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U.P.

Higher Judicial Service (Pre) Examination-2009


(Held on 28/06/2009)
Time: 3 hours
Marks: 100
Notes: (i)
(ii)
(iii)

All questions are to be attempted.


Each question carries equal mark.
Answers are to be given by blackening the correct option in the O.M.R. Sheet.

1.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Which is the correct meaning of word embargo?


landing place
prohibition
disease of eye
cargo

2.

An agreement enforceable by law at the instance of one or more of the parties


and not of other or others under Section 2(i) of the Indian Contract Act is calleda valid contract
an illegal contract
a void contract
a voidable contract

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)

Claim for necessaries of life supplied to a minor under Section 68 of the Indian
Contract Actcannot be enforced at all
can be enforced against the minor personally on attaining majority
can be enforced against the minors property or estate
can be enforced against the guardian, if any, of the minor
An act, to be called on act of firm, within the meaning of section 2(a) of the
Indian Partnership Act, 1932 isevery act of the partners
only such acts which give rise to a enforceable by or against the firm
such acts which do not give rise to a right enforceable by or against the firm
either (A) or (B) or (C)

(D)

Which of the following is a valid partnership?


partnership between two partnership firm
partnership between one partnership firm and an individual
partnership between individual members of one firm and the individual members of
another firm
neither (A) nor (B) nor (C)

6.
(A)
(B)
(C)

Easement is a rightin rem


in personam
neither (A) nor (B)

(D)
7.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

in rem in general but in personam in exceptional cases


Damages awarded for tortuous liabilities areliquidated
unliquidated
penal
none of the above

8.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Defamation by spoken words or gestures is known asInnuendo


Slander
Libel
None of the above

9.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The principle facts speak for themselves is expressed by the maximUbi jus ibi remedium
Res ipsa Loquitur
Novus Actus Interveniens
Causa Causams

10.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The liability of a master for acts of his servant in Law of Torts is calledAbsolute liability
Tortious liability
Vicarious liability
None of the above

11.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

You have to identify the particular Section of Transfer of Property Act to which
the following quotation relates:
where a granter has purported to grant an interest in land which he did not at the
time possesses, but subsequently acquires, the benefit of his subsequent acquisition,
goes automatically to the earlier grantee, or as it is usually expressed, feeds the
estoppal.
Section 40
Section 41
Section 42
None of the above

12.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Section 53a of the transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals withfraudulent transfer
transfer by ostensible owner
part performance
None of the above

13.
(A)
(B)
(C)

Determination of lease is dealt with under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 inSection 108
Section 107
Section 113

(D)
14.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16.

Section 111
Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 imposes a prohibition on
transfer or otherwise dealing of an property during the pendency of a suit,
provided the conditions laid down in section are satisfied. The statement is:
false
true
partly true
None of the above
The definition of Sale is contained in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in
Section105
100
54
None of the above

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

What would be the status of a lessee of an immovable property on the expiry of a


fixed term lease, if he continues in possession?
Unauthorised occupant
Tenant of holding over
Tenant of sufferance
Licensee

17.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Which of the following is not a condition for a valid gift of immovable property?
Registered instrument signed by on behalf of the doner
Consideration
Attestation by at least two witnesses
Acceptance of gift by donee during the lifetime of the doner

18.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

X, an owner of house at Aligarh, left Aligarh in the year 1970 after appointing Y
as its care taker to look after the house. Y starts living in the said house with the
knowledge of X. X brings an action in the year 2005 against Y for delivery of
possession of the house in question. Y takes the plea that (1) the suit is barred by
time and (2) he has perfected the title by adverse possession. State whethersuit is barred by time
Y has perfected his title by adverse possession
Y is liable to succeed on both the pleas (1) and (2)
None of the above pleas is sustainable

19.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The marriage may be solemnized between two Hindus ifbridegroom completes the age of 21 and bride completes 18 years
bridegroom completes the age of 18 and bride completes 21 years
bridegroom completes the age of 21 and bride completes 21 years
bridegroom completes the age of 18 and bride completes 18 years

20.

