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1. Which of the following is impure substance?

(a) oxygen
(b) carbondioxide

(c) aluminium

(d) brass

2. Solid-liquid homogeneous mixture among the following is


(a) oil & water
(b) milk & water

(c) salt & water

(d) sand & water

3. Filtration technique is used to separate a heterogenous mixture of


(a) solid & solid
(b) solid & liquid
(c) liquid & liquid

(d) all

4. The method which is used to remove lighter particles (impurities) from heavier particles is
(a) threshing
(b) winnowing
(c) sieving
(d) filtration
5. Which of the following can be separated into its individual components by physical methods of separation?
(a) Element
(b) compound
(c) mixture
(d) all
6. Distillation is a technique which constitutes
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation

(c) filtration

(d) both a & b

7. A mixture of iron & sand is separated by


(a) filtration
(b) evaporation

(c) separating funnel

(d) magnet

8. An insoluble solid from a liquid is separated by


(a) sieving
(b) separating funnel

(c) filtration

(d) evaporation

9. The technique threshing can be done


(a) manually
(b) machines

(c) both a & b

(d) none

10. Cleaning rice with water is an example of


(a) sieving
(b) sedimentation

(c) threshing

(d) winnowing

11. In a mixture of salt & water, salt can be obtained by


(a) separating funnel
(b) filtration

(c) decantation

(d) evaporation

12. Which of the following is an example of miscible liquids?


(a) milk & water
(b) water & kerosence (c) water & oil

(d) both b & c

13. A heterogeneous mixture among the following is


(a) steel
(b) smoke

(d) cool drink

(c) air

14. A separation technique which is based on the differences in size of particles is


(a) sedimentation
(b) threshing
(c) sieving

(d) decantation

15. The solid component which settles at the bottom during sedimentation is called
(a) sediments
(b) decanted liquid
(c) supernatant

(d) residue

ANSWER KEY:
1. D

2.C

3.B

4.B

5.C

6.D

7.D

8.C

9.C

10.B

11.D

12.A

13.B

14.C

15.A

1. If the components of a mixture carry different boiling points, which is the possible way to isolate these
components?
(a) Evaporation
(c) Magnetic separation

(b) Fractional distillation


(d) Decantation

2. In the lab, a scientist, accidentally, dropped some ball bearings into a beaker of hot water. Which is the best method
to separate them from water?
(a) Use distillation to isolate the water
(b) Evaporate the hot water to get the ball bearings
(c) Use magnet to attract the ball bearings
(d) Hand pick the ball bearings

3. Distillation is not used to separate


(a) a mixture of liquids in a solution
(b) a solvent from a solution
(c) miscible liquids
(d) a solid solid mixture

4. The boiling point of components is important for


(a) sieving

(b) distillation

(c) decantation

(d) magnetism

5. When do we use evaporation to separate components?


(a) a liquid-liquid mixture, in which one of the liquids has a lower boiling point
(b) a solid-liquid mixture, in which solid particles are visible
(c) a solid-liquid mixture, in which solid particles are dissolved
(d) a solid-liquid mixture, in which one of the components sublimes

6. A mixture of alcohol and water is separated by


(a) Sieving
(c) Distillation

(b) Evaporation
(d) Filtration

7. Why do solvent particles leave a solution, when it evaporates?


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Air molecules have a strong attraction for solvent particles


The solvent particles are bounced out of the solution by particle movement
The solvent particles are repelled by the solute particles
The solvent particles have enough kinetic energy to escape the liquids surface

8. A chemist would like to extract an oil-soluble substance from a water-soluble based liquid sample. He shakes the
water based sample with an oil solvent and then allows the mixture to settle into two layers. Hence then, he pours
off one of the layers. What was the technique used by the chemist?
(a) Distillation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Separating funnel
(d) Sieving

9. Sand and gravel may be separated from each other by


(a) an evaporating basin
(c) a sieve

(b) a Liebigs condenser


(d) a filter funnel

10. During filtration, the liquid collected in the container, after passing a solution through a filter paper, is called
_______.
(a) Fragments

(b) Residue

(c) Filtrate

11. Which technique can be used to get salt from a mixture of salt and sand?
(a) Dissolve the salt; filter the solution; and recrystallise the salt
(b) Decantation

(d) none of the above

(c) Fractional distillation


(d) Filter the dry mixture, crystallize the salt

12. Which of the following statements is true?


(a) Compounds are easy to separate
(b) Compounds have a fixed composition
(c) Compounds do not have a fixed composition
(d) In compounds, the atoms are not connected to one another.

13. Water from a container of boiled potatoes is separated by the method of


(a) evaporation

(b) distillation

(c) sieving

(d) decantation

(c) condensation

(d) freezing

14. Rain fall is due to _________ of water vapor in the clouds.


(a) evaporation

(b) vaporization

15. Which of these is not a method to separat a solid from a liquid?


(a) Sedimentation & Decantation
(c) Evaporation

(b) Filtration
(d) None of the above

ANSWERS:
1.B

2.C

3.D

4.B

5.C

6.C

7.D

8.C

9.C

10.C

11.A

12.B

13.D

14.C

15.D

1. Identify the synthetic fibre among the following.


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) flax

2. Which of the following statements is true?


(a) Fabrics are made up of yarns
(c) Yarn is a technical term used for thread

(b) Yarns are made up of fibres


(d) all the above are true

3. Cigarette paper is made from ______ fibre


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) jute

4. Cotton plants are usually grown at __________


(a) black soil and cold climate
(c) red soil and warm climate

(b) black soil and warm climate


(d) red soil and cold climate

5. The process of seperation of cotton fibres from seeds is called as __________


(a) spinning
(b) ginning
(c) weaving

(d) none

(d) flax

(d) knitting

6. P : Natural fibres keep the body cool


Q: Natural fibres absorb sweat in hot and humid weather conditions
(a) P and Q are true & Q explains P
(b) P and Q are true & Q does not explains P
(c) P is true, Q is false
(d) P is false, Q is true
7. Which of the following devices is used for spinning cotton?
(a) Hand spindle
(b) Takli
(c) Charkha

(d) All

8. Fabrics are made from yarns by ___


(a) weaving
(b) spinning

(c) knitting

(d) both (a) & (c)

9. Arrangement of two sets of yarns to form a fabric is done by __________


(a) spinning
(b) weaving
(c) knitting

(d) both (b) & (c)

10. The cotton which is used in hospitals is


(a) ginned cotton
(b) sterilised cotton
(c) gun cotton
(d) raw cotton
11. The process of seperating the gummy matter that holds the jute fibres to the inner part of the stem by soaking jute
in water for 2 to 3 days is called _______
(a) weaving
(b) knitting
(c) spinning
(d) retting
12. Which of the following is present in jute?
(a) cellulose
(b) lignin

(c) Heamoglobin

(d) both (a) & (b)

13. Which of the following fibres is versatile than others?


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) jute

(d) wool

(c) gunny bag

(d) both (b) & (c)

14. P: Cotton fields look like a field covered with snow


Q: Hand spindle & charkha can be used for spinning
(a) Both P and Q are true, Q explains P
(b) Both P and Q are true, Q doesnt explain P
(c) P is true, Q is false
(d) P is false, Q is true
15. Which among the following cannot be made of cotton?
(a) paper
(b) net
ANSWER KEY
1. D

2.D

3.D

4.B

5.B

6.A

7.D

8.D

9.B

10.B

11.D

12.D

13.A

14.B

15.D

1. The process of combing to separate cotton fibres from seeds is called


(a) weaving
(b) ginning
(c) spinning

(d) throwing

2. The smallest particle of a compound is


(a) atom
(b) proton

(c) molecule

(d) electron

3. A material, that breaks easily, when beaten or pressed is


(a) malleable
(b) ductile

(c) brittle

(d) sonorous

4. Gun cotton is
(a) used in textiles
(c) used in mattresses

(b) used as explosive


(d) used for cleaning machines

5. Retting is
(a) arranging two sets of yarns together
(c) soaking jute in water

(b) separating fibres from seeds


(d) harvesting jute plants

6. Since metals are sonorous, they can be used for making


(a) machines
(b) ships

(c) cables

(d) bells

7. A solution is prepared by mixing 2ml water and 8 ml alcohol, then the solvent is
(a) water
(b) alcohol
(c) a & b

(d) none

8. The gummy matter that holds the jute fibres to inner part of the stem are eaten away by ________ during soaking.
(a) fungus
(b) virus
(c) bacteria
(d) insects
ANSWER KEY:
1.B

2.C

3.C

6.D

7.B

8.C

4.B

5.C

1. While eating salted Poha, chillies are removed from it by


(a) sieving
(b) winnowing
(c) threshing

(d) hand picking

2. Churning can be used to remove


(a) tea leaves from tea

(c) butter from curd

(d) salt from sea water

(c) filtering it

(d) decanting it

(b) stones from grain

3. More of a substance can be dissolved in a solution by


(a) heating it
(b) cooling it

4. Filtered water can be further purified and made clear by adding


(a) chlorine
(b) alum
(c) bleaching powder
5. A change may occur by
(a) heating a substance
and b

(b) mixing it with some other substance (c) both a


(d) none

6. True statement/s is/are


(i) Batter to idli is reversible change
(iii) cold milk to hot milk is reversible change
(a) ii and iii
(b) (i)

(ii) cow dung to biogas is irreversible change


(iv) milk to paneer is reversible change
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii)

7. After fitting the metal rim onto a wooden wheel, cold water is poured over the rim to
(a) expand the rim
(b) contract the rim
(c) make it fit tightly on the wheel
(d) both b and c
8. Heating of wax in a pan is
(a) reversible change
(c) no change

(b) irreversible change


(d) normal change

ANSWER KEY:
1.D
6.A

7.D

2.C
8.A

(d) sugar

3.A

4.B

5.C

1. 1 g ice requires __________ calories of heat to melt into water.


(a) 40
(b) 80
(c) 120

(d) 540

2. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g water through 10 C is called
(a) latent heat
(b) specific heat
(c) atomic heat
(d) Fahrenheit
3. The region of earth covered with water is called
(a) aquasphere
(b) biosphere

(c) hydrosphere

4. Radioactive wastes are kept in ______ containers before dumping in the sea
(a) wooden
(b) metal
(c) glass

(d) troposphere
(d) concrete

5. _____________ is a natural pesticide which can be used instead of chemical pesticides which pollute water.
(a) clove oil
(b) sesame oil
(c) neem oil
(d) mango oil
6. During electrolysis of water oxygen is obtained at
(a) anode
(b) cathode

(c) bottom of cell

7. Volumetric and gravimetric composition of water are respectively.


(a) 2 : 1, 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 8, 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2, 1 : 8
8. When water is cooled below 40 C , its volume
(a) decreases
(c) no change

(d) above the cell


(d) 2 : 1, 1 : 8

(b) increases
(d) first decrease then increases

9. Why does ice float on water ?


10. What is reverse osmosis ? How is it used for desalination of sea water?
11. Osmosis is the phenomenon is which pure solvent flows from
(a) dilute to concentrated solution
(b) concentrated to dilute solution
(c) higher level to lower level
(d) lower level to higher
level
1. Pick out the false statement with reference to physical changes.
(a) Physical changes are reversible.
(b) Physical changes are temporary in nature.
(c) Physical changes will not result in new substances.
(d) In physical changes the substances combine in fixed ratio.
2. A chemical reaction in which heat is given out is called ______________ reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) photochemical

(d) reversible

3. Which of the following involves chemical change?


(a) slicing bread
(b)drying wet wood

(c) burning wood

(d)turning bread to toast

4. Which of the following is not a chemical change?


(a) digestion of food
(c) rusting of iron

(b) evaporation of water


(d) ripening of fruits

5.

Water

hydrogen + oxygen
In this reaction, a substance is converted into simpler substances. This kind of reaction is called
(a) combination
(b) decomposition
(c) displacement
(d) double decomposition

6. Magnesium ribbon burns in air to form magnesium oxide. This change is permanent. This change is called
_____________ change.
(a) reversible
(b) irreversible
(c) slow
(d) physical
7. Pick the odd one out of the following
(a) camphor
(b) naphthalene

(c) common salt

(d) iodine

8. In filtration, the liquid that passes through the filter paper is known as
(a)supernatant liquid
(b) mother liquor
(c) residue

(d) filtrate

ANSWER KEY
1. D

2. A

3. C

6. B

7. C

8. D

4. B

5. B

1. Which of the following is matter?


(a) Love

(b) Heat

(c) Air

(d) Hatred

(c) sodium

(d) calcium

(c) charcoal

(d) all

2. A metal which exists as liquid at room temperature is


(a) bromine

(b) mercury

3. Which of the following is a combustible material?


(a) wood

(b) coal

4. Ductility is a property in which metal


(a) can be made into sheets
(b) can be drawn into wires
(c) can be mixed with another metal at high temp
(d) melts at room temperature

5. The density of water is high which makes it __________ when mixed with oil
(a) float

(b) sink

(c) equally dispersed

(d) cant say

6. The non-biodegradable fibre among the following is


(a) Jute

(b) flax

(c) acrylic

(d) wool

7. Jute fibre is mainly obtained from _______ of jute plant.


(a) fruit

(b) flower

(c) root

(d) stem

8. The quality of cotton mainly depends on


(a) type of seed
(c) geographical location

(b) soil
(d) all

ANSWER KEY:
1. C

2.B

3.D

6.C

7.D

8.D

4.B

5.B

1. Taking in air through our nose is called


(a) Inhalation

(b) Expiration

(c) Exhalation

(d) Combustion

2. Which noble gas is present in air, in a considerable amount?


(a) Neon

(b) Oxygen

(c) Argon

(d) Nitrogen

3. Which process plays an important role in bringing water back to the surface of earth?
(a) distillation
(c) condensation

(b) fractional distillation


(d) all the above

4. Lime water turns milky by passing atmospheric air into it. This experiment proves the presence of ________ in the
air.
(a) oxygen

(b) nitrogen

(c) carbon-dioxide

(d) neon

(b) atmosphere

(c) dissolved air

(d) water

5. Fish take up oxygen from the


(a) soil below water

6. The deposition of water from the atmosphere onto the earth in the form of __________ is called as precipitation
(a) gas or solid or liquid

(b) solid or liquid

(c) solid

(d) liquid

(b) water

(c) space

(d) wind

7. Air in motion is called


(a) soil

8. The major part of the air which does not support burning candle is
(a) oxygen

(b) nitrogen

(c) carbondioxide

(d) hydrogen

ANSWER KEY:
1. A

2.C

3. C

6. B

7.D

8.B

4.C

1. The part of the plants that absorb water and minerals from the soil is
(a) Stems
(b) roots
(c) leaves
2. Venation means
(a) Pattern of veins in a leaf
(c) Arrangement of leaves

5.C

(d) flowers

(b) pattern of mid rib in a leaf


(d) arrangement of flowers

3. Kitchen of the plant reminds you of which part of the plant?


(a) Chlorophyll
(b) chloroplast
(c) leaf

(d) flower

4. A plant has leaves with parallel venation. What kind of root is it likely to have?
(a) Dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) no roots
(d) both dicot and monocot roots
5. On the basis of height, plants are classified as
(a) Herbs,shrubs and trees
(c) creepers,twiners and trees

(b) shrubs and trees


(d) runners,shrubs and trees

6. Identify climbers
(a) Pea plant and grape vine
(c) Pumpkin and water melon

(b) Rose plant and lemon plant


(d) lotus and lily

7. The broad green surface of the leaf is called as


(a)Leaf lamina
(b) leaf tip

(c) leaf border

8. Identify the parts of a pistil


(a) Stigma,style,ovary
(c)node,petiole,lamina

(b) filament,anther
(d) calyx,corolla,androecium

(d)leaf base

ANSWER KEYS :
1. B

2.A

3.C

6. A

7.A

8. A

4.B

5.A

1. Ecology which attempts to include all aspects of interaction of all organisms in a given area with both biotic and
abiotic elements of their environment is known as
(a) population ecology
(b) Ecosystem ecology (c) community ecology (d) none of these
2. Stability of ecosystem depends upon
(a) primary productivity
(b) Interchange between producers and consumers
(c) Number of producers
(d) Number of consumers
3. A man made ecosystem is
(a) Less in diversity
(c) Man does not make ecosystem

(b) More in diversity


(d) More stable than natural ecosystem

4. The minimum number of components required for an ecosystem to survive


(a) producer and primary consumer
(b) producers and decomposers
(c) primary consumer and decomposers
(d) primary and secondary consumers.
5. The driving force of ecosystem is
(a) solar energy

(b) Biomass

(c) Producer

(d) Carbohydrate in plants

6. Light loving plants are


(a) Heliophytes

(b) Xerophytes

(c) Lithophytes

(d) None of the above

7. Which of the following is a xerocole?


(a) polar bear
(b) yalk

(c) whale

(d) kangaroo rat

8. A natural ecosystem
(a) depends on man

(c) depends on animals (d) is auto - operated

(b) depends on plants

ANSWER KEYS
1.B

2.B

3.A

6.A

7.D

8.D

1. From which part of the plant is cotton obtained?


(a) flower
(b) stem

4.B

(c) seed

5.A

(d) fruit

2. The device/s used for spinning cotton is


(a) powerloom
(b) handloom

(c) both a & b

(d) charkha

3. The fibre which is used for making explosives is


(a) jute
(b) silk

(c) cotton

(d) flax

4. The phenomenon of retting takes place in


(a) cotton
(b) jute

(c) flax

(d) wool

5. The process of obtaining yarn from fibre is


(a) spinning
(b) weaving

(c) ginning

(d) knitting

6. The fibre which is used for making linen cloth is


(a) cotton
(b) flax

(c) jute

(d) silk

7. Which of these fibres is resistant to infectants?


(a) silk
(b) wool

(c) flax

(d) acrylic

8. Which of the following statements is false?


(a) jute is obtained from stem of its plant
(b) wool is obtained from fleece of sheep
(c) cotton is used in making rayon
(d) the process of combing cotton is called spinning
ANSWER KEY:
1. D

2. D

3.C

6.B

7.D

8.D

4.B

5.A

Mathematics

Section II
Single Answer Questions

1
3
7 7 5
(a) : :
3 2 4

1
2

1. Simplest form of 2 : 3 :1

1
4
(b)

1 1 1
: :
3 2 4

2. The ratio between 9 months and 3 years


(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 4

(c) 28 : 42 :15

(d) 2 : 3 : 1

(c) 3 : 10

(d) 4 : 1

3. An office opens at 9 a.m. and closes at 5 p.m. with a lunch interval of 30 minutes. What is the ratio of lunch
interval to the total period in office?
(a) 2 : 7
(b) 7 : 15
(c) 1 : 15
(d) 1 : 16
4. Compare ratios; 7 : 6 and 24 : 9
(a)

7 24

6 9

(b)

7 24

6 9

5. Which of the following is not equivalent ratio of 6 : 15

(c)

7 24

6 9

(d) none of these

(a) 2/5

(b) 18/45

6. Which of the following is equilateral ratio of


(a)

pqr
pqr

(b)

(c) 24/30

(d)

78
195

(d)

p
qr 3

p2q4r 6
p3q3r 3

qr 3
p

7. 18, x, x, 50 are in proportion, find the value of x


(a) 900
(b) 300

(c)

q 3r
p

(c) 30

(d) 45

8. If 16, 12, x are in continuous proportion, find the value of x


(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 9

(d) 16

9. If b is mean proportion between a and c, then ________


(a) b = ac
(b) ac = 2b

(d) a c b 2

(c) ac b 2

10. The ratio of children books in a bookstall to other books is 2 : 11. The total number of children books 250. Then
the total number of books in bookstall
(a) 1375
(b) 1625
(c) 1725
(d) 1825
11. Rajesh completes his work in 3 days if he works for 5 hours daily How many days will he take to complete if he
work 3 hours daily?
(a) 3 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 5 days
12. The ratio of the income to the expenditure of a family is 4 : 3, then the savings if the income is 1224
(a) 276
(b) 416
(c) 516
(d) 306
13. A bike travels 124 km in 2hrs and a train travels 320 km in 3 hrs then the ratio of their speeds
(a) 13 : 15
(b) 31 : 64
(c) 3 : 5
(d) none of these
14. Aravind works in a factory and earns Rs 15000 per month. His wife who is a teacher earns 18000 per month. Then
find the ratio of aravind to their total income
(a) 11 : 5
(b) 5 : 11
(c) 7 : 11
(d) 9 : 11
15. If 168 sets in 8 rows in a Hall. Then in 5 rows how many seats are there _______
(a) 315
(b) 218
(c) 265

(d) 105

16. In Mrs. Jones class 20 students. There are 12 boys and 8 girls. 7 students have brown hair, 10 have blonde hair and
3 have red hair. Then the ratio of students with blonde hair to those that have red hair?
(a) 10 : 3
(b) 7 : 3
(c) 7 : 10
(d) 12 : 7
17. Tom has 13 video games 5 are action games 2 are adventure and the rest are sports. Ratio between sports games to
action games is
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 5 : 2
(c) 6 : 5
(d) 5 : 6
18. If

a b c
abc
then
_________
2 3 4
b
(a) 6

(b) 3

(c) 9

19. The maximum number of points of intersection of three lines in a plane is


(a) 3
(b) 0
(c) 1

(d) 12
(d) 2

20. Which of the following points are not collinear


(a) A, B, C
(b) F, B, D
(c) E, C, G
(d) F, C, G

21. A straight line which cuts two or more straight lines at distinct points is called a _______
(a) Parallel line
(b) Transversal
(c) Perpendicular
(d) Line segment
22. Which of the following length we can measure
(a) Plane
(b) Line

(c) Line segment

(d) Ray

23. The number of points on the boundary of triangles ________


(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4

(d) Infinite

24. The number of lines can pass through the given point ________
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four

(d) Infinite

25. Points lying on the same line are called


(a) Coplaner
(b) concurrent

(c) collinear

(d) none of these

26. The line which bisect the angle is called


(a) median
(b) angle bisector

(c) altitude

(d) none of these

27. How many line segments are there in the following figure:
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 12

28. The polygon if the line segment joining any two points inside it lies completely inside the polygon is called
_______
(a) concave polygon
(b) convex polygon
(c) regular polygon
(d) none of these
29. Write the complement angle of 1/4 of 800
(a) 3400
(b) 1600

(c) 200

(d) 700

30. The supplement angle of 3/4 of 1600


(a) 900
(b) 600

(c) 300

(d) 200

Physics

Section III
Single Answer Questions

1. Light is a form of
(a) Energy

(b) Vibration

(c) Motion

(d) all of the above

2. Rectilinear propagation of light is defined as


(a) Straight path of light
(c) Zigzag path of light

(b) Curved path of light


(d) None of these

3. Light travels fastest in


(a) Vacuum

(c) water

(b) air

4. We are able to see objects because


(a) they absorb light
(c) all light is refracted through them

(d) Iron

(b) They transmit light


(d) they reflect light

5. Choose the alternative containing only the correct statements.


(P) Light is visible because laser guns shoot visible laser beams (as seen in movies)
(Q) Light is invisible
(R) Light makes objects on which it falls visible
(S) Sunlight can be seen streaming through a hole in the door. So light is visible.
(a) P, Q, R, S
(b) Q, R
(c) P, S
(d) R, S
6. We depend on ____________ energy for our requirements of food, energy and fuel.
(a) Wind
(b) Nuclear
(c) Light
(d) Sound
7. Which of the following are examples of natural sources of light?
(P) Sun
(Q) Moon
(R) Fire flies
(a) P, Q
(b) Q, R
(C) P, Q, R

(S) Candles
(d) S

8. Which of the following are examples of non-luminous objects?


(P) Stars
(Q) Planets
(R) Moon
(a) P, Q
(b) R, S
(c) P, S

(S) Candles
(d) Q, R

9. In periscope two plane mirrors are fixed at the two bends of the tube parallel to each other and inclined at
__________ to the axis of the tube
(a) 300
(b) 600
(c) 900
(d) 450
10. The shape and size of a shadow depends on
(a) the shape and size of the object
(b) the position of the source of light
(c) the distance between the source of light and object
(d) all of the above
11. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II
COLUMN I

COLUMN II

Fire flies

Translucent

Wax paper

Travels in straight line

Light

Luminous

Moon

Non luminous

Which of the following shows the correct matching?


(a) A R; B Q; C P; D S
(b) A R; B P; C S; D Q
(c) A R; B P; C Q; D P
(d) A R; B P; C Q; D S
12. In a region of total solar eclipse

(a) one can see the sun


(c) one cannot see the sun

(b) one can see part of the sun


(d) one cannot see a part of the sun

13. The image formed by a plane mirror


(a) is an erect image
(c) shows an interchange of right and left

(b) is of the same size as that of object


(d) shows all the three characteristics listed above.

14. A beam of light is


(a) a very narrow and consists a single ray
(c) Nothing but source of light

(b) broader and consists of several rays


(d) all of the above

15. The pinhole camera produces


(a) an erect and enlarged image
(c) an inverted and diminished image

(b) an inverted and enlarged image


(d) an erect and diminished image.

Chemistry

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

16. If the components of a mixture carry different boiling points, which is the possible way to isolate these
components?
(a) Evaporation
(c) Magnetic separation

(b) Fractional distillation


(d) Decantation

17. In the lab, a scientist, accidentally, dropped some ball bearings into a beaker of hot water. Which is the best method
to separate them from water?
(a) Use distillation to isolate the water
(c) Use magnet to attract the ball bearings

(b) Evaporate the hot water to get the ball bearings


(d) Hand pick the ball bearings

18. Distillation is not used to separate


(a) a mixture of liquids in a solution
(c) miscible liquids

(b) a solvent from a solution


(d) a solid solid mixture

19. The boiling point of components is important for


(a) sieving

(b) distillation

(c) decantation

(d) magnetism

20. When do we use evaporation to separate components?


(a) a liquid-liquid mixture, in which one of the liquids has a lower boiling point
(b) a solid-liquid mixture, in which solid particles are visible
(c) a solid-liquid mixture, in which solid particles are dissolved
(d) a solid-liquid mixture, in which one of the components sublimes
21. A mixture of alcohol and water is separated by
(a) Sieving
(b) Evaporation
(c) Distillation
(d) Filtration

22. Why do solvent particles leave a solution, when it evaporates?


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Air molecules have a strong attraction for solvent particles


The solvent particles are bounced out of the solution by particle movement
The solvent particles are repelled by the solute particles
The solvent particles have enough kinetic energy to escape the liquids surface

23. A chemist would like to extract an oil-soluble substance from a water-soluble based liquid sample. He shakes the
water based sample with an oil solvent and then allows the mixture to settle into two layers. Hence then, he pours
off one of the layers. What was the technique used by the chemist?
(a) Distillation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Separating funnel (d) Sieving

24. Sand and gravel may be separated from each other by


(a) an evaporating basin

(b) a Liebigs condenser

(c) a sieve

(d) a filter

funnel

25. During filtration, the liquid collected in the container, after passing a solution through a filter paper, is called
_______.
(a) Fragments

(b) Residue

(c) Filtrate

(d) none of the above

26. Which technique can be used to get salt from a mixture of salt and sand?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Dissolve the salt; filter the solution; and recrystallise the salt
Decantation
Fractional distillation
Filter the dry mixture, crystallize the salt

27. Which of the following statements is true?


(a) Compounds are easy to separate
(b) Compounds have a fixed composition
(c) Compounds do not have a fixed composition
(d) In compounds, the atoms are not connected to one another.

28. Water from a container of boiled potatoes is separated by the method of


(a) evaporation

(b) distillation

(c) sieving

(d) decantation

(c) condensation

(d) freezing

29. Rain fall is due to _________ of water vapor in the clouds.


(a) evaporation

(b) vaporization

30. Which of these is not a method to separat a solid from a liquid?


(a) Sedimentation & Decantation
(c) Evaporation

(b) Filtration
(d) None of the above

Biology

Section V
Single Answer Questions
1. In some plants like Grass, Money plant and banyan tree, roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle.
Name the root.
(a) Taproot
(b) lateral root
(c) Adventitious root
(d) Respiratory root
2. The structure which develop from axillary buds are slender and spirally coilded and help plants to climb is called
(a) thorns
(b) tendril
(c) stipule
(d) Bract
3. Veins provide
(a) rigidity to the leaf blade
(c) act as channels of transport for food

(b) act as channels of transport for water& minerals


(d) all of the above

4. The swollen end of the pedicel which bears 4 whorls of flower is called
(a) pulvinus
(b) stolon
(c) thalamus

(d) node

5. The type of phyllotaxy seen in Guava is


(a) Alternate
(b) deccusate

(c) whorled

(d) opposite

6. Sepal is a part of
(a) corolla

(c) anther

(d) calyx

(b) ovary

7. The internal structure of seed is given. The labeling of the


seed is
(a) plumule, cotyledon, radicle
(b) cotyledon, radicle, plumule
(c) plumule radicle, cotyledon
(d) radicle plumule, cotyledon
8. One cotyledon is present in
(a) gram and pea

(b) wheat and maize

(c) wheat and gram

(d) maize and pea

9. Justify the following statements on the basis of external features


(A) underground parts of a plant are not always roots
(B) Flower is a reproductive part
(a) A is true and B is false
(b) A is false and B is true
(c) Both A and B are true
(d) both A and B are false
10. The function of stem is
(a) bearing leaves, flowers and fruits
(c) performs photosynthesis

(b) conducts water and minerals


(d) all of the above

*******

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 4 - ANSWER KEYS

Social Science
1. C

2.B

3.A

4.B

5.C

6. A

7.C

8.A

9.B

10.C

11. D

12.B

13.A

14.C

15.A

16. B

17.C

18.A

19.B

20.D

Mathematics
1.C

2.B

3.C

4.A

5.C

6.B

7.C

8.C

9.C

10.B

11.B

12.D

13.D

14.B

15.D

16.A

17.C

18.B

19.A

20.D

21.B

22.C

23.D

24.D

25.C

26.B

27.D

28.B

29.D

30.B

Physics
1.A

2.A

3.A

4.D

5.B

6.C

7.C

8.D

9. D

10. D

11.D

12.C

13.D

14. B

15.C

Chemistry
1.B

2.C

3.D

4.B

5.C

6.C

7.D

8.C

9.C

10.C

11.A

12.B

13.D

14.C

15.D

Biology
1.C

2.B

3.D

4.C

5.D

6.D

7.C

8.B

9.C

10.D

Mathematics

Section II
Single Answer Questions

1. Symbolic form of excess of x over y

(a) y x

(b) x y

(c) x + y

(d) None

2. A block of ice is heated from 5 C to 100 C the rise in temperature is ________________


(a) 95
(b) 100
(c) 105
(d) None
3. A person is x years old at present, 5 years ago the age is ____________
(a) x + 5

(b) 5x

(c)

5
x

(d) x 5

4. A book costs x paisa, the number of books can be bought for Rs a is _____________
(a)

a
x

(b)

100a
x

(c)

a
100 x

5. The product of any 3 consecutive natural number is divisible by


(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6

(d)

100
x

(d) 5

6. If 8 be added to four times a number the sum equal to 48, the number is __________
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
7. A number whose half exceeds its one third by 5 is ________________
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30

(d) 40

8. The sum of twice a number and 7 equals half that number plus 16, the number is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10

(d) 12

9. The sum of all the digits of the result of the subtraction 109 9 is _________
(a) 71
(b) 72
(c) 73

(d) 74

0.1 0.01

0.01 0.1

10. Which is equal to


(a) 10.1

(b) 1.10

(c) 1.01

(d) 10.01

11. The cost of 1 liters of milk is Rs. 7.50, then the cost of 30.5 liters of milk is Rs. __________
(a) Rs.225.75
(b) Rs. 223.75
(c) Rs. 228.75
(d) None
12. The value of 3
(a)

1 3 1 1 1
1 2 1
12 4 2 2 3

1
2

13. Simplified value of 2


(a)

188
56

(b) 2

1
5 3 1
3 4 is__________
2
7 13 2
188
(b)
56

15.

625 576

(c) 1

(c) 3

(d) 0

13
56

(d) 3

13
56

14. 18 of 59 7 8 26 3 of 5
(a) 188

is __________________

(b) 144

(c) 144

(d) None

(a) 1
16.

(b) 3

1 50 2 50 3 50 4 50 ........... 100 50
(a) 100

(b) 0

(c) 5
product is __________
(c) 100

17. The sum of 51+52+53++100 is __________


(a) 5050
(b) 3775
18. Given S

(c) 1000

(d) 7

(d) 1000
(d) None

n
2a n 1 d , if d = 1, n = 10 and a = 12, then S is __________
2

(a) 165
19. An example of a trinomial is
(a) x

(b) 170

(c) 175

(d) 180

(b) x 2 y 2

(c) x 3 y3 z3

(d) xyz

(c) 4

(d) 5

20. n3 n is divisible by _____________[n is natural numbers]


(a) 7
(b) 3

21. Given N = 1 + 50 + 502+503++502011 units digit is __________


(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2

(d) 3

22. The sum of 6 abc2 , 2 abc 2 and 4 abc 2 is


(a) 12 abc 2
(b) 8abc 2

(c) 8a 2 bc

(d) 8 abc

23. Number of tens in twenty thousand is


(a) 20
(b) 200

(c) 2000

(d) 1000

24. The unit digit in 20162016 is____________________


(a) 6
(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 5

25. 1 1 1 1 1 1 ................ 1
1

(a) 0

(b) 1

2011

_____________

(c) 2

(d) None

26. 213 113 divided by 10 remainder is ________


(a) 0
(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

27. Given 24 x 2 1 y 2 , if x 1, then y is divisible by


(a) 1
(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) None

28. The LCM of 24, 30, 36 is


(a) 120

(c) 360

(d) 720

1
29. The Value of

(a)

6
11

(b) 180

1
1

1
1

1
6

is ___________

(b)

16
11

(c)

7
6

(d)

1
6

30. What should be added to 5


(a)
Physics

22
6

4
3
to get 12 ?
15
5
22
(b)
3

(c)

22
4

(d)

22
5

Section III

Single Answer Questions

1.

18 kmph = ? ( ms-1)
(a) 5

2.

(b) 500

(c) 50

(d) 0.5

(b) 200000 mg

(c)

1
g
5

(d) 2000 g

The suitable unit for the measurement of distance between planets is


(a) light year

5.

(d) none

A boy measured the mass of 10 apples as 2 kg. then the mass of each apple is
(a) 200 mg

4.

(c) 3.6

50 cm = ? ( m m )
(a) 5

3.

(b) 18

(b) km

(c) m

(d) cm

Ram has to walk 2 km to reach his school. What is the total distance traveled by him to go and come back to his
home.
(a) 2 km

6.

(b) circular motion

(c) random motion

(d) none

(b) 4 kmph

(c) 0 kmph

(d) none

A boy walks 2m east and then 2m west, then the distance traveled by him is
(a) 2m

9.

(d) 6 km

If Ram takes 1 hr to go to school, his average speed is ( refer problem no.5 )


(a) 2 kmph

8.

(c) 4 km

Motion of a fly is an example of


(a) rectilinear motion

7.

(b) 3 km

(b) 4m

(c) 0 m

Anjali moved from A to B and then B to C,


then her distance is
(a) 7m
(d) 5m

(b) 3m

(c) 4m

(d) 4 km

10. Which of the following is not a physical quantity

(a) length

(b) mass

(c) time

(d) affection

11. A body is moving with a speed of 20 ms -1, then its speed in kmph is

(a) 20

(b) 100/18

(c) 72

(d) 54

12. Raghav measured the length of a room is 50 m. Its length in km is

(a) 0.5

(b) 0.005

(c) 5

(d) 0.05

13. If the same room is measured by Aparna, then she found that the room width is 25 m, its width in cm is

(a)
14. One day =

1
4

(b) 2500

(c) 250

(d) 25000

(b) 86400

(c) 2400

(d) 2436

? ( seconds)
(a) 3600

15. If moon takes 27 days to complete one revolution around earth, then It takes (minutes)

(a) 27 24

(b) 27 24 3600

(c) 27 24 60

Chemistry

(d) 27 12 60

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

16. Which of the following is impure substance?


(a) oxygen
(b) carbondioxide

(c) aluminium

(d) brass

17. Solid-liquid homogeneous mixture among the following is


(a) oil & water
(b) milk & water

(c) salt & water

(d) sand & water

18. Filtration technique is used to separate a heterogenous mixture of


(a) solid & solid
(b) solid & liquid
(c) liquid & liquid

(d) all

19. The method which is used to remove lighter particles (impurities) from heavier particles is
(a) threshing
(b) winnowing
(c) sieving
(d) filtration
20. Which of the following can be separated into its individual components by physical methods of separation?
(a) Element
(b) compound
(c) mixture
(d) all
21. Distillation is a technique which constitutes
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation

(c) filtration

(d) both a & b

22. A mixture of iron & sand is separated by


(a) filtration
(b) evaporation

(c) separating funnel

(d) magnet

23. An insoluble solid from a liquid is separated by


(a) sieving
(b) separating funnel

(c) filtration

(d) evaporation

24. The technique threshing can be done


(a) manually
(b) machines

(c) both a & b

(d) none

25. Cleaning rice with water is an example of


(a) sieving
(b) sedimentation

(c) threshing

(d) winnowing

26. In a mixture of salt & water, salt can be obtained by


(a) separating funnel
(b) filtration

(c) decantation

(d) evaporation

27. Which of the following is an example of miscible liquids?


(a) milk & water
(b) water & kerosence (c) water & oil

(d) both b & c

28. A heterogeneous mixture among the following is


(a) steel
(b) smoke

(d) cool drink

(c) air

29. A separation technique which is based on the differences in size of particles is


(a) sedimentation
(b) threshing
(c) sieving

(d) decantation

30. The solid component which settles at the bottom during sedimentation is called
(a) sediments
(b) decanted liquid
(c) supernatant

(d) residue

Biology

Section V

Single Answer Questions


1. Roughages contain high contents of
(a) Minerals
(b) Fibers
(c) Proteins

(d) Fats

2. Lizard is
(a) A carnivore

(b) Aherbivore

(c) An omnivore

(d)A Saprotrophic

3. Cellulose is a
(a) Polysaccharides

(b) Disaccharide

(c) Monosaccharide

(d) Protein

4. Lactose is made up of
(a) Glucose and glucose
(c) Glucose and galactose

(b) Glucose and fructose


(d) Glucose and Sucrose

5. Proteins
(a) Provides energy immediately
(c) Avoids the blood clotting

(b) Store food material in the form of fat


(d) Provide chemical material for the growth

6. Which food item acts as a source of minerals


(a) Ghee
(b) Fruits

(c) Bread

(d) Leaf vegetables

7. Fat soluble vitamins are


(a) A,B,C&D

(c) A,D,E&K

(d) D,E,K&C

(b) B&C

8. Seema uses more leaf vegetables and fruits in her diet which nutrients she gets more
(a) Fats and proteins
(b) Carbohydrates and fats
(c) Proteins and carbohydrates
(d) Minerals
9. Non green plants are
(a) Heterotrophs
(c) Some are autrophs

(b) Autotrophs
(d) Some are autotrophs and some are heterotrophs

10. Constipation can be avoided by adding __________ to diet.


(a) Proteins
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins

(d) Fibers

Mathematics
1.

