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_____ is the means through which managers ensure that employees' activities
and outputs are congruent with the organization's goals.
A.
Performance standardization
B.
Performance budgeting
C.
Performance management
D.
Performance indicator
E.
Performance dampener
performance appraisal
B.
job analysis
C.
performance feedback
D.
ability analysis
E.
achievement discrepancy
performance appraisal
B.
achievement discrepancy
C.
job rotation
D.
ability analysis
E.
performance feedback
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
5. Rick is the vice president of the Human Resources team. He designs a new
performance management process. He completes the first step and moves on
to the next step of developing employee goals and actions to achieve the
outcomes. Which of the following is he likely to do next to create an effective
performance management process?
A.
He will define
departments.
performance
B.
C.
D.
He will provide
discussions.
E.
support
outcomes
and
for
ongoing
divisions
and
performance
B.
C.
D.
E.
7. As the CEO of Blue Corp., George makes it a point to meet new hires at all
levels of his organization. He explains the goals of the company and
emphasizes on the importance of an individual employee's role in the larger
picture. This initiative of George focuses on the _____ of performance
management.
A.
strategic purpose
B.
administrative purpose
C.
developmental purpose
D.
statistical purpose
E.
validity purpose
8. _____ is the extent to which the performance management system elicits job
performance that is consistent with an organization's strategy, goals, and
culture.
A.
Specificity
B.
Reliability
C.
Validity
D.
Strategic congruence
E.
Acceptability
9. Globo Analytics Inc., a data analysis company, has modified its performance
management system. Apart from training employees on their specific tasks,
the trainers and managers help the employees become more aware of the
overall goals of the company and how their individual performances influence
the broader goals of the company. As a result of this, employees'
performances have become more consistent with the organization's
strategies, goals, and culture. This initiative of Globo focused on the _____
criterion of performance management.
A.
consistency
B.
strategic congruence
C.
social
D.
acceptability
E.
risk avoidance
B.
C.
D.
E.
Reliability
B.
Strategic congruence
C.
Acceptability
D.
Specificity
E.
Validity
A.
high on reliability
B.
C.
high on specificity
D.
high on acceptability
E.
low on validity
B.
C.
D.
E.
the overlap between actual job performance and the measure of job
performance is maximized.
14.A software company assesses its developers more on their client support
skills rather than their development skills. Which of the following terms would
best describe the software company's performance management process?
A.
Deficient
B.
Contaminated
C.
Unreliable
D.
Inconsistent
E.
Unspecified
15.Elle Inc. is a firm that holds frequent reviews and feedback sessions for its
employees. It demands that the same person should review the employees of
a team to ensure that the performance evaluation is consistent; tests
retests are conducted periodically to make sure the evaluation is consistent.
These two steps taken by Elle focus on the _____ of performance
management.
A.
reliability
B.
strategic congruence
C.
specificity
D.
acceptability
E.
validity
16.The consistency in the ratings given by two different individuals who evaluate
an employee's performance is known as _____ reliability.
A.
internal consistency
B.
interrater
C.
inter-method
D.
test-retest
E.
parallel-forms
17.A measure that results in drastically different ratings over time lacks _____
reliability.
A.
internal consistency
B.
interrater
C.
parallel-forms
D.
test-retest
E.
inter-method
B.
C.
D.
E.
reliability
B.
validity
C.
specificity
D.
acceptability
E.
strategic congruence
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
Simple ranking
B.
Alternation ranking
C.
Reverse ranking
D.
Elimination by aspect
E.
Forced distribution
forced distribution
B.
C.
paired comparison
D.
alternation ranking
E.
simple ranking
23.The _____ method requires managers to compare every employee with every
other employee in the work group, giving an employee a score of every time
he/she is considered the higher performer.
A.
partner measurement
B.
probability distribution
C.
forced distribution
D.
paired comparison
E.
alternation ranking
A.
Probability distribution
B.
Simple ranking
C.
Forced distribution
D.
Paired comparison
E.
Scanlon plans
B.
C.
D.
E.
results
B.
quality
C.
behavioral
D.
comparative
E.
attribute
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Probability distribution
B.
Simple ranking
C.
Forced distribution
D.
Paired comparison
E.
B.
C.
D.
E.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mixed-standard scale
B.
C.
D.
E.
is
generalizable
across
B.
C.
D.
E.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Competency models
B.
C.
D.
E.
true
regarding
behavioral
approaches
to
A.
B.
C.
D.
They assume that there are multiple best ways to do the job.
E.
36.The _____ approach assumes that subjectivity can be eliminated from the
measurement process and that outcomes are the closest indicator of one's
contribution to organizational effectiveness.
A.
behavior
B.
results
C.
attribute
D.
quality
E.
comparative
Projective tests
B.
C.
Assessment centers
D.
Critical incidents
E.
38.Which of the following is the first step in the Productivity Measurement and
Evaluation System (ProMES)?
A.
The staff defines indicators of the products to measure how well the
products are being generated.
B.
C.
D.
E.
B.
C.
D.
E.
with
a strong
quality
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Quality circle
B.
Muda
C.
Kaizen
D.
E.
Cause-and-effect diagrams
B.
Control charts
C.
Pareto charts
D.
Process-flow analysis
E.
Histograms
cause-and-effect diagram
B.
control chart
C.
Pareto chart
D.
process-flow analysis
E.
histogram
A control chart
B.
A histogram
C.
A cause-and-effect diagram
D.
A process-flow analysis
E.
A Pareto chart
B.
C.
D.
They assume that that the majority of problems are the result of a
small number of causes.
E.
B.
C.
D.
E.
B.
C.
low on acceptability
D.
high on reliability
E.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Peers
B.
Managers
C.
Subordinates
D.
Employees themselves
E.
Customers
A.
B.
C.
D.
Peers have the ability to discard the fact that they may be friends
with the ratee in order to provide an unbiased rating.
E.
-degree feedback
B.
screening interviews
C.
peer review
D.
Kaizen
E.
upward feedback
B.
C.
D.
E.
53.The _____ technique consists of having multiple raters above, equal to, and
below the manager providing input into a manager's evaluation.
A.
B.
background check
C.
-degree appraisal
D.
upward feedback
E.
performance appraisal
54.Which of the following rater errors is based on stereotypes the rater has
about how individuals with certain characteristics are expected to perform?
A.
Horns
B.
Similar to me
C.
Halo
D.
Contrast
E.
Central tendency
contrast
B.
distributional
C.
halo
D.
similar to me
E.
horns
56._____ is a rater error in which a rater gives high ratings to all employees
regardless of their performance.
A.
Halo
B.
Contrast
C.
