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E-Commerce, Assignment A

Marks 10

Q: Explain why B2B and B2C initiatives require different IT infrastructures.


A: B2B typically has less users with larger transaction volume per user. B2C typically involves larger number of individual
customers with intermittent transactions, or lower dollar values per transaction.
-------------------------------------------------------------comprehensive infrastructure needed to exchange B2B transactions with partners, translate business documents
between any of the many B2B e-commerce standards now in use, and provide reporting and visibility into B2B processes
and networks. This infrastructure should include:
a global B2B infrastructure that spans every major economic region in the world;
on-demand B2B data translation and delivery; and
B2B business process management and activity monitoring
------------------------------------------------------------The purpose of every e-business is to utilize technology in a way that enhances communication and the company's
profitability. Business-to-business (B2B) use of technology would enhance efficiency within the company's supply chain,
while business-to-consumer (B2C), also known as e-commerce, technologies would facilitate a transaction between a
company and its consumers.
Describe several (2 or more) B2B technologies and applications, and also describe several (2 or more) applications or
ways B2C can use technology that your pastry business could utilize as part of an e-business strategy.
Search the library and provide 2 research citations that illustrate examples of companies that are utilizing e-business
strategies (e.g., B2B, B2C), and discuss how your company could benefit from employing similar strategies.
Provide specific examples to support your points.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------3. What do you understand by a digital signature? Explain its application and verification diagrammatically.
A digital signature or digital signature scheme is a mathematical scheme for demonstrating the authenticity of a digital
message or document. A valid digital signature gives a recipient reason to believe that the message was created by a
known sender, and that it was not altered in transit. Digital signatures are commonly used for software distribution,
financial transactions, and in other cases where it is important to detect forgery or tampering.
Digital signatures are often used to implement electronic signatures, a broader term that refers to any electronic data that
carries the intent of a signature,[1] but not all electronic signatures use digital signatures.[2][3][4] In some countries, including
the United States, India, and members of the European Union, electronic signatures have legal significance. However,
laws concerning electronic signatures do not always make clear whether they are digital cryptographic signatures in the
sense used here, leaving the legal definition, and so their importance, somewhat confused.
Digital signatures employ a type of asymmetric cryptography. For messages sent through a nonsecure channel, a
properly implemented digital signature gives the receiver reason to believe the message was sent by the claimed sender.
Digital signatures are equivalent to traditional handwritten signatures in many respects; properly implemented digital
signatures are more difficult to forge than the handwritten type. Digital signature schemes in the sense used here are
cryptographically based, and must be implemented properly to be effective. Digital signatures can also provide nonrepudiation, meaning that the signer cannot successfully claim they did not sign a message, while also claiming their
private key remains secret; further, some non-repudiation schemes offer a time stamp for the digital signature, so that
even if the private key is exposed, the signature is valid nonetheless. Digitally signed messages may be anything
representable as a bitstring: examples include electronic mail, contracts, or a message sent via some other cryptographic
protocol.
A digital signature (not to be confused with a digital certificate) is an electronic signature that can be used to
authenticate the identity of the sender of a message or the signer of a document, and possibly to ensure that the original
content of the message or document that has been sent is unchanged. Digital signatures are easily transportable, cannot
be imitated by someone else, and can be automatically time-stamped. The ability to ensure that the original signed
message arrived means that the sender cannot easily repudiate it later.
A digital signature can be used with any kind of message, whether it is encrypted or not, simply so that the receiver can
be sure of the sender's identity and that the message arrived intact. A digital certificate contains the digital signature of the
certificate-issuing authority so that anyone can verify that the certificate is real.
How It Works
Assume you were going to send the draft of a contract to your lawyer in another town. You want to give your lawyer the
assurance that it was unchanged from what you sent and that it is really from you.
1.
2.

You copy-and-paste the contract (it's a short one!) into an e-mail note.
Using special software, you obtain a message hash (mathematical summary) of the contract.

3.

You then use a private key that you have previously obtained from a public-private key authority to encrypt the
hash.

4.

The encrypted hash becomes your digital signature of the message. (Note that it will be different each time you
send a message.)

At the other end, your lawyer receives the message.


1. To make sure it's intact and from you, your lawyer makes a hash of the received message.
2. Your lawyer then uses your public key to decrypt the message hash or summary.
3. If the hashes match, the received message is valid.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------4. WHAT ARE THE VARIOUS TYPES VIRUSES? WHAT CAN A VIRUS TO DO THE COMPUTER?
A computer virus can get into your computer and it tries to intersept infomation thats sent from your computer and
recived from your computer. It can also try and steal your personal infomation, such as passwords and PIN numbers. If
you do suspect you have a virus try not to use your credit card on the internet. Download a anti-virus a.s.a.p.
It can do a multitude of things, all harmful. Many viruses, which disguise themselves as tracking cookies, are meant to
allow access to personal information that you give out over the internet. If you are shopping and this happens, it can be
used for identity theft. Viruses can also slow down your computer significantly, erase information, destroy vital data, even
shut down your computer, but those are rather extreme ones and pretty rare.some viruses encrypt themselves in a
different every every time so it is impossible to find them using anti-virus as anti-virus uses a signature string to locate
them
computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself[1] and infect a computer. The term "virus" is also commonly but
erroneously used to refer to other types of malware, including but not limited to adware and spyware programs that do not
have the reproductive ability. A true virus can spread from one computer to another (in some form of executable code)
when its host is taken to the target computer; for instance because a user sent it over a network or the Internet, or carried
it on a removable medium such as a floppy disk, CD, DVD, or USB drive.Viruses can increase their chances of spreading
to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer.[3][4]
As stated above, the term "computer virus" is sometimes used as a catch-all phrase to include all types of malware, even
those that do not have the reproductive ability. Malware includes computer viruses, computer worms, Trojan horses, most
rootkits, spyware, dishonest adware and other malicious and unwanted software, including true viruses. Viruses are
sometimes confused with worms and Trojan horses, which are technically different. A worm can exploit security
vulnerabilities to spread itself automatically to other computers through networks, while a Trojan horse is a program that
appears harmless but hides malicious functions. Worms and Trojan horses, like viruses, may harm a computer system's
data or performance. Some viruses and other malware have symptoms noticeable to the computer user, but many are
surreptitious or simply do nothing to call attention to themselves. Some viruses do nothing beyond reproducing themselves.
TYPES OF VIRUSES
Introduction : There are thousands of viruses, and new ones are discovered every day. It is difficult to come up with a
generic explanation of how viruses work, since they all have variations in the way they infect or the way they spread. So
instead, we'll take some broad categories that are commonly used to describe various types of virus.
File Viruses (Parasitic Viruses) : File viruses are pieces of code that attach themselves to executable files, driver files or
compressed files, and are activated when the host program is run. After activation, the virus may spread itself by attaching
itself to other programs in the system, and also carry out the malevolent activity it was programmed for. Most file viruses
spread by loading themselves in system memory and looking for any other programs located on the drive. If it finds one, it
modifies the program's code so that it contains and activates the virus the next time it's run. It keeps doing this over and
over until it spreads across the system, and possibly to other systems that the infected program may be shared with.
Besides spreading themselves, these viruses also carry some type of destructive constituent that can be activated
immediately or by a particular 'trigger'. The trigger could be a specific date, or the number of times the virus has been
replicated, or anything equally trivial. Some examples of file viruses are Randex, Meve and MrKlunky.
Boot Sector Viruses : A boot sector virus affects the boot sector of a hard disk, which is a very crucial part. The boot
sector is where all information about the drive is stored, along with a program that makes it possible for the operating
system to boot up. By inserting its code into the boot sector, a virus guarantees that it loads into memory during every
boot sequence. A boot virus does not affect files; instead, it affects the disks that contain them. Perhaps this is the reason
for their downfall. During the days when programs were carried around on floppies, the boot sector viruses used to spread
like wildfire. However, with the CD-ROM revolution, it became impossible to infect pre-written data on a CD, which
eventually stopped such viruses from spreading. Though boot viruses still exist, they are rare compared to new age
malicious software. Another reason why they're not so prevalent is that operating systems today protect the boot sector,
which makes it difficult for them to thrive. Examples of boot viruses are Polyboot.B and AntiEXE.