Section II

Single Answer Questions


The sum of all positive composite integers between 1 and 100 which are relatively prime to 100 is
(a) 940
(b) 942
(c) 944
(d) 946

2.

The sum of all the numbers representing the dates of the 12 months from January to December 2011 is
(a) 5736
(b) 5737
(c) 5738
9d) 5739

3.

Which of these fraction is nearest to 1?

4.

3
*

(a)

12
23

1
*

10
then * is equal to
*

If 3 1

(b)

(a) 1
y 2
5.

If

(b) 2

1
2

1
2

34
45

(d)

(c) 3

23
34

(d) 4

then y =

29
2

(b)

29
4

(c)

29
12

(d) None of these

15 3 15 10 3 14 7 14 10 3

(a) 14
7.

(c)

(a)
6.

56
67

(b) 13

(c) 15

(d) 16

Whcih of the following is not true?


2
9

(a)

1
5

5
7

(b)

8
9

2
7

(c)

1
4

(d) None of these

2 23 9 11
4
, ,
and
are written from smallest to largest then which will be the middle fraction?
3 30 10 15
5
2
23
9
4
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3
30
10
5

8.

If ,

9.

Two positive integers have a sum of 11. The greatest possible product of these two positive integers is
(a) 11
(b) 18
(c) 35
(d) 30

10. If P = 1000 and Q = 0.091. Which of the following calculations gives the largest result?
P
Q
(a) P + Q
(b) P Q
(c)
(d)
Q
P
11. In the diagram, all rows, columns and diagonals have the same

sum. Then x is equal to


(a) 16
(c) 19
12. A fraction is equivalent to

(b) 17
(d) 18
5
, its denominator and numerator add upto 91. What is the difference between of its
8

denominator and numerator?


(a) 19

(b) 20

(c) 21

(d) 22

13. The value of the expression 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 is

(a) 4

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) 2

14. Two thirds of the people in a room are seated in three fourths of the chairs. The rest of the people are standing. If

there are 6 empty chairs, how many people are in the room?
(a) 28
(b) 27
(c) 26
15. The fraction 101

(d) 29

27
in decimal form is
100000

(a) 0.01027

(b) 0.10127

(c) 101.00027

(d) 101.000027

16. How many digits will be there to the right of the decimal point in the product of 95.75 and 0.02554?

(a) 5

(b) 6

17. Which of the following fraction is greater than

(a)

1
2

(b)

2
3

(c) 7
5
3
and less than ?
6
4
4
(c)
5

(d) 8

(d)

9
10

18. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Y increases by 15 paise

every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year
commodity X will cost 40 paise more than the commodity?
(a) 2010
(b) 2011
(c) 2012
(d) 2013
19. If

144 14.4

then the value of x is


0.144
x

(a) 0.0144

(b) 1.44

(c) 14.4

20. Which of the following are in descending order of their value?


1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) , , , , ,
(b) , , , , ,
(c) , , , , ,
3 5 7 5 6 7
3 5 5 7 6 7
3 5 5 6 7 7

(d) 144
6 5 4 3 2 1
7 6 5 7 5 3

(d) , , , , ,

21. What is the sum of two consecutive even numbers, the difference of whose squares is 84?

(a) 34
22.

(b) 38

(c) 42

(d) 46

(b) 1.45

(c) 2.40

(d) 3.25

(c) 0.00027

(d) 0.000126

(c) 17.2

(d) 172

0.0203 2.92
?
0.0073 14.5 0.7

(a) 0.8

23. What decimal of an hour is a second?

(a) 0.0025

(b) 0.0256

24. If 2994 14.5 = 172 then 29.94 1.45 ?

(a) 0.172

(b) 1.72

25. The average of ten different positive integers is 10. The smallest is 5. The biggest of these numbers can be

(a) 55

(b) 49

(c) 25

(d) 19

26. One hundred flowers were kept in 4 baskets. After some time, 4, 5, 3 and 8 flowers were taken out from the first,

second, third, and fourth baskets respectively. Now all the 4 baskets have the same number of flowers. The number
of flowers in the fourth basket at the beginning was
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 28
(d) 23
27. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

(a) 1

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) none

28. If the digits A, B and C are added, the sum is the two-digit number AB as shwon at the right. What is the value of

C?

(a) 0

(b) 9

(c) 1

(d) 8

A
+B
+C
AB

29. If a is divided by b, the result is

5
3
. If b is divided by c the result is . What is the result when a is divided by
6
4

c?
(a)

8
5

(b)

15
13

(c)

10
9

(d)

5
8

30. When a number N is divided by 3, the result is the same as when N is decreased by 8. What is the number N?

(a) 12

(b) 8

(c) 11

(d) 10

31. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 18

(d) 21

32. See the following number tree.

The second row contains the numbers 2, 3. The third row contains the numbers 4, 5, 6, 7 etc. Then the sum of the
numbers in the sixth row is
(a) 1420
(b) 1520
(c) 1320
(d) 1620
33. 42, 40, 38, 35, 33, 31, 28, ?

(a) 25

(b) 26

(c) 24

(d) 27

(b) 4.4

(c) 4.7

(d) 6.1

(b) 1.2

(c) 1.27

(d) 1.28

34. 1.5, 2.3, 3.1, 3.9, .what number should come next?

(a) 4.2
35. 3.87 2.59 ?

(a) 1.20
Physics

Section III
Single Answer Questions

1. Light year is a unit of:


(a) area

(b) time

(c) Length

2. For measuring the thickness of your little finger, what unit would you prefer?
(a) mm
(b) cm
(c) m

(d) volume
(d) km

3. 1 micron = ________ m
(a) 106

(b) 106

(c) 103

(d) 103

4. 1 m/s = _________ kmph


(a)

5
18

(b)

18
5

5. Symbols for units are usually written in


(a) Small letters
(b) capital letters

(c)

9
5

(c) Bold letters

(d)

5
9

(d) None of the above

6.A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 30 minutes and then with a speed of 50 km/h for the next 30 minutes. The
total distance covered by the car is
(a) 100 km
(b) 45 km
(c) 65 km
(d) 50 km
7. If the car is parked on a side road then the distance time graph showing this is

8. An example for combined motion (both linear and circular)


(a) Smoke coming out from a chimney
(b) swinging pendulum
(c) Movement of a flag on the flag post
(d) wheel of a car running on a road
9. Refer to the distance time graph and identify the body moving with
fastest speed
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

10. How many quintals make one ton?


(a) 0.1
(b) 100

(c) 1000

11. Arrange the following lengths in the increasing order of their magnitude
(i) 1 meter
(ii) 1 centimeter
(iii) 1 kilometer
(a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

(d) 10
(iv) 1 millimeter
(d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

12. While measuring the length of a knitting needle, the reading of the scale at one end is 4.1 cm and at the other end is
33.4 cm. What is the length of the needle?
(a) 29.0 cm
(b) 29.3 cm
(c) 37.5 cm
(d) 37.5 mm

Use the information below to answer Number


13 & 14. Lee is planning an experiment to
compare the velocity v d / t of four objects
with different masses and shapes when they
are dropped from different heights. Lee must
use only equipment from the diagram below to
conduct his experiment.

13. Which pieces of equipment are needed to calculate the velocity of a falling object?
(a) Stopwatch and balance
(b) speedometer and magnet
(c) Compass and tape measure
(d) tape measure and
stopwatch
14. For his experiment, Lee made the list of steps below. The steps are not arranged in the correct order.
1. Measure the height from which the objects will fall.
2. Drop each object from the location marked
3. Calculate the velocity for each object
4. Mark the point from which each object must be dropped
5. Record the time it takes the objects to fall.
6. Measure the mass of each object.
What is the correct order of steps for this investigation?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3
(b) 2, 6, 5, 3, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 5, 3, 1, 6
(d) 6, 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
15. How many seconds are there in one day
(a) 60 seconds
(b) 3600 seconds

(c) 86400 seconds

Chemistry

(d) None of these

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

1. We are not able to see the air because


(a) it has strong intermolecular force of attraction
(c) they are present as single particles

(b) it has less intermolecular space in between them


(d) they move very fast

2. Sugar is made up of
(a) hydrogen and carbon
(c) carbon, hydrogen & nitrogen

(b) carbon, hydrogen & oxygen


(d) sodium, carbon, oxygen & hydrogen

3. Frosted glass is
(a) Transparent

(c) Translucent

(b) Opaque

4. Why do we make vessels out of metals?


(a) They are good conductors of heat
(c) They are sonorous
5. Kerosene with petrol forms

(d) Glittery

(b) They are good conductors of electricity


(d) All the above

(a) miscible solution

(b) immiscible solution (c) suspension

6. Which of the following is not a property of mercury?


(a) lustrous
(b) high melting point

(d) none of these

(c) conducts electricity (d) none of the above

7. Which of the following statements is wrong?


(a) Gases are moderately soluble in water
(b) Air contains nitrogen in it
(c) Human beings breathe oxygen present in the air (d) Air contains CO2 which is poisonous in nature
8. Which of the following forms heterogeneous mixture?
(a) salt & water
(b) sugar & water

(c) salt & sugar

(d) nitrogen & oxygen

9. Which of the following relationships is correct? ( density, m mass, v volume)


(a) m V

(b) V m

10. Copper metal is used to make wire because


(a) it is a good conductor of electricity
(c) it is economical

(c)

V
m

(d) mV

(b) it is ductile
(d) all the above

11. Which of the following is a correct statement?


(a) Classification is done only for living things
(b) Classification is done only for non-living things
(c) Classification is done to know how the members of a group differ from those of other groups.
(d) none of the above
12. Gases donot have a fixed volume because
(a) it is a fluid
(c) it has very high intermolecular space

(b) it consists of several tiny particles


(d) the particles attract each other

13. Which of the following is not a matter?


(a) Paper
(b) Water

(c) Nitrogen

(d) smell

14. Which of the following substances can be made with only one material?
(a) Sofa set
(b) Pulao
(c) Spoon

(d) all the above

15. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat?


(a) Gold
(b) Graphite

(d) Salt water

(c) Oxygen

Biology

Section V
Single Answer Questions

1. Water soluble vitamins are


(a) A&C

(b) E&K

(c) B&C

(d) C&K

2. Find out the correct pair


(a) Vitamin c Scurvy

(b) Retinol Beriberi

(c) Iron Goitre

(d) Vitamin B- Rickets

3. Which of the following does not have nutritive value, yet needed in our diet?
(a) Minerals
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins

(d) Roughage

4. Choose the correct statement


(a) Fats required for the body building
(b) Fats provide more energy than Carbohydrates
(c) Roughage is obtained from both plants and animal foods (d)Vitamins and Minerals are macronutrients

5. Amino acids are the components of


(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Proteins

(c) Fatty acids

(d) Carbohydrates

6. Iodine turns blue black colour on reacting with the stored food of
(a) Beans
(b) Groundnuts
(c) Pulses

(d) Potatoes

7. Essential part of blood and urine, that regulates our body temperature is
(a) Water
(b) Minerals
(c) Fats

(d) Vitamins

8. Proper formation of bones and teeth require


(a) Iron & Chlorine
(b) Sodium & Chlorine (c) Calcium & Phosphorous (d) Sodium & Potassium
9. Biuretic test is done to identify
(a) Glucose

(b) Starch

10. Butter and ghee are the major sources of


(a) Fats
(b) Proteins
*******

(c) Fat

(d) Protein

(c) Vitamins

(d) Minerals

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 2 - ANSWER KEYS

1. C

2. A

Social Science
3. D
4. B

6. B

7. D

8. C

9. C

10. D

11. B

12. B

13. C

14. A

15. D

16. B

17. C

18. D

19. B

20. A

5. C

Mathematics

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. D

5. C

6. A

7. D

8. B

9. D

10. C

11. D

12. C

13. A

14. B

15. C

16. B

17. C

18. B

19. A

20. D

21. C

22. A

23. C

24. C

25. D

26. C

27. A

28. B

29. D

30. A

31. A

32. B

33. B

34. C

35. D

Physics
1.C

2.A

3.B

4.B

5.A

6.B

7.A

8.D

9.A

10.D

11.C

12.B

13.D

14.D

15.C

Chemistry
1. C

2. B

3.C

4.A

5.A

6. B

7.D

8.C

9.A

10. D

11.C

12.C

13.D

14.C

15.C

Biology

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. B

5. B

6. D

7. A

8. C

9. D

10. A

Physics

Section II
Single Answer Questions

16. Light year is a unit of:


(a) area

(b) time

(c) Length

(d) volume

17. For measuring the thickness of your little finger, what unit would you prefer?
(a) mm
(b) cm
(c) m

(d) km

18. 1 micron = ________ m


(a) 106

(d) 103

(b) 106

(c) 103

19. 1 m/s = _________ kmph


(a)

5
18

(b)

18
5

20. Symbols for units are usually written in


(a) Small letters
(b) capital letters

(c)

9
5

(c) Bold letters

(d)

5
9

(d) None of the above

21. A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 30 minutes and then with a speed of 50 km/h for the next 30 minutes. The
total distance covered by the car is
(a) 100 km
(b) 45 km
(c) 65 km
(d) 50 km
22. If the car is parked on a side road then the distance time graph showing this is

23. An example for combined motion (both linear and circular)


(a) Smoke coming out from a chimney
(b) swinging pendulum
(c) Movement of a flag on the flag post
(d) wheel of a car running on a road
24. Refer to the distance time graph and identify the body moving with
fastest speed
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

25. How many quintals make one ton?


(a) 0.1
(b) 100

(c) 1000

26. Arrange the following lengths in the increasing order of their magnitude

(d) 10

(i) 1 meter
(a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

(ii) 1 centimeter
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

(iii) 1 kilometer
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

(iv) 1 millimeter
(d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

27. While measuring the length of a knitting needle, the reading of the scale at one end is 4.1 cm and at the other end is
33.4 cm. What is the length of the needle?
(a) 29.0 cm
(b) 29.3 cm
(c) 37.5 cm
(d) 37.5 mm
Use the information below to answer Number
13 & 14. Lee is planning an experiment to
compare the velocity v d / t of four objects
with different masses and shapes when they
are dropped from different heights. Lee must
use only equipment from the diagram below to
conduct his experiment.

28. Which pieces of equipment are needed to calculate the velocity of a falling object?
(a) Stopwatch and balance
(b) speedometer and magnet
(c) Compass and tape measure
(d) tape measure and
stopwatch
29. For his experiment, Lee made the list of steps below. The steps are not arranged in the correct order.
7. Measure the height from which the objects will fall.
8. Drop each object from the location marked
9. Calculate the velocity for each object
10. Mark the point from which each object must be dropped
11. Record the time it takes the objects to fall.
12. Measure the mass of each object.
What is the correct order of steps for this investigation?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3
(b) 2, 6, 5, 3, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 5, 3, 1, 6
(d) 6, 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
30. How many seconds are there in one day
(a) 60 seconds
(b) 3600 seconds

(c) 86400 seconds

Chemistry

(d) None of these

Section III
Single Answer Questions

16. We are not able to see the air because


(a) it has strong intermolecular force of attraction
(c) they are present as single particles

(b) it has less intermolecular space in between them


(d) they move very fast

17. Sugar is made up of


(a) hydrogen and carbon
(c) carbon, hydrogen & nitrogen

(b) carbon, hydrogen & oxygen


(d) sodium, carbon, oxygen & hydrogen

18. Frosted glass is


(a) Transparent

(c) Translucent

(b) Opaque

(d) Glittery

19. Why do we make vessels out of metals?


(a) They are good conductors of heat
(c) They are sonorous
20. Kerosene with petrol forms
(a) miscible solution

(b) They are good conductors of electricity


(d) All the above

(b) immiscible solution (c) suspension

21. Which of the following is not a property of mercury?


(a) lustrous
(b) high melting point

(d) none of these

(c) conducts electricity (d) none of the above

22. Which of the following statements is wrong?


(a) Gases are moderately soluble in water
(b) Air contains nitrogen in it
(c) Human beings breathe oxygen present in the air (d) Air contains CO2 which is poisonous in nature
23. Which of the following forms heterogeneous mixture?
(a) salt & water
(b) sugar & water

(c) salt & sugar

(d) nitrogen & oxygen

24. Which of the following relationships is correct? ( density, m mass, v volume)


(a) m V

(b) V m

25. Copper metal is used to make wire because


(a) it is a good conductor of electricity
(c) it is economical

(c)

V
m

(d) mV

(b) it is ductile
(d) all the above

26. Which of the following is a correct statement?


(a) Classification is done only for living things
(b) Classification is done only for non-living things
(c) Classification is done to know how the members of a group differ from those of other groups.
(d) none of the above
27. Gases donot have a fixed volume because
(a) it is a fluid
(c) it has very high intermolecular space

(b) it consists of several tiny particles


(d) the particles attract each other

28. Which of the following is not a matter?


(a) Paper
(b) Water

(c) Nitrogen

(d) smell

29. Which of the following substances can be made with only one material?
(a) Sofa set
(b) Pulao
(c) Spoon

(d) all the above

30. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat?


(a) Gold
(b) Graphite

(d) Salt water

(c) Oxygen

Biology

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

11. Water soluble vitamins are


(a) A&C

(b) E&K

(c) B&C

(d) C&K

12. Find out the correct pair


(a) Vitamin c Scurvy

(b) Retinol Beriberi

(c) Iron Goitre

(d) Vitamin B- Rickets

13. Which of the following does not have nutritive value, yet needed in our diet?

(a) Minerals

(b) Fats

(c) Vitamins

(d) Roughage

14. Choose the correct statement


(a) Fats required for the body building
(b) Fats provide more energy than Carbohydrates
(c) Roughage is obtained from both plants and animal foods (d)Vitamins and Minerals are macronutrients
15. Amino acids are the components of
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Proteins

(c) Fatty acids

(d) Carbohydrates

16. Iodine turns blue black colour on reacting with the stored food of
(a) Beans
(b) Groundnuts
(c) Pulses

(d) Potatoes

17. Essential part of blood and urine, that regulates our body temperature is
(a) Water
(b) Minerals
(c) Fats

(d) Vitamins

18. Proper formation of bones and teeth require


(a) Iron & Chlorine
(b) Sodium & Chlorine (c) Calcium & Phosphorous (d) Sodium & Potassium
19. Biuretic test is done to identify
(a) Glucose

(b) Starch

(c) Fat

(d) Protein

20. Butter and ghee are the major sources of


(a) Fats (b) Proteins
(c) Vitamins
(d) Minerals
Mathematics
Section V
Single Answer Questions
36. The sum of all positive composite integers between 1 and 100 which are relatively prime to 100 is
(a) 940
(b) 942
(c) 944
(d) 946
37. The sum of all the numbers representing the dates of the 12 months from January to December 2011 is

(a) 5736

(b) 5737

38. Which of these fraction is nearest to 1?


12
56
(a)
(b)
23
67

(c) 5738

(c)

34
45

9d) 5739

(d)

23
34

3 1 10
39. If 3 1 then * is equal to
* * *

(a) 1
y 2
40. If

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

1
2

(a)

1
2
29
2

1
2

then y =

(b)

29
4

(c)

29
12

(d) None of these

41. 15 3 15 10 3 14 7 14 10 3

(a) 14

(b) 13

42. Whcih of the following is not true?


2 1
5 8
(a)
(b)
9 5
7 9

(c) 15
2
7

(c)

(d) 16
1
4

(d) None of these

2 23 9 11
4
and
43. If , , ,
are written from smallest to largest then which will be the middle fraction?
3 30 10 15
5
2
23
9
4
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3
30
10
5
44. Two positive integers have a sum of 11. The greatest possible product of these two positive integers is

(a) 11

(b) 18

(c) 35

(d) 30

45. If P = 1000 and Q = 0.091. Which of the following calculations gives the largest result?
P
Q
(a) P + Q
(b) P Q
(c)
(d)
Q
P
46. In the diagram, all rows, columns and diagonals have the same

sum. Then x is equal to


(a) 16
(c) 19
47. A fraction is equivalent to

(b) 17
(d) 18
5
, its denominator and numerator add upto 91. What is the difference between of its
8

denominator and numerator?


(a) 19

(b) 20

(c) 21

(d) 22

48. The value of the expression 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 is

(a) 4

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) 2

49. Two thirds of the people in a room are seated in three fourths of the chairs. The rest of the people are standing. If

there are 6 empty chairs, how many people are in the room?
(a) 28
(b) 27
(c) 26
50. The fraction 101

(d) 29

27
in decimal form is
100000

(a) 0.01027

(b) 0.10127

(c) 101.00027

(d) 101.000027

51. How many digits will be there to the right of the decimal point in the product of 95.75 and 0.02554?

(a) 5

(b) 6

52. Which of the following fraction is greater than

(a)

1
2

(b)

2
3

(c) 7
5
3
and less than ?
6
4
4
(c)
5

(d) 8

(d)

9
10

53. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Y increases by 15 paise

every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year
commodity X will cost 40 paise more than the commodity?
(a) 2010
(b) 2011
(c) 2012
(d) 2013
54. If

144 14.4

then the value of x is


0.144
x

(a) 0.0144

(b) 1.44

(c) 14.4

55. Which of the following are in descending order of their value?


1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) , , , , ,
(b) , , , , ,
(c) , , , , ,
3 5 7 5 6 7
3 5 5 7 6 7
3 5 5 6 7 7

(d) 144
6 5 4 3 2 1
7 6 5 7 5 3

(d) , , , , ,

56. What is the sum of two consecutive even numbers, the difference of whose squares is 84?

(a) 34
57.

(b) 38

(c) 42

(d) 46

(b) 1.45

(c) 2.40

(d) 3.25

(c) 0.00027

(d) 0.000126

(c) 17.2

(d) 172

0.0203 2.92
?
0.0073 14.5 0.7

(a) 0.8

58. What decimal of an hour is a second?

(a) 0.0025

(b) 0.0256

59. If 2994 14.5 = 172 then 29.94 1.45 ?

(a) 0.172

(b) 1.72

60. The average of ten different positive integers is 10. The smallest is 5. The biggest of these numbers can be

(a) 55

(b) 49

(c) 25

(d) 19

61. One hundred flowers were kept in 4 baskets. After some time, 4, 5, 3 and 8 flowers were taken out from the first,

second, third, and fourth baskets respectively. Now all the 4 baskets have the same number of flowers. The number
of flowers in the fourth basket at the beginning was
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 28
(d) 23
62. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

(a) 1

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) none

63. If the digits A, B and C are added, the sum is the two-digit number AB as shwon at the right. What is the value of

C?

(a) 0

(b) 9

(c) 1

(d) 8

A
+B
+C
AB

64. If a is divided by b, the result is

5
3
. If b is divided by c the result is . What is the result when a is divided by
6
4

c?
(a)

8
5

(b)

15
13

(c)

10
9

(d)

5
8

65. When a number N is divided by 3, the result is the same as when N is decreased by 8. What is the number N?

(a) 12

(b) 8

(c) 11

(d) 10

66. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 18

(d) 21

67. See the following number tree.

The second row contains the numbers 2, 3. The third row contains the numbers 4, 5, 6, 7 etc. Then the sum of the
numbers in the sixth row is
(a) 1420
(b) 1520
(c) 1320
(d) 1620
68. 42, 40, 38, 35, 33, 31, 28, ?

(a) 25

(b) 26

(c) 24

(d) 27

69. 1.5, 2.3, 3.1, 3.9, .what number should come next?

(a) 4.2

(b) 4.4

(c) 4.7

(d) 6.1

(b) 1.2

(c) 1.27

(d) 1.28

70. 3.87 2.59 ?

(a) 1.20

*******

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 2 - ANSWER KEYS

1. C

2. A

Social Science
3. D
4. B

6. B

7. D

8. C

9. C

10. D

11. B

12. B

13. C

14. A

15. D

16. B

17. C

18. D

19. B

20. A

5. C

Physics
1.C

2.A

3.B

4.B

5.A

6.B

7.A

8.D

9.A

10.D

11.C

12.B

13.D

14.D

15.C

Chemistry
1. C

2. B

3.C

4.A

5.A

6. B

7.D

8.C

9.A

10. D

11.C

12.C

13.D

14.C

15.C

Biology

11. C

12. A

13. D

14. B

15. B

16. D

17. A

18. C

19. D

20. A

Mathematics

36. D

37. C

38. B

39. D

40. C

41. A

42. D

43. B

44. D

45. C

46. D

47. C

48. A

49. B

50. C

51. B

52. C

53. B

54. A

55. D

56. C

57. A

58. C

59. C

60. D

61. C

62. A

63. B

64. D

65. A

66. A

67. B

68. B

69. C

70. D

Mathematics

Section II
Single Answer Questions

1.

5 2 16 4 is equal to

(a) 14
2.

3.

(b) 30

(c)

13
2

(d)

45
2

1 crore = ___________ million


(a) 100
(b) 10

(c) 1

(d) 1000

The units digit in the product 486 705 369 891


(a) 5
(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) 9

4.

A large corporation spent Rs.2 for each holiday greeting card it sent to its employees. The postage was Rs.0.5 per
envelope. There were 1500 employees. Then the total cost of sending out holiday greeting cards is
(a) Rs.3000
(b) Rs.4750
(c) Rs.4000
(d) Rs.3750

5.

The least number which when divided by 14, 16, 18 and 24 leaves the remainder 9 in each case is
(a) 1008
(b) 1027
(c) 1017
(d) 1037

6.

Which is not the factor of 4263?


(a) 69
(b) 609

(c) 7

(d) 3

Which of the following number divisible by 39?


(a) 45506
(b) 17745

(c) 456961

(d) 166976

Which of the following pair is co-prime?


(a) 2034, 3674
(b) 13585, 2717

(c) 345, 2431

(d) 5705, 7565

7.

8.

9.

The difference on the quotients obtained when 6257, 6231 are divided by 4 is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 0
(d) 2

10. What is the difference between successor and predecessor of a natural number?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

(c) 107

(d) 113

11. The smallest three digit prime number is

(a) 101

(b) 103

12. A and B are odd natural numbers, then which of the following is even
(a) a b
(b) a b 1
(c) ab

(d) ab 2

13. On multiplying a number by 3 the product is a number each of whose digits is 2. The smallest such number is

(a) 84

(b) 74

(c) 66

(d) 44

14. The sum of the two umbers 13 and product is 42, then the sum of their reciprocals is
42
13
1
(a) 55
(b)
(c)
(d)
13
42
4
15. If n is a natural number, then n n 1 is always divisible by

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

16. The largest two digit number such that tens digit upon reduced by 1 it becomes twice the units digit is

(a) 73

(b) 51

(c) 83

(d) 94

(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) 2

17. Least odd prime number is

(a) 1

18. 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ...... what number should come next?

(a) 14

(b) 10

(c) 12

(d) 13

(b) 38

(c) 39

(d) 40

19. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?

(a) 35

20. A student multiplied 8347 by 75 instead of multiplying by 65. By how much was his answer greater than the

correct answer.
(a) 8347

(b) 83470

(c) 83740

(d) 83704

(b) 99

(c) 89

(d) 69

(b) 6

(c) 1

(d) 7

(b) 1

(c) 7

(d) 2

(c) 2c

(d) a b 2c

21. LXXXIX =

(a) 79

22. If 9A34 75CB = 1708, then A is equal to

(a) 2
34

23. The units digit in 712 is

(a) 4

24. A a b c and B a b c then B A is equal to

(a) 2b

(b) 2b

25. A number and a number formed by reversing its digits are multiplied to get 252 then the number is

(a) 21

(b) 22

(c) 34

(d) 23

(c) 55

(d) 23

26. If a * b a b ab then 5*3 is equal to

(a) 17

(b) 30

27. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 2 and LCM is 84. If one number is 14 then the other is

(a) 14

(b) 28

(c) 12

(d) 24

(b) 104

(c) 108

(d) 120

(c) 7

(d) 8

28. 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, ?, 720

(a) 100

29. How many remainders are possible when divisor is 7

(a) 5

(b) 6

30. How many natural numbers are there between 10000 and 20000 which are divisible by 4?

(a) 1499

(b) 2499

(c) 3499

(d) 2599

31. What least number must be subtracted from 1672 to obtain a number which is completely divisible by 17?

(a) 5
32. Units digit in 264

(b) 7
102

264

(c) 6

(d) 8

(c) 6

(d) 0

103

(a) 2

is
(b) 4

33. A milk man has two cane of 40 and 60 litres full of milk, then the maximum capacity of that pot by which

milkman can measure milk of both cane when used an exact number of times is
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 15
34. The least number which must be multiplied by 525 to make it a perfect square is

(a) 21

(b) 9

(c) 105

(d) 49

(c) =

(d) None of these

13 45

35. 45 13 _______

(a) >

(b) <

Physics

Section III
Single Answer Questions

9. Which of the following is the unit of distance


(a) square meter
(b) leap year

(c) A light year

(d) wave length

10. 1 micron = __________ m


(a) 10 3

(b) 106

(c) 10 2

(d) 106

11. 10 cm = ______________
(a) 100 mm

(b) 10 mm

(c) 0.01 m

(d) 0.1 mm

12. 100 kg = ____________


(a) 1000 g

(b) 10, 000 g

(c) 1, 00, 000 g

(d) 10, 00, 000g

13. 1 millenium = ___________


(a) 100 years

(b) 100 decades

(c) 100 centuries

(d) 100 days

14. It is advisable to take an average of three readings while making scientific measurements
(a) to make measurement interesting
(b) since three is a good number
(c) to minimize error
(d) to maximize work

15. A pendulum makes 8 complete oscillations in 4 seconds. Then time period (T) of the pendulum is
(a) 0.5 sec
(b) 32 seconds
(c) 2 seconds
(d) 1.5 second
16. 30 SI units of time = ____________________
(a) 1 min
(b) 30 min

(c) 1/2 min

(d) 1/3 min

17. Prefix corresponding to 10, 00, 000 is


(a) milli
(b) mega

(c) kilo

(d) centi

18. A beaker contains 578 mL of water, what is its volume in liters


(a) 0.578 L
(b) 5.78 L
(c) 0.0578 L

(d) 0.00578 L

19. Equivalent time of 18 : 30 on a 12 hours clock is


(a) 8 : 30 pm
(b) 6 : 30 am

(d) 6 : 30 pm

(c) 5 : 30 am

20. Speed of a car is 72km h 1 . This speed can be expressed in ms 1 as


(a) 10 ms 1
(b) 36 ms 1
(c) 20 ms 1

(d) 25 ms 1

21. Fundamental unit among the following is


(a) kilogram
(b) pascal

(c) newton

(d) watt

22. Time duration between two successive noons is called


(a) noon solar day
(b) lunar day

(c) mean solar day

(d) none of these

23. A bottle contain 3 liters of juice. How many milliliters of juice does it contain
(a) 2 102 milliliters
(b) 3 102 milliliters
(c) 2 103 milliliters
Chemistry

(d) 3 103 milliliters

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

16. Identify the synthetic fibre among the following.


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) flax

17. Which of the following statements is true?


(a) Fabrics are made up of yarns
(c) Yarn is a technical term used for thread

(b) Yarns are made up of fibres


(d) all the above are true

18. Cigarette paper is made from ______ fibre


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) jute

19. Cotton plants are usually grown at __________


(a) black soil and cold climate
(c) red soil and warm climate

(b) black soil and warm climate


(d) red soil and cold climate

20. The process of seperation of cotton fibres from seeds is called as __________
(a) spinning
(b) ginning
(c) weaving
21. P : Natural fibres keep the body cool
Q: Natural fibres absorb sweat in hot and humid weather conditions
(a) P and Q are true & Q explains P
(b) P and Q are true & Q does not explains P
(c) P is true, Q is false
(d) P is false, Q is true

(d) none

(d) flax

(d) knitting

22. Which of the following devices is used for spinning cotton?


(a) Hand spindle
(b) Takli
(c) Charkha

(d) All

23. Fabrics are made from yarns by ___


(a) weaving
(b) spinning

(d) both (a) & (c)

(c) knitting

24. Arrangement of two sets of yarns to form a fabric is done by __________


(a) spinning
(b) weaving
(c) knitting

(d) both (b) & (c)

25. The cotton which is used in hospitals is


(a) ginned cotton
(b) sterilised cotton

(d) raw cotton

(c) gun cotton

26. The process of seperating the gummy matter that holds the jute fibres to the inner part of the stem by soaking jute
in water for 2 to 3 days is called _______
(a) weaving
(b) knitting
(c) spinning
(d) retting
27. Which of the following is present in jute?
(a) cellulose
(b) lignin

(c) Heamoglobin

(d) both (a) & (b)

28. Which of the following fibres is versatile than others?


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) jute

(d) wool

29. P: Cotton fields look like a field covered with snow


Q: Hand spindle & charkha can be used for spinning
(a) Both P and Q are true, Q explains P
(c) P is true, Q is false

(b) Both P and Q are true, Q doesnt explain P


(d) P is false, Q is true

30. Which among the following cannot be made of cotton?


(a) paper
(b) net

(c) gunny bag

Biology

(d) both (b) & (c)


Section V

Single Answer Questions


1. The sugar present in milk is:
(a) Mannose

(b) Sucrose

(c) Lactose

(d) fructose

2. The process of increasing the production of oil and oil seeds is ____________
(a) seed revolution
(b) yellow revolution (c) Brown revolution

(d) fat revolution

3. Milk yielding animals are known as:


(a) Draught animals
(b) White animals

(c) Milch animals

(d) all of the above

4. Identify the cereal yielding plants:


(a) Wheat

(c) oats

(d) all of the above

(b) rice

5. The full form of ATP is


(a) Alkaline tri phosphate
(c) Adenosine tri phenyl

(b) Adenosine tri phosphate


(d) none of the above

6. Percentage of water in our body is:


(a) 7%
(b) 70 %

(c) 0.70 %

7. The animals which feed on their own faecal matter are called:
(a) saprophytes
(b) lithophytes
(c) defaecophytes

(d) 30 %
(d) coprophagous

8. Identify the chemoautotrophs:


(a) virus

(b) some bacteria

(c) plants

(d) ferns

9. The term given to those organisms that eat the members of their own species is_________
(a) neutralism
(b) cannibalism
(c) speciation
(d) evolution
10. The edible part of mustard plants are
(a) seeds
(b) oil

