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TECHNICIAN CLASS

Class C Amateur Radio Operators Exam

Examination Coverage The examination shall cover the rules, procedures and
technical materials that an amateur will need to know in order to operate a
station properly.

The examination shall cover the following general subjects:

Element II - Rules and Regulations


Element III - Fundamentals of Electronics and Electricity
Element IV - Amateur Radio Practice

In the event that a candidate for Class C fails in Elements III and IV, but passes
element II, he shall be eligible for a Class D License.

STUDY GUIDES

For Element II
Study the Revised Amateur Radio Regulations (MC 03-08-2012)

For Element III & IV


Study the Amateur Radio Question Pools

Good Luck!

Jandee R. Bonifacio, 4F1KIK, 1PHN, PECE, ASEAN Eng.


Lifetime Member, PARA Inc.
ID No.: LM-127
Club: PARL Inc. DX1L
www.electronicspectrum.com
MEMORANDUM CIRCULAR
NO. 03-08-2012

SUBJECT: Revised Amateur Radio Regulations

Pursuant to the provisions of the Radio Control Law, Act No. 3846 as amended by
Commonwealth Act. Nos. 571 and No. 546, the following rules and regulations
governing the Amateur Radio Service to be known as the Revised Amateur Radio
Regulations, are hereby promulgated:

SECTION I. GENERAL

1. Statement of purpose Under these Radio Regulations, the following purposes


are adopted as guiding principles to maintain a high standard of service,
technique, and procedures in the Amateur Radio Service.

1.1 RECOGNITION and enhancement of the value of the amateur radio


service to the public as a voluntary non-commercial radio communication
service, particularly with respect to providing radio communications in
times of emergencies and calamities.

1.2 ENCOURAGEMENT and improvement of the amateur radio service


through experimentation and development of progressive skills in the art,
science and technology of radio communications.

1.3 INCREASE in the number of licensed amateurs who are self-trained,


skilled experimenters and electronic technologists in the Amateur Radio
Service.

1.4 RECOGNITION of only one national amateur radio organization or


society which may represent the Philippine amateurs in all conferences
and meetings, either local or international, and with the end in view of
fostering cordial relationship and efficient coordination between radio
amateurs and the government.

2. Allocation and Use of Frequencies for Amateur Radio Service:

2.1 Allocation and use of frequencies for Amateur Radio Service shall be in
accordance with the International Table of Radio Frequency Allocation
issued by the International Telecommunications Union (ITU) and the
National Radio Frequency Allocation Table (NRFAT).

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2.2 Frequencies for Amateur Radio Service shall be allocated to the different
classes of amateurs in the country and shall be made available for
assignment to stations within the said service.

2.3 The amateur frequency bands allocated by these Regulations to the


amateurs shall be used only by duly licensed amateurs.

2.4 The frequency bands allocated to a particular class of amateurs shall be


shared by duly authorized amateurs strictly on a non-interference basis.

2.5 Amateur radio licenses shall be granted to qualified members of amateur


organizations duly accredited by the National Telecommunications
Commission (NTC).

2.6 All licensees in this service shall cooperate in the proper use of the
assigned frequency bands to minimize interference and thereby obtain the
most effective use of their respective stations.

3. Definitions The following definitions shall apply in these radio regulations:

3.1 Amateur Fixed Station A radio station in the amateur service installed at
specified and fixed location.

3.2 Amateur Mobile Station A station in the amateur service installed on


board a vehicle or vessel and intended to be used while in motion or
during halts at unspecified points.

3.3 Amateur Portable Station An amateur station so designed that it may


conveniently be moved about from one place to another place or
personally carried and be operated while in motion or during temporary
halts.

3.4 Amateur Radio Communications Refers to telecommunications by


means of radio waves conducted by or among duly authorized amateur
operators on a non-commercial basis.

3.5 Amateur Radio Consultative Panel (ARCP) A group composed of NTC


personnel and Class A amateurs from the national amateur radio
organization who assists the NTC in formulating policies, rules,
regulations and exam questions for the amateur radio service.

3.6 Amateur Radio Inspector Refers to a Class A Amateur Radio Operator


who has operated his own amateur station for at least five (5) years and
has been deputized by the NTC to inspect amateur stations.

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3.7 Amateur Radio Service- A radio communications service for the purpose
of self-training, intercommunication and technical investigations carried
out by amateurs.

3.8 Amateur Radio Station License (ARSL) Refers to a license or written


authority to own and operate amateur radio, issued to a qualified person
who has passed an appropriate amateur examination, for the period
specified.

3.9 Amateur Satellite Service A radio communication service using space


stations and earth satellites for the same purposes as those of the Amateur
Radio Service.

3.10 Club Station Licenseis a license issued in favor of a club, society,


association who has at least twenty five (25) licensed RAOs and/or RALs
and a designated trustee.

3.11 NTC Refers to the National Telecommunications Commission.

3.12 Radio General Term applied to the use of radio wave.

3.13 Radiocommunication - Refers to telecommunications by means of radio


waves.

3.14 Radio Amateur Licensee (RAL)is an amateur with a valid ARSL.

3.15 Radio Amateur Operator (RAO) A person with a valid RAOC who is
interested in radio technique solely with a personal aim to operate an
amateur station and without pecuniary interest.

3.16 Radio Amateur Operator Certificate (RAOC) Refers to a certificate or


written authority to operate amateur radio, issued to a qualified person
who has passed an appropriate amateur examination, for the period
specified.

3.17 Radio Apparatus Refers to a reasonably complete and sufficient


combination of distinct radio equipment intended for and capable of being
used either for transmission or reception of radio signals or both.

3.18 Radio Station One or more transmitters, receivers or combination of


transmitters and receivers at a location for carrying on radio
communication.

3.19 Repeater Station Refers to an unmanned fixed station which receives a


signal on a frequency and automatically re-transmits the same signal on
another frequency.

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3.20 Telecommunications Any transmission, emission, or reception of signs,
signal, writings, images and sounds or intelligence of any nature by wire,
radio, optical or other electromagnetic systems.

3.21 Trustee An amateur who has been duly licensed as Class A for at
least five (5) years and who is duly appointed by a club or association to
supervise and control the proper use and operation of the fixed station of
said club or association.

SECTION II. APPLICATIONS AND LICENSES

1. Station Permit or License Required No amateur radio station or club station


shall be operated, except by a holder of a valid RAOC or ARSL issued by the
NTC.

2. Conditions for the Grant of RAOC and/or ARSL:

2.1 An applicant for a RAOC and/or ARSL must qualify under the provisions
of Section IV (2).

2.2 A RAOC and/or ARSL shall be issued to a person who has passed the
appropriate NTC examination.

2.3 A complete set of applications for a RAOC and/or ARSL shall have been
filed with the NTC.

3. Classes of Amateurs:

A Extra Class
B General Class
C Technician Class
D Foundation Class

4. Privileges of Amateurs the NTC shall prescribe the amateur privileges,


including the use of specific bands for each class.

5. Amateur Call SignThe NTC shall grant a unique amateur call sign to the
applicant who successfully passes the amateur radio exams and meets the
minimum conditions for the grant of license. This call sign shall be indicated in
the amateur radio station license and in the radio amateur operator certificate.
The NTC may issue vanity or special call signs.

6. Effectivity of the Licenses or Certificates The NTC shall issue new or renewal
licenses or certificates to qualified applicants who have submitted the appropriate
application form which shall be valid for a minimum of one (1) year with the

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expiration date falling on the licensees birth date. Lifetime or permanent ARSL
shall be valid for the lifetime of the RAL.

7. Scope of Authority of Amateur License or Certificate A duly approved license


shall convey to the holder the authority to install, own and operate the authorized
equipment for an amateur fixed, mobile and/or portable radio station in the
appropriate frequency bands for his class. A duly approved certificate shall
convey to the holder the authority to operate amateur radio in the appropriate
frequency bands for his class.

8. Renewal of License or Certificate A license or certificate without changes in


any of its particulars may be renewed provided that the application for renewal
has been filed with the NTC at least thirty (30) days before the date of expiration
of the license or certificate.

8.1 A license or certificate that expired less than two (2) years may be
renewed upon filing of a renewal application and payment to the NTC of
the prescribed annual fee. The applicant shall also pay arrears equivalent
to the license fee for every year or a fraction of a year that the license was
expired. In addition, a penalty equivalent to the annual license fee shall
likewise be charged for every year or a fraction of a year that the license
has been expired.

8.2 A license or certificate that expired more than two (2) years, but less than
5 years may be renewed in the same manner as Section 8.1. The
applicant, however, will be assigned a different call sign from that
previously issued to him if it is no longer available for assignment.

8.3 Club station licenses, RAOCs and/or ARSLs that expired beyond 5 years
may be renewed in the same manner as Section 8.1. However, the RAO
and/or RAL shall be required to attend a seminar on current Radio Laws
and Radio Ethics with the national amateur radio organization. The
applicant, however, will be assigned a different call sign from that
previously issued to him or the club station if it is no longer available for
assignment.

9. Modification of License Application for modification of the license shall be


filed with the NTC for upgrading to a higher class of license, change of name,
transfer of location of the fixed station or addition/deletion of transceiver.

10. Duplicate License or Certificate A license or certificate which has been lost,
mutilated or destroyed shall be reported immediately and an application for a
duplicate copy be filed with the NTC. If the original license or certificate is later
found, the duplicate shall be returned immediately to the NTC.