Multipartite Viruses : Multipartite viruses are a combination of boot sector viruses and file viruses. These viruses come in
through infected media and reside in memory. They then move on to the boot sector of the hard drive. From there, the
virus infects executable files on the hard drive and spreads across the system. There aren't too many multipartite viruses
in existence today, but in their heyday, they accounted for some major problems due to their capacity to combine different
infection techniques. A significantly famous multipartite virus is Ywinz.
Macro Viruses : Macro viruses infect files that are created using certain applications or programs that contain macros.
These include Microsoft Office documents such as Word documents, Excel spreadsheets, PowerPoint presentations,
Access databases, and other similar application files such as Corel Draw, AmiPro, etc. Since macro viruses are written in
the language of the application, and not in that of the operating system, they are known to be platform-independent they
can spread between Windows, Mac, and any other system, so long as they're running the required application. With the
ever-increasing capabilities of macro languages in applications, and the possibility of infections spreading over networks,
these viruses are major threats.The first macro virus was written for Microsoft Word and was discovered back in August
1995. Today, there are thousands of macro viruses in existence-some examples are Relax, Melissa.A and Bablas.
Network Viruses : This kind of virus is proficient in quickly spreading across a Local Area Network (LAN) or even over the
Internet. Usually, it propagates through shared resources, such as shared drives and folders. Once it infects a new
system, it searches for potential targets by searching the network for other vulnerable systems. Once a new vulnerable
system is found, the network virus infects the other system, and thus spreads over the network. Some of the most
notorious network viruses are Nimda and SQLSlammer.
E-mail Viruses : An e-mail virus could be a form of a macro virus that spreads itself to all the contacts located in the host's
email address book. If any of the e-mail recipients open the attachment of the infected mail, it spreads to the new host's
address book contacts, and then proceeds to send itself to all those contacts as well. These days, e-mail viruses can
infect hosts even if the infected e-mail is previewed in a mail client. One of the most common and destructive e-mail
viruses is the ILOVEYOU virus.
There are many ways in which a virus can infect or stay dormant on your PC. However, whether active or dormant, it's
dangerous to let one loose on your system, and should be dealt with immediately.
-----------------------------------------------------------Computer Virus is a kind of malicious software written intentionally to enter a computer without the users permission or
knowledge, with an ability to replicate itself, thus continuing to spread. Some viruses do little but replicate others can
cause severe harm or adversely effect program and performance of the system. A virus should never be assumed
harmless and left on a system. Most common types of viruses are mentioned below:
Resident Viruses : This type of virus is a permanent which dwells in the RAM memory. From there it can overcome and
interrupt all of the operations executed by the system: corrupting files and programs that are opened, closed, copied,
renamed etc. Examples include: Randex, CMJ, Meve, and MrKlunky.
Direct Action Viruses : The main purpose of this virus is to replicate and take action when it is executed. When a
specific condition is met, the virus will go into action and infect files in the directory or folder that it is in and in directories
that are specified in the AUTOEXEC.BAT file PATH. This batch file is always located in the root directory of the hard disk
and carries out certain operations when the computer is booted.
Overwrite Viruses : Virus of this kind is characterized by the fact that it deletes the information contained in the files that
it infects, rendering them partially or totally useless once they have been infected. The only way to clean a file infected by
an overwrite virus is to delete the file completely, thus losing the original content. Examples of this virus include: Way,
Trj.Reboot, Trivial.88.D.
Boot Virus : This type of virus affects the boot sector of a floppy or hard disk. This is a crucial part of a disk, in which
information on the disk itself is stored together with a program that makes it possible to boot (start) the computer from the
disk.The best way of avoiding boot viruses is to ensure that floppy disks are write-protected and never start your computer
with an unknown floppy disk in the disk drive.
Examples of boot viruses include: Polyboot.B, AntiEXE.
Macro Virus : Macro viruses infect files that are created using certain applications or programs that contain macros.
These mini-programs make it possible to automate series of operations so that they are performed as a single action,
thereby saving the user from having to carry them out one by one.Examples of macro viruses: Relax, Melissa.A, Bablas,
O97M/Y2K.
Directory Virus : Directory viruses change the paths that indicate the location of a file. By executing a program (file with
the extension .EXE or .COM) which has been infected by a virus, you are unknowingly running the virus program, while

the original file and program have been previously moved by the virus. Once infected it becomes impossible to locate the
original files.
Polymorphic Virus : Polymorphic viruses encrypt or encode themselves in a different way (using different algorithms and
encryption keys) every time they infect a system. This makes it impossible for anti-viruses to find them using string or
signature searches (because they are different in each encryption) and also enables them to create a large number of
copies of themselves. Examples include: Elkern, Marburg, Satan Bug, and Tuareg.
File Infectors : This type of virus infects programs or executable files (files with an .EXE or .COM extension). When one
of these programs is run, directly or indirectly, the virus is activated, producing the damaging effects it is programmed to
carry out. The majority of existing viruses belong to this category, and can be classified depending on the actions that they
carry out.
Companion Viruses : Companion viruses can be considered file infector viruses like resident or direct action types. They
are known as companion viruses because once they get into the system they "accompany" the other files that already
exist. In other words, in order to carry out their infection routines, companion viruses can wait in memory until a program is
run (resident viruses) or act immediately by making copies of themselves (direct action viruses).
Some examples include: Stator, Asimov.1539, and Terrax.1069
FAT Virus : The file allocation table or FAT is the part of a disk used to connect information and is a vital part of the
normal functioning of the computer. This type of virus attack can be especially dangerous, by preventing access to certain
sections of the disk where important files are stored. Damage caused can result in information losses from individual files
or even entire directories.
Worms : A worm is a program very similar to a virus; it has the ability to self-replicate, and can lead to negative effects on
your system and most importantly they are detected and eliminated by antiviruses.
Examples of worms include: PSWBugbear.B, Lovgate.F, Trile.C, Sobig.D, Mapson.
Trojans or Trojan Horses : Another unsavory breed of malicious code are Trojans or Trojan horses, which unlike viruses
do not reproduce by infecting other files, nor do they self-replicate like worms.
Logic Bombs : They are not considered viruses because they do not replicate. They are not even programs in their own
right but rather camouflaged segments of other programs.Their objective is to destroy data on the computer once certain
conditions have been met. Logic bombs go undetected until launched, and the results can be destructive.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------5. WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE DOMAIN NAME SYSTEM (DNS)?
The Domain Name System (DNS) is a hierarchical naming system built on a distributed database for computers,
services, or any resource connected to the Internet or a private network. Most importantly, it translates domain names
meaningful to humans into the numerical identifiers associated with networking equipment for the purpose of locating and
addressing these devices worldwide.
An often-used analogy to explain the Domain Name System is that it serves as the phone book for the Internet by
translating human-friendly computer hostnames into IP addresses. For example, the domain name www.example.com
translates to the addresses 192.0.32.10 (IPv4) and 2620:0:2d0:200::10 (IPv6).
The Domain Name System makes it possible to assign domain names to groups of Internet resources and users in a
meaningful way, independent of each entity's physical location. Because of this, World Wide Web (WWW) hyperlinks and
Internet contact information can remain consistent and constant even if the current Internet routing arrangements change
or the participant uses a mobile device. Internet domain names are easier to remember than IP addresses such as
208.77.188.166 (IPv4) or 2001:db8:1f70::999:de8:7648:6e8 (IPv6). Users take advantage of this when they recite
meaningful Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) and e-mail addresses without having to know how the computer actually
locates them.
The Domain Name System distributes the responsibility of assigning domain names and mapping those names to IP
addresses by designating authoritative name servers for each domain. Authoritative name servers are assigned to be
responsible for their particular domains, and in turn can assign other authoritative name servers for their sub-domains.
This mechanism has made the DNS distributed and fault tolerant and has helped avoid the need for a single central
register to be continually consulted and updated.In general, the Domain Name System also stores other types of
information, such as the list of mail servers that accept email for a given Internet domain. By providing a worldwide,
distributed keyword-based redirection service, the Domain Name System is an essential component of the functionality of
the Internet.
A DNS sever is where the computer goes to translate a web address that you type in into a series of numbers and goes
to that address.So basically you type www.geekstogo.com into Internet Explorer (or any other web browser, it works in
exactly the same way). The browser goes to a DNS server either you've specified or it has been given. It converts
geekstogo.com into a series of numbers, in this case 72.232.135.12 and goes there.When you specify DNS servers in the
fashion you have, this is the order they're referred to when looking up IP addresses. Basically you go to a web site, the

