03?
B.
C.
45?
0?
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
67.8?

474. The head over a 90? V-notch weir increases from 0.15 m to 0.3 m. The ratio
of the new discharge to the original discharge is
A.
1.414 B.
C.
5.657
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

475. A 2m dia., 3 m high, cylindrical water tank is pressurized such that the
pressure at the top is 20 kPa. The force in kN, acting on the bottom is
A.
195
B.
176
C.
155
D.
132
E.
106

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

476. The force, in kN acting on one of the 1.5 m sides of an open cubical water
tank (which is full) is
A.
18.2
B.
16.5
C.
15.3
D.
12.1
E.
10.2

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

477. A rocket exits exhaust gases with p = 0.5 kg m3 out a 50 cm dia nozzle at a
velocity of 1200 m/s. Estimate the thrust, in kN
A.
420
B.
280
C.
140
D.
90
E.
40

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

478. A high speed vehicle, travelling at 50 m/s, dips an 80 cm wide scoop into
water and deflects the water 180. If it dips 5 cm deep what force, in kN, is exerted
on the scoop?
A.
200
B.
120
C.
100
D.
50
E.
25

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

479. The viscosity of a fluid with specific gravity 1.3 is measured to be 0.0034
Ns/m2. Its kinematic viscosity, in m2/s, is
A.
2.6 x 10-6
B.
4.4 x 10-6
C.
5.8 x 10-6
D.
7.2 x 10-6
E.
9.6 x 10-6

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

480. Fresh water 2 m deep flows over the top of 4 m of salt water (S = 1.04). The
pressure at the bottom, in kPa, is
A.
60.4
B.
58.8
C.
55.2
D.
51.3
E.
47.9

481.
What pressure, in kPa, is equivalent to 600 mm of Hg?
A.
100
B.
95.2
C.
80
D.
55.2
E.
51.3

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

482.
The viscosity of a fluid varies with
A.
temperature B.
temperature and pressure
C.
pressure
density
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

483.
A streamline
A.
occurs on all types of flows
the flow
C.
B.
is the line of equal velocity in a flow
is the line along geometrical centre of

D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

484.
Find the odd one out
A.
Pressure
B.
Unit shear stress
C.
Energy
D.
Modulus of elasticity

Answer: Option C
is fixed in space in space flow
Explanation:

485. Which of the following will resist shear and its rate of deformation will be zero
regardless of loading?
A.
Ideal fluid
B.
C.
Ideal plastic D.
Newtonian fluid
Elastic solid

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

486. Water enters a turbine at 900 kPa with negligible velocity. What maximum
speed, in m/s, can it reach before it enters the turbine rotor?
A.
52
B.
47
C.
45
D.
42

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

487.
Two units are homologous when they are geometrically similar and have
A.
Similar stream lines
B.
Same Reynolds number
C.
Same Froudes number
D.
Same efficiency
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

488.
Water hammer in pipes takes place when
A.
fluid is flowing with high velocity
pressure
B.
C.
flowing fluid is gradually brought to rest
brought to rest by closing the valve
fluid is flowing with high

D.
flowing fluid is suddenly

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

489. Model analysis of aeroplanes and projectiles moving at supersonic speed are
based on
A.
Reynold number
B.
Weber number
C.
Froude number
D.
Euler number
E.
Mach number

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
490.
as
If the Froude number in open channel flow is equal to 1.0, the flow is known
A.
Laminar flowB.
Turbulent flow
C.
shooting flow
D.
E.
streaming flow
critical flow

Answer: Option E
491. A pressure rise of 500 kPa is needed across a pump in a pipe transporting 0.2
m2/s of water. If the pump is 85% efficient, the power needed, in kW, would be
A.
118
B.
100
C.
85
D.
65
E.
60

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

492.
The shear stress in a turbulent pipe flow
A.
law
Varis parabolically with radius
B.
Varis according to the 1/7 the power
C.
is zero at the centre and increases as linearly to the wall
wall and increase linearly to the centre
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
D.
is zero at the

493.
The viscosity of a fluid varies with
A.
temperature B.
C.
pressure
temperature, pressure and density
E.
density
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

494.
In an isothermal atmosphere the pressure
A.
is constant with elevation B.
decreases linearly with elevation
C.
decreases exponentially with elevation D.
approaches a constant value
E.
decreases near the surface but
cannot be related to elevation

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

495.
pipe
The pressure gradient (?p/?x) in a developed turbulent flow in a horizontal
A.
is constant
B.
C.
is zeroD.
decreases exponentially
E.
varies directly with the average velocity
varies linearly with axial distance

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

496. The pressure force, in Newtons, on the 15 cm-dia, head light of an automobile
travelling at 25 m/s is
A.
10.4
B.
6.8
C.
5.6
D.
4.8
E.
3.2

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

497. The pressure inside a 4 cm dia hose is 700 kPa. If the water exits through 1 2
cm dia. Nozzle what velocity in m/s can be expected inside the hose?
A.
20.4
B.
16.3
C.
12.4
D.
10.5
E.
9.7

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

498. Water enters a turbine at 900 kPa with negligible velocity. What maximum
speed, in m/s, can it reach before it enters the turbine rotor?
A.
52
B.
47
C.
45
D.
48
E.
28

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

499.
Total drag on a body is the sum of
A.
pressure drag and velocity drag B.
C.
friction drag and pressure drag D.
friction drag
friction drag and velocity drag

pressure drag, velocity drag and

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

500.
Mouthpieces are used to measure
A.
velocity
B.
frictionless
C.
pressure
D.
viscosity
E.
rate of flow
Answer: Option E
501. What pressure, in Mpa, must be maintained in a diving bell, at a depth of
1200 m, to keep out the ocean water (S = 1.03)
A.
1.24
B.
5.16
C.
9.32
D.
12.1
E.
14.3

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

502. Predict the pressure, in kPa, at an elevation of 2000 m, in an isothermal
atmosphere assuming T = 20?C. Assume Patm = 100 kPa
A.
87
B.
82
C.
79
D.
71
E.
63

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

503. A U-tube manometer, attached to an air pipe, measures 20 cm of mercury.
The pressure, in kPa, in the air pipe is
A.
26.7
B.
32.4
C.
38.6
D.
42.5
E.
51.3

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

504. What pressure differential, in pascals, exists at the bottom of a 3 m vertical
wall if the temperature inside is 20?C and outside it is -20?C. Assume equal
pressures at the top
A.
15
B.
12
C.
D.
E.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

505. In Hagen-poiseuille flow of viscous liquid, one of the following pairs of forces
strike a balance:
A.
Inertia and viscous forces B.
Pressure and viscous forces
C.
Gravity and viscous forces
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Inertia and gravity forces

506. Uniform flow in a channel is characterised by which of the following
statements:
A.
Gradient of the total energy is parallel to the channel bed B.
remains constant along the channel
Total energy
C.
Specific energy varies along the length of the channel
line either rises or falls depending on Froude number
Total energy
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

507.
Water turbines may be put in the decreasing order of specific speed as
A.
Propeller turbine, Reaction turbine Impulse turbine B.
Francis turbine, Kaplan turbine
Pelton wheel,
C.
None of the above
Reaction turbine Impulse turbine Propeller turbine
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

508.
A fluid is a substance that
A.
is essentially incompressible
shearing stress
B.
always moves when subjected to a
C.
has a viscosity that always increases with temperature
viscosity that always decreases with temperature
D.
has a
E.
expands until it fills its space

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

509. The parameters with determine the friction factor of turbulent flow in a rough
pipe are
A.
Froude number and relative roughness B.
number
Froude number and Mach
C.
Reynolds number and relative roughness
relative roughness
D.
Mach number and

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

510. A circular plate 1 m in diameter submerged vertically in water such that its
upper edge is 8 m below the free surface of water. The total hydrostatic pressure
force on one side of the plate is
A.
6.7 kNB.
65.4 kN
C.
45.0 kN
D.
77.0 kN

Answer: Option A
511.
The velocity distribution in a turbulent flow in a pipe is often assumed to
A.
vary parabolically B.
centre
be zero at the wall and increase linearly to the
C.
vary according to the 1/7 th power law D.
used
E.
be unpredictable and is thus not
be maximum at the wall and decrease linearly to the centre

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

512. The depth of water in a 3 m wide rectangular, finished concrete channel is
2m. If the slope is 0.001, estimate the flow rate, in m3/s
A.
14
B.
13
C.
12
D.
11
E.
10

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

513.
A surge wave is an example of
A.
steady uniform flow
B.
steady non-uniform flow
C.
unsteady uniform flow
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

514.
Pressure drag results from
A.
Skin friction B.
Deformation drag
C.
development
D.
Occurrence of a wake

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

515.
Meter associated with viscosity
A.
Saybolt
B.
Orsat
C.
Redwood
D.
Engler

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

516.
The head loss in a pipe flow can be calculated using
A.
the Bernoulli equation
C.
the Chezy Manning equation
E.
The darcy Weisbach equation

Answer: Option E
B.
Darcy's law
D.
the Momentum equation
Explanation:

517.
In a turbulent flow in a pipe we know the
A.
Reynolds number is greater than 10,000
straight lines
B.
Fluid particles move in
C.
Head loss varies linearly with the flow rate
linearly with radius
D.
Shear stress varies
E.
Viscous stresses dominate

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

518.
Reynold's no. may be defined as the ratio of
A.
Viscous forces to inertial forces B.
Elastic forces to pressure forces
C.
Viscous forces to gravity forces D.
Gravity forces to thertial forces
E.
None

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

519.
Eulers dimensionless number relates the following
A.
Inertial force and gravity B.
Viscous force and inertial
C.
Pressure force and inertial force D.
Pressure force and viscous force