11. Schedule of Fees The schedule of fees shall be prescribed by the NTC.

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12. The NTC shall maintain an updated database of amateur radio station licensees
and radio amateur operators. This database shall be made available to the public
and shall only reveal the name, call sign(s), amateur radio class and license
expiration date of the club station license, ARSL or RAOC.

SECTION III. TECHNICAL REGULATIONS

1. Authorized Frequencies

1.1 The following are frequency bands allocated by the NTC to the amateur
Radio Service in the Philippines.

135.7 - 137.8 KHz Secondary (WRC footnote)


472.0 479.0 KHz Secondary WRC-12 5.A123
1.800 - 2.000 MHz Primary (note: NIB to any Loran System)
3.500 - 3.900 MHz Primary
7.000 - 7.200 MHz Primary
7.201 - 7.300 MHz Secondary
10.100 - 10.150 MHz Secondary
14.000 - 14.350 MHz Primary
18.068 - 18.168 MHz Primary
21.000 - 21.450 MHz Primary
24.890 - 24.990 MHz Primary
28.000 - 29.700 MHz Primary
50.000 - 54.000 MHz Primary
144.000 - 146.000 MHz Primary
430.000 - 440.000 MHz Secondary (See Foot No. 652, WARC 79)
1240.000 - 1300.000 MHz Secondary
2300.000 - 2450.000 MHz Secondary
3300.000 - 3400.000 MHz Secondary
3400.000 - 3500.000 MHz Secondary
5650 5850 MHz Secondary WRC-07 5.150 5.453
10.000 - 10.450 GHz Secondary
10.450 - 10.500 GHz Secondary
24.000 - 24.050 GHz Primary
24.050 - 24.250 GHz Secondary
47.000 - 47.200 GHz Primary
76.0 - 77.5 GHz Secondary WRC-07 5.149
77.5 - 78.0 GHz PRIMARY WRC-07 5.149
78.0 - 81.0 GHz Secondary WRC-07 5.149 5.560
134.000 - 136.000 GHz Primary
136.000 - 141.000 GHz Secondary
241.000 - 248.000 GHz Secondary
248.000 - 250.000 GHz Primary

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Relevant ITU Footnotes:

5.A123 The maximum Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (e.i.r.p.) of stations in the amateur
service using frequencies in the band 472-479 kHz shall not exceed 1 W. Administrations may
increase this limit of e.i.r.p. to 5 W in portions of their territory which are at a distance of over 800
km from the borders of Algeria, Saudi Arabia, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Belarus, China, Comoros,
Djibouti, Egypt, United Arab Emirates, the Russian Federation, Iran (Islamic Republic of), Iraq,
Jordan, Kazakhstan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Morocco, Mauritania, Oman, Uzbekistan, Qatar,
Syrian Arab Republic, Kyrgyzstan, Somalia, Sudan, Tunisia, Ukraine and Yemen. In this frequency
band, stations in the amateur service shall not cause harmful interference to, or claim protection
from, stations of the aeronautical radionavigation service.

5.150 The following bands:

13 553-13 567 kHz (centre frequency 13 560 kHz),


26 957-27 283 kHz (centre frequency 27 120 kHz),
40.66-40.70 MHz (centre frequency 40.68 MHz),
902-928 MHz in Region 2 (centre frequency 915 MHz),
2400-2 500 MHz (centre frequency 2 450 MHz),
5725-5 875 MHz (centre frequency 5 800 MHz), and
24-24.25 GHz (centre frequency 24.125 GHz)

are also designated for industrial, scientific and medical (ISM) applications. Radiocommunication
services operating within these bands must accept harmful interference which may be caused by
these applications. ISM equipment operating in these bands is subject to the provisions of No.
15.13.

5.453 Additional allocation: in Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Bangladesh, Brunei Darussalam,


Cameroon, China, Congo (Rep. of the), Korea (Rep. of), Cte dIvoire, Egypt, the United Arab
Emirates, Gabon, Guinea, Equatorial Guinea, India, Indonesia, Iran (Islamic Republic of), Iraq,
Israel, the Libyan Arab Jamahiriya, Japan, Jordan, Kenya, Kuwait, Lebanon, Madagascar,
Malaysia, Nigeria, Oman, Pakistan, the Philippines, Qatar, the Syrian Arab Republic, the Dem.
Peoples Rep. of Korea, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Swaziland, Tanzania, Chad, Thailand, Togo,
Vietnam and Yemen, the band 5 650-5 850 MHz is also allocated to the fixed and mobile services
on a primary basis. In this case, the provisions of Resolution 229 (WRC-03) do not apply. (WRC-
03)

5.149 In making assignments to stations of other services to which the bands:

13 360-13 410 kHz, 4 950-4 990 MHz, 102-109.5 GHz,


25 550-25 670 kHz, 4 990-5 000 MHz, 111.8-114.25 GHz,
37.5-38.25 MHz, 6 650-6 675.2 MHz, 128.33-128.59 GHz,
73-74.6 MHz in Regions 1 and 3, 10.6-10.68 GHz, 129.23-129.49 GHz, 150.05-
153 MHz in Region 1, 14.47-14.5 GHz, 130-134 GHz,
322-328.6 MHz, 22.01-22.21 GHz, 136-148.5 GHz,
406.1-410 MHz, 22.21-22.5 GHz, 151.5-158.5 GHz,
608-614 MHz in Regions 1 and 3, 22.81-22.86 GHz, 168.59-168.93 GHz,
1 330-1 400 MHz, 23.07-23.12 GHz, 171.11-171.45 GHz,
1 610.6-1 613.8 MHz, 31.2-31.3 GHz, 172.31-172.65 GHz,
1 660-1 670 MHz, 31.5-31.8 GHz in Regions 1 and 3, 173.52-173.85 GHz,
1 718.8-1 722.2 MHz, 36.43-36.5 GHz, 195.75-196.15 GHz,
2 655-2 690 MHz, 42.5-43.5 GHz, 209-226 GHz,
3 260-3 267 MHz, 48.94-49.04 GHz, 241-250 GHz,
3 332-3 339 MHz, 76-86 GHz, 252-275 GHz
3 345.8-3 352.5 MHz, 92-94 GHz,
4 825-4 835 MHz, 94.1-100 GHz,

are allocated, administrations are urged to take all practicable steps to protect the radio astronomy
service from harmful interference. Emissions from spaceborne or airborne stations can be
particularly serious sources of interference to the radio astronomy service (see Nos. 4.5 and 4.6 and
Article 29). (WRC-07)

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5.560 In the band 78-79 GHz radars located on space stations may be operated on a primary basis
in the Earth exploration-satellite service and in the space research service.

1.2 The frequency bands that shall be allocated to the different classes of radio
amateurs shall be determined by the NTC. Stations operating on
frequency bands allocated on a secondary basis shall not cause harmful
interference to stations authorized to operate in the band of a primary
service.

2. Authorized Station Power Output

2.1 A Class A licensee shall be authorized to operate an HF fixed and/or


mobile radio station with an output power not to exceed one (1) kilowatt
on a continuous wave (CW) or two (2) kilowatts peak envelope power
(PEP) single band suppressed carrier and state-of-the-art on VHF/UHF
fixed, mobile or portable station.
2.2 A Class B licensee shall be authorized to operate an HF fixed radio
station and/or mobile radio station with an output power not exceeding
five hundred (500) watts on CW or one (1) kw PEP on single side band
suppressed carrier and state of the art on VHF/UHF fixed, mobile or
portable station.

2.3 A Class C licensee shall be authorized to operate an HF fixed radio


station and/or mobile radio station with an output power not exceeding
100 watts on CW or 200 watts PEP on single side band suppressed carrier
and 100 watts on VHF fixed, portable or mobile station.

2.4 A Class D licensee shall be authorized to operate a VHF fixed radio


station with an output power not exceeding 50 watts and 10 watts on VHF
mobile or portable.

3. Emergency Channel

3.1 The frequency 145.000 MHz (+ - 25 KHz) shall be used only for
emergency communication and general calling for radio telephony. The
NTC may assign other emergency channel as the need arises.

3.2 To facilitate the reception of distress calls, all transmissions on 145.000


MHz shall be kept to a minimum and shall not exceed one minute.

3.3 Before transmitting on the frequency 145.000 MHz a station should listen
on this frequency for a reasonable period to make sure that no distress
traffic is being sent. This provision does not apply to a station in distress.

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3.4 Distress Communications

3.4.1 The distress call sent by radiotelephony consists of:

- The distress signal MAYDAY spoken three (3) times


- The words THIS IS (or DE spoken as DELTA ECHO in case
of language difficulties).

3.4.2 The radiotelephone distress message consists of:

- The distress signal MAYDAY.


- The name, or other identification of the mobile station in
distress.
- Particular of its position.
- The nature of the distress and the kind of assistance desired.
- Any other information which might facilitate the rescue.

3.5 Any station in the amateur mobile service which has knowledge of a
distress traffic and which cannot itself assist the station in distress is
forbidden to transmit on the frequency in which the distress traffic is
taking place, until such station receives the message indicating that normal
working transmissions may be resumed.

SECTION IV. AMATEUR RADIO EXAMINATION

Every amateur must thoroughly understand his responsibility to develop the skills that are
needed to operate his radio station properly. The examination to be taken by a
prospective amateur or an upgrading amateur shall determine whether he is qualified for
the privileges conveyed by a license or certificate.

1. Submission of Application for Amateur ExaminationApplicants for amateur


examinations must submit the appropriate application forms to the NTC.

2. General Qualifications for Examinees An applicant for examination must


possess the following general qualifications:

2.1 A citizen of the Philippine or a citizen of other countries that provide the
same privilege extended to Filipino nationals in their country as far as
examination is concerned.

