Q1.

1. A

OCT 2009 DGCA PAPER 1

Approval of cat. F is not required in
2. B
3. C
4.all

Q2.

Who can raise log book in respect of newly manufactured A/C

1. Manufacture 2. A/W authority of country of manufacture
3. Owner of A/C with prior approval of competent authority
Q3.

AO changes its location of maintenance facilities

1. Within 15 days
2. With in 1 month
4. At earliest opportunity

3. Immediate

Q4.

Special inspection schedule of A/C MTOW above 5700 kg

1. QCM of operator
2. RAO /SRAO
DGCA Hq.
Q5.
in

3.

Authorization will not be issued in case of inspection failure is recorded

1. 3 month
4. 24 month

2. 6 month

3. 12 month

Q6.

Modification is
1. Change incorporated in A/C during major inspection schedule 2. In
consultation with RAO
3. Change to type certificated A/C
4. All
Q7.
Modification is issued by manufacture on type certificate A/C
1. Require approval of DAGC Hq.
2. Require
approval of RAO
3. Deemed to be approved modification
4. 1&2
Q8.
Approval granted to BAMEL required approval of
1. 6 month in year
2. 3 month in year
3. 3 month in year
4. 6 month in year at least 20
transit
/day over inspection
Q9.

MTCS ( ETOPS)
1. Fly abroad

2. Fly over water more than 120 NM

3. Fly beyond 120 min. from airport

Q10. MTCS
1. Minimum deviation from normal operation
2. Values are
acceptable
3. For reference to indicate corrective action require
4. Fixed in consultation with QC department
Q11. Storage /self life of other than gyro instrument shall not exceed beyond

2. 2yr.

1. 1yr.
4. 4yr.

3. 3yr.

Q12. increase in service life require prior approval of

1. RAO
2. DGCA

3. Both 1&2

Q13. ACC 4 of 1998

1. Approval of foreign organization
2. Approval of Indian
organization
3. Both
4. None
Q14. Electrostatic device
1. ACC 6 of 2004
ACC 6 of 2005

2. ACC 6 of 2000

3. ACC 6 of 2001

4.

Q15. If the A/C does not leave the vicinity of the departing aerodrome
require
1. FRC
2. Air operation permit
3. C of A
4. C of R
Q16. Class III aeronautical product does not require
1. A/W Approval tag
2. Compliance with FAR /JAR 21 3.
Statement of AD complied with
4. 1&2
Q17. ETOPS manual does not contain
1. A/C serial NO.
2. World fleet
APU

3. Registration No..

4.

Q18. According to CAR 145 uninstalled component excluding engine /APU

1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
Q19. In helicopter when technical unit fails, force landing must be required
1. Class I
2. Class II
3. Class III
Q20. For issue of Cof A
1. CA 28
23

2. CA 25

Q21. History card contain

1. Hard time
2. On condition
1&2
Q22. Weight and balance
1. Rule 55
2. Rule 56

3. CA 2001

4. CA

3. condition monitoring

3. Rule 57

4.

4. Rule 58

Q23 Load and trim sheet is prepared by

1.All operator
2. Schedule operator
3. Non schedule operator
4. All operator excluding private operator

Q24

Section 4 of flight manual

1. Normal
2. Emergency
Limitation
Q25

Q26

Refresher course
1. ACC 8 of 2001

3. General

3. Welders

Q27 QAR /PMR

1. 50hrs. of operation 2. 30 hrs. of operation
4. 30 min of operation
Q28

3. ACC 8 of 2000

2. AAC 5 of 2001

refresher course is not require

1. Instructor 2. Flying crew

4.

