BRADDOM LOWER EXTREMITY DRILLS

May 21, 2016

NAME: ____________________________________________
Score: _____
1. The
following
are
true
about
Osteoarthritis, except:
a. (+) Joint pain aggravated upon weight
bearing
b. (+) Morning stiffness which lasts less
than 1 hour
c. Joint effusion is noted with overuse
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
2. The following are false about Hip
Osteoarthritis, except:
a. Pain from hip OA is often felt at the
pelvis
b. (+) referred pain to the posterior
thigh
c. (+) antalgic gait
d. Pain aggravated upon passive hip
internal rotation
e. NOTA
3. Which among the following is the first
and
more
predisposed
to
knee
osteoarthritis?
a. Medial tibiofemoral compartment
b. Lateral tibiofemoral compartment
c. Patellofemoral joint
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
4. The ankle motion that is limited with
osteoarthritis
of
the
first
metatarsophalangeal joint:
a. Ankle plantarflexion
b. Ankle dorsiflexion
c. Ankle inversion
d. Ankle eversion
e. No ankle motion is limited with 1 st
MTP OA
5. Radiologic hallmarks of osteoarthritis,
except:
a. Marginal osteophytosis
b. Subchondral sclerosis
c. Increased joint space
d. Subchondral cyst formation
6. Female athlete triad, except:
a. Disordered eating
b. High bone density
c. Amenorrhea
d. Low bone density
7. Stress Fractures refers to the repetitive
overload injuries to the muscles of the
lower limb; leg length discrepancy and
decreased Q angle is believed to increase
the risk of having the said condition.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
8. In femoral neck stress fracture, fractures
on the compression side is with is the
medial part is less common; whereas in
the tension which is the lateral part, it is
more common that it requires immediate
surgical referral.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
9. When the fracture line is less than 50% of
the width of the femoral neck, strict non
weight bearing status is implemented for
how many weeks?
a. 2-3 weeks
b. 3-5 weeks
c. 4-6 weeks

d. 5-8 weeks
e. 8-10 weeks
10. Most commonly affected in avascular
necrosis:
a. Femoral condyles
b. Femoral Neck
c. Femoral shaft
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
11. The following are causes of disruption in
the normal blood supply to the femoral
head, except:
a. High dose of corticosteroids
b. Alcohol abuse
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Trauma
e. NOTA
12. The motions limited with avascular
necrosis of the femoral head:
I.
Internal Rotation
II.
External Rotation
III.
Flexion
IV.
Extension
V.
Abduction
VI.
Adduction
a. I, III, V
b. II, IV, VI
c. I,IV,V
d. II,III, VI
e. I,III,VI
13. The following are true about Legg-CalvePerthes Disease, except:
a. It is an idiopathic osteonecrosis of the
femoral head in children
b. Most
common
hip
disorder
in
adolescents
c. Occurs between 4 and 8 years old
d. The most limited motion is hip
abduction
e. NOTA
14. It refers to the injury to the epiphyseal
plate of the proximal femur with medial
displacement of the femoral head relative
to the femoral shaft:
a. Hip Dislocation
b. Athletic Pubalgia
c. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
d. Legg Calve Perthes Disease
e. NOTA
15. Most common direction of hip dislocation:
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Medial
d. Lateral
16. Most concerning complication associated
with hip dislocation:
a. Avascular Necrosis
b. Recurrent hip dislocation
c. Posttraumatic Osteoarthritis
d. Both A & B
e. Both A & C
17. Motions limited with Femoroacetabular
Impingement Syndrome:
a. Flexion and abduction
b. Extension and adduction
c. Flexion and internal rotation
d. Extension and external rotation
e. Flexion and extension
18. There are two types of femoroacetabular
impingement:
the
pincer
and
cam
impingement types; Either of those
impingement types if not addressed can
lead to osteoarthritis of the hip.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
19. Pincer impingement refers to the femoral
cause of impingement characterized by
overcoverage of the femoral head;

