ge ti yet acer No. ofpages inBooklet 24 car a we ah do No. of Questions in Booklet Subject Code - 01 farm SUBJECT: Hindi, Eng., GK., E.D.Sci., Maths, B.Compu. 150 senna yer ier Question Paper Booklet No. 1040881 wa : 2,30 ave PAPER-I aaferere afar : 450 Time : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 450 C whartaat & fag Fret (__INSTRUCTIONSFOR CANDIDATES) wil wei & ame aa | 1. Answer all questions. wi rei twa wr ver eet we et sae | ee afer soe Fa cer er eae ET AT TET | enke er ee a ae ft dH, Bee ve 1, 2 3, 4 ton fo er | aan wah Bae Pie wet aa 3 Sew tied samt Gam we Sue Re att writ 8 er ete | 6. OMMR ae a eens ore ua 1 ee ort vader fern ater a mer ame, rh ame ot Frere ae ver a Sera oi ats tee fr @ fret wt >a ee fee ser 1/3 eT TET ATT | ET Bee 8 sweet see ane seer fat At ee ew a othe ‘See eet oe & aah it cr ae ed EAT se 3a = on 2. All questions carry equal marks. 3. Only one answer ist he given foreach question. 4. Ifmore than one answers are marked, it would be treated 2s ‘wronganser. 5. Each question has four alternative rosponses marked serially as 1, 2, 3,4, You have to darken only one circle or bubble indiatng the coreet answer onthe Answer Sheet sing BLUE, BALLPOINT PEN. 6. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed f0 open the Test Booklet, take out the ‘Answer Sheet and fil in the particulars carefully with blue ballpoint pen only. 7. 113 part of the mark(s) of each question will be be prosecuted. Department may also debar him/her permanentty from all future examinations.op samt Pata wet ) wer (2) wie G) WERE (4) seit fea werd op cera gas gee? Q) arr Q) sar 3) Ate @) tet fare rarer a eet wee “ged a wafer € (1) aaa, sae, were (2) 7G, orafs, afer (3) Tet, Ait, area (4) Ae, staf, ieee ain at feta ge att ae 7 (1) are — Freee (2) wre — Free @) art - ater @) ore vate, a4, anne & ora at ree eet aT Hae sare | () wer GB) (2) we 4) Aterears Prafetan a facta we ge: (1) féer— wiser Q) we - siere @) AA- Far (4) are — sfereret i. 12. 13. frafefisd 3 8 ats ar ae, aot ote defen et? a) eet 3) tafe @ aR eR @ a ‘aac crad wegen ar ae ont () feet at ew sore — war Q) Bra fed at oe sre Q) Ware TT (4) Wee eT — TAT cafacater weg ar eet ont Q) er - Tart 2) ae - fate @ -te (4) ae: — afr FRAP UGH OT TTT () ase — yet Q) stgeae - ai @) -ae (4) see wai a Ss or feet Senay SET aT ETE? Q) Fre @) arr 3) set (4) rete wa a Sho ue sears da a aT fart ete? Fit 2) afer (3) ot (4) arate Prafatad wet 3a ae at aren were: (1) Frew (2) sraater (3) afte o114, 16. Ww. 18. 19. o1 frafafan ao ge wee: (2) Sat @® we G) Gat 4) Wat “This is not admissible under the rules.” Bae aaa aT TE fret sie e (1) ae Fram Pama elteoret ater ae 1 (2) ae Prearqar Wega wee 1 ) ae Fram & are art aire et (4) ae Prepit & anes starred see 1 ‘order as ae wera ar ard & (1) 88 fae omea ate car Q) wir ed err 3) Aa at eat st (4) Set grr ae fre wiadeh aa far it? (2) Grae Rare (2) sretaras fear ot aaeT S| 3) yee ger set set ® Agee M gE | Fre fee rere gor : (1) sae qa wer set ste (2) Biter & are aeegr fear sre & (3) aie Yee ae tee (4) Star erat sare | ‘Ability-profile’ & fer fet aifentias wee () areas (2) aren airs (3) ate Freer 4) aaa reer 2, Prafetaa HS fee wer fae af ag ae () B+ 8 = ST (2) Fer + ae = Ff (3) at + srathr = mere (4) a+ tay = waar . Rrafefian #2 ais a ax aise ai a a2 (1) are Q) sare @) whe (4) ater cere wer a ata ar aaa 7 () WRT (2) sahara @) 4) aeie fara gare 4 ei oe wart at, ae Fee & (1) serine are (2) Weqey SAT @) Few 4) seis Ba Frees erect aoe it wee () 7Et Q) aE 3) setter (4) safer wha hero or seat ai gsr gat ¥ QQ) AR Q) rere (2) Are (4) ae27. 29, 31. 32. Fill in the blank with the correct option. Only of these apples are good. (1) many (2) every (3) afew (4) alittle Complete the following sentence by choosing the correct answer from the given options He gave me thousand-rupee note. (1) the Qa @) an @) no article Select the appropriate preposition to fill the blank in the following sentence : T bought this book fifty rupees. (1) with @ at- 3) for (4) from Choose the most appropriate English translation for the given sentence : BH Mae HT aT aT? (1) This question what answer will be ? (2) What will be the answer to this question ? (3) What answer to this questions ? (4) What answer will this question be of? Choose the correct Hindi translation of the given sentence : At last he realized his mistakes, Q) safae 4 st ag refed ans 2) saat onfeeay wae art fe mrefeet ser eet & 1 3) ar Saet ore weft wae aa | 4) onftae Ya sire ver far neater ae F 1 From the given options, select the verb that agrees with the subject in the following sentence : Two and two four. (1) made (2) make (3) makes (4) making Choose the correct word to complete the sentence. We must leave early we won't get a good seat. (1) however (2) moreover (3) otherwise (4) unless 33. 