Hindu Marriage Act, 1955-

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
21.

Does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite for solemnization of marriage but leaves
it to the parties to choose a form of ceremonial marriage which is in accordance with
any custom or usage applicable to either party
Does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite nor leaves it to the parties to choose
Does prescribe the ceremonies and does not leave it to the parties to choose
Does prescribe the ceremonies and at the same time leaves it to the parties to choose

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 confers legitimacy on the children
ofa void marriage
a voidable marriage
a valid marriage
both void and voidable marriages

22.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

A Talaq can be effectedorally by spoken words


in writing
only (A) and not (B)
either (A) or (B)

23.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

For a valid Muslim marriageoffer and acceptance must be at the same time
offer and acceptance must be at the same place
offer and acceptance must be at the same time and place
offer and acceptance may be at different times and at different place

24.
(A)
(B)
(C)

A Muslim can divorce his wifewhenever he so desires without assigning any cause
whenever he so desires but only with a cause
whenever he so desires without assigning any cause but only in the presence of the
wife
either (B) or (C)

(D)
25.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
26.

During operation of proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the


Constitution of India, the enforcement of Fundamental Rights can be suspended
except Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles14 & 19
15 & 21A
20 & 21
None of the above
In execution of a decree a movable property is aution sold by the executing
court. The auction purchaser deposits the entire auction price then and there
even before expiry of 30 days and takes the delivery of the auctioned property.
An objection complaining that the auction was conducted with material

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
27.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
28.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
29.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
30.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

irregularity is filed within 30 days from the date of auction. State which one of
the following is legally correct?
Objection is maintainable as it has been filed within 30 days of the auction
Auction sale is vitiated as the auction property has been delivered without waiting for
its confirmation within 30 days of auction
No confirmation of sale is required in the present case
None of the above is correct
In a miscellaneous appeal arising out of a pending suit defendant appealant dies
and an application for substitution is filed and allowed. Appeal is decided three
years thereafter. Subsequently, when the suit is taken up, an objection that the
suit has abated as no application to substitute the heirs of the deceased was filed
therein within the prescribed period, is raised from the side of the defendant.
Suggest the stand legally open to such plaintiff?
Plaintiff may apply for substitution with an application for condonation of delay
Information of death of defendant was not given to the trial court, therefore, shelter of
Order 22 Rule 10 CPC may be invoked
Record of the trial court was in appeal and thus, the plaintiff was prevented by
sufficient cause in not filing the substitution application earlier
The substitution allowed in miscellaneous appeal would ensure in the suit also and
application for substitution is not required as the heirs are on the record
Whether the following proposition is legally correct or not?
The principle so far as it relates to the amendment of plaint is equally
applicable to the amendment of written statement. By way of amendment in
plaint a time barred plea cannot be allowed to be raised so also in the case of
written statement.
Correct
Incorrect
Partially correct
None of the above is applicable
In which of the following case, the plaint will be ordered to be returned for
presentation to the proper court:
The plaintiff frames his suit in a manner not warranted by the facts and goes for his
relief to a court which cannot grant him
The plaintiff chooses a wrong court in respect of territorial limits
The plaintiff chooses a wrong court in respect of pecuniary limits
Both (B) and (C)
Which of the following is a leading case on the exclution of the jurisdiction of
civil courts?
Dhulabhai V. State of M.P.
Gundaji V. Ramchandra
Noor Mohd. Khan V. Fakirappa
All of the above

31.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
33.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
34.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
35.
(A)

