CLAT DIAGNOSTIC TEST

SECTION I ENGLISH

DirectionsQ(1-4): Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions given below it.

The income disparity in the new India is massive: 36 bilionaires in India and 800 million people living on
less than $2 a day. The challenge for achieving inclusive growth relates to the revival of agriculture.
Farming is becoming a non-viable activity. A confluence of factors, form poor rainfall to the new
availability of consumer goods which consume much of Indian families incomes, has driven many
farmers into crushing debt. The agriculture sector has many problems with a growth rate of less than 2%
in the last decade. Further scope for increase in net sown area is limited. Disparity in productivity across
regions and crops has persisted. Far from benefiting from the economic boom many complain that banks
dont offer the rural poor credit, forcing them to turn to greedy money-lenders, who typically charge up to
20% interest on a four-month loan. Healthcare and education costs have risen dramatically, while the
global price of cotton has become depressed, largely due to the billions of dollars in subsidies Washington
hands out to US farmers.

The approach to the revival of Indian agriculture seems to be incremental, rather than a holistic strategy.
It is important to s tress that growth and equity should be pursued simultaneously rather than following
growth first and equity next approach. What are the challenges for achieving 4% growth and equity in
agriculture? Policy makers like the National Commission on Farmers mention cost reduction in
agriculture as important to compete in a globalised world. The most important problem for the farmers is
output price fluctuations. There is a big gap between producer prices and consumer prices. In order to
protect farmers from national and international price volatility, a price stabilization fund is needed. The
supply and demand side constraints have to be removed to raise growth. The support systems have to be
tuned to improve productivity and incomes of farmers with emphasis on small and marginal farmers and
dry land areas. One of the differences between the green revolution in the 1960s/70s and the present
second green revolution is that risk is higher in the latter approach as it has to concentrate more on dry-
land areas. Trade liberalization has also raised the risk and uncertainty. Thus, policies have to keep in
mind the increasing risk in agriculture. Agriculture policies have to be g ender sensitive too since the
share of women sensitive too since the share of women is increasing. The Government is aware that the
crop sector may not be able to grow at 4% per annum but horticulture and allied activities like dairying,
poultry and fisheries have to grow at the rate 6% to 7% to achieve 4% growth in agriculture. Investment
in irrigation and rural infrastructure is important for agricultural growth. It is known that public
investment in agriculture is lower than the requirements needed for achieving 4% growth. Bharat Nirman
Programme is in the right direction but the progress has to be much faster.

1. What does the author view as a challenge for achieving inclusive growth?
a. Doubling agricultural growth using an incremental approach.
b. Regulating the availability of consumer goods.
c. Achieving growth and equity in agriculture.
d. Reducing cost of healthcare and education for the poor through privatization.

2. Which of the following factors should the Government take into consideration while framing
agricultural policies?
A. Allied farm activities like horticulture should receive less attention.
B. Increased participation of women in agricultural sector.
C. Reduced risk in agriculture owing to globalization.
a. Only A b. Only B c. Both A & B d. All A, B & C

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3. What has prevented the rural poor from benefiting from economic growth?
A. High rate of interest on bank credit.
B. Exploitation by money lenders.
C. Subsidies provided by the government to farmers are insufficient.
a. Only C b. Both A & B c. Only B d. Both B & C

4. Why are farmers facing crippling debt?

A. Increased expenditure on luxury items.
B. Subsidies are not provided by the Indian government.
C. Prices of crops like cotton have risen dramatically.
a. All A, B & C b. Only A c. Only B d. Both A & B

Directions Q(5-7): Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters followed by four
words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word
in capital letters.

5. RESCIND
a. Reunite b. Repeal c. Reserve d. Reproach

6. OBVIATE
a. Delaying the Solution of a problem b. To remove a difficulty
c. make obstruction d. Supercede

7. EXULTATION
a. Extinction b. Anxiety c. Jubilation d. Expectation

DirectionsQ(8-11): Each of the following sentences is divided into four parts. One of the parts contains a
mistake. Identify that part.

8. He did not pass the examination / inspite of / his best efforts. / No error.
a b c d

9. He asked me / what my name is / and where I came from. / No error.

a b c d

10. As he had taken / only a few sips / there was still little water / left in the glass.
a b c d

11. Our Mathematics teacher / often emphasizes on / the need for / a lot of practice.
a b c d

Directions Q(12-13): Choose the correct order in which the sentences can be rearranged to form a
coherent paragraph. Identify the appropriate answer.