computer asks (in your case) the server at 208.67.222.222 for the proper number. If this server doesn't give a number (for
example because its overloaded with requests or offline or generally not working) then the computer will ask the server at
208.67.220.220 for the site's IP. Then it just claims there is no page to find.You can add as many DNS servers as you like,
the computer will just work its way down the list trying to find a requested site's proper address before timing out. A
common scenario when connected to a provider is that the provider is so busy with its user-base the DNS servers get
overloaded. So you can connect but you can't go anywhere.
Name System, or DNS, makes browsing the Web simpler and more intuitive. It allows the tens of millions of computers
connected to the Internet to find one another and communicate efficiently. DNS also allows individual nations to identify
and optimize their websites for local populations, according to the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers.
Hierarchies : Domain names are grouped into a series of top-level domains or TLDs such as .com, .net, .org and .gov. In
addition, every country has its own TLD: for example, the TLD for the United States is ".us"; ".fr" represents France, ".in"
denotes India, and so on. The TLD appears at the end of the full domain name.
The second-level domain contains the name of the website. For example, in "ehow.com", the second-level domain name
is "ehow".The third-level domain, which appears at the beginning of some domain names, was used in the early days of
the World Wide Web to signify that the domain was either a website (represented by ".www") or a file transfer site (".ftp").
The third-level domain is now used to signify any sub-domain, which is often just a sub-section of a particular website.
Convenience : Without DNS, people wishing to access a particular online resource would have to know the IP address or
would be required to look it up. The IP address is a cumbersome series of three-digit numbers separated by dots or
decimal points. The DNS system automatically converts these long numbers into convenient domain names that humans
can easily use and remember.
Optimized Service : The top-level domain often indicates the nation of origin through a two-character abbreviation. The
ability to recognized websites by country allows national registry operators to apply the best mix of linguistic and cultural
policies for those domains, thereby optimizing websites for convenient access by users in each nation

AMITY SCHOOL OF DISTANCE LEARNING, Post Box No. 503, Sector-44 , Noida 201303
E-Commerce, Assignment A
Marks 10
Answer all questions.
1. Explain why B2B and B2C initiatives require different IT infrastructures.
2. What are the three stages of the new technology adoption curve or S-curve? And what stage do many experts believe
e-commerce is entering?
3. What do you understand by a digital signature? Explain its application and verification diagrammatically.
4. What are the various types viruses? What can a virus to do the computer?
5. What is the purpose of the domain name system (DNS)?
E-Commerce, Assignment B
Answer all questions.
1. What is one of the benefits of layering to a complex system?
2. What is the difference between a web site and a portal?
3. What is the most valuable function of the proxy server?

Marks 10

Case Study
Information Management in E Commerce
ABC Ltd is a manufacturer of mobile handsets. It has its manufacturing plant in Bangalore and its offices and retail outlets
in different cities in India and abroad. The organization wants to have information systems connecting all the above
facilities and also providing access to its suppliers as well as customers.

Questions:
a) Discuss various issues in developing information systems and fulfilling information needs at different levels in the
organization.
b) Explain different security threats in the context of e-commerce for the above company.

E-Commerce , Assignment C
Marks 10
Tick Marks () the most appropriate answer

Answer all questions.

1.The primary focus of most B2C applications is generating ____.


a. Revenue
b. Product
c. Service

2.

Which is most significant for web based advertisers?


a . Impressions
b. Page Views

d. Web Site

c. Click Thoughts

d. Hits

3.Digital products are particularly appealing for a company's bottom line because ofa. The freedom from the law of diminishing returns
b. The integration of the value chain.
c. The increase in brand recognition.
d. The changes they bring to the industry.

4.

The differences between B2B and B2C exchanges include


a) Size of customer set
b) Transaction volume
c) Form of payment
d) Level of customization on products/services
A. a and b
B. a, b, and c
C. b and c
D. All of the above

5.What is the most significant part of e-commerce: a. B2B


6.Security-and-risk services include-a. Firewalls & policies for remote access
c. Disaster planning and recovery

b. B2E

c. B2C

b. Encryption and use of passwords


d. All of the above

d. C2C

e. a & b only

7.Business Plans are important when trying to find capital to start up your new business. Important elements of a
business plan include:
a. Sales And Marketing
b. Human resources handbook
c. Business description
d. a and c
8.Based on the study, in the supply side initiatives, which of the following clusters was the only one found to be critical
enterprise-wide?
a. IT management
b. Communications
c. Data management
d. IT-architecture-and-standards
9.E-commerce increases competition by: erasing geographical boundaries, empowering customers and suppliers,
commoditizing new products, etc. How do companies usually solve this problem?
a. By competing on price
b. By selling only through traditional channels.
c. By lowering costs
d. By creating attractive websites
10.
On which form of e-commerce does Dell Computer Corporation rely in conducting its business? a. B2E
b. B2C
c. B2B
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
11.
What is the 'last mile' in the last mile problem? The link between your...
a. Computer and telephone
b. Home and telephone provider's local office
c. Office and server
d. Home and internet service provider
12.
Which of the following is a function of a proxy server?
a. Maintaining a log of transactions
b. Caching pages to reduce page load times

c. Performing virus checks


e. All of the above

d. Forwarding transactions from a user to the appropriate server

13.
An example of the supply chain of commerce is :
a. A company turns blocks of wood into pencils.
b. A department supplies processed data to another department within a company.
c. A consumer purchases canned vegetables at the store.
d. None of the above

14. Just after your customers have accepted your revolutionary new e-commerce idea, which of the following is not
expected to immediately happen?
a. Competitor catch-up moves
b. Commoditization
c. First-mover expansion
d. none of the above
15.
Which of the following statements about E-Commerce and E-Business is true?
a. E-Commerce involves buying and selling over the internet while E-Business does not.
b. E-Commerce is B2C (business to consumer) while E-Business is B2B (business to business).
c. E-Business is a broader term that encompasses E-Commerce (buying and selling) as well as doing other forms of
business over the internet.
d. None of the above.
16.
Where do CGI (Common Gateway Interface) application programs or scripts run?
a. On the client through a web browser
b. On the client through temporary stored files
c. On the web server
d. Where the user installs them e. None of the above
17 In which model the application logic is partitioned among the clients and multiple specialized servers?
1. Two tier 2. Three tier
3. N tier
Options:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 2 & 3
d. 3
17.
What of the following are the 3 types of web information system logic?
a. Presentation, business, information/data
b. Presentation, information/data, active server pages
c. Business, information/data, client/server
d. None
19.
Software, music, digitized images, electronic games, pornography can be revenue sources for the B2C e-commerce
a. Selling services
b. Doing customization
c. Selling digital products d. Selling physical products
20. What e-commerce category is the largest in terms of revenue?
a. Business to Business (B2B)
b. Intra-Business (B2E)
c. Business to Consumer (B2C)
d. Consumer to Consumer (C2C)

21.