Who is authority competent to issue notice to evict and realize damages from a
person who has damaged or misappropriated or found in occupation of a Gaon
Sabha land unauthorizedly?
Land Management Committee
Lekhpal of the circle
Assistant Collector concern
Collector
Under the U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Reforms Act, 1950 at present classes of
tenure areBhumidhar, Sirdar, Adhivasi and Asami
Bhumidhar with transferable right and Bhumidhar with non transferable rights
Bhumidhari with transferable rights, Bhumidhar with non transferable rights, Asami
and Government lessee
Bhumidhari with transferable rights, Bhumidhar with non transferable rights & Asami
Which amongst the following is not exempted from operation of U.P. Urban
Buildings (Regulation of Letting Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972?
Any building of which the Government or a local authority or a public sector
corporation or a Cantonment Board is landlord
Any building belonging to or vested in a recognized educational institutional
Any building of which the Government or a local authority or a public sector
corporation or a cantonment Board is the tenant
Any building, whose monthly rent exceeds two thousand rupees
Which amongst the following is not a ground under section 20 of the U.P. Urban
Building (Regulation of Letting Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972 for instituting a suit
for eviction?
That the tenant is in arrears of rent for not less than four months, and has failed to pay
the same to the landlord within one month from the date of service upon him of a
notice of demand
That the tenant has without the permission in writing of the landlord made or
permitted to be made any such construction or structural alteration in the building as
is likely to diminish its value or utility or the disfigure it
That the tenant without the permission of the landlord allowed one of his relatives to
live with him in the tenanted accommodation
That the tenant has sub-let, in contraventions of the provisions of section 25, as the
case may be, of the old Act the whole or any part of the building
Amongst the following which is not a ground for release of a building under
Section 21 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting Rent & Eviction)
Act, 1972?
That the building is bonafide required either in its existing form or after demolition
and new construction by the landlord for occupation himself or any member of his
family for residential purpose

(B)
(C)
(D)
36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
39.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
40.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

That the building is bonafide required either in its existing form or after demolition
and new construction by the landlord for occupation himself or any member of his
family for purposes of any profession, trade or calling
In case of a residential building for occupation for business purposes
That the building is in a dilapidated condition and is required for purposes of
demolition and new construction
The President of a Municipal Board on charges can be removed by which
amongst the following?
The Municipal Board by simple majority
By the electorate who elected the president by simple majority
By the State Government
By the Commissioner of the Division
Which amongst the following is correct process for removal of the Pradhan of a
Gaon Sabha?
The Pradhan can be removed by majority of the villagers
The Pradhan can be removed by majority of the members of the Gram Sabha
The Pradhan can be removed by the majority of two-third of the members of the
Gaon Sabha present and voting
By an order passed by District Deputy Collector
Upon the publication of the notification under Sub-section (2) of Section 4 of the
U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953, no tenure holder shall use his holding
or any part therefore for purposes not connected with agriculture, horticulture
or animal husbandry including pisciculture and poultry farming except with the
permission in writing ofConsolidation officer
Deputy Director of Consolidation
Settlement Officer of Consolidation
Consolidation Commissioner
In proceedings under the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 which
provisions amongst the following is not applicableSection 5 of the Indian Limitation Act
Chapter IX and X of U.P. Land Revenue Act, 1901
Order XXI of Civil Procedure code
Section 196 of Indian Penal Code
The authority competent to grant permission for development of land in a
development area under U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 isDevelopment Authority
Chairman of the Development Authority
Vice-Chairman of the Development Authority
State Government

41.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Which amongst the following cannot be levied by a Development Authority?


Mutation charges
Water fees
Fee on carrying a trade or business in a development area
Betterment charges

42.

When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common


intention of alleach of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him
alone
each of such person is liable for his own overt act
each of such person shall liable according to the extent of his participation in the
crime
both (B) and (C)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
43.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
44.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
45.

X and Y go to murder Z. X stood on guard with a spear in hand but did


not hit Z at all. Y killed Z.
only Y is liable for murder of Z
X and Y both are liable for murder of Z
X is not liable as he did not perform overt act
both (A) and (C)
Section 76 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person
who is or who by reason ofMistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
Mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
Mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
All the above

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Which Section of IPC has been declared unconstitutional and violative of Article
14 and 21 of the Constitution of India?
Section 314
Section 301
Section 303
Section 306

46.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxicationcan be self administered
administered against his will or knowledge
should not be self administered
All the above

47.
(A)
(B)
(C)

In a case of free fight between two partiesright of private defence is available to both the parties
right of private defence is available to individuals against individual
no right of private defence is available to either party