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

520. As the pump speed increases, its NPSH (net positive section head)
requirement
A.
Increases
B.
Decreases
C.
Remains unaffected
E.
None
D.
May increase or decrease

Answer: Option A
521.
The condition for the stable equilibrium of a floating body is
A.
The metercentre should lie above he e.g
and the c.g must lie on the same vertical line
C.
All of the above
D.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

522.
For hypersonic flow, the Mach no, is
A.
Unity B.
Greater than unity
B.
The centre of buoyancy
C.
Creater than two
E.
Greater than ten
D.
Greater than four

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

523.
Newton's law of viscosity states that shear stress is directly proportional to
A.
Velocity gradient
B.
C.
Shear strain D.
viscosity
Velocity

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

524.
Model analysis of free surface flows are based on
A.
Reynold's no B.
Froude no.
C.
Mach no.
Euler no.
D.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
525.
If the specific speed of turbine is more than 300, the type of turbine is
A.
Pelton B.
Kaplan
C.
Francis
D.
Pelton with nose jets

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

526.
For a laminar flow through a pipe the shear stress over a cross-section
A.
Varies inversely as the distance from the centre of the pipe
directly as the distance from the surface of pipe
B.
C.
Varies directly as the distance from the centre of the pipe D.
canstant over the cross-section
Remains

Answer: Option C
2. THERMODYNAMIS
1.
The unit of energy is the same as the unit of
A.
power B.
work
C.
entropy
D.
pressure

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

2.
The unit of power is
Varies
A.
W only
B.
C.
J/s and W both
J/s only
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

3.
One kWh is equal to
A.
3.6 x 108 J
B.
3.6 x 106 J
C.
3.6 x 107 J
D.
3.6 x 105 J

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

4.
The unit of energy is
A.
J/s
B.
C.
D.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
5.
Pascal is the unit of pressure and one pascal is equal to
A.
1 N/m2
B.
105 N/m2
C.
133.32 N/m2D.
104 N/m2

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

6.
Torr is equal to the pressure of
A.
0.1 mm of Hg at 0?C in a standard gravitational field
at 0?C in a standard gravitational field
B.
1 mm of Hg
C.
0.01 mm of Hg at 0?C in a standard gravitational field
Hg at 0?C in a standard gravitational field
D.
0.001 mm of

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

7.
Which of the following is / are thermometric property (ies)?
A.
Pressure of a gas kept at constant-volume
constant-pressure
C.
Thermal emf of a thermocouple D.

Answer: Option D
B.
Volume of a gas kept at
All of the above
Explanation:

8.
First law of thermodynamics is based on the
A.
law of conservation of mass
B.
law of conservation of energy
C.
law of equipartion of energy
D.
law of conservation of momentum

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

9.
For a closed system the correct mathematical expression for the first law of
thermodynamics is
A.
dU = ?dQ + dW
B.
dU = dQ + dW
C.
dU = dQ-dW D.
dU = Q + W

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

10.
The mathematical expression for the first law of thermodynamics for a
steady-state flow processes is
A.
? H = Q + Ws
B.
C.
?U = Q-Ws
?U = Q + Ws
D.
?H = Q-Ws
Answer: Option B
11.
A control volume refers to
A.
fixed region is space
B.
C.
a closed system
an isolated system
D.
a difinite mass

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

12.
A system in which there may exchange energy but not mass is known as
A.
open system B.
closed system
C.
isolated system
D.
insulated system

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

13.
An open system implies
A.
the use of a control volume
surroundings
B.
no interchange between system and
C.
the presence of free surface
considered
D.
that a definite mass of material is

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

14.
A system is called open system if
A.
only the energy crosses the system boundaryB.
cross the system boundary
both energy and mass
C.
neither energy nor mass crosses the system boundary
mass crosses the system boundary
D.
only the

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

15.
A system is said to be an isolated system if
A.
only the mass crosses the system boundary B.
the system boundary
only the energy crosses
C.
both energy and mass crosses the system boundary
energy nor mass crosses the system boundary
D.
neither

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

16.
Which of the following is an example of a closed system
A.
Scooter engine
C.
Boiler in steam power plant
B.
Liquid cooling system of an automobile

D.
Air compressor

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

17.
You turn off the water flowing into the tube and open the drain. This is an
example of
A.
an open steady-state system
C.
a closed system
D.
B.
an open unsteady-state system
none of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

18.
Select the wrong statement
A.
Both heat and work cross the boundary of the system
and work are path functions
B.
Both heat
C.
Both heat and work are property of the system
D.
Heat flows when
the system and surroundings are not in equilibrium which is not necessary for work
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
19.
In a reversible shaft work process
A.
the temperature forces are balanced
balanced
B.
the pressure forces are
C.
D.
all the forces are balanced
the mechanical forces are balanced

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

20.
Intensive properties are the properties whose magnitude
A.
depends on the quantity of material involved B.
quantity of material involved
C.
depends on the path followed
D.
none of the above

Answer: Option B
21.
Which of the following is an intensive property
A.
Internal energy
B.
C.
Density
Volume
D.
Enthalpy

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

22.
Which of the following is an extensive property?
A.
Temperature B.
Pressure
does not depend on the
C.
Specific volume
D.
Volume

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

23.
Select the correct statement
A.
Both molecular weight and total weight of a gas are intensive properties
B.
Both molecular weight and total weight of a gas are extensive
properties
C.
Total weight of a gas is an extensive property molecular weight is an
intensive property D.
Total weight of a gas is an intensive property molecular
weight is an extensive property
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

24.
Which of the following is a state function
A.
Temperature B.
Pressure
C.
Specific volume
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Work

25.
The internal energy of a substance
A.
decreases with increase in temperature
temperature
B.
C.
ramains unaffected with change in temperature
by the relation E = mc2
increases with increase in

D.
can be calculated

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

26.
The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on
A.
its pressure only
C.
its temperature only
B.
its volume only

D.
the size of its molecules only

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

27.
The enthalpy (H) of any system is defined by the mathematical expression
A.
H = U-PV
B.
H = U + PV
C.
H = V + PU D.
H = U + RT

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

28.
The enthalpy of an ideal gas
A.
depends on its temperature only
B.
depends on its pressure only
C.
may decrease while the internal energy increases
volume only
D.
depends on its

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

29.
A system receives 13.5 J of heat and at the same time work is transferred to
the surroundings. Which of the following amount is possible ?
A.
13.5 J B.
20.0 J
C.
1J
14.5 J
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

30.
In a certain process the heat flow into a system is 25 Btu. What is the change
in internal energy if the work done by the system in the process is 55 Btu ?
A.
30 Btu
B.
80 Btu
C.
30 Btu
D.
80 Btu

Answer: Option C
31.
The minimum number of degrees of freedom for any system is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

32.
The number of degrees of freedom at the triple point of water is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

33.
For liquid water in equilibrium with a mixture of water vapour and nitrogen
the number of degrees of freedom is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

34.
For a three phase system is equilibrium made up of three non-reacting
chemical species the number of degrees of freedom is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

35.
Which of the following statements violates the postulates of the kinetic
theory of gases?
A.
Gases consist of a large number of tiny particles
are in a state of rapid motion
B.
All the molecules
C.
The molecules in a gas remain at rest D.
The pressure exerted by the gas
results from the impact of the molecules on the walls of the containing vessel
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

36.
The number of molecules present in 1 g mol of a gas is known as
A.
atomic number
C.
Avogadro number D.
B.
vapour density
none of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

37.
The translational kinetic energy of molecules of an ideal gas is
A.
directly proportional to its absolute temperature
proportional to square root of its absolute temperature
B.
directly
C.
directly proportional to square of its absolute temperature D.
of its temperature
independent

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

38.
When the temperature of an idealgas is increased from 27?C to 927?C the
kinetic energy will be
A.
same B.
twice
C.
eight times D.
four times

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
39.
Air is
A.
a gas B.
C.
a mixture of gases and vapour
a mixture of gases
D.
a mixture of vapours

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

40.
Imperfect gases are those
A.
which contain impurities B.
which do not obey Charles and Boyles law
C.
whose molecules are not spherical
regarded as point masses
D.
whose molecules cannot be

Answer: Option B
41.
For an ideal gas Charles law deals with the relationship between
A.
pressure and volume at constant temperature
temperature at constant volume
B.
pressure and
C.
volume and temperature at constant pressure
at constant temperature
D.
mass and volume

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

42.
Boyles law for an ideal gas deals with the relationship between
A.
mass and volume at constant temperature
constant temperature
B.
C.
volume and temperature at constant pressure
temperature at constant volume
pressure and volume at

D.
pressure and

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

43.
A gas is termed an ideal gas if it obeys the gas equation PV = RT. When do
you expect a gas to show deviation from ideality?
A.
At high poressures and low temperatures
temperatures
B.
At low poressures and low
C.
At high poressures and high temperatures
high temperatures
D.
At low poressures and

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

44.
Under which of the following conditions is the law PV = RT obeyed most
closely by a real gas?
A.
High pressure and high temperature
temperature
B.
Low pressure and low
C.
High pressure and low temperature
temperature
D.
Low pressure and high
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

45.
For an ideal gas x in the equation PV = xT is a constant which depands upon
A.
the number of molecules present only B.
C.
both (a) and (b)
D.
the type of gas only
neighter (a) nor (b)

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

46.
Which of the following nethods will enable the volume of an ideal gas to be
made four times greater? Use absolute temperature
A.
Double the temperature double the pressure B.
double the pressure
Halve the temperature
C.
Quarter the pressure at constant temperature
temperature at constant pressure
D.
Quarter the

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

47.
To double the volume of a given mass of an ideal gas at 27?C keeping the
pressure constant one must raise the temperature to
A.
54?C B.
270?C
C.
327?C D.
600?C

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

48.
Which one of the following plots for a gas at about room temperature will
suggest an absolute zero temperature if extrapolated suitably?
A.
Pressure against 1/volume (temperature constant) B.
volume (temperature constant)
Pressure against
C.
Volume against temperature (pressure constant)
1/pressure (temperature constant)
Volume against
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

49.
The volume of an ideal gas is 100 cm3 at 100?C. If the pressure is held
constant at what temperature will the gas have a volume of 200 cm3?
A.
200?C B.
473?C
C.
746?C D.
50?C

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

50.
Specific volume of a gas is
A.
the reciprocal of its density
C.
directly proportional to pressure D.
B.
equal to its density

the volume of gas at S.T.P.