An application layer protocol, such as FTP or HTTP, is transparent to the end user.
a) Always
b) Never
c) Sometimes
d) None Of Above

22.

B2B & B2C IT initiatives can use the same E-Commerce platforms
a) Always
b) Never
c) Sometimes
d) None Of Above

23.

B2B involves small, focused customer set with large transaction volume per customer, periodic consolidated
payments and significant customizations of products and services
a) Always
b) Never
c) Sometimes
d) None Of Above

24.
Two computers can communicate using different communication protocols.
a) Always
b) Never
c) Sometimes
d) None Of Above
25.
Which is/are types of e commerce?
a)B2B
b) B2C
c) C2C

d) All the above

26.
Which of the following items is used to protect your computer from unwanted intruders?
a. A cookie. b. A browser.
c. A firewall.
d. A server.
27.
For selling physical products on the Internet, what is the key to profitability?
a. Hook
b. Cost Control c. Brand Recognition
d. Customization

28.
Which of the following B2C companies is the best example of achieving its financial success through controlling
its cost?
a. Yahoo
b. Amazon
c. E-Bay
d. Google
e. None of the above
29.

AsianAvenue.com, BlackVoices.com, iVillage.com, SeniorNet.org are all examples of what?


a. Intermediary Services websites
b. Physical Communities
c. B2C websites
d. Virtual Communities

30.
Which of the following is the least attractive product to sell online?
a. Downloadable music
b. Software
c. A pda
d. Electronic stock trading

31.

In the e-mail address jgreen03@gsm.uci.edu what is the top-level domain


a. gsm
b. uci
c. edu

32.
What do you think cookies do
a. They are threat to privacy
c. They personalize user's webpage

b. The help the user not to repeat some input info


d. B and c
e. All of the above

33.
Much of Amazon.com's initial success can be attributed to which of the following:
a. Low prices b. Brand recognition
c. Fast web connections
d. Customer service
34.

It is particularly difficult to maintain the competition advantage based on ________.


a. Quality
b. Efficiency
c. Price
d. Internal Cost Reduction

e. Brand

35.
What type of application has the potential to change a market or even create a new market?
a. Software application
b. Intelligent application
c. Killer application
d. Business application
36.
Why did the e-commerce boom, as evidenced by soaring stock prices of Internet businesses such as Pets.com
and e Toys, went bust in 2000?
a. Websites started by techies who lack business knowledge b. Lack of good business model
c. Investors' and entrepreneurs' greed and ignorance
d. All of the above
37.
. Why can't new connection infrastructure like DSL, Cable Modem, and fiber optics solve the last mile problem?
a. Availability
b. Cost
c. Distance
d. All of the Above

38.

These are all the uses of plug-ins except?


I. Air fresheners
II. Speed up data transmission
III. Enhance browser capability
IV. To view different file types
a) I and II

b) III and IV

c) I

d) I and IV

39.
A system with universally accepted standards for storing, retrieving, formatting, and displaying information in a
networked environment best defines:
a) A web site.
b) A web location.
c) The World Wide Web.
d) An intranet.
40.
What's the real potential of e-commerce?
a) Making a profit
b) Generating Revenue
c) Improving efficiency
d) Buying and selling on the internet and WWW

AMITY SCHOOL OF DISTANCE LEARNING , Post Box No. 503, Sector-44 , Noida 201303
Environmental Management , Assignment A
Marks 10
Answer all questions.
1. Explain what is industrial ecology? How can you implement the concept of industrial ecology in any organization?

2.
3.

How can environmental management help achieve sustainable growth?


How TQM can help in achieving targets of environmental management?

4.
5.

Write a note on Global Environmental Problems, and what should be the role of an individual in solving them?
Write short note on any three of the following.
a. Basic principles of ISO 14000.
b. Role of Environmental Audit.
c. Sustainable Development
d. Environmental Laws in Indian context
e. Fly Ash Utilization in thermal power stations.

ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT, ASSIGNMENT B

Marks 10

Answer all questions.


1. What do you understand by Carbon Credits? How carbon credits can help companies increase their earnings?
2. What are the major issues discussed under Kyoto Protocol? What are the various mechanisms under Kyoto Protocol
and which among these is of use to developing countries and how?
3. What do you understand by air pollution, what are the major causes of air pollution in India? Explain the initiatives
taken by Indian Government in this regard for controlling the air pollution in cities?

CASE STUDY
ECONOMY & ECOLOGY

The hills of Ranikhet situated in the state of Utranchal a part of Kumaun hills, have a scenic beauty and
support many of the species of flora and fauna, the small rivulets and springs create a splendid environment.
The forests also have some of the exotic species of flowers and a range of medicinal plants. The local
community lives a simple life dependent on the tourism and the forests for the medicinal plants and other
minor forest products. The biodiversity of Ranikhet is well protected from the external influences and the
anthropocentric activities.
The new government plans to encourage tourism sector and related infrastructure growth aimed at
economic and industrial development of the area through promoting Ranikhet as tourist destination and
licensing industrial establishments in Ranikhet. Government is proposing to set up star hotels and travel
agencies and granting licenses to manufacturing companies to establish their plants in Ranikhet with the
special tax subsidies for period of 5 years. According to the preliminary estimates it is hoped to achieve
approximately 27% increase in the earning through creating employment opportunities and improving the local
economic standards. Government has invited various large organizations to participate in the projects, and
everyone is looking with great expectations.
Questions
1. What are the implications of such projects on the ecosystem of the Ranikhet?
2. Do you think EIA is necessary? If yes how will you conduct the EIA for the above projects
3. How can you use tourism to uplift the local community without disturbing the ecology of the place
4. Setting up of manufacturing plants to bring development is right strategy? Comment.

ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT , ASSIGNMENT C


Answer all questions.
Tick Marks () the most appropriate answer
1. Place where an organism lives under natural condition-Forest.
Ecosystem.
Habitat.

Marks 10

Environment.

2. Communities and population living together and interacting with physical and chemical elements of their environmentEnvironment.

Ecosystem.

Habitat.

Surroundings.

3. The transfer of food and nutrition from its sources through a series of organism by way of eating and being eaten
away is known as--

Food Cycle.

Food Chain.

Food link.

Nutrition Cycle.

4. Industrial ecology-a. Works similar to biological ecosystem.


b. Is based on principle of recycling of the materials and regeneration of it.
c. Is based on the study of acquiring the material, processing using and disposing of the product manufactured by
a company.
d. All the above.
5. Rain water harvesting is a technique to-Harvest the fields with rain water.

Collect the rain water in tanks for future use.

Collect the rain water and drain in the rivers.

Let pass the rain water to underground to increase the water table.

6. Carbon foot printing is-The set of green houses gas emissions caused by an organization, event or production.
The carbon dioxide emissions caused by an organization, event or production.
The damage to environment done by the organization, event or production.
None of the above.

7. One carbon credit is-One ton of carbon dioxide emitted in the environment by an organization by any of its activities
One ton of carbon dioxide emission or equivalent GHG emission reduced by the organization in any of its activities.
Selling of coal in the market by developing nation to develop nations on credit
Total amount of Carbon dioxide emitted by the organization in a period.

8. Global warming is-Increase in the average temperature of earth due to changes in climate.
Increase in the average temperature of earth due to increase in burning of fossil fuel.
Increase in the average temperature of earth due to increase in Green House Gases in the environment
due to human activities.
Increase in the average temperature of earth due to wars.