35. 37. 38. What is “21 WH" called in English ? (1) Endorsement Letter (2) Official Letter (3) Demi-Official Letter (4) Covering Letter ‘What is ‘On Probation’ called in Hindi ? () wiairgaa ae (2) afters (3) fetter (4) 3a SET What is the synonym of the word ‘amiable’ ? (1) aloof (3) jealous (2) friendly (4) beautiful Which of the following options is opposite in meaning to the given word ? Give (2) put (3) handle (2) have (4) receive Select the correct prefix to add to the underlined word in the context of the given sentence : You honour Shyam by calling him a terrorist. Q) un- (2) mis— 3) dis @) il- Substitute one = word — for “uncontrollable urge to steal.” (1) Pyromania (2) Cheating (3) Kleptomania (4) Robbing In which of the following words not used as suffix ? (2) Disposal 3) Reversal (2) Renewal (4) Loyal Fill in the blank with the appropriate word from the given options : Llike to television in the evening. (1) see (2) look (3) watch (4) observe onRead the given passage carefully and answer ‘question no: 41 and 42: Then there are simple folks who are forever eating and drinking in railway carriages. No sooner are they settled in their seats than they are passing each other tattered sandwiches and mournful scraps of pastry and talking with their mouthsfull and scattering crumbs over the trousers of fastidious old gentleman, Sometimes they will peel and eat bananas with such rapidity that nervous onlookers are compelled to seek another compartment. 41. What is the first thing, which some folks do, no sooner they settle in a railway carriage ? (1) They start passing each other sandwiches and pastries. (2) They start being nostalgic. (3) They start annoying children. (4) They start looking for space in other compartments. 42. What is the meaning of the word ‘rapidity’ used in the passage ? (1) Hungrily (2) Quickly (3) Eagerly (4) Voraciously 43, Which of the following is NOT a part of a notice? () Salutation Q) Heading (3) Date and Time (4) Contact person/address 44, What's “subscription” in a letter ? (1). Subject (2) Reference (3) Address (4) Courteous leave taking 48. A written document inviting potential and qualified suppliers of goods and services on certain conditions pertaining to price, period, quality, delivery etc. is a (1). Circular 2) Notice (3) Demi-Official letter (4) Tender a 47. 48. 49. 50. Fill in the blank with the appropriate form of the tense/tense sequence. By the time he returned, 1 ten pages of my report. (1) typed (2) typing (3) had typed (4) would have been typing Choose the correct tense from the options given below to fill in the blank in the given sentence. It____when I got up. () isnt (2) wasn’t raining @) wasnotrain (4) not raining From the given options, select the correct passive form of the sentence given below : No one has climbed this mountain before. (1) This mountain was not climbed before (2) This mountain has not been climbed by no one before. (3) This mountain has not been climbed before. (4) This mountain was climbed by no one before. Choose the correct Direct form for the given Indirect sentence : ‘The policeman asked if I had seen the accident. (1) “Had you seen it ?” the policeman said. (2) “If you had seen the accident 2” the policeman asked. (3) “Did you see the accident ?” the policeman asked. (4) “Does you see the accident ?” the policeman said, O that I were a beauty queen ! Transform the sentence into an assertive sentence by choosing the most appropriate option. (1) Why would I not want to be a beauty queen ? (2) wish T were a beauty queen. (3) Lam not so beautiful to become a beauty queen. (4) Alas, I were a beauty queen ! o51. 52, 53. 54. 