1 An important criticism of positivism relates to

A)

validity of data.

B)

ethics.

C)

spirituality.

D)

the meaning of reality.

2 "Process", in qualitative research, is seen as

A)

too hard to study.

B)

an unfortunate complication.

C)

of major importance.

D)

impossible to clarify.

3 In qualitative research, differences among types of purposive sample have to do with

A)

representativeness.

B)

timing during the study.

C)

individual variability.

D)

all of the above.

4 Data analysis in qualitative research, as contrasted with quantitative research, is generally

A)

theatrical rather than applied.

B)

applied rather than theatrical.

C)

deductive rather than inductive.

D)

inductive rather than deductive.

5 Qualitative researchers view changes in procedures during a study as

A)

a weakness.

B)

frustrating.

C)

a good thing.

D)

to be avoided.

6 Which of the following is not a general feature that characterizes most qualitative research?
A)

inflexible design

B)

naturalistic inquiry

C)

holistic perspective

D)

personal contact and insight

7 Which of the following is a philosophical assumption of qualitative researchers?

A)

Facts and values are distinct from one another.

B)
The proper design of research investigations will lead to accurate conclusions about the
nature of the world.
C)

Values are an integral part of the research process.

D)

Facts stand independent of the knower and can be known in an undistorted way.

8 Which of the following is a philosophical assumption of quantitative researchers?

A)

The initial ambiguity that occurs in a study is desirable.

B)
The purpose of educational research is to explain and be able to predict relationships. The
ultimate goal is the development of laws that make prediction possible.
C)

Research investigations produce alternative visions of what the world is like.

D)
It is impossible for the researcher to stand apart from the individuals he or she is
studying.

9 In which approach to qualitative research do the researchers intend to generate a theory that is
based on data systematically gathered and analyzed?
A)

phenomenology

B)

biography

C)

grounded theory

D)

case study

10 Conclusions from qualitative research are

A)

less certain than from quantitative research.

B)

of little practical use.

C)

seldom defensible.

D)

of descriptive value only.

Answer of MCQ
1-d

2-c

3-d

4-d

5-c

6-a

7-c

8-b

9-c

10-a

1 A resource constraint has a >= sign in a linear programming model.

A)

True

B)

False

2 Transportation problems typically have mostly <= constraints.

A)

True

B)

False

3 Which of the following is not a category of linear programming problems?

A)

Resource-allocation problems.

B)

Cost-benefit-tradeoff problems.

C)

Distribution-network problems.

D)

All of the above are categories of linear programming problems.

4 A linear programming model does not contain which of the following components?
A)

Data.

B)

Decisions.

C)

A spreadsheet.

D)

Measure of performance.

5 Which of the following may not be in a linear programming formulation?

A)

<=.

B)

>.

C)

=.

d)

All of the above.

6 Transportation problems have the following type of constraints:

A)

>=.

B)

<=.

C)

<.

D)

None of the above.

7 Resource-allocation problems typically have which of the following type of constraints:

A)

>=.

B)

<=.

C)

=.

D)

All of the above.

8 Cost-benefit tradeoff problems typically have which of the following type of constraints:
A)

>=.

B)

<=.

C)

=.

D)

None of the above.

9 Mixed problems may not have which of the following type of constraints:
A)

>=.

B)

<=.

C)

All of the above.

D)

None of the above.

10 Which of the following is an assumption of assignment problems?

A)

The number of assignees and the number of tasks are the same

B)

The objective is to minimize the number of assignments not made.

C)

Each task is to be performed by exactly one assignee.

D)

a. and c. only.

Answer of MCQ
1-b

2-b 3-d

4-c

5-b

6-d

7-b

8-a

9-d

10-d

1 Which of the following refers to the random (chance) occurrences that can affect the outcome
of an individual's decision?
A

Payoffs

States of nature (states of the world or events)

Decision criteria

None of the above

2 A graphical method of representing events and courses of action may be referred to as a

A

decision tree.

decision criterion.

payoff table.

course of action.

3 What will you obtain when you sum the profit for each combination of a state and action times
the probability of the occurrence of the state?
A

Expected monetary value

Expected opportunity loss

Expected value of perfect information

None of the above

4 The utility curve that shows greater utility for larger dollar amounts would best represent a
A

risk averter.

risk-neutral person.

risk seeker.

None of the above

5 The utility curve that shows each additional dollar of profit yielding the same value as the
previous dollar would best represent a
A

risk averter.

risk-neutral person.

risk seeker.

None of the above

Answer of MCQ
1-b

2-a 3-a

4-c

5-b

1 A repeatable pattern of increases or decreases in demand, depending on periods of time of

within one year or less, is a time-series pattern called:
A

random.

cyclical.

seasonal.

trend.