whereas the cam impingement refers to

the acetabular cause due to an aspherical
portion of the femoral head-neck junction.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
20. The following are true about Athletic
Pubalgia and sportsman hernia, except:
a. It is most commonly seen among
athletes who plays football, soccer
and hockey
b. One of the factors that is attributed to
pain associated with athletic pubalgia
and sports hernia is strain of the hip
flexors and abductors
c. It refers to the spectrum of disorders
that causes pain in the lower abdomen
and groin.
d. One of the keys to successful
rehabilitation of athletic pubalgia and
sportsman hernia is core stability and
motor control of core muscles, hip
abductors and hip adductors
e. AOTA
21. Subjective and Objective findings seen in
patients
with
Trochanteric
Bursitis,
except:
a. (+) Pain diffused to the pelvic region
b. (+) Tightness of tensor fasciae latae
c. (+) Weakness of Gluteal muscles
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
22. The following are true about Iliotibial
Band Dysfunction:
a. a.k.a.
Medial
Snapping
Hip
syndrome/internal
snapping
hip
syndrome
b. (+) Audible snap whenever ITB rubs
over the lesser trochanter
c. Pain is aggravated by repetitive
activities such as running and/or
cycling
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
23. Most commonly strained muscle group in
the thigh:
a. Quadriceps Femoris
b. Hamstrings
c. Adductors
d. Abductors
e. NOTA
24. Hamstring Muscle Dysfunction commonly
occurs
with
forceful
concentric
contraction of the hamstrings; pain is
usually aggravated either with passive
knee flexion or by doing MMT against
knee extension.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
25. Most
commonly
strained
adductor
muscle:
a. Adductor Magnus (Adductor Part)
b. Gracilis
c. Adductor Brevis
d. Adductor Longus
e. Adductor Magnus (Hamstring Part)
26. Most
common
location
of
myositis
ossificans in the lower extremity:
a. Adductor Magnus
b. Sartorius
c. Hamstrings
d. Quadriceps
e. Iliopsoas
27. True about Quadriceps contusion, except:

a. (+) Tenderness and echymossis in the

anterior thigh
b. (+) Trendelenburg gait
c. (+) LOM towards knee extension
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
28. Aspirin is the standard medication used in
the early stages of myositis ossificans;
the first-line of treatment in MO includes
progressive range of motion exercises.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
29. True about patellofemoral arthralgia,
except:
a. a.k.a. patellofemoral pain syndrome
b. Sudden in onset associated with
improper tracking of patella
c. Seen in younger population
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
30. Typical
biomechanical
abnormalities
associated with patellofemoral arthralgia,
except:
a. Weak Vastus Medialis Oblique Portion
b. Tight quadriceps muscle
c. Weak Iliotibial band
d. Pronated foot
e. Ineffective exxecntri function of hip
external rotators
31. Classification
of
Osteochondritis
Dissecans which is described as complete
avulsion of an osteochondral fragment
but without dislocation
a. Grade 4
b. Grade 3
c. Grade 2
d. Grade 1
32. Most common site of Osteochondritis
dissecans:
a. Superior portion of lateral femoral
condyle
b. Inferior portion of lateral femoral
condyle
c. Inferior portion of medial femoral
condyle
d. Superior portion of medial femoral
condyle
33. Hallmark
of
physical
examination
observed with meniscal injuries, except:
a. Medial joint line tenderness
b. Effusion
c. (+) McMurray Test
d. Lateral joint line tenderness
e. NOTA
34. True about MCL injury, except:
a. (+) valgus stress test
b. (+)
intraarticular
effusion
with
isolated MCL sprain
c. Its mechanism of injury includes
sudden valgus force with foot planted
d. NOTA
35. In Grade 1 ligament sprain, the patient is
usually apprehensive upon assessment;
end-feel is usually empty
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
36. True about ACL injury, except:
a. The most functionally devastating as
ACL has a crucial role in the dynamic
stability of the knee
b. MOI is associated with leg rotated on
a planted foot with the knee in flexion
and
the
hamstrings
activating
strongly

c. (+) Lachman Test

d. NOTA
37. True about PCL injuries, except:
a. Has significant functional limitation
than ACL
b. More common than ACL
c. Common MOI is a forceful blow to the
proximal posterior leg
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
38. Also known as housemaids knee:
a. Suprapatellar bursitis
b. Infrapatellar bursitis
c. Prepatellar bursitis
d. Postpatellar bursitis
39. Refers to the subacute or chronic
irritation of one or more pes anserine
muscle tendons near their insertion in the
tibia.
a. Pes anserine bursitis
b. Pes anserine tendonitis
c. Pes anserine tendinosis
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
40. Refers to the acute inflammation of one
or more pes anserine tendons near their
insertion in the tibia
a. Pes anserine bursitis
b. Pes anserine tendonitis
c. Pes anserine tendinosis
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
41. Common
biomechanical
deficits
associated with pes anserine dysfunction:
a. Weak core
b. Weak lateral hamstrings
c. Weak hip abductor
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
42. The following are true about jumpers
knee, except:
a. Gradual in onset
b. Point of maximal pain is usually at the
superior pole of the patella
c. Common
among
basketball
and
volleyball players who are exposed to
repetitive knee flexion and extension
activities
d. NOTA
43. Osgood-Schlatter Disease is an
affectation involving the tibial tuberosity
characterized by repetitive overload at
the said bony landmark; its radiographic
hallmark is presence of irregularity and
fragmentation of the tibial tuberosity.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
44. Quadriceps Tendon Rupture is usually
caused by forceful contraction of the
quadriceps with foot planted; in this
rupture, usually the patella elevates
without causing knee extension.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
45. Refers to the tension-type stress fracture
of the anterior cortex of the middle third
of the tibia:
a. Dreaded white line
b. Dreaded brown line
c. Dreaded blue line
d. Dreaded black line
e. Dreaded red line
46. Rupture of the Achilles tendon is usually
caused by a sudden and powerful