9. Ozone gas is-A compound of oxygen having the formula O3, toxic in nature and covers thinly the stratosphere of earth and
absorbs the harmful effect of UV B rays coming from sun.
A compound of oxygen having the formula O2, covers thinly the stratosphere of earth and absorbs the harmful
effect of UV B rays coming from sun.
A compound of oxygen having the formula O3, present in the lower levels of atmosphere and absorbs the harmful
effect of UV B rays coming from sun.
A compound of oxygen which is required for breathing for living organism.

10. Green house effect is--

11.

The increase in temperature due to excessive solar energy entering the earth due to ozone hole.
The increase in temperature due to excessive burning of fuel for the generation of power.
The gases like methane, carbon oxide absorbing the radiated infra rays from earth and decreasing the out
flow of heat energy from earths atmosphere thereby increasing the temperature.
A house covered from outside to insulate and protect the temperature of the room.
The Kyoto Protocol was signed-To reduce the GHG green house gas emissions by the nation causing global warming.
To phase out production and use of ODS ozone depletion substance mainly cfcs.
To regulate the cross border movement of Hazardous waste.
To sign the agreement of GATT.

12. EIA involves-Assessment of existing environment, analysis of various factors of ecosystem and adverse impact of the project
on it and on the people of the surrounding.
Assessment of the economic and social benefits which a project will yield after implementation.
Assessment of the impact of the proposed project on the environment in general sense.
Assessment of the impact of the proposed project on the habitats of the animals living nearby.

13. Paul Erlich equation for environmental impact, I = PxAxT where I = impact on environment and P, A and T stands for-Population, Atmosphere and Temperature.
Population, Affluence and Temperature.

Population, Affluence (consumption) and Technology coefficient.


Population Atmosphere and Technology coefficient.

14. Non conventional resources of energy are-Energy sources like fossil fuel and coal, which are available as deposits under earth.
All energy sources which are exhaustible in nature and scarce available.
Sources of energy which can be used again and again without getting exhausted like water energy, solar energy,
wind energy etc.
None of the above.

15. The benefits of Environment Assessment are--

Increased project acceptance.


Improved project performance.
All the above.

Avoided impacts and violations of laws and regulations.


Avoided treatment/clean up costs.

16. EMS Environment Management System can be defined as-Comprehensive, organized and documented system for an organization to manage all its actions that effect environment.
Certification by any environmental agencies to show itself as environmental friendly organization.
Marketing only green/ environmental products.

A system to find impact of environment on the organization.

17. The problem arising due to construction of Dam or Reservoir is-Changes in downstream morphology of riverbed and banks, delta, estuary and coastline due to altered sediment load.
Changes in downstream water quality: effects on river temperature, nutrient load, turbidity, dissolved gases,
concentration of heavy metals and minerals.
Reduction of biodiversity due to blocking of movement of organisms.
All the above.

18. Basel convention deals with-he level of air pollution of the metro cities of the world.
The transboundary movement of Hazardous Waste and their Disposal.
The transboundary movement of Ozone Depletion Substance ODS across the world.
Non proliferation of nuclear technology across the world.

19. The Montreal Protocol was signed-To reduce the GHG green house gas emissions by the nation causing global warming.
To phase out production and use of ozone depletion substance mainly CFCs.
To regulate the cross border movement of Hazardous waste.
To sign the agreement GATT.

20. ISO 14000 deals with-General guidelines on principles of EMS.


Guideline for environmental auditing or General principle of auditing.
Guidelines for certification.
Life cycle assessment.
21. To facilitate participation of developing nations in Kyoto Protocol the concept of Clean Development Mechanism
(CDM) was adopted which is-The developed nations will help the developing nations in reducing their carbon emission.
The developed nations will finance equipment, bring investment to the developing nation so that they can develop them.
The developed nations will finance equipment, bring investment in the developing nation for infrastructure, water and
forest conservation and in exchange they will receive the credit of environment protection by carbon credits gained
by the developing nations.
The developed nations will finance developing nations in reducing GHG gases so as to reduce global warming.

22. Landfill is a place where-Usually the biodegradable waste is dumped and it decomposes in to store of manure.
Any kind of waste is dumped and is left there as place for disposal was not available.
There is deep trench and waste is used to fill the trench.
The water resource is filled by waste to create land.

23. Incineration is a process-Of burning solid waste to reduce it to ashes, thereby using its volume.
Of compressing solid waste under soil to convert it into manure.

Of treatment of waste water before disposal.


All of the above.

24. The two major causes of air pollution in India are-Transport and households.
Industry and house holds.

25. Recycling of material has following benefits--

Transport and power generation.


Transport and agriculture.

Reduction in waste.
Reduction in waste and ecological impact.
Reduction in waste, ecological impact, cost of production.
Reduction in waste, ecological impact, cost of production and increased in customer satisfaction due to improved reputation.

26. Minamata disease is caused by the pollution of--

Arsenic

Lead

Mercury

Copper

27. Carbon dioxide, Methane, Chlorofluorocarbons and Nitrous Oxide represent the group:
Ozone Depleting Substance
Suspended Particulate Matter

Green House Gases


None of the above

28. Biogas is fuel generated by-Activity of aerobic bacteria on biodegradable waste, the main gas is Hydrogen
Activity of anaerobic bacteria on biodegradable waste like cow dung etc, the main gas is methane
Natural gas extracted from the petroleum refining process
Burning of fossil fuel like coal etc

29. The harmful effect of UV rays entering earths atmosphere due to ozone depletion-Increase in average temperature of earth
Skin cancer and cataract in humans and damage in photosynthesis process of plants
Skin cancer and cataract in humans and increase in the average temperature of the earth
None of the above

30. The characteristics of any ecological system is-Static, diverse and self regulating
Dynamic, fixed and controlled by external factors

Dynamic, diverse and self regulating


Dynamic and diverse but can not have self regulating mechanism

31. The objective of Earth Summit 1992 held in Rio de Janeiro was-Environment and sustainable development
Poverty as well as excessive consumption by affluent population damaging environment
To create awareness about the fact that economic development should not be on the cost of environmental costs
All the above

32. Agenda 21 is the document signed-At Kyoto by nations to control of Green House Gas emissions
At Montreal by nations to control of Ozone Depleting Substances
At Rio by nations to act in the areas of sustainable development
At Johannesburg by nations to act for controlling trade of hazardous wastes

33:The major reason of environmental problems is related to population growth, the major reasons for population
growth are
Increase in the birthrate, lifespan due to better nutrition and health services, decrease in mortality rate.
Decrease in the birth rate, improved health services, decrease in child mortality rate and increase in lifespan
due to better nutrition.
Increased in birthrate and decrease in child mortality rate, improved health services.
Increase in birthrate and increased life span.

34. Environmental Accounting is a process which involves-To ascertain the impact of environment on the balance sheet of the organization.
To identify the stages in lca( life cycle assessment) for cost reduction.
To allocate the environmental costs in the process of fixing prices of the product and services.
To support sustainable practices in business.
All the above.

35. Total quality management can help the company achieving its environmental targets by-Improving the quality of goods and services and reducing costs of operation

By improving the processes of manufacturing at all level and improving quality of goods and services, reducing
costs of operation, reducing wastages and finding better means of production
Standardizing the processes to achieve consistent performance there by reducing costs of operation.
Only a marketing gimmick and an operational strategy doesnt hold any commitment to environmental management

36. Environmental protection industry is the industry-Manufacturing, marketing in Technology, machinery or tools or equipments required by industry/ individual in
reducing environmental impact or pollution.
Companies implementing Environmental Management Systems.
NGO creating awareness in the society towards environmental concerns
Companies trying to protect environment by manufacturing or marketing green products.

37. Photosynthesis is process-Light energy is captured by solar cell which can be converted in to electricity.
Solar energy is used by the plants in synthesis of water and carbon dioxide to generate food for itself.
Light energy absorbed by green house gases which maintain the temperature of the earth.
All of the above.