(c) leaves
*******

(d) all of the above

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 1 - ANSWER KEYS

Mathematics
1.C

2.A

3.D

4.A

5.A

6.B

7.D

8.C

9.B

10.C

11.B

12.B

13.A

14.A

15.D

16.B

17.C

18.C

19.C

20.B

21.A

22.C

23.B

24.D

25.C

26.A

27.D

28.A

29.B

30.D

31.B

32.B

33.B

34.D

35.A

36.D

37.D

38.B

39.D

40.A

41.C

42.D

43.C

44.D

45.B

46.A

47.B

48.C

49.A

50.B

51.B

52.C

53.C

54.D

55.A

56.B

57.A

58.C

59.C

60.C

61.C

62.D

63.C

64.A

65.C

66.D

67.D

68.A

69.B

70.A

71.B

72.A

73.B

74.D

75.B

Mathematics

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

5. C

6. A

7. B

8. C

9. D

10. C

11. A

12. A

13. B

14. B

15. A

16. D

17. B

18. B

19. A

20. B

21. C

22. A

23. C

24. B

25. A

26. A

27. C

28. D

29. C

30. B

31. C

32. D

33. B

34. A

35. A

Physics
1.C

2.B

3.A

4.C

5.B

6.C

7.A

8.C

9.B

10.A

11.D

12.C

13.A

14.C

15.D

Chemistry
1. D

2.D

3.D

4.B

5.B

6.A

7.D

8.D

9.B

10.B

11.D

12.D

13.A

14.B

15.D

Biology
1. C

2.B

3.C

4.D

5.B

6. B

7.D

8.B

9.B

10.D

Physics

Section II
Single Answer Questions

24. Which of the following is the unit of distance


(a) square meter
(b) leap year

(c) A light year

(d) wave length

25. 1 micron = __________ m


(a) 10 3

(b) 106

(c) 10 2

(d) 106

26. 10 cm = ______________
(a) 100 mm

(b) 10 mm

(c) 0.01 m

(d) 0.1 mm

27. 100 kg = ____________


(a) 1000 g

(b) 10, 000 g

(c) 1, 00, 000 g

(d) 10, 00, 000g

28. 1 millenium = ___________


(a) 100 years

(b) 100 decades

(c) 100 centuries

(d) 100 days

29. It is advisable to take an average of three readings while making scientific measurements
(a) to make measurement interesting
(b) since three is a good number
(c) to minimize error
(d) to maximize work
30. A pendulum makes 8 complete oscillations in 4 seconds. Then time period (T) of the pendulum is
(a) 0.5 sec
(b) 32 seconds
(c) 2 seconds
(d) 1.5 second
31. 30 SI units of time = ____________________
(a) 1 min
(b) 30 min

(c) 1/2 min

(d) 1/3 min

32. Prefix corresponding to 10, 00, 000 is


(a) milli
(b) mega

(c) kilo

(d) centi

33. A beaker contains 578 mL of water, what is its volume in liters


(a) 0.578 L
(b) 5.78 L
(c) 0.0578 L

(d) 0.00578 L

34. Equivalent time of 18 : 30 on a 12 hours clock is


(a) 8 : 30 pm
(b) 6 : 30 am

(d) 6 : 30 pm

(c) 5 : 30 am

35. Speed of a car is 72km h 1 . This speed can be expressed in ms 1 as


(a) 10 ms 1
(b) 36 ms 1
(c) 20 ms 1

(d) 25 ms 1

36. Fundamental unit among the following is


(a) kilogram
(b) pascal

(c) newton

(d) watt

37. Time duration between two successive noons is called


(a) noon solar day
(b) lunar day

(c) mean solar day

(d) none of these

38. A bottle contain 3 liters of juice. How many milliliters of juice does it contain
(a) 2 102 milliliters
(b) 3 102 milliliters
(c) 2 103 milliliters
Chemistry

(d) 3 103 milliliters

Section III
Single Answer Questions

31. Identify the synthetic fibre among the following.


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) flax

32. Which of the following statements is true?


(a) Fabrics are made up of yarns
(c) Yarn is a technical term used for thread

(b) Yarns are made up of fibres


(d) all the above are true

33. Cigarette paper is made from ______ fibre

(d) none

(a) cotton

(b) silk

34. Cotton plants are usually grown at __________


(a) black soil and cold climate
(c) red soil and warm climate

(c) jute

(d) flax

(b) black soil and warm climate


(d) red soil and cold climate

35. The process of seperation of cotton fibres from seeds is called as __________
(a) spinning
(b) ginning
(c) weaving

(d) knitting

36. P : Natural fibres keep the body cool


Q: Natural fibres absorb sweat in hot and humid weather conditions
(a) P and Q are true & Q explains P
(b) P and Q are true & Q does not explains P
(c) P is true, Q is false
(d) P is false, Q is true
37. Which of the following devices is used for spinning cotton?
(a) Hand spindle
(b) Takli
(c) Charkha

(d) All

38. Fabrics are made from yarns by ___


(a) weaving
(b) spinning

(d) both (a) & (c)

(c) knitting

39. Arrangement of two sets of yarns to form a fabric is done by __________


(a) spinning
(b) weaving
(c) knitting

(d) both (b) & (c)

40. The cotton which is used in hospitals is


(a) ginned cotton
(b) sterilised cotton
(c) gun cotton
(d) raw cotton
41. The process of seperating the gummy matter that holds the jute fibres to the inner part of the stem by soaking jute
in water for 2 to 3 days is called _______
(a) weaving
(b) knitting
(c) spinning
(d) retting
42. Which of the following is present in jute?
(a) cellulose
(b) lignin

(c) Heamoglobin

(d) both (a) & (b)

43. Which of the following fibres is versatile than others?


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) jute

(d) wool

(c) gunny bag

(d) both (b) & (c)

44. P: Cotton fields look like a field covered with snow


Q: Hand spindle & charkha can be used for spinning
(a) Both P and Q are true, Q explains P
(b) Both P and Q are true, Q doesnt explain P
(c) P is true, Q is false
(d) P is false, Q is true
45. Which among the following cannot be made of cotton?
(a) paper
(b) net
Biology

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

39. The sugar present in milk is:


(a) Mannose

(b) Sucrose

(c) Lactose

(d) fructose

40. The process of increasing the production of oil and oil seeds is ____________
(a) seed revolution
(b) yellow revolution (c) Brown revolution

(d) fat revolution

41. Milk yielding animals are known as:


(a) Draught animals
(b) White animals

(c) Milch animals

(d) all of the above

42. Identify the cereal yielding plants:


(a) Wheat

(c) oats

(d) all of the above

(b) rice

43. The full form of ATP is


(a) Alkaline tri phosphate
(c) Adenosine tri phenyl

(b) Adenosine tri phosphate


(d) none of the above

44. Percentage of water in our body is:


(a) 7%
(b) 70 %

(c) 0.70 %

(d) 30 %

45. The animals which feed on their own faecal matter are called:
(a) saprophytes
(b) lithophytes
(c) defaecophytes

(d) coprophagous

46. Identify the chemoautotrophs:


(a) virus

(d) ferns

(b) some bacteria

(c) plants

47. The term given to those organisms that eat the members of their own species is_________
(a) neutralism
(b) cannibalism
(c) speciation
(d) evolution
48. The edible part of mustard plants are
(a) seeds
(b) oil

(c) leaves

Mathematics

(d) all of the above

Section V
Single Answer Questions

Pick out the odd one of the following:


1.

(a) cotton

(b) silk

(c) terylene

(d) wool

2.

(a) Cochin

(b) Chennai

(c) Bangalore

(d) Hyderabad

3.

(a) Mango

(b) Banana

(c) Orange

(d) Paddy

4.

(a) Sharukh Khan

(b) Sachin Tendulkar

(c) Abinav Bindra

(d) Vijender Singh

Directions (Questions 5 9): In each of the following questions a series is given. Which one of the alternatives
will replace the question mark (?) ?
5.

6.

JD, KF, ?, PM, TR


(a) MI

(b) NJ

(c) NI

(d) OJ

BTO, DSQ, FRS, HQU, ?


(a) IPX

(b) JPW

(c) GPW

(d) JRW

7.

8.

9.

B, D, G, K, P, ?
(a) U

(b) W

(c) T

(d) none of these

Z, T, O, K, H, ?
(a) E

(b) J

(c) F

(d) D

HZF, IWH, KSJ, NNL, ?


(a) SHM

(b) RHN

(c) THN

(d) RGM

Questions 10 - 14: Complete the series choosing the correct alternative given
10. 9, 12, 15, 19, 23, 26, 29, 33,_________

(a) 34

(b) 36

(c) 37

(d) 38

(b) 16

(c) 14

(d) 18

(b) 46

(c) 48

(d) 50

(b) 37

(c) 36

(d) 32

(b) 26

(c) 28

(d) 30

11. 10, 16, 12, 18, 14, 20, ___________

(a) 24
12. 4, 7, 11, 16, 22, 29, 37, ________

(a) 44

13. 10, 10, 11, 13, 16, 20, 25, 31,____________

(a) 38
14. 20, 18, 22, 20, 24, 22, 26, ________

(a) 24

Find the missing number by observing the first two figures:


15.

(a) 10

(b) 104

(c) 105

(d) 106

(a) 10

(b) 8

(c) 7

(d) 6

16.

17.

(a) 7

(b) 1

(c) 30

(d) 40

18. As hungry is related to food in the same way thirsty is related to what

(a) Tea

(b) Coffee

(c) Drink

(d) Juice

19. As Mosque is related to Islam in the same way Church is related to what

(a) Hinduism

(b) Sikhism

(c) Christianity

(d) Buddhism

20. How many 7s are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an even number but not followed

by any odd number 4 3 7 5 2 3 7 2 1 3 6 7 5 4 2 7 4 2 7 1 2 2 7 6 5 7 2


(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3

(d) 4

21. How many 5s are there in the following number series which are preceded by 3 but not followed by 2.

5 2 4 3 5 4 6 7 8 5 3 2 5 7 3 5 6 4 2 3 5 4 7 5 2 3 5 8 3 5 6.
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3

(d) 2

22. If the position of Rajan is 15th from one end and 13th from the other end in his class, what is the total number of

students in his class? .


(a) 28

(b) 24

(c) 27

(d) 29

23. The position of Shyamal is 13th from the last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is his position from

the beginning?
(a) 8th

(b) 9th

(c) 7th

(d) 10th

Five members of a family, Rakesh, Mukesh, Roopesh, Vipul and Umesh take food in a definite order
(1) Umesh was next to first man.
(2) Roopesh took food after the man who was before Vipul.
(3) Rakesh was the last man to take food.
24. Who were the first and last men to take food?

(a) Mukesh and Roopesh

(b) Roopesh and Rakesh(c) Umesh and Mukesh (d) Mukesh and Rakesh

25. Who were those two men who took food in order between Mukesh and Vipul ?

(a) Umesh and Rakesh

(b) Rakesh and Roopesh(c) Umesh and Roopesh (d) Can not be determined

26. In a certain language, pre nat bis means smoking is harmful, vog dor nat means avoid harmful habit and

dor bis yel means please avoid smoking. Which of the following means habit in that language ?
(a) vog
(b) nat
(c) dor
(d) bis
27. In a certain coding system, rbm std bro pus means the cat is beautiful, tnh pus dim std means the dog is

brown, pus dim bro pus cus means the dog has the cat. What is the code for has ?
(a) std
(b) dim
(c) bro
(d) cus
28. In a certain code language, put tir fin means delicious juicy fruit, tie dip sig means beautiful white lily and

sig lon fin means lily and fruit. Which of the following stands for and in that language?
(a) lon
(b) sig
(c) fin
(d) none of these
Directions (question 29 to 31): Read the following information and answer the questions given below it:
' A B ' means ' A is the daughter of B'
' A B ' means ' A is the son of B'
' A B ' means ' A is the wife of B' .
29. If

P Q S , which of the following is true ?

(a) S is wife of Q,
(c) P is daughter of Q
30. If

(b) S is father of P
(d) Q is father of P

T S B M , which of the following is not true?


(a) B is mother of S
(c) T is wife of S

31. If

(b) M is husband of B
(d) S is daughter of B

Z T S U P, what is U to Z ?
(a) Mother

(b) Grandmother

(c) Father

(d) Cannot be determined

32. A postman was teturning to the post office which was in front of him to the north. When the post office was 100

metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50 metres to delever the last letter at Shantivilla. He then
moved in the same direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100 metres. How many metres was he
away from the post office ?
(a) 0
(b) 90
(c) 150
(d) 100
33. A boy rode his bicycle northwards, then turned left and rode one km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found

himself exactly one km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northwards initially?
(a) 1 km
(b) 2 km
(c) 3 km
(d) 5 km
Directions: (Questions 34 39) Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked P, Q, R, S & T called
the problem figures followed by four other figures marked a, b, c & d called the answer figures. Select a figure
from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as established by the five problem figures.
34.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

35.

36.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

37.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

38.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(c)

(d)

39.

(a)

(b)

40. From the following letters, which is the 10th letter from the right of the 18th letter from the left corner of the letters?

ABCDEFGHIJ KLM NOPQRSTUVWXYZ


(a) H
(b) Y

(c) A

(d) U

41. If the following letters are written in reverse order, which will be 6 th letter from the left to 10th letter from the right?

ABCDEFGHIJ KLM NOPQRSTUVWXYZ


(a) W
(b) P

(c) D

(d) K

42. How many pairs of letters are such in the word HORIZON having the same number of letters in between them in

the word as they have in alphabetical series?


(a) 1
(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Directions (Q. 43 44) Read the following informations:


Mukesh is taller than Rajiv but shorter than Amar. Suman is taller than Mukesh but shorter than Vinay.
43. If these are arranged in descending order of length, who will be in fourth place?

(a) Amar

(b) Rajiv

(c) Mukesh

(d) Suman

44. Who is the longest?

(a) Vinay

(b) Suman

(c) Rajiv

(d) Cannot be decided

Directions (Question 45 48) : Circle A in the figure below stands for men in a club, circle B for those members
who hold a car driving license and circle c for those who hold a scooter driving license. Which portion represents
45. Men who hold a scooter license only?

(a) e and c
(c) f

(b) e
(d) g

46. Scooter and car licence holders who are not men?

(a) g

(b) e

(c) e and g

(d) not represented

(c) b and e

(d) f

47. Car drivers licence holders only who are not men?

(a) g

(b) b

48. The portion e and f represents

(a) men who are scooter driving licence holders


(b) scooter and car driving licence holders
(c) Scooter and car driving licence holders who are men
(d) none of the above.
Directions (Questions 49 53): The circles below represent politicians, lawyers and rich people.
Which portion in the circles in the figure below.

49. The rich politicians who are not lawyers are represented by the region

(a) e

(b) f

(c) e and f

(d) e, f and g

50. Which portion represents people who are rich, lawyers as well as politicians?

(a) e

(b) f

(c) g

(d) d

51. People who are rich as well as lawyers are represented by the portion

(a) d

(b) g and f

(c) f

(d) e

(c) d and f

(d) f

52. Represents people who are politicians as well as lawyers?

(a) e

(b) g

53. The portion b represents people who are

(a) Politicians and rich


(c) lawyers but neither rich nor politicians

(b) politicians and lawyers


(d) rich as well as politicians and lawyers

Direction (Questions 54 58): Find out the missing number.


54.

(a) 1

(b) 26

(c) 45

(d) 39

(a) 30

(b) 32

(c) 40

(d) 25

(a) 12

(b) 10

(c) 9

(d) 20

(a) 62

(b) 60

(c) 56

(d) 45

(a) 15

(b) 20

(c) 16

(d) 25

55.

56.

57.

58.

Directions: Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked P, Q, R & S called the problem figures
followed by four other figures marked a, b, c & d called the answer figures. Select a figure from amongst the
answer figures which will continue the same series as established by the four problem figures.
59.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(c)

(d)

60.

(a)

(b)

61.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(a)

(b)

62.

(c)

(d)

63.

(c)

(d)

Directions (Questions 64 67): In each of the following questions, there are four figures. Three of them are similar
in some respects, while one is different. Select the figure which is different.
64.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

65.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

66.

67.

(a)
Find the missing letters:

(b)

(c)

(d)

68. a _ c d _ _ b a a _ c d

(a) b d c b

(b) b c a b

(c) a a b d

(d) a c d b

(b) c b a a

(d) a a b c

(d) a c b a

(b) b b b a a

(c) a a a b b

(d) a a b b b

(b) a a a

(c) b b b

(d) a b b

(b) d a b b b

(c) a a b d c

(d) a b a b d

69. a b _ a _ c _ b c _ b c

(a) c b a b
70. a _ _ a b _ _ a a _ b b

(a) b a b a b
71. b a __b b a __ b b __ a b

(a) a a b
72. c _ a _ c d _ b c _ _ b

(a) d b a d a

73. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, which word would be coded as GBNPVT?

(a) FARMER

(b) FAMOUS

(c) FRAMES

(d) FARMES

74. If in a certain language, UTENSIL is coded as WVGPUKN, which word would be coded as DMSFXG?

(a) BKQEVE

(b) BKQDWE

(c) BKQDWF

(d) BKQDVE

75. If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded as ZXCMP?

(a) BZEOR

(b) AYDNQ

(c) AWDLQ

*******

(d) YYBNO

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 1 - ANSWER KEYS


Social Science
Physics
1.C

2.B

3.A

4.C

5.B

6.C

7.A

8.C

9.B

10.A

11.D

12.C

13.A

14.C

15.D

Chemistry
1. D

2.D

3.D

4.B

5.B

6.A

7.D

8.D

9.B

10.B

11.D

12.D

13.A

14.B

15.D

Biology
1. C

2.B

3.C

4.D

5.B

6. B

7.D

8.B

9.B

10.D

Mathematics
1.C

2.A

3.D

4.A

5.A

6.B

7.D

8.C

9.B

10.C

11.B

12.B

13.A

14.A

15.D

16.B

17.C

18.C

19.C

20.B

21.A

22.C

23.B

24.D

25.C

26.A

27.D

28.A

29.B

30.D

31.B

32.B

33.B

34.D

35.A

36.D

37.D

38.B

39.D

40.A

41.C

42.D

43.C

44.D

45.B

46.A

47.B

48.C

49.A

50.B

51.B

52.C

53.C

54.D

55.A

56.B

57.A

58.C

59.C

60.C

61.C

62.D

63.C

64.A

65.C

66.D

67.D

68.A

69.B

70.A

71.B

72.A

73.B

74.D

75.B

Chemistry
Single Answer Questions
1. Food containing proteins when treated with copper sulphate and caustic soda gives _____ colour.
(a) blue
(b) violet
(c) red
(d) yellow
2. Fibre that is natural and obtained from plants is
(a) silk
(b) wool

(c) cotton

(d) nylon

3. Synthetic fibre among the following is


(a) polyester
(b) nylon

(c) acrylic

(d) all of these

4. Which of the following gases in the upper layers of atmosphere protects us from UV rays of sun?
(a) CO2
(b) N2
(c) O2
(d) O3
5. Synthetic fibres are
(a) more durable, cheap
(c) more durable, costly

(b) less durable, cheap


(d) less durable, costly

6. Spinning is
(a) arranging yarns together (b) making yarn from fibres
(c) making fabric from yarn (d) none of these
7. Husk is separated from the grains by
(a) hand picking
(b) filtration

(c) winnowing

(d) sedimentation

8. A saturated solution is one


(a) which can dissolve more of the given substance
(b) which cannot dissolve any more substance
(c) which has more substance dissolved than its solubility
(d) none of these
9. Sedimentation is used to separate
(a) cream from milk
(c) sugar from sugar solution

(b) mud water


(d) stones from grains

10. When coconut oil and water are mixed


(a) they dissolve in each other
(c) water floats on oil due to low density

(b) oil floats on water due to high density


(d) oil floats on water due to low density

11. The gas that dissolved in water which is important for animals and plants that live in water is
(a) nitrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) hydrogen
(d) carbon monoxide
12. Translucent substance among the following is
(a) cardboard
(b) stones

(c) oil coated paper

(d) water

13. The substances that are generally good conductors of heat and electricity and lustrous are
(a) non-metals
(b) metals
(c) metalloids
(d) liquids
14. The changes that are generally easily reversible are
(a) physical changes
(c) both physical and chemical changes
15. Identify the reversible change
(a) making of curd from milk
(c) dissolving sugar in water(d) ripening of fruits

(b) chemical changes


(d) neither physical nor chemical changes
(b) burning of crackers

16. The process through which plants lose water to atmosphere is called
(a) respiration
(b) evaporation
(c) perspiration

(d) transpiration

17. When some ice or cold water is placed in a glass we observe water drops formed on the outer surface. This is
because
(a) water comes out of the pores of the glass
(b) water vapour in air gets condensed
(c) glass itself contains some water, it comes out to the surface
(d) none of these
18. No rain fall for a year or more leads to
(a) floods
(b) cyclone

(c) drought

(d) all of these

19. Percentage of oxygen in atmosphere is nearly


(a) 78
(b) 21

(c) 50

(d) 42

20. Photosynthesis in plants absorbs ________ from atmosphere and releases _________.
(a) oxygen, carbon dioxide (b) carbon dioxide, oxygen
(c) oxygen, nitrogen
(d) nitrogen, oxygen
CHEMISTRY
Single Answer Questions
1. The object that floats on water is
(a) soap

(b) pin

(c) soap box

(d) stone

2. An object floats on water if its density is


(a) less than that of water
(c) equal to that of water

(b) more than that of water


(d) double that of water

3. The substance that completely dissolves in water is


(a) sand
(b) salt

(c) chalk

(d) oil

4. Salt is separated from sea water by


(a) filtration
(b) evaporation

(c) sedimentation

(d) all of these

5. More sugar can be dissolved in water by


(a) heating the solution
(c) stirring vigorously

(b) cooling the solution


(d) all of these

6. Wet clothes dry slowly in


(a) humid conditions

(c) under fan

(b) hot sun

(d) wind

7. Which of the following changes is possible with the addition of heat?


(a) ice changes to liquid water
(b) water vapour changes to liquid water
(c) water vapour changes to ice
(d) liquid water changes to ice
8. Which of these can be mined from earth and used as a energy source?
(a) gravel
(b) limestone
(c) coal

(d) granite

9. Matter is made up of _____ particles


(a) tiny
(b) large

(c)gas

(d) liquid

10. Solids have fixed


(a) shape

(c) mass

(d) all of these

11. Which one is not solid form of matter?


(a) chair
(b) table

(c) water

(d) car

12. Which of the following is matter?


(a) smell

(c) balloon

(d) anger

13. Which of the following is a rigid form of matter?


(a) water
(b) oil

(c) stone

(d) honey

14. Which is impure form of water


(a) rain water

(c) river water

(d) all of these

(c) remains same

(d) none of these

(b) volume

(b) headache

(b) distilled water

15. When we add salt to the ice its freezing point


(a) increases
(b) decreases

16. A cork floats on water where as a stone of same mass will drown because
(a) cork has high volume
(b) cork has low volume
(c) stone has high volume
(d) none of these
17. Which of the following changes is reversible?
(a) melting of ice
(b) ripening of fruits

(c) boiling of egg

(d) growing of a plant

18. Husk is separated from grains by ________ method


(a) sieving
(b) hand picking

(c) winnowing

(d) filtration

19. The substances which can flow are called


(a) liquids
(b) solids

(c) gases

(d) fluids

20. Find the odd one among the following


(a) pen
(b) book

(c) ink

(d) pencil

Science

Section II

Part A
Single Answer Questions
1.

2.

3.

Which of the following birds has exceptional eyes?


(a) eagle
(b) crow

(c) owl

(d) sparrow

Which of the following substances is added to the pickle to preserve it?


(a) boiled water
(b) vinegar
(c) alcohol

(d) rose water

Which of the following diseases is not caused by mosquito?


(a) malaria
(b) dengue
(c) typhoid

(d) chikun gunya

4.

According to Gregar Mendel, which of the following colours is/are acquired by the seeds of peas?
(a) green (or) red
(b) yellow or red
(c) green or yellow
(d) only green

5.

The main source of water for agriculture is


(a) sea water
(b) oceans

(c) Lakes, ponds

Space for Rough work

(d) Rain water

6.

7.

8.

9.

Which of the following can be used as a preservative in food items?


(a) sugar
(b) salt
(c) water

(d) both a & b

The scientific study of plants is called?


(a) Zoology
(b) Botany

(c) Chemistry

(d) Physics

Who invented telephone?


(a) James watt
(c) Thomas Alva Edison

(b) Wilbur Wright


(d) Alexander Graham Bell

Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?


(a) petrol
(b) L.P.G

(c) water

(d) petroleum

(c) kabaddi

(d) hockey

(c) evaporation

(d) condensation

(c) Saturn

(d) Uranus

10. What is the national game of our country?

(a) cricket

(b) football

11. The process in which ice converts into water is called

(a) Melting

(b) freezing

12. The biggest planet in our solar system is

(a) Earth

(b) Jupiter

13. The living things which feed both on plants and animal flesh are called

(a) Herbivore
14. Jim Corbett National Park is in
(a) Tamilnadu

(b) Carnivore

(c) Omnivore

(d) decomposer

(b) Uttarkhand

(c) Pondicherry

(d) Kerala

15. Gandhijis protest against the salt tax was called


(a) the Freedom Struggle
(c) Independence Movement

(b) the Dandi March

Space for Rough work

(d) Republic Day

16. Number of senses that human beings have


(a) five
(b) three

(c) four

(d) eight

17. Sodium Chloride is the chemical name of


(a) sugar
(b) common salt

(c) pepper

(d) bread

18. The three states of matter are


(a) solid, fluid, gas
(c) pressure, force, gas

(b) solid, liquid, gas


(d) height, pressure, volume

19. Which symbol would you usually find on an official document of the Government of India?
(a) The Konark Wheel
(b) The Royal Bengal Tiger
(c) The portrait of Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Asokas Sarnath-Lion Capital
20. The substance that makes plants green is known as
(a) water
(b) chlorophyll

(c) carbon dioxide

(d) calcium

21. Which of the following statements about snake is wrong?

(a) snakes are killed for their skin


(c) all the snakes are poisonous
snake is called as fangs

(b) snakes dont have external ears


(d) the poisonous teeth of

22. Which of the following food items taste/s sour?

(i) bitter gourd (ii) lemon juice (iii) bottle gourd (iv) tamarind
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iv)

(d) only (ii)

23. Al-Biruni, a traveller, who praised about the skills of our countrymen at making ponds, belong to __________

country.
(a) Afghanistan

(b) Uzbekistan

(c) Pakistan

24. Why lemon floats on water, after adding adequate amount of salt into it?

(a) lemon becomes much denser after adding salt in water


(b) lemon becomes less denser after adding salt in water
(c) There is no change in density of water after adding salt.
(d) none of the above
Space for Rough work

(d) Bangladesh

25. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(a) The temperature maintained outside the body & inside it are different.
(b) We blow on coffee, because the temperature of our breathe is less than that of coffee
(c) We blow on our hands during winter to keep us warm
(d) none of the above
26. Which of the following constructions may lead to shifting of many families from one place to another?

(i) Factories
(a) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(ii) Dams
(b) (i) & (ii)

(iii) Small roads


(c) (i) & (iii)

(d) only (ii)

27. Which of the following activities spoils the texture of soil?

(a) Growing same type of crops in the field


(b) Growing different types of crops
(c) Leaving parts of the plants (like leaves etc) on the field
(d) Growing earthworms in the soil
28. What is common to all these animals?
Rabbit, Tiger, Elephant, Monkey
(a) They are all herbivores
(c) They all give birth to young ones

(b) They are all carnivores


(d) They are all small in size

29. The first Prime Minister and President of Independent India were
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru and Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mahatma Gandhi and Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Rajendra Prasad
(d) Rajendra Prasad and Subash Chandra Bose
30. Which of the following have been correctly matched?
(A) National Bird Peacock
(C) National Animal Lion
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)

(B) National Flower Rose


(D) National Flag Tricolor
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (A) and (D)

Space for Rough work

31. After we eat the food, the following processes are happening in our body
(i) food particles combine with oxygen & turned into glucose
(ii) food particles are broken down into small pieces
(iii) Energy is released
Which of the following orders is correct?
(a) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) & (i)
(c) (i), (iii) & (ii)
32. Which of the following facts about mosquito is wrong?
(a) Mosquito is responsible for spreading malaria
(c) The bady mosquito is called as larvae

(d) (ii), (i) & (iii)

(b) All mosquitoes spread malaria


(d) Mosquito breeds on water bodies

33. To which direction, the dog (in the 2nd position) is facing?
(a) north
(b) east
(c) west
(d) south

34. Which of the following activities were restricted to girls because of their gender?
(i) studies
(ii) games
(iii) household works
(a) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (i) & (iii)
35. Three tin of land means,
(a) the land on which we grow three tin of seeds
(c) the land that gives three tin of pulses or cereals

(d) only (i)

(b) the land that contains three tin of sands


(d) all the above

36. Ali stays in a remote village. In which of the following places can he deposit his savings?
(a) at the local telephone exchange
(b) with the local money lender
(c) with the village panchayat
(d) at the local post office
37. The elixir of life refers to
(a) air

(b) fire

(c) land
Space for Rough work

(d) water

38. Even if you dont know how to swim, you would not drown in the
(a) Dead Sea
(b) Red Sea
(c) Arabian Sea

(d) Mediterranean Sea

39. The Land of the Rising Sun refers to


(a) China
(b) India

(c) Japan

(d) Mexico

40. An oil spill is


(a) a major environmental disaster
(c) wasting of oil

(b) conservation of oil


(d) none of these
Space for Rough work

Space for Rough work

Section II
1.D

2.B

3.C

4.C

5.D

6.D

7.B

8.D

9.C

10.D

11.A

12.B

13.C

14.B

15.B

16.A

17.B

18.B

19.D

20.B

21.C

22.C

23.B

24.B

25.D

26.B

27.A

28.C

29.C

30.D

31.D

32.B

33.C

34.B

35.A

36.D

37.D

38.A

39.C

40.A

PHYSICS
1.

Choose the alternative containing only the correct statements.


(P) Light is visible because laser guns shoot visible laser beams (as seen in movies)
(Q) Light is invisible
(R) Light makes objects on which it falls visible
(S) Sunlight can be seen streaming through a hole in the door. So light is visible.
(a) P, Q, R, S
(b) Q, R
(c) P, S
(d) R, S

2.

We depend on ____________ energy for our requirements of food, energy and fuel.
(a) Wind
(b) Nuclear
(c) Light
(d) Sound

3.

Which of the following are examples of natural sources of light?


(P) Sun
(Q) Moon
(R) Fire flies
(a) P, Q
(b) Q, R
(C) P, Q, R

(S) Candles
(d) S

Which of the following are examples of non-luminous objects?


(P) Stars
(Q) Planets
(R) Moon
(a) P, Q
(b) R, S
(c) P, S

(S) Candles
(d) Q, R

An object through which light can pass easily is known as


(a) Translucent
(b) Opaque
(c) Transparent

(d) Semi-permeable

4.

5.

6.

An object through which light can pass partially, but we cannot see through it clearly is
(a) ) Translucent
(b) Opaque
(c) Transparent
(d) Semi-permeable

7.

Objects which do not allow light to pass through them are called
(a) ) Translucent
(b) Opaque
(c) Transparent

8.

Match the items in Column I with those in Column II


COLUMN I
P

Water

COLUMN II
X

Translucent

(d) Semi-permeable

Air

Opaque

Wax paper

Transparent

Cardboard

Which of the following shows the correct matching?


(a) P Z; Q X; R Z; S Y
(b) P Z; Q Z; R X; S Y
(c) P Z; Q Z; R Y; S Y
(d) P X; Q X R Z; S Y
PHYSICS ANSWERKEY
1.B

2.C

3.C

6.A

7.B

8.B

4.D

5.C

9. Taking in air through our nose is called


(a) Inhalation

(b) Expiration

(c) Exhalation

(d) Combustion

(c) Argon

(d) Nitrogen

10. Which noble gas is present in air, in a considerable amount?


(a) Neon

(b) Oxygen

11. Which process plays an important role in bringing water back to the surface of earth?
(a) distillation
(c) condensation

(b) fractional distillation


(d) all the above

12. Lime water turns milky by passing atmospheric air into it. This experiment proves the presence of ________ in the
air.
(a) oxygen

(b) nitrogen

(c) carbon-dioxide

(d) neon

(b) atmosphere

(c) dissolved air

(d) water

13. Fish take up oxygen from the


(a) soil below water

14. The deposition of water from the atmosphere onto the earth in the form of __________ is called as precipitation
(a) gas or solid or liquid

(b) solid or liquid

(c) solid

(d) liquid

(b) water

(c) space

(d) wind

15. Air in motion is called


(a) soil

16. The major part of the air which does not support burning candle is
(a) oxygen

(b) nitrogen

(c) carbondioxide

(d) hydrogen

ANSWER KEY:
1. A

2.C

3. C

6. B

7.D

8.B

4.C

5.C

Single Answer Questions


49. Ecology which attempts to include all aspects of interaction of all organisms in a given area with both biotic and
abiotic elements of their environment is known as

(a) population ecology

(b) Ecosystem ecology (c) community ecology (d) none of these

50. Stability of ecosystem depends upon


(a) primary productivity
(b) Interchange between producers and consumers
(c) Number of producers
(d) Number of consumers
51. A man made ecosystem is
(a) Less in diversity
(c) Man does not make ecosystem

(b) More in diversity


(d) More stable than natural ecosystem

52. The minimum number of components required for an ecosystem to survive


(a) producer and primary consumer
(b) producers and decomposers
(c) primary consumer and decomposers
(d) primary and secondary consumers.
53. The driving force of ecosystem is
(a) solar energy

(b) Biomass

(c) Producer

(d) Carbohydrate in plants

54. Light loving plants are


(a) Heliophytes

(b) Xerophytes

(c) Lithophytes

(d) None of the above

55. Which of the following is a xerocole?


(a) polar bear
(b) yalk

(c) whale

(d) kangaroo rat

56. A natural ecosystem


(a) depends on man

(c) depends on animals (d) is auto - operated

(b) depends on plants

ANSWER KEYS
1.B
6.A

7.D

2.B

3.A

4.B

5.A

8.D
Single Answer Questions

9. The part of the plants that absorb water and minerals from the soil is
(a) Stems
(b) roots
(c) leaves
10. Venation means
(a) Pattern of veins in a leaf
(c) Arrangement of leaves

(d) flowers

(b) pattern of mid rib in a leaf


(d) arrangement of flowers

11. Kitchen of the plant reminds you of which part of the plant?
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) chloroplast
(c) leaf

(d) flower

12. A plant has leaves with parallel venation. What kind of root is it likely to have?
(a) Dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) no roots
(d) both dicot and monocot roots
13. On the basis of height, plants are classified as
(a) Herbs,shrubs and trees
(c) creepers,twiners and trees

(b) shrubs and trees


(d) runners,shrubs and trees

14. Identify climbers


(a) Pea plant and grape vine
(c) Pumpkin and water melon

(b) Rose plant and lemon plant


(d) lotus and lily

15. The broad green surface of the leaf is called as


(a)Leaf lamina
(b) leaf tip

(c) leaf border

16. Identify the parts of a pistil


(a) Stigma,style,ovary
(c)node,petiole,lamina

(b) filament,anther
(d) calyx,corolla,androecium

(d)leaf base

ANSWER KEYS :
1. B

2.A

3.C

6. A

7.A

8. A

4.B

5.A

9. Pick out the false statement with reference to physical changes.


(a) Physical changes are reversible.
(b) Physical changes are temporary in nature.
(c) Physical changes will not result in new substances.
(d) In physical changes the substances combine in fixed ratio.
10. A chemical reaction in which heat is given out is called ______________ reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) photochemical

(d) reversible

11. Which of the following involves chemical change?


(a) slicing bread
(b)drying wet wood

(c) burning wood

(d)turning bread to toast

12. Which of the following is not a chemical change?


(a) digestion of food
(c) rusting of iron

(b) evaporation of water


(d) ripening of fruits

13. Water

hydrogen + oxygen
In this reaction, a substance is converted into simpler substances. This kind of reaction is called
(a) combination
(b) decomposition
(c) displacement
(d) double decomposition

14. Magnesium ribbon burns in air to form magnesium oxide. This change is permanent. This change is called
_____________ change.
(a) reversible
(b) irreversible
(c) slow
(d) physical
15. Pick the odd one out of the following
(a) camphor
(b) naphthalene

(c) common salt

16. In filtration, the liquid that passes through the filter paper is known as
(a)supernatant liquid
(b) mother liquor
(c) residue

(d) filtrate

ANSWER KEY
1. D

2. A

3. C

4. B

(d) iodine

5. B

6. B

7. C

8. D

17. Larger sized impurities can be separated by the method of __________________


(a) Threshing
(b) hand picking
(c) winnowing

(d) sieving

18. The process of conversion of water vapour into its liquid is called
(a)sedimentation
(b)decantation
(c)evaporation

(d)condensation

19. When no more salt can be dissolved in a particular amount of water, the solution is said to be
(a)simple solution
(b)unsaturated solution (c) saturated solution (d)dilute solution
20. Husk is separated from heavier seeds of grain by
(a)sieving
(b)threshing

(c)winnowing

(d)hand picking

21. Which of the following can be used to separate a solid dissolved in a liquid?
(a)filtration
(b)evaporation
(c)sieving

(d)sedimentation

22. The process that is used to separate grain from stalks is


(a)hand picking
(b)threshing

(d)sieving

(c)winnowing

23. Which separating technique is used in the process of preparing paneer in our homes?
(a)filtration
(b)evaporation
(c)sieving
(d)threshing
24. How will you separate a mixture of sand and salt?
(a)Dissolve in water, then evaporate and filter
(b)Dissolve in water, then filter and evaporate
(c)First filter, then dissolve in water and evaporate
(d)First evaporate, then filter and dissolve in water

ANSWER KEY
1. B

2. D

3. C

4. C

5. B

6. B
7. A
8. B
25. Pick out the false statement with reference to physical changes.
(a) Physical changes are reversible.
(b) Physical changes are temporary in nature.
(c) Physical changes will not result in new substances.
(d) In physical changes the substances combine in fixed ratio.
26. A chemical reaction in which heat is given out is called ______________ reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) photochemical

(d) reversible

27. Which of the following involves chemical change?


(a) slicing bread
(b)drying wet wood

(c) burning wood

(d)turning bread to toast

28. Which of the following is not a chemical change?


(a) digestion of food
(c) rusting of iron

(b) evaporation of water


(d) ripening of fruits

29. Water

hydrogen + oxygen
In this reaction, a substance is converted into simpler substances. This kind of reaction is called
(a) combination
(b) decomposition
(c) displacement
(d) double decomposition

30. Magnesium ribbon burns in air to form magnesium oxide. This change is permanent. This change is called
_____________ change.
(a) reversible
(b) irreversible
(c) slow
(d) physical
31. Pick the odd one out of the following
(a) camphor
(b) naphthalene

(c) common salt

32. In filtration, the liquid that passes through the filter paper is known as
(a)supernatant liquid
(b) mother liquor
(c) residue

(d) iodine
(d) filtrate

ANSWER KEY
1. D

2. A

3. C

6. B

7. C

8. D

16. 18 kmph =

5. B

? ( ms-1)

(a) 5
17. 50 cm = ?