2 The least predictable pattern of time-series variation is called:

A

horizontal.

trend.

seasonal.

random.

3 Which statement is NOT true of seasonal methods?

A
The seasonal component can be constant, in which case an additive method would be
appropriate.
B
No matter what seasonal method is used, the amplitude of the seasonal component
remains the same.
C

A season can be as short as one day.

D
A multiplicative seasonal method will show increasing amplitude if there is an upward
trend in demand.

4 Quantitative forecasting techniques include:

A

consumer surveys.

exponential smoothing.

manager opinions.

Delphi method.

5 Time-series analysis is most effective when used in ___________- term forecasts.

A

medium

indefinite

short

long

6 Long term is the correct time horizon for which of the following decisions?
A

Master production planning

Staff planning

Facility location

Inventory management

7 Judgment methods are LEAST likely to be indicated in which of the following situations?
A

The underlying product technology is in transition.

A new product is being introduced.

Short-term forecasts are made for a product with stable demand.

The Delphi method is necessary.

8 What is the purpose of a holdout set?

A

A holdout set is used to verify the accuracy of a forecast technique.

B
A holdout set is data that cannot be obtained for reasons beyond the forecasters
control.
C
A holdout set is one or more forecasting coefficients that are used only when data fall
within a predetermined range.
D
A holdout set is data that are atypical and therefore held out of forecast model building
since they would cause a forecasting model to not fit most of the (typical) data.

9 Which statement about the forecasting process is best?

A

Quantitative forecasts are better than qualitative forecasts.

Bias is the worst kind of forecast error.

C
The best way to improve forecast accuracy is to add additional terms to the forecast
equation.
D

Whenever possible, forecast at the lowest level (greatest level of detail).

10 Which of the following decision areas would be typical for a short term time series approach?
A

process management

workforce scheduling

facility location

staff planning

Answer of MCQ
1-c

2-d 3-b

4-b

5-c

6-c

7-c

8-a

9-b

10-b

1 The accounting profession can be divided into three major categories; specifically, the practice
of public accounting, private accounting, and governmental accounting. A somewhat unique and
important service of public accountants is:
a. Financial accounting.
b. Managerial accounting.
c. Auditing.
d. Cost accounting.

2. The primary private sector agency that oversees external financial reporting standards is the:
a. Financial Accounting Standards Board.
b. Federal Bureau of Investigation.
c. General Accounting Office.
d. Internal Revenue Service.

3. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental

accounting equation?

a. Assets + liabilities = owner's equity.

b. Assets = owner's equity.
c. Cash = assets.
d. Assets - liabilities = owner's equity.

4. Wilson Company owns land which cost $100,000. If a "quick sale" of the land was necessary
to generate cash, the company feels it would receive only $80,000. The company continues to
report the asset on the balance sheet at $100,000. This is justified under which of the following
concepts?
a. The historical-cost principle.
b. The value is tied to objective and verifiable past transactions.
c. Neither of the above.
d. Both "a" and "b".

5. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the following
factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net loss.
b. Net income.
c. Dividends.
d. Investments by stockholders.

6. Which of these items would be accounted for as an expense?

a. Repayment of a bank loan.
b. Dividends to stockholders.
c. The purchase of land.
d. Payment of the current period's rent.

7. Which of the following transactions would have no impact on stockholders' equity?

a. Purchase of land from the proceeds of a bank loan.
b. Dividends to stockholders.
c. Net loss.
d. Investments of cash by stockholders.

8. Which of the following would not be included on a balance sheet?

a. Accounts receivable.
b. Accounts payable.
c. Sales.
d. Cash.

Answer of MCQ
1-c

2-a 3-d

4-d

5-b

6-d

7-a

8-c

1. A good qualitative problem statement:

a. Defines the independent and dependent variables
b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find

2. The tool function of theory is to:

a. Summarize existing knowledge

b. Summarize existing hypotheses

c. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions
d. Suggest new theories

3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:

a. Identify the design of the study
b. Identify the intent or objective of the study
c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
d. Describe the study

4. Why is the statement What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive
development of school age children not a good statement of a quantitative research question?
a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitive
development
b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular activities
to conduct the study
c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricular
activities
d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of the
variables being investigated

5. A qualitative research question:

a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
b. Is generally an open-ended question
c. both a and b are correct

d. None of the above

6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of
the development of a research idea?
a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, hypothesis
c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose

7. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information obtained
via the internet ranges from very poor to very good.
a. True
b. False

8. One step that is not included in planning a research study is:

a. Identifying a researchable problem
b. A review of current research
c. Statement of the research question
d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research

9. Sources of researchable problems can include:

a. Researchers own experiences as educators
b. Practical issues that require solutions
c. Theory and past research
d. All of the above

10. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research questions is that:
a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions
b. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer

11. Which of the following is a function of theory?

a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
b. Making predictions
c. Explaining phenomena
d. All of the above are important functions of theory

12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do
which of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
d. All of the above

Answer of MCQ
1-b

1 If
A

2-c 3-b

4-b

5-c

6-a

7-a

8-d

which of the following is false?