Central tendency
D.
Leniency
E.
Similar to me
57.A _____ rater error is one in which a rater gives middle or average ratings to
all employees despite their performance.
A.
horns
B.
leniency
C.
central tendency
D.
strictness
E.
contrast
58._____ rating error occurs when a rater gives an employee high ratings on all
aspects of performance because of his or her overall positive impression of
the employee.
A.
Contrast
B.
Halo
C.
Leniency
D.
Similar to me
E.
Central tendency
Horns
B.
Leniency
C.
Central tendency
D.
Contrast
E.
Strictness
Bayesian inference
B.
group dynamics
C.
-degrees feedback
D.
appraisal politics
E.
similar to me error
Performance training
B.
Sensitivity training
C.
Multidimensional training
D.
E.
Process-flow analysis
Calibration meetings
B.
Frame-of-reference trainings
C.
Multidimensional trainings
D.
E.
B.
C.
D.
E.
64.CobWeb Inc., a software firm, assesses managers based on how well they
understand their subordinates, and the factors involved in their poor
performance. Which of the following examples is the most appropriate
evaluation of the input factors involved in analyzing poor performance?
A.
B.
C.
Jane looks into whether her subordinate has been given information
about his performance.
D.
E.
Harassment suit
the
performance
B.
Statutory tort
C.
D.
Discrimination suit
E.
Custody actions
True/False Questions
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
10. There is a general consensus that withdrawal behaviors are clearly unrelated
to one another.
BT: Knowledge
11. Within the progression of job withdrawal, grievances and whistle-blowing are
examples of behavior change.
BT: Knowledge
12. Whistle-blowers are often dissatisfied individuals who cannot bring about
external change.
BT: Knowledge
13. Organizational commitment is the degree to which people identify with their
jobs.
BT: Knowledge
14. If the job conditions cannot be changed, a dissatisfied worker may be able to
solve the problem by leaving the job.
AACSB: 6
BT: Knowledge
15. Job satisfaction is the key driving force behind all forms of job withdrawal.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
19. Research conducted on identical twins that were raised apart suggests that
negative affectivity may have a genetic component.
AACSB: 6
BT: Knowledge
20. Because of their varying frames of reference, individuals with high core selfevaluation generally have less job satisfaction than those individuals with low
core self-evaluation.
BT: Comprehension
21. The nature of the task is the most important predictor of job satisfaction.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
23. One consequence of the increase in role overload is that there has been an
increase in the number of lawsuits filed by people who are suing for overtime
pay.
BT: Comprehension
24. The two primary sets of people in the organization that affect an individual's
job satisfaction are his or her subordinates and coworkers.
BT: Knowledge
25. A company concerned about the level of job dissatisfaction among its workers
might try to foster team building, since team building can lead to a more
supportive environment which reduces dissatisfaction.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
30. Under the doctrine of employment-at-will, who may sever the employment
relationship?
A) The employer
B) The employee
C) The employer or the employee
D) The Department of Labor
BT: Knowledge
BT: Application
BT: Knowledge
33. Although the rate of inflation is only 2 percent, Kayla receives a 6 percent
increase in salary. She is nonetheless dissatisfied with her salary increase
due to Bob's 9 percent increase. Kayla is likely to contend there is a lack of
A) perceptual justice.
B) outcome fairness.
C) procedural justice.
D) interactional justice.
BT: Application
B) interactional justice.
C) procedural justice.
D) alternative dispute resolution.
BT: Knowledge
35. Sam Jones was terminated from his job with no explanation or consideration
of why he was let go. It is likely that Sam has not experienced
A) procedural justice.
B) outcome fairness.
C) interactional justice.
D) all of the above.
BT: Application
BT: Knowledge
37. _____ justice focuses specifically on the methods used to determine the
outcomes received.
A) Outcome
B) Distributive
C) Procedural
D) Interactional
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
40. What type of counseling helps displaced employees manage the transition
from one job to another?
A) Outplacement
B) Transition
C) Relocation
D) Displacement
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
45. Denise is very dissatisfied with her job situation, but she doesn't perceive any
other employment opportunities, so she stays and spends most of the
workday dreaming about non-work matters. Which of the following behaviors
is she experiencing?
A) Physical withdrawal
B) Psychological withdrawal
C) Change behaviors
D) Physiological withdrawal
BT: Application
B) job involvement.
C) organizational commitment.
D) organizational satisfaction.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Comprehension
52. The positive or negative bottom-line opinion that individuals hold about
themselves is termed
A) core self-evaluation.
B) external self-evaluation.
C) internal self-evaluation.
D) self-efficacy.
Answer: A Page: 464 LO: 3 Difficulty: Medium
AACSB: 6
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
54. With few exceptions, the relationship between task complexity and job
satisfaction is
A) weak/positive.
B) strong/positive.
C) weak/negative.
D) strong/negative.
BT: Knowledge
55. Which of the following is not one of the primary aspects of tasks that affect
job satisfaction?
A) Task complexity
B) The degree of physical strain and exertion
C) Task status
BT: Knowledge
56. A positive core evaluation reflects the persons self-image on all of the
following traits except
A) high self-efficacy
B) internal locus of control
C) emotional instability
D) high self-esteem
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
58. The behavioral expectations that other people in the organization have for a
person is that person's
A) role.
B) organizational task.
C) values.
D) task environment.
BT: Knowledge
59. The use of job rotation is an attempt to reduce job dissatisfaction caused by
A) organizational tasks.
B) lack of career opportunities.
C) the political environment.
D) personality traits of individuals.
BT: Knowledge
60. _____ is a process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to
another over the course of time.
A) Job enrichment
B) Organizational task
C) Job rotation
D) Role reversal
BT: Knowledge
61. The level of uncertainty about what the organization expects from the
employee in terms of what to do and how to do it is called
A) role ambiguity.
B) role distance.
C) role conflict.
D) role overload.
AACSB: 6
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
63. Mary was recently told by upper management that they expected her to
exercise more authority and leadership in her work group. Just two days prior
to that, her team told her that while they appreciated the initiative she
demonstrated, they expected her to be less authoritative and more
democratic in the future. The term that best describes what Mary is
experiencing is
A) role ambiguity.
B) role distance.
C) role conflict.
D) role overload.
BT: Application
64. Tom is a single father who works full-time and attends to the needs of his
three young children. It seems as though he never has an eight-hour period in
which he does not have to respond to work demands and/or the demands of
his children. The term that best characterizes what Tom is experiencing is
A) role ambiguity.
B) role distance.
C) role conflict.
D) role overload.
BT: Application
65. An employee who occupies more than one role at a time is an example of
A) role ambiguity.