4. B

(b) 18

(c) 3.6

(d) none

(b) 500

(c) 50

(d) 0.5

(mm)

(a) 5

18. A boy measured the mass of 10 apples as 2 kg. then the mass of each apple is

(a) 200 mg

(b) 200000 mg

(c)

1
g
5

(d) 2000 g

19. The suitable unit for the measurement of distance between planets is

(a) light year

(b) km

(c) m

(d) cm

20. Ram has to walk 2 km to reach his school. What is the total distance traveled by him to go and come back to

his home.
(a) 2 km

(b) 3 km

(c) 4 km

(d) 6 km

(b) circular motion

(c) random motion

(d) none

21. Motion of a fly is an example of

(a) rectilinear motion

22. If Ram takes 1 hr to go to school, his average speed is ( refer problem no.5 )

(a) 2 kmph

(b) 4 kmph

(c) 0 kmph

(d) none

23. A boy walks 2m east and then 2m west, then the distance traveled by him is

(a) 2m

(b) 4m

(c) 0 m

24. Anjali moved from A to B and then B to C,

then her distance is


(a) 7m
(d) 5m

(b) 3m

(c) 4m

(d) 4 km

25. Which of the following is not a physical quantity

(a) length

(b) mass

(c) time

(d) affection

26. A body is moving with a speed of 20 ms -1, then its speed in kmph is

(a) 20

(b) 100/18

(c) 72

(d) 54

27. Raghav measured the length of a room is 50 m. Its length in km is

(a) 0.5

(b) 0.005

(c) 5

(d) 0.05

28. If the same room is measured by Aparna, then she found that the room width is 25 m, its width in cm is

(a)

1
4

29. One day =

(b) 2500

(c) 250

(d) 25000

(b) 86400

(c) 2400

(d) 2436

? ( seconds)

(a) 3600

30. If moon takes 27 days to complete one revolution around earth, then It takes (minutes)

(a) 27 24

(b) 27 24 3600

(c) 27 24 60

(d) 27 12 60

Answer keys
1.A

2.B

3.B

4.A

5.C

6.C

7.A

8.B

9.A

10.D

11.C

12.D

13.B

14.B

15.C

1. Ionisation energy _______ from left to right along a period


(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) initially increases & then decreases
2. Atomic radius of inert gases doesnt follow the trend, because it is a
(a) covalent radius
(b) Vanderwaals radius
(c) ionic radius
(d) none of the above
3. Which element gives maximum energy, when an electron is added to the atom?
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Na

(d) O

4. Which of the following elements show exception in the regular trend of ionization energy along the period?
(a) Be
(b) C
(c) N
(d) F
5. Which of the following elements has highest ionization energy among the following?
(a) P
(b) Si
(c) Mg
(d) Cl
One or more than one correct option questions
6. Which of the following atomic numbers, which are surrounding calcium in the modern periodic table, has/have
physical & chemical properties resembling calcium?
(a) 12
(b) 19
(c) 21
(d) 38
7. Which of the following statements about modern periodic table is/are correct?
(a) It is based on atomic number
(b) Electron affinity increases along the period
(c) Ionization energy increases down the group
(d) Atomic size decreases along the period
8. The element which is more electronegative
(a) can lose electron easily (b) can gain electron easily

(c) will have more ionization energy


9. The element which has highest electron affinity value is
(a) a metal
(c) biggest in size in its group

(d) will have less ionization energy


(b) a non-metal
(d) smallest in size in its group

Comprehension -1
The first and second ionization enthalpies (kJ/mol) of three elements I, II and III are given below
H1
H 2

I
403
2640

II
549
1060

III
1142
2080

10. Which of the following elements is likely to be a non-metal?


(a) I & II
(b) II & III
(c) II

(d) III

11. Which of the following elements can be an alkali metal?


(a) I
(b) II

(c) III

(d) None

12. Which of the following elements can be an alkaline earth metal?


(a) I
(b) II
(c) III

(d) None

Comprehension -1I
Periodic classification divides elements into four types s, p, d & f block elements depending on the nature of the
atomic shell into which the last electron enters. The last electron is called as differentiating electron. This classification
is most rational and is now commonly in use.
13. Which of the following groups, does element with atomic number 30, belong to?
(a) s
(b) p
(c) d

(d) f

14. How many elements can be accomodated in the present set up of the long form of periodic table?
(a) 86
(b) 118
(c) 125
(d) 132
15. Write down the formula of compound formed between A(at. no 16 ) & B(at. no 19).
(a) A 2 B
(b) B2 A
(c) A 2 B3
(d) B2 A 3
Assertion and Reasoning
Directions: The questions (16 - 17) given below consists of STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2. Use the following
key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true and STATEMENT 2 is correct explanation of STATEMENT 1
(b) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true but STATEMENT 2 is not correct explanation of STATEMENT
1.
(c) STATEMENT 1 is true, STATEMENT 2 is false.
(d) STATEMENT 1 is false, STATEMENT 2 is true.
16.

STATEMENT 1:
STATEMENT 2:

17.

STATEMENT 1:
STATEMENT 2:

F atom has less negative electron affinity than chlorine


Additional electrons are repelled more by 3p electrons in Cl atom than by 2p
electrons in F atom
There are fourteen elements in the lanthanide series and fourteen elements in the
actinide series
All the elements of the actinide series are radioactive

Match the following


M1.
Electronic configuration

Ionisation energy

ns 2

2100

ns 2 np1

1400

ns 2 np3

800

ns 2 np6

900

M2.
COLUMN I

COLUMN II

Halogen

Oxygen

Chalcogen

Chlorine

Metal

Sulphur

Representative element

Manganese

Numerical
The ionization enthalpy of lithium is 500 kJmol1 . Calculate the amount of energy required to convert
N1.

140mg of lithium atoms in gaseous state into Li ion. If the answer is x, what is

x
?
2

Calculate the energy required to convert all the atoms of magnesium to magnesium ions present in 24mg
N2. of magnesium vapors? First and second ionization energies of Mg are 7.646 and 15.035eV per mole
respectively. Correct the answer to nearest whole number.
ANSWER KEY:
1.A

2.B

3.B

4.C

5.D

6.A,D

7.A,B,D

8.B,C

9.B

10.D

11.A

12.B

13.C

14.B

15.B

16.C

17.B

N1.5

N2.2

M1.

A-S

B-R

C-Q

D-P

M2.

A-Q

B-P,R
C-S
Single Answer Questions

1. The correct order of atomic radii is


(a) Na Be B
(b) F O 2 N3

(c) Na Li K

D-P,Q,R

(d) Fe3 Fe 2 Fe 4

2. The elements with atomic numbers 10, 18, 36, 54 & 86 are all
(a) light metals
(b) inert gases
(c) halogens

(d) rare earth elements

3. Which of the following has largest size?


(a) Na
(b) Na

(d) Mg 2

(c) Mg

4. The first ionization enthalpies in electron volts of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are respectively given by:
(a) 14.6, 13.6
(b) 13.6, 14.6
(c) 13.6, 14.6
(d) 14.6, 14.6
5. Alkaline earth metals form ions of the formula
(a) M
(b) M 2

(c) M

(d) M 2

One or more than one correct option questions


6. Which of the following species has same number of unpaired electrons?
(a) Cr 3
(b) Mn 2
(c) Fe3

(d) Cu 2

7. The elements which exist in liquid state at room temperature are:


(a) Na
(b) Br2
(c) Hg

(d) Ga

8. Which of the following elements belong/s to halogen group?


(a) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 5
(b) 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2
(c) [Ar]3d10 , 4s 2 , 4p5
(d) [Kr]4d10 ,5s 2 ,5p5
9. On moving down the group from Li to Cs, which of the following properties increases?
(a) Ionic radius
(b) Ionisation energy (c) Oxidising agent
(d) Electronegativity
Comprehension -1
In d-block elements, the last electron enters d-subshell. The elements of IIIB, IVB, VB, VIB, VIIB, VIII,
IB & IIB belong to this block. These elements are also called transition elements as their properties are intermediate
between s and p block elements.
10. Which of the following is not a a transition element?
(a)Zinc
(b)iron

(c) cobalt

(d) manganese

11. Which of the following series contains copper?


(a) 3d
(b) 4d

(c) 5d

(d) 6d

12. Which of the following elements is not a synthetic element?


(a) Platinum
(b) Technitium
(c) Bohrium

(d) Seaborgium

Comprehension -1I

The first 1H1 and the second 1H 2 ionization enthalpies in kJ mol 1 and the electron gain enthalpy

eg

in kJ mol

Elements
A
B
C

of a few elements are given below


i H1

i H2

eg H

419
1008
520

3051
1846
7300

- 48
- 295
- 60

D
E
Answer the following questions

1681
2372

3374
5251

13. Which one of the above elements is least reactive?


(a) B
(b) D

- 328
+48

(c) E

(d) A

14. Which one of the above elements is most reactive non-metal?


(a) A
(b) C
(c) D

(d) E

15. Which of the following elements is most reactive metal?


(a) A
(b) C
(c) D

(d) E

Assertion and Reasoning


Directions: The questions (16 - 17) given below consists of STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2. Use the following
key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true and STATEMENT 2 is correct explanation of STATEMENT 1
(b) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true but STATEMENT 2 is not correct explanation of STATEMENT
1.
(c) STATEMENT 1 is true, STATEMENT 2 is false.
(d) STATEMENT 1 is false, STATEMENT 2 is true.
16.

STATEMENT 1:
STATEMENT 2:

17.

STATEMENT 1:
STATEMENT 2:

First electron affinity value is more negative than second electron affinity value
The electron affinity value of inert gases are positive
Mendeleev said certain characteristic properties of elements can be foretold from
their atomic weights
Zero group was not present in the periodic table, when Mendeleev presented it
Match the following

M1.
COLUMN I

COLUMN II

Dobereiner

Explained the periodicity using graph

Newland

Periodic properties of elements based on their


atomic weights

Lother Meyer

Law of Octaves

Mendeleev

Law of Triads

M2.
COLUMN I

COLUMN II

Ba

Group II

Cu

s block

d block

Ag

Period 4

Numerical
The amount of energy when million atoms of iodine are completely converted into iodide ions in the
I e I (g) is 5 10 13 J . If the electron gain enthalpy of iodine
N1. vapour state according to the equation, (g)
in terms of kJ/mol is x, what is x 100 ?
N2.

How many of the following elements contain either fully filled or half filled electronic configuration?
Ni, Zn, K, Mg, Pb, P, Ar, N, Mn, Na

ANSWER KEY:
1.B

2.B

3.A

4.A

5.C

6.B,C

7.B,C,D

8.A,C,D

9.A

10.A

11.A

12.A

13.C

14.C

15.A

16.B

17.B

N1.3

N2.8

M1.

A-S

B-S

C-P,Q

D-Q

M2.
A-P,Q
B-R,S
C-Q,S
1. Which among these fibres is used in making cigarette paper?
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) flax

D-R
(d) wool

2. The fibre which is highly lustrous in nature is


(a) silk
(b) wool

(c) cotton

(d) jute

3. Which is the first country to cultivate cotton?


(a) China
(b) Bangladesh

(c) India

(d) Japan

4. Which of the following is a compound?


(a) Air
(b) sand

(c) sodium

(d) carbon

5. Which of the following is an insulator of heat?


(a) steel
(b) oxygen

(c) aluminium

(d) copper

6. The material which can be beaten into foils are said to be


(a) lustrous
(b) malleable

(c) ductile

(d) hard

7. Find odd man out from the following regarding solubility; sugar, salt, sand, copper sulphate
(a) sugar
(b) salt
(c) sand
(d) copper sulphate
8. The gas/es which is/are soluble in water are
(a) oxygen
(b) nitrogen

(c) carbon dioxide

ANSWER KEY:
1.C
6.B

7.C

2.A
8.D

3.C

4.B

5.B

(d) both a and c

Single Answer Questions


9.

Cubit is a unit for measuring


(a) length

(b) volume

(c) area

(d) mass

10. The walk of a drunken man is an example of

(a) circular motion

(b) oscillatory motion

(c) periodic motion

(d) random motion

(c) metre

(d) handspan

(b) 100

(c) 1000

(d) 40

(b) 75000 cm

(c) 750000 mm

(d) All of these

(b) oscillatory motion

(c) random motion

(d) none of these

(b) 3.6 m/s

(c) 10 m/s

(d) 100 m/s

(b) 100 cm

(c) 1000 mm

(d) 10 km

11. The standard unit of length in the SI system is

(a) cubit

(b) centimeter

12. How many kilograms make one metric ton?

(a) 10
13. 750 m is equal to

(a) 0.75 km

14. Movement of pencil on paper while writing is an example of

(a) periodic motion


15. 36 km/hr is same as

(a) 36 m/s
16. 1 metre is not equal to

(a) 10 dm
Answer keys :

1.

2.

1.A

2.D

3.C

6.C

7.C

8.D

4.C

5.D

Which of the following is not a natural fibre?


(a) Cotton
(b) Jute

(c) Silk

(d) Rayon

Takli is a device used for


(a) spinning

(c) weaving

(d) knitting

(b) retting

Statement I : Cotton absorbs moisture efficiently


Statement II: Cotton is obtained from fruit of the plant
(a) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true and STATEMENT 2 is correct explanation of STATEMENT 1
(b) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true but STATEMENT 2 is not correct explanation of
STATEMENT 1.
(c) STATEMENT 1 is true, STATEMENT 2 is false.
(d) STATEMENT 1 is false, STATEMENT 2 is true.
3.

4.

5.

Single thread is used to make a fabric in


(a) spinning
(b) retting

(c) weaving

(d) knitting

Which is an example of unstiched piece of fabric?


(a) saree
(b) dhoti

(c) turban

(d) all the above

6.

Which of the following is false about weaving?


(a) It is the process used to convert fibre to fabric
(b) Weaving is different from knitting
(c) Spinning is followed by weaving
(d) all the above

7.

The fibre from jute plant is obtained from


(a) leaves
(b) stems

(c) fruits

(d) roots

Statement 1: Ginning is a pre-spinning process of cotton


Statement 2: Cotton usually grows in black soil
(a) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true and STATEMENT 2 is correct explanation of STATEMENT 1
(b) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true but STATEMENT 2 is not correct explanation of
STATEMENT 1.
(c) STATEMENT 1 is true, STATEMENT 2 is false.
(d) STATEMENT 1 is false, STATEMENT 2 is true.
8.

ANSWER KEY:
1. D
6. A

7.B

2.A

3. B

4.D

5.D

8. B
Single Answer Questions

1. _________ occurs when the velocity of an object changes.


(a) acceleration
(b) velocity

(c) speed

(d) distance

2. When you say that a race car travels northward at 100 km/h, you are talking about its
(a) velocity
(b) distance
(c) acceleration
(d) speed
3. Arrange the following lengths in the increasing order of their magnitude
(i) 1 meter
(ii) 1 centimeter
(iii) 1 kilometer
(a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

(iv) 1 millimeter
(d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

4. While measuring the length of a knitting needle, the reading of the scale at one end is 4.1 cm and at the other end is
33.4 cm. What is the length of the needle?
(a) 29.0 cm
(b) 29.3 cm
(c) 37.5 cm
(d) 37.5 mm
5. Identify the incorrect statements.
(i) motion of a point marked on the blade of an electric fan is circular motion.
(ii) motion of a child on a swing is periodic motion.
(iii) motion of the needle of a sewing machine is periodic motion.
(iv) motion of a butterfly flitting from flower to flower is rectilinear motion
(a) (i), (iv)
(b) (iv) only
(c) (ii) only
(d) (ii), (iii)

Use the information below to answer Number


6 to 8. Lee is planning an experiment to
compare the velocity v d / t of four objects
with different masses and shapes when they
are dropped from different heights. Lee must
use only equipment from the diagram below to
conduct his experiment.

6. Which pieces of equipment are needed to calculate the velocity of a falling object?
(a) stopwatch and balance
(b) speedometer and magnet
(c) compass and tape measure
(d) tape measure and
stopwatch
7. During this experiment, which action would most likely lead to a measurement error?
(a) recording data in a table
(b) counting down before releasing the object
(c) conducting multiple trials from each height
(d) using different hand positions to release each object
8. For his experiment, Lee made the list of steps below. The steps are not arranged in the correct order.
1. Measure the height from which the objects will fall.
2. Drop each object from the location marked
3. Calculate the velocity for each object
4. Mark the point from which each object must be droped
5. Record the time it takes the objects to fall.
6. Measure the mass of each object.
What is the correct order of steps for this investigation?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3
(b) 2, 6, 5, 3, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 5, 3, 1, 6
(d) 6, 1, 4, 2, 5, 3

Answer keys :
1.A

2.A

3.C

6.D

7.D

8.D

4.B

5.B

1. Process by which the wastes in our surroundings are separated and is dumped and buried in the soil is called as
__________.
(a) Papier mache
(b) Land Fill
(c)Composting
(d)None of the above.
2. Method of converting vegetable peels into a manure by simply burying them in the soil is called as
(a) Papier mache
(b)Land Fill
(c)Composting
(d)None of the above.
3. Method of converting vegetable peels into a manure by using earthworms is called as
(a)Papier mache
(b)Vermicomposting
(c)Composting
(d)None of the above.
4. Papier mache is recycled __________.
(a)Plastic
(b)Vegetable Peels

(c)Paper

(d)Fruit Peel

5. Presence of specific characters that enable organisms to survive in its surroundings is ______________.
(a)Niche
(b)Habitat
(c)Adaptations
(d)None of the above.
6. Fishes use the dissolved oxygen from water through __________.
(a)Gills
(b)Nostrils
(c)Fins

(d)Scales

7. Deserts, Mountains, grass Lands, belong to __________ habitat.


(a)Aquatic
(b)Terrestrial
(c)Avian

(d)Ocean

8. Animals like tigers are __________.


(a)Prey
(b)Predators

(d)None of the above.

(c)Producers

ANSWER KEY:
1.B

2.C

3.B

6.A

7.B

8.B

1. The component of air used by plants to make their food is


(a) oxygen
(b) nitrogen

4.C

5.C

(c) argon

(d) carbon dioxide

2. Which are the activities that are possible due to the presence of air?
(a)Burning
(b)Respiration
(c)Generation of electricity in wind mills
(d)all of them
3. A gas X has the following characteristics.
(i) It is colourless and odourless
(ii)It dissolves in water to form an acidic solution
(iii)It does not support burning.
What must be X?
(a)nitrogen
(b)oxygen

(c) carbon dioxide

(d)hydrogen

4. Excessive Chlorofluorocarbons is released into the atmosphere by the use of aerosol sprays and air conditioners.
This will cause

(a)natural disaster
(c)green house effect

(b)air pollution
(d)depletion of ozone layer

5. Which gas emission from coal burning power plants causes acid rain?
(a)Iron (III) oxide
(b)sulphur dioxide
(c)hydrogen peroxide

(d)silicon dioxide

6. Which solution will have the highest pH value?


(a)hydrochloric acid
(b)vinegar

(c)water

(d)baking soda

7. The boiling point of water will be very less in


(a)Sahara
(b)Delhi

(c)Chennai

(d)Shimla

8. Which one of the following is the purest water?


(a)distilled water
(b)mineral water

(c)rain water

(d)river water

ANSWER KEY
1. D

2. D

3. C

4. D

5. B

6. D

7. D

8. A

9. The lighting of display boards is due to


(a) argon
(b) neon

(c) krypton

(d) helium

10. Which are the activities that are possible due to the presence of air?
(a)Burning
(b)Respiration
(c)Generation of electricity in wind mills
(d)all of them
11. A gas X has the following characteristics.
(i) It is colourless and odourless
(ii)It dissolves in water to form an acidic solution
(iii)It does not support burning.
What must be X?
(a)nitrogen
(b)oxygen

(c) carbon dioxide

(d)hydrogen

12. Excessive Chlorofluorocarbons is released into the atmosphere by the use of aerosol sprays and air conditioners.
This will cause
(a)natural disaster
(b)air pollution
(c)green house effect
(d)depletion of ozone layer
13. Which gas emission from coal burning power plants causes acid rain?
(a)Iron (III) oxide
(b)sulphur dioxide
(c)hydrogen peroxide

(d)silicon dioxide

14. Which solution will have the highest pH value?


(a)hydrochloric acid
(b)vinegar

(c)water

(d)baking soda

15. The boiling point of water will be very less in


(a)Sahara
(b)Delhi

(c)Chennai

(d)Shimla

16. Weather changes are due to the presence of _____________ in air.


(a) water vapour
(b) oxygen
(c) smoke

(d) CO 2

ANSWER KEY
1. A

2. D

3. C

4. D

5. B

6. D

7. D

8. A

Single Answer Questions


1. To measure the length of your eraser more convenient unit is
(a) centi metre
(b) milli metre
(c) deci metre

(d) Kilo metre

2. Light year is a unit of:


(a) area

(b) time

(d) volume

3. The motion of a pendulum is


(a) rotatory

(b) circular

(c) Length
(c) curvilinear

(d) periodic

4. A car travels the distance between Chennai and Bangalore in 5 hours. If the distance between the two towns is 300
km, what is the average speed of the car?
(a) 40 km/hr
(b) 60 km/hr
(c) 50 km/hr
(d) 55 km/hr
5. An example for combined motion (both linear and circular)
(a) Smoke coming out from a chimney
(b) swinging pendulum
(c) Movement of a flag on the flag post
(d) wheel of a car running on a road
6. Refer to the distance time graph and identify the body moving with fastest
speed
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

7. Which among the following is not an SI unit?


(a) Meter
(b) kilogram

(c) centimeter

(d) second

8. To measure short intervals of time, we use a


(a) Pendulum clock
(b) stop watch

(c) wrist watch

(d) none of these

ANSWER KEYS
1. A

2.C

3.D

6. A

7.C

8.B

4.B

5.D

Single Answer Questions


1. The standard unit of length in the SI system is
(a) meter
(b) centimeter

(c) cubit

(d) hand span

2. Gallon is a unit to measure


(a) length

(b) mass

(c) volume

(d) time

3. 1 metre is not equal to


(a) 100 cm

(b) 1 km

(c) 1000 mm

(d) 10 dm

4. 100 years =
(a) 10 decade

(b) 1 Millennium

5. Symbols for units are usually written in


(a) small letters
(b) capital letters

(c) 1 century

(d) 1 decade

(c) bold letters

(d) None of the above

6. To measure the length of your eraser more convenient unit is


(a) millimeter
(b) centimeter
(c) decimeter

(d) kilometer

7. How many seconds are there in one hour


(a) 60 seconds
(b) 3600 seconds

(c) 86400 seconds

(d) None of these

8. The interval between two events is called


(a) time
(b) distance

(c) speed

(d) displacement

ANSWER KEYS
1.A

2.C

3.B

6.B

7.B

8.A

4.C

5.A

1. A space that contains no air or any gas is known as


(a) Vacuum
(b) Hollow

(c) Pressurized Cabin

(d) Bubble

2. The lower, dense region of the atmosphere is known as


(a) Hydrosphere
(b) Stratosphere

(c) Thermosphere

(d) Troposphere

3. Which of the following is necessary for a substance to burn?


(a) Hydrogen
(b) Gasoline
(c) Light
4. Air is
(a) a mixture
(b) a compound
(c) an element
5. Which of the following is not a constituent of the atmosphere?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
6. A barometer is used for measuring
(a) Humidity
(c) Atmospheric Pressure

8. Which of the following adds oxygen to the atmosphere?


(a) Forest fires
(c) Weathering of rocks

2. D
7. A

(d)an alloy
(d) Boron

(b) Temperature
(d) Annual Rainfall

7. The vertical movement of air due to the uneven heating is called


(a) Convection
(b) Conduction
(c) Refraction

Answer Key
1. A
6.C

(d) Oxygen

3. D
8.B

4. A

(d) Reflection

(b) Photosynthesis
(d) Life processes of animals

5. D

1. Process by which the wastes in our surroundings are separated and dumped in an open land is called as
__________.
(a) Papier mache
(b) Composting
(c) Land Fill
(d)None of the above.
2. Deserts, mountains and grasslands are
(a) Aquatic habitats
(b) Soil habitats

(c) Arboreal Habitat

(d)Terrestrial habitats

3. Identify the biotic component


(a) Soil

(c) Air

(d) Water

(b) Animals

4. Fishes use the dissolved oxygen from water through __________.


(a) Scales
(b) Nostrils
(c) Fins

(d) Gills

5. Development of specific characters that enable organisms to survive in its surroundings is ______________.
(a) Adaptation
(b) Niche
(c)Habitat
(d)None of the above.
6. Animals like tigers are __________.
(a)Prey
(b) Producers

(c)Predators

(d)None of the above.

7. Papier mache is recycled __________.


(a) Vegetable Peels
(b) Plastic

(c) Fruit Peel

(d) Paper

8. Plastic bags are


(a) Bio - degradable
(c) used in fewer quantities

(b) Non Bio - degradable


(d) eco friendly

ANSWER KEY:
1. C

2.D

3.B

6.C

7.D

8.B

4.D

5.A

1. Which among the following plants is an annual plant?


(a)Banyan
(b)Mango

(c)Garden Peas

(d)Jack Fruit

2. A plant with a fibrous root system is _______________.


(a)Dicot
(b)Mango

(c)Monocot

(d)Pea Plant

3. Loss of water from the aerial parts of the plant is called as _______________.
(a)Evaporation
(b)Suction
(c) Transpiration

(d) None of the above

4. Transport of water and minerals in a plant is due to ________________.


(a) Phloem
(b)Parenchyma
(c)Xylem

(d) All the above

5. Potato is a modified ______________.


(a) Leaf
(b)Root

(c)Stem

(d)None of the above

6. Rib Cage is a bony structure that protects ____________.


(a) Stomach
(b)Spinal Cord

(c)Lungs

(d)All the above

7. Shoulder Joint is an example for


(a) Glider Joints
(c) Ball and Socket Joint

(b) Pivot Joint


(d) None of the above

8. Birds have a very light body. This is due to __________.


(a) Light wings
(b)Light and Hollow Bones
(c)Soft Plumage
(d)None of the above
ANSWER KEY:
1. C

2.C

3.C

6.C

7.C

8.B

1. In FPS system, the unit of mass is


(a) Kilogram

4.C

(b) gram

2. Distance traveled equals to


(a) speed x time
(b) speed per time

5.C

(c) pound
(c) speed - time

(d) ton
(d) none of these

3. Refer to the distance time graph and identify the body


moving with greatest speed
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

4. A car travels the distance between Chennai and Bangalore in 8 hours. If the distance between the two towns is
400 km, what is the average speed of the car?
(a) 50 m/s

(b) 50 km/hr

5. 750 m is equal to
(a) 0.75 km

(c)

50
m/s
2

(b) 75000 cm

(d) none of these

(c) 750000 mm (d) All of these

6. Movement of pencil on paper while writing is an example of


(a) Periodic motion (b) oscillatory motion (c) random motion (d) none of these
7. Arrange the following lengths in the increasing order of their magnitude
(i) 1 meter

8. .

(ii) 1 centimeter

(iii) 1 kilometer

(a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

(d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

(iv) 1 millimeter

(i) motion of a point marked on the blade of an electric fan is circular motion.
(ii) motion of a child on a swing is periodic motion.
(iii) motion of the needle of a sewing machine is periodic motion.
(iv) motion of a butterfly flitting from flower to flower is rectilinear motion
the incorrect statements of the above is/ are
(a) (i), (iv)

9. 100 years is equal to

(b) (iv) only

(c) (ii) only

(d) (ii), (iii)

(a) 10 decade

(b) 1 Millennium (c) 1 century

10. How many seconds are there in one hour


(a) 60 seconds
(b) 3600 seconds

(d) 1 decade

(c) 86400 seconds

(d) None of these

11. A toy cyclist completes one round of a square track of side 4 m in 30 second. What will be the distance
traveled at the end of 1 minute?
(a)28m

(b) 24 m

(c) 32 m

(d) 40m

12. The initial reading of a broken scale is 4 cm and its final reading is 12 cm. By using this scale a boy is
measuring the length of a book. Its length is 0.3 meter. How many times he needs to use that scale to measure
the length of the book
(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

13. The motion of a pendulum is


(a) periodic

(b) oscillatry

(c) rectilener

(d) Both (a) & (b)

ANSWER KEY:
1.C
5.D
9.C

2.A
6.C
10.B

3.A
7.C
11.C

Mathematics

4.B
8.B
12.C

13.D

Section II
Single Answer Questions

31. Symbolic form of excess of x over y


(a) y x
(b) x y

(c) x + y

(d) None

32. A block of ice is heated from 5 C to 100 C the rise in temperature is ________________
(a) 95
(b) 100
(c) 105
(d) None
33. A person is x years old at present, 5 years ago the age is ____________
(a) x + 5

(b) 5x

(c)

5
x

(d) x 5

34. A book costs x paisa, the number of books can be bought for Rs a is _____________
(a)

a
x

(b)

100a
x

(c)

a
100 x

35. The product of any 3 consecutive natural number is divisible by


(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6

(d)

100
x

(d) 5

36. If 8 be added to four times a number the sum equal to 48, the number is __________
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16

37. A number whose half exceeds its one third by 5 is ________________


(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30

(d) 40

38. The sum of twice a number and 7 equals half that number plus 16, the number is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10

(d) 12

39. The sum of all the digits of the result of the subtraction 109 9 is _________
(a) 71
(b) 72
(c) 73

(d) 74

0.1 0.01

0.01 0.1

40. Which is equal to


(a) 10.1

(b) 1.10

(c) 1.01

(d) 10.01

41. The cost of 1 liters of milk is Rs. 7.50, then the cost of 30.5 liters of milk is Rs. __________
(a) Rs.225.75
(b) Rs. 223.75
(c) Rs. 228.75
(d) None
42. The value of 3
(a)

1 3 1 1 1
1 2 1
12 4 2 2 3

1
2

43. Simplified value of 2


(a)

188
56

(b) 2

(a) 188

(c) 3

(d) 0

13
56

(d) 3

13
56

(b) 144

(c) 144

(d) None

(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) 7

625 576
(a) 1

46.

(c) 1

1
5 3 1
3 4 is__________
2
7 13 2
188
(b)
56

44. 18 of 59 7 8 26 3 of 5

45.

is __________________

1 50 2 50 3 50 4 50 ........... 100 50
(a) 100

(b) 0

product is __________
(c) 100

47. The sum of 51+52+53++100 is __________


(a) 5050
(b) 3775
48. Given S

(c) 1000

(d) 1000
(d) None

n
2a n 1 d , if d = 1, n = 10 and a = 12, then S is __________
2

(a) 165
49. An example of a trinomial is
(a) x

(b) 170

(c) 175

(d) 180

(b) x 2 y 2

(c) x 3 y3 z3

(d) xyz

(c) 4

(d) 5

50. n3 n is divisible by _____________[n is natural numbers]


(a) 7
(b) 3

51. Given N = 1 + 50 + 502+503++502011 units digit is __________

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

52. The sum of 6 abc2 , 2 abc 2 and 4 abc 2 is


(a) 12 abc 2
(b) 8abc 2

(c) 8a 2 bc

(d) 8 abc

53. Number of tens in twenty thousand is


(a) 20
(b) 200

(c) 2000

(d) 1000

54. The unit digit in 20162016 is____________________


(a) 6
(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 5

55. 1 1 1 1 1 1 ................ 1
1

(a) 0

(b) 1

2011

_____________

(c) 2

(d) None

56. 213 113 divided by 10 remainder is ________


(a) 0
(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

57. Given 24 x 2 1 y 2 , if x 1, then y is divisible by


(a) 1
(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) None

58. The LCM of 24, 30, 36 is


(a) 120

(c) 360

(d) 720

1
59. The Value of

(a)

1
1

1
1
1
6

6
11

60. What should be added to 5


(a)

(b) 180

22
6

is ___________

(b)

16
11

4
3
to get 12 ?
15
5
22
(b)
3

(c)

7
6

(d)

1
6

(c)

22
4

(d)

22
5

Physics

Section III
Single Answer Questions

31. 18 kmph =

? ( ms-1)
(a) 5

32. 50 cm = ?

