It is taught that Jesus and the Apostles, and New Testament writers were quoting from a

Greek Manuscript, known as the Septuagint. Below are some examples that are used, IN
BLUE that a refutation of will be included of below

Hebrews 10:5 (KJV Quoting Ps40:6)

Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a
body hast thou prepared me...

Psalm 40:6 (KJV Taken from Masortic)

Sacrifice and offering thou didst not desire; mine ears hast thou opened...

Psalm 40:6 (Brentons English Translation of the Septuagint)

Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not; but a body hast thou prepared me...

_____________________________________________________
Above verses are quoted in part.
Below are the full verses in context for comparison:

HEB 10:5 Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not,
but a body hast thou prepared me:
HEB 10:6 In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin thou hast had no pleasure.

KJV:
PS 40:6 Sacrifice and offering thou didst not desire; mine ears hast thou opened: burnt offering and sin
offering hast thou not required.

The Septuagint: Is under Psalm 39, not 40

6 Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not; but a body hast thou prepared me: whole-burnt-offering and
[sacrifice] for sin thou didst not require.

The New Testament is the greater Revelation and interprets the new.

Notice that the passage above Psalms 40:6, was quoted only in part from the webpage.

The New Testament is the greater Revelation and interprets the old.
Except for the phrase a body thou has prepared for me the passage from the King James Old Testament is
identical.
The question now becomes, did the Septuagint copy from the Hebrew passage and add to the Old Testament the
phrase a body thou hast prepared for me?

Why has this part of the passage from the KJV burnt offering and sin offering hast thou not required from
Psalm 40:6, been omitted from the quote from the webpage?
Hebrews 1:6 ( KJV Quoting Deut 32:43)
And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship
him.

Deuteronomy 32:43 (KJV Taken from Masortic)

The Pharse: Let all the angels of God worship Him is omitted entirely.

Deuteronomy 32:43 (Brentons English Translation of the Septuagint)

Rejoice, ye heavens, with him, and let all the angels of God worship him...

Quoted in full in context:

HEB 1:5 For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And
again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
HEB 1:6 And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God
worship him.
HEB 1:7 And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
HEB 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre
of thy kingdom.

Hebrews 1:5-8 is referencing Psalm 89:27

PS 89:27 Also I will make him my firstborn, higher than the kings of the earth.

How is Hebrews 1 quoting from Deuteronomy 32? The words rejoice ye heavens is found nowhere in Hebrews
1:5-8.

DEUT 32:42 I will make mine arrows drunk with blood, and my sword shall devour flesh; and that with the blood of
the slain and of the captives, from the beginning of revenges upon the enemy.
DEUT 32:43 Rejoice, O ye nations, with his people: for he will avenge the blood of his servants, and will render
vengeance to his adversaries, and will be merciful unto his land, and to his people.
DEUT 32:44 And Moses came and spake all the words of this song in the ears of the people, he, and Hoshea the son
of Nun.
DEUT 32:45 And Moses made an end of speaking all these words to all Israel:

Did the writer of the Septuagint again add to the passage Deut 32:45 let all the angels of God worship him
to discredit the Massoretic text making it appear as thou Hebrews 1:6 is referencing Deut 32:45?
When it is actually referencing Psalm 89:27? This is another example of the Septuagint back engineering the wrong passage
entirely. The subject of Hebrews Chapter 1 is the FIRSTBORN of God being set above all, when in Duet. 32:42-45 is about
another subject entirely. Duet 32:42-45 is about God avenging the enemies of Israel. Psalm 89:27 is speaking about the same
subject as Hebrews 1. The FIRSTBORN or BEGOTTEN of God being above all.

Speaking of Psalm 89:26-27, (in the Septuagint it is 88:27)

Psalm 88:26-27 in the Septuagint is another attack on the deity of Jesus Christ

88:26 He shall call upon me, [saying], Thou art my Father, my God, and the helper of my salvation. 27 And I will
make him [my] first-born, higher than the kings of the earth.

The Jesus of the Septuagint needed SALVATION and HELP. Notice, this is Jesus Christ (Him, my firstborn(
calling on His Father from help and HIS (my) salvation.
Matthew 12:21 (KJV Quoting Isaiah 42:4)
And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.

Isaiah 42:4 (KJV Taken from Mas oretic)

He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the
isles shall wait for his law

Isaiah 42:4 (Brentons English Translation of the Septuagint)

He shall shine out, and shall not be discouraged, until he have set judgment on the
earth: and in his name shall the Gentiles trust.
Only quoted in part:

MT 12:15 But when Jesus knew it, he withdrew himself from thence: and great multitudes
followed him, and he healed them all;
MT 12:16 And charged them that they should not make him known:

Part of the passages that are pertinent to the surrounding text of Matt 12:15-21 from Isaiah is:
IS 42:2 He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street.