55, wae F fet wae da fea sae at agri & fafira & 2 (1) Fae (3) ST ee (2) Free (4) fae ‘our a Hee’ ase & frites fer fareit # fat & 9? (1) er —ant (2) siete — ref (3) Sarit — arse 4) Ateearst - SRE afte arse arg ar aA, THI aa ware at ern a aa Ge &, aa (1) trea 4 ase org a BAR eS qt waiters 1 (2) Fee ary A aga east er eae afre tem eI (3) Pe a ot eae 1 ) ee epee ' men % faites deat FS feet ard ae & arise fen ar? (12) Sifter fae (2), athe are Fer aI gT (4) siqATT Fe frites 4 8 a rer & yer Ht wit ate? () Serer fag (2) thea, dezrant (3). Rieger eae SFaTAT (4) Reqecis a lat ase fee we A aqafat srrnfrat 3 fare afar tet & fart igen weer Praifad gee 2 a) 2 (2) 3 3) 5 ) 6 51. 52. 53. 55. 56. In Rajasthan, the Vindhyan scarp-land areaiis formed by which type of rocks ? ) Granite (2) Quartzite (3) Sandstone (4) Basalt ‘The Chappan plain extends in which of the following districts of Rajasthan ? (1) Kota-Baran (2) Talore -Pali (3) Jaisalmer — Barmer @)_Banswara — Dungarpur In summer, the temperature of Mt. ‘Abu remains lower as compared to the other places of Rajasthan, because (1) The distance of Mt. Abu from sea coast is maximum in Rajasthan. (2) The impact of monsoon winds is greater in Mt. Abu. (3) Mt. Abu is situated at higher altitude, (4) The atmospheric pressure at Mt. Abu is less. ‘Who among the following Govemors of Rajasthan had resigned from his post ? (1) Joginder Singh (2) Bali Ram Bhagat @) Madan Lal Khurana (4) Anshuman Singh ‘Who among the following has never been the Chief Minister of Rajasthan ? (1) Hera Lal Devpura (2) CS. Venkatachari (3) Gokul Lal Asawa (4) Barkatullah Khan How many women members. are elected in the 14” Rajasthan Legislative Assembly from the seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes ? () 2 @3 @) 5 (4) 6 o137. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. adam A wen & ciergat & ow Frafofian 3 @ a aria & 2 (1) Gam, start Q) TRAE Q) ae. aE @ FAs gar are fers afeen faenet & 22 He wt ereert Set & feats st aera fart oo? () APE aE Q) Saar (3) afer fefira (4) aifeat aerate 65. 66. 61. 68, Match List ~ I with List - Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List -1 List - II Padma Vibhushan Field Recipients - 2016 a, Viswanathan Shanta i. Public Affairs b. Avinash Dixit ii, Literature . Jagmohan iii,Science and engineering d, Vasudev Atre iv. Medicine Codes : a boc d Qi ii i iv Q iv ii iii Qi i iv ii @i ii i iv Rajasthan Intemational Folk Festival 2016 is to be held at : (1) Jaisalmer = (2) Udaipur @) Jaipur (4) Jodhpur Elie Wiesel, the Nobel Prize winner of 1986 for peace, who died recently, was citizen of which of the following country ? (1) Poland (2) Romania (3) Germany (4) United States of America In which tournament, Indian Men's Hockey team won the Silver medal in June 2016 ? (1) Azlan Shah Cup (2) World Cup (3) Champions Trophy (4) Euro Cup After winning Womans’ Single title of Wimbledon Tennis Tournament 2016, Serena Williams equalled record of 22 Grand Slam title of which of the following woman player? (2) Margaret Court Q) Steffi Graf @) Martina Hingis (4) Martina Navratilova on69, 70. n. nR. B. 74. on Fred aia arr ah aE? ata) (arghiar refer) () wert - are eae Q) sina t — atari 3) fata - fatten @ ade - siete ret Thgee ampfr a fore afer errr fee, freer Pato de geome 3 1844 & aca, ae fer 2 @ Rt (2) areEreT Q) weet at (4) aqish sda wat at qer alge om Preteafan 4 a aia até 2 (1) Seater (2) Tra Q) sefrt 4) watt fren, fread vie tan wate at went arate & () ster @ wir 3) Aare @) stare Trem & fea fet a cusfersi ar aber fer & 2 (2) Saerte QO sar 3) snriz 4) wg SEARED are a at F Prafetad Fe OH UA TATE? (2) 3 arene cite ofey & afer ae a1 Q) Frere dager a1 G3) 1951 4 8 srar weer fae wer wea eae a | (@) 33 de ar eI & yer at a ert am frat) 2011 at seo & sitegt & ager WT St ST TE (1) 74.04% 2) 66.11% 3) 71.31% A) 64.55% 6, 70. TL. 72. 7B. 74. 75. Which amongst the followings is an incorrect pair ?” (Ancient Region) (Modern District/s) (1) Matsya Desh — Alwar and Bharatpur (2) Jangel Desh — Bikaner @) Shivi — Chittorgarh (4) Arbud Desh - Talore Where the temple of Ranganath built by Seth Puranmal in 1844 A.D. and renowned for its Gopuram design is situated ? (Q) Pushkar (3) Karauli (2) Nathdwara (4) Abu Road Which of the following is the main female character of “Bisaldev Raso” ? (1) Indumati @) Rajmati (3) Padmini (4) Deval Devi The district in which the Samadhi of folk deity Ramdev is situated (1) Jodhpur (2) Barmer (3) Jaisalmer (4) Bikaner In which district of Rajasthan, the temple of ‘Eklingji’ is situated ? (2) Udaipur (2) Jaisalmer (3) Ajmer (4) Rejsamand Which of the following statements about Jai Narayan Vyas is incorrect ? (1) He was an active member of Marwar Lok Parishad. @) He was the editor of ‘Tarun Rajasthan’, (3) He lost his first assembly election in 1951. (4) He served as the Chief Minister of Rajasthan three times. According to 2011 Census data, the literacy rate of Rajasthan is (74.04% 2) 66.11% Q) 7131% (4) 64.55%16. 