B) role overload.
C) role underload.
D) role conflict.
BT: Knowledge
66. Downsizing and cost cutting among organizations have increased the
problem of
A) role conflict.
B) role complexity.
C) role overload.
D) role ambiguity.
BT: Knowledge
67. Some organizations have tried to create more flexible work arrangements by
reclassifying job descriptions so that more workers are considered in the
managerial class, but this sort of action is ______.
A) will improve workers morale
B) very controversial
C) good in theory, but poor in practice
D) misguided
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
69. Because of the powerful role played by supervisors and other more
experienced workers in terms of supporting the organizations culture, some
organizations are going to great lengths to develop the ______ skills of their
managers and other highly experienced employees.
A) leadership
B) mentoring
C) interpersonal
D) technical
BT: Knowledge
70. Which one of the following is not likely to be a member of the role occupant's
role set?
A) Coworkers
B) Supervisors
C) Customers
D) Subordinates
BT: Comprehension
71. The two primary sets of people in the organization who affect an individual's
job satisfaction are
A) subordinates and supervisors.
B) supervisors and family members.
C) coworkers and subordinates.
D) supervisors and coworkers.
BT: Knowledge
72. Which of the following is not a reason that people may be satisfied with their
supervisors and coworkers?
A) They may share the same values, attitudes, and philosophies.
B) They spend a great deal of time together.
C) The supervisor or coworker provides social support.
D) The supervisor or coworker may help individuals attain some valued
outcome.
BT: Comprehension
73. Organizations that foster team building both on and off the job attempt to
reduce dissatisfaction caused by
A) behavior settings.
B) the social environment.
C) organizational roles.
D) organizational tasks.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
76. The job descriptive index measures all of the following facets of satisfaction
except
A) pay.
B) work itself.
C) coworkers.
D) customers.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Comprehension
78. Regardless of what measures are used or how many facets of satisfaction are
assessed, a systematic, ______ program of employee survey research should
be a prominent part of any human resource strategy for a number of reasons.
A) periodic
B) occasional
C) intermittent
D) ongoing
BT: Knowledge
79. Within the organization, a systematic survey program allows the company to
check for differences between units and _____ best practices that might be
generalized across units.
A) benchmark
B) avoid
C) discontinue
D) reevaluate
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
Essay Questions
81. Define and discuss the employment at-will doctrine and its recognized
exceptions under the wrongful discharge suit.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
BT: Analysis
Answer:
1. Outcome justiceThis type of justice refers to the judgment that people
make with respect to the outcomes received relative to the outcomes
received by other people with whom they identify. In a situation where one
person is losing his or her job while others are not is conductive to
perceptions of outcome unfairness on the part of the discharged
employee.
2. Procedural justiceThis type of justice focuses specifically on the methods
used to determine the outcomes received. The determinants of
procedural justice include (a) consistency, (b) bias suppression, (c)
information accuracy, (d) correctability, (e) representativeness, and (f)
ethicality (see Table 10.1).
3. Interactional justiceThis type of justice refers to the interpersonal nature
of how the outcomes were implemented. The four determinants of
interactional justice are (a) explanation, (b) social sensitivity, (c)
consideration, and (d) empathy. (See Table 10.2 on Page: 454)
83. What are alternative dispute resolution systems, why are they increasing in
use, and what four stages generally constitute a system?
BT: Analysis
Answer:
84. Explain what job withdrawal is, its three levels of progression, and how it
relates to job satisfaction.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
Job withdrawal is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid
a work situation. The theory of progression of withdrawal includes three
categories of behaviors:
1. Change behaviorsEfforts to attempt to change the conditions that
generated the job satisfaction
2. Physical job withdrawalIf job conditions cannot be changed, a
dissatisfied worker may be able to solve his or her problem by leaving the
job
BT: Analysis
Answer:
86. Define job satisfaction, and briefly discuss the three important aspects of job
satisfaction that are reflected in its definition.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
Job satisfaction is the pleasurable feeling that results from the perception that
one's job fulfills or allows for the fulfillment of one's important job values.
Three important aspects of job satisfaction:
1. ValuesJob satisfaction is a function of values (i.e., what a person
consciously or unconsciously desires to obtain)
2. Importance of valuesDifferent employees have different views of which
values are important
3. PerceptionIt is one's perception of one's present situation relative to
BT: Analysis
Answer:
88. Describe job enrichment and job rotation, and the differences and similarities
between them.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
Job enrichment refers to specific ways to add complexity and meaningfulness
to a person's work. Job rotation refers to moving a single individual from one
job to another over the course of time. Both methods aim at reducing job
dissatisfaction. Job enrichment is directed at jobs that are impoverished or
boring. Job rotation offers the employee a mix of jobs, in which some are
considered dissatisfying, while others are considered satisfying. Both
methods tend to increase the complexity for employees.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
The two primary sets of people in an organization who affect job satisfaction
are coworkers and supervisors. A person may be satisfied with his or her
supervisor or coworker for three reasons:
90. Describe what job satisfaction surveys are and explain why annual surveys
(employee survey research) should be a prominent part of an organizational
human resource strategy.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
Most measures of job satisfaction rely on workers' selfreports. There is a vast amount of data on the reliability and validity of
many existing scales as well as a wealth of data from companies that
have used these scales, allowing for comparisons across firms. Two of the
most popular are the Job Descriptive Index and the Pay Satisfaction
Questionnaire. The JDI emphasizes various facets of satisfaction, such as
pay, the work itself, supervision, coworkers, and promotions, while the
PSQ focuses more closely on pay, including pay levels, benefits, pay
structure, and pay raises.
Regardless of what measures are used or how many facets of
satisfaction are assessed, a systematic, ongoing program of employee
survey research should be a prominent part of any HR strategy for a
number of reasons.
1. They allow the company to monitor trends over time.
2. They provide a means for empirically assessing the impact of changes
in policy or personnel.
3. They provide employees a constructive outlet for voicing their
concerns and frustrations.
4. They may allow the company to compare itself with other companies in
the same industry.
CHAPTER 9
1
2
Nonlinear
involve
lifelong
commitment
to
field
or
Boundaryless
Spiral
Flexible
Expert
linear
spiral
expert
traditional
specialized
It involves identifying more with the employer than with the job.
Big-Five Locater
Rorschach test
Self-Directed Search
15 Which of the following is the first step in the development planning system?
A
Reality check
Self-assessment
Goal setting
Action planning
Employee appraisal
16 When an employee
responsibility is to:
is
in
the
self-assessment
step,
the
company's
succession planning
self-assessment
reality check
goal setting
action planning
19 Which of the following occurs during reality check in the career management
process?