2.2 At least twelve (12) years old for Class A, B and C. For Class D, the
minimum age shall be nine (9) years old provided there is an affidavit of
parental consent.

2.3 Ability to transmit and/or receive messages either in Filipino, English, or


any of the Philippine languages.

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3. Examination Coverage The examination shall cover the rules, procedures and
technical materials that an amateur will need to know in order to operate a station
properly. The examination for amateurs shall cover the following general
subjects:

3.1 Element I - Morse Code

3.2 Element II - Rules and Regulations

3.3 Element III - Fundamentals of Electronics and Electricity

3.4 Element IV - Amateur Radio Practice


3.5 Element V - Signals, Frequencies and Emission

3.6 Element VI - Circuit Components

3.7 Element VII - Operating Procedures

3.8 Element VIII - Practical Circuits

3.9 Element IX - Antenna and Transmission Lines

3.10 Element X - Radio Wave Propagation

4. Written Examination

4.1 Required Rating The candidate must obtain an average of 70% to pass
the written examination required for a class of amateur license provided
that a rating of not less than 50% is received for any of the prescribed
elements.

4.2 The NTC shall prescribe the elements of examination for each class of
amateur including the syllabus or area of study and examination for each
element.

4.3 In the event that a candidate for Class C fails in Elements III and IV, but
passes element II, he shall be eligible for a Class D License.

5. Special Candidates A registered Electronics and Communication Engineer or a


holder of a valid commercial first radiotelephone operator certificate is qualified
to hold an amateur Class B provided he shall pass the examination for element
II without undergoing the examination for Class C. Similarly, a holder of a
valid first/or second class commercial radiotelegraph radio operator certificate
shall be required to pass the examination for element II only.

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SECTION V. RULES GOVERNING OPERATION OF AMATEUR
STATIONS

All amateurs shall observe the following rules:

1. Requirement for station operation A valid license or certificate is required for


the operation of an amateur station.

2. Transmission must be in plain language of either English, Filipino or any of the


Philippine dialects. Q codes may be used in voice communication.

3. An amateur shall not transmit messages or signals containing music, profane or


indecent words or language, communications intended to facilitate a criminal act.
4. Transmissions in the amateur radio service shall be identified through the use of
call signs. The amateur is encouraged to identify itself with its call sign at least
once for every ten minutes of transmission.

5. Posting of call signs The call sign(s) of a licensee shall be displayed


conspicuously at the authorized location of the station or on the equipment itself if
it is a portable station.

6. All transmissions with false or misleading identification are prohibited.

7. Communications with amateur stations of other countries shall be made in plain


language and shall be limited to messages of a technical nature relating to test and
personal remarks for which, by reason of their unimportance, recourse to the
public telecommunications services is not necessary.

8. The amateur shall operate within the privileges allowed in the station license
granted to him.

9. Posting of licenses The license must be posted in a conspicuous place in the


radio station or a certified copy thereof be carried by the amateur.

10. The amateur may permit any person to transmit by voice provided he directly
controls the entire operation in accordance with the proper amateur practice and
only the call sign of the licensee is used to identify the transmission.

11. Amateurs shall not receive, levy, or collect a toll fee or other remuneration for a
service or services performed by his station.

12. Amateurs shall take great effort to regulate and control the use of any channel in
the authorized frequency band/s in order to prevent harmful interference to other
existing radio communications. The emitted wave shall be free, as practically as
possible, from harmonics, key clicks and other forms of unwanted signals.
Intentional jamming is strictly prohibited and it shall be a ground for suspension

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and/or revocation of the license or certificate after due process, or for those who
are not licensed, it may be a bar to the issuance of any license or certificate.

13. It is absolutely forbidden for amateurs to use their facilities for transmitting music
and commercial messages or signals.

14. The radio frequencies allocated for amateur stations shall be used strictly in
accordance with the class of the operating stations.
15. An amateur shall cease operation immediately upon knowing that his station is
causing harmful interference to the operation of any existing licensed station.

16. If harmful interference is being caused by an amateur radio station, the NTC shall
take appropriate steps as it may deem proper for the prevention of further
interference either by limiting the power of the station, the working hours of the
stations, or if necessary, by suspending its operation pending a satisfactory
adjustment of the equipment. In the event of continued interference, the NTC
may order the temporary closure of the interfering station.

17. The power output of the equipment energizing the antenna or radiating system of
an amateur radio station shall not exceed the limit prescribed for the particular
class of station.

18. If the equipment of a station is capable of operating with an RF power output in


excess of 500 watts, such equipment must be provided with a means for
measuring the anode voltage and current of the stage supplying power to the
antenna.

19. In radioteletype transmission, the frequency shift shall not exceed 850 hertz. The
station must identify itself by transmitting its call sign in morse code at the start
and end of its transmission and at least once every ten (10) minutes. The
simultaneous transmission of sound and picture (Amateur Television) on all
frequencies above 50 MHz is allowed provided such operation shall be covered
by a specific authorization from the NTC.

20. The frequency of a transmitter operating on frequencies below 144 MHz must be
suppressed during periods of reception.

Except for brief tests and adjustments which must be identified by the station call
sign, the emission of an unmodulated carrier is not permitted on frequencies
below 144 MHz.

21. Stability of transmission less than that obtainable with crystal control is
prohibited.

22. Broadcasting of information intended solely for licensed amateurs as defined


under these regulations is authorized within the radio frequency bands allocated

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for the Amateur Radio Service. Rebroadcast of radio or television programs
originally intended for the entertainment of the general public is not allowed.

23. Portable or mobile operation A portable or mobile station shall be allowed to


communicate with any amateur station provided the following requirements are
complied with:

23.1 Portable or mobile operation must be identified in radiotelephony by the


call sign of the station suffixed by the word portable or mobile
followed by the number of the district in which the operation is taking
place, e.g. DU9RG portable 8, DU2JJT mobile 9 etc. The last figure may
be omitted when the mobile or portable station is in the home district.
Radio telegraphy transmission must be identified by the call sign of the
station followed by a fraction bar and number of the district of operation
e.g. DU1EV/2.

23.2 Portable operation must not exceed beyond one (1) month in any other
area without obtaining a specific authority for continued operation and if
the operation will exceed four (4) months continuously in that location, a
modification of the station license must be applied for.

23.3 The licensee shall make available the portable or mobile equipment of the
station for inspection upon reasonable request of the NTC authorized
representative.

23.4 The licensee of a portable or mobile station may also communicate with
his own fixed station provided that said fixed station is manned by another
duly licensed amateur and identified with the use of the authorized call
sign of that fixed station

24. Location and control of station A fixed amateur radio station shall be authorized
only in places under the control of the amateur radio operator. The amateur radio
station shall not be located at a place under the control of any alien except when
such station was established in accordance with Section IX of these regulations.

24.1 A duly licensed amateur, however, may install and operate the mobile
radio equipment of his station on any vehicle or vessel owned or
controlled by the licensee and the authorized call sign is correctly shown.
The licensee shall present the original station license or certified copy
thereof to any representative of a law enforcement agency upon reasonable
requests.

25. It shall be unlawful for a licensed amateur to allow the use of any of his/her
transmitter/transceiver by non-licensed persons. However, the use of radio
transmitters/transceivers by persons other than the licensed amateurs shall be

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allowed provided the operator is under the direct supervision or control of the
licensee.

26. Technical experimentationAmateurs being at the forefront of technology and


experimentation may use the latest technology to enhance their hobby. This
includes, but is not limited to, the use of amateur satellites and the internet within
the limits of the law.

SECTION VI. SALE, IMPORTATION AND USE OF AMATEUR RADIO


TRANSCEIVERS

Only NTC accredited radio dealers shall be allowed to sell and import amateur
transceivers. Licensed amateurs may sell and transfer transceivers previously
licensed/registered under his name to another licensed amateur provided that the latter
has secured an appropriate permit to purchase. Licensed amateurs may import equipment
for personal use upon securing the proper permit from the NTC and the payment of the
appropriate Customs duties.

SECTION VII. INSTALLATION AND OPERATION OF REPEATERS

1. Authorization to install and operate repeaters shall be granted only to duly


recognized amateur associations, clubs, societies or schools.
2. As far as practicable, repeaters shall be designed and installed in an orderly
manner to enhance the development of amateur radio communication in the
country.

3. The amateur shall operate the repeaters properly on a non-interference basis. In


cases of interference to and between repeaters, the national amateur radio
organization may be called by the NTC to mediate and arbitrate.

4. Repeater license - A repeater license, which is separate and distinct from the
ARSL or club station license, shall be issued in favor of a club or association. A
certified true copy of the repeater license shall be posted at the location of the
repeater and it shall bear the same call sign of the RAL or the club station.

SECTION VIII. AMATEUR ORGANIZATION

1. Accreditation of Amateur Organization

1.1 An amateur association, club, society is the appropriate forum where


members may acquire a thorough understanding of his responsibilities and
develop skills to operate his station properly.

1.2 An amateur organization, club, society, organized under Philippine Laws


and having a minimum membership of twenty five (25) duly licensed

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amateur radio operator may be accredited by NTC and granted permission
to operate a club station.

1.3 An applicant organization shall execute a Memorandum of Agreement


with the NTC. The Memorandum of Agreement shall indicate the
conditions under which the applicant organization may be accredited.

2. The Philippine Amateur Radio Association (PARA) is the only recognized


national society of amateurs.

3. Eligibility of Organization to Operate a Fixed Station

The NTC may authorize an accredited amateur club or association to establish and
operate an amateur fixed station. However, the station license shall be issued
only to a trustee designated by the club or society from among its Class A
members who has a valid ARSL and has been licensed as Class A for at least
five (5) years to act as such.