Answer: Option A
51.
At absolute zero temperature
A.
mass of the gas is zero
C.
pressure of the gas is zero
B.
volume of the gas is zero

D.
all a b and c

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

52.
If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4
per cent when heated through 1?C. its initial temperature must be
A.
250 K B.
250?C
C.
2500 K
D.
25?C

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

53.
Which one of the following gases is nearest to an ideal gas
A.
Helium
B.
Hydrogen
C.
Oxygen
D.
Nitrogen

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

54.
A vessel has two compartments A and B containing H2 and O2 respectively
both at one atmospheric pressure. If the wall separating the two compartments is
removed
A.
the pressure will remain unchanged
C.
the pressure will increase in B
and B
D.
B.
the pressure will increase in A
the pressure will increase both in A

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

55.
The compressibility factor (Z) of a gas is defined as
A.
the ration of the actual volume of the gas to the volume predicted by idealgas law
B.
the ratio of the volume predicted by ideal-gas law to the actual
volume of the gas
C.
the difference between the actual volume of the gas and the volume
predicted by ideal-gas law
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

56.
The compressibility factor (Z) of an ideal gas is always
A.
B.
C.
>1
D.
<1

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

57.
The compressibility factor of any gas
A.
is always less than 1
B.
C.
is always greater than 1 D.
depending on the nature of the gas
is always equal to 1
may be less than equal to or greater than 1

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

58.
For values of compressibility factor (Z) less than 1 the volume of a real gas
A.
is always greater than the volume predicted by ideal-gas law
always less than the volume presicated by ideal-gas law
B.
is
C.
is always equal to the volume predicted by ideal gas law D.
may be less
than equal to or greater than the volume predicted by ideal-gas law depending on
the nature of the gas

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

59.
Generalized compressibility factor chart is a plot of
A.
compressibility factor versus reduced temperature with reduced pressure as
parameter B.
compressibility factor versus reduced pressure with reduced
temperature as parameter
C.
compressibility factor versus pressure with absolute temperature as
parameter D.
compressibility factor versus absolute temperature with pressure
as parameter
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

60.
All gases have approximately the same compressibility factor at the same
A.
pressure
C.
B.
critical temperature and critical
reduced temperature and reduced pressure

Answer: Option C
61.
A substance above its critical temperature exists as
A.
solid B.
liquid
C.
gas
saturated vapours
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

62.
The temperature above which a substance can exists only in its gaseous
state and cannot be liquefied regardless of the magnitude of pressure exerted on it
is called
A.
boiling point B.
saturation temperature
C.
critical temperature
D.
inversion temperature

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

63.
A gas can be liquefied by pressure alone only when its temperature is
A.
higher than its critical temperature
critical temperature
B.
equal to or higher than its
C.
less than or equal to its critical temperature D.
temperature
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
less than its critical
64.
The triple point of water occurs at 0.00602 atm and
A.
0.01 ?C
B.
C.
100?C D.
4?C
444.6?C

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

65.
The critical volume (Vc) for all for all gases obeying van der Walls equation of
state is equal to
A.
B.
2b
C.
3b
D.
4b

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

66.
At the critical point of a substance
A.
there is no distinction between liquid and vapour phases
of the liquid and vapour become equal
C.
the surface tension vanishes

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
D.
B.
all of these asnwers
the densities

67.
The SI unit of Cp is
A.
J/kg.K B.
J/kg
C.
W/kg.K
D.
J/m3.K

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

68.
Equation CP-Cv = R is
A.
true for an ideal gas only B.
C.
true for ideal as well as real gases
true for any real gas

D.
not true for any gas

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

69.
The specific heat of saturated water vapour at 100?C is
A.
zero
C.
negative
B.
positive
D.

Answer: Option C
infinity
Explanation:

70.
at
The two specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume are equal
A.
0?C
B.
0K
C.
0?F
D.
0?R

Answer: Option B
71.
Which of the following statements is correct
A.
Cp can never be less than Cv
B.
Cp is always equal to Cv
C.
Cp may be less than Cv depending on the gas
or less than Cv
D.
Cp may be equal to

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

72.
At the critical temperature and pressure the specific heat of a gas at
constant-pressure (Cp)
A.
reaches a value of zero
C.
is equal to 0.24 keal/(kmol.K)

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
B.
reaches a value of infinity

D.
is equal to 1 keal/(kmol.K)

73.
At low pressure the molal heat capacity of an ideal monoatomic gas at
constant-volume is equal to
A.
3 J / (kmol.K) B.
3 kcal / (kmol.K)
C.
0.24 kcal/(kmol.K) D.
1 kcal/(kmol.K)

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

74.
At low pressure the molal heat capacity at constant-pressure (Cp) of an ideal
monoatmic gas is equal to
A.
2.24 kcal kcal/(kmol.K)
B.
C.
5 kcal/(kmol.K)
3 kcal/(kmol.K)
D.
5J/(kmol.K)

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

75.
For all gases other than monoatomic gases the molal heat capacity at
constant-volume is
A.
greater than 3 kcal/(kmol.K)
C.
equal to 3 kcal/(kmol.K)
depending on the gas
D.
B.
less than 3 kcal/(kmol.K)
less than or equal to 3 kcal/(kmol.K)
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

76.
(Cp)
Above atmospheric pressure the specific heat of a gas at constant pressure
A.
increases with increase in pressure
pressure
B.
decreases with increase in
C.
remains unaffected with change in pressure D.
decreases with increase in pressure
increases first and then

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

77.
For an ideal gas Cp = 0.445 kcal/(kg.K) and ? = 1.33 the gas constant in kcal/
(kg.K) is
A.
0.147 B.
0.592
C.
0.885 D.
0.11

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
78.
For an ideal gas Cv = 0.157 kcal/(kg.K) and R = 260 m-N/(kg.K) the specific
heats ratio (?) is
A.
1.333 B.
1.396
C.
2.532 D.
1.653

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

79.
For an ideal monoatomic gas the specific heats ratio is
A.
1.4
B.
1.67
C.
1.33
D.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

80.
What is the difference in two specific heats Cp and Cv of one gram of
helium ? The molecular weight of helium is 4. Assume that helium behaves as an
ideal gas.
A.
2 kcal/(kg.K) B.
8 kcal/(kg.K)
C.
1 kcal/(kg.K) D.
0.5 kcal/(kg.K)

Answer: Option D
81.
Which of the following has miximum specific heats ratio
A.
Argon B.
Carbon dioxide
C.
Oxygen
D.
Hydrogen

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

82.
Which of the following has minimum specific heats ratio
A.
Hydrogen
C.
Mercury vapour
B.
Nitrogen
D.
Sulphur dioxide

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

83.
Specific heat of a gas for a reversible adiabatic process
A.
is zeroB.
is infinity
C.
is negative
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
varies between zero and infinity

84.
For a real gas obeying van der Waals equation CP-CV is
A.
B.
<R
C.
>R
D.
zero

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

85.
The heat capacities for the ideal-gas state are
A.
functions of temperature only
B.
functions of pressure only
C.
functions of temperature as well as pressure D.
temperature as well as pressure
independent of

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

86.
For substances which are incompressible CP and CV are related as
A.
Cp = Cv
C.
Cp << Cv
B.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Cp >> Cv

87.
Specific heat of acqueous solutions in general
A.
increases with increasing concentration
concentration
C.
B.
decreases with increasing
remains unaffected with change in concentration of solute

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

88.
In absence of experimental values Kopps rule may be used to calculate the
heat capacity of
A.
gases only
B.
liquids only
C.
solids only
D.
gases liquids and solids

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

89.
According to the law of Petit and Dulong the atmoic heat capacities of the
crystalline solid elements are nearly constant and equal to
A.
3.2 cal/g atom
B.
6.2 cal/g atom
C.
5.2 cal/g atom
D.
1.4 cal/g atom
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

90.
The atomic heat capacities of all solid elements
A.
decreases greatly with decrease in temperature
with decrease in temperature
B.
increases greatly
C.
remains unaffected with change in temperature
of infinity at absolute zero temperature
D.
approaches a value

Answer: Option A
91.
The amount of heat evolved or absorbed when one mole of any compound is
formed from its elements is called
A.
heat of transition
B.
heat of combustion
C.
heat of formation
D.
heat of hydration

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

92.
The ?H is constant in a chemical change and independent upon the path and
time taken. This is known as
A.
Hess law of constant heat summation B.
C.
Vant Hoffs law

Answer: Option A
D.
Gibbs law
Lavoisier and Laplace law
Explanation:

93.
Lenzs law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
A.
mass B.
C.
linear momentum D.
energy
angular momentum

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

94.
A reversible process requires that
A.
there be no viscous or friction in the system B.
system to surroundings only
heat transfer occurs from
C.
pressure of the system and surroundings be equal
system and surroundings be equal
D.
temperature of the

