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SBI PO 2015 - Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test

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IBPS PO 2016 Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test

Based on Pattern of 16th October 2016 IBPS PO Prelim Exam
This Mock Test consists of 100 questions which are spread across 3 sections English Language,
Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Ability. The mock test carries 100 marks and of one-hour duration.
There is negative marking of 1/4 marks for each wrong answer.
Pattern of the Mock Test

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q. 1-8): In the following passage there are
blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the pas-sage and against each, five
words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A strong education system is the (1) of any countrys
growth and prosperity. Over the last decade, India has
made great strides in strengthening its primary education
system. The District Information System for Education
(DISE) reported in 2012 that 95% of Indias rural
populations are within one kilometer of primary schools.
The 2011 Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), which
tracks trends in rural education, indicated that (2) rates
among primary-school-aged children were about 93%,
with little difference by gender.
However, behind the (3) of such promising statistics, the
learning outcomes of Indias children show little progress.
The country ranked 63 out of 64 in the latest Program for
International Student Assessment (PISA) study, with some
of its best schools ranked about average among those (4).
The 2011 ASER stated that only 48.2% of students in the
fifth grade can read at the second grade level. The number
of students completing their primary education with
inadequate numeracy and literacy skills is startling. To see
this (5) in an economic sense, one may attribute Indias
productivity growth lagging behind that of East Asian
economies to a lack of progress in the foundational
elements of countrywide, high-quality education.
Indias private-schooled, English-speaking urban (6) may
attract global attention, but they are in the (7). The vast

majority of Indian children attend government-run

primary schools in rural areas. In 2008-2009, rural India
accounted for more than 88% of Indias primary-school
students, of whom over 87% were (8) in government-run
schools. This is where we see some of the nations
toughest challenges.
1. (1) cornerstone
(3) enroot
(5) benchmark
2. (1) replenish
(3) introgression
(5) abandon
3. (1) reveal
(3) blemish
(5) veil
4. (1) interrogated
(3) scanned
(5) estimated
5. (1) dubious
(3) manifest
(5) unstated
6. (1) common
(3) deplorable
(5) destitute
7. (1) majority
(3) minority
(5) volume
8. (1) expelled
(3) neglected
(5) enrolled

(2) base
(4) pyridine
(2) secession
(4) enrollment
(2) expose
(4) snitch
(2) surveyed
(4) reckoned
(2) subtle
(4) tacit
(2) herd
(4) elite
(2) essence
(4) substance
(2) qualified
(4) passed

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Directions (Qs.9-13): Rearrange the following six

sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer
the questions given below them.
(A) Increased competition, globalization and the need for
enormous resources have nudged priorities which once
held the fort.
(B) In order to achieve these, hype and sensationalism is
put in to spice up the news which have robbed news
stories of credibility.
(C) This is only possible if a lot more thought is put into the
gathering and presentation of the daily news and
delivering it much more sensitively to its receivers/users.
(D) Technological innovation and economic change have
transformed the news industry to the extent where its
original definition as a public service no longer holds good.
(E) In order to win it back, the media should make full use
of the tremendous power that the democracy blesses it
with.
(F) These included public good and social responsibility.
But sadly, today, these have made way for a business target
of commercial viability and a chase of viewership.
9. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH
(LAST) after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
10. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD
after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) E
(3) D
(4) F
(5) C
11. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH
after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) E
(4) C
(5) F
12. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST
after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
13. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND
after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Directions (Q. 14-23): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that
part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), ie
No error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
14. The course is for / anyone who is interested / in
learning / about computers./ No error
(1) The course is for
(2) anyone who is interested
(3) in learning