A
happens
during
goal-setting
in
the
career
Companies ensure
measurable.
that
employees'
goals
are
specific
and
22 _____ refers to the information employees receive about how the company
evaluates their skills and knowledge and where they fit into the company's
plans.
A
Job specification
Reality check
Job description
Action plan
Self-report
Succession planning
Self-assessment
Reality check
Goal setting
Action planning
Personality tests
Action plans
Focus interviews
Reality checks
Assessment
Job specification
Job description
Negotiation
Reimbursement
28 Which of the following tests can be used to determine the personality type
that best suits an employee out of the personality types available?
A
29 IsaK Corp. is an event management company. In order to allot tasks that are
more compatible with the personality of individual employees, it conducts a
test that rates them on the scales of introversion or extroversion; sensing or
intuition; judging or perceiving; thinking or feeling. Which of the following
tests is IsaK using to assess employees?
A
30 Selena uses the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory to assess her personality type. If
she scores highest in introversion, intuition, thinking, and perceiving, her
personality type would be _____.
A
IIPT
INTP
NIFP
NTJP
FNJP
34 According to the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory, individuals who are _____ tend
to be serious, quiet, practical, orderly, and logical.
interview
in-basket simulation
role-play
focused interview
An in-basket simulation
A role-play
An interview
A focus-group discussion
in-basket
role-play
interview
focus-group discussion
role-play
interview
in-basket
Role-play
Interview
Job enlargement
Interviews
Personality tests
Role-plays
42 Which of the following tests is used to determine if employees can get along
with others and their tolerance for ambiguity?
A
Personality test
Interest test
Aptitude test
performance appraisal
job evaluation
job performance
talent management
Mentor feedback
Peer feedback
-degree feedback
Upward feedback
Intrinsic feedback
46 _____ refer to the relationships, problems, demands, tasks, and other features
that employees face in their jobs.
A
Job specifications
Job evaluations
Job designs
Job redesigns
Job experiences
47 Which of the following is true about how job experiences affect development?
A
The closer the previous job experience is to a new job, the greater
the learning.
Job enlargement
Job design
Job evaluation
Job rotation
Job specification
Job rotation
Job analysis
Job designing
Job evaluation
Job specification
Frequent rotation
motivation.
may
result
in
employee
satisfaction
and
internship
promotion
transfer
externship
sabbatical
Sabbaticals
Internships
Externships
Promotions
Transfers
55 A leave of absence from the company for personal reflection, renewal, and
skill development is called a(n) _____.
A
externship
apprenticeship
internship
retirement
sabbatical
Internships
Apprenticeships
Externships
Training
Mentoring
apprentice
intern
trainee
mentor
protg
Employees who have low needs for power are most likely to seek a
mentor.
Employees who have high needs for achievement are less likely to
seek a mentor.
61 Black Inc. introduced a formal mentoring program for its employees. Which of
the following is necessary to make the program a success?
A
63 In Space-In Inc., Tina is the mentor for a new hire, Tom. Tina provides career
support when she:
A
64 A peer or manager who works with an employee to motivate him, help him
develop skills, and provide reinforcement and feedback is known as a(n)
_____.
A
apprentice
coach
protg
ward
trainer
Career management
Talent management
Action planning
Resource planning
Succession planning
Chapter 10
Employee Separation and Retention
28.
A.
29.
With respect to employee termination, a _____ suit typically attempts to establish that
the termination either violated an implied covenant or violated public policy.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
discrimination
forgery
encroachment
unethical practice
wrongful discharge
A wrongful discharge suit typically attempts to establish that the discharge either (1)
violated an implied contract or covenant (that is, the employer acted unfairly) or (2)
violated public policy (that is, the employee was terminated because he or she
refused to do something illegal, unethical, or unsafe).
30.
Which of the following acts would be considered grounds for a wrongful discharge suit
involving a violation of public policy?
A.
B.
C.
A wrongful discharge suit typically attempts to establish that the discharge either (1)
violated an implied contract or covenant (that is, the employer acted unfairly) or (2)
violated public policy (that is, the employee was terminated because he or she
refused to do something illegal, unethical, or unsafe). Wrongful discharge suits can
also be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person discharged is a member of a
protected group.
31.
A wrongful discharge suit can be filed as a _____ when the person discharged is a
member of a protected group.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
violation of employment-at-will
Wrongful discharge suits can also be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person
discharged is a member of a protected group. The number of such "protected groups"
is large, however, and includes, racial minorities, women, older workers (over 40
years of age), homosexuals, disabled workers (including the obese), whistle-blowers,
people who have filed workers compensation claims, and if one counts reverse
discrimination claimsCaucasians.
32.
Julie's boss, Ben, believes that women are not capable of making top-level decisions.
Julie's decisions are often sidelined by those of Ben's. When Julie confronts Ben, he
terminates her employment. Which of the following is the most appropriate suit that
will help Julie?
A.
A retaliation lawsuit
B.
A forgery lawsuit
C.
D.
E.
Wrongful discharge suits can also be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person
discharged is a member of a protected group. In this case Julie is a woman, which
makes her a part of a protected group.
33.
Which of the following groups is most likely to file a suit based on reverse
discrimination claims?
A.
Racial minorities
B.
Homosexuals
C.
Older workers
D.
E.
Women
Caucasians
Wrongful discharge suits can also be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person
discharged is a member of a protected group. The number of such "protected groups"
is large, however, and includes, racial minorities, women, older workers (over 40
years of age), homosexuals, disabled workers (including the obese), whistle-blowers,
people who have filed workers compensation claims, and if one counts reverse
discrimination claimsCaucasians.
34.
Brian, a Hispanic employee, is a constant low performer. Mark, his boss, is frustrated
and is unable to discharge him due to HR policies. As a consequence, Mark gives Brian
low-level work assignments as well as subjects him to other forms of undesirable
treatment. If Brian leaves the organization, the mentioned actions can expose Mark to
a possible ____.
A.
B.
retaliation lawsuit
forgery lawsuit
C.
D.
E.
35.
Organizations that introduce _____ systems where low performers are systematically
identified and, where necessary, eliminated from payrolls often experience quick
improvement gains.
A.
B.
C.
self-rating
D.
peer-rating
E.
micromanagement
The costs associated with letting poor performers stay on within the organization
cannot be discounted. Organizations that introduce forced distributions rating systems
where low performers are systematically identified and, where necessary, eliminated
from payrolls often experience quick improvement gains in the range of 40%.
36.
_____ refers to the judgment that people make with respect to the results received
relative to the results received by other people with whom they identify (referent
others).
A.