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

95.
For reversible isobaric process the exponent n in the relation PVn = constant
has the value of where ? = ratio of specific heats
A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

96.
For a reversible isothermal process the exponent n in the relation PVn =
constant has the value of where ? = ratio of specific heats
A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

97.
For an isentropic process the exponent n in the relation PVn = constant has
the value of where ? = ratio of specific heats
A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
98.
The relation PVY = constant holds only for those processes which are
A.
isentropic
C.
reversible polytropic
B.
irreversible adiabatic
D.
all of these asnwers

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

99.
An isentropic flow is one which is
A.
adiabatic and reversible
C.
isothermal and reversible D.
B.
adiabatic and irreversible

isothermal and irreversible

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

100.
In reversible adiabatic processes
A.
pressure remains constant
C.
temperature remains constant
surroundings does not occur.
B.
enthalpy remains constant
D.
heat transfer between system and its

Answer: Option D
3. TURBO MACHINES
1.
Which of the following preferred for supercharging of internal combustion
engines?
A.
Roots blowerB.
Axial flow compressor
C.
Sliding vane type compressor
D.
Reciprocating compressor

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

2.
In an axial flow compressor, the pressure rise occurs in
A.
fixed blades only
C.
Both fixed and moving blades
B.
Moving blades only

D.
none of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

3.
An axial flow compressor has
A.
larger blades at gas entry and smaller blades at exit
blades at gas entry and larger blades at exit
C.
identical dlades at exit as well as entry D.
only angles changes
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
B.
smaller
size of blades remains same

4.
An axial flow compressor is suitable for
A.
high volume flow rates with a small pressure rise
rates with high pressure rise
B.
high volume flow
C.
low volume flow rates with low pressure rise D.
with high pressure rise
low volume flow rates

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

5.
In a gas turbine cycle regenerator is used to
A.
heat the gases coming out of combustion chamber B.
to combustion chamber
C.
heat air supplied to combustion chamber
released from low pressure turbine
D.
heat fuel supplied
heat exhaust gases

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

6.
A regenerator can be used on
A.
open cycle gas turbines only
C.
both open as well as closed cycle gas turbines

Answer: Option C
B.
closed cycle gas turbines only

D.
none of the above
Explanation:

7.
Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle can be improved by
A.
reheating between expansion stage
compression stges
C.
regeneration D.
B.
intercooling between
any of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

8.
Gas turbine used in aircraft is of
A.
open cycle type
C.
closed cycle type with reheating and regeneration and intercooling

open cycle type with reheating, regeneration and intercooling
B.
closed cycle type with reheating

D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

9.
A diffuser is used to
A.
increase velocity and decrease pressure
as pressure
B.
increase velocity as well
C.
decrease velocity and increase pressure
as pressure
D.
decrease velocity as well

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

10.
In which of the following heat exchanger, heat is extracted from air?
A.
Regenerator B.
Reheater
C.
Intercooler
All of the above
D.

Answer: Option C
11.
Which component of a gas turbine consumes maximum power?
A.
Starter
C.
Compressor D.
B.
Regenerator
Combustion chamber

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

12.
In which of the following plant inferior quality fuel can be used?
A.
Open cycle gas turbine with regeneration
with intercooling
B.
Open cycle gas turbine
C.
Open cycle gas turbine with reheating and regeneration
gas turbine
D.
Closed cycle

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

13.
In a reheating gas turbine cycle, reheating is done
A.
by gases from turbine exhaust
C.
in separate combustion chamber
B.
by gases from intercooler

D.
any of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

14.
In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste heat boiler is used to
A.
heat air from intercooler B.
C.
recover heat form exhaust gases
gases from regenerator

D.
none of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

15.
A control volume has an inlet area of 0.1 m2 and exit area of 0.05 m2. The
density is 3.89 kg/m2 and constant. If the inlet velocity is 30 m/s, the force on the
control volume will be
A.
50 N B.
150 N
C.
250 N D.
350 N

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

16.
Under standard atmospheric condition, the velocity of air is
A.
236 m/s
B.
336 m/s
C.
436 m/s
D.
536 m/s

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

17.
The ratio of actual velocity to the local velocity of sound is called
A.
Velicity ratio B.
Velocity factor
C.
Speed ratio D.
Mach number

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
18.
In a nozzle, once the critical conditions are achieved at the throat, than which
of the following remains constant:
A.
Density of fluid
B.
C.
Flow rate
All of the above
D.
Velocity of fluid

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

19.
In a nozzle under choked flow conditions pressure waves travel, in the
divergent portion, at
A.
subsonic speed
B.
sonic speed
C.
supersonic speed
D.
subsonic to supersonic speed

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

20.
In a nozzle if back pressure is equal to inlet pressure
A.
no flow occurs
B.
maximum flow occurs
C.
flow is subsonic in diverging section
as well as supersonic sections
D.
flow is supersonic in converging

Answer: Option A
21.
The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is
A.
subsonic
B.
sonic
C.
supersonic
D.
supersonic on one side and subsonic on the other side

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

22.
The diverging portion of the nozzle acts as a diffuser for
A.
the subsonic flow
C.
both the subsonic as well as supersonic flow D.
B.
the supersonic flow

none of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

23.
A diffuser
A.
converts kinetic energy into thermal energy B.
into kinetic energy
converts potential energy
C.
converts pressure energy into kinetic energy D.
into kinetic energy
converts thermal energy

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

24.
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same
compression ratio and work output because
A.
Otto cycle is more efficient
B.
Brayton cycle is less efficient
C.
Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only D.
Large volume of low
pressure gas cannot be efficiently handled in reciprocating engines
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

25.
Actual gas turbine cycle is different from ideal cycle because
A.
of internal irreversibility of the process due to friction, turbulence, etc. B.

of variation of specific heats with temperature
C.
of losses due to incomplete combustion
D.
all of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

26.
The advantage of a gas turbine over a reciprocating engine is
A.
perfect balancing of rotor B.
C.
usually small working pressures D.

Answer: Option D
continuous and uniform power

all of the above
Explanation:

27.
Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is
A.
equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
C.
less than Diesel cycle efficiency D.
efficiency
B.
equal to Carnot cycle efficiency
more than Otto or Diesel cycle

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

28.
Air fuel ratio for a gas turbine is closer to
A.
10 ; 1 B.
15 ; 1
C.
20 ; 1 D.
60 ; 1

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

29.
Which of the following is a positive displacement rotory compressor?
A.
Roots blowerB.
C.
Centrifugal compressor
D.
All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

30.
All of the following are positive displacement compressors EXCEPT :
A.
Screw compressor B.
C.
Roots blowerD.
Vane blower

Answer: Option B
31.
For efficient operation of axial flow compressors the blades are made
A.
straight
C.
aerofoil section
B.
slightly curved
D.
forward curved

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

32.
Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine is in the range
A.
50 to 60 percent
B.
40 to 50 percent
C.
30 to 40 percent
D.
20 to 30 percent

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

33.
The efficiency of a simple open cycle gas turbine depends upon
A.
pressure ratio
C.
turbine inlet temperature D.
B.
compressor efficiency
All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

34.
Which of the following steam turbine has identical fixed and moving blades?
A.
Curtis turbine
B.
Rateau turbine
C.
Parson's turbine
D.
none of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

35.
Which of the following is a pressure compounded turbine?
A.
Parson's turbine
B.
Curtis turbine
C.
Rateau turbine
D.
All of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

36.
The continuity equation in compressible fluids is derived on the basis of
A.
conservation of momentum
B.
C.
conservation of mass
conservation of velocity head
D.
conservation of energy

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

37.
As there is plenty of time for heat transfer across the walls, the flow in long
pipes at low velocities attains
A.
isentropic conditions
B.
adiabatic conditions
C.
isothermal conditions
D.
polytropic conditions

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

38.
In a hot wire anemometer the rate of heat loss from sensing element is a
function of
A.
pressure
B.
C.
velocity of flow
mass rate of flow

D.
none of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

39.
The normal shock wave in compressible flow is analogous to
A.
surges in open channel
C.
hydraulic bore in tidal rivers
B.
vortex formation in centrifugal pump

D.
hydraulic jump in channel flow

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

40.
A roots blower compresses 0.06 cubic metres of air from 1.0 bar to 1.45 bar
per revolution. The compressor efficiency is nearly
A.
99%
B.
87%
C.
75%
D.
63%

Answer: Option B
41.
Normal standard of compression for rotary compressor is
A.
adiabatic compression
B.
polytropic compression
C.
isentropic compression
D.
constant pressure compression

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

42.
Though there are no cyclic variations even then rotary compressors need
precise balancing because
A.
It is bulky in size
B.
cooling arrangement does not exist
C.
operating speeds are too high
D.
it is driven by an electric motor

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

43.
In air compressor performance curve a surge line represents
A.
limits of compressor discharge
B.
C.
limit of stable operation
lower critical speed of shaft
D.
limit of compressor efficiency

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

44.
Curtis turbine is
A.
in impulse turbine B.
a velocity compounded turbine
C.
a pressure compounded turbine D.
turbine
Answer: Option D
a velocity pressure compounded
Explanation:

45.
The source of power for driving a turbocharger is
A.
kinetic energy of exhaust gases from the engine
exhaust gases
C.
air motor
D.
B.
chemical energy of
electric motor

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

46.
to
Maximum delivery pressure in case of rotary compressors is usually restricted
A.
2 atmospheres
B.
5 atmospheres
C.
10 atmospheres
D.
20 atmospheres