(4) about computers

(5) No error
15. We were surprised / that she participated / at the
performance / held at NCPA./ No error
(1) We were surprised
(2) that she participated
(3) at the performance
(4) held at NCPA
(5) No error
16. The principal / introducing me / to some of her /
teaching staff. / No error
(1) The principal
(2) introducing me
(3) to some of her
(4) teaching staff.
(5) No error.
17. By the times / we reached the classroom, / the lecture
had / already begun./ No error
(1) By the times
(2) we reached the classroom,
(3) the lecture had
(4) already begun.
(5) No error.
18. As soon as / I getting my / first salary / I spent all my
money. / No error
(1) As soon as
(2) I getting my
(3) first salary
(4) I spent all my money
(5) No error
19. Barely a few weeks since recovering from / 4 hours of
enforced power cuts, the city / might be forced to go
through load shedding again,/ as the power supply
situation shows no sign of improvement. / No error.
(1) Barely a few weeks since recovering from
(2) 4 hours of enforced power cuts, the city
(3) might be forced to go through load shedding again,
(4) as the power supply situation shows no sign of
improvement.
(5) No error.
20. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) have refused / to
decommission the 400-megawatt Vishnu Prayag Hydro
Electric Project, / which is the worlds largest
hydropower project / in the private sector. / No error.
(1) The National Green Tribunal (NGT) have refused
(2) to decommission the 400-megawatt Vishnu Prayag
Hydro Electric Project,
(3) which is the worlds largest hydropower project
(4) in the private sector.
(5) No error
21. While many companies are shying away / from
recruiting people with disabilities, there are some
companies who are leading / the way to participate in
a virtual job fair that will serve / as a platform for
those with disabilities to find a job. / No error.
(1) While many companies are shying away

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(2) from recruiting people with disabilities, there are

some companies who are leading
(3) the way to participate in a virtual job fair that will
serve
(4) as a platform for those with disabilities to find a
job.
(5) No error.
22. This Ganesh Chaturthi, authorities made it / sure that
none idol made of plaster of Paris / or other nonbiodegradable substance / were immersed in the
Yamuna. / No error.
(1) This Ganesh Chaturthi, authorities made it
(2) sure that none idol made of plaster of Paris
(3) or other non-biodegradable substance
(4) or other non-biodegradable substance
(5) No error.
23. Security forces on Monday busted / a militant hideout
in Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir / and
claimed to have recovered a large cache / of arms and
ammunitions./ No error.
(1) Security forces on Monday busted
(2) a militant hideout in Kishtwar district of Jammu
and Kashmir
(3) and claimed to have recovered a large cache
(4) of arms and ammunitions.
(5) No error
Directions (24-30): Read the following passage carefully
and the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions
Chinas rising power is based on its remarkable economic
success. Shanghais overall economy is currently growing
at around 13%per year, thus doubling in size every five or
six years. Everywhere there are start-ups, innovations, and
young entrepreneurs hungry for profits. In a series of highlevel meetings between Chinese and African officials, the
advice that the African leaders received from the Chinese
was sound, and more practical than they typically get from
the World Bank. Chinese officials stress the crucial role of
public investments, especially in agriculture and
infrastructure, to lay the basis for private sector-led
growth. In a hungry and poor rural economy, as China was
in the 1970s and as most of Africa is today, a key starting
point is to raise farm productivity. Farmers need the
benefits of fertilizer, irrigation and high-yield seeds, all of
which were a core part of Chinas economic takeoff. Two
other equally critical investments are also needed: roads
and electricity, without which there cannot be a modern
economy. Farmers might be able to increase their output,
but it wont be able to reach the cities, and the cities wont
be able to provide the countryside with inputs. The
government has taken pains to ensure that the electricity
grids and transportation networks reach every village in
China. China is prepared to help Africa in substantial ways

