Академический Документы
Профессиональный Документы
Культура Документы
Instruction: Encircle the letter which corresponds to your answer. No Erasures Allowed.
1. Steps taken by EMS providers when approaching the scene of an emergency call;
determining scene safety, taking BSI precautions, noting the mechanism of injury (MOI) or
patients nature of illness (NOI), determining the number of patients, and deciding what, if
any additional resources are needed.
a. Critical Assessment
b. Scene Size Up
c. Initial Assessment
d. Secondary Survey
2. The process used to identify and treat life-threatening problems, concentrating on Level of
Consciousness, Cervical Spinal Stabilization, Airway, Breathing, and Circulation.
a. Critical Assessment
b. Scene Size Up
c. Initial Assessment
d. Secondary Survey
4. This is the immediate assessment of the environment and the patients problem and the
process takes place in seconds. This allows you to prioritize the patient care and to form a
plan of action for continuing assessment.
5. Maneuver for opening the airway in conscious patients; enables cervical spine stabilization
and is often used with medical patients.
a. Jaw Thrust. c. Rocking Maneuver
b. Head Tilt Chin Lift d. Cervical Spine Immobilization
6. Maneuver for opening the airway in unconscious patients; enables cervical spine stabilization
and is often used with trauma patients.
c. Jaw Thrust. c. Rocking Maneuver
d. b. Head Tilt Chin Lift d. Cervical Spine Immobilization
7. All responsive patients breathing >24 breaths per minute or <8 breaths per minute should
receive high flow oxygen (15 lpm). Which of these could give such amount?
a. Nonrebreather mask with reservoir
b. Nasal Cannula
c. Venturi Mask
d. Simple Face Mask
d. general impression
10. The patients age, sex, and chief complaint are part of the:
a. general impression
b. dispatch information
c. patient profile
d. scene size-up
11. If assessment reveals pale, cool, clammy skin in conjunction with a significant mechanism of
injury, an altered mental status, or severe bleeding, assume that the patient is:
a. having a heart attack
b. not a priority
c. having a stroke
d. in shock
13. Which of the following is not normally considered a significant mechanism of injury in adult
patients?
a. fall of 10 feet
b. blast injury from an explosion
c. seatbelt injury
d. rollover of a vehicle
16. When assessing a responsive medical patients chief complaint, the T of OPQRST stands
for:
a. tenderness
b. termination
c. tension
d. time
20. Which of the following would usually not require a rapid secondary exam?
a. an unresponsive patient
b. a patient with multiple injuries
c. a patient with a lacerated foot
d. a patient with a significant mechanism of injury
21. A serious finding during the secondary exam is a pulsating mass in the abdomen, which may
indicate:
a. a weakened abdominal aorta
b. failure of one or both kidneys
c. progressive appendicitis
d. liver damage
22. For stable patients, the ongoing assessment should be performed every ____ minutes.
a. 5
b. 15
c. 10
d. 20
24. The chief purposes of the reassessment are to detect any changes in the patients condition, to
identify any missed injuries or conditions, and to:
a. alert the receiving facility of probable arrival time
b. adjust emergency care as needed
c. fill in any gaps in the SAMPLE history
d. complete packaging of the patient
29. This is used for patients, with no significant mechanism of injury that has been determined to
have no life-threatening injuries.
30. This is performed on patients with significant mechanism of injury to determine potential life
threatening injuries. In the conscious patient, symptoms should be sought before and during
the Rapid Trauma assessment.
a. Rapid Trauma Assessment
b. Rapid Medical Assessment
c. Focused Trauma Assessment
d. Focused History Exam- Medical
31. This is performed on medical patients who are unconscious, confused, or unable to
adequately relate their chief complaint. This assessment is used to quickly identify existing or
potentially life-threatening conditions.
a. Rapid Trauma Assessment
b. Rapid Medical Assessment
c. Focused Trauma Assessment
d. Focused History Exam- Medical
32. This is used for patients with a medical complaint who are conscious, and able to adequately
relate their chief complaint to you, and have no life-threatening conditions.
a. Rapid Trauma Assessment
b. Rapid Medical Assessment
c. Focused Trauma Assessment
d. Focused History Exam- Medical
34. This is defined as a movement of part of the chest wall in the opposite direction from the rest
of the chest wall during inhalation and exhalation
a. Flail chest
b. Crepitus
c. Paradoxical Motion
d. Pulmonary Congestion
35. This is defined as the sound and feel of broken bones moving against one another.
a. Flail chest
b. Crepitus
c. Paradoxical Motion
d. Pulmonary Congestion
36. When auscultating the breath sounds using a stethoscope, the breath sounds should be?
a. Present unilaterally
b. Present bilaterally
c. Accessory muscle use should be noted
d. Adventitious sounds and crackles should be heard
37. When assessing the abdomen, the EMS provider should:
a. Palpate for the 9 regions of the abdomen
b. Palpate for the 4 quadrants
c. Use finger tips and not the finger pads
d. Palpate pulsating masses
40. For patients with no significant mechanism of injury, the focused history and physical
examination at the site of the injury is done. Which of this is not included?
a. a cut finger
b. deformed ankle
c. bruised knee
d. vehicle roll over
41. A mnemonic used by medical professionals to accurately discern reasons for a patient's
symptoms and history in the event of an acute illness.
a. DCAP-BTLS
b. OPQRST
c. AVPU
d. SAMPLE
42. Is designed primarily for trauma patients who may have hidden injuries that are not revealed
in the initial assessment and is also useful for unresponsive medical patients.
a. Detailed Physical Examination
b. Initial Assessment
c. Secondary Survey
d. Ongoing Assessment
43. This is performed on all patients while the patient is being transported to the hospital. It is
designed to reassess the patient for changes that may require new intervention.
a. Detailed Physical Examination
b. Initial Assessment
c. Secondary Survey
d. Ongoing Assessment
44. A component of OPQRST, refers to how long the condition has been going on and how it has
changed since onset.
a. Onset
b. Provocation
c. Severity
d. Time
45. An airway adjunct inserted into a nostril and designed to prevent airway obstruction by the
tongue usually used for conscious patients.
a. nasopharyngeal airway
b. oropharyngeal airway
c. nasogastrictube
d. endotracheal tube
46. A 16 year old patient who injured her wrist denies any other injuries. The best assessment to
perform would be:
a. Rapid trauma Assessment
b. Focused physical exam
c. There is no need for assessment
d. A detailed physical exam
49. When palpating the abdomen, when at rest and lying on a flat surface, most patients will have a
______ abdomen.
a. Flat
b. Soft
c. Rigid
d. Distended
50. During the initial assessment, the patients mental status is evaluated. The following acronym is
used to categorize the patients level of responsiveness:
a. BRIM
b.APVU
c. AVPU
d.AVPO
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. C
13. C
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. A
22. B
23. B
24. B
25. A
26. A
27. D
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. B
32. D
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. B
37. B
38. A
39. B
40. D
41. B
42. A
43. D
44. D
45. A
46. B
47. D
48. A
49. B
50. C