7. 78. 79. 80. 81. wm vest at fier ae X A ERT ara Y A apr we af weer aT Sto at ter & at wearer at safe feret em Y ah wag & her at are ST am (a) 120° @) 45° (2) 90° (4) 0° fmintad 3 3 ae w gy de 4 aan eH at ates aaee ar Sere BP () er (2) same-scaTt (3) Yeateher ) areeaae aT sid at aren ares () Rees (2) wea a 3) vafnsiee st (4) Stelter st satcaferar site reser Presta Fe fea wat a sam fel E 7 () aT (2) wee @) wT (4) ¥€ frafetan 8 a ate ar oe oifre ofa # (1) warrieetor (2) Stet eT Sie @) aha feat (4) dee aT eT a UE AB A ware F softer afer caeatalsy te () Far t-B Q) aera @) Bag eB @) aA ait ta 76. 7 78. 81. A ray of light passes from medium X to another medium Y. If no refraction occurs then the angle between incident light and surface of medium Y should be 1) 120° @ 45° (2) 90° 4) o Which of the following is an example of an active sensor used in remote sensing ? (1) Radar (2) Satellite Photography (3) Radiometer (4) Charge-coupled devices Deficiency of protein leads to (1) Rickets (3) Kwashiorkor (2) Scurvy (4) Carotenemia ‘Sonalika’ and ‘Malvika’ are the improved varieties of which of the following crop ? () Maize @) Gram (2) Rice (4) Wheat Which of the following is a physical change ? (1) Photosynthesis (2) Burning of coal 3) Melting of ice (4) Digestion of food Antibodies in plasma of blood group AB is/are (1) anti-B only (2) anti-A only (@) anti-A and anti-B both 4 Neither anti-A nor anti-B o182. 85. 86. 87. oct feet 3 ore aia #2 () TRG QQ) ua far @B) Rae 4) Aa Teter aerate stay sry arate ar Ure ze arate ar scared eed & (aha — A), ‘apiite dua Ser Herc after —B), wel er a ee aE : (1) aien-A wa Tarte aftas & er sipar-B we sift vita & 1 (2) Wiear-A wer vif sfert & cer iea-B war Tera viens & 3) Shi strat a a B Tarte ofa #1 G) tat afrert AaB sitter oferta & reat aut frites 2 & fire wer srrar west A ore se & 2 (1) er Q) weet @) aR @ WHE aed ter & acres & fare fier et danaiz gers weonet F () wharer 2) Starz @) Ghar (4) Weitere font gar st afc pte Svat a () wake ) Fag ee aes & fatten, ate dt ieee Ae pial era sere at sit & 2 () aria (2) TRH seers G) WR ae sirTES @) wena ah Q) frame G) wren tate u 82. Who is known as the ‘Father of Indian Ecology’ ? (1) Raman Sukumar (2) Ramdeo Mishra @) M. Sarath Kumar @) Madhav Gadgil Anaerobic bacteria digest animal waste and produce biogas (change ~ A). The biogas: is then burnt as fuel (change ~ B), Choose the correct statement : (1) Process-A is a chemical change and Process-B is physical change. (2) Process-A is a physical change and Process-B- is chemical change. Both the Processes A & B are chemical changes. Both the Processes A & B are physical changes. @) @) Lycopene pigment is found in which of the following fruit or vegetable ? (1) Corn (2) Blackberries (3) Tomato (4) Spinach The rearing of silkworms for production of raw silk is known as : (1) Apiculture (2) Sericulture (3) Agriculture (4) Floriculture Which test is used for confirmation of typhoid fever ? (1) Coomb’s test 2) Widal test (3) Mantoux test (@) Kastle-Meyer test Which greenhouse gas, other than methane, is produced by agricultural fields ? (1) Ammonia (2) Nitrous oxide (3) Sulphur dioxide (4) Chloro-fluoro-carbon1. 92. aopsfnat at atest a atic ha () FeraRt Q) ear (3) SAReA ART (4) Sere AT ae F erare ferger ar are = (1) wre Her 21" at ew arfateae ie at sofeater (2) stir den ‘21 st arqaheaer 3) OX wise at ow aafaftae wie at safe (4) °X) wists at orqaieatir frafefian 3 3 ate or aor Sar are ata ara ete? (1) ae aR ese aT eae ast aT (2) ae Rae og Were A re ete 3) Fe er St BAT HA SATE (4) ae yer St aT A STATE 1 Frafefam 4 ate ar onpfee eer were? () 3a @) ar sya dan rt fae fara en (Be eae AT Q) teas et eet 3) sre ae eT (4) ste see art 2) waste (4) aeinifeae ep dene foray a afer TET TET Br ser aa TET Fea fore Ta faefatad AS ata Se ArT aT TT ad eer ater ? (1) 5 3) sivare (2) wile oe @) WHE 2 88. 89. 91. 