in agriculture, roads, power, health and education. And

that is not an empty boast. Chinese leaders are prepared to
share new high yield rice varieties, with their African
counterparts and, all over Africa, China is financing and,
constructing basic infrastructure. This illustrates what is
wrong with the World Bank. The World Bank has often
forgotten the most basic lessons of development,
preferring to lecture the poor and force them to privatize
basic infrastructure, which is untenable, rather than to
help the poor to invest in infrastructure and other crucial
sectors. The Banks failure began in the early 1980s when
under the ideological sway of then American President and
British Prime Minister it tried to get Africa and other poor
regions to cut back or close down government investments
and services. For 25 years, the bank tried to get
governments out of agriculture, leaving impoverished
peasants to fend for themselves. The result hits been a
disaster in Africa, with farm productivity stagnant for
decades. The bank also pushed for privatization of national
health systems, water utilities, and road and power
networks, and has grossly under financed these critical
sectors. This extreme free-market ideology, also called
structural adjustment, went against the practical lessons
of development successes in, China and the rest or Asia.
Practical development strategy recognizes that public
investments in agriculture, health, education, and
infrastructureare necessary complements to private
investments. The World Bank has instead wrongly seen
such vital public investments as an enemy of private sector
development. Whenever the banks ideology failed, it has
blamed the poor for corruption, mismanagement, or lack of
initiative. Instead of focusing its attention on helping the
poorest countries to improve their infrastructure, there
has been a crusade against corruption. The good news is
that African governments are getting the message on how
to spur economic growth and are getting crucial help from
China and other partners that are less wedded to extreme
free-market ideology than the World Bank. They have
declared their intention to invest in infrastructure,
agriculture modernization, public health and education. It
is clear the Bank can regain its relevance only if it becomes
practical once again, by returning its focus to financing
public investments in priority sectors. If that happens, the
Bank can still do justice to the bold vision of a world of
shared prosperity that prompted its creation after World
War II.
24. The authors main objective in writing the passage is to
(1) Make a case for the closure of the World Bank since
it promotes US interests over those of other countries.
(2) Illustrate how China can play a more concrete role
in Africa.
(3) Criticize the World Bank for playing a crucial role
in Chinas development but neglecting Africa.
(4) Recommend that China adopt the guidelines of the
World Bank to sustain growth.

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(5) Use Chinas success as an example of the changes

required in World Bank ideology.
25. What advice have African leaders received from their
Chinese counterparts?
(A) Focus primarily on innovation, start-ups and urban
development.
(B) To ensure all citizens benefit from economic
development, investment in crucial sectors should
come from the government, not the private sector.
(C) Improve agricultural output through government
investment to stimulate economic growth.
(1) None
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (B)
(4) Both (A) & (B)
(5) None of these
26. What effect has the World Bank policy had on African
nations?
(1) The African government has restricted private
sector investment in agriculture.
(2) Africa has focused more on health and education
rather than on agriculture.
(3) The agriculture sector in these countries is not as
productive as it could be.
(4) US and Britain have volunteered substantial aid to
Africa as Africa has complied with World Bank
ideology.
(5) None of these
27. What is the difference in the Chinese and World Bank
approach to development?
(1) Unlike the World Bank, China favours the public
sector and restricts private sector participation in
crucial sectors.
(2) Contrary to Chinas strategy of dependence on the
private sector, the World Bank pressurizes
governments to take the lead in investing in
agriculture.
(3) While the World Bank has focused on agriculture,
Chinas priority has been rooting out corruption so that
investment in infrastructure is utilized appropriately.
(4) The Chinese government has retained control over
essential services like transport while the World Bank
favours private sector involvement.

(5) None of these

28. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the
passage?
(A) Chinas involvement in Africa so far has been
restricted to advising its leaders.
(B) The World Bank was created by the US and Britain
for the sole purpose of furthering their interests.
(C) Chinas economy was once in the same state as
many African countries are today.
(1) None
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A)
(4) Both (A) & (B)
(5) None of these
29. What has/have been the outcome/s of Shanghais
economy prospering?
(A) The World Bank has changed its development
strategy.
(B) Chinas importance globally has been enhanced.
(C) Rural areas are being neglected to promote
development of cities.
(1) Only (B)
(2) Both (A) & (B)
(3) Both (B) & (C)
(4) All (A), (B) & (C)
(5) None of these
30. Which of the following cannot be said about structural
adjustment?
(1) It is the World Banks free market ideology adapted
by Asian countries.
(2) Under this strategy public sector investment in
priority sectors is discouraged.
(3) As a development strategy it has failed in Africa.
(4) With this strategy there has been a lack of adequate
investment in critical sectors.
(5) None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
31. First number is equal to twenty five per cent of the
second number. The second number is equal to onefourth of the third number. The value of the third
number is 480. What is 90 per cent of the first
number?
(1)32
(2) 27
(3) 16
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
32. The ratio of the present age of Mohan to that of
Wasim is 3:11. Wasim is 12 years younger than
Rehana. Rehanas age after 7 years will be 85 years.