4. All

3. 30 days of operation

For Mode S address operator will apply

1. DGCA Hq.
2. RAO
4. None

3. RAO/SRAO

Q29

Good maintenance practices are not required for

1. Technicians
2. Manger
3. Supervisor
4. All

Q30

When intruder is in potential thread

1. RA
2. TA
4. ACAS

3. SSR

Q31 Flight test is not require in

1. When engine change 2. C of A renewal
3. Any repair which does not affect its flight characteristics 4. All
Q32

Operational check for non radiation load in ELT is done every

1. 12 month
2. 36 month
3. 6month
4. 24 month

Q33

Log book of private A/C is maintained by

1. Owner
2. Operator
3. manufacture

Q34

calibration of dipstick is done by

1. DGCA
2. Owner

Q35 Light A/C

1. A/C weight less than 5700 kg or less
3000kg
3. A/C used for training purpose

4. All

3. PIC
2. A/C weight less than

Q36 MTCS ( alert Value)

1. Piston engine parameter are recorded every 100 hrs

2. Alert value not for acceptance

3. DGCA office must be inform when alert value is reach
Q37

Detoiration of item is acceptable in

1. Hard time
2. On condition
monitoring
ACAS certification
1. Cat . I
2. Any avionics engineer
certification

3. Condition

Q38

3. Cat. R and QCM

Q39 If A/C is imported from outside the country its C of A validity will start
from
1. Date of issue export C of A
2. As in 1and restricted to validity of export C of A
3. 1&2 correct
Q40 when C of A lapse in the foreign ground
1. Normal procedure for renewal of c of a will be followed
2. Its validity will be extended till it comes back by dgca hq.
3. It will be renewed on the ground where it has lapsed
4. None
Q41

Defect register should be

1. Kept at normal base
2. Carried on board and pilot will enter al defect init
3. Both
Q42

MEL is applicable
1. where manufacture has issue MMEL 2. Scheduled operator
3. General aviation operator
4. All

Q43

When Mel is invoked by AME then AME will

1. Inform the pilot and make all record in the technical log
2. Inform pilot and QCM 3. Both

Q44 For life development program of engine or its accessories then

operator will follow
1. Manufacture recommendation
2. TBO
3. Both
Q45

For fixation of TBO / COSL

1. Manufacture recommendation and operating experience
2. Whether the A/C is for which type
3. All

Q46

Maintenance control by reliability method

1. QCM
2. QCM/MSM
3.MSM
4. All

Q47

Procedure for in-house audit

1. QCM
2. QCM/MSM

3.MSM

Weight and balance sheet is prepared by

1. All operator
2. scheduled operator
operator
4. All

4. All

Q48

Q49

3. Non scheduled

Guidance installation of A/C radio equipment

1. A/C rules 1937 2. BCR section R AC 4313 3. R I
4. Both 1&2

Q50 When MEL is prepared schedule operator will inform about forward
carried defect to
1. Monthly to concerned RAO
2. 3 month to DGCA
3. Monthly to manufacture
4. Any of the above
Q51

MTCS
1. Damage tolerant
parts damage
3. Both

2. If it does not sustain remaining

Q52 If A/C sustains damage outside country ferry flight permit is given by
1. A/w authority when a/c is on base
2. DGCA Hq.
3.
Regulatory authority of country of manufacture
Q53 MTCS hoses
1. Periodic inspection of hoses is done once a yr.
2. Hose pressure to be tested 1 workly pressure
3. 1&2

4. None

Q54 When any operator is importing any a/c with document he will carry
history card for inspection for such components to carrying out the
maintenance
1. Hard maintenance and on condition 2. Hard time maintenance
3. Condition monitoring 4, All
Q55

Q56

Form CA 25 is for
1. C of R

2. C of A

3. Flight manual

Which of the following radially accessible to pilot

1. Flight manual
2. Operation manual
4. All

4. All
3. Log book

Q57

If a/c is not living its vicinity area the documents required on the board
1. C of A
2. Air operator permit
3. JLB 4. FRC

Q58

Responsibility for log book of private a/c

1. Operator
2. QCM

3.