(b) 18

(c) 3.6

(d) none

(b) 500

(c) 50

(d) 0.5

(mm)
(a) 5

33. A boy measured the mass of 10 apples as 2 kg. then the mass of each apple is

(a) 200 mg

(b) 200000 mg

(c)

1
g
5

(d) 2000 g

34. The suitable unit for the measurement of distance between planets is

(a) light year

(b) km

(c) m

(d) cm

35. Ram has to walk 2 km to reach his school. What is the total distance traveled by him to go and come back to his

home.
(a) 2 km

(b) 3 km

(c) 4 km

(d) 6 km

(b) circular motion

(c) random motion

(d) none

36. Motion of a fly is an example of

(a) rectilinear motion

37. If Ram takes 1 hr to go to school, his average speed is ( refer problem no.5 )

(a) 2 kmph

(b) 4 kmph

(c) 0 kmph

(d) none

38. A boy walks 2m east and then 2m west, then the distance traveled by him is

(a) 2m

(b) 4m

(c) 0 m

(d) 4 km

39. Anjali moved from A to B and then B to C,

then her distance is


(a) 7m

(b) 3m

(c) 4m

(d) 5m

40. Which of the following is not a physical quantity

(a) length

(b) mass

(c) time

(d) affection

41. A body is moving with a speed of 20 ms -1, then its speed in kmph is

(a) 20

(b) 100/18

(c) 72

(d) 54

42. Raghav measured the length of a room is 50 m. Its length in km is

(a) 0.5

(b) 0.005

(c) 5

(d) 0.05

43. If the same room is measured by Aparna, then she found that the room width is 25 m, its width in cm is

(a)
44. One day =

1
4

(b) 2500

(c) 250

(d) 25000

(b) 86400

(c) 2400

(d) 2436

? ( seconds)
(a) 3600

45. If moon takes 27 days to complete one revolution around earth, then It takes (minutes)

(a) 27 24

(b) 27 24 3600

(c) 27 24 60

(d) 27 12 60

Chemistry

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

31. Which of the following is impure substance?


(a) oxygen
(b) carbondioxide

(c) aluminium

(d) brass

32. Solid-liquid homogeneous mixture among the following is


(a) oil & water
(b) milk & water

(c) salt & water

(d) sand & water

33. Filtration technique is used to separate a heterogenous mixture of


(a) solid & solid
(b) solid & liquid
(c) liquid & liquid

(d) all

34. The method which is used to remove lighter particles (impurities) from heavier particles is
(a) threshing
(b) winnowing
(c) sieving
(d) filtration
35. Which of the following can be separated into its individual components by physical methods of separation?
(a) Element
(b) compound
(c) mixture
(d) all
36. Distillation is a technique which constitutes
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation

(c) filtration

(d) both a & b

37. A mixture of iron & sand is separated by


(a) filtration
(b) evaporation

(c) separating funnel

(d) magnet

38. An insoluble solid from a liquid is separated by


(a) sieving
(b) separating funnel

(c) filtration

(d) evaporation

39. The technique threshing can be done


(a) manually
(b) machines

(c) both a & b

(d) none

40. Cleaning rice with water is an example of


(a) sieving
(b) sedimentation

(c) threshing

(d) winnowing

41. In a mixture of salt & water, salt can be obtained by


(a) separating funnel
(b) filtration

(c) decantation

(d) evaporation

42. Which of the following is an example of miscible liquids?


(a) milk & water
(b) water & kerosence (c) water & oil

(d) both b & c

43. A heterogeneous mixture among the following is


(a) steel
(b) smoke

(d) cool drink

(c) air

44. A separation technique which is based on the differences in size of particles is


(a) sedimentation
(b) threshing
(c) sieving

(d) decantation

45. The solid component which settles at the bottom during sedimentation is called
(a) sediments
(b) decanted liquid
(c) supernatant

(d) residue

Biology

Section V
Single Answer Questions

11. Roughages contain high contents of

(a) Minerals

(b) Fibers

(c) Proteins

(d) Fats

12. Lizard is
(a) A carnivore

(b) Aherbivore

(c) An omnivore

(d)A Saprotrophic

13. Cellulose is a
(a) Polysaccharides

(b) Disaccharide

(c) Monosaccharide

(d) Protein

14. Lactose is made up of


(a) Glucose and glucose
(c) Glucose and galactose

(b) Glucose and fructose


(d) Glucose and Sucrose

15. Proteins
(a) Provides energy immediately
(c) Avoids the blood clotting

(b) Store food material in the form of fat


(d) Provide chemical material for the growth

16. Which food item acts as a source of minerals


(a) Ghee
(b) Fruits

(c) Bread

(d) Leaf vegetables

17. Fat soluble vitamins are


(a) A,B,C&D

(c) A,D,E&K

(d) D,E,K&C

(b) B&C

18. Seema uses more leaf vegetables and fruits in her diet which nutrients she gets more
(a) Fats and proteins
(b) Carbohydrates and fats
(c) Proteins and carbohydrates
(d) Minerals
19. Non green plants are
(a) Heterotrophs
(c) Some are autrophs

(b) Autotrophs
(d) Some are autotrophs and some are heterotrophs

20. Constipation can be avoided by adding __________ to diet.


(a) Proteins
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins
*******

(d) Fibers

Space for Rough Work

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 3 - ANSWER KEYS

Social Science
1.C

2.D

3.A

4.C

5.D

6.A

7.C

8.C

9.C

10.A

11.C

12.D

13.A

14.D

15.C

16.B

17.D

18.A

19.C

20.D

1. B

2. C

Mathematics
3. D
4. B

5. C

6. A

7. C

8. A

9. C

10. A

11. C

12. D

13.D

14. C

15. D

16. B

17. B

18. A

19. C

20. B

21. B

22. B

23. C

24. A

25. C

26. A

27. C

28. C

29. B

30. B

Physics
1.A

2.B

3.B

4.A

5.C

6.C

7.A

8.B

9.A

10.D

11.C

12.D

13.B

14.B

15.C

Chemistry
1. D

2.C

3.B

4.B

5.C

6.D

7.D

8.C

9.C

10.B

11.D

12.A

13.B

14.C

15.A

5. D

Biology
1. B

2. A

3. A

4. C

6. B
Mathematics

7. C

8. D

9. A

Single Answer Questions

1
3

1
2

31. Simplest form of 2 : 3 :1

1
4

10. D
Section II

(a)

7 7 5
: :
3 2 4

(b)

1 1 1
: :
3 2 4

32. The ratio between 9 months and 3 years


(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 4

(c) 28 : 42 :15

(d) 2 : 3 : 1

(c) 3 : 10

(d) 4 : 1

33. An office opens at 9 a.m. and closes at 5 p.m. with a lunch interval of 30 minutes. What is the ratio of lunch
interval to the total period in office?
(a) 2 : 7
(b) 7 : 15
(c) 1 : 15
(d) 1 : 16
34. Compare ratios; 7 : 6 and 24 : 9
(a)

7 24

6 9

(b)

7 24

6 9

(c)

7 24

6 9

(d) none of these

35. Which of the following is not equivalent ratio of 6 : 15


(a) 2/5

(b) 18/45

p2q4r 6
36. Which of the following is equilateral ratio of 3 3 3
pqr
3
pqr
qr
(a)
(b)
pqr
p
37. 18, x, x, 50 are in proportion, find the value of x
(a) 900
(b) 300

(c) 24/30

(c)

q 3r
p

(c) 30

(d)

78
195

(d)

p
qr 3

(d) 45

38. If 16, 12, x are in continuous proportion, find the value of x


(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 9

(d) 16

39. If b is mean proportion between a and c, then ________


(a) b = ac
(b) ac = 2b

(d) a c b 2

(c) ac b 2

40. The ratio of children books in a bookstall to other books is 2 : 11. The total number of children books 250. Then
the total number of books in bookstall
(a) 1375
(b) 1625
(c) 1725
(d) 1825
41. Rajesh completes his work in 3 days if he works for 5 hours daily How many days will he take to complete if he
work 3 hours daily?
(a) 3 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 5 days
42. The ratio of the income to the expenditure of a family is 4 : 3, then the savings if the income is 1224
(a) 276
(b) 416
(c) 516
(d) 306
43. A bike travels 124 km in 2hrs and a train travels 320 km in 3 hrs then the ratio of their speeds
(a) 13 : 15
(b) 31 : 64
(c) 3 : 5
(d) none of these
44. Aravind works in a factory and earns Rs 15000 per month. His wife who is a teacher earns 18000 per month. Then
find the ratio of aravind to their total income
(a) 11 : 5
(b) 5 : 11
(c) 7 : 11
(d) 9 : 11
45. If 168 sets in 8 rows in a Hall. Then in 5 rows how many seats are there _______

(a) 315

(b) 218

(c) 265

(d) 105

46. In Mrs. Jones class 20 students. There are 12 boys and 8 girls. 7 students have brown hair, 10 have blonde hair and
3 have red hair. Then the ratio of students with blonde hair to those that have red hair?
(a) 10 : 3
(b) 7 : 3
(c) 7 : 10
(d) 12 : 7
47. Tom has 13 video games 5 are action games 2 are adventure and the rest are sports. Ratio between sports games to
action games is
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 5 : 2
(c) 6 : 5
(d) 5 : 6
48. If

a b c
abc
then
_________
2 3 4
b
(a) 6

(b) 3

(c) 9

49. The maximum number of points of intersection of three lines in a plane is


(a) 3
(b) 0
(c) 1

(d) 12
(d) 2

50. Which of the following points are not collinear


(a) A, B, C
(b) F, B, D
(c) E, C, G
(d) F, C, G

51. A straight line which cuts two or more straight lines at distinct points is called a _______
(a) Parallel line
(b) Transversal
(c) Perpendicular
(d) Line segment
52. Which of the following length we can measure
(a) Plane
(b) Line

(c) Line segment

(d) Ray

53. The number of points on the boundary of triangles ________


(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4

(d) Infinite

54. The number of lines can pass through the given point ________
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four

(d) Infinite

55. Points lying on the same line are called


(a) Coplaner
(b) concurrent

(c) collinear

(d) none of these

56. The line which bisect the angle is called


(a) median
(b) angle bisector

(c) altitude

(d) none of these

57. How many line segments are there in the following figure:
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 12

58. The polygon if the line segment joining any two points inside it lies completely inside the polygon is called
_______
(a) concave polygon
(b) convex polygon
(c) regular polygon
(d) none of these

59. Write the complement angle of 1/4 of 800


(a) 3400
(b) 1600

(c) 200

(d) 700

60. The supplement angle of 3/4 of 1600


(a) 900
(b) 600

(c) 300

(d) 200

Physics

Section III
Single Answer Questions

16. Light is a form of


(a) Energy

(b) Vibration

(c) Motion

(d) all of the above

17. Rectilinear propagation of light is defined as


(a) Straight path of light
(c) Zigzag path of light

(b) Curved path of light


(d) None of these

18. Light travels fastest in


(a) Vacuum

(c) water

(b) air

19. We are able to see objects because


(a) they absorb light
(c) all light is refracted through them

(d) Iron

(b) They transmit light


(d) they reflect light

20. Choose the alternative containing only the correct statements.


(P) Light is visible because laser guns shoot visible laser beams (as seen in movies)
(Q) Light is invisible
(R) Light makes objects on which it falls visible
(S) Sunlight can be seen streaming through a hole in the door. So light is visible.
(a) P, Q, R, S
(b) Q, R
(c) P, S
(d) R, S
21. We depend on ____________ energy for our requirements of food, energy and fuel.
(a) Wind
(b) Nuclear
(c) Light
(d) Sound
22. Which of the following are examples of natural sources of light?
(P) Sun
(Q) Moon
(R) Fire flies
(a) P, Q
(b) Q, R
(C) P, Q, R

(S) Candles
(d) S

23. Which of the following are examples of non-luminous objects?


(P) Stars
(Q) Planets
(R) Moon
(a) P, Q
(b) R, S
(c) P, S

(S) Candles
(d) Q, R

24. In periscope two plane mirrors are fixed at the two bends of the tube parallel to each other and inclined at
__________ to the axis of the tube
(a) 300
(b) 600
(c) 900
(d) 450
25. The shape and size of a shadow depends on

(a) the shape and size of the object


(b) the position of the source of light
(c) the distance between the source of light and object
(d) all of the above
26. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II
COLUMN I

COLUMN II

Fire flies

Translucent

Wax paper

Travels in straight line

Light

Luminous

Moon

Non luminous

Which of the following shows the correct matching?


(a) A R; B Q; C P; D S
(b) A R; B P; C S; D Q
(c) A R; B P; C Q; D P
(d) A R; B P; C Q; D S
27. In a region of total solar eclipse
(a) one can see the sun
(b) one can see part of the sun
(c) one cannot see the sun
(d) one cannot see a part of the sun
28. The image formed by a plane mirror
(a) is an erect image
(c) shows an interchange of right and left

(b) is of the same size as that of object


(d) shows all the three characteristics listed above.

29. A beam of light is


(a) a very narrow and consists a single ray
(c) Nothing but source of light

(b) broader and consists of several rays


(d) all of the above

30. The pinhole camera produces


(a) an erect and enlarged image
(c) an inverted and diminished image

(b) an inverted and enlarged image


(d) an erect and diminished image.

Chemistry

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

31. If the components of a mixture carry different boiling points, which is the possible way to isolate these
components?
(a) Evaporation
(c) Magnetic separation

(b) Fractional distillation


(d) Decantation

32. In the lab, a scientist, accidentally, dropped some ball bearings into a beaker of hot water. Which is the best method
to separate them from water?
(a) Use distillation to isolate the water
(c) Use magnet to attract the ball bearings

(b) Evaporate the hot water to get the ball bearings


(d) Hand pick the ball bearings

33. Distillation is not used to separate


(a) a mixture of liquids in a solution
(c) miscible liquids

(b) a solvent from a solution


(d) a solid solid mixture

34. The boiling point of components is important for


(a) sieving

(b) distillation

(c) decantation

(d) magnetism

35. When do we use evaporation to separate components?


(a) a liquid-liquid mixture, in which one of the liquids has a lower boiling point
(b) a solid-liquid mixture, in which solid particles are visible
(c) a solid-liquid mixture, in which solid particles are dissolved

(d) a solid-liquid mixture, in which one of the components sublimes

36. A mixture of alcohol and water is separated by


(a) Sieving

(b) Evaporation

(c) Distillation

(d) Filtration

37. Why do solvent particles leave a solution, when it evaporates?


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Air molecules have a strong attraction for solvent particles


The solvent particles are bounced out of the solution by particle movement
The solvent particles are repelled by the solute particles
The solvent particles have enough kinetic energy to escape the liquids surface

38. A chemist would like to extract an oil-soluble substance from a water-soluble based liquid sample. He shakes the
water based sample with an oil solvent and then allows the mixture to settle into two layers. Hence then, he pours
off one of the layers. What was the technique used by the chemist?
(a) Distillation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Separating funnel (d) Sieving

39. Sand and gravel may be separated from each other by


(a) an evaporating basin

(b) a Liebigs condenser

(c) a sieve

(d) a filter

funnel

40. During filtration, the liquid collected in the container, after passing a solution through a filter paper, is called
_______.
(a) Fragments

(b) Residue

(c) Filtrate

(d) none of the above

41. Which technique can be used to get salt from a mixture of salt and sand?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Dissolve the salt; filter the solution; and recrystallise the salt
Decantation
Fractional distillation
Filter the dry mixture, crystallize the salt

42. Which of the following statements is true?


(a) Compounds are easy to separate
(b) Compounds have a fixed composition
(c) Compounds do not have a fixed composition
(d) In compounds, the atoms are not connected to one another.

43. Water from a container of boiled potatoes is separated by the method of


(a) evaporation

(b) distillation

(c) sieving

(d) decantation

(c) condensation

(d) freezing

44. Rain fall is due to _________ of water vapor in the clouds.


(a) evaporation

(b) vaporization

45. Which of these is not a method to separat a solid from a liquid?


(a) Sedimentation & Decantation
(c) Evaporation
Biology

(b) Filtration
(d) None of the above
Section V

Single Answer Questions


11. In some plants like Grass, Money plant and banyan tree, roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle.
Name the root.
(a) Taproot
(b) lateral root
(c) Adventitious root
(d) Respiratory root
12. The structure which develop from axillary buds are slender and spirally coilded and help plants to climb is called
(a) thorns
(b) tendril
(c) stipule
(d) Bract

13. Veins provide


(a) rigidity to the leaf blade
(c) act as channels of transport for food

(b) act as channels of transport for water& minerals


(d) all of the above

14. The swollen end of the pedicel which bears 4 whorls of flower is called
(a) pulvinus
(b) stolon
(c) thalamus

(d) node

15. The type of phyllotaxy seen in Guava is


(a) Alternate
(b) deccusate

(c) whorled

(d) opposite

16. Sepal is a part of


(a) corolla

(c) anther

(d) calyx

(c) wheat and gram

(d) maize and pea

(b) ovary

17. The internal structure of seed is given. The labeling of the


seed is
(a) plumule, cotyledon, radicle
(b) cotyledon, radicle, plumule
(c) plumule radicle, cotyledon
(d) radicle plumule, cotyledon
18. One cotyledon is present in
(a) gram and pea

(b) wheat and maize

19. Justify the following statements on the basis of external features


(A) underground parts of a plant are not always roots
(B) Flower is a reproductive part
(a) A is true and B is false
(b) A is false and B is true
(c) Both A and B are true
(d) both A and B are false
20. The function of stem is
(a) bearing leaves, flowers and fruits
(c) performs photosynthesis

(b) conducts water and minerals


(d) all of the above

*******

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 4 - ANSWER KEYS

Social Science
1. C

2.B

3.A

4.B

5.C

6. A

7.C

8.A

9.B

10.C

11. D

12.B

13.A

14.C

15.A

16. B

17.C

18.A

19.B

20.D

Mathematics
1.C

2.B

3.C

4.A

5.C

6.B

7.C

8.C

9.C

10.B

11.B

12.D

13.D

14.B

15.D

16.A

17.C

18.B

19.A

20.D

21.B

22.C

23.D

24.D

25.C

26.B

27.D

28.B

29.D

30.B

Physics
1.A

2.A

3.A

4.D

5.B

6.C

7.C

8.D

9. D

10. D

11.D

12.C

13.D

14. B

15.C

Chemistry
1.B

2.C

3.D

4.B

5.C

6.C

7.D

8.C

9.C

10.C

11.A

12.B

13.D

14.C

15.D

Biology

Physics

1.C

2.B

3.D

4.C

5.D

6.D

7.C

8.B

9.C

10.D
Section II

Single Answer Questions

31. Light year is a unit of:


(a) area

(b) time

(c) Length

(d) volume

32. For measuring the thickness of your little finger, what unit would you prefer?
(a) mm
(b) cm
(c) m

(d) km

33. 1 micron = ________ m


(a) 106

(d) 103

(b) 106

(c) 103

34. 1 m/s = _________ kmph


(a)

5
18

(b)

18
5

35. Symbols for units are usually written in


(a) Small letters
(b) capital letters

(c)

9
5

(c) Bold letters

(d)

5
9

(d) None of the above

36. A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 30 minutes and then with a speed of 50 km/h for the next 30 minutes. The
total distance covered by the car is
(a) 100 km
(b) 45 km
(c) 65 km
(d) 50 km
37. If the car is parked on a side road then the distance time graph showing this is

38. An example for combined motion (both linear and circular)


(a) Smoke coming out from a chimney
(b) swinging pendulum
(c) Movement of a flag on the flag post
(d) wheel of a car running on a road
39. Refer to the distance time graph and identify the body moving with
fastest speed
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

40. How many quintals make one ton?


(a) 0.1
(b) 100

(c) 1000

41. Arrange the following lengths in the increasing order of their magnitude
(i) 1 meter
(ii) 1 centimeter
(iii) 1 kilometer
(a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

(d) 10
(iv) 1 millimeter
(d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

42. While measuring the length of a knitting needle, the reading of the scale at one end is 4.1 cm and at the other end is
33.4 cm. What is the length of the needle?
(a) 29.0 cm
(b) 29.3 cm
(c) 37.5 cm
(d) 37.5 mm
Use the information below to answer Number
13 & 14. Lee is planning an experiment to
compare the velocity v d / t of four objects
with different masses and shapes when they
are dropped from different heights. Lee must
use only equipment from the diagram below to
conduct his experiment.

43. Which pieces of equipment are needed to calculate the velocity of a falling object?
(a) Stopwatch and balance
(b) speedometer and magnet
(c) Compass and tape measure
(d) tape measure and
stopwatch
44. For his experiment, Lee made the list of steps below. The steps are not arranged in the correct order.
7. Measure the height from which the objects will fall.
8. Drop each object from the location marked
9. Calculate the velocity for each object
10. Mark the point from which each object must be dropped
11. Record the time it takes the objects to fall.
12. Measure the mass of each object.
What is the correct order of steps for this investigation?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3
(b) 2, 6, 5, 3, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 5, 3, 1, 6
(d) 6, 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
45. How many seconds are there in one day
(a) 60 seconds
(b) 3600 seconds

(c) 86400 seconds

Chemistry

(d) None of these

Section III
Single Answer Questions

31. We are not able to see the air because


(a) it has strong intermolecular force of attraction
(c) they are present as single particles

(b) it has less intermolecular space in between them


(d) they move very fast

32. Sugar is made up of


(a) hydrogen and carbon
(c) carbon, hydrogen & nitrogen

(b) carbon, hydrogen & oxygen


(d) sodium, carbon, oxygen & hydrogen

33. Frosted glass is


(a) Transparent

(c) Translucent

(b) Opaque

34. Why do we make vessels out of metals?


(a) They are good conductors of heat

(d) Glittery

(b) They are good conductors of electricity

(c) They are sonorous


35. Kerosene with petrol forms
(a) miscible solution

(d) All the above


(b) immiscible solution (c) suspension

36. Which of the following is not a property of mercury?


(a) lustrous
(b) high melting point

(d) none of these

(c) conducts electricity (d) none of the above

37. Which of the following statements is wrong?


(a) Gases are moderately soluble in water
(b) Air contains nitrogen in it
(c) Human beings breathe oxygen present in the air (d) Air contains CO2 which is poisonous in nature
38. Which of the following forms heterogeneous mixture?
(a) salt & water
(b) sugar & water

(c) salt & sugar

(d) nitrogen & oxygen

39. Which of the following relationships is correct? ( density, m mass, v volume)


(a) m V

(b) V m

40. Copper metal is used to make wire because


(a) it is a good conductor of electricity
(c) it is economical

(c)

V
m

(d) mV

(b) it is ductile
(d) all the above

41. Which of the following is a correct statement?


(a) Classification is done only for living things
(b) Classification is done only for non-living things
(c) Classification is done to know how the members of a group differ from those of other groups.
(d) none of the above
42. Gases donot have a fixed volume because
(a) it is a fluid
(c) it has very high intermolecular space

(b) it consists of several tiny particles


(d) the particles attract each other

43. Which of the following is not a matter?


(a) Paper
(b) Water

(c) Nitrogen

(d) smell

44. Which of the following substances can be made with only one material?
(a) Sofa set
(b) Pulao
(c) Spoon

(d) all the above

45. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat?


(a) Gold
(b) Graphite

(d) Salt water

(c) Oxygen

Biology

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

21. Water soluble vitamins are


(a) A&C

(b) E&K

(c) B&C

(d) C&K

22. Find out the correct pair


(a) Vitamin c Scurvy

(b) Retinol Beriberi

(c) Iron Goitre

(d) Vitamin B- Rickets

23. Which of the following does not have nutritive value, yet needed in our diet?
(a) Minerals
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins
24. Choose the correct statement

(d) Roughage

(a) Fats required for the body building


(b) Fats provide more energy than Carbohydrates
(c) Roughage is obtained from both plants and animal foods (d)Vitamins and Minerals are macronutrients
25. Amino acids are the components of
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Proteins

(c) Fatty acids

(d) Carbohydrates

26. Iodine turns blue black colour on reacting with the stored food of
(a) Beans
(b) Groundnuts
(c) Pulses

(d) Potatoes

27. Essential part of blood and urine, that regulates our body temperature is
(a) Water
(b) Minerals
(c) Fats

(d) Vitamins

28. Proper formation of bones and teeth require


(a) Iron & Chlorine
(b) Sodium & Chlorine (c) Calcium & Phosphorous (d) Sodium & Potassium
29. Biuretic test is done to identify
(a) Glucose

(b) Starch

(c) Fat

(d) Protein

30. Butter and ghee are the major sources of


(a) Fats (b) Proteins
(c) Vitamins
(d) Minerals
Mathematics
Section V
Single Answer Questions
36. The sum of all positive composite integers between 1 and 100 which are relatively prime to 100 is
(a) 940
(b) 942
(c) 944
(d) 946
37. The sum of all the numbers representing the dates of the 12 months from January to December 2011 is

(a) 5736

(b) 5737

38. Which of these fraction is nearest to 1?


12
56
(a)
(b)
23
67

(c) 5738

(c)

34
45

9d) 5739

(d)

23
34

3 1 10
39. If 3 1 then * is equal to
* * *

(a) 1
y 2
40. If

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

1
2

(a)

1
2
29
2

1
2

then y =

(b)

29
4

(c)

29
12

(d) None of these

41. 15 3 15 10 3 14 7 14 10 3

(a) 14

(b) 13

42. Whcih of the following is not true?


2 1
5 8
(a)
(b)
9 5
7 9

(c) 15
2
7

(c)

(d) 16
1
4

(d) None of these

2 23 9 11
4
and
43. If , , ,
are written from smallest to largest then which will be the middle fraction?
3 30 10 15
5

(a)

2
3

(b)

23
30

(c)

9
10

(d)

4
5

44. Two positive integers have a sum of 11. The greatest possible product of these two positive integers is

(a) 11

(b) 18

(c) 35

(d) 30

45. If P = 1000 and Q = 0.091. Which of the following calculations gives the largest result?
P
Q
(a) P + Q
(b) P Q
(c)
(d)
Q
P
46. In the diagram, all rows, columns and diagonals have the same

sum. Then x is equal to


(a) 16
(c) 19
47. A fraction is equivalent to

(b) 17
(d) 18
5
, its denominator and numerator add upto 91. What is the difference between of its
8

denominator and numerator?


(a) 19

(b) 20

(c) 21

(d) 22

48. The value of the expression 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 is

(a) 4

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) 2

49. Two thirds of the people in a room are seated in three fourths of the chairs. The rest of the people are standing. If

there are 6 empty chairs, how many people are in the room?
(a) 28
(b) 27
(c) 26
50. The fraction 101

(d) 29

27
in decimal form is
100000

(a) 0.01027

(b) 0.10127

(c) 101.00027

(d) 101.000027

51. How many digits will be there to the right of the decimal point in the product of 95.75 and 0.02554?

(a) 5

(b) 6

52. Which of the following fraction is greater than

(a)

1
2

(b)

2
3

(c) 7
5
3
and less than ?
6
4
4
(c)
5

(d) 8

(d)

9
10

53. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Y increases by 15 paise

every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year
commodity X will cost 40 paise more than the commodity?
(a) 2010
(b) 2011
(c) 2012
(d) 2013
54. If

144 14.4

then the value of x is


0.144
x

(a) 0.0144

(b) 1.44

(c) 14.4

55. Which of the following are in descending order of their value?


1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) , , , , ,
(b) , , , , ,
(c) , , , , ,
3 5 7 5 6 7
3 5 5 7 6 7
3 5 5 6 7 7

(d) 144
6 5 4 3 2 1
7 6 5 7 5 3

(d) , , , , ,

56. What is the sum of two consecutive even numbers, the difference of whose squares is 84?

(a) 34

(b) 38

(c) 42

(d) 46

57.

0.0203 2.92
?
0.0073 14.5 0.7

(a) 0.8

(b) 1.45

(c) 2.40

(d) 3.25

(c) 0.00027

(d) 0.000126

(c) 17.2

(d) 172

58. What decimal of an hour is a second?

(a) 0.0025

(b) 0.0256

59. If 2994 14.5 = 172 then 29.94 1.45 ?

(a) 0.172

(b) 1.72

60. The average of ten different positive integers is 10. The smallest is 5. The biggest of these numbers can be

(a) 55

(b) 49

(c) 25

(d) 19

61. One hundred flowers were kept in 4 baskets. After some time, 4, 5, 3 and 8 flowers were taken out from the first,

second, third, and fourth baskets respectively. Now all the 4 baskets have the same number of flowers. The number
of flowers in the fourth basket at the beginning was
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 28
(d) 23
62. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

(a) 1

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) none

63. If the digits A, B and C are added, the sum is the two-digit number AB as shwon at the right. What is the value of

C?

(a) 0

(b) 9

(c) 1

(d) 8

A
+B
+C
AB

64. If a is divided by b, the result is

5
3
. If b is divided by c the result is . What is the result when a is divided by
6
4

c?
(a)

8
5

(b)

15
13

(c)

10
9

(d)

5
8

65. When a number N is divided by 3, the result is the same as when N is decreased by 8. What is the number N?

(a) 12

(b) 8

(c) 11

(d) 10

66. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 18

(d) 21

67. See the following number tree.

The second row contains the numbers 2, 3. The third row contains the numbers 4, 5, 6, 7 etc. Then the sum of the
numbers in the sixth row is
(a) 1420
(b) 1520
(c) 1320
(d) 1620
68. 42, 40, 38, 35, 33, 31, 28, ?

(a) 25

(b) 26

(c) 24

(d) 27

(c) 4.7

(d) 6.1

69. 1.5, 2.3, 3.1, 3.9, .what number should come next?

(a) 4.2

(b) 4.4

70. 3.87 2.59 ?

(a) 1.20

(b) 1.2

(c) 1.27

*******

(d) 1.28

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 2 - ANSWER KEYS

1. C

2. A

Social Science
3. D
4. B

6. B

7. D

8. C

9. C

10. D

11. B

12. B

13. C

14. A

15. D

16. B

17. C

18. D

19. B

20. A

5. C

Physics
1.C

2.A

3.B

4.B

5.A

6.B

7.A

8.D

9.A

10.D

11.C

12.B

13.D

14.D

15.C

Chemistry
1. C

2. B

3.C

4.A

5.A

6. B

7.D

8.C

9.A

10. D

11.C

12.C

13.D

14.C

15.C

Biology

21. C

22. A

23. D

24. B

25. B

26. D

27. A

28. C

29. D

30. A

Mathematics

36. D

37. C

38. B

39. D

40. C

41. A

42. D

43. B

44. D

45. C

46. D

47. C

48. A

49. B

50. C

51. B

52. C

53. B

54. A

55. D

56. C

57. A

58. C

59. C

60. D

61. C

62. A

63. B

64. D

65. A

66. A

67. B

68. B

69. C

70. D

Mathematics

Section II
Single Answer Questions
71. The sum of all positive composite integers between 1 and 100 which are relatively prime to 100 is
(a) 940
(b) 942
(c) 944
(d) 946
72. The sum of all the numbers representing the dates of the 12 months from January to December 2011 is

(a) 5736

(b) 5737

73. Which of these fraction is nearest to 1?


12
56
(a)
(b)
23
67

(c) 5738

(c)

34
45

9d) 5739

(d)

23
34

3 1 10
74. If 3 1 then * is equal to
* * *

(a) 1
y 2
75. If

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

1
2

(a)

1
2

1
2

then y =

29
2

(b)

29
4

(c)

29
12

(d) None of these

76. 15 3 15 10 3 14 7 14 10 3

(a) 14

(b) 13

77. Whcih of the following is not true?


2 1
5 8
(a)
(b)
9 5
7 9

(c) 15
2
7

(c)

(d) 16
1
4

(d) None of these

2 23 9 11
4
and
78. If , , ,
are written from smallest to largest then which will be the middle fraction?
3 30 10 15
5
2
23
9
4
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3
30
10
5
79. Two positive integers have a sum of 11. The greatest possible product of these two positive integers is

(a) 11

(b) 18

(c) 35

(d) 30

80. If P = 1000 and Q = 0.091. Which of the following calculations gives the largest result?
P
Q
(a) P + Q
(b) P Q
(c)
(d)
Q
P
81. In the diagram, all rows, columns and diagonals have the same

sum. Then x is equal to


(a) 16
(c) 19

(b) 17
(d) 18

82. A fraction is equivalent to

5
, its denominator and numerator add upto 91. What is the difference between of its
8

denominator and numerator?


(a) 19

(b) 20

(c) 21

(d) 22

83. The value of the expression 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 is

(a) 4

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) 2

84. Two thirds of the people in a room are seated in three fourths of the chairs. The rest of the people are standing. If

there are 6 empty chairs, how many people are in the room?
(a) 28
(b) 27
(c) 26
85. The fraction 101

(d) 29

27
in decimal form is
100000

(a) 0.01027

(b) 0.10127

(c) 101.00027

(d) 101.000027

86. How many digits will be there to the right of the decimal point in the product of 95.75 and 0.02554?

(a) 5

(b) 6

87. Which of the following fraction is greater than

(a)

1
2

(b)

2
3

(c) 7
5
3
and less than ?
6
4
4
(c)
5

(d) 8

(d)

9
10

88. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Y increases by 15 paise

every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year
commodity X will cost 40 paise more than the commodity?
(a) 2010
(b) 2011
(c) 2012
(d) 2013
89. If

144 14.4

then the value of x is


0.144
x

(a) 0.0144

(b) 1.44

(c) 14.4

90. Which of the following are in descending order of their value?


1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) , , , , ,
(b) , , , , ,
(c) , , , , ,
3 5 7 5 6 7
3 5 5 7 6 7
3 5 5 6 7 7

(d) 144
6 5 4 3 2 1
7 6 5 7 5 3

(d) , , , , ,

91. What is the sum of two consecutive even numbers, the difference of whose squares is 84?

(a) 34
92.

(b) 38

(c) 42

(d) 46

(b) 1.45

(c) 2.40

(d) 3.25

(c) 0.00027

(d) 0.000126

(c) 17.2

(d) 172

0.0203 2.92
?
0.0073 14.5 0.7

(a) 0.8

93. What decimal of an hour is a second?

(a) 0.0025

(b) 0.0256

94. If 2994 14.5 = 172 then 29.94 1.45 ?

(a) 0.172

(b) 1.72

95. The average of ten different positive integers is 10. The smallest is 5. The biggest of these numbers can be

(a) 55

(b) 49

(c) 25

(d) 19

96. One hundred flowers were kept in 4 baskets. After some time, 4, 5, 3 and 8 flowers were taken out from the first,

second, third, and fourth baskets respectively. Now all the 4 baskets have the same number of flowers. The number
of flowers in the fourth basket at the beginning was
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 28
(d) 23
97. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

(a) 1

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) none

98. If the digits A, B and C are added, the sum is the two-digit number AB as shwon at the right. What is the value of

C?

(a) 0

(b) 9

(c) 1

(d) 8

A
+B
+C
AB

99. If a is divided by b, the result is

5
3
. If b is divided by c the result is . What is the result when a is divided by
6
4

c?
(a)

8
5

(b)

15
13

(c)

10
9

(d)

5
8

100. When a number N is divided by 3, the result is the same as when N is decreased by 8. What is the number N?

(a) 12

(b) 8

(c) 11

(d) 10

101. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 18

(d) 21

102. See the following number tree.

The second row contains the numbers 2, 3. The third row contains the numbers 4, 5, 6, 7 etc. Then the sum of the
numbers in the sixth row is
(a) 1420
(b) 1520
(c) 1320
(d) 1620
103. 42, 40, 38, 35, 33, 31, 28, ?

(a) 25

(b) 26

(c) 24

(d) 27

(b) 4.4

(c) 4.7

(d) 6.1

(b) 1.2

(c) 1.27

(d) 1.28

104. 1.5, 2.3, 3.1, 3.9, .what number should come next?

(a) 4.2
105. 3.87 2.59 ?

(a) 1.20
Physics

Section III
Single Answer Questions

46. Light year is a unit of:


(a) area

(b) time

(c) Length

(d) volume

47. For measuring the thickness of your little finger, what unit would you prefer?
(a) mm
(b) cm
(c) m

(d) km

48. 1 micron = ________ m


(a) 106

(d) 103

(b) 106

(c) 103

49. 1 m/s = _________ kmph


(a)

5
18

(b)

18
5

50. Symbols for units are usually written in


(a) Small letters
(b) capital letters

(c)

9
5

(c) Bold letters

(d)

5
9

(d) None of the above

51. A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 30 minutes and then with a speed of 50 km/h for the next 30 minutes. The
total distance covered by the car is
(a) 100 km
(b) 45 km
(c) 65 km
(d) 50 km
52. If the car is parked on a side road then the distance time graph showing this is

53. An example for combined motion (both linear and circular)


(a) Smoke coming out from a chimney
(b) swinging pendulum
(c) Movement of a flag on the flag post
(d) wheel of a car running on a road
54. Refer to the distance time graph and identify the body moving with
fastest speed
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

55. How many quintals make one ton?


(a) 0.1
(b) 100

(c) 1000

56. Arrange the following lengths in the increasing order of their magnitude
(i) 1 meter
(ii) 1 centimeter
(iii) 1 kilometer
(a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

(d) 10
(iv) 1 millimeter
(d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

57. While measuring the length of a knitting needle, the reading of the scale at one end is 4.1 cm and at the other end is
33.4 cm. What is the length of the needle?
(a) 29.0 cm
(b) 29.3 cm
(c) 37.5 cm
(d) 37.5 mm

Use the information below to answer Number


13 & 14. Lee is planning an experiment to
compare the velocity v d / t of four objects
with different masses and shapes when they
are dropped from different heights. Lee must
use only equipment from the diagram below to
conduct his experiment.

58. Which pieces of equipment are needed to calculate the velocity of a falling object?
(a) Stopwatch and balance
(b) speedometer and magnet
(c) Compass and tape measure
(d) tape measure and
stopwatch
59. For his experiment, Lee made the list of steps below. The steps are not arranged in the correct order.
13. Measure the height from which the objects will fall.
14. Drop each object from the location marked
15. Calculate the velocity for each object
16. Mark the point from which each object must be dropped
17. Record the time it takes the objects to fall.
18. Measure the mass of each object.
What is the correct order of steps for this investigation?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3
(b) 2, 6, 5, 3, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 5, 3, 1, 6
(d) 6, 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
60. How many seconds are there in one day
(a) 60 seconds
(b) 3600 seconds

(c) 86400 seconds

Chemistry

(d) None of these

Section IV
Single Answer Questions

46. We are not able to see the air because


(a) it has strong intermolecular force of attraction
(c) they are present as single particles

(b) it has less intermolecular space in between them


(d) they move very fast

47. Sugar is made up of


(a) hydrogen and carbon
(c) carbon, hydrogen & nitrogen

(b) carbon, hydrogen & oxygen


(d) sodium, carbon, oxygen & hydrogen

48. Frosted glass is


(a) Transparent

(c) Translucent

(b) Opaque

49. Why do we make vessels out of metals?


(a) They are good conductors of heat
(c) They are sonorous
50. Kerosene with petrol forms

(d) Glittery

(b) They are good conductors of electricity


(d) All the above

(a) miscible solution

(b) immiscible solution (c) suspension

51. Which of the following is not a property of mercury?


(a) lustrous
(b) high melting point

(d) none of these

(c) conducts electricity (d) none of the above

52. Which of the following statements is wrong?


(a) Gases are moderately soluble in water
(b) Air contains nitrogen in it
(c) Human beings breathe oxygen present in the air (d) Air contains CO2 which is poisonous in nature
53. Which of the following forms heterogeneous mixture?
(a) salt & water
(b) sugar & water

(c) salt & sugar

(d) nitrogen & oxygen

54. Which of the following relationships is correct? ( density, m mass, v volume)


(a) m V

(b) V m

55. Copper metal is used to make wire because


(a) it is a good conductor of electricity
(c) it is economical

(c)

V
m

(d) mV

(b) it is ductile
(d) all the above

56. Which of the following is a correct statement?


(a) Classification is done only for living things
(b) Classification is done only for non-living things
(c) Classification is done to know how the members of a group differ from those of other groups.
(d) none of the above
57. Gases donot have a fixed volume because
(a) it is a fluid
(c) it has very high intermolecular space

(b) it consists of several tiny particles


(d) the particles attract each other

58. Which of the following is not a matter?


(a) Paper
(b) Water

(c) Nitrogen

(d) smell

59. Which of the following substances can be made with only one material?
(a) Sofa set
(b) Pulao
(c) Spoon

(d) all the above

60. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat?