12. P: They appeared in Italy around 1320.

Q: Long before that the Chinese used paper money which was similar in design to the playing
cards.
R: It is believed that perhaps traveling gypsies introduced them to Europe.
S: In olden days cards were used both for telling fortune and playing games.
a. QRSP b. QSRP c. RQSP d. RSQP

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13. P: He did this because there were many wasps in the garden.
Q: Their legs and wings were made so stickly by the honey that most of them could not fly away
and perished in the pot.
R: When they smelt the honey in the pot, they quickly flew to it and crawled into the jar.
S: They used to eat the gardeners ripe fruits.
a. PRQS b. PQRS c. SRPQ d. PSRQ

Directions Q(14-15): In the section identify the word that best completes the sentence.

14. Scrooge, in the famous novel by Dickens, was a _____; he hated the rest of mankind.
a. misanthrope b. hypocrite c. philanthropist d. recluse

15. After centuries of obscurity, this philosophers thesis is enjoying a surprising _____.
a. dismissal b. remission c. decimation d. renaissance

SECTION II MATHEMATICAL ABILITY

DirectionsQ(16-30): From the four selections, identify the correct answer.

16. A bag contains Rs. 114 in the form of 1 rupee, 50 paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio 3 : 4 : 10.
What is the number of 50 paisa coins?
a. 76 b. 72 c. 56 d. 48

17. What is the sum of positive integers less than 100 which leave a remainder 1 when divided by 3 and
leave a remainder 2 when divided by 4?
a. 416 b. 620 c. 1250 d. 1314

18. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 261
marks and is declared failed by 4% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can
get?
a. 700 b. 730 c. 745 d. 725

19. In a division problem, the divisor in 7 times of quotient and 5 times of remainder. If the dividend is
six times of remainder, then the quotient is equal to
a. 1 b. 7 c. 0 d. None of these

20. The product of two successive numbers is 8556. What is the smaller number?
a. 89 b. 94 c. 90 d. 92

21. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 24 years. The ratio of their ages is 3 : 1
respectively. What is the daughters age?
a. 12 yrs. b. 24 yrs. c. 36 yrs. d. 48 yrs.

22. In an examination it is required to get 447 of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 394
marks and is declared failed by 5% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can
get?
a. 1140 b. 1060
c. 1230 d. Cannot be determined

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23. 112 = 121. 1112 = 12321. 11112 = 1234321. What is 11111111112?
a. 12345678910987654321 b. 12345678909987654321
c. 1234567890098654321 d. 1234567890097654321

24. In how many ways can Rs.5 be paid in 25 paise and 10 paise coins?
a. 9 b. 8 c. 7 d. 6

25. A person used to spend Rs.120 per month on cigarettes. When the price of cigarettes rose by 10
paise per pack, he found that for the same amount he could purchase 5 packs less. What is the new
price per pack of cigarettes?
a. Rs.1.60 b. Rs.1.50 c. Rs.1.75 d. Rs.1.45

26. If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle and that of a square are equal, then is there a direct
relationship between the sides of the two figures?
a. Yes b. No
c. Maybe d. Given data insufficient

27. Two trains A and B are traveling at 72 kph and 54 kph respectively in opposite direction. How
much time does B take to cross a person sitting in train A, if the lengths of the trains A & B are 500
m and 700 m respectively?
a. 20 sec b. 15 secc. c. 18 sec d. None of these

28. After deducting 20% from a certain amount of money, and then 10% from the remainder, Rs.7200
is left. What was the original sum of money?
a. Rs.7200 b. Rs.5000 c. Rs.10000 d. Rs.1000

29. Which of the following is not a leap year?

a. 1984 b. 2000 c. 1700 d. 1640

30. A number consists of two digits. When it is divided by the sum of the digits, the quotient is 4. The
sum of the reciprocals of the digits is 12 times the reciprocal of the product of the digits. What is
the number?
a. 48 b. 84 c. 24 d. None of these

SECTION III LOGICAL REASONING

Directions Q(31-33): Read carefully the question and identify the most appropriate answer.

31. In a certain code SOLDIER is written as JFSCRNK, how is GENIOUS written in that code?
a. PVTHHFO b. PVTHFDM c. PVTHMDF d. none of these

32. If blue means green, green means black, black means white, white means pink, pink means red and
red means orange, then what is the colour of blood?
a. Red S b. Black c. White d. Pink

33. In F R H L, how is H related to F?

a. Father b. Brother
c. Sister d. Cannot be determined

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DirectionsQ(34-38): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered
I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement
and the following assumptions is implicit in the statement and give answer
a. if only Assumption I is implicit.
b. if only Assumption II is implicit.
c. if either I or II is implicit.
d. if both I and II are implicit.

34. Statement:
The meteorological department has cautioned the fishermen not to venture out in the sea during the
next twenty-four hours as a severe cyclonic storm is likely to hit the coastal areas.