What is the present age of Mohans father, who is 35

years older than Mohan?
(1) 53 years
(2) 67years
(3) 45 years
(4) 69 years
(5) None of these

33. Dineshs monthly income is thirty per cent more than

Sureshs monthly income. Sureshs monthly income is
twenty per cent more than Jyotis monthly income.
Jyotis monthly income is Rs122,000. What is
Dineshs monthly income?

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(1) Rs 1,06,500
(2) Rs 1,95,600
(3)Rs 1,90,320
(4) Rs 1,85,420
(5) None of these
34. The smallest side of a right-angled triangle is 8 cm
less than the side of a square of perimeter 64 cm. The
second largest side of the right-angled triangle is 6
cm less than the length of the rectangle which area 96
sq cm and breadth 8 cm. What is the largest side of
the right-angled triangle?
(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 14 cm
(4) 12 cm
(5) None of these
35. The ratio of the adjacent angles of a parallelogram is
6 : 9. Also, the ratio of the angles of quadrilateral is 5 :
6 : 7 : 12. What is the sum of the smaller angle of the
parallelogram and the second largest angle of the
quadrilateral?
(1) 156
(2) 228
(3) 156
(4) 224
(5) None of these
36. In a lottery, there are 15 prizes and 25 blanks. A
lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of
getting a prize?
(1) 3/8
(2) 3/9
(3) 3/11
(4) 4/9
(5) None of these
37. A shopkeeper sells sugar at a profit of 20 % uses a
weight which is 25 % less. Find the total percentage
gain.
(1) 45 %
(2) 60 %
(3) 65 %
(4) 48%
(5) none of these
38. A sells a watch to B at a 20 % loss, B sells it to C at 15
% gain and C sells it to D at a loss of 10 %, if D pays
Rs 1863 for it then how much does A pay for.
(1) 2250
(2) 2420
(3) 2380
(4) 2050
(5) none of these
39. P, Q and R can complete a work in 10, 12 and 15 days
respectively. The started the work together. But P left
the work before 3 days of its completion. Q also left
the work 2 days after P left. In how many days was
the work completed?
13
8
(1) 4
(2) 5 15
(3) 515
3

(4) 8 4
(5) None of these
40. In a journey of 80 km, a train covers the distance 60
km at a speed of 40 km/h and the remaining distance
at 20 km/h. Find the average speed of the train for
the whole journey.
(1) 30 km/h
(2) 32 km/h
(3) 40 km/h
(4) 25 km/h
(5) None of these
Directions(4145) In the following questions two
equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve
both the equations and Give answer If.
(1)X>Y
(2) X Y
(3) X<Y
(4) XY

(5) X = Y or the relationship cannot be established

41. I. 6x2 + 18x + 12 = 0
II. 5y2 + 28y +15 =0
42. I. 8x2- 18x +9 = 0
II. 11y2 + 12y + 1 = 0
43. I. 3x+y = 36
II. 5x-y = 12
44. I. x =

625+ 289
196

II. y2 - 2y - 3 = 0
45. I. x3 = 4096
II. y2 = 256
Directions (46 - 50): What will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following number series?
46. 3, 15, 35, 63, 99, (?)
(1) 143
(2) 145
(3) 153
(4) 149
(5) None of these
47. 2400, 480, 120, 40, 20, (?)
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these
48. 1, 4, 27, 16, 125, (?)
(1) 49
(2) 25
(3) 42
(4) 36
(5) None of these
49. 14, 15, 32, 99, 400, (?)
(1) 2005
(2) 2050
(3) 1605
(4) 2405
(5) None of these
50. 16, 25, 32, 37, 40, (?)
(1) 40
(2) 41
(3) 42
(4) 43
(5) None of these
Directions (51-55): What approximate value should
come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following question? (Note: You are not expected to
calculate the exact value.)
51. 312.00334.998 5=?
(1) 2200
(2) 2100
(3) 2150
(4) 2260
(5) 2185
52. 96.36 8.02 +240.016.012.99 = ?
(1) 492
(2) 480
(3) 560
(4) 475
(5) 520
53. (233.01+117.0003)68.0116.998 =?
(1) 1450
(2) 1350
(3) 1400
(4) 1300
(5) 1750
54. 199.994.99499.99100.015.002=?
(1) 25
(2) 32
(3) 40
(4) 20
(5) 35
55. (26.998)2 19.99 10.01 = ?
(1) 1520
(2) 1350
(3) 1400
(4)1500
(5)1460