9-d

10-b

11-d

12-d

B
C

2 If A and B are n n matrices, which of the following does not equal (A + B)2?
A

(A + B)A + (A + B)B

A2 + AB + BA + B2

A2 + 2 AB + B2

(B + A)2

3 If A, B, and C are n n matrices, which of the following equalities is invalid? Note: D is the
transpose of D.
A

(ABC) = CBA

(A + A + 2B) = 2B + 2A

((AB)2) = (B)2(A)2

(A + A) = 2A

4 The n n matrix P is idempotent if P2 = P and orthogonal if PP = I. Which of the following is

false?
A

If P is idempotent, then P is idempotent

If P and Q are orthogonal n n matrices, then PQ is orthogonal

If P and Q are idempotent n n matrices and PQ = QP = O, then P + Q is idempotent

is orthogonal

5 Which of the following statements is correct?

A

A linear system with more equations than unknowns cannot have solutions

B
A linear system can only have an infinite number of solutions if there are more
variables than equations
C
Suppose A is n n, x is n 1, and Ax = 0 has only the trivial solution. Then Ax = b has
solutions for any n 1 vector b
D

It is possible to construct a linear system with exactly 5 different solutions

6 For which values of t does the following linear equation system have infinitely many
solutions?
A

t=2

t = 3

t = 2 and t = 3

The system does not have infinitely many solutions for any value of t

7 Using Gaussian elimination, the solutions of:

can be deduced from the augmented matrix

For which values of a, b, and c are there innitely many solutions?
A

Never

If a = b and c = 1

If c = 1

If a b

8 If a = (3, 4, 0) and b = (0, 2, 3), then

A

is equal to:

9 The straight line in R3 through the point (1, 3, 3) pointing in the direction of the vector (1, 2,
3) hits the x1x2-plane at the point:
A

(2, 1, 0)

(1, 3, 0)

(2, 1, 0)

Never

10 The plane in R3 through the point (1, 3, 3), which is orthogonal to the vector (1, 2, 3), has
the equation:
A

x + 3y + 3z = 14

x + 2y + 3z = 11

x + 2y + 3z = 14

x 2y 3z = 16

Answer of MCQ
1-a

2-c 3-c

4-a

5-c

6-a

7-b

8-b

9-c

1. Let A={a, b, {c, d}, e}. How many elements does A contain?
a) 5
b)6

10-c

c) 4
d) 3

2. Let A = {2, {4, 5}, 4}. Which statement is correct?

a) 5 is an element of A.
b) {5} is an element of A.
c) {4, 5} is an element of A.
c) {5} is a subset of A.

3. Which of these sets is finite?

a) {x | x is even}
b) {x | x < 5}
c) {1, 2, 3,...}
d) {1, 2, 3,...,999,1000}

4. Which of these sets is not a null set?

a) A = {x | 6x = 24 and 3x = 1}
b) B = {x | x + 10 = 10}
c) C = {x | x is a man older than 200 years}
d) D = {x | x < x}

5. Let S={1, 2, 3}. How many subsets does S contain?

a) 7
b) 5
c) 9

d) 8

6 Let D E. Suppose a D and b E. Which of the following statements must be true?

a) c D
b) b D
c) a E
d) a D

7 Let A = {x | x is even}, B = {1, 2, 3,..., 99, 100}, C = {3, 5, 7, 9}, D = {101, 102} and E =
{101, 103, 105}. Which of these sets can equal S if S A and S and B are disjoint?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E

8 Which statement best describes the Venn diagram below?

a) A = B
b) A and B are not comparable
c) A B
d) A B

9 Let S = {a, b}. How many elements does the power set 2s contain?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 6

d) 3

10 Which set S does the power set 2s = { {1}, {2}, {3}, {1, 2}, {1, 3}, {2, 3}, {1, 2, 3}} come
from?
a) {{1},{2},{3}}
b) {1, 2, 3}
c) {{1, 2}, {2, 3}, {1, 3}}
d) {{1, 2, 3}}

Answer of MCQ
1-c

2-c 3-d

4-b

5-d

6-c

7-d

8-c

9-b

10-b