Assumptions:
I. The cautionary notice of the meteorological department may reach most of the fishermen.
II. The fishermen are capable of withstanding such cyclonic storms while they are in high
seas.
a. b. c. d.

35. Statement:
If you are planning for trip abroad, do let us know, we offer the best deal An advertisement by
a travel company.

Assumptions:
I. Prospective clients may get influenced by the advertisement.
II. Many people may plan for trip abroad.
a. b. c. d.

36. When the democratic party holds presidency, the staff of the prime ministers deputies are
composed
I. one-fourth of democratic party members.
II. One-half of justice party members and one-fourth of conservative party members.
III. One-half of conservative party members and one-fourth of justice party members.
a. I only b. I and II only c. II or III but not both d. None of these

37. The office of the Army Chief passes from Conservative to Justice party. Which of the following
must be fired.
a. The democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to Justice party.
b. Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff members.
c. Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative staff members in the chief of staff office.
d. The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to Conservative party.

38. In recommendations to the board of trustees a tuition increase of $500 per year, the president of the
university said There were no student demonstrations over the previous increases of $300 last year
and $200 the year before. If the presidents statement is accurate then which of the following can
be validly inferred from the information given:
I. Most students in previous years felt that the increases were justified because of increased
operating costs.
II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of students to protest the previous tuition
increases.
III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over new tuition increases.
a. I only b. II only c. I or II but not both d. I, II and III

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39. Five boys participated in a competition. Rohit was ranked lower than Sanjay. Vikas was ranked
higher than Dinesh. Kamals rank was between Rohit and Vikas. Who was ranked highest?
a. Sanjay b. Vikas c. Dinesh d. Kamal

DirectionsQ(40-43) Read the following information and answer the questions given below

In a car exhibition, seven cars of seven different companies viz. Cardilac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti,
Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo were displayed in a row, facing east such that:

1. Cardilac car was to the immediate right of Fargo.

2. Fargo was fourth to the right of Fiat.
3. Maruti car was between Ambassador and Bedford.
4. Fiat, which was third to the left of Ambassador car, was at one of the ends.

40. Which of the following was the correct position of the Mercedes?
a. Immediate right of Cardilac b. Immediate left of Bedford
c. Between Bedford and Fargo d. Fourth to the right of Maruti

41. Which of the following is definitely true?

a. Fargo car is between Ambassador and Fiat.
b. Cardilac car is to the immediate left of Mercedes.
c. Fargo is to the immediate right of Cardilac.
d. Maruti is fourth to the right of Mercedes.

42. Which cars are on the immediate either sides of the Cardilac car?
a. Ambassador and maruti b. Maruti and Fiat
c. Fiat and Mercedes d. None of these

43. Which of the following is definitely true?

a. Maruti is to the immediate left of Ambassador.
b. Bedford is to the immediate left of Fiat.
c. Bedford is at one of the ends.
d. Fiat is second to the right of Maruti.

Directionq(44-45): In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

(a) if only Conclusion I follows, or

(b) if only Conclusion II follows, or
(c) if either Conclusion I or II follows or
(d) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

44. Statement: This course is so designed that only a few children can learn the topics by
themselves.
Conclusions: I. Learning the topics of this course by all the children is desirable.
II. Some children may find it difficult to learn the topics of this course in
the absence of a teacher.

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45. Statement: All people who own either a car or a house must pay income tax. Sunita owns a
house.
Conclusions: I. Those who own cars own houses.
II. Sunita has to pay income tax.

SECTION IV GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Directions Q(46-60): Read carefully the question and identify the most appropriate answer.

46. Who was the head of the commission to examine the feasibility of reorganization of States on a
linguistic basis?(7)
a. SK Panchi b. Ashok Mehta c. SK Dhar d. Guljari Lal Nanda

47. Which of the following is a national party?

a. DMK b. AIADMK c. CPI d. Samajwadi Party

48. Which of the following political philosophies holds that the basic purpose of the state is to be
found in its utility for the people?
a. Zionism b. Totalitarianism c. Utilitarianism d. Sabotage

49. Who among the following won the womens final of the 73rd Senior National Badminton
Championship?
a. PC Thulasi b. Sayali Gokhale c. Jwala Gutta d. Shruti Kurien

50. The Nagpur International Airport falls in the flyzone between

a. Dubai and Bangkok b. Chennai and Delhi
c. Mumbai and Colombo d. Thiruvananthapuram and Dubai

51. Which bank has been appointed as the sole booking agent for the worlds least expensive car,
Nano?
a. State Bank of India b. Punjab National Bank
c. ICICI Bank d. Corporation Bank

52. Earth Hour-2009 would be observed on

a. March 28 b. March 29 c. April 1 d. March 31

53. Which airline became the first to offer in-flight mobile phone services on regular routes across UK
airspace?
a. Lufthansa b. Emirates c. Swiss d. Ryanair

54. Enamel ware has a coating of

a. borosilicates b. red lead c. tin d. glass

55. Among the following which one is not a credit rating agency operating in India?
a. CRISIL b. ICRA c. CARE d. Dow Jones

56. Aam Aadmi Bima Yojna contains the allocation

a. Rs. 500 crore. b. Rs. 1,000 crore. c. Rs. 1,500 crore. d. Rs. 2,000 crore.