3.1 The trustee shall be responsible for the correct and proper operation of the
station, as required by these regulations. He may allow amateurs of lower
classes to operate the station provided that the same shall be done under
his direct supervision only.

3.2 The fixed station maintained by a club or society shall be used generally
for training purposes and communication with amateur stations located in
other districts of the country or in friendly foreign countries.

SECTION IX. AMATEUR RADIO DISTRICTS

The Philippines shall be divided into nine (9) amateur radio districts, as follows:

DISTRICT NO. 1 DISTRICT NO. 6


National Capital Region Region VI
Region IV

DISTRICT NO. 2 DISTRICT NO. 7


Region I Region VII
Region II
CAR

DISTRICT NO. 3 DISTRICT NO. 8


Region III Region IX
Region X
Region XII

Page | 15
DISTRICT NO. 4 DISTRICT NO. 9
Region V Region XI
Region XIII
ARMM
DISTRICT NO. 5
Region VIII

SECTION X. LICENSING OF FOREIGN AMATEURS

The NTC may authorize a foreign visitor to operate an amateur radio station while
temporarily staying in the Philippines; Provided the applicant shall submit the following
requirements:

1. Copy of valid Amateur Radio Operator Certificate issued by the country of


citizenship.
2. Any proof that his/her country provides the same privilege with Filipino amateurs.
3. Endorsement from recognized national organization.
4. Payment of required fees.

A Temporary Permit valid for one (1) year shall be issued upon submission of the
required documents. Foreign amateurs are encouraged to affiliate with the national
amateur radio organization for better camaraderie and fellowship.

SECTION XI. GROUNDS FOR SUSPENSION / REVOCATION OF


LICENSE / OPERATOR CERTIFICATE/TEMPORARY
PERMIT

A license or certificate issued under these regulations may be revoked or suspended, after
due notice and hearing is afforded to the amateur or trustee, for any of the following acts:

1. Violation of any provisions of the Radio Control Act 3846, as amended or any
regulations promulgated thereunder concerning amateur radio service.

2. Making any false statement in the application for license and/or operator
certificate or any report required to be submitted under these regulations.

3. Failure to comply with any of the conditions under which a license is issued.

4. Intentional harmful interfering or jamming of licensed radio stations.

SECTION XII. QUESTION POOL COMMITTEE

A question pool committee composed of the Amateur Radio Consultative Panel and
persons or offices designated by the NTC shall formulate a question pool which shall be
used for the amateur radio examinations. They shall meet periodically to update and
improve the question pool.

Page | 16
SECTION XIII. IMPLEMENTING RULES AND REGULATIONS (IRR)

The Amateur Radio Consultative Panel shall formulate the appropriate implementing
rules and regulations for this circular. They shall meet periodically to update or improve
the IRRs. The IRR shall be issued no later than one year from the effectivity of this
circular.

SECTION XIV. OVERSIGHT COMMITTEE

The Amateur Radio Consultative Panel shall periodically review and assess this Circular
and its IRRs with the end in view of further improving the amateur radio service in the
Philippines.

SECTION XII. REPEALING CLAUSE

This supersedes any existing amateur radio regulation, order, instruction or memorandum
circular, or any of part thereof, which is inconsistent herewith.

SECTION XIII. SAVING CLAUSE


If any provision of this Circular is declared invalid or unconstitutional, other provisions
hereof which are not affected thereby shall continue to be in full force and effect.

SECTION XIV. EFFECTIVITY.

This Circular shall take effect immediately upon publication in a newspaper of general
circulation.

29 August 2012, Quezon City, Philippines.

-original signed-
GAMALIEL A. CORDOBA
Commissioner

-original signed-
DELILAH F. DELES
Deputy Commissioner

Page | 17
Amateur Radio Question Pools
Source: 2014-2018 FCC Element 2, 2015-2019 FCC Element 3, and
2012-2016 FCC Element 4 Question Pools

SUBELEMENT T5 ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES


T5A - Electrical principles, units, and terms: current and voltage; conductors
and insulators; alternating and direct current

T5A01 (D)
Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?
A. Volts
B. Watts
C. Ohms
D. Amperes
~~

T5A02 (B)
Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?
A. Volts
B. Watts
C. Ohms
D. Amperes
~~

T5A03 (D)
What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?
A. Voltage
B. Resistance
C. Capacitance
D. Current
~~

T5A04 (B)
What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction?
A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Normal current
D. Smooth current
~

T5A05 (A)
What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes
electron flow?
A. Voltage
B. Ampere-hours
C. Capacitance
D. Inductance
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


Prepared by: 4F1KIK
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T5A06 (A)
How much voltage does a mobile transceiver usually require?
A. About 12 volts
B. About 30 volts
C. About 120 volts
D. About 240 volts
~~

T5A07 (C)
Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?
A. Glass
B. Wood
C. Copper
D. Rubber
~~

T5A08 (B)
Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?
A. Copper
B. Glass
C. Aluminum
D. Mercury
~~

T5A09 (A)
What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?
A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Circular current
D. Vertical current
~~

T5A10 (C)
Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?
A. Resistance
B. Current
C. Power
D. Voltage
~~

T5A11 (A)
What is the basic unit of electromotive force?
A. The volt
B. The watt
C. The ampere
D. The ohm
~~

T5A12 (D)
What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current
reverses direction?
A. Pulse rate
B. Speed
C. Wavelength
D. Frequency
~~

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T5B - Math for electronics: conversion of electrical units; decibels; the metric
system

T5B01 (C)
How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
A. 15 milliamperes
B. 150 milliamperes
C. 1,500 milliamperes
D. 15,000 milliamperes
~~

T5B02 (A)
What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz?
A. 1500 kHz
B. 1500 MHz
C. 15 GHz
D. 150 kHz
~~

T5B03 (C)
How many volts are equal to one kilovolt?
A. One one-thousandth of a volt
B. One hundred volts
C. One thousand volts
D. One million volts
~~

T5B04 (A)
How many volts are equal to one microvolt?
A. One one-millionth of a volt
B. One million volts
C. One thousand kilovolts
D. One one-thousandth of a volt
~~

T5B05 (B)
Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?
A. 0.02 watts
B. 0.5 watts
C. 5 watts
D. 50 watts
~~

T5B06 (C)
If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere
current, what reading would it show?
A. 0.003 amperes
B. 0.3 amperes
C. 3 amperes
D. 3,000,000 amperes
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


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T5B07 (C)
If a frequency readout calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz,
what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz?
A. 0.003525 kHz
B. 35.25 kHz
C. 3525 kHz
D. 3,525,000 kHz
~~

T5B08 (B)
How many microfarads are 1,000,000 picofarads?
A. 0.001 microfarads
B. 1 microfarad
C. 1000 microfarads
D. 1,000,000,000 microfarads
~~

T5B09 (B)
What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power
increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 5 dB
D. 10 dB
~~

T5B10 (C)
What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power
decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?
A. -1 dB
B. -3 dB
C. -6 dB
D. -9 dB
~~

T5B11 (A)
What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power
increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?
A. 10 dB
B. 12 dB
C. 18 dB
D. 28 dB
~~

T5B12 (A)
Which of the following frequencies is equal to 28,400 kHz?
A. 28.400 MHz
B. 2.800 MHz
C. 284.00 MHz
D. 28.400 kHz
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


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T5B13 (C)
If a frequency readout shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in
GHz?
A. 0.002425 GHZ
B. 24.25 GHz
C. 2.425 GHz
D. 2425 GHz
~~

T5C - Electronic principles: capacitance; inductance; current flow in circuits;


alternating current; definition of RF; DC power calculations; impedance

T5C01 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?
A. Inductance
B. Resistance
C. Tolerance
D. Capacitance
~~

T5C02 (A)
What is the basic unit of capacitance?
A. The farad
B. The ohm
C. The volt
D. The henry
~~

T5C03 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
A. Admittance
B. Capacitance
C. Resistance
D. Inductance
~~

T5C04 (C)
What is the basic unit of inductance?
A. The coulomb
B. The farad
C. The henry
D. The ohm
~~

T5C05 (A)
What is the unit of frequency?
A. Hertz
B. Henry
C. Farad
D. Tesla
~~

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T5C06 (A)
What does the abbreviation RF refer to?
A. Radio frequency signals of all types
B. The resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
C. The real frequency transmitted as opposed to the apparent frequency
D. Reflective force in antenna transmission lines
~~

T5C07 (C)
What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that travel through space?
A. Gravity waves
B. Sound waves
C. Radio waves
D. Pressure waves
~~

T5C08 (A)
What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit?
A. Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
B. Power (P) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
C. Power (P) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)
D. Power (P) equals voltage (E) plus current (I)
~~

T5C09 (A)
How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts
DC and the current is 10 amperes?
A. 138 watts
B. 0.7 watts
C. 23.8 watts
D. 3.8 watts
~~

T5C10 (B)
How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts
DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?
A. 4.8 watts
B. 30 watts
C. 14.5 watts
D. 0.208 watts
~~

T5C11 (B)
How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts
DC and the load is 120 watts?
A. 0.1 amperes
B. 10 amperes
C. 12 amperes
D. 132 amperes
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


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T5C12 (A)
What is meant by the term impedance?
A. It is a measure of the opposition to AC current flow in a circuit
B. It is the inverse of resistance
C. It is a measure of the Q or Quality Factor of a component
D. It is a measure of the power handling capability of a component
~~