Structural fairness
B.
Outcome fairness
C.
Procedural fairness
D.
Process fairness
E.
Task fairness
Outcome fairness is the judgment that people make with respect to the outcomes
received relative to the outcomes received by other people with whom they identify.
Clearly, a situation where one person is losing his or her job while others are not is
conducive to perceptions of outcome unfairness on the part of the discharged
employee.
37.
A company decides to let go of some employees due to a financial crisis. Jane loses
her job, while her colleagues with similar performance ratings and productivity retain
their jobs. Jane's judgment of her loss when compared to her colleagues' is a
perception of _____.
A.
structural unfairness
B.
process unfairness
C.
procedural unfairness
D.
outcome unfairness
E.
task unfairness
Outcome fairness is the judgment that people make with respect to the outcomes
received relative to the outcomes received by other people with whom they identify.
Clearly, a situation where one person is losing his or her job while others are not is
conducive to perceptions of outcome unfairness on the part of the discharged
employee.
38.
_____ focuses specifically on the methods used to determine the outcomes received.
A.
Outcome justice
B.
Interactional justice
C.
Procedural justice
D.
Result justice
E.
Input justice
Procedural justice deals with how a decision was made. It focuses specifically on the
methods used to determine the outcomes received.
39.
_____ justice refers to the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were
implemented.
A.
Outcome
B.
Interactional
C.
Procedural
D.
E.
Result
Functional
Whereas procedural justice deals with how a decision was made, interactional justice
refers to the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were implemented.
Explanation, social sensitivity, consideration, and empathy are the four determinants
of interactional justice.
40.
A.
Outcome justice
B.
Interactional justice
C.
Procedural justice
D.
Result justice
E.
Input justice
Procedural justice deals with how a decision was made. It focuses specifically on the
methods used to determine the outcomes received.
41.
A.
perceptual justice
B.
interactional justice
C.
procedural justice
D.
outcome justice
E.
income justice
42.
Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure
is applied by a person who has no vested interest in the outcome?
A.
B.
C.
Bias suppression
Correctability
Representativeness
D.
E.
Ethicality
Consistency
43.
Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that procedures are
applied by someone who has no prior prejudices regarding the individual involved in
the discussion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Representativeness
Correctability
Bias suppression
Accuracy
Consistency
44.
Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure
has built-in safeguards that allow one to appeal mistakes or bad decisions?
A.
B.
C.
Bias suppression
Correctability
Representativeness
D.
E.
Ethicality
Consistency
45.
Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure
is informed by the concerns of all groups or stakeholders (co-workers, customers,
owners) affected by the decision?
A.
Bias suppression
B.
Correctability
C.
Representativeness
D.
E.
Ethicality
Consistency
46.
Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure
is consistent with prevailing moral standards in terms of invasion of privacy or
deception?
A.
Bias suppression
B.
Correctability
C.
Representativeness
D.
E.
Ethicality
Consistency
47.
A.
B.
perceptual justice
interactional justice
C.
procedural justice
D.
outcome justice
E.
task justice
48.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Social sensitivity
Explanation
Consideration
Empathy
Consistency
49.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is a method of resolving disputes that does not
rely on the legal system. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) proceeds through the
four stages of open door policy, peer review, mediation, and arbitration.
50.
A. ADR relies on the legal system to resolve matters that cannot be handled
internally.
B. Resolution through an ADR system is expensive as it involves high costs in terms of
legal fee.
C. In ADR systems, there is a possibility of arbitrators, who wish to do more
business, leaning in favor of those paying them.
D. ADR is more effective than employee assistance programs in dealing with issues
related to drug or alcohol abuse.
E. ADR is designed to resolve issues internally and does not engage outsiders to
enter the discussion.
.
51.
Which of the following should be the first step to take as a progressive discipline
measure?
A.
Temporary suspension
B.
C.
D.
Threat of suspension
E.
Termination
Punitive measures should be taken in steps of increasing magnitude, and only after
having been clearly documented. This may start with an unofficial warning for the first
offense, followed by a written reprimand for additional offenses.
53.
A.
B.
C.
Temporary suspension
D.
Threat of suspension
E.
Termination
Termination (with the right to go to arbitration) is the last step to take in progressive
discipline. The step to take before that is temporary suspension and a last chance
notification.
Refer To: Table 10.3
54.
A.
B.
Arbitration
Open-door policy
C.
Peer review
D.
E.
Mediation
Legal support
Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is a method of resolving disputes that does not
rely on the legal system. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) proceeds through the
four stages of open door policy, peer review, mediation, and arbitration.
Refer To: Table 10.4
AACSB: Analytic
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 10-02 List the major elements that contribute to perceptions of justice and how to apply these
in organizational contexts involving discipline and dismissal.
Topic: Managing Involuntary Turnover
55.
In an alternative dispute resolution method, the stage during which the two people
involved in the conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement without any third parties
involved is known as _____.
A.
peer review
B.
C.
arbitration
open-door policy
D.
E.
mediation
legal support
In an alternative dispute resolution method, the two people involved in the conflict
(employee and supervisor) attempt to arrive at a settlement together during the
open-door policy stage. If none can be reached, they proceed to the peer review
stage.
Refer To: Table 10.4
56.
A.
peer review
B.
arbitration
C.
open-door policy
D.
E.
mediation
legal support
During the peer review stage of alternative dispute resolution, a panel composed of
representatives from the organization that are at the same level of those people in the
dispute hears the case and attempts to help the parties arrive at a settlement.
Refer To: Table 10.4
57.
A.
B. A panel composed of representatives from the same level hears the case.
C.
D.
E. The judiciary system steps in to resolve the dispute based on the suit filed.
In the mediation stage of alternative dispute resolution, a neutral third party from
outside the organization hears the case and, via a nonbinding process, tries to help
the disputants arrive at a settlement. If none can be reached, the parties proceed to
arbitration.
Refer To: Table 10.4
58.
A.
employee assistance
B.
C.
health benefits
D.
health insurance
E.
aided workers'
59.
What type of counseling helps displaced employees manage the transition from one
job to another?
A.
Outplacement
B.
Transition
C.
Relocation
D.
Displacement
E.
Transfer
Outplacement counseling is aimed at helping people realize that losing a job is not the
end of the world and that other opportunities exist. It tries to help dismissed
employees manage the transition from one job to another.
AACSB: Analytic
60.
A.
B.
C. It typically involves legal aspects that have repercussions for the organization.
D. It gives the employee no choice in deciding his or her stay in the organization.
E.
61.
When it comes to complex jobs, the fact that the worst and best performers tend to
leave more frequently than those at the average suggests a _____ relationship
between past performance and future turnover.