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57. In the post-independence period, economic reforms were first introduced in India under.
a. PV Narasimha Rao Government (1991). b. Indira Gandhi Government (1980).
c. Rajiv Gandhi Government (1985) d. Janata Part Government (1977).

58. An engineering college to be set up at Malda in West Bengal will be named after which former
Congress leader?
a. Ajit Panja b. Ghani Khan Choudhury
c. Shanker Roy Choudhary d. Priya Ranjan Das

59. Which of the following technologies has been recently developed by the IBM India Research
Laboratory and other research labs worldwide?
a. Spoken Web b. Written Web c. Telephone Web d. Telesite

60. Nandan Nilekani was in news for his book titled

a. Private Patient b. The Hundred Foot Journey
c. Cosmic Detective d. Imaging India

SECTION V LEGAL APTITUDE

Directions Q(61-75): Read carefully the question and identify the most appropriate answer.

61. Why the Indian constitution called as Fundamental law of the land?
a. Because Preamble indicates the source from which constitution comes that is people of India
b. Because Constitution envisages the fundamental rights
c. Because the government organs owe their origin to the constitution of India and derive their
authority from & discharge their responsibilities within the framework of the constitution
d. Because Constitution of India declares great rights and freedoms to all citizens of India

62. The Parliament of India can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing
International treaties
a. Without the consent of any of the States in India.
b. With the consent and approval of the majority of states in India
c. With the consent of the States effected directly or indirectly by the treaty
d. With the consent of all the states in India

63. The concept of welfare state is included in which part of the Indian constitution
a. The preamble of the constitution b. Fundamental rights
c. Directive principles of state policy d. Fourth schedule of the constitution

64. The term "Soft International Law" refers to

a. agreements/ principles that are meant to influence individual nations to respect certain norms or
incorporate them into national law
b. agreements or principles that are directly enforceable by a national or international body
c. agreements or principles that are directly enforceable by UNO
d. agreements or principles that are accepted by majority of the nations of the world

65. The Supreme court adopted the Mandal commission recommendations on reservation for "other
backward classes" in the cases of
a. S R Bommai Vs Union of India b. Indira Sawhney Vs Union of India

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 c. Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India d. Unnikrishnan Vs Union of India

66. The great Hindu law giver was

a. Kapil b. Bana bhatta c. Kautilya d. Manu

67. Civil servants are not permitted to become

a. Chief election commissioner b. Vice chancellors of universities
c. Heads of comissions of enquiry d. Member of parliament

68. In which of the following cases did Supreme court of India give its landmark decision on "the
restrictions of the Union Government's power to dismiss a state government as per the Article 356
of the Indian Constitution"
a. Minerva Mills Case b. S R Bommai Case c. Sajjan Singh Case d. Golaknath case

69. Which among the following is true about " Right to Information Act " ?
a. It extends whole of India
b. It extends whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir
c. It extends whole of India except J & K and Sikkim
d. It extends whole of India except pak occupied Jammu & Kashmir

70. Which among the following was not a Union Territory before it was accorded the status of Full
Fledged state ?
a. Himachal Pradesh b. Manipur c. Tripura d. Sikkim

71. Which among the following article says that "directive principles are not enforceable by any court
but at the same time declared that they are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the
country and it shall be duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws"?
a. Article 36 b. Article 37 c. Article 38 d. Article 39

72. The term "doli incapax" means

a. Not capacitated to commit a crime
b. Capacitated to commit a crime
c. Neither capacitated not incapacitated to commit a crime
d. All the above

73. The supreme court of India recognised sexual harassment as a human rights violation in the case of
a. Mohd. Ahmed Khan Vs Shah Bano Begum
b. Visakha Vs State of Rajasthan
c. Tukaram Vs State of Maharastra
d. Sharad Birdhichand sarada Vs State of Maharastra

74. Which among the following was set up in Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956?
a. Interstate Council b. Zonal Council
c. Language Commission d. Delimitation Commission

75. Consumer Protection Act, provides for a _____ tier quasi judicial mechanism for dealing with
complaints
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five

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 PRIME Training Services Pvt.Ltd., 216, Amrutha Estates, Himayathnagar, Hyd29 2322885910 DIAGNOSTIC TEST 10