93, In the colony of honeybees, worker are : (J) Sterile female (2) Sterile male (3) Fertile female (4) Fertile male Cause of ‘Down's syndrome’ in humans is (1) presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number ‘21” absence of chromosome number 21” presence of an additional copy of the “X’ chromosome absence of “X’ chromosome Q) @) @ Which of the following is not true about organic manure ? (1) It enhances water capacity of soil It is obtained only from animal matter. It provides humus to soil. It improves the texture of soil. holding (2) @B) (4) Which of the following is known as Natures ploughman ? (1) Neries (2) Cattle Leech (3) Earthworm — (4) Polygordius First vaccine was developed by (1) Louis Pasteur (2) Edward Jenner (3) Karl Landsteiner (4) Joseph Miester A scientist wants to study the virus of a plant suffering from a viral disease; which of the following plant part should be excluded ? (1) Pith (2) Shoot Apex (3) Phloem (4) Cortex on95. 97. 99, 100. o1 waar at ara (1) Sere steer afi iear (2) Bereich siete athe 3) Serdt sae aftr (4) Seri sree arfttinar thifer mpite te hearst) + qe: wane () Re @) We Q) WH (4) sits ‘rer eter ar saa Ree oar (1) aett a ee. gear hor fae Q) at Siar 3) are at same & fore 4) Teta & fore war aor fare Te (Hg) og re oe Q) tear (2) Ferree @) ee @) Bere frafefiaa 4 @ aa ar eng ant & TTA OR Re ore H he 2 () art (2) WeRe (3) ater (4) oneter St erect chon Wee eae we ge E at Se a, HS ae eat oq & as at wfetarat at deer ett a) 2 @) 4 Q3 4) aR age sat wt oraeae gard F Q) ae (2) wee G3) feted (4) farther 95. 98. 100. The process of respiration is (1) an oxidation reaction which is exothermic (2) an oxidation reaction which is endothermic (3) a reduction exothermic (4) a reduction endothermic The Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) mainly consists of () Butane (3) Methane reaction which is reaction which is 2) Ethane (4) Propane Convex mirror is used for (2) Rear-view mirror in vehicles (2) Torches (@) Vehicle’s headlight (4) Shaving mirror The primary ore of Mercury (Hg) metal is (1) Rock salt 3) Calamine (2) Cinnabar (4) Haematite Which of the following non-metals is a liquid at room temperature ? (1) Carbon 2) Sulphur 3) Bromine (4) Todine If two plane mirrors are kept perpendicular to each other, then the number of images of an object placed between them will be qd) 2 @ 3 @) 4 (4) infinite The commercial unit of electrical energy is (Watt (2) Watt-hour (3) Kilowatt-hour (4) Kilo-joule101, star aet 19 TAT ae Fate star THA, apr ant ® ahi wen ae a fae aq 3 faearen ore Pe Fafa eg or a 1s TAT va et? (1) 19:9 @) 2:3 (2) 9:19 (4) 3:2 102, 23, 30, 57 ait 78 Ha ae at Seer Tee ara fan ts Sent Tare et 7 a) 4 @5 @) 6 47 103, a& X = YZ wera ¥ ait Z wet Be AE art S 20% sae a omc Fat X Arar Scott fener were & 2 (1) 36% (2) 40% 3) 60% 4) 25% 104, wa mater & 10 BF 11 aaah at ee airateat tear ¢ ser ge F 11 FH 10 atvafadl et at S dae & | seat TMT ‘aires Hae? (1) 10% (3) 9% (2) 11% (4) 21% 105, er THRE twee at gt at 2: 3 ager 3 Pronen & ae fae wa & 22 afer Fao tert a See 10% cre eet FAT sae rat arett Ber are & 14 i so et at afte sar oreft far aor ster afer FeoaT ee? () 23 () 4 (3) 25 (4) %21 101. Gold is 19 times heavier than water and copper is 9 times heavier than water, In which ratio gold and copper should be mixed so that mixed metal (alloy) is 15 times heavier than water ? () 19:9 (2) 9:19 (3) 2:3 (4) 3:2 102, Which number should be subtracted from 23, 30, 57 and 78 so that remaining numbers are in proportion ? M4 @s5 @) 6 aT 103. If X = YZ and if each of Y and Z decreases by 20% of their original values, then what is the percentage decrease in X ? (1) 36% (3) 60% (2) 40% (4) 25% 104, A person buys candles at the rate of 11 candles in % 10 and sell them at the rate of 10 candles in @ 11. What is his profit in percentage ? () 10% 2) 11% (3) 9% (4) 21% 105. A shopkeeper mixes two types of Maida in the ratio of 2 3. He gets 10% profit by selling it in & 22 per kg. If rate of maida having less quantity is € 14 per kg then what is the rate of maida having more quantity (in per kg) ? Q) %23 @Q) %24 @) %25 (4 %21 on106, & 2,600 @ sit a cart oe feat ma ale 5% aie we 3 ae Hues aT aT TERT SI, 4% afew TS 6 aE Gat mr & Se al & aT A, at ga war fac & 2 Q) % 1,600 @) 1,000 (2) &1,300 (4) %800 107. 5% fe at aegis ea ex ven aia vngfa 3 yer er get an aot ae ar sry eT? Q) @2)": @1" 3) (20): 21)" (2) 21)": 20)" 4) 22)": 20)" 108. 