Now quoted in full:

KJV
IS 42:1 Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul
delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the
Gentiles.
IS 42:2 He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street.
IS 42:3 A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not
quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth.
IS 42:4 He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth:
and the isles shall wait for his law.

KJV
MT 12:18 Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul
is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the
Gentiles.
MT 12:19 He shall not strive, nor cry; neither shall any man hear his voice in the
streets.
MT 12:20 A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench,
till he send forth judgment unto victory.
MT 12:21 And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.
Broken down: Old Testament in BOLD New Testament in ( ) Both from the KJV

IS 42:1 Behold my servant,

(MT 12:18 Behold my servant,)
whom I uphold; mine elect,
(whom I have chosen )
I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.
(I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles.)
IS 42:2 He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street.
(MT 12:19 He shall not strive, nor cry; neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets.)
IS 42:3 A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth
judgment unto truth.
MT 12:20 A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench, till he send forth judgment unto
victory.

Up until this point the writer of Matthew is quoting from Isaiah 42 almost word for word, but
This is not noted.
MT 12:21 And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.
Could it be that Matthew is now quoting another portion of Isaiah?
Isaiah tells us in many places about the Gentiles:
11:10, 49:6, 49:22, 54:3, 62:2, 66:19

Now the Septuagint:

1 Jacob is my servant, I will help him: Israel is my chosen, my soul has accepted him; I have put my Spirit upon
him; he shall bring forth judgement to the Gentiles. 2 He shall not cry, nor lift up [his voice], nor shall his voice be
heard without. 3 A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench; but he shall bring forth
judgement to truth. 4 He shall shine out, and shall not be discouraged, until he have set judgement on the earth: and
in his name shall the Gentiles trust.

Verse 4 is accurate, but now we have the glaring problem that the passage is no longer about Jesus Christ - GOD,
but it is about Gods people. Jacob or Israel is never a word used for Jesus Christ. Israel is people saved by God.
You could say that Jesus Christ is the seed of Abraham, which means the PROMISE. All those in Christ are heirs
to the PROMISE of redemption. But in the Septuagint, it is clearly speaking about Israel Gods people who need
to be saved. Israel means saved by God. Notice the passage also adds a phrase to what God is saying, that God has
accepted him. This clearly implies that there was a time when Jesus Christ was NOT accepted. Wasnt Jesus
Christ GOD at the time Isaiah was written? This passage of Isaiah is prophecy, speaking about things to be. So it
would imply that at the time Isaiah wrote the passage, Jesus had yet to be ACCEPTED by God.
Was Jesus Christ saved by God? Or was He God? Isaiah 42:1 Portrays a Jesus who is in need of being accepted.

Notice the language of this passage: In verse one this is God talking:
I will HELP him?? My soul has accepted him??
Israel is Gods people, not Jesus Christ. This passage reduces Jesus Christ to one of His People
Who needs help. Was there a time that Jesus Christ was not accepted by God? And in need of Salvation?
Isaiah 42:1 in the Septuagint is an attack on the deity of Jesus Christ.
Genesis 2:2
Septuagint:
2:2 And God finished on the sixth day his works which he made, and he ceased on
the seventh day from all his works which he made
2:3 And God blessed the seventh day and sanctified it, because in it he ceased from
all his works which God began to do.

KJV
2:2 And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he rested
on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.
2:3 And God blessed the seventh day, and sanctified it: because that in it he had
rested from all his work which God created and made.

AND HE RESTED has been omitted in the Septuagint. This was a type or
shadow of the REST that all those saved by God have found in Jesus Christ.
From Abel to John.

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In this next Prophecy, The Septuagint denies the fulfillment of Hosea 11:1

Septuagint
Hosea 11:1
Early in the morning were they cast off, the king of Israel has been cast off: for
Israel is a child, and I loved him, and out of Egypt have I called his children.

King James
Hosea 11:1 When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of
Egypt.

MT 2:15 And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which
was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.

Does the Septuagint deny the deity of Jesus Christ?

Septuagint
Isaiah 9:6
For a child is born to us, and a son is given to us, whose government is upon his shoulder, and
his name is called the messenger of great counsel,
< wonderful counsellor, mighty God, potentate, prince of peace, father of the age to come >*:
for I will bring peace upon the princes, and health to him.

King James Bible

Isaiah 9:6
For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his
shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The
everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

The Septuagint denies the deity of Jesus Christ is with this footnote:
* This text is missing from the translation.
Casting doubt on the TRUE IDENTITY of Jesus Christ calling all the above text in parenthesis
And highlighted in yellow
On Jesus Christ being God, as MISSING from the translation.

The answer is YES, The Septuagint denies the deity of Jesus Christ,
Calling him a messenger
A messenger was an angel.
Jesus Christ is GOD.
Not a messenger of God.

His name is called the messenger of great counsel??

No HE IS THE WONDERFUL COUNSELLOR!!

It is blasphemous to call Jesus Christ a part of His Creation.

And to call Him an angel.
To which of the angels has he ever called His Son?