T5C13 (D)
What are the units of impedance?
A. Volts
B. Amperes
C. Coulombs
D. Ohms
~~

T5D Ohms Law: formulas and usage

T5D01 (B)
What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?
A. Current (I) equals voltage (E) multiplied by resistance (R)
B. Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R)
C. Current (I) equals voltage (E) added to resistance (R)
D. Current (I) equals voltage (E) minus resistance (R)
~~

T5D02 (A)
What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?
A. Voltage (E) equals current (I) multiplied by resistance (R)
B. Voltage (E) equals current (I) divided by resistance (R)
C. Voltage (E) equals current (I) added to resistance (R)
D. Voltage (E) equals current (I) minus resistance (R)
~~

T5D03 (B)
What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?
A. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
B. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
C. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) added to current (I)
D. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)
~~

T5D04 (B)
What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows
through a resistor connected to 90 volts?
A. 3 ohms
B. 30 ohms
C. 93 ohms
D. 270 ohms
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


Prepared by: 4F1KIK
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T5D05 (C)
What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts
and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?
A. 18 ohms
B. 0.125 ohms
C. 8 ohms
D. 13.5 ohms
~~

T5D06 (A)
What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
A. 3 ohms
B. 16 ohms
C. 48 ohms
D. 8 Ohms
~~

T5D07 (D)
What is the current flow in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a
resistance of 80 ohms?
A. 9600 amperes
B. 200 amperes
C. 0.667 amperes
D. 1.5 amperes
~~

T5D08 (C)
What is the current flowing through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200
volts?
A. 20,000 amperes
B. 0.5 amperes
C. 2 amperes
D. 100 amperes
~~

T5D09 (C)
What is the current flowing through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240
volts?
A. 24,000 amperes
B. 0.1 amperes
C. 10 amperes
D. 216 amperes
~~

T5D10 (A)
What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows
through it?
A. 1 volt
B. 0.25 volts
C. 2.5 volts
D. 1.5 volts
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


Prepared by: 4F1KIK
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T5D11 (B)
What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows
through it?
A. 1 volt
B. 10 volts
C. 11 volts
D. 9 volts
~~

T5D12 (D)
What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows
through it?
A. 8 volts
B. 0.2 volts
C. 12 volts
D. 20 volts
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


Prepared by: 4F1KIK
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SUBELEMENT T4 AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES
T4A Station setup: connecting microphones; reducing unwanted emissions; power
source; connecting a computer; RF grounding; connecting digital equipment;
connecting an SWR meter

T4A01 (B)
Which of the following is true concerning the microphone connectors on amateur
transceivers?
A. All transceivers use the same microphone connector type
B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for powering the microphone
C. All transceivers using the same connector type are wired identically
D. Un-keyed connectors allow any microphone to be connected
~~

T4A02 (D)
How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?
A. For logging contacts and contact information
B. For sending and/or receiving CW
C. For generating and decoding digital signals
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

T4A03 (A)
Which is a good reason to use a regulated power supply for communications
equipment?
A. It prevents voltage fluctuations from reaching sensitive circuits
B. A regulated power supply has FCC approval
C. A fuse or circuit breaker regulates the power
D. Power consumption is independent of load
~~

T4A04 (A)
Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions from your station?
A. Between the transmitter and the antenna
B. Between the receiver and the transmitter
C. At the station power supply
D. At the microphone
~~

T4A05 (A)
Where should an in-line SWR meter be connected to monitor the standing wave
ratio of the station antenna system?
A. In series with the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna
B. In series with the station's ground
C. In parallel with the push-to-talk line and the antenna
D. In series with the power supply cable, as close as possible to the radio
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


Prepared by: 4F1KIK
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T4A06 (C)
Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in
a packet radio station?
A. Transmatch
B. Mixer
C. Terminal node controller
D. Antenna
~~

T4A07 (C)
How is a computers sound card used when conducting digital communications using
a computer?
A. The sound card communicates between the computer CPU and the video display
B. The sound card records the audio frequency for video display
C. The sound card provides audio to the microphone input and converts received
audio to digital form
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

T4A08 (D)
Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?
A. Round stranded wire
B. Round copper-clad steel wire
C. Twisted-pair cable
D. Flat strap
~~

T4A09 (D)
Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF
current flowing on the shield of a microphone cable?
A. Band-pass filter
B. Low-pass filter
C. Preamplifier
D. Ferrite choke
~~

T4A10 (B)
What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a
mobile transceivers receive audio?
A. The ignition system
B. The alternator
C. The electric fuel pump
D. Anti-lock braking system controllers
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


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T4A11 (A)
Where should the negative return connection of a mobile transceiver's power
cable be connected?
A. At the battery or engine block ground strap
B. At the antenna mount
C. To any metal part of the vehicle
D. Through the transceivers mounting bracket
~~

T4A12 (D)
What could be happening if another operator reports a variable high-pitched
whine on the audio from your mobile transmitter?
A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an open window
B. You have the volume on your receiver set too high
C. You need to adjust your squelch control
D. Noise on the vehicles electrical system is being transmitted along with your
speech audio
~~

T4B - Operating controls: tuning; use of filters; squelch function; AGC;


repeater offset; memory channels

T4B01 (B)
What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too
high?
A. The output power might be too high
B. The output signal might become distorted
C. The frequency might vary
D. The SWR might increase
~~

T4B02 (A)
Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern
transceiver?
A. The keypad or VFO knob
B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
C. The Automatic Frequency Control
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

T4B03 (D)
What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?
A. To set the highest level of volume desired
B. To set the transmitter power level
C. To adjust the automatic gain control
D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received
~~

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T4B04 (B)
What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency on your
transceiver?
A. Enable the CTCSS tones
B. Store the frequency in a memory channel
C. Disable the CTCSS tones
D. Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency
~~

T4B05 (C)
Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?
A. Change frequency slightly
B. Decrease the squelch setting
C. Turn on the noise blanker
D. Use the RIT control
~~

T4B06 (D)
Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-
sideband signal seems too high or low?
A. The AGC or limiter
B. The bandwidth selection
C. The tone squelch
D. The receiver RIT or clarifier
~~

T4B07 (B)
What does the term RIT mean?
A. Receiver Input Tone
B. Receiver Incremental Tuning
C. Rectifier Inverter Test
D. Remote Input Transmitter
~~

T4B08 (B)
What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a
multimode transceiver?
A. Permits monitoring several modes at once
B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the
mode
C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies
~~

T4B09 (C)
Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in
order to minimize noise and interference for SSB reception?
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 2400 Hz
D. 5000 Hz
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


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T4B10 (A)
Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in
order to minimize noise and interference for CW reception?
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 2400 Hz
D. 5000 Hz
~~

T4B11 (C)
Which of the following describes the common meaning of the term "repeater
offset"?
A. The distance between the repeaters transmit and receive antennas
B. The time delay before the repeater timer resets
C. The difference between the repeaters transmit and receive frequencies
D. Matching the antenna impedance to the feed line impedance
~~

T4B12 (A)
What is the function of automatic gain control or AGC?
A. To keep received audio relatively constant
B. To protect an antenna from lightning
C. To eliminate RF on the station cabling
D. An asymmetric goniometer control used for antenna matching
~~

All credit goes to the source: www.ncvec.org


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SUBELEMENT G5 ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES
G5A - Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance matching

G5A01 (C)
What is impedance?
A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B. The inverse of resistance
C. The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
D. The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
~~

G5A02 (B)
What is reactance?
A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or
inductance
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is
de-energized
~~

G5A03 (D)
Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in
an inductor?
A. Conductance
B. Reluctance
C. Admittance
D. Reactance
~~

G5A04 (C)
Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a
capacitor?
A. Conductance
B. Reluctance
C. Reactance
D. Admittance
~~

G5A05 (D)
How does an inductor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
~~

G5A06 (A)
How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
~~

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G5A07 (D)
What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output
impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?
A. The source delivers minimum power to the load
B. The electrical load is shorted
C. No current can flow through the circuit
D. The source can deliver maximum power to the load
~~

G5A08 (A)
Why is impedance matching important?
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
~~

G5A09 (B)
What unit is used to measure reactance?
A. Farad
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Siemens
~~

G5A10 (B)
What unit is used to measure impedance?
A. Volt
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Watt
~~

G5A11 (A)
Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC
circuits?
A. Insert an LC network between the two circuits
B. Reduce the power output of the first circuit
C. Increase the power output of the first circuit
D. Insert a circulator between the two circuits
~~

G5A12 (B)
What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
A. To minimize transmitter power output
B. To maximize the transfer of power
C. To reduce power supply ripple
D. To minimize radiation resistance
~~

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G5A13 (D)
Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio
frequencies?
A. A transformer
B. A Pi-network
C. A length of transmission line
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G5B - The Decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations;
sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations

G5B01 (B)
What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?
A. Approximately 2 dB
B. Approximately 3 dB
C. Approximately 6 dB
D. Approximately 12 dB
~~

G5B02 (C)
How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a
purely resistive parallel circuit?
A. It equals the average of each branch current
B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
~~

G5B03 (B)
How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm
load?
A. 0.5 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 3200 watts
~~

G5B04 (A)
How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws
0.2 amperes?
A. 2.4 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 6 watts
D. 60 watts
~~

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G5B05 (A)
How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through
1.25 kilohms resistance?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
B. Approximately 61 watts
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
D. Approximately 11 watts
G5B06 (B)
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts
peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?
A. 1.4 watts
B. 100 watts
C. 353.5 watts
D. 400 watts
~~