concentric force associated with ballistic

sporting
activities;
it
is
usually
accompanied by an audible pop with
inability to continue the activity.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
47. Physical examination findings associated
with
Chronic
Achilles
Tendinopathy
include the following, except:
a. (+) tender Achilles tendon
b. (+) vacuole formation seen in MRI
c. (+) swelling
d. (+) breakdown in the normal collagen
orientation
e. NOTA
48. Pathologic tendon rupture in the lower
leg associated with rheumatoid arthritis:
a. Peroneus Longus
b. Peroneus Brevis
c. Peroneus Tertius
d. Tibialis Posterior
e. Tibialis Anterior
49. Acute compartment syndrome is caused
by significant trauma such as fracture and
it demands surgical emergency; whereas
chronic
exertional
compartment
syndrome is characterized with diffused
cramping pain and is usually common
among high-volume runners
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
50. The following are the criteria that should
be met to confirm the diagnosis of
Compartment Syndrome, except:
a. Preexercise pressure is greater than
or equal to 15 mmHg
b. One-minute postexercise pressure is
greater than or equal to 30 mmHg
c. Five minute postexercise pressure in
greater than or equal to 20 mmHg
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
51. Navicular stress fractures have a higher
likelihood of delayed union and avascular
necrosis than other stress fractures;
continuous non-weightbearing activities
on the tarsal navicular fracture are
associated with a high failure rate of
healing.
a. First statement is true, second
statement is false
b. First statement is false, second
statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
52. Non-weightbearing
immobilization
in
early stage of stress fracture on the 5 th
metatarsal usually lasts for:
a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 8 weeks
53. The third most common location for
osteochondral lesion:
a. Calcaneus
b. Tibia
c. Cuboid
d. Talus
e. Fibula
54. Most common musculoskeletal injury in
the lower limb:
a. Stress fracture
b. Achilles tendon rupture
c. ACL sprain

d. Ankle sprain
e. Peroneus Longus Strain
55. The most commonly injured ligament in
the ankle:
a. Posterior talofibular ligament
b. Anterior talofibular ligament
c. Calcaneofibular ligament
d. Anterior talotibial ligament
e. Posterior talotibial ligament
56. The most common mechanism for ankle
sprain:
I.
Ankle dorsiflexion
II.
Ankle plantarflexion
III.
Foot inversion
IV.
Foot eversion
a. I, III
b. II, IV
c. II, III
d. I, IV
e. NOTA
57. Refers
to
the
syndesmotic
injuries
involving the thick ligaments connecting
the tibia and fibula:
a. Medial ankle sprain
b. Lateral ankle sprain
c. Low ankle sprains
d. High ankle sprains
58. Compressing the tibia and fibula at the
area of midcalf will confirm:
a. Flexor hallucis longus overload
b. Severs disease
c. Syndesmotic injury
d. Plantar fasciitis
e. NOTA
59. Traction apophysitis of the Achilles
tendon
insertion
on
the
posterior
calcaneus:
a. Flexor hallucis longus overload
b. Severs disease
c. Syndesmotic injury
d. Plantar fasciitis
e. NOTA
60. This refers to the irritation of one of the
interdigital nerves of the foot as it
passess below the transverse ligament of
the metatarsal heads:
a. Metatarsalgia
b. Plantar fasciitis
c. Turf toe
d. Mortons neuroma
e. Sesamoiditis
61. Most common location of the irritation of
interdigital nerves:
a. 1st and 2nd metatarsal heads
b. 2nd and 3rd metatarsal heads
c. 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads
d. 4th and 5th metatarsal heads
62. Sudden and forceful hyperextension of
the first metatarsophalangeal joint:
a. Metatarsalgia
b. Plantar fasciitis
c. Turf toe
d. Mortons neuroma
e. Sesamoiditis

ANSWERS
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. C
10. B
11. C
12. E
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. E
17. C
18. C
19. D
20. B
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. D
25. D
26. D
27. E
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. C
33. E
34. B
35. A
36. B
37. E
38. C
39. C
40. B
41. A
42. B
43. C
44. A
45. D
46. B
47. E
48. D
49. C
50. D
51. A
52. C
53. D
54. D
55. B
56. C
57. D
58. C
59. B
60. D
61. C
62. C