(D)

right of private defence is available only to one party

48.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

For proving an offence under Section 307 of IPCintention to commit murder has to be proved
causing of grievous hurt is to be proved
use of lethal weapon is to be proved
actual injury is to be proved

49.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Preparation to commit murder ispunishable


not punishable
punishable with fine
All the above

50.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Preparation to commit dacoity is a punishable offence


not punishable offence
no offence
None of the above

51.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

For an offence of cheating, intention to cheat should be presentin the end


in the middle
Both the above
from the very beginning

52.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam) leader who was killed by Srilankan
Army?
P.Prabhakaran
S.Prabhakaran
T.Prabhakaran
V.Prabhakaran

53.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

IPL-2009 was held inSouth Africa


England
Australia
India

54.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Dacoit who was killed in encounter in June, 2009 in district Chitrakoot wasDadua
Malkhan Kewat
Ghanshyam Kewat
Tokia mallah

55.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The words SATYAMEVA JAYATE in the State Emblem of India have been
adopted from which of the followings:
Brahma Upnishad
Mudgala Upnishad
Maitriyi Upnishad
Mundakopanishad

56.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Who of the followings cannot be removed by the Parliament?


Attorney General
Auditor General
Election Commissioner
Chief Justice of India

57.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Who allows the introduction of the Finance Bill?


President
Finance minister
Prime minister
Speaker

58.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The largest revenue in India is obtained fromRailways


Excise Duty
Sales Tax
Direct Tax

59.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Where is the headquarter of Reserve Bank of India situated?


Mumbai
Delhi
Kolkata
Ahmedabad

60.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Whose name was announced for the Bharat Ratna Award in 2008?
Pandit Ravi Shanker
Tapan Sinha
M.S. Subba Laxmi
Pandit Bhimsen Joshi

61.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

How many times in a year does an equinox take place?


once
twice
thrice
None of the above

62.
(A)
(B)

When does lunar eclipse take place?


Moon comes in between Earth and Sun
Sun comes in between Moon and Earth

(C)
(D)

Earth comes in between Moon and Sun


None of the above

63.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

How many Oscar awards did the movie Slumdog Millionaire get?
9
11
8
10

64.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The Britisher who abolished the practice of SATI isLord Cornwallis


Lord Edwin Montague
Lord Mountbatten
Lord William Bentinck

65.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Which is the classical dance of Kerala?


Mohiniaattam
Kathakali
Kuchipudi
Manipuri

66.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

What is the period of the 11th Five Year Plan?


2005-2010
2006-2011
2008-2013
2007-2012

67.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The correct translation into English of Hindi word {kEkRkkiscapacity


ability
competency
efficiency

68.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The correct translation into English of Hindi word ikrk isqualified


eligibility
educated
suitability

69.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The correct translation into English of Hindi word funsZ'k isorder


direction
instruction
guidance

70.

The correct translation into Hindi of English word approval is-

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Lohd`fr
vuqeksnu
vuqefr
vkns'k

71.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Which is the correct meaning of word fallacy?


primitive poem
barren field
good omen
mistaken idea

72.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The correct translation into English of Hindi word fuHkhZdrk isbravery


courage
valour
boldness

73.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The correct translation into English of Hindi word vLohd`fr isdismissal


rejection
return back
None of the above

74.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The correct translation into Hindi of English word Estimate is-

75.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The correct translation into Hindi of English word Probable is-

76.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The scope of expression procedure established by law occurring in Article 21


was expanded in the caseA.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
Charanjit Lal Chowdhury Vs. Union of India
K.A. Abbas Vs. Union of india
Menka Gandhi Vs. Union of india

77.
(A)

Scope of Article 356 was examined in the caseS.R. Bommai vs. Union of India

vuqeku
kDdyu
QkewZyk
C;kSjk
laHko
laHkkO;
vuqekfur
,d eqgkojk

(B)
(C)
(D)

Sankari Prasad Vs. Union of India


Minerva Mills Ltd. Vs. Union of India
U.N.R. Rao Vs. Indira Gandhi

78.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The Doctrine of Eclipse is in regard to Article105


245
246
13

79.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Fundamental Right conferred by Article 15(1) of the Constitution is available toAny person
Any citizen
Any corporation
None of the above