(a) Gold
(b) Graphite

(d) Salt water

(c) Oxygen

Biology

Section V
Single Answer Questions

31. Water soluble vitamins are


(a) A&C

(b) E&K

(c) B&C

(d) C&K

32. Find out the correct pair


(a) Vitamin c Scurvy

(b) Retinol Beriberi

(c) Iron Goitre

(d) Vitamin B- Rickets

33. Which of the following does not have nutritive value, yet needed in our diet?
(a) Minerals
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins

(d) Roughage

34. Choose the correct statement


(a) Fats required for the body building
(b) Fats provide more energy than Carbohydrates
(c) Roughage is obtained from both plants and animal foods (d)Vitamins and Minerals are macronutrients

35. Amino acids are the components of


(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Proteins

(c) Fatty acids

(d) Carbohydrates

36. Iodine turns blue black colour on reacting with the stored food of
(a) Beans
(b) Groundnuts
(c) Pulses

(d) Potatoes

37. Essential part of blood and urine, that regulates our body temperature is
(a) Water
(b) Minerals
(c) Fats

(d) Vitamins

38. Proper formation of bones and teeth require


(a) Iron & Chlorine
(b) Sodium & Chlorine (c) Calcium & Phosphorous (d) Sodium & Potassium
39. Biuretic test is done to identify
(a) Glucose

(b) Starch

40. Butter and ghee are the major sources of


(a) Fats
(b) Proteins
*******

(c) Fat

(d) Protein

(c) Vitamins

(d) Minerals

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 2 - ANSWER KEYS

1. C

2. A

Social Science
3. D
4. B

6. B

7. D

8. C

9. C

10. D

11. B

12. B

13. C

14. A

15. D

16. B

17. C

18. D

19. B

20. A

5. C

Mathematics

71. D

72. C

73. B

74. D

75. C

76. A

77. D

78. B

79. D

80. C

81. D

82. C

83. A

84. B

85. C

86. B

87. C

88. B

89. A

90. D

91. C

92. A

93. C

94. C

95. D

96. C

97. A

98. B

99. D

100.

105.

101.

102.

103.

104.

Physics
1.C

2.A

3.B

4.B

5.A

6.B

7.A

8.D

9.A

10.D

11.C

12.B

13.D

14.D

15.C

Chemistry
1. C

2. B

3.C

4.A

5.A

6. B

7.D

8.C

9.A

10. D

11.C

12.C

13.D

14.C

15.C

Biology

31. C

32. A

33. D

34. B

35. B

36. D

37. A

38. C

39. D

40. A

Physics

Section II
Single Answer Questions

3. Which of the following is the unit of distance


(a) square meter
(b) leap year

(c) A light year

(d) wave length

4. 1 micron = __________ m
(a) 10 3

(b) 106

(c) 10 2

(d) 106

5. 10 cm = ______________
(a) 100 mm

(b) 10 mm

(c) 0.01 m

(d) 0.1 mm

6. 100 kg = ____________
(a) 1000 g

(b) 10, 000 g

(c) 1, 00, 000 g

(d) 10, 00, 000g

7. 1 millenium = ___________
(a) 100 years

(b) 100 decades

(c) 100 centuries

(d) 100 days

8. It is advisable to take an average of three readings while making scientific measurements


(a) to make measurement interesting
(b) since three is a good number
(c) to minimize error
(d) to maximize work
9. A pendulum makes 8 complete oscillations in 4 seconds. Then time period (T) of the pendulum is
(a) 0.5 sec
(b) 32 seconds
(c) 2 seconds
(d) 1.5 second
10. 30 SI units of time = ____________________
(a) 1 min
(b) 30 min

(c) 1/2 min

(d) 1/3 min

11. Prefix corresponding to 10, 00, 000 is


(a) milli
(b) mega

(c) kilo

(d) centi

12. A beaker contains 578 mL of water, what is its volume in liters


(a) 0.578 L
(b) 5.78 L
(c) 0.0578 L

(d) 0.00578 L

13. Equivalent time of 18 : 30 on a 12 hours clock is


(a) 8 : 30 pm
(b) 6 : 30 am

(d) 6 : 30 pm

(c) 5 : 30 am

14. Speed of a car is 72km h 1 . This speed can be expressed in ms 1 as


(a) 10 ms 1
(b) 36 ms 1
(c) 20 ms 1

(d) 25 ms 1

15. Fundamental unit among the following is


(a) kilogram
(b) pascal

(c) newton

(d) watt

16. Time duration between two successive noons is called


(a) noon solar day
(b) lunar day

(c) mean solar day

(d) none of these

17. A bottle contain 3 liters of juice. How many milliliters of juice does it contain
(a) 2 102 milliliters
(b) 3 102 milliliters
(c) 2 103 milliliters
Chemistry

(d) 3 103 milliliters

Section III

Single Answer Questions


46. Identify the synthetic fibre among the following.
(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) flax

47. Which of the following statements is true?


(a) Fabrics are made up of yarns
(c) Yarn is a technical term used for thread

(b) Yarns are made up of fibres


(d) all the above are true

48. Cigarette paper is made from ______ fibre


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) jute

49. Cotton plants are usually grown at __________


(a) black soil and cold climate
(c) red soil and warm climate

(b) black soil and warm climate


(d) red soil and cold climate

50. The process of seperation of cotton fibres from seeds is called as __________
(a) spinning
(b) ginning
(c) weaving

(d) none

(d) flax

(d) knitting

51. P : Natural fibres keep the body cool


Q: Natural fibres absorb sweat in hot and humid weather conditions
(a) P and Q are true & Q explains P
(b) P and Q are true & Q does not explains P
(c) P is true, Q is false
(d) P is false, Q is true
52. Which of the following devices is used for spinning cotton?
(a) Hand spindle
(b) Takli
(c) Charkha

(d) All

53. Fabrics are made from yarns by ___


(a) weaving
(b) spinning

(d) both (a) & (c)

(c) knitting

54. Arrangement of two sets of yarns to form a fabric is done by __________


(a) spinning
(b) weaving
(c) knitting

(d) both (b) & (c)

55. The cotton which is used in hospitals is


(a) ginned cotton
(b) sterilised cotton
(c) gun cotton
(d) raw cotton
56. The process of seperating the gummy matter that holds the jute fibres to the inner part of the stem by soaking jute
in water for 2 to 3 days is called _______
(a) weaving
(b) knitting
(c) spinning
(d) retting
57. Which of the following is present in jute?
(a) cellulose
(b) lignin

(c) Heamoglobin

(d) both (a) & (b)

58. Which of the following fibres is versatile than others?


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) jute

(d) wool

59. P: Cotton fields look like a field covered with snow


Q: Hand spindle & charkha can be used for spinning
(a) Both P and Q are true, Q explains P
(b) Both P and Q are true, Q doesnt explain P
(c) P is true, Q is false
(d) P is false, Q is true

60. Which among the following cannot be made of cotton?


(a) paper
(b) net

(c) gunny bag

Biology

(d) both (b) & (c)


Section IV

Single Answer Questions


18. The sugar present in milk is:
(a) Mannose

(b) Sucrose

(c) Lactose

(d) fructose

19. The process of increasing the production of oil and oil seeds is ____________
(a) seed revolution
(b) yellow revolution (c) Brown revolution

(d) fat revolution

20. Milk yielding animals are known as:


(a) Draught animals
(b) White animals

(c) Milch animals

(d) all of the above

21. Identify the cereal yielding plants:


(a) Wheat

(c) oats

(d) all of the above

(b) rice

22. The full form of ATP is


(a) Alkaline tri phosphate
(c) Adenosine tri phenyl

(b) Adenosine tri phosphate


(d) none of the above

23. Percentage of water in our body is:


(a) 7%
(b) 70 %

(c) 0.70 %

(d) 30 %

24. The animals which feed on their own faecal matter are called:
(a) saprophytes
(b) lithophytes
(c) defaecophytes

(d) coprophagous

25. Identify the chemoautotrophs:


(a) virus

(d) ferns

(b) some bacteria

(c) plants

26. The term given to those organisms that eat the members of their own species is_________
(a) neutralism
(b) cannibalism
(c) speciation
(d) evolution
27. The edible part of mustard plants are
(a) seeds
(b) oil

(c) leaves

Mathematics

(d) all of the above

Section V
Single Answer Questions

Pick out the odd one of the following:


76.

(a) cotton

(b) silk

(c) terylene

(d) wool

77.

(a) Cochin

(b) Chennai

(c) Bangalore

(d) Hyderabad

78.

(a) Mango

(b) Banana

(c) Orange

(d) Paddy

79.

(a) Sharukh Khan

(b) Sachin Tendulkar

(c) Abinav Bindra

(d) Vijender Singh

Directions (Questions 5 9): In each of the following questions a series is given. Which one of the alternatives
will replace the question mark (?) ?
80. JD, KF, ?, PM, TR

(a) MI

(b) NJ

(c) NI

(d) OJ

(b) JPW

(c) GPW

(d) JRW

81. BTO, DSQ, FRS, HQU, ?

(a) IPX

82. B, D, G, K, P, ?

(a) U

(b) W

(c) T

(d) none of these

(b) J

(c) F

(d) D

(b) RHN

(c) THN

(d) RGM

83. Z, T, O, K, H, ?

(a) E
84. HZF, IWH, KSJ, NNL, ?

(a) SHM

Questions 10 - 14: Complete the series choosing the correct alternative given
85. 9, 12, 15, 19, 23, 26, 29, 33,_________

(a) 34

(b) 36

(c) 37

(d) 38

(b) 16

(c) 14

(d) 18

(b) 46

(c) 48

(d) 50

(b) 37

(c) 36

(d) 32

(b) 26

(c) 28

(d) 30

86. 10, 16, 12, 18, 14, 20, ___________

(a) 24
87. 4, 7, 11, 16, 22, 29, 37, ________

(a) 44

88. 10, 10, 11, 13, 16, 20, 25, 31,____________

(a) 38
89. 20, 18, 22, 20, 24, 22, 26, ________

(a) 24

Find the missing number by observing the first two figures:


90.

(a) 10

(b) 104

(c) 105

(d) 106

(a) 10

(b) 8

(c) 7

(d) 6

91.

92.

(a) 7

(b) 1

(c) 30

(d) 40

93. As hungry is related to food in the same way thirsty is related to what

(a) Tea

(b) Coffee

(c) Drink

(d) Juice

94. As Mosque is related to Islam in the same way Church is related to what

(a) Hinduism

(b) Sikhism

(c) Christianity

(d) Buddhism

95. How many 7s are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an even number but not followed

by any odd number 4 3 7 5 2 3 7 2 1 3 6 7 5 4 2 7 4 2 7 1 2 2 7 6 5 7 2


(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3

(d) 4

96. How many 5s are there in the following number series which are preceded by 3 but not followed by 2.

5 2 4 3 5 4 6 7 8 5 3 2 5 7 3 5 6 4 2 3 5 4 7 5 2 3 5 8 3 5 6.
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3

(d) 2

97. If the position of Rajan is 15th from one end and 13th from the other end in his class, what is the total number of

students in his class? .


(a) 28

(b) 24

(c) 27

(d) 29

98. The position of Shyamal is 13th from the last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is his position from

the beginning?
(a) 8th

(b) 9th

(c) 7th

(d) 10th

Five members of a family, Rakesh, Mukesh, Roopesh, Vipul and Umesh take food in a definite order
(1) Umesh was next to first man.
(2) Roopesh took food after the man who was before Vipul.
(3) Rakesh was the last man to take food.
99. Who were the first and last men to take food?

(a) Mukesh and Roopesh

(b) Roopesh and Rakesh(c) Umesh and Mukesh (d) Mukesh and Rakesh

100. Who were those two men who took food in order between Mukesh and Vipul ?

(a) Umesh and Rakesh

(b) Rakesh and Roopesh(c) Umesh and Roopesh (d) Can not be determined

101. In a certain language, pre nat bis means smoking is harmful, vog dor nat means avoid harmful habit and

dor bis yel means please avoid smoking. Which of the following means habit in that language ?
(a) vog
(b) nat
(c) dor
(d) bis
102. In a certain coding system, rbm std bro pus means the cat is beautiful, tnh pus dim std means the dog is

brown, pus dim bro pus cus means the dog has the cat. What is the code for has ?
(a) std
(b) dim
(c) bro
(d) cus
103. In a certain code language, put tir fin means delicious juicy fruit, tie dip sig means beautiful white lily and

sig lon fin means lily and fruit. Which of the following stands for and in that language?
(a) lon
(b) sig
(c) fin
(d) none of these
Directions (question 29 to 31): Read the following information and answer the questions given below it:
' A B ' means ' A is the daughter of B'
' A B ' means ' A is the son of B'
' A B ' means ' A is the wife of B' .
104. If

P Q S , which of the following is true ?

(a) S is wife of Q,
(c) P is daughter of Q
105. If

(b) S is father of P
(d) Q is father of P

T S B M , which of the following is not true?


(a) B is mother of S
(c) T is wife of S

106. If

(b) M is husband of B
(d) S is daughter of B

Z T S U P, what is U to Z ?
(a) Mother

(b) Grandmother

(c) Father

(d) Cannot be determined

107. A postman was teturning to the post office which was in front of him to the north. When the post office was 100

metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50 metres to delever the last letter at Shantivilla. He then
moved in the same direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100 metres. How many metres was he
away from the post office ?
(a) 0
(b) 90
(c) 150
(d) 100
108. A boy rode his bicycle northwards, then turned left and rode one km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found

himself exactly one km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northwards initially?
(a) 1 km
(b) 2 km
(c) 3 km
(d) 5 km
Directions: (Questions 34 39) Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked P, Q, R, S & T called
the problem figures followed by four other figures marked a, b, c & d called the answer figures. Select a figure
from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as established by the five problem figures.
109.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

110.

111.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

112.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

113.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(c)

(d)

114.

(a)

(b)

115. From the following letters, which is the 10th letter from the right of the 18th letter from the left corner of the letters?

ABCDEFGHIJ KLM NOPQRSTUVWXYZ


(a) H
(b) Y

(c) A

(d) U

116. If the following letters are written in reverse order, which will be 6 th letter from the left to 10th letter from the right?

ABCDEFGHIJ KLM NOPQRSTUVWXYZ


(a) W
(b) P

(c) D

(d) K

117. How many pairs of letters are such in the word HORIZON having the same number of letters in between them in

the word as they have in alphabetical series?


(a) 1
(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Directions (Q. 43 44) Read the following informations:


Mukesh is taller than Rajiv but shorter than Amar. Suman is taller than Mukesh but shorter than Vinay.
118. If these are arranged in descending order of length, who will be in fourth place?

(a) Amar

(b) Rajiv

(c) Mukesh

(d) Suman

119. Who is the longest?

(a) Vinay

(b) Suman

(c) Rajiv

(d) Cannot be decided

Directions (Question 45 48) : Circle A in the figure below stands for men in a club, circle B for those members
who hold a car driving license and circle c for those who hold a scooter driving license. Which portion represents
120. Men who hold a scooter license only?

(a) e and c
(c) f

(b) e
(d) g

121. Scooter and car licence holders who are not men?

(a) g

(b) e

(c) e and g

(d) not represented

(c) b and e

(d) f

122. Car drivers licence holders only who are not men?

(a) g

(b) b

123. The portion e and f represents

(a) men who are scooter driving licence holders


(b) scooter and car driving licence holders
(c) Scooter and car driving licence holders who are men
(d) none of the above.
Directions (Questions 49 53): The circles below represent politicians, lawyers and rich people.
Which portion in the circles in the figure below.

124. The rich politicians who are not lawyers are represented by the region

(a) e

(b) f

(c) e and f

(d) e, f and g

125. Which portion represents people who are rich, lawyers as well as politicians?

(a) e

(b) f

(c) g

(d) d

126. People who are rich as well as lawyers are represented by the portion

(a) d

(b) g and f

(c) f

(d) e

(c) d and f

(d) f

127. Represents people who are politicians as well as lawyers?

(a) e

(b) g

128. The portion b represents people who are

(a) Politicians and rich


(c) lawyers but neither rich nor politicians

(b) politicians and lawyers


(d) rich as well as politicians and lawyers

Direction (Questions 54 58): Find out the missing number.


129.

(a) 1

(b) 26

(c) 45

(d) 39

(a) 30

(b) 32

(c) 40

(d) 25

(a) 12

(b) 10

(c) 9

(d) 20

(a) 62

(b) 60

(c) 56

(d) 45

(a) 15

(b) 20

(c) 16

(d) 25

130.

131.

132.

133.

Directions: Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked P, Q, R & S called the problem figures
followed by four other figures marked a, b, c & d called the answer figures. Select a figure from amongst the
answer figures which will continue the same series as established by the four problem figures.
134.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(c)

(d)

135.

(a)

(b)

136.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(a)

(b)

137.

(c)

(d)

138.

(c)

(d)

Directions (Questions 64 67): In each of the following questions, there are four figures. Three of them are similar
in some respects, while one is different. Select the figure which is different.
139.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

140.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

141.

142.

(a)
Find the missing letters:

(b)

(c)

(d)

143. a _ c d _ _ b a a _ c d

(a) b d c b

(b) b c a b

(c) a a b d

(d) a c d b

(b) c b a a

(d) a a b c

(d) a c b a

(b) b b b a a

(c) a a a b b

(d) a a b b b

(b) a a a

(c) b b b

(d) a b b

(b) d a b b b

(c) a a b d c

(d) a b a b d

144. a b _ a _ c _ b c _ b c

(a) c b a b
145. a _ _ a b _ _ a a _ b b

(a) b a b a b
146. b a __b b a __ b b __ a b

(a) a a b
147. c _ a _ c d _ b c _ _ b

(a) d b a d a

148. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, which word would be coded as GBNPVT?

(a) FARMER

(b) FAMOUS

(c) FRAMES

(d) FARMES

149. If in a certain language, UTENSIL is coded as WVGPUKN, which word would be coded as DMSFXG?

(a) BKQEVE

(b) BKQDWE

(c) BKQDWF

(d) BKQDVE

150. If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded as ZXCMP?

(a) BZEOR

(b) AYDNQ

(c) AWDLQ

*******

(d) YYBNO

CLASS 6TH RPI TEST 1 - ANSWER KEYS


Social Science
Physics
1.C

2.B

3.A

4.C

5.B

6.C

7.A

8.C

9.B

10.A

11.D

12.C

13.A

14.C

15.D

Chemistry
1. D

2.D

3.D

4.B

5.B

6.A

7.D

8.D

9.B

10.B

11.D

12.D

13.A

14.B

15.D

Biology
1. C

2.B

3.C

4.D

5.B

6. B

7.D

8.B

9.B

10.D

Mathematics
1.C

2.A

3.D

4.A

5.A

6.B

7.D

8.C

9.B

10.C

11.B

12.B

13.A

14.A

15.D

16.B

17.C

18.C

19.C

20.B

21.A

22.C

23.B

24.D

25.C

26.A

27.D

28.A

29.B

30.D

31.B

32.B

33.B

34.D

35.A

36.D

37.D

38.B

39.D

40.A

41.C

42.D

43.C

44.D

45.B

46.A

47.B

48.C

49.A

50.B

51.B

52.C

53.C

54.D

55.A

56.B

57.A

58.C

59.C

60.C

61.C

62.D

63.C

64.A

65.C

66.D

67.D

68.A

69.B

70.A

71.B

72.A

73.B

74.D

75.B

31. Light is a form of


(a) Energy

(b) Vibration

(c) Motion

(d) all of the above

32. Rectilinear propagation of light is defined as


(a) Straight path of light
(c) Zigzag path of light

(b) Curved path of light


(d) None of these

33. Light travels fastest in


(a) Vacuum

(c) water

(b) air

34. We are able to see objects because


(a) they absorb light
(c) all light is refracted through them

(d) Iron

(b) They transmit light


(d) they reflect light

35. Choose the alternative containing only the correct statements.


(P) Light is visible because laser guns shoot visible laser beams (as seen in movies)
(Q) Light is invisible
(R) Light makes objects on which it falls visible
(S) Sunlight can be seen streaming through a hole in the door. So light is visible.
(a) P, Q, R, S
(b) Q, R
(c) P, S
(d) R, S
36. We depend on ____________ energy for our requirements of food, energy and fuel.
(a) Wind
(b) Nuclear
(c) Light
(d) Sound
37. Which of the following are examples of natural sources of light?
(P) Sun
(Q) Moon
(R) Fire flies
(a) P, Q
(b) Q, R
(C) P, Q, R

(S) Candles
(d) S

38. Which of the following are examples of non-luminous objects?


(P) Stars
(Q) Planets
(R) Moon
(a) P, Q
(b) R, S
(c) P, S

(S) Candles
(d) Q, R

39. In periscope two plane mirrors are fixed at the two bends of the tube parallel to each other and inclined at
__________ to the axis of the tube
(a) 300
(b) 600
(c) 900
(d) 450
40. The shape and size of a shadow depends on
(a) the shape and size of the object
(b) the position of the source of light
(c) the distance between the source of light and object
(d) all of the above

41. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II


COLUMN I

COLUMN II

Fire flies

Translucent

Wax paper

Travels in straight line

Light

Luminous

Moon

Non luminous

Which of the following shows the correct matching?


(a) A R; B Q; C P; D S
(b) A R; B P; C S; D Q
(c) A R; B P; C Q; D P
(d) A R; B P; C Q; D S
42. In a region of total solar eclipse
(a) one can see the sun
(b) one can see part of the sun
(c) one cannot see the sun
(d) one cannot see a part of the sun
43. The image formed by a plane mirror
(a) is an erect image
(b) is of the same size as that of object
(c) shows an interchange of right and left
(d) shows all the three characteristics listed above.
44. A beam of light is
(a) a very narrow and consists a single ray
(c) Nothing but source of light
45. The pinhole camera produces
(a) an erect and enlarged image
(c) an inverted and diminished image

(b) broader and consists of several rays


(d) all of the above
(b) an inverted and enlarged image
(d) an erect and diminished image.

Answer keys :
1.A

2.A

3.A

4.D

5.B

6.C

7.C

8.D

9. D

10. D

11.D

12.C

13.D

14. B

15.C

21. In some plants like Grass, Money plant and banyan tree, roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle.
Name the root.
(a) Taproot
(b) lateral root
(c) Adventitious root
(d) Respiratory root
22. The structure which develop from axillary buds are slender and spirally coilded and help plants to climb is called
(a) thorns
(b) tendril
(c) stipule
(d) Bract
23. Veins provide
(a) rigidity to the leaf blade
(b) act as channels of transport for water& minerals
(c) act as channels of transport for food
(d) all of the above
24. The swollen end of the pedicel which bears 4 whorls of flower is called

(a) pulvinus

(b) stolon

(c) thalamus

(d) node

25. The type of phyllotaxy seen in Guava is


(a) Alternate
(b) deccusate

(c) whorled

(d) opposite

26. Sepal is a part of


(a) corolla

(c) anther

(d) calyx

(c) wheat and gram

(d) maize and pea

(b) ovary

27. The internal structure of seed is given. The labeling of the


seed is
(a) plumule, cotyledon, radicle
(b) cotyledon, radicle, plumule
(c) plumule radicle, cotyledon
(d) radicle plumule, cotyledon
28. One cotyledon is present in
(a) gram and pea

(b) wheat and maize

29. Justify the following statements on the basis of external features


(A) underground parts of a plant are not always roots
(B) Flower is a reproductive part
(a) A is true and B is false
(b) A is false and B is true
(c) Both A and B are true (d) both A and B are false
30. The function of stem is
(a) bearing leaves, flowers and fruits
(c) performs photosynthesis

(b) conducts water and minerals


(d) all of the above

Answer keys :
1.C

2.B

3.D

4.C

5.D

6.D

7.C

8.B

9.C

10.D

Single Answer Questions


1. An example for combined motion (both linear and circular)
(a) wheel of a car running on a road
(b) swinging pendulum
(c) moment of a flag on the flag post
(d) smoke coming out from a chimney
2. A car travels the distance between Chennai and Bangalore in 5 hours. If the distance between the two towns is 300
km, what is the average speed of the car?
(a) 40 km/hr
(b) 60 km/hr
(c) 50 km/hr
(d) 55 km/hr
3. To measure the length of your eraser more convenient unit is
(a) centi metre
(b) milli metre
(c) deci metre

(d) Kilo metre

4. One meter is not equal to


(a) 100 cm

(b) 1 km

(c) 1000mm

(d) 10 dm

5. Light year is a unit of:


(a) Length

(b) time

(c) area

(d) volume

6. Which among the following is not an SI unit?


(a) Metre
(b) kilogram

(c) centimeter

(d) second

7. Refer to the distance time graph and identify the body moving with fastest
speed
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

8. Symbols for units are usually written in


(a) Small letters
(b) capital letters

(c) Bold letters

(d) None of the above

ANSWER KEYS
1.A

2.B

3.A

6.C

7.A

8. A

4.B

5. A

9. The process of combing to separate cotton fibres from seeds is called


(a) weaving
(b) ginning
(c) spinning

(d) throwing

10. The smallest particle of a compound is


(a) atom
(b) proton

(c) molecule

(d) electron

11. A material, that breaks easily, when beaten or pressed is


(a) malleable
(b) ductile

(c) brittle

(d) sonorous

12. Gun cotton is


(a) used in textiles
(c) used in mattresses

(b) used as explosive


(d) used for cleaning machines

13. Retting is
(a) arranging two sets of yarns together
(c) soaking jute in water

(b) separating fibres from seeds


(d) harvesting jute plants

14. Since metals are sonorous, they can be used for making
(a) machines
(b) ships

(c) cables

(d) bells

15. A solution is prepared by mixing 2ml water and 8 ml alcohol, then the solvent is
(a) water
(b) alcohol
(c) a & b

(d) none

16. The gummy matter that holds the jute fibres to inner part of the stem are eaten away by ________ during soaking.
(a) fungus
(b) virus
(c) bacteria
(d) insects
ANSWER KEY:
1.B
6.D

7.B

2.C
8.C

61. Light year is a unit of:

3.C

4.B

5.C

(a) area

(b) time

(c) Length

(d) volume

62. For measuring the thickness of your little finger, what unit would you prefer?
(a) mm
(b) cm
(c) m

(d) km

63. 1 micron = ________ m


(a) 106

(d) 103

(b) 106

(c) 103

64. 1 m/s = _________ kmph


(a)

5
18

(b)

18
5

65. Symbols for units are usually written in


(a) Small letters
(b) capital letters

(c)

9
5

(c) Bold letters

(d)

5
9

(d) None of the above

66. A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 30 minutes and then with a speed of 50 km/h for the next 30 minutes. The
total distance covered by the car is
(a) 100 km
(b) 45 km
(c) 65 km
(d) 50 km
67. If the car is parked on a side road then the distance time graph showing this is

68. An example for combined motion (both linear and circular)


(a) Smoke coming out from a chimney
(b) swinging pendulum
(c) Movement of a flag on the flag post
(d) wheel of a car running on a road
69. Refer to the distance time graph and identify the body moving with
fastest speed
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

70. How many quintals make one ton?


(a) 0.1
(b) 100

(c) 1000

71. Arrange the following lengths in the increasing order of their magnitude
(i) 1 meter
(ii) 1 centimeter
(iii) 1 kilometer
(a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

(d) 10

(iv) 1 millimeter
(d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

72. While measuring the length of a knitting needle, the reading of the scale at one end is 4.1 cm and at the other end is
33.4 cm. What is the length of the needle?
(a) 29.0 cm
(b) 29.3 cm
(c) 37.5 cm
(d) 37.5 mm

Use the information below to answer Number


13 & 14. Lee is planning an experiment to
compare the velocity v d / t of four objects
with different masses and shapes when they
are dropped from different heights. Lee must
use only equipment from the diagram below to
conduct his experiment.

73. Which pieces of equipment are needed to calculate the velocity of a falling object?
(a) Stopwatch and balance
(b) speedometer and magnet
(c) Compass and tape measure
(d) tape measure and stopwatch
74. For his experiment, Lee made the list of steps below. The steps are not arranged in the correct order.
19. Measure the height from which the objects will fall.
20. Drop each object from the location marked
21. Calculate the velocity for each object
22. Mark the point from which each object must be dropped
23. Record the time it takes the objects to fall.
24. Measure the mass of each object.
What is the correct order of steps for this investigation?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3
(b) 2, 6, 5, 3, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 5, 3, 1, 6
(d) 6, 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
75. How many seconds are there in one day
(a) 60 seconds
(b) 3600 seconds

(c) 86400 seconds

(d) None of these

Answer keys:
1.C

2.A

3.B

4.B

5.A

6.B

7.A

8.D

9.A

10.D

11.C

12.B

13.D

14.D

15.C

1. What is the ingredient present in chappathi?


(a) Rice
(b) pulse

(c)atta

(d) greens

2. Pick out the odd one out


(a)Milk

(c) papaya

(d) egg

3. The part of mustard plant that give us oil is


(a)Seeds
(b) roots

(c) leaves

(d) flowers

4. Human can be grouped as


(a) Herbivore

(c) carnivore

(d) omnivore

(b) meat

(b) producer

5. A food item, treated with iodine solution gives blue black colour. The nutrient in the food is
(a) Protein
(b) carbohydrate
(c) fat
(d) fibre content
6. The nutrient needed for body building is
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) proteins

(c) fats

(d) vitamins

7. The roughage in a balanced diet is a rich source of protective food.


(a) True
(b) false
(c) roughage is not a part of balanced diet
(d) All of these
8. Pick the odd one out
(a) Kwarshiorkar

(b) scurvy

(c) rickets

(d) beri beri

ANSWER KEY:
1. C

2. C

3. A

6. B

7. B

8. A

4. D

5. B

9. Which of the following is matter?


(a) Love

(b) Heat

(c) Air

(d) Hatred

(c) sodium

(d) calcium

(c) charcoal

(d) all

10. A metal which exists as liquid at room temperature is


(a) bromine

(b) mercury

11. Which of the following is a combustible material?


(a) wood

(b) coal

12. Ductility is a property in which metal


(a) can be made into sheets
(b) can be drawn into wires
(c) can be mixed with another metal at high temp
(d) melts at room temperature

13. The density of water is high which makes it __________ when mixed with oil
(a) float

(b) sink

(c) equally dispersed

(d) cant say

14. The non-biodegradable fibre among the following is


(a) Jute

(b) flax

(c) acrylic

(d) wool

15. Jute fibre is mainly obtained from _______ of jute plant.


(a) fruit

(b) flower

(c) root

(d) stem

16. The quality of cotton mainly depends on


(a) type of seed
(c) geographical location

(b) soil
(d) all

ANSWER KEY:
1. C
6.C

7.D

2.B

3.D

4.B

5.B

8.D

1. Which of the following is impure substance?


(a) oxygen
(b) carbondioxide

(c) aluminium

(d) brass

2. Solid-liquid homogeneous mixture among the following is


(a) oil & water
(b) milk & water

(c) salt & water

(d) sand & water

3. Filtration technique is used to separate a heterogenous mixture of


(a) solid & solid
(b) solid & liquid
(c) liquid & liquid

(d) all

4. The method which is used to remove lighter particles (impurities) from heavier particles is
(a) threshing
(b) winnowing
(c) sieving
(d) filtration
5. Which of the following can be separated into its individual components by physical methods of separation?
(a) Element
(b) compound
(c) mixture
(d) all
6. Distillation is a technique which constitutes
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation

(c) filtration

(d) both a & b

7. A mixture of iron & sand is separated by


(a) filtration
(b) evaporation

(c) separating funnel

(d) magnet

8. An insoluble solid from a liquid is separated by


(a) sieving
(b) separating funnel

(c) filtration

(d) evaporation

9. The technique threshing can be done


(a) manually
(b) machines

(c) both a & b

(d) none

10. Cleaning rice with water is an example of


(a) sieving
(b) sedimentation

(c) threshing

(d) winnowing

11. In a mixture of salt & water, salt can be obtained by


(a) separating funnel
(b) filtration

(c) decantation

(d) evaporation

12. Which of the following is an example of miscible liquids?


(a) milk & water
(b) water & kerosence (c) water & oil

(d) both b & c

13. A heterogeneous mixture among the following is


(a) steel
(b) smoke

(d) cool drink

(c) air

14. A separation technique which is based on the differences in size of particles is


(a) sedimentation
(b) threshing
(c) sieving

(d) decantation

15. The solid component which settles at the bottom during sedimentation is called
(a) sediments
(b) decanted liquid
(c) supernatant

(d) residue

ANSWER KEY:
1. D

2.C

3.B

4.B

5.C

6.D

7.D

8.C

9.C

10.B

11.D

12.A

13.B

14.C

15.A

1. We are not able to see the air because


(a) it has strong intermolecular force of attraction

(b) it has less intermolecular space in between them

(c) they are present as single particles

(d) they move very fast

2. Sugar is made up of
(a) hydrogen and carbon
(c) carbon, hydrogen & nitrogen

(b) carbon, hydrogen & oxygen


(d) sodium, carbon, oxygen & hydrogen

3. Frosted glass is
(a) Transparent

(c) Translucent

(b) Opaque

4. Why do we make vessels out of metals?


(a) They are good conductors of heat
(c) They are sonorous
5. Kerosene with petrol forms
(a) miscible solution

(b) They are good conductors of electricity


(d) All the above

(b) immiscible solution (c) suspension

6. Which of the following is not a property of mercury?


(a) lustrous
(b) high melting point

(d) Glittery

(d) none of these

(c) conducts electricity (d) none of the above

7. Which of the following statements is wrong?


(a) Gases are moderately soluble in water
(b) Air contains nitrogen in it
(c) Human beings breathe oxygen present in the air
(d) Air contains CO2 which is poisonous in nature
8. Which of the following forms heterogeneous mixture?
(a) salt & water
(b) sugar & water

(c) salt & sugar

(d) nitrogen & oxygen

9. Which of the following relationships is correct? ( density, m mass, v volume)


(a) m V

(b) V m

10. Copper metal is used to make wire because


(a) it is a good conductor of electricity
(c) it is economical

(c)

V
m

(d) mV

(b) it is ductile
(d) all the above

11. Which of the following is a correct statement?


(a) Classification is done only for living things
(b) Classification is done only for non-living things
(c) Classification is done to know how the members of a group differ from those of other
groups.
(d) none of the above
12. Gases donot have a fixed volume because
(a) it is a fluid
(c) it has very high intermolecular space

(b) it consists of several tiny particles


(d) the particles attract each other

13. Which of the following is not a matter?


(a) Paper
(b) Water

(c) Nitrogen

14. Which of the following substances can be made with only one material?
(a) Sofa set
(b) Pulao
(c) Spoon
15. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat?