600 Fart at war Serr a, war Romer at @ aaa than & aro ft fen rar 1 ‘weet sitar ait #200 feriieier at ait WE war esr wre 30 fire ag TM 3am 3h ap safer et: () Leer @) 38 (2) 20 (4) 48 109. um ternal we a 8 50% after ae ahaa aft a wer wt bo eh we ee Ad 3am @r aan fen ae aid Sat fas B woo et El A@75 fat att i ae a test ert 12.5 fire & fet wart te sae (1) 100 Farsveier (3) 120 fareitier (2) 110 Ferhieier (4) 130 fessiveier o1 106. % 2,600 were given on interest in two parts. If simple interest of first part in 3 years with 5% interest rate is equal to simple interest of second part in 6 years with 4% interest rate. What is the second part ? () 2 1,600 (3) % 1,000 @) %1,300 (4) 800 107. At 5% compound interest rate per annum compounded annually what will be the ratio of principal amount and total amount after n years ? GQ) 22:1)" @) 21): 20)" (4) 22)": 20)" 108. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed was reduced by 200 knvhr and time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The original duration of the flight was : (1) 1 hour @) Shours (2) 2 hours (4) 4 hours 109. A train travel with an average speed 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time in same direction and reach at point B at the same time, which is 75 kms away from ‘A. On the way, train stopped at the stations for 12.5 minutes. The speed of the car is (1) 100kmph = (2) 110. kmph @) 120kmph (4) 130. kmph110, ar X fg Ae eR & fed ore “arefinet @ ara ae eer 1 ahs ae 10 Fat sit der at ware S at ETF at ae ee 2 ast oder ae ae 15 Patt wer tia Ht war Saar He & ot ae see 12 a ued 1 sa Pea wR S oT eh arfea fred ae cheat 1 at fey A wage? (1) 13 Farivar (3) 12 fareirder (2) 11 faster (4) 14 fesiveer 11. A feat arr at tact & fed BS ae wa dat Cc stam at at wat apt wee & fret wa FA itt B SHE Facer got axa & 1 ate dist fare st ert at 7 feat a et we Ect C aera ‘set arm at fact fet pt oT? () 14% Q) 42% @) 21% (4) 35% 112, Beet a S Pavett TH 8 aT A 80% alee Bete 1 e 14,000 ar 3 at ae TA at amgig ort wt a angie SI FT am? (ly 24,634 Q 3,714 (3) ©3,794 (4) %4612 gets 4m waar 1 ae 6 cera FSi cect am} es a os TE at ae a ort a aaer at ofeert aT fer 8? () 103 % B) 205% 113. (2) 24/5 % 4) 5% 110. Mr. X is travelling on his cycle to reach point A. If he travels 10 kmph, then he will reach at 2 pm. If he travels at 15 kmph, then he will reach at 12 noon. At what speed must at he travel to reach point A at 1 pm ? (1) 13 kmph (3) 12kmph (2) 11 kmph (4) 14kmph 111. To complete some work, A takes half time than B. C completes same work in same time in which both A and B complete together. If all three together complete this work in 7 days, then in how much days will C complete this work alone ? (1) 14 days (3) 21 days (2) 42 days (4) 35 days 112. There is 80% increase in an amount in 8 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest of % 14,000 after 3 years at the same interest rate per annum compounded annually ? (a) %4,634 (2) %3,714 3) %3,794 (4) 4612 113, Some water has 4% sugar. If 1 litre water evaporates from 6 litre water. Then what is the percentage of sugar in remaining water ? () 103% @) 215% (2) 24/5 % (4) 5%114, are Wt Pea wa act at se ger et farert wa afer 20% cama Sar fe at Ba Oa afte at ord 2 () 3 Q4 @) 5 @ 6 short X aia & far seat at 65 Fea Sea WY 72 fis Same | sear Te ‘tiaen & Pe xX ar aor 60 fem t vet RY 70 feret S ae seat are Stat & fe Serr aor 68 fom a maT ae fea X ars a eens aoe ah cafes wel aor arp wet et 2 ()) 70 fer (2) 67 fem (3) 69 fem (4) 68 fem 115. fatter eae at oes art & fart 900 eafaral ar aden rat Ter 1 oom et fre arene @ fear wear & 1 af acer fea me cafarat 9 a 50%, 40 ata aa aig & 4, ct 40 at a oe ae at Wen ea ¢ ot aeitera we aE? 116, a) 20 @) 180 @) 225 (4) Torn aa ae on 114. What will be the least number of complete years in which an amount will be more than doubled at 20% compound interest per annum ? @ 3 Q4 @) 5 @) 6 115. Mr. X thinks that his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother thinks that X’s weight is greater than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. His mother thinks that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. Which of the following is the probable weight of X so that estimation of all of them is correct ? () 70kg @) 69kg (2) 67kg (4) 68 kg 116. A survey of 900 people was carried out regarding their preference of various channels. The result is shown on the following Pie-chart. If 50% of the surveyed persons were below 40 years age, what is the number of persons who are above 40 years and prefer DD National ? @) 20 (2) 180 @) 225 (4) Not possible to calculate117. 