G5B07 (C)
What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as
a DC voltage of the same value?
A. The peak-to-peak value
B. The peak value
C. The RMS value
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value
~~

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120
volts?
A. 84.8 volts
B. 169.7 volts
C. 240.0 volts
D. 339.4 volts
~~

G5B09 (B)
What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
A. 8.5 volts
B. 12 volts
C. 24 volts
D. 34 volts
~~

G5B10 (C)
What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1
dB?
A. 10.9 percent
B. 12.2 percent
C. 20.5 percent
D. 25.9 percent
~~

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G5B11 (B)
What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated
carrier?
A. 0.707
B. 1.00
C. 1.414
D. 2.00
~~

G5B12 (B)
What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
A. 173 volts
B. 245 volts
C. 346 volts
D. 692 volts
~~

G5B13 (B)
What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter
connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?
A. 530 watts
B. 1060 watts
C. 1500 watts
D. 2120 watts
~~

G5B14 (B)
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts
peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?
A. 8.75 watts
B. 625 watts
C. 2500 watts
D. 5000 watts
~~

G5C Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers

G5C01 (C)
What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer
when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
A. Capacitive coupling
B. Displacement current coupling
C. Mutual inductance
D. Mutual capacitance
~~

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G5C02 (A)
What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage
step down transformer?
A. The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage
B. The transformer no longer functions as it is a unidirectional device
C. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent
overload
D. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent
overload
~~

G5C03 (B)
Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to
increase the resistance?
A. A resistor in parallel
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in series
D. A capacitor in parallel
~~
G5C04 (C)
What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?
A. 0.30 ohms
B. 0.33 ohms
C. 33.3 ohms
D. 300 ohms
~~

G5C05 (C)
If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of
each resistor?
A. 1500 ohms
B. 90 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 175 ohms
~~

G5C06 (C)
What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if
the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
A. 2370 volts
B. 540 volts
C. 26.7 volts
D. 5.9 volts
~~

G5C07 (A)
What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having
600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C. 150 to 1
D. 300 to 1
~~

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G5C08 (D)
What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750
picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
A. 576.9 nanofarads
B. 1733 picofarads
C. 3583 picofarads
D. 10.750 nanofarads
~~

G5C09 (C)
What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
A. 0.30 microfarads
B. 0.33 microfarads
C. 33.3 microfarads
D. 300 microfarads
~~

G5C10 (C)
What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
A. 0.30 henrys
B. 3.3 henrys
C. 3.3 millihenrys
D. 30 millihenrys
~~

G5C11 (C)
What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50
millihenry inductor?
A. 0.07 millihenrys
B. 14.3 millihenrys
C. 70 millihenrys
D. 1000 millihenrys
~~

G5C12 (B)
What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a
50 microfarad capacitor?
A. 0.07 microfarads
B. 14.3 microfarads
C. 70 microfarads
D. 1000 microfarads
~~

G5C13 (C)
Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the
capacitance?
A. An inductor in series
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in parallel
D. A capacitor in series
~~

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G5C14 (D)
Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the
inductance?
A. A capacitor in series
B. A resistor in parallel
C. An inductor in parallel
D. An inductor in series
~~

G5C15 (A)
What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor
connected in parallel?
A. 5.9 ohms
B. 0.17 ohms
C. 10000 ohms
D. 80 ohms
~~

G5C16 (B)
Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers
larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?
A. To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B. To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C. To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D. To insure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of
the secondary winding
~~

G5C17 (C)
What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?
A. 0.22 nF
B. 2.2 nF
C. 22 nF
D. 220 nF
~~

G5C18 (D)
What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?
A. 47 F
B. 0.47 F
C. 47,000 F
D. 4.7 F
~~

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SUBELEMENT G4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES
G4A Station Operation and set up

G4A01 (B)
What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
~~

G4A02 (C)
What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when
receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D. Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
~~

G4A03 (C)
What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
A. The radio is operating at half power
B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D. The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
~~

G4A04 (B)
What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier
indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
A. A pronounced peak
B. A pronounced dip
C. No change will be observed
D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
~~

G4A05 (C)
What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power
amplifier?
A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B. To reduce harmonic radiation
C. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
D. To increase overall efficiency
~~

G4A06 (C)
What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an
impedance not equal to 50 ohms?
A. Balanced modulator
B. SWR Bridge
C. Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
D. Q Multiplier
~~

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G4A07 (D)
What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?
A. Insufficient drive power
B. Low input SWR
C. Shorting the input signal to ground
D. Excessive drive power
~~

G4A08 (D)
What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube
RF power amplifier?
A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
~~

G4A09 (C)
Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
A. To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B. To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly
before RF output is allowed
D. To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
~~

G4A10 (B)
What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C. VOX operation
D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
~~

G4A11 (A)
Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
A. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
B. To change frequency rapidly
C. To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are
transmitting
D. To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your
transmit frequency
~~

G4A12 (C)
Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a
transceiver?
A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B. To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the
same time
C. To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
D. To facilitate computer interface
~~

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G4A13 (A)
What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF
transceivers?
A. To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D. To slow down received CW signals for better copy
~~

G4A14 (B)
What is likely to happen if a transceivers ALC system is not set properly when
transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?
A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B. Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to
overheat
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G4A15 (D)
Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an
audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?
A. The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
B. The transmitter signal is distorted
C. Frequent connection timeouts
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G4B - Test and monitoring equipment; two-tone test

G4B01 (D)
What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
A. An ohmmeter
B. A signal generator
C. An ammeter
D. An oscilloscope
~~

G4B02 (D)
Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital
voltmeter?
A. An oscilloscope uses less power
B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
C. Input impedance is much lower
D. Complex waveforms can be measured
~~

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G4B03 (A)
Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying
waveform of a CW transmitter?
A. An oscilloscope
B. A field strength meter
C. A sidetone monitor
D. A wavemeter
~~

G4B04 (D)
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when
checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
B. An external RF oscillator
C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
~~

G4B05 (D)
Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
A. It improves the frequency response
B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C. It improves the resolution of the readings
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
~~

G4B06 (C)
What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
A. Better for measuring computer circuits
B. Better for RF measurements
C. Better precision for most uses
D. Faster response
~~

G4B07 (B)
What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C. Two swept frequency tones
D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
~~

G4B08 (A)
Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output
when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A. A field strength meter
B. An antenna noise bridge
C. A multimeter
D. A Q meter
~~

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G4B09 (B)
Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
A. The radiation resistance of an antenna
B. The radiation pattern of an antenna
C. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
D. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
~~

G4B10 (A)
Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
A. Standing wave ratio
B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
C. RF interference
D. Radio wave propagation
~~

G4B11 (C)
Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being
used for SWR measurements?
A. Receiver
B. Transmitter
C. Antenna and feed line
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G4B12 (B)
What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an
antenna analyzer?
A. Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of
measurements
C. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are
attempted
D. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
~~

G4B13 (C)
What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna
system?
A. Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B. Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C. Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
D. Determining the gain of a directional antenna
~~

G4B14 (D)
What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be
preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?
A. When testing logic circuits
B. When high precision is desired
C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D. When adjusting tuned circuits
~~

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G4B15 (A)
What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
A. Linearity
B. Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C. Percentage of frequency modulation
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift
~~

G4C - Interference with consumer electronics; grounding; DSP

G4C01 (B)
Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio
frequency devices?
A. Bypass inductor
B. Bypass capacitor
C. Forward-biased diode
D. Reverse-biased diode
~~

G4C02 (C)
Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of
frequencies?
A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
~~

G4C03 (C)
What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference
from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?
A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech
D. Clearly audible speech
~~

G4C04 (A)
What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is
interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
A. On-and-off humming or clicking
B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C. A chirpy CW signal
D. Severely distorted audio
~~

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G4C05 (D)
What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment
while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a
ground rod?
A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C. The ground rod is resonant
D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
~~

G4C06 (C)
What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
A. Overheating of ground straps
B. Corrosion of the ground rod
C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D. A ground loop
~~

G4C07 (A)
What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur
station?
A. Connect all equipment grounds together
B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
C. Use a ground loop for best conductivity
D. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your
station
~~

G4C08 (A)
Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode
current on an audio cable?
A. Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
~~

G4C09 (D)
How can a ground loop be avoided?
A. Connect all ground conductors in series
B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point
~~

G4C10 (A)
What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?
A. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
~~

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G4C11 (B)
Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?
A. To provide adequate grounding
B. To remove noise from received signals
C. To increase antenna gain
D. To increase antenna bandwidth
~~

G4C12 (A)
Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared
to an analog filter?
A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B. Fewer digital components are required
C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
~~

G4C13 (B)
Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
A. Bandpass tuning
B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
C. Balanced mixing
D. A noise limiter
~~

G4D - Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges

G4D01 (A)
What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor
conditions
B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
~~

G4D02 (B)
Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted
single sideband phone signal?
A. It increases peak power
B. It increases average power
C. It reduces harmonic distortion
D. It reduces intermodulation distortion
~~

G4D03 (D)
Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech
processor?
A. Distorted speech
B. Splatter
C. Excessive background pickup
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

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G4D04 (C)
What does an S meter measure?
A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Received signal strength
D. Transmitter power output
~~

G4D05 (D)
How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a
receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
A. It is 10 times less powerful
B. It is 20 times less powerful
C. It is 20 times more powerful
D. It is 100 times more powerful
~~

G4D06 (A)
Where is an S meter found?
A. In a receiver
B. In an SWR bridge
C. In a transmitter
D. In a conductance bridge
~~

G4D07 (C)
How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the
S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
A. Approximately 1.5 times
B. Approximately 2 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 8 times
~~