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Directions (56-60): Study the following table carefully and answers the following questions carefully.
Number of cars (in thousands) of two models (Basic and Premium) produced by five different companies in five different
years
Company
Year

Basic

P
Total

Basic

Q
Total

Basic

R
Total

Basic

S
Total

Basic

T
Total

2011
2012
2013
2014
2015

5.45
5.95
14.75
6.65
5.75

8.99
13.7
32.27
21.9
22.5

6.25
10.50
16.50
13.54
14.25

9.5
18.06
26.04
26.04
22.81

6.50
9.52
14.58
18.50
20.25

13.75
19.07
25.12
41.06
45.5

8.56
9.25
10.25
12.54
16.25

18.12
15.5
20.75
26.04
30.65

3.52
5.25
8.58
9.55
12.5

11.06
11.81
21.1
22.8
26.75

56. The number of cars of premium model produced by

(1) 12452
(2) 15245
(3) 12162
Company S in the year 2014 was approximately what
(4) 13215
(5) None of these
per cent of the total number of cars (both models)
59. In which year was the difference between the basic
produced by Company R in the year 2012?
model and the premium model of cars produced by
(1) 71%
(2) 74%
(3) 82%
Company T the second highest?
(4) 68%
(5) None of these
(1) 2015
(2) 2014
(3) 2012
57. What was the approximately percentage decrease in
(4) 2011
(5) None of these
the number of cars of basic model produced by
60.
In
which
company
did the production of cars of
Company Q in the year 2014 as compared to the
premium model consistently increase from the year
previous year?
(1) 12%
(2) 18%
(3) 25%
2011 to the year 2015?
(4) 22%
(5) None of these
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
58. What was the average number of cars of premium
(5) S
(5) None of these
model produced by Company P over all the years
together?
Direction (61-65): Study the line graph and answer the questions given below:
The graph shows sales of four-wheelers of different companies in India for FY 2006-07 to 2011-12.
600
500

HCL

400

MI

300

TAN

200

HP

100

TPL

0
2006-07 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11 2011-12

61. What is the percentage increase in annual sales of all

companies put together from FY 2006-07 to 2011 -12?
(1) 68%
(2) 78.51%
(3) 80%
(4) 82.22%
(5) 14.91%
62. Which company recorded the highest percentage
increase in sale from FY 2006-07 to 2011 -12?
(1) HCL
(2) HP
(3) MI
(4) TPL
(5) TAN

63. In which FY is the average sale of all the companies the

minimum?
(1) 2007-08
(2) 2006-07
(3) 2010-11
(4) 2011-12
(5) 2008-09
64. The total sale of HP and MI is what per cent more or
less than the total sale of TAN and HCL in FY 2006-07?
(1) 4% less
(2) 5% more (3) 5% less
(4) 4% more
(5) 2% less

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65. The total sale of HCL is what per cent more than the
total sale of TPL for FY 2009-10?
(1) 71%
(2) 70%
(3) 49%
(4) 50%
(5) 25%

REASONING ABILITY
Directions (Q66-70): Study the following information
carefully to answer the questions.
Ten friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit in a straight
line. Four of them face South while the remaining six face
North. Any of the two friends who face South is neither
immediate neighbour of each other nor sits at any extreme
ends of the line. M sits fourth to the right of S and fourth to
the right of N. S sits on the immediate left of O. T sits
between V and U and both of them face South. P sits second
to the left of R. U and P are not the immediate neighbours
of N. Q and R face the same direction.
66. How many persons sit between V and R?
1) Four
2) Three
3) Five
4) Two
5) More than five
67. Which of the following pairs represents the persons
seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
1) VN
2) SO 3) MN
4) NO
5) None of these
68. Which of the following is true about P, with respect to
the given arrangement?
1) One of the immediate neighbours of P faces south.
2) P faces north.
3) P is between M and Q.
4) P sits one of the extreme ends of the line.
5) All are true
69. Who among the following sits second to the left of U?
1) P
2) M
3) V
4) Q
5) None of these
70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
based on the given arrangement and so from a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
1) V
2) M 3) P
4) S
5) U
Directions (Q 71-75): In each of these question below
three statement followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II have been given. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
71. Statements: Some metals are papers. All papers are
pencils. Some pencils are prices.
Conclusions: I. There is a possibility that all prices are
metals.
II. All paper being metals is a possibility.