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

47.
Which of the following is a displacement compressors?
A.
Reciprocating air compressor
C.
Centrifugal blower D.
B.
Vane blower
Axial flow compressors

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

48.
Which type of rotary compressor is used in oil fired furnaces?
A.
Sliding vane type blower B.
Screw compressor
C.
Centrifugal blower
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

49.
In rotary compressors, slip factor is the ratio of
A.
stagnation pressure to static pressure B.
work
isentropic work done to actual
C.
D.
outlet whirl velocity to the blade velocity
none of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

50.
In rotory compressors, the ratio of isentropic work to Eulers work is known as
A.
slip factor
B.
work factor
C.
pressure coefficient
D.
degree of reaction

Answer: Option C
51.
Stalling of the blades of axial flow compressor is
A.
an unsteady periodic and reversal of flow
regardless of pressure ratio
B.
the fixed mass flow rate
C.
the reduction in lift force at higher angle of incidence
above
D.
none of the

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

52.
Surging is
A.
an unsteady, periodic and reversal of flow in the compressor
fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
B.
the
C.
the reduction in lift force at higher angles of incidence
above
D.
none of the
A.
Variation of mass flow rate in proportion to pressure ratio B.
mass flow rate in inverse proportion to pressure ratio
variation of

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

53.
Choking is
C.
fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
D.
none of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

54.
Gas turbines are taken to
A.
the gasoline and diesel engines in its working medium
and diesel engines in its internal combustion
C.
B.
the petrol
the steam turbine in its aspect of steady flow of the working medium
All of the above
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

55.
Which gas turbine has lest weight per bhp developed?
A.
Simple open cycle gas turbine
intercooling and reheating
C.
B.
Open cycle gas turbine with
Open cycle gas turbine with intercooling, reheating and regeneration

Closed cycle gas turbine

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
D.

56.
In gas turbines, intercooling results in
A.
decrease in net output as well as thermal efficiency B.
output and increase in thermal efficiency
decrease in net
C.
increase in net output but decrease in thermal efficiency
net output as well as thermal efficiency
D.
increase in

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

57.
Working medium for closed cycle gas turbine should have
A.
high molecular weight
B.
low specific volume
C.
higher adiabatic index
D.
lower specific speed

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

58.
The advantage of closed cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas turbine is
A.
no contamination of working substance with combustion gases

inferior quality fuel can be used
C.
low maintenance costs

Answer: Option D
D.
All of the above
B.
Explanation:

59.
The range of compression ratio in a gas turbine is
A.
3 to 6 B.
5 to 8
C.
8 to 12
D.
12 to 22

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

60.
A constant volume combustion gas turbine operates on
A.
Ericsson cycle
B.
C.
Joule cycle
Atkinson cycle
D.
Brayton cycle

Answer: Option D
61.
When working substance is released through nozzles, the direction of reaction
will be
A.
clockwise
B.
counter clockwise
C.
either of (A) and (B) above
features
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
D.
direction depends on other design

62.
In a velocity compounded steam turbine, as steam moves along moving and
guide blades
A.
pressure is low and velocity gradually decreases
increases and velocity is low
B.
pressure gradually
C.
both pressure and velocity gradually decrease
velocity gradually increase.
D.
Both pressure and

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

63.
The effect of blade friction in a steam turbine is to
A.
reheat the steam
C.
reduce exhaust pressure D.
B.
increase the specific output

reduce work done

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

64.
If stage efficiency is S, blade efficiency is B and nozzle efficiency in N, then
A.
N = B.S
B.
S = B.N
C.
B = SN
D.
BSN = 1
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

65.
Bleeding in steam turbine refers to
A.
leakage of steam through bearings
packings
B.
leakage of steam through
C.
purposely withdrawn steam for process application D.
withdrawn for feed water heating
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

66.
Critical pressure for steam is
A.
185.85 kg/cm2
B.
212.55 kg/cm2
C.
225.65 kg/cm2
D.
245.55 kg/cm2

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

67.
An ideal fluid for vapour turbine cycle should have
purposely
A.
high critical temperature with low pressure
with high pressure
B.
high critical temperature
C.
low critical temperature with high pressure
with low presure
D.
low critical temperature

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

68.
Which of the following fluid can be used in binary vapour cycle?
A.
Mercury
C.
Aluminium bromide
B.
Diphenyl oxide
D.
any of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

69.
Which of the following loss in steam turbines is negligible?
A.
Residual velocity loss
B.
Leakage loss
C.
Mechanical friction loss
D.
Radiation loss

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

70.
Which of the following is the least efficient method of governing steam
turbines?
A.
Nozzle control governing B.
C.
Bypass governing D.
Throttle governing
Combined throttle and nozzle governing

Answer: Option B
71.
Ljungstrom steam turbine is a
A.
radial flow turbine B.
axial flow turbine
C.
mixed flow turbine D.
any of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

72.
In a modern steam turbine, the steam rte is nearly
A.
1 kg/kWhr
B.
2 kg/kWhr
C.
4 kg/kWhr
D.
8 kg/kWhr

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

73.
Which of the following rotary compressor has two shafts?
A.
B.
Sliding vane compressor
C.
Centrifugal compressor
D.
Lobe type compressor

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

74.
The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal
compressor is called
A.
slip factor
B.
C.
Blade efficiency
Velocity ratio
D.
Diagram efficiency

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

75.
The following property is the most important for material used for gas turbine
blades
A.
Fatigue
B.
Strength against bending
C.
Group D.
Strength against direct force

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
76.
Which of the following is the smallest and lighest for generating a given
amount of power
A.
Steam power plant B.
Petrol engine
C.
Diesel engine
Solar plant
E.
Gas turbine plant
D.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

77.
Generally, steam turbines in power stations operate at
A.
3000 rpm
B.
1500 rpm
C.
1000 rpm
D.
375 rpm
E.
50 rpm

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

78.
For gas turbine, compressors used are
A.
Reciprocating type B.
Centrifugal type
C.
Axial flow type
Lobe type
E.
Sliding vane type

Answer: Option C
D.
Explanation:

79.
De Laval turbine is used for applications requiring
A.
High power, high speed
B.
High power, low speed
C.
Low power, high speed
D.
Low power, low speed
E.
Low speed

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

80.
As a result of blade friction, the outlet relative velocity of impulse turbine
compared to inlet relative velocity is
A.
Nearly same B.
2% less
C.
10% - 15% less
D.
E.
50% less
30% less

Answer: Option C
81.
Maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is of the order of
A.
6 KSC B.
10 KSC
C.
16 KSC
D.
E.
40 KSC

Answer: Option C
25 KSC
Explanation:

82.
Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by
A.
Reheating
C.
Adding a regenerator
E.
None
B.
Intercooling
D.
All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

83.
Most serious energy loss in reaction steam turbine
A.
Steam leakage between diaphragm and shaftB.
through radia clearance passages
Leakage over blade ends
C.
Frictional resistance between steam and nozzle sideD.
steam enters moving blades
E.
Bearing friction

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

84.
Basic closed cycle for gas turbine is
Impact loss as
A.
Carnot cycle B.
Rankine cycle
C.
Brayton cycle
D.
none of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

85.
The work ratio of closed cycle gas turbine plant with fixed top temperature of
the cycle and fixed pressure ratio rp
A.
increases with increase in an inlet temperature to compressor

increases with decrease in an inlet temperature to compresor
C.
remain same irrespective of inlet temperature to compressor
of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

86.
Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by
A.
reheating
C.
regenerator D.
B.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
intercooling
All of the above
B.
D.
none

87.
With increase in pressure ratio, thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine
plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature
A.
increases
B.
decreases
C.
first increases and then decreases
D.
none of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

88.
With ideal regencrative heat exchanger, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine
cycle is
A.
equal to work ratio B.
is less than work ratio
C.
is more than work ratio
D.
none of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

89.
In a two stage gas turbine plant reheating after first stage
A.
increases thermal efficiency
C.
doesoes not affect thermal efficiency

Answer: Option B
B.
decreases thermal efficiency

D.
none of the above
Explanation:

90.
In a two stage gas turbine plant, reheating after first stage
A.
increases work ratio
C.
does not affect work ratio D.
B.
decreases work ratio

none of the above

Answer: Option A
91.
For a jet prepulsion unit, ideally the compressor work and turbine work are
A.
unequal
C.
not related to each other D.
B.
equal
none of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

92.
Greater the difference between jet velocity and aeroplane velocity
A.
greater the propulsive efficiency B.
C.
unaffected is the propulsive efficiency D.