G4D08 (C)
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed
carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
~~

G4D09 (B)
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed
carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
~~

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G4D10 (A)
How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should
your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
~~

G4D11 (B)
How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your
displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
~~

G4E - HF mobile radio installations; emergency and battery powered operation

G4E01 (C)
What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B. To allow automatic band changing
C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D. To allow remote tuning
~~

G4E02 (D)
What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?
A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B. To increase the "Q" of the antenna
C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
~~

G4E03 (A)
Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a
100 watt HF mobile installation?
A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C. To the battery using resistor wire
D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
~~

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G4E04 (B)
Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a
vehicles auxiliary power socket?
A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the
transceiver
C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF
transceivers
D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to
overheat
~~

G4E05 (C)
Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver
operating in the 75-meter band?
A. "Picket Fencing" signal variation
B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C. The antenna system
D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
~~

G4E06 (C)
What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a
full size antenna?
A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B. Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D. Harmonic radiation may increase
~~

G4E07 (D)
Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an
HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?
A. The battery charging system
B. The fuel delivery system
C. The vehicle control computer
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

G4E08 (A)
What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into
electricity?
A. Photovoltaic conversion
B. Photon emission
C. Photosynthesis
D. Photon decomposition
~~

G4E09 (B)
What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon
photovoltaic cell?
A. 0.02 VDC
B. 0.5 VDC
C. 0.2 VDC
D. 1.38 VDC
~~

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G4E10 (B)
What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a
storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
A. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
B. The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during
times of low or no illumination
C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
~~

G4E11 (C)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of
power for an emergency station?
A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less
than 2 percent
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with
amateur equipment
C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not
blowing
D. All of these choices are correct

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SUBELEMENT E5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES
E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits; series and parallel
resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits

E5A01 (A)
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the
voltage applied to them?
A. Resonance
B. Capacitance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance
~~

E5A02 (C)
What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
A. The highest frequency that will pass current
B. The lowest frequency that will pass current
C. The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive
reactance
D. The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
~~

E5A03 (D)
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
~~

E5A04 (A)
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor
and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
~~

E5A05 (B)
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the
frequency goes through resonance?
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. R/L
D. L/R
~~

E5A06 (B)

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What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a
parallel LC circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root
of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by
inductance "L"
~~

E5A07 (A)
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at
resonance?
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. R/L
D. L/R
~~

E5A08 (C)
What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage
across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
~~

E5A09 (C)
What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage
across a parallel resonant circuit at resonance?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
~~

E5A10 (A)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a
resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
A. 18.9 kHz
B. 1.89 kHz
C. 94.5 kHz
D. 9.45 kHz
~~

E5A11 (C)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a
resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
A. 157.8 Hz
B. 315.6 Hz
C. 47.3 kHz
D. 23.67 kHz
~~

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E5A12 (C)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a
resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
A. 436.6 kHz
B. 218.3 kHz
C. 31.4 kHz
D. 15.7 kHz
~~

E5A13 (B)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a
resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
A. 38.1 kHz
B. 76.2 kHz
C. 1.332 kHz
D. 2.665 kHz
~~

E5A14 (C)
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50
microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
A. 44.72 MHz
B. 22.36 MHz
C. 3.56 MHz
D. 1.78 MHz
~~

E5A15 (B)
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40
microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
A. 3.76 MHz
B. 1.78 MHz
C. 11.18 MHz
D. 22.36 MHz
~~

E5A16 (D)
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is
50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 23.5 MHz
B. 23.5 kHz
C. 7.12 kHz
D. 7.12 MHz
~~

E5A17 (A)
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is
25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 10.1 MHz
B. 63.2 MHz
C. 10.1 kHz
D. 63.2 kHz
~~

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E5B Time constants and phase relationships: RLC time constants; definition; time
constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase
angles of series and parallel circuits

E5B01 (B)
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be
charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?
A. An exponential rate of one
B. One time constant
C. One exponential period
D. A time factor of one
~~

E5B02 (D)
What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit
to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
A. One discharge period
B. An exponential discharge rate of one
C. A discharge factor of one
D. One time constant
~~

E5B03 (D)
The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting
voltage after two time constants?
A. 86.5%
B. 63.2%
C. 36.8%
D. 13.5%
~~

E5B04 (D)
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and
two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
A. 55 seconds
B. 110 seconds
C. 440 seconds
D. 220 seconds
~~

E5B05 (A)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC
in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
A. 0.02 seconds
B. 0.04 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 40 seconds
~~

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E5B06 (C)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC
in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
A. 4.50 seconds
B. 9 seconds
C. 450 seconds
D. 900 seconds
~~

E5B07 (C)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
~~

E5B08 (A)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
~~

E5B09 (D)
What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage
across a capacitor?
A. Voltage and current are in phase
B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
~~

E5B10 (A)
What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage
across an inductor?
A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D. Voltage and current are in phase
~~

E5B11 (B)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
~~

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E5B12 (C)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
~~

E5B13 (D)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a
series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
~~

E5C Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting impedances in polar


coordinates; rectangular coordinates

E5C01 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-
ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
B. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
C. 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
D. 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
~~

E5C02 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-
ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor,
all connected in series?
A. 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
B. 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
C. 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
D. 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
~~

E5C03 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-
ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor,
all connected in series?
A. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
B. 900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
C. 400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
D. 1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees
~~

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E5C04 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-
ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
~~

E5C05 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-
ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
~~

E5C06 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-
ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
B. 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
C. 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
~~

E5C07 (C)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-
reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
B. 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
C. 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
~~

E5C08 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-
reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
A. 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
D. 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
~~

E5C09 (A)
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what
does the horizontal axis represent?
A. Resistive component
B. Reactive component
C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
~~

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E5C10 (B)
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what
does the vertical axis represent?
A. Resistive component
B. Reactive component
C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
~~

E5C11 (C)
What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph
using rectangular coordinates?
A. The magnitude and phase of the point
B. The sine and cosine values
C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
D. The tangent and cotangent values
~~

E5C12 (D)
If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system
and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the
horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?
A. It has to be a direct current circuit
B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance
D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance
~~

E5C13 (D)
What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or
capacitive reactance components of an impedance?
A. Maidenhead grid
B. Faraday grid
C. Elliptical coordinates
D. Rectangular coordinates
~~

E5C14 (D)
What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit
containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
A. Maidenhead grid
B. Faraday grid
C. Elliptical coordinates
D. Polar coordinates
~~

E5C15 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms
impedance?
A. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
B. 100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
C. 100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
~~

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E5C16 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance
of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
A. 5.03 E06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
C. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
~~

E5C17 (C)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an
admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
A. 173 -j100 ohms
B. 200 +j100 ohms
C. 173 +j100 ohms
D. 200 -j100 ohms
~~

E5C18 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a
resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive
reactance of 1 ohm?
A. 6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
B. 5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
C. 5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
D. 10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees
~~

E5C19 (B)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
A. Point 2
B. Point 4
C. Point 5
D. Point 6
~~

E5C20 (B)
Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 7
D. Point 8
~~

E5C21 (A)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 7
D. Point 8
~~

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E5C22 (A)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a
10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
A. 40 + j31,400
B. 40 - j31,400
C. 31,400 + j40
D. 31,400 - j40
~~

E5C23 (D)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad
capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 5
D. Point 8
~~

E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and


electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinate systems

E5D01 (A)
What is the result of skin effect?
A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor,
closer to the surface
B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor,
closer to the surface
C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
~~

E5D02 (C)
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct
currents?
A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
C. Because of skin effect
D. Because conductors are non-linear devices
~~

E5D03 (C)
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
A. A battery
B. A transformer
C. A capacitor
D. An inductor
~~

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E5D04 (B)
What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
A. Coulomb
B. Joule
C. Watt
D. Volt
~~

E5D05 (B)
Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
A. Potential differences between two points in space
B. Electric current
C. A charged capacitor
D. A battery
~~

E5D06 (D)
In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation
to the direction of electron flow?
A. In the same direction as the current
B. In a direction opposite to the current
C. In all directions; omnidirectional
D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
~~

E5D07 (D)
What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
A. The resistance divided by the current
B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
C. The diameter of the conductor
D. The amount of current
~~

E5D08 (B)
What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
A. Electromechanical energy
B. Potential energy
C. Thermodynamic energy
D. Kinetic energy
~~

E5D09 (B)
What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors
and ideal capacitors?
A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
B. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric
fields, but is not dissipated
C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
~~

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E5D10 (A)
How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and
current are out of phase?
A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
~~

E5D11 (C)
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle
between the voltage and the current?
A. 1.414
B. 0.866
C. 0.5
D. 1.73
~~

E5D12 (B)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the
input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
A. 400 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 2000 watts
D. 50 watts
~~

E5D13 (B)
How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in
series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
A. 70.7 Watts
B. 100 Watts
C. 141.4 Watts
D. 200 Watts
~~

E5D14 (A)
What is reactive power?
A. Wattless, nonproductive power
B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage
D. Power consumed in circuit Q
~~

E5D15 (D)
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between
the voltage and the current?
A. 0.866
B. 1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.707
~~

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E5D16 (C)
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between
the voltage and the current?
A. 1.73
B. 0.5
C. 0.866
D. 0.577
~~

E5D17 (D)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the
input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?
A. 200 watts
B. 1000 watts
C. 1600 watts
D. 600 watts
~~

E5D18 (B)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the
apparent power is 500 VA?
A. 704 W
B. 355 W
C. 252 W
D. 1.42 mW
~~

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SUBELEMENT E4 AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES
E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network
analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF
measurements