Organization
Q59 When Cof A of an A/c is ceased at out side of India
1. A/C will be brought to India with ferry flight
2. Procedure will be completed at the station where A/C is grounded
Q60 When any operator changes its location than he will notify DGCA
1. With in 15 days of change
2. With in 30 days 3. Immediately
4. At earliest opportunity
Q61

Which organization need separating approval for cat. F

1. A
2. B
3. C

4.D

Q62 The operator can change from one maintenance process to another e.g
from Hard time maintenance to on condition or on condition to condition or
vise versa such as a program will have to be approved by
1. RAO
2. DGCA
3. QCM
4. All
Q63

Light A/C means

1. AUW 5700 kg or less
3. AUW 7000 kg
4. All

2. AUW 3000kg or above

Q64 The maintenance program to which the a/c has been previously
maintained including
1. Previous check cycle
2. Future check cycle
3.
Compliance with Indian mandatory
4.ALL
Q65

Maintenance control by reliability method is a part of which manual

1. QC manual
2. MS manual
3. operator manual
4. ALL

Q66 Special inspection schedule of an a/c over 5700kg auw will be

approved by
1. QCM
2. RAO
DGCA

3.

Q67 If instrument of indicating fuel quantity is not satisfactory than it is

whose responsibility to carry dipstick
1. pilot
2. AME
3. Flight crew
4. ALL
Q68 After duplicate inspection if any part is disturbed than
1. A/ C will release with QCM permission
2. A/ C will be released with
invoking MEL
3. The disturbed part will be inspected in duplicate by a person
authorized for it

Q69

A/ C fitted with PMR /QMR its retaining period will be of

1. 30 hrs.
2. 30 days
3. 50 days

Q70

ACAS should be installed by

1. Cat. A &C 2. Any avionic cat.

Q71

Guidance for ESDS is in

1. AAC 6 of 2000

3. Cat. R and cat V

2. ACC 2 of 2006

Q72

operation check of non radiating load EIT

1. With in 12 months
2. within 6 month
month
4. none

3. With in 3

Q73 Who can raise the log book of newly manufactured a/c
1. Manufacture
2. regulatory authority
consultation with competent authority

3. owner in

Q74 Schedule operator will analyze all defects related to MEL will be
submitted to
1. RAO every month
2. DGCA 3 month
Q75 Modification means
1. Change of design
2. Change in type certified product
3. Modification is carried out during major inspection schedule 4. All
Q76

When operator do any modification to he will inform

1. Manufacture
2. DGCA hq.
4. All

3. RAO

Q77 MTCS
1. Minimum deviation from normal operating range
2.
Acceptable limit
3. For reference only for piston engine that corrective action is
required
Q78 When component of the propeller is removed from engine entry should
be made
1. Propeller and engine log book
2. As in 1 also in a/c log book
3. Components own log book
Q79 Authorization will not be renewed to a person it has failed in inspection
record in last
1. 3month
2. 6month
3. 12 month
Q80 A/C defect register shall be
1. Kept on board

2. At the normal base

3. As in 1 and all abnormal occurrence like heavy landing will be entered by

flight crew
Q81 In case a/c sustain damage outside the country application for special
flight permit is given to
1. A/w office where a/c is based
2. DGCA
3. Where a/c sustain damage
Q82 In which case flight test is not required
1. When engine is changed
2. Any modification which does not
effect flight safety
3. Major modification
Q83

Preparation of MEL is mandatory for

1. For whom MMEL is issued
2. General aviation
schedule
4. All
Q84

Q85

When AME invoke MEL

1. Inform to pilot

3. Non

2. As in 1mentaion technical log

For approval of sub base the inspection schedule should be less than
1. 50 hrs.
2. 100hrs,
3. 200hrs.
4. None

Q86 Approval granted to BAMEL require

1. 6monthly in 1yr.
2. 3 month in 6 month
3. 3 month in 1 yr
4. 6 month in 1 yr at least 20 transit/ lay over
Q87 Modification issued by manufacture by type certificate a/c
1. Require approval of DGAC hq.
2. Required. Approval of RAO
3.
Deemed to be as approved modification
4. 1&2
HUMAN FACTOR
Q88. The study of efficiency of person in their working environment and
human machine system design issues is called
1. Agronomics
2. Economics
3. Ergonomics
4. All
Q89. An error or violation which has an immediate adverse effect is called
1. Active failure 2. Passive failure 3. Latent failure 4. none
Q90. A result of action or decision made wall before an accident the
consequence which may remain dormant for a log time is known as
1. Active failure
2. safety failure
3. Latent failure