38. The maximum store of potable water is locked in-Glaciers at the north and South Pole.

Rivers.

Sea and oceans.

Ground water.

39. Organic agricultural products are those products-Which are cultivated with the help of organic manure
Which are cultivated without the use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, weedicides etc?
Which are gathered from jungles
Which are cultivated only with the help of rain water, without the use of pesticides and weedicides

40. Hazardous waste coming from hospital and other health service industry is known as-Toxic waste

Biological solid waste

Biomedical waste

Solid Municipal Waste

AMITY SCHOOL OF DISTANCE LEARNING


Post Box No. 503, Sector-44,
ASSIGNMENT No. ADL-32
Subject Name & Code : PERFORMANCE APPRAISAL AND POTENTIAL EVALUATION (ADL-32)
Study Centre :
Enroll No. :
Date

ASSIGNMENT INSTRUCTION

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.

Total weightage given to these assignment is 30%


All assignments are to be completed in your own hand writing
All questions are required to be attempted
Three assignments i.e. A, B & C are to be answered. Assignment A will carry Five subjective
questions (10 marks). Assignment B will carry three subjective questions with a Case Study
(10 marks) and Assignment C will carry Forty objective type questions (10 marks)
All the three assignments are to be completed by due dates (specified from time to time) and
mailed/ given by hand for evaluation at the ASoDL office Noida/ your Study Centre.
The evaluated assignments can be collected from your study center/ ASoDL Office after Six

weeks. Thereafter these will be destroyed at the end of each semester.

Signature : _______________________
Name

: _______________________

Date

: _______________________

( ) Tick mark in front of the assignments submitted.


Assignment A

Assignment B

Assignment C

AMITY SCHOOL OF DISTANCE LEARNING , Post Box No. 503, Sector-44 , Noida 201303
PERFORMANCE APPRAISAL AND POTENTIAL EVALUATION
Assignment A
Marks 10
Answer all questions.
1. 360 degree appraisal method has its own short-comings. Discuss. Also point out the merits of this method.
2. Enlist the modern methods of performance appraisal. Which of these do you prefer the most and why? Give reasons.
3. Discuss, in brief, the role of coaching and counseling in improving performance of employees.
4. How can the relationship between performance and pay be instrumental in improving performance in an organization?
5. Distinguish between Performance Appraisal and Potential Evaluation. Also discuss, in brief, the methods of Potential
evaluation.
ASSIGNMENT B
MARKS 10
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.
1. What precautions should be taken while designing performance appraisal system so that it may serve the desired
purpose? Discuss in detail.
2 .No performance appraisal method will serve the desired purpose until and unless it is followed by post-review
discussion Discuss.
3. Write short notes on any three of the following:
Emerging issues in performance management
Competency Mapping.
HRD and performance appraisal.
Role Clarity.
4. Case study: Please read the case study given below and answer questions given at the end.
CASE STUDY
PERFORMANCE APPRAISAL AT KALYANI ELECTRONICS CORPORATION
Kalyani Electronics Corporation Ltd., recently diversified its activities and started producing computers. It
employed personnel at the lower level and middle level. It has received several applications for the post of
Commercial Manager-Computer Division. It could not decide upon the suitability of the candidates to the position, but
did find that Mr. Prakash is more qualified for the position than other candidates. The Corporation has created a new
post below the cadre of General Manager i.e. Joint General Manager and asked Mr. Prakash to join the Corporation

as Joint General Manager. Mr. Prakash agreed to it viewing that he will be considered for General Managers position
based on his performance. Mr. Anand, the Deputy General Manager of the Corporation and one of the candidates of
General Managers position was annoyed with the managements practice. But, he wanted to show his performance
record to the management at the next appraisal meeting. The management of the Corporation asked Mr. Sastry,
General Manager of Televisions Division to be the General Manager in-charge of Computer Division for some time,
until a new General Manager is appointed. Mr. Sastry wanted to switch over to Computer Division in view of the
prospects, prestige and recognition of the position among the top management of the Corporation. He viewed this
assignment as a chance to prove his performance.
The Corporation has the system of appraisal of the superiors performance by the subordinates. The performance
of the Deputy General Manager, Joint General Manager and General Manager has to be appraised by the same
group of the subordinates. Mr. Anand and Mr. Sastry know very well about the system and its operation, whereas Mr.
Prakash is a stranger to the system as well as its modus operandi. Mr. Sastry and Mr. Anand were competing with
each other in convincing their subordinates about their performance and used all sorts of techniques for pleasing them
like promising them a wage hike, transfers to the job of their interest, promotion, etc. However, these two officers
functioned in collaboration with a view to pull down Mr. Prakash. They openly told their subordinates that a stranger
should not occupy the chair. They created several groups among employees like pro-Anands group, pro-Sastry
group, Anti-Prakash and Sastry group, Anti-Anand and Prakash group.
Mr. Prakash has been watching the proceedings calmly and keeping the top management in touch with all these
developments. However, Mr. Prakash has been quite work-conscious and top management found his performance
under such a political atmosphere to be satisfactory. Prakashs pleasing manners and way of maintaining human
relations with different levels of employees did, however, prevent the emergence of an anti-Prakash wave in the
company. But in view of the political atmosphere within the company, there is no strong pro-Prakashs group either.
Management administered the performance appraisal technique and the subordinates appraised the performance
of all these managers. In the end, surprisingly, the workers assigned the following overall scores. Prakash: 560 points;
Sastry: 420 points; and Anand: 260 points.
QUESTIONS:
1. How do you evaluate the workers appraisal in this case?
2. Do you suggest any techniques to avert politics creeping into the process of performance appraisal by subordinates?
Or do you suggest the measure of dispensing with such appraisal systems?
Assignment C (Objective Questions)
Answer all questions

Marks 10

Tick Marks () the most appropriate answer


1. Which of the following is not the aim of performance appraisal?
(a) To make compensation plans more scientific and rational.
(c) To identify the needs of training

(b) To select the best candidates


(d) To identify potentialities for other work

2. Which of the following is not a traditional and highly scientific method of performance appraisal?
(a) Critical Incident Method
(b) Point Method
(c) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
(d) Man-to-Man comparison
3. Which of the following is not one of the modern methods of performance appraisal?
(a) 3600 Techniques
(b) Human resource accounting
(c) Grading Method

(d) BARS

4. In the paired comparison technique of performance appraisal, which of the following formulae is applied ?
No. of comparison = N-(N-1)
No. of comparison = N -(N-1)
----------------------------131
1
No. of comparison = N-(N-1)
-------------2

No. of comparison = N (N-1)


---------------2

5. Which of the following statements regarding MBO is not true?


(a) There is no special provision in MBO for appraising of progress by both the appraiser and the appraised.
(b) MBO has a special provision for mutual goal setting
(c) MBO has emerged as a reaction to the traditional management practices
(d) MBO is based on behavioural value of fundamental trust in the goodness of human beings.
6.

360 Degree Technique does not evaluate the managers quality of interaction with:
(a) Customers
(b) Peers
(c) Subordinates
(d) Bosses

7.