A.
horizontal
B.
nonlinear
C.
D.
E.
diagonal
circular
curvilinear
62.
63.
Which of the following suggests that dissatisfied individuals enact a set of behaviors
in succession to avoid their work situation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two-factor theory
E.
Motivation theory
The progression of withdrawal theory states that dissatisfied individuals enact a set of
behaviors in succession to avoid their work situation. For example, someone who is
dissatisfied with the job or organization might not be able to just jump to another job
right away but will instead either disengage temporarily (through absenteeism or
tardiness) or psychologically (through lower job involvement and organizational
commitment) until the right opportunity comes along.
64.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
65.
A.
behavioral change
B.
psychological withdrawal
C.
physical withdrawal
D.
whistle-blowing
E.
arbitration
If the job conditions cannot be changed, a dissatisfied worker may be able to solve the
problem by leaving the job. Another way of physically removing oneself from the
dissatisfying work short of quitting altogether is to be absent.
66.
Lately, Laura has been performing low in her job. Although she is physically present at
her workplace, her mind is constantly engaged with thoughts of a better job. Which of
the following behaviors does Laura express?
A.
B.
Physical withdrawal
Psychological withdrawal
C.
Internal change
D.
Whistle-blowing
E.
Behavioral change
67.
_____ is the degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs.
A.
Job enlargement
B.
Job enrichment
C.
Job involvement
D.
Job recognition
E.
Job satisfaction
Job involvement is the degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs.
People who are uninvolved with their jobs consider their work an unimportant aspect
of their lives.
68.
The degree to which an employee identifies with an organization and is willing to put
forth effort on its behalf is called _____.
A.
job satisfaction
B.
organizational enlargement
C.
organizational commitment
D.
job engagement
E.
job involvement
69.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The psychological disengagement can take several forms. First, if the primary
dissatisfaction has to do with the job itself, the employee may display a very low level
of job involvement. A second form of psychological disengagement, which can occur
when the dissatisfaction is with the employer as a whole, is a low level of
organizational commitment.
70.
_____ can be identified as a pleasurable feeling that results from the perception that
one's job fulfills or allows the fulfillment of one's important job values.
A.
Job enrichment
B.
Job enlargement
C.
Job commitment
D.
Job involvement
E.
Job satisfaction
Job satisfaction is defined as a pleasurable feeling that results from the perception
that one's job fulfills or allows for the fulfillment of one's important job values. The
three important aspects of job satisfaction are values, importance of individual views,
and perception.
71.
A.
perception
B.
appreciation
C.
contentment
D.
E.
appraisal
values
72.
A.
B.
C.
organizational roles.
D.
work environment.
E.
73.
A.
job transfer
B.
job rotation
C.
job evaluation
D.
job enlargement
E.
job enrichment
Reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is job enrichment. Many job
enrichment programs provide increased opportunities for workers to have input into
important organizational decisions that involve their work, and this has been routinely
found to reduce role conflict and ambiguity.
74.
A.
job enrichment
B.
team building
C.
prosocial motivation
D.
job rotation
E.
work complication
One of the major interventions aimed at reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job
complexity is job enrichment. Job enrichment is directed at jobs that are
"impoverished" or boring because of their repetitive nature or low scope.
75.
_____ is a process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to another
over the course of time.
A.
Job involvement
B.
Job enrichment
C.
Job engagement
D.
Job enlargement
E.
Job rotation
Job rotation is the process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to
another over the course of time. The job assignments may be in various functional
areas of the company or movement may be between jobs in a single functional area
or department.
76.
The degree to which people are energized to do their jobs because it helps other
people is called _____.
A.
job enrichment
B.
team building
C.
prosocial motivation
D.
job rotation
E.
work involvement
The most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction is the degree to
which it is meaningfully related to core values of the worker. The term prosocial
motivation is often used explicitly to capture the degree to which people are
motivated to help other people. When people believe that their work has an important
impact on other people, they are much more willing to work longer hours.
AACSB: Analytic
77.
Organizations that foster team building both on and off the job attempt to reduce
dissatisfaction through _____.
A.
behavior modification
B.
a supportive environment
C.
D.
E.
78.
Which of the following is the most important aspect of work in terms of generating
satisfaction?
A. An employee's salary and the benefits that come along with the work he or she
does
B. The degree to which work is meaningfully related to core values of the
worker
C.
D.
The extrinsic rewards associated with the work and the organization
A positive work environment and social support
E. The non-monetary benefits received by the employee in terms of self esteem and
goal satisfaction
By far, the most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction is the
degree to which it is meaningfully related to core values of the worker. Prosocial
motivation is the degree to which people are energized to do their jobs because it
helps other people.
79.
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.
The two primary sets of people in the organization who affect an individual's job
satisfaction are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The two primary sets of people in an organization who affect job satisfaction are coworkers and supervisors. A person may be satisfied with her supervisor and coworkers for one of two reasons. First, she may have many of the same values,
attitudes, and philosophies that the co-workers and supervisors have. Second, people
may be satisfied with their supervisor and co-workers because they provide support
that helps them achieve their own goals.
81.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
People may be satisfied with their supervisor and co-workers because they provide
support that helps them achieve their own goals. Social support means the degree to
which the person is surrounded by other people who are sympathetic and caring.
Considerable research indicates that social support is a strong predictor of job
satisfaction and lower employee turnover.
82.
_____ is the degree to which a person is surrounded by other people who are
sympathetic and caring.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Organization culture
Homogeneous environment
Organizational support
Social support
Organizational network
Social support means the degree to which a person is surrounded by other people
who are sympathetic and caring. Social support is a strong predictor of job satisfaction
and lower employee turnover.
83.
Which of the following is likely to happen when a high performing employee who
enjoys autonomy is micromanaged by a manager?
C.
84.
A.
observations of employees
B.
reports by co-workers
C.
workers' self-reports
D.
behavioral measures
E.
Most attempts to measure job satisfaction rely on workers' self-reports. There is a vast
amount of data on the reliability and validity of many existing scales as well as a
wealth of data from companies that have used these scales, allowing for comparisons
across firms.
85.
A.
B.
co-workers
C.
promotions
D.
supervision
E.
benefits
The Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on these more specific dimensions
(pay levels, benefits, pay structure, and pay raises); thus this measure gives a more
detailed view of exactly what aspects of pay are most or least satisfying.
86.
Which of the following facets is measured by both the Job Descriptive Index (JDI) and
the Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ)?
A.
Job satisfaction
B.
Supervision
C.
D.
E.