4. All

Q91. The error may have been caused by latent failure such as deficient
training, poor allocation of resources time pressure etc. they
may also have been caused by
1. Poor design of tool /equipment
2. Poor maintenance
3. Poor training

Q92. Knob and lever which are poorly located or lack of proper coding
creates mismatch interface between
1. Live ware 2. Software
3. Hardware
4. 1&3 both
Q93. The difference between personality and attitude is
1. relevant
2. irrelevant
3. As in 1 and it is unrealistic to expect a change in personality
through routine training
4. As in 2 and attitude are less susceptible to change through training
Q94. The difference between what a person can do what he will actually do
is called
1. Motivation
2. Co- ordination 3. Inspiration
4. Demotivation
Q95. The factor that determines whether a person will do so in a given
situation is called
1. Co- ordination 2. Motivation
3. Co- operation
Q96. A person whose ideas and action influence the thought and the
behavior of other is known as
1. politician
2. Leader
3. Commander
Q97. A condition reflecting inadequate rest as well as collection of
symptoms associated with displaced or disturbed biological rhythms is called
1. Jet log
2. Circadian rhythms
3.
Fatigue
Q98. The use of drugs such as hypnotics, sedatives and tranquilizers to
induce sleep is usually
1. appropriate
2. Inappropriate
3. as in 2 and they have adverse effect on performance
4. As in 1 and should be taken with advise of medical practitioner
Q99. Caffeine in coffee, tea and various soft drinks increases alertness and
1. Keep awaking
2. Reduces reaction times
3. Health in
sleep 4. Both 1&3
Q100. Sleep has a restorative function and is essential for mental
performance. Sleep deprivation and disturbance can
1. Increase alertness and attention 2. Increase performance
3. Reduce alertness and attention
4. None

INSTITUTE OF AERONAUTICS & ENGINEERING

DGCA Human factor NOV. 2009 (Modular System)

Q1
Faulty maintenance work which contributed to the accident was
performed
1. During night sihft only
2. during inspection in day light
3. Inducing L-E interface flaw
4. 1&3
Q2
Climbing over wings and horizontal stabilizer and working in
uncomfortable position are common and generally engineers performance in
this situation may be related to
1. Fitness and health
2. Mental situation of individual
3. Good performance as he is alone on work
Q3

Glare may produces discomfort or annoyance and

1. Helps in working environment to see object
2. May inter fare with visual performance

Q4
Vibration in any form of oscillating motion that changes its magnitude
periodically and is of operational significance in aviation because
1. It does not impair visual acuity
2. It may impair visual acuity
3. Interfere with neuromuscular control and lead to fatigue
4.
Both 2&3
Q5
The success of communication program depends on
1. Non verbal /gesture communication
2. The degree to which the intended massage is understood by
the receiver
3. Background noise problem
Q6
For the study of information related to the investigation human factors
issues are obtained from
1. Advisory circular
2. Information circular
3. Maps
4. Chart/navigation (check list)
Q7
error tolerance refers to
1. Error reduction strategies which includes improving access to part
2. The ability of a system to accept en error with out catastrophic
consequences
Q8
is

study of efficiency of a person, study of human machine system design

1. Agronomics

2. Ergonomics

3. Human factor

4. None

Q9

Factor that effect the human performance

1. noise
2. Environment
3. As in 1&2 light and darkness
4. None
Q10

The difference between what a person can do and what he will do

1. Motivation

2. Communication

3. Culture

Q11

the frequency of vibration, acceleration changes which effect

1. Visual acuity
2. Neuromuscular system 3. Fatigue 4. Any of
the above
Q12
None

A condition reflecting inadequate rest is called

1. Circadian rhythm disturbance
2. Fatigue

3.