360 Degree Technique does not play any important role in:
(a) Unfolding strengths and weaknesses in the managing style of assessee
(b) Boosting the morale of assessee
(c) Revealing truths about organizational culture and ambience
(d) Forcing inflexible managers to initiate self-change

8. Which of the following statement about 360 degree technique is not true?
(a) Assessees usually deny the truth of negative feedback
(b) Linking findings to rewards may be unfair
(c) Can be used to humiliate assessee(s)
(d) Can be used in writing job descriptions
9. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the process of constructing BARS?
(a) Collecting critical incidents
(b) Forcing choice descriptions
(c) Reclassification of incidents
(d) Identifying performance dimensions
10. Which of the following is not a modern method of performance appraisal?
(a) Human Resource Accounting
(b) Graphic Rating Scale Method
(c) MBO
(d) Self-evaluation
11. Which of the following is not one of the limitations and constraints of performance appraisal?
(a) Psychological Blocks
(b) Economic Blocks
(c) Technical Pit Falls
(d) Faulty Assumptions
12. Which of the following is not one of the distortions involved in performance evaluation?
(a) Halo effect
(b) Special tendency
(c) Raters liking and disliking
13. Which of the following is not a method of potential evaluation?
(a) Review Appraisal
(b) Philips NV Holland Model
(c) Descriptive Evaluation

(d) Constant errors


(d) Psychometric Tests

14. Which of the following is not included in the 2x2 matrix used in Philips Hi-Lo Model of potential evaluation?
Developers
Problem Children
Stars
Planned Separation
15 Which of the following four qualities is generally not included while preparing 5-point scale for potential evaluation in
Philips NV Holland Model?
Training effectiveness
Operational effectiveness
Interpersonal effectiveness
Achievement motivation
16. Which of the following is not considered as one of the best practices of potential evaluation?
(a) Rewarding for good performance in the past
(b) Communicating potential appraisal to all employees regularly
(c) Incorporating the appraisal and reward of potential in the assessment system
(d) Ensuring to distinguish reward for potential from reward for past performance.
17. As per Mihir, K Basus Survey, the appraisal system for managerial personnel in the Tata Iron & Steel Company
(TISCO ) was introduced in :
1943
1953
1963
1973
18. Which of the following factors does not influence the measurement of work performance?
(a) Situational characteristics
(b) Individual Characteristics
(c) Image of the company
(d) Performance Management Procedures
19. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Job analysis is the basic for performance standards
(b) Subjective measures in performance appraisal are most desirable
(c)Using multiple raters improves performance
(d) Rating scales are particularly subject to bias
20. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) 360 degree appraisal compare ratees to one another
(b) Assessment Centers assessment is desirable when raters rate practically all employees above average
(c) Rating in BARS is in behavioural terms
(d) Narrative essay is the order of ranking from best to worst
21. Which of the following is not the major issue in performance appraisal?
(a) Performance Criteria
(b) Reward criteria

(c) Purpose & appraisal system

(d) Measurement technique

22. The basis for performance standard is:


(a) Job analysis
(b) Employees

(c) HR Plans

23. Performance appraisals serve as building blocks of:


(a) Manpower Planning
(b) Job analysis

(d) Compensation Plan


(c) Career Planning

24. Which of the following is a future-oriented appraisal technique?


(a) MBO
(b) BARS
(c) Rating Scales

(d) Selection

(d) Field Review Method

25. Which of the following technique is least susceptible to personal bias?


(a) BARS

(b) Forced Choice

(c) Rating Scales

26. A disadvantage of rating scale is :


(a) Feedback
(b) Quantification of scores

(d) Check Lists

(c) Time involved

27. Which of the following is not the typical Rater error?


(a) Stereo Typing
(b) Same as me
(c) Horn effect

(d) Cost.

(d) Desire to be accepted

28. Which step of the following should not be involved in the review of performance appraisal?
(a) Immediate Superior-subordinate Review.
(b) Deciding compensation
(c) Monitoring, Auditing and Appeals
(d) Review by Higher Levels of Management

29. Which, according to N.F.R. Maier, of the following is not included in the seven accomplishments of good counseling?
Availability of expert knowledge
Conformity of solution with value system
Identifying threats
Development of responsibility
30. Which of the following is not one of the key elements of performance appraisal which can be achieved through an
effective appraisal discussion?
Exchange of views
Agreement
Feedback
Disenchantment
31. Which of the following is not one of the main sub-processes of counseling?
(a) Communication
(b) Autonomy
(c) Helping

(d) Influencing

32. Which of the following is not involved in Communication?


(a) Listening
(b) Responding
(c) Empathy

(d) Feedback

33. Which of the following is not included in influencing?


(a) Autonomy
(b) Positive Re-enforcement

(c) Mutuality

34. Which of the following is not involved in helping?


(a) Positive Re-enforcement
(b) Mutuality

(d) Identification

(c) Empathy

(d) Development

35. Which of the following is not one of the key aspects of conducting Appraisal Discussion?
(a) Summation
(b) Attending
(c) Progression
(d) Acceptance

36. Which of the following is not one of the three distinct aspects which can be identified in Action Planning?
Positive Requirement

Management Support

Decision Making

Searching

37.Which of the following is not one of the steps essential for development and introduction of performance appraised
system?
Deterring an overall approach to performance appraised system
Appropriate compensating the Project Team

Setting up project team


Pilot testing

38. Which of the following is not the purpose of self-appraisal?


(a) Orienting the employee regarding the intricacies of performance appraisal system
(b) Providing a formal opportunity for the employee to recapitulate.

(c) Identifying his own development needs


(d) Initiating an organization-wide process of review and reflection and supportive climate

39. Which is not the advantage of 360 degree appraisal?


(a) Requires extensive training
(c) Increases accountability of employees to customers

(b) Is more objective being multi-rater based


(d) Increases credibility of performance appraisal

40. Which of the following is not the new performance measure that Godrej & Boyce has identified?
(a) Networking Capital Returns
(c) Volume of Business Growth

(b) Return on Investment


(d) Net contribution of the Division

AMITY SCHOOL OF DISTANCE LEARNING , Post Box No. 503, Sector-44 , Noida 201303 ,
Recruitment, Selection and Retention
Assignment A ,

Marks 10

Answer all questions.


1 Job analysis is basically a process of data collection, Discuss. Also point out the sources of job information, and the
seven basic areas in which job analysis provides information.
2. Job description and job specification are the twin products of job analysis. Discuss. Also point out the process of
job description.
3. Do you agree that job specification is the statement of minimum acceptable human qualities necessary to perform a
job properly? Yes or no, why? Also throw light on the contents of job specification for the posts of HR Manager to be
recruited in an organization employing 5000 employees.
4.Identify the main stages in the process of selection, especially if the candidates have to be selected for the posts of
Vice President (HR) and Sr. Vice President (HR).
5 In the present era of information technology, the role of internet in recruitment hardly needs any elaboration. Justify
the statement.

Assignment B
Marks 10
Answer all questions.
1. Interviews are the most used, misused and abused tool in the process of selection. Discuss. Also point out the
methods of interviewing.
2. What is meant by Retention Management? Also discuss in brief, the steps that need to be taken to retain people in
the organization.
3. Short notes on any three of the following:
b) The Decision Theory Approach.
e) Application Blank.

a) Job analysis in a jobless world.


c) FIRO-B
d) Designing performance appraisal system.

4. Case study: Please read the case study given below and answer questions given at the end.

CASE STUDY
Growing Minds, Inc. is a national chain of retail outlets specializing in creative toys and innovative learning materials for
children. The company caters to the upper end of the market and focuses on customer service for a competitive
advantage. It provides workshops for parents and children on topic such as learning with the computer and indoor
gardening and offers crafts classes ranging from papier-mch to pottery.
Growing Minds plans to expand and to open five new retail outlets in the coming quarter. This may mean up to 200 new
hires, and the executive team wants to make sure that the best propel are hired and retained. It has issued a challenge to
its retail management personnel to design a staffing process that will accomplish these goals.
The childrens market in which Growing Minds operates demands service personnel who are endlessly patient;
knowledgeable about children, toys, and learning; and, perhaps most important, sociable, enthusiastic, and engaging.
Excellent customer service is the top priority at Growing Minds, and obtaining the desired performance from personnel
has meant a major investment in training. Unfortunately, new workers often leave within a year of being hired. This means
that the company barely gets an adequate return of the training it has invested in its new hires. Apparently, turnover is due
(at least in part) to the demanding nature of the job. Recently, Growing Minds has been emphasizing the establishment of
work teams to improve the quality of its services, identify and fix any problems in service delivery, and brainstorm new
opportunities. This approach has yielded better-than-anticipated results, so the team concept will be central to the new
outlets.
Questions:
How can Growing Minds attract the best applicants for job at its new retail outlets? On what groups, if any, should the
companys recruiting efforts focus? How should the recruiting be done?
How should Growing Minds select the best candidates? What type of characteristics and measures should be used?
Why?
How might Growing Minds address its retention problem?
How might Growing Minds socialize its employees so that they are attuned to the firms culture and plans for the future?
ASSIGNMENT C (OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS)
Answer all questions
Marks