Answer: Option B
4. ENGIEERING MATERIALS
1.
Within elastic limits
Lesser the propulsive efficiency

None of the above
A.
Load is less B.
Load is gradually applied
C.
Load is static
D.
E.
Deformation is permanent
Deformation is proportional to the load

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

2.
A body which is permanently deformed is said to have undergone
A.
Elastic deformation B.
Limit of elastic deformation
C.
Uniform deformation
D.
E.
None of the above
Non-uniform deformation

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

3.
According to Hooke's law
A.
Stress is proportional to strain
B.
Stress/strain is constant
C.
Average stress is proportional to average strain
average stress is proportional to average strain
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
D.
Within elastic limits
Explanation:

4.
A.
All materials undergo plastic deformation
material would not fracture at elastic limit
B.
A completely brittle
C.
Brittleness is an important engineering consideration, because it allows the
materials to redistribute localized stresses
D.
In elastic materials yield stress
and tensile strength are practically identical
E.
A metal which is brittle in tension may be ductile under hydrostatic
compression
Answer: Option E
Explanation:

5.
A body which does not contain voids or empty spaces is known as
A.
Continuous body
C.
Heterogeneous body
E.
None of the above
B.
An isotropic body
D.
Crystalline body

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
6.
The limiting load beyond which the material no longer behaves elastically is
known is
A.
Breaking load
B.
C.
Load bearing capacity
E.
Elastic limit
Limiting load
D.
Plastic limit

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

7.
A.
A metal which is brittle in tension at room temperature can become ductile in
the presence of notches B.
A metal which is brittle in tension t room presence
of embrittlement agents such as hydrogen
C.
A metal which is ductile in tension at room temperature can become brittle in
the presence of notches D.
A metal which is ductile in tension at room
temperature can become brittle under gradual rate of loading
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

8.
The defect responsible for the phenomenon of slip, by which most metals
deform plastically, is known as
A.
Fracture
B.
Twinning
C.
Dislocation
D.
Strain hardening
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

9.
Fatigue failure occurs when a part is subjected to
A.
Tensile stress
B.
C.
Torsion
Fluctuating stress
E.
None of the above
D.
Compressive stress

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

10.
Stress concentration occurs when
A.
A body is subjected to excessive stressB.
unidirectional stress
A body is subjected to
C.
A body is subjected to reversing stress D.
fluctuating stress
A body is subjected to
E.
A body is subjected to non-uniform stress distribution

Answer: Option E
11.
Stress concentration may be caused by
A.
Change in cross-sectional area
B.
Change in shape
C.
Change in dimensions
D.
E.
A home or a notch in the body
Polishing or painting a surface

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

12.
The amount of energy expended by the action of external force in deforming
an elastic body is known as
A.
Elastic energy
B.
C.
Work done
Potential energy
E.
Strain energy
D.
Deformation energy

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

13.
If a body has identical properties all over it is known as
A.
Homogeneous
B.
C.
Ductile
Elastic
E.
Plastic
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Isentropic

14.
Some engineering materials are made up of more than one phase, with
different mechanical properties, such materials are known as
A.
Discontinuous
C.
PlasticD.
E.
None of the above
B.
Brittle
Heterogeneous

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

15.
When the metals are severely deformed in a particular direction, as in rolling
or forging (on a macro scale), the mechanical properties may be
A.
Identical
B.
C.
Anisotropic D.
E.
Non-uniform
Isotropic
Uniform

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

16.
If a material recovers its original dimensions, when the load is removed, it is
known as
A.
Brittle B.
Elastic
C.
PlasticD.
E.
Soft
Annealed

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

17.
Plastic deformation which is carried out in a temperature region and over a
time interval such that the strain hardening is not relieved is known as
A.
Hot work
B.
Cold work
C.
Annealing
D.
Bauschinger effect
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

18.
Most of the energy expended in deforming a metal by cold working is
A.
Utilised in overcoming deformation stresses B.
metal
C.
Converted into heat
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
D.
Utilised in deforming the
Consumed in developing internal stresses
Explanation:

19.
Identify the incorrect statement, if any
A.
A dislocation is the linear lattice defect that is responsible for nearly all
aspects of the plastic deformation of metals B.
The strain field at the
dislocation results in a different intensity
C.
The strain field at the dislocation results in a different intensity D.

Dislocations in real crystals are rarely straight lines and rarely lie in a single
plane
E.
Dislocations in real crystals are generally straight lines which are generally in
same plane
Answer: Option E
Explanation:

20.
A ductile fracture is characterized by
A.
Rapid rate for crack propagation B.
Negligible deformation
C.
Fragmentation into more than two pieces
deformation prior to propagation of crack
E.
D.
Appreciable plastic
None of the above

Answer: Option D
21.
The tendency for brittle fracture increases with
A.
Increasing temperature
B.
Decreasing strain rate
C.
Appreciable plastic deformation before fracture
deformation during propagation of the crack
D.
Appreciable plastic
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

22.
In general, high cohesive forces are related to
A.
Large values of elastic constants
B.
C.
Large coefficients of thermal expansion
constants
E.
Low melting point

D.
Small value of elastic
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

23.
The ability of material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and to
return it when unloaded is called
A.
Hardness
B.
C.
Creep D.
Toughness
E.
Resilience

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Fatigue strength

24.
The ability of a material to absorb energy in the plastic range is known as
A.
Hardness
B.
C.
Creep D.
Toughness
E.
Resilience
Fatigue strength

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

25.
Identify the incorrect statement
A.
The greatest error in Briuell hardness measurements occur in measuring the
diameter of specimen
B.
Harder the material, greater the elastic recovery
after deformation
C.
Owing to elastic recovery, the radius of curvature of the indentation will be
larger than that of the spherical indentor
D.
None of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

26.
A.
Fatigue strength is seriously reduced by the introduction of a stress raiser
such as a notch or hole B.
A fatigue failure is particularly insidous, because it
occurs without any warning
C.
Fatuge results in a brittle fracture with no gross deformation at the fracture

D.
As the roughness of surface increses the fatigue life of speoimen
increases
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

27.
A surface damage which results when two surfaces in contact experience
light periodic relative motion is
A.
Fretting
B.
Pitting
C.
Corrosion
D.
Surface wear
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

28.
The fatigue strength of materials increases
A.
With temperature B.
C.
By having notches in specimen D.
E.
By over stressing the specimen

Answer: Option D
By having scratch on the surface

By under stressing the specimen
Explanation:

29.
Hardness may be defined as resistance to
A.
Local penetration
C.
Wear D.
E.
Any of the above
B.
Machining
Scratching

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

30.
Toughness of a material means
A.
Strength
C.
Stress relieving
E.
Softening
B.
Fatigue resistance
D.
Machinability

Answer: Option A
31.
The process of reheating hardened steel to temperature below the lower
critical temperature followed by any desired rate of cooling, is known as
A.
Hardening
B.
Spheroidizing
C.
Tempering
D.
Annealing
E.
Normalizing

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

32.
The process of production of articles having a soft ductile interior and a very
hard surface, is known as
A.
Hardening
B.
C.
Case hardening
E.
None of the above
Hardening and tempering

D.
Hardening and annealing

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

33.
Hardness of martensite is about
A.
RC 65 B.
RC 48
C.
RC 57 D.
RC 67
E.
RC 89

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

34.
Limestone is added in blast furnace to flux
A.
Silicon xoide B.
Carbon
C.
MnO2 D.
Sulphur
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

35.
The purpose of annealing is to
A.
Induce hardness
C.
Harden the surface D.
E.
Remove stresses
B.
Induce stresses
Produce irregular microstructure

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

36.
Case hardening
A.
Is done to induce hardness in the core of materials B.
tempering
Is followed by
C.
Is preceded by tempering D.
E.
Is done to get a soft ductile interior with a very hard surface

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Is allowed by carburizing

37.
Any process of heating and cooling steel that produces a rounded or globular
from of carbide is known as
A.
Nomalizing B.
Ultra hardening
C.
Drawing
Nitriding
E.
Spheroidizing
D.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

38.
Nitriding is a process for
A.
Annealing
C.
Case hardening
E.
None of the above
B.
Spheroidizing
D.
Normalizing

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

39.
Malleal lity of a material is defined as
A.
Ability to withstand compressive stresses
deformation under shear
B.
Ability to withstand
C.
Ability to undergo large permanent deformation in compression D.
property by which a material can be cold worked
E.
The
None of the above

Answer: Option C
40.
The effect f rolling on steel is
A.
To elongate the inclusions in the direction of rolling giving the steel excellent
properties B.
Reduction in tensile strength
C.
Reduction in fatigue strength
E.
None of the above
D.
Reduction in hardness
Answer: Option A
41.
Cold work is done on the metal
A.
Below the thermal critical range B.
Above the thermal critical range
C.
At zero degree centigrade temperature
metal in furnace
E.
D.
After slightly warning the
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

42.
The process of heating iron base alloys to approzimately 40?C above the
critical temperature range followed by cooling to below that range in still air at
ordinary temperature is known as
A.
Normalizing B.
Annealing
C.
Tempering
Spheroidizing
E.
Hardening
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

43.
Ductility of material may be defined as
A.
Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension

Capacity to withstand reversal of stresses
C.
Ability to undergo temporary deformation in tensionD.
withstand combined tensile and shear forces
E.
B.
Capacity to
Capacity to resist deformation under pressure

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

44.
In Brinell hardness tests if a soft ball is used for indentation
A.
The indentation will not eb circular
correctly measure the depth of indentation
B.
C.
The surface of indentation will be rough
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
It will not be possible to

D.
The ball may deform

45.
In order to measure/detect materials by non-destructive testing the method
generally used is
A.
Acoustic emission B.
Infrared radiometer
C.
Liquid crystallography
D.
E.
Mossbanser effect
Thermochemic point

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

46.
Spring steel sections are originally applied in
A.
Hardened condition
B.
C.
Annealed condition D.
Carburized condition
E.
None of the above
Hardened and tempered condition

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

47.
The main alloy for corrosion resistance in stainless steel is
A.
Carbon
B.
Manganese
C.
Chromium
D.
Cobalt
E.
Vanadium

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

48.
Silicon steel is widely used in
A.
Electrical industry B.
Chemical industry
C.
For making leaf prings
D.
E.
For cutting tools
For nuts and bolts

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

49.
The process by which steel is coated by a thin layer of phosphate is known as
A.
Anodising
C.
Spheroidizing
E.
Sheradising
B.
Parkerising
D.
Phosphorizing

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
50.
Cast iron contains
A.
0.2 to 0.4% carbon B.
0.4% to 0.7% carbon
C.
1 to 1.3% carbon
2 to 4% carbon
E.
None of the above
D.