Q13 The difference between attitude and personality is

1. Relevant 2. irrelevant
3. As in 1 and attitude can be changed through training
4. As in 2and personality can be changed through training
Q14 A person whose ideas and acts influence thought and behavior of
other
1. Leader 2. Supervisor
3. Co ordination
4. Manager
Q15
stress
Q16

The stress due to noise, temp., humidity is called

1. Environmental stress
2. Mental stress

3. Cognitive

Coffin in coffee and tea has effect

1. Reduces the reaction time
2. Increases the reaction time
3. As in 1 nad disturb sleep

Q17 Transequilizers and sleeping tablets

1. Adequate and doctor advice
2. Inadequate
3. As in 2 and affect human performance
Q18

Glare produces causes

1. Discomfort and annoyance
2. As in 1 and may interfere with visual performance

Q19 When inspection is carried out over fuselage and wing the performance
of AME depends
1. Mental status of AME 2. Health and physical status of AME
3.
Social status of AME
Q20

Error tolerance means

1. The ability of a system to accept an error with out catastrophic
consequences
Q21

Factor affecting training

1. Discomfort

2. As in 1 and low motivation

Q22 Training program of an organization is for

1. To develop interpersonal relationship
2. Increase group decision
making
3. As in 2 and develop
interpersonal skill
Q23
be

To eliminate error completely is unrealistic so the design of a/c should

1. Fail safe

2.Error tolerant
4. Damage tolerant

3. Safe failure

Q24 Errors are caused due to carelessness negligence or poor judgment

and other are caused
1. Poorly designed equipment
2. As in 1 and normal reaction of a person to a particular situation
Q25 Knobs and levers which are poorly located or lack of proper coding
create mismatch at
1. Live ware and hard ware 2. Live ware and live ware
3. Live ware and software
Q26

A good communication is ensured when

1. When massage of sender is understood by recipient
2. Message of sender isnt understood by recipient
Q27 Human factor training on communication is to
1. Prevent communication error 2. Explanation of common communication
problem
3. Ambiguous, Misleading, inappropriate combined with expect
4. All
Q28 Failures are of two types the failure which are error and violation
having an immediate adverse effect is called
1. Latent failure
2. Active failure
3. Active and
latent failure
Q29

The failure which may remain dormant for a long time is called
1. Latent Failure
2. Active failure

Q30 Knob and levers poorly located or lack of proper coding create
mismatch at
1. Live ware interface
2. Soft ware interface
3. Hard ware interface
4. As in 1&3
Q31 Well designed team result in
1. Improvement in work performance 2. As in 1 and employees
satisfaction
3. Low productivity
Q32

there should be a mechanism in team

1. To identify individual performance

2. As in 1 and individual contribution to team
Q33 Which of the following has pathogenic effect impaired hearing change
in blood pressure headaches, gastrointestinal problem such as ulcers
1. Illumination
2. Sickness
3. Noise
Q34

Sleep deprivation and disturbance has affect on

1. Weaken our body
2. Reduce alertness and
attention
Q35

Work team should have

1. Various skills
2. No. of task
3. As in 1 &2 such as hydraulic, electrical and rigging skills
Q36

What determine whether a person will do so in a given situation

1. Communication
2. Motivation
3. Co ordination 4. All

Q37

potential for worker satisfaction and improved out can be achieved by

1. Regard system
2. Selection and staffing
3. Training
4. All

Q38 Faulty maintenance work which contribute to the accident was

performed during
1. Night shift
2. Day shift
3. Shift hand over and as
in 1
Q39

Errors are mainly caused due to

1. Deficient training to maintenance person
2. Poor allocation of resources and maintenance tool
3. Time pressure4. As in 1,2,and 3 and poor ergonomics design of
tool
Q40
While some error may be due to carelessness negligence or poor
judgment many are induced by
1. Poorly designed equipment
2. Time
pressure
Q41 Errors due to poor equipment design or stressful are likely to be
remedied by
1. Proper training to engineer
2. Practicing ergonomics
3. None