118. 119, 120. 15, 17, 16,7, 10, 12, 14, 16, 19, 12. 16 arte wet ae eT: & (15,14 2) 15,16 3) 16,14 (4) 16,18 x & fea an a frattfad atest a7 agere 27% 7 25, 26,27, 23, 26, 24, x, 27, 26, 25, 25, 27 () 24 Q) 25 @) 27 4) %6 ee Saree 9 12 Peat HF 504 ATE | yam 4 feat at ater aa & 40 et 1 aie ‘et & fet seat tere are & a) 40 (2) @41 (3) 242 @) 743 ager ate Her a are TATE () 3 crifeaest — 71) (2) 2 cafe — aT) @) 3 cea aEH) 4) 2 GRR — Are) 117. 118. 19. 120. ‘The median and mean of 15, 17, 16, 7, 10, 12, 14, 16, 19, 12 and 16 are respectively ql) 15,14 (2) 15,16 @) 16,14 (4) 16, 18 For what value of x, the mode of the following data is 27? 25, 26, 27, 23, 26, 24, x, 27, 26, 25, 25, 27 Q) 24 3) 27 2) 25 (4) 26 A shopkeeper earned & 504 in 12 days. His average income for the first 4 days was € 40, His average income for the remaining days is qd) 740 (3) 42 (2) @41 (@) 743 Difference of mode and mean is equal to (1) 3 (Median - Mean) (2) 2 (Median - Mean) (3) 3 (Mean - Mode) (4) 2 (Mode - Mean) on121. (6374)! x (625)3)7 x (314)!"] aT wat sip att? qo @ 2 Qi (4) 5 122, Fer 8S ate ot aida dent onttt a ae? (1) 17/19, 11/14, 16/21 Q) 16/721, 11/14, 17/19 3) 11/4, 17/19, 16/21 (4) 17/19, 16/21, 11/14 aE eT 517*324, 3 & Paetire ict at ata at a pt sie tot * Ser are? qo @ 2 @l 4) 3 we ti stat at der 4p3 F 984 sig we Tee an att Ft Hem 13q7 we atte 1 ‘af 13q7, 11 8 ak, tt (p+q) =? qd) 10 @) 2 Qu @) 15 (AT + 43%) ate (4747 + 4347) ot Pe daar a sete rest? () (47-43) (2) (47443) @ 47% +438) (4) (47 +434) on 19 121, What is the digit at unit place ? [€6374)!73 x (625)327 x (314)!91] @ o Qi @) 2 @ 5 122, Which of the following rational numbers are in ascending order ? (2) 179, 11/14, 16721 2) 16/21, 11/14, 1719 (3) 11/14, 17/19, 16/21 @ 179, 16/21, 11/14 123. If the number 517*324 is divisible by 3, then which whole number will be in the place of * ? ao @i @) 2 (4 3 124, A 3-digit number 4p3 is added to 984 to get a 4-digit number 13q7. If 13q7 is divisible by 11, then (p + q) =? @ 10 @u @) 12 (@) 15 125. Which one of the following is the common factor of (4747 + 43%) and (477 44347) 9 ) 7-43) 2) (47443) 3) G7? + 43%) 4) 474 +434)126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. MS-Word @ Het 4 aay aest ez) are oe 100 arrest at So STATE | cafe ued arerenat eer Tor aH Sgt SAT Bat em weir wet () wafer 2) Aart (3) Fevaie (4) era fee sizané. (GUD YT AE () WR ae Fete (2) wife afer Pech 3) saree ae eT (4) mitre ie Teer wane. aS — 2010 9 areca ater a freee () wea oR aT Q) Bees 3 EAT Q) Weaneta > hr Aas TT (4) trae 2a 5 cea TT ane, Gata 8 are ue Set aaa ae amt () ta ge ear ae (2) Ber at Favre ee @) Basta er @) awit wy, we, tardive Fier meg dented ot ee sat & 1 Q) FRET @ ws a Q) Ae (@) seer a Far, we, Viale Wee tet ware & at oe Sao w sree ea ait Es (2) Renee eer aee (2) Weg wen TSE (3) arazeren wan atest (4) FRR, arses we ates 20 126. 127. 128. 129, 130, 131. In context of MS-Word let a letter of common contents is to be sent to 100 recipients. If address of individual recipient is to be added in each letter, we will use (1) Embedding (2) Mail-Merge 3) Letters Code (@) Hyperlink GUI stands for (1) Graph Use Interface 2) Graphical Universal Interface @) Graphical User Interface (4) Graphical Unique Interface In MS Word-2010 watermark option is found in (1) Insert tab — Mlustration group (2) Insert tab > Links group (3) Page layout tab —> Page background group (4) Page layout tab —> Themes group ‘You can activate a ‘cell’ in MS-Excel by (1) Pressing the Tab Key 2) Clicking the Cell G3) Pressing an Arrow Key (4) All of these In MS-PowerPoint, multiple slides per page are printed using option. (1) Slides (2) Notes pages 3) Handouts (4) Outline When a new MS-PowerPoint presentation is opened, tabs available on left panel are : (1) Slides and Notes (2) Slides and Outline (3) Outline and Notes (4) Slides, Outline and Notes on132. 133. 135, 136, 137. ardor ap ae atacitee Shite firs vides doh dat eee at ort? () Cul+s Q) Crl+N (3) Ctrl+M (4) Crl+V Waa, wre F der Al @ et A10 aT arr wet & fore ast: (1) =SUM(A1;A10) (2) #Add(A1 to A10) Tae. wR A ae me ae F Sa ernait aren Are at fet wa tet ee ti st war at oer ai weer t | () ais 2) we ear Q) water (4) ete oar ett wo en a ya ad art Reagicd & fore, ge eure) et ater ‘AIR MS-Excel Hae & () DDB @) ACCRINTM (3) INT_ACCRUED (4) MINTACCR fro ta aie or dar cu wee, UR Bara ret ait? (1) Number (3) Label (2) Character (4) Date/Time emer & ig A, DVD a aed et (1) fefrect aféart for (2) fefteet aifsat gree (3) fetter adere feer (4) FeRreet ateqa fearee a 132. 