80.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The principle Collective Responsibility has been incorporated in Article75


74
105
53

81.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Constitutional safeguards to civil servants have been given in Article311


300
44
None of the above

82.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Section 114 Evidence Act applies toadmissibility of facts


relevancy of facts
relevancy of opinions
legal presumptions

83.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The Indian Evidence Act applies toproceedings before tribunals


affidavits presented to any court or officer
proceedings before an arbitrator
None of the above

84.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Confessions made while in custody of police areirrelevant


admissible
inadmissible
relevant

85.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Opinion of Experts is relevant underSection 45 of Evidence Act


Section 46 of Evidence Act
Both the above
None of the above

86.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Leading questions can generally be asked inExamination in chief


re-examination
cross examination
All the above

87.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

A is accused of Bs murder. Which of the following will be a relevant fact?


As going to field with a club
As saying shortly before the incident that he will take a revenge of his fathers death
As fleeing before the police arrived at village
All of the above

88.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Test Identification Parade under Section 9 of Evidence Act should be taken by


whom?
Magistrate
Police officer not below the rank of Sub-inspector
Any person
All of the above

89.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Which of the following is relevant and may be received in evidence?


Tape recordings
Dog-tracking
Narco analysis test
All of the above

90.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Accused statement under Section 313 Cr.P.C. is to be recorded on oathabove statement is true
above statement is false
above statement is partially true
None of above

91.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

For summoning an accused under Section 319 Cr.P.C.statement under 161 Cr.P.C. is relevant
statement on oath in the trial is relevant
both the above statements are relevant
None of the above

92.
(A)
(B)

Ordinarily place of trial iswhere the offence has been committed


where the victim resides

(C)
(D)

where the accused resides


where the FIR is lodged

93.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Statement under Section 161 of Cr.P.C. can be used tocorroborate the statement in court
corroborate and contradict statement in court
contradict the statement in court
can not be utilized for any purpose

94.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Before being summoned, the accused has got a right toparticipate in the proceeding
no right to participate in the proceeding
has no right at all
can watch the proceedings but can not participate

95.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Inquiry is conducted by a Magistrate with a view tofind out a prima-facie case


convict the accused
authorize remand of the accused
release the accused under Section 436

96.
(A)
(B)

Warrant case means a casein which a police officer can not arrest without warrant
in which the court, in the first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the
accused
relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two
years
relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment
for a term exceeding two years

(C)
(D)
97.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
98.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
99.

When can a trial court release an accused on bail under Section 389(3) of Cr.P.C.
after conviction?
Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years
Where offence is exclusively bailable whether accused is on bail or not
Time prescribed for filing which of the followings cannot be extended or
condoned by applying provisions of Section 5 of the Limitation Act?
Revision under Section 115 C.P.C.
Application for execution under Order XXI C.P.C.
Appeal under Section 96, 100 and 104 C.P.C.
Application for substitution under Order XXII C.P.C.
Time for instituting a suit can be enlarged by invoking which of the following
provisions?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Section 151 C.P.C.


Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963
Section 148 C.P.C.
None of the above

100.

An application for execution of a decree is filed with some delay i.e. beyond
prescribed period of limitationdelay can be condoned by invoking Section 5 of the Limitation Act
delay can be condoned under Section 148 C.P.C.
delay can be condoned under the inherent powers of the court under Section 151
C.P.C.
None of the above

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

ANSWERS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

B
D
C
B
C
A
B
B
B
C
D
C
D
B
C
B
B
D
A
A

DISCLAIMER:

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.

D
D
C
A
C
C
D
A
D
D
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C

41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.

C
A
B
A
C
B
C
A
B
A
D
D
A
C
D
A
A
B
A
D

61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

B
C
C
D
B
C
A
B
B
B
D
D
B
B
B
D
A
D
B
A

81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.

A
D
A
C
A
C
D
D
D
B
B
A
C
A
A
D
A
B
D
D

The answers provided are extent to the knowledge of author and for views purposes only. For
any accuracy it should be double checked.