Answer: Option D
51.
The properties of cast iron are regulated by
A.
The composition of raw material B.
C.
Heat treatment
E.
Control of amount, type, size and distribution of various carbon formations
D.
Heating temperature
Percentage of carbon present

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

52.
The consitituent which has a powerful softening effect on cast iron and its
presence in cast iron reduces the ability of the iron to retain carbon in chemical
combination, is
A.
SiliconB.
Aluminium
C.
Carbon
D.
E.
Chromium

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Sulphur

53.
Tensile strength of common varieties of cast iron is in the range
A.
40 - 50 M Pa B.
50 - 80 M Pa
C.
140 - 500 M Pa
D.
E.
650 - 1000 M Pa
500 - 650 M Pa

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

54.
The elastic limit of cast iron is
A.
Low
C.
Same as that of mild steel
E.
Close to ultimate breaking strength
B.
High
D.
Low compression strength

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

55.
Grey iron
A.
Has low ductility
B.
Breaks with appreciable distortion
C.
Has brittleness
D.
Low compression strength
E.
None of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

56.
In cast irons
A.
Impact strength is high B.
higher than that in compression
With static loading the strength in tension is
C.
With static loading the strength in tension is lower than that in compression
D.
(A) and (B) above
E.
(A) and (C) above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

57.
Cast irons are generally specified by
A.
Carbon percentage B.
C.
Hardness
E.
Tensile strength
D.
Iron percentage
Process of manufacture

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
58.
In carbon steel castings
A.
The percentage of carbon is less than 1.7%
is between 1.7% to 2%
B.
C.
The percentage for alloying elements is controlled
E.
(B) and (C) above
The percentage of carbon

D.
(A) and (C) above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

59.
Steel castings
A.
Are weldableB.
C.
Have poor endurance properties D.
E.
Cannot withstand impact
Are not weldable

Can withstand impact

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

60.
High ratio of surface to mass tend to
A.
Produce smaller depths of hardening
hardening
B.
C.
Produce only chilled surfaces
surface
Produce non-uniformity in hardness on
E.
Produce surface defects
D.
Produce greater depth of

Answer: Option B
61.
Moh's scale of hardness has the range
A.
1--3
C.
5--10 D.
E.
10--15
B.
1--5
1--10

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

62.
Iron alloyed with carbon more than 2% is called
A.
Cast iron
C.
Carbon steel D.
E.
Alloy steel
B.
Mild steel
High carbon steel

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

63.
German silver contains
A.
No silver
B.
0.1% silver
C.
1% silver
D.
5% silver
E.
10% silver

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

64.
Aluminium alloys for pressure die casting
A.
Must possess considerable fluidity
shortness
B.
C.
Must have iron as one of the constituents
E.
None of the above
Must not be free from hot

D.
Must be light

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

65.
Corrosion is a destructive attack on metals
A.
Which may be chemical or electrochemical in nature
basically caused by atmospheric air
C.
Which is caused by contact with other metals D.
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
B.
Which is
At high temperature

66.
The process of producing parts by electrolytic deposition of metal upon a
conductive removable mould or matrix is known as
A.
Deposition
B.
C.
Electrolysis D.
E.
Electro forming
Plating
Electro-moulding

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

67.
Electro-forming is particularly vauable for
A.
Good conductors of electricity
B.
Decorative items
C.
Thin walled parts requiring a high order of accuracy and internal surface
finish D.
Non-ferrous components
E.
Parts which cannot be machined

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

68.
In electro-forming the metal is supplied to the mould from
A.
Solution
B.
By liquids
C.
Electrolytic solution in which bar of pure metal acts as an anode for the
plating current
D.
Separately by coating with a point
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

69.
Metal spinning
A.
Is done at low speeds
C.
Is done on symmetrical articles D.
E.
Utilises point hard tools
B.
Is done on unsymmetrical articles

Does not require dies

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

70.
Which one is different from the others in press work
A.
Embossing
B.
Bulging
C.
Cupping
D.
Tube forming
E.
Notching

Answer: Option E
71.
The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is
A.
0.15
B.
0.5
C.
0.7
E.
1.3
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

72.
The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes
A.
It hard
C.
It malleable D.
E.
Its casting unsound
B.
It brittle
It machinable

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

73.
The technique of converting metallic powders into articles of definite form is
known as
A.
High pressure pressing
B.
C.
Powder metallurgy D.
Plasticizing
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Carbiding

74.
In powder metallurgy the process of heating the cold pressed metal powder is
known as
A.
Sintering
B.
Granulation
C.
Deposition
D.
Precipitation
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

75.
The process of shaping thin metals by pressing it against form while it is
rotating is known as
A.
Pressing
B.
Bending
C.
Trimming
D.
Extruding
E.
Metal spinning

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

76.
Which one is different from the others in press work operations?
A.
Coining
B.
Sizing
C.
Flattening
D.
Riveting
E.
Punching

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

77.
In press work the dies that perform two or more operations simultaneously,
but at different stations are known as
A.
Simple dies B.
Compound dies
C.
Progressive dies
D.
E.
Multi-dies
Die and punch set

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

78.
Which one is different from the remaining
A.
Cynding
C.
Flame hardening
E.
Pack carburizing
B.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Nitriding
D.
Electroplating

79.
Which process is different from the others
A.
Short peening
B.
Sand blasting
C.
Cold extruding
D.
Cold heading
E.
Drop forging

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

80.
as
The process of pulling a rod through series of decreasing diameters is known
A.
Staking
C.
Metal spinning
E.
Wire drawing
B.
Stretch forming
D.
Trimming

Answer: Option E
81.
Dies for drawing are generally made of
A.
Cast iron
C.
High carbon steel
E.
None of the above
B.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Mild steel
D.
Stainless steel

82.
Which one is different from the other in press work?
A.
Blanking
B.
Punching
C.
Perforating
D.
Slitting
E.
Seaming

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

83.
The operation of cutting out flat areas to some desired shape and which is
generally the first step in a series of operations is known as
A.
Coining
B.
Curling
C.
Blanking
D.
Slitting
E.
Lancing

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

84.
In press work the dies which combine two or more operations at one station
are known as
A.
Simple dies B.
Press
C.
Compound dies
D.
E.
Die and punch
Progressive dies

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

85.
When metal is deformed by cold work, severe stresses known as residual
stresses are undesirable and to remove them
A.
The metal should be stressed in reverse direction
be painted
B.
The metal should
C.
The metal should be reheated below recrystallization temperature

The metal should be reheated above recrystallization temperature
E.
None of the above
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

86.
Shot peening
A.
Improves fatigue life of small parts
B.
tension and the layer beneath in compression
Causes metal surface to be in
C.
Changes the crystalline structure of material D.
structure
E.
Is done at recrystallization temperature

Answer: Option A
Refines the grain
Explanation:

87.
In cold working of metals
A.
Close dimensional tolerance cannot be maintained B.
is obtained
Poor surface finish
C.
Recrystallization temperature for steel is reduced
remains unchanged
Grain structure
E.
D.
Strength and hardness of steel is increased

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

88.
The surface hardness that can be obtained by nitriding is generally in the
range
A.
1000 to 1100 VPN B.
600 to 800 VPN
C.
400 to 600 VPN
Below 400 VPN
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

89.
Spot the process which is different from others?
A.
Carburizing B.
Nitriding
C.
Cyaniding
E.
Galvanizing
D.
Chapmanizing

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

90.
Spot the process which is different from others?
A.
Hot rolling
C.
Cold heading
B.
Forging
D.
Drop forging

Answer: Option C
91.
A.
When material is cold worked the resulting change in material shape brings
about marked changes in the grain structure B.
Structural changes in cold
working are grain fragmentation and lattice distortion
C.
Much greater pressures are needed for ot working than for cold working
D.
Hot working performed on the metals is in a plastic state
E.
Residual stresses are set up in cold working

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
92.
The amount of cold work that a metal will stand is dependent upon
A.
Room temperature B.
C.
Process
E.
Ductility
D.
Carbon percentage
Purity of metal

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

93.
The advantage of electroforming is
A.
Extreme dimensional accuracy can be held on surfaces with surface finish of
8 r.m.s. or even less
B.
Laminated metals can be produced
C.
Rate of production is very high D.
E.
(A) and (C) above
(A) and (B) above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

94.
The limitations of electroforming are
A.
Cost is high B.
C.
Recesses can be easily formed D.
E.
(A) and (C) above

Answer: Option D
Production rate is generally very low

(A) and (B) above
Explanation:

95.
The process of zinc coating used extensively for protecting steel from
atmospheric deterioration is known as
A.
Anodizing
B.
Colourizing
C.
Pakerizing
D.
Galvanizing
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

96.
Process of making a thin phosphate coating on steel to act as a base or
primer for enamels and paints in known as
A.
Prepainting B.
Surface preparing
C.
Parkerizing
Anodising
E.
Colourizing
D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

97.
Galvanizing is generally done on
A.
Low carbon steels B.
Cast iron
C.
Non-ferrous metals D.
Non-metallic substances
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

98.
In high speed steel the maximum percentage of any alloying element is
A.
Carbon
B.
Tungsten
C.
Chromium
D.
Vanadium
E.
Molybdenum

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

99.
In inverse rate curve
A.
The abscissa is carbon percentage
C.
The abscissa is time
E.
The ordainate is temperature

Answer: Option E
D.
B.
The abscissa is temperature
The ordinate is time
Explanation:

100.
The critical points for steels
A.
Occur at same temperature for all steels
composition of steel
B.
C.
May change in number on heating or cooling D.
properties
Change the chemical

Cause change in physical
E.
Indicate the minimum temperature below which structural changes in steel
are not possible
Answer: Option D
101.
Steel cannot be hardened unless it is heated
A.
Above the lowest critical point
B.
C.
Above the highest critical point D.
point
E.
Above the middle critical point