(d) smell
(d) all the above

(a) Gold

(b) Graphite

(c) Oxygen

(d) Salt water

ANSWER KEY:
1. C

2. B

3.C

4.A

5.A

6. B

7.D

8.C

9.A

10. D

11.C

12.C

13.D

14.C

15.C

1. Identify the synthetic fibre among the following.


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) flax

2. Which of the following statements is true?


(a) Fabrics are made up of yarns
(c) Yarn is a technical term used for thread

(b) Yarns are made up of fibres


(d) all the above are true

3. Cigarette paper is made from ______ fibre


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) jute

4. Cotton plants are usually grown at __________


(a) black soil and cold climate
(c) red soil and warm climate

(b) black soil and warm climate


(d) red soil and cold climate

5. The process of seperation of cotton fibres from seeds is called as __________


(a) spinning
(b) ginning
(c) weaving

(d) none

(d) flax

(d) knitting

6. P : Natural fibres keep the body cool


Q: Natural fibres absorb sweat in hot and humid weather conditions
(a) P and Q are true & Q explains P
(b) P and Q are true & Q does not explains P
(c) P is true, Q is false
(d) P is false, Q is true
7. Which of the following devices is used for spinning cotton?
(a) Hand spindle
(b) Takli
(c) Charkha

(d) All

8. Fabrics are made from yarns by ___


(a) weaving
(b) spinning

(d) both (a) & (c)

(c) knitting

9. Arrangement of two sets of yarns to form a fabric is done by __________


(a) spinning
(b) weaving
(c) knitting

(d) both (b) & (c)

10. The cotton which is used in hospitals is


(a) ginned cotton
(b) sterilised cotton
(c) gun cotton
(d) raw cotton
11. The process of seperating the gummy matter that holds the jute fibres to the inner part of the stem by soaking jute
in water for 2 to 3 days is called _______
(a) weaving
(b) knitting
(c) spinning
(d) retting
12. Which of the following is present in jute?
(a) cellulose
(b) lignin

(c) Heamoglobin

(d) both (a) & (b)

13. Which of the following fibres is versatile than others?


(a) cotton
(b) silk

(c) jute

(d) wool

(c) gunny bag

(d) both (b) & (c)

14. P: Cotton fields look like a field covered with snow


Q: Hand spindle & charkha can be used for spinning
(a) Both P and Q are true, Q explains P
(b) Both P and Q are true, Q doesnt explain P
(c) P is true, Q is false
(d) P is false, Q is true
15. Which among the following cannot be made of cotton?
(a) paper
(b) net
ANSWER KEY
1. D

2.D

3.D

4.B

5.B

6.A

7.D

8.D

9.B

10.B

11.D

12.D

13.A

14.B

15.D

1. The sugar present in milk is:


(a) Mannose

(b) Sucrose

(c) Lactose

(d) fructose

2. The process of increasing the production of oil and oil seeds is ____________
(a) seed revolution
(b) yellow revolution (c) Brown revolution

(d) fat revolution

3. Milk yielding animals are known as:


(a) Draught animals
(b) White animals

(c) Milch animals

(d) all of the above

4. Identify the cereal yielding plants:


(a) Wheat

(c) oats

(d) all of the above

(b) rice

5. The full form of ATP is


(a) Alkaline tri phosphate
(c) Adenosine tri phenyl

(b) Adenosine tri phosphate


(d) none of the above

6. Percentage of water in our body is:


(a) 7%
(b) 70 %

(c) 0.70 %

(d) 30 %

7. The animals which feed on their own faecal matter are called:
(a) saprophytes
(b) lithophytes
(c) defaecophytes

(d) coprophagous

8. Identify the chemoautotrophs:


(a) virus

(d) ferns

(b) some bacteria

(c) plants

9. The term given to those organisms that eat the members of their own species is_________
(a) neutralism
(b) cannibalism
(c) speciation
(d) evolution
10. The edible part of mustard plants are
(a) seeds
(b) oil

ANSWER KEYS

(c) leaves

(d) all of the above

1. C
6. B

7.D

2.B
8.B

9.B

3.C

4.D

5.B

10.D

1. The method of preparing compost with the help of red worms is


(a) Wormi composting
(b) vermi composting (c) soil composting

(d) redi composting

SOL : B
2. Deserts, mountains and grasslands are
(a) Aquatic habitats
(b) terrestrial habitats (c) soil habitats

(d) not habitats

SOL : B
3. Breathing is a part of a process called
(a) Reproduction
(b) excretion

(c) locomotion

(d) respiration

(c) air

(d) water

SOL : D
4. Identify the biotic component
(a) Soil

(b) plants

SOL : B
5. Growth is
(a) Observed in plants only
(c) Observed in humans only

(b) observed in animals only


(d) observed in all living organisms

SOL : D
6. Plastic bags are
(a) Recyclable
(c) used in huge quantity

(b) non recyclable


(d) eco friendly

SOL : B
7. The area in which the garbage collected from city or town is dumped is known as
(a) House
(b) play ground
(c) dustbin

(d) landfill

SOL : D
8. Compost reduces the use of
(a) Plastics

(b) water

(c) chemical fertilizers(d) food

SOL : C

1. While eating salted Poha, chillies are removed from it by


(a) sieving
(b) winnowing
(c) threshing
2. Churning can be used to remove

(d) hand picking

(a) tea leaves from tea

(b) stones from grain

3. More of a substance can be dissolved in a solution by


(a) heating it
(b) cooling it

(c) butter from curd

(d) salt from sea water

(c) filtering it

(d) decanting it

4. Filtered water can be further purified and made clear by adding


(a) chlorine
(b) alum
(c) bleaching powder
5. A change may occur by
(a) heating a substance
and b

(d) sugar

(b) mixing it with some other substance (c) both a


(d) none

6. True statement/s is/are


(i) Batter to idli is reversible change
(iii) cold milk to hot milk is reversible change
(a) ii and iii
(b) (i)

(ii) cow dung to biogas is irreversible change


(iv) milk to paneer is reversible change
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii)

7. After fitting the metal rim onto a wooden wheel, cold water is poured over the rim to
(a) expand the rim
(b) contract the rim
(c) make it fit tightly on the wheel
(d) both b and c
8. Heating of wax in a pan is
(a) reversible change
(c) no change

(b) irreversible change


(d) normal change

ANSWER KEY:
1.D
6.A

7.D

2.C

3.A

4.B

5.C

8.A

1. The removal of water, after the heavier component in a mixture settles down is called
(a) sedimentation
(b) decantation
(c) filteration
(d) evaporation
2. The substance added to milk in the making of paneer is
(a) water
(b) butter milk

(c) lemon juice

(d) soda

Match the following


3.
COLUMN I

COLUMN II

(i)

Separating grain from stalks

(a)

Winnowing

(ii)

Separating mixture of components having


different sizes

(b)

Threshing

(iii
)

Separating large sized impurities

(c)

Hand picking

Separating heavier and lighter components


(d) Sieving
of a mixture
The correct match is
(a) (i) c (ii) d (iii) a (iv) b (b) (i) b (ii) d (iii) c(iv) a
(c) (i) b (ii) d (iii) a (iv) c (d) (i) d (ii) b (iii) c (iv) a
(iv)

4. The steps involced in separating a mixture of sand & salt

(a) filteration, decantation


(c) decantation, condensation

(b) evaporation, condensation


(d) decantation , evaporation

5. While preparing lemonade, by mixing lemon juice and sugar in water, ice must be added
(a) along with sugar
(b) before dissolving sugar
(c) after dissolving sugar
(d) at any time
6. While separating a mixture of dry sand and powdered dry leaves, we use the method of
(a) Threshing
(b) winnowing
(c) sieving
(d) filteration
7. Use of strainer while preparing tea is
(a) decantation
(b) sedimentation

(c) filteration

(d) churning

8. True statement among the following is


(a) Threshing can be done with bullocks
(b) In winnowing heavier component is carried away by the wind
(c) Flour and powdered chalk can be separated by hand picking
(d) Decantation is the best method for removing tea leaves after preparing tea.
ANSWER KEY:
1.B

2.C

3.B

6.B

7.C

8.A

1
3
7 7 5
(a) : :
3 2 4

1
2

1. Simplest form of 2 : 3 :1

4.D

5.C

1
4
(b)

1 1 1
: :
3 2 4

2. The ratio between 9 months and 3 years


(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 4

(c) 28 : 42 :15

(d) 2 : 3 : 1

(c) 3 : 10

(d) 4 : 1

3. An office opens at 9 a.m. and closes at 5 p.m. with a lunch interval of 30 minutes. What is the ratio of lunch
interval to the total period in office?
(a) 2 : 7
(b) 7 : 15
(c) 1 : 15
(d) 1 : 16
4. Compare ratios; 7 : 6 and 24 : 9
(a)

7 24

6 9

(b)

7 24

6 9

(c)

7 24

6 9

(d) none of these

5. Which of the following is not equivalent ratio of 6 : 15


(a) 2/5

(b) 18/45

6. Which of the following is equilateral ratio of

pqr
(a)
pqr

qr 3
(b)
p

(c) 24/30

(d)

78
195

q 3r
(c)
p

(d)

p
qr 3

p2q4r 6
p3q3r 3

7. 18, x, x, 50 are in proportion, find the value of x


(a) 900
(b) 300

(c) 30

(d) 45

8. If 16, 12, x are in continuous proportion, find the value of x


(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 9

(d) 16

9. If b is mean proportion between a and c, then ________


(a) b = ac
(b) ac = 2b

(d) a c b 2

(c) ac b 2

10. The ratio of children books in a bookstall to other books is 2 : 11. The total number of children books 250. Then
the total number of books in bookstall
(a) 1375
(b) 1625
(c) 1725
(d) 1825
11. Rajesh completes his work in 3 days if he works for 5 hours daily How many days will he take to complete if he
work 3 hours daily?
(a) 3 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 5 days
12. The ratio of the income to the expenditure of a family is 4 : 3, then the savings if the income is 1224
(a) 276
(b) 416
(c) 516
(d) 306
13. A bike travels 124 km in 2hrs and a train travels 320 km in 3 hrs then the ratio of their speeds
(a) 13 : 15
(b) 31 : 64
(c) 3 : 5
(d) none of these
14. Aravind works in a factory and earns Rs 15000 per month. His wife who is a teacher earns 18000 per month. Then
find the ratio of aravind to their total income
(a) 11 : 5
(b) 5 : 11
(c) 7 : 11
(d) 9 : 11
15. If 168 sets in 8 rows in a Hall. Then in 5 rows how many seats are there _______
(a) 315
(b) 218
(c) 265

(d) 105

16. In Mrs. Jones class 20 students. There are 12 boys and 8 girls. 7 students have brown hair, 10 have blonde hair and
3 have red hair. Then the ratio of students with blonde hair to those that have red hair?
(a) 10 : 3
(b) 7 : 3
(c) 7 : 10
(d) 12 : 7
17. Tom has 13 video games 5 are action games 2 are adventure and the rest are sports. Ratio between sports games to
action games is
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 5 : 2
(c) 6 : 5
(d) 5 : 6
18. If

a b c
abc
then
_________
2 3 4
b
(a) 6

(b) 3

(c) 9

19. The maximum number of points of intersection of three lines in a plane is


(a) 3
(b) 0
(c) 1
20. Which of the following points are not collinear
(a) A, B, C
(b) F, B, D
(c) E, C, G
(d) F, C, G

(d) 12
(d) 2

21. A straight line which cuts two or more straight lines at distinct points is called a _______
(a) Parallel line
(b) Transversal
(c) Perpendicular
(d) Line segment
22. Which of the following length we can measure
(a) Plane
(b) Line

(c) Line segment

(d) Ray

23. The number of points on the boundary of triangles ________


(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4

(d) Infinite

24. The number of lines can pass through the given point ________
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four

(d) Infinite

25. Points lying on the same line are called


(a) Coplaner
(b) concurrent

(c) collinear

(d) none of these

26. The line which bisect the angle is called


(a) median
(b) angle bisector

(c) altitude

(d) none of these

27. How many line segments are there in the following figure:
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 12

28. The polygon if the line segment joining any two points inside it lies completely inside the polygon is called
_______
(a) concave polygon
(b) convex polygon
(c) regular polygon
(d) none of these
29. Write the complement angle of 1/4 of 800
(a) 3400
(b) 1600

(c) 200

(d) 700

30. The supplement angle of 3/4 of 1600


(a) 900
(b) 600

(c) 300

(d) 200

31. The measure of two complementally angles are (2x 7) and (x + 4) then the value of x
(a) 30
(b) 93
(c) 31
(d) 29
32. In the given figure, XOY is a straight line then the value of x
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40

33. On which surface you can draw a line segment


(a) The surface of an egg
(c) The surface of base of cylinder

(b) The surface of orange


(d) The surface of sphere

34. The maximum number of points intersection of two lines


(a) one
(b) two

(c) three

(d) Infinite

35. In a line contains 101 points then it contains


linesegments
(a) 4949
(b) 5050
(c) 102
(d) 5051
ANSWER KEYS:
1.C

2.B

3.C

4.A

5.C

6.B

7.C

8.C

9.C

10.B

11.B

12.D

13.D

14.B

15.D

16.A

17.C

18.B

19.A

20.D

21.B

22.C

23.D

24.D

25.C

26.B

27.D

28.B

29.D

30.B

31.C

32.B

33.C

34.D

35.B

1. Symbolic form of excess of x over y


(a) y x
(b) x y

(c) x + y

(d) None

2. A block of ice is heated from 5 C to 100 C the rise in temperature is ________________


(a) 95
(b) 100
(c) 105
(d) None
3. A person is x years old at present, 5 years ago the age is ____________
(a) x + 5

(b) 5x

(c)

5
x

(d) x 5

4. A book costs x paisa, the number of books can be bought for Rs a is _____________
(a)

a
x

(b)

100a
x

(c)

a
100 x

5. The product of any 3 consecutive natural number is divisible by


(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6

(d)

100
x

(d) 5

6. If 8 be added to four times a number the sum equal to 48, the number is __________
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
7. A number whose half exceeds its one third by 5 is ________________
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30

(d) 40

8. The sum of twice a number and 7 equals half that number plus 16, the number is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10

(d) 12

9. The sum of all the digits of the result of the subtraction 109 9 is _________
(a) 71
(b) 72
(c) 73

(d) 74

0.1 0.01

0.01 0.1

10. Which is equal to


(a) 10.1

(b) 1.10

(c) 1.01

(d) 10.01

11. The cost of 1 liters of milk is Rs. 7.50, then the cost of 30.5 liters of milk is Rs. __________
(a) Rs.225.75
(b) Rs. 223.75
(c) Rs. 228.75
(d) None
12. The value of 3
(a)

1 3 1 1 1
1 2 1
12 4 2 2 3

1
2

13. Simplified value of 2


(a)

188
56

(b) 2

(a) 188

(c) 3

(d) 0

13
56

(d) 3

13
56

(b) 144

(c) 144

(d) None

(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) 7

625 576
(a) 1

16.

(c) 1

1
5 3 1
3 4 is__________
2
7 13 2
188
(b)
56

14. 18 of 59 7 8 26 3 of 5

15.

is __________________

1 50 2 50 3 50 4 50 ........... 100 50
(a) 100

(b) 0

product is __________
(c) 100

17. The sum of 51+52+53++100 is __________


(a) 5050
(b) 3775
18. Given S

(c) 1000

(d) 1000
(d) None

n
2a n 1 d , if d = 1, n = 10 and a = 12, then S is __________
2

(a) 165
19. An example of a trinomial is
(a) x

(b) 170

(c) 175

(d) 180

(b) x 2 y 2

(c) x 3 y3 z3

(d) xyz

(c) 4

(d) 5

20. n3 n is divisible by _____________[n is natural numbers]


(a) 7
(b) 3

21. Given N = 1 + 50 + 502+503++502011 units digit is __________


(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2

(d) 3

22. The sum of 6 abc2 , 2 abc 2 and 4 abc 2 is


(a) 12 abc 2
(b) 8abc 2

(c) 8a 2 bc

(d) 8 abc

23. Number of tens in twenty thousand is


(a) 20
(b) 200

(c) 2000

(d) 1000

24. The unit digit in 20162016 is____________________


(a) 6
(b) 7
25. 1 1 1 1 1 1 ................ 1
1

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 8
2011

(d) 5

_____________

(c) 2

(d) None

26. 213 113 divided by 10 remainder is ________


(a) 0
(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

27. Given 24 x 2 1 y 2 , if x 1, then y is divisible by


(a) 1
(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) None

28. The LCM of 24, 30, 36 is


(a) 120

(c) 360

(d) 720

1
29. The Value of

(a)

(b) 180

1
1

1
1
1
6

is ___________

6
11

30. What should be added to 5

16
11

(c)

4
3
to get 12 ?
15
5
22
(b)
3

7
6

(d)

1
6

22
22
(d)
4
5
4 2 4
, ,
31. Arrange the following number is descending order 3,
7 14 5
4 2 4
2 4 4
4 4 2

(c)

3 (d) None
(a)
(b) 3
5 14 7
14 7 5
5 7 14
(a)

22
6

(b)

(c)

32. The quotient when 0.00639 is divided by 0.213 is _______________


(a) 0.3
(b) 0.03
(c) 0.003

(d) 3

33. 0.6 0.06 0.006


(a) 0.0216

(d) None

(b) 0.00216

(c) 0.000216

34. How many pieces of equal size can be cut from a rope of 54 mt long, each measure 3
(a) 15
35. Simplify 4

3
mt?
5

(b) 16

(c) 17

(d) 18

(b) 9

(c) -8

(d) -9

5
3
7
2 3 .
2
8
8

(a) 8
Answer keys
1. B

2. C

3. D

4. B

5. C

6. A

7. C

8. A

9. C

10. A

11. C

12. D

13.D

14. C

15. D

16. B

17. B

18. A

19. C

20. B

21. B

22. B

23. C

24. A

25. C

26. A

27. C

28. C

29. B

30. B

31. A

32. B

33. C

34. A

35.A

106. The sum of all positive composite integers between 1 and 100 which are relatively prime to 100 is

(a) 940

(b) 942

(c) 944

(d) 946

107. The sum of all the numbers representing the dates of the 12 months from January to December 2011 is

(a) 5736

(b) 5737

108. Which of these fraction is nearest to 1?


12
56
(a)
(b)
23
67

(c) 5738

(c)

34
45

9d) 5739

(d)

23
34

3 1 10
109. If 3 1 then * is equal to
* * *

(a) 1
y 2
110. If

(a)

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

1
2

29
2

1
2

1
2

then y =

(b)

29
4

(c)

29
12

(d) None of these

111. 15 3 15 10 3 14 7 14 10 3

(a) 14

(b) 13

112. Whcih of the following is not true?


2 1
5 8
(a)
(b)
9 5
7 9

(c) 15
2
7

(c)

(d) 16
1
4

(d) None of these

2 23 9 11
4
and
113. If , , ,
are written from smallest to largest then which will be the middle fraction?
3 30 10 15
5
2
23
9
4
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3
30
10
5
114. Two positive integers have a sum of 11. The greatest possible product of these two positive integers is

(a) 11

(b) 18

(c) 35

(d) 30

115. If P = 1000 and Q = 0.091. Which of the following calculations gives the largest result?

(b) P Q

(a) P + Q

(c)

P
Q

(d)

Q
P

116. In the diagram, all rows, columns and diagonals

have the same sum. Then x is equal to


(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 19
(d) 18

117. A fraction is equivalent to

5
, its denominator and numerator add upto 91. What is the difference between of its
8

denominator and numerator?


(a) 19
(b) 20

(c) 21

(d) 22

118. The value of the expression 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 is

(a) 4

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) 2

119. Two thirds of the people in a room are seated in three fourths of the chairs. The rest of the people are standing. If

there are 6 empty chairs, how many people are in the room?
(a) 28
(b) 27
(c) 26
120. The fraction 101

(d) 29

27
in decimal form is
100000

(a) 0.01027

(b) 0.10127

(c) 101.00027

(d) 101.000027

121. How many digits will be there to the right of the decimal point in the product of 95.75 and 0.02554?

(a) 5

(b) 6

122. Which of the following fraction is greater than

(a)

1
2

(b)

2
3

(c) 7
5
3
and less than ?
6
4
4
(c)
5

(d) 8

(d)

9
10

123. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Y increases by 15 paise

every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year
commodity X will cost 40 paise more than the commodity?
(a) 2010
(b) 2011
(c) 2012
(d) 2013
124. If

144 14.4

then the value of x is


0.144
x

(a) 0.0144

(b) 1.44

(c) 14.4

125. Which of the following are in descending order of their value?


1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) , , , , ,
(b) , , , , ,
(c) , , , , ,
3 5 7 5 6 7
3 5 5 7 6 7
3 5 5 6 7 7

(d) 144
6 5 4 3 2 1
7 6 5 7 5 3

(d) , , , , ,

126. What is the sum of two consecutive even numbers, the difference of whose squares is 84?

(a) 34
127.

(b) 38

(c) 42

(d) 46

(b) 1.45

(c) 2.40

(d) 3.25

0.0203 2.92
?
0.0073 14.5 0.7

(a) 0.8

128. What decimal of an hour is a second?

(a) 0.0025

(b) 0.0256

(c) 0.00027

(d) 0.000126

(c) 17.2

(d) 172

129. If 2994 14.5 = 172 then 29.94 1.45 ?

(a) 0.172

(b) 1.72

130. The average of ten different positive integers is 10. The smallest is 5. The biggest of these numbers can be

(a) 55

(b) 49

(c) 25

(d) 19

131. One hundred flowers were kept in 4 baskets. After some time, 4, 5, 3 and 8 flowers were taken out from the first,

second, third, and fourth baskets respectively. Now all the 4 baskets have the same number of flowers. The number
of flowers in the fourth basket at the beginning was
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 28
(d) 23
132. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

(a) 1

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) none

133. If the digits A, B and C are added, the sum is the two-digit number AB as shwon at the right. What is the value of

C?

(a) 0

(b) 9

(c) 1

(d) 8

A
+B
+C
AB

134. If a is divided by b, the result is

5
3
. If b is divided by c the result is . What is the result when a is divided by
6
4

c?
(a)

8
5

(b)

15
13

(c)

10
9

(d)

5
8

135. When a number N is divided by 3, the result is the same as when N is decreased by 8. What is the number N?

(a) 12

(b) 8

(c) 11

(d) 10

136. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 18

(d) 21

137. See the following number tree.

The second row contains the numbers 2, 3. The third row contains the numbers 4, 5, 6, 7 etc. Then the sum of the
numbers in the sixth row is
(a) 1420
(b) 1520
(c) 1320
(d) 1620
138. 42, 40, 38, 35, 33, 31, 28, ?

(a) 25

(b) 26

(c) 24

(d) 27

139. 1.5, 2.3, 3.1, 3.9, .what number should come next?

(a) 4.2

(b) 4.4

(c) 4.7

(d) 6.1

(b) 1.2

(c) 1.27

(d) 1.28

140. 3.87 2.59 ?

(a) 1.20

ANSWER KEY

1.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

140.

If the

components of a mixture carry different boiling points, which is the possible way to isolate these components?
(a) Evaporation
(b) Fractional distillation
(c) Magnetic separation
(d) Decantation
2. In the lab, a scientist, accidentally, dropped some ball bearings into a beaker of hot water. Which is the best method
to separate them from water?
(a) Use distillation to isolate the water
(b) Evaporate the hot water to get the ball bearings
(c) Use magnet to attract the ball bearings
(d) Hand pick the ball bearings
3. Distillation is not used to separate
(a) a mixture of liquids in a solution
(b) a solvent from a solution
(c) miscible liquids
(d) a solid solid mixture
4. The boiling point of components is important for
(a) sieving
(b) distillation

(c) decantation

(d) magnetism

5. When do we use evaporation to separate components?


(a) a liquid-liquid mixture, in which one of the liquids has a lower boiling point
(b) a solid-liquid mixture, in which solid particles are visible
(c) a solid-liquid mixture, in which solid particles are dissolved
(d) a solid-liquid mixture, in which one of the components sublimes
6. A mixture of alcohol and water is separated by
(a) Sieving
(c) Distillation

(b) Evaporation
(d) Filtration

7. Why do solvent particles leave a solution, when it evaporates?


(a) Air molecules have a strong attraction for solvent particles
(b) The solvent particles are bounced out of the solution by particle movement
(c) The solvent particles are repelled by the solute particles
(d) The solvent particles have enough kinetic energy to escape the liquids surface

8. A chemist would like to extract an oil-soluble substance from a water-soluble based liquid sample. He shakes the
water based sample with an oil solvent and then allows the mixture to settle into two layers. Hence then, he pours
off one of the layers. What was the technique used by the chemist?
(a) Distillation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Separating funnel
(d) Sieving
9. Sand and gravel may be separated from each other by
(a) an evaporating basin
(c) a sieve

(b) a Liebigs condenser


(d) a filter funnel

10. During filtration, the liquid collected in the container, after passing a solution through a filter paper, is called
_______.
(a) Fragments
(b) Residue
(c) Filtrate
(d) none of the above
11. Which technique can be used to get salt from a mixture of salt and sand?
(a) Dissolve the salt; filter the solution; and recrystallise the salt
(b) Decantation
(c) Fractional distillation
(d) Filter the dry mixture, crystallize the salt
12. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Compounds are easy to separate
(b) Compounds have a fixed composition
(c) Compounds do not have a fixed composition
(d) In compounds, the atoms are not connected to one another.
13. Water from a container of boiled potatoes is separated by the method of
(a) evaporation
(b) distillation
(c) sieving

(d) decantation

14. Rain fall is due to _________ of water vapor in the clouds.


(a) evaporation
(b) vaporization

(d) freezing

(c) condensation

15. Which of these is not a method to separat a solid from a liquid?


(a) Sedimentation & Decantation
(b) Filtration
(c) Evaporation
(d) None of the above
ANSWERS:
1.B

2.C

3.D

4.B

5.C

6.C

7.D

8.C

9.C

10.C

11.A

12.B

13.D

14.C

15.D

1. Which of the following processes is used to make a sweater from yarn?


(a) Ginning
(b) Knitting
(c) Spinning

(d) Retting

2. Fibres of jute is separated from stem by the process of


(a) ginning
(b) knitting

(c) spinning

(d) retting

3. Kanchipuram, in Tamilnadu, is famous for


(a) cotton sarees
(b) woolen dresses

(c) silk sarees

(d) synthetic sarees

4. Making cotton clothes by proper cultivation of cotton plants was first done by
(a) Americans
(b) Indians
(c) Chinese

(d) all the above

5. Which of the following tools was used by Gandhiji, to show his protest against British?
(a) Handloom
(b) Powerloom
(c) Takli
(d) Charkha
6. Which of the following statements about looms is correct?
(a) They are operated by hands
(c) They are used for weaving

(b) They are operated by electricity


(d) all the above

7. Which of the following is not an use of cotton plant?


(a) as explosive
(b) in textile industry

(c) to make edible oil

(d) none of the above

8. We feel comfortable, when we wear cotton dresses, because


(a) it has good absorbing property
(b) it doesnt have absorbing property
(c) it dries fast
(d) none of the above
ANSWER KEY:
1.B

2.D

3.C

6.D

7.D

8.A

4.B

5.D

1. 9/10th of world photosynthesis is carried out by


(a) Shrubs
(b) Herbs

(c) algae

(d) trees

2. The principal source of energy for the body is


(a) Protein
(b) carbohydrate

(c) Lipid

(d) Nucleic acid

3. Immediate source of energy is


(a) Sucrose

(c) Glucose

(d) fat

4. The food that gives more calories per unit of mass is


(a) Protein
(b) carbohydrate

(c) vitamins

(d) fat

5. The smallest structural units of proteins are called


(a) peptides
(b) proteoses

(c) amino acids

(d) peptones

6. Fattyacids and glycerol are formed during digestion of


(a) Starch
(b) minerals

(c) proteins

(d) Fat

(b) starch

7. Which of the following is a rich source of energy but does not cause pollution?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Nuclear energy
(c) coal

(d) wood

8. Plants are known as purifier of air due to the process of


(a) Respiration
(b) Photosynthesis

(d) Desiccation

(c) Transpiration

ANSWER KEYS
1.C
6.D

7.A

2.B
8.B

3.C

4.D

5.C

1. Taking in air through our nose is called


(a) Inhalation

(b) Expiration

(c) Exhalation

(d) Combustion

(c) Argon

(d) Nitrogen

2. Which noble gas is present in air, in a considerable amount?


(a) Neon

(b) Oxygen

3. Which process plays an important role in bringing water back to the surface of earth?
(a) distillation
(c) condensation

(b) fractional distillation


(d) all the above

4. Lime water turns milky by passing atmospheric air into it. This experiment proves the presence of ________ in the
air.
(a) oxygen

(b) nitrogen

(c) carbon-dioxide

(d) neon

(b) atmosphere

(c) dissolved air

(d) water

5. Fish take up oxygen from the


(a) soil below water

6. The deposition of water from the atmosphere onto the earth in the form of __________ is called as precipitation
(a) gas or solid or liquid

(b) solid or liquid

(c) solid

(d) liquid

(b) water

(c) space

(d) wind

7. Air in motion is called


(a) soil

8. The major part of the air which does not support burning candle is
(a) oxygen

(b) nitrogen

(c) carbondioxide

(d) hydrogen

ANSWER KEY:
1. A
6. B

7.D

2.C

3. C

4.C

5.C

8.B

1. Taking in air through our nose is called


(a) Inhalation

(b) Expiration

(c) Exhalation

(d) Combustion

(c) Argon

(d) Nitrogen

2. Which noble gas is present in air, in a considerable amount?


(a) Neon

(b) Oxygen

3.
4. Lime water turns milky by passing atmospheric air into it. This experiment proves the presence of ________ in the
air.
(a) oxygen

(b) nitrogen

(c) carbon-dioxide

(d) neon

5. Fish take up oxygen from the


(a) soil below water

(b) atmosphere

(c) dissolved air

(d) water

6. The deposition of water from the atmosphere onto the earth in the form of __________ is called as precipitation
(a) gas or solid or liquid

(b) solid or liquid

(c) solid

(d) liquid

(c) wind

(d) humidity

(c) nails

(d) skin

7. Evaporation is inversely proportional to


(a) temperature

(b) surface area

8. Which part of our body contains the least amount of water?


(a) eye

(b) teeth

ANSWER KEY:
1.A
6.B

7.D

2.C

3.B

4.C

5.C

8.B

1. The name of land habitats on which plants and animals live is


(a) aquatic habitat
(b) desert habitats
(c) terrestrial habitats
2. A dolphin breathes through
(a) air nostrils or blow holes (b) lungs
(c) gills

(d) skin

3. The green fleshy part in a cactus plant is


(a) leaves
(b) stem

(c) flower

(d) polar habitats

(d) root

4. Changes in the surrounding that make an organism to respond is called


(a) revolution
(b) destruction
(c) stimuli

(d) adaptation

5. Pick out the garbage that cannot be converted into compost by red worms
(a) Broken glass piece
(b) vegetable peel
(c) waste food

(d) paper bags

6. Plastics, metals and glass are collected in _________ colour dustbins by municipalities
(a) Red
(b) blue
(c) green
(d) black
7. The garbage collected from a city or town is dumped into
(a) rivers
(b) landfills

(c) electrical furnace

(d) all the above

8. Garbage disposal is responsibility of


(a) Every citizen
(b) only government

(c) red worms

(d) rag pickers

ANSWER KEY:
1.C

2.A

3.B

6.B

7.B

8.A

1. The movable bone in our skull is


(a) Cranium

(b) cheek bone

4.C

(c) upper jaw

5.A

(d) lower jaw

2. Hinge joints allow


(a) Movement in all directions
(c) Gliding movements

(b) back and forth movements


(d) movements in no direction

3. The framework that gives shape to our body is called


(a)Skull
(b)vertebral column

(c) skeleton

(d) limbs

4. How many pairs of legs does a cockroach have?


(a) 3 pairs
(b) 6 pairs

(c) 9 pairs

(d) 12 pairs

5. Where pollen grains are made?


(a) Anther

(c) stigma

(d) sepals

(c) transpiration

(d) respiration

(b) ovary

6. The loss of water through the leaves of a plant is called:


(a) Inspiration
(b) expiration

7. The leaf-like structure that protects the budding flower is called the:
(a) Petal
(b) Sepal
(c) Anther
8. These are all parts of a plant EXCEPT
(a) soil, air, rain
(c) flowers, leaves, roots

(d) Style

(b) stems, seeds, leaves


(d) roots, stems, seeds

Answer keys :
1.D

2.B

3.C

6.C

7.B

8. A

1. Roughage provides
(a) Proteins alone to our body
(c) no nutrients to our body (d) water to our body

4.A

5.A

(b) all nutrients to our body

2. Nitric acid and ammonium hydroxide are used to test the presence of
(a) Sugar
(b) protein
(c)fat

(d) mineral

3. The energy giving components of food are


(a) Carbohydrates and fats (b) proteins and carbohydrates
(c) fats and proteins
(d) vitamins and minerals
4. Kwarshiorkor and marasmus are
(a) Protein deficiency disorders
(c) mineral deficiency disorders

(b)vitamin deficiency disorders


(d)carbohydrate deficiency disorders

5. The edible part in a carrot plant is


(a)Root

(c) leaves

(d) flowers

6. The animal product used as herbal medicine is


(a)Milk
(b) honey

(c)eggs

(d) meat

7. An elephant by its diet is a


(a) Herbivore

(c) omnivore

(d) detrivore

(b) stem

(b) carnivore

8. The source of food is/are


(a)Plants only
(c) both plants and animals

(b) animals only


(d) both do not provide food

ANSWER KEY:
1. C

2.B

3.A

6. B

7.A

8.C

4.A

5.A

1. Ecology which attempts to include all aspects of interaction of all organisms in a given area with both biotic and
abiotic elements of their environment is known as
(a) population ecology
(b) Ecosystem ecology (c) community ecology (d) none of these
2. Stability of ecosystem depends upon
(a) primary productivity
(b) Interchange between producers and consumers
(c) Number of producers
(d) Number of consumers
3. A man made ecosystem is
(a) Less in diversity
(c) Man does not make ecosystem

(b) More in diversity


(d) More stable than natural ecosystem

4. The minimum number of components required for an ecosystem to survive


(a) producer and primary consumer
(b) producers and decomposers
(c) primary consumer and decomposers
(d) primary and secondary consumers.
5. The driving force of ecosystem is
(a) solar energy

(b) Biomass

(c) Producer

(d) Carbohydrate in plants

6. Light loving plants are


(a) Heliophytes

(b) Xerophytes

(c) Lithophytes

(d) None of the above

7. Which of the following is a xerocole?


(a) polar bear
(b) yalk

(c) whale

(d) kangaroo rat

8. A natural ecosystem
(a) depends on man

(c) depends on animals (d) is auto - operated

(b) depends on plants

ANSWER KEYS
1.B
6.A

7.D

2.B

3.A

4.B

8.D

1. The part of the plants that absorb water and minerals from the soil is
(a) Stems
(b) roots
(c) leaves
2. Venation means

5.A

(d) flowers

(a) Pattern of veins in a leaf


(c) Arrangement of leaves

(b) pattern of mid rib in a leaf


(d) arrangement of flowers

3. Kitchen of the plant reminds you of which part of the plant?


(a) Chlorophyll
(b) chloroplast
(c) leaf

(d) flower

4. A plant has leaves with parallel venation. What kind of root is it likely to have?
(a) Dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) no roots
(d) both dicot and monocot roots
5. On the basis of height, plants are classified as
(a) Herbs,shrubs and trees
(c) creepers,twiners and trees

(b) shrubs and trees


(d) runners,shrubs and trees

6. Identify climbers
(a) Pea plant and grape vine
(c) Pumpkin and water melon

(b) Rose plant and lemon plant


(d) lotus and lily

7. The broad green surface of the leaf is called as


(a)Leaf lamina
(b) leaf tip

(c) leaf border

8. Identify the parts of a pistil


(a) Stigma,style,ovary
(c)node,petiole,lamina

(b) filament,anther
(d) calyx,corolla,androecium

(d)leaf base

ANSWER KEYS :
1. B

2.A

3.C

6. A

7.A

8. A

4.B

5.A

1. A complete setup in which the electric current can flow along a closed loop is known as
(a) Battery
(b) Electron flow
(c) Open circuit
(d) Closed circuit
2. The Dry cell contains a chemical paste called
(a) Acid
(b) electrode

(c) electrolyte

3. An electric cell converts


(a) Light energy into chemical energy
(c) Electric energy into light energy

(b) Chemical energy into electric energy


(d) Light energy into electric energy

(d) none of these

4. A bar magnet when suspended freely always points in the


(a) east-west direction
(b) north-south direction
(c) vertically upwards
(d) vertically downwards
5. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Artificial magnets are cheaper than the natural magnets
(b) A magnet can be broken into N and S poles
(c) the distance between the north and south poles of a magnet is its effective length
(d) Poles of magnet lie exactly at its ends
6. A magnet X repels another metal price Y. Then,
(a) Y is necessarily a magnet

(b) Y is necessarily unmagnetised


(c) Y may either be a magnet or an unmagnetised iron piece
(d) Y is necessarily an aluminium piece
7. A magnet can attract
(a) all substances
(c) magnetic substances

(b) non-magnetic substances


(d) none of these

8. Which of these does not use a magnet?


(a) LCD TV
(c) computer hard disk

(b) electric fan


(d)electric heater

Answer keys:
1.D

2.C

3.B

6.A

7.C

8.D

4.B

5.C

1. The presence of which component varies mostly from place to place?


(a) oxygen
(b) nitrogen
(c) CO 2

(d) water vapour

2. Which of the following gas is required to burn the food inside our body?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Helium

(d) Carbon dioxide

3. Which of the following will contain least percentage in air?


(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Argon

(d) Water vapour

4. The percentage of Oxygen in atmospheric air nearly is


(a) 10%
(b) 20%

(c) 90%

(d) 30%

5. Which of the following is supporter of combustion?


(a) Hydrogen gas
(b) Nitrogen gas

(c) Oxygen gas

(d) Helium gas

6. Breathing out of air is called___________


(a) Respiration
(b) Exhalation

(c) inhalation

(d) stomata

7. Which of the following statements is false?


(a) Percentage of Nitrogen content in air is nearly four times as that of Oxygen in air.
(b) Air taken in by human beings is rich in Oxygen
(c) Fish cannot take oxygen which is present in water
(d) Whales come up to the water surface to take in Oxygen from air.
8. Which gas is used up by plants during photosynthesis?
(a)water vapour
(b) oxygen
(c) CO 2
Answer Key
1. D
6.B

7.C

2.A

3.D

4.B

(d) nitrogen

5.C

8.C

1. The process by which plants are able to make their own food is _____________.

(a) Saprophytes

(b)Photosynthesis

(c)Lithotrophic

(d)None of the above.

2. The fibrous indigestible material that is present in food is called as __________.


(a)Carbohydrates

(b)Fats and Lipids

(c) Roughage

(d)Vitamins

(c)Proteins

(d)Vitamins

(c)Codeine

(d)Caffeine

3. What are the body building foods also known as ________?


(a)Carbohydrates

(b)Fats and Lipids

4. ____________ is an alkaloid that is present in coffee.


(a)Opium

(b)Theo bromine

5. Increase in the production of eggs is called as ____________.


(a)Blue Revolution

(b)Green Revolution

(c)Silver Revolution

(d)White Revolution

6. What are milch animals?


(a)Animals that are used for labour purposes
(b)Animals that are used for meat yielding purpose.
(c)Animals that are used for egg yielding purpose.
(d)Animals that are used for milk yielding purposes.