1) If only conclusion II follows.

2) If only conclusion I follows.
3) If only conclusion Neither I nor II follows.
4) If only conclusion Either I or II follows.
5) If only both conclusions I and II follow.
72. Statements: Some metals are papers. All papers are
pencils. Some pencils are prices.
Conclusions: I. At least some prices are metals.
II. At least some papers are prices.
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If only conclusion Either I or II follows.
4) If only conclusion Neither I nor II follows.
5) If only both conclusions I and II follow.
73. Statements: Some numbers are digits. No digit is an
alphabet. Some alphabets are letters.
Conclusions: I. Some alphabets can never be a digit.
II. No letter is a number.
1) If only conclusion Either I or II follows
2) If only both conclusions I and II follow.
3). If only conclusion I follows.
4) If only conclusion Neither I nor II follows.
5) If only conclusion II follows.
74. Statements: Some numbers are digits. No digit is an
alphabet. Some alphabets are letters.
Conclusions: I. There is a possibility that some
alphabets are digits.
II. There is a possibility that some letters are numbers.
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If only conclusion Either I or II follows.
4) If only conclusion Neither I nor II follows.
5) If only both conclusions I and II follow.
75. Statements: Some yellow are colours. All colours are
paints. All paints are blacks.
Conclusions: I. There is a possibility that all black are
colours. II. Some black are colours.
1) If only both conclusions I and II follow.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If only conclusion Either I or II follows.
4) If only conclusion Neither I nor II follows.
5) If only conclusion I follows.

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Directions (76-79): Study the following information

carefully and answer the given questions.
Point S is 40 m towards the North of Point P. Point Q is 15
m towards the West of point S. Point U is 25 m towards the
West of point S. Point T is 20 m towards the South of point
Q. Point R is 15 m towards the East of point T. Point V is 15
m towards the West of point P.
76. Which of the following points are in a straight line?
(1) S, T, P
(2) T, V, R
(3) S, Q, V
(4) T, V, Q
(5) U, Q, R
77. P is in which direction with respect to R?
(1) South
(2) North
(3) East
(4) West
(5) Cannot be determined
78. What will be the minimum distance that a person have
to travel if he wants to reach to point U from point P
while passing through point T?
(1) 25 m
(2) 25 + 55
(3) 5 + 105
(4) 25 + 105
(5) None of these
79. If a person walks 10 m towards East from point U and
then takes a right turn, which of the following points
would he reach first?
(1) V
(2) S
(3) T
(4) P
(5) R
Directions (Q. 80-82) : Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six students M,N,O,P,Q and R obtained different
marks in an examination. M obtained more marks than
only two students. N obtained more marks than P but not
the highest. R obtained more marks than only O. The one
obtained the second highest marks obtained 220. The one
who obtained the second lowest marks obtained 160
marks.
80. If the total marks of the examination is 600 then who
among the following possibly obtained 40% marks?
1) M
2) Q 3) Either M or O
4) Either M or Q 5) None of these
81. If M obtained 190 marks then who among the
following possibly obtained 205 marks?
1) P
2) O
3) R
4) Q 5) None of these
82. Who among the following obtained the lowest marks?
1) R
2) Q
3) O 4) N 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 83-85): Study the following information
carefully to answer the questions.
Mr. and Mrs. Rana have two children Anushka and Saurya.
Saurya married Rajni, daughter of Mrs. Tomar. Nitin, son of
Mr. Tomar married Ritu. Ram and Shyam are born to Nitin
and Ritu. Reema and Vidhya are the daughters of Saurya
and Rajni.
83. What is Vidhya's relation to Anushka?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece
(3) Aunt
(2) Daughter
(5) None of these