Between the first and second critical
Between the second and third critical point

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

102. When piece of 0.2% carbon steel is heated above third critical point the steel
is a solid solution of carbon in gamma iron and called
A.
Austenite
B.
Pearlite
C.
Cementite
D.
Eutectoid
E.
Ferrite

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

103. The solid solution carbon in alpha iron obtained on cooling of 0.2% carbon
steel which have been heated above the third critical point is called
A.
FerriteB.
Pearlite
C.
Austenite
D.
Cementite

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

104. In a 0.2% carbon steel which has been heated above the third critical
temperature on cooling at the first critical point the austenite remaining in solution
is transformed to new structure called
A.
FerriteB.
Pearlite
C.
Austenite
D.
Cementite

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
105.
Steel with 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite is called
A.
Eutectoid
B.
Hyper-eutectoid
C.
Austenite
D.
Solid's
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

106.
Coarse grained steels
A.
Are very tough
C.
Do not have tendency to distort D.
E.
Are lighter
B.
Are less tough

Are denser

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

107.
A steel having ferrite and pearite is
A.
Soft
C.
Ductile
E.
(A) and (C) above
B.
Hard
D.

Answer: Option A
(A) and (B) above
Explanation:

108.
The maximum hardenability of any steel depends on
A.
The carbon contentB.
The chemical composition
C.
The grain size
The alloying elements present
E.
None of the above
D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

109.
The essential gradient of any hardened steel is
A.
Martensite
B.
Austenite
C.
Cementite
D.
Pearlite
E.
Carbon

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

110.
Delta iron occurs at temperature in the range of
A.
Room temperature to 600?C
B.
600?C to critical temperature
C.
Between 800?C and 1200?C
E.
None of the above
D.

Answer: Option D
111.
The ability of a tool to resist softening at high temperatures is known as
A.
Super hardness
C.
Extended hardness D.
E.
None of the above
B.
Red hardness
Double hardness

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

112.
In 18-4-1 high speed steel the maximum percentage of any constituent is
A.
Carbon
B.
Tungsten
C.
Chromium
D.
Vanadium
E.
Iron

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

113.
In iron-iron carbide diagram the
A.
Abscissa is time
B.
Abscissa is temperature
C.
Abscissa is carbon percentage
E.
None of the above
D.
Ordinate is time

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

114.
Gamma iron exists at temperatures in the range
A.
Room temperature and lower critical temperature
and 850?C
C.
E.
Above 1600?C
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

Solder is an alloy consisting of
A.
Tin, antimony and copper B.
C.
Tin and lead D.
E.
Copper and aluminium

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Tin and copper
Lead and copper
Between 500?C
115.
B.

116.
German silver is an alloy of
A.
Nickel, copper and zinc
B.
Silver, copper and niclel
C.
Silver, copper and lead
D.
Silver, gold and platinum
E.
Silver with impurities below 1%

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

117.
The fine grained steel
A.
Are brittle
B.
Are lighter
C.
Are doctile
D.
Have more tendency to distort
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

118.
The primary purpose of annealing is to
A.
Restrict the hardness of steel
cold working
B.
Soften the steel for machining after
C.
Reduce carbon percentage
D.
Change the crystalline structure
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

119.
Carburizing is done
A.
On steel with carbon percentage of 0.7%
percentage of 0.5%
B.
C.
To improve hardenability of steel
temperature
By heating 200?C below critical
E.
D.
On steels with carbon
To induce soft surface for machining on a hard core

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

120.
Recrystallistion temperature is one
A.
At which crystals again begin to appear
B.
At which new spherical
crystals first begin to form from the old deformed ones when a strained metal is
heated
C.
At which crystals start growing in size D.
changes occur
E.
At which change of allotropic form takes place.

Answer: Option B
121.
At which polycrystalline
Monel metal consists of
A.
Nickel, lead and tin B.
Zinc, copper and lead
C.
Zinc nickel and copper
D.
Aluminium copper and nickel

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

122.
In compression, a prism of brittle material will break
A.
Into large number of pieces
C.
load
By shearing slong oblique plane D.
E.
None of the above
B.
By forming a bulge
In a direction along the direction of

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

123.
Hastalloy consists of
A.
Nickel and copper B.
Copper and aluminium
C.
Aluminium and nickel
D.
E.
Nickel, copper and aluminium

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Nickel and molybdenum

124.
Which is amorphous material out of the following?
A.
Zinc
C.
Silver D.
E.
Glass
B.
Lead
Brass

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

125. Hard steels and non-ferrous metal do not exhibit a definite yield point when
pulled in the testing machine and for such cases a better measure of their elastic
properties is defined by
A.
Yield point stress
B.
Yield point strain
C.
Proof stress D.
Ultimate stress
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

126.
Brinell hardness number for nitrided steel is in the range
A.
60 to 80
B.
100 to 150
C.
200 to 300
D.
300 to 450
E.
700 to 800

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

127.
The furnace used for castings of cast iron in a foundry shop is known as
A.
Blast furnace
C.
Electric induction furnace D.
E.
Muffle furnace
B.
Reverberatory furnace
Cupola

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

128.
The machine used for determining tensile strength of steel is
A.
Hydraulic jack
B.
Hydraulic press
C.
Mechanical press
D.
Universal testing machine
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

129.
Pipes for bicycle frames are made of
A.
Hot rolled steel
B.
C.
Cast iron
Stainless steel
E.
Carbon chrome steel
D.
Cold rolled steel

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

130.
In drop forging the forging is done by
A.
Dropping the workpiece at high velocity
high velocity
B.
C.
Dropping the die with hammer at high velocity
on hammer to produce requisite impact
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
131.
Trimming is a process associated with
A.
Forging
B.
Electro plating
C.
Press work
D.
Machining of metals
E.
Polishing of metals

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Dropping the hammer at

D.
Dropping a weight

132.
Steel pipes are generally manufactured by
A.
Machining process B.
Forging process
C.
Extrusion process D.
Cold working process
E.
Electroforming process

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

133.
The process by which a steel ingot is converted into a sheet is known as
A.
Machining process B.
Forging process
C.
Routing process
Rolling process
E.
Re-rolling process
D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

134.
Sheradising process is used for
A.
Heat treatment of steels B.
C.
Machining metals D.
E.
Surface coating
Heat treatment of high speed steels
Cold working on metals

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

135.
Hot tear
A.
Is a physical property of non-ferrous materials
involving heating
B.
Is a process
C.
Is a phenomenon occurring in materials ixposed to weather e.g. sun and rain

D.
Is a defect in wood
E.
Is a defect in castings

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

136.
Cold shuts are
A.
Saturation of pores in bricks
B.
Saturation of pores in metals by
subsituting materials different from parent materials
C.
Defects in castings due to two streams of metal which are too cold to fuse
properly
D.
Forging defects due to improper heating of materials
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

137.
The defect blow hole in castings is caused due to
A.
Hard ramming
B.
Excessive moisture
C.
Improper venting
D.
Excessive carbouacious material
E.
Any of the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

138.
The raw material for mini steel plants is
A.
Iron ore
B.
Pig iron
C.
Grey iron
D.
CI and steel scrap
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

139.
Coal used in a cupola is
A.
Charcoal
B.
Pulverized coal
C.
Graphite
D.
Coke
E.
Coking coal

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

140.
During induction hardening the depth of hardening is controlled by
A.
Current
B.
Voltage
C.
Frequency
D.
Phase angle
E.
None of the above

Answer: Option B
5. METALLURGY
6. ENERGY CONVERSION
7. FOUNDRY TECHNOLOGY
8. STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
9. HEAT ENGINES
10.THEORY OF MACHINES
11.PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
12.AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
13.MECHANICAL MEASUREMENTS
14.MATERIALS HANDLING
15.APPLIED MECHANICS
16.REFREGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
17.MACHINE DESIGN
18.INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING
19.HEAT TRANSFER
20.ENVIORNMENTAL ENGINEERING
21.BUSINESS MANAGEMENT

Mechanical Engineering Mcqs

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Mechanical Engineering Mcqs

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MECHANICAL ENGINEERING MCQS

1. FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDERALIC MACHINES

Has zero viscosity B.

Satisfies the relation PV = mRT D.

None of the above

Has constant viscosity

Answer & Explanation

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Similar to a perfect gas

Frictionless and incompressible

One which satisfies

One which flows through pipes with least friction

Answer & Explanation

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An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the following:

Newton's law of viscosity B.

Newton's law of motion

Boundary layer theory

Answer & Explanation

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The velocity of a fluid particle at the centre of the pipe section is

Answer & Explanation

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The shear stress velocity gradient relation of the Newtonian fluids is

There is no such relation

Answer & Explanation

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The units of kinematic viscosity are

Answer & Explanation

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The units of dynamic viscosity are

Answer & Explanation

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The units of surface tension are

Same as units of force

None of the above

Answer & Explanation

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Density in terms of viscosity is

Kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity

None of the above

Any of the above

Answer & Explanation

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Newton's law of viscosity relates

Shear stress, temperature, viscosity

Pressure, vicosity and rate of angular deformation

1/9.81 times poise D.

None of the above

9.81 times poise

Answer & Explanation

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Identify the incorrect statement. Apparent shear forces

Depend upon molecular interchange of

May occur owing to cohesion when the fluid is at rest

Answer & Explanation

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The upper critical Reynolds number is

The number at which turbulent

Not more than 2000

Of no practical importance in pipe flow problems

Answer & Explanation

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The Reynolds number for pipe flow is given by