7. An animal whose diet includes only plant materials is ___________.


(a)Omnivores

(b)Carnivores

(c)Herbivores

(d)Sanguivores

(c)Fruits

(d)Wheat

8. Rich sources of carbohydrates include __________.


(a)Eggs

(b)Ghee

ANSWER KEY:
1.B

2.C

3.C

6. D

7.C

8.D

4.D

5.C

1. Vitamins and minerals are mainly considered as


(a) energy giving foods
(c) body building foods

(b) protective foods


(d) balanced diet

2. All are rich source of fats, except


(a) groundnut

(c) potato

(b) butter

3. Indigestibel part of food that provides bulk to faecal matter is called


(a) carbohydrate
(b) mineral
(c) fat
4. Select the correct pair
(a) protein rich food-milk
(c) carnivore-elephant

(b) Herbivove- lizard


(d) omnivore-horse

5. Green plants are called autotrophs because


(a) They are the major source of food to other organisms
(b) Their number is more than others
(c) They prepare their own food
(d) Herbivores feed on them
6. Milk does not contain

(d) ghee
(d) roughage

(a) Fats

(b) vitamin-c

(c) nutrients

(d) proteins

7. Apiculture is rearing and culturing of which of the following on a large scale?


(a) Fish
(b) sheep
(c) Honey bees

(d) silk worms

8. Following plants are rich source of proteins


(a) cereals
(b) spices

(d) pulses

(c) oil plants

ANSWER KEY:
1.B

2.C

3.D

6.B

7.C

8.D

4.A

5.C

1. Why does a person require carbohydrates?


(a) For Energy
(b) For Body Building
(c) For immunity
(c) None of the above
2. Why does a person require proteins?
(a) For Energy
(b) For Releasing double the amount of energy than carbohydrates.
(c) For Immunity and Body building purposes
(d) None of the above
3. Why does person require fats?
(a) For Releasing double the amount of energy than carbohydrates.
(b) For Immunity
(c) For Body building purposes
(d) None of the above
4. Sources of carbohydrates include?
(a) Rice
(b) Oils

(c) Eggs

(d) None of the above

5. Sources of proteins include?


(a) Rice

(b) Oils

(c) Eggs

(d) None of the above

6. Sources of fats include?


(a) Rice

(b) Oils

(c) Eggs

(d) None of the above

7. Iodine test is used to test for ___________.


(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins

(c) Fats

(d) None of the above.

8. Biurette Test is used for _________.


(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins

(c) Fats

(d) None of the above.

1.A
6.B

7.A

2.C
8.B

3.A

4.A

5.C

1. Which is the hottest layer in the atmosphere?


(a) Thermosphere

(b) Mesosphere

(c) Stratosphere

(d) Troposphere

(c) Argon

(d) Nitrogen

2. Which noble gas is present in air, in a considerable amount?


(a) Neon

(b) Oxygen

3. In what way, increase in carbon-dioxide level is harmful to human beings?


(a) ozone depletion

(b) global warming

(c) poisonous

(d) b & c

4. Lime water turns milky by passing atmospheric air into it. This experiment proves the presence of ________ in the
air.
(a) oxygen

(b) nitrogen

(c) carbon-dioxide

(d) neon

5. Statement I: Water is the only substance that exists in all three states on the earth
Statement II: The amount of water that was present on the earth keeps on decreasing day by day
(a) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true and STATEMENT 2 is correct explanation of STATEMENT 1
(b) Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are true but STATEMENT 2 is not correct explanation of STATEMENT
1.
(c) STATEMENT 1 is true, STATEMENT 2 is false.
(d) STATEMENT 1 is false, STATEMENT 2 is true.

6. The deposition of water from the atmosphere onto the earth in the form of __________ is called as precipitation
(a) gas or solid or liquid

(b) solid or liquid

(c) solid

(d) liquid

(c) wind

(d) humidity

(c) nails

(d) skin

7. Evaporation is inversely proportional to


(a) temperature

(b) surface area

8. Which part of our body contains the least amount of water?


(a) eye

(b) teeth

ANSWER KEY:
1.A

2.C

3.B

6.B

7.D

8.B

4.C

5.C

1. The odd one out is


(a) rolling out a roti
(c) blowing a balloon

(b) making paper aeroplane


(d) frying a puri

2. Buring of a candle involves


(a) Physical change
(c) both a and b

(b) Chemical change


(d) none

3. Change of state of a substance can be considered as


(a) irreversible change
(b) chemical change

(c) physical change

4. When a black smith makes tools from a piece of iron the change is
(a) physical
(b) chemical
(c) both a & b

(d) a and b
(d) none

5. When wind manages to separate the components of a mixture, the method of separation is
(a) sieving
(b) winnowing
(c) threshing
(d) handpicking
6. Sugar can dissolve more in
(a) ice cold water
(c) ice

(b) boiling water


(d) boiled and cooled water

7. Growth of a plant is __________ change


(a) physical
(b) chemical

(c) reversible

(d) a & b

8. Rusting of iron involves


(a) oxidation

(c) decomposition

(d) hydration

(b) reduction

Answer keys :
1.D

2.C

3.C

6.B

7.B

8.A

4.A

5.B

1. Which among the following is a perennial plant?


(a) Garden Peas
(b) Mango

(c) Both A and B

(d) None of the above

2. A plant with a tap root system is _________________.


(a) Mango
(b) Coconut

(c) Rice

(d) Wheat

4. Phloem helps in transporting ____________.


(a) Food
(b) Minerals

(c) Both A and B

(d) None of the above

5. Which of the following is a modified stem?


(a) Carrots
(b) Turnips

(c) Potato

(d) Radish

6. ___________ is a bony structure that protects the lungs.


(a) Vertebral Bones
(b) Patella

(c) Ribcage

(d) Pericardium

7. ___________ is an example for a ball and socket joint.


(a) Neck
(b) Shoulder

(c) Skull

(d) All the Above

3. Transpiration is a process by which there occurs:


(a) Loss of water from the aerial parts of the plant
(b) Evaporation of Water
(c) Secretion of Water by the root cells
(d) None of the above

8. Hollow and air filled (Pneumatic) bones are characteristic features of _____________.
(a) Reptiles
(b) Birds
(c) Humans
(d) Pisces
ANSWER KEY:

1. B
6. C

7.B

2.A

3.A

4.A

5.C

8.B

1. Which of the following gases doesnt support combustion?


(a) O 2
(b) H 2
(c) N 2

(d) both a & b

2. As the altitude increases, the amount of oxygen


(a) increases
(b) decreases

(d) cant say

(c) remains same

3. Which of the following elements are taken up directly or indirectly by plants for fertilizers?
(a) Sodium
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Magnesium
4. The conditions that increase the evaporation rate is
(a) low temperature
(b) high humidity

(c) large surface area

(d) all

5. Which of the following processes absorbs heat energy?


(a) Boiling
(b) Freezing

(c) condensation

(d) both b & c

6. The process by which plants lose water from stomata is called


(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Evaporation
(c) Transpiration

(d) Exhalation

7. Which of the following are effected by floods?


(a) soil
(b) aquatic life

(c) agriculture

(d) all

8. Which of the following is not a use of water?


(a) It is essential for photosynthesis
(c) It acts a coolant

(b) It is essential for digestion


(d) It is essential for combustion

ANSWER KEY:
1. C
6. C

7. D

2. B

3.C

4.C

5.A

8.D

1.

Choose the alternative containing only the correct statements.


(P) Light is visible because laser guns shoot visible laser beams (as seen in movies)
(Q) Light is invisible
(R) Light makes objects on which it falls visible
(S) Sunlight can be seen streaming through a hole in the door. So light is visible.
(a) P, Q, R, S
(b) Q, R
(c) P, S
(d) R, S

2.

We depend on ____________ energy for our requirements of food, energy and fuel.
(a) Wind
(b) Nuclear
(c) Light
(d) Sound

3.

Which of the following are examples of natural sources of light?


(P) Sun
(Q) Moon
(R) Fire flies
(a) P, Q
(b) Q, R
(C) P, Q, R

4.

Which of the following are examples of non-luminous objects?

(S) Candles
(d) S

(P) Stars
(a) P, Q
5.

(Q) Planets
(b) R, S

(R) Moon
(c) P, S

An object through which light can pass easily is known as


(a) Translucent
(b) Opaque
(c) Transparent

(S) Candles
(d) Q, R
(d) Semi-permeable

6.

An object through which light can pass partially, but we cannot see through it clearly is
(a) ) Translucent
(b) Opaque
(c) Transparent
(d) Semi-permeable

7.

Objects which do not allow light to pass through them are called
(a) ) Translucent
(b) Opaque
(c) Transparent

8.

(d) Semi-permeable

Match the items in Column I with those in Column II


COLUMN I

COLUMN II

Water

Translucent

Air

Opaque

Wax paper

Transparent

Cardboard

Which of the following shows the correct matching?


(a) P Z; Q X; R Z; S Y
(b) P Z; Q Z; R X; S Y
(c) P Z; Q Z; R Y; S Y
(d) P X; Q X R Z; S Y
PHYSICS ANSWERKEY
1.B

2.C

3.C

6.A

7.B

8.B

4.D

5.C

1. On burning charcoal the gas released is


(a) CO

(b) CO 2

(c) O 2

(d) N 2O

2. Which gas in the atmosphere saves us from the UV-rays of the sun?
(a) Ozone

(b)Oxygen

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Carbon monoxide

(c) Stratosphere

(d) Hydrosphere

(c) N 2

(d) water vapour

3. The lower dense region of the atmosphere is known as


(a) Troposphere

(b) Ionosphere

4. Which of the following is not present in air?


(a) CO 2
(b) H 2

5. Which of the following substances is not an atmospheric pollutant?


(a) carbon monoxide

(b) helium

(c) oxides of nitrogen

(d) sulphur dioxide

(c) South America

(d) Europe

6. The largest hole in the ozone layer found so far is over


(a) antartica

(b) Africa

7. Which of the following is an effect caused due to air pollution?


(a) damages plants

(b) tarnishes or corrodes metals

(c) aggravates respiratory problems

(d) all

8. The region where space ships & sattellite lie


(a) Troposphere

(b) Stratosphere

(c) Ionosphere

(d) Thermosphere

ANSWER KEY:

1.

1. B

2.A

3.A

6.A

7.D

8.D

4.B

5.B

Microorganisms that feed on dead remains of plants and animals are called
(a) Producers
(b) Herbivores
(c) Omnivores

(d) Decomposers

Which of the following features does not belong to camel?


(a) Small amounts of urine excretion & dry dung
(b) Storage of food in the hump
(c) Long legs to keep the body away from heat of sand
(d) Huddling in groups to keep
themselves warm
2.

3.

Generally plant parts are succulent; leaves are in the form of spines; stems are photosynthetic. Such description of
plants is found in
(a) Hydrophytes
(b) Xerophytes
(c) Mountain plants
(d) Aquatic plants

4.

To regulate their body temperature, penguins have


(a) Shiny, white, thick fur on body
(c) Fins & tail

(b) Oily water proof feathers


(d) Thick lips and tongue to eat prickly plants of deserts

5.

Camouflage means
(a) Getting rid of wastes by living organisms
(b) Coastal habitats
(c) Coniferous trees
(d) Changing the colour of animal to suit the surroundings

6.

Nocturnal creature is
(a) Bat

7.

8.

(b) Crow

(c) Sparrow

(d) Pigeon

Thick layer of fat is found below the skin in


(a) Seals & whales
(b) Seals & camels

(c) Whales & camels

(d) Only camels

Winter sleep of frog is called


(a) Aestivation
(b) Hibernation

(c) Migration

(d) Locomotion

MIDPHASE 3 for 6B - CRP BIOLOGY - ANSWERKEY

141.

142.

143.

146.

147.

148.

144.

145.

1. __________ is used to separate heavier and lighter components of mixture by wind


(a) Threshing
(b) hand picking
(c) winnowing

(d) weathering

2. Husk separated from grains is used as


(a) fuel
(b) fodder

(d) toys

(c) furniture

3. In a flour mill, the last traces of stalk and husk are removed by
(a) threshing
(b) winnowing
(c) sieving

(d) filteration

4. Impurities like dust and soil particles are separated from pulses before cooking by
(a) filteration
(b) sedimentation
(c) decantation

(d) both b & c

5. Paneer is prepared by adding __________ to boiling milk and filtering the mixture
(a) Alum
(b) oil
(c) lemon juice

(d) salt

6. A plate used to cover a vessel containing milk that has just been boiled has water drops under it due to
(a) evaporation
(b) distillation
(c) decantation
(d) condensation
7. During preparation of ice cold lemonade, ice must be added to lemonade
(a) before dissolving sugar (b) after dissolving sugar
(c) any time during preparation
(d) none
8. Correct match is
COLUMN I

COLUMN II

Evaporation

(i)

Cream from boiled milk

Filteration

(ii)

Pouring out supernatent liquid

Decantation

(iii
)

Sand from salt

Filteration and evaporation

(iv)

Salt from sea water

(a) 1-iv , 2-ii, 3-iii , 4-i


(c) 1-iv , 2-i, 3-ii , 4-iii

(b) 1-i , 2-ii ,3- iii , 4-iv


(d) 1-iv , 2-iii ,3-ii , 4-i

ANSWER KEY
1. C

2.B

3.C

6. D

7.B

8.C

1. The characteristic features of shrubs are


(a) Stem branching out near the base
(c) Both a and b

4.D

5.C

(b) Stem is hard but not very thick


(d) None of these

2. Water comes out of leaves in the form of vapour is called


(a) evaporation
(b) transpiration
(c) condensation

(d) guttation

3. Preparation of food by the plants in the presence of sunlight and green colour pigment is called
(a) photosynthesis
(b) respiration
(c) tissue respiration
(d) oxidation

4. The prominent part of the corolla is called


(a) sepal
(b) tepal

(c) perianth

(d) petal

5. The innermost part of the flower is called


(a) Androecium
(b) pistil

(c) stamen

(d) filament

6. The Reproductive part of the flower is


(a) stamen
(b) pistil

(c) both a and b

(d) none of these

7. Bead like structures present within the ovary is called


(a) seed
(b) cotyledon

(c) embryo

(d) ovule

8. Plants having leaves with reticulate venation have


(a) Fibrous roots
(c) Rhizoids

(b) Adventitious roots


(d) Taproot

ANSWER KEY:
1. C
6.C

7.D

2.B

3.A

4.D

5.B

8.D

1. All monocot plants have __________________.


(a) Fibrous roots
(c) Pentamerous flowers

(b) Tap root


(d) None of the above

2. Leaves are the places where __________ occurs.


(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Detoxification

(c)Both a and b

3. Annuals are plants that are ___________.


(a) Living for one year
(c) Living for three years

(b) Living for two years


(d) None of the above.

(d)None of the above

4. Example for a plant with tap root system is ____________.


(a) Rice
(b)Wheat
(c)Banana

(d)Bean

5. Example for a plant with fibrous root system is _________.


(a)Pea Plant
(b)Bean Plant
(c)Mango

(d)Banana

6. Hibiscus is _____________.
(a) Herb

(c)Trees

(d)None of the above

7. Tissues that conduct water in plants are ______________.


(a)Xylem
(b)Phloem

(c)Both a and b

(d)None of the above

8. Sunlight and water are required for ____________.


(a)Fats synthesis
(b)Protein synthesis

(c)Photosynthesis

(d)None of the above.

(b)Shrub

ANSWER KEY:
1. A

2.A

3.A

4.D

5.D

6. B

7.A

8.C

1. Plants having a weak stem that are not standing on ground but spreading on the ground are called as
_____________.
(a) Climbers
(b)Creepers
(c)Trees
(d)None of the above
2. Stalk of a leaf is called as _________.
(a) Pedicel
(b)Petiole

(c)Node

(d)None of the above

3. Example of a plant showing parallel venation is _____________.


(a) Mango
(b)Hibiscus
(c)Banana

(d)Bean

4. Loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant is called as __________.


(a) Respiration
(b)Coagulation
(c)Transpiration

(d)None of the above.

5. Ball and socket type of joint is seen in ________.


(a)Wrist
(b)Neck

(c)Shoulders

(d)Knees

6. Protection to our lungs is provided by ______________.


(a)Heart
(b)Cartilage

(c)Diaphragm

(d)Rib cage.

7. Movement of bones is due to ______________.


(a)Skin
(b)Muscles

(c)Diaphragm

(d)None of the above.

8. A streamlined body is seen in ______________.


(a)Fishes
(b)Man

(c)Bear

(d)Snails.

ANSWER KEY:
1.B

2.B

3.C

6.D

7.B

8.A

1. Which of the following is not a matter?


(a) Chair
(b) air

4.C

(c) taste

5.C

(d) water

2. Which of the following gas is required to burn the food inside our body?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Helium

(d) Carbon dioxide

3. Which of the following will contain least percentage in air?


(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Argon

(d) Water vapour

4. The percentage of Oxygen in atmospheric air nearly is


(a) 10%
(b) 20%

(c) 90%

(d) 30%

5. Which of the following is supporter of combustion?


(a) Hydrogen gas
(b) Nitrogen gas

(c) Oxygen gas

(d) Helium gas

6. Breathing out of air is called___________


(a) Respiration
(b) Exhalation

(c) inhalation

(d) stomata

7. Which of the following statements is false?


(a) Percentage of Nitrogen content in air is nearly four times as that of Oxygen in air.
(b) Air taken in by human beings is rich in Oxygen
(c) Fish cannot take oxygen which is present in water
(d) Whales come up to the water surface to take in Oxygen from air.
8. Which of the following cannot flow freely?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen

(c) Hydrogen

(d) Ice

Answer Key
1. C

2.A

3.D

6.B

7.C

8.D

4.B

5.C

1. Deserts, Mountains and grass Lands belong to __________ habitat.


(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Avian

(d) Ocean

2. Adaptations are
(a) Changes that enable organisms to live in a specific environment
(b) Changes that enable organisms to die in a specific environment
(c) The place where an organism usually lives.
(d) The place where a group of organisms usually live.
3. Animals that live on trees are said to exhibit _____________ mode of life.
(a) Mountainous
(b) Arboreal
(c)Aquatic
(d)Desert
4. Plants that have their leaves reduced to form spines are said to exhibit an adaptation for a _______________ mode
of life.
(a) Mountainous
(b)Arboreal
(c)Aquatic
(d)Desert
5. Organisms that are able to blend in with their surroundings are said to exhibit
(a)Brilliant colors
(b)Camouflage (c)Both A and B(d)None of the above
6. Larger marine organisms like whales expel water through _____________.
(a) Blow Holes (b)Nostrils
(c) Lungs
(d)None of the above
7. Breathing is a part of a process called
(a) Reproduction
(b) Respiration

(c) Locomotion

8. The changes that make an organism to respond is known as ___________


(a) Response (b)Stimuli
(c)Both A and B(d)None of the above
ANSWER KEY:
1. B

2.A

3.B

6.A

7.B

8.B

4.D

5.B

(d) Excretion

1. When jute is dipped in water the gummy material is eaten away by bacteria. This is called
(a) soaking
(b) retting
(c) wetting
(d) dipping
2. The process of arranging two sets of yarns together to make a fabric is called
(a) weaving
(b) knitting
(c) stitching

(d) twisting

3. Which of the following has a high natural luster?


(a) cotton
(b) wool

(c) silk

(d) none of these

4. ____________ soil is used to cultivate jute.


(a) sandy
(b) black

(c) clayey

(d) alluvial

5. Which of the following is obtained from the stem of a plant?


(a) cotton
(b) wool
(c) jute

(d) polyester

6. The fibres that is obtained from chemicals are generally called ______________ fibres.
(a) natural
(b) synthetic
(c) plant
(d) animal
7. The quality of cotton depends on
(a) soil
(c) geographical location

(b) seed type


(d) all of these

8. Fishing line and nets are made from ______________ fibre.


(a) cotton
(b) flax
(c) jute

(d) silk

ANSWER KEY:
1.B
6.B

7.D

2.A

3.C

4.D

5.C

8.B

1. Which of the following is/are a source of natural fibre?


(a) plants
(b) wood

(c) animals

(d) all the above

2. Cotton is used in hospitals for cleaning purpose, because of its


(a) good absorbing property (b) antiseptic property
(c) burning property
(d) all the above
3. Which of the following substances is not a conductor of heat?
(a) Gold
(b) Oxygen
(c) Silver

(d) Iron

4. Which of the following substances has less density compared to water (liquid)?
(a) Ice
(b) oil
(c) kerosene

(d) all the above

5. When you add 10 drops of milk in a glass of water, the solution turns
(a) transparent
(b) opaque
(c) translucent

(d) none of the above

6. Which of the following substances dissolve completely in water?


(a) saw dust
(b) sugar
(c) sand

(d) chalk powder

7. Pick the odd man out.


(a) vegetable

(b) fruit

(c) flower

(d) rice

8. Gases are able to move from one place to another because they have
(a) more intermolecular space
(b) high intermolecular force of attraction
(c) less fluidity
(d) less compressibility
ANSWER KEY:
1.D

2.A

3.B

6.B

7.C

8.A

4.D

5.C

1. From which part of the plant is cotton obtained?


(a) flower
(b) stem

(c) seed

(d) fruit

2. The device/s used for spinning cotton is


(a) powerloom
(b) handloom

(c) both a & b

(d) charkha

3. The fibre which is used for making explosives is


(a) jute
(b) silk

(c) cotton

(d) flax

4. The phenomenon of retting takes place in


(a) cotton
(b) jute

(c) flax

(d) wool

5. The process of obtaining yarn from fibre is


(a) spinning
(b) weaving

(c) ginning

(d) knitting

6. The fibre which is used for making linen cloth is


(a) cotton
(b) flax

(c) jute

(d) silk

7. Which of these fibres is resistant to infectants?


(a) silk
(b) wool

(c) flax

(d) acrylic

8. Which of the following statements is false?


(a) jute is obtained from stem of its plant
(b) wool is obtained from fleece of sheep
(c) cotton is used in making rayon
(d) the process of combing cotton is called spinning
ANSWER KEY:
1. D

2. D

3.C

6.B

7.D

8.D

4.B

5.A

1. Organisms that make their own food is / are called _________.


(a) Autotrophs
(b) Heterotrophs
(c) Carnivores.

(d) None of the above.

2. Examples for herbivores include __________.


(a) Lions
(b) Tigers.

(d) Vultures.

3. Rich sources of carbohydrates include ___________.

(c) Elephants.

(a) Rice

(b) Oils

(c) Eggs

(d) None of the above

4. Eggs are rich sources of __________.


(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins

(c) Fats

(d) None of the above.

5. Oils are rich sources of __________.


(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins

(c) Fats

(d) None of the above.

6. Rich sources of minerals include ________.


(a) Rice
(b) Oils

(c) Eggs

(d) Fruits

7. Body building and Immunity providing nutrients include _________.


(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fats

(d) None of the above.

8. White of the egg is __________.


(a) Glucose
(b) Lipids

(d) Thiamine.

1.A

2.C

3.A

6.D

7.B

8.C

(c) Albumin

4.B

5.C

1. Which of the following can be enhanced by the addition of alum?


(a) Sieving
(b) Decantation
(c) Sedimentation

(d) Filtration

2. When a cool drink bottle is taken out of a refrigerator, the solubility of gas present in the drink
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) cant say
3. Which of the following is a homogenous substance?
(a) paint
(b) bronze

(c) mist

(d) smoke

4. Which of the following processes doesnt involve the formation of a new substance?
(a) making a cake
(b) germination of a seed
(c) melting a chocolate
(d) rusting of iron
5. Which of the following is an exothermic process?
(a) melting
(b) boiling

(c) freezing

(d) both a & b

6. Rottening of a fruit is
(a) physical change

(c) chemical change

(d) both b & c

(c) reversible

(d) both b & c

(b) irreversible

7. When CO2 is dissolved in lime water, it is a


(a) chemical change
(b) physical change

Match the following


8.
COLUMN I

COLUMN II

Dissolving salt in water

(i)

Distillation

Burning of coal

(ii)

Chemical change

Soluble solid in liquid

(iii
)

Filtration

Insoluble solid in liquid

(iv)

Physical change

(a) P ii , Q iv , R i , S iii

(b) P iv , Q ii , R iii , S i

(c) P iv , Q ii , R i , S iii

(d) P ii , Q iv , R iii , S i

ANSWER KEY:
1.C
6.D

2.B
7.A

3.B

4.C

5.C

8.C

1. Souring of milk is a
(a) Physical change

(b) Chemical change

(c) Periodic change

(d) No change

2. Heat absorption is involved in


(a) Endothermic change
(b) Exothermic change
(c) Photo chemical change (d) Electro chemical change
3. An example of periodic change is
(a) Appearance of spring
(c) Burning of magnesium ribbon

(b) growth of a plant


(d) burning of carbon

4. Magnetizing a knitting needle is a


(a) Periodic change

(c) Chemical change

(b) Physical change

(d) Not a change

5. The property used in separating a mixture of two solids by winnowing is _______


(a) Difference in weight
(b) Difference in size (c) Difference is color

(d) Difference in smell

6. A pure substance is made up of how many kind of basic components?


(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three

(d) Four

7. Purity of a substance can be gauged by _______


(a) melting point
(b) boiling point

(d) all the above

8. Benzoic acid is ______


(a) sublime in nature
(c) hotest substance known (d) none of the above

(c) specific gravity

(b) coolest substance known

ANSWER KEY:
1. B
6.B

7.D

2.A

3.A

4.B

5.A

8.A

1. The part of a flower that is scented and attracts insects are


(a)Petal
(b)sepal

(c) stamen

(d) ovary

2. The part of a flowering plant that contain pollen is called


(a)Filament
(b) stigma

(c) style

(d) anther

3. Identify A and B respectively


(a) Tap root and fibrous root
(b) Fibrous root and lateral root
(c) Fibrous root and tap root
(d) Tap root and lateral root

4. Plants that are very tall with hard, thick,brown stems


(a)Herbs
(b) shrubs

(c) trees

5. Ball and socket joints allows movements in


(a)One direction
(c) all directions

(b) two directions


(d) does not allow movements

6. The joints that does not allow movement are called


(a) Pivotal joint
(c) ball and socket joint
(d) hinge joint
7. Hollow and light bones belong to
(a)Human

(b) birds

8. The part of the skeleton that helps us to sit


(a) Rib cage
(b)shoulder bones

(d) plants

(b) fixed joint

(c) cockroach

(d) snail

(c) pelvic bones

(d) back bones

ANSWER KEY:
6.B

1.A
7.B

2.D

3.C

4.C

5.C

8.C

1. The elements which make up washing soda are


(a) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
(c) sodium, carbon, oxygen, hydrogen

(b) sodium, carbon, oxygen


(d) sodium, chlorine, oxygen

2. Which one of the following is not a matter?


(a) Glass
(b) Juice

(c) Electricity

(d) Air

3. Which one of the following is translucent?


(a) cellophane paper
(b) frosted glass

(c) goggles

(d) pure water

4. Many metals can be drawn into wires. This property is called


(a) malleability
(b) ductility
(c) compressibility

(d) stretching

5. Modern mirrors have a thin coating of


(a) copper
(b) gold

(d) iron

(c) silver

6. The process of making yarn from fibres by ______________ is called __________________ .


(a) spinning, twisting
(b) twisting, spinning (c) weaving, twisting (d) twisting,weaving
7. Cotton crop requires
(a) moderate rainfall
(c) soil that holds moisture (d) all of these
8. Cotton is used in hospitals for treating wounds as it has
(a) good absorbing property
(c) antipyretic property

(b) clayey soil

(b) antiseptic property


(d) none of these

ANSWER KEY:
1.C

2.C

3.B

6.B

7.D

8.A

4.B

5.C

1. Energy providing foods are


(a) vitamins & minerals
(c) carbohydrates & fats

(b) Hormones & enzymes


(d) proteins & fats

2. Night- blindness is caused due to the deficiency of


(a) calcium ions
(b) vitamins A

(c) fats

(d) water

3. Iodine test is used to detect


(a) starch

(c) proteins

(d) fats

(b) chlorophyll

4. Which of the following is not a role of water in our body?


(a) It maintains body temperature
(b) it maintains the cell size
(c) It acts as a medium for the reactions inside the cells
(d) It acts as roughage to provide bulk to faecal matter
5. Which of the following disease is caused due to mineral deficiency?
(a) beriberi
(b) goitre
(c) scurvy

(d) rickets

6. Protein deficiency in children causes


(a) obesity
(b) goitre

(c) kwashiorkar

(d) anaemia

7. Parrot is a
(a) herbivore

(c) ominivore

(d) dedritivore

(b) carnivore

8. Iron deficiency causes anemia, during which


(a) WBC production decrease
(c) Thyroid hormine is not produced

(b) RBC production decrease


(d) Bones become soft and weak

ANSWER KEY:
1.C
6.C

7.A

2.B
8.B

3.A

4.D

5.B

1.

A cows diet makes it a:


(a) herbivore (b) carnivore

(c) omnivore

(d) decomposer

2.

If moong seeds have given rise to white structures, then the seeds are said to have
(a) Fermented
(b) sprouted
(c) seeded
(d) yielded

3.

An example of a stem edible to humans is:


(a) carrot
(b) sunflower (c) sweet potato

(d) potato

4.

A vegetable whose root is commonly eaten by humans is the:


(a) tomato
(b) celery
(c) potato
(d) carrot

5.

An example of a plant whose seeds are eaten commonly by humans is:


(a) potato
(b) rice
(c)cauliflower (d)ginger

6.

An example of a fruit containing seeds that is edible to humans is a:


(a) tomato
(b) potato
(c) mushroom (d) apple

7.

Find the odd one out


(a) Milk
(b) paddy

(c)meat (d) egg

8.
Match the items given in Column A with that in Column B
COLUMN I COLUMN II
A
Milk, curd, paneer, gheeP
eat other animals
B
Spinach, cauliflower, carrot
Q
eat plants and plant products
C
Lions and tigers R
are vegetables
D
Herbivores
S
are all animal products
(a) A-P , B-Q, C-R, D-S
(b) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(c) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(d) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
ANSWERS KEY
1. A

2. B

6. A

7. B 8. C

3. D

4.D

5. B

1. When is man part of biotic community?


(a) only when he lives in big cities
(c) only when he lives in forest
2. Earths atmosphere is upto
(a) 20 km

(b) 200 km

(b) always
(d) Never
(c) 300 km

(d) 90 km

3. Which xerophyte accumulates water in roots?


(a) opuntia
(b) asparagus

(c) euphorbia

(d) none of these

4. Desert plants are generally


(a) Succulents

(c) Herbaceous

(d) Viviparous

(c) Daphnia

(d) Bacteria

(b) Heterophyllous

5. Abiotic component of ecosystem is


(a) chlorella
(b) water
6. Eichhornia is a hydrophyte

(a) Rooted submerged

(b) Rooted floating

(c) Free floating

(d) Rooted emergent

7. In an aqueous environment, microscopic plants and animals are collectively known as


(a) commensals
(b) Herbivores
(c) Flora and Fauna
(d) Plankton
8. All living organisms on or around earth constitute
(a) An ecosystem
(b) A biosphere

(c) A community

(d) A population

ANSWER KEYS
1.B

2.C

3.B

6.C

7.D

8.B

4.A

5.B

1. The volume occupied by oxygen in the atmosphere is


(a) 15

(c) 3 5

(b) 2 5

(d) 4 5

2. The food which is taken by us is burnt and converted into energy by


(a) carbon-di-oxide
(b) water
(c) oxygen

(d) blood

3. Which of the following is a pollutant present in the atmosphere?


(a) O2
(b) N 2
(c) CO2

(d) SO2

4. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is


(a) thermometer
(b) barometer

(d) anemometer

(c) altimeter

5. Which one of the constituents of air produces climatic changes?


(a) Nitrogen
(b) Rare gases
(c) Oxygen

(d) Water vapour

6. Which of the following is/are responsible for oxygen and CO 2 balance?


Human beings, Animals, Trees, Water
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (i) (ii) & (iii)

(d) (i) , (ii) , (iii) & (iv)

7. One molecule of ozone contains


(a) two atoms of nitrogen
(c) three atoms of oxygen

(b) two atoms of oxygen


(d) three atoms of nitrogen

8. The cause of global warming is


(a) CO2 , methane, chlorofluoro carbon
(c) Helium, Neon

(b) nitrogen, water vapour


(d) Argon, Dust particles

ANSWER KEY:
1. C

2. C

3. D

6.C

7.C

8.A

4.B

5.D

1.

2.

Primary consumers are


(a) Green plants

(b) Cows & Deers

(c) Tigers & Wolves

(d) Humans & Bears

Which of the following pair of animals are found in forested valley of mountains?
(a) Snow leopard & Himalayan ibex
(b) Penguins & polar bears
(c) Yak and sheep
(d) Dolphins & sharks

Buoyancy in hydrophytes is due to


(a) Low body temperature
body
(c) Their photosynthetic nature
3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

(b) Air bubbles within their


(d) Their cone shaped body with slanting branches

Deer has long ears to


(a) Hear the movements of its predator
(c) tolerate the winds

(b) Hear the movements of water in the forest


(d) Tolerate the heat

Drought evaders are the animals which


(a) Remain dormant during rain
(c) Remain dormant through out the year

(b) Appear only during rain


(d) Appear actively in all the seasons

Identify the xerocole from the following


(a) Leopard
(b) Yalk

(c) Whale

(d) Camel

Webbed feet help in swimming in water in case of


(a) Fishes
(b) African antelope

(c) Polar bear

(d) Frog

Respiratory organs in fishes are


(a) Lungs
(b) Skin & fins

(c) Gills

(d) Skin & lungs

MIDPHASE 3 for 6A - CRP BIOLOGY - ANSWERKEY

149.

150.

151.

154.

155.

156.

152.

1. Which of the above mixtures requires the process of distillation for its separation?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
2. Which of the following acts as a solvent in sugar syrup?
(a) sugar
(c) both sugar and water
3. Unsaturated solution is a solution in which

(b) water
(d) none of the above

153.

(d) D

(a) no more solute can be dissolved at a particular temperature


(b) more solute can be dissolved at a particular temperature
(c) no more solute can be dissolved even by increasing the temperature
(d) cannot predict
4. Hand picking process is used if the undesirable substance is
(a) present in small quantities
(b) visibly different
(c) both a & b
(d) present in large quantities
5. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
(a) salt in water
(b) sugar in water

(c) glucose in water

6. Grains are separated from the stalks by


(a) beating the stalks on the ground
(c) blowing breeze

(b) winnowing
(d) allowing the mixture to fall from height

(d) all the above

7. Which of the following statements is false?


(a) It is used to separate bigger particles present in the wheat flour
(b) Same kind of sieve is used for separation of all kind of particles
(c) Husk particles can be separated from seeds of grain by winnowing.
(d) Mixture of immiscible liquids can be separated by decantation.
8. Filtration is used to separate
(a) soluble substances from solution
(c) immiscible liquids

(b) insoluble substances from solution


(d) miscible liquids

ANSWER KEY:
1.C

2.B

3.B

6.A

7.B

8.B

4.C

5.D

1. This method is used by farmers to separate grains from husk after threshing:(a) Magnetic separation
(b) Winnowing
(c) Washing

(d) filteration

2. A high speed rotating machine called centrifuge is used in


(a) Centrifugation
(b) Centripitation

(d) decantation

(c) Loading

3. Iron fillings can be easily separated from a mixture of iron and sulphur by _______
(a) Crystallization
(b) Magnetic separation
(c) Distillation
(d) Lilteration
4. Which of the following would you use for separating two immiscible liquids?
(a) Centrifuge
(b) Separating funnel (c) Loading

(d) Distillation

5. A commonly used chemical for loading is ________


(a) Common salt
(b) Oxygen

(d) Alum

(c) Hydrogen

6. The process of separating a pure substance in the form of crystals from its hot saturated solution by cooling is
called
(a) filteration
(b) Winnowing
(c) Crystallization
(d) Loading
7. Process of evaporation following by condensation is known as _______

(a) Evaporation
8.

(b) Loading

An example of sublimable substance is _______


(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen

(c) Distillation

(d) Centrifugation

(c) Common salt

(d) Camphor

ANSWER KEY:
1. B

2.A

3.B

6. C

7. C

8.D

4.B

5.D

1. Herbs are
(a) Plants with hard and thick stems
(b) Plants with hard stems
(c) Plants with tender stems (d) very fall and have hard and thick stem
2. The small bead like structures present with in the ovary is called
(a) seeds
(b) placenta
(b) pollen

(d) ovules

3. The arrangement of veins on the leaf is called


(a) Vernation
(b) venation

(d) Reticulate venation

(c) parallel venation

4. The part of the leaf by which it is attached to the stem is called


(a) Petiole
(b) peduncle
(c) rachis

(c) none of these

5. The plant in which, food is stored in a root is


(a) Potato
(b) Carrot

(d) both b and c

(c) sweet potato

6. Select the correct statement:


(i) Stem absorbs water and minerals from the soil
(ii)Root absorbs water and minerals from the soil
(iii) Plants with weak stems that spread on the ground are called creepers
(iv) parallel venation is seen in grass
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iii & iv
(c) ii, iii, iv

(d) i, iii, iv

7. The raw materials required by the leaf for photosynthesis is/are


(a) sunlight
(b) green color pigment
(c) CO 2
(d) All of these
8. The male part of the flower is
(a) ovule

(b) ovary

(c) pistil

(d) stamen

ANSWER KEY:
1. C
6. C

2. D
7. D

8. D

3. B

4. A

5. D

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