84. How is Ram related to Mr Tomar?

(1) Son in law
(2) Sibling
(3) Grandson
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
85. How is Anushka related to Rajni?
(1) Mother in law (2) Aunt
(3) Sister in law
(4) Niece
(5) None of these
Directions (Q.86-90): In these questions, a relationship
between different elements is shown in the statements.
The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give
answer If
1) Only conclusion I is true.
2) Only conclusion II is true.
3) Either conclusion I or II is true.
4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) Both conclusions I and II are true.
86. .Statements: L > T > S < U, N > S = P
Conclusions: I. L > P
II. T > P
87. Statements: R = S > X < A, L > S
Conclusions: I. L > A
II. R < L
88. Statements: V < W = T > O, N < V
Conclusions: I. O > T
II. W> N
89. Statements: K < L < M = N, K > D = R < C
Conclusions: I. C > L
II. R < M
90. Statements: K < L < M = N, K > D = R < C
Conclusions: I. C > D
II. C=D
Directions (91-95) : Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below it
I,J,K,L,M,N,O and P are sitting around a circular table but
not necessarily in the same order. Some of the persons are
facing the centre while some are not facing the centre. J sits
third to the right of L and both are facing opposite
directions. The immediate neighbors of M face the same
direction. There is only one person between L and P. The
immediate neighbors of L face opposite directions. K is not
an immediate neighbors of either P or L. N sits second to
the right of M, who faces outward. P sits opposite N and
both face opposite direction. I sits second to the right of O.
The immediate neighbours of P face the same direction as
K. I and P face the same direction as K.
91. Who among the following faces the centre?
1) O
2) K 3) N
4) M 5) None of these
92. Who among the following are immediate neighbours of
M?
1) K,J
2) J,P 3) N,K 4) L,O 5) None of these
93. Who among the following is on the immediate right of
L?
1) M
2) J 3) I 4) O 5) None of these

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94. How many persons are there between L and M?

1) One
2) Two 3) Three
4) None
5) None of these
95. What is the Position of K with respect to I ?
1) Second to the right
2) Fourth to the left
3) Fourth to the right
4) Either 2 or 3
5) None of these
Directions (Q 96-100): Study the following information
carefully to answer the questions.
Seven girls namely Malika, Neetu, Ojas, Parinidhi,
Priyanka,Rayma and Sonali have an dress competition on
seven different days, namely Monday, Tuesday,
Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday and Sunday of the
same week. Each actress lives in a hotel in different floor
namely, I,II,III, IV,V,VI and VII, but necessarily in the same
order.
The one who stayed in the Ist floor has a competition on
Saturday. Sonali stayed in the IInd floor and has a
competiton on Wednesday. Neetu has a competition
immediate before Priyanka. Neetu does not have a
completion on any of the days after Sonali. The one who
stayed in the seventh floor does not have a competition on
any of the days on or before Friday. The one who stayed in
the IIIrd floor has a competition immediately after Ojas.
Priyanka does not live in the V floor. The one who lives in
VI floor does not have a competition immediately before or
after Sonali. Rayma does not have any competition on
Sunday and does not live in III floor. Parinidhi does not
have any competition on any of the days before Malika.
96. Which of the following floors does Rayma stayed in?
1) Seventh
2) Fifth
3) First
4) Second
5) Fourth
97. Four of the following five form a group as per the given
arrangement .Which of the following does not belong
to that group?
1) Ojas - Thuresday
2) Malika- Friday
3) Parinidhi- Saturday
4) Sonali-Wednesday
5) Rayama-Saturday
98. Based on the given arrangement, which of the
following statement is True?
1) Malika has a competition on Saturday
2) Priyanka stayed in the VI floor
3) All the given statements are true
4)Only two persons have their competition between
Sonali and Parinidhi
5)Rayama has a competition immediately after Malika

99. Which of the following combinations is definitely

correct?
1) Rayma- Friday-Ist
2) Ojas-Tuesday-IV
3) Malika-Thursday IIIrd
4) Priyanka- Saturday-Fifth
5) Parinidhi-Sunday-Seventh
100. On which day does Neetu have her competition?
1) Saturday
2) Friday
3) Sunday
4) Tuesday
5) Monday

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(1) None follow

(2) Either I or III or IV follows
(3) Only II and IV follow
(4) Either I or III and II and IV follow
(5) None of these

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