133, 135. 136. 137. In currently open PowerPoint presentation, a new slide is inserted using shortcut key () Crl+s Q) Crl+N (3) Cul+M @) Ctrl+V Formula for addition of cell Al to cell ALO in MS-Excel is (1) =SUM(A1:A10) (2) #Add(A1 to A10) @) =SUM (Al to Al0) (4) =SUM AI: SUM AIO 1. Box that identifies the pattems and colours that are assigned to the data series or categories in a chart created in MS-Excel is called (1) Legend 2) Chart area (3) Data label (4) ‘Plot area MS-Excel function to return the accrued interest for a security that pays interest at maturity is () DDB (2) ACCRINTM (3) INT_ACCRUED (4) MINTACCR Which of the following is not valid data type in MS-Excel ? (1) Number (2) Character 3) Label (4) Date/Time In the context of computer, DVD stands for (1) Digital Vertical Disk (2) Digital Video Driver (3) Digital Versatile Disk (4) Digital Volume Device138. 139, 140. 141. 142, 143. 144, wa aceite A ah a ser ar TET wa were F ? () Serr @ @ we @) te aed args Sa Sots & Prato or: Pre Be sre a weit Fear eT 2 Q) URL, @) IRC @) NIH (4) HTML weet () aaa @ te @) (4) Feat atte emer wevie we ree watts 7 aif aa &, & Praker tq aaidwegae wher seca t (1) OTP (ata) (2) Password (7S) (3) CAPTCHA =a) (4) BARCODE (Is) HTTP aed & () wane dae gar wie Q) we ee gaa ate (3) were eae gar aT (4) ee eee gar sitet fer a ae ar eH Aa BIE TE? (1) See AIT (2) Fifsten HRRTT @) WeRa 4) weaneaa ‘afer del 4 OTP a aed & ( aequea Q) wae Tee (3). itret dfkem sizlanter (4) Ft area sterIet 2 138, 140. 141. 142. 143. 144, ‘What is the intersection of a column and row on a worksheet called ? (1) Column (2) Value (3) Address (4) Cell Generally, which language is used to construct World Wide Web pages ? (1) URL (2) IRC (3) NIH (4) HTML ‘The Internet is (1) Website (2) Host (3) Server (4) Network of Networks Challenge-Response test used on intemet to verify that user is human and not a machine, is called (1) OTP (2) Password (3) CAPTCHA (4) BARCODE, HTTP stands for (1) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (2) Hyper Tool Transfer Process (3) Hyper Text Transfer Process (4) High Text Transfer Protocol Which of the following is not a web browser ? (1) Internet Explorer (2) Mozilla Firefox @) Google Chrome (4) World Wide Web In context of e-banking OTP stands for (1) Once Through Password (2) One Time Password (3) Only Testing Protocol (4) One time Protocol on148. 1 tiwag = eee = farcitar. (1) 1024, 1024 x 1024 (2) 1024 x 1024, 1024 (3) 512, 1024 (4) 1024, 512 frafefar td sae feorett ar shad wea Te? (2) ae, ay, iter (2) OCR, Fife, MICR 3) SFR MICR, 4 GH (4) OMR, fizz, anais tee 146, USB te a are & (1) arte tiftaer za ae (2) arene dita ae ae (3) afrerier faediitart aa ate 4) afta difeaet Bios te RT Be, FAT Sr oer (1) tive eRe dar (2) We eae aac 3) Hee Ue dat (4) Riese Rider eae 147, 149. MS-Windows 4 az, ath wa te vanigg & fae, ae fr vider fir ‘ar vata feper sara & : (1) Ctrl +Z, Ctrl +X, Cl +V Q) Ctrl+V, Cul+Z, Cul+C @) Cul+C, Cr+ V, Cr +x @) Ctrl +X, Cul +C, Ctrl+V 150, TR. aS, eH ETT (1) sinter feet (2) sikiférr fearet (3) Welter dieedae 4) wae fearee 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 1 Gigabyte =__ Megabyte kilobyte, (1) 1024, 1024 x 1024 (2) 1024 x 1024, 1024 (3) 512, 1024 (4) 1024, 512 Which of the following is a valid set of input devices ? (1) Light pen, Scanner, Plotter (2) OCR, Monitor, MICR (3) Scanner, MICR, Touch Screen (4) OMR, Printer, Barcode Reader USB Port stands for (1) United Serial Bus Port (2) Universal Serial Bus Port (3) Universal Sequential Bus Port (4) Universal Serial BIOS Port In context of computers, FAT stands for (1) Folder Access Table (2) File Access Table @) File Allocation Table (4) Folder Allocation Table For cut, copy and paste commands in MS-Windows, following shortcut keys are used respectively : (1) Ctl +Z, Cul +X, Ctrl+V Q) Ctrl+V, Ctrl +Z, Cul + 3) Cul +C, Cul +-V, Cr +X 4) Cul+X, Ci +C, Ctl+V MS Word is an example of (1) Operating System (2) Processing Device 3) Application Software (4) Input Device01 werent a fore a7 / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK