Вы находитесь на странице: 1из 1932

SLR-KM 1

*SLRKM1*
Seat
No.

Set

F.E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ENGG. MATHEMATICS I
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of Calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct alternative :


1) If y = log(2x 3), then yn = _____________

14

( 1)n n ! 2n
a)
(2x 3)n

( 1)n 1(n 1) ! 2n
b)
(2 x 3)n

( 1)n 1(n 1) ! 2n
c)
(2x 3)n + 1

d) None of these

2) If y = e3xcos3x, then yn = _______________


n
n

n 3x
n 3x

a) (18) e cos 3x +
b) (18) e cos 3 x +
4
2

n
n
n
n

3x
3x

c) (18) 2 e sin 3x +
d) (18) 2 e cos 3x +
4
4

3) The expansion of tan hx in powers of x is


a) x

x3 2 5
+
x + ......
3 15

x3
1 5
+
x ......
c) x
3 15

x3 2 5
+
x + ......
3 15
x3
1 5
x
+
+
x + ......
d)
3 ! 15 !

b) x +

log x sin x = _______________


4) xlim
0

a) 1

b) 1

c) 0

d)

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 1

*SLRKM1*

-22


5) sin + i cos = _____________
3
3
2
2
+ i cos
3
3
2
2
+ i sin
c) cos
3
3

+ i sin
3
3

d) cos i sin
3
3

a) sin

b) cos

1
= _____________
xn
b) 2i sin n
c) 2 sin n
a) 2i sin n
7) The value of log(ii) is equal to

a) 0
b) 1
c)
2

n
6) If x = ei , then x

8) If x = r cos , y = r sin then

d) 0
d)

r
= ____________
x

r
r
x
y
b)
c)
d)
y
x
r
r
9) The stationary points of F(x, y) = x2 + xy2 + y4 are ____________
a) (1, 0)
b) (0, 1)
c) (0, 0)
d) (1, 1)

a)

10) If x is error in x then


a) absolute error
c) percentage error

x
is called _____________
x
b) relative error
d) approximate error

(u, v )
= __________
(x, y )
a) x y
b) 0
c) y x
d) x + y
12) If zero is one of the eigen value of Matrix A then A is ________________
a) Singular
b) Non-singular c) Symmetric
d) Non-symmetric

11) If u = x y and = xy then

13) If u = sin1(x / y ) + cos 1(y / x ) then

u / x
= _____________
u / y

x
x
y
y
b)
c)
d)
y
y
x
x
14) If rank of matrix A is r and number of variables are n then the number of
independent solution of the system AX = 0 is ___________
a) n
b) r
c) n r
d) n + r
______________
Set A

a)

*SLRKM1*

-3-

SLR-KM 1

Seat
No.

F.E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ENGG. MATHEMATICS I
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of Calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
x
.
( x 1) (x 2) ( x 3)

b) Find the nth derivative of y = sin 2x sin 3x cos 4x.

2. a) Find the nth derivative of y =

c) If y = ea sin1x, prove that


(1 x2) yn + 2 (2n + 1)xyn + 1 (n2 + a2)yn = 0.
3. Attempt any three :

4
9

a) Expand x4 3x3 + 2x2 x + 1 in powers of (x 3).


b) Expand (1 + x )

1
x

upto the term containing x2.

c) Expand log(sec x) up to the term containing x6.


d) Evaluate :

2
lim x + 2 cos x 2
.
x0
x sin x

4. a) Prove that 1 + i 3

) + (1 i 3 )
8

= 28 .

b) Solve x5 + 1 = 0.

c) Expand cos6 in a series of cosines of multiples of .

Set A

SLR-KM 1

*SLRKM1*

-4-

5. a) If u + iv = cos h 2 + , find u2 v2.


4

3i
b) Separate into real and imaginary parts of cos 1 .
4
(
x
+
iy
)
c) If (1 + i)
= + i , prove that :
x y
tan1( / ) =
+ log 2
4 2

3
3

SECTION II
6. Attempt the following :
a) Reduce the following matrix to normal form and find its rank :
1 3
2 3
A=
3 4

6 10

2 1
3 2
1 3

4 6

b) Test for consistency and if possible solve :


x + 2y z = 3, 3x y + 2z =1 , 2x 2y + 3z = 2, x y + z = 1.

c) For what value of , the following system of equations possesses a


non-trivial solution ? Obtain the solution for real values of .
3x + y z = 0, 4x 2y 3z = 0, 2 x + 4y + z = 0.

7. Attempt the following :


a) If x = uv and y = u/v then prove that, JJ = 1.

b) Find the extreme values of x3 + y3 3axy, a > 0.

c) Find the possible percentage error in computing parallel resistance r of


three resistances r1, r2, r3 from the formula
each in an error by 1%.

1 1 1 1
= + + , if r1, r2, r3 are
r r1 r2 r3

Set A

*SLRKM1*

-5-

SLR-KM 1

8. Attempt the following :


a) Obtain eigen values and eigen vector corresponding to smallest eigen value
of the matrix given below :

2 1 1
1

1 1 2

b) Examine for linear dependence and linear independence the following set of
vectors [2, 1, 4], [0, 1, 2], [6, 1, 16], [4, 0, 12].

c) Verify Cayley-Hamilton theorem for the matrix A given below :

2 2
1
1
3
0

0 2
1

9. Attempt the following :


14 + y 14
a) If u = sin 1
1 then prove that,
x 6 + y 6
1 x

x2

2
2u
2u
1
2 u
+
2
xy
+
y
=
tan u(tan2 u 11) .
2
2
xy
144
x
y

b) If z = F(x, y) and x = uv, y = u2 v2 then prove that,


2.

z
1
= 2
y u + v 2

z
z
u
.

v
.
.
u
v

2
c) If u = log(1 + xn + yn) then find the value of u + u u .
xy x y

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 2

*SLRKM2*
Seat
No.

Set

F.E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


BASIC MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 70

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)

All questions are compulsory.


Q. 2 and Q. 4 are short answer type questions.
Q. 3 and Q. 5 are long answer type questions.
Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Make suitable assumptions if necessary and mention them clearly.
Use of log tables and non-programmable single memory
calculator is allowed.
8) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
9) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) Refrigerant commonly used in VARS is


a) SO2
b) NH 3
c) CO2
2) Kelvin-Planks law deals with
a) Conversion of work in to heat
c) Conversion of work

d) Aqua-Ammonia

b) Conversion of heat in to work


d) Conversion of heat

3) System comprising of single phase, is known as


a) Open system
b) Closed system
c) Homogeneous system
d) Heterogeneous system
4) Runner is used in
a) Centrifugal Pump
c) Turbine

b) Engine
d) None of the above

5) Steam turbines are used for


a) Electric generation
c) Large marine propulsion

b) Direct drive of fans, compressor


d) All of the above

6) Polytrophic index Cn is equal to


a)

yn
1 n

b)

ny
1 n

c)

ny
n1

d)

yn
n1
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 2

*SLRKM2*

-2-

7) Second law of thermodynamics defines


a) Enthalpy
b) Entropy
c) Heat

d) Work

8) Otto cycle is known as


a) Constant pressure cycle
c) Constant temperature

b) Constant volume cycle


d) None of the above

9) Compression ratio for petrol engine is


a) 3 to 6
b) 5 to 8

c) 15 to 20

10) Surface of the tooth below the pitch circle is known as


a) Addendum
b) Dedendum
c) Flank

d) 20 to 30
d) Face

11) Resistance to fatigue of material is measured by


a) Elastic limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Endurance limit
d) Young Modulus
12) Which of the following is unit less ?
a) Stress
b) Strain

c) Young Modulus d) None

13) Method of joining two work piece made of two dissimilar materials above 450C
is called
a) Welding
b) Brazing
c) Soldering
d) None
14) Drilling of work piece can be carried out by
a) Lathe
b) Drilling machine
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
______________

Set A

*SLRKM2*

-3-

SLR-KM 2

Seat
No.

F.E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


BASIC MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)

Marks : 56

All questions are compulsory.


Q. 2 and Q. 4 are short answer type questions.
Q. 3 and Q. 5 are long answer type questions.
Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Make suitable assumptions if necessary and mention them clearly.
Use of log tables and non-programmable single memory
calculator is allowed.
SECTION I

2. Answer any five of the following :

(53=15)

a) Derive an Expression pv = c .
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)

Show that enthalpy is the function of temperature.


Draw neat sketch of split air conditioner.
Explain PMM-1 and PMM-2.
Derive an expression of work done for polytropic process.
Explain thermodynamic equilibrium.
State advantage and disadvantage of nuclear power plant.

3. Answer any three of the following :


a) Explain with neat sketch the working of Kaplan turbine.
4
b) Explain the working of vapour compression refrigeration cycle.
4
c) A gas turbine was operated with a supply of 17 kg of hot air per second with specific
enthalpy of 1360 kJ/kg. The outgoing gas carries specific enthalpy of 460 kJ/kg.
The inlet and outlet velocities are 60 m/s and 150 m/s. Find out the power developed
by the turbine assuming heat carried away by cooling water is 2 kJ/s.
5
d) One kg. of air at 1 bar and 300 K is compressed adiabatically till its pressure becomes
5 times the original pressure. Then it is expanded at constant pressure and finally
cooled at constant volume to return to its original conditions. Calculate :
5
1) Heat transfer
2) Work done
3) Change in internal energy for each process as well as for the entire process.
Set A

SLR-KM 2

*SLRKM2*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Answer any five of the following :
a) Differentiate between two stroke and four stroke engine.
b) Explain with neat sketch Electric resistance welding.
c) Differentiate between soldering and brazing.
d) What are the steps involved in design process ?
e) Explain the different types of gear.
f) Write a short note on epicyclic gear train.
g) What are the modes of failure ? Explain.

(53=15)

5. Answer any three of the following :


a) An air standard diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 18 and the heat transferred to
working fluid per cycle is 1800 kJ/kg. At the beginning of the compression stroke
the pressure is 1 bar and the temperature is 27C. Calculate : Thermal efficiency.
b) Two pulley one 400 meter diameter and other 200 mm diameter are on parallel
shaft are 2.58 meter apart are connected by cross belt drive. Find length of belt
required and angle of contact between belt and pulley. What power can be
transmitted when larger pulley rotate at 250 rpm, if maximum tension is 1.5 kN and
coefficient of friction between belt and pulley is 0.28 ?
c) Explain with neat sketch pillar drilling machine.
d) Explain ergonomic consideration in design.
e) A system undergoes a cycle consisting of four processes. The heat and work
transfer are tabulated below. Prove that the table results are consistent with First
law of thermodynamics.
Determine :
1) Net work
2) Thermal efficiency.
Process

Heat transfer in kJ/min

Work transfer in kJ/min

12

Nil

10000

23

10000

Nil

34

2000

14000

41

6000

2000

5
4
4

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 3

*SLR-KM-3*
Seat
No.

Set

F.E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
I.

Marks : 14

Choose the correct option :


1) If a network does not contain any energy source is called as
a) Bilateral network
b) Unilateral network
c) Active network
d) Passive network
2) How much of unit of electric energy consumed in operating ten 50 watt bulbs for 5 hours per day for
December 2006 ? ____________ units.
a) 80
b) 77
c) 77.5
d) 100
3) Joules law of electrical heating is given by
a) H = I2 Rt/J
b) H = IRt/J

c) H = I2 R/tJ

d) H = I2 J/Rt

4) A 25 W, 220 V bulb and a 100 W, 220 V bulb are joined in parallel and connected in 220 V supply.
Which bulb will glow more brightly ?
a) 25 W bulb
b) 100 W bulb
c) both will glow with same brightness
d) neither bulb will glow
5) The value of magnetic field strength required to wipe out the residual flux density is called as
a) retentivity
b) demagnetization
c) coercive force
d) hysteresis loop
6) If a sinusoidal wave has a frequency of 50 Hz with 15 A rms value. Which of the following equations
represent this wave ?
a) 15 sin 50 t
b) 30 sin 314 t
c) 42.42 sin 314 t
d) 21.21 sin 314 t
7) Average value of full cycle of symmetrical AC waveform is
a) one
b) 0.637
c) zero

d) 0.707

8) The impedance of purely capacitive circuit is given by


a) z = R jXc
b) z = R + jXc
c) z = jXc

d) z = R

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 3

*SLR-KM-3*

-2-

9) The average power in R L series circuit is given by


a) Vrms Irms cos

b) Vrms Irms

c) Zero

d) Vrms Irms sin

10) Three indentical resistances connected in star consume 4000 w. If these three resistances are
connected in delta across the same supply, the power consumed will be
a) 4000 W

b) 6000 W

c) 8000 W

d) 12000 W

11) For a balanced three phase system the total power consumed is given by
a) 3 Vph Iph cos

b) Vph Iph cos

c) 3 VLIL cos

d) 3 VL IL cos

12) The emf induced in a transformer depends upon


a) Frequency

b) Number of turns

c) Maximum flux

d) All the above

13) A 2000/200 V, 20 KVA ideal transformer has 66 turns in the secondary. The number of primary
turns is
a) 440

b) 660

c) 550

d) 330

14) When the load is removed the motor that will run at the highest speed is the
a) Shunt

b) Series

c) Cumulative compound

d) Differentially compound

______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-3*

-3-

SLR-KM 3

Seat
No.
F.E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
II. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) State and explain Thevenins theorem with steps and suitable example.
b) A tungsten lamp filament has a temperature of 2050C and a resistance of 500 when taking
normal working current. Calculate the resistance of the filament when it has a temperature of 25 C .


Temperature coefficient at 0 C is 0.005/C.




c) An Electrical heater is marked 230 V, 750 watt. What current it takes ? What is its hot resistance ?
Determine cost if it is used for 10 hours at Rs. 2 per unit.
d) Define MMF, magnetic flux density, magnetic field strength, reluctance.
e) Derive an expression for rms value of an AC quantity.
f) Find RAB in the circuit, given in fig.

Set A

SLR-KM 3

*SLR-KM-3*

-4-

III. Attempt any two :

(62=12)

a) Calculate the equivalent resistance between the terminals A and B in the network shown in figure
below. All resistances are in Ohm.

b) A flux density of 1.2 T is required in 3 mm air gap of an electromagnet wound with 500 turns of wire
and having an iron path of 125 cm. Calculate the current required, assuming r = 1000 for iron
and neglect leakage and fringing.

( )

c) Three voltages are represented by e1 = 20 sin t ; e2 = 30 t / 4 ; e3 = 40 cos t + / 6 volts


act together in a circuit. Find an expression for the resultant voltage. Draw phasor diagram for
(e1 + e2 + e3).
SECTION II
IV. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) Explain resonance is R L C series circuit.


b) An inductor coil connected to a supply of 250 V, 50 Hz and takes a current of 5 A. The coil dissipates 750 W.
Calculate :
i) Power Factor
ii) Resistance of the coil
iii) Inductance of the coil
c) Derive the relation between line and phase voltages and currents in balanced delta connected
3-phase load.
d) Derive an expression for induced emf in a transformer in terms of frequency, maximum flux and the
number of turns on the winding.
e) A single phase, 50 Hz transformer has 1000 primary turns and 400 secondary turns. The net
cross-sectional area of the core is 60 cm2. If the primary induced EMF is 1250 V. Find
i) Maximum flux density in the core
ii) Emf induced in the secondary.
f) Explain the working principle of DC motor.
V. Attempt any two :

(62=12)

a) A 40 KVA single phase transformer has iron loss of 450 W. The full load copper loss is 850 watts.
Calculate
i) Efficiency at full load, 0.8 lagging p.f.
ii) KVA supplied at maximum efficiency
iii) Maximum efficiency at 0.8 lagging p.f.
b) Discuss the different types of DC motor with suitable circuit diagram, voltage equation and
applications.
c) A choking coil and a pure resistor are connected in series across a supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The
voltage drop across the resistor is 100 V and that across the choking coil is 150 V. Find voltage
drop across the inductance and resistance of the choking coil. Find resistance and Inductance if
current is 1 A.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 4

*SLRKM4*
Seat
No.

Set

F.E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MECHANICS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 15-12-2015

Max. Marks : 70

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


N. B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Question (1) consisting objective type questions is compulsory.


Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. MCQ/Objective type questions :

(141=14)

1) Law of Transmissibility of forces is appliable in case of ________ bodies.


a) Solid
b) Fluid
c) Rigid
d) Semi-rigid

2) Law of __________ is a fundamental law of forces.


a) Parallelogram
b) Triangles
c) Polygon
d) Transmissibility

3) Displacement is a ______________ quantity whereas distance moved is a


__________ quantity.
a) Scalar, Vector
b) Vector, Scalar c) Both a) and b)
d) Vector, Vector
4) The translatory effect of couple on the body is
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Considerable
5) A frame is said to be __________ if the number of members in it are less
than that required for a perfect frame.
a) Redundant
b) Deficient
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
6) The __________ value of the frictional force, which develops between two
contacting surfaces when the motion is impending is called limiting friction.
a) Exact

b) Fractional

c) Minimum

d) Maximum

1
1

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 4

*SLRKM4*

-2-

7) The method which uses the condition that, if the body is in equilibrium the total virtual
work done by all forces is __________ is called virtual work method.
a) Maximum

b) Zero

c) Same

d) None

8) When a ball is thrown up with a velocity u, the maximum height reached by


particle is
a) u2/g

b) 2u2/g

c) 2u/g

b) 1m/s2

c) 6m/s2

b) Maximum height

c) Range

d) None of the above

11) Horizontal range of a ball thrown upwards with an initial velocity u at an angle
to the horizontal is
a) (u2sin22 )/g

b) (u2sin2 )/2g

c) 2(u2sin2 )/g

d) (u2sin2( /2))/2g

d) 8m/s2

10) When particle is projected from the top of a building and it strikes the ground
away from the building then horizontal distance covered by it is
a) Trajectory

d) u2/2g

9) If s = 12 t m calculate the particles acceleration at t = 2 seconds.

a) 2m/s2

12) Work done by force on body is zero when

a) There is no displacement of body


b) Resultant force acting on it is zero
c) Displacement is perpendicular to the force
d) All of above
13) Free fall of a body is an example of

a) Uniform motion

b) Non-uniformly accelerated motion

c) Uniformly accelerated motion

d) Curvilinear motion

14) The slope of s t curve represents

a) Displacement of particle

b) Distance travelled by particle

c) Velocity of particle

d) Average acceleration
______________

Set A

*SLRKM4*

-3-

SLR-KM 4

Seat
No.

F.E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MECHANICS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 15-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) In Section I Q. No. 2 is compulsory. Solve any two from remaining


questions.
2) In Section II, solve any three questions.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
4) Use of non-programmable scientific calculators is allowed.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2.

a) State law of Transmissibility of forces.


b) Two smooth spheres each of radius 100 mm and weighing 100 N, rest in a horizontal
channel having vertical walls, the distance between which is 360 mm. Find the reactions
at the points of contact A, B, C and D as shown in figure 1.

2
8

Fig. 1
3.

a) State and prove Varignons theorem.


b) Determine the reactions of supports A, C and D in the compound beam shown in fig. 2.

3
6

Fig. 2
4.

a) Define Plane frame and space frame.


b) Find forces in members BD, CD and CE of the truss shown in fig. 3.

Fig. 3

2
7

Set A

SLR-KM 4
5.

-4-

*SLRKM4*

a) State and prove perpendicular axis theorem.


b) The cross section of a rectangular hollow beam is as shown in fig. 4. Determine Ixx
and Iyy of the section about centroidal axes.

3
6

Fig. 4
SECTION II
6.

7.

8.

a) What do you mean by relative displacement ? Also define relative velocity.


b) The motion of particle is defined by X = t3 6t2 36t 40 .... where X is in metres, t is in
seconds.
1) Time when the velocity is zero
2) The velocity, acceleration and total distance travelled when x = 0.

a) Define the terms :


1) Trajectory of Projectile
2) Range of Projectile
b) A bullet is fired from a gun. After 2 sec. the velocity of the bullet is inclined at 30 up the
horizontal. After 1 more second it attains maximum height. Determine initial velocity and
angle of projection.

a) State Newtons Second Law of motion.


b) A 100 kg block rests on horizontal plane. Find the magnitude of force P required to give
the block an acceleration of 3m/s2 to the left. The coefficient
of friction between the block and plane is k = 0.25. Refer fig No. 5.

Fig. 5
9.

a) Explain work-energy principle.


b) An automobile of mass 1500 kg is driven down on a 8 incline road at a speed of 48 Kmph.
When the brakes are applied a constant braking force of 5000N acts and brings the
automobile to the rest within certain distance. Find the distance.
_____________________

2
7

Set A

SLR-KM 5

*SLRKM5*
Seat
No.

Set
F.E. (Part II) (CGPA) Examination, 2015
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS II

Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct option :

14
dy
+ (1 + x) y = e x is ________
dx
c) xex
d) xex

1) The integrating factor of the differential equation x


a) xlogx

b) x+e x

M N
=
is
y
x
b) Necessary and sufficient condition
d) General condition

2) For the differential equation M(x, y)dx + N(x, y) dy = 0. The condition for exact
a) A necessary condition
c) Sufficient condition

3) If K is a constant, the orthogonal trajectories of the curve r = a is


2
2
2
+K
=K
=K
b) r
c) r +
d) None of these
2
2
2
4) If p(x, y) is any point on the curve y = f(x), then the length of substangent to the curve is
equals to

a) logr =

dy
a) y
dx
c) y

dx
dy

dx
b) y 1 +
dy

dy
d) y 1 +
dx

5) Divided difference formula is used to find numerical differentiation, when the value of
arguments x are
a) Equally spaced
b) Unequally spaced
c) Equally or unequall spaced
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 5

*SLRKM5*

-2-

dy
= 2y + 3e x , with x0 = 0, y0 = 0, the first two terms of the solution by Taylors
dx
method is

6) For

a) x +

3x 2
2

b) 3x +

3x 2
2

c) x + 3x2

d) 3x +

9x 2
2

dy
= x + y with y(0) = 1 and h = 0.2 then by Eulers method, the value of y at x = 0.2 is
dx
equals to
a) 1.2
b) 1.02
c) 1.04
d) 1

7) If

8) Which of the following is not true ?


n + 1 = n!

a)

c) B(m, n) = B(n, m)

9) The value of the integral e

x 2 /4

b)

n + 1= n n

d)

1
=
2 2

c)

dx is

b)

a)
10) The curve y =

d)

is symmetrical
1 + x2
a) About x axis
c) In opposite quadrants

b) About y axis
d) None

11) The length of the arc of the curve y = x from x = 0 to x = 5 is


a) 5

c)

b) 2 5

d) 5 2

111

12) The value of the integral x2 dx dy dz is


000

a) 1
a

13) The polar form of


0

1
2

b)

c)

1
3

d)

2
3

a 2 x2

dx dy is

2 a

2 a

a) r dr d

b) dr d

c) r dr d

d) None

0 0

0 0
aa
00

14) The surface are of solid of revolution about the y-axis is given by
a) x2 dy

b) 2 y ds

c) y2 dx

d) 2 x ds

______________
Set A

*SLRKM5*

SLR-KM 5

-3-

Seat
No.

F.E. (Part II) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

N.B. :1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. Solve any three from the following.
a)

dy 2x + 3y 1
=
dx 6x + 9y + 6

dy
+ y tan x = x cos2 (x)
dx
c) (x4 2xy2 + y4)dx (2x2y 4xy3 + siny)dy = 0

b)

d) y(1 + xy)dx + x(1 + xy + x2y2) dy = 0.


3. a) Find orthogonal trajectories of the curve y2 = 4ax, where a is parameter.

b) At every point on the curve the slope is equal to the sum of the abscissa and the product
of the abscissa with ordinate. If the curve passes through (0, 1), find the equation of
curve.

c) The charge q on the plate of a condenser of capacity C is charged through a resistance R


dq q
by a steady voltage V satisfies the differential equation R
+ = V, if q = 0 at t = 0 then
dt c
show that charge q at any time t is q = CV(1 e t/RC ) .

4. Attempt the following.


a) Solve
b)

dy
= 2y + 3e x with y(0) = 1 by Taylors method. Hence find the value of y at x = 0.2.
dx

Apply Runge-Kutta method of 4th order to solve


step size 0.2.

dy y 2 x 2
=
for x = 0.2 with y(0) = 1 and
dx y 2 + x 2

dy
= 3x + y 2 with y(1) = 1.2 for x = 1.1, correct to four places of decimals using
dx
Modified Eulers method by taking h = 0.1.

c) Solve

Set A

SLR-KM 5

*SLRKM5*

-4-

5. Attempt the following :


dy
d2 y
and
a) Find
at x = 1 and at x = 3.6 from the following data.
dx
dx 2
x

17

45

103

203

b) Find the value of f(5) from the following data.

12

y=f(x)

1.556

1.690

1.908

2.158

SECTION II
6. Attempt the following :
1

a) Evaluate

3 109

1
dx
x

5
6
b) Evaluate (x 5) (6 x) dx
5

e x sinx
dx
c) Evaluate
x
0

given
0

sin x
dx =
2
x

where is a parameter.

7. Attempt the following :


a) Trace the curve xy2 = a2(a x) with full justification.

b) Trace the curve r = 1 + 2 cos with full justification.

c) Find the length of the cycloid from = 0 to = 2 , x = a( sin ), y = a(1 cos ).

8. Attempt the following :


a) Evaluate xy (x 1) dx dy over the region bounded by xy = 4, y = 0, x = 1 and x = 4.

Set A

*SLRKM5*

SLR-KM 5

-5-

1y 2

b) Change the order of integration and evaluate

cos 1 x
1 x2

1 x 2 y2

dx dy.

OR
2

b) Change to polar co-ordinates and evaluate


0

c) Evaluate

2x x 2

y x 2 + y 2 dx dy .

log 2 x x + y

x +y +z
dx dy dz .
e

9. Attempt the following :


a) Find the area bounded by x2 = y3 (2 y).

b) Find the area of the surface generated by revolving the curve y = x3 from x = 0 to x = 12
about the x- axis.

c) Find mass of the lamina bounded by the curves x = 0, y = 0, x = 1 and y = ex if density at


any point of the lamina varies as square of its distance from origin.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 6

*SLRKM6*
S

F.E. (Part II) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


BASIC CIVIL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) In Section I, solve any three questions.


2) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two from
Q. 7 to Q. 9.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of non programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
6) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
7) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) Plan is a graphical representation of the features on large scale as projected


on a
a) horizontal plane
b) vertical plane
c) in any plane
d) none of the these

2) Hydrological surveys deals with the mapping of


a) heavenly bodies
b) hills
c) large water bodies
d) canal system

3) Which of the following is an obstacle to chaining but not to ranging ?


a) river
b) hillock
c) building
d) none of these

4) Which of the following reference direction is used in a geodetic survey ?


a) true
b) magnetic
c) arbitrary
d) any of these

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 6

*SLRKM6*

-2-

5) Staff reading over a station, whose elevation is known, is called


a) back sight
b) fore sight
c) intermediate sight
d) all of these

6) The lines joining the points of equal elevations on the surface of the earth are
known as
a) isohyets
b) isogonic
c) agonics
d) contours

7) Portion of a road surface, which is used for vehicular traffic is known as


a) carriage-way
b) shoulder
c) expressway
d) none

8) Initial setting time of concrete should not be less than


a) 30 minutes
b) 180 minutes c) 120 minutes

1
d) 360 minutes

9) Principle Elegance in planning refers to


a) Good ventilation
b) Effect produced by elevation and plan
c) Access on internal through fare
d) Economy in construction

10) Good building brick should not absorb water, more than __________
percentage of its weight.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 15
d) 25

11) Objective of GIS are


a) Maximize the efficiency of decision making and planning
b) Providing efficient means for data distribution and handling
c) To work from whole to part
d) Only a) and b)

12) For better roominess the desirable ratio of length to breadth of room is
a) 0.2 to 0.5
b) 0.8 to 1
c) 0.5 to 0.8
d) 1.2 to 1.5

13) For M 20 grade concrete nominal mix, proportions are


a) 1 : 3 : 6
b) 1 : 4 : 8
c) 1 : 2 : 4

1
d) 1 : 1 .5 : 3

14) Concrete is reinforced with ____________ as it is weak in __________


a) Wood, compression
b) Aggregates, compression
c) Steel, tension
d) Sand, tension

______________
Set A

*SLRKM6*
S

SLR-KM 6

-3-

F.E. (Part II) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


BASIC CIVIL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) In Section I, solve any three questions.


2) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two from
Q. 7 to Q. 9.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of non programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Following bearings were observed in area where local attraction was suspected
at some stations. Correct the bearings. Also find the corrections and include
angles. Draw a neat sketch of traverse.
Line

AB

BC

CD

DA

F.B

N 15 E

S 56 E

S 67 W

N 25 W

B.B.

S 14 W

N 53 W

N 65 E

S 25 E

b) What is the scope of civil Engg. Branch ?

3. a) The following consecutive readings were taken during levelling work, the
instrument having been shifted after 4th, 7th and 10th readings. On the first and
second change points the staff was kept inverted. If R. L. of starting B. M. is
500.000 m, find the R. L. of all points by rise and fall method and apply usual
checks.

2.600, 3.700, 3.795, 1.050, 1.350, 0.375, 0.895, 1.115, 2.825, 3.300, 3.555
and 3.900.
b) State characteristics of contours.

2
Set A

SLR-KM 6

-4-

*SLRKM6*

4. a) The distance measured between two points with 30 m and 20 m chain was
215 m and 218 m respectively. If the 30 m chain was 9 cm too short, find the
error in 20 m chain.

b) Differentiate
i) Plane surveying and geodetic surveying.

5. a) Explain various modes of transportation.

b) Make a note on rain water harvesting.

SECTION II
6. a) Differentiate between :

1) Sub structure and super structure.


2) Load bearing structure and Framed structure.
b) Write the functions of following building components :

1) Parapet
2) Lintel.
7. a) Give a list of principles of building planning. Describe any two.

b) What do you mean by building bye laws ? Describe any two.

8. a) Write Requirements of a Good Concrete.


b) Enlist the different grades of concrete used. Give uses of each of them.

3
6

9. a) Enlist different building materials. Give ideal engineering properties of any two. 3
b) Write short notes on any two :

1) Green building
2) Global Positioning System
3) Remote sensing technique.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 7

*SLRKM7*
Seat
No.

Set

F.E. (Part II) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


BASIC ELECTRONICS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 70

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks :14
SECTION I
Basic Electronics

1. Choose the correct alternative.

(17= 7)

1) In Bridge Rectifier, if input voltage is Vm sin t then PIV across any diode will be
a) 2 Vm

b) Vm

c)

Vm
2

d)

Vm
2

2) The Boolean expression A + AB is equal to


a) A + B

b) A + B

c) A

d) both (a) and (b)

3) The __________ gauge operates on the principle of photo resistivity.


a) bounded

b) unbounded

c) semiconductor

d) both (a) and (b)

4) The logic gate giving output high when both inputs are low is
a) OR

b) NAND

c) AND

d) None of these

b) 0110

c) 0001

d) 1000

5) (1110)2 (1101)2 =
a) 1001

6) The value of capacitance is independent of


a) area of plate

b) dielectric constant

c) mass of plate

d) distance between plates

7) ____________ can be used in camera for determining light intensity.


a) LED

b) Diode

c) Transistor

d) LDR

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 7

*SLRKM7*

-2-

SECTION II
Computer Programming
8) Which is not the library function ?
a) for ( )

b) printf ( )

7
c) scanf ( )

d) getchar ( )

9) What is required to avoid falling through from one case to the next ?
a) end;

b) break;

c) stop;

d) a semicolon

10) If a, b, c, are integer variables with the values 8, 3, 5 resp. Then what is the output of
arithmatic expression : 2 * b + 3 * (a c)
a) 45

b) 6

c) 16

d) 1

11) Array name is


a) An array variable
b) The common name shared by all elements
c) A keyword
d) Not used in a program
12) The symbol of right shift operator is
a)

b) >>>

c) >>

d) >

13) To initialize a 5 element array all having value 0 is given by


a) int num [5] = [0] ;

b) int num [5] = (0);

c) int num [5] = {0};

d) all above

14) All null statements can be represented by a


a) newline

b) blank space

c) colon

d) semicolon

______________

Set A

*SLRKM7*

-3-

SLR-KM 7

Seat
No.

F.E. (Part II) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


BASIC ELECTRONICS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.
3) Use separate answer sheets for Basic Electronics (Section I) and
computer programming (Section II).
SECTION I
Basic Electronics
2. Attempt any four questions.

(44= 16)

a) Explain working of transistor as an amplifier.


b) Explain different types of capacitors.
c) Explain bonded and unbonded strain gauge with neat diagram.
d) Explain in detail working of photo diode.
e) Convert the following numbers to octal, binary (B C A)H, (1 F A)H.
f)

Explain full wave center tapped rectifier with capacitive filter.

3. Attempt any two questions.

(26= 12)

a) Explain with neat diagram working and application of LVDT. What are its advantages ?
b) Prove that

i) ( A + B + AB) (A + B ) ( A B) = 0
ii) A C + B C + A BC + ABC = A C + B
c) Perform subtraction using 2s complement and convert it into octal.
i) (123.45)8 (50)8
ii) (175)8 (100)8

Set A

SLR-KM 7

-4-

*SLRKM7*

SECTION II
Computer Programming
4. Solve any four :
1) Explain the features of C languages.
2) Write a program to display all odd numbers between 1 to 200 which are divisible by 11.
3) Write difference between structure and union with example.
4) Find the output : mian( )
{
int i , j, k ;
for ( i = 1; i < = 3; i ++)
{
for (j = 1 ; j < = 2; j++)
{
for (k = 1; k < = 1 ; k ++)
{
printf ( %d %d%d \n, i, j, k);
}
}
}
}

20

5) Find and list the errors from following code


{
void main ( )
int mark ;
printf ( enter the mark ) ;
scanf ( % f, & mark);
if mark > 66
print f ( distinction)
else if (mark > 60);
print f ( first class);
}
6) What is pointer ? Explain the operators & and *.
5. What is string ? Explain string handling functions.

OR
Write a program that finds the largest, smallest and difference between largest and smallest
among 10 numbers.
___________

Set A

SLR-KM 9

*SLRKM9*
Seat
No.

Set

F.E. (Part I/II) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions :

1) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Constants :

1) Avogadros No., N = 6.02 1026 /k.mol.


2) Velocity of light, c = 3 108 m/sec.
3) Charge of electron, e = 1.6 1019 C.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14
SECTION I

1) Void space =
a) (1 + APF) 100

b) (1 APF) 100

c) (1 + APF)/100

d) (1 APF)/100

2) The number of lattice points in primitive cell are


a) 1

b)

c) 3/2

d) 2

3) The length of the rod moving with velocity V relative to the observer is same when
a) V = 0

b) V is comparable to c

c) V c

d) V << c

4) The time taken by sound to fall to one millionth of its intensity just before the source is cut
off, is known as
a) reverberation

b) reverberation time

c) time

d) none of above

5) The ultrasonic waves can be detected by


a) Sonometer

b) Acoustic diffraction method

c) Diffraction grating method

d) Liquid column resonance


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 9

*SLRKM9*

-2-

6) There is no hole current in good conductors because they


a) are full of electron gas
b) have large forbidden energy gap
c) have no valence band
d) have overlapping valence and conduction bands
7) An n-type semiconductor is _________
a) positively charged
c) electrically neutral

b) negatively charged
d) none of the above

SECTION II
8) The criterion for resolution of optical instruments was given by _________
a) Newton
b) Rayleigh
c) Huygen
d) Ramsden
9) The velocities of e ray and o ray are same in a direction
a) parallel to optic axis
b) perpendicular to optic axis
c) making an angle 45 with optic axis
d) making any angle 55 with optic axis
10) In Holography technique _________ are recorded and viewed the photograph shows a
three dimensional image of the object.
a) Only intensity attributes
b) Both the phase and intensity attributes of the wave
c) Only phase distribution
d) None of these
11) An optical fiber works on the principle of __________
a) Tyndall effect
b) Photo-electric effect
c) Laser refraction
d) Total internal reflection
12) The chain reaction becomes supercritical when the effective multiplication factors k
a) K = 1
b) K = 0
c) K > 1
d) K < 1
13) Which of the following CNT is having chiral nature ?
a) Zigzag
b) Armchair
c) Helical

d) All of these

14) The innermost region is the light guiding region is known as the ________
a) Core
b) Sheath
c) Cladding
d) None of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM9*

-3-

SLR-KM 9

Seat
No.

F.E. (Part I/II) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions :

1) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Constants :

1) Avogadros No., N = 6.02 1026 /k.mol.


2) Velocity of light, c = 3 108 m/sec.
3) Charge of electron, e = 1.6 1019 C.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any five of the following :

15

a) State the properties of ultrasonic waves.


b) Explain effect of impurity concentration on the position of Fermi level in P type
semiconductor.
c) Obtain the relativistic formula for the addition of velocities.
d) Using the following data, find the type of unit cell GaAs forms :
Density of GaAs = 5.324 gm/cm3, Atomic weight of Ga = 69.7
Atomic weight of As = 74.9, Lattice constant of GaAs = 5.65 A.
e) What are Miller indices ? How they are determined ?
f) A hall has a volume of 1200 m3. Its total absorption is equivalent to 480 m2 of open
window. What will be the effect on the reverberation time if audience fill the hall and thereby
increase the absorption by another 480 m2 of open window ?
g) State the fundamental postulates of special theory of relativity. Write only four equations
of Lorentz inverse transformation.
3. Explain Hall effect. Derive the relation for Hall voltage VH and Hall coefficient RH in detail.

4. Attempt any two of the following :

a) Deduce Einsteins expression (E = MC2) for mass-energy equivalence.


b) Describe different methods used for detection of ultrasonic.
c) Define atomic radius. Find the relation between lattice constant and atomic radius for
BCC, SC and FCC.

Set A

SLR-KM 9

-4-

*SLRKM9*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any five of the following :

15

a) Distinguish between Fresnel and Fraunhoffer class of diffraction.


b) Explain positive and negative crystals.
c) Explain with neat diagram :
i) Stimulated absorption
ii) Spontaneous emission.
d) Discuss the advantages of optical fibers in communication.
e) Explain with diagram types of carbon nano tubes.
f) Calculate the numerical aperture and acceptance angle for a fiber cable with a core index
of refraction is 1.45 and a cladding index of refraction is 1.30.
g) Calculate specific rotation, if the plane of polarization is rotated through 22 length of tube
is 20 cm and concentration of sugar solution is 20%.
6. Explain the concept of resolving power of an optical instrument. Derive an expression for the
resolving power of a plane diffraction grating.

OR
Explain construction and working of Laurents half shade polarimeter.
7. Attempt any two of the following :

a) Explain :
i) Proton Proton cycle,
ii) Carbon Nitrogen cycle.
b) Explain the fiber optics communication system with block diagram.
c) With the help of energy band diagram discuss the working of Semiconductor Diode LASER.
__________________

Set A

SLR-KM 10

*SLRKM10*
Seat
No.

Set

F.E. (Part I/II) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY (CGPA)
Day and Date : Saturday, 19-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. :

Max. Marks : 70

i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget
to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct option :

14

1) Co-agulants help in settling of


A) Suspended impurities only
B) Fine suspended impurities only
C) Colloidal particles only
D) Both B) and C)
2) When lead is progressively added to the molten silver, the melting point of the resultant alloy is
A) Raised

B) Lowered

C) Unaltered

D) Unpredictable

3) Lubricant used in a machine working at low temperature should possess


A) High pour point
C) Low aniline point

B) Low pour point


D) High cloud point

4) During Galvanic corrosion, the more noble metal acts as


A) Anode
C) Both A) and B)

B) Cathode
D) None of these

5) The process of zinc coating over iron sheets by hot dipping is called
A) Galvanization
C) Sheradizing
6) Animal and vegetable oils are
A) Very cheap
C) Good in oiliness

B) Tinning
D) Anodizing
B) Not oxidized easily
D) Not thickened in use

7) Hardness of water is due to the presence of Ca and Mg salts, temporary hardness in water can be
removed by
A) Filtration
B) Boiling
C) Sedimentation

D) None of these

8) Which of the following in coal decreases its calorific value ?


A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen

D) Both B) and C)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 10

*SLRKM10*

-2-

9) Ignition temperature of good fuel should be


A) High
C) Moderate

B) Low
D) None of these

10) In optical glass cerium oxide is used to absorb


A) Infra red light
C) X-ray light

B) Visible light
D) Ultra violet light

11) Natural rubber consists of basic material latex which is dispersion of


A) Ethylene
C) Styrene

B) Neoprene
D) Polyisoprene

12) Which of the following is an example of biodegradable polymer ?


A) Bakelite
B) Polystyrene
C) Polylactic acid

D) Nylon

13) Which of the following can be used for separation of components of natural gas ?
A) IR spectroscopy
B) UV spectroscopy
C) Gas chromatography
D) Colorimetry
14) Thermal stability of substance can be determined by
A) GLC
B) TGA
C) NMR
D) Potentiometry
______________

Set A

*SLRKM10*

SLR-KM 10

-3-

Seat
No.

F.E. (Part I/II) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY (CGPA)
Day and Date : Saturday, 19-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. :

Marks : 56

i) Attempt all questions.


ii) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
iii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I

2. A) Attempt any two :

a) Describe the ion-exchange method for softening of hard water.


b) With the help of neat phase diagram, describe Pb-Ag (two component) system.
c) Calculate temporary/permanent and total hardness or water, or a water sample containing following
impurities in ppm :
Impurities

Amount

Mole.Wt.

Ca (HCO3)2

11.50

162

Mg (HCO3)2

8.39

146

MgCl2

1.95

95

CaCl2

2.40

111

B) Attempt any two :

a) Describe the hot dipping process of metal coating by tinning.


b) Write a note on greases as a semi-solid lubricants.
c) Define and write the importance of :
i) Cloud point and pour point
ii) Flash point and fire point
iii) Viscosity and viscosity index.
3. A) Attempt any two :

a) Define BOD. Explain determination of BOD experimentally.


b) Write a note on reverse osmosis.
c) Explain the term :
i) Metastable equilibrium
ii) Triple point or Eutectic point
iii) Phase.

Set A

SLR-KM 10

-4-

*SLRKM10*

B) Attempt any two :

a) Define lubrication. Write the functions of lubricants.


b) Define paint. Explain the functions of pigments, drying oils and thinner with suitable examples.
c) Explain :
i) Corrosion by hydrogen evolution method
ii) Write a note on metal cladding.
SECTION II
4. A) Attempt any two :

a) Describe construction and working of boys gas calorimeter.


b) Compare composition, properties and applications of cast iron, steel and wrought iron.
c) Define addition and condensation polymerization with example of polymerization reaction of each.
B) Attempt any two :

a) Calculate molality of a solution containing 20 gm of NaOH in 1 kg water


(Atomic wt, : Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1).
b) Write properties and applications of PVC and Buna-S rubber.
c) Explain proximate analysis of coal.
5. A)

a) Write two properties and uses of FRP and epoxy resin.

b) Calculate degree of polymerization polypropylene having molecular weight 250000 (mole. wt. of
propylene = 42).

OR
a) Write a note on wrought iron.

b) Define GLC. Write the applications of GLC.

B) Attempt any two :

a) Write a note on compounding of plastic with example of each constitute.

b) A solid fuel in Bomb calorimeter gives following data at calorific value determination

Weight of coal sample = 1.5 g


Weight of water taken = 1700 g
Water equivalent of calorimeter = 500 g
Rise in temperature = 4.5C
Cooling correction = 0.05C
Fuse wire correction = 12 cal
Correction due to acid = 48 cal
Calculate higher and lower calorific value of fuel containing 7% hydrogen. (Take latent heat of
steam = 587 kcal/kg).
c) i) Define normality and molarity.
ii) Write classification of propellant.

2
2

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 11

*SLRKM11*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator allowed.
5) Assume suitable data if required and mentioned clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

i) The main ingredients of the concrete are


a) Cement
b) Aggregate
d) Admixture

c) Water

e) All of above

ii) The compressive strength of OPC after three days is expected to be more
than
a) 16 MPa

b) 22 MPa

c) 27.5 MPa

d) 33 MPa

iii) Water in excess of that required for chemical reaction in concrete results in
a) Bleeding
d) Voids on drying

b) Segregation
e) Honey combing

c) Cracks

iv) Fine aggregate is the one which has 85 to 100% passing through IS sieves Nos.
a) 4.75 mm

b) 2.36 mm

c) 1.18 mm

d) 600 micron

v) For general guidance, it can be said that OPC concrete must be put into
use after
a) 7 days

b) 14 days

c) 21 days

d) 28 days

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 11

*SLRKM11*

-2-

vi) Which of the following Bouges compound is responsible for FLASHSET ?


a) C33

b) C2S

c) C3A

d) C4AF

vii) The void ratio of fine aggregate used in concrete is about


a) 0.55

b) 0.50

c) 0.45

d) 0.40

viii) Fine aggregate confirming of which zone is not recommended for making
reinforced concrete
a) zone I

b) zone II

c) zone III

d) zone IV

ix) For concrete mix pH value of water shall not be less than
a) 7

b) 6

c) 8

d) 9

x) For degree of quality control GOOD condition. The target mean strength of
M-20 grade concrete is (take S.D. for Good condition for M-20 = 4.6)
a) 25.59
b) 26.59
c) 27.59
d) 28.59
xi) IS provision for concrete mix design is given in
a) IS : 4031-1968
b) IS : 383 :1970
c) IS : 456-2000

d) IS : 10262-2009

xii) The workability of concrete by slump test is expressed as


a) MM3/H

b) MM2/H

c) MM/H

d) MM

xiii) The vegetable oil, if present, in mixing water for concrete


a) Improves strength
b) Reduce strength
c) Gives more slump
d) Gives smooth surface
e) Improves workability due to lubrication
xiv) Which of the following is responsible for the permeability of concrete ?
a) low w/c ratio
c) gel pores

b) excessive w/c ratio


d) b) and c)
______________

Set A

*SLRKM11*

-3-

SLR-KM 11

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015

Marks : 56

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator allowed.
4) Assume suitable data if required and mentioned clearly.
SECTION I
2. Solve any three :

12

a) What do you mean by workability of concrete ?


b) Explain compaction factor test for measuring workability ?
c) Write a note on compounds of cement.
d) Write a note on standard grading curves.
3. Solve any three :

12

a) Explain effect of temperature on strength of concrete.


b) Enlist methods of curing concrete.
c) Write a note on admixture in concrete.
d) Write a note on bulking of sand.
4. Write about effect of shape of aggregate on performance of concrete.

OR
4. Write on plasticizers and superplasticizers.

4
Set A

SLR-KM 11

-4-

*SLRKM11*

SECTION II
5. Solve any two :

12

a) Write in details on high performance concrete.


b) Write a note on ready mix concrete.
c) Explain durability of concrete.
6. Solve any two :

10

a) Write a note on creep and shrinkage of concrete.


b) Write a note on quality control of concrete.
c) Write a note on sulphate and chloride attack on concrete.
7. Write down the step by step procedure of concrete Mix design by revised
IS 10262 : 2009.

OR
7. Differentiate between design mix and nominal mix concrete along with the factors
governing mix design.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 12

*SLRKM12*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015
STRUCTURAL MECHANICS I

Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) Thermal strain is given by


a) e = tE
b) e = t

c) e =

2) Hookes law holds good upto


a) Proportional limit
c) Elastic limit

b) Yield point
d) Plastic limit

d) e = tL

3) Water thrust in case of a dam retaining water of depth h acts from base at a height
a)

h
4

b)

h
3

c)

h
5

d)

h
2.5

4) The maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam length 2L loaded by a


concentrated load 2P at a mid point is given by
a) PL

b)

PL
2

c)

PL
4

d)

PL
8

5) If a beam is subjected to a constant bending moment along its length, then the shear
force will
a) also have a constant value everywhere along its length
b) be zero at all sections along the beam
c) be maximum at the centre and zero at the ends
d) zero at the centre and maximum at the ends
1
are modulus of elasticity, modulus of rigidity. Bulk modulus and Poisson
m
ratio of the material, the following relationship holds good

6) If E, C, K and

a) E = 3K 1

2
1

b) E = 3K 1 +
c) E = 3K 1 +

m
m

d) All the above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 12

*SLRKM12*

-2-

7) At hinge in a beam
a) S.F. is zero
c) B.M. is zero

b) B.M. is maximum
d) None of these

8) Torsional rigidity of the shaft is defined as the torque required to produce


a) Maximum twist in the shaft
b) Maximum shear in the shaft
c) Minimum twist in the shaft
d) A twist of one radian per unit length of the shaft
9) The longitudinal strain in case of thin cylindrical shell, when subjected to internal pressure
(p) is equal to (where d is dia, t is thickness and 1/m is Poissons ratio and E is Youngs
modulus)
a)

pd 1 1

2 tE 2 m

b)

pd
1
1

2 tE
2m

c)

pd
1
1

4 tE
m

d)

3 pd
1
1

4 tE
m

10) Bending strain energy for a beam of length (1) applied with bending moment (M) and
flexural rigidity (EI) is given by
1
a)
2

M2
dx
EI

b)

1
2

M
dx
EI

c)

M2
dx
EI

d)

1 M2
2 EI

11) A beam has a triangular section with base (b) and height (h) subjected to shear force (S),
the shear stress at neutral axis is given by
a)

4 S
3 bh

b)

3 S
4 bh

c)

3 S
8 bh

d)

8 S
3 bh

12) If p is the proof stress to which bar is stressed of material Youngs Modulus (E), the
proof resilience is equal to
a)

2E

b)

p2

2E

c)

p2

4E

d)

4E

13) Solid shaft of diameter (D) and permissible shear stress ( ) transmits the torque equal
to
a)

D3
32

b)

D3
64

c)

D3
16

d)

D3
8

14) Modular ratio in flitched beam is


a) Ratio of two Youngs modulus
b) Ratio of maximum stresses in two materials
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM12*

-3-

SLR-KM 12

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


STRUCTURAL MECHANICS I
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 56

In Section I question 2 is compulsory. Solve any two of remaining.


In Section II question 6 is compulsory. Solve any two of remaining.
Figure to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. a) Explain temperature stress and strain.

b) A steel rod of cross section area 1600 mm2 and two brass rods each of cross sectional area
1000 mm2 together supports a load of 100 kN a shown in Figure 1 below. Find stresses in
the rod. Es = 2 105 N/mm2 and Eb = 1 105 N/mm2.

Figure 1
3. A rectangular column 300 mm 200 mm is subjected to a compressive load of 450 kn at point P
as shown in Figure 2 below. Find the stress intensities at all the four corners of the column.

Figure 2

Set A

SLR-KM 12

-4-

*SLRKM12*

4. a) Define shear force and bending moment at a section.

b) A beam ABCD is loaded and supported as shown in Figure 2 below. Draw Shear force
and bending moment diagrams showing all important points. Show all calculations.

Figure 2
5. A cast iron beam of I section is simply supported on a span of 6 m. The section consists of a
top flange 60 mm 20 mm thick, web 180 mm deep and 20 mm thick and bottom flange
160 mm 40 mm thick. Find the U.D.L. on the beam, if the tensile stress shall not exceed
30 N/mm2. Also find out the corresponding maximum compressive stress.

Figure 3
SECTION II
6. Solve any two :

(52=10)

i) Find the ratio of moment of resistance of timber and steel for a flitched beam. The flitched
beam is made by flitching the wooden beam of 35 cm width and 25 cm deep with two steel
flitches of 25 cm deep with 2 cm thickness. Take Es = 15 Ew.
ii) Find the expression for a volumetric strain of thin cylinder in terms of internal pressure.
iii) Find the thickness of a thin cylinder of internal diameter 1 m contains fluid with internal
pressure of 3 N/mm2 when permissible longitudinal and circumferential of 24 N/mm2 and
34 N/mm2, respectively.

Set A

*SLRKM12*

-5-

SLR-KM 12

7. For the bracket shown in Figure below is subjected to shear force of 1500 kN, find shear
stress value at neutral axis.

8. A hollow shaft having an internal diameter 60% of its external diameter, transmits 500 kW
power at 100 rpm. Determine external diameters if shear stress is not allowed to exceed 60 N/mm2
and the twist of 0.5 degree per meter length. Take maximum torque = 1.30 mean torque and
modulus of rigidity of 85 GPa.

9. Find strain energy stored due to bending of a simply supported beam of cross section of
150 mm (width) 200 mm (depth) and span of 5 m subjected to UDL of 40 kN/m for the whole
span. Take E = 2 105 N/mm2.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 13

*SLRKM13*
S

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


SURVEYING I (CGPA)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Q. No. 2 from Section I is compulsory. Solve any two full
questions from Q. No. 3 to Q. No. 5.
3) Solve any three questions from Section II.
4) Make suitable assumptions if required and mention it clearly.
5) Figures to right indicate full marks.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :


, A staff is held at a distance of 200 m.
1) The sensitivity of a bubble tube is
What is the error in reading it if the bubble is out by one division ?
a) 0.704 m
b) 0.0704 m
c) 0.0194 m
d) 0.1940 m


2) Sensitivity of a bubble increases with __________


i) an increase in radius of curvature of the tube
ii) smoothness of finish of internal surface of the tube.
a) Only (i) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

1
1

b) Only (ii) is correct


d) None of correct

3) Pick out the correct statement.


1
i) The effect of the curvature of the earth is to cause an object to appear law
ii) The effect of refraction is to cause an object appear higher.
a) Only (i) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

b) Only (ii) is correct


d) None of correct

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 13

*SLRKM13*

-2-

4) Reciprocal leveling eliminates the


1) Errors due to earths curvature
2) Errors due to atmospheric refraction
3) Mistakes in taking leveling staff reading
4) Errors due to line of collimation
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2 and 4

5) For a closed traverse which check is more important and essential ?


b) departure = 0
a) Latitude = 0
c) Both a) and b)
d) F.B. B.B = 180

6) The size of the theodolite is defined by __________


a) The diameter of the graduated circle of a lower plate
b) The diameter of the graduated circle of upper plate
c) The height of the theodolite
d) The length of the telescope

7) The operation of revolving the telescope in a horizontal plane about its vertical
axis is called
a) Swinging
b) Transiting
c) Face right d) Face left
8) Simpsons rule for calculating area is applicable only when the ordinates are
a) Odd
b) Even
c) Either a) or b)
d) None

1
1

9) The area of an irregular plotted fig. can be accurate obtained with the help of a 1
a) Penta graph b) Parallax bar c) Planimeter d) Any of above
10) I hectare is equal to __________ Acres.
a) 2.47
b) 4.47
c) 2

1
d) 3.37

11) When the anchor point is the figure the area of the zero circle
a) Added
b) Subtracted c) Multiplied
d) Divided

12) A contour line intersets a valley line


a) Obliquely
b) Perpendicularly
c) Vertically
d) None of these

13) The following instruments have lowest range of 2-5 km.


a) Tellurometer b) Geodemeter c) Distometer d) None of these

14) Electronic total station can read and record


a) Horizontal angle
b) Vertical angle
c) Slope distance
d) All of these

_________________

Set A

*SLRKM13*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 13

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


SURVEYING I (CGPA)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 2 from Section I is compulsory. Solve any two full


questions from Q. No. 3 to Q. No. 5.
2) Solve any three questions from Section II.
3) Make suitable assumptions if required and mention it clearly.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) What are two permanent adjustment of a dumpy level ? What are object of
such permanent adjustment ?

b) In leveling between two points A and B on opposite banks of a river, the


level was set up near A and the staff readings on A and B were 1.285 and
2.860 m respectively. The level was then moved and set up near B and the
respective readings on A and B, were 0.860 and 2.220. Find the true difference
of level between A and B.

3. a) When is reciprocal levelling done ? Describe the method along with a sketch. 4
b) Find the radius of the longitudinal curvature of the bubble tube on which the
divisions are 2 mm long if :
i) The angular value of one division is 30 sec.
ii) If it is 20 sec.

4. a) What are the fundamental lines of a theodolite ? What should be the relation
between them ?
4
b) A traverse is run to set out a line MQ = 1900 m at right angles to a given line MN.
The length and bearings observed are as follows. Calculate the length and
bearing of the line PQ.
5
L

h


m



M

Set A

SLR-KM 13

-4-

*SLRKM13*

5. Write short note on (Each 3 mark) :


a) Methods of soundings to measure depth of water
b) Construction and use of Abney level
c) Construction and use of Box Sextant.
SECTION II
6. a) Make a short note on tellurometer.
b) Define properties of electromagnetic waves.

6
3

7. a) What are the various methods of plane table surveying ? Explain one in detail. 7
b) Define orientation of plan table. State the different methods and there suitability. 3
8. a) Draw a neat sketch of mechanical planimeter. Name the different parts.
Also state the application of planimeter.
b) Explain the procedure to find out the capacity of a reservoir.
9. a) Define two point problem. How will you solve it ?
b) State characteristics of contours.

6
3
6
3

_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM14*

SLR-KM 14

Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DRAWING
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to. 2.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All the questions are compulsory.
4) Figure on right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 14
1. State whether following statement is correct or incorrect :

14

1) If the weight of the full brick is 1600 gms then the weight of the queen closure
of the same brick shall be 1200 gms.
2) Back flap hinges are used for lighter shutters.
3) Abutment is the end support of an arch.
4) Winders are used for changing direction of the stair.
5) Tower bolt is normally fixed on shutter.
6) Gable roof slopes in two directions.
7) Floorings of terrazzo, mosaic tiles and marble give good appearance.
8) Bricks are more fire resistance as compared to stone Masonry.
9) Queen closer must be provided after the quoin header.
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 14

-2-

*SLRKM14*

10) Springer points are the points of intersection between the skew backs and
intrados of arch.
11) Rebate is cut made inside a frame all round on one side of the door.
12) Ledge and battened are the member of Panelled doors.
13) Gutter is provided for drain of water.
14) Couple close roof can be used for a maximum span of 4.5 meter under
normal loading condition.
______________

Set A

*SLRKM14*

-3-

SLR-KM 14

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DRAWING
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to. 2.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.


2) Figure on right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
4) Section I to be written in answer book.
5) Section II to be drawn on half imperial drawing sheet. Use
both sides of the sheets.
6) Retain all projection/construction lines on drawing sheet.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions :

(47=28)

a) Compare English and Flemish Bond.


b) Write a note on compaction and curing of concrete.
c) Discuss in detail functional requirements of building.
d) Write in brief the functional requirements of foundation.
e) Draw a detailed labeled diagram of arch. Also define : Extrados, Intrados,
Crown and Vouissoirs.
f) Discuss requirement of good stair.
g) What are factors that affect choice of flooring material ?
SECTION II
3. Attempt any two of the following :
A) Draw to scale 1 : 10 plan for alternate courses and elevation for at least 10
courses for a brick wall built with :
14
a) Header bond (one brick thick)
b) Stretcher bond (half brick thick).
Take brick size as (100 100 200) mm including mortar joints.
Set A

SLR-KM 14

-4-

*SLRKM14*

B) Design and draw to scale 1 : 20, plan and vertical section for open well
R.C.C. staircase for public building.
1) Vertical height to be covered = 3900 mm
2) Width of flight = 1500 mm
3) Provide railing

14

Reinforcement details are not to be shown.


(Write step by step calculation on sheet with pencil only).
C) Design and draw to scale 1 : 30 plan and vertical section for a dog legged
stair case. Use a following data.
1) Height to be climbed 3000 mm
2) Tread : 280 mm
3) Riser : 150 mm
4) Width of stair flight : 1000 mm
5) Reinforcement detail not expected
6) Waist slab of thickness 120 mm.

14

Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly. Write step by step
calculation on sheet with pencil only.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 15

*SLRKM15*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
FLUID MECHANICS I
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : a) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
b) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory.
c) Solve any two questions from Q. 3 to Q. 5 and any two
from Q. 7 to Q. 9.
d) Use of non-programmable calculator is permitted.
e) Neat diagram be drawn wherever required.
f) Assume any other data if necessary.
g) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure
is called _________
a) Specific weight
b) Mass density
c) Specific gravity
d) None of the above
2) The shear stress at a point in oil is 0.4 N/m2 and the velocity gradient at the
point is 0.25, the viscosity of oil is _________
a) 1.25 Ns/m2
b) 1.4 Ns/m2
c) 1.6 Ns/m2
d) 2 Ns/m2
3) When fluid is at rest, the shear stress is _________
a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Unpredictable
d) None of the above
4) The intensity of pressure at any point in a fluid at rest is the same in all
direction is a __________
a) Pascals law
b) Hydrostatic law
c) Law of floatation
d) Stokes law

1
1

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 15

*SLRKM15*

-2-

5) Metacentric height can be determined by


a) Only analytical method
b) Only experimental method
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

6) Surface tension is expressed in


a) N/m
b) N2/m

1
c)

N/m2

d)

N/m3

7) Unit of kinematic viscosity is


a) N/M
b) N-m/s2
c) m2/s
d) kg/m3
8) Reynolds number is the ratio of inertia force to __________
a) Pressure force
b) Elastic force
c) Gravity force
d) Viscous force

9) A control volume is ___________


a) The volume of fluid flowing per unit of time
b) A volume fixed in space
c) A volume in which the control device is situated
d) The volume of fluid controlling device

10) The maximum velocity in a circular pipe when flow is laminar occurs at
a) The top of the pipe
b) The bottom of the pipe
c) The centre of the pipe
d) Not necessarily at the centre
11) Loss of head due to sudden contraction is given as
V2
a)
g

CC

V22 1

1
b)

2g CC

V2
c) 2
g

CC

V22 1
1
d)

2g CC

12) Time of emptying a tank through an orifice at its bottom is given by


a)

2A H1
Cd a 2 2g

b)

2 A H1
Cd a 2g

c)

A H1
Cd a 2g

d)

4 A H1
Cd a 2g

13) For flow through horizontal pipe, the pressure gradient dp/dx in the flow
direction is
a) +ve
b) 1
c) zero
d) ve

14) The ratio of average velocity to maximum velocity for steady laminar flow in
circular pipe is
a) 1/2
b) 2/3
c) 3/2
d) 2
______________

Set A

*SLRKM15*

-3-

SLR-KM 15

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
FLUID MECHANICS I
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : a) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory.


b) Solve any two questions from Q. 3 to Q. 5 and any two
from Q. 7 to Q. 9.
c) Use of non-programmable calculator is permitted.
d) Neat diagram be drawn wherever required.
e) Assume any other data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain :
1) Mass Density
2) Weight Density 3) Specific Gravity.
b) If surface tension of water and mercury at 20C is 0.073575 N/m and 0.51 N/m
respectively. Calculate capillary effect in millimeters (mm) for glass tube of
4 mm diameter is immersed in water and mercury. (mass density of water is
998 kg/m3 and mercury 13600 kg/m3). Assume ( for water is 0 degree
and for mercury 130 degree).
c) A certain object is having dimensions 1.5 m 1.0 m 2.0 m. Find its weight in
air if its weight in water is 1962 N. What will be its specific gravity ?
3. a) Define :
1) Absolute pressure 2) Gauge pressure 3) Vacuum pressure.
b) Find the total pressure acting at the bottom of tank shown in Fig. 1 and weight
of water in the tank. Consider width of tank 2 m. (Ref. Given fig.)

4
3
3
6

Set A

SLR-KM 15

-4-

*SLRKM15*

4. a) How will you compute the horizontal and vertical components of total force
acting on curve surface which is in the form of quadrant of circle ?
b) Find the total pressure and centre of pressure on an isosceles triangle of
base 4 m and height 4 m. Triangle is immersed in liquid of specific gravity 0.9
base of triangle coincides with free surface of liquid.
5. a) Prove that equipotential lines and stream lines are orthogonal.
b) A stream function is given by = 5x 6y. Calculate the velocity component
and magnitude and direction of the resultant velocity at any point.

5
4
5

SECTION II
6. a) Derive the expression for the theoretical discharge through venture meter
with neat sketch.
b) Show that the velocity distribution across section of pipe for viscous flow is
parabolic.
c) Find the average height of roughness (k) for a rough pipe of diameter 8.0 cm
if the velocity at a distance 1 cm from pipe wall is (u) and at a distance 3 cm
from pipe wall is (1.3 u).
7. a) An orifice of diameter 0.5 m is provided at the bottom of water tank with 4 m
diameter and 5 m height. What will be the time required to reduce the level to 2 m ?
Also find the time required to empty if initially it is full. Assume Cd = 0.6.
b) Write a note on Pitot tube hence prove that theoretical velocity is 2gh .
8. a) On the basis of Nikuradse experiment and Reynolds Roughness number
how will you classify the type of boundary ?
b) Certain pipe is enlarged from diameter 200 mm to 400 mm if discharge through
pipe is 250 lit/sec what will be the loss of head due to enlargement ?
9. a) Write a note on :
1) Displacement thickness
2) Momentum thickness
3) Energy thickness.

3
3

5
4
4
5
4

u
y y
b) Velocity distribution in boundary layer is given by : = 2
U

Calculate :
1) Displacement thickness
2) Momentum thickness.
_________________

5
Set A

SLR-KM 16

*SLRKM16*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (CGPA) (New) Examination, 2015
ENGINEERING GEOLOGY

Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The Hardness of Apatite mineral is
A) Four
B) Five

14
C) Three

2) Magnitude of earthquake is measured in _______ scale.


A) Richter
B) Manual
C) Mercali

D) Eight
D) Jordens

3) Mohorovic Discontinuity occurs between


A) Mantle and Core
B) Crust and Mantle
C) Core and Crust
D) Inner Core and Outer Core
4) Minerals are normally stable at temperature below ______C.
A) 300
B) 2000
C) 200
D) 450
5) The older rocks are surrounded by younger rocks is called as
A) Outliers
B) Inliers
C) Overlap
D) Landslides
6) _______ is the example of Arch dam.
A) Ujani dam
C) Idduki dam

B) Khadakwasala dam
D) Terana

7) Underground routes or passages driven through the ground without disturbing the
overlying soil or rock cover is called as
A) Bridge
B) Tunnel
C) Dams
D) Resevoirs
8) _______ is the concordant igneous intrusion associated with structural basin.
A) Sill
B) Phacolith
C) Lopolith
D) Laccolith
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 16

*SLRKM16*

-2-

9) Confined aquifer is also known as


A) Phreatic Aquifer
C) Artesian Aquifer

B) Congested Aquifer
D) Free Aquifer

10) Columnar joints are generally formed in ______ type of rock.


A) Metamorphic
B) Igneous
C) Sedimentary
D) Laterite
11) Which of the following is oldest type of drilling
A) Rotary
B) Calyx
C) Diamond

D) Auger

12) Soil creep is a type of failure in which the slope suffers.


A) Rotational movement
B) Excess Temperature
C) A sliding slow motion
D) A particle level down slope slow imperceptible movement in the presence of
some moisture
13) The average density of the Earth is
A) 3.3 g/cc
B) 4.3 g/cc

C) 5.517 g/cc

D) 5.37 g/cc

14) Ferruginous rocks are formed by precipitation of


A) Calcium Carbonate
B) Silica
C) Iron Oxide
D) Salts

______________

Set A

*SLRKM16*

-3-

SLR-KM 16

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (CGPA) (New) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Question no. 5 from Section I and 9 from Section II are


compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Define igneous rock and explain formation process of igneous rock.
b) Define fold and explain any five types of fold.

6
6

OR
3. a) Define mineral and explain classification of minerals.
b) Define sedimentary rock and explain formation process of sedimentary rock.

6
6

4. Describe in detail any four erosional features produced by the River.

5. Write a note on (any three) :

a) Strike and dip


b) Stress and anti stress mineral
c) Textural classification of igneous rock
d) Two features resulting due to rejuvenation of river
e) Bowens reaction series.
SECTION II
6. a) Explain engineering properties of building stones.
b) Define dam and write a note on geological investigation for dam site.

6
6

OR

Set A

SLR-KM 16

-4-

7. a) Define aquifer and explain types of aquifer.


b) Define landslide and explain types of landslide.

*SLRKM16*
6
6

8. Define tunnel and explain types of tunnel.

9. Write a note on (any three) :

a) R.Q.D.
b) Siltation of reservoir
c) Seismogram
d) RIS
e) Batholith.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 17

*SLRKM17*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


STRUCTURAL MECHANICS II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.


2) Question No. 2 is compulsory in Section I, solve any two
questions from remaining.
3) Solve any three from Section II.
4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answers :

Marks : 20

1) If a member is subjected to axial tensile load, the plane normal to the axis
of loading carries
a) maximum normal stress
b) minimum normal stress
c) maximum shear stress
d) none of the above
2) A short column of rectangular section carries a vertical point load W axially.
The stress on the section of the column will be
a) zero at one end and maximum at the other end
b) uniform
c) zero at the axis and maximum at the outer end
d) tensile on one end and compressive at the other end
3) Rankines formula is an empirical formula which is used for
a) long columns
b) short columns c) both a) and b) d) none
4) The equivalent length is equal to half the actual length for a column with
a) one end fixed, other end free
b) both ends fixed
c) one end fixed, other end hinged
d) both ends hinged
5) The normal stress on an oblique plane is max. when is equal to
a) 0
b) 30
c) 45
d) 90
6) Principal plane is a plane on which shear stress is
a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Average
d) All above
7) Radius of Mohrs circle is
a) Maximum shear stress
b) Maximum principal stress
c) Maximum principal strain
d) All the above

1
1

1
1
1

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 17

*SLRKM17*

-2-

8) Every cross section of a shaft, which is subjected to a twisting moment,


is under
a) Compressive stress
b) Shear stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Bending stress
9) Failure envelope for maximum principal stress theory is
a) Square shape
b) Rectangular shape
c) Circular shape
d) Oval shape
10) Maximum principal stress theory is given by
a) Rankine
b) Euler
c) St. Venant
d) Mohr
11) A cantilever beam 3 m long carries a point load of 20 kN at a distance of 2 m from
the fixed end. The slope at the free end of cantilever is
(Take EI = 8 1012 N-mm2).
a) 0.05 rad
b) 0.005 rad
c) 0.5 rad
d) 5.005 rad
12) A cantilever of span 2 m carries a triangular load of zero intensity at the free
end and 100 kN/m at the fixed end. Then the deflection at the free end is
(Take E = 200 Gpa, I = 100 106 mm4)
a) 72 mm
b) 75 mm
c) 70 mm
d) 72 cm
13) A simply supported girder has a span of 12 m. A 200 kN wheel load moves from
one end to other end on the span of three girder. The maximum B.M. occur at a
section 4 m from left end is
a) 533.33 Nm
b) 533.33 kNm
c) 53.33 kNm
d) 5.333 kNm
14) ILD is used to calculate
a) Shear force
b) Bending moment c) Reactions
d) All above these
15) For a beam AB, slope at B can be given as
1
1
a)
(Area of BM)
b)
(Area of SF)
EI
EI
1
1
c)
(Area of BM)
d)
(Area of SF)
EA
EA
d2 y
16) The expression E.I.
at a section of a member represents
dx 2
a) Rate of loading b) Slope
c) Shear force
d) Bending moment
17) Free end is a cantilever beam is treated in conjugate beam as
a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) Simply supported d) Hinged support
18) Muller Breslaus principle is used to construct
a) BMD
b) ILD
c) SFD
d) TMD
19) A cantilever of span L carries a moment M at its free end. The deflection at the
free end is

1
1
1

1
1
1

ML

ML
ML2
d)
2EI
2EI
EI
2EI
20) The amount of deflection of beam subjected to some type of loading depends on 1
a) Bending moment b) Cross-section c) All of the above d) None of the above
a)

ML2

b)

c)

______________

Set A

*SLRKM17*

-3-

SLR-KM 17

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


STRUCTURAL MECHANICS II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.


2) Question No. 2 is compulsory in Section I, solve any two
questions from remaining.
3) Solve any three from Section II.
SECTION I
2. A block 100 mm 50 mm 7.5 mm thick is subjected to uniformly distributed stress
field as shown in Figure 1. Compute the normal stress and shear stress
developed along plane BD.
14

Figure 1 (Question 2)
3. A circular shaft transmits 60 kW at 2 Hz. It is supported in bearings 3 meters apart and
at 1 meter from one bearing, it carries a pulley exerting a transverse load of 36 kN on
the shaft. Determine a suitable diameter for the shaft, if
i) The maximum direct stress is not to exceed 100 N/mm2.
ii) The maximum shear stress is not to exceed 50 N/mm2.
Take Poissons ratio 0.25.

13

Set A

SLR-KM 17

-4-

*SLRKM17*

4. The T-Section shown in Figure 2 is used as strut length is 6 m, one end is hinged
and other fixed. Calculate buckling load using Eulers formula. E = 200 GPa.

13

Figure 2 (Question 4)
5. A parabolic arch hinged at the springing and crown has a span of 20 m. The central
rise of the arch is 4 m. It is loaded with a uniformly distributed load of intensity 2 kN/m
on the left 3 m length. Calculate.
a) The direction and magnitude of reactions at the hinges.
b) The bending moment, normal thrust and shears at 4 m and 15 m from the left end.
c) Maximum positive and negative bending moments.

13

SECTION II
6. Calculate the central deflection of the uniformly loaded simply supported
beam AB as shown in Figure 3. Take I = 2 108 mm4, E = 2 105 N/mm2,
W = 20 kN/m, L = 10 m. Use moment area method.

14

Figure 3 (Question 6)

Set A

*SLRKM17*

-5-

7. Find the vertical and horizontal deflection at point B as shown in Figure 4.


Take I = 3 108 mm4, E = 2 105 N/mm2.

SLR-KM 17

13

Figure 4 (Question 7)
8. a) Explain Mullers Breaslaus principal.

b) Two loads of an electrical crane, 50 kN each, spaced at 4 meters centre to centre


cross a girder of 8 meters span. Find the absolute maximum bending
moment in the beam.
10
9. Find the deflection at point C for beam as shown in Figure 5.
I for section = 695.054 106 mm4 and E = 200 kN/mm2.

13

Figure 5 (Question 9)
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 18

*SLRKM18*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015
SURVEYING II

Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :

20

1) Horizontal distances obtained by tacheometric observations


a) require slope correction
b) require pull correction
c) require slope and pull correction
d) do not require slope and pull correction
2) The stadia method in tacheometry is used to determine
a) horizontal angles
b) vertical angles
c) horizontal distances
d) horizontal and vertical distances
3) Beama stadia arc
a) is an instrument to measure horizontal angle
b) is an instrument to measure vertical angle
c) consists of both the H scale and V scale
d) consists of V scale reading is 45, it indicates
4) When the length of any chord of a curve is less than peg interval, it is known as a
a) small chord
b) sub chord
c) normal chord
d) short chord
5) Pick out the incorrect statement
A reverse curve is also known as
a) S curve
b) Spiral curve

c) Easement curve

6) The arc definition for degree of curve is practised in


a) highway
b) railway
c) canal alignment

d) Both (a) and (b)


d) tunnel

7) The best method of laying a curve is by


a) tacheometer
c) deflection distances

b) two theodolite
d) offsets from tangent produced

8) Geostationary satellites have


a) same distance from earths centre
c) same mass as global weight

b) same speed as earths rotation


d) same angle with geodetic stations
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 18

*SLRKM18*

-2-

9) Selective availability of GPS is a


a) natural error
c) systematic error

b) intentional error
d) bias

10) In the computation of satellite-to-user range, the predominant error is due to


a) measurement noise
b) propagation delay
c) non synchronized clocks
d) deviation of satellite path from the reported ephemeris
11) Which of the following remote sensing system employs only one detector ?
a) Scanning system
b) Framing system
c) Both of the above
d) None
12) Which one is not an example of surface phenomena ?
a) E mission
b) Scattering
c) Reflection

d) Absorption

13) Which one of these is a long wavelength radiation ?


a) Ultra violet
b) X-ray
c) Infrared

d) Gamma ray

14) Which of the following cannot be achieved by remote sensing ?


a) Detection of forest fires
b) Detection of pollutants
c) Prevention of earthquake
d) Land use pattern
15) Line in polygon method is characteristic of
a) raster overlay
c) buffer operation

b) vector overlay
d) intersecting operation

16) The graphical elements of a vector data structures are


a) point
b) arc
c) area

d) all of these

17) In a raster overlay, a point is represented by a


a) string of cells
b) group of cells
c) string cell

d) all of these

18) Bridges can not be set out from the centre because
a) they generally consists of more than one span
b) the water body involved is generally a perennial one
c) both of the above
d) the width of bridge is quite small
19) Setting out is done
a) prior to the preparation of plans
c) after the preparation of plans

b) along with the preparation of plans


d) if obstructions are there

20) Description of smallest features in data set that can be displayed or mapped is known as
a) accuracy
b) bias
c) resolution
d) generalization
______________

Set A

*SLRKM18*

SLR-KM 18

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SURVEYING II
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B. : 1) Q. 2 is compulsory, attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5 (from Section I).


2) Attempt any three from Q. 6 to Q. 9 in Section II.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) The following notes refer to a line levelled tacheometrically with an analytic tacheometer,
the multiplying constant being 100. Compute the reduced level of P, Q and R and the
horizontal distance PQ and QR.
Inst.
st.

HI

Staff
st.

VA

Hair
readings

Remark

1.500

BM

6 12

0.963, 1.515, 2.067

RL of BM 460.650

1.500

7 5

0.819, 1.341, 1.863

Staff being vertically held

1.600

12 27

1.860, 2.445, 3.030

b) Discuss any one method of stadia tacheometry.

3. a) Two tangents intersect at chainage 1190 m the deflection angle being 36. Calculate all
the data necessary for setting out a curve with a radius of 300 m by deflection angles, the
peg interval being 30 m.
b) State classification of the curve.

4. a) What do you understand by global positioning system ? What are the advantages over
traditional method of surveying ?
b) Write a note on Equipment Segment.

8
5

5. a) Two straights AB and BC intersect at a chainage of 4242.0 m. The angle of intersection is


140. It is required to set out a 5 simple circular curve to connect the straights. Calculate
all the data necessary to set out the curve by the methods of offset from the chord produced
with an interval of 30 m.
b) Discuss applications of Global Positioning System.

8
5

Set A

SLR-KM 18

-4-

*SLRKM18*

SECTION II
6. a) A vertical photograph was taken at an altitude of 1200 m above mean sea level. Determine
the scale of photograph for terrain lying at elevations of 80 m and 300 m if the focal length
of camera is 15 cm.
b) Define :
i) Scale
ii) Relief Displacement.

7. a) Define Geographic Information System and discuss the elements of it.


b) State advantages of Raster data model.
8. a) Explain project survey for culvert.
b) Write a note on mirror sterioscope.
9. a) Write a note on flight planning.

8
5
8
5
5

b) What are the applications of Geographic Information System ?

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 19

*SLRKM19*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DESIGN
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.

2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.


Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. A) Select correct option from the given options and fill in the gap (write in full words) :
(110=10)
1) For built up area calculations, _______________ is drawn on the building
permission drawing.
a) Terrace plan

b) Site plan

c) Plan

d) Block plan

2) Building bye laws are laid _______________


a) To prevent haphazard growth of city
b) To avoid Air and Noise pollution
c) To ensure proper light, ventilation and parking
d) All of the above
3) ______________ ventilation involves placement of windows in both windward
and leeward walls.
a) Lateral

b) Cross

c) Diagonal

d) Indirect

4) _______________ is a pre requisite of functional planning of any residential


building.
a) Safety against theft

b) Viewing comfort

c) Living comfort

d) Beautiful appearance

5) For the better roominess the desirable ratio of length to breadth of room is
a) 0.2 to 0.5

b) 0.8 to 1.0

c) 0.5 to 0.8

d) 1.2 to 1.5
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 19

*SLRKM19*

-2-

6) _______________ is required to check the entry of foul gases in room.


a) Flushing cistern

b) Water jet

c) Water seal

d) Water tab

7) _______________ make the paint thin and easy for application.


a) Driers

b) Solvents

c) Base

d) Vehicle

8) Blistering is defect in _______________


a) Plaster

b) Brick masonry

c) RCC

d) Painting

9) Varnish contain _______________


a) Linseed oil and cobalt

b) Turpentine and indigo

c) Resins and alcohol

d) Kerosene and mica

10) Cavity walls for house are constructed to reduce _______________


a) Cost

b) Heat transfer

c) Termite attack

d) Wall thickness

B) Write correct or wrong for following statements :

(110=10)

11) Door to a room is provided for its ventilation.


12) Circulation demands provision of passages at proper places.
13) Compound wall helps to achieve external privacy.
14) Bedrooms have NW-W-SW aspect for ventilation.
15) Intercepting trap is another name of sewer trap.
16) Silicate paints withstand extreme heat.
17) Bathrooms are provided with Dado.
18) Cavity walls should not be used for thermal insulation.
19) Stilt floor in the building are normally used for parking of vehicles.
20) Air changes means ventilation.
______________

Set A

*SLRKM19*

-3-

SLR-KM 19

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DESIGN
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Use both sides of full size drawing sheet for Section I.

2) Figure on right indicate full marks.


3) All the questions in Section I and Section II are
compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.
5) Use answer book for Section II.
SECTION I
2. Plan and draw to a scale 1 : 50 plan and sectional elevation for a detached 1BHK
house block having built-up area not more than 65 sq.m. The building is single storeyed
and is RCC framed structure.
Provide the following areas/rooms
1) Living room 1
2) Bed room 1
3) Kitchen 1
4) Standard size bathroom 1
5) Standard size Indian style W.C. 1
6) Passage as per requirement
7) Staircase block of suitable size and type.
1) Draw a typical plan 1 : 50 and show all necessary details.

20

2) Draw a section through staircase for above mentioned plan, scale 1 : 50 and show
all necessary details (Preserve all the projection lines).

20

Set A

SLR-KM 19

-4-

*SLRKM19*

SECTION II
3. Attempt any five of the following :

40

1) Write a note on modular planning.


2) Enlist systems of ventilation and describe any one system of ventilation.
3) Write in brief - concealed wiring and open wiring. Explain earthing in electrification.
4) Explain in brief thermal insulation of building.
5) Explain the significance of Building Permission and Plinth checking certificate.
6) Explain defects in plaster.
7) Write general considerations and rules for natural ventilation.
8) Explain various building planning principles and their significances in brief.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 20

*SLR-KM-20*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


FLUID MECHANICS II
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
ii) Q. 2 from Section I and Q. 6 from Section II are compulsory.
iii) Solve any two questions from Q. 3, 4, 5 from Section I.
iv) Solve any two questions from Q. 7, 8, 9 from Section II.
v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Specific energy is sum of velocity head and ___________


a) Flow depth
b) Pressure head
c) Pressure head and datum head
d) None of these
2) For most economical channel section a wetted perimeter must be ___________
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Average
d) No relation
3) The relation between critical depth (Yc) and discharge per unit area (q) is given as
___________

q
a) Yc =
g

q2

b) Yc =
g

4) The water surface slope

dy

dx
b) 1

a) 0

q
c) Yc =
g

q2
2

d) Yc =
g

in case of uniform flow in channel is equal to ___________


c) 100

d)

5) Froude no. between 1 to 1.17 represents _____________


a) undular jump
b) weak jump
c) strong jump

d) steady jump

6) Hydraulic jump is used for _____________


a) Protection of down stream side of hydraulic structure
b) Energy dissipation
c) Mixing of chemicals
d) All of the above
7) An error of 1% in measurement of H will produce error in measurement of discharge (Q)
over a rectangular notch _____________
a) 1%
b) 1.5%
c) 2%
d) 2.5%
8) For ogee spillway discharge is expressed as _____________
a) Q = C L H

b) Q = C L H

c) Q = C L H

d) Q = C L H

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 20

*SLR-KM-20*

-2-

9) The velocity with which water approaches a notch is called as _____________


a) Velocity of flow
b) Velocity of approach
c) Velocity of whird
d) None of above
10) Francis formula for rectangular weir with end construction suppressed is given by
_____________
3
5
3
2
2
LH 2
d) Q = L H 2
c) Q = 1.84 L H 2
3
3
11) Work done by jet on flat vertical plate moving in direction of jet is ____________
b) a u (u v)3
c) a u2 (v u)2
d) a (v u)2.sin2 .u
a) a u (v u)2

a) Q = 1.84 L H

b) Q =

12) The relation between overall efficiency o, mechanical efficiency m and hydraulic
efficiency h is ___________
a)

h = o m

b)

o = h m

13) Francis turbine is __________


a) Radial flow reaction turbine
c) Radial flow impulse turbine

c)

o =

d) None of above

b) Axial flow impulse turbine


d) Axial flow reaction turbine

14) Manometric head of centrifugal pump is given as __________


a) Pressure head outlet of pump pressure head at inlet
b) Total head at inlet-total head at outlet
c) Total head at outlet-total head at inlet
d) None of the above
15) Benefit of connecting pumps in series is __________
a) Discharge increases
b) Head increases
c) both a) and b)
d) None of the above
16) Cavitation is caused by __________
a) high velocity
c) low pressure

b) low barometric pressure


d) high pressure

17) The specific speed of pump is defined as speed of unit __________


a) Of unit size with unit discharge at unit head
b) Of such a size that it requires unit power at unit head
c) Of such a size that it delivers unit discharge at unit head
d) Of such a size that it delivers unit discharge at unit power
18) Reynolds number Re is given as _____________
a)

VD

b)

v
Lg

19) Model is _____________


a) small scale replica of machine
c) both a) and b)

c)

P/
V

d)

V2
K/

b) Large scale replica of machine


d) None of above

20) Geometric similarity of model and prototype means _____________


a) Linear dimensions are same
b) Velocity and acceleration at corresponding points are same
c) Forces acting at corresponding points are same
d) None of these
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-20*

-3-

SLR-KM 20

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


FLUID MECHANICS II
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

i) Q. 2 from Section I and Q. 6 from Section II are compulsory.


ii) Solve any two questions from Q. 3, 4, 5 from Section I.
iii) Solve any two questions from Q. 7, 8, 9 from Section II.
SECTION I

2. A) Define super critical flow and uniform flow.


B) Draw sketches of M1 and C3 water profiles and give their conditions.
C) Find the time required to lower the water level from 5 m to 3 m in a reservoir of size
90 cm 90 cm by

4
4

i) rectangular notch of 0.9 m and


ii) triangular notch
Take Cd = 0.62.

3. A) For hydraulic jump, show that relation between conjugate depths is given by
y2 =

[ 1 + 8F 1].
2

y1

2
r

B) A rectangular channel carries water at the rate of 400 lit/s, when bed slope is 1 in 2000.
Find the most economical dimensions of the channel if C = 50.
4. A) Derive the condition for most economical triangular channel section.
B) A discharge of 0.1 m3/s was measured over right angled notch, while measuring head
over the notch, an error of 1.5 mm was made. Determine the percentage error in discharge.
Take Cd of notch = 0.6.

5. A) Derive an expression for discharge through rectangular notch with considering velocity of
approach.
B) Write in detail about direct step method for computing profile length with neat sketch.
C) Give the uses of hydraulic jump.

6. A)
B)
C)
D)

SECTION II
Derive an expression for force exerted by jet on stationary vertical plate.
What is principle of working of centrifugal pump ?
Explain troubles and remedies of centrifugal pump.
State Buckinghams - theorem and explain procedure for determining functional
relationship.

7
6

7
6
4
3

5
2
3
4
Set A

SLR-KM 20

-4-

*SLR-KM-20*

7. A) What are different efficiencies of turbine ? Explain them.

B) A jet of water of diameter 90 mm moving with a velocity of 30 m/s strikes a fixed plate in
such a way that the angle between jet and plate is 60. Find the force exerted by jet on
plate
i) in direction normal to the plate &
ii) in direction of jet.

8. A) What is meant by priming of pump ? Give its necessity.

B) Explain manometric efficiency of pump.

C) A centrifugal pump delivers water against a net head of 14.5 m and design speed of
1000 rpm. The vanes are curved back to an angle of 30 with periphery. The impeller
diameter is 300 mm and outlet width is 50 mm. Determine discharge of pump if manometric
efficiency is 95%.

9. A) Differentiate between :
i) Distorted and undistorted model.
ii) Model and prototype.

B) In 1 in 40 model of spillway, the velocity and discharge are 2 m/s and 2.5 m3/s. Find
corresponding velocity and discharge in prototype.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 21

*SLRKM21*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING I
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) Out of total water present on globe the saline water of oceans accounts for
a) 95%
b) 96%
c) 97%
d) 97.2%
2) Plot of rainfall intensity Vs time is called as
a) Hydrograph
b) Mass curve
c) Hyetograph

d) Isohyets

3) Which of the following is different from rest ?


a) Rain
b) Drizzle
c) Hail

d) Fog

4) Interception loss includes


a) Evaporation through flow and steam flow
b) Only evaporation losses
c) Evaporation and transpiration losses
d) Only stem flow
5) Runoff results when rainfall intensity
a) Equals the infiltration rate
c) Becomes less than infiltration rate

b) Exceeds the infiltration rate


d) No correlation

6) An instantaneous unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of


a) Unit duration and infinitely small rainfall excess
b) Infinitely small duration and of unit rainfall excess
c) Infinitely small duration and of unit rainfall excess of an infinitely small area
d) Unit rainfall excess and infinitely small area
7) The term mean annual flood denotes
a) Mean flood in partial duration excess
b) Mean annual flood flow series
c) Mean flood with a recurrence interval of 2.33 years
d) A flood with recurrence interval of N/2 years, where N = No. of years of record
8) A stream that provides water to the water table is called
a) Affluent
b) Influent
c) Ephemeral

d) Effluent
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 21

-2-

*SLRKM21*

9) Water present in artesian aquifer is usually


a) At atmospheric pressure
b) At sub atmospheric pressure
c) At 0.5 times the atmospheric pressure d) Above atmospheric pressure
10) The equation for the steady state radial flow to a well was firstly developed by
a) Darcy
b) Theis
c) Dupuits
d) Jacob
11) The maximum irrigation requirement of rice crop is exhibited by its
a) maximum delta value
b) maximum duty value
c) minimum duty value
d) none of the above
12) The water consumed in irrigation, when compared with the total water used for all purposes
in our country is about
a) 30%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 80%
13) An irrigation project is classified as a major project, when the culturable command
involved in the projects is more than
a) 2000 hectares
b) 5000 hectares c) 10000 hectares d) none of the above
14) The geological formation which yields very insignificant quantity of ground water is an
a) aquifer
b) aquifuse
c) aquiclude
d) aquitard
15) Interception losses during rainfall include
a) evaporation from the intercepting surfaces during the rainfall period
b) evaporation from the intercepting surfaces and interception storage of these surfaces
c) evaporation and transpiration from the intercepting objects
d) evaporation, transpiration and infiltration losses during the rainfall period
16) The dilution method of stream gauging is best suited for
a) small streams with fairly steady turbulent flow
b) meandering streams in alluvial planes
c) streams with large depths and discharge
d) any type of stream
17) A standard project flood for a basin is
a) a flood with frequency occurs in basin but has a frequency equal to the life of the
proposed structure
b) an exceptionally infrequent flood, which is reasonably certain to occur but under rare
conditions
c) a flood which can occur only under the worst possible combinations of meteorological
conditions
d) a flood which can not occur on a basin, come what may
18) The average depth of rainfall resulting from a storm
a) decreases with increase in area
b) increases with increase in area
c) has no relation with area
d) remains constant with increase in area
19) Transpiration is a process by which
a) plant transfers water from one part to the other
b) plant absorbs water through its roots
c) plant excludes the travel of particles through it
d) plant dissipates water vapour into the atmosphere
20) An aquifer, confined at the bottom, but not at the top is called
a) confined aquifer
b) unconfined aquifer
c) semiconfined aquifer
d) perched aquifer
______________

Set A

*SLRKM21*

SLR-KM 21

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


WATER RESOURCE ENGINEERING I
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I

2. a) What is meant by infiltration ? Enlist different factors affecting on infiltration and explain
any two of them.
b) The analysis of precipitation yielded the following information regarding isohyets. Calculate
the average depth of rainfall over the catchment.
Isohyetal
interval (mm)
Area (km2)

70 80

80 90

90 100

10

85

113

6
8

100 110 120 130


136

67

3. a) Define S curve hydrograph. Explain concept of S curve hydrograph with a neat sketch.
b) You are given the ordinates of a 4 hours unit hydrograph as below. Derive the ordinates
of a 12 hour unit hydrograph for the same catchment.
Time (hr.)

12

16

20

24

28

32

36

40

44

Ordinates of 4 hour
Unit Hydrography
(m3/sec)

20

80

130

150

130

90

52

27

15

4. a) What is meant by stream gauging ? What are the factors, those are considered for selection
of site for stream gauging ?
b) The data pertaining to a stream gauging operation at a gauging site are as below.
The rating equation of the current meter is
V = 0.51 Ns + 0.03 m/sec. Where Ns = revolution per second.
Calculate the discharge in stream.

6
7

Distance from left bank (m)

11

12

Depth (m)

1.1

2.5

1.7

Number of revolutions of
current meter at 0.6 depth

39

58

112

90

45

30

Time for completing


revolutions (sec)

100

100

150

150

100

100

Set A

SLR-KM 21

-4-

*SLRKM21*

5. a) Explain :

i) Darcys law for ground water movement.


ii) Confined aquifer.
iii) Unconfined aquifer.
b) During a recuperation test conducted on open well in a region, the level in the well was
depressed by 4 m and its was observed to rise by 2 m in 60 minutes.
Find :
i) Yield from well of 5 m diameter under depression head of 3.5 m.
ii) The diameter of well to give a yield of 12 litre/sec under a depression head of 3 m.

SECTION II
6. a) Write a note on scope or irrigation. What is meant by a multipurpose river valley project ?

b) Enlist the proposed inter basin water transfer links proposed for the peninsular rivers
development component of National Perspective Plan. State the advantages of the
peninsular component.

7. a) A certain crop is grown in area of 3000 hectares, which is fed by canal system. The data
pertaining to the irrigation. Irrigation are as follows :
Field capacity of soil = 26%; optimum moisture = 12; permanent wilting point = 10%,
effective depth of root zone = 80 cm, relative density of soil = 1.4
If the frequency of irrigation is 10 days and the overall efficiency is 23%, find
i) Daily consumptive use
ii) The water discharge in m3/second required for the canal feeding area.

b) Explain the terms duty and delta. Derive the relationship between the two terms.

8. a) Discuss the composition of black soils observed in India. Comment about their fertility,
drainage properties and suitability for irrigation using surface water sources.

b) Enlist the main features of a lift irrigation scheme located at the bank of river. Discuss the
economic feasibility of lift irrigation.
9. a) State the measures adopted for control of sediment inflow in the reservoirs.
b) Discuss the suitability and construction features of Kolhapur type weir for irrigation.

7
6
7

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 22

*SLRKM22*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) All questions carry equal marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) The complete solution of (D2 + 2) y = 0 is
b) y = (C1 + C2x)e x
a) y = C1e x + C2e x
c) y = C1.cos +C2sin
d) y = C1 cos( x) + C2 sin ( x)

1
=
2) L1
2
(s 2) + 16
e2t
e 2 t
e 2t
sin 4t
sin 4 t
cos 4 t
b)
c)
4
4
4
3) The solution of (x2D2 xD + 1) y = 0
a) C1 log x + C2 log x b) (C1 + C2 logx)ex c) (C1 + C2x) ex
4) The particular integral of (D 2)3 y = e2x is
a)

x 3 2x
x 3 2x
e
e
b)
8
6
1
is the Laplace transform of
5)
(S + 1)2

a)

a) t2et

c)

b) t3

d)

Marks : 20
20

e 2 t
cos 4t
4

d) (C1 + C2x)ex

x 3 2x
e
6

d)

e2x
8

c) te2t

d) tet

c) (s / a )

d)

6) If L{f( t)} = (s) then L {f(at)} =


a)

1
(s / a )
a

b)

1
(s / a )
s

7) The solution of partial differential equation


a) z = ax + by + c
8) On putting x =

ez

b) z = ax

a

s

p
is
q

a
a
b
y + c c) z = ax +
y + c d) z = ax +
y+c
2
2
2

2
the transformed differential equation of x .

a) (D2 1) y = ez

b) (D2 + 1) y = ez

d2 y

dx
c) (D2 + 1) y = ez

dy
y = x 1 is
dx
d) (D2 1) y = x1

+ x.

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 22

*SLRKM22*

-2-

9) The solution of partial differential equation xp + yq = 2z is


x y
x
2
a) , 2 = 0
b) (xy, yz2) = 0 c) , yz = 0
d) None of these
y
y

z
10) The general solution of (D2 + 2) y = sin 3x is
1
1
2x
sin 3 x
a) y = (C1 + C 2 x )e
b) y = C1 cos 2 x + C 2 sin 2 x sin 3 x
7
7
1
1
c) y = C1 cos 2x + C2 sin 2x cos 3x d) y = C1 cos 2 x + C 2 sin 2 x sin 3 x
7
7
11) Let f(x, y, z) = c represents the equation of surface. The unit normal to the surface is

a)

grad(f )
grad(f )

b) grad (f)

c) div [grad (f)]

d) curl [grad (f)]

12) The unit vector tangent to the curve x = t, y = t2, z = t3 at point (1, 1, 1) is
a)

1
14

(i + 2 j + 3k)

b)

1
14

(i 2 j + 3k ) c)

1
3

(i + j + k )

r
13) If r2 = x2 + y2 + z2 then . =
r
a) 0
b) 3r
c) r 2
14) The Fourier expansion in interval [ 2, 2] of the function

F( x) = x, 2 x 0
=x,

15)

16)

17)

18)

0x2

d)

1
3

(i j + k)

d) 2/r

has

a) No sine term
b) No cosine term
c) Both sine and cosine terms
d) None of these
Which of the following is not Dirchelts condition ?
a) F(x) is periodic
b) F(x) is single valued
c) F(x) is even function
d) F(x) is infinite
Given the two lines of regression 3x 4y + 8 = 0, 4x 3y = 1, then the mean of x and y are
resp.
a) 4, 5
b) 5, 4
c) 4, 5
d) 5, 4
A coin is tossed 3 times. The probability of obtaining two heads will be
3
1
1
a)
b)
c)
d) 1
8
2
3
The probability density function F(x) of continuous random variable x is defined by
F(x ) =

, 5 x 10
x3
= 0 , otherwise
The value of A is

200
3
19) If random variable x follows Poisson distribution such that P(x = 1) = P (x = 2) then the
mean of distribution is
a) 1

b) 50

c) 200

a) 1
b) 2
c) 2
20) The value of correlation coefficient r lies between
a) 1 and 1
b) and
c) 0 and
______________

d)

d) 3
d) None of these

Set A

*SLRKM22*

SLR-KM 22

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B. : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.

2. a) Solve :

(D3

3D2

+ 3D 1) y =

SECTION I
+ ex.

xex

b) Solve : (D3 + 1) y = cos 2x + ex.

s2
c) Find : L1 2
.
2
(s + 1)(s + 4)

3. a) Evaluate by using Laplace transform

b) Solve, (D 2 1)y =

2
1+ ex

3t
e t sin2 dt .
2

c) Find L e 3u sin (4u)du .


0

4. a) Solve z 2 = 1 + p 2 + q2 .

b) Solve, px2 + qy2 = (x + y) . z.

c) Solve the partial differential equation 3x

u
u
5y
= 0 by the method of separation of
x
y

variables.
5. a) Solve, (3 x + 2)2

6
d2 y
2

+ 5(3 x + 2)

dy
3y = x 2 + x + 1 .
dx

dx
b) The differential equation satisfied by a beam uniformly loaded with one end fixed and the
d2 y

1 2
7
wx
2
dx
dy
= 0 at x = 0 is given by
Show that the elastic curve for the beam under conditions y = 0,
dx
wx 2
w
p
2
y = 2 (1 cosh nx ) +
where n = .
2p
pn
EI

second subjected to a tensile force p is given by, EI.

= py

Set A

SLR-KM 22

*SLRKM22*

-4-

SECTION II
6. a) If 10% of bulbs produced by a machine are defective. Determine the probability that out of
10 bulbs choosen at random i) one ii) none iii) at most 2 bulbs will be defective.
b) Find the directional derivative of = 4 xz 3 3x 2 y 2 z at (2, 1, 2) in the direction from this
point towards the point (4, 4, 8).
c) In a sample of 1000 students the mean and standard deviation of marks obtained by the
students in a certain test are 14 and 2.5. Assuming that the distribution is normal. Find the
number of students getting marks. i) between 12 and 15 ii) above 18 iii) below 8.
(Given : For S.N.V.z area between z = 0 to z = 0.4 is 0.1554 that between z = 0 to z = 0.8
is 0.2881, that from z = 0 to z = 1.6 is 0.4452, that from z = 0 to z = 2.4 is 0.4918).
7. a) Find the Fourier series expansion of the function
F( x) = 0 ,

x0

= sin x, 0 x
Hence deduce that
1
1
1
1
=
+
+
+ ...
2 1 .3 3 .5 5 .7
b) Obtain the lines of regression from the following data. Also find the coefficient of
correlation.
x
:
152
114
138
154
144
153
141
117
156
y
:
194
300
414
594
676
549
320
483
481

8. a) Prove that F = (x + 2y + az) i + (bx 3y z) j + (4x + cy + 2z) k is solenoidal and

determine the constants a, b, c if F is irrotational.


b) Fit a second degree parabola to the following data
x
: 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
y
: 2
6
7
8
10
11
11

5
4
8
10

9
9

r 2
c) If r = xi +yj + zk then prove that . = 3 . r .
r r

9. a) Find the cosine series of f(x) = x x2, 0 x 1 .


b) A random variable x has the following probability density function
x
:
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
2
2
2
p(x) :
k
2k
3k
k
k +k 2k
4k2
Find :
i) k
ii) P(x > 5)
iii) P(0 x 5 )

4
6

c) From a box containing 100 transistors 20 out of which are defective, 10 selected at
random. Find the probability that i) all will defective ii) all are non-defective iii) atleast
one is defective.

Set A

SLR-KM 23

*SLRKM23*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Solve any three questions from Section I and II.
4) Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
6) Use of IS : 800-2007, IS 875 Part III and steel table is permitted
in examination.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer (MCQ No. 7 and 8 carries two marks each) :

20

1) Design tensile strength of tension member is given by


a) Rupture at critical section
b) Yielding of gross section
c) Block shear of end region
d) Lesser of above three

2) The minimum effective length for fillet weld should not be less than
a) 4 size of weld
b) 2 size of weld
c) Size of weld
d) Actual length shown on drawing

3) The load factor to be used for plastic design of steel structures for dead and
live load is
a) 2.2
b) 2.0
c) 1.7
d) 1.5
4) The type of weld used for joining two surfaces approximately right angles to
each other is known as
a) Fillet weld
b) U groove weld
c) Double groove weld
d) Single J butt weld
5) The effective length of the member which is restrained against rotation and
translation at one end and restrained against rotation but not against
translation at other end is
a) 1.0 L
b) 0.65 L
c) 0.85 L
d) 0.80 L
6) The diameter of bolt hole can be exceed the diameter of bolt having diameters
16 mm to 24 mm by about
a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 3 mm
d) 0.5 mm

1
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 23

*SLRKM23*

-2-

7) Single angle tension member welded to gusset is preferred over bolted angle
because
a) Welded tension member easy to fabricate
b) Presence of bolt holes weak in tension
c) Eccentricity of connection can be eliminated by adjusting the weld length
d) None of the above

8) The design shear capacity of fillet weld of plate with grade Fe 410 having yield
stress and ultimate tensile stress 250 N/mm2 and 410 N/mm2 respectively is
__________
(if partial safety factor for material governed by shop welding is mw = 1.25 )
a) 166.67 N/mm2 b) 94.68 N/mm2 c) 157.81 N/mm2 d) 189.37 N/mm2

9) The thickness of flat lacing bars between inner end bolts for double lacing should
not be less than ____________ of its effective length of double lacing.
1
a) 60

1
b) 40

1
c) 45

1
d) 50

10) Lacing member in built up column is required to be designed to resist transverse


shear equal to _________ % of column load.
a) 2.5%
b) 3.5%
c) 1.5%
d) 2.0%

11) The slenderness ratio of a lacing member should not be greater than _________
1
a) 180

b) 150

c) 145

d) 165

12) The area of base plate in case of gusseted base is given by __________
a)

Pu
0.6FCK

b)

Pu
0.5FCK

c)

Pu
0.4FCK

d)

Pu
0.65FCK

13) The imposed load on flat sloping or curved roof with slopes upto 10 when access
is not provided (except maintenance)
a) 750 N/m2
b) 1000 N/m2
c) 1500 N/m2
d) 1225 N/m2

14) The snow load may be taken as ____________ N/m2 for every mm depth of snow. 1
a) 2.5
b) 2.0
c) 3.0
d) 3.5
15) The shape factor for triangular section is
a) 1.50
b) 1.14
c) 2.34

1
d) 1.78

16) If the degree of permeability is high permeability then the internal pressure
coefficient Cpi is
a) 0.7
b) 0.2
c) 0.5
d) 0.6
17) The slenderness ratio (KL/r) of a built up battened column shall be _________ times
the (KL/r) maximum of actual slenderness ratio of the column, to account for
shear deformation effect.
a) 1.1
b) 1.0
c) 1.2
d) 1.15

18) When the roof slope is greater than _______. The snow load may be neglected. 1
a) 50
b) 40
c) 30
d) 25

______________

Set A

*SLRKM23*

-3-

SLR-KM 23

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Solve any three questions from Section I and II.


Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Use of IS : 800-2007, IS 875 Part III and steel table is permitted
in examination.
SECTION I

2. a) State advantages and disadvantages of steel structures.

b) Calculate the strength of a discontinuous strut of length 3.5 m. The strut consists of
two unequal angles 2ISA 100 75 8 mm with long legs connected by bolts and
placed on same side of a gusset plate. Use 10 mm thick gusset plate. Use steel of
grade Fe 410, fy = 250 N/mm2.
10
3. a) Define :
i) Plastic moment and

2
ii) Plastic hinge.

b) Determine the tensile strength of a 2 ISA 75 75 10 member connected to the


same side of gusset plate 12 mm thick by 8 numbers of M 24 bolts (of grade 4.6) as
shown in Figure 1 below. Take fy = 250 MPa and fu = 410 MPa.
12

Set A

SLR-KM 23

-4-

*SLRKM23*

4. Design a tension member using double unequal angle sections back to back on
opposite sides of gusset plate of 10 mm thick which carries an axial factored load of
400 kN using 20 mm black bolt. Assume Fe 410 grade of steel, fy = 250 MPa and also
show design details.
13
5. Design a double angle discontinuous strut placed on opposite sides of 12 mm thick
gusset plate to carry a factored load of 140 kN. The length of the strut is 3.0 m between
intersections. The two angles are placed back to back (with long legs connected) and
are tack bolted. Use steel of grade Fe 410, fy = 250 MPa.
13
SECTION II
6. Design a simply supported beam of 5 m span (effective) carrying a service u.d.l.

of 30 kN/m excluding self weight and concentrated service load of 10 kN at the


midspan. The beam is laterally supported. Use the beam sections in table below :
Sl. No.

Designation

Zp (mm3)

ISMB 350

889.57 103

ISMB 400

1171.22 103

ISMB 450

1533.36 103

ISMB 300

731.21 103

13

7. Design an equal angle purlin for a roof truss having following details :
i) Spacing of truss = 3.5 m
ii) Span of truss = 15 m
iii) Rise of truss = 3m
iv) Spacing of purlins = 1.35 m
v) Weight of G. I. Sheets = 130 N/m2
vi) Wind load on purlin = 1170 N/m2.

13

8. Design a built up column consisting of two channels placed back to back and carrying
a factored axial load of 1800 KN. The length of column is 8 m. It is effectively held in
position at both ends and restrained against rotation at one end. Use Steel Fe 410 with
fy =250 MPa. Also design the battening system.
14
9. Design a gusseted base for a column ISHB 450, 5m long with cover plate of
400 20 mm on both faces. The column carries factored load of 5500 kN.

M10 plain concrete will be provided under the base plate.


Also draw a neat sketch.

13

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 24

*SLRKM24*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


GEOTECHNICAL ENGG. I
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

a) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3.
b) Solve any three questions from Section I.
c) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory, solve any two from the
remaining.
d) Assume additional data if required and state it clearly.
e) Figures on the right indicate full marks.
f) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

Marks : 20

Give the correct option for the following multiple choice questions. Sl. No. 1 10 carry 1 mark
each and 11 15 carry 2 marks each.

20

1) Clay soils are primarily classified on the basis of


a) Particle size
b) Compressibility
c) Compaction
d) None of these
2) Which of the following statement is correct ?
a) 0 < e < 1
b) e > 1
c) e < 0
d) e can have a value greater than 1
3) A change in voids ratio per unit change in pressure is termed as
a) Coefficient of volume change
b) Coefficient of compressibility
c) Coefficient of consolidation
d) None of these
4) Vibratory compaction of soil is used for the compaction of
a) Cohesive soil
b) Granular soil
c) Both types of soils
d) None of these
5) The deviatric stress is given by
a) 1 + 3

b) 1 3

c)

1 + 3
2

d)

1 3
2

6) The actual lateral earth pressure at a particular depth in relation to the vertical pressure at
that depth is
a) Greater
b) Less
c) Equal
d) Sometimes less, sometimes greater
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 24

*SLRKM24*

-2-

7) A borrow soil has a dry density of 1.76 g/cc. How many cubic meters of this soil will be
required to construct an embankment with dry density of 1.68 g/cc ? Volume of
embankment = 100 m3.
b) 100 m3
c) 105 m3
d) 110 m3
a) 95 m3
8) Clay of intermediate compressibility has a liquid limit in the range of
a) 30% and 50%
b) 40% to 70%
c) 35% to 50%
d) None of these
9) In the passive state, the inclination of the failure plane with the horizontal is
a)

1
(90 + )
2

b)

1
(90 )
2

c) 45

d) 45 +

10) The two layers of soils have thickness of 2 m and 4 m each with coefficients of permeability
of 2 104 cm/s and 4 104 cm/s, respectively, then the average permeability in horizontal
direction is
b) 4 104 cm/s
a) 2 104 cm/s
d) 3.86 104 cm/s
c) 3.33 104 cm/s

11) If the coefficient of volume change and coefficient of permeability of soil mass are
2.91 104 m2/kN and 3.4 104 cm/s, respectively, then coefficient of consolidation
will be
b) 3.62 103 m2/s
a) 11.91 103 m2/s
3
2
d) 9.89 103 m2/s
c) 9.82 10 m /s
12) A smooth vertical wall retaining cohesionless soil with no surcharge angle, active earth
pressure at the base of the wall is ________ (Take H = 5 m, = 30 and = 25 kN/m3)
a) 41.67 kN/m2
b) 45 kN/m2
c) 31.67 kN/m2
d) 48.2 kN/m2
13) A soil sample has G = 2.7, degree of saturation = 40% and water content of 20%. The
void ratio of the sample is
a) 1.35
b) 0.03
c) 5.4
d) None of these
14) A bed of soil is 5 m thick with permeability of 5 103 cm/s. The quantity of seepage per
m width under a hydraulic gradient of 50 cm will be
b) 500 cm3/s/m
c) 250 cm3/s/m
d) 125 cm3/s/m
a) 200 cm3/s/m
15) Depth of an unsupported vertical cut in cohesive soil having C = 40 kN/m2, = 20 kN/m3 is
a) 1 m
b) 2 m
c) 8 m
d) 4 m
______________

Set A

*SLRKM24*

SLR-KM 24

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


GEOTECHNICAL ENGG. I
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

a) Solve any three questions from Section I.


b) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory, solve any two from the
remaining.
c) Assume additional data if required and state it clearly.
d) Figures on the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I

2. a) A 1000 cm3 core cutter weighing 9.46 N was used to find out insitu unit weight of soil of an
embankment. The weight of core cutter with insitu soil was noted to be 27.7 N. Lab tests
on the sample indicated a water content of 10% and G of 2.68. Determine the bulk unit
weight, dry unit weight, voids ratio, degree of saturation. Also calculate the saturated unit
weight and the corresponding water content if the embankment is saturated during rain
without change in volume.
b) Derive the relation between voids ratio and porosity.

9
5

3. a) Briefly explain the procedure to classify the fine grained soils.

b) Classify the following three soils as per IS.

Sl. No.

Gravel
(Size) %

Sand
(Size) %

Fines %

Cu

Cc

01

96

03

7.0

1.5

04

96

60

25

01

02

97

30

24

LL (%) PL (%)

4. a) It is observed that in 12 minutes, 800 ml of water passes through a soil sample 10 cm


thick and 75 cm2 of cross sectional area, under a head of 60 cm. Determine the discharge
velocity and coefficient of permeability.
b) A canal is located in an area and is parallel to nearby river at a distance of 160 m. The
elevation of water surface in canal and river respectively are 125 m and 115 m. A stratum
of 3 m thick coarse grained soil (k = 2 104 m/s) sandwiched between clay strata
connects canal and the river. Calculate the seepage in m3/s/km length of the canal.

Set A

SLR-KM 24

*SLRKM24*

-4-

5. a) The following data relate to a triaxial compression test performed on a soil sample.
Test No.

Confining
pr (kN/m2)

Deviator
stress (kN/m2)

Pore pr
(kN/m2)

80

175

45

150

240

50

210

300

60

Determine the total and effective strength parameters of soil.


b) Explain the disadvantages of box shear test over triaxial shear test.

9
4

SECTION II
6. Solve any four :
a) Define the following terms and indicate the units :
i) Compression index
ii) Coefficient of consolidation.
b) Write a note on Earth Pressure at Rest.
c) Compare the standard Proctor test with modified Proctor test.
d) Derive the relation for coefficient of active earth pressure.
e) Explain the difference between consolidation and compaction.

(44=16)

7. a) With illustrative compaction curves, discuss the various factors which influences the
compaction of soil.
b) During the compaction test, a soil attains a MDD of 18 kN/m3 at a w.c. of 12%. G = 2.67.
Det. Degree of Saturation S, percentage of air voids at MDD. Also find the theoretical
MDD corresponding to zero air voids at OMC.

8. a) A normally consolidated clay layer of 10 m thickness has a unit weight of 20 kN/m3 and
G = 2.72. The liquid limit of clay is 58%. A structure constructed on clay increases the
overburden pressure by 10%. Estimate the ultimate consolidation settlement.
b) With spring analogy, explain consolidation.

8
4

9. a) Retaining wall retains silty clay backfill having density of 1.8 g/cc and cohesion 0.2 kg/cm2
and = 18. Determine the depth of tension cracks.
b) Find the total active thrust, its point of application on the retaining wall as shown in fig.

4
8

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 25

*SLRKM25*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


BUILDING PLANNING AND DESIGN
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figure on right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.
5) Retain all projection/construction lines on drawing sheet.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. State whether following statements is correct or incorrect. (One mark each) :

20

1) IS 1641-1960 gives three types of the fire loads.


2) Low fire load is applied to domestic buildings, hotels and offices.
3) Number of cycles or vibrations per second is known as one decibel.
4) In Sabins formula V is velocity of sound in m/sec.
5) Dead spots in an auditorium are advantageous for acoustics of building.
6) Area of ward per bed shall be in the range of 8 10 sq.m.
7) Pathology dept. in hospital requires illumination intensity of 200 to 300 lux.
8) Area of 5 sq. shall be considered per bus for bus station.
9) Cavity wall construction is a part of green building.
10) In AutoCAD, line commands create a line of infinite length.
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 25

-2-

*SLRKM25*

11) Primary school category lie under the age of 5-10 years.
12) For public building minimum width of stain should be 1.5 m.
13) FSI in case of public building is always more or equal to one.
14) Passage/corridor wide in Primary Health Centre range from 1.5 m to 2.5 m.
15) Height of counter in post office should range from 1.6 m to 1.8 m.
16) ICU in hospital means Intensive Care Unit.
17) Minimum width of a door opening in a school is 1.0 m.
18) The horizontal angle of vision should not be greater than 20.
19) Audibility is better in a room of fan shaped.
20) The height of the stage of assembly above the floor is 1.1 m.
______________

Set A

*SLRKM25*

-3-

SLR-KM 25

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


BUILDING PLANNING AND DESIGN
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Use both sides of full imperial drawing sheet for Section I.
2) Use answer book for Section II.
SECTION I
2. A bank is proposed to construct and the various units in a bank with their defined
size are as follow :
1) Entrance cum waiting space : 30 sq.m.
2) Entrance width = 2 m
3) Counters = With height 1.2 m to 1.4 m and width 0.4 m to 0.8 m.
4) Working area for other staff = 20 sq.m.
5) Branch Managers cabin = 12 sq.m.
6) Cashier cabin = 5 sq.m.
7) Store room = 12 sq.m.
8) Safe deposit lockers cum cash room = 15 sq.m.
9) Water and toilet room = 7.5 sq.m.
The building is R.C.C. framed structured with single storey. Assume additional
data if required and mention it clearly.
Draw
1) A detailed plan (scale 1:100)

16

2) A sectional elevation passing through a Toilet room. (scale 1:100)

12
Set A

SLR-KM 25

-4-

*SLRKM25*

3. Draw perspective for given sketch taking eye level 2.0 m above the G.L. Use
scale 1:100. Symbols have usual meaning.

12

SECTION II
4. Answer any five questions :

40

a) Explain fire load and how is it calculated.


b) Discuss the basic bylaws required for planning and design for public building.
c) Describe any four commands in Auto cad. State the significance and benefits
of CAD work.
d) Write note on Architectural Composition and its principles.
e) Discuss the concept, need and application of Green Buildings.
f) Describe with sketch any two methods of Sound insulation for RCC public
building.
g) Discuss the requirements of common planning units for all public buildings.
h) Explain the common acoustical defects and suggest their remedial measures.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 26

*SLRKM26*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING I
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
5) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
20

1) Sec1 is unit of
a) Velocity gradient
c) Power input

b) Detention period
d) Area of paddle

2) If the sedimentation tank is rectangular in shape having length L, width W and depth D,
then for discharge (Q), the settling velocity of particle would be
a) Q/(W D)

b) Q/(L W)

c) Q/(D L)

d) Q/(L W D)

3) The disinfection by chlorination is most efficient at pH


a) 2.0

b) 5.0

c) 10.0

d) 7.0

c) Vaccume

d) None of these

4) _________ type of filter requires large area.


a) Slow sand

b) Rapid sand

5) Zeolites can be regenerated by passing a solution of


a) Sugar

b) Salt

c) Wine

d) All of above

6) If in a sedimentation tank, volume of tank is 20 m 10 m 3 m and flow rate is 3600 m3/d,


then detention time will be ________ hr.
a) 4

b) 6

c) 3

d) 2

7) For a rectangular tank L B H is 5 4 3 m3 and design discharge is 600 m3/d. Hence,


SOR will be
a) 40 m3/m2/d

b) 50 m3/m2/d

c) 30 m3/m2/d

d) 20 m3/m2/d

8) Temporary hardness of water is caused by


a)
b)
c)
d)

Carbonates and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium


Bicarbonates of sodium and potassium
Carbonates of calcium and magnesium
Dissolve CO2
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 26

*SLRKM26*

-2-

9) ________ types of indicator micro organism are used to detect presence of pathogenic
bacteria.
a) E-coli
b) B-coli
c) C-coli
d) F-coli
10) The suitable method for forecasting population for a old and developed large city is
a) Arithmetic mean method
b) Geometric mean method
c) Comparative graphical method
d) None of these
11) In pressure supply mains, water hammer pressure is reduced by providing
a) sluice valves
c) none of these

b) air valves
d) pressure relief valves

12) For determining the velocity of flow of underground water, the most commonly used nonempirical formula is
a) Lacys formula
c) Darcys formula

b) Hazens formula
d) Slichters formula

13) The maximum hourly consumption, is generally taken as


a) 150%
b) 120%
c) 110%

d) 130%

14) When pipes are connected in series the total head loss is equal to summation
a) Loss of head between same pipes
b) Individual head losses in different pipes
c) Loss of half length of pipe
d) Loss of head due to friction losses
15) Copper pipes can withstand
a) Low hydraulic resistance
c) High internal pressure

b) Impact due to moving traffic


d) External loads

16) Laying of water supply pipeline should be done according to


a) Composition of pipe material
c) Proper selection of pipe material

b) Marking of centerline and width of trench


d) By hydraulic gradient

17) __________ is an electrochemical process in pipes.


a) expansion
c) hydrostatic pressure

b) friction
d) corrosion

18) Water supply includes distribution of water to consumers and


a) provision of hydrants for fire fighting
b) collection, transportation and treatment of water
c) mains, sub-mains and branch lines of water supply
d) all of above
19) The four major water supply distribution systems, are
a) tree, grid iron, ring and radial
b) tree, reticulation, circular and ring
c) dead end, tree, grid iron and reticulation d) dead end, tree, grid iron and circular
20) _________ are provided at the change in horizontal or vertical alignment of pipeline to
transmit longitudinal forces.
a) inverted siphon
c) kick block

b) thrust block
d) coupling
______________

Set A

*SLRKM26*

SLR-KM 26

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING I
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question No. 2 to
Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II and
solve any two questions from the remaining.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Enlist different methods used for population forecasting. Explain Geometrical
increase method in detail.

b) Following figure represents census data for a town. Calculate the future population for the
year 2020 by geometrical increase method.

Year
Population
in thousand

1940

1950

1960

1970

1980

1990

1,50,000

1,80,000

2,34,000

3,27,000

4,58,000

6,87,960

3. a) Design rapid sand filter for a flow of 12 mid. Assume the necessary data. Show
arrangements of units. (Under drainage system design not expected).
b) Derive equation for velocity of settling by using stokes law.
4. a) What is Break point chlorination ?
b) Differentiate between slow sand and rapid sand filter.

5
8
5
8

5. Write short notes on following :


1) Filter troubles

2) Ion exchange

3) Types of aerator.

Set A

SLR-KM 26

-4-

*SLRKM26*

SECTION II
6. a) Explain the circular system of water distribution with neat sketch.

b) Explain the different materials used for service pipes for plumbing system of the house.

7. a) Explain the factors contributing pipe corrosion.

b) Explain mass curve method for determination of service reservoir capacity.

8. a) Enumerate the various methods for analysis of pressure in distribution system and explain
any one.
b) Find the equivalent length of pipe of 30 cm diameter pipe for the network shown in fig using
a) Darcys formula
b) Hazen-Williams formula.
L2 = 500 m
C
B
L=
D2 = 30 cm
3
600
m
m
0
D=
m
40
3
c
20
=
0
cm
L1 =4
D
D1
A

9. Write short note (any three) :


i) Water meter

12

ii) Storage and distribution reservoirs


iii) Gravity system
iv) Thrust block design.

Set A

SLR-KM 27

*SLRKM27*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT I
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Planning is _____________
a) Setting goal
c) Selection of best alternative

20
b) SWOT analysis
d) All of these

2) Work study as natural as play of rest is assumption of


a) Theory w
b) Theory Y
c) Theory X

d) Theory Z

3) In ABC analysis least monitoring and control is required for


a) A class items
b) B class items c) C class items
d) All of these
4) In dynamic programming state is defined as
a) Point where decision is made
b) Information describing problem at each stage
c) Decision making rule
d) Optimal policy
5) If primal is minimize 30x1 + 40x2 subjected to 6x1 + 12x2 120 and 8x1 + 5x2 60,
x1, x2 0 the dual will have objective function as
a) 6y1 + 8y2 (Minimize)
b) 6y1 8y2 (Maximize)
c) 120y1 + 60y2 (Maximize)
d) 120y1 60y2 (Maximize)
6) In decision tree problem the event mode is shown by
a) Square
b) Circle
c) Triangle
7) Queuing theory is used to balance
a) Cost of offering service
c) Both a) and b)

d) Rectangle

b) Cost due to delay in offering service


d) None of these

8) X simulates Y is true if and only if


a) X and Y are formal systems
b) X is appropriate of real and Y is real
c) Rules of validity in X are non-error-free
d) All of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 27

*SLRKM27*

-2-

9) Management by objectives includes


a) Line managers
c) Line, staff and labour

b) Line and staff managers


d) None

10) ______________ is not influenced by the buyer behaviour.


a) Family
b) Culture
c) Social class
d) Political environment
11) Theory X and theory Y is given by
a) Gilbreth
b) McGregor

c) Mayo

12) Biological process of mutation has inspired


a) ANN
b) Fuzzy Logic
c) Genetic Algorithm

d) None
d) None of these

13) Break even point is the point where


a) fixed and variable cost lines intersect
b) fixed and total cost lines intersect
c) variable and total cost lines intersect
d) sales revenue and total expensive lines intersect
14) Queuing theory is used for
a) job-shop scheduling
c) traffic congestion studies

b) inventory problems
d) all of these

15) If F is the fixed cost, V is the variable cost per unit (or total variable costs) and P is the
selling price of each unit (or total sales value), then break even point is equal to
a)

FV
P

b)

F P
V

c)

F
1+ V / P

d)

F
1 V / P

16) ____________ is not principal of organization.


a) Span of Control
b) Unity of Command
c) Scalar Chain
d) Principle of Subjective
17) Stoke keeper is not responsible for
a) Coding
b) Recording

c) Accounting

d) Security

18) If is arrival rate, is waiting time then expected no. of customers L will be
a) L =
b) L = /
c) L = /
d) L = +
19) Allocation of units is not dependent on transport cost in
a) VAM method
b) NW Corner method
c) Both of these
d) None of these
20) Disaster mitigation can be accomplished using
a) Public information
b) Legal measures
c) Education
d) People-to-people contact
e) a), b) and c) only
______________

Set A

*SLRKM27*

SLR-KM 27

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT I
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80
SECTION I

2. Attempt any three (10 marks each) :


a) Solve the following LPP using simplex method :
Max z = x1 x2 + 3x3
s/t
x1 x2 x3 10
2x1 x3 2
2x1 2x2 + 3x3 0
x1, x2, x3 0.
b) Determine IBFS of the following transportation model using VAM.
Availability

Requirement

30

50

20

20

40

30

10

c) Determine the decision under Maximax and Maximin criterion for the following
decision processes.
Alternative

States of nature (Product demand)


High Thousand Rs. Mode Thousand Rs. Low Thousand Rs. Nil Thousand Rs.

Expand

50

25

25

45

Construct

70

30

40

80

Sub.contract

30

15

01

10

d) Find the value of the game :


Bs Strategy

As Strategy

b1

b2

a1

a2

e) Write in short about :


1) ANN
2) Dynamic Programming.

Set A

SLR-KM 27

*SLRKM27*

-4-

3. Solve any two (5 marks each) :


a) Find the dual of the following primal
Min Z = 6x1 + 3x2
s/t

x3 + 6x1 3x2 2
4x2 x3 3x1 5
x1, x2, x3 0

b) Explain in short about waiting line theory.


c) What is assignment model ? Discuss.
d) State the role of decision tree with diagram.
SECTION II
4. Solve any five (8 marks each) :
a) How ABC analysis is done in material management ? Explain use answer with graph.
b) Why material management is required for a civil engineer ? How it is done ?
c) Calculate EOQ from following data and state the use of each symbol in the
formula used :
1) Demand 2000 per annum
2) Ordering cost Rs. 20 per order
3) Carrying cost 20% of item price 4) Basic item price Rs. 10 per item.
d) Write notes on :
1) TQM

2) Quality circle.

e) What is BEA ? Explain graphically with one example.


f) What is role of predictability and warning in disaster management ?
g) What precautions you will take after disaster has happened ? Explain your answer
by taking case study of Tsunami.
h) 1) Draw P chart for following :
Sample No.

No. of defectives

20

20

20

20

20

No. of observation

2) Draw C chart for following and state process is under control or not :
No. of months

1 2 3 4 5

No. of complaints 3 2 3 1 3
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 28

*SLRKM28*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING I
Day and Date : Tuesday, 15-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct alternative (one mark each) :

(201=20)

1) What is the sign for stopping sight distance on a highway at ascending gradient is
its formula ?
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) No sign
d) None
2) Widening of curve on horizontal curve is required for _________ purpose.
a) Mechanical
b) Psychological c) Both a) and b) d) None
3) The actual black top of pavement on high traffic runs is called as
a) Camber
b) Gradient
c) Shoulder
d) Carriageway
4) PIEV theory is used in calculation of
a) SSD
b) OSD

c) Both a) and b)

d) None

5) The speed of the vehicle on the road depends on


a) climatic condition
b) type of road surface
c) type of highway
d) all the above
6) Which of the following is taken into account while determining OSD in four lane
divided highway ?
a) Distance covered during reaction time
b) Distance covered during actual overtaking operation
c) Distance covered by other vehicle coming in opposite direction during actual
overtaking operation
d) All the above
7) Which of the following statement is correct ?
a) Traffic volume should always be more than traffic capacity
b) Traffic capacity should always be more than traffic volume
c) Spot speed is the average speed of a vehicle at a specified section
d) None

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 28

*SLRKM28*

-2-

8) Which of the following is used for traffic control ?


a) Traffic signs
b) Traffic signals c) Road markings d) All the above
9) Cross slope provided to the pavement is called as
a) gradient
b) camber
c) super elevation d) none
10) Choose the empirical formula which is not used for estimation of flood discharge
a) Dickens
b) Ryves
c) Euilers
d) None
11) A construction constructed across an obstruction is called as
a) Bridge
b) Tunnel
c) Dock
d) None
12) Which of the following is not a component of bridge ?
a) Abutment
b) Pier
c) Wingwall

d) None

13) Which of the following method is used for tunneling in soft soil ?
a) Needle beam
b) Drift
c) Head and bench
d) None
14) In tunneling mucking means
a) drilling holes
c) removal of derbis

b) blasting
d) none

15) Which of the following is coming in bridge hydrology ?


a) Afflux
b) Scour depth
c) Water way

d) All the above

16) A bridge may be


a) ROB
b) RUB
c) May be a) or b) depending on condition
d) None
17) Which of following factor is constructed at time of tunnel planning and design ?
a) Soil starts
b) Purpose
c) Alignment
d) All the above
18) Thickness of tunnel lining is determined by
a) T = 50 D
b) T = 82 D
c) T = 30 D

d) None

19) Pilot tunnel may be used for


a) access to construct the next part of tunnel
b) lighting and ventilation
c) transporting materials, equipment
d) all the above
20) Which shape of tunnel is most suitable for sewers ?
a) D shape
b) Rectangular
c) Horse shoe

d) Circular

______________

Set A

*SLRKM28*

SLR-KM 28

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING I
Day and Date : Tuesday, 15-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : All questions are compulsory.


SECTION I
2. Solve any five (8 marks each) :
a) The load penetration values of CBR tests conducted on specimen of soil sample
are given below

Penetration of plunger in mm

Load dial readings divisions

.5

15

1.5

23

29

2.5

34

37

43

48

7.5

57

10

63

12.5

67

Determine the CBR value of soil if 100 div. of load dial represents 190 kg load in
the calibration of proving ring.
b) What is Alignment ? Discuss different factors affecting alignment.

Set A

SLR-KM 28

*SLRKM28*

-4-

c) Describe highway development in India.


d) Describe OSD. Derive formula for OSD.
e) What is gradient ? Explain with limiting values different types of gradients.
f) Explain :
1) Volume studies
2) Marking studies
g) Discuss different traffic signs and symbols.
h) Explain with example Intelligent transportation system.
SECTION II
3. Solve any five (8 marks each) :
a) While estimating the cost of a bridge for various spans, the following calculations
were made.
Span in m

10

15

20

25

Cost of superstructure per span in Rs.

5,000

8,500

16,700

29,500

Cost of one pier in Rs.

16,000

16,700

29,500

20,000

Determine the most economic span length for the bridge.


b) Calculate the radius of relative stiffness of 15 cm thick cement concrete slab, from
following data for two values of K
1) Modulus of Elasticity of cement concrete = 2,10,000 kg/cm2
2) Poissons ratio for cone = .13
3) Modulus of subgrade reaction K.
K = (i) 3 kg/cm3
K = (ii) 7.5 kg/cm3
c) State different types of pavements and discuss their suitability.
d) Describe role played by temp. stresses and joints in rigid pavement.
e) Explain different types of bridge bearings.
f) What is the importance of Afflux and waterway in bridge hydrology ?
g) Describe drainage in tunneling.
h) State methods of tunneling in soft rock. Explain with sketch any one method.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 30

*SLRKM30*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III (Old)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) In the force method of structural analysis the basic unknowns are
a) Forces
b) Displacement c) All of the above d) None of the above
2) According to Castiglianos second theorem work done due to redundant is always
a)
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) One
3) Which of the following is a determinant arch ?
a) Two hinge arch b) Three hinge arch c) Fixed arch d) a) and b)
4) Compatibility conditions are essentially required to solve
a) Substitute frame
b) Complex truss
c) Redundant frames
d) Compound truss
5) The propped cantilever of span L carries udl of w kN/m throughout span. The
value of propped reaction is
a) 3wL/8
b) wL/3
c) wL/4
d) 5wL/8
6) The displacement of a joint due to corresponding unit action, other actions being
absent is called
a) Stiffness and Flexibility
b) Stiffness
c) Flexibility
d) Compatibility
7) In a linear elastic structural element
a) Stiffness is proportional to flexibility
b) Stiffness is equal to flexibility
c) Stiffness inversely proportional to flexibility
d) Stiffness is greater than flexibility
8) The equation of parabolic arch is, y =
a)

4hx(L x )

b)

2hx(L x )

c)

4hL(L x )

d)

1
1
1
1

hx(L x )
4L * L

L *L
L *L
x*x
9) A fixed beam carries udl of 30 kN/m over entire span of 5m. The BM at center of span is
a) 41.75 KNm
b) 51.65 KNm
c) 31.25 KNm
d) 25.31 KNm
10) Which of the following method is not a force method ?
a) Consistent deformation method
b) Kanis method
c) Three moment theorem
d) Flexibility method

1
1

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 30

*SLRKM30*

-2-

11) The shear caused by sinking of one of the support by of simply supported beam is
a)

12 EI

b)

3 EI
3

c)

6 EI
L3

d) Zero

L
L
12) Sinking moment for beam, fixed at both the ends is
a)

6 EI

b)

4 EI
2

c)

3 EI

d)

2 EI

L
L
L
L2
13) Slope deflection method is
a) Equilibrium method
b) Deformation method
c) Stiffness coefficient method
d) All of the above
14) The frame shown in following Figure 1 will sway towards.

Figure 1
a) Right
b) Left
c) No sway
d) None of these
15) The ratio of the stiffness of a beams at a joints with one hinged support and other
side fixed is (assuming both beams have same I and L)
a)

b)

c) 1

d)

2
4
3
16) The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of the beam as shown in Figure 2 below
is (if axial deformation is neglected)

Figure 2
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1
17) For the portal frame shown in the figure 3, the shear equation is

Figure 3
a)

MBC + MCB

c)

MBA + MAB

4
4

+P = 0

b)

MCD

d)

+P = 0

MBA + MAB
4
MAB + MBA

______________

+P = 0
+

(MCD + MDC ) + P = 0
4

Set A

*SLRKM30*

-3-

SLR-KM 30

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III (Old)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) In Section I, solve any three questions.


2) In Section II, Question No. 6 is compulsory, solve any two
from remaining.
3) Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Determine all the reaction components and draw SFD and BMD for the beam as
shown in fig. 1. If support B settles down by 25 mm. Consider E = 2.1105 N/mm2
and I = 4108mm4. Use consistent deformation method.
14

Figure 1 (Question 2)
3. Derive expression of horizontal thrust for a semicircular arch subjected to udl
through out using energy method. Assume EI is constant.

13

4. Draw BMD for the continuous beam as shown in fig. 2 using flexibility matrix
method.

13

Figure 2 (Question 4)
5. Solve any three :
1) Differentiate between force and displacement method.
2) Explain Maxwell reciprocal theorem.
3) What do you understand by the static and kinematic indeterminency of
structures ?
4) Derive flexibility matrix for the beam as shown in fig. 3

Figure 3

(43=12)

Set A

SLR-KM 30

-4-

*SLRKM30*

SECTION II
6. Solve any three of the following :
(34=12)
a) Explain in brief Sway Frames
b) Generate the stiffness matrix for the beam with respect to the co-ordinates as
shown in figure 4.

Figure 4
c) Explain stiffness method of analysis. What are its advantages ?
d) Define the term Carry over Factor. How it is calculated ? Explain with the
help of example.
7. Analyze the portal frame loaded as shown in figure 5 below by the moment distribution
method and sketch the BMD.
14

Figure 5
8. Analyze the portal frame loaded as shown in figure 6 by the slope deflection method
and sketch the BMD.
14

Figure 6
9. Analyze the continuous beam as shown in figure 7 by stiffness method. Draw BMD.

14

Figure 7
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 31

*SLRKM31*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015
GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING II (Old)

Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 20+80=100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Solve any three question from each Section.
4) Assume additional data, if required and state it clearly.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Give the correct option for following MCQ. Sr. No. 1 to 10 carries 1 mark each and Sr. No. 11 to
15 carries 2 marks each.
1) Base failure is a type of
a) Translational failure

b) Rotational failure

c) Wedge failure

d) Miscellaneous failure

2) In case of relatively hard leveled bed of river which type of caisson foundation is preferred ?
a) open

b) pneumatic

c) box

d) none

3) Bored pile is
a) High displacement pile

b) Low displacement pile

c) Replacement pile

d) None

4) Which one of the following slurries is used to support the side of deep boreholes in a
cohesionless soil ?
a) bentonite clay

b) china clay

c) varved clay

d) peat

5) When exterior column carries lighter load in comparison with the internal column then
footing to be provided to club these two columns is
a) Rectangular combined footing

b) Trapezoidal combined footing

c) Strap footing

d) None of above

6) For a purely cohesive soil, what will be the bearing capacity at ground surface for a
circular footing as per Terzaghi analysis ?
a) qu = 6.2 c

b) qu = 5.14 c

c) qu = 4.0 c

d) none of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 31

*SLRKM31*

-2-

7) The maximum net pressure intensity causing shear failure of a soil is known as its
a) safe bearing capacity

b) ultimate bearing capacity

c) net safe bearing capacity

d) net ultimate bearing capacity

8) Skin friction along a pile is developed by


a) Relative settlement of the pile
c) Both (a) and (b)

b) Relative settlement of soil


d) None

9) Due to negative skin friction on a pile the load carrying capacity of the pile
a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Depends on diameter of pile

d) Depends on length of pile

10) The bottom plug in a well foundation is usually made up of


a) Brick masonry

b) RCC

c) Cement concrete d) None

11) Efficiency of a pile group consisting of four piles by using Felds rule is
a) 93.75%

b) 87.5%

c) 81.25%

d) 75%

12) Two columns carrying loads 500 kN and 600 kN separated by 5.5 m c/c, position of
resultant column load with respect to heavier column load is
a) 2.5 m

b) 3.5 m

c) 4.5 m

d) none

13) According to IS 3955-1967 tilt should be restricted to 1 in _________ and shift should
be restricted to _________ % of depth of sunk.
a) 40, 2

b) 50, 1

c) 60, 2

d) 60, 1

14) If radius of friction circle is 1.5 m and angle of internal friction of the soil is 5 then radius
of slip circle is
a) 12.7 m

b) 17.2 m

c) 15 m

d) none

15) A soil sample has external diameter as 7 cm and wall thickness of 2.5 mm. The area ratio
in percentage will be
a) 12.88

b) 18.22

c) 15.97
______________

d) 16.85

Set A

*SLRKM31*

SLR-KM 31

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING II (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 20+80=100

1) Solve any three question from each Section.


2) Assume additional data, if required and state it clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I

2. A) Write in detail about Plate load test.

B) Determine the size of the square footing at the ground level to transmit the load of 1500 kN in
sand weighing 17 kN/m3 and having an angle of shearing resistance of 35 (N = 46, Nq = 43) .
Factor of safety is 3. What will be the modification in the result, if the footing is placed at the
depth of 1.5 m below ground surface ?

3. A) Explain different types of settlement under the foundations. Write the equation of immediate
elastic settlement and consolidation settlement stating the meaning of each terms.

B) A 30 cm square bearing plate settles by 8 mm in the plate load test on cohesion less soil,
when the intensity of loading is 200 kN/m2. Estimate the settlement of the shallow foundation
of 2 m 2 m square under same intensity of loading.

4. A) What do you mean by disturbed and undisturbed soil samples ? How can undisturbed
sample can be obtained ?

B) Explain in detail with neat sketch the application of geotextile for the embankment and the
earth retainment.
5. A) Explain the wash boring in detail with neat sketch.

7
7

B) Explain IS code method of determination of bearing capacity.

SECTION II
6. A) Design a combined footing for two columns 300 mm 300 mm in size. Centre to centre
distance between the columns is 5 m. The column adjacent to property line carries a
load of 400 kN and other column carries a load of 300 kN. Allowable bearing pressure is
100 kPa.
B) Write a note on floating foundation.

10
4

Set A

SLR-KM 31

-4-

*SLRKM31*

7. A) What is under ream pile ? What is the advantage of this pile over conventional pile ?
Explain how this pile is constructed with a neat sketch.

B) What is Felds rule ? Using Felds rule calculate efficiency of a pile group consisting of
20 piles.

8. A) Determine embedment depth for the cantilever sheet pile using approximate method. Using
following data :
i) soil above and below dredge level granular.
ii) unit weight of soil 19 kN/m3.
iii) Properties of granular soil c = 0, = 32 .

B) What is cellular cofferdam ? When do we use such cofferdams ? Draw plan and sectional
elevation of Diaphragm type cellular cofferdam showing dry side and water side.
9. A) What are the different modes of failures of slopes explain each with the help of a neat
sketch ?

6
6

B) A 40 slope is excavated to a depth of 8 m in deep layer of saturated clay (c = 60 kPa,


= 0 , = 20 kN/m3). For trial slip circle radius is 10 m, C.G. of sliding mass is at
a horizontal distance of 4 m from centre of rotation, assume weight of sliding soil as
1000 kN.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 32

*SLRKM32*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II (Old)
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
5) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct option :


1) The minimum recommended diameter of sewers, is
a) 10 cm
b) 15 cm
c) 5 cm

d) 20 cm

2) The coagulant widely used for sewage treatment, is


a) Alum
b) Ferric sulphate
c) Chlorinated copperas
d) Ferric chloride
3) The liquid wastes from kitchens, bath rooms and wash basins, is not called
a) Sullage
b) Liquid waste
c) Sewage
d) None of these
4) The amount of oxygen consumed by the aerobic bacterias which cause the aerobic
biological decomposition of sewage, is known
a) Dissolved oxygen
b) Chemical oxygen demand
c) Biological oxygen demand
d) None of these
5) The drop man holes are generally provided in sewers for
a) Industrial areas
b) Large town ships
c) Hilly town ships
d) Cities in plains
6) The standard B.O.D. of water is taken for
a) 2 days
b) 5 days
c) 1 day

d) 3 days

7) The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually


a) 16 to 24 hrs.
b) 8 to 16 hrs.
c) 24 to 48 hrs.
d) 4 to 8 hrs.
8) An inverted siphon is designed generally for
a) Three pipes
b) One pipe
c) Two pipes

d) Four pipes
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 32

*SLRKM32*

-2-

9) For the survival of fish in a river stream, the minimum dissolved oxygen is
prescribed
a) 1 ppm
b) 2 ppm
c) 4 ppm
d) 3 ppm
10) Self-cleansing velocity is
a) Velocity of water at flushing
b) Velocity at dry weather flow
c) Velocity at which no accumulation remains in the drains
d) Velocity of water in pressure filters
11) A process where water becomes clear and the stream returns to its original
condition
a) reaeration
b) adsorption
c) settling
d) self purification
12) A waste process that involves the combustion of organic substances contained in
waste materials
a) Composting
b) Incineration
c) Sanitary landfill
d) Sorting
13) Thermal treatment process in Municipal solid waste is effective for
a) Aerobic process
b) Landfill
c) Anaerobic digestion
d) Combustion
14) Most widespread air pollutants are
a) SOx
b) NOx

c) Co

d) Hydrocarbons

15) Carbon monoxide in air effects


a) Heart
b) Skin

c) Eye

d) Hair

16) Most commonly used control device for particulate matter


a) Filter bey house
b) Electronic precipitator
c) Cyclone collector
d) None of these
17) 50 m size particle is removed from the gas
a) Gravity settling chamber
b) Centrifugal collector
c) Wet scrubber
d) Fabric filters
18) The primary pollutant caused by incomplete combustion of organic matter
a) Ozone
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Sulphur dioxide
d) None of these
19) Measurement of suspended particulates and gaseous contaminants is represented
with unit
a) Mg/cm2
b) Mg/cm3
c) g/cm3
d) g/m3
20) The depletion of ozone in the outer atmosphere may result in increase
a) Heart attack cases
b) Skin cancer cases
c) Asthma cases
d) None of these

______________

Set A

*SLRKM32*

-3-

SLR-KM 32

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II (Old)
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e.


Question No. 2 to Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is
compulsory in Section II and solve any two questions from
the remaining.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Draw a typical flow diagram of sewage treatment plant and explain the function
of each unit.

b) What is dry weather flow ? Explain any four factors affecting dry weather flow .

3. a) Determine the size of a circular sewer for discharge of 800 liters per second
running half full. Assume S = 0.0001 and N = 0.013.

b) Explain the necessity of sewage pumping.

4. a) Design a primary settling tank of rectangular shape for a town having a population
of 80000 with a water supply of 180 litres per capita per day. Assume overflow
rate of 30 m3/d/m2.

b) A single stage filter is designed for a organic loading of 11000 Kg of BOD in raw
sewage per hectare metre per day with recirculation ratio of 1.2. The filter treats a
flow of 5 mld of raw sewage with a BOD of 200 mg/l. Using NRC formula determine
the BOD concentration of effluent. Assume primary clarifier removes 30% of BOD.

5. Write short note on (any three) :

15

a) Waste stabilisation pond


b) Inverted siphon
c) Recycling of wastewater
d) Trickling filter.

Set A

SLR-KM 32

*SLRKM32*

-4-

SECTION II
6. a) Draw and explain Oxygen sag analysis.

b) Explain zones of pollution in streams.

7. a) Explain the principle and working of electrostatic precipitator with neat sketch.

b) Using following data find out DO deficit at 20 Km and 40 Km.


sewage
Flow (m3/s)

stream

0.25

1.2

DO (mg/l) at 20C

9.17

5-day BOD (mg/l)

20

Take deoxygenation constant (K) as 0.13 per day and re oxygenation constant (R)
as 0.3 per day. Assume average velocity as 0.18 m/s.
8. a) Enlist various methods of disposal of Refuse and explain any one method.
b) Explain Mechanical Composting with neat sketch.
9. Write short note on any three :

8
8
12

a) Effects of air pollution on human health


b) Composting
c) Air quality standards
d) Bag filter.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 33

*SLRKM33*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT II
Day and Date : ,Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) In Section I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory. Solve any two out of remaining
three questions.
4) Section II consists of Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 9. Solve any three out of these
four questions.
5) Use of non-programmable engineering calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer option/options only, for the following questions :

(201=20)

1) Scheduling helps in
a) Planning for the project
b) Financial control of the project
c) Preparing the estimate for the project
d) Carrying out the project in an orderly and effective manner
2) One of the main disadvantages of the bar chart is
a) Progress of the work cannot be monitored
b) Does not show the interdependencies of the activities
c) The time schedule is not shown properly
d) The financial aspect is not shown
3) Work break down structure helps in
a) Identifying the activities
b) Identifying the functional element of a project and their interrelationship
c) Breaking the project into several elements
d) Breaking the project into system
4) PERT (Programme Evaluation and Review Technique) is mainly useful
a) Only small projects
b) Only large projects
c) Research and development
d) Small as well as large and complex projects
5) A CPM network is
a) Activity oriented
c) Both activity as well as event oriented

b) Event oriented
d) Neither activity nor event oriented
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 33

*SLRKM33*

-2-

6) The method, usually adopted in arriving at the duration of the project is


a) Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique (GERT)
b) Critical Path Method (CPM)
c) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
d) Decision networks
7) The decision networks are represented by
a) A-O-N diagram
b) A-O-A diagram

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of these

8) In updating the original network, for the activities which have already been completed, completion
time is taken as
a) 1
b) 2
c) Zero
d) None of these
9) The objectives of cost control is
a) To locate the areas of inefficient functioning
b) Basis for preparing estimates
c) Estimation of profit or loss
d) All of these
10) Which of the following is correct statement ?
a) Method study is a part of time and work study
b) Time study is a part of method and work study
c) Work study is a part of method and time study
d) None of these
11) Which of the following is a capital ?
a) Land
b) Labour

c) Machinery

d) All the above

12) If the life of asset is permanent then ____________ method is used for economic comparison.
a) PWM
b) EUAC
c) Break-Even analysis d) Capitalized cost
13) 10% interest rate per year compounded monthly is a ____________
a) Nominal interest rate
b) Effective interest rate
c) Simple interest rate
d) None
14) Prospective rate of return will be determined by ____________
a) EUAC method
b) Yield method
c) PW method
d) Pay back period method
15) MIS means ____________
a) Management Incentive System
c) Management Information System

b) More Information System


d) Management Information Source

16) In C-chart the word C means ____________


a) Characteristics
b) Count

c) Check

d) None

17) We will get minimum amount, if rate of interest is compounded ____________


a) Annually
b) Biannually
c) Quarterly
d) Continuously
18) At breakeven point ____________
a) Sale cost = Total cost
c) Sale cost > Total cost

b) Sale cost < Total cost


d) None of the above

19) Present worth of net cash flow is assumed as zero in ____________


a) PW method
b) EUAC method
c) ROR method

d) B/C method

20) ____________ is the Non-discounting method of economic comparison.


a) PW method
b) EUAC method
c) ROR method

d) Pay back period

______________

Set A

*SLRKM33*

SLR-KM 33

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT II
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) In Section I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory. Solve any two out of remaining


three questions.
2) Section II consists of Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 9. Solve any three out of these
four questions.
3) Use of non-programmable engineering calculator is allowed.
SECTION I

2. a) Draw a bar chart for the following project data :

Table 1
Activity

Immediate Predecessors

Duration (days)

13

15

17

D, E

12

H, I and J are terminal activities. Determine the project completion time.


b) Draw CPM network and indicate critical path for the project data indicated in the
Table 1. Determine project completion time.

Set A

SLR-KM 33

*SLRKM33*

-4-

3. a) Draw the PERT network for following data of a project :

Table 2

Activity

Immediate Predecessors

Duration (days)
Optimistic

Most Likely

Pessimistic

4.5

0.5

1.5

B, C

B, C

1.5

E, F

E, F

D, H

2.5

2.75

4.5

G, I

b) Calculate variance and expected time for each of the activities in PERT network as per Table 2.
Calculate slack for each of the activities. Calculate variance of the critical path.

4. a) Explain time cost relationship with the help of Time-Cost trade off graph. Indicate typical curves for
direct cost, indirect cost, total cost. Locate minimum total cost and optimal project duration.
b) Write note on :

5
(4+4=8)

A) Resource levelling
B) Updating of the network.
5. a) Explain Precedence Network with suitable sketch.
b) Explain work study.

Set A

*SLRKM33*

SLR-KM 33

-5SECTION II

Attempt any three questions out of Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 9 :


6. a) What are the objectives of quality control ?

b) Derive the formula for USPWF, USCAF, USSFF and USCRF.

10

7. a) What is Total Quality Management (TQM) ?

b) Following table gives information regarding three project alternatives assuming interest rate
1 = 3% per year determine the best project alternate using present worth method :
Alternative

Initial cost (lakhs)

121

97

150

Annual O and M cost (lakhs)

Annual benefits (lakhs)

29

20

40

Scrap value (lakhs)

13

10

254

Life (years)

10

10

10

8. a) Explain the concept of capitalized cost.


b) Explain use of X and R chart for quality control.

10

3
10

9. Write note on :
a) Break even analysis.

b) Time Value of Money.

c) BOT.

5
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 34

*SLRKM34*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING II (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) If wear of rail is 0.2% per annum on a particular track, the rails will be useful
for a period of ________ years.
a) 30 years
b) 25 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years
2) Burrs is wear of rails occurs
a) on bottom of rail
b) on web of rail
c) on head of rail
d) none of the above
3) The maximum permissible speed on M.G. is
a) 75 kmph
b) 100 kmph
c) 90 kmph

d) 80 kmph

4) Safe speed of trains while passing over BG and MG


a) V = 4.4 R 70
b) V = 3.6 R 6
c) V = 2.6 R 6
d) V = 3.4 R 70
5) Find out number of rails required for the construction of broad guage track
900 m long.
a) 80 rails
b) 70 rails
c) 60 rails
d) 100 rails
6) The material placed between the sleeper and the top of the formation is
known as
a) switch
b) key
c) ballast
d) none of the above
7) If spacing between sleepers is 40 cm and width of sleeper is 10 cm then
depth of ballast is
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 25 cm
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 34

*SLRKM34*

-2-

8) Track going out of its original position is called as


a) Shift
b) Transition
c) Buckles

d) None of these

9) Length of cross over is calculated by


a) L = B 2 GN
b) L = B + 2 GN c) L = B + 3 GN

d) L = B + 4 GN

10) When a joint in one rail is exactly opposite to the joint in parallel rail is known
as
a) Square joint
b) Staggered joint
c) T joint
d) None of these
11) Beafort number for slight breeze
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
12) Due to action of wind waves and tides, at some places the material is deposited
is called as
a) Errosion
b) Accretion
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
13) India has a coast line of approximately
a) 8900 km
b) 10600 km
c) 3200 km
14) Following is not natural harbour in India.
a) Mumbai
b) Kandla
c) Both a and b

d) 5600 km
d) Madras

15) ________ harbour is protected from storms and waves by breakwater or is


created by dredging.
a) Natural harbour
b) Semi-natural harbour
c) Artificial harbour
d) None of the above
16) At the end of runway ________ zone is provided.
a) Clear zone
b) Turning zone
c) Moving zone
d) None of the above
17) Turning radius of taxiway is determined by formula
a) R = V/125f
b) R = V2/125f
c) R =

V
125 f

d) R = 1.5 V / 125f

18) While designing exit taxiways total angle of turn satisfactory is


a) 20 to 25
b) 30 to 45
c) 90
d) 80 to 90
19) Stopping distance for taxiway is
2
a) V 25.50d

b) V 25.50d

c) V 25d

2
d) V 25d

20) Structure used for passengers, airline slaft and administrative management
a) Terminal building
b) Hangers
c) Appron
d) Runway
Set A
______________

*SLRKM34*

SLR-KM 34

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING II (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : All questions are compulsory.


2. Answer any three (8 marks each) :
a) Find the lead and radius of curve of B.G. turnout having d = 136 mm,
= 13427 and number of crossing as 1 in 8.
b) What should be equilibrium cant on a M. G. curve of five degree curve for an
average speed of 60 kmph. Also find out the maximum permissible speed for
allowing the maximum cant deficiency.
c) Explain coning of wheels,
d) Discuss different types of yards.
e) Draw a sketch showing following type of signals.
1) Outer signal
2) Home signal
3) Starter signal
4) Advance starter signal
State the function of each signal.
3. Answer any three (8 marks each) :
a) Find the capacity of 12 gates which are extensively used by three classes of
aircraft with particulars given below.
Aircraft
type

Gate
Group

No. of
gates

Mix %

Average
occupancy
time in min.

15

25

II

35

45

III

50

60

Assume gate utilization factor as 0.80.


Set A

SLR-KM 34

-4-

*SLRKM34*

b) Enlist characteristics of conventional type aircraft. Explain any two.


c) Discuss the corrections to be applied to calculated basic runway length to get
actual length of the runway.
d) Write a detail note on airport marking.
e) Comment on Heliport lighting.
4. Answer any three (8 marks each) :
a) Write a note on Erosion of coast.
b) What do you know about
1) Natural harbour
2) Semi natural harbour
3) Commercial harbour
4) Military harbour.
c) Discuss types of gravity wharves.
d) Explain Dry Dock.
e) What is warehouse ? Write down the importance of warehouse.
5. Answer any one (8 marks each) :
a) State requirements of pipeline used for hydrocarbon transport.
b) Write a note on gradients for railway track.

Set A

SLR-KM 35

*SLRKM35*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)

MCQ is compulsory.
In Section I Q. 2 is compulsory and solve any two from remaining.
In Section II Solve any three questions.
Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly.
Figure to right indicates full marks.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3.
7) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The expression for Castiglianos theorem to determine the deflection at any point is
M M
a)
EI P

M dx
b)
P EI

2) The carry over factor can be


a) less than 1
b) equal to 1

M
M.

P dx
c)
EI

d) None of these
1

c) greater than 1

d) all of above

3) Which of the following method is not a displacement method ?


a) Kauis method
b) Equilibrium method
c) Column analogy method
d) Moment distribution method

4) In the flexibility method first we obtain


a) Forces
b) Displacements

1
c) Torsion

d) B.M.

5) Castiglianos theorem falls under the category of


a) Displacement method
b) Equilibrium method
c) Force method
d) Stiffness method

6) Two hinged parabolic arch of span L carries udl completely. The horizontal thrust is

a)

L
8h

b)

L
16h

c)

L
4h

d) None of above

7) Maxwell reciprocal theorem in structural analysis can be applied in


a) Plastic structures
b) All elastic structures
c) Symmetric structures
d) Prismatic element structures

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 35

*SLRKM35*

-2-

8) Distribution factor is always __________


a) less than 1
b) more than 1

1
c) zero

d) none of above

9) Due to sinking , the moment developed in


a)

6EI
2

b)

12EI

1
c)

10) In a portal frame, sway is produced due to


a) eccentric loading on the frame
c) Different end conditions of columns

6EI

d)

6EI
L
1

b) Horizontal loading on the column


d) All of above

11) The static indeterminancy of the given frame shown in Fig. is

a) 10

b) 11

c) 12

d) 13

12) DKI of following beam is

a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

13) The flexibility matrix for following structure in the direction of co-ordinates given
below is

6 EI 3L 2

a)
L3 2 6L2

L3
b) 6 EI

2 3L

3L 6L2

L3
c) 6 EI

3L 2

2 3L

d) None of above

14) DSI of following beam is

a) 4

b) 2

c) 3

d) 1

15) The degree of static indeterminancy of beam (neglecting axial reformation) is ________

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

______________
Set A

*SLRKM35*

-3-

SLR-KM 35

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

In Section I Q. 2 is compulsory and solve any two from remaining.


In Section II Solve any three questions.
Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly.
Figure to right indicates full marks.
SECTION I

2. Solve any three :


(43=12)
a) Explain procedure to calculate kinetic indeterminancy of various types of structures.
b) Explain difference between determinate and indeterminate structure.
c) Explain Castiglianos theorem for solving indeterminate beam problem.
d) Find flexibility coefficient in figure given below.
3. Draw BMD using consistent deformation method.

14

4. Find fixed end moments and draw BMD using energy method.

14

5. Find all the moments and reactions of the frame given below using flexibility method.

14

Set A

SLR-KM 35

-4-

*SLRKM35*

SECTION II
6. Analyse following frame by moment distribution method. Draw BMD.

14

7. Analyze following continuous beam using stiffness method. Draw BMD.

13

8. Analyze following frame by stiffness method. Draw BMD.

13

9. Draw ILD for fixed beam shown below for RA and MA. Find values at quarter span.

13

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 36

*SLRKM36*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING II
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Solve any three questions from each Section.
4) Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) The degree of disturbance for soil sample is usually expressed by


a) Voids ratio
b) Area ratio
c) Recovery ratio
d) Consolidation ratio
2) In a cantilever sheet pile, the rotation is about
a) The bottom of wall
b) The dredge level
c) Above the bottom but below the dredge level
d) The top of the wall

3) A shallow foundation is usually defined as a foundation which has


a) depth less than 0.6 m
b) depth less than its width
c) depth less than 1 m
d) none of above

4) The pressure diagram below the dredge line of an anchored sheet pile wall
embedded in cohesive soil for earth support is
a) rectangular
b) triangular and then rectangular
c) triangular
d) parabotic
5) When consolidation of saturated soil sample takes place, the degree of
saturation
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) Decreases initially and then increases

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 36

-2-

*SLRKM36*

6) The maximum depth of a pneumatic Caisson is usually limited to


a) 10 m
b) 20 m
c) 80 m
d) 40 m

7) Failure of finite slopes generally occur along


a) Vertical surface
b) Inclined surface
c) Curved surface
d) All above

8) IS code for pile load test is


a) IS 2720 part 17
b) IS 2720 part 32
c) IS 2745 part 12
d) IS 2911 part 4
9) Piles used to anchor down structures subjected to uplift due to hydrostatic
pressure are called
a) Anchor piles
b) Compaction piles
c) Fender piles
d) Tension piles

10) Bearing capacity of a footing on sand deposit depends on


a) Depth of footing
b) Width of footing
c) Position of water table
d) Undrained shear strength

11) Dilatancy correction is required when strate is


a) Cohesive and saturated and also has N > 15
b) Saturated silt/fine sand and N < 10 after overburden correction
c) Saturated silt/fine sand and N > 15 after overburden correction
d) Coarse sand under dry condition and N < 10 after overburden correction
12) The width and depth of a footing are 2 m and 1.5 m respectively. The water
table at the site is at a depth of 3 m below ground level the water table
correction factor for the calculation of the bearing capacity of soil is
a) 0.875
b) 1.00
c) 0.925
d) 0.500

13) A footing 3m 1.5 m in plan transmits a pressure of 160 kN/m2 on a


cohesive soil having E = 8 104 kN/m2 and = 0.48. The immediate
elastic settlement will be (assuming Iw = 1.52).
a) 2.8 mm
b) 3.51 mm
c) 2.4 mm
d) 4.5 mm

14) For a slope angle of 45 in Fellinious construction of slip circle, the directional
angle and an respectively.
a) 27 and 38
b) 37 and 28 c) 30 and 39
d) 28 and 37
15) A deep cut of 7 m has to be made in clay with unit wt. 16 kN/m3 and a
cohesion of 25 kN/m3 what will be the FOS if the slope angle is 30 ?
Take Sn = 0.178
a) 0.80

2
b) 1.1

c) 1.25
______________

d) 1.0

Set A

*SLRKM36*

-3-

SLR-KM 36

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING II
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.


2) Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. A) Discuss the guidelines to distinguish the local shear failure and general shear
failure.
6
B) What will be the gross and wet safe bearing pressure of sand having = 36
and effective weight 18 kN/m3 under
a) 1 m wide strip footing
b) 1 m square footing
Assume footings are placed at a depth of 1 m below ground surface and
water table is at great depth. Assume FOS = 3. Use Terzaghis analysis. For
= 36, Nq = 47 and Nr = 43.
3. A) Explain how the settlements under the footing can be estimated using plate
load test.
B) Write a note on construction practices to avoid differential settlement.
C) A rectangular footing 3m 2 m exerts a pressure of 100 kN/m2 on a cohesive
soil having Es = 5 10 4 kN/m 2 and = 0.5. Find immediate elastic
settlement.

8
5
4

4. A) Enlist the ground improvement techniques. Explain any one in detail with its
suitability.
B) Write in detail about geotextile and its role in ground improvement.

5
8

5. A) Write on general requirements for satisfactory performance of foundation.

B) Write a note on soil sampling. Explain different instruments used for this
purpose.

8
Set A

SLR-KM 36

-4-

*SLRKM36*

SECTION II
6. A) Write a note on underseamed piles w.r.t the construction procedure, use and
limitation.
B) A group of 16 piles (4 in each row) was installed in a layered clay soil deposit
as shown below. The dia of each pile is 500 mm and their c/c distance is 1 m.
The length of pile group is 18 m. Estimate the safe load capacity of a group
with a FOS of 2.5. The adhesion factor between pile and soil in each layer is
shown in following fig.

GL
8m

Cu = 25 kPa, = 0
=1
Cu = 40 kPa, = 0

16 m

= 0.7

7. A) Write a note on any two shallow foundation. Mention their suitability.

B) Raft foundation is used where differential settlement is a problem state whether


this settlement is true or false with reason.
C) What is Caisson desease ? Explain.

4
4

8. A) Explain the Fellinious method to find the position of critical slip centre for c-
soil.

B) An infinite slope of 4 m thickness has following properties. Slope angle = 30,


C = 15 kN/m2 unit weight of soil = 17 kN/m3. Investigate the stability of slope. 4
C) Explain various types of coffer dams.
4
9. A) Draw pressure distribution diagram for
1) Anchored sheet pile in cohesive soil
2) Cantilever sheet pile in granular soil.
B) Calculate pull in the anchor rod and depth of embedment of anchored sheet
pile.
i) Dredge level
5 m below G.L.
ii) Anchor rod
1 m below G.L.
3
iii) = 18.5 kN/m ,
= 30, C = 0

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 37

*SLRKM37*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) Part II (New) Examination, 2015


ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. question No. 2
to question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II
and solve any two questions from the remaining.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answers :
1) The sewage system originates from ____________
a) Outfall sewer
b) House/building sewer
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

Marks : 20
(201=20)

2) In COD test, ____________ is used as oxidizing agent.


a) Potassium dichromate
b) Mercuric sulphate
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
3) The wastewater from bathrooms, kitchens, washing places and wash basins is
known as ____________
a) Sullage
b) Red water
c) Refuse
d) Garbage
4) ____________is essentially an extended aeration system.
a) Oxidation pond
b) Oxidation ditch
c) Grit chamber
d) Screen chamber
5) Detention period varies from ____________sec in grit chambers.
a) 45 to 90
b) 145 to 190
c) 10 to 45
d) 100 to 450
6) Under drainage system is provided in trickling filters, to ____________
a) Carry away liquid effluent
b) To carry away sloughed biological solids
c) To distribute air through the bed
d) All of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 37

*SLRKM37*

-2-

7) In case of oxidation ditch, sewage is usually aerated by____________


a) Surface rotor
b) Ventilator
c) Diffused aerator
d) None of the above
8) Septic tank can be designed by____________method/methods.
a) Rational
b) Detention period
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
9) Rotating biological contactor is____________process.
a) Suspended growth
b) Attached growth
c) Dual growth
d) None of these
10) Example/s of aerobic treatment unit/s is/are____________
a) ASP
b) Trickling filter c) Oxidation ditch d) All of above
11) ____________ is a prominent method of discharging wastewater into receiving
water body by natural disposal.
a) Sedimentation b) Dilution
c) Reduction
d) Oxidation
12) ____________ is the difference between saturation dissolved oxygen content and
actual dissolved oxygen content at that time.
a) Zones of stream
b) Deoxygenation
c) Oxygen deficit
d) Reoxygenation
13) Depletion of dissolved oxygen content is known as____________
a) Reoxygenation
b) Critical oxygen
c) Deoxygenation
d) Oxygen sag curve
14) ____________is considered as solid organic waste in decomposing or non
decomposing state.
a) Refuse
b) Garbage
c) Rubbish
d) Electronic wastes
15) The quantity of refuse is expressed in ____________
a) kg/capita/sec
b) kg/capita/year c) kg/capita/hr

d) kg/capita/day

16) ___________ method of composting is carried by anaerobic method.


a) Indore
b) Recycling
c) Bangalore
d) Pulverizing
17) ___________ systems of wastewater treatment is publicly owned to treat large
volume of wastewater.
a) Decentralized
b) Artificial
c) Stabilization
d) Centralized
18) Dust and carbon suspended in air are referred as___________
a) Suspended particulate matter
b) Smoke
c) Mist
d) Carbon monoxide
19) The primary pollutant caused by incomplete combustion of organic matter is ___________
a) Sulphur dioxide
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Ozone
d) Oxides of nitrogen
20) Carbon monoxide in air effects___________
a) Skin
b) Heart
c) Hair
______________

d) Eye

Set A

*SLRKM37*

-3-

SLR-KM 37

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) Part II (New) Examination, 2015


ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. question No. 2
to question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II
and solve any two questions from the remaining.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain biological process in trickling filter with neat sketch.

b) Design a bar screen for sewage flow of 60 MLd.

Assume :
i) Velocity of flow through screen = 0.8 m/sec
ii) Steel bars size = 9 mm by 50 mm (9 mm facing the flow)
iii) Angle of inclination = 60
3. a) Explain:
a) HRT

6
b) MCRT

c) Volumetric loading

b) Design a septic tank for hostel building with 200 students.

Also design soil absorption system for disposal of effluent assuming the percolation
rate as 15 min/cm. Draw sketch of layout.
4. a) What are types of oxidation ponds ? Discuss functioning of facultative pond
with neat sketch.
b) Design an facultative oxidation pond for following data :

5
8

i) Location 20N
ii) Elevation above MSL = 500 m
iii) Mean monthly temperature = 30 C Max and 10C min
iv) Population to be served = 10,000
v) Sewage flow = 150 lpcd
vi) Desired effluent BOD5 = 30 mg/lit

Set A

SLR-KM 37

*SLRKM37*

-4-

vii) Pond removal rate constant = 0.1/day at 20 C (Base 10)


viii) Sky is clear 20% of the day
ix) BOD of raw sewage = 300 mg/lit
x) Assume BOD loading = 250 kg/ha/day
Note : Apply correction factor for elevation and sky clearance.
5. Write short notes on following (any three) :

14

1) NRC equation

2) Aerated lagoon

3) Oxidation ditch

4) BOD test procedure


SECTION II

Instruction :

Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve any


two questions from the remaining.

6. a) Explain with neat sketch Deoxygenating and reoxygenation curves.

b) Explain the principle and working of settling chamber with neat sketch.

7. a) Using following data calculate DO deficit at point 25 km and 45 km


downstream :
Wastewater

Stream

Flow (m3/s)

0.2

1.4

DO (mg/l)

9.2

BOD5 at 20C (mg/l)

30

Assume temperature is 20C throughout and BOD is measured at 5 days. The


average velocity of stream is 0.18 m/s. Given saturation Do of mixture is 9.2 mg/l,
and BOD reaction constant K = 0.13 per day and reoxygenation constant R = 0.3
per day.
b) Write comparison between centralized and decentralized waste water
treatment.
8. a) Explain the disposal of refusal by incineration method also advantages of this
method.
b) Explain composting by trenching method.

6
8
6

9. Write short note on :


a) Actions involved in self purification.

b) Causes of air pollution.

c) Bangalore method of composting.

__________________

Set A

SLR-KM 38

*SLRKM38*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT II
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N. B. : 1) In Section I Q. No. 5 is compulsory. Solve any two


questions from Q. No. 2 to Q. No. 4.
2) In Section II Q. No. 9 is compulsory. Solve any two
questions from Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 8.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct alternative (one mark each) :

Marks : 20
20

1) MSP stands for


a) Macro Soft Project
b) Micro Solid Project
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
2) MSP is designed to
a) To assist project manager to develop the plans
b) To assign resources to tasks
c) to track the progress
d) All the above
3) Which of the following is not a limitation of life cycle costing ?
a) It is a rough science
b) LCC outputs are only estimates
c) LCC estimates lack accuracy
d) None
4) LCC model should
a) Represent characteristics of assets
b) Be comprehensive
c) Be easily understood
d) All the above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 38

-2-

*SLRKM38*

5) For drawing a CPM network which of the following is required ?


a) Activity duration
b) Interdependency of activities
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
6) WBS will determine
a) Activities in a project
b) Interdependency of activities
c) Activity duration
d) All of above
7) Interdependency of activities is not known from
a) Bar chart
b) Mile stone chart
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
8) Which of the following is not a type of float ?
a) Total float
b) Free float
c) Indirect float
d) All the above
9) Value Engineering is used for
a) New project
b) Existing project
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
10) In value engineering, brain storming is a part of ____________ phase.
a) Information phase
b) Judgement phase
c) Creative phase
d) None
11) In network compression focus is made on
a) Direct cost
b) Indirect cost c) Total cost
d) All
12) When resources is a constraint, it is called as
a) Resource levelling
b) Resource smoothening
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
13) Time scale network is essential for
a) Network compression
b) Resource allocation
c) Updating
d) None
14) After updating the network, which of the following is likely to be changed ?
a) CP
b) PD
c) Both a) and b)
d) Can not say anything
15) Variance is a measure of
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Both a) and b) d) None
16) In PERT, when all conditions are not in favour, we will get __________ time.
a) Optimistic
b) Pessimistic c) Most likely
d) None
17) In recurring deposit scheme __________ factor will be used.
a) USCRF
b) USPWF
c) USSFF
d) None
18) Bank is interested to apply interest rate compounded _______ to the customer.
a) Daily
b) Monthly
c) Quarterly
d) Annually
19) Cash flow diagram may not be used in __________ method.
a) EVAC
b) Yield
c) PW
d) None
20) Prospective rate of return is calculated in __________ method.
a) Yield
b) EVAC
c) PW
d) All the above
______________
Set A

*SLRKM38*

SLR-KM 38

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT II
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N. B. : 1) In Section I Q. No. 5 is compulsory. Solve any two


questions from Q. No. 2 to Q. No. 4.
2) In Section II Q. No. 9 is compulsory. Solve any two
questions from Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 8.
SECTION I
Solve any two questions from Q. No. 2 to Q. No. 4. Q. No. 5 is compulsory
2. a) Write in short about Network Compression .

b) A project consist of following data :


Activity Duration (days)

Activity Duration (days)

12

57

Dummy

13

69

10

14

79

12

27

78

36

8 10

45

9 10

56

Dummy

Draw the network. Find out CP and PD.


Calculate float free float and independent float for non critical activities.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 38

*SLRKM38*

-4-

3. a) Differentiate between CPM and PERT.

b) Following data refers to a project.


1) Activities P, Q and R are starting activities.
Activity S follows P but precedes T.
Activity T follows Q and S.
R and T are terminal activities.
2) The durations and man power required for the activities are as follows :
Activity

Q R S

Duration (days)

Resources (Men)

Carry out the resources levelling so that not more than 6 men are used on
any day.
10
4. a) State the importance of WBS.

b) A project consist of following data :


Activity
Duration
(days)

12 13 14 25 36 45 46 47 57 67
6

12

10

1) Draw the network. Find out CP and PD.


2) Following conditions exists at the end of 10 days.
a) Activity 1 2, 1 3, 1 4 having completed as per schedule.
b) Activity 4 5, 4 6, 3 6 are in progress and will require 6, 6 and
1 more day for its completion.
c) Other activities have not started and their project duration holds good
except for 5-7 which will require only 3 days instead of 5 days. Update
the network.
10
5. Write notes on (4 marks each) :
a) Precedence network
b) MSP and priveria
c) distribution curve.
Set A

*SLRKM38*

-5-

SLR-KM 38

SECTION II
Solve any two questions from Q. 6 to Q. 8. Q. 9 is compulsory.
6. a) If a proposal for installation of equipment in a work requires capital investment
now of Rs. one lakh, what savings per year must be shown for next 10 years
to justify the expenditure with i = 17% per year if life of equipment is 10 years.
b) What will be the value of ` 10,000/- investment in 20 years at interest rate
of 12% compounded.
a) Quarterly
b) Bi-annually
c) Annually.
7. a) Write in short about life cycle costing.

4
10
4

b) A contractor purchased a truck for ` 4 lakhs. It has given a return of ` 1.75


lakh in first year, ` 1.5 lakh in second year, ` 1 lakh in third year and ` 75
thousand in fourth year. At the end of fourth year it is sold at ` 1.3 lakhs.
Calculate yield of this investment.
10
8. a) Discuss in short about BOT.

b) The public health department is considering two alternatives for water supply
to a city.
The first alternative is to construct an earthen dam on a nearby river. The
initial cost of dam is expected to be 80 lakh ` and will require annual upkeep
cost of 2.5 lakh rupees. The dam is expected to be last for 20 years.
The second alternative is to drill the wells and construct pipeline for transporting
water to the city. The department estimates than such ten wells will be required
at a cost of Rs. 4.5 lakhs per well including pipe line. The av-life of well is
expected to be 10 years with operating cost of ` 1.2 lakh per well.
Select the best alternative on the basis of PW method with i = 15% per year. 10
9. Write short notes on (4 marks each) :
a) Methods of life cycle costing.
b) Value engineering.
c) Different types of values in value engg.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 39

*SLR-KM-39*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING II (New)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.


2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer :
20
1) Check rails are provided on the curves to
a) Reduce the lateral wear on outer rail
b) Prevent the outer wheel flange from mounting the outer rail
c) Prevent the vehicles from derailment
d) All the above
2) G.M.T. pertaining to railways stand for
a) Gross million tonnes
b) Greenwich mean time
c) Gross metric tonnes
d) None of the above
3) Coning of wheels prevents
a) Rubbing the inside face of the rail head
b) Lateral movement of the axle with its wheels
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
4) The extra rails provided over bridges to prevent damage and danger in case
of derailment on bridge are called as
a) Guard rails
b) Stock rails
c) Lead rails
d) None of these
5) The signal which is provided next to warner signal on the station yard is
a) Inner signal
b) Outer signal c) Home signal
d) None
6) The longitudinal movement of rails in a track is called as
a) Creep of rails b) Check of rails c) Hugging of rails d) None
7) When the crossing is seen standing at the toe of switch, the direction is
called as
a) Facing direction b) Backing direction c) Reserve direction d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 39

-2-

*SLR-KM-39*

8) When the Railway line and road cross each other at the same level, it is
called as
a) Road crossing b) Railway crossing c) Level crossing d) None
9) The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping in view the power, of
Iocomotive is
a) Exceptional gradient
b) Ruling gradient
c) Rising gradient
d) None
10) Station which stops the continuity of a mainline is called as
a) Main station
b) Sub-station
c) Terminal station d) None of above
11) Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a
distance of
a) 3 m from runway end
b) 6 m from runway end
c) 10 m from runway end
d) 15 m from runway end
12) For supersonic aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
a) 60 m
b) 120 m
c) 180 m
d) 240 m
13) The runway length after correcting the elevation and temperature is 2845 m.
If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway
length will be
a) 2845 m
b) 2910 m
c) 3030 m
d) 3130 m
14) Minimum basic runway length for A type airport is
a) 2100 m
b) 2500 m
c) 3000 m
d) 4000 m
15) Pick up the correct statement from the following :
a) Fender is the cushion provided on the face of the jetty for ships to come in
contact
b) Slip is the space of water area between two adjacent piers where ships
are berthed
c) Pier head is a structure constructed near the tip of the breakwater near
the harbour entrance
d) All the above
16) Usually jetties are constructed
a) Perpendicular to the shore
b) Parallel to the shore
c) Skew to the shore
d) Both a) and b)
17) The construction in the form of a cluster of closely spaced piles is known as
a) Dolphins
b) Piers
c) Wharf
d) Jetty
18) The equation for finding out the height of the wave in m where F is fetch in km
is given by
a) 0.34F
b) 0.32F
c) 0.35F
d) 0.30F
19) ___________ are floating structures of small size employed for demarcation
like entrance of harbour, approach channel boundaries and so on
a) Light ships
b) Beacons
c) Buoys
d) Moorings
20) A ship for major repairs is taken at
a) Quay walls
b) Jetty
c) Dry Dock
d) Wharf
______________
Set A

*SLR-KM-39*

-3-

SLR-KM 39

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING II (New)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.


SECTION I
2. Answer any three questions (each carry 8 marks) :
a) Write a note train resistances.
b) A locomotive as shown in Fig. 2-1 is required to haul a train at 80 km p.h.
The axle load of the driving wheels of the engine is 22.50 tonnes. The train is
to run on a straight level track. Find the maximum permissible train load that
the engine can pull.
If the train climbs a gradient of 1 in 200, how much of the speed should be
reduced ?

Fig. 2-1
c) On a B.G. track with 3 curve, the equilibrium cant is provided for a speed of
70 km.p.h. Calculate value of equilibrium cant. What would be the maximum
permissible speed on the track if maximum cant deficiency is allowed ?
d) Differentiate between the following :
1) Square joint and staggered joint
2) Suspended joint and supported joint.

8
8

3. Answer any two questions (each carry 8 marks) :


a) Draw a neat sketch of acute angle crossing. Label all the components. Show
trailing and facing direction, ANC, TNC, Gap, Throat, Crossing angle.

b) Write a note on methods of correcting the creep.

Set A

SLR-KM 39

-4-

*SLR-KM-39*

c) Explain the following with neat sketches :


1) Scissors cross-over
2) Three throws
3) Tandems
4) Gathering lines.

SECTION II
4. Answer any two questions (8 marks each) :

(28)

a) What are the imaginary surfaces ? What is their significance and list the
types of imaginary surfaces ?
b) At an airport site at sea level with standard atmospheric conditions, the runway
lengths required for take-off and landing are 2000 m and 2400 m respectively.
The proposed airport is situated at an altitude of 150 m. If the airport reference
temperature is 25C and the effective runway gradient is 0.35 percent, calculate
the length of runway to be provided.
c) Draw a neat cross-section of runway showing all component parts. Explain
the ICAO recommendations with respect to runway transverse and longitudinal
gradients for A, B, C, D and E types of airports.
5. Answer any two questions (8 marks each) :

(28)

a) Draw a typical layout of artificial harbour and explain briefly, the function of
Jetty, Quay walls and turning basin.
b) Explain safety requirements of pipeline used for hydrocarbon transport.
c) Draw a neat sketch of dry dock (plan and section) and label all components
and explain the working principle of dry dock.
6. Answer any one (8 marks each) :

(18)

a) Explain with neat sketches the limiting heights of objects in the approach
and turning zone of an instrumental runway.
b) Write a note on gradients for railway track.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 40A

*SLRKM40A*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015
PAVEMENT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN
Self-Learning Technical Course (New)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book Page No. 3.


Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figure on right indicates full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :

10

1) Which of the following method is recommended by I.R.C. for design of flexible pavement ?
a) Group index method

b) C.B.R. method

c) Westergaard method

d) None of these

2) Geometric design of highways depends on


a) Topography, Traffic factors

b) Design speed, environmental factors

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) Only (a)

3) According to Group Index formula the G.I. value lies between


a) 0 20

b) 0 5

c) 0 10

d) 5 10

4) Select the correct statement


a) Minimum and maximum value of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively
b) More value of Group Index, less thickness of pavement will be required
c) More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required
d) None of these
5) Bitumen of grade 80/100 mean
a) Its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
b) Its penetration value is 8 mm
c) Its penetration value is 10 mm
d) Its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 40A

*SLRKM40A*

-2-

6) Which of the following method is not used for design of flexible pavement ?
a) GI method

b) C.B.R. method

c) IRC method

d) IS method

7) From impact test _____________ property of aggregate can be found out.


a) Strength

b) Hardness

c) Soundness

d) Toughness

8) Bottom most layer of pavement is known as


a) Sub-base

b) Wearing course

c) Sub-grade

d) Base course

9) The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from


a) 50 to 75 mm

b) 75 to 100 mm

c) 20 to 25 mm

d) 100 to 120 mm

10) Which of the following test is not used for bituminous materials ?
a) Penetration test

b) Ductility test

c) Viscosity test

d) Abrasion test

______________

Set A

*SLRKM40A*

SLR-KM 40A

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


PAVEMENT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN
Self-Learning Technical Course (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015

Marks : 40

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) Figure on right indicates full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.

2. Solve any three (first question is compulsory) :


a) Explain briefly the Marshall method of Bituminous Mix Design.

b) Soil subgrade sample was obtained from the project site and the CBR tests was conducted
at field density. The following were the results.

Penetration (mm)

Load (kg)

Penetration (mm)

Load (kg)

0.0

0.00

3.0

56.5

0.5

5.0

4.0

67.5

1.0

16.2

5.0

75.2

1.5

28.1

7.5

89.0

2.0

40.0

10.0

99.5

2.5

48.5

12.5

106.5

It is desired to use the following materials for different pavements layers :


i) Compacted sandy soil with 7% CBR
ii) Poorly graded gravel with 20% CBR
iii) Well graded gravel with 95% CBR
iv) Minimum thickness of bituminous concrete surfacing may be taken as 5 cm. The
traffic survey give ADT = 1200. The annual traffic growth rate = 8% and the pavement
construction is to be completed in three years after the last traffic count. Design the
pavement by CBE method as recommended by IRC, using all four pavement materials.

Set A

SLR-KM 40A

-4-

*SLRKM40A*

c) Calculate the stress at interior, edge and corner region of a cement concrete pavement
using Westergaards stress equations. Use following data.
Wheel load, P = 5100 kg/cm2
Modulus of elasticity of cement, E = 3.0 105 kg/cm2
Pavement thickness, h = 18 cm, Poissons ratio of concrete. = 0.15
Modulus of subgrade reaction, K = 6.0 kg/cm2, radius of contact area, a = 15 cm.

d) What are the desirable properties of bituminous mixes ? What are the steps in bituminous
mix design ?

3. Solve any three of the following :


a) What are different methods of design of rigid and flexible pavement ? Explain one method
in detail.

b) Write a short note on Bituminous material.

c) What are the types of pavement failures occur in rigid pavement ? Explain any one.

d) What are the types of joints in C.C. pavement, explain with neat sketch.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 40B

*SLRKM40B*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (TECHNICAL) PLANNING FOR SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) From Q. No. 2 to Q. No. 9 solve any five questions. Each
question carries 8 marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) The acronym CSR stands for
a) Corporate Search and Rescue
c) Corporate Sensitive Reliability

10
b) Corporate Social Responsibility
d) Corporate Social Reality

2) All those who are affected by or can affect the operations of the organization
are known as
a) Owners
b) Interested parties
c) Stakeholders
d) Stockholders
3) Sustainable development will not aim at
a) Sustainable development which optimize the economic and social benefits
available in the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar
benefits in the future
b) Reasonable and equitably distributed level of economic well-being that
can be perpetuated continually
c) Development that meets the need of the present without compromising
the ability of future generations of meet their own needs
d) Maximizing the present day benefits through increased resource
consumption
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 40B

-2-

*SLRKM40B*

4) The term sustainability refers to


a) Maintaining resource use at current or higher levels
b) Keeping the natural environment and human society in a happy, healthy
and functional state
c) Holding or increasing the current quality of human life.
d) Always focusing on fulfilling short-term needs
e) Opposing change from current policies
5) Sustainable development focuses on more use of
a) Renewable resources
b) Abiotic resources
c) Agricultural Resources
d) Natural resources
6) The definition of Sustainable development was expressed during the World
Commission on Environment and Development in 1987, chaired by
a) Gro Harlem Brundtland
b) Murray Bookchin
c) Rees and Wackernackel
d) John Elkington
7) Sustainability can bring indirect benefits to a business and secure its shortterm ability to compete.
a) True
b) False
8) Three dimensions of Sustainable development are ___________, _________,
__________
a) Social, Economical, Environmental
b) Social, Political, Environmental
c) Social, Economical, Political
d) Ethical, Economical, Environmental
______________

Set A

*SLRKM40B*

-3-

SLR-KM 40B

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (TECHNICAL) PLANNING FOR SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

N.B. : From Q. No. 2 to Q. No. 9 solve any five questions. Each


question carries 8 marks.
Solve the following (any five questions) (Each 8 marks) :

40

2. State the distinguish between sustainable development and green development.


3. Write short note on :
a) Innovation for sustainable development.

b) Policy responses to environmental degradation.

4. Discuss the corporate governance issues in global organizations.


5. What is the purpose of good corporate government ?
6. State the principal of Sustainable development.
7. Explain the need and importance of Sustainable development.
8. Write short note on three dimensional of Sustainable development.
9. Define sustainable development and explain the concept in brief.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 40C

*SLRKM40C*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING
TQM and MIS in Civil Engineering
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt any four from remaining questions.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 10

1. Select the correct answer from the given options/alternatives :

10

1) KAIZEN means
a) Quality improvement technique
b) Change to become good
c) Achieving quality
d) None
2) ISO : 9001 is related to
a) Environmental
c) Steel table

b) Safety
d) Quality

3) MIS is used for


a) Decision making
c) Good management work

b) Quality work
d) All of these

4) MIS structure is based on


a) Management activity
c) Both a) and b)

b) Population
d) None

5) MSP means
a) Microsoft Primavera
c) Management System Project

b) Microsoft Project
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 40C

-2-

*SLRKM40C*

6) Quality Control System performs inspection, testing and


a) Use
b) Analysis
c) Measurement
d) Accuracy
7) Management Triangle includes strategic planning, management control and
a) Maintain
b) Operational control
c) Output
d) All of these
8) The programmed decision is nothing but
a) Unstructured decision
b) Structured decision
c) Good decision
d) Systematic decision
9) The most important characteristics of hardware in a computer is
a) Speed and size
b) Data and size
c) Data and speed
d) Memory
10) COBOL is acronym for
a) Common Business Oriented Language
b) Center Business Oriented Language
c) Computer Based Oriented Language
d) None of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM40C*

-3-

SLR-KM 40C

Seat
No.

T.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING
TQM and MIS in Civil Engineering
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

Instructions : 1) Attempt any four from remaining questions.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Attempt any four in Question No. 2 to Question No. 7.

40

2. Write a note on ISO : 9001.


3. Write a note on Supply Chain Management in TQM.
4. Explain the Checklist for Concreting Activity.
5. Write a note on Softwares in MIS.
6. Define MIS and discuss its objectives.
7. List and explain the major reason for an ever increasing need for data processing.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 41

*SLRKM41*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES I (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) IS 456-2000 is not allowed to refer while solving MCQ in First 30
minutes.
3) Solve any three questions from each Section.
4) Use of IS 456 and non programmable calculator is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Striping period for props to beams and arches spanning up to 6 m


a) 7 days
b) 14 days
c) 8 days
d) 21 days
2) The final deflection of beam due to all loads including all effective measured from as cast
level of supports or floor should not normally exceed
a) Span/200
b) Span/150
c) Span/250
d) Span/300
3) Design bond stress in limit state method for deformed bars in tension for M-20 grade
concrete is __________ N/sq mm.
a) 1.1
b) 1.3
c) 1.92
d) 1.4
4) The cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement, shall not be more than _________%
of the area.
a) 2
b) 6
c) 3
d) 1
5) Bars in a bundle shall terminate at different points spaced apart by not less than _________
times the bar diameter except for bundles stepping at a support.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 20
d) 40
6) In reinforcement and plain concrete footings, the thickness at the edge shall not be less
than __________ mm. For footing on soil.
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 230 mm
7) For critical section for the two way shear in case of isolated footing at distance of _________
from face of column on all sides.
a) d
b) d/3
c) d/2
d) d/4
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 41

*SLRKM41*

-2-

8) A compression member may be considered as short when both the slenderness ratio
lex/D and ley/b are less than
a) 10
b) 12
c) 11
d) 13
9) The basic value of span to depth ratio for span up to 10 m for simply supported beam is
a) 20
b) 26
c) 7
d) 16
10) __________ number of specimen shall be made for each sample for testing of 28 days.
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 12
11) The mild steel reinforcement in either direction in slabs shall not be less than ________%
of the area.
a) 0.12
b) 0.15
c) 0.1
d) 0.2
12) The flexural strength of concrete is given by _________
a) 0.6fck
b) 0.5fck
c) 0.7fck

d) 0.8fck

13) The pitch of helical reinforcement shall not be more than _________
a) 75 mm
b) 25 mm
c) 1/6 of core diameter of column
d) a) and b) both
14) The minimum frequency of sampling of concrete of each grade for 31 50 m3 shall be
a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
15) The structure shall have a factor against sliding is not less than
a) 1.5
b) 1.2
c) 1.4

d) 2.0

16) The nominal size of aggregate should usually be restricted to _________ mm less minimum
clear distance between main bars or __________ mm less than minimum covers to the
reinforcement whichever is less.
a) 6 mm, 5 mm
b) 6 mm, 6 mm
c) 5 mm, 5 mm
d) 4 mm, 5 mm
17) Characteristic strength is equal to _________
a) Mean strength ks
b) Characteristics load +ks
c) Mean strength +ks
d) Characteristics load ks
18) The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than
a) 6 mm
b) 12 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 8 mm
19) c max for M20 concrete is ____________ N/mm2.
a) 2.5

b) 3.1

c) 2.8

d) 3.5

20) In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided are
a) 6 legged
b) 8 legged
c) 10 legged
d) 12 legged
______________

Set A

*SLRKM41*

-3-

SLR-KM 41

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES I (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) Solve any three questions from each Section.


2) Use of IS 456 and non programmable calculator is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly.
4) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I

2. a) A singly reinforced beam 230 mm 450 mm is reinforced with 4-bars of 16 mm with an


effective cover of 50 mm. Effective span of the beam is 6.2 m. Assuming M20 concrete
and Fe 415 steel, determine the udl, that can be carried by the beam in addition to its self
weight.

b) Write on balanced section, under-reinforced section and over reinforced section.

3. a) Write on shear failure and type of shear reinforcement.

b) Determine the ultimate moment carrying capacity of a doubly reinforcement beam


230 mm 600 mm, reinforcement with 6 bars of 16 mm on compression side and
6 bars of 20 mm on tension side. Effective cover is 50 mm on both side. Use M20
concrete and Fe500 steel.

4. a) Write on bond length and development length.

b) Design a rectangular beam which is to be simply supported on supports of 230 mm width.


The clear span of the beam is 6 m. The beam is to be have width of 300 mm. The
characteristic superimposed load is 10 kN/m. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.

10

5. A T-beam slab floor has 150 mm thick slab forming part of T-beams which are of 10 m clear
span. The end bearings are 450 mm thick. Spacing of T-beams is 3 m. The live load on the
floor is 3 kN/m2. Design one of the T-beam using M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.

13

Set A

SLR-KM 41

-4-

*SLRKM41*

SECTION II
6. Design a rectangular beam section subjected to a working shear force of 40 kN, torsional
moment of 30 kN.m and bending moment of 60 kN.m. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel.

13

7. Design a circular column of diameter 400 mm helical reinforcement subjected to a working


load of 1400 kN. Use M20 concrete and Fe500 steel. The column has unsupported length of
3.2 m and in effectively held in position and direction at both ends.

13

8. a) Explain design of column subjected to axial load and uniaxial bending by using interaction
curves.

b) Design a column, 4 m long restrained in position and direction at both ends to carry an
axial load of 1350 kN. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.

10

9. Design a rectangular footing for a short column axially loaded of size 230 mm 525 mm
carrying 1000 kN load. The SBC of soil is 200 kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
Sketch the details of reinforcement.

13

__________________

Set A

SLR-KM 42

*SLRKM42*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015
QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION (Old)

Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015

Total Marks : 100

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book
Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer :


1) The plinth area of a building not includes
A) area of the walls at the floor level
B) area of stair cover
C) internal shaft for sanitary installations up to 2 sq m. in area
D) lift and wall including landing
E) area of cantilevered porch
2) For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1 : 6 on 100 sq.m new brick work, the quantity of cement required, is
B) 0.247 m3
C) 0.274 m3
D) 0.295 m3
A) 0.200 m3
3) The minimum width of a septic tank is taken
A) 70 cm
B) 75 cm
C) 80 cm
D) 90 cm
4) The item of the brick structure measured in sq.m, is
A) Reinforced brick work
B) Broken glass coping
C) Brick edging
D) Brick work in arches
5) The inspection pit or chamber is a manhole provided in a base drainage system
A) at every change of direction
B) at every change of gradient
C) at every 30 m intervals
D) at the point where vertical soil pipe joins the house drain
E) all the above
6) In the mid-section formula
A) the mean depth is the average of depths of two consecutive sections
B) the area of mid-sections is calculated by using mean depth
C) the volume of the earth work is calculated by multiplying the mid-section area by the distance between
the two sections
D) the volume of the earth work is calculated by multiplying the mid-section area by the distance between
the two original sections
E) (a), (b) and (c) of the above
7) The item of steel work which is measured in sq.m, is
A) Collapsible gates
B) Rolling shutters
C) Steel doors
D) Ventilators and glazing
E) All the above
8) The value of C of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is

A) 400 mm

B) 450 mm

C) 500 mm

20

D) 550 mm
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 42

-2-

*SLRKM42*

9) The area of a sloping surface of a protective embankment of mean height d, side slopes S : 1 and length L is
C) L.D 1 + s2
D) 2 LD 1+ s2
A) d x d x s
B) d2 x (ds)2
10) If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length, and the ground is also
having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by
A) Mid-section formula
B) Trapezoidal formula
C) Prismoidal formula
D) All the above
11) The most reliable estimate is
A) Detailed estimate
B) Preliminary estimate
C) Plinth area estimate
D) Cube rate estimate
E) None of these
12) The expected out turn of 12 mm plastering with cement mortar is
A) 2.5 sq m
B) 4.0 sq m
C) 6.0 sq m
D) 8.0 sq m
E) 10 sq m
13) The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate, is
A) Quantity of the materials
B) Availability of materials
C) Transportation of materials
D) Location of site and local labour charges
E) All the above
14) The damp proof course (D.P.C.) is measured in
A) Cub.m
B) Sq m
C) Metres
D) None of these
15) The reduced levels of points, 30 metres apart along the longitudinal section of a road portion between
chainages 5 and 9 are shown in the given figure. If there is a uniform up-gradient of the road 120 in 1, the
chainage of the point with no filling or cutting is

16)

17)

18)

19)

20)

A) (6 + 15) chains
B) (6 + 12) chains
C) (6 + 18) chains
D) None of these
The area is measured correct to the nearest
A) 0.01 sqm
B) 0.02 sqm
C) 0.03 sqm
D) 0.04 sqm
E) 0.05 sqm
Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for the following sanitary fittings
A) Water closets
B) Flushing pipes
C) Lavatory basins
D) Sinks
E) All the above
The volume is measured correct to the nearest
A) 0.01 cum
B) 0.02 cum
C) 0.03 cum
D) 0.04 cum
E) 0.05 sum
Pick up the correct statement from the following :
A) The earth work of cutting in trenches or borrow pits in fairly uniform ground is measured with the help
of average depths of the dead men
B) The earth work in trenches or borrow pits in irregular ground is measured by taking the difference in
levels before and after completion of work
C) The earth work in trenches or borrow pits, where neither a nor b is feasible, are measured from the
fillings after deduction of voids
D) All the above
Pick up the item whose weight is added to the weight of respective item, is
A) Cleats
B) Brackets
C) Bolts
D) Distance separators
E) All the above

Set A

*SLRKM42*

-3-

SLR-KM 42

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5 and any two out
of Q. No. 6 to Q. 8.
2) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.
2.
3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

Calculate the quantity of reinforcement required in R.C.C. column and footing shown in attached drawing
no. 11.1
a)

Prepare a preliminary estimate of a residential building project with a total plinth area of all the buildings
being 100 Sq.m. The following information is given :
a) Plinth area rate : Rs. 20,000 per m2
b) Additional amount allowed for special architectural features : 1.5% of the building cost
c) Extra for water supply and sanitary fittings : 5% of building cost
d) Extra for building services = 7.50% of building cost
e) Contingencies : 2% of overall cost
f) Supervision charges = 7.5% of overall cost.

b)

State the methods of approximate estimate, explain any one.

A)

Write the detailed specifications for


a) Concreting in R.C.C. column in cement concrete grade M 20.
b) P.C.C. M 10 in foundation bed of concrete column footing.

B)

Write note on provisional quantities and provisional sums.

A)

Carry out rate analysis for the following items.


a) Concreting in R.C.C. column in cement concrete grade M 20.
b) Providing and laying reinforcement bars in concrete column.

B)

Differentiate between long wall short wal and center line method.

A)

List various types of contract and explain Turnkey contract.

B)

What is Earnest Money Deposit and Security Deposit ?

A)

List various methods of valuation and describe belting method of valuation of land with suitable example.

B)

Define
1) Book value
3) Speculation value
5) Potential value.

A)
B)

9.

14

2) Accomodation value
4) Scrap value

A temporary shed has been constructed for Rs. 1,20,000/-. Assuming its salvage value at the end of 6 years
as Rs. 30,000/-. Determine the depreciation and book value for each year by constant percentage method.

Explain easement rights.

What do you mean by valuation ? What is its necessity ? List various methods of valuation and describe any
three of them giving examples.

14

Set A

SLR-KM 42

-4-

*SLRKM42*

Set A

SLR-KM 43

*SLRKM43*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


EARTHQUAKE ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries two marks.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer (Each MCQ carries two marks) :

20

1) Which of the following is incorrect equation ?


a) my + cy + ky = 0

b) my + cy + ky = 0

c) my + cy = 0

d) my + ky = f (t )

2) my + ky = f (t ) is differential equation for


a) Undamped free vibration
b) Damped free vibration
c) Undamped forced vibration
d) Damped forced vibration
3) One of the following is the planning aspect of earthquake resistant design
a) Orientation
b) Prospect
c) Roominess

d) Symmetry

4) The zone factor for Solapur city is


a) 0.10

b) 0.16

c) 0.24

d) 0.36

5) The maximum value of response reduction factor of structures is


a) 3.0

b) 4.0

c) 5.0

d) 6.0
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 43

*SLRKM43*

-2-

6) Which of the following is used to solve general dynamic loading ?


a) Earthquake response spectrum
b) Duhamels integral concept
c) New-mark beta method
d) Seismic coefficient method
7) When ( = f ) natural circular frequency of system is matching with forcing
frequency of system, then
a) r = 1
b) r > 1
c) r < 1
d) r >>1
8) Resonance is situation in vibration when
a) r = 1

b) r > 1

c) r < 1

d) r >> 1

9) The solution for differential equation for undamped free vibration of SDOF
system
a) Y = A cos t + B sin t

b) Y = C1 cos t + C2 sin t

c) Y = E sin [f + a )

d) Y = B cos t + A sin t

10) The dynamic displacement of system is Ydynamic =


a) Ystatic Magnification factor
b) Ystatic / Magnification factor

1
c) Tstatic

Magnificat ion factor

d) Magnification factor / Ystatic


______________

Set A

*SLRKM43*

-3-

SLR-KM 43

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


EARTHQUAKE ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Use of only IS 1893 is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Write detailed note on internal structure of Earth.

b) Explain working principle of a seismograph.

3. From first principle derive the governing differential equation for forced vibration
of a undamped SDOF system. Obtain the general solution of this differential
equation.

13

4. What do you mean by force transmissibility ? Derive an expression for force


transmissibility to the foundation of a SDOF system subjected to harmonic
force.

13

5. a) Explain the step by step procedure of construction of response


spectrum.
b) What is combined spectrum ? What are its characteristics ?

5
8

Set A

SLR-KM 43

-4-

*SLRKM53*

SECTION II
6. It is proposed to construct a R.C.C. four storeyed commercial building having
plan dimensions as shown in fig. 1 in Zone III with following data. Determine the
lateral forces and base shear. The all column sizes are 300 450 mm and
beams sizes are 230 450 mm. The slab thickness is 120 mm and thickness of
walls is 230 mm. The ht. of floor is 3.2 m and Live load is 2.5 kN/m2 IS 13920 will be
used. The strata is medium.
14

7. What do you understand by a response reduction factor ? Why it is incorporated


in the expression for evaluating seismic forces ?
13
8. Explain how rational ductility of singly reinforced and doubly reinforced RCC
section is evaluated ?

13

9. Explain the strengthening arrangements for masonry construction.

13

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 44

*SLRKM44*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING II (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(120=20)
1) Lining of irrigation channels
a) increases water logging
b) increases channel cross section
c) increases command area
d) increase chances of breaching
2) Which one of the followings does not contribute to water logging ?
a) inadequate drainage
b) seepage from unlined canals
c) frequent flooding
d) excessive tapping of ground water
3) Alkaline soils are best reclaimed by
a) leaching
b) addition of gypsum to soil
c) providing good drainage
d) addition of gypsum to soil and leaching
4) Canal headworks in the upper rocky reaches of the rivers, are uncommon, because
a) more drops are required on the resulting canal system
b) costly head regulator is required
c) more cross-drainage works are required on the resulting canal network
d) all of the above
5) The critical exit gradient suggested in Khosla s theory of design of weirs and barrages, is
a) less for more porous soils
b) more for more porous soils
c) equal for all kinds of soils
d) none of them
6) When an irrigation canal is taken over a drainage channel, the crossing is called
a) an aqueduct
b) a super passage
c) a level crossing
d) none of them
7) The surcharge storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored between
a) minimum and maximum reservoir levels b) minimum and normal reservoir levels
c) normal and maximum reservoir levels d) none of the above
8) Design yield of a storage reservoir is kept
a) higher than its firm or safe yield
b) lower than its firm or safe yield
c) equal to its firm or safe yield
d) higher or lower than the firm yield, depending upon the designers intuition
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 44

-2-

*SLRKM44*

9) Capacity-inflow ratio for a storage reservoir is defined as


a) (Reservoir capacity)/(average annual flood flow)
b) (Reservoir capacity)/(average annual sediment inflow)
c) (Dead storage capacity of the reservoir)/average annual sediment deposited)
d) none of the above
10) Economical height of a dam is that height, for which the
a) cost per unit of storage is minimum
b) benefit cost ratio is maximum
c) net benefits are maximum
d) none of the above
11) A gravity dam is subjected to hydro dynamic pressure, caused by
a) the rising waters of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it
b) the rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds
c) the increase in water pressure, momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake,
acting towards the reservoir
d) the increase in water pressure, momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake,
acting towards the dam
12) Transverse joints in concrete gravity dams are the
a) horizontal construction joints at each lift height
b) vertical construction joints full of height and width
c) diagonal construction joints for torsion
d) none of the above
13) The most preferred soil for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type of
an earthen dam, is
a) highly impervious clay
b) highly pervious gravel
c) coarse sand
d) clay mixed with fine sand
14) Provision of horizontal berms at suitable vertical intervals may be provided in the
downstream face of an earthen dam, in order to
a) allow the movement of cattle
b) allow the inspection vehicles to move
c) reduce the erosion caused by the flowing rain water
d) none of the above
15) The base width of a rock fill dam, in comparison to that of an earthen dam, is
a) much larger
b) much smaller
c) sometimes larger sometimes smaller
d) almost equal
16) On moderate foundations, and particularly in seismic areas, the type of dam which can
preferably be considered for construction, is
a) masonry gravity dam
b) earthen dam
c) rock fill dam
d) arch dam
17) The effective length of an ogee spillway will be different from its actual length, in case of
a) gated spillway
b) ungated spillway
c) both gated as well as ungated spillway d) none of these
18) The famous Bhakra dam of our country has been provided with
a) trough spillway
b) ogee spillway
c) shaft spillway
d) syphon spillway
19) In computing the spilling capacity of high ogee spillways, the velocity head is usually
a) very small, and hence neglected
b) very large and hence cannot be neglected
c) neither (a) nor (b)
d) none of the above
20) Bar screens, used to cover dam outlets to prevent entry of debris or ice into the sluiceway
conduits, are called
a) gate controlled ports
b) projecting collars
c) trash racks
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM44*

-3-

SLR-KM 44

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING II (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) Solve any three questions from Section I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5) and


any three questions from Section II (Questions 6, 7, 8, 9).
2) Draw neat labeled sketches wherever necessary.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I

2. a) As impounding reservoir had original storage capacity for 738 ha-m. The drainage area of
the reservoir is 80 sq.km. from which, annual sediment discharges into the reservoir at
the rate 0.1153 ha-m per sq.km. of the drainage area. Assuming the trap efficiency as
80 per cent, find the annual capacity loss of the reservoir in per cent per year.
b) Differentiate clear between the following :
i) A flood control reservoir and a multipurpose reservoir.
ii) Firm yield, design yield, and secondary yield of a reservoir.

3. Figures shows a section of a non overflow portion of a gravity dam built of concrete. Check
stability of the section for reservoir full conditions with uplift. For purpose of the check, assume
water level up to the top of the dam and no tail water. Neglect seismic forces. Assume 50%
uplift acting at a line of drain holes. Also find principal and shear stresses at the toe and heel
of the dam. Take unit weight of concrete as 24 kN/cubic meter, shear strength of concrete as
1400 kN/square meter and coefficient of friction = 0.7 .

3.5
m

7m

52.5 m

13

Set A

SLR-KM 44

-4-

*SLRKM44*

4. a) Draw a typical cross section of a zoned embankment type earth dam of 50 m height
indicating the various components of the dam. Discuss the significance of important
components.

b) Explain Swedish slip circle method of analyzing the stability of an earth dam slopes.

5. a) Write down an equation for calculating the discharging capacity of an ogee spillway. How
does the coefficient of discharge in this equation various with the :
i) depth of approach
ii) slope of upstream face of the ogee spillway
iii) submergence of the spillway by the tail water.

b) What is meant by a Dam sluice ? Why are such sluices necessary in dam construction ?

SECTION II
6. a) What are the main causes of failures of weirs on permeable foundations, and what remedies
would you suggest to prevent them ?

b) What are the different types of cross drainage works that are necessary on a canal
alignment ? State briefly the conditions under which each one is used.

7. a) How will you justify economically the necessity of lining an existing canal ? What added
benefits you will expect if the canal to be lined is new and yet to be constructed ?

b) What are saline lands ? How will you proceed to reclamation saline lands ?

8. a) How do you classify a hydro-electric schemes on the basis of its operating head ?

b) Write short notes on the following river training works :


i) Levees
ii) Repelling groynes.

9. a) Define and differentiate between the following in connection with hydropower :


i) Firm and secondary power.
ii) Design head, gross head, operating head and effective head.

b) A runoff river plant with an installed capacity of 15000 kW operates at 28% load factor
when it serves as peak load station. What should be the minimum discharge in the stream,
so that it may serve as a pea load station ? Also calculate the maximum load factor of the
plant when the discharge in the stream is 35 cumec. Assume plant efficiency as 80% and
working head as 20 m.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 45

*SLRKM45*
S

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory in Q. No. 1.


2) Solve any three questions from Section I and Q. No. 6 is
compulsory in Section II; solve any two questions from
Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
3) Assume suitable data whenever required.
4) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
5) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
6) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
7) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Write the correct option in your Answer Book.

(201=20)

1) Cyclone separator is a type of ________ collecting equipment.


a) Gaseous
b) Particulate
c) Liquid
d) Smog
2) _______ is very efficient in removing particles having size greater than 50 .
a) Cyclone
b) ESP
c) Gravity settling chamber
d) Spray tower


3) One of the important factors in ______________ is air to cloth ratio.


a) Cyclone
b) ESP
c) Fabric filter
d) Spray tower
4) The discharge electrode in ESP is ________ charged electrode.
a) Positively
b) Neutral
c) Negatively
d) None of these
5) Heat can be recovered from exhaust gas in case of ________ incineration.
a) Thermal
b) Catalytic
c) Flare
d) Recuperative
6) The term RPM2.5 indicates particles having size _______ 2.5 .
a) Equal to
b) Greater than
c) Less than
d) None of these


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 45

*SLRKM45*

-2-

7) Agricultural equipments are examples of ________ sources.


a) Off road or non-road
b) On road
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Stationary
8) Formation and destruction of ozone in the atmosphere can be explained by
______ reactions.
a) Hoffmann
b) Chapman
c) Dobson
d) Hudson
9) ________ of following is/are secondary pollutants.
a) Ozone
b) SO2
c) CO
d) All of above
10) ______ has tangential inlet.
a) Gravity chamber
b) ESP
c) Fabric filter
d) Cyclone separator
11) In GDM down wind direction is
a) x
b) y

c) z

d) none of these

12) _________ is fixed value compare to ELR.


a) DALR
b) Lapse rate
c) WALR
d) All of above
13) _________ stability condition corresponds to stable condition.
a) Super adiabatic
b) Sub adiabatic
c) Neutral
d) All of above
14) Loss of chlorophyll in tree leaves is called as
a) Epinasty
b) Abscission
c) Necrosis

d) Chlorosis

15) Hb present in blood has _________ times more affinity towards CO than O2.
a) 10
b) 100
c) 200
d) 2000
16) __________ measurements helps us to plot actual temperature profile (i.e.
ELR) of the atmosphere.
a) Wi-fi
b) Radiosonde c) Ultrasonic
d) Infrared
17) Meteorology is science of
a) Exosphere
b) Ionosphere

c) Atmosphere

18) Ozone is present in


a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere
19) Rainfall helps to __________ ambient air pollution.
a) Increase
b) Reduce
c) Balance

d) All of above
d) Thermosphere
d) None of these

20) Air pollution can be controlled by


a) Use of air pollution control equipment
b) Reducing use of fossil fuel
c) Creating awareness in public
d) All of above
______________
Set A

*SLRKM45*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 45

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I and Q. No. 6 is


compulsory in Section II; solve any two questions from
Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
2) Assume suitable data whenever required.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) With the help of neat graph discuss structure of atmosphere.
b) Explain the adiabatic cooling process. What is DALR ? What is its value ?
3. a) Define the terms :
i) Necrosis
ii) Chlorosis
iii) Epinasty
iv) Abscission
v) Smoke.
b) Determine the effective stack height given by following data :
i) Physical stack height = 208 m
ii) Inner dia. of stack = 1.07 m
iii) Air temp. = 23 C
iv) Barometric pressure = 1000 mbar
v) Stack gas velocity = 9.14 m/s
vi) Stack gas temperature = 149 C
vii) Wind velocity at stack top = 6 m/s.
4. a) Write a detailed note on MMD. Also explain what is MMMD.
b) Discuss in detail effects of air pollution on different materials.

5
8
5

6
7

Set A

SLR-KM 45

-4-

*SLRKM45*

5. Write short notes on any three of the following :


i) Effect of CO on human health.
ii) Heat island effect.
iii) Acid rain.
iv) Stability conditions.

14

SECTION II
Note that Q. No. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two questions from Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
6. a) Explain in detail Iso-kinetic sampling with neat sketches.

b) Explain following mechanisms :


i) Inertial impaction
ii) Direct interception
iii) Diffusion.

7. a) Explain working of spray tower with neat sketch.

b) A fabric filter is to be constructed using bags having 0.35 m diameter and 5 m


height. The bag house is to receive 10 m3/s of air and air to cloth ratio is
2 m/min. Determine the cloth area and number of bags required.
8. a) Write design procedure for design of bag house filter.
b) Enlist different gaseous controlling equipments. Discuss any one in detail.
9. Write short notes on any three of the following :

9
6
8
14

1) High volume sampler.


2) Catalytic incineration.
3) Standard cyclone.
4) Air pollution index and methods.
_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 46

*SLRKM46*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : DESIGN OF FOUNDATIONS (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Answer any three questions from each Section.
4) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and mention it clearly.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Give the correct option for following MCQ. Sr. No. 1 to 10 carries 1 marks each and
Sr. No. 11 to 15 carries 2 marks each.
20
1) Terzaghis analysis assumes that
a) the soil is homogeneous and isotropics
b) failure zones do not extend above the horizontal plane through the base of the
footing
c) the elastic zones has the straight boundaries inclined at = to the horizontal
and the plastic zones that are fully developed
d) all of these
2) Find the correct statement from the following
a) terzaghis theory is applicable when the base of the footing is rough
b) a foundation is considered shallow if its depth is less than 1m
c) the presumptive bearing capacity is the same as allowable bearing capacity
d) none of these
3) Geophysical surveys are not useful for
a) large areas
b) complex boundary layers
c) underground cavities
d) locating water tables
4) Sand drains are provided
a) to accelerate the consolidation process
b) to increase the rate of gain of shear strength
c) in saturated clays,
d) for all of these
5) If a footing support more than two columns in a line then it is called
a) Strap footing
b) Cantilever footing
c) Strip footing
d) None

P.T.O.

SLR- KM 46

*SLRKM46*

-2-

6) Resonance is produced when the operating frequency


a) equals natural frequency
b) is very high
c) is very less
d) is less than natural frequency
7) Maximum settlement for raft foundation on clay is limited to
a) 40 65 mm
b) 65 100 mm c) 40 120 mm
d) 65 165 mm
8) Due to negative skin friction on a pile the load carrying capacity of the pile
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Depends on diameter of pile
d) Depends on length of pile
9) The bottom plug in a well foundation is usually made up of
a) Brick masonry
b) RCC
c) Cement concrete
d) None
10) For damped vibration
a) T =
c) T =

2D
n 1 D

b) T =

2D

d) T =

n 1 D

2
n 1 D2
2
n 1 D

11) A vibrating system is said to be overdamped when


a) C < 2mn

b)

c
K
<
2m
m

c) C > 2mn

d)

c
K
=
2m
m

12) Load carrying capacity of friction piles in clay is 200 kN. The total load carrying
capacity of a group of 9 such piles with unknown efficiency
a) 1800 kN
b) More than 1800 kN
c) Less than 1800 kN
d) Either b or c
13) In a plate-load test, the load is applied in one of the following increments of load
a) 1/30th
b) 1/20th
c) 1/10th
d) 1/5th
14) Choose the correct net safe bearing capacity equation for a square footing if a
foundation goes to a depth Df, the factor of safety is F and B is the width of the
footing :
1
1
1.3 CNc + Df (Nq 1) + 0.4BN b)
1.3 CNc + Df (Nq 1) + 0.5BN

F
F
1
CNc + Df (Nq 1) + 0.4 BN
c)
d) none of these

F
15) The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is 310 kN/m2, the depth of foundation is
0.8 m and is 20 kN/m2. If the factor of safety is 3, what will be the net safe
bearing capacity ?
a) 98.00 kN/m2
b) 98.86 kN/m2
c) 100.98 kN/m2 d) 100.86 kN/m2
a)

______________
Set A

*SLRKM46*

-3-

SLR- KM 46

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : DESIGN OF FOUNDATIONS (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from each Section.


2) Make suitable assumption if necessary and mention it clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. A) Explain the effect of water table on the bearing capacity.
B) A square footing has to carry load of 1500 kN. Find size of footing for FOS of 2.5.
The depth of foundation is 2m. Soil has following properties.

G = 2.6, e = 0.6, Sr = 5, = 30and C = 10 kN/m2


What will be safe bearing capacity of soil for above case if voids ratio of soil is 0.8
instead of 0.6. Find the size of the footing in this case. Take Nc = 37.5, Nq = 22.5.
and N = 19.7.

3. A) Explain the circumstances under which strap footing is used.

B) A RCC column of size 700700 mm and 500500 mm are carrying axial load of
1200 kN and 800 kN respectively. These columns are spaced 3.5 m apart. The
SBC of soil = 200 kN/m2. Use M 20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. Design combined
rectangular footing. The cantilever portion available from centre line of column
700700 mm upto property line is 1.5 m.
4. A) What is the coefficient of subgrade reaction ? On what factors does it depend ?
B) Describe conventional method of design of raft foundation.
5. Write a note on any four :

7
5
7
16

a) Local shear failure.


b) Suitability of raft foundation.
c) Requirement of CNS soil.
d) Provisions for foundations on expansive soil.
e) Plate load test.

Set A

SLR- KM 46

-4-

*SLRKM46*

SECTION II
6. A) Describe various factors governing the spacing of piles in a group.

B) What is group efficiency of pile group ? On which factor it depends ? How to find
group efficiency ?

7. A) What do you understand by scour depth and grip length ? What is its importance in
well foundation ?

B) Describe various components of well foundation by typical sketch. Write about the
design guidelines for these components.

8. A) Describe various types of machine foundation.


B) Discuss the criteria for satisfactory performance of machine foundation.
9. Write a note on any four :

5
7
16

a) Negative skin friction.


b) Under reamed pile.
c) Suitability of drilled pier.
d) Vibration isolator.
e) Types of machine foundation.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM-47

*SLRKM47*
S

Set
t

B.E (Civil) (Part I) Old Examination, 2015


MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Duration : 30 Minutes

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. 1 is compulsory. It should be sloved in first 30 minutes in answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Solve any two questions from each Section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative : (one mark each)


1) Classification method is method of
a) Merit rating
b) TQM

c) Job evaluation

d) None

2) The work sampling technique is also called as


a) Method study
b) Ratio sampling
c) Activity sampling
d) None
3) Method study is related to
a) To improve effectiveness of workers
b) To improve production and effectiveness
c) To improve method of production
d) All of these
4) The Aspect which are considered before selecting a job in method study are
a) Managerial aspect
b) Quality development aspect
c) Human reactions
d) All of these
5) Outline (operation) process chart includes
a) Survey and records of overall processes
b) All the events
c) Activity of the operator
d) Activity of the left hand and right hand of an operator
6) Time study is a
a) Productivity measurement system
c) Method study

b) Work measurement technique


d) Time estimation

7) Standard time = Allowance +


a) Standard method
c) Basic time

b) Standard procedure
d) Standard rating
P.T.O.

SLR-KM-47

*SLRKM47*

-2-

8) Direct incentive are


a) Paid to group of workers
c) Direct monetary payment

b) Paid to an individual worker


d) Social benefits

9) The successful application of work study is related to


a) Relation between management and workers
b) Relation between employer and workers
c) Relation between workers representative and workers
d) All of these
10) Confidence level of _________ signifies that the work study engineer is sure that _________
of the times the random observation will represent the true facts.
a) 95.45% and 95.45%
b) 95.45% and 98.80%
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
F

. Were q represents

11) n =


a) Percentage of occurrence
c) Percentage of normal time

b) Percentage of working time


d) None of these

12) The PDCA cycle is


a) Produce, develop, create, action
c) Produce, do, check, act

b) Plan, develop, check, action


d) Plan, do check, act

13) Juran Trilogy based on quality planning, quality improvement and


a) Quality measurement
b) Quality control
c) Quality system
d) Quality cost
14) PDCA cycle is developed by
a) J.M. Juran
c) Kaizen

b) W. Edward Deming
d) None of these

15) _________ technique is the identification of materials, equipment, tools, data and information
are arranged systematically.
a) Seiko
b) Seiton
c) Seiso
d) Seiketsu
16) If the part of the system fails, there is an alternate success path is provided that is called
as
a) Reliability
b) Redundancy
c) FMEA
d) POF
17) The symbols are used in FTA are grouped as events, gates and
a) Main
b) Exclusive
c) Transfer

d) AND

18) The use of value engineering is


a) Balance the cost and performance
c) Prevent ever design of component

b) Cost reduction technique


d) All of these

19) The value analysis is applied to


a) Existing product
c) Specification of product

b) Development stage product


d) All of these

20) Percentage of working time is represented by letter


a) P
b) q
c) n
______________

d)


Set A

*SLRKM47*
S

-3-

SLR-KM-47

B.E (Civil) (Part I) Old Examination, 2015


MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) Solve any two questions from each Section.


2) Figure to the right indicate full maks.
3) Assume suitalbe data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. a) Enlist the different steps in method study. Explain any one in detail.
b) Explain in detail PMTS.

10
10

3. a) Discuss the importance of Job Evaluation.

10

b) In an eight hour day, it was found that the normal time was only 400 minutes. Assuming
that the remaining time is meant for rest and personal needs etc, determine the standard
time per article if the normal time per article is 1.5 min.
Also find the number of articles produced per day.
4. a) Discuss the contribution of Deming in TQM.
b) What is the role of trade union in work study.

10
10
10

SECTION II
5. a) Discuss purpose and principles of work sampling.
b) Explain the use of Control Charts with respect to work sampling.
6. a) Discuss the types of failures in reliability analysis.
b) Comment on reliability design.

10
10
10
10

7. a) Explain the procedure of Value Analysis.


b) Discuss Types of Values.

10
10

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 48

*SLRKM48*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : ADVANCED CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries two mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(102=20)

1) If the slump of the concrete mix is 75 mm, its workability is considered to be


a) Very high
b) High
c) Medium
d) Low
2) Fineness of cement is done by the sieve
a) 600
b) 300
c) 150

d) 90

3) Which of the following statement (s) is correct ?


a) The use of larger size and/or rounded aggregate gives higher workability
b) For the same water content, use of finer sand increases the workability
c) The grading of fine aggregate is more critical than the grading of coarse
aggregate for workability
d) For high-strength concrete a coarser grading is preferred
4) The porosity of concrete depends largely upon
a) Cement content
b) Grading of aggregate
c) Quantity of mixing water
d) Degree of compaction
5) True slump shows characteristic of
a) homogenous material
c) segregation

b) non cohesive material


d) bleeding

6) To calculate tensile strength of concrete from the compressive strength, the


following formula may be used
a) 5000 fck

b) 0.7 fck

c) 200 KN / mm2

d) 0.27 fck
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 48

*SLRKM48*

-2-

7) The characteristic strength of concrete is defined as the strength of the concrete


below which not more than _______ of the test results are expected to fall.
a) 20 %
b) 10 %
c) 5 %
d) 0 %
8) Volume of one bag of cement is taken as
a) 35 liters
b) 70 liters
c) 35 m3
d) 70 m3
9) Segregation in concrete results in
a) Porous layers
c) Sand streaks
10) Initial setting time is maximum for
a) Protland-pozzolana cement
c) Low-heat portland cement

b) Honeycombing
d) Surface scaling
b) Protland-slag cement
d) High strength portland cement

______________

Set A

*SLRKM48*

-3-

SLR-KM 48

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : ADVANCED CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Solve any three questions from each Section.


Figures to right indicate full marks.
Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I

1. a) What is meant by a retarder ?


b) Explain the mechanism of action of retarders.

4
10

2. a) What is slump loss ?


b) Give examples of mineral additives. How it affects the workability of concrete.

4
9

3. Explain specific differentiation between High performance concrete and High strength
concrete.
13
4. What is self compacting concrete ? Explain why vibrator is not needed for self
compacting concrete.

13

SECTION II
5. a) Comment on the relation between the maximum aggregate size and the pipe
diameter.
b) What are the particular problems in pumping lightweight aggregate concrete ?

4
10

6. a) What are the advantages of placing concrete by pumping ?


b) Describe wet-process shotcreting.

4
9

7. What are the advantages and the disadvantages of using ready-mixed concrete ?

13

8. a) List the tools for quality management.


b) What are the causes for deterioration and distress in structures ? Describe each
cause.
_____________________

4
9

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 49

*SLRKM49*
S

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : ADVANCED DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks :100

Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. While solving MCQ IS 800 and IS 811 are
not allowed to refer.
Write the correct option of each question.
Answer any two questions from each Section.
Draw neat sketches where required and assume suitable data with
clear notification.
Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget
to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

I. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The thickness of gusset plate in heavy truss bridges is kept in between


a) 10 mm to 12 mm
b) 20 mm to 22 mm
c) 14 mm to 16 mm
d) None of these

2) The approximate methods of analyzing the multi storey buildings are still adopted even
when large size and high speed computers are available because the approximate
methods
a) Are easy and quick methods
b) Give the guidelines to select the initial size of members
c) Give fairly correct results
d) Give quite rough results
3) When all beams and columns of a multistory steel building can carry bending moment,
shear force and axial thrust, such building is known as
a) Rigid frame
b) Building bent c) Bent
d) All of above

4) Which of the following are approximate method of analysis of multistory steel building
subjected to lateral loads is more accurate as compared to other approximate methods ?
a) Portal Method
b) Cantilever Method
c) Factor Method
d) None of these

5) Which of the following statement is wrong in the portal method of analysis of a multistory
steel building subjected to lateral loads ?
1
a) A point of contraflexure occurs at the centre of each beam
b) A point of contraflexure occurs at the centre of each column
c) The total horizontal shear at each storey is distributed between the columns of that storey
d) The axial stress in each column of a storey is proportional to the horizontal distance of
the column from centre of gravity of all the columns of the storey under consideration
6) Truss girder bridges are also known as
a) Open web girder bridges
b) Lattice girder bridges
c) Triangulated framed structures
d) All of these

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 49

*SLRKM49*

-2-

7) The steel sheets used for light gauge steel members confirm to
a) IS : 1079-1973 b) IS : 1893-2002 c) IS : 456-2000 d) IS : 800-2007

8) Spacing of anchors when used alone shall not be less than __________ times the depth
of the slab and shall not be greater than _________ times depth of the slab.
a) 0.7, 2.0
b) 0.9, 2.5
c) 0.8, 3.0
d) 0.5, 2.0

9) Which of the following is not true with regards to the assumptions made in the plastic
analysis ?
1
a) The deformation and strains are small
b) Plane section before bending remains plane after bending
c) Cross section of the member is symmetrical about an axis in the plane perpendicular to
the plane of bending
d) Stress-strain curve is an ideal elasto-plastic curve
10) The light gauge steel members are
a) Hot rolled steel members
c) Forms form thick plates

b) Cold formed steel members


d) Made from thick sheets

11) The shape or form factor is introduced in the design of compression members to represent
the effect of
a) Diagonal buckling b) Post buckling c) Local buckling d) Vertical buckling

12) A frame has an indeterminacy of 2 the number of possible plastic hinges are 3. The collapse
will be
1
a) Partial
b) Complete
c) Over complete d) Cannot be ascertained
13) The shape factor in plastic method of analysis depends on
a) Yield stress of material
b) Hinge length
c) Geometry of the section
d) Redistribution of moments

14) Usually stronger constituent of a composite is


a) Matrix
b) Reinforcement
c) Both are of equal strength
d) Cant define

15) Composite materials are classified based on


a) Type of matrix
b) Size-and-shape of reinforcement
c) Both
d) None

16) The collapse load for the following beam is


a) 0.75 Mp
b) Mp/l
c) 2 Mp/l

d) 1.5 Mp/l

Figure 2
17) A propped cantilever beam of span L and constant plastic moment capacity Mp carries a
concentrated load at mid span, then the load at collapse will be
a) 2 Mp/L
b) 4 Mp/L
c) 6 Mp/L
d) 11.76 Mp/L

_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM49*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 49

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : ADVANCED DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.


2) Use of IS 800, IS 811 steel table and non-programmable calculator is
allowed.
3) Draw neat sketches where required and assume suitable data with
clear notification.
SECTION I
II. The effective span of a through type girder railway bridge is 52 m for a single lane B.G. track.
The cross girders a speed at 4.5 m apart. The stringers are spaced at 2.5 m between centre
line. The weight of stock and check rails are 0.5 kN/m and 0.4 kN/m. Sleepers are placed
0.55 m c/c. Weight of P.S.C. sleepers is 25 kN/m3. The main girders are provided at 4.5 m
apart, determine the design forces in top, bottom, vertical and diagonal members of central
panel. Design the bottom member and vertical member. The bridges is to carry a equivalent
U.D.L. line load of 3800 kN for B.M. and 4200 kN for shear force.

20

III. Determine the shears and moments in columns and beams of a building frame with moment
resisting joints in Figure 1, by cantilever method. Assume the are of bottom storey column as
2A and the area of top storey column as A.

20

Figure 1
Set A

SLR-KM 49

-4-

*SLRKM49*

IV. a) Write on special design considerations for light gauge steel compression element.

b) Write on design procedure for light gauge beams.

c) A hot section 100 mm 50 mm 4 mm with lip 22 mm is to be used as a concentrically


loaded column of 3 m effective length. Determine the allowable load.

10

SECTION II
V. a) Design a cased column to carry a load of 1200 kN. The effective length of column is 4 m. 10
b) Design a composite foot bridge having clear width of 3 m and effective span of 15 m.
The bridge is to be designed foe live load of 4 kN/m2. Assume kerb 40 cm 30 cm and
two steel girders at 1.8 m c/c are provided.

10

VI. a) Explain different collapse mechanisms.

b) A fixed beam of span 4.8 m carries a uniform distributed load 5 kN/m on the right hand 4 m
portion of the beam. The load factor is 1.75 and the shape factor is 1.15. The yield stress
is 250 MPa. Calculate the section modulus of the beam and locate the position of plastic
hinges.
12
VII. a) Write the design procedure of composite beams.

b) Determine the values of fully plastic moment of the frame, when loaded up to portal collapse.
The portal frame has vertical layer AB = 3 m, CD = 5 m and horizontal portion BC = 5.5 m.
The end A is fixed and is also fixed. A horizontal load of 30 kN towards B is acting at B and
a vertical load of 45 kN acting downwards is a 2.2 m from B on BC portion. The plastic
moment of the frame is uniform throughout. Draw BMD also.

14

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 50

*SLRKM50*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015
OPEN CHANNEL AND RIVER HYDRAULICS (Old) (Elective I)

Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) Specific force represents the sum of the pressure force and
a) momentum flux per unit weight
b) datum head
c) momentum flux and datum head
d) none
2) A flood wave while passing down a river section protected by embankment, spills over
the embankment at certain locations. The flow is classified as
a) steady GVF
b) unsteady RVF
c) steady SVF
d) unsteady SVF
3) The momentum correction factor is given as
a)

1
3
v dA
V3A

b)

1
2
v dA
V2 A

c)

1
vdA
VA

d) None

4) Flow takes place over spillway crest which can be assumed to be an arc of a circle at a
depth y0. The pressure at any point on the crest will be
b) < y 0 cos
a) y 0 cos
c) always zero
d) below atmospheric pressure

5) In a rectangular channel the alternate depths are 1.0 m and 2.0 m respectively. The
specific energy head in meter is
a) 3.38
b) 1.33
c) 2.33
d) 3.0
6) In defining Froudes number applicable to open channels of any shape, the length parameter
used is the
a) ratio of area to the top width
b) ratio of area to netted perimeter
c) depth of flow
d) square root of area
7) The direct step method is
a) best suited for natural channels
b) accurate for all step sizes
c) most accurate to calculate super critical flow profiles
d) none
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 50

*SLRKM50*

-2-

8) A Hydraulic Jump occurs when there is a break in grade from a


a) mild slope to steep slope
b) steep slope to mild slope
c) steep slope to steeper slope
d) none
9) If the froudes number is 5.50 it can be clasified as
a) oscillating jump
b) weak jump
c) strong jump

d) steady jump

10) Shields diagram is a plot of non dimensional shear stress c against


a) Reynolds number
b) Relative depth
c) Shear Reynolds number
d) Hydraulic radius
11) The size dc of sediment particle that will just remain at rest in bed of wide rectangular
channel equal to
a) 11 D So

b) 10.8 D

So

1
3

c) 11 RSo

d) 1

11

1
2

12) Bed load is term used to describe


a) combination of contact load and wash load
b) combination of contact load and saltation load
c) combination of contact load and suspended load
d) the bed material load
13) The Laceys equation for a regime channel consists of a set of x independent equation
relating to the flow, where x equal to
a) 1
b) 3
c) 8
d) 2
14) The mean velocity in a Lacey regime channel is proportional to
1

c) So

1
2

a) R 3
b) R 2
15) Velocity of flow is measured by
a) orificemeter
c) pivot point method

b) current meter
d) none

16) Rivers generally form meanders in


a) delta stage of river
c) boulder stage of river

b) trough stage of river


d) none

17) River plains are made up of


a) Red soils
b) Alluvium

c) Black soils

d) So

1
3

d) None

18) Dynamic similarity between the model and prototype is the


a) Similarity of motion
b) Similarity of length
c) Similarity of forces
d) None
19) Eulers number is the square root of the ratio of the inertia force to
a) pressure force
b) gravity force
c) surface tension force
d) elastic force
20) Standard step method aims to solve
a) Differential equation of GVF
c) Bernoulli equation

b) Differential energy equation of GVF


d) Momentum equation

______________
Set A

*SLRKM50*

-3-

SLR-KM 50

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


OPEN CHANNEL AND RIVER HYDRAULICS (Old) (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :

24

a) The velocity distribution in a rectangular channel of width B and depth yo was approximated
as v = k1 y where k1 = a constant. Calculate the average velocity for the cross section
and correction coefficients 1 & .
b) Explain the concept of specific energy and critical depth.
c) Derive Chezys formula.
d) Derive the equation for energy loss through Hydraulic Jump starting from first principle.
e) A 3.6 m wide rectangular channel conveys 10 m3/s of water with velocity of 6 m/s.
Is there formation of Hydraulic Jump if yes calculate height, length and strength of Jump
and what is loss of energy per kg of water.
3. Attempt any two :

16

a) What is meant by Hydraulic Jump ? Derive the expression for it. (Draw a neat sketch).
b) A very wide rectangular channel carries a discharge of 3.1 m3/s/m at a depth of 2m due to
weir across the channel water level raises by 2.0 m. Locate the point upstream of the weir
where the depth is 3.0 m take bed slope as 1:4900 and C = 50 using step method classify
water surface profile also.
c) For a Trapezoidal channel of most economical section prove that,
i) Half of top width = length of one of sloping side
ii) Hydraulic mean =

1
Depth of flow depth.
2

Set A

SLR-KM 50

-4-

*SLRKM50*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any two :

16

a) A 1:5 scale model of a passenger car is tested in a wind tunnel. The prototype velocity is
50 km/hr. If the model drag is 200 N, what is the power and drag required to overcome the
drag in the prototype ? Viscosity assumed same in both.
b) Explain Laceys regime channel write in detail, design procedure for Laceys theory.
c) 1) What do you understand by river training work ? Explain its types.
2) Explain the terms; Suspended load, Bed load and Threshold motion of the sediment.
5. Attempt any four :

24

a) Draw a neat sketch of current meter and explain its working in detail.
b) Discuss the mechanics involved in sediment transport and the shields method for
design of channel.
c) Explain River meandering and what are its causes.
d) Explain with neat sketches, types of SPURS which are commonly used for controlling
and training Indian rivers.
e) Oil of kinematic viscosity 5 105 m2/s is to be used in the prototype in which both
gravity and viscous forces are important. What should be the viscosity of liquid used in
dynamically similar model of scale 1:9 and find discharge ratio and time ratio for this
model.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 51

*SLRKM51*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES I (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget
to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) IS 456-2000 is not allowed to refer while solving MCQ in First 30 minutes.
4) Use of Original IS 456 and non programmable calculator is allowed while
solving design problems.
5) Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
I.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer :


1) The limiting moment of resistance of singly reinforced beam of size 200 mm 500 mm (effective)
is ________ , reinforced with Fe415 and M15 concrete.
a) 103.5 kN
b) 69 kn m
c) 90 kN m
d) 235.4 kN m

2) A singly reinforced beam is of effective depth 500 mm. If M20 and Fe500 is used and factored
moment of resistance is 149 kN m, the width of the beam is ________.
a) 200 mm
b) 300 mm
c) 225 mm
d) 456 mm

3) An RC beam of width 230 mm and effective depth 450 mm is subjected to a factored shear force of
50 kN. M20 grade concrete is used for the beam. Maximum allowable shear stress is 2.8 Mpa. The
shear resistance of the beam is 0.75 Mpa. For reinforcement 8 mm diameter two legged mild steel
stirrups are used. The spacing of shear reinforcement in the beam is
a) 100 mm c/c
b) 150 mm c/c
c) 175 mm c/c
d) 230 mm c/c
4) The neutral axis of a T-beam exists _________
a) within the flange
c) below the slab

2
1

b) at the bottom edge of the slab


d) all the above

5) An R.C.C. beam of size 300 mm 600 mm is subjected to factored values of shear force 100 kN,
B.M of 100 kN m and ultimate torsional moment is 68 kN m, Longitudinal compression
steel shall be designed for a moment of ___________ kN m.
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 68

6) An RC short column with 300 mm 300 mm square is made of M20 concrete and has 4 numbers of
20 mm dia. longitudinal bars of Fe 415 steel. It is under the action of a concentric axial compressive
load. Ignoring the reduction in the area of concrete due to steel bars, the ultimate load carrying
capacity of the short column is __________
a) 1659 kN

b) 1548 kN

2
c) 1198 kN

d) 1069 kN

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 51

*SLRKM51*

-2-

7) Design of a two way slab simply supported on edges and having no provision to prevent the corners
from lifting, is made by __________

a) Rankine formula

b) Rankine-Grashoff formula

c) Marcus formula

d) Rankine-Marcus formula

8) A rectangular section 300 mm 700 mm overall dimensions. 30 mm effective cover to compression


and tension steel is reinforced with 4 bars of 20 mm dia. in tension and 2 bars of 20 mm dia. in
compression respectively. Grade of steel used is Fe415 and grade of concrete M25. The actual
depth of neutral axis is _________ assuming compression steeel also yielded.
a) 83 mm

b) 74 mm

c) 93 mm

d) 105 mm

9) A T-beam with effective width of flange 740 mm; effective depth 400 mm; width of web 240 mm;
depth of flange is 100 mm; reinforced with 4 bars of 25 mm dia. HYSD, Fe415 and M20 concrete,
the ultimate moment of resistance will be _________
a) 140 kNm

b) 100 kNm

c) 200 kNm

2
d) 243 kNm

10) The ultimate load carrying capacity of a circular section of 300 mm dia. with helical reinforcement
using one percentage of reinforcement and M20 concrete and Fe415 grade steel is ___________
a) 360 kN

b) 1000 kN

c) 100 kN

d) 794 kN

11) Factored load carrying capacity of a column of 300 mm 600 mm size with minimum percentage of
steel is __________ (M20 and Fe 415)
a) 1840 kN

b) 180 kN

2
c) 1829 kN

d) none

______________

Set A

*SLRKM51*

-3-

SLR-KM 51

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES I (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.


2) Use of Original IS 456 and non programmable calculator is allowed while
solving design problems.
3) Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly.
4) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I
II. A floor consist of 125 mm thick slab monolithically constructed with 350 mm wide beams spaced at 3.5 m
centre to centre. The effective span of beam is 5 m. The slab is subjected to a superimposed load of
5 kN/m2. Design an intermediate beam for flexure. Use M25 concrete and Fe415 steel.

14

III. Design a cantilever slab for an overhang of 1.25 m. The imposed load on slab consists of 1.5 kN/m2 of
live load and weight of finishing is 750 N/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.

13

IV. Find the factored moment of resistance of an R.C.C. beam 300 mm 450 mm (effective). The beam is
reinforced with 4 25 mm dia. bars in the tension zone. 2 20 mm dia. bars are placed at a distance of
50 mm from top in compression zone. Use M25 and Fe500 steel.

13

V. Design the rectangular beam resting on 300 mm wide wall with a clear span of 5.5 m. The superimposed
load on the beam is 14 kN/m. Effective cover to reinforcement is taken as 50 mm. Use M25 concrete
and Fe415 steel.

13

SECTION II
VI. Design a circular column with helical reinforcement of diameter 450 mm subjected to a load of 1200 kN.
The column is 3 m long and is effectively held in position and restrained against rotation in both ends.
Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.

13

VII. Design a rectangular beam, continuous over four column supports of effective spans 6 m. The beam is
subjected to an dead load of 10 kN/m and live load of 15 kN/m. Use M20 concrete and Fe500 steel.

14

VIII. Determine the reinforcement required for a beam size 300 mm X 550 mm subjected to a bending
moment 120 kNm, shear force 75 kN and torsional moment of 60 kNm. Use M25 concrete and Fe415
steel.

13

IX. a)

b)

A reinforced concrete column of 3.5 m long and effectively held in position at both ends, restrained
against rotation at one end. carry an axial load of 1500 kN. Design the column using M20 concrete
and Fe415 steel.

A column has size 230 mm 400 mm has effective length of 3.5 m and is subjected to a factored
axial load 1000 kN and a factored uniaxial moment of 142 kN-m about the major axis. Design the
column using M25 concrete and Fe500 steel. By providing the steel on two sides only. Refer Fig. No.1.
Assume the distance between extreme fibre and centre of reinforcement as 40 mm.

Set A

SLR-KM 51

-4-

*SLRKM51*

Compression with bending. Reinforcement Distributed Equally on Two Sides.

_____________________

Fig. No. 1

Set A

SLR-KM 52

*SLRKM52*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5
and any two out of Q. 6 to Q. 8.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) In a bath room 2100 mm 1200 mm 2100 mm glazed tiles are fixed (Dado) upto roof
level if door 750 mm 2100 mm and a top hung window 1200 mm 600 mm are provided
glazing tiles, work to be paid shall be
b) 11.565 m2
c) 14 m2
d) None of these
a) 13.86 m2
2) In the above problem sequence of operation shall be
a) Dash the plaster, leave rough creations and fix the tiles
b) Fix the tiles directly on brickwork
c) Dash the plaster, finish it with neeru/lime punning and then fix the tiles
d) None of these
3) Curing of concrete is to be done after
a) Initial setting time of cement
c) Final setting of the cement

b) 12 hours after casting the concrete


d) None of these

4) At the worksite slump test is taken after recording the slump the same concrete can be
a) Poured in Slab/beam/column/foundation b) Poured in the mixer and reused
c) Thrown out in the debris
d) None of these
5) Impulse of the needle vibrator used for concrete compacting per min shall be
a) 3600
b) 1000
c) 100
d) None of these
6) Screed vibrators are used for
a) Foundation concrete
c) Industrial shed flooring

b) Concrete roads
d) Both b) and c)

7) The total quantity of excavation in m3 for well foundation with 3.5 m diameter and 10 m
height is
a) 96.25
b) 122.5
c) 385
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 52

*SLRKM52*

-2-

8) While preparing an estimate, the details of a specialized item or special work done by
specialists are not known. Some amount is provided in the estimate or bill of quantities for
such items. It is called
a) Provisional sum
b) Provisional quantities
c) Prime cost
d) None of these
9) A rolling shutter with size 3000 mm 2400 mm is painted on both sides. Quantity of
painting in m2 =
a) 7.2
b) 14.4
c) 36
d) None of these
10) Number of bricks required for 10 m3 quantity brickwork IInd class 1 : 5 cement mortar in
superstructure is
a) 5000
b) 5050
c) 5555
d) 5500
11) The specifications clearly illustrate the ___________ of the item.
a) Quality
b) Quantity
c) Workmanship

d) Both a) and c)

12) The formula for finding quantity of rectangular isolated footing with dome portion is
b) (h/3)*(A + a + (A*a))
a) (h/6)*(Atop + Abottom + 4*Amean)
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
13) I.S. brick size in mm is
a) 90 90 200
c) 90 90 190

b) 100 90 210
d) 100 100 190

14) Depreciation is considered normally for a building per year is __________% cost of the
building.
a) 1
b) 10
c) 25
d) 50
15) If UCR masonry 10 m3 is to be constructed quantity of rubble required in m3 will be
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 15
16) In the above problem if wall thickness is 500 mm and height of masonry is 2000 mm the
number of headers required will be
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) None of these
17) French polishing is to be done for teakwood frame and shutter, polishing is to be done at
a) night
b) bright sunshine
c) weather is cloudy
d) any time
18) In PWD setup the executive engineer reports
a) Dy. Executive Engineer
b) Assistant Executive Engineer
c) Superintending Engineer
d) Both a) and b)
19) An elevated storage reservoir having 50 KL capacity and 20 m staging is to be constructed.
The tenders for the job can be called in the form
a) % rate tender
b) Item rate tender
c) Lump sum
d) Any of these
20) In a roadwork if formation width is 10000 mm and side slopes 2 horizontal 1 vertical are
provided if average height of bank work is 1000 mm, then for 100 m length of the road
earth work in banking in m3 will be
a) 1200
b) 120
c) 1000
d) None of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM52*

-3-

SLR-KM 52

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5


and any two out of Q. 6 to Q. 8.
2) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.

2. Figure shows the plan and sectional details of a two roomed building. Estimate the quantities
of the following items in measurement sheet.
a) Ist Class Brick work in cement mortar 1 : 4 in Superstructure. Assume Door of
900 mm 2100 mm, Windows of 900 mm 1200 mm and Shelves of
900 mm 2100 mm 150 mm.

b) DPC.

3. Explain :
a) What do you mean by Preliminary Estimates ? Explain the circumstances under which
such estimates are prepared.

b) What are Overhead charges relevant to Civil Engineering ?

4. A) Write the detailed specifications for

a) Providing and constructing 1st class brickwork in cement mortar in Superstructure.


b) 25 mm thick cement plaster in CM 1 : 4 with neat cement finish for walls of underground
storage reservoir.
B) Write note on Provisional quantities and Provisional sums.
5. A) Calculate the unit rate by performing rate analysis for the following items :

5
8

a) Cement Concrete Floor 1 : 1.5 : 3.


b) 6 mm plastering 1 : 4 cement mortar.
B) Explain Long Wall Short Wall method of taking out quantities.

Set A

SLR-KM 52

-4-

*SLRKM52*

6. A) List types of Contract. Differentiate between item rate and % rate contract.

B) What is EMD and Security Deposit ? What is its significance in Tender Documents ?

7. A) What do you mean by valuation ? What is its necessity ? List various methods of valuation
and describe any one of them giving example.

B) Define :

1) Book value
2) Accommodation value
3) Speculation value
4) Scrap value
5) Potential value.
8. A) A machine was purchased for Rs. 5,00,000/- Assuming its salvage value at the end of
8th year as Rs. 1,00,000/-, Determine the book value at the end of 4th year. Assume 9%
rate of interest.

B) Explain Easement Rights.

9. A) A 25 year old property is fetching an annual rent of Rs. 4,500. The full life of building was
estimated as 80 years. Municiple tax is 6% of rental income. The water and sanitary
charges are paid at Rs. 50 and Rs. 115 every year. A repair charge of building is 15% of
rental income. The rate of interest for sinking fund is 5% and that for capitalization is 7%.
After full life replacement of building will cost Rs. 75,000. Cost of land at present is 12500
and scrap value of building after useful life is Rs. 1,500. Determine value of property.
B) Write note on free hold and lease hold properties.

9
5

Set A

*SLRKM52*

-5-

SLR-KM 52

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR- KM 53

*SLRKM53*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


EARTHQUAKE ENGG. (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
3) MCQ 1 and 10 carries one mark each and MCQ 11 to 15
carries two marks each.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The quantitative measure of an earthquake is
a) Seismic magnitude
b) Seismic damage to structures
c) Seismic intensity
d) Scale
2) The qualitative measure of an earthquake is
a) Seismic magnitude
b) Seismic damage to structures
c) Seismic intensity
d) Scale
3) The S-waves (secondary or shear waves) travel through
a) Solids only
b) Both solids and fluids
c) Fluids only
d) Gases
4) In which of the following cases, the dynamic system has no oscillation but
returns to equilibrium at a slower rate ?
a) Critically damped case
b) Over-damped case
c) Under-damped case
d) Undamped case
5) The damping in a dynamic system is represented as equivalent to
a) Coulomb damping
b) Viscous damping
c) Friction damping
d) Negative damping
P.T.O.

SLR- KM 53

*SLRKM53*

-2-

6) The response steadily decreases when the frequency ratio is


a) <1
b) >1
c) = 1
d) = 2
7) The response is maximum when
a) Damping ratio = 1
b) Frequency ratio = 1
c) Stiffness ratio = 1
d) Mass ratio = 1
8) With the increase in the stiffness of the structural system, the natural period
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Constant
9) Viscous damping is proportional to
a) Displacement b) Acceleration

c) Velocity

d) Amplitude

10) Most rigid element in the structure will receive


a) Least of the lateral load due to seismic action
b) Most of the lateral load due to seismic action
c) The same lateral load as that of any element, due to seismic action
d) Marginal of the lateral load due to seismic action
11) Moment-resistant rigid joints in the structure will
a) Increase the ductility of the structure
b) Decrease the ductility of the structure
c) Not affect the ductility of the structure
d) Maintain the ductility of the structure
12) In the moment-resistant rigid framing system, for better seismic resistance,
it is preferable to have
a) The moment capacity of column greater than that of the beam at the joint
b) The moment capacity of beam greater than that of the column at the joint
c) The moment capacity of beam equal to that of the column at the joint
d) The moment capacity of beam is not equal to that of the column at the
joint
13) The seismic weight for the class of LL = 3.5 kN/m2 is
a) W = DL + LL
b) W = DL + 0.5 LL
c) W = DL + 0.25 LL
d) W = 0.5 DL + 0.25 LL
14) The seismic weight for the class of LL = 2.0 kN/m2 is
a) W = DL + LL
b) W = DL + 0.5 LL
c) W = DL + 0.25 LL
d) W = 0.5 DL + 0.25 LL
15) The torsional irregularity in a plan will arise due to
a) Centre of stiffness not coinciding with the centre of mass
b) Centre of gravity not coinciding with the centre of mass
c) Centre of stiffness not coinciding with the centre of rigidity
d) Centre of stiffness coinciding with the centre of rigidity
______________

Set A

*SLRKM53*

-3-

SLR- KM 53

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


EARTHQUAKE ENGG. (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Solve any three questions from each Section.


Figures to right indicate full marks.
Use of only IS 1893 :2002 is allowed.
Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.

SECTION I
1. a) What is an earthquake ? How do human activities induce earthquake ?
b) Explain the plate tectonics theory and its mechanism.

4
10

2. a) What are the various types of dynamic loads ? State some of the
characteristics of seismic loads.
b) Write the equation of motion and determine the effective stiffness using the
basic definition of stiffness for the spring-mass systems shown in following fig.

4
9

3. Derive the governing differential equation of undamped forced vibration of a


SDOF system subjected to harmonic loading. Also obtain complete solution of
differential equation and plot graph of magnification factor vs frequency ratio r. 13
4. Discuss the following :
a) Response factors.
c) Resonance.

13
b)

Response spectra.
Set A

SLR- KM 53

-4-

*SLRKM53*

SECTION II
5. It is proposed to construct a R.C.C. three storied commercial building having
plan dimensions as shown in fig. 1 in zone III with following data. Determine the
lateral forces and base shear. The all column sizes are 300450 mm and beams
sizes are 230450 mm. The slab thickness is 120 mm and thk. of walls is
230 mm. The ht. of floor is 3.15 m and live load is 3.0 kN/m2 IS 13920 will not be
used. The strata is medium.
14

Figure no. 1 Q.5


6. a) State the assumptions made in the analysis of an earthquake resistant design
of building.
b) Discuss the factors required for accessing :
i) The lateral design forces.
ii) The design response spectrum.

7. a) What do you understand by ductility and what is its importance ?

b) State the reasons for the poor performances of masonry buildings in seismic
areas.
8. Describe the various earthquake resistant features that can be introduced in
masonry building to make it earthquake resistant.

7
13

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 54

*SLRKM54*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING II
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Draw neat labeled sketches wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer.
(120=20)
1) The capacity of a storage reservoir can be decided by using
a) the mass curve of inflow
b) the mass curve of outflow
c) by both a) and b)
d) none of the above
2) With the reduction in reservoir capacity over the passage of time, the trap efficiency
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) may increase or decrease, depending upon the reservoir characteristics
3) Economical height of a dam is that height, for which the
a) cost per unit of storage is minimum
b) benefit cost ratio is maximum
c) net benefits are maximum
d) none of the above
4) The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam, which should not be allowed
to exceed the permissible value of about 3000 kN/m2, while analyzing fill reservoir
case, is
a) the vertical maximum stress at the toe b) the major principal stress at the toe
c) the shear stress at the toe
d) none of the above
5) Transverse joints in concrete gravity dams are the
a) horizontal construction joints at each lift height
b) vertical construction joints full of height and width
c) diagonal construction joints for torsion
d) none of the above
6) When the water level standing against an earthen embankment, suddenly falls down,
then there is an imminent risk of sliding failure, to the
a) upstream slope
b) downstream slope c) both a) and b) d) none of these
7) If the operating head on an ogee spillway is more than the design head, then
a) the pressure on the spilway crest will be zero
b) the pressure on the spillway crest will be negative, causing cavitation
c) the pressure on the spillway crest will be positive
d) the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 54

-2-

*SLRKM54*

8) The W.E.S. downstream profile of an ogee spillway can be represented by an equation


(x/Hd)n = K(y/Hd); where the coefficients K and n for a vertical upstream spillway would,
respectively, be
a) 2.0 and 1.85
b) 0.5 and 1.85
c) 2.0 and 0.85
d) 0.5 and 0.85
where (x, y) are the coordinates on the crest profile with crest apex as origin
9) The canal, which can irrigate only on one side, is a
a) Watershed canal b) contour canal
c) side slope canal d) None of them
10) Lining of irrigation channels
a) increases water logging
b) increases channel cross section
c) increases command area
d) increase chances of breaching
11) Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
a) Intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas susceptible to water logging
b) Extensive irrigation should be adopted in areas susceptible to water logging
c) Lift irrigation can help alleviate water-logging susceptibilities
d) None of the above
12) Point out the incorrect statement, out of the following
a) Salinity is caused by water-logging
b) Water logging is not caused by salinity
c) Salinity subsidies, when once the water logging is removed
d) None of the above
13) In a meandering river reach, the deepest river potions will be available at
a) the crossings
b) the inner edges of meander loops
c) the outer edges of meander loops
d) none of the them
14) Aggrading rivers are
a) Silting rivers
b) Scouring rivers
c) rivers in regime
d) meandering rivers
15) The safety of a hydraulic structure founded on previous foundation can be ensured
a) by providing sufficient length of its concrete floor
b) by providing sufficient depth of its concrete floor
c) by providing a downstream cutoff of some reasonable depth
d) all of the above
16) The type of canal alignment, which involves maximum cross-drainage works, is a
a) ridge canal
b) contour canal
c) side slope canal d) all of the above
17) When an irrigation canal is taken over a drainage channel, the crossing is called
a) an aqueduct
b) a super passage
c) a level crossing d) none of them
18) Identify the correct statement in regard to hydropower
a) hydropower stations are generally labour oriented
b) gestation period for hydro-power plant is usually small
c) the hydro generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load
d) in a hydropower scheme, the firm power is usually high, as compared to toal power
19) Pondage requirement in a hydropower plant includes the need
a) to balance the varying demand
b) to compensate for wastage and spillage
c) to balance short time fluctuations in the flow
d) all of these
20) An impulse turbine, like a Peltons wheel, is used for
a) low heads and high discharges
b) high heads and low discharges
c) low heads and low discharges
d) high heads and high discharges
______________

Set A

*SLRKM54*

-3-

SLR-KM 54

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING II
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5) and


any three questions from Section II (Questions 6, 7, 8, 9).
2) Draw neat labeled sketches wherever necessary.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Discuss with a neat sketch, the various storage zones and control levels of
the dam reservoir.

b) What are the factors on which the rate of silting of an impounding reservoir depends ?
What is trap efficiency ? Discuss the principal measures that should be undertaken to
control the inflow sediment to an impounding reservoir.

3. a) What is meant by the elementary profile of a gravity dam and how is it deduced ? What
should be the maximum depth if elementary profile of a dam if the safe limit of stress on
the masonry should not exceed 1500 kN per m2 ?

b) Briefly explain the functions of the following :


i) Drainage gallery in a gravity dam
ii) Construction joints in a concrete gravity dam.

4. a) What precautions and remedial measures would you undertake to control the seepage
through earthen dam body and through the dam foundation.

b) What are rockfill dams and what are their advantages over earthen dams. Draw a near
sketch showing the cross section of a rock fill dam.

5. a) Discuss briefly the design principles that are involved in the design of an ogee
spillways.

b) Determine the discharge over a Chute spillway with Ogee Crest using the following data :
Length of spillway is 250 m, Height of spillway crest in front of at upstream approach
channel is 10 m. Width of approach channel is 250 m and depth of water over spillway
crest is 5 m.

Set A

SLR-KM 54

-4-

*SLRKM54*

SECTION II
6. a) State the fundamental difference between Khoslas theory and Blighs creep theory for
seepage below a weir.

b) What are the different types of cross drainage works that are necessary on a canal
alignment ? State briefly the conditions under which each one is used.

7. a) Explain with neat sketches the different types of spurs which are commonly used for
controlling and training Indian rivers ?

b) What is meant by water-logging ? What are its ill effects ? Describe some anti-waterlogging measures with suitable sketches.

8. a) Name the various types of canals which are required to be constructed while planning a
canal irrigation system.

b) How will you justify economically the necessity of lining an existing canal ? What added
benefits you will expect if the canal to be lined is new and yet to be constructed ?

9. a) Define and differentiate between the following in connection with hydropower.


i) Firm and secondary power
ii) Load factor and plant factor
iii) Installed capacity and dependable capacity of a power house.

b) Three turbo generators each of capacity 10000 kW have been installed at a hydel power
station. During a certain period of load, the load on the power plant varies from 1200 MW
to 26000 MW. Calculate
i) total installed capacity
ii) load factor
iii) plant factor
iv) utilization factor.

Set A

SLR-KM 55

*SLRKM55*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015
Elective I : OPEN CHANNEL AND RIVER HYDRAULICS

Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Flow takes place over spillway crest which can be assumed to be an arc of circle at a
depth y0, pressure at any point on the crest will be
a) < y 0 cos
c) alway zero

b) y0 cos
d) below atmospheric pressure

2) Specific force represents the sum of pressure force and


a) datum head
b) momentum flux per unit weight
c) momentum flux and datum head
d) none
3) The momentum correction factor is given as
a)

1
2

v A

2
v dA

b)

1
3

v A

3
v dA

c)

1
v dA
vA

d) None

4) The maximum velocity in open channel occurs


a) near channel bottom
b) at the free surface
c) little below the free surface
d) none
5) In a rectangular channel the alternate depths are 1.0 m and 2.0 m respectively. The
specific energy head in meter is
a) 3.38 m
b) 1.33 m
c) 3.0 m
d) 2.33 m
6) The direct step method is
a) best suited for natural channels
b) accurate for all step sizes
c) most accurate to calculate super critical flow profiles
d) none
7) Reynolds number is the ratio of inertia force to
a) Gravity force
b) Viscous force
c) Elastic force
d) Pressure force
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 55

*SLRKM55*

-2-

8) For best trapezoidal section


1
bed width
2
c) shape is of half hexagon

b) side slope = 45

a) depth of flow =

d) none

9) Loss of energy in Hydraulic Jump in rectangular channel is


a) (y 2 y1)3 / 4y1y 2

b) (y 2 y1)3 / 8y1y 2 c) (y 2 y1)3 / 2y1y 2 d) none

10) If the Froudes number is 9.2 then the jump is known as ________ jump.
a) steady
b) weak
c) oscillating
d) strong
11) In GVF if dy/dx is positive then dE/dx will be
b) always zero
a) positive if y > yc
c) always negative
d) negative if y > yc

12) A current meter measures the velocity of flow if it is held


a) at bottom surface
b) at the surface of channel
c) at the centroid of the section
d) at any point within the section
13) For triangular channel of side slopes M horizontal to 1 vertical the Froudes number is
given as Fr =
a)

M
gy

b)

c)

gy

14) River plains are up of


a) Black soils
b) Red soils

V 2
gy

c) Alluvium

d)

V
2gy

d) None

15) Bed load is the term used to describe combination of


a) contact load and saltation load
b) contact load and wash load
c) contact load and suspended load
d) only bed material load
16) Dynamic similarity between model and prototype is the similarity of
a) motion
b) forces
c) length
d) none
17) The mean velocity in Laceys regime channel is proportional to
1

a) R 2
b) R 3
c) SO 2
18) Extreme condition of the meanders is called as
a) cut-off
b) spurs
c) island

d) SO

1
3

d) none

19) River training works servers the following


a) Increase or decrease river discharge
b) protect river bed and banks
c) direct the river flow in desired direction
d) protect the surrounding land
20)

______________

Set A

*SLRKM55*

-3-

SLR-KM 55

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : OPEN CHANNEL AND RIVER HYDRAULICS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.


SECTION I
2. Attempt any four.

24

a) Define Kinetic energy correction factor () and momentum correction factor () and also
write their expressions.
b) A flow of 5.0 m3/s is passing at a depth of 1.5 m through a rectangular channel of width
3.0 m, if is 1.2 what is specific energy of flow ? What is the value of the depth alternate
to the existing depth if = 1.0 (assumed for alternate flow).
c) Derive the equation for energy loss through Hydraulic Jump starting from first principle.
d) The width of Horizontal rectangular channel is reduced from 4 m to 3 m and floor raised by
0.3 m in elevation. At upstream the depth of flow is 2.5 m and is 1.15. If the drop in
water surface elevation at the contraction is 0.20 m Calculate the discharge if
a) energy loss is neglected (Take = 1.0)
e) What is specific energy curve ? Show all details with neat figure.
3. Attempt any two.

16

a) Derive the equation for modified Gradually varied flow. Draw neat figure and show all
details.
b) A river 100 m wide and 3.0 m deep having slope 0.0005. Find the length of GVF profile
produced by low weir, by which water level raises by 1.5 m. Assume n = 0.035.
(Use direct step method and take two steps)
c) What do you mean by most economical section of open channel and show that for
trapezoidal section.
Length of one of sloping side =

1
of top width.
2

Set A

SLR-KM 55

*SLRKM55*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four.

24

a) What do you understand by river training works ? Explain its types with example.
b) Define similitude and types of similarities and derive Reynolds model law and state where
it is used.
c) Explain the terms (any three) :
1) Sediment and sediment load
2) Regime channel
3) Threshold motion of sediment
4) Stream gauging.
d) A 1 : 50 spillway model has discharge of 1.25 m3/sec. What is the corresponding prototype
discharge if the flood phenomonon takes 12 hrs to occur in the prototype, how long should
it take in model ?
e) Draw a neat sketch of current meter and explain its working. And following velocities were
recorded with current meter find discharge where the depth of flow is 6 m.
Depth (m)

Velocity m/s

0.5

0.6

0.7

0.8

0.8

5. Attempt any two.

16

a) 1) What is River meandering and what are its causes ?


2) What are the different types of Rivers and explain their characteristics.
b) Write short note on (any two).
1) Levees
2) Cut-offs
3) Spurs
4) Guide banks.
c) Design a regime channel for a discharge of 55 m3/sec. take silt factor as 1.15, Use Laceys
theory.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 56

*SLRKM56*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015
AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL (New) (Elective I)

Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data whenever required.
4) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
5) Use of non-prorgammable calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer in your answer book :


1) Ozone, if present in photochemical smog; causes cracking of
a) ceramic
b) glass
c) rubber

20
d) all of above

2) In ESP, dust collectors are _________ electrodes which are also grounded positive
electrodes.
a) wire
b) weight
c) spray
d) plate
3) There is possibility of formation of ozone in
a) Bag house
b) Cyclone
c) Thermosphere

d) ESP

4) Photochemical smog reduces _________ considerably.


a) compatibility
b) visibility
c) electricity

d) all of above

5) In cyclone gas flow reverses from ___________ part.


a) vortex finder
b) conical
c) cylindrical

d) outlet

6) Scrubbers can remove


a) Gases
b) Particulates

d) Mercury

c) Both (a) and (b)

7) Velocity of gas flow in gravity settler should be less than _________ m/s for better results.
a) 0.3
b) 0.5
c) 3.1
d) 10
8) First step in removal of particles in ESP is
a) Ionization of gas
c) Collection of particles

b) Charging of particles
d) Charge neutralization

9) ____________ is the type of exposure of individuals to potentially harmful concentration


of aerosols, vapors, and gases in their working environment.
a) Personal
b) Occupational
c) Community
d) All of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 56

*SLRKM56*

-2-

10) ___________ pollutants are those emitted directly from identifiable sources.
a) Tertiary
b) Secondary
c) Primary
d) None of these
11) _________ is a part of stack monitoring kit.
a) Sampling train
b) Local train
c) Metro rail

d) All of above

12) Bags in Baghouse filter are having length in the range of _________ m.
a) 2 10
b) 200 500
c) 20 100
d) 0.2 1.0
13) _________ are solving air pollution problem, but creating water pollution.
a) Dry collectors
b) Wet collector
c) ESP
d) Cyclone
14) Thickness of atmosphere is approximately _________ km.
a) 1000
b) 100
c) 50

d) 500

15) ________ prevents upward movement of air pollutants.


a) DALR
b) Wind
c) Clouds

d) An inversion

16) The DALR value is


a) 1C/100 m

d) + 0.5C/100 m

b) 10C/100 m

c) +1C/100 m

17) If ELR is greater than DALR then stability condition is


a) Sub-adiabatic
b) Super adiabatic
c) Neutral
d) Isothermal
18) Fine particulate which enters into lungs are called as
a) PPB
b) PM10
c) PM2.5
19) Plume rise occurs mainly because of
a) Momentum only
c) Momentum and thermal buoyancy

d) SPM

b) Buoyancy only
d) None of above

20) Gaussian dispersion model assumes ___________ conditions.


a) Steady state
b) Turbulent
c) Laminar
______________

d) Explosive

Set A

*SLRKM56*

-3-

SLR-KM 56

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL (New) (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I and Q. No. 6 is compulsory
in Section II; solve any two questions from Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
2) Assume suitable data whenever required.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
4) Use of non-prorgammable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Give BIS definition of air pollution. Discuss importance of air quality study.

b) What is maximum mixing depth ? Define :


i) Lapse rate
ii) Inversion
iii) Effective stack height
iv) Dobson unit.

3. a) Explain with the help of tabular format effects of different air pollutants on materials.

b) Discuss in detail :
1) London smog episode
2) Bhopal gas tragedy.

4. a) A power plant burns coal at the rate of 500 kg/hr. It consists of ash 30%, sulphur 3% and
carbon 40%. Determine the emission rates of SPM, SO2 and CO2.

3
b) Give equation for converting ppm to g / m and explain meaning of each and every term
used in it. Convert SO2 and CO concentration of 1000 ppm and 1500 ppm respectively to
g / m3 at 0C and 1 atm. pressure.

5. Write short notes on any three of the following :

14

i) Air pollution episodes


ii) Stability conditions
iii) Global warming
iv) Gaussian dispersion model.

Set A

SLR-KM 56

-4-

*SLRKM56*

SECTION II
6. a) Enlist components of stack monitoring kit. Discuss how traverse points are selected for
circular as well as rectangular stack.

b) Determine the concentration of SPM for following data :

i) Average pressure at station level = 712.59 mm of Hg


ii) Average temperature = 30.6C
iii) Actual sampling time = 24 hrs.
iv) Initial flow rate of sampling (Q1) = 16 cu.M/min
v) Final flow rate of sampling (Q2) = 1.5 cu. M/min
vi) Average flow rate (Qavg) = 1.55 cu. M/Min
vii) Initial weight of filter = 3.417 gm
viii) Final weight of filter = 3.925 gm
Apply volume correction by using P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2.
7. a) Explain working of gravity settling chamber with neat sketch.

b) A settling chamber is designed for removing 75 dia. particles with 100% efficiency.
The particulate matter density is 1200 kg/m3. Depth and width of chamber is 2 m each.
Take = 1.86 105 kg/m.s. and flow velocity (VH) = 0.3 m/sec.
i) Length of chamber required without trays
ii) Length of chamber with 10 trays.

8. a) What are steps in design of bag house filter ? Discuss along with necessary equations.

b) Enlist techniques used for gaseous control of stack gases. Explain recuperative incineration
in detail.

9. Write short notes on any three of the following :

14

1) Indoor air pollution


2) Spray tower
3) ESP
4) NAAQS (2009).
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 57

*SLRKM57*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : DESIGN OF FOUNDATIONS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Make suitable assumption if necessary and mention it clearly.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Q. No. 5 in Section I and Q. No. 9 in Section II is compulsory. Answer any
two questions from remaining in each Section.
4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget
to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Site investigation is necessary for


a) Foundation design
c) Construction planning

b) Ground water studies


d) All of these

2) Select the incorrect statement.


a) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the amount and direction of load
b) Bearing capacity of a soil depends on the type of soil
c) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon shape and size of footing
d) Bearing capacity of a soil is independent of rate of loading
3) Find the correct statement from the following
a) Terzaghis theory is applicable when the base of the footing is rough
b) A foundation is considered shallow if its depth is less than 1 m
c) The presumptive bearing capacity is the same as allowable bearing capacity
d) None of these
4) The maximum pressure intensity which a soil can carry without shear failure is known as its
a) Safe bearing capacity
b) Ultimate bearing capacity
c) Net safe bearing capacity
d) Net ultimate bearing capacity
5) For damped vibration
a) T =

2D
n 1 D 2

b) T =

2
n 1 D 2

c) T =

2D
n 1 D

d) T =

2
n 1 D

6) It is very difficult to state the limiting condition for which a local or general shear failure takes place
for a given soil. However, which of the following parameters can be used as a rough guide to
determine the type of failure ?
a) Density index
b) Penetration test
c) Angle of shear resistance
d) All the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 57

*SLRKM57*

-2-

7) Sand drains are provided


a) To accelerate the consolidation process
c) In saturated clays

b) To increase the rate of gain of shear strength


d) For all of these

8) What were the values for soil parameters used by Terzaghi for his local shear failure analysis ?
3
3
tan , C =
c
4
4

a) = 2 tan , C = 2 c
m
m
3
3

b) =
m

c) = 1 tan , C = 1 c
m
2
2

d) None of these

9) A cyclic load test is performed to determine a piles


a) Ultimate load capacity under repetition
b) Skin resistance and base resistance separately
c) Skin resistance
d) Tip resistance
10) Geophysical surveys are not useful for
a) Large areas
c) Underground cavities

b) Complex boundary layers


d) Locating water tables

11) Load carrying capacity of friction piles in clay is 200 kN. The total load carrying capacity of a group
of 9 such piles with unknown efficiency is
a) 1800 kN
b) More than 1800 kN
c) Less than 1800 kN
d) Either b) or c)
12) Three piles are arranged in triangular form; efficiency of this pile group by Felds rule is
a) 33.33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 87.5%
13) If the diameter of pile is doubled, then bearing component of pile capacity will be increased by
_________times.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
14) To avoid resonance in high speed machines, it is to keep the natural frequency at a value __________
of the operating frequency.
a) 1/3 to 1/2
b) 1/4 to 1/3
c) 2 times
d) 2.5 times
15) Position of centroid of trapezoidal footing having parallel sides 1m and 2m, distance between parallel
sides 4.5 m, from the shorter side is
a) 2.5 m
b) 2 m
c) 3 m
d) None
16) The efficiency of pile group depends on
a) Soil type
c) Pile spacing

b) Method of pile installation


d) All of these

17) Maximum settlement for raft foundation on clay is limited to


a) 40 65 mm
b) 65 100 mm
c) 40 120 mm

d) 65 165 mm

18) The bottom plug in a well foundation is usually made up of


a) Brick masonry
b) RCC
c) Cement concrete

d) None

19) A vibrating system is said to be overdamped when


a) C < 2m n

b)

c
k
<
2m
m

c) C > 2m n

d)

c
k
=
2m
m

20) In a plate-load test, the load is applied in one of the following increments of load
a) 1/30th
b) 1/20th
c) 1/10th
d) 1/5th
______________

Set A

*SLRKM57*

-3-

SLR-KM 57

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : DESIGN OF FOUNDATIONS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Make suitable assumption if necessary and mention it clearly.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Q. No. 5 in Section I and Q. No. 9 in Section II is compulsory. Answer any
two questions from remaining in each Section.
SECTION I
2. A) Describe plate load test in detail. What are its limitations ?

B) Differentiate between total settlement and differential settlement. What are the harmful effects of
differential settlements on the structures ? What are the possible remedial measures ?

3. A) Write on raft footing with their suitability.

B) Two plate load test with square plates were performed on a soil deposit. For a 25 mm settlement,
the following loads were obtained.
Width of square plate (mm)

Load (kN)

300

50

600

125

Determine the width of a square footing which would carry a net load of 750 kN for a limiting
settlement of 25 mm.
4. A) Explain the following terms with respect to sub soil exploration :

7
8

1) Area ratio
2) Recovery ratio
3) Disturbed sample
4) Undisturbed sample
B) Describe the situation in which raft foundation is needed.

Set A

SLR-KM 57

-4-

*SLRKM57*

5. Write a note on any four :

16

a) Effect of water table on bearing capacity


b) Combined footing
c) Plate load test
d) CNS soil
e) Effect of swelling pressure on foundation
SECTION II
6. A) Write a note on under reamed pile foundation.

B) Square group of 20 piles of 300 mm diameter is provided in a clayey soil having unconfined compressive
strength of 100 kPa, calculate the efficiency of the group by if the length of pile is 12 m

i) Felds rule
ii) Converse Labbbares formula
iii) Los angles formula.
7. A) Discuss in detail working of pneumatic caisson.
B) Explain various methods of shoring and Pinning.
8. A) Draw the sketch of block foundation with all 6 degrees of freedom (3 translation and 3 rotation).
B) What do you understand by vibrator isolators ? Describe them in detail.
9. Write a short note on any four :

5
7
5
7
16

a) Natural frequency of machine foundation.


b) Types of machine foundation.
c) Caisson disease.
d) Rock socketing.
e) Criteria for satisfactory performance of machine foundation.
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM58*
Seat
No.

SLR-KM 58
Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES (Elective I) (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions :

i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
iii) Use of IS 456 and IS 3370.
iv) Assume suitable data if necessary.
v) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) In water tanks the compressive (permissible) stress in column subjected to direct
load is ___________________ N/mm2 for HYSD bars.
a) 115
b) 125
c) 175
d) 150
2) Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as
a) Drop panel
b) Column cap
c) Column head
d) None of these
3) Middle strip in flat slab means the design strip bounded on each of its opposite
sides by
a) Panel
b) Column strip
c) Drop
d) Column heads
4) In case of grid slab the in situ ribs shall not be less than ____________ mm wide.
a) 60
b) 50
c) 65
d) 75
5) The minimum longitudinal reinforcement in pile should not be less than _________ %
of c/s area of pile for piles having length up to 30 times their least lateral dimension.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1.25
d) 1.5
6) The tanks situated underground, the walls of the tanks are to be generally designed for
a) Earth pressure only
b) Water pressure only
c) Both earth and water pressure
d) All of these
7) The underground water tanks are designed for ___________________ pressure,
for the empty tank condition.
a) Uplift
b) Water
c) Earth
d) All of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 58

*SLRKM58*

-2-

8) For design of water tanks the permissible stress in bending tension in HYSD bars
is for is ___________________ N/mm2.
a) 115
b) 140
c) 150
d) 230
9) In case of water tanks the permissible shear stress for M20 grade concrete is
___________________ c N/mm2.
a) 1
b) 1.2
c) 1.25
d) 1.7
10) The rectangular footing is required in following situations.
a) If loaded footing of columns overlap
b) Columns may be near to property line
c) S.B.C. of soil being less
d) All a), b) and c)
11) The minimum spacing of piles shall be _______________ to________________
times diameter of the pile.
a) 2 to 3
b) 2.5 to 3
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 1 to 1.5
12) The minimum percentage in walls, floors and roofs in each of the two directions at
right angles shall have an area of ___________________ percent of the concrete
section in that direction for sections up to 100 mm thickness.
a) 0.3
b) 0.25
c) 0.2
d) 0.35
13) The walls of underground water tanks are designed for ___________________
pressure, specially under the condition when tank is full.
a) Water
b) Earth
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
14) For a circular slab circumferential moment per unit length is given by
a)
c)

b)
5

d)
"

15) If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment
at the centre of the slab, is
b) 2WR2/16
c) 3WR2/16
d) Zero
a) WR2/16
16) Piles are usually driven by
a) Diesel operated hammer
c) Single acting steam hammer

b) Drop hammer
d) All the above

17) A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 40%
d) 50%
18) Grid slabs are economical up to size ___________________ spans.
a) 5-10 m
b) 10-25 m
c) 8-10 m
d) 6-9 m
19) According to IS : 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at
its edges, is kept less than
a) 20 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 50 cm
20) The permissible tensile stress in M.S. bars on liquid retaining face is
___________________ N/mm2.
Set A
a) 115
b) 100
c) 125
d) 150

-3-

*SLRKM58*

SLR-KM 58

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES (Elective I) (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

i)
ii)
iii)
iv)

Marks : 80

Answer any two questions from each Section.


Use of IS 456 and IS 3370.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.

SECTION I
2. a) Write down the design procedure of grid slab.

b) A circular slab of diameter 5.6 m is subjected to a super imposed load of 4 kN/m2


with a floor finish of 1kN/m2. It may be considered as partially fixed at supports.
Use M 20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. Sketch the reinforcement details.
14
3. Design a pile under column transmitting on axial load of 800 kN. The pile is to be
driven to hard stratum is available to depth 8m. Use M 20 concrete and Fe 415 steel.

20

4. a) Design combined rectangular footing for two column of sizes (400 400) mm spaced
4 m centre to centre carrying axial load of 800 kN and 1000 kN respectively. The
SBC of soil is 150 kN/m2 and the property line is 0.8 m from the centre of column
carrying 800 kN load. Adopt M 20 concrete and Fe 415 steel.
15
b) Explain the significance of raft foundation.

SECTION II
5. A circular water tank of capacity 600000 lit. is resting on ground. The depth of tank is
limited to 5 m. A free board of 300 mm may be provided the wall and base slab is
casting integrally. Design the water tank using IS code method. Use M 20 grade of
concrete and Fe 415 steel. Draw reinforcement detail.
20
6. Design an underground water tank of internal dimensions 6m3m3m soil surrounding
the tank always remains the dry. The tank should be provided with a roof
slab soil weight is 16 kN/m3. Use M 20 concrete and mild steel.
20
7. A rectangular water tank 5m long, 4m wide and 3 m high has its walls rigidly jointed at
the critical edges. Design the tank by approximate method, it is supported an all sides
under the wall. Use M 25 grade of concrete and Fe 250 steel.
20

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 59

*SLRKM89*
S

Set
t

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES (New) (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Duration : 30 Minutes

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Solve any five questions from each Section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative (one mark each) :

(201=20)

1) The principal objective of work study is


a) Increase productivity and lower unit cost
b) Reduce overall cost
c) Increase productivity
d) None
2) D represents
a) Storage

b) Operation

c) Inspection

3) Ratio of output divided by input is known as


a) Creativity
b) Management
c) Productivity

d) Temporary storage
d) None

4) What happens to the material is recorded under ?


a) Flow process chart
b) Man flow process chart
c) Equipment flow process chart
d) None
5) The delay due to interruptions from the foreman, inspector, time study analyst etc. is
known as
a) Avoidable delays
b) Unavoidable delays
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
6) The standard time is estimated by the estimator from his past knowledge and experience
under
a) Value analysis
b) Analytical estimating
c) PMTS
d) None
7) The different jobs depending upon their requirements, responsibilities and importance to
the organisation is under
a) Classification method
b) Point method
c) Ranking method
d) All of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 59

*SLRKM89*

-2-

8) Value analysis as a cost reduction technique is developed by


a) Taylor
b) Mayo
c) Larry Miles

d) None

9) Standard time = Allowance + __________________


a) Standard method
b) Standard procedure
c) Standard rating
d) None
10) n = pq/ p2 where q is
a) Percentage of occurrence
c) Percentage of working time


b) Observation time
d) Standard time

11) Demings overall approach focused on


a) Improvement of systems and processes
b) Improvement of system and work
c) Improvement of quality standard work
d) Quality improvement and quality control
12) The PDCA cycle is also called as
a) Juran cycle
c) Febingham cycle

b) Kaizen cycle
d) Deming cycle

13) Juran trilogy is based on quality planning, quality improvement and


a) Quality cost
b) Quality control
c) Quality system
d) Quality measurement
14) __________ is a method of job evaluation.
a) Employee comparison method
b) Checklist method
c) Classification method
d) All of these
15) The use of value engineering is
a) Balance the cost and performance
c) Prevent ever design of component

b) Cost reduction technique


d) All of these

16) The Value analysis is applied to


a) Existing product
c) Specification of product

b) Development stage product


d) All of these

17) If the part of the system fails, there is an alternate success path is provided, that is called as
a) FMEA
b) Reliability
c) POF
d) Redundancy
18) The symbols are used in FTA are grouped as events, gates and ___________ symbols.
a) Main
b) Exclusive
c) Transfer
d) AND
19) An amount paid to individual worker is
a) Direct incentive
c) Both (a) and (b)
20) Basic time is also called as
a) Observed time
c) Both (a) and (b)

b) Indirect incentive
d) None

b) Standard time
d) None
______________

Set A

*SLRKM89*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 59

B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES (New) (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) Solve any five questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Enlist the steps in method study. Discuss in brief any one step.

3. Explain the importance of method study and time study in civil engineering.

4. Write a note on Analytical Estimating.

5. What is the role of trade union in work study ?

6. Discuss the importance of job evaluation.

7. What is the contribution of Deming in TQM ?

8. Explain 5 S techniques in TQM.

8
SECTION II

9. Write purpose, principle and use of work sampling.

10. Describe the procedure of work sampling.

11. Discuss the types of failures in reliability analysis.

12. What is reliability ? Explain reliability curves.

13. Write notes on types of values.

14. Write notes on judgement phase in Value Engg.

15. Explain the use of control charts with respect to work sampling.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 64

*SLRKM64*
S

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Write the correct option for each question.
3) While solving MCQ IS 456-2000 and IS 1343 is not allowed.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1) In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at


a) 1/4th of the span
b) 1/5th of the span
th
c) 1/6 of the span
d) 1/7th of the span
2) If R and T are rise and tread of a stair spanning horizontally, the steps are supported by a
wall on one side and by a stringer beam on the other side, the steps are designed as
beams of width
d) R T
a) R + T
b) T R
c) R2 + T2
3) The stability of retaining wall is checked for which of the following condition ?
a) Overturning about toe
b) Overturning about heal
c) Both of above
d) None of these
4) The thickness of base slab of a retaining wall generally provided, is
a) one half of the width of the stem at the bottom
b) width of the stem at the bottom
c) one fourth of the width of the steam at the bottom
d) twice the width of the steam at the bottom
5) Design of R.C.C. simply supported beams carrying U.D.L. is based on the resultant B.M. at
a) support
b) mid span
c) quarter span d) every section
6) If T and R are tread and rise respectively of a stair, then
a) 2R + T = 60
b) R + 2T = 60
c) 2R + T = 30

d) R + 2T = 30

7) The stem of a cantilever retaining wall which retains earth level with top is 6 m. If the angle of
repose and weight of the soil per cubic metre are 30 and 2000 kg respectively, the effective
width of the stem at the bottom, is
a) 53.5
b) 51.5
c) 52.5
d) 54.5
8) The minimum head room over a stair must be
a) 200 cm
b) 205 cm
c) 210 cm

d) 230 cm

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 64

-2-

*SLRKM64*

9) A continuous beam shall be deemed to be a deep beam if the ratio of effective span to
overall depth, is
a) 2.5
b) 2.0
c) less than 2
d) less than 2.5
10) Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than
a) 4 m
b) 5 m
c) 6 m
d) 8 m
11) A pre-stressed concrete member
a) is made of concrete
c) is made of reinforced concrete

b) is stressed after casting


d) possesses internal stresses

12) If C is creep coefficient, f is original prestress in concrete, m is modular ratio, E is Youngs


modulus of steel and e is shrinkage strain, the combined effect of creep and shrinkage is
a) (1 C)mf eE
b) (C 1)mf + eE
c) (C 1)mf eE
d) (1 C)mf + eE
13) The system in which high tensile alloy steel bars (silica manganese steel) are used as
prestressing tendons, is known as
a) Freyssinet system
b) Magnel-Blaton system
c) C.C.L. standard system
d) Lee-McCall system
14) A pre-stressed concrete member is preferred because
a) its dimensions are not decided from the diagonal tensile stress
b) large size of long beams carrying large shear force need not be adopted
c) removal of cracks in the members due to shrinkage
d) all the above
15) A per IS : 1343, total shrinkage for a pretensioned beam, is
b) 3.0 103
c) 3.0 104
d) 3.5 105
a) 3.0 102
16) High strength of concrete is necessary for pre-stressed concrete work because
a) Large prestressing force is applied b) Bursting stress is more
c) High bond stress is required
d) All of above
17) In a prestressed member it is advisable to use
a) high strength concrete only
b) low strength concrete but high tensile steel
c) high strength concrete and high tensile steel
d) high strength concrete but low tensile steel
18) If the loading on a prestressed rectangular beam, is uniformly distributed, the tendon to be
provided should be
a) straight below centroidal axis
b) parabolic with convexity downward
c) parabolic with convexity upward
d) straight above centroidal axis
19) How is the deflection in RC beam controlled as per IS 456 ?
a) By using large aspect ratio
b) By using small modular ratio
c) By controlling span to depth ratio
d) By medering water cement ratio
20) Post tensioning system
a) was widely used in earlier days
b) is not economical and hence not generally used
c) is economical for large spans and is adopted now a days
d) none of these
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM64*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 64

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each section.


2) Use of IS 456 and non programmable calculator is allowed.
3) Draw neat sketchs where required and assume suitable data if required
and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Design a reinforced concrete slab for a room of clear dimensions 5 m 6 m. The slab
is supported all around on the wall of width 230 mm. The slab has to carry a live load of
3 kN/m2 and floor finish 1kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. Assume corners are
held down.
b) Sketch the details of reinforcement of two way slab.

10
3

3. Design a three span continuous beam rectangular beam of span of 4.5 m each to carry a dead
load of 20 kN/m and live load of 8 kN/m. The beam is supported by columns. Use M25 concrete
and Fe500 steel. Sketch the reinforcement details.

13

4. Design the dog-legged type staircase for a residential building using following data floor to
floor height = 3.0 m, No. of flight per floor = 2, size to steps = 150 mm riser and 250 mm trade,
live load is 3 kN/m2 and assume width of stair is 1.2 m. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.

13

5. Design the stem slab of a counter fort retaining wall, if the height of wall above the ground level
is 5 m. SBC of soil is 180 kN/m2, angle of internal friction is 30 and unit weight of back fill soil
18 kN/m2. Keep spacing of counter fort as 3.5 m. coefficient of friction between soil and
concrete is 0.5. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel.

14

SECTION II
6. A prestressed concrete beam 500 mm 750 mm in section has a span 8 m and is subjected
to a uniformly distributed load of 17.50 kN/m including the self wt. of the beam. The prestressing
tendons are located at the lower third pt. of the section and provide an effective stresses in
concrete for the mid span section. Solve by following methods : stress concept method,
strength concept method, load balancing concept. Take prestressing force 1000 kN.

13

Set A

SLR-KM 64

-4-

*SLRKM64*

7. A rectangular PSC beam has span of 18 m, supports a distributed load of 18 kN/m excluding
self weight. Determine the suitable dimension of the beam section and calculate the area
and the position of tendons. Given the permissible stress in concrete and steel 14 N/mm2 and
1025 N/mm2.

14

8. A prestressed concrete beam 250 mm wide and 600 mm deep is subjected to an axial
prestressing force of 1500 kN. Design the end block.

13

9. a) Write a note on stress concept, strength concept and load balancing concept used for
determining extreme fibre stresses of PSC beam.

b) Write short note on any two of following with neat sketch.


a) P.S.C. Monowire System
b) Lee-Mccall System
c) The Freysssinet System.

7
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 65

*SLRKM65*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CONSTRUCTION PRACTICES AND TOWN PLANNING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Figures on right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. A) Fill in the gaps with correct words :

10

1) Transit mixers are used for ____________ concrete work on site.


2) Modern construction industry is a ____________ intensive industry.
3) ____________ are used to press soil particles together for earth compaction.
4) ____________ means removal of material in thin layers.
5) The functioning of Pneumatic tired rollers is based on ____________ action.
6) ____________ are hauling equipment for horizontal movement of materials.
7) For Handling of Precast structural members __________ machine is used.
8) ____________ are used for transportation of materials like cement, steel,
tiles etc. to the site.
9) For Road construction, the purpose of drum dryer is to heat and dry the
aggregates of the ____________ mix.
10) A Latis boom crane predominantly handles ____________ loads.

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 65

*SLRKM65*

-2-

B) Match A group items with B group items :

10

A
1) Zoning

______________

2) Lewis Mumford

______________

3) Nonprofit making use of land

______________

4) Ebenezer Howard

______________

5) Aim of town planning

______________

6) Development and Redevelopment

______________

7) Slum housing

______________

8) Horizontal growth

______________

9) MRTP Act, 1966

______________

10) The form of planning

______________

B :
Regional planning; town planning law; town growth according to direction;
haphazard and poor living condition; town planning; beauty-convenienceenvironment and health; concept of garden city; Roads and Amenities; six
stages in town growth; land use classification.

______________

Set A

*SLRKM65*

-3-

SLR-KM 65

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CONSTRUCTION PRACTICES AND TOWN PLANNING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures on right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it.
SECTION I
(Construction Practices)
2. Attempt any five questions :

(58=40)

a) Explain the most significant cash flows affecting ownership cost of


equipments.
b) Explain the various types of construction equipments.
c) Discuss the factors affecting output of construction equipments.
d) Discuss on equipment-intensive operations in construction industry.
e) Explain Hoe and its major components.
f) Explain safety measures in construction and prevention of accidents.
g) Write a short note on :
i) Types of precast system.
ii) Precast concrete structural elements.
Set A

SLR-KM 65

-4-

*SLRKM65*

SECTION II
(Town Planning)
3. Attempt any five questions :

(58=40)

a) What is meant by the term town planning ? And state the objects of town
planning.
b) Describe the guiding principles of town and village planning.
c) Discuss the necessity and types of Town Surveying.
d) Explain the role of town planning in view of smart city development of Solapur city.
e) Explain Garden City suggested by Sir Ebenezer Howard.
f) Explain in detail MRTP Act and its provisions.
g) Discuss various types of zoning and its importance.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 66

*SLRKM66*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : GROUND IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUE
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) In Section I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory, solve any two from


remaining.
2) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory, solve any two from
remaining.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume necessary data if required.
5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Typical operating frequency of a vibrating roller is _________
a) 10 Hz
b) 30 Hz
c) 30 MHz
d) 240 Volts
2) Static sheep foot roller is most effective in compacting
a) Gravel
b) Sand
c) Clay

d) Weathered rock

3) Optimum moisture content in clayey soil is likely to be _________


a) 2-5% below PL
b) 2-5% above PL
c) 2-5% below LL
d) Equal to PL
4) Which of the following is most suitable for homogeneous earth dam ?
a) SM
b) GC
c) GW
d) CL
5) For an embankment a reasonable test program is likely to be in the range of one
field density test per _______
a) 500-2000 cu.m
b) 200-1000 cu.m
c) 500-1000 cu.m
d) 100-200 cu.m
6) Which of the following soil will attain maximum density when it is compacted in
dry state ?
a) siet
b) clay
c) sand
d) none
7) For rapid impact compaction weight of ram is
a) 30 kN
b) 40 kN
c) 50 kN

d) 60 kN
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 66

*SLRKM66*

-2-

8) For rapid impact compaction frequency of blow is


a) 4 blow/min.
b) 4 blow/sec.
c) 40 blow/hr.

d) 40 blow/min.

9) Deep dynamic compaction is inverted by


a) Taylor
b) Atterberg
c) Terzaghi

d) Menard

10) Centrifugal force exerted by vibrofloat is


a) 50 kN
b) 100 kN
c) 200 kN

d) None

11) In case of uniformly graded sand due to vibrofloatation its volume approximately
reduce by
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
12) Cheapest method of ground improvement is
a) RIC
b) DDC
c) VC

d) Blasting

13) In wet method of stone column construction


a) stones are made wet before using
b) water is added from top into the column to make it wet
c) vibrofloat is made wet
d) water jet is used for inserting vibrofloat
14) For square grid pattern relation between spacing s and effective diameter dc is
a) dc = 1.005 s
b) dc = 1.05 s
c) dc = 1.5 s
d) dc = 1.13 s
15) While calculating ultimate capacity for stone column, in absence of pressure meter
the value of radial stress will be taken as
a) Cu
b) 2 Cu
c) 4 Cu
d) none
16) Concept of vacuum preloading is introduced by
a) Gopal Ranjan
b) Purushottam Raj
c) Bowel
d) Kjellmen
17) In equilibrium method lowest value of stress ratio in the chart is
a) 1
b) 3
c) 10
d) 20
18) Degree of radial consolidation and that of vertical consolidation are related by
d) None
a) U = Ur + Uv
b) U = Ur Uv
c) U = Ur Uv
19) The woven geotextiles have generally
a) High tensile strength
c) Low elongation

b) High modulus
d) All of the above

20) The transmissivity of a geotextile varies with


a) Contact surfaces
b) Compressive stress
c) Hydraulic gradient
d) All of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM66*

-3-

SLR-KM 66

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : GROUND IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUE
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B. : 1) In Section I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory, solve any two from


remaining.
2) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory, solve any two from
remaining.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume necessary data if required.
SECTION I
2. Write short note on any four :

16

a) Methods of slope stabilization


b) Blasting method
c) Ideal requirement of grout
d) Modified compaction test
e) Prefabricated vertical drains.
3. A) Write a note on different types of tests that need to be conducted for evaluation of
permeability ?
B) Discuss the applicability of dewatering systems in different soil.

8
4

4. A) What are the advances of PVDs over sand drain ?

B) Design a stone column system for a structure carrying 20000 kN. Substrate consists
of clayey soil having undrained cohesion of 32 kPa, the angle of interval friction for
the stone column material is 42. Assume FOS = 2, draw plan and sectional elevation
of the proposal.

5. A) Discuss the factors affecting the drain efficiency.

B) Explain with a neat sketch preloading technique.

C) With a neat sketch explain the vibrocompaction process.

Set A

SLR-KM 66

-4-

*SLRKM66*

SECTION II
6. Write a short note on any four :

16

a) Soil nailing
b) Tests for geotextiles
c) Methods of grouting
d) Reinforced earth embankments
e) Soil stabilization.
7. A) Explain in detail soil lime reaction. What is its effect on soil properties ?

B) List the various methods of slope stabilizations.

8. A) What are the possible modes of failure of reinforced earth wall ? How do you ensure
safety of RE wall against all these modes of failure ?

B) List the major functions that the geotextiles are intended to perform. Explain one of
them with neat sketch.

9. A) With a neat sketch explain the function of each component of the grouting
equipment.
B) Write a note on grout monitoring.

8
4

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 67

*SLRKM67*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TRAFFIC ENGINEERING AND CONTROL (Elective II)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
I.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Symbol used to show Fatal accident in collision diagram is


a)

b)

c)

d)

2) Delineators are placed at


a) Horizontal curves
c) Intersections

b) On straight road
d) Footpath

3) The maximum length allowed for semi-trailer tractor combination vehicle is


a) 18 m
b) 20 m
c) 16 m
d) 12 m
4) The number of vehicles parking in a particular area over a given period of time is
called
a) Parking Load
b) Parking Index
c) Parking Volume
d) Parking Turn-over
5) Which of the sign board is placed near school ?
a) Pedestrian crossing
b) Go slow
c) School Ahead
d) All above
6) Two broken yellow line marking at center of road indicates
a) No passing allowed on both side
b) Passing allowed on one side
c) Passing allowed on both side
d) Passing allowed only for left side vehicle
7) Combined movement of both merging and diverging is called
a) Both side merging
b) Both side diverging
c) Weaving
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 67

-2-

*SLRKM67*

8) Which of the following is indicated by mandatory sign ?


a) Left hand curve
b) U-Turn prohibited
c) Major road ahead
d) Overtaking prohibited
9) Width of the vehicle affects the
a) Capacity of the road and parking facility
b) Clearances to be provided under structures such as under bridges, etc.
c) Extra width of pavement and minimum turning radius
d) All the above
10) Traffic volume data are presented in the form of
a) ADT and AADT
b) Trend charts showing volume trends
c) Thirtieth highest hourly volume
d) All the above
11) An intersection where all roadways join or cross at the same level is known as
a) Grade separated intersection
b) Cloverleaf intersection
c) At-grade intersection
d) Y-intersection
12) The period of time required for one complete sequence of signal indications is
called
a) Phase
b) Cycle
c) Amber
d) Green
13) RADAR and Enoscope are used in
a) Traffic volume studies
b) Spot speed studies
c) Speed and delay studies
d) Parking studies
14) On a right angled road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of conflict
points is
a) 6
b) 11
c) 18
d) 24
15) __________ signs are intended to guide the driver about intersecting routes, cities,
facilities, towns and other important destinations.
a) Mandatory
b) Informatory
c) Cautionary
d) Warning
16) Which of the following parking is most safest from the accident perspective ?
a) Parallel parking
b) 45 angle parking
c) 65 angle parking
d) 90 angle parking
17) Unevenness of the pavement surface is measured by
a) Portable skid resistance tester
b) Bump Integrator
c) Photometer
d) Pedometer
18) The area under the parking accumulation curve during a specified period is called
a) Parking Load
b) Parking Index
c) Parking Volume
d) Parking Turn-over
19) The prime idea of drawing the condition diagram is
a) To interpret the cause of accident
b) To find out the cost of accident
c) To decrease the rate of accident
d) To locate the accident spot
20) As per IRC, minimum space requirement for parking of truck is
a) 3 8 m
b) 3.75 7.5 m
c) 2.5 5 m
d) 3 6 m

______________

Set A

*SLRKM67*

SLR-KM 67

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TRAFFIC ENGINEERING AND CONTROL (Elective II)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figure on right indicates full marks.


2) Assume any missing data suitably.
SECTION I
II. Answer any two full questions (each carry 20 marks) :

2) a) Briefly discuss the scope of the traffic engineering.


b) Explain briefly psychological and environmental factors influencing the
traffic engineering.
c) Indicate the maximum dimensions and weight of vehicles allowed in India,
as specified by IRC.
3) a) Briefly explain how road side interview method of O&D studies is carried
out ? What are the advantages and limitations of this method ?
b) How are O&D studies data represented and interpreted ?
c) From an in-out survey conducted for a parking area consisting of 40 bays,
the initial count was found to be 25. Table-1 gives the result of the survey.
The number of vehicles coming in and out of the parking lot for a time
interval of 5 minutes is as shown in the Table-1 below. Find the
accumulation, total parking load, average occupancy and efficiency of the
parking lot.

6
8
6
8
4

Table-1-In-Out-Survey Data
In-out survey data

In-out survey data

Time

In

Out

Time

In

Out

35

10

40

15

45

20

50

25

55

30

60

Set A

SLR-KM 67

-4-

*SLRKM67*

4) a) Two Vehicles A and B approaching at right angles, A from West and B from
South, collide with each other. After the collision, vehicle A skids in a direction
50 North of West and vehicle B, 60 East of North. The initial skid resistance
distance of the vehicles A and B are 38 and 20 m respectively before collision.
The skid distances after collision are 15 and 36 m respectively. If the weights of
vehicles A and B are 4.0 and 6.0 tonnes, calculate the original speeds of the
vehicles. The average skid resistance of the pavement is found to be 0.55.

b) Discuss briefly, the applications of


i) Spot Speed Study
ii) Speed and Delay Study.

c) Explain with neat sketch, basic types of traffic manoeuvres


i)
ii)
iii)
iv)

Crossing
Merging
Diverging and
Weaving.

6
SECTION II

III. Answer any two full questions (each carry 20 marks) :

5) a)
b)
c)
6) a)

Explain the object of GIVE WAY and STOP sign with neat sketch.
Write a note on regulations concerning to the drivers.
Explain different types of on-street parking with neat sketches.
What do you know about

8
4
8

i) Accelerating and De-accelerating lanes


ii) Right protection lanes.

b) Explain the difference between fixed time signals and vehicle actuated
signals.
c) List the different factors that causes accidents, explain any one in detail.
7) a) Explain the application of
i) Bump Integrator and
ii) Portable Skid Resistance Tester.

6
8

b) Write a note on :
i) 30th hourly volume
ii) Passenger Car Unit
iii) At grade intersections.

c) List the different methods of measuring spot speed and explain any one in
detail also sketch the presentation of data.
____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 68

*SLRKM68*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SOLID AND HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT (Elective II)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question


No. 2 to Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in
Section II and solve any two questions from the remaining.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries two marks.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(102=20)

1) The pyrolysis process of SWM is __________


a) Endothermic
b) Exothermic
c) Heterothermic
d) None of these
2) The anaerobic method of mechanical composting is __________
a) Indore method
b) Mangalore method
c) Bangalore method
d) None of these
3) Separation, processing of solid waste are used to reduce __________
a) Volume of S.W.
b) Weight of S.W.
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
4) Mechanical size reduction operation includes ________
a) Shredding
b) Grinding
c) Milling
d) All of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 68

-2-

*SLRKM68*

5) M R Fs term in SWM is used for _________


a) Material recovery facilities
b) Major relief funds
c) Minimum raw food
d) None of these
6) Substances that emit ionizing radiation are defined as _________
a) Hazardous waste
b) Biological wastes
c) Flammable wastes
d) Radioactive wastes
7) Modern Solid Waste Disposal Act dates from ___________
a) 1965
b) 1998
c) 1976
d) 1996
8) Sanitary landfill may not cause troubles during ________
a) Peak summers
b) Peak winters
c) Peak monsoons
d) None of these
9) Which of the following is not a problem with landfills ?
a) Incomplete decomposition
b) Methane production
c) Settling
d) Increasing runoff into lakes and stream
10) Hazardous biomedical wastes are generated in ___________
a) Hospitals
b) Biological research facilities
c) Industrial biological conversion process
d) All of above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM68*

-3-

SLR-KM 68

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SOLID AND HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT (Elective II)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question


No. 2 to Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in
Section II and solve any two questions from the remaining.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Estimate the moisture content of solid waste sample of 100 kg using the
following data :
Sr. No.
Component
% by mass
% by Moisture content
1
Food waste
15
70
2
Paper
38
08
3
Cardboards
05
05
4
Plastic
12
02
5
Grass
12
55
6
Wood
09
04
7
Metals
15
04
b) Explain the functional element of municipal solid waste management with
flow diagram.
3. a) Describe the effects of following composting process :
i) C/N Ratio
ii) Temperature
iii) Moisture content
iv) pH.
b) Distinguish between Indore method and Bangalore method of composting.

6
7

6
Set A

SLR-KM 68

-4-

*SLRKM68*

4. a) Explain in brief MSW (Management and Handling) Rule.

b) Explain in brief the different factors affecting incineration.

c) Write the advantage and disadvantage of incineration treatment.

5. a) State and explain, briefly the various methods of handling and processing of
solid waste.
b) Write the use of different industrial waste.

6
7

SECTION II
6. a) Write a note on Risk Management.

b) Explain in detail Qualitative estimation of damages.

c) Explain in brief how will you minimize the damage due to manmade hazard.

7. a) Draw the cross section of sanitary landfill and explain the essential components. 7
b) Explain the different techniques used to control of contamination of ground
water.

8. a) Define hazardous waste. Explain in details natural and manmade hazards.

b) Write the site selection criteria for sanitary landfilling.


9. a) Explain in details any one case study of hazards.
b) Explain in details any hazard episode.

7
7
6

__________________

Set A

SLR-KM 69

*SLRKM69*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF BRIDGES (Elective II)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Solve any three questions from each Section.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Give correct option to following question, each question carries one mark.

(201=20)

1) Section VI of IRC Bridge code is dealing with


a) Composite construction
b) Bearings
c) Steel road bridges
d) None of above
2) If entire train is not on full span, braking force is taken as of load actually on span
a) 25%
b) 20%
c) 15%
d) 10%
3) Total load of IRC B loading is
a) 554 KN
b) 332 KN

c) 700 KN

4) For spans less than 9m impact factor for IRC wheeled vehicle is
a) 15%
b) 10%
c) 25%

d) 1000 KN
d) 20%

5) As per IRC minimum limiting force on the deck due to wind is taken as
a) 4 KN/m
b) 4.5 KN/m
c) 5 KN/m
d) 6 KN/m
6) Loads are carried primarily in compression by
a) Cantilever bridges
b) Arch bridge
c) Suspension bridges
d) Beam bridges
7) Which of the following IRC load is treated as heavy load ?
a) Class AA
b) Class B
c) Class A
8) An abutment is not used to
a) Support bridge deck
c) Carry loads by arch action

d) Class 70R

b) Retain approach slab


d) All of these

9) In case of solid deck slab, bending moment for distribution steel is


a) 0.3 ML + 0.2 MD
b) 0.2 ML + 0.3 MD
c) ML + 0.5 MD
d) 0.5 ML + 0.5 MD
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 69

*SLRKM69*

-2-

10) Maximum permissible compressive stress for concrete M20 is


a) 3 MPa
b) 7 MPa
c) 8 MPa

d) 5 MPa

11) The in-depth inspection of bridges may be scheduled once in


a) Five to Seven years
b) Ten years
c) Three to Five years
d) Two years
12) Fixed bearings are provided to allow
a) Horizontal translation only
c) Both a) and b)

b) Rotation only
d) None of these

13) Henry Jeagur method is related with


a) Load factor
c) Effective width

b) Impact factor
d) Buoyancy factor

14) Which of the following is not a type of Bridge Inspection ?


a) Routine inspection
b) In-depth inspection
c) Regular inspection
d) Special inspection
15) As per IRC-21 minimum clear cover to array reinforcement bar is
a) 25 mm
b) 30 mm
c) 50 mm
d) 40 mm
16) Centrifugal forces for horizontal curves are determined by following equation
a) P =

WV 2
127 R

b) P =

W2V
27 R

c) P = 0.5 k2V

d) None of these

17) To provide possible variation in direction of water current, following allowance is considered
a) 25
b) 30
c) 15
d) 20
18) Total load in case of IRC AA tracked loading is
a) 554 KN
b) 332 KN
c) 700 KN
19) Longitudinal force acts at
a) 2 m above deck level
c) 1.5 m below deck level

d) 1000 KN

b) 1.2 m above deck level


d) 1.2 m below deck level

20) Pigeauds theory is applicable only when


a) load is uniformly distributed
b) load is eccentric
c) load is concentric
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM69*

-3-

SLR-KM 69

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DESIGN OF BRIDGES (Elective II)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. Design a solid deck slab for two lane bridge with following data :
1) Clear span 7.5 m
2) Carriage way width 9 m
3) Wearing coat 0.1 m thick
4) Kerb 700 mm wide, 275 mm on both side
5) Loading IRS class AA tracked loading (two lane)
6) Material M-30 concrete, Fe 415 steel
Show the reinforcement details with neat sketch.

13

3. Design of slab panel for T-beam bridge for following data :


1) Panel dimensions 2.5 m 6.25 m
2) Live load IRC class AA tracked
3) Thickness of slab panel 0.2 m
4) Thickness of wearing coat 0.9 m
5) Use concrete M-20 and Fe-415 steel
Refer the chart 1.1 and 1.2 for Pigeauds coefficients.
Draw reinforcement details.

14

4. Calculate bending moment in longitudinal girder for Two Lane Bridge with following data :
1) Span 15 m
2) Carriage way width 7.5 m
3) Width of longitudinal girder 0.3 m
4) Spacing of longitudinal girder 2.7 m
5) Live load IRC class B (two lane)
6) No. of cross-girders 5
7) Use M-25, Fe-415

13

Set A

SLR-KM 69

-4-

*SLRKM69*

5. A) Write on :
a) Pigeauds Method.

b) Courbons Method.

B) Enlist various forces acting on bridges.

SECTION II
6. A) Explain different type of abutment with neat sketch.
B) Write on elastomeric bearing pad.

8
5

7. Verify suitability of bridge pier with following data :


1) Top width 1.6 m
2) Height of pier 8 m (upto springing level)
3) Side batter 1 : 12
4) C/C distance on either side of bearing 1m
5) HFL 1.2 m below bearing level
6) Span of bridge 17 m
7) Loading IRC class AA tracked
8) Self-weight of superstructure 250 KN/m

14

8. A) Design an elastomeric unreinforced neoprene pad bearing to suit the following data :
1) Vertical sustained load 180 KN
2) Vertical dynamic load 60 KN
3) Horizontal force 65 KN
4) Modulus of rigidity of elastomer 1 N/mm2
5) Coeff. of friction 0.3

10

B) Write on expansion joints.

9. A) Write note on types of foundation with their suitability.


B) Explain cantilever method of construction.

8
5

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 70

*SLRKM70*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : INFRASTRUCTURAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer (Each MCQ question carries two marks) :

20

1) What is meant by the term BOO ?


a) Build Operate Own
b) Build Own Operate
c) Build Opt Operate
d) Building Own Operate
2) Which of the following is correct term for DBFM ?
a) Design Build Finance Maintain
b) Design Building Finance Maintain
c) Design Build Finance Manage
d) Develop Build Finance Manage
3) Which of the following is not type of contract ?
a) Service Contracts
b) Lease-develop-Operate or Buy
c) Design build
d) Lease-develop-Operate and Buy
4) Which of the following is not one of the key challenges for sustainability ?
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste

d) Rural development
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 70

*SLRKM70*

-2-

5) Which of the following is benefit for Private Sector of Public Private


Partnership ?
a) Innovative solutions
b) Export opportunities
c) Construction management
d) Sharing the assets
6) Which of the following is suitable as VGF scheme ?
a) Viability Gap Funding Scheme
b) Viability Gap Finance Scheme
c) Volatile Gap Funding Scheme
d) Volatile Growth Funding Scheme
7) Which of the following is role of private sector in public private partnership ?
a) Access to private finance
b) Sufficient return to investors
c) Providing the facility and service
d) All of the above
8) What is meant by the term OBA contract ?
a) Output Based Assistance

b) Output Build Aid

c) Operate Build Assistance

d) Output Based Aid

9) How many contributing factors are considered for Risk Emergence ?


a) 9

b) 10

c) 11

d) 12

10) Which of the following is principle aspect of sustainable development ?


a) Energy
c) Simplicity

b) Environmental
d) Amenity
______________

Set A

*SLRKM70*

-3-

SLR-KM 70

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : INFRASTRUCTURAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I and any three
questions from Section II.
2) Assume necessary data if required and mention it clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the term Net Present Value (NPV).

b) Explain the major constraints in the delivery mechanism and infrastructure of


water supply sector.

10

3. a) What is meant by Public Private Partnership ?

b) What is the role and responsibilities of Government in Public Private Partnership ? 9


4. a) Draw a neat diagram for model of public private partnership.

b) Explain the Viability Gap Funding (VGF) scheme with respect to Public Private
Partnership Projects.
5. a) Draw a neat diagram for model of public private partnership.
b) Explain in detail the management contracts.

9
4
9

Set A

SLR-KM 70

-4-

*SLRKM70*

SECTION II
6. a) Draw a schematic diagram of work flow of five phase project management.

b) What are the associated tradeoffs in terms of maintenances and repair in


extending the service life of infrastructure ?

10

7. Discuss the points to be considered for risk allocation frame for BOT (toll) project. 13
8. a) Write a short note on risk mitigation.
b) Explain Quantitative and Qualitative techniques of risk assessment.
9. a) What are the benefits of green infrastructure projects ?

4
9
4

b) State the strengths and weaknesses of developing commercially


viable infrastructure projects.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 71

*SLRKM71*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Civil) (Part II) (Elective III) Examination, 2015
ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES

Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) In water tanks the compressive (permissible) stress in column subjected to direct


load is _____________ N/mm2 for HYSD bars.
a) 115
b) 125
c) 175
d) 150
2) Middle strip in flat slab means the design strip bounded on each of its opposite
sides by
a) Panel
b) Column strip
c) Drop
d) Column heads
3) In case of grid slab the in situ ribs shall not be less than ____________ mm wide.
a) 60
b) 50
c) 65
d) 75
4) The minimum longitudinal reinforcement in pile should not be less than
___________ % of c/s area of pile for piles having length up to 30 times their least
lateral dimension.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1.25
d) 1.5
5) The tanks situated underground, the walls of the tanks are to be generally
designed for
a) Earth pressure only
b) Water pressure only
c) Both earth and water pressure
d) All of these
6) The floor of the underground water tanks are designed for ____________ pressure,
for the empty tank condition.
a) Uplift
b) Water
c) Earth
d) All of these
7) For design of water tanks the permissible stress in bending tension in HYSD bars
is for is ____________ N/mm2.
a) 115
b) 140
c) 150
d) 230
8) In case of water tanks the permissible shear stress for M20 grade concrete is
____________ N/mm2.
a) 1
b) 1.2
c) 1.25
d) 1.7
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 71

*SLRKM71*

-2-

9) The rectangular footing is required in following situations


a) If loaded footing of columns overlap
b) Columns may be near to property line
c) S.B.C. of soil being less
d) All a, b and c
10) The minimum spacing of piles shall be __________ to ________ times diameter
of the pile.
a) 2 to 3
b) 2.5 to 3
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 1 to 1.5
11) The permissible tensile stress in shear in shear reinforcement (HYSD bars) for
members having thickness more than 225 mm is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 115
b) 125
c) 175
d) 190
12) The permissible tensile stress in shear reinforcement of M.S. bars is __________
N/mm2 for members less than 225 mm thick of water retaining structure.
a) 115
b) 100
c) 125
d) 175
13) Piles are usually driven by
a) diesel operated hammer
c) single acting steam hammer

b) drop hammer
d) all the above

14) The minimum percentage in walls, floors and roofs in each of the two directions at
right angles shall have an area of _____________ percent of the concrete section
in that direction for sections up to 100 mm thickness.
a) 0.3
b) 0.25
c) 0.2
d) 0.35
15) A flat slab is supported
a) On beams
c) On beams and columns

b) On columns
d) On columns monolithically built with slab

16) If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment
at the centre of the slab, is
a) WR2/16
b) 2WR2/16
c) 3WR2/16
d) zero
17) While designing rectangle combined footing the C.G. of loads and C.G. of footing
shall be ______________ to each other.
a) Coinciding
b) Parallel
c) Perpendicular d) None of these
18) The walls of underground water tanks are designed for ___________ pressure,
specially under the condition when tank is empty.
a) Water
b) Earth
c) Both a and b
d) All of these
19) Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as
a) drop panel
b) capital
c) column head
d) none of these
20) In grid slab the in situ ribs shall be spaced at centres not greater than ____________
m apart
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 1.2
d) 1.25

______________
Set A

*SLRKM71*

-3-

SLR-KM 71

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) (Elective III) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

i) Answer any two questions from each Section.

ii) Use of IS 456 and IS 3370.


iii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
iv) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain with neat sketch reinforcement details section passing through column
and middle strip.

b) A traffic control post 4m diameter is supported centrally by a reinforced


concrete column 300 mm in diameter. Design the circular slab for a
superimposed load of 1500 N/m2. Use M20 grade of concrete and Fe415
steel.
12
3. Design a combined trapezoidal footing for two columns A and B spaced 5m c/c. Column
A is 300 mm 300 mm in size and carries a load of 600 kN. Column B is
400 mm 400 mm in size and carries a load of 900 kN. The maximum length of the
footing is restricted to 7m only. The safe bearing capacity of soil may be taken as
120 kN/m2. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe500 steel.
20
4. An R.C column 400 mm 400 mm carrying a load of 600 kN is supported on three
piles 400 mm 400 mm in section. The centre to centre distance between the pile is
1.5 m. Design a suitable pile cap. Use M20 grade of concrete and Fe415 steel.
20

SECTION II
5. Design a circular water tank with fixed base for capacity of 4 lakh litres. The depth of
water is to be 4.2 m including a free board of 250 mm. Use M25 grade of concrete and
Fe500 Steel. Assume = 0. The tank is free at top and rest on the ground. Take unit
weight of water as 9.8 kN/m3.
20

Set A

SLR-KM 71

-4-

*SLRKM71*

6. Design an underground water tank 4.5 m 10 m 3.5 m deep. The subsoil consists
of sand having angle of repose of 30 and saturated unit weight of 18kN/m3. The water
table is likely to rise up to ground level. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe415 Steel.
Take unit weight of water as 9.81 kN/m3.
20
7. A rectangular water tank 5 m long 2.5 m wide and 2.8 m high has its walls rigidly
jointed at the critical edges. Design the tank it is supported an all sides under the wall.
Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe415 Steel.
20
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 72

*SLRKM72*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL WASTE TREATMENT (Elective III)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question no. 2 to
Question no. 5. Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II and
solve any two questions from the remaining.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The intensity of microbial activities is reflected by _____________


a) Chemical oxygen demand
b) Biological oxygen demand
c) Dissolved oxygen
d) Nitrogenous oxygen demand
2) _____________ is meant for reduction of moisture content of sludge.
a) Dewatering
b) Conditioning
c) Thickening
d) Incineration
3) For a conventional sludge digesters detention period of _____________ is provided.
a) 20 to 30 minutes
b) 30 to 90 days
c) 4 to 6 hrs
d) 1 to 2 days
4) Biological treatment units are operated in _____________ growth phase of microorganism.
a) Endogenous
b) Lag
c) Declining
d) All of above
5) Wasting of sludge is directly controlled from _____________
a) Aeration tank
b) Sludge digester c) Trickling filter

d) Recycle line

6) _____________ constant varies with temperature for effluent waste.


a) Deoxygenation
b) Ultimate BOD
c) Reaeration
d) DO saturation
7) The end products of anaerobic digestion are _____________
a) Methane and oxygen
b) Methane and ammonia
c) Methane and carbon dioxide
d) Carbon dioxide and ammonia
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 72

-2-

*SLRKM72*

8) _____________ substance deplete the oxygen content of the receiving streams.


a) Inorganic
b) Color producing c) Organic
d) Toxic
9) Parshall flume is a convenient device for measuring _____________ in sewer.
a) Velocity
b) Flow
c) Depth
d) Temperature
10) Yeast sludge containing rich in proteins, carbohydrates vitamins are treated separately
for _____________
a) Segregation
b) Recycle
c) By-product recovery
d) High efficiency
11) Addition of _____________ to Kraft process results information of white liquor.
a) Ferric chloride
b) Polyelectrolyte c) Alum
d) Lime
12) _____________ removal in aeration tank is accomplished by chemical precipitation.
a) Phosphate
b) Sulphate
c) Ammonia
d) Colour
13) The milk waste becomes _____________ due to composition of lactose under
anaerobic condition.
a) Alkaline
b) Acidic
c) Crystalline
d) Neutral
14) _____________ process involves burning and oxidation.
a) Air stripping
b) Chemical precipitation
c) Incineration
d) Thermal reduction
15) _____________ is suggested for removal of strong colour in pulp and paper industry.
a) Chemical recovery
b) Biological treatment
c) Lime treatment
d) Sedimentation
16) In a tannery industry leather is bleached with dilute solution of _____________
a) Sodium carbonate
b) Sodium hypochlorite
c) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Sodium sulphate
17) _____________ process improves the strength, elasticity, luster of cloth.
a) Mercerizing
b) Scouring
c) Slashing
d) Quilling
18) The Fibrous residue of sugar mill house is known as _____________
a) Molasses
b) Bagasses
c) Biogas
d) Lignin
19) Segregation of spent chrome-tan liquor is advised for _____________ and better pollution
abatement in tannery industry.
a) By-product recovery
b) Neutralisation
c) Equalization
d) Chemical recovery
20) The degree of treatment of the acidic or alkaline waste is determined _____________
a) Toxicity
b) Hardness
c) pH
d) Organic wastes
______________

Set A

*SLRKM72*

-3-

SLR-KM 72

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL WASTE TREATMENT (Elective III)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question no. 2 to
Question no. 5. Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II and
solve any two questions from the remaining.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the pollutant characteristics of industrial wastes.
b) Discuss any one method of removal of color from waste water.

8
6

3. a) A waste water treatment plant disposes off its effluents into a steam at a point A.
Characteristics of stream at a location fairly upstream of A and effluent are as follows.

Effluent
Flow

(m3/s)

DO (mg/I)

Stream

0.16

0.4

1.60

8.20

Temperature (C)

25

22

BOD5 at 20C (mg/l)

32

2.0

Assume constants K at 20C as 0.20 d1 and R at 20C as 0.40 d1, (base e) for
mixture. Given saturation DO at mix temp. of 22.86C as 8.85 mg/l. The velocity of stream
downstream of the point A is 0.16 m/s. Determine the critical oxygen deficit and its location
use temperature coefficient of 1.04 for K and 1.02 for R .
b) Explain any one method of neutralization of acidic waste.

4. a) Explain any one physio-chemical process treatment for removal of dissolved inorganic
material.
b) Enlist various methods of waste strength reduction generated from industry and explain
any one in detail.

6
7

5. Write short note on :


I) Sludge disposal.

II) Treatment methods for industrial waste water.

Set A

SLR-KM 72

-4-

*SLRKM72*

SECTION II
Instruction : Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve any two
questions from the remaining.
6. a) Mention pollution characteristics of industrial waste and suggest treatment methods for
any four industries.
b) What are the effects of Tannery waste on receiving streams ?

8
4

7. Give the characteristics of waste water, draw the wastewater treatment flow diagram and
explain in detail.
a) Pulp and paper.

b) Dairy industry.

8. Draw manufacturing process flow diagram, indicate the sources wastes and explain in detail
a) Sugar Industry.

b) Cotton textile Industry.

9. Write short note on :

14

I) Economic aspect of water pollution control


II) Recycling of waste.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 73

*SLRKM73*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015
WATER POWER ENGINEERING (Elective III)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Solve any three questions from Section I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5) and
any three questions from Section II (Questions 6, 7, 8, 9).
4) Draw neat labeled sketches wherever necessary.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Demand factor is defined as
a) average load/maximum load
c) connected load/maximum demand

(120=20)
b) maximum demand/connected load
d) average load maximum load

2) Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to the earning capacity of the plant vide
a) sinking fund depreciation
b) straight line depreciation
c) reducing balances depreciation
d) none of the above
3) Which of the following place is not associated with nuclear power plants in India ?
a) Narora
b) Tarapur
c) Kota
d) Bangalore
4) The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power station is around
a) 15 years
b) 30 years
c) 60 years
d) 100 years
5) Pelton wheel turbine is a
a) high head turbine
c) low head turbine

b) medium head turbine


d) none of the above

6) Water hammer process in penstocks results in


a) noise increase
b) pressure increase
c) noise increase, pressure increase, velocity decrease
d) none of the above
7) For harnessing low variable water heads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with high percentage
of reaction and runner adjust vanes is
a) Francis
b) Pelton
c) Kaplan
d) Impeller
8) In hydro power stations what is an enlarged body of water just above the intake and used
as a regulating reservoir called
a) Penstock
b) Spillways
c) Reservoir
d) Fore bay
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 73

*SLRKM73*

-2-

9) The flow duration curve at a given head of a hydroelectric plant is used to determine
a) load factor at the plant
b) diversity factor for the plant
c) total power available at the site
d) total units of energy available
10) Pump storage schemes are used to improve
a) the load factor
b) the power factor
c) the plant capacity factor as well as the load factor of the power system
d) the diversity factor
11) The draft tube is provided to
a) reduce the effect of water hammer
b) raise the water surface of the stream to create an artificial head
c) increase the acting head on the water wheel
d) none of the above
12) Which turbine is ideally suited to pumped storage plants ?
a) Kaplan
b) Francis
c) Pelton

d) Impeller

13) In Kaplan runner, the number of blades is generally of the order of


a) 1 2
b) 3 6
c) 16 24
d) 12 16
14) For variable heads of near about but less than 30 m, which type of turbines is used hydro
power plant ?
a) Pelton
b) Francis
c) Kaplan
d) None of the above
15) The specific speed of water turbine is the speed at which the turbine develops
a) maximum horse power
b) a minimum horse power
c) unit horse power at unit head
d) unit horse power at all heads
16) Deflectors are provided in
a) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton wheel

b) Propeller turbine
d) Francis turbine

17) The capacity of small hydro power plants are in order of


a) 1 to 15 MW
b) 15 100 MW
c) 20 to 50 MW

d) None of the above

18) The pumped storage scheme is employed to supply power


a) during the off-peak hours
b) during the peak hours
c) system base load
d) none of the above
19) Taking the of water to 1000 Kg/m3, how much power would be developed by a hydroelectric
generator unit, assuming 100% efficiency, with 1.0 m head and 1.0 m3/s discharge ?
a) 2.90 kW
b) 4.45 kW
c) 9.80 kW
d) 19.60 kW
20) Pumped storage plants when connected to interconnected power system save to
a) increase load factor at stream plant
b) provide added capacity to meet peak loads
c) provided added capacity to meet base loads
d) both (a) and (b)
______________

Set A

*SLRKM73*

-3-

SLR-KM 73

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


WATER POWER ENGINEERING (Elective III)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) Solve any three questions from Section I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5) and


any three questions from Section II (Questions 6, 7, 8, 9).
2) Draw neat labeled sketches wherever necessary.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I

2. a) What do you understand by non-conventional sources of power generation ? What is the


scope of these sources in India ?

b) Draw a neat diagram of storage type hydro-electric power plant and describe the function of
each component used in the plant.

3. a) Define hydrograph and explain its importance in the design of storage type hydro-electric
power project. Explain the effect of time unit on the storage capacity of the catchment
area required.

b) Three turbo generators of each capacity 10000 kW have been installed at a power station.
During certain period of a load, the load on the plant varies from 12000 kW to 26000 kW.
Calculate :
i) Installed capacity
ii) Load factor
iii) Plant factor
iv) Utilization factor.

4. a) What are the functions a surge tank ? Describe different types of surge tanks. How will
you differentiate between differential type of surge tank with simple and restricted orifice
type surge tank ?

b) Differentiate between a conduit and penstock. How the length of penstock is decided in
the hydraulic power plant ? What are the advantages and disadvantages of exposed
penstock over buried penstock ?

5. a) What are the Penstocks and of which material can they be manufactured ? Under what
circumstances, each material can be used ?

b) What is the function of anchor block ? What are the forces that should be taken into account
in their stability analysis ?

Set A

SLR-KM 73

-4-

*SLRKM73*

SECTION II
6. a) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of underground power stations compared
with over ground power stations.

b) For the same power under the given head, compare impulse wheels and reaction turbines
with respect to efficiency, speed, space occupied, freedom from breakdown, ease of
repairs and durability with silt laden water.

7. a) What are the different types of draft tubes ? Sketch the different types of draft tubes and
state which one of them gives maximum efficiency.

b) Tests conducted on a one fifth scale model of Francis turbine under head of 1.5 m indicated
that it could develop 5 kW power at 450 rpm. Determine the speed and power of a full sized
turbine while working under a head of 30 m.

8. a) What do you mean by tail race channel ? Discuss the position and working of tail race
channel with respect to draft tube.

b) Explain with the sketches, the Single Ebb Cycle System of tidal power generation. What
are the limitations of this method ?

9. a) What do you understand by pump storage plant ? What are the advantages and limitations
of this power plant ? Where can such schemes can be best applied ?

b) Describe how ocean tides are generated. With tidal cycle in view, describe how hydropower
can be generated. Enumerate the limitations of tidal power generation.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 74

*SLRKM74*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective III : ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : a) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
b) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
c) Solve any three questions from each Section I and Section II.
d) Assume additional data if required and state it clearly.
e) Figures on the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20
PART I

1. Choose the correct option for the following multiple choice questions. All questions
carry 1 mark each:
(120=20)
1) An entrepreneur is the one
a) Who starts new projects
c) Both the above

b) Makes efforts to complete the projects


d) None of these

2) According to use of technology, entrepreneurs can be classified as


a) Technical entrepreneurs
b) Professional entrepreneurs
c) High tech entrepreneurs
d) All of these
3) The economy of the country depends upon the entrepreneurship development
a) Directly
b) Indirectly
c) None of these d) Both a) and b)
4) SIDBI commenced its operations w.e.f.
a) April 2, 1990
b) April 2, 1991
c) April 4, 1992

d) None of these

5) The main functions of RBI are


a) Granting license to commercial banks for opening branches
b) Accepting deposits from the banks
c) Regulating foreign trade
d) Acting as note issuing authority, bankers bank and banker to the government
6) The registration of a SSI can be
a) Permanent
b) Provisional

c) Both the above d) None of these

7) __________ Capital is invested in the plant, equipment, land and building.


a) Working
b) Fixed
c) Both a) and b) d) Cash
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 74

*SLRKM74*

-2-

8) The study of relationship between the raising of finance and the development of
finance is called as
a) Organized group efforts
b) Business
c) Financial management
d) Feasibility
9) The tax which is levied by individual or company is called
a) Sales Tax
b) Excise Duty
c) Income Tax

d) None of these

10) The stored items which form an integral part of the finished goods are called as
a) Stock
b) Direct inventory
c) Indirect inventory
d) All of these
11) __________ is concerned with the determination of the aggregate demand of the
proposed product.
a) Technical feasibility
b) Economical feasibility
c) Marketing feasibility
d) Financial feasibility
12) The __________ format is prepared before hand for starting any small scale
industry.
a) Project report
b) Project preliminary report
c) Project assessment
d) Project feasibility
13) A project report is prepared before the execution of the project is called
a) Project report
b) Project preliminary report
c) Project assessment
d) Project feasibility
14) __________ is the main motive of business enterprise.
a) Employment
b) Profit
c) Capital
d) Financial Assistance
15) Excise duty is charged by
a) Central Government
c) Both a) and b)

b) State Government
d) Finance Ministry

16) Open market operations are restricted to RBI


a) To control the flow of credit of the banks
b) To reduce the fluctuations in money supply
c) To regulate rate of interest
d) All of the above
17) __________ is the money paid for the use of money.
a) Inflation
b) Book value
c) Market value

d) Interest

18) Following is the example of indirect tax


a) Income tax
b) Corporation tax
c) Capital gains tax
d) Sales tax
19) Physiological needs are essential for
a) Welfare of a person
c) Both a) and b)

b) Survival of a person
d) None of these

20) Social needs do not include


a) Acceptance
b) Friendship
c) Affection
______________

d) Safety
Set A

*SLRKM74*

-3-

SLR-KM 74

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective III : ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : .10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : a) Solve any three questions from each Section I and
Section II.
b) Assume additional data if required and state it clearly.
c) Figures on the right indicate full marks.
PART II
SECTION I
2. a) Write about the concept of entrepreneurship. Explain the reasons for entrepreneurial
failure.

b) Explain the qualities of good entrepreneur. Write in detail about the need for
entrepreneurship.

3. a) Give in detail the Role of banks and other financial institutions to expand the
business.
b) Explain in detail the role played by NABARD.

6
7

4. Explain the following in detail :


a) District Industries Centre (DIC).

b) State Financial Corporation (SFC).

5. a) Define SSI. Mention the list of items reserved for exclusive manufacture in SSI.
b) Write a note on market survey.

7
6

Set A

SLR-KM 74

-4-

*SLRKM74*

SECTION II
6. a) The fixed cost for the product is Rs. 1,00,000/-. The estimated sales is Rs. 3,00,000/-.
The variable cost per unit for the single product is Rs. 5/-. If each unit sells at
Rs. 30/- and the number of units involved coincides with expected volume of output.
Construct break even chart and determine. :
a) BEP in quantity
b) BEP in Rs.
c) Margin of safety
d) Angle of incidence.

10

b) Write a note on ratio analysis and its significance.


7. a) Distinguish between marketing and selling.
b) What do you mean by taxation ? Explain various types of tax.
8. a) Define project feasibility. Discuss financial and technical viability of the project.
b) Discuss a sample project report by considering an example related to civil
engineering.
9. a) Define sales promotion. Explain all sales promotion techniques.
b) Write a note on barriers of communication.

4
7
6
7
6
7
6

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 75

*SLRKM75*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUE (Elective III)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct option :


1) Optimization means
a) Minimization (or) maximization
c) Minimization

Marks : 20
(201=20)

b) Maximization only
d) Mean of the maximum and minimum

2) Which of the following is not a limitation of optimization techniques ?


a) Qualitative aspects
b) Gap between decision maker and model maker
c) Involvement of multiple constraints
d) Scientific approach
3) The operations research widely employed in marketing problems is
a) Goal programming
b) Dynamic programming
c) Integer programming
d) Game theory
4) In which of the following probabilistic models are not found
a) Transportation models
b) Waiting line models
c) Network models
d) Inventory models
5) Queuing can be categorized under
a) Probabilities models
c) Deterministic models

b) Iconic models
d) Verbal models

6) A constraint represented by = sign is


a) Availability constraint
c) Exact constraint

b) Requirement constraint
d) No constraint

7) If a maximum limit is imposed on a resource usage then it is known as


a) Availability constraint
b) Requirement constraint
c) Exact constraint
d) Straight constraint
8) Which of the following is not a part of an LPP problem ?
a) Objective function
b) Constraint set
c) Condition set
d) End corrections
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 75

*SLRKM75*

-2-

9) The product P requires 2 man hours, Q requires 3 hours and R requires 4 hours. If
the company works for 6 day week with only one shift of 8 hours, then this is
represented as (Assume x, y, z units are manufactured in P, Q and R types of
products respectively
a) 2x + 3y + 4z < 56
b) 2x + 3y + 4z > 8/6
c) 2x + 3y + 4z > 48
d) 2x + 3y + 4z < 48
10) In a Dynamic Programming Problem
a) Objective and constraints arise from a serial system
b) Objective and constraints arise from a parallel system
c) Objective and constraints are quadratic
d) Objective is quadratic and constraints are linear
11) Non linear programming is developed by
a) Kuhn and Tucker b) Bellman
c) Newton

d) Gomory

12) The necessary condition for single variable unconstrained optimization problem is
a) f1(x*) = 0
b) f1(x*) 0
c) f1(x*) < 0
d) f1(x*) > 0
13) If f (x) has only one variable useful, the second derivative d2f/(dx2) is positive for
its
a) Maximum values
b) Minimum values
c) Minimax
d) Maxmin
14) For a function f(x) = 4x5 25x4 + 40x3 + 10; f11 (x) = 0 for x =
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
15) In simplex tableau, the value of 7 C for basic variables will be
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
d) Unity
16) In simplex tableau we neglect value for minimum ratio
a) Unity
b) Zero
c) Infinity

d) Positive

17) In an LPP; Max 5x + 6y. Subject to 2x + 3y > 50, 4x + 3y > 100, the objective
function of first phase in 2-phase method is
a) 5x + 6y
b) + 5x + 6y MA1 MA2
c) +A1 + A2
d) 0x + 0y A1 A2
18) Simulation is _______ of real life problem.
a) Opposite
b) Imitation
c) Computer software
d) Computer hardware
19) If a dual has unrestricted variable, its primal will have
a) Corresponding variable unrestricted
b) Corresponding constant is requirement type
c) Corresponding constraint is exact type
d) The constraint is written by splitting the corresponding variable into 2 parts
20) Simulation is widely used to solve
a) Queuing problem
c) Real life complex problems

b) Inventory problem
d) All

______________

Set A

*SLRKM75*

-3-

SLR-KM 75

Seat
No.

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUE (Elective III)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Q. 2 is compulsory. Solve any two of Q. 3 to Q .5.


2) Q. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two of Q. 7 to Q .9.

SECTION I
2. a) If (mean arrival rate) = 300 cars per hour through a toll booth and if it takes an
average of 30 seconds to exchange money at a toll booth, then calculate (mean
inter arrival time). How many servers are needed at toll booth to accommodate the
passing cars without formation of any queue ?

b) Solve the following LPP using Big M method.


Maximise p = 2x1+ x2
Subjected to
x1 + x2 < 10
x1 + x2 > 2
x1, x2 > 0.

Set A

SLR-KM 75

-4-

*SLRKM75*

3. a) Write the standard format of optimization problems.

b) Determine the maximum and minimum values of the function f(x) = x2 + 3x 5.

4. a) In figure labels on the arcs indicate the flow capacities in both the directions. For
example, on the arc joining A to B, the label near A indicates flow in direction A to B,
while label near B indicates flow from B to A. Determine maximum total flow
from A to G.

b) Find the shortest path from node 1 to all other nodes. Find the other distances, in
order of increasing distance from node 1.

Set A

*SLRKM75*

SLR-KM 75

-5-

5. a) Determine the initial basic feasible solution for the following transportation model
To->
From

Delhi

Ahmedabad

Madras

Capacity

10

100

25

75

Requirement

80

30

90

200

Use vogels approximation method.

b) Assume you have a lottery ticket with a 45% chance of paying $ 10 and a 55%
chance of paying $ 0. Your friend has a lottery ticket that has a 20% chance of
paying $ 25 and an 80% chance of paying nothing and he will trade it with you for your
ticket and a dollar. Should you trade ? Use decision tree approach.

SECTION II
6. a) Explain the following terms :

i) Laplace criteria
ii) Two person zero sum game
iii) Pure and mixed strategy.
b) Determine the value of the game and optimal strategies for Player P and Q.

Player Q
Player P

7. a) What is Simulation ? Name three simulation techniques. Explain Monte Carlo


Technique.
b) Explain integer programming.

8
5

Set A

SLR-KM 75

-6-

*SLRKM75*

8. a) Explain Dynamic Programming.

b) Explain Probabilistic model for inventory management.

9. a) If annual demand is 10000 units, order cost of is Rs. 300/order, carrying cost is
Rs. 4/unit/year. Calculate EOQ, total cost, minimum value of total cost, no. of orders
per year and reorder period. Assume continuous demand and instantaneous
replenishment.

b) Write the expressions for expected average queue length, expected average total
time and expected average waiting time in terms of = service rate, = arrival
rate and = / . Assume M/D/1 case (random Arrival, Deterministic service,

and one service channel).

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 76

*SLRKM76*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DISASTER MANAGEMENT (Elective III)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Total Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5
and any two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The largest wave during a tsunami event is
a) The first
b) The last
c) Unpredictable, it could be any of them
d) None, all are about same size
2) Destructive power of tsunami results mainly from their
a) Incredible height
b) Unpredictability
c) Momentum and long wavelength
d) None of these
3) In the open ocean, tsunami can travel ___________ miles per hour with periods upto
_____________ minutes.
a) 50 ; 20
b) 50 ; 60
c) 485 ; 20
d) 485 ; 60
4) Which event produces the biggest tsunami ?
a) Earthquake
b) Underwater landslides
c) impacts of asteroids and comets
d) None of the above
5) Powerful tsunami are most frequently produced by
a) Volcanoes
b) Underwater landslides
c) Earthquakes
d) Impacts of asteroids
6) The Pacific Ocean has an average depth of about 5,500 meters, which yields a theoretical
deep-ocean tsunami velocity of about _________meters per second.
a) 2
b) 23
c) 230
d) 2300
7) Tsunami are deadly natural hazards that commonly are generated by
a) Fault motion with vertical offset under sea during which there is vertical offset
b) Fault movements on land during which there is vertical offset
c) Tides produced by gravitational attraction between the Earth and the Moon
d) Hurricanes
8) Tsunami tend to have the greatest destructive power at a section of a coastline where
a) The bottom of the ocean dips gently near the coast
b) The bottom of the ocean dips steeply near the coast
c) There is a harbor and the bottom of the ocean bottom dips gently
d) There is a harbor and the bottom of the ocean bottom dips steeply
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 76

-2-

*SLRKM76*

9) A tsunamic event can begin with a drawdown or retreat if the _________ of the wave
arrives first.
a) Response
b) Top
c) Right side
d) Left side
10) Earthquakes that occur along faults are created when
a) Water is squeezed out of rock and released along the fault
b) Stress builds up until rocks break
c) The earth shifts and moves along fractures
d) None of the above
11) The type of energy that shakes the earth during an earthquake is produced by
a) Gravitational attraction
b) Density variations
c) Shock waves
d) Heat
12) The point at which a fault first ruptures in the earth is called the
a) Hypocenter
b) Hypicenter
c) Hypercenter
d) Epicenter
13) Which of the following is not true for P waves ?
a) They have a push-pull or compression-extension motion
b) They have the greatest velocity of all seismic waves
c) They can move through solids, liquids and gases
d) Their velocity depends only on density and resistance to shearing of materials
14) Which of the following is true for S waves ?
a) They move by shaking the earth at right angles to the direction of advance
b) They arrive at seismic stations later than P waves
c) They can move only through solids
d) All of the above
15) All of the following are true about disasters except
a) A disaster may have a known and gradual onset
b) A disaster may be domestic or international
c) A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins
d) A disaster always receives widespread media coverage
16) The Mercalli intensity is useful because
a) It is the only method of assessing the energy of an earthquake
b) It allows us to assess the magnitude of historical earthquakes for which there are no
instrumented records and thus estimate recurrence intervals for major earthquakes
c) It helps to determine the magnitude of small or distant earthquakes for which the
Richter scale is inadequate
d) It predicts the next major earthquake
17) A drought is defined as
a) A desert region of low rainfall
b) A time of abnormally low rainfall
c) A famine condition
d) A lack of water
18) Atmospheric pressure in the center of a tropical cyclone is
a) Very high because of converging winds b) Very high because of sinking warm air
c) Very low because of rising warm air
d) Very low because of dense sinking air
19) Cyclones that come ashore in Bangladesh cause extensive loss of human life because
a) They are different type of storm than hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean
b) The country is poor and people are not aware of cyclones
c) Buildings are poorly built and winds can easily destroy them
d) Much of the population lives very close to sea level and cannot evacuate
20) Which ocean does not commonly experience tropical cyclones ?
a) North Atlantic
b) South Atlantic
c) Western pacific d) Eastern Pacific
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM76*

-3-

SLR-KM 76

Seat
No.
B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2015
DISASTER MANAGEMENT (Elective III)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5
and any two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9.
2) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain Environmental Disaster Risk Reduction using Perception approach.
b) Explain the concept of Environmental disaster.
3. a) Explain distribution of earthquakes Prone zones in India.
b) What are hazardous effects of volcanic eruptions ?
4. a) Write about mitigation of Earthquakes.
b) Explain about one of the recent cyclone hazards in India.
5. a) Explain drought control measures.

9
5
5
8
8
5
8

b) Write a note on Bhopal Gas tragedy.

SECTION II
6. a) Explain Post Disaster stage in Disaster Management.

b) What are the measures of adjustments to natural hazards ?

7. a) Explain the role of Volcanology Institution in Disaster mitigation.

b) What are programs of disaster research run by IGBP ?


8. a) Explain role of Panchayats in Disaster mitigation.
b) Explain about ecological planning for sustainability in India.
9. a) Provide the details of Land subsidence in India.
b) Write a note on Adjustment of human population in disaster preparedness.

8
5
8
8
5

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 77

*SLRKM77*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) (New) (CGPA)


Examination, 2015
ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the corrects answer :

(141=14)

1) When two parts are joined by a bolt and one part is tightened on the other, stress set up in the bolt
is___________
a) Tensile
b) Compressive
c) Shear
d) All of the above
2) Angle between the principal planes and plane of maximum shear stress is _________
a) 90

b) 45


c) 120

d) None of the above




3) Two bars designated as bar no. 1 and bar no. 2 have the same initial length and same cross
sectional area. Under a given load P, bar no.1 elongates more than bar no.2. Then elasticity of the
material of bar no. 1 is _______ than that of material of bar no. 2.
a) More
b) Less
c) Equal
d) None of the above
4) The strength of hollow shaft for the same length, material and weight is _________ a solid shaft.
a) less than
b) more than
c) equal to
d) none of the above
5) In a cantilever, carrying a load whose intensity varies uniformly from zero at the free ends to W
per unit run at fixed end, the S.F. changes following a
a) Linear law
b) Parabolic law
c) Cubic law
d) None of the above
6) The radius of Mohrs stress circle indicates
a) Maximum normal stress
c) Maximum Shear stress

b) Minimum Normal stress


d) Minimum Shear Stress

7) In a simply supported beam carry UDL of W per unit run over the whole span, the maximum bending
moment is equal to
4

a)
w

b)
w

c)
w

d)
w

8
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 77
8) Deflection of a beam depends upon
a) Cross sectional area
c) Bending Moment

*SLRKM77*

-2-

b) Youngs Modulus
d) All of the above

9) For an I section with unequal flanges, maximum shear stress occurs at


a) the junction of flanges and web
b) the neutral axis
c) the top of the section
d) the bottom of the section
10) To determine critical load, Rankines formula is applicable only when
a) the column is short
b) the column is long
c) the column is medium
d) all of the above
11) The stress due to suddenly applied load is ________ times that of gradually applied load.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
12) If section modulus of a beam is increased, the bending stress will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains unchanged
d) none of the above
13) For a cantilever loaded with one point load applied not at the free end, the maximum deflection
occurs at the
a) free end
b) load point
c) fixed end
d) both a and b
14) A column having one end fixed and other end free is capable of carrying a safe load of 100kN. Then
the safe load is carried by the same column when one end is fixed and other end is hinged will be
a) 100 kN
b) 800 kN
c) 50 kN
d) 75 kN

______________

Set A

*SLRKM77*

-3-

SLR-KM 77

Seat
No.

S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 56

Solve any two questions from each section.


Use of calculator is allowed.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume additional suitable data, if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I

2. a) A reinforced concrete column of 40 cm diameter supports a load of 500 kN axially. The reinforcement
consists of 8 steel rods each of 2 cm diameter. Find how much load is carried by the rods and
concrete if the Youngs modulus of steel is 15 times that of concrete. If stress in concrete should not
exceed 3 N/mm2, find the number of steel rods required for reinforcement so that the column can
support a load of 800 kN.

10

b) At a point within the material, the minimum and maximum stresses are 30 MN/m2 and 90 MN/m2
respectively both tensile, determine the shearing stress on the plane passing through the point and
making an angle of tan10.25 with the plane on which the maximum stress acts.

3. a) Draw shear force and bending moment diagrams for the beam shown in figure. Indicate the numerical
values at all important section.

b) At a point in an elastic material under strain, there are normal tensile stresses of 50 MN/m2 and 30
MN/m2 respectively at right angles to each other with a shearing stress of 25 MN/m2. Find graphically
the principal stresses, position of principal plane and maximum shear stress.

Set A

SLR-KM 77

-4-

*SLRKM77*

4. a) A hollow shaft having an internal diameter 50% of its external diameter transmits 600 kW at 150 rpm.
Determine the external diameter of the shaft if the shear stress is not exceed 65 N/mm2 and the
twist in a length of 3m should not exceed 1.4 degrees.

Assume maximum torque = 1.2 mean torque and


Modulus of rigidity = 1105 N/mm2
b) Draw the stress-strain diagram for common mild steel and show the significant points on it.

c) Draw the shear force and bending moment diagram showing magnitude for a simply
supported beam subjected to a uniformly distributed load W per unit length.

SECTION II
5. a) A beam is of T section as shown in figure. The beam is simply supported over a span of 4m and
carries a uniformly distributed load of 1.7 kN/m run over the entire span. Determine the maximum
tensile and maximum compressive stresses.

b) Find the Eulers crippling load for a hollow cylindrical steel column of 38 mm external diameter and
2.5 mm thickness. Take length of column as 2.3 m and hinged at its both ends. E = 205 GPa. Also
determine crippling load by Rankines formula using constants as 335 MPa and

1
7500

Set A

*SLRKM77*

-5-

SLR-KM 77

6. a) A bar of length 4 m when used as a simply supported beams and subjected to a uniformly distributed
load of 30 kN/m over the whole span, deflects 15 mm at the centre. Determine the crippling load
when it is used as column with the following end conditions.
i) Both ends pin jointed
ii) One end fixed and other end hinged
iii) Both ends fixed
b) A vertical bar of uniform cross sectional area 400 mm2 and 1.5 m long is fixed at the top end and is
provided with the circular disc at the bottom. If the weight of 500 N falls on the disc from a height of
100 mm, determine a maximum stress set in the bar. Take E = 200 kN/mm2. Also determine strain
energy absorbed, modulus of resilience and maximum instantaneous elongation of the bar.
7. a) Derive the expression for shear stress at a point in transverse section subjected to shear force F.
b) A cantilever beam of length 3 m is carrying a uniformly distributed load of W kN/m. Assuming
rectangular cross section with depth (d) equal to twice the width (b), determine the dimensions of
beam, so that vertical deflection at the free end does not exceed 8 mm.

9
4

10

Take maximum bending stress = 100 MPa and E = 200 GPa.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 78

*SLRKM78*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Use of steam stables and mollier diagram is allowed.
4) Use of scientific calculator is allowed
5) Assune suitable data if required and state it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

(141=14)

1) The Rankine cycle as compared with to Carnot cycle has _______ work ratio.
A) high
B) low
C) equal
D) half
2) Rankine cycle comprises of
A) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
B) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
C) two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
D) none of the above
3) In boiler, various heat losses take. The biggest loss is due to
A) Moisture in fuel
B) Dry flue gases
C) Steam formation
D) Unburnt carbon
4) The draught may be produced by
A) Mechanical fan B) Chimney

C) Steam jet

5) The throttling process on h-s diagram will be a


A) Horizontal line B) Curve
C) Vertical line

D) All of the above


D) Inclined line

6) Which of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system ?


A) pressure

B) volume

C) temperature

D) density
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 78

*SLRKM78*

-2-

7) Second law of thermodynamics defines


A) heat

B) work

C) entropy

D) internal energy

8) A condenser in a steam power plant


A) increase expansion ratio of steam
B) reduces back pressure of steam
C) reduces temperature of exhaust steam
D) all of the above
9) Degree of reaction for Parsons reaction turbine is
A) 20%

B) 30%

C) 40%

D) 50%

10) The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam by
____________ while it passes over the blade.
A) 10 to 15%

B) 15 to 20%

C) 20 to 30%

D) 30 to 40%

11) The ratio of volume of free air delivery per stroke to swept volume of piston is
known as
A) Compressor efficiency

B) Volumetric efficiency

C) Isentropic efficiency

D) Mechanical efficiency

12) In a single stage single acting reciprocating air compressor without clearance
volume, the work done is minimum during
A) Isothermal compression

B) Isentropic compression

C) Polytropic compression

D) None of the above

13) The flow of steam is supersonic


A) At entrance of nozzle

B) At throat of nozzle

C) In convergent part of nozzle

D) In divergent part of nozzle

14) The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
A) 0.528

B) 0.546

C) 0.577

D) 0.582

______________

Set A

*SLRKM78*

-3-

SLR-KM 78

Seat
No.

S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 56

Use of steam stables and mollier diagram is allowed.


Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
Solve any two questions from each Section.
Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly.

SECTION I
2. a) The following data were recorded during trial of boiler
Steam generated = 5500 Kg/hr
Dryness fraction of steam = 0.95
Steam pressure = 10 bar
Coal used = 70 Kg/hr
Calorific value of coal = 33000 KJ/Kg
Moisture in fuel = 2.5% by mass
Mass of dry flue gases = 8.5 Kg/Kg of coal
Temperature of flue gases = 350 C
Temperature of boiler room = 30 C
Feed water temperature = 40 C
Specific heat of flue gases = 1.005 KJ/KgK
Draw heat balance sheet of boiler.


b) Make comparison of Carnot Cycle and Rankine Cycle.

3. a) State and derive Clausius inequality. What is its importance ?

b) A throttling calorimeter is used to measure the quality of wet steam at 20 bar. The
steam is throttled trough a calorimeter. The pressure and temperature in Calorimeter
are 1 bar and 130 C respectively. Calculate quality of wet steam.
Assume specific heat as 2.1 KJ/Kg.


Set A

SLR-KM 78

*SLRKM78*

-4-

4. a) Explain reheat cycle with block and T-S diagram. What are its advantages ?

b) An iron cube at a temperature of 400 C is dropped into an insulated bath




containing 10 kg of water at 25 C . The water finally reaches a temperature of 50 C


at steady state. Given that specific heat of water equal to 4186 J/KgK. Find entropy
changes for iron cube and water. Is process reversible or irreversible ? Why ?


SECTION II
5. a) What is nozzle ? What are its different types ? Define nozzle efficiency and
state factors affecting it.
b) In a steam nozzle the steam expands from 4 bar to 1 bar. The initial velocity is
60 m/s and initial temperature is 200 C .Determine the exit velocity if nozzle
efficiency is 92%.
c) Define the terms vacuum efficiency and condenser efficiency in connection
with condenser. Draw a neat sketch of induced draught cooling tower.

5
5

6. a) In De-laval turbine steam issues from a nozzle with a velocity of 1200 m/s. the
nozzle angle is 20 . The mean blade speed is 400 m/s. inlet and outlet angles of
blade are equal. The mass of steam flowing through turbine per hour is 1000 kg
calculate :
i) Blade angles
ii) Relative velocity of steam entering the blade
iii) Tangential force on blade
iv) Power developed. Take K = 0.8


b) Explain classification of steam turbines.

c) With a neat sketch explain any one surface type condenser.

7. a) Explain the need of Intercooling in a multistage compressor. Drive the expression


for Intermediate pressure for minimum work input for a two-stage compressor.
b) Why isothermal compression is best process for reciprocating compressor ?
Explain with neat P-V diagram.
c) A single stage, double acting compressor has a free air delivery (F.A.D.) of 14 m3/min.,

5
4

measured at 1.013 bar and 15 C . The pressure and temp. in the cylinder during


induction are 0.95 bar and 32 C . The delivery press. is 7 bar and index of
compression and expansion n = 1.3. The clearance volume is 5% of swept volume.
Calculate :
i) Indicated power required
ii) Volumetric efficiency


_________________

Set A

SLR-KM 79

*SLRKM79*
S

S.E. (Mechanical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

N. B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Attempt any three question from each Section.


Use of calculator and statistical tables are allowed.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose correct alternative :


1)

______________

a)

(114=14)

b)

c)

d)

2) The P. I. of (D2 3D + 2) y = x is ______________


a)


b) x + 1

3) The general solution of (x+ 2)2

c)
@

a) (c1 + c2x)ex
c) c1 (x + 2) + c2 (x + 2)2

"

d)
!

!


is y = ___________

b) (c1x + c2x2)logx
d) c1 (x + 2)2 + c2(x + 2)3

4) The solution of q = 3p2 is ______________


a) z = 3ax + a2y + c

b) z = ax + 3a2y + c

c) z = 3ax2 + by

d) none of these
P.T.O.

*SLRKM79*

SLR-KM 79
-25) The solution of xp + yq = z is ______________
a)


b)
0

c)

, then grad r = _____________




6) If

d)




a)

b)


c) r
H

d) 0

7) A vector function
a) grad
.

is called irrotational if


=0

b) div

=0

c) curl

=0

d)

8) If is the mean of random sample of size n taken from a population of size


N having mean and standard derivation then mean and variance of the
distribution are
N

a)
x

b)


c)


d)


9) The level of significance is the size of


a) Type I error
b) Type II error
c) Type I and Type II error
d) None


10) The function is


a) Analytic at some point
c) Not harmonic
z

b) Not analytic at any point


d) None
z

11) If C is the circle


z

, the value of

___________

a)


b) 2


c) 0

12) In a lot of 100 items, the probability of defective item is

d) none

the binomial distribution is


a) 5
b) 1

, then the mean of




c) 10

d) none

13) In a Poisson distribution, p (x = 2) = p (x = 3) then the mean m is


a)
!

b) 3

c) 2

d)
!

14) The area under the standard normal curve from z =


a) 1

b) 0

c)


______________

to z = 0 is
d)
!

Set A

*SLRKM79*
S

SLR-KM 79

-3-

S.E. (Mechanical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Marks : 56

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


N. B. : 1) Attempt any three question from each Section.
2) Use of calculator and statistical tables are allowed.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D3 + D) y = cost + t3.
b) Solve
@

'

c) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2)y = sin (ex).

3. a) The motion of a particle is given by


d

. Show that as

.





. If at t = 0, s = s0 and

J
k

b) Solve

"

OR
b) Solve

O


N


N


Set A

SLR-KM 79

*SLRKM79*

-4-

4. a) Prove that







b) Show that
both solenoidal and irrotational.





is
3

c) A particle moves along the curve x = et, y = 2cos3t, z = 2sin3t. Find the
velocity and acceleration vector and the magnitude of velocity and acceleration
at t = 0.
5. a) Solve xzp + yzq = xy.

3
3

b) Solve z2 (p2 + q2 + 1) = k2.

c) Solve the following partial differential equation





K

, given that

u(x, 0) = 6e3x by the method of separation of variables.

SECTION II
6. a) Monthly salaries of 1000 workers have a normal distribution with mean of
Rs. 575 and a standard deviation of Rs. 75. Find the number of workers
having salaries between Rs. 500 and Rs. 625 per month.
Also find the minimum salary of the highest paid 200 workers.
(Given : Area between t = 0 and t = 1 is 0.3413.
Area between t = 0 to t = 0.67 is 0.2486.
Area between t = 0 to t = 0.84 is 0.3).

b) An examination containing multiple choice questions is designed so that the


probability of a correct choice for any question by guessing alone is 0.2 What
is the probability that a student will not get more than four questions right out
of 20 merely by guessing.

3
Set A

*SLRKM79*

SLR-KM 79

-5-

c) A random sample of boots worn by 36 soldiers in a desert region showed an


average life of 1.08 years with a standard deviation of 0.6 years under the
standard conditions, the boots are known to have an average life of 1.28
years. Is there a reason to assert at 1% level of significance, that use in
desert causes the mean life of such boots to decrease ?
Assume that the life of boots is normally distributed.
(Critical value for one-tailed test at 1% L.O.S. is 2.33).

7. a) If the probability that an individual suffers a bad reaction from a certain injection
is 0.001. Determine the probability that out of 2000 individuals more
than 2 will suffer a bad reaction.

b) In a random sample of 400 persons from a large population, 120 are females.
Can it be said that males and females are in the ratio 5 : 3 in the population ?
Use 1% level of significance.
(Critical value of z at 1% level of significance for two tailed test is 2.58).

c) An examination was given to 50 students at college A and to 60 students at


college B. At A, the mean grade was 75 with a std. deviation of 9. At B, the
mean grade was 79 with a standard deviation of 7. Is there a significant
difference between the performance of the students at A and those at B.
Given that


(Critical value is 1.96 for 5% L.O.S.).

3
#

8. a) Show that the following function

"

is not analytic at the origin although Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied.

Set A

SLR-KM 79

*SLRKM79*

-6-

b) Test whether there is significant difference at 0.05 L.O.S. in the quality of


teaching among four engineering colleges A, B, C, D of a technological
university if number of failure are 26, 23, 15, 32 respectively. Assume that
each college has a strength of 200 students.
(Critical value of

9. a) Evaluate

at 5% L.O.S. 3 dof is 7.815).




where C is the circle


z

b) Evaluate

along the parabola x = y2.

c) In a random sample of 10 bolts produced by a machine the mean length of


bolts is 0.53 mm and std. deviation 0.03 mm. Can we claim from this that
machine is in proper working order if in the past it produced bolts of length
0.50 mm ? Use 0.05 L.O.S.
(Critical value of t at 9 dof, two tailed test for 5% L.O.S. is 2.26).

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 80

*SLRKM80*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MACHINE TOOLS AND PROCESSES (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All the answers must write in the answer sheet.
4) Only correct answer will be given full marks.
5) There is no negative marking for any question.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

(114=14)

1) The back gear mechanism is used in lathe machine to


a) Increase spindle speed
c) Reduce speed

b) Automatic feeding
d) None of these

2) To produce eccentric axis of the workpiece in the lathe machine the ________
chuck is used.
a) Three jaw chuck
c) Magnetic chuck

b) Four jaw chuck


d) Collect chuck

3) Machining of non-conducting material is possible in


a) EDM

b) ECM

c) USM

d) None of these

4) Slot cutting on workpiece by vertical milling machine is by using


a) Single angle cutter
c) End mill cutter

b) Double angle cutter


d) Slab miling cutter

5) In the double housing planer machine


a) Tool reciprocates
c) Table and tool reciprocates

b) Table reciprocates
d) Table and tool stationary
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 80

*SLRKM80*

-2-

6) The remedies of Misbalancing grinding wheel can be overcome by


a) Glazing

b) Trueing

c) Loading

d) Dressing

7) Point To Point (PTP) in the CNC machine is the type of


a) CNC drilling

b) CNC hobbing c) CNC grinding

d) CNC turning

8) Boring operation in the lathe machine is accomplished by using


a) Drill bit

b) Reamer tool

c) Tapping tool

d) Single point tool

9) The cylindrical workpiece are held in the drilling machine to carry the
operations in
a) C-clamp

b) Machine Vice c) V block

d) T-bolt

10) During the return stroke the ram in the shaping M/C is
a) slower than forward
c) faster than forward

b) same as forward
d) none of these

11) The basic principle of cylindrical grinding M/C


a) Wheel rotates
c) Work reciprocates

b) Work rotates
d) All of these

12) Gear rolling is the process of


a) Gear generation
c) Gear forming

b) Gear finishing
d) Gear casting

13) Tapping operation can perform in


a) Lathe machine
c) Grinding machine

b) Slotting machine
d) Boring machine

14) Machining of hardened workpiece can be perform on


a) Grinding machine
c) NC machine

b) DNC machine
d) CNC lathe

______________

Set A

*SLRKM80*

-3-

SLR-KM 80

Seat
No.

S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MACHINE TOOLS AND PROCESSES (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : a) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


b) Draw the neat sketches wherever necessary.
c) Assume suitable data if required.
SECTION I
2. a) How the manufacturing process are classified ?

b) Explain the difference between steady rest and follower rest with sketch.

3. a) List the different methods of taper turning perform in lathe machine. Explain
tail stock set over method.

b) Difference between capstan and turret lathe to centre lathe machine.

4. a) Explain the construction and working principle of radial drilling machine.

b) Explain Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM) process with its working


principles, advantages and disadvantages.
5. Write short note on any three :

5
(33=9)

a) Specification of lathe machine


b) Bar feed mechanism in capstan and turret lathe
c) Construction and working of double housing planer
d) Construction and working of slotting machine.
Set A

SLR-KM 80

-4-

*SLRKM80*

SECTION II
6. a) Sketch and compare up milling and down milling.

b) Sketch and write the steps to be followed in the spur gear milling.

7. a) Explain with sketch the vertical boring machine.

b) Write points to be considered in selecting a grinding wheel.

8. a) Index work piece for 83 divisions on milling machine using dividing head by
differential indexing method.

Indexing plate
Plate No. 1 : 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20
Plate No. 2 : 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33
Plate No. 3 : 37, 39, 41, 43, 47, 49
Change Gears 24, 24, 28, 32, 40, 44, 48, 56, 64, 72, 86 and 100 (one gear each)
b) To Mill 45 teeth on Spur Gear set the dividing head by simple indexing.
9. Write short note on any three :

4
10

a) Gear finishing processes


b) Pull and push broach
c) CNC machine
d) Steps in mounting new grinding wheel
e) Jig boring machine.

Set A

SLR-KM 81

*SLRKM81*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MACHINE DRAWING (New-CGPA)
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015

Max. Marks : 70

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Only first angle method of projection should be used.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

14

Type - I : Match the Pairs

Column A

Column B

1) Seam Weld

P)

2) V-Butt Weld

Q)

3) Plug weld

R)
S)

Type - II : Correct or Incorrect (any 2) :

1) 30 + 0.01,0.00 is example of bilateral tolerance.


2) ~ is used as a symbol of roughness grade.
3) In cotter joint cotter is having taper of 1:30
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 81

*SLRKM81*

-2-

Type-III : Multiple correct answer (any 2) :


1)

is convention of following material


P) Aluminium

2)

Q) Glass

R) Asbestos

2
S) Rubber

Meaning of symbol is

P) Direction of lay is in T direction


Q) Direction of lay is perpendicular direction
R) Machining allowance is 2 mm
S) Machine allowance is 2 micron
3) Wing nut is used for ______
P) Compressor
Q) Hack saw
R) Frequently Adjustment
S) All of the above

Type - IV : Straight objective type (Single correct answer) :


1)

This symbol represents


P) Internal threads
R) External threads

Q) Position
S) Hollow shaft

2) ACME threads having included angle


P) 27
Q) 29
R) 15

S) 30

3) The allowable deviations are called _____.


P) Tolerances
Q) Limits
R) Fits
S) None of the above
4) The relationships between the mating parts are called _____.
P) tolerances
Q) limits
R) fits
S) none of the above
5) ______ is a IS-code for conventional representation of tolerances on technical
drawing.
P) IS: 1919 1963
Q) IS 10717 1983
R) IS 10716 1983
S) None of the above
______________
Set A

*SLRKM81*

-3-

SLR-KM 81

Seat
No.

S.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MACHINE DRAWING (New-CGPA)
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)

Marks : 56

Retain all the constructional details.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable dimensions whenever necessary.
Q.No. 2 is compulsory question.
Attempt any three questions out of Q.No. 3 to Q.No. 6.
Whenever necessary, refer the tolerance table, provided
with the question paper.

2. Fig. shows the details of Lathe tail-stock. Assemble all the parts together and
draw the following views,
i) Front view
ii) Side view
iii) Prepare part list

23

Set A

SLR-KM 81

-4-

*SLRKM81*

3. Draw neat and proportionate free-hand sketches of the following (any 3)


i) Socket and Spigot (Cotter joint).

11
4

ii) Rag foundation bolt.


iii) V-belt pulley.

4
3

iv) Gib headed key in position.

4. Show the BIS conventions of the following :

11

i) Worm and Worm wheel.


ii) Splined shaft.

3
2

iii) Repeated parts.

iv) Spiral spring without barrel.


v) Broken Section or Local Section.

2
2

5. Fig. shows two views of an object. Redraw the given views and complete the
front view and auxiliary view of the object.

11

Set A

*SLRKM81*

-5-

SLR-KM 81

6. a) Redraw the given two views (Figure 01) and shows following :
i) Surface grinding to surface A with two triangle finish.
ii) Parallelism for axis of 20 and 26 within 0.25 mm.
iii) Axis of 20 hole is to be perpendicular to A within 0.1 mm.
iv) Bilateral tolerance of 0.2 mm for dimension 62 mm.

7
2
2
2
1

b) Identify the type of fit indicate with following fit designation


i) 30 H7/d9
ii) 50 h7/s6.

Set A

SLR-KM 81

-6-

*SLRKM81*

(Values in microns)

(Values in microns)

Set A

*SLRKM81*

-7-

SLR-KM 81

(Values in microns)

______________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 82

*SLRKM82*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


FLUID MECHANICS
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m.to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


Type I : All questions are compulsory. There are two questions carrying three marks each :
1)
Column I
Column II
3
A) Stable equilibrium for floating body
p) B is above G
B) Unstable equilibrium for floating body q) M is above G
C) Stable equilibrium for submerged body r) B is below G
s) M is below G
2)
Column I
Column II
3
A) Major losses
p) Pipe bends
B) Minor losses
q) Compound pipe
C) Equivalent pipe
r) Darcy Weisbach
s) Sudden Expansion
Type II : Attempt any one from two questions. Each question carries two marks :
3) Statement (I) : When the venturimeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will
show the same readings.
Statement (II) : When the venturimeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will
show different readings.
4) Statement (I) : According to Bernoullis theorem, total head with flowing fluid
is constant.
Statement (II) : In a pitot tube pressure head is converted to kinetic head.

Type III : Attempt any four from five questions given. Each question carries two marks :
5) The assumptions made in the most familiar form of Bernoullis equation is that
2
A) Flow is along stream line
B) Flow is steady
C) Fluid is non-viscous
D) Fluid is viscous
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 82

*SLRKM82*

-2-

6) The component of acceleration in x, y direction are


u
u
u
+v
+w
x
y
z
v
v
v
C) a y = u + v + w
x
y
z

A) a x = u

u
u
u u
+ v + w
+
x
y
z t
v
v
v v
D) a y = u + v + w +
x
y
z t

B) a x = u

7) In case of parallel pipe


2
A) Loss of head in each branch pipe is same
B) Loss of head in each branch pipe is different
C) Discharge in main pipe is equal to sum of rate of flow through branch pipe
D) Discharge in main pipe decreases
8) The relative contributions of pressure drag and friction drag to the total drag
depends on
2
A) Shape of immersed body
B) Fluid characteristics
C) Material of the body
D) Position of body immersed in the fluid
9) Equipotential lines
2
A) These are the lines drawn along the stream lines
B) These are the lines drawn perpendicular to the stream lines
C) Represented by = constant
D) Represented by = constant
Type IV : Attempt any four from five questions given. Each question carries one mark :
10) Continuity equation deals with law of conservation of
1
A) Mass
B) Momentum
C) Energy
D) None of above
11) Coefficient of contraction is the ratio of
1
A) Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
B) Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
C) Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
D) Area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
12) The total energy line lies over the hydraulic gradient line by an amount equal
to the
1
A) Pressure head
B) Velocity head
C) Pressure head + Velocity head
D) Pressure head Velocity head
13) The intensity of pressure on an immersed surface ________ with the increase
in depth.
1
A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) No change
D) None of above
14) When a liquid is flowing through a pipe, the velocity of the liquid is
1
A) Maximum at the centre and minimum near the walls
B) Minimum at the centre and maximum near the walls
C) Zero at the centre and maximum near the walls
D) Maximum at the centre and zero near the walls
______________
Set A

*SLRKM82*

-3-

SLR-KM 82

Seat
No.

S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


FLUID MECHANICS
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Answer three questions from each Section. Question No. 2


and Question No. 6 are compulsory.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Use of single memory non-programmable calculator is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the term metacentre and metacentric height.

b) The velocity components in two dimensional flow field for an incompressible


fluid are as follows :
u=

y3
x3
+ 2x x 2 y , v = xy 2 2y
.
3
3

Obtain an expression for stream function .


3. a) Derive Bernoullis equation for the flow of an incompressible frictionless fluid.
State its assumptions.

b) Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant force due to water acting on
a roller gate of cylindrical form of 6 m diameter, when the gate is placed on
the dam in such a way that water is just going to spill. Take length of gate
as 10 m.

4. a) A nozzle is situated at a distance of 1 m above the ground level and is inclined


at an angle of 45 to the horizontal. The diameter of nozzle is 50 mm and the jet
of water from nozzle strikes the ground at a horizontal distance of 4 m. Find the
rate of flow of water.
b) Obtain an expression for continuity equation in Cartesian coordinate.

7
6

OR
b) What is Hagen Poiseuilles Formula ? Derive an expression for it.

6
Set A

SLR-KM 82

-4-

*SLRKM82*

5. a) What is venturimeter ? Derive an expression for discharge through venturimeter. 7


b) What are equipotential lines ? Show that equipotential lines are orthogonal to
stream lines.

SECTION II
6. a) What are different types of energy losses ? Enlist different minor losses and
explain any one of them.

b) On a flat plate of 2m length and 1m width, experiments were conducted in a


wind tunnel with a speed of 50 km/hr. The plate is kept at such angle that the
coefficients of drag and lift are 0.18 and 0.9 respectively. If density of air is
1.15 kg/m3, determine : drag force, lift force and resultant force.

7. a) A main pipe divides into two parallel pipes which again forms one pipe. The
data is as follows :
First parallel pipe : length = 1000 m and diameter = 0.8 m
Second parallel pipe : Length = 1000 m and diameter = 0.6 m
Coefficient of friction for each pipe = 0.005.
If the total rate of flow in the main is 2m3/s, find the rate of flow in each pipe.
b) Explain the terms :
Friction Drag, Pressure Drag, Streamlined body and bluff body.
8. a) Write a note on CFD. What are applications of CFD software ?

7
6
6

b) What are the advantages and applications of model testing ? What is meant
by geometric, kinematic and dynamic similarities ?
9. a) A pipe line of length 2000m is used for power transmission if 110.3625 KW
power is to be transmitted through the pipe in which water is flowing having
pressure 490.5 N/cm2 at the inlet. Find the diameter of pipe and efficiency of
power transmission if pressure drop over the length of pipe is 98.1 N/cm2.
Take f = 0.0065.
b) Define the following terms :
i) Laminar boundary layer
ii) Turbulent boundary layer
iii) Laminar sub-layer.

7
6

_____________________
Set A

SLR-KM 83

*SLRKM83*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


THEORY OF MACHINES I
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer :
20
I) Match the pairs :
5
List (i)
List (ii)
A) Internal expanding shoe brake
P) Coriolis component of acceleration
B) Pantograph
Q) cot cot = c/b
C) Condition for correct steering
R) Motor cars
D) Davis steering gear
S) Copying machine
E) Quick return motion mechanism T) Sliding pairs
II) Each question carries 2 marks :
8
A) According to path of motion of follower, followers are classified as
a) Reciprocating
b) Oscillating
c) Radial
d) Offset
B) The maximum value of angle of inclination of plane with the horizontal
when the body starts sliding of its own is known as
a) cone angle
b) angle of repose
c) limiting angle of friction
d) friction angle
C) Find degree of freedom of following mechanism

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Zero

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 83

*SLRKM83*

-2-

D) Whether following mechanism is kinematic chain ?

a) Yes

b) No

c) Structure

d) Data insufficient

III) Single correct answer type, each question carries 1 mark :


A) A slider moves with uniform velocity on a revolving link of length r with
angular velocity . The coriolis acceleration component of a point on the
slider relative to a coincident point on the link is equal to
b) 2 perpendicular to link
a) 2 r parallel to link
d) 2 r perpendicular to link
c) 2 parallel to link
B) In dynamically equivalent system, a uniformly distributed mass is divided
into ____________ point masses.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
C) For cam and follower arrangement with follower moving with uniform
velocity, the acceleration in the follower at the time it starts lifting is
a) zero
b) infinity
c) very grate
d) very small
D) Maximum efficiency of a screw jack
a) increases with increase of load on the jack
b) increases with increase in pitch of the screw
c) increases with increase in coefficient of friction
d) is true for all of the above statements
E) The force resisting the outward movement of the balls is known as
__________ of the governor.
a) effort
b) centrifugal force
c) controlling force
d) inertia force
F) In self locking brake, the force required to apply the brake is
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) All of the above
G) A hunting governor is
a) more stable
b) less sensitive
c) more sensitive
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM83*

-3-

SLR-KM 83

Seat
No.

S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


THEORY OF MACHINES I
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.


2) Make suitable assumptions if required and state them
clearly.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain with neat sketch and example types of constrained motion.

b) For the mechanism shown in figure 1, crank O1B rotates at 50 rad/sec and angular
acceleration is 1600 r/s2. The dimensions of various links are
O1B = 43.75 mm, BC = 127.5 mm, O1O2 = 87.5 mm
O2C = 62.5 mm, BD = 56.25 mm and CD = 100 mm.
Determine the velocity of point C and D by instantaneous method.

10

Figure-1 Not to scale


c) Draw neat sketch of Peauceller and Scott Russel straight line mechanism.

4
Set A

SLR-KM 83

-4-

*SLRKM83*

3. a) Figure 2 shows mechanism of a radial valve gear. The crank OA turns uniformly
at 150 rpm and is pinned at A to rod AB. The point C in the rod is guided in the
circular path with D as center and DC as radius. The dimensions of various
links are DA = 150 mm, AB = 550 mm, DC = 500 mm, BE = 350 mm and
AC = 450 mm. Determine the velocity and acceleration of ram E for given
position of the mechanism.
12

Figure-2 Not to scale


b) Find velocity and acceleration of piston and angular velocity and angular
acceleration of connecting rod for following data of an I.C. engine by analytical
method.
Bore = 180 mm, stroke = 600 mm, Engine speed = 200 rpm, length of connecting
rod = 1500 mm, crank angle = 40 from TDC and piston is moving downwards.
4. a) Draw polar velocity diagram for single Hookes joint and discuss features of
driven shaft speed.

8
8

b) The ratio between the width of the front axle and that of the wheel base of a
steering mechanism is 0.44. At the instant when the front inner wheel is
turned by 18, what should be the angle turned by the outer front wheel for
perfect steering ?

c) The mass of reciprocating parts of a steam engine is 250 kg; diameter of the
cylinder is 450 mm; length of stroke is 550 mm and ratio of length of connecting
rod to crank is 4.5. When the crank is at inner dead center, the difference in
pressure on two sides of piston is 5.6 bar. At what speed must the engine run
so that the thrust in the connecting rod in this position is equal to 5500 N.

Set A

*SLRKM83*

-5-

SLR-KM 83

SECTION II
5. a) A cam rotating clockwise at a uniform speed of 1000 rpm is required to give
roller follower the motion defined below :
14
i) Follower to move outwards through 50 mm during 120 of cam.
ii) Follower to dwell for next 60 of cam rotation.
iii) Follower to return to its starting position during next 90 of cam rotation.
iv) Follower to dwell for the rest of cam rotation. The minimum radius of cam
is 50 mm and diameter of roller is 10 mm. The line of stroke of the follower
is offset by 20 mm from axis of cam shaft. If the displacement of the
follower takes place with cycloidal motion during outward stroke and with
uniform velocity during return stroke. Draw profile of cam.
b) With the help of a neat sketch explain the working of a block or shoe brake.

6. a) Derive an expression for torque required to lower the load by a screw jack.

b) A conical clutch has a cone angle of 30. The maximum intensity of pressure
between the contact surfaces is limited to 70 kpa. If breadth of the conical
rd

surface is not to exceed 13 of the mean radius. Find the dimensions of the
contact surfaces to transmit 22 KW power at 2000 rpm. Assuming uniform
wear condition and coeff. of friction = 0.15.
c) Explain the terms sensitiveness, hunting and stability relating to governors.

8
6

7. a) In a spring loaded governor of the Hartnell type, the mass of each ball is 5 kg
and the lift of the sleeve is 50 mm. The speed at which the governor begins to
float is 240 rpm and at this speed the radius of the ball path is 110 mm. The
mean working speed of the governor is 20 times the range of speed when
friction is neglected. If the lengths of ball and roller arm of the bell crank lever
are 120 mm and 100 mm respectively and if the distance between the center
of pivot of bell crank lever and axis of governor spindle is 140 mm, determine
the initial compression of the spring taking into account the obliquity of arms. 10

Set A

SLR-KM 83

-6-

*SLRKM83*

b) Draw the displacement, velocity and acceleration diagram when follower moves
with SHM.

c) A simple band brake is applied to a shaft carrying a flywheel of 250 kg mass


and of radius of gyration of 300 mm. The shaft speed is 200 rpm. The drum
diameter is 200 mm and the coeff. of friction is 0.25. Determine the
i) Brake torque when a force of 120 N is applied at the lever end
ii) Number of turns of the flywheel before it comes to rest.

Figure-3 Not to scale

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 84

*SLR-KM-84*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
MANUFACTURING PROCESSES

Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I and three from Section II.
Each Section carries 40 marks.
2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


Type 1 :
1) Match the appropriate pairs :

(3 Marks)

A) Sand blasting

p) Turbine blades

B) Hot chamber machine

q) Die casting

C) Shell molding

r) Cleaning
s) Collapsible tubes

2) Match the appropriate pairs :

(3 Marks)

A) Aluminium

p) Laser beam welding

B) Copper wire

q) Gas tungsten arc welding

C) Mild steel

r) Soldering
s) Arc welding

Type 2 : Attempt any one of the following (3 and 4) :


3)

(2 Marks)

i) Process of pouring molten metal under high pressure into mold is called die casting.
ii) Process of pouring molten metal into revolving mold is called centrifugal casting.
A) Statement (i) is correct (ii) is incorrect
B) Statement (ii) is correct (i) is incorrect
C) Both statement (i) and (ii) are correct
D) Both statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 84
4)

-2-

*SLR-KM-84*

i) An important product manufactured by rolling is I Section.


ii) External screw threads can be produced fastest by rolling.
A) Statement (i) is correct (ii) is incorrect
B) Statement (ii) is correct (i) is incorrect
C) Both statement (i) and (ii) are correct
D) Both statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect

Type 3 : Attempt any four of the following (5 to 9) :

(2 Marks each)

5) In resistance welding include


A) Butt welding

B) Spot welding

C) Seam welding

D) All of these

C) Metal pattern

D) Sand pattern

6) Shell molding process requires


A) Wooden pattern B) Plastic pattern
7) Typical products made by extrusion are
A) Railing for sliding doors

B) Window frames

C) Headed bolt

D) Nails

8) Which of the following process is different from the rest of the process ?
A) Upset forging

B) Drop forging

C) Open die forging D) Cold extrusion

9) Which of the following are hot working operations ?


A) Rolling of billet

B) Tooth paste tube

C) Bolt head

D) Washer

Type 4 : Attempt any four of the following (10 to 14) :

(1 Mark each)

10) In case of neutral frame oxygen to acetylene ratio is


A) 0.6 : 1.0

B) 1 : 1

C) 2 : 1

D) 3 : 1

11) Disk-shaped shape components are cast by


A) True centrifugal

B) Semi-centrifugal

C) Centrifugal

D) Die casting

12) Cold working of steel is defined as working


A) At its recrystallisation temperature

B) Above its recrystallisation temperature

C) Below its recrystallisation temperature D) None of above


13) Which one of the following process is commonly used for the forging of bolt heads ?
A) Closed die drop forging

B) Open die upset forging

C) Closed die press forging

D) Open die progressive forging

14) Which one of the following method can be used for manufacturing two meters long seamless
metallic tube ?
A) Drawing

B) Extrusion
C) Rolling
______________

D) Spinning

Set A

*SLR-KM-84*

-3-

SLR-KM 84

Seat
No.

S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MANUFACTURING PROCESSES
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I and three from Section II.
Each Section carries 40 marks.
2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) What is casting ? Differentiate it from other manufacturing processes.

b) What is core ? What are its types ? Draw the sketches of any three cores.

3. a) List different types of moulding sand tests and explain procedure for permeability test.

b) Explain centrifugal casting process with advantages, limitations and applications.

4. a) Enlist different types of furnaces used in foundries. Explain core type induction furnace.
b) Explain blow moulding and compression moulding.

6
8

5. Write short note on (any three) :


a) CO2 moulding process

b) Feeder head

c) Pattern allowances

d) Pouring equipments.

Set A

SLR-KM 84

-4-

*SLR-KM-84*

SECTION II
6. a) What is forging ? Explain advantages of forging over other processes in brief.
b) Draw neat labeled sketches of any four rolling mills.
7. a) Explain in detail indirect extrusion process.
b) Draw self explanatory sketches of tube drawing and direct extrusion process.
8. a) Discuss in detail gas welding.

6
7
7
6
7

b) Differentiate clearly between TIG & MIG.


9. Write short note on (any three) :

6
14

a) Wire drawing
b) Resistance welding
c) Hydrostatic extrusion
d) Welding joints.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 85

*SLRKM85*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


NUMERICAL METHODS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page
No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
5) Use suitable data if required and state them clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer :
20
1) The positive real root of the equation x3 x 11 = 0 lies between
a) 0 and 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 and 4
2) In finding the root of algebraic and transcendental equations, which of the following method converger
quadratically ?
a) Bisection method
b) Mullers method
c) Fulse position method
d) None of these
3) Solution of simultaneous non-linear equations can be obtained by using
a) Method of iteration
b) Runget kutta method
c) Newton-Raphson method
d) None of the above
4) The convergence in Gauss-seidal method is _______ than that in Jacobis method.
a) More fast
b) More slow
c) Slow
d) Equal
5) If y = 2x + 5 is the best fit for 8 pairs of values of (x, y) by the method of least squares and y = 120, then
x=
a) 35
b) 40
c) 45
d) 30
6) In solving simultaneous equations by Gauss-Jordan method, the coefficient matrix is reduced to ______ matrix.
a) Upper triangular
b) Identity
c) Diagonal
d) Lower triangular
7) Lagranges interpolation formula is applicable if
a) The values of argument x are not equally spaced
b) The corresponding values of y are not equally spaced
c) The values of argument x are equally spaced
d) The corresponding values of y are equally spaced
8) When Gauss-elimination method is used to solve set of equations AX = B, matrix A is transformed to
a) Diagonal matrix
b) An upper triangular matrix
c) Identity matrix
d) None of the above
9) If the points in a scatter diagram are scattered on all directions, then
a) r = 1
b) r = 1
c) r = 2
d) r = 0
5
8
10) If byx =
and bxy =
, then r =
15
6
a) 0.67
b) 0.68
c) 0.69
d) 0.70
11) Match the following and choose correct option
Rule

Number of sub intervals

1 rd
rule
3
3 th
rule
B) Simpsons
8

p) any

A) Simpsons

q) Multiple of 6

C) Weddle rule
a) A q, B p, C s

r) Multiple of 3
s) Multiple of 2
b) A r, B s, C q

c) A s, B p, C s

d) A s, B r, C q
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 85

*SLRKM85*

-2-

12) Error in the Simpsons


a) h 2
13) For given data

1 rd
rule is of order
3
b) h 4

x :

0.5

y :

0.8

0.5

The value of I =

d) h 6

c) 0.575

d) 0.755

ydx by trapezoidal rule is

a) 0.775

c) h 5

b) 0.275

14) When f(x) is an even function, by Gaussian two point formula the value of I =

f (x )dx is

a) 2f

b) 2.f

1
+f
c) f

1
f

d) above all

15) Which of the following is the method of numerical solution of ordinary differential equations ?
a) Crank-Nicolson method

b) Bender-Schmidts method

c) Liebmanns iterative method

d) Picards method

16) The finite difference opproximation to the second order derivative


a)

1
(yi+1 yi1)
2h

b)

1
(yi+1 + yi 1)
2h

1
c)

at x = xi is

( yi 1 2yi + yi+1)

17) In solving a set of simultaneous ordinary differential equation

d)

h2

(yi+1 yi 1)

dy
= f(x, y, z) , dz = (x, y, z) by
dx
dx

Runge-Kutta fourth order method, which of the following is correct ?


a) K1 =

h
h
f ( x 0 , y 0 , z 0 ), l = ( x 0 , y 0 , z0 )
1
2
2

h
k
l
, y0 + 1 , z0 + 1 ) , l2 = h(x0 + h , y0 + k1 , z0 + l1 )
2
2
2
2
2
2
c) K 2 = h.f ( x 0 + h, y 0 + k1, z0 + l1), l2 = h.(x 0 + h, y 0 + k1, z 0 + l1)

b) K2 = h.f(x 0 +

d)

K 1 = ( x 0 , y 0 , z 0 ), l1 = f( x 0 , y 0 , z 0 )

18) The partial differential equation fxx 2 fxy + fyy = 0 is


a) Elliptic

b) Hyperbolic

c) Parabolic

d) None of these

2u

2u
+
= 0 the formula used
19) In solving Laplace equation
x 2 y 2
uij =

1
(ui1j + ui+1j + ui,j1 + ui,j+1) is called
4

a) Standard five point formula

b) Diagonal five point formula

c) Crank-Nicolson formula

d) Bender-schmidts formula

20) The partial differential equation x


a) x > 0

2u

2u
+
= 0 is parabolic if
x 2 y 2

b) x < 0

c) x
______________

d) x = 0

Set A

*SLRKM85*

SLR-KM 85

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


NUMERICAL METHODS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

2.

Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.


Attempt any two questions from each Section from remaining three questions.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Use of calculator is allowed.
Use suitable data if required and state them clearly.

a)

SECTION I
Find the positive root of
x4 x3 2x2 6x 4 = 0 by bisection method. Take five interations.

b)

Find a positive root of xex = 2, by the Regula Falsi method. Carry out four iterations.

c)

Solve the following system by factorization method


x + y + z = 1, 4x + 3y z = 6, 3x + 5y + 3z = 4.

d)

Compute the coefficient of correlation between x and y from the following data :
x : 2
4
5
6
8
11
y

e)

3.

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 80

a)

18

12

10

(45=20)

From the following table find f(x) and hence find f(6), using Newtons divided difference formula.
x

f(x)

The line of regression of y on x is 10y = x + 17 and the line of regression of x


on y is x = 5y 7. Find i) the means of x and y ii) the coefficient of
correlation r iii) the most probable value of y when x = 13.

b)

Solve the following system of equations by Gauss-Seidal method, correct upto five decimal places. Take four
iterations x + y + 54z = 110, 27x + 6y z = 85,

4.

a)

b)

5.

a)
b)

6x + 15y + 2z = 72.

Using Lagranges formula of interpolation find f(9.5) given

Fit parabola of the form y = a + bx +


x

20

40

5.5

9.1

cx2

10

to the data given below.

60
14.9

80

100

120

22.8

33.3

46.0

Solve the following system of non-linear equations by Newtons method


x2 + y 11 0 and x + y2 = 7 starting with the initial values x0 = 3.5 and y0 = 1.5. Take one iteration.

Obtain by power method the numerically dominant eigen value and corresponding eigen vector of the
matrix.

15 4 3
A = 10 12 6

taking [1, 1, 1]T as an initial eigen vector. Take 6 iterations.


20 4 2

Set A

SLR-KM 85

-4-

*SLRKM85*

SECTION II
6.

Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Using two point Gaussian quadrature formula evaluate

dx

1 x

1.4

b) Evaluate

th
(Sinx log x + ex) dx, using Simpsons 3 8 rule, taking seven ordinates.

0. 2

c) Using finite difference method, solve the boundary value problem y y = 0 subject to end conditions
y (0) = 0, y(2) = 3.63 by subdividing the range of x into 4 equal parts.
d) Using Bender-Schmidts method, solve parabolic equation uxx = 2ut subject to u (0, t) = 0, u (4, t) = 0,
u (x, 0) = x(4 x) and width h = 1 for variable x. Compute values of u upto time t = 5.
2u

u
=
where 0<x<1, t > 0 subject to conditions u (0, t) = 0,
t
x 2
u (1, t) = 0, u (x, 0) = 100 x (1 x) and taking h = 0.25, for one time step. (where h is width for x).

e) Using Crank-Nicolsons method, solve

7.

Evaluate

8.

9.

dx , by Rombergs method correct to four decimal places by taking initial value of h = 0.5.

1+ x2

Find approximate value y (0.1), z (0.1) in one step from the system of equations

10

dy
dz
= x+z ;
= x y2
dx
dx

with conditions y (0) = 2, z (0) = 1 using Runge-Kutta method of fourth order.

10

Solve the Elliptic equation uxx + uyy = 0 at the interior mesh points of the following square mesh with boundary
conditions, using Liebmanns iterative method (Take 05 iterations).

10

20
30

20

40

60

u1

u2

u3

u4

60

60

40

50

60

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 86

*SLRKM86*
S

S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Draw neat diagrams whenever necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer.

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) The power consumption, in case of centrifugal loads (like pump, fan, blower etc.)
proportional to
a) speed
b) square of speed
c) cube of speed
d) not applicable
2) Application of DC motors is generally restricted to a few load speed applications
because of
a) cost of the motor is high
b) problems with mechanical commutation
c) maintenance problems
d) none of the above
3) The speed of an AC motor depends on ___________
a) Frequency
b) No. of poles
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
4) At a slip of 4%, maximum possible speed of a 3-phase squirrel induction motor is
a) 2880 rpm
b) 3000 rpm
c) 1500 rpm
d) 1440 rpm
5) Neglecting all losses, the developed torque (T) of a d.c. separately excited motor,
operating under constant terminal voltage, is related to its power as
a) T proportional to square root of P
b) T proportional to P
c) Square of T proportional to square of P
d) T is independent of P
6) Output power requirements of constant torque loads vary with _________
a) Speed
b) Voltage
c) Current
d) Power factor

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 86

*SLRKM86*

-2-

7) For heating element high resistivity material is chosen


a) reduce the length of heating element b) increase the life of the heating element
c) reduce the effect of oxidation
d) produce large amount of heat
8) For arc welding D.C. is produced by which of the following ?
a) Motor-generator set
b) Regulator
c) Transformer
d) None of the above
9) The welding load is always
a) continuous but varying
c) intermittent

b) continuous and constant


d) none of the above

10) Heat transfer by conduction will not occur when temperature of the two bodies are
identical
a) True
b) False
11) Serial port interrupt is generated, if __________ bits are set.
a) IE
b) RI, IE
c) IP, TI
d) RI, TI
12) Flip-flop is also called as __________ multivibrator.
a) Astable
b) Monostable c) Bistable

d) Metastable

13) The output of AND gate is high when __________


a) all inputs are zero
b) when any input is zero
c) all inputs are one
d) when any input is one
14) If
pin of 8051 is low, all instruction are fetched from ________ memory.
a) External
b) Internal
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
-

15) Input resistance and output resistance of ideal op amp respectively are
___________
a) zero, infinite b) infinite, zero c) infinite, finite d) none
16) The 2s complement of (13)10 is ________
b) (0011)2
c) (1100)2
a) (0010)2

d) (1110)2

17) In microcontroller 8051 data bus is of ___________ bits wide.


a) 64
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32
18) Non-inverting amplifier using op-amp has voltage gain of
a) 1 +
4

b)

c)

4



4

d)

19) The flip-flop which is free from race around problem is _________
a) RS FF b) Master slave JK FF c) JK FF
d) All
20) Basic building block of combinational digital circuit are
a) gates only
b) flip-flop only
c) gate and flip-flop only
d) none
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM86*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 86

S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Draw neat diagrams whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) Compare cage and wound 3-phase induction with reference to construction,


performance and applications.
b) Explain working principle, construction and applications of servo motor.
c) What are the basic properties of heating element ? Explain resistance welding.
d) Mention industrial applications of d.c. motors and compare d.c. motors with d.c.
generators.
e) Write short notes on electrical welding.
f) Explain role of electric drives in industrial applications ? Compare individual and
group drive.
3. Attempt any two of the following :

(210=20)

a) Describe with construction diagrams the working of the starters.


i) Auto-transformer starter
ii) Slip-ring motor starter.
b) Explain with suitable diagrams :
i) Resistance heating
ii) Induction heating.
c) A 400v, 750 rpm, 70 A dc shunt motor has an armature resistance of 0.3 . When
running under rated conditions, the motor is to be braked by plugging with armature
current limited to 90 A. What external resistance should be connected in series
with the armature ? Calculate the initial braking torque and its value when the
speed has fallen to 300 rpm. Neglect saturation.


Set A

SLR-KM 86

-4-

*SLRKM86*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) Explain block diagram representation of operational amplifier.


b) Explain three input summing amplifier in inverting configuration.
c) Explain bit addressable area of 8051 microcontroller.
d) Explain working of basic 4-bit register using D flip-flop.
e) Explain special function resistors of microcontroller 8051.
f) Describe how converter converts analog to digital signal with suitable diagram.
5. Attempt any two of the following :

(210=20)

a) Explain with neat diagram operation of op-amp as differentiator and integrator.


b) Explain working of JK flip flop in detail.
c) Explain interrupt structure of microcontroller 8051.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 87

*SLRKM87*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015
THEORY OF MACHINE II

Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015

Max. Marks : 100

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book
Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. Which is objective type carries 20 marks.
4) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and Solve any 3 questions from Section II.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
6) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Interference can be avoided if addendum circle of two mating gears cuts the common tangent to base circle
between
a) point of approach and recess

b) pitch point and length of recess

c) point of tangency

d) pitch points

2) Medium velocity gears are having speed


a) less than 5m/s

b) between 5 15m/s

c) between 3 15m/s

d) between 5 20m/s

3) The distance between root circle and working depth circle is called as
a) clearance

b) dedendum

c) working depth

d) total depth

4) Main difference in reverted GT and epicyclic GT is


a) speed ratio factor

b) direction of first and last gear

c) shaft position

d) no difference

5) In Furgusons Paradox all gears rotates in


a) different direction

b) same direction

c) opposite direction

d) cant say

6) In two wheeler the angle of vehicle with horizontal is called as


a) angle of heel

b) heel

c) pressure angle

d) nothing

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 87

*SLRKM87*

-2-

7) In four wheel effect of gyroscopic couple on outer wheel is


a) vertically upward

b) vertically downward

c) upward or downward

d) none of these

8) In a ship when looking from stern side if propeller rotates in clockwise direction and if it is taking right turn
the effect will be
a) nose will bet lifted

b) bow will get lifted

c) stern will get lifted

d) no effect

9) In flywheel work done/cycle can be calculated as


a) T

b)

(P 60 ) /

(P 60 ) / n

d) none of above

c) speed controller

d) none of these

c)

10) ____________ is used to maintain constant speed.


a) flywheel

b) governor

11) Distance between axis of rotation and CG of mass is


a) radius if gyration

b) centre distance

c) radius of plane of rotation

d) radius of rotation

12) In a reciprocating engines the primary unbalanced force


a) cannot be balanced

b) can be partially balanced

c) can be fully balanced

d) none of these

13) If a rotating system is dynamically balanced, it is statically


a) balanced

b) unbalanced

c) partially balanced

d) none of these

14) The amplitude ratio of two successive oscillations of a damped vibratory system is
a) more than one

b) less than one

c) equal to one

d)

variable

15) The natural frequency of free longitudinal vibration is equal to


a)

1 / 2 s/m

b)

1 / 2 g/

c) 0.4985/

d) anyone of these

16) In vibration isolation system if w / wn < 2 then for all values of damping factor the transmissibility will be
a) less than unity

b) greater than unity

c) equal to unity

d) zero

17) Natural frequency of free torsional vibration of shaft is


a)

2 q/I

b)

2 qI

c)

1
q/I
2

d)

1
qI
2

18) Number of cycles described in one second are


a) frequency

b) time period

c) oscillation

d) vibration

c) eccentricity

d) all of these

19) The factor which affects critical speed of shaft is


a) diameter of disc

b) span of shaft

20) The relation between natural frequency of longitudinal and transverse vibration is
a) their product is 1

b) inversely proportional

c) same

d) cant say
______________

Set A

*SLRKM87*

-3-

SLR-KM 87

Seat
No.
T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015
THEORY OF MACHINE II
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and Solve any 3 questions from Section II.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it.
SECTION I
2.

a) Define the following terms.


i) Pitch circle
ii) Pressure angle
iii) Circular pitch
iv) Module

b) Two 20 involute spur gears have a module of 10 mm. The addendum is equal to one module. The larger


gear has 40 teeth while the pinion has 20 teeth. Will the gear interfere with the pinion ?

10

3. a) Explain briefly reverted gear train.

b) The turning moment diagram for petrol is drawn to a vertical scale of 1 mm = 500 N.m and horizontal scale
of 1 mm = 3 . The turning moment diagram repeats itself after every half revolution of the crankshaft. The


areas above and below the mean torque line are 260, 580, 80, 380, 870 and 250 mm2. The rotating
parts have a mass of 55 kg and radius of gyration of 2.1 m. If the engine speed is 1600 rpm, determine the
coefficient of fluctuation of speed.
4. a) Define the terms fluctuation of energy and fluctuation of speed as applied to flywheels.

8
3

Set A

SLR-KM 87

-4-

*SLRKM87*

b) An epicyclic gear train as shown in Fig.1 is composed of a fixed annular wheel A having 150 teeth. The
wheel A is meshing with wheel B which drives wheel D through an idle wheel C., D being concentric with A.
The wheels B and C are carried on an arm which revolves clockwise at 100 rpm about the axis of A and D.
If the wheels B and D have 25 teeth and 40 teeth respectively, find the number of teeth on C and the speed
and sense of rotation of C.

10

Fig. 1
5.

a)

What do you mean by gyroscopic couple ? Derive a relation for its magnitude.

b)

Explain the effects of gyroscopic couple on the motion of aeroplane, with vector diagrams and neat sketches.

SECTION II
6.

The reciprocating masses of first three cylinders of a four cylinder engine are 4.1, 6.2 and 7.4 tonnes respectively.
The center lines of three cylinders are 5.2 m, 3.2 m and 1.2 m from the fourth cylinder. If the cranks for all cylinders
are equal, determine the reciprocating mass of 4th cylinder and angular position of crank such that system is
completely balanced for the primary force and couple. If the crank radius 80 cm. connecting rod 3.8 m and speed
of the engine 75 r.p.m. find the maximum unbalanced secondary force and crank angle at which it occurs.

7.

a)

Determine the natural frequency of the spring-mass-pulley system shown in Fig. VI-a

13
6

Fig- VI a

Set A

*SLRKM87*
b)

8.

9.

-5-

SLR-KM 87

The measurements on a mechanical virbrating system shows that it has mass of 8 kg and that the springs
can be combined to give an equivalent spring of stiffness 5.4 N/mm. If the vibrating system have a dashpot
attached which exerts a force of 40 N when the mass has a velocity of 1 m/s, find : 1. critical damping
coefficient 2. damping factor,3. Logarithmic decrement and 4 ratio of two consecutive amplitudes.

a)

Explain in short direct and reverse crank method for balancing of radial engine.

b)

A steel shaft 1.5 m long is 95 mm in diameter for the first 0.6 m of its 1 length, 60 mm in diameter for the next
0.5 m of the length and 50 mm in diameter for the remaining 0.4 m of its length. The shaft carries two
flywheels at two ends, the first having a mass of 900 kg and 0.85m radius of gyration located at the 95 mm
diameter end and the second having a mass of 700 kg and 0.55 m radius of gyration located at the other
end. Determine the location of the node and the natural frequency of free torsional vibration of the system.
The modulus of rigidity of shaft material may be taken as 80 GN/m2.

a)

Draw sketch of equivalent spring mass sytem for springs in series.

b)

Explain types of damping.

c)

Explain vibration isolation and transmissibility.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 88

*SLRKM88*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first


30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
2) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
3) Assume suitable data if required.
4) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q. P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


20
1) Which of the following terms of water have the highest value of thermal
conductivity ?
a) Boiling water
b) Steam
c) Solid ice
d) Melting ice
2
2) The relation t = 0 is referred to as
a) Fourier heat conduction equation
b) Laplace equation
c) Poissons equation
d) Lamped parameter solution for transient conduction
3) All the three modes of heat transfer are involved in
a) Melting of ice
b) Cooling of a small casting in a quenching bath
c) Heat flows through the walls of a refrigerator
d) Automobile engine equipped with a thermo-syphon cooling system
4) The steady state temperature distribution in a very large thin plate with uniform
surface temperatures will be
a) Hyperbolic
b) Logarithmic c) Linear
d) Parabolic
5) The temperature drop in a plane wall with uniformly distributed heat
generation can be decreased by reducing
a) Wall thickness
b) Heat generation rate
c) Thermal conduction of wall material d) Convection coefficient of the surface
6) Heat transfer takes place according to ___________ law of thermodynamics.
a) Third
b) Zeroth
c) Second
d) First
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 88

-2-

*SLRKM88*

7) Provisions of fins on a given heat transfer surface will be more effective if


there are __________ number of __________ fins.
a) Fewer, thick
b) Large, thick c) Large, thin
d) Fewer, thin
8) An increase in fin effectiveness is caused by high value of __________
a) Thermal conductivity only
b) Sectional area only
c) Both circumference and thermal conductivity
d) Circumference only
9) In the non-dimensional Biot number, the characteristic length is the ratio of _______
a) Volume of solid to its surface area b) Surface area to volume of solid
c) Surface area to perimeter of solid
d) Perimeter to surface area of solid
10) The basic equation of radiation from which all the other equations of radiation
equation can be derived
a) Steffen-Boltzmann equation
b) Planks equation
c) Wiens equation
d) Rayleigh-Jeans formula
11) Gases have poor _____________
a) Absorptivity
b) Reflectivity
c) Transmitivity d) None
12) A radiation shield should
a) Have high transmitivity
b) Absorb all the radiations
c) Have high reflective power
d) Partly absorbs and partly transmit the incident radiation
13) Prandtl number will be lowest for
a) Water
b) Liquid metal c) Aqueous solution d) Lube oil
14) Which dimensionless number has a significant role in forced convection ?
a) Prandtl number
b) Reynolds number
c) Mach number
d) None
15) The hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layer are identical at Prandtl number equal to
a) 1
b) 50
c) 10
d) 0.5
16) Drop wise condensation usually occurs
a) Glazed surface b) Smooth surface c) Oily surface d) Coated surface
17) The steam condenser in thermal power plant is heat exchanger of type
a) Direct contact b) Regenerator c) Recuperater
d) None
18) The normal automobile radiator is heat exchanger of type
a) Direct flow
b) Parallel flow c) Counter flow d) Cross flow
19) In a heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 180C and leaves at 160C. The cooling
fluid enters at 30C and leaves at 110C. The capacity ratio of heat exchanger is
a) 0.25
b) 1.5
c) 0.2
d) 0.33
20) In heat exchanger, capacity ratio is given by
C
C
2 Cmin
b) max
c)
d) Cmin = Cmax
a) min
Cmax
Cmin
4 Cmax
______________
Set A

*SLRKM88*

-3-

SLR-KM 88

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.


2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. A) A Copper pipe (k = 396 w/mk) with 50 mm outer diameter and 25 mm inner
diameter is covered with 15 mm thick fibre glass insulation (k = 0.048 w/mk)
followed by 7 mm thick layer of plaster of Paris (k = 0.125 w/mk). The inner
pipe wall temperature is 240C and outside temperature is 32C. Calculate
interface temperature between fibre glass insulation and plaster of Paris.
Take L = 1m.

B) Derive expression for temperature distribution and heat dissipation in a straight


fin of rectangular profile for a infinite long fin.

C) An electric cable of 10 mm diameter is to be laid in atmosphere at 20C. The


estimated surface temperature of cable due heat generation is 65C. Find the
maximum percentage increase in heat dissipation when the wire is insulated
with rubber having k = 0.155 w/mk. Take heat transfer coefficient as
8.5 w/m2k.

3. A) Explain Biot number and Fourier number in lumped system analysis and give
their significance.
6
B) Derive critical radius of sphere with neat sketch.

C) A vertical cylinder 1.5 m high and 180 mm in diameter is maintained at 100C


in an atmosphere of 20C. Calculate heat loss by free convection from surface
cylinder. Assume properties of air at mean temperature as = 1.06 kg/m3,
= 18.97 106 m2/s, Cp = 1.004 KJ/KgC, k = 0.1042 KJ/mh-k, use
correlation Nu = 0.10(Gr*Pr)1/3.

Set A

SLR-KM 88

-4-

*SLRKM88*

4. A) Explain the significance of Nusselt, Reynold and Prandtl number. Derive


equation for forced convection using dimensional analysis.

B) Explain with neat sketch the velocity boundary layer and thermal boundary
layer.

C) A liquid mercury flows at a rate of 1.6 kg/s through a copper tube of 20 mm


diameter. The mercury enters the tube at 15C and after getting heated it
leaves the tube at 35C. Calculate the length for constant heat flux at the wall
which is maintained at an average temperature of 50C. Correlation is taken
as Nu = 7 + 0.025(Pr*Re)0.8. Thermo-physical properties of mercury at 25C
are =13582 kg/m3, k = 8.69 w/mk, Cp = 140 J/kgC, = 1.5 107 m2/s,
Pr = 0.0248.

SECTION II
5. a) State Weins law and deduce it from Plancks distribution law.

b) Explain briefly the concept of Radiosity and Irradiation. Describe the


construction of radiation network diagram for determining radiant heat
exchange between two gray bodies.

c) Determine the heat loss by radiation from a steel tube of outside diameter
70 mm and 3 m long at a temperature of 500 K if the tube is located within a
square brick conduit of 0.3m side and same length at 300 K.
Take Steel = 0.79 and Brick = 0.93. (Take = 5.678 108 W/m2K4).

6. a) Explain classification of Heat Exchangers.

b) Derive an expression for LMTD of parallel flow heat exchanger.

c) The flow rates of hot and cold water (Cp = 4187 J/kgK) streams running through
a parallel flow heat exchanger are 0.2 kg/s and 0.5 kg/s respectively. The
inlet temperatures on the hot and cold sides are 75C and 20C respectively.
The exit temperature of hot water is 45C. If the overall heat transfer
co-efficient is 325 W/m2K, calculate the area of heat exchanger.

7. a) Define Condensation and explain its types.

b) Explain different modes of mass transfer and explain Ficks law of diffusion.

c) Describe the method to obtain temperature distribution in case of a long


rectangular thin bar using numerical method.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 89

*SLRKM89*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


METALLURGY
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


Type I MCQ with more than one answer correct (2 marks each).
1) Which of the following elements are austenite stabilizers ?
a) Silicon

b) Manganese

c) Nickel

(25=10)

d) Chromium

2) Which of the following alloys can be precipitation hardened ?


a) Al 6% Si
b) Al 4% Cu
c) Cu 2% Be
d) Cu 10% Sn
3) Which of the following treatments are based on isothermal transformation of
austenite ?
a) Patenting
b) Martempering
c) Austempering
d) Process annealing
4) Which of the following are surface hardening treatments does not involve change
in chemical composition of surface layer of steel ?
a) Induction hardening
b) Carburising
c) Carbonitriding
d) Flame hardening
5) Which of the following quantities (Obtained from Tensile test) give an idea
regarding ductility of steel ?
a) Resilience
b) % Reduction in area
c) Yield stress
d) % Elongation

Type II MCQ with only one answer correct (1 mark each).


6) Ferrite is having _____ structure.
a) FCC
b) BCT

c) BCC

(110=10)
d) HCP

7) Which of the following represents peritectic transformation in steels ?


a) L + delta = Gamma
b) L + Gamma = Delta
c) L = Delta + Gamma
d) L + Alpha = Delta
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 89

*SLRKM89*

-2-

8) Which of the following steel is solution treated and aged ?


a) HCHC
b) HSLA
c) HSS

d) Maraging

9) Which of the following is Tinmans solder ?


a) 50 Pb 50 Sn

b) 62 Sn 38 Pb

c) 62 Pb 38 Sn

d) 30 Sn 70 Pb

10) Austempering treatment is aimed to get ________ structure.


a) Bainite

b) Martensite

c) Fine pearlite

d) Globular pearlite

11) Which of the following surface hardening treatment is carried out below
A1 Temperature ?
a) Gas carburizing

b) Induction hardening

c) High Temp. carbonitriding

d) Nitriding

12) Which of the following tests uses diamond cone indentor ?


a) Brinell Test

b) Rockwell Test

c) Vickers Test

d) Poldi Test

13) Which of the following method of powder manufacture is used for Iron Powder ?
a) Electrolysis

b) Intergranular corrosion

c) Atomisation

d) Condensation from vapours

14) Which of the following is substitutional solid solution ?


a) Alpha in steel

b) Alpha in Brass

c) Delta in steel

d) Gamma in steel

15) To detect internal cracks in steel forgings, which of the following method of NDT is
employed ?
a) DP test

b) MP test

c) Florescent penetrant test

d) Ultrasonic test

______________

Set A

*SLRKM89*

-3-

SLR-KM 89

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


METALLURGY
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I and any three
questions from Section II.
2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Draw Fe Fe3 C equilibrium diagram, label all the temperatures and constituents.
b) Draw the neat sketches of the following :

6
8

i) Microstructure of SG Iron & Gray Cast Iron


ii) Cooling curve for Eutectoid Steel and Eutectic Cast Iron.
3. a) Explain typical composition, properties and applications of (any 3) :

i) Free cutting steel


ii) HSLA steel
iii) Gilding metal
iv) Aluminium bronze.
b) Compare between Alpha Brass and Alpha Beta Brass.
4. a) Compare between austentic stainless steel and ferritic stainless steel.

4
5

b) Explain the advantages of alloy steel over plain carbon steel.

c) Explain Gibbs phase rule and its significance.

5. Write notes on (any three) :


a) Classification of metallic materials

b) Babbits

c) Composite material

d) Hot working tool steel.

Set A

SLR-KM 89

-4-

*SLRKM89*

SECTION II
6. a) Draw TTT diagram for eutectoid steel.

b) What is significance of Critical Cooling Rate ? Show it on TTT diagram.

c) Define :

i) Incubation period
ii) Ms temperature
iii) Ideal critical diameter
d) Explain characteristics of Martensitic transformation.

7. a) Explain why ? (Any 3) :

i) Annealing of hyper eutectoid steel is carried out above A1 Temperature.


ii) Induction hardened steel have superior mechanical properties as compared to
conventionally hardened steel in many situations.
iii) OHNS steels are generally subjected to subzero treatment.
iv) Carbonitriding is preferred over gas carburising
b) Draw the typical flow chart for manufacturing of self lubricating bearing by powder
metallurgy.
8. a) Draw the self explanatory sketches of the following (any 3) :

4
9

i) Specimens of Charpy and Izod impact test


ii) Strain curve for M.S. and Cast iron
iii) Steps in of Dye penetrant test
iv) Creep curve.
b) Explain the different methods of powder compaction.

9. Write a short note on (any 3) :


a) X-ray radiography test

b) Austempering and martempering

c) Nitriding

d) Brinell hardness test.

4
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 90

*SLRKM90*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MACHINE TOOL DESIGN (Professional Elective I)
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Solve the following objective type questions :

20

1) The types of standards used in design office are


a) Standards prepared by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
b) Standards prepared by International Standards Organization (ISO)
c) Standards prepared by Professional bodies like American Gear Manufacturing Association (AGMA)
d) All the three
2) When large force is required to operate, the type of control used is
a) knobs and switches
b) levers and wheels
c) push buttons
d) none of above
3) Fibres used for fibre-reinforced-plastics are made of
a) steel wires
b) hemp
c) glass and carbon
4) A twist drill is specified by its
a) shank, material and diameter
c) material, length of body and helix angle

d) asbestos

b) shank, lip angle and size of flute


d) any one of these

5) The job of industrial designer is


a) to carry out detailed stress analysis of the product
b) to design industrial products like cranes and hoists
c) to create aesthetically forms and shapes for the products
d) none of the above
6) Steel structure with welding is preferred to cast iron for machine tool structure because they
a) absorb impact loads
b) reduce noise
c) are heavier
d) repair of welded structure is easy
7) The basic milling machine is which one of the following :
a) bed type
b) knee-and-column
c) profiling mill
d) ram mill
e) universal milling machine
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 90

*SLRKM90*

-2-

8) Friction drives are type of


a) mechanical stepless drives
b) electrical stepless drives
c) hydraulic stepless drives
d) none of the above
9) Purpose of the main spindle is
a) to provide centering
c) to rotate the tool or work piece

b) to hold the tool or work piece


d) all of above

10) Bearings are designed to take up


a) radial loads
b) axial thrusts
c) both a) and b)
d) none of the above
11) Location of journal bearings depend on following
a) permissible bending deflection
b) preloading of the bearing
c) amount of radial play
d) all of above
12) Production machine tools are
a) used for small batch manufacture
c) used for large production volumes

b) normal machine tools fitted with jigs or fixtures


d) for one-off production of complex geometries

13) Control system embraces functionally several features of operation in machine tool processing like
a) positional controls
b) control of speeds and feeds
c) controls for safety
d) all of above
14) Automatic control is achieved through
a) levers
c) hand wheels

b) set of programmed instructions


d) push buttons

15) Usual shape forming the guiding elements of slide ways is


a) Vee
b) M
c) L

d) W

16) Which is not requirement for selecting guide materials ?


a) strength
b) damping capacity c) light in weight

d) wear resistance

17) Type of isolator ________


a) active isolator
b) passive isolator

d) none of these

c) both a) and b)

18) Most important decisions in design of journal bearings are


a) (L/D) ratio of the bearing
b) minimum oil film thickness
c) radial clearange
d) all of above
19) Ward-leonard system of controlling of the speed of the motor comes under
a) electronic stepless regulation
b) hydraulic stepless regulation
c) electrical stepless regulation
d) mechanical stepless regulation
20) Computer numerical controlled machine utilizes a dedicated stored program computer within the
machine
a) True
b) False
______________

Set A

*SLRKM90*

-3-

SLR-KM 90

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MACHINE TOOL DESIGN (Professional Elective I)
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from each Section.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly.

SECTION I
2. a) With neat block diagram explain engineering design process stages in machine tool.

b) Explain any four machine tools working motions with neat sketch.

3. Determine feed range, number of feed step, structural formulae and diagrams for two stage feed gear
box having feed range s = 0.1 1.11 mm/rev. and geometric progression ratio = 1.41.
4. a) What are different shapes of sideways ?
b) What are different bed sections used for machine tool structure ?
5. Write short note on (any 3) :

14
7
7
(43=12)

i) Meter in circuit
ii) PIV drive
iii) LM sideways
iv) Spindle ends.

SECTION II
6. a) Explain ergonomically consideration in design of control member with examples.
b) Explain compatibility in design of control member with examples.

7
7

Set A

SLR-KM 90

-4-

7. a) Explain the neat sketch two piston shifting device.


b) Explain ergonomic aspects of levers.
8. a) Explain mechanical automatic control system.
b) Explain electrical automatic control system.
9. Write short note on (any 3) :

*SLRKM90*
7
7
7
7
(43=12)

i) Machining centre
ii) CNC
iii) Turning centre
iv) Stability analysis.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 91

*SLRKM91*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


FLUID MACHINERY AND FLUID POWER (Professional Elective I)
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
4) Use of non-programmable calculators is permitted.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1 and 2 statements in column I may have one or more matches with statements in
column II. Bubble correct answers (Each question 3 marks)
1)
Column-I
Column-II
a) Pelton wheel
p) Radial flow turbine
b) Francis turbine
q) Tangential flow turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
r) Impulse Turbine
s) Axial flow turbine
2)

Column-I
Material
a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Brass

Column-II
Pressure ratings
p) 250 bar
q) 200 bar
r) 2500 bar
s) 125 bar

Question 3 to 5 are multiple correct type questions (2 marks each) :


3) Centrifugal pump is related with
a) Power absorbing device
c) Priming

b) Power producing device


d) Governing
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 91

*SLRKM91*

-2-

4) Unit quantities are


a) Used to predict the behavior of turbine under varying conditions
b) Unit speed, unit power, unit discharge
c) Head on turbine is reduced to unity
d) None of above
5) Which of the following are positive displacement pump ?
a) Vane pump
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Gear pump
d) Reciprocating pump
Q.No. 6 to 13 with single correct answers (1 mark each) :
6) Gas turbine works on
a) Otto cycle
b) Diesel cycle
c) Joules cycle
d) Rankine cycle
7) Specific speed of turbine is
a) Greater than actual speed
c) Equal to actual speed

b) Less than actual speed


d) None of the above

8) Reaction turbines have their shafts usually


a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined
d) None of the above
9) Draft tube is used for
a) Pelton wheel
b) Francis turbine
c) Gas turbine
d) All of the above
10) In symbols like 4/2 etc. in case of direction control valve, the first symbol
indicates the number of
a) Functional openings or connections
b) Distinct positions
c) a and b
d) None of the above
11) Counter balancing is required for following cylinder.
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
12) In ___________ circuit, the oil returning from the cylinder is only controlled.
a) Meter in
b) Meter out
c) a and b
d) None of the above
13) Time delay valve is
a) Pneumatic flow control valve
b) Pneumatic pressure control valve
c) Hydraulic flow control valve
d) Hydraulic pressure control valve
______________
Set A

*SLRKM91*

-3-

SLR-KM 91

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


FLUID MACHINERY AND FLUID POWER (Professional Elective I)
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Question No. 2 and 5 are compulsory.


2) Solve any one question from each Section out of the
remaining questions.
3) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
4) Use of non-programmable calculators is permitted.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any five of the following :
(45=20)
a) Explain different heads in centrifugal pump.
b) Compare specific speed of water turbine and centrifugal pump.
c) Explain the working of open cycle gas turbine with the help of P-V and T-S
diagrams.
d) Explain governing of reaction water turbines.
e) Explain and derive maximum suction lift for centrifugal pump.
f) Explain construction and working of Kaplan turbine.
g) Explain the effects of operating variables on thermal efficiency of a gas turbine.
3. a) A centrifugal pump has an impeller of 50 cm external diameter and 25 cm
internal diameter. It runs at 1000 rpm. The vanes are set back at an angle of
30 to the outer rim. If the radial velocity of water through the impeller is
maintained constant at 2 m/s.
Find : i) The angle of vanes at inlet.
ii) The velocity and direction of water at outlet.
iii) The work done per unit weight of liquid.
b) Explain various methods for improving the thermal efficiency of an open
cycle gas turbine.
c) A Pelton wheel has a mean bucket speed of 35 m/s with a jet of water flowing
at the rate of 1 m3/s under a head of 270 meters. The buckets deflect the jet
through an angle of 170. Calculate the power delivered to the runner and the
hydraulic efficiency of the turbine. Assume co-efficient of velocity as 0.98.

6
7

Set A

SLR-KM 91

-4-

*SLRKM91*

4. a) Show that the pressure rise in the impeller of a centrifugal pump when frictional
and other losses in impeller are neglected is given by

1 2
Vf1 + u22 Vf22 Co sec 2 Where,
2g

Vf1 and Vf2 are velocities of flow at inlet and outlet.


u2 = tangential velocity of impeller at outlet.
= Vane angle at outlet.

b) A Kaplan turbine runner is to be designed to develop 9100 kW. The net


available head is 5.6 meters. If speed ratio is 2.09, flow ratio is 0.68, overall
efficiency is 86% and the diameter of boss is 1/3 the diameter of runner, find
the diameter of runner, its speed and specific speed of turbine.

c) A quarter scale turbine model is tested under a head of 12 meters. The runner
of full scale turbine is required to work under a had of 36 meter and to run at
400 rpm. At what speed must the model be run if it develops 135 kW and uses
1.4 cumec of water at this speed ? What power will be obtained from the
full scale turbine assuming the efficiency is 3% better than that of model ?

SECTION II
5. Attempt any five of the following :
(54=20)
a) Explain simple check valve with sketch ?
b) Explain any one type of hydraulic actuator.
c) Explain 4/2 direction control valve.
d) Draw and explain neat sketch of lubricator unit.
e) Draw the symbols of Double acting cylinder and one way valve.
f) Explain with neat sketch construction, working and application of gear type
air motor.
g) Differentiate between meter in and meter out circuit.
6. a) Explain counter balancing circuit.
b) Explain cushioning effect in hydraulic system.
c) Explain any two types of air filters.

7
6
7

7. a) Explain the selection criteria for compressors.


b) With neat sketch, explain time delay circuit.
c) Explain the use of intensifier with a neat sketch of circuit.

6
7
7

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 92

*SLRKM92*
S

Set

T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEM
(Professional Elective I)
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Objective questions :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) Overbridge crane has


a) transverse and longitudinal movement
b) angular movement
c) circular movement
d) none of the above
2) For __________ type material flow having less difficulty in returning empty
containers.
a) Straight line
b) Inverted
c) L shaped
d) U shaped
3) Hand truck are characterized by
a) Pallet + Walk + No Stack + Powered
b) Pallet + Walk + No Stack + Manual
c) Non-Pallet + Walk + Stack + Powered
d) Non-Pallet + Walk + No Stack + Manual
4) Interlocks be available in the controls of _________ safety, so that worker can
safely service the area.
a) Electrical
b) Robotics
c) Chemical
d) Radiation
5) Conveyors and industrial trucks are the ________ equipment.
a) Transport
b) Positioning
c) Storage
d) Identification and control
6) The main objective of the material handling system is to ___________ material
movement.
a) Medium
b) Maximum
c) Reduce
d) Light movement
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 92

*SLRKM92*

-2-

7) To transport ferrous material vertically, __________ conveyor is used.


a) Wheel
b) Chain
c) Chute
d) Magnetic
8) Flat belt conveyor are characterized by
a) Bulk + On-Floor + No Accumulation b) Unit + Overhead + Accumulation
c) Unit + On-Floor + No Accumulation d) Bulk + Overhead + No Accumulation
9) _________ conveyors vibrates at a lower frequency and larger amplitude in order
to convey larger objects.
a) Screw
b) Oscillating
c) Magnetic
d) None of these
10) Cranes are used to move material over ________ paths.
a) Fixed
b) Diverted
c) Variable

d) None of these

11) There are three basic characteristics of material handling, picking up the load,
transporting the load and
a) Catching the load
b) Rush the load
c) Setting the load down
d) Up the load
12) Flow diagram, is used to study
a) bottleneck
c) m/c maintenance

b) sequence of operations
d) operator skill

13) If the degree of mechanisation is increased to a high level, the total of the capital
investment and operating cost of the equipment will
a) low
b) raise
c) no effect
d) none of the above
14) Flow process chart gives
a) to reduce the distance travelled by men and material
b) assembly line
c) relationship between product
d) none of these
15) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store

c) Inspection

d) Movement

16) For single storing building when the flat floor area is available then ________
system is used.
a) Horizontal flow b) Vertical
c) Zig-zag
d) Inclined
17) Loads are supported by arms (cantilever) in __________ racks.
a) Sliding
b) Push back
c) Drive in
d) Cantilever
18) The handling of a quantity designed to be treated as a single mass
a) Unit load
b) Unit mass
c) Unit wt.
d) None of these
19) From to chart gives the information about
a) Density of moves between depts.
b) Equipment
c) Selection procedure
d) None of these
20) In power equipment automatic correction according to
a) Gravity
b) Manual
c) Signal
______________

d) Equipment

Set A

*SLRKM92*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 92

T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEM
(Professional Elective I)
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Draw neat diagram where necessary.
3) Solve any two questions in each Section.
SECTION I
2. a) Define material handling system and give equipment classification.

b) Explain diff. types of material handling principles applied to plant layout.

c) Explain material handling in CIMS.

3. a) Explain any three types of hoisting equipments.

b) Explain objective and significance of material handling system in industry.

c) Explain any three types of mobile equipments.

4. Write a short notes on (any three) :

20

a) Unit load containerization and palletisation.

b) Effect of material handling on productivity.

c) Types of cranes (any three).

d) Industrial Robots.

7
SECTION II

5. a) Describe with figure types of flow patterns for material handling.

b) Discuss the importance of material handling safety.

c) Explain with figure string diagram.

Set A

SLR-KM 92

-4-

*SLRKM92*

6. a) Explain in brief procedure for selection of material handling equipment.

b) Explain with figure material handling equation.

c) Explain different types of material handling systems.

7. Write a short notes on (any three) :

20

a) Equipment evaluation sheet.

b) Procedure chart.

c) Flow diagram.

d) Selection of material handling equipment in casting manufacturing industry.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 93

*SLRKM93*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MACHINE DESIGN I
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : i)
ii)
iii)
iv)

Answer any two questions from each Section.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clealy.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3.
v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Question Paper

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


A) Match the following :
Application
a) Boiler shell
b) Marine shaft coupling
c) Crosshead and piston rod
d) Links of four bar chain

4
p)
q)
r)
s)
t)

Joint
Cotter joint
Knuckle joint
Riveted joint
Pin joint
Bolted joint

B) Match the following :


a)
b)
c)
d)

Column I
Woodruff key
Kennedy key
Feather key
Flat key

4
p)
q)
r)
s)
t)

Column II
Loose fitting, light duty
Heavy duty
Self-aligning
Circular in shape
Normal industrial use

C) Multiple correct answers :


1) The stresses present in hoisting rope during normal working are
a) Direct stress due to weight hoisted and weight of the rope
b) Bending stresses due to bending of rope over the sheave
c) Stress due to weight of sheave
d) All of these

(42=8)

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 93

*SLRKM93*

-2-

2) In the knuckle joint


a) Pin is subjected to torsion
b) Fork is subjected to single shear only
c) The pin is subjected to double shear and crushing
d) Eye end is subjected to tension, crushing and double shear
3) 18/8 steel contains
a) 8% Chromium
c) 18% Nickel

b) 18% Chromium
d) 8% Nickel

4) Turn buckle has


a) Right hand threads on one end
c) Left hand threads on other end

b) Right hand threads on both the ends


d) Left hand threads on both the ends

D) Single answer correct :

(41=4)

1) Consider the folloiwng statements :


i) Endurance strength of a component is not affected by its surface finish
and notch sensitivity of the material
ii) For ferrous materials like steel, S-N curve becomes asymptotic at 106
cycles.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
a) i) only
b) ii) only
c) Both i) and ii)
d) Neither i) nor ii)
2) In the assembly of pulley, key and shaft
a) Pulley is made the weakest b) Key is made the weakest
c) Key is made the strongest d) All the three are designed for equal strength
3) When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to
a) Tension
b) Shear
c) Compression
d) All of the above
4) Two metal plates of thickness t and width w are joined by a fillet weld of
45 as shown in given figure. When subjected to a pulling force F, the
stress induced in the weld will be
a) F/(wt sin 45)

b) F/(wt)

c) F sin 45/(wt) d) 2F/(wt)

_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM93*

-3-

SLR-KM 93

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MACHINE DESIGN I
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : i) Answer any two questions from each Section.


ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) What is the significance of theories of failure in design of machine components ?
State various theories of failure. Explain any one of them.
b) Suggest suitable material for following giving their IS code :
i) Connecting rods
iii) Surgical instruments

6
4

ii) Cams
iv) Drills.

c) A 8 kW 1500 r.p.m. motor drives a flour mill to run at 375 r.p.m. The center
distance is limited to 2.5 m. Design and select the FORT belt drive assuming
belt velocity of 18 m/sec for initial design.
10
3. a) A lever loaded safety valve is 70 mm in diameter. It is required to blow-off at
a pressure of 1.5 N/mm2. The length of the lever is 1000 mm. The distance
between the fulcrum and toggle is 100 mm. Determine the amount of dead
weight to be put at the end of the lever. Also, determine the size of the
rectangular cross section of the lever and the size of pins at the fulcrum and
the toggle. User following permissible stresses :
10
Tensile stress = 60 MPa, Shear stress = 50 MPa and bearing
pressure = 12 MPa.
Assume length of pin = 1.5 diameter of pin and depth of c/s = 3 width.
Assume forked end connections for the pins at the fulcrum and toggle.

Set A

SLR-KM 93

-4-

*SLRKM93*

b) Design a cotter joint of socket and spigot type, which may be subjected to a
pull or push of 30 kN. All the parts of the joint are made of the same material
with permissible stresses, 55 MPa in tension, 70 MPa in compression and
40 MPa in shear.
10
4. a) Differentiate between failure due to static load and fatigue.

b) Draw and explain modified Goodman diagram.

c) A cantilever beam made of cold drawn steel 20C8 (Sut = 540 N/mm2) is
subjected to a completely reversed load of 1000 N as shown in Fig. The notch
sensitivity factor q at the fillet can be taken as 0.85 and the expected reliability
is 90%. Determine the diameter d of the beam for a life of 12000 cycles.
10
Ka = 0.78, Kb = 0.85, Kc = 0.897, theoretical stress concentration factor,
Kt = 1.35.

SECTION II
5. a) What is the design of manufacture and assembly ?

b) Prove that square key is equally strong in crushing and shearing. State the
assumption you make.

c) A bushed pin type of flexible coupling is used to connect a pump shaft to a


motor transmitting 35 kW at 960 rpm. Starting torque is 20% more than mean
torque. Allowable stresses in shaft material are 40 MPa in shear and 80 MPa
in crushing. The allowable shear stress for cast iron is 15 MPa. Bearing
pressure allowed in rubber bush is 0.8 N/mm2. The two flanges are connected
by 6 pins placed equally on a P.C.D. of 132 mm. Determine dimensions of
pin, rubber bush and thickness of flange.
10
Set A

*SLRKM93*

-5-

SLR-KM 93

6. a) Explain the different stresses induced in helical spring.


b) What are the various design considerations for casting ?

5
5

c) A safety valve, 40 mm in diameter, is to blow off at a pressure of 1.2 MPa. It


is held on its seat by means of a helical compression spring, with initial
compression of 20 mm. The maximum lift of the valve is 12 mm. Spring index
is 6. The spring is made of cold-drawn steel wire with ultimate tensile strength
of 1400 N/mm2. The permissible shear stress can be taken as 50% of ultimate
tensile strength (G = 81370 MPa).
10
Calculate :
i) Wire diameter
ii) Mean coil diameter
iii) No. of active coils.
7. a) Describe advantage of welded joints over riveted and bolted joint.
b) Explain the design procedure of riveted joint subjected to eccentric load.

5
5

c) Find the value of P for the joint shown in Fig. based on working shear stress
of 100 MPa for the rivets. The four rivets are equal, each of 25 mm diameter. 10

Set A

SLR-KM 93

*SLRKM93*

-6-

Table 1 : Load correction factor (Fa):


Type of load

Fa

i) Normal load

1.0

ii) Steady load e.g. centrfugal pumps-fans-light


machine tools-conveyors

1.2

iii) Intermittent load, e.g. heavy duty fans-blowerscompressors-reciprocating pumps-line shafts-heavy


duty machines

1.3

iv) Shock load, e.g. vacuum pumps-rolling millshammers-grinders

1.5

Table 2 : Arc of contact factor (Fd) :


as
120
(degrees)
Fd

130

140

1.33 1.26 1.19

150

160

170

180

190

200

1.13 1.08 1.04 1.00 0.97

0.94

Table 3 : The power transmitting capacities of belts :


Hl - Speed 0.0118 kW per mm width per ply
FORT

0.0147 kW per mm width per ply

The above values are based on following two assumptions :


i) The arc of contact is 180
ii) The belt velocity is 5.08 m/s.

Set A

*SLRKM93*

SLR-KM 93

-7-

The standard widths of these belts (in mm) are as follows :


3 - Ply

25

40

50

63

76

4 - Ply

40

44

50

63

76

5 - Ply

76

100

112 125 152

125

152 180 200

6 - Ply 112

90 100 112 125 152

Table 4 : Preferred pitch diameters of pulleys :

Pitch diameter (mm):

125

132

140

150

160 170 180

190

200

212

224

236

250

265

280

300

315 355

375

400

425

450

475

500

530

560

600 630 670

710

750

800

900

1000

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 94B

*SLRKM94B*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (HSS) : PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND HUMAN VALUES
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book Page No. 3.


Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures at right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
1. Select the correct answer from the given options/alternatives :

(101=10)

1) CSR stands for


a) Corporate Social Responsibility

b) Co-operation in Society Representation

c) Class Social Representative

d) None of the above

2) Gilligans theory is related to


a) Moral development

b) Human values

c) Motivation

d) Team working

3) Any occupation/job/vocation that requires expertise, skill, knowledge, self regulation and
concerned service to the public is called as
a) Leadership

b) Profession

c) Ethics

d) None of above

b) Leadership

c) Ethics

d) Team building

b) Engineering

c) Equation

d) Empirical

4) RIGHTS theory is related to


a) Motivation
5) In FMEA, E stands for
a) Effect

6) The bargain by the trade union for improving the economic and other interest is called as
a) Strike

b) Collective bargaining

c) Authority and responsibility

d) None of the above

7) When the employee has more than one interest, it is called as


a) job responsibility

b) conflict of interest

c) conflict of power

d) none of the above


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 94B

*SLRKM94B*

-2-

8) IPR stands for


a) Intelligent Persons Rights

b) Industrial Persons Rights

c) Intellectual Property Rights

d) None of the above

9) Patent is given to
a) Product or a process

b) Service

c) Art

d) None of the above

10) An identity of specific goods and services permitting the differences to be made among
different trades is called as
a) Copyright
c) Patent

b) Trademark
d) None of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM94B*

-3-

SLR-KM 94B

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (HSS) : PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND HUMAN VALUES
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 40

1) Attempt any four from remaining questions.


2) Figures at right indicate full marks.

2. What are human values ? Explain their types.

10

3. What are work ethics ? Explain their significance and importance.

10

4. Explain types of inquiries.

10

5. Explain the role of engineers as an advisors in planning and policy making.

10

6. Explain the method of Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) of risk analysis.

10

7. Explain risk benefit analysis.

10
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 95

*SLRKM95*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


MACHINE DESIGN II
Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


I)

Match the pair :

List (i)

List (ii)

A) Hydrodynamic journal bearing

P) High radial and thrust combined load

B) Hydrostatic bearing

Q) Thrust load only

C) Taper roller bearing

R) Radial load only

D) Angular contact bearing

S) Minimum starting friction

E) Thrust ball bearing

T) Medium radial and thrust load combined

II) Multiple choice questions (Carry two marks each) :

A) Autofrettage is obtained by
a) Welding

b) Compound cylinder

c) Overloading the cylinder

d) Increasing the wall thickness

B) Force analysis of spur gear involves


a) Tangential force

b) Axial force

c) Radial force

d) Shear force

C) Gears are designed by using


a) Reynolds equation

b) Lewis equation

c) Sommerfeld number

d) Buckinghams equation

D) Worm gearing is used for


a) Compact space

b) High efficiency

c) High velocity ratio

d) Low velocity ratio


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 95

*SLRKM95*

-2-

III) Single correct answer objective questions (carry one mark each) :

A) In spur gears, the circle on which involute is generated is called as


a) Pitch circle

b) Base circle

c) Clearance circle

d) Addendum circle

B) In optimum design, the types of parameters used are


a) Geometrical parameters

b) Material parameters

c) Functional parameters

d) All of these

C) Thickness of thick seamless steel pipe is obtained by


a) Birnies equation

b) Lames equation

c) Clavarinos equation

d) Buckinghams equation

D) If lead angle of the worm is 16, then the helix angle is


a) 16

b) 29

c) 74

d) 47

E) Life of ball bearing is inversely proportion to


a) (Load)0.33

b) (Load)3.3

c) (Load)2

d) (Load)3

F) Types of gears used for perpendicular shaft axes having offset are
a) Spiral bevel gears

b) Mitre gears

c) Hypoid gears

d) Zerol bevel gears

G) The objective of optimum design cannot be


a) Minimization of weight

b) Maximization of life

c) Maximization of capacity

d) Minimization of efficiency

______________

Set A

*SLRKM95*

-3-

SLR-KM 95

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


MACHINE DESIGN II
Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.


Make necessary assumption, if required and mention it clearly.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Make suitable assumptions, if required.
SECTION I

2. a) What are the various types of gear tooth failures ? State their causes and
remedies.

b) A pair of spur gears with 20 full depth involute teeth consists of a 20 teeth pinion meshing
with 41 teeth gear. The module is 2 mm and the face width is 20 mm. The gears are
machine to meet the specifications of grade 8 and heat treated to surface hardness of
250 BHN. Determine :
1) The optimum speed for maximum power transmission capacity.
2) The maximum power transmitted by gears at the optimum speed
For grade 8
e = 16 + 1.25 [m + 0.25 d] microns.

10

c) Explain the terms static and dynamic loads acting on gear tooth.

3. a) A pair of parallel helical gears consists of a left hand 20 teeth pinion meshing with 45 teeth
gear. A 7.5 kW power at 1800 rpm is supplied to the pinion. The normal module is 6 mm,
face width is 60 mm and the normal pressure angle is 20. The helix angle is 25. Both the
gears are made of steel having ultimate tensile strength of 660 N/mm2 and heat treated to
350 BHN.
1) Determine the radial, tangential and axial components of resultant tooth force if the
pinion is rotating in clockwise direction when viewed from right hand side. Draw a
free-body diagram showing the forces acting on Pinion and gear tooth.
2) Calculate the beam and wear strength of gears tooth.

10

b) Write a note on Helical Gear Force Analysis.

c) Explain the various design equations used in optimum design.

Set A

SLR-KM 95

-4-

*SLRKM95*

4. a) Give the classification of pressure vessel as according to the IS2825 : 1969 code.

b) A pressure vessel consists of cylindrical shell of inside diameter of 1.5 meters which is
closed by a torispherical heads with a crown radius of 1.2 meters. The operating pressure
inside the vessel is 1.5 MPa. The allowable tensile stress for the material is 150 N/mm2.
The efficiency of welded joints is 80%. The corrosion allowance provided is 2 mm.
Determine the thickness of cylindrical shell and the torispherical heads.
c) What are the materials used for pressure vessels ?

10
4

SECTION II
5. a) Explain the formative number of teeth in bevel gear.

b) With neat figures, define the following terms used in worm gearing.
i) Lead
ii) Lead angle
iii) Normal pitch
iv) Helix angle
v) Diametral quotient.

c) A pair of worm gears is designated as 2/54/10/5.

10

Calculate :
i) the centre distance;
ii) the speed reduction;
iii) the dimensions of the worm; and
iv) the dimensions of the worm wheel.
6. a) Derive the expression for equivalent load for the complete work cycle in case of bearing
with variable loads and speeds.

10

b) A pair of bevel gears, with 20 pressure angle, consists of a 20 teeth pinion meshing with
a 30 teeth gear. The module is 4 rnm, while the face width is 20 mm. The material for the
pinion and gear is steel 50C4 (Sut = 750 N/mm2). The gear teeth are lapped and ground
(Class-3) and the surface hardness is 400 BHN. The pinion rotates at 500 rpm and receives
2.5 kW power from the electric motor. The starting torque of the motor is 150% of the rated
torque. Determine the factor of safety against bending failure and against pitting failure.
Take Lewis form factor, Y = 0.340 for Z = 25 and Y = 0.337 for Z = 24
C = deformation factor = 11400 N/mm2
Error for class-3 gear for module 4 mm is 0.0125 mm.

10

7. a) What is pre-loading of bearing ? Explain various methods of bearing mounting with neat
sketch.
b) Following data is given for a 360 hydrodynamic bearing :
Length to diameter ratio = 1
Journal speed = 1350 rpm
Journal diameter = 100 mm
Diametral clearance = 100 microns
External load = 9 kN
Sommerfeld no. = 0.0828
The value of minimum film thickness variable is 0.3. Find the viscosity of oil that need to be
used.
_____________________

10
10

Set A

SLR-KM 96

*SLRKM96*
S

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TOOL ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. A) Single correct answer type questions :

(52=10)

1) A single point cutting tool has


a) Rake angle

b) Lip angle

c) Cutting edge angle

d) All of the above

2) The rake angle required to machine brass by high speed steel tool is
a) 0

b) 10

c) 20

d) 10

3) Depth of cut depends on


a) Cutting speed

b) Tool material

c) Rigidity of m/c tool

d) All of these

4) When the holes are to be drilled at angle w. r. t. drill bush axis, following jig is
used
a) Angular jig

b) Pot jig

c) Latch jig

d) Turn over jig

5) Tool signature consists of following no. of elements


a) Two

b) Four

c) Five

d) Seven

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 96

*SLRKM96*

-2-

B) Multiple choice questions with more than one correct answer :

(25=10)

1) For manufacturing a washer following die is suitable


a) Progressive

b) Simple

c) Combination

d) Transfer

2) As an alloying element in HSS, W serves which of the following functions ?


a) Improves strength and hardness
b) Increases corrosion resistance
c) Increases hot hardness
d) Forms hard carbides to resist abrasive
3) Diffusion wear is associated with which of the following tool materials.
a) Carbides

b) Diamond

c) CBN

d) HSS

4) Which of the following are variable costs ?


a) Depreciation

b) Labour cost

c) Cost of fixture

d) Material cost

5) Jigs are used for following operations


a) Slotting

b) Reaming

c) Grooving

d) Drilling
______________

Set A

*SLRKM96*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 96

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TOOL ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are Compulsory. Attempt any two questions
from remaining.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) All dimensions are in mm.
SECTION I
2. Design press tool for the component shown in fig.I and make the necessary
calculations. Draw two views of the same.
Material Aluminium

20

Thickness 5mm
Shear strength = 130 N/mm2

Fig. I
OR
2. Design a drawing tool for the component having diameter 30 mm and height of 60 mm,
made of Aluminium. The thickness is 1 mm and corner radius is 1.6 mm. Make the
20
necessary calculations and draw two views with part list. Take UTS = 150 N/mm2.
3. a) During orthogonal turning with 0 10 6 6 8 90 1 tool, following
data was recorded.
= 0.2 mm/rev
chip thickness = 0.45 mm, cutting force = 500 N,
thrust force = 250 N
Determine : i) Frictional force ii) Shear force.
b) Compare between orthogonal cutting and oblique cutting.

5
5

4. a) What are the factors that lead to the formation of continuous chip with built
up edge ? State the remedies.

b) A tool life of 80 min. was obtained at a speed of 400 rpm and 10 min. at speed of
800 rpm while turning dia. of 25 rpm.
Determine the following :
i) Values of n and C in tool life equation.
ii) Cutting speed for 5 min. tool life.

Set A

SLR-KM 96

*SLRKM96*

-4-

5. Write short notes on any two :

10

a) Drill tool dynamometer.


b) Velocities in metal cutting.
c) Sources of heat generation in metal cutting.
SECTION II
6.

Fig. II
Design and draw two views of Jig for drilling a holes of 10 mm for component shown
in fig. II.
OR
Design and draw a milling fixture for the shot of 50 40 mm for the same component.

20

7. a) The initial cost for m/c A is Rs. 50,000. The unit production cost of m/c is
Rs. 20/piece. For m/c B initial cost is Rs. 1,00,000 and unit production cost is
Rs. 4/piece. Do the breakeven analysis.
b) Explain principles of designing Jigs and fixtures.
8. a) Explain Lathe Fixture with neat sketch.
b) Describe nomenclature of reamer with neat sketch.
9. Write short notes on any two :
a) Difference between breakeven quantity and Economic order quantity.
b) Types of drilling Jigs.
c) Optimum cutting velocity for minimum cost.
_____________________

5
5
5
5
10

Set A

SLR-KM 97

*SLRKM97*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER

Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Out of remaining questions, attempt any two questions from each
Section.
4) Assume suitable data if required.
5) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Thermal conductivity of solid metals _________ with rise in temperature.


a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Unpredictable
2) The temperature variation in lumped parameter model with time is
a) Exponential
b) Linear
c) Sinusoidal
d) Cubic
3) The temperature distribution for a plane wall, for a steady state heat flow and constant
value of thermal conductivity is
a) Logarithmic
b) Linear
c) Parabolic
d) Any of the above
4) For spheres, the critical radius of insulation is given by
a) h/2k
b) 2K/h
c) k/h

d) k/ (2 h)

5) In a lumped heat capacity analysis, the assumption is


a) The conductivity of solid is infinite
b) The temperature gradient in solid is negligible
c) The conduction resistance is negligible
d) All of the above
6) Up to critical radius of insulation
a) Added insulation will increase heat loss
b) Added insulation will decrease the heat loss
c) Convection heat loss will be less than conduction loss
d) Heat flux will decrease
7) ________ number is relevant in transient heat condition.
a) Reynolds
b) Fourier
c) Grashoff

d) Prandtl

8) The wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by


a) Kirchoffs Law
b) Stefan Boltzmanns Law
c) Fouriers Law
d) Weins Law
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 97

*SLRKM97*

-2-

9) Gases have poor _________


a) Transmissivity

b) Absorptivity

c) Reflectivity

d) All of the above

10) The reciprocity theorem states that


a) A1F1-2 = A2F2-1

b) A2F1-2 = A1F1-2
d) None of the above

c) F1-2 = F2-1

11) Why are baffles provided in heat exchangers ?


a) To reduce heat transfer rate

b) To reduce vibrations

c) To remove dirt

d) To improve heat transfer rate

12) In a counter flow heat exchanger, the hot fluid is cooled from 120C to 90C by a cold fluid
which gets heated from 40C to 70C. LMTD for this heat exchanger is
a) 80C

b) 50C

c) 30C

d) None of these

13) Forced convection in a liquid bath is caused by


a) Density difference caused due to temperature gradient
b) Molecular energy interaction
c) Flow of electrons in a random fashion
d) Intense stirring by an external agency
14) Grashoff number has a significant role in heat transfer by
a) Conduction

b) Radiation

c) Natural convection

d) Forced convection

15) ________ number gives an indication of ratio of internal (conduction) resistance to surface
(convection) resistance.
a) Stanton

b) Biot

c) Nusselt

d) Fourier

16) In _________ flow maximum heat transfer rate can be expected.


a) laminar

b) turbulent

c) counter current

d) co-current

17) Dropwise condensation occurs on _________ surface.


a) oily

b) smooth

c) glazed

d) coated

c) m/s2

d) none of these

18) The unit of mass transfer co-efficient is


a) m2/s

b) W/m2 k

19) The characteristics length in case of vertical tube for natural convection is
a) Diameter

b) Perimeter

c) Height

d) Thickness

20) A correction of LMTD is necessary in case of _________ heat exchanger.


a) Cross flow

b) Parallel flow
c) Counter current
______________

d) All of above

Set A

*SLRKM97*

-3-

SLR-KM 97

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.


2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
SECTION I

2. a) Define thermal conductivity. What are its units ? Explain the effect of temperature on
thermal conductivity for solid, liquid and gases.

b) Derive general heat conduction equation in Cartesian co-ordinate for isotropic materials.

c) A cold storage room has walls made of 220 mm of brick on the outside, 90 mm of plastic
foam and finally 60 mm of wood on inside. The outside and inside air temperatures are
25C and 3C respectively. If the inside and outside heat transfer co-efficients are
30 and 11 W/m2k respectively, and the thermal conductivities of brick, foam and wood
are 0.99, 0.022 and 0.17 W/mK respectively. Calculate :
a) The rate of heat removed if total wall area is 85 m2.
b) The temperature of the inside surface of the brick.

3. a) Pin fins are provided to increase heat transfer rate from a hot surface. Which of the following
arrangement will give a higher rate of heat transfer ?
i) 6 fins of 10 cm each
ii) 12 fins of 5 cm each
Take k(fin material) = 200 W/mk, h = 20 W/m2k
Cross section of fin = 2 cm2
Perimeter of fin = 4 cm
Fin base temperature = 230C
Surrounding air temperature = 30C
Assume fins with insulated tip.

b) Derive an expression for temperature distribution and heat transfer rate for a uniform
cross section fins with insulated tip.

c) A steel ball 5 cm in diameter and initially at a temperature 450C is suddenly placed in a


controlled environment where temperature is maintained at 100C. Calculate time required
for the ball to attain a temperature of 150C.
Take : K = 35 W/mK Cp = 0.46 Kj/kgK = 7800 kg/m3
Convective heat transfer co-efficient = 10 W/m2k.

Set A

SLR-KM 97

-4-

*SLRKM97*

4. a) What do you mean by shape factor ? What are properties of shape factor ?

b) State and explain Weins law and derive it from Plancks Law.

c) Two parallel plates at temperatures 500C and 200C have emissivities 0.6 and 0.8
respectively. A radiation shield with emissivity 0.15 is placed between the plates. Calculate
heat transfer by radiation per square meter with and without shield.

SECTION II
5. a) Explain with sketch thermal boundary layer over a flat plate.

b) Explain with neat sketch boiling curve and its different regions.

c) A vertical cylinder 2 m high and 20 cm in diameter is maintained at 150C in an atmosphere


of 30C. Calculate heat loss by free convection from surface of cylinder.
Take = 1.06 kg/m3

= 18.97 106 m2/s

Nu = 0.1 (Gr.Pr.)1/3 Cp = 1.004 kJ/kgK k = 0.02896 W/m-k

6. a) With Buckinghams theorem establish a model correlation in terms of dimensionless


groups for heat transfer co-efficient of natural convection.

b) Derive an expression for LMTD of counter flow heat exchanger.

c) Air at 20C is flowing over a vertical plate of dimensions 500 mm 200 mm. The plate is
maintained at 100C. Find the heat loss from the plate if air is flowing with a velocity of 2 m/s.
Assume 500 mm side to be vertical. The properties of air at (100 + 20)/2 = 60C are

= 18.97 106 m2/s k = 0.025 w/mK and Pr = 0.701


Use correlation Nu = 0.664 (Re)1/2 (Pr)1/3

7. a) In a counter flow double pipe heat exchanger, water is heated from 25C to 75C by an oil
with a specific heat of 1.45 kj/kgK and mass flow rate 0.9 kg/s. The oil is cooled from
250C to 160C. If the overall heat transfer co-efficient is 450 W/m2K, calculate :
i) The rate of heat transfer.
ii) The mass flow rate of water.
iii) The surface area of heat exchanger.

b) Explain different modes of mass transfer and explain Ficks law of diffusion.

c) Explain classification of heat exchangers.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 98

*SLRKM98*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Answer any three questions from each Section.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks
5) Use of non-programmable calculators is allowed.
6) Assume additional suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
7) Use university graph-papers and semi-log papers if required.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


Type (1) : (4 Marks)
1) Match the following pairs.
Column I
A) I Control
B) +ve G.M.
C) Phase margin
D) Gain margin

p)
q)
r)
s)
t)

Column II
Gain cross over frequency
Phase cross over frequency
Reset action
Unstable system
Stable system

Type (2) : (1 Mark each)


2) Traffic signals is an example of a closed loop system.
A) True
B) False
3) In block diagram algebra, parallel blocks represent addition or subtraction.
A) True
B) False
4) Centroid is always on the root locus.
A) True
B) False
5) D-control can never be used alone.
A) True
B) False
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 98

*SLRKM98*

-2-

Type (3) : (1 Mark each)


6) In force-voltage analog, mass is analogous to
A) resistance
B) inductance
C) current

D) capacitance

7) For a system under steady state, if load increases, the output will
A) increase
B) remain same C) decrease
D) oscillate
8) In an inverse analog, the spring stiffness k is analogous to
A) 1/L
B) E
C) I

D) C

9) Closed loop transfer function is denoted by


A) G(s) H(s)
B) C(s)/E(s)
C) R(s)/C(s)

D) C(s)/R(s)

10) In phase angle plot, contribution made by the two poles at the origin is
A) 180
B) 180
C) 90
D) 90
11) If x1, x2 and x3 are the three state variables and if Dx1 = x2 and Dx2 = x3, the
technique used must be
A) Parallel programming
B) Direct programming
C) Series programming
D) General programming
12) A system will have two roots in the right half plane if the Rouths array
A) has all +ve coefficients in the first column
B) has a row of all zero coefficients
C) has a column of all zero coefficients
D) has two sign changes in the first column
13) If the root locus is finite, then
A) z > p
B) p > z

C) p = z

D) z = o

14) While doing linearization of operating curves


A) total derivatives are evaluated from graph
B) equation relating the variables must be known
C) derivatives need not be calculated
D) partial derivatives are evaluated from the graph
15) For a controller plot drawn for a system under steady state, the horizontal spacing
is given by
A)

V
M
C

B)

M
V
C

C)

V
C
M

D)

U
C
M

16) The signal which actuates control elements is known as


A) reference input
B) error signal
C) command signal
D) controlled variable
17) In a hydraulic amplifier, the quantity getting amplified is
A) velocity
B) torque
C) force
______________

D) acceleration
Set A

*SLRKM98*

-3-

SLR-KM 98

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 80

Answer any three questions from each Section.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Use of non-programmable calculators is allowed.
Assume additional suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
Use university graph-papers and semi-log papers if required.
SECTION I

1
XYH.
2
Determine the linear approximation for area A. If Xi = 20, Yi = 10 and Hi = 8,
determine the percentage error due to this approximation when X = 19, Y = 11 and
H = 7.

2. a) For the trapezium as shown in Fig. (2-a), the area A is given by, A =

Fig. (2-a)
b) Explain the direct analog for a compressible fluid flow system and determine the
analogous quantities.

3. a) For the system as shown in Fig. (3-a), draw the grounded chair representation and
obtain the relation between f and x.

Fig. (3-a)
b) Explain working of a hydraulic amplifier with a sketch and obtain its governing
equation neglecting external load.

6
Set A

SLR-KM 98

-4-

*SLRKM98*

4. a) Reduce the block diagram shown in Fig. (4-a) and obtain C(s)/R(s).

Fig. (4-a)
b) Write a note on modern control systems.

5. a) The block-diag. as shown in Fig. (5-a) represents a system in the steady state. At
the reference operating condition, Vi = Ci = 100 and Mi = 200. Sketch the given
controller line for V = 100. Also sketch two more controller lines for V = 120 and
V = 80 by determining the vertical and horizontal spacings. (Use graph paper).

Fig. (5-a)
b) Distinguish between manual and automatic control.

SECTION II
6. a) Write a note on ON-OFF controller.

b) Sketch the root loci for the unity feedback system with
G(s ) =

s(s + 0.5 ) s 2 + 0.6s + 10

Comment on the system stability.

10
Set A

*SLRKM98*

-5-

SLR-KM 98

7. a) The characteristics equation of a control system is given by


s4 + 2s3 + 104s2 + 9s + 25 = 0
For this system determine the no. of roots to the right of the s-plane.

b) A P + I + D controller has a set-point of 50% and kP = 5%, kI = 0.8% and


kD = 0.6%. If the error changes at a rate of 2% per sec. for the first 3 sec. and then
it remains constant, plot the error Vs time plot and the controller output Vs time
plot for the 5 sec. after start.

8. a) What do you mean by a breakaway point in root locus ? State general predictions
to identify breakaway points on the real axis.

b) Plot bode plot for a unity feedback control system with the following open loop
transfer function.

G(s ) =

1.79
2

ss +s+4

Determine the gain margin and phase margin.


9. a) Determine state space representation by general programming and also draw
the computer diagram for a system with
4D 3 + 7
y(t ) =
(D + 2 ) (2D + 5 ) (D + 3 )
b) What do you mean by a simple pole and simple zero in Bode plots ? How the
magnitude plot and phase angle plot are plotted for them ?

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 99

*SLRKM99*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CAD/CAM (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The curve which is tangent at first and last segment of polygon is


A) Bezier Curve
B) Spline Curve
C) Hermite Curve
D) None of the above
2) Machining Parameter control (Real Time)
A) CNC
C) Adaptive Control

B) FMS
D) None of the above

3) NC code generation is not possible using


A) Wire frame modeling
C) Surface modeling

B) Solid modeling
D) All the above

4) CSG is a
A) Wire frame modeling scheme
C) Surface modeling scheme

B) Solid modeling scheme


D) All the above

5) ___________ is input device.


A) Touch screen
C) Computer memory

B) Plotter
D) LCD

6) AutoDesk Inventor is _________ software.


A) CAM
B) CAE
C) CAD
7) G 90 preparatory code is used for
A) Absolute Presetting
C) Metric unit setting

D) Auto Cad

B) Absolute co-ordinate setting


D) None of the above

8) Miscellaneous function used for Coolant off is


A) M 07
B) M 09
C) M 08

D) M 30

9) Number of data point required to define cubic Bezier curve are


A) 3
B) 4
C) 2

D) 5

10) Listing of relative cutter and work piece positions in manual part programming is
A) Manuscript
B) Programming
C) Automation
D) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 99

*SLRKM99*

-2-

11) In the following database structure the database is represented like a tree structure
A) Network database

B) Relational database

C) Object oriented database

D) Hierarchical database

12) The curve which interpolates all data points is


A) Bezier Curve

B) Spline Curve

C) Hermite Curve

D) None of the above

13) FANUC, CNUMERIC,SIEMENS are CNC


A) Programming language

B) Controllers

C) Machines

D) None

14) Example of straight cut NC system is


A) Milling machine

B) Drilling machine

C) Boring machine

D) None

15) The coordinate system in which all points are defined with respect to same origin is
A) Absolue coordinate system

B) Incremental coordinate system

C) Both A and B

D) None

16) Lathes, shapers, Planers, boring machines are using


A) Multipoint tools

B) Single point tools

C) Both A and B

D) None

17) Is not a CAD data Exchange translator


A) IGES

B) STEP

C) DXE

D) GKS

18) __________ is a computer assisted part programming language.


A) MCU

B) APT

C) ATC

D) MDI

19) Commercial CAD software package available for kinematics analysis and Virtual protyping
A) CATIA V5

B) Hypermesh

C) ADAMS

D) Master Cam

20) Reflection about X axis is


A) Y flips

B) X flips

C) X-Y flips

D) None of the above


______________

Set A

*SLRKM99*

-3-

SLR-KM-99

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CAD/CAM (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Note :

1) Attempt any three questions from Section I.


2) Q. No. 5 is compulsory from Section II and solve any two from
remaining questions.
3) Draw meaningful sketches wherever necessary with pencil only.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
5) Make suitable assumptions, if required and state them clearly.
SECTION I

1. a) Explain the importance of geometric transformations in computer graphics.


b) Explain the parametric form of equations.
2. a) What do you mean by CAD/CAM data exchange ?
b) Explain the role of CAD/CAM in present market scenario.
3. a) What are the functions of graphics software ? Explain.
b) Explain the concept of machine cell.
4. Write note on any three :

7
6
7
6
7
6
14

a) CAPP
b) FMS
c) GT
d) Bezier curve

Set A

SLR-KM 99

*SLRKM99*

-4-

SECTION II
5. a) Write manual part program to machine a component as shown in fig. Assume cutting speed as
500 rpm and feed rate of 0.5 mm/revolution. Assume that the face is not to be machined. 10

40

50

45

20

50
10

b) Enlist and explain any four G codes.


6. a) What are the basic components of an NC system ? Explain with neat sketch.
b) Explain canned cycles in part programming with suitable example.
7. a) What is Part Programming ? Explain the procedure associated with NC Part
programming.

4
7
6
5

b) Explain adaptive control in detail.

c) Write short note on DNC.

8. Write short note on (any 4) :

14

1) Subroutines and Subprograms


2) Macros
3) ATC
4) Tool Length and Cutter Radius Compensation
5) Word Adress Format.
____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 100

*SLRKM100*
S

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENTS (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


Type 1 : Matrix Match Type : (One mark each)
i)

Column I

Column II

A) Clearance fit
B) Transition fit
C) Interference fit
ii)

p)
q)
r)
s)

Column I
A) Pressure measurement
B) Mechanical tachometer
C) Electrical tachometer

Driving fit
Push fit
Running fit
Shrink fit
Column II

p)
q)
r)
s)

Inductive pick-up tachometer


Pirani gauge
Tachoscope
Drag cup tachometer

Type 2 : Assertion and Reasoning type : (Two marks)


iii) Statement 1 : Sine bar is specified by its total length.
Statement 2 : Sine bar is specified by its central distance between two rollers.
OR
iv) Statement 1 : Sensitivity is defined as ratio of magnitude of response to
mangitude of quantity being measured.
Statement 2 : Sensitivity has a wide range of units depending upon the
instrument of measurement system.
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 100

-2-

*SLRKM100*

Type 3 : Multiple correct answer type : (Two marks each)


v) Angular measurements in terms of degrees, minutes and seconds is given
by following instruments.
A) Clinometre
B) Angle gauges
C) Bevel protractor
D) Autocollimeter
vi) The gauges used for measuring cyllindrical holes of a components are
A) Snap gauge
B) Ring gauge
C) Plug gauge
D) Plate gauge
vii) The static characteristics of the instrument are
A) Fidelity
B) Drift
C) Resolution

D) Overshoot

viii) Measurement of vacuum pressure is done by following instruments.


A) McLeod gauge
B) Bellows
C) Diaphragm
D) Thermal conductivity gauge
Type 4 : Straight objective Type : (One mark each)
ix) Gear tooth vernier is used to measure
A) Pitch line thickness of gear tooth B) Gear tooth addendum
C) Module
D) Gear tooth profile
x) The thread micrometre measures
A) The major diameter of the thread
B) The minor diameter of the thread
C) The effective diameter of the thread
D) All the diameter of the thread
xi) Which of the following thermometer is suitable for measuring furnace
temperature ?
A) Liquid in glass thermometer
B) Thermistor
C) Thermocouple
D) Resistance thermometer
xii) The hot wire anemometer is used to measure
A) Pressure in gases
B) Liquid discharges
C) Gas velocities
D) Temperature of hot gas
______________

Set A

*SLRKM100*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 100

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENTS (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Question 2 and 7 are compulsory.


2) Answer any two questions from remaining question of each
Section.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
4) Answer briefly and to the point preferably using simple
sketches.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Describe International prototype meter with neat sketch.
b) Explain the magnification principles used in optical comparators.

5
5

c) Enumerate the types of fundamental deviations and different tolerance grades


as specified by B.I.S.
d) Write a note on Co-ordinate measuring machine.

5
5

3. a) Describe the M-45 set of slip gauges. Form the dimension 86.785 mm by
selecting minimum number of gauges from this set using protector gauges of
1.5 mm.
b) Describe the principle of working of Johanson Mikrokator in brief.

5
5

4. a) Explain the vernier principle. Calculate the least count of vernier calliper.
b) Form the angle of 78 50 30 using angle gauges. Sketch the setup.

5
5

5. a) In a H type hole and e type shaft of 25 mm nominal size, upper deviation of


hole is 0.021 mm. For shaft, lower and upper deviations are 0.073 mm
and 0.040 mm. Answer the following :
i) Maximum and minimum clearance
ii) Allowance
iii) Tolerance on hole and shaft.

b) Draw neat sketch of floating carriage micrometre, name the parts. State the
least count.

Set A

SLR-KM 100

-4-

*SLRKM100*

6. a) State and explain the equation for gear tooth thickness while using base
tangent method.
b) Explain accumulation of tolerances.

5
5

SECTION II
7. a) Explain principle of Hot wire anemometer with neat sketch.

b) Explain the wroking of Wheatstones bridge network null mode using electrical
strain gauges.
c) Write a short note on Piezo-electrical pressure gauge.
d) Explain the calibration process for measuring instrument.
8. a) Draw a sketch of generalized measurement system showing all functional
elements.

5
5
5
5

b) Explain the principle of Thermocouple by stating the various effects such as


Peltier, Seeback and Thomson.

9. a) Explain the meaning of primary, secondary and tertiary transducers with suitable
example.
b) Explain working of Stroboscope.

5
5

10. Explain the working of LVDT with neat sketch and electrical circuit diagram.
11. a) Describe the various elastic members used for measurement of Force.
b) Write a short note on Turbine meter.

10
5
5

_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 101

*SLRKM101*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mechanical) Part II (New) Examination, 2015


INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Answer any two questions from each Section.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
6) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) The nominal volume generated by the working piston when travelling from
one dead centre to other is called
a) Clearance volume
b) Swept volume
c) Stroke
d) Engine capacity
2) The major loss in a SI engine is due to
a) Exhaust blow down
b) Pumping
c) Incomplete combustion
d) Variation in specific heat and chemical equilibrium
3) Valve overlap occurs between
a) intake and compression strokes b) compression and power strokes
c) power and exhaust stokes
d) exhaust and intake strokes
4) Modern heavy duty engines exhaust valves made of
a) High carbon steel
b) Cobalt alloy
c) Nimonic alloys
d) None of the above
5) The chock is closed when the engine is
a) Accelerating
b) Cold
c) Hot
d) Idling
6) Throttle valve controls the supply of
a) air only
b) fuel only
c) air-fuel mixture
d) none of the above
P.T.O.

SLR- KM 101

-2-

*SLRKM101*

7) Petrol engine employ


a) Quality governing
b) Quantity governing
c) Quality and quantity governing
d) None of the above
8) Fuel injector is used in
a) Gas engines
b) CI engines
c) SI engines
d) none of the above
9) For a four cylinder vertical engine, the commonly used firing order is
a) 1234
b) 3412
c) 1342
d) 4321
10) The radiator core is made of
a) Brass
b) Carbon steel c) Cast iron
d) Plastic
11) HUCR is the compression ratio at which
a) Fuel can be used with detonation
b) Fuel can be used without detonation
c) An engine gives maximum thermal efficiency
d) None of the above
12) Decreasing the cooling water temperature in SI engines the knocking tendency
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Not affected
d) None of the above
13) The cylinder temperature after compression in a diesel engine is
a) 200C
b) 450C
c) 900C
d) 1000C
14) If N is the rpm, number of power strokes per minute in a four stroke engine is
a) 2
b) N/2
c) N
d) 4N
15) From the engine indicator diagram, we obtain
a) IMEP
b) BMEP
c) Mechanical efficiency
d) Relative efficiency
16) Supercharging air compressor is driven by
a) Exhaust gas turbine
b) Engine itself
c) Separate electric motor
d) none of the above
17) The indication of ignition quality of a diesel fuel is given by
a) Detonation
b) Octane number
c) Preignition
d) Cetane number
18) Anti-knock characteristics of alcohol as compared to gasoline is
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) None of the above
19) D-MPFI system uses
a) Port injection
b) Manifold injection
c) Direct injection
d) Throttle body injection
20) NOx emission in SI engines will be lowest during
a) Cruising

b) Idling
c) Accelerating
______________

d) Decelerating
Set A

*SLRKM101*

-3-

SLR- KM 101

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mechanical) Part II (New) Examination, 2015


INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Max. Marks : 80

Answer any two questions from each Section.


Assume suitable data if necessary.
Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I

2. a) Discuss selection of I.C. engine for agricultural and Marine application.

b) Explain assumption made for fuel-air cycle analysis.

c) Compare S.I. and C.I. engines with respect to basic cycles. Compression
ratio, speed, fuel used, thermal efficiency, Weight to power ratio, ignition
system used and load control.

3. a) The following data refers to simple carburetor :

Throat diameter = 18 mm
Diameter of fuel orifice = 1.2 mm
Co-efficient of air flow = 0.82
Co-efficient of fuel flow = 0.65
Level of petrol surface below the throat = 6 mm
Density of air = 1.2 kg/m3
Density of fuel = 750 kg/m3
Calculate :
1) The air fuel ratio for a pressure drop of 0.065 bar when the nozzle lip is
neglected.
2) The air fuel ratio when nozzle lip is taken into account.
3) The minimum velocity of air or critical air velocity required to start the
fuel flow when nozzle lip is provided.
Set A

SLR- KM 101

-4-

*SLRKM101*

b) What are the limitations in a simple carburetor ? List the compensating devices
used and explain any one type with sketch.

c) Explain individual pump injection system.

4. a) A four stroke CI engine develops 15 kW per cylinder at 2000 rpm. The specific
fuel consumption is 0.275 kg/kW.h, fuel of 30API. The injection pressure is
130 bar for 25 of crank angle. The pressure in the combustion chamber is
40 bar. The co-efficient of velocity = 0.875, determine the diameter of fuel
orifice, if specific gravity is given by
Specific gravity =

141 .5
131 .5 + API

b) List various types of injector nozzle. Explain any two of them.

c) What is need of cooling system ? Explain pressure cooling system with


thermostatic valve.

SECTION II
5. a) Explain stages of combustion in S.I. engines with the help of p- diagram.

b) Explain what you mean by physical delay and chemical delay period with
respect to CI Engine combustion. What are factors affecting the delay
period ?
c) Write short notes on :
i) Carbon credit
ii) Variable valve timing.

6. a) Explain what you mean by heat balance sheet for IC Engines and what is the
necessity of heat balance sheet study.
b) Write short notes on any one :
i) Limits the supercharging in SI Engines and CI Engines.
ii) CI Engine emissions.

5
5

Set A

*SLRKM101*

-5-

SLR- KM 101

c) Following observations were recorded during a trial on a four stroke single


cylinder engine,

10

Duration of trial equals 30 min.


Oil consumption is 4 lit
Calorific value of oil is 43000 kJ/kg
Specific gravity of fuel is 0.8
Mean effective pressure is 5.5 bars
Brake load is 150 kg
Spring balance reading is 20 kg
Effective brake wheel diameter is 1.5 m
Engine Speed is 200 rpm
Cylinder diameter is 30 cm
Stroke is 45 cm
Jacket cooling water is 10 kg/min
Temperature rise is 36 C
Calculate :
1) Indicated power
2) Brake power
3) Mechanical efficiency
4) Brake specific fuel consumption
5) Indicated thermal efficiency.
7. a) Discuss hydrogen and Biogas fuels for their suitability for IC Engines.

b) Explain the rating of SI and CI Engine fuels.

c) Write short notes on :


i) NOx emissions in IC engines.
ii) ELCD.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 102

*SLRKM102*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


CAD/CAM
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Answer any three questions from Section I.
4) Q. No. 6 is compulsory from Section II and solve
any two from remaining.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
6) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

Type I : Match correct pair type question :


This is straight forward matching of Column I with Column II. Here is only one
matching (No multiple answers) partial marking will be given :
Match the fair :
Column I

5
Column II

1) Bezier curve

A) Always cubic regardless of number of data points

2) Spline curve

B) Has local control

3) Hermite cubic curve

C) Tangent to first and last segment

4) FMS

D) CNCs and Work Handling Devices

5) Adaptive control

E) Machining parameter control (Real Time)


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 102

-2-

*SLRKM102*

Type II : (Select proper answer type question) :


Select a proper answer given from three alternatives available :

(52=10)

1) _________________ is solid modelling scheme.


A) CSG
B) 3D
C) 2D
2) Common language developed for computer assisted part programming is
A) WAF
B) APT
C) ATC
3) G 90 preparatory code is used for
A) Absolute presetting
B) Absolute co-ordinate setting
C) Metric unit setting
4) Miscellaneous function used for Coolant off is
A) M 07
B) M 08
C) M 09
5) Listing of relative cutter and work piece positions in manual part programming is
A) Manuscript
B) Programming C) Automation
Type III :
Select a proper answer given from two alternatives. Which is True/False : (51=5)
1) CREO is CAM software.
A) True
B) False
2) 4 number of data points are required to define cubic Bezier curve.
A) True
B) False
3) Reflection about X axis is Y flips.
A) True
B) False
4) Welding Robot is a example of Programmable automation.
A) True
B) False
5) Tab sequential and fixed block formats are more suitable than Word Address
Format.
A) True
B) False
______________

Set A

*SLRKM102*

-3-

SLR-KM 102

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


CAD/CAM
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from Section I.


2) Q. No. 6 is compulsory from Section II and solve
any two from remaining.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) CAD/CAM has its impact on all aspect of product cycle. Explain how ?

b) What is meant by database ? What are the various types of database ?

3. a) Explain 2D Geometric Transformations. Derive and obtain rotation matrix


equation.
b) Perform a counter clockwise 30 rotation of triangle EFG with E(4, 3),
F(10, 3) and G(4, 7) about vertex point E.
4. a) What are the various properties of Hermite curve ?
b) Give parametric representation of following analytical curves :
1) Lines
2) Circle
3) Ellipse
4) Parabola
5) Hyperbola.
5. Answer the following (any four) :

6
7
6
7

14

a) FMS
b) CAPP and its types
c) Automations
d) Differentiate between wire frame and solid modelling
e) Data exchange in CAD
f) CAD workstation.
Set A

SLR-KM 102

*SLRKM102*

-4-

SECTION II
6. a) With reference to the component drawing given below, prepare CNC part
program using G and M codes.
Prepare :
1) Sequence of operations
2) Process sheet
Assume suitable job zero/Machine zero/Home position of tool etc. and
state it clearly.
Given :
Work material : Aluminium
Tool Material : HSS
Spindle speed 200 rpm
Work piece size : 30 80
Feed rate 200 mm/min
All dimensions are in mm.

b) Explain adaptive control in detail.

7. a) What are the basic components of an NC system ? Explain with neat sketch. 7
b) Explain FMS, its type with suitable examples.

8. a) What is Part Programming ? Explain the procedure associated with NC part


programming.

b) Enlist any four G code and M code. Explain functioning of any one G code.

c) Write a short note on DNC.

9. Write short note on (any 4) :


1) Subroutines and subprograms
2) Macros
3) ATC
4) Tool length and Cutter Radius Compensation
5) Pallets.
_____________________

14

Set A

SLR- KM 103

*SLRKM103*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mechanical) Part II (New) Examination, 2015


MACHINE DESIGN II
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. I. Match the pairs :


List (i)

5
List (ii)

A) Herringbone gears

P) Hydrodynamic bearing

B) Self-acting Bearing

Q) Zero axial thrust

C) Rolling contact bearing

R) Hydrostatic bearing

D) Externally pressurised bearing

S) High speed reduction

E) Worm gears

T) Antifriction bearing
U) Pitch cone angle 45

II. Multiple correct answers objective questions :

A) The length of root of worm wheel depends upon


a) Number of starts

b) Effective face width

c) Clearance

d) Speed factor for worm wheel

B) The bearing material should have


a) High compressive strength

b) High hardness

c) Corrosion resistance

d) All of the above


P.T.O.

SLR- KM 103

*SLRKM103*

-2-

C) The beam strength of spur gear depends upon


a) Lewis form factor

b) Lead angle

c) Ultimate tensile strength

d) Face width

D) Clavarinos equation is applicable when


a) Cylinder is made up of ductile material
b) Cylinder is made up of brittle material
c) Cylinder ends are closed
d) Cylinder ends are open
III. Single correct answer type objective questions :

A) Class 2 pressure vessels are


a) Fully radiographed
c) Not radiographed

b) Spot radiographed
d) None of the above

B) If Z and Z are the actual and virtual number of teeth for a bevel gear with
as pitch angle then,
a) Z = Z/sin

b) Z = Z/cos

c) Z = Z/tan

d) Z = Z/cos2

C) The distance that a point on helical profile will move, when the worm is
rotated through one revolution is called as
a) Circular pitch

b) Transverse pitch

c) Lead

d) Pitch distance

D) In a bearing no. 6307, the inner diameter of the bearing is


a) 7 mm
b) 70 mm
c) 35 mm
d) 307 mm
E) The property of material to yield and adopt its shape to that of journal is
called as
a) Adoptability

b) Embeddability c) Conformability d) Softness

F) Johnsons method is used in


a) Adequate design
c) Generalised design

b) Optimum design
d) Material design

G) For a helical gear having helix angle , the ratio of thrust component of
force to tangential component of force is equal to
a) sin

b) cos
c) tan
______________

d) cot

Set A

*SLRKM103*

SLR- KM 103

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mechanical) Part II (New) Examination, 2015


MACHINE DESIGN II
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : i) Answer any two questions from each Section.


ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the various materials used for the gears.
4
b) Derive Lewis equation for spur gear design. State the assumptions made in
deriving the equation.
6
c) A pair of mating spur gears have module m = 3 mm; pressure angle = 20;
face width = 40 mm. Both gears are made of steel, heat treated to BHN of 380
and have teeth of grade of 8. The 16 teeth pinion rotates at 1160 r.p.m. and
drive a 24 teeth gear. The bearing mountings are quite rigid and accurate and
the input and output loading is quite steady. What power can this gear set
safety transmit ? Consider dynamic load by Spotts equation. Take ultimate
stress value for gear material as 600 N/mm2; factor of safety = 2; Lewis form
factor for 16 teeth = 0.295 and for 24 teeth = 0.337; error for grade 8 gear can be
calculated by the equation
10
c = 16.0 + 1.25 (m + 0.25 d ) in microns.
Use Cv = 3/(3 + v).
3. a) A shaft is required to transmit 35 KW at 450 rpm. The required stiffness of
the shaft in 96 Nm/degree. The factor of safety based on yield strength in
shear is 1.5. Using the maximum shear stress theory, design the shaft with
the objective of minimizing the weight, out of the following materials :
10
Mass
Density
,kg/m3

Tensile Yield
Strength
Syt, N/mm2

Modulus of
Rigidity
G,N/mm2

Alloy Steel

7800

450

82103

Aluminiumm Alloy

2800

150

27103

Titanium Alloy

4500

800

41103

Magnesium Alloy

1800

100

17103

Material

Set A

SLR- KM 103

-4-

*SLRKM103*

b) A pair of parallel helical gears consists of right hand 25 teeth pinion meshing
with 45 teeth gear. A 5 kW power at 1000 rpm is supplied to the pinion. The
normal module is 5 mm, face width is 50 mm and the normal pressure angle
is 20. The helix angle is 30. Both the gears are made of steel having ultimate
10
tensile strength of 660N/mm2 and heat treated to 350 BHN.
i) Determine the radial, tangential and axial components of resultant tooth
force if the pinion is rotating in clockwise direction when viewed from right
hand side. Draw a free-body diagram showing the forces acting on pinion
and gear tooth.
ii) Calculate the beam and wear strength of gears tooth.
4. a) What is purpose of supports in pressure vessel ? Explain the various types
of supports for pressure vessel with neat sketches.
b) A steel tank for shipping gas is to have an inside diameter of 300 mm and a
length of 1200 mm. The gas pressure is limited to 15 N/mm2. The yield strength
of steel is 115 MPa. Take = 0.3, f.s. = 2. Determine thickness required.

c) A pressure vessel consists of a cylindrical shell of inside diameter 1650 mm,


that is closed by torispherical heads with a crown radius of 1300 mm. The
operating pressure inside the vessel is 1.5 MPa. The yield strength of the
material used for the shell and head is 255 N/mm2 and the weld joint efficiency
may be assumed to be 0.8. The corrosion allowance is 2 mm. Determine the
thickness of the cylindrical shell and the torispherical head.
10
SECTION II
5. a) Derive an expression for formative number of teeth on bevel gear. What is its
significance in the design of bevel gear ?

b) Define the terms static load capacity, dynamic load capacity and rated life of
rolling contact bearings.

c) A straight teeth overhanging bevel pinion having 20 teeth is to mesh with a


bevel gear having 43 teeth. The axes of the pinion and gear intersect at right
angles. The pinion and gear are made of case hardened steel having ultimate
tensile strength of 720 N/mm2. The pinion shaft is connected to 15 kW, 1440 rmp
electric motor. The starting torque is twice the rated torque. The facewidth is
1/3rd of cone distance. If the surface hardness of the gear pair is to be 350 BHN,
design a gear pair with a factor of safely of 1.5. Assume velocity factor to
account for dynamic load.
Use CV =

6
; Y for formative teeth (22) = 0.330.
6+v

10
Set A

*SLRKM103*

-5-

SLR- KM 103

6. a) Discuss the selection of material for sliding contact bearings with the requirement
of essential properties.
b) Explain the significance of bearing number with example.

5
5

c) A pair of worm and worm wheel is designated as 2/52/10/4. 5 kW power at


1000 rpm is supplied to the work shaft. The coefficient of friction is 0.035 and
the pressure angle is 20. Calculate the tangential axial and radial components
of the resultant gear force acting on the worm and worm wheel. Also determine
the efficiency of worm gear.
10
7. a) A cylindrical roller bearing carries a radial load of 4000 N at 1500 rpm for 50%
of time, 6000 N at 720 rpm for 30% of time and 2000 N at 1000 rpm for
remaining time. The dynamic capacity of the bearing is 15.6 kN. Calculate :
i) Average speed of rotation in rpm.
ii) The equivalent radial load.
iii) Rated life of bearing.
b) Write a note on thermal considerations in design of worm gear pair.

10
5

c) The following data refer to a 360 hydrodynamic journal bearing.


Speed of journal
= 1500 rpm
Length of bearing
= 50 mm
Diameter of journal
= 50 mm
Viscosity
= 20 Centipoise
Radial clearance
= 0.05 mm
Sommerfeld number
= 0.052
Calculate the load carrying capacity of bearing.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 104

*SLRKM104*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


EXPERIMENTAL STRESS ANALYSIS (Professional Elective II)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it
clearly.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. A) Match the pairs :


Column (1)

(41= 4)
Column (2)

a) Semiconductor strain gauges

p) Unique axis for passing light

b) Torque measurement of
slowly rotating shaft

q) Wire wound around in opposite


direction to rotation

c) Unknown state of strain

r) Rosette

d) Analyzer

s) High gauge factor


t) Better heat dissipation

B) Match the pairs :


Column (1)

(41= 4)
Column (2)

a) / 4 retardation

p) Stressed model

b) P-Type Strain Gauge

q) Generally resistance increases with


increase in tensile strain

c) N-Type Strain Gauge

r) Generally resistance decreases with


increase in tensile strain

d) / 2 retardation

s) Quarter wave plate


t) Insensitive to cross-axis sensitivity
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 104

*SLRKM104*

-2-

C) Solve Multiple correct answers :

(42=8)

i) Stress difference is related to


a) Fringe order

b) Material fringe value

c) Model thickness

d) none

ii) Following are the types of strain gauges rosette


a) Delta

b) Tee Delta

c) 3 Element rectangular

d) Beta

iii) Brittle coatings are useful in


a) Locating strain directions

b) Measuring strains

c) Increasing model thickness

d) Interference

iv) Transducers developed using Strain gauge are used for measuring
a) Pressure

b) Force

c) Angle

d) Length

D) Solve classical objectives :

(41=4)

i) Strain gauges use in opposite arm are


a) same nature

b) opposite nature

c) a and b

d) all arms

ii) Strain gauges use in adjacent arm are


a) same nature

b) opposite nature

c) a and b

d) all arms

iii) Output voltage in case of two arm sensitive bridge as compared with one arm
sensitive is
a) same

b) double

c) triple

d) four times (quadruplicated)

iv) Tardys method is known as


a) compensation

b) theoretical

c) stressed

d) none

______________

Set A

*SLRKM104*

-3-

SLR-KM 104

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


EXPERIMENTAL STRESS ANALYSIS (Professional Elective II)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
2) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it
clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain in brief :

i) Isoclinic
ii) Isochromatics.
b) Derive the expression for the light intensity observed through analyzer when the
stressed model is kept in plane polariscope.
c) Explain natural and artificial birefringence.

10
4

3. a) Enlist ideal properties of photo elastic material and explain the procedure for sheet
casting.

b) A circular disc made of photo elastic material is used for calibration. The disc
diameter is 60 mm and its thickness is 6 mm. It is subjected to equal and opposite
compressive loads of 300 N along the vertical diameter. The observed fringe order
at the disc centre and two other points 6 mm and 12 mm along the horizontal
diameter is 0.4, 0.35 and 0.3 respectively. Calculate the average value of the
maternal fringe constant.

c) Explain Calibration method of Tensile Model.

4. a) Explain the separation of Principal Stresses by Hookes law.

b) Explain the scaling of model results to prototype.

c) What is the purpose of electrical analogy method ? Explain the method.

Set A

SLR-KM 104

-4-

*SLRKM104*

SECTION II
5. a) The strain readings measured by an equiangular rosette at a point in the stressed
body are as follows a = 845 micro-strain, b = 1220 micro-strain, c = 700
micro-strain. Determine the principal strains, principal stresses, its directions and
maximum shear stress.
Take E = 210 GPa and = 0.286.
12
b) Explain in brief grid, backing and adhesive material used n strain gauges.

6. a) Explain balanced and unbalanced Wheatstone bridge. Derive the expression for
the output voltage of unbalanced Wheatstone bridge.
b) Derive an expression for output voltage of :

10
10

i) Wheatstone bridge with two equal strains of the same nature.


ii) Wheatstone bridge with all four arms sensitive to strain with two parts of equal
and opposite kinds of strain.
7. a) Explain brittle coating method with its advantages and disadvantages.

b) Discuss use of strain gauge for measurement of load and pressure.

c) Define transverse sensitivity of a strain gauge. Derive the expression for transverse
sensitivity of a strain gauge.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 105

*SLRKM105*
S

T.E. (Part II) (Mechanical) (New) Examination, 2015


POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING
(Professional Elective II)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Duration : 30 Minutes

Max. Marks : 100

i) Figures to right indicate full marks.


ii) Attempt any 2 questions from each Section.
iii) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
iv) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

(201=20)

1) For economical and better operation of a power plant __________ load is always
desirable.
A) Variable
B) Oscillating
C) Constant magnitude
D) Alternating
2) The average load factor of thermal power plants in India is
A) 100%
B) 80 to 95%
C) 50 to 60%

D) 20 to 30%

3) The pump storage plant essentially consists of a


A) Single basin
B) Head and a tail water pond
C) Bottom small reservoir
D) Pressure amplifier
4) From the area under the load curve we can come to know
A) Approximate load
B) Constant increase in power
C) Steady decrease in power
D) Total energy consumption
5) The highest point on the load curve represents
A) Maximum time
B) Maximum demand
C) Maximum concrete load
D) KVA rating of generators
6) A curve showing the variation of load on a power station with respect to time is
known as,
A) Load curve
B) Load duration curve
C) Performance curve
D) Flow chart
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 105

*SLRKM105*

-2-

7) Low utilization factor for a power plant indicates that


A) Plant is under maintenance
B) Plant is used for base load only
C) Plant is used for stand by purpose only
D) Plant is used for peak load as well as base load
8) The standard frequency for electric power supply in India is
A) I Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 440 Hz
D) 220 Hz
9) In Hopkinson demand rate or two part tariff the demand rate or fixed charges are
A) Depends upon the energy consumed
B) Depends upon the maximum demand
C) Both a) and b)
D) None of the above
10) For a power plant, the cost of labour is considered as __________ cost.
A) Fixed
B) Variable
C) Progressive
D) Major
11) Flat plate collector absorbs
A) Direct Radiation
C) Direct and Diffuse both

B) Diffuse Radiation
D) None of the above

12) Max. Wind energy available is proportional to


A) Square of the diameter of the rotor B) Air Density
C) Cube of the wind velocity
D) All of the above
13) Geothermal plant is suitable for
A) Base load power
C) Both A) and B)

B) Peak load power


D) None of the above

14) A geothermal field may yield


A) Hot water
B) Wet steam

C) Dry steam

D) All of the above

15) The value of Solar constant observed by world radiation center


A) 1361 W/m2
B) 1363 W/m2
C) 1367 W/m2
D) 1367 KW/m2
16) Pyrheliometer is used to measure
A) Beam radiation
C) Global radiation

B) Diffuse radiation
D) All of the above

17) Zenith angle is complementary angle of


A) Latitude
B) Surface Azimuth Angle
C) Hour Angle
D) Sun Altitude Angle
18) Tides are caused because of
A) Sun
B) Mars

C) Moon

19) The sun subtends on the earth an angle of


A) 30
B) 32
C) 25

D) Ocean Depth
D) 35

20) The objective of energy audit is to


A) Spend Energy
B) Conduct formal survey
C) Save energy
D) Promote energy usage
______________

Set A

*SLRKM105*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 105

T.E. (Part II) (Mechanical) (New) Examination, 2015


POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING
(Professional Elective II)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

i) Answer any two questions from each Section.


ii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iii) Make suitable assumption if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I

2. a) Which are the key organizations working under ministry of power ? Explain any
one of them.

b) Explain effect of variable load on power plant design and operation with load
curve.

c) The peak load on a power plant is 30 MW. The loads having maximum demands
of 25 MW, 10 MW, 5 MW and 7 MW are connected to the power station.
The capacity of the power station is 40 MW and annual load factor is 50%. Find.
i) Average load on power plant
ii) Energy supplied per year
iii) Demand factor
iv) Diversity factor
3. a) What do you mean by base load and peak load power plant and explain the
requirements of peak load power plant ?

b) Explain pump storage power plant with neat sketch.

c) The annual cost of operating 30 MW gas turbine power plant as base load are
as follows :

Plant cost = 10 Crore, Interest and Insurance = 13%, Depreciation = 5%


Plant Maintenance cost = 50 Lac, Fuel cost = 7 crore,
Lubricating oil cost = 25 Lac
Labour cost = 75 Lac, Max. Demand = 25 MW, Load factor = 0.75
Profit expected = 5 Paise/K wh
Determine cost of electricity generated considering the profit (excluding plant cost).

Set A

SLR-KM 105

-4-

*SLRKM105*

4. Write short note on any four :

(45=20)

a) Selection of site for Thermal Power station and Hydro Power station.
b) Impact of energy sources on environment
c) Tariff methods
d) Compressed air storage plant
e) Load curve and load duration curve.
SECTION II
5. a) Define the terms :

i) Altitude Angle
ii) Incident Angle
iii) Latitude Angle
iv) Hour Angle
v) Declination Angle
b) Explain with neat sketch Pyrheliometer.

c) Explain solar radiation outside and at the earth surface.

6. a) Explain the working of a wind mill by drawing a clear sketch of all its basic parts.
Also briefly comment on the various rotors and its characteristics.

b) A 10 m/s wind is at 1 standard atmospheric pressure and 15C temperature.


Calculate
a) The total power density in the wind stream.
b) The maximum obtainable power density.
c) A reasonably obtainable power density, all in w/m2,

d) The total power (in kw) produced if the turbine diameter is 120m, and
e) The torque, if the turbine were operating at 40 r/min and maximum efficiency,
Assume n = 40% reasonable power density.
c) Write short note on liquid dominated type geothermal system.
7. Write short note on any four :

7
6

(45=20)

a) Single basin system of a Tidal plant.


b) Write short note on Duties and Responsibilities of Energy Manager.
c) Objective of energy audit and the procedure of energy audit.
d) Energy conservation in Industrial sector.
e) Ocean thermal energy conversion.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 106

*SLRKM106*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015
MECHANICAL VIBRATION (Professional Elective II)

Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12- 2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
4) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them clearly.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer


1) In a harmonic motion the maximum velocity is
a) directly proportional to the amplitude
b) inversely proportional to the amplitude
c) directly proportional to square of amplitude

(201= 20)

d) independent of amplitude
2) In an undamped single degree of freedom system with spring stiffness K and mass M, the
natural frequency is
a)

K /M

b)

M /K

c) K/M

d) None

3) A system is said to be over damped if damping factor for the system is


4)

5)

6)
7)

a) more than one


b) equal to one
c) less than one
d) equal to zero
Forced vibration vibrate at
a) natural frequency of system
b) frequency of external excitation
c) both a and b
d) none
The resultant stiffness of two springs in parallel as compared to individual stiffness of any
of two springs
a) is more
b) is less
c) is equal
d) none of above
The number of natural frequencies in a two rotor system is
a) infinite
b) zero
c) two
d) four
In case of steady state forced vibration at resonance the amplitude of vibration is
a) inversely proportional to damping
b) inversely proportional to damping ratio
c) inversely proportional to resonant
d) directly proportional to resonant frequency
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 106

*SLRKM106*

-2-

8) A two DOF vibration system, which has two natural frequencies, when disturbed will
vibrate with
a) its lower frequency

b) its higher frequency

c) both the natural frequencies

d) any of two natural frequencies

9) The unit of viscous damping coefficient


a) N-m/sec

b) m/N-sec

c) N-sec/m

d) N-m-sec

10) The equivalent stiffness of spring connected in parallel having stiffness k1 and k2 can be
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2)

b) k1 + k2

c) (1/k1) (1/k2)

d) None

11) Main Properties of vibrating system.


a) Mass and stiffness

b) Mass, stiffness and damping

c) Stiffness and damping

d) Damping and stiffness

12) Accelerometer is designed with


a) low frequency

b) high frequency

c) zero frequency

d) none

13) If spring of stiffness K units is cut into 3 equal pieces, then stiffness of each spring
a) K/3

b) K

c) 3K

d) 5K

14) Natural frequency of accelerometer is normally of the order


a) 4 Hz

b) 100 Hz

c) between 100 Hz to 1000 Hz

d) above 10 kHz

15) Each term in the equation of motion of linear system involves displacement, velocity and
acceleration of
a) first degree

b) second degree

c) zero degree

d) none

16) In case of nonlinear vibration frequency of system


a) is constant

b) is not constant

c) cannot be predicted

d) none

17) Effect of damping on the natural frequency of system is to


a) reduce it considerably

b) increase it considerably

c) reduce it marginally

d) increase it marginally

18) Each outcome of an experiment, in case of random process is


a) sample point

b) sample function

c) sample space

d) none

19) The instrument that measures the displacement of vibrating body is called a
a) seismometer

b) transducer

c) accelerometer

d) none

20) When frequency of external excitation force is equal to natural frequency of vibration then
a) amplitude of vibration is zero

b) amplitude of vibration is small

c) amplitude of vibration is very large

d) none

______________
Set A

*SLRKM106*

SLR-KM 106

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


MECHANICAL VIBRATION (Professional Elective II)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12- 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section I and Section II.
2) Figure to right indicate full marks.
3) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Define following terms (any four):

i) Damping Ratio
ii) Simple Harmonic Motion
iii) Resonance
iv) Degree of freedom
v) Natural frequency and mode shape
b) State the difference between viscous damping and Coulomb damping.

3. a) Derive governing equation single degree spring mass damped system under harmonic
excitation.
b) Explain logarithmic decrement of spring mass undamped system.

8
5

4. a) Set up differential equation for motion of two degree vibration system and hence derive the
frequency equation and obtain natural frequencies of system.

b) A cylinder of mass 4 kg and radius 150 mm is connected by a spring of Stiffness 4000 N /m


as shown of figure (1). It is free to roll on horizontal rough surface without slipping, determine
the natural frequency.

x
K

Figure ( 1)

Set A

SLR-KM 106

-4-

*SLRKM106*

5. a) Derive governing equation of motion for multi-degree vibration system and determine natural
frequency of system.
b) Explain steps involved in vibration analysis.

8
5

SECTION II
6. a) Distinguish between linear and nonlinear vibrations.

b) Explain Principal of accelerometer with sketch and frequency curve.

c) Explain FFT analyzer in brief.

7. a) Explain Nonlinear Vibration with example .

b) Write a short note on Vibration Isolation.

8. a) What is dynamic vibration absorber and show that its natural frequency should be equal to
frequency of applied force ?
b) Explain in brief Random Variable and Random process in random vibration.
9. Write a short note on (attempt any two).

8
5
14

a) Wide band and narrow band signal process


b) Vibration Exciter
c) Signal Analysis.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 107

*SLR-KM-107*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


Professional (Elective II)
TOOL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Q. No. 2 and 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two questions
out of Q. No. 3, 4 and 5 from Section I and attempt any two
questions out of Q. No. 7, 8 and 9 from Section II.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state it
clearly.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Objective type questions :

20

A) Single correct answer type questions :

(101=10)

1) Chip velocity is
a) Greater than cutting velocity

b) Equal to cutting velocity

c) Less than cutting velocity

d) Independent of cutting velocity

2) A cup without flanges and height of 100 mm and dia. of 50 mm with corner
radius as 2 mm is to be made from 2.5 mm thick stock. What is blank
size without Trimming allowance ?
a) 150 mm

b) 250 mm

c) 140 mm

d) 200 mm

3) In bending allowance the value of K is dependent on


a) Inner radius

b) Length of bend c) Bend angle

d) All above

4) Velocity of chip relative to the tool and directed along tool face is called as
a) Chip velocity
c) Shear velocity

b) Cutting velocity
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 107

*SLR-KM-107*

-2-

5) Cutting force during cut depends upon


a) Cutting speed

b) Feed

c) Rigidity of machine tool

d) All of these

6) The tool life is largely affected by


a) Depth of cut

b) Cutting speed c) Feed

d) All of the above

7) Which of the following expression represents shear strain ?


a) S = cot tan( )
c) S = cot + tan( )

b) S = cot tan( + )
d) S = cot + tan( + )

8) While machining, which of the following work-material does not require


cutting fluid ?
a) Cast Iron
b) Aluminum
c) Steel
d) Brass
9) Chip breakers are used to
a) Increase tool life

b) Remove chips from bed

c) Break chips into short segments d) To minimize heat generation


10) Spring back effect is more common in
a) Bending

b) Punching

c) Blanking

d) Shaving

B) Multiple correct answers type questions :


11) Variable cost includes
a) Labor cost
b) Power cost

c) Setup cost

(25=10)
d) Cost of m/c

12) Breakeven point is used to analyze


a) Capacity of m/c
b) Min. Qty. to be produced for No. loss
c) Profit or Loss

d) None of these

13) Jigs are the machine shop devices which consist of


a) Locating elements

b) Clamping elements

c) Guide bushes

d) Setting block

14) Which of the following is chip removal process ?


a) Die casting

b) Broaching

c) Forging

d) Grinding

15) Tensile strength is important in


a) Bending

b) Punching
c) Blanking
______________

d) Drawing

Set A

*SLR-KM-107*

-3-

SLR-KM 107

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


Professional (Elective II)
TOOL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 2 and 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two questions


out of Q. No. 3, 4 and 5 from Section I and attempt any two
questions out of Q. No. 7, 8 and 9 from Section II.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state it
clearly.
SECTION I
2. Design the press tool for production of component in Fig. I, Giving following details :
i) Cutting Force
ii) Clearance between die and punch
iii) Strip Layout
iv) Design of die and other various elements. Draw two view of press tool out of
one should be sectional view.
20

Fig. I
Material M.S.
Shear Strength 40 kg/mm2
Material thickness = 2 mm.
OR

Set A

SLR-KM 107

-4-

*SLR-KM-107*

Design the drawing tool for production of component in Fig II and determine
the following :
i) Blank size
ii) No. of draws
iii) % reduction
iv) Blank holding force
v) Punch and die size
vi) Drawing force
vii) Press capacity

Fig. II
Material M.S.
Thickness = 1 mm
Yield stress = 45 kg/mm2
Draw two view of drawing tool out of one should be sectional view.

20

3. a) In an orthogonal turning operation :


Cutting Speed = 70 m/min.
Feed Force = 13 kg
Cutting Force = 25 kg
Chip thickness ratio = 0.6
Rake angle = 15.
Determine :
i) Shear angle and Shear velocity
ii) Shear Strain.
b) Explain sources of heat generation in metal cutting.

5
5

Set A

*SLR-KM-107*

-5-

SLR-KM 107

4. a) During machining of component when cutting speed changed from 150 m/min.
to 50 m/min. The tool life was observed to change from 20 min. to 220 min.
Determine n and c.

b) Discuss the various types of chips produced during metal cutting.


5. Write note on (any two) :

5
10

a) Press Tool Operations


b) Machinability
c) Compound die
d) Bending dies.
SECTION II
6. Design and draw milling fixture for slot 20 10 mm for the component in Fig. III. 20

Fig. III
OR
Set A

SLR-KM 107

-6-

*SLR-KM-107*

Design a drill jig for two holes of 8 mm for the component shown in Fig. IV.

20

Fig. IV
7. a) The annual requirement of the component (about 8000 pieces) can be met by
one turret lathe or by two centre lathes. The cost of turret lathe is Rs. 1,60,000
and that of one centre lathe is Rs. 64,000. The useful life of each of the
machine is 10 years. The turret takes the same floor space as one engine
lathe, saving Rs. 480 per year in floor space. The turret lathe can produce
8000 components in 2256 hours including set up time. Its operator receives
Rs. 16 per hour. One operator is required on each centre lathe and its wage
rate is Rs. 20 per hour. Both centre lathes are operated for 2300 hours each,
and produce total 7600 pieces.
Take I = 6%, T = 4%, M = 6%, D = d = 10%, B = b= 55%.
A 4 H.P. motor is used on turret lathe and 2.5 H.P. motor on each centre
lathe. Power rate is Rs. 8 per KWH.
Which of the two machines should be selected for job ?
b) Write a note on Cutting tool materials.
8. a) Explain ORS or ASA specification of single point cutting tool with suitable
example.
b) Describe the nomenclature of twist drill with neat sketch.
9. Write short notes on any two :

5
5
5
5
10

a) Economics of small tool replacement


b) Clamping elements
c) Types of bushes used in Jigs.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 108

*SLRKM108*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Answer any two questions from each Section.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
6) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) Compression ratio in a C I engine is
a) 5-6
b) 6-10
c) 12-14
d) 16-24
2) For same compression ratio and heat addition Otto cycle efficiency with respect to
diesel cycle efficiency is
a) Greater than
b) Smaller than
c) Equal to
d) None of above
3) Dissociation effects are not so pronounced in C.I. Engines as in S.I. Engines
because of
a) Presence of heterogeneous mixture
b) Presence of excess air in combustion chamber
c) Reduction in peak temperature in combustion chamber
d) All of above
4) Two stroke cycle engine has
a) One suction valve and one exhaust valve
b) One suction valve and transfer port
c) Only ports for charging and exhaust uncovered by piston
d) None of above
5) An altitude mixture correction device in carburetor is used for
a) Reduce the quantity of fuel progressively
b) Increase the quantity of fuel progressively
c) Increase the quantity of air progressively
d) None of above
6) The mean droplet size in the fuel spray by an injection nozzle decreases with
a) Increase in injection pressure
b) Decrease in air density
c) Increase in fuel viscosity
d) All of above
7) Multi point fuel injection system uses
a) Direct injection
b) Port injection
c) Throttle body injection
d) Both b) and c)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 108

-2-

*SLRKM108*

8) In turbochargers compressor is driven by


a) exhaust gas turbine
b) engine
c) electric motor
d) none of above
9) Very high powered engines used for ship propulsion are generally
a) two stroke petrol engines
b) four stroke petrol engines
c) four stroke diesel engines
d) two stroke diesel engines
10) The component which converts reciprocatory motion into rotary motion in engines is
a) gudgeon pin
b) piston rings
c) crank shaft
d) camshaft
11) Octane number of which fuel is zero ?
a) Normal heptane
b) Iso-octane
c) 2-2-4 trimethyl pentane
d) Methyl alcohol
12) In a four stroke diesel engine, the heat carried away by exhaust gases will be around
a) 5 to 7 percent
b) 10 to 20 percent
c) 20 to 35 percent
d) 50 to 70 percent
13) Keeping other parameters constant, brake power of a diesel engine can be
increased by
a) Decreasing the density of intake air
b) Increasing the temperature of intake air
c) Increasing the pressure of intake air
d) Decreasing the pressure of intake air
14) The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are
a) Cetane and isooctane
b) Cetane and tetraethyl lead
c) Cetane and n-heptane
d) Cetane and -methyl naphthalene
15) Which of the following factors would increase the probability of knock in the CI
engines ?
a) Long ignition delay of fuel
b) Low self-ignition temperature of fuel
c) Low volatility of fuel
d) None of above
16) Which one of the following quantities is assumed constant for an internal
combustion engine while estimating its friction power by extrapolation through
Willans line ?
a) Brake thermal efficiency
b) Indicated thermal efficiency
c) Mechanical efficiency
d) Volumetric efficiency
17) Reference fuels for knock rating of SI engine fuels would include
a) iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
b) normal octane and aniline
c) iso-octane and n-hexane
d) n-heptane and iso-octane
18) Which of the following factors increase detonation in the SI engine ?
a) Increased spark advance
b) Increased speed
c) Increased air-fuel ratio beyond stoichiometric strength
d) Increased compression ratio
19) Due to high temperature pollutants produced are
a) CO
b) HC
c) NOx
d) None of above
20) In SI engine Fuel detonation chances are more for
a) benzene
b) toluene
c) iso-octane
d) n-heptane

______________

Set A

*SLRKM108*

-3-

SLR-KM 108

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Answer any two questions from each Section.


Assume suitable data if necessary.
Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I

2. a) Discuss the following losses which occur in an actual engine :


I) Pumping losses
II) Exhaust losses
III) Time losses.

b) Sketch and explain the valve timing diagram for :


I) 4 stroke high speed SI engine
II) 4 stroke low speed SI engine.

c) Compare S.I. and C.I. engines with respect to basic cycles. Compression ratio,
speed fuel used, thermal efficiency. Weight to power ratio, ignition system used
and load control.

3. a) The diameter of a venture of a simple carburetor is 2 cm and its Cd is 0.85. The


fuel nozzle diameter is 1.25 mm and Cdf is 0.66 the tip of the fuel nozzle is 5 mm.
Find

1) Air fuel ratio for pressure drop of 0.07 bar when nozzle lip is neglected
2) Air fuel ratio when nozzle lip is considered.
Take a = 1.2 kg/m3, f = 750 kg/m3 and 1 cm head of water is 98 N/m2.
b) Explain important for factors considered for engine selection for
I) Marine application
II) Aircraft application.

c) What are the limitations in a simple carburetor and how these limitations are
overcome ? List the compensating devices used and explain any one type with
sketch.

Set A

SLR-KM 108

-4-

*SLRKM108*

4. a) What is the purpose of using a governor in C.I. engines ? Explain any one type.

b) Explain the effect of supercharging with PV diagram on performance of an engine.

c) Discuss the requirements of an injection system and explain common rail injection
system.

SECTION II
5. a) What is Ignition lag ? Explain effect of various operating factors on Ignition lag.

b) Explain detonation in SI engine.

c) What is Octane number ? What is its importance in SI engine ?

6. a) Explain various stages of combustion in CI engine in detail.

b) Explain various effect of operating variable on detonation in CI engine.

c) Explain EGR method of pollution control.

7. a) Explain Willans line method for determining friction power.

b) Test on single cylinder, four stroke oil engine having bore 18 cm, and stroke 36 cm
yielded the following results :
Speed 285 rpm, brake torque = 393 Nm, indicated m.e.p. 7.2 bar, fuel consumption
3.5 kg/hr, cooling water flow 4.5 kg per min., cooling water temperature rise 36C,
air-fuel ratio by mass 25, exhaust gas temperature 415C, barometric pressure
1.013 bar, room temperature 21C.
The fuel has calorific value of 45200 kJ/kg and contains 15% by mass of Hydrogen.
Determine :
i) The indicated thermal efficiency
ii) Volumetric efficiency based on atmospheric condition
iii) Draw up heat balance sheet in terms of kJ/min.
Take R = 0.287 kJ/kgK, Cv for dry exhaust gases = 1.005 kJ/kgK and for superheated
steam Cp = 2.05 kJ/kgK.
10
c) Explain suitability of two present alternative fuels for SI engine.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 109

*SLRKM109*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

Type A questions
(Each question carries one mark)
1) Operations Research approach is
a) Multidisciplinary
b) Scientific

c) Intuitive

d) All of the above

2) A feasible solution to LPP


a) Must satisfy all the constraints simultaneously
b) Need not satisfy all the constraints
c) Must be a corner point of feasible region
d) Must optimize the objective function
3) The dual of the primal maximization LPP having m constraints and n variables should
a) Be a minimization problem
b) Have n constraints and m variables
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
4) For maximization problem, the objective function coefficient for an artificial variable is
a) + M
b) M
c) Zero
d) None of the above
5) The dummy source or destination in transportation is added to
a) Satisfy the rim conditions
b) Prevent the solution from being becoming degenerate
c) Modify the allocations
d) All of the above
6) In case of assignment problems, at any stage of allocations to zero cells, minimum number of lines
covering all the zeros is
a) Less than number of allocations
b) Equal to the number of allocations
c) More than number of allocations
d) None of the above
7) A game is said to fair if;
a) Both upper and lower values of the game are zero
b) Upper and lower values are not zero
c) Upper and lower values are equal but not zero
d) All of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 109

*SLRKM109*

-2-

8) A factor used in replacement analysis with change in money value is called as


a) Discount factor

b) Present worth factor

c) Depreciation factor

d) All of these

9) In group replacement policy, if any item fails before optimal time


a) It is replaced individually

b) It is not replaced individually

c) It is replaced in a group

d) None of above

10) A cable connection to the residential buildings in a society can be conveniently designed using
which one of the following algorithm ?
a) Shortest path method

b) Minimum spanning tree

c) Maximal flow

d) All of these

Type B questions
(Each question carries two marks)
1) Degeneracy in transportation problem occurs if independent allocations made are
a) Equal to m + n 1
b) Less than m + n 1
c) m + n
d) None of these
2) For the Payoff

5
6

4
3

, the optimal strategy for the row player will be

a) First strategy
c) Mixed strategy

b) Second strategy
d) None of these

3) In PERT, the dispersion of frequency distribution curve between optimistic time and pessimistic
time estimates for an activity is
a) 3 Sigma

b) 6 Sigma

c) 12 Sigma

d) None of these

4) The estimated duration of times of a certain activity in PERT network under worst condition is 14
days while under the ideal conditions it is 8 days. Then the variance for the activity will be
a) 2 days

b) 6 days

c) one day

d) 8 days

4 3
5) For the payoff matrix 3 8 the value of the game will be

a) 13/6

b) 6/13

c) 23/6
______________

d) zero

Set A

*SLRKM109*

SLR-KM 109

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculators is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain in brief the various models of OR.

b) Solve the following LPP by graphical method


Min. Z = 10 x1 + 14 x2
Subject to

x1 + 2 x2

3 x1 + 2 x2 18
x1 2
x1 and x2

3. Solve the following LPP by Big-M method.


Min. Z = 4 x1 + 2x2
Subject to

27
x1 + x2 21
x1 0, x2

13

3 x1 + x2

4. a) A company has four machines to do three jobs. Each job can be assigned to one and only machine.
The cost of each job on each machine is given in rupees in the following table. Find the optimal
assignment.
Machines
A B C D

I 18 24 28 32

Jobs II 13 8 17 19

III 10 15 19 22
b) Write a note on dynamic programming.

5. a) Solve the following transportation problem given with the unit transportation cost in rupees along
with the supply and demand units.

P1
P2
Plants
P3
Demand Units

I
6
11
10
85

Markets
II
III
1
9
5
2
12
4
35
50

IV
3
8
7
45

Supply Units
70
55
70

b) What is degeneracy in transportation ? How it is resolved ?

Set A

SLR-KM 109

*SLRKM109*

-4-

SECTION II
6. a) Solve the following game by using dominance principle.

Player B
I

Player A

II

20
25

40

III

IV

15 12 35
14

19

11

10

b) Define :
i) Payoff matrix
ii) Two person zero sum game
iii) Saddle point

7. a) A small engineering project consists of six activities. The three time estimates in days are given
below :
Activity

Optimistic

Most likely

Pessimistic

1-2

1-4

2-3

3-5

20

4-5

14

5-6

10

Draw the network and calculate the expected project duration. What will be the probability that the
project will be completed in 22 days ? Use the following table :
Z

0.42

0.55

0.63

0.84

0.6628

0.7088

0.7357

0.7995

b) Compare PERT and CPM.

8. a) The maintenance cost and resale value per year of a machine whose purchase
price is Rs. 7000 is given below :
Year
Maintenance cost
Resale value

900

1200

1600

2100

2800

3700

4700

5900

4000

2000

1200

600

500

400

400

400

When should be the machine be replaced ?


b) What are the various types of replacement models ?
9. a) Explain the following criterion used for decision making under uncertainity.
i) Hurwitz criterion
ii) Laplace criterion
b) Discuss the concept of minimal spanning tree problem with suitable example.

5
8
5

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 110

*SLRKM110*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :


1) Primary energy sources are
a) Electricity
c) Used in diesel generator sets

(201=20)
b) Converted into secondary energy source
d) LPG, Petrol, Diesel

2) Highest point on the load curve represents


a) Max. time
b) Max. demand
c) Max. concrete load
d) kVA rating of generators
3) Thermal power plants contribute _______ % of total electrical energy produced in the
world.
a) 50
b) 65
c) 95
d) 80
4) Which one of the following is the maximum energy producing sector in India ?
a) Thermal
b) Hygro
c) Nuclear
d) Diesel
5) India has a per capita consumption
a) In equality with developed countries
b) In excess of developed countries
c) Very severely behind developed countries
d) None of the above
6) Which of the following relation is incorrect ?
a) Capacity factor = utilization factor load factor
b) Average load = load factor max. demand
c) Max. demand = demand factor connected load
d) None of the above
7) Low utilization factor of the plant indicates that
a) Plant is under maintenance
b) Plant is used as stand by unit
c) Plant is used for base load only
d) Plant is used for peak as well as base loads
8) The general form of tariff is
a) bc + y
b) by + c

c) ax2

d) ax + by + c
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 110

*SLRKM110*

-2-

9) To make best possible use of generating capacities the power stations are
a) Isolated
b) Demarked into straight boundaries
c) Interconnected
d) Interminantly earthed
10) Transformer capacity is measured in terms of
a) HP
b) kVA
c) kVAr
11) Pyranometer is used to measure
a) Beam radiation
c) Global radiation

d) kW

b) Diffused radiation
d) Terrestrial radiation

12) The function of solar collector is to convert solar energy into


a) Electricity
b) Radiation
c) Thermal energy
d) None of the above
13) Maximum efficiency of the wind turbine is
a) 80 %
b) 36 %

c) 50 %

14) Available wind power is proportional to (where = density)


b) 1/
c) 2
a)

d) 59 %
d) 3

15) Ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) is based on


a) Wave energy
b) High tides
c) Temperature difference between the top layer of the ocean and the cooler water at its
depth
d) High tides plus low tides
16) Geothermal energy is
a) renewable energy source
c) an inexhaustible energy source

b) an alternative energy source


d) any of the above

17) A single major step towards energy conservation would be


a) To reward an individual transport system
b) To encourage two-wheeler industry
c) To discourage pedestrians
d) To improve public transport system
18) Energy management emphasizes on
a) Controlling the supply and consumption of energy
b) Maximizing productivity and comfort levels and minimize energy costs and pollution
with effective use of energy
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
19) Tidal energy source mainly makes use of
a) Kinetic energy of water
c) Both a and b

b) Potential energy of water


d) None of the above

20) The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 requires designated consumers to


a) Appoint/designate certified energy manager
b) Conduct an energy audit through an accredited energy auditor
c) Comply with energy consumption norms and standards
d) All of the above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM110*

-3-

SLR-KM 110

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.


2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Describe Power factor, its measurement and improvement methods.

b) The peak load on a power plant is 30 MW. The loads having maximum demands of
25 MW, 10 MW, 5 MW and 7 MW are connected to the power station. The capacity of the
power station is 40 MW and load factor is 50 %. Find

i) Average load on power plant


ii) Energy supplied per year
iii) Demand factor
iv) Diversity factor.
c) What are the objectives of NTPC in development of power sector in India ?

3. a) What is a compressed air energy storage plant ? Explain with neat sketch.

b) Two electrical units used for same purpose compared for their economical working.

a) Cost of first unit is Rs. 5,000/- and it takes 100 KW


b) Cost of second unit is Rs. 14,000/- and it takes 60 KW
Each of them has useful life of 40,000 hours. Which unit will prove economical if energy is
charged at Rs. 80 per KW of maximum demand per year and 5 paisa per KW-hr. ? Assume
both unit runs at full load.
c) What is a exciter ? Write a note on A.C. exciters ?
4. Write short notes on the following :

7
(45=20)

a) Organization of power sector in India.


b) Power crisis in India.
c) Different load curves.
d) Fixed and operating costs.

Set A

SLR-KM 110

-4-

*SLRKM110*

SECTION II
5. a) Derive an expression for instantaneous collector efficiency of flat plate collector mentioning
the energy balance equation.

b) Explain the types of instruments used for measuring different radiation parameters. Discuss
solar radiation geometry with figure.

c) Describe with neat sketch vapour dominated geothermal system with its applications.
State the advantages of geothermal energy.

6. a) Discuss the basic components of Wind Energy Conversion System with neat block
diagram. Briefly comment on the various rotors and its characteristics.

b) A 10 m/s wind is at 1 standard atmospheric pressure and 15C temperature. Calculate :

i) the total power density in the wind stream,


ii) the maximum obtainable power density,
iii) a reasonably obtainable power density, all in W/m2. Assume 11 = 40 %,
iv) the total power (in kW) produced if the turbine diameter is 120 m, and
v) the torque and axial thrust N if the turbine were operating at 40 r/min and maximum
efficiency.
c) How the wave formation takes place ? Describe any two wave energy conversion devices.
7. Write short notes on the following :

(45=20)

a) Instruments and stages of energy audit for energy audit.


b) Energy conservation in Sugar industry.
c) OTEC.
d) Various methods of tidal power.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 111

*SLRKM111*
S

B.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Note : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The matrix showing relation between strain vector and displacement vector or
temperature vector and temperature gradient is
a) [D]
b) [K]
c) [C]
d) [B]
2) The material property matrix is represented as
a) [D]
b) [K]
c) [C]

d) [B]

3) The equations defining approximate distribution are known as interpolation


functions and can take any mathematical form, in practice they are usually
a) Polynomials
b) Trigonometric functions
c) Exponential function
d) Hermetic
4) Sum of all the natural coordinate of the node is
a) zero
b) one
c) can not predicted
d) none of the above
5) Generally higher order formulations are carried out by
a) Carisian co-ordinates
b) Natural co-ordinates
c) Polar co-ordinates
d) Cylindrical co-ordinates
6) In Simplex triangular distorted element the allowable angle is
a) Less than 45
b) In between 45 and 75
c) In between 75 and 90
d) Greater than 75
7) The term AE/L represents
a) stress
b) strain

c) stiffness

d) thermal conduction
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 111

-2-

*SLRKM111*

8) FEM is
a) Exact solution method
b) Approximate solution method
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
9) The most common material non linearities encountered are
a) Creep, plasticity, non-linear elasticity
b) Birth and death, creep, swelling
c) Swelling, plasticity, fluencies
d) None of the above
10) A piston is fastened to the connecting rod using a gudgeon pin. What element
must be used to define the connecting between the piston and gudgeon pin and
gudgeon pin and connecting rod ?
a) Isoparametric element
b) Mass element
c) Gap or contact element
d) Axisymmetric shell
11) Element which connect two elements of different order interpolation function is
a) Shell element
b) Gap element
c) Spar element
d) Transition element
12) Elements having polynomials with constant and linear terms and nodes are located
at corners are
a) Simplex
b) Complex
c) Multiplex
d) None of the above
13) In finite element method the term finite stands for
a) Finite number of element
b) Finite number of nodes
c) Finite number of equations
d) Finite number of degrees of freedom
14) For analysis of fluid problems the appropriate commercial software package is
a) Catia
b) Pro-E
c) Fluent
d) Hypermesh
15) A symmetry condition where the same pattern is seen mirrored in a plane
a) Axial symmetry
b) Planar symmetry
c) Cyclic symmetry
d) Repetitive symmetry
16) The modal analysis means finding
a) Mode shapes
b) Natural frequencies
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
17) A measure of distortion of a element is
a) bandwidth
b) damping ratio c) aspect ratio
d) shape function
18) As number of elements in a finite element model increases the size of element will
a) decrease
b) increase
c) remains same d) not be predicted
19) Stress analysis of crankshaft, cylinder block, connecting rods, chasis is a
a) Eigen value problem
b) Steady state problem
c) Transient problem
d) Non linear static problem
20) Preprocessing means
a) Solving
b) Meshing
c) Result analysis d) None of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM111*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 111

B.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Answer any two questions from each Section.


Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I

2. a) Explain any three FEM terms in details.

b) Explain FEM procedure.

c) Find displacement, strains, stresses and reactions for the stepped bar shown
in Fig.

3. a) Discuss the various matrices stated in the following equation :


[K] = [B]T [D] [B] dv.
b) Discuss an axisymmetric element.
c) Explain simplex, complex and multiplex element.

4. Write short notes on any five :


a) Shape function
b) Axi-symmetric elasticity
c) Properties of Global stiffness matrix
d) Weighted residual method
e) Advantage and disadvantage of FEM
f) Geometrical approximation.

6
7
(45=20)

Set A

SLR-KM 111

-4-

*SLRKM111*

SECTION II
5. a) Explain elimination and penalty approach.

b) Explain one dimensional higher order Quadratic and cubic element.

c) Discuss Numerical Integrations in FEM. Brief Quass Quadrature method.

6. a) Explain mesh design and refinement.

b) Explain model validity and accuracy using approximation of geometry and material
property.

c) Explain Dynamic problem.

7. Write short notes on any five :

(45=20)

a) Material non-linearity
b) Convergence of interpolation functions
c) Explain plate and shell elements
d) Element distortion and check
e) Modal analysis
f) h and p Refinements.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 112

*SLRKM112*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


EXPERIMENTAL STRESS ANALYSIS (Elective I)
Total Marks : 100

Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


A) Match the pairs :
Column (1)

(41=4)
Column (2)

a) Foil strain gauges

p) Fringe order

b) Wire type Strain Gauges

q) Crack pattern

c) Photoelastic analysis

r) Sensitive to cross-axis sensitivity

d) Polariser

s) Unique axis for passing light


t) Better heat dissipation

B) Match the pairs :


Column (1)

(41=4)
Column (2)

a) Pressure measurement

p) Coarse balance

b) Load measurement

q) Fine balance

c) Differential balance

r) Load cell

d) Direct series or shunt balance

s) Pressure cell
t) Difficult to balance
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 112

*SLRKM112*

-2-

C) Solve multiple correct answers :

(42=8)

i) In oblique incidence method


a) Model is rotated

b) Prism can be used

c) Compensator is used

d) Light source is rotated

ii) Semi-conductor strain gauges can be following are the types of


a) P-type

b) Electrical resistance

c) N-type

d) Elliptical

iii) D.C. excited Wheatstone Bridge can be finely balanced by


a) series

b) differential series

c) shunt

d) differential shunt

iv) Methods used for compensation techniques are


a) Lewis

b) Tardys

c) Babinet Soleil

d) None

D) Solve classical objectives :

(41=4)

i) Maximum shear stress can be found in photoelastic material knowing


a) 1 2

b) 1 + 2

c) 1 2 = 0

d) 1 2

ii) Output voltage in case of four arm sensitive bridge as compared with one arm
sensitive is
a) same

b) double

c) triple

d) four times (quadruplicated)

iii) Monochromatic light has


a) single wavelength

b) different wavelength

c) zero wavelength

d) none

iv) Strain gauges directly measures


a) stress

b) strain

c) weight

d) none

______________

Set A

*SLRKM112*

-3-

SLR-KM 112

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


EXPERIMENTAL STRESS ANALYSIS (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
2) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it
clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Differentiate between plane and circular polariscope.

b) Derive the expression for the light intensity seen through analyzer when the
stressed model is kept in the light field circular polariscope.

10

c) Explain any one method for determination of fractional fringe order.

3. a) Explain the properties of different photo elastic materials.

b) A loaded two dimensional photo elastic model of 8 mm thickness is observed in


circular polariscope. The isochromatics fringe pattern revealed that the point of
interest lies between 4th and 5th order fringe. On rotation of analyzer through 30,
the 4th order fringe passed through the point of interest. Calculate the fractional
fringe order and maximum shear stress if material fringe value is 14.5 N/mm.

c) Derive an expression of material fringe value for circular disc subjected to diametral
compression.

4. a) Explain the followings :

1) Method based on Hookes Law


2) Electrical analogy method.
b) Write short notes on scaling of model results to prototype.

c) Explain Shear Difference method.

Set A

SLR-KM 112

-4-

*SLRKM112*

SECTION II
5. a) How strain gauges can be used as a torque transducer ?

b) Discuss crack patterns observed in brittle coatings.

c) Discuss calibration of Brittle coatings.

10

6. a) Explain the method of bonding and moisture proofing of strain gauge.

b) The strain readings as measured by a three element rectangular rosette at a point


in the stressed body are as follows :
a = 200 m / m , b = 300 m / m and c = 200 m / m . Determine the maximum
principal strain direction, the principal stresses, principal strains and the maximum
shear stress. Take E = 210 GPa and = 0.3.
12
7. a) Derive the balancing condition of a Wheatstones bridge. Also derive the expression
for the output voltage.
10
b) Discuss the use of strain gauge for measuring the pressure and load.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 113

*SLRKM113*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


Elective I : PROCESS ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data whenever necessary and state it
clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


Type I : MCQ with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) :

(25=10)

1) Which of the following are the causes of tolerance stack ?


a) Product design
c) Basic processing operation

b) Method of processing and gauging


d) Machine used

2) Which of the following are responsibilities of process engineer ?


a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecting tolerances and limits


Selecting the correct process
To establish necessary controls to meet design specifications economically
To produce functional part

3) Which of the following factors are related to managerial feasibility ?


a)
b)
c)
d)

Market sales price and profit margin


Warranty aspects
Marketing network
Feasibility to compete with present competitors

4) Elimination of operation can be accomplished by


a) Changing the basic process
b) Changing the product design
c) Changing the operation sequence d) Changing the tooling
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 113

*SLRKM113*

-2-

5) The selection of a suitable process can be made on the basis of


a) Volume of production
b) Rate of the product
c) Material of the product
d) Economy
Type II : MCQ with one answer correct (1 marks each) :
(15=5)
1) Which of the following process is used to manufacture products with controlled
porosity ?
a) Casting
b) Metal forming
c) Welding
d) Powder metallurgy
2) In process picture sheet, locator is considered as
a) Triangle
b) Pyramid
c) Cone

d) Cube

3) Which of the following can be categorized as specific tooling ?


a) Jigs and fixture b) Gages
c) SPM
d) Micro-base tool
4) Standard time of each operation is decided by
a) Production engineer
b) Product engineer
c) Process engineer
d) Methods engineer
5) Qualifying operation is associated with
a) Basic process operation
b) Principle process operation
c) Auxiliary process
d) Supplementary process operation
Type III :
A) Match the pair :

(12=2)

a) SPM

p) Job production

b) Standard M/C

q) Mass production

B) Match the pair :

(13=3)

a) Rolling of ingots to blooms

p) Job production

b) Machining of castings in automobile industry

q) Mass production

c) Production of marine gearbox


______________

r) Batch production

Set A

*SLRKM113*

-3-

SLR-KM 113

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


Elective I : PROCESS ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data whenever necessary and state it clearly.


2) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.
3) Attempt any 2 questions from Q. 3, Q. 4, Q. 5 and 2 questions
from to Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
SECTION I
2. Prepare a process plan for manufacturing the components in fig. 1 w.r. to the
data supplied there in along following lines.
a) Sequence of operations indicating machine selected, holding method,
machining parameters per set up.
b) Gauges and or inspection method and instrument.
c) Tool specification as per ISO or any STD.

20

3. a) Explain the role of products engineer in industry.


b) What are the guidelines for preparing optimum process-plan ?

5
5

4. a) What is sensitive assembly ? What are its merit and demerits ?


b) Compare between Auxiliary process operations and supplementary process
operation.

5. Write a short note on (any two).


a) Causes of work piece variation.
b) Factors affecting machining accuracy.
c) Product and product critical area.

(52=10)

SECTION II
6. Draw process picture sheet for any 4 operations planned for the manufacture of
component in Fig. 1 w. r. to sequence. USe standard notations and symbols for
locating, supporting, holding and material removal.
20
7. a) Discuss cost factors in m/c selection.
b) What are the merits and demerits of combining the operations ?

5
5
Set A

SLR-KM 113

*SLRKM113*

-4-

8. a) Explain advantages of general purpose m/cs. What are their limitations ?

b) Explain the causes of work piece variation.

9. Write notes on (any two) :


a) Planning and tooling for low cost processing
b) CAPP
c) Low cost processing.

10

15

25

20

10 H7

60

120

180

2 Holes

60
140
180
Fig. 1
PLATE

Qty : 1200 pieces per Batch


Material : Mild steel
All dimensions are in mm
Tolerances on machined
surfaces are 0.1
# Machining all over

For Q. No. 2 & Q. No. 6

Set A

SLR-KM 114

*SLRKM114*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) A person driving a car and required to maintain speed of the car at 60 km/hr is an example of
a) open loop system
b) closed loop system
c) automatic control system
d) discrete control system
2) In direct analog for mechanical system and electrical system displacement is analogous to
a) current
b) charge
c) voltage
d) flux
3) In direct analogy between thermal system and electrical system, the rate of heat flow is
analogus to
a) voltage
b) charge
c) current
d) resistance
4) In hydraulic amplifier the piston position of hydraulic cylinder is _______ of the value
position.
a) Integral
b) Derivative
c) Square
d) None of these
5) For mechanical elements in series, the displacement of all element is
a) same
b) different
c) depends on element parameter
d) none of these
6) In armature controlled D.C. motor field current is
a) varied to change the speed of motor
b) equal to armature current
c) kept constant
d) none of these
7) For a partial block diagram shown below, to shift the summing point before the block we
need to add a block of _______ in Y signal.
R

G1 + G2
G3
Y

a)

G1 + G2
G3

b)

G3
G1 + G2

c) R G3
G1 + G2

G + G2
d) R 1

G3
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 114

*SLRKM114*

-2-

8) For a system shown in figure below transfer function of the system is

G1
a) 1 + G
1

G1

G1
b) 1 G
1

c) 1 +

G1
1 + G1

d) 1 +

G1
1 G1

9) The slope of the controller line is


KH
b)
c) KG KH
d) B
a) AKG
A
1
1
10) For a system steady state constants are B = 5, KH = 0.5, the slope of vertical spacing
for the system is
a) 2.5
b) 10
c) 2.5
d) 5

11) Control action never used alone is


a) P-control
b) D-control

c) I-control

d) On/Off control

12) A system will have two roots in the right half plane if its Rouths array has,
a) all positive terms in the first column
b) a row of all zero terms
c) two sign charges in its first column
d) all negative terms in the first column
13) If x1, x2 and x3 are the three state variables and if Dx1 = x2 and Dx2 = x3, then the
technique used is,
a) direct programming
b) parallel programming
c) series programming
d) general programming
14) Offset-error is observed in which of the following control actions ?
a) D-control
b) I-control
c) On/Off control
d) P-control
15) In Bode-Plots, constant gain factor K contributes a slope of
a) 20 db/decode
b) zero
c) 20 db/decode

d) 40 db/decode

16) A finite root locus is obtained if,


a) P > Z
b) Z > P

d) P = O

c) P = Z

17) In phase-angle plot, contribution made by the two zeros at the origin is
a) 180
b) 180
c) 90
d) 90
18) Angles of departure are required in Root-Locus if a system has
a) complex conjugate zeros
b) complex conjugate poles
c) real zeros
d) real poles
19) The Root Locus in the entirely left half plane represents
a) an unstable system
b) a marginally stable system
c) a stable system
d) an oscillatory system
20) In Bode plots of a stable system,
a) G.M. and P.M. are negative
c) G.M. and P.M. are positive

b) G.M. and P.M. are zero


d) G.M. and P.M. are equal

______________

Set A

*SLRKM114*

SLR-KM 114

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from each Section.

2)
3)
4)
5)

Figures to the right indicate full marks.


Use of non-programmable calculators is allowed.
Assume any additional data if necessary and state it clearly.
Use university graph papers and semi-log paper if needed.
SECTION I

2. a) Explain a closed loop control system in detail.

b) For a system shown in figure (2 b) find out overall transfer function of the system.

G5

G1

G2

G3

G4

H1
H2

Figure (2 b)

Set A

SLR-KM 114

*SLRKM114*

-4-

3. a) Explain field controlled D.C. motor and derive the transfer function between input
voltage and angular position of shaft.

b) For electrical circuit shown in figure (3 b) determine relation between V1 and V2.

R1

V1

R2

V2

O
Figure (3 b)
4. a) For mechanical system shown in figure (4 a) find the relation between

i) F & x
ii) F & y
iii) x & y
F
x
K1
y
K2
q
B

Figure (4 a)

Set A

*SLRKM114*

SLR-KM 114

-5-

1
1
base Altitude = XY sin . If X = base,
2
2
h = Altitude = Y sin , = included angle between X & Y. Determine the linear
approximation for area A. The reference values are Xi = 10, Yi = 16 and i = 30.

b) The area of triangle is given by the A =

Determine approximate area if X = 9, Y = 18 and = 33. Also find percentage error using
this approximation.

5. a) The block diagram representation for the system shown in figure (5 a). Determine the
differential equation of operation and equation for steady state operation. At the reference
condition, Ri = Ci = 100, Mi = 250 and Di = 150. Sketch the load line at Di = 150 and the
controller line for Ri = 100.

d (t)
r (t)

2
D

1
D+2

c (t)

Figure (5 a)
b) The characteristics of engine are describe by the family of curves shown in figure (5 b).
Determine the linear approximation for torque t delivered by engine relating the change in
speed n and to the change in fuel q.

T = 80

120
50

40
40

30

1000

2000

3000

Figure (5 b)

Set A

SLR-KM 114

*SLRKM114*

-6-

SECTION II
6. a) Obtain state-space representation using direct programming and also draw a computer
diagram for a feedback control system with, y ( t) =

D+3
f ( t) .
(D + 1) (D + 2)

b) What do you mean by the angles of departure and angles of arrival in Root Locus ?
State the equations to calculate them.
7. a) A unity feedback system has, G (s) =

800 (s + 2)
sketch the Bode plots and
s (s + 10) (s + 40)
2

comment on system stability.

b) Explain P + D and P + 2 + D control actions with necessary equations and plots.


8. a) Sketch the complete Root Locus for a system with, G (s) H (s) =

K (s + 4)
comment
s (s 2 + 2s + 2)

on the system stability.

b) Which controller is called as Universal controller ? Why is it called as universal ?

9. a) Characteristic equation for a feedback control system is,


2s3 + 8s2 + 18s + K (s + 15) = 0

Using Rouths criterion, determine the range of K for the system to be stable.

b) Explain nature of Bode plots for a stable, unstable and marginally stable systems.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 115

*SLRKM115*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


OPERATION RESEARCH
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


Type I :
(One mark each)
1) OR is defined as an Art of winning war without actually fighting by
a) Mr. Auher Clark
b) Mr. Morse and Kimbal
c) Mr. T. L. Saaty
d) OR society of India
2) Assignment problem is
a) a special type of transportation problem
b) special type of LP problem
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
3) For a minimization LPP, the objective function coefficient for surplus variable is
a) + M
b) Zero
c) + 1
d) M
4) IBFS to transportation problem is obtained by
a) North-West corner rule
b) Matrix minima method
c) Vogels approximation method
d) All of these
5) Which of the following criterion is not used for decision making under
uncertainty ?
a) Laplace criterion
b) Maximin criterion
c) Expected value criterion
d) Hurwicz criterion
6) For critical activity, slack or float must be
a) positive small value
b) negative small value
c) large value
d) zero
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 115

-2-

*SLRKM115*

7) The payoff value of game for which each player selects his pure strategy is
called as
a) Equilibrium point
b) Mean point
c) Average point
d) None of these
8) Group replacement is not preferred for
a) large number of identical items
b) low cost items
c) items that fail suddenly
d) repairable items
9) The value of the coefficient of optimism ( ) is needed while using the criterion of
a) Equal probability
b) Realism
c) Maximin
d) Minimax
10) Reorder level for inventory item depends upon
a) safety stock
b) Economic order quantity
c) Lead time
d) All of these
Type II :

(Two marks each)

1) The number of basic variables in optimal solution of LPP corresponds to


a) number of slack variables
b) number of surplus variables
c) number of constraints
d) none of these
2) In PERT, the dispersion of frequency distribution curve between optimistic
and pessimistic time estimates for an activity is
a) Three sigma
b) Six sigma
c) Five sigma
d) Twelve Sigma
3 2
3) For the Pay off matrix A
, Player A will select optimum strategy as
3
5

a) first strategy
b) second strategy
c) both strategies
d) none of these

4) Annual carrying cost for a given annual demand of inventory item


a) will increase with the increase in the number of orders per year
b) will decrease with the increase in the number of orders per year
c) is independent of number of orders placed per year
d) will increase with decrease in lead time
5) For an objective function Z = 2X1 + X2 subjected to 0 x1 1 and 0 x 2 1.
The maximum and minimum values of function Z respectively are
a) One and zero
b) Zero and one
c) Three and zero
d) Five and three
______________

Set A

*SLRKM115*

SLR-KM 115

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


OPERATION RESEARCH
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : i) Solve any two questions from each Section.


ii) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
iii) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) What is O.R. ? Explain in brief the history of O.R.

b) Solve the dual of the following L.P.P. by simplex method :


Min. Z = 3X1 + X2
Subjected to the constraints,
X1 + X2 1
2X1 + 3X2 2
Where, X1, X2 0.
c) Explain sensitivity analysis in L.P.P.

10

3. a) What is dynamic programming ? State its applications.

b) Four contractors have submitted tenders, in lakhs of rupees, for each job. The
comparative statement reads as follows :
10
Jobs

Contractors

12

15

7.5

11

14

10

16

4.5

13

17

Recommend one contractor for one job so as to minimize the total cost.
Set A

SLR-KM 115

*SLRKM115*

-4-

c) A company manufactures two types of product P and Q. The profits earned


on products per unit are Rs. 3 and Rs. 4 respectively. Each product is processed
on two machines M1 and M2. Product P requires 1 minute of processing time
on M1 and 2 minutes on M2, while Q requires 1 minute on M1 and 1 minute on
M2. Machine M1 is available for not more than 480 minutes, while machine
M2 is available for 540 minutes during any working day. Formulate the problem
as L.P. model.

4. a) Solve the following transportation problem, given with unit transportation cost
in rupees, so as to minimize the transportation cost using VAM.
12
Warehouses

Plants

Capacity

800

II

600

III

200

IV

400

100

700

300

500

Demand 400

b) Explain Cargo loading problem in dynamic programming.

SECTION II
5. a) Solve following game using principle of dominance.

PLAYER B

PLAYER A

II

III

II

III

Set A

*SLRKM115*

SLR-KM 115

-5-

b) Solve the game by graphical method whose payoff matrix is

B
I

II

II

III

IV

c) The annual demand for a component is 7200 units. The carrying is Rs. 500/
unit/year, the ordering cost is Rs. 1,500 per order and the shortage cost is
2000/unit/year. Find the optimal values of economic order quantity, maximum
inventory, cycle time.

6. a) A certain project has the following data :


Activity

12

13

14

25

34

37

45

46

56

57

67

Time in
months

20

23

19

16

24

18

10

i) Construct the network


ii) Determine project duration and critical path
iii) Find total float.

12

b) Explain the Fulkersons i-j rule in drawing network diagram.

c) What are the costs associated with inventory ?

7. a) What is the concept of decision making under conditions of risk ? Elaborate


expected value criterion with example.

Set A

SLR-KM 115

*SLRKM115*

-6-

b) A machine owner finds from his past records that the costs per year of
maintaining a machine whose purchase price is Rs. 6,000 are as given
below :
1

Maintenance
1000 1200
cost

1400

1800

2300

2800

3400

4000

Resale price

750

375

200

200

200

200

3000 1500

Determine at what year is a replacement due ?


c) Define the following terms :

7
6

i) Decision tree
ii) Minimax criteria in a game
iii) Group replacement.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 116

*SLRKM116*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

i) Attempt any two questions from each Section.


ii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
iii) Use of steam tables, Psychrometry chart and non-programmable
calculator is allowed.
iv) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Air refrigeration cycle works on
a) Carnot cycle
c) Bell-Coleman cycle

20
b) Rankine cycle
d) None of the above

2) A Boot strap air cooling system comprises


a) Two heat exchangers
b) One heat exchangers
c) Three heat exchangers
d) It works without heat exchanger
3) The sub-cooling VCC system is used
a) Before compression
c) After compression

b) Before throttling
d) After throttling

4) In a VCC the effect of superheating the vapour after the exit of evaporator
a) Increases the work done
b) Increases the heat rejection to the condenser
c) Increases the refrigeration effect
d) All of the above
5) The effect of liquid sub-cooling in vapour compression system is
a) To reduce rate of refrigerant flow / TOR
b) To reduce the volume of vapour handled by the compressor / TOR
c) To reduce the power / TOR
d) All of the above
6) When water for cooling is used in two stage compression, it
a) Reduces the work done in H.P. compressor
b) Reduces the volume handled by H.P. compressor
c) Requires smaller stroke in H.P. compressor
d) All of the above
7) The refrigerant used in vapour absorption system is
a) Ammonia
b) Water
c) R-12

d) Aqua-ammonia
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 116

*SLRKM116*

-2-

8) A Electrolux refrigerator is called a


a) Single fluid absorption system
c) Three fluid absorption system

b) Two fluid absorption system


d) None of the above

9) In Lithium-bromide absorption system


a) Lithium bromide is used as refrigerant and water as absorbent
b) Water is used as refrigerant and Lithium bromide as absorbent
c) Ammonia is used as refrigerant and Lithium bromide as absorbent
d) None of the above
10) In aqua-ammonia and Li-Br-water absorption refrigeration systems, the refrigerants
used are
a) Water and water b) Water and Li-Br c) NH3 and Li-Br
d) NH3 and water
11) The refrigerant R-714 stands for
a) CO 2
b) SO 2

c) NH 3
d) Methyl chloride
12) The R.H. during heating and humidification may
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) May increase or decrease
13) Bypass factor of a heating coil decreases with
a) Increase in fin spacing and increase in rows
b) Increase in fin spacing and decrease in rows
c) Decrease in fin spacing and increase in rows
d) Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in rows
14) The minimum temperature to which the moist air can be cooled is
a) WBT
b) DPT
c) Any one of a) or b)
d) None of the above
15) During sensible cooling, the DBT of moist air
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same

d) None of the above

16) The process used for winter air conditioning is


a) Humidification
b) Heating and humidification
c) Dehumidification
d) Cooling and humidification
17) For same degree of comfort
a) Men need high effective temperature than women
b) Men need lower effective temperature than women
c) Men and women need same effective temperature
d) Any one of the above
18) Static regain method of duct designing ducts as compared to equal friction method
a) Reduces the cost of sheet metal for duct
b) Increases the cost of sheet metal for duct
c) Increases balancing problem
d) Increases the problem of maintaining pressure at the supply terminals
19) The COP of a Cascade system is
a) Lower than low temperature system of cascade
b) Lower than high temperature system of cascade
c) Lower than low temperature as well as high temperature system
d) None of the above
20) The R.H. during sensible cooling
a) Increases
c) Remains same

b) Decreases
d) May increase or decrease

______________
Set A

*SLRKM116*

SLR-KM 116

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : i) Attempt any two questions from each Section.


ii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
iii) Use of steam tables, Psychrometry chart and non-programmable
calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2.

a) An ammonia refrigerating machine fitted with an expansion valve works between the
temperature limits of 10C and 30C. The vapour is 95% dry at the end of isentropic
compression and the fluid leaving the condenser is at 30C. Assuming actual COP as
60% of the theoretical, calculate the kilograms of ice produced per kW hour at 0C from
water at 10C. Latent heat of ice is 335 kj/kg. Ammonia has the following properties
Data :
Temperature Liquid heat
C
(hf) kJ/kg

Latent heat
(hfg) kJ/kg

Liquid entropy
(Sf)

Total entropy
of dry saturated vapour

30

323.08

1145.80

1.2037

4.9842

10

135.37

1297.68

0.5443

5.4770

b) Explain with schematic diagram the multievaporators at different temperature with single
compression multiple expansion valve and back pressure. Show the process on p-h
diagram.
3.

10

10

a) Describe the simple aqua-ammonia vapour absorption system with the help of a neat
diagram.

b) What are the desirable properties of the refrigerant ?

c) Write short note on Need of refrigeration in aircrafts.

4. a) Explain Ozone Depletion and Global warming.

b) With the help of T-s and P-h plot explain the superheated vapour compression cycle.

c) Compare Vapour compression and Vapour absorption refrigeration system.

Set A

SLR-KM 116

-4-

*SLRKM116*

SECTION II
5.

a) The atmospheric air at 30C dry bulb temperature and 75% relative humidity enters a
cooling coil at the rate of 200 CMM. The coil dew point temperature is 14C and the BPF of
the coil is 0.1. Determine.
i) The temperature of air leaving the cooling coil.
ii) The capacity of the cooling coil in tones of refrigeration and in kW.
iii) The amount of water vapour removed per min.
iv) The sensible heat factor for the process.
b) Write a note on Enthalpy concentration chart.

8
6

c) Define the following terms :


i) ADP
ii) RSHF
iii) GSHF
iv) DBT.

6. a) The following data refer to summer air conditioning of a building :


Outside design conditions = 43C DBT, 27C WBT
Inside design conditions = 25C, 50% RH
Room sensible heat gain = 84,000 kj/h
Room latent heat gain = 21,000 kj/h
By-pass factor of the cooling coil used = 0.2
The return air from the room is mixed with the outside air before entry to cooling coil in the ratio
of 4 : 1 by mass. Determine :
a) Apparatus dew point of the cooling coil;
b) Entry and exit conditions of air for cooling coil;
c) Fresh air mass flow rate; and
d) Refrigeration load on the cooling coil.
Show the process on the Psychrometric chart.
b) Explain briefly the factors causing the heat load for the air conditioning system.
7. a) List out the limitation of VCRS for production of low temperature.

12
8
6

b) Write down general rules in the design of duct.

c) What do you understand by effective temperature ? Explain the factors affecting it.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 117

*SLRKM117*
S

B.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


FINITE ELEMENT METHOD (Professional Elective III)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer any two questions from each Section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) ___________ have polynomials with constant and linear terms only.
a) Simplex elements
b) Complex elements
c) Multiplex elements
d) None
2) With polynomial functions the accuracy of the analysis can be improved by increasing the
a) Order of polynomial
b) No. of elements
c) No. of nodes
d) None
3) The equations defining the approximating distribution are known as
a) Interpolation
b) Integration
c) Extrapolation d) Decomposition
4) The order of the shape function is
a) Same as the interpolation function
b) Higher than the interpolation function
c) Less than the interpolation function
d) Not dependent on the order of the interpolation polynomial
5) Each node of beam element is having
a) 2 Dof
b) 3 Dof

c) 4 Dof

d) 1 Dof

6) If the physical formulation of the problem is described as a differential equation, then the
most popular solution method is the
a) Method of Weighted Residuals
b) Variational Formulation
c) Direct stiffness matrix
d) None of the above
7) If the physical problem can be formulated as the minimization of a functional, then the
__________ is usually used.
a) Method of Weighted Residuals
b) Variational Formulation
c) Direct stiffness matrix
d) None of the above
8) Each node of a truss element is having
a) One Dof
b) Three Dof
c) Two Dof

d) Six Dof
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 117

*SLRKM117*

-2-

9) FEM is
a) Exact solution method
c) Both A) and B)

b) Approximate solution method


d) None

10) The potential energy in a spring is given by the equation


a)

=


KU2 FU


= MC2

b)


c)

= mg


d)

= MK2


11) Interpolation function for three dimensional linear element is


b) u = a1 + a2x2 + a3y2 + a4z2 + a5xy
a) u = a1 + a2x + a3y + a4z
d) u = a1 + a2x + a3xy + a4yz + a5xz
c) u = a1 + a2x + a3xy + a4xz
12) For three dimensional linear element if body force component is X then corresponding
to X force per node is
a)

b)
:

c)

"

d) None of the above


8

"

V is the volume of element.


13) One dimensional quadratic element is defined by ________ number of natural co-ordinates.
14) The size of Jacobian matrix for three dimensional problem is
a) 1 1
b) 2 2
c) 6 6
d) 3 3
15) Natural co-ordinates L1 and L2 for element shown in figure below are

a)
2

b)
4

c)
3

d)
6

L
L

L
L

16) Modal analysis deals with


a) Finding natural frequencies
c) Finding critical buckling load

b) Forced vibration analysis


d) None of these

17) In shock spectrum analysis input is


a) sinusoidal
c) arbitrary shock load

b) linear
d) parabolic

18) In non linear static problems the stiffness matrix [K] is


a) Constant
b) Independent of any displacement
c) Function of displacement
d) None of these
19) Warpage angle should not exceed
a) 15
b) 12

c) 11

d) 10

20) Getting the result of von mises stress is a part of


a) post processing phase
b) solution phase
c) preprocessing phase
d) none of these
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM117*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 117

B.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


FINITE ELEMENT METHOD (Professional Elective III)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain subdomain and Galerkin methods in FEA.

b) Explain steps involved in FEM.

c) Solve by subdomain method and compare u(0.8) with exact solution.

4u x2 = 0

BCS : u(0) = 0

(1) = 1 find u(0.8).

3. a) Formulate shape function for beam element.

b) Solve for displacement for the beam shown in fig.

7
I = 4 106 m4
E = 2 105 mpa.
c) Write FEM applications in major domains.
4. Write short notes on any five :

7
(45=20)

a) Advantage and disadvantage of FEM


b) 2D Shape functions
c) Properties of Global stiffness matrix
d) Types of element
e) Truss element
f) Compare numerical and experimental method.
Set A

SLR-KM 117

-4-

*SLRKM117*

SECTION II
5. a) Derive the element equation for linear three dimensional elasticity element.

b) For tetrahedral element with node co-ordinates as 1(1, 1, 2), 2(0, 0, 0), 3(0, 2, 0) and
4(2, 1, 0). Find the shape function at Node 1.

c) Derive the shape functions of quadratic one dimensional element in terms of natural
co-ordinates.

6. a) Explain linear quadrilateral iso-parametric element in detail.

b) Write a short note on transient response analysis.

c) Explain geometric nonlinearity in detail.

7. a) Explain various phases in analysis software in detail with examples.

b) Write a short note on mesh design.

c) Explain harmonic analysis in detail.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 118

*SLRKM118*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


AUTOMOBILE PROFESSIONAL ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) For indication, the colour of tail light in a car is
a) white
b) red
c) green
d) yellow
2) Which of following is the type of independent suspension system ?
a) Trailing link type
b) Semi floating
c) Full floating
d) Three quarter
3) Another name of damper is
a) Torsion bar
b) Shock absorber
c) Spring
d) None of above
4) Most commonly used power plant on automobiles is
a) I.C. engine
b) Gas turbine c) Battery
d) None of above
5) The coil spring in wishbone suspension is placed between the
a) two wishbones
b) upper wishbone and the cross-member
c) lower wishbone and the cross-member
d) shock absorber and the cross-member
6) One purpose of a recirculating ball type steering gear is to reduce the
a) Operating friction
b) Operating cost
c) Toe-out during turns
d) Number of parts
7) On cars having rack and pinion steering, the gear rack is attached to
a) relay rod
b) pitman axis
c) cross shaft
d) tie rod
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 118

-2-

*SLRKM118*

8) The type of wheel which cannot be used with a tubeless tyre is


a) disc wheel
b) wire wheel
c) light alloy wheel
d) composite wheel
9) The term ply rating with reference to a tyre refers to the
a) actual number of plies
b) recommended inflation pressure
c) aspect ratio
d) rated strength
10) During braking the push rod directly operates
a) piston
b) primary seal
c) residual pressure valve
d) compensating port
11) Gradient resistance is expressed as
a) WKr
b) KV2A
c) W/G
d) None of these
12) Free pedal play in car clutches is
a) 3 mm
b) 30 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 10 mm
13) The function of charging system is to generate, regulate and supply
________ energy for charging battery.
a) Electrical
b) Mechanical
c) Chemical
d) None of these
14) The example of a saloon is
a) Premier car
b) Tata truck
c) Leyland bus
d) None of these
15) The number of points at which the engine-clutch-gear box unit is supported
on the chassis frame is
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
16) The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be
a) minimum
b) maximum
c) zero
d) none of the above
17) The purpose of transmission in an automobile is
a) to vary the speed of automobile wheels
b) to vary the torque at the road
c) to vary the power of automobile
d) none of the above
18) The blades in a torque converter have a shape which is
a) square
b) round
c) flat
d) curved
19) The angle formed by the line joining the stub axle-steering arm ball joints with
the vertical, when this line slants forward at the top is called
a) positive camber
b) negative camber
c) positive castor
d) negative castor
20) An overinflated tyre will wear the treat most near the
a) edges
b) corners
c) outside
d) centre
______________
Set A

*SLRKM118*

-3-

SLR- KM 118

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


AUTOMOBILE PROFESSIONAL ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
Answer any two questions :
2. a) Describe with neat sketch front engine all (four) wheel drive layout and explain
the function of each component.
8
b) Describe with neat sketch fluid flywheel.

c) Explain types of car bodies.

3. a) Explain with neat sketch the working of sliding mesh gear box and also explain
the problem in sliding mesh gearbox and how it was overcome due to the
development of constant mesh gear box.
8
b) Draw a neat sketch of overdrive and explain its working. What is the functional
difference between overdrive and transmission ?

c) With a neat sketch explain the working of Propeller shaft. Discuss how whirling
is reduced in propeller shaft.

4. a) A motor vehicle total weight 11144 N has road wheels of 0.61 m effective
diameter. The effective moment of inertia of the four road wheels and the rear
axle together is 62.0 N-m2, while that of the engine and flywheel is 6.2 N-m2.
The transmission efficiency is 90% and tractive resistance at a speed of
24 km/hr is 222.5 N. The total available engine torque is 20.3.6 N-m.
i) Determine the gear ratio, engine to back axle to provide maximum
acceleration on 1 in 4 grade, when travelling at 24 km/hr.
ii) What is the maximum acceleration ?
iii) Determine the engine rpm and power under these conditions.
12
Set A

th

SLR-KM 118

-4-

*SLRKM118*

b) Explain the construction and working of automobile battery.

c) Write short notes on any one :


i) Difference between traction and tractive effort.
ii) Types of tyres.

SECTION II
Answer any two questions :
5. a) List different types of steering gear boxes. Explain recirculating ball type of
steering gear box with a neat sketch.

b) What are the functions and requirements of steering system ? Also explain
the importance of steering geometry in automobiles.

c) Derive the condition for correct steering.

6. a) Weight of a car is 12 kN and coefficient of friction between road and wheels


is 0.6. Its wheel base is 6 times its height of centre of gravity above ground.
Calculate the weight transferred from rear wheels to front wheels at the time
of braking using all road friction.
b) Explain with neat sketches.

4
8

i) Disc brake
ii) Master cylinder.
c) Write a short note on :
i) dynamic weight transfer.
ii) antilock brakes.

7. a) Write in detail functions and requirements of automobile suspension system.


What are the functions of spring and damper in suspension system ?

b) Explain with a neat diagram an air suspension system. Also explain the
types of air springs used in automobile applications.

c) Write a short note on any one :

i) Solar vehicles
ii) Electronic control unit.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 119

*SLRKM119*
S

Set
t

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Professional Elective III : PROCESS ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data whenever necessary and state it


clearly.
2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
4) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.
5) Attempt any 2 questions from Q. 3, Q. 4, Q. 5 and
2 questions from Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. 1. MCQ with more than one answer correct (Marks 2 each) :

Marks : 20
(25=10)

1) Operation routing is a
a) Plan for inspection of w/p
b) Part print
c) Tool routing
d) Instruction for making w/p
2) Which of the following are inputs to process planning ?
a) Manufacturing resources
b) Design Drawing
c) M/c settings
d) Tool description
3) Elimination of operation can be accomplished by
a) Changing product design
b) Changing basic process
c) Changing tooling
d) Changing the principle process
4) In planning stage of benchmarking following steps are involved
a) Identification of what is to be bench marked
b) Identification of comparative components
c) Determination of current performance gaps
d) Developing the action plan
5) Which of the following departments employ process pictures ?
a) Prod. Dept.
b) Tool design Dept.
c) Inspection Dept.
d) Cleaning Dept.
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 119

-2-

2. MCQ with one answer correct (Mark 1 each) :


1) Match the pair
a) Cleaning

p) Supporting operations

b) Metal cutting
c) Casting

q) Auxiliary operations
r) Secondary operation

d) Packaging

s) Principal process operation

*SLRKM119*
(14=4)

t) Basic process operation


2) Match the pairs
a) Product engineer
b) Process engineer
3) Match the pair

2
1) Mfg. specification
2) Process Picture
3

a) Investment cost

p) Material and labour costs

b) Operating cost
c) Instagible cost

q) Cost of dies, jigs, fixtures


r) Down time cost

4) Inter changeability is related to


a) Transition fit
c) Clearance fit

b) Interference fit
d) Press fit

______________

Set A

*SLRKM119*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 119

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Professional Elective III : PROCESS ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data whenever necessary and state it


clearly.
2) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.
3) Attempt any 2 questions from Q. 3,Q. 4,Q. 5 and
2 questions from Q. 7,Q. 8,Q. 9.
SECTION I
2. Prepare a process plan for manufacturing the components in fig. 1 w.r. to the
data supplied there in along following lines.
20
a) Sequence of operations indicating machine selected, holding method,
machining parameters per set up.
b) Gauges and or inspection method and instrument.
c) Tool specification as per ISO or any STD.
3. a) Explain the role of products engineer in industry.

b) What are the guidelines for preparing optimum process-plan ?

4. a) What is sensitive assembly ? What are its merit and demerits ?


b) Compare between Auxiliary process operations and supplementary process
operaion.
5. Write a short note on (any two) :
a) Causes of work piece variation.
b) Factors affecting machining accuracy.
c) Product and product critical area.

5
5

(52=10)

SECTION II
6. Draw process picture sheet for any 4 operations planned for the manufacture of
component in Fig. 1 w.r.to sequence. Use standard notations and symbols for
locating, supporting, holding and material removal.
20
Set A

SLR-KM 119

-4-

*SLRKM119*

7. a) Discuss the design factors in machine selection.


b) Explain the step leading to proper sequence of operations.

5
5

8. a) Discuss cost factors in m/c selection.


b) Discuss the advantages and limitations of special purpose machines.

5
5

9. Write a note on (any two) :


a) Advantages of commercial tooling.
b) Nature of selection problem.
c) Process benchmarking.

(52=10)

Fig.1
For Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6
Material : Grey C. I.
Quantity : 2 No.
All dimensions are in mm.
Tolerances on machined surface are


0.1 mm.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 120

*SLRKM120*
S

Set
t

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Solve any two questions from the Section I and II.


Draw neat diagram where necessary.
Wherever needed presume suitable assumptions and data.
Question no. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Select the correct alternative :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) Fixed automation is used when the volume of production is very


a) High
b) Low
c) Medium
d) None of these
2) The usual advantages of the hydraulic drive system are that it provides the robot
with
a) Greater speed and strength
b) Lower speed and strength
c) Medium speed and strength
d) None of these
3) PWM is used for Dc motor ________ control with microprocessor.
a) Force
b) Torque
c) Speed
d) None of these
4) Going from world space to joint space is called the forward reverse transformation.
a) Forward
b) Reverse
c) Forward/Reverse
d) None of the above
5) Straight Line interpolation motion requires the end of the manipulator to travel
along a ________ straight path defined in Cartesian coordinates.
a) Straight
b) Circular
c) Non linear
d) None of the above
6) Robot Dynamics is concerned with the analysis of torques and forces due
a) Acceleration and deceleration
b) Acceleration
c) Deceleration
d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 120

*SLRKM120*

-2-

7) Motion commands are executed by controller from two possible sources :


operator input or
a) Program memory
b) External devices
c) Peripherals
d) None of the above
8) In a binary image the gray level values are divided into ________ categories.
a) Two
b) Four
c) Eight
d) None of the above
9) Sampling rate should be atleast _______ the highest frequency in the video signal.
a) Twice
b) Thrice
c) Four times
d) None of the above
10) Stepper motor with 50 teeth on the rotor and 40 teeth on the stator will result in a
_________ step angle with 200 steps per revolution.
a) 90 degree
b) 1.8 degree
c) 180 degree
d) None of these
11) Log is a ________ edge detector.
a) First order
c) Third order

b) Second order
d) None of the above

12) Digitizing the coordinates of the image is called


a) Sampling
b) Framing
c) Quantization
13) Process of segmentation includes
a) Noise reduction
c) Object recognition

d) Both a) and b)

b) Divide the image


d) All of the above

14) Which of the following is specifically designed for high speed assembly operations ?
a) Spherical
b) Cylindrical
c) SCARA
d) Cartesian
15) The most preferred function for trajectory generation are ________ polynomials.
a) Quadratic
b) Cubic
c) Parabolic
d) All of the above
16) ________ is the technique which relates the location of pixels in the image array
to the points in the scene.
a) Camera specifications
b) Camera design
c) Camera calibration
d) Camera isolation
17) The minimum number of wheels required for good static and dynamic balance (in
both X and Y directions) is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
18) The degree of steer ability of a typical automobile is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2

d) 3

19) The stability of robot systems is defined by __________ method.


a) Liapunovs
b) Shapurovs
c) Makarovs
d) Azmanovs
20) Fluid power systems are preferred for continuous control because
a) Allows linear movements at high speeds over longer lengths
b) Maintains system under load with excessive use of control devices
c) Higher bandwidth
d) All of the above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM120*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 120

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from the Section I and II.
2) Draw neat diagram where necessary.
3) Wherever needed presume suitable assumptions and data.
SECTION I
2. a) Discuss the following characteristic of robot
i) Speed of response

ii) Stability

iii) Spatial resolution

iv) Accuracy

v) Repeatability

vi) Compliance.

b) What are the different types of drive systems used for robotics ?

c) Explain different types of configuration and wok envelops of robot.

3. a) Expliain with diagram Robot vision system.

b) What is end effecter and pay load capacity ? Explain different types of grippers,
robotics.
c) The co-ordinates of point P are [3, 3, 1]. Find co-ordinates of new position of
point P if
i) P is rotated about Z axis by 45
ii) P is rotated about Y axis by 60
iii) P is rotated about X axis by 30

6
8

4. Write short notes on (Each 5 marks).


i) Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) Control D.C. Motors.
ii) Stepper Motor Principle of operation.
iii) Flexible automation.
iv) Robot specifications.

(54=20)

Set A

SLR-KM 120

-4-

*SLRKM120*

SECTION II
5. a) What is image segmentation process ? Explin different types of image
segmentation with an example.

b) What is meant by AGV in robotics ? Explain in detail with its advantages.

c) Explain the applications of robots in different welding areas in the production


assembly line.

6. a) Explain in detail the different types of mobile robots with suitable example.

b) Explain in detail the localisation of mobile robots.

c) Which are the different robot programming languages used in robotics and explain
any two in detail ? Compare the online and offline robot programming
method ?

7. Write short notes on (Each 5 marks) :


a) Robot control architecture.
b) Line scan and area scan camera.
c) UGV robots.
d) Robot application in spray painting.

(54=20)

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 121

*SLRKM121*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : SUGAR ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
4) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The function of the cane kicker is


a) Unequal distribution of the cane
b) Equal distribution of the cane
c) Fine cutting of the cane
d) Completes the preparation of the cane
2) Mill setting depends upon
a) pH value of juice
c) desired rate of crushing

b) size of the trash plate


d) none of the above

3) If condensate water from juice heater is not removed


a) entrainment increases
b) heater starts vibrating
c) water gets evaporated
d) formation of conglomerates
4) Area of the feeder table
a) 2R/3
b) 3R/2

c) 2L/3

5) Underfeed roller diameter is


a) Two third of mill diameter
c) Half to two third of mill diameter

b) Three fourth of mill diameter


d) None of the above

d) 0.25 L

6) Vapour line juice heater is installed


a) Between last body and condenser
b) Between juice sulphiter and juice clarifier
c) Between weighing machine and juice sulphiter
d) None of the above
7) Inventor of multiple effect evaporators
a) Pieter honing
c) E. Hugot

b) Nobert Rillieux
d) CGM Perk
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 121

*SLRKM121*

-2-

8) Juice clarifier is used for


a) Heating of juice
c) Settling of mud

b) Sulphitation of juice
d) None of the above

9) This roller is used for first mill in case of top roller


a) Underfeed roller b) Lime roller
c) Messchart roller d) Lotus roller
10) The purpose of mill imbibitions
a) Sulphitation of juice
b) To extract the maximum amount of juice
c) Weighing of juice
d) All the above
11) Mass of sugar crystal surrounded by sugar containing liquid is called
a) Strike
b) Footing
c) Massecuite
d) Molasses
12) Crystallisers are located
a) Above the pan
c) Below the pan

b) On the floor
d) Near to the centrifugal machine

13) Ploughing operation of centrifugal machine carried out at


a) 200 300 rpm
b) 1400 1500 rpm
c) 50 rpm
d) 700 750 rpm
14) Disadvantage of batch type centrifugal machine
a) Running at high speed
b) Irregular use of electricity
c) Size of the sugar crystal increases
d) None of the above
15) Sugar used for daily consumption
a) B type
b) L type

c) S type

16) Humidity of sugar godown should not exceed


a) Above 60%
b) Below 90 %
c) Above 80%
17) Sugar elevator is used for
a) Packing the sugar
c) Drying of sugar

d) D type
d) None of the above

b) Lifting the sugar to higher level


d) All the above

18) In this water treatment bacteria utilizes the oxygen to degrade the organic matter
a) Anaerobic type
b) Screening type
c) Aerobic type
d) Sanitation type
19) Sugar separated from A massecuite
a) Used for melt
c) Conveyed to seed preparation

b) Conveyed to packing house


d) Conveyed to B pan

20) In vacuum pan for formation of sugar crystal


a) State of conglomerate is important
b) State of super saturation of mother liquid is important
c) State of evaporation is important
d) None of the above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM121*

-3-

SLR-KM 121

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : SUGAR ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.


2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.

SECTION I
2. a) Explain cane carrier with neat sketch.

b) What is mill imbibition ? Explain compound mill imbibition.

c) Why mill sanitation is required ? Explain mill setting.

3. a) Discuss measurement of weighing of juice. Explain lever and counterweight


weighing machine.

b) Discuss vertical juice heater with neat sketch.

c) Explain construction and working of multiple effect evaporator.

4. Write short notes on (any four) :

(45=20)

a) Cane Leveller
b) Measurement of cane preparation.
c) Entrainment separators
d) Vapour line juice heater
e) Mill drive.

SECTION II

5. a) What is aim of pan boiling ? Explain theory of pan boiling.

b) Why crystallisers are used ? Explain vertical crystallizer with neat sketch.

c) Discuss continuous centrifugal machine with neat sketch.

6
Set A

SLR-KM 121

-4-

*SLRKM121*

6. a) What are the different factors affecting the centrifugal machine performance ?

b) Explain rotary dryer with neat sketch.

c) Explain any one industrial waste water treatment.

7. Write short notes on (any four) :

(45=20)

a) False grain and conglomerates


b) Cycles of operation of a centrifugal machine
c) Sugar dust collector
d) Deterioration of sugar
e) Air pollution control.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 122

*SLRKM122*
S

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


TEXTILE ENGINEERING (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.


2) Use of non-programmable calculator, steam table, psychometric
chart is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1) In indirect yarn system


A) Number and yarn diameter are directly proportionate
B) Number and yarn diameter are indirectly proportionate
C) Number and diameter have no relation
D) Number and diameter are same
2) Viscose is __________ Type fibre.
A) Natural
B) Manmade
C) Regenerated
D) Animal
3) Weft means
A) Set of threads parallel to selvedge
B) Set of threads perpendicular to selvedge
C) Any thread in the fabric
D) Set of threads parallel and perpendicular to each other
4) Comber is used for
A) Removal of short fibres
B) Removal of cotton seeds
C) Individualization of fibres
D) Twisting of fibres
5) If weight of the 9000 m yarn weighs 100 grams. Its Denier will be
A) 90
B) 900
C) 10
D) 100
6) Shedding mechanism has object of
A) Divide warp into two layers
B) Insert pick in the shed
C) Push the weft to the fell of the cloth
D) Release the warp sheet
7) Which process is a temporary process ?
A) Winding
B) Warping
C) Sizing
D) Weaving

Marks : 20

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 122

*SLRKM122*

-2-

8) Jacquard capacity is expressed in


A) Number of cylinders
B) Number of hooks
C) Number of Jacks
D) Number of harnesses
9) Horizontal stripe effect in the fabric is produced by using
A) Sectional Warping machine
B) Dobby Mechanism
C) Drop Box Mechanism
D) Jacquard
10) Desizing process is used for
A) Improving the whiteness of fabric
B) For improving luster of fabric
C) For removal of size paste
D) For improving the absorbency of fabric
11) Solapur centre is famous for
A) Chaddar
B) Suiting

C) Dhoti

D) Saree

12) Differential motion is used on


A) Comber
B) Draw Frame C) Ring Frame
D) Speed Frame
13) Starting marks defect in the fabric can be reduced by using
A) Best quality yarn
B) Higher tension on warp sheet
C) Clutch Motion
D) Brake Motion
14) For 2 up 1 down twill weave how many tappets are required ?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
15) Machine vibrations can be reduced by
A) Using dampers
B) Reducing speed
C) Increasing height of the machine
D) Increasing weight of the machine
16) Routine and preventive are the types of
A) Tensile testing
B) Maintenance
C) Shedding Mechanisms
D) Let off motions
17) If the denting order is 2
A) EPI and reed count are same
C) EPI will be double the reed count

B) PPI and reed count are same


D) PPI will be double the reed count

18) Which fabric strength is suitable to test knitted fabric ?


A) Tensile
B) Ballistic
C) Tearing
D) Bursting
19) Checks type fabric can be produced by
A) Sectional warping and drop box motion
B) Sectional warping and jacquard
C) Beam warping and drop box motion
D) Beam warping and jacquard
20) Arrange the technologies in ascending order with reference to their speeds
A) Projectile Air Jet Water Jet Rapier
B) Air Jet Water Jet Rapier Projectile
C) Projectile Rapier Water Jet Air Jet
D) Rapier Water Jet Air Jet Projectile
______________

Set A

*SLRKM122*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 122

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


TEXTILE ENGINEERING (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.


2) Use of non-programmable calculator, steam table, psychometric
chart is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) What are the essential and desirable properties of the textile fibre ?

b) What are the objects of the carding machine ? With line diagram explain the working
of the machine.

c) What is yarn numbering system ? Explain in brief the most commonly used
systems.

3. a) Explain the objects and working principle of Comber.

b) Which type of size ingredients are used in size paste ? What are their
functions ?

c) Give the advantages of the textured yarn.

4. a) What are the primary motions of the loom ? Explain any one in details.

b) What are the elements in the beam warping machine ? Write their functions.

c) Give the process sequence of wet processing machines for a dyed cotton fabric.

Set A

SLR-KM 122

-4-

*SLRKM122*

SECTION II
5. a) Give the object and working of differential motion used on speed frame.

b) What are the different factors to be considered for construction of the shedding
tappet ?

c) Give the functions of clutch and brake motion used on auto loom.

6. a) Give the list of equipments and their functions required for erection of textile
machines.

b) Give the advantages of routine and preventive maintenance.

c) What are the different types of lubricants used in textile industry ?

7. a) Give the different applications of non woven fabrics. Give the process flow for any
such fabric.

b) Compare air jet and water jet weaving technologies.

c) Calculate the production of air jet weaving machine in meters per shift of 8 hours
running at 1000 rpm and producing the fabric having 28 picks per cm at 95%
efficiency.

________________

Set A

SLR-KM 123

*SLRKM123*
S

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT (Elective I) (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer any two full questions from each Section.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Make suitable assumptions, if required and state them clearly.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(120=20)

1) The entrepreneur who blindly follows the traditional methods of production in spite of
the loss is called
a) Drone entrepreneur
b) Adoptive entrepreneur
c) Fabian entrepreneur
d) Innovative entrepreneur
2) The most important feature of entrepreneurship is
a) Organization and management
b) Opportunity seeking and problem solving
c) Innovation and risk bearing
d) All of the above
3) The project appraisal is generally done by
a) Prospective entrepreneurs
b) Concerned State Government
c) Financial Institution
d) All of the above
4) The analysis of the adequacy of the plant and equipment of the proposed project is called
a) Market feasibility
b) Economic feasibility analysis
c) Managerial feasibility analysis
d) Technical feasibility analysis
5) All the services and support required by small scale industries are provided in one roof by
a) SIDCO
b) NSIC
c) DIC
d) SISI
6) A grant of Rs. 75,000 is given to each unit
a) To get ISO9000 certificate
b) To set up gradation technology
c) To up gradation technology
d) For modernization
7) __________ can be defined as psychological features that enable an individual to take
action toward a desired goal.
a) Motive
b) Trait
c) Attitude
d) Ego
8) Which of the following is the third step involved in setting up a new enterprise ?
a) Creating business plan
b) Making product choice
c) Selecting the location
d) Setting up infrastructure

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 123

-2-

*SLRKM123*

9) Which of the following involve exploiting the opportunities from the strengths ?
a) S-O Strategies
b) W-O Strategies
c) S-T Strategies
d) W-T Strategies
10) Which one of the following is not an advantage of Sole Proprietorship ?
a) Gets easily without any complicated legal formalities
b) Provides maximum incentives for work
c) Accesses greater capital and credit resources
d) Facilitates quick decision and flexibility of operations
11) Which of the following are the fixed assets of an enterprise ?
a) Buildings, Machinery and Equipment b) Rents and Electricity Bills
c) Wages and Salaries
d) Repair and Maintenance Charges
12) SIDO stands for
a) Small Industries Delegation Organization
b) Small Industries Development Organization
c) Small Industries Diligence Organization
d) Small Industries Debauchery Organization
13) Which of the following looks after growth and development of the small scale sector in
India ?
a) Ministry of Education
b) Ministry of Health and Hygiene
c) Minister of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Small Scale Industries
14) Small enterprises face several difficulties in the market and distribution of their products
due to lack of
a) Salespersons
b) Market network
c) Market Demand
d) Market Research
15) What is the percentage of NBC allotted for the priority sector, in case of foreign banks
operating in India ?
a) 42%
b) 22%
c) 32%
d) 62%
16) Which of the following scheme ensures credit without collateral security ?
a) Credit Linked Capital Subsidy scheme b) Credit Guarantee Cover Fund Scheme
c) Policy Package
d) Micro-finance
17) SSIB stands for _________
a) Small Scale Industries Board
c) Small Scale Institutional Board

b) Small Scale Industries Bureau


d) Small Scale Institutional Bureau

18) There are ____________ parties involved in a franchising business.


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
19) Which of the following is an example of business format franchise ?
a) Pepsi
b) Exxon Gas
c) Ford Motor
d) McDonalds
20) Which of the following is not a type of franchising ?
a) Production distribution
b) Business Format
c) Marketing
d) Manufacturing
___________________

Set A

*SLRKM123*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 123

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT (Elective I) (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Note : 1) Answer any two full questions from each Section.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Make suitable assumptions, if required and state them clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the concept of Entrepreneurship.
b) Define entrepreneur and Entrepreneurship.
3. a) Explain in brief characteristics and qualities of entrepreneur.
b) Discuss classification and types of entrepreneur.

10
10
10
10

4. a) Explain factors affecting entrepreneur.

10

b) Discuss entrepreneurial motivation.

10

5. a) Write a note on EDP.

10

b) Write a note on problems faced by entrepreneurs.

10

SECTION II
6. a) What is a Project Idea ? Discuss its sources and methods.
b) How do you classify Project Ideas ?
7. a) What are the points to be considered while preparing a project plan ?
b) Write a note on SWOT Analysis.
8. a) Explain in brief an ideal market and financial plan.
b) Write a note on SIDBI and SISI.
9. Write a note on :

10
10
10
10
10
10
20

a) Organizational Structure
b) SME funding.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 124

*SLRKM124*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
ii) Answer any two questions from each Section.
iii) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
iv) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
v) Use of psychrometric charts and steam table is allowed.
vi) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The ratio of heat extracted to the work done on the refrigerant is called
a) Refrigerating efficiency
b) Co-efficient of performance of heat pump
c) Co-efficient of performance of refrigeration
d) None of the above
2) The C.O.P. of a refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle is
a) (T2)/(T1 T2)
b) (T1)/(T1 T2)
c) (T1 T2)/(T1)
d) (T1 T2)/(T2)
3) Air refrigerator works on __________ cycle.
a) Rankine
b) Bell Coleman
c) Reversed Carnot cycle
d) Both a) and b)
4) Regarding a refrigerating machine working on Bell Coleman cycle which of the following
aspects is not true ?
a) Large amount of air circulation per minute
b) Low C.O.P.
c) High power consumption per tonne of refrigeration
d) Simplicity of design and performance
5) In the vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant is generally in the form of
fairly wet vapour at entry to
a) Compressor
b) Condenser
c) Expansion valve d) Evaporator
6) In a vapour compression cycle the refrigerant after condensation process is cooled below
the saturation temperature, such a process is called
a) Normal cooling
b) Super cooling
c) Sub cooling
d) None of the above
7) In a vapour absorption plant, which of the following components is a substitute for the
compressor of the vapour compression system ?
a) Aqua pump and generator
b) Absorber
c) Heat exchanger and generator
d) Absorber, aqua pump and generator

20

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 124

*SLRKM124*

-2-

8) Regarding absorption refrigeration system which of the following statement is correct ?


a) It gives sub-zero temperature
b) It gives noisy operation
c) It gives quiet operation
d) It requires little power
9) Freon group of refrigerants are
a) Toxic
c) Toxic and non-inflammable

b) Inflammable
d) Non-toxic and non-inflammable

10) _________ has the minimum freezing point.


a) Freon 22
b) Freon 12
c) Carbon di-oxide

d) Ammonia

11) For saturated air


a) Wet bulb depression is zero
b) Wet bulb depression is positive
c) Wet bulb depression is negative
d) Wet bulb depression may be positive or negative
12) The relative humidity, during sensible heating
a) Can increase or decrease
b) Increase
c) Decrease
d) Remains constant
13) An air washer can work as a
a) Filter only
b) Humidifier only

c) Dehumidifier only d) All the above

14) Which of the following can be measured by a sling psychrometer ?


a) Wet bulb temperature
b) Dry bulb as well as wet bulb temperature
c) Specific humidity
d) Absolute humidity
15) Which of the following air conditioning systems is suitable for air conditioning of large
spaces such as theatres, cinemas, etc.
a) Unitary
b) Zonal
c) Central
d) Unitary-central
16) In practical applications which of the following ways the supply ducts may be arranged ?
a) Loop perimeter duct system
b) Radial perimeter duct system
c) Extended plenum duct system
d) All of the above
17) The ozone friendly refrigerant, R 134a contains
a) Only one chlorine atom
b) Only two chlorine atom
c) No chlorine atom
d) Chlorine atom is replaced by bromine atom
18) Air at dry bulb temperature of 35C and dew point temperature of 20C passes through a
cooling coil which is maintained at 25C. The process would be
a) Cooling and dehumidification
b) Sensible cooling
c) Cooling and humidification
d) Unpredictable
19) In spray humidification process, the dry bulb temperature
a) Decreases
b) Remains same c) Increases

d) Is uncertain

20) If air is passed over a solid absorbent surface or through a liquid absorbent spray
simultaneous ________ is achieved.
a) Heating and humidification
b) Heating and dehumidification
c) Cooling and humidification
d) Cooling and dehumidification
______________

Set A

*SLRKM124*

SLR-KM 124

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

i)
ii)
iii)
iv)

Marks : 80

Answer any two questions from each Section.


Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
Use of psychrometric charts and steam table is allowed.
SECTION I

2. a) Describe with neat sketch a bootstrap air refrigeration system.

b) State the functions of the following components in an absorption system with neat diagram.
i) Absorber
ii) Rectifier
iii) Analyser and
iv) Heat Exchangers.

c) Enumerate the desirable properties of refrigerant.

3. a) With neat explain the working cycle of Bell Coleman cycle.

b) A vapour compression refrigeration works between the pressure limits of 60 bars and
25 bar. The working fluid is just dry at the end of compression and there is no undercooling
of liquid before the expansion valve. Determine :
1) COP of the cycle,
2) Capacity of the refrigeration if the fluid flow is at the rate of 5 kg/min.
Data :
Enthalpy (kJ/kg) Entropy (kJ/kg K)
Pressure
Saturation
(bar)
Temperature (K) Liquid Vapour Liquid Vapour
60

295

151.96

293.29

0.554

1.0332

25

261

56.32

322.58

0.226

1.2464

4. Write short note on :


i) Type of evaporators
ii) Electrolux refrigerator
iii) Actual vapor compression cycle
iv) Need of refrigeration in air craft.

12

(54=20)

Set A

SLR-KM 124

-4-

*SLRKM124*

SECTION II
5. a) A sample of moist air has DBT of 43C and a WBT of 29C. Calculate the following without
making use of the Psychrometric chart :
i) Pressure of water vapour
ii) Relative humidity
iii) DPT
iv) Enthalpy.

b) Draw the diagram of comfort chart and explain effective temperature.

c) Explain following term :

i) Humidity
ii) Sensible Heat Factor.
6. a) In an Air conditioning system, the inside and outside conditions are DBT 25C, RH 50%
and DBT 40C, WBT 27C respectively. The RSHF is 0.8. 50% of the room air is rejected
to atmosphere and an equal quantity of fresh air added before air enters the air conditioning
apparatus. If the fresh air added is 100 m3/min, Determine :
i) Room sensible and latent heat load
ii) Sensible and latent heat load due to fresh air
iii) ADP
iv) Humidity ratio and DBT of air entering AC apparatus.
Assume BPF as zero, density of air as 1.2 kg/m3 at a total pressure of 1.01325 bar.
b) How is an air conditioning system load estimated ? Explain fully.
7. a) Enlist psychrometric processes and explain sensible heating and cooling.
b) What are the different method of duct design ? Explain velocity reduction method.

12
8
8
12

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 125

*SLRKM125*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL AND QUALITY MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) ________ means the intentional structure of roles in a formally organized enterprise.


A) Informal organisation
B) Policy
C) Formal organisation
D) Code of conduct
2) ________ is the ability of individual or groups to induce or influence the beliefs or
action of other persons or groups.
A) Power
B) Authority
C) Post
D) Leadership
3) ________ Maslow regards this as the highest needs in his hierarchy.
A) Physiological needs
B) Safety needs
C) Need for self actualisation
D) Acceptance needs
4) In ________ concept product enjoys the supreme importance.
A) selling
B) marketing
C) manufacturing D) business
5) The amount of working capital varies ________ with the use of credit.
A) Cant say
B) Inversely
C) 1 as to 2
D) Directly
6) Theory ________ is pessimistic, static and rigid.
A) Y
B) X
C) Maslows

D) Z

7) ________ involves the introduction of new employees to the enterprise, its function,
tasks and people.
A) Planning
B) Orienting
C) Probation
D) Acclimatization
8) ________ is the pre-determination of future achievements in type of product, volume
of production, quality, time, price in manufacture and resources required.
A) Production planning
B) PPC
C) Prior planning
D) Planning
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 125

*SLRKM125*

-2-

9) Planning and Marketing Services, Physical Distribution, Selling are basic functions of
A) marketing manager
B) production manager
C) plant manager
D) general manager
10) Machinery, material handling equipment, tools, jigs, fixtures comes under
A) Working capital
B) Machinery capital
C) Variable capital
D) Fixed capital
11) In our country, ________ is the National Standards Body.
A) NSB
B) BIS
C) NBS
D) ISB
12) In double sampling plan C2 is the acceptance number for the
A) First and last combined
B) First & second sample combined
C) Last two combined
D) First three combined
13) AOQ is given by the relation
A) P.Pa (N n/N)
C) Pa.P (n N/n)

B) Pa.P (n N/N)
D) Pa.P (N n/N)

14) AOQL stands for


A) Average Outgoing Quality Limit
C) Average Outward Quality Limit

B) Average Outgoing Quality Level


D) Average Outward Quality Level

15) The probability of rejecting a good lot which otherwise would have been accepted
is called as
A) Rework
B) Consumers risk
C) Producers risk
D) OK goods
16) Sampling inspection exerts more effective pressure on
A) Quality maintenance
B) Production method
C) Quality improvement
D) Quality systems
17) ISO : 9000 series of quality standards was formulated by
A) International standard of organisation
B) International organization for standardisation
C) Organization of international standard
D) Indian standard organisation
18) In double sampling plan second sample is taken when the number of defective
A) exceeds c1 but doesnt exceeds c2 B) doesnt exceeds c1
C) exceeds both c1 and c2
D) exceeds c2
19) The producers risk is denoted by
B)
A)

C)

D)

20) ________ is the model for quality assurance in production and installation.
A) ISO : 9000
B) ISO : 9002
C) ISO : 9001
D) ISO : 9006
______________

Set A

*SLRKM125*

-3-

SLR-KM 125

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL AND QUALITY MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I.


2) Solve any three questions from Section II.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain channel of distribution and its function.

b) Explain leadership behaviour and styles.

3. a) Write a note on industrial safety.

b) What are objectives and functions of PPC ?

4. a) What is capital ? Explain classification of capital. Also explain factors affecting


working capital.

b) What are social responsibilities of managers ?

5. a) Explain Maslows theory and McGregors theory.

b) What is planning ? Explain steps in planning.

SECTION II
6. a) Name any three quality gurus and their contribution in quality.

b) Write note on supplier partnership and employee involvement.

7. a) What is the meaning of quality of design and quality of conformance ?

b) Explain cause and effect diagram, scatter diagram and pare to analysis.

8. a) Explain actual and ideal OC curve for a sampling plan. Also explain all concepts
such as producers risk, consumers risk, AQL, LTPD, AOQL etc.
b) What is management responsibility in ISO 9000 ?

7
6

Set A

SLR-KM 125

-4-

*SLRKM125*

9. a) A manufacturer purchases small bolts in cartons that usually contain several


thousand bolts. Each shipment consists of a number of cartons. As a part of
acceptance procedure for these bolts, 400 bolts are selected at random from each
carton and are subjected to visual inspection for certain defects. In a shipment of
10 cartons the respective percentage of defectives in the samples from each carton
are 0, 0, 0.5, 0.75, 0, 2.0, 0.25, 0, 0.25 and 1.25. Does this shipment of bolts appear
to exhibit statistical control with respect to the quality characteristics examined in
the inspection ?
b) Write procedure for control chart preparation. Explain it for X and R chart.

8
6

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 126

*SLRKM126*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MECHATRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) The first ten questions i.e. from Qn. 1 to Qn. 10 carry 1 mark
each. Qn. 11 to 15 carry two marks each. Only one option
among the four is the right answer.
2) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) LVDT is a
a) capacitive transducer
c) inductive transducer

20
b) resistive transducer
d) none of the above

2) The properties of an ideal operational amplifier are


a) It should have zero input impedance
b) It should have high input impedance
c) It should have a zero open loop gain
d) none of the above
3) MOSFET can be employed as a control switch for
a) DC motor
b) AC motor
c) Stepper motor d) All the above
4) The Program Storage Enable (PSEN) pin for 8051 microcontroller is
a) Write signal pin for external program memory
b) Read signal pin for external program memory
c) Address latch enable pin
d) All the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 126

-2-

*SLRKM126*

5) Application of latching contact in PLC


a) Perform timing operation
b) ON/OFF control using two separate switches
c) It should have a zero open loop gain
d) None of the above
6) In OSI model the function of a session layer is
a) Provide actual user information
b) Establishing of dialogues between application processes
c) Sending and receiving message
d) All the above
7) Protocol governs
a) data format
b) error control c) timing
d) memory of data
8) In electrically erasable programmable read only memory program is erased
by
a) Ultraviolet rays
b) Using fusible link
c) Using high voltage
d) All the above
9) ___________ is the device which converts the energy from one form to
another.
a) Electrolux b) Differential axle c) Transformer
d) Transducer
10) The most commonly used crystal frequency for 8051 microcontroller is
a) 12 MHz
b) 10 MHz
c) 7 MHz
d) 9 MHz
11) Interfacing is required for
a) Electrical buffering/isolation
b) Sequencing of data
c) Code conversion
d) Transducer
12) The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number (3A.2F)16 is
a) 59.1560
b) 58.1836
c) 57.1430
d) 55.1535
13) Artificial intelligence include the following term
a) Perception
b) Communication interface
c) Cognition
d) Error correction
14) Micro optical sensor is used for measurement of
a) Displacement b) Torque
c) Rotation
d) Temperature
15) The 8051 has ___________ bytes of program memory and __________ bytes
of data memory.
a) 128, 4096
b) 4096, 128
c) 4096, 2098
d) 2048, 4096
______________

Set A

*SLRKM126*

-3-

SLR-KM 126

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MECHATRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.


2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Define mechatronics. A modern car engine with computer controlled fuel
injection and ignition is a classic example of mechatronics system. Explain
its working with a neat sketch.
b) Discuss dynamic characteristics of measurement system.

8
6

c) What do you understand by the term signal processing ? Why is it required ? 6


3. a) Discuss the construction and working of AC motors. List its advantages,
limitations and applications.

b) Sketch the pin diagram of 8085 microprocessor. Why does the 8085 feature
the ALE pin ?

c) Explain what do you mean by a transducer ? List various types of transducers


used in mechatronics and explain any two of them with neat sketch.
6
4. a) Minimize the equation F(A, B, C, D) = m0 + m2 + m4 + m6 + m12 + m14 using
karnaugh map. Sketch the circuit diagram of the final selection.

b) Explain in detail with sketch, linear actuators OR process control valves.

c) What is multiplexing and de-multiplexing ?

Set A

SLR-KM 126

-4-

*SLRKM126*

SECTION II
5. a) Describe briefly the 8051 microcontroller.

b) Explain briefly with a neat diagram, the architecture of Programmable Logic


Controller (PLC).

c) Explain what is meant by a communication protocol.

6. a) Discuss fuzzy logic applications in mechatronics.

b) Device a system, using a PLC, which can be used to control the movement of
a piston in a cylinder using 4/2 solenoid operated pilot valve. The piston is to
move in one direction when proximity sensor at one end of the stroke closes
contact and in the other direction when proximity sensor at other end of the
stroke indicates its arrival there.

c) What do you understand by sourcing and sinking input and output modules ?
List the special features of PLCs.

7. Write short notes on (any four) :

20

a) Timers and counters


b) Network topology
c) Robot end effectors
d) Advantages and disadvantages of PLCs
e) Condition monitoring.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 127

*SLRKM127*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) Clutch is located between the transmission and the
a) Engine
b) Rear axle
c) Propeller shaft
d) Differential

Marks : 20
(120=20)

2) Using synchromesh unit, the two adjacent gears have their speeds
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Equalised
d) Unequalised
3) Lateral bending of the side members in chassis may occur due to
a) Weight of vehicle
b) Side winds
c) Engine torque
d) Braking torque
4) Propeller shaft is tubular instead of solid because
a) It is more rigid
b) Its sag is smaller
c) Solid shaft is weaker than tubular d) All the above
5) The type of rear axle used in truck is
a) Semi floating
b) Fully floating
c) Three quarter floating
d) None of the above
6) The component of torque converter that redirects the flow of oil to impeller is
a) Turbine
b) Impeller
c) Stator
d) Freewheel
7) The inward tilt of wheel from vertical is called as
a) Caster
b) Toe out
c) King pin inclination
d) Camber
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 127

*SLRKM127*

-2-

8) The function of a shackle in a leaf spring is


a) pivoting the spring end
b) allow spring length to change
c) control sidesway
d) control rear torque
9) The side force sustained by the wheel during cornering divided by the slip
angle is called
a) cornering force
b) camber force
c) cornering power
d) none of above
10) The braking efficiency in percentage for a new vehicle is about
a) 30
b) 50
c) 80
d) 100
11) Dynamic weight transfer happens in vehicle during
a) braking
b) gear shifting c) both a) and b) d) none of the above
12) If the brake wheels gets locked before the vehicle stops, the vehicle is said
to be
a) skidding
b) sliding
c) rolling
d) none of the above
13) The positive plate of lead acid battery has
a) Pb
b) PbO2
c) PbSO4
14) In an alternator, the magnetic field is produced by
a) stator
b) rotor
c) regulator

d) converter

15) Air resistance is expressed as


a) WK
b) KaAV2

d) None of these

c) W/G

d) H2SO4

16) Cornering force divided by slip angle is called as


a) self righting torque
b) cornering power
c) slip
d) castor trial
17) The gas used in modern shock absorber is
a) nitrogen
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen
d) carbon dioxide
18) The brake lining is mounted on
a) brake shoe
b) brake drum

c) wheel cylinder d) none of the above

19) The type of reflector used in automobile head lamp is


a) spherical
b) parabolic
c) hyperbolic
d) none of the above
20) The purpose of transmission in automobile is
a) increase the speed
b) vary the power
c) vary the torque
d) all of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM127*

-3-

SLR-KM 127

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Answer any two questions from each Section.


Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Figure to the right indicates full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I

2. a) Write short note on :


i) Rear engine front wheel drive
ii) Automobile chassis.

10

b) What are the requirements of good automobile power plant ? Discuss suitability
consideration for sports cars and passenger car.
10
3. a) Discuss various requirements of clutch.

b) Compare sliding mesh gear box with synchromesh gear box.

c) Explain with neat sketch the working of Torque converter.

4. a) Motor vehicle total weight 11144 N has road wheels of 0.61 m effective diameter.
The effective moment of inertia of the four road wheels and the rear axle
together is 62.0 N-m2, while that of the engine and flywheel is 6.2 N-m2.
The transmission efficiency is 90% and tractive resistance at a speed of 24
km/hr is 222.5 N. The total available engine torque is 203.6 N-m.
i) Determine the gear ratio, engine to back axle to provide maximum
acceleration on 1 in 4 grade, when travelling at 24 km/hr.
ii) What is the maximum acceleration ?
iii) Determine the engine rpm and power under these conditions.
14
b) Explain the necessity of a differential in an automobile.

6
Set A

SLR-KM 127

-4-

*SLRKM127*

SECTION II
5. a) What is meant by steering geometry ? Why geometry is required ? What is
the effect of camber and caster on vehicle directional stability ?

b) Draw a neat sketch of a master cylinder and explain its construction and
working.

c) Write short notes on Disc brake.

6. a) Write in detail functions and requirements of automobile suspension system.

b) Explain telescopic shock absorber with neat sketch.

c) Write short note on Hotch-kiss drive.

7. Write short notes on any four :

20

i) Safety devices in automobiles


ii) Dash board gauges
iii) Electric horn
iv) Two wheeler with layout
v) Starting system.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 128

*SLRKM128*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Solve any 2 questions from each Section.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


i) Delphi method of forecasting is a
a) Qualitative technique
c) Both of above

(201=20)
b) Quantitative technique
d) None of above

ii) In ABC analysis C items are those which represent


a) small percentage of the total annual consumption value
b) high percentage of the total annual consumption value
c) small percentage of closing inventory
d) none of above
iii) If the frequency of ordering is decreased (for a given annual consumption) then ordering
cost will
a) decrease
b) increase
c) remains same
d) none of above
iv) Line balancing is commonly used in
a) Mass Production
c) Batch Production

b) Job Production
d) None of above

v) Condition Based Maintenance (CBM) is used in


a) Breakdown maintenance
b) Preventive maintenance
c) Predictive maintenance
d) None of above
vi) Interest cost on material purchased is considered in
a) Ordering cost
b) Inventory carrying cost
c) Shortage cost
d) None of the above
vii) Determining start and finish times of waiting job by assigning them to latest available time
slot is known as
a) Backward scheduling
b) Forward scheduling
c) General scheduling
d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 128

*SLRKM128*

-2-

viii) MRP means


a) Material Release Point
c) Material Requirement Planning
ix) Bill of Material (BOM) is associated with
a) Line balancing
b) Scheduling

b) Material Reorder Planning


d) None of the above
c) MRP

d) Controlling

x) Chart which is useful for scheduling and centres is


b) Gantt chart
a) X and R chart
c) Flow process chart
d) P chart
xi) Comparing actual production output with production schedule and reporting the deviation
is
a) capacity planning
b) forecasting
c) progressing
d) inventory management
xii) Services are
a) Tangible

b) Intangible

xiii) Unit load is a concept in


a) Material handling system
c) Line balancing

c) Both

d) None of above

b) MRP
d) Machine utilization

xiv) Quick and inexpensive setup is a feature of


a) JIT
b) Capacity planning
c) Kanban
d) None of the above
xv) 80 20 (pareto) principle is used in
a) XYZ analysis
b) ABC analysis

c) SDE analysis

d) None of above

xvi) Kanban is a Japanese term indicating


a) method of line balancing
b) priority dispatching
c) information for production and withdrawn of items
d) none of above
xvii) The value of (smoothening constant) in exponential smoothening is
a) between 0 to 1
b) between 1 to 1
c) less than 0
d) cant be defined
xviii) The prime input for aggregate planning is
a) active forecasting
c) passive forecasting
xix) Production planning and centres involves
a) pre-planning and routing
c) expediating

b) demand forecasting
d) none of the above
b) scheduling and dispatching
d) all of the above

xx) Short term forecasting involves a period of


a) less than one year
b) one to three years
c) above three years
d) none of above

______________
Set A

*SLRKM128*

SLR-KM 128

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : Solve any 2 questions from each Section.


SECTION I
2. a) What is production/operations management ? Explain its objectives and scope.

10

b) Explain various types of errors in forecasting.

c) Explain factors influencing capacity.

3. a) The sales of a product is given below. Calculate the forecasted demand for next two
years using linear regression method.
Year

Sales

30

35

32

40

42

45

10

b) Explain moving average method of forecasting.

c) Explain line balancing.

4. a) There are seven jobs to be processed on machine A and B in the same sequence
processing time in hours are given below.
Job

Machine A

12

15

10

11

Machine B

10

10

12

Determine the sequence of the jobs that will minimise the total elapsed time. Calculate
elapsed time and idle time on B if any.

10

b) What is routing ? Explain the steps in routing.

c) Explain steps in production control.

Set A

SLR-KM 128

-4-

*SLRKM128*

SECTION II
5. a) The annual demand for a part is at 8000 units/year. The cost of each unit is Rs. 5/- ordering
cost is Rs. 50/- per order inventory carrying cost is at 12 %. Calculate :
i) EOQ
ii) Optimum no. of orders per annum
iii) Total annual inventory cost.

10

b) Explain A B C analysis for inventory centres.

c) Explain EOQ (basic model).

6. a) Explain principles of material handling.

10

b) Explain preventive maintenance and its benefits.

c) Explain Kanban.

7. a) What is supply chain management ? Explain its various phases.

10

b) Explain MRP.

c) Explain the theory of replacement analysis for a machine.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 129

*SLRKM129*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEMS
(Elective II)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer (1 mark each) :

20

1) From to chart gives the information about


a) density of moves between dept

b) equipment

c) selection procedure

d) none of these

2) Flow diagram is used to study


a) back tracking

b) sequence of operation

c) m/c maintenance

d) operator skill

3) The material handling equation consist of the material characteristics, the move material
and
a) the method capability

b) human capacity

c) load

d) gravity

4) To transport ferrous material vertically __________ conveyor is used.


a) wheel

b) magnetic

c) chain

d) chute

5) Hoisting equipment works in conjection with __________ and workstation cranes.


a) roller

b) industrial trucks c) elevator

d) overhead cranes

6) Straight line material flow pattern are used for _________ route.
a) longest

b) medium

c) shortest

d) all of these

7) Instead of a hoist, _________ crane uses a mast with forks or a platform to handle unit
loads.
a) Jib crane

b) Bridge crane

c) Gantry crane

d) Stacker crane

8) Heavy load movement in a constructed shed in X + Y + Z direction is done by


a) Jib crane

b) Gantry crane

c) Bridge crane

d) None of the above


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 129

*SLRKM129*

-2-

9) _________ is used to move the material between two specific point.


a) cranes

b) conveyors

c) bin

d) trolley

c) Trolley

d) Elevator

10) _________ is storing equipment.


a) Decking

b) Hoist

11) Manual material handling having __________ restrictions.


a) physical

b) financial

c) ethical

d) none of these

c) stacker

d) bridge

c) inspection

d) transport

12) Arm of _________ cranes rotate in 360.


a) gantry

b) jib

13) Symbol represents for


a) operation
b) storage

14) The equipment used to handle material at a single location so that it is in the correct
positioning for machining is
a) transport

b) storage

c) positioning

d) none of these

15) Roller conveyor are characterized by


a) Unit + On-Floor + Accumulate

b) Bulk + On-Floor + Accumulate

c) Unit + On-Floor + not Accumulate

d) Bulk + On-Floor + not Accumulate

16) For __________ types of material flow having less difficulty in returning empty containers.
a) Straight line

b) Inverted

c) L shaped

d) U shaped

17) A device used for lifting or lowering objects suspended from a hook at the end of retractable
chains or cable is called
a) hoist

b) jib cranes

c) portable elevators

d) chain conveyors

18) Handling material during manufacturing of cement _________ is widely used.


a) belt conveyor

b) bucket conveyor

c) fork lift

d) overhead cranes

19) Trolley conveyors are characterized by


a) Bulk + Floor + Accumulation

b) Unit + Overhead + No Accumulation

c) Bulk + Overhead + Accumulation

d) None of the above

20) The equipment used to move the material from one location to another is called as
a) positioning

b) transport

c) storage

d) none of these

______________

Set A

*SLRKM129*

-3-

SLR-KM 129

Seat
No.

B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEMS
(Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Draw neat diagram where necessary.
SECTION I
Solve any two questions :
2. a) Define, classify and explain conveyors with neat sketch and applications.

b) Explain the benefits and principles of material handling.

c) Define the material handling system and classify the equipments with application.

3. a) Explain the term cranes. Write down any two types of cranes with sketch.

b) Explain the Industrial Robots.

c) What are the Positioning equipments ?

4. Write a short notes (any three) :

20

a) Automated Guided Vehicles.

b) Hoisting equipment

c) Elevators

d) Unit load Containerization and Palletization.

SECTION II
Solve any two questions :
5. a) Define the material flow and explain the types of material flow.

b) Explain in brief the material handling safety and training.

c) Explain the factors and criteria for selection of material handling equipment.

Set A

SLR-KM 129

-4-

*SLRKM129*

6. a) Explain the operation sequence in the material handling system.

b) Explain the selection of material handling equipment in sugar manufacturing industry.

c) Explain different material handling system.

7. Write a short notes (any three) :

20

a) General procedure for selection of material handling equipment.

b) From to chart.

c) Choices of material handling equipment.

d) Material handling equation.

6
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 130

*SLRKM130*
S

S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 70

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct alternative.


1)

X = _________


a)

14

Xeax dx


b)

Xeax dx


c) eax X eax dx

d) eax X eax dx

2) The complete solution of (D3 2D2 + D) y = 0 is


a) y = (c1 + c2x)ex
c) y = (c1 + c2x + c3x2)ex

b) y = c1 + c2ex + c3ex
d) y = c1 + (c2 + c3x)ex

3) The Laplace transform of tsint is __________


a)

b)
I

c)
I


I

d)
I




4) The value of the integral

e3t t5 dt is __________


a)

b)


"

"

5) If L{f(t)} =
a) s2
c) s2

c)

sf(0)


d)


"

&

"

, then L{ (t)} = ____________




"

+ sf(0)


B


B

(0)

b) s2

(0)

d) None of these


I

sf(0) +


B

(0)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 130
6) L1

*SLRKM130*

-2-

= _________




a) t

b) 1

c) 0

d)


7) z = a(x + y) + c is the general solution of


a) p + q = 1

b) p q = 1

c) pq = 1

d)

=1
F

8) The half range sine series of 1 in the interval (0,


a)

b)

s
"

s
"

d) None of these

9) If f(x) = x is represented by Fourier series in ( ,




b)


a) i + j + k

b) 2i + j + k

11) A vector function


=0

a) curl
L

) then ________ is the constant term.




c) 0


= x2 + y + z then at (1, 1, 1) grad




10) If

a)

c)

) is


d) 2


= _________
c) i + 2j + k

d) i + j + 2k

is called solenoidal if __________


b) grad
L

=0

c) div

0


d) div

=0
L

12) If z{f(k)} = F(z), then z{kf(k)} = _____________


a) z

F(z)
d

d)

F(z)
d

0).


c)
z

F(z)
d

b)
z

c)

, then z{ak} = __________, (k


z

F(z)
d

13) If z {1} =
a)

b) z

d)
z

1
z

14) If the Fourier transform of f(x) is F(s), then the Fourier transform of f(ax) is ___________
a) F

b) F

I


c) a F

=


d)

I


_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM130*
S

SLR-KM 130

-3-

S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D3 + 27)y = x4 + 2x + 1.
b) Solve
@

c) Solve

4
O

+4


+ 4y = xe2x sinx.

3
3

+ 3y = ex, subject to conditions that y(0) = 1,





O

(0) = 1.

3. a) Solve z2(p2 + q2 + 1) = 1.

3
3

b) Solve (y z)p + (z x)q = x y.

c) Solve z2(p2 + q2) = x + y.

4. a) Find L

b) Find the Laplace transform of

e4t


t sin3t dt.

c) If f(t) =

and
a

f(t + 2a) = f(t), then find L{f(t)}.

5. a) Find the inverse Laplace transform of slog

b) Find L1


"

c) Find L1

"

by using Convolution Theorem.

"

OR
c) Solve


O




"

"

, with y(0) =


O

(0) = 0 by using Laplace transform method.

4
Set A

SLR-KM 130

*SLRKM130*

-4-

SECTION II
6. a) A particle moves along the curve x = et, y = 2cos3t, z = 2sin3t. Find the velocity and
acceleration vectors and the magnitudes of velocity and acceleration at t = 0.

b) Prove that = 2xyz2i + (x2 z2 + z cosyz)j + (2x2yz + y cos yz)k is an irrotational field
and find its scalar potential.

c) Show that

r



n

n
n

r
r

OR
c) Find the directional derivative of = x2y + y2z + z2x2 at P(1, 2, 1) in the direction of the
normal to the surface x2 + y2 z2x = 1 at Q (1, 1, 1).


7. a) Find z-transform of xk =

, k 1.
2

b) Find z1

1


, |z | > 5.

0.

c) Find z{sin

k}, k


8. Attempt any three :

a) Find the Fourier transform of f(x) = e|x|.


b) Express the function f(x) =

as a Fourier cosine integral and hence, show


1

that

if 0


x < 1.


c) Find the Fourier sine transform of 2e5x + 5e2x.




d) Using Fourier cosine integral (x 0) prove that




ex




9. a) Find the Fourier series for f(x) =

in (0, 2 ).

b) Find Fourier expansion of f(x) = ex in (1, 1).

4
5

OR
b) Prove that for 0 < x <


x( x) =

6
1

_________________

Set A

SLR-KM 131

*SLRKM131*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 70

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Assume suitable data if required.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) If you are checking full wave bridge rectifier circuit with input supply 240 V, 60 Hz and
observes that output has 120 Hz ripple then
a) The circuit is properly working
b) There is an one open diode
c) Transformer secondary is shorted
d) All above
2) Zener diode is used as a
a) Fixed reference voltage
b) Peak clipper in wave shaping circuit
c) Meter protection against damage from application of excessive voltage
d) All above
3) A Ge diode carries a current of 1m A at room temperature when forward bias of 0.15 V is
applied. The reverse saturation current at room temperature is
a) 3.12 A
b) 0.312 A
c) 3.12 mA
d) 30.2 A
4) In the circuit shown below diode is ideal, the output waveform is

a)

b)

c)

d)

5) The main function of clipping circuit is to


a) Remove certain portion of input signal above or below certain level
b) Restore dc value of signal
c) Remove distortion from input signal
d) Both a) and c)

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 131

*SLRKM131*

-2-

6) The critical inductance in a filter circuit is


a) To ensure that current flows at all time
b) Current never becomes zero
c) Minimum inductance required in circuit
d) All above
7) If the load resistance of a capacitor filtered full wave rectifier is increased, ripple factor
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains Constant
d) None of above
8) The magnitude of collector junction reverse bias voltage decreases, then effective base
width is
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) First decreases and then remains constant
9) DC negative feedback is present in
a) Fixed bias
c) Voltage divider bias

b) Collector to base bias


d) Both b) and c)

10) An amplifier circuit has overall current gain of 100 and input resistance is 10 K and RL
is 1K . Then voltage gain is
a) 5dB
b) 10dB
c) 20dB
d) 40dB
11) Early effect in BJT refers to
a) Avalanche breakdown
c) Zener breakdown

b) Thermal breakdown
d) Base narrowing

12) FET is
a) Voltage controlled device
b) Current controlled device
c) Current controlled current source
d) Reactance controlled device
13) Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because
a) It has negative temperature coefficient at high current level
b) It is current controlled device
c) It has positive temperature coefficient at high current level
d) Both b) and c)
14) A bistable multivibrator circuit
a) Has two unstable states
b) Has one energy storage element
c) Has two stable states
d) Switches between its two states automatically
______________

Set A

*SLRKM131*

-3-

SLR-KM 131

Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2015
ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 56

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if required.
SECTION I

2. Answer any 4 :

(44=16)

1) Explain VI characteristics from diode current equation. What is static and dynamic
resistance of diode ?
2) Explain the working of full wave voltage doubler circuit.
3) Draw circuit diagram of Double ended clipper with I/O waveforms and transfer curve.
4) Compare between different filters (any 4 points).
5) Explain zener diode as a voltage regulator.
3. Answer any 2 :

(26=12)

1) Explain working of half wave rectifier. Derive expression for


a) Avg Voltage, Avg Current
b) RMS Voltage RMS current
c) Rectification efficiency
d) Ripple Factor.
2) What is Clipper ? Describe operation of series positive clipper and series negative clipper
with help of circuit diagram.
3) Design a L section filter for 50Hz full wave rectifier using bridge to supply 30 V dc across
a load of 1K with ripple factor of 0.02%.

Set A

SLR-KM 131

-4-

*SLRKM131*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

1) Discuss thermal stability of transistor bias circuit with regard to ICBO and VBE.
2) Explain working of Schmidt trigger using transistor with suitable waveforms.
3) Give comparison between BJT, FET and MOSFET.
4) Explain effect of internal junction capacitors on the frequency response of amplifier.
5) Sketch typical BJT Common Base I/O characteristics. Explain how early effect affects
the I/O characteristics.
5. Attempt any two :

(26=12)

1) Derive the expression for Ai, Ri, Av, Yo in terms of hybrid parameter for Common
Emitter configuration.
2) Explain operation of Monostable multivibrator. Derive an expression for pulse width
generated by monostable multivibrator. Sketch associated waveforms.
3) Draw structure of N channel depletion MOSFET. Explain its working with help of drain
characteristics and transfer characteristics.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 132

*SLRKM132*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015
NETWORK THEORY AND ANALYSIS

Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 70

Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

(114=14)

1) For a 2 port reciprocal network the output open circuit voltage divided by the input
current is equal to
a) Z11
b) Z12
c) 1/Y21
d) h12
2) In the parallel RLC circuit the impedance at resonance is
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero

d) Infinity

3) In a two port network the condition for reciprocity in terms of H parameter is


a) h12 = h21
b) h11 = h12
c) h11 = h22
d) h12 = h21
4) The Thevenin equivalent voltage is
a) equal to the source voltage
c) the open circuit voltage

b) the same as the load voltage


d) none of the above

5) When 90 A current flows into four parallel resistors having resistances of


5 ohm, 6 ohm, 12 ohm and 20 ohm the current in 5 ohm resistor is
a) 36 A
b) 90 A
c) 4 A
d) None
6) Resistor, a 40 F capacitor, and an 8 mH coil are in series across an ac source.
The resonant frequency is
a) 28.1 Hz
b) 281 Hz
c) 2810 Hz
d) 10 kHz
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 132

*SLRKM132*

-2-

7) Nortons theorem gives


a) an equivalent current source in parallel with an equivalent impedance
b) an equivalent current source in series with an equivalent impedance
c) an equivalent voltage source in parallel with an equivalent impedance
d) an equivalent voltage source in series with an equivalent impedance
8) In the m-derived high pass filters the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is
a) Above the cut off frequency

b) Below the cut off frequency

c) Equal to the cut off frequency

d) None of above

9) In the m-derived low pass filters the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is
a) above the cut off frequency

b) below the cut off frequency

c) equal to the cut off frequency

d) none of above

10) The function is said to be having simple poles and zeros only if
a) The poles are not repeated
b) The zeros are not repeated
c) The poles and zeros are not repeated
d) None of the above
11) The transfer impedance is defined as
a) the ratio of transform voltage to transform current at the same port
b) the ratio of transform voltage at one port to transform current at the other port
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
12) In a certain high-pass filter, fc = 5 kHz. Its pass band is
a) 0 Hz to 5 kHz

b) 5 kHz to infinity

c) 5 kHz-10 kHz

d) Cant say

13) Inductor does not allow sudden changes


a) in current

b) in voltage

c) both a) and b)

d) in none of the above

14) The time constant of series RL circuit is


a) LR

b) L/R

c) R/I

d) eR/L

______________

Set A

*SLRKM132*

-3-

SLR-KM 132

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


NETWORK THEORY AND ANALYSIS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions :1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four.

(44=16)

a) Determine the Nortons equivalent circuit at terminal AB for the circuit shown in
Fig. 1.

Fig. 1
b) Determine the open-circuit impedances for the network shown in Fig. 2.

Fig. 2
c) A series RLC circuit is supplied at 220 V, 50 Hz. At resonance the voltage across
the capacitor = 550 V, I = 1 A. Determine R, L and C.
d) Express Z parameters in terms of Y parameters.

Set A

SLR-KM 132

-4-

*SLRKM132*

e) Determine the maximum power delivered to the load in the circuit shown in Fig. 3.

Fig. 3
3. Answer any two.

(62=12)

a) Determine the Thevenins equivalent circuit across terminals AB for the circuit shown
in Fig. 4.

Fig. 4
b) Prove the bandwidth of series RLC circuit is the ratio of R and 2 L and also prove
that Q = XL/R.
c) Calculate the overall transmission parameters for the network shown in Fig. 5.

Fig. 5

Set A

*SLRKM132*

-5-

SLR-KM 132

SECTION II
4. Answer any four.

(44=16)

a) Explain DC response of series RC circuit.


b) For the network shown in Fig. 6, determine Z11(S), and Z21(S).

Fig. 6
c) Design a high pass T-section filter with a cut off frequency of 1 kHz with a terminated
design impedance of 800 ohm.
d) Design a -type attenuator to give 20 dB attenuation and to have a characteristic
impedance of 100 ohm.
e) Write necessary condition for a driving point function.
5. Answer any two.

(62=12)

a) Explain sinusoidal response of series RL circuit.


b) Design a band elimination filter having a design impedance of 600 ohm and cut-off
frequencies f1 = 2 kHz and f2 6 kHz.
c) For the given network function draw the pole zero diagram and hence obtain the
time domain response. Verify this result analytically.
I (s ) =

3s
.
(s + 1) (s + 3)
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 133

*SLRKM133*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicates full marks.
Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 14
(141=14)

1) The _______________ devices has a programmable AND array at the input


and a fixed OR gate at the output.
a) PLAs
b) PALs
c) PROMs
d) None of the above
2) In a k-map, 2i l cells may be combined/grouped to form a product term
containing __________ literals, where n is the number of variables in the
function.
d) i 2n
a) n i
b) i n
c) 2n i
3) A decoder is represented by _________ , where n is number of select lines.
a) 2n : 1
b) 1 : 2
c) n : 2n
d) 2n : n
4) A ____________ hazard is the possibility of a circuits output producing a l
glitch when we except the output to remain at a nice steady 0 based on the
static analysis of circuit function.
a) Static 0
b) Static 1
c) Dynamic
d) None of the above
5) The AND-OR realization is equivalent to
a) NAND NAND Realization
b) OR AND Realization
c) OR AND NOT Realization
d) NOR NOR Realization
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 133

*SLRKM133*

-2-

6) The statement x * (y + z) = (x * y) + (x * z) represent


a) Distributive law
b) Associative law
c) Commutative law
d) DeMorgans theorems
7) The BCD number 127 is represented in Excess 3 code as
a) 0001 0010 0111
b) 0100 0101 1010
c) 0001 0010 1010
d) None of the above
8) The characteristic equation of T flip-flop is given by
a) Q+ = TQ + Q
b) Q+ = TQ + TQ
d) Q+ = TQ+TQ
c) Q+ = TQ
9) Which one of the following is used as toggle switch ?
a) D flip-flop
b) T flip-flop
c) SR flip-flop
d) None of the above
10) The initial content of 4-bit SIPO right shift register shown in figure is 0110.
After six clock pulses are applied contents of shift register will be

a) 1010
c) 0111

b) 1110
d) 1111

11) The numbers of states in 10 bit Johnsons counter are


a) 20
b) 21
c) 10

d) 19

12) A mod-12 synchronous counter is designed by J-K flip-flop, the number of


counts skipped are
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 2
13) In the Moore machine output depends on
a) Only current state
b) Only input
c) Current state and input
d) None of the above
14) A flip-flop is used to store
a) One nibble of information
c) One bit of information

b) One byte of information


d) Two bits of information

______________

Set A

*SLRKM133*

-3-

SLR-KM 133

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) Derive a code table for BCD code 3321 which satisfies self complementary
property.
b) Write the Hamming (7, 4) code using even parity for (1010)2 and (1111)2.
c) Design a 1 : 8 de-multiplexer using only 1 : 2 de-multiplexers. Explain the
operation with truth table.
d) Simplify the following Boolean expression, using four-variable map.
F(w, x, y) = xz + w xy + w(xy + xy)
e) Define following logic family parameters fan-in, fan-out, noise margin and
propagation delay.
3. a) Design a combinational circuit that converts a 4-bit gray code to a 4-bit
binary number using Ex-OR gates only.
b) Attempt any one :

6
(61=6)

i) Design a combinational circuit with three inputs x, y and z and three


outputs, A, B and C. When the binary input is 0, 1, 2 or 3, the binary output
is one greater than the input. When the binary input is 4, 5, 6 or 7, the
binary output is two less than the input. Construct the circuit using NAND
gates only.
ii) Design and implement an odd parity generator and checker for 3 bit
information using a 16:1 de-multiplexer.

Set A

SLR-KM 133

*SLRKM133*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) Construct a T flip-flop using NAND gates. Derive the characteristic equation.


b) Show that JK flip-flop can be used as T flip-flop.
c) Design and explain 3 bit simple ring counter to rotate 011 data.
d) Compare Mealy and Moore machines with examples.
e) Implement the Boolean function F(x, y) = m(1, 2) using PLA.
5. a) Design and implement mod 11 asynchronous counter using JK FF.
Draw neat circuit diagram and waveforms.
b) Attempt any one :

6
(61=6)

i) Draw a JK flip-flop using NAND gates. Derive state diagram and an


excitation table for JK flip-flop.
ii) For the following state table.
Next State

Output

Present State
a

x=0
a

x=1
b

x=0
0

x=1
0

c
d

a
e

d
f

0
0

0
1

f
g

g
a

f
f

0
0

1
1

Draw the corresponding state diagram. Tabulate the reduced state table.
Draw the state diagram corresponding to the reduced state table.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 134

*SLRKM134*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) A doubly linked list performs traversal in
a) circular direction
c) any direction

(114=14)
b) either direction
d) none of these

2) The elements are removed from a stack in ________ order.


a) sequential
b) hierarchical
c) alternative
d) reverse
3) Consider the following Linked List :

If start is pointing to first node of the linked list, then consider the following statement :
start = start next ;
current = start next ;
What will be the value of address field of current ?
a) 3225
b) 2184
c) 5571

d) 5572

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 134

-2-

*SLRKM134*

4) User performs following operations on stack of size 5, then :


push (1);pop (); push (2); push (3); pop (); push (4); pop (); pop (); push (5);
At the end of last operation, total number of elements present in the stack are :
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
5) Suppose a circular queue of capacity (n 1) elements is implemented with an array of
an elements. Assume that the insertion and deletion operation are carried out using
rear and front as array index variables, respectively. Initially, REAR = FRONT = 0. The
conditions to detect full and empty queue are :
a) full : (rear + 1) mod n = = front, empty : rear = = front
b) full : (rear + 1) mod n = = front, empty : (front + 1) mod n = = rear
c) full : rear = = front, empty : (rear +1) mod n = = front
d) full : (front + 1) mod n = = rear, empty : rear = = front
6) A recursive function stops executing when
a) a for loop is executed
b) when a base case is reached
c) when a if statement is executed
d) when local variables are declared
7) Queues serve major role in
a) simulation of recursion
b) simulation of arbitrary linked list
c) simulation of limited resource allocation
d) all of the above
8) Finding the location of the element with a given value is
a) traversal
b) search
c) sort

d) none of these

9) The searching technique that takes 0 (1) time to find a data is


a) linear search
b) binary search
c) hashing

d) tree search

10) A simple graph has no loops. What other property must a simple graph have ?
a) it must be directed
b) it must be undirected
c) it must have at least one vertex
d) it must have no multiple edges
11) A strictly binary tree with a leaves always contain exactly ______ nodes.
a) n
b) 2n
c) n 1
d) 2n 1
12) If the number of records to be sorted is small, then _________ sorting can be efficient.
a) merge
b) heap
c) selection
d) bubble
13) Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm ?
a) must use a sorted array
b) requirement of sorted array is expensive when a lot of insertion and deletions are
needed
c) there must be a mechanism to access middle element directly
d) binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data elements are more than 1500
14) In a binary tree, certain NULL entries are replaced by special pointers which point to
nodes higher in the tree for efficiency ? These special pointers are called
a) leaf
b) branch
c) path
d) thread

______________

Set A

*SLRKM134*

-3-

SLR-KM 134

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(44=16)
1) Write and explain with example the algorithm for the evaluation of postfix expression.
2) Explain different types of queues with diagram.
3) Write a short note on doubly linked list.
4) What is recursion ? Write a recursive program to find GCD of two integers.
5) Convert the following infix notation to postfix notation :
a) (A + B)* C/D
b) A (B + C)* D/E
3. Attempt any two :

(26=12)

1) Write a C program to implement simple queue using singly linked list.


2) Write an algorithm for summing two polynomials using linked list and also illustrate the
addition for polynomials : 3x4 + 4x2 + 2x + 5 and 2x3 + 3x + 7.
3) Write a C program to implement stack using array.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

1) Define the following with diagrams :


a) Cyclic graph
b) Weighted graph
c) Directed graph
d) Isolated graph.
2) How do you insert a key in a binary search tree ? Propose an algorithm to insert a key into
binary search tree.
3) Write a C program to search an element in an array using linear search method.

Set A

SLR-KM 134

-4-

*SLRKM134*

4) Explain bubble sort. Sort the following using bubble sort and show all the iterations
22, 47, 43, 34, 10, 60, 55
5) Define binary search tree. Show all three traversal orders for following tree.

5. Attempt any two :

(26=12)

1) What is hash collision ? Justify how open addressing technique is used to resolve hash
clashes ?
2) For the graph of fig.

a) Find its adjacency linked representation.


b) Elaborate the features of adjacency linked representation.
3) What are the different ways of tree traversal ? Explain each one in detail.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 135

*SLRKM135*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct option :


1) In case of slip ring induction motor
a) rotor winding are connected in open delta connection
b) rotor winding are connected in star connection
c) rotor winding are connected in scott connection
d) rotor winding are connected in delta connection

(201= 20)

2) Auto transformer is used as ________ transformer.


a) welding
b) furnace
c) starter
d) none of the above
3) The speed of a dc series motor is
a) directly proportional to back emf and flux
b) directly proportional to its back emf and inversely proportional to flux
c) inversely proportional to both back emf and flux
d) directly proportional to flux and inversely proportional to back emf
4) The resistance of the series field winding of series motor is ________
a) 102
b) 102
c) 10
d) 5
5) In case of slip ring induction motor
a) only rotor is wound
c) both a and b

b) only stator is wound


d) none of the above

6) Which is the non-conventional type energy source ?


a) Wind
b) Solar
c) Both
d) None of the above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 135

-2-

*SLRKM135*

7) ________ is the starter used for three phase induction motor.


a) DOL starter
b) 3-point starter
c) delta-star starter
d) rotor resistance starter
8) In case of d.c. series motor torque is proportional to
b) I2a
c) Ia/2
d) Va
a) Ia
9) The lagging power factor is due to ______ load.
a) filament lamp
b) heater
c) capacitive
d) induction motor
10) In case of three phase transformer hysteresis losses are reduced by using
a) solid core
b) round core
c) laminated core
d) none of the above
11) Which of the following connections is best suited for high voltage and small
size service ?
a) delta-delta
b) V-V
c) star- star
d) T-T
12) The stator loss of 3 ph. I.M. is 1 Kw and rotor input is P Kw then stator input is
a) P-1
b) P+1
c) 0.5 P
d) none of the above
13) The direction of rotation of a dc motor can be determined by
a) Flemings right hand rule
b) Flemings left hand rule
c) Lenz law
d) Amperes law
14) Power factor = ____
a) KW/KVAR
b) Z/R
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
15) The back emf of a 200 V d.c. motor with armature resistance 1 and Ia 20
(Amp) is
a) 200 V
b) 230 V
c) 260 V
d) 180 V
16) In case two wattmeter method power factor angle is ______
(1.71 * (W1 W2)/(W1+W2)
a) tan1
b) cos1
c) cot1
d) sin1
17) If n is synchronous speed of three phase induction motor in rps and P are the
number of poles, then frequency is _____ Hz
a) 0.5 Pn
b) Pn
c) Pn/12
d) Pn/60
18) Universal motor runs satisfactorily on _______ supply.
a) a.c
b) d.c.
c) a and b
d) none of the above
19) Swinburn test is used for finding
a) no load losses
b) constant losses
c) load losses
d) all losses
20) ______ motor should never be switched ON at no load.
a) The d.c. series
b) The d.c. shunt
c) Cumulative compound
d) Differential compound
______________
Set A

*SLRKM135*

-3-

SLR-KM 135

Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.


2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(64=24)

a) Explain with neat circuit diagram brake load test on d.c. shunt motor.
b) A 500 (Volt) d.c. shunt motor runs at 250 (rpm) and if Ia is 200A. Calculate
the speed when a resistance is inserted in the field reducing the shunt field
80% fits normal value and the armature current at this instance is 100A. Take
Ra = 0.12 .
c) Explain with neat diagram linear induction motor.
d) Explain with neat diagram series parallel speed control method used for DC
series motor.
e) The input power to a 3 phase induction motor was measured by two wattmeter
method. The reading were 10.4 Kw and 3.4 Kw and the voltage was 400 V
(line-line). Find power factor and line current.
3. Attempt any two :

(82=16)

a) Explain with neat diagram electrical breaking used for DC motors.


b) A d.c. series motor drives a load torque of which varies at the square of the
speed. The motor takes a current of 15A when the speed is 600 (rpm). Calculate
the speed and the current when motor field winding is shunted by a diverter of
the same resistance as that of the field winding. Assume
Eb1 = Eb2 and I .
OR
c) Explain with neat diagram electrical power system.
Set A

SLR-KM 135

-4-

*SLRKM135*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(64=24)

a) Compare star-star connection and Delta-Delta connection.


b) Write different methods used for power factor improvement and explain any
one.
c) A rotor resistance of 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz slip ring induction motor is 0.024
per phase and rotor reactance per phase at stand still is 0.12 .
Calculate :
i) rotor impedance per phase at stand still.
ii) slip and speed at maximum torque.
d) Write short note on DOL starter.
e) Write equation for starting torque and drive condition for maximum starting
torque.
5. Attempt any two :

(82=16)

a) Derive copper saving in auto transformer is K times Copper volume in two


winding transformer.
b) The power input to the rotor of 440 v 50 Hz 6 pole there phase induction
motor is 100 kw. The rotor electromotive force is observed to make 120
cycles per minute. Calculate a slip, speed of the, rotor copper loss per
phase and mechanical power developed.
c) Compare three phase slip ring induction motor and squarel cage induction
motor.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 136

*SLRKM136*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

All the questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Use of electronic data sheet is allowed.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The two stages of a cascade amplifier have individual upper cut-off frequencies
f1= 5MHz and f2 = 3.33 MHz. What is the best approximation for the upper cut-off
frequency of the cascade combination ?
a) 4.16 MHz
b) 3.33 MHz
c) 2.5 MHz
d) 5.00 MHz
2) Which one of the following is NOT true for direct coupled amplifiers ?
a) Low cost
b) Can amplify high frequency signals
c) Can amplify low frequency signals
d) Operating point shifts with temperature variations
3) The major advantage of dc amplifiers is that it
a) Uses less no. of components
b) Has very good temperature stability
c) Does not use frequency sensitive components
d) Can amplify direct current and low frequency signals
4) In a transistor push pull amplifier
a) There is no dc present in the output
b) There is no distortion present in the output
c) There are no even harmonics in the output
d) There are no odd harmonics in the output
5) Which one of the following has the maximum efficiency ?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class AB
6) High power efficiency of push-pull amplifier is due to the fact that
a) Each transistor conducts on different cycles of the input
b) Transistors are placed in CE configuration
c) There is no collector current in the absence of input signal
d) Low forward biasing voltage is required

d) Class C

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 136

*SLRKM136*

-2-

7) In the shunt series feedback amplifier, the basic amplifier and the feedback network are
parallel connected at the input and series connected at the output. The signal sampled
and the summing down will be respectively
a) Current and current
b) Current and voltage
c) Voltage and current
d) Voltage and voltage
8) To obtain very high input and output impedances in a feedback amplifier, the topology used is
a) Voltage series
b) Current series c) Voltage shunt
d) Current shunt
9) Emitter follower circuit is an example of ___________
a) Voltage series
b) Current series c) Voltage shunt

d) Current shunt

10) Which of the following will be true if emitter resistor is made equal to zero ?
1) Its gain will increase
2) Its stability will increase
3) Its gain will decrease
4) Its stability will decrease
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
11) Power dissipation of controlling transistor in a regulator circuit is
a) Much less than comparator transistor b) Zero
c) Equal to comparator transistor
d) Much higher than comparator transistor
12) In series voltage regulator maximum power dissipation in series pass transistor is
a) (Vinmax Vomax) ICmin
b) (Vinmax Vomin) ICmax
c) (Vinmin Vomin) ICmin
d) (Vinmin Vomax) ICmax
13) The protection circuit which not only limits the output current, but gradually reduces to
zero if short circuit condition occurs.
a) Simple current limiting circuit
b) Foldback current protection circuit
c) Thermal shut down circuit
d) None of the above
14) In IC555 if control voltage at pin 5 decreases the frequency of output signal is
a) Increase
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Both b) and c)
15) To convert sine wave to square wave using IC555, the external AC signal is connected to
a) Pin 2
b) Pin 6
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
16) For linear ramp generator application using IC555 ___________ is used.
a) Bistable multivibrator
b) Astable multivibrator
c) Schmitt trigger
d) Monostable multivibrator
17) It is required to stretch a 5 sec pulse to duration of 5msec. An appropriate circuit to be
used for this is
a) Monostable multivibrator
b) Astable multivibrator
c) Both a) & b)
d) Bistable multivibrator
18) In Wein Bridge oscillator positive feedback circuit is _____ and negative feedback circuit is_____
a) Resistive, lag lead circuit
b) Lad lead circuit, resistive circuit
c) Resistive circuit, RC circuit
d) LC circuit, RC circuit
19) Output capacitor for IC regulator is required
a) To reduce output voltage
b) To improve transient response
c) To reduce noise present in output
d) Both b) and c)
20) The condition for sustained oscillation in Hartly oscillator is__________
a) hfe >

L1 M
L2 M

b) hfe

L1 + M
L2 + M

c) hfe

______________

L1 + M
L2 + M

d) hfe

L1 M
L2 M

Set A

*SLRKM136*

-3-

SLR-KM 136

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Use of electronic data sheet is allowed.
SECTION I
2. Answer the following (any 4) :

(45=20)

1) Derive the expression for efficiency of Class B amplifier.


2) Describe various methods of cascading transistor amplifiers.
3) An amplifier with negative feedback gives an o/p of 12.5 V with an input of 1.5 V. When
feedback is removed, it requires 0.25 V input for the same o/p.
Find :
a) Value of voltage gain without feedback
b) Value of .
4) What is the effect of negative feedback on voltage gain of an amplifier ?
Identify the type of negative feedback present in the following circuit. Calculate feedback
factor .

5) Write down the design steps of direct coupled amplifier.

Set A

SLR-KM 136

-4-

3. Answer the following (any 2) :

*SLRKM136*
(210=20)

1) Calculate maximum output Ac power, maximum input dc power, maximum percentage


efficiency and transistor dissipation for a Class B amplifier using a supply of Vcc = 28V
and driving a load of 16 .
2) Derive the expression for voltage gain, current gain, input resistance of a two stage RC
coupled amplifier. What is meant by loading effect ?
3) Design a single stage RC coupled amplifier to provide a closed loop voltage gain of 60.
Employ current series feedback.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four questions :

(45=20)

1) Explain working of power on delay circuit.


2) Explain working of current boosting circuit for IC voltage regulators.
3) Draw neat circuit diagram Colpitts Oscillator. Derive an expression for its frequency of
oscillation.
4) Discuss how three terminal voltage regulators IC can be employed to realize an adjustable
output voltage and constant current source.
5) Design square wave generator using IC555 for Vo = 10V (amplitude) and fo = 10KHz and
duty cycle <= 50%.
5. Solve any two questions :

(102=20)

1) Design a Hartly oscillator for following specification :


Frequency of oscillation = 5MHz, Vo (peak) = 4 Vrms, RL = 2K ,
Use BC147B hfe = 330, hie = 4.5 K .
2) Design a transistorized series voltage regulator for 12V at 100mA. The unregulated power
supply provides output of 24V. Select transistor with following specification.
ECN100 PD(max) = 5W, hfe = 50
BC147B PD(max) = 250 mW, hfe = 200.
3) Explain Monostable Multivibrator with internal circuitry. Derive an expression for pulse
width.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 137

*SLRKM137*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015
ANALOG COMMUNICATION

Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) In an Am transmitter, the unmodulated output current is Ic, the modulated current it equals
a) Ic 1+ m 2

b) Ic 1+

m2
2

c) Ic 1+ m

d)

1cm
2

2) If modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted power


a) Increases by 50%
b) Increased by 75%
c) Increased by 100%
d) Remains unaffected
3) Which of the following steps is not included in the process of reception ?
a) Decoding
b) Encoding
c) Storage
d) Interpretation
4) If the carrier of a 100 % modulated AM wave is suppressed, the percentage power saving
will be
a) 50
b) 150
c) 100
d) 66.66
5) The bandwidth of AM system
a) fm
b) 0.5 fm

c) 2 fm

d) 4 fm

6) The image channel rejection in a super heterodyne receiver comes from


a) IF stage only
b) RF stage only
c) Detector and RF stages only
d) Detector, RF and IF stage
7) Following is not the purpose of modulation
a) Multiplexing
c) Narrow Banding

b) Effective Radiation
d) Increase in signal power

8) One of the following cannot be used to remove the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the
a) filter system
b) phase-shift method
c) third method
d) balanced modulator
9) The audio frequency range is
a) 10 Hz to 1 KHz
c) 20 Hz to 20 KHz

b) 80 MHz to 108 MHz


d) 1 KHz to 1 MHz
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 137

*SLRKM137*

-2-

10) If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10 KW, the power in the carrier for modulation
index of 0.6 is nearly
a) 8.24 KW
b) 8.47 KW
c) 9.26 KW
d) 9.6 KW
11) Major advantage of Armstrong modulator is that
a) it is capable of producing WBFM signals
b) the centre frequency (carrier frequency when unmodulated) is extremely stable
c) a large depth of modulation can be achieved
d) none of these
12) The correct sequence of subsystem in an FM receiver is
a) mixer, RF amplifier, limiter, IF amplifier, discriminator, audio amplifier
b) RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, limiter, discriminator, audio amplifier
c) RF amplifier, mixer, limiter, discriminator, IF amplifier, audio amplifier
d) mixer, IF amplifier, limiter, audio amplifier, discriminator
13) FM broadcast standards specify a maximum deviation of frequency to be equal to 75
kHz and maximum modulating frequency of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index for
FM wave ?
a) 1/5
b) 5
c) 60
d) 1125
14) In the frequency modulation, if fm is the modulating frequency, f of the maximum
frequency deviation and B is the bandwidth, then
a) B = f + fm
b) B = f fm
c) B = 2( f + fm)
d) B = 2 ( f fm)
15) Ground wave propagation is most effective in what frequency range ?
a) 300 kHz to 3 MHz b) 30 to 300 MHz c) 3 to 30 MHz
d) Above 300 MHz
16) The type of radio wave responsible for long distance communication by multiple skips is
the
a) Ground wave
b) Surface wave
c) Direct wave
d) Sky wave
17) The noise figure of an amplifier is 3 dB. Its noise temperature will be about
a) 145 K
b) 290 K
c) 580 K
d) 870 K
18) Noise voltage varies in a resistor as
a) 4 KTRB

b)

4KTRB

c)

2elpB

d)

2elpB.R

19) Number of call attempts in a busy hour is called


a) Busy Hour Call Attempts
b) Call Completion Rate
c) Busy Hour Calling Rate
d) Traffic Intensity
20) The important parameter for estimation of Traffic intensity are/is
a) average call arrival rate
b) average holding time per call
c) both a and b
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM137*

-3-

SLR-KM 137

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ANALOG COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(46=24)
a) Explain, with the aid of waveforms, how a grid-modulated class C amplifier generates AM.
b) Define modulation and modulation index. Why modulation is necessary ?
c) Explain phase shift method for generation of SSB-SC with the help of block diagram.
d) Explain why VSB is required in video transmission. Draw frequency response and show
different elements.
e) What are different element of communication system and state the application of
communication system.
3. Attempt any two :
(28=16)
a) Draw and explain superheterodyne receiver. What are its advantages and disadvantages
over TRF receiver ?
b) A audio frequency of 10 sin 2 (500t) is used to amplitude modulated carrier of 50 sin 2
(105 t), calculate :
i) Modulation index
ii) Sideband frequency
iii) Amplitude of each side band
iv) Bandwidth required.
c) The antenna current of an AM transmitter is 8 amperes (8A) when only the carrier is sent,
but it increases to 8.93 A when the carrier is modulated by a single sine wave. Find the
percentage modulation. Determine the antenna current when the percent of modulation
changes to 0.8.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

16

a) The carrier swing of a frequency modulated signal is 70 KHz and the modulating signal is
a 7 KHz sine wave determine the modulation index of the FM signal.
b) What is noise ? What are it effects ? Explain classification for noise.
c) Explain pulse dialing.
d) Define characteristics of antenna.
e) Explain Sky wave propagation.

Set A

SLR-KM 137

-4-

*SLRKM137*

5. Attempt any three :

24

a) With suitable diagram explain ratio detector. What are its advantages ?
b) With suitable circuit diagram, explain FET reactance modulator. Derive an equation for
equivalent capacitive reactance.
c) With suitable diagram explain Simple PAM Time Division Switching.
d) 1) Derive an expression for noise equivalent resistance due to cascading of many
amplifiers.
2) What is significance of noise equivalent resistance ? How it is useful ?
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 138

*SLRKM138*
S

S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Select suitable option :

Marks : 20
(120=20)

1) If Vio = Rc/Rb, we are talking about


a) offset compensating network
b) inverting amplifier
c) input bias compensating network d) none of these
2) The gain bandwidth product of 741 is
a) 1 MHz
b) 5 Hz
c) 4 MHz

d) None of these

3) Output offset voltage changes with


a) temperature
b) time
c) supply voltage
d) all of these
4) Stopband roll off rate in a third order filter is __________ dB/decade.
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80
5) A high frequency Op Amp equivalent circuit differs from a low frequency Op amp
equivalent circuit by
a) addition of resistor
b) change of gain
c) addition of a capacitor
d) no change
6) The maximum time rate of change of the output voltage is called
a) transient response
b) frequency response
c) roll off rate
d) slew rate
7) If f =


we are talking about a




a) first order filter


c) third order filter

b) second order filter


d) phase shift oscillator

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 138

*SLRKM138*

-2-

8) Make odd man out : UGB, small signal bandwidth, unity gain cross over
frequency, break frequency
a) UGB
b) small signal bandwidth
c) unity gain cross over frequency d) break frequency
9) Maximum operating frequency of 565 PLL is __________
a) 50 KHz
b) 500 KHz
c) 5 MHz
d) 50 MHz
10) High Pass Filter is designed by interchanging _________ and _________ of low
pass filter.
a) R1 and R2
b) R and C
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of a) and b)
11) Which of the below is true for a practical op amp ?
a) takes current from source
b) two inputs respond differently to voltage and current
c) shifts operation due to temperature
d) all of above
12) Output resistance of a 741C is _________ ohms.
a) zero
b) 50
c) 75

d) none of these

13) Bode plot is used for ___________


a) Feedback analysis
b) Thermal drift calculations
c) CMRR calculations
d) Stability analysis
14) ___________ is the gain (for inverting as well non inverting) calculated by short
circuiting all voltage sources and opening all current sources.
a) open loop gain
b) close loop gain
c) Anoise
d) feedback gain
15) For a Schmitt trigger, Vut Vlt is called _________
a) differential voltage
b) loop gain
c) hysteresis
d) trigger voltage
16) A negative clipper with zero reference voltage is
a) zero crossing detector
b) positive half wave rectifier
c) negative half wave rectifier
d) full wave rectifier
17) An ideal filter has _________ loss in pass band and ________ loss in stop band.
a) infinite, infinite b) infinite, zero c) zero, infinite d) zero, zero
18) __________ is a multiple feedback filter.
a) narrow band pass
b) wide band pass
c) narrow band stop
d) all pass
19) For a phase shift oscillator gain must be _________
a) 3
b) 29
c) less than 1
d) no such condition
20) For a log amplifier we can use _________ in feedback loop.
a) resistor
b) capacitor
c) diode
d) all of these
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM138*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 138

S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary
SECTION I
2. a) Explain significance and typical value of each. Differential Input Resistance/Input
Resistance, Common Mode Rejection Ratio, Supply Voltage Rejection Ratio, Slew
Rate of Op Amp.
8
b) Design an offset voltage compensating network for LM 307 op amp. The op amp
uses 10 V supply voltages and input offset voltage Vio specified is 10 mV.


OR
c) For below circuit derive expression for voltage gain (exact and ideal).

d) Explain Summing, Scaling and Averaging Amplifier using non inverting


configuration.

3. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) Explain multistage roll off.


b) Draw and discuss non inverting amplifier with complete compensating network.
c) What are various thermal drifts ? What are the various ways to specify them ?
Set A

SLR-KM 138

-4-

*SLRKM138*

d) Draw and explain high frequency Op Amp equivalent circuit.


e) With suitable example explain how Op Amp with less slew rate causes distortion
with closed loop applications.
SECTION II
4. a) With suitable diagram explain log and antilog amplifier.

b) For circuit below derive for output voltage and sketch its output for a sinusoidal
input.

OR
c) Draw and explain third order low pass Butterworth filter. Discuss design procedure
and comment on component selection.
8
d) Derive for condition required for oscillations. Also classify oscillators.
5. Solve any four :

8
(44=16)

a) With suitable block diagram explain VCO.


b) With suitable diagram explain PLL as a frequency multiplier.
c) Explain how 1408 can be used as a DAC with unipolar range.
d) Explain successive approximation type ADC.
e) Draw and explain narrow band pass filter.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 139

*SLRKM139*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. :

Max. Marks : 100

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :

(201=20)

1) With (t ) as unit impulse sequence, x(t) (t t o ) is


b) x(to)
c) x(to) (t t o )
a) x(t) . (t )

d) x(t to)

2) If the average power of the signal satisfies the condition 0 < p < is called
a) Energy signal
b) Power signal
c) Primary signal
d) Random signal
3) Consider signal given below, identify type of signal

a) Even

b) Odd

c) Synchronous

d) Symmetric

c) 1

d) 0

4) Even part of unit step signal is


a) 12

b)

1
sgnt
2

5) Invertible systems are those systems, where


a) output can be uniquely obtained from the knowledge of input
b) input signal can be uniquely determined by observing output signal
c) both a) and b)
d) system output is always constant

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 139

*SLRKM139*

-2-

6) Find wrong mathematical relationship


a)

h(k ) x(n k) =

k=0

c) h(n) * u(n) =

x(k ) h(n k )

k=0

h(k ) (k )

b) h(n) * x(n) =

h(k ) x(n k )

k =

d) {x(n) * h1(n)} * h2(n) = x(n) * {h1(n) * h2(n)}

k =

7) Fourier transform of function f(at) is


b) 2 a f (w )

a) a f(w)

c)

( )

1 w
f
a
a

d) None

8) The Fourier transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always


a) Imaginary
b) Real
c) Conjugate antisymmetric
d) Conjugate symmetric
9) The Fourier series expansion of an odd periodic function contains _________ terms only.
a) consine
b) sine
c) DC and sine
d) DC and cosine
10) x(n) = a|n|, |a| < 1 is
a) an energy signal
c) neither an energy nor power signal

b) a power signal
d) an energy as well as power signal

11) With sampling frequency Ws and highest frequency Wm, in sampling theorem which of
the following must be true
a) Ws > Wm
b) Ws 2 Wm
c) Ws 2 Wm
d) Ws > 2 Wm
12) Which of the following is the method used for reconstruction of signal from its samples
a) zero-order hold
b) linear interpolation c) both a) and b) d) none of these
13) If x(n) is causal finite duration sequence the ROC of X(z) is __________
a) entire z plane except z =
b) entire z plane except z = 0
c) entire z plane except z = 0 and z = d) entire z plane
14) A coin is tossed three times, the probability that tail shows at least once is
a) 7/8
b) 1/8
c) 3/8
d) 1/3
15) The mean valve of a uniformly distributed random variable between a to b is
a) (a + b ) 2

b) (b a ) 2

c) (a + b)

d) None of these

16) The second order central moment of a random variable is known as


a) Mean square value b) Variance c) Standard deviation
d) Expected value
17) For the statistically independent random variable the correlation coefficient is
a) 1
b) 1
c) zero
d) infinity

18) The probability density function f(x) and distribution function F(x) are related by
a) F(x ) =

d f (x )
dx

b) F(x ) = f (x ) dx
0

c) f (x ) =

F(x ) dx

d) f (x ) =

d F (x )
dx

19) Which of the following is true for probability of any event A.


a) 0 P(A ) 1

b) P(A ) 1

c) P(A ) 0

20) The causal system with impulse response h(t) = e2t u(t) is
a) unstable
b) stable
c) noncausal
______________

d) 1 P(A ) 1

d) stable and causal


Set A

*SLRKM139*

-3-

SLR-KM 139

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if required.

2. Attempt any four :


a) Find whether the following signals are energy or power signals.

(64=24)

1) x(t) = cost
2) e

j 2t +

).

b) Find the odd and even parts of the given signal

c) Investigate
i) Causality
ii) Stability of the following system
1) h(n) = 2n u(n 1)
2) h(n) = (0.5)|n|.
d) Consider a CT LTI system with unit impulse response h(t) = u(t) and input x(t) = eat u(t),
find the output y(t) of the system.
e) Explain the following properties of Fourier transform
1) Modulation property
2) Scaling property.

Set A

SLR-KM 139

*SLRKM139*

-4-

3. Attempt any two :

(82=16)

a) Draw the amplitude and phase spectrum of a periodic time domain signal shown in Fig.

b) Find the Fourier transform of x(t) = e a |t| draw its spectrum.


c) Obtain the convolution sum of the following DT sequences
1
x(n) =
0

0n4
otherwise

n 0 n 6
h(n) =
.
0 otherwise

4. Attempt any four :

(46=24)

a) Write short note on aliasing : effect of under sampling.


b) Consider an LTI system with system function H(s ) =

s 1
(s + 1) (s 2)

Obtain the impulse response of above system if


i) it is causal
ii) it is stable
iii) anticausal and unstable.
c) A random variable has a probability distribution function
F (x ) = 0

< x 0

= 1 e 3 x 0 x <

Find :
i) the probability that x > 0.5
ii) find the probability that x 0.25
iii) find the probability that 0.3 x 0.7.

Set A

*SLRKM139*

-5-

SLR-KM 139

d) An honest coin is tossed three times


i) Sketch the sample space showing all possible elements. Let X be a random variable
that has values representing the number of heads obtained on any tripple toss. Sketch
the mapping of S on real line defining X.
ii) Find the probabilities of values of X.
e) Consider the random variable X uniformly distributed between 2 to 4. Obtain the mean
value and variance of X. Sketch the distribution.
5. Attempt any two :

(28=16)

a) Explain the importance of z transform in the analysis of discrete time LIT system.
Consider the system with transfer function
H(z ) =

1
1
+

1
1 2z 1 with ROC
1 1 z
2

i) |z| > 2
ii) |z| < 12

iii) 12 < |z| < 2.


State whether the system is causal and/or stable. Justify your answer.
b) Define probability density function. State its properties
Find a constant b > 0 so that the function
3 x 4
f (x ) = e
0

0xb
is a valid probability density.
otherwise

c) State and explain sampling theorem.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 140

*SLRKM140*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume data, if necessary.
5) All questions are compulsory.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Missile launching and guidance system is the example of _________ system.


a) Feedback control
b) Open loop control
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
2) Slow response is given by _________ system.
a) open loop
b) closed loop

c) both (a) and (b)

3) Which of the following is used in digital position control system ?


a) A.C. servomotor
b) Synchro
c) Stepper motor

d) none of these
d) D.C. servomotor

4) The transfer function for following block diagram is

a)

G(s)
1 + G(s)  H(s)

b)

G(s)
1 G(s)  H(s)

c)

1
1 + G(s)  H(s)

d)

1
1 G(s)  H(s)

5) In case of synchro error detector, the electrical zero position of control transformer is obtained
when angular displacement between rotor is __________
a) zero
b) 45
c) 90
d) 180
6) Which of the following can work as error detecting device ?
i) A pair of potentiometers
ii) A pair of synchros
iii) A metadyne
iv) A control transformer
a) i & ii
b) iii & iv
c) ii, iii, iv
d) iv
7) f (t) = A  (t) in this equation unit impulse occurs when A =
a) zero
b) one
c) > 1

d) < 1

8) When damping factor = 1, then system is ___________


a) over damped
b) critically damped c) under damped

d) none of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 140

*SLRKM140*

-2-

9) Parallel compensation is also called as ____________


a) Feedback compensation
b) Cascade compensation
c) Series compensation
d) Series-parallel compensation
10) Peak time tp =
a)

b)

c)

d)

11) In frequency domain analysis the input is __________


a) step signal
b) sinewave with variable frequency
c) ramp signal
d) parabolic signal
12) Angle of departure in the root locus is given by ________
a) d = 180 (p z )

b) d = 180 ( z p )

c) d = (z p ) 180

d) d = (p z ) 180

13) Lead compensation is used to ___________


a) Improve steady state response
c) Both (a) and (b)

b) Increase bandwidth
d) None of these

14) In frequency domain analysis the resonant frequency for IInd order system is given by
a) r = n 1 2 2

b) r =

n
1 2

c) r =

1 2 2
n

d) r = n (1 2 2 )

15) A system has the following open loop transfer function; it consists of ________ open loop poles and
_________ open loop zeros G(s) =
a) 1&4

K (s + 4)
the centroid is at _____
(s + 1) (s + 2) (s + 3)

b) 3&1

c) k&3

16) In Bode plot on X-axis __________ is taken.


a) frequency
c) magnitude in db

d) 3&k

b) log frequency
d) phase angle in degree

17) Each branch of root locus of the characteristics equation of a closed loop control system begins
from
a) closed loop pole
b) open loop poles
c) closed loop zero
d) open loop zero
18) In type zero system __________
a) No pole is at origin
b) One zero is at origin
c) Both zero and poles are at origin
d) None of these
19) Cascade compensation is also called as ____________
a) Parallel compensation
b) Feedback compensation
c) Series compensation
d) Series parallel compensation
20) The angle with real axis by asymptote in root locus is given by ______________
a) =

(2q + 1) 180
where q = 0, 1, 2, ....., (P Z 1)
PZ

(2q + 1) 180
where q = 1, 2, ...., (P Z)
PZ
(2q + 1) 180
c) =
where q = 0, 1, 2, ...., (P Z 1)
P+Z
(2q + 1) 180
d) =
where q = 1, 2, ....., (P Z)
Z P

b) =

______________

Set A

*SLRKM140*

SLR-KM 140

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume data, if necessary.
3) All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(64=24)

1) Derive the transfer function of series R-L circuit.


2) Explain A.C. servomotor in detail.
3) Find transfer function for given block diagram.

4) Derive response of Ist order system to unit step input.


5) Unity feedback control system whose open loop transfer function is G(s) =

2s
H(s) = 1
s(s + 6)

Find :
i) damping factor
ii) damping frequency
iii) rise time
iv) peak time
v) peak overshoot
vi) t s .

Set A

SLR-KM 140

*SLRKM140*

-4-

3. a) What is synchro ? Explain A.C. control position system using synchro.

b) Solve any one :

i) What is control system ? Explain types of control system and explain liquid level control system.
ii) Obtain overall transfer function C/R for following signal flow graph.

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(46=24)

a) Using Rouths criterion determine the stability of system for following characteristic equation
F(s) = S3 + 5S2 + 6S + 30 = 0.
b) State the rules for determining centroid and breakaway point in construction of root locus.
c) State advantages and limitations of frequency domain approach.
d) Explain with neat diagram lead compensator.
e) Find forced sinusoidal response for following system G(s) =

s
with input signal
s+3

r(t) = 7 cos (2t).


5. Solve any two :

(28=16)

a) Sketch the phase plot and determine the phase cross over frequency for the system
G(s) =

10
.
s(1 + 0.5 s) (1 + 0.1s)

b) Sketch the root locus for the system G(s) H(s) =

K
.
s(s + 1) (s + 3)

c) Using Rouths criterion determine the range of K for stability of system given by following characteristic
equation S4 + 25S3 + 15S2 + 20S + K = 0.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 141

*SLRKM141*
S

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

(201=20)

1) Realization structure for IIR system that uses less number of delay elements is
a) Direct form I
b) Direct form II
c) Cascade form
d) Parallel form
2) Consider the transfer function

. The given system is


1

a) FIR system

b) IIR system

3) N point sequence is circularly even if


a) X(n) = x( n)
c) X(N n) = x(n)

c) LTI system

d) None of these

b) X(n) = x( n)
d) X(N n) = x(n)

4) If sequence x(n) = {2, 5, 4, 3} then the signal x(( n))4 is


a) { 2, 5, 4, 3}
b) {2, 5, 4, 3}
c) {2, 3, 4, 5}
d) {2, 3, 4, 5}
5) In the basic butterfly structure for DIT FFT algorithm, number of complex multiplications
and additions are
a) 2 and 1 respectively
b) 1 and 2 respectively
c) 2 and 4 respectively
d) 4 and 2 respectively
6) The relationship between S-domain and Z-domain is
a) Z = eST
b) Z = e jST
c) S = eZT

d) Z = eST

7) Determine the convolution sum of two sequences x(n) = {3, 2, 1, 2} and h(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2}
a) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 4, 4}
b) y(n) = {3, 0, 3, 12, 9, 4, 4}
c) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 1, 4}
d) y(n) = {4, 8, 2, 1, 9, 4, 4}
8) Fast convolution techniques
a) overlap save
b) overlap add

c) a) and b)

d) none of above

9) Number of delay elements are required for direct form I realization of


y(n) = 0.5y (n 1) 0.35y (n 2) + x(n) + 0.2 x(n 1) are
a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 141

*SLRKM141*

-2-

10) When a sequence is circularly shifted in time by 5 units, the magnitude response of DFT
a) increased by 5
b) remains unchanged
c) remains constant
d) shifts by 5 units
11) The features in which P-DSP is superior to advanced microprocessor is
a) low cost
b) low power
c) computational speed
d) real time I/O capability
12) The addressing mode that is convenient for FFT computation is
a) indirect addressing
b) circular mode addressing
c) bit reversed addressing
d) memory mapped addressing
13) Texas instruments TMS 320C5X processor is
a) floating point DSP
b) fixed point DSP
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
14) IIR filters are
a) Recursive type
c) Neither recursive nor non recursive
15) Non linearity in the relationship between
a) Aliasing
c) Unwarping
16) Butterworth filters have
a) Wide transition region
c) Oscillation in transition region

b) Non recursive type


d) None of the above
and
is known as
b) Frequency warping
d) Frequency mixing


b) Sharp transition region


d) Maximally flat passband

17) To convert the analog LPF with cutoff frequency


we need to transform


a) s

c to HPF with cutoff frequency




c*

b) s

c) s


5

d) s


I


18) The primary effect of quantizing filter coefficients is


a) Reduction in the signal to noise ratio
b) Change in the positions of poles and zeros of H(z)
c) Product round off errors
d) All of the above
19) The ideal filters are
a) Causal
c) May be causal or non causal

b) Non causal
d) None of these

20) The approximate width of the main lobe in Blackman window of length M is
a) 8 /M
b) 4 /M
c) 12 /M
d) None of the above
______________


Set A

*SLRKM141*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 141

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) How to obtain the causality and stability from the system transfer function ? Explain with
example.
b) If the DFT of x(n) = {1 2 3 4} is X(K) = {12 1 3j 2 1 + 3j). Obtain DFT of
X1(n) = {1 4 3 2} and X2(n) = {2 3 4 1}. Use DFT properties.
c) State and prove circular time reversal property of DFT of a DT signal.
d) Find 4 point DFT of DT signal given below
x[n] = 2n

n


3.

e) What is signal flow graph ? How to obtain signal flow graph for a given direct form structure ?
Explain with example.
f) Derive the expression for circular convolution. State the DFT property of circular
convolution.
3. Solve any two of the following :

(210=20)

a) Explain how N point DFT can be calculated using N/2 point DFTs using Decimation in
Time with necessary equations. Compute DFT of x(n) = {1, 3, 5, 3} using DIT FFT
algorithm.
b) Obtain Direct form I, Direct form II, cascade and parallel realizations for the system
y(n) = 0.1y(n 1) + 0.2y(n 2) + 3x(n) + 3.6x(n 1) + 0.6x(n 2).
c) The first five points of 8 point DFT of a real sequence x(n) are
{36, 1.8284 + j12.07, 0, 3.8284 + j2.07, 0}.
Determine the DFT of following sequences using DFT properties.
i) x1(n) = x(( n))8
ii) x2(n) = x((n + 2))8
iii) x3(n) = x(n).

Set A

SLR-KM 141

*SLRKM141*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(46=24)

a) Convert the analog filter to digital filter whose system function is


1

The digital filter should have a resonant frequency of wr = 0.1


method.


. Use impulse invariant

b) What distinguishes a digital signal processor from a general purpose microprocessor


with regard to basic capabilities ? Explain.
c) Explain the applications of digital signal processing in Image Processing field.
d) Explain in brief the finite word length effects in FIR filter design.
e) Write note on Symmetric and Anti symmetric FIR filters.
f) Draw and explain the magnitude characteristics of Butterworth LPF. Also give its pole
locations of order N = 5.
5. Attempt any two :

(28=16)

a) What is Bilinear transformation ? Derive the relation between S and Z domain mapping.
Draw the mapping between analog and digital frequency variable.
b) Design a digital Butterworth filter to meet the following constraints :
0

Using Bilinear transformation. Use T = 1 sec.


c) The desired frequency response of a low pass filter is



Determine hd(n). Also determine h(n) using rectangular window of length M = 7.


Obtain

.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 142

*SLRKM142*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSORS AND INTERFACING
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Objective questions :

(201=20)

1) If the memory chip size is 1024 4-bits how many chips are required to make 4K
bytes of memory ?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 4096
2) The memory map of a 1KB memory begins at the location 4000 H. What is the last
location on the chip ?
a) 43FFH
b) 4FFFH
c) 47FFH
d) 7FFFH
3) What is the addressing mode used in instruction LXI H, 9000h ?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Indexed
d) Immediate
4) In the TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, which is having low priority
a) TRAP
b) RST 7.5
c) RST 6.5
d) RST 5.5
5) Number of address lines required to access 64KB of memory are
a) 10
b) 16
c) 12
d) 13
6) The instruction STA 9000 requires ______ T-states.
a) 13
b) 7
c) 10

d) 18

7) Vector location of RST 7.5 interrupt is


a) 0024H
b) 002CH

d) 003CH

c) 0034H

8) The unit that supervises each instruction in the microprocessor 8085 is


a) ALU
b) Control Unit
c) Accumulator
d) Instruction decoder
9) Which of below makes accumulator zero
a) XRA A
b) CMA
c) ORA A

d) ANA A
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 142

*SLRKM142*

-2-

10) W and Z are _______ registers in 8085.


a) special
b) general purpose
c) temporary
d) all of above
11) The control register of 8251 is
a) 16 bit
b) 4 bit

c) 8 bit

12) The 8253 mode 3 is


a) Interrupt on terminal count
c) Rate generator

b) H/W retriggerable one shot


d) Square wave generator

13) The eight bit ADC having resolution


a) 1/16
b) 1/64

c) 1/128

d) 6 bit

d) 1/256

14) For I/O mapped I/O, control signals used are


a) Active low RD and WR
b) Active high RD and WR
c) Active low IOR and IOW
d) Active low MEMR and MEMW
15) A BSR mode of 8255 affects only one bit in
a) Port A
b) Port B
c) Port C

d) Port D

16) For bidirectional data transfer, 8255 can be used in


a) Mode 0
b) Mode 1
c) Mode 2

d) BSR mode

17) _______ can be used as an input port.


a) Buffer
b) Latch
c) Decoder

d) Encoder

18) For DAC 0808, the output _______ is proportional to input digital count.
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
d) Voltage and Current
19) What is SIM ?
a) Select Interrupt Mask
c) Set Interrupt Mask

b) Sorting Interrupt Mask


d) Set Input Mask

20) Control register and status register of 8251 are having the same address.
a) True
b) False

______________

Set A

*SLRKM142*

-3-

SLR-KM 142

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSORS AND INTERFACING
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four :

(45=20)

a) How four control signals are generated from three control signals of 8085 ?
b) Explain different addressing modes in 8085.
c) Write an assembly program to find largest number from given array of 10 elements.
d) Write a program to count the odd numbers from the given array of 10 elements.
e) Define T state, Machine cycle and instruction cycle.
3. Answer any two :

(210=20)

a) Interface one 4K 8 EPROM and two 2K 8 RAM with 8085 such that the
starting address assigned to each memory chip is 0000H, 8000H and 9000H
respectively using a 3 8 decoder IC.
b) Two arrays of ten numbers each are stored from 8000h and 8100h onwards. Write
a programs to add them and store result from 8200h. Explain key instructions used
in the program.
c) Explain how interrupts are enabled and disabled and pending interrupts are read.
Explain hardware interrupts of 8085.
SECTION II
4. Answer any four :

(45=20)

a) Draw the block diagram of 8253 and explain it.


b) Draw timing diagram for the instruction : 1234 : IN 20 h.
c) Draw and explain dual slope ADC.
d) Explain mode of operations of 8255.
e) Interface 4 LEDs to the 8085 and write a program to turn on and off the LEDs
continuously.

Set A

SLR-KM 142

-4-

*SLRKM142*

5. Answer any two :

(210=20)

a) Interface DAC 0808 to 8085 and write a program to generate :


i) Square wave. Write the frequency of generated square wave
ii) Saw tooth wave
b) Interface stepper motor to 8085. Write a program to run stepper motor for two
revolutions.
c) Explain the mode and command words of 8251. Write a program to transmit 10
bytes serially. Assume baud rate 16x, 8 bits/character, 1 stop bit.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 143

*SLRKM143*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015
ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING

Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Which of the following is/are vector quantity(s) ?


a) force
b) electric field intensity
c) acceleration
d) all of these
2) If two vectors are orthogonal, then their scalar product is
a) 1
b) 0
c)

d) 100

3) The vector product obeys the _________ law.


a) Commutative
b) Associative
c) Distributive

d) Parallelogram

4) r in Cylindrical coordinates corresponding to Cartesian coordinate (3, 4, 5) is


a) 12
b) 7
c) 10
d) 5
5) In a Spherical coordinate system, is
a) angle of elevation
b) azimuthal angle
c) distant from the origin to the point
d) all of these
6) In terms of Spherical coordinate system variables, y of Cartesian coordinate system
is given as
a) r sin cos
b) r sin sin
c) r cos sin
d) r cos cos
7) Gradient represents the _________ of maximum space rate of increase of a scalar
field.
a) magnitude
b) direction
c) both (a) an (b) d) none of these
8) Conduction current through a wire is ________ displacement current in capacitor.
a) Same as
b) Different from c) Twice of
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 143

*SLRKM143*

-2-

9) Wave attenuation is given as


a) e + x
b) e x
c) e + x
d) e x
10) In the case of a perfect dielectric medium, phase constant _________ as
conductivity increases.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) None of these
11) Inside a hollow conducting sphere
a) electric field is zero
b) electric field is a non-zero constant
c) electric field changes with the magnitude of the charge given to the conductor
d) electric field changes with distance from the centre of the sphere
12) Lorentz force equation comprises _________ and __________ forces.
a) Electric, magnetic
b) Mechanical, chemical
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
13) Magnetic dipole moment is a product of
a) Current and area
b) Area and its direction
c) Current, area and its direction
d) None of these
14) For those surfaces where surface charge density is ________ normal component
of electric flux density is continuous.
a) Infinity
b) Unity
c) Zero
d) None of these
15) For a good conductor
a)

=0

b)

<< 1

c)

>> 1

d)

16) Poynting Vector P is obtained as


a) E H

b) E + H

c) E H

d) E H

17) emf is closed _________ integral of non-conservational electric field that is


generated by battery.
a) Line
b) Surface
c) Volume
d) None of these
18) Transmission lines facilitate _________ propagation of energy.
a) Guided
b) Unguided
c) None of these d) Cannot say
19) Standing wave ratio S is given as
a)

1+
1

b)

1
1+

20) Elliptical polarization can be of


a) Left hand
b) Right hand

c)

1+

d) 1

c) Either (a) or (b) d) None of these

______________
Set A

*SLRKM143*

-3-

SLR-KM 143

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Marks : 80

Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four.

16

a) Find the Cartesian coordinates of G (3, 25, 2).


b) A = 2ax + 2ay, B = 3ax + 4ay 2az. Find AB and show that AB is right angle to A.
c) State and Explain Bio Sarvarts Law.
d) State and explain Gausss law.
e) Derive H due to finite length filament.
3. Attempt any three.

24

a) Transform each of the following vectors to the cylindrical coordinates at the point
specified
i) 5ax at P(4, 120, 2)
ii) 5ax at Q(3, 4, 1)
iii) 4ax 2ay 4az at A(2, 3, 5).
b) Four like charges of 30 C located at 4 corners of square diagonal measures 8 m.
Find the forces on 150 C at 3 m above the center of the square.
c) Derive expression for electric field intensity due to infinite line charge.
d) Derive Point form of Amperes Law and State the Stroke Theorem.
SECTION II
4. Answer any four questions.

16

a) Derive the wave equation for electric field and magnetic field in Lossless medium.
b) Write a note on Skin Depth.

Set A

SLR-KM 143

-4-

*SLRKM143*

c) Derive the transmission line equation stating with circuit theory.


d) Find the impendence on 50 transmission line at a distance of / 8 from 400
load.
e) Explain Antenna Efficiency and give its significance.
5. Answer any three questions.

24

a) Derive Maxwells equation in point form and integral form for harmonically varying
fields.
b) A lossless 50 transmission line is terminated in 35 + j65 . Find
i) Voltage reflection coefficient
ii) VSWR
iii) Impedance at 0.35 from load
iv) Shortest length of line for which impedance is purely resistive
v) The value of this resistance.
c) Derive the expression for radiation fields of current element.
d) Derive the expression for and for good conducting medium.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 144

*SLRKM144*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable examples and case study to support your
answer.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


20
1) A relational database is usually called
a) File
b) Flat file
c) Table file
d) None of the above
2) OLTP stands for
a) Online time processing
b) Online top processing
c) Online typical processing
d) Online transaction processing
3) Data by itself is not useful unless
a) It is massive
b) It is processed to obtain information
c) It is collected from diverse sources d) It is properly stated
4) For taking decisions data must be
a) Very accurate
b) Massive
c) Processed correctly
d) Collected from diverse sources
5) Because of Data Warehouse
a) User can access needed data quickly and easily
b) User can conduct analysis
c) User can have consolidate view of data
d) All of the above
6) Decision support systems are used by
a) Line managers
b) Top-level managers
c) Middle level managers
d) System users
7) Digital products are best suited for B2C e-commerce because they
a) Are commodity llike products
b) Can be mass-customized and personalized
c) Can be delivered at the time of purchase
d) All of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 144

*SLRKM144*

-2-

8) Which is not a function of E-commerce ?


a) Marketing
b) Advertising
c) Warehousing

d) None of the above

9) Most individuals are familiar with which form of e-commerce ?


a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2B
d) C2C
10) Is a collection of principles that are intended to guide decision making ?
a) Code of ethics
b) Code of rules
c) Code of conduct
d) All of the above
11) Important criteria to become program manager
a) Expert in technical skills
b) Good in management skill
c) Project management experience
d) All the above
12) More striking way of showing whether or not targets have been met
a) Gantt chart
b) Slip chart
c) Ball chart
d) Timeline chart
13) The people who have interest in the project
a) Stakeholders
b) Stockholders c) Promoters

d) All of the above

14) When the requirements are well defined and development methods are well
understood _________ model is used.
a) V process model
b) Water fall model
c) Spiral model
d) None of the above
15) _________ demonstrate how it can make a company more competitive.
a) Porters model
b) Newtons model
c) Petersons model
d) None of the above
16) Strategies for competitive advantage ___________
a) Cost leadership strategy
b) Differentiation and innovation strategies
c) Operational effectiveness strategy d) All of the above
17) In a precedence network which of bellow have duration
a) Link
b) Loop
c) Node

d) Critical path

18) PERT technique is


a) Process Evaluator and Return Technique
b) Process Evaluation and Review Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
d) Project Estimation and Review Technique
19) Following is not an objective of activity planning.
a) Resouce allocation
b) Detailed costing
c) Motivation
d) Implementation
20) Investigates whether a project development is worthy or not ?
a) Planning
b) Feasibility study
c) Strategic study
d) Requirement study
______________

Set A

*SLRKM144*

-3-

SLR-KM 144

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Assume suitable examples and case study to support your
answer.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(64=24)

1) Define data, information and knowledge.


2) Define C2C EC and list some types of C2C activities.
3) What are advantages and disadvantages of relational databases ?
4) Explain Software-as-a-Service (SaaS).
5) Define and give an example of cybercrime.
3. Attempt any two :

(82=16)

1) Describe how business architecture, IT architecture and information infrastructure


are interrelated.
2) Discuss the benefits to sellers and buyers of a B2B exchange.
3) Review the steps of the data life cycle and explain them.

Set A

SLR-KM 144

-4-

*SLRKM144*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(64=24)

1) Describe in brief digital organization.


2) Explain, how does a time line chart gives the indication of slippage ?
3) Which process model focus on validation of each steps, explain ?
4) Explain how to manage the stake holder ?
5) Write a note on Ball chart.
5. Attempt any two :

(82=16)

1) List and explain the major components in the business environment impact
model.
2) Explain forward pass and backward pass method for critical path analysis.
3) What are the different knowledge areas required for the effective project
management ? Explain with examples.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 146

*SLRKM146*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) __________ page replacement suffers from Beladys anomaly.


a) FIFO
b) Optimal
c) LRU
d) None of the above
2) The device communicates with the machine via a connection point, called
a) Bus
b) Port
c) Processor
d) None
3) The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in
a) Process Register
b) Program Counter
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit
4) A single thread of control allows the process to perform
a) only one task at a time
b) multiple tasks at a time
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these
5) If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be _______, and the
short term scheduler will have a ________ to do.
a) full, little
b) full, lot
c) empty, little
d) empty, lot
6) In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed,
the process goes from the running state to the
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state d) Terminated state
7) Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between
processes ?
a) General purpose registers
b) Translation look-aside buffer
c) Program counter
d) All of these
8) Which one of the following is a synchronization tool ?
a) thread
b) pipe
c) semaphore
9) Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
a) mutex locks
c) both (a) and (b)

d) socket

b) binary semaphores
d) none of the mentioned
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 146

*SLRKM146*

-2-

10) A monitor is a module that encapsulates


a) shared data structures
b) procedures that operate on shared data structure
c) synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
d) all of the mentioned
11) Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm ?
a) bankers algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm
d) karns algorithm
12) What is compaction ?
a) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error
13) The address of a page table in memory is pointed by
a) stack pointer
b) page table base register
c) page register
d) program counter
14) The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time c) response time
d) throughput
15) Time quantum is defined in
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm

b) round robin scheduling algorithm


d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

16) Concurrent access to shared data may result in


a) data consistency
b) data insecurity
c) data inconsistency
d) none of these
17) The most optimal scheduling algorithm is
a) FCFS First Come First Served
c) RR Round Robin

b) SJF Shortest Job First


d) None of these

18) Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible ?


a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned
19) The __________ swaps processes in and out of the memory.
a) memory manager b) CPU
c) CPU manager

d) user

20) The run time mapping from virtual to physical addresses is done by a hardware device
called the
a) virtual to physical mapper
b) memory management unit
c) memory mapping unit
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM146*

-3-

SLR-KM 146

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :


(64=24)
a) Describe the shortest job first scheduling algorithm with one example.
b) Write a note on thread.
c) With neat sketch explain different states of process.
d) What is binary semaphore ? Explain how binary semaphore is used to avoid mutual
exclusion.
e) Explain bounded buffer problem as classical problems of synchronization.
3. Attempt any two :
(82=16)
a) Explain SJF and RR scheduling algorithm with suitable example and compare them.
b) What is critical section problem ? How semaphore is used as synchronization tool to
handle it ?
c) Explain process creation and termination operations in detail.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(64=24)

a) Define deadlock. Explain the characteristics of deadlock.


b) Draw and explain demand paging.
c) Write a note on swapping.
d) Compare multiprogramming with fixed partition and multiprogramming with variable
partitions with diagram.
e) Explain direct memory access.
5. Attempt any two :

(82=16)

a) What is contiguous memory allocation ? Explain first fit, best fit and worst fit memory
allocation strategies.
b) What is safe state ? Describe Bankers algorithm with suitable example.
c) Explain FIFO and LRU page replacement algorithm with suitable example.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 147

*SLRKM147*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL COMMUNICATION (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicates full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Select suitable option :

Marks : 20
(120=20)

1) Average information per message is called


a) mutual information
b) joint information
c) uncertainty
d) entropy
2) Quantization noise occurs in
a) PWM
b) FDM
c) PCM
d) TDM
3) A single parity bit can detect ________ bit and correct _______ bit of error.
a) one, one
b) two, two
c) one, zero
d) zero, one
4) Which of below is true for PAM ?
a) bandwidth requirement is large
b) noise is difficult to separate
c) power content of the modulated signal is not constant
d) all of these
5) A discrete memory less information source can be characterized by the list
of symbols, the probability assignment to these symbols and specification
of _________ of these symbols.
a) entropy
b) energy
c) SNR
d) rate of generation
6) Which of below is building block of DPCM transmitter ?
a) quantizer
b) prediction filter c) encoder
d) all of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 147

*SLRKM147*

-2-

7) If two events are statistically independent then P(AB) =


a) P(A)
b) P(B/A) P(A)
c) P(A) P(B)
d) P(A) + P(B)
8) Synchronous demodulator is an example of _________ detection.
a) coherent
b) non coherent c) noisy
d) none of above
9) Design principle of matched filter is to have maximum _______ at a sampling
time T.
a) power
b) PSD
c) SNR
d) all of above
10) If we transmit more than 1 bit simultaneously, it is called
a) Discrete communication
b) M ary communication
c) BPSK
d) None of above
11) 1 nat = _______ bits.
a) 0.4232
b) 1.4426
12) Pulse stuffing is used in
a) synchronous TDM
c) synchronous FDM
13) A PWM signal can be generated by
a) monostable multivibrator
c) integrating PPM

c) 3.3219

d) 2.3026

b) asynchronous TDM
d) all TDM
b) astable multivibrator
d) adding PPM to flat pulses

14) The problem with low varying signal in DM is called


a) slope overload b) granular noise c) low distortion

d) none of above

15) Maximum quantization error in uniform quantizer is


a)
16) Equation s i (t ) =
a) ASK

b) /2

c) 2

A
[1 + mdi (t )] cos (2fc t ) represent
2
b) FSK
c) MASK

d) 2 /2

d) BFSK

17) __________ needs a duplex arrangement.


a) FEC
b) ARQ
c) linear block codes
18) An eye diagram is used to detect
a) ISI
b) BER
c) PSNR

d) entropy

19) _________ uses 2 successive bits at receiver.


a) BPSK
b) BFSK
c) PSK

d) DPSK

d) all of above

20) _________ provides security in digital communication.


a) source coding
b) multiplexing
c) carrier modulation
d) spread spectrum
______________
Set A

*SLRKM147*

-3-

SLR-KM 147

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL COMMUNICATION (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any three :

(83=24)

a) Explain the operation of PAM modulator and demodulator circuit.


b) Explain the block diagram of a PCM transmitter and receiver. Show the
waveforms at the output of each block.
c) With suitable block diagram explain DPCM transmitter and receiver.
d) What are the limitations of delta modulation ? How are they overcome in
adaptive delta modulation ?
3. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of digital communication system


over analog communication system ?
b) State Shannon Hartley theorem for channel capacity. What is the increase in
channel capacity, if the bandwidth of the channel is doubled ? Justify your
answer.
c) An event has six possible outcomes with probabilities 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/16,
1/32, 1/32. Find entropy and rate of information if there are 16 outcomes per
second.
d) Write a note on mutual information.
e) Draw and explain PAM demodulator.
Set A

SLR-KM 147

-4-

*SLRKM147*

SECTION II
4. Solve any three :

(83=24)

a) Why coding is required in communication systems ? What are different types


of coding ? What are their purposes ? What is source coding ? What is its
purpose ? What is channel coding ? What is its purpose ?
b) Apply Shannon Fano coding procedure for below messages. Also find
efficiency and redundancy.
[X]=[x1, x2, x3, x4, x5, x6, x7]
[P(X)] = [0.4, 0.2, 0.12, 0.08, 0.08, 0.08, 0.04]
c) With suitable waveforms explain QPSK and OQPSK.
d) Explain VCO based FSK generation.
5. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) Explain incoherent FSK detection.


b) Explain how a carrier can be recovered from the received double band
modulated waveform ?
c) What is orthogonal tone spacing ? What are its applications ?
d) What is DBPSK ? What are its advantages and disadvantages ?
e) What are the conditions to form parity matrix for linear block code ?
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 148

*SLRKM148*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLERS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) What is the address range of SFR Register bank in 8051 ?


a) 00H-77H
b) 40H-80H
c) 80H-7FH
d) 80H-FFH
2) In 8051 Serial port vector address is of
a) 0013H
b) 0023H
c) 0013H

d) 0023H

3) In microcontroller and LCD interface which line will instruct the LCD that
microcontroller is sending data ?
a) DB0
b) RW
c) EN
d) RS
4) In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority ?
a) IE1
b) TF0
c) IE0
d) TF1
5) The 8051 supports a maximum of __________ K bytes of program memory
space.
a) 4
b) 64
c) 16
d) 32
6) To 8051, one can interface maximum
a) 16K program and 16K Data memory
b) 64K program and 64K Data memory
c) 16K program and 32K Data memory
d) 32K program and 32K Data memory
7) Which of the following signal (s) of 8051 must be used in fetching data from
external data ROM ?
a) RD
b) WR
c) PSEN
d) both (a) and (b)
8) ______________ register has the SMOD bit, and its status is ________
when the 8051 is powered up.
a) PCON, 0
b) PCON, 1
c) SCON, 0
d) SCON, 1
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 148

-2-

9) When 8051 is powered up, stack begin at


a) 07h
b) 70h
c) 08h

*SLRKM148*
d) 80h

10) ____________ of 8051 does not have internal pull-up registers.


a) Port 3
b) Port 2
c) Port 1
d) Port 0
11) Timer 0 of the PIC 16F877 is ___________ bit, accessed as ________
a) 8, timer/counter
b) 16, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, coutner
12) Operating CCP2 module in PWM mode, PWM period can be set by writing to
__________ register.
a) PR1
b) TMR2
c) PR2
d) CCP1RL
13) An instruction using the ____________ register actually accesses the
register pointed by the ____________
a) FSR,INDF
b) INDF, FSR
c) FSR, W
d) INDF, W
14) In PIC 16F877 the Timer 1 module increments on every __________ edge of
the external clock input.
a) Falling
b) Rising
c) Falling/rising d) None of above
15) In PIC 16F877 ___________ port can be configured as parallel slave port.
a) PORT A
b) PORT C
c) PORT D
d) PORT E
16) The PIC 16F877 has ____________ bytes on chip data memory.
a) 192
b) 128
c) 368
d) 1 K
17) In PIC to make Port B an output port, we must place _________ in register
_________
a) 00 h, PORTB b) FF h, PORTB c) 00 h, TRISB
d) FF h, TRISB
18) The PIC 16F877 has interrupt capability up to __________ sources.
a) 11
b) 13
c) 14
d) 16
19) The ____________ pins can become the I/O control inputs for the parallel
slave port.
a) PORT A
b) PORT B
c) PORT E
d) PORT C
20) The PIC 16F877 MSSP module in 12C mode, implements _________ bit and
_______ bit addressing.
a) 7, 10
b) 10, 8
c) 7, 8
d) 11, 7
______________

Set A

*SLRKM148*

-3-

SLR-KM 148

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLERS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four (5 marks each) :
20
a) Write a program for finding even and odd numbers form a given array of 10
elements.
b) A switch is connected to P1.7. Write a program to send FFh to P2 when
switch is closed else send 00h to P2.
c) Explain the modes of operation of Timer in 8051.
d) Write a short note on RS 232 bus standard.
e) How Port 0 structure in 8051 differs from Port 1, 2 and 3 ?
3. Answer any any two (10 marks each) :
20
a) Draw and explain interfacing of 8K 8 Data ROM to 8051. Write a assembly
program to read 30 bytes starting at 1000 h in external ROM.
b) Draw and explain interfacing of ADC 0808/09 to 8051. Write a program to
covert analog voltage on channel 1 to digital.
c) Draw and explain interfacing of a unipolar stepper motor to 8051 and write a
program to rotate the stepper motor in clockwise direction continuously.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four (5 marks each) :

20

a) Explain the following instructions with their syntax


b)
c)
d)
e)

BTFSS
DECFSZ
RETLW
IORWF
Draw and explain bit format of STATUS register in PIC 16F877.
Describe functioning of CCP1 unit for the compare mode.
Explain Timer1 operation in PIC 16F877.
Explain Parallel Slave port communication in PIC.

Set A

SLR-KM 148

-4-

*SLRKM148*

5. Attempt any two (10 marks each) :

20

a) Explain 12C operation and Serial Peripheral Interface in PIC microcontroller.


b) Interface 4 4 keypad to PIC 16F877 and explain it.
c) Interface eight LEDs to PORTB of PIC and write a program to turn on and
off alternate LEDs continuously.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 149

*SLRKM149*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The silicon control switch is


a) Four layer, four terminal PNPN device
b) It has one gates, unilateral device
c) Bidirectional device
d) None of above
2) Which of the following PNPN device does not have gate terminal ?
a) TRIAC
b) DIAC
c) SCS
d) SUS
3) TRIAC can be termed as
a) AC switch
c) Both a) and b)

b) DC switch
d) Square wave switch

4) IGBT is
a) Voltage controlled device
c) Both a) and b)

b) Latch proof device


d) Current controlled device

5) R-C snubber is used in parallel with the thyristor to


a) Reduce dv/dt across it
b) To protect from di/dt
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
6) MOSFETs are suitable for
a) Low voltage switching
c) Low power

b) High voltage switching


d) None

7) In _________ triggering mode TRIAC operation is similar remote gate thyristor.


a) I
b) III
c) IV
d) Both b) and c)
8) Which of the following PNPN devices are bidirectional ?
a) TRIAC
b) DIAC
c) Thyristor

d) Both a) and b)

9) Thyristor is a semiconductor switch which is


a) Unilateral and latching
b) Bilateral and astable
c) Unilateral and latchproof
d) Bilateral and bistable
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 149

*SLRKM149*

-2-

10) IGBT is a device which has


a) Input characteristics of MOSFET and output characteristics of BJT
b) Output characteristics of MOSFET and input characteristics of BJT
c) Both input and output characteristics of MOSFET
d) Both input and output characteristics of BJT
11) The transistor in switched mode power supply operates in
a) Saturation region
b) Active region
c) Cutoff region
d) Saturation and cutoff region alternately
12) Which device is preferred for high frequency and high insulation ?
a) Opto isolator
b) Pulse transformer
c) Thyristor
d) None of above
13) Constant voltage transformer uses principle of
a) Ferro resonance
b) Parallel resonance
c) Series resonance
d) None of above
14) PLC is capable of
a) Counting and calculating analog signals
b) Comparing analog signals
c) Processing analog signals
d) All above
15) ___________ is used in temperature ON-OFF controller to reduce noise and to add dead
band symmetric about set point.
a) Instrumentation amplifier
b) Schmitt trigger
c) Voltage follower
d) Differential amplifier
16) Single phase preventer protects motor against
a) Over current
b) Single phasing c) Over voltage

d) Spikes in supply

17) __________ is used in control circuits requiring higher light sensitivity with greater output.
a) Photo darlington amplifier
b) Photo diode
c) Photo transistor
d) LDR
18) In ladder diagram, pressure limit switches
a) Operate under pressure

b)

c)

d) Both a) and b)

19) Gallium Arsenide is used for


a) Visible LED
b) IR LED

c) Photodiode

20) For modulation of DC signal ____________ is used.


a) Photo chopper
b) Photodiode
c) LASCR
______________

d) LDR
d) Photo darlington

Set A

*SLRKM149*

-3-

SLR-KM 149

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45)

1) Explain VI characteristics of thyristors.


2) Explain operation of Class C commutation. Sketch associated waveforms.
3) Compare Thyristor, IGBT and GTO.
4) A single phase fully controlled converter with highly inductive load. Assuming that IL is
constant 10 A. Calculate average dc voltage and rms supply current if supply voltage is
230 V, 50 Hz and firing angle 40.
5) Sketch V-I characteristics of DIAC and explain its working.
3. Attempt any two :

(210)

1) Sketch the cross sectional view of IGBT and explain its operation and characteristics.
2) Explain equivalent circuit and VI characteristics of PUT. Explain working of an oscillator
employing PUT. Derive an expression for frequency of its oscillation.
3) Explain operation of single phase semiconverter with inductive load. Derive an exp for
average load voltage and RMS load voltage. Sketch associated waveforms for = 45 .

Set A

SLR-KM 149

-4-

*SLRKM149*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45)

1) Explain working of ON line UPS with suitable block diagram.


2) Explain working of single channel data acquisition system.
3) Explain different configuration of optocouplers.
4) Explain working of burglar alarm using photo transistor.
5) Explain working of digital two position controller with suitable circuit diagram.
5. Attempt any two :

(210)

1) Draw a neat block diagram of Isolated switched mode power supply and explain its
working.
2) Describe construction, working and spectral response of the following :
i) LASCR
ii) Photo transistor
iii) Photo diode.
3) Explain working of AC servo controlled voltage stabilizer with suitable block diagram.
_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 150

*SLRKM150*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


VLSI DESIGN
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures at right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :


(201 = 20)
1) In a VHDL code, statements that are placed inside __________ are executed
sequentially.
a) Entity
b) Library
c) Process
d) With-select
2) In a VHDL code, * * operator represents
a) Mod operator
b) Remainder operator
c) Absolute value
d) Exponentiation operator
3) Consider the VHDL statement C = 5, C is a signal object. This is a
a) Variable assignment statement
b) Signal assignment statement
c) Constant assignment statement d) None of these
4) The low to high propagation time of CMOS gate is given by _______
a) Kp and W/L of NMOS transistor b) Kp and W/L of PMOS transistor
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
5) The current flowing through CMOS circuit under steady state condition is
a) Zero
b) Maximum
d) None of these
c) Depends on VDD
6) A test bench is used
a) Verify the functionality of a design b) To generate primitives
c) To generate net list
d) None of the above
7) Which of the following is capable of driving its output terminal either to a low
or high voltage equally well ?
a) PMOS transistor
b) NMOS transistor
c) Transmission gate
d) All of these
P.T.O.

SLR- KM 150

-2-

*SLRKM150*

8) R the vhdl statement clk <=not clk after 5 ns generates a clk with duty cycle
a) 5%
b) 50%
c) 95%
d) None of these
9) Which of the following is a valid signal declaration ?
a) signal x : std_logic = 2
b) signal x < = 5;
c) signal x : = 5;
d) signal x : std_logic := 1;
10) __________ delay model models the delays often found in switching circuits.
a) Transport
b) Inertial
c) Delta
d) None of these
11) The gate level net list currently can be optimized for
a) Area
b) Speed
c) Testability
d) All of the above
12) Clock skew can be a major problem when _________ are used as storage
elements.
a) DFFs
b) Latches
c) JKFF
d) Edge triggered FF
13) ________ are used to control the output of optimization and Mapping
process.
a) Attributes
b) Constraints
c) Translators
d) Controllers
14) An n-bit linear feedback shift register counter can have
a) 2n states
b) 2n 1 states c) n2 states
d) None of these
15) Which of the following analog controls are provided in CPLD XC9500 IO
Block ?
a) Slew rate control
b) Pull down resistor
c) I/O buffer
d) All of the above
16) Number of function blocks in XC 95144 CPLD is
a) 8
b) 144
c) 12
d) None of these
17) Random testing works particularly well for circuits that
a) Have high fan out
b) Do not have high fan in
c) High noise margin
d) None of these
18) A single pattern that may be interpreted as a result of all the applied tests in
testing is
a) MIC
b) PRBSG
c) SIC
d) Signature
19) To create a design that implements the required functionality and matches
the designers constraints in speed, area, or power is the goal of the _________
step.
a) RTL simulation
b) Place and route
c) VHDL synthesis
d) All of these
20) Which of the following process takes as input the optimized boolean
description, the technology library, and the user constraints, and generates
an optimized netlist built entirely from cells in the technology library ?
a) Synthesis
b) Optimization c) Factoring
d) Mapping
______________
Set A

*SLRKM150*

-3-

SLR- KM 150

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


VLSI DESIGN
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures at right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) Explain power dissipation in CMOS.


b) Differentiate between signal and variable.
c) Write VHDL code of 4 bit adder.
d) Explain single channel MOS Inverter.
e) Explain the syntax of entity and architecture with example.
f) Write VHDL code for 2:4 decoder.
3. Solve any three :

(83=24)

a) Explain in brief CMOS Inverter. Explain DC transfer characteristics of CMOS


Inverter.
b) Explain subprogram in detail with example.
c) Explain VHDL data types in detail.
d) Write a VHDL code for 4 :1 multiplexer using structural modelling.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(46=24)

a) Explain clock skew. How to minimize the effect of clock skew ? Explain.
b) Explain the architecture of macrocell in Xilinx 9500 series CPLD.
Set A

SLR- KM 150

-4-

*SLRKM150*

c) Explain in brief flattening and factoring steps in the synthesis process.


d) Write VHDL code for 3 bit binary counter with synchronous reset and negative
edge triggered clock.
e) Explain with example how random tests applied to a combinational circuit are
useful in distinguishing a correct circuit and faulty circuit.
f) Consider the following VHDL code.
entity Q3 is
Port (A, B, C, F, clk ; in bit;
E : out bit);
end Q3 ;
architecture Qint of Q3 is
signal D, G : bit;
begin
Process (clk)
begin
if clk event and clk = 1 then
D < = A and B and C;
G <= not A and not B;
E <= D or G or E;
end if;
end process;
end Qint;
I) Draw a block diagram for the circuit (no gates- only block level)
II) Give the circuit generated by the code.
Set A

*SLRKM150*

-5-

SLR- KM 150

5. Attempt any two :

(28 = 16)

a) Draw internal architecture of XC 4000 configurable logic block and explain.


b) Explain the Built in self test technique for testing the circuits. How the
signature is generated ? Explain with necessary diagrams.
c) Derive the state table for the circuit in Figure shown below. Write VHDL code.

Q. 5. c)
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 151

*SLRKM151*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015
OPERATING SYSTEM

Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Which is not true about the memory management ?
A) virtual memory is used in multi-user system
B) segmentation suffers from external fragmentation
C) paging suffers from internal fragmentation
D) segmented memory can be paged
2) Page table length register (PTLR) indicates size of
A) Page Table
B) Size of page
C) Main memory

D) Virtual memory

3) Which memory allocation policy allocates the largest hole to the process ?
A) Best Fit
B) First Fit
C) Worst Fit
D) None of them
4) Which of the following memory allocation scheme suffers from External fragmentation ?
A) Segmentation
B) Pure demand paging
C) Swapping
D) Paging
5) _________ is generally faster than ________ and _________
A) first fit, best, fit, worst fit
B) best fit, first fit, worst fit
C) worst fit, best fit, first fit
D) none of these
6) The operating system is
A) in the low memory
C) either A) or B)

B) in the high memory


D) none of these

7) The Petersons algorithm is used


A) to avoid process scheduling
C) to avoid race condition

B) to detect deadlock
D) none of the above

8) A page fault occurs when


A) the deadlock happens
C) the page is found in the memory

B) the segmentation starts


D) the page is not found in the memory
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 151

*SLRKM151*

-2-

9) First-In-First-Out (FIFO) scheduling is


A) Non Preemptive Scheduling
C) Fair Share Scheduling

B) Preemptive Scheduling
D) Deadline Scheduling

10) Copying a process from memory to disk to allow space for other processes is called
A) Swapping
B) Deadlock
C) Demand Paging
D) Page Fault
11) The necessary conditions needed before deadlock can occur
A) No Mutual Exclusion, Hold and wait, Preemption, Circular Wait
B) Mutual Exclusion, No Hold and wait, Preemption, Circular Wait
C) Mutual Exclusion, Hold and wait, No Preemption, Circular Wait
D) Mutual Exclusion, Hold and wait, Preemption, No Circular Wait
12) In Round Robin CPU scheduling, as the time quantum is increased, the average turn
around time
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains constant
D) varies irregularly
13) Pre-emptive scheduling is the strategy of temporarily suspending a running process
A) before the CPU time slice expires
B) to allow starving processes to run
C) when it requests I/O
D) none of these
14) The Primary job of the operating system is
A) Manage Commands
B) Manage Users
C) Manage Programs
D) Manage Resources
15) Unix Operating System is an
A) Multi User Operating System
C) Multi Tasking Operating System

B) Time Sharing Operating System


D) All the above

16) What does Beladys anomaly related to ?


A) Page Replacement Algorithm
C) Deadlock Prevention Algorithm

B) Memory Management Algorithm


D) Disk Scheduling Algorithm

17) What are the two types of Semaphore ?


A) Digital Semaphores and Binary Semaphores
B) Analog Semaphores and Octal Semaphores
C) Counting Semaphores and Binary Semaphores
D) Critical Semaphores and System Semaphores
18) The process where in the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as
A) Inspection
B) Polling
C) Reviewing
D) Echoing
19) Device drivers are implemented to interface
A) character devices
B) block devices
C) network devices
D) all of the mentioned
20) Which buffer holds the output for a device ?
A) Output
B) Spool
C) Status

D) Magic

______________

Set A

*SLRKM151*

-3-

SLR-KM 151

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(64=24)

a) What are System Calls ? Explain their types.


b) What is Process ? Give the difference between a process and a program.
c) Explain User-Level Thread and Kernel-Level Thread.
d) How to avoid Deadlock in a resource-allocation system with one instance of each resource
type using resource-allocation graph ?
e) Define the following :
1) Real time operating system
2) Thread
3) Dispatcher
4) Dispatch latency.
3. Attempt any two :

(82=16)

a) Find Average Waiting Time and Average Response Time for SJF and RR algorithm.
Process

CPU burst time

P1

P2

P3

P4

CPU burst time given in millisecond. Time Quantum is 3.


b) What is Semaphore ? Give the implementation of Bounded Buffer Producer Consumer
Problem using Semaphore.
c) What is Deadlock ? List the conditions that lead to deadlock. How Deadlock can be
prevented ?

Set A

SLR-KM 151

-4-

*SLRKM151*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(64=24)

a) Explain Demand Paging in detail.


b) Explain the steps in handling Page fault.
c) Write a short note file access methods.
d) Draw and explain Kernel I/O substructure.
e) What is meant by file system mounting ?
5. Attempt any two :

(82=16)

a) For the Page Reference String :


7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3, 0, 3, 2, 1, 2, 0.1.7, 0, 1.
Calculate the Page Faults applying :
i) Optimal
ii) LRU and
iii) FIFO Page Replacement Algorithms for a Memory with three frames.
b) What is inode ? Explain File and Directory Management of Unix Operating System.
c) Explain FIFO and LRU page replacement algorithm with illustration.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 152

*SLRKM152*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (New) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The advantage(s) of digital and/or data communications over analog include


a) Noise performance
b) Regeneration
c) Digital signal processing
d) All the above
2) In an S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled voltage is
a) Aperture time
b) Acquisition time c) Flat-top time d) Dmin
3) Error signals associated with the sampling process are called
a) Flodover distortion
b) Aliasing
c) Nyquist rate
d) Foldover distortion and aliasing
4) Which of the following is not a common RZ code ?
a) RZ-unipolar
b) RZ-bipolar
c) RZ-M

d) RZ-AMI

5) In an asynchronous data system


a) Both sender and receiver are exactly synchronized to the same clock frequency
b) Each computer word is preceded by a start bit and followed by a stop bit to
frame the word
c) The receiver derives its clock signal from the received data stream
d) All the above
6) A CD audio laser-disk system has a frequency bandwidth of 20 Hz to 20 kHz. The
minimum sample rate to satisfy the Nyquist criteria is
a) 20 Hz
b) 40 Hz
c) 20 KHz
d) 40 KHz
7) The type of modulation that uses sampling on one of the parameters of the
transmitted and received signals is known as
a) Phase modulation
b) Pulse modulation
c) Amplitude modulation
d) Frequency modulation

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 152

*SLRKM152*

-2-

8) The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals can be made less significant by
a) Companding
b) Using time-multiplexing
c) Using frequency-division multiplexing d) Filtering out the alias frequency
9) The entropy of a message source generating 4 message with probabilities 0.5,
0.25, 0.125 and 0.125 is
a) 1 bit/msg
b) 1.75 bits/msg c) 3.32 bits/msg
d) 5.93 bits/msg
10) A PWM signal can be generated by
a) Monostable multivibrator
c) Integrating the PPM signal

b) Astable multivibrator
d) Differentiating the PPM signal

11) When the message and the BCC are transmitted as separate parts within the
same transmitted code, it is called a(n)
a) Systematic code
b) CRC
c) (n, k) cyclic code
d) interleaved code
12) The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data have been shifted in is the
a) Quantile interval b) Codec
c) BCC
d) Syndrome
13) Which of the following is not an example of code error detection and correction
in a data communication channel ?
a) Parity
b) FSK
c) Block check character
d) Hamming code
14) Error-correcting techniques that allow for correction at the receiver are called
a) Cyclic Redundancy Checks (CRC) b) Block-Check Characters (BCC)
c) Forward Error Correcting (FEC)
d) Parity
15) Channel capacity
a) Describes the rate at which information is transmitted
b) Gives the no. of signals that can be transmitted simultaneously
c) Is not at all dependent upon the channel noise
d) None of these
16) The probability of error for M-ary FSK decreases as
a) M decreases
b) M increases
c) M constant

d) None of these

17) A specified sequence used for frame synchronization is called


a) comma
b) prefix
c) period
d) postfix
18) The early late gate synchronizer is a technique used for
a) Carrier synchronization
b) Symbol synchronization
c) Frame synchronization
d) None of these
19) The non-coherent ASK receiver is _________ than the coherent receiver.
a) more complex
b) much simplex c) less complex
d) none of these
20) Comparison of MSK and QPSK schemes show that
a) MSK requires less power
b) QPSK requires less power
c) Filtering is simple in MSK
d) No comparison

______________
Set A

*SLRKM152*

-3-

SLR-KM 152

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (New) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

16

a) With suitable example explain messages, characters and symbols.


b) Explain bandwidth and S/N trade off.
c) State and explain sampling theorem.
d) Explain a PWM modulator using IC 555.
e) Discuss song algorithm and space shuttle algorithm for ADM.
3. Attempt any three :

24

a) With suitable block diagram explain DPCM transmitter and receiver.


b) Compare PCM, DPCM, DM and ADM.
c) What is joint entropy and conditional entropy ? Explain with suitable example.
d) A discrete memory less source has five equally likely symbols with probabilities 0.2
each. Compute Huffman code for this source; calculate entropy, average codeword
length and efficiency of this code.

Set A

SLR-KM 152

*SLRKM152*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

16

a) Define weight and Parity check code.


b) Define the term Hamming distance in coding.
c) Explain Matched Filter BPSK Detector.
d) Derive the impulse response for a matched filter receiver.
e) Explain the term probability of error.
5. Attempt any three :

24

a) What is difference between ASK, FSK and PSK modulation technique ? Explain
with waveforms compare them on the basis of power requirements, bandwidth,
noise immunity and probability of error.
b) An error control code has the following parity check matrix :
H =

i) Determine the generator matrix G


ii) Find the code word that begin with 101
iii) Decode the received code word 1 1 0 1 1 0.
c) Explain frame synchronization.
d) Explain MSK modulation and demodulator with waveform.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 153

*SLRKM153*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLERS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Objective questions :
(201=20)
1) The 8051 microcontroller is of ______ pin package as a ________ processor.
a) 30, 1 byte

b) 20, 1 byte

c) 40, 8 bit

2) ________ of 8051 does not have internal pull-up registers.


a) Port 3
b) Port 2
c) Port 1

d) 40, 8 byte
d) Port 0

3) What is the address range of SFR Register bank in 8051 ?


a) 00H 77H
b) 40H 80H
c) 80H 7FH
d) 80H FFH
4) In 8051 bit address 0 00 and byte address 0 00 are for the
a) Bit 0 at 0 20 and the byte at 0 00 in the internal RAM
b) Bit 0 at 0 00 and the byte at 0 00 in the internal RAM
c) Bit = 0 in a SFR and the byte = 0 00
d) Bit 0 at 0 20 and byte at 0 00, respectively
5) In 8051, serial communication mode 0, the baud rate will be
a) variable
b) fosc/164
c) fosc/32
d) fosc/12
6) In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority ?
a) IE1
b) TF0
c) IE0

d) TF1

7) In 8051 vector address of an external interrupt 1


a) 000BH
b) 001BH
c) 0013H

d) 0023H

8) In modes 2 and 3, if ___________ bit of SCON bit is set will causes enable
multiprocessor communication.
a) SM1
b) TB8
c) SM2
d) SM0
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 153

-2-

*SLRKM153*

9) Interfacing LCD with 8051 ___________ data lines are used along with the _____
signals.
a) 6, RS, RW
b) 5, RW, EN
c) 8, RS, EN, RW d) 9, RS, EN, RW
10) ACALL instruction of 8051 is ________ byte instruction.
a) one
b) two
c) three

d) four

11) The PIC 16F877 has ________ on chip flash program memory.
a) 4 K 8 bytes
b) 4K 14 words
c) 8 K 8 bytes
d) 8 K 14 words
12) The __________ pins can become the I/O control inputs for the parallel slave
Port.
a) PORT A
b) PORT E
c) PORT B
d) PORT C
13) Operating CCP1 module in PWM mode, PWM period can be set by writing to
______ register.
a) PR1
b) TMR2
c) PR2
d) CCP1RL
14) The PIC 16F877 has ________ bit, maximum ______ analog inputs AD converter
module.
a) 8, 8
b) 10, 8
c) 8, 10
d) 10, 10
15) The instruction movlw D 200 loads the W register with
a) 200h
b) C8h
c) 8C h

d) 110010001

16) Timer 0 of the PIC 16F877 is ________ bit, accessed as _________


a) 8, timer/counter
b) 16, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
17) What is the address of the last location of on-chip flash program memory for PIC
16F877 ?
a) 0 FFF h
b) 1 FFF h
c) FFFF h
d) 7 FFF h
18) In PIC 16F877 the ______ module is with prescaler and postscaler.
a) Timer 0
b) Timer 2
c) Timer 1
d) Timer 3
19) In PIC to make Port B on output Port, we must place _______ in register______
a) 00 h, PORTB
b) FF h, PORTB
c) 00 h, TRISB
d) FF h, TRISB
20) The PIC 16F877 has _______ bytes on chip EEPROM data memory.
a) 192
b) 128
c) 368
d) 256

______________

Set A

*SLRKM153*

-3-

SLR-KM 153

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLERS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Draw and explain memory organization in 8051


b) Compare RISC and CISC architecture.
c) Write 8051 assembly program to add five 2 digit BCD numbers.
d) Write 8051 assembly program to generate a square wave of 2 KHz on P2. 7. Use
Timer 1.
Assume crystal (XTAL) = 11.0592 MHZ.
e) Explain the use if IE and IP registers in 8051.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) Draw and explain interfacing of 16*2 LCD to 8051. Write a program to display
HELLO from second row-sixth column.
b) Draw and explain interfacing of a stepper motor to 8051 and write a progrram to
rotate the stepper motor in clockwise direction continuously.
c) Explain serial communication in 8051 and write a program transfer a message
WELCOME serially at a baud rate of 9600.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(64=24)

a) Explain addressing modes in PIC 16F877.


b) Draw data memory and program memory organization of PIC 16F877.
c) Explain CCP1 module in PIC microncontroller.
d) Write PIC program to clear memory location 20 h to 2F h with indirect addressing
mode. Also explain meaning of each used instructions.
e) Explain the operation of Timer-0 module in PIC 16F877.

Set A

SLR-KM 153

-4-

5. Solve any two :

*SLRKM153*
(82=16)

a) Draw and explain interfacing of 4 4 keyboard to PIC.


b) Explain the following instructions with their syntax
1) BTFSS
2) DECFSZ
3) RETLW
4) IORWF.
c) Explain ADC module in PIC and write a program to initialize the ADC module.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 154

*SLRKM154*
S

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Duration : 30 Minutes

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The body layer is connected to source terminal in a MOSFET in order to


a) reduce power dissipation
b) increase speed of operation
c) reduce noise interference
d) to avoid latch up in a MOSFET
2) In SCR angle of conduction can be varied by changing
a) Anode voltage
b) Anode current
c) Forward current rating
d) Gate current
3) Thyristor can be termed as _____________ switch and TRIAC can be termed as
____________ switch.
a) AC, DC
b) AC, AC
c) DC, AC
d) DC, DC
4) Thyristor is protected from over voltage by using
a) RC Snubber circuits
b) Non linear surge suppressor-Thyrector
c) Electronic crowbar circuit
d) All above
5) GTO is
a) Current controlled device
c) Both a) and b)

b) Latch proof device


d) Voltage controlled device

6) In _______________ triggering mode TRIAC operation is similar remote gate thyristor.


a) I and II
b) III and IV
c) II
d) All above
7) IGBT is a device which has
a) input characteristics of MOSFET and output characteristics of BJT
b) Output characteristics of MOSFET and input characteristics of BJT
c) Both input and output characteristics of MOSFET
d) Both input and output characteristics of BJT
8) A single phase fully controlled bridge converter supplies an inductive load. If
average dc voltage is _______________
V

a)
V

b)
2

then

c)

d) 0.95 Vm
2

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 154

*SLRKM154*

-2-

9) A single phase fully controlled converter with highly inductive load and free wheeling
diode provides ________________ direction of voltage and _____________ of current.
a) Positive, negative
b) Positive, positive
c) Negative, negative
d) Negative, positive
10) Commutating overlap will cause
a) reduced output current
c) reduced output voltage
11) An Si UJT has interbase resistance 8
a) 0.625
b) 1.6

b) higher PIV
d) increased output voltage

K

and RB1 = 5
c) 0.0625


, then intrinsic stand off ratio is


d) 0.5

12) ____________ used to provide isolation between control circuit and power circuit.
a) opto isolator
b) pulse transformer
c) both a) and b)
d) Thyractor
13) As compared to UJT, PUT
a) provides high peak current pulse
c) both a) and b)

b) offers better choice for


d) provides low peak current pulse


14) Which of the following devices are used to trigger TRIAC in alternate half cycle ?
a) SBS
b) DIAC
c) SCS
d) Both a) and b)
15) In _______________, the heating is not uniform throughout workpiece.
a) Dielectric heating
b) Induction heating
c) Resistance heating
d) Infrared heating
16) SMPS has better efficiency than of linear regulator because power transistor is operated
in _____________________ region.
a) Active
b) Saturation
c) Both a) and b)
d) Saturation and cut off
17) In Flyback converter, energy is transferred to the transformer secondary _____________
a) When transistor is off
b) When transistor is in active region
c) Only when transistor is in saturation
d) At all times
18) Consider the following statements :
I) Induction heating may be used for surface hardening of steel.
II) Dielectric heating may be used for electronic sewing of film materials.
III) Dielectric heating may be used for food processing.
Off these statements, the following are correct.
a) I and II only
b) II and III only
c) I and III
19) The silicon controlled switch is
a) four layer, four terminal PNPN device
c) bidirectional device

d) All the three

b) it has one gates, unilateral device


d) it has two gates, bidirectional device

20) LASCRs
a) used in high voltage and high current applications
b) provides isolation between light triggering source and switching device of power
converter
c) both a) and b)
d) turned off when light disappears
Set A
______________

*SLRKM154*
S

SLR-KM 154

-3-

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain the various turn on mechanisms of thyristor.


2) Explain protection circuit for SCR against high dv/dt and high di/dt.
3) Explain operation of dual converter with non circulating current mode.
4) Draw and explain equivalent circuit for modelling operation of IGBT.
5) In half wave controlled rectifier load consists of R = 10
Supply voltage Vin =


Sin314t.

and Battery Eb = 100 V and

Calculate :
a) Angle at which SCR will start conduct
b) Average load voltage
c) Draw voltage waveforms.

3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) With help of structural diagram explain operation and switching characteristics of GTO.
And explain how GTO differ from conventional thyristor.
2) What is load commutation ? Explain Class B resonant pulse commutation. Draw the
waveforms of relevant voltage and currents.
3) Explain operation of single phase fully controlled converter with inductive load. Derive an
exp for average load voltage and RMS load voltage. Sketch associated waveforms for


Set A

SLR-KM 154

-4-

*SLRKM154*

SECTION II

4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Why pulse triggering is preferred ? Explain pulse train gating circuit with associated
waveforms.
2) With help of equivalent circuit explain operation of silicon unilateral switch. Also differentiate
between SUS and UJT.
3) Explain principle of Buck-Boost control in servo controlled voltage stabilizer.
4) With help of circuit diagram and waveforms explain the operation of half bridge SMPS.
5) Explain working of emergency light system with suitable circuit diagram.

5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain working principle of induction heating. Enlist merits of induction heating over
conventional heating. Explain any two application of induction heating.
2) With help of block diagram, explain operation of solid state On-line UPS and Off-line
UPS.
3) Describe the RC full wave and half wave trigger circuit for single SCR when load is AC.
Also draw the related voltage waveforms.
The RC full wave trigger circuit uses single SCR with Igmin = 0.12mA, Vgmin = 0.6 V.
The amplitude of input is 30 V and supply frequency 50Hz. The SCR is required to
trigger at angle 40. Calculate Rmin and C.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 155

*SLRKM155*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part II) (Electronics Engineering) (New) Examination, 2015


VLSI DESIGN
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

(201=20)

1) VHDL statement clk <= not clk after 10 ns; will generate clock waveform with a period of
a) 40 ns
b) 20 ns
c) 10 ns
d) 5 ns
2) Which of the following statement is not true with respect to VHDL language ?
a) Variable is declared in the process and can be used outside the process
b) Variables are declared in architecture and used inside the process
c) Signals are declared in architecture and can be used inside the process
d) All a), b) and c) are true
3) Consider the following VHDL code :
SUM:=1;J:=0;
L2: loop
J:= J+21;
SUM := SUM* 10;
exit when SUM > 100;
end loop L2;
After execution of this loop statement the value of j =
a) 21
b) 42
c) 63

d) 0

4) __________ statements are useful in modeling the constraints in VHDL.


a) Next
b) Sequential
c) Assertion
d) Generate
5) Which library is not included in a VHDL code by default __________
a) Work
b) Std
c) Standard
d) IEEE
6) VHDL statement
Y <= X when e = 1 else
z; infers
a) z : 1 multiplexer

b) Tristate buffer

c) Buffer

d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 155

*SLRKM155*

-2-

7) In a VHDL code, * * operator represents


a) Mod operator
c) Absolute value

b) Remainder operator
d) Exponentiation operator

8) With S, a signal object, the attribute that returns the time elapsed since the last event on
S is
a) S LAST_EVENT
b) S TIME_ELAPSED
c) SLAST_TIME
d) S LAST_ACTIVE
9) Assuming the left operand as BIT vector 10011101 Srl 3 gives
a) 11110011
b) 10011111
c) 10011000

d) 00010011

10) If A, B and C are all integers with initial value 0 and A changes to 10 and B changes to 5
at time = 2 ns. If following concurrent statements are executed the value of A and C at
time 6 ns are
A <= B after 5 ns;
C <= A + 2 after 2 ns;
a) A = 10 & C = 12 b) A = 5 & C = 12

c) A = 10 & C = 0

11) Transmission gate in CMOS is also called as __________


a) Pass Gate
b) Fail Gate
c) Pull-up Gate

d) A = 5 & C = 2
d) Pull-Down Gate

12) Under steady state condition power dissipated in CMOS circuit is __________
a) 0 w
b) 10 w
c) 0.1 w
d) None of above
13) The translation of RTL description to Boolean equivalent description is __________
a) Not user controllable
b) User controllable
c) Technology Dependent
d) None of above
14) Synthesis means __________
a) Checking correctness of the design
b) Conversion of the design to actual component
c) Implement design into target technology
d) None of above
15) JTAG stands for __________
a) Joint Test Action Group
c) Joint Target Action Group

b) Joint Target Act Group


d) None of above

16) Boundary Scan technique consists of __________


a) Scan path testing port
b) Test access port
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
17) Synthesis tool could write for __________
a) Timing Constraints
c) SDF timing file

b) Net lists
d) All of above

18) The CPLD contains several PLD blocks and __________


a) AND-OR arrays
b) A language compiler
c) Field programmable switches
d) A global interconnect matrix
19) PLA, CPLD and FPGA are all __________ types of devices.
a) PLD
b) SRAM
c) EPROM
20) Input resistance of CMOS inverter is __________
a) Extremely Low
b) Extremely high c) Infinity
______________

d) SLD
d) Zero

Set A

*SLRKM155*

-3-

SLR-KM 155

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part II) (Electronics Engineering) (New) Examination, 2015


VLSI DESIGN
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :


(46=24)
a) Explain with suitable example different forms of wait statement. What is the significance
of wait for 0 ns ?
b) What are the subprograms in VHDL ? Explain use of function and procedures in VHDL
with suitable example.
c) Write VHDL code for 3 input XOR operations with Behavioral Architecture.
d) Write VHDL code for Mod 5 counter with asynchronous reset.
e) Consider the following VHDL code.
entity Q3 is
Port (A, B, C, F, clk : in bit ;
E : out bit);
end Q3;
architecture Qint of Q3 is
signal D, G : bit;
begin
process (clk)
begin
if clkevent and clk = 1 then
D <= A and B and C;
G <= not A and not B;
E <= D or G or F
end if;
end process;
end Qint;
Draw the circuit generated by the code.

Set A

SLR-KM 155

*SLRKM155*

-4-

f) In the following VHDL code A, B, C, D are all integers that are 0 to 10 ns. If D changes
to 1 at 20 ns, specify the times at which A, B and C will change and the values they will
take.
Process (D)
Begin
A <= 1 after 5 ns;
B <= A + 1;
C <= B after 10 ns;
End;
3. Attempt any two :
a) Write VHDL code for the Moore machine whose state table is as below :
Present State

Next State

(28=16)

Output (z)

X=0

X=1

S0

S0

S2

S1

S0

S2

S2

S2

S3

S3

S3

S1

b) What are the different classes of VHDL attributes ? Explain following attributes with suitable
example :
i) Delayed
ii) Event
iii) last_value
iv) last_active.
c) Write VHDL code for :
i) Half adder
ii) Structural architecture for full adder using half adder as a component.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
a) Differentiate between CPLD and FPGA.
b) Explain place and route process of EDA tools.
c) Explain CMOS noise margin in detail.
d) Explain in detail Boundary Scan Test.
e) Explain synthesis process in brief.
f) What is the Transmission Gate ? Explain. Write its advantages.

(44=16)

5. Solve any three :


(83=24)
a) Draw and explain Xilinx 9500 series CPLD architecture.
b) Explain simulation, its advantages, types of simulation and simulation methodologies.
c) Explain the different regions of operation of CMOS inverter along with equations.
d) What is the need of testing the circuit ? Draw and explain schematic arrangement for
testing sequential circuits.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 156 C

*SLRKM156C*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (Module II) (Technical)
Electronic Instrumentation
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 10

1. Select suitable option :

10

1) __________ errors are mainly due to human mistakes.


a) Gross
b) Systematic
c) Random
d) None of the above
2) Speed of response is a _________ characteristic of an instrument.
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
3) The dynamic range of frequency counter is generally limited by
a) linear response range of input amplifier
b) counting register
c) display
d) time base circuit
4) Which of below is not a building block of frequency measurement ?
a) gate
b) shift register
c) counter
d) schmitt trigger
5) Two or more mixing stages are added in a superheterodyne spectrum
analyzer to
a) increase frequency resolution
b) decrease frequency resolution
c) increase amplitude resolution
d) decrease amplitude resolution
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 156 C

-2-

*SLRKM156C*

6) A logic analyzer is used when we need


a) to see small voltage changes in the signal
b) high time interval accuracy
c) to see the relationship of many signals at a time
d) to measure rise time of the signal
7) ________ is used to scale down the input gains.
a) Attenuator
b) Transducer
c) Multiplexer
d) Amplifier
8) As compared to other recorders, the frequency response of the CRT-based
optical recorder is
a) the highest
b) the lowest
c) lower than the ink-filled based recorders
d) lower than the other optical recorders
9) Graphic recorders are ________ type of recorder.
a) analog
b) digital
c) both a) and b)
d) none of the above
10) A strip chart recorder records
a) The parameter on the digital display
b) One or more dependent parameters that vary with reference to some
independent parameter
c) A parameter by stripping part of the parameter
d) One or more parameters that vary with time
______________

Set A

*SLRKM156C*

-3-

SLR-KM 156 C

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (Module II) (Technical)
Electronic Instrumentation
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any three :

(43=12)

a) Define and explain dynamic characteristics of an instrument.


b) What is the significance of input shielding in signal conditioning system ?
c) Analyze electronic counter in frequency and time interval mode.
d) Classify displays and list two examples of each.
3. Attempt any one :

(81=8)

a) Draw and explain a neat block diagram of AC signal conditioning system.


Give suitable example.
b) Derive relation between error and accuracy. The expected value of the voltage
across a resistor is 80 V. However, the measurement gives a value of 79 V.
Calculate :
i) absolute error
ii) % error
iii) relative accuracy and
iv) % of accuracy.
c) How the speed of rotating shaft is measured using digital Tachometer ?
Set A

SLR-KM 156 C

-4-

*SLRKM156C*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any three :

(43=12)

a) Explain total harmonic distortion and intermodulation distortion.


b) Compare spectrum and logic analyzer.
c) Explain the concept of ultrasonic sensors.
d) List objectives of DAS.
5. Attempt any one :

(81=8)

a) Explain resolving power, frequency instabilities and dynamic range of a


spectrum analyzer.
b) Define smart sensors. Explain in detail its logical functions.
c) With neat block diagram, explain generalized data acquisition system.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 156D

*SLRKM156D*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


TECHNICAL SELF LEARNING MODULE II
Programming in Visual Basic.Net
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015

Max. Marks : 50

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer
Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt all the questions.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :

10

1) Visual Studio.NET provides which feature ?


a) Application deployment

b) Syntax checking

c) Both a) and b)

d) All of the above

2) What does IDE stand for ?


a) Integrated Development Environment
b) Integrated Design Environment
c) Interior Development Environment
d) Interior Design Environment
3) Which does the solution explorer not display ?
a) Form Properties

b) Reference Folder

c) Form File

d) Assemble File

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 156D

-2-

*SLRKM156D*

4) For which task does the IDE provide multiple ways to accomplish the task ?
a) Putting a control on the form
b) Running the program
c) Activating the property window for a control
d) All of the above
5) Which is an example of Visual Basic Objects ?
a) Control objects
b) ASP.NET
c) ADO.NET
d) All of the above
6) Which are the standard prefixes for the Button and Combo box controls
respectively ?
a) btn and chb
b) btn and cbo
c) bto and chb
d) bto and cbo
7) Which is not a feature of a GUI that makes learning a program easy for
users ?
a) Online help
b) WYSIWYG formatting
c) Dialog boxes
d) Detailed key strokes and commands
8) Which statement about objects is true ?
a) One object is used to create one class
b) One class is used to create one object
c) One object can create many classes
d) One class can create many objects
9) Which property determines whether a control is displayed to the user ?
a) Hide
b) Show
c) Visible
d) Enabled
10) The button control can be activated
a) Programmatically through the click event
b) By clicking the button with the mouse
c) With the forms DefaultButton property
d) Both a) and b)
______________
Set A

*SLRKM156D*

-3-

SLR-KM 156D

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


TECHNICAL SELF LEARNING MODULE II
Programming in Visual Basic.Net
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

Instructions : 1) Attempt all the questions.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2. Write a note on messagebox, msgbox and inputbox with example.

10

OR
2. What is static class, member ? What is a delegate, why should you use it and
how do you call it ? Explain with suitable example.

10

3. Explain OPTION STRICT statement and Namespace with example.

10

OR
3. Explain Common Language Runtime (CLR) and .Net Framework Class Library. 10
4. Attempt any four questions :

20

1) Explain Dataset and Datatable.


2) Explain string function with example.
3) Explain select case with example.
4) Explain access modifiers supported in VB.net.
5) Explain MSIL.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR- KM 157

*SLRKM157*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


POWER ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015

Max. Marks : 100

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page
No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data if required.
5) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) A converter which can operate as both 3-pulse and 6-pulse converter is a


a) 3-phase half wave

b) 6-phase full-converter

c) 3-phase semiconverter

d) 3-phase full-converter

2) In three phase half controlled converter maximum possible output voltage for continuous conduction mode
a) is same as discontinuous conduction mode

b) is greater than discontinuous conduction mode

c) is half of discontinuous conduction mode

d) is double of discontinuous conduction mode

3) A single phase fully controlled bridge converter supplies an inductive load. If = 0 then average dc voltage is
a) 2

Vm

b) 0.636 Vm

c)

Vm
2

d) both a) and b)

4) A DC chopper operates on 230 V dc and frequency of 400 Hz, feeds an RL load. The output voltage of
chopper is 150 V, the ON time is _____
a) 1.6305 nsec

b) 1.63 msec

c) 1.863 nsec

d) 0.006 nsec

5) The commutating components of Jones chopper are C = 30 F , L1 = L2 = 60H then highest


permissible turn off time is ___
a) 42.43 sec
b) 42.43 msec
c) 42.43 nsec
d) 42.43 sec
6) In _____ chopper load current is always positive and load voltage is positive or negative.
a) Class C

b) Class D

c) Class F

d) Both a) and b)

7) Morgans chopper
a) Is an example of load commutation

b) Is an example of voltage commutation

c) Is an example of current commutation

d) Both a ) and b)

8) In three phase full converter PIV across any thyristor is


a)

2VLine

b)

3Vm

c) 1.22 Vm

d) both a) and b)

P.T.O.

SLR- KM 157

*SLRKM157*

-2-

9) A half-controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an R-L load. It is operated at a firing angle and
the load current is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the freewheeling diode conducts is

a) 1/2

b) (1 )

c) 2

d)

10) The power electronic converter shown in the above figure has a single-pole double throw switch. The pole
P of the switch is connected alternatively to throws A and B. The converter shown is a

a) step down chopper


c) step-up chopper

b) half-wave rectifier
d) full-wave rectifier

11) Using PWM control method


a) Lower order harmonics can be minimized
c) Both a and b

b) Output voltage is controlled


d) Input voltage is controlled

12) In Single pulse modulation technique, when pulse width is equal to 180, then peak value of fundamental
component will be
a)

4Vs

b) 1.22 Vs

c)

2Vs

d) both a and b

13) Series inverter is ______ commutated and parallel inverter is _____ commutated.
a) self, complementary
b) complementary, self
c) complementary, complementary
d) self, self
14) A three phase 6-pulse cycloconverter uses
a) 6 SCRs
b) 12 SCRs

c) 36 SCRs

d) 18 SCRs

15) In three phase 180 conduction mode bridge inverter with fundamental output frequency of 60 Hz, then
frequencies of other components in the output voltage wave in Hz, would be
a) 60, 180, 420, 660
b) 60, 300, 420, 660, 780, high frequencies
c) 60, 180, 420, 660, 780
d) 60, 180
16) In series inverter output frequency
a) Independent of commutating components but it depends on triggering frequency
b) Depends on commutating components and load parameter
c) Depends on input voltage
d) Remains constant
17) In three phase 120 conduction mode
a) At any instant of time two thyristors are ON
c) No possibility of short circuit

b) Triplen harmonics are absent


d) All above

18) For the large D.C. motor control shown below, if the duty cycle of chopper circuit is reduces then

a) motor speed will increases


c) the speed will not be effected

b) motor speed will decrease


d) frequency of inverter output will decrease

19) Speed control of AC motor can be obtained from


a) Cycloconverter
c) Inverter

b) Controlled rectifier
d) Both a) and c)

20) In Sinusoidal pulse width modulation if p is number of pulses per half cycle then
a) All harmonics less than or equal to are 2p-1 are eliminated
b) All harmonics greater than 2p 1 are eliminated
c) All lower order harmonics are eliminated
d) All harmonics greater than 2p+1 are eliminated

______________

Set A

*SLRKM157*

SLR- KM 157

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


POWER ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.

SECTION I
2.

Attempt any four :

(46=24)

1) Derive an expression for output voltage and equation for minimum and maximum load current of step up
chopper. Sketch associated waveforms.
2) A three phase semiconverter is operated from 3 440 V, 60 Hz mains supply and delivers power to
sufficiently large inductive load having resistance of 15 . If it is required that average output voltage
should be 60% of maximum possible output. Calculate :
a) Firing angle

b) Idc

c) Ratings of SCRs.

3) Explain time ratio control and current limit control strategies used for choppers.
4) A single phase half controlled converter is used to charge a battery. If supply voltage is 250 V, effective load
resistance is 0.4 and battery voltage is 180 V. Calculate average dc voltage and firing angle to limit the
load current to 50 A. And draw voltage waveforms.
5) Explain with waveform effect of freewheeling diode on performance single phase full converter with RLE
load.
3.

Attempt any two :

(28=16)

1) Describe microcontroller based firing scheme for single phase controlled converters with flow chart.
2) Explain the process of commutation of main thyristor by means of suitable diagram and waveforms in Jones
chopper. Assume the load is DC motor.
3) Explain operation of three phase fully controlled bridge converter with inductive load. Derive an expression
for average load voltage. Sketch associated waveforms for = 60.

Set A

SLR- KM 157

-4-

*SLRKM157*

SECTION II
4.

Attempt any four :

(46=24)

1) Derive an expression of RMS value of nth harmonic component for single phase half bridge square wave
inverter.
2) Explain harmonics reduction techniques using transformer connection. How is eliminates 5th harmonic
component ?
3) Explain operation of single phase bridge type cycloconverter with inductive load. The frequency is fo/fs = 1/5.
Sketch associated waveforms.
4) Explain working of six pulse cycloconverter with resistive load. The frequency ratio is fo/fs = 1/5. Sketch
associated output waveforms.
5) How three phase inverter used in speed control of AC motor ? Explain with suitable diagram.
5.

Attempt any two :

(28=16)

1) With neat circuit diagram and appropriate waveforms explain working of parallel inverter with highly
inductive load.
2) Explain operation of microcontroller based four quadrant DC drive with help suitable block diagram and
flow chart.
3) Explain different methods for improvement of power factor.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 158

*SLRKM158*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m.to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the __________layer.
a) Application
b) Presentation c) Data link
d) Physical
2) Ethernet uses a __________ physical address that is imprinted on the Network
Interface Card (NIC).
a) 32 bits
b) 64 bits
c) 48 bytes
d) 128 bits
3) For a __________ channel, Shannon theorem is useful to capacity to find the
maximum bit rate.
a) Noiseless
b) Noisy
c) Band pass
d) Narrow band
4) Unipolar, bipolar and polar encoding are types of__________encoding.
a) Line
b) Block
c) Manchester
d) NRZ
5) The signal rate is sometimes called the __________rate.
a) Bit
b) Baud
c) Signal
d) None of the above
6) What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise
than twisted-pair cable ?
a) Inner conductor
b) Diameter of the cable
c) Outer conductor
d) Insulating material
7) A local telephone network is an example of a __________network.
a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Message switched
d) None of the above
8) In_________ error correction, the receiver correct errors without requesting
retransmission.
a) Forward
b) Reverse
c) Onward
d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 158

-2-

*SLRKM158*

9) In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4,5 and 6 are received successfully, the receiver
may send an ACK __________ to the sender.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
10) __________ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount
of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.
a) Error
b) Flow
c) Transmission
d) None of the above

11) Which of the following provides reliable communication ?


a) TCP
b) IP
c) UDP
d) All of the above
12) What is the size of Network id and Host id of Class A of IP address ?
a) Network id 7 bits, Host id 24 bits b) Network id 8 bits, Host id 24 bits
c) Network id 7 bits, Host id 23 bits d) Network id 8 bits, Host id 23 bits
13) What does Router do in a network ?
a) Forwards a packet to all outgoing links
b) Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link
c) Determines on which outing link a packet is to be forwarded
d) Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the originated link
14) What is the use of subnetting ?
a) It divides one large network into several smaller ones
b) It divides network into network classes
c) It speeds up the speed of network
d) None of above
15) Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI model ?
a) Physical layer b) Data link layer c) Network layer d) Transport layer
16) In ARQ, a NAK
a) is sent by the recipient if the message contains an error
b) means that the sender should continue with sending the next message
c) is sent by the recipient if the message was received without error
d) is sent by the sender at the same time as it sends a data packet
17) Internet works on
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
18) IEEE __________ LAN has provision of getting the feedback of data delivery.
a) 802.3
b) 802.4
c) 802.5
d) 802.11
19) The maximum IP packet size is __________
a) 1 KB
b) 10 KB
c) 32 KB
d) 64 KB
20) The ____________routing is a dynamic routing protocol.
a) Shortest path
b) Distance vector
c) Flow based
d) None of mentioned
______________
Set A

*SLRKM158*

-3-

SLR-KM 158

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.

SECTION I
2. Answer any four :

(46=24)

1) List various issues handled in transport, network and data link layer of OSI
reference layer model. Explain different types of framing methods.
2) What are the different types of MODEMs ? Draw the block diagram of
MODEM and explain it briefly.
3) Discuss CRC algorithm for errors detection. Find the transmitted bit
string if message bit string is 110101010 and generator polynomial is
G(x) = X4 + X2 + 1 using CRC algorithm.
4) What are different types of stations and modes of data transfer in HDLC ?
Draw and explain frame format for data exchange in HDLC.
5) Explain different collision oriented and collision free protocols in medium
access control.
3. Answer any two :

(28=16)

1) What are different network topologies ? Explain each in detail along with
their benefits and drawbacks.
2) Explain neatly working of IEEE 802.5 LAN. How acknowledgement of data
delivery is made in IEEE 802.5 LAN ?
3) Explain the terms sequence number, senders window, receivers and
sliding window related to sliding window flow control. Discuss the working
mechanism of sliding window flow control in detail.
Set A

SLR-KM 158

-4-

*SLRKM158*

SECTION II
4. Answer any four :

(46=24)

1) Explain the version, HELN, identification and fragment field and related
flags in case of IP header.
2) What are the data packets at each TCP/IP protocol called ? Draw the
formats of special IP addresses.
3) Discuss TCP connections needed in FTP. Explain FTP in detail.
4) Compare between datagram and virtual circuit subnets. Explain principle of
optimality and fairness in routing protocol.
5) Explain various devices used in computer networking.
5. Answer any two :

(28=16)

1) Draw the TCP header format and explain each field in detail.
2) Explain distance vector routing algorithm.
3) What is congestion ? Explain TCP congestion control algorithm in detail

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 159

*SLRKM159*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015
MOBILE TECHNOLOGY (Old)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Which of these is not true for TDD ?


a) TDD uses different time slots for transmission and reception paths
b) Single radio frequency can be used
c) Duplexer is required
d) It increases the battery life of mobile phones
2) The connectivity from exchange to customer prermises is termed as
a) Data network
b) Access network or local loop
c) Bridge network
d) None of the above
3) The process of channel coding, encryption, multiplexing and modulation for trans direction
and reverse for reception are to be carried out by
a) BTS
b) BSC
c) MSC
d) MS
4) The CDMA system has a soft capacity limit. That is increasing the number of users will
_________ the system performance.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) stabilise
d) None of the above
5) Channel data rates are _________ in CDMA systems.
a) very low
b) very high
c) moderate
d) none of the above
6) A network mobility supporting ATM switch is
a) EMAS
b) NMAS
c) RS

d) ACT

7) CDMA base stations consumes ________ power than GSM and also covers a ________
distance.
a) more, large
b) less, large
c) less, less
d) none of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 159

*SLRKM159*

-2-

8) The cell size in CDMA is __________ compared to GSM.


a) larger
b) smaller
c) same

d) none of the above

9) Which of this is the interface between MS and BSS ?


a) Um
b) A
c) Abis

d) None of the above

10) Which of this is the interface between BTS and BSC ?


a) Um
b) A
c) Abis

d) None of the above

11) Which of this is the interface within the GSM network architecture between the BSS
(Base Station Subsystem) and an MSC (Mobile Switching Centre) ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
12) Modulation scheme used in GSM is
a) QPSK
b) 16 QAM

c) GMSK

13) The smallest inter frame spacing in MAC of 802.11 is


a) DIFS
b) PIFS
c) SIFS

d) 0.3 GMSK
d) QIFS

14) RFCOMM in a bluetooth protocol stack is a ________ interface.


a) Host controller
b) Link control
c) Serial line
d) Radio frequency
15) IP in IP, minimal and generic routing are schemes of
a) Encapsulation
b) Tunneling
c) Optimization
16) Bluetooth is the wireless technology for
a) Local area network
c) Both a and b

d) Routing

b) Personal area network


d) None of the mentioned

17) Bluetooth uses


a) Frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) Orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) Time division multiplexing
d) None of the mentioned
18) Mostly _________is used in wireless LAN.
a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
19) The DHCP server
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) all of the mentioned
20) IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is
a) for a limited period
b) for unlimited period
c) not time dependent
d) None of the mentioned
______________

Set A

*SLRKM159*

-3-

SLR-KM 159

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MOBILE TECHNOLOGY (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-15
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
a) Compare different multiplexing schemes.

20

b) Explain a typical application scenario for SDM.


c) With suitable diagram explain concept of handoff and issues associated with it.
d) Explain Blocked Calls Delayed Trunking.
e) Discuss limitations of CDMA.
3

Attempt any two :


a) With suitable example explain concept of ARFCN, physical channel and logical channel.

20

b) Explain long code scrambling in forward traffic channel in detail for CDMA-IS95.
c) Explain TCH/FS, SACCH and FACCH channel coding in GSM signal processing.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

20

a) Explain its advantages and disadvantages with suitable examples of WLAN.


b) Describe infrastructure architecture for IEEE 802.11.
c) With suitable diagram and example explain direct mode of HiperLAN2.
d) What were the design goals of bluetooth ?
e) What is encapsulation ? Why it is required ?
5

Attempt any two :

20

a) Describe infrastructure architecture for WLAN. Explain its advantages and disadvantages
with suitable examples.
b) What are the services of IEEE 802.11 MAC layer ?
c) With suitable diagram explain general architecture of HiperLAN2.

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 160

*SLRKM160*
S

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Select suitable option :


(201=20)
1) If the voltage across resistor of value 25 K is to be measured with sensitivity of
20 K /V, then % error is _________
a) 5.2%
b) 6.3%
c) 3.2%
d) 2.5%
2) Universal counter cannot measure
a) Duty cycle
b) Time
c) Period
d) Distortion
3) Which of below is not a building block of frequency measurement ?
a) Gate
b) Shift register
c) Counter
d) Schmitt trigger
4) __________ generator generates complex signal processing samples.
a) Data
b) Arbitrary function
c) Arbitrary waveform
d) Vector
5) Electrical field required to activate LCD is typically of order
a) 104 V/cm
b) 102 V/cm
c) 104 mV/cm
d) 102 mV/cm
6) Harmonic distortion is due to
a) DC level of the signal
b) Distortion in the measuring equipment
c) Nonlinear device or system
d) None
7) A logic analyzer is used when we need
a) To see small voltage changes in the signal
b) High time interval accuracy
c) To see the relationship of many signals at a time
d) To measure rise time of the signal


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 160

*SLRKM160*

-2-

8) In a conventional period measurement counter if counting register counts up to


1234 and period displayed is 123.4 us, the selected gate time is
a) 1 ms
b) 0.1 ms
c) 1 us
d) 0.1 us
9) For a 100 MHz signal, the main switching time should be
a) > 10 ns
b) < 5 ns
c) > 100 ns
d) > 5 ns
10) At frequency of oscillation, the feedback factor , in Wien Bridge oscillator
a) is real
b) is imaginary
c) is complex
d) does not change
11) ________ oscillators are used for AF signal generator.
a) Crystal
b) LC
c) RC
d) All of above
12) A 0 300 V voltmeter has an error of 2% of full scale deflection. What would be
the range of readings if true voltage is 30 V ?
a) 24 V 36 V
b) 29.4 V 30.6 V c) 20 V 40 V
d) None
13) Dynamic response consists of
a) Two parts, one steady state and the other transient state response
b) Only transient state response
c) Only steady state response
d) Steady state and transient frequency response
14) A 1 mA d Arsonval movement has a resistance of 100 . It is to be converted to a
10 V voltmeter. The value of multiplier resistance is
b) 9999
c) 9900
d) 990
a) 999
15) In a series type ohmmeter
a) 0 marking is on the left hand side of scale while
marking is on right hand
side
marking is on left hand
b) 0 marking is on the right hand side of scale while
side
c) Any of the above two markings can be on left or right side of the scale
d) 0 marking is in the middle of scale
16) In signal generators
a) Energy is created
b) Energy is generated
c) Energy is converted from a simple d. c. source into a. c. energy at some specific
frequency
d) All the above
17) A triangular waveshape is obtained
a) By integrating a square wave
b) By differentiating a sine wave
c) By differentiating a square wave
d) By integrating a sine wave
18) The resistance of a voltmeter of 0 100 V range is 1000 . Its sensitivity is
b) 1 /V
c) 10 /V
d) 100 /V
a) 0.1 /V
19) In spectrum analyzer _________ is displayed on X axis.
a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) None of above
20) Quality _________ can change product quality.
a) Assurance
b) Control
c) Examination
d) All of above
______________
Set A


*SLRKM160*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 160

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain structure of LED. Why it is said as active display ?


b) What is static error ? State types of systematic errors, giving examples and remedies
of each.
c) Explain series type ohmmeter and derive equation for R1 and R2.
d) Explain normalizing, presetting and prescaling functions used in conventional
frequency counter.
e) Give the difference between function generator and synthesized function generator.
3. a) Design an audio signal generator and give detail functions of components used.

10

b) What are dynamic characteristics of an instrument ? Derive the equation of dynamic


response of 1st and 2nd order instruments.

10

OR
c) With suitable diagram explain Universal counter.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 160

-4-

*SLRKM160*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Draw the block diagram of distortion analyzer and explain its operation. What steps
are taken to reduce hum and noise in the analyzer ?
b) Explain in brief quality tools of ISO 9000 series.
c) List out objectives of data acquisition system.
d) How is the target systems interfaced with the logic analyzer ?
e) Write a short note on total quality management.
5. a) What is vector analyzer ? Draw its block diagram and explain its operation. Compare
it with the FFT analyzer.

10

b) With suitable diagram explain data logger. List its applications.

10

OR
c) With suitable diagram explain multi channel DAS.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 161

*SLRKM161*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MECHATRONICS (Elective I) (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) For electric traction which drive is most suitable ?


a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant

d) None of these

2) Actuators are interfaced with which card of PLC ?


a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card

d) Power supply

3) Which sensor is self generating type ?


a) Thermocouple
b) RTD

c) PT100

d) Thermostat

4) Execution time of PLC depends on


a) Memory size
c) Power supply used for PLC

b) Ladder size
d) Number of I/O

5) The number of I/Os for micro PLC are


a) More than 8
b) Less than 4

c) More than 16

d) More than 32

6) The variable frequency drive is suitable for


a) DC servo motor
b) DC series motor
c) AC motor
d) DC shunt motor
7) The device which provides maximum Isolation is
a) Pulse Transformer
b) Normal Transformer
c) Opto isolator
d) None of the above
8) In PID which parameter is responsible for Oscillation
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI

d) PO

9) The basic element of ON/OFF Controller is


a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
d) Differential Amplifier
10) In PID which parameter is responsible for Maximum Overshoot ?
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 161

*SLRKM161*

-2-

11) Proportional band of a controller is define as the range of


a) Measured variable to the set variable
b) Air output as the measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
c) Measured variables through which the air output varies from maximum to minimum
d) None of the above
12) Proportional band of the controller is expressed as
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
d) Range of control variables
13) The term reset control refers to
a) Proportional
c) Derivative

b) Integral
d) None of the above

14) The integral control


a) Increases the steady state error
c) Increases the noise and stability

b) Decreases the steady state error


d) Decreases the damping coefficient

15) In a proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater increases the
offset will
a) Increase
b) Reduce
c) Remain uneffected
d) None of the above
16) When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional band
a) Increase
b) Reduces
c) Remains unchanged
d) None of the above
17) The number of operational amplifiers require for designing of electronic PID controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
18) Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state response ?
a) Proportional action
b) Proportional + Integral action
c) Proportional + Differential action
d) Proportional + Integral + Differential action
19) In a PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has to be
__________ so as to reduce offset.
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
d) None of the above
20) In a PID controller, the overshoots has increased. The derivative time constant has to be
__________ so as to reduce the overshoots.
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
d) None of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM161*

-3-

SLR-KM 161

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MECHATRONICS (Elective I) (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any three :
a) Draw neat diagram of PI controller. Explain each block in detail.
b) What are different methods of breaking systems ? Explain one with suitable diagram and
waveforms.
c) Distinguish between microprocessor and microcontroller based systems.
d) What are different blocks of PLC ? How output module of PLC works ?

15

3. Solve any two :

15

a) Explain with neat diagram How hydraulic power systems works ?


b) What is bipolar drive ? Explain working with neat diagram.
c) How SCR based drive works ? Explain with neat diagram and waveform.
4. Design analog proportional derivative controller for following specification :

10

i) process variable range 0 to 600C


ii) set point 200C to 250C
iii) use R type thermocouple with sensitivity 40 micro V/C
iv) proportional band 50%
v) derivative constant 2.5
vi) assume suitable data.
SECTION II
5. Write short note on any three :

15

a) Range Sensor
b) Magnetic Gripper
c) Pneumatic system
d) Interfacing of sensors with system.

Set A

SLR-KM 161

-4-

*SLRKM161*

6. Solve any two :

15

a) How touch sensor is manufactured ? Explain application of it.


b) What is digital sensor ? Why it is preferred over other sensors ? Explain with example.
c) Compare with suitable example MEMS and Conventional system.
7. How robotic system works ? Explain components required for it.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 162

*SLR-KM-162*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : IMAGE PROCESSING (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


20
1) What is image ?
a) Picture
b) Matrix of pixel
c) Collection of pixel d) All of these
2) Which image processing technique is used to eliminate electronic noise by mathematical
process ?
a) Frame averaging b) Image understanding c) Image compression
d) None
3) Which type of enhancement operations are used to modify pixel values according to the
value of the pixel=s neighbors ?
a) Point operations
b) Local operations c) Global operations d) Mask operations
4) The amount of noise decreases by ____________ of number of frames averaged.
a) Division
b) Square root
c) Linear
d) None
5) Dilation-Morphological image operation technique is used to
a) Shrink brighter areas of the image
b) Diminishes intensity variation over the image
c) Expands brighter areas of the image
d) Cales pixel intensity uniformly
6) Image compression is
a) Making image look better
b) Sharpening the intensity-transition regions
c) Minimizing degradation over image
d) Reducing the redundancy of the image data
7) Which is a fundamental task in image processing used to match two or more pictures ?
a) Registration
b) Segmentation
c) Computer vision d) Image differencing
8) DFT stands as
a) Discrete Fourier Transform
b) Digital Function Transform
c) Digital Frequency Transform
d) None
9) Basic steps for filtering in the frequency domain
a) Fourier transform
b) Filter function
c) Inverse Fourier transform
d) All of these
10) A generalization of unsharp masking is
a) High boost filtering b) Low boost filtering
c) a) and b)
d) None
11) _____________ can be thought of as one low-pass filtered image minus another low
pass filtered image.
a) The low pass filtered image
b) The high pass filtered image
c) The band pass filtered image
d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 162

-2-

*SLR-KM-162*

12) Morphological image processing


a) Used to compact image components that are useful in the representation and
description of region shape
b) Use to extract image components that are useful in the representation and description
of region shape
c) Used to extract image components that are useful in the compression of region shape
d) None of above
13) Segmentation algorithms generally are based on one of 2 basis properties of intensity
values
a) Discontinuity : to partition an image based on sharp changes in intensity (such as
edges)
b) Similarity : to partition an image into regions that are similar according to a set of
predefined criteria
c) a) and b)
d) None of above
14) Detect the three basic types of gray-level discontinuities
a) Points
b) Lines
c) Edges
d) All of above
15) Point Detection
a) Point has been detected at the location on which the mark is centered if | R |
b) T is a nonnegative threshold
c) R is the sum of products of the coefficients with the gray levels contained in the region
encompassed by the mark
d) All of above
16) This is a

17)

18)

19)

20)

a) Point detection mask


b) Line detection mask (Horizontal)
c) Line detection mask (vertical)
d) None of above
____________ counting the number of direction change (in counter clockwise) between
2 adjacent elements of the code.
a) The second difference of a chain code b) The third difference of a chain code
c) The first difference of a chain code
d) None of above
A chain code : 10103322
a) The first difference = 3133030
b) The first difference = 3130030
c) The first difference = 3100030
d) None of above
___________ use to describe holes and connected components of the region.
a) Topological descriptors
b) Laplace Descriptors
c) Regional Descriptors
d) None of above
The basic idea behind Huffman coding is to
a) Compress data by using more bits to encode more frequently occurring characters
b) Expand data by using fewer bits to encode more frequently occurring characters
c) Compress data by using fewer bits to encode more frequently occurring characters
d) Compress data by using fewer bits to encode fewer frequently occurring characters
______________
Set A

*SLR-KM-162*

-3-

SLR-KM 162

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : IMAGE PROCESSING (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any 4 :

20

a) What do you mean by blurring ?


b) Explain the terms - image sensing and acquisition.
c) Distinguish between digital images and binary image with suitable example.
d) What is m-connectivity among pixels with suitable example.
e) What is contrast stretching ?

3. Attempt any 2 :

20

a) Define digital image. Explain the fundamental steps in digital image processing.
b) Explain different techniques to sharpen the image in frequency domain.
c) Explain walsh transform along its properties.

Set A

SLR-KM 162

-4-

*SLR-KM-162*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 :

20

a) What is segmentation ?
b) Explain gradient operator.
c) Explain length of a boundary.
d) Specify the various image representation approaches.
e) What are different compression methods ?
5. Attempt any 2 :

20

a) Briefly explain the different phases of candy edge detectors. Differentiate between
Gaussians edge detector and candy edge detector.
b) Define chain codes. Explain the three different types of polygonal approximations.
c) Explain with block diagram the lossy predictive coding with delta modulation technique.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 163

*SLRKM163*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015
POWER ELECTRONICS

Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget
to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) In three phase full converter PIV across any thyristor is


a)

2 VLL

b)

3 Vm

c)

3 VLL

d) a) and b)

2) In DC chopper load voltage is governed by


a) Number of power devices used in circuits
b) Duty cycle of circuit
c) Input DC voltage
d) Ratings of power devices
3) A three phase full converter operating with three phase 440 V, 60 Hz. The IL is continuous and ripple
free is equal to 150 A. RMS load current is
a) 86.6 A
b) 106.06
c) 239.80
d) 150
4) In three phase half controlled converter average maximum output voltage for continuous conduction
mode is
a)

3 3 Vm

b)

3 3 Vm
2

c)

3 Vm

d)

3 Vm
2

5) For step up chopper Vs is source voltage RL is load resistance and is duty cycle average
output voltage of this chopper is
a) Vs
b) (1 )/Vs
c) Vs/
d) Vs/(1 )
6) In thyristor dc chopper _______________ type of commutation results in best performance.
a) supply commutation
b) current commutation
c) load commutation
d) voltage commutation
7) In ________________ chopper load current is always positive and Load voltage is positive or negative.
a) Class C
b) Class D
c) Class F
d) Both a) and b)
8) A Class B chopper drive used for
a) Reverse breaking
c) Reverse motoring

b) Forward motoring
d) Forward breaking
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 163

*SLRKM163*

-2-

9) Jones chopper
a) Is an example of Class D commutation
c) Is an example Current commutation

b) Is an example of Voltage commutation


d) Both a) and b)

10) The fundamental rms value of per phase output voltage of cycloconverter for = 0 is

m
m
a) Vor = Vph cos

b) Vor = Vph

sin
m

c) Vor = Vph sin

d) Vor = Vph

m
cos
m

11) A three phase 6-pulse cycloconverter uses


a) 6 SCRs
b) 12 SCRs

c) 36 SCRs

12) Square wave PWM technique allows


a) voltage control and harmonic control
c) frequency control and harmonic control

b) voltage control and frequency control


d) only harmonic control

d) 18 SCRs

13) Using multiple transformer connection for nth harmonic elimination, the secondarys are phase
shifted by
b) / n

a) 2 / n

c) n /

d) / 2n

14) In ________ inverter output frequency is independent of commutating component but depends upon
triggering frequency of thyristors.
a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Series Inverter with coupled inductors
d) Both b) and c)
15) In Sinusoidial pulse width modulation if number of pulses per half cycle is P then
a) All harmonics up to 2P + 1 order are eliminated
b) All harmonics up to 2P 1 order are eliminated
c) All harmonics up to 6P + 1 order are eliminated
d) All harmonics up to 6P 1 order are eliminated
16) A single phase bridge inverter has dc input voltage Vs = 50 V. Then amplitude of square wave is
a) 50 V

b) 25 V

c) 100 V

d) 50/ 2

17) In Multiple Pulse Width Modulation technique RMS value of output voltage is
a) Vs

b) Vs

c) Vs

d) Vs

18) In an a.c. motor control, the ratio of voltage to frequency is must be kept constant
a) The maximum torque can be maintained constant for whole speed range
b) To make minimum use of magnetic circuit
c) To maximize the current from the supply to provide torque
d) To minimize the current drawn from the supply to provide torque
19) Power factor can be corrected by
a) Overexcited synchronous motor
b) Capacitive power factor corrector
c) Static VAR compensator
d) All above
20) For the large a.c. motor control shown below, if firing angle of power devices from rectifier circuit is
decreased then
Rectifier

Inverter

a) motor speed will increase


c) the speed will not be effected

Motor
b) motor speed will decrease
d) frequency of inverter output will increase

______________

Set A

*SLRKM163*

-3-

SLR-KM 163

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


POWER ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(46)

1) Discuss the effect of source inductance on the performance of three phase full controlled rectifier.
2) A three phase controlled converter is supplied from 3 , 230 V, 60 Hz supply. If Idc = 150 A is
continuous and ripple free and commutating inductance Lc = 0.1 mH. Calculate overlap angle for
= 10, 30, 60.
3) Derive an expression for output voltage and equation for minimum and maximum load current of
step up chopper. Sketch associated waveforms.
4) With help of voltage and current waveform explain working of Class B chopper.
5) Explain operation of single phase bridge type cycloconverter with inductive load. The frequency is
fo/fs = 1/5. Sketch associated waveforms.
3. Solve any two :

(28)

1) Explain operation of three phase full controlled converter with Inductive load. Derive an expression
for average load voltage. Draw voltage and current waveform for = 90.
2) Describe load commutated chopper with associated voltage and current waveform as a function of
time.
3) Draw and explain the control circuit block diagram for cycloconverter with non-circulating current
mode.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(46)

1) Draw the block diagram and explain operation of closed loop DC motor control with inner current
loop.
2) Explain working of three phase PWM Inverter for AC drive.
3) Explain basic principle of static VAR compensators.

Set A

SLR-KM 163

-4-

*SLRKM163*

4) Explain the following performance parameters of inverters.


i) Harmonic factor of nth harmonic
ii) Total harmonic distortion
iii) Distortion factor
iv) Lowest order harmonic
5) The single phase half bridge inverter has resistive load of 20 and center tap dc input voltage is 90 V.
Calculate :
a) RMS value of output voltage
b) RMS voltage of fundamental component
c) First five harmonics of output voltage
d) RMS and fundamental power consumed by load.
5. Solve any two :

(28)

1) What is the principle of closed loop control of AC Drive ? Explain with suitable block diagram
speed control of Induction Motor using the fuzzy logic control.
2) Explain working of three phase bridge inverter 120 conduction mode. Derive an expression for
RMS value of line and phase voltage. Sketch associated line and phase voltage waveforms.
3) With neat circuit diagram and appropriate waveforms explain working of parallel inverter with
highly inductive load.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 164

*SLRKM164*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) An error control is an issue of __________ layer.
a) Transport
b) Data link
c) Network

(201=20)
d) Application

2) Gigabit Ethernet uses__________ cables for interconnections.


a) cat 4
b) cat 6
c) cat 5
d) Optical fiber
3) __________is fully digital local area network protocol.
a) IEEE 802.4
b) IEEE 802.5
c) Ethernet

d) IEEE 802.11

4) The __________ CSMA shows the best performance.


a) 1 persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) p-persistent
d) None of above
5) A packet is term related to__________ layer whereas frame is related
to__________layer.
a) Network, data link
b) Network, physical
c) Data link, physical
d) Transport, data link
6) MODEM is a __________layer device.
a) Physical
b) Application
c) Data link

d) Network

7) In__________ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte.
a) Synchronous
b) Asynchronous
c) Parallel
d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 164

-2-

*SLRKM164*

8) In selective reject ARQ, if frame number 4 out of transmitted 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6


frames is errored, the receiver may send a feedback signal with sequence number
___________ back to the sender.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
9) Two dissimilar types of LANs can be connected together by using __________
a) Repeater
b) Bridge
c) Router
d) Gateway
10) ___________provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits.
a) Line coding
b) Scrambler
c) Block coding
d) None of above
11) In IP address 192.168.1.5, the host id is __________
a) 0.0.0.5
b) 5
c) 5.0.0.0

d) 192.168.1

12) In IP header if first 4 bits in version field are 0100, the router__________the IP
packet.
a) Discard
b) Accept
c) Bypass
d) None of the above
13) The minimum header length in IP is __________
a) 20 bytes
b) 60 bytes
c) 20 to 60 byte
d) Depend on data in packet
14) The logical and port address together in the internet is called _______addresses.
a) Socket
b) Host
c) Server
d) None of the above
15) In ARP the input address is_________address and output address is _______address.
a) IP, physical
b) Physical, IP
c) IP, Port
d) None of the above
16) If ICMP message is redirect then it means__________
a) IP packet is lost
b) IP header contain wrong information
c) IP packet is on wrong path
d) None of the above
17) UDP uses__________type of communication.
a) Virtual connection
b) Datagram
c) Shortest path
d) All of the above
18) In software defined networking architecture uses__________layers.
a) Application and control
b) Application, control and infrastructure
c) Control and infrastructure
d) Application and infrastructure
19) DHCP provides__________IP address assignment to the host.
a) Manual
b) Automatic
c) Critical
d) None of the above
20) __________ network instruction is used to checkport on a computer.
a) ping
b) traceroute
c) ipconfig
d) None of the above

______________
Set A

*SLRKM164*

-3-

SLR-KM 164

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four :

(45=20)

1) Draw different network topologies and explain their functioning along with
advantages and drawbacks.
2) Define Nyquist and Shannon theorem to define maximum channel capacity. For a
telephone network with 20 dbs SNR, find maximum data rate for binary
communication.
3) Draw OSI layered reference model and explain issues handled in physical. Data
link and network layer during communication.
4) What is error in data communication ? What are different types of error control ?
Discuss CRC algorithm in short.
Find block parity to transmit four data words 1110001, 1010101, 1001100 and
0110011 over a channel. How resultant data is sent over channel ?
5) List various networking devices. What are LAN interconnection problems ?
3. Answer any two :

(210=20)

1) What is piggybacking in communication ? Discuss sliding window flow control


mechanism in detail. What is the maximum window size normally kept ?
2) Draw frame format used in IEEE 802.5 LAN communication. How data delivery
is acknowledged in the same ? What is the priority scheme used in
IEEE 802.5 ?
3) Draw and explain frame format of IEEE 802.3 LAN. Draw ARP header format and
describe use of every field.

Set A

SLR-KM 164

-4-

*SLRKM164*

SECTION II
4. Answer any four :

(45=20)

1) Discuss connection establishment and connection release process in TCP.


2) Draw UDP header format and explain each field. What is pseudo header in UDP
checksum calculation ?
3) What is the need of fragmentation in IP communication ? Explain fragmentation
process and different flags and parameters used in fragmentation.
4) Explain software defined networking in detail.
5) What are ICMP query and error reporting ? Mention different ICMP messages and
its meaning in detail.
5. Answer any two :

(210=20)

1) Draw TCP header format and explain significance of each field in detail. What are
the features of TCP ?
2) What are static and dynamic routing algorithms ? Discuss working principle of
distance vector routing. What is count to infinity problem related to distance vector
routing ?
3) What is difference in UDP and TCP protocol ? Draw flowchart and step by step
implementation of TCP client and TCP server.
Discuss networking commands ping, ipconfig and traceroute.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 165

*SLRKM165*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Select suitable option :


(201=20)
1) Universal frequency reuse is a property of
a) GSM
b) CDMA
c) Both GSM and CDMA
d) None of the above
2) A too large handoff threshold ( ) causes
a) unnecessary too many handoff
b) call drop
c) fading
d) dwell time handoff
3) Interface between BTS and BSC is
a) A
b) U
c) Abis
d) Radio interface
4) The IEEE 802.16 a is also known as
a) WiFi
b) Bluetooth
c) WiMax
d) WLAN
5) Which of below is a feature of Bluetooth ?
a) small size
b) low cost
c) low power
d) all of these
6) A Bluetooth Piconet can have maximum __________ active slaves.
a) 7
b) 8
c) 255
d) no such limit
7) IP in IP, Minimal and Generic Routing are schemes of
a) Encapsulation
b) Tunneling
c) Optimization
d) Routing
8) In GSM, Frequency Correction (FCCH) and Synchronization (SCH) are the
sub channels of __________ channel.
a) common
b) dedicated control
c) broadcast control
d) traffic
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 165

-2-

*SLRKM165*

9) GSM uses 0.3 GMSK modulation. In this 0.3 is associated with


a) bit rate
b) noise
c) error rate
d) filter
10) Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is implemented at __________ layer.
a) network access
b) internet
c) transport
d) MAC
11) Data rate of TCH/FS is _____________
a) 13 kbps
b) 22.8 kbps
c) 5.6 kbps
d) 11.4 kbps
12) In a CDMA forward link various traffic and control channels are separated
using
a) long PN code
b) short PN code
c) Walsh cover
d) time slots
13) Low frequency band id used for _____________ communication.
a) GSM and CDMA
b) RADAR
c) Submarine
d) Commercial radio
14) Below are two sub layers of 802.11 PHY
a) LLC and MAC
b) PLCP and PMD
c) LLC and PMD
d) PMD and MAC
15) IEEE 802.11 uses _________ modulation at PHY for data rate of 2 Mbps.
a) GMSK
b) GFSK
c) DBPSK
d) DQPSK
16) Which of below can be used for wireless broadband applications ?
a) DSL
b) WiFi
c) WiMax
d) All of these
17) If Q = D/R and D is distance between co channel cells, then R is
a) radius of a cell
b) radius of a sector
c) range in dB
d) none of these
18) Frequency spectrum of 0-87.5 MHz is used for
a) marine and aeronautical navigation
b) short and medium wave radio
c) amateur (ham) radio
d) all of these
19) Take odd man out : access point, base station, master, switching node
a) access point
b) base station
c) master
d) switching node
20) Take odd man out : WiFi, WiMax, Bluetooth, CDMA
a) WiFi
b) WiMax
c) Bluetooth
______________

d) CDMA

Set A

*SLRKM165*

-3-

SLR-KM 165

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) With suitable example prove how reservation ALOHA is better than other
ALOHA versions.

10

b) With suitable example show how two signals can be multiplexed at same
medium uses two different spreading codes. Explain coding and recovering
of the two signals. Explain how DSSS can rectify error in reception. Explain
need of power control.
10
OR
c) For a situation of a person crossing a cell boundary with an on going call
give details how his call can be maintained with a handoff procedure. What
are the issues constraints associated ?
10
3. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Elaborate role of different broadest control channels in GSM.


b) Compare GSM and CDMA.
c) Why cellular communication suffers with co channel interference ? How to
combat it ?
d) Prove-cell splitting can increase capacity of cellular system.
e) Sketch and explain FHSS transmitter.

Set A

SLR-KM 165

-4-

*SLRKM165*

SECTION II
4. a) Compare wired network and wireless networks. With suitable example justify
use /application scenario of each network.
10
b) Show how direction, sender and receiver for MAC frames are decided for
each of the below situations in IEEE 802.11 network.
1) From MS to MS in Ad hoc
2) From AP in Infrastructure
3) To AP in Infrastructure
4) From AP to AP in Infrastructure.

10

OR
c) Draw Bluetooth protocol stack and explain each component in brief.
5. Solve any four :

10
(45=20)

a) Organize different constituents of a typical WiMax deployment architecture.


b) What are the elements to support for mobile computing ?
c) Assess agent discovery ? Why it is required ?
d) Propose the requirements for a Mobile IP ?
e) Examine different application scenario of Bluetooth.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 166

*SLRKM166*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC SYSTEM DESIGN (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first


30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries two marks.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Assume suitable data if required.
4) Figures of right hand side indicates maximum marks for
that question.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative from the following :

20

1) What is the output of following circuit ?

a) 4.5V

b) 4.5 mV

c) 4.5 V

d) None of these

c) .58V

d) None of these

2) What is the output of following circuit ?

a) 58V

b) 5.8V

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 166

*SLRKM166*

-2-

3) What is the feedback factor of following circuit ?

a) 9 100
b) 9 10
c) 19
4) In the circuit shown in the fig., LED will be ON if Vi is

d) 1100

a) > 10V
b) < 10V
c) > 5V
d) < 5V
5) In the circuit shown in the figure, uses an ideal OPAMP working with
+5V and 5V power supplies. The output voltage Vo is

a) +5V
b) 5V
6) The circuit shown below uses

7)
8)

9)

10)

c) +1V

d) 1V

a) Voltage series feedback


b) Voltage shunt feedback
c) Current shunt feedback
d) Current series feedback
Which of the following is self generating transducer ?
a) RTD
b) PT100
c) Thermocouple d) LM335
The main features of MOV is
a) Low cost device
b) High current capacity
c) No Precise Control of Voltage
d) All of these
Fuses are divided into three categories such as fast blow, slow blow and time
delay depending on
a) Current rating
b) Voltage rating
c) Response time to over current
d) Voltage and current rating
TO3 package species
a) Transistor outline package
b) Small outline package
c) Optical package
d) J-lead package

______________

Set A

*SLRKM166*

-3-

SLR-KM 166

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC SYSTEM DESIGN (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Figures of right hand side indicates maximum marks for
that question.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
a) What is Centralized Power architecture ? Explain merits and demerits with example.
b) Compare SMPS and Linear Power Supply.
c) What is Mixed Signal Oscilloscope ? Explain with neat sketch.
d) Draw the circuit diagram of four channel switching and multiplexing logic.
e) What are electronic product development stages ? Explain every stage in detail.
3. Design the following electronic product along with all component values :

20

The output voltage of the power supply is 10V and rated current is 3A. This power
supply is activated from variable input supply of 12V to 18V. The designed power
supply should have following requirements :
OUTPUT : 1) 10V rated output and maximum voltage is 11V and minimum
voltage is 9V.
2) The overload capacity is 20% above rated current.
3) The ripple voltage is limited to 0.1mV.
4) Switching frequency is 20KHZ.
INPUT :

1) Input polarity indication


2) Input status indicator.

PROTECTION :

1) Output should be protected against High Voltage, Low


Voltage, Overload.
2) LED indication for Power on, Low Output, High Output and
Overload.

Draw the detail circuit diagram and prepare Bill of Material (BOM). Assume suitable
data if required.

Set A

SLR-KM 166

-4-

*SLRKM166*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

20

a) What are different types of standards ? Give listing of standard developing


organizations.
b) Draw the circuit diagram of +5V and 5V regulated power supply with AC 230V
input supply and prepare the Bill of Material.
c) Write short note on EMI.
d) What is software testing ? What is the different method of software testing ?
e) What are PCB design rules ? Explain the specific care to be taken for noise while
PCB designs.
5. Answer the following :

20

a) What design stages of hardware product ? Explain design states of any


electronic product.
b) Give detail algorithm for software product development process. Explain with
any suitable example.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 168

*SLRKM168*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : MECHATRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicates full marks.
Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) The resolution of an analogue to digital converter with a word length of 8 bits and
an analogue signal input range of 10 V is
a) 5 V
b) 256 mV
c) 1.25 mV
d) 39 mV
2) With derivative control, the controller output is
i) Proportional to the rate of change of the error
ii) Zero when the error is constant
a) Both i) and ii) are true
c) i) is true

b) ii) is true
d) Both i) and ii) are false

3) A counter that starts from a specified number and decrements down to zero is
a) Up counter
b) Down counter
c) Cascading counter
d) Reset counter
4) A controller is essentially ___________
a) Sensor
b) Clipper
c) Comparator

d) Amplifier

5) Execution time of PLC depends upon__________


a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
c) Power supply

d) Number of I/O

6) For the given ladder diagram there is an output when

i) Input 1 is momentarily activated


ii) Input 2 is not activated
a) Both i) and ii) are true
c) i) is false and ii) is true

b) i) is true and ii) is false


d) Both i) and ii) are false

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 168

*SLRKM168*

-2-

7) In PID controller ___________ parameter is responsible for oscillation.


a) KP
b) PO
c) KD
d) KI
8) A sensor, for an input of 5V gives a digital output of a word of 10 bits. Resolution is
a) 5/10 V
b) 10/5 V
c) 5/210V
d) 210/5 V
9) The advantages of using the relay type output in PLCs is that
a) They allows small currents to switch large currents
b) Provides isolation to the PLC from external circuit
c) Suitable for both AC and DC switching
d) All of the above
10) The term PLC stands for
a) Personal Logic Computer
c) Personal Logic Controller

b) Programmable Logic Computer


d) Programmable Logic Controller

11) The difference of the reference input and the actual output signal is called ________
a) Error signal
b) Controlling signal
c) Actuating signal
d) Transfer function
12) _______ controller may increase instability of a system and may cause oscillations.
a) Integral
b) Proportional
c) Differential
d) None of the above
13) __________ is process, in which impure material is added to a material of interest.
a) Etching
b) Implantation
c) Doping
d) Evaporation
14) __________is a device that converts energy to mechanical motion.
a) Sensors
b) Actuators
c) Transducers
d) Amplifiers
15) A __________ actuator uses a pressurized oil to drive a piston.
a) Pneumatic
b) Hydraulic
c) Electric
d) None of the above
16) The 2s complement representation of signed number 1 is
a) 00000010
b) 11111101
c) 11111111
d) None of the above
17) Open Loop Control Systems are
i) More stable than closed loop systems
ii) Easy to design than closed loop systems
a) Both i) and ii) are true
b) i) is true and ii) is false
c) i) is false and ii) is true
d) Both i) and ii) are false
18) DC motor control is achieved using __________
a) PWM
b) Frequency modulation
c) Amplitude modulation
d) None of the above
19) A PLC can be programmed using__________
a) Structured text
b) Sequential function chart
c) Functional block diagram
d) All of above
20) In __________ strain gages, an electrical charge is induced in response to a
mechanical strain.
a) Piezo-electric
b) RTD
c) Piezo-resistive
d) None of the above

______________
Set A

*SLRKM168*

-3-

SLR-KM 168

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : MECHATRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain the possible mechatronics design process stages.


b) Explain in detail the adaptive control system.
c) What is PLC ? Draw the block diagram and state applications of PLC.
d) What are different methods of motor control ? Explain any one with detail.
e) Draw the ladder diagram symbols for normally open, normally closed, relay o/p
timer, counter.
3. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

a) Derive a mathematical model for PID controller. Explain electronic Proportional


Integral Derivative (PID) controller with necessary circuit diagrams.
b) Explain the basic structures of PLC. Explain in detail about the programming of a
PLC. What are the advantages of PLC ?
c) Develop a programmable ladder for motor control with three switches (A, B and C)
i) Motor runs when switch A is closed
ii) Motor stops when switch B is opened.

Set A

SLR-KM 168

-4-

*SLRKM168*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Define is MEMS. What are its applications ?


b) What are the problems associated with bulk machining ? Explain real estate
consumption with neat diagram.
c) Compare traditional and mechatronics design with an example.
d) Explain how thermocouple is used in sensing temperature.
e) What is etching ? Explain in detail wet classes of etching process.
5. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

a) Explain in detail surface micromachining fabrication process for MEMS devices.


b) What are the different stages in designing a mechatronics system, explain in
detail ?
c) Explain the working principle of hydraulic actuation system with a neat sketch.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 169

*SLRKM169*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


(Elective I) IMAGE PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Select suitable option :

(201=20)

1) The smallest discernible change in intensity level is called


a) Intensity resolution
b) Contour
c) Saturation
d) Contrast
2) The transition between continuous values of the image function and its digital equivalent
is called
a) Quantization
b) Sampling
c) Rasterisation
d) None of the mentioned
3) The type of Interpolation where for each new location the intensity of the immediate pixel
is assigned is
a) bucubic interpolation
b) cubic interpolation
c) bilinear interpolation
d) nearest neighbor interpolation
4) Dynamic range of imaging system is a ratio where the upper limit is determined by
a) Saturation
b) Noise
c) Brightness
d) Contrast
5) Transition between objects and background shows
a) ramp edges
b) step edges
c) sharp edges

d) both a) and b)

6) The simple way to compression is removing


a) data
b) superfluous data c) information

d) meaningful data

7) The amount of noise decreases by ________ of number of frames averaged.


a) division
b) square root
c) linear
d) none
8) What is spatial resolution ?
a) its the largest discernible detail in an image
b) its the smallest discernible detail in an image
c) a) and b)
d) none

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 169

*SLRKM169*

-2-

9) HSI color model is


a) Height, Saturation, Intensity
c) Hue, Saturation, Intensity

b) Hue, Symmetric, Intensity


d) None of above

10) Objective of image representation and description


a) To represent and describe information embedded in an image in other forms that are
less suitable than the image itself
b) To represent and describe information embedded in an image in other forms that are
more suitable than the image itself
c) a) and b)
d) None of above
11) ________ counting the number of direction change (in counterclockwise) between 2
adjacent elements of the code.
a) The second difference of a chain code b) The third difference of a chain code
c) The first difference of a chain code
d) None of above
12) ________ view a coordinate (x, y) as a complex number (x = real part and
y = imaginary part) then apply the Fourier transform to a sequence of boundary points.
a) Fourier descriptor
b) Laplace descriptor
c) Regional descriptor
d) None
13) The city block distance between P & Q is defined as _______ where (x, y) and (s, t) are
co-ordinates of P and Q respectively.
a)

{(x s) + (y t)

c)

{(x s)

1
2

b) x s + y t

+ (y t)2

d) None of these

14) ________ represent an object boundary by a connected sequence of straight line segments
of specified length and direction.
a) Hex codes
b) Chain codes
c) Binary codes
d) None of above
15) The sum of cosines and sines coefficient multiplied is
a) Fourier series
b) Fourier transform
c) Fast Fourier series
d) Fast Fourier transform
16) The impulse S (t, v) is function having
a) one variable
b) two variables

c) three variables

d) four variables

17) Giving one period of the periodic convolution is called


a) periodic convolution
b) aperiodic convolution
c) correlation
d) circular convolution
18) Digital video is sequence of
a) pixels
b) matrix

c) frames

d) coordinates

19) Image compression comprised of


a) encoder
b) decoder

c) frames

d) both a) and b)

20)
______________

Set A

*SLRKM169*

-3-

SLR-KM 169

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


(Elective I) IMAGE PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(46=24)

a) Explain the basic relationships between pixels.


b) Explain the properties of 2D Fourier Transform.
c) Explain components of an image processing system.
d) What is meant by image restoration ?
e) Give the mask used for high boost filtering.
3. Solve any two :

(28=16)

a) Explain with necessary diagrams how Histogram modeling techniques modify an image.
b) Explain Wiener smoothing filter and its relation with inverse filtering.
c) What do you mean by digital image processing ? Discuss the different application areas
of digital image processing.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(46=24)

a) What is shape number ? Draw all shapes of order 8 along with 4 directional chain code
and shape number.
b) Explain the process of edge detection using gradient operators.
c) Define data compression, entropy, and relative data redundancy and compression ratio.
d) Differentiate between lossless and lossy compression.
e) What is global, local and dynamic or adaptive threshold.

Set A

SLR-KM 169

-4-

*SLRKM169*

5. Attempt any two:

(28=16)

a) What is polygonal approximation method ? Specify the various polygonal approximation


methods.
b) Discuss in detail the discrete image transform used in image compression.
c) Explain Boundary descriptors in detail with a neat diagram.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 170

*SLRKM170*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Select suitable option :

20

1) The Wavelength correspond to Microwave frequency range is


a) 30 to 300 GHz
b) 3 to 30 GHz
c) 0.3 to 3 Ghz
d) 300 to 3000 GHz
2) The main advantage of microwave is that
a) Highly Directive
c) S/N ratio grater

b) Moves at the speed of light


d) High penetration power

3) Reflex Klystron is a
a) Amplifier

c) Attenuator

b) Oscillator

4) Klystron operates on the principle of


a) Amplitude Modulation
c) Pulse Modulation

d) Filter

b) Frequency Modulation
d) Velocity Modulation

5) In multicavity Klystron additional cavities are inserted between buncher and catcher
cavities to achieve
a) Higher Gain
b) Higher Efficiency
c) Higher Frequency
d) Higher Bandwidth
6) In a TWT the amplitude of resultant wave travelling down the helix
a) Increase Exponentially
b) Increase linearly
c) Decrease exponentially
d) Is almost constant
7) Assertion (A) :

PIN diode can be used as attenuator and limiter.

Reason (R) :
PIN diode has a thin intrinsic layer.
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) A is wrong but R is correct
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 170

*SLRKM170*

-2-

8) The various performance parameter of GaAs MESFETS are


a) Cut-Off frequency
b) Maximum frequency of oscillation
c) Noise fiqure
d) All of these
9) Track RADAR system is based on ______
a) Installation environment
b) Functional characteristics
c) Transmission characteristics
d) Operating frequency band
10) ______ is most widely used for generating microwave frequencies for RADAR.
a) Magnetron
b) Reflex klystron
c) TWT
d) Klystron
11) The first geostationary satellite launched in 1965 was called
a) ANIK
b) EARLY BIRD (INTELSAT I)
c) WESTAR
d) MOLNIYA
12) Rotation of a geosynchronous satellite means its
a) drift from stationary position
b) wobbling
c) three-axis stabilization
d) three-dimensional stabilization
13) A transponder is a satellite equipment which
a) receives a signal from earth station and amplifies
b) changes the frequency of the received signal
c) retransmits the received signal
d) does all of the above-mentioned functions
14) The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the ______ ratio.
a) C/N
b) S/N
c) EIRP
d) G/T
15) Small jet thrusters on a satellite are tired to correct the satellites
a) Orbit
b) Altitude
c) Attitude

d) Gratitude

16) To prevent excessive signal attenuation and noise in atmosphere, satellite angle of
elevation should be less than
a) 6 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 45 degree
d) 5 degree
17) In which of the following is transponder used for communication
a) Single conversion
b) Double conversion
c) On-board controller
d) All
18) When transponders are required for short duration or occasionally then we use
a) DAMA
b) RMA
c) both
d) none
19) In which of the following help for the determination of current orbit and position of spacecraft
take place
a) tracking
b) command system
c) telemetry system
d) none
20) At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is
a) EHF
b) VHF
c) UHF
d) SHF
______________

Set A

*SLRKM170*

-3-

SLR-KM 170

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any three :

(38=24)

a) Explain bunching process in klystron and derive the expression for velocity modulation.
b) Explain principle of operation Tunnel diode and list its applications.
c) Explain the operation, construction of IMPATT and TRAPATT.
d) Draw block diagram of MTI radar system and explain its working principal.
3. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) What is Microwave ? What is the frequency range of microwave ?


b) With suitable diagram explain working of Isolator.
c) Draws block diagram of pulse radar system and state application of RADAR.
d) Explain different slow wave structures.
e) Explain working of directional coupler.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any three :

(38=24)

a) With suitable block diagrams explain telemetry, tracking and command (TT & C) subsystem
of satellite.
b) What is system noise temperature ? How does it affect the C/N and G/T ratio ?
c) Explain construction and workings of edge emitting double hertojunction LED.
d) Explain the working of VSAT hub master control station.

Set A

SLR-KM 170

-4-

*SLRKM170*

5. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) Write a note on satellite solar power system.


b) Explain the terms angle of inclination and angle of elevation with neat diagram.
c) Define the term station keeping.
d) Derive numerical aperture for step index fiber.
e) Compare between TDMA, FDMA and DAMA.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 171

*SLRKM171*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


AUDIO VIDEO ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Select suitable option :


1) The number of active lines in a raster is
a) 480
b) 625
c) 585

20
d) 602

2) __________provide the desired tension in the tape.


a) Tape-guides
b) Flywheels
c) Spools
d) Capstan
3) The ultra high frequency (UHF) range extends from
a) 3-30 MHz
b) 30-300 MHz c) 300-3000 MHz d) 3000-30000 MHz
4) If a gap width is 6 microns and speed of tape is 4.75 cm/sec, the maximum
frequency for recording is
a) 1 KHz
b) 2 KHz
c) 3 KHz
d) 4 KHz
5) In the 625 line system, frequencies upto __________ in the lower sideband
are fully radiated
a) 0.25 MHz
b) 0.50 MHz
c) 0.75 MHz
d) 1.25 MHz
6) During the first vertical trace _____________ lines are scanned.
a) 625
b) 312.5
c) 292.5
d) 290.5
7) The principle of image orthicon camera tube is based on the principle of
a) Photo-resistivity
b) Photo-emissivity
c) Photo-conductivity
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 171

-2-

*SLRKM171*

8) Yagi-Uda antenna is used in television receiver for signal locations within the
range of
a) 20 to 40 Km
b) 40 to 60 Km c) 60 to 80 Km
d) 80 to 100 Km
9) PIL tubes with slotted aperture mask are now most common because
a) They are easier to manufacture
b) They ensure better purity of colour
c) They are self-convergent
d) None
10) _________ polar modulation is used in SECAM system.
a) AM
b) FM
c) Positive
d) Negative
11) The colour subcarrier oscillator frequency of NTSC receiver is
a) 5.579545 MHz b) 4.579545 MHz c) 3.579545 MHz d) 2.579545 MHz
12) __________ is the spectral purity of colour light.
a) Luminance
b) Brightness
c) Hue
d) Saturation
13) In delta gun picture tube, the ratio of electrons passing through the holes to
those reaching the shadow mask is only about ___________ %
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
14) ____________ is the distance between the pedestal level and the average of
value of the video signal.
a) DC level
b) Pedestal height
c) Blanking level
d) Dark level
15) The standard video IF (Intermediate Frequency) adopted by PAL system is
a) 38.9 MHz
b) 33.4 MHz
c) 40.4 MHz
d) 42.4 MHz
16) The two new signals generated in PAL system are
a) (B-Y) and (R-Y)
b) R and B
c) I and Q
d) U and V
17) In delta gun picture tube, the guns are separated by an angle of
a) 0
b) 45
c) 60
d) 120
18) The effect of producing too large displacement of the central beam in picture
tube is known as
a) Astigmatism effect
b) Comma effect
c) Eddy effect
d) Pincushion effect
19) The aspect ratio used in standard TV system is
a) 4:3
b) 3:4
c) 1:2
d) 3:2
20) An antenna is polarized in the plane of
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Field perpendicular to electric and magnetic field
d) Path parallel to both fields
______________
Set A

*SLRKM171*

-3-

SLR-KM 171

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


AUDIO VIDEO ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) Why VSB modulation technique is used for TV transmission ? What are the
drawbacks of VSB modulation ?
b) Why is compression essential in multimedia applications ?
c) How interlaced error is measured ? Sketch line details of 1st and 2nd field.
d) Explain different distortions observed in tape mechanism.
e) Define and compare luminance and chrominance signal of TV transmitter.
3. Solve any three :

(38=24)

a) Explain with neat diagram, the working principle of vidicon camera tube.
b) Explain the principle and working of magnetic recording and reproduction.
Compare disc recording and tape recording systems.
c) Explain the techniques used for video compression. What is real time video ?
How coding of real time video is carried out ?
d) With block diagram explain functions of each block of mono-chrome
TV receiver.

Set A

SLR-KM 171

-4-

*SLRKM171*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) What is compatibility ? What are the requirements of compatibility ?


b) Compare NTSC and PAL colour television standards.
c) List advantages of AGC.
d) Explain working of AFT.
e) Give significance of chromaticity diagram.
5. Attempt any three :

(38=24)

a) Short notes :
1) Delta-gun colour picture tube
2) Precision-in-line colour picture tube.
b) Explain HDTV in detail. What are advantages of HDTV over analog TV system ?
c) Explain with neat diagram PAL encoder.
d) Draw block diagram of digital TV and explain its working in detail.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 172

*SLRKM172*
S

B.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015


EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) Let r5 = 5 and r7 = 8. What will be the content of r7 after execution of instruction


MOV r7, r5, LSL #2 ?
a) 14
b) 20
c) 5
d) 8
2) The cache memory is placed between _________
a) ROM and RAM
b) Main memory and core
c) Main memory and secondary memory
d) All of above
3) _________ is the debug hardware built into the processor that allows
breakpoints and watch points to be set.
a) JTAG
b) Embedded ICE macrocell
c) Boundary scan
d) None of the above
4) LPC2148 has on-chip _________ KB flash memory and _________ KB SRAM.
a) 30, 16
b) 128, 32
c) 512, 40
d) 256, 40
5) ________ mode is a special version of user mode that allows full read-write access
to the cpsr.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
6) The ARM register _________ is called link register.
a) R12
b) R13
c) R14

d) R15

7) In ARM _________ exception is having the highest priority.


a) Reset
b) Supervisor
c) System
d) Interrupt request

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 172

-2-

*SLRKM172*

8) _________ mode is used when the processor encounters an instruction that is


not supported by the implementation.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
9) In ARM7TDMI-S M stands for _________
a) Multiplier
b) Multiplication
c) Maximum
d) None of the above
10) To force logic 0 on port pin P0.14, _________ register is used in LPC2148.
a) IOSET0
b) IOCLR0
c) IODIR0
d) IODIR3
11) A _________ is software for controlling, receiving and sending a byte or stream of
bytes from or to device.
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Processor
d) Device Driver
12) SDA and SCL signal lines are used in _________ communication.
a) SPI
b) CAN
c) MODBUS
d) I2C
13) CAN stands for _________
a) Controller Area Network
c) Control Area Network

b) Cascaded Area Network


d) Communication Area Network

14) Using USB up to _________ devices may be connected to a single host controller.
a) 2
b) 64
c) 127
d) 256
15) The SPI bus can operate with a __________ master device/s and with
___________ slave device/s.
a) single, one
b) single, one or more
c) two, single
d) two, two
16) USB stands for ___________
a) Universal Serial Bus
c) Uniform Serial Buffer

b) Universal Synchronization Bus


d) Uniform Serial Bus

17) Inter task communication can be done through ___________


a) Mailboxes
b) Queues
c) Pipes
d) All of above
18) ___________ software allows the system activities to be divided into multiple
independent elements called tasks.
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Processor
d) Device Driver
19) In I2C ___________ device/s exchange data during one conversation.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) More than two
d) All of above
20) Information about a task is maintained in a _________
a) Stack
b) Translation Look aside Buffer
c) Task Control Block
d) Task Condition Block
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM172*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 172

B.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015


EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(64=24)
a) Define embedded system. Explain its characteristics.
b) Write an ARM ASM code to find total negative numbers from a series of 16 bit numbers.
c) Define context, interrupt latency, interrupt response time and interrupt recovery time.
d) Explain hardware architecture of embedded system.
e) Explain operating modes of ARM7 core in details.
3. Solve any two :
a) Explain design metrics used in development of an embedded system.
b) Explain Branch transfer instructions in ARM7.
c) Draw and explain ARM core data flow model.
SECTION II

4. Solve any four :


a) Draw and explain block diagram of Digital camera.
b) Explain multiple tasks scheduling in real time operating system.
c) Write a note on USB.
d) Explain some of the complications that have to deal with in most RTOS.
e) Explain mailbox and pipe in RTOS.

(82=16)

(64=24)

5. Solve any two :


(82=16)
a) Interface stepper motor with LPC2148. Draw a neat schematic diagram and write
an embedded C program to rotate stepper motor in clockwise direction. (Use port
pins P1.16 to P1.19 for interfacing).
b) Explain different inter task communication techniques in RTOS in details.
c) Configure a 16 2 LCD module for LPC2148.
Use P0.5 for RS, P0.6 for EN and P1.16 to P1.23 as data port.
Configure the LCD for 8 bit mode.
Display string Welcome on LCD.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 173

*SLRKM173*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015
BROADBAND COMMUNICATION (Elective II)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12- 2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer.


1) X. 25 was developed for ___________

(1 Mark each)

a) Connection less transfer

b) Connection oriented transfer

c) Both a & b

d) None of these

2) _____________ packets are used in X.25 communication.


a) Data
b) Control
c) RR, RNR and REJ

d) All above

3) To enable control of 4096 logical channels in X.25, there are __________ channel groups.
a) 256
b) 16
c) 4096
d) 2556
4) The functions of ______ _____ are combined to minimize overheads in frame relay.
a) Layer 1 and layer 2

b) Layer 2 and layer 3

c) Layer 1 and layer 3

d) None of these

5) The data link connection identifier uses


a) SAPI
c) Both SAPI & TEI

b) TEI
d) None of the above

6) The device which splits data into frames as well as combines frames into data is referred as
a) FRAD (Frame Relay And Disassembly) b) FDLC
c) HDLC
d) DLCI
7) Basic access rate in ISDN provides two ___________ data channels.
a) 32 kbps

b) 64 kbps

8) ISDN architecture provides ___________


a) Circuit switched capabilities
c) Packet switched capabilities

c) 128 kbps

d) 256 kbps

b) Non switched capabilities


d) All above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 173

*SLRKM173*

-2-

9) The H0 channel in ISDN is able to handle __________ data rate during communication.
a) 192 kbit/s
b) 384 kbit/s
c) 1536 kbit/s
d) 1920 kbit/s
10) Equipment that controls the physical and electrical termination of ISDN at the users
premises is called
a) NT1

b) NT2

c) NT3

d) NT4

11) Various interactive services defined in broadband applications are


a) Conversational services

b) Messaging services

c) Retrieval services

d) All above

12) The STS-1 frame format in SDH uses ____________ octets to define section overheads.
a) 3

b) 6

c) 9

d) 90

13) The bit setting 000 in the PT field of ATM cell indicates
a) ATM cell has not experienced any congestion
b) ATM cell has experienced congestion
c) ATM cell is errored
d) None of the above
14) Segmentation and reassembly operation in ATM communication is provided by
____________ layer.
a) ATM

b) AAL

c) Physical layer

d) None of the above

15) The cell delineation algorithm provides _____________ control in ATM.


a) flow

b) error

c) both flow and error

d) none of the above

16) AAL-5 protocol is designed to handle __________ services.


a) Constant bit rate and connection less
b) Variable bit rate and connection less
c) Unspecified bit rate and connection oriented
d) Variable bit rate and connection oriented
17) The ___________ service is suitable for customer who need real time video transmission.
a) CBR

b) VBR

c) ABR

d) UBR

18) B-ISDN data rate range is


a) 150 Mbps to 400 Mbps

b) 150 Mbps to 800 Mbps

c) 150 Mbps to 600 Mbps

d) 150 Mbps to 1000 Mbps

19) HEC sequence generation and cell header verification is handled by ___________ layer
in ATM architecture
a) ATM

b) AAL

c) Physical

d) Path

20) The optical link between STS multiplexer and regenerator is called
a) A section

b) A line

c) A path

______________

d) None of above

Set A

*SLRKM173*

-3-

SLR-KM 173

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


BROADBAND COMMUNICATION (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12- 2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full makrs.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Atempt any four.

(45 = 20)

1) Compare between analog and digital switching. What is IDN ?


2) Discuss various I-series recommendations in ISDN.
3) What are the different switching techniques used for data transfer ? Discuss each technique
in short.
4) Draw and explain ISDN architecture. Specify various applications of ISDN.
5) Discuss call negotiation procedure in ISDN-ISDN interworking.
3. Solve the following questions.

(210 = 20)

1) Draw and explain block diagram showing ISDN functional groupings and reference points
associated to them. Draw the frame structure at reference point S and T for ISDN at
basic rate access.
2) Explain rate adaption in ISDN. Describe fixed format multiplexing and flexible format
multiplexing.

OR
2) Explain X.25 packet standard in detail.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four.

(45 = 20)

1) Draw and explain B-ISDN user network interface.


2) Draw SONET system hierarchy and explain it in detail.

Set A

SLR-KM 173

-4-

*SLRKM173*

3) What is the need of flow control in case of ATM ? Explain generic flow control mechanism
in ATM.
4) Explain call establishment procedure in case of ATM.
5) Discuss ATM switching requirements and switching principles.
5. Solve any two from the following questions.

(210 = 20)

1) How ATM cells are transmitted over a channel ? Explain frame format used in SONET or
SDH for transmission.
2) Draw and explain ATM protocol architecture. Explain the AAL protocol associated with
type-1 service.
3) Classify switching matrix. Explain matrix type switching in ATM element.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 174

*SLRKM174*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


PLC AND INDUSTRIAL CONTROLLERS (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

I) All questions are compulsory.


II) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks.
III) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
IV) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Select correct alternatives :

20

1) The word address in PLC not includes


a) SMPS
b) INPUT
c) OUTPUT

d) Rack number

2) The device which provides maximum isolation is


a) Pulse transformer
b) Normal transformer
c) Opto isolator
d) None of the above
3) In PID which parameter is responsible for Oscillation ?
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI

d) PO

4) The basic element of ON/OFF controller is


a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
d) Differential amplifier
5) Which sensor is semiconductor sensor ?
a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM 335

d) Thermocouple

6) Proportional band of the controller is expressed as


a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
d) Range of control variables
7) The term reset control refers to
a) Proportional
b) Integral

c) Derivative

8) The integral control


a) Increases the steady state error
c) Increases the noise and stability

b) Decreases the steady state error


d) Decreases the damping coefficient

d) None of the above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 174

*SLRKM174*

-2-

9) Proportional band of a controller is defined as the range of


a) Measured variable to the set variable
b) Air output as the measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
c) Measured variables through which the air output varies from maximum to minimum
d) None of the above
10) In a proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater increases
the offset will
a) Increase
b) Reduce
c) Remain uneffected
d) None of the above
11) When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional
band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
c) Remains unchanged
d) None of the above
12) The number of operational amplifiers require for designing of electronic PID
controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
13) Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state
response ?
a) Proportional action
b) Proportional + Integral action
c) Proportional + Differential action
d) Proportional + Integral + Differential action
14) In a PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has to be
__________ so as to reduce offset.
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero d) None of the above
15) In a PID controller, the overshoots has increased. The derivative time constant
has to be ________ so as to reduce the overshoots.
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero d) None of the above
16) For electric traction which drive is most suitable
a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant
d) None of these
17) Actuators are interfaced with which card of PLC
a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card

d) Power supply

18) Which sensor is self generating type ?


a) Thermocouple b) RTD

c) PT100

d) Thermostat

19) Execution time of PLC depends on


a) Memory size
c) Power supply used for PLC

b) Ladder size
d) Number of I/O

20) The number of I/Os for micro PLC are


a) More than 8
b) Less than 4

c) More than 16

d) More than 32

______________
Set A

*SLRKM174*

-3-

SLR-KM 174

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


PLC AND INDUSTRIAL CONTROLLERS (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

I) All questions are compulsory.


II) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks.
SECTION I

2. Solve any three :


a) Why SMPS is preferred over linear power supply in case of PLC ?
b) Draw detail circuit diagram for output module of PLC.
c) What are different blocks in PLC ?
d) State advantages of PLCs over hard wired relay.

15

3. Solve any two :

15

a) Develop
i) physical
ii) programmable ladder for using neutral water (i.e. having pH = 7) in a chemical
process. Acid and alkali is added in the water.
b) Develop and draw ladder diagram automatic bottle filling plant.
c) What are the different specifications of PLC ? Explain two in detail.
4. Develop a ladder diagram for an elevator. The platform moves the objects UP and
DOWN. The platform carries something to UP position when UP button is pushed,
and when DOWN button is pushed the platform carries something to DOWN position. 10
SECTION II
5. Solve any three :
15
a) Compare grounded load converter and floating load converter.
b) Design converter for conversion of 0 to 250C into 4 MA to 20 MA with suitable
sensor.
c) Describe design of control logic for DAS.
d) Explain with neat sketch why the current range is 4 MA to 20 MA. Why it is started
from 4 MA instead of ZERO ?
Set A

SLR-KM 174

-4-

*SLRKM174*

6. Solve any two :

15

a) What are different components of robotic system ? How these components are
interfaced ?
b) Explain different types of float sensors.
c) Design 2 Channel Data Acquisition System with following specification :
Channel 1 :
i) Temp. Range 0 to 500C
ii) Sensor Thermocouple
Channel 2 :
i) Temp. Range 0 to 200C
ii) Sensor LM35.
7. Design analog proportional controller for following specification :

10

i) Process variable range 0 to 900C


ii) Set point maintained at 400C
iii) Use E type thermocouple with sensitivity 7 micro V/C
iv) Proportional band 55%
v) Assume suitable data.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 175

*SLRKM175*
S

S.E. (E&TC) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 70

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct alternative.


1)

X = _________


a)

14

Xeax dx


b)

Xeax dx


c) eax X eax dx

d) eax X eax dx

2) The complete solution of (D3 2D2 + D) y = 0 is


a) y = (c1 + c2x)ex
c) y = (c1 + c2x + c3x2)ex

b) y = c1 + c2ex + c3ex
d) y = c1 + (c2 + c3x)ex

3) The Laplace transform of tsint is __________


a)

b)
I

c)
I


I

d)
I




4) The value of the integral

e3t t5 dt is __________


a)

b)


"

"

5) If L{f(t)} =
a) s2
c) s2

c)

sf(0)


d)


"

&

"

, then L{ (t)} = ____________




"

+ sf(0)


B


B

(0)

b) s2

(0)

d) None of these


I

sf(0) +


B

(0)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 175
6) L1

*SLRKM175*

-2-

= _________




a) t

b) 1

c) 0

d)


7) z = a(x + y) + c is the general solution of


a) p + q = 1

b) p q = 1

c) pq = 1

d)

=1
F

8) The half range sine series of 1 in the interval (0,


a)

b)

s
"

s
"

d) None of these

9) If f(x) = x is represented by Fourier series in ( ,




b)


a) i + j + k

b) 2i + j + k

11) A vector function


=0

a) curl
L

) then ________ is the constant term.




c) 0


= x2 + y + z then at (1, 1, 1) grad




10) If

a)

c)

) is


d) 2


= _________
c) i + 2j + k

d) i + j + 2k

is called solenoidal if __________


b) grad
L

=0

c) div

0


d) div

=0
L

12) If z{f(k)} = F(z), then z{kf(k)} = _____________


a) z

F(z)
d

d)

F(z)
d

0).


c)
z

F(z)
d

b)
z

c)

, then z{ak} = __________, (k


z

F(z)
d

13) If z {1} =
a)

b) z

d)
z

1
z

14) If the Fourier transform of f(x) is F(s), then the Fourier transform of f(ax) is ___________
a) F

b) F

I


c) a F

=


d)

I


_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM175*
S

SLR-KM 175

-3-

S.E. (E&TC) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D3 + 27)y = x4 + 2x + 1.
b) Solve
@

c) Solve

4
O

+4


+ 4y = xe2x sinx.

3
3

+ 3y = ex, subject to conditions that y(0) = 1,





O

(0) = 1.

3. a) Solve z2(p2 + q2 + 1) = 1.

3
3

b) Solve (y z)p + (z x)q = x y.

c) Solve z2(p2 + q2) = x + y.

4. a) Find L

b) Find the Laplace transform of

e4t


t sin3t dt.

c) If f(t) =

and
a

f(t + 2a) = f(t), then find L{f(t)}.

5. a) Find the inverse Laplace transform of slog

b) Find L1


"

c) Find L1

"

by using Convolution Theorem.

"

OR
c) Solve


O




"

"

, with y(0) =


O

(0) = 0 by using Laplace transform method.

4
Set A

SLR-KM 175

*SLRKM175*

-4-

SECTION II
6. a) A particle moves along the curve x = et, y = 2cos3t, z = 2sin3t. Find the velocity and
acceleration vectors and the magnitudes of velocity and acceleration at t = 0.

b) Prove that = 2xyz2i + (x2 z2 + z cosyz)j + (2x2yz + y cos yz)k is an irrotational field
and find its scalar potential.

c) Show that

r



n

n
n

r
r

OR
c) Find the directional derivative of = x2y + y2z + z2x2 at P(1, 2, 1) in the direction of the
normal to the surface x2 + y2 z2x = 1 at Q (1, 1, 1).


7. a) Find z-transform of xk =

, k 1.
2

b) Find z1

1


, |z | > 5.

0.

c) Find z{sin

k}, k


8. Attempt any three :

a) Find the Fourier transform of f(x) = e|x|.


b) Express the function f(x) =

as a Fourier cosine integral and hence, show


1

that

if 0


x < 1.


c) Find the Fourier sine transform of 2e5x + 5e2x.




d) Using Fourier cosine integral (x 0) prove that




ex




9. a) Find the Fourier series for f(x) =

in (0, 2 ).

b) Find Fourier expansion of f(x) = ex in (1, 1).

4
5

OR
b) Prove that for 0 < x <


x( x) =

6
1

_________________

Set A

SLR-KM 176

*SLRKM176*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (E & TC) (New CGPA) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Select the appropriate option :


1) The maximum DC voltage developed across the load in HWR is
a) Vm /

b) Vm / 2

c) 1/Vm

d) 2Vm/3

2) The PIV rating of rectifier diode depends on


a) Max forward bias voltage across it
b) Max reverse bias voltage across it
c) Type of semiconductor material
d) None of these
3) A Zener diode is
a) Acts as regulator after reverse breakdown
b) Acting as regulator in forward bias
c) A very fast photo diode
d) Introduce a dc voltage depends on thermally generated minority carriers
4) Ripple factor increases in shunt capacitor filter
a) With decreasing load resistance
b) With increasing load resistance
c) With increase in capacitor value
d) None of these
5) Increase in load current for series inductor filter
a) Decrease ripple
b) Increase ripple
c) Does not change the ripple
d) None of these
6) The ripple frequency in a full-wave rectifier is
a) Double the input frequency
b) Equal to the input frequency
c) Half the input frequency
d) None of these
7) The regulation of an ideal power supply should be
a) Infinity
b) Negative
c) Zero

d) None of these

8) The region in which Vds > Vp and Vgs > Vp for n channel JFET is called as
a) Pichoff region
b) Ohmic region
c) Cutoff region
d) None of these
9) Output of RC coupled single stage CE amplifier is ______________ of input signal.
a) 180 out of phase b) In phase
c) 90 out of phase d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 176

*SLRKM176*

-2-

10) The region in which JFET works as an amplifier is called as


a) Pichoff region
b) Ohmic region
c) Cutoff region
1018

cm 3

11) Doping concentration of npn transistor are 1) 5


then the region in order 123 are
a) BCE
b) CBE
c) EBC

2)

d) None of these

1017 cm 3

3) 2 1017 cm 3

d) None of above

12) Generally gain of transistor amplifier fall at high frequency due to


a) Coupling capacitor
b) Emitter by pass capacitor
c) Both a and b
d) Junction capacitance
13) For faithful amplification Q point must be selected
a) Near saturation
b) Near cutoff
c) At middle of the active
d) Middle of the active region and below P.D. curve
14) Power dissipation in CE transistor amplifier is
a) Vcb Ib
b) Vce Ib
c) None
______________

d) Vce Ic

Set A

*SLRKM176*

-3-

SLR-KM 176

Seat
No.

S.E. (E & TC) (New CGPA) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(3.54=14)
1) Explain the operation of the circuit shown below. Draw input and output waveforms and
transfer characteristics. Assume Vi = 8 sinwt, Vd = 0, V = 2V.

2) Explain the operation of voltage doubler. Give its application.


3) The reverse saturation current of silicon diode is 0.5 uA. Calculate diode current for forward
bias voltage of 0.65 V at 26C.
4) Derive the expression for ripple factor for CLC filter for full wave rectifier.
5) Explain diode characteristics of PN junction diode with help of diode equation. What is DC
load line for diode ?
3. Solve any two :

14

a) Design unregulated DC power supply using full wave bridge rectifier and capacitor filter
for following specification.
Output D.C. voltage : 15 V, Ripple factor = 8%, load current = 50 mA.
b) Explain Zener as regulator. Derive expression for zener diode regulator with fixed input
voltage and fixed load resistor.
c) Explain with neat diagram operation of centre tap full wave rectifier. Derive expression for
following parameters Vorms, Voavg, ripple factor, efficiency, TUF and PIV.

Set A

SLR-KM 176

-4-

*SLRKM176*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(3.54=14)

a) Explain fixed bias with emitter resistor and derive expression for stability factor for same.
b) In fixed bias a silicon transistor with = 150, Vcc = 6V, Rc = 3 K , RB = 530 k . Draw
the Dc load line and determine the operating point.
c) Explain JFET as VVR and list its applications in short.
d) Explain early effect in BJT amplifier.
e) Explain effect of input and output coupling capacitors on frequency response of BJT
amplifier.
5. Solve any two :

(72=14)

a) What are different types of MOSFET ? Explain drain current equation and explain any
one with transfer and output characteristics.
b) Derive expressions for voltage gain, current gain, input impedance, output impedance
for CE configuration without emitter bypass capacitor using H parameter.
c) Design single stage voltage CE amplifier with voltage divider bias for voltage gain of 5,
stability factor of 10 and operating point at (5V, 2 mA) and frequency range of 20 Hz to
19 KHz.
For transistor BC 547 : PDmax = 250 mW, hfe = 250, hie = 4.5 K , 1/hoe = 1 Mega .
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 177

*SLRKM177*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (E&TC Engg.) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


CIRCUITS AND NETWORKS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 70

i)
ii)
iii)
iv)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

(141=14)

1) A network has seven nodes and five independent loops. The number of branches in the
network is
a) 13
b) 12
c) 11
d) 10
2) Relative to a given fixed tree of a network
a) Link currents from an independent set
b) Branch currents from an independent set
c) Link voltages from an independent set
d) Branch voltages from an independent set
3) Why does running too many appliances on one circuit cause a fuse to blow or a circuit
breaker to shut off ?
a) The voltage becomes too much for the circuit to handle
b) More resistors are added in parallel, the total resistance decrease, which causes an
increase in the total amount of current
c) The current drops to almost zero
d) As more resistors are added in parallel, the total resistance decreases, which causes
an increase in the total amount of voltage
4) Link in network theory refers to
a) B N + 1
b) B N 1

c) N 1

5) The purpose of a parallel resonance is to magnify


a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power

d) N B 1
d) Frequency

6) In a certain series resonant circuit, VC = 125 V, VL = 125 V and VR = 40 V. The value of


the source voltage is
a) 290 V
b) 125 V
c) 250 V
d) 40 V
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 177

*SLRKM177*

-2-

7) The admittance parameter Y12 in the 2-port network in figure is

a) 0.2 mho

b) 0.1 mho

c) 0.05 mho

d) 0.05 mho

c) LS2

d)

c) RC

d) C/R

8) Laplace transform of inductor in Henries is


a)

1
LS

b) LS

L
S2

9) The time constant in sec of RC circuit is


a)

1
RC

b)

R
C

10) If L = 2H and C = 10 F , design impedance (Rk) is

a) 100

b) 200

c) 300

d) None of the above

11) In m derived low pass filters the frequency of infinite attenuation is selected
a) Less than cut off frequency
b) Much greater than cut off frequency
c) Slightly greater than cut off frequency d) Anywhere in the pass band
12) If is attenuation in neper then attenuation in dB is
a) dB =

0.868

b) dB = 8.686

c) dB = 0.868

d) None

13) For series RC circuit with R = 100 and C = 1 F and supply voltage = 100 V, switch
is closed at t = 0. With capacitor uncharged the value of i(0+) is
a) 0.1 A
b) 1 A
c) 0.01 A
d) None
14) The series arm of m derived section filter is
a) mZ1 +

4m
z2
1 m2

b) mZ2 II

4m
z1
1 m2

c) mZ1 II

4m
z2
1 m2

d) mZ 2 +

4m
z1
1 m2

______________

Set A

*SLRKM177*

-3-

SLR-KM 177

Seat
No.

S.E. (E&TC Engg.) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


CIRCUITS AND NETWORKS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 56

i) All questions are compulsory.


ii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iii) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I

2. Solve any three of the followings :


1) State and prove maximum power transfer theorem for DC circuits.
2) Set up the equations and solve for V1 and V2.

(43=12)

3) Obtain the Y parameters in terms of in terms of Z parameters.


4) In the circuit shown below an inductance of 0.1 H having a Q of 5 is in parallel with
capacitor. Determine the value of capacitance and coil resistance at resonant frequency
of 500 rad/sec.

3. Solve any two of the followings :

(82=16)

1) A series resonance network consisting of a resistor of 30 , a capacitor of 2 F and an


inductor of 20 mH is connected across a sinusoidal supply voltage which has a constant
output of 9 volts at all frequencies. Calculate, the resonant frequency, the current at resonance,
the voltage across the inductor and capacitor at resonance, the quality factor and the bandwidth
of the circuit. Also sketch the corresponding current waveform for all frequencies.

Set A

SLR-KM 177

-4-

*SLRKM177*

2) In the following circuit, find the value of load impedance ZL for which maximum power is
transferred from source to load. Also find the maximum power.

3)

I) Following short circuit currents and voltages are obtained experimentally for two port
network :
a) With output short circuited I1 = 5 mA; I2 = 0.3 mA; V1 = 25 V
b) With input short circuited I1 = 5 mA; I2 = 10 mA; V2 = 30 V.
Determine the Y parameters.
II) The Z parameters of two port network are Z11 = 15 , Z21 = Z12 = 5 and Z22 = 15 .
Find equivalent network and draw.
SECTION II

4. Solve any three :

(43=12)

a) For the series RL circuit with R = 10 and L = 1H, V = 100 V, switch is closed at t = 0.
With zero current in the inductor find i and di/dt at t = 0+.
b) Design constant K high pass filter with cut off frequency 10 KHz and design impedance
100 .
c) Design type attenuator for attenuation 20 dB with characteristic resistance 100 .
d) Denominator polynomial is given by Q(s) = s6 + 10s5 + 20s4 + 30s3 + 5s2 + 10s + 40
determine stability of the circuit and calculate no. of poles with positive real part, zero real
parts and negative real parts.
5. Solve any two :
(82=16)
a) Define step input function. Obtain complete response of RL circuit to step voltage.
b) Design m derived low pass filter for fc = 5 KHz, f = 5.1 KHz, Rk = 200 .
c) Driving point function is given by Z(s) =

10s
. Draw pole zero diagram and obtain
(s + 5) (s + 3)

the time domain response.


_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 178

*SLR-KM-178*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (E & TC)(Part I) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL TECHNIQUES (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) When 7-segment LED displays are employed to display numbers, zero blanking
arrangement is used to blank out
a) all the zeros
b) all the leading zeros
c) the zero in the most significant location
d) all the trailirig zeros
2) The figure of merit of a logic family is given by
a) Gain-bandwidth product
b) Product of propagation delay time and power dissipation
c) Product of fan-out and propagation delay time
d) Product of Noise margin and power dissipation
3) How many binary outputs would a three digit BCD-to-Binary converter have ?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 10
d) 12
4) A logical term consisting of all the literals in ORed form is called as
a) Minterm
b) K-map
c) Maxterm
d) Minimization
5) In sequential circuit their outputs at any instant of time depends
a) Only on the present at that instant time
b) On past output as well as present input
c) Only on the past input
d) Only on the past output
6) IC 7448 is used for
a) Common anode display
c) Both a) and b)

b) Common cathode display


d) None

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 178

*SLR-KM-178*

-2-

7) Flip-Flops can be used to make


a) Latches
c) Registers

b) Bounce-elimination switches
d) All of the above

8) A divide by 20 ring counter requires a minimum of


a) Twenty flip flops
b) Eight flip flops
c) Five flip flops
d) None of these
9) Initial content of shift register are 1010. After how many clock pulses will the content
of shift register become 1010 again ?

a) 3

b) 7

c) 11

d) 15

10) A 4-bit asynchronous counter uses flip-flop with propagation delay time of 25 ns
each. The max possible time required for change of state will be
a) 25 ns
b) 50 ns
c) 75 ns
d) 100 ns
11) In PLA
a) Both AND and OR matrix are programmable
b) AND array is fixed and OR is programmable
c) AND is programmable OR is fixed
d) None of the above
12) A 4-bit preset table up counter has preset input 0101. The preset operation takes
place as soon as counter becomes maximum 1111. The modulus of counter is
a) 5
b) 10
c) 11
d) 15
13) The minimum number of flip-flops required to generate a sequence of 11 bits is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
14) State reduction gives
a) Reduction in number of flip-flops
c) Either a) or b)

b) Number of flip-flop remain same


d) None of these

______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-178*

-3-

SLR-KM 178

Seat
No.

S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL TECHNIQUES (New - CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Implement 8 : 1 MUX by using 2 : 1 MUX.
b) What is static and dynamic hazard ?
c) Draw Logic diagram of 4 : 1 MUX. (Use NAND gates)
d) What is race around condition in flip flop ?
e) Define Propagation Delay and Noise Margin with its standard TTL and CMOS
values.
3. Solve any two :

(26=12)

a) Design combinational circuit which has 4 inputs and one output. Output is equal to
logic one when
i) All inputs are equal to logic one
ii) None of the inputs are equal to logic one
iii) An odd number of inputs are equal to logic one.
b) Convert
i) T flip flop into D flip-flop.
ii) D flip-flop into J-K flip-flop.
c) Reduce the following logical expression using K-map and implement reduced
expression by using.
i) NAND Gate
ii) NOR Gate
F (A, B, C, D) = m(0, 2, 4, 8, 10) + d (6, 11) .

Set A

SLR-KM 178

-4-

*SLR-KM-178*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) Draw the waveforms to shift data 1101 to left in serial out shift register.
b) Design MOD-3 asynchronous counter.
c) Design MOD-8 up counter using IC 74191.
d) Draw the state diagram and give state table for sequence detector which detects
the sequence 1011.
e) Draw and explain Ring Counter with its waveform.
5. Solve any two :

(26= 12)

a) A combinational circuit having 2 outputs F and G are given by the Sum of


Product expression as below
F = W Y + XY Z
G = WX Y + X Z + W Y Z
Where W, X, Y, Z are input to the system. Implement this circuit using PLA
having no more than four product terms.
b) In sequential circuit shown below have one input X, one output Z and two J-K
flip-flops. Identify circuit is Moore machine or Mealy machine. Prepare its
excitation table, state table and state diagram.

c) Design MOD-10 Synchronous counter using J-K Flip flop.


_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 179

*SLRKM179*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURE USING C
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) To implement recursion ___________ data structure is used.


a) Queue
b) Stack
c) Linked list
d) Graph
2) Stack cannot be used to
a) Allocating resources and scheduling
b) Implementation of recursion
c) Reverse string
d) Evaluation of postfix expression
3) An undirected graph contains the edges equal to
a) n(n 1)/2
b) n(n 1)
c) n/2
d) n(n + 1)/2
4) The postfix form of A*B + C/D is
a) AB*CD/+
c) ABCD*/+

b) A*BCD/+
d) None

5) One can convert a binary tree into its mirror image by traversing it in
a) Inorder
b) Preorder
c) Post order
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 179

-2-

*SLRKM179*

6) If the character D, C, B, A are placed in a queue (in that order) and then
remove one at a time, in what they be removed ?
a) ABCD
b) ABDC
c) DCAB
d) DCBA
7) The ___________ is fastest searching techniques.
a) Linear search
b) Hashing
c) Binary search
d) None
8) Which of the following sorting procedure is slowest ?
a) Quick sort
b) Heap sort
c) Shell sort
d) Bubble sort
9) The goal of hashing is to produce a search that takes
a) O(1)
b) O(n2)
c) O(logn)
d) O(nlogn)
10) The worst case analysis of quick sort is
a) O(n)
b) O(n log n)
2
c) O(n )
d) O(log n)
11) A directed graph is ___________ if there is a path from each vertex to every
other vertex in the diagraph.
a) Weakly connected
b) Strongly connected
c) Tightly connected
d) Linearly connected
12) Which of the following is not collision resolution technique ?
a) Linear probing
b) Separate Chaining
c) Truncation
d) Double hashing
13) A full binary tree with n leaves contains
a) N nodes
b) log n nodes
c) 2n 1 nodes
d) 2n nodes
14) A desirable choice for the partitioning element in quick sort is
a) First element of the list
b) Last element of the list
c) Randomly chosen element of the list
d) Median of the list
______________
Set A

*SLRKM179*

-3-

SLR-KM 179

Seat
No.

S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURE USING C
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions :

(43=12)

1) Explain stack with its operation. List out application of stack.


2) Evaluate the following postfix expression 123*+ 4 .
3) WAP to calculate factorial of a number using recursion.
4) Explain DEQUE.
5) What is recursion and what are the advantages and disadvantages of recursion ?
3. Attempt any one question :

1) How to convert infix expression into postfix expression ? Convert following


infix expression into postfix (A + B)*(C D).
2) WAP to implement simple queue using array.
4. Attempt the question :

1) Explain doubly linked list with insertion and deletion operation.

Set A

SLR-KM 179

-4-

*SLRKM179*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four questions :

(43=12)

1) Define binary search tree. Show all 3 traversal order for following binary
search tree.

2) Compare linear search with binary search.


3) Use Bubble sort technique to sort the following. Show the output of each
iteration. 5, 23, 21, 18, 16, 02.
4) Define Hash function. What are criterias for choosing a good hash function ?
5) Explain the adjacency matrix representation of graph with example.
6. Solve any one question :

1) What do you mean by hashing ? Explain different open addressing


techniques to resolve collision in detail by giving suitable examples.
2) Explain graph traversal methods with examples.
7. Sort the following sequence in ascending order using quick sort.

48, 44, 19, 59, 72, 80, 42, 65, 82, 8, 95, 68
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 180

*SLRKM180*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Use of data sheet allowed.
5) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Select the correct option (MCQ) :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) Cascading two amplifiers will result in


a) reduction in gain increase in BW
c) reduction in gain reduction in BW

b) increase in gain increase in BW


d) none of these

2) The outstanding characteristic of direct coupled amplifier is


a) utmost economy
b) temperature stability
c) absence of freq. senstitive components
d) amplifies low frequency
3) Class AB operation is often used in large signal amplifiers in order to
a) get maximum efficiency
b) remove even harmonics
c) overcome crossover distortion
d) reduce collector dissipation
4) The output of class B amplifier
a) is distortion free
c) is continuous

b) consists only positive cycles


d) consists short duration pulses

5) Crystal oscillators are often used for providing


a) square wave output
b) triangular wave output
c) frequency multiplication
d) stable carrier waves in radio
6) Which one of the following circuit is most suitable for 100 Hz ?
a) Hartley oscillator
b) Colpitts oscillator
c) Wein bridge oscillator
d) Crystal oscillator
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 180

*SLRKM180*

-2-

7) A feedback amplifier has a closed gain of 200. It should not vary more than 50%
despite 25% variation in amplifier gain A without feedback. The value of A is
a) 800
b) 800
c) 1000
d) 1000
8) The gain of negative feedback amplifier is 40dB. If the attenuation of feedback
path is 50dB, then the gain of amplifier without feedback is
a) 78.92
b) 146.32
c) 215.51
d) 317.23
9) The coupling that produce minimum interference with frequency response is
a) Direct coupling
b) Transformer coupling
c) RC coupling
d) All the above
10) The maximum efficiency of class A power amplifier with RC coupled load is
a) 50%
b) 25%
c) 75.5%
d) 100%
11) A bistable multivibrator is a _________ oscillator.
a) Triggered
b) Free running
c) Sine wave
d) Sawtooth
12) A 1 msec pulse can be stretched to 1 sec pulse by using
a) Monostable multivibrator
b) Schmitt trigger
c) An astable multivibrator
d) None of these
13) Frequency of oscillation in astable multivibrator depends upon
a) hfe
b) Rc
c) Value of R and C
d) Duration of the input pulse
14) The voltage at threshold pin of IC 555 is
a) Vcc/3
b) 2Vcc/3
c) Vcc

d) All of these

15) In the case of line regulation


a) When temperature varies, o/p voltage stays constant
b) When the o/p voltage changes, load current stays constant
c) When i/p voltage changes, o/p voltage stays constant
d) When load changes o/p voltage stays constant
16) Preregulator circuit is
a) Constant voltage source
c) Stability factor improvement circuit

b) Constant current source


d) Both b) and c)

17) For selecting transistor in multi vibrator design, transistor used should have
a) less td
b) more tf
c) less td and tr
d) less td, tr, tf, ts
18) For IC regulators output capacitor is required for
a) Improving stability
b) Short circuit protection
c) Improve transient response
d) Over voltage protection
19) In IC 555 discharge pin is
a) Pin No. 2
b) Pin No. 7

c) Pin No. 4

d) Pin No. 6

20) Value of capacitor for getting pulse width of 50 sec and 12 K resistance for
monostable multivibrator using IC 555 is
a) 3.78 F
b) 3.78 pF
c) 3.78 nF
d) 3.78 mF

______________

Set A

*SLRKM180*

-3-

SLR-KM 180

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

All questions are compulsory.


Assume suitable data if necessary.
Use of data sheet allowed.
Figure to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four of the following :

(45=20)

1) What is class A power amplifier ? Show that class A power amplifier has power
conversion efficiency of 50%.
2) In a transistor Colpitts oscillator L = 100 H, C1 = 0.01 F and C2 = 0.01 F.
Determine operating Frequency, feedback fraction and minimum gain to sustain
oscillations in the circuit.
3) Explain the difference between RC coupling and direct coupling in detail.
4) An amplifier gain changes by 10%, using negative feedback the gain is modified
to 100 with 0.1% variation. Find required open loop gain of amplifier and amount
of negative feedback.
5) What is the effect of negative feedback on gain stability of amplifier ? Explain.
6) Explain the operation of class B power amplifier.
3. Solve any two questions of the following :

(102=20)

1) Calculate Av, Rif and Rof for amplifier shown below. hfe = 50, hie = 1.1 k and
hre= hoe = 0. The transistors used are identical

Set A

SLR-KM 180

-4-

*SLRKM180*

2) Design a Wein-bridge oscillator to provide a peak to peak output voltage of 5V at


the frequency of 15KHz with Vcc = 12 V.
3) What is Barkhausen criteria ? List the advantages of negative feedback and explain
effect of negative feedback on input resistance, output resistance and bandwidth
of amplifier.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain working of series regulator with transistor.


2) Explain current boosting techniques used in IC regulators.
3) Write short note on commutating capacitors used in multivibrator.
4) Generate a clock signal of 12 KHz using IC 555.

5) Derive frequency of oscillation for astable multivibrator using IC 555.


6) Design a fixed regulator for output voltage to be 5V and provide constant
current of IA for variable load.
5. Solve any two:

(210=20)

1. Design series voltage regulator circuit for given requirement Vo= 25 V at 50mA,
Vin = 30 V Assume for Q1 hfe 1 = 100, hie 1 = 12 K , VBE = 0.6V for Q2 hfe
2 = 150, hie 2 = 3 K , VBE = 0.65V.
2) Design a pulse generator to provide output signal with 10 KHz frequency with duty
cycle 68%. Modify the design to provide 50% duty cycle use suitable IC.
3) Explain following terms for IC regulators
a) Line and load regulation
b) Ripple rejection ratio
c) Thermal shutdown protection
d) Short circuit protection.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 181

*SLRKM181*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part II)


Examination, 2015
ANALOG COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
Duration : 30 Minutes
I.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

Choose the correct options :

(201=20)

1) When an electromagnetic wave travel in free space, it suffers from


a) Absorption
b) Attenuation
c) Refraction
d) Super-refraction
2) The base band signal is
a) Information signal
c) High-frequency signal

b) Carrier signal
d) Band pass signal

3) The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 1 MHz is


a) 3 m
b) 30 m
c) 0.3 Km

d) 3 Km

4) Thermal noise is independent of


a) Boltzmanns constant
c) Bandwidth

b) Temperature
d) Centre frequency

5) The spectral density of white noise


a) Is constant
c) Varies with amplitude

b) Varies with bandwidth


d) Varies with frequency

6) An amplifier has an output SNR of 16 db and noise figure of 5.4 db. Its input
SNR is
a) 10.4 db
b) 21.4 db
c) 16 db
d) 5.4 db
7) A modulated signal is formed by
a) Changing the modulating signal by the carrier signal
b) Changing the carrier signal by the modulating signal
c) Changing both the modulating signal and the carrier signal
d) Changing the modulating signal only
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 181

*SLRKM181*

-2-

8) The maximum transmission efficiency of the AM signal is


a) 100%
b) 66.67 %
c) 50 %
9) A product modulator yields
a) A full AM signal
c) A VBS signal

d) 33.33%

b) A DSB-SC signal
d) An SSB signal

10) The main advantage of superheterodyne receiver is


a) Simple circuit
b) Better tracking
c) Improvement in selectivity and sensitivity
d) Better alignment
11) To boost high frequencies _______ circuit is used.
a) Amplifier
b) De-emphasis c) Pre-emphasis

d) Filters

12) One of the following is an indirect way of generating FM wave is the


a) Armstrong modulator
b) Reactance modulator
c) Varactor diode modulator
d) Reactance bipolar transistor modulator
13) An FM signal can be detected by using
a) An LPF
b) A PLL
c) A discriminator
d) An average detector
14) Frequency of ringing tone is
a) 50 Hz
b) 33 Hz

c) 800 Hz

d) 133 Hz

15) Strowger switching system is ______ type of telephone system.


a) Electronic
b) Manual
c) Automatic
d) Electromechanical
16) The voice frequency in the telephone system is
a) 20 Hz 20 KHz
b) 1 KHz 10 KHz
c) 8 KHz 8 KHz
d) 300 Hz 3400 Hz
17) The radiation pattern for half wave dipole antenna is
a) Omni directional
b) Uni directional
c) Pattern of eight
d) None of these
18) The surface wave is effective only at frequencies below about
a) 30 MHZ
b) 40 MHZ
c) 1.5 MHZ
d) 3 MHZ
19) Frequency of dial tone is
a) 133 Hz
b) 400 Hz

c) 33 Hz

d) 100 Hz

20) If the modulating frequency in FM is double, then deviation is


a) Doubled
b) Halved
c) Remains same d) Not predictable

______________
Set A

*SLRKM181*

-3-

SLR-KM 181

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part II)


Examination, 2015
ANALOG COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.

SECTION I
II. Answer any four :

(45=20)

1) What are different types of communication channels ? Explain them in brief.


2) Draw and explain TRF receiver.
3) Explain why VSB is required in video transmission. Draw frequency response
and show different elements.
4) State and explain different source of noise.
5) What are the different types of SSB generation ? Explain any one in detail.
III. Answer any two :

(210=20)

1) What is heterodyne principle ? With the block diagram explain superheterodyne


receiver.
2) Derive the expression for the total power in the modulated wave and show that
during maximum modulation only 33.33% of the total power is used for information
transmission.
3) A 75 MHz carrier signal having amplitude of 50 V is modulated by a 3 KHz audio
signal having amplitude of 20 V.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Sketch the audio signal


Sketch the carrier signal
Sketch the modulated wave
Determine the modulation index and percent modulation
What frequencies would be there in a spectrum of modulated wave ?

f) Write equation of modulating signal, carrier and modulated signal in terms of


LSB and USB.

Set A

SLR-KM 181

-4-

*SLRKM181*

SECTION II
IV. Answer any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain the working principle of ratio detector for FM detection.


2) Briefly write about space wave propagation.
3) Describe the tones used in electronics exchange.
4) Write an expression for FM modulated wave. What is narrowband and wideband
FM ?
5) With application explain yagi uda antenna.
V. Answer any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain strowger and crossbar switching system used in telephony.


2) Explain the principle of FM wave generation using direct method. State the merits
and demerits of this method.
3) Define and explain beamwidth, radiation resistance and antenna gain.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 182

*SLR-KM-182*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) For the characteristic equation s3 + 4s2 + s + 16 = 0 how many roots in RHS of s-plane ?
a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

2) In force current analogy velocity is analogous to


a) Voltage

b) Inductance

c) Charge

d) None of these

3) With feedback, the transient response of system as compared to that without feedback.
a) Decay slowly

b) Decay more quickly

c) Rises at a faster rate

d) None of these

4) The Routh criterion tells us the number of roots lying


a) In the left hand side half of s-plane

b) In the right hand side half of s-plane

c) On the origin of s-plane

d) None of these

5) The transfer function of a system can be used to study its


a) Transient behavior only

b) Steady state behavior

c) Transient and steady state behavior

d) None of these

6) If a system has some poles lying on the imaginary axis, it is


a) Absolutely stable

b) Unstable

c) Conditionally stable

d) Marginally stable

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 182

*SLR-KM-182*

-2-

7) The block diagram shown below is equivalent to

a)

b)

c)

d) None of these

8) The difference of the reference input and the actual output signal is called
a) Error signal
b) Controlling signal c) Actuating signal d) None of these
9) The friction damper element have the transfer function
a) 1/Bs2
b) 1/Bs
c) 1/B2 s
d) None of these
10) The movement of the rotor in stepper motor is
a) Discrete steps
b) Continuous
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
11) The acceleration error constant of a stable canonical feedback system is given by
s 2 G(s)
a) lim
s 0

G(s)
b) lim
s 0

G(s)
c) lim
s

s G(s)
d) lim
s 0

12) The settling time of the second order linear system is


a) 4 times of the time constant of the system b) 3 times of the time constant of the system
c) 14 times of the time constant of the system d) None of above

13) The lag compensation in the control system is achieved by


a) Adding zeros in transfer function of system
b) Adding poles in the transfer function of system
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
14) The open loop transfer function of a control system has five poles and two zeros. The
poles are located at 3, 5, 7, with remaining two at the origin. The zeros are located at
1 and 6. The center of asymptotes is at
a) 2
b) 2.666
c) 3.333
d) 2.666
15) The angle of asymptotes in above question are
a) 60, 180, 120
b) 60, 180, 300 c) 60, 180, 200
d) 60, 180, 360
16) The root locus is symmetrical w.r.t.
a) ve real axis
b) + ve real axis
c) imaginary axis
d) +ve and ve real axis
17) The phase angle at phase cross over frequency is
a) 90
b) 90
c) 180
d) 180
18) The initial slope of Bode plot for a transfer function having simple pole at origin is
a) 20 db/decade
b) 40 db/decade c) 40 db/decade
d) 20 db/decade
19) The bode magnitude plot is drawn as
a) Decibel versus w b) Decibel versus ln w c) Decibel versus log10w d) Magnitude versus w
20) If phase margin is negative, it indicates that the system is
a) Highly stable
b) Unstable
c) Oscillatory
d) Phase margin does not affect on stability
______________
Set A

*SLR-KM-182*

-3-

SLR-KM 182

Seat
No.

S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain position control system.


b) Derive the transfer function for series RLC circuit.
c) Explain the properties of signal flow graph.
d) Write a short note on DC tacho-generator.
e) Explain the application of Rouths criterion.
3. What is a transfer function ? Derive the transfer function for open loop and close loop control
systems.

10

4. Attempt any one :

10

a) Explain principle, construction, types and application of stepper motor.


b) For unity feedback system, find range of values of k, marginal value of k and frequency of
sustained oscillations.
G(s) =

K
.
s(1 + 0.4s)(1 + 0.25 s)
SECTION II

5. Attempt any four :


a) The open loop transfer function of unity feedback system is G(s) =

(45=20)
50
(1 + 0.1 s)(s + 10 )

Determine static error coefficients Kp, Kv, Ka.


b) Explain lead-lag compensator.

Set A

SLR-KM 182

*SLR-KM-182*

-4-

c) The block diagram of an electronic pacemaker is given in figure. Determine the steady
state error for unit ramp input when k = 400

d) Explain how centroid and break away points are calculated in root locus.
e) Define the terms :
i) Gain margin

ii) Phase margin

iii) Gain crossover frequency

iv) Phase crossover frequency

v) Corner frequency.
6. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) A certain unity gain negative feedback control system has the following open loop transfer
function. Draw root locus for 0 k . GH(s) =

b) Sketch Bode plot for the transfer function G( s) =

k
.
s(s + 1)(s + 3)

1000
.
s(1 + 0 .1s)(1 + 0 .001s )

Determine :
1) Gain crossover frequency
2) Phase crossover frequency
3) GM and PM
4) Comment on stability of system.
c) A feedback system is described by the transfer function
G(s) =

12
, H(s) = KS
s + 4s + 16
2

The damping factor of system is 0.8.


Determine :
1) Value of k
2) Overshoot of the system
3) Rise time of the system
4) Peak time of the system
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 183

*SLRKM183*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electronics & Telecomm.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Answer correct option :

(201=20)

1) Gain bandwidth product of IC 741 is


a) 10 MHz
b) 1 MHz

c) infinite

2) IC 741 has
a) input capacitance 1.4 pf
c) CMRR 90 dB

b) input bias current 500 nA


d) all of above

3) Open loop bandwidth of IC 741 is


a) 5 Hz
b) 1 KHz

c) 1 MHz

d) 1 KHz

d) Zero

4) Tailored frequency response of op-amp is because of


a) internal compensation
b) external compensation
c) slew rate compensation
d) external frequency response
5) Op-amp can be used in closed loop with _______ configuration.
a) differential amplifier
b) inverting amplifier
c) non-inverting amplifier
d) all of above
6) A (R1 + RF )
a)
b)
c)
d)

(R1 + RF + AR1 )

represents

exact voltage gain of non-inverting amplifier


exact voltage gain of inverting amplifier
ideal gain of inverting amplifier
none

7) For gain of 5 of voltage series feedback amplifier, R1 is 10 K , then what is RF ?


a) 5 K
b) 4 K
c) 40 K
d) 10 K
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 183

*SLRKM183*

-2-

8) Closed loop differential amplifier with two op-amp, the gain equation is
a)

RF

R1

b) 1+

RF
R1

c) RF

R1

d) None

9) For a differentiator with op-amp fa is


1
a) 2R C
F 1

1
b) 2R C
1 1

10) For summing amplifier ratio of

RF

1
c) 2R C
F F
R

d) None

should be

a) less than one


c) zero

b) greater than one


d) one

11) In first order low pass butter-worth filter high cut off frequency is
a)

1
2 6RC

b)

1
2RC

c)

1
RC

d)

1
2

12) The frequency of oscillation for wein bridge oscillator at resonance is given by
a)

1
2 6RC

b)

1
2RC

c)

1
2 RC

d)

1
2 LC

13) Analog multipliers are available as


a) One quadrant
b) Two quadrant

c) Four quadrant

14) VCO is also called as


a) Voltage to frequency convertor
c) Current to voltage convertor

b) Voltage to current convertor


d) None of these

15) Which of the following function is done by PLL ?


a) Free running
b) Capture
c) Phase lock

d) All above

d) All of above

16) While designing first order low pass butter-worth filter choose typical capacitor
value <
a) 1 F
b) 10 F
c) 100 F
d) 1000 F
17) For a PLL
a) lock range = capture range
c) lock range > capture range

b) capture range > lock range


d) none

18) Which one is the sinusoidal oscillator


a) Wein bridge
b) Phase shift

c) Quadrature

d) All of above

19) Using log amplifier we can perform


a) logn (x)
b) log10 (x)

c) sinh (x)

d) all above

20) In phase shift oscillator the gain AV must be at least


a) 1
b) 3
c) 19
______________

d) 29

Set A

*SLRKM183*

-3-

SLR-KM 183

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electronics & Telecomm.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.


2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

20

a) Discuss the frequency response of integrator with necessary diagram.


b) Derive output resistance with feedback for voltage shunt feedback amplifier.
c) Explain effect of slew rate in open loop application.
d) Draw and explain block diagram of op-amp.
e) What are the ideal characteristics of an op-amp ?
3. a) Prove that for a dual input balanced output differential amplifier Ad =

Rc

re .

10

b) Draw and explain AC amplifier. Also derive the equation for low frequency cut-off. 10
OR
b) Design a differentiator to differentiate an input signal that varies from 100 Hz to
1 KHz. If sine wave of 1V peek at 1000 Hz is applied to the differentiator then draw
its output waveform.
10
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Draw and explain phase shift oscillator using op-amp.


b) Explain half wave precision rectifier with wave forms.
c) Draw and explain 1st order low pass butter-worth filter.
d) Draw and explain triangular wave generator.
e) Draw and explain wein bridge oscillator.
f) Draw block diagram to IC 565 PLL.

Set A

SLR-KM 183

-4-

*SLRKM183*

5. a) What is Roll off Rate ? Construct the 2nd order Butter worth low pass filter for cut
off frequency of 5 Khz. Describe the frequency scaling technique.
10
b) Solve any one :

(101=10)

1) Draw neat diagram and explain square wave generator using op-amp.
2) Explain frequency multiplier using PLL.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 184

*SLRKM184*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if required.
6) Use of scientific calculators is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The discrete time signal x (n) = ( 1)n is periodic with fundamental period.
a) 6
b) 4
c) 2
d) 0
2) The frequency of a continuous time signal x (t) changes on transformation from
x (t) to x ( t), > 0 by a factor
a)

b) 1/

c) 2

d)

3) A useful property of the unit impulse (t) is that


a) (at)

b) (at) = (t)

c) (at) =

1
(t)
a

d) (at) = (t)

4) x (n) = a n a < 1 is
a) an energy signal
c) neither an energy nor a power signal

b) a power signal
d) an energy as well as power signal

5) A given system is characterized by the differential equation


d 2 y (t)
2

dy (t )
2y(t ) = x(t ) the system is
dt

dt
a) Linear and unstable
c) Nonlinear and unstable

b) Linear and stable


d) Nonlinear and stable

6) The system characterized by the equation y(t) = ax(t) + b


a) Linear for any value of b
b) Linear if b > 0
c) Linear if b < 0
d) Non linear
7) The unit impulse response of a LTI is u(t). For t > 0, the response of the system to an Excitation
eatu(t), a > 0, will be
a) ae at

b)

1 e at
a

c) a (1 e at)

d) 1 e at
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 184

*SLRKM184*

-2-

8) Mark the wrong statement

a)

(t) d = 1

b)

F () () d = 1

c) F (t ). (t ) = F (0). (t )

d) None

9) If h (n) = [ (n + 1) (n)]* (n 1) then alternatively written as


a) h (n) = [ (n) (n 1)]

b) h (n) = [ (n 1) (n)]

c) h (n) = [ (n + 1) (n 1)]

d) none

10) The distributive property indicates that


a) Serial Combination
c) Both (a) and (b)

b) Parallel Combination
d) None

11) The Fourier transform of 1 is


a) ()

b) 2 ()

c) 1/ ()

12) The Fourier transform of a rectangular pulse is a ______ pulse.


a) sine
b) cosine
c) rectangular

d) None of the above


d) SINC

13) If sampling frequency of a DT system is 8000 Hz then its folding frequency will be
a) 8000 Hz
b) 16000 Hz
c) 4000 Hz
d) 2000 Hz
14) Oversampling can be used to
a) Reduce effect of white noise
c) D to A conversion

b) A to D conversion
d) All of the above

15) The Z transform of u [ n 1] is


a)

z
z 1

;Z >1

b)

z
z 1

;Z <1

c)

z
z +1

;Z >1

d)

z
z +1

;Z <1

16) The convolution in time domain can be expressed as ________ in the Z domain.
a) addition
b) inverse
c) multiplication
d) none of above
17) The DT system is stable if all the poles lie ________ the unit circle.
a) on
b) outside
c) inside

d) depends on system

18) If x [n] is a right sided sequence then the ROC of X (Z) will be entire Z plane
a) except Z = 0
b) only
c) except Z =
d) none of above
19) If the sampling rate is ws > = 8000 HZ then Nyquist rate will be
a) Greater than 8000 Hz
b) Less than 8000 Hz
c) Can be greater than or less than 8000 Hz
d) Equal to 8000 Hz
20) The time shifting property of Fourier transform can be expressed as
a) x (t + t 0 ) e jt 0 X ()

b) x (t t 0 ) e jt 0 X ()

c) x (t t 0 ) X ( 0 )

d) None of the above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM184*

SLR-KM 184

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if required.
Use of scientific calculators is allowed.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Find even and odd components of the following signals


i) x (t) = 1 + t + 3t2 + 5t3 + 9t4
ii) 1 + tcos (t) + t2 sin (t) + t3 sin (t) cos (t)
b) Explain operations performed on dependent and independent variables.
c) Determine whether the following signals are periodic or non-periodic. If periodic find its fundamental
period
i) sin3 (2t)
ii) cos (n/8) cos ( n/8).
d) Explain properties of LTI systems.
e) Draw Direct form I and Direct form II implementation for the following LTI systems
i) y (n)

1
y (n 1) = 2x (n)
2

ii)

d
y (t ) + 10 y (t ) = 2x (t )
dt

3. Attempt any two :


a) Verify the general property of system for the following system

(210=20)
d
y (t ) + ty (t ) = x (t ) .
dt

b) i) Find the step response of the following system h(t) = t u(t). Justify also whether LTI system is
stable or not stable.
ii) State and prove the properties of convolution integral.
c) i) Perform the convolution operation of two function in time domain.
h (t ) = e 2t u (t ) and x (t ) = e t u (t )
n

3
ii) An LTI system is characterized by an impulse response h (n) = u (n) and input signal is
4
x (n) = u (n). Evaluate the output at n = + 5.

Set A

SLR-KM 184

*SLRKM184*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Find the Nyquist sampling frequency and interval for the following signal
x (t) = 5Cos(1000t).Cos(6000t) .

b) Determine the pole zero plot for the system described by the difference equation
y [n]

3
1
y[n 1] + y [n 2] = x [n] x[n 1]
4
8

c) Find the Fourier transform of signum function and unit step signal.
d) Consider an LTI system with the impulse response h [n] = an u [n], 1 < a < 1 and with the input
2n
x [n] = cos
. Find the response y [n] of the system.
N
n

1
e) Find the Z transform for the given sequence x [n] = {u [n] u [n 10]} .
2

5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain sampling theorem in time domain and also explain the various ways of interpolation.
b) Draw the amplitude and phase spectrum of the square pulse train of fundamental period T0 with
its ON and OFF periods as T0/2 and having amplitude A.
c) i) A right sided sequence x [n] has the Z transform
X ( Z) =

3Z 10 + Z 7 5 Z 2 + 4Z 1 + 1
Z 10 5 Z 7 + Z 3

Determine x [n] for n < 0


ii) A left sided sequence x [n] with the Z transform
X ( Z) =

1 1

1
1 Z 1 Z
2

Write X (Z) as a ratio of polynomials in Z instead of Z 1. Also use PFE to determine x [n].
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 185

*SLR-KM-185*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGG. AND RADIATING SYSTEM
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Figure indicates full marks.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) An example of vector field is ____________
a) Electric potential
b) Charge density
c) Temp distribution
d) Electric field intensity

20

2) The dot product of a x and a r is ___________


b) cos cos
c) sin sin
a) sin cos

d) cos sin

3) Unit vector a 0 is ________ to plane = 1


a) Normal
b) Parallel
c) Above

d) None of these

4) The capacitance of a coaxial capacitor is ___________


a) 2 1
a

1
b

b) 2 log b

c) 2 L

log b a

d) 2 log a

5) The electric field lines and equipotential lines are ____________


a) Parallel to each other
b) Cut each other Orthogonally
c) Inclined at an angle
d) None
6) Two infinite parallel metal plates are charged with equal surface charge density
of same polarity. The electric field between the plates is __________
a) Same as that of other field
b) Zero
c) Independent of coordinates
d) None
7) The electric field intensity of an infinite line charge varies as ____________
a) 1r

b) 1 2
r

c) 1 3
r

d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 185

*SLR-KM-185*

-2-

8) Work done to move a unit positive charge from one point to another on an
equi-potential surface depends on ___________
a) By the charge b) On the charge c) No work
d) Constant
9) A charge q placed at the centre of a cube of a side a. The electric flux
through any face of cube is ___________
a)

b)

3 0

c)

6 0

d)

6q

10) The surface charge density in a good dielectric is _____________


c) infinity
d) s
a) Zero
b) s
11) The unit of magnetic flux density is
a) V/M
b) M/V
12) Which of the following is true ?
a) .D = 0
b) .B = 0

c) Tesla

d) Coulomb/m2

c) D = v

d) B = 0

13) The vector magnetic potential is


a) .A = B
b) .A = E
c) A = B
d) A = E
14) Boundary condition for conductor free space for tangential component is
a) Dt1 = Dt2
b) 1Dt1= 2Dt2 c) Dt = 0
d) None
15) Maxwells equations shelter on ___________ law (s).
a) Faradays
b) Gausss
c) Amperes
d) All of these
16) At the point of discontinuity, ____________ component of magnetic flux density
is continuous.
a) Tangential
b) Normal
c) None of these d) Cannot say
17) Magnetic dipole moment is a product of ___________
a) Current and area
b) Area and its direction
c) Current area and its direction
d) None of these
18) ___________ are caused by accelerated charges.
a) Time-varying fields
b) Waves
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
19) Array factor depends upon ___________
a) Number of elements
b) Spacing among elements
c) Phase of the applied signal
d) All of these
20) A short dipole antenna is ___________
a) Left end-fed
b) Right end-fed c) Centre-fed
______________

d) None of these

Set A

*SLR-KM-185*

SLR-KM 185

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGG. AND RADIATING SYSTEM
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figure indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) If v = 0 , find constants a, b and c so that


v = (x + 2y + az) a x+ (bx 3y z) a y+ (4x + cy + 2z) a z is irrotational.
b) The air flowing through square opening in y-z plane 0 y 2 and 0 z 2 as
velocity v = 3yz2 ax m/s. Then find the total flow.
c) Two equal and opposite charges of magnitude 2 107c are placed 15 cm
apart. What is the magnitude and direction of electric field intensity at a point
midway between the charges.
d) State and prove Gauss law.

e) If E = 8xy a x 4x2 a y+ a z. Find the workdone carrying 6C charge from


A(1, 8, 5) to B(2, 18, 6) along the path y = 3x + 2, z = x + 4.
f) Derive the expression for the capacitance of two spherical shell.
3. Attempt any two :
(210=20)
a) Given the potential V = 100 (x2 y2) and a point P(2, 1, 3) that is situated to
lie on a conductor to free space boundary then find :
1) V

2) E

3) D

4) Et

5) s at point p

b) If D = (2y2 + z) a x+ 4x a y+ x a z c/m2 find :


a) The volume charge density at (1, 0, 3)
b) The flux through the volume defined by 0 x 1, 0 y 1, 0 z 1.
c) The total charge enclosed by volume.
c) It is required to hold four equal point charges + QC each in equilibrium at the
corners of square of side a. Calculate the point charge which will do this, if
placed at the center of the square.
Set A

SLR-KM 185

-4-

*SLR-KM-185*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) State and prove Amperes circuital law.




b) Give E = E m sin( wt z )a y in free space find B .


c) Derive Helmholtz wave equation.
d) In the region 0 < r < 0.5 m, in the cylindrical co-ordinate system, the current
density is J = 4.5 e2r a z A/m2 and J = 0 elsewhere. Find H.
e) Explain the principle radiation mechanism of antenna.
5. Solve any two questions :

(102=20)

a) Calculate the value of vector current Density.


i) In Cartesian Co-ordinate at PA (2, 3, 4) if H = X2 z a y Y2x a z
ii) In Cylindrical co-ordinate at PB (1.5, 90, 0.5) if H =

2
(cos 0.2 ) a .

b) Derive the euqation for power radiated by short dipole antenna and its
radiation Resistance.
Em
c) Do the fields E = Emsinx sint a y and H = cos x cos t a z satisfy
0

Maxwells equation.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 186

*SLRKM186*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E&TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF DIGITAL COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) All questions are compulsory.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) Companding is used to
a) Eliminate quantizing noise in PCM
b) Allow amplitude limiting in the PCM receiver
c) Improve S/N ratio for small signals in PCM
d) Overcome impulse noise in PCM receiver
2) In PCM system the number of quantization levels are 16 and the maximum signal
frequency is 4 kHz, the bit transmission rate is
a) 64 kbps
b) 16 kbps
c) 32 kbps
d) 32 bps
3) Which one of the following is not same ?
a) PWM
b) PDM
c) PAM

d) PLM

4) In PCM system, if the transmission path is very long


a) repeater stations are used
b) pulse width may be increased
c) pulse amplitude is increased
d) pulse spacing is increased
5) In PCM if the number of quantization levels is increased from 4 to 64, then the
bandwidth requirement will approximately be
a) 3 times
b) 4 times
c) 8 times
d) 16 times
6) A source generates 4 messages the entropy of the source will be maximum when
a) All probabilities equal
b) One of the probabilities equal 1 and 2 other are zero
c) The probabilities are 12 , 1 4, and 1 2
d) The two of probabilities are 12 each and other zero
7) The coding efficiency is given by
a) 1 + redundancy b) 1 / redundancy c) 1 redundancy d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 186

*SLRKM186*

-2-

8) Channel capacity
a) Restricts the rate at which information is transmitted
b) Gives the number of signals that can be transmitted simultaneously
c) Is not at all dependent upon the channel noise
d) None of these
9) The standard data rate of PCM voice channel is
a) 8 Kbps
b) 8 bps
c) 16 bps

d) 64 Kbps

10) Compared to Binary signaling scheme, M-ary signaling scheme requires


a) lower B.W.
b) higher B.W.
c) same B.W.
d) constant B
11) Which of the following gives maximum probability of error ?
a) ASK
b) FSK
c) PSK
d) DPSK
12) Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can be affected using
a) Correlation receiver
b) Band pass filters and envelope detectors
c) Matched filter
d) Discriminator
13) Multicarrier communication system is mainly implemented by
a) Auto correlation function
b) Convolution
c) Fast Fourier Transform
d) None of these
14) A given source will have maximum entropy if the message produced are
a) Two in number
b) Mutually exclusive
c) Statistically independent
d) Equiprobable
15) In an Eye diagram representation, more opening of the Eye indicates
a) No distortion
b) More distortion
c) Less distortion
d) No change
16) Non coherent FSK demodulation uses
a) Square law device
b) LPF
c) Envelope detector
d) All of the above
17) A major problem of multicarrier modulation is
a) Fading
b) Diversity
c) High peak to average power ratio
d) None of these
18) The early-late gate synchronizer technique used for
a) Carrier synchronization
b) A symbol synchronization
c) Frame synchronization
d) None of these
19) A major limitation of multicarrier modulation is
a) Fading
b) High peak to average power ratio
c) Noise immunity
d) High bandwidth requirement
20) Frequency shift keying is used mostly in
a) Radio transmission
b) Telegraphy
c) Telephony
d) None of these

______________

Set A

*SLRKM186*

SLR-KM 186

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (E&TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF DIGITAL COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I
2. A) Answer any three :

12

a) A communication system consists of six messages with probabilities


1/8, 1/8, 1/8, 1/8, 1/4 and 1/4 respectively. Determine the entropy of the system.
b) With circuit diagram explain working of a PWM demodulator.
c) Derive the expression for the PCM bandwidth.
d) What is the function of Equalizer ? Explain any one equalization method.
B) Draw waveforms with following data format for the data 1001010101.
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)

NRZ(M)
RZ
RB
Biphase Manchester.

3. A) Answer any two :


a) What is information and entropy ?What are its units ?
b) With circuit diagram explain working of a PPM demodulator.
c) With block diagram explain working of DPCM.

B) a) Apply the Huffman coding procedure for the following message ensemble.
Calculate its efficiency.
[X] =

[x1

x2

[P] =

[1/4

1/8

8
x3

x4

1/16 1/16

x5

x6

x7

x8]

1/16

1/4

1/16

1/8]

Take M = 3
b) Explain any one :

1) Scrambler and descrambler


2) Uniform and nonuniform quantization.

Set A

SLR-KM 186

-4-

*SLRKM186*

SECTION II
4. A) Answer any three :

(34=12)

1) Write a note on correlation receiver


2) Compare different digital modulation techniques.
3) What is the significance of multicarrier communication system ?
4) Why errors occurs in pair in case of DEPSK ?
B) List different carrier synchronization techniques. Explain carrier recovery using
Mth power loop in detail.
5. A) Answer any three :

(34=12)

1) Compare BPSK & QPSK modulation.


2) Derive the expression for probability of error.
3) Explain how peak to average ratio in multicarrier system is minimized.
4) Explain integrate and dump receiver.
B) Explain M-ary PSK modulation in detail.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 187

*SLRKM187*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(120=20)
1) State-Transition diagram is
a) A stimulus-response model
b) Data-flow model
c) Architectural model
d) Composition model
2) Which of the following is tool in design phase ?
a) Abstraction
b) Refinement
c) Information hiding
d) All above
3) The goals of software testing leads to
a) Defect testing
b) Violation testing
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
4) A classification scheme that shows how object class is related to other classes
is known as
a) Relation
b) Taxonomy
c) Fixation
d) None
5) Release testing is also known as
a) Functional testing
b) Regression testing
c) Alfa testing
d) None
6) Organizing step is about
a) Group activities
b) Distinguishing of activities
c) Identifying of activities
d) All
7) Functional requirement specification of a system should be
a) Complete
b) Consistent
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
8) Data flow and state machine models are types of
a) Context models
b) Behavioral models
c) Data models
d) Object models
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 187

-2-

*SLRKM187*

9) Activity planning starts from


a) Stage 0
b) Selection of project
c) Stage 1
d) Both a) and b)
10) In object oriented design of software, objects have
a) Attributes and names
b) Attributes and operations
c) Attributes, names and operations d) None of these
11) A delay in __________ activities will cause a delay in completion date of the
project.
a) Free float
b) Base lined
c) Critical path
d) Scheduled
12) The person handles many projects simultaneously
a) Programme manager
b) Project manager
c) Team leader
d) Software developer
13) Which of below is true for risk ?
a) Relates to future
b) Involves cause and effect
c) Not a self contained topic with in program manager
d) All
14) Important criteria to become programme manager is
a) Expert in technical
b) Good at management skill
c) Experience as project manager
d) All
15) The Gantt chart is used for
a) Tracking project progress
b) Knowing the activities
c) Knowing starting date of project d) Knowing end date of project
16) Which of the below is risk identification approach ?
a) Network analysis
b) Forward tracking
c) Checklist
d) All
17) _______________ provides a more striking visual indication of those activities
that are not progressing to schedule.
a) Slip chart
b) Time line
c) Gantt chart
d) Ball chart
18) Diagram showing for each product which other products are required as
input is called _____________ diagram.
a) Product based
b) Precedence
c) Product driven
d) Project process
19) Risk exposure for each risk can be estimated as,
Risk Exposure = ____________ probability of occurrence
a) Potential damage
b) Cost of risk reduction
c) Risk reduction leverage
d) Risk avoidance
20) In an activity on arrow network, which of below have duration.
a) Link
b) Loop
c) Node
d) All
______________
Set A

*SLRKM187*

-3-

SLR-KM 187

Seat
No.

T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Answer any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain object aggregation model.


b) Explain software validation.
c) List and explain characteristics of software process.
d) Write in briefly the inheritance model.
e) Give types of system models that you might create during analysis process.
3. a) Explain v model in detail.

(18=8)

OR
a) Explain Waterfall model in detail.
b) Explain release testing in detail.

(18=8)

c) Explain path testing in short.

(14=4)

Set A

SLR-KM 187

-4-

*SLRKM187*

SECTION II
4. A) Attempt any two :

(26=12)

i) What are different steps of planning risk ?


ii) With suitable example explain Monte Carlo simulation.
iii) Explain different sub-stages in identifying project scope and objectives.
B) Solve all :

(24=8)

i) Explain objectives of activity planning.


ii) What are different steps in constructing precedence network model ?
5. A) Solve any one :

(18=8)

a) Explain critical chain concept.


b) What are different methods to visualize the progress of a project ?
B) Attempt all :

(34=12)

i) Describe forward pass for activity planning.


ii) Explain Work Breakdown Structure with example.
iii) Explain PERT technique and its uses.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 188

*SLRKM188*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Correlation is basically used to
a) Add two signals
c) Subtract two signals

(201=20)
b) Compare two signals
d) None

2) A necessary and sufficient for LTI system to be BIBO stable is


n=

n=

a)

n =  h (n) >

b)

c)

n =  h (n) <

d) None

n=

n =  h (n) =

3) X (0) value of 5 point sequence x(n) = {2 3 4 5 3} is


a) 12
b) 15
c) 17

d) None

4) When a sequence is circularly shifted in time by 5 units, the magnitude response.


a) Increase by 5
b) Remain unchanged
c) Shift by 5 units
d) None
5) Multiplication are required to compute N point DFT.
a) N
b) N (N 1)
c) N 2

d) N 3

6) If N < L, it is __________ to recover x (n) from its periodic extension.


a) Not possible
b) Possible
c) Marginally possible
d) None
7) With zero padding DFT used as _______________
a) Circular filtering
b) FFT calculations
c) Overlap add method
d) Linear filtering
8) Aliasing occur
a) Overlap save method
c) Both a and b

b) Overlap add method


d) None

9) In DIT, the data x(n) is stored in ________________ order.


a) Reversed order
b) Bit reversal
c) Non-shuffled

d) None

10) Each butterfly operation involves _____________ complex multiplication.


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 188

*SLRKM188*

-2-

11) Which realization form minimises the delay elements ?


a) Direct form I
b) Direct form II c) Cascade

d) Parallel form

12) Which of the following are linear phase filters ?


a) IIR filters
b) LP filters
c) FIR filters

d) None

13) The mapping in the impulse invariance method is


a) One to one mapping
b) Many to one mapping
c) Many to many
d) None of these
14) In Butterworth filter transition band is
a) High
c) Cannot be defined

b) Less
d) None of these above

15) Gibbs phenomenon results due to


a) Linear phase
b) Window
c) Abrupt truncating of the infinite Fourier series
d) None
16) The impulse response of FIR filter to have linear phase characteristics phase is given as
a) () =

b) () =

c) () =

d) () = 0

17) The number of multiplications in FIR system can be reduced using


a) finite impulse response
b) infinite impulse response
c) symmetric nature of impulse
d) none
18) Poles of Chebyshev filter lie on ellipse
a) True
b) False
19) IIR filters are
a) Recursive

b) Non-Recursive

c) Stable always

d) Always unstable

20) For same set of specifications


a) FIR filter requires less filter coefficients than that of IIR filters
b) IIR filter requires less filter coefficients than that of FIR filters
c) Both require same filter coefficients
d) None of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM188*

SLR-KM 188

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
3) Assume suitable data if required.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four :


(54=20)
a) For each impulse response listed below, determine whether the given system is causal
and/or stable
i) h (n) = 2nu ( n)
ii) h (n) = sin

n
2

b) Determine cross correlation values of the two sequences.


x (n) = {1, 4, 2, 3} and h (n) = {1, 3, 5, 2}
c) List the properties of DFT.
d) Find the circular convolution of two finite duration sequence
x1 (n) = {1, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3} and x2 (n) = {1, 1, 1, 1}
e) Explain in detail about Goertzel algorithm.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) Establish the relation between DFT and Z transform. Compute the Z transform of a sequence
j2 k / 6
x (n) = u (n) u (n 8) and sample it on the unit circle using X (k) = X (z)/z = e
where
k = 0, 1, 2, ..., 5. Find IDFT of X(k) and compare it with x(n) also comment on the result.

b) Given 8 point DFT of the sequence x(n) = {1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4} using DFT values of
sequence x (n), compute the DFT of the sequence
x1 (n) = {4, 4, 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3}.
c) Explain overlap and add method for linear filtering of the given sequence. Let the input
sequence be
x (n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and h (n) = {3, 2, 1, 1}. Perform linear filtering
of x (n) by using overlap add method.

d) Calculate 8 point DFT values of the sequence cos n 2 using DIT, FFT algorithm.

Set A

SLR-KM 188

*SLRKM188*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Answer any 4 :

(54=20)

a) Give 2 properties of Butterworth and Chebyshev filter each.


b) Explain the Fourier Series method for the designing FIR filter.
c) Given p = 1dB, s = 30 dB, p = 200 rad/sec, s = 600 rad/sec. Determine the order of
the filter.
d) Realise the system given by
y (n) = 0.1 y (n 1) + 0.72 y ( n 2) + 0.7 x (n) 0.25 x (n 2) in parallel form
e) An analog filter transfer function given as H (s) =

10
. Design a digital filter equivalent
s + 7s + 10
2

to this using impulse Invariant method for T = 0.2 sec.


5. Answer any 2 :
a) i)

(102=20)

Give the design steps of Butterworth digital filter.

ii) For the given specifications find the order of Chebyshev filter for
1
2

6
4

H ( j) 1 ; 0 2

H ( j) < 0.1

b) Explain applications of DSP in audio processing and Image processing.


c) Design Butterworth digital filter using Bilinear Transformation method for the following
specifications. T = 1 sec.
0.8 H(ej) 1 ;

0 0.2

H(ej ) 0.2 ; 0.6


_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 189

*SLRKM189*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part I) (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.)


Examination, 2015
MICROPROCESSORS
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Draw neat diagrams where required.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Question Paper

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The output lines available when 74373 is enabled are


a) Data lines only
b) Address lines only
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
2) Byte length, machine cycles and T-states required to execute the instruction PUSH
Rp respectively are
a) 1, 3, 12
b) 1, 3, 10
c) 2, 5, 10
d) None of these
3) Vector location of RST 7.5 interrupt is
a) 0024H
b) 003CH

c) 0034H

d) 002CH

4) Tick mark the odd instruction from the given


a) XRI, 05H
b) SUI, 10H
c) CPI, 15H

d) CMA

5) Which of the following interrupt is edge trigger ?


a) RST 5.5
b) RST 6.5
c) RST 7.5

d) INTR

6) What are the contents of internal registers of 8085 when it is resetted ?


a) Zeros
b) Unpredictable c) Random
d) None of these
7) Minimum and maximum clock frequency of 8085 processor is
a) 500 KHz, 3 MHz
b) 500 KHz, 6 MHz
c) 100 KHz, 3 MHz
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 189

-2-

*SLRKM189*

8) Which of the following is one byte instruction ?


a) JMP
b) RET
c) IN
d) SUI
9) The first and last address in the address map of typical memory is C400H and
C7FFH respectively, what is the memory capacity.
a) 1 KB
b) 2 KB
c) 4 KB
d) None of these
10) Which stack is used in 8085 ?
a) FIFO
b) LIFO
c) FILO
d) None of these
11) 8255 is interfaced with 8085 in memory mapped I/O mode, then to read the data
and store to I/O, respectively, uses the instructions
a) IN add, OUT add
b) STA, add, LDA add
c) LDA add, LDA add
d) LDA add, STA add
12) 8253, a programmable interval timer consists of
a) Three, 8-bit counters
b) Two, 16-bit counters
c) Three, 16-bit counters
d) Two, 8-bit counters
13) 8251 supports the baud rate for asynchronous communication is
a) DC to 19.2 K band
b) DC to 64 K band
c) DC to 128 K band
d) Any baud rate
14) To generate interrupt on terminal count using timer IC for the requirements-Counter
1, 8 bit count, binary counting is
a) 60 H
b) 50 H
c) 70 H
d) None of the above
15) Number of counters and the address lines for the timer IC 8253 respectively are
a) 3, 3
b) 3, 2
c) 3, 4
d) 2, 3
16) 8085 and peripherals are configured in I/O mapped I/O
a) Device address is 8 bits
b) Instructions In and OUT are used
c) For single operation 3 machine cycles are required
d) All of the above
17) Commonly used DAC techniques in DAC ICS is
a) Single slope DAC
b) Dual slope
c) R-2R ladder
d) Weighted resistor
18) The direction of EOC signal for ADC 0808 IC
a) Input
b) Output
c) Input and Output
d) None
19) 8086 processor has __________ address pins out of which __________ number
of pins are used as data pins.
a) 16, 8
b) 16, 14
c) 20, 16
d) 20, 8
20) In 8086 is a _________ bit microprocessor and is fabricated using ________
technology.
a) 16, CMOS
b) 8, HMOS
c) 20, NMOS
d) 16, HMOS
______________

Set A

*SLRKM189*

-3-

SLR-KM 189

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part I) (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.)


Examination, 2015
MICROPROCESSORS
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams where required.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
a) Describe the features of 8085.
b) Write an ALP for addition of two 16-bit BCD numbers.
c) Write an ALP to generate factorial of a number.
d) Differentiate between I/O mapped I/O and memory mapped I/O.
e) Explain software interrupts of 8085.

(45=20)

3. a) Explain functional pin configuration of 8085.

10

b) Interface 6K 8 memory to 8085 using 2K 8 memory chips. Give the address


range of each chip used.

10

OR
b) Draw and explain timing diagram of an instruction DAD Rp. Explain various
machine cycles of 8085.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Write ALP to blink alternately two LEDs connected at port pins PC6 and PC3 of
8255.
b) Write an ALP to perform the following operations.
i) Take any 8 bit number from Port B, add 03H number in it and store the result in
any memory location.
ii) Take any 8 bit number from Port A, subtract 03H number from it and send the
result in Port C.

Set A

SLR-KM 189

-4-

*SLRKM189*

c) Draw and explain block diagram of 8251.


d) With a neat diagram explain the working of R-2R DAC.
e) Write control word format for 8255.
i) All ports I/P in mode 0
ii) Set PC6 bit in BSR mode
iii) PORT A and PORT B I/P and PORT C output in mode 0
iv) PORT A I/P in mode 1 and PORT B O/P in mode 1
v) PORT B in I/P in mode 0 and PORT A O/P in mode 1.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain IC 8253 by considering the following parameters :


i) Feature
ii) Internal Block Diagram
iii) Control word format.
b) Interface ADC (8 bit, 8 channel) with 8085. Explain the interfacing circuit. Write
ALP to read analog input and store the digital value at some memory location.
Assume I/O mapped I/O technique.
c) List the features of 8086 microprocessor and also explain the register
organization of 8086 microprocessor.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 191

*SLRKM191*
S

T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGG.
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N. B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Right figure indicates full marks.
3) All questions are compulsory..
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct answers :

(120=20)

1) In Microwave, we take the element as __________


a) Lumped Ckt component
b) Distributed component
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
2) In case of matched load __________
a) Transmission is zero
b) Reflection is zero
c) Reflection is unity
d) Transmission is equal to reflection
3) The power transmission through rectangular waveguide is calculated using ________
a) Maxwell equation
b) Poynting Theorem
c) Gauss Law
d) Helmotzs equation
4) An air filled rectangular waveguide has dimension of a = 8 cm and b = 3 cm. Then
the cut off wavelength for TE01 mode is _________
a) 16 cm
b) 8 cm
c) 6 cm
d) 3 cm
5) The wave impedance for TM mode is ________
a) w


b) w


c)


d)


6) The relation between phase velocity Vp and group velocity Vg is _______


a)
=1
b) Vp Vg = C2 c) Vp Vg = C
d)
7) _________ mode do not exist in rectangular waveguide.
a) TM10
b) TM01
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
8

=C
F

8) The TEM mode of rectangular waveguide is characterized by _______


a) Hz = 0
b) Ez = 0
c) Hz = Ez = 0 d) Hz = Ez 0


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 191

*SLRKM191*

-2-

9) In an H plane Tee, when input is given to auxiliary arm, the output at two arms
are ___________
a) Inphase
b) 180 out of phase
c) 90 out of phase
d) 270 out of phase
10) In a two hole directional coupler, the distance between two hole is _________
a)


b)

c)

d) 2 g
C

"

11) _________ is a example of transferred electronic device.


a) Gunn Diode
b) PIN Diode
c) IMPATT Diode
d) TRAPATT Diode
12) In a negative resistance of TEDs the current and voltage are _________
a) Out of phase
b) In phase
c) Out of phase by 180 deg.
d) None of these
13) In IMPATT diode due to increased velocity of the electrons and holes result in
additional electron and holes by knocking them out of the crystal structure is called
as ___________
a) avalanche breakdown
b) impact ionization
c) reverse breakdown
d) none of above
14) The frequency of IMPATT diode is given by __________
a) Vd/L
b) 2L/Vd
c) Vd/2L
d) 2Vd/L
15) In case of Radar, the frequency of echo signal ___________ if the target is
approaching the radar station.
a) Remains constant
b) Increases
c) Decreases
d) None of these
16) MTI stands for
a) Moving Traffic Indicator
c) Mobile Traffic Indicator

b) Mobile Target Indicator


d) Moving Target Indicator

17) The efficiency of reflex klystron is _________ than two cavity klystron.
a) More
b) Equal
c) Less
d) None
18) Electrons which transfer energy to RF field are called
a) Donor electrons
b) Unfavoured electrons
c) Favoured electrons
d) Both a) and b)
19) Radar transmitter power is measured as __________
a) Average Power
b) Peak Power
c) Minimum Power
d) None of above
20) Resistive films used in MMIC fabrication process should have following features
are desirable
a) Low temp. coeff. of resistance
b) Low loss
c) Good adhesion to the substrate d) Good etchability and solderability
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM191*
S

SLR-KM 191

-3-

T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGG.
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Right figure indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Why TEM mode do not exist in rectangular waveguide ?


b) Why scattering parameters are used ? Explain in brief.
c) Derive the expression for characteristic impedance of transmission line.
d) Explain operation of two hole directional coupler.
e) Explain different types of distortions occurs in transmission line.
3. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

a) A transmission line has characteristic impedance of 75 + j0.01


in a load impedance of 70 + j50 . Compute.


and is terminated

a) Reflection coefficient
b) The transmission coefficient
c) Verify the relation between reflection coefficient and transmission coefficient.
b) What is meant by dominant mode in rectangular waveguide ? Explain in brief
TEmn mode in rectangular waveguide.
c) Derive the field equation for TE mode in rectangular waveguide.
Set A

SLR-KM 191

-4-

*SLRKM191*

SECTION II
4. Answer any four :

(45=20)

a) What is strapping in Magnetron ? How the same effect is obtained without


strapping ?
b) Derive equation for efficiency of two cavity klystron. At optimum bunching what is
the efficiency ?
c) Explain with neat diagram electron bunching process in reflex klystron.
d) What is PIN diode ? Describe construction of PIN diode and also its characteristics.
e) Explain method for impedance measurement using slotted line.
5. Answer any two :

(210=20)

a) Two cavity Klystron operated at 10 GHz with V0 = 1200 V, I0 = 30 mA, d = 1 mm,


L = 4 cm and Rsh = 40 k . Calculate :


a) input RF voltage V1 for a maximum output voltage


b) voltage gain
c) efficiency.
b) Explain any two frequency measurement techniques.
c) What is Doppler effect in Radars ? Explain with neat block diagram MTI Radar.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 192

*SLRKM192*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part II)


Examination, 2015
MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) All questions are compulsory.
5) Draw neat diagrams whenever required.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :


1) Which port of the 8051 provides D7-D0 ?
a) P0
b) P1

(201=20)
c) P2

2) Address assigned to register A is _________


a) E0H
b) F0H
c) D0H

d) None of these
d) None of these

3) Which 8051 ports need pull-up resistors to function as an input port ?


a) P0
b) P1
c) P2
d) None of these
4) On power-up the 8051 uses RAM locations _________ to _________ for registers R0-R7.
a) 18 to 1F
b) 10 to 17
c) 08 to 0F
d) 00 to 07
5) In JZ NEXT, which registers content is checked to see if it is zero ?
a) A
b) B
c) Flag
d) None of these
6) The instruction MOV A, 40H uses _________ addressing mode.
a) Immediate
b) Direct
c) Register Indirect
d) None of these
7) In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority ?
a) IE1
b) TF0
c) IE0

d) TF1

8) Serial port interrupt is generated, if __________ bits are set.


a) IE
b) RI, IE
c) IP,TI

d) RI,TI

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 192

*SLRKM192*

-2-

9) Find the content of A after execution of following code.


CLR A
SETB C
RRC A
SETB C
RRC A
a) C0H

b) C2H

c) CFH

10) Which of the following instruction is used to set bit port directly ?
a) SET P1.0
b) MOV P1.0, bit
c) SETB P1.0

d) None of these
d) JB P1.0, bit

11) A file register contains 0XFF, the contents of file register and zero flag bit after execution
of INCF f will be
a) 0XFF, 1
b) 0XFE, 0
c) 0X00, 0
d) 0X00 ,1
12) The C and Z flag after execution of following code are :
MOVLW 0FF H
ADDLW 01H
a) 1,1

b) 0,1

c) 0,0

d) 1,0

13) PIC 16F877 has internal flash memory of _________ and data memory of ________.
a) 8 KB, 64 KB
b) 8 KB, 368 KB
c) 8 KB, 368 B
d) None of the above
14) CALL and GOTO instructions provides _________ bits address to allow branching within
any __________ program memory space.
a) 11, 2 K
b) 13, 8 K
c) 16, 64 K
d) None of the above
15) Prescalar rate select bits PS2:PS0 with bit value 111 in the option register results in
TMR0 rate and WDT rate of
a) 1 : 128, 1 : 256
b) 1 : 256, 1 : 128
c) 1 : 128, 1 : 64
d) None of the above
16) The reset vector and interrupt vector for PIC 16F877 respectively are
a) 0000 H, 0004 H
b) 0000 H, 0000 H
c) 0007 H, 0000 H
d) 00 H, 07 H
17) CCPR1L and PR2 registers in PWM are also respectively called as
a) period, duty cycle
b) period, prescalar register
c) either (a) or (b)
d) duty cycle, period register
18) Input edge change can be detected by
a) CCP1 module
c) Both (a) and (b)

b) CCP2 module
d) None of the above

19) Prescaling and postscaling is controlled by _________ register.


a) T1CON
b) T2CON
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
20) INTEDG is part of following register
a) OPTION
b) PCON
c) STATUS
______________

d) INTCON

Set A

*SLRKM192*

-3-

SLR-KM-192

Seat
No.

T . E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part II)


Examination, 2015
MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Draw neat diagrams whenever required.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain various SFRs related with Interrupts.
b) Explain various bit addressable instructions.
c) A switch is connected to P3.2. Write a program to perform following :
. If Switch is OFF, send data 0 x AA to P0.
. If Switch is ON, send data 0 x 55 to P0.
d) Write assembly language program to transfer data from external memory Locations
7000h -700Fh to the internal memory locations 30 -3Fh.
e) Differentiate between CISC and RISC.
3. Solve the following :
a) Give comparison between microprocessor and microcontroller. Explain pin
diagram of 8051.

10

b) Two relays RLY 0 and RLY 1 are connected to the PORT pins P3.4 and P3.5 and
two switches S0 and S1 are connected to PORT pins P3.2 and P3.3. Draw
interfacing diagram and write a program to sense the keys S3 and S4
and activate RLY 0 and RLY 1.
10
OR
b) Explain various LCD pins required in the interfacing of it with 8.51. Write an
ALP to display YES using busy flag.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 192

-4-

*SLRKM192*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain DECF, DECFSZ, INCF and INCFSZ instructions whether all these instructions
are 2 Tcy instructions and are affecting zero bit in STATUS register.
b) Write a program to implement LED chasing in PIC using MPASM. Give interfacing diagram.
c) Write a program for multiplication of two 8 bit numbers.
d) Explain how relay is interfaced with PIC. Write a program to toggle the relay with some
delay.
e) Explain the following instructions :
i) BSF
ii) ADDLW
iii) CALL
iv) INCF
v) COMF
f) Setup timer 2 and generate a PWM output with 5 bit resolution using a prescalar with
fosc = 4 MHz.
5. Solve the following :
a) Draw interfacing diagram and write ALP for interfacing LCD (16 2) to PIC
and display PIC on LCD.

10

b) Explain different addressing modes of PIC. Write a program for addition of


two 16 bit numbers.

10

OR
b) Draw A/D block diagram with module registers. Write an ALP program to
convert input connected to RA0/AN0 pin.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 193

*SLRKM193*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E & TC) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


20
1) A thyristor can be brought into the forward conduction state with gate circuit open
when the applied voltage exceeds
a) the forward break over voltage
b) reverse break down voltage
c) 1.5 V
d) peak non repetitive off state voltage
2) During forward blocking state, the SCR is associated with
a) large current, low voltage
b) less current, high voltage
c) high current, medium voltage
d) medium current, high voltage
3) The di/dt rating of an SCR is specified for its
a) decaying anode current
b) decaying gate current
c) rising gate current
d) rising anode current
4) A resistor connected across the gate and cathode of an SCR increases its
a) dv/dt rating
b) holding current
c) noise immunity
d) all of them a), b) and c)
5) When UJT is used for triggering an SCR, the waveshape of the voltage obtained
from UJT circuit is a
a) sine wave
b) saw tooth wave
c) trapezoidal wave
d) square wave
6) An IGBT has three terminals, called
a) collector, emitter and base
b) drain, source and base
c) drain, source and gate
d) collector, emitter and gate
7) External pulse commutation is ____________ type commutation.
a) class C
b) class D
c) class E
d) class F
8) For discontinuous load current and extinction angle > , in a single phase full
converter each SCR conducts for
a)
b)
c)
d) +
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 193

*SLRKM193*

-2-

9) For continuous conduction freewheeling diode conducts in a single phase semi


converter for
a)
b)
c) +
d)
10) In three phase full converter has an average output voltage of 200 V for zero degree
firing Angle and for resistive load. For a firing angle of 90, the output voltage
would be
a) 0
b) 50 V
c) 100 V
d) 426.8 V
11) Cycloconverter converts
a) ac voltage to dc voltage
b) ac voltage to ac voltage at same frequency
c) dc voltage to dc voltage
d) ac voltage at supply frequency to ac voltage at load frequency
12) In step-up chopper if Vs is input dc voltage and K is duty cycle then average output
voltage is
a)

Vs
1 K

b) KVs

c)

13) Square wave PWM technique allows


a) Only voltage control
c) Frequency control

Vs
1+ K

d) Vs(1 K)

b) Only harmonic control


d) Both a) and b)

14) The commutating components of Jones chopper are C = 30 F, L1 = L2 = 60 H,


Turn off time of main thyristor is
a) 42 s
b) 42.42 ms
c) 42.42 ns
d) 42.42 s
15) A single phase bridge inverter has dc input voltage Vs = 50 V. Then amplitude of
square wave is
a) 50 V

b) 25 V

c) 100 V

d) 50

16) In ____________ inverter thyristors are commutated using current commutation.


a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Modified parallel
d) Both a) and c)
17) In thyristorized dc chopper ___________ type of commutation results in best
performance.
a) voltage commutation
b) current commutation
c) load commutation
d) natural commutation
18) The RMS value of Phase voltage for 120 conduction mode in terms of Vdc is
a) 40.82%
b) 0.4082
c) both a) and b) d) 0.707
19) The harmonic present in a square wave inverter are
a) All even harmonic
b) All odd harmonic
c) Even and odd harmonic
d) All odd harmonic expect triplens

20) In single pulse modulation of PWM inverter, 5th harmonic can be eliminated if
pulse width is equal to
a) 2

rad
5

b) 72

c) 1.25rad
______________

d) all above

Set A

*SLRKM193*

-3-

SLR-KM 193

Seat
No.

T.E. (E & TC) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

16

a) Explain turn on mechanism for SCR.


b) Write a short note on GTO.
c) Compare half wave controlled rectifier with full wave controlled rectifier.
d) Draw and explain working of single phase half wave converter with RL load.
e) Explain over current protection for SCR.
3. Solve any three :

24

a) Explain digital firing circuit for SCR with diagram and waveform.
b) Explain how AC power can be controlled using TRIAC. Explain any one
application. State few specification of triac.
c) Explain three phase full wave converter with diagrams and waveforms.
d) Define and explain following ratings for SCR.
i) di/dt
ii) dv/dt
iii) latching current
iv) holding current.

Set A

SLR-KM 193

-4-

*SLRKM193*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44)

1) Derive an expression for the average output voltage in terms of input dc voltage
and duty cycle of step-up chopper. Sketch associated waveforms.
2) A three phase bridge inverter using thyristor with 180 conduction mode feeding
star connected resistive load is supplied from source of 300 V and load is 10 / phase.
Calculate.
i) RMS value load current.
ii) Load power.
3) Explain working of class E chopper circuit.
4) Explain working of OFF line UPS with suitable block diagram.
5) Explain working of single phase DC drive with suitable circuit diagram.
5. Attempt any three :

(38)

1) Explain working of Jones Chopper with neat circuit diagram. Sketch associated
waveforms.
2) Explain working of parallel inverter employing feedback diodes. Sketch
associated waveforms.
3) Why it is essential to control output voltage as well as waveform in inverter ? Explain
single pulse and multiple pulse width modulation techniques.
4) Explain operation of single phase bridge type cycloconverter with inductive load.
For f requency

fo 1
= . Sketch associated waveforms.
fs 4
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 194

*SLRKM194*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E & Tc) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


OPTICAL COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternatives :

(201=20)

1) The numerical aperture of an optical fiber is given by


1

(2 ) 2
1

a) NA n

(1 2 )
1

( / 2 )
1

b) NA n

c) NA n1 (2 / ) 2

d) NA n

2) Linear scattering may be categorized into two major types as _________ Scattering.
a) Rayleigh
b) Mie
c) Nonlinear
d) Both a & b
3) Propagation of light can be obtained by
a) Ray Theory
b) Mode Theory

c) Both

d) None

4) Critical angle c is given by

a) Sin c = (n1 / n2 )
c) Both

5) Single mode fiber is


a) Step down fiber

b) Sin c = (n2/n1)
d) None

b) Step up fiber

c) Either a or b

d) Step index fiber

6) Light is confined within the core of a simple optical fiber by


a) refraction
b) total internal reflection at the outer edge of the cladding
c) total internal reflection at the core cladding boundary
d) reflection from the fibers plastic coating
7) Light may be propagated along a fiber-optic cable in which of the following modes ?
a) multimode step index
b) single-mode step index
c) multimode graded index
d) all of the above
8) The ray tracing the helical path through the fiber gives change in direction of 2r at each
reflection is called
a) Meridional ray
b) Skew ray
c) Axial ray
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 194

*SLRKM194*

-2-

9) The total number of guided modes in Step Index Fiber is


a) Ms = V2/2
b) Ms = V/2
c) Ms = 2 V2
10) Intramodal Dispersion is also known as
a) Intermodal Dispersion
c) Chroma Dispersion

d) Ms = 2/V2

b) Chromatic Dispersion
d) None of the above

11) The absence of optical amplification through stimulated emission in LED tends to limit the
_________ device.
a) Internal Quantum Efficiency
b) External Quantum Efficiency
c) Power Efficiency
d) None of these
12) Optical 3 dB points occurs when the ratio of output current to input current is
c) 0.707
d) 1/0.707
a) 2
b) 12
13) The frequency domain measurement is the preferred method for acquiring the
_________ of multimode optical fiber.
a) Frequency
b) Bandwidth
c) Dispersion
d) Wavelength
14) The internal quantum efficiency of LED decreases exponentially with
a) Increase in pressure
b) Decrease in temperature
c) Increase in temperature
d) Decrease in pressure
15) The most common method for time domain dispersion measurement of pulse dispersion
is in
a) Graded Index optical Fiber
b) Single Mode optical Fiber
c) Multimode optical Fiber
d) None of these
16) The optical power generated internally by LED is
a) P
i

=
n

i
hf
e

=
P
c) int
e

int

hf

b) P

i

e

d) P
i

= 
n

i
n

c
ie
f

17) Semiconductor photodiodes without internal gain generate _________ per absorbed
photon.
a) Two electron-hole pairs
b) Three electron-hole pairs
c) One electron-hole pairs
d) Four electron-hole pairs
18) ____________ absorption requires assistance of photons so that momentum as well as
energy is conserved.
a) Direct
b) Direct but not indirect
c) Indirect
d) Both a and b
19) The common on-line measurement techniques uses fiber image projection (shadow
method) for the measurement of __________.
a) Numerical aperture
b) Core diameter
c) Outer diameter
d) Dispersion
20) The planer and dome LEDs has application such as _________.
a) Intruder alarm
b) TV channel changes
c) Industrial counting
d) All of these

______________

Set A

*SLRKM194*

SLR-KM 194

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (E & Tc) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


OPTICAL COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve any three questions :

12

i) Using simple ray theory, describe the mechanism for the transmission of light within
an optical fiber.
ii) Compare intrinsic and extrinsic absorption mechanism in fiber optics.
iii) Explain vapor phase deposition technique for preparing fiber optics.
iv) List the characteristics of injection laser.
b) Silica has an estimated fictive temperature of 1400 K with an isothermal compressibility
of 7 1011 m2N1. The refractive index and the photo elastic coefficient for silica are
1.46 and 0.286 respectively. Determine the theoretical attenuation in decibels per kilometer
due to the fundamental Rayleigh scattering in silica at optical wavelengths of 0.63, 1.00
and 1.30 m . Boltzmanns constant is 1.381 1023 JK1.


3. a) Solve any two questions :

8
12

i) Compare dispersion in any type of optical fiber.


ii) Briefly write about the scattering losses in optical fiber.
iii) Explain any one type of nonsemiconductor laser.
b) A GaAs Injection laset has an optical cavity of length 250 m and width 100 m . At
normal operating temperature the gain factor is 21 103 A cm3 and the loss coefficient
per cm is 10. Determine the threshold current density and hence the threshold current
for the device. It may be assumed that the cleaved mirrors are uncoated and that the
current is resricted to the optical cavity. The refractive index of GaAs may be taken as 3.6.

Set A

SLR-KM 194

-4-

*SLRKM194*

SECTION II
4. a) Solve any four questions :

12

i) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of LED.


ii) Derive the expression for responsivity.
iii) Write a short note on Receiver Noise.
iv) Explain FDDI in brief.
b) The quantum efficiency of a particular silicon RAPD is 80% for the detection of radiation at
a wavelength of 0.9 m . When the incident optical power is 0.5 W , the output current
from the device (after avalanche gain) is 11 A . Determine the multiplication factor of the
photodiode under these conditions.
5. a) Solve any two questions :

8
12

i) List the different Fiber Refractive Index profile measurement techniques. Explain any
one in detail.
ii) Explain the working of Avalanche photodiode with its benefits and drawbacks.
iii) Explain the concept of optical time division multiplexing.
b) Pulse dispersion measurements are taken over a 1.2 km length of partially graded
multimode fiber. The 3 dB widths of optical input pulses are 300 ps and the
corresponding 3 dB widths for the output pulses are found to be 12.6 ns. Assuming the
pulse shapes and fiber impulse response are Gaussian calculate :

i) The 3 dB pulse broadening for the fiber in ns km1;


ii) The fiber bandwidth length product.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 195

*SLRKM195*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
ELECTRONICS SYSTEM DESIGN

Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The time period of IC 2240 is given as


a) T = RC

b) T = 0.67 RC

c) T = 0.7 RC

d) None of the above

2) The number of IC 74926 required to count frequency of 1 MHz with 0.1 Hz resolution is
a) 4

b) 2

c) 7

d) 8

3) An electronic instrument is protected against electronic shock by providing


a) Shielding

b) PCB

c) Earthing

d) All of these

4) When trigger and reset both are applied simultaneously to IC 2240 then
a) Trigger gets activated

b) Reset gets activated

c) No action taken place

d) None

5) Which of the following PLL has very low power consumption ?


a) 565

b) 4046

c) Both a & b

d) None of these

6) In PLL, input signal frequency is compared with which one of the following ?
a) VCO output

b) Phase comparator output

c) Either a or b

d) None of the above

7) Which of the following is balance modulator-demodulator ?


a) IC 74C926

b) IC 1596

c) IC 2240

d) IC 565

b) CMOS PLL

c) Counter

d) None of these

8) IC LM 565 is
a) TTL PLL

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 195

*SLRKM195*

-2-

9) For input voltage range of 0 4 V, t2 = 4000, required size of DVM is


a) 14 bit

b) 16 bit

c) 17 bit

d) 19 bit

10) In a PLL frequency synthesizer, a value of divide-by-N network varies from 5 to 999 in a
single steps increment with fin = 1 KHz. What is the value of synthesizer output ?
a) 0.1 KHz to 999 KHz in 0.1 KHz increments
b) 1 KHz to 999 KHz in 1 KHz increments
c) 5 KHz to 999 KHz in 1 KHz increments
d) 5 KHz to 999 KHz in 1 Hz increments
11) To prevent excessive cycling in ON/OFF controller
a) dead band is removed

b) dead band is added

c) dead band is increased

d) dead band is decreased

12) V to V converter implements the equation


a) Y = mX + C

b) Y = mX

c) X = mY

d) X = mY + C

13) PLC uses which of following language for programming ?


a) C

b) English

c) Relay-ladder logic

d) None of these

14) Selection of comparator depends on which of following characteristics ?


a) Maximum input impedance

b) Maximum output impedance

c) Low slew rate

d) High output offset voltage

15) Ladder diagram operates on


a) ac supply

b) dc supply

c) both ac and dc

d) none of these

16) If 50 to 150C temperature is converted into 0 to 10 V, what is the corresponding voltage


for 80C ?
a) 3 V

b) 5 V

c) 8 V

d) 2 V

17) Which of following is an input device in ladder diagram ?


a) Solenoid

b) Buzzer

c) Limit switch

d) Valve

c) 1 mV/C

d) 100 mV/C

18) The sensitivity of LM35 is


a) 10 mV/C

b) 50 mV/C

19) Which of following is self powered temperature sensor ?


a) Thermocouple

b) RTD

c) Thermistor

d) None of these

20) Resistance of PT 100 at 50C is


a) 118

b) 136

c) 150

______________

d) 100

Set A

*SLRKM195*

-3-

SLR-KM 195

Seat
No.

T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONICS SYSTEM DESIGN
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.

SECTION I
2. Answer any three :

15

a) Explain IC 1596 as AM modulator.


b) Compare phase comparator I and II of CD 4046.
c) Design an attenuator circuit for digital multimeter for voltage range of 0 to 2000 V with
autoranging circuit.
d) What are PCB design considerations for high frequency circuits ?
3. Answer any one :

10

a) Design a frequency synthesizer to generate a frequency signal from 1 Hz to 999 Hz using


PLL CD 4046. Crystal available is 4.43 MHz.
b) Design a frequency ratio measurement system to measure ratio upto 1000. Use IC 74C926.
4. Design a 3 digit DVM for the measurement of 2V signal.

15

SECTION II
5. Attempt any three :

15

1) Write a short note on smart antenna.


2) Design voltage to current converter to convert 0 to 5 V into 4 to 20 mA.
3) Draw architecture of PLC and explain it.
4) Design a circuit to convert 2 to 6 V into 0 to 5 V.

Set A

SLR-KM 195

-4-

*SLRKM195*

6. Design ON-OFF controller to control temperature of liquid between 60C to 90C. Set point is
75C. Dead band is 2C. Use cold junction compensation. Use J type thermocouple.
15
7. Attempt any one :

10

1) Draw the ladder diagram for a bottle filling plant. Explain it.
2) Design a signal conditioning circuit to convert 0 to 100C to 4 to 20 mA.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 196

*SLRKM196*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) (New)


Examination, 2015
RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct answer :

(201=20)

1) A lossless line of characteristic impedance Zo is terminated in pure reactance of jZo


value. Then VSWR is
a) 10
b) 2
c) 1
d) Infinity
2) A 10 km long line has a characteristic impedance of 400 . If line length is 100 km, the
characteristic impedance is
a) 4000
b) 400
c) 40
d) 4
3) Consider the following applications
1) TV tuning
2) Active filter
3) Microwave frequency multiplication
In which of above can a varactor diode be used ?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
4) The two terms used to describe performance of directional coupler are
a) Coupling and directivity
b) Gain and coupling
c) Gain and directivity
d) Gain and isolation
5) Which of the following modes of transmission will not be supported by a rectangular
waveguide
b) TE12
c) TM11
d) TM10
a) TE 15
6) Which one of the following is called as rat race ?
a) E plane tee
b) H plane tee
c) Magic tee

d) Hybrid ring

7) TE10 mode of rectangular waveguide


a) There is one half sine wave variation along x direction and no variation along y direction
b) There is one half sine wave variation along y direction and no variation along x direction
c) There is one full sine wave variation along x direction and along y direction
d) None of above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 196

*SLRKM196*

-2-

8) In H plane tee, when input is given to auxiliary arm, the output at two arms are
a) Inphase
b) 180 out of phase
c) 270 out of phase
d) 90 out of phase
9) In microwave, we take the element as
a) Lumped component
c) Both a) and b)

b) Distributed component
d) None of these

10) In a two hole directional coupler, the distance between two holes is
a) g
b) g / 2
c) g / 4
d) 2g
11) Efficiency of Reflex klystron is
a) 10 to 20%
c) 30 to 40%

b) 20 to 30%
d) Above 50%

12) TWT is used as


a) Low noise RF amplifier
c) Both a) and b)

b) High freq. FR amplifier


d) None of these

13) Tubes in which electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular is


a) Magnetron
b) O tubes
c) Both a) and b)
14) Drawback of continuous wave radar is
a) They cannot measure temperature
c) They cannot measure speed

d) None of above

b) They cannot measure range


d) They cannot measure phase

15) If Rmax is doubled then Pt is increase by ____________ times.


a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
16) Radar cannot recognize
a) In detail like human eye at short distance
b) Colour of target
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
17) The type of radar that is used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is
a) Pulse radar
b) Tracking radar
c) MTI radar
d) Monopulse radar
18) The pulse repetition frequency in a radar system is determined primarily from
a) Transmitter power
b) Signal/noise ratio
c) The maximum range at which targets are expected
d) The minimum range at which targets are expected
19) The range beyond which target appear as a second time around echoes is called
a) Maximum unambiguous range
b) Minimum unambiguous range
c) Minimum ambiguous range
d) None of these
20) Accurate Measurement of attenuation can be done by ____________ method.
a) Power Ratio
b) RF substitution
c) Using magic Tee
d) Using slotted line
______________

Set A

*SLRKM196*

SLR-KM 196

-3-

Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) (New)
Examination, 2015
RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four from following :

(45=20)

a) Derive the expression for Reflection coefficient of transmission line at load. Also verify
the relation between Reflection coefficient and Transmission coefficient.
b) Show that in Rectangular waveguide multiplication of phase velocity and group velocity is
equal to square of velocity of wave in free space.
c) Explain in brief Tunnel diode with VI characteristic.
d) Explain in brief measurement of impedance using magic Tee.
e) What is Avalanche Transit time ? State different devices operating on this effect. Explain
any one device in brief.
3. Attempt any two from following :

(210=20)

a) A TE 11 mode of 10 GHz is propagated in an air filled rectangular waveguide. The magnetic


field in the z direction is given by Hz = Ho cos x 6 cos y 6 A m the quantities of x
and y are expressed in cm. Determine

) (

1) Cut off frequency fc


2) Phase velocity Vp
3) Guided wavelength g .
b) A transmission line has characteristic impedance of 50 + j0.01 and is terminated in a
load impedance of 73 + j42.5 . Calculate
1) Reflection coefficient
2) Standing wave Ratio
3) Distance at which Vmax and Vmin occurs
using Smith chart and also verify it using Analytical method.
c) List properties of scattering matrix. Derive expression for scattering matrix of E plane
Tee. Show that E plane Tee acts as a 3dB splitter.

Set A

SLR-KM 196

-4-

*SLRKM196*

SECTION II
4. Answer any four :

(45=20)

a) Derive efficiency equation for two cavity klystron ? What is its efficiency when optimum
bunching occurs ?
b) With applegate diagram velocity modulation process in two cavity klystron.
c) What is phase focusing effect ? In which microwave device this effect is observed ?
d) Explain low power measurement technique.
e) Explain in A-scope and PPI Radar displays along with its limitations.
5. Answer any two :

(210=20)

a) Derive Hulls cut off voltage equation for Magnetron. Also derive equation for critical
magnetic flux density.
b) Reflex klystron operates under following conditions.
Anode to cathode voltage = 600 V, Drift space = 1 mm, Shunt Resistance = 15 k .
The tube is oscillating at 9 GHz at the peak of n = 2 or 13/4 mode. Assume that transit
time through the gap and beam loading can be neglected.
Find :
i) Repeller Voltage
ii) Direct current necessary to give microwave gap voltage V1 = 200 V,
iii) What is electronic efficiency under these conditions ?
c) What is PRF in Radar ? Explain MTI Radar with neat block diagram.

Set A

*SLRKM196*

-5-

____________

SLR-KM 196

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 197

*SLRKM197*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part II)


Examination, 2015
MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


4) All questions are compulsory.
5) Draw neat diagrams whenever required.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

20

1) Which port of the 8051 is used for Address/Data multiplexing ?


a) P0
b) P1
c) P2
d) P3
2) If EA line is high the program counter points to the first program instruction in the
a) Internal code memory
b) External code memory
c) Internal data memory
d) External data memory
3) After reset, SP register is initialized to address
a) 8H
b) 7H
c) 9H

d) None of these

4) Which of the following not produces opcode ?


a) ADD A, R2
b) MOV A, #23H
c) SJMP HERE
d) ORG 2000H
5) What is in register A after the execution of the following code ?
MOV A, #85H
SWAP A
ANL A, #0F0H
a) 50H
b) 60H
c) 55H
d) None of these
6) What address is assigned to register R2 of bank 2 ?
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13

d) None of these

7) Address assigned to INT1 and Timer1 interrupts are


a) 0013H and 001BH
b) 001BH and 0013H
c) 0003H and 000BH
d) 0013H and 0023H
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 197

*SLRKM197*

-2-

8) Which of the following instruction is wrong ?


a) MOV A, @R2
b) MOV A, @R0
c) MOV A, @R1
d) MOVX A, @DPTR
9) Interfacing LCD with 8051 _______ data lines are used along with the _______
signals.
a) 6, RS, RW
b) 5, RW, EN
c) 9, RS, EN, RW d) 8, RS, EN, RW
10) Out of following registers which register is byte addressable ?
a) TCON
b) PSW
c) PCON
d) SCON
11) A file register of INCF f will be contains 0XFF, the contents of file register and zero
flag bit after execution.
a) 0XFF, 1
b) 0XFE, 0
c) 0X00, 0
d) 0X00, 1
12) USART is also known as
a) PCI
b) SCI

c) ASC

d) None of these

13) PIC 16F877 has internal flash memory of _______ and data memory of ______
a) 8 KB, 64 KB
b) 8 KB, 368 KB c) 8 KB, 368 B
d) None of these
14) Prescalar rate select bits PS2 : PS0 with bit value 111 in the option register
results in TMR0 rate and WDT rate of
a) 1 : 128, 1 : 256
b) 1 : 256, 1 : 128
c) 1 : 128, 1 : 64
d) None of these
15) The reset vector and interrupt vector for PIC 16F877 respectively are
a) 0000 H, 0004 H
b) 0000 H, 0000 H
c) 0007 H, 0000 H
d) 00 H, 07 H
16) CCPR1L and PR2 registers in PWM are also respectively called as
a) Period, duty cycle
b) Period, prescalar register
c) either (a) or (b)
d) duty cycle, period register
17) Input edge change can be detected by
a) CCP1 module
b) CCP2 module
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
18) Prescaling and postscaling is controlled by _______ register.
a) T1CON
b) T2CON
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
19) INTEDG is part of following register.
a) OPTION
b) PCON

c) STATUS

20) To initiate SPI mode following register is not needed


a) SSPCON
b) SSPSTAT
c) PIRI
______________

d) INTCON
d) SSPIF

Set A

*SLRKM197*

-3-

SLR-KM 197

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part II)


Examination, 2015
MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) All questions are compulsory.


3) Draw neat diagrams whenever required.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain functional Pin diagram of 8051.


b) Write ALP to transmit ten bytes of data stored in internal memory serially by selecting
proper baud rate, data length and stop bit.
c) Differentiate between CISC and RISC.
d) Ten Hex. numbers are stored in RAM locations 50 H onwards. Write ALP to find
the biggest number in the set and save that number in 60 H.
e) Calculate how much time is required for execution of following instructions if
frequency is 11.0592 MHz.
1) MOV R4, #68
2) DJNZ R3, target
3) MUL AB
4) DIV AB
5) CJNE A, DIRECT, rel
3. Solve the following :
a) Generate a square wave with ON time of 3 ms and OFF time of 10 ms on pins of
port 0. Assume XTAL = 22 MHz. Use Timer 0 in mode 1.

10

b) Explain various LCD pins required in the interfacing of it with 8051. Write an ALP
to display YES.
10
OR
b) Interface 8K program ROM and 8K RAM to 8051. Write an ALP to transfer data
from external data memory locations 8000 H 800 FH to the internal locations
40 H 4 FH.
10

Set A

SLR-KM 197

-4-

*SLRKM197*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Write a program for multiplication of two 8 bit numbers.


b) List the important features of PIC 16F877.
c) Explain the Watchdog Timer in PIC 16F877.
d) Explain the register format of RCSTA in PIC 16F877.
e) Explain the following pins of PIC 16F877 :
i) MCLR / Vpp
ii) RC4/SDI/SDA
iii) RB0/INT
5. Solve the following :
a) With the help of neat diagram, explain PWM module of PIC 16F877. Setup
timer 2 and generate a PWM output with 5 bit resolution using a prescalar with

fosc = 4 MHz.

10

b) Explain different addressing modes of PIC. Write a program for addition of


two 16 bit numbers.

10

OR

b) Explain in detail USART module in PIC 16F877.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 198

*SLRKM198*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONICS APPLICATIONS AND SYSTEM DESIGN
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

I. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) When a thyristor is conducting, the voltage drop across it is about


a) 1V
b) 10V
c) 100V
d) 0.1V
2) Thyristor is a semiconductor switch which is
a) unilateral and astable
b) bilateral and astable
c) unilateral and bistable
d) bilateral and bistable
3) PIV rating of TRIAC is
a) same as thyristor
b) not very significant due to nature of its application
c) greater than thyristor
d) inferior and very much less than thyristor
4) In single phase fully controlled converter with freewheeling diode and inductive
load, with firing angle of 60 and amplitude of input voltage is 150V, the dc output
voltage is
a)

225

b)

150

c)

50

d) 150

5) Which of the following PLL has very low power consumption ?


a) 565
b) 4046
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
6) A single phase fully controlled converter with highly inductive load and freewheeling
diode provides _________ direction of voltage and _________ of current.
a) positive, negative
b) positive, positive
c) negative, negative
d) negative, positive
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 198

*SLRKM198*

-2-

7) A single phase fully controlled bridge converter supplies an inductive load.


If = 60 supply voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz then PIV is _________
a) 163.6
b) 325.26
c) 230
d) 650.53
8) The process of turning off of a conducting SCR is known as _________
a) SCR turn off time
b) Circuit turn off time
c) Commutation
d) Conduction
9) In PLL, input signal frequency is compared with which one of the following
a) VCO output
b) Phase comparator output
c) Either a) or b)
d) None of the above
10) Which of the following is balance modulator-demodulator ?
a) IC 74C926
b) IC 1596
c) IC 2240
d) IC 565
11) The output of XR 2240 is _________ compatible.
a) TTL
b) CMOS
c) Both a) and b)

d) None of these

12) XR 2240 operates in


a) astable mode
c) bistable mode

b) monostable mode
d) both a) and b)

13) Ladder diagram operates on


a) ac supply
b) dc supply

c) both ac and dc

d) None of these

14) IC 74926 displays output of latch, if its display select pin is connected to
a) logic 0
b) logic 1
c) either a) or b)
d) none of these
15) The number of digits required to count the frequency of 1 MHz with 0.1 KHz
resolution is
1
a) 3 digit
b) 2 digit
c) 4 digit
d) 3 digit
2
16) Zero and span circuit is used as
a) V to I convertor b) I to V convertor c) V to V convertor d) None of these
17) To obtain delay of 350 RC, number of XR 2240 required are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) All of these
18) If 50C to 150C temperature is converted into 0 to 10 V, what is the corresponding
voltage for 80C ?
a) 3 V
b) 5 V
c) 8 V
d) 2 V
19) Which of the following is an input device in ladder diagram ?
a) Solenoid
b) Buzzer
c) Limit switch
d) Valve
20) For a proportional controller with PB = 67%, maximum error = 6V, full scale
output = 12 V, the gain is
a) 2.5
b) 2.97
c) 2.98
d) 2.9

______________

Set A

*SLRKM198*

-3-

SLR-KM 198

Seat
No.

T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONICS APPLICATIONS AND SYSTEM DESIGN
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.

SECTION I
II. Answer any four :

20

i) Sketch V-I characteristics of TRIAC and explain its principle of working.


ii) With the help of block diagram explain working of CD 4046 IC of PLL.
iii) Explain with circuit diagram the AM modulator using IC 1596.
iv) Define following terms in connection with SCR :
a) Latching current
b) Holding current
c) Peak reverse voltage
d) Circuit turn off time
e) Forward breakover voltage.
v) Explain AC power control using TRIAC for a fan regulator.
III. A) Answer any one :

10

i) What do you mean by commutation of SCR ? Explain class A method of forced


commutation.
ii) Explain with help of circuit diagram and waveform, single phase fully controlled
bridge rectifier with inductive load and freewheeling diode. Derive an expression
for average load voltage.
B) Design a frequency synthesizer to generate a frequency of 1 KHz to 999.9 KHz
using PLL 565. Use BCD thumbwheel switches to set the frequency output.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 198

-4-

*SLRKM198*

SECTION II
IV. Attempt any three :

15

1) Draw and explain internal diagram of IC 74926.


2) Compare PLC and relay logic controller.
3) Design I to V convertor to convert 4 to 20 mA into 0 to 10 V.
4) Design a timer to generate 175 sec delay using XR 2240.
V. A) Attempt any two :

15

1) Draw the ladder diagram for elevator control system. Explain it.
2) Design ON/OFF controller with dead band to control temperature in the range
of 0 to 100C and set point is 50C. Dead band is 5C.
3) Design frequency ratio measurement set up to measure ratio upto 10,000.
Use IC 74926.

B) Design proportional controller for following specifications :

10

Input temperature range : 0 to 150C


Proportional band = 30%
Full scale output = 10 V
Set point = 80C
Zero error output = 50%
OR
B) Design 3

1
digit DVM for measurement of voltage in the range of 2 V to 200 V. 10
2
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 199

*SLRKM199*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E & TC Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


OPTICAL COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Light signal through optical fiber attenuates due to


a) Absorption
b) Scattering
c) Radiation loss
2) Demodulation means
a) Transferring information
c) Both a and b

d) All of these

b) Receiving information
d) None of above

3) When the optical pulse travels along the fiber, they broaden due to
a) Modulation
b) amplification
c) dispersion
d) refraction
4) Photon energy is inversely proportional to wavelength.
a) True
b) False
c) Partially true

d) None of these

5) SBS is mainly occurred in ___________ process.


a) Linear process
b) Backward process
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
6) ____________ types of fibers have only intramodal dispersion.
a) Single mode
b) Multimode
c) Multimode graded index
d) None of these
7) The ray passes through the axis of the fiber core is called as
a) meridional ray
b) skew ray
c) axial ray

d) none of these

8) LASER is incoherent type of optical source.


a) True
b) False
c) Partially true
d) None of these
9) Attenuation per Km is expressed in
a) Decibel per Km
b) Decibel per m

c) Watt

10) For an acceptance angle of 300, Numerical Aperture should be


a) 0.5
b) 1/3
c) 0.866

d) None of these
d) 4.6

11) The LED can operate at _____________ than the injection laser.
a) Higher current density
b) Lower current density
c) Higher power
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 199

*SLRKM199*

-2-

12) The response of avalanche photodiode is limited by


a) The transit time of carrier across the absorption resign
b) Diffusion time of carriers
c) None of these
d) All of the above
13) The requirement of detector is
a) High fidelity
c) More numerical aperture

b) Larger size
d) All of the above

14) The basic performance of WDM system is determined by


a) Insertion loss
b) Transmission loss
c) Noise added in channel
d) None of these
15) The optical power generated internally by LED is
a) Pint = int (i/e)hf
b) Pint = int (C i/e )

c) Pint = int (nci/e)hf


d) Pint = int (i/e)
16) Response time of Avalanche Photodiode is of order of
a) About ms
b) About ns
d) None of the above
c) About s
17) In case of photodiode, PIN structure is preferred than PN junction Structure because of
a) Temperature Dependence
b) Low crosstalk
c) Fast response
d) Less noise
18) ____________ technique operates in optical domain.
a) TDM
b) FDM
c) WDM

d) Both a and b

19) Insertion loss technique is to measure


a) Diameter
b) Dispersion

d) Attenuation

c) Field

20) The Numerical aperture is useful measure of


a) Light gathering capacity
b) Light scattering capacity
c) Attenuation
d) Dispersion
______________

Set A

*SLRKM199*

-3-

SLR-KM 199

Seat
No.

T.E. (E & TC Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


OPTICAL COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

2. A) Attempt the following (any three) :


i) Explain the block diagram of optical fiber communication system.
ii) Compare linear and non linear scattering mechanism in fiber option.
iii) Explain liquid phase deposition technique for preparing fiber optics.
iv) Explain different types of LASER structures.

12

B) When the mean optical power launched into an 8 km length of fiber is 120 W, the mean
optical power at the fiber output is 3 W.
Determine :
a) The overall signal attenuation or loss in decibels through the fiber assuming there are
no connectors or splices.
b) The signal attenuation per kilometer for the fiber.
c) The overall signal attenuation for a 10 km optical link using the same fiber with splices
at 1 km intervals, each giving an attenuation of 1 dB.
d) The numerical input/output power ratio in (c).
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
i) Differentiate between optical fibers and Conventional cables.
ii) Explain the different types of scattering mechanism.
iii) Briefly write about fiber joint losses.

12

B) A multimode graded index fiber exhibits total pulse broadening of 0.1 s over a distance
of 15 km. Estimate :
a) The maximum possible bandwidth on the link assuming no intersymbol interference.
b) The pulse dispersion per unit length.
c) The bandwidth-length product for the fiber using dispersion.
4. A) Attempt any three questions :
1) Write a short note on photo transistor.
2) Explain optical detection principal.
3) Explain WDM.
4) Write a short note on surface emitting LED.

8
12

Set A

SLR-KM 199

-4-

*SLRKM199*

B) A GaAs planar LED emitting at a wavelength of 0.85 m has an internal quantum efficiency
of 60% when passing a forward current of 20 mAs 1. Estimate the optical power emitted
by the device into air, and hence determine the external power efficiency if the potential
difference across the device is 1 V. It may be assumed that the transmission factor at the
GaAs-air interface is 0.68 and that the refractive index of GaAs is 3.6. Comment on any
assumptions made.
5. A) Attempt any two :
1) Define the term LED power, efficiency and derive the expression for them.
2) Write a short note on Transmitter design.
3) Explain any one method for fiber dispersion measurement.
B) A p-i-n photodiode on average generates one electron-hole pair three incident photons
at a wavelength of 0.8 m. Assuming all the electrons are collected calculate :
a) the quantum efficiency of the device
b) its maximum possible bandgap energy
c) the mean output photocurrent when the received optical power is 10 7 W.

8
12

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 200

*SLRKM200*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) (New)


Examination, 2015
MOBILE COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Which of the following channel is used for voice transmission from base station to
mobile ?
a) RVC
b) RCC
c) FVC
d) FCC
2) The time required to allocate trunked radio channel to requesting user is called as
_________
a) Holding time
b) Setup time
c) Request time
d) Connection time
3) In second generation systems that use digital TDMA technology, handoff decisions
are made is cell is called as
a) MHAO
b) MAHO
c) Static handoff d) Dynamic handoff
4) The model which is reasonably accurate for predicting large scale signal strength
over several kilometer is __________
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Ground reflection model
d) Log distance path loss model
5) Fresnel Zone Geometry concept is related to _________ process.
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Practical link budget
d) Path loss model
6) The path loss exponent for free space is __________
a) 2
b) 3.5 to 4
c) 6

d) 2.5

7) RMS delay spread is related to __________


a) Time dispersion parameter
b) Coherence bandwidth
c) Doppler spread
d) Coherence time
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 200

*SLRKM200*

-2-

8) In _________ system two distinct bands of frequency is allocated for each user.
a) FDD
b) CDMA
c) DSSS
d) SDMA
9) _________ is a system in which, the channel bandwidth is much greater than the
coherence bandwidth of the channel.
a) Wide Band System
b) Narrow Band System
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
10) Non linear effect is observed in which of the following system
a) Wide band system
b) Narrow band system
c) CDMA
d) FDMA
11) In GSM the uplink frequency band is
a) 890 915 MHz
c) 935 960 MHz

b) 890 935 MHz


d) 915 935 MHz

12) What is the data rate of TCH/F4.8 channel ?


a) 9600 bps
b) 4800 bps
c) 2400 bps

d) 1200 bps

13) In GSM the interface between network sub system and operation sub system is
called
a) O interface
b) Um interface
c) A interface
d) Abis interface
14) How many walsh code used in forward CDMA channel modulation process ?
a) 66
b) 65
c) 64
d) 63
15) In GSM the interface between radio sub system and network sub system is called
a) Abis interface
b) Um interface
c) A interface
d) O interface
16) In GSM a complete hyper frame is sent about every __________
a) 3H, 28M, 54Sec.
b) 2H, 28M, 54Sec.
c) 1H, 28M, 54Sec.
d) 3H, 24M, 54Sec.
17) What is the data rate of TCH/FS speech channel ?
a) 22.8 kbps
b) 11.4 kbps
c) 6.5 kbps

d) 44.8 kbps

18) Forward CDMA link 1.25 MHz in the __________ bands.


a) 800 824 MHz
b) 824 849 MHz
c) 849 874 MHz
d) 915 935 MHz
19) Spreading modulation techniques in W-CDMA is _________
a) ASK
b) FSK
c) QPSK
d) MSK
20) Modulation techniques used in CDMA 2000 is _________
a) Uplink-QPSK downlink-BPSK
b) Uplink-BPSK downlink-QPSK
c) Uplink-BPSK downlink-BPSK
d) None of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM200*

-3-

SLR-KM 200

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) (New)


Examination, 2015
MOBILE COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(44=16)

1) Explain the frequency reuse technique in cellular system.


2) Describe TDMA multiple access technique for cellular system.
3) Explain cordless transmission technique.
4) What is RAKE receiver ? Explain in detail.
5) Explain is fading distribution. Explain Raleigh distribution.
3. Solve any three :

(83=24)

1) Explain concept of interference and system capacity.


2) What is small scale fading ? What is its type ? Explain in detail.
3) What is spread spectrum multiple access technique ? Explain FHMA technique in
detail.
4) Explain ground reflection model (two ray model) and drive equation for total electric
field.

Set A

SLR-KM 200

-4-

*SLRKM200*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(44=16)

1) What is speech encoding and modulation in GSM ?


2) Explain reverse channels in W-CDMA.
3) Describe handoff procedure in GSM.
4) Explain authentication and security in GSM.
5) Short note on mobile call origination sequence in GSM.
5. Solve any three :

(83=24)

1) Short note on GSM architecture.


2) Explain frequency and channel specification in IS-95 CDMA system.
3) Describe handoff and power control in 3G system.
4) Explain GSM common control channels and dedicated control channels.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 201B

*SLRKM201B*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM (HSS SELF LEARNING)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Solve any four out of Q. 2 to Q. 7.
4) Each question carries 10 marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Select the correct option :
1) ______________ is the one program running at all times on the computer.
a) PCB

b) SO

c) OS

d) TLB

2) Each process is represented in the operating system by a ______________


also called a task control block.
a) FTB

b) MTS

c) BPC

d) PCB

3) Processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to
execute are kept on it called the
a) fault-tolerant

b) job queue

c) ready queue

d) query job

4) The time it takes for the dispatcher to stop one process and start another
running is known as the
a) dispatch

b) dispatch latency

c) dispatch work

d) None of the above

5) One measure of work is the number of processes that are completed per
time unit, called
a) waiting time

b) throughput

c) collector put

d) response time
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 201B

*SLRKM201B*

-2-

6) ______________ is the amount of time it takes to start responding, but not


the time that it takes to output that response.
a) Report time

b) Repeat time

c) Click time

d) Response time

7) The percentage of times that a page number is found in the associative


registers is called the ______________ ratio.
a) mis
b) miss
c) fit
d) hit
8) ______________ state may lead to deadlock.
a) safe

b) unsafe

c) waiting

d) ready

9) Allocate the smallest hole that is big enough.


a) Worst fit

b) First fit

c) Best fit

d) Must fit

10) Logical memory is also broken into blocks of the same size called
a) tubes
b) frames
c) pages
d) tiles
______________

Set A

*SLRKM201B*

-3-

SLR-KM 201B

Seat
No.

T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM (HSS SELF LEARNING)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015

Marks : 40

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Solve any four out of Q. 2 to Q. 7.
2) Each question carries 10 marks.
2. Explain following in detail :
a) What is Spooling ? Explain with example.
b) Explain PCB in detail.
3. What is process and context switch ? Explain co-operating process with example.
4. Explain any three scheduling algorithms with example.
5. What is system call ? Explain multi programmed Batch system and Personal computer
system.
6. What is deadlock avoidance ? Explain methods for deadlock handling.
7. a) Explain the basic concepts of segmentation.
b) Explain about contiguous memory allocation.
______________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 201A

*SLRKM21A*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication) (Part II) Examination, 2015


(Self Learning) (New)
COMPUTER ORGANIZATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) A group of four bits is known as
a) nibble
c) bit

10
b) byte
d) all of above

2) _______ is used to store the data and program.


a) Memory unit
b) Input unit
c) Output unit
d) None of the above
3) ROM stands for
a) Read Only Memory
c) Read Online Memory

b) Random Only Memory


d) None of the above

4) In _______ representation, numbers are represented by mantissa comprising the


significant digits and an exponent part of radix.
a) Floating point
b) Fixed point
c) Decimal number
d) None of the above
5) LRU stands for
a) Least Recently Used
c) Last Randomly Used

b) Last Recently Used


d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 201A

-2-

*SLRKM201A*

6) _______ are the different types of generating control signals.


a) Microprogrammed
b) Hardwired
c) Microinstruction
d) Both a and b
7) Hardwired control generator consists of
a) Decoder/Encoder
b) Condition codes
c) Control step counter
d) All of the above
8) In microprogrammed approach, signals are generated by
a) machine instructions
b) system programs
c) utility tools
d) none of the above
9) After the compilation of DMA transfer processor is notified by
a) acknowledge signal
b) interrupt signal
c) WMFC signal
d) none of the above
10) DMA controller has _______ registers.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3

d) 4

______________

Set A

*SLRKM201A*

-3-

SLR-KM 201A

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication) (Part II) Examination, 2015


(Self Learning) (New)
COMPUTER ORGANIZATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015

Marks : 40

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any two :

20

a) Explain the various formats of data representation.


b) Explain various memory allocations schemes.
c) Write a note on :
i) RISC
ii) Virtual memory.
SECTION II
3. Solve any two :

20

a) Explain hardwired control design with the help of neat diagram.


b) Explain DMA architecture with the help of neat diagram.
c) Explain processor programmed I/O architecture.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 201C

*SLR-KM-201C*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (E & TC) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


ROBOTICS (HSS-Self Learning)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Solve any four out of Q. 2 to Q. 7.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct option :

10

1) Which of the following terms is not one of the four basic parts of a robot ?
a) Peripheral tools
b) Sensor
c) Controller
d) Drive
2) Which of the following is a sensor that measures the movement of an object ?
a) Pressure sensor
b) Motion sensor
c) Action sensor
d) Touch sensor
3) Which of the following is not a use for a robot ?
a) Maintenance and repair
b) Assembly line
c) Mental calculation
d) Exploration
4) The number of moveable joints in the base, the arm and the end effectors of
the robot determines ___________
a) Degrees of freedom
b) Payload capacity
c) Operational limits
d) Flexibility
5) Which of the following is the most common type of actuator ?
a) Electric motor
b) Stepper motor
c) Solenoid
d) Hydraulic pump

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 201C

*SLR-KM-201C*

-2-

6) Which of the following is a device that receives information from an input


device and changes the output if required ?
a) Microprocessor

b) Actuator

c) Sensing device

d) Controller

7) The common robotic arm has _____________ degrees of freedom.


a) Six

b) Five

c) Four

d) Three

8) Robots used in automobile plants would be classified as


a) Perception system robots

b) Industrial robots

c) Mobile robots

d) Knowledge robots

9) What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot controllers ?
a) Temperature

b) Feedback

c) Signal

d) Output

10) Which of the following terms refers to the rotational motion of a robot arm ?
a) Swivel

b) Axle

c) Roll

d) Yaw

______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-201C*

-3-

SLR-KM 201C

Seat
No.

T.E. (E & TC) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


ROBOTICS (HSS-Self Learning)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instruction :

Marks : 40

Solve any four out of Q. 2 to Q. 7.

2. Explain the different classification systems of robots. Also explain with neat
sketches any two import robot configurations.

10

3. Explain the following sensors used in robots.

10

i) Touch and slip sensors velocity and acceleration sensors.


ii) Proximity sensor.
4. Explain microprocessor based robot controller.

10

5. What are different functions of robot vision system ? Explain low level and high
level machine vision systems.
10
6. Draw and explain components of machine vision system.

10

7. Define MEMS. List their advantages. Write short note on micro robotics.

10

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 202

*SLRKM202*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (E and TC) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER COMMUNICATION NETWORK
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The number of bits position in which code words differ is called the ________
distance.
a) Cyclic
b) Parity
c) Hamming
d) None
2) In __________ switching all the datagrams of a message follows the same
channel of a path.
a) Circuit switching
b) Datagram packet
c) Virtual circuit
d) None
3) Number of links to connect n nodes in a mesh topology is = __________
a) n (n 1)/2
b) 2n
c) 2n 1
d) n
4) In BUS topology, at each end of the bus is a __________, which absorbs any
signal, removing it from the bus.
a) terminator
b) tap
c) switch
d) None
5) To achieve stability in CSMA/CD back off scheme, a technique known as
__________ is used.
a) Binary
b) Exponential
c) Binary Exponential
d) None
6) The mapping of the IP address to the corresponding Ethernet Address is
done by a protocol named as ___________
a) RARP
b) DHCP
c) DNS
d) ARP
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 202

*SLRKM202*

-2-

7) The Class C address class can have __________ networks and about
___________ hosts in each network.
a) 1024, 1 million
b) 512, 2 million
c) 254, 2 million
d) None
8) Routers are part of _________ layer.
a) Application
b) Network
c) Physical

d) None

9) _________ layer decides which physical pathway the data should take.
a) Application
b) Network
c) Physical
d) None
10) Computers in a Metro City have been connected by a/an
a) MAN
b) WAN
c) LAN
d) INTERNET
11) ICMP Type code for Ping command is ___________
a) 8/0
b) 0/3
c) 3/8
d) None
12) For large networks, _________ topology is used.
a) Bus
b) Star
c) Ring

d) None

13) RIP is straight forward implementation of


a) Flow based routing
b) Distance vector routing
c) Link state routing
d) None
14) _________ layer contains user programs.
a) Application
b) Network
c) Physical

d) None

15) IP multicast uses ___________


a) Class A address
c) Class D address

b) Class B address
d) None

16) DNS uses _________


a) Flat Namespace
c) Tabular Namespace

b) Hierarchical namespace
d) None

17) What is max data capacity for optical fiber cable ?


a) 10 mbps
b) 100 mbps
c) 1000 mbps d) 10000 mbps
18) FTP uses _________ file access.
a) Concurrent
b) Whole file copying
c) Offline
d) None
19) IP address authentication mechanism is __________
a) Strong
b) Weak
c) Moderate
d) None
20) A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _________ layer of
the Internet model.
a) Physical
b) Data Link
c) Network
d) None
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM202*

-3-

SLR-KM 202

Seat
No.

B.E. (E and TC) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER COMMUNICATION NETWORK
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : All questions are compulsory.


SECTION I
2. Answer any four :
a) Draw and explain any two types of transmission media.
b) Explain CRC method of error detection.
c) Explain IP addressing classes and ranges.
d) With figure explain on shortest path routing.
e) Draw and explain TCP header.

(45=20)
5
5
5
5
5

3. Answer any two :


(210=20)
a) Explain character stuffing method of framing with suitable example.
10
b) Explain in detail various network topologies.
10
c) Draw IP header and explain various fields.
10
SECTION II
4. Write notes on any four :
a) FTP
b) Mobile IP
c) Slow Convergence Problem
d) Telnet
e) Encryption.
5. Answer any two :

(45=20)
5
5
5
5
5
(210=20)

a) Explain how domain name resolution is carried out.

10

b) Explain single timer mechanism used in IGMP.

10

c) What is ICMP ? Explain any two types of ICMP reports alongwith message
format.

10

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 203

*SLRKM203*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Part I) (E & TC) Examination, 2015


VLSI DESIGN (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Select the correct answer :


1) A binary decoder, is a logic circuit with
a) 2n input, n output
c) 2n input, 2n output

20
b) n input, 2n output
d) None of the above

2) Process in VHDL becomes active, when


a) there is change in the value of signal in sensitivity list
b) change in clock statement
c) change in reset signal
d) none of the above
3) In BCD adder ________ is added in case the sum is not valid BCD number.
a) 1001
b) 0110
c) 0101
d) 1010
4) The logical operators can be used with types of operands
a) Bit and vector
b) Boolean and vector
c) Bit and boolean
d) None of the above
5) A signal of enumeration type is one for which the possible values that signal can have
a) Integer type
b) User defined
c) File type
d) None of the above
6) Which is default delay in VHDL ?
a) Delta delay
c) Transport delay

b) Inertial delay
d) None of the above

7) In an entity statement, buffer is


a) Signal type
c) Signal mode

b) Signal port
d) Concurrent statement

8) Binary multiplication requires


a) Shifting
c) Shifting and adding

b) BCD addition
d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 203

*SLRKM203*

-2-

9) The symbol __________ is the signal assignment operator.


a) =
b) <=
c) =>
10) A process can not have
a) wait statement
c) wait statement and sensitivity list

d) None of the above

b) sensitivity list
d) none of the above

11) Synthesis means


a) Checking correctness of design
b) Conversion of the design to actual component
c) Implement design into target technology
d) None of the above
12) The paths taken by the connections between components are decided during
a) Mapping
b) Placing
c) Routing
d) None of the above
13) Case statement typically result in
a) Decoders
b) Multiplexers

c) Adders

14) Quality of circuit is generally defined by


a) Area time product
c) Both a) and b)

b) Energy delay product


d) None of the above

15) JTAG stands for


a) Joint Test Action Group
c) Joint Target Acted Group

b) Joint Target Act Group


d) None of the above

16) Boundary scan technique consists of


a) Scan path testing port
c) Both a) and b)

b) Test access port


d) None of the above

17) Build in Self Test is used for


a) Testing components
c) Testing memory

b) Testing flipflops
d) None of the above

18) _________ power dissipation occurs due to leakage current.


a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

d) None of the above

19) A PLA stands for


a) Programmable Logic Array
c) Programmable leading array

b) Programmable load array


d) None of the above

20) Syntax error results from


a) Improper VHDL statement
c) Delay in VHDL

b) Logic expression
d) None of the above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM203*

-3-

SLR-KM 203

Seat
No.

B.E. (Part I) (E & TC) Examination, 2015


VLSI DESIGN (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

2. Solve any four :

16

a) Differentiate between sequential and combinational logic.


b) What is overloading of operators ?
c) Compare between signal and variable with example.
d) Explain resolution functions.
e) Write VHDL code for 2 : 4 decoder.
f) Write VHDL code for T flip flop.

3. Solve any three :

24

a) Write VHDL code for BCD to excess 3 code converter.


b) A Mealy Machine has one i/p and one output. The circuit will examine a string of 0s and
1s applied to the X input and generate and output z = 1 only when the input sequence
ends in 101.
For example : x = 0011011001010100
z = 0000010000010100
Derive state diagram and state table for the circuit.
c) Write a VHDL code for 4 bit adder using full adder.
d) With the help of example explain about package in VHDL.

4. Solve any four :

16

a) Explain optimization process in detail.


b) Draw CMOS realization of EX-NOR gate.
c) For a CMOS inverter C = 70 fF and F = 100 MHz. Calculate dynamic power consumed.

Set A

SLR-KM 203

-4-

*SLRKM203*

d) Figure given below show half of a CMOS circuit. Derive the other half that contains the
PMOS transistors.

e) A combinational circuit is defined by F(A, B, C) = m (1, 2, 3, 4). Implement the circuit


with PAL.
f) Write down test bench for half adder.

5. Solve any three :

24

a) Explain CMOS Noise Margin in detail.


b) Explain in detail boundary scan test methodology used for test complex PC boards.
c) Explain in detail FPGA architecture of Altera FLEX 10 K series.
d) With the help of specific example explain synthesis of case statement.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 204

*SLRKM204*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MOBILE AND SATELLITE COMMUNICATION (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) In GSM the frequency spectrum is partitioned into _____________ carriers.


a) 122
b) 124
c) 126
d) None of these
2) The widely accepted shape of cell in cellular network is
a) Hexagonal
b) Circular
c) Triangular
d) None of these
3) In GSM the interface between network sub system and operation sub system
is called
a) O Interface
b) Um Interface
c) A Interface
d) None of these
4) In GSM a complete hyperframe is sent about every
a) 3H, 28M, 54Sec
b) 2H, 28M, 54Sec
c) 1H, 28M, 54Sec
d) None of these
5) GSM superframe consist of
a) 51 multiframe
b) 13 multiframe

c) 26 frame

d) None of these

6) The multiple access scheme chosen by GSM is


a) TDMA
b) FDMA
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
7) GSM frame consist of _____________ time slots.
a) 18
b) 10
c) 8

d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 204

-2-

*SLRKM204*

8) Wireless adhoc networks are


a) Infrastructure based
b) Wired and infrastructureless
c) Infrastructureless and wireless
d) None of these
9) The Access Point (AP) is the wireless equivalent of a wired LAN.
a) Switch
b) Repeater
c) Hub
d) None of these
10) The IEEE 802.11 standard designed to operate in ____________ band.
a) 4.2 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz
c) 4.8 GHz
d) None of these
11) The satellite must carry batteries to power the sub system during
a) Launch
b) Eclipses
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
12) At Geostationary altitude the radiation intensity of sun is
a) 1.39 KW/m2
b) 1.39 W/m2
c) 1.93 KW/m2 d) None of these
13) Increase in number of overhead bits in a TDMA frame results in
a) Increase in TDMA frame efficiency
b) Decrease in TDMA frame efficiency
c) No change in TDMA frame efficiency
d) None of these
14) The line joining the satellite and center of earth spans equal area in equal
interval to time is the statement contained in
a) Keplers first law
b) Keplers second law
c) Keplers third law
d) None of these
15) Orbital velocity of the ____________ satellite is lower.
a) LEO
b) MEO
c) GEO

d) None of these

16) The earth is not quite a perfect sphere, at the equator, there are bulges of
about ______________ meter.
a) 165
b) 65
c) 6.5
d) None of these
17) Telemetry data are digitized and transmitted as
a) GMSK
b) FSK
c) PSK

d) None of these

18) Tracking system used to determine the position of the satellite with in
a) 10 meter
b) 15 meter
c) 100 meter
d) None of these
19) To generate command word and execute the command instruction process
takes
a) Few milliseconds
b) 1 5 seconds
c) 5 10 seconds
d) None of these
20) On satellite wire antennas are used to provide communication for
a) Telephone
b) TTC & M
c) AOCS
d) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRKM204*

-3-

SLR-KM 204

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MOBILE AND SATELLITE COMMUNICATION (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(44=16)

1) Explain the frequency reuse technique.


2) Explain with block diagram wireless communication system.
3) Explain disadvantages of WLAN.
4) Explain HiperLAN2 basic structure and handover scenarios.
5) GPRS network architecture.
3. Solve any three :

(38=24)

1) Explain forward link and reverse link structure in IS-95 CDMA system.
2) What is handover ? Explain handover scenario at cell boundary.
3) Explain GSM traffic channels, broadcast channels and common control
channels.
4) Explain infrared Vs radio transmission.

Set A

SLR-KM 204

-4-

*SLRKM204*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(44=16)

1) Explain working of DBS TV receiver.


2) Explain Doppler shift and range variations.
3) Explain Tracking and command sub system.
4) Explain Geostationary satellite.
5) Explain the frequency band consideration with respect to LEO satellite.
5. Solve any three :

(38=24)

1) Explain Solar Eclipse and Sun Transit Outage.


2) Explain the procedure for placing satellites into Geostationary orbit.
3) Explain single conversion and double conversion transponder.
4) Explain antenna subsystem on satellite.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 205

*SLRKM205*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (E&TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015
RANDOM SIGNAL THEORY AND CODING (Old)

Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) All questions are compulsory.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Event A and B are statistically independent if


a) Occurrence of A includes occurrence of B
b) A and B occur simultaneously
c) A and B occur at different times
d) None of these
2) For double error correction the minimum distance required is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
3) As most of the natural phenomenon are characterized by random variables with
a) Normal distribution
b) Poissons distribution
c) Binomial distribution
d) None of these
4) The redundancy of (n, k) code is defined as
a) k n

b) n k
5) The weight of code 1010110 is
a) 3
b) 4

c) n k n

d) n k k

c) 2

d) 7

6) The starting point on the code tree is at the _________ and corresponds to the
situation before arrival of the first message bit.
a) extreme keft
b) extreme right c) middle
d) none of these
7) Cyclic code is subclass of
a) Block code
c) Turbo code

b) Convolution code
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 205

*SLRKM205*

-2-

8) A process is said to be discrete state process if its range is


a) countable of finite
b) random
c) uncountable
d) not fixed
9) It is more practical to consider maximum likelyhood decoding with
a) state representation
b) tree structure
c) trellis structure
d) polynomial representation
10) The codeword is a valid codeword if syndrome is
a) one
b) non zero
c) zero

d) infinite

11) A catastrophic error is defined as an event whereby infinite number of code symbol
errors cause _______ number of decoded data bit errors.
a) Random
b) Finite
c) Constant
d) Infinite
12) The order of ____________ of linear block code is k n.
a) generator matrix
b) parity check matrix
c) transpose of parity check matrix
d) syndrome
13) A box contains 4 white and 3 black balls. Three balls are drawn from the box
successively. What is the probability that the first two balls are white and third is
black ?
a) 6/35
b) 5/35
c) 3/35
d) 4/35
14) For linear codes the mapping transformation is
a) linear
b) nonlinear
c) both linear and nonlinear
d) constant
15) One of the major characteristics of linear block codes and convolutional codes is
a) both them have memory
b) none of them have memory
c) only linear block codes has memory
d) only convolution code has memory
16) A parity check code can
a) correct single-bit error
c) detect two-bit error

b) detect single-bit error


d) correct two-bit error

17) Linear block codes (7, 4) is capable of detecting and correcting ________ errors
per word respectively.
a) (4, 3)
b) (4, 1)
c) (3, 1)
d) (3, 3)
18) In convolutional encoder coding gain is dB is less than or equal to
a) rdf
b) nk
c) kdf
d) ndf
19) If free distance of convolutional encoder is 5, than number of bits it can correct
upto
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
20) The _________ generator consists of two encoder are normally identical.
a) block code
b) cyclic code
c) turbo code
d) convolution code

______________

Set A

*SLRKM205*

-3-

SLR-KM 205

Seat
No.

B.E. (E&TC) (Part I) Examination, 2015


RANDOM SIGNAL THEORY AND CODING (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) All questions are compulsory.


3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. A) Answer any three :
a) What are the properties of normal PDF ?
b) Calculate the weight and Hamming distance of two code words given
i) u = 0111
ii) w = 1100
c) Derive the expression for Bays Theorem.
d) Compare block code and cyclic code.
B) The generator matrix of (6, 3) systematic block code is given by

12

1 0 0 1 1 0
G = 0 1 0 1 1 1

0 0 0 1 0 1
Find code vectors, parity check matrix and error syndrome.
3. A) Attempt any two :

a) What are random variables ? List the properties of continuous and discrete
random variable.
b) Explain matrix description of Linear block coding.
c) With diagram explain general form of a decoder used for cyclic coding.
B) a) Design an encoder for a (7, 4) binary code generated by g(x) = 1 + x + x3 and
verify its operation using message vector 1010.
b) Explain error detection and correction capabilities of linear block codes.

8
4

OR
b) Explain error detection with (n-k) syndrome calculation circuit for (n,k) cyclic
code.

Set A

SLR-KM 205

*SLRKM205*

-4-

SECTION II
4. A) Answer any two :

a) Briefly explain about MAP algorithm.


b) With block diagram explain working of Turbo code encoder.
c) Explain likelyhood functions used in turbo code concepts.
B) Draw the tree, state and trellis diagram for k = 3 and rate =

1
code generated by 12
3

g1(x) = 1 + x
g2(x) = x + x2
g3(x) = 1 + x + x2
5. A) Answer any two :

a) Compare hard and soft decision viterbi decoding.


b) With example explain the Catastrophic Error property of convolution coder.
c) List the properties of convolution codes.
B) a) For the given encoder find the output sequence and code tree for the
message 1010.

b) Prove that convolution encoder can be treated as a set of cyclic code shift
registers. (Polynomial representation).

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 206

*SLRKM206*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


IMAGE PROCESSING (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

20

1) Digitizing the amplitude value of continuous image is called


a) Quantization
b) Sensing the image
c) Acquisition of image
d) Sampling
2) For a 8-bit gray scale image, 0-255 is the
a) Gray scale
b) Gray level

c) Intensity level

3) D4 distance is also called as


a) Euclidean distance
c) Chess-board distance

b) City-block distance
d) None

d) None

4) A measure of the degree to which a pure color is diluted by white light is given by
a) Hue
b) Intensity
c) Cyan
d) Saturation
5) DCT is foundation for following still and moving image compression standards
a) JPEG and MPEG
b) JBIG and MBIG
c) BMP and AVI
d) None
6) As per the need, if any one of the sub-bands is decomposed in a level is called
a) Pyramidal DWT
b) Tree structured DWT
c) Wavelet packet decomposition
d) None
7) In unitary transforms operator kernel should satisfy _____________ condition.
a) Non-orthogonality
b) Orthogonality
c) Non-separability
d) None
8) Contrast stretching, gray level slicing and bit plane slicing are the example of
a) Piecewise linear transformation function
b) Point processing
c) Mask processing
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 206

*SLRKM206*

-2-

9) Filter masks are also called as


a) Convolution mask
c) Both a) and b)

b) Convolution kernel
d) None

10) Averaging is analogous to integration while that the sharpening must be accomplished by
a) Addition
b) Smoothing
c) Multiplication
d) Spatial differentiation
11) Min-max filter, mid-point filter, alpha-trimmed mean filter are the examples of
a) Mean filters
b) Order statistics filters
c) Adaptive filters
d) None
12) If Salt as well as pepper noise is present then it is called
a) Uni-polar
b) Bipolar
c) Tri-polar

d) Quadra-polar

13) Following noise that generally not appears in practical situations but used in simulations
a) Uniform noise
b) Impulse noise
c) Gamma noise
d) Noise
14) In morphology the dilation is denoted as ____________
a) A B

c) A B

b) AB

d) A  B
15) The specific manner and extent of thickening or thinning is controlled by the shape of the
a) Dilation
b) Erosion
c) Structuring element
d) Opening element
16) Equation A B = A ( A B) represents
a) Thinning
c) Opening

b) Erosion
d) Hit-or-miss transform

17) Entropy is measured in terms of


a) bytes/pixel
c) both a) and b)

b) bits/pixel
d) none

18) Gradient operators are derived from


a) First order derivatives
c) Third order derivatives

b) Second order derivatives


d) None

1 1 1
1 is example of
19) 1 2
1 1 1
a) Laplacian

b) Gradient

c) Compass

d) None

20) If response at the centre location |R| T where T is non negative threshold is given by
n

wizi
i=1

means

a) Line is detected
c) Edge is detected

b) Point is detected
d) None
______________

Set A

*SLRKM206*

-3-

SLR-KM 206

Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015
IMAGE PROCESSING (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four :
a) Write a short note on RGB color model.
b) What is sampling and quantization of an image ?
c) Explain K-L transform in detail.
d) What is histogram ? Explain with one example.
e) What is order statistics median filter for image enhancement ?
3. Answer any two :

(45=20)

(210=20)

a) What do you mean by basic gray level transformations ? Explain any two with neat sketch.
b) Explain FFT by successive decomposition algorithm.
c) What are fundamental steps in digital image processing ? Explain with block diagram.
SECTION II
4. Answer any four :
a) Compare image enhancement and image restoration.
b) What is structuring element ? What is its role in mathematical morphology ?
c) Explain the operation of dilation and erosion with example of binary image.
d) Explain coding redundancy.
e) Explain inverse filtering in relation to image restoration.
5. Answer the following :

(45=20)

(210=20)

a) Explain Boundary extraction using graph heuristic searching.


OR
a) How line is detected ? Explain Compass operator for finding lines in eight directions.
b) What is Image compression model ? Explain Block transform coding.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 207

*SLRKM207*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part I)
(New) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER COMMUNICATION NETWORK

Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201 = 20)

1) Which of the following statements about star topologies is false ?


a) A star Topology is more reliable than a mesh Topology
b) The HUB is a most critical node in a star network
c) Servicing and maintenance of a star network is relatively easy
d) None of these
2) Which of the following layer decides the physical pathway that data takes ?
a) Application
b) Network
c) Data link
d) None of these
3) Put the following in the correct order, from high to low
a) Session, b) Presentation, c) Physical, d) Data link, e) Network, f) Application,
g) Transport
a) c,d,e,g,a,b,f
b) f,a,b,g,d,e,c
c) f,b,g,a,e,d,c
d) f,b,a,g,e,d,c
4) In the Hamming code method of error correction, redundancy bits are
a) Appended at the end of data
b) Added with data
c) Scattered within the data
d) None of these
5) Secondary stations must take explicit permission from primary frame, sending
data in case of ____________ HDLC Mode.
a) NRM
b) ARM
c) ABM
d) None of these
6) In cyclic redundancy checking, generator polynomial act as
a) The divisor
b) The quotient
c) The dividend
d) The remainder
7) Which of the following standards used for CSMA/CD LAN ?
a) IEEE 802.3
b) IEEE 802.2
c) IEEE 802.5
d) IEEE 802.4
8) Which of the following is reliable, connection oriented protocol ?
a) UDP
b) TCP
c) IP
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 207

*SLRKM207*

-2-

9) You are given a Class C network with 26 bits for networking. How many subnets
do you have ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
10) Special IP starting with numbers 127 is used for
a) Loopback testing
b) Limited broadcast
c) Direct broadcast
d) Multicasting
11) Which TCP/IP utility is most often used to test whether an IP host is up and
functional ?
a) FTP
b) Telnet
c) Ping
d) Netstat
12) Problem of assigning IP address is solved by
a) ARP
b) DHCP
c) ICMP

d) FTP

13) Routing decision is based upon traffic and topology in case of


a) Adaptive routing algorithm
b) Non adaptive routing algorithm
c) Static routing algorithm
d) None of these
14) DNS uses caching for
a) Search mapping
c) Optimizing search cost

b) Name resolution
d) None of these

15) IPV6 uses ____________ address size.


a) 16 bit
b) 32 bit
c) 64 bit

d) 128 bit

16) In CRC method, Generator polynomial used at sender and receiver is


a) Same
b) Different
c) Similar
d) None of these
17) Mode setting commands are given using __________ Frames in HDLC.
a) I-Frame
b) S-Frame
c) U-Frame
d) None of these
18) In case of Token Ring networks, one bit delay is associated with __________
mode of operation.
a) Listen mode
b) Bypass mode c) Transmit
d) None of these
19) Problem of mapping IP address to physical address is solved by
a) ARP
b) RARP
c) DHCP
d) ICMP
20) Which of the following is a valid subnet mask value ?
a) 255.0.255.255
b) 0.0.0.255
c) 255.255.254.0
d) 255.255.255.256

______________

Set A

*SLRKM207*

-3-

SLR-KM 207

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part I)


(New) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER COMMUNICATION NETWORK
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw and explain about RS232 interface.
b) Explain any two network Topologies with their advantages and disadvantages.
c) If message to be transmitted is 1101011011 and G(x) = X4 + X + 1. What is the
transmitted bit pattern according to CRC ?
d) What are the problems associated with piggy backing of acknowledge discuss the
solution ?
e) Explain the function of each layer in TCP/IP model.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Draw IP header format and explain each field.


b) What are different mode transition commands ? Draw and explain Mode transition
diagram in HDLC.
c) What is Subnet Masking, explain with one example. State the subnet mask for
class A, B and C of IP address.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Write a short note on Mega bit LAN.


b) Write short note on ICMP.
c) Explain the difference between Switch and Hub. What are active and passive
Hubs ?
d) How Domain Name Resolution is carried out ?
e) What are the various Telnet options ? Explain option negotiation.

Set A

SLR-KM 207

-4-

*SLRKM207*

5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain with suitable diagram DHCP state transition.


b) What is internet Domain Name System ? Draw and explain Domain Server
message format.
c) With the help of FTP process model explain file transfer protocol.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 208

*SLRKM208*
S

B.E. (E and TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


VLSI DESIGN
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one
mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The power dissipation of CMOS IC will
a) decrease with frequency
b) increase with gate size
c) decrease with gate size
d) increase with frequency
2) For the CMOS inverter, the best value of
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5


(120=20)

ratio is
d) none

3) When VGS = 0 on an N-Channel MOSFET switch, there is no ______________


between the switch and the drain.
a) Voltage drop
b) Capacitance
c) Conductive channel
d) Inductance
4) To implement
of MOS devices.
a) 4
O

b) 6

using CMOS logic requires ____________ number


c) 8

d) 10

5) The block of code which defines the relationship between input, output and
internal signals or variables in VHDL design is the
a) Architecture
b) Package
c) Entity
d) Library
6) In an entity statement buffer is
a) signal type
b) signal port
c) signal mode
d) concurrent statement
7) The symbol ________________ is the signal assignment operator.
a) :=
b) <=
c) =>
d) none of above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 208

-2-

*SLRKM208*

8) The exclusive ORing of even number is always ______________


a) One
b) Ten
c) Zero
d) Odd
9) Binary multiplication requires _________________
a) Shifting
b) BCD addition
c) Shifting and adding
d) None
10) In characteristic equation of JK flip-flop is ______________
a) Q+ = JQ + KQ
b) Q+ = JQ + KQ
c) Q+ = JQ + KQ
d) Q+ = JQ + KQ
11) In Moore circuits, the output depends on ______________
a) Present state
b) Present state and inputs
c) Inputs
d) None
12) To PAL contain _________________ array programmable and _____________
array fixed.
a) NAND, OR
b) AND, OR
c) OR, AND
d) AND, NOR
13) In which of the following programming method is used for FPGA ?
a) Static RAM programming
b) Fuse
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
14) JTAG stands for
a) Joint Test Action Group
b) Joint Target Act Group
c) Joint Target Acted Group
d) None
15) Which of the following TAP pin is optional for JTAG support ?
a) TDI
b) TMS
c) TRST
d) TCK
16) Functional correctness checked by
a) Simulation
b) Synthesis
c) Translate
17) The output pattern that is stored in ROM is called as
a) word
b) bit
c) byte

d) Filter
d) none

18) Internal structure of PAL is similar to a


a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) or b)
19) Path sensitizing technique is used to test ________________
a) Combinational b) Sequential
c) Both a) and b) d) None
20) Pseudo random binary sequence generator can be implemented using
______________
a) EX-OR gate and D F/F
b) Serial shift register
c) Parallel shift register
d) None
______________

Set A

*SLRKM208*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 208

B.E. (E and TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


VLSI DESIGN
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
3) Assume suitable data if required.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) Explain Fan-In and Fan-Out concept in logic design ?


b) Implement two input EX-NOR gate using CMOS logic.
c) Explain delays in VHDL.
d) Explain in detail rule for writing identifier in VHDL.
e) Write VHDL code for 3 bit serial shift register.
3. Solve any three :

(83=24)

a) Explain power dissipation in CMOS. Calculate power dissipation in CMOS


inverter for frequency increased from 10 MHz to 100 MHz with static power
dissipation of 100 W, VDD = 3V and C = 100 pf.


b) Explain in detail VHDL data types.


c) Design mod 10 synchronous up/down counter using VHDL.
d) Write a VHDL code for common cathode BCD to 7 segment decoder.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) Differentiate between Moore and Melay machine.


b) Write a short note on BIST.
Set A

SLR-KM 208

-4-

*SLRKM208*

c) Write a VHDL code given state diagram.

d) Write a test bench for half binary adder.


e) Write a short note on testing of combinational logic.
5. Solve any three :

(83=24)

a) Design sequence detector to detect 1011 sequence.


b) Explain multiplier using Add and Shift method.
c) Explain XC-9500 device structure with block diagram.
d) Explain in detail :
i) Interconnects in FPGA
ii) Product term allocator in CPLD.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 209

*SLRKM209*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (New) (Part I)
Examination, 2015
SATELLITE COMMUNICATION

Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.

4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) The line joining the satellite and centre of earth spans equal area in equal intervals
of time is the statement contained in __________
a) Keplers first law
b) Keplers second law
c) Keplers third law
d) None of above
2) The uplink and downlink frequencies are made different for ________
a) Reducing antenna size
b) Reducing transmitter power
c) Increasing antenna gain
d) Increasing isolation between satellite transmitter and receiver
3) The sub satellite point is the location on ________
a) Surface on the earth
b) Center at the earth
c) Satellite body
d) None of above
4) It is the ________ pointing direction from the satellite to the center of the earth.
a) Nadir
b) Zenith
c) Sub satellite point
d) Equator
5) The coordinates to which an earth station antenna must be pointed to
communicate with a satellite are called the ________
a) Elevation angle b) Azimuth angle c) Latitude
d) Look angles
6) The plane of the earths orbit around the sun is at an inclination of _________
a) 5
b) 23
c) 7.2
d) 7.3
7) The acceleration force induced by the moon on a GEO satellite is about _________
as that of the sun.
a) Equal
b) Twice
c) Less
d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 209

-2-

*SLRKM209*

8) Eclipse occurs during two periods per year, that is _______ days before equinoxes.
a) 21
b) 22
c) 23
d) 24
9) At the Greenwich Meridian the line drawn from the ___________
a) East to West
b) Equator
c) North to South Pole
d) None of above
10) Latitude is the angular distance measured in degrees from _________
a) North pole
b) South pole
c) Equator
d) None of above
11) The body of the satellite can be rotated 30 and 100 rpm to create a ________
force that provides stability.
a) Gyroscopic
b) Cosmic
c) Gravitational
d) Centrifugal
12) Arc jets or ion thrusters are mainly used for __________ station keeping.
a) North east
b) North south c) East west
d) North west
13) In sun synchronous orbit the change in the orbital plane is called _______
a) Precession
b) Ascension
c) Drifting
d) Inclination
14) ISL links are used communication between
a) Satellite to satellite
b) Satellite to earth station
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
15) NGSO constellation of Iridium consists of _______ no. of satellites.
a) 77
b) 66
c) 3
d) 10
16) Iridium system was formed for _________
a) Weather forecasting
b) Data services
c) MSS
d) Earth imaging
17) Teledesic is designed for ____________
a) Internet services
b) Voice services
c) MSS
d) None of above
18) GPS satellite constellation separated by __________ in longitude.
a) 60
b) 30
c) 120
d) 180
19) GPS space segment consist of _________ satellites in MEO.
a) 24
b) 22
c) 20
d) 18
20) In GPS which code having high accuracy ?
a) C/A
b) P
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM209*

-3-

SLR-KM 209

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (New) (Part I)


Examination, 2015
SATELLITE COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(44=16)

1) Describe in brief the orbits of a satellite.


2) How to locate the satellite in the orbit ? Discuss.
3) Write a short note on power system on satellite.
4) What is noise temperature ? Describe.
5) A 4-GHz receiver with the following gains and noise temperature.
Tin = 25 K

TIF = 1000 K GRF = 23 dB

TRF = 50 K Tm = 500 K

GIF = 30 dB

Calculate the system noise temperature for mixer having a gain Gm = 0 dB.
Recalculate the system noise temperature when the mixer has a 10 dB loss. How
can the noise temperature of the receiver be minimized when the mixer has a loss
of 10 dB ?
3. Solve any three :

(38=24)

1) Explain antenna subsystem on satellite.


2) Describe space qualification
3) Describe basic transmission theory in link design.
4) With block diagram explain telemetry, tracking, command and monitoring.

Set A

SLR-KM 209

-4-

*SLRKM209*

SECTION II

4. Solve any four :

(44=16)

1) Write a short notes on Iridium and Teledesic.


2) Describe C-band and Ku-band home satellite TV.
3) Explain types of earth stations.
4) Explain GPS time in brief.
5) Explain digital DBS-TV receiver.
5. Solve any three :

(38=24)

1) Explain in detail off Axis scanning.


2) Describe network architecture of VSAT in detail.
3) What do you mean by GPS position location principles ? Explain in detail.
4) Brief the earth station design considerations.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 210

*SLRKM210*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (E & TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


CODING THEORY
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The linear block code is a subclass of


a) Cyclic code
c) Parity code

b) Convolutional code
d) Turbo code

2) A parity check code can


a) Detect a single bit error
c) Correct a single bit error

b) Detect two bit error


d) Correct a two bit error

3) If free distance of convolutional code is 9, number of bits corrected are


a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
4) Branch metric is calculated in soft decision Viterbi decoding using
a) Hamming distance
b) Transfer function
c) Euclidean distance
d) None of these
5) The exponent of L in transfer function gives
a) Free distance
b) No. of decoded one bit
c) No. of decoded zero bit
d) Length of the path
6) Parity check matrix is used for
a) Encoding
b) Decoding

c) Standard array d) None of these

7) In a standard array number of single bit error pattern in (5, 2) code are _________
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 7
8) Calculated syndrome is added to received vector to obtain valid code vector.
a) True
b) False
c) Cant say
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 210

*SLRKM210*

-2-

9) The error correcting capability of a coding scheme _________ as code rate k/n
_________
a) Increases, increases
b) increases, decreases
c) decreases, increases
d) decreases, decreases
10) For same code rate as constraint length increases, free distance _________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same d) None of these
11) For a state diagram shown below what are generator sequences g1 and g2 of
convolutional encoder

a) 11, 10

b) 10, 11

12) If A and B are two events, then


a) P (A B) = P (A) P (AB)
c) P (A B) = P (A) P (B)

c) 11, 01

d) 01, 00

b) P (A B) = P (A) + P (AB)
d) None of these

13) In block coding, if k = 5 and n = 8, code have _________ n tuples.


a) 256
b) 32
c) 4096
d) 64
14) A box contains 3 white, 4 red and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random. What is
the probability that it is red ?
a) 1/3
b) 1/2
c) 1/4
d) 2/3
15) For (15, 11) cyclic code, implementation of syndrome calculator requires
_________ shift registers.
a) 15
b) 11
c) 4
d) 5
16) What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice ?
a) 1/6
b) 1/12
c) 1/9
d) 1/36
17) In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC ?
a) Divisor
b) Dividend
c) Quotient

d) Remainder

18) The _________ between two words is the number of differences between
corresponding bits.
a) Hamming code
b) Hamming distance
c) Hamming rule
d) None of these
1
19) Let A and B be two disjoint events and P (A) = P (B) = . The probability that none
3
of them will occur is
a)

1
3

b)

2
3

c) 0

d) None of these

20) For a generator polynomial g (x) = 1 + x2 + x3 cyclic code is


a) (7, 4)
b) (8, 5)
c) (7, 3)
d) (6, 3)
______________
Set A

*SLRKM210*

SLR-KM 210

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (E & TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


CODING THEORY
Day and Date : Friday,,11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. A) Attempt any two :
a) For (7, 3) cyclic code, check whether given generator polynomial
g (x) = 1 + x + x2 + x4 generates cyclic code or not.
b) What is standard array ? How it is useful in decoding linear block codes ?
c) The generator matrix of (6, 3) systematic block code is given by
1 0 0 0 1 1
G = 0 1 0 1 0 1
. Find parity check matrix. Draw decoder.
0 0 1 1 1 0
B) Design an encoder and syndrome calculator for (7, 4) cyclic code generated by
g (x) = 1 + x + x3. Verify operation of encoder using message vector 1110.
3. A) Attempt any two :

12

8
8

a) If A and B are independent then prove thjat A and B are also independent.
b) Define :
i) Vector space
ii) Vector subspace.
c) The parity check matrix for (7, 4) block code is given by
1 0 1 1 1 0 0
H = 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 . If received codeword is 1001101. Find the
1 1 1 0 0 0 1
syndrome and transmitted codeword.
B) a) The joint probability function of two random variables x and y is given by
f (x, y ) = c (2x + 3y ) 1 x 2, 0 y 2
.
=0
otherwise
Find :
i) Value of C
b) Define :

ii) P (x < 2, y > 1) iii) P (x + y > 3).

i) Conditional probability

ii) Joint probability.

4
Set A

SLR-KM 210

-4-

*SLRKM210*

SECTION II
4. A) Attempt any three :

12

a) Explain add-compare-select logic used in viterbi decoding algorithm.


b) For convolutional encoder, whose generator sequences are g1 = 10, g2 = 11
i) Draw state diagram.
ii) Draw trellis diagram.
c) Explain catastrophic error propagation in convolutional codes.
d) Explain in brief Turbo decoder.
B) For the given convolutional encoder.

i) Draw trellis diagram.


ii) Draw tree diagram
iii) Find encoded output for message 10101 from tree diagram.
5. A) Attempt any two :

10

a) Explain the procedure of iterative decoding for turbo codes.


b) Explain MAP algorithm.
c) Compare systematic and non systematic convolutional codes.

B) For a convolutional encoder rate = , generator sequences are


3
g1 = 110, g2 = 101, and g3 = 111
i) Draw encoder trellis diagram.
ii) If the received sequence is 10100 10 111101 11 ...... using viterbi decoding
algorithm find transmitted sequence.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 211

*SLRKM211*
S

Set

B.E. (Part I) (Electronics and Telecommunication) (New)


Examination, 2015
Elective I : ADVANCED TELECOMMUNICATION NETWORKS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Select an appropriate option :


1) WMAN corresponds to
a) IEEE 802.11
b) IEEE 802.15

c) IEEE 802.16

d) None of the above

2) IEEE 802.16 operates over __________ frequency spectrum.


a) 10 to 66 GHz
b) 10 to 66 MHz
c) 10 to 66 KHz

d) None of the above

3) GFSK and FHSS modulation schemes are used in IEEE


a) 802.15.1
b) 802.15.3
c) 802.15.4

d) None of the above

4) Bluetooth operates over __________ frequency band.


a) 2.4 GHz
b) 2.4 MHz
c) 2.4 KHz

d) None of the above

5) SONET stands for


a) Synchronous Optical Network
c) Asynchronous Optical Network

b) Synchronous Original Network


d) None of the above

6) LTE stands for


a) Long Term Evolution
c) Long Term Expiry

b) Large Term Evolution


d) Large Term Expiry

7) _________ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber optic networks.


a) SONET
b) SDH
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
8) SDH has defined hierarchy of signals called
a) STSs
b) STMs
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
9) SONET defines _________ layers.
a) Two
b) Three

c) Four

d) Five
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 211
10) SONET network topologies can be
a) Linear
b) Ring

*SLRKM211*

-2-

c) Mesh

d) All of the above

11) __________ is the key technology that allows a cognitive wireless terminal to dynamically
access the available spectral opportunities.
a) Cognitive radio
b) Superheterodyne radio
c) Spectrum radio
d) None of the above
12) _______ refers to the ability of cognitive radio to measure the electromagnetic activities
due to ongoing radio transmissions over different spectrum bands and to capture the
parameters related to such bands.
a) Spectrum sensing
b) Spectrum mobility
c) Spectrum sharing
d) None of the above
13) __________ is to infer the existence of spectral opportunities in the surrounding radio
environment based on sensed radio environment parameters.
a) Spectrum analysis
b) Spectrum sensing
c) Spectrum mobility
d) Spectrum sharing
14) Cognitive cycle consists of
a) Spectrum sharing
c) Spectrum mobility

b) Spectrum sensing
d) All of the above

15) In _________ communication, independent paths between user and base station are
generated via introduction of relay channel.
a) Cooperative
b) Correlative
c) Congestive
d) None of the above
16) In ___________ relaying, channel resources are divided between source and relay in a
deterministic manner.
a) Fixed
b) Adaptive
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of above
17) In ________ scheme, relay decodes the received signal, re-encode it and then transmit it
to the receiver.
a) Fixed decode and forward
b) Fixed decode and backward
c) Adaptive decode and forward
d) Adaptive decode and backward
18) MIMO stands for
a) Multiple Input Multiple Output
c) Multiple Instructions Multiple Output

b) Multiple Output Multiple Input


d) Memory In Memory Out

19) _________ can be used for tele-healthcare.


a) Cognitive radio
b) Cooperative communications
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
20) ITU stands for
a) International Telecommunication Union
b) International Territory Union
c) Indian Telecommunication Union
d) Indian Territory Union
______________

Set A

*SLRKM211*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 211

B.E. (Part I) (Electronics and Telecommunication) (New)


Examination, 2015
Elective I : ADVANCED TELECOMMUNICATION NETWORKS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

2. Solve any four :


a) Compare WLAN standards namely IEEE 802.11, IEEE 802.11 b, IEEE 802.11a and IEEE
802.11 g.
b) What features are provided in IEEE 802.11 for robustness in data transmission ?
c) Explain the concept of fixed mobile convergence in NGN.
d) Write a note on SONET.
e) Explain metro optical networking.

20

3. Solve any two :

20

a) What do you mean by WMAN ? Explain its typical features and enumerate important
physical layer parameters of IEEE 802.16
b) Draw and explain the architecture of IP and MPLS based optical transport network.
c) Explain migration of PSTN to NGN.
4. Solve any four :

20

a) What are the special requirements of telehealthcare ?


b) Mention the benefits and drawbacks of cooperative communication.
c) Discuss the advanced issues in cooperative communication.
d) Explain environment aware cognitive radio in detail.
e) Draw the cognition cycle.
5. Solve any two :

20

a) Discuss cooperative communication enabled MIMO and smart antenna concept.


b) Explain the structuring knowledge for cognition tasks.
c) Explain cognitive radio and flexible spectrum usage for telehealthcare .
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 212

*SLRKM212*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) (New)


Examination, 2015
IMAGE PROCESSING (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

20

1) Image function is characterized by


a) Reflectance component
c) Both a) and b)

b) Illumination component
d) None

2) The difference in intensity between the highest and lowest intensity levels in an image is
a) Contrast
b) Hue
c) Saturation
d) Cyan
3) If no. of storage bits are 2093056 for a 8-bit image then what will be the size of image ?
a) 128 128
b) 256 256
c) 512 512
d) 1024 1024
4) The neighbors of a pixel p(x, y) are given by (x + 1, y), (x 1, y), (x, y + 1), (x, y 1) then
these neighbors are called
a) 4-neighbors
b) diagonal neighbors
c) 8-neighbors
d) none
5) Checkerboard pattern effect come in image because of
a) Improper Gray level resolution
b) Improper spatial resolution
c) Less no. of bits
d) None
6) Filter masks are also called as
a) convolution mask b) convolution kernel

c) both a) and b)

d) none

7) The basic strategy behind weighting the center point the highest and then reducing the
value of the coefficients as a function of increasing distance from the origin is simply an
attempt to reduce blurring in the smoothing process is
a) weighted average filter
b) average filter
c) high pass filter
d) none

a) 1st order derivative

2f

= f (x + 1) + f (x 1) 2f (x ) is
x 2
b) 2nd order derivative c) 3rd order derivative

8) In case of digital function,

d) none
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 212

*SLRKM212*

-2-

9) The PDF of exponential noise is given by


1

a)

c) e

(z )2
2 2

b) aeaz for z 0 and 0 for z < 0

(z )2
2 2

d) aez for z 0 and 0 for z > 0

10) The dilation of A by B followed by a erosion of the result by B is nothing but


a) dilation of A by B b) erosion of A by B c) closing of A by B d) opening of A by B
11) For 45 line detection, following 3 3 mask is used
1
a)

2 1 1

b) 1

2 1

2 1

1 1

2 2 1

2 1

d) 1 2 1

1 1
c) 1

1 2

2 1 1

12) If on the mask centre location R T where T is non negative threshold and R is response
of mask given by

i=1w iz i

a) line is detected

means

b) point is detected

c) edge is detected

d) none

13) Edge is _________ concept where as region boundary is ________ idea.


a) global, local
b) global, global
c) local, local
d) local, global
14) Magnitude of the first derivative can be used to detect the presence of _________ at a
point in an image.
a) point
b) pixel lies on dark or light side of an edge
c) an edge
d) none
15) _________ property of the second derivative is quite useful for locating the centres of
thick edges.
a) one value
b) zero-crossing property
c) zero value
d) none
16) The principal types of data redundancies are 1) coding redundancy 2) spatial and temporal
redundancy 3) Irrelevant information
a) only 1)
b) only 1) and 2)
c) all three
d) none
17) Huffman coding is example of __________
a) lossy compression
b) lossless compression
c) both a) and b)
d) none
18) Spatial redundancy can be eliminated by
a) run length coding
c) variable length coding

b) fixed length coding


d) none

19) Quantization is _________ operation.


a) reversible
b) irreversible

c) invertible

d) none

20) The relative data redundancy R is expressed in terms of compression ratio as


a) R = 1/c
b) R = 10/c
c) R = 1 (1/c)
d) R = 10 (1/c)
______________

Set A

*SLRKM212*

-3-

SLR-KM 212

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) (New)


Examination, 2015
IMAGE PROCESSING (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Answer any four :


a) What is cones, rods and scotopic and photopic phenomenon ?
b) Plot the histogram for following matrix representation of image :

(45=20)

10 10 35 25
35 25 40 35
40 35 10 10
35 10 25 10
c) Compare log transformation and power law transformation.
d) Explain boundary extraction in morphology with example.
e) Draw and explain model of image degradation/restoration.
3. Answer any two :

(210=20)

a) Find the average image of the image given below using 3 3 simple average mask.
Consider zero padding.
33 128 128 11
33 128 128 11
33 255 128 11
33

11 11

b) Explain skeleton morphological process with one example.


c) Explain first order derivatives for image sharpening. How gradient is calculated ?
Set A

SLR-KM 212

-4-

*SLRKM212*

SECTION II
4. Answer any four :

(45=20)

a) What is fidelity criteria and explain entropy.


b) Explain how line is detected.
c) Explain chain codes with one example.
d) Write a short note on coding redundancy.
e) Explain gradient operator in edge detection. Give Prewitt and Sobel Mask.
5. Answer any two :

(210=20)

a) What is segmentation ? What are the ways for segmentation ? Explain watershed
algorithm for segmentation.
b) Explain variable length coding with one example. Compare it with fixed length coding.
c) Explain image processing application in fingerprinting.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 213

*SLRKM213*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (E&TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : ADVANCED DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if required.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :

(120=20)

1) The anti-aliasing filter in a DSP system is a


a) Low pass filter b) High pass filter c) Band pass filter d) Band stop filter
2) In which of FFT algorithm, phase factor is multiplied after add subtract operations ?
a) DIT
b) DIF
c) Both DIF and DIT
d) None of the above
3) The increase in sampling rate is referred as
a) Decimation
b) Down sampling
c) Interpolator
d) None of the above
4) The power spectrum of a given autocorrelation sequence rx (k) = (k 1) is
a) z1
b) z
c) 0
d) None of the above
5) The Wiener Hopf equation for the FIR Wiener filter is
b) rdxw = Rx
c) rdx1w = Rx
a) Rxw = rdx

d) None

6) The frequency response of a system h (n) = (n) (n 1) is given by


j
a) () ( 1) b) 1 e
c) u( ) u( 1) d) None
7) The Noise-Whitening filter for the Auto-regressive process is
a) All pole system
b) All zero system
c) Pole zero system
d) None
8) The LMS algorithm converges in the mean if step size ( ) lies between
1
a) 0 < <
max

2
b) 0 < <
max

c) 0 < < max

d) 0 < < 2 max


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 213

*SLRKM213*

-2-

9) The modeling error of 1st order all pole model for a signal x (n) having autocorrelation value rx (0) = 1, rx (1) = 0.5 is
c) 0
d) 3 4
a) 1
b) 12
10) For higher values of AR model, order results in
a) Smooth waves missing peaks
b) Less smooth waves include spurious peaks
c) Does not depend on model order
d) Depends but smoothing of wave doesnt depend on model order
11) AR model is defined for
a) Non stationary process
c) Thermal noise

b) Non white signals


d) None of these

12) Weiner filter is


a) Conventional filter
c) All pole FIR filter

b) Adaptive filters
d) None of these

13) Which among under given is not true for multitrate signal processing ?
a) Decimation
b) Interpolation
c) D/I
d) None of these
14) Wavelet transformation is used for
a) Only Audio processing
b) Only image processing
c) Both image + audio processing
d) Both video processing + image processing
15) The principal of orthogonality is used in
a) Multirate signal processing
b) Wavelet transformation
c) Weiner filtering
d) Conventional filtering
16) Modern day equalization is based on
a) Conventional filter

c) Adaptive filters

b) Digital filters

d) None of these

17) Special-purpose processors can be subdivided into many different groups which
are
a) Microcontrollers
b) Digital signal processors (DSPs)
c) Graphics processing units (GPUs) d) All of the above
18) MRA equation is also called
a) modulating equation
c) dilation equation

b) FIR filter
d) span equation

19) In up sampling after every sample placing value is


a) 1
b) 0
c) 2

d) 3

20) Haar transformation is defined by


a) T = HFHT
b) T = HFH

d) T = HT

c) T = HFT
______________

Set A

*SLRKM213*

-3-

SLR-KM 213

Seat
No.

B.E. (E&TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : ADVANCED DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data, if required.
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) Explain Radix-2 decimation in time FFT structure.


b) Explain Haar wavelet.
c) Explain the applications of Wavelet transform.
d) Explain the concept of decimation in multirate signal processing.
e) Draw the structure of N = 8 point DIF FFT structure.
3. Attempt any two of the following :

(210=20)

1
a) Describe the sampling rate conversion by a rational factor .
D
b) What are the advantages of polyphase filter structure ? Draw the polyphase filter
structure with example.
c) Explain scaling function in wavelets.
4. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) Explain the relationship between autocorrelation and the model parameter.


b) Compare general purpose microprocessors with digital signal processors.
c) Explain the concept of adaptive filtering.
d) Explain the Burg method for the AR model parameter.
e) Explain Wiener filter theory.

Set A

SLR-KM 213

-4-

5. Attempt any two of the following :

*SLRKM213*
(210=20)

a) Explain the method of periodogram for the estimation of power density spectrum.
b) Explain the LMS algorithm in details with suitable example.
c) Explain with block diagram the computer architecture for signal processing.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 214

*SLRKM214*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) The packet handling functions of X.25 operates at layer __________ of the
OSI model.
A) 2
B) 1
C) 4
D) 3
2) LAPF frame format is used for _____________ transfer on all user channels.
A) Flow control
B) Error control
C) Control signaling
D) Frame
3) _____________ testing is used in I-600 series for testing.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) A and B
D) Loopback
4) ____________ includes function that may be regarded as belonging to OSI layer 1.
A) NT1
B) NT2
C) TE
D) TA
5) A data rate of ____________ can certainly support all the narrowband ISDN
services.
A) 64 Kbps
B) 92 Kbps
C) 155.52 Mbps D) 622.08 Mbps
6) What type of device is commonly found between the S and T interfaces ?
A) TA
B) LT
C) NT1
D) NT2
7) Frame relay operates in _____________ layer.
A) physical
B) physical and datalink
C) physical, datalink and network
D) none of these
8) For the frame-switching bearer service the LAPF control protocol which is
the full ___________ protocol.
A) Q. 922
B) Q. 921
C) Q. 931
D) Q. 932
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 214

-2-

*SLRKM214*

9) ______________ series provides guidance for maintenance of the ISDN


subscriber installation.
A) I.600
B) I.500
C) I.400
D) I.300
10) An ISDN is a network, in general evolving from a
A) Telephony IDN B) PSPTN
C) CSPTN
D) B-ISDN
11) ______________ is a service for transmission and reproduction of graphics
and handwritten and printed material.
A) Videotext
B) Teletex
C) Fascimile
D) Videoconferencing
12) In Teletext transmission is at a rate of one page in 2 seconds at _________
A) 9.6 Kbps
B) 10.2 Kbps
C) 2.02 Mbps
D) 1.02 Mbps
13) Multiplexing of virtual circuits takes place at layer ________
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
14) _____________ are intended for application that have bursty characteristics
and do not have tight constraints on delay and delay.
A) Constant bit rate
B) Real Time variable bit rate
C) Non-real time variable bit rate
D) Unspecified bit rate
15) ____________ layer is responsible for end-to-end transport of data at the
appropriate signaling speed.
A) Photonic
B) Section
C) Line
D) Path
16) Generic flow control field is available in
A) user-network interface ATM cell format
B) network-network interface ATM cell format
C) both A and B
D) none of these
17) ____________ service can be used for data transfers that have critical
response time requirements.
A) Constant bit rate
B) Real time variable bit rate
C) Non real time variable bit rate
D) Unspecified bit rate
18) The ______________ is used with the ABR service.
A) Peak cell rate
B) Sustainable cell rate
C) Maximum burst size
D) Minimum cell rate
19) _____________ provides for user information transfer, along with associated
controls.
A) Control plane
B) User plane
C) Management plane
D) None of these
20) Telecommuting application is example of
A) Unspecified bit rate
B) Available bit rate
C) Real time variable bit rate
D) Constant bit rate
______________
Set A

*SLRKM214*

-3-

SLR-KM 214

Seat
No.

B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four :

20

a) With diagram explain ISDN architecture.


b) Explain in detail packet switching and compare with circuit switching.
c) Compare frame relay and frame switching.
d) Explain the principles of ISDN.
e) Explain ISDN protocols at the user-network interface.
3. Answer any two :

20

a) i) What are the different types of functional groups of ISDN ? List the functions
of each functional group.

ii) Briefly write about ISDN channel structure.

b) i) With diagram explain the conceptual view of ISDN from a user or customer
point of view i.e. user interface.
ii) Briefly write about LAPF control protocol.

6
4

c) i) Explain the structure of ISDN address. What is the advantage of direct


dialing in DDI ?
ii) Compare X.25 and frame relay protocol stacks.

6
4
Set A

SLR-KM 214

-4-

*SLRKM214*

SECTION II
4. Answer any four :

20

a) Briefly write about transmission of ATM cells.


b) Explain different broadband services.
c) Explain B-ISDN functional architecture.
d) Write a note on HEC operation at receiver.
e) What are basic building blocks of ATM switching ?
5. Answer any two :

20

a) i) What are the ATM switching requirements ? Explain ATM switching


principle.

ii) Write about matrix type switch used in ATM.


b) i) Explain protocol reference model of ATM.
ii) Explain various services provided by ATM Adaptation Layer (AAL).
c) i) With block diagram explain B-ISDN user-network interface.
ii) Write a note and explain ATM traffic related attributes.

4
6
4
6
4

____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 215

*SLRKM215*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


AUDIO-VIDEO ENGG.
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Select the correct option :

20

1) The process of pressing the negative copper disc on a positive disc is called
___________
A) Pressurizing
B) Stamping
C) Actuating
D) None of these
2) For equalization in disc recording, ___________ frequency signals need to be
emphasized before recording.
A) High
B) Low
C) Mid
D) None of these
3) ___________ is an industry standard connection for computer and digital control
of musical instrument.
A) MPEG-1
B) MIDI
C) CD-I
D) None of the above
4) ___________ will affect the optimum output if gap size is increased.
A) Frequency of the audio
B) Length of tape (wavelength)
C) Magnetism
D) Signal voltage of the tape
5) When is de-emphasis done ?
A) Before recording
C) Before detection

B) After recording
D) After detection

6) Duration of vertical blanking pulse used in India is __________


A) 64 microsec
B) 100 microsec C) 1280 microsec D) 160 microsec
7) The length of tape magnetized by one cycle of audio signal is called recorded
__________
A) Bar magnet
B) Wavelength
C) Tape length
D) Head gap
8) Compact disc surface does not wear out because the sensor is
A) Electrical
B) Mechanical
C) Electronic
D) Optical
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 215

*SLRKM215*

-2-

9) The surround sound system gives more solid sound than stereophonic system.
This statement is
A) True
B) False
C) Partially true
D) Partially false
10) Which of the following is not a part of tape transport mechanism ?
A) Pinch roller
B) Flywheel
C) Capston
D) Cartridge
11) The colour subcarrier frequency in NTSC system has an exact value equal to
__________
A) 3.58 MHZ
B) 3.575945 MHZ
C) 3.579545 MHZ
D) 3.597545 MHZ
12) In colour TV, intensity of colour produced depends on the intensity of
A) Mask voltage
B) Grid voltage
C) Grid current
D) Beam currents
13) Colour burst is of 8 to 11 cycles of
A) Colour subcarrier
C) Picture subcarrier

B) Picture carrier
D) Sound carrier

14) Larger the pedestal height in the composite video signal means _________
A) Lower brightness
B) Higher brightness
C) Moderate brightness
D) None of these
15) In SECAM colour TV system
A) Both colour difference signals are transmitted at a time
B) Only one of the two colour difference signal is transmitted at a time
C) Always only (R-Y) is transmitted
D) Always only (B-Y) is transmitted
16) Electron mask in colour picture tube has greatest electron transparency in
_____________
A) Delta gun
B) PIL
C) Trintron
D) None of these
17) As brightness increases the size of chromacity diagram __________
A) Reduces
B) Increases
C) Remains same D) Both A) and B)
18) Maximum bandwidth necessary for transmission of colour signal is around
_________
A) 1.5 MHz
B) 1.3 MHz
C) 3 MHz
D) None of these
19) In PAL-D colour TV system the delay line used is of _________ micro second.
A) 64.5 s
B) 20 ms
C) 15625 s
D) 63.943 s
20) __________ is a short sample of subcarrier oscillator located in back porch of
horizontal sync pulse.
A) Triggering pulse
B) Colour Burst
C) Pre and Post equalizing pulses
D) None of these
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-215*

-3-

SLR-KM 215

Seat
No.

B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


AUDIO-VIDEO ENGG.
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain the kell factor and aspect ratio.


2) Explain the principle of operation of Vidicon camera tube.
3) With the block diagram explain the working of disc reproduction system.
4) Explain interlaced scanning used in TV system.
5) With the help of neat diagram explain the use of front porch and back porch in
synchronizing pulses.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Define multimedia. Why do we need multimedia ? What are its applications ?


b) What is the relation between gap size, tape speed and frequency of audio signal ?
Explain the importance of relationship to get optimum output for audio bandwidth.
c) Explain how the VSB reception of TV signal is compensated for its frequency
response.
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain vertical deflection system in TV.


2) Explain the difference between luminance and chrominance signals.
Give mathematical equations in terms of primary colours.
3) Draw the block diagram of monochrome TV receiver and explain each block in
detail.
4) Explain working of AFT stage in TV receiver.
5) Write a note on cable TV.

Set A

SLR-KM 215

-4-

5. Attempt any two :

*SLRKM215*
(210=20)

a) What is principle of working of image orthicon camera tube ? With neat diagram
explain working of image orthicon. Explain the terms dark current and photo
transfer characteristics of camera tube.
b) Explain in detail how sound can be produced on film and reproduced. Explain
how AC biasing is achieved in magnetic recording and reproduction.
c) Explain in detail the sequence of operation to be follow for purity and
convergence adjustments in colour TV system. Why chroma delay line required ?
What will happen if it is not used ? How chroma delay line is different from
luminance delay line ?
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 216

*SLRKM216*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics & Telecomm.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Draw neat diagram whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct option :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) ARM processer used a load-store architecture where load instruction is used to


a) Copy data from memory to register in the core
b) Copy data from register to memory in the core
c) Copy data from memory to peripherals
d) None of the above
2) The bit pattern of supervisor processer mode in the CPSR can be give as
a) 10111
b) 10000
c) 10001
d) 10011
3) ARM7 core has a Von Neumann-style architecture where
a) Data and instruction use same bus
b) Data and instruction use different bus
c) Core has five stage pipeline
d) None of the above
4) An embedded system executes a specific program repeatedly called as
a) Reactive system
b) Tightly constrained
c) Single functioned
d) None of the above
5) ARM7TDMI-Semicrocontroller where T stands for
a) Thumb 32 bit decoder
b) Thumb 16 bit decoder
c) Thumb 8 bit decoder
d) None of the above
6) What function are typical considered the operating system ?
a) Memory management
b) Processes scheduling
c) Device drivers
d) User processes
7) Semaphores
a) are used to do I/O
b) synchronize critical resources to prevent deadlock
c) synchronize critical resources to prevent contention
d) are used for memory management
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 216

*SLRKM216*

-2-

8) Round-robin scheduling
a) allows interactive tasks quicker access to the processor
b) is quite complex to implement
c) gives each task the same chance at the processor
d) allows processor-bound tasks more time in the processor
9) Cache is used to
a) Maintain constant speed for data transfer between processer and memory
b) Speed up data transfer between processer and memory
c) Decrease data transfer between processer and memory
d) None of the above
10) A privileged mode allows
a) Full read access to cpsr
c) Full write access to cpsr

b) Full read write access to cpsr


d) Full read write access to spsr

11) Which of the following instruction are called Program Status Register transfer instruction ?
a) LDR, STR
b) LDM, STM
c) MCR, MRC
d) MSR, MRS
12) A relationship between processes such that each has some part (critical section) which must not
executed while the critical section of another is being executed, is known as
a) Semaphore
b) Mutual exclusion c) Multiprogramming
d) Multitasking
13) In real time operating system
a) all processes have the same priority
c) process scheduling can be done only once

b) a task must be serviced by its deadline period


d) kernel is not required

14) In rate monotonic scheduling


a) shorter duration job has higher priority
b) longer duration job has higher priority
c) priority does not depend on the duration of the job
d) none of the mentioned
15) The problem of priority inversion can be solved by
a) priority inheritance protocol
b) priority inversion protocol
c) both a) and b)
d) none of the mentioned
16) Real time systems need to ________ the interrupt latency.
a) not bother about
b) maximize
c) minimize

d) none of these

17) The kernel keep tracks of the state of each task by using
a) Process Control Block
b) User Control Block Application
c) Memory Control Block
d) None of the above
18) The initial value of semaphore that allows only one of the many processes to enter their critical
section is
a) 8
b) 1
c) 16
d) 0
19) In virtual memory systems, dynamic address translation
a) is the hardware necessary to implement paging
b) stores pages on specific location on disk
c) is useless when swapping is used
d) is part of the operating system paging algorithm
20) Memory management is
a) not used in modern operating system
b) replaced with virtual memory on current systems
c) not used on multiprogramming systems
d) critical for even the simplest operating system

______________

Set A

*SLRKM216*

-3-

SLR-KM 216

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics & Telecomm.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Draw neat diagram whenever necessary.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Embedded system design challenges.


2) Explain communication protocol SCI.
3) Explain in brief operating modes of ARM 7 processor.
4) Explain the concept of memory management in embedded system design.
5) Explain any four arithmetic instructions with suitable examples.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Draw and explain with block diagram architecture of LPC2148.


2) Draw and explain block diagram of interfacing LED with ARM processor with program.
3) Explain exceptions, interrupts and vector table for ARM processor. What is TCM ?
SECTION II
4. Answer any four questions:

(45=20)

1) Explain task states associated with MuCOSII.


2) Write about kernel services in RTOs.
3) Explain subsystems of Linux Kernel system.
4) Explain event functions in RTOs.
5) Explain Timer function in RTOs.

Set A

SLR-KM 216

-4-

5. Answer any two questions :

*SLRKM216*
(210=20)

1) Explain concept of mailbox in IPC. What are functions associated of mailbox in

MUCOSII ? Explain in detail with associated diagram.


2) Explain in detail debug technique used in embedded linux. Explain difference
between syslog and strace.
3) Explain with block diagram concept of Co-operative scheduling method for RTOs.
What are the disadvantages ? Explain with example.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 217

*SLRKM217*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


PATTERN RECOGNITION (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The method in which parameters are random variables having some known prior distribution
is called
a) Maximum Likelihood
b) Bayesian
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
2) K-means of clustering K indicates
a) No. of samples
c) Both a) and b)

b) No. of cluster centres


d) None of these

3) The probability of state of nature W given then the feature space X is given by
a) P(x/w)
b) P(w/x)
c) P(w)
d) P(x)
4) Minimum-error rate discrimination can be written as
a) g(x) = P(w1/x) / p(w2/x)
b) g(x) = P(w1/x) + p(w2/x)
c) g(x) = P(w2/x) p(w1/x)
d) g(x) = P(w1/x) p(w2/x)
5) The probability of emitting a particular visible state is denoted as
b) bij
c) both a) and b)
a) a ij
6) A minimum-distance classifier uses
a) Euclidean distance
c) Absolute distance

d) none of these

b) Mahalanobis
d) All of these

7) Use of Labelled samples in learning procedure results in


a) Supervised learning
b) Unsupervised learning
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
8) HMM have found greatest use in
a) Character recognition
c) Gesture recognition

b) Speech recognition
d) Both b) and c)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 217

*SLRKM217*

-2-

9) Bayes formula is given by


a) Evidence = (Posterior Prior) / likelihood
b) Posterior = (likelihood Prior) / Evidence
c) Likelihood = (Posterior Prior) / Evidence
d) Prior = (Likelihood Posterior) / Evidence
10) Classifier that places a pattern in one of only two categories is called
a) Dichotomozer
b) Trichotomozer c) Economizer
d) Chotomizer
11) To minimize the probability for error, the posterior probability be
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) None of the above
12) Contours of constant density are hyperellipsoids of constant Mahalanobis distance to
and the volume of these hyperellipsoids measures the scatter of the samples about the
mean.
a) True
b) False
13) Parzen-window estimates of a bimodal distribution using different width match the true
distribution with n values taking infinity
a) True
b) False
14) A procedure in which mean tends to move so as to minimize a squared-error criterion
function is called
a) K-means clustering
b) Bayes learning
c) Hierarchial clustering
d) None of these
15) If the distance between two samples is significantly large, then they correspond to
a) Same cluster
b) Different cluster
c) Either of the two
d) None of these
16) The density estimation in which starting with large volume centered on the test point and
shrink it according to function such as Vn = 1
a) Parzen window method
c) Kn-nearest neighbor method

n is called

b) Bayesian estimation
d) None of these

17) The perceptron and relaxation procedures use a criterion function that
a) Minimizes it
b) Maximises it
c) Equal to zero
d) Either a) or b)
18) The solution vector exists on
a) Negative side of every hyperplane
c) Both sides

b) Positive side of every hyperplane


d) None of these

19) Newton algorithm is not applicable if the Hessian matrix is


a) Normal
b) Singular
c) Either a) or b)

d) Both a) and b)

20) A cell labeled by the same category of the training point is called
a) Voronoi tessellation
b) Reflexivity
c) Symmetry
d) None of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM217*

-3-

SLR-KM 217

Seat
No.

B.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


PATTERN RECOGNITION (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :


a) Define :
i) Loss function
ii) Likelihood ratio.
b) What is supervised learning ?
c) What is Mahalanobis distance ?
d) Describe multivariate density.
e) Explain the pattern recognition system.

16

3. Attempt any two :


a) Explain the design cycle of pattern recognition system.
b) Derive the discriminant function for the normal density for Case I.
c) Explain the concept of maximum likelihood estimation, giving the necessary conditions
required.

16

4. Derive the Bayesian parameter estimation for the univariate case.

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

24

a) Explain the non-parametric procedure for density estimation.


b) Explain the Parzen window estimation. Explain with diagram.
c) Explain the basic gradient descent algorithm.
d) What is a support vector machine ?
e) State different distance metrics.
6. Attempt any two :

16

a) Explain the perceptron criterion function for the solving of linear inequalities.
b) Explain the scatter criteria for the clustering.
c) Explain the normal mixtures for unknown mean vectors.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 218

*SLRMKM218*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015
FUZZY LOGIC (Elective II)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Fuzzy union is referred as ___________
a) t-conorms
b) t-norms

(120=20)
c) both (a) and (b)

d) none

2) A key difference between Crisp and Fuzzy set is __________


a) Extreme points
b) Membership grades
c) Binary no
d) None
3) Intuition involves ________ and __________ knowledge about an issue.
a) Contextual
b) Semantic
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
4) In fuzzy logic all truth are __________
a) Partial
c) Logical proposition

b) Precise
d) None

5) The IF-THEN rule based form generally is referred as _________


a) Inductive form
b) Deductive form
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
6) The DSW algorithm makes use of ____________ of fuzzy sets.
b) fuzzy number
c) crisp number
a) cut levels

d) none

7) The Fuzzy C-means algorithm uses _________


a) Absolute distance
b) Square distance
c) Euclidean distance
d) None
8) Mean max membership is also called as ___________
a) middle of minimum
b) middle of maximum
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none
9) Fuzzy arithmetic operation are ___________
a) Fuzzy
b) Not Fuzzy
c) Binary

d) None

10) Transformation T1 for the membership values of brightness for an image is __________
2
a) 2 mn

b) 1 2 (1 mn )2

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 218

*SLRMKM218*

-2-

11) In linear programming problem, the function to be minimized is called as ______________


a) constraint matrix

b) objective function

c) linear function

d) none

12) Cognitive maps can be used for ___________


a) strategic planning

b) prediction

c) engineering concept development

d) all

13) Fuzzy relation R, the accumulated medical experience can be used to specify the
relation between __________
a) symptoms and patient

b) symptoms and disease

c) disease and patient

d) all

14) Genetic algorithm search for the ___________ through chromosomes evaluation.
a) One alternative

b) Optimal output

c) Best alternative

d) All

15) The uncertainty in rank arises because of ___________


a) Random variable

b) Imprecision

c) Ambiguity

d) None

16) In multi objective decision making, if there is numerical tie between two or more alternatives,
we use method of ___________
a) Min

b) Max

c) Min-max

d) Max-min

17) Unanimous agreement by all those in the group concerning choice is called as
___________
a) Fuzzy ordering

b) Preferences

c) Consensus

d) None

18) At the origin of concept variable is a __________


a) effect variable

b) cause variable

c) casual variable

d) none

19) Regression analysis is used to model the relationship between __________


a) coefficient

b) coefficient of input to output

c) dependent and independent variable

d) none

20) A common SPC technique uses ___________ charts for measurement data.
a) P

b) X R

c) X R
______________

d) None

Set A

*SLRMKM218*

SLR-KM 218

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2015


FUZZY LOGIC (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80
SECTION I

2. Answer any four :

(45=20)

a) The continuous form of MOSFET and Transistor are shown in figure below. The discretized
membership function is given by the following equation :
0 0.4 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9
m = +
+
+
+
+

2
4
6
8
10
0

0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5


T = +
+
+
+
+

2
4
5
6
10
0

for these two fuzzy sets calculate the following


a) m T

b) m T

c) m

d) T

b) Perform the following operations on intervals


i) [5, 3] + [7, 4]
ii) [5, 2] [4, 3]
c) Write a short note on C means clustering.
d) Explain image enhancement using fuzzy.
e) Using the inference approach, find the membership values for each of the triangular shapes

, IR, E, T for the following triangle : 45, 75, 60.


~I , R
~ ~ ~ ~
3. Answer the following :

(210=20)

a) A set T of water temperatures from a lake on the following discrete universe of temperatures
in degree Fahrenheit T = {50, 55, 60}. A universe O of oxygen content values in the water,
as percent of volume O = {1, 2, 3}. Fuzzy sets are
1 0.5 0.3
0.5 0.7 0.2
T=
+
+
+
+
O=

60
2
3
50 55
1
i) Find the Cartesian product R = T O.
ii) Now suppose we define another fuzzy set of temperature about 55F, with the following
membership values
1 0 .5 0 .3
I=
+
+

60
50 55
Using max-min composition find S = I o (T O)
Using max-product composition find S = I o (T O).

Set A

SLR-KM 218

*SLRMKM218*

-4-

b) In fuzzy automata, generate fuzzy input and output states under following conditions
1

0
Output Relation R =
0

0.5
0 0.3 0.9 1

0 0 .2
0.5 1
S=
0.6 0
0
1

0
0
0
1

1 0
and state transition relation.
0 1

1 0.7
0 1 0
0

0.2 0 0 1
0
0 0 1

1 0.4 0 0.6
0

with initial state C1 = [1 0.8 0.6 0.4]

Inputs A1 = [0.4 0] A2 = [1 0] A3 = [1 0.7].


OR
b) Explain classification by crisp and fuzzy relation.
SECTION II
4. Answer the following :

(210=20)

a) In tracking soil particles, a tracked particle can be occluded by other objects. To find out
which one is the tracked particle, one can choose or pick a particle that is a certain distance
from the tracked particle. Suppose there are four particles in the region of interest where
the tracked particle is further more, let x1, x2, x3 and x4 resemble the tracked particle with
fuzzy measurement 0.3, 0.4, 0.6, 0.7 respectively, when they alone are considered, Note
fxj (xi) means how close xi is to the tracked particle with respect to xj
fx1 ( x1) = 1

fx1 ( x 2 ) = 0.6

fx1 ( x 3 ) = 0.4

fx1 ( x 4 ) = 0.3

fx 2 (x1) = 0.7

fx 2 ( x 2 ) = 1

fx 2 (x 3 ) = 0.1

fx 2 ( x 4 ) = 0.4

fx 3 (x1) = 0.2

fx 3 ( x 2 ) = 0.4

fx 3 ( x 3 ) = 1

fx 3 ( x 4 ) = 0.3

fx 4 (x1) = 0.5

fx 4 ( x 2 ) = 0.3

fx 4 ( x 3 ) = 0.4

fx 4 ( x 4 ) = 1

Develop a comparison matrix and determine which particle is closest to the tracked particle.
OR
a) Explain following :
i) Neuro Fuzzy System.
ii) Fuzzy Neuro System.
b) Explain FSPC for measurement and attribute SPC.
5. Answer the following :
a) Explain simple fuzzy control system.
b) Explain application of genetic algorithm.
c) What is fuzzy linear programming ?
d) Explain application of Fuzzy for diagnosis in medicine.
e) Explain nontransitive ranking.
_____________________

(45=20)

Set A

SLR-KM 219

*SLRKM219*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : DSP PROCESSORS AND APPLICATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) In TMS320C6X internal memory is organized as _____________


a) Separate program and data
b) Not separate program and data
c) Only program
d) Only data
2) The data move (DMOV) instruction can use _____________
a) Either direct and indirect addressing mode
b) Either direct or indirect addressing mode
c) Indirect addressing
d) All above
3) The result of operation performed in central ALU are stored into_____________
a) ACC
b) ACCB
c) TREG0
d) PREG
4) _____________ independent buses for dual data fetch, instruction fetch, and non
intrusive I/O.
a) 4
b) 8
c) 6
d) 16
5) To use a fixed point DSP device efficiently, one must consider representing filter
coefficients and signal samples using _____________
a) Fixed-point 2s complement representation
b) Fixed-point 1s complement representation
c) Fixed-point 2s and 1s complement representation
d) None
6) The C6X processors have an execution speed of_________ million instructions
per sec.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 1600
d) 6400
7) LIP and LID caches are each of _____________K-word length.
a) 8
b) 16
c) 4
d) 64
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 219

*SLRKM219*

-2-

8) ADSP-21061 is _____________
a) Harvard architecture
c) Super Harvard architecture

b) Advanced Harvard architecture


d) Both b) and c)

9) The TMS 320C6X generation of DSPs is based on ___________ architecture.


a) VelociTI
b) Velocity
c) Velocit
d) None
10) The multipliers multiply ______ X_______ numbers.
a) 16, 16
b) 17,17
c) 24, 24

d) 32, 32

11) The register used for which holds the address of the current data memory page
is_____________
a) DP
b) ARP
c) ARB
d) None
12) The C5X has__________ registers mapped into page0 of the data memory space.
a) 16
b) 56
c) 96
d) 46
13) The result of operation performed in central ALU are stored into___________
a) ACC
b) ACCB
c) TREG0
d) PREG
14) The _____________ permits execution of logical operation on data without
affecting the contents of ACC
a) Parallel logic unit
b) Auxiliary ALU
c) Central ALU
d) None
15) The 320c54 DSP are said to have advanced Harvard architecture because
a) They have separate memory bus structure for data and program
b) They have instruction the enable data transfer between the program and data
c) They have same memory bus structure for data and program
d) The contents of program memory cannot copy into data memory or vice versa
16) The No. of 32 bit general purpose registers in C6X is _____________
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32
17) SRAM and integrated input output peripherals in ADSP-21061 are_____________
a) Single ported
b) Dual ported
c) Single/dual ported
d) Both a) and c)
18) The TMS320C6X is _____________ processor.
a) Floating point
b) Fixed point
c) Floating/fixed point
d) All above
19) The ARAU stands for
a) Ancillary Register ALU
c) Anchor Register ALU

b) Auxiliary Register ALU


d) None

20) The AR ALU (ARAU) performs _______arithmetic on ________numbers.


a) Unsigned, 16
b) Signed, 16
c) Signed, 32
d) Unsigned, 32

______________
Set A

*SLRKM219*

-3-

SLR-KM 219

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : DSP PROCESSORS AND APPLICATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

1) Explain flags in the status register of TMS 320C54X.


2) Compare between fixed point and floating point DSPs.
3) Explain the various register used with the ARAU.
4) Explain different buses of TMS 320C54X with their functions.
5) Enlist the features of ADSP-21061.
3. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

1) Draw the architecture of 5X and explain in detail.


2) List relative demerits and merits of RISC and CISC processors.
3) Explain memory and IO interface features of ADSP 21061.

Set A

SLR-KM 219

-4-

*SLRKM219*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

1) Explain FIR implementation using TMS 320C6X DSP processor.


2) Explain the function of EMIF in C6X.
3) Explain the operation of L2 cache controller.
4) Explain internal memory organization in 6X DSPs.
5) Draw cache configuration register (CCFG).
5. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

1) Explain the C6X pipeline operation in detail.


2) Discuss the implementation of FFT algorithms using TMS 320C6X DSP
processor.
3) Draw and explain TMS320C6X CPU data paths.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 220

*SLRKM220*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MATHEMATICS I (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct option :

14

1) The general solution of (D4 2D3 + D2) y = 0 is


a) C1 + (C2 + C3 x) ex
b) (C1 + C2 x) + (C3 + C4 x) ex
c) (C1 + C2 x) + (C3 + C4 x) ex
d) None of these
2)

1
x is equal to
D3
x 1

a)
3 9

3) L cosh tdt =
0

s
a) 2
s 1

x 1
b)
3 9

c)

s
b) 2
s +1

1
c) 2
s 1

d)

c) te3t

d) t2e3t

1
4) L1
=
2
(
s

3
)

a) te3t

b)

e 3 t
t

x 1
+
3 9

x 1
d) +
3 9

2s

(s

5) If Z{f(k)} = F(z) then Z{kf(k)} =


a) Z

dF(z)
dZ

b) Z

dF(z)
dZ

c)

dF(z)
dZ

d)

dF (z )
dZ

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 220

*SLRKM220*

-2-

6) Z{1} =
a)

1
z 1

b)

z
z+1

c)

1
z +1

d)

z
z 1

7) If f(x) = x2 is expanded as cosine series in (0, ) then constant term =


2 2
3 2
2
3

a)
b)
c)
d)
3
2
3
3
8) The directional derivative of = x2 + y2 + z2 at (1, 1, 1) in the direction i + j + k is
a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

9) Correlation analysis help us to _____ our activities.


a) Control

b) Plan

c) Predict

d) All of the above

10) For binomial distribution mean is 12 and variance is 4 then the values of n, p, q
are respectively
a) 9,

1 2
,
3 3

b) 4,

1 1
,
2 2

2 1
c) 18, ,
3 3

2 1
d) 9, ,
3 3

11) Between 2 and 4 pm average number of phone calls coming to a switch board of
a company is 2.5. Then the probability that during a minute there will be exactly
3 calls is
a) 0.2138

b) 0.3120

c) 0.2183

d) 0.3821

12) If mean of x = 70, mean of y = 149 and by x = 0.7 then the line of regression of y on
x is
a) y = 0.8x + 120

b) y = 0.6 x + 80

c) y = 0.5 x + 60

d) y = 0.7 x + 100

13) If r is position vector of a point then div. ( r ) =


a) 0
b) 2
c) 3
14) In a M|M|I| system the ratio
a) greater than 1
c) equal to 1

d) 4

must be

b) less than 1
d) equal to 1.5

______________

Set A

*SLRKM220*

-3-

SLR-KM 220

Seat
No.

S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MATHEMATICS I (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 2D 1) y = ex cos x.

b) Solve (D3 + D2 + D + 1) y = sin 2x.

c) Solve (D3 D2 6D) y = 1 + x2.

OR
x
c) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2) y = ee .

3. Solve any three :

2 t
2
a) Find L t e sin t

s
b) Find L1
.
2
(s 3) (s + 4)
c) Evaluate

et sin 3t
dt by using Laplace transform.
t

s 2 4 3

d) Find L log 2 .
s

Set A

SLR-KM 220

-4-

*SLRKM220*

3k
4. a) Find Z-transform and its ROC of f(k) =
, k > 0.
k!

z
, | z| < 5.
b) Find Z 1
z5

c) Find Half-range sine series of


f(x) =
=

2x
, 0< x< l2
l
2
(l x), l 2 < x < l.
l

5. a) Find Z-transform and its ROC of f(k) = cosh k, k > 0.

b) Find the Fourier series of f(x) = x + x2 in the interval ( , ) .

SECTION II
6. Attempt the following :
a) Find the angle between the tangents to the curve
r = (t3 + 1) i + (4 t 5) j + (2t2 6t)k at t = o and t = 2.

b) In a certain factory producing cycle tyers there is a small probability of 1 in 500 for
any tyer to be defective. The tyer are supplied in lots of 20. Using Poisson distribution
calculate approximately number of lots containing

i) no defective
ii) one defective
iii) two defective tyers in 1000 such lots.
c) Find div. (. ) at (1, 1, 1) where = xy2z3 and = xy2 + y2z + z2x.

Set A

*SLRKM220*

SLR-KM 220

-5-

7. Attempt the following :


a) Six dice are thrown 72 g times. How many times do you expect at least three dice
to show a 5 or 6 ?

b) Find the directional derivative of = xy (x y + z) at point (1, 2, 1) in the direction of


the normal to the surface x2 + y2 + z = 3 at (1, 1, 1).

c) Diameters of ball bearing are normaly distributed with mean 0.498 cms and
standard deviation 0.002 cms. It specifications require 0.500 0.004 cm. What
percentage of production will be rejected ? (Given : Area of a normal curve lying
between z = 0 to z = 1 is 0.3413 and that from z = 0 to z = 3 is 0.4987).

8. Attempt the following :

a) Fit a second degree parabola for the following data :


x:

y:

10

11

11

10

b) The following results were obtained from marks in applied machanics and
engineering mathematics in an examination.

Marts in

Marks in

Applied Mechanics (x)

Engg. Mathematics (y)

Mean

47.5

39.5

S.D.

16. 8

10.8

r = 0.95. Find both lines of regression. Also estimate the value of y for x = 30 and
value of x for y = 50.
c) Find the coefficient of correlation between x and y from the following data N = 20,
x = 80, x2 = 900, y2 = 800, xy = 700, y = 70 .

Set A

SLR-KM 220

-6-

*SLRKM220*

9. Attempt the following :


a) Auto vehicles arrive at a petrol pump having one petrol unit in Poisson distribution
with an average of 10 units per hour. The service is distributed
exponentially with mean of 3 min. Find.

i) Average number of units in the system


ii) Average waiting time
iii) Probability that the number of customers in the system is 2.
b) There are two typists in a type writing shop. Each typist can type on an
average 5 letters per hour. The rate of arrivals of letters is 8 per hour.

i) What is the probability that both the typists are busy ?


ii) What is the average idle time for which both typists are idle ?

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 221

*SLRKM221*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Computer Science & Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA)


Examination, 2015
DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. 1) The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set


a) {1, 2, 6, 1}
b) {1, 2, 5, 6}
c) {1, 2, 12}

d) {1, 5, 6, 3}

2) Which of the following two sets are disjoint ?


a) {1, 3, 5} and {1, 3, 6}
b) {1, 2, 3} and {1, 2, 3}
c) {1, 3, 5} and {2, 3, 4}
d) {1, 3, 5} and {2, 4, 6}
3) A ______ is a collection of objects.
a) Relation
b) Function

c) Set

d) Proposition

4) The set O of odd positive integers less than 10 can be expressed by


a) {1, 2, 3}
b) {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}
c) {1, 2, 5, 9}
d) {1, 5, 7, 9, 11}
5) A relation that is reflexive, anti-symmetric and transitive is a
a) function
b) equivalence relation
c) partial order
d) none of these
6) Which of the following is Tautology ?
a) I(P Q) ( IP I Q)
c) P P (P Q)

b) (P I Q) ( IP Q)
d) None of these

7) The Cartesian Product B A is equal to the Cartesian product A B. Is it True or


False ?
a) True
b) False
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 221

*SLRKM221*

-2-

8) A function is said to be _______, if and only if f (a) = f (b) implies that a = b for all a
and b in the domain of f.
a) One-to-many
b) One-to-one
c) Many-to-many
d) Many-to-one
9) Which of the following statement is false ?
a) Set of rational numbers is abelian group under addition
b) Set of integers is abelian group under addition
c) Set of rational numbers is abelian group under multiplication
d) None of these
10) Every finite subset of a lattice has
a) a LUB and a GLB
c) Many LUBs and many GLBs

b) Many LUBs and a GLB


d) Either some LUBs or some GLBs

11) Abelian group is


a) Associative
c) Distributive

b) Commutative
d) All of the above

12) Complemented, distributive lattice is called


a) Boolean algebra
b) Completed lattice
c) Algebraic system
d) Modular lattice
13) The Rank of well-formed polish formula is
a) 0
b) 1
c) > = 1

d) None of these

14) A mapping f : x y is called onto if


a) Rf = X
b) Rf = Y

d) None of these

c) Df = Y

______________

Set A

*SLRKM221*

-3-

SLR-KM 221

Seat
No.

S.E. (Computer Science & Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA)


Examination, 2015
DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any three :

(43=12)

a) Define Tautological implication and explain with an example.


b) What is duality law ? Write the duals of :
i) (P Q) R V(T P)
ii) (P Q) ( IP ( IP Q))
c) Without constructing the truth table, find PDNF of
P ((P Q) I( I Q IP ) )
d) What is Cartesian product ?
If A = {1}, B = {a, b} and C = {2, 3}, find A B C, B B and (B B) A.
e) Define domain and range of a relation with example.
3. Attempt any one :

a) Let A be the set of factors of a particular positive integer m and let < be the relation
divides
i.e. < = {< x, y > x A Y A (x divides y)}
Draw the Hasse diagram for
i) m = 12
ii) m = 45
iii) m = 30

Set A

SLR-KM 221

-4-

*SLRKM221*

b) Explain the following terms with example :


i) Tautology
iii) Elementary product

ii) Min terms


iv) Atomic statement

4. What is meant by binary relation ? List the properties of binary relation. Give the
definition and example of each.

SECTION II
5. Solve any three :
a) Define following :

12

i) Complemented Lattice
ii) Boolean Algebra
b) Define function and explain different types of functions with example.
c) Define Semigroup with example and explain semigroup homomorphism.
d) Define monoid and submonoid with example.
e) Prove the kernel of group homomorphism g from a group < G, * > to < H, > is a
subgroup of < G, * >.
6. Solve any one:

a) Obtain sum of products canonical form of the following Boolean expression in


three variables :
i) X1 * X2

ii) X1 X2

b) Let X = {1, 2, 3} and f, g, h and s be functions from X to X given by


f = {<1, 2>, <2, 3>, <3, 1>}, g = (<1, 2>, <2, 1>, <3, 3>}
h = {<1, 1>, <2, 2>, <3, 1>}, s = (<1, 1>, <2, 2>, <3, 3>}
find
i) fog
iii) fohog

ii) gof
iv) sos

7. Solve any one:

a) Define Algebraic system. Explain the properties of algebraic system with


example.
b) Define lattice as a partial ordered set and explain properties with example.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 222

*SLRKM222*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
ADVANCED CONCEPTS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Each Section carries 28 marks.
4) Attempt all questions in each Section.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct alternative :

14

1) In ____________ searching the records must be sorted.


a) Linear search
b) Hashing
c) Binary search

d) None of these

2) The best case analysis of bubble sort is


a) O (n)

b) O (n log n)

c) O (n2)

d) O (log n)

3) Divide and Conquer is used in


a) Merge sort
c) Both a) and b)

b) Quick Sort
d) Neither a) nor b)

4) ______________ is used to clear the buffer before writing data to a data file.
a) fscanf ()

b) fflush()

c) fgets()

d) fwrite

5) In the Tower of Hanoi if the numbers of disks are 5 the total number of
moves is equal to
a) 5

b) 10

c) 20

d) 31

c) void

d) none of these

6) The return type of malloc is


a) int

b) char

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 222

*SLRKM222*

-2-

7) ? : is called the _______________ type of operator.


a) Unary

b) Binary

c) Ternary

d) None of these

8) Complexity of algorithm depends on


a) Space

b) Time

c) Program language implemented

d) Both a) and b)

9) In ______________ the address is passed to calling function.


a) Call by reference
b) Call by value
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
10) Structure is a collection of
a) Related data item

b) Similar data item

c) Heterogeneous data item

d) All of these

11) The following is a format specifier


a) *

b) %f

c) ++

d)

12) _______________ function is use to read a string from data file.


a) fputc()
b) fgetc()
c) fgets()
d) none
13) ______________ mode reads a binary file.
a) r+
b) rb
c) rbin

d) wb

14) EOF stands for


a) End of Function
c) Both of these

b) End of File
d) None of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM222*

SLR-KM 222

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
ADVANCED CONCEPTS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Each Section carries 28 marks.


2) Attempt all questions in each Section.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any three :
(34=12)
a) How many storage classes in C ? Explain any two storage classes mentioning
their storage, Default initial value, scope and life.
b) What is recursion ? Write a C-program to find factorial of a given number
using recursion.
c) Write a program to sort a set of names stored in an array in alphabetical
order.
d) Write a program to read Strings from Keyboard using scanf () and then storing
their address in an array of pointers to strings using malloc ().
e) What will be the output of the following program ?
i) main ()
{

int n[25];
n[0] = 100;
n[24] = 200;
printf(\n %d%d , *n,*(n+24)+*(n+0));

ii) main ()
{

int b[ ]={10,20,30,40,50};
int i,*k;
k=&b[4] 4;
for(i=0;i<=4;i++)
{
printf(%d\t,*k);
K++;

} }
Set A

SLR-KM 222

-4-

*SLRKM222*

3. Attempt any one :


a) Solve Towers of Hanoi problem taking 04 numbers of disks. Also write
recursive C Program for Tower of Hanoi Problem.

OR
b) What is dynamic memory allocation ? Explain the following :
i) sizeof ()
ii) malloc ()
iii) calloc () with examples.

4. Attempt any one :


a) Demonstrate a C-program using array of pointers with the help of example.

OR
b) Write a program to implement pointer to structure with the help of example.

SECTION II
5. Attempt any three :

(34=12)

a) Write a C-program which reads a data file and counts how many characters,
spaces, tabs and newlines are present in it.
b) Explain how Bubble sort algorithm works. Sort the below list of numbers
using Bubble sort and show all the passes 32, 51, 27, 85, 66, 23, 13, 57.
c) Explain Big-0 notation and omega notation clearly.
d) Write a C-program to arrange n integer numbers in ascending order using
Selection sort (Use function).
e) What is Hash collision ? How do you resolve Hash clashes by open addressing ?
Explain.
6. Attempt any one :
a) List and explain any four file opening modes.

OR
b) Write a C-program for Binary search after arranging the numbers in ascending order. 8
7. Attempt any one :
a) Explain linear probing and quadratic probing.

OR
b) Explain heap sort briefly. Construct heap of the following numbers :
40, 56, 28, 79, 20, 18, 67, 56.

_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 223

*SLRKM223*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Part I) (Computer Science & Engg.) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL TECHNIQUES (New-CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

(141=14)

1) In ____ gate when both inputs are same, then output is 0.


a) AND gate

b) EX-OR gate

c) EX-NOR gate

d) NOT gate

2) Terms in standard POS form are known as


a) Maxterm

b) Minterm

c) Dont care

d) None

3) Minimize expression for a given logical equation


f (A, B, C, D) = ABC + BCD + ABC
a) AB + AD

b) AC + BC

c) None of above

d) BD + BC

4) How many Gates are required to realize Y = AB + BC + AC ?


a) 3 AND Gates and 1 OR Gate

b) 3 OR Gates and 1 AND Gate

c) 2 AND Gates and 1 OR Gate

d) None of above

5) MSI stands for ________


a) Mini Scale Integrated ckt

b) Medium Scale Integrated ckt

c) Max Scale Integrated ckt

d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR- KM 223

*SLRKM223*

-2-

6) Master Slave JK flip-flop is used to eliminate ________


a) Race around condition

b) Increase the clocking rate

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of above

7) Which IC is used as an universal gate ?


a) IC 7408

b) IC 7432

c) IC 7404

d) IC 7400

8) Memory can be categorized on the basis of there


a) Fabrication Technology

b) Physical Characteristics

c) Mode of Access

d) All of above

9) To obtain 2K 16 memory using 2K 4 memory chips, how many memory


chips of 2K 4 are required ?
a) 4 Memory chips

b) 8 Memory chips

c) 1 Memory chips

d) 16 Memory chips

10) IC 74158 is used as ______ MUX.


a) 2:1 MUX

b) 4:1 MUX

c) 8:1 MUX

d) 16:1 MUX

11) An EPROM is erased by _____.


a) Electrically

b) Ultraviolet radiation

c) None of above

d) Both a and b

12) Which of the following is not a VHDL data object ?


a) Variable

b) Wire

c) Signal

d) Constant

13) For BCD-to-7-Segment display decoder/driver ______ IC is used.


a) IC 74138

b) IC 74151

c) IC 7447

d) IC 74148

14) To design 2048 8 memory, how many bit address lines are required ?
a) 8 Bit

b) 16 Bit

c) 32 Bit

d) 11 Bit

______________

Set A

*SLRKM223*

-3-

SLR- KM 223

Seat
No.

S.E. (Part I) (Computer Science & Engg.) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL TECHNIQUES (New-CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Solve any three :

(34 = 12)

a) Explain full adder using K-map.


b) Simplify the following function using K-map.
f (A, B, C, D) = M (0, 2, 3, 9, 11, 14, 15), d (6, 7, 8, 10)
Draw K-map and realize using NOR-NOR gates.
c) Perform addition using 2s complement of following numbers.
a) 28 + 23
b) 23 48.
d) Explain JK-Flip-Flop in detail.
e) Write a short note on ALU.
3. Solve any one :

(18 = 8)

a) Minimize the following function and realize using AND-OR gates and NANDNAND gates. f (A, B, C, D) = m (0, 1, 2, 3, 11, 12, 14, 15).
OR
b) What is Register ? Design SIPO register for 1010 data also explain applications
of shift register.
4. Solve any one :

(18 = 8)

a) Explain 3-bit Ripple counter with its waveform.


OR
b) Write drawbacks of ripple carry adder and explain working of carry look
ahead adder.
Set A

SLR- KM 223

-4-

*SLRKM223*

SECTION II
5. Solve any three :

(34=12)

a) Implement the following expression using a MUX.


f (A, B, C, D) = m (0, 2, 3, 7, 13, 14)
b) Explain IC 74151 in detail.
c) Write a VHDL code for 4:1 MUX.
d) Explain RAM Architecture.
e) Explain about expansion of word size.
6. Solve any one :
a) Explain ROM Architecture in detail.

(18=8)

OR
b) Explain BCD-to-7 Segment display decoder/driver in detail.
7. a) Explain Entity and Architecture in VHDL. Write a VHDL code for half adder.

(18=8)

OR
b) Design 8K 8 memory using 4K 8 memory chips. Use 3 lines to 8 line
decoder.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 224

*SLRKM224*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct alternatives :

14

1) The ________ transformation is used for moving the object from one position
to another, without changing the shape.
a) Translation
b) Scaling
c) Shearing
d) All
2) Pixel by pixel representation of an image in frame buffer is commonly
called as
a) Dot matrix
b) Bit map
c) JPEG
d) SPJE
3) Reflection about x-axis means
a) X = 0
c) X = Y

b) Y = 0
d) Y = x

4) RLE stands for


a) Run Length Editor
b) Run Length Encoding
c) Raster Length Encoding
d) None of above
5) In general 4 4 transformation matrix for 3D, the 1 3 lower left sub matrix
produces
a) Translation
b) Scaling
c) Rotation
d) All
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 224

*SLRKM224*

-2-

6) RGB is an ____________ model.


a) Additive
c) Multiplicative

b) Substractive
d) All

7) The user generally provides an initial pixel for


a) Edge fill
b) Edge flag fill
c) Seed fill
d) Fence fill
8) An area on a display device to which window is mapped is called
a) Window
b) View port
c) Screen
d) All
9) In quad-tree data structure root of the tree is the display
a) View port
b) Segment
c) Byte
d) Window
10) A _________ curve is determined by defining polygon.
a) Parametric
b) B-spline
c) Bezier
d) None of above
11) A line with end point codes 0100 and 0110, then the line is
a) Completely visible
b) Partially visible
c) Invisible
d) All
12) In interpolation, curve always passes through ___________ control points.
a) First and last
b) First and second
c) Last and second
d) All
13) _______________ is a technique for using a minimum number of intensity
levels to obtain increased visual resolution.
a) Antialiasing
b) Aliasing
c) Halftoning
d) Rasterization
14) ____________ is one the relationship between polygons and a window in
Warnock algorithm.
a) Disjoint polygon
b) Joint polygon
c) Overlapped polygon
d) All
______________

Set A

*SLRKM224*

-3-

SLR-KM 224

Seat
No.

S.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any three (Each carries 4 marks) :

12

A) Differentiate between Raster scan display and Random scan display.


B) Describe the Edge flag fill algorithm with example.
C) Describe the 2D shearing with diagram.
D) Write matrices for 3D Reflection and 3D rotation.
3. Describe generalized Bresenhams line drawing algorithm. Using it plot line
(2, 5) to (3, 1).

8
OR

Describe 3D uniform scaling and 3D non-uniform scaling with diagram.


(Consider a unit cube)

4. Describe any two color models in detail.

SECTION II
5. Attempt any three (Each carries 4 marks) :

12

A) Describe mid-point subdivision algorithm.


B) Write a note on Half toning.
Set A

SLR-KM 224

-4-

*SLRKM224*

C) Describe properties of Bezier curve.


D) Write a note on Image compression.
6. Describe the concept of Texture mapping in detail.

OR
What is multimedia ? List and explain elements of multimedia. Explain different
types of images.

7. Describe the Warnock algorithm in detail.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 225

*SLRKM225*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURE I (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Recursive procedure are implemented by
a) Queue
b) Stack

(1 marks each)
c) Linked list

d) String

2) Which of the following is not a requirement for recursive function ?


a) It has two base cases
b) It has a recursive case
c) Its recursive case approaches a base case
d) None
3) B is a
a) String

b) Character

4) The output of the following statements is


char ch[6]={e, n, d, \0, p};
printf(%s, ch);
a) endp
b) end0p

c) Integer

d) None

c) end

d) none

5) The function used for memory allocation is


a) Malloc( )
b) Free ( )
c) Realloc( )

d) None

6) To access elements of structure using pointer which operator is used ?


a) Dot (.) operator
b) Arrow (->) operator
c) * operator
d) &
7) The fseek( ) function is used for
a) Setting the position to the beginning of file
b) Give the current position in the file
c) Set position to a desired point in the file
d) None
8) File opens with the help of
a) fopen ( );
b) open ( )

c) fp

d) fo ( )

9) The postfix form of A*B + C/D is


a) *AB/CD+
b) AB*CD/+

c) A*BC+/D

d) ABCD+/*
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 225

*SLRKM225*

-2-

10) Stack is a __________ type of data structure.


a) Linear
b) Non-linear
c) Dynamic

d) a) and b)

11) Priority queue means


a) Assigning priority to each element of queue
b) Giving the priority to queue
c) Assigning priority to any some elements of queue
d) None of above
12) If the character D, C, B, A are placed in a queue (in that order) and then remove one
at a time, in what sequence they be removed ?
a) ABCD
b) ABDC
c) DCAB
d) DCBA
13) NULL Pointer is used to tell
a) End of linked list
c) The linked list is empty

b) Empty pointer field of a structure


d) All of the above

14) Deletion of a node in linked list involves keeping track of the address of the node
a) Which immediately follows the node that is to be deleted
b) Which immediately precedes the node that is to be deleted
c) That is to be deleted
d) None of these
15) Which of the following is not the application of stack ?
a) Addition of 2 polynomials
b) Evaluation of postfix expression
c) Matching of parentheses in expression
d) Conversion of infix to postfix expression
16) If fopen( ) fails it return
a) 1
b) NULL

c) 1

17) The strcpy( ) function is used for


a) Copy one string into another
c) Compare two string

b) Concatenate two string


d) Find length of string

d) File pointer

18) Stack can not be used to


a) Allocating resources and scheduling
b) Implementation of recursion
c) Reverse string
d) expression postfix of Evaluation
19) In linked list representation of stack, the _________ field of nodes hold the elements of
stack.
a) Link
b) Info
c) Node
d) Pointer
20) A ____________ queue is a queue in which the element next to the last element is the
first element.
a) Dequeue
b) Circular
c) Linked list
d) Heap
______________

Set A

*SLRKM225*

-3-

SLR-KM 225

Seat
No.

S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURE I (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions :

(45=20)

1) What is recursion and what are the advantages and disadvantages of recursion ?
2) Explain different file handling functions.
3) WAP to display factorial of a number using recursion.
4) Explain pointer to pointer in detail.
5) Explain string with its initialization.
3. Attempt any one question :

10

1) Write a note on pointer and dynamic memory allocation.


2) Explain different string handling functions in detail.
4. Attempt the question :

10

WAP to copy the content of one file into another file.


SECTION II
5. Attempt any four questions :

(45=20)

1) Explain stack with its application.


2) Explain priority queue in detail.

Set A

SLR-KM 225

-4-

*SLRKM225*

3) What are the application of the linked list.


4) Write a short note on singly linked list.
5) Write a program to implement simple queue using array.
6. Solve any one question :

10

1) WAP to implement stack using linked list.


2) Explain conversion of infix expression into postfix expression with example.
7. Explain doubly linked list with insertion and deletion operation.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 226

*SLRKM226*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (CSE) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015
SWITCHING THEORY AND LOGIC DESIGN

Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) An OR gate has 5 inputs. How many input words are there in its truth table ?
a) 6
b) 36
c) 32
d) 64
2) How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-18 binary counter ?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
3) Which segments of a seven-segment display would be required to be active to
display the decimal digit 2 ?
a) a, b, c, d, e and f
b) a, c, d, f and g
c) a, b, c, d and g
d) a, b, d, e and g
4) A BCD counter is a
a) binary counter
b) full-modulus counter
c) decade counter
d) divide-by-10 counter
5) What is the form of the Boolean expression Z = (P + Q) (P + R) ?
a) Product of sums
b) Sum of Products
c) Karnaugh map
d) Matrix
6) How many flip-flops are required to construct a decade counter ?
a) 10
b) 8
c) 5
d) 4
7) To operate correctly, starting a ring counter requires
a) Clearing one flip-flop and presetting all the others
b) Clearing all the flip-flops
c) Presetting one flip-flop and clearing all the others
d) Presetting all the flip-flops
8) An asynchronous 4-bit binary down counter changes from count 2 to count 3. How
many transitional states are required ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Fifteen
9) Which gate is best used as a basic comparator ?
a) NOR
b) OR
c) Exclusive-OR d) AND
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 226

*SLRKM226*

-2-

10) Which of the following is an important feature of the sum-of-products form of


expressions ?
a) All logic circuits are reduced to nothing more than simple AND and OR
operations
b) The delay times are greatly reduced over other forms
c) No signal must pass through more than two gates, not including inverters
d) The maximum number of gates that any signal must pass through is reduced
by a factor of two
11) What is the number of inputs, outputs of a decoder that accepts 64 different input
combinations ?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 64
d) 8
12) A memory whose data need to be refreshed periodically is called
a) Static Memory
b) Dynamic Memory
c) Content Addressable Memory
d) Random Access Memory
13) IC 74151 is
a) 16:1 multiplexer
c) 3:8 decoder

b) 8:1 multiplexer
d) 16:1 decoder

14) In EAROM, for erasing the data _________ is used.


a) Ultraviolet radiation
b) Electrical voltage
c) Intense head radiation
d) None of these
15) PROMS are used to store
a) Bulk information
c) Information to be accessed rarely

b) Sequential information
d) Relatively permanent information

16) A binary decoder, is a logic circuit with


a) 2n input, n output
b) 2n input, 2n output
c) 2n output, n input
d) None of the above
17) ROM contains
a) Programmable AND and programmable OR array
b) Programmable AND and non-programmable OR array
c) Non-Programmable AND and programmable OR array
d) Non-Programmable AND and non-programmable OR array
18) In register level design _________ IC technology is used.
a) SSI
b) MSI
c) LSI

d) VLSI

19) In PLA, letter A stands for


a) Array
b) Access

d) None

c) Ahead

20) The number of address lines required in a memory of 128KB is


a) 11
b) 13
c) 15
d) 17

______________
Set A

*SLRKM226*

-3-

SLR-KM 226

Seat
No.

S.E. (CSE) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


SWITCHING THEORY AND LOGIC DESIGN
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four.

(45=20)

a) Implement XOR gate using NOR gates.


b) Simplify the function and implement using NAND gate.
f(a, b, c, d) = m (0, 1, 4, 5, 8, 9, 12, 13).
c) Explain dont care condition and simplify following expression
f(a, b, c, d) = m (3, 7) + d(5, 6).
d) Design Half Subtractor using K-map.
e) Design and explain a MOD-5 Counter.
3. What is Race around condition in JK Flip-flop ? Explain how it is eliminated.

10

4. a) Define synchronous and asynchronous counter. With the help of diagram and wave
form explain 3-bit synchronous counter.
10
OR
b) Explain briefly shift register with left shift input using D flip-flop and write waveform
by assuming 4-Bit input 1111 to shift register.
10
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four.

(45=20)

a) Construct a 4 to 16 line decoder with five 2 to 4 line decoder with enable.


b) Write a short note on Expansion of Word capacity.
c) Differentiate Gate level and Register level design.

Set A

SLR-KM 226

-4-

*SLRKM226*

d) Explain memory organization and operations.


e) Implement following multi combinational logic circuit using 4 to 16 line decoder
F1 = m(1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 11, 12, 13) F2 = m(2, 3, 9, 11) F3 = m(11, 12, 13, 14)

F4 = m(2, 4, 8).
6. Attempt any two.

(102=20)

a) Design a 2K*16 memory using 2K*8 memory chips.


b) Explain the sequence of operation for writing a word in particular memory location.
Draw the write cycle waveforms and explain the timing characteristics of write cycle.
c) What is PLA ? Explain in detail with block diagram.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 227

*SLRKM227*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Part II) (CSE) Examination, 2015
APPLIED MATHEMATICS II

Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer (one mark each) :

20

1) A root of the equation x cosx = 0 lies between


a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3

c) 0 and 1

d) 1 and 0

2) For finding the complex roots ______ method can be used.


a) Bisection
b) False position
c) Newton-Raphson
N is

3) The Newtons iterative formula to find


1
N
a) xn+1 = 2 x n + x
n

d) Mullers

N
b) xn+1 = 2 xn + x
n

4) ______ method has quadratic convergence.


a) N R method
c) Bisection method

c) xn+1 = x n ( 2 Nxn )

d)

xn +1 =

1
1
xn +

2
Nxn

b) Regula Falsi method


d) None of the above

5) ______ method is used to find the largest eigen value.


a) Gauss-Jordan
b) Factorization
c) Power

d) Gauss-Seidal

6) In Gauss-elimination method the system is reduced to ______ matrix.


a) lower triangular
b) upper triangular
c) diagonal

d) identity

7) While applying the Weddles rule, the number of subintervals should be taken
a) at most 6
b) as a multiple of 6
c) only 6

d) none of the above

8) If

0.5

f (x)

0.8

1
0.5

a) 0.575

then the value of

f (x) dx

by Trapezoidal rule is

b) 0.775

c) 1.55

d) 1.15

9) The error in the quadrature formula is given by


b

a) E = y dx p (x)dx
a

b) E = p (x) dx y dx
a

c) E = y dx + p (x) dx
a

d) None of these

10) Solution of the equations x + y + z = 9 ; 2x 3y + 4z = 13 ; 3x + 4y + 5z = 40 is


a) (1, 2, 3)
b) (1, 3, 4)
c) (1, 3, 5)

d) None of the above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 227

*SLRKM227*

-2-

11) If A, B F (x) then the set X +(A B) is equal to


a) XA XB

b) XA XB

c) X+ A X+ B

12) For the fuzzy set defined by the function A (x) = 1


a) 5.2

b) 5.4

d)

X+ A X+B

x
, x {0,1, 2,.....,10} the scalar cardinality of set A is
10
c) 5.5
d) 5.6

13) The largest membership grade obtained by an element in a fuzzy set is called as
a) Support of fuzzy set
b) Height of fuzzy set
c) Normal of fuzzy set
d) Fuzzy number
14) An ordinary fuzzy set is also called as
a) Type 2 fuzzy set
c) Level 2 fuzzy set

b) Type 1 level 1 fuzzy set


d) Type 2 level 2 fuzzy set

15) Which of the following is true ?


a) S(A, B) =

A
A B

b) S(B, A) =

A B
A

c) S(A, B) =

A B
B

d) None of these

16) For the fuzzy sets


A (x) =

0.1 0.5 0.7 0.8 1


+
+
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

B(x) =

0.2 0 0.65 0.7 0.35


+ +
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

the set A B is
a)

0.2 0.5 0.7 0.8 1


+
+
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

b)

c)

0.9 1 0.35 0.3 0.65


+ +
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

d) None of these

17) A fuzzy cardinality of fuzzy set is


a) Fuzzy set
c) Fuzzy number

0.8 0.5 0.3 0.2 0


+
+
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

b) A real number
d) None of these

18) The collection of all membership grades for a fuzzy set is called as
a) Index set
b) Level set
c) Gradation set
d) Special fuzzy set
19) Which of the following is true ?
a)
c)

(A B) ( x ) = ( A B) ( x)
(A B) ( x ) = ( A B) ( x)

b)
d)

(A B) ( x ) = ( A B) ( x)
(A B) ( x ) = ( A B) ( x)

20) If XA = [2X 1, 3 2X] and XB = [2X + 1, 5 2X] then for X (0, 1), XA +B = ____
a) [4X 6, 2 4X]

b) [4X, 8 + 4X]

c) [3X, 8 4X]

d) [4X, 8 4X]

______________

Set A

*SLRKM227*

-3-

SLR-KM 227

Seat
No.

S.E. (Part II) (CSE) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MATHEMATICS II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
2) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
SECTION I
2.

a)

Find the root of equation x3 x 11 = 0 by using Bisection method correct upto


2 decimal places.

b) Perform two iteration by N R-method to solve non-linear equation


x = x2 + y2, y = x2 y2. Take initial approximation x0 = 0.8, y0 = 0.4.
1 1

3.

a)

Evaluate e

x+y

dxdy take h = k = 0.5 using Trapezoidal rule.

0 0
1

b) Evaluate

1+ x dx

using three point Gaussian quadrature formula.

c) Evaluate

x2

(1+ x 3 ) dx

using Weddles rule.

4.

5.

a) Solve the system of equation by LU decomposition method (factorization method)


x + y + z = 9 ; 2x 3y + 4z = 13 ; 3x + 4y + 5z = 40.

b) Solve using Jacobs method 20x + y 2z = 17 ; 3x + 20y z = 18, 2x 3y + 20z = 25


perform 4 iteration.

a) Solve by Gauss-elimination method 3x + 2y + 7z = 4 ; 2x + 3y + z = 5 ; 3x + 4y + z = 7.

b) Find the value of

28 by NR method perform 3 iteration.

c) Determine largest eigen value and corresponding eigen vector correct upto
5 4
3-decimal places A =
.
1 2

OR
1

c) Evaluate

1+ x dx

using Rombergs method by taking initial value of h = 0.5.

Set A

SLR-KM 227

-4-

*SLRKM227*

SECTION II
6.

a) Calculate the X - cuts and strong X - cuts for each of the following fuzzy sets, for X = 0.2, 0.5, 0.8, 1.
i) A (x) =

x
, x [0, 10]
x+2

ii) B (x) = 2 x , x [0, 10] .

b) Order the fuzzy sets defined by the following membership grade functions (assuming x > 0) by inclusion
relation.
A (x) =

7.

1
1
, B (x) =

1 + 10x
1 + 10x

1
2

1
, C(x) =
.
1 + 10x

a) If A and B are fuzzy sets defined on universal set X given by


A (x) =

0.5 1 0.5 0.3


+ +
+
1 0
1
2

B (x) =

0.5 1 0.5 0.3


+ +
+
2
3
4
5

and let f : X X X be defined by f (x1, x2) = x1 + x2, x1, x2 X then find f (A, B).

b) Let A and B are two fuzzy numbers with membership function given by
x + 3
3

A (x) = 3 x

x 2
2

B(x) = 6 x
2

3 < x 0

0<x3
otherwise
,

2 < x 4

4 < x 6
otherwise

Calculate fuzzy number A + B and A B.


8.

a) Determine which fuzzy sets defined by the following membership function are the fuzzy numbers.
i) A (x) = min (1, x)
,x>0
=0
,x<0
ii) B (x) = 1
,x=5
=0
otherwise

b) Calculate degree of subsethood of C in D where


x
x
, D (x) = 1
x +1
10
defined on universal set X = {0, 1, 2, 3, . . ., 10}.
C(x) =

c) Explain the concept of fuzzy quantifiers.

4
3

Set A

*SLRKM227*
9.

-5-

SLR-KM 227

a) Solve the fuzzy equation A X = B where


x 4

A (x) = 6 x
0

, 4<x5
, 5<x6
otherwise

x 10
10

B(x) = 35 x
15

10 < x 20

20 < x 35

otherwise
OR

a) Let A and B be two fuzzy no. whose membership functions are given by
x + 2
3

A (x) = 4 x
3

2 < x 1

, 1< x 4
otherwise

x 1 , 1< x 2

B (x) = 3 x , 2 < x 3
0
otherwise

Find the two fuzzy numbers MAX (A, B) (X) and MIN (A, B) (X).

b) Explain in your words :


i) indicational and unqualified
ii) unconditional and qualified fuzzy proposition and their role.

c) Calculate the following fuzzy operations on the intervals


i) [1, 2] + [1, 3]
ii) [ 2, 4] [3, 6].

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 228

*SLRKM228*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015
THEORY OF COMPUTATION

Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternatives :


1) Null set of is a
A) Regular Expression
C) Regular language

20
B) Non Regular Expression
D) None of these

2) A finite state in NFA _______ be a start state.


A) Can not
B) Can
C) Never can

D) Always can

3) A regular expression can be developed


A) exponentially
B) recursively

C) normally

D) annually

4) Regular sets are closed under


A) Union
B) Intersection

C) Subset

D) Complement

5) The lang. of strings of 1s and 0s containing a substring 00 is represented by


A) (0+1)*00
B) 00(0 + 1)*
C) (0+1)*00(0+1)* D) 00(0+1)
6) Which of the following is true ?
A) (01)*0 = 0(10)*
C) (0+1)*01(0+1)*+1*0* = (0+1)*

B) (0+1)* 0(0+1)* 1(0+1) = (0+1)* 01(0+1)*


D) All of the above

7) A lang. is regular if and only if


A) accepted by DFA
C) accepted by LBA

B) accepted by PDA
D) accepted by turing M/C

8) Regular Expressions are


A) Type 0 lang.
C) Type 2 lang.

B) Type 1 lang.
D) Type 3 lang.

9) Regular Expression are closed under


A) Union
B) Intersection

C) Kleen star

D) All

10) How many strings of length less than 4 contains the lang. described by the regular
expression (X + Y)* Y(a + ab)* ?
A) 7
B) 10
C) 12
D) 11

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 228
11) PDA is the machine format of
A) Type 0 language
C) Type 2 language

*SLRKM228*

-2-

B) Type 1 language
D) Type 3 language

12) Which of the following languages over {a, b, c} is accepted by deterministic PDA ?
A) { wbwR w { a, c }*}

B) { wwR w {a, b, c}*}

C) { anbn cn n 1}

D) { w w is a palindrome over {a, b, c}}

13) Consider the languages L1 = {anbncndn n, m > 0} and L2 = {anbncndn n, m > 0} , which
one of the following statements if false ?
A) L1 L 2 is a CFL

B) L1 L 2 is a CFL

C) L1 and L2 are CFL

D) L1 L 2 is a CSL

14) What can be said about a regular language L over {a} whose minimal finite state automation
has two states ?
A) L must be { a n n is odd}

B) L must be { a n n is even}

C) L must be { a n n > 0}

D) Either A or B

15) Let L be a language recognizable by a finite automation. The language reverse


(L) = {w, such that w is the reverse of V L} is a
A) Regular language
B) Context-free language
C) Context-sensitive language
D) Recursive enumerable language
16) The logic of pumping Lemma is a good example of
A) Rigeon-hole principle
B) Divide-and-conquer technique
C) Recursion
D) Iteration
17) Which is not a part of the mechanical diagram of turing machine ?
A) Input tape
B) Read-write head
C) Finite control
D) Stack
18) Difference between turing machine and two way FA is in
A) Input tape
B) Read-write head
C) Finite control
D) All of these
19) Next move function of a turing machine M = {, , , ,q0 ,B,F} is a mapping
A) :

B) : {L, R}

C) : {L, R}

D) : {L, R}

20) Which of the following problems is solvable ?


A) Writing an Universal TM
B) Determining of an arbitrary TM is an Universal TM
C) Determining of Universal TM can be written for fewer than K instructions for some K
D) Determining of Universal TM and some input will half
______________

Set A

*SLRKM228*

-3-

SLR-KM 228

Seat
No.

S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


THEORY OF COMPUTATION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B. : All questions are compulsory.


SECTION I

2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Construct FA for the following regular expression


(10) * (11).
2) Let M1 and M2 be a FAs pictured in diagram, recognizing lang. L1 and L2 resp.

Draw the FAs recognizing the following lang.


a) L1 L 2

b) L1 L 2 .

3) Define - closure. Explain an algorithm to calculate it with example.

Set A

SLR-KM 228

-4-

*SLRKM228*

4) Find the CFG for the following lang.


{ a i b j ck i = j + k } .
5) Find a Regular Expression corresponding to each of following subset of {0, 1}*
a) The lang of all strings contain exactly two 0s
b) The lang, of all strings that do not end with 01.
3. Given transition diagram of NFA- .

10

For each string asked below find whether it accept or not


1) aaa

2) abab

3) aaabbb.

OR
Convert following NFA- to NFA and FA.

10

4. With the help of Kleenes theorem, draw NFA-


(a + b)*(ab + ba) (a + b)*.

10

Set A

*SLRKM228*

-5-

SLR-KM 228

SECTION II
5. Answer any four questions.

(45=20)

i) Define PDA with diagram and differentiate NPDA and DPDA.


ii) Construct an NPDA for the language L = { wcwR : w { a, b}*} .
iii) Find a context-free grammar that generates the language accepted by the NPDA transitions
(q0 , a, z) = (q0 , A z )

(q0 , b, A) = (q0 , AA)


(q0 , a, A) = (q1, ) .
2

iv) Show that language L = {a n : n 0} is not context-free.


v) Design a turing machine that computes the function
f(x, y) = x + y if x y

= 0

if x < y.

vi) Write a short note on Universal TM.


6. Let L1 be a context-free language and L2 be a regular language. Then prove that L1 L 2 is
context-free.

10

OR
Prove that if L = L (M) for some NPDA M, then L is a context-free language.
7. Construct turing machine that will accept the following language on {a, b}
i) L = {an bm cn+m : n 1, m 1}
ii) L = {an b2n a2n bn : n 0}.

10

OR
Write short notes on the following :
i) Turing machine with semi-infinite tape
ii) Multidimensional Turing machine
iii) Turing machine with multitape.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 229

*SLRKM229*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015
MICROPROCESSORS

Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) A semiconductor device manufactured by using LSI technique which includes the ALU,
register arrays and control circuit on a single chip is called
a) Microcontroller
b) Microprocessor c) Control Unit
d) Memory
2) A computer program that translates an assembly language program from mnemonics to
the binary machine code of a computer is called
a) Interpreter
b) Compiler
c) Assembler
d) Machine Language
3) Which of the following is not a 8085 instruction ?
a) STAX B
b) STAX H
c) MOV A, A

d) MOV A, B

4) How many T states are required to exchange H and L with D and E ?


a) 4
b) 6
c) 7
d) 10
5) Subtract register content or memory content from accumulator may affect which flag ?
a) No flags are affected
b) Carry flag only
c) All flags are affected
d) Carry and auxiliary carry flag only
6) DAA : Decimal Adjust Accumulator is a
a) 1 byte instruction
c) 3 byte instruction

b) 2 byte instruction
d) 4 byte instruction

7) NOP is type of
a) Machine control instruction
c) Logic and Bit manipulation instruction

b) Branch instruction
d) Data transfer instruction

8) Mention the type of machine cycle for the following status and control signals
IO/ M = 1, S1 = 1, S0 = 0 RD = 0
a) I/O read

b) I/O write

9) The key debouncing is done through


a) Hardware
c) Both hardware and software

c) Opcode fetch

d) Memory read

b) Software
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 229

*SLRKM229*

-2-

10) To identify a key value in case of keyboard interface, which of the following function
should be performed ?
a) Identifying a key closure
b) Debouncing the key
c) Encoding the key to an appropriate code like hexadecimal
d) All of the above
11) What is the mode 1 of 8255 PPI ?
a) Basic I/O
b) Stribed I/O

c) Bidirectional I/O

12) Which of the following is not a hardware interrupt ?


a) RST 7.5
b) RST 6.5
c) TRAP
13) 8257 consist _______________ register.
a) Address register
c) Command register

d) None of above
d) RST 7

b) Base address register


d) Word count register

14) In serial communication the rate at which data bits are transmitted generates a term
a) Serial bit rate
b) Baud rate
c) Data bit rate
d) Parallel bit rate
15) 8251 is a _____________
a) USART
b) PPI

c) PIT

d) PIC

16) ______________ is not a DAC application.


a) Sawtooth Waveform
b) R2R ladder
c) Reverse Sawtooth
d) Bipolar DAC
17) The 8086 CPU is divided into _______________ parts.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
18) SOD line uses ___________
a) 17
b) 10

th

address line.
c) D7

19) DMA is _____________


a) Direct Memory Access
c) Direct Memory Allocation

d) None
d) 15

b) Distinct Memory Access


d) District Memory Access

20) Control signals for memory mapped I/O are


a) IOR

c) STA
b) MEMR
______________

d) LDAX

Set A

*SLRKM229*

-3-

SLR-KM 229

Seat
No.

S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSORS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

1) Mention the functions of the following pins of 8085.


ALE, HLDA, READY, TRAP.
2) Draw and explain 8085 clock circuit.
3) Differentiate the following instructions
a) STA and LDA
b) STAX and LDAX
4) Draw the timing diagram of MVI A, 25H instruction.
5) Interface 1K 8 memory to 8085 using 1K 4 memory chips. Interface it at address C400 H.
3. Attempt any three :

(83=24)

1) Write an assembly language program to perform subtraction of two 32 bit numbers and
division of two 8 bit numbers.
2) A string of six data bytes is stored starting from memory location 8050 H. The string
includes some blanks (byte with zero value). Write an assembly language program to
eliminate the blanks from the string.
3) What is thumb wheel switch ? Interface thumb wheel switch to 8085.
4) Explain 8085 transition state diagram.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

1) Explain specification of ADC.


2) Draw and explain block diagram of 8259.

Set A

SLR-KM 229

-4-

*SLRKM229*

3) Differentiate between SID and SOD communication.


4) Explain memory segmentation in 8086 microprocessor.
5) Give the features of DMA controller 8257.
5. Attempt any three :

(83=24)

1) Draw and explain Architecture of 8086.


2) Draw and explain interfacing of DAC 1208 with 8085.
3) Explain Mode 1 (Strobbed I/O) of 8255.
4) What is interrupt and what are the different types of software and hardware interrupts ?
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 230

*SLRKM230*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015
DATA STRUCTURE

Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Linear list in which elements can be added or removed either end but not in the middle is
known as
a) Queue
b) Dequeue
c) Stack
d) Tree
2) What can be said about the array representation of circular queue when it contains only
one element ?
a) front=rear =NULL b) front=rear-1
c) front=rear+1
d) front=rear
3) Following sequence of operations is performed on a stack
Push(10),push(20),pop(),push(10),push(20),pop(),pop(),pop(),push(20),pop()
sequence of value popped is
a) 20, 10, 20, 10, 20
c) 10, 20, 20, 10, 20
4) Stack is useful for implementing
a) Radix sort
c) Recursion

b) 20, 20, 10, 10, 20


d) 20, 20, 10, 20, 10
b) Breadth First Search
d) None of these

5) In B-tree of order m, internal nodes contain at most _________ keys.


a) m/2
b) m 1
c) m
d) m +
6) In a multiway tree, each node can have more than __________ keys.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) All the above
7) In __________ all leaves are at same level.
a) B+Tree
b) B Tree
c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

8) Consider the following linked list


10->12->15->25->30->36 what will be the value of following statement ?
start->next->next->next->data
a) 15
b) 30

c) 25

d) 12
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 230

*SLRKM230*

-2-

9) What is the inorder traversal of the following BST ?

a) 1 3 4 6 7 8 10 13 14
c) 1 4 7 6 3 13 14 10 9

b) 8 3 1 6 4 7 10 14 13
d) None of these

10) When control switch from one function to other then the details of previous function are
stored onto the stack.
a) True
b) False
11) The number of leaf nodes in a complete binary tree of depth d is
b) 2(d+1)1
c) 2 (d1)1
a) 2d

d) 2d+1

12) A BST is traversed in the following order recursively : right, root, left. The output sequence
will be in
a) Ascending order
b) Random order
c) Descending order
d) No specific order
13) A tree node that has no children is called a
a) leaf node
b) root node
c) internal node

d) loop node

14) The BFS uses which of the following data structure to hold the nodes
a) Stack
b) Tree
c) Queue
d) None
15) The vertex with zero out degree is called
a) Isolated vertex
b) Loop

c) Pendant vertex

d) None

16) The tree in which null pointer fields are used for storing the address fields of higher nodes
are called
a) AVL tree
b) B-tree
c) B+tree
d) Threaded Binary Tree
17) A binary tree with 5 internal nodes has _________ external nodes.
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 7
18) In Red Black tree root must be colored as
a) Black
b) Red

c) No color

d) None

19) In red black tree black height is


a) Different
b) Same

c) N-1

d) None

20) B and B+ trees are examples of


a) BST
c) Multiway Search Tree

b) Complete Binary Tree


d) Binary Tree
______________

Set A

*SLRKM230*

-3-

SLR-KM 230

Seat
No.

S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURE
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : Figures to right indicate full marks.


SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

20

1) Write short note on Traversal of Binary Tree.


2) Distinguish between Stack and Queue.
3) Explain applications of Stack and Queue.
4) Write an algorithm to insert new node at beginning, at middle position and at end of Singly
Linked List.
5) Define the terms Overflow and Underflow with respect to Stack.
6) Describe priority Queue.
3. Solve any one :

10

1) Explain linked list representation of Stack and Queue in detail.


OR
1) For given binary tree perform Inorder, Preorder, Postorder traversal. Explain threaded
binary tree with diagram.

4. Describe different types of Linked Lists.

10

10

Set A

SLR-KM 230

-4-

*SLRKM230*

SECTION II
5. Answer any four :

20

1) What is the use of B+ tree ? Explain deletion operation in B+ tree.


2) Write Dijkstras Algorithm to solve shortest path problem.
3) Show AVL tree insertions for following elements k, m, u, t, v, p.
4) Define the terms :
a) Graph
b) Pendant Node
c) Isolated Node
d) Directed Graph
e) Cycle Graph.
5) Explain DFS algorithm for graph traversal.
6. Answer any one of the following :

10

1) Explain AVL tree importance. Explain the AVL tree rotations with example.
2) Explain the properties of B tree. Show the growth of B tree of order 5 by inserting following
keys 10, 5, 3, 7, 6, 4, 37, 11, 13, 15, 67, 53, 12, 16, 2. Show the status of B tree after every
insertion.
7. Explain the representation of a graph with example.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 231

*SLRKM231*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) ____________ of the signal is range of frequencies that it contains.


a) Bandwidth
b) Spectrum
c) Phase
d) Frequency
2) Breaking a bit stream into frames is necessary for
a) Error control
b) Flow control
c) Congestion
d) None
3) ____________is a measure of the relative position in time within a single
period of a signal.
a) Frequency
b) Strength
c) Phase
d) Wavelength
4) ____________networks have a single communication channel that is shared
by all machines.
a) Broadcast
b) Point to point c) Direct link
d) All
5) Digital data is converted into analog signal using
a) Telephone
b) Modem
c) Codec

d) Transceiver

6) ____________is widely used as means of distributing TV signals.


a) Twisted pair
b) Co-axial cable
c) Optical fiber
d) None
7) If we increase the bandwidth data rate is also increased
a) True
b) False
c) Cant say
d) None of above
8) A signal with component of zero frequency is ____________ component.
a) AC
b) DC
c) LC
d) None of above
P.T.O.

____________

SLR-KM 231

*SLRKM231*

-2-

9) A framing method uses a field in the header to specify the number of characters
in frame is
a) Character count
b) Starting and ending char
c) Starting and ending flags
d) Both b) and c)
10) FTP and TELNET are used in ____________layer of TCP/IP.
a) Transport
b) Internet
c) Application
d) Host to network
11) In __________ protocols, stations listen for a medium and act accordingly.
a) Carrier sense
b) ALOHA
c) Slotted ALOHA
d) None of above
12) In which of the following strategy, users transmit whenever they have data to
be sent ?
a) Slotted ALOHA b) CSMA / CD c) Pure ALOHA d) CDMA
13) Which of the following protocol is collision-free protocol ?
a) Bit-map protocol
b) Pure ALOHA
c) CSMA / CD
d) CSMA
14) 10Base2 cabling is also called as
a) Thin Ethernet
c) Base Ethernet

b) Thick Ethernet
d) None of above

15) For detecting cable breaks, excessive length, bad taps eco packet based
____________ technique is used.
a) Space domain reflectometry
b) Frequency domain reflectometry
c) Length domain reflectometry
d) Time domain reflectometry
16) In distance vector routing _________ packets are used to exchange information
between routers.
a) ECHO
b) SYN
c) FIN
d) Any type of packet
17) The variation in the packet arrival times is called
a) Piggybacking
b) Delayed delivery
c) Jitter
d) None of above
18) IP addresses are represented by a ___________
a) 48 bytes
b) 48 bits
c) 32 bytes

d) 32 bits

19) ___________IP addresses are called as multicast addresses.


a) Class B
b) Class D
c) Class C
d) Class E
20) In load shedding newer packet is preferred to drop than older; this is also
called as
a) Wine
b) Milk
c) Water
d) None of above
______________
Set A

*SLRKM231*

-3-

SLR-KM 231

Seat
No.

S.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :

20

A) Specify advantages of optical fiber.


B) Describe CRC with example.
C) What is noise ? Describe different types of noise.
D) Explain LAN and WAN.
E) Specify the uses of computer network.
F) Explain network architecture concept.
3. Describe relationship between data rate and bandwidth with example.

10

OR
Draw diagram for OSI reference model. Explain function of each layer.
4. Describe twisted pair cable with its physical description, characteristics and
application.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 231

-4-

*SLRKM231*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :

20

A) Write a note on CSMA/CD.


B) Describe working of limited contention protocol.
C) Draw and explain IEEE 802.4 packet format.
D) Differentiate between virtual circuit and datagram circuit.
E) Write note on flooding.
F) Describe count to infinity problem.
6. Explain design issues of network layer.

10

OR
Explain link state routing algorithm in detail.
7. Write a note on :

10

i) Special IP addresses
ii) Jitter control
iii) Bridges.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 232

*SLRKM232*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
DATA STRUCTURE II (Old)

Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Two main measures of the efficiency of an algorithm are


A) Processor and Memory
B) Time and Space
C) Complexity
D) Date and Time
2) Rehashing is used for
A) To avoid clustering
C) To avoid traversal

B) To avoid collision
D) To avoid space wastage

3) The complexity of merge sort algorithm


A) 0(n)
B) 0(log n)
C) 0(n*2)

D) 0(n log n)

4) Which of the following is not collision resolution technique ?


A) Division
B) Chaining
C) Open Addressing
D) All of above
5) The method in which a node to be deleted is replace a by a rightmost node in its
left subtree or leftmost node in its right subtree is
A) Delete a node with single child in BST
B) Delete a node with both left and right child in BST
C) Delete a left node is BST
D) None of above
6) The tree traversal technique in which the root is traversed before its children is
known as
A) Post order traversal
B) Pre order traversal
C) In order traversal
D) None of above
7) This sort does not use divide and conquers methodology
A) Merge sort
B) Quick sort
C) Bubble sort

D) None of these

8) Any complete binary tree with N internal nodes has ________ external nodes.
A) N
B) 2N + 1
C) 2N 1
D) N + 1
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 232

*SLRKM232*

-2-

9) The average number of comparisons in sequential search is


A) 2 k

B)

n(n 1)
2

C)

n(n + 1)
2

D)

n +1
2

10) A graph G is said to be complete if every vertex Vi is __________ to every other


vertex Vj
A) adjacent
B) acyclic
C) parallel
D) none
11) If all the leaves are present at same level in binary tree, then it is called as
A) Binary search tree
B) Strictly BT
C) Complete BT
D) None of these
12) Hashing is an
A) Searching technique
C) Both a and b

B) Sorting technique
D) None of these

13) A B tree having order of 5 can have maximum of _________ number of keys.
A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
14) If in degree of a node is one and out degree is zero then that vertex is called as
A) Connected
B) Isolated
C) Pendant
D) Child
15) A graph can be represented by following
A) Incident matrix
B) Adjacency Matrix
C) Both a and b
D) None of these
16) A vertex is said to be isolated if there is no edge connected from any other vertex
to that vertex.
A) True
B) False
17) In depth first search traversal of graph which data structure is used ?
A) stack
B) queue
C) priority queue D) binary Tree
18) Minimum number of fields with each node of DLL is
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3

D) 4

19) Linear list in which elements can be added or removed either end but not in the
middle is known as
A) Queue
B) Dequeue
C) Stack
D) Tree
20) The full form of DEQueue is
A) Double Ended Queue
C) Dual Ended Queue

B) Dual Encoded Queue


D) Double Enlarge Queue

______________

Set A

*SLRKM232*

-3-

SLR-KM 232

Seat
No.

S.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURE II (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Answer any four :

20

1) Explain Bubble sort with example.


2) Explain shell sort with example.
3) Explain binary searching with example.
4) Write a note on Big-O notations.
5) What do you mean by time complexity and space complexity ?
3. Answer any one of the following :

10

1) Explain collision resolution techniques with example in detail.


2) Explain heap sort with example and diagrams.
4. Sort the following numbers with quick sort technique.

10

11, 2, 9, 13, 57, 25, 17, 1, 90, 3.


SECTION II
5. Answer any four :

20

1) Explain B Tree with example.


2) Explain topological sort with example.
3) Why there is a need of multiway tree ? Explain.
4) Write an algorithm for DFS traversal in graph.

Set A

SLR-KM 232

-4-

*SLRKM232*

5) Apply Delete(h), Delete(r), Delete(p), Delete(d) for following tree and show
status of B-Tree after each deletion (order of B Tree is 5).

6. Answer any one of the following :

10

1) Define an AVL tree. Explain different rotations in AVL tree.


2) Explain B+trees. Show the growth of B+tree of order 5 by inserting following keys.
10, 5, 3, 7, 6, 4, 37, 11, 13, 15, 67, 53, 12, 16, 2.
Show the status of B+tree after every insertion.
7. Explain how to calculate shortest path with Dijkstras Algorithm with example.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 233

*SLRKM233*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (CSE) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


FORMAL SYSTEMS AND AUTOMATA
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct alternative :

20

1) A language L1 is a subset of another language L2. Then, if


a) L2 is regular, then L1 is regular
b) L1 is regular, then L2 is regular
c) L2 is context free, then L1 is regular
d) L2 is finite, then L1 is regular

2) Consider the grammar S aSb | . The language of the grammar is


a) Regular
b) Ambiguous
c) Non-deterministic d) Linear
3) L1 is the set of all strings over {a, b} with equal numbers of a and b. L2 is the set of all
strings over {a, b, c} with equal numbers of a, b and c. Then
a) L1 and L2 are both context free
b) L1 is regular and L2 is context free
c) Neither is context free
d) L1 is context free but not regular
4) L1 is a language over {a, b} and L2 is defined as {w | w contains some string from as a
sub string}. Then
a) L1 is regular, then L2 is not regular
b) L1 is context free, then L2 is not context free
c) If L1 is recursive enumerable, then L2 is not recursive enumerable
d) None of the above
5) The smallest finite automation that accepts all non-negative binary numbers divisible by
3 has
a) 2 states
b) 3 states
c) 4 states
d) 5 states
6) The regular expression 0*(10*)* is the same as
a) (1*0)*
b) 0 + (0 + 10)*
c) (0 + 1)* 10

d) None of the above

7) Which of the following is the language of the grammar ?


S bS | aA | B,
A bA | aB,
B bB | aS | a
a) Numbers of as more than three times the number of bs
b) Numbers of bs more than three times the number of as
c) Number of as is a multiple of 3
d) Number of bs is a multiple of 3
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 233

*SLRKM233*

-2-

8) Which of the following binary language is regular ?


a) ww, where w is any binary string
b) wwR, where w is any binary string
c) 02i, where I is a positive integer
d) ww, where w belongs to (11*0)*
9) Which of the following statement is wrong ?
a) The regular sets are closed under intersection
b) The class of regular sets is closed under substitution
c) The class of regular sets is closed under homomorphism
d) Context sensitive Grammar can be recognized by finite state machine
10) The regular sets are closed under
a) Union
b) Concatenation

c) Kleen closure

d) All of the above

11) The co-domain of the (transition function) of the PDA is


a) Finite subsets of Q T*
b) Finite subsets of Q T
c) Finite subsets of Q T*U {^}
d) None of these
12) Which of the following PDA accept the language of palindrome without middle marker
input symbol ?
a) Deterministic PDA
b) Non-deterministic PDA
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
13) Pumping lemma is used for proving that certain languages are
a) Not regular
b) Not context free c) Both a) and b)

d) Context free

14) The Tape of Turing Machine is used as


a) Input storage device
b) Output storage device
c) Infinite and read-write internal memory
d) All of these
15) In the Universal TM, the non-blank tape symbols of a TM T1 are encoded as
a) s(qi) = 0i + 1
b) e(qi) = 0i + 2
c) s(qi) = 0i
d) s(qi) = 0i + 2
16) The TM __________ simulate the RAM.
a) Can
b) May

c) May not

d) Can not

17) In the parse tree, the root nodes corresponds to the


a) Variables that appears in the derivation
b) Terminals that appears in the derivation
c) Start symbol of the CFG
d) None of these
18) The language L = {0n1n2n3n where n, k > 0 } is a
a) Context sensitive language
b) Context free language
c) Regular language
d) Recursively enumerable language
19) The union of a CFL and a regular language
a) Need not be regular
b) Need not be context free
c) Is always regular
d) Is always CFL
20) The language L = {an! where n is integer} is
a) Context free language
b) Not context free language
c) Regular language
d) Both a) and c)

______________

Set A

*SLRKM233*

-3-

SLR-KM 233

Seat
No.

S.E. (CSE) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


FORMAL SYSTEMS AND AUTOMATA
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Answer any four questions :

20

a) Construct a DFA that recognizes the language.


L = {x {0, 1}* | |x| > 3 and 3rd symbol from the right side in x is 1}.
b) Calculate by taking example and define recursive definition of extended notation of for
NFA.
c) For the grammar S->A1B,A->0A | , B->0B | 1B | ,
give leftmost and rightmost derivations for the string 00101.
d) Convert the following CFG to CNF
S->ASA | aB
A->B | S
B->b |

e) Define NFA with suitable example in details. Also differentiate NFA and DFA.
3. Solve any one :

10

1) Obtain minimized finite automata for given finite automata below.

2) Convert a regular expression (0+1) (10) + (00) (11) to an NFA- .


4. Explain the steps in CNF. Obtain the following CFG into CNF.
S
C

AACD

aC | a

10

aAb | ^
aDa | bDb | ^

Set A

SLR-KM 233

-4-

*SLRKM233*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

A) What effects the actions taken by PDA ? List the actions.


B) Explain the equivalence of PDA and CFG.
C) Define DPDA. Explain how it differs from NPDA.
D) Draw a Turing Machine that computes f(x) = x + 3 where x is any natural number.
E) Discuss the basic model of Turing Machine with example.
F) What is parsing ? Explain the shift-reduce parsing with an example.
6. Attempt any one :

10

A) Define Turing Machine for computing numeric function. Draw and explain the Turing
Machine to compute the 2s complement of binary number.
B) State and prove the pumping lemma for CFL.
7. Explain in detail how Turing Machines are combined.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 234

*SLRKM234*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS I (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) ________ is widely used for distributing TV signals to homes.


A) Co-axial cable
B) Fiber optic cable
C) Twisted pair
D) All of above
2) In OSI ___________ layer is a true end to end layer.
A) Network
B) DLL
C) Session

D) Transport

3) MAC address is the example of


A) Transport layer B) Data link

D) Physical

C) Application

4) Which of the following can be software ?


A) Routers
B) Firewalls
C) Gateway

D) Modems

5) Which of the following is/are protocols of application layer ?


A) FTP
B) DNS
C) TELNET
D) All of above
6) _________ provides a connection oriented reliable services for sending message.
A) TCP
B) IP
C) UDP
D) All of above
7) What is usable size in no. of bit to indicate Network id in class B of IP address ?
A) 04
B) 08
C) 14
D) 16
8) Header of frame contains
A) Synchronization bytes
C) Frame identifier

B) Addresses
D) All of above

9) What is the net mask for a class C NETWORK ?


A) 255.255.255.0
B) 255.255.255.1
C) 255.255.255.254
D) 255.255.255.255
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 234

*SLRKM234*

-2-

10) What are the uses of sub netting ?


A) It divides one large network into smaller several ones
B) It divides network into network classes
C) It speed up the Network
D) None of above
11) How many bits are there in Ethernet Address ?
A) 64 bits
B) 48 bits
C) 32 bits

D) 16 bits

12) ___________ is mapping in which physical address is found for a given logical
address.
A) RARP
B) ICMP
C) ARP
D) STMP
13) _________ is an OSPF message.
A) Database description
C) Echo

B) Echo reply
D) Host unreachable

14) The same IP address can be assigned to device on the same network
A) True
B) False
C) Cannot say
D) None of above
15) Distance vector routing is _________
A) Static
B) Dynamic

C) Link

16) In 802.3 IEEE STD minimum size of frame is


A) 46
B) 50
C) 64

D) None of above
D) 48

17) CSMA/CD stands for __________


A) Carrier Sense Multiple Avoidance / Collision Detection
B) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection
C) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance
D) None of above
18) When two or more bits in data unit has been changed during short duration of
transmission the error is called
A) Random error
B) Burst error
C) Inverted error
D) None of above
19) The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing ack so that they can be hooked
onto the next outgoing data frame is called
A) Piggy backing
B) Cyclic Redundancy Check
C) Fletehers checksum
D) None of above
20) CRC stands for
A) Cyclic Redundancy Check
B) Code Repeat Check
C) Code Redundancy Check
D) Cyclic Repeat Check
______________

Set A

*SLRKM234*

-3-

SLR-KM 234

Seat
No.

S.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS I (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four (Each carries 5 marks) :

20

A) What is noise and what are different categories of noise ?


B) Describe connection oriented and connectionless services.
C) Describe analog and digital data transmission.
D) Explain binary-count down type of collision free protocol.
E) Explain different Network hardware devices.
F) Explain simplex stop and wait protocol.
3. Describe optical fiber cable along with its physical description, characteristics and
application.

10
OR

Describe ATM reference model in detail.


4. Explain with neat diagram OSI-Model in details.

10
10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four (Each carries 5 marks) :

20

A) Write a note on RARP.


B) Describe the concept of CSMA/CD.
Set A

SLR-KM 234

-4-

*SLRKM234*

C) Explain the network device bridge.


D) Write note on shortest path routing.
E) List and explain different classes of IP address.
F) Explain ICMP protocol.
6. What is OSPF ? Explain with help of diagram show relationship between ASes,
Backbone and areas in OSPF.

10

OR
What is adaptive and non-adoptive routing ? Explain link state routing in details.
7. Explain Ip4 classful, classless and special IP address.

10
10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 235

*SLRKM235*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) A TCP/IP like a network layer provides two types of services. They are
a) Connection terminated and connection non terminated
b) Connection wait and connection acknowledged
c) Connectionless and connection oriented
d) Connection hold and connection release
2) UDP is a
a) connectionless, unreliable transport protocol
b) connection oriented, unreliable transport protocol
c) connectionless, reliable transport protocol
d) none of these
3) Which of the following is true ?
a) UDP length = IP length + IP headers length
b) UDP length = IP length * IP headers length
c) UDP length = IP length / IP headers length
d) UDP length = IP length IP headers length
4) Which of the following is true ?
a) Frame (Collection of bits/bytes), Packet (Collection of Frames)
b) Frame (Collection of Packets), Packet (Collection of Frames)
c) Frame (Collection of checksum bits), Packet (Collection of ACKs)
d) None of the above
5) The DHCP server issues a passive open command on UDP port number _________
and waits for a client.
a) 65
b) 66
c) 67
d) 68
6) Which of the following is not a networking device ?
a) gateways
b) linux
c) routers

d) bridges
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 235

*SLRKM235*

-2-

7) Which of the following can be a software ?


a) routers
b) modems
c) gateways

d) firewalls

8) The supplementary protocol that allows non ASCII data to be sent through E-Mail is
a) FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
b) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
c) MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)
d) IPV6
9) Each IP packet must contain
a) Source address
c) Source and destination address

b) Destination address
d) None of these

10) TELNET solves the problem and allows heterogeneous systems communicate with each
other by defining a universal interface called as the
a) Network Universal Terminal (NUT)
b) Network Realistic Terminal (NRT)
c) Network Virtual Terminal (NVT)
d) None of the above
11) DHCP client may not send
a) DHCPREQUEST b) DHCPOFFER

c) DHCPDISCOVER d) DHCPRELEASES

12) The problem, known as the __________ Bug, arises when an acknowledgement for data
packet k is delayed, but not lost.
a) Sorcerers apprentice bug
b) Soccer apprentice bug
c) Both the above
d) None of above
13) Telnet uses __________ communication protocol.
a) UDP
b) TCP
c) SCTP

d) FTP

14) The _________ define registered hosts according to their characteristics or behavior.
a) Inverse domain b) Country domains c) Generic domains d) None of these
15) There are two types of DNS records __________ and ___________
a) request and reply
b) question and answer
c) query and response
d) question and resource
16) A __________ is created by a web server whenever a browser requests the document.
a) Dynamic document b) Active document c) Static document
d) None of these
17) The ___________ is a technology that creates and handles dynamic documents.
a) CGI
b) CSI
c) Browser
d) Cookies
18) SSH stands for
a) Secure system host
c) Secure socket host

b) Secure shell
d) Socket system hop

19) HTTP functions as a combination of __________ and __________


a) TFTP and SMTP
b) SCTP and POP3
c) FTP and SMTP
d) FTP and IMAP
20) In a ___________ , one TCP connection is made for each request/response.
a) nonpersistent connection
b) persistent connection
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM235*

-3-

SLR-KM 235

Seat
No.

T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) Explain the open loop congestion control and closed loop congestion control.
b) Explain the three way handshaking in TCP connection.
c) Explain the user datagram with its format.
d) Explain the scenarios denying a connection and aborting a connection.
e) Explain the various fields of a data chunk with regards to SCTP.
f) Explain the different UDP operations.
3. Attempt any one of the following :

(110=10)

a) Explain the three phases of the TCP connection oriented transmission.


b) Show how UDP handles the sending and receiving of UDP packets by taking a simple
version of UDP package.
4. Attempt any one of the following :

(110=10)

a) Explain SCTP services and features in detail.


b) Describe and explain the send window and receive window in TCP with neat schematics.

Set A

SLR-KM 235

-4-

*SLRKM235*

SECTION II
5. Attempt the following (any four) :

20

A) Write a note on BOOTP.


B) Describe FQDN and PQDN.
C) Differentiate between FTP and TFTP.
D) Write a note SSH.
E) Describe fourth scenario of electronic mail system.
F) How BOOTP works if client and server are on same or different network.
6. Describe the different types of web documents with suitable diagram.

10

OR
What is need of DHCP ? Explain DHCP in detail with the help of packet format.
7. Explain different types of messages used in TFTP communication with message format.

10

_____________________

Set A

*SLR-KM-236*

SLR-KM 236

Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER ORGANIZATION
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer.
1) RISC Architectures are based on _____________ control unit.
a) Micro Programmed control unit
b) Delay element method
c) Hardwired control unit
d) State table method

Marks : 20

2) In Analytical Engine computing ALUs are called as


a) Store
b) Operation cards
c) Mill
d) Mill and store
3) ENIAC takes _____________ to perform 10 digit multiplications.
a) 5 seconds
b) 2 seconds
c) 3 seconds
d) 4 seconds
4) Earliest attempt to construct an electronic computer using vacuum tubes by
a) John Von Neumann
b) John. W. Mauchly
c) Babbage
d) John. V. Atanasoff
5) The resulting number is in error by the amount of the discarded digits is
reduced by
a) Truncation
b) Rounding c) Multiple Precision d) None of these
6) ____________ is a classical method of sequential circuit design to minimize
the amount of hardware.
a) Delay element method
b) PLA method
c) Sequence counters method
d) State table method
7) ____________ is a primitive action performed by a machine on the data
sotred in the registers.
a) Arithmetic operation
b) Logical operation
c) Micro-operations
d) Mini-operations
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 236

*SLR-KM-236*

-2-

8) First successful high level language FORTRAN was developed by


____________ group.
a) IAS
b) IBM
c) Intel
d) None of these
9) To perform division algorithm divisor consists of ____________ bits to handle
borrow.
a) n bits
b) n*n bits
c) n +1 bits
d) n + 2 bits
10) Multiply X, C, C is a
a) Zero address instruction
c) Two address instruction
11) Cache serves as buffer between
a) Main and secondary memory
c) Both a) and b)

b) One address instruction


d) Three address instruction
b) CPU and main memory
d) None

12) Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data
from secondary storage for use in main memory is called
a) Fragmentation b) Paging
c) Mapping
d) None of these
13) Processor has direct access to
a) Cache memory b) Main memory c) Both a) and b) d) Secondary memory
14) Which memory replacement policy is very easy to implement ?
a) FIFO
b) LRU
c) OPT
d) None
15) Interrupts which are initiated by an instruction are
a) internal
b) external
c) hardware

d) software

16) Consider two instruction I and J, with I occurring before J. If J tries to write
an operand before it is written by I. Then the type of hazards is
a) RAW
b) WAW
c) WAR
d) None
17) If hazard arises from the pipelining of branches and other instruction that
change the PC. Then the type of hazard is
a) Control hazard b) Structural hazard c) Data hazard
d) None
18) An interface that provides I/O transfer of data directly to and from the memory
unit and peripheral is termed as
a) DDA
b) Serial interface
c) BR
d) DMA
19) An interface that provides a method for transferring binary information between
internal storage and external devices is called
a) I/O interface
b) Input interface c) Output interface d) I/O bus
20) Virtual memory is
a) An extremely large main memory
b) An extremely large secondary memory
c) An illusion of an extremely large memory
d) A type of memory used in super computers
______________
Set A

*SLR-KM-236*

-3-

SLR-KM 236

Seat
No.

T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER ORGANIZATION
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Write a short note on Electronic computers.


2) Explain Bus hierarchical Architecture.
3) Explain 8 bit 2s complement adder-subtracter.
4) Explain RISC with block diagram.
5) Explain instructions types with suitable example.
6) Explain multiplier control unit design.
3. A) Using Booths Algorithm and multiply, with flow chart
Multiplicand : (115)10, Multiplier : (04)10 .
B) Explain sequence counter method of hardwired control unit in detail.

10
10

OR
C) Explain all generations of computers in detail.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 236

-4-

*SLR-KM-236*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 :

(45=20)

1) Explain I/O interface for any input devices.


2) Differentiate uniprocessor and multiprocessor parallelism.
3) Explain bubbles in pipeline.
4) Write short note on page size.
5) Draw and explain structure of associative memory.
6) Write a short note on DMA.
5. Attempt :

10

1) Explain multiprocessor parallelism UMA, NUMA, COMA.


6. Attempt any 1 :

10

1) Explain I/O interface and its type parallel and serial I/O.
2) Explain hazards in pipe lining.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 237

*SLRKM237*
S

T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


SYSTEM PROGRAMMING

Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
1. Select correct alternative.
1) Language translator bridges __________
a) Specification gap b) Semantic gap c) Execution gap d) None of above
2) Which of the following statement TRUE ?
a) Interpreter bridges execution gap without generating a machine language programming
b) Interpreter bridges execution gap and generating a machine language programming
c) Interpreter bridges specification gap
d) Interpreter bridges execution gap
3) Interpreter is program that
a) Places program into memory and prepare for execution
b) Automates the translation of assembly language into machine language
c) Access program written in high level language and produces an object program
d) Prepare to execute a source program as if it were machine language
4) Consider the following assembly code
START
100
MOVER AREG, A
ADD
AREG, B
MOVEM AREG, C
STOP
A
DC
5
B
DC
8
C DS
1
END
What will be the target code for above code ?
a) 101) + 04 1 104
b) 100) + 04 1 104 c) 100) + 02 1 104
d) 100) + 04 1 104
102) + 01 1 105
101) + 01 1 105
101) + 01 1 105
101) + 01 1 105
104) + 05 1 106
102) + 05 1 106
102) + 05 1 106
102) + 04 1 106
105) + 00 0 000
103) + 00 0 000
103) + 00 0 000
103) + 00 0 000
106) + 00 0 005
104) + 00 0 005
104) + 00 0 005
104) + 00 0 005
107) + 00 0 008
105) + 00 0 008
105) + 00 0 008
105) + 00 0 008
108)
106)
106)
106)
5) In a two pass assembler, the pseudo code EQU is to be evaluated during
a) Pass I
b) Pass II c) Not evaluated by assembler d) None of the above
6) Which of the following is wrong statement in task performed by two pass assembler ?
a) Perform LC processing
b) Construct intermediate representation
c) Separate the symbol, mnemonic opcode and operand field
d) Build mnemonic table
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 237

*SLRKM237*

-2-

7) Consider the macro definition


MACRO
CONTANTS
LCL
&A
&A SET
1
DB
&A
&A SET
&A+1
DB
&A
MEND
In above macro definitions which instruction is used for defining the value of local expansion
variable ?
a) SET
b) LCL
c) DB
d) MACRO
8) Macro definition in enclosed
a) between Macro header statement and macro end
b) In main program
c) In other function
d) None of above
9) In the design of macro preprocessor, expansion time variable is splitted into
a) EVNTAB
b) EVTAB
c) EVNTAN and EVTAB d) None of above
10) Data structures used during the design of macro preprocessor are
a) MDT
b) MNT
c) PNTAB
d) All of above
11) In static Memory Allocation _________
a) Memory is allocated to a variable before the execution of program begins
b) Memory is allocated at run time
c) Memory is never allocated
d) Memory is allocated to the variables declared in procedure
12) The Linker _____________
a) is same as Loader
b) Is required to create a load module
c) Uses source code as input
d) None of the above
13) Relocation table is generated by ___________
a) Translator
b) Object module c) Bootstrap Loader

d) Compiler-and-Go loader

14) The interpreter consist of __________


a) Symbol table
b) Data store
c) Data Manipulation routines d) All the above
15) Object module of program unit consist of ___________
a) RELOCTAB
b) LINKTAB
c) Header

d) All

16) Which of the following is not valid type of loader ?


a) Absolute loader b) Relocating loader c) Compiler-and-Go loader d) None
17) Indicate which of the following is not true about interpreter ?
a) Interpreter generate an object program from source program
b) Interpreter analyzes each source statement every time
c) Interpreter is a kind of translator
d) All
18) In direct linking loader which is not related with object program ?
a) ESD
b) RLD
c) BSS
d) TXT
19) A basic Block and their successor relationship can be analyzed by __________
a) DAG
b) Flow graph
c) Control graph d) Hamiltonian graph
20) Overlays are used to
a) Reduce Execution Time
b) Reduce Cost
c) Reduce memory requirement
d) Reduce linking requirement
___________________

Set A

*SLRKM237*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 237

T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


SYSTEM PROGRAMMING
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain back end of toy compiler in detail.


b) Explain program execution activity of language processor.
c) Discuss variant-I of intermediate forms.
d) Consider an assembly language program
START

100

MOVER

AREG, = 5

ADD

AREG, B

MOVEM

AREG, C

STOP
B

DC

DS

END
Display the content of different data structure after pass-I and show the intermediate
code generated for the program.
e) Explain design of macro preprocessor in detail.
3. Solve any one :

10

a) Write and explain processing of macro definition algorithm with example.


b) Write and explain pass-I algorithm of two pass assembler.
4. What is Language Processor Development Tool ? Explain YACC in detail with the help of
example.

10
Set A

SLR-KM 237

-4-

*SLRKM237*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(54)

a) Give different optimizing transformations. Explain any two in detail.


b) Explain different triples, quadruples and indirect triples for expressions used by compiler.
c) Describe program execution steps in detail with schematic.
d) What is overlay structured program ? Explain linking of overlays with example.
e) List and explain four types of cards in direct linking loader.
6. What is expression tree ? Write evaluation order algorithm and explain with example.

10

OR
Write and explain relocation and linking algorithm with example.

10

7. List all types of loader and explain any two types of loader with advantages and disadvantages. 10
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 238

*SLRKM238*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM CONCEPTS
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct alternatives :

20

1) Multiprogramming systems ___________


A) Are easier to develop than single programming systems
B) Execute each job faster
C) Execute more jobs in the same time
D) Are used only on large main frame computers
2) Systems calls provides the interface between __________ and _________
A) Hardware, software
B) Process, OS
C) Hardware, OS
D) None of above
3) Which is not the state of the process ?
A) Waiting
B) Running

C) Ready

4) The ___________ scheduler is also known as CPU scheduler.


A) Short-term
B) Long-term
C) Medium-term

D) Privileged
D) None of above

5) The advantage of allowing cooperating processes is _________


A) Information sharing
B) Computation speedup
C) Modularity
D) All above
E) None of above
6) The state of a process after it encounters an I/O instruction is ___________
A) Ready
B) Blocked/Waiting
C) Idle
D) Running
7) A semaphore uses two standard operations wait and signal which must be ___________
A) Dependant
B) In dependant
C) Atomic
D) None of above
8) _________ time is the time of submission of process to the time of completion.
A) Response
B) Turnaround
C) Throughput
D) Waiting
9) A major problem with priority scheduling algorithm is __________
A) Indefinite blocking
B) Starvation
C) Non interactive
D) Both A) and B)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 238

*SLRKM238*

-2-

10) A critical region


A) is a piece of code which only one process executes at a time
B) is a region prone to deadlock
C) is a piece of code which only a finite number of processes execute
D) is found only in windows NT operation system
11) The circular wait condition can be prevented by
A) defining a linear ordering of resource types
B) using thread
C) using pipes
D) all of the mentioned
12) Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm ?
A) bankers algorithm
B) round-robin algorithm
C) elevator algorithm
D) karns algorithm
13) What is the drawback of bankers algorithm ?
A) in advance processes rarely know that how much resource they will need
B) the number of processes changes as time progresses
C) resource once available can disappear
D) all of the mentioned
14) Drawback of fixed partitioning is
A) External fragmentation
C) None

B) Internal fragmentation
D) Both A) and B)

15) CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of
A) program counter
B) status register
C) instruction register
D) program status word
16) Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU ?
A) physical address
B) absolute address
C) logical address
D) none of the mentioned
17) Swap space exists in
A) primary memory
C) CPU

B) secondary memory
D) none of the mentioned

18) When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded
in physical memory, then
A) segmentation fault occurs
B) fatal error occurs
C) page fault occurs
D) no error occurs
19) In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced from page frames
A) oldest referred page is chosen
B) newest arrived page is chosen
C) page with least reference count
D) oldest arrived page
20) When device A has a cable that plugs into device B, and device B has a cable that plugs
into device C and device C plugs into a port on the computer, this arrangement is called
a ________
A) Port
B) daisy chain
C) Bus
D) Cable

______________

Set A

*SLRKM238*

-3-

SLR-KM 238

Seat
No.

T.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM CONCEPTS
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :
A) What is spooling ? Explain with diagram.
B) Describe real-time systems with its types.
C) Explain process scheduling with the help of queuing diagram.
D) What is thread ? Describe the thread structure in detail.
E) Describe critical section problem. State the solution to CS problem.

20

3. Describe the readers and writers problem. Provide a solution to first readerswriters problem using semaphore.

10

OR
3. What is interprocess communication ? Describe direct and indirect communication
with respective primitives.

10

4. Consider the following set of processes with the length of CPU burst in ms.

10

The processes arrived at following order.


Process

Arrival Time

Burst Time

P1

P2

P3

P4

Draw Gantt chart and calculate the average waiting time for FCFS, nonpreemptive
SJF, preemptive SJF and RR (time quantum = 1 ms)

Set A

SLR-KM 238

-4-

*SLRKM238*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

A) Explain how to avoid circular wait condition in deadlock prevention.


B) Explain the concept of swapping.
C) Explain with diagram how paging achieves non contiguous allocation.
D) What is demand paging ?
E) Explain I/O hardware using diagram PC bus structure.
F) Discuss segmentation in detail.
6. Explain bankers algorithm. Solve following example with bankers algorithm and
determine all possible safe states.

10

7 10 12
Max =

Alloc =

9 8
11 12

7
7

4 5 6
6 4 3
7 6 4

Available = [20 20 17]


OR
6. What is fixed partitioning ? Explain first fit, best fit and worst fit mechanism for fixed
partitioning with example.

10

7. Explain page replacement LRU, optimal algorithm wrt following reference string as
example, take number of available frames as 3.

10

7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3, 0, 3, 2, 1, 2, 0, 1, 7, 0, 1
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 239

*SLRKM239*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part I) Examination, 2015
DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM

Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Asymptotic notations are used to calculate


a) time complexity
b) space complexity
c) a and b
d) none of the above
2) The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by
a) Counting microseconds
b) Counting the number of key operations
c) Counting the number of statements
d) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm
3) Average time required to perform a successful sequential search for an element in an
array A (1 : n) is given by
a) (n + 1)/2
b) n(n + 1)/2
c) log n
d) n2
4) For job sequencing with deadline problem, the execution time required for job with deadline 3 is
a) 3
b) anytime less than 3
c) 1
d) 2
5) Sum of subset problem can have one of the following solution.
a) Fixed size tuple
b) variable size tuple
c) n-sized tuple
d) both a and b
6) The tree organization of solution space is
a) Answer tree
c) Dynamic tree

b) State space tree


d) Dead tree

7) Which of the following technique is used to find All pairs shortest path in graph ?
a) Dynamic Programming
b) Backtracking
c) Greedy Method
d) Divide and conquer
8) Using Greedy method, an object i is placed into the knapsack, the value of solution vector
xi is
a) 0 or 1
b) 0< = xi < = 1
c) 0 and 1
d) none
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 239

*SLRKM239*

-2-

9) The complexity of optimal merge pattern is


a) m n
b) log (m n)
c) m + n

d) log (m + n)

10) In an optimal storage on tape problem if (1, 2, 3) = (5, 10, 3) then the optimal ordering
of program is
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 1
d) 1, 3, 2
11) Knapsack problem can be solved by
a) Greedy Method
c) Backtracking

b) Dynamic Method
d) All of the above

12) The method where solution to problem is viewed as result of sequence of decision is
a) Backtracking
b) Dynamic programming
c) Greedy method
d) Both a and b
13) Job sequencing with deadline is an example of _____________ of Greedy method
a) Subset paradigm
b) Ordering Paradigm
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
14) Two queens are placed at positions (I, j) and (k, 1), then they are at same diagonal if
a) i j = k 1
b) i + j = k + 1
c) j 1 = i k
d) all of the above
15) The time required for binary search algorithm to search an element in list of length n is
a) log n
b) n
c) 1
d) n2
16) Depth first node generation with bounding function is called
a) Dynamic programming
b) Greedy method
c) Backtracking
d) None of the above
17) The worst-case complexity is
a) Function defined by maximum number of step taken
b) Function defined by average number of step taken
c) Function defined by minimum number of steps taken
d) All of the above
18) Partition exchange sort is also called as,
a) Bubble sort
c) Quick sort

b) Heap sort
d) None of the above

19) Which of the following is not true with spanning tree ?


a) spanning tree is minimal subgraph
b) it is connected
c) number of edges are (n 1) for n vertices graph
d) it is directed
20) The _________ problem ask for the smallest integer m for which the graph G can be
coloured.
a) m-colorability optimization
b) dynamic
c) greedy
d) none of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM239*

-3-

SLR-KM 239

Seat
No.

T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Write an algorithm for binary search using divide and conquer.
2) Write an control abstraction for subset paradigm using Greedy method.
3) Explain time and space complexity of an algorithm with example.
4) Show that the following equality is correct : 5n2 6n = O (n2).
5) Write a short note on amortized algorithm.
6) Find an optimal merge pattern for 5 files whose lengths are (20, 30, 10, 5, 30) and calculate
number of record moves.
3. Attempt any one :

10

a) Write an algorithm of Merge Sort using divide and conquer. Find its Time complexity.
b) Find the Minimum Spanning Tree (MST) for the given graph by Prims and Kruskals
algorithm.

4. Write an recursive algorithm for finding maximum and minimum ? Prove that T(n) = 3n/2 2. 10

Set A

SLR-KM 239

-4-

*SLRKM239*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Differentiate between dynamic programming and Greedy method.


2) Write a short note on flow shop scheduling.
3) Write and explain a recursive algorithm for backtracking.
4) State and explain graph colouring problem.
5) Explain the following terms :
a) Live node
b) Dead node
c) E-node
d) Answer state
e) Solution state.
6) Explain P, NP, NP-complete and NP-hard.
6. Attempt any one :

10

a) State and explain Cooks theorem.


b) Given w [1 : 6] = {5, 10, 12, 13, 15, 18}, m = 30 and n = 6. Find all possible subsets of w
that sums to m. Draw the portion of the state space tree that is generated.
7. Consider the following directed graph and edge length are given by matrix. Find optimal tour
length of travelling sales person problem.

10

0 10 15 20

5 0 9 10

6 13 0 12

8 8 9 0

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 241

*SLRKM241*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (CSE) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
DATABASE ENGINEERING

Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figure to right indicates marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class


database system ?
A) Database application and the database
B) Data and the database
C) The user and the database application
D) Database application and SQL
2) An application where only one user accesses the database at a given time is an example
of a(n)
A) single-user database application
B) multiuser database application
C) e-commerce database application
D) data mining database application
3) Eliminating modification anomalies is a(n) __________ of normalization.
A) advantage
B) disadvantage
C) either an advantage or disadvantage
D) neither an advantage nor disadvantage
4) Using the SQL GROUP BY Phrase with a SELECT statement can help detect which of
the following problems ?
A) The multivalue, multicolumn problem
B) The inconsistent values problem
C) The missing values problem
D) The general-purpose remarks column problem
5) Which of the following data constraints would be used to specify that the value of cells
in a column must be one of a specific set of possible values ?
A) A domain constraint
B) A range constraint
C) An intrarelation constraint
D) An interrelation constraint
6) Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column
must contain a monetary value ?
A) Null status
B) Data type
C) Default value
D) Data constraints
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 241

-2-

*SLRKM241*

7) A foreign key is
A) a column containing the primary key of another table
B) use to define data types
C) used to define null status
D) all of the above are above correct
8) Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column
must be immediately filled with a monetary value of $10,000 ?
A) Null status
B) Data type
C) Default value
D) Data constraints
9) SQL views can be used to hide
A) columns and rows only
B) complicated SQL syntax only
C) both of the above can be hidden by an SQL view
D) none of the above is correct
10) The three-schema components include all, but
A) internal schema
B) conceptual schema
C) programming schema
D) external schema
11) Immediate data modification technique uses
A) Both undo and redo
B) Undo but no redo
C) Redo but no undo
D) Neither undo nor redo
12) A transaction is in _________ state after the final statement has been executed.
A) Partially committed
B) Active
C) Committed
D) None of the above
13) Checkpoints are part of
A) Recovery measures
B) Security measures
C) Concurrency measures
D) Authorization measures
14) Isolation of the transactions is insured by
A) Transaction management
B) Application programmer
C) Concurrency control
D) Recovery management
15) Which of the following is not a recovery technique ?
A) Deferred update
B) Immediate update
C) 2 phase commit
D) Shadow paging
16) Indices whose search key specifies an order different from the sequential order of the
files are called
A) Non clustering indices
B) Clustering indices
C) Hash indices
D) None
17) A clustering index is defined on the fields which are of the type
A) Non key and ordering
B) Non key and non-ordering
C) Key and ordering
D) Key and non-ordering
18) Which of the following is the preferred way to recover a database after a transaction in
progress terminates alternately ?
19) Locking may cause which of the following problems ?
A) Erroneous updates
B) Deadlock
C) Versioning
D) All of the above
20) Cascading rollback is avoided in all protocol except
A) strict two phase locking protocol
B) tree locking protocol
C) two phase locking protocol
D) validation based protocol
______________

Set A

*SLRKM241*

-3-

SLR-KM 241

Seat
No.

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


DATABASE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figure to right indicates marks.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain in detail database architecture with suitable diagram.


b) Describe select and project operation with suitable examples.
c) Differentiate between tuple relational calculus and domain relational calculus.
d) Explain decomposition using multivalued dependencies.
e) What is canonical cover ? How to detect extraneous attribute ?
3. Attempt any one :

10

a) Explain in brief :
i) Where clause in SQL
ii) Foreign key
iii) Mapping cardinalities
iv) Key constraints.
b) Construct an E-R diagram for bike insurance company whose customers own one or
more bikes each. Each bike has associated with it zero to any number of recorded
accidents.
4. Explain with example :

(52=10)

a) Reduction of E-R schema to relational schema.


b) Decomposition of database schema from INF to BCNF.

Set A

SLR-KM 241

-4-

*SLRKM241*

SECTION II
5. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Write a short note on multiple key access.


b) Explain ACID properties.
c) Explain dense index and sparse index.
d) Differentiate between open and closed hasing.
e) What is view serializability ? Explain.
f) What do you mean by locks? Explain.
6. Solve any one :

10

a) Describe testing for conflict serializability with example.


b) Write a note on shadow paging.
7. Transaction processing system allows multiple transactions to run concurrently. Allowing
multiple transactions to update data concurrently causes several complications with
consistency of data. However there are good reasons for allowing concurrency, what are they
explain in detail.

10
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 242

*SLRKM242*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


COMPILER CONSTRUCTION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Select correct alternative :


20
1) Which of the following may detect that parts of the program can never be executed ?
a) Structure editor b) Pretty printers c) Static checker d) Interpreter
2) Output of link-editor is
a) Source program
b) Relocatable machine code
c) Target assembly program
d) Absolute machine code
3) -closure(s) is
a) Set of NFA states reachable from NFA state
b) Set of NFA states reachable from NFA state on -transition alone
c) Set of NFA states
d) None of above
4) A self relocating program is one which
a) Cannot be made to execute in any area of storage other than the one designated
for it at the time of its coding or translation
b) Consists of a program and relevant information for its relocation
c) Can itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive portions
d) All
5) The left factored grammar for the following grammar is
A 1| 1
a) A A
b) A A |
c) A A
A 1| 1
A 1| 1
A 1| 1|

d) None of above

6) An (abstract) __________ is condensed form of parse tree useful for representing


language constructs.
a) Dependency graph b) Evaluation tree c) Syntax tree
d) None of these
7) DAG is used for
a) Identifying common sub expression in expression
b) Identifying parse tree for expression
c) Identifying syntax tree for expression
d) Both b) and c)

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 242

-2-

*SLRKM242*

8) Consider the grammar


S Aa | bAc | Bc A d | B d
FIRST(S) is
a) {a, b, }
b) {a, b, d}
c) {a, b, d, }
d) None of the above
9) L-attributed definitions can always be evaluated in
a) Breadth first order b) Depth first order c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
10) Consider node for production T T1*F, so the T.val at this node defined by
a) T.val:=T1.val*F1.val
b) T.val:=T.val*F.val
c) T.val:=T1.val*F.val
d) None
11) Which of the following are parameter passing method
a) Call by value
b) Call by reference
c) Call by restore d) All
12) A dangling reference is
a) pointer pointing to storage which is freed
b) pointer pointing to nothing
c) pointer pointing to storage which is still in use
d) pointer pointing to uninitialized storage
13) Which of the following are storage allocation strategies ?
a) Static allocation b) Stack allocation
c) Heap allocation d) All
14) If Machine code is generated, labels in 3-address statement have to be converted
to address of instruction. This technique is analogous to
a) Backtracking
b) Back patching
c) Intermediate code generation
d) All
15) In the Instruction selection, the important factors are
a) Uniformity, completeness
b) Completeness, Instruction Speed
c) Machine idioms, Uniformity
d) Instruction, Machine idioms
16) In which storage allocation strategy size is required at compiler time
a) Static allocation b) Dynamic allocation c) Stack allocation d) All
17) Code improvement phase consists of _________followed by the application of
transformations.
a) Data flow analysis
b) Control flow analysis
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
18) Postfix notation for the following expression is
a = b* c + b* c
a) abc *bc * + = b) ab c*bc* + = c) abc * b c* + = d) abc bc ** + =
19) Which of the following primary structure preserving transformation on basic blocks are
a) Common sub expression elimination
b) Dead-code elimination
c) Interchange of two independent adjacent statement
d) All of the above
20) Which of the following is not peephole optimization ?
a) Redundant instruction elimination b) Flow of control optimization
c) Algebraic simplification
d) Common sun expression elimination
______________
Set A

*SLRKM242*

-3-

SLR-KM 242

Seat
No.

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


COMPILER CONSTRUCTION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


2. Attempt any four :

(54)

a) What is lexical analysis ? How the tokens are specified and recognized ?
b) Define parser. Explain briefly Top-Down and Bottom-Up parsing.
c) Show that the following grammar is LL (1)
S AaAb| BbBa
A , B
d) What is dependency graph ? How it differs from the parse tree ?
e) What is left recursion ? How left recursion is eliminated from grammar ?
3. Attempt any one :

10

a) Explain Bottom-Up evaluation of inherited attributes.


b) Why use regular expression to define the lexical syntax of a language ? How the
context free grammars are constructed from a regular expression ? Explain with
the example regular expression (a + b)* abba.
4. Construct SLR parsing table for the following grammar :

10

E E
E E+T|T
T T* F | F
F (E) | id

Set A

SLR-KM 242

-4-

*SLRKM242*

5. Attempt any four questions :

(54)

a) Explain activation tree and activation record.


b) Explain code generation from DAG.
c) Explain types of intermediate representations.
d) Explain code motion with example.
e) Explain basic block with example.
6. Attempt any one :

10

a) Explain dynamic code generation with algorithm.


b) Explain backpatching and functions used in backpatching. Also explain
backpatching for boolean expression.
7. Explain issues in the design of code generator.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 243

*SLRKM243*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM II (Old)
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data wherever ncessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) When the read system call encounters EOF it returns ?


a) Some positive integer
b) Some negative integer
c) 0
d) 1
2) getblk algorithm is used for_____________
a) Allocation of disk block
b) Allocation of buffer
c) Allocation of inode
d) None of the above
3) Every file has____________inode/inodes.
a) One
b) Two
c) Multiple

d) Zero

4) File Table is a ____________ data structure.


a) User Mode
b) Kernel Mode c) Both

d) H / W level

5) From the state a sleep only possible transition is____________


a) Kernel running b) User running c) Zombie
d) Ready to run
6) Buffer header DO not contain____________field.
a) Device Num
b) Inode number c) Block Num

d) Status

7) Full access permission to all for a file is given by____________Access mode.


a) 231
b) 001
c) 777
d) 666
8) Which of the following system call is used for adjusting the position of file IO ?
a) LSEEK
b) READ
c) REWIND
d) OPEN

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 243

-2-

9) Fork return____________to the child process.


a) One
b) Two
c) Minus one

*SLRKM243*
d) Zero

10) Unix system hides the____________ from user.


a) program architecture
b) m/c architecture
c) s/w architecture
d) network architecture
11) ____________ translates a file system address, consisting of a logical device
number and block number, to a particular sector on the disk.
a) Stream
b) Disk driver
c) Strategy interface
d) Kernel
12) Processes usually invoke exec after ____________ call.
a) Fork
b) Open
c) Exit
d) Setup
13) Which of the following is responsible for mode switch from User to Kernel ?
a) Library call
b) Exception
c) Context switch d) Trap
14) The process is ready to run, but____________must swap the process into
main memory before execution.
a) Kernel
b) Swapper
c) Scheduler
d) Process
15) Which process is called as init process ?
a) Process 0
b) Dispatcher process
c) Process 1
d) User process
16) Which algorithm is used to load a file into region ?
a) loadreg
b) allocreg
c) attachreg

d) None of above

17) A process may increase or decrease the size of its data region by using the
____________system call.
a) growreg
b) lseek
c) brk
d) fork
18) System call dealing with synchronization is____________
a) fork
b) creat
c) exec
d) wait
19) A____________ is an array where each entry consists of an address of an
allocatable resource and the number of resource units available there.
a) map
b) list
c) table
d) page table
20) The Kernel maintains a free list of buffers that preserves the ______algorithm.
a) Frequently used
b) Most recently used
c) Random
d) Least recently used
______________
Set A

*SLRKM243*

-3-

SLR-KM 243

Seat
No.

T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM II (Old)
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data wherever ncessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Write a note on Buffer Headers.


2) Describe link and unlink system call.
3) Explain pipe system call with syntax example.
4) List features of UNIX operating system.
5) Explain the concept of processor execution level.
6) List the fields in Super block.
3. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

1) Describe allocation and release of disk block (alloc and free algorithm).
2) Explain architecture of UNIX with the help of block diagram of Kernel. Describe
all the components in detail.
3) Explain namei algorithm with proper example.

Set A

SLR-KM 243

-4-

*SLRKM243*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) What is U area ? Describe with memory map of U area in Kernel.


2) List the functions of clock interrupt handler.
3) Draw and describe the state diagram for page aging.
4) Describe strategy interface.
5) Write a short note on stream.
6) Explain Profil system call.
5. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

1) Explain the detailed state transition diagram of a process in UNIX.


2) What is context of a process ? Explain all the fields of user-level, registerlevel and system-level context.
3) What is demand paging ? Draw and explain the data structures used for
demand paging.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 244

*SLRKM244*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part II) (CSE) (Old) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Which of the following provides a baseline for measuring the progress of a project ?
a) Project Plan
b) Project Management Methodology
c) PMIS
d) Output of planning process
2) The starting point of testing is called
a) Unit Testing
c) Integration Testing

b) System Testing
d) Acceptance Testing

3) _________ used to quantify characteristics of the product being developed i.e. software
in software metrics.
a) Product metrics
b) Process metric c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
4) UMLs are used for
a) Object oriented module development
c) Testing of system

b) Coding of system
d) All of these

5) Software Configuration Management is the discipline for systematically controlling


a) The changes due to the evolution of work products as the project proceeds
b) The changes due to defects (bugs) being found and then fixed
c) The changes due to requirement changes
d) All of the above
6) Who writes the Software Requirement Specifications Document (SRS) ?
a) System Developer b) System Tester c) System Analyst d) None of the above
7) PDB stands for
a) Project Data Baseline
c) Process Database

b) Project Defect Baseline


d) None of above

8) Risk Management aims to ___________ and then take actions to minimize their effect on
the project.
a) Identify cost and estimation
b) Identify risks
c) Identify plan
d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 244

*SLRKM244*

-2-

9) What is the goal of the requirements analysis and specifications phase of software
development life cycle ?
a) Understanding the customer requirements and organize them in an informal document
b) Analyzing the cost of development
c) Determining scope of the software
d) None of these above
10) CASE stands for
a) Computer Application in Software Engineering
b) Computer Application in System Engineering
c) Computer Aided Software Engineering
d) None of the above
11) ___________ is the major quality control measure used during software development.
a) Testing
b) Designing
c) Specifications
d) None of these
12) A __________ can plan a project.
a) Project Manager
c) Software Engineer

b) Analyst
d) Librarian

13) CMM means ___________


a) Capture Maturity Model
c) Common Maturity Model

b) Capability Maturity Model


d) None of these

14) PDL stands for


a) Process Develop Language
c) Process Data Language

b) Process Design Language


d) None of these

15) Testing can be applied to


a) Requirements
b) Analysis

c) Design

d) Code

16) Which one of the following testing is performed by user ?


a) Acceptance testing
b) Unit testing
c) Compatibility testing
d) None of these
17) DFD shows __________
a) Information flow
b) System flow

c) Interface flow

d) Architecture design

18) Pareto analysis is one of the primary tool for


a) Review
b) Quality Management
c) Milestone Analysis
d) None of above
19) SEPG stands for
a) Software Engineering Process Group
c) Software Engineering Private Group

b) Software Engineering Project Group


d) None of above

20) The classes and objects are building blocks of an


a) OOM
b) OOD
c) OOA

d) None of above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM244*

-3-

SLR-KM 244

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part II) (CSE) (Old) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain in detail waterfall model.


b) What is software process ? Explain characteristics of software process.
c) Explain requirement specification in detail.
d) Write short on DFD and Data Dictionary.
e) What do you mean by SRS and explain need of SRS ?
3. Attempt any one :

(101=10)

a) What is Risk Management ? Explain in detail.


OR
b) What is Quality Management ? Explain in detail.
4. Write short note on any two :

(52=10)

a) CMM
b) Prototyping
c) Effort Estimation.

Set A

SLR-KM 244

-4-

*SLRKM244*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain Configuration Management in detail.


b) Describe level of testing.
c) Explain Black box testing.
d) Explain OO design concepts.
e) Define UML. Explain class diagram.
6. a) Explain project tracking in details.

(101=10)

OR
b) Explain in detail defect analysis and prevention.
7. Write short note on any two :

(52=10)

a) DFD and Abstraction


b) Coupling and Cohesion
c) Milestone analysis.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 245

*SLRKM245*
S

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) GPS means
a) General Problem Solver
c) Generic Problem Schedule

Marks : 20
(201=20)

b) General Problem Solutions


d) None of these

2) Scientific analysis is ___________ task domain of artificial intelligence.


a) Expert
b) Mundane
c) Formal
d) All
3) ___________ and represent the task knowledge that is necessary to solve the
problem.
a) Collect
b) Demonstrate
c) Implement
d) Isolate
4) The first requirement of a good control strategy is that it causes
a) Speed
b) Motion
c) Failure
d) None of these
5) ___________ rules are applied for solving the water jug problem in AI.
a) Problem
b) Production
c) Constraint
d) None of these
6) __________ is used as a variable in Breadth-First Search.
a) NODE-LIST
b) SUCCESSOR-LIST
c) CHILD-LIST
d) ALL
7) __________ search requires less memory since only the nodes on the current
path are stored.
a) Breadth-first
b) Heuristic
c) Depth-first
d) None of these
8) ___________ is a state that is better than all its neighbor but it is not better than
some other states further away.
a) Plateau
b) Local maximum
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 245

*SLRKM245*

-2-

9) The __________ representation of mapping maps from facts to representation.


a) Backward
b) Forward
c) Symbol
d) None
10) The problem of representing the fact that changes as well as those that do not is
known as
a) Frame problem
b) Inferential knowledge
c) Inheritable knowledge
d) None
11) Resolution produces proofs by
a) Refutation
c) Knowledge

b) Resolution
d) All

12) A ___________ representation is one in which knowledge is specified, but the


use to which that knowledge is to be put is not given.
a) Declarative
b) Procedural
c) Procedural and Declarative
d) None
13) PROLOG program is described as a series of logical assertion, each of which
is a
a) P-Clause
b) D-Clause
c) Horn Clause
d) None
14) __________ reasoning, in which the axioms and/or the rules of inference are
extended to make it possible to reason with incomplete information.
a) Monotonic
b) Differential
c) Non Monotonic
d) Statistical
15) WFFs means ____________ in non-monotonic reasoning.
a) Well formed formulas
b) Well formatted formulas
c) Well floating formulas
d) None
16) A ____________ is a structure that describes a stereotyped sequence of events
in a particular context.
a) Frame
b) CYC
c) Script
d) Filter
17) CYC is a very large knowledge base project aimed at capturing human
________ Knowledge.
a) Commonsense b) Doman
c) Inference
d) Intelligence
18) Frames are used to represents a mental model of a __________ situation.
a) Logical
b) Mathematical
c) Stereotypical
d) None
19) The first expert system to be completed was DENDRAL developed at Stanford
University in the late __________
a) 1930
b) 1980
c) 1940
d) 1960
20) ___________ is one of the knowledge system building tool.
a) KEE
b) KAE
c) KKE
d) KAP
______________

Set A

*SLRKM245*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 245

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :

20

1) What is AI ? Explain all task domains of AI.


2) Explain criteria for success in AI with an example.
3) Discuss Heuristic search technique in AI.
4) Explain constraint satisfaction algorithm.
5) Explain frame problem in knowledge representation.
6) Explain best first search algorithm with suitable example.
3. What is production system ? Also explain Breadth first search and Depth first
search algorithm along with their advantages.

10

OR
What is AI technique ? Explain the algorithm of three programs to play Tic-Tac-Toe
problem.

10

4. Explain Water-Jug problem in detail along with its all production rules.

10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :

20

1) Write a short note on Bayesian network.


2) Explain representation of simple facts in predicate logic along with examples.

Set A

SLR-KM 245

-4-

*SLRKM245*

3) Explain all characteristic features of expert system in details.


4) Explain logic for non monotonic reasoning in details.
5) Explain conceptual dependency and scripts in slot and filter structures of AI.
6) Explain matching knowledge representation techniques.
6. Explain semantic nets and frames slot and filter structures in details along with
examples of each.

10
OR

Explain rule based system architecture along with its block diagram in expert system. 10
7. Explain procedural versus declarative knowledge in knowledge representation
techniques. Also explain matching.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 246

*SLRKM246*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATABASE ENGINEERING (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Relational algebra is
A) Data Definition Language
C) Procedural query Language

B) Meta Language
D) None of the above

2) In a relation
A) Ordering of rows is immaterial
C) A) and B) both are true

B) No two rows are identical


D) None of these

3) Which of the following operation is used relational algebra if we are interested in


only certain columns of a table ?
A) PROJECTION B) SELECTION C) UNION
D) JOIN
4) Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL ?
A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE
B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE
C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY = NULL
D) None of the above
5) Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship ?
A) Passive and active
B) Total and partial
C) Simple and complex
D) All of the above
6) Which of the following database object does not physically exist ?
A) Base table
B) Index
C) View
D) None of the above
7) ____________ is DDL statement in SQL.
A) Create
B) Alter
C) Drop

D) All

8) Following is not aggregate function in SQL.


A) COUNT
B) AVG
C) MIN

D) TOTAL
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 246

*SLRKM246*

-2-

9) Candidate key is subset of _________________


A) super key
B) primary key
C) both A) and B) D) none
10) Functional dependency is a relationship between _____________
A) attributes of same relation
B) attributes of different relation
C) two entities
D) all
11) ______________ is not concurrency control mechanism.
A) Lock based protocol
B) Timestamp based protocol
C) Log based mechanism
D) Validation based protocol
12) Commit log record is written when _____________ block is updated.
A) buffer
B) disk
C) both A) and B) D) none
13) In growing phase ________________
A) locks are granted and released
B) locks are neither granted nor released
C) locks are granted but not released
D) locks are released but not granted
14) ____________ locks are applied on parent when descendant of node is locked in
shared mode.
A) Shared
B) Exclusive
C) Intention shared
D) Intention exclusive
15) In ____________ indexing, search keys are distributed uniformly across bucket.
A) ordered indices
B) hash indices
C) B+ tree
D) all
16) Following is true for B+ tree
A) All paths from root to leaf are of the same length
B) Each node that is not a root or a leaf has between [n/2] and n children
C) A leaf node has between [(n 1)/2] and n 1 values
D) All of the above
17) Following is true for 2PL
A) deadlock cant occur
C) both A) and B)

B) cascaded roll back can occur


D) none

18) In rigorous 2PL _____________ locks are released after commit.


A) shared
B) exclusive
C) both A) and B)
D) none
19) Time stamps are generated by _____________
A) datetime value in clock
B) global counter
C) both A) and B)
D) none
20) Redo is applied on transaction when _________________
A) commit record present in log
B) abort record present in log
C) commit record not present in log
D) abort record not represent in log

______________
Set A

*SLRKM246*

-3-

SLR-KM 246

Seat
No.

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATABASE ENGINEERING (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :


(45=20)
1) Explain relational algebra notations for select, project, Cartesian product.
2) Which clause In SQL avoid duplicate values for columns. Explain use of group by
and having clause.
3) What is foreign key ? Explain referenced and referencing relation.
4) List and explain different keys used in database design.
5) Explain any 5 advantages of DBMS over conventional file system.
6) Explain concept of view.
3. Explain 1NF, 2NF, 3NF with appropriate example.
OR
Explain ER notations, draw ER diagram for college administration system.

10

4. Explain aggregate functions and different joins in SQL with appropriate example.

10

10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain dense indexes with appropriate example.


2) Explain timestamp mechanism.
3) Write a note on shadow paging.
4) Explain deadlock occurrence in lock based protocol.
5) Write a note on tree based protocol.
6) Write a note on intention locks.
6. Explain types of failure. Discuss dumping mechanism to deal with loss of
nonvolatile storage.
OR
Explain 2 phase locking along with strict and rigorous 2PL.

10

7. Explain log based recovery mechanism.

10

_____________________

10

Set A

Set A

*SLRKM247*

SLR-KM 247

Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


COMPILER CONSTRUCTION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(120=20)
1) Keeping track of the numbers is a task of
a) Syntax analyzer
b) Lexical analyzer
c) Semantic analyzer
d) None of the above
2) What is true about regular expression ?
a) It is used to represent the pattern
b) It consists of or, concatenation and Kleene closure
c) It is represented by a finite automata
d) All of the above
3) Choose the correct statement
a) DFA does not simulate NFA
b) DFA simulates NFA
c) DFA sometimes simulate NFA
d) Simulation of DFA to NFA depends upon the NFA
4) What is the token for the lexeme core dumped ?
a) Keywords
b) Literals
c) Identifiers
d) Sentinels
5) Left factoring is the process of factoring out common
a) Suffixes of alternatives
b) Symbols appearing anywhere in the rule
c) Prefixes of alternatives
d) None of the above
6) FOLLOW (A) is a if
a) S aA
b) S Aa
c) S aA
d) S aA
7) Choose the correct statement
a) SLR LR(1) LALR
c) SLR LALR LR(1)
8) Inherited attribute is computed at
a) Child node of the parse tree
c) Sibling node of the parse tree

b) SLR LL(1) LALR


d) LL(1) LALR SLR
b) Parent node of the parse tree
d) Both b and c
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 247

-2-

*SLRKM247*

9) For deciding the evaluation order from the dependency graph


a) Topological sort is used
b) Quick sort is used
c) Bubble sort is used
d) Heap sort is used
10) Functions in semantic rule will often the written as
a) Program code
b) Expression
c) Production rule
d) None of the above
11) The last phase of compilation is
a) Lexical analysis
b) Syntax analysis
c) Code generation
d) Error handling
12) Code optimization is used to
a) Increase the execution efficiency
b) Decrease run time for first compilation
c) Used to run code on different machine
d) None of these
13) A pictorial representation of the value computed by each statement in the basic
block is
a) Tree
b) DAG
c) Graph
d) None of the above
14) ________ is a graph representation of a derivation.
a) The parse tree
b) The binary tree
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
15) Input to code generator
a) Source code
b) Intermediate code
c) Target code
d) All of the above
16) An intermediate code form is
a) Postfix notation
b) Syntax trees
c) Three address code
d) All of the above
17) Running time of the program depends on
a) The way, register and addressing modes are used
b) The order in which computations are performed
c) The usage of machine idioms
d) All of these
18) Reduction of the strength of expression means
a) Replacing run time computation by compile time computation
b) Replacing costly operation by relatively cheaper one
c) Removing loop invariant computation
d) Both a and b
19) Implicit allocation stands for
a) Allocation does by programmer
b) Allocation does by run time support package
c) Allocation does by user
d) None of above
20) Which field is not present in activation record ?
a) Saved machine status
b) Optional control link
c) Procedure name
d) Temporaries
______________

Set A

*SLRKM247*

SLR-KM 247

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


COMPILER CONSTRUCTION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain intermediate code generation and code generation of compilation. Give


the translation process for the statement below
Var P, N,R,I : real
I = P*N*R/100;
b) Draw and explain transition diagrams for relational operators, identifiers and
unsigned num.
c) Let G be the following grammar.
S iEtSS|a
S eS|
Eb
Justify the grammar is LL(1) or not.
d) Explain shift-reduce parsing using stack with suitable example.
e) Describe the construction of dependency graph to show the interdependencies
among the inherited and synthesized attributes.
3. Attempt any one :
a) What are S-attributed definitions for syntax directed translations ? Illustrate the
Bottom-up evaluation of these with the help of suitable example.
b) Describe the designing of Lexical analyzer generator in detail.

10

4. Explain the FIRST and FOLLOW functions. Construct the predictive parsing table for
the following grammar.
10
E TE, E +TE|

, T FT, T *FT|

, F (E)|id

Set A

SLR-KM 247

-4-

*SLRKM247*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :
a) Write a short note on DAG representation of basic blocks.

(54=20)

b) Explain peephole optimization technique.


c) Explain code motion and strength reduction with example.
d) Explain types of three-address statements.
e) Explain division of run time memory in storage organization.
6. Attempt any one :

10

a) What are the issues in the design of code generator elaborate it in detail.
b) Explain code generation algorithm and explain role of function getreg in it.
7. What is back patching ? Explain back patching for Boolean expression.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 248

*SLRKM248*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :


(201=20)
1) _____________ is having lower priority according to processor execution level.
a) Software interrupts
b) Machine errors
c) Clock
d) Network devices
2) ___________ symbol is used to transfer the output of one command as input to
other command in bash.
a) >
b) <
c) |
d) 2 >
3) The kernel finds the block on the hash queue but its buffer is currently busy, indicates
b) 2nd Scenario
c) 4th Scenario
d) 5th Scenario
a) 1st Scenario
4) Consider following statements :
S1 : in scenario one of getblk, block is not present on hash queue.
S2 : is scenario four of getblk, block is present on hash queue.
a) both are true
b) only S2 is true c) only S1 is true d) both are false
5) Which of the following is not kernel data structure of file ?
a) Inode table
b) File tables
c) User file descriptor table
d) U area
6) Syntax for mknode syscall is __________
a) mknode (path, type and permission, dev)
b) mknode (file, permission)
c) mknode (path, type)
d) mknode (path, dev)
7) Identify the correct sequence of interrupt levels according to increasing priority.
a) machine error, clock, disk, net devices, terminal, s/w interrupts
b) s/w interrupts, terminal, net devices, disk, clock, machine error
c) machine error, net devices, terminal, s/w interrupts, clock, disk
d) net devices, s/w interrupts, disk, clock, machine error, terminal
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 248

*SLRKM248*

-2-

8) Shell interprets the first word of command line as a ___________


a) as a parameter
b) command name
c) library call
d) system call
9) The kernel uses _________ Algorithm to allocate known inode.
a) iget
b) ialloc
c) allloc
d) namei
10) Which is not the function of clock interrupt handler ?
a) restart the clock
b) keep track of time
c) control process scheduling
d) set a global kernel variable
11) The process executed the exit system call and enters in _________ state.
a) Sleeping
b) Preempted
c) Zombie
d) Ready to run
12) The memory management hardware divides physical memory into set of equal
sized blocks called __________
a) Region
b) P region
c) Pages
d) Offset
13) __________contains the virtual addresses for text, data and stack regions.
a) Page table
b) P region table c) File table
d) Inode table
14) Following is not part of static system level context of a process.
a) stack
b) process table entry
c) u-area
d) per process region table
15) __________ is commonly called in it because it is responsible for initialization of
new process.
a) Process 0
b) Process 1
c) Process 2
d) None
16) Algorithm Xalloc is used to __________
a) allocate disk block
b) allocate inode
c) allocate data region
d) allocate text region
17) The process calls the __________ system call to arrange to catch interrupt signals.
a) catch
b) sigcatcher
c) signal
d) issig
18) A ___________ is an Array where each entry consists of an address of an
allocatable resource and the number of resource units available there.
a) map
b) list
c) table
d) page table
19) Re-startable instruction must be supported by hardware for __________
a) Demmand Paging
b) Exception
c) Fork
d) Trap
20) Age of a page means __________
a) its swap count
c) its context switch count

b) its reference count


d) memory size

______________

Set A

*SLRKM248*

-3-

SLR-KM 248

Seat
No.

T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Processes running in kernel mode cannot be preempted by other processes. Why ?
2) List scenario of getblk algorithm.
3) Explain creat system call.
4) What will be the output of below given commands ? Describe.
1) who

2) who &

3) cd/usr/src/uts

4) cd ../..
5) Who am i
5) Describe mount system call.
6) List the fields present in in-core inode.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain Open system all and its algorithm in detail. Which data structures are
manipulated after Open system call ?
2) To keep the inode structure small yet and still allow large files. How disk blocks
are arranged in System V Unix System ?
3) Draw and explain the block diagram of the system kernel.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) In which cases kernel removes the entries for sticky-bit text regions ?
2) Write the sequence of operations done by kernel for handling the interrupt.
3) Write the syntax for wait system call and list the cases, how process responds if
signal is death of child.
4) What is terminal driver ? List functions of line discipline.
5) Write short note on accounting and statistics in scheduling.
6) Write short note on protection fault Handler.

Set A

SLR-KM 248

-4-

*SLRKM248*

5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain how swapper swaps processes into memory from swap devices.
2) Describe in detail the algorithm used for recognizing the signals (also issig) and
the algorithm for handling the signals (algo psig).
3) Describe driver Interfaces with Driver Entry Points.
_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 249

*SLRKM249*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) SCM is discipline for
a) Identifying and defining the items in the system
b) Controlling the changes in items.
c) Recording and reporting the status of items
d) All of the above

Marks : 20
(201=20)

2) The complete module is tested by ______ testing.


a) System testing
b) Module testing
c) Unit testing
d) Acceptance testing
3) In Data Dictionary, repetition represented by _______ sign.
a) +
b) |
c) /
d) *
4) Which model is used for cost estimation ?
a) Waterfall model
b) Spiral model
c) COCOMO
d) EAF
5) Black box testing is also called
a) Behavioral testing
b) Structural testing
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
6) Internal logic of a programme is tested using
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Both
d) None of the above
7) In CMM, ___________ level focus on continuously improvement in process.
a) Initial level
b) Optimizing level
c) Manage level
d) Repeatable level

P.T.O.

SLR- KM 249

-2-

*SLRKM249*

8) MAOs (most abstract o/p data element) mince


a) Starts from the o/p in the DFD and travelling toward the i/p
b) Starts from i/p and travelling towards the o/p
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
9) In testing level first level of testing is called as ______
a) Unit testing
b) Acceptance testing
c) System testing
d) Integration testing
10) S/W testing is nothing else but
a) Verification only
b) Validation only
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
11) KPA stands for
a) Key process area
b) Key product area
c) Key principal area
d) None of the above
12) In DFD external records/files are shown by
a) Rectangle
b) Circle
c) Arrow
d) Labelled straight line
13) The most mandatory task in project work is
a) Closing
b) Implementation
c) Controlling
d) Planning
14) ___________ Module perform the function of more than one type of modules.
a) Composite module
b) Co-ordinate module
c) Transform module
d) I/P and O/P module
15) Which of the following is not a characteristic for testability ?
a) Operability
b) Robustness c) Observability d) Simplicity
16) LOC stands for ____________
a) Line Of Code
b) Line Of Composite
c) Line Of Compiler
d) All of the above
17) In Adaptive PMLC model, ASD means ____________
a) Agile Structure Development
b) Adaptive Software Design
c) Agile Software Design
d) Adaptive Software Development
18) The aim of static analysis is to detect _________
a) Worning
b) Linkers
c) Error
d) None of these
19) Following is one of the characteristics of Effective Adaptive PMLC model.
a) Iterative structure
b) Rigid structure
c) Non iterative structure
d) Critical structure
20) What information does data dictionary contain ?
a) Data type
b) Interface
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Set A
______________

*SLRKM249*

-3-

SLR- KM 249

Seat
No.

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain characteristics of software process in detail.


b) Explain Prototyping Model in Software developing process.
c) Explain DFD in detail with example.
d) Explain Requirement Process in detail.
e) Explain UML diagram in object oriented design. Explain class diagram with
example.
f) Explain Process Database.
3. Attempt any one :
1) Explain structure design methodology in detail.

10

OR
2) Which are different effort estimation techniques used in S/W engg. ?
4. Write a short note on (any two) :

10
(25=10)

a) Cohesion and coupling.


b) Team structure.
c) COCOMO model.

Set A

SLR- KM 249

-4-

*SLRKM249*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain Risk Management in detail.


b) What are the different characteristics and strengths of effective Adaptive
Project Management Life cycle model in Agile Project Management ?
c) Explain level of testing.
d) Explain CMM in detail.
e) Write a short note on Test plan in testing process.
f) What is SEPG in project ?
6. Explain Adaptive Project Management Life Cycle of Agile project Management in
detail.

10
OR

Explain the review process in detail in project execution and closure.


7. Explain Black-Box Testing in detail.

10
10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 250

*SLRKM250*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015
MOBILE COMPUTING (New)

Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Waves in the ______________ range are used by submarines.


a) LF
b) HF
c) MF

d) SW

2) In ______________ two or more antennas combined to improve reception by counteracting


the negative effects of multi path propagation.
a) Multidirectional antenna arrays
b) Multiple antenna arrays
c) Multi element antenna arrays
d) Multiswitched antenna arrays
3) Ground waves are
a) < 2 MHz

b) < 1 MHz

c) < 3 MHz

d) < 4 MHz

4) ___________ takes place due to finite speed of light, signals travelling along different
paths with different lengths arrive at the receiver at different times.
a) Delay light
b) Delay spread
c) Delay interference
d) Delay length
5) The time spend on a channel with a certain frequency is called
a) Dwell time
b) Hopping time
c) Idle time

d) Decision time

6) Only one terminal can be active in one cell/one sector is true for
a) TDMA
b) SDMA
c) FDMA
d) CDMA
7) Spread the spectrum using orthogonal codes, this idea is used in
a) CDMA
b) TDMA
c) SDMA
d) FDMA
8) RSS comprises
a) MS

b) BSS

c) a) and b)

d) None

9) ________________ is used for initial connection setup between MS and BTS.


a) Dummy burst
b) Access burst
c) Frequency burst
d) Synchronization burst
10) IEEE 802.11 a operates on
a) 5 GHz
b) 6 GHz

c) 7 GHz

d) 8 GHz
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 250

*SLRKM250*

-2-

11) ______________ has identified networked microsensor technology as a key application


for the future.
a) MANET
b) DARPA
c) TDMA
d) FDMA
12) ________________ defines the current location of MN from IP point of view.
a) COA
b) FA
c) HA
d) IP
13) In triangular routing, triangle is made up of
a) CN to HA
b) HA to COA/MN c) MN back to CN

d) All

14) Solutions of IP micro mobility are


a) Cellular IP
b) Hawaii

d) All of the above

c) HMIPv6

15) _______________ splits TCP connection, chokes sender via window size.
a) MTCP
b) Indirect TCP
c) Snooping TCP
d) None of the above
16) Main () is a entry point for any Android app.
a) True
b) False
17) DHCP stands for
a) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
c) Dynamic Hub Configuration Protocol

b) Dynamic Host Control Protocol


d) Dynamic Host Centric Protocol

18) Android defines its own RPC/IPC mechanism as


a) Glinder
b) Blinder
c) Binder
19) IEEE 802.11a is popularly known as
a) Wifi
c) IEEE 802.11b

d) Ginder

b) Wireless communication
d) None of above

20) HiperLAN2 is a standard of


a) Wireless LAN
b) WPAN
c) Micro mobility
______________

d) All of above

Set A

*SLRKM250*

-3-

SLR-KM 250

Seat
No.

T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MOBILE COMPUTING (New)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
a) Write short note on AM, FM, PM.
b) Differentiate among 1G, 2G, 3G, 4G.
c) Explain the term signals.
d) How MACA avoids problem of exposed terminals ?
e) List various Bluetooth core protocols. Explain them with suitable diagram.

(45=20)

3. What is multiplexing ? List the dimensions in which multiplexing can be carried out. Explain
types of multiplexing with examples.

10

OR
Explain functional architecture of GSM system with suitable diagram.
4. What is WPAN ? List various WPAN systems. Explain any two in detail.

10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) What is mobile IP ? Explain with suitable diagram.


b) Explain in brief DHCP with suitable diagram.
c) What is Hawaii ? Why is it used ? Give and discuss its basic architecture.
d) Write short note on mechanisms of TCP that influence the efficiency of TCP in mobile
environment.
e) Write short note on optimizations in mobile IP.
6. Discuss in brief features, characteristics, hardware requirements and architecture of Android
OS.
10
OR
Which are the classical enhancements to TCP for mobility ? Explain any three in detail.
7. What is NFC ? How RFID and NFC are related ? Give and discuss general architecture of NFC
enabled phones.
10
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 251A

*SLRKM251A*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015
SELF LEARNING (Network Setup and Management Tools)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book Page No. 3.


Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :

10

1) Which of the following is NOT network connection device ?


a) Hubs

b) Switch

c) Router

d) Adapter

2) Fault Management includes


a) Fault identification and isolation
b) Event correlation
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
3) Which of the following is mainly required to perform encryption ?
a) secret key

b) session key

c) digital signature

d) none

4) Which of the following is NOT Cryptographic Algorithm ?


a) RSA

b) Diffie-Hellman

c) Clefia

d) None of the above

5) Which of the following is used to create robust web site through Java platform ?
a) Servlet

b) Strut

c) JSP

d) All the above

6) Which of the following is most prominent types of network ?


a) Datagram

b) TCP/IP network

c) Packet-switched network

d) None

7) Which of following filters the unwanted information ?


a) Firewall

b) Trojen-Horse

c) Logic Bomb

d) All the above


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 251A

*SLRKM251A*

-2-

8) The engine of any database management system lies at


a) front end

b) back end

c) middleware

d) none of above

9) SOA from the web service is


a) Service Oriented Architecture

b) Set Oriented Architecture

c) Both a and b

d) None

10) Which of following protocol works at application layer ?


a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) DHCP

d) None of above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM251A*

-3-

SLR-KM 251A

Seat
No.

T.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015
SELF LEARNING (Network Setup and Management Tools)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Solve any four from following :

Marks : 40

(104=40)

2. What is fault management ? Explain fault detection and fault location.


3. Explain in detail, event correlation techniques.
4. Discuss the functions of NIC with its selection procedure.
5. Write a short note on :
i) Virtual LAN
ii) Layer-3 switch.
6. Write a short note on :
i) auto discovery
ii) application of network management.
7. Explain with neat diagram, network management architecture.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 251C

*SLRKM251C*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (TECHNICAL) COMPUTER MODELING AND
SIMULATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :

10

1) Simulation model uses mathematical expressions and logical relationship of the


a) Real system
b) Computer model
c) Performance measures
d) Estimated inferences
2) In order to verify a simulation model
a) Compare results from several simulation languages
b) Be sure that the procedures for calculations are logically correct
c) Confirm that the model accurately represents the real system
d) Run the model long enough to overcome initial start-up results
3) Simulation
a) Does not guarantee optimality
b) Is flexible and does not require the assumptions of theoretical models
c) Allows testing of the system without affecting the real system
d) All of the alternatives are correct
4) Network simulator (NS2) is written in
a) C++
b) OTcl
c) JAVA
d) Both C++ and OTcl
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 251C

*SLRKM251C*

-2-

5) To run an OTcl Script, type


a) ns ex-tcl.tcl

b) tcl ex-tcl.tcl

c) both a) and b)

d) ex-tcl.tcl

6) Which of the following are advantages of simulation ?


a) simulation allows what-if type of question
b) simulation can usually be performed by hand or using a small calculator
c) simulation does not interfere with the real-world system
d) a) and c) only
7) In Network Simulator, which node used as default node
a) Multicast node

b) Unicast node

c) Both a) and b)

d) Single node

8) The first step in simulation is to


a) set up possible courses of action for testing
b) construct a numerical model
c) validate the model
d) define the problem
9) To simulate is to try to _____________ the features, appearance and
characteristics of a real system.
a) Develop

b) Duplicate

c) Analyze

d) Multiply

10) In discrete system changes are


a) Predominantly continuous
c) Depend on the system

b) Predominantly discrete

d) None of the above


______________

Set A

*SLRKM251C*

-3-

SLR-KM 251C

Seat
No.

T.E. (C.S.E.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (TECHNICAL) COMPUTER MODELING AND
SIMULATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

2. Attempt any four (each 10 marks) :


1) Explain the steps in simulation study, with the flow chart.
2) Write scenario for TCP and UDP with example.
3) What is queue monitor ? Types of queue monitor with an example.
4) Write short note on the following :
a) Advantages and disadvantages of simulation.
b) Differentiate between continuous and discrete systems.
5) Explain discrete random variables and continuous random variables with
example.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 252

*SLRKM252*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicates full marks.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Actual Hazard and length of any stall is a property of a


a) Pipeline organization
b) Pipeline
c) Program
d) None of the above
2) Dependencies flows through ___________ are more difficult.
a) Registers
b) Memory
c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

3) Register renaming done statically by


a) Hardware
b) Software

d) None of the above

c) Pipeline

4) To allow out-of-order execution __________ pipeline stage is modified.


a) IF
b) EX
c) ID
d) WB
5) Tomasulos approach used by
a) Intel
b) PowerPC

c) IBM 360/91

d) None of the above

6) Delayed Branch is example of __________ branch prediction.


a) Dynamic
b) Static
c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

7) Success Tate of one-bit prediction scheme is


a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 80%

d) 90%

8) _________ is a technique to allow the execution of instruction before the control


dependencies are resolved.
a) Static scheduling
b) Dynamic scheduling
c) Speculation
d) None of the above
9) Which among following is not a multi-issue processor
a) Statically scheduled superscalar
b) Dynamically scheduled superscalar
c) VLIW
d) None of the above
10) Notation of convoy in time metric is
a) Lanes
b) Chime

c) VLR

d) None of the above


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 252

*SLRKM252*

-2-

11) In tightly coupled systems, the microprocessors share


a) common clock
b) bus control logic
c) common clock and bus control logic
d) none of the mentioned
12) The principal characteristics of a multiprocessor system is the ability of each
processor to share a set of
a) Main memory module
b) I/O devices
c) Both main memory module and I/O devices
d) None of the above
13) Communication between processors using a common system bus and common
memory takes place in
a) loosely coupled system
b) tightly coupled system
c) tightly and loosely coupled system
d) none of the mentioned
14) The simplest interconnection system for multiple processors is a
a) Common communication path
b) Time shared bus
c) Common bus
d) All of the above
15) The disadvantage of loosely coupled system is
a) complex due to additional hardware
b) less portable
c) more expensive
d) all of the mentioned
16) Which of the following issue is identified by Jack Dennis towards the development of an
ideal architecture for future computers ?
a) To achieve a high performance/cost ratio
b) To match the ratio with technological progress
c) To offer better programmability in application areas
d) All of the above
17) __________ operators are used to represent conditional or iterative computation in data
flow graphs.
a) Deciders
b) Gates
c) Merge
d) All of them
18) __________ network delivers data tokens from the processing section to the memory
section.
a) Arbitration
b) Control
c) Distribution
d) All of them
19) COMA model is a special case of a
a) UMA
c) Both UMA and NUMA

b) NUMA
d) None of these

20) Which of the following model is integrated cryptographic architecture ?


a) IBM ES/9000
b) Sequent symmetry S-81
c) BBN TC 2000
d) None of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM252*

-3-

SLR-KM 252

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain sparse matrices for vector performance enhancement.


b) Explain conditionally executed statements for vector performance enhancement.
c) Explain Chaining technique for vector performance enhancement.
d) Explain how to remove anti-dependencies with suitable example.
e) Explain effectiveness of compiler vectorization.
3. Explain basic compiler support for exploring ILP with suitable example.

10

OR
3. Explain idea of dynamic scheduling in detail.

10

4. Explain vector execution time along with suitable example.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 252

-4-

*SLRKM252*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) With neat diagram, explain a cluster of computer module.


2) With neat diagram, explain dynamic dataflow computer organization.
3) With neat diagram, explain UMA multiprocessor model.
4) Compare the shared and distributed memory architecture.
5) Write note on Interrupt Signal Interconnection Network (ISIN) of tightly coupled
multiprocessor.
6. Attempt any one :

(101=10)

1) With neat diagram, explain static data flow computer architecture.


2) Explain the operators and links used in construction of data flow graph. Draw the data
flow graph for the computation of
U = f(A, B) = (A (A + B) (A + B)/B)/(A (A + B) (A + B))
7. With neat diagram, explain the steps in an intracluster memory access.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 253

*SLRKM253*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DISTRIBUTED SYSTEMS (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :


1) _____________ is an idempotent operation.
a) Getsqrt(64)
b) Read_next_record(filename)
c) Increment(varname)
d) Append_record(filename, record)
2) ________________ Semantic should be used for application making a request to a booking
server to cancel an already booked seat.
a) At-least-once
b) Exactly-once
c) Last-one
d) None of the above
3) An efficient mechanism used to cope with the problem of lost and out-of-sequence packets
in multidatagram messages is
a) Stop-and-wait
b) BLAST protocol
c) Selective repeat
d) CBCAST protocol
4) ____________ Semantics is used in application where response message from callee is
not important for the caller and it operates in LAN where there is high probability of
successful transmission of messages.
a) May-be Call
b) Last-One Call
c) At-Least-Once
d) Exactly-Once
5) Indirect call method is used in
a) Binding at compile time
c) Binding at call time

b) Binding at link time


d) None of the above

6) ______________ ensures that every message sent to a group of receivers will be delivered
to either all of them or none of them.
a) Consistency
b) Isolation
c) Automicity
d) Reliability
7) If the system is to be designed to tolerate k byzantine failures, a minimum of ____________
replicas are needed.
a) K
b) k + 1
c) k + 2
d) 2k + 1
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 253

*SLRKM253*

-2-

8) _____________ servers make crash recovery very easy.


a) Stateless servers
b) Stateful server
c) Neither a) or b)
d) Both a) and b)
9) __________ feature of message-passing system ensures that messages will be delivered
correctly despite partial failure of processes, machines or communication links.
a) Correctness
b) Reliability
c) Efficiency
d) Flexibility
10) RPCs consume ___________ time than local procedure call.
a) 10 to 100 times more
b) 100 to 1000 times more
c) 1 to 10 times more
d) None of the above
11) Which of the following method are commonly used for deadlock prevention ?
a) Collective request b) Ordered request c) Re-emption
d) All of the above
12) A computer clock consist _____________ component.
a) Quartz crystal
b) Counter register c) Constant register d) All of the above
13) Mutual exclusion algorithm must ensure
a) No starvation
c) Data encryption

b) Parallel processing
d) None of the above

14) _____________ are design goal and features of Amobe,s.


a) Parallel programming support
b) Small Kernel approach
c) High performance
d) All of the above
15) Which of the following design principles are useful for better performance of the distributes
system ?
a) Batch if possible
b) Cache whenever possible
c) Minimize copying of data
d) All of the above
16) In the file caching scheme what is the advantage of having cache location in the server
main memory ?
a) Support Unix-like file sharing semantics
b) Easy to keep both cached data and original file consistent
c) Both a) and b)
d) Reliability against crashes
17) Cache can be located on _______________ location in distributed system.
a) Server main memory
b) Client disk
c) Client main memory
d) All of the above
18) The process of converting a particular machine representation to external data
representation is called as
a) Serializing
b) Deserializing
c) Encoding
d) None of the above
19) Process migration in heterogeneous system can be achieved by
a) Internal data representation
b) External data representation
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
20) In process migration coprocesses can be handled by
a) Disallowing separation of coprocess
b) Home node or origin site concept
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

______________
Set A

*SLRKM253*

-3-

SLR-KM 253

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DISTRIBUTED SYSTEMS (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Answer any four :

20

a) Explain the difference between distributed operating system and network operating system.
b) What is buffering ? Explain finite buffering strategy.
c) Explain server implementation of RPC mechanism.
d) What is causal ordering of messages ? Explain this concept with diagram.
e) Explain correctness feature of the message passing systems.
3. Answer any one :

10

a) What is RPC ? Explain how the Client-Server binding takes place in RPC.
b) Explain the following with respect to one-to-many communication :
i) Group Management
ii) Flexible reliability in multicast communication
4. What is call semantics in RPC ? Explain different types of call semantics and
give example for each.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 253

-4-

*SLRKM253*

SECTION II
5. Solve the following (any four) :

(45=20)

A) Explain centralized mutual exclusion algorithm.


B) What are features of good process migration ?
C) Explain the bully election algorithm.
D) Explain file sharing semantics in distributed file systems.
E) Sketch and explain the UNIX emulation in mach.
F) Explain different thread model.
6. Solve any two :

(101=10)

A) What are design goals for chorus ? Sketch and explain the chorus system architecture.
B) What are the desirable features of good process migration mechanism ? Explain in
detail.
7. Explain in detail the file-caching scheme in distributed file system.

(101=10)

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 254

*SLRKM254*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Computer Science & Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015
NETWORKS SECURITY (Old)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) The _________ is the only cryptosystem that exhibits what is referred to as perfect secrecy.
A) Rotor Machine
B) Steganography C) One-time Pad
D) Caesar cipher
2) ___________ is a technique for hiding a secret message within a large one in such a way
that other cannot discuss the presence or content of hidden message.
A) Rotor machine
B) Birthday attack
C) Steganography
D) Man in middle attack
3) Masquerade is passive attack
A) True
B) False
4) Trying every possible key until an intelligible translation of the ciphertext into plaintext is
obtained is called
A) Transposition
B) Substitution
C) Brute force attack D) Notarization
5) In DES what is the key size in bits for one Fiestal round out of 16 rounds ?
A) 64
B) 56
C) 48
D) 32
6) If a sender encrypts message with his private key then it achieves the purpose of
A) Only confidentiality
B) Confidentiality and sender authentication
C) Receiver Authentication
D) None of the above
7) ______________ appears to offer equal security for a smaller key size, thereby reducing
processing overhead.
A) RSA
B) CAST
C) Diffie-Hellman
D) ECC
8) ___________ is function of all bits in a message and does not use key.
A) MAC
B) Hashcode
C) DSS
D) Blinding
9) Authentication Technique involves the use of ___________ to generate MAC.
A) Public key
B) Secret key
C) Public and secret key
D) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 254

*SLRKM254*

-2-

10) Direct digital signature refers to a digital signature scheme that involves
A) Destination and third party
B) Source, destination and third party
C) Only source and destination
D) Source and third party
11) In PGP services, SHA-1 is used to generate ______________ bit hash code.
A) 56
B) 64
C) 160
D) 256
12) In Kerberos version 5, for encryption RSA algorithm can be used
A) True
B) False
13) Playfair cipher is a
A) Monoalphabetic cipher
C) Multiletter transposition cipher

B) Polyalphabetic cipher
D) Monoalphabetic transposition cipher

14) Each block of 64 plaintext bits is encoded independently using the same key is
____________ block cipher mode of operation.
A) CTR
B) CFB
C) CBC
D) ECB
15) __________ is an open encryption and security specification designed to protect credit
card transaction on internet.
A) SSL
B) TLS
C) SET
D) SMTP
16) A security association is uniquely identified by _______________ parameters.
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
17) The SSL Record Protocol provides
A) Confidentiality
C) Neither A nor B

B) Message integrity
D) Both A and B

18) In transport mode ESP protocol of IPSec


A) IP header is protected
C) IP payload is encrypted

B) IP header is not protected


D) Both B and C

19) Salt value used in


A) Encryption
C) SET

B) Confidentiality
D) Password Management

20) A firewall act as a packet filter


A) True
B) False
______________

Set A

*SLRKM254*

-3-

SLR-KM 254

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science & Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


NETWORKS SECURITY (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Write answer to any four questions.

(45=20)

A) Using rail fence technique encipher the message Solapur University.


B) Using Stream cipher prepare ciphertext (ci) for plaintext (pi = 01110000) and cryptographic
bit stream (ki = 01101011).
C) Explain passive attacks.
D) Explain Diffie Hellman key exchange.
E) Draw the block diagram of cryptographic hash function and describe in short its general
operation.
3. Write answer to any one of the following questions :

(110=10)

A) Explain with diagram single round of DES algorithm.


B) Explain with diagram general approach of RSA processing of multiple blocks.
4. Explain with diagram the simplified depiction of essential elements of digital signature process.
(110=10)
SECTION II

5. Write answer to any four questions :

(45=20)

A) When X.509 standard based public key certificate is revoked. And what is the format of
revocation list ?
B) What is S/MIME ? List the functions provided by S/MIME.
C) What are the benefits of using IPSec ?
D) What is HTTPS ? List the elements of the communication which are encrypted.
E) List and briefly define three classes of intruders.

Set A

SLR-KM 254

-4-

*SLRKM254*

6. Write answer to any one of the following questions :

10

A) By drawing time line diagram and explain four phases of SSL handshake protocol actions
in establishing initial logical connection between client and server computer.
B) What is Kerberos realm ? Draw the diagram for Kerberos inter-realm authentication service.
7. What is computer virus ? Which are the three parts of a computer virus ? Which are those four
phases of a typical virus that it goes through during in its life time ? What are the categories
of a virus classification based on the target it affects ?

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 255

*SLRKM255*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN (Elective I) (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :

20

1) __________ represent roles of object participating in association.


a) Multiplicity
b) End name
c) Ordering
d) None
2) State of object is __________
a) Set of values affecting gross behavior of object
b) Interval between two events
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
3) State diagram for operating system can be classified into
a) One shot state diagram
b) Looping state diagram
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
4) Attributes common to all classes are called as
a) Class attributes
b) Metadata
c) Constraint
d) None
5) Process in functional model can corresponds to __________ in class diagram.
a) Responsibilities
b) Operations
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
6) __________ is a type of constraint.
a) Multiplicity
b) Ordered

c) General

d) All

7) _________ is not element of dfd.


a) Data store
b) Process

c) Data flow

d) State
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 255

-2-

*SLRKM255*

8) Multiplicity between country to capital and country to states are


a) 1-1 and 1-1
b) 1-m and 1-1 c) 1-m and 1-m d) 1-1 and 1-m
9) Aggregation represent _________ relationship.
a) Parent child
b) Part whole
c) Whole part

d) None

10) _________ is a grouping construct.


a) Module
b) Sheet
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
11) Making element in package public is called as _________ mechanism.
a) Import
b) Export
c) Both
d) None
12) Concrete manifestation of abstraction is called __________
a) Instance
b) Object
c) Node
d) None
13) Communication within objects in timely order of messages can be indicated
by _______
a) Sequence diagram
b) Collaboration diagram
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
14) __________ relationship can exist between two or more than two actors of
use case diagram.
a) Association
b) Generalization
c) Dependency
d) None
15) _________ represent light weight flow control within system.
a) Thread
b) Process
c) Messages
d) Passive object
16) Message passing mechanism where caller send signal and continue to
independent path is called __________
a) Mailbox semantics
b) Synchronous message passing
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
17) _________ represent physically replaceable part of system.
a) Node
b) Component
c) Class
d) Interface
18) Connection between object and activity in activity diagram is called ________
a) Control flow
b) Process flow c) Object flow
d) None
19) __________ is element existing at run time, having processing power and
memory.
a) Component
b) Node
c) Class
d) None
20) _________ is not common mechanism in UML.
a) Adornment
b) Common division
c) Extensibility
d) None
______________
Set A

*SLRKM255*

-3-

SLR-KM 255

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN (Elective I) (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : Figures to right indicate full marks.


SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain module and sheet grouping constructs.


b) Explain correlation between class model and dynamic model.
c) Explain how classes are translated into programming language construct and
database tables.
d) Explain 4 phases object oriented methodology.
e) Discuss characteristics of object oriented design of system.
f) Explain class diagram with its notation and example.
3. Explain 3 models in OMT methodology in detail.

10

OR
3. What is functional model ? Explain DFD in detail. Draw DFD for online shopping
site with following functionality :
10
a) Customer provide name, address, mobile no., email id, pin code, address
details as an registration information.
b) Customer select list of items and system displays total bill with discount,
price list provided as contents in existing database.
c) For bill payment 3 modes are available Cash on delivery, credit card, debit
card.
d) If customer select credit card processing is done by bank server with credit
card no., pin, otp as input and bank server generates transaction status,
revised credit as output.
4. Explain state diagram and its notation in detail. Draw state diagram for telephone
line.
10
Set A

SLR-KM 255

-4-

*SLRKM255*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain types of events with appropriate examples.


b) When deployment diagram need to be plotted ? Explain with appropriate
example.
c) Explain common mechanisms in UML.
d) What are elements of activity diagram ? Explain with appropriate example.
e) What is package ? How package can be used to avoid name conflicts in
system ? Explain with example and appropriate notations.
f) Explain state chart diagram with example.
6. Describe all elements in use case diagram. Draw and explain use case diagram
for ATM and Hotel management system.
10
OR
6. What is difference/similarity between sequence and collaboration diagram ?
Discuss sequence and collaboration diagrams with notations and appropriate
example.

10

7. Explain class, relationship, types of relationship, instance and object diagram.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 256

*SLRKM256*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Computer Science & Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015
Elective I : INFORMATION RETRIEVAL (Old)

Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Assume data wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative(s) :

(201=20)

1) We can use ______________ to reflect symbol dependency.


a) Negative binomial distribution
b) Markovian model
c) Mandelbrot distribution
d) Zipfs law
2) Hash function used in
a) Inverted file
c) Suffix array

b) Suffix tree
d) Signature file

3) __________ algorithm is based on bit-parallelism.


a) KMP
b) BM
c) BDM

d) Shift-OR

4) In appropriate matching using automation, automaton accepts a text position as the end
of match with k errors whenever the _________ state is active.
a) Starting state
b) k 1
c) k
d) k + 1
5) __________ noise represents water level of river.
a) Brown
b) Black
c) Pink

d) White

6) ___________ ranking algorithm allows visual browsing of web pages.


a) HITs
b) WebQuery
c) Pagerank
d) Vector spread
7) __________ is a tool that combines browsing and searching.
a) Web Glimpse
b) MAPA
c) Savysearch

d) CLEARWeb

8) __________ are the programs that traverse web sending new or updated pages to main
server.
a) Crawlers
b) Robots
c) Spiders
d) All of the above
9) In modeling natural language, how different words are distributed inside each document
is given by
a) Markovian model
b) Heaps law
c) Zipfs law
d) Negative binomial distribution
10) __________ indexing scheme improves phrase searching.
a) Inverted
b) Suffix tree
c) Suffix array

d) Signature file

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 256

*SLRKM256*

-2-

11) ___________ ranking algorithm depends on query and pages in answer set.
a) HITS
b) Pagerank
c) Webquery
d) Most cited
12) In automation for approximate string matching approach, vertical arrow represents
a) Matching a character
b) Inserting a character
c) Deletion of a character
d) Replacement of a character
13) __________ clause allows one to express structural predicate in MULTOS query
language.
a) Scope
b) Type
c) Condition
d) With
14) In Hot Bot, sequence of words is a reference to webpages
a) Having all words
b) Having at least one of the word
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
15) ___________ can provide security and can respond to a repository access protocol.
a) Digital objects
b) Handle
c) Repositories of Digital Objects
d) Client
16) Image data type to store images is supported by
a) ORACLE
b) ACCESS
c) Sybase SQL

d) SQL3

17) Match the following w.r.t. multimedia query


17.1) Attribute query

a) Find all objects in which jingle is played


for duration of an image display

17.2) Structural predicate

b) Speaker of audio object

17.3) Temporal semantic

c) Using some form of metadata

17.4) Temporal structure

d) Related to continuous media


______________

Set A

*SLRKM256*

-3-

SLR-KM 256

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science & Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : INFORMATION RETRIEVAL (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks.


2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Define IR model. Give frame work for 3 classic IR model.


2) Write a short note on structured text retrieval model.
3) What are the different ways of keyword based querying ?
4) Write a short note on pattern matching using automation.
5) What is inverted file ? How space of inverted index is reduced ? Explain with an example.
6) Write a short on information theory.
3. Attempt any two :

10

1) Explain the construction of suffix array for large text.


2) Explain 3 main types of structures found in text database.
4. Explain BM algorithm with given example :

10

Text : abracabracadabra
Pattern : abracadabra.
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain different multimedia query predicates with example.


2) Why GEMINI approach is better than sequential scanning ?
3) Explain HITS algorithm.

Set A

SLR-KM 256

-4-

*SLRKM256*

4) Explain Crawler-index architecture with disadvantages.


5) Write a short note on Biokleisli system architecture.
6) Which documents are considered in digital library ?
6. Attempt any one :

10

1) Explain two main tasks related to multimedia data modeling.


2) What is cross talk problem ? How cross-talk problem is resolved in two dimensional color
images ?
7. What are metasearchers ? And what are their advantages and disadvantages ?

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 257

*SLR-KM-257*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (CSE) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


Elective I : HUMAN COMPUTER INTERFACE (HCI)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :


1) ___________ are the second type of receiptor in the eye.
a) Cones
b) Tendon
c) Lens
d) Pupil
2) Following is one type of memory function.
a) Minute memory
b) Sensory buffers
c) Intermediate memory
d) None of these
3) ___________ resononing drives logically necessary conclusion from the given
premises.
a) Abductive
b) Inductive
c) Deductive
d) Indexive
4) SGML means ___________
a) Standard Geneune Markup Language
b) Sensor Gain Markup Language
c) Small Gain Markup Language
d) Standard Markup Generalized Language
5) Graphics bond is one of the factor that limit the speed of the ___________
a) Interactive system
b) Implicit system
c) Complex system
d) None of these
6) The elements of WIMP interfaces are called as ___________
a) Resources
b) Widgets
c) Windows
d) Tools
7) The ___________ begins the interface cycle with the formulation of a goal
and a task to achieve that goal.
a) System
b) Machine
c) User
d) Administrator
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 257

-2-

*SLR-KM-257*

8) WIMP stands for windows, icons, ___________ and pointers.


a) Memory
b) Measurement c) Markers
d) Menus
9) ___________ models address the translations between what the user wants
and what the system does.
a) Interaction
b) Error
c) Framework
d) None of these
10) ___________ looks at the physical characteristics of the interaction and how
these influence its effectiveness.
a) Interface
b) Ergonomics
c) Framework model
d) All
11) A small picture is used to represent a closed window and this representation
is known as ___________
a) Image
b) Window
c) Icon
d) None of these
12) ___________ likewise act on behalf of users within the electronic world.
a) Customers
b) Writers
c) Software analysts
d) Software agents
13) ___________ are rich design stories, which can be used and reused
throughout design.
a) Scenarios
b) Facts
c) Models
d) None of these
14) ___________ provides an explicit means of recording those design decisions
and the context in which decisions were made.
a) Design attributes
b) Design rationale
c) Design parameters
d) Design framework
15) ___________ of the user-system dialog allows for interaction to support more
than one task at a time.
a) Multi-modality b) Multi-cognitive c) Multi-threading d) All
16) ___________ tools provide different level of services for the programmer.
a) Performance
b) Utility
c) Debugging
d) Programming
17) Graphics Kernal system is an example of ___________ model.
a) Imaging
b) Graphics
c) Design
d) Object
18) ___________ is the component which regulates the communication between
the presentation and application.
a) Presentations
b) Dialog control
c) Application interface
d) Menu interface
19) ___________ tests the usability, functionality acceptability of the
interactive system.
a) interaction
b) Integration
c) Evaluation
d) Estimation
20) ___________ models represents the user-system grammar.
a) Hierarchical
b) Logical
c) Physical
d) Linguistic
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-257*

-3-

SLR-KM 257

Seat
No.

B.E. (CSE) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


Elective I : HUMAN COMPUTER INTERFACE (HCI)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :

20

1) What is interaction framework ?


2) Enumerate at least six HCI paradigms.
3) Explain software life cycle.
4) What are health issues in HCI ?
5) Explain storage format and standard.
6) Explain devices for virtual reality and 3-D interaction.
3. What is design rationale ?

10

OR
State and explain scenarios.
4. Explain screen design and layout.

10
10

Set A

SLR-KM 257

-4-

*SLR-KM-257*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :

20

1) Explain heuristic evaluation.


2) What is gensture recognition ?
3) Explain usability engineering.
4) Explain 3-state models.
5) What is HCI patterns ?
6) Explain designing for different age groups.
6. Explain user Interface Management System (UIMS).

10

OR
What is GOMS ? Explain in detail.

10

7. Explain programming the application.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 258

*SLRKM258*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) (New)
Examination, 2015
ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE

Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) Choose the correct one.


I) From programmers perspective a program is an ordered set of instructions.
II) From the point of view of an operating system, it is an executable file stored in memory.
a) Both I and II are correct
b) Only I is correct
c) Only II is correct
d) Both are wrong
2) The function of control unit of array processor is to __________
a) Execute scalar instructions
b) Initiate vector instruction execution
c) Perform I/O operations
d) All above
3) The hazards arise from resource conflicts when the hardware connot support all possible
combinations of instructions in simultaneous overlapped execution are called ________
a) control hazards
b) data hazards
c) structural hazards
d) none
4) Suppose that a process is in wait state, waiting for the occurrence of the event. Upon
occurrence to the event, the process goes to the
a) Running state
b) Ready state to run
c) Remains in the same state
d) Terminating state
5) Pipelining is a technique that exploits parallelism at ___________
a) process level
b) Thread level
c) instruction level
d) program level
6) What is the correct sequence of stages of instruction execution in pipelined environment ?
a) IF ID EX MEM WB
b) ID IF EX WB MEM
c) IF ID WB EX MEM
d) IF ID EX WB MEM
7) Write back stage in pipeline environment deals with _____________
a) Writing result back to memory
b) Writing result back to register
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 258

*SLRKM258*

-2-

8) Which one is correct in case of pipelining ?


a) pipelining increases the CPU instruction throughput
b) pipelining does not reduce the execution time of an individual instruction
c) pipelining reduces the total execution time of program
d) all of these
9) Which of the following architecture is/are not suitable for realizing SIMD ?
a) Vector processor
b) Array processor
c) Von Neumann
d) All of these
10) Termination of the process terminates
a) first thread of the process
c) all threads within the process

b) first two threads of the process


d) no thread within the process

11) Main advantage of Near-Neighbor Network is


a) Synchronization b) Simplicity
c) Both a & b
12) NN Systems Mostly used in _________
a) Matrix operations
c) Image Processing

d) None of these

b) Entries in Database
d) None of these

13) Applications like Database Searching, Model Matching and Expert System can be
implemented using __________
a) Near-Neighbor
b) Trees and Graphs
c) Mesh
d) Hypercube
14) Pyramid is combination of ________
a) NN and Hypercube
c) NN and Mesh

b) NN and Tree
d) NN, Mesh and Tree

15) In 3-D Hypercube we have _________ Elements and ________ Channels.


a) 9, 8
b) 8, 9
c) 8, 12
d) 12, 8
16) Which data parallel architecture has better scalability ?
a) SIMD
b) Systolic
c) Vectorizing

d) None of these

17) In which model special operators are used to achieve parallelism ?


a) Sequential Control Flow
b) Parallel Control Flow
c) Data Flow
d) None of these
18) Tagged Tokens are used in _________ model.
a) Static Data Flow
b) Dynamic Data Flow
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
19) In which SIMD System PEs Complexity is more than 1-bit ?
a) MasPar
b) DAP
c) CLIP-4

d) MPP

20) Example System fro COMA Machine is


a) DAP
b) Cray T3D

d) MPP

c) KSR-1

______________

Set A

*SLRKM258*

-3-

SLR-KM 258

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) (New)


Examination, 2015
ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
a) What are the basic methods of creating and terminating threads in concurrent processing ?
b) What is Branch Target Buffer (BTB) ? Explain with a schematic.
c) Explain the name dependences with example.
d) Explain the following terms :
- Vector length
- Vector stride
e) Discuss the notion of program and process.
3. Attempt any one :
a) Draw and explain basic vector architecture.

10

b) What do you mean by an out of - order instruction execution in pipelined environment ?


Illustrate the use of Scoreboarding - A technique for allowing instructions to execute
out}of}order.

10

4. What are the steps involved in process creation by OS ? Discuss each step in detail.

10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain Pyramid Interconnection network with suitable Diagram.


b) List and explain alternative architectural classes for Data Parallel Machines.
c) Differentiate between Data Flow Model and Control Flow Model.
d) Explain Dynamic Data Flow Model with suitable diagram.
e) Explain SIMD Machine Architecture along with its Development.

Set A

SLR-KM 258

-4-

*SLRKM258*

6. List and explain properties of Data Flow Languages.

10

OR
What are the local autonomies available for progression of SIMD to MIMD ? Explain.
7. Explain CM5 System in detail.

10
10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 259

*SLRKM259*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015
DISTRIBUTED SYSTEMS (New)

Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
I.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct alternative :

(201=20)

1) Condition variables are used in ________ techniques.


a) Process migration
b) Clock synchronization
c) Deadlock avoidance
d) Mutual Exclusion
2) ___________ mechanism of message-forwarding is not good from reliability point
of view.
a) Origin site mechanism
b) Link traversal mechanism
c) Link update mechanism
d) a & b
3) For faster clocks, the drift rate is ________
a) dc/dt <1
b) dc/dt = 1
c) dc/dt > 1

d) dc/dt = 0

4) An efficient mechanism used to cope with the problem of lost and out-of-sequence
packets in multidatagram messages is
a) Stop-and-wait
b) BLAST protocol
c) Selective repeat
d) CBCAST protocol
5) ___________ feature of message-passing system ensures that messages will
be delivered correctly despite partial failure of processes, machines or
communication links.
a) Correctness
b) Reliability
c) Efficiency
d) Flexibility
6) VMTP cannot identify __________ operations.
a) Non-idempotent
b) Idempotent
c) None of the above
d) Both a & b
7) Which of the following calls is not used for sending messages in FLIP ?
a) flip_unicast
b) flip_multicast
c) flip_broadcast
d) flip_bicast
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 259

-2-

*SLRKM259*

8) The basic categories of resource Grids are


a) Information grid, data grid and service grid
b) Information grid, computational grid and data grid
c) Computational grid and data grid
d) None of the above
9) DSM systems take the ________ feature of multicomputer systems and ________
feature of multiprocessor systems.
a) Easier to build, harder to program
b) Harder to program, complex to build
c) Easier to build, simpler to programs d) Simpler to program and easy to build
10) ___________ consistency is the strongest form of consistency model.
a) Strict
b) Processor
c) Pipelined RAM
d) None of the above
11) Indirect call method is used in __________
a) Binding at compile time
b) Binding At Link time
c) Binding at call time
d) All the above
12) Process address space transfer mechanism has maximum freezing time in
a) Total Freezing
b) Pre transferring
c) Transfer on reference
d) Partial freezing
13) Threads of a single process do not share
a) Program counter
b) Semaphores
c) Open files
d) Address space
14) The file once created can not be changed is called
a) immutable file
b) mutex file
c) mutable file
d) none of the mentioned
15) The capability of a system to adapt the increased service load is called
a) scalability
b) tolerance
c) capacity
d) none of the mentioned
16) For computer clocks based on quartz crystals, the drift rate is approximately equal
to
a) 106
b) 108
c) 104
d) 106
17) Two events a & b are said to be concurrent if
a) a->b
b) b->a
c) a->c & c->b
d) none of the above
18) _________ is an idempotent operation
a) Getsqrt (64)
b) Read_next_record (filename)
c) Increment (varname)
d) Append_record (filename, record)
19) Workstation server model is popular because it is used for
a) Email
b) Editing jobs
c) Executing small programs
d) All
20) _________ servers make crash recovery very easy.
a) Stateless servers
b) Stateful server
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

______________

Set A

*SLRKM259*

-3-

SLR-KM 259

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DISTRIBUTED SYSTEMS (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
II. Answer any four :
(45=20)
1) List the advantages of distributed computing systems over centralized ones.
2) What is clock drift ? Why clock synchronization is necessary in distributed systems ?
3) Explain client-server binding mechanisms in RPC.
4) With diagram, explain the different models of organizing threads.
5) What are the different degrees of reliability used in one-to-many communication ?
Give one application for each.
III. Answer any one :

10

1) What is middleware ? Draw the layered architecture of middleware and explain


the various layers of middleware.
2) Explain the mechanism used in the FLIP protocol for each of the following :
a) Transparent communication
b) Group communication
c) Secure communication
d) Easy network management.
IV. Differentiate among the following types of operating system by defining their essential
properties.
10
a) Time sharing
b) Parallel processing
c) Network
d) Distributed

Set A

SLR-KM 259

-4-

*SLRKM259*

SECTION II
V. Answer any four :

(45=20)

1) A centralized deadlock detection algorithm does not detect false deadlocks. Find
out how this algorithm prevents the detection of false deadlocks.
2) What will happen in bully algorithm and ring algorithm, for electing a coordinator
when two or more processes almost simultaneously discover that the coordinator
has failed ?
3) With example explain, explain token passing approach for implementing mutual
exclusion.
4) What is resource grid ? Explain its types.
5) What is memory coherence protocol ? Explain any two memory coherence protocols.
VI. Answer any one :

(110=10)

1) Discuss design and implementation issues of DSM.


2) Draw and explain the architecture of distributed file system.
VII. With example explain WFG-based distributed algorithm for deadlock detection and
mention its disadvantage and the corrective measure taken for it.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 260

*SLRKM260*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (CSE) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


MODERN DATABASE SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct alternative :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) In transaction server
a) Client machines ship transaction to server systems
b) Requests are made by clients to servers using SQL
c) Server ships the results to clients
d) All the above
2) In horizontal fragmentation, the relation is partitioned
a) Columnwise
b) Rowwise
c) Attributewise
d) None
3) Every individual operation in the query are parallelized in
a) Interquery parallelism
b) Interoperation parallelism
c) Intraoperation parallelism
d) None
4) Range partitioning is well suited for
a) Point queries
b) Range queries
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
5) In _______ parallelism, the transaction throughput is increased.
a) Interquery
b) Intraquery
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
6) If there are M partitions of relation r and N partitions of relation s, then fragment
and replicate join requires _________ processors.
a) M = 1
b) N
c) M N
d) M
7) The operation of changing dimensions used in cross tabulation is called
a) Slicing
b) Pivoting
c) Dicing
d) All the above
8) The task of correcting and preprocessing the data is called as
a) Data correction
b) Data warehousing
c) Loading
d) Data cleaning

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 260

-2-

*SLRKM260*

9) Which of the following is not a step in data warehousing architecture ?


a) Extraction
b) Transformation
c) Loading
d) Linking
10) Climbing up the concept hierarchy for a dimension is called as
a) Rollup
b) Drilldown
c) Slicing
d) Dicing
11) _________ provide multidimensional data analysis and summarized data.
a) OLAP tools
b) Data Mining Tools
c) Data Warehousing
d) None
12) __________ can best be described as a programming model used to develop
Hadoop-based applications that can process massive amounts of data.
a) Mahout
b) MapReduce
c) Oozie
d) All of the mentioned
13) Which of the following is not a NoSQL database ?
a) SQL Server
b) MongoDB
c) Cassandra

d) None

14) Defines each dimension of the multidimensional space of a star schema


a) Data table
b) Dimension table
c) Fact table
d) Decision table
15) _________ is concerned with the data cleaning process during which unnecessary
information is removed.
a) Data cleaning and preprocessing
b) Data processing
c) Data transformation
d) Data mining
16) Parallelism in which the relations are partitioned on multiple disks to reduce the
retrieval time of relations from disk is called as
a) I/O parallelism
b) Inter-operation parallelism
c) Intra-query parallelism
d) Inter-query parallelism
17) Which of the following is the most important consideration while designing the
schema for MongoDB ?
a) The schema should match the data access and query patterns
b) The schema should be kept in 3NF similar to SQL schemas
c) The schema should focus on creating possible embedded documents
d) The schema should contain maximum indexes
18) In an OO database objects may inherit some or all of the characteristics of other
objects
a) True
b) False
19) Which of the following are the simplest NoSQL databases ?
a) Key-value
b) Wide-column
c) Document
d) All of the mentioned
20) _____________ is an unordered collection, where an element may occur multiple
times.
a) Array
b) Multiset
c) Create type
d) Structure Type

Set A

______________

*SLRKM260*

-3-

SLR-KM 260

B.E. (CSE) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


MODERN DATABASE SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Answer any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain two types of fragmentations.


b) With diagram, explain the two cases of fragment and replicate join.
c) Differentiate between OLTP and OLAP.
d) What is data mining ? Explain knowledge discovery from data.
e) Write the steps of bully algorithm.
3. Answer any one:
a) Explain and compare the partitioning techniques in IO parallelism.

10

b) What is data warehouse ? Draw its architecture and explain the star schema of
data warehouse.
4. Explain the working of 2PC protocol and handling of site failure in it.

10

SECTION II
5. Answer any four :

(45=20)

1) Compare object relational databases with relational databases.


2) Explain the features of MapReduce.
3) With proper example, explain the Type Inheritance in Object Based Databases.
4) Explain External Sort-Merge Algorithm in detail.
5) Write short note on HDFS.

Set A

SLR-KM 260

-4-

*SLRKM260*

6. What is Big Data ? Explain need of Big Data Also explain 3 Vs of Big Data.

10

7. What are the basic steps in query processing ? Explain different factors to measure
the query cost.

10

OR
7. What is NoSQL database ? List the applications where NoSQL is used ? Describe
the characteristics of NoSQL Database.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 261

*SLRKM261*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015
Elective I : HUMAN COMPUTER INTERACTION (New)

Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(120=20)

1) ______________ responds to intense pressure, heat and pain.


A) Thermoreceptors
B) Mechanoreceptors
C) Nociceptors
D) None of these
2) The problem solving is a matter of reproducing known responses or trial and error is
A) Gestalt theory
B) Problem space theory
C) Analogy in problem solving
D) None of these
3) ______________ is a more specialized device typically used for freehand drawing.
A) Mouse
B) Digitizing tablet
C) Joystick
D) Stylus and light pen
4) Overtime many people are affected directly or indirectly by a system and these people
are called
A) Management
B) Stakeholders
C) Programmers
D) None of these
5) The figure shows plain text, but scenarios can be augmented by sketches, simulated
screen shots, these sketches and pictures are known as
A) Local Structures
B) Global Structures
C) Storyboards
D) Simulations
6) The process of making software suitable for different languages and cultures is called
A) Localization
B) Globalization
C) Dynamic
D) None of these
7) Which of the prototype approach says : The final product is built as separate components,
one at a time
A) Throw-away
B) Incremental
C) Evolutionary
D) None of these
8) Software engineering provides a means of understanding
A) Structure of design process
B) Use of explicit Criteria
C) Recording of design decisions
D) Making design decisions
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 261

*SLRKM261*

-2-

9) To allow the same application to be used on different systems it is best to consider its
development separate from its device-dependent interface is known as
A) Reusability
B) Customization
C) Multiple Interface
D) Portability
10) _____________ deals with articulation, but at the human motor level instead of at a higher
level of human understanding.
A) Linguistic and Grammatical models
B) Physical and Device-level models
C) Hierarchical Representation
D) None of these
11) _____________ methodology, stakeholders are included as participants in the decision
making process.
A) CUSTOM
B) ETHICS
C) OSTA
D) Ethnographic
12) The nods, grimaces, shrugs of the shoulder and small noises are called as
A) Breakdown
B) Back Channels C) Turn-taking
D) None of these
13) Which kind of utterance class involves talking about the process of collaboration itself ?
A) Substantive
B) Annotative
C) Procedural
D) None of these
14) Textual communication in which the messages are linked to one another in a hypertext
fashion.
A) Discrete
B) Linear
C) Non-linear
D) Spatial
15) _____________ which looks at what users need to know about the objects and actions
involved in a task, and how that knowledge is organized.
A) Entity-relation-based analysis
B) Knowledge-based techniques
C) Task decomposition
D) None of these
16) _____________ is often a direct and quick way to get information about a task.
A) Documentation
B) Observation
C) Interviews
D) None of these
17) The order and structure of inputs and outputs. In human language, the grammar of sentence
construction is known
A) Syntactic
B) Lexical
C) Semantic
D) Coding
18) CSP is
A) Computer System Processing
C) Collaboration System Program

B) Communicating Sequential Processes


D) None of these

19) The model which address the area of ignorant of certain information in a system
A) Attention
B) Dynamic pointers
C) Windowed systems
D) Non-determinism
20) Why things happen when they happen is
A) Information
B) Triggers
C) Artifacts
______________

D) Placeholders

Set A

*SLRKM261*

-3-

SLR-KM 261

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : HUMAN COMPUTER INTERACTION (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : All questions are compulsory.


SECTION I
2. Answer any four of the following questions :

(54=20)

a) Explain the usability measures which leads to practical evaluation.


b) Explain the different tools for layout designing.
c) How linguistic models represent the user system grammar ?
d) Explain any two diagrammatic notations used in dialog design.
e) Write a short note on 3D interfaces.
f) Explain virtual and augmented reality.
3. Answer any one of the following questions :

10

a) Why Face-to-face contact is the most primitive form of communication in terms of


technology ?
b) What are the problems in direct manipulation ? Explain in brief.
4. Compulsory question.

10

Explain the main input-output channels of human which are important to human-computer
interaction.
SECTION II
5. Answer any four of the following questions :

(54=20)

a) Explain the complex set of concerns under the term of quality of service.
b) Explain the importance of online manuals and documentation in HCI.
c) Write a short note on video conference and communication.
d) Discuss three types of system where the generation and recording of ideas and decisions
is the primary focus.
e) Explain the applications of hypermedia.
f) Explain the concept of ubiquitous computing.

Set A

SLR-KM 261

-4-

*SLRKM261*

6. Answer any one of the following questions :

10

a) Explain why the phrasing and contents of error messages can significantly affect user
performance and satisfaction.
b) Why Dynamic web content can be used for complete web-based business applications ?
7. Compulsory question :

10

Why implementing groupware is more difficult than single user applications ?


_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 263

*SLRkm263*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (CSE) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE TESTING & QUALITY ASSURANCE (Elective I)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.


4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Figures must be drawn wherever necessary.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :


1) User Acceptance Testing is
a) White Box Testing
c) Gray Box Testing

b) Black Box Testing


d) None

2) Which is the reputed testing standard ?

a) M Bridge awards
c) ISO

b) QAI
d) Microsoft

3) Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product


is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of Conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
4) Defects are less costly if detected in which of the following phases
a) Coding
b) Design
c) Requirements Gathering
d) Implementation
5) Error guessing is a
a) Test verification techniques
b) Test execution techniques
c) Test control management techniques
d) Test data management technique
6) Code Coverage is dynamic __________ testing.
a) White box
b) Black box
c) Gamma

d) Beta

7) coverage involves tracking a piece of data completely through the software.


a) Information flow b) Data flow
c) Process flow
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 263

*SLRkm263*

-2-

8) _________ test tool allows you to see details of the softwares operation that you
wouldnt normally be able to see.
a) Viewer
b) Driver
c) Tester
d) None
9) You are performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a
certain field be populated by using a drop down box containing a list of values.
What kind of testing are you doing ?
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Load testing
d) Regression testing
10) The simplest form of path testing is called
a) Branch coverage testing
b) Data coverage testing
c) Module testing
d) None
11) ___________ could run your test cases look for bugs, analyze what they see and
log the result.
a) Manual testing
b) Automation testing
c) System testing
d) All
12) Test planning is a job that should involve _________ from across the entire product
team.
a) Testers
b) Developers
c) Key players only
d) All
13) _________ identifies all the steps required to operate the system and exercise
the specified test case.
a) Test procedure b) Test case
c) Test design
d) All
14) Reasons for not fixing all bugs
a) No enough time
c) Inefficient bug reporting

b) Too risky to fix


d) All

15) Cost of quality depends on


a) Prevention
b) Appraisals

c) Failure

d) All

16) A viewer or monitor test tool allows you to see details of


a) Software operation
b) Software being tested
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
17) ________ is tool used to control and operate the software being tested.
a) Drivers
b) Stubs
c) Monitors
d) All
18) Bug can be described as
a) Minimal
b) Singular

c) Reproducible

d) All

19) Quality views are


a) Transcendental b) Users

c) Manufacturers

d) All

20) An effective software process applied in a manner that creates a useful product
that provides measurable values for those who produce it and those who can use it
a) Quality Assurance
b) Software Quality
c) Quality Dilemma
d) None

______________

Set A

*SLRkm263*

-3-

SLR-KM 263

Seat
No.

B.E. (CSE) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE TESTING & QUALITY ASSURANCE (Elective I)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

2) Assume suitable data if necessary.


3) Figures must be drawn wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Answer the following questions (any four) :

(54=20)

1) Write short note on Data Coverage.


2) Write note on Testing Vs Debugging.
3) Explain Big Bang and Sandwich Testing.
4) Write note on Equivalence partitioning.
5) What are the misconceptions about testing ?
6) Explain V and V model.
3. Answer any one :

(101=10)

1) What is proposal testing and requirement testing ? Explain in detail.


OR

2) Write short notes on :


Stress testing
Recovery testing
Regression testing
Acceptance testing
4. Explain Defect Life Cycle and Defect Management Process.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 263

-4-

*SLRkm263*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four

(54=20)

a) Explain Random testing in automation.


b) Explain McCalls Quality factors.
c) Explain benefits of Automation testing.
d) Why it is not possible to fix all the Bugs ?
e) Explain Targeted Quality factors.
f) What is reality of using Automation tool ?
6. Solve any one :
Explain Bug Life Cycle. On what criteria we can categories bugs.

10

OR
Explain Software Quality Dilemma.
7. Explain ISO 9000 and CMM Quality standard.

10
10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 265

*SLRKM265*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015
Elective II : OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN (New)

Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Dynamic models are used to define the _________ of the components over time.
A) Behaviour
B) Strategy
C) Condition
D) Constraint
2) When a subclass is created using inheritance the resulting class
A) May have only attributes of parent class
B) May have only operations of parent class
C) May have new operations only in addition to those in parent class
D) May have new attributes and new operations in addition to those of the parent class
3) A _________ is the special attribute that reduces the effective multiplicity of an association.
A) Role Name
B) Link Attribute
C) Qualifier
D) None of above
4) A _________ is an abstraction of the attribute values and links of an object.
A) Event
B) State
C) Use cases
D) DFD
5) Aggregation is __________ type of relationship.
A) IS A
B) Part Whole
C) Both (A) and (B) D) None
6) Role name indicates
A) One end of association
C) Both

B) Both ends of association


D) None

7) Data Flow Diagram is part of


A) Object Model
C) Behavioural Model

B) Dynamic Model
D) Functional Model

8) An activity is associated with


A) Event
B) Condition

C) State

D) Transaction

9) _________ is an active object that drives the data flow graph by producing or consuming
values.
A) Actor
B) Data Store
C) Data Flow
D) Processes
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 265

*SLRKM265*

-2-

10) What is the programming style of the object oriented conceptual model ?
A) Invariant relationships
B) Algorithms
C) Classes and objects
D) Goals, often expressed in a predicate calculus
11) Functional transformations are expressed in terms of
A) Primitive operators of the language
B) Calls to subprograms
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
12) The specification is a contract between the ______ and the _________ of the class.
i) Producer
ii) Designer
iii) Consumer
iv) Software Tester
A) i & ii
B) i & iii
C) ii & iv
D) iii & iv
13) Idioms represent the
A) Lowest-level pattern
C) Middle-level pattern

B) Highest-level pattern
D) Design pattern

14) You apply the use case diagram to model ________ view of a system.
A) Dynamic use case
B) Static use case
C) Model use case
D) None of the above
15) A ___________ is an interaction diagram that emphasizes the time ordering of the
messages.
A) Activity diagram
B) Collaboration diagram
C) Sequence diagram
D) Deployment diagram
16) ___________ provides a common solution to a common problem in a given context.
A) Collaboration
B) Deployment
C) Pattern
D) Component
17) A collaboration is a society of
A) classes and functions
C) objects and interfaces

B) classes and objects


D) classes, interfaces and other elements

18) An activity diagram is essentially a


A) Sequence
C) Flowchart

B) Collaboration
D) None of the above

19) What shows the configuration of run time processing nodes and the components that live
on them ?
A) Deployment Diagram
B) Component Diagram
C) Collaboration Diagram
D) Sequence Diagram
20) _________ serves to help validate your architecture and to verify your system as it evolves
during development.
A) Component
B) Client
C) UML
D) Use case
______________

Set A

*SLRKM265*

-3-

SLR-KM 265

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective II : OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

1) Differentiate between Aggregation, Association, Generalization.


2) Define the terms related to DFD :
i) Processes
ii) Data Flows
iii) Data Stores
iv) Actors
v) Control Flow.
3) Explain Entry and Exit action on transitions in state diagram with example.
4) Describe homomorphism with example.
5) How constraints can be applied on objects and links ?
3. Draw object diagram for Hospital Management System. Also show the relationship
(aggregation, association, generalization, multiplicity etc.) among the objects.

10

OR
3. Define following with example :

10

1) Class
2) Object
3) State
4) Event
5) Data flow.
4. Explain 4 phases in object oriented development in detail.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 265

-4-

*SLRKM265*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Write a short note on Deployment Diagram.


2) What are the applications of OMT like object diagram compiler ?
3) Draw the collaboration diagram for a scenario of Online Order Book.
4) Explain pattern categories.
5) Write a short note on Client-Server Dispatcher.
6) Explain the features of Object-Oriented Languages.
6. Attempt any one :

10

A) Write a short note on :


i) Component
ii) Use of programming language and database system.
B) Explain the term and concept of use cases, with an example of Use Case Diagram.
7. Explain Interaction. What is Interaction Diagrams ? Give any one example.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 266

*SLRKM266*
S

B.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


WIRELESS AD-HOC NETWORKS (New) (Elective II)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume necessary data if required and state it clearly.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer. Each question carries one mark :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) UNII stands for


a) Understanding National Information Infrastructure
b) Unlicensed Node In Infrastructure
c) Unlicensed Node Information Infrastructure
d) Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure
2) Which of the following is energy saving routing strategy ?
a) Nearest-Neighbor
b) Random finding
c) Both
d) None
3) AWGN is ___________
a) Additive White Gaussian Noise
c) Additional White Gaussian Noise

b) Additive White General Noise


d) None of these

4) Time dispersion could cause the reception of contradicting information, called


_______________
a) Inter node Interference
b) Inter-symbol Interference
c) Rayleigh fading
d) None of these
5) The L2CAP protocol header contains
a) Logical channels identification bits
b) RFCOMM
c) Active bits
d) Control bits
6) ACL is _____________
a) Asynchronous Contact Less
c) Asynchronous Connection Less

b) Asynchronous Connection Link


d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 266

*SLRKM266*

-2-

7) In Bluetooth protocol stack management function include __________ and


______________ of slave.
a) Segmentation and reassembly
b) Attachment and Detachment
c) Headset profile and Bluetooth comm. profile
d) None of these
8) Link communication model in Ad-hoc wireless scenario with INI is defined as
a) r(t) = f(t) + s(a) + wthermal + wint (t)
b) r(t) = f(t) + s(a) + wthermal
c) r(t) = f(t) s(a) + wthermal + wint (t)
d) r(t) = f(t) + s(a) + wthermal wint (t)

9) Quasi topology of the network or of any portion of it is ____________


a) not regular
b) always regular c) random
d) none of these

10) In Poisson distribution method the inter-arrival time in between two packet is indicated by
___________
a)


b)

c)


d)


11) In ______________ model, the signal power is higher than noise.


a) Physical
b) Protocol
c) RBS
d) None
12) ________________ constraints given in terms of maximum acceptable BER at the end of
multi-hop route.
a) Quality of service
b) Delay
c) Both
d) None of these
13) In Ad-hoc wireless network different multi-hop routes are assume to be ____________
a) Joint
b) Disjoint
c) Equal
d) None of these
14) The use of particular _____________ techniques could allow retransmission before
complete reception.
a) mobility
b) coding/decoding
c) speed
d) none
15) In ______________ model, the speed of node is constant.
a) Direction Persistent
b) Direction Non-Persistent
c) RBS
d) None
16) In ONRBS, a _______________ multi-hop route from source to destination is created.
a) tentative
b) permanent
c) reserved
d) none
17) The optimal transmit power is the minimum power sufficient to guarantee network
____________
a) disconnection
b) traffic
c) ability
d) connectivity
18) Spatial density will be considered as _________
a) dlink
b)
c) N/A


d) None

19) In Two Dimension Poisson Node Distribution, nearest neighbor is denoted by ___________
a) w
b) dlink
c) N/A
d) None

20) Bluetooth unit will change the carrier frequency (hop) ________________ times in second.
a) 1602
b) 600
c) 1600
d) 2600
______________
Set A

*SLRKM266*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 266

B.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2015


WIRELESS AD-HOC NETWORKS (New) (Elective II)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Assume necessary data if required and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions :

20

1) Explain Reactive and Proactive protocol in detail.


2) Explain Wireless LAN Technologies.
3) What are the preliminaries used in ideal scenario of theoretic framework for multi-hop
Ad-hoc Wireless Network ?
4) Explain RESGO and RESLIGO MAC protocols.
5) Explain with neat diagram Inter-node Interference.
6) Write a short note on Digital Radio Properties.
3. Consider a scenario in link communication model as if source node is sending signal as s(t).
Show that which type of signal destination node will receive if communication link is without
INI and with INI. Show with the help of neat diagram.
4. Explain in detail Quasi-Regular Topology.

10
10

OR
4. Explain with neat diagram Simplified Bluetooth Protocol Stack.

Set A

SLR-KM 266

-4-

*SLRKM266*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four questions :

20

1) List out five assumptions of Transport Capacity in Ad-hoc Wireless Network.


2) Derive the equation for average sustainable number of hops for Transport Capacity.
3) What are the Switching Models in Impact of Mobility ? Explain any one of them in detail.
4) Explain Reservation-Based Switching Scheme in Route Reservation.
5) Write a short note on Performance matrix in WAN.
6) Write a short note on Optimal Common Transmit Power with Square Grid Topology.
6. Explain Direction-Persistent Mobility Models with ONRBS and RBS with neat diagram.

10

7. With ideal and realistic scenario explain aggregate effective transport capacity.

10

OR
7. Derive and explain the equation for BER at the end of multi-hop route for Random Topology.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 268

*SLRKM268*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) What is Pending Intent in android ?


A) It is a kind of an intent
B) It is used to pass the data between activities
C) It will fire at a future point of time
D) None of the above
2) You can shut down an activity by calling its ________ method.
A) on Destory()
B) finish Activity()
C) finish()
D) none of the above
3) Which of the following is NOT a state in the lifecycle of a service ?
A) Starting
B) Running
C) Destroyed
D) Paused
4) When an activity doesnt exist in memory it is in
A) Starting state
B) Running state
C) Loading state
D) Paused
5) What runs in the background and doesnt have any UI components ?
A) Intents
B) Content Providers
C) Services
D) Applications
6) The R file is a(an) generated file.
A) Automatically
B) Manually

C) Emulated

D) None

7) What is contained within the manifest xml file ?


A) The permissions the app requires
B) The list of strings used in the app
C) The source code
D) None of the options
8) Which among these are NOT a part of Androids native libraries ?
A) Webkit
B) Libjava
C) OpenGL
D) SQLite

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 268

-2-

*SLRKM268*

9) Which component is not activated by Intent ?


A) Activity
B) ContentProvider
C) Services
D) BroadcastReceiver
10) Broadcast Receivers work on _________ threads in Android.
A) Worker Thread
B) Main Thread
C) Activity Thread
D) None of the above
11) For enlarging object along horizontal direction requires change in _______ xml
attribute.
A) fromXScale
B) toXScale
C) fromYScale
D) toYScale
12) Sqlite Database class enables us to _________
A) read data from table
B) insert data into table
C) update data in table
D) all
13) ___________ is an interface which we can use to create two callback methods
that receive notifications (sensor events) when sensor values change or when
sensor accuracy changes.
A) Sensor
B) SensorEvent
C) SensorEventListener
D) SensorManager
14) Google map api key can be obtained from
A) google developer console
B) api store
C) developers site
D) none
15) ___________ can store key value pair data on persistent storage for specific app.
A) Text File
B) Table
C) Shared preference
D) None
16) ___________ file need to be generated while signing application file.
A) Keystore
B) .dev
C) Both
D) None
17) ___________ permission is needed to access location of device using GPS
Provider Service.
A) ACCESS_COARSE_LOCATION B) ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION
C) Both A and B
D) None
18) Orientation sensor falls under ___________ category of sensors.
A) Motion sensors
B) Position Sensors
C) Environmental Sensors
D) Ambient Sensors
19) Automatic black-box UI testing of Android app is done with the help of ______
A) Monkey Talk
B) Robotium
C) Android JUnit Framework
D) None of the above
20) Geocoding means __________
A) translating address to latitude/longitude
B) translating latitude, longitude to address
C) both A and B
D) none

______________

Set A

*SLRKM268*

-3-

SLR-KM 268

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : All questions are compulsory.


SECTION I
2. Answer any four of the following :
(45=20)
1) Write a short note on event handling paradigm in Android OS.
2) Differentiate between Service and Bound Service.
3) Explain the use of handler in context of Threads in Android Operating System.
4) What is Broadcast Receiver ? Explain how they are used with an example.
5) With example of pictorial illustration explain various layouts in android.
6) WAP java code for detecting click on button and display count which incremented
on every click.
3. Answer any one of the following :

(110=10)

1) List and explain any 5 widgets. Explain methods on ProgressBar widget with
example.
2) Illustrate three approaches to develop a mobile app along with the scenario where
we need to apply these approaches.
4. Illustrate Service Life cycle and respective callback methods.

10

SECTION II
5. Answer any four of the following :

(45=20)

1) Explain use of Map and LocationManager class in short.


2) List and explain 5 sensors and their uses.
3) Explain SharedPreference with example.
4) Write a note on MediaPlayer class.
5) Explain view animation.
6) Write a note on white box testing.

Set A

SLR-KM 268

-4-

*SLRKM268*

6. Answer any one of the following :

(110=10)

1) Discuss characteristics of SQLite database. Explain functions in SQLite


OpenHelper, SQLiteDatabase, Cursor and Content Values class.
2) What is versioning ? Explain the steps involved in publishing app on google
play store.

7. Elaborate on following perspectives while testing mobile applications functional


and non-functional requirements
1) Functionality
2) Usability
3) Performance
4) Network
5) Security.

10
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 269

*SLRKM269*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS

Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
I.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer :


1) _________ architecture requires full back-end functionality.
a) Transaction server
b) Data server
c) Both a & b
d) Neither a nor b
2) In _________ parallelism, transaction throughput is increased.
a) Interquery
b) Intraquery
c) Intraoperation

d) All of the above

3) _________ protocol has the advantage of imposing less overhead on READ operations.
a) Majority protocol
b) Quorum sensus protocol
c) Biased protocol
d) All the three
4) Parallel Execution of multiple individual operations within a given query is called ______
parallelism.
a) Interoperation
b) Interquery
c) Intraoperation
d) Intraquery
5) The term _________ refers loosely to the process of semi automatically analyzing
large databases to find useful patterns.
a) Data warehousing
b) Data mining
c) Data cleansing
d) None of these
6) Tables containing multidimensional data are called
a) Super Table
b) Fact Tables
c) Star Table

d) Sub Table

7) __________ is a measure of fraction of population that satisfies both antecedent and


consequent of the rule.
a) Support
b) Population
c) Confidence
d) None of these
8) For n relations, there are _________ different join orders.
a) 2 n
b) (2(n 1))!/(n 1)!
c) 2n
d) 2(n 1)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 269

*SLRKM269*

-2-

9) _________ are standardized sets of tasks that help to characterize the performance of
database systems.
a) Legacy systems
b) Benchmarks
c) Bottlenecks
d) Materialized views
10) Agglomerative and divisive are two types of
a) Classification algorithms
b) Hierarchical clustering algorithms
c) Association rule mining algorithms
d) Collaborative filtering algorithms
11) Which architecture of workflow management system has one scheduler instantiated for
each workflow ?
a) Centralized Architecture
b) Fully distributed Architecture
c) Partially distributed Architecture
d) None of the above
12) SQL : 1999 supports
a) Multiple inheritance
c) Both a & b

b) Nesting
d) Neither a nor b

13) General Fragment and Replicate join requires __________ processors.


a) M = 1
b) M*N
c) N
d) M
14) The operation of moving from finer Granularity data to a coarser granularity is called
a) slicing
b) dicing
c) roll up
d) drill down
15) If the join result is almost as large as the Cartesian product of two relations then ________
join may be advantageous.
a) Merge join
b) Block Nested loop join
c) Hash join
d) Index nested loop join
16) The process by which declarative query is translated into low level data manipulation
operation is called
a) Query optimization
b) Query processing
c) Query transformation
d) All the above
17) Protocol that ensures the atomicity of transactions is called
a) Consistency protocol
b) Logging protocol
c) 2-PC Protocol
d) Concurrency control protocol
18) Systems which provide access to independently designed and implemented on possibly
heterogeneous databases are called
a) Main memory databases
b) Real time databases
c) Multidatabases
d) Spatial databases
19) The task of correcting and preprocessing the data is called
a) Data correction
b) Data householding
c) Fact Tables
d) Data cleansing
20) In the worst case, Nested Loop join requires ________ block access for relation r and s.
b) nr * bs + br
a) br + bs
c) 3(br + bs) + 4nh
d) 2(br + bs)

______________

Set A

*SLRKM269*

-3-

SLR-KM 269

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
II. Answer any 4 :

20

1) Explain Client-Server systems.


2) What is speedup and scaleup ? Demonstrate with graph.
3) List and explain the factors that work against parallel operations.
4) Consider the schema shown below
employee (person_name, street, city)
works (person_name, company_name, salary)
company (company_name, city)
manager (person_name, manager_name)
a) Give a schema definition in SQL 2003 corresponding to the relational schema but
using references.
b) Write the querries to
i) Find the company with most employees
ii) Find the average salary at first bank corporation.
5) Write the steps of Parallel-External sort merge.
III. Answer any one :

10

1) Explain the architecture of Transaction server with diagram.


2) What is the objective of 2-phase commit Protocol ? Explain its working and its ability to
handle failure of participating site.
IV. Explain different locking protocols used for concurrency control in distributed databases.

10

SECTION II
V. Answer any 4 :

(45=20)

1) Explain two applications of data mining :


a) Classification
b) Associations.

Set A

SLR-KM 269

-4-

*SLRKM269*

2) Explain three architectural approaches to workflow management system.


3) Explain nested-loop join and its cost analysis.
4) Illustrate steps involved in query processing with diagram.
5) Explain the following search algorithms with their cost estimates.
A2 (primary index, equality on key)
A3 (primary index, Equality on nonkey).
VI. Answer any one:

10

1) What are decision support systems ? Explain several issues of Decision support systems.
2) Explain long duration transactions with its key properties.
VII. Draw the Architecture of Data warehouse and explain the data warehouse schemas.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 270

*SLR-KM-270*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MOBILE COMPUTING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


20
1) Communication device can exhibit characteristics as
a) Fixed and wireless
b) Mobile and wireless
c) a) and b) both
d) None of these
2) Who invented optical telegraph in 1794 ?
a) Claude Chappe
b) Alexander Araham
c) Michael Faraday
d) Joseph Henry
3) Sky waves are of
a) <15MHz
b) 2-30 MHz
c) <20 MHz
d) <10 MHz
4) The time spend on a channel with a certain frequency is called
a) Hopping time
b) Dwell time
c) a) and b) both d) None of these
5) Spread the spectrum using orthogonal codes, is an idea of
a) SDMA
b) TDMA
c) FDMA
d) CDMA
6) One terminal can be active in one cell/one sector is true for
a) SDMA
b) TDMA
c) FDMA
d) CDMA
7) MSRN number contains
a) Visitor country code and visitor national destination code
b) Mobile country code and mobile network code
c) Country code, national destination code, subscriber number
d) None of these
8) Inter MSC handover happens when
a) Two cells belonging to same MSCs
b) Two cells belonging to different BSCs
c) Two cells belonging to same BSCs
d) Two cells belonging to different MSCs
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 270
9) Algorithm A5 is used for
a) Authentication
c) Generation of cipher key

*SLR-KM-270*

-2-

b) Encryption
d) All of the above

10) GSM aims at maximum handover duration of


a) 62 ms
b) 61 ms
c) 60 ms
11) Bluetooth is a typical
a) Infrastructure based networks
c) a) and b) both
12) PIFS is defined as
a) SIFS plus one slot time
c) PIFS plus one slot time
13) IEEE 802.11e is
a) MAC enhancement
c) a) and b) both

d) 59 ms

b) Wireless adhoc network


d) None of above
b) DIFS plus one slot time
d) SIFS minus one slot time
b) Inter access point protocol
d) None of these

14) In Bluetooth piconet all active devices are assigned _____________ active
member address.
a) 3 bit
b) 4 bit
c) 8 bit
d) 16 bit
15) In _____________ the device has lowest duty cycle and the lowest power
consumption.
a) Sniff state
b) Hold state
c) Park state
d) Ideal state
16) Maximum data limit of IEEE 802.11 MAC frame is
a) 2312 bytes
b) 1024 bytes
c) 2048 bytes

d) 1MB

17) Which approach uses mechanism of retransmitting only lost data ?


a) Transmission/time out freezing
b) Selective retransmission
c) Selective transmission
d) Selective lost retransmission
18) Indirect TCP provides
a) Isolation of wireless link
b) Mixing of wireless link
c) Transmission of wireless link
d) Isolation of wired link
19) _____________ defines current location of MN from an IP point of view.
a) HA
b) COA
c) FA
d) CN
20) A _____________ contains a timestamp and other management information
used for power management and roaming.
a) Becon
b) BSS
c) MOC
d) MTS
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-270*

-3-

SLR-KM 270

Seat
No.

B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MOBILE COMPUTING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :

(45=20)

a) Discuss various wireless network and mobile communication applications.


b) Explain the term signals used in transmission domain.
c) Elaborate code division multiplexing with suitable diagram.
d) Explain frequency hopping spread spectrum with suitable diagram.
e) Discuss basic schemes of digital modulation.
3. Which scheme is used for solving problem of hidden terminal and exposed
terminals ? How ?

10
OR

What are MTC and MOC ? Explain in detail with diagram. Explain how message
flow takes place in MTC and MOC with diagram.
4. Why handover takes place ? Explain possible handover scenarios with suitable
diagram. Explain intra MSC handover.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 270

-4-

*SLR-KM-270*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any 4 :

(45=20)

a) Differentiate between infra red and radio transmission.


b) Explain architecture of an infrastructure based IEEE 802.11 with suitable
diagram.
c) Write short note on DHCP.
d) Discuss transaction oriented TCP with suitable diagram.
e) Give and explain mechanism of TCP that influence the efficiency of TCP in a
mobile environment.
6. Write short note on L2CAP.

10

OR
What is BRAN ? List basic network types of it. Explain HiperLAN2 MAC frames.
7. What is mean by IP micro mobility ? Give most prominent approaches for the
micro mobility problems. Explain any two in detail.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 271

*SLRKM271*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT AND ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) All questions are compulsory.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The principle of mutual help is found in which type of organization


a) Co-operative society
b) Committee
c) Partnership Organization
d) Private Undertaking
2) The form of money in which the intrinsic value is less than its face value is called
a) Standard money
b) Token money
c) Legal tender money
d) None of these
3) Communication begins with
a) Idea origination
b) Encoding

c) Decoding

d) Channel selection

4) Organization charts are useful because they can


a) Help explain the organization to new staff
b) Help plan management training and succession
c) Indicate apparent weakness in structure
d) All of the above
5) Matrix organization combines the structures of
a) Function and Product / Project Organization
b) Line and Committee Organization
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
6) The oldest form of Organization, also called the traditional organization is
a) Functional Organization
b) Line, Military or Scalar Organization
c) Product Organization
d) Project Organization
7) According to Henry Fayol, Authority is defined as
a) The right to give orders and the power to demand obedience
b) The right to give orders and the control by dictatorship
c) The right to give orders without listening to their queries
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 271

*SLRKM271*

-2-

8) The number of persons who directly report to an executive is called


a) Span of employees
b) Span of industry
c) Span of control
d) None of these
9) In ____________ Leadership style, the leader assumes all power and decision.
a) Democratic or Participative
b) Laissez Faire or Free Rein
c) Authoritative or Autocratic
d) None of these
10) In the Maslows Hierarchy of needs theory the first and foremost need is
a) Esteem needs
b) Social needs
c) Safety needs
d) Physiological needs
11) If the price elasticity is between 0 and 1, demand is ____________
a) Inelastic
b) Elastic
c) Perfectly elastic d) Unit elastic
12) Goods whose income elasticities are negative are called
a) Superior goods
b) Inferior goods
c) Normal goods

d) Complements

13) The costs incurred even when no output is produced are called
a) Fixed costs
b) External costs c) Variable costs

d) Marginal costs

14) The margin of safety would be negative if a company(s)


a) Was presently operating at a volume that is below the break-even point
b) Present fixed costs were less than its contribution margin
c) Variables costs exceeded its fixed costs
d) Degree of operating leverage is greater than 100
15) Factors of production are
a) Inputs and outputs
b) Outputs only
c) Inputs only
d) The minimum set of inputs that can produce a certain fixed quantity of output
16) Luxury goods are usually
a) Price inelastic
c) Income elastic

b) Income inelastic
d) Goods with negative income elasticity

17) The income elasticity of demand is largest for


a) Food
b) Clothing
c) Shelter

d) Luxuries

18) The clearing house is managed by which of the following bank


a) State Bank of India
b) Co-operative Banks
c) Commercial Banks
d) Reserve Bank of India
19) A market will experience a ___________ when the price is above equilibrium, and a
__________ when price is below equilibrium.
a) Shortage, shortage
b) Surplus, surplus
c) Shortage, surplus
d) Surplus, shortage
20) Substitutes are defined as products with
a) Positive cross-price elasticity of demand
b) Negative cross-price elasticity of demand
c) Positive income elasticity of demand
d) Negative income elasticity of demand

______________
Set A

*SLRKM271*

-3-

SLR-KM 271

Seat
No.

B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT AND ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

i) What are the types of business organizations ? Explain private and public organization
with its advantages and disadvantages.
ii) Explain McClellands three needs theory.
iii) What is Leadership ? Explain any one leadership style in detail.
iv) Define planning. What are the various steps involved in planning ?
v) Bring out at least five differences between McGregors theory X and theory Y.
3. Attempt any two of the following :

(25=10)

i) Define the following terms and briefly explain :


a) Formal and Informal Organization
b) Controlling
c) Departmentation
d) Span of control
e) Laissez Faire or Free Rein Leadership.
ii) Explain Line, Scalar or Military Organization and Functional Organization.
iii) Explain the various techniques of Co-ordination and Controlling.
4. Attempt any two of the following :

(25=10)

i) Explain the following Management terminologies :


a) Production/Operations management
b) Financial Management
c) Personnel Management or Human Resource Management
d) Marketing Management
e) Systems Management.
ii) Define Planning. Explain the various steps involved in planning.
iii) Explain the three levels of management viz., Top Level, Middle Level and lower or
supervisory with their functions.

Set A

SLR-KM 271

-4-

*SLRKM271*

5. Attempt any 4 of the following :


1) What is break even point ? Explain with example graphical method to obtain break even
point.
2) What is elasticity of demand ? Explain cross elasticity of demand.
3) Define capital. Explain types of capital.
4) What are advantages and disadvantages of break even chart ?
5) The price and quantity demanded are given in the table :
Price (Rs.)

Quantity Demanded (Kg)

20

100

20

200

20

Compute price elasticity of demand.


6. Attempt any 2 of the following :
1) Write a short note on labour.
2) Equilibrium and price determination.
3) Explain supply, supply price, supply schedule, supply curve.
OR

10

6. Attempt the following :


Information available as under :
1) Selling price P.U. Rs. 40
2) Variable cost P.U. in factory Rs. 22
3) Variable cost P.U. in selling department Rs. 3
4) Fixed factory overhead Rs. 1,00,000
5) Fixed office overhead Rs. 60,000
6) Fixed expenses of selling department Rs. 20,000
Find out :
1) B.E.P.
2) Required sale to earn a profit Rs. 1,20,000
3) Required sale in units to earn a profit of Rs. 1,20,000.

10

7. Attempt the following :


Arvind Ltd. submitted following information :
1) Fixed cost Rs. 1,00,000
2) Variable cost Rs. 5 per unit
3) Sale out units 50,000 units
4) Selling price is fixed after charging 20% profit on the cost
Find out :
1) B.E.P. in Rs.
2) B.E.P. in units
3) Profit volume ratio.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 272

*SLRKM272*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA MINING (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Daily stock prices data is a time series database.
a) True
b) False
2) Complexity of simple distance based classification algorithm is
a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
3) ________ is a spatial database primitive.
a) Time
b) Direction
c) Transaction item
d) None
4) A tree structure called _________ is used to represent process of hierarchical
clustering.
a) B tree
b) B + tree
c) MST
d) Dendrogram
5) _________ is a height balanced tree that stores the clustering features for
a hierarchical clustering.
a) HB tree
b) B + Tree
c) NF Tree
d) CF Tree
6) The IF-part of a rule is known as
a) Rule Antecedent
c) Action

b) Rule Consequent
d) None of these

7) ID3 uses ___________ as its attribute selection measure.


a) Attribute gain
b) Selection gain
c) Gini Index
d) Information Gain
8) Social Network mining can be done by
a) Graph Mining
b) Tree Mining
c) Tree Pruning
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 272

*SLRKM272*

-2-

9) Which of the following is a data mining tool ?


a) Miner
b) WebFox
c) WEKA
10) Histogram is used for
a) Data transformation
c) Data Reduction

d) GRAPH

b) Data Cleaning
d) Data Selection

11) __________ of an item is the percentage of transaction in which that item


occurs.
a) Confidence
b) Support
c) Strength
d) None of above
12) _________ algorithm of clustering large databases handles outlier well.
a) DBSCAN
b) CURE
c) BIRCH
d) All of above
13) Regression and __________ can be used to evaluate the strength of
relationship between two variables.
a) Compression b) Cleaning
c) Correlation
d) None of above
14) __________ is not an approach to handle missing data.
a) Ignore the missing value
b) Assume a value for missing data
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
15) In dimensionality reduction _______ are applied so as to obtain compressed
representation of the original data.
a) Data encoding b) Sampling
c) Integration
d) Binning
16) K-means clustering is a ________ clustering method.
a) Partitioning
b) Hierarchical c) Density Based d) Grid Based
17) _________ is a supervised learning.
a) Classification b) Clustering
c) Transformation d) Reduction
18) STING is a _________ technique.
a) Graph Mining b) Classification c) Clustering

d) None of these

19) Full form of CART is


a) Case And Reduce Tree
b) Classification And Regression Trees
c) Classification And Reduction Trees d) Clustering And Regression Trees
20) Full form of SPADE is
a) Series Program Discovery using Equivalent Classification
b) Sequence Pattern Discovery using Event Classification
c) Sequential Pattern Discovery using Equivalent Classes
d) Sequential Pattern Discovery using Event Classification
______________
Set A

*SLRKM272*

-3-

SLR-KM 272

Seat
No.

B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA MINING (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) List and explain data mining tools.


b) Explain the difference between relational database and data mining.
c) Explain Bayes theorem.
d) What do you mean by dimensionality reduction ?
e) Explain linear regression for prediction.
3. Why there is a need of data preprocessing ? Explain data cleaning with example.10
OR
Explain classification by decision tree induction.
4. Write a note on following.

10

a) Outlier Analysis
b) Prediction.
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :

(45= 20)

a) Explain different spatial data mining primitives.


b) Explain nearest neighbor clustering algorithm with example.
c) Explain how to generate large itemsets.
Set A

SLR-KM 272

-4-

*SLRKM272*

d) Write a note on web personalization.


e) What type of patterns are detected in time series analysis ?
6. What is dendrogram ? Write agglomerative clustering algorithm with example.

10

7. Write short notes on :

10

a) Harvest Systems
b) Crawlers.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 273

*SLR-KM-273*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (STQA) (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) TQC methodologies developed in ___________ is referred to as the Ishikawa
diagram.
a) Japan
b) USA
c) Australia
d) China
2) An error is ___________ of the system.
a) Part
b) State
c) Component
d) None of these
3) Black Box testing techniques are called as ___________ testing technique.
a) Structural
b) Logical
c) Functional
d) All
4) The objective of test ___________ to improve productivity, quality and
efficiency of test execution.
a) Plan
b) Process
c) Documentation d) Automation
5) ___________ systems are used to predict some attribute of a future entity.
a) Prediction
b) Measurement c) Logical
d) None of these
6) ___________ are entities required by a process activity.
a) Processes
b) Resources
c) Products
d) None of these
7) ___________ plot allows us to look at more than one attribute at a time.
a) Architectural
b) Box
c) Scatter
d) Structural
8) ___________ complexity measures the structure of the software used to
implement the algorithm.
a) Problem
b) Algorithmic
c) Cognitive
d) Structural
9) ___________ in which the code is reused without any changes.
a) Reused verbatim
b) Slightly modified
c) Extensively modified
d) New
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 273

-2-

*SLR-KM-273*

10) ___________ is the degree of interdependence between the modules.


a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) Binding
d) All
11) In ___________ cohesion class the module performs more than one function
and they are unrelated.
a) Functional
b) Logical
c) Coincidental
d) Temporal
12) ___________ is the probability of failure free operation of a software system
for a specified period of time in a specified environment.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software quality
c) Software Portability
d) None of these
13) ___________ test group maintains the software quality throughout the
products market life.
a) Performance
b) Sustaining
c) Automation
d) Development
14) In ___________ training individual test engineer are sent to a public training
class.
a) On site commercial
b) In house
c) Public forum
d) Mentoring
15) A quality criteria is an ___________ of a quality factor that is related to
software development.
a) Axiom
b) Attribute
c) Element
d) None of these
16) In ___________ unit testing, a program unit is actually executed and its
outcomes are observed.
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Regression
d) Acceptance
17) ___________ testing is only one aspect of the contractual fulfillment of the
agreement between a supplier and buyer.
a) Unit
b) System
c) Integration
d) Acceptance
18) Maintainability quality factor falls into ___________ quality category.
a) Product transition
b) Product revision
c) Product operation
d) All
19) A quality ___________ is an attribute of a quality factor that is related to
software development.
a) Component
b) Assurance
c) Criterion
d) None of these
20) In ___________ view a product meets user needs and expectation in software
quality.
a) Transcendental b) Product
c) Manufacturing d) User
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-273*

-3-

SLR-KM 273

Seat
No.

B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (STQA) (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :

20

1) Explain Shewhart cycle and Ishikawa diagram in quality revolution.


2) Explain different testing activities in program testing.
3) Explain how to collect the data in software measurement.
4) What are the different objectives for software measurement ?
5) Explain object oriented metrics and data structures used in software
measurement.
6) Explain Albrechts approach for functionality measures in software
measurement.
3. Explain development and testing phases in the V model of test levels. Also
explain Black-Box Testing in detail.

10

OR
Explain different examples of simple analysis techniques in software engineering
measurement.

10

4. Explain use of software size, length and reuse in software engineering


measurement.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 273

-4-

*SLR-KM-273*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :

20

1) Explain System Test Team hierarchy in details.


2) Explain Dynamic Data Flow testing in detail.
3) Explain different factors influencing software reliability.
4) What are the different quality characteristics of ISO 9126 quality standard ?
Explain each characteristics briefly.
5) Explain operational profiles in software reliability.
6) Explain briefly all principles of ISO 9000 : 2000 software quality standard.
6. Define software Reliability. Also explain different applications of software
reliability.

10

OR
Explain Test Automation Infrastructure along with its all components.
7. Explain all McCalls quality factors and its criterions in detail. Also explain
relationship between McCalls quality factors and quality criteria.

10
10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 274

*SLRKM274*
S

B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt all questions from Section I and II.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume data wherever necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct options :

20

1) A .dex file is an executable file that runs inside the __________


A) SDK
B) JVM
C) DVM
D) None of the choices
2) __________ is an auto generated file containing integer constants for all
resources included in the Android project.
A) activity_main[dot]xml
B) R[dot]java
C) AndroidManifest[dot]xml
D) None of the choices are correct
3) A component that captures and responds to several announcements is called as
__________
A) Multicast receiver
B) Broadcast receiver
C) Unicast receiver
D) None of these
4) The _______ facilitates connection and communication with devices and emulators.
A) adb
B) DDMS
C) DVK
D) None of these
5) The __________ tool converts [dot] class files to [dot] dex file.
A) aapt
B) dx
C) ddms
D) None of these
6) Which class lets you access devices sensors ____________
A) Sensor
B) Sensor Event
C) Sensor Manager
D) Sensor Event Listener
7) __________ file is the registry of several details such as list of logical
components, sdk requirements and version of the app.
A) AndroidManifest.xml
B) activity_main.xml
C) Both A) and B)
D) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 274
8) AVD stands for
A) Android Virtual Device
C) Android Virtual Disk

-2-

*SLRKM274*

B) Android Virtual Directory


D) None

9) __________ is a layout resource that defines the blueprint of various elements


appearing on the screen of the app.
A) R.java
B) activity_main.java
C) activity_main.xml
D) None of the choices are correct
10) The cursor contains _______ method to get the number of rows in the result set.
A) getInt()
B) getLong()
C) getCount()
D) none of the above
11) __________ debugs apps and monitors their behavior in verbose mode.
A) DVM
B) JDK
C) DDMS
D) None of these
12) Shared preferences stores data in an XML file in the internal memory of the device.
A) True
B) False
13) Applications that require filtering based on screen size can use the attributes
A) <supportmultiple-screens>
B) <supports-screens>
C) <supportall-screens
D) supportevery-screen
14) Frame-by-frame animation also referred to as drawable animation.
A) True
B) False
15) Broadcast receivers are Androids implementation of a system-wide publish/
subscribe mechanism or more precisely, what design pattern ?
A) Observer
B) Faade
C) Mediator
D) Command
16) Services have any user interface components.
A) True
B) False
17) Which of the following methods of the Drawable class allows the client to
interact with the drawn object ?
A) getPadding()
B) getState()
C) copyBounds()
D) getLevel()
18) Which of these databases is inbuilt in the Android operating system ?
A) SQLServer
B) SQLite
C) MySQL
D) MySQL Server
19) Which of these methods can be used to view the user preferences in the context of
the overall Android framework ?
A) getPreferences()
B) getSharedPreferences()
C) getDefaultSharedPreferences() D) None of these
20) __________ is a mechanism to inform a user about the occurrence of an event.
A) SMS
B) Notification C) Missed call D) All of the above
________________

Set A

*SLRKM274*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 274

B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Attempt all questions from Section I and II.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain the android app development flow.


b) What is the use of DVK in Android Operating System ?
c) Illustrate the use of src folder in Android Project explorer.
d) Define AVD. How to create an AVD in Android SDK ?
e) Define Broadcast Receivers and explain its use.
3. With a help of neat diagram explain the complete Android Platform architecture.

10

4. Answer any one from the following questions :

10

a) Illustrate Activity Life Cycle and respective call back methods.


b) Define the Intent. Explain its types.
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

1) Describe Google Play services and its significance in Android app development.
2) Define media container and codec with relevant examples.
3) Describe the features of Location Services.
4) What is sharedpreferences in android ?
5) What do you understand by versioning, signing and packaging mobile apps ?
Set A

SLR-KM 274

-4-

6. Explain the following related to SharedPreferences :

*SLRKM274*
10

a) What is sharedpreferences in android ?


b) How to initialize the sharedpreference in android ?
c) How to store the data in sharedpreferences ?
d) How to retrieve the data in sharedpreferences ?
e) How to delete or clear the data in sharepreferences ?
7. Explain the following with related to Multimedia :

10

a) Audio, Video and images


b) Playing audio using intent
c) Playing video using intent
d) Relevant methods of Mediarecorder API
e) Role of MediaController.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 275

*SLRKM275*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MATHEMATICS I (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. :

Max. Marks : 70

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct option :

14

1) The general solution of (D4 2D3 + D2) y = 0 is


a) C1 + (C2 + C3 x) ex
b) (C1 + C2 x) + (C3 + C4 x) ex
c) (C1 + C2 x) + (C3 + C4 x) ex
d) None of these
2)

1
x is equal to
D3
x 1

a)
3 9

3) L cosh tdt =
0

s
a) 2
s 1

x 1
b)
3 9

c)

s
b) 2
s +1

1
c) 2
s 1

d)

c) te3t

d) t2e3t

1
4) L1
=
2
(
s

3
)

a) te3t

b)

e 3 t
t

x 1
+
3 9

x 1
d) +
3 9

2s

(s

5) If Z{f(k)} = F(z) then Z{kf(k)} =


a) Z

dF(z)
dZ

b) Z

dF(z)
dZ

c)

dF(z)
dZ

d)

dF (z )
dZ

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 275

*SLRKM275*

-2-

6) Z{1} =
a)

1
z 1

b)

z
z+1

c)

1
z +1

d)

z
z 1

7) If f(x) = x2 is expanded as cosine series in (0, ) then constant term =


2 2
3 2
2
3

a)
b)
c)
d)
3
2
3
3
8) The directional derivative of = x2 + y2 + z2 at (1, 1, 1) in the direction i + j + k is
a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

9) Correlation analysis help us to _____ our activities.


a) Control

b) Plan

c) Predict

d) All of the above

10) For binomial distribution mean is 12 and variance is 4 then the values of n, p, q
are respectively
a) 9,

1 2
,
3 3

b) 4,

1 1
,
2 2

2 1
c) 18, ,
3 3

2 1
d) 9, ,
3 3

11) Between 2 and 4 pm average number of phone calls coming to a switch board of
a company is 2.5. Then the probability that during a minute there will be exactly
3 calls is
a) 0.2138

b) 0.3120

c) 0.2183

d) 0.3821

12) If mean of x = 70, mean of y = 149 and by x = 0.7 then the line of regression of y on
x is
a) y = 0.8x + 120

b) y = 0.6 x + 80

c) y = 0.5 x + 60

d) y = 0.7 x + 100

13) If r is position vector of a point then div. ( r ) =


a) 0
b) 2
c) 3
14) In a M|M|I| system the ratio
a) greater than 1
c) equal to 1

d) 4

must be

b) less than 1
d) equal to 1.5

______________

Set A

*SLRKM275*

-3-

SLR-KM 275

Seat
No.

S.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MATHEMATICS I (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 2D 1) y = ex cos x.

b) Solve (D3 + D2 + D + 1) y = sin 2x.

c) Solve (D3 D2 6D) y = 1 + x2.

OR
x
c) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2) y = ee .

3. Solve any three :

2 t
2
a) Find L t e sin t

s
b) Find L1
.
2
(s 3) (s + 4)
c) Evaluate

et sin 3t
dt by using Laplace transform.
t

s 2 4 3

d) Find L log 2 .
s

Set A

SLR-KM 275

-4-

*SLRKM275*

3k
4. a) Find Z-transform and its ROC of f(k) =
, k > 0.
k!

z
, | z| < 5.
b) Find Z 1
z5

c) Find Half-range sine series of


f(x) =
=

2x
, 0< x< l2
l
2
(l x), l 2 < x < l.
l

5. a) Find Z-transform and its ROC of f(k) = cosh k, k > 0.

b) Find the Fourier series of f(x) = x + x2 in the interval ( , ) .

SECTION II
6. Attempt the following :
a) Find the angle between the tangents to the curve
r = (t3 + 1) i + (4 t 5) j + (2t2 6t)k at t = o and t = 2.

b) In a certain factory producing cycle tyers there is a small probability of 1 in 500 for
any tyer to be defective. The tyer are supplied in lots of 20. Using Poisson distribution
calculate approximately number of lots containing

i) no defective
ii) one defective
iii) two defective tyers in 1000 such lots.
c) Find div. (. ) at (1, 1, 1) where = xy2z3 and = xy2 + y2z + z2x.

Set A

*SLRKM275*

SLR-KM 275

-5-

7. Attempt the following :


a) Six dice are thrown 72 g times. How many times do you expect at least three dice
to show a 5 or 6 ?

b) Find the directional derivative of = xy (x y + z) at point (1, 2, 1) in the direction of


the normal to the surface x2 + y2 + z = 3 at (1, 1, 1).

c) Diameters of ball bearing are normaly distributed with mean 0.498 cms and
standard deviation 0.002 cms. It specifications require 0.500 0.004 cm. What
percentage of production will be rejected ? (Given : Area of a normal curve lying
between z = 0 to z = 1 is 0.3413 and that from z = 0 to z = 3 is 0.4987).

8. Attempt the following :

a) Fit a second degree parabola for the following data :


x:

y:

10

11

11

10

b) The following results were obtained from marks in applied machanics and
engineering mathematics in an examination.

Marts in

Marks in

Applied Mechanics (x)

Engg. Mathematics (y)

Mean

47.5

39.5

S.D.

16. 8

10.8

r = 0.95. Find both lines of regression. Also estimate the value of y for x = 30 and
value of x for y = 50.
c) Find the coefficient of correlation between x and y from the following data N = 20,
x = 80, x2 = 900, y2 = 800, xy = 700, y = 70 .

Set A

SLR-KM 275

-6-

*SLRKM275*

9. Attempt the following :


a) Auto vehicles arrive at a petrol pump having one petrol unit in Poisson distribution
with an average of 10 units per hour. The service is distributed
exponentially with mean of 3 min. Find.

i) Average number of units in the system


ii) Average waiting time
iii) Probability that the number of customers in the system is 2.
b) There are two typists in a type writing shop. Each typist can type on an
average 5 letters per hour. The rate of arrivals of letters is 8 per hour.

i) What is the probability that both the typists are busy ?


ii) What is the average idle time for which both typists are idle ?

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 276

*SLRKM276*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURE
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Write the correct answer from the options given below :

14

1) Determine whether or not each of the following is a partition of the set N of positive
integers
a) [{n|n > 5}, {n|n < 5}]

b) [{n|n > 6}, {1, 3, 5}, {2, 4}]

c) [{n|n2 > 11}, {n|n2 < 11}]

d) None

2) Which of the following statements is false ?


a) (P Q) (~P Q) (P ~Q) is equal to ~Q ~P
b) (P Q) (~P Q) (P ~Q) is equal to Q P
c) (P Q) (~P Q) (P ~Q) is equal to Q (P ~Q)
d) (P Q) (~P Q) (P ~Q) is equal to [(P ~P) Q] (P ~Q)
3) To show that the circuit corresponding to the Boolean expression
(P Q) (~P Q) (~P ~Q) can be represented using two logical gates, one
shows that this Boolean expression is equal to ~P Q. The circuit
corresponding to (P Q R) (~P Q R) (~P ~Q ~R) computes the same
function as the circuit corresponding to
a) (P Q) ~R
b) P (Q R)
c) ~P (Q R)
d) (P ~Q) R
4) A relation R on a set A is called a partial order iff it is
a) Reflexive

b) Antisymmetric

c) Transitive

d) All above

5) A function f : A B is bijective iff it is


a) injective
c) one to one and onto

b) surjective
d) none
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 276

*SLRKM276*

-2-

6) Which one is the contrapositive of q p ?


a) p q
b) p q.
c) q p

d) none of these

7) Each of the following defines a relation on the positive integers N : (1) x is greater
than y. (3) x + y = 10 (2) xy is the square of an integer. (4) x + 4y = 10. Determine
which of the relations are : reflexive
a) 1

b) 2 and 3

c) 4

d) none

8) Let A = Z + the set of positive integers. Define the relation R on A by aRb if and
only if a|b. R is
a) transitive

b) asymmetric

c) both

d) none

9) Which of the following two sets are equal ?


a) A = {1, 2} and B = {1}

b) A = {1, 2} and B = {1, 2, 3}

c) A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {2, 1, 3}

d) A = {1, 2, 4} and B = {1, 2, 3}

10) A relation R on a set A is called an equivalence relation iff it is


a) Reflexive and symmetric

b) Transitive

c) Both

d) None

11) If B is a Boolean Algebra, then which of the following is true.


a) B is a finite but not complemented lattice
b) B is a finite, complemented and distributive lattice
c) B is a finite, distributive but not complemented lattice
d) B is not distributive lattice
12) Let L be a lattice. Then for every a and b in L which one of the following is correct ?
a) a b = a b

b) a (b c) = (a b) c

c) a (b c) = a

d) a (b c) = b

13) Abelian group satisfies additional ___________ property than group.


a) transitive

b) inverse

c) identity

d) commutative

14) Integral domain in _____________ have property with no zero deviser.


a) ring

b) field

c) chain

d) none

______________

Set A

*SLRKM276*

SLR-KM 276

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURE
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015

Marks : 56

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any five questions :

(45)

1) Write the PCNF of P (P Q).


2) Obtain the CNF of (P (P Q)) Q.
3) Define properties of binary relations in a set.
4) Explain equality of set and proper set.
5) Show implication (P Q) Q P Q and of (P Q) (P Q).
6) Show that (p q) (q p) is logically equivalent to p q with truth table.
3. What is POSET ? Give procedure to draw Hasse diagram for powerset of S = {a, b, c}.

SECTION II
4. Attempt any 5 questions :

(45)

1) Definition lattice with GLB and LUB example.


2) P1 = 123

P2 = 123

P3 = 123

P4 = 123

P5 = 123

P6 = 123

123

213

321

132

231

312

Draw permutation and prepare table for (P, *).


Set A

SLR-KM 276

-4-

*SLRKM276*

3) Write note on Group code.


4) Let A = B = {a, b, c}. Consider the relation g = {(a, b), (b, c), (c, c)}. Is g one-to-one ?
Is g onto ? Why ? With example explain.
5) What are the different type of functions.
6) Which of the partially ordered sets in figures (a), (b) and (c) are lattices ? Justify
your answer.

5. Write algorithm to convert infix expression to polish Notation with example.

_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 277

*SLRKM277*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED C CONCEPT
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
3) Answer all questions from Section I and II.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume data wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) The complexity of sorting algorithm measures the ________ as a function of


the number n of items to be sorter.
a) average time
b) running time
c) average-case complexity
d) case-complexity
2) Which type conversion is NOT accepted ?
a) From char to int
b) From float to char pointer
c) From negative int to char
d) From double to char
3) The time complexity of quick sort is _______
a) O (n)
b) O (logn)
c) O (n2)

d) O (n logn)

4) When compiler accepts the request to use the variable as a register ?


a) It is stored in CPU
b) It is stored in cache memory
c) It is stored in main memory
d) It is stored in secondary memory
5) Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide and conquer type ?
a) Bubble sort
b) Insertion sort
c) Merge sort
d) Selection sort

P.T.O.

SLR- KM 277

-2-

*SLRKM277*

6) What is the output of this C code ?


#include <stdio.h>
void main ( )
{
int k = 5;
int *p = &k;
int **m = &p;
printf (%d%d%d\n, k, *p, **m);
}
a) 5 5 5
b) 5 5 junk value
c) 5 junk junk
d) compile time error
7) Automatic variables are variables that are
a) Declared within the scope of a block, usually a function
b) Declared outside all functions
c) Declared with auto keyword
d) Declared within the keyword extern
8) Sorting algorithm can be characterized as ______
a) Simple algorithm which require the order of n2 comparisons to sort n items
b) Sophisticated algorithms that require the O (nlog2n) comparisons to sort
items
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
9) Which of the following fopen statements are illegal ?
a) fp = fopen(abc.txt, r);
b) fp = fopen(/home/user1/abc.txt, w);
c) fp = fopen(abc, w);
d) None of the mentioned
10) What will be the value of var for the following ?
var = strcmp(Hello, World);
a) 1
b) 0
c) 1
d) strcmp has void return-type
11) One of the uses for function pointers in C is
a) Nothing
b) There are no function pointers in c
c) To invoke a function
d) To call a function defined at run-time
12) Partition and exchange sort is _____
a) quick sort
b) tree sort
c) heap sort
d) bubble sort
13) Which of the following are correct syntaxes to send an array as a
parameter to function ?
a) func(&array);
b) func(array);
c) func(*array);
d) func(array[size]);
14) The complexity of bubble sort algorithm is
d) O (n logn)
a) O (n)
b) O (logn)
c) O (n2)
Set A
_________

*SLRKM277*

-3-

SLR- KM 277

Seat
No.

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED C CONCEPT
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Marks : 56

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Answer all questions from Section I and II.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four of the following :

(34=12)

a) What are different storage class specifiers in C ? Write the syntax of the all
the storage classes.
b) State advantages and disadvantages of recursion.
c) What is the difference between calloc () and malloc () function
d) What is a function ? What are the advantages of the functions ?
e) How do you use a pointer to a function ?
3. Solve any two :

(24=8)

a) Write a C Program to convert a string to a number and a number to a string.


b) What is Dynamic Memory allocation ? Write a program to demonstrate the
same concept.
c) Write a C program to print length of a string without using any built-in function.
d) Comparison between Iterative method and recursion method with example.
4. Explain Towers of Hanoi with four disks. Draw a diagram of the same.

8
Set A

SLR- KM 277

-4-

*SLRKM277*

SECTION II
5. Solve any four of the following :

(34=12)

a) Write an algorithm for binary search using recursion.


b) Define sorting. Differentiate between internal and external sorting.
c) For the following sequence of elements perform insertion-sort.
25, 17, 31, 13, 2
d) Explain the different searching techniques.
e) Explain asymptotic notations in detail.
6. a) Write the algorithm for bubble-sort. For the following sequence of elements
70, 66, 40, 88, 22 perform bubble-sort. Show passes at each iteration.

OR
b) Write a C program to illustrate reading of data from a file and write a C
Program to find the Number of Lines in a Text File.

7. Write the algorithm for quick-sort. Given the following sequence of elements,
perform quick-sort :
44, 33, 11, 55, 77, 90, 40, 60, 99, 22, 88, 66

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 278

*SLR-KM-278*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct alternative :


1) Number of select lines required for 1 to 64 de-multiplexer is
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
2) How many flip-flops are required for mod-8 counter ?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2

14

d) 3

3) The Boolean expression A !B + A B ! + AB is equivalent to


a) A + B
b) A !B
c) AB
d) None of these
4) The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0, the gate is
either
a) NAND or EX-OR
b) OR or EX-NOR
c) AND or EX-OR
d) NOR or EX-NOR
5) A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have
a) 5 states
b) 10 states
c) 32 states
6) Which of the following memory is volatile memory ?
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) PROM

d) Infinite
d) EEPROM

7) In a JK Flip-Flop, toggle means


a) Q = 1, Q ! = 0
b) Q = 0, Q ! = 1
c) Change the output to opposite state
d) No change in output
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 278

*SLR-KM-278*

-2-

8) 8 to 1 multiplexer integrated circuit is


a) 74153

b) 74193

c) 74154

d) 74151

9) Assigning a value to signals is done by


a) >=

b) :=

c) <=

d) None of these

10) Which of the following requires periodic refreshing


a) DRAM

b) SRAM

c) ROM

d) All of these

11) In VHDL, V stands for


a) Very High Speed IC

b) Very High Scale IC

c) Verilog High Speed IC

d) None of these

12) Octal to BCD conversion/priority interrupt handling is done by IC


a) 7447

b) 74148

c) 7490

d) 75151

13) Which of the following has more propagation delay ?


a) Serial n-bit adder

b) Parallel n-bit adder

c) Carry look-ahead adder

d) None

14) Maxterms of f(A, B, C, D) = m (0, 1, 4, 5, 11, 13, 14, 15) are


a) m (2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12)

b) M (0, 1, 4, 5, 11, 13, 14, 15)

c) M (2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12)

d) None of these

______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-278*

-3-

SLR-KM 278

Seat
No.

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015

Marks : 56

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instruction : All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any three :

(53)

a) Minimize f (A, B, C, D) = M( 0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 10, 15).


b) Explain Master-slave J-K flip flop.
c) Implement Y = XY + X ! Z !+ YZ using NAND and NOR gates.
d) Design and explain 1-bit comparator.
e) Explain Parity generator/checker.
3. Design and explain 4-bit carry look-ahead adder.

OR
Explain 3-bit asynchronous counter.
4. Explain any two modes of shift register with waveforms.

Set A

SLR-KM 278

-4-

*SLR-KM-278*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any three :

(53)

a) Design and explain full subtractor using 4 : 1 multiplexer.


b) Design 32 to 1 multiplexer using 8 to 1 multiplexer.
c) Explain dynamic RAM cell with refreshing circuit.
d) Design 512 8 memory chip using 512 4 memory chip.
e) Write a VHDL code for full adder and full subtractor.
6. Explain the use of IC 74148 with a diagram.

OR
Explain 16 cell ROM memory organization and operation.
7. Explain seven segment decoder driver using IC-7447.

OR
Write VHDL program for 4 to 1 multiplexer.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 279

*SLRKM279*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER GRAPHICS (New CGPA)

Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Super sampling is a technique for
a) Shading
b) Halftoning

c) Antialiasing

d) None of above

2) Speakers and microphones are the ___________ of a multimedia system.


a) Technology
b) Unsupportable devices
c) Elements
d) All
3) In parametric curves each coordinate of a point on a curve is represented as ____________
of a single parameter.
a) Precision
b) Method
c) Procedure
d) Function
4) For a black and white with one bit per pixel, the frame buffer is commonly called as
a) Pixmap
b) Bitmap
c) Image
d) Resolution
5) The window coordinates are called as __________ coordinates.
a) World
b) Screen
c) Normal

d) Scalar

6) Distance between the actual line and nearest grid location is


a) Error term
b) Rasterization
c) Resolution

d) Intensity

7) _______________ is a unit of display file.


a) Segment
b) Byte

d) None of above

c) LOC

8) Z-buffer algorithm consists of frame buffer and ___________


a) Pixel buffer
b) Depth buffer
c) Image buffer

d) None of above

9) Curve is defined as collection of


a) Lines
b) Co-ordinates

d) All

c) Points

10) _____________ technique is used in midpoint subdivision algorithm.


a) Binary search
b) Bubble sort
c) Sequential search
d) Linear search
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 279
11) In Bezier curve basis functions are
a) Real
b) Integer

*SLRKM279*

-2-

c) Float

d) None of above

12) Which of the following is a type of boundary fill algo ?


a) Edge fill
b) Fence fill
c) Feed fill

d) Both a and b

13) The line segment is visible if both end point codes are
a) 0000
b) 1111
c) 0101

d) 1010

14) In quad tree structure __________ of the tree is the display window.
a) Leaf
b) Root
c) Non-leaf
d) Successors
______________

Set A

*SLRKM279*

-3-

SLR-KM 279

Seat
No.

S.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER GRAPHICS (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 56

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Each Section carries 28 marks.
SECTION I

2. Solve any three (Each carries 4 marks) :

12

a) Explain the applications of computer graphics in detail.


b) Describe combined transformations in 2D.
c) Describe Random-Scan system.
d) Describe integer Bresenhams algo. For first octant.
3. Consider an Object ABC with coordinates A (1, 1) B (10, 1) and C (5, 5). Perform following
transformations on the object in given order.

i) Translate object by 3 and 2 factors in X and Y directions respectively.


ii) Compress the object by 60%.
iii) Reflect the object about y-axis.
OR
Describe following 3D transformations with example :
i) 3D scalling
ii) 3D rotation about X-axis
iii) 3D translation.
4. Explain following polygon filling algos.

a) Edge fill
b) Edge flag
c) Seed fill.

Set A

SLR-KM 279

-4-

*SLRKM279*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any three (each carries 4 marks) :

12

a) Explain parametric curves in detail.


b) Explain midpoint sub division algo. in detail.
c) Write note on image and applications.
d) Briefly explain the steps used in Cohen-Sutherland line clipping algo.
6. What is Segment ? Explain segmented display files in detail with all its functions.

OR
Explain antialiasing and halftoning techniques in detail.
7. What is multimedia ? Why do we need multimedia ? Explain all elements of a multimedia
system.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 280

*SLRKM280*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURES I (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions from Section I and II are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

20

1) Which data structure is needed to convert infix notation to postfix notation ?


A) Branch
B) Queue
C) Tree
D) Stack
2) When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is no
available space; this situation is usually called
A) underflow
B) overflow
C) empty
D) saturated
3) Which of the following is two way list ?
A) grounded header list
B) circular header list
C) linked list with header and trailer nodes
D) none of above
4) Towers of hanoi is an example of recursion.
A) True
B) False
5) A linear collection of data elements where the linear node is given by
means of pointer is called
A) linked list
B) node list
C) primitive list D) none of these
6) A queue is a
A) FIFO
B) LIFO
C) Ordered array D) Linear tree
7) Function malloc returns a pointer of type void * to the memory it allocates
and if it is unable to allocate memory, it returns a NULL pointer.
A) True
B) False
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 280

*SLRKM280*

-2-

8) Which of the following traversal techniques lists the nodes of a binary search
tree in ascending order ?
A) post-order
B) in-order
C) pre-order
D) none of the above
9) State true or false.
i) The degree of root node is always zero.
ii) Nodes that are not root and not leaf are called as internal nodes.
A) i) True, ii) True
B) i) True, ii) False
C) i) False, ii) True
D) i) False, ii) False
10) Which is/are the application(s) of stack ?
A) Function calls
B) Large number arithmetic
C) Evaluation of arithmetic expressions
D) All of the above
11) int *p means p is a pointer to an integer type.
A) True
B) False
12) Dynamic memory allocation allocates memory during run time.
A) True
B) False
13) Which of the following name is related to stacks ?
A) FIFO lists
B) LIFO list
C) Pipes
14) Insertion does not happen in a linked list.
A) True
B) False

D) Push-down lists

15) Circular linked list allocates deletes one element at a time.


A) True
B) False
16) In a linked list with n nodes, the time taken to insert an element after an
element pointed by some pointer is
A) 0(1)
B) 0(log n)
C) 0(n)
D) 0(n log n)
17) Finding the location of the element with a given value is
A) Traversal
B) Search
C) Sort
D) None of above
18) The term push and pop is related to the
A) Array
B) Lists
C) Stacks

D) All of above

19) Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data elements ?
A) Array
B) Records
C) Pointers
D) None of above
20) Which of the following is the method of opening a file ?
A) fopen( )
B) fseek( )
C) fsearch( )
D) none of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM280*

-3-

SLR-KM 280

Seat
No.

S.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURES I (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions from Section I and II are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
1) Explain streams and file types.
2) Explain pointer to pointer with diagram.
3) State different string library functions.
4) Define and explain towers of hanoi.
5) What are the operations that we can perform on file ?
3. Explain pointers and structures with example.
4. Attempt the following :
a) Explain recursion technique in detail.
b) Explain pointer of arrays with example.

(54=20)

10
(52=10)

SECTION II
5. Answer the following questions (any four) :
A) Explain stack operations.
B) Explain queue operations.
C) Explain circular queue.
D) Explain linked list.
E) State and explain stack applications.
6. Explain priority queue with the help of an example.
7. Explain the following terms :
1) Stack using Linked List.
2) Queue using Linked List.
3) Applications of Linked List.
_____________________

(54=20)

10
(2+4+4)

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 281

*SLRKM281*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015
SWITCHING THEORY AND LOGIC DESIGN (Old)

Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The minimum number of NAND gates required to implement the Boolean function.
A + AB + ABC is equal to
a) Zero
b) 1

c) 4

2) Which of the following logic expression is incorrect ?


a) 1 0 = 1
b) 1 1 0 = 1 c) 1 1 1 = 1

d) 7
d) 1 1 = 0

3) A graphical display of the fundamental products in a truth-table is known as


a) Mapping
b) Graphing
c) T-map
d) Karnaugh-map
4) Which of the following respectively represent Commutative law, Associative law and
Distributive law ?
I) A. (BC) = (A.B).C
II) P + Q = Q + P
III) A. (B + C) = A.B + A.C
a) I, III and II
b) II, I and III
5) A four variable K-map has
a) 8 min terms
b) 12 min terms

c) III, II and I

d) III, I and II

c) 16 min terms

d) 32 min terms

6) One example of the use of an S-R flip-flop is as a (n) :


a) racer
b) astable oscillator
c) binary storage register
d) transition pulse generator
7) A J-K flip-flop is in a no change condition when
a) J = 0, K = 0
b) J = 1, K = 0
c) J = 0, K = 1

d) J = 1, K = 1

8) The implementation of simplified sum-of-products expressions may be easily implemented


into actual logic circuits using all universal _________________ gates with little or no
increase in circuit complexity. (Select the response for the blank space that will BEST
make the statement true)
a) AND/OR
b) NAND
c) NOR
d) OR/AND
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 281

*SLRKM281*

-2-

9) How many different states does a 3-bit asynchronous counter have ?


a) 2
b) 4
c) 16
d) None of these
10) A Full adder can be realized using
a) One half adder, two OR gates
c) Two half adders, one OR gates

b) Two half adders, two OR gates


d) None of these

11) IC 74151 is used as


a) Encoder

c) Multiplexer

b) Decoder

d) Demultiplexer

12) Following IC is used for BCD to 7 segment decoder


a) 74148
b) 74157
c) 7447

d) 7485

13) IC 74152 is a multiplexer having


a) 1 : 8 lines
b) 1 : 32 lines

c) 8 : 1 lines

d) 16 : 1 lines

14) A PLA can be used


a) As a Dynamic memory
c) As a Microprocessor

b) As a Static memory
d) To realize a Combinational logic

15) For register level the information units is


a) Bits
c) Bubble

b) Words and Vectors


d) None of these

16) A PAL is comprised of programmable _______ gates.


a) NAND
b) NOR
c) OR

d) None of these

17) A memory whose data need to be refreshed periodically is called


a) Static memory
b) Dynamic memory
c) Content addressable memory
d) RAM
18) A memory (2k x n), There are k address lines, which can specify one of 2k addresses.
Each address contains an n-bit word.
a) True
b) False
19) A device that selects one of several inputs to be placed on the output is a multiplexer.
a) True
b) False
20) The difference between a PLA and a PAL is
a) The PLA has a programmable OR plane and a programmable AND plane, while the
PAL only has a programmable AND plane
b) The PAL has a programmable OR plane and a programmable AND plane, while the
PLA only has a programmable AND plane
c) The PAL has more possible product terms than the PLA
d) PALs and PLAs are the same thing
______________

Set A

*SLRKM281*

-3-

SLR-KM 281

Seat
No.

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015


SWITCHING THEORY AND LOGIC DESIGN (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
a)

(45=20)

i) Convert the following expression in to canonical POS form Y = (P + Q) (P + R) ( Q + R ).


ii) Convert the following expression in to canonical SOP form y = AB + AC .

b) Mention different types of K-map minimization techniques. Simplify the following three
variable expression Y =

M (0, 2, 3, 5).

c) Design half adder using NAND gates.


d) Explain Arithmetic Logic Unit using 74181 IC.
e) What are the Different types of Flip Flops ? Draw and explain T-Flip Flop in detail.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Draw and explain Operation of carry look ahead adder. Obtain the expression for carry at
each stage for 4 bit adder.
b) Design Asynchronous decade counter with circuit diagram and wave form.
c) Simplify the following expression by considering Dont care conditions and by Ignoring
the Dont care conditions.
y=

m (1, 2, 3, 12, 13, 15) + d (5, 7, 8)


SECTION II

4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Implement the following combinational circuit using a decoder


f1 =

m (8, 10, 13, 15)

f2 =

m (3, 5, 9, 13)

f3 =

m (1, 4)

b) Implement Full adder using Multiplexer.

Set A

SLR-KM 281

-4-

*SLRKM281*

c) Write a short note on IC 7447.


d) Explain the different types of memories in detail.
e) Explain programmable logic array in detail with block diagram.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Design 16 : 1 Multiplexer using 4 : 1 Multiplexer.


b) Design 32 K 4 memory using 16 K 2 memory chips.
c) What are the major components of Processor level design ? Explain the processor level
design with example in detail.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 282

*SLRKM280*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Part II) (IT) Examination, 2015
APPLIED MATHEMATICS II

Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer (one mark each) :

20

1) A root of the equation x cosx = 0 lies between


a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3

c) 0 and 1

d) 1 and 0

2) For finding the complex roots ______ method can be used.


a) Bisection
b) False position
c) Newton-Raphson
N is

3) The Newtons iterative formula to find


1
N
a) xn+1 = 2 x n + x
n

d) Mullers

N
b) xn+1 = 2 xn + x
n

4) ______ method has quadratic convergence.


a) N R method
c) Bisection method

c) xn+1 = x n ( 2 Nxn )

d)

xn +1 =

1
1
xn +

2
Nxn

b) Regula Falsi method


d) None of the above

5) ______ method is used to find the largest eigen value.


a) Gauss-Jordan
b) Factorization
c) Power

d) Gauss-Seidal

6) In Gauss-elimination method the system is reduced to ______ matrix.


a) lower triangular
b) upper triangular
c) diagonal

d) identity

7) While applying the Weddles rule, the number of subintervals should be taken
a) at most 6
b) as a multiple of 6
c) only 6

d) none of the above

8) If

0.5

f (x)

0.8

1
0.5

a) 0.575

then the value of

f (x) dx

by Trapezoidal rule is

b) 0.775

c) 1.55

d) 1.15

9) The error in the quadrature formula is given by


b

a) E = y dx p (x)dx
a

b) E = p (x) dx y dx
a

c) E = y dx + p (x) dx
a

d) None of these

10) Solution of the equations x + y + z = 9 ; 2x 3y + 4z = 13 ; 3x + 4y + 5z = 40 is


a) (1, 2, 3)
b) (1, 3, 4)
c) (1, 3, 5)

d) None of the above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 282

*SLRKM282*

-2-

11) If A, B F (x) then the set X +(A B) is equal to


a) XA XB

b) XA XB

c) X+ A X+ B

12) For the fuzzy set defined by the function A (x) = 1


a) 5.2

b) 5.4

d)

X+ A X+B

x
, x {0,1, 2,.....,10} the scalar cardinality of set A is
10
c) 5.5
d) 5.6

13) The largest membership grade obtained by an element in a fuzzy set is called as
a) Support of fuzzy set
b) Height of fuzzy set
c) Normal of fuzzy set
d) Fuzzy number
14) An ordinary fuzzy set is also called as
a) Type 2 fuzzy set
c) Level 2 fuzzy set

b) Type 1 level 1 fuzzy set


d) Type 2 level 2 fuzzy set

15) Which of the following is true ?


a) S(A, B) =

A
A B

b) S(B, A) =

A B
A

c) S(A, B) =

A B
B

d) None of these

16) For the fuzzy sets


A (x) =

0.1 0.5 0.7 0.8 1


+
+
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

B(x) =

0.2 0 0.65 0.7 0.35


+ +
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

the set A B is
a)

0.2 0.5 0.7 0.8 1


+
+
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

b)

c)

0.9 1 0.35 0.3 0.65


+ +
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

d) None of these

17) A fuzzy cardinality of fuzzy set is


a) Fuzzy set
c) Fuzzy number

0.8 0.5 0.3 0.2 0


+
+
+
+
1
2
3
4
5

b) A real number
d) None of these

18) The collection of all membership grades for a fuzzy set is called as
a) Index set
b) Level set
c) Gradation set
d) Special fuzzy set
19) Which of the following is true ?
a)
c)

(A B) ( x ) = ( A B) ( x)
(A B) ( x ) = ( A B) ( x)

b)
d)

(A B) ( x ) = ( A B) ( x)
(A B) ( x ) = ( A B) ( x)

20) If XA = [2X 1, 3 2X] and XB = [2X + 1, 5 2X] then for X (0, 1), XA +B = ____
a) [4X 6, 2 4X]

b) [4X, 8 + 4X]

c) [3X, 8 4X]

d) [4X, 8 4X]

______________

Set A

*SLRKM282*

-3-

SLR-KM 282

Seat
No.

S.E. (Part II) (IT) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MATHEMATICS II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
2) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
SECTION I
2.

a)

Find the root of equation x3 x 11 = 0 by using Bisection method correct upto


2 decimal places.

b) Perform two iteration by N R-method to solve non-linear equation


x = x2 + y2, y = x2 y2. Take initial approximation x0 = 0.8, y0 = 0.4.
1 1

3.

a)

Evaluate e

x+y

dxdy take h = k = 0.5 using Trapezoidal rule.

0 0
1

b) Evaluate

1+ x dx

using three point Gaussian quadrature formula.

c) Evaluate

x2

(1+ x 3 ) dx

using Weddles rule.

4.

5.

a) Solve the system of equation by LU decomposition method (factorization method)


x + y + z = 9 ; 2x 3y + 4z = 13 ; 3x + 4y + 5z = 40.

b) Solve using Jacobs method 20x + y 2z = 17 ; 3x + 20y z = 18, 2x 3y + 20z = 25


perform 4 iteration.

a) Solve by Gauss-elimination method 3x + 2y + 7z = 4 ; 2x + 3y + z = 5 ; 3x + 4y + z = 7.

b) Find the value of

28 by NR method perform 3 iteration.

c) Determine largest eigen value and corresponding eigen vector correct upto
5 4
3-decimal places A =
.
1 2

OR
1

c) Evaluate

1+ x dx

using Rombergs method by taking initial value of h = 0.5.

Set A

SLR-KM 282

-4-

*SLRKM282*

SECTION II
6.

a) Calculate the X - cuts and strong X - cuts for each of the following fuzzy sets, for X = 0.2, 0.5, 0.8, 1.
i) A (x) =

x
, x [0, 10]
x+2

ii) B (x) = 2 x , x [0, 10] .

b) Order the fuzzy sets defined by the following membership grade functions (assuming x > 0) by inclusion
relation.
A (x) =

7.

1
1
, B (x) =

1 + 10x
1 + 10x

1
2

1
, C(x) =
.
1 + 10x

a) If A and B are fuzzy sets defined on universal set X given by


A (x) =

0.5 1 0.5 0.3


+ +
+
1 0
1
2

B (x) =

0.5 1 0.5 0.3


+ +
+
2
3
4
5

and let f : X X X be defined by f (x1, x2) = x1 + x2, x1, x2 X then find f (A, B).

b) Let A and B are two fuzzy numbers with membership function given by
x + 3
3

A (x) = 3 x

x 2
2

B(x) = 6 x
2

3 < x 0

0<x3
otherwise
,

2 < x 4

4 < x 6
otherwise

Calculate fuzzy number A + B and A B.


8.

a) Determine which fuzzy sets defined by the following membership function are the fuzzy numbers.
i) A (x) = min (1, x)
,x>0
=0
,x<0
ii) B (x) = 1
,x=5
=0
otherwise

b) Calculate degree of subsethood of C in D where


x
x
, D (x) = 1
x +1
10
defined on universal set X = {0, 1, 2, 3, . . ., 10}.
C(x) =

c) Explain the concept of fuzzy quantifiers.

4
3

Set A

*SLRKM282*
9.

-5-

SLR-KM 282

a) Solve the fuzzy equation A X = B where


x 4

A (x) = 6 x
0

, 4<x5
, 5<x6
otherwise

x 10
10

B(x) = 35 x
15

10 < x 20

20 < x 35

otherwise
OR

a) Let A and B be two fuzzy no. whose membership functions are given by
x + 2
3

A (x) = 4 x
3

2 < x 1

, 1< x 4
otherwise

x 1 , 1< x 2

B (x) = 3 x , 2 < x 3
0
otherwise

Find the two fuzzy numbers MAX (A, B) (X) and MIN (A, B) (X).

b) Explain in your words :


i) indicational and unqualified
ii) unconditional and qualified fuzzy proposition and their role.

c) Calculate the following fuzzy operations on the intervals


i) [1, 2] + [1, 3]
ii) [ 2, 4] [3, 6].

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 283

*SLRKM283*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015


THEORY OF COMPUTATION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Select correct alternative :
1) Regular expression are
a) Type 0 language
c) Type 2 language

Marks : 20
(201=20)
b) Type 1 language
d) Type 3 language

2) Regular expressions are closed under


a) Union
b) Intersection

c) Kleen star

3) Which of the following is true ?


a) (01)*0 = 0(10)*
c) (0+1)* 01 (0+1)*+1*0* = (0+1)*

b) (0+1)*0(0+1)*1(0+1)=(0+1)*01(0+1)*
d) All of the mentioned

4) Regular grammar is
a) Context free grammar
c) English grammar

b) Non context free grammar


d) None of the mentioned

5) Which string can be generated by S->aS/bA, A->d/ccA


a) aabccd
b) adabcca
c) abcca

d) All of the mentioned

d) abababd

6) The regular expressions denote zero or more instances of an x or y is


a) (x + y)
b) (x + y)*
c) (x* + y)
d) (xy)*
7) The regular expression denote a language comprising all possible strings of even length
over the alphabet (0,1)
a) 1 + 0(1+0)*
b) (0+1)(1+0)*
c) (1+0)
d) (00 + 0111+10)*
8) R1 and R2 are regular sets. Which of the following is not true ?
a) R1 R2 need not be regular
c) R1 R2 is regular

b) * R1 is regular
d) Is regular

9) Consider the following right-linear grammar G = (N, T, P, S) N = {S}


P:S aS|aA T = {a, b}
A bA|b
Which of the following regular expression denotes L(G) ?
a) (a + b)*
b) a(ab)*b
c) aa*bb*
d) a*b*
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 283

*SLRKM283*

-2-

10) The concept of grammar is much used in this part of the compiler.
a) Lexical analysis
b) Parser
c) Code generation
d) Code optimization
11) A language is regular if and only if
a) Accepted by DFA
c) Accepted by LBA

b) Accepted by PDA
d) Accepted by Turing machine

12) A FSM can be considered, having finite tape length without rewinding capability and
unidirectional tape movement.
a) Turing machine
b) Pushdown automata
c) Context free languages
d) Regular languages
13) Recursively enumerable languages are not closed under
a) Complementation b) Union
c) Intersection

d) None of the above

14) Which of the following conversion is not possible (algorithmically) ?


a) Regular grammar to context-free grammar
b) Nondeterministic FSA to deterministic FSA
c) Nondeterministic PDA to deterministic PDA
d) Nondeterministic TM to deterministic TM
15) Recursive languages are
a) A proper superset of CFL
c) Are also called type 0 languages

b) Always recognized by PDA


d) Always recognized by FSA

16) Which of the following conversion is not possible ?


a) Regular grammar to context-free grammar
b) Nondeterministic FSA to deterministic FSA
c) Nondeterministic PDA to deterministic PDA
d) Nondeterministic TM to deterministic TM
17) Grammars that can be translated to DFAs
a) Left linear grammar
b) Right linear grammar
c) Generic grammar
d) All of these
18) Which of the following problems is solvable ?
a) Writing a universal Turing machine
b) Determining of an arbitrary Turing machine is an universal Turing machine
c) Determining of an universal Turing machine can be written for fewer than k instructions
for some k
d) Determining of a universal Turing machine and some input will halt
19) Turing machine (TM) is more powerful than FMS (Finite State Machine) because
a) Tape movement is confined to one direction
b) It has no finite state
c) It has the capability to remember arbitrarily long sequences of input symbols
d) None of these
20) Universal TM influenced the concept of
a) Stored program computers
b) Interpretative implementation of programming language
c) Computability
d) All of these

______________

Set A

*SLRKM283*

-3-

SLR-KM 283

Seat
No.

S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015


THEORY OF COMPUTATION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80
SECTION I

2. Answer the following (any 4) :

20

a) Define regular expression. Find regular expressions for the following languages :
i) The language of odd ones for {0,1} alphabet
ii) The language of strings ending with 1 and not containing 00.
b) Define FA, * and acceptance by Finite automaton.
c) Construct a finite automaton and represent it with example strings for the
language of strings ending in 1 and not containing 00.
d) Prove that the language L with NFA there is an FA accepting same language L.
e) What is derivation tree and ambiguous CFG ? With example elaborate it.
f) What are nullable variables and unit productions ? Eliminate unit productions
from the following grammar
A A B | B
B B/C | C
C (A) | a
3. Define NFA transitions and NFA. Convert the following NFA moves in to
an NFA and FA.

10

OR
3. Prove that for an NFA accepting language L there is an NFA that also accepts L.
4. Prove the theorem that if L1 and L2 are CFLs then L1UL2, L1L2 and L1* are
also CFLs.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 283

-4-

*SLRKM283*

SECTION II
5. Answer the following (any 4) :

20

a) Define Pushdown Automata and construct PDA for a language of Palindromes


with an alphabet {a, b}.
b) Explain pumping lemma with example.
c) Define Turing machine, configuration of TM and acceptance by TM.
d) Prove the theorem that if L1 is a CFL and L2 is a regular language then L1 L2 is
a CFL.
e) Explain multitape Turing machine with proper example.
f) Elaborate universal Turing machine in detail.
6. Construct a Turing machine for accepting a language for
L = {SS | S {a,b}*}
Explain its moves for the strings aba, abab, aaaa.
OR
6. What is nondeterministic Turing machine ? Prove that if T1 be an NTM then
there is a TM T2 with L(T2) = L(T1).

10

7. Define a Turing machine computing a function and construct a Turing machine


for a function f(x) = x +2.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 284

*SLRKM284*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015
MICROPROCESSORS

Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) 8085 can access how many bytes of memory ?


a) 32 K bytes
b) 64 K bytes
c) 65530 bytes

d) 65536 K bytes

2) Which of the following is a special signal ?


a) ALE

b) S1

c) S2

3) Which of the following is externally initiated signal ?


a) RST 7.5
b) RESET OUT
c) CLK OUT

d) RD
d) ALE

4) The content of accumulator is A7H and carry flag is reset to 0. After execution of RAR
instruction what is the content of accumulator ?
a) 4FH
b) 4EH
c) 53H
d) 57H
5) Specify the output at PORT 1 if the following program is executed.
MVI B, 82H
MOV A,B
MOV C,A
MVI D, 37H
OUT PORT1
HLT
a) 37H

b) 82H

c) 00H

d) FFH

6) Specify the output at PORT 1 if the following program is executed.


MVI C, A8H
MOV A,C
ANI 0FH
OUT PORT1
HLT
a) A8H

b) 0FH

c) 08H

d) A0H
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 284

*SLRKM284*

-2-

7) Type of addressing mode for ADD M instruction is


a) Immediate addressing mode
b) Register addressing mode
c) Direct addressing mode
d) Indirect addressing mode
8) How many machine cycles are required to execute LHLD ?
a) 4
b) 1
c) 2

d) 3

9) How many T states are required for JMP instruction ?


a) 10
b) 6
c) 4

d) 7

10) The hexadecimal key board consists of 16 keys. The keys are arranged as 4 4 matrix,
hence the number of I/O lines required to connect this keyboard are
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32
11) There are _________ software interrupts.
a) 5
b) 8

c) 10

d) 6

12) Which interrupt has highest priority ?


a) TRAP
b) INTR

c) RST 7.5

d) RST 6.5

13) SIM means __________


a) Simple Interrupt Mask
c) Serial Interrupt Mask

b) Set Interrupt Mask


d) Set Internal Mask

14) Vector address of RST 7.5 is __________


a) 0024
b) 003 c
c) 002 c

d) 0028

15) LOCK prefix is used most often


a) during normal execution
c) during interrupt servicing

b) during DMA accesses


d) during memory accesses

16) Direction flag is used with


a) string instructions
c) arithmetic instructions

b) stack instructions
d) branch instructions

17) When A1 = 0, A0 = 0 which port of 8255 is selected ?


a) port A
b) port B
c) port C
18) 8259 is __________ IC.
a) programmable interrupt controller
c) programmable interval timer

d) CWR

b) programmable peripheral interface


d) none of these

19) We can connect ________ number of I/O devices to 8085.


a) 64K
b) 256
c) 128

d) None of these

20) Serial input data of 8085 is loaded in bit - 7 of the accumulator using _________
a) RIM instruction
b) EI instruction
c) None of these

d) SIM

______________

Set A

*SLRKM284*

-3-

SLR-KM 284

Seat
No.

S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSORS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :

(44=16)

1) Write a note on any four externally initiated signals.


2) How instruction fetching and execution operation takes place ?
3) Exchange the contents of H and L with D and E without using XCHG instruction.
4) What is addressing mode ? Explain types of addressing mode.
5) Draw the timing diagram of OPCODE fetch cycle.

3. Attempt any 3 :

(83=24)

1) Draw the pin diagram of 8085 and list the 8085 features.
2) With an example, explain the following instructions PUSH, POP, XTHL and SPHL.
3) Write an assembly language program to multiply two 8 bit numbers and to find factorial of
a given number n.
4) Explain the concepts of interfacing keyboard to 8085 with neat diagram.

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) What are the comparison between 8086, 80286 and 80386 ?


b) Explain use of HOLD and HLDA pin in DMA data transfer.
c) Give the features of 80286 microprocessor.
d) Draw the block diagram of 8255 PPI.
e) Draw and explain SIM instruction bit format.

Set A

SLR-KM 284

-4-

5. Attempt any three :

*SLRKM284*
(83=24)

a) Draw and explain interrupt structure of 8085. Give all the priority levels and vector locations
of each interrupt.
b) Interface 2 digit seven segment display using 8255 PPI.
c) Draw and explain internal block diagram of 8251 USART.
d) Draw and explain architecture of 80286.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 285

*SLRKM285*
S

S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions from Section I and II are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

20

1) When inorder traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal


would return
A) FAEKCDBHG B) FAEKCDHGB C) EAFKHDCBG D) FEAKDCHBG
2) When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is no available
space; this situation is usually called
A) underflow
B) overflow
C) empty
D) saturated
3) Which of the following is two way list ?
A) grounded header list
B) circular header list
C) linked list with header and trailer nodes
D) none of above
4) Which data structure is needed to convert infix notation to postfix notation ?
A) Branch
B) Queue
C) Tree
D) Stack
5) A linear collection of data elements where the linear node is given by means of
pointer is called
A) Linked list
B) Node list
C) Primitive list
D) None of these
6) A queue is a
A) FIFO

B) LIFO

C) Ordered array

D) Linear tree

7) Function malloc returns a pointer of type void * to the memory it allocates and if it
is unable to allocate memory, it returns a NULL pointer.
A) True
B) False

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 285

-2-

*SLRKM285*

8) Which of the following traversal techniques lists the nodes of a binary search tree
in ascending order ?
A) post-order
B) in-order
C) pre-order
D) none of the above
9) State true or false.
i) The degree of root node is always zero.
ii) Nodes that are not root and not leaf are called as internal nodes.
A) i) True, ii) True
B) i) True, ii) False
C) i) False, ii) True
D) i) False, ii) False
10) Which is/are the application(s) of stack ?
A) Function calls
B) Large number arithmetic
C) Evaluation of arithmetic expressions D) All of the above
11) An undirected graph G with n vertices and e edges is represented by adjacency
list. What is the time required to generate all the connected components ?
A) O (n)
B) O (e)
C) O (e + n)
D) O (e2)
12) A graph with n vertices will definitely have a parallel edge or self loop of the total
number of edges are
A) more than n
B) more than n + 1
C) more than (n + 1)/2
D) more than n (n 1)/2
13) The maximum degree of any vertex in a simple graph with n vertices is
A) n 1
B) n + 1
C) 2n 1
D) n
14) The number of different directed trees with 3 nodes are
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
15) One can convert a binary tree into its mirror image by traversing it in
A) inorder
B) preorder
C) postorder
D) any order
16) In a linked list with n nodes, the time taken to insert an element after an element
pointed by some pointer is
A) 0 (1)
B) 0 (log n)
C) 0 (n)
D) 0 (n log n)
17) A B-tree of minimum degree t can maximum _______________ pointers in a node.
A) t 1
B) 2t 1
C) 2t
D) t
18) A BST is traversed in the following order recursively : Right, root, left. The output
sequence will be in
A) Ascending order
B) Descending order
C) Bitomic sequence
D) No specific order
19) A binary tree of depth d is an almost complete binary tree if
A) Each leaf in the tree is either at level d or at level d 1
B) For any node n in the tree with a right descendent at level d all the left
descendents of n that are leaves, are also at level d
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the above
20) An adjacency matrix representation of a graph cannot contain information of
A) nodes
B) edges
C) direction of edges
D) parallel edges
______________

Set A

*SLRKM285*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 285

S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURES
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions from Section I and II are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

1) Explain Threaded Binary Tree.


2) Explain insertion and deletion of a node from Doubly Link List with diagram.
3) Evaluate (A + B)* (C D) Infix to Postfix with stack values.
4) Define stack and explain Push, Pop operations with diagram.
5) What are the operations that we can perform on binary tree nodes ?
3. Define Queue. Explain sequential representation, operations and implementation of
Queue in detail.
4. Attempt the following :

10
(52=10)

a) Explain sequential representation of Trees.


b) Explain types of Linked List and their operations.

Set A

SLR-KM 285

-4-

*SLRKM285*

SECTION II
5. Answer the following questions : (Any four)

(54=20)

A) Draw the AVL tree resulting from the insertion of the following integer keys.
50, 72, 96, 94, 107, 26, 12, 11, 9, 2
B) With the sequence of inputs 10, 8, 20, 5, 3 construct a height balanced binary
search trees.
C) Explain the difference between depth-first and breadth-first traversing techniques
of a graph.
D) Write note on Balanced Multiway Trees.
E) Explain Dijkstras algorithm for finding the shortest path in a given graph.
6. Draw the complete undirected graphs on one, two, three, four and five vertices. Prove
that the number of edges in an n vertex complete graph is n(n 1)/2.
7. Explain the following terms :

10
(2+4+4)

1) B+ Trees
2) Single and Double Rotation of AVL trees
3) Traversing a Multiway Tree.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 286

*SLRKM286*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) _________ layer allows mailing service and filing transfer between communicating
systems.
a) Transport
b) Network
c) Application
d) Physical
2) Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device
a) Router
b) Bridge
c) Repeater
d) Modem
3) Which of the following condition is used to transmit two packets over a medium at
the same time ?
a) Contention
b) Collision
c) Synchronous
d) Asynchronous
4) Contention is
a) one or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of
devices
b) a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second
signal
c) the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the
same time
d) a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications
service among stations attached to the network
5) A distributed network configuration in which all data/information pass through a
central computer is
a) bus network
b) star network
c) ring network d) point-to-point network
6) What part of 192.168.10.51 is the Network ID, assuming a default subnet mask ?
a) 192
b) 192.168.10
c) 0.0.0.5
d) 51
7) The slowest transmission speeds are those of
a) twisted-pair wire b) coaxial cable c) fiber-optic cable d) microwaves
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 286

*SLRKM286*

-2-

8) __________ are store and forward device in network layer.


a) bridge
b) repeaters
c) router
d) none of the above
9) Internet-like networks within an enterprise.
a) Intranets
b) Switching alternating
c) Inter organizational networks
d) Extranets
10) To connect a computer with a device in the same room, you might be likely to use
a) a coaxial cable
b) a dedicated line
c) a ground station
d) all of the above
11) IP addresses 10000001 00001011 0000101 1 11101111 from binary notation to
dotted notation will be
a) 81.11.11.255
b) 129.11.11.239
c) 81.11.11.241 d) 129.131.27.241
12) 227.12.14.87 is in
a) class A

b) class B

c) class C

d) class D

13) This host on this network IP address is __________


a) 1111.1111.1111.1111
b) 0.0.0.0
c) both
d) none
14) Network layer services have been designed for independent of _________
a) subnet technology
b) type
c) topology
d) all above
15) _________ routing algorithm is not dynamic algorithm.
a) Flow based routing
b) Link state
c) Distance vector
d) None
16) Congestion occurs due to _________
a) slow processors
b) no free buffer

c) both

17) _________ are store and forward device in data link layer.
a) bridge
b) repeaters
c) router

d) none
d) none of the above

18) CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access) is


a) a method of determining which device has access to the transmission medium at
any time
b) a method access control technique for multiple-access transmission media
c) a very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued by ISO
d) network access standard for connecting stations to a circuit switched network
19) The main difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission is
a) the clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission
b) the clocking is mixed with the data in asynchronous transmission
c) the pulse height is different
d) the bandwidth required is different
20) In distance vector routing distance to each of the neighbour is _________
a) estimate of time
b) distance to destination
c) hops
d) all of above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM286*

-3-

SLR-KM 286

Seat
No.

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80
SECTION I

2. Answer any four of the following :


a) Sketch Manchester encoding for bit stream 0001110101.
b) Explain TCP/IP protocol.
c) Write a short note on Transmission Impairments.
d) What is noise ? Describe different types of noise.
e) What issues are considered in DLL design.

(45)

3. Attempt any one of the following :


a) Show data transmission by the generator polymail x3 + 1 to x7 + x5 + 1.
b) Explain error correction code for 10110101.

10

4. Answer the following :


a) Explain ATM reference model with diagram.

10

SECTION II
5. Answer any four of the following :
a) What is special addressing ? Write with example.
b) What are the network layer design issues ?
c) Discuss channel allocation problems.
d) Write down detail about 802.3 IEEE standard.
e) Explain binary countdown.

(45)

6. Attempt any one of the following :


a) With example explain shortest path algorithm.
b) What is static algorithm ? Explain flow based routing.

10

7. Answer the following :


a) Explain sub netting and sub netting mask with example.

10

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 287

*SLRKM287*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
DATA STRUCTURE II (Old)

Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The memory address of the first element of an array is called


a) floor address
b) foundation address
c) first address
d) base address
2) The memory address of fifth element of an array can be calculated by the formula
a) LOC (Array [5] = Base (Array) + w (5 lower bound), where w is the number of words
per memory cell for the array
b) LOC (Array [5]) = Base (Array [5]) + (5 lower bound), where w is the number of
words per memory cell for the array
c) LOC (Array [5]) = Base (Array [4]) + (5 Upper bound), where w is the number of
words per memory cell for the array
d) None of the above
3) Which of the following data structures are indexed structures ?
a) linear arrays
b) linked lists
c) both of the above d) none of the above
4) Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm ?
a) The list must be sorted
b) There should be the direct access to the middle element in any sublist
c) There must be mechanism to delete and /or insert elements in list
d) None of the above
5) Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm ?
a) must use a sorted array
b) requirement of sorted array is expensive when a lot of insertion and deletions are
needed
c) there must be a mechanism to access middle element directly
d) binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data elements are more than 1000
6) Two dimensional arrays are also called
a) tables arrays
b) matrix arrays

c) both of the above d) none of the above


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 287

*SLRKM287*

-2-

7) A variable P is called pointer if


a) P contains the address of an element in DATA
b) P points to the address of first element in DATA
c) P can store only memory addresses
d) P contain the DATA and the address of DATA
8) Which of the following data structure cant store the non-homogeneous data elements ?
a) Arrays
b) Records
c) Pointers
d) None
9) Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data elements ?
a) Arrays
b) Records
c) Pointers
d) None
10) Each data item in a record may be a group item composed of sub-items; those items
which are indecomposable are called
a) elementary items b) atoms
c) scalars
d) all of the above
11) The difference between linear array and a record is
a) An array is suitable for homogeneous data but hte data items in a record may have
different data type
b) In a record, there may not be a natural ordering in opposed to linear array
c) A record form a hierarchical structure but a linear array does not
d) All of the above
12) Which of the following statement is false ?
a) Arrays are dense lists and static data structure
b) Data elements in linked list need not be stored in adjecent space in memory
c) Pointers store the next data element of a list
d) Linked lists are collection of the nodes that contain information part and next pointer
13) Binary search algorithm can not be applied to
a) sorted linked list
b) sorted binary trees
c) sorted linear array
d) pointer array
14) When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is no available space;
this situation is usually called
a) underflow
b) overflow
c) houseful
d) saturated
15) The situation when in a linked list START = NULL is
a) underflow
b) overflow
c) houseful

d) saturated

16) Which of the following is two way list ?


a) grounded header list
b) circular header list
c) linked list with header and trailer nodes d) none of the above
17) Which of the following name does not relate to stacks ?
a) FIFO lists
b) LIFO list
c) Piles

d) Push-down lists

18) The term push and pop is related to the


a) array
b) lists
c) stacks

d) all of the above

19) A data structure where elements can be added or removed at either end but not in the
middle
a) Linked lists
b) Stacks
c) Queues
d) Deque
20) When inorder traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would
return
a) FAEKCDBHG
b) EAFKHDCBG c) FAEKCDHGB
d) FEAKDCHBG
______________

Set A

*SLRKM287*

-3-

SLR-KM 287

Seat
No.

S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURE II (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions from Section I and II are compulsory.


3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(54=20)

a) Explain asymptotic notation in detail.


b) Give an algorithm for binary search and discuss the time complexity for various cases of
inputs.
c) Write an algorithm for bubble-sort, selection sort.
d) Give an algorithm for insertion sort and find out its time complexity for various cases of
the input.
e) What is hashing ? What is the need of hashing ?
f) Explain open addressing technique to resolve hash clashes.
3. Arrange the following list of elements in sorted order using bubble sort. Show the required
passes of the above sort. Find the complexity of the bubble sort algorithm.
44, 55, 33, 88, 77, 22, 11, 66.

10

4. Define hashing and hash function. Discuss the structure of closed hash table. Discuss how
double hashing is used as collision resolution strategy.

10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four of the following :

(54=20)

a) Differentiate between Binary Tree, B Tree, B+ Tree.


b) Write recursive algorithm for the following tree traversals.
i) Inorder
ii) Preorder

Set A

SLR-KM 287

-4-

*SLRKM287*

c) Write and explain shortest path algorithm.


d) What is the advantage of using sequential representation for almost complete binary tree ?
e) Define graph and its terminologies.
f) Write down the property of a Binary search tree.
6. Explain the process of threading of a binary tree for inorder traversal with at least two examples.
10
7. What is a Binary Search Tree (BST) ? Make a BST for the following sequence of numbers.
45, 36, 76, 23, 89, 115, 98, 39, 41, 56, 69, 48
Traverse the tree in Preorder, Inorder and postorder.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 288

*SLRKM288*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


FORMAL SYSTEM AND AUTOMATA
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Consider regular language L = {111 + 11111} * for this __________ is minimum


states in DFA.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 8
d) 9
2) Which of the following regular expression all possible combinations over
alphabets {a, b} ?
a) a*b*
b) (ab)*
c) (a + b)*
d) (a + b*)
3) For which of the following application regular expression cannot used
a) Lexical analysis
b) Finding pattern in text
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
4) The grammar S =>aSb/^ generates
a) {anbn : n>=1}
c) {ambn : m> 1,n>=0}

b) {anbn : n>=0}
d) none

5) The set corresponding to regular expression {abb,a,a,bba} is


a) abb+a+b+bba
b) abb
c) a + b
d) bba
6) Ambiguous grammar produces
a) more parse tree b) no parse tree c) graph

d) none

7) DFA have _______ memory.


a) finite
b) infinite

c) undetermined

d) none

8) (a + b)* + (a + b)* gives


a) odd length string
c) string contains a and b

b) even length string


d) string containing at least one a or b
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 288

*SLRKM288*

-2-

9) The procedure to convert CFG to CNF consist of Eliminating


a) Null production
b) Unit production
c) Useless production
d) All of the above
10) CFG S-->aSa| bSb|a|b is
a) even palindrome
b) odd palindrome
c) string contain equal no. of a and b
d) none
11) In PDA each move will determined by the current state, next input and
a) Changing state
b) Replacing the top stack
c) The symbol on the top of the stack
d) None
12) A grammar that is both left and right recursive for non terminal is
a) ambiguous
b) unambiguous
c) information not sufficient
d) none
13) The difference between finite automata and PDA is in
a) Reading head b) Input tape
c) Finite control
14) PDA accepts string by stack with
a) empty stack
b) null input

d) Stack

c) both a) and b) d) none

15) Which of the following is not accepted by PDA ?


b) Palindrome consisting of as and bs
a) L = {anbn}
n
n
n
c) L = {a c b }
d) None
16) Which is not true for mechanical diagram of Turing Machine ?
a) The head moves in both directions
b) The head reads as well as writes
c) Input string is surrounded by infinite number of blank in both side
d) Some symbols are pushed into the stack
17) L = (ap where p is prime) is
a) CFL
b) Non CFL

c) DFA

d) None

18) Which statement is true ?


a) The tape of Turing machine is infinite
b) The tape of Turing machine is finite
c) The tape of Turing machine is infinite when the language is regular
d) The tape of Turing machine is finite when the language is nonregular
19) (anbn where n 1) can be recognise by
a) TM
b) PDA
c) Both a) and b) d) None
20) PDA can also be non-deterministic.
a) True
b) False
______________

Set A

*SLRKM288*

-3-

SLR-KM 288

Seat
No.

S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


FORMAL SYSTEM AND AUTOMATA
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Draw Finite Automata that accepts string ending with 101.


2) Prove every finite language is regular.
3) What is regular expression ? Explain with example.
4) For the following regular expression draw an NFA_^ with the help of Kleens
theorem (0 + 1) (11) * (110).
5) Give the application of finite automata.
3. Answer any one :

10

1) Write detail how to convert the NFA_^ into FA.


2) Prove that for class of regular language bid closed under operation of union
concatation and *.
4. Show that the grammar
S --> A|B
A --> aAb | a
B --> abB | ^
is ambiguous. Find the CFG with unambiguous grammar.

10

SECTION II
5. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Define Turing machine.


2) State and explain pumping lemma for regular language.
Set A

SLR-KM 288

-4-

*SLRKM288*

3) Explain the concept of multi tape Turing machine model.


4) Obtain a TM to accept n mod 2 of 0s and 1s.
5) Show that L = { ss | s is string containing as and bs } is not context free.
6. Answer any one :

10

1) Draw transition diagram and Turing machine which delete a symbol from a
string.
2) Construct a PDA to accept to given language L by empty stack and final state
both where L = (anb2n where n 1) with transition.
7. Give transition table and machine for PDA to recognize balanced string of
3 types () {} & [] and show PDA is accepting ([[[{}]]]).

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 289

*SLRKM289*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS I (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :

(201=20)

I) In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are
responsibility of
a) Session layer
b) Network layer
c) Transport layer
d) Data link layer
II) Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation ?
a) fiber optics
b) satellite
c) coaxial cable
d) modem
III) The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be
processed by a receiving computer is referred to as
a) modulation
b) demodulation
c) synchronizing
d) digitising
IV) Which of the following communication modes support two-way traffic but in only
one direction at a time ?
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) three-quarters duplex
d) all of the above
V) Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing
communications needs ?
a) front end processor
b) multiplexer
c) controller
d) all of the above
VI) CRC can detect all bursts of upto m errors, if generator polynomial G(x) is of degree
a) one
b) m 1
c) m
d) m + 1
VII) In TCP, a unique sequence number assigned to each
a) Byte
b) Word
c) Segment

d) Message

VIII) Which model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to be organized ?
a) ITU T
b) OSI
c) ISO
d) ANSI
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 289

*SLRKM289*

-2-

IX) The store and forward mechanism is used in


a) Packet switching
b) Message switching
c) Circuit switching
d) Data gram switching
X) Start and stop bits are used in serial communication for
a) Error detection
b) Error correction
c) Synchronization
d) Slowing down the communication
XI) If N is the maximum sequence number, then the window sizes in selective reject
and Go-Back-N protocols are respectively
a) N/2, N 1
b) N, N + 1
c) N + 1/2, N
d) N 1, N + 1
XII) IEEE 802.4 standard for
a) Overview and Architecture
c) Token Ring

b) Token bus
d) Virtual LAN and Security

XIII) 802.11 n standard running speed is


a) Upto 11 Mbps
c) Upto 450 Mbps

b) Upto 54 Mbps
d) Upto 2 Mbps

XIV) Which protocol is used to convert IP addresses to MAC address ?


a) IP
b) RARP
c) In ARP
d) None of the above
XV) Error detecting method that can detect more errors without increasing additional
information in each packet is
a) Checksum
b) Even parity mechanism
c) CRC
d) Odd parity mechanism
XVI) 802.11 b standard running speed is
a) 11 Mbps
c) 450 Mbps

b) 54 Mbps
d) 2 Mbps

XVII) IEEE 802.11 standard for


a) Wireless LAN (WiFi)
c) Personal Area Network

b) Broadband Wireless
d) Wireless Regional Area Network

XVIII) Which of the following is the simplest error detection method ?


a) Parity Check
b) Longitudinal Redundancy Checking
c) Checksum Checking
d) Cyclic Redundancy Checking
XIX) Which of the following cables can transmit data at high speeds ?
a) Co-axial cables
b) Optical fibre cables
c) UTP
d) Twisted Pair Cable
XX) Which of the following is a product of LLC sublayer ?
a) 802.3 frame
b) 802.5 frame
c) PDU (Protocol Data Unit)
d) Preamble

______________

Set A

*SLRKM289*

-3-

SLR-KM 289

Seat
No.

S.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER NETWORKS I (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions :
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

20

Explain different transmission impairments in networks.


Explain Simplex, Half Duplex and Full Duplex transmission with example.
Explain use and significance of computer networks.
Write a note on TCP.
Write a short note on Application Layer and Session Layer of OSI model.

3. Explain ATM reference model in detail.

10

OR
3. Explain OSI reference model in detail.
4. Write short note on (any two) :

10

A) Error correction technique


B) Error detection technique
C) Network software.
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four questions :

20

A) Explain channel allocation problem in networks.


B) Write a short note on Bridges.
C) Differentiate IPv4 and IPv6.
D) Write a note on IEEE standard 802.3.
E) Differentiate distance vector and link state routing algorithms.

Set A

SLR-KM 289

-4-

6. Explain OSPF routing protocol in detail.

*SLRKM289*
10

OR
6. Explain different classes of IPv4 address with subnet mask.
7. Write short note on (any two) :

10

A) ARP
B) RARP
C) BGP.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 290

*SLRKM290*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015


NETWORK MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) All questions are compulsory.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) Which protocol ensures reliable delivery ?


a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Both a and b

d) None of these

2) TCP/IP is mainly used for


a) File transfer
b) Email

c) Remote login

d) All of these

3) TCP/IP is
a) Network hardware
c) Protocol

b) Network software
d) None of these

4) Which is the lowest layer of the TCP/IP model ?


a) Host to Host layer
b) Network Access layer
c) Internet layer
d) Application layer
5) In a TCP header source and destination header contains
a) 8 bits
b) 16 bits
c) 32 bits

d) 128 bits

6) Which of the following is not a networking device ?


a) gateways
b) linux
c) routers

d) bridges

7) Which of the following can be a software ?


a) routers
b) modems
c) gateways

d) firewalls

8) What is the use of the ping command ?


a) To test whether a device on the network is reachable
b) To test a hard disk fault
c) To test a bug in application
d) To test a print/printer quality
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 290

*SLRKM290*

-2-

9) Each IP packet must contain


a) Source Address
c) Source and destination address
10) What is the benefit of networking ?
a) File sharing
c) Easier backup

b) Destination Address
d) None of these
b) Easier access to resources
d) All of the above

11) SNMP messages goes across a network between a _________ and an agent.
a) Manager
b) Node
c) Server
d) None
12) In SNMP a tool sniffs every packet going across LAN in monitoring system
a) SNMP
b) SMTP
c) Both
d) None
13) Remote network monitoring (RMON)
a) Remote Monitoring Network
c) Recent Monitoring Network

b) Remote Network Monitoring


d) None

14) Rmon acts as a network


a) Manager
b) Agent

c) Both

d) None

15) SNMP manager contains additional object than SNMP agent is


a) DLC
b) Trap
c) Management data
d) None
16) RFC 1157 describes SNMP
a) Architecture
c) Management information

b) Structure
d) None

17) Configuration management in network management is used in the context of


discovering network
a) problem
b) topology
c) connectivity
d) none
18) Inventory management is efficient
a) Network structure
c) Network topology

b) Database system
d) None

19) Fault management involves


a) Service restoration
c) Fault location

b) Fault detection
d) All of above

20) Performance metrics parameter can measure by


a) Throughput
b) Response time
c) Network availability
d) All of the above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM290*

-3-

SLR-KM 290

Seat
No.

T.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015


NETWORK MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following.

(45=20)

a) Explain the concept of connection oriented concurrent server.


b) Explain the Three Way Handshaking in TCP connection.
c) Explain DHCP packet format.
d) Explain DNS query and DNS response message in detail.
e) Explain BOOTP and the operations on BOOTP.
f) Explain the different UDP operations.
3. Attempt any one of the following.

(110=10)

a) What is congestion window ? Explain all congestion control policies used by TCP.
b) Explain the architecture of E-Mail along with neat diagrams of all Scenarios.
4. Attempt any one of the following.

(110=10)

a) Explain the services and functions of Application and Transport Layer.


b) Describe the Hyper Text Transfer Protocol in detail.
SECTION II
5. Answer the following any two.

(72=14)

I) Explain SNMP manager and agent diagram.


II) Explain proxy server organization model with diagram.
III) Explain SNMP model.

Set A

SLR-KM 290

-4-

*SLRKM290*

6. Answer the following any two.

(72=14)

I) What is the role of network topology in configuration management ?


II) What are the performance metrics in performance management ?
III) Explain network provisioning.
7. Write short notes.

(62=12)

I) SNMP MIB group.


II) SNMP managed objects and management information base.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 291

*SLRKM291*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) The Fetch and Execution cycle was implemented in which model of the computer
a) Apple Macintosh Computer
b) ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer)
c) John Von Neumann Computer
d) All these
2) Vacuum tubes and tunnel diodes were inefficient that formed devices of first generation
because
a) They were very slow in their processing speed
b) They were bulky and consumed much power
c) Difficult to manage
d) All of these
3) The ability to use all addressing modes in a uniform and consistent way with all opcodes
of the instruction set of an assembly language is called
a) Orthogonality
b) Symmetry
c) Uniformity
d) None of these
4) CISC stand for
a) Complex Instruction Set Computer
c) Complex Information Solution Computer

b) Complex Information Set Computer


d) None of these

5) Which of the following relations hold good between memory levels Mi and Mi + 1 where
C is cost per bit, tA is the access time and S is the storage capacity ?
a) Ci<Ci+1, tAi<ti+1, Si<Si+1
b) Ci>Ci+1, tAi>ti+1, Si<Si+1
c) Ci>Ci+1, tAi<ti+1, Si<Si+1
d) None of these
6) HDL stands for
a) Hardware Definition Language
c) Hardware Domain Language

b) Hardware Description Language


d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 291

*SLRKM291*

-2-

7) Which of the following statement is true ?


a) Multiplication ends with a single length product and division begins with double length dividend
b) Multiplication ends with a double length product and division ends with single length dividend
c) Multiplication ends with a double length product and division begins with double length
dividend
d) None of these
8) 8085 Assembly Languages uses _________ for specifying addressing modes.
a) Operand fields
b) Op codes
c) Special bits
d) None of these
9) If an instruction contains the address W of a storage location which in turn contains the
address X of the desired operand value V(X) then it is called
a) Direct addressing
b) Auto indexing
c) Register to register addressing
d) Indirect addressing
10) __________ register contains the address of the instruction to be executed next.
a) Instruction register b) Program counter c) Instruction counter d) All of these
11) The stalling of the processor due to the unavailability of the instructions is called as
a) Control hazard
b) Structural hazard c) Input hazard
d) None of the above
12) The periods of time when the unit is idle is called as
a) Stalls
b) Bubbles
c) Hazards

d) Both a) and b)

13) If a unit completes its task before the allotted time period, then
a) It will perform some other task in the remaining time
b) Its time gets reallocated to different task
c) It will remain idle for the remaining time
d) None of the mentioned
14) The algorithm followed in most of the systems to perform out of order execution is
a) Tomasulo algorithm
b) Score carding
c) Reader-writer algorithm
d) None of the above
15) _________ has been developed specifically for pipelined systems.
a) Utility softwares
b) Speed up utilities
c) Optimizing compliers
d) None of the mentioned
16) In VLIW the decision for the order of execution of the instructions depends on the program
itself.
a) True
b) False
17) _________ defines the behaviour of reads and writes to the same memory locations.
a) Consistency
b) Coherence
c) Replication
d) Migration
18) SIMD computers exploit
a) Data level parallelism
c) Control level parallelism

b) Thread level parallelism


d) None of these

19) A branch prediction cache that stores the predicted address for next instruction after a
branch is called a
a) Branch-target buffers b) Coherence
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
20) Snooping protocols is called a __________ because it invalidates other copies on a write.
a) Read invalidate protocol
b) Write invalidate protocol
c) Write validate protocol
d) Read and write protocol

______________
Set A

*SLRKM291*

-3-

SLR-KM 291

Seat
No.

T.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) Give the salient features of five generation of computers.


b) List and explain different instruction types in ARC-A RISC computer.
c) Compare RISC and CISC processor architecture.
d) Explain the different rules of delay element method.
e) Describe the IEEE format for floating point numbers.
f) Explain the ARC Assembly Language instruction format.
3. Attempt any one of the following :

(110=10)

a) Explain sequence counter method in multiplier control unit method.


b) Explain the Booths algorithm with an example.
4. Attempt any one of the following :

(110=10)

a) Explain the concept of memory hierarchy, interleaved memory with suitable diagrams.
b) Explain the non-restoring division algorithm by performing 8 3.

Set A

SLR-KM 291

-4-

*SLRKM291*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Define computer architecture. Illustrate the seven dimensions of an ISA.


2) With a neat diagram explain the classic five stage pipeline for a RISC processor.
3) Explain difference between linear and non linear pipeline.
4) What is dependability ? Explain two main measures of dependability.
5) Explain the directory based coherence for a distributed memory multiprocessor system.
6) Explain the basic schemes for enforcing coherence in a shared memory multiprocessor
system.
6. Attempt any one :

(110=10)

1) What are the techniques used to reduce branch costs ? Explain both static and
dynamic branch prediction used for same.
2) What are the key issues in implementing advanced speculation techniques ? Explain
them in detail.
7. Attempt any one :

(110=10)

1) With a neat diagram give the basic structure of Tomasulo based MIPS-FP unit and
explain the various fields of reservation stations.
2) Explain the basic VLIW approach for exploiting ILP, using multiple issues.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 292

*SLRKM292*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (IT) (New) (Part I) Examination, 2015


SYSTEM SOFTWARE
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The gap between application and PL domain is called


a) Semantic gap
b) Specification gap
c) Execution gap
d) None of these
2) Type-1 Grammar is
a) :: =

b) A :: =

c) A :: = tB Bt t

3) Specification to LEX is in the form of


a) Alphabets
c) Regular expressions

b) Productions
d) None of these

4) Syntax errors are identified by


a) Scanner
c) Semantic analyzer

b) Parser
d) None of these

d) A :: =

5) Input buffering is used in _____________ phase of compiler.


a) Syntax analysis
b) Lexical analysis
c) Semantic analysis
d) Both (a) and (b)
6) Conversion of NFA to DFA is done by
a) DFA algorithm
c) NFA algorithm

b) Subset construction algorithm


d) None of these

7) In LR(k) grammar, k means


a) Grammar symbol
c) No. of Look-ahead i/p characters

b) Terminal
d) Non-terminal

8) Which of the following is an imperative statement ?


a) MOVER BREG, LABEL
b) ORIGIN 200
c) B DS 20
d) None of these
9) Symbol table in assembler is created by
a) Analysis phase
c) Both (a) and (b)

b) Synthesis phase
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 292

*SLRKM292*

-2-

10) In which variant of the intermediate code memory is balanced ?


a) Variant I
b) Variant II
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
11) Instruction cost of following instruction is
SUB 4(R0), *12 (R1)
a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

12) A code generation algorithm uses


a) Register descriptor
c) Both (a) and (b)

b) Operand/address descriptor
d) None of these

13) Graph-coloring is a technique for


a) Register allocation
c) Next-use information

b) Basic block transformation


d) None of these

14) Which of the following technique is used in loop optimization ?


a) Code motion
b) Induction variable
c) Reduction in strength
d) All of these
15) Linker binds an external reference to correct
a) Translation time address
b) Link time address
c) Load time address
d) None of these
16) Linking table LINKTAB contains information of
a) Object modules
b) Public definitions
c) External references
d) Both (b) and (c)
17) Overlays are used for
a) Increasing the speed of program
c) Linking external references

b) Reducing main memory requirement


d) None of these

18) In absolute loader, linking is done by


a) Programmer
b) Assembler

c) Loader

d) Linker

19) Transfer vector in loader is used for


a) Relocation
b) Linking

c) Loading

d) None of these

20) Overlays are used in


a) Dynamic loader
c) Relocating loader

b) Absolute loader
d) Direct-linking loader
______________

Set A

*SLRKM292*

-3-

SLR-KM 292

Seat
No.

T.E. (IT) (New) (Part I) Examination, 2015


SYSTEM SOFTWARE
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) What are the phases of compilation ? Give input and output of each phase.
b) What is a pattern ? How is it identified ?
c) List few assembly directives.
d) What are imperative statements ? Illustrate.
e) What do problem oriented languages ideal with ?
3. Attempt any one :

10

a) What is a system software ? Elaborate on the domains it is concerned with.


b) Compare between translation and interpretation.
4. Attempt any one :

10

a) Illustrate the development of a predictive parser for an illustrative grammar and parse a
string.
b) State the logic behind a single pass assembler using a flowchart.
SECTION II

5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) What are DAGS ? How do they help in analysis ?


b) What is constant folding ? Illustrate.
c) What is relocation ? When is it required ?
d) What is a public definition ? How does it affect linking ?
e) What are functions of loader ? How are they carried out ?

Set A

SLR-KM 292

-4-

*SLRKM292*

6. Attempt any one :

10

a) What characteristics of a target machine should be considered when generating a target


code ?
b) What criteria is involved in code optimization ? Illustrate in different Code optimization
techniques.
7. Attempt any one :

10

a) With neat diagram explain steps involved in program execution.


b) What changes are required in basic linker algorithm when dealing with overlays ?

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 293

*SLRKM293*
S

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF OPERATING SYSTEM
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Answer all questions : choose the correct option :

20

1) When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a special type of absolute loader called
___________ is executed.
A) Compile and go loader
B) Bootstrap loader
C) Boot loader
D) Relating loader
2) The degree of multi-programming is
A) the number of processes executed per unit time
B) the number of processes in the ready queue
C) the number of processes in the I/O queue
D) the number of processes in memory
3) It is not the layer of the Operating System
A) Kernel
B) Shell
C) Application program D) Critical section
4) Which of the following is not shared by threads ?
A) Program Counter
B) Stack
C) Both A) and B)
D) None of above
5) The Zero Capacity queue
A) is referred to as a message system with buffering
B) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
C) is referred to as a link
D) none of these
6) The number of processes completed per unit time is known as ___________
A) Output
B) Throughput
C) Efficiency
D) Capacity
7) Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler ?
A) dispatcher
B) interrupt
C) scheduler
D) none of the mentioned
8) In priority scheduling algorithm
A) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
B) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
C) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
D) None of the mentioned

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 293

-2-

9) Time quantum is defined in


A) shortest job scheduling algorithm
C) priority scheduling algorithm

*SLRKM293*

B) round robin scheduling algorithm


D) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

10) Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the Kernel ?
A) kernel level thread
B) user level thread
C) process
D) none of the mentioned
11) A process is selected from the _________ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be executed.
A) blocked, short term
B) wait, long term
C) ready, short term
D) ready, long term
12) Which process can affect of be affected by other process executing in the system ?
A) cooperating process
B) child process
C) parent process
D) in it process
13) Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
A) mutex locks
B) binary semaphores
C) both a) and b)
D) none of the mentioned
14) A critical region
A) is a piece of code which only one process executes at a time
B) is a region prone to deadlock
C) is a piece of code which only a finite number of processes execute
D) none of the above
15) The circular wait condition can be prevented by
A) defining a linear ordering of resource types
B) using thread
C) using pipes
D) all of the mentioned
16) Which one of the following is a visual way to determine the deadlock occurrence ?
A) resource allocation graph
B) starvation graph
C) inversion graph
D) none of the mentioned
17) Demand paged memory allocation
A) allows the virtual address space to be independent of the physical memory
B) allows the virtual address space to be a multiple of the physical memory size
C) allows deadlock to be detected in paging schemes
D) is present only in Windows NT
18) Logical Address is generated by
A) Memory Management Unit (MMU) B) CPU
C) Memory Address Registers
D) Base Register
19) Which of the following are used in I/O system ?
A) Polling
B) Interrupts
C) Direct Memory Access

D) All

20) Compaction is
A) Freeing the block to allocate another
B) Freeing the resources to allocate another
C) Packing all free blocks to create one free block
D) None of these

_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM293*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 293

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF OPERATING SYSTEM
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : All questions are compulsory.


SECTION I
2. Answer any four of the following :

(45=20)

1) Write a short note on Time Shared Operating System and its advantages.
2) Explain Process Control Block in detail.
3) Define the following terms : Process, Process State, CPU Scheduler, Dispatcher, Dispatch
latency.
4) What is Critical Section Problem ? Explain.
5) Differentiate between Process and Thread.
3. Answer any one of the following :

(110=10)

1) Describe the following algorithms with example and Gantt chart (assume data
whenever required) :
a) FCFS Scheduling
b) Round Robin Scheduling.
2) Consider the following 5 processes (that arrive at time 0) with the length of CPU burst
time given in milliseconds. The order of arrival of processes at time 0 is P1, P2, P3,
P4, P5.
Process
Burst Time
P1
10
P2
25
P3
3
P4
4
P5
11
i) If FCFS scheduling is used then what will be average waiting time and average
turnaround time ?
ii) If non-preemptive SJF scheduling is used then what will be average waiting time and
average turnaround time.
4. Write and explain an algorithm for bounded buffer producer-consumer problem in detail.

10
Set A

SLR-KM 293

-4-

*SLRKM293*

SECTION II
5. Answer any four of the following :

(45=20)

1) What is Resource Allocation Graph ? Explain with example.


2) Explain Dynamic loading and overlays.
3) Explain the I/O hardware related to I/O system.
4) What is deadlock ? Describe method for handling deadlock.
5) Write short note on, Polling in I/O.
6. Answer any one of the following :

(110=10)

1) What are logical and physical addresses ? Explain swapping in memory management.
2) What is deadlock avoidance ? Explain safe state and resource allocation graph algorithm.
7. Answer any one of the following :

(110=10)

1) What is page replacement ? Explain any one page replacement algorithm with example.
2) Describe deadlock detection methods for single and multiple instances of resource type.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 294

*SLRKM294*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015
DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS

Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate marks to a question.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternatives :

(201 = 20)

1) Algorithm computes the correct answer for all possible legal inputs. This process is called
a) Program proving
b) Validation
c) Program verification
d) Testing
2) Which of the following statement shows correct relationship ?
a) O(logn) < O(n) < O(nlogn) < O(2n) < O(n2)
b) O(n) < O(logn) < O(nlogn) < O(n2) < O(2n)
c) O(n) < O(logn) < O(nlogn) < O(2n) < O(n2)
d) O(logn) < O(n) < O(nlogn) < O(n2) < O(2n)
3) Definiteness property of algorithm means
a) Instruction is clear and ambiguous
b) Algorithm should terminate after finite number of steps
c) Every instruction must be very basic so that can be solved with paper and pencil
d) None of the above
4) In quick sort, desirable choice for partitioning element will be
a) First element
b) Last element
c) Middle element
d) Randomly selected element
5) How many comparison, will it require to search element 125 using binary search ?
15 6 0
a) 11

23 54
b) 3

82

101 112
c) 4

125

131

142 151
d) 2

6) If a = 2, b = 2 and f(n) = cn then time complexity of T(n) will be


a) (1)

b) (nlogn)

7) Worst case complexity of quick sort is


a) (n2)
b) (nlogn)

c) (n)

d) (logn)

c) (n)

d) (logn)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 294

*SLRKM294*

-2-

8) Knapsack problem using greed method is an example of


a) Subset paradigm
b) Ordering paradigm
c) both
d) None of the above
9) In job sequencing, if deadlines are (3, 2, 3, 1) and respective profits are {9, 7, 7, 2} what
will be the maximum profit
a) 25
b) 23
c) 16
d) 18
10) To obtain an independent set of circuit equations for an electric network is an example of
a) minimum cost spanning tree
b) all pairs shortest path
c) single source shortest path
d) job sequencing problem
11) Which of the following technique is used in finding all pairs shortest path ?
a) Dynamic programming
b) Backtracking
c) Greedy method
d) None
12) How many maximum elements will be in set S2 in 0/1 Knapsack problem ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
13) The multistage graph problem is to find a
a) Minimum distance
c) Maximum cost

b) Maximum distance
d) Minimum cost

14) __________ is to find a tour of minimum cost.


a) Travelling sales person problem
b) Multistage graph
c) All pair shortest paths
d) All of above
15) __________ schedule is a in which the processor of a task on any processor is not
terminated unit the task is complete.
a) preemptive
b) nonpreemptive
c) flow shop
d) none
16) The smallest number of colours needed to colour a graph G is called is
a) vertex number
b) edges number
c) chromatic number
d) face number
17) Sum of subsets problem could formulate using
a) fixed sized tuples
b) variable sized tuples
c) either a) or b)
d) both a) and b)
18) __________ constraints are rules that restrict each xi to take on values only from a given
set.
a) implicit
b) explicit
c) bounding
d) none
19) From the following which is not return optimal solution
a) Dynamic programming
b) Backtracking
c) Branch and bound
d) None
20) Choose the correct answer for the following statements :
I) The theory of NP-completeness provides a method of obtaining a polynomial time for
NP algorithms.
II) All NP-complete problems are NP-Hard.
a) I is False and II is true
b) I is True and II is False
c) Both are True
d) Both are False

______________
Set A

*SLRKM294*

-3-

SLR-KM 294

Seat
No.

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate marks to a question.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four.

20

1) Determine the step count of the following algorithm statements


Algorithm D(x, n)
{
i: = 1;
repeat
{
x[i]:=x[i] + 2; i = i + 2;
} until (i > n);
while (i n/2) do
{
x[i]:=x[i] + 1; i = i + 1;
}
}
2) Explain terms best case step count, worst case step count, average case step count,
break-even point.
3) Write binary search algorithm.
4) Solve the recurrence relation using substitution method T(n) = 2T(n/2) + cn.
5) Write a short note on job sequencing with deadlines.
6) Write a short note on optimal merge pattern.
3. Attempt any one :

10

1) Find minimum cost spanning tree using Prims algorithm and Kruskals algorithm.

Set A

SLR-KM 294

-4-

*SLRKM294*

2) Find shortest path from vertex 1.

4. Write an algorithm that searches an unsorted array a[1 : n] for the element x. If x occurs, then
return a position in the array else return zero. Find space and time complexity of the algorithm.

10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain the optimal binary search tree with example.


b) Explain 0/1 Knapsack method with respect to Dynamic programming.
c) Write a short note on flow shop scheduling.
d) Explain Hamilton cycle with example.
e) Write a backtracking algorithm for sum of subsets problem.
f) Write a short note on NP-Hard and NP-complete problems.
6. Attempt the following :

10

a) Find all pair shortest path using dynamic programming for following diagraph.

b) Consider following directed graph and edge lengths are given by matrix. Find optimal tour
travelling sales person.

10

0 10 15 20
5 0 9 10

6 13 0 12

8 8 9 0
OR
c) Explain 0/1 Knapsack method with respect to branch and bound method.
_____________________

10

Set A

SLR-KM 296

*SLRKM296*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


DATABASE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt all questions from Section I and II.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume data wherever necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct options :

20

1) Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation, deleting
relations and relating schemas ?
a) DML (Data Manipulation Language) b) DDL (Data Definition Language)
c) Query
d) Relational Schema
2) To remove a relation from an SQL database, we use the _________ command.
a) Remove
b) Drop
c) Delete
d) Update
3) The rectangles divided into two parts represents
a) Entity set
b) Relationship set
c) Attributes of a relationship set
d) Primary key
4) The SQL keyword(s) __________ is used with wildcards.
a) LIKE only
b) IN only
c) NOT IN only

d) IN and NOT IN

5) Multivalued dependencies should __________ be eliminated.


a) Always
b) Commonly
c) Seldom
d) Never
6) If a table has been normalized so that all determinants are candidate keys, then
that table is in
a) 1 NF
b) 2 NF
c) 3 NF
d) BCNF
7) Row is synonymous with the term
a) Record
b) Relation

c) Column

d) Field

8) Which of the following refers to something that can be identified in the users work
environment, something that the users want to trac ?
a) Entity
b) Attribute
c) Identifier
d) Relationship
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 296

*SLRKM296*

-2-

9) Which of the following is NOT a basic element of all versions of the E-R model ?
a) Entities
b) Attributes
c) Relationship
d) Primary keys
10) Entities can be associated with one another in which of the following ?
a) Entity
b) Attribute
c) Identifier
d) Relationship
11) In order to maintain transactional integrity and database consistency, what
technology does a DBMS deploy ?
a) Triggers
b) Pointers
c) Cursors
d) Locks
12) Which of the following is not a level of data abstraction ?
a) Physical level
b) Critical level
c) Logical level

d) View level

13) Disadvantages of file systems to store data is


a) Data redundancy and inconsistency b) Difficulty in accessing data
c) Data isolation
d) All of the above
14) In an Entity-Relationship Diagram Rectangles represents
a) Entity sets
b) Attributes
c) Database

d) Tables

15) Which of the following is not a Storage Manager Component ?


a) Transaction manager
b) Logical manager
c) Buffer manager
d) File manager
16) Data Manipulation Language enables users to
a) Retrieval of information stored in database
b) Insertion of new information into the database
c) Deletion of information from the database
d) All of the above
17) Which of the following is not an Schema ?
a) Database schema
b) Physical schema
c) Critical schema
d) Logical schema
18) Which of the following is Database Language ?
a) Data Definition Language
b) Data Manipulation Language
c) Query Language
d) All of the above
19) Which of the following in not a function of DBA ?
a) Network maintenance
b) Routine maintenance
c) Schema definition
d) Authorization for data access
20) Which of the following is a Data Model ?
a) Entity-Relationship Model
b) Relational data model
c) Object-based data model
d) All of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM296*

-3-

SLR-KM 296

Seat
No.

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


DATABASE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Attempt all questions from Section I and II.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four :

(54)

a) Explain the concept of keys with example.


b) Explain with example the natural join operations.
c) Give the formal definition of domain relational calculus.
d) Explain with example generalization and specialization.
e) Explain with example third normal form (3 NF).
f) Explain the cardinality constraints and participating constraints.
3. Explain the fundamental relational algebra operations with example.

10

OR
What is the concept of canonical cover ? How to compute it ? Give example.
4. Explain the concept of lossless decomposition and dependency.

10

SECTION II
5. Answer any four :

(54)

a) What is the difference between clustering index and a secondary index ?


b) Explain the concept of shadow paging.
Set A

SLR-KM 296

-4-

*SLRKM296*

c) What do you mean by concurrency control ? Explain it.


d) List the ACID properties and explain the usefulness of each.
e) Explain in brief B tree index file.
f) List and explain various properties of transactions with suitable example.
6. Solve any one :

10

a) Explain the use of Thomas write rule used in time stamp based protocol.
b) Explain in detail the concept of check points in recovery systems.
7. Explain Time-stamp-ordering protocol with an example.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 297

*SLRKM297*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (IT) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
COMPILER CONSTRUCTION

Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) ___________ buffering is used to reduce the time for generation of token.


a) single
b) double
c) half
d) none
2) ___________ number of pointers are used in input buffering.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) none
3) Breaking of source program into its intermediate representation is called as
________
a) analysis
b) synthesis
c) syntax analysis
d) code optimization
4) Type checking is normally done during
a) syntax
b) semantic
c) syntax directed translation
d) Lexical analysis
5) Which of the following is not a phase of compilation ?
a) lexical analysis
b) static analysis
c) parsing
d) code optimization
6) The GOTO action of SLR parsing table is applicable for _________
a) terminals
b) non-terminals c) symbols
d) all
7) Infinite loop is drawback of ___________
a) left factoring
b) left recursion
c) ambiguty

d) backtracking

8) In syntax directed translation scheme if value of node is function of value of its


parent then it is _________ attribute.
a) synthesized
b) inherited
c) canonical
d) all of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 297

*SLRKM297*

-2-

9) In LL parser if top = $ and input buffer is also $ then


b) Push $ in
a) pop $ out
c) success in parsing
d) error in string
10) For evaluation of syntax tree the datastructure used is __________
a) symbol table
b) parser stack
c) pool table
d) none
11) Function of semantic analysis is ___________
a) type check
b) error report
c) meaning check d) all of these
12) ___________ parameter passing technique is also called as copy in copy out.
a) call by value
b) call by reference
c) call by name
d) copy restore
13) Three address code involves ___________
a) at least 3 addresses
b) at most 3 addresses
c) exact 3 addresses
d) none
14) Which of the following is not addressing mode ?
a) Register
b) Indirect indexed
c) Indirect absolute
d) Absolute
15) The graph that shows basic blocks and their successor relationship is called
a) DAG
b) Tree
c) Flow graph
d) Hamilton graph
16) Which of the following is 3-address statement
a) x = y op z
b) x = *y
c) *x = y

d) all of these

17) From the given string if we delete starting symbol then it is called as _________ of
the string.
a) prefix
b) suffix
c) postfix
d) subsequence
18) From Ai with input a if transition is present to Aj then rule becomes
a) Ai aAj
b) Aj aAi
c) Ai Aj
d) Aj Ai
19) The dangling reference is pointer pointing to ________
a) storage which is freed
b) storage which is still in use
c) un initialized storage
d) none of these
20) The optimization technique which is typically applied on loops is
a) Removal of invariant computation
b) Peephole optimization
c) Constant folding

d) None of these

______________

Set A

*SLRKM297*

-3-

SLR-KM 297

Seat
No.

T.E. (IT) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


COMPILER CONSTRUCTION
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : All questions are compulsory.


2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

A) List out the various compiler writing tools you know.


B) Explain input buffering in detail.
C) Differentiate between DFA and NFA.
D) For the following source language statement. Show the output of each of the stages
of the compiler for the statement P = I + R * 40. Variables P, I and R of type float.
E) Explain synthesized attributes.
3. Explain top down translation with example.

10

4. Explain SLR parsing algorithm with example.

10

5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

A) Explain common sub expression elimination.


B) Explain issues in design of code generator.
C) Explain storage allocation strategies in detail.
D) Explain procedure calls.
E) Explain 3 address code generation for switch case with example.
6. What is optimization ? Explain any two types of optimization.

10

7. Explain partition algorithm for basic blocks. Explain simple code generation algorithm. 10
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 298

*SLRKM298*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM II (Old)
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The kernel caches data in buffer pool according to _________
a) FIFO
b) Round Robin
c) Least recently used
d) None of these

(120=20)

2) __________ algorithm is used to release inode.


a) iput
b) iget
c) namei
d) ifree
3) Every directory contains the file name dot(.) whose inode number is equivalent
to inode number of
a) Directory
b) Parent directory
c) Root
d) None of these
4) The register context of the process doesnt consist of
a) Program counter
b) Processor status register
c) Stack pointer
d) Shared memory
5) __________ is having highest priority according to processor execution
levels.
a) Disk
b) Network devices
c) Clock
d) Machine errors
6) Process control subsystem is not responsible for
a) Process synchronization
b) Memory management
c) Interprocess communication
d) File handling
7) Race for locked buffer occurs in
a) Second Scenario
c) Third Scenario

b) Fifth Scenario
d) Fourth Scenario
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 298

-2-

*SLRKM298*

8) The kernel finds the block on the hash queue, but its buffer is currently busy,
this statement indicates
a) Second scenario
b) Fifth scenario
c) First scenario
d) Fourth scenario
9) Kernel uses _________ algorithm to convert pathname to inode.
a) ialloc
b) iput
c) iget
d) namei
10) Kernel uses ___________ algo. For allocating disk blocks.
a) iget
b) alloc
c) ialloc
d) getblk
11) What is the default maximum number of processes that can exist in UNIX ?
a) 32768
b) 1024
c) 4096
d) unlimited
12) Return value of fork() system call can be
a) 1,<0,0
b) 1,>0,0
c) both a) and b) d) none of the above
13) If a signal is received by a process, when will it be processed ?
a) It is processed immediately
b) It is processed when process is switching to kernel mode
c) It is processed in the next time slice given to the process
d) None of the above
14) We can change the priority of a running process using
a) nice
b) renice
c) priority cannot be changed for a running process
d) only superuser can change the priority
15) The connection between the device file and device driver is based on the
a) name of device file
b) number of device file
c) both a) and b)
d) none of the mentioned
16) The kernel identifies the driver with its
a) module
b) major number
c) device file
d) none of the mentioned
17) Which directory contain device special files ?
a) /etc
b) /etc/dev
c) /root/bin
d) /dev
18) The directory file contains
a) File names and File sizes
b) File names and Inode Numbers
c) File names and Address
d) File names and Permissions
19) Binary or executable files are
a) Regular files
b) Device files c) Special files
d) Directory files
20) Which of the following is not a valid file type on linux ?
a) Socket
b) Softlink
c) Inode
d) FIFO
______________
Set A

*SLRKM298*

-3-

SLR-KM 298

Seat
No.

T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


OPERATING SYSTEM II (Old)
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Write short notes on any four :

(45=20)

1) File creation
2) Link system call
3) Named and unnamed pipe
4) Read system call
5) Mount.
3. Explain architecture of UNIX O.S. with block diagram of kernel.

10

OR
Explain the algorithm for freeing inode, and with two examples of freeing inode.
Explain clearly.
4. Attempt any two :

(25=10)

1) What is buffer cache ? Write advantages and disadvantages.


2) Processes running in kernel mode cannot be preempted by other process.
Why ?
3) Explain the structure of a buffer pool.
Set A

SLR-KM 298

-4-

*SLRKM298*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain the layout of the kernel with changing mode from user to kernel and
U area ?
b) What is context switch ? State and explain the steps for context switch.
c) Explain the algorithm for process creation and handling signals.
d) Explain the algorithm for changing the size of process and user-id of a process.
e) Explain the swapper algorithm with sequence of swapping operation.
6. Explain the scheduling algorithm with range of process priorities, example of
process scheduling.

10

OR
Explain with example the line discipline on clist with all operations on clist and
cblocks.
7. Attempt any two :

(25=10)

1) The context of a process


2) Process group and sending signals from processes
3) The shell.
_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 299

*SLRKM299*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) _________ is the relation between classes that allows for definition and
implementation of one class bases on the definition of existing classes.
a) Polymorphism b) Aggregation c) Binding
d) Inheritance
2) The types of inheritance when a subclass inherits from many super classes
is called
a) multiple inheritance
b) single inheritance
c) multilevel inheritance
d) none of these
3) The code associated with a given procedure call is not known until the moment
of the call is called
a) Static binding
b) Memory binding
c) Resource binding
d) Dynamic
4) Four most common types of errors are
a) Omission, system fault, system malfunction, low memory
b) Omission, incomplete data, no scalability, low memory
c) Inconsistency, incorrect fact and ambiguity
d) None of these
5) A system is considered to be ______ if it consists of discreet components
which can be implemented separately and a change to one component has
minimal impact on another component.
a) Singular
b) Biased
c) Modular
d) Conventional
6) Coupling between modules is the measure of _________ among modules.
a) Metrics
b) Space
c) Processing speed
d) Interdependence
7) There are two approaches to prototyping
a) Conventional and contemporary b) Throwaway and evolutionary
c) Standard and normal
d) None of these

P.T.O.

SLR- KM 299

-2-

*SLRKM299*

8) One of the characteristics of SRS is


a) Ambiguous
b) Consistent
c) Desirability
d) Avoidability
9) The agent that performs the transformation of data from one state to another
is called
a) A process (or bubble)
b) A program
c) An Entity
d) None of these
10) DFDs which are hierarchically organized and helps in progressively partitioning
and analyzing large problems is called
a) A levelled DFD set
b) Unlevelled DFD set
c) Normalized DFD set
d) Simple DFD set
11) In a class diagram the generalization specialization relationship is specified
by having ______ coming from the subclass to the super class.
a) triangle
b) rectangle
c) arrow
d) circle
12) In ______ testing the structure of the program is not considered.
a) Black box testing
b) Pair wise testing
c) State based testing
d) None of these
13) For some systems when same inputs provide same outputs, then the
appropriate testing used is
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) State based testing
d) None of these
14) SPC stands for _________
a) Statistical Process Control
b) Status Product Control
c) Single Process Control
d) Similar Process Control
15) LOC stands for ______
a) Line Of Compiler
b) Line Of Code
c) Line Of Composite
d) None of these
16) UML stands for
a) Unified Modeling Language
b) Unified Model Language
c) Unified Markup Language
d) None of these
17) OOD stands for ______
a) Object Oriented Development
b) Object Oriented Design
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
18) ________ values can be used to specify additional properties of the elements
to which they are attached.
a) Tagged values
b) Untagged values
c) Random values
d) None of these
19) DD stands for
a) Data Directory
b) Data Dictionary
c) Data on Demand
d) None of these
20) A tool that permits a designer to consider a component at a basic level is
a) Non abstraction b) Composite
c) Abstraction
d) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRKM299*

-3-

SLR- KM 299

Seat
No.

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate marks..
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) With an example explain the DFD and DD.


b) Explain the basic concepts and notations used in Object Oriented Modelling.
c) Explain any five levels of cohesion briefly.
d) Explain structure chart with suitable program for sorting.
e) Explain clearly risk management activities.
3. A) Compare all the process models like waterfall, prototyping, Iterative and Time
boxing in terms of Strength, weaknesses and the types of projects.

10

OR
List the mechanisms of Configuration and Management and explain in detail.
B) Explain the components of a Software Requirements Specifications (SRS).
4. Write short notes on any two :

(25=10)

a) Spiral Model.
b) COCOMO Model.
c) Explain Top down and Bottom up strategies briefly.
Set A

SLR- KM 299

-4-

*SLRKM299*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain activity level analysis.


b) Explain unit testing in detail.
c) Explain black box testing with an example.
d) Explain project tracking.
e) Explain milestone analysis.
6. Explain the white box testing in detail.

10

OR
Explain the coupling and cohesion design concepts in detail in object oriented
design.
7. Explain training for project managers for managing software projects.

10
10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 300

*SLRKM300*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (IT) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015

Max. Marks : 100

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

(120=20)

1) What is artificial intelligence ?


a) Putting your intelligence into computer
b) Programming with your own intelligence
c) Making a machine intelligent
d) Putting more memory into computer
e) Doing magic
2) Which is not the commonly used programming language for AI ?
a) PROLOG

b) Java

c) LISP

d) Perl

e) Java script
3) What is state space ?
a) The whole problem
b) Your definition to a problem
c) Problem you design
d) Representing your problem with variable and parameter
e) A space where you know the solution
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 300

*SLRKM300*

-2-

4) A production rule consists of


a) A set of rule

b) A sequence of steps

c) Both a) and b)

d) Arbitrary representation to problem

e) Directly getting solution


5) Which search method takes less memory ?
a) Depth-First Search

b) Breadth-First Search

c) Both a) and b)

d) Linear Search

e) Optimal search
6) A heuristic is a way of trying
a) To discover something or an idea embedded in a program
b) To search and measure how far a node in a search tree seems to be from a goal
c) To compare two nodes in a search tree to see if one is better than the other
d) Only a) and b)
e) Only a), b) and c)
7) A* algorithm is based on
a) Breadth-First-Search

b) Depth-First-Search

c) Best-First-Search

d) Hill Climbing

e) Bulkworld Problem
8) Which is the best way to go for Game playing problem ?
a) Linear approach

b) Heuristic approach

c) Random approach

d) Optimal approach

e) Stratified approach
9) How do you represent All dogs have tails ?
a)

dog(x) a`hastail(x)

b)

dog(x) a`hastail(y)

c)

dog(y) a`hastail(x)

d)

dog(x) a`hastail(x)

e)

dog(x) a`has a`tail(y)


Set A

*SLRKM300*

SLR-KM 300

-3-

10) Which is not a property of representation of knowledge ?


a) Representational Verification

b) Representational Adequacy

c) Inferential Adequacy

d) Inferential Efficiency

e) Acquisitional Efficiency
y:loyalto(x, y) ?

11) What are you predicating by the logic


a) Everyone is loyal to some one

b) Everyone is loyal to all

c) Everyone is not loyal to someone d) Everyone is loyal


e) Everyone is not loyal
12) Which is not Familiar Connectives in First Order Logic ?
a) and

b) iff

d) not

e) either a) or b)

c) or

13) Which is not a type of First Order Logic (FOL) sentence ?


a) Atomic sentences

b) Complex sentences

c) Quantified sentence

d) Quality sentence

e) Simple sentence
14) Which is not a Goal-based agent ?
a) Inference

b) Search

c) Planning

d) Conclusion

e) Dynamic search

15) A plan that describe how to take actions in levels of increasing refinement
and specificity is
a) Problem solving

b) Planning

c) Non-hierarchical plan

d) Hierarchical plan

e) Inheritance
16) Partial order planning involves
a) Searching over the space of possible plans
b) Searching over possible situations
c) Searching the whole problem at once
d) Searching the best
e) Searching the goal
Set A

SLR-KM 300

*SLRKM300*

-4-

17) Uncertainty arises in the wumpus world because the agents sensors give
only
a) Full and global information

b) Partial and global information

c) Partial and local information

d) Full and local information

e) Global information only


18) A Hybrid Bayesian network contains
a) Both discrete and continuous variables
b) Only discrete variables
c) Both discrete and discontinuous variable
d) Continuous variable only
19) Which is not a desirable property of a logical rule-based system ?
a) Locality

b) Attachment

d) Truth-functionality

e) Global attribute

c) Detachment

20) How is fuzzy logic different from conventional control methods ?


a) IF and THEN Approach

b) FOR Approach

c) WHILE Approach

d) DO Approach

e) Else If approach

Set A

*SLRKM300*

-5-

SLR-KM 300

Seat
No.

T.E. (IT) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) What is Heuristic search ? List the algorithms that use Heuristics.


b) A* may go into over and under estimations justify.
c) List the different knowledge representation approaches.
d) Illustrate Means-ends analysis with an appropriate example.
e) What are production systems ? List their characteristics.
3. Attempt any one :

10

a) Write and illustrate with an example the Hill Climbing algorithm.


b) Compare and contrast between A* and AO* algorithms.
4. Attempt any one :

10

a) What are the characteristics of problems ? Illustrate each characteristic.


b) What is constraint based search ? How is it attained ?
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Give the semantic network for Ragging is prohibited.


b) Compare between monotonic and non-monotonic reasoning.
c) Where are measures of belief and disbelief used ? Illustrate.
d) What are expert systems ?
e) What are scripts ? Write a brief script for an encounter.
Set C

SLR-KM 300

-6-

*SLRKM300*

6. Attempt any one :

10

a) What is clause form ? State the steps involved in converting facts into a
clause form.
b) What is fuzzy logic ? How is it used ?
7. Attempt any one :

10

a) State Bayes theorem. How is it related to certainty factors ?


b) Compare between procedure and declarative knowledge.
_____________

Set C

SLR-KM 301

*SLRKM301*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATABASE ENGINEERING (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Database _____________, which is the logical design of the database, and


the database ___________, which is a snapshot of the data in the database
at a given instant in time.
a) Instance, Schema
b) Relation, Schema
c) Relation, Domain
d) Schema, Instance
2) Course (course_id,sec_id,semester)
Here the course_id,sec_id and semester are _________ and course is a
____________
a) Relations, Attribute
b) Attributes, Relation
c) Tuple, Relation
d) Tuple, Attributes
3) Department (dept name, building, budget) and Employee (employee_id, name,
dept name, salary)
Here the dept_name attribute appears in both the relations. Here using common
attributes in relation schema is one way of relation ___________ relations.
a) Attributes of common
b) Tuple of common
c) Tuple of distinct
d) Attributes of distinct
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 301

-2-

*SLRKM301*

4) A domain is atomic if elements of the domain are considered to be ________


units.
a) Different
b) Indivisible
c) Constant
d) Divisible
5) The tuples of the relations can be of ________ order.
a) any
b) same
c) sorted
d) constant
6) The ___________ connective tests for set membership, where the set is a
collection of values produced by a select clause. The _________ connective
tests for the absence of set membership.
a) Or, in
b) Not in, in
c) In, not in
d) In, or
7) Which of the following should be used to find all the courses taught in the Fall
2009 semester but not in the Spring 2010 Semester ?
a) Select distinct course id
from section
where semester = Fall and year = 2009 and
course id not in (select course id
from section
where semester = Spring and year =2010);
b) Select distinct course_id
from instructor
where name not in (Fall, Spring);
c) (Select course id
from section
where semester = Spring and year = 2010)
d) Select count (distinct ID)
from takes
where (course id, sec id, semester, year) in (select course id, sec id,
semester, year
from teaches
where teaches. ID = 10101);
8) The phrase greater than at least one is represented in SQL by
_____________
a) < all
b) < some
c) > all
d) > some
Set A

*SLRKM301*

SLR-KM 301

-3-

9) Which of the following is used to find all courses taught in both the Fall 2009
semester and in the Spring 2010 semester ?
a) Select course id
from section as S
where semester = Fall and year = 2009 and
exists (select *
from section as T
where semester = spring and year = 2010 and
S. course id = T. course id);
b) Select name
from instructor
where salary > some (select salary
from instructor
where dept name = Biology);
c) Select count (distinct ID)
from takes
where (course id, sec id, semester, year) in (select course id, sec id,
semester, year
from teaches
where teaches.ID=10101);
d) (Select course id
from section
where semester = Spring and year = 2010)
10) We can test for the nonexistence of tuples in a subquery by using the
_________ construct.
a) Not exist

b) Not exists

c) Exists

d) Exist

11) The ___________ condition allows a general predicate over the relations
being joined.
a) On

b) Using

c) Set

d) Where

12) Which of the join operations do not preserve non matched tuples ?
a) Let outer join
c) Inner join

b) Right outer join


d) Natural join
Set A

SLR-KM 301

-4-

*SLRKM301*

13) Select*
from student join takes using (ID);
The above query is equivalent to
a) Select*
from student inner join takes using (ID);
b) Select*
from student outer join takes using (ID);
c) Select*
from student left outer join takes using (ID);
d) Both a) and b)
14) What type of join is needed when you wish to include rows that do not have
matching values ?
a) Equi-join
b) Natural join
c) Outer join
d) All of the mentioned
15) Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity ?
a) 2NF
b) 3NF
c) 4NF
d) 5NF
16) Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency ?
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) 4NF
17) How many join types in join condition ?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4

d) 5

18) Which join refers to join records from the right table that have no matching
key in the left table are include in the result set ?
a) Left outer join
b) Right outer join
c) Full outer join
d) Half outer join
19) The operation which is not considered a basic operation of relational algebra is
a) Join
b) Selection
c) Union
d) Cross product
20) In SQL the statement select *from R, S is equivalent to
a) Select * from R natural join S
b) Select * from R cross join S
c) Select * from R union join S
d) Select * from R inner join S
______________
Set A

*SLRKM301*

-5-

SLR-KM 301

Seat
No.

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DATABASE ENGINEERING (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(54=20)

a) What are DML and DDL statements ? Explain at least two example of each.
b) With respect to the relational data model, define the concept of primary and
Foreign key constraints. Why are primary and foreign keys used ? Illustrate
your answer with example.
c) Define Super key, Candidate key, Primary key and Foreign key.
d) What is the purpose of database management system ? Discuss the different
levels of abstractions in a database management system.
e) List five key advantages of database systems over file systems.
3. Define Mapping Cardinalities ? What are the possible Mapping Cardinalities
for a binary relationship ? Explain with examples.

10

4. What is the primary goal of Normalization ? How are the concepts of Functional
dependency and multi valued dependency associated with normalization ? Give an
example for the same.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 301

-6-

*SLRKM301*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four of the following :

(54=20)

a) What is a lock ? Describe the types of locks used in concurrency control ?


b) Explain Time-stamp ordering protocol.
c) What do you mean by transaction ? What are the desirable properties of
transactions ?
d) Explain the three storage structure types such as volatile, nonvolatile and
stable.
e) Discuss the different types of transaction failures.
6. What is Deadlock ? Discuss in detail the different ways of preventing deadlock
and detecting deadlock.

10

7. Write short notes on any two of the following :

10

1) Implementation of Isolation Levels.


2) Index Definition in SQL.
3) Shadow Paging.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 302

*SLRKM302*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures drawn by pencil, ruler only indicate full marks.
Do not use pen to draw and label the diagrams.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :

20

1) A data store is a __________ object within a data flow diagram that stores data for later
access.
a) Active
b) Dynamic
c) Passive
d) All of the above
2) _________ diagrams show the physical configurations of software and hardware.
a) Component
b) Deployment
c) Collaboration
d) None
3) A solid diamond represents a stronger form of ___________, known as composition.
a) Generalization
b) Abstraction
c) Aggregation
d) None
4) __________ divide activities according to objects by arranging objects in column format
and placing activities by that object within that column.
a) Fork
b) Join
c) Swim lanes
d) Lifeline
5) Which of the following stages are not a part of OMT methodology ?
a) Analysis
b) System and object design
c) Implementation
d) None of the above
6) In UML, structural and architectural diagram does not include which of the following ?
a) Deployment diagram, component diagram
b) Object diagram, class diagram
c) Use case diagram
d) None
7) The deployment diagram shows
a) Objects of a system
b) Distribution of components on the nodes in a system
c) Functions of a system
d) Distribution of nodes
8) Sequence diagrams document the __________ between classes.
a) Communication
b) Interaction
c) Relation
d) Both a) and c)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 302

-2-

*SLRKM302*

9) In order to model the relationship a course is composed of 5 to 20 students and one or


more instructors, you could use
a) Aggregation
b) Association
c) Composition
d) Realization
10) Use cases are used in the ___________ phase of software development to articulate the
high-level requirements of the system.
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Documentation
d) Development
11) The activity diagram
a) Models the interaction between objects
b) Models the external events stimulating one object
c) Focuses on the transitions between states of a particular object
d) Focuses on flows driven by internal processing
12) Which of the following pair is matched incorrectly ?
a) Object Model Static Structure
b) UML Low level capture of system requirements
c) Dynamic model Behavioral aspects
d) Functional model Data value transformation
13) A candidate key is a maximum set of attributes that uniquely identifies an object or link.
a) True
b) False
c) Either a) or b)
d) None
14) Constraints are __________ relationships between entities of an object model.
a) Behavioral
b) Functional
c) Static
d) Dynamic
15) The model that describes the aspect of a system concerned with time and sequencing of
operations.
a) Object model
b) Functional model
c) Dynamic model
d) UML model
16) A (n) _________ is a concept, abstraction or thing that has a state, behavior and identity.
a) Relationship
b) Attribute
c) Object
d) Key
17) __________ indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship.
a) Bound
b) Multiplicity
c) Role
d) Relationship
18) A Scenario is a sequence of events that occurs during
a) One particular execution of a system
b) Different execution of a system
c) More than two execution of a system
d) All of the above
19) A dynamic model is a collection of _____________ diagrams that interact with each other
via shared events.
a) Sequence
b) State
c) Use case
d) Activity
20) Unified Process is a software development methodology which is
a) Component-driven
b) Iterative and incremental
c) Related to extreme programming
d) Done in only one iteration
______________

Set A

*SLRKM302*

-3-

SLR-KM 302

Seat
No.

T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


OBJECT ORIENTED MODELLING AND DESIGN
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures drawn by pencil, ruler only indicate full marks.
3) Do not use pen to draw and label the diagrams.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
a) Explain Recursive aggregate with diagram for computer program.
b) Explain event trace diagram for ATM machine.
c) Draw one-shot state diagram for chess game.
d) Draw Dynamic model notation for
i) State generalization
ii) Concurrent sub diagrams.
e) Draw and explain aggregation and generalization with diagram.
3. Answer any one :

(45=20)

10

What is multiple inheritance ? Draw diagram with explanation for :


i) Multiple inheritances from overlapping classes
ii) Multiple inheritances using delegation
iii) Multiple inheritance from disjoint classes
iv) Multiple inheritance using nested generalization.
OR
Explain state diagram. Draw a state diagram for phone line with.
4. Draw functional model notation for :
i) Process
ii) Dataflow between process
iii) Data store
iv) Control flow
v) Data flow that result in data store
vi) Access of data store value
vii) Update of data store value
viii) Composition of data value
ix) Decomposition of data value
x) Actor objects (as source or sink of data).

10

Set A

SLR-KM 302

-4-

*SLRKM302*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain the following with diagram :


i) Swim lanes
ii) Forking and joining.
b) Draw use case diagram for airport check-in and security screening.
i) Actors are Passenger, Tour Guide, Minor (Child), Passenger with special needs
(e.g. with disabilities), all playing external roles in relation to airport business.
ii) Use cases : Individual Check-In, Group Check-In (for groups of tourists), Security
Screening, etc. representing business functions or processes taking place in airport
and serving the needs of passengers. Baggage Check-in and Baggage Handling extend
Check-In use cases, because passenger might have no luggage, so baggage check-in
and handling are optional.
c) What is a package ? Explain importing and exporting of package.
d) Draw sequence diagram which shows how Facebook (FB) user could be authenticated
in a web application to allow access to his/her FB resources.
e) What are the benefits of modeling in UML.
6. Draw any one :

10

Draw an UML behavioral state machine diagram showing Bank Automated Teller Machine
(ATM) where ATM is initially turned off. After the power is turned on, ATM performs startup
action and enters Self Test state. If the test fails, ATM goes into Out of Service state, otherwise
there is trigger less transition to the Idle state. In this state ATM waits for customer interaction.
The ATM state changes from Idle to Serving Customer when the customer inserts banking or
credit card in the ATMs card reader. On entering the Serving Customer state, the entry action
read Card is performed. Note, that transition from Serving Customer state back to the Idle
state could be triggered by cancel event as the customer could cancel transaction at any
time.
OR
Draw a component diagram for online shopping. The diagram should shows the internal structure
of three related subsystems WebStore, Warehouses and Accounting.
7. Explain and draw class diagram with graphical notations for Hospital Management System for
a hospital to show and explain hospital structure, staff, relationships with patients and patient
treatment terminology.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 303

*SLRKM303*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM CONCEPTS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) Kernel finds block on hash queue, but its buffer is currently busy, this
statement indicates
a) Second scenario
b) Third scenario
c) Forth scenario
d) Fifth scenario
2) Kernel uses ___________ algorithm for allocating disk blocks.
a) iget
b) alloc
c) ialloc
d) getblk
3) System call interface is between __________
a) User level and Hardware level
b) User level and kernel level
c) Kernel level and Hardware level
d) None of above
4) Inode contains ____________
a) File owner
b) Access permissions
c) Access times
d) All of above
5) Logical file system number is represented by
a) Block Number
b) Device Number
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
6) Pipes allow transfer of data between processes in a __________
a) LIFO
b) FIFO
c) FILO
d) LILO
7) Which of the following is not a Kernel data structure of process ?
a) U-area
b) Inode table
c) Process table d) Region table
8) Unix is ___________
a) Single user
b) Multi-user
c) Multi-process d) Both a) and b)
9) Inodes exist in a __________ form on the disk.
a) Dynamic
b) Static
c) Constant

d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 303

-2-

*SLRKM303*

10) In case of ___________ algorithm, Kernel raises processor execution level.


a) brelse
b) bread
c) bwrite
d) None of above
11) If a process executes the __________ system call, the kernel releases the
lock of first inode before locking the second inode to avoid deadlocks.
a) link
b) fork
c) join
d) kill
12) The algorithm for saving a context is _________ and for restoring the context
is _________
a) setjmp and longjmp
b) read and restore
c) setup and getup
d) attachreg and detachreg
13) Consider the following sequence of statements
i) Kernel allocates a slot in process table for new process.
ii) Kernel assigns a unique ID to the child process.
iii) Kernel makes a logical copy of the Context of the parent process.
They are necessary for
a) join()
b) disengage process
c) fork()
d) all of these
14) A process can synchronize its execution with the termination of a child
process by executing the __________ system call.
a) exit()
b) wait()
c) join()
d) fork()
15) The exec() system call invokes another program. The syntax of exec() is
a) execve (argv, envp, filename)
b) execve(envp, filename)
c) execve(filename)
d) execve(filename, argv, envp)
16) The Kernel associates two user IDs with a process, independent of the
process ID. They are
a) Real user ID and Effective user ID or setuid.
b) Factual user ID and Effective user ID or setuid.
c) Relative UID and Real UID.
d) None of these.
17) The Swapper __________ if there is no work to do.
a) Hibernates
b) Reinitiates
c) Sleeps
d) Both a and c
18) The __________ processes do not get swapped out because they do not
take up physical memory.
a) Ideal
b) Large
c) Small
d) Zombie
19) When a process accesses a page that is not part of its working set, it incurs
a ___________
a) Invalidity page fault
b) Validity page fault
c) Deferred page fault
d) Non deferred page fault
20) The UNIX system contains two types of devices
a) Block devices and unblock devices
b) Block devices and sync devices
c) Block devices and string devices
d) Block devices and raw devices.
______________
Set A

*SLRKM303*

-3-

SLR-KM 303

Seat
No.

T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM CONCEPTS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
1) Explain the process environment and building block primitives.
2) Explain the working of Iseek() system call.
3) Write a note on buffer header.
4) Write a note on pipes system call.
5) Explain File and record locking.

(45=20)

3. A) Explain following terms in the light of hardware assumption for Unix OS :


A) Kernel mode
B) User mode
C) Interrupts
D) Exception
E) Execution levels.

10

OR
B) Explain the architecture of the UNIX operating system with the help of block
diagram.
4. Explain in detail the structure of a regular file with the help of example.

10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) Explain how a process can access its u-area and hence explain the Memory
Map of u-area in the kernel.
b) What is a Context Switch ? Briefly explain what are the steps required for
realizing a Context Switch.
Set A

SLR-KM 303

-4-

*SLRKM303*

c) Write a algorithm for handling signals.


d) Explain the syntax for setuid system call.
e) Explain the fork and brk system calls for swapping a process.
f) Explain terminal polling procedure.
6. Attempt any one of the following :

(110=10)

a) With a neat figure explain the Process State Transition diagram.


b) With a neat figure explain the components of the Context of a Process.
7. Attempt any one of the following :

(110=10)

a) What are Signals in UNIX OS ? Write down the algorithm for handling signals.
b) Explain the Demand Paging and Swapping.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 304

*SLR-KM-304*

Set

Seat
No.

T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Draw diagram wherever necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Management of software development is dependent upon


a) People
b) Product
c) Process

d) All of above

2) Spiral Model was developed by


a) Bev Littlewoods
b) Berry Bohem

c) Roger Pressman d) Victor Bisili

3) Which is not a software life cycle model ?


a) Spiral Model
c) Prototyping Model

b) Waterfall Model
d) Capability Maturity Model

4) In time boxing model basic unit of development is


a) White box
b) Black box
c) Time box

d) None

5) The term module in the design phase refers to


a) Functions
b) Procedures
c) Sub programs

d) All of the above

6) Which model is popular for students small projects ?


a) Waterfall Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Quick and Fix Model
d) Prototyping Model
7) SDLC in Software Engineering stands for
a) Software Design Life Cycle
c) System Design Life Cycle

b) Software Development Life Cycle


d) System Development Life Cycle

8) What is Software ?
a) Set of computer programs, procedures and possibly associated document concerned
with the operation of data processing
b) A set of compiler instructions
c) A mathematical formula
d) None of above
9) A good requirement specification should be
a) Unambiguous
b) Distinctly Specific
c) Functional
d) All of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 304

*SLR-KM-304*

-2-

10) Design phase includes


a) Data, architectural and procedural design only
b) Architectural, procedural and interface design only
c) Data, architectural and interface design only
d) Data, architectural, interface and procedural design
11) CMM stands for
a) Capability Management Module
c) Capability Maturity Module

b) Conservative Maturity Model


d) Capability Maturity Model

12) Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM ?


a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed

d) Optimizing

13) In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code and test are
described in
a) Software Product Engineering
b) Software Quality Assurance
c) Software Subcontract Management
d) Software Quality Management
14) Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software
development ?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM
15) Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False
16) Agile Software Development is based on
a) Incremental Development
c) Linear Development

b) Iterative Development
d) Both a) and b)

17) Which of the following points related to Object-Oriented Development (OOD) is true ?
a) OOD is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain
b) OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement
requirements
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the mentioned
18) Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ?
a) Easier maintenance
b) Objects may be understood as stand-alone entities
c) Objects are potentially reusable components
d) None of the mentioned
19) When handling team dynamics, the Agile Leader should
a) Empower the team members, within appropriate limits
b) Encourage an environment of competition and personal advantage
c) Give clear directives to the team about what they should do and how
d) Expect team members to be proactive and each work to their own priorities and
objectives
20) The end result of an Agile development is
a) A product of a professional quality which fits the business need
b) A product of almost as good a quality as a waterfall development
c) A product which is barely sufficient for its purpose and deliberately not maintainable
d) A technically-perfect, re-factored solution
______________
Set A

*SLR-KM-304*

-3-

SLR-KM 304

Seat
No.

T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain briefly about prototype model.


2) What do you mean by SRS ? And explain need of SRS.
3) What is Software Process ? Define characteristic of Software Process.
4) Explain the concept of Data Dictionary Brief.
5) What is MAI and MAOs ? Explain.
3. Attempt any one :

(110=10)

Explain the Agile process model in detail with advantages over existing models.
OR
Explain with neat diagram the Spiral Development Model.
4. Attempt any one :

(110=10)

What are the important uses that software architecture descriptions play ? Explain.
OR
Explain the views of software architecture.

Set A

SLR-KM 304

-4-

*SLR-KM-304*

SECTION II
5. Answer the following questions (any four) :

(54=20)

1) What does the Capability Maturity Model (CMM) determine in project management
process ?
2) Explain software configuration management. Why is it important ?
3) What is risk management planning ?
4) State the difference between black box testing and white box testing.
5) Differentiate between iterative and adaptive project management life cycle.
6. Explain in detail Object Oriented Software Testing Methods.

10

7. Explain in detail scope and responsibilities of an Agile Project management.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 305

*SLRKM305*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015
MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT (New)

Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct anwer :

20

1) Mobile operating system is a _______ stack.


A) Hardware
B) Device
C) Software

D) Components

2) _______ manages Activities in Task stack.


A) Libraries
B) Android Development Framework
C) Linux Kernel
D) Android Runtime
3) If you need your interface to work across different processes, you can create an interface
for the service with a
A) Binder
B) Messenger
C) AIDL
D) Both B or C
4) If you want share the data across the all applications, you should go for
A) Shared Preferences
B) Internal Storage
C) SQLite Databases
D) Content provider
5) Physical landscape portrays ________ that enables mobility.
A) reason
B) infrastructure
C) device

D) protocol

6) _______ is used to run executable files of an app.


A) Dalvik Virtual Machine
B) Java Virtual Machine
C) Notification Manager
D) Webkit
7) Parent class of Activity ?
A) Object
C) Activity Group

B) Context
D) Context Theme Wrapper

8) The life cycle of a Service begins when a call to the _______ method is made in another
component.
A) start()
B) startService()
C) onStartCommand()
D) on StarService()
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 305

*SLRKM305*

-2-

9) What is contained within the manifest xml file ?


A) The permissions the app requires
B) The list of strings used in the app
C) The source code
D) All other choices
10) When developing for the Android OS, Java byte code is compiled into what ?
A) Java source code
B) Dalvik application code
C) Dalvik byte code
D) C source code
11) Which of the following can be used to bind data from an SQL database to a ListView in an
Android application ?
A) SQLLiteAdapter
B) SQLLiteCursor
C) SimpleAdapter
D) SimpleCursorAdapter
12) Which among these are NOT a part of Androids native libraries ?
A) SQLite
B) OpenGL
C) Dalvik
D) Webkit
13) Shared Preferences store values in form of
A) Key-Value pairs B) Array structure C) Tree structure

D) Tags

14) _______ provides various methods for accessing and listing sensors, registering and
unregistering sensor event listeners, and acquiring orientation information.
A) Sensor
B) SensorEvent
C) SensorEventListener
D) SensorManager
15) When did Google purchase Android ?
A) 2003
B) 2004

C) 2005

D) 2006

16) _______ is a GUI tool to scan and analyze the UI components of an Android application.
A) uiautomatorviewer B) uiautomator
C) automatorui
D) none of the above
17) _______ class is the primary API for playing sound and video.
A) AudioManager
B) MediaPlayer
C) Manager
D) None of above
18) The R.java file is where you edit the resources for your project.
A) True
B) False
19) What is the name of the program that converts Java byte code into Dalvik byte code ?
A) Mobile Interpretive Compiler (MIC)
B) Dex compiler
C) Dalvik Converter
D) Android Interpretive Compiler (AIC)
20) The APK file is compressed the _______, _______, _______ and other files. A project is
compiled into a single .apk file.
A) Java files, application code (.dex files), resource files
B) AndroidManifest.xml file, application code (.dex files), resource files
C) AndroidManifest.xml file, source files, resource files
D) AndroidManifest.xml file, application code (.dex files), source files

______________
Set A

*SLRKM305*

-3-

SLR-KM 305

Seat
No.

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT (New)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instruction : All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four of the following :

(45=20)

1) Define AVD. Differentiate between an emulator and a simulator.


2) What is an AsyncTask and when to use AsyncTask ?
3) Explain event-handling paradigm with the help of an UI element.
4) Write short notes on Image Resources in Android.
5) Define and explain BroadcastReceiver component in Android with example.
3. Answer any one of the following :

(110=10)

1) Explain three approaches to develop a mobile app along with the scenarios where we
need to apply these approaches. Explain one application development for any one
approach.
2) Explain Activity life-cycle states in detail with diagram.
3) Explain Service component in Android with example. Differentiate between Service and
Bound Service forms of service components in Android System with example.
4. Answer any one of the following :

(110=10)

1) Write a code to implement Counter example using AsyncTask. Write Counter Functionality
in an AsyncTask and MainActivity code to start Counter functionality in an AsyncTask.
2) What is Notification in Android ? Explain categories of Notifications and advantages of
using Notification. Define the procedure to create Notifications.

Set A

SLR-KM 305

-4-

*SLRKM305*

SECTION II
5. Answer any four of the following :

(45=20)

1) Explain characteristics of SQLite database. Explain SQLiteOpenHelper class.


2) Write a note on Content Provider.
3) Write a note on robotium.
4) What is play store ? Explain in short steps to host app on play store.
5) Explain drawable animation.
6) Explain cell triangulation method and GPS in short.
6. Answer any one of the following :

(110=10)

1) What is shared preference ? For which type of data storage, shared preference is
useful. Explain methods in SharedPreference.
2) Explain Multimedia classes in android.
7. Explain Multimedia classes in android.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 306D

*SLRKM306D*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING MODULE II (HSS/Technical)
Network Setup and Management
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Write any 5 question from Q. No. 2 8.


Draw figures wherever is necessary.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book
Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10

1. Choose the correct answer :

(110=10)

1) In ______________ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both


0.0.0.0 in the routing table.
a) next-hop
b) network-specific
c) host-specific
d) default
2) To build the routing table, ______________ method use pre-programmed
definitions representing paths through the network.
a) Static routing
b) Dynamic routing
c) Hybrid routing
d) Automatic routing
3) In ____________ forwarding, the destination addresses is a network address
in the routing table.
a) next-hop
b) network-specific
c) host-specific
d) default
4) ______________ allow routers to exchange information within an AS.
a) Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) b) Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
c) Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) d) Static Gateway Protocol (SGP)
5) In ______________ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just
the next hop instead of complete route information.
a) next-hop
b) network-specific
c) host-specific
d) default
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 306D

-2-

*SLRKM306D*

6) Which of the following is true regarding VTP ?


a) All switches are VTP servers by default
b) All switches are VTP transparent by default
c) VTP is on by default with a domain name of Cisco on all Cisco switches
d) All switches are VTP clients by default
7) Which protocol reduces administrative overhead in a switched network by
allowing the configuration of a new VLAN to be distributed to all the switches
in a domain ?
a) STP
b) VTP
c) DHCP
d) ISL
8) What VTP mode allows you to change VLAN information on the switch ?
a) Client
b) STP
c) Server
d) Transparent
9) You connect a host to a switch port, but the new host cannot log into the
server that is plugged into the same switch. What could the problem be ?
a) The router is not configured for the new host
b) The VTP configuration on the switch is not updated for the new host
c) The host has an invalid MAC address
d) The switch port the host is connected to is not configured to the correct
VLAN membership
10) Which of the following are benefits of VLANs ?
1) They increase the size of collision domains.
2) They allow logical grouping of users by function.
3) They can enhance network security.
4) They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number
of collision domains.
5) They simplify switch administration.
6) They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the
size of the broadcast domains.
a) 1) and 5)
c) 1), 3) and 5)

b) 2) and 4)
d) 2), 3) and 6)
______________

Set A

*SLRKM306D*

-3-

SLR-KM 306D

Seat
No.

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING MODULE II (HSS/Technical)
Network Setup and Management
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015

Marks : 40

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Write any 5 question from Q. No. 2 8.
2) Draw figures wherever is necessary.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
2. Explain the steps of configuring VLANs using catos.

3. Explain with figure how you can manage multiple routing protocols on a single
Ethernet networks.

4. Explain the DMZ implementation which involves connectivity to third party.

5. Explain with example the document requirement in designing network.

6. Explain the formats of IPv6 addresses.

7. Write short note on :

a) Power and cooling requirement


b) EIGRP.
8. What are the rules to choose which route to place in administrative distance ?

_______________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 306A

*SLRKM306A*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Self Learning
NETWORK SETTING AND MANAGEMENT (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :

10

1) _______________ are virtual separation within switch that provide distinct


logical LANs that each behave as if they were configured on a sepatate
physical switch.
A) Router
B) VPN
C) VLAN
D) None of the choices are correct
2) If the address of destination is not on a local network, the packet must be
forwarded to ____________
A) Switch
B) Hub
C) Gateway
D) None of the choices are correct
3) OSPF is used for ___________
A) Routing of packets
C) Simulation of packets

B) Shortest path routing of packets


D) None of the choices are correct

4) ___________ are purely physical and electrical devices, and do not have a
presence on the network port.
A) Repeater
B) Router
C) Hub
D) None of these
5) When a station needs to send a packet to another station on the same
network, it must first determine the ________ address.
A) Port
B) IP
C) MAC
D) None of the choices are correct
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 306A

-2-

*SLRKM306A*

6) You want to ping the loopback address of your local host (with IPv6). What
will you type ?
A) ping 127.0.0.1
B) ping 0.0.0.0
C) ping ::1
D) trace 0.0.::1
7) Services are provided by the wireless LAN adapter
A) Delivery of the data
B) Authentication
C) Privacy
D) All above
8) The connection to a wired LAN is provided by a _________, which provides a
bridge between the wireless LAN and the wired network.
9) WiMAX is
A) Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
B) Worldwide Internet for Microwave Access
C) Worldwide Intranet for Microwave Access
D) None
10) IPV6 is in which format
A) Hexadecimal format
B) Octal format
C) Alphanumeric format
D) Numeric format
______________

Set A

*SLRKM306A*

-3-

SLR-KM 306A

Seat
No.

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Self Learning
NETWORK SETTING AND MANAGEMENT (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

2. Answer any four from the following questions each carries 5 marks.
(54=20)
a) Discuss what type of planning is needed for a Chassis-based Switch
Installation.
b) Explain with a diagram use of hubs and switches.
c) What are the benefits of fixed configuration switches.
d) What is significance of VLAN and how to configure it using CatOS ?
e) Differentiate between a Hub and Switch.
3. Answer the following any two :

(52=10)

1) What is the best practices for firewall designing ?


2) Explain DMZ.
3) Explain 802.11 wireless networking standards.
4. Write short notes :

(52=10)

1) Bluetooth.
2) Nexus and NX-OS.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 306B

*SLRKM306B*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING MODULE II (Technical)
Tools for Computer Architecture (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct alternatives :

10

1) SPARC stands for


a) Scalable Programmer Architecture
b) Scalable Processor Architecture
c) Scalable Point Architecture
d) None of these
2) SPARC uses a special instruction for
a) Processor interrupts
b) Memory faults
c) Load/Store
d) Multiply and add
3) The ARC and SPARC are __________ machines are nearly all general
purpose computers.
a) Twos complement
b) Ones complement
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
4) Which of the following are mnemonic of ARC instruction set ?
a) bneg
b) be
c) bvs
d) All of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 306B

-2-

*SLRKM306B*

5) The process of translating as assembly language program into a machine


language program is referred to as the
a) Assembly process
b) Compiler
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
6) DLL stands for _________ in linking and loading of ARC processor.
a) Data Link Libraries
b) Data Path Line Libraries
c) Dynamic Link Libraries
d) None of these
7) Which of the following are main simulator controls ?
a) Exit
b) Print
c) Run
d) All of the above
8) Which of the following instructions are not recognized by ARCTools ?
a) ldsh
b) rd
c) pr
d) wr
9) ARC assembly language file is saved as _________ in ARCTools simulator.
a) File.asm
b) File.sim
c) File.tasm
d) File.msm
10) Which of the following are Shift Instructions of ARC Processor ?
a) sra
b) srl
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM306B*

-3-

SLR-KM 306B

Seat
No.

T.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING MODULE II (Technical)
Tools for Computer Architecture (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2. Attempt any four :

Marks : 40

(410=40)

1) Explain different ARC instructions and its meaning with example.


2) i) Write an ARC program that sums five integers.
ii) Explain the ARC simulator main controls.
3) Write an ARC subroutine that performs a swap operation on the 32 bit operands
x = 25 and y = 50, which are stored in memory. Use as few register as you can.
4) Draw and explain Booths Multiplier design. Use the Booth Algorithm to perform
multiplication of (21)10 (14)10 using bit pair recoding Algorithm.
5) Explain the concept of INPUT and OUTPUT in assembly language of ARC
processor with a neat diagram.
6) Explain associative mapping and direct mapping scheme for Cache memory
with a neat diagram.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 306C

*SLRKM306C*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E.-I.T. (New) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Self-Learning Module II : HSS/Technical
COMPILER DEVELOPMENT TOOLS
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) Lex and Yacc help us write programs that transform ________ input.
a) Structured
b) Unstructured
c) Linear
d) Nonlinear
2) A C compiler needs to find the expressions, statements, declarations, blocks
and procedures in the program. This task is known as
a) Analysis
b) Scanning
c) Parsing
d) None of these
3) To run a Lexer we need a C routine called
a) yylex()
b) ylex()
c) lex()
d) none of these
4) When a parser reads a token and if it does not complete a rule, then it
pushes the token in the internal stack and switches to new state. This action
is called
a) replace
b) wait
c) join
d) shift
5) Sometimes we want all occurrences of the token, even if it overlaps with the
other tokens. This is done using
a) ACCEPT
b) REJECT
c) GETINTO
d) All of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 306C

-2-

*SLRKM306C*

6) The routine _______ returns the character c to the input stream.


a) input(c)
b) get(c)
c) read(c)
d) unput(c)
7) Whenever a scanner matches a token, the text of the token is stored in the
null terminated string _____ and its length is in
a) ytexty, ylengy
b) yylex, yyacc
c) yytext, yyleng
d) both a and c
8) The scanner created by LEX has the entry point
a) yyaccept()
b) yyreject()
c) yylexer()
d) yylex()
9) State whether true or false.
When a lexer encounters an end of file, it calls the routine yywrap() to find
out what to do next.
a) True
b) False
10) A grammar is always _______ and has __________
a) Ambiguous, conflicts
b) Unambiguous, conflicts
c) Clear, conflicts
d) None of these

Set A

*SLRKM306C*

-3-

SLR-KM 306C

Seat
No.

T.E.-I.T. (New) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Self-Learning Module II : HSS/Technical
COMPILER DEVELOPMENT TOOLS
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

Instructions : 1) Answer any 4 full questions.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2. Write a Lexer in C that handles commands, numbers, strings and newlines
ignoring white space comments.

10

3. a) Explain the following characters used in regular expressions *, , $ , {},+ .

b) With an example explain shift/reduce parsing.

4. Write down detailed structure of a Lex specification.

10

5. a) What do you mean by definitions and substitutions ? Explain briefly.


b) Write a brief note on combined lexers and multiple lexers.

5
5

6. Write a note on error reporting and error recovery.

10

7. Explain the three most common situations that produce shift/reduce conflicts.

10

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 307

*SLRKM307*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N. B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Anti dependence means


a) WAR
b) RAW

c) WAW

2) Structural Hazard can be avoided by


a) Loop Unrolling
c) Duplication of resources

b) Caesar cipher
d) Sequential Execution

3) Following pipeline hazard occurs most frequently


a) WAR
b) RAW
c) WAW

d) RAR

d) RAR

4) In distributed memory architecture, data communication is performed by


a) Shared main memory
b) Distributed multiprocessor
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
5) VLIW stands for
a) Very Long Identity Word
c) Both

b) Very Long Instruction Word


d) None

6) _____________ processor tries to avoid stalling when dependence are present.


a) Dynamically Scheduled
b) Statically Scheduled
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
7) ____________ is the distance separating elements in memory that will be adjacent
in a vector register.
a) Vector length
b) Stride
c) Space
d) None of these
8) Loop Unrolling is used for
a) Executing branch instructions
c) Both a) and b)

b) Executing the loop program


d) None

9) Reservation station are used for


a) Register Renaming
c) Both a) and b)

b) Avoiding hazards
d) None

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 307

*SLRKM307*

-2-

10) Branch prediction buffer stores


a) Instruction address
c) Both

b) Target address
d) None

11) The LRU algorithm gives the highest priority to the requesting device that has not
used the bus for the longest interval.
a) True
b) False
12) The method ____________ avoids multiple copies by implementing different
paths for Shared writable (non-cacheable) and private (cacheable) data.
a) Static coherence check
b) Dynamic coherence check
c) Concurrent access
d) None of the above
13) Asynchronous means
a) Not in step with the elapse of address
b) Not in step with the elapse of control
c) Not in step with the elapse of data
d) Not in step with the elapse of time
14) __________ is a single control line that informs destination unit that a valid is
available on the bus.
a) Strobe
b) Handshaking c) Synchronous
d) Asynchronous
15) What is disadvantage of strobe scheme ?
a) No surety that destination received data before source removes it
b) Destination unit transfer without knowing whether source placed data on data
bus
c) Cant said
d) Both a) and b)
16) In _________ technique has 1 or more control signal for acknowledgement that is
used for intimation.
a) Handshaking
b) Strobe
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
17) The keyboard has a _______________ asynchronous transfer mode.
a) Parallel
b) Serial
c) Optimum
d) None
18) In _____________ transfer each bit is sent one after the another is a sequence of
event and requires just one line.
a) Serial
b) Parallel
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
19) Modes of transfer b/w computer and I/O device are
a) Interrupt-initiated I/O
b) DMA
c) Dedicated processor such as IOP and DCP
d) All of these
20) __________ operations are the results of I/O operations that are written in the
computer program.
a) Programmed I/O b) DMA
c) Handshaking
d) Strobe

______________
Set A

*SLRKM307*

-3-

SLR-KM 307

Seat
No.

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


N. B. : All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I
2. Answer any 4. Each question carries 5 marks :

(45=20)

1) What is the difference in data, control and structural hazards ?


2) Explain the term :
a) Vector Length.
b) Vector Stride.
3) What is a pipeline stall ? Explain it with an example.
4) Explain what is branch target buffer.
5) Explain with diagram MIMD architecture.
3. Answer the following each question carries 10 marks.

10

1) Discuss Tomasulos Algorithm.


OR
Draw and explain basic vector processor architecture.
2) Explain the various methods used to overcome data hazards using dynamic
scheduling.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 307

-4-

*SLRKM307*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

1) What is the advantage of having both Exclusive and Shared states for cache lines
in a shared memory machine ?
2) Give the differences between loosely coupled and tightly coupled architectures.
3) Draw a Dataflow graph for the computation of the following :
U = f(X, Y) = (X* (X + Y) (X + Y) Y) (X* (X + Y) * (X + Y)).
4) Describe the essential properties of data-flow language.
5) Define and explain dynamic networks with example.
6. Explain the following :

10

a) Control-flow versus data flow computers.


b) Advantages and potential problems of Data Flow computers.
7. Draw and explain detail basic structure of distributed shared memory
architecture. Explain its advantages and disadvantages.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 308

*SLRKM308*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (I.T.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015
MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEMS

Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :


1) Which of the following is a role of Chief Information Officer ?
A) Surveying the business
B) Realizing solutions
C) Managing organisation structure and skills
D) Managing IT business value
2) _____________ pattern finds documents that match the search criteria.
A) Clustering
B) Sequences
C) Associations
D) Forecasting
3) Which among the following is a special malware detection software ?
A) Spyware sweepers
B) Adware
C) Cookie Crusher
D) Flashback
4) Transactions generate data which have to be __________ and __________ to ensure
the smooth operation of organisation.
A) Stored, processed
B) Evaluated, processed
C) Stored, evaluated
D) Retrieved, evaluated
5) Which among the following are functions of DBMS ?
1) Data tracing
2) Security
3) Easier to manage
4) Complete view of data
A) Options 1 and 4
B) Options 1 and 2
C) Options 1 and 3
D) Options 2 and 3
6) Which of the following options are CRM phases ?
1) Acquire
2) Enhance
3) Build
4) Retain
A) Options 1, 2 and 3
B) Options 1, 3 and 4
C) Options 1, 2 and 4
D) Options 2, 3 and 4
7) Assume that you are MIS designer working in ABC company and your Manager asks
you to transfer decision making from a decision-maker to the MIS and still retain the
responsibility and accountability with the decision-maker or the manager. Which of the
following is the finest tool available to you ?
A) Concept of open-decision making
B) Concept of programmed decision making
C) Concept of closed-decision making
D) Concept of non-programmed decision making

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 308

-2-

*SLRKM308*

8) What does the term WIMax stand for ?


A) Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
B) Worldwide Interoperability for Machine Access
C) Worldwide Interoperability for Macintosh Access
D) None of the above
9) Which of the following is a powerful system that provides powerful technology for tracking
the movement of goods throughout the supply chain ?
A) RFID
B) WiFi
C) WiMax
D) SaaS
10) Voice over IP (VoIP) technology delivers
A) Voice information using fiber optics instead of coaxial cable
B) Voice information in analog form using SaaS
C) Voice information for deaf people
D) Voice information in digital form using packet switching
11) Which type of topology networks connects to one single hub and all communications
between network devices must pass through the host computer ?
A) star
B) ring
C) bus
D) train
12) What is 3G Network ?
A) high-speed cellular network
B) internet browser
C) WI-FI hotspot
D) firewall
13) Which of the following is not true about search engines ?
A) Started as simple software programs using keyword indexes
B) They are a major source for internet advertising revenue
C) Include blogs and wikis
D) Complex algorithms and page ranking to locate results
14) Which one of the following statements is not true about packet switching ?
A) It is a method of slicing digital messages into parcels to reassemble at a different
location
B) Previous circuit-switched networks require assembly of complete point-to-point circuit
C) It allows movement between computers and establishes connections
D) More efficient use of networks communications capacity
15) Which network uses a star, bus, or ring topology ?
A) WAN
B) LAN
C) CAN
D) MAN
16) Which of the following is true about Wi-Fi ?
A) has weak security features (true because networks without passwords can be hacked)
B) hotspots always enable free Internet access from laptops (some hotspots arent free)
C) users an freely roam between Wi-Fi networks (false because some networks require
passwords)
D) all of the above
17) HTML is the communications standard used to transfer pages on the Web.
A) True
B) False
18) Which service does not provide VoIP technology ?
A) Skype
B) YouTube
C) Time Warner
D) Google
19) Which of the following has been largely used in inventory and supply chain management
is a tiny tag with embedded microchips containing data about an item ?
A) Shopping bots
B) Bluetooth
C) Broadband Cellular Wireless
D) RFID
20) A router is
A) Slicing digital message into parcels called packets
B) Efficient use of communication capacity
C) Later transmitted over various communications channels
D) None of the above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM308*

-3-

SLR-KM 308

Seat
No.

B.E. (I.T.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All question from Section I and II are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) Why are information systems so essential for running and managing a business today ?
b) How does Porters competitive forces model help companies develop competitive
strategies using information systems ?
c) What ethical, social and political issues are raised by information systems ?
d) What are the stages and technology drivers of IT infrastructure evolution ?
e) What are the problems of managing data resources in a traditional file environment and
how are they solved by a database management system ?
3. What are the principal tools and technologies for accessing information from databases to
improve business performance and decision making ?

10

4. How do the Internet and Internet technology work and how do they support communication
and e-business.

10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four of the following :

(45=20)

a) How do enterprise systems help business achieve operational excellence ?


b) What are the unique features of e-commerce, digital markets, and digital goods ?
c) What is the role of knowledge management and knowledge management programs in
business ?
d) What are the different types of decisions and how does the decision-making process
work ?
e) How does a building new system produce organizational change ?

Set A

SLR-KM 308

-4-

*SLRKM308*

6. How do information systems support the activities of managers and management decision
making ? Compare the descriptions of managerial behaviour in the classical and behavioural
models ?

10

7. Describe the four different system configurations that can be used to support different global
strategies. What are the challenges posed by global information systems and management
solutions for these challenges ?

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 309

*SLRKM309*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :

20

1) Centralized systems run on a single computer systems and


a) Interact with other computer
b) Do not interact with other computer
c) Interact through internet
d) Only interacts with server
2) Data that are shipped to a client on behalf of a transaction can reside at the client
even after the transaction completes is called
a) Data caching
b) Lock caching c) Data fetching
d) Data distribution
3) If a relation r is fragmented and divided in to a number of fragments are
r1, r2, ... rn then it is
a) Horizontal fragmentation
b) Vertical fragmentation
c) Both
d) Cannot say
4) Which of the following message is generated in phase 1 of a 2PC protocol
a) <ready T>
b) <abort T>
c) <commit T>
d) all
5) Site reintegration in distrbuted database is nothing but
a) Separating a failed site from a network
b) Selecting a new coordinator
c) Rejoining of a failed site after its recover
d) Connecting the whole network after the failure of its server
6) Point queries and range queries are complicated to process in __________
partitioning technique.
a) Round Robin
b) Hash
c) Range
d) All
7) In parallel database, if query processing occurs only in one or few partitions and
other partitiions are not in use then it is named as
a) Partition skew
b) Attribute value skew
c) Execution skew
d) Data skew
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 309

*SLRKM309*

-2-

8) In interquery parallelism
a) Different queries are executing in parallel
b) Single query is executing in parallel
c) Individual operation of a query executes in parallel
d) Different operation of a query executes in parallel
9) In persistent programming language, data stored is
a) temporary
b) permanent
c) virtual

d) static

10) In OODB, final and not final indicates the


a) structure type creation
b) subtype creation
c) object creation
d) complex type creation
11) The keywords system generated and user generated are used in object based
databases to generate
a) identifier
b) static key
c) primary key
d) dynamic key
12) The operation of changing dimensions used in a cross-tab is referred as
a) slicing
b) dicing
c) pivoting
d) dimensioning
13) In OLAP implementation MOLAP is
a) Multivalued OLAP
c) Multidimensional OLAP

b) Multiattributed OLAP
d) Multiple OLAP

14) Which of the following organization is the part of formal standards ?


a) ANSI
b) ISO
c) IEEE
d) ALL
15) Arrange the following query processing steps according to the processing order
I) Translation
II) Evaluation
III) Execution
IV) Optimization
a) I, IV, II, III
b) I, IV, III, II
c) I, II, IV, III
d) I, II, III, IV
16) In query processing for selection operation A3, A4 and A5 algorithms are
a) Basic algorithms
b) Using indices
c) Complex selections
d) Comparison selections
17)

a)

1 (E ) =

(E) 1 (E)

b)

(E) 1 (E)

c)

(
1

(E))

d) All

18) The estimated cost of hash join requires _________ block transfers for relations
r and s.
a) br + bs
b) nr * br + bs
c) 3(br + bs) + 4nh
d) 2 (br + bs)
19) Choose TP-monitor architectures
a) Single-server model
c) Single-router model

b) Single-client model
d) All

20) The protocol which allows global transactions to read but not to update local data
items is
a) local-read-write protocol
b) local-read protocol
c) global-read-write protocol
d) global-read protocol
______________
Set A

*SLRKM309*

-3-

SLR-KM 309

Seat
No.

B.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80
SECTION I

2. Write short notes (attempt any 4) :


a) Failure handling in 2PC
b) Shared lock and distributed lock manager approach
c) Interquery parallelism
d) Complex datatypes
e) Unnesting.

20

3. Attempt any one :

10

What is distributed database system ? Elaborate distributed transaction processing


with its system architecture and failure modes.
OR
What is persistent programming language ? Explain persistence of objects and object
identity with respect to PPL.
4. What is interoperation parallelism ? Illustrate its techniques with examples.

10

SECTION II
5. Write short notes (attempt any 4) :
a) Datacube
b) Decision tree classifier
c) Complex selection algorithms for conjunction
d) SQL standards
e) Database tuning.

20

6. Attempt any one :

10

Explain the following terms in datamining. Ranking, windowing, association and


clustering.
OR
Elaborate query processing of hash join with its cost complexity.
7. What is transactional workflows ? Explain the specifications.

10

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 310

*SLRKM310*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTIVE I : OBJECT ORIENTED MODELING AND DESIGN (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) An external entity that interacts with a system is called


a) Use case
b) Actor
c) Stakeholder
2) In the UML notation, an ellipse specifies
a) actor
c) use case

d) Association

b) class
d) system boundary

3) Which of the following can be represented by a stereotype package ?


a) interface
b) statechart diagram
c) architectural layer
d) use case model
4) Life cycle of a class is represented by
a) collaboration diagram
c) class diagram

b) statechart diagram
d) deployment diagram

5) Generalisation is a ____________ relationship.


a) is a part of
b) is a kind of
c) is a replica of
d) is composed of
6) Which of the following is not a UML diagram ?
a) component diagram
b) statechart diagram
c) deployment diagram
d) broadcast diagram
7) ____________ is the implementation of an operation for a class.
a) Method
b) Attributes
c) Qualifier

d) Link

8) ___________ is a special attribute that reduces the effective multiplicity of an association.


a) Role name
b) Ordering
c) Qualifier
d) Link

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 310

-2-

*SLRKM310*

9) The term ___________ includes objects, classes, attributes, links and associations.
a) candidate key
b) entity
c) DFD
d) homomorphism
10) The notation for generalization is __________ connecting a super class to its subclasses.
a) Triangle
b) Circle
c) Rectangle
d) Line
11) ___________ is a logical construct for grouping classes, associations and generalizations.
a) Class
b) Module
c) Sheet
d) Subclass
12) ___________ permits a class to have more than one superclass and to inherit feature
from all parents.
a) Generalization
b) Aggregation
c) Multiple inheritance
d) Polymorphism
13) ____________ is a one-way transmission of information from one object to another.
a) State
b) Action
c) Event
d) Entity
14) ____________ is a sequence of events that occurs during one particular execution of a
system.
a) Event trace
b) Scenario
c) Event class
d) State
15) ___________ is an operation that takes time to complete.
a) Activity
b) State
c) Action

d) Event

16) Activity in a state diagram is associated with


a) state
b) event
c) action

d) attribute

17) _____________ is a graph showing flow of data values from their sources in objects
through processes that transform them to their destinations in other objects.
a) Object diagram
b) Process diagram
c) Data flow diagram
d) Control flow diagram
18) In OMT, ____________ is concerned with understanding and modeling the application
and the domain within which it operates.
a) analysis phase
b) system design phase
c) object design phase
d) class design phase
19) From point of view of other class ___________ describes what a class in association
stands for ?
a) attribute
b) role name
c) qualifier
d) association
20) ___________ is a description of a set of objects that share the same attributes, operations,
relationship and semantics.
a) Event
b) Instance
c) Class
d) Entity

______________

Set A

*SLRKM310*

-3-

SLR-KM 310

Seat
No.

B.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTIVE I : OBJECT ORIENTED MODELING AND DESIGN (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
a) What is modeling ? Explain the object modeling technique.
b) Explain the general concepts of generalization and inheritance.
c) Explain dataflow diagram with example.
d) Explain entry and exit actions of advanced dynamic modeling technique.
e) Explain abstract classes with example.
3. Explain various object oriented themes.
OR
Explain characteristics of an object oriented approach.
4. Explain in detail constructing steps for object model, dynamic model and functional
model.

(45=20)

10
10
10

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :
1) Explain different views that comprise a systems architecture.
2) Explain messages and sequencing w.r.t. interactions.
3) What is a package ? Explain importing and exporting of packages.
4) Explain contents of a class diagram with example.
5) Explain relationships of basic structural modeling.
6. Discuss in detail different diagrams in UML with example.

(45=20)

10

OR
Explain the concept of events and signals in detail.
7. Explain the following with diagrams :

10

i) Forking and joining


ii) Swimlanes.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 311

*SLRKM311*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (I.T.) (New) (Part I) Examination, 2015


HUMAN COMPUTER INTERACTION
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) What is design ?
a) Achieving goods within constraints
c) Arriving goals within constraints

20
b) Achieving goals within constraints
d) Arriving goals within common

2) Engineering a user interface involves a quantitative engineering style of working


in which measurements are used to judge the quality of interface. Hence _________
is appropriate.
a) Usability testing
b) Field study
c) Predictive evaluation
d) DECIDE framework
3) _________ are perhaps the least-documented patterns, but they are nonetheless
in widespread use.
a) Postural
b) Structural
c) Behavioral
d) Mnemonic
4) People build their own theories to understand the casual behaviour of system,
these have been termed
a) Dental models b) Pent model
c) Rental model
d) Mental model
5) The most abstract design rule are general
a) Guidelines
b) Standards
c) Principles

d) Rules

6) __________ evolution is method for structuring the critique of system using a set
of sample guidelines.
a) Heuristic
b) General
c) Structural
d) Computational
7) Which of the following is example of paradigm shift ?
a) Channel processing
b) Data processing
c) Time sharing
d) Micro-controller processing
8) In virtual reality which of the senses cannot currently be portrayed ?
a) Touch
b) Hearing
c) Sight
d) Smell
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 311

*SLRKM311*

-2-

9) Which one of these is a good reason to include sounds in an HCl ?


a) User react more quickly to sound than to visual signals
b) User react more slowly to sound than visual signals
c) There is no preference people just like sound
d) The computer reacts to sound in the same way as human
10) These are two types of long term memory
a) Episodic memory and semantic memory
b) Episodic memory and programmatic memory
c) Segmented memory and semantic memory
d) Episodic memory and segmented memory
11) Which of the following fields is not an influence on HCl ?
a) Ergonomics
b) Cognitive psychology
c) Computer science
d) All of above
12) Conventional wisdom says that __________ tell the user when he has made some
mistake.
a) Program crash b) System stuck c) Error messages d) Metadata
13) We perform speech acts when we offer an
a) Apology
b) Greeting
c) Request

d) All of above

14) __________ is usually numeric and can be easily analyzed using statistical
techniques and __________ is non-numeric and is more difficult to analyze.
a) Subjective, objective
b) Laboratory, field studies
c) Quantitative measurement, qualitative measurements
d) Design, implementation
15) Feedback can come in the form of
a) Non verbal communication only
c) Verbal communication only

b) Verbal and non verbal listener responses


d) Environmental noise

16) An example of communication channels is


a) face to face conversation
b) noise
c) context
d) feedback
17) __________ technique can be useful in eliciting detail of users view of a system.
a) Asking
b) Query
c) General
d) Scalar
18) Which of the following are styles of evaluation ?
a) Laboratory studies and field studies b) Self studies and analysis studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Formal studies and informal studies
19) _________ is the primary consideration in designing knowledge-based AI systems.
a) Analogy
b) Efficiency
c) Efficacy
d) Acquisition
20) Which one of these is NOT normally associated with qualitative data ?
a) Words
b) Narrative
c) Pie charts
d) Images
______________
Set A

*SLRKM311*

-3-

SLR-KM 311

Seat
No.

B.E. (I.T.) (New) (Part I) Examination, 2015


HUMAN COMPUTER INTERACTION
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B. : All questions are compulsory.


SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :
a) Explain different types of human memory in detail.
b) Explain reasoning and problem solving techniques in brief.
c) How emotion plays important role in human performance ?
d) Explain the role of usability testing in user interface design.
e) Explain human input output channels in detail.

(64=24)

3. Attempt any two of the following :

(82=16)

a) Explain 8 golden rules of interface design with example of each rule.


b) Explain the various interaction styles with their drawbacks and benefits.
c) State various video input devices. Explain response time and display rate
importance in video input.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of the following :
a) What is evolution and goals of evolution ?
b) Explain speech act theory.
c) Write short note on knowledge based analysis.
d) Explain FACE-TO-FACE communication mechanism.
e) Which are the methods used for recording user action ?

(64=24)

5. Attempt any two of the following :


(82=16)
a) Explain MVC paradigm suggested in the small talk programming.
b) What is task analysis ? What is difference between task analysis and other
techniques ? Explain task decomposition in detail.
c) Write short note on :
a) Text based communication
b) Group working.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 312

*SLRKM312*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015
MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM (New)

Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-15


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :


1) A _______________ is one in which nearly all the organizations significant
business relationships with customers, suppliers and employees are digitally
enabled.
A) Digital Firm
B) Digitization
C) Digital organization
D) None of these
2) __________ refers to a set of logically related tasks and behaviours that
organizations develop over time to produce specific business results.
A) Business task
B) Business Process
C) Marketing
D) Business Integration
3) _____________ can be defined technically as a set of interrelated components
that collect, process, store and distribute information.
A) Information System
B) DBMS
C) Database
D) Digital data
4) BPR stands for ____________
A) Business Product Restructure
C) Business Process Revaluation

B) Business Process Reengineering


D) None of these

5) _____________ refers to the use of digital technology and internet to execute


the major business processes in the enterprise.
A) Virtualization
B) E-Commerce
C) Electronic Enterprise
D) Internet Business
6) A/An ____________ is a stable, formal social structure that takes resources from
the environment and processes them to produce outputs.
A) Organization
B) Institute
C) Business
D) Infrastructure
7) GPS stands for ___________
A) Global Positioning System
C) Global Process System

B) Goal Positioning System


D) Global Partitioning System
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 312

-2-

*SLRKM312*

8) A __________ grants the owner an exclusive monopoly on the ideas behind an


invention for 20 years.
A) Patent
B) Copyright
C) Both A) and B) D) None of these
9) _____________ uses individual atoms and molecules to create computer chips
and other devices.
A) Nano-technology
B) Micro-technology
C) Macro-technology
D) None of these
10) _____________ involves connecting geographically remote computers into a
single network to create a virtual supercomputer.
A) Grid Computing
B) Utility computing
C) Geo computing
D) Autonomic computing
11) ______________ is a process of presenting a set of computing resources so that
they can all be accessed in ways that are not restricted by geographically location.
A) Globalization
B) Cloud computing
C) A) and B)
D) Virtualization
12) ______________ is a software that connects two otherwise separate applications,
enabling them to communicate with each other.
a) Firmware
B) Multiware
C) Middleware
D) ERP
13) A _____________ is a database that stores current and historical data of
potential interest to decision makers throughout the company.
A) DBMS
B) Data mine
C) Data Warehouse
D) Data mart
14) A _______________ is the part of a network that handles the major traffic.
A) Bakbone
B) Cable
C) Switch
D) Fibre
15) An/A ______________ is a box consisting of a radio receiver/transmitter and
antennas that links to a wired network, routes or hub.
A) Ariel
B) Access Point C) Backbone
D) Hotspot
16) _____________ involves setting up fake websites on sending e-mails that look
like those of legimate business to ask user for confidential personal data.
A) Phishing
B) Spoofing
C) Sniffing
D) Identify theft
17) A software vendor created small pieces of software called __________ to repair
the flows without disturbing the proper operation of the software.
A) Virus
B) Worm
C) Operating system
D) Patches
18) SSL stands for ____________
A) Secure Sockets Layer
B) Secure Sockets Link
C) Secure Soft Link
D) None of these
19) ______________ involves retailing products and services to individual shopper.
A) B2B
B) B2C
C) C2C
D) All of these
20) _____________ uses online analytical processing and data mining to analyze
large pools of date.
A) DSS
B) ESS
C) OSS
D) FSS

______________

Set A

*SLRKM312*

-3-

SLR-KM 312

Seat
No.

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-15
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : All questions are compulsory.


SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(64=24)

a) What is Management Information System ? Discuss the significance of MIS.


b) What are the contemporary approaches to information systems ?
c) Explain the organizational and behavioural impacts.
d) Differentiate between DBMS and RDBMS.
e) Explain the technology drivers of infrastructure evolution.
3. Attempt any two of the following :

(82=16)

a) Discuss the Porters competitive forces model.


b) Discuss the system quality in terms of data quality and system errors.
c) Write short note on web services and service-oriented architecture.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of the following :

(64=24)

a) What are Enterprise Systems ? Explain business value of enterprise systems.


b) Explain Customer Relationship Management with neat diagram.
c) Why e-commerce is different ?
d) Explain the systems development and organizational change.
e) What are the challenges and obstacles to global business systems ?

Set A

SLR-KM 312

-4-

5. Attempt any two of the following :

*SLRKM312*
(82=16)

a) What is prototyping ? And explain steps in prototyping.


b) Explain the types of knowledge management systems.
c) Explain the importance of project management.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 313

*SLRKM313*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :


20
1) Transaction server is also called as a
a) Data server
b) Process server c) Query server
d) Locking server
2) In a database system, if different sites use different schema and DBMS software
then it is called
a) Parallel database
b) Client server database
c) Heterogeneous database
d) Homogeneous database
3) If one of the sites containing relation r fails then the relation r can be found at
another site. This mechanism is __________
a) Data fragmentation
b) Data replication
c) Data integration
d) Data configuration
4) Which of the following message is not generated in phase2 of a 2PC protocol ?
a) <ready T>
b) <abort T>
c) <commit T>
d) all
5) Which of the following locking protocol is using shared and exclusive lock to
handle replication ?
a) Distributed lock manager
b) Primary copy
c) Majority protocol
d) Biased protocol
6) The simplest partitioning technique in parallel databases is
a) Round Robin
b) Hash
c) Range
d) All
7) Users view each data object as logically unique in
a) Fragmentation transparency
b) Replication transparency
c) Location transparency
d) Client transparency
8) In interquery parallelism
a) Different queries are executing in parallel
b) Single query is executing in parallel
c) Individual operation of a query executes in parallel
d) Different operation of a query executes in parallel
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 313

-2-

*SLRKM313*

9) Consider name as an attribute containing in parallel database, if query processing


occurs only in one or few partitions and other partitions are not in use then it is
named as
a) Attribute value skew
b) Partition skew
c) Execution skew
d) Data skew
10) If the three sites are independently executing the three queries as SELECT,
UPDATE and JOIN on 3 different relations then it is called _______ parallelism.
a) interquery
b) interoperation c) intraoperation d) global
11) firstname, middlename and lastname as its subfields then it is called as
a) multivalued attribute
b) composite attribute
c) partitioned attribute
d) parallel attribute
12) The query
Create type Student under Person ....
Is using a
a) Table inheritance
b) Multiple inheritance
c) Type inheritance
d) Attribute inheritance
13) An unordered collection where an element may occur multiple times is called as
__________
a) array
b) multiarray
c) multiset
d) object
14) In data analysis and mining, Decision Support System is used for making
a) Query decisions
b) Data analysis decisions
c) Business decisions
d) Table creation decisions
15) In OODB, final and not final indicates the
a) Structure type creation
b) Subtype creation
c) Object creation
d) Complex type creation
16) OLAP is an
a) Online Analytical Processing
b) Online Analyzing Process Management
c) Online Analysis Program
d) One thread Analysis of a Program
17) Translation of a queries in high level database language into expressions that
can be used at the physical level is called
a) Query optimization
b) Query transformation
c) Query processing
d) Query execution
18) In query processing for selection operation A8 and A9 algorithms are
a) Basic algorithms
b) Using indices
c) Complex selections
d) Comparison selections
19) Which of the following is not the Dameon process that runs on a hadoop cluster ?
a) JobTracker
b) DataNode
c) TaskTracker
d) TaskNode
20) Which of the following is supported by MongoDB ?
a) ACID transactions
b) Relationships between collections (Primary Key-Foreign Key)
c) Journaling
d) Transaction Management
______________

Set A

*SLRKM313*

-3-

SLR-KM 313

Seat
No.

B.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Write short notes (attempt any 4) :
a) Failure handling in 2PC
b) Partitioned parallel join
c) Parallel sort
d) Datacube
e) Decision tree classifier.

20

3. Attempt any one :


What is datawarehouse ? Elaborate its components and issues with neat diagram.

10

OR
Elaborate with neat diagram distributed transaction processing with its architecture.
4. Elaborate interquery and intraquery parallelism with proper examples.

10

SECTION II
5. Write short notes (attempt any 4) :
a) Structured types
b) Basic algorithms of selection operation
c) Arrays and multisets
d) Query processing of join operations
e) YARN in Hadoop.

20

6. Attempt any one :


List and explain equivalence rules for query optimization.

10

OR
How bigdata is different than dataware house ? Elaborate its features and components.
7. Explain nesting and unnesting with proper database table examples.
_____________________

10

Set A

Set A

SLR- KM 314

*SLRKM314*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part 1) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The Life Cycle Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution, Bug Reporting and
Maintenance comes under
a) SDLC

b) STLC

c) SQLC

d) BLC

2) Which is not a testing objective ?


a) Finding defects
b) Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
c) Preventing defects
d) Debugging defects
3) What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers ?
a) To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes
b) To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested
c) To determine how much the planned changes will affect users
d) To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes
4) Which is the static process to check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer
requirements or not ?
a) Validation

b) Verification

c) Quality Assurance

d) Quality control

5) Boundary value testing is described as


a) Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b) Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c) Tests combinations of input circumstances
d) Is used in white box testing strategy
6) What are the various testing Levels in software testing ?
a) Unit Testing, System Testing

b) Integration Testing, smoke testing

c) Fire state testing

d) Only a and b

7) Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage (s) that


a) low level modules never need testing

b) major decision points are tested early

c) no drivers need to be written

d) both b and c

P.T.O.

SLR- KM 314

*SLRKM314*

-2-

8) Smoke testing might best be described as


a) Bullet proofing shrink-wrapped software
c) Testing that hides implementation errors

b) Rolling integration testing


d) Unit testing for small programs

9) Verification is
a) Checking that we are building the right system
c) Performed by an independent test team

b) Checking that we are building the system right


d) Making sure that it is what the user really wants

10) What is the normal order


i) integration testing
a) i,
iv,
iii,
b) ii,
iv,
i,
c) iii,
i,
iv,
d) iv,
ii,
iii,

of activities in which traditional software testing is organized ?


ii) system testing
iii) unit testing
iv) validation testing
ii
iii
ii
i

11) System test can begin when


I) The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry
meeting
II) The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the
system testing
III) All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control
a) I and II only
b) II and III only
c) I and III only
d) I, II and III
12) A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following ?
i) Test Items
ii) Test Scripts
iii) Test Deliverables
iv) Responsibilities
a) i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
b) i, iii, iv are true and ii is false
c) ii, iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i, ii are false and iii, iv are true
13) Purpose of test design technique is
a) Identifying test conditions only, not identifying test cases
b) Not identifying test conditions, identifying test cases only
c) Identifying test conditions and identifying test cases
d) Identifying test conditions or identifying test cases
14) Entry criteria should address questions such as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers
to operate the system and judge correct behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready ?
III. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use ?
IV. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue
effectively and efficiently.
a) I, II and IV
b) I, II and III
c) I, II, III and IV
d) II, III and IV
15) It measures the quality of a product, it is a specific part of the QA procedure, it is a corrective process, it
applies for particular product and deals with the product.
a) Validation
b) Verification
c) Quality Assurance
d) Quality Control
16) Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product is called
a) Confirmation management
b) Confederation management
c) Configuration management
d) Comparability management
17) In software quality assurance work there is no difference between software verification and software
validation.
a) True
b) False
18) Proper plans should be prepared and then progress against these plans should be monitored is one of the
Salient features of ISO ________ certification.
a) 9051
b) 1926
c) 9001
d) 9000
19) The test language usually used in Selenium is
a) PHP
b) Python

c) JavaScript

20) The software engineers role in tool selection is


a) To identify, evaluate and rank tools and recommend tools to management
b) To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
c) To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
d) To identify, evaluate and select the tools.

______________

d) None of the above

Set A

*SLRKM314*

SLR- KM 314

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part 1) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2.

Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain why independent testing is required and mention what skills are expected in a good Tester.
2) Explain concept of TQM cost perspective.
3) Discuss the importance of code review rework and validation.
4) Explain difference between performance, stress testing and load testing.
5) Why should integration testing be performed ? What types of errors can this testing will reveal ?

3.

Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain the following Black-Box Testing Techniques.


i) Equivalence Partitioning
ii) Data Testing
iii) State Testing
2) What are the objectives of acceptance testing ? Explain different types of acceptance testing.
3) Explain the following terms :
i) verification
iii) error

ii) validation
iv) fault

v) defect

Set A

SLR- KM 314

-4-

*SLRKM314*

SECTION II

4.

Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Describe a few techniques for isolating and reproducing a bug.


2) What are the four reasons for test case planning ?
3) What are entrance and exit criteria ?
4) Describe the SQA Activities.
5) What is Selenium ? What are the different Selenium components ?

5.

Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) What is defining the softwares quality and reliability goals an important part of test planning ?
2) Explain ISO 9000 approach to quality assurance systems.
3) Whats the difference between a tool and automation ? Why should Selenium be selected as a test tool ?

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 316

*SLRKM316*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : DISTRIBUTED COMPUTING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Draw figure wherever is necessary.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(120=20)
1) To resolve the problem of data representation on different systems RPCs define ______
a) machine dependent representation of data b) machine representation of data
c) machine-independent representation of data d) none of these
2) If time stamps of two events are same, then the events are
a) concurrent
b) non-concurrent c) monotonic
d) non-monotonic
3) For proper synchronization in distributed systems
a) prevention from the deadlock is must b) prevention from the starvation is must
c) both a) and b)
d) none of the mentioned
4) In the token passing approach of distributed systems, processes are organized in
a ring structure
a) logically
b) physically
c) both a) and b) d) none of the mentioned
5) In distributed systems, transaction coordinator
a) starts the execution of transaction
b) breaks the transaction into number of sub transactions
c) coordinates the termination of the transaction
d) all of the mentioned
6) In case of failure, a new transaction coordinator can be elected by
a) bully algorithm b) ring algorithm c) both a) and b) d) none of the mentioned
7) In distributed systems, election algorithms assumes that
a) a unique priority number is associated with each active process in system
b) there is no priority number associated with any process
c) priority of the processes is not required
d) none of the mentioned
8) According to the ring algorithm, links between processes are
a) bidirectional b) unidirectional c) both a) and b) d) none of the mentioned
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 316

-2-

*SLRKM316*

9) What are the characteristics of tightly coupled system ?


a) Same clock, usually shared memory b) Communication is via this shared memory
c) Multiprocessors
d) All of these
10) What are the characteristics of mutual exclusion using centralized approach ?
a) One processor as coordinator which handles all requests
b) It requires request, reply and release per critical section entry
c) The method is free from starvation
d) All of these
11) What are the characteristics of atomicity ?
a) All operations associated are executed to completion or none are performed
b) One processor as coordinator which handles all requests
c) When responses are received from all processes, then process can enter its
critical section
d) Use communication links
12) A distributed file system exhibits location transparency if
a) The name of a file indicates exactly where the file can be found
b) The name of a file does not indicate where the file can be found
c) The name of a file does not need to be changed when the location of the file
changes
d) The name of a file is not adequate for finding the file
13) The file once created cannot be changed is called
a) immutable file b) mutex file
c) mutable file
d) none of the mentioned
14) _______________ of the distributed file system are dispersed among various
machines of distributed system.
a) Clients
b) Servers
c) Storage devices d) All of these
15) In distributed file system, file name does not reveal the files
a) local name
b) physical storage location
c) both a) and b)
d) none of the mentioned
16) Which one of the following is a distributed file system ?
a) andrew file system
b) network file system
c) novel network
d) all of the mentioned
17) In distributed systems, a logical clock is associated with
a) each instruction b) each process c) each register d) none of the mentioned
18) Which routing technique is used in distributed system ?
a) fixed routing
b) virtual routing c) dynamic routing d) all of these
19) Remote Procedure Calls are used
a) for communication between two processes remotely different from each other
on the same system
b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) for communication between two processes on the separate systems
d) none of these
20) RPC provides a(an) ___________ on the client side, a separate one for each
remote procedure.
a) stub
b) identifier
c) name
d) process identifier
______________
Set A

*SLRKM316*

-3-

SLR-KM 316

Seat
No.

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


Elective I : DISTRIBUTED COMPUTING
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw figure wherever is necessary.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain with figure implementing RPC mechanism.


b) Explain blocking and non-blocking types of semantics used for synchronization.
c) What is multidatagram message also explain encoding and decoding of message
data ?
d) Explain the flexible reliability in multicast communication and atomic multicast.
e) Explain the server naming and server locating w.r.t. client server bindings.
3. Explain all the issues in designing a Distributed Operating System ?

10

OR
Explain with figure and example Idempotency and handling of duplicate request
message.
4. Write note on (any two) :

(25=10)

a) Tightly and loosely coupled system


b) The two basic IPC paradigm
c) Marshalling arguments and results.
Set A

SLR-KM 316

-4-

*SLRKM316*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain with example event ordering.


b) Explain the ways for recovery from deadlock also explain the issues in deadlock.
c) State and explain the advantages of process migration.
d) Explain the desirable features of a good distributed file system.
e) Explain in detail clock synchronization.
6. Explain in detail file caching schemes.

10

OR
Explain with example mutual exclusion.
7. Write note on (any two) :

(25=10)

a) Deadlock detection
b) Election algorithm
c) Process migration in heterogeneous system.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 319

*SLR-KM-319*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015


INFORMATION RETRIEVAL
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer.

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) In Retrieval process the retrieved documents are ranked according to a _____


of relevance, before been sent to the user.
a) page size
b) likelihood
c) index
d) feedback
2) In the Boolean model, documents and queries are represented as set of
index terms, this model is called as _________.
a) set-theoretic
b) semantic
c) algebric
d) subset
3) In the vector model, documents and queries are represented as vectors in a
t-dimensional space, this model is called as _________.
a) set-theoretic
b) semantic
c) algebric
d) subset
4) An information retrieval model is a ___________.
a) quadreal
b) quadcore
c) quaddouble
d) quadruple
5) The classic model in Information Retrieval consider that each document is
described by a set of representative keywords called __________.
a) logical view
b) summarization
c) metadata
d) index terms
6) A _________ is a high level interactive navigation structure which allows us
to browse text non-sequentially on a computer screen.
a) Hypertext
b) Node
c) Data structure d) Frame
7) HTML stands for __________.
a) Hyper Tag Madeup Language
b) Hyper Time Modeling Language
c) Hyper Text Markup Language
d) Hyper Text Makeup Language
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 319

*SLRKM319*

-2-

8) ___________ is the fraction of the relevant document which has been


retrieved.
a) Precision
b) Recall
c) Region
d) Reset
9) __________ is the fraction of the retrieved document which is relevant.
a) Precision
b) Recall
c) Region
d) Reset
10) A __________ is the formulation of a user information need.
a) Form
b) Session
c) Hyperlink
d) Query
11) _______ is a sequence of single word queries.
a) Context
b) Phrase
c) Fuzzy

d) Ranking

12) A _______ is a set of syntactic features that must occur in a text segment.
a) Pattern
b) Phrase
c) Proximity
d) Precision
13) Most documents and text collections have associated with them what is
known as
a) index
b) region
c) metadata
d) node
14) RTF stands for
a) Reach Text Format
c) Real Time Format

b) Rich Text Format


d) Real Tool Formula

15) SGML stands for


a) Standard Graphics Madeup Language
b) Static General Makeup Language
c) Single Generalized Markup Language
d) Standard Generalized Markup Language
State the following statements are true or false.
16) TIFF is used to exchange documents between different applications and
different computer platforms.
17) MULTOS is based on client/server architecture.
18) In case of range pattern matching, the range between the word core and
cost will retrieve the word coat.
19) GEMINI stands for Genetic Multimedia object indexing.
20) Vector model assigns binary weight to index terms in queries and documents.
______________
Set A

*SLRKM319*

-3-

SLR-KM 319

Seat
No.

B.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2015


INFORMATION RETRIEVAL
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
2. Attempt the following (any 4) :
1) State the difference in data retrieval and information retrieval.
2) Explain Boolean queries in Keyword-Based query.
3) Write a short note on information theory.
4) Explain textual images in multimedia.
5) Explain Boolean queries in indexing and searching.
6) Explain conditions on multimedia data.
3. Attempt the following (any 1) :

Marks : 80

(45=20)

10

1) Explain the construction of suffix arrays for large text.


2) How BM algorithm works for the following pattern and text ?
Text : bacbabababacaca
Pattern : ababaca
4. Plot the graph of Precision vs Recall at 11 standard recall levels

10

Rq = {d3, d56, d129} for query q ranking is as follows


1) d123

2) d84

3) d56

4) d6

5) d8

6) d9

7) d511

8) d129

9) d187

10) d25

11) d38

12) d48

13) d250

14) d113

15) d3
Set A

SLR-KM 319

-4-

5. Attempt the following (any 4) :

*SLRKM319*
(45=20)

1) Write a short note on metasearchers.


2) Explain Single-Word queries in keyword based querying.
3) Explain XML and its uses.
4) Explain multimedia data support in commerical DBMS.
5) Explain construction in inverted files.
6) Explain KMP algorithm in sequential searching.
6. Attempt the following (any 1) :

10

1) Explain suffix trees and suffix arrays with example.


2) Explain distributed collection in digital libraries.
7. Explain distributed architecture in search engine.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 320

*SLRKM320*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MOBILE COMPUTING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Write the correct answer from the options given below :


1) Wireless Signal not have following parameter ___________
a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) Code

20

2) Signal propagation not contain __________ range.


a) Transmission b) Detection
c) Interference
d) Receiving
3) In signal propagation following is not true.
a) Within certain radius transmission is possible
b) Transmission signal can mix up with noise in detection range
c) Interference range is larger than detection range
d) None
4) __________is not antenna type used in wireless radiation.
a) Omni direction b) Sectorized
c) Smart
d) Shadowing
5) Radio wave can exhibit fundamental propagation depend on frequencies
a) Ground wave
b) Sky wave
c) Line of sight
d) All of above
6) Guard space is in ___________ multiplexing.
a) Space
b) Time
c) Frequence
d) None
7) Slotted Aloha improves throughput __________ % than classical.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 18-36
d) None
8) ___________is time spend on a channel with certain frequency in spread
spectrum.
a) Dwell
b) Delay
c) Both
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 320

*SLRKM320*

-2-

9) ___________ maintains radio connection to MS.


a) BSS
b) BTS
c) BSC
10) Authentication is task of ____________ within BSS.
a) BTS
b) BSC
c) Both

d) None
d) None

11) COA provides IP address of ___________


a) Foreign agent
b) Home agent
c) Both
d) None
12) Indirect TCP and M-TCP use ___________ mechanism.
a) Freeze
b) Snoop
c) Split
d) None
13) Indirect and snooping TCP has problem of
a) Security
b) Latency
c) Handover
d) None
14) Selective transmission TCP will retransmit ___________
a) All packets
b) Window size
c) Lost packets
d) None
15) ___________ technology uses diffuse light reflected at walls furniture etc.
a) Blutooth
b) Infrared
c) X-ray
d) None
16) ___________ and ___________ are two types of spread spectrum.
a)
b)
c)
d)
17) One of the following is not true about Infrared transmission
a) Simple and cheap
b) Penetrate wall
c) Reflects wall
d) None
18) PLCP in 802.11 protocol is
a) Physical layer connecting protocol
b) Physical layer convergence protocol
c) Parallel layer convergence protocol
d) None
19) IP in IP in mobile network layer is type of ____________
a) Routing
b) Encapsulation
c) Tunneling
d) None
20) In mobile network _________ contains Router HA, network, router FA, MN
and CN
a) Transport layer
b) Wireless LAN
c) Network layer
d) None
______________
Set A

*SLRKM320*

-3-

SLR-KM 320

Seat
No.

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MOBILE COMPUTING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicates full marks.


2) All questions are compulsory.
2. Answer any two of the following :

14

a) Explain in wireless transmission spread spectrum.


b) What is in wireless transmission cellular systems ?
c) Explain free space signal propagation model.
3. Answer any two of the following :

14

a) Explain multiple access with collision avoidance.


b) Explain space division multiplexing.
c) How spreading and dispreading happens in spread spectrum ?
4. Answer any two of the following :

12

a) Localization and calling in GSM.


b) GSM architecture.
5. Answer any two of the following :

14

a) What do you mean by ad hoc networks ? How is an ad hoc network


different from cellular network ?
b) Explain about HIPERLAN in wireless network.
c) Compare Wireless LAN and Wired LAN in detail.

Set A

SLR-KM 320

-4-

6. Attempt any two of the following :

*SLRKM320*
14

a) Explain the concept of mobile IP.


b) How DHCP works in mobile network ?
c) Explain registration process in mobile network layer.
7. Answer any two of the following :

12

a) Indirect TCP.
b) Snooping TCP.
c) Transaction oriented TCP.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 321

*SLRKM321*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
NETWORK SECURITY

Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) The __________ is a number or a set of numbers on which the cipher operates.


a) cipher
b) secret
c) key
d) none of the above
2) Programs that come into a computer system disguised as something else are called
a) spoofers
b) loggers
c) defacers
d) trojan horses
3) Message ___________ means that the receiver is ensured that the message is coming
from the intended sender, not an imposter.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Authentication
d) None of the above
4) In public key encryption if A wants to send an encrypted message
a) A encrypts message using his private key
b) A encrypts message using Bs private key
c) A encrypts message using Bs public key
d) A encrypts message using his public key
5) Hashed message is signed by a sender using
a) his public key
b) his private key
c) receivers public key
d) receivers private key
6) __________ Provides privacy, integrity and authentication in e-mail.
a) IPSec
b) SSL
c) PGP
d) None of the above
7) Digital signature cannot provide __________ for the message.
a) Integrity
b) Confidentiality
c) Non Repudation
d) Authentication
8) By
a)
b)
c)
d)

symmetric key encryption we mean


one private key is used for both encryption and decryption
private and public key used are symmetric
only public keys are used for encryption
only symmetric key is used for encryption
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 321

-2-

*SLRKM321*

9) By applying permutation (31254) and substitution by 5 characters away from current


character (A > F, B > G etc.) the following string: ABRACADABRA becomes
a) FGWCAAADRBF
b) RABCAAADRBF
c) WFGHFFFIWGF
d) None of the above
10) A firewall may be implemented in
a) routers which connect intranet to internet
b) bridges used in an intranet
c) expensive modem
d) users application programs
11) A computer virus is
a) software written with malicious intent to cause annoyance or damage
b) a process of scrambling a message so that it cannot be read until it is unscrambled
c) a small device that scans the number off credit cards
d) an ID-checking tool used to monitor who is logged onto a network
12) DES has an initial and final permutation block and ___________ rounds.
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 32
13) ___________ ciphers can be categorized into two broad categories :
monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic.
a) Substitution
b) Transposition
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Product Composition
14) ___________ was invented by Phil Zimmerman.
a) IPSec
b) SSL
c) PGP
d) None of the above
15) The __________ method provides a one-time session key for two parties.
a) Diffie-Hellman
b) RSA
c) DES
d) AES
16) ECB and CBC are what type of ciphers.
a) Block
b) Ream
c) Field
d) None of the above
17) A program that migrates through networks and operating systems and attaches itself to
different programs and databases is a __________
a) virus
b) worm
c) denial-of-service attack
d) damage
18) The _________ attack can endanger the security of the Diffie-Hellman method if two
parties are not authenticated to each other.
a) Man-in-the-middle
b) Ciphertext attack
c) Plaintext attack
d) None of the above
19) __________ is the science and art of transforming messages to make them secure and
immune to attacks.
a) Cryptography
b) Crypto analysis
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
20) Public key system is useful because
a) it uses two keys
b) there is no key distribution problem as public key can be kept in a commonly accessible
database
c) private key can be kept secret
d) it is a symmetric key system

______________
Set A

*SLRKM321*

-3-

SLR-KM 321

Seat
No.

B.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


NETWORK SECURITY
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Write short notes (any four) :

20

a) Network Security Model


b) Differential and Linear crypto analysis
c) Security Services (X.800)
d) Network Attacks and its types
e) Digital Signature
f) CFB.
3. Explain Diffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm with example.

10

OR
What is DES Encryption ? Explain its general depiction with its strengths and weakness.
4. Explain Feistel Cipher structure in detail. Which parameters and design choices determine
the actual algorithm of a Feistel Cipher ?

10

SECTION II
5. Write short notes (any four) :

20

a) Tunnel Mode Vs Transport Mode Encryption


b) PGP services
c) IP Security Services and Associations
d) Kerberos 4 Vs kerberos 5
e) Elements of X.509 certificate
f) Honey Pots.

Set A

SLR-KM 321

-4-

*SLRKM321*

6. Explain in detail with diagram :

10

a) SSL Architecture
b) SSL Record Protocol and its Operation.
OR
What is Firewall ? State the characteristics of Firewall and its types with diagram.
7. What is X.509 authentication service ? Explain in detail X.509 certificate.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 322

*SLRKM322*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015
SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (Elective II)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
6) Figure must be draw wherever necessary.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) ____ are any artifacts, deliverables or documents that result from a process activity.
a) Products
b) Processes
c) Resources
d) None of these
2) _______ is a relevant attribute only for executable code.
a) Quality
b) Reliability
c) Data Collection d) None of these
3) ______ means that the data were collected according to the exact rules of definition
of metric.
a) Accuracy
b) Consistent
c) Correction
d) None of these
4) ______ normally refer collectively to faults and failures.
a) Anomalies
b) Defects
c) Bugs
d) None of these
5) ______ describes how serious the failures end result was for the service
required from the system.
a) Severity
b) Cause
c) Symptom
d) None of these
6) The actual _______ collection takes place during many phases and development.
a) Product
b) Quality
c) Data
d) None of these
7) ________ is a table of all failures recorded while using a version of a product on a
given installation.
a) Period
b) Incident
c) Fault
d) None of these
8) Statistical ________ is the process of drawing conclusions about the population
from observations about a sample.
a) Inference
b) Technique
c) Significance
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 322

*SLRKM322*

-2-

9) Robust statistics can be presented in visual form called


a) Decision tree
b) Control chart
c) Scatter chart

d) None of these

10) __________ analysis uses the principal components that results, allowing us to
group modules.
a) Discriminant
b) Transformation
c) Cluster
d) None of these
11) Which of the following term describes testing ?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned
12) What is Cyclomatic complexity ?
a) Black box testing
c) Yellow box testing

b) White box testing


d) Green box testing

13) Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology ?


a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
14) White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of above
15) Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
c) impractical but possible

b) practically possible
d) impractical and impossible

16) What are the various Testing Levels ?


a) Unit Testing
c) Integration Testing

b) System Testing
d) All of the above

17) Which of the following is/are White Box technique ?


a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of these
18) SO 9001 is not concerned with __________ of quality records.
a) collection
b) maintenance c) verification
d) dis-positioning
19) Software reliability is defined with respect to _________
a) time
b) bugs
c) failures

d) quality

20) In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a part of
a) maintainability b) portability
c) efficiency
d) usability

______________
Set A

*SLRKM322*

-3-

SLR-KM 322

Seat
No.

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

All questions are compulsory.


Figure to the right indicates full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Figure must be draw wherever necessary.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four.

(45=20)

a) Explain the quality revolution with PDCA and cause-and-effect diagram.


b) Explain the testing activities and testing levels in software testing.
c) What are the classes of software measurement, explain with example ?
d) Explain all the aspects of structure each playing a different role.
e) Explain with example coupling and cohesion.
3. Explain in detail software quality terminology w.r.t. fault, failure and changes.
4. Write short note on (any two) :

10
(25=10)

1) How to store and extract data ?


2) Classification tree analysis and Transformation.
3) Albrechts approach.
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain the idea of software reliability.


b) Briefly explain different views of software quality.
c) Explain the concept of implications for process predictions.
d) Explain the types of acceptance testing.
e) Describes the difference between unit testing and integration testing.

Set A

SLR-KM 322

-4-

6. Write short note (any two) :

*SLRKM322*
(26=12)

1) ISO 9126 model.


2) Linear regression.
3) Beta testing.
7. Explain the usability based quality measures.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 323

*SLRKM323*
S

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt all questions from Section I and II.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume data wherever necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct options :

20

1) A .dex file is an executable file that runs inside the __________


A) SDK
B) JVM
C) DVM
D) None of the choices
2) __________ is an auto generated file containing integer constants for all
resources included in the Android project.
A) activity_main[dot]xml
B) R[dot]java
C) AndroidManifest[dot]xml
D) None of the choices are correct
3) A component that captures and responds to several announcements is called as
__________
A) Multicast receiver
B) Broadcast receiver
C) Unicast receiver
D) None of these
4) The _______ facilitates connection and communication with devices and emulators.
A) adb
B) DDMS
C) DVK
D) None of these
5) The __________ tool converts [dot] class files to [dot] dex file.
A) aapt
B) dx
C) ddms
D) None of these
6) Which class lets you access devices sensors ____________
A) Sensor
B) Sensor Event
C) Sensor Manager
D) Sensor Event Listener
7) __________ file is the registry of several details such as list of logical
components, sdk requirements and version of the app.
A) AndroidManifest.xml
B) activity_main.xml
C) Both A) and B)
D) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 323
8) AVD stands for
A) Android Virtual Device
C) Android Virtual Disk

-2-

*SLRKM323*

B) Android Virtual Directory


D) None

9) __________ is a layout resource that defines the blueprint of various elements


appearing on the screen of the app.
A) R.java
B) activity_main.java
C) activity_main.xml
D) None of the choices are correct
10) The cursor contains _______ method to get the number of rows in the result set.
A) getInt()
B) getLong()
C) getCount()
D) none of the above
11) __________ debugs apps and monitors their behavior in verbose mode.
A) DVM
B) JDK
C) DDMS
D) None of these
12) Shared preferences stores data in an XML file in the internal memory of the device.
A) True
B) False
13) Applications that require filtering based on screen size can use the attributes
A) <supportmultiple-screens>
B) <supports-screens>
C) <supportall-screens
D) supportevery-screen
14) Frame-by-frame animation also referred to as drawable animation.
A) True
B) False
15) Broadcast receivers are Androids implementation of a system-wide publish/
subscribe mechanism or more precisely, what design pattern ?
A) Observer
B) Faade
C) Mediator
D) Command
16) Services have any user interface components.
A) True
B) False
17) Which of the following methods of the Drawable class allows the client to
interact with the drawn object ?
A) getPadding()
B) getState()
C) copyBounds()
D) getLevel()
18) Which of these databases is inbuilt in the Android operating system ?
A) SQLServer
B) SQLite
C) MySQL
D) MySQL Server
19) Which of these methods can be used to view the user preferences in the context of
the overall Android framework ?
A) getPreferences()
B) getSharedPreferences()
C) getDefaultSharedPreferences() D) None of these
20) __________ is a mechanism to inform a user about the occurrence of an event.
A) SMS
B) Notification C) Missed call D) All of the above
________________

Set A

*SLRKM323*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 323

B.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2015


Elective II : MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Attempt all questions from Section I and II.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain the android app development flow.


b) What is the use of DVK in Android Operating System ?
c) Illustrate the use of src folder in Android Project explorer.
d) Define AVD. How to create an AVD in Android SDK ?
e) Define Broadcast Receivers and explain its use.
3. With a help of neat diagram explain the complete Android Platform architecture.

10

4. Answer any one from the following questions :

10

a) Illustrate Activity Life Cycle and respective call back methods.


b) Define the Intent. Explain its types.
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

1) Describe Google Play services and its significance in Android app development.
2) Define media container and codec with relevant examples.
3) Describe the features of Location Services.
4) What is sharedpreferences in android ?
5) What do you understand by versioning, signing and packaging mobile apps ?
Set A

SLR-KM 323

-4-

6. Explain the following related to SharedPreferences :

*SLRKM323*
10

a) What is sharedpreferences in android ?


b) How to initialize the sharedpreference in android ?
c) How to store the data in sharedpreferences ?
d) How to retrieve the data in sharedpreferences ?
e) How to delete or clear the data in sharepreferences ?
7. Explain the following with related to Multimedia :

10

a) Audio, Video and images


b) Playing audio using intent
c) Playing video using intent
d) Relevant methods of Mediarecorder API
e) Role of MediaController.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 324

*SLRKM324*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Part I) (Electrical) Examination, 2015


(New-CGPA)
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) The complementary function of the differential equation (D4 2D3 + D2)y = x2 is


a) (c1 + c2x + c3x3)ex
b) (c1 + c2x) + (c3 + c4x)ex
2
3
x
c) (c1 + c2x + c3x + c4x )e
d) (c1 + c2x + c3x2)ex

2) The particular integral of (D + 1)3y = ex is


a)

3)

x 3 x
e
3!

x 2 x
e
2!

b) xex

c)

b) eax X dx

c) e ax e ax X dx

d)

x3 x
e
3

1
X is equal to
Da
a) Xe an dx

4) The solution of pq = p + q is
a) z = ax + (a + 1) y + c
c) z = (a 1)x + a(a + 1)y + c

d) e ax e ax X dx

b) z = (a + 1) x + (a 1)y + c
d) z(a 1) = a(a 1) x + ay + c

5) The solution of px qy = z is
a) ( xy, yz) = 0

x y
b) , = 0
y z

c) (x + y, y + z) = 0

d) (x y, y z) = 0

6) If Z{f(k)} = F(z) then Z{K f(k)} =


a) Z 2

d
F(z)
dz

b) Z

d
F(z)
dz

c) Z

d
F(z)
dz

d) Z

d2
dz2

F(z)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 324

*SLRKM324*

-2-

z
7) If z > a then z 1
=
z a
a) ak , k 0

b) a k , k 0

c) a k +1, k 0

d) a k 1, k 0

8) If f(x) = x is represented by Fourier series in ( , ) then _______ is the constant term.


a)

b)

d) 2

c) 0

9) Fourier expansion of an even function f(x) in (10, 10) has only ________ terms.
a) sine
b) cosine
c) both sine and cosine
d) none of these
10) If r = xi + yj + zk and a = 3i + 4 j + 5k then ( a r ) =
a) 2 a

b) a

c) r

d) 0

11) If = xy + yz + zx then at (1, 1, 1), grad =


a) i + j + k
b) 2i 2j + 2k
c) i j + k
d) 2i + 2j + 2k
12) If u = x + y + z and v = x + y then u v =
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2

d) 1

13) L {e 2 t sin t } =
a)
c)

b)

s 4
1

d)

s + 4s + 1

1
2

s 1
1
2

s 4s + 5

s4

14) L1
=
2
2
(s 4) + 9
a) e4t sin 9t

b) e4t sin 9t

c) e4t cos 9t

d) e4t cos 9t

______________

Set A

*SLRKM324*

-3-

SLR-KM 324

Seat
No.

S.E. (Part I) (Electrical) Examination, 2015


(New-CGPA)
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

N.B. : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Use of calculator is allowed.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2)y = sin ex.

b) Solve 9(p2z + q2) = 4.

c) Find z{ck cos k}, k 0.

3. a) Solve (D2 4D + 4)y = 8 (sin2x + e2x).

b) Solve p2x2 = z(z qy).

1
if z > a .
c) Find z 1
2
(z a )

4. a) Solve x

d3 y
dx

+z

d2 y
dx

= x2.

b) Solve the following partial differential equation by the method of separation of variables
3x

z
z
5y
= 0.
x
y

4
OR

b) The differential equation for a circuit in which self inductance and capacitance neutralise
each other is L

d2i
2

i
= 0. Find the current i as a function of t, given that I is maximum
c

dt
current and i = 0 when t = 0.

{ }.

c) Find z a

Set A

SLR-KM 324

*SLRKM324*

-4-

5. a) Solve (D2 + 4)y = xsinx.

b) Solve pxtany = q + 1.

z
1
c) Find z
if z > 3 .
(z 2)(z 3)

SECTION II
6. Attempt any three.
a) Find

L{tet

sin23t}.

b) Find inverse Laplace transform of

1
2

(s + a 2 )2

c) Solve the following equation by using Laplace transform


y(0) = 1.

t
dy
+ 2 y + y dt = sin t, given that
dt
0

d) Find L1{tan1(s + 1)}.

7. a) Find the values of a, b, c if the directional derivative of = axy2 + byz + cz2x3 at (1, 2, 1)
has maximum magnitude 64 in the direction parallel to z-axis.

b) Find the angle between the surfaces xy2z = 3x + z2 and 3x2 y2 + 2z = 1 at (1, 2, 1).

c) Prove that a r = a n ( a r ) r .
r n+ 2
rn rn

1 , 0 x 1
.
8. a) Obtain half range cosine series for f( x) =
x , 1 x 2

0 , x 0
and f( x + 2 ) = f( x) . Hence deduce that
b) Find Fourier expansion of f( x) =
x , 0 x
1
1
1
2
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ... .
8 1
3
5

OR

x , 0 < x < 1
with period 2 into a Fourier Series.
0, 1 < x < 2

b) Expand f(x) =

9. a) Find the half range sine series of f(x) = lx x2 in (0, l).

5
4

b) Find Laplace transform of (1 + tet)3.

c) A particle moves on the curve x = 2t2, y = t2 4t, z = 3t 5. Find the velocity and
acceleration at t = 1 in the direction of i 3j + 2k.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 325

*SLRKM325*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Part I) (New) (CGPA) (Electrical) Examination, 2015
ELECTRICAL MACHINES I

Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

(114=14)

1) The dc armature winding in which coil sides are a pole pitch apart is called ______ winding.
a) Multiplex
b) Fractional pitch c) Full pitch
d) Pole pitch
2) For a 4 pole, 2 layer dc lap winding with 20 slots and one conductor per layer the number
of commutator for bars is
a) 80
b) 20
c) 40
d) 160
3) The main function of inter poles is to minimize __________ between the brushes and the
commutator when the d.c. machine is loaded.
4) In a dc generator the effect of armature reaction the main pole flux is to
a) reduce it
b) distort it
c) reverse it
d) both a and b
5) The voltage build up process of a dc generator is
a) Difficult
b) Delayed
c) Commutative

d) Infinite

6) The most likely causes of sparking at the brushes in d.c. machines is


a) Open coil in the armature
b) Defective inter poles
c) Incorrect brush spring pressure
d) All of the above
7) The most efficient method of increasing the speed of a 3.75 KW dc shunt motor would be
the ___________ method.
a) Armature control
b) Flux control
c) Ward-learned
d) Tapper field control
8) The Eb/ v ratio of d.c. motor is an indication of its
a) Efficiency
b) Speed regulation
c) Starting torque
d) Running torque
9) Which of the following is not basic element of a transformer ?
a) Core
b) Primary winding
c) Secondary winding
d) Mutual flux
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 325

-2-

*SLRKM325*

10) The all day efficiency of a transformer depends primarily on


a) Its cu losses
b) The amount of load
c) The duration of load
d) Both b and c
11) The essential condition for parallel operation of two 1 transformers is that they should
have the same
a) Polarity
b) KVA rating
c) Voltage ratio
d) Percentage impedance
12) Which of the following connection is best suited for 3 , 4 wire service ?
a)
b) y y
c) y
d) y
13) When V V system is converts in to a system increase in capacity of the
system is _____________ percent.
a) 86.6
b) 0.75
c) 0.51
d) 0.65
14) For supplying a balanced 3 load of 40 KVA rating of each transformer in v v bank
should be nearly ___________ KVA.
a) 20
b) 23
c) 34.6
d) 25
______________

Set A

*SLRKM325*

-3-

SLR-KM 325

Seat
No.

S.E. (Part I) (New) (CGPA) (Electrical) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINES I
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Answer any four questions :

(34=12)

1) With a neat sketch explain the armature reaction and its effects.
2) With a neat diagram explain the open circuit characteristics of a dc generator to find the
critical field resistance.
3) With a neat sketch explain the Swinburnes test for dc motor.
4) A 22.38 KW 440 V, 4 pole wave wound dc shunt motor has 840 armature conductors and
140 commutator segments its full load efficiency is 88% and the shunt field current is 1.8 A.
If brushes are shifted backward through 1.5 segments from the geometrical neutral axis
the demagnetizing and distorting amp. Turns/pole.
5) A shunt generator has a full load current of 196 A at 220 V. The stray losses are 720 W
and the shunt field resistance is 55 . If it has a full load efficiency of 88% find the
armature resistance also find the load current corresponding to maximum efficiency.
3. Answer any two questions :

(28=16)

1) With a neat sketch explain the word-Leonard method for controlling the speed of dc motor.
2) With a neat diagram explain the retardation test for finding the efficiency of DC machine.
3) A 200 V shunt motor develops an output of 17.158 KW when taking 20.2 KW. The field
resistance is 50 and armature resistance 0.06 . What is the efficiency and power
input when the output is 7.46 KW ?
SECTION II
4. Answer any four questions :

(34=12)

1) With neat sketch explain how the mutual flux remains constant at any desired load in
transformer.
2) Draw a equivalent circuit diagram of a 1 transformer and explain.
3) With a neat sketch explain star-delta connection of 3 transformer.

Set A

SLR-KM 325

-4-

*SLRKM325*

4) Two transformers connected in open delta supply a 400 KVA balanced load operating at
0.866 p.f. lag the load voltage is 440 V. What is the a) KVA supplied by each transformer
b) KW supplied by each transformer ?
5) Two 100 KW 1 transformers are connected in parallel both on the primary and
secondary. One transformer has an ohmic drop of 0.5% at full load and an inductive drop
of 8% at full load current. The other has an ohmic drop of 0.75% and inductive drop of 2%
show how will they share a load of 180 KW at 0.9 p.f.
5. Answer any two questions :

(28=16)

1) Draw a vector diagram of 1 transformer at full load considering resistance, reactance


and losses.
2) With a neat sketch explain the scott connection of a 3 transformer.
3) A 50 KVA, 4400/220 V transformer has R1 = 3.45 , R2 = 0.009 the values of
reactances are X1 = 5.2 and X2 = 0.051 . Calculate for the transformer
i) Equivalent resistance as referred to primary
ii) Equivalent resistance as referred to secondary
iii) Equivalent reactance as referred to both primary and secondary
iv) Equivalent impedance as referred to both primary and secondary
v) Total cu loss, first using individual resistances of the two windings and secondly using
equivalent resistances as referred to each side.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 326

*SLRKM326*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (CGPA New) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC DEVICES AND CIRCUITS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

(114=14)

1) In voltage divider bias circuit, the base voltage is


a) Less than the base supply voltage
b) Equal to the base supply voltage
c) Greater than the base supply voltage
d) Greater than the collector supply voltage
2) The negative part of the output signal in a transistor circuit starts clipping if the Q
point of the circuit moves
a) toward the saturation point
b) toward the cutoff point
c) toward the center of the load line
d) none of the above
3) Low frequency response of CE amplifier is limited by
a) Ce
b) Cc
c) Cd and Ct

d) Both a) and b)

4) The h parameters hoe and hoc are expressed in


a) Ohms
b) Ampere
c) Seimens

d) Unitless

5) From CE output characteristics the two h-parameters that are calculated are
b) hre and hfe
a) hie and hre
c) hre and hoe
d) hfe and hoe
6) What is the Midpoint bias value of ID for a D-MOSFET when setting the VGS = 0.
a) IDSS/2
b) IDSS/3.4
c) IDSS
d) IDSS/5
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 326

*SLRKM326*

-2-

7) Which of the following describe(s) the difference(s) between JFETs and depletion
type MOSFETs ?
a) V only negative for GS the depletion type
b) IDSS can exceed ID for the depletion type
c) The depletion type can operate in the enhancement mode
d) All of the above
8) Removing CE from RC coupled amplifier results into
a) positive feedback
b) voltage series feedback
c) current series feedback
d) current shunt feedback
9) What is the value of ripple of a capacitor filter ? The capacitive filter for a peak
rectified voltage of 40 V, a capacitor value C = 75 F and a load current of 40 mA.
a) 3.2%
b) 3.59%
c) 4.03%
d) 4.59%
10) The ripple factor of LC filter is
a)

2900
LC

b)

7310
LC

c)

C
1333 L

d)

1.19
LC

11) The operation of relaxation oscillator is based on


a) the charging and discharging of capacitor
b) a heavily selective resonant circuit
c) a very stable supply voltage
d) all of the above
12) In current shunt feedback amplifier the input resistance and output resistance
respectively,
a) increases, decreases
b) decreases, increases
c) increases, increases
d) decreases, decreases
13) A _______________ is used as the feedback network in Wein-Bridge oscillator.
a) Potential divider network
b) Tank circuit
c) Balanced bridge
d) All of the above
14) The single RC network provide phase shift of
a) 180
b) 90
c) 360

d) 60

______________

Set A

*SLRKM326*

-3-

SLR-KM 326

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (CGPA New) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC DEVICES AND CIRCUITS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instruction : Question No. 4 and 7 are compulsory.


SECTION I
2. Attempt any three :

(43=12)

1) Derive the expression for stability factor of collector to base bias circuit.
2) Explain the load line analysis for Fixed bias BJT configuration. Also draw and
explain the effect of following on the movement of Q-point :
i) Increasing the value of IB
ii) Increasing the value of RC.
3) Explain the effect of coupling capacitance and bypass capacitance on low
frequency response of BJT amplifier.
4) Calculate the Current gain, Voltage gain and input resistance of CE amplifier if
transistor has hfe = 110, hie = 1.6K , hre = 0.2m, hoe = 20 Mho, assume load
resistance of 4.7K .
5) Explain the circuit for common source n-JFET amplifier. Also determine the value
of drain current ID when IDSS = 9mA and VGS(off) = 8V for VGS = 4V.
3. Attempt any one :

(81=8)

1) Explain the p channel depletion type MOSFET with the help of transfer and
drain characteristics. Also explain how MOSFET acts as switch.
2) Explain the necessity of coupling. Explain the effect of RC coupling and transformer
coupling on the frequency response performance of BJT. Comment on the
performance of both type of coupling.
4. Compulsory :

Design a single stage CE amplifier to give a voltage gain of 100 with stability factor 10
and output voltage of 2 Vrms using transistor BC147A. If bandwidth is 25Hz to 20KHz.
Transistor used has PD(MAX) = 250 mW, hfe = 110, hie = 2.75K , VCE(max) = 45 V,
IC(max) = 200 mA, VCB(max) = 6V, VBE = 0.7V and VCC = 10V.
Set A

SLR-KM 326

-4-

*SLRKM326*

SECTION II
5. Attempt any three :

(43=12)

1) Derive the ripple factor for inductive filter. Hence, show that inductive filters are
preferred for heavy load.
2) Draw the circuit transistor coupled circuit of class A amplifier has R1 = 4.7 k ,
R2 = 3.7k , load resistance RL = 56 , RE = 1k, VCEQ = 8V, ICQ = 5mA and
VCC = 13V. Hence, obtain the efficiency for it. Assume the efficiency of transistor
is 85%.
3) How to overcome crossover distortion in power amplifier ?
4) State the criteria to generate sustained oscillation in LC tank circuit.
5) Compare the different types of negative feedback.
6. Attempt any one :

(81=8)

1) Design an unregulated power supply with capacitor filter to provide DC output


voltage of 8V with peak ripple voltage of 0.9 V across load resistance of 1K . Use
two diode rectifier.
2) Derive the efficiency for class B power amplifier and explain push pull power
amplifier.
7. Compulsory :

Explain the types of negative feedback amplifier and derive the input resistance and
output resistance current amplifier and transconductance amplifier.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 327

*SLRKM327*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENT AND INSTRUMENTATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) Maxwells inductance-capacitance bridge is used for measurement of inductance


of
a) low Q coils
b) medium Q coils
c) high Q coils
d) low and medium Q coils
2) The high torque to weight ratio in an analog indicating instrument indicates
a) High friction loss
b) Low friction loss
c) Nothing as regard friction loss
d) None of the above
3) Megger is used for the measurement of
a) Low valued resistances
b) Medium valued resistances
c) High valued resistances, particularly insulation resistance
d) All of the above
4) Which meter has highest accuracy in the prescribed limit of frequency range ?
a) PMMC
b) Moving Iron
c) Electrodynamometer
d) Rectifier
5) Power consumption in PMMC instruments is typically about
a) 0.25 W to 2 W
b) 0.25 mW to 2 mW

c) 25 W to 200 W
d) None of the above
6) A set of reading has a wide range and therefore it has
a) Low precision
b) High precision
c) Low accuracy
d) High accuracy
7) The power in 3-phase 4 wire circuits can be measured by using
a) 2 wattmeter
b) 4 wattmeter
c) 3 wattmeter
d) 1 wattmeter
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 327

-2-

*SLRKM327*

8) A CT has rating of 100/5 A. Its magnetizing and loss component of exciting current
are 1 A and 0.6 A. respectively and secondary winding burden is purely resistive,
its transformation ratio at rated current is
a) 20.12
b) 20.2
c) 200.2
d) none
9) The burden of CT can be expressed in terms of
a) Secondary winding current
b) VA rating of transformer
c) Voltage, current and power factor of secondary circuit
d) None of the above
10) In a CRT focusing anode is located
a) Between pre-accelerating and accelerating anode
b) After accelerating anode
c) Before pre-accelerating anode
d) None of the above
11) Time division multiplexing is used when
a) Data to be transmitted is slow changing
b) Data to be transmitted has small band-width
c) Data to be transmitted is slow changing and low band-width
d) None of the above
12) In frequency multiplexing system, if the subcarrier frequency deviations are
proportional to centre frequency, scheme is referred to having
a) Proportional to bandwidth format
b) Constant bandwidth format
c) Variable bandwidth format
d) Consistent bandwidth format
13) Digital instruments have the input impedance of the order of
a)
b) k
c) M
d) m
14) In the digital frequency meter, the schmitt trigger is used for
a) Sinusoidal waveform into rectangular pulses
b) Scaling of Sinusoidal waveform
c) Providing time base
d) None of the above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM327*

SLR-KM 327

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENT AND INSTRUMENTATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions :

(44=16)

a) Give the details of standards and their classification.


b) Write a short on series type Ohm meter.
c) Find the deflection of moving iron ammeter control spring constant is 12 10 6 Nm/rad
and current is 5 Amp, having inductor L = (10 + 5 2) H .
d) Explain with neat diagram, working of Weston frequency meter.
e) Derive the torque equation for moving iron instruments.
f) Explain neat diagram and working of EMMC.
3. Attempt any two :

(62=12)

a) Explain schering bridge for the measurement of capacitance and also draw the
phasor diagram at balance condition.
b) Explain in details, the working of moving iron type power factor meter.
OR
c) A Maxwells inductance and capacitance bridge as shown in fig. a is used for
measurement of unknown inductance in comparison with capacitance. The various
values at balance :
R2 = 400 ; R3 = 600 ; R4 = 1000 ; C4 = 0.5 F . Calculate the values of R1
and L1
b

L1
a

R1

D
C4

R2
d

Fig. a

R3
c

R4

Set A

SLR-KM 327

-4-

*SLRKM327*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

a) Draw the block diagram of CRO and explain each block.


b) What is data acquisition system and explain any one type in detail ?
c) Explain turns compensation technique to reduce the ratio error in current
transformer.
d) Describe the working X-Y recorder.
e) Explain working of digital energy meter with block diagram.
f) Write the features of CRT.
5. Attempt any two :

(62=12)

Draw the phasor diagram of a CT and derive the expression for actual ratio and
phase angle error.
a) Explain with neat diagram, working of Dual slope type digital voltmeter.
b) Explain multiplexing and its types.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 328

*SLRKM328*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions compulsory.


Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

I. Solve 14 questions each carry 1 mark :

(141=14)

1) Out of the following which is conventional source of energy


a) Tidal power
b) Geothermal energy
c) Nuclear energy
d) Wind power
2) Diversity factor is always
a) Less than one b) Equal to one

c) Above one

d) None of them

3) A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as


a) Hydrograph
b) Hectograph
c) Topograph
d) Monograph
4) In hydro power plants
a) Initial cost is low and operating cost is high
b) Initial cost as well as operating costs are high
c) Initial cost is high and operating cost is low
d) Initial cost as well as operating cost is low
5) Which of the following enters the super heater of a boiler ?
a) Cold water
b) Hot water
c) Wet steam
d) Super-heated steam
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 328

*SLRKM328*

-2-

6) Capacity factor of power station is


a) Maximum demand/average demand
b) Average demand on station/maximum demand on station
c) Maximum installed capacity of station/average demand of station
d) Average demand of station/Maximum installed capacity of station
7) Live storage of coal in a power plant means
a) Coal ready for combustion
b) Preheated coal
c) Storage of coal sufficient to meet 24 hour demand of the plant
d) Coal in transit
8) Which of the following is not a part of diesel engine power plant ?
a) Cooling tower
b) Penstock
c) Oil pump
d) Strainer
9) Efficiency of gas turbine plant is nearly
a) 80%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 60%
10) An air filter is used in
a) nuclear power plants
c) diesel engine power plants

b) steam power plants


d) hydro-power plants

11) Gas turbine is widely used in


a) Pumping stations b) aircraft
c) locomotives
d) automobiles
12) Which of the following material can be used as a moderator ?
a) Graphite
b) Heavy water c) Beryllium
d) Any of the above
13) In which of the following power plant the availability of power is least
reliable ?
a) Solar power plant
b) Wind energy
c) Tidal power plant
d) Geothermal power plant
14) Efficiency of BWR is nearly
a) 32%
b) 41%

c) 30%

d) 33%

______________

Set A

*SLRKM328*

-3-

SLR-KM 328

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) All questions compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
II. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) Explain different types of conventional energy sources.


b) Explain the hydrology cycle of hydro power plant.
c) List the main equipment in a coal fired steam station.
d) A generating station has a connected load of 43 MW and a maximum demand
of 20 MW; the units generated being 61.5 106 per annum.
Calculate
i) the demand factor and
ii) load factor.
e) Explain the economizers in thermal power plant.
III. Solve any two :

(26=12)

a) Draw and explain layout of hydro power plant.


b) Define and explain the following terms :
i) Demand factor
ii) Plant capacity factor
iii) Plant use factor
iv) Diversity factor.
c) Describe with neat sketch schematic arrangement of thermal power station.

Set A

SLR-KM 328

-4-

*SLRKM328*

SECTION II
IV. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) Give the advantages and disadvantages of diesel power plant.


b) Name different nuclear fuel. Explain each of them in details.
c) Write a short note on tidal power generation.
d) What is the geothermal energy ? How can it be used for power generation ?
e) Discuss the various criterions for selection of site for wind turbine.
V. Solve any two :

(26=12)

a) Draw the schematic layout of nuclear power plant. Explain major equipment
used in nuclear power plant.
b) Explain with neat sketch solar thermal power plant.
c) With the help of neat sketch explain gas turbine power plant.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 329

*SLRKM329*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURE (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) struct emp
{
char name [10];
int age;
}; declaration requires __________ memory space.
a) 22 bytes
b) 12 bytes
c) 1 word
2) The operator * is called as
a) start operator
c) value at address operator

d) 14 bytes

b) address of operator
d) none

3) A __________ is self contained block of statements that performs a specific task.


a) array
b) structure
c) function
d) pointer
4) Recursive procedure are implemented by
a) queue
b) stack
c) linked list

d) string

5) Which of the following is not a requirement for recursive function ?


a) it has two base cases
b) it has a recursive case
c) its recursive case approaches a base case
d) none
6) In __________ searching the records must be sorted.
a) linear search
b) hashing
c) binary search
7) The fseek() function is used for
a) setting the position to the beginning of file
b) give the current position in the file
c) set position to a desired point in the file
d) none

d) none

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 329

*SLRKM329*

-2-

8) An infix expression can be converted to a postfix expression using a


a) stack
b) queue
c) dequeue
d) none of these
9) The postfix form of A * B + C/D is
a) *AB/CD+
b) AB*CD/+
c) A*BC+/D
10) Divide and conquer technique is present in
a) bubble sort
b) merge sort
c) selection sort

d) ABCD+/*
d) none

11) Priority queue means


a) assigning priority to each element of queue
b) giving the priority to queue
c) assigning priority to any some elements of queue
d) none of above
12) If the character D, C,B,A are placed in a queue (in that order) and then remove
one at a time, in what sequence they be removed ?
a) ABCD
b) ABDC
c) DCAB
d) DCBA
13) If storage class is missing in the array definition, by default it will be taken to be
a) automatic
b) external
c) static
d) a) and b)
14) Deletion of a node in linked list involves keeping track of the address of the node
a) which immediately follows the node that is to be deleted
b) which immediately precedes the node that is to be deleted
c) that is to be deleted
d) none of these
15) Which of the following is not the application of stack ?
a) addition of 2 polynomials
b) evaluation of postfix expression
c) matching of parentheses in expression
d) conversion of infix to postfix expression
16) If fopen() fails it return
a) 1
b) NULL

c) 1

d) file pointer

17) The running time of the following sorting algorithm depends on whether the
partitioning is balanced or unbalanced
a) insertion sort
b) selection sort c) quick sort
d) merge sort
18) Stack can not be used to
a) allocating resources and scheduling b) implementation of recursion
c) reverse string
d) evaluation of postfix expression
19) Overflow condition in linked list may occur when attempting to __________
a) create a node when free space pool is empty
b) traverse the nodes when free space pool is empty
c) create a node when linked list is empty
d) none of these
20) Direct or random access of elements is not possible in
a) linked list
b) array
c) string
______________

d) None of these

Set A

*SLRKM329*

-3-

SLR-KM 329

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURE (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions :
1) Explain storage classes in C.
2) Explain different file handling functions in C.
3) What is an Abstract Data Type ?
4) Explain pointer to pointer in detail.
5) Write a short note on stack.
3. Attempt any one question :
1) How to evaluate a postfix expression. Evaluate following postfix expression
123* + 4 .
2) WAP to copy the content of one file into another file.

(45=20)

10

4. Attempt the question :


10
1) Explain conversion of infix expression into postfix expression. Convert following
infix expression into postfix (A+B) * (C+D).
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four questions :
1) WAP to calculate factorial of number using recursion.
2) Explain priority queue in detail.
3) Differentiate between linear search and binary search.
4) Write a short note on singly linked list.
5) Explain merge sort with example.
6. Solve any one question :
1) WAP to implement stack using linked list.
2) Explain quick sort and sort following sequence using quick sort

(45=20)

10

5, 23, 21, 18, 16, 02, 20, 22, 25.


7. Explain doubly linked list with insertion and deletion operation.
_____________________

10

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 330

*SLRKM330*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


NUMERICAL METHODS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N. B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Attempt any three questions from each Section.


Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
Use suitable data if required.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :


1) Which of the following method is useful in finding quadratic factor of the given
polynomial ?
a) Lin-Bairstows method
b) Newton-Raphson method
c) Bisection method
d) None of these
2) The order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is
a) 1
b) 0
c) 3
d) 2
3) The positive real root of the equation x3 x 11 = 0 lies between
a) 0 and 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 and 4
4) Under the conditions f(a) and f(b) having opposite signs and a < b, the first approximation
of one of the roots of f(x) = 0, by Regula-Falsi method is given by
a)

af (b) + bf(a )
f(b) + f(a )

b)

af (a ) bf(b)
f(a) f(b)

c)

af (b) bf (a)
f(b) f(a )

d)

20

af (a ) + bf (b)
f(a) + f(b)

5) As soon as a new value of a variable is found by iteration, it is used immediately in the


following equations, this method is called
a) Gauss-Jordan method
b) Jacobis method
c) Gauss-Seidal method
d) Relaxation method
6) In solving simultaneous linear equations which method reduces the coefficient matrix to
diagonal matrix ?
a) Gauss-elimination method
b) Jacobis method
c) Gauss-Seidal method
d) Gauss-Jordan method
7) y = axb + c in linear form is
a) y = ax + c
b) y = aX + c where X = xb
y
c) Y = ax + c where Y =
d) None of these
a
8) In solving simultaneous linear equations which of the following method is iterative method ?
a) Gauss-elimination method
b) Factorization method
c) Gauss-Jacobis method
d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 330

*SLRKM330*

-2-

9) If y = x2, then the first divided difference of the argument 2 and 3 is


a) 3
b) 0
c) 1
d) 5
10) Given the data
x:1
0
2
y:0
0
3
The functional relation y = f(x) by Lagranges formula is
3 x (x + 1)
3 x ( x 1)
2 x ( x 1)
a)
b)
c)
d) None of these
2
2
3
11) Which of the following method is used to find largest eigen value of given square matrix ?
a) Cayley-Hamilton
b) Lagranges method
c) Power method
d) None of these
1 2
12) The eigen values for the matrix
are
3
1
a) 1 i
b) 4, 2
c) 1 2i

d) 2 i

13) The use of Rombergs method is


a) To solve simultaneous linear equations
b) To find root of the equation
c) To evaluate definite integration
d) To find eigen values
14) To apply Simpsons one-third rule the number of sub-intervals must be
a) Even
b) Odd
c) Multiple of 3
d) Any
15) The process of evaluating a definite integral from a set of tabulated values of f(x) is called
a) Numerical differentiation
b) Numerical integration
c) Interpolation
d) None of these
16) If any of the Gerschgorin circles is isolated then it contains
a) Two eigen values
b) All eigen values
c) Exactly one eigen value
d) None of these
17) Which of the following equation is parabolic ?
a) fxy fx = 0
b) fx + 2fxy + fyy = 0
c) fxx + 2fxy + 4fyy = 0
d) None of these
18) In Eulers method; given initial value problem y =

dy
= f( x, y ) with y(x0) = y0 then the first
dx

approximation is given by
a) yn + 1 = yn + hf(xn 1, yn 1)
b) yn + 1 = yn + hf(xn, yn)
c) yn + 1 = yn
d) None of these
19) Which of the following is not the method of numerical solution of ordinary differential equation ?
a) Taylors series method
b) Runge-Kutta method
c) Crank-Nicolson method
d) Picards method
20) The Laplace equation arises
a) In steady flow problems
b) In unsteady state problems
c) In fluid mechanics
d) All of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM330*

SLR-KM 330

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


NUMERICAL METHODS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N. B. : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
3) Use suitable data if required.
SECTION I
2. a) Using Newtons iterative method, find the real root of xlog10 x = 1.2 correct to four decimal
places taking x0 = 2 as initial approximation.

b) Find the root of the equation xex = cosx using secant method correct to four decimal
places. (Take initial approximations as x0 = 0, x1 = 1).

c) Find the positive real root of the equation 4x3 2x 6 = 0 correct to three decimal places
by using bisection method. (Perform four iterations only).

3. a) Solve the following equations by Gauss-Jordan method.


2x 3y + z = 1; x + 4y + 5z = 25; 3x 4y + z = 2.

b) Solve the equations by Gauss-Jacobis iterative method. (Perform four iterations).


20x + y 2z = 17, 3x + 20y z = 18, 2x 3y + 20z = 25.

c) Apply factorization method to solve the equations :


3x + 2y + 7z = 4
2x + 3y + z = 5
3x + 4y + z = 7

4. a) Find the polynomial f(x) by using Lagranges formula and hence find f(4).
x : 0
1
2
5
f(x) : 2
3
12
147
b) Fit a parabola y = a + bx + cx2 to the following data :
x: 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
y: 2
6
7
8
10
11
11
10

9
9

OR

Set A

SLR-KM 330

*SLRKM330*

-4-

b) The following values of x and y are given


x: 1

y: 1

11

Find the cubic spline corresponding to the interval [2, 3].

c) Find the missing term in the following table using Newtons divided difference formula :
x: 0

y: 1

81

5. a) Find a real root of the equation x3 + x 1 = 0 correct to three decimal places, by the
method of false position.

b) Apply Gauss-Seidal iteration method to solve the equations :


10x + 2y + z = 9
2x + 20y 2z = 44
2x + 3y + 10z = 22

c) Fit a straight line to the following data :


x: 6

10

y: 5

SECTION II
1

6. a) Use Trapezoidal rule to evaluate

x dx considering five sub-intervals.


3

b) Use Rombergs method to compute

dx

1+ x

correct to 4 decimal places

(Take h = 0.5, 0.25).

c) Find the derivative of f(x) at x = 0.4 from the following table :


x :

0.1

f(x) : 1.10517

0.2

0.3

0.4

1.22410

1.34986

1.49182

Set A

*SLRKM330*

SLR-KM 330

-5-

5
7. a) Determine the largest eigen value and the corresponding eigen vector of the matrix
1

4
.
2

1
Take as an initial approximation to required eigen vector. (Perform six iterations).
0

b) Using Jacobis method, find all the eigen values and the eigen vectors of the matrix
5

0
1

0
2
0

0
.
5

8. a) Apply Runge-Kutta method to find an approximate value of y when x = 0.2 given that
dy
= x + y and y = 1 when x = 0.
dx

dy y x
b) Given dx = y + x with initial condition y = 1 at x = 0, find y for x = 0.1 taking h = 0.02 by
Eulers method.

c) Use Crank-Nicolson method to solve the equation uxx = ut subject to u(x, 0) = sin x,
0 x 1 and u(0, t) = u(1, t) = 0 for two time steps taking h =

1
1
, k=
.
3
36

OR
c) Given the values of u(x, y) on the boundary of the square in the following figure. Evaluate
the function u(x, y) satisfying the Laplaces equation 2u = 0 at the pivotal points of this
figure by Gauss-Seidal method. (Perform four iterations).

Set A

SLR-KM 330

-6-

*SLRKM330*

9. a) Classify the following equations :


i)

u
2u
2u
2u u
+4
+4 2
+2
=0
2
xy
x
y
x
y

2
ii) (1 + x )

2
2
2u
2 u
2 u
+
(
5
+
2
x
)
+
(
4
+
x
)
=0.
xy
x 2
t 2

b) Evaluate

th
dx
3
rule. (Take h = 1).
by
using
Simpsons
0 1 + x 2
8

c) Find the bounds of eigen values of the following matrix using Gerschgorin circle theorem.
1 2
1 1

1 3

1
1
1

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 331

*SLRKM331*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINE II
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. MCQ (Attempt all) :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) A 3-phase 50 Hz induction motor runs at speed of 940 RPM; the speed of the
rotating magnetic field will be
a) 940 RPM
b) 1000 RPM
c) 1050 RPM
d) 1100 RPM
2) Iron losses in the rotor of a 3-phase induction motor are negligible, because
a) Frequency of rotor emf is too low
b) Flux linking the rotor is of constant magnitude
c) Flux density in the rotor parts is too low
d) None of the above
3) The term cogging is associated with
a) Transformers
c) DC series motor

b) Compound generator
d) Induction motor

4) Regarding skewing of motor bars in a Squirrel Cage Induction Motor, (SCIM) which
statement is false ?
a) it prevents cogging
b) it increases starting torque
c) it produces more uniform torque
d) it reduces motor hum during its
5) A capacitor start single phase induction motor will usually have a power factor
of
a) Unity
b) 0.8 leading
c) 0.6 leading
d) 0.6 lagging
6) A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase induction motor is basically a
a) AC series motor
b) DC series motor
c) 2 phase induction motor
d) 3 phase induction motor
7) The starting torque of a capacitor start motor is
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) More than split-phase motor
d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 331

*SLRKM331*

-2-

8) The torque developed by a split phase motor is proportional to


a) Sine of angle between Im and Is
b) Cosine of angle between Im and Is
c) Main winding current Im
d) Auxiliary winding current Is
9) The speed at which the rotating magnetic field produced by stator currents rotates
in an induction motor is
a) Synchronous speed
b) Rotor speed
c) Greater than synchronous speed
d) None of the above
10) Large air-gap in 3-phase induction motor
a) increases p.f
b) reduces p.f
c) p.f is unaffected d) none
11) Which of the following quantity in squirrel cage induction motor does not depends
on its slip ?
a) Reactance
b) Resistance
c) Induced EMF
d) Frequency
12) Starting winding of single phase induction motor is placed in the
a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Armature
d) Field
13) The power factor of a 3-phase induction motor at no load is approximately
a) 0.2
b) 0.7
c) 0.85
d) 1
14) The maximum torque in a 3-phase induction motor occurs at a slip
a) R2/X2
b) X2/R2
c) R22/X2
d) R22/X22
15) For high starting torque, the most 3-phase induction motor is
a) Squirrel-cage type
b) Slip-ring type
c) Deep bar squirrel-cage type
d) Double-cage induction motor
16) The starting torque in a single-phase induction motor is
a) High
b) Low
c) Zero

d) Very low

17) The crawling in the induction motor is caused by


a) improper design of the machine
b) low supply voltage
c) high loads
d) harmonics developed in the motor
18) The efficiency of a single-phase induction motor as compared to a 3-phase
induction motor rating is
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Equal
d) Zero
19) The injected e.m.f in the rotor of induction motor must have
a) Zero frequency
b) The same frequency as the slip frequency
c) The same frequency as the rotor e.m.f
d) None of the above
20) In
a)
b)
c)
d)

case of 3-phase induction motors, plugging means


Pulling the motor directly online without a starter
Lock of rotor due to harmonics
Starting the motor on load which is more than the rated load
Interchanging two supply phases for quick stopping

______________

Set A

*SLRKM331*

-3-

SLR-KM 331

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINE II
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80
SECTION A

2. Attempt any four from the following :

(45=20)

a) Derive the condition for maximum running torque of an induction motor.


b) An 8-pole, 3-phase, 50 Hz induction motor running with a slip of 4% is taking 20 kW.
Stator losses amount to 0.5 kW. If the mechanical torque lost in friction is
16.25 N m,
Find :
i) BHP
ii) Efficiency
c) What is the necessity of starters ? Explain about star-delta starter with neat diagram.
Derive the relation between the Tst and Tfl.
d) Draw slip-torque characteristics of 3-phase induction motor when rotor resistance
R2 is varied. Explain the shapes of the curve why are modified in such shapes.
e) Derive Pi : Pc : Pm = 1 : S : (1 S). Where Pi = Rotor input; Pc = Rotor cu loss and
Pm = Mechanical power developed.
3. Attempt any two from the following :

(210=20)

a) Give the constructional details of 3 phase induction motor with suitable sketches.
b) A 100 kW, 3300 V, 50Hz, 3-phase, Y connected induction motor has a Ns = 500 rpm.
The full-load slip is 1.8% and full load p.f 0.85. Stator Cu loss = 2440 W.
Iron loss = 3500 W. Rotational losses = 1200 W. Calculate :
i) The rotor Cu loss
ii) The Line current
iii) The full load efficiency.
c) Explain how rotating magnetic field is created when 3-phase supply voltage is
given to the stator winding. Give the important assumptions in this case.

Set A

SLR-KM 331

-4-

*SLRKM331*

SECTION B
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain how the speed is controlled by adding an external resistance in the rotor
circuit ?
2) How the various maximum quantities can be obtained from a circle diagram ?
3) Explain the working of emf injection method of speed control of induction motor.
4) Explain in detail the cross field theory related to single phase induction motor.
5) Explain why a single phase induction motor should be provided with an auxiliary
winding on the stator.
5. Solve any four :

(210=20)

1) Draw the circle diagram for a 5.5 kw, 400 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole slip ring induction motor
from the data given below (line values) :
No load test : 400 V, 6 A, 0.085 p.f. lag
Short circuit test : 100 V, 12 A, 700 W
The ratio of primary to secondary turns is 2.6, stator resistance per phase is
0.67 and that of rotor is 0.18 . Calculate :
a) full load current
b) full load slip
c) ratio of maximum torque to full load torque
d) starting torque
2) Explain the principle of working of a shaded pole type single phase induction motor.
State its applications. Is it possible to change the direction of rotation of a shaded
pole type induction motor ? Explain your statement.
3) The main and auxiliary winding impedances of a 50 Hz, capacitor start single
phase induction motor are;
Main winding Zm = 3 + j 2.7
Auxiliary winding Za = 7 + j 3
Determine the value of the capacitor to be connected in series with the auxiliary
winding to achieve a phase difference of = 90 between the currents of the two
windings at start.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 332

*SLRKM332*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELEMENTS OF POWER SYSTEM
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iv) Assumption made, if necessary justify.
v) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) The highest transmission voltage in India is


a) 765 KV
b) 11 KV
c) 66 KV

d) 132 KV

2) Improving p.f.
a) Reduces current for a given output
b) Increases losses in line
c) Increases the cost of station equipments
d) None of the above
3) RCC poles usually have the spans of
a) 250 400 meter
b) 80 150 meter

c) 50 80 meters

4) Guy wire is employed for


a) Providing protection against surges
c) Supporting the pole

b) Providing emergency earth/route


d) All of above

d) 25 50 meters

5) The minimum clearance of high voltage lines from ground across streets is
a) 3 m
b) 5 m
c) 6 m
d) 8 m
6) Post type insulators are generally used in lines operating
a) above 100 KV
b) Above 33 KV
c) At any voltage h.v or EHV
d) None of the above
7) Corona is
a) Partial breakdown of air
c) Sparking between lines

b) Complete breakdown of air


d) None of the above

8) Corona can be reduced by


a) Increasing the operating voltage
b) Reducing the spacing between conductors
c) Increasing the effective conductor diameter
d) Any of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 332

*SLRKM332*

-2-

9) The dielectric strength of air under normal condition is around


a) 30 KV/cm
b) 100 KV/cm
c) 150 KV/cm
d) 200 KV/cm
10) The skin effect in conductor results in
a) Increases in its d.c. resistance
c) Both in d.c and a.c

b) Increases in a.c. resistance


d) None of the above

11) Bundled conductors in EHV transmission system provides


a) Reduced capacitance
b) Increased capacitance
c) Increases inductance
d) Increases voltage gradient
12) The ratio of line to line capacitance and line to neutral capacitance is
a)

1
2

b)

1
4

c) 2

d) 4

13) Which of the following voltage regulation is considered to be the best ?


a) 2%
b) 30%
c) 70%
d) 98%
14) For constant voltage transmission, the voltage drop along the line is maintained constant
by installing
a) Capacitor
b) Inductor
c) Resistance
d) Synchronous phase modifier at the receiving end
15) Oil-filled cables have the advantages of
a) Smaller over all size
c) Easy detection of fault

b) Most perfect impregnation


d) All of above

16) Grading of cables


a) Reduces insulation cost and increases current rating
b) Reduces insulation cost but decreases current rating
c) Increasing both
d) None of above
17) Series capacitors
a) Increases the power transmitting capacity
b) Provide voltage control
c) Increases shunt admittance
d) None of the above
18) The size of conductor used in power cable depend upon
a) Operating voltage
b) p.f.
c) Current to be carried
d) Type of insulation
19) Which of the following protection the underground cable against mechanical injury ?
a) Armouring
b) Bedding
c) Sheath
d) None of them
20) The insulating material most commonly used for power cables is
a) PVC
b) Paper
c) Rubber
d) Any compound
______________

Set A

*SLRKM332*

-3-

SLR-KM 332

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELEMENTS OF POWER SYSTEM
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.


ii) Figures to right shows full marks.
iii) Assumption made, if necessary justify.
SECTION 1
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Derive an expression for inductance of single core two wire transmission line.
2) Define Sag. Derive expression for sag of conductor having
i) Unequal level of support and
ii) With equal level of supports.
3) Write short note on Proximity Effect.
4) Explain transposion of line and conductor configuration.
5) What are main criteria to choose conductor for a transmission line ? Describe Aluminium
conductor for its application, construction etc.

3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) A d.c. two wire system is to be converted into a.c. 3-phase 3 wire system by addition of
third conductor of the same cross-section as the two existing conductors. Calculate the
% additional load can now be supplied if the voltage between the wires and % line loss
remains unchanged. Assume balanced load of unity power factor.
2) An overhead line has a span of 150 m between level supports. The conductor has a cross
sectional area of 2cm2. The ultimate strength is 5000 Kg/cm2 and safety factor is 5.0. The
specific gravity of the material is 8.9 gm/cc. The wind pressure is 1.5 Kg/m. Calculate the
height of the conductor above the ground level at which it should be supported, if a minimum
clearance of 7 meters is to be left between the ground and conductor.
3) A string of four insulators has a self-capacitance equal to 5 times pin to earth capacitance.
Find :
i) The voltage distribution across various units as a percentage of total voltage across
the string and
ii) String efficiency.

Set A

SLR-KM 332

-4-

*SLRKM332*

SECTION 2
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Derive an expression of capacitance of single core-underground cable with neat diagram.


2) Write short note on 3-phase belted-cable with diagram.
3) Derive an expression for dielectric strength of single core underground cable with diagram
(i.e. gmax and gmin)
4) Describe with diagram
i) Radial system
ii) Ring main system
iii) Interconnected system.
5) What is grading of capacitance ? Derive equation for voltage between conductor and
earthed lead sheath by using 3 inter sheath with neat diagram.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) Using Rigorous Method, derive expression for sending end voltage and current for a
long transmission line.
2) A 3-ph, 50 Hz transmission line of 100 Km long delivers 20 mw at 0.9 p.f. lagging and at
110 KV. The resistance and reactance of line per ph. per Km are 0.2 and 0.4
respectively while capacitance admittance is 2.5 104S. Calculate
i) The current and voltage at sending end
ii) Transmission efficiency use nominal T-method of this medium transmission line. Draw
vector diagram.
3) A single phase distributor 2 kms long supplies a load of 120 A at 0.8 p.f. lagging at its far
end and a load of 80A at 0.9 p.f. lagging at its mid-point. Both p.f. s are referred to voltage
at the far end. The resistance and reactance per km (go and return) are 0.05 and
0.1 respectively. If the voltage at the far end is maintained at 230 V. Calculate
i) Voltage at sending end
ii) Phase angle between voltages at the two ends.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 333

*SLRKM333*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015
ANALOG AND DIGITAL INTEGRATED CIRCUITS

Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page
No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All the questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The unity gain frequency of an OPAMP is equal to


b) 106 Hz
a) 103 Hz

c) 102 Hz

d) 10 Hz

2) Since input resistance of an ideal OPAMP is infinite


a) Its output resistance is zero
b) Its output becomes independent of load resistance
c) Its input current is zero
d) It becomes a current controlled device
3) The highest possible impedance is achieved with
a) Inverting amplifier
c) Voltage follower

b) Non-Inverting amplifier
d) Differential amplifier

4) The input differential stage of OPAMP 741 is biased at about 10 mA current. Such a low current of the input
stage gives
a) High CMRR
b) High differential gain
c) Low CMRR
d) High input impedance
5) A circuit using an OPAMP is shown below. It has

Vo

a) Voltage-series feedback
c) Current-shunt feedback

b) Voltage shunt feedback


d) Current series feedback

6) An OPAMP with an open loop gain of 10000, Rin = 2 K and Ro = 500 is used in the non-inverting
configuration as shown below. The o/p resistance Ro is
10 K

10 K
Vo

a) 9.9 103

b) 9.9 104

c) 10

d) None of these

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 333

*SLRKM333*

-2-

7) Unity gain bandwidth product of OPAMP is


a) UGB of open loop = UGB of closed loop
c) UGB of open loop > UGB of closed loop

b) UGB of open loop < UGB of closed loop


d) None of these

8) In differentiator feedback element is


a) Capacitor
b) Diode

c) Transistor

d) Resistor

c) 10V

d) None of these

9) For the circuit shown below, Potential at V1 is


R1=1 K

Rf = 10 K
Vo

a) 0V

b) 2V

10) In common mode configuration


a) Both inputs are grounded
c) identical signal appears on both the inputs

b) o/ps are connected together


d) o/p signals are in phase

11) The number of control lines for a 8 : 1 multiplexer is


a) 2
b) 3

c) 4

12) In a JK Flip-Flop, toggle means


a) Set Q = 1 and Q = 0
c) Change the output to the opposite state

b) Set Q = 0 and Q = 1
d) No change in output

d) 5

13) How many flip flops are required to construct a decade counter ?
a) 10
b) 3
c) 4

d) 2

14) CMOS circuits consume power


a) Equal to TTL
b) Less than TTL

d) Thrice of TTL

c) Twice of TTL

15) Shifting a register content to left by one bit position is equivalent to


a) division by two
b) addition by two
c) multiplication by two

d) subtraction by two

16) Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems encountered with asynchronous counters because
the
a) input clock pulses are applied only to the first and last stages
b) input clock pulses are applied only to the last stage
c) input clock pulses are not used to activate any of the counter stages
d) input clock pulses are applied simultaneously to each stage
17) Ten TTL loads per TTL driver is known as
a) noise immunity
b) fan-out

c) power dissipation

18) K Map for an ex-or gate will consist of


a) two ones diagonally placed
c) one zero only

b) two zeros diagonally placed


d) both a and b

19) The IC used as Synchronous 4 Bit Up Down Binary Counter is


a) 7490
b) 74138
c) 7432

d) propagation delay

d) 74191

20) On a positive edge-triggered S-R flip-flop, the outputs reflect the input condition when
a) the clock pulse is low
b) the clock pulse is high
c) the clock pulse transitions from low to high

d) the clock pulse transitions from HIGH to LOW

______________

Set A

*SLRKM333*

-3-

SLR-KM 333

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ANALOG AND DIGITAL INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2.

Answer the following (any four) :

(45=20)

1) A 741C OPAMP is connected in non-inverting mode with following components. Find AF, Rif, Rof, Ff, VOOT
R1 = 3.3 K , Rf = 12 K , A = 2,00,000, Ri = 2M , Ro = 75 , fo = 5Hz, VCC = +/ 15V, Vo = +/ 13V.
2) Explain differential amplifier and derive equation for gain.
3) Explain the following terms input offset voltage, input offset current, input bias current, differential input
resistance, CMRR.
4) Draw and explain V to I converter with grounded load.
5) Explain summing amplifier in non-inverting mode.
3.

Answer the following (any two) :

(210=20)

1) Derive an expression for closed loop gain, input resistance and bandwidth and output resistance for
voltage series feedback amplifier.
2) Explain ideal characteristics of OPAMP. What are the limitations of OPAMP used in open loop configuration ?
How to overcome it ? Explain any one application of OPAMP in open loop configuration.
3) Explain OPAMP as integrator and draw frequency response of it.
SECTION II
4.

Answer any four :

(45=20)

a) Convert the given expression in canonical SOP form Y = AC + AB + BC.


b) Define the following characteristics of digital ICs :
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)

Propagation delay
Fan out
Noise Margin
Fan in

v) Operating temperature
c) Define flip flop. Explain the operation of SR flip flop with neat diagram.
d) Explain in detail about serial in serial out shift register.
e) Simplify using K-map. Express answer in suitable logic form
f (A, B, C, D) = m (2, 3,4,7,9,11,12,13,14) + d(1, 10, 15)

Set A

SLR-KM 333
5.

-4-

*SLRKM333*

Answer any two :

(102=20)

a) Design a sequential detector which produces an output 1 every time the input sequence 1011 is
detected.
b) Explain the working of BCD Ripple Counter with the help of state diagrams and logic diagram.
c) Explain the different types of flip flops with neat diagram. Also explain the significance and the difference
in clock signals for each of the flip flops.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 334

*SLRKM334*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015
NETWORK ANALYSIS

Day and Date : Tuesday 1-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Resistance of a wire is r Ohms. The wire is stretched to double its length, the resistance
in Ohms is
a) r/2
b) 4r
c) 2r
d) r/4
2) Two resistances R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 Ohms when in series and 1
Ohm when in parallel. The resistances are
a) 3 Ohms and 6 Ohms
b) 3 Ohms and 9 Ohms
c) 1.5 Ohms and 3 Ohms
d) 1.5 Ohms and 0.5 Ohms
3) Three 3 Ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between
any two of the corners ?
b) 3 Ohm
c) 2 Ohm
d) 4 3 Ohm
a) 3 4 Ohm
4) Resistance across A and B in the circuit shown in figure below is

B
R

a) R

b) 3R

c) 4R

d) 5R

5) The nodal method of circuit analysis is based on


a) KVL and Ohms law
b) KCL and Ohms law
c) KCL and KVL
d) KCL, KVL and Ohms law
6) The number of independent loops for a network with n nodes and b branches is
a) n 1
b) b n
c) b n + 1
d) independent of the number of nodes

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 334

*SLRKM334*

-2-

7) A circuit contains two unequal resistances in parallel


a) Current is same in both
b) Large current flows in larger resistor
c) Potential difference across each is same
d) Smaller resistance has smaller conductance
8) Two two-port networks are connected in cascade. The combination is to be represented
as a single two-port network. The parameters are obtained by multiplying the individual
a) z-parameter matrix
b) h-parameter matrix
c) y-parameter matrix
d) ABCD parameter matrix
9) A two-port network is defined by the following pair of equations I1 = 2V1 + V2 and I2 = V1 + V2.
Its impedance parameters (Z11, Z12, Z21, Z22) are given by
a) 2, 1, 1, 1
b) 1, 1, 1, 2
c) 1, 1, 1, 2
d) 2, 1, 1, 1
10) If one of the resistors in a parallel circuit is removed, what happens to the total resistance ?
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remain constant d) exactly doubles
11) Four equal value resistors are connected in parallel. 5V voltage is applied across the
parallel circuit and 2.5 mA current are measured from the source. What is the value of
each resistor ?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 2.5
d) 5
12) The number of branches in a tree is ________________ the number of branches in a
graph.
a) less than
b) more than
c) equal to
d) half
13) Superposition theorem is not applicable to network containing.
a) nonlinear elements
b) dependent voltage source
c) dependent current source
d) transformers
14) The reciprocity theorem is applicable to
a) linear networks only
c) linear or bilateral networks

b) bilateral networks only


d) none of these

15) When the superposition theorem is applied to any circuit, the dependent voltage source in
that circuit is always
a) opened
b) shorted
c) active
d) none of the above
16) While applying thevenins theorem, the thevenins voltage is equal to
a) short circuit voltage at the terminals
b) open circuit voltage at the terminals
c) voltage of the source
d) total voltage available in the circuit
17) Inductor does not allow sudden changes in
a) currents
b) voltages
c) both a and b

d) none of the above

18) The time constant of a series RL circuit is


a) LR
b) L/R

c) R/L

d) e R/L

19) The time constant of a series RC circuit is


a) 1/RC
b) R/C

c) RC

d) e RC

20) Which parameters are widely used in transmission line theory ?


a) Z
b) Y
c) ABCD
______________

d) h

Set A

*SLRKM334*

SLR-KM 334

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


NETWORK ANALYSIS
Day and Date : Tuesday 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
a) Find the current I for the network shown below :
2

(45=20)

3
5

4
50 V

b) Draw the dual circuit of network shown below :


2H
2
2F
5H
3F

10 V

c) Verify the reciprocity theorem for the network shown below :


2
2
a
c
I
20 V
b

2
d

Set A

SLR-KM 334

*SLRKM334*

-4-

d) Find the current I in the circuit shown in Fig. below :


3

17 V

+
2

Vx

5 Vx
1A

e) Determine the load ZL required to be connected in the network for Maximum Power Transfer
Theorem. Determine the maximum power drawn :
j1

4 < 0 A

ZL

3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) State and Explain Thevenins Theorem. Find the current through the 30 resistor using
Thevenins Theorem.
15
60
30
150 V

13 A

50 V

40

b) State and Explain Nortons Theorem. Obtain Nortons equivalent Network across terminals
A and B for the network shown below :
50 0 V
+
~
j5

j5

j10

5
~

50 90 V

Set A

*SLRKM334*

SLR-KM 334

-5-

c) For the graph shown below, write :


i) Complete Incidence Matrix
ii) Incidence Matrix
iii) Tieset Matrix
iv) f-Cutset Matrix.
(1)

(5)
(6)
(4)
(8)

(7)

(2)

4
(3)

3
SECTION II

4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Derive ABCD parameter in terms of Y parameters.


b) Determine the short circuit admittance parameters for the network shown below :
I1

I2

V1

1F

1F

V2

c) Determine hybrid parameters for the network shown below :


I2
I1 1
2
+

+
V1

V2

Set A

SLR-KM 334

*SLRKM334*

-6-

d) In the given network shown below, the switch is opened at t = 0. Solve for V, dv/dt, d2v/dt2
at t = 0+.
V(t)

1K

10 A

1 F

e) In the network shown below, the switch is moved from the position 1 to 2 at t = 0, steady
state conditions having been established in the position 1. Determine i (t) for t > 0 using
Laplace Transform.

1
10 V

2
1

1H

i(t)

5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Determine Z and Y parameters of the figure shown below :

I1

+
V1

2V3

3I2
+
2

2
+
V3

I2
+
V2

Set A

*SLRKM334*

SLR-KM 334

-7-

b) Find Y parameters for the network shown below :


I1
+

I2

2
1

0.5

V1

V2
0.5

0.5

c) In the network shown below, the switch is open for a long time and it closes at t = 0.
Find i(t).
10

10

50 V

i(t)

0.1 H

10

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 335

*SLRKM335*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The signal which exists only at t = 0, whose area is referred as continuous time
unit _____________
a) Impulse
b) Time
c) Series
d) Level
2) L{sinh (at)} =
a)

s
s2 a2

b)

a
s 2 a2

3) If y[n] = x2[n], system is


a) linear
b) non-linear

c)

s2
s 2 a2

c) both a) and b)

d)

a2
s 2 a2

d) none of above

4) For a sinusoidal signal the value of cos wt is equal to


e jwt + e jwt
a)
2

jwt
jwt
b) e e
2

5) The inverse Laplace transform of F(s) =


a) e2t u(t)

b) e2t u(t)

e jwt e jwt
c)
2j
1
is
s+2
c) et u(t)

d)

e jwt + e jwt
2j

d) et u(t)

j6 n
6) The fundamental frequency of x(n) = e
is

a) w 0 = 2

b) w 0 = 3

c) w 0 = 2

d) w 0 = 6

1
7) The energy and power of signal x(n) = u(n) is
3
a) E =

9
;P = 0
8

b) E =

7
;P = 0
8

c) P =

9
;E = 0
8

d) P =

7
;E = 0
8
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 335

*SLRKM335*

-2-

1
is
( s + 2) ( s + 3)
b) Right half of S-plane
d) None of above

8) The poles location of given system F(s) =


a) Left half of S-plane
c) On imaginary axis

9) In a system, if present output depends only on present and past inputs, such systems
is called as
a) Non causal
b) Anticipatory
c) Causal
d) Static
10) When x(n) = x (n) signal is said to be
a) Anti-symmetric b) Symmetric

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of above

11) ROC of x[n] contains


a) Poles
b) Zeros

c) No poles

d) No zeros

12) Aliasing occurs when sampling frequency s


a) s = 0

b) s m

c) s < 2m

d) None of above

13) A linear discrete time system has the characteristic equation z3 0.81z = 0 the system
a) Is stable
b) Is marginally stable
c) Is unstable
d) None of these
1
4
14) The z-transform of signal is given by X(z) = z (1 z )
4(1 z 1)2

Its final value is


a) 1/4

b) 0

x(t) = sinc2(100 t)
a) 50 Hz

b) 100 Hz

c)
15) What is Nyquist sampling rate of the following signal
c) 200 Hz

16) Fourier transform of unit impulse sequence is


a) 1
b) zero
c) ()
17) DFT X(k) of x(n) is
a) A function of continuous variable
c) Both a) and b)

d) 1.0

d) 400 Hz
d) ()

b) A function of discrete variable


d) None of these

18) Discrete Fourier transform and Fourier transform of finite length sequence x[n] is
a) same
b) different
c) maybe same
d) maybe different
19) The DFT of sequence x(n) = (n n0 ) is
a) 1

b) e j2 kn0

c) e j2kn0 / N

20) Fourier transform of x[n] is


a) X( )
b) X( )
c) X( )
______________

d) e j2kn0 / N
d) zero
Set A

*SLRKM335*

SLR-KM 335

-3-

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
1) Find whether following systems are periodic or not.
a) x(t) = sin2t
b) x[n] = cos 0.5n.
2) Determine even and odd component of x(t) = cos t + sin t.
3) Compute signal energy for x(t) = e4tu(t).
4) Find inverse Laplace transform of F(s) =

(45=20)

2.s
.
(s + 1) (s + 2)

5) Sketch the following signals :


1) 2r(t)
2) 3r(t 1).
3. a) Determine convolution sum of two sequence x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4} and
h(n) = {1, 0, 1, 1}.
b) Sketch the following :

10
10

a) F(t + 2)

b) F(t 2)

c) F(2t)

1
d) F
2t

e) F(2t 1).
OR
b) Obtain state space representation for system y(t ) + 8y(t ) + 11y (t ) + 6y(t ) = u(t ) .

10
Set A

SLR-KM 335

*SLRKM335*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Find the z-transform and ROC of bnu(n 1).


2) Determine the Nyquist sampling rate and Nyquist sampling interval for the signal
x(t) = sin c(200t ) + 3 sin c 2 (120t) .
3) Explain what is convolution in frequency domain.
4) Using z-transform find the convolution of two sequences x1 = {1, 2, 1, 0, 3} ;
x2 = {1, 2, 1}.
5) Explain and prove frequency shifting property of discrete time Fourier transform.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) Find Fourier components of the periodic rectangular waveform shown in figure.

2) Verify Parsevals theorem.

x(n)x * (n)
n =

( )

1
=
X ei X * (ei )d for the sequence given as follows

1
x(n) = u(n) .
2
n

4
4
3) A causal and stable LTI system has the property that u(n) n u(n) .
5
5
a) Determine the frequency response H(e j ) for the system.
b) Determine a difference equation relating any input x(n) and the corresponding
output y(n).
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 336

*SLRKM336*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
COMPUTER PROGRAMMING C++

Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Which of the following is not the member of class ?


a) Static function
b) Friend function c) Const function

d) Virtual function

2) A function call mechanism that passes argument to a function by passing a copy of the
values of the arguments is
a) call by value
b) call by name
c) call by reference
d) call by value result
3) Which operator cannot be overloaded ?
a) >=
b) *

c) [ ]

d) ~

4) Which of the following is not a type of constructor ?


a) Copy constructor
b) Friend constructor
c) Default constructor
d) Parameterized constructor
5) In c++, dynamic memory allocation is accomplished with the operator
a) new
b) this
c) malloc()
d) delete
6) The runtime polymorphism is implemented by using __________ function.
a) friend
b) static
c) virtual
d) inline
7) When the binary operator is overloaded by using friend function, then it takes
a) No arguments
b) One explicit argument
c) Two explicit arguments
d) Both b and c
8) Both function overloading and operator overloading are type of
a) compile-time polymorphism
b) run-time polymorphism
c) data hiding
d) inheritance
9) Which of the following operations can be performed on pointers ?
a) Increment and decrement
b) Substraction
c) Addition
d) All of these
10) An array element is accessed using
a) a FIFO approach
c) the operator

b) an index number
d) a member name

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 336

*SLRKM336*

-2-

11) The way of deriving a new class from another derived class is called
a) Single inheritance
b) Multiple inheritance
c) Multilevel inheritance
d) None
12) The object which is currently invoking the member function can be pointed by
a) this pointer
b) base class pointer
c) pointer to pointer
d) none of these
13) Which of the following term is used for a function defined inside a class ?
a) Member variable
b) Member function
c) Class function
d) Classic function
14) Protected members are visible by the member functions of
a) Only base class
b) Both base and immediately derived class
c) Any class
d) None of these
15) This pointer
a) Implicitly points to an object
c) Can be used to return an object

b) Can be explicitly used in a class


d) All of these

16) The break statement causes as exit


a) from the innermost loop only
c) from all the loops and switches

b) only from the innermost switch


d) from the innermost loop or switch

17) What is the output of following code ?


char symbol [3]={a, b, c};
for (int index=0; index<3; index++)
cout<<symbol[index];
a) a b c
b) abc

c) abc

d) abc

18) A pointer to the base class can hold the address of


a) Only base class object
b) Only derived class object
c) Base class object as well as derived class object
d) None of these
19) Which of the following is not the characteristic of constructor ?
a) They should be declared in the public section
b) They do not have return type
c) They cannot be inherited
d) They can be virtual
20) Cout is a/an
a) operator

b) function
c) object
______________

d) macro

Set A

*SLRKM336*

-3-

SLR-KM 336

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


COMPUTER PROGRAMMING C++
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION I

2. Attempt following questions (any four) :

20

A) What is OOP ? Explain the encapsulation and polymorphism concept of OOP.


B) Explain the do while and while loop (control) statements in C++.
C) What is structure ? Explain how to access the members of structure with example.
D) What do you mean by overloading of a function ? When do we use this concept ?
E) When will you make a function inline ? Explain with example.
F) Write a program to check whether a given number is prime or not.
3. Attempt following questions (any one) :

10

A) Explain the concept of constructor and destructors in detail.


B) Write a program to create a class distance with data members : feet, inch and member
functions for
1) Getting the distance from user
2) Adding the two distance objects
3) Displaying the distance.
Also write the main function to test the program.
4. Explain the following :

10

1) Function call methods : call by value and call by reference.


2) Function with default argument.
SECTION II
5. Attempt following questions (any four) :

20

A) Explain the concept of array of objects.


B) What is inheritance ? Explain its types.
C) Write a program that illustrates the use of multiple inheritance.

Set A

SLR-KM 336

-4-

*SLRKM336*

D) Explain the concept of static function with example.


E) Explain the concept of pointer to base class and derived class objects.
F) What is pointer to pointer ? Explain it with example.
6. Attempt following questions (any one) :

10

A) Write short note on :


1) friend function
2) derived constructors.
B) Explain in detail how to implement run-time polymorphism using virtual function with
example.
7. What is operator overloading ? What are the rules for operator overloading ? Explain syntax of
defining operator function as member function and as a friend function to overload binary
operator +.

10

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 337

*SLRKM337*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
I.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer (Solve 20 questions each carry 1 mark) :


1) At slack bus ____________ are specified.
a) | V |,
b) P, Q
c) P, | V |

(201=20)

d) Q, | V |

2) Load flow study involve solving simultaneous


a) linear algebraic equations
b) non-linear algebraic equations
c) linear differential equations
d) non-linear differential equations
3) Primitive Y matrix is ______________ matrix.
a) Singular
b) Null
c) Diagonal

d) Sparse

4) An acceleration factor is used in load flow studies using G-S method to


a) to increase the number of iterations b) to increase the speed of calculations
c) both a) and b)
d) none of above
5) The per unit value of a 2 ohm resistor at 100 MVA base and 10 KV base voltage is
a) 4 pu
b) 0.5 pu
c) 2 pu
d) 0.2 pu
6) In Gauss-Seidel method of power flow problem, the number of iterations may be
reduced if correction in voltage at each bus is multiplied by
a) Gauss constant
b) Acceleration constant
c) Blocking factor
d) Deceleration constant
7) In power system maximum no. of buses are
a) PV
b) Slack
c) PQ

d) Any of the above

8) Which of the following results in a symmetrical fault ?


a) single line to earth
b) phase to phase
c) all the three phases to earth
d) two phases to earth
9) When line to ground fault occurs, the current in faulted phase is 100 A. The zero
sequence current in this case will be
a) zero
b) 33.3 A
c) 66.66 A
d) 100 A
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 337

*SLRKM337*

-2-

10) Load flow study is carried for


a) load frequency control
c) fault calculations

b) study of stability of the system


d) planning of power system

11) For accurate load flow solution on large power system, the best method is
a) NR
b) GS
c) Fast Decoupled d) None of the above
12) The magnitude of the fault current depends upon
a) Total impedance up to fault
b) Voltage at the fault point
c) Load current being supplied before occurrence of fault
d) Both a) and b)
13) Negative sequence reactance of a transformer is
a) equal to the positive sequence reactance
b) larger than the positive sequence reactance
c) smaller than positive sequence reactance
d) none of the above
14) In a star connected system without neutral grounding, zero sequence currents are
a) zero
b) phasor sum of phase currents
c) same as rms value of phase currents
d) same as peace value of phase currents
15) By using the method of equal area criterion, we get the information about
a) swing equation b) stability region c) relative stability d) absolute stability
16) For stable operation, the normal value of lies between
a) 0 to 30
b) 0 to 90
c) 0 to 60
17) Fault level means
a) voltage at fault point
c) fault power factor

d) 0 to 180

b) fault current
d) fault MVA

18) The symmetrical components are used in the fault analysis because
a) number equations become smaller
b) the sequence network do not have mutual couplings
c) the results are required in terms of symmetrical components
d) none of above
19) The positive sequence current of the transmission line is
a) always zero
b) 1/3 of negative sequence current
c) equal to the negative sequence current
d) three time negative sequence current
20) For limiting short circuits we use
a) reactors
b) resistors

c) capacitors

d) any of these

______________
Set A

*SLRKM337*

-3-

SLR-KM 337

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
II. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain short circuit of a loaded synchronous machine.
2) Write in matrix form node equations to solve for voltages of numbered buses. The
network is equivalent to fig. shown below. The emfs are Ea = 1.5 < 0,
Eb = 1.5 < 36.87, Ec = 1.5 < 0 all in p.u.

3) Determine Ybus for simple four bus system shown in fig. Neglect shunt capacitance
of the line.

Line

Impedance (p.u.)

12

0.25 + j 1.0

13

0.20 + j 0.8

14

0.30 + j 1.2

23

0.20 + j 0.8

34

0.15 + j 0.6

4) Write the advantages of per unit system.


5) Describe the various types of buses and their significance in detail.

Set A

SLR-KM 337

*SLRKM337*

-4-

III. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain the transients on transmission line.


2) For the sample system generators are connected to all the three buses, while load
are at bus 2 and 3. Values of reactive and real powers are listed in table. All the
buses other than slack are PQ. Assuming flat voltage start, find voltage and bus
angle at three buses at the end of first GS iteration.
Bus

Pi, pu

Qi, pu

Vi, pu

Remark

1.04 at 0

Slack bus

0.5

0.2

PQ bus

1.0

0.5

PQ bus

0.3

0.1

PQ bus

The calculated Ybus for above sample system is


2 + j6
1 + 3j
0
3 j9

2 + j6 3.666 j11 0.666 + j2 1 + j3


1 + j3 0.666 + j2 3.666 j11 2 + j6

1 + j3
2 + j6
3 j9
0
3) Two generators rated at 10 MVA, 13.2 kV and 15 MVA, 13.2 kV resp. are
connected in parallel to a bus. The bus feeds two motors rated at 8 MVA and
12 MVA resp. The rated voltage of motor is 12.5 kV. The reactance of each
generator is 15% and that of motor is 20% each. Assume 50 MVA, 13.8 kV base
and draw reactance diagram.

Set A

*SLRKM337*

-5-

SLR-KM 337

SECTION II
IV. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Give the difference between symmetrical and unsymmetrical faults.


2) Explain lightening phenomenon and mechanism of lightening stroke.
3) Write a short note on operator.
4) Explain the term critical clearing angle and critical clearing time.
5) The phase voltages across a certain unbalanced load are given as
Er = 176 j 132, Ey = 128 j 96, Eb = 160 + j 100. Find symmetrical components.
V. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Draw a diagram showing interconnection of sequence network for line to line


fault. Derive equation for sequence currents.
2) Derive the sequence impedances of 3 phase transmission line having
self-impedances 2s per phase and mutual impedances 2m between the
phases.
3) A 2 pole, 50 Hz, 11 KV turbo alternator has a rating of 100 MW, power factor
0.85 lagging. The rotor has a moment of inertia of a 10000 Kg-m. Calculate
H and M.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 338

*SLRKM338*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All the questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) In an organisational hierarchy system the supervisor is regarded as


1) top level
2) middle level
3) lower level
4) none of above
2) In an organisation the policy decisions are normally taken by
1) Supervisors
2) Board of Directors
3) Workmen
4) Trade Union Leaders
3) Internal management of the company is governed by
1) Memorandum of association
2) Article of association
3) Prospectus
4) None of the above
4) The authority is normally delegated to
1) the person of higher grade
3) no delegation is allowed to any one

2) the person of below the grade


4) delegation is not necessary

5) Demand increases when


1) production cost increases
3) price of commodity increases

2) production cost decreases


4) price of commodity decreases

6) Improved technology shall bring about


1) increase in cost of production
3) increase in scale of production

2) increase in demand
4) none of the above

7) Line organization is
1) organization run by only top management
2) organization run by only workmen
3) both above
4) none of above
8) Maximum numbers of members in Public Limited cos is
1) 7
2) 50
3) 20

4) no limit
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 338

*SLRKM338*

-2-

9) Minimum and maximum limits of members in private company are


1) 2 and 50
2) 1 and 7
3) 7 and 50
4) No limit prescribed
10) Limited liability of member means
1) Liability limited to 5 years only
2) Liability limited to 20 years
3) Liability limited to the extent of holdings
4) None of above
11) _________ technology is suitable for SSIS.
1) Capital intensive
2) Labour intensive
3) Complex technology
4) No technology required
12) For the growing needs of power sector in the country, which of the following source would
be cheaper and suitable
1) Wind power
2) Tidal power
3) Solar power
4) None of above
13) Which is the most appropriate statement in Indias power generation scenario ?
1) Power generation targets fully achieved
2) Big gap between targets and achievements
3) No such targets ever fixed by Govt.
4) There is excess power generation in the country all the times
14) Theft of electricity can be reduced
1) By wide publicity
3) By strict legal actions

2) By change in peoples mind set


4) By all above

15) Project cost can effectively be controlled


1) By applying PERT and CPM
2) By proper budgetary controls
3) By reducing unnecessary costs incurred
4) By stopping increments of employees
16) Entrepreneurs essentially are required to
1) Carry out innovative activities
3) Undertake labour welfare activities

2) Supervise the work of labours


4) Celebrate events in the organization

17) Industrial policies are for the purpose of


1) Excercising controls on production
3) Both above

2) Preventing activities of enterprises


4) None of the above

18) Small scale industries are normally being financed by


1) IDBI
2) SBI
3) SIDBI

4) RBI

19) Winding up of a company means


1) Lock out in the company
2) Closure of production in company
3) Sell out the company to other owner
4) Extinguish the existance on accomplishment of purpose
20) Private company can raise capital
1) By selling shares
3) By both above

2) By public borrowing
4) By none of above

Set A
______________

*SLRKM338*

-3-

SLR-KM 338

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Explain in details the characteristics and advantages of partnership firm.

10

3. Define company and explain in details the procedures of formation of public


limited company.

10
OR

Explain in details the role of science and technology in the economic development
of developing country.

10

4. Write short notes on any four :

20

1) Value engineering
2) Organization structure
3) Problems of power sector
4) Management information system
5) Entrepreneurship development
6) Advantages of industrial safety.
SECTION II
5. Explain as to how project implementation can be made effective by use of PERT
and CPM.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 338

-4-

*SLRKM338*

6. Explain the M/S system in an organization with suitable flow of information to all
the corners of the organization.

10

OR
Explain in details the role played by an entrepreneur. How the entrepreneur can
convert loss making unit in profit making ?
10
7. Write short notes on any four :

20

1) Methods of cost reductions of a project


2) Effective implementation of project
3) Process of setting up of SSI unit
4) Entrepreneurial growth in agro-industries
5) Health care in hazardous production
6) Controls of electrical thefts.

Set A

SLR-KM 339

*SLRKM339*
S

T.E. (Part I) Electrical Engineering Examination, 2015


ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The surface integral of the electrical field intensity is the

(120=20)

a) Net flux emanating from the surface


b) Electric charge
c) Charge density
d) Flux density
2) If cross product of two vectors is zero then vectors are
a) Perpendicular to each other

b) Parallel

c) Oblique

d) None

3) dv = r dr d


dz is the differential volume in

a) Cartesian co-ordinate system

b) Cylindrical co-ordinate system

c) Spherical co-ordinate system

d) None of the above

4) Given A = 6ax + 3ay + 2az, the projection of A along ay is


a) 12
b) 4
c) 3
d) 7
5) The unit of Electric field intensity is
a) A/M2
b) V/M2
6) The charge of an e- is

c) V/M

d) A/sec

a) 1.60219 1019C

b) 1.60219 1019C

c) 1.6211 1019

d) 1.60219 1019C
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 339
7)


*SLRKM339*

-2-

is
3

a) Amperes law b) Faradays law c) Gausss law


8) Relation between potential V and Electric field E is

d) Ohms law

b) V = E
c) E =
a) E = V
9) Energy density in electro static field is

d)

a)

b)

c)

V


d)

V=


E


10) An E on a plane is described by V = 20 [1/r + 1/r2]. The field must be due to


a) A Monopole
b) A Dipole
c) Both a) and b) d) None
11) Ratio of conduction current density to displacement current density is
a)

b)


c)

12) Torque is given as


a) r. F
b) r F

d)


c) rF cos

d) None of these


13) If a charge, 1 c is moving with a velocity 2ay in a magnetic field of B = 1az,


the force on the charge is
a) 2az
b) 2a x
c) 1a y
14) Energy shared in a magneto static field is
a)

b)

c)

"

d) 1a z
d) None of these

"

15) The unit of magnetic susceptibility is


a) Nil
b) Amp
c) H/M

d) Wb

16) Mutual inductance between two coils is


a)

b)
1

c)
2

d)

17) Example of super paramagnetic material is


a) Cobalt
b) Iron
c) Oxides
d) Magnetic tape
18) Amperes circuital law in differential form is _______________
a)
b)
c)
d)
19) Continuity condition for static field is


a)

b)
D

c)


d) None of these

20) Unit of self-inductance is


a) Henry

b) Weber
c) Ampere
______________

d) Solenoid

Set A

*SLRKM339*
S

SLR-KM 339

-3-

T.E. (Part I) Electrical Engineering Examination, 2015


ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four from the following :

(54=20)

1) State and explain coulombs law. Also derive it in vector form.


2) Consider an infinite line charge with density


C/m along z-axis. Obtain the

work done if a point charge Q is moved from r = a, to r =b along a radial path.


3) The two points A and B are specified as, A (1, 3, 4) and B (2, /3, 1). Find


out the distance between A and B.


4) A charge of uniform density


covers the plane


m

2x 3y + z = 6. Find E on the side of the plane containing the origin.


5) State and explain divergence theorem.
3. Solve any two from the following :

(102=20)

1) Given that A = 30 er ar 2z az in the cylindrical coordinates, evaluate both


sides of the divergence theorem for the volume enclosed by r = 2, z = 0 and
z = 5.
2) Derive the expression for electric field due to charged circular ring whose
radius is r and placed in xy plane with centre at origin.
3) Find D at a point P (6, 8, 10) due to
i) Point charge of 40 mc at origin
ii) A uniform line charge density of


40 nc/m on the z axis.




iii) A uniform surface charge density of




= 57.2 nc/m2 on the plane

x = 12m.
Set A

SLR-KM 339

-4-

*SLRKM339*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four from the following :

(54=20)

1) Derive the Maxwells equation in point and integral form from Gausss law for
static Electric field.
2) State and prove Amperes circuital law.
3) Prove that


4) An infinite long straight filament is placed along Z axis through which current
of 1 A is passing. Find out magnetic field intensity at point at P (3 2 6).
5) Explain the different types of magnetic material with suitable example
according to the nature of material.
5. Solve any two from the following :

(102=20)

1) Evaluate both sides of Strokes theorem for the field.


H = (y2z/x) ax + (0.5 y2z2/x2) az.
Also find current in the ay direction crossing the square surface in the plane
y = 2 bounded by x = z= 1 and x = z = 2.
2) Derive the Maxwells equation in point and integral form from Amperes law
for time varying field.
3) Derive the Magnetic boundary conditions.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 340

*SLRKM340*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015
CONTROL SYSTEMS I

Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicates marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to


a) capacitance
b) reciprocal of capacitance
c) current
d) resistance
2) A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at
a) low frequencies
b) reduced values of open loop gain
c) increased values of open loop gain
d) none of the above
3) Two blocks G1(s) and G2(s) can be cascaded to get resultant transfer function as
a) G1(s) + G2(s)
b) G1(s) / G2(s)
c) G1(s) G2(s)
d) 1 + G1(s) G2(s)
4) The impulse response of a LTI system is a unit step function, then the corresponding
transfer function is
a)

1
s

b)

1
s2

c) 1

d) s

5) Zero initial condition for a system means


a) input reference signal is zero
b) zero stored energy
c) no initial movement of moving parts
d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in its components
6) From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?
a) Signal flow graph
b) Analogous table
c) Output-input ratio
d) None of the above
7) A synchros is
a) a frequency transformer
c) an electromagnetic transducer

b) an electronic rectifier
d) none of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 340
8) The equation 2s4 + s3 + 3s2 + 5s + 10 = 0
a) one
b) two
9) The input to a controller is
a) sensed signal
c) error signal

*SLRKM340*

-2-

has _________ roots in the left half of s-plane.


c) three
d) four
b) desired variable value
d) servo-signal

10) The roots of the characteristic equation of a control system are called
a) open loop poles
b) open loop zeros
c) closed loop poles
d) closed loop zeros
11) Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response ?
a) Root locus
b) Bode plot
c) Nyquist plot
d) None of the above
12) In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is
a) unity
b) infinity
c) zero

d) 10

13) By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?
a) Ramp input signal
b) Sinusoidal input signal
c) Unit impulse input signal
d) Exponential decaying signal
14) Due to which of the following reasons excessive bandwidth in control systems should be
avoided ?
a) It leads to slow speed of response
b) It leads to low relative stability
c) Noise is proportional to bandwidth
d) None of the above
15) If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
a) oscillatory
b) critically damped
c) overdamped
d) underdamped
16) The transient response, with feedback system
a) rises slowly
b) rises quickly
c) decays slowly

d) decays quickly

17) Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?
a) The gain of the system should be decreased
b) The gain of the system should be increase
c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
18) With feedback __________ reduces.
a) system stability
c) system stability and gain

b) system gain
d) none

19) Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit
_________ function.
a) parabolic
b) ramp
c) impulse
d) step
20) Static error co-efficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems
for specified ___________ input signal.
a) acceleration
b) velocity
c) position
d) all of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM340*

-3-

SLR-KM 340

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEMS I
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicates marks.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Find the transfer function of the network below fig. (a).

Fig. (a)
b) Write the performance equations for the system shown in figure (b).

Fig. (b)

Set A

SLR-KM 340

-4-

*SLRKM340*

c) Draw analogous network of mechanical system below by F-V and F-I analogy.

d) Explain the signal flow graph terminologies.


e) Find the T/F of block diagram below.

3. a) Find the overall transfer function of the system below.

b) For the given system find the sensitivity of the overall T/F with respect to forward path
gain and also feedback gain; for system in fig. b1 at w = 1 radian/sec.

10

10

Fig. b1
OR

Set A

*SLRKM340*

SLR-KM 340

-5-

b) Convert the block diagram to signal flow graph and determine the closed loop transfer
function by Masons gain formula.

10

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

C (s )
Ks + b
=
.
R (s) s2 + as + b
Determine open loop transfer function G(s). Show that steady state error with unit ramp
(a k)
.
input is given by
b

1) Consider a unity feedback system with a closed loop transfer function

2) Derive an expression for peak time of a second order system in terms of damping factor .
3) The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by,
K (s + 1)
G ( s) =
. Determine the value of K and a so that the system oscillates at
3
s + as 2 + 2s + 1
a frequency of 2 rad/sec.
4) Explain the frequency-domain specifications in detail.
5) How stability is related to location of pole ? Explain in detail for different case of impulse
input.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) For a unity feedback control system the open loop transfer function, G (s) =
Find

10 (s + 2)
s 2 (s + 1)

a) The position, velocity and acceleration error constants,


b) The steady state error when the input is R(s) =

3 2
1
.

+
s s 2 3s 3

2) Sketch the root locus of the unity feedback system with OLTF, G(s) =

k
.
s (s + 2) (s + 4)

3) Sketch the Bode plot for the following transfer function and determine phase margin and
gain margin G(s) =

75 (1 + 0.2 s)
s (s 2 + 16 s + 100 )

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 341

*SLRKM341*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINES III
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) The number of slip rings in stationery field and rotating armature type
alternator is __________
a) 6
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
2) A 3 phase double layer stator winding has a coil span of 150 electrical. Its coil span or
pitch factor is __________
a) 0.96
b) 0.98
c) 0.966
d) 0.955
3) Armature reaction in an alternator primarily affects __________
a) Rotor speed
b) Terminal voltage per phase
c) Frequency of the generated voltage
d) Generated voltage per phase
4) When a number of alternators are operating in parallel, the power factor at which each
operates is determined by
a) P. F. of the load
b) Driving torque of prime mover
c) Its field excitation
d) None of these
5) In a large salient pole type synchronous generator, damper windings are used as to
a) Increase stability
b) Eliminate harmonic effects
c) Reduced voltage fluctuations
d) Reduce frequency fluctuations (variations)
e) Both c) and d)
6) A salient pole synchronous motor runs under steady state conditions with armature current Ia.
If field circuit gets suddenly open circuited then,
a) The motor stops and Ia becomes zero
b) Motor continues to runs at same speed, Ia increases
c) Motor continues to run at same speed, Ia decreases
d) Motor runs at slower speed and Ia increases
7) The load sharing between two turbo (Steam) generators (alternators) may be adjusted by
varying the ___________
a) Field excitation
b) Power factors of the alternator
c) Speed of alternators
d) Steam supply to their prime movers
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 341

-2-

*SLRKM341*

8) Which of the following conditions is not necessary for parallel operation of two alternator ?
a) Terminal voltage of two alternator must be same
b) The two machines must have same phase rotation
c) The two machines must operate at same frequency
d) The two machines must have equal KVA rating
9) An alternator with higher value of SCR has __________
a) Poor voltage regulation and lower stability
b) Better voltage regulation and higher stability limit
c) Poor voltage regulation and higher stability limit
d) Better voltage regulation and lower stability limit
10) A single phase, 200 V alternator has an armature resistance 0.8 ohm and reactance of
4.94 ohm. The voltage regulation of the alternator at 100 A load and 0.8 p. f. leading is
__________
a) 7%
b) 14%
c) 8.3%
d) 0%
11) The armature windings of a 4 pole alternator having 36 slots and coil span of 1 to 9 is
short pitched by _________ degree electrical.
a) 160
b) 140
c) 40
d) 20
12) An inverted V curve of synchronous motor shows the variation of _________
a) DC excitation vs. p. f. of motor
b) DC excitation vs. supply voltage
c) DC excitation vs. armature current
d) None of these
13) Synchronous capacitor is
a) An over excited synchronous motor driving mechanical load
b) An ordinary static capacitor bank
c) An under excited synchronous motor working at no load
d) An over excited synchronous motor without mechanical load
14) A reluctance motor runs at
a) Synchronous speed
b) Slightly less than the synchronous speed
c) Above synchronous speed
d) Half the synchronous speed
15) When load on reluctance motor increases to the extent that it cannot maintain synchronous
speed it will ___________
a) Become unstable
b) Run as an induction motor
c) Draw excessive current and burn out d) Fall out of synchronous and come to rest
16) Which one of the following statements is not true for an AC servo motor ?
a) It has low inertia
b) It is single phase motor
c) Has torque-slip characteristics as straight line with negative slope
d) Reference voltage frequency is high compared to signal frequency
17) The stepper motor is a
a) DC motor
b) Single phase AC motor
c) Two phase motor
d) Multi phase motor
18) The motor which can produce uniform torque from standstill to synchronous speed is
a) Universal motor
b) Stepper motor
c) Reluctance motor d) Hysteresis motor
19) Stepper motor are most widely used because of
a) Wide speed range
b) Large rating
c) No need of field control
d) Compatibility with digital systems
20) The rotor of a stepper motor has
a) No windings
b) No commutator
c) No brushes
d) No winding, commutator and brushes
______________

Set A

*SLRKM341*

-3-

SLR-KM 341

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINES III
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve/attempt any four from the following :

(45=20)

a) State the advantages of short pitching. Derive an expression for distribution factor.
b) Derive from first principles, the emf equation of a 3 phase alternator.
c) Define short circuit ratio (SCR). Show that SCR is reciprocal of direct axis reactance Xd.
State the importance of SCR in a 3 phase synchronous generator and power system.
d) A 500 KVA, 1100 V, 50Hz star connected 3 phase alternator has armature resistance per
phase 0.1 ohm and synchronous reactance per phase of 1.5 ohm. Find its per phase
open circuit voltage for
a) Unity p. f. and
b) 0.8 leading p. f. Also calculate the voltage regulation in each case.
e) A 3 phase star connected, salient pole synchronous generator is driven at a speed near
but less than synchronous speed with field circuit open, and stator supplied from a balanced
3 phase supply. Voltmeter connected across the line gave minimum and maximum readings
of 2800 and 2820 volts. The line current fluctuated between 360 and 275 ampere. Find the
direct axis and quadrature axis synchronous reactance (Xd and Xq) per phase. Neglect
armature resistance.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) A 10 KVA, 380V, 50Hz, 3 phase star connected salient pole alternator has direct axis and
quadrature axis reactance of 12 ohm and 8 ohm respectively. The armature has resistance
of one ohm per phase. The generator delivers rated load at 0.8 p. f. lagging with terminal
voltage being maintained at rated value. If load angle is 16.15, determine
a) Id and Iq,
b) Excitation voltage of the generator per phase and line value,
c) % regulation. Draw the phasor diagram.
b) i)

Describe with neat circuit diagram, the method of synchronizing a 3 phase alternator
with other 3 phase alternator by three dark lamp method.

ii)

Define synchronizing current and synchronizing power and derive and expression for
synchronizing power and torque for 3 phase synchronous generator

Set A

SLR-KM 341

-4-

*SLRKM341*

c) i)

Two identical, 3 phase alternators operating in parallel share equally a load of


1000 KW at 6600 V and 0.8 lagging p. f. The field excitation of the machine 2 is adjusted
so that its armature current is 50 A at lagging p. f. Determine the armature current of
machine 1.

ii)

Explain in brief the Potier (Z. P. F.) method of finding the voltage regulation of 3 phase
alternator.
SECTION II

4. Solve/attempt any four questions :

(45=20)

a) Derive an expression for the power developed by a synchronous motor.


b) Explain in brief various methods of starting the synchronous motor.
c) Explain the construction and working of permanent magnet synchronous motor. What are
advantages of this motor over one phase AC (split phase and shaded pole) motor ?
d) A single stack, eight phase (stator) multiple, stepper motor has six rotor teeth. The phases
are excited one at a time. Determine
a) Step size,
b) Step per revolution,
c) Speed, if the excitation frequency is 120 Hz. State applications of stepper motor.
e) Explain two reaction theory for salient pole synchronous machines.
5. Solve any two questions :
a) i)
ii)

(210=20)

Describe the construction and working of a two phase ac servo motor. Draw and
explain torque speed characteristics.
Draw and explain typical torque speed characteristics of a reluctance motor. Compare
a reluctance motor with an equivalent induction motor.

b) The excitation of a 415 V, 3 phase delta connected synchronous motor is such that the
induced emf is 520 V. The armature resistance and reactance per phases are 0.5 ohm
and 4 ohm respectively. If the friction and iron losses are constant at 1000 Watts,
calculate the power output, line current, power factor and efficiency for maximum power
output.
c) i)
ii)

Describe the constructional features of variable reluctance type stepper motor and
explain working principle of same.
What is the nature of p. f. in a power system ? Explain how a synchronous motor can
be used for p. f. improvement with proper phasor (vector) diagram.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 343

*SLRKM343*
S

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


POWER SYSTEM II

Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) Which portion of the transmission system is more prone to faults ?


a) Alternator
b) Transformer
c) Overhead line
d) Underground cable
2) For a given base voltage and base volt. Amperes, the per unit impedance value of an element is x. What
will be the per-unit impedance value of this elements when the voltages and volt-ampere bases are both
doubled ?
a) 0.5 x
b) 2 x
c) 4 x
d) x
3) The impedance per phase of 3-phase transmission line on a base of 100 MVA 100 kv is 2 pu. The value of
this impedance on a base of 400 MVA and 400 kv would be
a) 1.5 pu
b) 1.0 pu
c) 0.5 pu
d) 0.25 pu
4) The symmetrical components are used in the faults analysis because
a) The number of equations becomes smaller
b) The sequence networks do not have mutual couplings
c) The results are required in terms of symmetrical components
d) None of the above
5) In a star-connected system without neutral grounding zero-sequence currents are
a) Zero
b) Phasor some of phase currents
c) Same as rms value of phase currents
d) Same as peak value of phase currents
6) An unbalanced system of 3-phase voltage having RYB sequence actually consist of
a) A positive-sequence components
b) A negative-sequence components
c) Zero sequence component
d) All of the above
7) If the positive, negative and zero sequence reactance of an element of a power system are 0.3, 0.3 and
0.8 pu respectively then the element would be a
a) Synchronous generator
b) Synchronous motor
c) Static load
d) Transmission line
8) Zero sequences currents flow in a transmission line when there a
a) Double line to ground faults
b) An overvoltage in the line caused by charged loads
c) A line to line fault
d) A faults across all the three line
9) The following figure shows the single line diagram of a power system with all reactance marked in per unit
(pu) on the same base.

The system is on no load when a 3-phase fault occur at F on the high voltage side of the transformer T2. The
fault current will be
a) j 0.8187 pu
b) +j 0.8187 pu
c) j 8.1871 pu
d) +j 8.1871 pu

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 343

*SLRKM343*

-2-

10) Transient disturbance are caused by


a) Sudden load changes
c) Faults in the power system

b) Switching operation
d) All of the above

11) The constant H of a turbo-generator of 200 MVA is 6.0. Its value corresponding to 300 MVA base will be
a) 9.0
b) 4.0
c) 6.0
d) 13.5
12) If the torque angle of an alternator increases infinitely the system will show
a) Steady state stability
b) Transient stability
c) Instability
d) None of these
13) Load-flow studies involve solving simultaneous
a) Linear algebraic equations
c) Linear differential equations

b) Non-Linear algebraic equations


d) Non-Linear differential equations

14) Slack bus is ____________ Bus.


a) Load
b) Generator

c) Feeder

d) Measurement

15) In load-flow analysis, the load connected at a bus is represented as


a) Constant current drawn from the bus
b) Constant impedance connected at the bus
c) Voltage and frequency dependent source at the bus
d) Constant real and reactive power drawn from the bus
16) Compared to Gauss-Seidal method, Newton-Raphson method takes
a) Less number of iterations and more time per iteration
b) Less number of iteration and less time per iteration
c) More number of iteration and more time per iteration
d) More number of iteration and less time per iteration
17) In a load-flow study a PV bus is treated as PQ bus when
a) Voltages limit is violated
b) Active power limit is violated
c) Phase angle is high
d) Reactive power limit is violated
18) An acceleration factor is used in ___________ method of load flow studies.
a) Gauss-Seidal
b) Newton-Raphson
c) De-coupled

d) All of the above

19) When a line-to-ground fault occurs, the current in a faulted phase is 100 A. The zero sequence current in
this case will be
a) Zero
b) 33.3
c) 66.6
d) 100 A
20) For the transformer connections shown below :

The correct zero sequence equivalent network is

a)

b)

c)

d)

______________

Set A

*SLRKM343*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 343

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


POWER SYSTEM II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.

SECTION I
2.

Solve any four :

(46=24)

1) How the buses are classified in the power system ?


2) A simple power system is shown in figure redraw this diagram where the per unit impedances are Represented
on a common 5000 VA base and common system base voltage of 250V

3) Explain different types of stability in case of system.


4) Derive an expression for per unit impedance of given base MVA and base KV in terms of new base MVA
and new bus KV.
5) Derive the static load flow equations of a power system.
6) Write down the admittance matrix for the following 4-bus system data.
B

Set A

SLR-KM 343
3.

1)

-4-

*SLRKM343*

Explain the Gauss-Seidal method for load flow studies.

2) Explain briefly equal area criterion and how it may be used to study the stability of a two machine system.

OR
2) For a system shown in figure determine the generator voltage.

SECTION II
4.

Solve any four :

(64=24)

1) Derive the expression for the short circuit current per phase for three phase alternator running under no
load.
2) A three phase 5 MVA, 6.6 kv alternator with a reactance of 8% is connected to a feeder of series impedance
(0.12 = +j0.48) /pv/km. The transformer is rated at 3 MVA, 6.6 kv/33 kv and has a reactance of 5%.
Determine the fault current supplied by the generator operating under no load with a voltage of 6.9 kv, when
a 3-phase symmetrical fault occurs at appoint 15 km along the feeder.


3) Explain the symmetrical component theory. Derive the phase current in terms of the sequence currents.
4) Develop the connections of the sequence networks when a line-to-line fault occurs in a power networks.
5) The resolution of a set of three phase unbalanced voltage into symmetrical components gave the following
results
Va0 = 30 < 30V, Va1 = 450 < 0V, Va2 = 225 < 40V
The component current are
Ia0 = 10 < 190A, Ia1 = 6 < 20A, Ia2 = 5 < 50A. Determine the complex power represented by these voltage
and current by symmetrical components.
6) Draw the zero sequence network for system shown below :

Set A

*SLRKM343*
5.

SLR-KM 343

-5-

Solve any two :

(82=16)

1) A double line to ground fault occurs in the two phases of the transmission line with an impedance Zf.
Derive the equation for the fault current of this condition.
2) Find the three sequence networks of the transmission line.
3) For the given system find fault currents for a line to line fault on phase b and c at pt q.
Assume 1. opu prefault voltage.

Generator grounding reactance is 0.5 PV.


_____________________

Set A

Set A

*SLRKM344*

SLR-KM 344

Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
CONTROL SYSTEM II

Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) Usually a lag network for compensation consist of


a) R element
b) R and L elements
c) R and C elements
d) R, I and C elements
2) The transient response of a system is mainly due to
a) inertia forces
b) internal forces
c) stored energy
d) friction
3) The term backlash is associated with
a) Servomotors
c) Gear trains

b) Induction relays
d) Any of the above

4) In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates


a) reduced velocity lag error
b) increased velocity lag error
c) increased speed of response
d) reduced time constant of the system
5) Gain margin is the factor by which the gain of the system is increased to make it
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Oscillatory
d) Exponential
6) An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to
a) Smaller damping ratio
b) Larger damping ratio
c) Constant damping ratio
d) None of the above
7) The type 2 system has at the origin.
a) no net pole
b) net pole

c) simple pole

8) In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is


a) unity
b) infinity
c) zero

d) two poles
d) 10

9) Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?


a) Lead-compensation
b) Lag-compensation
c) Lead-lag compensation
d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 344

-2-

*SLRKM344*

10) ________ technique is not applicable to nonlinear system.


a) Nyquist criterion
b) Quasi linearization
c) Functional analysis
d) Phase-plane representation
11) In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following
compensators may be used ?
a) Phase-lead
b) Phase-lag
c) Both a) and b)
d) Either a) and b)
12) Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ?
a) The range of air output as measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
b) The range of measured variables from set value
c) The range of measured variables through which the air output changes from
maximum to minimum
d) Any of the above
13) A phase lag lead network introduces in the output
a) lag at all frequencies
b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
d) none of the above
14) A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it
a) reduces damping
b) reduces the gain margin
c) increases input noise
d) increases error
15) The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under which of the
following conditions ?
a) Systems having complexities and non-linearities
b) Systems having stability problems
c) Systems having multiple input disturbances
d) All of the above
16) The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
a) Small bandwidth
b) Negative time constant
c) Large negative transfer function pole
d) None of the above
17) Which of the following is exhibited by root locus diagrams ?
a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
b) The bandwidth of the system
c) The response of a system to a step input
d) The frequency response of a system
18) With decrease in damping factor, the per unit overshoot
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain unaffected
d) any of these
19) Which of the following will increase the steady state accuracy ?
a) differentiator
b) integrator
c) phase lead compensator
d) phase lag compensator
20) Leading compensation network is
a) equalizer
b) high pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) none of these
______________
Set A

*SLRKM344*

-3-

SLR-KM 344

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEM II
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
a) Explain procedure for designing lead compensator using root locus.
b) Derive the realization of lag compensator circuit.
c) Check observability of system below.

(45=20)

x 1 = 2x1 + x2 + u
x 2 = x 2 + u and y = x1 + x2
d) Consider following matrix. Find state transition matrix
0 1
x =

6 5

1
x(0) =
0

3 2
e) Find eigen values for A =

1 2
3. a) Explain procedure to design lag compensator.

20

4
design a lead compensator such that
s(s + 2)
wn = 4 rad/s and z = 0.5 for compensated system.

b) For system G (s) H(s) =

OR
b) Find the T/F for the system which is represented in state space representation as
follows :
1 0
x 1 2
x = 0 3 1
2
x 3 3 4 5
x1
y = [0 1 0] x 2

x 3

x1 0
x + 0 u
2
x 3 1

Set A

SLR-KM 344

-4-

*SLRKM344*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain in short sample and hold circuit.


b) Explain limit cycle phenomenon in the non linear control system.
c) Explain singular points in nonlinear control system.
d) Explain block diagram of discrete control system.
e) Explain pulse T/F of cascaded element.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain the stability analysis by Juris stability test for discrete time control
system.
b) Write procedure for drawing trajectory.
c) Find the impulse train Laplace transform (starred transform) F*(s) for the
following f(t) = u(t).

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 345

*SLRKM345*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) In 8085 name the 16 bit registers.
a) Stack pointer
b) Program counter

(201=20)
c) a) and b)

d) None

2) Which stack is used in 8085 ?


a) FIFO
b) LIFO
c) FILO
d) None
3) Number of address lines required to interface 1KB of memory are___________
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
4) DAA instruction is used only with___________instruction.
a) SUB
b) SBB
c) ADD
d) None of these
5) Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor ?
a) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit ALU
b) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit data bus
c) a) and b)
d) None
6) What does microprocessor speed depends on ?
a) Clock
b) Data bus width
c) Address bus width
d) None
7) 8085 can access ___________ bytes of memory.
a) 16 K
b) 32 K
c) 64 K
8) Can ROM be used as stack ?
a) Yes
c) Sometimes Yes, sometimes No

d) 8 K

b) No
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 345

*SLRKM345*

-2-

9) The advantage of memory mapped I/O over I/O mapped I/O is


a) Faster
b) Many instructions supporting memory mapped I/O
c) Require a bigger address decoder
d) All the above
10) A microprocessors program counter has
a) The digital value of the data
b) The address of an instruction
c) The address of data
d) None of these
11) The status word formats are
a) Read only
b) Write only
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
12) Interaction between CPU and a peripheral device that takes place during the
input output operation is known as
a) Handshaking
b) Flagging
c) Subroutine
d) All of these
13) The instruction used in memory mapped I/O are
a) STA address
b) LDA address c) MOV A, M

d) All of these

14) All the control signal of 8085 are


a) Output
b) Input
c) Sometimes as input and sometimes as output
d) None of these
15) Vector address for interrupt RST 7.5 is
a) 0024H
b) 003CH
c) 0034H

d) 002CH

16) How many I/O operating modes are there in 8255 ?


a) 2
b) 3
c) 4

d) 1

17) Mode 1 of 8253 is


a) Interrupt on terminal count
c) Rate generator
18) SIM means
a) Serial Interrupt Mask
c) Sequential Interrupt Mask

b) Programmable one shot


d) Square wave generator
b) Set Interrupt Mask
d) Select Interrupt Mask

19) Signal voltage ranges for a logic high and for logic low in RS-232C standard
are
a) Low = 0 V to 1.8 V and High = 2.0 V to 5 V
b) Low = 15 V to 3 V and High = + 3 V to 15 V
c) Low = + 3 V to + 15 V and High = 3 V to 15 V
d) Low = 2 V to 5 V and High = 0 V to 1.8 V
20) The 8085 is
a) 08 bit parallel CPU
c) 16 bit parallel CPU

b) 8 bit serial CPU


d) RISC processor
______________

Set A

*SLRKM345*

-3-

SLR-KM 345

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if necessary.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Draw the functional architecture diagram of 8085 microprocessor neatly


labelling the data paths, registers etc. Briefly indicate the function of each.
2) What is the use of program counter and stack pointer in 8085 ?
3) What is the significance of ALE pin in 8085 microprocessor ?
4) Explain the addressing mode of 8085. Give example of at least one instruction
for each addressing mode.
5) What do the following instructions do in 8085 ?
i) XTHL

ii) RAR

iii) RST 1

iv) SPHL

3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) Interface 2k bytes of memory to 8085 microprocessor with starting address


8000H. Determine the final address.
2) Write a program in 8085 assembly language to arrange an array in ascending
order. The array contains 8 bit unsigned integers. The length of the array is
stored in location 2050 H and the array starts at location 2051H.
3) Draw Timing diagram for execution of the instruction MV1 A, 35H on 8085.

Set A

SLR-KM 345

-4-

*SLRKM345*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain asynchronous mode of operation for 8251.


b) Draw and explain successive approximation ADC.
c) Explain the control word format of 8253.
d) Explain the terms : simplex, half duplex and full duplex.
e) With the help of functional block diagram, explain the operation of PPI 8255.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Draw and explain the block diagram of programmable interrupt controller 8259.
Discuss the initialization command words (ICWs) of 8259.
b) Interface 8253 to 8085 in I/O mapped I/O. Write a ALP to generate a square
wave.
c) Interface DAC 0808 to 8085 in memory mapped I/O mode.Write ALP to
generate sawtooth wave at the output of DAC.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 346

*SLRKM346*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part II) (Electrical) (Old) Examination, 2015


POWER ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The commutation method, in an inverter is


a) Line commutation
b) Forced commutation
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) None of the above
2) For a duty cycle of 40%, the output DC for step down chopper is if input dc is 200 V
a) 80 V
b) 800 V
c) 8 V
d) .8 V
3) As base width of npn and pnp transistors reduce, the current gain increases and
anode current of SCR
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the above
4) The angle at which SCR turns off is called
a) On angle
b) Conduction angle
c) Firing angle
d) Extinction angle
5) Which one is greater of the following ?
a) Leaking current
b) Holding current
c) Latching current
d) None
6) TRIAC and DIAC are
a) bi-directional devices
c) none of these

b) unidirectional devices
d) cant decide

7) IGBT is ________________ device.


a) Current controlled
c) Not controlled

b) Voltage controlled
d) None

8) A 1-phase full bridge VSI has inductor L as the load. For constant source voltage,
the current through inductor is
a) Square wave
b) Triangular wave
c) Sine-wave
d) Pulsed wave
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 346

-2-

*SLRKM346*

9) In order to act a 1-phase fully controlled bridge in Inverting mode the condition is
a) EMF source should be present at load side
b) Capacitance should be present at load side
c) Inductor should be present at load side
d) None
10) The SCR is triggered by using gate current and conducting, if we increase the
gate current further then anode current is
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) None of the above
11) In single pulse modulation of PWM invertor, third harmonic can be eliminated if
pulse width is equal to
a) 30
b) 60
c) 120
d) 150
12) Half bridge inverter require
a) 3 wire dc
b) May use 2 wire or 3 wire dc
c) Has higher output voltage if fed from 3 wire dc
d) Has higher efficiency if fed from 3 wire dc
13) UPS is never used in
a) Street lighting
b) Computer
c) Communication links
d) Instrumentation
14) A single phase half wave bridge inverter required to fed RL load
a) 2 thyristor
b) 4 thyristor
c) 2 thyristor and 3 diodes
d) 4 thyristor and 4 diodes
15) Natural commutation can be use in
a) DC circuit only
b) AC circuit only
c) DC and AC circuit only
d) None
16) In a thyristor dc chopper, which type of commutation results the best performance
a) Voltage commutation
b) Current commutation
c) Load commutation
d) Supply commutation
17) In the dc chopper for chopping period the output voltage can be controlled by F.M
by varying
a) T, keeping TON constant
b) T, keeping TOFF constant
c) TON, keeping T constant
d) TOFF, keeping T constant
18) In dc chopper the input voltage waveform is __________ and the output voltage
waveform is
a) continuous, discontinuous
b) discontinuous, continuous
c) continuous, continuous
d) none
19) In the case of chopper if the output voltage is greater than the input voltage then
the type of chopper is
a) step up
b) step down
c) jones
d) none
20) Time ratio in chopper circuit is
a) TON/T
b) TOFF/T
c) T/TON
d) T/TOFF

______________

Set A

*SLRKM346*

-3-

SLR-KM 346

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part II) (Electrical) (Old) Examination, 2015


POWER ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions :

(45=20)

a) Explain the two transistor analogy of SCR. Explain regenerative current process
to conduct the SCR.
b) What is meant by commutation ? Explain Class-D commutation with proper wave
form.
c) How GTO will works and explain ?
d) Explain 1-single phase half wave controlled bridge rectifier with RL load. Draw
the output voltage wave for = 90 degrees and derive the output voltage and
current equations.
e) What is necessity of firing circuit ? Explain UJT firing circuit.
3. Attempt any two questions :

(210=20)

a) Draw and explain V-I characteristics of enhancement N-channel and P-channel


MOSFET.
b) Explain the two quadrant operation of 1-phase fully controlled bridge rectifier with
RL load. Draw the output voltage and current wave form for = 30 degrees,
= 90 degrees, and = 120 degrees. Derive the VL and IL.
c) A single-phase full-converter, connected to 230V, 50Hz, is feeding a load
R = 10 in series with a large inductance that makes the load current ripple free.
For a firing angle of 45, calculate
i) average load voltage (VL)
ii) average load current
iii) RMS output voltage, RMS output current
iv) FF, RF
v) Output DC power (PDC), Output AC Power (PAC).

Set A

SLR-KM 346

-4-

*SLRKM346*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four questions :

(45=20)

a) Draw single phase half bridge inverter and explain its operation for R-L load. Draw
the waveforms for output voltage and current.
b) Write a short note on harmonic standards and recommended practices.
c) Draw and explain step down chopper.
d) In a step down chopper, the input voltage being 230V dc, the load voltage 150V. If
the chopping frequency is 4 KHz, find the ON and OFF period of the thyristor in
each cycle ?
e) A single phase half bridge inverter feeds a resistive load of R = 5 . The dc voltage
of the inverter is given as 220v. Determine
i) RMS value of output voltage
ii) Output power
5. Solve any two questions :

(210=20)

a) Draw the neat circuit diagram of online UPS system and explain its operation.
b) Draw single phase full bridge inverter circuit, gate pulses, output voltage
waveforms and explain the operation of the circuit.
c) A step up chopper has a supply voltage of 250v while the output voltage is 400v.
If the total time period of the chopper is 100 sec , determine the
i) pulse width of the output voltage
ii) output voltage, if the pulse width is reduced to 1/3 for the constant frequency
operation.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 347

*SLRKM347*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All the questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The nature of engineering economics is
a) Micro
c) Normative and Micro

(201= 20)
b) Macro
d) Only normative

2) Assembly line production is an example of


a) Division of labour
b) Departmentation
c) Unity of command
d) Authority and responsibility
3) Which of the following factors are considered for measuring organisational effectiveness ?
a) Ability to produce useful results
b) Productivity
c) Quality
d) All of the above
4) Lockout means
a) Permanent closing of a place of employment
b) Temporary closing a place of employment
c) Always opening of a place of employment
d) None of the above
5) Reasons for entrepreneurial failure is
a) Poor management and technology
b) Financial problems
c) Production problems
d) All of the above
6) Administration is mainly __________ level function.
a) Lower
b) Top
c) Middle
7) Objective of value analysis is
a) To increase profit
c) Both a and b

d) Both b and c

b) To reduce cost of production


d) To increase quality

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 347

*SLRKM347*

-2-

8) The oldest and simplest form of organisation is


a) Proprietorship
b) Partnership
c) Joint stock company
d) Public company
9) Managers need to make sure that employees abilities
a) match the job requirement
b) are being maximized
c) are not affected by their stress
d) are not causing them stress
10) Managing change is an integral part of
a) top managements job
c) middle level management job

b) every managers job


d) first line management job

11) The work study is done by means of


a) planning charts
c) stop watch

b) process chart
d) any one of these

12) Performance rating is equal to


a) observed performance + normal performance
b) observed performance normal performance
c) observed performance normal performance
d) none of the above
13) Military organisation is known as
a) matrix organisation
c) line organisation

b) line and staff organisation


d) fundamental organisation

14) The time taken by a trained worker to perform an operation, while working a steady pace
is known as
a) standard time
b) normal time
c) representative time
d) none of these
15) Engineering economics deals with
a) Economic theory to business management
b) Economic theory to financial management
c) Economic theory to organised behaviour
d) Economic theory to stastics and management
16) The time elapsed between the placing of an order and its arrival is called as
a) lead time
b) cycle time
c) work station process time
d) none of the above
17) Managers need to make the employees abilities
a) match the job requirement
b) are being maximized
c) are not affected by their stress
d) are not causing them stress
18) No women shall be required to work in factory except between the hours of ______ am to
_________ pm.
a) 8 to 5
b) 7 to 6
c) 6 to 7
d) 10 to 5
19) In order to avoid excessive multiplication of the facilities, the layout preferred is
a) product layout
b) process layout c) static layout
d) group layout
20) Value is equal to
a) utility

b) cost

c) utility/cost

d) cost/utility

______________
Set A

*SLRKM347*

-3-

SLR-KM 347

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Explain different types of cost ratios used to reduce cost.

10

3. Explain the types of business organisations.

10

OR
Describe power sector and agricultural sector in India.
4. Write short notes on any four :
1) Micro and marco economics.
2) Line and staff organisation.
3) Private and public limited companies.
4) Infrastructure of Indian Economy.
5) Organisational structure.
6) Science and technology.

20

SECTION II
5. Explain project planning and its implementation.

10

6. Describe role of small scale industries in development of the nation.

10

OR
Explain in detail Indian Factory Act.
7. Write short notes on any four :
1) Management Information system.
2) Steps involved in setting up a small scale industry.
3) Indian Electricity Act 2003.
4) Methods of reducting project costs.
5) Entrepreneurship development.
6) Self employment for engineers.

20

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 348

*SLRKM348*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part II) (Electrical Engineering) (Old) Examination, 2015


UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY AND ENERGY CONSERVATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Which of the following is different from the remaining ?


a) Spot welding
b) Seam welding
c) Butt welding

d) Argon arc welding

2) The welding transformer used in resistance welding will


a) Step up current
b) Step down current
c) Step up voltage
d) Step up power
3) Heating of non-conducting materials can be done by
a) Arc heating
b) Induction heating
c) Dielectric heating
d) Resistance heating
4) Change of frequency in the supply does not affect
a) Dielectric heating
b) Resistance heating
c) Induction heating
d) Microwave heating
5) Which motors preferred for rolling mill drive ?
a) A. C. slip ring motors with speed control
b) D. C. motors
c) None of above
d) Any of above
6) Which motor has relatively wider range of speed control ?
a) D. C. shunt motor
b) Synchronous motor
c) Slip ring I.M.
d) Squirrel cage I.M.
7) Radiant efficiency of the luminous source depends on
a) Shape of the source
b) Temperature of the source
c) Wavelength of light rays
d) All of the above
8) Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in
a) Domestic lighting
c) Cinema projectors

b) Street lighting
d) Photography
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 348

*SLRKM348*

-2-

9) Halogen lamps are useful for the illumination of


a) Sports grounds
b) Parks
c) Airports
10) Glare is the result of
a) Very low luminance
c) Excessive luminance

d) All of the above

b) Normal luminance
d) None of the above

11) In a fluorescent tube circuit, choke acts as


a) Starter
b) Power factor improving device
c) Source of heat
d) Current limiting device
12) The level of illumination on surface least depends on
a) Candle power of the source
b) Distance of the source
c) Type of reflector used
d) Ambient temperature
13) One lux is the same as
a) One lumen/sq. cm.
c) One lumen/100 sq. m.

b) One lumen/sq. m.
d) One lumen/1000 sq. m.

14) The advantage of electric traction over other methods is


a) No pollution problems
b) Faster acceleration
c) Better braking action
d) All of the above
15) Which locomotive has the highest operational availability ?
a) Diesel
b) Electric
c) Steam
d) All have same availability
16) Which motor is used in tramways ?
a) AC single phase capacitor start motor
c) DC series motor

b) AC three phase motor


d) DC shunt motor

17) The coefficient of adhesion is


a) Same on ac and dc traction systems
b) High in case of dc traction and low in ac traction
c) Low in case of ac traction and high in dc traction
d) None of these
18) Braking retardation on suburban trains is
a) 0.3 to 0.5 km phps
c) 3 to 5 km phps

b) 0.5 to 1 km phps
d) 30 to 40 km phps

19) The coefficient of adhesion is highest when


a) The rails are dry
b) The rails are oiled
c) The rails ark wet with dew
d) The rails are dusty
20) When the speed of the train is estimated taking into account the time of stop at a station in
addition to the actual running time between stops, is known as
a) Average speed
b) Schedule speed
c) Notching
d) Free running speed
______________

Set A

*SLRKM348*

-3-

SLR-KM 348

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part II) (Electrical Engineering) (Old) Examination, 2015


UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY AND ENERGY CONSERVATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain four Quadrant Operation of Electric Motors.


b) Explain speed torque characteristics of different types of loads.
c) Explain dielectric heating.
d) Explain how flood lighting is providing.
e) Explain Ultrasonic Welding.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) Explain classification of resistance welding with applications.


b) Explain construction and working of SV and MV Lamps.
c) State and explain laws of illumination.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain quadrilateral speed time curve.


b) Explain the factor affecting specific energy consumption of an electric train.

Set A

SLR-KM 348

-4-

*SLRKM348*

c) Explain principle of energy conservation.


d) Explain various methods of electric braking.
e) Explain dead weight, accelerating weight and adhesive weight.
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) Explain energy conservation legislation.


b) Explain tractive effort for propulsion of train.
c) Draw a typical speed time curve for an electric train and explain crest speed average
speed, schedule speed, acceleration and retardation.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 349

*SLRKM349*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Helical windings are employed in _________ transformers.


a) distribution
b) power
c) shell type
d) none of these
2) DC machines designed with a large value of air gap length
a) Provides better ventilation
b) Reduces the pulsation losses
c) Reduces the distortion effect
d) All of the above
3) The air gap provided in dc machines of smaller diameter and provided with lesser
number of poles is comparatively
a) smaller
b) longer
c) any of these
d) none of these
4) The thickness of laminations of the core of a power transformer usually
a) 0.003 to 0.05 mm
b) 0.03 to 0.05 mm
c) 0.03 to 0.5 mm
d) 3 to 5 mm
5) In a dc machine width of carbon brush should be equal to
a) less than the width of one commutator segment
b) the width of 1 to 2 commutator segments
c) the width of 2 to 3 commutator segments
d) the width of more than 3 commutator segments
6) In dc machines by increasing the number of poles, all of the following reduce
except
a) Weight of copper
b) Weight of iron parts
c) Frequency of flux reversals
d) Overall size of the machine
7) Which component of the no load current of the transformer is opposite in phase to
the induced emf ?
a) Magnetizing component
b) Core loss component
c) Both a) and b) above
d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 349

*SLRKM349*

-2-

8) In transformers, the cylindrical winding with rectangular conductors is generally


used for
a) low voltage winding
b) high voltage winding
c) tertiary voltage winding
d) any of the above
9) Cylindrical winding on transformers is generally not used beyond
a) 6 kV
b) 30 kV
c) 66 kV
d) 132 kV
10) The stacking factor will be least for
a) Square core
c) Three stepped core

b) Cruciform core
d) Four stepped core

11) Which type of slots are normally used in induction motor ?


a) Open
b) Semi closed
c) Closed

d) Round

12) Which of the following quantity is affected by the leakage reactance of an induction
motor ?
a) Starting current
b) Starting torque
c) Maximum torque
d) All of the above
13) The value of specific electric loading of induction motor is in the range of
a) 40 to 400 amps. Cond./m
b) 400 to 4000 amp. Cond./m
c) 5000 to 45000 amp. cond./m
d) 30000 to 1,00,000 amp.cond./m
14) In the design of I.M. to incorporate the design feature of good efficiency what should

L
be the ratio of core length to pole pitch ?

a) 1.5 to 2.0
b) 1.0
c) 1.5

d) 1.5 to 2

15) When a synchronous generator is design with lower value of SCR it


a) Will give higher stability limit
b) Will have lower SC current
c) Will give better voltage regulation
d) Will have higher synchronizing power
16) Reduction in the capacitance of a capacitor-start motor, results in reduced
a) Noise
b) Speed
c) Starting torque d) Armature reaction
17) Alternator usually rated in
a) KVA
b) KW

c) KW and KVA

d) KVA and KVAR

18) An alternator coupled to which prime mover will usually have the highest rotating speed
a) Steam engine
b) Reciprocating engine
c) Francis turbine
d) Steam turbine
19) Large length of air gap in synchronous machine will lead to
a) Increase noise level
b) Reduce unbalance magnetic pool
c) Poor inherent voltage regulation
d) Lower limit of stability
20) Which of the following application require heavy starting torque ?
a) Air-blower
b) Rolling mill
c) Compressor
d) Lathe machine

______________
Set A

*SLRKM349*

-3-

SLR-KM 349

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

2. Solve the following questions (any 4) :


1) Explain the factors affecting the size of rotating machines.
2) Explain the principles of design for electromagnetic machines.
3) Explain different cooling methods of transformer.
4) Derive an output equation of single phase core type transformer.
5) Explain the difference between power transformer and distribution transformer.

20

3. Solve the following questions :

20

1) Calculate the overall dimensions for a 200 kVA, 6600/440 V, 50 Hz three phase
core type transformer. Use the following details :
Emf per turn is 10 V, maximum flux density is 1.3 Wb/m2, current density is
2.5 A/mm2
Window space factor is 0.3, overall height = overall width, stacking factor = 0.9.
Use a three stepped core.
2) Find the main dimensions of a 200 kW 250 V 6 pole 1000 rpm generator. The
maximum value of flux density in the gap is 0.87 Wb/m2 and efficiency is 91 percent.
Assume the ratio of length of core to pole pitch is 0.75.
OR
3) For a 150 kW, 230 V, 500 rpm 6 pole dc shunt motor find the main dimensions and
the air gap length. Assume the average gap density as 0.85 Wb/m2 and ampere
conductors as 29000 ac/m. The efficiency is 91%. The mmf required for air gap is
55% of armature mmf and gap contraction factor is 1.15.
4. Solve any four :

20

1) Discuss the effect of air gap length of 3-ph induction motor on following factor.
a) Power factor
b) Overload capacity
c) Pulsation loss and noise
d) Unbalanced magnetic pull.

Set A

SLR-KM 349

-4-

*SLRKM349*

2) Find the main dimension of a 15 kW, 3-ph, 400 V, 50 Hz, 2810 rpm. Squirrel cage
induction motor having an efficiency of 0.88 and full load p.f. of 0.9. Assume specific
magnetic loading = 0.5 Wb/m2; specific electric loading = 25000 A/m. taking rotor
peripheral speed as approximately 20 m/s at synchronous speed.
3) Find the current in the bar and end rings of a cage rotor of a 6 poles, 3-ph and
induction motor having 72 stator slots with 15 conductors in each slot. If the stator
current per phase is 20 amp and rotor slots are 55. Hence find the suitable size of
the cage bars and end rings.
4) Determine the main dimension for a 1000 KVA, 50 Hz, 3-ph, 375 rpm alternator.
The average air gap flux density is 0.55 Wb/m2 and the ampere conductor per
meter are 28000. Use rectangular pole and assume suitable value for ratio of core
length to pole pitch in order that bolted on pole construction is used for which the
maximum permissible peripheral speed is 50 m/s. The runaway speed is 1.8 times
the synchronous speed.
5) Derive the output equation of single phase induction motor.
5. Solve any two :

20

1) Find the main dimensions, Nos. of stator turns Nos. of stator slots of 5 HP, 400 V,
1500 syn. RPM sq. cage induction motor with following data Bav = 0.46 web/m2,
A.C. = 22000, full load efficiency = 0.83, full load P.f. = 0.84.
2) In the design of a 30 HP, 3-ph, 440 V. 960 rpm, 50 Hz. Delta connected
induction motor. Assume specific electric loading of 25000 ac/m and specific
magnetic loading of 0.46 Wb/m3, full load efficiency 86% and power factor 0.87.
Estimate :
1) Diameter of stator bore
2) Length of stator core
3) Peripheral velocity
4) Turns per phase
5) Slot pitch.
3) Determine the main dimensions of 12 MVA, 13.8 kV, 50 Hz, 1500 rpm, 3-ph, star
connected alternator. The following particulars are provided. Ave. gap density =
0.60 tesla ampere conductors per meter = 42000 peripheral speed = 80 m/sec.
Find also the maximum flux, the no. of stator slots if one conductor per slot is
used, the no. of turns per phase.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 350

*SLRKM350*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEMS II (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer.


(201=20)
1) A cascade lag-compensator should have a
a) Pole nearer to the origin
b) Zero nearer to the origin
c) Pole at origin
d) Zero at origin
2) A cascade-lead compensator
a) improves transient response of the system
b) increased margin of stability
c) decreases steady-state error to some-extent
d) all of these
3) The cascaded lead, lag and lag-lead compensation schemes are suitable for the systems
having
a) real open loop poles only
b) complex open loop poles only
c) both real as well as complex open loop poles
d) none of these
4) In reference to Bode plot method of analysis of linear control systems, the response in
high-frequency regions reflects
a) Steady state behaviour of the system b) Relative stability of the system
c) Transient bahavior of the system
d) None of these
5) A cascaded lag compensator used in linear control systems work as a
a) Low pass filter
b) High pass filter c) Band stop filter
d) Band pass filter
6) The effect of inserting a cascade lead compensator in the forward path of linear unity
feedback control system on the bandwidth is that it
a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) May increase or decreases

d) Remains same
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 350

-2-

*SLRKM350*

7) The maximum value of phase lead for which a single stage casecaded lead-compensator
should be designed is
a) 180
b) 90
c) 65
d) 135
8) If the eigenvalues of a 3 3 matrix A are 1, 2 and 4. What are the eigenvalues of P1 AP
where P is a linear transformation ?
a) 1,1/2,1/4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 4, 16
d) 1, 2, 4
9) In the state space representation of the type x (t) = Ax(t) the matrix exponential eAt is
known as
a) transfer matrix
b) state transfer matrix
c) transition matrix
d) state transition matrix
10) If a practical system is known to be controllable and observable, its mathematical model
would be
a) controllable but may not be observable b) observable but may not be controllable
c) may or may not be controll/observable
d) controllable as well as observable
11) The state space representation of a given control system is
a) unique
b) not unique
c) sometimes unique sometimes not unique d) unique for the given mathematical model
12) The necessary and sufficient condition for full order state observer is that the system
must be
a) completely observable
b) completely controllable
c) not observable
d) not controllable
13) The process of designing a closed loop control system is by
a) regulator
b) lag compensation
c) pole placement
d) none of these
14) For which of the following reasons nonlinearities are introduced ?
a) To simplify the system
b) To achieve special characteristics
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
15) In nonlinear control system limit cycle is self-sustained oscillations of
a) fixed frequency
b) variable frequency
c) variable amplitude
d) fixed frequency and amplitude
16) ____________ is the nonlinearily caused by servomotor.
a) Dead space
b) Saturation
c) Backlash
d) Static friction
17) The characteristic polynomial of a discrete time system is given by z2 + z + a for what
value of a is the system stable ?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1.5
d) 0.5
18) For a unity feedback system, the origin of the s-plane is mapped in the z-plane by
transformation z = esT to which one of the following ?
a) Origin
b) 1+ j0
c) 1 + j0
d) 0+ j1
19) The describing function N of the nonlinear control system is a function of
a) amplitude of input
b) frequency of input
c) initial condition of system
d) both a) and b)
20) Phase plane technique has the potential of analyzing the non-linear systems upto an
order of
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) higher order

______________

Set A

*SLRKM350*

SLR-KM 350

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEMS II (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

i) All questions are compulsory.


ii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
iii) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four .

(54= 20)

a) Derive the realization of lag compensator for passive circuit.


b) Explain the procedure to design lead compensator using Bode plot.
4
to
s(s + 2)
have the undamped natural frequency = 4 rad/sec without changing the value of the
damping ratio.

c) Design a lead compensator for a unity feedback system with OLTF G(s) =

x1
x 1 5 1 x1 2
d) Find the transfer function of x = 3 1 x + 5 u(t) . Y = [1 2] x
2
2
2
x 1 3 1 x1
e) Obtain the state transition matrix for system x = 0 1 x .
2
2
3. a) The forward path TF of a unity feedback control system is given by G(s) =

K
.
s(s + 2) (s + 8)

Design a suitable lag compensator so that the system meets the following specifications.
i) Percentage overshoot 16% for unit step input,
ii) Steady state error 0.125 for unit ramp input.
b) For a unity feedback system with OLTF G(s) =

10

2
. Design a suitable lag
s(s + 1)(s + 2)

compensator for the system so that the static velocity error constant Kv is 5 sec1, the
PM is atleast 40 and the gain margin is at least 10 dB.

10

OR

Set A

SLR-KM 350

-4-

*SLRKM350*

b) Check the controllability and observability of the state model given below.
0
1 3 0


2 = 0 2 0
3 0
0 1

x1 1

x 2 + 0 u
x 3 1

x1

y = [1 1 0] x 2
.
x 3

10

SECTION II
4. Solve any four.

(54= 20)

a) The closed-loop poles (eigenvalues) are to be located at s = 3, s = 7. Design a state


1
0
0
variable feedback. Given that A =
and B = , C = [1 0 ].
20 9
1
b) Explain the jump response phenomenon in nonlinear control systems.
c) Explain delta method for construction of phase trajectories.
d) Describe Ackermanns formula for the evaluation of observer gain matrix.
e) Derive the pulse transfer function of closed loop system.
5. Solve any two.

(102= 20)

1
0
0
0

0
1 x + 0 u and y = [1 0 0] x
a) Consider the system represented by = 0
1
6 11 6
Design a full order observer such that eigenvalues are at 2 j2 3 and 5.

b) Derive the describing function of deadzone and saturation.


c) Check the stability of the sampled data control system represented by the equation using
Jurys test
z 3 0 . 2 z 2 0 . 25 z + 0 .05 = 0

___________

Set A

SLR-KM 351

*SLRKM351*
S

T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSOR AND MICROCONTROLLER
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if required.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct option.

20

1) The total external memory interfaced to 8051 is


a) 32 K
b) 64 K
c) 128 K

d) 256 K

2) When Reset pin of 8085 is forced equal to 1, results to


a) Wait state
b) Halt state
c) Hold state
d) Normal operations
3) 8085 is _________ processor.
a) 8-bit
b) 16-bit

c) 8 and 16 bit

d) 8 or 16 bit

4) Flag register of 8085 is accessible statement is


a) True
b) False
c) Partially true d) None
5) _________ of internal RAM are bit addressable.
a) 64 bit
b) 128 bit
c) 8 bit
6) The 8051 contains
a) 4 banks of 16 register
c) 4 banks of 8 register

d) 256 bit

b) 2 banks of 8 register
d) 4 banks of 4 register

7) 8051 devices have _________ on chip data memory.


a) 64 byte
b) 128 byte
c) 256 byte
d) 16 byte

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 351

*SLRKM351*

-2-

8) _________ pin is the external data write strobe.


a) P3.4
b) P3.5
c) P3.6

d) P3.7

9) The 8051, a stack is implemented in


a) external RAM
b) external ROM
c) internal RAM
d) internal ROM
10) LJMP is _________ byte instruction.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4

d) 1

11) Interfacing LCD with 8051 _________ data lines are used along with _________
signals.
a) 6, RS, RW
b) 5, RW, EN
c) 9, RS, EN, RW
d) 8, RS, EN, RW
12) Internal pull up resisters are not available for _________
a) port 0
b) port 1
c) port 2
d) port 3
13) In mode 0 of 8051, timer is _________ bit wide.
a) 16 bit
b) 8 bit
c) 13 bit

d) 15 bit

14) _________ vector address in interrupt vector table is assigned to INT0.


a) 000B H
b) 0003 H
c) 0013 H
d) 001B H
15) The output of DAC 0808 is __________
a) current
b) voltage
c) frequency

d) none of the above

16) While interfacing 8051 with LCD, __________ line will instruct the LCD that
8051 is sending the data.
a) DB0
b) RW
c) EN
d) RS
17) __________ address lines are required for accessing the data if memory
capacity is 512 bytes.
a) 9
b) 10
c) 8
d) 11
18) Number of steps to rotate the stepper motor for 360 at a step angle of
1.8 degree is _________
a) 200
b) 1.8
c) 3
d) 1.1
19) _________ control pin is used to read from external ROM.
a) RD
b) PSEN
c) WR
d) RXD
20) External crystal frequency range of RTC 12887 is ___________
a) 11.0592 MHz b) 32.768 KHz c) 50 Hz
d) 1 KHz
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM351*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 351

T.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSOR AND MICROCONTROLLER
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if required.
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain feature of 8085.


b) Explain the following pins of 8085
i) Reset out
ii) HOLD
iii) S1 and S0
iv) X1, X2
v) Reset in.
c) Write ALP to perform subtraction of two decimal numbers using 8051.
d) Explain features of 8051.
e) Explain oscillatory circuit and power on reset circuit of MCS 51.
3. a) Explain the comparison between microprocessor and microcontroller.
Draw architecture of 8051 and explain in brief.

10

b) Describe various byte addressable instructions. Write ALP for arranging the
given array in ascending order using 8051 instructions.
10
OR
b) Draw block diagram of 8085 microprocessor, explain in brief. Explain timing
and control section of 8085 in detail.
10
Set A

SLR-KM 351

-4-

*SLRKM351*

4. Solve any four :

20

a) Draw and explain the IP register.


b) Draw the interfacing diagram of relay with 8051. Write a program to toggle the
relay after every 20 ms.
c) Explain the operation of port 0 structure of 8051 in detail.
d) Draw the interfacing diagram of dc motor with 8051. Write an ALP to rotate it
in clockwise direction.
e) Write an ALP to generate sine wave using DAC 0808.
5. Solve the following :
a) Interface matrix type keyboard with 8051. Write an ALP to read the keycode. 10
b) Draw the interfacing diagram of 8051 with LCD. Write an ALP to display
INDIA on LCD.

10

OR
b) Explain TMOD and TCON SFRs. Assuming XTAL = 11.0592 MHz, write a
program to generate square wave of 1 KHz frequency on pin P2.3 using timer
0 in mode 1.
10
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 352

*SLRKM352*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


POWER ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) SCR exhibits the properties of
a) Transistor
b) Thyratron tube

Marks : 20
20
c) CRT

d) None

2) When anode is negative with respect to cathode, in SCR the numbers of


blocked PN junctions are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
3) _____________ is used to protect SCR against (dv/dt)
a) Snubber circuit b) Thyrector
c) Inductor
d) Fuse
4) The SCR is turns-off when the anode current falls below
a) Forward current rating
b) Break over voltage
c) Holding current
d) Latching current
5) For single phase full wave rectifier with resistive load, average output
voltage is given by
a) ( Vm / ) (1 + cos )

b) ( Vm / 2 ) (1 + cos )

c) ( 2 Vm / ) (cos )

d) ( Vm / 2 ) (cos )

6) The uncontrolled electronic switch employed in power-electronic converters is


a) SCR
b) BJT
c) Diode
d) MOSFET
7) Which semiconductor power device out of the following is not a current
triggered device ?
a) SCR
b) GTO
c) TRIAC
d) MOSFET
8) In step-down chopper output voltage is given by
Vs
1
Vs
a) Vo = Vs
b)
c)
a
1

d) (1 ) Vs

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 352

*SLRKM352*

-2-

9) If the chopper frequency is 200 Hz and ton time is 2 ms, the duty cycle is
a) 0.4
b) 0.8
c) 0.6
d) None of the above
10) Thyristor may be termed as
a) D.C. switch
c) A. C. and D. C. switch

b) A.C. switch
d) Square wave switch

11) Inverter changes


a) AC to AC
b) AC to DC
c) DC to AC
d) All of them
12) 3 phase inverter for 120 conduction scheme at a time __________ nos. of
switches are on.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1
13) 3 phase bridge inverter uses ___________ nos. of switches.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 6
d) 3
14) In single phase full bridge inverter for R-L load
a) Free wheeling diodes are necessary b) Feedback diodes are necessary
c) No diodes are required
d) None of the above
15) Chopper circuit changes
a) AC to DC
b) DC to AC
c) DC to DC
d) AC to AC
16) A step-up chopper is fed from a 220 V d.c., source to deliver a load voltage of
660 V. If a non-conduction time of the thyristor is 100 s , the required pulse
width would be
a) 100 s
b) 200 s
c) 220 s
d) 660 s
17) For eliminating third harmonic from output voltage of inverter using series
connection of inverters, the required phase difference between output voltages
of two inverters is
a) 60
b) 45
c) 90
d) 180
ton
V is
T
b) Average output voltage
d) None of the above

18) If step down chopper is fed with d.c. supply then


a) rms output voltage
c) Average or RMS

19) Half bridge inverter require


a) 3 wire d.c.
b) may use 2 wire or 3 wire d.c.
c) has higher output voltage if fed from 3 wire d.c.
d) has higher efficiency if fed from 3 wire d.c.
20) A single phase half bridge inverter required to feed R-L loads needs
a) 2 thyristors
b) 4 thyristors
c) 2 thyristors 2 diodes
d) 4 thyristors and 4 diodes
______________
Set A

*SLRKM352*

-3-

SLR-KM 352

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


POWER ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) List all the turn off methods of SCR and explain any one of them.
b) Explain the effect of freewheeling diode on performance of controlled rectifiers.
c) Explain in detail various ratings of a thyristor.
d) What are the necessary and sufficient condition to turn on SCR and turn off
SCR ?
e) For full wave controlled rectifier with RL load, draw waveform for load voltage
and derive expression for average.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Draw the circuit for two transistor analogy of SCR and find expression for
anode current IA.
b) Draw construction diagram of depletion type MOSFET and explain its output
and transfer characteristics.
c) A 1 halfwave controlled rectifier with resistive load, if firing angle = / 4 ,
ES = 230 V, R = 5 . Find
a) Average output voltage
b) RMS output voltage
c) Power delivered to load.
Set A

SLR-KM 352

**

-4-

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(44=16)

a) Explain following terms :


1) harmonic factor
2) total harmonic distortion
3) distortion factor.
b) Discuss the buck regulator and its operating principle.
c) Explain the principle of phase control in AC voltage controllers.
d) Explain the application of power electronics with respect to HVDC.
e) Draw and explain two quadrant chopper in detail.
5. Solve any three :

(38=24)

A) Explain in detail three phase inverter in 180 mode with waveforms.


B) The step-down chopper shown below is operated at the switching frequency
fs = 10 kHz.
a) Find the minimum value of the duty ratio k so that the load current I0 is
continuous.
b) Find the duty ratio k so that the average load current is 20 A.
VS = 200 V
E = 50 V
L = 10 mH
R = 5
fs = 10 kHz

C) Explain the role of power electronics converter in integration of renewable


energy sources into grid.
D) Calculate the output frequency of basic series inverter with following
parameters L = 10 mH, C = .4 micro F, R = 300 ohm, Toff = .2 ms.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 353

*SLRKM353*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) The differentiation of unit step signal is
a) Unit impulse signal
c) Unit ramp signal

b) Parabolic signal
d) Exponential signal

2) If the original signal is identical to the negative of its time reversed counterpart
then it is
a) Even signal
b) Odd signal
c) Periodic signal d) Aperiodic signal
3) The signal x[n] = cos [2n] is
a) Periodic with period 2
c) Aperiodic signal

b) Periodic with period


d) None of these

4) Fourier transform converts


a) Periodic DT functions to frequency domain function
b) Aperiodic DT functions to frequency domain function
c) Periodic CT functions to frequency domain function
d) Aperiodic CT functions to frequency domain function
5) Y(t) = x2 (t) + 6 is
a) Linear

b) Non linear

c) Invertible

6) The shifting property of impulse is x[n] * [n n0] =


a) X[n]
b) [n]
c) x[n n 0]
7) Dirichlet conditions for the periodic signals ensures
a) The function has infinite maxima and minima
b) The function has infinite number of discontinuities
c) The convergence of Fourier series
d) All of the above
8) All static signals can be referred as ______ signals.
a) Linear
b) Dynamic
c) Causal

d) None of these
d) [n n 0]

d) Non causal
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 353

*SLRKM353*

-2-

9) If two LTI systems with same input are connected in cascade then equivalent
system is
a) Multiplication of individual impulse response
b) Convolution of individual impulse response
c) Sum of individual impulse response
d) None of these
10) If x(t) X( ) then Fourier transform of x(t t 0) is
a) ej 0t X( )
b) e j 0t X( ) c) ej t0 X( )

d) e j t0 X( )

11) The ROC of the sequence x(n) = u( n) is


a) | z | > 1
b) | z | < 1
c) no ROC

d) 1< | z | < 1

12) The inverse z-transform of


a) 3. (4)n u (n 1)
c) 3. (4)n 1 u (n + 1)
13) The system function H(z) =
a) causal
c) unstable but causal

3
, | z | > 4 is
z4
b) 3. (4)n 1 u (n)
d) 3. (4)n 1 u (n 1)
z 3 2z 2 + z
is
z 2 + 0.25z + 0.125
b) non causal
d) can not be defined

14) If all the poles of the system function H(z) have magnitude smaller than 1, then the
system will be
a) stable
b) unstable
c) BIBO stable
d) a) and c)
15) If x(n) = {0.5, 0.25, 1} then z-transform of the signal is,
z2
z2
a)
b) 2
z 0.5z + 0.25
0.5z 2 0.25z + 1
2
2
c) 0.5z 0.25z + 1
d) 2z + 4z + 1
z2
z2
16) In N-point DFT of L-point sequence, the value of N to avoid aliasing in frequency
spectrum is
a) N L
b) N < L
c) N > L
d) N = L

17) If DFT {x(n)} = X(k), then DFT{x(n + m)N }


a)

j2 km
X(k). e N

b) X(k). e

j2 k
mN

c) X(k). e

j 2 km
N

j2 k

d) X(k). e mN

18) In an N-point sequence, if N = 16, the total number of complex multiplications


using Radix 2 FFT are
a) 80
b) 64
c) 32
d) 12
19) The phase factors are multiplied before add and subtract operations in,
a) DIT radix 2 FFT
b) DIF radix 2 FFT
c) inverse DFT
d) Both a) and c)
20) Bit reverse indexing is present at the input side in which of following FFT algorithm ?
a) DIT
b) DIF
c) DFT
d) None of these

______________

Set A

*SLRKM353*

-3-

SLR-KM 353

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : All questions are compulsory.


SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Represent the given waveform in mathematical form using unit step signal.

b) Find even and odd components of following signal


X[n] = { 2, 1, 2, 1, 3}

c) Check for periodicity and if periodic find the fundamental period of the signal
X[n] = 1 + e( j4 n / 7) e( j2 n / 5 )
d) Explain the properties of convolution.
e) Express the following signal as complex exponential Fourier series. Also find 0
and Fourier coefficients.
X(t) = Cos 4t + Sin 6t

Set A

SLR-KM 353

*SLRPC112*

-4-

3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Determine if the following system is TIV, Linear, Causal, invertible and


memoryless ?
Y[n] + 2 y[n 1] = x[n + 1]
b) Find the convolution integral if
X(t) = eat u(t); t > 0
0 ; otherwise
Y(t) = 2; 0 < t < 2
= 0; otherwise
c) State and prove any three properties of Fourier transform.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(54=20)

1) Define the properties of ROC for z-transform.


2) Find z-transform of x(n) = bn u( n 1).
n

1 1
3) Determine discrete time Fourier transform for x(n) = . u(n)
2 2

4) Derive linearity property of DFT.


5) Find inverse z transform of
1+ 3z 1
, | z |> 2 .
X(z) =
1 + 3z 1 + 2z 2
5. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

1) Find IDFT of the sequence


X(k) = {5, 0, 1 j, 0, 1, 0, 1 + j, 0}
2) Find DFT of the sequence x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1} using DIT algorithm.
3) Find inverse z-transform of X(z) =

1 + 2z 1
1 2 z 1 + z 2

i) if x(n) is causal
ii) if x(n) is non-causal
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 354A

*SLRKM354A*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (Module II)
(Safety Engineering and Disaster Management) (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Solve the following :

(101=10)

1) The workplace hazard excessive noise may be controlled by


A) Air conditioning
B) Ventilation
C) Shift work
D) PPE
2) An emergency that could arise and cause a risk to H & S could include
A) Fire
B) Explosion
C) Chemical spill
D) All of the above
3) A workplace emergency evacuation plan is the responsibility of
A) Company management
B) The government
C) The health and safety committee
D) Individual employees
4) Which is the most effective method of reducing contamination to workers ?
A) PPE
B) Administration controls
C) Fans
D) Engineering controls
5) Which of the following is a major contribution to workplace stress ?
A) Low pay
B) Poor working conditions
C) Reasonable work pressures
D) Social isolation
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 354A

-2-

*SLRKM354A*

6) Which one of the following theories of disaster management informs organizational


readiness and response in a disaster ?
A) Hobfolls theory of Conservation of Resources
B) The problem-solving task model
C) Structure-functional theory
D) Theory of traumatogenic forces
7) Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is the primary purpose
of the
A) Factories Act, 1948
B) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
C) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
D) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
8) All of the following are True about disasters EXCEPT
A) A disaster may be domestic or international
B) A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins
C) A disaster always receives widespread media coverage
D) A disaster may have a known and gradual onset
9) Disasters frequently result in all of the following EXCEPT.
A) Damage to the ecological environment
B) Displacement of populations.
C) Destruction of a populations homeland
D) Sustained public attention during the recovery phase
10) There are nine tasks in the disaster management. All of the following are tasks of
this model EXCEPT
A) Assess secondary social problems such as health epidemics, displaced
persons
B) Counsel those who have suffered trauma and bereavement
C) Control rumors, provide accurate information
D) Provide security, prevent looting, protect person and property

______________

Set A

*SLRKM354A*

-3-

SLR-KM 354A

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (Module II)
(Safety Engineering and Disaster Management) (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2. Solve any four :

Marks : 40

(45=20)

a) What are the various safety considerations to be kept in mind in regard to electrical
engineering ?
b) Discuss contributions of safety engineering on plant productivity.
c) What are the various types of fires ? What are the strategies to be adopted for fire
prevention ?
d) As an engineer how would you describe safety as an essential parameter in
designing industrial production system.
e) Discuss safety engineering analysis.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) List all of governmental organisations related to disaster management.


b) What is concept of system safety ? Also discuss safety engineering analysis.
c) Discuss organization structure of safety department along with role and
Responsibilities of each position.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 354B

*SLRKM354B*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING MODULE II
Intellectual Property Rights
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015

Max. Marks : 50

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book
Page No. 3.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

1. True or False (any five) :

10

1) The semiconductor integrated circuit layout design act was enacted in year
2000.
2) Trade related aspects of intellectual property act is nothing but the TRIPS.
3) A trademark is a special symbol for distinguishing the goods offered for sale.
4) Trademark includes mark, symbol, name, alphabet, numerical, colour or any
combination.
5) Solapuri chadar is not an example of geographical indication.
6) Berne convention is related to protection of copyrights.
7) The agreement concerning international registration of Trademarks was
adopted in the year 1891 at Madrid.
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 354B

-2-

*SLRKM354B*

8) Design means the shape, pattern, configuration or ornamentation of an


industrial article.
9) Piracy means illegal use of intellectual property.
10) Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas
that are of ethical value.
______________

Set A

*SLRKM354B*

-3-

SLR-KM 354B

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING MODULE II
Intellectual Property Rights
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

2. Attempt following questions (any two) :

20

1) What are the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
Agreement.
2) Explain the procedure for obtaining patents.
3) Discuss the exceptions to copyright infringement.
3. Short notes (any four) :

20

1) Overview of Indian Intellectual Property Act


2) Law of industrial designs
3) Importance of IP rights and patents for engineers
4) Commercial exploitation and infringement
5) Law on Semiconductor layout design
6) Patent on computer programs.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 354 C

*SLRKM354C*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Part II) (Electrical Engg.) (New) Examination, 2015
SELF LEARNING MODULE/VALUE ENGINEERING

Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book Page No.


3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) The technique employed in the job plan is
A) Use good human relation
C) Determine the cost

(101=10)
B) Inspire team work
D) All of above

2) The core of value engg. is substitution by equivalents at


A) Lower costs
B) Higher costs
C) Same costs
D) None of these
3) The same items may have different values to the same person depending on the
A) Time
B) Place
C) Demand and supply position
D) All of above
4) Major consideration for determining value is
A) Performance
B) Cost
C) Both
D) None of these
5) Basic kind of value is
A) Use value
C) Exchange value

B) Esteem value
D) All of above

6) The lowest cost to the reliably provide the required functions or service at the desired
time and place and with essential quality is called
A) Function
B) Value
C) Worth
D) Value gap
7) LCC stands for
A) Life Cycle Cost
C) Life Cost Cycle

B) Low Cost Cycle


D) Low Cycle Cost

8) The term value in value engineering refers to


A) Total cost of product
B) Selling price of product
C) Utility of product
D) Depreciation value
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 354 C

-2-

*SLRKM354C*

9) Value engineering aim at finding out the


A) Depreciation of product
B) Resale value of product
C) Major function of items and accomplishing the same at least cost without change in
quality
D) Selling price of an item
10) The value engineering technique in which experts of the same rank assemble for product
development is called
A) Direct expert comparison
B) Brain storming
C) Delphi
D) Morphological analysis
______________

Set A

*SLRKM354C*

-3-

SLR-KM 354 C

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part II) (Electrical Engg.) (New) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING MODULE/VALUE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Solve any four

Marks : 40

(410=40)

2. What is the proper team size for a VE team, and how long should a VE analysis take ?

10

3. Explain in brief value engineering programs.

10

4. What is value engineering ?

10

5. Write short note on history of value engineering.

10

6. Waht are the different techniques which decide teh sucess or failure of value study ?

10

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 355

*SLRKM355*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015
INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL (Old)

Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) During regenerative braking mode, back emf is _____________ than supply voltage.
a) Less
b) More
c) Equal to
d) None of these
2) What is meant by plugging ?
a) Phase sequence of supply is reversed b) Disconnecting source
c) Stored energy is dissipated
d) All of these
3) Speed control of I.M. drives is possible from
a) Rotor side only
b) Stator side only
c) Stator and Rotor side
d) None of these
4) The ______________ motors, because of their inherent characteristics are best suited
for the rolling mils.
a) dc motors
b) slip ring induction motors
c) squirrel cage induction motors
d) single phase motors
5) The variable frequency supply to I.M. for speed control can be made available using
a) VSI
b) CSI
c) Cycloconverter d) All of these
6) Speed of separately excited motor depend upon
a) Armature voltage b) Flux
c) Both a) and b)

d) Current

7) For plugging operation the armature voltage and back emf are in ___________ direction.
a) Same
b) Opposite
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
8) The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is
a) high power factor b) better efficiency c) lower cost
d) all of the above
dm
9) The torque component J
is called dynamic torque because it is present only
dt
during.
a) Starting
b) Braking
c) Steady state
d) Transient
10) Torque of a Separately excited D.C. Motor is directly proportional to
a) Ia

b) (Ia)2

c)

Ia

d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 355

*SLRKM355*

-2-

11) To save the energy during braking


a) dynamic braking is used
c) regenerative braking is used

b) plugging is used
d) mechanical braking is used

12) Full Converter operates in _______________ and _________________ quadrant.


a) First, Third
b) First, Fourth
c) First, Second
d) Third, Fourth
13) With rotor resistance control using chopper; the equivalent resistance included in the
rotor winding of an I.M. is
a) R +

b) R (1 )

c)

R
(1 )

d) None of these

14) As rotor resistance increases the maximum torque of I.M.


a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not change
d) First increases and then decreases
15) In VSI I.M. drives, r.m.s. value of the fundamental phase voltage is
a)

2
Vd

b)

Vd

16) What is meant by drive ?


a) Motion control
b) Power control

c)

3
Vd
2

c) Voltage control

d)

1
3

Vd

d) None of these

17) To get speed higher than the base speed of the dc shunt motor
a) armature resistance control is used
b) field resistance control is used
c) armature voltage control is used
d) none of these
18) The efficiency by using rotor resistance control in I.M. is
a) High
b) Low
c) Very high

d) None of these

19) Effect of friction torque is more pronounced


a) when drive is running on full load
b) when drive is being started
c) when drive is being stop
d) when drive is running at half the rated speed
20) The equilibrium speed of a motor load system is obtained
a) when motor torque equals the load torque
b) when motor torque is less than the load torque
c) when motor torque is more than the load torque
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM355*

-3-

SLR-KM 355

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Write and explain different parts of electrical drive system.
b) 230 V 960 RPM and 200 A separately excited d.c. motor has an armature resistance of
0.02 Ohm. The motor is fed from chopper which provides both motoring and braking
operations. The source has voltage of 230 V. Assume continuous conduction. Calculate
duty ratio of chopper for motoring operation at rated torque and 350 RPM.
c) To control the speed of separately excited d.c. motor, draw circuit and output voltage and
current waveforms for single phase fully controlled rectifier circuit. Derive expression for
average d.c. voltage.
d) Write factors on which choice of electric drive depends.
e) Explain how moment to inertia is determined experimentally.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Derive the expression for torque and moment of inertia for loads with rotational motion.
b) Explain dual converter control of d.c. separately excited motor for multi quadrant operation.
c) A 220 V d.c. series motor runs at 1000 RPM (clock-wise) and takes an armature current
of 100 A. When driving the load with constant torque. The resistance of the armature and
field winding are 0.05 each and find magnitude and direction of motor speed and armature
current if motor terminal voltage is reversed and Nos. of turns in field winding is reduced
to 80%. Assume linear magnetic circuit.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Draw and explain voltage source inverter fed 3 phase induction motor drive.
b) 2200 V, 2600 kW, 735 RPM, 50 Hz, 8-pole 3 phase squirrel-cage induction motor has
following parameters referred to the stator. Rs = 0.075 Ohm, Rr= 0.1 Ohm, Xs = 0.45 Ohm,
Xr= 0.55 Ohm Stator winding is delta connected. Calculate starting torque and max.
torque as a ratio of rated torque.
c) Explain static kramer speed control of drive system.
d) Explain cycloconverter controlled 3 phase induction motor drive.
e) Give the comparison between VSI and CSI fed drive systems.

Set A

SLR-KM 355

-4-

*SLRKM355*

5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) 440 V, 6 pole, 50 Hz, 970 rpm, star connected wound rotor induction motor has the
following parameters : Rs = 0.1 Ohm, Rr = 0.08 Ohm, Xs = 0.3 Ohm, Xr = 0.4 Ohm.
Stator to rotor turns ratio is 2.0, motor is controlled by static scherbius drive. Drive is
designed for a speed range of 25% below the synchronous speed. Maximum value of
firing angle is 165.
Calculate :
i) Transformer turns ratio
ii) Torque for a speed of 780 rpm and = 140
b) Explain with neat diagram self-controlled synchronous motor drive employing load
commutated inverter.
c) State advantages and disadvantages of stepper motor as drive.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 356

*SLRKM356*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data whenever required.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct option :

20

1) For 8051 timer interrupts the vector locations are


a) 0003H & 0013H
b) 000bH & 0013H
c) 000bH & 001bH
d) 0003h & 001bH
2) The general purpose registers exist in 8051 are
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
3) Highest priority for __________ interrupt in 8051.
a) External interrupt 0
b) Timer 0
c) External interrupt 1
d) Timer 1

d) 34

4) MOV A,@R0 is a example of _________ addressing mode.


a) immediate
b) direct
c) indirect
d) indexed
5) __________ number of address line required to select registers of internal
4K byte of ROM.
a) 10
b) 14
c) 12
d) 16
6) __________ SFR is bit addressable.
a) TCON
b) SP
c) SBUF
d) DPH
7) The I/O ports that are used as address and data bus for external data memory
are
a) PORT 0 &1
b) PORT 1 & 2 c) PORT 0 & 2
d) PORT 0 & 3
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 356

*SLRKM356*

-2-

8) The address space for SFR of 8051 is


a) 00H 7FH
b) 00H 07H
c) 80H FFH

d) 80H 8FH

9) In ACALL instruction the target address of subroutine must be within ________


KB.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 64
d) 8
10) To access the data from on chip ROM the instruction used is
a) MOV
b) MOVX
c) MOVC
d) INC
11) 16F877 _________ has interrupt sources.
a) 13
b) 14
c) 12
d) 10
12) Serial Data Line (SDL) and Serial Clock Line (SCL) can be used by
a) I2C
b) SPI
c) USB
d) SCI
13) In PIC16F877 Port A and D are ___________ bits wide respectively.
a) 6,3
b) 3,8
c) 8,8
d) 6,8
14) Following is 8 bit timer for PIC16F877
a) Timer0
b) Timer1
c) Timer2
d) Both a) and c)
15) The 8051 has maximum stack
a) 128 byte
b) 8 byte

c) 64 byte

d) 4 K byte

16) Before execution of andlw 0 5F the content of working register 0 B3, the
contents after execution will be
a) 5F
b) B3
c) I3
d) None of these
17) The call and GO TO instruction provides __________ bits of address to allow
branching within any _________ program memory page.
a) 13 bit, 8K
b) 16 bit, 64K
c) 11 bit, 2K
d) None of these
18) DS 1307 RTC IC supports
a) USART
b) SPI

c) I2C

d) Both b) and c)

19) PIC 16F877 has internal flash memory of __________ and data memory of
_________ .
a) 8 KB, 64 KB
b) 8 KB, 368 KB
c) 8 KB, 368 byte
d) None of these
20) The Stack Memory of PIC 16F877 is a part of
a) Program memory
b) Data memory
c) either program or data memory
d) Neither program nor data memory
______________

Set A

*SLRKM356*

-3-

SLR-KM 356

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data whenever required.
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain the internal memory structure of 8051.


b) Explain the following instructions :
i) MOVC A,@ A + PC
ii) ANL C, /b
iii) XCH A, RI
c) Explain the SFRs associated with the Timer/Counter of 8051.
d) Explain the PORT 1 structure of 8051.
e) Write ALP to find EVEN and ODD numbers from the block of TEN numbers.
3. a) Interface to 8051 EPROM of 4K and 8K of RAM. Determine the initial and
final address for these memories.

10

b) Explain the interrupt structure of 8051. Write ALP to Display NKOCET on


UART terminal by using the serial interrupt.

10

OR
b) Draw the detailed interfacing diagram of ADC 0809 with 8051 microcontroller.
Write ALP to convert a analog input given at channel 4 and store the result at
internal memory location 40H.

Set A

SLR-KM 356

-4-

*SLRKM356*

4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain different addressing modes of PIC16f877.


b) Explain steps to receive data serially in 8051 and importance of RI flag.
c) Explain the following instructions :
i) btfss
ii) goto
iii) incf
d) Explain the stack of 8051 and its operation.
e) With a neat diagram explain PWM mode of 16f877.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Interface a 16 2 LCD display to 8051 and write a assembly language


program to display YES on it.
b) Draw and explain in detail the architecture of PIC 16F877.
c) Explain in detail timer /counter logic circuit in 8051. Explain the different
modes of timer.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 357

*SLRKM357*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015
ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN (Old)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Whenever necessary make suitable assumptions.
5) Figures to right indicate marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The core and winding of a transformer dissipate heat to surrounding by


a) Convection
b) Conduction
c) Radiation
d) All of these
2) Which of the following material have in the order of increasing the values of permeability ?
a) Air, water, pure iron, permalloy
b) Water, air, pure iron, permalloy
c) Permalloy, air, pure iron, water
d) Pure iron, permalloy, air, water
3) A single phase shell type distribution transformer has sandwich type winding because to
a) save copper
b) to improve voltage regulation
c) to reduce leakage reactance
d) both b and c
4) In a transformer with cruciform core the net iron area is
a) 0.45 d2
b) 0.6 d2
c) 0.62 d2

d) 0.56 d2

5) When a 3 phase induction motor is designed with higher values of Bav it will provide
a) better full load p.f.
b) a higher starting torque
c) higher full load efficiency
d) high overload capacity
6) Which of the following material can be worked with higher flux densities ?
a) Hot rolled silicon steel
b) Cast iron
c) Mild steel
d) Cold rolled grain oriented steel
7) For a overall good design of 3 phase induction motor should have
a) 1.5

b) 1.5 to 2

c) 1.0

L
=

d) 0.8

8) Small air gap length in an induction motor yields _________ power factor and _________
noise.
a) Good, increased
b) Power, increased
c) Good, reduced
d) Poor, reduced
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 357

*SLRKM357*

-2-

9) To avoid cogging in induction motor the difference between stator slots and rotor slots
should not be equal to
a) 3P
b) 5P
c) 2P
d) P
10) Deep and narrow slots are used in 3 phase induction motors for getting
a) High power factor
b) Reduced noise level
c) High starting torque
d) High efficiency
11) An induction motor of 18.5 KW at 750 rpm has an efficiency of 85%. An induction motor of
18.5 KW of 1500 rpm can have efficiency
a) 88%
b) 85%
c) 82%
d) 80%
12) Higher value of current density can be adopted for
a) Forced air cooled transformer
b) Oil immersed self (natural) cooled type transformer
c) Natural oil, forced air type transformer
d) Oil forced, water forced type transformer
13) The best suited motor to drive 3 4 HP air compressor would be
a) Capacitor start 1 phase motor
b) Shaded pole motor
c) Repulsion start motor
d) Resistance split phase motor
14) Single phase induction motor runs normally at 183 radians/sec. on 60 Hz power supply.
How many poles it must have ?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 8
d) 12
15) As compared to capacitor start induction motor or split phase motors, a permanent split
capacitor motor has lower
a) Efficiency
b) Cost
c) Power factor
d) Noise
16) A synchronous motor will have
a) 2 slip rings
b) 3 slip rings

c) No slip ring

d) Four slip ring

17) Rotor of a turbo alternator is made of


a) Cast steel
b) Dynamo steel

c) Forged steel

d) Mild steel

18) Maximum possible peripheral speed of a rotor in a turbo alternator can be


a) 30 m/s
b) 50 m/s
c) 120 m/s
d) 175 m/s
19) In synchronous generator in order to eliminate the 5th harmonic the chording angle should
be
a) 27
b) 18
c) 90
d) 36
20) Turbo alternators have
a) Large diameter and large core length
b) Small diameter and small core length
c) Small diameter and large core length
d) Large diameter and small core length
______________

Set A

*SLRKM357*

-3-

SLR-KM 357

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Whenever necessary make suitable assumptions.
3) Figures to right indicate marks.
2. Attempt any four :

20

a) Explain in brief various methods of cooling the power transformers.


b) Explain the various properties of transformer oil used for power transformer, indicate their
standard values.
c) Derive the output equation of a single phase transformer.
d) Discuss the factors which governs the choice (selection) of specific loadings for a 3
phase induction motor.
e) Find the current in the bars and end rings of a cage rotor of a 8 pole 3 phase induction
motor having 72 stator slots with 15 conductors in each slot, if the stator current per
phase is 20 A and rotor slots are 55. Hence find the suitable size of cage bars and end
rings.
f)

Calculate no load current of 400 V, 50 Hz, 1 phase core type transformer, the particular of
which are as follows :
Length of mean magnetic path 200 cm, gross core section 100 cm2, joints equivalent to
0.1 mm air gap, maximum flux density of 0.7 Wb/m2 specific core loss at 50 Hz and
0.7 Wb/m2 is 0.5 watts/kg, ampere turns 2.2 per cm for 0.7 Wb/m2, power factor 0.9,
density of core material is 7.5 103 kg/m3.

3. Attempt any two :

20

a) Estimate the dimensions of stator core (D&L) no. of stator slots and no. of stator conductors
per slot for a 100 KW, 3300 V, 50 Hz, 12 poles star connected slip ring induction motor.
Assume Bav = 0.4 Wb/m2, ac = 25000 A/m, efficiency = 0.9, p.f. = 0.9, winding factor = 0.96.
Choose main dimensions to give best p.f.
b) A tank of 575 KVA natural oil cooled type transformer has the dimensions, length, width
and height as 105 cm, 65 cm and 150 cm respectively. The full load loss is 6.5 KW. Find
suitable arrangement of 5 cm diameter tubes spaced 7.5 cm between tubes and average
length of each tube 127.5 cm. Assume watts/m/C due to radiation = 6, improvement in
cooling due to provision of tubes = 35%, mean temperature rise = 35C.

Set A

SLR-KM 357

*SLRKM357*

-4-

c) Calculate the main dimensions, air gap length, no. of stator slots, stator winding turns per
phase and cross section area of stator winding for a 3 phase 20 HP, 400 V, 6 pole, 50 Hz,
970 rpm induction motor suitable for star-delta starting. Assume Bav = 0.45 Wb/m2
ac = 23000 A/m and ration of core length to pole pitch

L
= 0.85 , full load efficiency 0.88

and p.f. = 0.89.


4. Attempt any 4 questions :

20

a) Define the terms specific magnetic loading and specific electric load and derive the output
equation of a single phase induction motor.
b) Draw a neat circuit diagram for shaded pole single phase induction motor, explain in brief
its working principle and construction.
c) What is meant by SCR of an alternator ? Discuss its significance in relation to, stability,
voltage regulation and parallel operation of synchronous generators.
d) Discuss the factors that determine the selection of specific magnetic and electric loadings
in the design of synchronous machines.
e) Find the main dimensions of a 100 MVA, 5 MKV, 50 Hz, 40 pole salient pole generator
assuming air gap flux density as 40,000 per meter. The peripheral speed should not exceed
60 m/sec.
f)

A 500 KVA, 3.3 KV, 50 Hz, 600 rpm, 3 phase salient pole alternator has 180 turns per
phase. Estimate the length of air gap if the average flux density is 0.54 Wb/m2, the ratio of
pole area to pole pitch is 0.66. SCR = 1.2 and the gap extension coefficient is 1.15. The
mmf required for air gap is 80% of no load field mmf. The winding factor = 0.955.

5. Attempt any two questions :

20

a) Calculate the diameter, core length, no. of conductors of stator winding, size of conductor,
no. of stator slots of 30 MVA, 11 KV, 3000 rpm, 50 Hz star connected turbo alternator.
Assume the following data.
Bav = 0.55 Wb/m2, ac = 55000 A/m, Kw = 0.955, peripheral velocity = 160 m/sec.
b) Calculate the main dimensions of a 750 W, single phase induction motor in mm at 1440 rpm.
The available supply is 230 V at 50 Hz, its efficiency and power factor should be about
70%. Calculate no. of turns required for this motor.
c) Explain double revolving field theory and based on the same draw the equivalent circuit
diagram of single phase induction motor, hence show that
X
j m
2

Zf =

r2

+ j
S

r2
+ jX 2

Xm
+ X 2
2

X r
j m 2 + jX 2

2 2S

Zb =

r2
X

+ j m + X 2
2S 2

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 358

*SLRKM358*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Part I) (Electrical) (Old) Examination, 2015


POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Attempt all :

20

1) Which of the following component, in a steam power plant needs maximum maintenance
attention ?
a) Steam turbine
b) Condenser
c) Water Treatment Plant
d) Boiler
2) In India largest thermal power station is located at
a) Chandrapur
b) Kota
c) Neyveli

d) Sami

3) Most of the generators in thermal power plant run at


a) 15000 rpm
b) 3000 rpm
c) 1500 rpm

d) 1000 rpm

4) Which of the following power plant has minimum running cost ?


a) Nuclear Power Plant
b) Hydro electric Power Plant
c) Diesel Power Plant
d) Thermal Power Plant
5) Which of the following power plant is most reliable ?
a) Diesel
b) Hydro electric
c) Steam
d) Tidal
6) The highest initial cost is involved in erecting
a) Hydro Power Plant
b) Nuclear Power Point
c) Steam Power Plant
d) Gas turbine Power Plant
7) The annual depreciation on an hydro electric power plant is
a) 20 25%
b) 15 20%
c) 10 15%

d) 1 2%

8) In an hydro-electric power plant a conduct system for carrying water from the intake to
the turbine is
a) Reservoir
b) Penstock
c) Dam
d) Surge tank
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 358

*SLRKM358*

-2-

9) The function of a surge tank is to


a) Supply water at constant pressure
b) Relieve water hammer pressures in the penstock pipe
c) Produce surge in the pipe line
d) None of the above
10) A graphical representation of the discharge and time is known as
a) Load curve
b) Load duration curve
c) Hydrograph
d) Hectograph
11) Turbines installed at Bhakra Nanqal are
a) Pelton wheels
c) Kaplan turbines

b) Francis turbines
d) Propeller turbines

12) The nuclear power plants have


a) High initial cost
c) Low operation cost

b) High maintenance cost


d) All of the above

13) The nuclear energy is measured in


a) MeV
c) MJ

b) MW
d) None of the above

14) Nuclear reactors usually employ


a) Fission
c) Both fission and fusion

b) Fusion
d) None of the above

15) The function of moderator in a nuclear reactor is to


a) Start chain reaction
b) Stop chain reaction
c) Control the reaction
d) Transfer heat produced inside the reactor to heat exchanger
16) Which of the following power plants operated on low speed ?
a) Hydro
b) Steam
c) Nuclear

d) Gas Turbine

17) Load factor of a power station is defined as


a) Maximum demand/average load
b) Average load maximum demand
c) Average load/maximum demand
d) (Average load maximum demand)1/2
18) Nuclear power plant is invariably used as an
a) Peak load plant
b) Base load plant
c) Standby plant
d) Emergency plant
19) Which of the following power plant has instant starting ?
a) Nuclear Power Plant
b) Hydro electric Power Plant
c) Diesel Power Plant
d) None of these
20) A hydro electric power station is commonly found in
a) Desert areas
b) Hilly areas
c) Swamps
______________

d) Grasslands

Set A

*SLRKM358*

-3-

SLR-KM 358

Seat
No.

B.E. (Part I) (Electrical) (Old) Examination, 2015


POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Explain air preheater with schematic diagram.


2) Write a short note on tidal power generation.
3) Explain the term interest and depreciation as applied to the economics of power generation.
4) Explain Economizer in boiler.
5) What is circulation ratio ? Mention the range in which the circulation ratio should vary ?
3. Solve the following (any two) :

(102=20)

a) Classify different types of steam generators. Explain water tube boiler with their advantages
and disadvantages.
b) A steam power plant has an installed capacity of 120 MW and maximum demand of 100 MW.
The coal consumption is 0.4 Kg per kWh and cost of coal is Rs. 180 per tonne. The
annual expenses on salary bill of staff and other overhead charges excluding cost of coal
are Rs. 50 * 10 5 . The power station works at a load factor of 0.5 and capital cost of
power station is Rs. 4 * 10 5 . If rate of interest and depreciation is 10%. Determine cost
of generating kWh.
c) Explain different types of super heaters. Explain Re-Heater.

Set A

SLR-KM 358

-4-

*SLRKM358*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain the major equipments for thermal power plant in brief.


b) Classify Hydro Power Plant.
c) Explain briefly the operation of governor and speed regulation.
d) What are the main equipment in a coal handling plant ?
e) Explain the different factors affecting to pollution.
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) Draw the schematic layout of nuclear power plant. Explain major equipment used in
nuclear power plant.
b) Explain types of turbine used in hydro power plant. Explain briefly anyone with their
advantages and disadvantages.
c) Explain the need of diesel power plant. Explain the equipment used in diesel power
plant. What are the applications of diesel power plant ?
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 359

*SLRKM359*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


Elective I : EXTRA HIGH VOLTAGE AC TRANSMISSION
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The radio interference level is governed by


a) Amplitude of single phase
b) Wave shape of single pulse
c) Repetitive nature of pulse
d) All of these
2) Which element has flat frequency response up to 1000 MHz ?
a) Bifilar shunt
b) Co-axial shunt
c) Squirrel cage shunt
d) Rogowski coil
3) A sphere-sphere gap is used in HV laboratories for
a) Measurement of EHV
b) Calibrating other measuring apparatus
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
4) The impulse ratio of rod gap is
a) Unity
c) Between 2.0 and 2.2

b) Between 1.2 and 1.5


d) Between 1.6 and 1.8

5) The type of EHV cable is


a) High pressure oil filled
c) Gas insulated lines

b) Cross linked polythelene


d) All of the above

6) The allowable noise level at one MHz is


a) 22 dB
b) 26 dB
c) 30 dB

d) 32 dB

7) The conductivity of moist is of magnitude


a) 101 mho/metre b) 100 mho/metre c) 102 mho/metre d) 103 mho/metre
8) The function of steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to
a) Compensate for skin effect
b) Take care of surges
c) Provide additional mechanical strength
d) Reduce inductance
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 359

*SLRKM359*

-2-

9) In general method of Laplace transform the series and shunt impedance operator
per unit length of line is
a) z(s) = r + l(s)
b) y(s) = g + c(s) c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
10) The conductivity of moist soil is
a) 100
c) 102

b) 101
d) 103

11) First mode of propagation is called as


a) Line to ground b) Line to line

c) Homopolar

d) Both a) and c)

12) For 100% series compensation, resonance occur at


a) Power frequency
b) 50% of power frequency
c) 40% of power frequency
d) None of the above
13) Reflection coefficient of voltage (Kr) for open circuit is
a) 0
b) +2
c) +1

d) 1

14) For Aeolian vibration the frequency of vibration is usually limited to ________ Hz
and the amplitudes less than ______ cm.
a) 50 Hz, 2.5 cm
b) 25 Hz, 2.5 cm c) 20 Hz, 2.5 cm d) 50 Hz, 3.5 cm
15) The voltage measurement using spark gap are
a) Affected by nearby objects
b) Affected by polarity of supply
c) Affected by dust particles
d) All of above
16) The dimensions of constants B and C are respectively ______ and _________
a) Ohm, Siemen
b) Mho, Siemen
c) Both are dimensionless
d) Siemen, Ohm
17) In lossless transmission line theoretically have
a) r = 1 = 0
b) 1 = g = 0
c) g = c = 0

d) r = g = 0

18) The main drawback of overhead system over underground system is


a) Underground system is more flexible than overhead system
b) Higher charging current
c) Surge problem
d) High initial cost
19) Length of buried horizontal wires in soil is
a) 50 70 m
b) 50 100 m
c) 50 150 m
d) 50 200 m
20) The cause of reflected and refracted wave is
a) Discontinuity at the junction
b) Lighting effect
c) Switching surge
d) None of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM359*

SLR-KM 359

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


Elective I : EXTRA HIGH VOLTAGE AC TRANSMISSION
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Write short notes on any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain in detail the advantages and disadvantages of high voltages.


b) Limits for radio interference.
c) Brief the charge potential relations of the multi conductor lines.
d) Explain reflection and refraction of travelling waves.
e) Explain lightening stroke mechanism.
f) Explain field of sphere gap.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain open ended line Double exponential response.


b) Derive the expressions for resistance and inductance of ground return.
c) Derive the expression Pc =

1
KC Vm2 V02 for the energy loss from charge-voltage
2

diagram.
SECTION II
4. Write short notes on any four :

(45=20)

a) Expression for generalized constants.


b) The gap less metal oxide arrester.
Set A

SLR-KM 359

-4-

*SLRKM359*

c) Reduction of switching surge over voltages.


d) Describe the insulation co-ordination and over voltage protection based on lightning.
e) Explain in detail tower footing resistance.
f) Ferro resonance voltages.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain in brief the sinusoidal excitation-lumped parameter circuits.


b) What are the factors under steady state in design of EHV lines ?
c) 100 MVA 230 KV 50 Hz transformer has Xf = 12% and is connected to a line 200 Km
long which has an inductance of 1 mH/Km. The filter connected to the L.V. side
33 KV of the transformer, is required to suppress the 5th harmonic generated by
the TCR to 1% of In. Calculate the value of filter capacitor if the filter inductance
used in 2 mH.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 360

*SLRKM360*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


HIGH VOLTAGE ENGINEERING (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) SF6 is a
a) neutral gas
c) ionizes easily to form ions

(201=20)
b) electronegative gas
d) non-attaching gas

2) Paschens law states that


a) breakdown voltage is a function of electric field
b) breakdown voltage is a function of pd
c) and depends on E/p
d) electronegative gases have high breakdown voltage
3) Ionization coefficients , are functions of
a) applied voltage
b) pressure and temperature
c) electric field
d) ratio of electric field to pressure
4) For a 1 cm gap in air at 760 mm pressure and 20C temperature, the breakdown voltage
is
a) 24 kV
b) 30.3 kV
c) 22.92 kV
d) 40 kV
5) The requirement of gases for insulation purpose is
a) high dielectric strength and thermal stability
b) high dielectric strength only
c) high thermal stability
d) high thermal stability and low temperature condensation
6) Maximum dielectric strength obtained with pure liquids is about
a) 100 kV/mm
b) 10 kV/mm
c) 1 MV/mm

d) 50 kV/mm

7) Which of the following property is important for a liquid to be used both for electrical
insulation and cooling purposes ?
a) Thermal conductivity
b) Viscosity
c) Viscosity temperature characteristics
P.T.O.
d) Breakdown strength

SLR-KM 360

-2-

*SLRKM360*

8) Conduction and breakdown in commercial liquids is affected by


a) Solid particles
b) Vapour or air bubbles
c) Electrode material
d) All of the above three factors a, b and c
9) The usual mechanism of breakdown in solid dielectrics is
a) Intrinsic breakdown
b) Electromechanical breakdown
c) Thermal breakdown
d) Chemical breakdown
10) Breakdown due to internal discharges develops
a) In milliseconds
b) In few seconds
c) Over a long duration of several days
d) All of the above
11) Breakdown is permanent in _______
a) Gases
b) Liquids
c) Solids
d) In all the three
12) In testing with a resonant transformer, the output voltage is
a) Rectangular wave
b) Triangular wave
c) Trapezoidal wave
d) Pure sine wave
13) Tesla coil is used for
a) Generation of sinusoidal output voltages
b) Generation of very high voltage
c) Generation of rectangular voltages
d) Generation of high frequency ac voltages
14) Time to front of a impulse voltage waveform is defined as the
a) 1.25 times the interval between 0.1 to 0.9 of peak value
b) Time interval between 0.1 to 0.9 of peak value
c) 1.67 times the interval between 0.1 to 0.9 of peak value
d) 1.25 times the interval between 0.3 to 0.9 of peak value
15) A generating voltmeter is used to measure
a) Impulse voltages
b) AC voltages
c) DC voltages
d) High frequency AC voltages
16) Sphere gaps are used to measure
a) DC voltages
b) AC peak voltages
c) DC, AC peak and impulse voltages
d) None of above
17) With a series capacitor voltmeter a large error will result in when the
a) capacitance is large
b) meter used is an electromechanical meter
c) voltage to be measured is non-sinusoidal and contains harmonics
d) none of the above
18) A series capacitance voltmeter can measure
a) DC voltages
b) AC voltages (rms value)
c) AC voltages (peak value)
d) Impulse voltages
19) Fifty percent flashover voltage is defined as
a) the voltage at which flashover probability is 0.5
b) the voltage at which corona discharge appears before flashover
c) the voltage eat which the flashover occurs alternatively when applied several times
d) the average value of withstand voltage and flashover voltage
20) The salt-fog test done on insulation is
a) impulse test
b) power frequency pollution test
c) impulse current test
d) switching surge test

______________

Set A

*SLRKM360*

-3-

SLR-KM 360

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


HIGH VOLTAGE ENGINEERING (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
a) Explain the following ionization processes in gaseous dielectric medium
i) Ionization by electron collision
ii) Photo-ionization; and
iii) Ionization by interaction of metastable with gas molecules.
b) Write a note on methods of purification of liquid dielectrics.
c) What are the advantages of using plastic film insulation ?
d) Explain post breakdown phenomenon and its application.
e) What are the special features of epoxy resin insulation ?
3. (a) is compulsory, attempt Q. (b) OR Q. (c).

(45=20)

(210=20)

a) Define Townsends first and second ionization coefficients. How is the condition for breakdown
in a Townsend discharge ? State limitations of Townsend discharge theory.
b) State and explain the different mechanisms by which breakdown occurs in solid dielectrics.
State the applications of solid dielectrics materials.
OR
c) Explain the phenomena of electrical conduction in liquids. Also explain various theories
that explain breakdown in commercial liquid dielectrics.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain Marks circuit of the impulse generator for the generation of impulse wave. What
do you understand by 1.2/50 sec wave ?
b) What are different power frequency tests done on insulators ? Mention the procedure for
testing.
c) Explain Sphere gaps for measurement of High dc, ac and impulse voltage.
d) What is surge diverter ? Explain its function as a shunt protective device.
e) Explain tripping and control of impulse generator.

Set A

SLR-KM 360

-4-

*SLRKM360*

5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain the power frequency voltage tests and impulse voltage tests on bushing and
circuit breakers.
b) With reference to high voltage testing, explain the following terms :
i) Withstand voltage
ii) Flashover votlage
iii) 50% flashover voltage
c) Describe the various methods for the measurement of high d.c. voltages.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 361

*SLRKM361*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL DRIVES AND CONTROL
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Attempt all questions :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) When smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired, the motor
preferred is
A) synchronous motor
B) squirrel cage induction motor
C) wound rotor induction motor
D) dc motor
2) The consideration involved in the selection of the type of electric drive for a particular
application depends on
A) Speed control range and its nature B) Starting torque
C) Both A and B
D) All of the above
3) A motor of less than full load power rating can be used if the load is
A) continuous duty
B) short time duty
C) intermittent periodic duty
D) none of these
4) To get speed higher than the base speed of the dc shunt motor
A) armature resistance control is used B) field resistance control is used
C) armature voltage control is used
D) none of these
5) Effect of friction torque is more pronounced
A) when the drive is running on full speed
B) when the drive is being started
C) when the drive is being stopped
D) when the drive at half of its normal speed
6) Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives ?
A) Synchronous motors
B) Squirrel cage induction motor
C) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors D) Any of the above
7) A separately excited dc motor fed from 1 phase full converter with firing angle
60 degree runs at 1000 rpm. If this motor is connected to 1 phase semi converter
with the same firing angle, the motor would now run at
A) 2000 rpm
B) 1500 rpm
C) 1450 rpm
D) 1000 rpm

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 361

*SLRKM361*

-2-

8) A 6 pulse non reversible thyristorised 415 v ac converter is controlling a 440 v dc


motor. If the total drop in the circuit is limited to 10 % then the converter must be
locked at an angle of
A) 30
B) 60
C) 45
D) 90
9) Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for
A) fan and pump drives
B) drive of a crane
C) running it as generator
D) constant load drive
10) Slip power control scheme provide a range of speed control of a three phase IM.
The range is
A) 0 to Ns
B) Ns to Ns
C) 0 to 2Ns
D) 2Ns to 2Ns
11) PWM techniques in inverter is used for
A) Harmonics reduction
B) Higher o/p frequency
C) Improve efficiency
D) All of the above
12) Efficiency by using rotor resistance control in IM is
A) High
B) Low
C) Very High

D) Very Low

13) In single pulse modulation of PWM inverter fifth harmonic can be eliminated if
pulse width is equal to
A) 30
B) 72
C) 36
D) 108
14) For plugging of IM the slip range is
A) 0 to 1
B) less than 0

C) 2 S

D) both A and B

15) A delta connected IM being fed by a three phase AC to DC inverter and operated
in constant V/f mode requires during starting
A) star delta starter
B) autotransformer starter
C) rotor resistance starter
D) DOL starter
16) Which of the following motor is preferred for synthetic fibre mills ?
A) series motor
B) reluctance motor
C) shunt motor
D) synchronous motor
17) The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is
A) high power factor
B) better efficiency
C) lower cost
D) all of the above
18) BLDC motor drive will be fed from
A) 0 conduction mode of inverter
C) 60 conduction mode of inverter

B) 120 conduction mode of inverter


D) 180 conduction mode of inverter

19) The efficiency of reluctance motor is around


A) 95 %
B) 90 %
C) 75 to 85 %

D) 60 to 75 %

20) For 1.8 step, two phase bipolar stepper motor, the stepping rate is 100 steps/sec.
the rotational speed of motor in rpm is
A) 15 rpm
B) 30 rpm
C) 60 rpm
D) 90 rpm

______________
Set A

*SLRKM361*

-3-

SLR-KM 361

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL DRIVES AND CONTROL
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain how moment of inertia is determined experimentally.


2) A drive has the following parameters T = 150 0.1 N, N-m where N is speed in
rpm, load torque T1 = 100 N 1 initially the drive is operating in steady-state. The
characteristics of load torque are changed to T1 = 100 N 1. Calculate initial and
final equilibrium speeds.
3) What are the main factors which decide the choice of electrical drive for a given
application ?
4) A 220 v, 1500 rpm, 10 A, separately excited dc motor is fed from a single phase
fully-controlled rectifier with an source voltage of 230 V, 50 Hz. Ra = 2 ohm.
Assuming continuous conduction calculate firing angle for half to rated torque and
500 rpm.
5) With the help of neat sketch explain four quadrant operation of dc drive employing
dual converter.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) Derive the following expression for critical value of speed which separates
continuous conduction at discontinuous conduction for a given firing angle in
case of single phase fully controlled DC motor rectifier drive.
mc =

Ra Vm
ZK

1 + e cot

e cot 1

sin ( )

Set A

SLR-KM 361

-4-

*SLRKM361*

2) A 220 V, 1500 rpm, 50 A separately excited motor with armature resistance of 0.5
ohm is fed from a three phase fully controlled rectifier. Available AC source has
440 V, 50 Hz. A star delta connected transformer is used to feed the armature so
that motor terminal voltage equals rated voltage when converter firing angle is
zero.
a) Calculate transformer turns ratio.
b) Determine firing angle when motor is running at 1200 rpm and rated torque.
c) Determine firing angle when motor is running at 800 rpm and twice the rated
torque.
3) A 230 V, 960 rpm and 200 A separately excited motor with armature resistance of
0.02 ohm is fed from a chopper which provides both motoring and braking
operations. The source has voltage of 230 V. Assuming continuous conduction
a) Calculate duty ratio of chopper for motoring operation at rated torque and
350 rpm.
b) Calculate duty ratio of chopper for braking operation at rated torque and
350 rpm.
c) If motor is operated in dynamic braking with chopper control with braking
resistance of 2 ohm calculate duty ratio of chopper for 600 rpm speed and braking
torque of twice the rated value.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of battery operated drive system.


2) Draw and explain cycloconverter fed three phase induction motor drive.
3) Star connected squirrel cage induction motor has following ratings and parameters,
400 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole 1370 rpm.
Rs = 2 ohm, Rr = 3 ohm, Xs = Xr = 3.5 ohm, for regenerative braking operation
detennine approximate values of
i) Speed for the frequency of 30 Hz and 80 % of full load torque
ii) Frequency for the speed of 1000 RPM and full load torque.
4) Explain brushless D.C. motor drives.
5) A 500 kw, 3 phase 3.3 kv, 50 Hz, 0.8 lagging power factor, 4 pole star connected
synchronous motor has following parameters :
Xs = 15 ohm, Rs = 0. Rated field current is 10 A. Calculate armature current and
power factor at half the rated torque and rated field current.

Set A

*SLRKM361*

-5-

SLR-KM 361

5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) With neat circuit diagram and current wave explain CSI fed induction motor
drive.
2) A 3 phase 400 V 6 pole 50 Hz delta connected slip ring induction motor has rotor
resistance of 0.2 ohm and leakage reactance of one ohm per phase referred to
stator. When driving a fan load it runs at full load at 4 % slip. What resistance must
be inserted in the rotor circuit to obtain a speed of 850 rpm stator to rotor turns ratio
is 2.2.
3) A 440 V, 50 Hz, 970 rpm, 6 pole star connected three phase wound rotor induction
motor has following parameters referred to stator :
Rr = 0.1 ohm, Rr = 0.08 ohm, Xs = 0.3 ohm, Xr = 0.4 ohm
The stator to rotor turns ratio is 2. Motor speed is controlled by static scherbius
drive. Drive is designed for a speed range of 25 % below the synchronous speed.
Maximum value of firing angle is 165 calculate transformer turns ratio, torque for a
speed of 780 rpm and = 140
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 362

*SLR-KM-362*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


SWITCH GEAR AND PROTECTION (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer :
(201=20)
1) Operation of fuse is based upon
a) Photo-electric effect
b) Heating effect of electric current
c) Magnetic effect of electric current
d) None of the above
2) A circuit breaker is essentially
a) an arc extinguisher
b) a current interrupting device
c) a power factor correcting device d) a device for neutralizing the effects of transients
3) When a fault occurs in a high voltage transmission line, first the
a) Circuits breaker operates then the relay
b) Relay operates then the circuit breaker
c) Relay operates, then successively the isolator and the circuit breaker
d) Isolator operates, then successively the relay and the circuit breaker
4) The transient voltage that appears across the contacts at the instant of arc extinction is
known as __________ voltage.
a) Flash-over
b) Restriking
c) Recovery
d) Breaking
5) The arc voltage in circuit breaker is
a) In the phase with the arc current
b) Lagging the arc current by 90
c) Leading the arc current by 90
d) Lagging the arc current by 180
6) In connection with the arc extinction in the circuit breaker, resistance switching is employed
where in a resistance is placed in parallel with the poles of the circuit breaker as shown in
the figure. This process introduces damping in the L-C circuit. For critical damping, the
value of r should be equal to

a)

C/L

b) 0.5 C / L

c) 0.5

L
C

d)

1
2

L/C
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 362

*SLR-KM-362*

-2-

7) The single most important property that makes SF6 a very efficient medium for circuit
breaking is
a) it is non-toxic and non-inflammable
b) it has high dielectric constant
c) it has high breakdown strength
d) it is highly electro-negative in character
8) A Buchholz relay is used for
a) Protection of transformer against all internal faults
b) Protection of transformer against all external faults
c) Protection of transformer against both internal and external faults
d) Protection of induction motors
9) Directional over-current relay is used for protection of
a) long transmission line
b) large power transformer
c) ring main distribution line
d) Radial distribution line
10) Mho relay is normally used for the protection of
a) Short transmission lines
b) Medium transmission lines
c) Long transmission lines
d) No length criterion
11) Differential relays are used for protection of equipment against
a) internal faults
b) over-current
c) reverse current

d) reverse power

12) The protection from negative sequence current is provided for


a) Transformer
b) Transmission lines c) Motors

d) Generators

13) In Merz-price percentage differential protection of Y transformer, the CT secondaries


connection in the primary and secondary winding of the transformer would be in the
form of
a) Y
b) Y
c)
d) Y Y
14) Graded time lag over-current relaying without directional features can be employed for
protection of
a) Ring mains
b) Parallel feeders c) Radial feeders
d) None of the above
15) The normal frequency rms voltage that appears across the circuit breaker pole after final
arc extinction has occurred is called the _____________ voltage.
a) Supply
b) Restriking
c) Recovery
d) Breaking
16) In a circuit breaker, ionization is facilitated by
a) Increase in field strength
c) High temperature of surrounding medium

b) Increase of mean free length


d) All of the above

17) The resistance of an electric arc can be increased by


a) increasing the concentration of ionized particles b) reducing the arc length
c) splitting the arc
d) increasing the arc x-section
18) The rate of rise of restriking voltage (RRRV) depends upon
a) System voltage
b) Circuit pf only
c) Switching condition only d) Both b) and c)
19) The pressure of SF6 gas in circuit breaker is around
a) 0.25 kg/cm2
b) 1 kg/cm2
c) 4 kg/cm2

d) 40 kg/cm2

20) If the time of operation of a relay for unity TMS is 10s, the time of operation for 0.4 TMS will be
a) 4s
b) 25s
c) 10s
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-362*

-3-

SLR-KM 362

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


SWITCH GEAR AND PROTECTION (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

2. Answer the following (one four) :

(45=20)

1) What is protective relay ? Explain its function in an electrical system.


2) Explain what do you understand by primary and backup protection ? What are the various
methods of providing backup protection ?
3) Draw and explain the principle of operation of an induction type over current relay.
4) Explain what are amplitude comparator and phase comparators ?
5) Describe the realization of a directional over current relay using a microprocessor.
3. Answer the following (any two) :

(210=20)

1) Discuss the protective scheme for parallel feeders.


2) Why the percentage (biased) differential relay is preferred over the simple differential relay ?
3) Explain with the block diagram static type inverse time over current relay.
4. Answer the following (any four) :

(45=20)

1) What is a circuit breaker ? Describe its operating principle.


2) Define and explain the following terms as applied to circuit breakers :
a) Arc voltage
b) Restriking voltage
c) Recovery voltage
3) Discuss the principle of operation of an air blast circuit breaker. What are the advantages
and disadvantages of using air as the arc quenching medium ?
4) Write short notes on the following :
a) Resistance switching
b) Circuit breaker rating.
5) What is meant by basic impulse insulation level ?

Set A

SLR-KM 362

-4-

5. Answer the following (any two) :

*SLR-KM-362*
(210=20)

1) What is resistance switching ? Derive the expression for critical resistance in terms of
system inductance and capacitance, which gives no transient oscillation.
2) Explain the following terms :
a) Minimum fusing current
b) Rated current
c) Fusing factor
d) Prospective current
e) Cut-off current.
3) For a 132 kV system, the reactance and capacitance up to the location of the circuit
breaker is 3 ohms and 0.015 F, respectively. Calculate the following :
a) The frequency of transient oscillation.
b) The maximum value of restriking voltage across the contacts of the circuit breaker.
c) The maximum value of RRRV.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 363

*SLRKM363*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL UTILIZATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
I.

Marks : 20

Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The normal value of coefficient of adhesion for wet rails is


a) 0.25
b) 0.15
c) 0.08

d) 0.14

2) The area under speed-time curve represents


a) Distance
b) Acceleration
c) Power

d) Velocity

3) The system which uses electrical energy is known as


a) Electric traction system
b) Non-electric traction system
c) Both a) b)
d) None of these
4) The block diagram of AC LOCOMOTIVE consists
a) Pantograph
b) Circuit breakers
c) Transformer
d) All of these
5) The total weight to be carried on the driving wheels is known as
a) Dead weight
b) Adhesive weight
c) Accelerating weight
d) None of these
6) The specific energy consumption for suburban services is usually __________
watt hours per tonne km.
a) 20 30
b) 30 45
c) 50 75
d) 100 150
7) The specific energy consumption for main line services is around __________
watt hours per tonne-km.
a) 20 30
b) 30 45
c) 50 75
d) 100 150
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 363

*SLRKM363*

-2-

8) When two or more motors are used for traction service the method of speed control
used will
a) Rheostatic control
b) Series-parallel control
c) Field control
d) Motor generator control
9) The advantages of series-parallel starting is are
a) Small energy loss and higher efficiency
b) Economical speed control
c) Higher reliability of operation
d) All of the above
10) Parallel operation of traction motors is easier with
a) DC shunt motor
b) DC series motor
c) Induction motor
d) None of these
11) The unit of solid angle is
a) Solid angle
b) Radian

c) Steradian

d) Candela

12) One lumen per square meter is the same as


a) One lux
b) One candela c) One foot candle d) One lumen meter
13) The most modern method for food processing is
a) Induction heating
b) Resistance heating
c) Dielectric heating
d) Eddy current heating
14) The power factor will be leading in case of
a) Induction heating
b) Resistance heating
c) Dielectric heating
d) Electric Arc heating
15) The method suitable for heating of conducting medium is
a) Induction heating
b) Indirect Arc heating
c) Radiant heating
d) Eddy current heating
16) The tips of the electrodes, for spot welding are made of
a) Carbon
b) Copper alloy
c) Mica
17) Spot welding
a) Makes the weld air tight
c) Provides mechanical strength

d) Porcelain

b) Makes the weld water tight


d) All of these

18) When a sodium vapour lamp is switched on, initially the colour is
a) Pink
b) Yellow
c) Green
d) Blue
19) Power factor is highest in case of
a) Mercury arc lamp
c) Tube lights

b) Sodium vapour lamps


d) GLS lamps

20) The main application of indirect arc furnace is to melt


a) Iron
b) Steel
c) Non-ferrous metals
d) None of these

______________

Set A

*SLRKM363*

-3-

SLR-KM 363

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL UTILIZATION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
II. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain different systems of traction.


b) An electric train has an average speed of 42 km/h on a level track between stops
1400 m apart. It is accelerated at 1.7 km/h/s and is braked at 3.3 km/h/s. Draw the
speed-time curve for the run.
c) Explain with neat sketch Plugging.
d) Classify transition methods. Explain open-circuit transition in detail.
e) Explain plain rheostatic starting.
f) Derive expression for energy output from driving axles.

III. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain quadrilateral speed-time curve. Derive expression for total distance


travelled in km.
b) Explain with neat sketch multiple unit control.
c) Determine specific energy output by using simplified speed-time curve.

Set A

SLR-KM 363

-4-

*SLRKM363*

SECTION II
IV. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain laws of illumination.


b) Give short note on motor selection in rolling mills.
c) Compare tungsten filament lamp and fluorescent tubes.
d) Explain energy conservation in legislation.
e) Explain with neat sketch direct resistance heating.
f) Explain with neat sketch resistance welding.

V. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) i) Compare resistance welding and Arc welding.


ii) Compare DC welding and AC welding.
b) Define and explain :
i) Candela
ii) Reduction factor
iii) Maintenance factor
iv) Absorption factor
v) Illumination.
c) i) Explain energy conservation in small scale industries.
ii) Explain motor selection in sugar mills.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 364

*SLRKM364*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Part I) (Electrical Engineering) (New) Examination, 2015
(Elective I) PLC AND SCADA

Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Make suitable assumptions if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) __________ Programming used in PLC.
a) Natural language such as English
c) Relay-ladder logic

(201=20)
b) C language
d) None of the above

2) Actuators are interfaced with which card of PLC ?


a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card
3) PLC scan cycle consist of
a) Check input status
c) Update output status

d) Power supply

b) Execute program
d) All the above

4) To increase the number of inputs and outputs of the PLC, one can use expansion modules.
a) True
b) False
c) Data Insufficient d) None of the above
5) ___________ instructions is used to program a time delay to begin after rung input
goes true.
a) ON delay timer
b) Off delay timer c) Pulse timer
d) Repetitive timer
6) Figure shows the ladder logic for

a) NAND Gate

b) Ex-NOR Gate

c) Ex-OR Gate

d) NOR Gate

7) __________ is portion of processor memory, where the status of output devices is stored.
a) Input image file
b) Output image file
c) Input module
d) Output module
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 364

*SLRKM364*

-2-

8) Why are the pulse width modulated outputs required in most of the applications ?
a) To control average value of an input variables
b) To control average value of output variables
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
9) VFD Stand for
a) Variable long dog
c) Variable frequency drive

b) Variable air volume


d) Variable frequency motor

10) Figure shows the ladder logic for

a) NAND Gate

b) Ex-NOR Gate

c) Ex-OR Gate

d) AND Gate

11) What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device ?
a) RARP
b) ARP
c) IP
d) ICMP
12) Which protocol does Ping use ?
a) TCP
b) ARP

c) ICMP

d) BootP

13) TCP/IP model was developed _________ the OSI model.


a) prior to
b) after
c) simultaneous to
d) none of the mentioned
14) _________ provide low impedance path for the carrier energy to transmission line.
a) Line tuners
b) Filters
c) Transmitter
d) Line trap
15) The important function of SCDA is
a) Data Acquisition
c) Alarm processing

b) Information Display
d) All the above

16) SCADA system is


a) Software
b) Hardware
c) Combination of Software and Hardware
d) None of the above
17) RTU has
a) Static Memory
c) Static and Dynamic Memory

b) Dynamic Memory
d) None of the above

18) Which of the following is private IP address ?


a) 12.0.0.1
b) 168.172.19.39
c) 172.15.14.36
d) 192.168.24.43
19) In OSI model layer No. 5 consist of
a) Physical layer
c) Network layer

b) Session layer
d) Transport layer

20) In TCP/IP model layer No. 1 consist of


a) Application
c) Internet

b) Transport
d) Network Access

______________
Set A

*SLRKM364*

-3-

SLR-KM 364

Seat
No.

B.E. (Part I) (Electrical Engineering) (New) Examination, 2015


(Elective I) PLC AND SCADA
Marks : 80

Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four.

(54=20)

a) Define programmable logic controller. Write a short note on Scan Cycle.


b) Draw block diagram of PLC and explain each block in detail.
c) Write a short note on Output module.
d) Explain different types of switches.
e) Explain speed control of DC motor with DC Source.
f) What is PID tuning ? How it is achieved ?
3. Solve any two.

(102=20)

a) Why Starter required for AC Motor ? Draw and explain AC motor starter.
b) A process fan is to run only when all of the following conditions are met.
1) Input 1 is off
2) Input 2 is on or both 2 and 3 are on
3) Input 5 and 6 are both on
4) One more of inputs 7, 8 and 9 on.
Develop PLC Ladder logic and Relay Logic for above problem.
c) There are three mixing devices on a processing line. A, B and C. After the process begins,
Mixer A is to start after 7 seconds elapse. Next, Mixer B is to start 3.6 seconds after A.
Mixer C is to start 5 seconds after B. All then remain on until a master Enable switch is
turned off.
Develop PLC Ladder logic and Relay logic for above problem.

Set A

SLR-KM 364

-4-

*SLRKM364*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four.

(54=20)

a) State advantages, disadvantages and applications of SCADA.


b) Define :
1) SCADA
2) RTU
3) HMI
4) MTU.
c) What is open system Interconnection Protocols ?
d) What are the different systems operating states in power system ?
e) Explain DNP3 protocol.
f) Write a short note on Modbus Protocol.
5. Solve any two.

(102=20)

a) Explain First, Second, Third generation of SCADA architecture.


b) Write a short note on SCADA System used in
Petroleum Refining Process.
c) Draw and explain SCADA system in Chemical industry.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 365

*SLRKM365*
S

Set
t

B.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
(Elective I)
Day and Date : Friday ; 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note : i)
ii)
iii)
iv)

Max. Marks : 100

All questions are compulsory.


Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. 1) ADT signal has


a) Continuous time Continuous amplitude

(201=20)

b) Continuous time Discrete amplitude


c) Discrete time Continuous amplitude
d) Discrete time Discrete amplitude
2) Fourier transform of a train of impulse train is
a) A sync function
c) A modified sync function

b) A train of impulse
d) A rectangular window

3) When aliasing occurs


a) Low frequency become a high frequency
b) High frequency become a mid frequency
c) High frequencies above signal bandwidth becomes low frequencies below signal bandwidth
d) None
4) If the sequence x(n) is of finite duration then the ROC is the entire Z-plane, expect possibly
a) Z = 0
c) Z = 0 and/or Z =

b) Z =
d) Z = 0 and Z =


5) When a sequence x(n) is time reversed if Z = Z1 is in ROC of x(n) then


a) Z = 1/Z1 is in ROC of x ( n)
c) Z = 1/
is in ROC of x( n)
2

b) Z = Z1/2 is in ROC of x( n)
d) Z = Z1/4 is in ROC of x( n)

6) DFT coefficients are Z-transform evaluated at N equally spaced points in Z-domain on


a) Unit circle
c) Circle with radius

b) Half circle
d) Circle with radius 1/2

7) The direct evaluation DFT requires _______ complex multiplications.


a) N(N 1)
b) N2
c) N(N + 1)

d) N(N 1)/2

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 365

*SLRKM365*

-2-

8) The number of complex multiplications required to calculate N-point DFT using rsdix-2 DIT-FFT
algorithms
N

a) N log2 N

b)

log10 N

c) N log10 N

d)

log2 N
2

9) Impulse invariant method will convert analog filter to DT filter that has
a) Same frequency response as that of analog filter and is stable
b) Different frequency response and is unstable
c) Same frequency response and is unstable
d) Different frequency response and is stable
10) The basis functions for STFT are
a) Sine and cosine waves
c) Windowed cosines

b) Windowed sines
d) Windowed sines and cosines

11) Convolution of ideal filter response and sync function results in


a) Side Lobe oscillations
b) Main Lobe oscillations
c) Sharpening of a transition width
d) Decrease in main lobe
12) Unwrapped phase response of FIR filter in pass band is
a) Exponentially increasing
b) Exponentially decreasing
c) Non-linear
d) Linear
13) When analog butter worth filter is converted to DT filter using impulse invariance method, then
a) Aliasing can be eliminated
b) Aliasing is always present
c) Aliasing can be reduced by reducing T
d) Aliasing can not be reduced by reducing T
14) The binary signed number 0.101011001 when rounded to eight bits will result in number given by
a) 0.10101101
b) 0.10101100
c) 0.10101111
d) 0.10101010
15) Bit reversed addressing is used for
a) FIR filter implementation
c) Any computation

b) FFT computation
d) Transform coefficients calculations

16) Properties of butter worth low pass filter is given by


a) The poles of butter worth filter lies on a circle
b) The poles of butter worth filter lies outside the circle
c) The poles of butter worth filter lies inside the circle
d) Not a real sequence
17) The mapping for impulse invariance method is
a) Many to many mapping
c) One to one mapping

b) Many to one mapping


d) None of above

18) Frequency sampling structures are efficient because


a) The sampled points are less
b) Some sampled DFT coefficients are zero when the filter is narrow bank
c) Some sampled value can be assumed to be zero
d) Parallel structures are efficient
19) If we modify the circular sequence by multiplying it with
for a kth frequency sample the
DFT coefficients
a) Remain unchanged
b) Shift by 4 units
c) Shift by 8 units
d) Shift by 2 units
j

20) When a sequene is circularly shifted in time by 2 units, the phase changes per frequency unit by
a) 8 /N rad
b) 4 /N rad
c) 2 /N rad
d) 16 /N rad
______________


Set A

*SLRKM365*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 365

B.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
(Elective I)
Day and Date : Friday ; 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Compute the DFT of a following sequence


x(n) = {4,3,2,1}
b) Explain in detail Short Term Fourier Transform.
c) Compute the Auto co-relation of a sequence
x(n) = {1,3,2,4}
d) Compute the Linear convolution of
x(n) = {1,2, 2, 1} h(n) = {1,1,1,1}
e) Compare the DFT and FFT Algorithms.
f) Derive any two properties of DFT.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Perform linear convolution of finite duration sequences h(n) = {3,2,1,1} and


x(n) = {1,2,3,4,5,1,2,3,4,5,1,2,3,4,5} by overlap-save method.
b) Determine IDFT using DIF-FFT of X(k) = {20,0,4, + 4j, 0, 4, 0, 4, 4 j, 0}
c) Find 8-point DFT of sequence using DIT-FFT algorithms x(n) = {1,1,1,1,1,1,0,0}
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain in detail Gibbs Phenomenon.


b) Explain in detail impulse invariance method.
c) What is use of windowing ? Compare the characteristics of different windows.
d) Explain in detail bilinear transformation method.
e) Compare the FIR and IIR filters.
f) Explain finite word length effect in IIR filter.

Set A

SLR-KM 365

*SLRKM365*

-4-

5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Design ideal low pass filter with a frequency response


Hd

= 1 for
= 0 for




Find the values of h(n) for N = 11. Find H(z). Plot the magnitude response.
s

b) Apply bilinear transformation to H(s) =

The digital filter should have a resonant frequency of




"

c) Apply bilinear transformation to H(s)

T = 0.1 Sec.


_________________

Set A

SLR-KM 366

*SLRKM366*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


ENERGY AUDIT AND MANAGEMENT (Elective I)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) The energy sources that are either found or stored in nature are
a) Secondary energy sources
b) Primary energy sources
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
2) Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as
a) Energy ratio
b) Energy intensity
c) Per capita consumption
d) None
3) The force field analysis in energy action planning deals with barriers having
a) Positive forces only
b) Negative forces only
c) Both negative and positive forces
d) No force
4) Name the Act, which is proposed to bring the qualitative transformation of the electricity
sector
a) Regulatory Commission Act, 1998 b) Indian Electricity Act, 1910
c) Supply Act, 1948
d) Electricity Act, 2003
5) Which of the following is highest contributor to the air pollution ?
a) Carbon Monoxide
b) Hydro carbons
c) Sulphur Oxides
d) Particulate
6) The heat input required for generating one kilo watt-hour of electrical output is called as
a) Efficiency
b) Heat rate
c) Calorific value d) Heat value
7) The power loss in transmission/distribution line depends on
a) Current in the line
b) Resistance of the line
c) Length of the line
d) All
8) If the distribution voltage is raised from 11 kV to 33 kV, the line loss would be lower by
a factor
a) 1/9
b) 9
c) 3
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 366

*SLRKM366*

-2-

9) Presenting the load demand of a consumer against time of the day is known as
a) Time curve
b) Load curve
c) Demand curve d) Energy curve
10) The sum of individual maximum demand of the plant to the sum of individual
maximum demand of various equipments is
a) Load factor
b) Diversity factor
c) Demand factor
d) Maximum demand
11) What is specific energy consumption ?
a) Energy consumption per month
b) Energy consumed per unit of production
c) Energy consumption per year
d) None of the above
12) Sankey diagram shows in graphics
a) Energy input
c) Energy balance

b) Energy output
d) All the above

13) Which of the following is the predominant loss in furnace oil fired boiler ?
a) Dry flue gas losses
b) Heat loss due to moisture in air
c) Heat loss due to radiation and convection
d) Heat loss due to moisture in fuel
14) The unit of one lux is
a) 1000 lumen per square feet
c) One lumen per square meter

b) 10 lumen per square meter


d) 1 lumen per square feet

15) The efficiency figures for energy efficient motors (in comparison with standard
efficiency motor) can be generally higher by ___________%.
a) 1%
b) 3 7 %
c) 10 % and above d) 8 10%
16) The speed of the motor can be varied by
a) Changing supply frequency
b) Changing no. of poles
c) Using multi speed windings
d) All the above
17) The objective of material and energy balance is to assess the
a) Input-output
b) Conversion efficiency
c) Losses
d) All the above
18) A CUSUM graph follows a random fluctuation trend and oscillates around
a) 100
b) 100%
c) 0
d) None of the above
19) Under Energy Conservation Act, 2001, data on energy consumed and action on
recommendations of accredited energy auditor should be reported to
a) BEE and state level agency once a year
b) BEE and state level agency twice year
c) BEE only
d) State level designated agency only
20)
a)

b)

c)

______________

d)

Set A

*SLRKM366*

-3-

SLR-KM 366

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


ENERGY AUDIT AND MANAGEMENT (Elective I)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

A) Explain the classification of energy with suitable examples.


B) State energy policy statement of an organization/company with an appropriate
example.
C) What are the prerequisites of the successful energy management programme
explain with neat diagram ?
D) State and explain elements of Monitoring and Targeting System.
E) Explain SCADA and automatic meter reading.
3. Attempt the following questions :

(102=20)

A) Explain Indian Electricity Act, 2003.


B) Explain Clean Development Mechanism (CDM). How CDM works and also explain
project cycle for CDM ?

OR
B) Responsibilities and duties to be assigned under The Energy Conservation
Act, 2001.

Set A

SLR-KM 366

-4-

*SLRKM366*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

A) Explain how a CUSUM chart is drawn with an example.


B) What are the direct and indirect benefits of waste heat recovery ? Give two
examples of waste heat recovery.
C) What are the advantages of simple pay back method ?
D) Explain Sankey diagram.
E) Explain the need of energy audit.

(102=20)

5. Attempt any two :

A) Explain briefly the difference between preliminary and detailed energy audits.
B) Explain the steps involved in detailed audit.
C) What is discounted cash flow method ? What are the advantages and disadvantages
of it ?

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 367

*SLRKM367*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


EHVAC : (Elective I) : EXTRA HIGH VOLTAGE AC TRANSMISSION
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The radio interference level is governed by


a) Amplitude of single phase
b) Wave shape of single pulse
c) Repetitive nature of pulse
d) All of these
2) Which element has flat frequency response up to 1000 MHz ?
a) Bifilar shunt
b) Co-axial shunt
c) Squirrel cage shunt
d) Rogowski coil
3) The impulse ratio of rod gap is
a) Unity
c) Between 2.0 to 2.5

b) Between 1.2 to 1.5


d) Between 1.6 to 1.8

4) The type of EHV cable is


a) High pressure oil filled
c) Gas insulated lines

b) Cross linked polyethylene


d) All of the above

5) Which of the following is protective device against lightning over voltages ?


a) Rod gap
b) Surge absorber
c) Horn gap
d) All above
6) Increase in temperature of over head transmission line causes
a) increase in stress and length
b) decrease in stress and length
c) decrease in stress but increase in length
d) none of the above
7) The function of steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to
a) compensate for skin effect
b) take care of surges
c) provide additional mechanical strength
d) reduce inductance
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 367

*SLRKM367*

-2-

8) Draining of trapped charge of line is done by


a) Main breaker
b) Auxiliary breaker
c) Air circuit breaker
d) Shunt reactors
9) For reducing tower footing resistance it is better to use
a) Chemical and ground only
b) Chemical and counterpoise only
c) Ground rod and counter poise only
d) Chemical ground rod and counter poise only
10) The dimensions of constants B and C are respectively __________ and _______
a) Ohm, Siemen
b) Mho, Siemen
c) Both are dimensionless
d) Siemen, Ohm
11) For 100% series compensation, resonance occur at
a) Power frequency
b) 50% of power frequency
c) 40% of power frequency
d) None of the above
12) Second mode of propagation is called as
a) Line to line
b) Phase-phase c) Inter-phase

d) Homopolar

13) Refraction coefficient of voltage (KT) for open ended line


a) +2
b) 1
c) 1

d) 0

14) The voltage measurement using spark gap are


a) affected by nearby objects
b) affected by polarity of supply
c) affected by dust particles
d) all of above
15) A Refraction coefficient of voltage (KT) is given by
a)

2Zo
Zo + Zt

b)

Zo Zt
Zo + Zt

c)

2Zt
Zo + Zt

16) The crest time of pulse properties for positive cycle is


a) 20 ns
b) 30 ns
c) 40 ns

d)

Zt Zo
Zo + Zt

d) 50 ns

17) The main drawback of overhead system over underground system is


a) Underground system is more flexible than overhead system
b) Higher charging current
c) Surge problem
d) High initial cost
18) The conductor used in EHV transmission in recent development is
a) ACSR
b) ACAR
c) AAAR
d) All of the above
19) The peak value of current related to pulse properties during the positive and
negative pulse is respectively.
a) 100 mA, 10 mA b) 10 mA, 100 mA c) 10 mA, 10 mA d) 100 mA, 100 mA
20)
a)

b)

c)
______________

d)
Set A

*SLRKM367*

-3-

SLR-KM 367

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


EHVAC : (Elective I) : EXTRA HIGH VOLTAGE AC TRANSMISSION
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Write short notes on any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain the relation between the temperature rise and current carrying capacity of
EHV-AC line.
b) Limits for radio interference.
c) Brief the charge potential relations of the multiconductor lines.
d) Explain Reflection and refraction of travelling waves.
e) Explain Field of sphere gap.
f) Attenuation of travelling wave.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Derive the expressions for resistance and inductance of ground return.


b) Explain Open ended line Double exponential response.
c) A power of 12000 MW is required to be transmitted over a distance of 1000 km.
At voltage levels of 400 kv, 750 kv, 1000 kv and 1200 kv determine.
i) Possible no. of circuits required with equal magnitudes for sending and
receiving end voltages with 30 phase difference
ii) The currents transmitted and
iii) The total line losses.
Set A

SLR-KM 367

-4-

*SLRKM367*

SECTION II
4. Write short notes on any four :

(45=20)

a) Expression for generalized constants.


b) Sub-synchronous resonance in series capacitors compensated lines
c) The gap less metal oxide arrester
d) Brief the sinusoidal excitation-lumped parameter circuits
e) Explain in detail tower footing resistance
f) Ferro resonance voltages.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) What are the factors under steady state in design of EHV lines ?
b) Power circle diagram and its use.
c) Reduction of switch surge over voltages.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 368

*SLRKM368*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Part II) (Electrical Engineering) Examination, 2015


FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS (FACTS)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11- 2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figure to right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Solve the following.

(120= 20)

1) A combination of different __________ Compensator whose outputs are co-ordinate.


a) static and mechanically coupled

b) static and mechanically switched

c) static and dynamically coupled

d) None of above

2) In GTO, the gate current pulse required for turn on may be


a) 1-2 %

b) 2-5 %

c) 3-5 %

d) None of above

3) In CSC in which d.c. current always has a


a) Similar polarity

b) Dissimilar polarity

c) One polarity

d) None of above

4) In 3 ful converter, individual harmonic voltage is given by


a) Vn = underoot 6/Vd

b) Vd = 0.78 vd

c) Vd = V1/n

d) Vd = V2/V1

5) Midpoint voltage regulation for line segmentations used for a


a) Series compensation

b) Shunt compensation

c) Series-series compensation

d) None of above

6) Equal area criteria to illustrate the transient stability margin for a 2m/c system without
compensation is
a) P = V2/XL Sin(delta)

b) P = 2V2/XL Sin (delta/2)

c) P=V*V/xl*Cos(delta)

d) None of above

7) The admittance of TCR and TSR is


a) BL=1/ L(1 2/ alfa 1/ sin2alfa)
c) BL = 2/(1--1/ sin2alfa)

b) BL= (1 2/alfa 1/sin2alfa)


d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 368

*SLRKM368*

-2-

8) In FC-TCR , to decrease the capacitive o/p, the current in the reactor is increased by
a) Increasing delta angle
b) Decreasing delta angle
c) Comparing delta angle
d) None of above
9) Following controller is used for power transmission management in a multiple substation
a) IPFC
b) UPFC
c) SVC
d) TCSC
10) Combined series-series controller for
a) Max. utilization of a transmission line
b) Max. stabilization of a transmission line
c) Max. composition of a transmission line
d) None of above
11) For dynamic stability of an transmission line the line current
a) II =V-la Ra
b) IL=1.73*Iph
c) II=EI/X
d) IL=V*V/x
12) The SSSC injects the compensating __________ in ___________ with the line.
a) Current, series
b) Impedance , series
c) Voltage, series
d) Voltage , shunt
13) Transient stability improvement can be conviently evaluated by
a) Static VAR compensation
b) Midpoint compensation
c) a and b
d) Equal area criteria
14) The real and reactive power transfer depends on
a) Line impedance
b) Magnitude of sending end voltage
c) Phase angle between sending end and receiving end voltage
d) All of these
15) FACTS provides
a) Power Transfer capability and controllability
b) Phase sequence and comparability
c) a and b
d) None
16) TSSC can be operated line
a) continuous
b) discrete
c) step
d) none
17) A thyristor valve commutates naturally that, it turns off when the current crosses
a)
b) /2
c) 2
d) 0
18) A combination of different __________ compensator whose outputs are co-ordinated.
a) Static and mechanically coupled
b) Static and mechanically switched
c) Static and dynamic switched
d) None
19) In midpoint compensation Vsmv & Vmr are
a) Same
b) Different
c) Unity
d) None
20) In SVC the Ism and Isr are
a) Same

b) Different

c) Unity

______________

d) None

Set A

*SLRKM368*

-3-

SLR-KM 368

Seat
No.

B.E. (Part II) (Electrical Engineering) Examination, 2015


FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS (FACTS)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11- 2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

i) All questions are compulsory.


ii) Figure to right indicate full marks.
iii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four of the following.

(54=20)

a) Explain basic control approach of shunt compensation.


b) Compare the Voltage Controlled Source with Current controlled source.
c) Explain merits and demerits of STATCOM.
d) What is loading of transmission line ? Classify different limits of loading capability of
transmission line.
e) Explain how transient stability improves with ideal midpoint compensation.
3. a) Explain power flow controlled in HVDC transmission line and power flow control using
FACTS controller, distinguish both the methods with their merits and demerits.
b) Draw and explain the losses versus VAR output characteristics of a FC-TCR.

OR
b) Compare FC-TCR and converter based static VAR generator on points :
i) Type
ii) Maximum compensation current
iii) losses at zero output and
iv) Harmonic.

20

Set A

SLR-KM 368

-4-

*SLRKM368*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four of the following.

(54=20)

a) Explain IPFC with working and benefits.


b) Explain the power flow control by Voltage regulator.
c) Explain the switching converter type of series compensators.
d) Explain the application of IPFC with control structure.
e) What are different power quality problems and remedies ?
5. Solve any 2.

(102= 20)

a) Explain basic IPFC control scheme. Explain each block briefly.


b) Explain the TCSC in detail.
c) Compare in between TCSC, SSSC, STATCOM, TCVR and TCPAR.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 369

*SLRKM369*
S

B.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
5) Draw vector diagram, circuit diagram wherever necessary.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answers :

Marks : 20
(120=20)

1) Circuit breakers usually operate under


a) steady-state short-circuit current
b) sub-transient state of short-circuit current
c) transient state of short-circuit currents d) none of the above
2) Interrupting medium in a contactor may be
a) air at atmospheric pressure
b) SF6 gas
c) oil
d) none of the above
3) The normal frequency rms voltage that appears across the circuit breaker poles after
final arc extinction has occurred is called ________ voltage.
a) supply
b) restriking
c) recovery
d) breaking
4) Resistance switching is normally employed in
a) all breakers
b) bulk oil breakers
c) minimum oil breakers
d) air-blast circuit breakers
5) SF6 gas has excellent heat transfer properties because of its
a) low gaseous viscosity
b) high dielectric strength
c) higher molecular weight
d) None of the above
6) SF6 gas is transported in
a) air cylinders
c) liquid form in cylinders

b) gas cylinders
d) solid form

7) Which of the following circuit breakers produce the least arc energy ?
a) Plain oil
b) Minimum oil
c) Air-blast
d) Air-break
8) Arc-chutes are used in
a) oil circuit breakers
c) SF6 circuit breakers

b) vacuum circuit breakers


d) air-blast circuit breakers

9) The making to breaking current ratio for an EHV circuit breaker is


a) more than 1
b) equal to 1
c) less than 1
d) negative number

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 369

-2-

*SLRKM369*

10) Magnetic blow-out coils are generally used in


a) air-blast circuit breakers
b) oil circuit breakers
c) vacuum circuit breakers
d) air-brake circuit breaker
11) Relay angle is defined as an angle
a) between line voltage and bus-bar voltage under balanced 3-ph condition
b) between voltage and current supplied to relay under balanced 3-phase unity power factor
condition
c) both a) and b)
d) none of above
12) Relay contacts are normally made up of
a) silver contact
b) copper contact
c) platinum contacts
d) steel contacts
13) If the fault current is 2000 A, the relay setting is 50% and CT ratio is 400/5A, the plug
setting multiplier will be
a) 25
b) 15
c) 50
d) 10
14) In distance protection, the relay measures
a) negative sequence impedance of line from relay upto fault point
b) positive sequence impedance from relay point upto fault point
c) zero sequence impedance from relay point upto fault point
d) self impedance of line from relay to fault point
15) An impedance relay is a
a) voltage restrained over current relay
b) voltage restrained directional relay
c) directional restrained over-current relay
d) directional restrained over-over voltage relay
16) For the protection of EHV/UHV transmission line we use
a) O/C relay
b) Plain impedance relay
c) mho relay
d) IDMT relay
17) In a static over-current relay, inverse time characteristics are obtained by
a) a transistor amplifier
b) an integrating circuit
c) a transistor switch
d) a differentiating circuit
18) The percentage differential protection of a transformer protects the transformer against
a) external faults
b) magnetic circuit in-rush
c) over loading
d) internal fault
19) Problems associated with differential circuit protection is/are
a) magnetising in-rush current
b) mismatching characteristics of C.T.S.
c) change of ratio due to tapping
d) all of above
20) The protection from negative sequence current is provided for
a) transformer
b) transmission line
c) motors
d) generators
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM369*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 369

B.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Draw vector diagram, circuit diagram wherever necessary.

2. Answer any four :

SECTION I

(45=20)

1) Draw neat diagram and explain the phenomenon of interruption of capacitive current.
2) Explain with neat diagram the construction, working and application of Air-break circuit
breaker.
3) Explain arc-interruption methods of circuit breakers.
4) Explain breaking capacity and making capacity of a circuit breaker showing the shortcircuit current waveform.
5) Draw circuit diagram and explain the synthetic short-circuit test of a circuit breaker.
3. Answer the questions :

(210=20)

1) With neat diagram, explain construction, operation and application of following :


a) Metaloxide Surge Arrester (MOA)
b) High Rupturring Capacity (HRC) Cartridge Fuse.
2) Explain Restriking and Recovery voltage. Further derive expression for Restriking voltage
and RRRV in terms of inductance, capacitance and voltage in case of circuit breakers.
OR
3) What is Switching Resistance ? Derive an expression for critical resistance R with three
transient oscillations.
SECTION II
4. Answer any four questions :

(45=20)

1) Determine time of operation of 1.0 Amp-over-current relay having PSM = 125% and
TMS = 0.6, C.T. Ratio = 400/1A and fault current 4000 Amps. The relay characteristic
is as follows :
i) PSM
1.3
2
4
8
10
20
ii) Time of operation
30 10
5 3.3
3
2.2
Set A

SLR-KM 369

-4-

*SLRKM369*

2) Describe main basic requirement of Protection System.


3) Draw the figure and explain Theory of Induction disc type relay with equation.
4) Describe protection scheme for alternator against loss of field excitation.
5) Draw and describe Block diagram of inverse-time over-current static relay.
5. Answer any two questions :

(210=20)

1) Draw circuit diagram of percentage differential protection of a transformer. Also explain


biased winding function.
2) Derive a general mathematic method with equation of a distance protection for realisation
of Mho, Off-Mho and impedance relay for microprocessor based relay.
3) For microprocessor-based Mho relay draw block interface diagram, with equation for
operating condition and the flow-chart to realise Mho characteristics.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 370

*SLRKM370*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(120=20)

1) The linear phase realization structure is used to represent


a) FIR system
b) IIR system
c) Both FIR and IIR
d) All DT systems
2) Which one of the following FIR system has linear phase response ?
a) y(n) = 0.4(n) + 0.1 x(n 1) + 0.5 x(n 2)
b) y(n) = 0.5 x(n) + 0.7 x(n 1)
c) y(n) = 0.6 x(n) + 0.6 x (n 1)
d) None of the above
3) In which of FFT algorithm, phase factor is multiplied after add subtract
operations ?
a) DIT
b) Both DIF and DIT
c) DIF
d) None of above
4) When a sequence is circularly shifted in time by 4 units, the phase changes per
frequency unit by
a) 2 4/N radians
b) 2 2/N radians
c) 2 /N radians
d) 2 8/N radians
5) DFT coefficients are Z transform evaluated at N equally spaced points in the Z
domain on
a) Unit circle
b) Circle with radius 2
c) Half circle
d) Circle with radius 1/2
6) In place computation is recommended as it
a) Reduces memory requirement
b) Increases memory requirement
c) Reduces computations
d) None of these
7) If the sequence x(n) is of finite duration then ROC is entire Z plane except possibly
a) Z = 0
b) Z =
c) Z = 0 and / or Z =
d) Z = 0 and Z =
8) In N point DFT of L point sequence, the value of N to avoid aliasing in frequency
spectrum is
a) N L
b) N <= L
c) N >= L
d) N = L
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 370

-2-

*SLRKM370*

9) If two systems are connected in cascade then the overall system is


a) Multiplication of individual impulse responses
b) Addition of individual impulse responses
c) Convolution of individual impulse responses
d) None of these
10) When an impulse response of ideal filter is truncated, in Fourier domain there is
a) Multiplication of filter with rectangular window
b) Multiplications of two waveforms
c) Convolution of two waveforms
d) Convolution of filter with rectangular window
11) The frequency sampling structures are efficient because
a) Sampled points are less
b) Some sampled DFT coefficients are zero when filter is narrow band
c) Some sampled values can be assumed to be zero
d) Parallel structures are efficient
12) Butterworth filters have
a) Constant response in pass band and decreasing response in stop band
b) Maximally flat response in pass band and monotonically decreasing in stop band
c) Ripples in pass band and stop band
d) None of the above
13) FIR filter is always stable as
a) All its poles are at origin
b) All its zeros are at origin
c) h(n) = h (N 1 n)
d) None of above
14) The quantization noise can be reduced
a) By increasing step size
b) By reducing step size
c) Reducing no. of bits used for quantization d) None of above
15) The 4 digit number 0.048 after rounding to 3 digit will be
a) 0.04
b) 0.05
c) 0.55
d) None of the above
16) Gibbs phenomenon occurred due to
a) Window method
b) Truncation of infinite Fourier series
c) Linear phase
d) None of the above
17) To avoid aliasing of frequency components which method is useful in designing
filters ?
a) IIT
b) BLT
c) Windowing technique
d) None of the above
18) The desirable characteristics of window will be
a) Lowest side lobe level of the frequency response should be large
b) Highest side lobe level of the frequency response should be small
c) Central lobe level of the frequency response should be minimum
d) None of the above
19) The symmetrical impulse response for N odd can be used for the application as
a) LPF
b) HPF
c) BPF
d) All of the above
20) The condition of a linear phase FIR filter to have both constant group delay and
constant phase delay is
b) () =
c) () = d) None of the above
a) () =

______________

Set A

*SLRKM370*

-3-

SLR-KM 370

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Compute DFT of sequence defined by x(n) = ( 1)n for N = 3.


b) Find DFT of sequence x(n) = (1, 2, 1, 0) for N = 4.
c) Realize the system in Direct form I described by following input output relation
2y(n) y(n 2) 4y(n 3) = 3x(n 2).
d) For the following block diagram draw its signal flow graph and transposed
structure :

e) First five points of 8 point DFT of a real valued sequence are


(.25, .5 j.5, 0, .5 j.86, 0) find remaining three points.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) A linear time invariant digital IIR filter is specified by following transfer function
H(z) = (z 1) (z 2) (z + 1) z / (z (1/2 + j1/2)) (z (1/2 j1/2)) (z j1/4) (z + j1/4).
Realise the system in Direct Form I.
b) Find 8 point DFT of a real sequence
x(n) = (1, 2, 2, 2, 1, 0, 0, 0) using decimation in frequency FFT algorithm.
c) Find Y(n) = x(n)*h(n) for sequence
x(n) = (1, 2, 0, 3, 4, 2, 1, 1, 2, 3, 2,1, 3)
h(n) = (1, 1, 1) Using Overlap Add Method.

Set A

SLR-KM 370

-4-

*SLRKM370*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Differentiate between FIR and IIR filter.


b) Write note on Host port interface of C54X DSP processor.
c) What are on chip peripherals for C54X DSP processor ?
d) Explain application of DSP in Electrical Engineering.
e) What are the two options for clock generation in C54X DSP processor and expalin?
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Design Digital Low pass filter for following specification using Bilinear
Transformation :
1) 3.01 db cut off frequency of .5 rad
2) Stop band attenuation of 15 db at .75 rad
3) Monotonic pass band and stop band.
b) Draw and explain in detail the architectural functional block diagram of
TMS320C54X DSP processor.
c) Explain the details steps involved in designing FIR filter.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 371

*SLRKM371*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


HVDC TRANSMISSION (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figures to right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) CCC stands for
a) Capacitor Compressed Converter
c) Capacitor Commutated Converter

(120=20)
b) Capacitor Commutator Converter
d) None of the above

2) UHV DC transmission is being considered more than ___________


b) 800 KV
c) 800 MV
d) 800 V
a) 500 KV
3) Individual operation of firing pulses for each valve is the feature of ___________
a) IPC
b) EPC
c) CCC
d) VGC
4) The main advantage of inverse cosine control scheme is that ___________
a) avg. dc voltage across bridge varies linearly with the control voltage
b) avg. dc voltage across bridge becomes equal to the control voltage
c) the delay angle is nominally proportional to the inverse cosine of the control voltage
d) b) and c) only
5) Pulse Phase Control (PPC) is the variations of_________
a) IPC
b) EPC
c) CCC

d) VGC

6) Harmonic instability problem particularly with low short circuit ratios, is the drawback
of ________
a) IPC scheme
b) EPC scheme
c) Current controller
d) Current extinguish angle controller
7) The bypassing of the bridge can be done with the help of ___________
a) Replacing a single valve in the arm
b) Replacing both valve in same arm
c) Activating a bypass pair in the bridge
d) Deactivating same arm from converter set

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 371

-2-

*SLRKM371*

8) Short gate pulse or long gate pulse used for___________


a) To start AC link
b) To stop AC link
c) To start dc link
d) To stop dc link
9) A DC tie used in parallel with an AC tie to damp the low frequency oscillations,
for the controllers___________
a) Frequency and power/frequency control
b) Stabilization of AC ties control
c) Subsynchronous damping control
d) Reactive power control
10) Under unbalanced voltage conditions, EPC results in ___________
a) More DC voltage
b) Less DC voltage
c) Moderate DC voltage
d) None of the above
11) A commutation group is defined as, group of valves in which only___________
valves conducts.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
12) The characteristics of DC breakers can be determined by___________
a) Voltage capability
b) Current capability
c) Energy capability
d) All of the above
13) In __________ pulse frequency control, gain K1 of integrator is given by
b) K1 = Pf0V3
c) K1 = P(V3/V1)
d) None of the above
a) K1 = Pf0V3/V1
14) __________ is a non-self clearing fault.
a) Commutation failure
b) Arc-through
c) Arc-back
d) Misfire
15) Arc-back is a ________ fault and results in severe stress on transformer winding.
a) Self clearing
b) Non-self clearing
c) Commutation failure
d) Both (a) and (b)
16) Misfire occurs__________
a) The presence of an unwanted signals
b) Because of duplicated converter controls
c) The required gate pulse is missing
d) Both (a) and (b)
17) Current extinction can occur when current flowing through valve is less than ______
a) Latching current b) Holding current c) Rated current
d) None of the above
18) Tuned filters are used to filter out __________
a) Characteristic harmonics
b) Non-characteristic harmonics
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Transients only
19) Passive filters acts as source of __________
a) Active power
b) Reactive power c) Apparent power d) Only (a) and (c)
20) Protection of MTDC system can be done by
a) High speed disconnecting switches
b) Fast current control
c) Differential type protection
d) All of the above

______________
Set A

*SLRKM371*

-3-

SLR-KM 371

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


HVDC TRANSMISSION (Elective II)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain the analysis of bridge converter with overlap less than 60 degree.
b) Define SCR and pulse number.
c) Give advantage and disadvantage of HVDC over EHVAC transmission systems.
d) State necessity of higher level controllers in HVDC systems.
e) Explain starting and stopping of valves in converter stations.
3. a) Draw the basic converter control hierarchy and explain firing angle control in
detail.
(102=20)
b) Explain with neat diagram the different types of DC links.
OR
b) Give detailed comparison between HVDC and AC transmission.

Set A

SLR-KM 371

-4-

*SLRKM371*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain the basic faults that occur in converters.


b) Explain harmonic instability problem.
c) Explain static VAR systems.
d) Explain the potential application of MTDC system.
e) Explain the TCR with VI characteristics.
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

A) Explain the significance of commutation margin angle and extinction angle.


B) State and explain the design of active and passive filters.
C) What are the methods adopted for limiting over voltages in DC system ? Explain in
detail.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 372

*SLRKM372*
S

S.E. (Part I) (Bio-Medical Engg.) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 70

1) Solve any three questions from each Section.


2) Use of non-programming calculator is allowed.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct alternative (each carries one mark) :


1) In the cosine series expansion of sin x in
a)

b)


c)

14

the constant term is __________


d)


2) The condition for expansion of a function in a Fourier series are known as __________
a) Dirichlets condition
b) Riemann conditions
c) Harmonic
d) Periodic
3) The Fourier series expansion of f(x) = cos2x is ___________
a) sin x + cos x
b) 1 cos 2x
c) sin 2x + cos 2x

d)
1

4) Fourier expansion of

in the interval [ 2, 2] has __________




a) no sine terms
c) both cosine and sine terms

b) no cosine terms
d) none of these

5) The value of the integral

is _____________

a)

b)

c)

d)


6) The Laplace transform of t cos ht is _____________


a)


b)

c)


d)

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 372

*SLRKM372*

-2J

7) The Laplace transform of

is ______________
u

a)

b)

c)

d)


"

"


I

"

8)

________________




a)

b)

a)

b)

c)

d)

= ______________

a) e4t sin 5t

b) e4t sin 5t

c) e4t cos 5t

d) e4t cos 5t

11) The function f(z) = ez is analytic _____________


a) everywhere
b) nowhere
c) only at (0, 0)
12) Cauchy-Riemann equation for
a) ur = rr,
c)

10)

d)

_______________

c)
J

9)

,
L

to be analytic are ____________


b) ur = vr,

d) except at (0, 0)

d)
u

13) In the mapping w = 4z, a triangle is mapped onto ___________


a) square
b) a straight line
c) a circle
d) a triangle
14) The function f(z) = x2 y2 + aixy is analytic if __________________
a) a = 0
b) a = 1
c) a = 1
d) a = 2
______________

Set A

*SLRKM372*
S

SLR-KM 372

-3-

S.E. (Part I) (Bio-Medical Engg.) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.


2) Use of non-programming calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Find Laplace transform of te2t sin h 4t.
b) Find Laplace transform of

c) Find Laplace transform of

3. a) Find inverse Laplace transform of




b) Find

.


"


1

by using convolution theorem.

c) Find Laplace transform of t2 H(t 2) + t

(t 3).


4. a) Determine whether the function f(z) = ez is analytic function.


b) Construct an analytic function whose real part is sin x cos hy.
c) Show that

is harmonic.
x

3
3
3

5. a) Use Laplace transform to solve


(D2 + 5D + 6) y = 5et, given that y(0) = 2,


O

b) Find the analytic function f(z) = u + iv in term of z if u + v = ex (cos y + sin y).

5
5

Set A

SLR-KM 372

*SLRKM372*

-4-

SECTION II
6. a) Find the image of the circle
z

where k is real under the transformation


k

b) Find the bilinear transformation which maps z = 0, i, 1 onto w = i, 1, 0.


7. a) Find the Fourier series for f(x) =

b) Find the Fourier expansion for

in
N

.


.
0

5
5

a


8. a) Find half range cosine series for

2


b) Find half rang sine series for f(x) =




9. a) Evaluate

in


along the line x = 2y.


z

b) Evaluate

where C is the circle


z

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 373

*SLRKM373*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 70

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) The P wave represents the _________ of atria.


a) contraction

b) relaxation

c) repolarization

d) resting state

2) S.A. Node generates standard impulses of normal heart rate _________ beats per minute.
a) 80

b) 72

c) 60

d) 55

3) At resting state neurons are at _________ state.


a) resting

b) hyper polarization

c) polarized

d) depolarized

4) The occipital lobe at the back of the head is the primary


a) sulci

b) auditory

c) cerebral cortex

d) visual cortex

5) Resting state cell potential of nerve muscle is given by __________ mv.


a) 90

b) .75

c) 80

d) +25

6) The central nervous system consists of __________ lying within the vertebral column.
a) CSF

b) spinal cord

c) nucleus

d) AXON

7) Right part of heart constitutes ___________ blood.


a) deoxygenated

b) oxygenated

c) pure

d) filtered

8) _________ consists of gastric juice utilized for digestion of food.


a) stomach

b) spleen

c) liver

d) peritoneum

9) The __________ is called as kidneys functional unit.


a) nephron

b) neuron

c) zygote

d) axon
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 373

*SLRKM373*

-2-

10) Formation and excretion of bile is a function of


a) stomach

b) spleen

c) liver

d) peritoneum

c) glucose

d) bile

11) Insulin lowers the raised ________ level.


a) blood

b) CSF

12) The ________ resembles a snails shell of ear.


a) incus

b) malleus

c) tympanic membrane

d) cochlea

13) Everyday around ________ liters of water is filtered through the kidneys.
a) 180

b) 6

c) 5.2

d) 230

14) The __________ of the eye are responsible for night and peripheral vision.
a) cones

b) rods

c) sclera
______________

d) cornea

Set A

*SLRKM373*

-3-

SLR-KM 373

Seat
No.

S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 56

1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

1) Define a cell, tissue and organ with one example of each.


2) Draw and explain the process of exchange of gases in respiratory system.
3) Explain the function of skin in detail.
4) Mention the composition of blood and classify different blood groups.
5) Draw conduction system of heart.
3. Attempt any 2 :

(62=12)

1) Draw and describe the structure of stomach and small intestine.


2) Explain the cardiac cycle. Define stroke volume and cardiac output.
3) Explain the process of digestion with necessary secretion by digestive system.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

1) Draw and explain the structure of nephron.


2) Draw and explain structure of eye and image formation with neat figures.
3) Define reflex action with an example.
4) Explain in detail the various actions carried out by Androgens and Progesterone.
5) Differentiate between types of axons in neuron structure.
5. Attempt any 2:

(62=12)

1) Explain the process of urine formation with neat figures.


2) Draw and explain the function of male reproductive stem in detail.
3) Draw and explain the structure and function of any two types of endocrine glands.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 374

*SLR-KM-374*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Biomedical) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


BIOMATERIALS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Cellulose and ___________ are composed of hundreds of thousands of

14

D glucopyranoside repeating units.


a) Starch
b) Fibers
c) Glucose
d) Protein
2) ______________ involves the removal of cells tissues or organs from one
part of body to another part.
a) Polymerization
b) Transplantation
c) Implantation
d) None of above
3) Human ____________ protects internal organs from mechanical injury.
a) Skin
b) Tissues
c) Glands
d) Cycle
4) ____________ is used in an injectable form to remove depressions and
wrinkles.
a) Polymers
b) Polyamides c) Collagen
d) Crystal
5) ____________ appears to absorb or entrap proteins in their hydrated
spaces.
a) Hydrogels
b) PTFE
c) PMMA
d) Collagen
6) ____________ is an alloy of Ni and Ti.
a) Nitrogen
b) Glass
c) Nitinol

d) Polymer

7) ____________ is the measure of plastic deformation.


a) Hardness
b) Softness
c) Surface energy d) Bitterness
8) ____________ has a body centered cubic crystal structure.
a) Chromium
b) Cobalt
c) Alumina
d) Stainless steel
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 374

-2-

*SLR-KM-374*

9) The Chromium contents of stainless steels should be at leasts _________ %


to enable them to resist corrosion.
a) 100
b) 10
c) 11
d) 220
10) Surface _____________ is a measure of the extent to which bonds are
satisfied at the surface of material.
a) Energy
b) Corrosion
c) Wearing
d) Tearing
11) The intralobular connective tissues contain ______________
a) Fiber
b) Fiberoblasts
c) Organs
d) Plasma cells
12) ______________ is used in an injectable form to remove depressions of
wrinkles.
a) Amino acid
b) Alumina
c) Collagen
d) Polymer
13) ______________ can be preserved under sterile and frozen condition.
a) Grafts
b) Polymers
c) Hydrogel
d) Alumina
14) ______________ has been used in diverse application as tissue adhesive.
a) Fibrin
b) Fibers
c) Polymer
d) Hydrogel
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-374*

-3-

SLR-KM 374

Seat
No.

S.E. (Biomedical) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015


BIOMATERIALS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Max. Marks : 56

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

1) Define bio ceramics and classify it broadly.


2) Explain concept of absorbable and porous biomaterial with example.
3) Write various applications of PMMA.
4) Explain the classification of polymers with each of example.
5) What are the application of bioglass ?
3. Attempt any 2 :

(62=12)

1) List various methods used for biological testing of biomaterials and explain
any one of it in detail.
2) Explain different types of corrosion which occur in metallic implants.
3) Explain various materials used for soft tissue replacements with one example.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

1) Define and explain the concepts of thermoplastic and thermosetting resins.


2) Explain types and applications of rubber in prosthesis.
Set A

SLR-KM 374

-4-

*SLR-KM-374*

3) Explain the role of wood and binding material in prosthesis with one example.
4) Discuss various materials used for soft tissue implants.
5) What are the various types of leathers used in prosthesis and orthotic devices ?
5. Attempt any 2 :

(62=12)

1) Explain any 2 techniques in details for measurement of surface properties


of biomaterials.
2) List various methods used for biological testing of biomaterials and explain
any one of it in detail.
3) Define various types of corrosion and wear that occur in metallic implants.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 375

*SLRKM375*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part I) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : a)
b)
c)
d)

All questions are compulsory.


Assume suitable data whenever required.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
e) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
I. Choose the correct answer :
1) The T.U.F. rating of HWR circuit is
a) 28.7%
b) 69.3%

Marks : 14
(141=14)
c) 81.2%

d) None of above

2) PIV of CTFW rectifier as compared to FW bridge rectifier is


a) Half
b) Double
c) Equal
d) None
3) A circuit that adds positive or negative part of a waveform is called
a) Clipper
b) Clamper
c) Multiplier
d) Regulator
4) In voltage Tripler circuit the PIV of the diodes is
a) 4Vm
b) 3Vm
c) 2Vm
5) The doping in zener diode is
a) Light
b) Medium
c) Heavy
6) The IC LM337 is known as
a) Fixed positive voltage regulator
b) Fixed negative voltage regulator
c) Adjustable positive voltage regulator
d) Adjustable negative voltage regulator

d) Vm
d) None

7) The transistor dc = 100 , the stability factor of fixed bias circuit is


a) 100
b) 101
c) 98
d) 99
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 375

*SLRKM375*

-2-

8) In a NPN transistor the terminal connected to N regions are


a) Emitter and collector
b) Base and collector
c) Base and emitter
d) None of the above
9) The dimensions of hie parameter are
a) Mho
b) Ohm
c) Farad
d) None of the above
10) The h-parameter of BJT are called as
a) Large signal parameters
b) Small signal parameters
c) T-parameters
d) Z-parameters
11) The JFET is __________ device.
a) Unipolar
b) Bipolar
c) Power
d) None of above
12) In __________region of JFET drain characteristics the drain current ID remains
constant and does not change with source voltage VDS.
a) Cutoff region
b) Pinch off
c) Ohmic region
d) Saturation region
13) Thyristor is nothing but
a) controlled switch
b) control the transistor
c) amplifier with large current rating d) amplifier with higher gain
14) Frequency of oscillation of astable multivibrator using IC555 is
a) fo = 1.45

0.69(R A + RB )C

c) fo = 1
1.45(R A + 2RB )C

b) fo = 1
0.69(R A + 2RB )C
d) fo = 0.69

(R A + 2RB )C

______________

Set A

*SLRKM375*

-3-

SLR-KM 375

Seat
No.

S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part I) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : a) All questions are compulsory.


b) Assume suitable data whenever required..
c) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
II. Attempt any four :
(44=16)
1) Derive the equation for conversion efficiency of HWR.
2) Explain the working of FWR circuit with LC filter with necessary waveform.
3) Explain the operation of a combinational biased clipper with neat circuit
diagram, waveforms.
4) Explain the IC LM78XX with necessary diagram.
5) Derive the equation for stability factor of voltage divider circuit.
6) Explain output characteristics of Common Emitter configuration.
III. Attempt any two :

(26=12)

1) Design a power supply using a -section filter to give a dc output of 40 V,


100 mA with ripple of 0.01% use full wave rectifier.
2) Determine the output voltage for the fig. and input shown below. Draw output
waveform. D is silicon diode with cut in voltage Vr = 0.6V.

3) Compare different transistor biasing circuits.


Set A

SLR-KM 375

-4-

*SLRKM375*

SECTION II
IV. Attempt any four :

(44=16)

1) Give comparison between BJT and FET.


2) Draw and explain drain characteristics of n-channel FET.
3) Give the applications of SCR.
4) Explain the h parameter equivalent model for CB configuration.
5) Explain the working of astable multivibrator as square wave generator.
V. Attempt any two :

(26=12)

1) Write a short on TRIAC.


2) Explain the constructional diagram of Enhancement MOSFET with Drain
characteristics.
3) Design an astable multivibrator using IC 555 for the maximum output
frequency of 5 KHz with duty cycle 25% . Also calculate VCC required for
the 5V output.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 376

*SLR-KM-376*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Part I) (CGPA) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015


LINEAR CIRCUIT ANALYSIS (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 70

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)

All questions are compulsory.


Q. 2 and Q. 4 are short answer type questions.
Q. 3 and Q. 5 are long answer type questions.
Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
Figure to the right indicate full marks.
Make suitable assumptions if necessary and mention them clearly.
Use of log tables and nonprogrammable single memory calculator is
allowed.
8) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
9) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) Identify the passive element among the following


a) Voltage source
b) Current source c) Inductor

d) Transistor

2) 100 ohm resistor is connected across the terminals of a 2.5 V battery. What is the power
dissipation in the resistor ?
a) 25 W
b) 100 W
c) 0.4 W
d) 6.25 W
3) Which of the following is an Ideal voltage Source ?
a) Voltage independent of current
b) Current independent of voltage
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
4) A circuit consist of two resistances, R1 and R2 in parallel the total current passing through
the circuit is IT. The passing through R1 is _____________
a) IT R1/ (R1 + R2) b) IT (R1 + R2)/R1 c) IT R2/(R1 + R2) d) (IT R1 + R2)/R2
5) Nodal method of circuit analysis is based on
a) KVL and Ohms Law
b) KCL and Ohms Law
c) KVL and KCl
d) KVL, KCL and Ohms Law
6) Transient current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when
a) R = 2

L
C

b) R = 0

c) R > 2

L
C

d) R < 2

L
C

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 376

*SLR-KM-376*

-2-

7) The voltage V in figure is

a) 10 V

b) 15 V

c) 5 V

d) 0 V

8) What is phase angle between the capacitor current and applied voltage in parallel RC
circuit ?
a) 90
b) 0
c) 45
d) 180
9) In order to tune a parallel resonant circuit to a lower frequency, the capacitance must
a) be increased
b) be decreased
c) be zero
d) remain the same
10) Which parameters are widely used in transmission line theory ?
a) Z parameters
b) Y parameters
c) ABCD parameters d) h parameters
11) What is the transfer admittance of the two network shown in figure ?

c) 4

12) For a two port network to be reciprocal


b) y21 = y22
a) Z11 = Z22

b) 3

c) h21 = h12

d) 0

a) 2

d) AD BC = 0

13) A high pass filter is one which


a) Passes all high frequencies
b) Attenuates all low frequencies
c) Attenuates all frequencies below a designed cut-off frequencies and attenuates all
other frequencies
d) None of these
14) In the circuit shown below what is the maximum power transferred to the load

a) 5W

b) 2.5W

c) 10W
______________

d) 25W

Set A

*SLR-KM-376*

-3-

SLR-KM 376

Seat
No.

S.E. (Part I) (CGPA) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015


LINEAR CIRCUIT ANALYSIS (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)

Marks : 56

All questions are compulsory.


Q. 2 and Q. 4 are short answer type questions.
Q. 3 and Q. 5 are long answer type questions.
Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
Figure to the right indicate full marks.
Make suitable assumptions if necessary and mention them clearly.
Use of log tables and nonprogrammable single memory calculator is
allowed.
SECTION I

2. Answer any five of the following questions :


15
a) Write the mesh current equations in the circuit shown in figure and determine the currents. 3

b) Using nodal analysis write voltage equations and determine the current in each branch for
the network

c) Use source transformation and resistance combination to simplify the network shown in
figure

Set A

SLR-KM 376

-4-

*SLR-KM-376*

d) State superposition theorem and write the procedure to solve problems using superposition
theorem.
3
e) Write the mesh current equation shown in the circuit and determine current.

f) Derive and explain with circuit diagram of DC response of an RLC circuit.

g) Find the current transient when the switch is closed at t = 0 of the circuit shown

3. Answer any three of the following questions :

13

a) A series RC circuit consists of resistor of 10 ohm and capacitor of 0.1 F as shown in


figure. A constant voltage of 20V is applied to the circuit at t = 0 obtain the current equation.
Determine the voltage across the resistor and capacitor.

b) Define Quality factor (Q) and its effect on bandwidth with necessary derivations.

c) Derive the expression of resonant frequency for the parallel resonance.

d) Considering RLC circuit derive expression for solving resonant frequency for series resonance.

e) Derive and explain resonant frequency for a Tank circuit with circuit diagram.

Set A

*SLR-KM-376*

-5-

SLR-KM 376

SECTION II
4. Answer any five of the following questions :
a) Derive Z parameters of two port networks.
b) Find the h parameters for the networks.

15
3
3

c) Explain with circuit diagram of parallel connection of two port networks.


d) Derive T-network for filter network.
e) Design a low pass filter (both and T-section) having a cut-off frequency of 2KHZ to
operate with a terminated load resistance of 500 ohm.
f) Define attenuator ? Derive attenuator for properly matched networks.
g) Check for stability for the following equation.
S8 + 5S6 + 2S4 + 3S2 + 1 = 0
5. Answer any three of the following questions :
a) Derive -network for filter networks.
b) Design a =Type attenuator to give 20dB attenuation and to have characteristics impedance
of 100 ohm.
c) Design a symmetrical Lattice attenuator to have characteristics impedance of 800 ohm
and attenuation of 20 dB.
d) Obtain pole-zero plot for the following function
1) F( s) =

2) f(s) =

3
3
3
3
3
13
4
4
4
5

S(S + 2)
2

S + 2S + 2
5S 12
2

S + 14S + 13
_____________________

Set C

Set C

SLR-KM 377

*SLRKM377*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015
ELECTRICAL NETWORK ANALYSIS AND SYNTHESIS (Old)

Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever required.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The ________ function is used to describe networks which have at least two ports.
a) Laplace

b) Transfer

c) Current

d) Voltage

2) Two port networks are connected in cascade. The combination is to be represented as a


single two port network. The parameters are obtained by multiplying the individual
a) z parameter matrix

b) h parameter matrix

c) y parameter matrix

d) ABCD parameter matrix

3) If a two port network is passive, then we have with the usual notation, the following
relationship for symmetrical network
a) h12 = h21
c) h11 h22

b) h12 = h21
d) h11h22 h21h12 = 1

4) The number of roots of S3 + 5S2 + 7S + 3 = 0 in the left half of s-plane is


a) zero

b) one

c) two

d) three

5) A network contains linear resistors and ideal voltage sources. If values of all the
resistors are doubled then the voltage across each resistor is
a) halved

b) doubled

c) increased by 4 times

d) not changed

6) A 10 V battery with an internal resistance of 1 is connected across a nonlinear load


whose V-I character is given by 7I = V2 + 2V. The current delivered by the battery is
a) 0

b) 10 A

c) 5 A

d) 8 A

7) A ______ is a set of branches with every node connected to every other node in such a
way that removal of any branch destroys this property.
a) tree

b) node

c) loop

d) mesh
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 377

*SLRKM377*

-2-

8) The number of independent loops for a network with n nodes and b branches is
a) N 1

b) b n

c) b n + 1

d) b + n 1

9) A network has 7 nodes and 5 independent loops. The number of branched in the network
is
a) 13

b) 12

c) 11

d) 10

10) A step function voltage is applied to an RLC series circuit having R = 2 , L = 1 H and
C = 1F.
The transient current response of the circuit would be
a) over damped

b) critically damped

c) under damped

d) none of above

11) When a unit impulse voltage is applied to an inductor of 1 H, the energy supplied by the
source is
a) infinity

b) I Joule

c) 0.5 Joule

d) 0

12) According to KCL the algebraic sum of currents meeting at a junction or node in a circuit
is
a) 1

b) infinity

c) zero

d) linear

13) Source shifting is the simplification technique used when there is no resistor in
_______ with a voltage source.
a) parallel

b) series

c) junctioned

d) opposite

14) Two wires A and B of the same material and length L and 2L have radius r and 2r
respectively. The ratio of their specific resistance wills be
a) 1 : 1

b) 1 : 2

c) 1 : 4

d) 1 : 8

15) Nodal analysis is based on Kirchoffs __________ law.


a) Voltage

b) Current

c) Mesh

d) Super node

16) The Venins theorem and _________ theorem are dual of each other.
a) KCL

b) KVL

c) Mesh analysis

d) Norton

17) Superposition theorem is not applicable to networks containing


a) Nonlinear elements

b) Dependent voltage source

c) Dependent current source

d) Transformers

18) In a series R-L-C high Q circuit, the current peaks at a frequency


a) Equal to the resonant frequency

b) Greater than the resonant frequency

c) Less than the resonant frequency

d) None of above

19) __________ is defined as point at which two or more elements have a common connection.
a) Branch

b) Node

c) Loop

d) Mesh

20) __________ is a loop which does not contain any other loops within it.
a) Branch

b) Node

c) Loop

d) Mesh

______________
Set A

*SLRKM377*

-3-

SLR-KM 377

Seat
No.

S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL NETWORK ANALYSIS AND SYNTHESIS (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four.

(45=20)

1) State and explain Nortons theorem with one example.


2) Find voltages V1 and V2.

3) State and explain Kirchoffs current law and voltage law.


4) Obtain the Thevenin equivalent network for the given network at terminal A and B.

Set A

SLR-KM 377

-4-

*SLRKM377*

5) Draw the dual of the network below.

3. Attempt any two.

(210=20)

1) The graph of network is shown. Write


a) incidence matrix
b) f-cutset matrix
c) f-tie set matrix.

2) For the circuit shown find value of resistor RL for maximum power and calculate maximum
power.

3) Define Duality and explain its significance and steps that are involved inconstructing
dual of a network.

Set A

*SLRKM377*

SLR-KM 377

-5-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four.

(45=20)

1) Derive the expression for short circuit admittance parameters.


2) Explain the conditions for positive real function.
3) Find Z parameter for given network.

4) Derive expression for ABCD parameters in terms of hybrid parameter.


5) Test whether given parameters are hurwitz.
a) P(s) = s4 + s3 + as2 + 2s + 3
b) P(s) = s4 + 5s3 + 5s2 + 4s + 10.
(210=20)

1) Admittance parameter of a Pi network are Y11 = 0.09 , Y12 = Y21 = 0.05


Y22 = 0.07 . Find the values of Ra, Rb and Rc.

5. Attempt any two.

and

2) Obtain interrelation between Y parameter with Z and ABCD parameter.


3) Find current i(t) for t > 0 for given network.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 378

*SLRKM378*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TRANSDUCERS IN BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


20
1) LVDT works on the principle of __________ inductance.
a) Self
b) Mutual
c) Core
d) Series
2) Platinum resistance temperature detector has _________ ohm resistance at
0C.
a) 0
b) 50
c) 200
d) 100
3) Iron constantan thermocouple is also known as __________ type
thermocouple.
a) J
b) E
c) T
d) K
4) Capacitive sensors are used for measuring dynamic __________ changes.
a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Vacuum
d) Displacement
5) Piezoelectric sensors are used to measure physiological displacement and
record __________
a) Heart sound
b) EEG
c) EMG
d) ECG
6) __________ is a measure of the consistency of measurements.
a) Resolution
b) Precision
c) Accuracy
d) Sensitivity
7) _________ is the degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in the
measured variable without dynamic error.
a) Speed of response
b) Fidelity
c) Lag
d) Error
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 378

-2-

*SLRKM378*

8) _________ transducer generates an electrical signal directly in response to


the physical parameter and does not require an external power source for its
operation.
a) Active
b) Passive
c) Primary
d) Secondary
9) There is a change in the value of the resistance of the conducer when
subjected to strain, a properly called the _________
a) Thermoelectric effect
b) Seeback effect
c) Piezoresistive effect
d) Thomson effect
10) Linear variable differential __________ is a passive inductive detector.
a) Temperature
b) Transducer
c) Transformer
d) Tachometer
11) Optical fiber technology offers a convenient, affordable safe and effective
approach for the delivery and collection of __________ to and form the tissue
region of interest.
a) Sound
b) Current
c) Light
d) Ultrasound
12) __________ is the output of a thermocouple.
a) AC
b) DC
c) AC voltage

d) DC voltage

13) _________ is the moving part of a LVDT.


a) Primary winding
b) Secondary winding
c) Diaphragm
d) Core
14) __________ is not a type of pressure sensing element.
a) Bourdon tube b) Manometer
c) Diaphragm
d) Orifice plate
15) Bourdon tube with LVDT is an example of _________
a) Active passive transducer
b) Primary secondary transducer
c) External internal transducer
d) Resistive transducer
16) __________ are semiconductors made of ceramic material with a high NTC.
a) Strain gage
b) Thermistors c) PT100
d) PZT
17) Potential difference across the cell membrane can be measured by ________
a) Suction cup electrode
b) Floating electrode
c) Metal plate electrode
d) Microelectrode
18) _________ electrode is a practical electrode that approaches perfectly
nonpolarizable biopotential electrode.
a) pH
b) Ag/AgCl
c) PO2
d) pCO2
19) _________ is a dynamic characteristics of a transducer.
a) Accuracy
b) Sensitivity
c) Precision
d) Fidelity
20) Radiation sensors works on the principle of ________
a) Ionisation
b) Dissipation
c) Filtration
d) Transmutation
______________
Set A

*SLRKM378*

-3-

SLR-KM 378

Seat
No.

S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TRANSDUCERS IN BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) What is a gauge factor ? Derive an expression for the same.


b) Distinguish static and dynamic characteristics of transducers. Define any
two of each characteristics.
c) Classify transducers. Give example of each type.
d) Draw and explain bonded and unbonded strain gages.
e) Describe first and second order characteristics of transducer.
f) What is linear and nonlinear characteristic ? Explain thermistor linearization.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Classify thermocouples. State the laws governing the working of the same.
b) List and explain various factor that should be taken into consideration for
selecting a transducer for biomedical applications.
c) Explain construction and working principle of LVDT. How it can be used for
biomedical applications ?

Set A

SLR-KM 378

-4-

*SLRKM378*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) How radiation sensors can be used to detect temperature ? Explain with


example.
b) Describe the equivalent circuit model for electrode skin interface.
c) What is a radiation thermopile ? State its application in biomedical field.
d) Explain the construction and working principle of pO2 electrode.
e) What is the nature of enzyme electrode ? State its applications.
f) Which type of electrode is used to measure cell action potential ? Describe
its construction.
5. a) Explain working principle of pCO2 electrode and fiber optic temperature sensor. 10
b) Attempt any one :

10

i) What is a pH of a solution ? Draw construction and details of combinational


glass electrode and explain reactions involved in the same.
ii) Explain different types of biopotential electrodes with suitable sketch.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 379

*SLRKM379*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Part II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL PROSTHETIC AND ORTHOTICS
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
4) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) _________ forces do not lie in a single plane.


a) Coplanar
b) Non-coplanar
c) Non-concurrent

d) None

2) _________ force is applied on the surface in the direction of the surface.


a) Non coplaner
b) Tangential
c) Non-concurrent d) None
3) Return from elevation is called _________
a) Downward rotation
b) Adduction
c) Depression
d) None
4) Reversal from abduction is called __________
a) Extension
b) Inward rotation
c) Adduction
d) None
5) _________ connect bone to bone.
a) Ligaments
b) Tendon

c) Collagen

d) None

6) In _________ stress, every part of the object is subjected to a tension.


a) Tensile
b) Torsional modulus
c) Shear
d) None
7) In _________, foot fully contacts the ground.
a) Mid stance
b) Heal off
c) Foot flat

d) None

8) Amount of time that a person spends with both feet on the ground during one gait cycle is
called ___________
a) Double support time
b) Single support time
c) Single and double support time
d) None
9) ____________ record timing of GAIT.
a) Instrumented walkway
c) Footswitches

b) Electrogoniometers
d) None

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 379

*SLRKM379*

-2-

10) ____________ records the subjects walking on film or video tape for later visual inspection.
a) Vicon
b) Interrupted light photography
c) Film/Video
d) None
11) Fitting of lower limb employs plastic socket in ________.
a) Total contact socket
b) Partial contact socket
c) Total contact sachet
d) None
12) ________ supports 50 to 100% of the body weight on the affected leg.
a) Weight bearing as tolerated
b) Partial-weight bearing
c) Touch down weight bearing
d) None
13) Deep refers to ______.
a) Away from the midline of the body
b) Closer to the head
c) Inside the body and away from the body surface
d) None
14) Posterior refers to ________.
a) Toward the back of the body
c) Toward the front of the body

b) Toward the midline of the body


d) None

15) Proximal refers to _________.


a) Closer in proximity to the trunk
b) At a distance from the trunk
c) Away from the midline of the body
d) None
16) Lateral refers to _________.
a) Closer in proximity to the trunk
b) Toward the midline of the body
c) Away from the midline of the body
d) None
17) An artificial device extension that replaces a missing body part is known as ________.
a) Orthosis
b) Prosthesis
c) Prosthetist
d) None
18) Dynamic prosthetic feet is ________.
a) unmoving
b) moving in one or more direction
c) storing and returning energy when walking
d) None
19) Distal refers to ________.
a) Closer in proximity to the trunk
c) Toward the surface of the body

b) At a distance from the trunk


d) None

20) Cervico thoraco lumbo sacral orthosis is known as ___________


a) Thoracolumbar spinal orthosis
b) Milwaukee brace
c) Scoliosis
d) None

______________

Set A

*SLRKM379*

-3-

SLR-KM 379

Seat
No.

S.E. (Part-II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL PROSTHETIC AND ORTHOTICS
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Figures to the right indicates full marks.


Assume data wherever necessary.
Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting use blue/black only.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :


(45=20)
1) Explain in brief coplaner and non concurrent forces.
2) Write short notes on i) External and Internal forces ii) Normal and Tangential forces
iii) Tensile and Compressive forces.
3) Write short notes on creep.
4) Write short notes on i) Direct and shear forces ii) Bending and Torque forces.
5) Write short notes on Instrumented walkway.
3. Attempt any two :
1) Explain in detail Gait, Gait cycle, Stance phase and Swing phase.
2) Explain in detail Force system and its classification.
3) Explain in detail about the instrumentation used for motion analysis.

(210=20)

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain in brief Weight bearing.


2) Explain in brief i) orthotics ii) prosthesis
3) Explain in brief Frontal plane movements.
4) Explain in brief Transverse plane movements.
5) Explain in brief Shoulder orthoses.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain in detail Principles of three point pressure.


2) Explain in detail principles of design related to function of orthosis.
3) Explain in detail i) PTB prostheses ii) Knee ankle foot orthoses.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 380

*SLRKM380*
S

S.E. (Part II) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The static characteristics of an instruments are _______________
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Resolution
d) All

Marks : 20
(201=20)

2) In an average responding voltmeters ac amplifier has large amount of


________________
a) Negative feedback
b) Positive feedback
c) Both
d) None
3) Complex waveforms are most accurately measured by ______________
a) ARV (Average Responding Voltmeters)
b) PRV (Peak Responding Voltmeters)
c) True RMS Voltmeter
d) None
4) DVMS have input resistance typically ______________ and input capacitance
_____________
a) 20 M and 20 pF
b) 10 M and 40 pF
c) 12 M and 30 pF
d) None


5) Sensitivity of the digital voltmeter is _____________


a) S = fs*R
b) S = fs/R
c) S = fs + R
d) None
6) In average responding voltmeters the diodes acts as switches to maintain
____________ current.
a) Unidirectional b) Bidirectional c) a) and b)
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 380

-2-

*SLRKM380*

7) In multirange voltmeter ___________ is to be specially manufactured to meet


the circuit performance.
a) R1
b) R2
c) R3
d) R4
8) The parallel resistor is used with the meter movement in ammeter is known
as ___________
a) Multiplier
b) Shunt
c) Divider
d) None
9) The dead time element output is _____________
a) Same as input
b) Same as input after some delay
c) Same as input after dead time
d) None
10) In digital phase meter the two signals have __________
a) Frequency
b) Phase
c) Both
d) None
11) The CRO depends on the movement of ______________ beam.
a) Neutron
b) Positron
c) Electron
d) None
12) In dual beam CRO, there is a common ___________ is used.
a) Time base
b) Amplifier
c) Integrator
d) None
13) The use of ________________ provides a isolation between master
oscillator and power amplifier in signal generator.
a) Power amplifier
b) Buffer amplifier
c) Filter
d) None
14) In modern type signal generator internal calibration is provided by the
____________ crystal oscillator.
a) 2 MHz
b) 1 MHz
c) 4 MHz
d) 10 MHz
15) If the two frequencies are equal and in phase the pattern appears as a
_____________ on a CRO.
a) Straight line
b) Circle
c) Ellipse
d) None
16) In potentiometric recorder the _____________ is amplified and used energize
the field coil of a DC motor.
a) Input signal
b) Potentiometric signal
c) Error signal
d) None
17) Magnetic tape recorders are used to record __________ signals.
a) High frequency
b) Low frequency
c) Band frequency
d) None
18) _______________ is considered the best for photographing from CRT screen.
a) P5
b) P11
c) P2
d) P1
19) DAS should not have a down time greater than _____________
a) 0.1%
b) 0.2%
c) 0.3%
d) 0.8%
20) The oscilloscope is basically an electron beam ______________
a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Ohm meter
d) None
______________

Set A

*SLRKM380*
S

SLR-KM 380

-3-

S.E. (Part II) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Answer the following (any four) :
(45=20)
1) Explain with block diagram a generalized measurement system.
2) Explain the factors involved in selection of a analog voltmeters.
3) Calculate the sensitivity of a meter movement which is to be used as a dc
voltmeter, for full scale currents (i) 200 A (ii) 50 A.
4) Explain digital phase meter.
5) Explain Resolution and Sensitivity of a digital voltmeter.


3. Answer the following (any two) :

(210=20)

1) Explain in detail working and block diagram of True RMS voltmeter.


2) Derive an expression to find the transfer function and roots of a second
order system.
3) Explain with neat block diagram digital frequency meter.
SECTION II
4. Answer the following (any four) :
1) What is CRO ? Explain the basic principle of an oscilloscope.
2) How does PC based DAS aid the operator ?
3) Explain briefly about oscilloscopes used for biomedical signals.
4) Explain ink jet recorder.
5) Explain the use of CRO in tracing the diode characteristics.
5. Answer the following (any two) :

(45=20)

(210=20)

1) Explain with neat block diagram working operation of Digital readout


oscilloscope.
2) Explain modern laboratory type signal generator.
3) Explain multi channel DAS.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 381

*SLRKM381*
S

S.E. (Part II) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL DESIGN
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Figures to the right indicate full marks.


Assume data wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(120=20)
1) The logic family which has minimum power dissipation is ______________
c) ECL
d) CMOS
a) TTL
b) I2L
2) If the strobe signal required for a gate is 1, the gate is _______________
a) OR
b) AND
c) NOR
d) None of the above
3) Which of the following is not true ?
a) 1.A = 1
b) 1 + A = 1
c) 0 + A = A
d) A + A = A
4) Which of the following gates can be used as an inverter ?
a) AND
b) EX-OR
c) OR
d) None of the above
5) The reduced form of Boolean expression (A + B) (A + C) is ____________
a) AB + AC
b) AC + B
c) A + B + C
d) A + BC
6) For a FLIP-FLOP with the provisions of preset and clear _________________
a) Preset and clear operations are performed simultaneously
b) While presetting, clear is disabled
c) While clearing, preset is disabled
d) Both b) and c) are true
7) Karnaugh map is used ________
a) To minimize the number of FLIP-FLOP in a digital circuit
b) To minimize the number of gates only in a digital circuit
c) To minimize the number of the gates and the fan-in requirements of gates
in a digital circuit
d) To design gates
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 381

*SLRKM381*

-2-

8) A multiplexer is also known as _________


a) Counter
b) Decoder
c) Data selector
d) None of the above
9) In which of the following gates the output is high if and only if at least one
input is high ?
a) NOT
b) AND
c) OR
d) NAND
10) An 8-square is called as __________
a) A pair
b) A quad
c) An octet
d) A cube
11) A memory in which the contents get erased when power failure occurs is
_________
a) RAM
b) EPORM
c) PROM
d) ROM
12) A half adder has __________
a) One input and one output
c) Two inputs and one output

b) Two inputs and two outputs


d) Three inputs and two outputs

13) Which type of ROM has to be custom built by the factory ?


a) ROM
b) Mask ROM
c) EPROM
d) EEPROM
14) For DAC 0808, power supply voltage range is ___________
a) 0 to 15V
b) 4.5 to 18V
c) 0 to 5V
d) 0 to 12V


15) The decimal 8 in excess 3 code is given by __________


a) 1011
b) 1111
c) 1100
d) 1000
16) What is the resolution in percent, of a 12 bit DAC ?
a) 8.33
b) 0.000488
c) 0.049
d) 0.083
17) When the two n-bit binary numbers are added, the sum will contain at the
most
a) n-bits
b) n + 1 bits
c) n + 2 bits
d) n + n bits
18) _____________ works as ALU.
a) IC 74181
b) IC 74138

c) IC 74131

d) IC 7485

19) Race around conditions occurs in a JK FLIP-FLOP when __________


a) Both the inputs are 0
b) Both the inputs are 1
c) Inputs are complementary
d) Any one of above condition is present
20) Each term in standard SOP form is called
a) Minterm
b) Maxterm
c) Dont care
d) Literal
______________
Set A

*SLRKM381*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 381

S.E. (Part II) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL DESIGN
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Figures to the right indicate full marks.


Assume data wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four of the following questions :


(45=20)
1) Why NOR gate is called universal gate ? Explain.
2) Compare TTL and CMOS families.
3) Draw neat diagram of 1 : 4 DEMUX using NAND gates. Explain its working
and give its truth table.
4) Explain in detail working of RS FLIP-FLOP.
5) Explain effect of propagation delay in ripple counter.
3. Solve any two of the following questions :

(210=20)

a) Design a Combinational circuit for BCD to 7-segment using NAND gates.


b) Prove the following Boolean identity :


>

>

>

>

>

>

>

OR
c) Explain master slave JK FLIP-FLOP. How it overcomes race around condition ?
Draw the waveform which shows master and slave FLIP-FLOPs output.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four of the following questions :

(45=20)

1) Differentiate between PROM and EPROM.


2) Write a note on successive approximation of ADC.

Set A

SLR-KM 381

-4-

*SLRKM381*

3) Design 2-bit Comparator using basic gates.


4) Explain BCD addition steps using suitable example.
5) Realize a full adder using half adder and basic gates.
5. Solve any two of the following questions :

(210=20)

1) Explain the classification of memories on basis of principle of their


operation.
2) With the help of neat diagram, explain binary weighted type D/A converter.
What are the disadvantages of this method ?
3) a) Perform the following :
i) (143)10 = (?)2

ii) (110.101)2 = (?)10


b) Perform the following using 2s compliment :
i) 1010 0011
ii) (0010 0110)
c) Perform following multiplication :
i) 10101 * 111.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 382

*SLRKM382*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Use of datasheets is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
6) Figure to right indicates full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Feedback in an amplifier always helps to
a) Control its output
c) Decrease its input impedance

20
b) Increase its gain
d) None of these

2) A feedback amplifier has a closed gain of 200. It should not vary more than 50% despite
25% variation in amplifier gain A without feedback. The value of A is
a) 800
b) 800
c) 1000
d) 1000
3) The dissipation at the collector is zero in the quiescent state and increases with excitation
in the case of a
a) Class A series fed amplifier
b) Class A transistor coupled amplifier
c) Class AB amplifier
d) Class B amplifiers
4) The main purpose of using transformer coupling in a class-A amplifier is to make it more
a) Distortion free
b) Costly
c) Bulky
d) Efficient
5) Cascading multiple stages provides
a) Gain as product of individual stages gain
b) Bandwidth as product of individual stages bandwidth
c) Constant gain
d) Constant bandwidth
6) ______________ amplifiers can be used over a wide range of frequencies
a) DC amplifiers
b) RC coupled amplifiers
c) LC coupled amplifiers
d) Transformer coupled amplifiers
7) The Darlington pair is mainly used for
a) Impedance matching
c) Power amplification

b) Wideband voltage amplification


d) Reducing distortion

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 382

*SLRKM382*

-2-

8) Undamped oscillation requires


a) tuned circuit, amplifier and feedback circuit
b) rectifier, amplifier and feedback circuit
c) phase shift circuit, amplifier and feedback circuit
d) none of these
9) The oscillation in an LC circuit is produced due to
a) transfer of energy between L and C
b) transfer resistance between L and C
c) transfer of resistance between base and collector
d) none of these
10) The Weinbridge oscillator uses
a) negative and positive feedback both
c) positive feedback only

b) negative feedback only


d) none of the above

11) Which of the following characteristics does not necessarily apply to the OPAMP ?
a) High gain
b) Lower power
c) High input impedance
d) Low output impedance
12) The output voltage of a summing amplifier is proportional to the product of the input voltages
a) True
b) False
13) Since input resistance of an ideal OPAMP is infinite
a) Its output resistance is zero
b) Its output becomes independent of load resistance
c) Its input current is zero
d) It becomes current controlled device
14) The unity gain frequency of an OPAMP is
a) 103 Hz
b) 106Hz

c) 102Hz

d) 10Hz

15) The highest possible impedance is achieved with the


a) Inverting amplifier
b) Non-inverting amplifier
c) Differential amplifier
d) Voltage follower
16) When used as a comparator, an op-amp is wired in a closed-loop configuration ?
a) True
b) False
17) The operate properly, an oscillator requires an external ac input signal
a) True
b) False
18) For a Wien-Bridge oscillator to produce a sustained sine-wave output, the phase shift
around the positive feedback loop must be greater than 0
a) True
b) False
19) The effectiveness of a filter in rejecting signals beyond cutoff frequency is a function of
the filter roll-off rating
a) True
b) False
20) The formula Ic = (Vc/t). C shows that for a given capacitor, if the voltage changes at a
constant rate with respect to time, the current will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Be constant
d) Decrease logarithmically

______________

Set A

*SLRKM382*

-3-

SLR-KM 382

Seat
No.

S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Use of datasheets is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Figure to right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four :

(45=20)

1) Describe with necessary derivations, the effect of negative feedback on the bandwidth
and gain in amplifier.
2) A certain power transistor meant for class A operation has a zero signal power dissipation
of 20 Watts. If the a.c. output power is 5 W, find
a) Collector efficiency and
b) Power rating of transistor.
3) Draw the circuit diagram of a Class B power amplifier. Derive an expression for efficiency
also explain its disadvantages.
4) Explain briefly with the help of circuit diagram, how oscillations are maintained in Hartley
oscillator.
5) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of transformer coupling.
3. Answer any two :

(210=20)

1) Sketch the circuit of a two stage RC coupled BJT amplifier that uses series voltage
negative feedback. Briefly explain how the feedback operates and derive the equation
for the voltage gain, input impedance, and output impedance.
2) Design Wein Bridge oscillator to provide oscillations of 10 KHz. Assume suitable data if
required.

Set A

SLR-KM 382

*SLRKM382*

-4-

3) Find overall Ri, Ro, Av for the following circuit. Assume hie = 1K

0
=1

0
=1

CE

SECTION II
4. Answer any four :
1) Define :
a) Input bias current
c) Output resistance
e) Input offset voltage.

(45=20)
b) Input capacitance
d) CMRR

2) Derive input resistance with feedback for non inverting amplifier using OPAMP.
3) Explain integrator circuit using OPAMP and draw its frequency response.
4) Draw waveforms and explain peak detector using OPAMP.
5) Compare dual input balanced output configuration with dual input unbalanced output
configuration.
5. Answer any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain differential amplifier with two OPMAPs and derive equation for gain.
2) Explain frequency response of OPAMP in detail.
3) Explain an application of instrumentation amplifier in Bio-Medical field.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 383

*SLRKM383*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Biomedical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION I
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Draw the diagram where require.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Multiple choice questions :

20

1) Beer Lambert law is given as


a) I = I okcb

b) I = Io log Ckcb c) Io = I kcb

d) None

2) The average blood flow velocity in arteries is


a) 30 35 cm/sec b) 20 25 cm/sec c) 15 20 cm/sec d) None
3) In electromagnetic BFM induced voltage is given as
a) e = 2d cos
b) e = CHvd
c) e = Area diameter
d) None
4) The NMR measurement will be Pulsatile in nature because
a) Arterial flow in Pulsatile in nature
b) Cause of the nuclear effect of H ions
c) Pulsed magnetization
d) None of the above
5) Cardiac output (Q) is give as
a) Q = M (Avg. concn of Indicator/ltr blood)* (curve duration)
b) Q = M (Avg. concn of Indicator) * (curve duration)
c) Q * M
d) None
6) Detector used in pulsed oximeter is
a) PIN diode
c) Mercury manometer

b) Strain gauge
d) None

7) Gas for Anesthesia machine


a) Helium
b) Argon

c) Diethyl ether

d) None

8) Total lung capacity in adult male is


a) 3.6 to 9.4 ltr
b) 2.4 to 8.6 ltr

c) 9.4 to 13.4 ltr

d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 383

*SLRKM383*

-2-

9) When the pressure in the patient breathing circuit and Alveoli are equal this period
of no flow is known as
a) Expiratory pause time
b) Inhalation dead time
c) Inspiration pause time
d) None
10) Photomultiplier cover the range of
a) 185 to 650 nm
b) 400 to 360 nm c) 200 to 300 nm
11) Electromagnetic BFM is based on
a) Strokes theorem
c) Beer Lamberts law

d) None

b) Faradays law
d) None

12) Infrared gas analyzer is used to analyse


b) N2 gas
c) O2 gas
a) CO2 gas

d) None

13) In impedance plethysmography the excitation freq. applied in the range


a) 50 to 100 KHz
b) 300 to 400 KHz
c) 100 to 200 KHz
d) None
14) FEV stands for
a) Forced Extraordinary Volume
c) Forced Excited Volume

b) Forced Exchange Volume


d) Forced Expiratory Volume

15) Optical density is given as


a) O.D. = Log (100/T)
c) O.D. = log (T)

b) O.D. = 10 log (T)


d) None

16) Sample concentration = standard concn * (sample reading/reference reading) is


the formula used for
a) Gas volume measurement
b) ELISA test
c) In colorimeter measurement
d) None
17) In blood flow measurement flow rate Q = VA where V stands for
a) voltage
b) viscosity
c) velocity
d) none
18) Intra-Arterial blood gas monitoring is _______ method for measuring blood PO2
and PCO2.
a) Invitro
b) Invivo
c) Transcutaneous
d) None
19) Cardiac output measurement method uses
a) Impedance plethysography
b) Dye dilution method
c) Coulter counter method
d) None
20) Lung compliance is
a) Change in lung capacity w.r.t. time
c) Change in lung volume w.r.t. time

b) Change in lung volume w.r.t. pressure


d) None

______________

Set A

*SLRKM383*

-3-

SLR-KM 383

Seat
No.

T.E. (Biomedical) (Part I) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION I
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
II. Solve any four questions :

(54=20)

1) Explain basic principle and working for colorimeter.


2) Explain basic principle and working of electrolyte analyzer.
3) Explain the working for mass spectroscopy.
4) With a neat diagram explain about centrifuge.
5) Explain the working of Doppler shift blood flowmeter.
III. Solve any two question :

(102=20)

1) With a neat diagram explain the construction of PO2 for blood measurement.
2) Draw and explain the block diagram for Coulters blood cell counter.
3) Describe ultrasonic doppler shift flow velocity method for blood flow measurement
through artery along with necessary equation.
SECTION II
IV. Answer any four question :

(54=20)

1) Draw and explain the working for ultrasonic spirometer.


2) Draw and explain the working principle for infrared gas analyzer.
3) Explain the working principle for pulse oximeter.
4) Explain about ventilators respiratory therapy equipment.
5) Explain the need for Anaesthesia in detail.

Set A

SLR-KM 383

-4-

*SLRKM383*

V. Answer any two question :

(102=20)

1) With a neat block diagram explain the working principle for heart lung machine.
2) Explain pneumatachometers and list its types and explain any one.
3) With a neat diagram explain the working principle for evoked response audiometer.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 384

*SLRKM384*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


BIOLOGICAL MODELING AND SIMULATION
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever required.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) Models are representation of _____________
a) Error
b) Objects
c) Diagrams

20
d) Figures

2) __________ equation is called as two ion equilibrium equation.


a) Nernst
b) Donnan
c) Ohms
d) Ficks
3) __________ equation is referred as constant field equation.
a) Goldman
b) Donnan
c) Nernst
d) Fick
4) Na-K pumps are ___________ mechanisms in cell membrane.
a) Nonactive
b) Passive
c) Active
d) None of above
5) Hodgkin-Huxley model is used to explain neuronal __________ spikes.
a) Curret
b) Iron wire
c) Frequency
d) Voltage
6) Investigating the trust worthiness of a mathematical representation is called
as model ___________
a) Comparting
b) Representation
c) Validation
d) None of above
7) Stretch reflex starts from nerve ________ through afferent fibers to synapse.
a) Spindle
b) Golgi tendon c) Muscle
d) Convention
8) __________ eye movement is a rapid jerky movement.
a) Rapid fast
b) Vestibular
c) Saccadic

d) Smooth pursuit
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 384

-2-

*SLRKM384*

9) Smooth pursuit movement is a ________ movement following moving objects.


a) Slow
b) Fast
c) Jerky
d) Tracking
10) __________ movement of the eye is used to maintain visual fixation.
a) Vestibular
b) Rotate
c) Saccadic
d) Constant
11) Medial and lateral rectus muscle of eyes contract to move the eyes ________
a) Side to side
b) Upper
c) Lower
d) Median
12) Reciprocal innervations model provides realistic records of _________ and
duration as a function of time.
a) Validation
b) Current
c) Velocity
d) None of above
13) Resting ___________ is elastic in nature.
a) Neuron
b) Cell
c) Muscle

d) Active

14) _________ period is defined as the period of time during which an excitable
cell cant generate another action potential.
a) Refractory
b) Resting
c) Absolute
d) Relative
15) Spindle receptor is called as active __________ transducer.
a) Joint
b) Physiological c) Chemical
d) Invasive
16) __________ is one of the substance used by cells to transmit impulses in
basal ganglia.
a) Dopamine
b) CSF
c) Gray matter
d) White matter
17) ___________ are more efficient at higher temperature.
a) Muscles
b) Cells
c) Neurons

d) None of above

18) Ohms law stated law of ____________


a) Current
b) Drift
c) Diffusion

d) None of above

19) The ice cream example represents ________ model of abrupt change in
trunk core temperature.
a) Thermoregulatory
b) Neuromuscular
c) Compartmental
d) Reflex
20) Relationship between the diffusion and ________ process is called as Einstein
relationship.
a) Space charge
b) Concentration
c) Drift
d) Voltage
______________

Set A

*SLRKM384*

-3-

SLR-KM 384

Seat
No.

T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


BIOLOGICAL MODELING AND SIMULATION
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Define and differentiate between model and compartmental model.


2) Explain the function of Na-K pumps.
3) Write Goldman equation and explain its components.
4) Draw and explain electrode electrolyte model.
5) Draw the structure of micro electrode and mention its any two applications.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Derive the expression for Nernst equation of a potassium and calcium ion.
2) With the neat diagram explain the assumptions made for voltage clamp
experiment. Discuss results of the experiments.
3) State and explain biophysics tools for modeling with their mathematical
expression.
Set A

SLR-KM 384

-4-

*SLRKM384*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Define stretch reflex and explain the significance of Golgi tendon and Spindle
receptor in neuromuscular system.
2) Explain the different types of eye movements with each example.
3) Explain the Parkinsons syndrome and its symptoms in detail.
4) Mention any 5 applications of thermoregulatory system and explain any one
of it in detail.
5) Explain different areas of physiological mechanisms of temperature control in
human body.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain using suitable diagram of plant model of thermoregulatory system.


2) Draw and explain the significance with applications of a model of drug delivery
system.
3) Explain closed loop neuromuscular control system showing anatomical
connections between physiological components that participate in stretch
reflex process.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 385

*SLRKM385*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part I) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSORS AND MICROCONTROLLERS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
4) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) What language microprocessor understand ?


a) English
b) Higher level language
c) Assembly language
d) Binary language
2) How many hardware interrupts 8085 support ?
a) 4
b) 13
c) 5

d) 8

3) PSW register is a
a) 8-bit

d) 8-byte

b) 16-bits

c) 4-bit

4) RST 7.5 interrupt is


a) Positive edge triggered
c) Level triggered

b) Negative edge triggered


d) Both a) and c)

5) What type memory is stack ?


a) LIFO
b) FIFO

c) Sequential

d) Random

6) Which is not a 16-bit register of 8085 ?


a) SP
b) M

c) PC

d) HL Pair

7) The 8085 can address upto ___________ bytes of memory.


a) 64 K
b) 32 K
c) 256 K
d) 128 K
8) IC 74LS244 is a
a) Latch

b) Buffer

c) Encoder

d) Decoder

9) Instruction MOV A, 30 H uses _________ addressing mode.


a) Immediate
b) Register
c) Direct
d) Indirect
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 385

*SLRKM385*

-2-

10) The 8085 is based in a ___________ pin DIP.


a) 40
b) 45
c) 20

d) 35

11) For 8051 based system crystal frequency is 20 MHz, then period of machine cycle
in microseconds will be
a) 0.60
b) 0.75
c) 1.08
d) 0.50
12) ADC 0809 is a
a) 9-bit

b) 10-bit

c) 8-bit

d) None of the above

13) Which of the 8051 port needs pull-up register to function as input port ?
a) Port 1
b) Port 2
c) Port 3
d) Port 0
14) Internal RAM memory of 8051 is
a) 32 bytes
b) 64 bytes

c) 128 bytes

15) The 8051 has ___________ 16 bit counter/timer.


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3

d) 256 bytes
d) 4

16) When the 8051 is reset and EA line is high the program counter points to first
program instruction in
a) Internal code memory
b) External code memory
c) Internal data memory
d) External data memory
17) In I/O mapped I/O address of port is
a) 8-bit
b) 16-bit

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

18) The popular technique that is used in integration of ADC chip is


a) Successive approximation
b) Dual slope integration
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
19) Input voltage range of ADC 0809 is
a) 0 to 5 V
b) 50 to 100 V

c) 10 to 20 V

d) None of the above

20) Select the statement that best describes ROM.


a) Nonvolatile, used to store information that changes during system operation
b) Nonvolatile, used to store information that does not change during system
operation
c) Volatile used to store information that changes during system operation
d) Volatile used to store information that does not change during system operation
______________

Set A

*SLRKM385*

-3-

SLR-KM 385

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part I) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSORS AND MICROCONTROLLERS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) Assume data wherever necessary.
3) Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary.
4) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four of the following questions :

(45=20)

1) Draw static RAM cell and explain its operation.


2) Explain different addressing modes in 8085.
3) Explain hardware interrupts of 8085 in short.
4) Explain the use of stack with the use of PUSH and POP instruction.
5) Write addressing modes, instruction bytes, machine cycles and number of T-state
cycles required for following instructions :
i) SHLD C300
ii) LDAX B.
3. Solve any two of the following questions :

(102=20)

1) Draw and explain RIM instruction format.


2) Draw and explain pin diagram of 8085.
OR
3) Write an assembly language program to sort given 8-bytes of data in assembly
language.
Set A

SLR-KM 385

-4-

*SLRKM385*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four of the following :

(45=20)

1) Explain the terms :


i) Synchronous
ii) Asynchronous
iii) Simplex
iv) Half duplex
v) Full duplex.
2) Differentiate between memory mapped I/O and I/O mapped memory.
3) Discuss the function of following pins of 8051 :
i) XTAL1 and XTAL2
ii) ALE.
4) Define the terms :
i) LCD
ii) Keypad matrix
iii) Relay
iv) Buzzer
v) LED.
5) Compare microprocessor and microcontroller.
5. Solve any two of the following questions :

(210=20)

1) Explain special function registers of 8051.


2) Write a program to rotate stepper motor for one complete revolution.
3) Explain data transfer technique and classify them.
_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 386

*SLRKM386*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated with m = 0.75. The total power in AM
is _____
a) 400 W
b) 512 W
c) 588 W
d) 650 W
2) No-coherent detection is not possible for ________
a) PSK
b) ASK
c) FSK
d) Both (a) and (b)
3) Which of the following is an indirect way of FM generation ?
a) Armstrong modulator
b) Reactance FM modulator
c) Varactor diode modulator
d) Reactance bipolar transistor modulator
4) A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves having modulation
indices of 0.4 and 0.3. The total modulation index will be ______
a) 0.1
b) 0.7
c) 0.5
d) 0.35
5) A carrier wave carries information
a) True
b) False
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) not (a) nor (b)
6) Frequency shift keying is used mostly in ___________.
a) telegraphy
b) telephony
c) satellite communication
d) radio transmission
7) Radio broadcasts are generally ________.
a) amplitude modulation
b) both amplitude and frequency modulation
c) frequency modulation
d) neither amplitude nor frequency modulation
P.T.O.

SLR- KM 386

-2-

*SLRKM386*

8) If the frequency of the wave is 20 Hz, the time period is ______.


a) 20 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 0.2 sec
d) 0.05 sec
9) Which of the following gives maximum probability error ?
a) ASK
b) DPSK
c) FSK
d) PSK
10) Pulse stuffing is used in_______
a) synchronous TDM
b) asynchronous TDM
c) any TDM
d) all
11) The disadvantage of FM over AM is that
a) high output power is needed
b) high modulating power is needed
c) noise is very high for high frequency d) large bandwidth is required
12) SSB can be generated by
a) filter method
b) phase cancellation method
c) good attenuation characteristics d) all of the above
13) The modulation index of an FM is changed from 0 to 1. How does the
transmitted power change ?
a) Gets halved
b) Gets doubled
c) Gets increased by 50 percent
d) Remains unchanged
14) A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by
a) converting the phase modulation to frequency modulation
b) pre-amplifying the whole audio band
c) boosting the base frequencies
d) amplifying the higher audio frequencies
15) A SSB signal contains 3 kW. The power content of the carrier is ______ kW.
a) 6
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
16) Armstrong modulator generates
a) AM signal
b) FM signal
c) PM signal
d) Both (b) and (c)
17) Quantization noise occurs in
a) PAM
b) DM
c) PWM
d) PPM
18) In SSB transmitter one is most likely to find
a) class C audio amplifier
b) tuned modulator
c) class B RF amplifier
d) class AB power amplifier
19) In PCM, bit duration is defined as
a) sampling period/total no. of bits
b) sampling period * total no. of bits
c) total no. of bits/sampling period
d) none of these
20) When Pc is the un modulated carrier power and Pt is the total power in the
modulated wave, then the maximum power in AM wave is
b) Pt = 2.5 Pc
c) Pt = 2
d) Pt = 2 Pc
a) Pt = 1.5 Pc
______________
Set A

*SLRKM386*

-3-

SLR- KM 386

Seat
No.

T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain analog communication system with neat block diagram.


2) What is amplitude modulation and define modulation index for AM ?
3) Explain DSBFC modulation technique.
4) List down the various methods used for FM generation and explain any one of
them.
5) What is the difference between phase modulation and frequency modulation ?
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated to a depth of 100%. Calculate the


total power in case of AM and DSBSC techniques. How much power saving
is achieved in DSBSC ? If the depth of modulation is changed to 75%, then
how much power is required for transmitting DSBSC wave ?
2) Write down the types, causes and effect of the various forms of noise which
may be created within the receiver or am amplifier.
3) Describe the generation of VSB wave using analog multiplier and filter method.
Set A

SLR- KM 386

-4-

*SLRKM386*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain briefly the different types of digital modulation techniques.


2) Describe the sampling process in details.
3) Explain coherent detection of binary ASK signal.
4) Differentiate TDM and FDM.
5) Describe non-coherent detection of M-ary FSK signal.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) What is M-ary phase shift keying ? Derive a methematical expression for it.
2) Compare PAM, PWM and PPM.
3) What is QAM ? Explain in details various types of QAM.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 387

*SLRKM387*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part I) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Figures to the right indicates full marks.


Assume data wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Attempt all :

(120=20)

1) Convolution integral can be applied to signal of


a) Continuous time b) Discrete times c) Digital type

d) All

2) Condition for Nyquist rate is


a) Fs 2Fm
b) Fs>2Fm

d) Fs=2Fm

c) Fs 2Fm

3) A signal having period of 12 sec will have angular frequency


d) 6
a)
b) 2
c) 2
4) The inverse Z-transform of X(z) is
a) X(n) =

1
cX(Z ) z n 1 dz
2

b) x(n) =

1
cX(Z) z n dz
2J

c) x(n) =

1
X(Z) z n 1 dz
2j

d) x(n) =

1
cX (Z ) z n + 1 dz
2

5) Bilateral Z-transformation can be described with


a) n >
b) < n
c) < n <

d) None

6) The Fourier transform of (n)


a) 1

jw
b) e

7) If x(n) = (n) its ROC is


a) | z | < 1
b) | z | > 1

c) 1/e

d) e jw

c) Entire z plane

d) | z | = 1
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 387

*SLRKM387*

-2-

8) x(n) = {3, 2, 1, 4, 1} then ROC of X(z) is


a) Entire z plane
b) Entire z plane except at z = 0 and z =
c) Entire z plane except at z = 0
d) Entire z plane except at z =
9) The convolution in time domain is multiplication in
a) Z-domain
b) S-domain
c) Z plane

d) Frequency domain

10) If x(t) is time shifted with x(t + t0) the signal will shift towards
a) Left side
b) Downward
c) Right side
d) Upward
11) If a system is giving bounded output for bounded input the system will be
a) Causal
b) Stable
c) Non causal
d) Periodic
12) The Z-transform of an arbitrary signal x(n) is
a) X(Z ) = n = x (n) z n

b) X(Z ) = n = x (n) z n

c) X(Z ) = n = x (n) z n

d) X(Z ) = n = 0 x (n) z n

0
0

13) A periodic signal x(t) is having even symmetry then Fourier expansion contains
a) Cosine
b) Sine
c) DC and Sine
d) DC and Cosine
14) A sinusoidal signal is given by
a) x(t) = A cos (w0 + )
c) x(t) = A eat

b) x(t) = A sin wt
d) None

15) A continuous time signal x(t) is said to be even signal if it satisfied the condition
a) x(t) = x(t)
b) x(t) = x(t)
c) x(t) = x(t)
d) None of these
16) A continuous time signal x(t) is said to periodic if it satisfied the condition
a) x(t) = x(t + T) for all t
b) x(t) = x(t T) for all t
c) x(t) = x(t)
d) x(t) = x(t)
17) The signal which exists only at t = 0 whose area is unity is referred as
a) u(t)
b) (t )
c) r(t)
d) Rectangular function
18) Fourier transform of x(t) can be given as

a) X(jw ) = x(t ) e jw 0 t

b) X(jw ) =

c) X(jw ) = x(t ) e jw 0 t

x(t ) e

jw 0 t

d) None

19) The conversion or transformation of signal from time domain in to frequency domain is
a) Fourier transform
b) Z-transform
c) Laplace transform
d) Inverse z-transform
20) The signal x(t) recovered from sampled signal xp(t) is closely related to its original
signal x(t) if the method of signal reconstruction is
a) Zero order hold b) Sampling
c) Linear interpolation d) Nyquist rate
______________
Set A

*SLRKM387*

-3-

SLR-KM 387

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part I) (Biomedical) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Figures to the right indicates full marks.


Assume data wherever necessary.
Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Define signal. Which are the different types of signals ? Explain any two.
2) Compare the following terms energy and power.
3) State and explain sampling theorem in frequency domain.
4) Find the convolution of given sequence by using matrix method.
X1(n) = {1, 2, 3, 1}
X2(n) = {2, 3, 2}
5) Sketch the following signals
a) u(t) u(t 2)
b) r(t) = 2r(t 1) + r(t 2)
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Find the fundamental period T of the following continuous time signals


i) x(t) = jej5t
ii) x(t) = cos 50 t
iii) x(t) = 20 cos (10 t + /6).
2) The analog signal m(t) is given below :
m(t) = 4 cos(50 t ) + 8 sin (300 t ) cos(100 t ) calculate Nyquist sampling rate.
3) Explain with block diagram and details the discrete time processing of continuous
time signal and explain antialiasing of filter and bandwidth of sampled signal.

Set A

SLR-KM 387

-4-

*SLRKM387*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1 1
z
4
1) X(z ) =
; ROC | z | > 1/2.
1 1
1 1

1 z 1 z
2
4

Find the inverse z-transform by using partial fraction method.


2) Define unilateral and bilateral z-transform. Explain the Region of Convergence
(ROC) with its properties.
3) Find the Fourier transform of x(t) = cosw0t.
4) State and explain the time shifting and linearity property of Fourier transform.
5) Define z-transform. Write its applications.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Evaluate the discrete time Fourier series for the signal


4
10
x(n) = sin n + cos
n + 1
21
21
Sketch the magnitude and phase spectra.
2) Prove that convolution of two sequence in time domain is equivalent to
multiplication of the same sequence is transformed in z-domain.
3) Find the Fourier transform of the following :
i) x(n) = 0.5n 1 u(n 1)
ii) X(ejw) = ejw for w < .
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 389

*SLRKM389*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION II (Old)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first
30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) ___________ rate measures 72 beats/min.
a) mean pressure b) cardiac cycle c) heart rate

20
d) pulse rate

2) ___________ measures are 120/80 mmHg.


a) blood pressure
b) pulse rate
c) cardiac cycle
d) heart rate
3) EEG measures electrical activity of ____________
a) muscle
b) cortex
c) heart

d) brain

4) ____________ is a measure of body resistance.


a) GSR
b) Biofeedback
c) Skin
d) None of above
5) Phonocardiography measures heart ____________
a) pulse rate
b) sounds
c) ECG

d) heart rate

6) Leakage _____________ is unavoidable current.


a) current
b) source
c) micro

d) none of above

7) ____________ uses 10-20 electrode system.


a) EEG
b) EMG
c) Phonocardiography
d) None of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 389

*SLRKM389*

-2-

8) EMG measures electrical activity of ___________


a) muscle
b) cell
c) neuron

d) CSF

9) Repolarization of nerve cell activity measures _________ mV.


a) + 20
b) +75
c) 90
d) + 35
10) Exciting state membrane potential measures ___________ mV.
a) + 20
b) + 75
c) 20
d) 90
11) _________ is a part of defibrillator.
a) pacemaker
c) cardiotocograph

b) ECG
d) phonocardiograph

12) __________ Doppler works on the principle of Doppler shift.


a) Ultrasound
b) X Ray
c) MRI
d) None of above
13) Baby incubator maintains ___________ of baby.
a) pressure
b) humidity
c) temperature
d) none of above
14) Refractory period is defined as period of time during which an excitable cell
cant generate another ___________ potential.
a) action
b) resting
c) absolute
d) relative
15) Ultrasound Doppler uses __________ transducer.
a) piezocrystal
b) sodium
c) Na-I

d) active

16) Sodium is one of the ion substance used by cell to _________ impulses in
basal ganglia.
a) transmit
b) reflex
c) receive
d) conduct
17) _________ are more efficient at higher temperature.
a) skin surfaces b) cells
c) neurons

d) muscles

18) Instrumentation amplifiers provides __________ to amplification.


a) slew rate
b) drift
c) gain
d) none of above
19) Standard _________ pressure is 40 mmHg.
a) mean
b) pulse
c) blood

d) CSF

20) Ultrasound Doppler measures ___________


a) heart sound
b) heart rate
c) ECG

d) pulse rate

______________
Set A

*SLRKM389*

-3-

SLR-KM 389

Seat
No.

T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION II (Old)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Define different components of nerve action potential with neat diagram.
2) Explain concept of high frequency and low frequency noise in ECG recording.
3) Define average heart rate and explain its monitoring system in detail.
4) Explain difference between ECG and EMG recording techniques.
5) Define blood pressure, mean pressure, heart rate, pulse rate.
3. Attempt any two :
(210=20)
1) Explain working of EEG machine with its electrode system.
2) Explain the generation of ECG signal and working of it.
3) What is the significance of measuring skin resistance and explain the
technique used for measurement of skin resistance with necessary diagram ?
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain Doppler shift principle with necessary diagram.
2) Define Leakage current, micro shock and macro shock and state their
limiting values.
3) Define and list the application of telemedicine.
4) Draw and explain working of cardiotocograph in detail.
5) Differentiate baby incubator and infant warmer with each two applications.
5. Attempt any two :
(210=20)
1) Draw and explain various patient isolation techniques with necessary
diagram.
2) Define biofeedback; explain the clinical significance of EMG biofeedback.
3) Explain working of ultrasonic Doppler shift based fetal heart rate measuring
system with neat diagram.
_____________________
Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 390

*SLRKM390*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


MEDICAL IMAGING I
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct objective :

(201=20)

1) Exposure is used to measure ______ of X-ray beam.


a) Intensity
b) Rontegen
c) REM

d) Rad

2) An X-ray generator provides ______ to X-ray tube.


a) vacuum tube
b) triode
c) electron

d) power

3) ______ is the source of electrons that are accelerated toward the anode.
a) Coil
b) Magnet
c) Filament
d) Counter
4) The ________ is the flow of electrons from the filament to the anode.
a) tube invent
b) tube voltage
c) step up transformer
d) step down transformer
5) ______ is the distance between successive wave crests.
a) frequency
b) wavelength
c) period

d) time

6) Velocity = ?
a) time

c) velocity

d) none of above

c) Rayl

d) REM

b) wavelength

7) Unit of acoustic impedance is


a) Rad
b) Rontegen

8) ______ is a composite effect by scatter and absorption.


a) Attenuation
b) Reflection
c) Refraction

d) Time

9) The absorbed sound wave energy is converted into


a) power
b) energy
c) heat

d) wavelength
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 390

*SLRKM390*

-2-

10) ______ is the change in direction of an ultrasound beam when it passes from one
medium to another.
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Scattering
d) Attenuation
11) The ______ is related to the frequency response of crystal.
a) factor
b) crystal margin c) period
d) wave length
12) Focused transducer reduce
a) wavelength
b) frequency

c) period

13) ______ mode displays time dependent motion.


a) A
b) B
c) frequency

d) beam width
d) M

14) ______ mode displays a static image of a section of tissue.


a) A
b) B
c) frequency
d) M
15) The medical thermograph is a sensitive ______ camera.
a) Gamma
b) Ultraviolet
c) Infrared

d) None of above

16) An object which absorbs all radiation incident upon it, at all wavelength is called
a) black body
b) absorbed dose
c) wavelength
d) scattering
17) In ______ scanning technique X-ray tube rotates continuously around the perfect.
a) X-ray
b) Spiral CT
c) Plane CT
d) Intensifier
18) All the larger organs of body can be examined by visualizing the associated vessel
is called
a) scanning
b) intensifying
c) angiography
d) none of the above
19) ______ give an indication of how much of this incident energy is absorbed.
a) Rontegen
b) REM
c) Rad
d) Rayl
20) ______ are inserted between the patient and the film cassette.
a) Grids
b) Collimators
c) Leads
d) Detector
______________

Set A

*SLRKM390*

-3-

SLR-KM 390

Seat
No.

T.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


MEDICAL IMAGING I
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain following terms with reference to X-ray.


a) Line focus principle
b) Photo electric effect.
2) Draw structure of image intensifier tube.
3) Differentiate between continuous and pulse wave dopple ultrasound systems.
4) Explain the use of grids in X-ray imaging.
5) Explain the steps of X-ray film processing.
3. Attempt any two :
(210=20)
1) What do you understand by A, B and M modes in ultrasound imaging ?
2) Draw and explain the complete block diagram of X-ray machine.
3) Define and explain Doppler effect. Calculate the Doppler shift if blood is flowing at
20 cm/sec. operating frequency of transducer is 5 MHz and the angel that sound
beam makes with vessel lumen is 60.
4. Attempt any four :
1) List any 5 applications of fundoscopy machine.
2) List the advantages of CT scan over digital radio graphs.
3) Explains the physics behind thermography tech.
4) Explain the role of X-ray in mammography technique measurement.
5) Mention 5 medical applications of thermography.
5. Attempt any two :
1) Explain different parts of thermographic machine with neat diagram.
2) Draw and explain the working of image intensifier with its application.
3) Explain the need, process and applications of angiography techniques.

(45=20)

(210=20)

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 391

*SLR-KM-391*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part II) (Old) (Bio-Medical Engg.) Examination, 2015


BIOSTATISTICS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data wherever required.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Fill in the blanks (each one mark) :

(201=20)

1) If r = 1 then correlation is
a) Perfect positive
c) Low negative

b) Perfect negative
d) Low positive

2) If cov (x, y) = 0 then r =


a) 1
b) 1

c) 0.5

d) 0

3) Algebraic sum of deviation from mean is


a) Positive
b) Negative

c) Zero

d) None of these

4) Standard deviation is _________square root of variance.


a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Both a and b

d) None of these

5) For the distribution of 5 observation 8, 8, 8, 8, 8 then mean is ___________


a) 0
b) 8
c) 4
d) 2
6) t-distribution is unimodal with mean = median = mode = ______________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 1
7) The statistics of Chi-square test is ______________
a)

(0 E )2

b)

(0 E )

c)

0 E

8) The student t-distribution is used to test ________ samples.


a) independent
b) small
c) large

d) None of these

d) none of these

9) The value of will be _________ if the observation and expected frequencies coincide.
a) 0

b) 1

c) 1

d) 0.5

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 391

*SLR-KM-391*

-2-

10) In two tailed test, if z > 1.96 then z is at ________ level of significant.
a) 1%

b) 5%

c) 10%

d) 20%

11) Variance ratio (F) is _____________


2

a)

St

b)

2
Se

Se

c)

2
St

St
Se

d)

St

12) Algebraic sum of deviation from mean is ___________


a) positive

b) negative

c) zero

d) different of each other

13) Mean is _________ by extreme observation.


a) not affected

b) less affected

c) very much affected

d) none of these

14) Median is the average suited for _________ class.


a) open end

b) close end

c) neither open nor close

d) none of these

15) Variance is the ___________value of mean square deviation.


a) maximum

b) minimum

c) equal

d) all the above

16) In the following data 2, 5, 7, 2, 7, 2, 8, 10 the mode is


a) 2

b) 5

c) 7

d) 10

17) If R1.23 = 1 then association is ____________


a) perfect
b) low
c) high

d) zero

18) If byx = 1.4 and bxy = 0.5 then r = ____________


a) 0.84
b) 0.70
c) 0.84

d) 0.70

19) Standard deviation of binomial distribution is _____________


a) pq

b) npq

c)

pq

d)

npq

20) For the Poisson distribution _____________


a) Mean variance
c) Mean

variance

b) Mean variance
d) Mean = variance
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-391*

SLR-KM 391

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part II) (Old) (Bio-Medical Engg.) Examination, 2015


BIOSTATISTICS
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B : 1) Use of calculator is allowed


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any two :
(102=20)
1) a) Find mean, median and mode of the following data
x:
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
f:
3
11
13
24
28
21
14
6
5
b) Calculate S.D. for the following data
Class : 0 10 10 20 20 30 30 40 40 50 50 60 60 70
Freqn. :
2
8
10
15
12
8
5
5
2) a) For a binomial distribution mean is 2 and S.D. is 1. Find all the constant of distribution.
4
b) In a Poisson distribution P(x = 2) =
i) P (x = 1)

2
3

P(x = 1). Find

ii) P(x = 2)

iii) P(x 2)

3) a) Nine items of a sample had the following values 45, 47, 50, 52, 48, 47, 49, 53, 51
Does the mean of 9 item differ significantly from the assumed population mean 47.5 ?
(t 8 at 5% L.O.S. for

=8 d.f. is 2.306)

b) The following mistake per page were observed in a book. Fit a Poisson distribution.
No.of mistakes
No. of Pages

211

90

19

3. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

1) a) If the mean life and S.D.of cell are 12 hrs and 3 hrs. What % of cell will have life ?
i) between 10 and 14 hrs

ii) more than 15 hrs

(SNV area under curve z = 0 to z = 0.67 is 0.2486, z = 0 to z = 1 is 0.3413 and z = 0


to z = 2 is 0.4772).

Set A

SLR-KM 391

*SLR-KM-391*

-4-

b) From the following data find the missing frequency when mean is 15.38 hence find mode
Size

10

12

14

16

18

20

Frequency

20

2) To test the hypothesis that the average number of days a patient in the three local hospital
say A, B and C are same, a random check on the number of days that seven patients
stayed in each hospital reveals the following. Test the hypothesis at = 0.05 (The table
value of F for df ( 1 = 2, 2 = 18 ) at 5% is 3.55).
8

Hospital A

3) a) Find C.V. of the following data 3, 8, 5, 7, 3, 5, 10, 8, 9, 2.


b) Calculate Mean by
i) Direct method
Cl ass:

ii) Step deviation method

0 10

10 - 20

20 - 30

30 - 40

40 - 50

50 - 60

60 - 70

12

20

18

12

Fr equencey :

Also find mode.

7
SECTION II

4. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

1) Fit a second degree parabolic curve also fit a st.line.

10

x:

y:

10

11

11

10

2) If r12 = 0.59, r13 = 0.46, r23 = 0.77 calculate


ii) r13.2
i) r12.3
iii) R1.23

iv) R2.13

10

Set A

*SLR-KM-391*

SLR-KM 391

-5-

3) Find the lines of regression of x on y and y on x from the following data


x:

10

14

18

22

26

30

y:

18

12

24

30

36

Also find y where x = 32.

10

5. Attempt any two :

(102=20)

1) a) In a experiment on the immunization of goat from anthrax, the following result were
obtained.
Derive your inference on the efficacy of vaccine.

Inoculated with vaccine not inoculated

Died of anthrax

Survived

10

(Table value of for 1 df. is 3.841)


b) A machine produced 20 defective article in a batch of 400 after overhauling it
produced 10 defective in a batch of 300. Has the machines improved ?Use 5%
level of significant.

2) a) A man buys 100 electric bulbs of each of two well-known marks taken at random
from stock for testing purpose. He finds that make A has a mean life of 1300 hr
with S.D. of 82 and make B has a mean life of 1284 hr with S.D. of 93 hr. Discuss
the significance of these result.

b) Calculate Spearmans rank correlation coefficient

x:

39

65

62

90

82

75

25

98

36

78

y:

47

53

58

86

62

68

60

91

51

84

3) a) Define and explain


i) Sign test

ii) Median test

b) Define and explain


i) Fisher exact test
ii) Wilcoxen signed rank test

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 392

*SLR-KM-392*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Bio-medical engineering) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The direct evaluation DFT requires ___________ complex multiplications.


a) N(N 1)

b) N 2

c) N(N +1)

d)

N(N 1)
2

2) DFT is ___________
a) Discrete Fourier Series

b) Discrete Fourier transform

c) Discrete Time Fourier Transform

d) Discrete Time Fourier Series

3) The fast Fourier transform in an algorithm used to compute the


a) DFT

b) FT

c) Convolution

d) Circular convolution

4) Circular convolution of the sequences x(n) = {1, 2, 1} and h(n) ={1, 2, 2} is


a) {1, 2, 1}

b) {3, 2, 1}

c) {3, 2, 1}

d) {3, 2, 2}

5) The methods to calculate filtering of long duration sequences is


a) Overlap save

b) Overlap add

c) FIR and IIR

d) Both a) and b)

6) When the system has poles inside the unit circle in Z-domain ?
a) The system is stable and its impulse response is a decaying function
b) Time domain behavior will be exponentially rising signal
c) The system is unstable
d) The impulse response is marginally constant.

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 392

*SLR-KM-392*

-2-

7) If X(k) is N-point DFT of finite duration sequence x(n), then


a) x(n + N) = x(n)

b) x(n N) = x(n)

c) x(n + N) = x(n)

d) None of the above

8) The Direct form II realization requires _________________ no. of multiplications.


a) M N + 1

b) M + N + 1

c) M + N

d) M N

9) Fourier transform of x(t) can be given as

jt
a) x( j) = x(t )e dt
0

jt
c) x(j) = x(t )e dt

jn t
b) x( j) = x(t)e dt

d) None

10) Main disadvantage of direct form II realization


a) Quantization error

b) Requires more memory

c) Sensitive to error

d) All above

11) IIR filter design is based on ___________ filter design.


a) Analog

b) Digital

c) DT

d) None of above

12) Aliasing is present in which filter technique


a) Impulse invariant technique

b) Bilinear transformation

c) Approximation of derivatives

d) The matched Z-Transform

13) IIR filters are _____________ type.


a) Non Recursive

b) Recursive

c) Causal

d) None

14) Using impulse invariant technique which type of filters are designed.
a) Only high pass filters

b) Only LPF

c) Only BPF

d) Both LPF and BPF

15) The mapping for BLT method is


a) One to one

b) Many to one

c) Many to many

d) None of above

16) Memory requirement and execution time required for FIR filter is
a) High

b) Low

c) Very high

d) Very low

b) Quasi stable

c) Stable

d) None of above

c) Both a) and b)

d) None

17) FIR filters are always


a) Unstable

18) FIR filters have constant


a) Group delay

b) Phase delay

19) FIR filter has a ____________


a) Non linear phase response

b) Quasi phase response

c) Linear phase response

d) All above

20) The main lobe width of hanning window is ____________ that of the rectangular window.
a) Twice

b) Thrice
c) Four times
______________

d) Five times
Set A

*SLR-KM-392*

-3-

SLR-KM 392

Seat
No.

T.E. (Bio-medical engineering) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Perform circular convolution using concentric circle method for x1(n) = {1, 1, 2, 1} and
x2(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4}.
2) Differentiate between linear convolution an circular convolution.
3) What is zero padding ? What are its uses ?
4) Compute four point DFT of a sequence x(n)= {0, 1, 2, 3} using DIT FFT algorithm.
5) Find DFT of x(n) = an.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Find the DFT of a sequence x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1} using DIT algorithm.


2) Find the output value of a filter whose impulse response is h(n) = {1, 1, 1} and input signal
is x(n) = {3, 1, 0, 1, 3, 2, 0, 1, 2, 1} using
a) overlap save method and
b) overlap add method.
3) Obtain the cascade realization with minimum number of multipliers.

1
1 1

H(z) = 1 + z 1 z 1 + z 2 .
2
2 4

Set A

SLR-KM 392

*SLR-KM-392*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) What are desirable and undesirable features of FIR filter ?


2) Design an ideal LPF with a frequency response Hd (ej ) = 1 for
= 0 for

2
2

Find values of h(n) of N= 4 using rectangular window.


3) Explain adaptive noise cancellation.
4) By impulse invariance method obtain the digital filter transfer function of analog filter
H(s) =

1
.
s +1

5) Explain bilinear transformation technique used in designing IIR filter.


5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain in detial LMS filter and prove how it is adaptive filter.


2) Apply impulse invariant method and find H(z) for H(s) =

1
2

s + 2s + 1

3) Design an ideal BPF with a frequency response Hd(ej ) = 1 for

with T = 1 sec.

3
/ /
4
4

= 0 for otherwise
Find values of h(n) for N = H plot frequency response.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 393

*SLRKM393*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part II) (Old) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015


EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
4) Use legible handwriting, use blue-black only.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The 8051 microcontroller is of ______ pin package as a ________ processor.


a) 40, 8 byte
b) 20, 1 byte
c) 40, 8 byte
d) 30, 1 byte
2) The SP is of __________ wide register. And this may be defined anywhere in
the ________
a) 8 byte, on-chip 128 byte RAM
b) 8 bit, on chip 256 byte RAM
c) 16 bit, on-chip 128 byte ROM
d) 8 but, on chip 128 byte RAM
3) After reset, SP register is initialized to address _______
a) 08 H
b) 09 H
c) 07 H
d) 06 H
4) What is the address range of SFR Register Bank ?
a) 00H-77H
b) 40H-80H
c) 80H-7FH

d) 80H-FFH

5) Which pin of port 3 is has an alternative function as write control signal for
external data memory ?
a) P3.8
b) P3.3
c) P3.6
d) P3.1
6) What is the Address (SFR) for TCON, SCON, SBUF, PCON and PSW
respectively ?
a) 88H, 98H, 99H, 87H, 0D0H
b) 98H, 99H, 87H, 0D0H
c) 0D0H, 87H, 88H, 99H, 98H
d) 87H, 88H, 0D0H, 98H, 99H
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 393

-2-

*SLRKM393*

7) Which of the following is of bit operations :


i) SP
ii) P2 b
iii) TMOD
iv) SBUF
v) IP
a) ii, v only
b) ii, iv, v only
c) i, v only
d) iii, ii only
8) Serial port interrupt is generated, if ____________ bits are set.
a) IE
b) RI, IE
c) IP, TI
d) RI, TI
9) In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority ?
a) IE1
b) TF0
c) IE0
d) TF1
10) The specified maximum frequency used in 8051 oscillator clock is
a) 1 MHz
b) 10 MHz
c) 16 MHz
d) 25 MHz
11) The program counter in 8051 is __________ bit register.
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 64
12) The symbolic code for each instruction is called as
a) Mnemonic
b) Operand
c) Comment
d) Opcode
13) Various ways of specifying data are called as
a) Addressing mode
b) Calling
c) Conditional jump
d) Interrupts
14) When 8051 wakes up then 0x00 is loaded to which register ?
a) DPTR
b) SP
c) PC
d) PSW
15) In 8051 series has how many 16 bit registers
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
16) Resolution of ADC can be defined as
c) 2N 1
d) 2N 1
a) 1/2 N 1
b) 1/2N 1
17) Which pin of the LCD is used for adjusting its contrast ?
a) Pin no 1
b) Pin no 2
c) Pin no 3
d) Pin no 4
18) How many bytes of bit addressable memory is present in 8051 based micro
controllers ?
a) 8 bytes
b) 32 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 128 bytes
19) The register that provides control and status information about serial port is
a) IP
b) IE
c) TSCON
d) PCON and SCON
20) The registers that are not accessible by the user are
a) Accumulator and B register
b) IP and IE
c) Instruction registers
d) TMP1 and TMP2
______________
Set A

*SLRKM393*

-3-

SLR-KM 393

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part II) (Old) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015


EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume data wherever necessary.
3) Use legible handwriting, use blue-black only.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four questions :

(54=20)

1) Draw and explain PORT 1 structure of 8051.


2) Give the comparison between microprocessor and microcontroller.
3) What is stack ? Explain stack operation of 8051.
4) Explain in detail the addressing modes of 8051.
5) Differentiate between timer and counter. Explain timer mode 1.
3. Solve any two questions :

(102=20)

1) Explain in detail functional block diagram of MCS-51. Also give its features in
detail.
2) Explain multiprocessor communication in MCS-51, also explain different serial
communication modes in MCS-51.
3) Interface 7 segment displays to 8051 through 8255. Write a program to display
numbers from 0 to F that display continuously with a delay of 1 second
between them.
Set A

SLR-KM 393

-4-

*SLRKM393*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four questions :

(54=20)

1) What is DMA ? Explain DMA in embedded system with its advantages.


2) Define design metrics used in embedded system.
3) Draw and explain embedded system software architecture in detail.
4) Explain processor selection for embedded system.
5) Explain different I/O devices used in embedded system.
5. Solve any two questions :

(102=20)

1) Explain interfacing of stepper motor to 8051 and write a program to rotate


motor in full mode.
2) Explain serial communication using I2C protocol with MASTER and SLAVE
mode for transmission.
3) Explain interfacing of ADC to 8051 and write a program to take analog input
to channel 0 and store the result in register R0 of BANK 1.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 394

*SLRKM394*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION II (New)

Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever required.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Fill in the blanks :

(201=20)

1) A decrease in the resting membrane potential difference is called as __________ state.


a) polarization
b) resting
c) refractory
d) depolarization
2) The peak to peak amplitude of EEG signal is normally _________ volts.
a) 10 micro
b) 100 micro
c) 10 mili
d) 50 mili
3) The alpha rhythm of EEG recording is a indicator of state of _______
a) sleepiness
b) laziness
c) alertness
d) stimulus
4) The voltage developed across metal electrolyte interface is called as ________ potential.
a) half-cell
b) polarized
c) resting
d) exited
5) The ________ is an instrument used for recording the sounds connected with the
pumping action of the heart.
a) Direct B.P.
b) Indirect B.P.
c) Phonocardiograph
d) Doppler
6) The second heart sound is __________ in pitch than first heart sound.
a) lower
b) medium
c) very low
d) higher
7) If an external stimulus is applied to a sensory area of the brain its response is called as
__________
a) evoked potential
b) evoked current
c) evoked voltage
d) evoked conduction
8) GSR is a measure of the average activity of the ___________
a) liver
b) stomach
c) adrenal gland

d) sweat glands

9) Electric impedance method measures the impedance between 2 electrodes caused by


the change in _________
a) blood velocity
b) blood viscosity c) blood volume
d) blood contents
10) In Rheographic method of B.P. measurement a set of _________ electrodes are used.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 394

*SLRKM394*

-2-

2Vt
?
b)

11) Doppler frequency f =


a) c

c)

d)

12) The respiratory cycle is accomplished by changes in the thoracic __________


a) air

b) volume

c) capacity

d) carbon dioxide

13) Cardiotocograph are designed to measure foetal heart rate on a ________ basis.
a) spontaneous

b) continuous

c) beat to beat

d) average

14) A telemedicine program consists of a _________ way communication.


a) 2

b) 1

c) multiple

d) 3

15) MPEG stands for __________


a) Multiple Picture Experts Group

b) Moving Program Experts Group

c) Moving Picture Experts Group

d) Moving Picture Excess Group

16) ________ shock is experienced by an accidental contact with the electric wiring at any
point on the surface of the body.
a) Micro

b) Macro

c) Leakage

d) Gross

17) ____________ shock occurs when the current passes directly through the heart wall.
a) Micro

b) Macro

c) Leakage

d) Gross

18) ____________ current is a inherent flow of non-functional current.


a) Micro

b) Macro

c) Leakage

d) Gross

19) Currents in the range of _________ make burn and physical injury to body.
a) 20 mA

b) 2 Amp

c) 6 Amp

d) 30 mA

20) The impedance between the reference ground point and receptacle ground must be less
than ___________ .
a) 0.1

b) 4

c) 10
______________

d) 100

Set A

*SLRKM394*

-3-

SLR-KM 394

Seat
No.

T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION II (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Define resting period, refractory period, polarization and depolarization of nerve cells
action potential using suitable diagram.
2) Draw ECG waveform recorded for Lead I and II configuration and label it.
3) Explain the generation of EMG and mention the applications of EMG recording signal.
4) Explain designing criteria of instrumentation amplifier for EEG and ECG recording
techniques.
5) Define blood pressure. Explain any one B.P. measurement technique using direct method.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain 10-20 system with the help of neat diagram and also explain the frequency
components of EEG.
2) Explain using suitable diagram of 12 lead ECG recording system.
3) Explain the technique used for measurement of skin resistance with suitable diagram.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain Doppler shift principle with necessary diagram.


2) Define leakage current, explain its occurrence with various types.
3) Explain the concept of Telemedicine with one application.
4) Explain working of cardiotocograph in detail.
5) Explain working of baby incubator with necessary diagram.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Define micro shock and gross shock. Explain various patient isolation techniques with
necessary diagram.
2) With the help of block diagram explain working of ambulatory monitoring system.
3) Explain using block diagram of ultrasonic Doppler shift based fetal heart rate measuring
system.
Set A
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 395

*SLRKM395*
S

T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MEDICAL IMAGING I (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) X-rays have a wavelength in the range of
a) 100 to 10 nm b) 10 to .01 nm
c) 1000 to 100 nm d) None of these
2) Heat problem in X-ray tube is avoided by using
a) Stationary anode X-ray tube
b) Rotating anode X-ray tube
c) Both of these
d) None of these
3) In addition to developing agent, developing solution in X-ray film development
consists of
a) Alkali
b) Preservative
c) Restrainer
d) All of these
4) The maximum mA which can be used for a single radiographic exposure is
related to the
a) KV
b) Exposure time c) Focal spot size d) All of these
5) Ultrasonography is a __________ technique.
a) Noninvasive
b) Invasive
c) Semi Invasive
6) Ultrasonic waves can be
a) Easily focussed
c) Not focussed

d) None of these

b) Partially focussed
d) None of these

7) The limiter in Ultrasonic Imaging Equipment is used to


a) Pass the Ultrasonic pulses
b) Protect the transmitter from the receiver
c) Protect the receiver from the transmitted pulse
d) None of these

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 395

*SLRKM395*

-2-

8) Which mode is used for moving structures ?


a) A-mode
b) M-mode
c) B-mode

d) None of these

9) Requirements of Real time Ultrasonic Imaging System are


a) High Resolution, Short range
b) High Resolution, Long range
c) Sufficiently low frame rate, low detectivity
d) None of these
10) Anode angle in X-ray tube varies from
a) 6 to 20
b) 25 to 50
c) 25 to 30

d) 30 to 35

11) What can be used to detect X-rays ?


a) Your eyes
c) Photographic film

b) Your skin
d) It makes some chemicals glow

12) Are X-rays visible ?


a) only at night
b) yes

c) no

d) sometimes

13) Stationary X-ray tubes are utilised mainly in


a) Fluoroscopy rooms
b) General X-ray rooms
c) Computerised Tomography
d) Intra oral X-ray units
14) X-rays have
a) Negative charge
c) Neutral charge

b) Positive charge
d) EM waves

15) X-rays travel with velocity of


a) Sound waves
c) Ultrasonic waves

b) Light waves
d) None

16) Echoes are displayed as spikes projecting from baseline in


a) B-Mode
b) M-Mode
c) A-Mode
d) TM-Mode
17) Depth resolution is possible in
a) Continuous Wave Doppler
c) Both of these

b) Pulsed Wave Doppler


d) None of these

18) X-ray tube encloses a __________ containing 2 electrodes.


a) gas
b) vacuum
c) ionization gas d) solid material
19) The medical thermograph is a sensitive __________ camera which presents a
video image of the temperature distribution over the surface of the skin.
a) Infrared
b) Ultraviolet
c) Gamma
d) X-ray
20) Velocity of sound in soft tissues is
a) 1450 m/s
b) 1054 m/s

c) 1540 m/s

_____________________

d) 5410 m/s
Set A

*SLRKM395*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 395

T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MEDICAL IMAGING I (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

2. Attempt any four from the following :

20

1) What is A-scan ? Describe any one application of A-scan.


2) Define Latent Image and explain the X-ray film development technique.
3) Enlist the strengths and weaknesses of Ultrasonography.
4) Define X-rays. Explain the various properties of X-rays.
5) What are the requirements of Real Time Ultrasonic Imaging System ? Explain.
3. Attempt any two of the following :

20

1) What is Doppler Shift ? How Doppler technique is used for blood flow measurement ?
2) Explain in detail construction and working of Stationary anode X-ray tube.
3) Define Rayleigh-Tyndall scattering and explain continuous wave Doppler system.
4. Attempt any four from the following :

20

1) What is Mammography ? Explain the basic principle of Mammography.


2) With block diagram explain Digital Radiography.
3) Describe different Angiography techniques.
4) What is Endoscopy ? Describe its applications.
5) Write short note on Digital Mammography.
5. Attempt any two from the following :

20

1) Give the necessity of Image Intensifier Tube and explain the working of Image
Inensifier Tube.
2) What is the use of Medical Thermograph ? With block diagram explain
Thermographic equipment.
3) With block diagram explain X-ray machine.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 396

*SLRKM396*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEM
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Slow response is given by _____________ system.


a) open loop
b) closed loop
c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of these

2) In force voltage analogy, damper (dashpot) is analogous to


a) Resistance
b) Capacitance
c) Inductance

d) Current

3) In critically damped system, the damping factor is


a) zero
b) less than unity
c) unity

d) greater than unity

4) The transfer function for given block diagram is

a) G1 G2 G3

b) G1 + G2 + G3

c)

1
1
1
+
+
G1 G2 G3

d)

1
G1G2G3

5) The satelling time for 2% tolerance is given by


a)

4
n

b)

3
n

c) 0

d) 1

6) The peak time for Ist undershoot is given by


a) d

b)

2
d

7) The characteristics equation for the system is


S5 + S3 + 2S2 + S + 5 = 0 this system is
a) stable
b) unstable

c)

2
d

c) marginally stable

8) For unity feedback system the open loop transfer function is G(s) =
a) stable

b) unstable

9) f(t ) = A.(t ) in this equation A stands for


a) Function in time domain
c) Deviation in time domain

d)

d) absolutely stable
10

(s + 1)(s + 4)

c) marginally stable
b) Function strength
d) All of above

, this system is

d) none of these

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 396

*SLRKM396*

-2-

10) In type 0 system


a) No pole is at origin
b) One pole is at origin
c) Two poles are at origin
d) None of these
11) The phase shift of the first order system with transfer function 1/S is
a) 180
b) 180
c) 0
d) 90
12) Bode plot of the constant is a
a) Line with a slope of 20 dB/decade
b) Line with a slope of 6 dB/decade
c) Line with a slope of 40 dB/decade
d) Straight line parallel to frequency axis
13) The transfer function when the Bode diagram is plotted should be of the form
1
1
s +1
b)
c) ST + 1
d)
sT + 1
s +1
1
14) The addition of Pole in the transfer function causes
a) Phase lead compensation
b) Phase lag compensation
c) Lag-lead compensation
d) None of these

a)

15) The circuit given below represents a

a) Phase lead compensation


b) Phase lag compensation
c) Lag-lead compensation
d) None of these
16) The most suitable method for determining the stability and response of system is
a) Bode plot
b) Root locus
c) Nyquist criterion
d) Routh Harwitz criterion
17) Starting point of Root Locus are
a) Open loop poles
b) Close loop poles
c) Open loop zeros
d) Close loop zeros
18) The Routh array of a characteristic equation is given below. The number of roots lying in the LHS of
s-plane is
S4
3

8
7

S
S2 3
S1 2
S0 1

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

19) Polar plot for positive and negative frequencies


a) are always symmetrical
c) may or may not be symmetrical
20) Inductor is not used in lag networks because of
a) large size
c) high reactance

d) 4

b) can never be symmetrical


d) none of these
b) high cost
d) time delay and hysteresis losses

______________

Set A

*SLRKM396*

-3-

SLR-KM 396

Seat
No.

T.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEM
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume data, if necessary.
3) All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

24

a) Determine steady state error to unit step and unit parabolic input for unity feedback system whose
transfer function is
G(s) =

1
s(1 + s ) (1 + 4s)

b) Derive rise time of IInd order system.


c) Derive the transfer function of closed loop control system and list advantages.
d) Determine position, velocity and acceleration constant for unity feedback control system with open
loop transfer function
G(s) =

50
(1 + 0.15 s) (1 + 2s )

e) What is control system ? Explain its types with suitable example.


3. a) Comment on stability using Routh array for S5 + 6S4 + 3S3 + 2S2 + S + 1 = 0.

b) Solve any one :

i) Find transfer function for following block diagram.

ii) Explain type 0, type 1, system and define transient response, steady state response, steady
state error.

Set A

SLR-KM 396

*SLRKM396*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Define the terms for Root locus-Asymptotic, centroid of root locus, angle of departure, angle of
arrival, Breakaway point.
b) Explain the correlation between time domain and frequency domain specifications.
c) Explain phase lead-lag compensating network.
d) For Bode plot define the terms-Phase margin, Gain Margin, Phase cross over frequency, gain cross
over frequency.
e) Explain Nyquist criterion.
f) Explain the state model for simple RLC electrical network.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) A unity feedback control system has G(s) =

100(s + 4)
s(s + 0.s) (s + 10 )

. Draw Asymptotic Bode plot and

comment on stability.
b) A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback system is
G(s) =

K
2

s (s + 4 s + 8 )

Sketch the Root locus for different values of K.


c) Sketch the Nyquist plot and determine the stability of a unity feedback system.
G(s) =

K
s(2s + 1)(s + 1)

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 397

*SLRKM397*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


20
1) The methods to calculate filtering of long duration sequences is
a) Overlap save b) Overlap add c) FIR and IIR
d) Both a) and b)
2) Circular convolution of the sequences x(n) = {1, 2, 1} and h(n) = {1, 2, 3} is
a) {1, 2, 1}
b) {3, 2, 1}
c) {3, 2, 1}
d) {5, 3, 0}
3) IDFT of Y(k) = {1, 0, 1, 0} is
a) {0.5, 1, 0.5, 0}
b) {0.5, 0, 0.5, 0}
c) {0.5, 0, 0.5, 1}
d) {0.5, 1, 0.5, 1}
4) The direct evaluation DFT requires ________ complex additions.
N(N 1)
c) N(N 1)
d)
a) N(N + 1)
b) N2
2
5) DFT is
a) Sampled version of Fourier series
b) Sampled version of Fourier transform
c) Sampled version of fast Fourier transform
d) None of above
6) The DIT or DIF FFT is an algorithm used to compute the
a) DFT
b) FT
c) Convolution
d) Circular convolution
7) When the system has poles inside the unit circle in Z-domain
a) The system is stable and its impulse response is a decaying function
b) Time domain behavior will be exponentially rising signal
c) The system is unstable
d) The impulse response is marginally constant
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 397

*SLRKM397*

-2-

8) If X(k) is N-point DFT of finite duration sequence x(n), then


a) x(n + N) = x(n)
b) x(n N) = x(n)
c) x(n + N) = x(n)
d) None of the above
9) The Direct form II realization requires _____________ no. of additions.
a) M N + 1
b) M + N + 1
c) M + N
d) M N
10) Main advantage of cascade form realization
a) Minimizes Quantization error
b) Requires more memory
c) Sensitive to error
d) All above
11) FIR filter design is based on _____________ filter design.
a) DT
b) Digital
c) Analog
d) None of above
12) Aliasing is present in which filter technique
a) Impulse invariant technique
b) Bilinear transformation
c) Approximation of derivatives
d) The matched Z-transform
13) FIR filters are _____________ type.
a) Linearly Recursive
b) Recursive
c) Both a) and b)
d) Non Recursive
14) Using Impulse invariant technique which type of filters are not possible to design
a) High pass filters
b) LPF
c) BPF
d) Both LPF and BPF
15) The mapping for BLT method is
a) Many to many
c) One to one

b) Many to one
d) None of above

16) Memory requirement and execution time required for FIR filter is
a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Very low
17) The disadvantage of bilinear transformation technique is
a) The mapping is highly linear
b) The mapping is highly non linear
c) Both a) and b)
d) The mapping is highly co-linear
18) The transition band is ____________ in Butterworth filter to Chebyshev filter.
a) More
b) Less
c) Twice
d) Three times
19) A digital filter is causal if its impulse response
a) H(n) = 0 for n > 0
b) H(n) = 1 for n > 0
c) H(n) = 0 for n < = 0
d) H(n) = 1 for n < 0
20) A digital filter is stable if its impulse response is
a) Absolutely differentiable
b) Absolutely integrable
c) Absolutely summable
d) Both b) and c)
______________
Set A

*SLRKM397*

-3-

SLR-KM 397

Seat
No.

T.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain the advantages of FFT.


2) Perform circular convolution using concentric circle method for
x1(n) = {1, 2, 3, 1} and x2(n) = {4, 3, 2, 2}.
3) Differentiate between overlap save and overlap add methods.
4) Compute four point DFT of a sequence x(n) = {0, 1, 2, 3} using DIF FFT
algorithm.
5) Find DFT of x(n) = {1, 1, 0, 0}.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Find circular convolution of the following sequences x(n) = {1, 1, 1, 2};


y(n) = (1, 2, 3, 2} using DFT and IDFT method.
2) Perform linear convolution of finite duration sequences h(n) = {1, 1, 2, 1} and
x(n) = {1, 1, 1, 2, 1, 0, 1, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 1} by
(a) overlap save
(b) overlap add method.
3) Obtain the cascade realization with minimum number of multipliers
H(z) =

( 21 + 41 z

+ 1 z 2 + 1 z 3 .
2
4

Set A

SLR-KM 397

*SLRKM397*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) What are properties of FIR filter ?


2) Design an ideal LPF with a frequency response :

( )


2
2

= 0 for

2
Find values of h(n) for N = 4 using rectangular window.
Hd e j = 1 for

3) Explain LMS filter.


4) Explain MAC operation in detail.
5) List applications of DSP processor.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain in detail adaptive noise cancellation.


2) Apply impulse invariant method and find H(z) for H(s) =

10
with
s + 7s + 10
2

T = 0.2 sec.
3) Design an ideal HPF with a frequency response :

( )

//
4
= 0 for / /
4
Find values of h(n) for N = 11 plot frequency response.
Hd e j = 1 for

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 398

*SLRKM398*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015
EMBEDDED SYSTEMS (New)

Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) LPC2148 has _________ on chip flash program memory.


a) 32 KB
b) 64 KB
c) 8 KB
2) On interrupt, processor does the following
a) Copies CPSR to SPSR mode
c) Copies PC to R12 mode

d) 16 KB

b) Copies SPSR to CPSR mode


d) None of above

3) Total number of available ADC inputs for LPC 2148 is


a) 06
b) 08
c) 12

d) None of above

4) PLL accepts an input clock frequency in the range of


a) 1 MHz to 30 MHz
b) 1 MHz to 40 MHz
c) 10 MHz to 60 MHz
d) None of above
5) One of the following instructions is not a arithmetic instructions in ARM 7.
a) ADD
b) SBC
c) MUL
d) LDR
6) ARM
a) Instruction set and processor show RISC features
b) Processor in RISC but instruction set retaining the best of CISC features and that
gives simplicity of programming
c) All arithmetic and logical operations are on registers
d) All arithmetic and logical operations are on registers used as indexed register
7) ARM 7 TDMI-S micro controller where T stands for
a) Thumb 16 bit decoder
b) Thumb 32 bit decoder
c) Thumb 8 bit decoder
d) None of the above
8) Embedded system specific trends are
a) Amount of memory
c) Design time

b) Real time constraints


d) All of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 398

*SLRKM398*

-2-

9) In I2c standard mode, speed is given as


a) 200 kbps
b) 400 kbps

c) 100 kbps

d) None of above

10) The bit pattern of interrupt request mode in CPSR can be given as
a) 10010
b) 10011
c) 10000
d) 10101
11) Which of the following options is true ?
a) A task cannot call any other function
c) A task can be assigned to an ISR

b) A function can call a task


d) None of above

12) Which of the following option is not true ?


a) A signal is a boolean notification
b) A signal and a semaphore are one bit each
c) A signal and mutex are of one bit each
d) A signal, a semaphore and a message are of one bit each
13) The strategy of allowing processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called
a) Preemptive scheduling
b) Non preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first
d) First come first served
14) PCB =
a) Program control block
c) Process communication block

b) Process control block


d) None of the above

15) The initial value of the semaphore that allows only one of the many processes to enter
critical sections is
a) 8
b) 1
c) 16
d) 0
16) Semaphores
a) Synchronize critical resources to prevent dead lock
b) Are used to do I/O
c) Are used to for memory management
d) None of above
17) Medical devices often run a _________ operating system.
a) Real time
b) Single user
c) Multi user

d) Network

18) Interprocess communication can be done through


a) Mails
b) Messages
c) System calls

d) Trap

19) A binary semaphore


a) has values one or zero
c) is used for synchronization

b) is essential to binary computers


d) is only used for mutual exclusion

20) The fundamental service provided by Kernel is


a) Memory management
b) Context switching
c) Inter process communication
d) None of the above

______________
Set A

*SLRKM398*

-3-

SLR-KM 398

Seat
No.

T.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


EMBEDDED SYSTEMS (New)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following.

(45=20)

a) What are the challenges in embedded system design and how to meet these challenges ?
b) What are the features of LPC 2148 ?
c) Explain Thumb instruction set of ARM in detail.
d) Draw and explain hardware architecture of embedded system.
e) Explain the communication protocol I2C detail.
3. Attempt any two.

(210=20)

a) I) What are the recent trends in embedded system ? Explain each in detail.
II) What are the design matrices used in embedded system ? Explain each in detail.
b) Draw ARM core architecture and explain each block of ARM core architecture in detail.
c) Write short notes on following :
I) Memory devices
II) Memory selection for embedded system.

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of the following.

(45=20)

a) Explain interfacing of I/O devices such as touch screen by drawing neat block diagram.
b) Draw and explain Interfacing of output devices like thermal printer.
c) Explain basic task states in RTOS.
d) Explain the concept of events. Give comparisons of methods for intertask communication.
e) RTOS services in contrast with traditional operating system.

Set A

SLR-KM 398

-4-

*SLRKM398*

5. Attempt any two.

(210=20)

a) Explain embedded communication using CAN and Ethernet with neat diagram.
b) What is task scheduling ? Explain scheduler with respect to RTOS in detail. Explain various
task scheduling algorithms.
c) I) What are the features of cos II RTOS ?
II) Explain the Kernel structure of cos II in detail.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 400

*SLRKM400*
S

B.E. (Part I) (Biomedical) (Old) Examination, 2015


NUCLEAR MEDICINE
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
4) Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary.
5) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Attempt all.

Marks : 20
(120=20)

1) Which one of the following is not characteristic of PET ?


a) Lead collimators
b) Positron emitters
c) 511 Kev photons
d) Absolute attenuation correction
2) Gamma camera sensitivity depends on ___________
a) Imaging time
b) Administered activity
c) Half life
d) Type of collimator
3) Alpha decay occurs when the nucleus ejects ___________ particle.
a) Gamma
b) Alpha
c) Beta
d) X-ray
4) The unit of radioactivity is ___________
a) Ampere
b) Volt.
c) Curie

d) Ohm

5) The rectilinear Scanners use focusing collimator constructed using _______ material.
a) Sulphur
b) Iron
c) Lead
d) Molybdenum
6) ________ and electron combine together and annihilate to form two 0.511 MeV
Photons.
a) Electron
b) Positron
c) Hole
d) Neutron
7) The pin_hole Collimator have used ___________ application mostly.
a) Thyroid
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Lung

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 400

*SLRKM400*

-2-

8) The minimum energy required for pair production is ___________ MeV.


a) 1.022
b) 2.022
c) 3.022
d) 4.022
9) Ionizing radiation is absorbed in the ___________ and its energy converted
in to light photons.
a) Scintillator Crystal
b) PMT
c) Photocathode
d) Dynode
10) The thin coating of semi transparent material applied to the inner surface of
pin tube is called ___________
a) Anode
b) Dynode
c) Photocathode
d) Scintillator
11) The Collimator is made using ___________ material.
a) Carbon
b) Lead
c) Titanium
d) Nickel
12) Iodide radionuclide used for ___________ imaging.
a) Thyroid
b) Parathyroid c) Heart
d) Lungs
13) The multi crystal Gamma camera ___________ NAI crystals are used.
a) 294
b) 350
c) 250
d) 450
14) Positron, electron generates ___________ interaction.
a) Photoelectric
b) Compton
c) Pair production
d) Coherent
15) ___________ is used to measure very low concentrations of analytes in
biological fluids.
a) Rectilinear Scanner
b) PET
c) SPECT
d) RIA
16) In PET Scanning glucose labeled with ___________
a) Carbon-11
b) Nitrogen-13 c) Oxygen-15 d) Fluorine-18
17) The Dynodes made up using ___________ material.
a) Metal
b) Ceramic
c) Polymer
d) Composite
18) In ___________ 10-14 dynodes are used.
a) PHA
b) PMT
c) Detector

d) Scaler

19) The dynodes on which ___________ charge.


a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Neutral

d) None of these

20) ___________ used for collect all light photons.


a) Photocathode
b) Crystal
c) Light pipe
d) PMT
_________________

Set A

*SLRKM400*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 400

B.E. (Part I) (Biomedical) (Old) Examination, 2015


NUCLEAR MEDICINE
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Figures to the right indicates full marks.


Assume data wherever necessary.
Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
SECTION I

2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain photoelectric effect with the help of diagram.


2) Explain working of solid state detector.
3) Explain following terms related with Gamma camera.
a) Resolution
b) Uniformity.
4) Explain radioactive decay law.
5) Explain working of gamma ray.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain working of Rectilinear scanner in detail.


2) Explain working of uptake monitoring 10 system in detail.
3) Draw and explain working of multicrystal gamma camera with the help of
diagram.

Set A

SLR-KM 400

-4-

*SLRKM400*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain basic principle of PET.


2) Write down application of RIA technique.
3) Write short note on biological effects of radiation exposure.
4) Explain single Isotope method.
5) Explain basic principle of RIA.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Draw and explain working of liquid scintillation counting system.


2) What is SPECT ? Explain working principle of SPECT with help of diagram.
3) What is RIA ? Explain working of RIA counting system.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 401

*SLR-KM-401*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


MEDICAL INFORMATICS
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Figures to the right indicate full marks.


Assume suitable data if required.
Draw neat sketches wherever required.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
I.

Marks : 20

Choose the right answer from the following :


1) POE stands for
a) Patient Oral Examination
c) Public Order Enhancement

(120=20)
b) Physician Order Entry
d) Practical Oral Examination

2) ASTM stands for


a) American Society of Testing Materials
b) American Society for Tangsten Metal
c) American Society for Testimony of Metals
d) None
3) NEMA defines the messages formats and communication standards for
a) Diagnostic images
b) Therapeutic images
c) a) and b)
d) Normal images
4) The standard HL7 stands for
a) The seventh high level language
b) High level treatment 7
c) Hypo level 7
d) Health level 7
5) People can derive immense benefit from the existing health system, if ________ is
used as an effective tool.
a) Good relation with the doctor
b) Bilateral relation
c) Information technology
d) None
6) The ideal information system should have
a) Quality
b) Timeliness

c) Reliance

d) All of the above

7) Which one of the following is the main feature of MRI scan ?


a) Excellent bony detail
b) Rapid acquisition time
c) Excellent details of soft tissue
d) Both b) and c)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 401

*SLR-KM-401*

-2-

8) The hospital information system primarily support


a) Clinical activity
b) Management information
c) Legal activity
d) Both a) and c)
9) HMIS is an integrated system comprising, order entry system clinical information
administrative system for the
a) Offices
b) Industry
c) Hospitals
d) None
10) HMIS provides patient related information in a hospital with required details as per the
a) Indian Constitution
b) International rules
c) a) and b)
d) Predetermined format
11) PET stands for
a) Patient Education Technique
c) Power Electronic Thyristor

b) Public Education Technique


d) Position Emission Tomography

12) The 3D patient data is obtained from


a) CT
b) MRI

c) PET

d) All

13) ____________ refers to a failure or disruption in the application system/hardware/


network that can cause severe consequences to the hospital.
a) Disaster
b) Break off
c) Disintegrity
d) Miscommunication
14) Which of the following is not a type of knowledge in expert system ?
a) Declarance Knowledge
b) Equipment knowledge
c) Procedural Knowledge
d) Heuristics Knowledge
15) The Inference Engine is a __________ that gives patient details and generates a list of
differential diagnosis.
a) Machine
b) Format
c) Both a) and b)
d) Computer Program
16) The knowledge base is a collection of encoded knowledge of domain that is needed to
solve the
a) Patients problem
b) Physician Problem
c) Both a) and b)
d) Technical Problem
17) The components of an expert system are
a) Knowledge base
c) User interface and data base

b) Inference engine
d) All of the above

18) The few distinct methods of knowledge elicitation are _________


a) Practical Examination
b) Classification
c) Interview based approach
d) b and c both
19) Heuristic knowledge is a knowledge that consist of ___________
a) Skills of knowing how to use logs
b) Skills of knowing how to use declarence knowledge
c) Personal rules of thumb
d) None of the above
20) Once a child is born, a file should opened in his/her name with details of __________
data.
a) Pre-natal
b) Natal
c) Post-natal
d) All
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-401*

-3-

SLR-KM 401

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


MEDICAL INFORMATICS
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B :

Marks : 80

1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Draw neat sketches wherever required.

II. Solve any four form the following :


1) Explain the operation theater module and radiology module.
2) What do you mean by online learning ?
3) Explain what is the need of surgical simulations ?
4) Define medical informatics, and explain it covering some of its basic fields.
5) Give the progress and future of medical informatics.
III. Answer any two form the following :

(45=20)

(210=20)

1) a) Give the pre-requisites for HMIS.


b) Explain OPD/Consultant clinic/polyclinic module.
2) Give the technology materials and methods used in surgical simulations.
3) Why HMIS fails ? Give the reasons.
IV. Solve any four form the following :

(45=20)

1) What is CPR ? Explain the need of CPR.


2) Explain the development tools in CPR.
3) Explain why should doctors employ CAPE.
4) What is virtual endoscopy ? Explain.
5) Give the limitations of conventional surgery.
V. Solve any two form the following :

(210=20)

1) Explain with the help of a diagram satellite transmission with OP 2000/SICO NET.
2) a) What is AI ? Explain with the help of suitable diagram.
b) Give the architecture of computer based medical diagnosis in otholaryrigology.
3) Explain the components and functionality of CPR.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 402

*SLRKM402*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION III (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever required.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Answer the following questions :

(201=20)

1) Operating frequency of short wave diathermy


a) 27.12 MHz
b) 1 MHz
c) 2450 MHz

d) 3 MHz

2) Nerve muscle stimulator removes ________ pain.


a) Joint
b) Muscular
c) Nerve fiber

d) None of above

3) ___________ is a mode of surgical diathermy.


a) Pointing
b) Fulguration
c) Ultra filtration
d) Negative pressure
4) Operating frequency of ultrasound is
a) 12 KHz
b) 50 Hz
c) 3 MHz

d) 5 KHz

5) Deep heating in the tissues results from _________ action.


a) Electrostatic
b) Eddy currents
c) Magnetic
d) Conduction
6) A ____________ lead provides high stability lead for the endocardial method
of pacemaker implant.
a) Porous top
b) Bipolar
c) Unipolar
d) Sutureless
7) In pacemaker a ________ impulse is applied through metal electrodes placed
on the surface of the body.
a) Stimulating
b) High energy c) Low energy
d) Pacing
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 402

*SLRKM402*

-2-

8) High frequency heat therapy is based on the fact that _________ molecules
of the body are randomly placed.
a) Dipole
b) Single pole
c) Hydrogen
d) Sodium
9) Therapeutic frequency of microwave diathermy is
a) 27.12 MHz
b) 1 MHz
c) 2450 MHz

d) 3 MHz

10) Electrotherapy employs _________ volt, low frequency impulse currents.


a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) None of above
11) The dialyzing membrane has ___________ which are extremely small that
are invisible to the naked eyes.
a) Perforations
b) Folds
c) Holes
d) None of above
12) __________ is a moisture sensitive cellulose membrane used in hemodialyzer.
a) Polymer
b) Cellulose
c) Cupraphan
d) None of above
13) Helium Neon laser discharge tube contains _______ parts of Helium and one
part of Neon.
a) 20
b) 100
c) 10
d) 5
14) Electrode ________ are employed to reduce contact impedance in defibrillator.
a) Lead
b) Gel
c) Cap
d) Interface
15) In LASER the process by means of which a medium is activated is called as
a) Filtering
b) Pumping
c) Stimulation
d) Radiation
16) In ultra-filtration process there is a creation of ____________ pressure.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) None of above
Total Fluid removal required
__________ __
a) Treatment time
b) Dose
c) Negative pressure
d) Positive pressure

17) Ultra-filtration rate =

18) __________ rate variability meter provides changes in heart rhythem.


a) Pulse
b) Heart
c) Blood pressure
d) Stroke volume
19) __________ LASER provides bloodless surgery.
a) He-Ne
b) Ruby
c) CO2

d) Argon

20) In defibrillator ________ is initially applied to the patient.


a) 4000 V
b) 400 V
c) 40 V
d) 200 V
______________
Set A

*SLRKM402*

-3-

SLR-KM 402

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION III (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain principle and working of UV lamps.


2) Draw and explain various types of cardiac arrhythmias.
3) Explain pacing modes of pacemaker.
4) Draw and explain function of surgical diathermy analyzer.
5) Explain power sources for implantable pacemaker.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain using circuit diagram CUT and COAG mode of operation in ESU.
2) Draw and explain block diagram of nerve muscle stimulator with waveforms.
3) Draw and explain working of rate generator circuit in pacemaker.
Set A

SLR-KM 402

-4-

*SLRKM402*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) List various applications of LASERS used in medicine.


2) Explain principle of artificial kidney dialyzer.
3) Explain the significance of heart rate variability measurement in detail.
4) Draw and explain working of temperature controller circuit in Haemodialysis.
5) Why defibrillators are important to save patients life ?
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Draw and explain complete block diagram of Haemodialysis machine.


2) Draw and explain any two types of LASERS with neat diagram.
3) Draw and explain DC defibrillator with its electrode.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 403

*SLRKM403*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015
PRINCIPLES OF IMAGE PROCESSING

Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever required.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Image compression ____________ the amount of data needed to describe the


image.

a) maintains

b) reduces

c) increases

d) decreases

2) A process of adapting the region within the total dynamic range is called as _______

a) adaption
c) quantization

b) accommodation
d) blind spot

3) __________ is a measure of the amount of disorder or randomness in a system.

a) Contrast

b) Brightness

c) Entropy

d) None of above

4) Smoothing an image reduces its ________

a) contrast

b) entropy

c) SNR

d) brightness

5) __________ is a standard method of estimating the degree to which two sets of


numbers are related.

a) Cross correlation
c) Sampling

b) Correlation
d) Quantization

6) __________ filtering is a technique for improving an image by normalizing its


brightness and increasing its contrast.

a) FFT

b) DFT

c) Band pass

d) Homomorphic

7) Noise results in a __________ of the image quality.

a) degradation

b) gradation

c) filtering

d) none of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 403

*SLRKM403*

-2-

8) ____________ noise constitutes a constant power spectrum.

a) Black

b) White

c) Colored

9) Blurring is characterized by ________ spread function.

a) mask

b) line

c) group

d) Periodic
d) point

10) In binary image an object is defined as a ___________ set of pixels.

a) connected

b) disconnected c) lined

d) quantized

11) _________ is used to create the outline of features in an image.

a) Erosion

b) Dialation

c) Masking

d) Sampling

12) __________ is an operation that increases the size of background objects in binary
images.

a) Erosion

b) Dialation

c) Masking

d) Sampling

13) __________ is defined as erosion followed by dialation using the same


structuring element for both operations.

a) Erosion

b) Dialation

c) Opening

d) Closing

14) The hit and miss transform is a basic tool for _________ recognition.

a) pattern

b) object

c) contrast

d) brightness

15) _________ preserves the topology of image.

a) Image extraction
c) Masking

b) Skeletonization
d) Demasking

16) ___________ method is used to produce connected regions that are as large as
possible.

a) Region based
c) Threshold based

b) Point based
d) Object based

17) Edges in an image are detected by using __________ operator.

a) Linking

b) FFT

c) Sobel

d) None of above

18) ________ masks are good for a removing salt and pepper noise from an image.

a) Median

b) Mean

c) Mode

d) Edge

19) __________ is defined as dilation followed by erosion using the same structuring
element for both operations.

a) Erosion

b) Dialation

c) Opening

d) Closing

20) __________ is a morphological operation that erodes away foreground pixels


from the boundary of binary images.

a) Skeletonization
c) DFT

b) Thinning
d) Hough transform
______________

Set A

*SLRKM403*

-3-

SLR-KM 403

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF IMAGE PROCESSING
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) Assume suitable data wherever required.


SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain different image file formats.
2) Differentiate between point processing and neighborhood processing techniques.
3) Derive Laplacian of Gaussian operator in spatial domain.
4) Explain sampling and Quantization.
5) What is meant by Brightness and Contrast ?
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain the following methods of region based segmentation :


A) Region growing

B) Region Split and Merge

2) Explain in detail image enhancement techniques in spatial domain :


A) Image negative
B) Contrast stretching
C) Bit plane slicing
3) Explain Edge linking in detail.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Differentiate between lossless compression and lossy compression.


2) Explain run length encoding in detail.
3) Explain boundary detection using morphological operators.
4) Differentiate between Harr transformation and Hadamard transformation.
5) Write a note on feature extraction with one medical application.

Set A

SLR-KM 403

-4-

5. Attempt any two :

*SLRKM403*
(210=20)

1) Explain image compression model with a neat block diagram.


2) What is Harr Transform ? Find the Harr transform of the given pseudo image.
2

3) Explain the following operations with example :


1) Erosion

2) Dialation

3) Opening

4) Closing
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 404

*SLR-KM-404*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Part I) (Biomedical) (Old) Examination, 2015


HOSPITAL MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

I. Choose the correct answer :


(120=20)
1) The process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to
apply for Jobs in an organisation is
a) Recruitment
b) Selection
c) Training
d) Planning
2) The systematic evaluation of individuals with respect to their performance on
the job and their potential for development is
a) Training
b) Rewarding
c) Performance appraisal
d) None
3) ___________ department should be located on the ground floor with easy
access for patients and ambulance.
a) Radiology
b) Emergency
c) Dental
d) O.T.
4) A inner state that energizer, activates and moves or directs towards goal is
a) Protection
b) Prevention
c) Motivation
d) Direction
5) The next logical function after completing planning and organising is the
execution of the plan is
a) Planning
b) Directing
c) Organising
d) Motivating
6) The total process of collecting, handling packing storage transportation and
final treatment of waste is called
a) Sewage
b) Disposal of Hospital waste
c) Dustbin
d) None
7) ___________ is the integral part of social and medical organization.
a) Medical store b) Hospital
c) Industry
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 404
8) The HIS means
a) Hospital information System
c) Both a) and b)

-2-

*SLR-KM-404*
b) Human Internal System
d) None

9) The permission for establishment of medical college new course of study in


medicine is regulated by
a) Indian Medical Act
b) Societies Registration Act
c) Bombay Shop and Establishment Act d) None
10) The CIS means
a) Computer Information System
b) Centre Inform system
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
11) Training is a ___________ term educational process.
a) Mid
b) Short
c) Long
d) None
12) ___________ keeps the record and maintenance of all medical equipments.
a) Electrical Engineer
b) Civil Engineer
c) Biomedical Engineer
d) None
13) For electrical shock prevention __________ system is important.
a) 3-phase
b) Grounding
c) Both a) and b) d) None
14) ___________ is a quality in which one person influence others to work willingly.
a) Motivation
b) Leadership
c) Both a) and b) d) None
15) Before starting to build a new Hospital what is needed ?
a) Preliminary Survey
b) Departmental Facility
c) Civil Engineer
d) None
16) Preliminary survey includes engaging
a) Consultancy
b) C.A.
c) Banks
d) All the above
17) Guiding principle in planning Hospital are
a) High quality patient care
b) Economic viability
c) Effective community orientation d) All the above
18) ___________ studies the condition of soil and bearing capacity of soil.
a) Mechanical Engineer
b) Civil Engineer
c) Electrical Engineer
d) None
19) OPD stand for
a) Over Patient Department
b) Out Patient Department
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
20) Caring for the sick patient is the primary function of the outpatient department
a) O.T.
b) O.P.D.
c) ICCU
d) Rediology
______________
Set A

*SLR-KM-404*

-3-

SLR-KM 404

Seat
No.

B.E. (Part I) (Biomedical) (Old) Examination, 2015


HOSPITAL MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Max. Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


II. Answer any four questions :

(54=20)

1) Write a short note on leadership and motivation


2) Explain about the role of H.R. management.
3) Explain about the planning of individual department.
4) Explain about the planning of administrative service.
5) Write a short note on CIS and HIS.
III. Answer any two questions :

(102=20)

1) Briefly explain about principles of management.


2) Explain about the classification of Hospitals based on various factors and
associated norms.
3) Explain about the need and responsibilities and function of CEO in Hospital.

Set A

SLR-KM 404

-4-

*SLR-KM-404*

IV. Answer any four questions :

(54=20)

1) Explain about the basics of Hospital Budgeting.


2) Explain about the risk management.
3) Explain about the quality assurance.
4) Explain about the dietary (food services).
5) Explain the role of civil engineer.
V. Answer any two questions :

(102=20)

1) Explain about the economics and financial management in Hospital.


2) Explain briefly about ICU departments and explain its categorisation.
3) Explain the role of electrical and mechanical engineering departments.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 405

*SLRKM405*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015
NUCLEAR MEDICINE (New)

Day and Date : Friday, 4 -12- 2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever required.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Chose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) The alpha particles most ______________ to the human tissues.


a) useful

b) harmful

c) hazardous

d) waste

2) ___________ emission has an energy range 0-3 MeV.


a) Beta

b) Alpha

c) Gamma

d) Theta

c) metastatic

d) metastable

3) In Tc-99m, m stands for


a) moving

b) moderate

4) In half life of _____________ stands for decay constant.


a) decay rate

b) decays

c) radioisotope

d) radiotracers

c) radiation

d) tracers

5) The unit of _________ is curie.


a) radioactivity

b) MeV

6) Compton effect occurs when a ____________ ray and electron make elastic collision.
a) photoelectric

b) gamma

c) coherent

d) beta

7) The number of ion pairs per centimeter of travels is called specific


a) Diffusion

b) Decay

c) Ionization

d) Extraction

8) A scintilltor is a crystalline substance which produces minute __________ of light in the


visible.
a) flashes

b) rays

c) radiations

d) peaks

c) electrons

d) coppers

9) Gamma rays posses no of


a) tungsten septas

b) charges

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 405

*SLRKM405*

-2-

10) The shielded and collimated ___________ is called as probe.


a) gamma camera

b) rectilinear scanner

c) PMT

d) detector

11) ___________ is a stationary imaging device.


a) PET

b) Gamma camera

c) SPECT

d) Rectilinear scanner

12) ___________ is a rotating imaging device.


a) PET

b) Gamma camera

c) SPECT

d) Rectilinear scanner

13) ______________ emitters are produced in a cyclotron.


a) Positron

b) Radionuclides

c) Alpha rays

d) Beta rays

14) PET provides ____________ information about human body.


a) functional

b) linear

c) physiological

d) anatomical

15) ____________ radiations cannot be detected directly in a scintillating material.


a) Gamma

b) Alpha

c) Beta

d) Rhodium

16) The genetically significant dose is an estimate of the __________ of radiation.


a) dose

b) decay

c) scattering

d) genetic impact

17) Multichannel pulse height analyzer is used to measure a spectrum of __________ energies.
a) electron

b) positron

c) nuclear

d) photon

18) Extrinsic ___________ is a measure of the camera system resolution with the collimator.
a) sensitivity

b) resolution

c) efficiency

d) penetration

19) SPECT system acquire data by filtered ____________ projection technique.


a) back

b) forward

c) iterative

d) slice

20) PET provides _____________ regional assessment of many biochemical processes.


a) invasive

b) noninvasive

c) voluntary

d) non voluntary

______________

Set A

*SLRKM405*

-3-

SLR-KM 405

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


NUCLEAR MEDICINE (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 4 -12- 2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four.

(45= 20)

1) Explain alpha, beta and gamma decay process with respective specifications in detail.
2) Explain any 5 performance parameters of Gamma Camera.
3) Explain function of ionization chamber detector.
4) Explain the working multichannel pulse height analyzer with neat diagram.
5) Explain what half life is and how it is calculated.
3. Attempt any two :

(210= 20)

1) List important ideal characteristics of a radiopharmaceutical and also explain in detail


various interactions of radiation with matter.
2) Explain using functional block diagram working of Gamma Camera system in detail.
3) Explain principle of operation of liquid scintillation detector system. Also explain its
advantages and disadvantages.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45= 20)

1) Discuss how radiation safety can be achieved with the help of its principle.
2) Explain measures for prevention of external exposure of Radionuclides.

Set A

SLR-KM 405

-4-

*SLRKM405*

3) Discuss various positrons emitting radio nuclides.


4) Explain Filtered Back projection image reconstruction in SPECT with one example.
5) Discuss radiotracers used in RIA along with their advantages and disadvantages.
5. Attempt any two.

(210= 20)

1) Explain using suitable block diagram working of SPECT and its disadvantages over
PET.
2) Mention various radiotracers used in RIA and explain working and applications of RIA
technique.
3) Explain various ways of disposing biological wastes in accordance with their
categories.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 406

*SLRKM406*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Biomedical Eng.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


MEDICAL INFORMATICS
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

I. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) Heuristic knowledge is a knowledge that consists of


a) Skill of knowing how to use logs
b) Skills of knowing how to use declarative knowledge
c) Personal rules of thumb
d) None
2) Which one of the following is the main feature of MRI scan ?
a) Excellent details of soft tissue
b) Rapid acquisition time
c) Excellent bony detail
d) Both b) and c)
3) The components of an expert system are
a) Knowledge base
b) Interference engine
c) User interface and data base
d) All
4) The US Supreme Court has ruled that computerization of medical records should
not violate
a) Hospital laws
b) Patient confidentiality
c) Right to privacy
d) b) and c)
5) ASTM stands for
a) American Society of Testing and Materials
b) American Society for Tungsten Metal
c) American Society of Testimony for Metals
d) None
6) _________ is used for the communication between various medical devices and
computing systems.
a) BIM
b) MIB
c) IBM
d) MBI

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 406

*SLRKM406*

-2-

7) Systemized nomenclature of pathology is maintained by


a) College of American Pathologists
b) CAP
c) HL7
d) ASP
8) ASCX12N is widely used for
a) Front office
c) Remittance messages

b) Insurance payment
d) Both b) and c)

9) The applications of internet to ___________ is intended to enhance communication


among various hospitals.
a) HMIS
b) VE
c) CAPE
d) CPR
10) Expert systems generate alerts and __________ assist in diagnosis.
a) Information
b) Help
c) Reminders
d) None of above
11) ________ information module maintain database of the all the categories of
employs.
a) Employee
b) Administration
c) Operation theater
d) Personnel
12) CAS provides __________ for the surgeon.
a) Images
b) Image slices
c) Image guidance d) None of above
13) ________ enhances patient access to care, encompasses remote consultation
on a doctor to doctor level.
a) VE
b) CAPE
c) Telemedicine d) CAS
14) ________ request and result entry for special tests like TFT, TSH.
a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Medical Research Module
d) Health Module
15) __________ and MRI imaging offer spatial information on a patient diseases.
a) PET
b) X-ray
c) PET/CT
d) CT
16) Nema defines the messages formats and communication standards for
a) Diagnostic images
b) Therapeutic
c) a) and b)
d) Normal images
17) The medical MLC register module is comprising of __________
a) Consciousness
b) Unconsciousness
c) Vital parameters
d) All
18) Blood bank module includes
a) Inventory
b) Blood status

c) Donors

d) All

19) _________ is a specification for the electronic data exchange between hospitals
and different computer systems.
a) EDI
b) HLT
c) ASTM
d) IBM
20) ________ play an important role in the development of various applications of
medical informatics, ranging from patient record system to decision support systems.
a) TCM
b) CMT
c) MCT
d) MTC

______________
Set A

*SLRKM406*

-3-

SLR-KM 406

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical Eng.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


MEDICAL INFORMATICS
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80
SECTION I

II. Solve any four questions :


(54=20)
1) Define progress and future of medical informatics.
2) What do you mean by disaster management plan ?
3) Define and differentiate between OPD/Consultant module and polyclinic module.
4) Define the applications of surgical simulation.
5) Explain about operation theater module patient care module.
III. Solve any two questions :

(102=20)

1) Write a short note on :


i) Account billing module
ii) Radiology module.
2) Why HMIS fails ? Give the reasons.
3) Give the pre-requisites of HMIS.

SECTION II
IV. Solve any four questions :
1) Explain about application service provider.
2) Explain about legal security and private issues.
3) Explain about patient counselling software.
4) What do you mean by VIDF ?
5) Give applications of ES-Expert System.

(54=20)

V. Solve any two questions :


(102=20)
1) Explain tele-education and tele-monitoring.
2) Explain significance of virtual environment technology and state its application
in detail.
3) Define rendering. Explain surface based rendering and volume based
rendering.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 407

*SLRKM407*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015
BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION III (New)

Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data wherever required.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Short wave diathermy has a working frequency of ___________ MHz.


a) 27.12
b) 1.5
c) 76
d) 2150
2) Ultrasonic generators are constructed on the _____________ effect.
a) Ultrasound
b) Doppler
c) Piezo electric
d) None of above
3) The ultrasound transducer is made up of ______________ crystal.
a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Aluminum
d) Lead zirconate titanate
4) Galvanic current produces _____________ effect in human body.
a) chemical
b) physiological
c) anatomical
d) physical
5) Faradic current is a sequence of ___________ with defined shape and current density.
a) numbers
b) shocks
c) pulses
d) potentials
6) The frequency of surgical diathermy ranges from __________ MHz.
a) 1-3
b) 20-30
c) 40-80
d) 10-20
7) _____________ refers to the superficial tissue destruction without affecting deep seated
tissues.
a) Cut
b) Coagulation
c) Desiccation
d) Fulguration
8) _____________ mode needs needle type of electrode in surgical unit.
a) Cut
b) Coagulation
c) Desiccation
d) Fulguration
9) The impulses originating from heart is through
a) A-V node
b) S-A node
c) Purkinje fibers
10) BPEG stands for
a) British Pacing and Electro Physiology Group
b) British Pulses and Electric Group
c) Battery Pacing and Electro Physiology Group
d) Battery Pulses and Electric Physics Group

d) Bundle of his

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 407

-2-

*SLRKM407*

11) The life of a pacemaker is determined by ______________ consumption of the electronic


circuit.
a) Voltage
b) Frequency
c) Current
d) Pulses
12) Ventricular fibrillation can be converted into efficient rhythm by applying high ___________
shock to the heart.
a) voltage
b) frequency
c) current
d) energy
13) In a defibrillator an enormous voltage of approximately ________ is applied to the
patient.
a) 3000 V
b) 300 V
c) 4000 V
d) 100 V
14) The use of automatic implantable defibrillator is recommended for _______ patients.
a) high risk
b) low risk
c) limited risk
d) recovering
15) Main function of kidney is to form urine out of
a) Platelets
b) RBCs
c) WBCs

d) Blood plasma

16) Blood pump used in dialysis machine are _____________ type.


a) rotating
b) stationary
c) peristatic

d) stable

17) Peritoneal dialysis works ___________ the body.


a) inside
b) outside
c) partially inside

d) partially outside

18) The laser depends upon the phenomenon of _____________ emission.


a) capsulated
b) stimulated
c) photoeletric
d) artificial
19) The process in laser a medium is activated is called as
a) stimulation
b) emission
c) ultrafilteration

d) pumping

20) Biological tissues are coagulated by thermal means if temperature is maintained at


__________ degree Celsius.
a) 70
b) 38
c) 30
d) 100
______________

Set A

*SLRKM407*

-3-

SLR-KM 407

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION III (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain principle of surgical diathermy.
2) Draw and explain various types of cardiac fibrillations.
3) Explain ICHD codes used to define of pacemaker.
4) Compare advantages and disadvantages of ultrasonic and short wave diathermy.
5) Explain power sources for implantable pacemaker.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain using circuit diagram CUT, COAG and BICOAG mode of operation in ESU.
2) Draw and explain block diagram of nerve muscle stimulator with waveforms. Mention its
applications also.
3) Draw and explain working of short wave diathermy machine in detail with its applications.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) List various types and their applications of LASERS used in medicine.


2) Explain any two types of dialyzers used in dialysis machine.
3) Explain the working of heart rate variability meter in detail.
4) Draw and explain working of temperature controller circuit in Hemodialysis.
5) Explain how capacitor discharged in INST mode.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Draw and explain complete block diagram and working of Hemodialysis machine.
2) Explain circus motion theory and its significance in designing defibrillator machine.
3) Draw and explain any 2 of laser system in detail.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 408

*SLR-KM-408*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF IMAGE PROCESSING (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) FFT algorithms are efficient implementations of the __________


a) DCT
b) DFT
c) DST
d) Complex
2) The process of decomposing a __________ function into its constituent sine
or cosine waves is called Fourier analysis.
a) Periodic
b) Complex
c) Linear
d) Composite
3) Entropy is a measure of the amount of__________ or randomness in a system.
a) Contrast
b) Brightness
c) Disorder
d) Dilation
4) Opening is defined as erosion followed by_________using the same structuring
element for both operations.
a) Closing
b) Dilation
c) Thresholding d) Dilation
5) The__________ transform is a basic tool for shape detection or pattern
recognition.
a) Hit-miss
b) Length
c) Data
d) Pixel
6) Thinning is a morphological operation that erodes away foreground pixels
from the boundary of__________ images.
a) Skeletonization b) Binary
c) Thresholding d) Compression
7) In binary images an object is defined as a __________ sets of pixels.
a) Morphologies b) Digits
c) Operators
d) Connected
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 408

-2-

*SLRKM408*

8) __________ is used to create the outline of features in an image.


a) Dilation
b) Digitization
c) Segmentation d) Compression
9) Erosion is the dual of__________
a) Compression b) Thresholding c) Dilation

d) Digitization

10) Noise is the unwanted, __________ fluctuations in an image.


a) Random
b) Filtering
c) Distribution
d) Resolution
11) Morphological__________are nonlinear in counting.
a) Lines
b) Images
c) Operators

d) Sample

12) __________in an image are detected by using a gradient operator such as a


Sobel.
a) Boundary
b) Linking
c) Edges
d) Tracking
13) Image__________ reduces the amount of data needed to describe the
image.
a) Restoration
b) Compression c) Segmentation d) Thresholding
14) Spatial __________ is the measure of the ability of the image to show fine
details.
a) Distribution
b) Resolution
c) Segmentation d) Frequency
15) Optimal__________considers the Histogram of an image to be weighted sum
of two probability densities.
a) Thresholding
b) Segmentation c) Extraction
d) Clusters
16) Region based methods find connected regions based on some__________ of
the pixels within them.
a) Thresholding
b) Fourier
c) Adaptive thresholding
d) Similarity
17) Homomorphic filtering is a generalized technique for improving the appearance
of an __________ by normalizing its brightness.
a) Colors
b) Digits
c) Image
d) Contrast
18) The random transform describes a function in terms of its __________
a) Directions
b) Length
c) Brightness
d) Projections
19) If an image is rotated then its __________transform rotates an equal amount.
a) FFT
b) Sobel
c) Fourier
d) Operator
20) __________is the spatial domain corresponds to multiplication in the frequency
domain.
a) Convolution
b) Time
c) Laplace
d) S-plane
______________
Set A

*SLRKM408*

SLR-KM 408

-3-

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


PRINCIPLES OF IMAGE PROCESSING (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Differentiatiate between Histogram specifications and Histogram equalization.


2) Differentiate between point processing and neighborhood processing
operations.
3) Explain the technique of thresholding for segmentation.
4) Explain sampling and quantization with respect to images. How would one
avoid aliasing ?
5) Explain chain codes with one example.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain in detail region based segmentation with respective example.


2) Perform histogram equalization on the given image histogram :
Gray level

No. of pixels

73

128 260 440 637 1048 800 710

3) Explain Gaussian noise and salt and pepper noise. Suggest ways to eliminate
those using examples.

Set A

SLR-KM 408

-4-

*SLRKM408*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Differentiate between 2D-DFT and DCT.


2) Explain Laplacian operator for edge detection.
3) Explain boundary detection using morphological operators.
4) Generate Harr matrix of size 4 and comment on the result.
5) Write a note on feature extraction with one medical application.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain opening and closing operations with examples.


2) Explain different image reconstruction techniques used in computed
tomography with an example.
3) Explain HIT or MISS transformation with each of example.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 409

*SLRKM409*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


HOSPITAL MANAGEMENT (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever required.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201= 20)

1) Functional nursing is a method of providing


a) care management
b) patient care
c) care of records
d) equipment care
2) _________ is included in efficient material management in hospital.
a) Taking an inventory
b) Procurement
c) List materials
d) None
3) _________ is not a material used in hospital and community.
a) Supplies
b) Transport
c) Equipment
d) Drugs and medicine
4) _________ is the element of directing in hospital.
a) Discipline
b) Evaluation
c) Planning
d) Delegation
5) _________ is not a part of progressive patient care.
a) Constant care
b) Community care
c) Intensive care
d) Intermediate care
6) _________ is the nurse patient ratio in general ward within the hospital.
a) 2 : 10
b) 1 : 5
c) 1 : 10
d) 2 : 6
7) _________ is a function of nursing supervisor.
a) Leader
b) Administrator c) Supervisor

d) Coordinator

8) Promotion of health is function of


a) OPD
b) ICU

d) IPD

c) NICU

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 409

*SLRKM409*

-2-

9) Cafeterias service is a _________ service provided by hospital.


a) caring
b) catering
c) shopping window
d) none of above
10) Hospital practice is a basis of _________ of hospitals.
a) classification
b) operation
c) working

d) educating

11) First aid is a _________ care.


a) lasting
b) emergency

d) operative

c) admission

12) _________ facility is not needed in emergency care department.


a) Cafeteria
b) Treatment room
c) Examination room
d) Testing room
13) To create a good organization relation is function of _________ department of
hospital.
a) Human resource b) Nursing
c) Administrator
d) HR
14) Concept behind changing the role of hospital from indoor care doesnt includes
a) economic importance
b) rising cost of hospital care
c) shortage of hospital beds
d) increase in hospital beds
15) _________ is not a basic classification of hospital.
a) Shape
b) Functional
c) Size

d) Specificity

16) Supportive services in hospital doesnt includes _________


a) pharmacy
b) housekeeping
c) laundry
d) laboratory
17) _________ is not a indicator of hospital services.
a) Quality care
b) Machines
c) Public relation
d) Patient satisfaction
18) _________ is a skeleton of hospital.
a) Coordination
c) Organize function

b) Decentralization
d) Structure

19) Organization effectiveness doesnt includes _________


a) productivity power
b) rigidity in structure
c) flexibility in structure
d) adaptability to change
20) NICU is related to _________ treatment.
a) adult
b) neonatal
c) childs
______________

d) aged

Set A

*SLRKM409*

-3-

SLR-KM 409

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


HOSPITAL MANAGEMENT (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain the role of HR management in hospital.


2) Explain the role of Biomedical Engineer in hospital and in R & D field.
3) List different gases used in hospital and explain their significance in detail.
4) Explain the role of CEO in hospital.
5) Explain the functions of hospital information system in detail.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain the theories of motivation in detail.


2) Explain the criteria for location, space requirement and design of OT.
3) Explain the rules of installation that has been applied while installing radiology
equipment in radiology department.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain the importance of medical records in hospital.


2) Explain the need of dietary and disaster management.
3) Explain the role and importance of blood bank.
4) Explain the role, need and ways of infection control in hospital.
5) Explain the need and role of air conditioning system in hospital.

Set A

SLR-KM 409

-4-

*SLRKM409*

5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain the organization of nursing department and mention functions of them.


2) Discuss various techniques for biomedical waste management.
3) Mention various ancillary services and explain any 2 of them in detail.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 410

*SLRKM410*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Part II) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015
MEDICAL IMAGING II

Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
4) Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Attempt all :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) The number of slices per rotation is equal to the number of __________


a) Collimator
b) Detector
c) Filter
d) X-ray tube
2) In the PRESS method, the RF pulses have flip angles of __________
a) 90 180 180
b) 180 90 180
c) 90 90 180
d) 180 180 180
3) When -gradient coils are on the protons near the front of patient will process ________
a) Slower
b) Flower
c) Medium
d) None
4) A spin echo sequence with a short TR will produce a __________ weighted image.
a) T 1
b) T 2
c) T 3
d) T 4
5) There is a way to acquire all the slices at one time called __________
a) Multislice imaging
b) Single slice imaging
c) Both
d) None
6) The slice selection Z-gradient is applied slightly before the __________ RF pulse.
a) 90
b) 180
c) 60
d) 30
7) Protons in the antiparallel orientation are said to be in a
a) Low energy state
b) High energy state
c) Both
d) None
8) An image reconstruction receives sampled and digitized X-ray data from __________
a) DAS
b) Slip ring
c) Detector
d) Filter
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 410

*SLRKM410*

-2-

9) CT angiography should be avoided in patients with __________ disease.


a) Kidney
b) Lung
c) Heart
d) Liver
10) The multidetector computer tomography (MDCT) is similar to ___________ generation.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
11) __________ is closely related to the FID.
a) T1
b) T 2

c) TE
d) T R
12) The superconducting magnets made using __________ material.
a) Lead
b) Copper
c) Silver
d) Niobium tantalum alloy
13) The bandwidth of the RF pulse selects the __________ of the slice.
a) Location
b) Thickness
c) Both
d) None
14) The frequency of precession called the __________
a) Larmor frequency
b) Magnetic diapole moment (MDM)
c) T1
d) T 2
15) When 90 RF pulse ON then _________ gradient ON.
a) Z
b) Y
c) X

d) All of the above

16) A long __________ means a long time to acquire an image.


a) TR
b) TE
c) T 1

d) T 2
17) T1 is the time for _________ % of the nuclei to return to its lower energy state.
a) 50
b) 40
c) 63
d) 70
18) In rotate-fixed scanner detectors are __________
a) Fixed
b) Rotate
c) Both

d) None

19) The original EMI scanner was designed specifically for evaluation of the _________
a) Heart
b) Lung
c) Liver
d) Brain
20) The expression for T1 is given by _________
t

a) Mz = Mz 1 e 1

2 t

T1

M
M
1
e
=

b)
z
z

3 t

c) Mz = Mz 1 e T1

4 t

d) Mz = Mz 1 e T1

______________

Set A

*SLRKM410*

-3-

SLR-KM 410

Seat
No.

B.E. (Part II) (Biomedical Engineering) Examination, 2015


MEDICAL IMAGING II
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Figures to the right indicate full marks.


Assume data wherever necessary.
Draw diagrams/sketces wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.

SECTION I
2. Answer any four of following questions :

(45=20)

1) List out the different generations of computed tomography systems. Explain any one of
the generation in detail.
2) Write shorts on C T number tomography.
3) Describe the clinical application of C T in detail.
4) Explain water suppression techniques in MRS.
5) Describe detail explanation about image quality and artifacts.
3. Answer any two of following questions :

(210=20)

1) Explain basic principle of MRS and localization techniques in details with necessary
diagrams.
2) Explain chemical shift imaging with necessary diagram in detail.
3) Explain and Draw filtered back projection technique in detail.

SECTION II
4. Answer any four of following questions :

(45=20)

1) With the help of neat diagram explain working principle of MDCT.


2) Explain C-T Angiography in detail.
3) Write the difference between C T and MRI.
4) Describe the safety considerations and biological effects of MRI.
5) Write short notes on Hybrid imaging modalities and their clinical application.

Set A

SLR-KM 410

-4-

5. Answer any two of following questions :

*SLRKM410*
(210=20)

1) Explain with a neat diagram different types of magnets used in MRI.


2) Describe the resolution and factor affecting signal-to-noise in Fourier reconstruction
techniques.
3) Explain slice selection and frequency encoding in detail.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 411

*SLRKM411*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


INSTALLATION, MAINTENANCE AND SERVICING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Fill in the blanks :


1) AKD stands for
a) Artificial Kidney Dialysis
c) Artificial Kidney Department

b) Artificial Kinetic Design


d) None

2) QCI stands for


a) Quality Council Inspection
b) Quality Control and Implementation
c) Quantity Council in India
d) Quality Control and Imaging
3) Aspirators are included in _________ to remove mucus from airway passage.
a) ventilator
b) ECG machine c) defibrillator
d) humidifier
4) Spirometer is used to measure __________ and volume.
a) lung capacity
b) lung weight
c) lung passage d) air
5) UPS systems are essential for clean and stable supply during
a) repairing
b) maintenance c) servicing
d) calibrating
6) Electronic equipments must be maintained at a constant temperature around
___________ C.
a) 20
b) 37
c) 35
d) 25
7) Wet skin presents a very _________ resistance of several hundred thousand
ohms.
a) high
b) low
c) moderate
d) standard
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 411

-2-

*SLRKM411*

8) Preventive maintenance is carried out to reduce the failure to absolute


a) moderate
b) minimum
c) maximum
d) nil
9) Maintenance record should be maintained for each equipment to indicate
entire _________ of maintenance of the equipment.
a) servicing
b) installing
c) repairing
d) history
10) Inspection is the _________ of certain equipments or their parts to fine their
state or condition.
a) examination
b) calibration
c) maintenance d) none
11) In the ventilator the ___________ flows through bacteria filter.
a) air
b) gas
c) oxygen
d) liquid
12) Centrifuge measures analysis in clinical __________
a) molecules
b) chemistry
c) spectrophotometer d) physics
13) X ray tube ratings are done in _________
a) current
b) voltage
c) frequency
14) Voltages in X rays is measured in __________
a) milliamp
b) mili volt
c) kVp

d) Kv

15) ___________ transformer is not used in PET modality.


a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Step up

d) Step down

d) time

16) In blood flow measurement flow rate Q=VA where A stands for
a) acceleration
b) amplitude
c) constant
d) area of cross section
17) __________ is a mode of synchrony ventilator.
a) CT
b) Automatic
c) CPAP
d) None
18) The upper inlet in the __________ is used for moderate pressure gas.
a) humidifier
b) ventilator
c) cardioverter
d) pacemaker
19) _________ works at QRS wave.
a) cardioverter
b) pacemaker
c) defibrillator
d) heart long machine
20) Oxygenator is part of ___________ machine.
a) ventilator
b) heart lung machine
c) defibrillator
d) humidifier
______________

Set A

*SLRKM411*

-3-

SLR-KM 411

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


INSTALLATION, MAINTENANCE AND SERVICING
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.


2) Assume suitable data wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain preventive maintenance concept of biomedical equipment with one


example.
2) Explain the role of biomedical engineer in hospital and in R and D field.
3) Explain the need and advantages of drawing insurance of medical equipments
in hospital.
4) Explain the rules of installation that has been applied while installing radiology
equipment in radiology department.
5) Draw a labeled figure of a ventilator with all its specifications.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain installation and maintenance procedure of any 2 cardiac equipments.


2) Explain the criteria for location, space requirement and design of OT.
3) Define and differentiate between the installation procedure of pathology and
radiology equipments.

Set A

SLR-KM 411

-4-

*SLRKM411*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain the importance of ISO and NABH certification.


2) Explain the need and function fo medical gas management.
3) Explain maintenance techniques of radiology equipments with any one example.
4) Draw various front panel controls of a standard ventilator.
5) Explain safety precautions that has to be taken while operating and
handling ESU.
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain various trouble shooting methods of operation theater equipments


with any two examples.
2) Explain the function of baby incubator and differentiate between baby
incubator and baby warmer.
3) Differentiate between ICU, NICU and CCU in terms of life saving
equipments.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 412

*SLRKM412*
Seat
No.

Set
B.E. (Biomedical) (Part II) Examination, 2015
BIOMEDICAL MICROSYSTEM

Day and Date : Monday, 30/11/2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Question No. 1 compulsory.
4) Draw the diagram to the appropriate answer.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Multiple choice questions :

(120=20)

1) MEMs means
a) Micro-Electro-Mechanical System
c) Micro-Actuator-System

b) Micro-Electric-Memory-System
d) Micro-Element-Multi-System

2) LIGA process is
a) Lithographic Gravitational Armstrong
c) Lithographic Galvano Forming Abforming

b) Lithotrophy Galvanometer Process


d) None

3) ___________ device converts one form of energy into another.


a) Sensor
b) Actuators
c) Polysilicon

d) None

4) In Biomems ______________ materials is used as substrate material.


a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) Gallium Arsenide d) None
5) The classification of PVD consists of
a) Evaporation
b) Sputtering

c) Ion coating

d) All the above

6) The __________ is used for selective etching the silicon substrate to create microstructure
on MEMs devices.
a) Surface micro machining
b) Bulk micro machining
c) LIGA
d) None
7) The elements of TAS contains
a) Sampling unit
b) Micro fluidic unit c) Detector system d) All
8) The ___________ types of Nano particles that have been used invivo of biosensing
application.
a) Quantum dots
b) X-ray
c) Both a and b
d) None
9) _____________ particles is used as MRI contrast agent.
a) PEG molecule
b) Ferric
c) H 2 O

d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 412

*SLRKM412*

-2-

10) _____________ biosensor measure the change in temperature in the reaction betn an
enzyme molecule and a suitable analyte.
a) Optical detection
b) Electro chemical
c) Mass sensitive
d) Thermal detection
11) _____________ polymers are used to produce the prime mold in the process.
a) Photo Resist
b) Conductive
c) Both a and b
d) None
12) The nano particles are generally defined as particles that in size from _______ to _______
diameter.
c) 1 to 100 nm
d) None
a) 1 to 1000 nm
b) 1 to 100 m
13) ____________ techniques are currently employed to identify urinary tract pathogens.
a) Oxido reductases b) Microbial culture c) Invivo diagnostics d) None
14) The Elements of Micro pump consist of
a) Reservoir
b) Tank

c) Both a and b

d) None

15) In TAS the sample input is in the form of


a) Electrical signal
b) Fluid

c) Both a and b

d) None

16) The Biomedical microsystem contains _______________ structure.


a) 2D
b) 3D
c) Single Dimension d) Alone
17) ___________ uses thick layers of photo resist to serve a mould for electroplated parts.
a) Photo lithography b) CVD
c) LIGA
d) PVD
18) In _____________ etching the material is dissolved when Immersed in chemical solution.
a) Wet
b) Dry
c) Isotropic
d) Anisotropic
19) The components size in MEMs will be in
a) Meters
b) Micrometer

c) Nanometer

d) None

20) The transduction unit converts the input power supply voltage for
a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Transducer
d) None
______________

Set A

*SLRKM412*

-3-

SLR-KM 412

Seat
No.

B.E. (Biomedical) (Part II) Examination, 2015


BIOMEDICAL MICROSYSTEM
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

2. Answer any four questions :


1) Define MEMs. Explain MEMs as a Micro Sensor and Micro Actuators.
2) Differentiate between wet etching and dry etching.
3) Explain about Enhanced CVD.
4) Define Mores Law and explain with diagram.
5) What is meant by Muller Indices ?
3. Answer any two questions :

(54=20)

(102=20)

1) Classify and describe different deposition techniques.


2) Explain plasma etching and deep reactive Ion etching.
3) Explain about the Micro electronics and Micro System.
4. Answer any four questions :

(54=20)

1) Explain about the Injection molding for micromolding technique.


2) Explain about the Micro Fluids and Fluid control components.
3) Explain the classification of physical sensors.
4) Explain about the micro surgical tools.
5) Explain about micro system packaging types.
5. Answer any two questions.

(102=20)

1) Give the classification of micropump that have used in TAS.


2) Explain two types of Nano particles that have been used in Invivo for bio sensor.
3) Explain about the polynucleotide arrays and genetic screening.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 413

*SLRKM413*
S

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TISSUE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. :

Duration : 30 Minutes

Max. Marks : 100

1) Draw the diagram for the required Question.


2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Multiple choice question :

(120=20)

1) Hollow Fibres system consists of a shell travelled by a large number of small dia
meter ___________
a) Beads
b) Tubes
c) Heterotypic
d) None
2) __________ construction of bioartificial tissues isolated by Enzymatic dissociation
of donor tissue.
a) Invivo
b) Bioreactor
c) Invitro
d) None
3) Cells of the vascular system are constantly exposed to _________ force due to
the flow of blood.
a) Hemodynamic b) Stress effect
c) Hydro dynamic d) None
4) The term Hematopoiesis means
a) Frame work
b) Blood forming c) Blood clotting

d) None

5) The Blood cell population is divided into two major groups


a) Myeloid and Lymphoid
b) Invivo and Invitro
c) Hemodynamic and Hydrodynamic d) None
6) Which type of tissue Facilitates movement of the skeleton ?
a) Epithelial
b) Muscular
c) Connective
d) Nervous
7) Cartilage is an Avascular tissue that contains only one cell type termed as
__________
a) Collagen
b) Chondrocytes c) Gene therapy
d) None
8) Contraction is defined as the activation of muscle fibre with a tendency of fibre to
__________
a) Elongation
b) Instability
c) Shorten
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 413

*SLRKM413*

-2-

9) When the force developed by the muscle is greater than the load developed by
the muscle is ___________
a) ISO metric
b) Immobility
c) MIO metric
d) None
10) ___________ are responsible for the synthesis of many GAGS for the deposition
and organization of collagens.
a) Pluripotent
b) Fibroblast
c) Myoblast
d) None
11) ___________ Tissue contains type I and IV collagens.
a) Liver
b) Bone marrow c) Kidney

d) None

12) ___________ are the derivatives of pheripheral blood monocytes.


a) Macrophages
b) Adipocytes
c) Endothelial cells
d) None
13) Skeletal muscle is
a) Striated and Involuntary
c) Striated and Voluntary

b) Nonstraited and Involuntary


d) None

14) Neurotrophic factors may play a role in the treatment of several neurodegenerative
disorders.
a) Chromaffin and mesencephalon
b) Alzheirmers and Parkinson
c) Allogenic and Autologous
d) None
15) What do you mean by the term NGCS ?
a) Nerve Guidance channel
b) Nerve guidance chamber
c) Neuron getting channel
d) None
16) What do you mean by PTFE ?
a) Polyvinal tubes effect
c) Polyvinal tube for ethylene

b) Polytetrafluoro ethylene
d) None

17) ____________ cells growth can be very rapid and un controllable which can cause
design problems.
a) Somatic cells
b) Endothelial cells
c) Tumor cells
d) None
18) Micro carrier are small ______________ with surface treated to support cell
attachment.
a) Tubes
b) Endothelial cells
c) Beads
d) None
19) The human body consumes a staggering __________ of mature cells every day.
a) 600 million
b) 400 billions
c) 500 billions
d) None
20) Erythrocytes have a life span of __________
a) 100 days and 8 hours
b) 160 days and 4 minutes
c) 120 days and 8 hours
d) None
______________

Set A

*SLRKM413*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 413

B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


TISSUE ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. :

Marks : 80

Draw the diagram for the required Question.

2. Answer any four questions :


1) Explain the Reconstruction of connective tissue.
2) Explain about the metabolic requirement of cells.
3) Explain about the Gene therapy in vascular biology.
4) Explain about the stem cell development.
5) Write about the cell motility and tissue architecture.

(54=20)

3. Answer any two questions :


(210=20)
1) Define tissue Engineering and explain basic principle and consideration for tissue
Engineering.
2) Explain the mechanism of shear stress Induced gene regulation.
3) Explain about the directed motile response for Invivo system.
4. Answer any four questions :

(54=20)

1) Explain about the Liver for tissue Engineering.


2) Explain about the tissue reconstruction for nerve regulation.
3) Explain about the skeletal muscle structure.
4) Explain about the cell based approaches to cartilage tissue Engineering.
5) Explain about the Bioartificial Glomerculus of the Filter.
5. Answer any two questions :

(210=20)

1) Explain about the application of Reconstituted Ex-Vivo Hemotopoises for Bone


marrow system.
2) Explain the delivery of neuro active molecules to the nervous system.
3) With a neat diagram explain about the Kidney system.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 414

*SLRKM414*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :


1)

14

1
X is equal to
Da
a)

X e

ax

dx

b)

X e

ax

dx

c) eax X e ax dx

d) e ax X eax dx

2) y = (c1 + c2x) e2x + (c3 + c4x) e2x is the general solution of


a) (D2 + 2)2y = 0
3)

1
2
D + 3D + 2
2

b) (D2 2)2y = 0

c) (D2 + 4)2y = 0

d) (D2 4)2y = 0

c) 2e2x

d)

e2x is equal to

a) e2x

b)

x e2x
6

d2 y
dy
+x
= 0 is
4) The general solution of x
2
dx
dx
b) y = c1 + c2 logx c) y = c1 + c2x2
a) y = c1 + ex

e2x
6

d) y = c1x + c2

5) The solution of p.q = 1 is


a) z = ax +

1
y+c
a

b) z = ax + ay + c c) z = ax + by + c

d) z = ax +

1
y+c
b

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 414

*SLRKM414*

-2-

6) z = a (x + y) + c is the general solution of


a)

p
=1
q

b) p + q = 1

c) p.q = 1

d) p q = 1

k
7) If z {f (k)} = F (z) , then z a f (k) =

z
a) F
a

a
b) F
z

c)

1 z
F
a a

d) None of these

8) In the cosine series expansion of sinx in (0, ) the constant term


a)

1
2

b)

c)

d)

9) Which of the following functions can not be expanded in Fourier series in the
interval (, )
a) e x
10)

b) x

1
is the Laplace Transform of
(s + 1)2
a) t 2
b) t 3

11) If L [ f (t)] =
a)

1 3/s
e
3

c) cosecx

d) x2

c) e2t

d) tet

1 1/ s
e , then L [ f (3t)] is
s
b)

1 s/3
e
3

c)

1 3/s
e
3s

d)

1 3/s
e
s

12) The directional derivative of = x 2 + y 2 + z 2 at (1, 1, 1) along the z-axis is


a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 2i
13) If F = (x + 3y) i + (y 2z) j + (x + az)k is solenoidal then a =
a) 2
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0
14) If Fc ( ) is the cosine transform of f (x), then f (x) =

a)

c)

2
Fc ()cos xd
0

Fc ( )cos xd

b)

1
Fc ()cos xd
2 0

d) None of these

______________
Set A

*SLRKM414*

-3-

SLR-KM 414

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D3 + D) y = cosx.

b) Solve (D2 + 2D + 3) y = x x2.

x
d2 y
dy
+3
+ 2y = ee .
c) Solve
2
dx
dx

2
3. a) Solve x

d2 y
dy
x
+ 4y = x sin log x .
2
dx
dx

2
b) Solve (x + 1)

d2 y
dy
3 (x + 1)
+ 4y = x 2 .
2
dx
dx

OR
The differential equation for a circuit in which self inductance and capacitance
d2i i
+ = 0 . Find the current i as a function of t, given
dt 2 c
that the maximum current is I0 and i = 0 when t = 0.
neutralize each other is L

Set A

SLR-KM 414

-4-

*SLRKM414*

4. a) Solve g (p2z + q2) = 4.

b) Solve (5z 7y) p + (7x 3z) q = 3y 5z.

c) Solve z2 (p2 +q2) = 1.

5. a) Find the z-transform and its region of convergence of the following sequence
f (k) = 2, K > 0.

b) Find z 2K cos (3K + 2) .

c) Find inverse z-transform of F (z) =

z
, z >2.
(z 1) (z 2)

SECTION II
,0 x 1
x
6. a) If f (x ) =
(2 x ) , 1 x 2

with period 2,

show that
f (x) =

4
1

cos (2n + 1) x .
2 n = 0 (2n + 1)2

b) Find the Fourier series of f (x) =

3x 2 6x + 2 2
in the interval (0, 2) .
12

7. a) Find a, b, c if F = (axy + bz 3 ) i + (3x 2 cz) j + (3xz 2 y) k is irrotational.

b) Determine the constant a, so that the vector F = (x + 3y 2 ) i + (2y + 2z 2 ) j + (x 2 + az) k


is solenoidal.

c) A vector field F is give by F = (y sin z sin x) i + (x sin z + 2yz) j + (xy cos z + y 2 ) k .


Prove that it is irrotational and hence, find its scalar potential.

OR
c) Find the directional derivative of where = xlogz y2 + 4 at ( 1, 2, 1) in the
direction of 3i + 4 j + 5k .

Set A

*SLRKM414*

SLR-KM 414

-5-

e ax
8. a) Find the Fourier sine transform of f (x) =
.
x

1, for x < 1
b) Express the function f (x ) =
as Fourier integral. Hence evaluate
0 , for x > 1
sin sin x
d .

3s + 1
9. a) Find L1
.
2
(s 1) (s + 1)

t
b) Evaluate the following by using Laplace transform e
0

3 t
c) Find Laplace transform of e
0

sin (2 t )
t

dt .

sin 3 t

dt .

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 415

*SLRKM415*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (E&E) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
DC MACHINES AND TRANSFORMERS
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first


30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 14
(114=14)

1) For high current and low current rating which winding is employed to DC
machine ?
a) Lap winding
b) Wave winding
c) Both lap and wave winding
d) None of above
2) In a DC machine, which of these parameters remain the same whether it
runs as a DC motor or a DC generator ?
a) Induced emf
b) Mechanical power
c) Armature current
d) Cannot be determined
3) Armature reaction in DC generators will results in
a) Increase in slip
b) Short circuit
c) Open circuit
d) Reduction in generated emf
4) In case of DC machine winding, number of commutator segments is equal to
a) Number of armature coils
b) Number of armature coil sides
c) Number of armature conductors d) Number of armature turns
5) In a DC generator the actual flux distribution depends upon
a) Shape of the pole shoe
b) Size of air gap
c) Clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
d) All of above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 415

-2-

*SLRKM415*

6) When the mechanical power developed by a DC motor is maximum if


a) Back emf is equal
b) Back emf is equal to half of applied voltage
c) Back emf is equal to applied voltage
d) None of above
7) In an ideal transformer the magnetizing current lags behind applied primary
voltage by an angle of
a) 90
b) 75
c) 90
d) 45
8) The transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is
a) Zero
b) Unity
c) Leading
d) Lagging
9) In a three phase star-delta transformer, what is the angle difference between
primary and secondary phase voltages ?
a) Delta side lags by 30
b) Star side lags by 30
c) Star side leads by 30
d) Delta side leads by 30
10) Full load copper loss in transformer is 1600 W. At half load the loss will be
a) 400 W
b) 1600 W
c) 3200 W
d) 6400 W
11) The phase difference between primary and secondary voltages in an ideal
transformer is generally
a) 180
b) 90
c) 0
d) 45
12) During parallel operation of transformers incorrect polarity will result in
a) Short circuit
b) Open circuit
c) Regeneration of power
d) Power factor of transformer will be different from that of the connected
load
13) In the circuit model of a transformer, the core loss is represented as
a) Shunt resistance
b) Series resistance
c) Shunt inductance
d) Series inductance
14) In open circuit test which side is kept open ?
a) HV side
b) LV side
c) Any one side

d) Both sides

______________
Set A

*SLRKM415*

-3-

SLR-KM 415

Seat
No.

S.E. (E&E) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(New CGPA)
DC MACHINES AND TRANSFORMERS
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Answer any four questions :

(34=12)

1) How the back emf is produced in Dc motor ? Also derive an expression for
this emf.
2) Explain the compensating winding.
3) With a neat sketch explain the speed control of dc motor armature flux control.
4) With a neat sketch explain the Swinburne test for dc motor.
5) An armature of a 6 pole machine 75 cm in diameter has 664 conductors each
having an effective length of 30 cm and carrying a current of 100 A. If 70% of
the total conductor lie simultaneously in the field of average flux density
0.85 Wb/m2. Calculate armature torque and horse power output at 250 rpm.
3. Answer any two questions :

(28=16)

1) With a neat sketch explain the armature reaction, its effects and remedies.
2) A 220 V motor develops 23 HP when taking 20.2 Kw. The field resistance is
50 ohm and armature resistance is 0.06 ohm. What is the efficiency and
power input when the motor output is 10 HP ?
3) The Hopkinsons test gave the following results,
Input voltage = 500 V ; Input current = 15 A
Output current of generator = 120 A : Field current of generator = 4 A
Field current of motor = 3 A; Armature resistance of each machine = 0.06 ohm
Find the efficiency of motor and generator.

Set A

SLR-KM 415

-4-

*SLRKM415*

SECTION II
4. Answer any four questions :

(34=12)

1) Why transformer is called as constant flux machine ?


2) Explain how the torque is developed in universal motor.
3) In a 50 KVA transformer, the iron loss is 500 W and full load copper loss is
800 W. Find the efficiency at half full load at 0.8 p.f. lagging.
4) In a back to back test the wattmeter W1 reads 4KW while Wattmeter
W2 reads (at full load current) reads 6 KW. Find the full load efficiency of
each transformer. The transformer are rated at 200 KVA. Assume p.f. to be
unity.
5) Derive an expression for e.m.f. equation of a transformer.
5. Answer any two questions :

(82=16)

1) Explain the condition of parallel operation of single phase transformer. Two


single phase transformer with equal voltage ratio have impedance of
(0.819 + j2.503) ohm and (0.8 + j 2.31) ohm with respect to the secondary. If
they operating parallel, how they will share a total load of 2000 KW at 0.8 pf
lagging ?
2) A 4500/16000 V 1500 KVA, 50 Hz transformer has the following parameters,
R1 = 0.03 ohm, R2 = 0.44 ohm, R0 =1688 ohm
X1 = 0.092 ohm, X2 = 1.34 ohm, X0 = 256 ohm
The transformer is supplying full load at power factor 0.8 lagging. Using exact
equivalent circuit find the input current.
3) A 50 KVA, 4400/220 V transformer has R1 = 3.45 , R2 = 0.009 the values

of reactances are X1 = 5.2 and X2 = 0.051 . Calculate for the transformer :


i) Equivalent resistance as referred to primary
ii) Equivalent resistance as referred to secondary

iii) Equivalent reactance as referred to both primary and secondary


iv) Equivalent impedance as referred to both primary and secondary
v) Total cu loss, first using individual resistances of the two windings and
secondly using equivalent resistances as referred to each side.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 416

*SLRKM416*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015
ELECTRICAL NETWORKS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

(141=14)

1) Kirchoffs second law is based on law of conservation of


a) Charge

b) Energy

c) Momentum

d) Mass

2) The Thevenins equivalent voltage is


a) Equal to the source voltage

b) The same as the load voltage

c) The open circuit voltage

d) None of the above

3) Three equal resistances of 3 are connected in star. What is the resistance in one of
the arm in an equivalent delta circuit ?
a) 10

b) 3

c) 9

d) 27

4) A 12 mA current source has an internal resistance, RS, of 1.2 k. The equivalent voltage
source is
a) 144 V

b) 14.4 V

c) 7.2 V

d) 72 mV

5) The number of branches in a tree is ________ the number of branches in the graph.
a) less than

b) more than

c) equal to

d) same as

6) In an electrical circuit the dual term pair for G is


a) L

b) C

c) KVL

d) R

7) The reciprocity theorem is applicable to


a) Linear network only

b) Linear/bilateral networks

c) Bilateral networks only

d) Neither of two
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 416

*SLRKM416*

-2-

8) A parallel circuit at resonance will


a) Have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
b) Have low admittance
c) Act like a resistor of low value
d) Have current in each section equal to the line current
9) At switching condition, which of the following acts as open circuit ?
a) Inductor

b) Capacitor

c) Resistor

d) All of the above

10) The current through inductor follows


a) A linear growth

b) A linear decay

c) An exponential decay

d) An exponential growth

11) An ideal current source should have


a) Large value of E.M.F.

b) Small value of E.M.F.

c) Zero source resistance

d) Infinite source resistance

12) Laplace transform of e+at coswt is


a) (s a) / [(s a)2 + w2]

b) a / [(s a)2 + w2]

c) w / [(s a)2 + w2]

d) None of the above

13) Second order circuit is critically damped when


a) > 0

b) = 0

c) < 0

d) None of the above

14) In series resonance reactance at above resonant frequency is


a) capacitive

b) zero

c) inductive
______________

d) infinite

Set A

*SLRKM416*

-3-

SLR-KM 416

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2015
ELECTRICAL NETWORKS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any three of the followings :

(43=12)

1) Use Millmans theorem, to find the common voltage across terminals A and B and the load
current in the circuit of figure.

2) Explain Star Delta transformation by using one example.


3) Draw the oriented graph of incidence matrix shown below.
1 0 0 0 1 1

1 1 1 0 0 0
Aa =

0 1 0 1 0 1
0 0 1 1 1 0

4) Define the terms : planer and non-planer graph, incidence matrix and reduced incidence
matrix.
3. Solve any two of the followings :

(82=16)

1) Find the current through RL in the circuit given in circuit. Using Nortons theorem.

Set A

SLR-KM 416

-4-

*SLRKM416*

2) Derive necessary and sufficient condition for maximum power transfer condition from a
voltage source with source impedance Rs + JXs to a load RL + JXL. What is the value of
power transferred in this case ?
3) Explain with steps/rules for Super-node analysis. Find the node voltages for circuit shown
below.

SECTION II
4. Solve any three of the followings :

(43=12)

1) Show that 0 = ( 1 2 )1/ 2 for series resonance.


2) Find the response given by RC network.
3) Find Z-parameter for the network shown.

4) A series RLC circuit has following parameters. R = 10 , L = 0.01 H, C = 100 F when a


variable frequency voltage of 100 V is applied to it, calculate resonant frequency, Q factor,
half power frequencies.

Set A

*SLRKM416*

-5-

SLR-KM 416

5) Find V(t) at t = 2 msec for the network shown when the switch is moved from position 2 to 1.

5. Solve any two of the followings :

(82=16)

1) In the network shown iL(0) = 40 A, V(0) = 40 V. Find the V(t) at t > 0.

2) Derive the following :


a) H-parameter in terms of Z, Y-parameters.
b) Transmission parameter in terms of Y, H-parameters.
3) Find the response given by RL circuit for the following inputs by Laplace transform :
i) Impulse function
ii) Ramp function.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 417

*SLRKM417*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(NEW-CGPA)
ANALOG ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

14

1) The Emitter of transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it


a) has to dissipate maximum power
b) has to supply charge carriers
c) is the first region of transistor
d) must possess low resistances
2) For voltage amplification MOSFET is operated in __________ region.
a) ohmic
b) cutoff
c) pinch-off
d) both a) and b)
3) MOSFET is
a) voltage controlled device
b) current controlled device
c) current controlled current source
d) reactance controlled device
4) The gain of cascade amplifier is equal to
a) sum of individual gain
b) product of individual gain
c) ratio of stage gain
d) none of the above
5) In Class A power amplifier the current in the output circuit flows for
a) 360
b) 180
c) 90
d) less than 90
6) The efficiency of CLASS C power amplifier is ____________
a) 25%
b) close to 100%
c) close to 50%
d) 78.5%
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 417

*SLRKM417*

-2-

7) In the circuit shown below the output waveform is

a)

b)

c)

d)

8) A certain differential amplifier has differential gain of 2000 and common mode
gain of 0.2. The CMRR in dB is ____________
a) 1000
b) 400
c) 80
d) 40
9) The inverting comparator with positive feedback is called
a) Zero crossing detector
b) Inverting amplifier
c) Schmitt Trigger
d) Non-inverting amplifier
10) A multi-vibrator which has one stable state and one quasi stable state is
a) Astable Multi-vibrator
b) Monostable Multi-vibrator
c) Schmitt Trigger
d) Bistable Multi-vibrator
11) If certain op amp has closed loop gain 20 and upper critical frequency of 10 MHz
the gain bandwidth product is ___________
a) 200 MHz
b) 10 MHz
c) unity gain frequency
d) both b) and c)
12) In Monostable Multi-vibrator if R = 10K and pulse width is 10m Sec, the C will
be
a) 0.909 F
b) 0909nF
c) both a) and b
d) 0.09 F
13) Open loop gain of IC 741 rolls off at rate of ___________
a) 40dB/decade
b) 20dB/decade c) 30dB/decade

d) 20dB/octave

14) Which amplifier offers best immunity for induced noise signal ?
a) Differential amplifier
b) Non-Inverting amplifier
c) Common mode
d) Inverting amplifier
______________

Set A

*SLRKM417*

-3-

SLR-KM 417

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


(NEW-CGPA)
ANALOG ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015

Marks : 56

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Assume suitable data if required.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(44)

a) Explain the operation of shunt positive and shunt negative clipper circuit.
b) What is the current mirror ? Explain operation of current mirror circuit.
c) Explain working of class D power amplifier.
d) What is cascaded amplifier ? Draw its circuit diagram and explain its operation.
e) Explain working of full wave rectifier. Derive an expression for Average Output
Voltage.
3. Solve any two :

(26)

a) Compare Class A, B, C and D power amplifiers.


b) Draw structure of N channel depletion MOSFET. Explain its working with help of
drain characteristics and transfer characteristics.
c) Define stability factor S. Derive expression for stability factor S of voltage devider
bias circuit. Explain how it stabilizes the operating point.
Set A

SLR-KM 417

-4-

*SLRKM417*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(44)

a) Explain working of analog multiplier circuit.


b) Explain operation of Zero crossing detector circuit using op-amp.
c) Explain working of peak detector with suitable circuit diagram.
d) Draw a circuit diagram of non-inverting amplifier and derive an expression for voltage
gain.
e) Explain how op-amp can be used as a voltage to current converter.
5. Solve any two :

(26)

a) What is an operational amplifier ? Draw block diagram of op-amp. Describe its


various blocks.
b) With internal circuitry explain operation of Astable Multi-vibrator using IC555.
Derive an expression for output frequency. Draw associated waveforms.
c) Describe working of a op-amp as a integrator. Derive the output expression.
Sketch associated waveforms.
_________________

Set A

SLR-KM 418

*SLRKM418*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA)


Examination, 2015
ELECTRICAL POWER GENERATION
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicates maximum marks.
5) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 14

1. Choose the correct answer :

(141=14)

1) In francis turbine the number of blades is usually of the order of


A) 16 24
B) 8 10
C) 6 8
D) 3 6
2) Equipment used for pulverizing the coal is known as
A) Ball mill
B) Hopper
C) Burner

D) Stoker

3) In a thermal power plant, heat from the flue gases is recovered in


A) Chimney
B) De-super heater
C) Economizer
D) Condenser
4) A Pelton wheel is
A) Inward flow impulse turbine
C) Inward flow reaction turbine

B) Outward flow impulse turbine


D) Axial flow impulse turbine

5) The function of a moderator is to


A) Absorb the part of the Kinetic energy of the neutrons
B) Extract the heat
C) Reflect back some of the neutrons
D) Start the reactor
6) Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy ?
A) Tidal power
B) Geothermal energy
C) Nuclear energy
D) Wind power
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 418

*SLRKM418*

-2-

7) In boiler water reactor (BWR)


A) Enriched uranium is used as fuel
B) The feed water acts both coolant and a moderator
C) There is danger of radioactive contamination of steam
D) All of above
8) Most of the heat generated in internal combustion engine is lost in
A) Cooling water
B) Exhaust gases
C) Lubricating oil
D) Radiation
9) Geothermal energy is
A) A renewable energy resource
C) Inexhaustible energy source

B) Alternative energy source


D) Any of the above

10) Fuel cells are


A) Carbon cell
C) Nuclear cell

B) Hydrogen battery
D) Chromium cell

11) Solar cells are made of


A) Silicon
B) Germanium

C) Silver

D) Aluminum

12) Which of the following is not a part of diesel engine power plant ?
A) Cooling tower
B) Penstock
C) Oil pump
D) Strainer
13) In which of the following power plant the availability of power is least reliable ?
A) Solar power plant
B) Wind energy
C) Tidal power plant
D) Geothermal power plant
14) The ratio of average load to maximum demand is defined as
A) Demand factor
B) Load factor
C) Diversity factor
D) Maximum demand

______________

Set A

*SLRKM418*

-3-

SLR-KM 418

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA)


Examination, 2015
ELECTRICAL POWER GENERATION
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 56

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicates maximum marks.
3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any three :

(43=12)

1) Explain advanced gas cooled reactor with neat diagram.


2) Explain francis turbine with neat diagram.
3) Write a short note on present energy scenario.
4) Write a short note on nuclear fission.
5) Explain fuels and their handling in thermal power plant.
3. Solve any two :

(82=16)

1) Explain nuclear power plant with the help of block diagram.


2) With a neat diagram explain the single line diagram of typical AC power system.
3) Draw typical layout of thermal power plant and explain it briefly.
SECTION II
4. Solve any three :

(43=12)

1) Explain wind power plant with block diagram.


2) Explain the following :
a) Load factor
b) Plant capacity factor
3) Explain geothermal power plant with neat diagram.
4) State the applications of diesel power plant.

Set A

SLR-KM 418

*SLRKM418*

-4-

5) A power station has the following daily load cycle :


Time (hours)
Load (MW)

68

8 12

12 16

16 20

20 24

24 06

20

40

60

20

50

20

Plot the load curve also load duration curve calculate the energy generated per
day.
5. Solve any two :

(82=16)

1) Explain the working of diesel power plant with help of block diagram.
2) The load on a power plant on a typical day is as under
Time
Load (MW)

12 5 am

5 9 am

9 6 pm

6 pm 10 pm

10 pm 12 pm

20

40

80

100

20

Plot the chronological load curve and load duration curve find the load factor of
the plant and energy supplied in 24 hrs.
3) Define bio-gas and explain common circular fixed dome digester (China) with
neat diagram.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 419

*SLRKM419*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURES (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(120=20)
1) A recursive function would result in infinite recursion, if the following were left out
a) Base case
b) Recursive call
c) Substraction
d) None of above
2) In which queue smallest element of the queue is deleted first ?
a) Ascending priority queue
b) Descending priority queue
c) Circular queue
d) Simple queue
3) Complexity of merge sort algorithm is ________ ?
a) O(n)
b) O (log n)
c) O (n* 2)

d) O (n log n)

4) The key which is used in quick sort for sorting is called as


a) Composite key
b) Primary key
c) Pivot
d) None of these
5) Which of the following are tokens in C ?
a) Keywords
b) Variables
c) Constants
d) All above
6) To pass an entire array to a function, we have to pass
a) Only base address of array
b) Along with base address, number of elements in the array
c) Only number of elements of the array
d) Entire array cannot be passed to function
7) The position value 1 in Fseek function indicates
a) Beginning of file
b) Current position
c) End of file
d) None of these
8) Which one is the correct expression written in postfix ?
a) A + (B C*)
b) (AB+)*C
c) AB + C*

d) None of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 419

*SLRKM419*

-2-

9) Which of the following is the correct way of declaring float pointer ?


a) float ptr
b) float *ptr
c) *float ptr
d) none of these
10) If all the records to be sorted are kept internally in main memory, they can be
sorted using
a) internal sort
b) external sort
c) bubble sort
d) all
11) Divide the list into two roughly same sized list and sort them separately, will save
work; this sort is
a) Bubble sort
b) Selection sort c) Merge sort
d) Quick sort
12) Which of the following is not used in pointers ?
a) *
b) **
c) &

d) %

13) A function that transforms a key into a table index is called as


a) Hashing
b) Hash function c) Chain function d) Index function
14) How much memory is allocated for following declaration in C ? Float a[3][3] ?
a) 36 bytes
b) 9 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 18 bytes
15) What can be said about the array representation of circular queue when it contains
only one element ?
a) Front = Rear = NULL
c) Front = rear

b) Front = rear + 1
d) None

16) Memory allocated by Calloc () function contains


a) All 0
b) Garbage values
c) All 1
d) None of these
17) The size of a union is equal to the
a) Sum of size of its data member
c) Size of its smallest data member

b) Size of its largest data member


d) None of these

18) With the single fopen() function how many files we can open ?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) any number
19) I have implemented the queue with Linked List, keeping track of a front pointer
and a rear pointer. Which of these pointers will change during an insertion into an
EMPTY queue ?
a) Neither changes
b) Only front _ptr changes
c) Only rear_ptr changes
d) Both change
20) Which pair of functions below is used for single character I/O
a) gerchar() and putchar()
b) scanf() and printf()
c) input() and output()
d) none of these
______________

Set A

*SLRKM419*

-3-

SLR-KM 419

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


DATA STRUCTURES (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


SECTION I
2. Answer the following questions (any four) :

(45=20)

1) Define data structure ? What is ADT ?


2) Write a note on 2-Dimentioned array.
3) With example write how to access elements of array using pointer.
4) Explain properties of Structure in C.
5) Write a note on bitwise operator in C.
3. Solve any two of the following :

(210=20)

1) Explain call by value and call by reference with example.


2) List different operations on file. Explain the use with suitable example.
3) Write a note on STACK, operations on STACK with suitable example.
SECTION II
4. Write a note on any four :

(45=20)

a) Circular list.
b) Insertion sort.
c) Recursion.
d) Algorithm for merge sort.
e) Deletion of node from singly linked list.
5. Solve any two of the following :

(210=20)

1) Write a an algorithm to insert, delete a node from doubly linked list.


2) What is binary search ? Explain with example.
3) Explain hashing techniques in detail.

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 420

*SLR-KM-420*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


LINEAR ALGEBRA
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The system AX= B where A is a square matrix has a unique solution if


a) | A | = 1
b) | A | = 0
c) | A | 0
d) None of these
2) Given a scalar r the transformation T : IR2 IR2 defined by T(x) = rx, when 0 r 1
is called
a) Dilation
b) Contraction
c) Translation
d) None of these
3) Identity matrix is in
a) echelon form
c) both a) and b)

b) reduced echelon form


d) none of these

2
4) The eigen values of A = 0
0
a) 2, 0, 1

1 4
3 7 are
0 1

b) 0, 1, 3

c) 2, 1, 3

d) 1, 4, 7

5) Let A be a given matrix. The columns of A are linearly independent iff the equation
AX = 0 has
a) Non trivial solution b) Trivial solution c) No solution
d) None of these
6) If vector space V has a basis of n vectors then every basis of V must consist
a) Less than n vectors
b) 2n vectors
c) Greater than n vectors
d) exactly n vectors
7) State which of the following is false ?
a) 0 is an eigen value of A iff A is not invertible
b) Eigen value must be non zero
c) Eigen vector must be non zero
d) The eigen values of triangular matrix are the entries on its main diagonal
8) Let A be a square matrix. Then its characteristic equation is given by
a) | A I | = 0
b) | A | = 0
c) | A I | = 0
d) None of these

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 420

*SLR-KM-420*

-2-

4 2
5
0

is an eigen vector of 2
9)
2 2
5
a) 5
b) 3
10) The dimension of Nul A is
a) The number of columns in A b)
c) The number of rows in A
d)

1
1 . What is the corresponding eigen value ?
3
c) 5
d) 3
The number of basic variables in the equation AX = 0
The number of free variables in the equation AX = 0

11) If u = [3, 4, 6], v = [0, 1, 1] then u.v is


a) 15
b) 10

c) [0, 4, 6]

d) [6, 4, 0]

12) A quadratic form Q = XTAX is indefinite if


a) All eigen values are positive
b) All eigen values are negative
c) Some eigen values are positive and some are negative
d) None of these
13) If the two regression coefficients are a and b then coefficient of correlation r is
a)

a
b

b)

c) ab

ab

d)

b
a

14) If Cauchy-Riemann equation are satisfied by function then function is


a) Constant
b) Analytic
c) Non analytic
d) None of these
15) The coefficient of regression of y on x is equal to
a)

ry
x

b)

rx
y

c) xy

d)

1 x
r y

3
16) Let Q(x) = x12 8x1x 2 5x 22 , then for x = 1 Q(x) is equal to

a) 20
b) 28
c) 16

d) 20

17) An analytic function with constant modulus is


a) Analytic
b) Harmonic
c) Constant

d) None of these

1
is called
2
b) Inversion

18) The transformation w =


a) Translation

c) Rotation

z
dz where C is | z | = 1 is equal to
19)
C z+2
a) 2i
b) 2
c) i
az + b
will be Bilinear transformation provided
cz + d
a) ad bc = 0
b) ad bc 0
c) ad + bc = 0

d) None of these

d) 0

20) w=

d) ad + bc 0

______________
Set A

*SLR-KM-420*

-3-

SLR-KM 420

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


LINEAR ALGEBRA
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
4 3
2. a) LU factorize the matrix A = 4 5
8 6

5
7 .
8

1 3 4 7
b) Find the general solution of the system whose augmented matrix is given by 3 9 7 6 . 4

0 1 4
c) Determine it columns of matrix 1 2 1 are linearly independent.
4
5 8 0
3. a) Assume that matrix A is row equivalent to B. Find rank of A and dim Nul A. Also find bases
for Row A, Nul A and Col A.
8
2 3 6
A = 2 3 3
4 6 9
2 3 3

2 5
2 3
3 4
0 0
5 9 , B = 0 0
4 1
0 0

6 2 5
3 1 1
0 1 3
0 0 0

6
1
2
4
=

=
,
v
v
3
,
v
2
,
v
2
=

8 . Find a basis for the subspace W spanned by


1
2
3
4
b) Let
9
3
4
1

{ v 1, v 2 , v 3 , v 4 } .
4. a) Show that 7 is an eigen value of A = 1 6 .
5 2
b) Let b1 = 1, b 2 = 2, c1 = 7 , c 2 = 5 and consider the bases for IR2 given by
7
3
4
9
= { b1, b2} and = {c1, c2}. Find the change of co-ordinate matrix from to .
c) Find the general flow pattern for the figure

5
4

5
4

Set A

SLR-KM 420

-4-

0 .5 0 .6
5. a) For A = 0.75 1.1 . Find eigen values of A.

*SLR-KM-420*
3

b) Diagonalize the matrix if possible A = 3 1 .


1 5
c) With T defined by T(x) = Ax find a vector X whose image under T is b, where
1 0
A = 2 1
3 2

1
2
b
=
7 .
6,
5
3

SECTION II
6. a) Describe all least-square solutions of the system
x+y=2
x + y = 4.
b) Show that set of vectors u = (1, 2, 3, 4), v = (3, 4, 1, 2) , w = (3, 2, 1, 1) is orthogonal.

c) Let Q(x) = x12 + 2x 22 + 3x 23 + 2x1x 3 2x 3 x 2 + 2x1x 2 . Compute the value of Q(x) for
x = 3 , 2 and 1
1 2
3

1 1 3
7. a) Diagonalize the matrix A = 1 5 1 .
3 1 1

b) Find the two lines of regression and coefficient of correlation.


x:
2
4
6
8
12
14
y:
4
2
5
10
11
12

8. a) Find bilinear transformation which maps 1, 0, 1 onto 1, i, 1.


b) Determine the constants a, b, c, d if f(z) = x2 + 2axy + by2 + i (cx2 + 2dxy + y2) is
analytic.

4
5

5
4 / 3
, b = 3, c = 1 and d = 6 .
c) Let a = 2
1
1
1
2 / 3
i) Find a unit vector u in the direction of C.
ii) Show that d is orthogonal to C.

9. a) To find correlation coefficient of a bivariate data following results were obtained n = 25,
x = 125, y = 100, xy = 508, x2 = 650, y2 = 460. At the time of checking it was
found that two pair (x, y), (8, 12) and (6, 8) were wrongly recorded as (6, 14) and (8, 6).
Find the correct correlation.
b) Is Q(x) = 3x12 + 2x 22 + x 23 + 4x1x 2 + 4x 2 x 3 positive definite ?
c) Find the image of z =

1
2 5 4
+ i under the transformation w = .
z
9
9

7
3
3

_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM421*

SLR-KM 421

Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


A.C. MACHINES
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) The speed at which the rotating magnetic field produced by stator currents rotates
in an induction motor is
a) Synchronous speed
b) Rotor speed
c) Greater than synchronous speed
d) None of above
2) A 3-phase 50 Hz induction motor runs at speed of 940 RPM; the speed of the
rotating magnetic field will be
a) 940 RPM
b) 1000 RPM
c) 1050 RPM
d) 1100 RPM
3) The no-load speed of an induction motor is of the order of
a) 8%
b) 4%
c) 2%

d) 6%

4) The maximum torque in a 3-phase induction motor occurs at a slip


a) R2/X2
b) X2/R2
c) R22/X2
d) R22/X22
5) For high starting torque, the most 3-phase induction motor is
a) Squirrel-cage type
b) Slip-ring type
c) Deep bar squirrel-cage type
d) Double-cage induction motor
6) The starting torque in a single-phase induction motor is
a) High
b) Low
c) Zero

d) Very low

7) The transformation ratio of an induction motor can be found by


a) blocked rotor test
b) open circuit test
c) slip test
d) stator resistance test
8) A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase induction motor is basically a
a) ac series motor
b) dc series motor
c) 2 phase induction motor
d) 3 phase induction motor
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 421

-2-

*SLRKM421*

9) The starting capacitor of a single phase motor is


a) Electrolytic capacitor
b) Ceramic capacitor
c) Paper capacitor
d) None of the above
10) The number of turns in the starting winding of a capacitor start motor as compared
to that for split phase motor is
a) same
b) more
c) less
d) none of the above
11) In an alternator, voltage drops occurs in
a) armature resistance only
b) armature resistance and leakage reactance
c) armature resistance, leakage reactance and armature reaction
d) armature resistance, leakage reactance, armature reaction and earth
connections
12) The magnitude of various voltage drops that occur in an alternator, depends on
a) Power factor of the load
b) Load current
c) Power factor x load current
d) Power factor x (load current)2
13) The power factor of an alternator depends on
a) Load
b) Speed of rotor
c) Core losses
d) Armature losses
14) The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 8 poles and rotating
at 250 rpm is
a) 60 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 25 Hz
d) 16 2/3 Hz
15) An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at
a) unity power factor
b) leading power factor
c) lagging power factor
d) lagging to leading power factor
16) The maximum power developed in the synchronous motor will depend on
a) rotor excitation only
b) maximum value of coupling angle
c) supply voltage only
d) rotor excitation supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle
17) If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
a) lagging
b) leading
c) unity
d) none
18) A synchronous motor is switched on to supply with its field windings shorted on
themseleves. It will
a) not start
b) start and continue to run as an induction motor
c) start as induction motor and then run as a synchronous motor
d) start and run as synchronous motor
19) The armature current of a synchronous motor has large values for
a) low excitation only
b) high excitation only
c) both low and high excitation
d) depends on other factors
20) An over excited synchronous motor draws current at
a) lagging power factor
b) leading power factor
c) unity power factor
d) depends on the nature of load
______________

Set A

*SLRKM421*

-3-

SLR-KM 421

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


A.C. MACHINES
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Derive an equation for starting torque of three phase induction motor.


b) Explain the construction and working of a double cage induction motor in detail.
c) Explain in detail losses in an induction motor.
d) Explain the construction, working and applications of capacitor start induction motor.
e) A three phase induction motor is wound for 4 poles and is supplied from 50 Hz
system. Calculate i) synchronous speed ii) speed of motor when sleep is 4% and
iii) the rotor current frequency when the motor runs at 600 r.p.m.
f) A 3hp, 3-phase induction motor with full load efficiency and power factor of 0.83
and 0.8 respectively has a short circuit current of 3.5 times the full load current.
Estimate the line current at the instant of starting the motor from a 500 V supply by
means of a star delta switch. Ignore the magnetizing current.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) With the help of neat labelled diagram explain the torque slip characteristics of
three phase induction motor.
b) Explain the blocked rotor test for three phase induction motor.
c) A 400 V, 50 Hz, 3 phase, star connected, 4-pole induction motor has per phase
stator impedance Z1 = (0.07 + j0.3) and rotor impedance referred to stator side
Z2 = (0.8 + j0 .3) . The magnetizing reactance is 10 and resistance
representing core loss is 50 . Using approximate equivalent circuit, calculate
i) stator current ii) motor power factor iii) rotor current iv) torque developed
v) gross efficiency. Assume a slip of 4%.

Set A

SLR-KM 421

-4-

*SLRKM421*

SECTION II
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Write short note on damper winding and its working.


b) Explain in detail the distribution factor and pitch factor in case of an alternator.
c) With the help of neat diagram explain the parallel operation of alternators in detail.
d) Explain the working principle of synchronous motor in detail.
e) Calculate the distribution factor for a single phase alternator having 6 slots/pole
i) when all the slots are wound and ii) when only four adjacent slots per pole are
wound, the remaining slots being unwound.
f) A 3 phase, 16-pole synchronous generator has a star-delta connected winding
with 144 slots and 10 conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 0.03 Wb, sinusoidally
distributed and the speed is 375 rpm. Calculate i) frequency and ii) line induced
e.m.f.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) Explain in detail the armature reaction in case of an alternator.


b) Explain in brief the V-curves in case of synchronous motor.
c) A 2000 V, 3 phase, star connected motor has resistance and synchronous reactance
per phase of 0.2 and 1.9 respectively. Calculate the generated (back) e.m.f.
per phase with an input of 800 kW at p.f. 0.8 lagging.

Set A

SLR-KM 422

*SLRKM422*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS MEASUREMENT
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figure to the right indicates maximum marks.
5) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The sensitivity of a Wheatstone bride depends upon


a) Galvanometer current sensitivity
b) Galvanometer resistance
c) Bridge supply voltage
d) All of the above
2) The dimension of inductance in C.G.S.E.S. system is
a) [ L1T 2]
b) [ 1ML1T 2]
c) [

1 LT 2]

d) [

1L1 T 2]

3) The transformation ratio in case of potential transformers is


a) Primary winding voltage/secondary winding voltage
b) Rated primary winding voltage/rated secondary winding voltage
c) Number of turns of primary winding/number of turns of secondary winding
d) All of the above
4) In two watt meter method of power measurement, if one of the watt meter shows zero reading, then
it can be concluded that
a) Power factor is unity
b) Power factor is zero
c) Power factor is 0.5 lagging
d) Power factor is 0.5 leading
5) Which of the set of torques is provided in deflection galvanometer ?
a) Deflection and controlling
b) Controlling and damping
c) Deflecting and damping
d) Deflecting, controlling and damping
6) Kelvin double bridge is best suited for the measurement of
a) Inductance
b) Capacitance
c) Low resistance

d) High resistance C

7) When measuring power with an electrodynamometer wattmeter in a circuit where the load current is small
a) The current coil should be connected on load side
b) The pressure coil should be connected on load side
c) It is immaterial whether current coil or pressure coil is connected on the load side
d) None of the above
8) If an induction meter runs fast it can be slowed down by
a) Lag adjustment
b) Light load adjustment
c) By adjusting the position of breaking magnet and making in come closer to the center of disc.
d) By adjusting the position of breaking magnet and making it move away from center of disc.
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 422

*SLRKM422*

-2-

9) In order that A.C bridge is balanced when


a) I1 = I3 and I2 = I4
c) 1 + 4 = 2 + 3

b) Z1Z4 = Z2 Z3
d) All of the above

10) A dynamometer type wattmeter responds to the


a) Average value of the active power
b) Average value of the reactive power
c) Peak value of the active power
d) Peak value of the reactive power
11) A thermocouple
a) Gets warm when dc flows through it
c) Generates ac when heated

b) Is a thin, straight, special wire


d) Generates dc when exposed to visible light

12) The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is
a) An incremental encoder
b) An absolute encoder
c) LVDT
d) A strain gauge
13) A hot-wire ammeter
a) Can measure ac as well as dc
c) Can indicate very low voltages

b) Registers current changes very fast


d) Measures electrical energy

14) An oscilloscope cannot be used to indicate


a) Frequency
b) Peak signal voltage

c) Energy

d) Wave shape

15) An acqadag is used in a CRO to collect


a) Primary electrons
b) Secondary emission electrons
c) Both Primary electrons and secondary emission electrons
d) None of the above
16) Which of the following A/D converter is used in DSO ?
a) Ramp type
b) Successive approximation type
c) Dual slope type
d) Parallel type
17) A phase sequence indicator rotates clockwise for phase sequence of RYB. If the phase sequence
is changed to RBY it will rotate
a) Clockwise
b) Anticlockwise
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
18) A true rms reading voltmeter uses two thermocouple in order
a) To increase sensitivity
b) That second thermocouple cancels out non-linear effect of first thermocouple
c) To prevent drift in dc amplifier
d) All of these
19) The accuracy of a measuring instrument is determined by
a) Closeness of the value indicated by it to the correct value of measured
b) Repeatability of measured value
c) Speed with which the instruments reading approaches the final value
d) Least change in the value of measured that could be detected by instrument
20) X-Y recorders
a) Records one quantity with respect to another quantity
b) Record one quantity on X-axis with respect to time on Y-axis
c) Record one quantity on Y-axis with respect to time on X-axis
d) None of the above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM422*

-3-

SLR-KM 422

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS MEASUREMENT
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figure to the right indicates maximum marks.
3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Derive the expression for current through galvanometer in a Wheatstones bridge for small unbalance.
2) A milliammeter if 2.5 resistance reads up to 100 milliampere. Calculate the resistance which is
necessary to enable it to be used as
a) An voltmeter reading up to 10 V
b) An ammeter reading up to 10 A.
3) Explain Hays bridge for the measurement of unknown inductance and also draw its phasor diagram.
4) Explain measurement of power in 1 circuit by using 3 ammeter method.
5) Explain construction and operation of PMMC type instrument.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) Explain construction and working of 1 induction energy meter with neat diagram.
2) Explain different types of damping methods used in instruments.
3) Derive the dimensions of :
a) E.M.F.
b) Magnetic flux density
c) Electric flux density
d) Current density
e) Permeability
f) Permittivity
g) Resistivity
h) Conductivity
In L.M, T, I system of dimensions.

Set A

SLR-KM 422

-4-

*SLRKM422*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Explain working of true rms reading voltmeter with neat diagram.


2) Explain construction and operation of Weston frequency meter with neat diagram.
3) Explain LED display with diagram also states its advantages.
4) Explain with neat sketch X-Y recorder also state its advantages and disadvantages.
5) Explain electrical pressure transducer with neat diagram.
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) Explain construction and working of LVDT also state its advantages and disadvantages.
2) Explain construction and operation of duel trace oscilloscope.
3) Explain different types of phase sequence indicator with neat diagram.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 423

*SLRKM423*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B.: 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Symbols used have their usual meanings.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

i) y (n) = x (n 2) x (n + 2 ) is a
a) Static

b) Dynamic

c) Causal

ii) x(t) * y (t) = y (t) * x (t) is ___________ property of convolution.


a) distributive
b) associative
c) commutative

d) Non causal signal


d) none

iii) Adding even and odd parts of signal, we get


a) Infinite signal

b) Original signal

c) Complex signal

d) Half signal

iv) A system is stable if the integral of h(t) is


a) <

b) < 0

c) >

d) > 0

c) Unit step signal

d) Unit signal

v) Integral of unit impulse signal gives


a) Ramp signal

b) Impulse signal

vi) In Fourier series, an provides


a) DC component
c) Sine component

b) Cosine component
d) None

vii) Z transform of unit impulse is


a) 0
viii)

b) 1

c) z

d) z/1+ z

c) impulse signal

d) finite signal

z
is the z transform of
z 1
a) unit signal

b) unit step signal

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 423

*SLRKM423*

-2-

ix) x ( n) on z transform gives


a) x (1/z)

b) x ( z)

c) x (z)

d) x ( z)

x) If m (t) = 5 sin 100 t 3 cos 450 t is to be sampled, then Fs will be


a) 100 Hz

b) 50 Hz

c) 450 Hz

d) 225 Hz

xi) Transform converting time to frequency domain is


a) Wavelet

b) Inverse z

c) Fourier

d) Inverse Fourier

xii) Aliasing effect can be avoided by


b) fs fin
c) fs 2 fin
a) fs 2 fin
xiii) A system dependent on past and present values of inputs is
a) Static

b) Dynamic

c) Causal

d) fs fin
d) Shift variant

xiv) Ramp signal on differentiating gives


a) Ramp signal

b) Unit step signal

c) Unit impulse

d) Finite signal

xv) An odd signal can be defined as


a) m (t) = m (t)

b) m (t) = m (t)

c) m(t) = m (t)

d) m (t) = m ( t)

xvi) The block smoothening the recovered signal is


a) Interpolator

b) Zero order hold

c) Low Pass filter

d) Sampler

xvii) If x ( t + ) = x (t) , signal x (t) is


a) Periodic

b) Aperiodic

c) Linear

d) Causal

xviii) A single pole outside unit circle in z plane is


a) Growing sequence

b) Decaying sequence

c) Constant sequence

d) Signed decaying sequence

xix) An unit step signal is defined with unit amplitude for


b) t 0
c) t = 0
a) t 0
xx) By applying unit step signal as input, we get
a) Impulse response

b) Step response

c) Convolution

d) Fourier transform

d) t

______________

Set A

*SLRKM423*

-3-

SLR-KM 423

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 80

N.B : i) All questions are compulsory.


ii) Symbols used have their usual meanings.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(46= 24)

1) Check for linearity if y (n) = x (n) .x (n 1).


2) Explain system realisation through block diagram representation.
3) Explain types of signals with sketch and their equations.
4) Justify with reason for causality if
a) y (n) = x (n) + 3 x ( n 1)
b) y (t) = x (t +1)
5) Explain Parsevals theorem with its proof.
3. Solve any two :

(28=16)

i) Find the convolution sum if


y ( n) = 4

0 n 2

= 0 elsewhere

&

x(n) = 2 2 n 2
= 0 elsewhere

ii) Explain Eigen functions, its basis and ROC of LSI system.
iii) If

y(t) = t
=0

and x(t) = 1
=0

for 0 t 2
elsewhere
for 0 t 1
elsewhere

Find the convolution integral and sketch output sequence.

Set A

SLR-KM 423

-4-

*SLRKM423*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(46= 24)

a) State and explain sampling theorem. What do you mean by aliasing effect ?
b) Find Fourier transform if m (t) = eat u (t).
c) Find z transform and sketch ROC if x(n) = 2n. u (n) + 3n. u ( n 1).
d) Derive the scaling property of z transform.
e) Explain the interpolation process with necessary components and use.
5. Attempt any two :

(28= 16)

I) An analog signal m (t) = 2 sin 480 t + 3 sin 720 t is sampled with 600 samples per
second. Show that given frequency is not suitable for sampling.
II) Prove that convolution in time domain is equivalent with multiplication in frequency
domain.
III) Write note on applications of signals and systems in different fields.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 424

*SLR-KM-424*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
4) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
20

1) Which of the following expressions is in the Sum-Of-Products (SOP) form ?


A) (A + B) (C + D)
B) (A)B (CD)
C) AB (CD)
D) AB + CD
2) Determine the values of A, B, C and D that make the product term A B C D equal to 1.
A) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0, D = 1
B) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0, D = 1
C) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1, D = 1
D) A = 0, B = 0, C = 1, D = 0
3) The NAND or NOR gates are referred to as universal gates because either
A) Can be found in almost all digital circuits B) Can be used to build all the other types of gates
C) Are used in all countries of the world
D) Were the first gates to be integrated
4) Applying DeMorgans theorem to the expression A + B + C + D , we get
A) A B C D

B) A + B + C + D C) A + B + C + D D) A + B + C + D

5) The output of an exclusive-NOR gate is 1. Which input combination is correct ?


A) A = 1, B = 0
B) A = 0, B = 1
C) A = 0, B = 0
D) none of the above
6) Implementing the expression AB + CDE using NAND logic, we get :

A) (A)

B) (B)

C) (C)

D) (D)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 424

*SLR-KM-424*

-2-

7) A logic circuit with an output X = A BC + A B consists of __________


A) Two AND gates, two OR gates, two inverters
B) Three AND gates, two OR gates, one inverter
C) Two AND gates, one OR gate, two inverters
D) Two AND gates, one OR gate
8) How is a J-K flip-flop made to toggle ?
A) J = 0, K = 0
B) J = 1, K = 0
9) How many flip-flops are in the 7475 IC ?
A) 1
B) 2
10) What is another name for a one-shot ?
A) Monostable
B) Multivibrator

C) J = 0, K = 1

D) J = 1, K = 1

C) 4

D) 8

C) Bistable

D) Astable

11) A 4-bit shift register that receives 4 bits of parallel data will shift to the ____________ by
____________ position(s) for each clock pulse.
A) right, one
B) right, two
C) left, one
D) left, three
12) Convert the following binary number to octal.
0101111002
A) 1728
B) 2728
C) 1748
13) Which is typically the longest : bit, byte, nibble, word ?
A) Bit
B) Byte
C) Nibble

D) 2748
D) Word

14) A serial in/parallel out, 4-bit shift register initially contains all 1s. The data nibble 0111 is
waiting to enter. After four clock pulses, the register contains _________
A) 0000
B) 1111
C) 0111
D) 1000
15) One hex digit is sometimes referred to as a(n)
A) byte
B) nibble
C) grouping

D) instruction

16) How many clock pulses will be required to completely load serially a 5-bit shift register ?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
17) On the third clock pulse, a 4-bit Johnson sequence is Q0 = 1, Q1 = 1, Q2 = 1, and Q3 = 0.
On the fourth clock pulse, the sequence is ____________
A) Q0 = 1, Q1 = 1, Q2 = 1, Q3 = 1
B) Q0 = 1, Q1 = 1, Q2 = 0, Q3 = 0
C) Q0 = 1, Q1 = 0, Q2 = 0, Q3 = 0
D) Q0 = 0, Q1 = 0, Q2 = 0, Q3 = 0
18) If an active-High S-R latch has a 0 on the S input and a 1 on the R input and then the R
input goes to 0, the latch will be _________
A) SET
B) RESET
C) Clear
D) Invalid
19) Which statement below best describes a Karnaugh map ?
A) A Karnaugh map can be used to replace Boolean rules
B) The Karnaugh map eliminates the need for using NAND and NOR gates
C) Variable complements can be eliminated by using Karnaugh maps
D) Karnaugh maps provide a cookbook approach to simplifying Boolean expressions
20) Derive the Boolean expression for the logic circuit shown below

A) CA + CB + CD

C) C(A + B) + D
B) C(A + B) D
______________

D) CA + CB + D
Set A

*SLR-KM-424*

-3-

SLR-KM 424

Seat
No.

S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain the following :


i) SOP

ii) POS.

b) Convert the following :


i) Convert (1010110101)2 into Octal and Hexadecimal number
ii) Convert the (5BE)16 into Octal and binary number.
c) Design and explain full adder system.
d) Explain 2 Transistor TTL in detail.
e) Explain 2-Bit Comparator.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Implement following using


i) 16 :1 multiplexer for F(A, B, C, D) = m (0, 2, 3, 6, 8, 9, 12, 14)
ii) 8 : 1 multiplexer for F (A, B, C, D) = m (0, 1, 3, 4, 8, 9, 15)
b) Define the following :
i) Noise margin
ii) Power dissipation
iii) Voltage parameter
iv) Current parameter
c) Explain concept of K-map, Maxterm, Minterm and simplify following using K-Map
F(A, B, C, D) = m (1, 3, 5, 7, 11, 15) + d (0, 2, 4).

Set A

SLR-KM 424

-4-

*SLR-KM-424*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain the concept of 1-Bit Latch.


b) Explain J-K Flip Flop.
c) Explain Johnson counter
d) Explain 4 bit up down counter
e) Explain Bidirectional shift register.
6. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain Master Salve Flip Flop with timing diagrams.


b) Design Mod 7 counter using IC 7490 and explain in detail.
c) Explain 4 bit ripple counter using Flip Flop and differentiate asynchronous and synchronous
counter.
_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 425

*SLRKM425*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGG.
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) The coordinate system used for spherical coordinates are ________
b) P (r, , )
c) P (r, , )
d) P (r, z, )
a) P(r, , z)
2) The unit of Electric field intensity E is
a) N/C
b) V/m
c) J/cm
d) All of these
2
3) If v = 2, then v = ____
a) x2
b) x2 + y + z
c) x2 + y2 + z2
d) Both a and b
4) The dipole moment is given by P = ______
a) Qd2 (c m2)
b) Qd (c m)
c) Q/d (c/m)
d) None of these
5) In cylindrical coordinate system D = ________
D + Dz
a) 1r r (rDr) + 1r
z
b)

(Dr) + D
1
+ Dz
2
z
r

c)

(Dr) + 1 D + Dz
1
r sin r

z
r2

d)

1 (r Dr) + 1 D + Dz
r
z
r 3 r

6) 2 v = 0 is ________
a) Amperes law
c) Faradays law

b) Laplace eqn.
d) Gauss law
P.T.O.

SLR- KM 425

*SLRKM425*

-2-

7) Capacitance C of parallel plate capacitor is ________


a) A

b) d A

c) Ad

d) A d

8) If current density J = IA / m2 and the area of cross-section is 1 mm2, then current is


a) 1 mA
b) 1 A
c) 1 nA
d) 1A
9) Point form of Ohms Law is ______
a) J = 6E
b) E = J6
c) E = 6
d) E = J
J
10) Three point charges Q1 = 10 nc, Q2 = 20 nc and Q3 = 5 nc are enclosed by
surface S. The flux corssing surface S is ____
a) 15 nc
b) 20 nc
c) 25 nc
d) 30 nc
11) A field can exist if it satisfies _______
a) Gauss law
b) Faradays law
c) Coulombs law
d) All Maxwells equation
12) If Electric field intensity E = 2 v/m of a wave in free space then Magnetic field
intensity H is ______
a) 1/60 pi A/m
b) 60 pi A/m
c) 120 pi A/m
d) 240 pi A/m
13) The magnetic field in an ideal conductor is ______
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite
d) Same as outside field
14) The unit of scalar magnetic potential is _______
a) Ampere
b) Volt
c) Ampere/Meter d) Volt/Meter
15) Across the boundary between two magnetic media
b) Ht remains unchanged
a) Hn remains unchanged
c) Bn remains unchanged
d) Bt remains unchanged
16) Maxwells equations give relation between _____
a) Different fields
b) Different source
c) Different boundary conditions
d) None of above
17) Average power in lossless medium is given as
a) RE (E H)

b) 12 RE (E B)

c) 12 RE (E H)

d) None of above

18) In uniform plain wave ______ remain constant.


a) Phase
b) Amplitude
c) both a and b

d) None of above

19) For time varying field Maxwells equation derived from Gausss law (Electric) is
a) B =

b) D =

20) Free space equation also valid for


a) Good conductor
c) Time varying field

c) B =

d) D = 0

b) Good dielectric
d) None of above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM425*

SLR- KM 425

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGG.
Day and Date : Thursday, 3-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

a) Find the force between the proton and electron in an hydrogen atom if the distance
between them is IA (IA = 1010m). Also find the gravitational force between the
two given G = (6.673 1011). Compare the magnitudes of Couloumbs force and
Newtons force.
b) On the line described by x = 2 m, y = 4m, there is a uniform line charge distribution
of density l = 20 nc/m . Determine the electric field at (2, 1, 4) m.
c) Let V = 2xy2z3 and = 0 . Given point P (1, 3, 1). Find V at point P. Also find V
satisfies Laplaces equation.
d) Prove that the potential energy stored in the system of discrete charges is
n

WE = 1 QiVi
2 i =1
e) In case of a parallel plate capacitor show that C = A

with usual notations.

f) State and prove Gauss Law.


3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

a) State and prove divergence theorem.


b) Explain the physical significance of Gradient Divergence and curl. Also explain
solenoidal irrotational and conservative fields with neat sketches.
c) Derive the boundary conditions for E & D at the interface between two dielectrics.

Set A

SLR- KM 425

-4-

*SLRKM425*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Find magnetic field intensity on the axis of circular loop placed in X-Y plane centered
at origin.
2) Flux lines are received at an iron boundary at the following angle from normal on
the iron side of the boundary 0, 45, 80. If iron has relative permeability of 350,
determine the angle from the normal with which the flux emerges into air.
3) Find curl of F if F = (x + 2y) ax 3z ay + x az.
4) Derive the Maxwells equation in point and integral form from Gauss Law.
5) What is conduction current density and displacement Current density ?
5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Derive wave equation for free space and prove that EM wave propagate in free
space with the speed of velocity of light.
2) Evaluate both sides of Stokes theorem for the field H = 6xy ax 3y2 ay A/M and
rectangular around the region 2 < x < 5 1 y 1 z = 0 let positive direction of ds
be az.
3) Derive Maxwells equations in point form and integral form for harmonically varying
fields. Write its word statement.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 426

*SLRKM426*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) A video frequency oscillator has frequency range of


a) 20 Hz to 20 KHz
b) 20 KHz to 30 MHz
c) DC to 5 MHz
d) 2 MHz to 30 MHz
2) A triangular wave shape is obtained by
a) Integrating square wave
b) Differentiating square wave
c) Differentiating sine wave
d) Integrating sine wave
3) Vertical amplifier for a CRO can be designed for
a) only a high gain
b) only a broad bandwidth
c) a constant gain times bandwidth product
d) all above
4) Period measurement is done in frequency meters for achieving high accuracy in
the case of
a) high frequencies
b) medium frequencies
c) d.c.
d) low frequencies
5) Unit of deflection sensitivity of CRO is
a) v/mm
b) meter/volt

c) mm/milivolt

d) mm/volt

6) Filters that transmit all frequencies below a defined cut off frequency are known as
a) low-pass filters b) high-pass filters c) band-pass filters d) any of above
7) Bandwidth, a frequency domain concept, is indicative of
a) rise time in time domain
b) settling time in time domain
c) steady state error in the domain
d) any of above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 426

*SLRKM426*

-2-

8) The advantages of F.M. magnetic tape recording are


a) it can record from d.c. to several kHz
b) it is free from drop out effect
c) it is independent of amplitude variations and accurately reproduces the waveform
of input signal
d) all of above
9) A nixie tubes require
a) 150 V 220 V
b) 100 V 150 V c) 150 mV 220 mV d) 100 mV 150 mV
10) A set of reading has wide range and thereforeit has
a) low precision
b) high precision c) low accuracy

d) high accuracy

11) FM systems operate at 1. The measurand is


a) output
b) measured variable
c) secondary signal
d) any above
12) The input resistant of a CRO is of order of
a) Tens of
b) Mega
c) K

d) Fraction of

13) Uncertainty distribution is used for


a) analysis of multisample data
b) analysis of single sample data
c) analysis of both single and multi sample data
d) none of above
14) Which of following errors can arise as a result of mistakes reading, improper
instrument location and inadequate lighting ?
a) construction error
b) transmission error
c) observation error
d) translation error
15) A buffer amplifier has gain of
a) infinity
c) unity

b) zero
d) dependent upon Circuit Parameter

16) Tachometers are used to measure


a) displacement
b) angular velocity

c) vibration

d) time

17) The essential element of an electronic instrument are


a) transducer
b) signal conditioner c) indicating device
18) The current sensitivity of a meter is expressed in
a) ampere
b) ohm/ampere
c) ohm/volt

d) all of above

d) ampere/division

19) The main difference between the electrical and electronics instrument is that an
electronic instrument contains
a) an electronic device
b) transducer
c) digital read out
d) electrons
20) The Darsonval meter can be converted into an audio frequency ac ammeter by
adding a __________ to it.
a) Thermocouple b) Rectifier
c) Chopper
d) Transducer

______________
Set A

*SLRKM426*

-3-

SLR-KM 426

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES
Day and Date : Saturday, 5-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Draw and explain diode bridge modulator.
2) Derive equations for basic low pass Butterworth filter.
3) Draw block diagram of instrumentation system and explain function of each block.
4) Explain with neat diagram working of sample and hold circuit.
5) Draw and explain instrumentation amplifier in detail.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) With neat diagram explain programmable gain amplifier. Also derive the expression
for gain.
2) Explain in detail Data Acquisition System.
3) Explain function of active filters. Draw the neat diagram of high pass butterworth
filter and explain its function.

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
a) List the advantages and disadvantages of landline telemetry system.
b) Explain role of PLC in automation.
c) Explain about segment displays.
d) Explain position telemetry system.
e) Explain with block diagram X-Y recorders.

(54=20)

5. Solve any two :


a) Define telemetry. Explain current and voltage telemetry.
b) Explain architecture of PLC with neat diagram.
c) Explain about Harmonic distortion analyser and spectrum analyser.

(102=20)

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 427

*SLRKM427*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose correct option :
1) How many flag bits are there in 8085 ?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
2) SIM instruction is executed in
a) 2MC with 9T
b) 1MC with 6T
c) 1MC with 4T
d) None
3) INTR : it implies the _________ signal :
a) INTRRUPT REQUEST
b) INTRRUPT RIGHT
c) INTRRUPT WRONG
d) INTRRUPT RESET
4) The first microprocessor built by the Intel Corporation was called
a) 8008
b) 8080
c) 4004
d) 8800
5) After Reset operation, the content of program counter register in 8085
microprocessor is __________
a) Any random value
b) 8000H
c) 0000H
d) FFFF H

Marks : 20
(201= 20)

6) An 8085 microprocessor based system uses 8K 8 RAM whose starting address


is 4800H . The address of last memory location is
a) 67FF H
b) 57FF H
c) 5800 H
d) 6800 H
7) After the execution of set of instructions, the content of A is
LXI SP, 8050 H
MVI B, 0F H
MVI C, 00H
PUSH B
POP PSW
a) 00 H
b) same as B content
c) 80H
d) Not possible to specify
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 427

*SLRKM427*

-2-

8) Stack pointer register in a microprocessor


a) Counts the number of programs being executed in MPU
b) Counts the number of instructions being executed in MPU
c) Keep the address of next instructions to be fetched
d) Holds the address of top to stack
9) If memory chip size is 1024 4 bits then how many chips are required to make
16K byte memory ?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 16
d) 32
10) The interrupt vector address for TRAP is
a) 0000H
b) 0024H
c) 0018H

d) 002C

11) The advantage of using dual slope ADC in a digital voltmeter is that
a) its conversion time is small
b) its accuracy is high
c) it gives output in BCD format
d) it does not require comparator
12) The number of comparator circuits required to build 3-bit simultaneously A/D
converter is
a) 7
b) 8
c) 15
d) 16
13) ADC 0808 is having
a) 30 pin package b) 14 pin package c) 28 pin package d) None
14) The control word for 8255 to configure all ports as output in mode 0 is
a) 20H
b) 60H
c) 88H
d) None
15) Synchronous baud rate for 8251 is
a) DC to 8K
b) DC-16K

c) DC-64K

d) DC-128K

16) Which of the following port of 8255 is used in BSR mode


a) Port A
b) Port B
c) Port C only
d) Port A and Port C
17) Programmable one shot mode of 8253 is
a) mode 0
b) mode 2
c) mode 3
18) RS 232 interface is
a) Parallel interface
c) Pointer interface

d) mode 1

b) Serial interface
d) None

19) The delay provided by 8253 is a function of


a) count value only
b) count value and 8085 clock
c) count value and 8253 clock
d) both b) and c)
20) In frequency measurement using SID line the output voltage is reduced to
a) 5V
b) 6V
c) 7V
d) 8V
______________

Set A

*SLRKM427*

-3-

SLR-KM 427

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 8-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Draw and explain timing diagram for MVI B, 05H.
2) Write an ALP to execute square of a number using look up table method while
main program is running.
3) Explain basic memory cell of EPROM.
4) Differentiate between I/O mapped I/O and memory mappped I/O.
5) Explain the different addressing modes of 8085 with examples.
3. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Draw and explain the architecture of 8085 in detail.


2) What is an interrupt ? With internal block diagram explain interrupt structure of
8085. State the vector address and triggering levels of all interrupts.
3) Explain with suitable timing diagram basic machine cycles of 8085 microprocess.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain the following terms with DAC : Monotonicity, Resolution, Settling time,
Slew rate, Accuracy.
2) Describe the features of 8255 PPI.
3) With suitable timing diagram explain Mode 3 of timer counter IC 8253/54.
4) Describe the mode word format of USART 8251 in Asynchronous and synchronous
modes
5) Draw and explain microprocessor based scheme for temperature measurement.

Set A

SLR-KM 427

*SLRKM427*

-4-

5. Attempt any two :

(210=20)

1) Write a program segment to configure the timers in 8254 as shown below


Assume Timer 0 address is 60H
I Timer0 : Mode2, counting in decimal, load 16 bit value, load 8 bit value
II Timer1 : Mode0, counting in hexadecimal, load 8 bit value
III Timer2 : Mode4, counting in decimal, load 16 bit value
2) Interface DAC 0808 in memory mapped I/O explain the interfacing circuit. Write
and ALP to generate
i) Sawtooth wave

ii) Ramp wave

3) Explain IC 8251 by considering the following parameters


a) Features
b) Internal block diagram
c) Control word format.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 428

*SLRKM428*
S

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I)


Examination, 2015
ELEMENTS OF POWER SYSTEM
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) In the following type of conductors the corona is minimum
a) circular
b) stranded
c) helical
d) rectangular
2) The fact that conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core is known as
a) Skin effect
b) Corona
c) Permeability
d) Unsymmetrical fault
3) In a lightly loaded transmission line of such a length that the capacitive reactance is appreciable,
the receiving end voltage
a) Is always less than the sending end voltage b) May exceed the sending end voltage
c) Is always equal to the sending end voltage d) None of these
4) Which type of insulators is used on 132 kv transmission lines ?
a) pin type
b) disc type
c) shackle type d) pin and shackle type
5) In a string of suspension insulators, the voltage distribution across the different units of a
string could be made uniform by the use of a grading ring, because it
a) forms capacitances with link-pins to carry the charging current from link pins
b) forms capacitances which help to cancel the charging current from link pins
c) increases the capacitances of lower insulator units of cause equal voltage drop
d) decreases the capacitance of upper insulators units to cause equal voltage drop
6) For a 500 Hz frequency excitation, a 50 km long power line will be modeled as
a) short line
b) medium line
c) long line
d) data insufficient decision
7) Bundled conductors are employed to
a) reduce the short circuit current
c) decreases system stability

b) improve system stability


d) increase the short circuit current

8) Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?


a) 6.6 kV
b) 9.9 kV
c) 11 kV
d) 13.2 kV
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 428

-2-

*SLRKM428*

9) Transmission efficiency increases as


a) voltage and power factor both increase
b) voltage and power factor both decrease
c) voltage increases but power factor decreases
d) voltage decreases but power factor increases
10) In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length
of line is less than
a) 200 km
b) 160 km
c) 100 km
d) 80 km
11) Which of the following system is incorrect ?
a) As the temperature rises the tension in the transmission line decreases
b) As temperature rises the sag in transmission lines reduces
c) Tension and sag in transmission lines are complementary to each other
d) None of these
12) Describe the functions of line insulators.
a) Mechanically support line conductors
b) Electrically isolates line conductors from ground
c) Mechanically support line conductors as well as electrically isolates line conductors
from ground
d) Strength line conductors
13) In low power factor the voltage regulation of a generator will be
a) higher
b) lower
c) unchanged
d) none of these
14) Steel poles for transmission lines need protection against
a) termites
b) borer
c) corrosion
d) all of the above
15) In terms of constants A, B, C and D for short transmission lines, which of the following
relation is valid ?
a) A = B = 1
b) B = D = 0
c) A = C = 1
d) C = 0
16) The sag of a transmission line is least affected by
a) self weight of conductors
b) temperature of surrounding air
c) current through conductor
d) ice deposited on conductor
17) If the height of transmission towers is increased, which of the following parameters is
likely to change ?
a) Resistance
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance d) None of the above
18) Tap changing transformers are used for
a) stepping up the voltage
b) stepping down the voltage
c) both stepping up and stepping down the voltage
d) supplying low voltage current for instruments
19) Which distribution system is more reliable ?
a) Ring main system
b) Tree system
c) Radial system
d) All are equally reliable
20) The main advantage of a.c. transmission system over d.c. transmission system is
a) Easy transformation
b) Less losses in transmission over long distances
c) Less insulation problems
d) Less problem of instability
_____________________

Set A

*SLRKM428*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 428

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I)


Examination, 2015
ELEMENTS OF POWER SYSTEM
Day and Date : Thursday, 10-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.


2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of following :

(54=20)

1) Explain suspension type insulator with neat diagram.


2) What is bundled conductor ? What are the types of conductor ?
3) Explain the influence of voltage on cost and efficiency.
4) Write a note on Vibrations and Dampers.
5) A 132 KV transmission line has following data :
Weight of conductor = 680 kg/km

Length of span = 260 m

Ultimate strength = 3100 kg

Safely factor = 2

Calculate the height above ground at which the conductor should be supported.
Ground clearance required is 10 meters.
3. Attempt any two of following :

(102=20)

1) Explain the methods of reducing corona effect.


2) Explain Inductance of 3 phase overhead line in two cases
i) Symmetrical Spacing
ii) Asymmetrical Spacing.
3) What is Sag ? Explain the calculation of SAG at equal levels and unequal levels.

Set A

SLR-KM 428

-4-

*SLRKM428*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of following :

(54=20)

1) What is transposition of conductor ? Why it is necessary ?


2) Determine generalized constants of transmission line. (ABCD)
3) Derive an expression for insulation resistance of single core cable.
4) Explain oil-filled cables with neat diagram.
5) Discuss the disadvantages of low power factor. Explain the causes of low power factor.
5. Attempt any two of following :

(102=20)

1) Discuss the various methods for power factor improvement.


2) Prove that gmax/gmin in a single core cable is equal to D/d.
3) Derive an expression for sending end and receiving end voltage and current for long
transmission line.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 429

*SLRKM429*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEM I
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
4) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) A good control system has all the following features except


a) good stability
b) slow response
c) good accuracy
d) sufficient power handling capacity
2) A .C. servomotor resembles
a) two phase induction motor
c) direct current series motor

b) three phase induction motor


d) universal motor

3) The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to


a) momentum
b) velocity
c) displacement

d) mass

4) The type 2 system has ______________ at the origin.


a) no net pole
b) net pole
c) simple pole

d) two pole

5) For the system of the given figure, the damping ratio of closed loop poles is

a) 1.5

b) 1

c) 0.5

d) 0.25

6) Static error co-efficient are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems
for specified _______________ input signal.
a) acceleration
b) velocity
c) position
d) all of the above
7) If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
a) oscillatory
b) critically damped
c) overdamped
d) underdamped
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 429

*SLRKM429*

-2-

8) Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagrams ?


a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
b) The bandwidth of the system
c) The response of a system to a step input
d) The frequency response of a system
9) The effect of error damping is to
a) provide larger settling lime
c) reduce steady state error

b) delay the response


d) any of the above

10) In root locus a centroid is a point where


a) there is a breakaway point
b) the root locus intersects the imaginary axis
c) all the asymptotes meet
d) none of the above
11) If a system has some poles lying on the imaginary axis, it is
a) Absolutely stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally stable
d) Marginally stable
12) The characteristic polynomial of a system is Q (s) = 2s5 + s4 + 4s3 + 2s2 + 2s + 1. The
system is
a) stable
b) marginally stable c) unstable
d) oscillatory
13) The time taken by the system output to reach its 50% of final value is
a) Delay time
b) Rise time
c) Peak time
d) Settling time
14) In a system zero initial condition means that
a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of it components
b) The system is working with zero stored energy
c) The system is working with zero reference signal
d) None of the above
15) Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?
a) Frequency response
b) Absolute stability
c) Relative stability
d) Time response
16) Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit
_________ function.
a) parabolic
b) ramp
c) impulse
d) step
17) In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ?
a) Low-level oscillations
b) High-level oscillations
c) Conditional stability
d) Overdamping
18) In case of type 1 system steady state acceleration is
a) unity
b) infinity
c) zero

d) 10

19) Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tacho-generator ?


a) Acceleration
b) Speed
c) Speed and acceleration
d) Displacement
20) The transient response, with feedback system
a) rises slowly
b) rises quickly
c) decays slowly
______________

d) decays quickly

Set A

*SLRKM429*

SLR-KM 429

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEM I
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.


2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
SECTION I
2. Answer the following (any 4) :

20

a) Compare open loop and closed loop system


b) Derive the transfer function I2 (s)/V(s) for the given fig.
R2

R1

V (t)

i1 (t)

i2 (t)

c) Obtain transfer function by Masons Gain formula.

G5
R (s)

G1

G2

G3

G4

C (s)

H1
H2
d) Explain the transient response specification with diagram.
e) Consider rotation system shown in following fig.
J = Moment of Inertia
B = Friction of constant
K = Torsional spring constant

Set A

SLR-KM 429

*SLRKM429*

-4-

And disc subjected to torque T(t) as shown. Draw its analogous network based on F-V
analogy.

(t) T(t)

3. Answer the following (any 2) :

20

a) Sketch the complete root locus for a unity feedback system, whose transfer function is
given by
G (s ) =

k (s + 4)
s (s 2 + 6s + 13)

Show all the salient points on graph and comment on stability.


b) Obtain C(s)/R(s) using block diagram reduction technique.

R(s)

+
G2

G1

C(s)

G3

H1

+
H2

Set A

*SLRKM429*

-5-

SLR-KM 429

c) Draw the equivalent mechanical system for the given fig. and analogous system based on
i) F V

ii) F I

f (t)
x1 (t)
k1

x2 (t)

M2

B2

K2

SECTION II
4. Answer following (any 4) :

20

1) Explain PI controller in detail.


2) Write the correlation between time domain and frequency domain.
3) For a unity feedback system G (s) =

K
. Find the values of k, kmar and
s (1+ 0.4s) (1+ 0.25s)

frequency of sustained oscillations.


4) Explain Gain Margin and Phase Margin. Give the good values of Phase margin and Gain
Margin.
5) What is compensation ? Explain Series compensation and Parallel compensation.

Set A

SLR-KM 429

*SLRKM429*

-6-

5. Answer the following (any 2) :

20

1) Obtain the state model of given electrical system.

L
C

Vi (t)

V0 (t)

i (t)

2) Explain the following :


a) Lead compensator
b) Lag compensator.
3) Sketch bode plot for the following the system. Obtain the value of gain margin and
phase margin.
G (s ) =

10
.
s ( s + 1) ( s + 5 )
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 431

*SLRKM431*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
POWER ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Class F commutation of SCR means


a) Impulse commutation
c) Complimentary commutation

b) Resonant pulse commutation


d) Natural commutation

2) A chopper has Vs as source voltage, R as load resistance and as duty cycle,


the r.m.s. value of the output voltage is
a) Vs

b)

Vs

c)

Vs

d)

1 Vs Vs

3) In DC chopper, output voltage can be controlled in time ratio control by changing


a) Toff
b) T on
c) T
d) None of the above
4) In step-up chopper output voltage is given by
a) Vo = Vs

b)

5) Power electronics controls


a) Mechanical power
c) Magnetic power

Vs

1
c) 1 Vs

d) (1 ) Vs

b) Heat power
d) Electrical power

6) __________ is used to protect SCR against di/dt.


a) Snubber circuit
b) Thyrector
c) Inductor

d) Fuse

7) A four quadrant operation require


a) Two full converters in series
b) Two full converters connected back to back
c) Two full converters connected in parallel
d) Two semi conductors connected back to back
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 431

*SLRKM431*

-2-

8) In a circulating-current type of dual converter, the nature of the voltage across the reactor is
a) Alternating
b) Pulsating
c) Direct
d) Triangular
9) For half controlled rectifier with RL load, average o/p voltage is given by
a)

Vm
(1 + cos )

b)

Vm
(1 + cos )
2

c)

2 Vm
cos

d)

Vm
cos
2

10) Fully controlled bridge rectifier with purely resistive load provides ________ operation.
a) Two quadrant
b) One quadrant
c) Inverter
d) None of the above
11) The voltage gain G(s) =

1
a) 1 K

Vg
for buck boost regulator is given by
Vs

K
b) 1 K

K
c) 1 K

1
d) 1 K

12) When anode is possible with respect to cathode, in SCR the No. of blocked PN
junctions are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
13) In a thyristor anode current is made up of
a) Electrons only
c) Electrons or holes

b) Electron and holes


d) Holes only

14) Power MOSFET is


a) Bipolar device
c) Voltage controlled device

b) Unipolar device
d) Both b) and c)

15) In a GTO, anode current begins to fall when gate current


a) Is negative peaks at time t = 0
b) Is negative peak at t = storage period ts
c) Just begins to become negative and t = 0
d) None of these
16) A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to
a) Reduce the total distortion with modest filtering
b) Minimize the load on DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics
17) The uncontrolled electronic switch employed in power-electronic converters is
a) SCR
b) BJT
c) Diode
d) MOSFET
18) Which semiconductor power device out of the following is not a current triggered device ?
a) SCR
b) GTO
c) TRIAC
d) MOSFET
19) In step-down chopper output voltage is given by
a) Vo = Vs

b)

Vs

1
c) 1 Vs

d) (1 ) Vs

20) If the chopper frequency is 200 Hz and ton time is 2 ms, the duty cycle is
a) 0.4
b) 0.8
c) 0.6
d) None of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM431*

-3-

SLR-KM 431

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
POWER ELECTRONICS
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Draw a single-phase controlled bridge rectifier and corresponding waveforms. Derive the
equation for average o/p voltage.
b) Draw the dynamic characteristics of SCR with neat diagram.
c) Draw the construction of IGBT and explain switching characteristics.
d) A single phase semi converter is operated from 120 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The load resistance
is 10 . If the average output voltage is 25% of the maximum possible average output
voltage. Calculate
i) Delay angle
ii) RMS and Average output currents
iii) Average and rms thyristor currents.
e) Draw the equivalent circuit of GTO and explain its characteristics.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Draw the construction diagram of depletion type MOSFET and explain its output and
transfer characteristics.
b) Draw the circuit for fully controlled rectifier and explain its two quadrant operation. Derive
the formula used for explanation.
c) A single phase fully controlled bridge is operated with a resistive load R = 10 , the input
voltage to the bridge is 230 V. Calculate the following :
i) Average load voltage
ii) RMS load voltage
iii) Average and RMS load current
iv) Form factor and ripple factor. The firing angle = 60 .

Set A

SLR-KM 431

-4-

*SLRKM431*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Describe the working of type E chopper with relevant circuit diagram and its operation in
all four quadrants.
b) What are the types of UPS systems ? Explain the NO. Break UPS.
c) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Cyclo-converter.
d) A single-phase half bridge inverter has a resistive load of R = 3 ohms and the DC input
voltage Edc = 24 V. Determine :
a) Total Harmonic Distortion THD
b) The DF
c) The harmonic factor and the distortion factor of the lowest order harmonic.
e) Input to the step up chopper is 200 V. The output required is 600 V. If the conducting time
of thyristor is 200 sec . Compute :
i) Chopping frequency,
ii) If the pulse width is halved for constant frequency of operation, find the new output
voltage.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Discuss the principle of working of 3-phase inverter with appropriate waveform and
circuit diagram on assumption that each thyristor conduct for 120 degree and resistive
load is star connected.
b) Draw the circuit for three phase to three phase cycloconverter. Explain it with neat waves.
c) The single phase half bridge inverter using transistors has a resistive load of 20 . The
DC supply is 24 V. Calculate :
a) RMS output voltage at fundamental frequency,
b) Output power,
c) Average and peak current,
d) Peak reverses blocking voltage of each transistor.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 432

*SLRKM432*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING

Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data if required.
5) Figures to right indicates full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1) Indicate which one of the following indicate only sideband is transmitted ?


a) H3E
b) A3E
c) B8E
d) C3F
2) The modulating frequency in FM is increased from 10 KHz to 20 KHz. The bandwidth is
a) Doubled
b) Halved
c) Increased by 20 KHz
d) Increased tremendously
3) The most suitable method for detecting a modulating signal (2.5 + 5 Coswmt) cos wct is
a) envelop detector
b) synchronous detector
c) ratio detector
d) a & b
4) A sinusoidal 400 Hz modulating signal of 2V amplitude frequency modulates a carrier and
produces a 70 KHz frequency deviation. The frequency sensitivity is given by
a) 140 KHz per V
b) 70 KHz per V
c) 72 KHz per V
d) 35 KHz per V
5) A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by
a) Boosting the base frequency
b) Amplifying the higher audio frequency
c) Preamplifying the whole audio band
d) Converting phase modulation to FM
6) Sinusoidal function is used as basic function in electrical communication because
a) convenience
b) response to linear system is sine wave
c) both a & b
d) none
7) Following is not a reason of distortion in communication system
a) Insufficient channel bandwidth
b) Random variables in channel
c) External interference
d) None
8) In phase shift SSB modulator, the input signals to one of the balanced modulators are
phase shifted by
a) 45
b) 90
c) 180
d) 30
P.T.O.

SLR-KM-432

*SLRKM432*

-2-

9) In commercial FM broadcast system, the modulating signal frequency is limited to about


a) 3.4 KHz
b) 5 KHz
c) 15 KHz
d) 20 KHz
10) An impulse function consist of
a) Entire frequency range with same relative phase
b) Infinite bandwidth with linear phase variation
c) Pure DC
d) Large DC along with weak harmonics
11) The quantization error in a PCM system depends on the
a) sampling rate
b) step size
c) encoder

d) all of the above

12) Duo-binary encoding is a method of


a) error correction
b) pulse shaping

c) scrambling

d) line coding

13) Scrambling is used to


a) randomize data
c) prevent unauthorized access to data

b) removing long string of 1s and 0s


d) all of above

14) Amplitude Shift Keying can be demodulated


a) coherently
b) non-coherently
c) with envelope detector
d) all of above
15) As compared to Amplitude Shift Keying, Phase Shift Keying requires
a) less power
b) more power
c) same power
d) none of above
16) Frequency Shift Keying can be viewed as a sum of two interleaved
a) Amplitude Shift Keying signals
b) Frequency Shift Keying signals
c) Phase Shift Keying signals
d) Quadrature Amplitude Modultation signals
17) If A & B are two events such that P(AB) = P(A) P(B), then
a) A & B are mutually exclusive events
b) A & B are non-mutually exclusive events
c) A & B are independent events
d) A & B are dependent events
18) The most important parameter which can be used for spectral analysis of a random
process is
a) covariance
b) characteristic function
c) variance
d) auto-correlation
19) The step size is constant in
a) PCM system
b) Adaptive Delta modulation
c) Both PCM & Adaptive Delta modulation
d) None of these
20) The transmitter in a delta modulation system transmits the
a) integration of the input signal
b) derivative of the input signal
c) input signal as it is
d) none of the above

______________
Set A

*SLRKM432*

-3-

SLR-KM-432

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Figures to right indicates full marks.

2. Solve any four of the followings.

(44=16)

1) Describe the functional block schematic diagram of an Electronics communication systems.


2) What is the single tone modulation ? an FM signal having carrier swing of 100 KHz when
modulating signal has frequency of 8 KHz. Find frequency deviation.
3) Explain superheterodyne receiver with the help of its block diagram.
4) Calculate the % power saving when carrier and one of the sideband are suppressed in
AM wave modulation to a depth of 100% and 50% ?
5) Give the Performance comparison FM and PM.

3. Solve any three of the followings.

(38=24)

1) In a broadcast superheterodyne receiver having number of RF amplifier. The loaded Q of


antenna coupling circuit (at the input to mixer) is 100. If Intermediate frequency is 455 KHz.
Calculate :
a) The image frequency and rejection ratio at 1000 KHz
b) The image frequency and rejection ratio at 25 MHz.
2) Derive the expression for the total power in the modulated wave and show that 33.33% of
the total power is used for information transmission.
3) Explain in detail Envelope detector. What is diagonal clipping and how it can be reduced ?
4) Draw and explain Foster seeley discriminator in detail. Discuss its advantages and
drawbacks.

4. Solve any three.

(83=24)

a) State sampling theorem. Explain the concept of aliasing error with the help of a suitable
example.
b) What are the drawbacks of delta modulation system ? How are they overcome in adaptive
modulation system ?

Set A

SLR-KM-432

-4-

*SLRKM432*

c) A(7, 4) Hamming code has a generator matrix given as :


1

0
G=
1

1 0 1 0 0 0

1 1 0 1 0 0
1 1 0 0 1 0 .

0 1 0 0 0 1

i) Find the codewords for the following message words


1) 1 1

2) 1 0

3) 1 1

4) 0 1

ii) Find the parity check matrix H


iii) If the received codeword is 1 0 1 1 0 0 0, find the corresponding codeword using
syndrome decoding.
d) Find the Autocorrelation of a random process x(t) given as x(t ) = A cos(c t + ) .
where is a random variable uniformly distributed in the range (0, 2) .

5. Solve any four.

(44=16)

a) Explain how the signal to noise ratio can be improved with the help of a compander and
expander.
b) What are the desirable properties of a line code ?
c) What is the necessity of a scrambler ? Explain the operation of a scrambler.
d) Explain the concept of a Stationary Process.
e) State and explain the Central limit theorem. What is the importance of Gaussian probability
density function ?

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 433

*SLRKM433*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
POWER SYSTEM I
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

All questions are compulsory.


Figure to the right indicates maximum marks.
Assume the suitable data wherever necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct options :

20

1) When alternating current passes through a conductor


a) It remains uniformly distributed throughout the section of conductor
b) Portion of conductor near the surface carries more current as compared to the core
c) Portion of conductor near the surface carries less current as compared to the core
d) Entire current passes through the core of the conductor
2) Self GMD is used in the calculation of ___________
a) Inductance only
b) Inductance and capacitance
c) Capacitance only
d) None
3) Wooden poles for supporting transmission lines are used for voltages up to
a) 440 V
b) 11 kV
c) 22 kV
d) 66 kV
4) Which of the following is reduced due to the use of bundled conductors ?
a) Capacitance of the circuit
b) Inductance of the circuit
c) Power loss due to corona
d) All of the above
5) For improving life, steel poles are galvanized. Galvanizing is the process of applying a
layer of
a) Paint
b) Varnish
c) Tar coal
d) Zinc
6) The bundling of conductors is done primarily to
a) Reduce reactance
b) Increase reactance
c) Increase ratio interference
d) Reduce radio interference
7) The effect of ice deposition on conductor is
a) Increased skin effect
b) Reduced corona losses
c) Increased weight
d) Reduced sag
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 433

-2-

*SLRKM433*

8) In case the height of transmission tower is increased


a) The line capacitance and inductance will not change
b) The line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will decrease
c) The line capacitance will decrease and line inductance will increase
d) The line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will remain unaltered
9) The String Efficiency of a string of suspension insulators is dependent on
a) Size of the Insulators
b) Number of Insulator discs in the String
c) Size of the Tower
d) None of the above
10) Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because
a) It gives bad odor
b) It corrodes the material
c) It transfers energy to the ground
d) Reduces power factor
11) A relay used on short transmission lines is
a) Reactance relay
b) Mhos relay
c) Impedance relay
d) None of the above
12) The advantage of corona is that
a) Improves Voltage regulation
b) Works as safety valves for surges
c) Improves Power Factor in the system d) No advantage
13) Transmission lines link
a) Service points to consumer premises
b) Distribution transformer to consumer premises
c) Receiving end station to distribution transformer
d) Generating station to receiving end station
14) Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury ?
a) Bedding
b) Sheath
c) Armouring
d) None of the above
15) Which material is used for manufacturing of ground wire ?
a) Aluminum
b) Steel wire
c) Cast iron
d) Galvanized Steel
16) The voltage of transmission can be regulated by
a) Use of tap changing transformers
b) Switching in shunt capacitors at the receiving end during heavy loads
c) Use of series capacitors to neutralize the effect of series reactance
d) Any of the above methods.
17) In order to improve the power factor which device should be connected to the power
system
a) Series capacitor b) Shunt capacitor c) Series inductor
d) Shunt inductor
18) If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance
a) Becomes one-fourth
b) Becomes one-half
c) Becomes doubles
d) Remains unchanged
19) A cable carrying alternating current has
a) Hysteresis losses only
b) Hysteresis and leakage losses only
c) Hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
d) Hysteresis, leakage and copper and friction losses

20) In any transmission line, the constants B and C are


a) Dimensionless
b) Ohms and Siemen
c) Mega ohm and volts
d) Volt and ampere
______________

Set A

*SLRKM433*

-3-

SLR-KM 433

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2015
POWER SYSTEM I
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figure to right indicates maximum marks.
3) Assume the suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Explain comparisons between DC and AC System.


2) Write short note on proximity effect.
3) Explain capacitance of single phase two wire line.
4) Write short note on resonant vibration.
5) A 3-phase, 50Hz, 132KV overhead line has conductors is placed in a horizontal as shown
in figure. The Conductor diameter is 1.25 cm. If the line length is 100 km, assuming complete
transposition. Calculate
i) Capacitance per phase
ii) Charging current per phase.
2 m 2 .5 m
O

4 .5 m

3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) Explain briefly
a) Choice of working voltage for transmission line
b) Economic size of line conductor.

Set A

SLR-KM 433

-4-

*SLRKM433*

2) An overhead transmission line conductor having a parabolic configuration weights 1.925 kg.
per meter of length. The area of cross-section of the conductor is 2.2 cm2 and ultimate
strength is 8000 kg/cm2. The supports are 600 m apart having 15m difference of level.
Calculate the sag of from the taller of the two supports which must be allowed so that the
factor of safety shall be 5. Assume that ice load is 1 kg per meter run and there is no wind
pressure.
3) Explain Inductance of 3-Phase overhead line in following cases.
i) Symmetrical Spacing
ii) Unsymmetrical Spacing.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) With neat diagram explain nominal -method for medium transmission line.
2) With neat diagram explain screened type underground cable.
3) Explain most economical conductor size in cables.
4) Explain advantages and disadvantages corona.
5) Discuss the disadvantages of low power factor.
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) With neat diagram explain string efficiency and methods of improving string efficiency.
2) A 3-phase, 50 Hz 150 km line has a resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive
shunt admittance of 0.1 , 0.5 and 3 106 Siemen per km per phase. If the line
delivers 50 MW at 110 KV and 0.8 power factor lagging, determine the sending end
voltage and current. Assume a nominal circuit for the line.
3) Explain the various insulating material used for construction of cables.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 434

*SLRKM434*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
NONLINEAR AND DIGITAL CONTROL SYSTEM (Old)

Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Total Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Usually a lag network for compensation consist of


a) R element
b) R and L elements
c) R and C elements
d) R, L and C elements
2) Which of the following is used to increase the bandwidth of a control system ?
a) Phase lag compensator
b) Phase lead compensator
c) Phase lag-lead compensator
d) All of these
3) In a control system integral error compensation _________ steady state error.
a) increases
b) minimizes
c) does not have any effect
d) none of the above
4) The state variable approach can be applied to __________ system(s).
a) Time variant
b) Non-linear
c) Linear and time-invariant
d) All of the above
5) Which of the following is the non-linear system ?
a) Temperature controlled smelting furnace
b) Servomotor working in saturation
c) Automatic voltage stabilizers
d) All of the above
6) In non-linear control system limit cycle is self sustained oscillations of
a) fixed frequency
b) variable frequency
c) variable amplitude
d) fixed frequency and amplitude
7) Leading compensation network is
a) equalizer
c) low pass filter

b) high pass filter


d) none of these

8) About which of the following is the phase-plane portrait for the non-linear system given by
x + f(x, x) and satisfying f(x, x) = f(x, x) symmetrical ?
a) X-axis
b) -axis
c) both the X and -axis
d) neither X nor -axis
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 434

*SLRKM434*

-2-

9) Isocline method is used for which one of the following.


a) Design of the non-linear system
b) Construction of root loci of non-linear system
c) Construction of phase trajectories on NL system
d) Stability analysis of NL systems
10) When the system specifications are given in time domain, best approach of designing a
system is
a) Bode plot
b) Root locus
c) Nyquist plot
d) Polar plot
11) A phase lag compensation will
a) improve relative stability
c) increase bandwidth

b) increase the speed of response


d) increase overshoot

12) How can be bandwidth of a control system be increased ?


a) By use of phase lead network
b) By use of phase lag network
c) By use of phase lag lead network
d) By use of cascade amplifiers in the system
13) Non-linearties can be
a) incidental
c) either incidental or intentional

b) intentional
d) linearized

14) Presence of nonlinearities in a control system tends to introduce


a) transient error
b) instability
c) steady state error
d) all of these
15) Compared to continuous time system, the discrete time is
a) more accurate but less stable
b) less accurate but more stable
c) more accurate and more stable
d) less accurate and less stable
16) If the bandwidth of the system is increased the system response will
a) remain unaffected
b) became faster
c) become slower
d) none of these
17) Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ?
a) Static friction
b) Backlash
c) Saturation
d) None of the above
18) If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
a) oscillatory
b) critically damped
c) overdamped
d) underdamped
19) The steady state error of a control system can be reduced by increasing
a) gain constant of the system
b) time constant of the system
c) both gain and time constant of system
d) none of these
20) The transfer function is
a) Lead network
c) Lag-lead network

1 + 0 .5 s
it represents a
1+ s
b) Lag network
d) Proportional controller

______________
Set A

*SLRKM434*

-3-

SLR-KM 434

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


NONLINEAR AND DIGITAL CONTROL SYSTEM (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Define state, state variables, state vector and state space.


b) Explain procedure for designing lead compensator using Root locus.
c) A state variable model of a system is as
x 1 1 1 x1 0
=
+ 4
x 2 2 1 x2 1

and y = [1 0] 1 . Check controllability.


x 2
d) Find eigen values of the matrix
1 .
0
A=

2 + 3

e) Obtain characteristic equation of the matrix


1
0
0

A= 3
0
2 .
12 7 6

3. a) A system is represented by the following dynamic equations :

10

1 x1 0
 = 0
X

+ u
2 3 x 2 1
x
y = [1 0] 1
x 2
Determine the Transfer Function.

Set A

SLR-KM 434

-4-

b) For a system having open loop TIF G(s) =

*SLRKM434*

K
design a lag compensator for
s(s + 4) (s + 5)

K V 5, z = 0.707 and wn = 2 rad/sec.

10

OR
b) The open loop TIF of type 2 system with unity feedback is given by G(s) =

K
2

s (1 + 0.25 s)

Design a lead compensator to meet the following specifications


1) Ka = 10

2) PM = 35.

10

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Define non linear system.


b) Write short note on phase plane technique.
c) Explain mapping between s plane and z plane.
d) Explain block diagram of discrete time control system.
e) Explain in short sample and hold circuits.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Write procedure for drawing Trajectory.


b) Explain stability analysis by Juris stability test for discrete time control system.
c) Explain pulse transfer function for cascaded elements.
_____________ ______

Set A

SLR-KM 435

*SLRKM435*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part II) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.


2) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) The Length of LCALL instruction is _____________ byte.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
2) The address of DPH and DPL are _____________ H and _____________ H.
a) 83, 82
b) 16, 17
c) 84, 85
d) 64, 65
3) Which pin of port 3 has an alternative function as read control signal for
external data memory ?
a) P3.8
b) P3.3
c) P3.6
d) P3.7
4) In mode 2, the timer/counter rolls over when counter goes up to ________ H.
a) FFFF
b) FF
c) 00
d) 7F
5) While interfacing 8051 with PROM, if EA pin is kept high, then it access
___________ on chip memory and _____________ off chip memory.
a) 0000-0FFF and 1000-FFFF
b) 0000-1FFF and 1FFF-FFFF
c) 0000-FFFF
d) None of these
6) What is the function of Watchdog timer ?
a) The watchdog Timer is an external timer that resets the system if the
software fails to operate properly
b) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that sets the system if the software
fails to operate properly
c) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that resets the system if the
software fails to operate properly
d) None of them
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 435

-2-

7) On power up the 8051 selects bank _______________


a) 0
b) 1
c) 2

*SLRKM435*
d) 3

8) The total external data memory that can be interfaced to the 8051 is
a) 32K
b) 64K
c) 128K
d) 256K
9) Microcontrollers often have
a) CPUs
b) RAM
c) ROM
d) All of the above
10) To access the data from on chip ROM the instruction used is
a) MOV
b) MOVX
c) MOVC
d) None of these
11) Which of the following statements will add the accumulator and Register 3 ?
a) ADD @R3, @A b) ADD @R3,A c) ADD R3,A
d) ADD A,R3
12) An alternate function of port pin P3.4 in the 8051 is
a) Timer 1
b) Timer 0
c) Interrupt 0
d) Interrupt 1
13) I2C is a standard designed by
a) Intel
b) Darras semiconductor
c) NXP
d) Atmel
14) In 8255, only bits of port C can be programmed in __________ mode.
a) Mode 0
b) Mode 1
c) Mode 2
d) BSR
15) To select command register ______________
a) R/W = 0
b) R/W = 1
c) RS = 0
d) RS = 1
16) To latch information presented to LCDs data pin is ______________
a) H-L pulse to R/W
b) L-H pulse to R/W
c) H-L pulse to E
d) L-H pulse to E
17) MOV A, #56H
MOV R1, #50H
MOV 50H, #45H
XCHD A, @R1
What is the result at A, R1 ?
a) 56H, 45H
b) 45H, 50H
c) 50H, 56H
18) To clear LCD, ____________ is moved to LCD.
a) 06H
b) 01H
c) 30H
19) Step size in ADC depends on
a) Vref
c) Input channels only

d) 45H, 56H
d) 80H

b) Vref and input channels


d) Vref, Vin
20) In power factor control relay power factor (P.F) is improved due to
compensation of
a) Reactive power b) Active power c) Apparent power d) None of these
______________
Set A

*SLRKM435*

-3-

SLR-KM 435

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part II) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.


2) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Explain memory organization of 8051 in detail.


2) Explain the IE and IP register of 8051.
3) Draw and explain the PSW of 8051.
4) Describe the following instructions :
a) SUBB, A,# 124
b) MOV @R0, #data
c) DJNZ R1, 800A
d) INC DPTR
5) List out features of 8051 microcontroller.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) Explain all ports of 8051 with their internal structures.


2) Draw and explain the architecture of 8051.
3) Draw the 8051 connection to the 8255 and write a program to get data from
PA and send it to both ports B and C.
Set A

SLR-KM 435

-4-

*SLRKM435*

SECTION II
4 Write a short note on the following (any four) :

(45=20)

1) Microcontroller based real time clock DS 1307.


2) Interfacing of 8255 with 8051.
3) 8 bit format of SCON register.
4) ADC interfacing with 8051.
5) SPI & I2C interfacing with 8051.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) Interface (44) matrix type keyboard &(162) LCD display to 8051. Write a
program to display key code on display.
2) Explain in detail pin description of LCD with neat diagram and write a program
to display WELCOME.
3) Interface DAC 0808 to 8051. Explain interfacing circuit and write a program to
Generate :
i) Sine wave
ii) Sawtooth.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 436

*SLRKM436*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


POWER ELECTRONICS (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Total Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) Assume data, if necessary.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Which of the following transistors can be used in E-mode ?


A) JFET
B) MOSFET
C) NPN

D) UJT

2) For an SCR, dv/dt protection is achieved through the use of


A) RL in series with SCR
B) RC across SCR
C) L in series with SCR
D) RC in series with SCR
3) A TRIAC
A) Conducts when not triggered
B) Conducts when not triggered in both directions
C) Conducts when triggered in one
D) None of the above
4) UPS is used in
A) Computers
C) Essential instrumentation

B) Communication links
D) All of the above

5) In a three-phase full converter, 6 SCRs are fired at an interval of


A) 0
B) 60
C) 120
D) 180
6) A sine voltage of 200 Vrms, 50 Hz is applied to an SCR through 100 ohm resistor.
The firing angle is 60. The output voltage in rms is
A) 89.7 V
B) 126.7 V
C) 166.7 V
D) 2002V
7) UJT when used for triggering an SCR, has a waveform
A) Sine wave
B) Square wave
C) Saw tooth wave

D) Trapezoidal

8) The ratio of latching current to holding current SCR is


A) 0.5
B) 1.0
C) 1.5

D) 2.5

9) During forward blocking state, the SCR has


A) Low current, medium voltage
B) Low current, large voltage
C) Medium current, large voltage
D) Large current, low voltage
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 436

*SLRKM436*

-2-

10) In a single phase full converter, if ouput voltage has peak and average values of 325 V
and 133 V respectively, firing angle is
A) 40
B) 73.40
C) 80
D) 130
11) The cycloconverter require natural or forced commutation as under
A) Natural commutation in both step-up and step down cycloconverter
B) Forced commutation in both step-up and step-down cycloconverter
C) Forced commutation in step-up cycloconverter
D) Forced commutation in step-down cycloconverter
12) A single phase full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode in case of load
consist of
A) RLC over damped
B) RLC under damped
C) RLC critically damped
D) None of these
13) A voltage source inverter in normally employed when
A) Source inductance is large and load inductance is small
B) Source inductance is small and load inductance is large
C) Both source and load inductance are small
D) Both source and load inductance are large
14) When a line commutated converter operates in the inverter mode
A) It draws both real power and reactive power from the AC supply
B) It delivers both real power and reactive power to the AC supply
C) It draws real power from the AC supply
D) It draws reactive power from the AC supply
15) A chopper operating at a fixed frequency is feeding an RL load. As the duty ratio of the
chopper is increased from 25% to 75% , the ripple in the load current is
A) Remains constant
B) Decreases, reaches a minimum at 50% duty ratio and then increases
C) Increases, reaches a maximum at 50% duty ratio and then decreases
D) Keeps on increasing as the duty ratio is increased
16) Which chopper circuit operates in all the 4 quadrants ?
A) A
B) C
C) D

D) E

17) The two modes of operation of three phase bridge inverters are known as
A) 60 mode and 120 mode
B) 90 mode and 120 mode
C) 120 mode and 180 mode
D) 120 mode and 240 mode
18) A d.c. to d.c. chopper operates from a 48 V battery source into a resistive load of 24 Ohm.
The frequency of the chopper is set to 250Hz. When chopper on-time is 1 ms the load
power is
A) 6 W
B) 12 W
C) 24 W
D) 48 W
19) A single phase cycloconverter feeds a resistance heating load. The heating power is
provided by
A) Only the fundamental component of output wave
B) Only higher harmonics in the output wave
C) Both fundamental and higher harmonics in the output wave
D) Either A) or B)
20) The major application of chopper drive is in
A) Traction
B) Computers
C) Heating furnaces D) Miniature motors
______________

Set A

*SLRKM436*

-3-

SLR-KM 436

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


POWER ELECTRONICS (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) Assume data, if necessary.
3) All questions are compulsory.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :

(46=24)

a) i) Explain different modes of operation of TRIAC with neat schematic diagram.


ii) Give few applications of TRIAC.
b) A single phase bridge converter feeds a highly inductive load of RLE, where R = 1 ohm,
Eg = 80 V and L is sufficient large for perfect smoothening. The source voltage 120 V at 50 Hz.
The source inductance is 1 mH. For a firing angle of 110, determine overlap angle.
c) With the necessary circuit diagrams and relevant waveforms, discuss class D commutation
of thyristors.
d) What is SMPS ? Explain.
e) i) State and explain protection schemes of thyristors.
ii) What are dv/dt and di/dt ratings of SCRs ? What happens if these ratings are exceeded,
explain.
f) What is a GTO ? Describe the turn-on and turn off characteristics of a GTO.
3. Attempt any two of the following :

(28=16)

a) How many structures are there for power MOSFETs and describe any one of them with
their advantages and disadvantages.
b) What is free-wheeling diode ? Draw the circuit diagram of an SCR full wave rectifier with
and without free-wheeling diode and explain the operation of the circuit with the help of
necessary waveforms.
c) What do you understand by off-line and on-line UPS system ? Explain the difference with
the help of schematic system diagram. State their merits and demerits.

Set A

SLR-KM 436

-4-

*SLRKM436*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of the following :

(46=24)

a) Discuss the working of a Morgans chopper circuit and its commutation procedure with
the help of neat circuit diagram.
b) Discuss the working of a single phase parallel inverter and its commutation process with
neat circuit diagram and necessary waveforms.
c) A single phase sequential commutated CSI is fed from 220V dc source. The load is
R = 10 . Thyristor have turn-off time of 20 sec. and inverter output frequency is 50 Hz.
Take a factor of safety of 2. Determine value of source inductance assuming a maximum
current change of 0.5 A in one cycle. Find also the values of commutating capacitors.
d) State why the output frequency of a cycloconverter is significantly lower than the input
frequency ? How are the firing angles or pulses arranged to get the low frequency output
voltage nearly sinusoidal ?
e) Describe 3-phase to 3-phase cycloconverter with relevant circuit arrangements using
18 SCRs.
f) A dc chopper feeds power to an RLE load with R = 2 , L = 10 mH and E = 6V. If this
chopper is operating at a chopper frequency of 1 kHz and with duty cycle of 10% from a
220 V dc source, compute the maximum and minimum currents taken by the load.
5. Attempt any two of the following :

(28=16)

a) Explain the operation of Jones chopper with neat waveforms and mention the
advantages of Jones chopper circuit over the other chopper circuits. Give the
applications of this chopper.
b) Explain the working of single phase bridge type cycloconverter with RL load for
i) Continuous conduction and
ii) Discontinuous conduction with the help of neat circuit diagram and relevant output
waveforms.
c) Explain the operation of single phase half bridge inverter for RL loads with the help of
neat circuit diagram and necessary waveforms. What is its main drawback ?

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 437

*SLRKM437*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015
ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (NEW)

Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The audio frequency range is
a) 10 Hz to 1 KHz
c) 20 Hz to 20 KHz

(201=20)
b) 80 MHz to 108 MHz
d) 1 KHz to 1 MHz

2) A sinusoidal 400 Hz modulating signal of 2 V amplitude frequency modulates a carrier


and produces a 70 KHz frequency deviation. The frequency sensitivity is given by
a) 140 KHz per V
b) 70 KHz per V
c) 72 KHz per V
d) 35 KHz per V
3) In phase shift SSB modulator, the input signals to one of the balanced modulators are
phase shifted by
a) 45
b) 90
c) 180
d) 30
4) The output VR of the ratio detector with the output of VF of Foster-seeley discriminator as
follows
a) VF = VR
b) VF < VR
c) VF = 0.51 VR
d) VF = 2 VR
5) Following is not a reason of distortion in communication system
a) Insufficient channel bandwidth
b) Random variables in channel
c) External interference
d) None
6) The most suitable method for detecting a modulating signal (2.5 + 5 Coswmt) coswct is
a) envelop detector
b) synchronous detector
c) ratio detector
d) a and b
7) Following is not an advantage of FM over AM
a) Noise immunity
b) Fidelity
c) Capture effect
d) Sputtering effect
8) In single tone FM discriminator (S/N) is
a) Proportional to deviation
b) Proportional to cube of deviation
c) Inversely Proportional to deviation
d) Proportional to square of deviation
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 437

-2-

*SLRKM437*

9) The most popular value of intermediate frequency for AM receiver is


a) 438 MHz
b) 465 MHz
c) 455 MHz
d) 350 MHz
10) In a modulator, it is found that the amplitude spectrum consist of a component fc the
carrier frequency and one component each at (fc + fs) and (fc fs) where fs is modulating
signal frequency. The modulator used is
a) AM
b) AM and/or Narrowband FM
c) FM
d) PAM
11) An audio signal bandlimited to 3400 Hz is sampled at 8 KHz and Pulse code modulated
with 256 quantization levels. The resulting digital signal has a bit rate of
a) 32 Kbps
b) 64 Kbps
c) 87.04 Kbps
d) 174.08 Kbps
12) The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called
a) PCM
b) Sampling
c) Scrambling
d) M-ary coding
13) In ___________ encoding, we use three levels : positive, zero and negative.
a) unipolar
b) bipolar
c) polar
d) none of these
14) _____________ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit.
a) Unipolar Non Return to Zero
b) Unipolar Return to Zero
c) Manchester
d) Bipolar Return to Zero
15) A major problem with delta modulation system is
a) errors due to excessive noise
b) slope overload error
c) insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal
d) complexity of design
16) From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability
of both the cards being kings ?
a) 1/115
b) 25/57
c) 35/256
d) 1/221
17) Which of the following is incorrect ?
a) P (S) = 1
b) P ( A ) = P (A) 1
c) 0 P (A) 1
d) If A and B are mutually exclusive, then P (A + B) = P (A) + P ( B)
18) The most important parameter which can be used for spectral analysis of a random process is
a) covariance
b) characteristic function
c) variance
d) auto-correlation
19) ________ is the drawback of non-return to zero coding as compared to return to zero
coding.
a) dc content in the spectrum
b) low bandwidth
c) single error detection capability
d) all of above
20) A random process whose statistical characteristics do not change with time is called as
a) ensemble random process
b) sampled random process
c) specified random process
d) stationary random process

______________
Set A

*SLRKM437*

-3-

SLR-KM 437

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (NEW)
Day and Date : Friday, 27-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :

24

1) Derive the power relation in AM.


2) Give the Performance comparison FM and PM.
3) Explain simple slope detector method with advantages.
4) Explain super heterodyne receiver with the help of its block diagram.
5) Explain why VSB is required in video transmission. Draw frequency response and show
different elements.
3. Attempt any two of the following :

16

1) Derive the expression for the total power in the modulated wave and show that 33.33% of
the total power is used for information transmission.
2) A 107.6 MHz carrier signal is frequency modulated by 7 KHz sine wave. The resultant FM
has frequency deviation of 50 KHz. Determine
a) Carrie swing of FM signal
b) Highest and lowest frequency attended by modulated signal
c) Modulation index of FM wave
3) Draw and explain Foster seeley discriminator in detail. Discuss its advantages and
drawbacks.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of the following :

24

1) Draw the block diagram of a PCM transmitter and receiver. Explain the operation of each
block with help of waveforms.
2) Write a short note on pulse shaping.

Set A

SLR-KM 437

-4-

*SLRKM437*

3) Explain the operation of a digital TDM system.


4) A bag contains 4 red, 5 white and 6 black balls. What is the probability that two drawn balls
are red and black ?
5) Explain the concept of FDMA and TDMA.
5. Attempt any two of the following :

16

1) Explain the concept of slope overload error in delta modulation. How is it overcome in
adaptive delta modulation system ?
2) Explain the concept of a random variable. State the properties of the density function of
a random variable.
3) With the help of block diagram, explain the operation of a mobile communication
system.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 438

*SLRKM438*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS (New)
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.


2) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The p.u. impedance value of an alternator corresponding to base values 13.2 kv and
30 MVA is 0.2 p.u. value for the base values 13.8 kv and 50 MVA will be
a) 0.306 p.u.
b) 0.33 p.u.
c) 0.318 p.u.
d) 0.328 p.u.
2) For load flow solution the quantities specified at a load bus are
a) P and Q

b) P and | V |

c) Q and | V |

d) P and

3) Bus admittance matrix (Y bus) of power system is not


a) Symmetric
b) A square matrix
c) A full matrix
d) Generally having dominant diagonal elements
4) Normally Zbus matrix is a
a) Null matrix
b) Full matrix

c) Spare matrix

d) Unity matrix

5) In Gauss-Seidal method of power flow problem, the number of iterations may be


reduced if the correction in voltage at each bus is multiplied by
a) Gauss constant
b) Acceleration constant
c) Deceleration constant
d) Blocking factor
6) The stability of power system is not affected by
a) Generator reactance
b) Line reactance
c) Line losses
d) Excitation of generators
7) For what value of damping parameter, the transient stability is assured by equal area
criterion ?
a) Independent of systems damping
b) If only damping is exactly zero
c) For all values of damping parameters
d) If only damping is positive and finite

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 438

*SLRKM438*

-2-

8) Equal area criterion gives the information regarding


a) Stability region
b) Absolute stability
c) Relative stability
d) Swing curves
9) At slack bus, which one of the following combinations of variables is specified ?
a) P, Q

b) P, | V |

c) Q, | V |

d) | V |,

is the loss angle of the cable, its power factor is


a) Sin
b) Cos
c) Power factor is independent of
d) Power factor depends upon , it is not as per a) and b)

10) If

11) In distribution system, which of the items shares the major cost ?
a) Conductors
b) Earthing system
c) Distribution transformer
d) Insulators
12) The load on 3-phase, 4-wire distributors are usually
a) Balanced
b) Unbalanced
c) Either of above

d) None of the above

13) If Ia1 is the positive sequence current of an alternator and Z1, Z2 and Z0 are the
sequence impedance of the alternator. The drop produced by the current Ia1 will be
a) Ia1 Z1
b) Ia1 (Z1 + Z2)
c) Ia1 (Z1 + Z2 + Z0) d) Ia1 (Z1 + Z0)
14) Short circuit currents are due to
a) Single line to ground fault
c) All the three phases to earth fault

b) Phase to phase fault


d) Any one of the above

15) Which of the following results in a symmetrical fault ?


a) Single line to ground fault
b) Phase to phase fault
c) All the three phases to earth fault
d) Two phase to earth
16) The magnitude of the fault current depends upon
a) Total impedance up to fault
b) Voltage at the fault point
c) Load current being supplied before occurrence of fault
d) Both a) and b)
17) Zero sequence fault current is absent when fault is
a) Single line to ground fault
b) Line to line fault
c) Double line to ground fault
d) None of the above
18) Zero sequence currents can flow from a line to transformer bank if the windings are in
a) Grounded star/delta
b) Delta/star
c) Star/grounded star
d) Delta/delta
19) If positive, negative and zero sequence reactances of an element of a power system are
0.3, 0.3 and 0.8 pu respectively, then the element would be a
a) Synchronous generator
b) Synchronous motor
c) Static load
d) Transmission line
20) A negative sequence relay is commonly used to protect
a) An alternator
b) A transformer
c) A transmission line

d) A bus bar

______________
Set A

*SLRKM438*

-3-

SLR-KM 438

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS (New)
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.


2) Attempt any two questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Explain the complex power of representation of loads.


2) Explain the dynamic of a synchronous machine.
3) Derive the swing equations.
4) Explain steady state and transient stability.
5) Explain the representation of loads.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) Analyze the equal area criterion, consider several types of disturbance that may occur in
a single machine busbar system.
2) The one line diagram of a two generator system is shown in Fig. (b). redraw the diagram
to show all values in per unit on a 7000 kVA base i.e. (7 MVA base).

Fig. (b)
3) Write computational algorithm of Gauss Seidal method for load flow analysis.

Set A

SLR-KM 438

-4-

*SLRKM438*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Differentiate between symmetrical and unsymmetrical faults.


2) Explain the complex power of representation of loads.
3) Draw zero sequence networks for transformer connections such as star-star, star-delta,
delta-delta and delta-star.
4) Show the open conductors fault connections of sequence network.
5) Describe the various types of buses and their significance in detail.
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) Analyze a line to line fault and show the connections of sequence networks.
2) Derive an expression for sequence impedance of transmission line.
3) Analyze a double line to ground fault and show the connections of sequence networks.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 439

*SLRKM439*
Seat
No.

Set
T.E. (Electrical & Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015
CONTROL SYSTEM II (New)

Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
5) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The effect of error rate damping is


a) reduced steady state error
c) larger settling time

b) faster response
d) both (a) and (b)

2) Addition of zero
a) has no effect on speed of response
c) slows down the response

b) speeds up the response


d) none of the above

3) Phase lag compensation will


a) improve relative stability
c) increase bandwidth

b) increase the speed of response


d) increase overshoot

4) Which of the following is used to increase the bandwidth of a control system ?


a) Phase lag compensator
b) Phase lead compensator
c) Phase lag-lead compensator
d) All of these
5) A phase lag-lead network introduces in the output
a) lag at all frequencies
b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
d) none of the above
6) In reference to Bode Plot Method of analysis of linear control systems, the response in
medium frequency regions reflects
a) steady state behaviour of the system
b) relative stability of the system
c) transient behaviour of the system
d) none of these
7) A cascaded lag compensator used in linear control systems work as a
a) low pass filter
b) high pass filter c) band stop filter
d) band pass filter
8) With the knowledge of state space representation the transfer function of the system
a) can be determined partly
b) can be determined completely
c) cannot be determined
d) none of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 439

*SLRKM439*

-2-

1
0
9) The system matrix of a discrete system is given by A =
. The characteristic
3 5
equation is given by
a) z2 + 5z + 3 = 0

b) z2 3z 5 = 0

c) z2 + 3z + 5 = 0

d) z2 + z + 2 = 0

10) The state space representation of a given control system is


a) unique
b) not unique
c) sometimes unique sometimes not unique
d) unique for the given mathematical model
11) The term backlash is associated with
a) servomotors
b) induction relays c) gear trains

d) none of these

12) For which of the following reasons nonlinearities are introduced ?


a) To simplify the system
b) To achieve special characteristics
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
13) __________ is the nonlinearity caused by servomotor.
a) Dead space
b) Saturation
c) Backlash

d) Static friction

14) Which one of the following rules determines the mapping of s-plane to z-plane ?
a) Right half of the s-plane maps into outside of the unit circle in z-plane
b) Left half of s-plane maps into inside of the unit circle
c) Imaginary axis in s-plane maps into the circumference of the unit circle
d) All of the above
15) Which of the following is an example of intentional nonlinear system ?
a) Contractor serves
b) Nonlinear pitch or dampers in aircraft control
c) On-Off transducers
d) All of the above
16) If u(t) is the unit step and ( t) is the unit impulse function, the inverse z-transform of
F (z) =

1
z + 1 for k > 0 is

a) ( 1)k (k )

b) (k) ( 1)k

c) (1)k u(k)

d) u(k) (1)k

17) For a unity feedback system, the origin of the s-plane is mapped in the z-plane by
transformation z = esT to which one of the following ?
a) Origin
b) 1 + j0
c) 1 + j0
d) 0 + j1
18) Leading compensation network is
a) equalizer
b) high pass filter

c) low pass filter

d) none of these

19) In order to recover the original signal from the sampled one, what is the condition to be
satisfied for sampling frequency s and highest frequency component m ?
a) m < m 2 m

b) s 2 m

c) s < m

d) s = m

20) The state variable approach can be applied to _________ system(s).


a) Time variant
b) Non-linear
c) Linear and time-invariant
d) All of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM439*

-3-

SLR-KM 439

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical & Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CONTROL SYSTEM II (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Derive the realization of lag compensator circuit with passive network.


b) Explain the procedure to design lead compensator using frequency response analysis.
c) Explain the procedure to design lag-lead compensator using root locus method.
s2 + 3s + 3
d) A feedback system is having the closed loop transfer function T (s) = 3
.
s + 2s2 + 3s + 1
Construct a state model for the system.
e) Find the state transition matrix

(t) using Laplace Transform Method.

1 x1
x 1 0
 =

x2 2 3 x 2

K
. Design a
s (1 + 2s)
suitable lag compensator so that phase margin is 40 and the steady state error for ramp
input < 0.2.

3. a) A unity feedback system has an open loop transfer function, G (s) =

b) The forward path TF of a unity feedback control system is given by G (s) =

10

K
.
s (s + 2) (s + 8)

Design a suitable lag compensator so that the system meets the following specifications.
(i) Percentage overshoot < 16% for unit step input, (ii) Steady state error < 0.125 for unit
ramp input.

10

OR

Set A

SLR-KM 439

*SLRKM439*

-4-

b) Check the controllability and observability of the state model given below :
1 1 0 0 x1

2 = 0 2 0 x2
3 0 2 1x

3
y1 1 0 0

y2 0 1 0

x1

x2
x
3

0 1

1 0 u
0 1

10

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain saturation and backlash in the nonlinear control systems.


b) Explain isocline method for construction of phase trajectories.
c) Derive the pulse transfer function of a cascaded elements.
d) Explain bilinear transformation method for stability of discrete-time control system.
e) Determine the inverse z-transform of z-domain function F (z) =
5. Solve any two :

z4
(z 1) (z 2)2

.
(102=20)

a) Derive describing function of relay with deadzone.


b) Check the stability of the sampled data control system by Juris test represented by the
equation F (z) = z 4 1.7 z 3 + 1.04 z 2 0.268 z + 0.024 = 0 .
c) Explain the transient response of discrete-time control system.
_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 440

*SLRKM440*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS (New)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.
3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
4) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201=20)
1) Microcontrollers often have
a) CPUS
b) RAM
c) ROM
d) All of the above
2) In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority ?
a) IE1
b) TF0
c) IE0
d) TF1
3) The 8-bit address bus allows access to an address range of
a) 0000 FFFF H
b) 000-FFF H
c) 00-FF H
d) 0-F H
4) Internal RAM memory of 8051 which available for general purpose use is
_____ bytes.
a) 64
b) 256
c) 32
d) 128
5) MOV A, @R0 is an example of __________ addressing mode.
a) Register indirect
b) Immediate
c) Direct
d) Indexed
6) SPI stand for
a) Serial Peripheral Interface
b) Serial Peripheral Interconnect
c) Serial Peripheral Internal
d) Serial Peripheral Intranet
7) On power up the 8051 selects bank ______
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
8) Which of the following instructions will move the contents of register 3 to the
accumulator ?
a) MOV 3R, A
b) MOV R3, A
c) MOV A, R3
d) MOV A, 3R
P.T.O.

SLR- KM 440

*SLRKM440*

-2-

9) __________ bit of PSW is user defined.


a) 05
b) 06
c) 01

d) 08

10) The 8051 has _______ 16 bit counter/timers.


a) 2
b) 3
c) 4

d) 5

11) The I/O port that does not have a dual-purpose role is
a) port 0
b) port 1
c) port 2
12) An alternate function of port pin P3.4 in the 8051 is
a) Timer 1
b) Timer 0
c) Interrupt 0

d) port 3
d) Interrupt 1

13) DAC 0808 uses _______________ method of conversion.


a) binary weighted
b) R/2R ladder
c) both a and b
d) none of this
14) In 8255 to select control register _________
a) A1 = 0, A0 = 0
b) A1 = 0, A0 = 1
d) A1 = 1, A0 = 1
c) A1 = 1, A0 = 0
15) I2 C Stands for
a) Inter Interconnected Circuit
b) Inter Internal Communication
c) Inter Integrated Circuit
d) None of this
16) To latch information presented to LCDs data pin is _________
a) H-L pulse to R/W
b) L-H pulse to R/W
c) H-L pulse to E
d) L-H pulse to E
17) MOV A, #56 H
MOV R1, #50 H
MOV 50H, # 45 H
XCHD A, @R1
What is the result at A, R1 ?
a) 56 H, 45 H
b) 45 H, 50 H

c) 50 H, 56 H

18) To clear LCD, __________ is moved to LCD.


a) 06 H
b) 01 H
c) 30 H

d) 45 H, 56 H
d) 80 H

19) Amongst the follow _________ bit ADC has better resolution.
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16
20) In power factor control relay power factor (P.F.) is improved due to
compensation of
a) Reactive power
b) Active power
c) Apparent power
d) None of this
______________
Set A

*SLRKM440*

SLR- KM 440

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS (New)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 1-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
2) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
SECTION I
2. Solve any two :

(45=20)

1) What is Microcontroller ? Differentiate between Microcontroller and


Microprocessor.
2) Name and explain the five interrupt sources of 8051. How to decide their
priorities ?
3) Draw and explain the PSW of 8051.
4) Explain the functions of following pin :
a) EA

b) PSEN

c) T0

d) T1

5) Explain Reset and Clock Circuit of 8051 Microcontroller.


3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) a) Write a program to subtract the contents of R1 of Bank 0 from the contents


of R0 of Bank2.
b) Explain the Data transfer instruction set of 8051 microcontroller.
2) a) Differentiate between RET and RETI instructions.
b) Explain the I/O port structure of 8051.
3) WAP to transfer a letter Y serially at 9600 baud rate continuously and also
to send a letter N through port 0, which is connected to display device.
Set A

SLR- KM 440

-4-

*SLRKM440*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

1) Draw and explain the ADC interfacing with 8051.


2) Draw and explain the PPI 8255 interfacing with 8051.
3) Draw and explain the 8 bit format of SCON register.
4) Write in short about SPI and I2C interfacing with 8051.
5) Explain Microcontroller based automatic power factor control relay.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

1) a) Draw interfacing of DAC 0808 with 8051.


b) Draw interfacing of seven segments LED with 8051.
2) Interface (44) matrix type keyboard and (162) LCD display to 8051. Write
a program to display key code on display.
3) Mention RS232 standards and also explain RS232 handshaking signals of
DB-9 pin configuration.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 441 A

*SLRKM441A*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015
SELF LEARNING (TECHNICAL)
Industrial Management
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book


Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct answer :

10

1) ___________ is the process by which managers select, train, promote and retire
their subordinates.
a) Directing
b) Staffing
c) Controlling
d) Planning
2) Planning is ________
a) Measurement and correction of the performance of subordinates
b) Selection from among alternative of future courses of action
c) What is to be done within a time frame
d) Getting things done through others
3) Objectives should always be set by _________
a) The board of directors
b) Middle management
c) Lower management
d) Level authorised to initiate and approve a programme
4) The art of getting work done through people is called as __________
a) Business
b) Management
c) Industry
d) Ownership
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 441 A

-2-

*SLRKM441A*

5) At the _________ the conceptual and design abilities and human skills are
especially valuable.
a) Middle Management level
b) Top Management level
c) Lower Management level
d) All levels
6) Entrepreneurial role, disturbance-handler role are __________ managerial roles.
a) Interpersonal
b) International
c) Decision
d) Leading
7) _________ is any paid form of non personal presentation and promotion of goods
and services or ideas by an identified sponsors.
a) Marketing
b) Selling
c) Advertising
d) None of above
8) To earn more profit the capital should be _________
a) maximised
b) minimized
c) same

d) cant say

9) _________ funds are required to meet the working capital needs like investment
in inventories, debtors, bank balance, cash on hand, marketable security etc.
a) Long term
b) Short term
c) Middle term
d) Fixed
10) _________ is the process by which goods and services are created.
a) Marketing
b) Production
c) Advertising
d) Selling

______________

Set A

*SLRKM441A*

-3-

SLR-KM 441 A

Seat
No.

T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2015
SELF LEARNING (TECHNICAL)
Industrial Management
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

N.B. : 1) Figure to the right indicate full marks.


2) Solve any four questions from Q.2 to Q.6.
2. a) Explain the concept of scientific management approach.
b) What are the elements of customer satisfaction in marketing ?
3. a) What are the objectives of financial management ?

5
5
5

b) What are the sources of financing ?

4. Explain functions of management in detail.

10

5. a) Explain concept of performance appraisal.


b) Explain recruitment and selection process in H.R.
6. Write short notes on following (any two) :

5
5
(52=10)

a) Monetary policy
b) Functions of banks
c) Inventory management.
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 442

*SLRKM442*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) What is meant by drive ?


a) Motion control

b) Power control

c) Voltage control

d) None of these

2) The motor commonly used in computers and digital systems is


a) dc shunt motor

b) induction motor

c) stepper motor

d) synchronous motor

3) The efficiency by using rotor resistance control in I.M. is


a) High

b) Low

c) Very high

d) None of these

4) Effect of friction torque is more pronounced


a) When drive is running on full load
b) When drive is being started
c) When drive is being stop
d) When drive is running at half the rated speed
5) To get speed higher than the base speed of the dc shunt motor
a) Armature resistance control is used

b) Field resistance control is used

c) Armature voltage control is used

d) None of these

6) During regenerative braking mode, back emf is __________ than supply voltage.
a) Less

b) More

c) Equal to

d) None of these

7) What is meant by plugging ?


a) Phase sequence of supply is reversed
b) Disconnecting source
c) Stored energy is dissipated
d) All of these
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 442

*SLRKM442*

-2-

8) Speed control of IM drives is possible from


a) Rotor side only

b) Stator side only

c) Stator and Rotor side

d) None of these

9) The equilibrium speed of a motor load system is obtained


a) When motor torque equals the load torque
b) When motor torque is less than the load torque
c) When motor torque is more than the load torque
d) None of these
10) The variable frequency supply to I.M. for speed control can be made available using
a) VSI
b) CSI
c) Cycloconverter d) All of these
11) Speed of separately excited motor depend upon __________
a) Armature voltage b) Flux
c) Both a) and b)

d) Current

12) For plugging operation the armature voltage and back emf are in __________ direction.
a) Same
b) Opposite
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
13) To save the energy during braking
a) Dynamic braking is used
c) Regenerative braking is used

b) Plugging is used
d) Mechanical braking is used

dm
14) The torque component J
is called dynamic torque because it is present only during
dt
a) Starting

b) Braking

c) Steady State

d) Transient

15) Torque of a separately excited D.C. motor is directly proportional to


a) I a

b) (I a)2

c)

Ia

d) None of these

16) Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for
a) Fan and pump drives
b) Drive of a crane
c) Running it as generator
d) Constant load drive
17) Full Converter operates in __________ and __________ quadrant.
a) First, Third
b) First, Fourth
c) First, Second
d) Third, Fourth
18) With rotor resistance control using chopper; the equivalent resistance included in the
rotor winding of an I.M. is
a) R +

b) R (1 )

c)

R
(1 )

d) None of these

19) As rotor resistance increases the maximum torque of I.M. __________


a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not change
d) First increases and then decreases
20) In VSI I.M. drives, r.m.s. value of the fundamental phase voltage is
a)

2
Vd

b)

3
Vd
2
______________

Vd

c)

d)

1
3

Vd

Set A

*SLRKM442*

-3-

SLR-KM 442

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Draw and explain speed torque curves of single phase half controlled rectifier fed
separately excited d.c.motor.
b) What is dual converter, explain how rotation of d.c. motor is reversed in dual converter ?
c) How do you define passive and active load torques and what are the differences between
them ?
d) A 220 V, 1500 rpm, 50 A separately excited motor with armature resistance 0.5 ohm is fed
from a circulating current dual converter with A.C. source voltage (line) of 165 volts.
Determine converter firing angles for the following operating points :
i) Motoring operation at rated motor torque and 1000 rpm.
ii) Braking operation at rated motor torque and 1000 rpm.
e) Draw the following characteristics for d.c. series motor and explain :
a) Speed-torque characteristic
b) Torque-current characteristics.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) What is stability of electric drive systems ? What are the different criterions ? Derive
conditions for any one stability.
b) 2 pole separately excited d.c. motor has the ratings of 220 V, 100 A and 750 RPM.
Resistance of armature is 0.1 ohm. The motor has two field coils which are normally
connected in parallel. It is used to drive a load whose torque is expressed as
TL = (500 0.3 N) Newton meter where N is the motor speed in RPM. Speeds below and
above rated are obtained by armature voltage control and by connecting two field windings
in series respectively. Calculate motor armature current and speed when armature voltage
in reduced to 110 V, calculate motor current and speed when field coils are connected in
series.

Set A

SLR-KM 442

*SLRKM442*

-4-

c) 220 V, 70 A d.c. series motor has combined resistances of armature and field of 0.12 .
Running on no load with the field winding connected to separate source gave following
magnetisation curve at 600 RPM :
Field Amps

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

80

Terminal voltage V

64

118

150

170

184

194

202

210

Motor is controlled by a chopper with source voltage 220 V, calculate :


i) Motor speed for duty ratio of 0.6 and motor current of 60 A.
ii) Torque for speed of 400 RPM and duty ratio 0.65.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four :

(54)

1) With neat circuit diagram and waveform explain static Kramers drive system.
2) Write short note on battery operated drive system.
3) Explain static rotor resistance control and derive RrT.
4) A 2.8 KW, 400 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole, 1370 rpm, delta connected squirrel-cage I.M. has following
parameters referred to the stator. Rs = 2 , Rr = 5 , Xs = Xv = 5 , Xm = 80 .
Motor speed controlled by stator voltage control. When driving a fan load it runs at rated
speed at rated voltage. Calculate motor terminal voltage, current and torque at 1200 rpm.
5) Explain the operation of brushless DC motor drive system with circuit diagram.
5. Attempt any two :

(102)

1) A Y-connected squirrel-cage induction motor has following ratings and parameters 400 V,
50 Hz, 4 pole, 1370 rpm, Rs = 2 , Rr = 3 , Xs = Xr = 3.5 , Xm = 55 . It is
controlled by a current source inverter at constant flux. Calculate motor torque, speed
and stator current when operating at 30 Hz and rated slip speed.
2) A 440 V, 50 Hz, 970 rpm, 6 pole, 3 wound rotor induction motor has following
parameters referred to the stator. Rs = 0.1 , Rr = 0.08 , Xs = 0.3 , Xr = 0.4 .
The stator to rotor turn ratio is 2. Motor speed is controlled by Scherbius drive. Drive is
designed for a speed range of 25% below the synchronous speed. Maximum value of
firing angle is 165. Calculate :
1) Transformers turn ratio.
2) Torque for a speed of 780 rpm and = 140.
3) Explain VSI fed synchronous motor drive with variable frequency control.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 443

*SLRKM443*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. :

Max. Marks : 100

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) Managing is best defined as


a) Decision making
b) Getting things done through sub-ordinates
c) Planning
d) Creating a climate conductive to goal accomplishment
2) The enterprise owned and managed by state is called as
a) Private company
b) Public company
c) Joint stock company
d) Partnership firm
3) In __________ function of management the actual performance of sub-ordinates is guided
towards common goal.
a) Staffing
b) Controlling
c) Leadership
d) Directing
4) __________ is not a function of management.
a) Forecasting
b) Planning
c) Selling

d) Staffing

5) Effective managing does not require


a) Education
b) Leadership

d) Money

c) Punctuality

6) __________ is the process by which managers selects, train promote and retire their
sub-ordinates.
a) Directing
b) Staffing
c) Controlling
d) Planning
7) MIS stands for
a) Management Information System
c) Managerial Information System

b) Management Integrated System


d) Managerial Investigation System

8) Which of the skill is most needed for top level managers ?


a) Technical and human
b) Technical and conceptual
c) Only human
d) Human and conceptual
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 443

*SLRKM443*

-2-

9) Scientific management focused on


a) One best way to solve operating problems
c) Scientific selection procedures
10) A test of sound objective is
a) it is too low
c) it is set for long time period

b) Standardization of working conditions


d) All of the above

b) it is complex
d) it is specific

11) Group decisions can be superior over individual decisions when


a) Tasks are unstructured
b) When time for decision making is limited
c) Subordinates are being trained in decision making
d) None of above
12) Small scale industries employ ___________ peoples.
a) 10 to 100
b) 20 to 50
c) 10 to 50

d) 50 to 100

13) A joint stock company consist of more than __________ persons.


a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) No limitation
14) If the purchase price/unit is Rs. 40, variable cost/unit is Rs. 24 and fixed cost is
Rs. 72,000/- then calculate break even point in units.
a) 3,000
b) 2,000
c) 4,500
d) 6,000
15) In pay back period method the return is to be considered as
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Constant

d) None of above

16) In cost reduction process the reduction due to __________ are not treated as cost
reduction.
a) Wind falls
b) Fortunous receipts
c) Change in govt. policy
d) All of above
17) Which of the following statement is false ?
a) Objective should be specific
b) Objective must be set in terms of performance and results
c) Objectives must always be set by top management
d) Objective from network
18) Pooled decision making is
a) Taking decisions by pooling several problems
b) Taking decisions by pooling long term impacts
c) Taking decisions by pooling authority of managers
d) Taking a decisions by pooling up programmed decisions
19) Which of the following statement is false statement
a) The classical model of decision making describes how decisions are actually made
b) The classical model of decision making is prescriptive approach
c) The classical model of decision making is based on economic assumptions
d) The administrative model of decision making is normative approach
20) What is mean by making objective actionable ?
a) Enterprise should not have antisocial objectives
b) Objectives should be definite and their accomplished capable of measurement
c) Making a budget for plan
d) Both a) and b)
______________

Set A

*SLRKM443*

-3-

SLR-KM 443

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I

2. a) Explain advantages of partnership firm.


b) Explain make and buy decision.
3. Explain in detail infrastructure of Indian economy.
OR
Explain in details tools of engineering economics.
4. Write short notes on any four :
a) Five year plan in Indian economy
b) Joint stock company
c) Line and staff organization
d) Organization structure and characteristics
e) Public sector companies.

5
5
10
10
(54=20)

SECTION II
5. Explain functions of management in details.

10

6. Explain project proposal process in details.


OR
Explain definition, types, functions and qualities of entrepreneur.

10

7. Write short notes on any four :


a) Management information system
b) Industrial safety
c) Tiny industry
d) Industrial policies for small scale industry
e) Cottage industry.

10
(54=20)

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 444

*SLRKM444*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) Loading effect is principally caused by ________ instruments.
a) High resistance
b) Low sensitivity
c) High sensitivity
d) High range
2) Digital instruments are those which
a) Have numerical read out
c) Have circuitary of digital design

Marks : 20
(120=20)

b) Use LED or LCD displays


d) Use deflection type meter

3) A video frequency oscillator has frequency range of


a) 20 Hz to 20 KHz
b) 20 KHz to 30 MHz
c) DC to 5 MHz
d) 2 MHz to 30 MHz
4) A triangular wave shape is obtained by
a) Integrating square wave
c) Differentiating sine wave

b) Differentiating square wave


d) Integrating sine wave

5) The properties of an ideal opamp are


a) It should have zero input impedance
c) Should have a zero open loop gain

b) It should have high input impedance


d) none of above

6) Filters that transmit all frequencies below a defined cut-off frequency are known as
a) Low-pass filters
b) High-pass filters
c) Band-pass filters
d) Any of these
7) Magnetic tape recorders have
a) A wide frequency range
c) A low distortion

b) A wide dynamic range


d) All of the above

8) Digital instruments have a input impedance of the order of


a)
b) k
c) M

d) m

9) A vertical amplifier for a CRO can be designed for


a)
b)
c)
d)

Only a high gain


Only a broad bandwidth
A constant gain times bandwidth product
All of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 444

*SLRKM444*

-2-

10) Post acceleration needed in CRO if frequency of signal is


a) less than 1 MHz
b) more than 1 MHz
c) more than 10 MHz
d) more than 10 Hz
11) The turn on and turn off time of LCD are of order of
a) 1 sec.

b) 1 mili sec.

c) 10 micro sec.

d) 10 nano sec.

12) Digital instruments have input impedance of the order of


a)

b) Kilo

c) Mega

d) Mili

13) If four flip flops are connected in cascade they give as


a) 2 : 1 scalar

b) 4 : 1 scalar

c) 8 : 1 scalar

d) 16 : 1 scalar

14) Which of following is the visual display unit ?


a) Cathod Ray Oscilloscope
c) Storage oscilloscope

b) UV recorder
d) Moving coil oscillo graph

15) XY recorders
a)
b)
c)
d)

Record one quantity with respect to another quantity


Record one quantity on X axis with respect to time on Y axis
Record one quantity on Y axis with respect to time on X axis
Any of above

16) The resolution of a system refers to


a)
b)
c)
d)

Smallest change in measure and that can be measured


Time value of input
Retardation of the response
None of above

17) Tachometers are used to measure


a) Displacement
c) Vibration

b) Angular velocity
d) Time

18) During the retrace time, the electron forming the horizontal beam
a)
b)
c)
d)

move from left to right on screen


move from right to left on screen
move from bottom to top on screen
move from top to bottom on screen

19) The current sensitivity of a meter is expressed in


a) Ampere
c) Ohm/volt

b) Ohm/ampere
d) Ampere/division

20) A buffer amplifier has gain of


a) infinity
c) unity

b) zero
d) dependent upon circuit parameter
______________

Set A

*SLRKM444*

-3-

SLR-KM 444

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2015


INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Write a short note on sample and hold circuit.


b) Explain the different characteristics while selecting a transducer for any application.
c) Write a short note on electromagnetic flow meter.
d) Define and classify errors in an instrument.
e) Explain chopper stabilised amplifier.
3. Solve the following :

(210=20)

a) Explain the function of active filters. Draw the neat diagram of high pass butterworth filter
and explain its function.
b) Classify different types of analog to digital converter. Explain the dual slope integrator
method in detail.
OR
b) Explain the frequency to voltage converter.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain in detail the block diagram of telemetry system.


b) Explain digital input and output devices.
c) Explain the digital method for measurement of speed.
d) Describe digital to analog converter.
e) Explain seven segment display.

Set A

SLR-KM 444

-4-

5. Solve any two :

*SLRKM444*
(210=20)

a) Explain the following with detail illustration :


1) Amplitude modulation
2) Frequency modulation
b) Explain ladder diagram construction of PLC system.
c) Explain the working of strip chart recorder.

Set A

SLR-KM 445

*SLRKM445*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Part I) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015


POWER SYSTEM II (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.


2) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget
to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions


Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) A balanced 3-phase system consist of


a) Zero sequence currents only
b) Positive sequence currents only
c) Negative sequence currents only
d) Zero, positive and negative sequence currents only
2) In case of an unbalanced star-connected load supplied from an unbalanced 3-phase, 3-wire system,
load currents will consist of
a) Zero sequence components
b) Positive sequence components
c) Negative sequence components
d) Only a) and b)
3) The p.u. synchronous impedance of a machine is 2.0 p.u., its SCR is
a) 2
b) 1.414
c) 0.5

d) 0.707

4) Zero sequence fault current is absent when fault is


a) Single line to ground fault
b) Line to line fault
c) Double line to ground fault
d) None of the above
5) Negative sequence reactance of a transformer is
a) Equal to the positive sequence reactance
c) Smaller than the positive sequence reactance

b) Lesser than the positive sequence reactance


d) None of the above

6) Failure of insulation on stator winding of generator results in


a) Short circuit between turns
b) Short circuit between one or more phases and earth
c) Short circuit between phases
d) All of the above
7) Load flow study is carried out for
a) Load frequency control
c) Fault calculation

b) Planning of power system


d) Study of stability of the system

8) Load bus is specified by


a) P and V
b) P and

c) P and IVI

d) P and Q

9) The main reason for using high voltage for long distance power transmission is
a) Reduction in transmission losses
b) Reduction in time of transmission
c) Increase in system reliability
d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 445

*SLRKM445*

-2-

10) The main objectives of load frequency control in power system are
a) To bring the steady state error to zero after load change and to maintain the net tie-line flow
b) To maintain voltages on all buses
c) To economize the cost of generation
d) All of the above
11) The positive-negative-and zero-sequence impedance of a solidly grounded system under steady
state condition always follow the relations
a) Z0<Z1<Z2
b) Z1>Z2>Z0
c) Z1>Z2>Z3
d) Z0>Z1>Z2
12) Steady state stability of power system is the ability of the power system to
a) Maintain voltage at the rated voltage level
b) Maintain frequency exactly at 50 Hz
c) Maintain a spinning reserve margin at all times
d) Maintain synchronism between machines and on external tie lines
13) The stability of power system is not affected by
a) Generator reactance b) Line reactance
c) Line losses
14) The equal area criterion of stability is used for
a) No load on the bus-bar
c) More than one machine and infinite bus-bar

d) Excitation of generators

b) One machine and infinite bus-bar


d) None of the above

15) With fault clearing time, the transient stability limit of a power system
a) Increases
b) First increases and then decreases
c) Decreases
d) First decreases and then increases
16) For what value of damping parameter, the transient stability is assured by equal area criterion ?
a) If only damping is exactly zero
b) Independent of systems damping
c) For all values of damping parameters
d) If only damping is positive and finite
17) In a multimachine interconnected system, subsequent to a 3-phase fault, the transient stability is
examined by
a) Equal area criterion
b) Solution of swing equation
c) Either by equal area criterion or by solution of swing equation
d) Combination of equal area criterion and by solution of swing equation
18) In power system, the maximum number of buses are
a) Generator buses
b) Slack buses
c) P-V buses

d) Load buses

19) The incremental fuel cost characteristic of the two generating units in a plant are
IC1 = 0.1 P1 + 8.0 Rs./MWh
IC2 = 0.15 P2 + 3.0 Rs./MWh
When the total load is 100 MW, the optimum sharing of the load is
a)
b)
c)
d)

P1
40 MW
33.3 MW
60 MW
66.7 MW

P2
60 MW
66.7 MW
40 MW
33.3 MW

20) The power angle characteristic of machine-infinite bus system is Pc = 2 sin

pu. It is operating at

= 30 which one of following is the synchronizing power coefficient at the operating point ?
a) 1.0

b) 3

c) 2.0

d) 1/3

______________

Set A

*SLRKM445*

-3-

SLR-KM 445

Seat
No.

B.E. (Part I) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2015


POWER SYSTEM II (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.


2) Attempt any two questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Draw block diagram of automatic voltage control.


2) Draw the diagram of turbine speed governing system.
3) Draw zero sequence networks for transformer connections such as star-star, star-delta, delta-delta
and delta-star.
4) Show the open conductors fault connections of sequence network.
5) Differentiate between symmetrical and unsymmetrical faults.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) A 25 MVA, 11 KV, three phase generator has a substransient reactance of 20%. The generator
supplies two motors over a transmission line with transformers at both ends as shown in the one-line
diagram of fig. (a). The motors have rated inputs of 15 and 7.5 MVA, both 10 kV with 25% subtransient
reactance. The three phase transformers are both rated 30 MVA, 10.8/121 kV, connection -Y with
leakage reactance of 10% each. The series reactance of the line is 100 . Draw the positive and
negative sequence networks of the system with reactance marked in per unit.

Fig. (a)
Assume that the ve sequence reactance of each machine is equal to its subtransient reactance.
Omit resistances.

Set A

SLR-KM 445

-4-

*SLRKM445*

2) The one line diagram of a two generator system is shown in fig. (b) redraw the diagram to show all
values in per unit on a 7000 kVA base i.e. (7 MVA base).

Fig. (b)
3) Explain load frequency control system.

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Draw the block diagram of power system static security levels.


2) Draw the curve of input-output curve of a generating unit and heat rate curve.
3) Explain the dynamic of a synchronous machine.
4) Derive the swing equations.
5) Explain steady state and transient stability.
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) Explain the concept of equal area criterion.


2) Derive condition for economic operation of power plant feeding common loads.
3) Analyze the equal area criterion, consider several types of disturbance that may occur in a single
machine busbar system.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 446

*SLRKM446*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (E&E) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :

(201=20)

1) Hydrogen can play an important role as an alternative fuel to conventional fuel as


A) An energy carrier
B) An energy device
C) A fossil fuel source
D) An energy system
2) The source of energy for satellite is
A) Battery
C) Cryogenic storage

B) Solar cell
D) Any of the above

3) If the velocity of wind is doubled, then the power output will increase by
A) 10 times
B) 8 times
C) 2 times
D) 6 times
4) The electrical output of a solar cell depends on the
A) Intensity of solar radiation
B) Heat component of solar radiation
C) Ultraviolet radiation
D) Infrared radiation
5) What does SPV stand for with respect to solar energy ?
A) Solar photovoltaic
B) Solid platevoltaic
C) Solar platevoids
D) None of the above
6) Solar energy travels through space by the process of
A) Conduction
B) Convection
C) Radiation
D) Transportation
7) Which of the following energy originate from the ocean ?
A) Tidal energy
B) Sea energy
C) Wind energy
D) Hydropower
8) A typical insulation material used in a solar collector is
A) Fibre glass
B) Cotton
C) Glass wool
D) None of the above
9) Which of the following sources emit fewer pollutants ?
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Charcoal

D) Wind energy
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 446

*SLRKM446*

-2-

10) Which of the following solar cookers is the most efficient and has the shortest
cooking time ?
A) Box cooker
B) Parabolic cooker
C) Panel cooker
D) Cardboard type cooker
11) Another name for a windmill is
A) Wind farm
C) Wind station

B) Propeller
D) Wind turbine

12) Lower speed wind turbines are mainly driven by


A) Drag forces
B) Lift forces
C) Push forces
D) None of the above
13) In petro thermal systems of geothermal energy there is hot dry rock but no
underground water. In such systems energy is obtained by
A) Circulating compressed air
B) Pumping water
C) Creating water wells
D) None of the above
14) When geothermal energy is available in the form of saline water, power is
developed using
A) flashed-steam system
B) binary-cycle system
C) total flow system
D) any of the above
15) In hydrothermal source of geothermal energy
A) hot water or steam is available
B) hot gases are available
C) molten lava is available
D) none of the above
16) Biomass can be converted into
A) Liquid fuel
C) Producer Gas

B) Hydrogen
D) All of the above

17) Gasification of biomass is a


A) Biochemical conversion process
B) Chemical conversion process
C) Thermochemical conversion process
D) Biological conversion process
18) A solar pond is a combination of which of the following combinations ?
A) Solar energy collection and heat storage
B) Solar energy storage and heat collection
C) Solar energy collection and energy storage
D) None of the above
19) Ocean and sea waves are indirectly caused due to
A) Pressure gradients
B) Solar energy
C) Geothermal energy
D) None of the above
20) The maximum theoretical efficiencies of solar sales could be around
A) 99%
B) 60%
C) 48%
D) 1%

______________

Set A

*SLRKM446*

-3-

SLR-KM 446

Seat
No.

B.E. (E&E) (Part I) Examination, 2015


Elective I : RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 questions :

(5 Marks each)

1) What is the Indian Scenario in the field of non conventional energy resources
an economic growth.
2) With the help of neat sketch describe PV module and array.
3) Draw and explain VI characteristics of PV cell.
4) Define :
1) pitch and yaw control
2) cut in speed
3) cut out speed
4) tip speed ratio
5) swept area.
5) Write a short note on :
1) solar pond
2) solar stills.
3. Attempt any 2 questions :

(10 Marks each)

1) Explain with neat sketch :


i) Pyranometer
ii) pyrheliometer
2) Describe with neat sketches various types of concentrating collectors.
3) Explain with neat sketch parts of wind turbine.

Set A

SLR-KM 446

-4-

*SLRKM446*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 questions :

(5 Marks each)

1) Explain and classify various geothermal resources.


2) Write the advantages and disadvantages of hydrogen to use as a fuel.
3) Explain with neat sketch steam reforming for production of hydrogen.
4) State the various factors to be considered while designing the biogas plat.
5) Explain with neat sketch working of OTEC system.
5. Attempt any 2 questions :

(10 Marks each)

1) Explain with neat sketch :


1) floating drum digester
2) fixed dome digester.
2) Explain the following OTEC cycle
a) open cycle
b) closed cycle
c) hybrid cycle
3) Draw and explain schematic diagram of geothermal system.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 447

*SLRKM447*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
4) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) A synchronous motor is found to be more economical when the load is above


a) 1 KW
b) 10 KW
c) 20 KW
d) 100 KW
2) The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is
a) high power factor
b) better efficiency
c) lower cost
d) all of above
3) In motor circuit, static frequency changers are used for
a) power factor improvement
b) improved cooling
c) reversal of direction
d) speed regulation
4) The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering is
a) smooth movement
b) precise control
c) fast speed control
d) all of above
5) The number of set used in pole changing type squirrel cage motors for Derricks
and Winches is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
6) During regenerative braking
a) E < V
c) E = V

b) E > V
d) None of above

7) The conduction period for a thyristor in 3 full converter connected to high inductive
load is
a) 120
b) 180
c) 60
d) 360
8) In which of the following application ac drives are used ?
a) fans
b) blowers
c) mill run out tables
d) all of above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 447

*SLRKM447*

-2-

9) The variable frequency supply to IM for speed control can be made available using
a) VSI
b) CSI
c) Cycloconverter
d) All
10) For variable speed application, the suitable motor is
a) Squirrel cage IM
b) Slip ring IM
c) Both of this
d) None of above
11) When smooth and precise speed control over the wide range is desired, the motor
preferred is
a) Synchronous motor
b) Squirrel cage IM
c) Wound rotor IM
d) DC motor
12) When quick speed reversal consideration, the motor preferred is
a) Synchronous motor
b) Squirrel cage IM
c) Wound rotor IM
d) DC motor
13) Stator voltage control for speed control of IM is suitable for
a) fan and pump drives
b) drive of crane
c) running it as generator
d) constant load drive
14) The selection of control gear for a particular application is based on the
consideration of
a) duty
b) starting torque
c) limitations on starting current
d) all of above
15) As compared to squirrel cage IM, a wound rotor IM is preferred when the major
consideration is
a) high starting torque
b) low starting current
c) speed control over limited range
d) any of above
16) What is mean by drive ?
a) motion control
c) voltage control

b) power control
d) none of these

17) The efficiency by using rotor resistance control in IM is


a) high
b) low
c) very high

d) very low

18) Effect of friction torque is more pronounced


a) When the drive is running on full speed
b) When the drive is being started
c) When the drive is being stopped
d) When drive at half of its normal speed
19) How many thyristors are required to construct load commutated inverter for
synchronous motor drive
a) 3
b) 6
c) 12
d) 24
20) For high frequency chopper the device that is preferred is
a) Thyristors
b) TRIAC
c) Transistor

d) GTO

______________

Set A

*SLRKM447*

-3-

SLR-KM 447

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL (New)
Day and Date : Friday, 4-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.


2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain the function of power modulator in electrical drives.


b) Give classification of drives.
c) Explain fundamental torque equation in detail.
d) A drive has following parameters :
J = 10 kg-m2, T =100-0.1N, Nm, passive load torque T1 = 0.05 N, Nm where
N is speed in rpm. Initially, the drive is operating in steady state. Now, it is to
be reversed. For this, motor characteritstics is changed to T = 100-0.1N,
Nm. Calculate the time of reversal.
e) Draw block diagram of electrical drives and explain it.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) A 220 V, 1000 rpm, 75A dc separately excited motor has an armature resistance
of 0.05 ohm. It is braked by plugging from an initial speed of 1200 rpm.
Calculate :
i) Resistance to be placed in armature circuit to twice full load torque.
ii) Braking torque
iii) Torque when speed has fallen to zero.
b) Explain braking methods of DC drives with necessary diagram.
c) Explain closed loop torque control and closed loop speed control with block
diagram.
Set A

SLR-KM 447

-4-

*SLRKM447*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain stator voltage control of 3 IM by ac regulator.


b) Difference between CSI and VSI.
c) A 440 V, 50 Hz, 6 pole Y-connected wound rotor motor has following parameters
RS = 0.5 , Rr = 0.4 , Xs = Xr = 1.2 , Xm = 50 . Stator to rotor turn
ratio is 3.5. Motor is controlled by static rotor resistance control. External
resistance is chosen such that breakdown torque is produced at standstill for
duty ratio of zero. Calculate value of external resistance.
d) Explain operation battery operated drives.
e) Explain static Krammer drive with block diagram and waveforms.
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) Explain Slip power recovery scheme with needed diagram.


b) A 440 V, 50 Hz , 970 rpm, 6 pole, star connected, 3 wound rotor IM has
following parameter referred to stator :
Rs = 0.1 , Rr = 0.08 , Xs = 0.3 , Xr = 0.4 . Stator to rotor turn ratio
is 2.
Motor speed is controlled by static scherbius drive. Drive is designed for
speed range of 25% below synchronous speed. Maximum value of firing
angle 165. Calculate :
i) Transformer turns ratio
ii) Torque for the speed of 780 rpm and = 140
[Note : Rd = 0.01 ].
c) A 3 , 400 V, 6 pole, 50 Hz, delta connected, slip ring IM has rotor resitance
of 0.2 and leakage reactance of 1 per phase referred to stator. When
driving a fan load it runs at full load at 4% slip. What resistance must be
inserted in rotor circuit to obtain speed of 850 rpm. Neglect stator impedance
and magnetizing branch. Stator to rotor turn ratio 2.2.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 448

*SLRKM448*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL ENERGY UTILIZATION AND TRACTION (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Solve the following :

20

1) In a steam locomotive electric power is provided through


A) Battery system
B) Diesel engine generator
C) Overhead wire
D) Small turbo generator
2) Carbon are lamps are commonly used in
A) Domestic lighting
C) Cinema projectors

B) Street lighting
D) Photography

3) For the transmission of heat from one body to another


A) Temperature of the two bodies must be different
B) Both bodies must be solids
C) Both bodies must be in contact
D) None of the above
4) Long distance railways use
A) 200 V DC
C) 25 kV two phase AC

B) 25 kV single phase AC
D) 25 kV three phase AC

5) The material of the heating element for a furnace should have


A) Lower melting point
B) Higher temperature coefficient
C) High specific resistance
D) All of the above
6) Freon group of refrigerants are
A) Inflammable
C) Nontoxic and non-inflammable

B) Toxic
D) None of the above

7) Radiant efficiency of the luminous source depends on


A) Shape of the source
B) Temperature of the source
C) Wavelength of light rays
D) All of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 448

*SLRKM448*

-2-

8) Which of the following methods of heating is not dependent on the frequency of supply ?
A) Induction heating
B) Dielectric heating
C) Electric resistance heating
D) All of the above
9) Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually restricted to
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 25%
10) Suburban railways use
A) 1500 V DC
C) 660 V three phase AC

D) 50%

B) 440 V three phase AC


D) 3.3 kV three phase AC

11) Which of the following heating methods has maximum power factor ?
A) Induction heating
B) Dielectric heating
C) Electric resistance heating
D) Arc heating
12) In a resistance furnace the atmosphere is
A) Oxidizing
B) Deoxidizing

C) Reducing

13) Which motor is used in tramways ?


A) AC single phase capacitor start motor
C) DC series motor

B) AC three phase motor


D) DC shunt motor

D) Neutral

14) Light waves travel with a velocity of


A) 3 1010 cm/s

B) 3 1012 cm/s

C) 3 1015 cm/s

D) 3 1018 cm/s

15) The advantage of electric traction over other methods is


A) No pollution problems
B) Faster acceleration
C) Better braking action
D) All of the above
16) The unit of solid angle is
A) Solid angle
B) Radian

C) Steradian

D) Candela

C) 33.3C

D) 77.7C

17) The boiling point of ammonia is


A) 10.5C

B) 30C

18) Which locomotive has the highest operational availability ?


A) Diesel
B) Electric
C) Steam
D) All have same availability
19) Candela is the unit of
A) Luminous flux
C) Wavelength

B) Luminous intensity
D) None of the above

20) Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant
A) Condenser
B) Evaporator
C) Absorber
D) Condenser, absorber and separator
______________

Set A

*SLRKM448*

-3-

SLR-KM 448

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL ENERGY UTILIZATION AND TRACTION (New)
Day and Date : Monday, 7-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instruction : Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.


SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

20

1) Describe the following terms :


Refrigeration, Refrigeration system, Refrigerator, Refrigerant, Air conditioning
2) State and explain laws of illumination.
3) Explain the construction, working of direct arc furnace.
4) Differentiate between Tungsten lamp and fluorescent tube.
5) Draw and explain spot welding.
3. Solve any two :

20

1) Draw and explain circuit of sodium vapour lamp.


2) What advantages and disadvantages of electric heating ? Also explain the modes of heat
transfer.
3) Describe the electric circuit of refrigerator.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

20

1) What are advantages and disadvantages of electric traction ?


2) Explain Trapezoidal speed-time curve.
3) Explain any two current collectors for overhead system in traction.
4) With block diagram describe an EV.
5) Describe Rheostatic starting for DC motor.

Set A

SLR-KM 448

-4-

*SLRKM448*

5. Solve any two :

20

1) Derive specific energy output from speed-time curve.


2) What are the characteristics of traction motor to be required for traction system ? Also
explain suitability of DC series motor for traction work.
3) An electric train weighing 100 tonnes has a rotational inertia of 10%. This train while
running between two stations which are 2.5 km apart has an average speed of 50 kmph.
The acceleration and retardation during braking are 1 kmphps and 2 kmphps
respectively. Train has an up gradient is 1% and track resistance is 40 N/T. If the
combined efficiency of train is 60% find
i) maximum power from driving axle
ii) total energy consumption and
iii) specific energy consumption. Assume trapezoidal speed-time curve.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 449

*SLRKM449*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL INSTALLATION, TESTING AND MAINTENANCE (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.


2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
1. Choose the correct answer :

Marks : 20
20

1) Which of the following induction motor produces high starting torque ?


a) Squirrel cage
b) Slip ring
c) Double cage
d) None of the above
2) A synchronous motor is __________ motor.
a) Variable p.f.
b) Variable speed c) Singly fed
d) None of the above
3) A transformer operates poorly at very low frequencies because
a) Permeability of core is increased
b) Magnetizing current is abnormally high
c) Primary reactance is too much increased
d) None of the above
4) Merz-price circulating current principle is
a) Equally suitable for transformer and generator
b) More suitable for transformers
c) More suitable for generators
d) None of the above
5) Which of the following machine has higher thermal capability ?
a) Induction motor
b) DC motor
c) Synchronous motor
d) None of the above
6) Most severe fault in transmission line is
a) Three phase fault
b) Two phase- ground fault
c) One phase- ground fault
d) None of the above
7) The power-factor correction capability of a loaded synchronous motor ______
with the increase in mechanical load.
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remain unchanged d) None of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 449

-2-

*SLRKM449*

8) Current chopping phenomenon takes place in


a) Air break C.B. b) SF6 C.B.
c) Air blast C.B. d) Vacuum C.B.
9) When the rotor of a 3-phase induction motor is blocked, this resembles
a) Transformer on open circuit
b) Transformer on short circuit
c) Transformer on load
d) None of the above
10) The full-load slip of a 3-phase induction motor range from
a) 10% to 20%
b) 20% to 30% c) 2% to 5%
d) None of the above
11) In short circuit test on transformer, we generally short circuit
a) LV winding
b) HV winding
c) Either HV winding or LV winding d) None of the above
12) The rotor winding of a 3-phase wound rotor induction motor is generally
_______ connected.
a) Delta
b) Star
c) Partly star and partly delta
d) None of the above
13) When the synchronous motor is on no load, the axes of the rotor poles
_________ that of stator poles.
a) Are far behind
b) Are far ahead
c) Nearly coincide with
d) None of the above
14) When the primary of a transformer is connected in a d.c. supply
a) Primary draws small current
b) Primary leakage reactance is increases
c) Core losses are increases
d) Primary may burn out
15) Wound rotor motor is mainly used in applications where
a) high starting torque is required
b) speed control motor is required
c) less costly motor is not required
d) high rotor resistance is required during running
16) The torque characteristic of a 3-phase induction motor is similar to that of
a) d.c. series motor
b) d.c. shunt motor
c) d.c. differentially compounded motor
d) d.c. cumulatively compounded motor
17) The size of a synchronous motor is determined by its _____________
a) kVA rating
b) KW rating
c) kVAR rating
d) None of the above
18) The open circuit test on transformer gives
a) copper loss
b) iron loss
c) friction loss
d) none of the above
19) Damper winding in a alternator is used to
a) reduces winding losses
b) serves to start the alternator
c) improves p.f.
d) reduce hunting of the motor
20) When load on transformer will increased, the eddy current is
a) increased
b) decreased
c) remain same d) none of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM449*

-3-

SLR-KM 449

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL INSTALLATION, TESTING AND MAINTENANCE (New)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 9-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


Instruction : Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

20

1) What is polarization index ? Give its significance.


2) Explain the following facets of site management.
Erection, Testing, Commissioning.
3) State the various causes of troubles of core of power transformers.
4) State the significance of safety precautions and explain management
responsibility.
5) Explain the application of power transformer.
3. Solve any two :

20

1) What is insulation resistance ? How is it measured for power transformer ?


2) Explain the principle and application of Buchholz relay.
3) Explain the organization chart of project management during construction
period of plant.

Set A

SLR-KM 449

-4-

*SLRKM449*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

20

1) State important specification to be considered for selection of induction


motor.
2) Explain slip test on synchronous motors.
3) Explain the safety precautions to be taken in maintenance of a circuit breaker.
4) State the standard tests necessary on synchronous motors.
5) Explain no load test on induction motor.
5. Solve any two :

20

1) Explain routine test, type test and commissioning test on induction motor.
2) Describe the purpose and procedure of power frequency voltage withstand
tests on synchronous machines.
3) Which ratings are to be considered during selection of circuit breakers ?
Which are the other conditions for selections ?
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 450

*SLRKM450*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (E&E) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(201=20)

1) A fuse is connected
A) in parallel with circuit
B) in series with circuit
C) either in parallel or in series with circuit
D) all of the above
2) From the view point of RRRV the more severe fault is
A) long length line fault
B) short length line fault
C) medium length line fault
D) none of the above
3) A fuse wire possesses
A) direct time characteristics
C) flat type horizontal characteristics

B) inverse time characteristics


D) flat type vertical characteristics

4) Breaking of capacitive current results in


A) voltage surges
B) open circuits
C) short circuits
D) both B and C
5) The automatic device which operates at preset values is known as
A) fuse
B) relay
C) connector
D) mercury switch
6) The time between cut-off and final current zero in HRC fuse is known as
A) arcing time
B) pre-arcing time
C) operating time
D) break time
7) Which statement is correct ?
A) SF6 gas is nontoxic
C) SF6 gas has pungent smell

B) SF6 gas is lighter than air


D) SF6 gas is yellow in color

8) Air used in air blast circuit breaker


A) must be ionized
C) must have least CO2

B) must have oil mist


D) must be free from moisture

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 450

*SLRKM450*

-2-

9) Ionization in a circuit breaker is not facilitated by


A) high temperature of surrounding medium
B) increase of field strength
C) material of contacts
D) increase of mean free path
10) Basic problem of a circuit breaker is
A) extinguish the arc
C) emit the ionizing electrons

B) maintain the arc


D) transmit large power

11) Admittance relay is


A) Non-directional relay
C) Differential relay

B) Directional relay
D) None of the above

12) A relay operating coil is supplied through


A) power transformers
B) instrument transformer
C) distribution transformer
D) none of the above
13) Lightning arrestors at a substation is connected at
A) over the tower
B) across the lines
C) across the line and earth
D) across line and neutral
14) MHO relay is used for
A) rectifiers
C) transmission lines

B) circuit breakers
D) feeders

15) A current differential relay can be used to protect the equipment against
A) over current
B) over load
C) reverse current
D) internal faults
16) The operation of the following relay is instantaneous
A) impedance relay
B) definite impedance relay
C) overcurrent relay
D) MHO relay
17) Lightning arrester operates at
A) a preferred voltage
C) system rms voltage

B) system peak voltage


D) system average voltage

18) Lightning arrester discharge current is


A) system average voltage
C) system rms current

B) system peak current


D) none of the above

19) The relay operating speed depends upon


A) the spring tension
B) rate of flux built up
C) armature core air gap
D) all of the above
20) Low impedance path exists in the Lightning arrester
A) always
B) at the instant of over voltage
C) before over voltage
D) after over voltage

______________
Set A

*SLRKM450*

-3-

SLR-KM 450

Seat
No.

B.E. (E&E) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 questions :

(5 marks each)

1) Write a short note on earth Blades.


2) Explain the points to be considered while selecting a fuse.
3) The short circuit current of a 132 KV system is 8000A. The current chopping occurs
at 2.5 % of peak value of the current. Calculate the prospective value of the voltage
which will appear across the contacts of the circuit breaker. The value of stray
capacitance to the earth is 100 pF. (4.9 MV).
4) Explain construction and working of minimum oil circuit breaker.
5) Write a short note on AC and DC circuit breaking.
3. Attempt any 2 questions :

(10 marks each)

1) Explain the terms restriking voltage and recovery voltage and RRRV. Derive
expression for restriking voltage and RRRV in terms of system voltage, inductance
and capacitance.
2) Explain the following terms :
a) Fuse element
b) Fusing factor
c) Arcing and pre-arcing time
d) Cut-off current
e) Rupturing capacity
3) With the help of neat sketch explain construction, arc extinction and recovery in
vacuum circuit breaker.

Set A

SLR-KM 450

*SLRKM450*

-4-

SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 questions :

(5 marks each)

1) Write a short note on Directional over current relay.


2) How can the magnitude of over voltages due to direct and indirect lightning strokes
on overhead lines be calculated ?
3) Discuss various zones of protection for a modern power system.
4) How can a quadrilateral distance relay be realized using a microprocessor ?
5) Write a short note on metal oxide arrestors.
5. Attempt any 2 questions :

(10 marks each)

1) Describe the construction and working principle of

a) Static over current relay


b) Induction type Reactance relay
2) a) Describe the principle of operation and working of IDMT relay.

b) The current rating of relay is 5.0 amps. P.S.M. 1.5, TSM 0.4 and C.T.
Ratio is 400/5 Amps. Fault current is 6000 Amps. Determine the actual time
of operation of relay at TMS = 1. The table of PSM and time is as follows :
PSM

10

20

Operating time in Sec.

10

2.8

2.4

3) Describe the microprocessor based MHO and off set MHO relay with its block
diagram and flow chart to realize its characteristics.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 452

*SLRKM452*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (E&E) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015


RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer (1 Marks each) :

(201=20)

1) The disadvantage of renewable sources of energy is


a) Lack of decidability
b) Availability in low energy densities
c) Intermittency
d) All of the above
2) Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called
a) Diffusers
b) Ponds
c) Heliostats

d) Mantle

3) Which of the following area is preferred for solar thermal electric plants ?
a) Mountain tops
b) Hot arid zones
c) Coastal areas
d) High rainfall zones
4) In solar thermal conversion systems the solar heat is transferred to
a) Water-steam
b) Liquid metals
c) Molten salts
d) Any of the above
5) Photovoltaic solar energy conversion system makes use of
a) Fuel cell
b) Solar cell
c) Solar pond
d) None of the above
6) Solar energy travels through space by the process of
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Transportation
7) A solar pond is a combination of which of the following combinations ?
a) Solar energy collection and heat storage
b) Solar energy storage and heat collection
c) Solar energy collection and energy storage
d) None of the above
8) A typical insulation material used in a solar collector is
a) Fibre glass
b) Cotton
c) Glass wool
d) None of the above

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 452

*SLRKM452*

-2-

9) Which of the following sources emit fewer pollutants ?


a) Coal
b) Petroleum
c) Charcoal
d) Wind energy
10) If the velocity of wind is doubled, then the power output will increase by
a) 10 times
b) 8 times
c) 2 times
d) 6 times
11) Which gas has a major share in biogas ?
a) N 2
b) CH 4

c) CO 2

12) Biomass can be converted into


a) Liquid fuel
c) Producer Gas

b) Hydrogen
d) All of the above

d) H 2

13) Gasification of biomass is a


a) Biochemical conversion process
b) Chemical conversion process
c) Thermochemical conversion process
d) Biological conversion process
14) The Ocean thermal energy conversion system that is meant to generate power is most
suitable in
a) Sub-tropical region
b) Tropical region
c) Cold region
d) Moderate climate region
15) Geothermal energy is
a) A renewable energy resource
c) Inexhaustible energy source

b) Alternative energy source


d) Any of the above

16) Geologists believe that below the earths crust, the molten mass exists in the form of
a) Magma
b) Vent
c) Hot cell
d) Liquation
17) Tidal energy mainly makes use of
a) Kinetic energy of water
b) Potential energy of water
c) Both kinetic as well as potential energy of water
d) None of the above
18) A rotameter is used to measure
a) Velocity of fluids
c) Density of fluids

b) Viscosity of fluids
d) Discharge of fluids

19) Hydrogen is produced by


a) Electrolysis
c) Aerobic digestion

b) Incineration
d) Decomposting

20) Hydrogen can be stored as a


a) Compressed gas
c) Metal hydride

b) Liquid
d) All of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM452*

-3-

SLR-KM 452

Seat
No.
B.E. (E&E) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2015
RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES (Elective I)
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions :
SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 questions (5 marks each) :
1) Write about the availability energy consumption pattern and growth rate in India.
2) What are the non-conventional sources of energy and explain briefly ?
3) Write short notes on Power generation using solar tower concept.
4) Define :
1) Pitch and yaw control
2) Cut in speed
3) Cut out speed
4) Tip speed ratio
5) Swept area
5) Write a short note on :
1) Solar pond
2) Solar stills.
3. Attempt any 2 questions (10 marks Each) :
1) Explain with neat sketch
i) Pyranometer
ii) Pyrheliometer.
2) What is solar cell ? Explain principle of operation and VI characteristics of solar cell.
3) Explain briefly with neat sketch about
1) Horizontal wind mills
2) Vertical wind mills.

Set A

SLR-KM 452

-4-

*SLRKM452*

SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 questions (5 marks Each) :
1) What is geothermal energy ? How can geothermal energy are utilized for electric power
Generation ?
2) Write a short note on fuel properties of Bio-gas.
3) Explain with neat sketch working of OTEC system.
4) Discuss the various problems associated for storage and transportation of hydrogen gas.
5) Explain with neat sketch steam reforming for production of hydrogen.
5. Attempt any 2 questions (10 marks Each) :
1) How biomass conversion does takes place ? Name the various models of biogas plants
and describe with neat sketch any one of them.
2) Explain how ocean tides are generated and how the power can be tapped ? Discuss
the limitations of this method.
3) What are the different types of batteries used in hydrogen energy generation ? Explain
with neat sketch different battery arrangements.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 457

*SLRKM457*
S

B.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume the suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of
Page.

Duration : 30 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20

1. Write the correct choice :


1) Differential protection principle is used in the protection of
a) Generators
b) Transformers c) Feeders

(120=20)
d) All of the above

2) Which of the following are air-break switching devices ?


a) Isolator
b) Limit switch
c) Earthing switch d) All of the above
3) A lightning arrester connected between the line and earth in a power system.
a) Protects the terminal equipment against travelling surges
b) Protects the terminal equipment against lightning strokes
c) Suppresses the high frequency oscillations in the line
d) Reflects back the travelling waves approaching it
4) Out of the following circuit breakers, which one has the lowest voltage range ?
a) Air-break circuit breaker
b) Tank type oil circuit breaker
c) Air-blast circuit breaker
d) SF6 circuit breaker
5) Electro-magnetic relays may be operated by
a) Electro-magnetic attraction
b) Electro-magnetic induction
c) Thermal effect
d) Any of the above
6) Which of the following is distance relay ?
a) Impedance
b) Reactance
c) Mho

d) All of these

7) Thermal relays are used for the protection of motors against over-current owing to :
a) Short circuit
b) Heavy loads
c) Earth fault
d) All the above
8) Under-voltage relay is mostly used for :
a) Transformer protection
b) Bus-bar protection
c) Motor protection
d) Feeder protection

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 457

*SLRKM457*

-2-

9) Differential relays are used for the protection of equipments against


a) Internal faults
b) Over-current
c) Reverse current
d) Reverse power
10) Which statement is correct ?
a) SF6 gas is nontoxic
c) SF6 gas has pungent smell

b) SF6 gas is lighter than air


d) SF6 gas is yellow in color

11) Arc chutes are used in


a) Oil circuit breaker
c) SF6 circuit breakers

b) Vacuum circuit breakers


d) Air blast circuit breakers

12) Admittance relay is


a) Non-directional relay
c) Differential relay

b) Distance relay
d) None of the above

13) Relay contacts are normally made up of


a) Silver contacts
b) Copper contacts
c) Aluminium contacts
d) Lead contacts
14) What type of back up protection is used for alternators ?
a) IDMT relay
b) Buccholz relay
c) Mho relay
d) Impedance relay
15) Sparking between the contacts can be reduced by inserting
a) A capacitor in parallel with the contacts
b) A capacitor in series with the contacts
c) A resistor in the line
d) A reactor in the line
16) Buchholz relay is operated by
a) Eddy currents
c) Electro-magnetic induction

b) Gas pressure
d) Electro-static induction

17) Switching over-voltages are more hazardous than lightning surges in case of
a) Low voltage systems
b) 11 kV systems
c) Unbalanced systems
d) EHV and UHV systems
18) Bulk-oil circuit breaker is suitable for voltages up to
a) 10 kV
b) 16 kV
c) 26 kV

d) 36 kV

19) In which portion of the transmission system faults occur most frequently ?
a) Transformers
b) Overhead lines
c) Alternators
d) Underground cables
20) The contact resistance is least affected by
a) Shape of the contact faces
b) Ambient temperature
c) Mechanical forces applied
d) Amount of surface commutation
______________

Set A

*SLRKM457*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 457

B.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION
Day and Date : Thursday, 26-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Assume the suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) Define rated current, making capacity, breaking capacity.


2) What are the indirect methods of circuit breaker testing ?
3) Draw the neat sketch of a typical Vacuum Circuit breaker and explain its working.
4) Write a short note on HRC fuse.
5) Explain the different types of Isolators.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) With neat sketch, describe the working principle of an axial air blast type circuit
breaker.
2) Draw a neat diagram of MOCB and explain its working.
3) Show the constructional layout of SF6 breaker and it advantages and
disadvantages.

Set A

SLR-KM 457

-4-

*SLRKM457*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

1) What is meant by surge arresters and what are their different types ?
2) Explain how ring main feeders are protected by graded time lag differential relays.
3) Explain with block diagram of programmable (Microprocessor based) relay.
4) What is the Merz price protection scheme for transformer ?
5) What are the faults associated with an alternator ?
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) Describe the microprocessor based over current relay with its block diagram and
flow chart to realise its characteristics.
2) Describe the principle of operation and working of directional type
electromagnetic relay along with the principle of directional feature.
3) Describe the principle of operation and working of Distance Relays.
_____________________

Set A

SLR- KM 458

*SLRKM458*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) In an Induction motor L/T = 1 for
A) Minimum cost
C) Overall good design

(201=20)
B) Good efficiency
D) Good PF

2) Line joining tangent and output line in a circle diagram gives


A) Copper loss
B) Stator loss
C) Maximum output
D) Maximum Torque
3) The percentage of silicon in the core steel is
A) 4 to 6 percent
C) 8 to 10 percent

B) 2 to 3 percent
D) 1 to 2 percent

4) Air gap of a 3 phase induction motor is kept small to :


A) reduce the possibility of the crawling
B) reduce the magnetizing current
C) reduce the noise
D) obtain high starting torque
5) The harmonics in rotating machines are generated due to
A) Non-sinusoidal field form
B) slotting of the stator core
C) Both A) and B) above
D) none of the above
6) Transformer-core laminations are made of
A) cast iron
B) silicon steel

C) wrought iron

7) Specific electric loading is not governed by


A) heating
C) machine size

B) speed of machine
D) magnetizing current

D) cast steel

8) The usual values of maximum flux densities for 220 KV transformer using CRGO steel is,
A) 1.6T
B) 1.1T
C) 1.8T
D) 10.6T

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 458

*SLRKM458*

-2-

9) Tapping on the transformer are provided


A) at the phase end of LV side
C) at the neutral end of LV side

B) at the phase end of HV side


D) at the middle end of HV side

10) Overload capacity of the transformer is depends on


A) Supply frequency
B) core size
C) both A) and B)

D) none of the above

11) In turbo alternator rotor diameter is limited to about


A) 0.6 m

B) 1.2 m

C) 1.8 m

D) 3 m

12) Usual values of ac recommended for salient pole alternator are


A) 5000-10000 A/m
B) 10000-20000 A/m
C) 20000-50000 A/m

D) 50000-100000A/m

13) Which kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo alternators which are designed to run at high speed ?
A) Salient pole type
B) Non-salient pole type
C) Both A) and B)

D) None of the above

14) An alternator with higher value of SCR has


A) Poor voltage regulation and lower stability limit
B) Poor voltage regulation and higher stability limit
C) Better voltage regulation and higher stability limit
D) None of the above
15) When 3 phase induction motor is designed for higher specific magnetic loading it will give
A) Better full load PF
C) Higher full load efficiency

B) High starting torque


D) higher overload capacity

16) In synchronous alternator, which of the following coils will have EMF closer to sine waveform ?
A) Concentrated winding in full pitch coils
B) Concentrated winding in short pitch coils
C) Distributed winding in full pitch coils
D) Distributed winding in short pitch coils
17) In case of Induction motor the air gap flux density is usually taken is
A) 0.1 T 0.2 T

B) 0.2 T 0.35 T

C) 0.3 T 0.6 T

D) 1T 1.2 T

18) Transformer action requires a


A) Constant magnetic flux
C) Alternating magnetic flux

B) increasing magnetic flux


D) alternating electric flux

19) The shaft of electric motors is generally made of


A) Mild steel

B) Cast iron

C) Copper

D) Aluminum alloy

20) Induction motors are provided with open slots because


A) Exciting current is high
B) PF is low
C) PF is high

D) both A and B

______________

Set A

*SLRKM458*

-3-

SLR-KM 458

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN
Day and Date : Saturday, 28-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I

2. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Explain the choice of flux density and choice of current density for transformer.
b) Derive the expression for bar current and end ring current for a three phase induction motor.
c) Derive an output equation of 3 induction motor.
d) An 11 KW, 3-phase, 6-pole, 50Hz, 220V, star connected induction motor has 54 stator slots, each
containing a 9 conductors. Calculate the value of bar and end ring current. The number of rotor bars
is 64. The machine has the efficiency of 0.86 and power factor of 0.82. The rotor mmf = 85% stator
mmf. Also find the bar and end ring section if current density is 5A/mm2.
e) Determine per unit leakage reactance per phase of shell type transformer having sandwiched coils
having following data :
100 KVA, 2000/400 V, 50Hz, single phase
i) Number of H.V. coils = 2
ii) Number of L.V. coils = 3
iii) Depth of H.V. coils = 4cm
iv) Depth of L.V. coils = 3.6cm
v) Depth of duct between windings = 1.6cm
vi) Width of winding = 12cm
vii) Length of mean turn = 150cm
viii) Numbers of turns in H.V. winding = 200.
f) Derive an expression for no load current of three phase induction motor.
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) Explain various cooling methods used in transformer.


b) Estimate the main dimensions of core, number of turns and cross-sectional area of conductor for a
5 KVA, 11 KV/400 V, 50Hz, single phase distribution transformer. The net copper area in the window
is 0.6 times the net cross-section of iron in the core. Assume a square cross-section for core, a flux
Density of 1 web/Sq.m, current density of 1.4 A/Sq.mm, window space factor of 0.2 and ratio of
Window height to width is 3.

Set A

SLR-KM 458

-4-

*SLRKM458*

c) Calculate the equivalent resistance per phase of the rotor referred to the stator of a squirrel Cage
induction motor given the following data :
Stator : voltage/phase = 400V, No. of phases = 3, No. of poles = 4, Frequency= 50Hz, slots = 48,
Conductors/slot = 30, Kws = 0.958.
Rotor : slots = 53, conductors/slot = 1, Area of bar = 60mm 2, length of bar = 12cm, end ring
cross-section = 150 mm2, mean diameter of end ring = 18cm, resistivity of copper = 0.021 /
mm2/m. Assume that stator mmf = rotor mmf.

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(45=20)

a) Find the main dimensions of a 2500 KVA, 3KV, 50Hz, 187.5rpm, 3-phase water wheel Generator.
The average gap density is 0.6 web/m2 and ampere conductor per meter are 34000. Use circular
poles with ratio of core length to pole pitch = 0.65.
b) Explain short circuit ratio and its effect on performance of synchronous machine.
c) For the same H.P output compare the relative sizes of a 3-phase induction motor to 1-phase Induction
motor.
d) A 500 KVA, 600 rpm, 3.3. KV, 50 Hz, 3-phase, salient pole alternator has 180 turns per phase.
Estimate the length of air gap if the average flux density is 0.54 web/m2. The ratio of pole arc to Pole
pitch = 0.65, the short circuit ratio = 1.2 and gap extension coefficient = 1.15. The mmf Required for gap
is 80% of no load field mmf. Winding factor = 0.955.
e) What are different factors for making the choice of specific loading for an alternator ?
f) Explain the various harmonic elimination techniques.
5. Solve any two :

(210=20)

a) A 3-phase, 50Hz, star connected alternator has the following design data: Terminal Voltage = 3300V,
RPM = 300, rotor diameter = 2.3m, core length = 0.35 m, stator winding has single layer, Kw = 0.955,
Bav = 0.9 tesla. Estimate,
a) No. of slots
b) No. of conductors/slot
b) A 15 MVA, 50 Hz, 11KV, 2 polestar connected turbo generator with 60 phase spread has the
following data :
Specific magnetic loading = 0.55 web/m2, Specific electric loading = 36000 ac/m, current Density
= 5A/mm2, peripheral speed = 160 m/sec. Find the core length, bore diameter, size No. of stator
slots, No. of conductors.
c) Explain the design procedure for running winding of stator of single phase induction motor.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 459

*SLRKM459*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEM (FACTS)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.


2) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) The hybrid phase angle regulator is combination of two different types of phase
angle regulators to achieve specific objectives at
a) Maximum efficiency
b) Minimum losses
c) Minimum cost
d) Minimum power
2) The controllable series capacitive impedance provided by TSSC and GCSC
a) Dont affect transmission line impedance
b) Increases overall transmission line impedance
c) Reduces overall transmission line impedance
d) None of these
3) For the application of submarine cables FACTS technology is used
a) Up to 10000 km b) Up to 1000 km
c) Up to 100 km
d) Up to 10 km
4) The ultimate objective of applying reactive shunt compensation in a
transmission system is to
a) Decrease the transmittable power
b) Improve the system performance
c) To improve loading capability
d) Increase the transmittable power
5) In STATCOM the O/P current controlled by
a) System voltage
b) Dependent of system voltage
c) Independent of system voltage
d) None
6) SSG is a combination of
a) SVG and STATCOM
c) SVG and energy source

b) STATCOM and energy source


d) None

7) In VAR generation method ______________ supplies reactive power.


a) Reactor
b) Inductor
c) Inductor and reactor
d) None
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 459

*SLRKM459*

-2-

8) In TCR the reactance controlled by


a) Fully conduction control
c) Partial conduction control

b) Switching of thyristor valve


d) None

9) _________ provides variable in phase voltage with continuous control.


a) TCVC
b) SSSC
c) TCVR
d) TCSC
10) Tap changing transformer the tapping are provided on
a) Primary winding
b) Secondary winding
c) Tertiary winding
d) High voltage winding
11) The best CR location for use of booster transformer in transmission line is
a) At sending end
b) At receiving end
c) At intermediate point
d) Anywhere in line
12) Induction regulators are employed for voltage control in
a) Alternators
b) Transmission line
c) Distribution system
d) Anywhere in line
13) For voltage control in AC distribution system induction regulator have
advantages of
a) Operation independent of load P.F. variable
b) Reliability of operation
c) Steep variations without arcing or short
d) All of the above
14) If the TCR switching is restricted to a fixed delay angle, usually = 0, then it
becomes
a) TSC
b) FC-TCR
c) TSR
d) None
15) In the linear operating range the V-I characteristics and the functional compensation
capabilities of the STATCOM and SVC are
a) Different
b) Identical
c) Exactly opposite d) None
16) AC power transmission over long lines is primarily limited by
a) Series active reactance
b) Shunt active reactance
c) Shunt reactive impedance
d) Series reactive impedance
17) The objective of GCSC scheme is to control the
a) dc voltage across the capacitor
b) ac voltage across the capacitor
c) ac current through the capacitor
d) dc current through the capacitor
18) The TSSC can control the degree of series compensation by
a) Inserting series capacitor
b) Bypassing series capacitor
c) Both a) and b)
d) Inserting series inductance
19) The Synchronous Voltage Source (SVS) is analogous to
a) Ideal transformer
b) Ideal motor
c) Ideal generator
d) Ideal condenser
20) SVG is combination of

a) SVG and battery


c) SVG and controller

b) Battery and controller


d) None
______________

Set A

*SLRKM459*

-3-

SLR-KM 459

Seat
No.

B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2015


FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEM (FACTS)
Day and Date : Monday, 30-11-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) What limits the loading capability ? Explain.


b) Explain the basic types of FACTS controllers.
c) Explain power oscillation damping by shunt compensation.
d) Explain basic control approach of shunt compensator.
e) Explain the objectives of series compensation.
f) With the help of circuit diagram and V-I characteristics explain GCSC.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) Discuss the opportunities for FACTS in transmission system.


b) With the help of neat diagram and waveforms explain TCR.
c) With the help of circuit diagram and V-I characteristics explain TSSC in detail.

Set A

SLR-KM 459

-4-

*SLRKM459*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) With the help of circuit diagram and V-I characteristics explain TCSC.
b) Explain functional external control scheme for the SSSC.
c) Explain the power flow control by phase angle regulators.
d) How a transient stability is improved with phase angle regulators ? Explain.
e) Explain overall UPFC control structure in detail.
f) Explain the basic operating principle and characteristics of IPFC.
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) With the help of neat block diagrams explain internal control scheme for SSSC
employing a directly controlled converter.
b) With the help of neat diagram explain basic implementation of voltage and phase
angle regulators.
c) With the help of block diagram explain basic control scheme for two converter
IPFC.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 460

*SLRKM460*
Seat
No.

Set

B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part II)


Examination, 2015
(Elective II) HIGH VOLTAGE DC TRANSMISSION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


(201 = 20)
1) Most frequency type of fault in DC system is
a) Converter internal fault
b) DC line fault
c) Commutation failure
d) Arc back and arc through
2) HVDC transmission is opted when
a) Bulk power transfer is needed
b) Improvement of stability
c) Long distance and cable transmission is required
d) All of the above
3) Filters used in 12-pulse converters usually on the AC side are
b) 11th, 13th and high-pass
a) 5th, 7th and high-pass
th
th
c) 6 , 12 and high-pass
d) only high-pass filter
4) Characteristic of a converter is the relation between
a) AC voltage and ld
b) DC output voltage and Id
c) DC power and ld
d) and ld
5) Control of DC power in DC link is done by
a) Control
b) Control
c) transformer tap changing
d) all of the above
6) A 12-pulse converter consists of
a) Two 6-pulse converters in series
b) Two 6-pulse converters in parallel
c) (a) or (b)
d) (a) and (b)

7) With the increase in delay angle


a) active power transmitted deceases b) reactive KVAR needed increases
c) DC output voltage decreases
d) all of the above
8) Power transfer through AC systems depends on
a) Sending and receiving end voltages
b) Phase angle difference between sending end and receiving end voltage
c) Reactance of the line
d) All of the above
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 460

-2-

*SLRKM460*

9) HVDC transmission commercially began in the year


a) 1950
b) 1954
c) 1970
d) 1935
10) A DC cable used for HVDC transmission is
a) Mass impregnated oil-filled cable
b) Dry caused polymeric insulated cable with metallic screen and outer covering
c) Oil or liquid impregnated paper cable
d) Any one of the above
11) The power transfer capability of DC cables compared to AC cables is
a) same
b) 1.5 to 2 times
c) 0.5 to 1.5 times
d) cannot be asserted
12) Compared to AC overhead lines, towers and substations, the land requirement in
DC is
a) Same as that of AC
b) 65% for substations and 50% for lines
c) 90% for both substations and lines
d) Cannot be predicted
13) When a 3-phase double circuit AC line is converted into DC line the power
transfer will be increased
a) No change
b) 1.5 times
c) 3 times
d) 2 times
14) Power reversal in DC link is done
a) Operating rectifier () close to 180 and inverter close to zero
b) Operating both and near 90
c) Operating at 90 and close to zero
d) Operating close to 90 and near zero
15) DC cable are most effective and less bulky because
a) Voltage stress used is much higher in the insulation
b) No dielectric losses with DC
c) No charging current with DC
d) Both (a) and (b)
16) Safe and permissible electric field and ionic current density is about
a) 60 k V/m and 30 n A/m2
b) 20 k V/m and 25n A/m2
2
c) Less than 20 k V/m and 15n A/m
d) None of the above
17) In a monopolar system usually the pole is
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Positive or negative
d) Alternately positive and negative
18) Advantage of DC links for power transfer is
a) Easy controllability of power
b) More economical
c) It is an asynchronous tie
d) Less insulation requirement
19) The break-even distance is the distance beyond which
a) DC transmission is economical
b) AC transmission is economical
c) Cost of both system are the same
d) Both (b) and (c)
20) In a bipolar system
a) Both conductors are positive
b) Both conductors are negative
c) One conductor is positive and the other negative
d) One conductor is positive or negative and other is at ground potential

______________

Set A

*SLRKM460*

-3-

SLR-KM 460

Seat
No.

B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part II)


Examination, 2015
(Elective II) HIGH VOLTAGE DC TRANSMISSION
Day and Date : Wednesday, 2-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.


2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54 = 20)
1) Write the advantages and disadvantages of HVDC transmission system.
2) Explain the phenomenon of Arc Through in case of converter.
3) Explain the requirements of firing angle scheme and explain IPC scheme.
4) What is misfire ? Explain its causes and remedies.
5) Explain EPC scheme in detail.
6) Explain with neat diagram the different types of DC links.
3. Solve any two :
1) Compare AC and DC transmission on the basis of following points
a) Economics of power transmission
b) Reliability
c) Technical performance.
2) Draw and explain typical HVDC converter station in detail.
3) Explain the over current protection of converter with neat sketch.

(102 = 20)

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54 = 20)

1) What are the causes of generation of harmonics and what are the troubles caused
by it ?
2) Compare series MTDC system with parallel MTDC system.
3) Explain with neat diagram the working of TCR.
4) Write short note on AC filters.
5) Explain the voltage limiting control for MTDC system.
6) Explain with neat diagram the working of FC-TCR.

Set A

SLR-KM 460

-4-

*SLRKM460*

5. Solve any two :

(102=20)

1) Write note on :
a) STATCOM
b) SVC
2) With the help of neat diagram explain various types of MTDC systems.
3) Explain the generation of characteristic harmonics and calculate the AC
harmonics for 12 pulse converter.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 461

*SLRKM461*
S

S.E. (Part I)(Chemical Engg.) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MATHEMATICS III (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

N.B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Attempt any three questions from each section.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


1) The particular integral of (D2 + a2)y = sinax is _________
a)


b)

c)

d)

(201=20)

2) If

and z = logx, then the differential equation


d

2
2

becomes
a) (D2 1) y = ez

b) (D2 + 1) y = ez

c) (D2 1) y = z

b)

c)

d) (D2 + 1) y = zz

3)
N


,

a)

_________



=

d)

4) If a linear differential equation with a constant coefficient, has a auxiliary equation with
repeated root 3 time then the
is


a) (c1 + c2 + c3) cos x + (c4 + c5 + c6) sin x


b)


"

c)
d) None of the above
5) Particular integral of (D2 + 1) y = sinhx is _________


a)

"

b)

6) The laplace transform of (sint +

cost)2

b)


"


x

d) sinhx

d)


c)


is _________

a)

c) coshx

"

"

"

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 461

*SLRKM461*

-2

7) The value of

by laplace transform is __________

a)

b)


c)


d)


"

8) The laplace transform of

du is _________
K

a)

b)


c)


d)
I

9) The laplace transform of ezt sint is ___________


a)

b)


"

10) If L[f(t)] =
a)

b)


c)

I


d)


"

d)

I


"


@

11) If
then div
= __________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
12) A vector function is called irrotational if ____________
r

(s) then L[f(at)] is ___________




I


c)


d) 3

a) curl

=
.

b) div


=0
.

c) grad

=0
.

d)


13) If = xy + yz + zx then at point (1, 1, 1), grad = ___________


a) i + j + k
b) 2i + 2j + 2k
c) 3i + 3j + 3k
d) 0
14) If
, then
= _________


a)

b)


c)


d)


15) z{1} = __________


a)

b)
1

c)
1

16) If the curve C is closed, the line integral

d)
z

is called __________ of

along C.
.

a) Rotational
b) Divergent
c) Circulation
d) All of the above
17) If the circulation of along every closed curve in the region is zero then is called ________
a) Rotational
b) Irrotational
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
18) If
then curl
= _____________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
19) For a vector function , there exist a scalar potential only when __________
.

a) div = 0
b) grad (div ) = 0 c) curl
k
20) If z {xk} = f(z) then z{a xk} = __________
.

a)

b)

z



f






f



=


d)
F

d) None of these

a
a

c) f(az)

z
1




______________

Set A

*SLRKM461*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 461

S.E. (Part I) (Chemical Engg.) Examination, 2015


APPLIED MATHEMATICS III (New CGPA)
Day and Date : Friday, 11-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

N.B. : 1) Attempt any three questions from each section.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 + 2D + 4) y = cosh 2x.

b) Solve (D2 + 2) y = ex cosx.

c) Solve (D2 + 2D + 3) y = x x2.

3. a) Find laplace transform of t2 sin3t.


b) Find

c) Find laplace inverse of


I

"

4. a) Find the Fourier sine transform of f(x) =

b) Find f(x) if its Fourier cosine transform is es.

c) State the Fourier transform.

5. a) Solve (D2 + 2D + 3) y = 0, y(0) = 0, y1(0) = 4 using laplace transform.

b) Solve

.


c) Find laplace transform of


J


J

"

Set A

SLR-KM 461

*SLRKM461*

-4-

SECTION II
6. a) Find the z-transform of 3k + 5k, k < 0.
b) Find the z-transform of

,
k

.


if

c) Find the inverse z-transform of




7. a) Find the direction derivative of


b) Find div

and curl
.

c) Prove that

where
.




at (0, 1, 2) in the direction of 2i + 3j + 4k.


z

.
a


a


z





x


z

8. a) Verify Stokes theorem for


F

and C is the boundary of the rectangle x = 0,


j

y = 0, x = a, y = b.

b) Verify Gauss divergent theorem for the function x2i + zj + yzk over the cube bounded by
x = 0, x = 1, y = 0, y = 1, z = 0, z = 1.
9. a) Find the tangential and normal component of acceleration of the particle moving on the
curve x = t3 + 1, y = t2, z = t at t = 1.
b) Obtain z-transform of sinh
c) Evaluate

where
F

k,


.


from O(0, 0, 0) to point P(3, 1, 2)

along the line OP.

4
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 462

*SLRKM462*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Part I) (Chemical Engineering) Examination, 2015


PHYSICAL AND INORGANIC CHEMISTRY (New-CGPA)
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :


20
1) The surface area of an adsorbent can be determined by ________ equation.
a) Langmuir
b) BET
c) Friendluich
d) Clapeyron
2) Decomposition of N2O5 is example of _________ reaction.
a) first order
b) second order c) zero order
d) fractional order
3) The dimension of k for first reaction is ________
b) dm3 mol1min1
a) min1
c) dm3 mole1
d) mole1 dm3
4) The accumulation of gaseous substance on the surface of a solid is called as
a) chemisorption b) adsorption
c) absorption
d) desorption
5) Coagulation of colloidal solutions takes place by
a) action of electrolysis
b) persistent dialysis
c) mechanical means
d) all the three
6) Time for half change in third order reaction is given as
a) t 12 =

0.693
k

b) t 12 =

3
2ka

c) t 12 =

1
ka

d) t 12 =

1
k

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 462

*SLRKM462*

-2-

(v b) = RT is called __________ equation.


7) The equation p +

v2
a) gas
b) Vander Waals
c) rate
d) critical

8) _________ equations expresses the compressibility factor of a gas.


a) Vander Waals
b) Virial
c) Redlich-Kwong
d) Benedict-Rubin
9) In a polytropic process pvn = constant, if n = , the process is
a) isochoric
b) isothermal
c) isobaric
d) adiabatic
10) For one mole of an ideal gas the equation of state is given as
a) PV = RT

b) PV = nRT

c) PV = constant d) P = RT V

11) In case of d3-system, the CFSE for octahedral weak field complexes is
a) 1.2 0

b) 0.0 0

12) HNO3 is excellent


a) oxidizing agent
c) both a) and b)

c) 0.8 0

d) 0.4 0

b) reducing agent
d) lubricant

13) If H is +ve then heat is


a) absorbed
b) evolved c) remains constant
14) Oxidation state of sulphur in H2SO4 is
a) +II
b) +III
c) +VI

d) none of these
d) +V

15) An efficiency of Carnot cycle can be calculated by the formula


w T2 T1
a) q = T
2

q T2 T1
b) w = T
2

T2
c) q = T T
2
1

d) w = q

16) No heat is absorbed or given out by the system in


a) Isolated
b) Adiabatic
c) Irreversible
d) Reversible process
17) Ions that forms square planar complexes are
a) Cr (+II)
b) Fe (+II)
c) Co (+II)
d) All of these
18) H3PO4 is
a) Monobasic

b) Dibasic

c) Tribasic acid

19) Total energy an isolated system


a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Always zero
20) Calcium is important in
a) bones
b) teeth
c) blood clotting
______________

d) None of these
d) Remains constant
d) all of these
Set A

*SLRKM462*

-3-

SLR-KM 462

Seat
No.

S.E. (Part I) (Chemical Engineering) Examination, 2015


PHYSICAL AND INORGANIC CHEMISTRY (New-CGPA)
Day and Date : Saturday, 12-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Question No. 2 and 6 are compulsory. Solve any two


questions from Q. No. 3 to 5 and Q. No. 7 to 9.
2) Use of non programmable calculators are permitted.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the magnetic behaviour of 1st transition series.

b) Explain the effect of temperature on enzyme catalysis.

c) Explain mechanism of thermal decomposition of N2O5 for 1st order reaction


t 1 is 100 sec. What is the rate constant of the reaction ?
2

3. a) Explain general properties of colloidal solutions.


b) Give brief account on characteristics of higher order reactions.
4. a) What are pseudounimolecular reactions ?

6
6
6
4

b) What are salient features of V.B.T. ?

c) Write a note on factors affecting adsorption.

5. a) What is myoglobin ? Explain its structure and working.


b) Give brief account on BET theory of multilayer adsorption.

6
6

Set A

SLR-KM 462

-4-

*SLRKM462*

SECTION II
6. a) Describe the manufacturing of H2SO4 on industrial scale.

b) Give the different statements of first law of thermodynamics.

c) What is adiabatic process ?

7. a) Explain in detail Carnot cycle.

b) What are the different physical properties and uses of HCl ?

8. a) Write the uses of acetylene and nitrous oxide.

b) What are the ideal and non-ideal gases ? Explain Redlich-Kwong equation for
non-ideal gases.

9. a) Derive Van-der-Waals equation for non-ideal gases.

b) i) Derive an expression for the entropy change for an ideal gas.

ii) A carnot engine operating between two reservoirs at 600 K and 400 K,
absorbs 4180 J from 600 K reservoir per cycle. What is the efficiency of
the engine ?

2
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 463

*SLRKM463*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA)


Examination, 2015
CHEMICAL PROCESS CALCULATIONS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct alternative :

20

i) 645 grams of a substance occupies a volume of 0.476 L. What is the density of the substance in g/mL ?
a) 1.355
b) 1.255
c) 1.455
d) 1.555
ii) How many gram-atoms of oxygen are there in 1 mole of calcium sulphate ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
iii) What is the molarity of a solution containing 81.35 grams of HCl in enough water to make 500 mL of
solution ?
a) 4.457
b) 2.229
c) 2.987
d) 4.879
iv) A piece of iron ore is found to contain a compound containing 72.3% iron (At. wt = 56) and 27.7%
oxygen with a molecular mass of 231.4 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of the compound ?
a) Fe2O3
b) Fe3O4
c) Fe2O
d) FeO
v) A mixture of oxygen and hydrogen gases is held in a container at 1.8 atmospheres. If the mixture
contains 40% oxygen and 60% hydrogen by mole, what is the partial pressure of hydrogen in
atmospheres ?
a) 1.18
b) 1.28
c) 1.98
d) 1.08
vi) In material balance of a process, recycle product is always considered as
a) Input to the process
b) Output from the process
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) nor b)
vii) Which of the following statements is true in reference to drying operation ?
a) Moisture removed from solids = moisture added in air
b) Initial moisture in wet solids = moisture in dried solids
c) Moisture in inlet air = moisture in outlet air
d) None of the above
viii) 100 kmol of a gas is 45% other gases and 55% methanol vapour. If 30% of the vapour condenses
what is the percentage of methanol in the gas after condensation will be
a) 56.1
b) 66.1
c) 46.1
d) 36.1
ix) A 100 kg stream containing 60% NaCl by weight is divided into two streams in the ratio 2 : 6, the
quantity of NaCl in the smaller steam is ________ kg.
a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 463

-2-

*SLRKM463*

x) A mixture of 15 kmol MgSO4.7H2O and 15 kmol of MgCO3 are heated to remove the water of
hydration from the sulphate. The mole percentage of magnesium carbonate in the solid mixture
after dehydration is
a) 10
b) 30
c) 50
d) 70
xi) The limiting component in a reaction which goes to completion is the component
a) Which is consumed first
b) Which is not consumed first
c) Which is present in less quantity as compared to the other reactant
d) None of the above
xii) Percent excess of a reactant is the ratio of difference in the number of moles of excess component
fed and the number of moles required stoichiometrically to the
a) Number of moles of excess component fed
b) Number of moles reacted
c) Number of moles required stoichiometrically
d) Difference in number of moles
xiii) In a chlorination reaction of acetic acid 20 kmol of acetic acid reacts to give 5 kmol of
dichloroacetic acid and 7 kmol of monochloroacetic acid. The % yield of monochloroacetic acid
w.r.t acetic acid is
a) 58.33
b) 68.33
c) 48.33
d) 38.33
xiv) Acetic acid is manufactured by the reaction CH3CHO + 0.5O2 CH3COOH.120 kmol of
acetaldehyde are fed to the reactor along with 65 mol of oxygen. If the conversion of acetaldehyde
is 52%, oxygen unreacted in kmol is
a) 37.8
b) 33.8
c) 39.8
d) 31.8
xv) A feed containing 50 mol% A, 30 mol% B and 20 mol% inerts enters a reactor. Reaction taking
place is 2A + B C. The percentage of C in the product stream for 100% conversion
a) 45
b) 50
c) 55
d) 60
xvi) Molal Heat capacity of a mixture is the summation of
a) Mole fraction of component times the mass heat capacity of the individual component
b) Mass fraction of component times the mass heat capacity of the individual component
c) Mole fraction of component times the molal heat capacity of the individual component
d) Mass fraction of component times the molal heat capacity of the individual component
xvii) Heat of dilution is the enthalpy involved when
a) A concentrated solution is mixed with solvent
b) Solute is added to a solution
c) Solvent is removed from a solution
d) None of the above
xviii) If liquid is at its boiling point and heat equal to one third of the latent heat of vaporization is added at
constant pressure
a) All the liquid is vaporized
b) One third of the liquid is vaporised
c) Two third of the liquid is vaporised
d) Half of the liquid is vaporized
xix) The normal boiling point of butadiene is ___________ K if the Antonie Constants are A = 6.1187,
B = 1041.1 and C = 30.85. The vapor pressure is in kPa. Use the equation with log to the base 10.
a) 383.97
b) 283.97
c) 300.97
d) 183.97
xx) If a vapor is at its dew point and heat equal to 25% of the latent heat of condensation is removed at
constant pressure, the vapor remaining behind will be
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 80%
d) 75%

______________
Set A

*SLRKM463*

-3-

SLR-KM 463

Seat
No.

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA)


Examination, 2015
CHEMICAL PROCESS CALCULATIONS
Day and Date : Monday, 14-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions :

1) Assume suitable data if necessary.


2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.

SECTION I
2. a) The solubility of methyl bromide (CH3Br) in methanol is 44kg per 100 kg methanol. Express the
composition of the saturated solution in weight % and mole%.
(Atomic weight of Br = 79.91).

b) A waste acid from a nitrating process contains 23% HNO3, 57% H2SO4 and 20% water by weight.
This acid is concentrated to a mixture containing 27% HNO3, 60% H2SO4 and 13% water by using
sulphuric acid containing 93% H2SO4 and nitric acid containing 90% HNO3. Calculate the amount of
waste acid and concentrated acids to get 100 kg of desired mixed acid.

c) A mixture of CuSO4.5H2O and FeSO4.7H2O weighs 100 g. After removing the water of hydration by
heating the dehydrated mass weighs 60 g. Calculate the weight ratio of CuSO4.5H2O to FeSO4.7H2O
in the original salt mixture. (Atomic weights : Cu = 63, S = 32, Fe = 56).
3. a) A gaseous reaction A

2B + C takes place in an isothermal constant pressure reactor. Starting

with a mixture of 60% A and 40% inerts (by volume) in a specified time the volume doubles.
Calculate the conversion achieved.
b) Orthoxylene on oxidation gives pthalic anhydride. The reaction taking place is : C8H10 + 3O2

C8H10O3 + 3H2O. 20% excess air is used. The conversion is 50% and the yield of pthalic anhydride
is 80%. Calculate the requirement of orthoxylene and air for 100 kmol of pthalic anhydride.
c) Define conversion, yield and selectivity.

7
6

Set A

SLR-KM 463

*SLRKM463*

-4-

SECTION II
4. a) Define enthalpy of vaporization, enthalpy of reaction, heat of mixing and specific heat.

b) Liquid benzene at 303 K is continuously mixed with liquid toluene at 373 K in a molar proportion of
3 : 2 in an insulated tank. If the heat of mixing is assumed to be zero what is the temperature of the
final mixture ? Heat capacity data for benzene and toluene is as follows (assume c = a + bT) :

Temp. K

Heat Capacity (c) kJ/kg K


Benzene

Toluene

283

1.591

1.524

338

2.018

358

2.236

c) Pure ethylene is heated from 330 K to 520 K. Calculate the amount of heat added per kmol of
ethylene if its specific heat is given by the equation :
0

Cp = 4.1261 + 155.0213 103 T 81.5455 106 T2 + 16.9755 109 T3 kJ/kmol K


T is in K.

5. a) Wet solid containing 30% moisture is to be dried to a water content of 2% by circulating hot air.
Fresh air contains 0.018 kg water vapour/kg dry air and exhaust air contains 0.095 kg/kg moisture.
Calculate the volumetric flow rate of fresh air for drying 100 kg/h wet solids, if this air is available at
300 K and 101.325 kPa.

b) Describe proximate analysis.

c) The burning of a fuel oil which does not have nitrogen gives the following composition of the flue gas
by volume : CO2 = 11.6%, O2 = 5% and N2 = 83.4% on dry basis. Compute the percentage excess
air used and the carbon to hydrogen weight ratio in the fuel.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 464

*SLRKM464*
S

Set
t

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA)


Examination, 2015
FLUID FLOW OPERATIONS
Day and Date : Tuesday,15-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Duration : 30 Minutes

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 20
(201=20)

1. 1) A fluid is a substance that


a) Permanently resists distortion
b) Does not permanently resist distortion
c) Has definite density which is constant under all circumstances
d) Has a density which cannot be accurately determined
2) A fluid is called Newtonian when the shear stress versus shear strain plot is
a) Linear and passes through origin
b) Linear but has an intercept
c) Exponential and passes through the origin
d) Is a rectangular hyperbola
3) The unit of viscosity in CGS system is commonly known as Poise. The dimension of Poise is
b) g.cm/s
a) g/cm.s2
c) g.cm2/s
d) g/cm.s
4) The flow of an incompressible fluid with no shear is known as
a) Potential flow
b) Laminar flow
c) Turbulent flow
d) Couette flow
5) An incompressible fluid of density flows through a tube of constant cross sectional area A at a
flow rate of Q (vol/time). For this situation which of the following is/are correct ?
a) Q/A = constant
b) Q. = constant
c) Q. /A = constant
d) All (a), (b) and (c)


6) Kinematic viscosity is a ratio of


a) Absolute viscosity to absolute pressure
c) Absolute viscosity to specific heat
7) Reynolds number is a ratio of
a) Momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
c) Inertial force to viscous force

b) Absolute viscosity to absolute temperature


d) None of the above
b) Momentum diffusivity to molecular diffusivity
d) Average velocity to velocity of sound
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 464

*SLRKM464*

-2-

8) The equation of continuity applies to


a) Incompressible fluids
c) Highly viscous fluids

b) Compressible fluids
d) Both incompressible and compressible fluids

9) For laminar flow in a pipe, the Fanning friction factor depends on Reynolds number according to the
relation
a) f = 24/Re
b) f = 18.5/Re
c) f = 16/Re
d) None of the above
10) For laminar flow of Newtonian fluids in pipes, the ratio of average velocity to maximum velocity is
equal to
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 1.5
d) 2.0
11) For an ideal fluid flow the Reynolds number is
a) 2100
c) 0

b) > 4000
d) Infinity

12) Water flows turbulently through a smooth pipe. At the centre line the velocity gradient is
a) Infinity
b) Zero
c) Between zero and one
d) None of the above
13) Stokes law is valid (strictly theoretically) when particle Reynolds number is NRe,p is
a) much less than one
b) equal to one
c) much greater than one
d) none of the foregoing
14) In a certain process, one needs fluid flow in a given direction and the valve is to open or close by the
fluid pressure. Which of the following valves permits fluid flow in one direction only ?
a) gate valve
b) globe valve
c) check valve
d) none of the above
15) Cavitation will not occur if the sum of the velocity and pressure heads at the suction is
a) zero
b) much larger than the vapour pressure of the liquid
c) much smaller than the vapour pressure of the liquid
d) equal to the vapour pressure of the liquid
16) A fluidized bed is formed when
a) Fluid friction is zero
b) Gravity force is less than fluid friction
c) Pressure force is equal but acts in opposite direction to the gravity force
d) Sum of fluid friction and pressure force is equal but opposite to gravity force
17) A particle attains its terminal velocity when
a) gravity force + drag force = buoyance force
b) gravity force drag force = buoyance force
c) buoyancy force = gravity force
d) drag force = buoyancy force
18) The Fanning equation relating pressure drop and friction factor is given by
a) ps = 2fLu2 / gcD
b) ps = 2L u2 / fgcD


c)


ps = 2fL


u 2 / gc D

d)


ps = 2fD


u2 / gcL

(L : length of the pipe; D : diameter; f : friction factor; u : average velocity;


19) At the stagnation point
a) pressure is zero
c) both pressure and velocity is zero
20) Safety valve is basically
a) a gate valve
c) a check valve

: density)

b) velocity is zero
d) neither pressure nor velocity is zero

b) a globe valve
d) none of the foregoing
______________

Set A

*SLRKM464*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 464

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA)


Examination, 2015
FLUID FLOW OPERATIONS
Day and Date : Tuesday,15-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.


2) Use of calculator is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain Newtons law of viscosity :

b) Define the following properties and state their units (any 4) :


i) Density
ii) Surface Tension
iii) Elasticity
iv) Viscosity
v) Capillarity

c) Calculate the specific weight, specific mass, specific volume and specific gravity of a liquid having
a volume of 6 m and weight of 44 KN.
3. a) Explain characteristics of centrifugal pump.

6
6

b) What are different types of valves ? Explain any one in detail.

c) A plate of 600 mm length and 400 mm wide is immersed in a fluid of sp.gr. 0.9 and kinematic
viscosity v = 104 m2/s. The fluid is moving with a velocity of 6 m/s. Determine i) Boundary layer
thickness ii) Drag force at the end of the plate.

SECTION II
4. a) What is meant by boundary layer ?

b) Derive Hagen Poiseuille equation for laminar flow of fluid through horizontal pipeline.
c)

A fluid of viscosity 0.1 NS/m2 is flowing through a pipe of diameter 0.15 m at the rate of 0.01 m3/s,
density of fluid is 900 Kg/m 3. The length of the pipe is 1500 m. Determine the power required to
maintain the flow.

5. Write short notes on :

20

i) Simple and differential manometer


ii) Minor losses in pipes
iii) Hydrostatic Equilibrium
iv) Friction factor chart

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 465

*SLR-KM-465*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Chemical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


STRENGTH OF MATERIAL (New-CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and any 3 questions from
Section II.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it
5) Non programmable calculator is permitted.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

20

1) The ratio of shear stress to shear strain is called


a) Poissons ratio
b) Bulk modulus
c) Modulus of rigidity
d) Modulus of elasticity
2) A tensile force (P) is acting on a body of length (L) and area of cross section (A). The
change in length would be
a) P/LAE
b) PL/AE
c) PA/LE
d) AL/PE
3) The modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity (K) are related by
a) K = mE/3(m 2)
b) K = mE/2(m + 1)
c) K = 3(m 2)/mE
d) K = 2(m + 1)/mE
4) The work done in producing strain on a material per unit volume is called
a) Resilience
b) Ductility
c) Elasticity
d) Plasticity
5) The thermal stress is given by
b) ET/
a) E T

c) E /T

d) 1/E T

6) The stress due to suddenly applied load as compared to the stress due to the same load
applied gradually to the same rod is
a) half
b) same
c) double
d) three times
7) A cantilever of length (I) carries a udl over the whole length. The BMD will be
a) Parabola with maximum ordinate at center
b) Parabola with maximum ordinate at fixed end
c) Triangle with maximum ordinate at free end
d) Triangle with maximum ordinate at fixed end

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 465

*SLR-KM-465*

-2-

8) The point of contra flexure occurs only in


a) Cantilever beams
c) Simply supported beams

b) Overhanging beams
d) All above

9) The proof resilience is given by


b) 2E/ 2
c) /2E
a) 2 2/E
10) A solid shaft as diameter D transmits the torque equal to
a)

D3
32

b)

D3
64

c)

D3
16

d) E/2 2

d)

3
D
8

11) A cylindrical vessel is said to be thin if the ratio of its internal diameter to wall thickness is
a) Less than 20
b) Equal to 20
c) More than 20
d) None
12) The relation between maximum stress ( ) offered by a section, moment of resistance
(M) and section modulus (Z) is given by
b) M = Z/
c) M = xZ
d) M = 1/ xZ
a) M = /Z

13) Every cross section of a shaft, which is subjected to a twisting moment, is under
a) Compressive stress
b) Shear stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Bending stress
14) The torsional rigidity of a shaft is defined as the torque required to produce
a) Maximum twist in the shaft
b) Maximum shear stress in the shaft
c) Minimum twist in the shaft
d) a twist of one radian per unit length of shaft
15) The maximum strain energy stored in a body is known as
a) Proof resilience
b) Resilience
c) Modulus of resilience
d) All above
16) Planes carrying only normal stress are called as
a) Principal planes
b) Planes of equal shear
c) Planes of unequal shear
d) None of these
17) Limit within which Hookes law holds good is known as
a) Elastic limit
b) Yield point
c) Proportional limit

d) Plastic limit

18) A mild steel beam develops a bending stress of 100 N/mm2 at a distance of 0.1 m from
the neutral axis. If E =200 GPa, the radius of curvature is
a) 400 m
b) 200 m
c) 100 m
d) 50 m
19) A compressive member always tends to buckle in the direction of
a) Axis of load
b) Minimum cross section
c) Least radius of gyration
d) Perpendicular to the axis of load
20) Planes carrying maximum shear stress are
a) Perpendicular to each other
b) Co-liner to each other
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
______________

Set A

*SLR-KM-465*

-3-

SLR-KM 465

Seat
No.

S.E. (Chemical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2015


STRENGTH OF MATERIAL (New-CGPA)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 16-12-2015

Marks : 80

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and any 3 questions from
Section II.
2) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it
4) Non programmable calculator is permitted.
SECTION I
2. a) Define the terms Modulus of Rigidity and Factor of Safety.

b) Draw SFD and BMD or a beam as-shown in fig.

10

3. a) State relation between intensity of load, shear force and bending moment.

b) An I-section beam 400 mm 175 mm has a web thickness of 20 mm and a flange


thickness of 40 mm. If the shear force acting on the section is 75 kN. Find maximum
shear stress developed in the beam.

10

Set A

SLR-KM 465

-4-

*SLR-KM-465*

4. a) Draw shear stress distribution curves for


1) Rectangular section
2) Circular section
3) T section and show their values

b) Derive bending formula and state assumption made in bending.

5. a) Determine the diameter of a solid shaft which will Transmit 95 kW at 180 r.p.m. Also
determine the length of the shaft if the twist should not exceed 1 over the entire length.
The maximum shear stress is limited to 60 N/mm2. Take the value of modulus of rigidity
as 8 104 N/mm2.

10

b) Define Polar modulus. Obtain its value for a solid shaft.

SECTION II
6. a) A 10 mm diameter mild steel bar of length 1.5 meter is stressed by a weight of 120 N
dropping freely through 20 mm before commencing to stretch the bar. Find the maximum
instantaneous stress and the elongation produced in the bar. Take E = 2 105 N/mm2.
b) Define equivalent bending moment and equivalent torque.
7. a) Derive expression for slope, deflection and radius of curvature.
b) Derive expression for deflection of cantilever of length L carrying a uniformly distributed
load w per unit run for a distance a from the fixed end.

10
3
7
7

8. a) The principal stresses at a point in a bar are 200 N/mm2 (tensile) and 100 N/mm2
(compressive). Determine the resultant stress in magnitude and direction on a plane inclined
at 60 to the axis of the major principal stress. Also determine maximum intensity of shear
stress in the material at the point.
b) Define principal planes and principal stresses.

10
3

9. a) Find shortest length L for a pin ended steel column having cross sectional area of
60 mm 100 mm for which Eulers formula applies. Take Es = 2 105 N/mm2 and
critical proportional limit is 250 N/mm2.
b) Derive expression for longitudinal stress in thin cylindrical shell.

10
3

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 466

*SLRKM466*
Seat
No.

Set
S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015
HEAT TRANSFER I

Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
4) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Objective questions :

(120=20)

1) Fouriers law described heat transfer by


a) conduction
b) convection

c) radiation

2) In SI system the unit of thermal conductivity is


a) W/m2.K
b) W/m.K
c) W/K

d) all (a), (b) and (c)


d) W/m2

3) Grashoff number is a ratio of


a) buoyancy force to viscous force
c) inertial force to gravity force

b) buoyancy force to gravity force


d) none of these

4) Prandtl numbers for liquid metals are


a) higher than those for gases
c) much lower than those for gases

b) higher than those for liquids


d) in between those for gases and liquids

5) All substances at temperatures above _____ emit radiation.


a) room temperature
b) absolute zero
c) 373 K temperature
d) 1000 K temperature
6) Let us represent absorptivity by a, reflectivity by r and transmissivity by t. Now for a body
emitting radiation.
a) + + = 0

b) + + = 0.5

7) Absorptivity for a blackbody is


a) zero
b) 0.5

c) + + = 1.0

d) + + = 100

c) 1.0

d) None of the above

8) Stefan-Boltzmann law for black body radiation states that the total emissive power of a
blackbody is directly proportional to
a) T

1
2

b) T

c) T 2

d) T 4

9) In the laminar sublayer, heat transfer


a) by conduction is of major importance
b) by convection is of major importance
c) by radiation is of major importance
d) by conduction, convection and radiation are of equal importance

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 466

*SLRKM466*

-2-

10) Peclet number for heat transfer is given by


a) Re. Gr
b) Re. Fo
c) Re. Pr

d) Re. Nu

11) In a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, baffles are provided on the shell side
a) to increase heat transfer area
b) to induce turbulence in the shell-side liquid, thereby increasing the shell side heat
transfer coefficient
c) to give structural support to the tubes
d) all of the foregoing
12) Tube pitch is equal to
a) inside diameter of tube clearance
c) outside diameter of tube + clearance

b) outside diameter of tube clearance


d) inside diameter of tube + clearance

13) A gas at normal pressure is to be heated by steam in a 1 2 shell and tube heat
exchanger. For this situation
a) gas should be placed on the tube side
b) gas should be placed on the shell side
c) steam should be placed on the shell side
d) any one of the arrangements of a), b), c) will be equally effective and will have the
same advantages/disadvantages
14) Nusselts theory for condensation is derived for
a) drop-wise condensation
b) film-wise condensation
c) both drop-wise and film-wise condensation
d) there is nothing called Nusselts theory (for condensation), there is a dimensionless
group called Nusselt number
15) For heat transfer through a composite wall, overall resistance to heat transfer is
a) sum of the resistance
b) product of the resistance
c) a ratio of (sum of the resistances) / (product of the resistances)
d) (sum of the resistances) + (product of the resistances)
16) An insulator should have
a) very high thermal conductivity
c) very low thermal conductivity

b) very high thermal diffusivity


d) none of the above

17) Prandtl number is a ratio of


a) molecular diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
b) molecular diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
c) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
d) none of the above
18) Nusselt number for forced convection heat transfer in pipe of diameter D is defined as
a) h D/K
b) h K/D
c) K D/h
d) K D/h2
19) Colburn J. factor for heat transfer is given by
a) St. Pr ((w/()0.14
b) St 2/3.Pr
2/3
0.14
c) St. Pr ((w/()
d) (St. Pr)2/3
20) When heat is added or subtracted, resulting in a change of temperature is called as
a) Sensible heat
b) Latent heat
c) Specific heat
d) Heat capacity

______________

Set A

*SLRKM466*

-3-

SLR-KM 466

Seat
No.

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


HEAT TRANSFER I
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.


2) Use of calculator is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2.

a) State and explain the following :

i) Fouriers Law of conduction


ii) Newtons Law of cooling
iii) Stefan-Boltzmann Law

3.

b) Derive the heat flow equation for steady state heat conduction through composite plane
wall.

c) Calculate the critical radius of insulation of asbestos[k = 0.17 W/m K] surrounding a pipe
and exposed to room air at 25 C with h = 3.2 W/m2K. Calculate the heat loss from a 200 C,
5.0 cm diameter pipe when covered with the critical radius of insulation and without
insulation.

a) Explain Log mean temperature difference for co-current and counter current flow heat
exchanger.

10

b) The condenser of a steam power plant operates at a pressure of 7.38 kPa. Steam at this
pressure (40 C) condenses on the outer surfaces of horizontal pipes through which
cooling water circulates. The outer diameter of the pipe is 3 cm. and outer surfaces of the
pipe are maintained at 30 C. Determine :
a) the rate of heat transfer to the cooling water
b) rate of condensation of steam per unit length of a horizontal pipe.

10

Data : Properties of water

= 2407 103 J/Kg, = 994 Kg/m3, Cp = 4178 J/Kg C, = 0.720 10 3 Kg/m.s,


k = 0.623 W/m C.

Set A

SLR-KM 466

-4-

*SLRKM466*

SECTION II
4.

a) Draw a neat sketch and explain different boiling regimes in pool boiling.

10

b) 100 tubes of OD 12.5 mm are arranged horizontally in a square array and exposed to dry
steam at 101.325 kPa (1 atm) estimate the mass of steam condensation per length of
tubes for a tube wall temperature of 371 K.

10

Data : Properties of condensate at film temp. of 372 K are :

= 2256.9 103 J/Kg, = 960 Kg/m3, = 0.282 10 3 Kg/m.s, k = 0.68 W/m K.


5. Write short notes on (any 4) :

20

i) Types of convection
ii) Thermal boundary layer
iii) Thermal contact resistance
iv) Dimensional analysis
v) Film wise and Drop wise condensation.
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 467

*SLRKM467*
S

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 30 Minutes
1.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1) The work involved for the expansion of spring is


a) positive
b) zero
c) negative

Marks : 20
d) cant be calculated

2) Suggest a system for 10 moles of propane gas in a rigid metal cylinder


a) Metal cylinder
b) Propane gas
c) Outside of metal cylinder
d) Propane gas with cylinder
3) Suggest surroundings for 10 moles of propane gas in a rigid metal cylinder
a) Propane gas
b) Inside walls of metal cylinder
c) Outside walls of metal cylinder
d) Propane gas with cylinder
4) Identify a system for 500 mL of water in an open beaker
a) Water
b) Beaker
c) Inner walls of beaker
d) None of the above
5) Compression of a gas mixture as in an automobile engine. Choose the correct answer :
a) Work is done by the system on the surroundings
b) Work is done by the surroundings on the system
c) No work is done
d) Cant say
6) The temperature at which both liquid and gas phases are identical, is called the
___________ point.
a) Critical
b) Triple
c) Boiling
d) Freezing
7) Any substance above its critical temperature exists as
a) Saturated Vapour b) Gas
c) Liquid

d) Solid

8) The condition of a substance above the critical point is


a) Subcritical
b) Saturated
c) Supercritical

d) Supersaturated

9) The condition of a substance below the critical point is


a) Subcritical
b) Saturated
c) Supercritical

d) Supersaturated
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 467

-2-

*SLRKM467*

10) The temperature and pressure at which all three phases of a substance coexist in equilibrium
a) Critical
b) Triple
c) Boiling
d) Freezing
11) The standard heat of reaction is the enthalpy change accompanying a reaction when
__________ are at their standard states at temperature T.
a) Reactants
b) Products
c) Both reactants and products
d) None
12) In the term HT0, superscript 0 refers to
a) Any state
b) Standard state c) Random state d) None


13) Very commonly used standard states are


a) 298 K, 10 atm
b) 298 K, 1 atm c) 298 K, 100 atm d) 298 K, 0.1 atm
14) In the reaction 2C + O2
CO2, the heat of reaction per mole of oxygen is __________
the heat per mole of Carbon.
a) Half
b) Twice
c) One third
d) thrice


15) Heat of combustion is the heat of reaction accompanying the oxidation of a pure substance with
a) Air
b) Nascent oxygen c) Molecular oxygen d) None
16) Limitations of the First Law of Thermodynamics are
a) It cannot tell us whether a proposed change will actually take place
b) It does not give the direction of change
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) nor b)
17) First Law of Thermodynamics
a) Treats heat and work as additive terms
b) Treats all forms of energy as additive
c) Does not take into account the qualitative difference between heat and work
d) All the above
18) In real systems
a) All the heat is converted into work
b) All the energy is available
c) A part of the energy becomes unavailable for work
d) All of the above
19) The efficiency of converting heat into any form of work is very low. This leads to the
conclusion that
a) Heat is a less versatile form of energy
b) Heat is a more degraded form of energy compared to other forms of energy
c) Work is a higher quality energy than heat
d) All the above
20) Difference between quality of heat and other forms of energy are _________ in the
second law of thermodynamics.
a) Accounted for
b) Unaccounted for
c) Have no relation
d) None of the above
_________________

Set A

*SLRKM467*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 467

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
Day and Date : Friday, 18-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.


2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
SECTION I
2. Write a short note on the following (any four) :

(54=20)

a) Explain P-T diagram for pure substance.


b) Explain P-V diagram for pure substance.
c) A tank containing 20 kg water at 293 k is fitted with a stirrer that delivers work to the water
at the rate of 0.25 kw. How long it will take for the temperature of water to rise to 303 k if no
heat is lost from the water ? For water CP = 4.18 KJ/kgC.
d) What do you understand by an equation of state ? What are the limiting conditions to be
satisfied by such equations ?
e) Prove that entropy is a state function.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)

a) An ideal gas initially at 600 K and 10 bar undergoes a four step mechanically reversible
cycle in a closed system. In step 12, pressure decreases isothermally to 3 bar, in step 23,
pressure decreases at constant volume to 2 bar, in step 34, volume decreases, at constant
pressure and in step 41, the gas returns adiabatically to its initial state. Cp = 7/2 R,
Cv = 5/2R. Calculate Q, W, E and H for each step of the cycle.


b) An insulated and non-conducting container filled with 10 kg of water at 20C is fitted with
a stirrer. The stirrer is made to turn by gravity acting on a weight of mass 25 kg. The
weight falls slowly through a distance of 10 m in driving the stirrer. Assuming that all the
work done on the weight is transferred to the water and that the local acceleration of
gravity is 9.8 m/s2. Determine :
i) The amount of work done on the water
ii) The internal energy change of the water
iii) The final temperature of water
iv) The amount of heat that must be removed from the water to return it to its initial
temperature.
c) Pure CO is mixed with 100% excess air and completely burned at constant pressure. The
reactants are originally at 400 K. Determine the heat added or removed if the products
leave at 600 K. The standard heat of reaction 298 K is 283.028 kJ per mol CO burned. The
mean specific heats applicable in the temperature range of this problem are 29.10, 29.70,
29.10 and 41.45 J/mol. K respectively for CO, O2, N2 and CO2.
Set A

SLR-KM 467

-4-

*SLRKM467*

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)

a) Explain the phase rule and discuss the degree of the freedom for any system.
b) The Redlich-Kwong equation of state given below is widely used to represent the P-V-T
behaviour of several gases :
P = RT/(V b)


/V(V b)T1/2

V is in m3/mol. Determine the units of constants a and b.


c) Write a note on latent heats of pure substances and give various equations for calculations
of latent heat of vaporisation.
d) Explain the third law of thermodynamics.
e) Explain the isothermal compressibility and adiabatic compressibility.
5. Solve (any 2) the following :

(102=20)

a) Derive the following relation for the efficiency of Carnot engine :


= (Th Tc)/Th
Why is efficiency of Carnot engine maximum ?


b) Derive the Maxwell relations.


c) Hydrocarbon oil is to be cooled from 425 K to 340 K at a rate of 5,000 kg/h in parallel flow
heat exchanger. Cooling water at a rate of 10,000 kg/h at 295 K is available. The specific
heats are 2.5 and 4.2 KJ/Kg respectively for oil and water.
i) Determine, the total change in entropy. Is the process reversible ?
ii) If a reversible Carnot engine is to be operated receiving the heat from the oil and
rejecting the heat to the surrounding at 295 K, how much work would be available ?
_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 469

*SLRKM469*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MECHANICAL OPERATIONS
Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Max. Marks : 100

1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
4) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose the correct answer :

(120=20)

1) If dp is the equivalent diameter of a non-spherical particle, Vp its volume and sp its surface
area, then its sphericity is s is defined by
a) s = 6 VP/dp sp

b) s = Vp/dp sp

c) s = 6 dp sp/Vp

d) s = dp sp/Vp

2) Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending on their


a) Size
b) Density
c) Wettability
d) Electrical and magnetic properties
3) Maximum size reduction in a ball mill is done by the, ___________ action.
a) Attrition
b) Compression
c) Impact
d) Cutting
4) Short distance transportation of grain, gravel, sand, ash, asphalt etc. is done by using
a ____________ conveyor.
a) Flight
b) Slat or drag
c) Ribbon
d) Screw
5) The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the cross-section
of the load, the other is the ____________ of the belt.
a) Speed
b) Thickness
c) Length
d) None of these
6) The capacity of a pneumatic conveying system depends upon the
a) Bulk density of materials
b) Pressure of the conveying air
c) Diameter of the conveying line
d) All a), b) and c)
7) Highly viscous liquids and pastes are agitated by
a) Propellers
b) Turbine agitators
c) Multiple blade paddles
d) None of these
8) The power number for a stirred tank becomes constant at high Reynolds number. In this
limit, the variation of power input with impeller rotational speed (N) is proportional to
a) N 0
b) N 1
c) N 2
d) N 3

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 469

*SLRKM469*

-2-

9) Which of the following agitators having a large blade area, rotating at slow speed is used
for mixing high viscosity liquids (> 50000 centipoise) ?
a) Propeller
b) Helical screw
c) Flat blade turbine
d) Curved blade turbine
10) ____________ are mixed using ribbon blenders.
a) Lumpy solids and low viscosity liquids
b) Dry powders
c) High viscosity liquids
d) Thick pastes
11) Which of the following is a pressure filter ?
a) Leaf filter (Moore filter)
b) Plate and flame filter
c) Rotary drum filter
d) Sand filter
12) Filter aid is used to
a) Increase the rate of filtration
b) Decrease the pressure drop
c) Increase the porosity of the cake
d) Act as a support base for the septum
13) Vacuum is applied in _________ zone, in case of a general type continuous rotary
drum vacuum filter.
a) Filtering
b) Washing
c) Drying
d) All a), b) and c)
14) Which of the following is a vacuum filter ?
a) Filter press
c) Batch basket centrifuge

b) Rotary disc filter


d) Tank filter (Nutsch filter)

15) The controlling resistance in a rotary drum vacuum filter is the __________ resistance.
a) Piping
b) Cake
c) Filter medium
d) None of these
16) Two particles are called to be equal settling, if they are having the same
a) Size
b) Specific gravity
c) Terminal velocities in the same fluid and in the same field of force
d) None of these
17) Solid particles separation based on the difference in their flow velocities through fluids
is termed as the
a) Clarification
b) Classification
c) Elutriation
d) Sedimentation
18) The process opposite to dispersion is termed as the
a) Flocculation
b) Sedimentation
c) Filtration

d) None of these

19) Jigging is a technique by which different particles can be


a) Separated by particle size
b) Separated by particle density
c) Separated by particle shape
d) Mixed
20) Dust laden air can be purified using a
a) Cyclone separator
c) Gravity settler

b) Bag filter
d) Tubular centrifuge

______________
Set A

*SLRKM469*

-3-

SLR-KM 469

Seat
No.

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MECHANICAL OPERATIONS
Day and Date : Monday, 21-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 80

1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.


2) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.

2. a) A material is crushed in a Blake Jaw Crusher such that the average size of particles is
reduced from 50 mm to 10 mm with the consumption of energy of 13.0 kW/(kg/s). What
would be the consumption of energy needed to crush the same material of average particle
size 75 mm to an average size of 25 mm ?
i) Assuming Rittingers Law applies
ii) Assuming Kicks law applies
Which of these results would be regarded as being more realistic and why ?

10

b) What are the various factors which affect the rate of filtration ? Derive an
expression to calculate the rate of filtration.

10

3. a) Describe in detail elements of pneumatic conveying systems. What are the


merits and demerits of pneumatic conveyors ?

10

b) Write notes on :
i) Gyratory crusher
ii) Jaw crusher.

10

4. a) What are the various factors which affect the rate of filtration ? Derive an
expression to calculate the rate of filtration.

10

b) A sludge is filtered in a plate and frame press filtered with 25 mm frames. For the first
600 sec. the slurry pump runs at maximum capacity. During this period the pressure rises
to 415 kN/m2 and 25% of the total filtrate is obtained. The filtration takes a further 3600 sec
to complete at constant pressure and 900 sec. is required for emptying and resetting the
press. It is found that if the cloths are precoated with filter aid to a depth of 1.6 mm, the
cloth resistance is reduced to 25% of its former value. What will be the increase in the
overall through-put of the press if the precoat can be applied in 180 sec. ?
5. a) What are the various types of mixers used for paste and plastic materials ?
Explain any two in brief.

10
7

b) Write note on Particulate fluidization.

c) Write an explanatory note on Kych Theory of Sedimentation.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 470

*SLRKM470*
Seat
No.

Set

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MATERIAL TECHNOLOGY
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Q. 1 is compulsory.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
5) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Objective questions :

(120=20)

1) Which of the following material has maximum ductility ?


a) Mild steel
b) Copper
c) Nickel
d) Aluminium
2) Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as
a) Creep
b) Fatigue
c) Endurance
d) Plastic deformation
3) Eutectic product in Fe-C system is called
a) Pearlite
b) Bainite
c) Ledeburite
d) Spheroidite
4) At what temperature -iron exists ?
a) 1400C
b) 910C
5) The formula of Cementite is
a) Fe2C
b) Fe3C

c) 1537C

d) None

c) FeC3

d) FeC2

6) BIS stands for


a) Bureau of International Standards b) Bureau of Indian Standards
c) Bureau of Industry and Security d) All of the above
7) Brass in an alloy of
a) Tin and Zinc
b) Copper and Zinc
c) Silicon and Copper
d) Silicon and Zinc
8) A _________ is a short cylindrical bar with a head integral to it.
a) Rivet
b) Punch
c) Bend
d) Weld
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 470

-2-

*SLRKM470*

9) The ________ joint is obtained by placing the plates edge to edge.


a) Lap
b) Butt
c) All
d) None
10) 1 nanometer (nm) = ________ m.
a) 10 9
b) 10 8
c) 10 7
d) 10 10
11) The prefix nano comes from a
a) French word meaning billion
b) Greek word meaning dwarf
c) Spanish word meaning particle
d) Latin word meaning invisible
12) What is a buckyball ?
a) A carbon molecule (C60)
b) Nickname for Mercedes-Benzs futuristic concept car (C111)
c) Plastic explosive nanoparticle (C4)
d) Concrete nano-particle with a compressive strength of 20 nano-newtons
(C20)
13) 1-D structures are
a) Thin films
b) Nanotubes
c) Nanocomposites
d) Quantum dots
14) Molecules with one end that is soluble in water and the other end that rejects
it are called
a) Hydrophobic
b) Hydrophilic
c) Amphiphilic
d) All
15) One of the following is a Non-destructive method
a) Radiography
b) Sonic inspection
c) Eddy current testing
d) All of the above
16) _________ are not used to locate the defects or flaws in the component.
a) Destructive tests
b) Non-destructive tests
c) Imperfections
d) None of the above
17) The following properties of materials are determined by tensile test.
a) Yield strength
b) Ultimate yield strength
c) Ductility
d) All of these tests
18) A universal testing machine can be used to perform
a) Shear test
b) Hardness test
c) Fatigue test
d) None of the above
19) Creep curve is a graph of
a) Stress on x-axis and time on y-axis
b) Strain on x-axis and time on y-axis
c) Stress on y-axis and time on x-axis
d) Strain on y-axis and time on x-axis
20) Repeatable entity of a crystal structure is known as
a) Crystal
b) Lattice
c) Unit Cell
d) Miller indices
______________
Set A

*SLRKM470*

-3-

SLR-KM 470

Seat
No.

S.E. (Chemical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2015


MATERIAL TECHNOLOGY
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-12-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 80

Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.


Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Answers to the two Sections should be written in
separate answer book.
SECTION I

2. a) Write short notes on any two of the following :

10

i) Ductility
ii) Malleability
iii) Hardness
iv) Creep.
b) A wrought iron bar 50 mm in diameter and 2.5 m long transmits shock energy
of 100 N-m. Find the maximum instantaneous stress and the elongation.
10
Take E = 200 GN/m2.
3. a) Define Atomic Packing Factor and calculate it for

10

i) Simple Cubic Structures


ii) Body centered Cubic Structures
iii) Face centered Cubic Structures.
b) Write short notes on any two of the following :

10

i) Planar atomic density


ii) Co-ordination number
iii) Ligancy.
Set A

SLR-KM 470

-4-

*SLRKM470*

SECTION II
4. a) Write short notes on the following :

10

i) Atomic force microscopy


ii) X-ray diffraction.
b) Explain principle and working of Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM).

10

5. a) Draw Iron-Iron Carbide Equilibrium diagram. Write all the phases, reactions
and temperatures.

b) Explain Riveting, its types and its uses.

c) List different types of Brasses, their properties and applications.

d) Explain in detail liquid penetrant testing of materials.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 472

*SLRKM472*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Saturday, 19-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 100

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30


minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Out of remaining questions solve any two from each Section.
3) Figure to the right carry full marks.
4) Draw appropriate diagrams wherever necessary.
5) Precise and to the point answer carry weightage.
6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes

Marks : 20

1. Choose correct alternative : (one mark each)


1) PDCA cycle was developed by
A) Demina
B) Tipett
2) Match the pairs :

1
C) Gautt

D) Taylor
5

A) Rest

P)

B) Transport Empty

Q)

C) Hold
D) Preposition

R)
T)

E) Assembly

S)

U)
3) Observed time is 5 min. and performance rating is 120. The normal time is
A) 0.6 min.
B) 1.2 min.
C) 6.0 min.
D) 12 min.
4) In method study the symbol
A) Operation
C) Project study

represents
B) Inspection
D) Delay

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 472

*SLRKM472*

-2-

5) Light source is required for


A) Cycle graph
C) Chronocycle graph

1
B) SIMO chart
D) Template

6) ILO stands for


A) Indian Labour Organisation
B) International Labour Organisation
C) Indian Legislative Organisation
D) None of the above

7) Multiple answer questions (two marks each) :


1) Humidity as general should not exceed __________ and normal working
temperature is in between ______________
A) 70 percent, 100F
B) 100 percent, 100C
C) 70 percent, 60-65F
D) 50 percent, 75-80F

2) Operation process chart is useful


A) To study work station layout
B) To avoid waiting time and unnecessary
C) To reduce idle time of man and machine
D) To fix up the sequence of operation

3) Which of the following allowances are personal allowances ?


A) To wash hand
B) Travelling
C) To get a glass of water
D) To fix up the sequence of operation

4) Work sampling is used for


A) Idle time of machine
B) Job analysis
C) Performance analysis
D) Accuracy

5) __________ is individual incentive plan.


A) Halsey premium plan
B) Meric differential piece rate system
C) Scanlon plan
D) Priestman production bonus
______________

Set A

*SLRKM472*

SLR-KM 472

-3-

Seat
No.

T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2015


INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Saturday, 19-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Explain in brief contribution of Taylors in development of industrial
engineering.

b) Discuss various recording techniques used in method study.

c) Explain basic procedure and steps in work study.

3. a) Construct a process chart for installing an antenna on top of the house.

b) Explain function and scope of industrial engineering.

c) Ergonomic consideration and application.

4. a) Name any one organization in India that are primarily concerned with increasing
productivity and state the nature of their activities.

b) Explain with diagrams Cycle graph and Chrono-cycle graph.

c) Explain Travel Chart.

6
SECTION II

5. a) The following table shows a time study data. The times shown are continuous
watch reading in minutes. Initial setting of stop watch is at 0.00.
Take relaxation allowance as 15% and find the standard time.
Sr.
No.

Element

Cycle Time
1

Performance
Rating

1.

Get two case

0.5

4.2

8.6

1.05

Put Parts into cases

1.5

5.7

9.9

1.15

3.

Clamp two parts in position

3.8

8.1 12.6

0.95

Set A

SLR-KM 472

-4-

*SLRKM472*

b) What do you mean by braking the jobs into element ? And explain different
types of elements.

c) How material handling equipments are classified ? Explain industrial truck


where to use and explain any one.

6. a) Compare product layout with process layout.

b) What is incentive scheme ? Characteristics of good incentive scheme. Explain


any one.

c) Write note on MOST.

7. a) List various methods of job evaluation and explain any one.

b) Write procedure of work sampling.

c) Write note on PDCA cycle.

_____________________

Set A

SLR-KM 601

*SLRKM601*
S

Set
.

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


SOCIOLOGY
Introduction to Sociology (Self Learning) HSS
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first


15 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
2) Attempt any 4 from the remaining questions.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Duration : 15 Minutes

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Marks : 10

1. Choose the correct answer :


I) Nuclear family is an example of ______ society.
a) Rural
b) Urban
c) Tribal
d) None of the above
II) Which of the following is not the characteristic of urban industrial society ?
a) High growth of urbanization
b) Importance to achieved status
c) Modernization
d) Low mobility
III) To sustain the continuity of society is the basic function of _______ institution.
a) Religion
b) Education
c) Family
d) None of the above
IV) Social change is a ________ process.
a) Artificial
b) Universal
c) Universal and Natural
d) Both a) and c)
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 601

*SLRKM601*

-2-

V) Narmada Bachao Andolan is an example of _______ movement.


a) Protest
b) Reformist
c) Expansion
d) None of the above
VI) Anna Hazare has been associated with ________ movement.
a) Chipko
b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
c) Save Silent Valley
d) India against corruption
VII) What is the long form of FDI ?
a) Foreign Direct Investment
c) Foreign Direct Income

b) Foreign Development Investment


d) None of the above

VIII) Sociology is a web of ________ relations.


a) Financial
b) Human
c) Physical
d) All the above
IX) _______ is a process which helps human being to become social being.
a) Socialization
b) Sanskritization
c) Social change
d) None of the above
X) ______ is day by day declining among the members of urban family.
a) Wealth
b) Modernity
c) Solidarity
d) Status
______________

Set A

*SLRKM601*
S

-3-

SLR-KM 601

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


SOCIOLOGY
Introduction to Sociology (Self Learning) HSS
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

Instructions : 1) Attempt any 4 from the following questions.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2. Discuss the difference between Status and Role.

10

3. Define family and explain the functions of family institution.

10

4. Define social change and elucidate how industrialization induces the pace of
social change.

10

5. Define the concept of sociology and explain the importance of culture.

10

6. Define social movement and explain the objectives of protest movements.

10

7. What is urbanization and explain the important features of urbanization in India. 10


_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 602

*SLRKM602*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


ECONOMICS
(Self Learning - H.S.S.)
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Total Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Attempt any four questions out of Question No. two to seven.
2) Figures at right indicate marks.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer
Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. Choose the correct alternatives :

10

1) __________ economics deals with the study of aggregate which covers the
entire economy.
a) Micro
b) Public
c) Macro
d) International
2) All factors of production owned and managed by private individual is known
as __________
a) Command economy
b) Capitalist economy
c) Closed economy
d) Underdeveloped economy
3) Competition among few sellers known as __________ market.
a) Monopoly
b) Monopolistic competition
c) Oligopoly
d) Duopoly
4) Gross National Income Depreciation = ?
a) Net National Income
b) Disposable income
c) Net Domestic Income
d) Personal Income
5) When economists refer to tight monetary policy, they mean that the
Reserve Bank of India is taking actions that will
a) Increase the demand for money b) Decrease the demand for money
c) Expand the supply of money
d) Contract the supply of money
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 602

-2-

*SLRKM602*

6) In order to control inflation, Reserve Bank of India can __________ bank


rate.
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Constant
d) None of the above
7) Fiscal policy is connected with __________
a) Issue of currency
b) Exports and imports
c) Public revenue and expenditure d) Controls of money supply
8) Which of the following is NOT an account in the balance of payments ?
a) Current account
b) Capital account
c) Financial account
d) Future account
9) Automatic correction in balance of payments is the main advantage of
__________
a) Fixed exchange rate system
b) Flexible exchange rate system
c) Peg exchange rate system
d) None of the above
10) Which of the following is NOT an economic activity ?
a) Painting for self use
b) Maintenance of public park by local administration
c) Painting for commercial use
d) Running an academic school
______________

Set A

*SLRKM602*

-3-

SLR-KM 602

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


ECONOMICS
(Self Learning - H.S.S.)
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

Instructions : 1) Attempt any four questions out of Question No. two to seven.
2) Figures at right indicate marks.
2. What is economic problem ? Discuss various basic economic problems.

10

3. Define micro and macro economics and distinguish between them.

10

4. Explain the relationship between price and quantity demanded of a commodity.

10

5. Define consumption function, explain the determinants of consumption.

10

6. What is inflation ? Describe the causes of inflation in India.

10

7. What is balance of payment disequilibrium ? Discuss measures to correct


disequilibrium in balance of payment.

10

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 603

*SLRKM603*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (HSS) : PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND HUMAN VALUES
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer Book Page No. 3.


Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
3) Figures at right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
1. Select the correct answer from the given options/alternatives :

(101=10)

1) CSR stands for


a) Corporate Social Responsibility

b) Co-operation in Society Representation

c) Class Social Representative

d) None of the above

2) Gilligans theory is related to


a) Moral development

b) Human values

c) Motivation

d) Team working

3) Any occupation/job/vocation that requires expertise, skill, knowledge, self regulation and
concerned service to the public is called as
a) Leadership

b) Profession

c) Ethics

d) None of above

b) Leadership

c) Ethics

d) Team building

b) Engineering

c) Equation

d) Empirical

4) RIGHTS theory is related to


a) Motivation
5) In FMEA, E stands for
a) Effect

6) The bargain by the trade union for improving the economic and other interest is called as
a) Strike

b) Collective bargaining

c) Authority and responsibility

d) None of the above

7) When the employee has more than one interest, it is called as


a) job responsibility

b) conflict of interest

c) conflict of power

d) none of the above


P.T.O.

SLR-KM 603

*SLRKM603*

-2-

8) IPR stands for


a) Intelligent Persons Rights

b) Industrial Persons Rights

c) Intellectual Property Rights

d) None of the above

9) Patent is given to
a) Product or a process

b) Service

c) Art

d) None of the above

10) An identity of specific goods and services permitting the differences to be made among
different trades is called as
a) Copyright
c) Patent

b) Trademark
d) None of the above
______________

Set A

*SLRKM603*

-3-

SLR-KM 603

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (HSS) : PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND HUMAN VALUES
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions :

Marks : 40

1) Attempt any four from remaining questions.


2) Figures at right indicate full marks.

2. What are human values ? Explain their types.

10

3. What are work ethics ? Explain their significance and importance.

10

4. Explain types of inquiries.

10

5. Explain the role of engineers as an advisors in planning and policy making.

10

6. Explain the method of Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) of risk analysis.

10

7. Explain risk benefit analysis.

10
_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 604

*SLRKM604*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (HSS)
Stress and Coping
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015

Max. Marks : 50

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer
Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 10
1. A) Choose among the right alternative :

1) Which of the following is the most accurate description of stress ?


a) The social reaction to a positive or negative event
b) The physical and emotional state experienced as a result of a positive or
negative life event
c) A physical response to a negative event
d) Emotions experienced as a result of a negative life event
2) A recent national survey revealed that college students find __________ to
be the biggest impediment to their academic success.
a) Illnesses
b) Sleep difficulty
c) Stress
d) Relationship issues
3) The bodys main stress hormone is
a) Norepinephrine
c) Cortisol

b) ACTH
d) Epinephrine

P.T.O.

SLR-KM 604

*SLRKM604*

-2-

4) Hans Selye identified a general set of changes the body goes through in
response to a stressor known as the
a) General adaptation syndrome
b) Trans theoretical model
c) Homeostatic response
d) Allostatic load
5) Which is true about depression ?
a) Depression never leads to suicide
b) Depression is a sign of weakness
c) Everyone experiences depression and its not serious
d) Depression is a whole body illness that affects ones body, moods and
thoughts
B) Match the pairs. (Replacing negative self-talk with positive self-talk)
Set A

Set B

1.

Im never going to finish this

1. There are things I like about my job

2.

I hate my job

2. My boss must think I am really


good at what I do

3.

I have so many bills to pay

3. Step by step, I will finish what I


need to do

4.

My boss is so unfair. I have


more responsibility than
anyone else

4. I bet there are lots of people


that need help. Where could I
volunteer my time ?

5.

I am so lonely. No one
ever calls me

5. I have a lot of bills to pay. How


can I reduce my expenses to pay
for the things I need ?

______________
Set A

*SLRKM604*

-3-

SLR-KM 604

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


SELF LEARNING (HSS)
Stress and Coping
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015

Marks : 40

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


Solve any four :
2. Explain stress-current and historical status.

10

3. Highlight the role of social support in minimizing the effect of stress.

10

4. What are the consequences of stress ?

10

5. Excessive stress is very harmful. Elaborate on this statement.

10

6. Write short note on nature of the stress response.

10

7. Discuss in detail the various coping style of stress.

10

_____________________

Set A

Set A

SLR-KM 605

*SLRKM605*
Seat
No.

Set

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS FOR TECHNOLOGY
DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT (Self Learning (HSS))
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer


Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top
of Page.
3) Attempt all questions.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) What is the term of a patent ?
a) 35 years
b) 25 years

(101=10)
c) 20 years

d) 15 years

2) What is copyright meant for ?


a) Film Work
b) Books
c) Essay
d) All the above
3) A person develops a new process for making cheese from milk having low
fats and cholesterol. He wishes to protect it. Which form of IPR would be
suitable ?
a) Patent
b) Copyright
c) Trademarks
d) Industrial Design
4) The legislation covering Intellectual Property Right in India for Information
Technology is
a) Information Technology Act, 2003 b) Information Technology Act, 2000
c) Information Technology Act, 2008 d) None of the above
5) The first Patent Law was enacted in India in the year.
a) 1856
b) 1880
c) 1905
d) 1850
6) No patent shall be granted in respect of an invention relating to
a) Atomic Energy b) Bio Energy
c) Solar Energy d) Wind Energy
P.T.O.

SLR-KM 605

-2-

*SLRKM605*

7) Which of the following is not specifically protected by intellectual property


legislation ?
a) Industrial Designs
b) Trademarks
c) Copyrights
d) Trade secrets
8) All of the following are examples of intellectual property protections EXCEPT
a) Copyrights
b) Patents
c) Contracts
d) Trademarks
9) Intellectual Property Rights are result of
a) Mental work
b) Physical work
c) Technical work
d) Communication
10) To apply for a patent, an inventor must
a) File an application at a patent office which must comply with formal and
technical requirements
b) Draft the full specification of the patent they seek, which cannot be later
amended
c) Demonstrate that their invention works
d) None of above

______________

Set A

*SLRKM605*

-3-

SLR-KM 605

Seat
No.

T.E. (Part I) Examination, 2015


INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS FOR TECHNOLOGY
DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT (Self Learning (HSS))
Day and Date : Thursday, 17-12-2015
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 40

Instructions : 1) Attempt all questions.


2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2. What are the essential requirements for granting patent ? Explain in detail.

10

3. Elaborate the Indian Patent Act, 1970.

10

OR
Explain role of confidentiality and information security in technology development. 10
4. Write short notes on any four.

20

1) Copyrights.
2) Trade secrets.
3) Bio-technology and intellectual property.
4) Publication and examination of patent applications.
5) Protection of traditional knowledge.
6) Copyright issues in creative works.

_____________________

Set A

Set A

Вам также может понравиться