The Job Descriptive Index (JDI) emphasizes various facets of satisfaction: pay, the
work itself, supervision, co-workers, and promotions. Although the JDI assesses
satisfaction with pay, it does not break pay up into different dimensions. The Pay
Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on these more specific dimensions (pay
levels, benefits, pay structure, and pay raises); thus this measure gives a more
detailed view of exactly what aspects of pay are most or least satisfying.
87.
Where the main concern is _____, the key in measuring satisfaction is making sure that
the scores on whatever measures taken truly relate to turnover among valued
people.
A.
training
B.
retention
C.
selection
D.
E.
productivity
quality
There is no end to the number of satisfaction facets that we might want to measure,
but the key in operational contexts, where the main concern is retention, is making
sure that scores on whatever measures taken truly relate to voluntary turnover
among valued people. Satisfaction with co-workers might be low, but if this aspect of
satisfaction is not too central to employees, it may not translate into voluntary
turnover.
88.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
89.
Employee survey research allows the company to monitor trends over time and thus
prevent problems, before they happen, in the area of _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
low productivity
E.
low quality
Regardless of what measures are used or how many facets of satisfaction are
assessed, a systematic, ongoing program of employee survey research should be a
prominent part of any human resource strategy for a number of reasons. It allows the
company to monitor trends over time and thus prevent problems in the area of
voluntary turnover before they happen and provides a means of empirically assessing
the impact of changes in policy or personnel on worker attitudes.
90.
_____ interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering
systematic concerns that are driving retention problems.
A.
Technical
B.
Retaining
C.
Exit
D.
E.
Mock
Screening
Exit interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering
systematic concerns that are driving retention problems. If properly conducted, an
exit interview can reveal the reasons why people are leaving, and perhaps even set
the stage for their later return.
91.
A. They include those who work too many hours as well as those who do not
get enough work hours.
B. They include only those working on an hourly-wage basis and not the salaried
ones.
C. Those who work on an hourly basis usually tend to leave due to working too many
hours.
D. Those employees who are salaried usually tend to leave due to lack of enough
work hours.
E.
There are two distinct groups of people who are leaving their jobsone set of workers
who cannot get enough hours and a second set of workers who are working too many
hours. This may seem ironic and counter-intuitive, but in some ways it actually makes
sense given the way work is increasing structured around two distinct classes of
workershourly and salaried.
True/False Questions
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
10. There is a general consensus that withdrawal behaviors are clearly unrelated
to one another.
BT: Knowledge
11. Within the progression of job withdrawal, grievances and whistle-blowing are
examples of behavior change.
BT: Knowledge
12. Whistle-blowers are often dissatisfied individuals who cannot bring about
external change.
BT: Knowledge
13. Organizational commitment is the degree to which people identify with their
jobs.
BT: Knowledge
14. If the job conditions cannot be changed, a dissatisfied worker may be able to
solve the problem by leaving the job.
BT: Knowledge
15. Job satisfaction is the key driving force behind all forms of job withdrawal.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
19. Research conducted on identical twins that were raised apart suggests that
negative affectivity may have a genetic component.
BT: Knowledge
20. Because of their varying frames of reference, individuals with high core selfevaluation generally have less job satisfaction than those individuals with low
core self-evaluation.
BT: Comprehension
21. The nature of the task is the most important predictor of job satisfaction.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
23. One consequence of the increase in role overload is that there has been an
increase in the number of lawsuits filed by people who are suing for overtime
pay.
BT: Comprehension
24. The two primary sets of people in the organization that affect an individual's
job satisfaction are his or her subordinates and coworkers.
BT: Knowledge
25. A company concerned about the level of job dissatisfaction among its workers
might try to foster team building, since team building can lead to a more
supportive environment which reduces dissatisfaction.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
30. Under the doctrine of employment-at-will, who may sever the employment
relationship?
A) The employer
B) The employee
C) The employer or the employee
D) The Department of Labor
BT: Knowledge
BT: Application
BT: Knowledge
33. Although the rate of inflation is only 2 percent, Kayla receives a 6 percent
increase in salary. She is nonetheless dissatisfied with her salary increase
due to Bob's 9 percent increase. Kayla is likely to contend there is a lack of
A) perceptual justice.
B) outcome fairness.
C) procedural justice.
D) interactional justice.
BT: Application
BT: Knowledge
35. Sam Jones was terminated from his job with no explanation or consideration
of why he was let go. It is likely that Sam has not experienced
A) procedural justice.
B) outcome fairness.
C) interactional justice.
D) all of the above.
BT: Application
BT: Knowledge
37. _____ justice focuses specifically on the methods used to determine the
outcomes received.
A) Outcome
B) Distributive
C) Procedural
D) Interactional
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
40. What type of counseling helps displaced employees manage the transition
from one job to another?
A) Outplacement
B) Transition
C) Relocation
D) Displacement
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
45. Denise is very dissatisfied with her job situation, but she doesn't perceive any
other employment opportunities, so she stays and spends most of the
workday dreaming about non-work matters. Which of the following behaviors
is she experiencing?
A) Physical withdrawal
B) Psychological withdrawal
C) Change behaviors
D) Physiological withdrawal
BT: Application
B) job involvement.
C) organizational commitment.
D) organizational satisfaction.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Comprehension
52. The positive or negative bottom-line opinion that individuals hold about
themselves is termed
A) core self-evaluation.
B) external self-evaluation.
C) internal self-evaluation.
D) self-efficacy.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
54. With few exceptions, the relationship between task complexity and job
satisfaction is
A) weak/positive.
B) strong/positive.
C) weak/negative.
D) strong/negative.
BT: Knowledge
55. Which of the following is not one of the primary aspects of tasks that affect
job satisfaction?
A) Task complexity
B) The degree of physical strain and exertion
C) Task status
D) The value the employees places on the task
BT: Knowledge
56. A positive core evaluation reflects the persons self-image on all of the
following traits except
A) high self-efficacy
B) internal locus of control
C) emotional instability
D) high self-esteem
BT: Knowledge
AACSB: 6
BT: Knowledge
58. The behavioral expectations that other people in the organization have for a
person is that person's
A) role.
B) organizational task.
C) values.
D) task environment.
BT: Knowledge
59. The use of job rotation is an attempt to reduce job dissatisfaction caused by
A) organizational tasks.
B) lack of career opportunities.
C) the political environment.
D) personality traits of individuals.
BT: Knowledge
60. _____ is a process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to
another over the course of time.
A) Job enrichment
B) Organizational task
C) Job rotation
D) Role reversal
BT: Knowledge
61. The level of uncertainty about what the organization expects from the
employee in terms of what to do and how to do it is called
A) role ambiguity.
B) role distance.
C) role conflict.