Tick Marks () the most appropriate answer


1. Once job analysis is conducted, the data reviewed is:
(a) Job Description

(b) Job enlargement

(c) Job enrichment

(d) Downsizing

2. Which is not true regarding job analysis?


(a) It is a process of data collection
(b) It is a procedure through which facts are gathered for each job
(c) Information about the job is systematically discovered & noted
(d) It is a process of data dissemination

3. Job description does not consist of :


(a) Job summary

(b) Job evaluation

(c) Hazards involved

(d) Pay

4. Who of the following is not the source of job information in connection with job analysis?
(a) Job holders

(b) Independent observers

(c) Interviews

(d) Pay Commission

5. Which is not true?


(a) HR planning is helpful in detailing the numbers and kind of personnel required.
(b) It spells out the qualification, skills and expertise of personnel required in all organizations.
(c) It gives lead time for recruitment, selection, training and development of personnel.
(d) HR planning integrates the employees into the organization.

6. Which of the following is not a stage of the process of HR planning?


(a) Identifying objectives

(b) Developing manpower

(c) Assessing Business Plan

(d) Manpower audit

7. Which of the following is not the quantitative method of forecasting HR demand?


Moving Average

Exponential smoothing

Delphi Technique

Trend projections

8. Which of the following is not involved in work-load analysis?


(a) Demand analysis
(c) Nature and composition of existing workforce

(b) Establishing work standards


(d) Turnover rate of employees

9. Which of the following is not a quantitative method of forecasting HR demand?


(a) Nominal Group Technique

10. Requirement is not:

(b) Simulations

(d) Regression

(e) Probability Matrixes

(a) The process of searching for prospective candidates and stimulating them to apply for job in the organization.
(b) Attracting lot of potential for the company
(c) A positive concept
(d) Selecting the best candidate

11. Which of the following is not a stage in the process of selection?


(a) Advertisement

(b) Initial contract

(c) Screening

(d) Physical Examination

(c) Graphology

(d) Ecology

12. Which is not a Psuedo way of selecting applicant?


(a) Astrology

(b) Phrenology

13. Which of the following is not a psychometric test?

(a) TAT

(b) MAT

(C) MBTI

(d) FIRO-B

14. Which of the following is not a psychological test?


(a) Intelligence Test

(b) Written Test

(c) Objective Test

(d) Situation Test

15. Which of the following statement with regard to scientific methods of selection is not true?
(a) Scientific methods of selection reduce cost of selection, training & development.
(b) Scientific methods of selection reduce the need of interviewing the candidates.
(c) Scientific methods of selection boosts the image of the organization in the external environment.
(d) Scientific methods of selection reduce cost of counselling and coaching.

16. Which of the following information is not sought through the Application Blank?
(a) Identifying information
(b) Job contents
(c) Education
17. Psychological tests are not used in the field of :
(a) Placement of personnel
(b) Performance appraisal
(c) Testing an individuals socialibility.
(d) Selection of personnel

(d) Physical Characteristics

18. Which of the following is not an approach to staffing in International Human Resource Management?
Ethnocentric approach
Multi-specific approach
Polycentric Approach
Geocentric Approach
19. In the paired comparison technique of performance appraisal, which of the following formulae is applied?
(a) No. of comparison= N (N-1)
(b) No. of comparison= N (N-1)
--------------------2
1
(c) No. of comparison= N - (N-1)
----------2

(d) No. of comparison= N - (N-1)


---------131

20. Which of the following is not one of the modern methods of performance appraisal?
(a) 3600 Technique
(b) Human resource accounting
(c) Descriptive evaluation
(d) BARS
21. Which of the following statements regarding MBO is not true?
(a) MBO has emerged as a reaction to the traditional management practices
(b) MBO has a special provision for mutual goal setting
(c) There is no special provision in MBO for appraising of progress by both the appraiser and the appraisee.
(d) MBO is based on behavioural value of fundamental trust in the goodness of human beings.
22. Which of the following methods that have not contributed to the weakening the meaning of job as a well defined and
clearly delineated set of responsibilities?
Flatter Organizations
Work Teams
Boundary less organizations
Vertical organizations
23. Decision theory is typically pursued by researchers who identify themselves as:
(a) Statisticians
(b) Economists
(c) Politicians
(d) Monks
24. Which of the following is not a type of Internet Job Board?
(a) Resume Blaster
(b) Professional Association

(c) Target Applicants

25. Which of the following is not an intangible requirement of a job?


(a) Initiative
(b) Self confidence
(c) Physical Appearance

(d) Weighted Application Blanks


(d) Responsiveness

26. Which of the following is not one of the five stages of competency-based interviews?
(a) Rapport Building
(b) Confirmation
(c) Core
(d) Defence
27. What percentage of Competency-based questions usually constitute an interview (supplemented by other types of
questions)?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
28. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) A decision theory is falsified as a descriptive theory if a decision problem can be found in which most human subjects
perform in contradiction to the theory.
(b) A decision theory is moderately falsified as a descriptive theory if a decision problem can be found in which most
human subjects perform in accordance with the theory.
(c) A decision theory is weakly falsified as a normative theory if a decision problem can be found in which an agent can
perform in contradiction with the theory without being irrational.
(d) A decision theory is strictly falsified as a normative theory if a decision problem can be found in which an agent who
performs in accordance with the theory cannot be a rational agent.
29. Which, according to Simon, is not one of the phases in decision making?
(a) Designing
(b) Weaving
(c) Intelligence
(d) Choice
30. In which area FIRO-B does not measure your inter personal needs?
(a) Inclusion
(b) Exclusion
(c) Affection
(d) Control
31. Which of the following is not an alternative to recruitment?
(a) Overtime
(b) Outsourcing
(c) Inside Moonlighting

(d) Temporary employment

32. Which of the following is not a Big Five that describe behavioural traits that may explain 75 per cent of an individuals
personality?
(a) External appearance
(b) Extroversion
(c) Emotional stability
(d) Conscientiousness
33. Which of the following is not a type of validity (in the context of Selection Criteria)?
(a) Content
(b) Phenomenon related
(c) Criterion-related

(d) Construct

34. Which of the following is not a type of interview?


(a) Situational interview
(b) Behavioural description interview
(c) Unstructured interview
(d) Diagonal interview
35. Which of the following is not a Cognitive Ability Test?
(a) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
(c) California Test of Mental Maturity (Adult Level)

(b) OConnor and Tweezer Dexterity Test


(d) Wonderlic Personnel Test

36. Which of the following qualities of an individuals personality is not measured by the Myers-Briggs Type indicator?
Introversion/ Extroversion
Sensing / Intuition
Thinking / Feeling
Arguing / Aggression
37. Some studies have not found strong support for:
(a) External consistency
(b) Construct validity

(c) Test-retest reliability

(d) Internal consistency

38. Briggs and Myers recognized that each of the cognitive functions cannot operate in the external world of :
Behaviour
Action
People
Reward
39. TAT is not intended to evaluate a persons:
(a) Patterns of thought
(b) Attitudes

(c) Observational capacity

(d) Introversion

40. In the case of TAT, the subject is asked to tell the examiner a story about each card that does not include:
Event shown in the picture
What has led upto it
Merits and demerits of the event
Outcome of event