E4A01 (C)
How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays
electrical signals
B. A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope
displays the average amplitude of signals
C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope
displays signals in the time domain
D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays
audio frequencies
~~

E4A02 (D)
Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the
horizontal axis?
A. SWR
B. Q
C. Time
D. Frequency
~~

E4A03 (A)
Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the
vertical axis?
A. Amplitude
B. Duration
C. SWR
D. Q
~~

E4A04 (A)
Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from
a radio transmitter?
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A wattmeter
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer
~~

E4A05 (B)
Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation
distortion products in an SSB transmission?
A. A wattmeter
B. A spectrum analyzer
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer
~~

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E4A06 (D)
Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter
duplexer
B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
C. The spectral output of a transmitter
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4A07 (B)
Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to
an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation
envelope
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4A08 (D)
Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam
antenna?
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A Q meter
C. An ohmmeter
D. An antenna analyzer
~~

E4A09 (A)
Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation
distortion of your own PSK signal?
A. Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed
the audio into the sound card of a computer running an appropriate PSK program
B. Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the
average power output
C. Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate
isolation to prevent damage to the meter
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4A10 (D)
Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor
is biased on?
A. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be
approximately
6 to 7 ohms
B. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be
approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
C. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
6 to 7 volts
D. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
0.6 to 0.7 volts
~~

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E4A11 (B)
Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital
signals?
A. Dip meter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Ohmmeter
D. Q meter
~~

E4A12 (B)
Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when
connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
A. Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
C. Match the antenna to the load
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4B Measurement techniques: Instrument accuracy and performance limitations;


probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of Q; instrument calibration

E4B01 (B)
Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
A. Input attenuator accuracy
B. Time base accuracy
C. Decade divider accuracy
D. Temperature coefficient of the logic
~~

E4B02 (C)
What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
C. The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very
precisely
D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format
~~

E4B03 (C)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could
differ from the reading?
A. 165.2 Hz
B. 14.652 kHz
C. 146.52 Hz
D. 1.4652 MHz
~~

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E4B04 (A)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could
differ from the reading?
A. 14.652 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 1.4652 Hz
D. 1.4652 kHz
~~

E4B05 (D)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000
Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the
reading?
A. 146.52 Hz
B. 10 Hz
C. 146.52 kHz
D. 1465.20 Hz
~~

E4B06 (D)
How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter
connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward
power and 25 watts reflected power?
A. 100 watts
B. 125 watts
C. 25 watts
D. 75 watts
~~

E4B07 (A)
Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
A. Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
B. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
C. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4B08 (C)
Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
A. High reluctance input
B. Low reluctance input
C. High impedance input
D. Low impedance input
~~

E4B09 (D)
What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with
the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to
resonance?
A. There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
B. The transmitter is not properly neutralized
C. There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
D. There is more power going into the antenna
~~

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E4B10 (B)
Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion
in an SSB transmitter?
A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies
and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies
and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and
observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and
observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
~~

E4B11 (D)
How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna
resonance and feed point impedance?
A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
C. Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
~~

E4B12 (A)
What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
A. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt
rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter
B. When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt
will determine the power drawn by the device under test
C. When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will
determine the voltage applied to the circuit
D. When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt
will determine the size of shunt needed
~~

E4B13 (A)
How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
A. A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal
portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum
amplitude
C. A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the
deflection time is accurate
D. A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the
displayed voltage is accurate
~~

E4B14 (B)
What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being
checked?
A. Harmonics are generated
B. A less accurate reading results
C. Cross modulation occurs
D. Intermodulation distortion occurs
~~

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E4B15 (C)
Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a
series-tuned circuit?
A. The inductance to capacitance ratio
B. The frequency shift
C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
D. The resonant frequency of the circuit
~~

E4C Receiver performance characteristics: phase noise; capture effect; noise


floor; image rejection; MDS; signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity

E4C01 (D)
What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a
receiver?
A. It limits the receivers ability to receive strong signals
B. It reduces receiver sensitivity
C. It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception
of weak signals
~~

E4C02 (A)
Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating
image signal interference?
A. A front-end filter or pre-selector
B. A narrow IF filter
C. A notch filter
D. A properly adjusted product detector
~~

E4C03 (C)
What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM
phone signal?
A. Desensitization
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Capture effect
D. Frequency discrimination
~~

E4C04 (D)
What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?
A. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
B. The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a
resistive network
C. The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the
theoretical minimum noise
~~

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E4C05 (B)
What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a
receiver?
A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
~~

E4C06 (D)
A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -
174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this
receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise
bandwidth?
A. 174 dBm
B. -164 dBm
C. -155 dBm
D. -148 dBm
~~

E4C07 (B)
What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
A. The meter display sensitivity
B. The minimum discernible signal
C. The multiplex distortion stability
D. The maximum detectable spectrum
~~

E4C08 (B)
How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
A. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
B. It would improve weak signal sensitivity
C. It would reduce bandwidth
D. It would increase bandwidth
~~

E4C09 (C)
Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency
for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
A. Fewer components in the receiver
B. Reduced drift
C. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
D. Improved receiver noise figure
~~

E4C10 (B)
Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY
HF receiver?
A. 100 Hz
B. 300 Hz
C. 6000 Hz
D. 2400 Hz
~~

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E4C11 (B)
Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB
phone receiver?
A. 1 kHz
B. 2.4 kHz
C. 4.2 kHz
D. 4.8 kHz
~~

E4C12 (D)
What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF
section of a receiver?
A. Output-offset overshoot
B. Filter ringing
C. Thermal-noise distortion
D. Undesired signals may be heard
~~

E4C13 (C)
How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
A. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
C. It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive
frequency
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4C14 (D)
On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is
generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which
uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
A. 13.845 MHz
B. 14.755 MHz
C. 14.445 MHz
D. 15.210 MHz
~~

E4C15 (D)
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with
an antenna connected?
A. Detector noise
B. Induction motor noise
C. Receiver front-end noise
D. Atmospheric noise
~~

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E4D Receiver performance characteristics: blocking dynamic range;
intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept;
desensitization; preselection

E4D01 (A)
What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming
signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
B. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will
cause one signal to block the other
C. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept
point
D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order
intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
~~

E4D02 (A)
Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a
communications receiver?
A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong
adjacent signals
B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to
recover the opposite sideband
C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to
operate the speaker
D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest
received signals
~~

E4D03 (B)
How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in
the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final
amplifier of one or both transmitters
C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from
airplanes passing overhead
D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes
passing overhead
~~

E4D04 (B)
Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a
repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
C. A Class C final amplifier
D. A Class D final amplifier
~~

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E4D05 (A)
What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a
receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
D. 173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
~~

E4D06 (D)
What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more
signals?
A. Amplifier desensitization
B. Neutralization
C. Adjacent channel interference
D. Intermodulation interference
~~

E4D07 (D)
Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency
signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
A. A large increase in background noise
B. A reduction in apparent signal strength
C. The desired signal can no longer be heard
D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
~~

E4D08 (C)
What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
A. Too little gain
B. Lack of neutralization
C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
D. Positive feedback
~~

E4D09 (C)
What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
A. To store often-used frequencies
B. To provide a range of AGC time constants
C. To increase rejection of unwanted signals
D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
~~

E4D10 (C)
What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver
performance?
A. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order
intermodulation products
B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without
producing third-order intermodulation products
C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order
intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation
product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
~~

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E4D11 (A)
Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of
particular interest compared to other products?
A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is
also likely to be within the band
B. The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
C. Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
D. Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal
within the band of interest
~~

E4D12 (A)
What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong
signal near the received frequency?
A. Desensitization
B. Quieting
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Squelch gain rollback
~~

E4D13 (B)
Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
A. Audio gain adjusted too low
B. Strong adjacent-channel signals
C. Audio bias adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain misadjusted
~~

E4D14 (A)
Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver
desensitization?
A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
C. Increase the receiver front end gain
D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
~~

E4E Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise;
locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers

E4E01 (A)
Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a
receiver noise blanker?
A. Ignition noise
B. Broadband white noise
C. Heterodyne interference
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

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E4E02 (D)
Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP
noise filter?
A. Broadband white noise
B. Ignition noise
C. Power line noise
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4E03 (B)
Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove
from desired signals?
A. Signals which are constant at all IF levels
B. Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
C. Signals which appear at one IF but not another
D. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
~~

E4E04 (D)
How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be
suppressed?
A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by
installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
B. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both
leads
C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a
low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by
installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
~~

E4E05 (B)
How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
A. By installing a high pass filter in series with the motors power leads
B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the
motor
~~

E4E06 (B)
What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
A. Solar radio frequency emissions
B. Thunderstorms
C. Geomagnetic storms
D. Meteor showers
~~

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E4E07 (C)
How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your
home?
A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a
battery operated radio
D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
~~

E4E08 (A)
What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?
A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
B. An electrical-sparking signal
C. A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
D. Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
~~

E4E09 (C)
What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission
standards
D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated
~~

E4E10 (D)
What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled
electrical device?
A. The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier
modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
B. The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
C. The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at
regular intervals across a HF band
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4E11 (B)
Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations
of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
A. The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast
signals
C. You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
~~

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E4E12 (A)
What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when
attempting to copy CW signals?
A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes
interfering signals
B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired
signal
C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW
characters
~~

E4E13 (D)
What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that
comes and goes at intervals?
A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
B. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
D. All of these choices are correct
~~

E4E14 (C)
What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the
operation of a nearby personal computer?
A. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific
frequencies
D. A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
~~

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