D) role overload.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
63. Mary was recently told by upper management that they expected her to
exercise more authority and leadership in her work group. Just two days prior
to that, her team told her that while they appreciated the initiative she
demonstrated, they expected her to be less authoritative and more
democratic in the future. The term that best describes what Mary is
experiencing is
A) role ambiguity.
B) role distance.
C) role conflict.
D) role overload.
BT: Application
64. Tom is a single father who works full-time and attends to the needs of his
three young children. It seems as though he never has an eight-hour period in
which he does not have to respond to work demands and/or the demands of
his children. The term that best characterizes what Tom is experiencing is
A) role ambiguity.
B) role distance.
C) role conflict.
D) role overload.
BT: Application
65. An employee who occupies more than one role at a time is an example of
A) role ambiguity.
B) role overload.
C) role underload.
D) role conflict.
BT: Knowledge
66. Downsizing and cost cutting among organizations have increased the
problem of
A) role conflict.
B) role complexity.
C) role overload.
D) role ambiguity.
BT: Knowledge
67. Some organizations have tried to create more flexible work arrangements by
reclassifying job descriptions so that more workers are considered in the
managerial class, but this sort of action is ______.
A) will improve workers morale
B) very controversial
C) good in theory, but poor in practice
D) misguided
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
69. Because of the powerful role played by supervisors and other more
experienced workers in terms of supporting the organizations culture, some
organizations are going to great lengths to develop the ______ skills of their
managers and other highly experienced employees.
A) leadership
B) mentoring
C) interpersonal
D) technical
BT: Knowledge
70. Which one of the following is not likely to be a member of the role occupant's
role set?
A) Coworkers
B) Supervisors
C) Customers
D) Subordinates
BT: Comprehension
71. The two primary sets of people in the organization who affect an individual's
job satisfaction are
A) subordinates and supervisors.
B) supervisors and family members.
C) coworkers and subordinates.
BT: Knowledge
72. Which of the following is not a reason that people may be satisfied with their
supervisors and coworkers?
A) They may share the same values, attitudes, and philosophies.
B) They spend a great deal of time together.
C) The supervisor or coworker provides social support.
D) The supervisor or coworker may help individuals attain some valued
outcome.
BT: Comprehension
73. Organizations that foster team building both on and off the job attempt to
reduce dissatisfaction caused by
A) behavior settings.
B) the social environment.
C) organizational roles.
D) organizational tasks.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
76. The job descriptive index measures all of the following facets of satisfaction
except
A) pay.
B) work itself.
C) coworkers.
D) customers.
BT: Knowledge
BT: Comprehension
78. Regardless of what measures are used or how many facets of satisfaction are
assessed, a systematic, ______ program of employee survey research should
be a prominent part of any human resource strategy for a number of reasons.
A) periodic
B) occasional
C) intermittent
D) ongoing
BT: Knowledge
79. Within the organization, a systematic survey program allows the company to
check for differences between units and _____ best practices that might be
generalized across units.
A) benchmark
B) avoid
C) discontinue
D) reevaluate
BT: Knowledge
BT: Knowledge
Essay Questions
81. Define and discuss the employment at-will doctrine and its recognized
exceptions under the wrongful discharge suit.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
BT: Analysis
Answer:
4. Outcome justiceThis type of justice refers to the judgment that people
make with respect to the outcomes received relative to the outcomes
received by other people with whom they identify. In a situation where one
person is losing his or her job while others are not is conductive to
perceptions of outcome unfairness on the part of the discharged
employee.
5. Procedural justiceThis type of justice focuses specifically on the methods
used to determine the outcomes received. The determinants of
procedural justice include (a) consistency, (b) bias suppression, (c)
information accuracy, (d) correctability, (e) representativeness, and (f)
BT: Analysis
Answer:
84. Explain what job withdrawal is, its three levels of progression, and how it
relates to job satisfaction.
AACSB: 6
BT: Analysis
Answer:
Job withdrawal is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid
a work situation. The theory of progression of withdrawal includes three
categories of behaviors:
4. Change behaviorsEfforts to attempt to change the conditions that
generated the job satisfaction
5. Physical job withdrawalIf job conditions cannot be changed, a
dissatisfied worker may be able to solve his or her problem by leaving the
job
6. Psychological job withdrawalEmployees psychologically disengage
themselves from their job; they are on the job, but their minds may be
elsewhere
85. Describe in what ways the two constructs of job involvement and
organizational commitment are different and in what ways they are similar.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
86. Define job satisfaction, and briefly discuss the three important aspects of job
satisfaction that are reflected in its definition.
AACSB: 6
BT: Analysis
Answer:
Job satisfaction is the pleasurable feeling that results from the perception that
one's job fulfills or allows for the fulfillment of one's important job values.
Three important aspects of job satisfaction:
4. ValuesJob satisfaction is a function of values (i.e., what a person
consciously or unconsciously desires to obtain)
5. Importance of valuesDifferent employees have different views of which
values are important
6. PerceptionIt is one's perception of one's present situation relative to
one's values that affects job satisfaction
87. First, describe negative affectivity and how it relates to job satisfaction; then
discuss how our knowledge regarding the impact of negative affectivity on
job satisfaction could be used by an employer to improve overall levels of job
satisfaction in the organization.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
88. Describe job enrichment and job rotation, and the differences and similarities
between them.
Answer:
BT: Analysis
BT: Analysis
Answer:
The two primary sets of people in an organization who affect job satisfaction
are coworkers and supervisors. A person may be satisfied with his or her
supervisor or coworker for three reasons:
90. Describe what job satisfaction surveys are and explain why annual surveys
(employee survey research) should be a prominent part of an organizational
human resource strategy.
BT: Analysis
Answer:
Most measures of job satisfaction rely on workers' selfreports. There is a vast amount of data on the reliability and validity of
many existing scales as well as a wealth of data from companies that
have used these scales, allowing for comparisons across firms. Two of the
most popular are the Job Descriptive Index and the Pay Satisfaction
Questionnaire. The JDI emphasizes various facets of satisfaction, such as
pay, the work itself, supervision, coworkers, and promotions, while the
PSQ focuses more closely on pay, including pay levels, benefits, pay
structure, and pay raises.
Regardless of what measures are used or how many facets of
satisfaction are assessed, a systematic, ongoing program of employee
survey research should be a prominent part of any HR strategy for a
number of reasons.
5. They allow the company to monitor trends over time.
6. They provide a means for empirically assessing the impact of changes
in policy or personnel.
7. They provide employees a constructive outlet for voicing their
concerns and frustrations.
8. They may allow the company to compare itself with other companies in
the same industry.