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Balance Sheet
Management
2014
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Banks Balance Sheet
All Banks are governed by Indian Companies Act, 1956 as well as Banking Companies Act,
1949. The Banks include Nationalized Banks, SBI and its subsidiaries, Foreign Banks,
Cooperative banks, RRBs and Private Sector Banks.
Section 5 of Banking Regulation Act stipulates that Banking is accepting of deposits of money
from public for the purpose of lending or investment. The deposits are repayable on demand or
otherwise by cheque, draft or otherwise.
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Total
Contingent Liabilities: Schedule 12 These are such type of liabilities which may or may not
arise in future. This figure does not form part of Total of Balance sheet but shown as footnote.
These are also called Off Balance Sheet Items. Such items are as under:
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6. Investments SLR and Non- SLR. Further these are to be classified in 3 categories;
Held Till Maturity, Held for Trading and Available for Sale.
7. Provision for Depreciation
8. Repo and Reverse Repo transactions.
9. CDR Restructuring
10. Profit per Employee
11. Maturity pattern and ALM (Asset Liability Management)
12. AS-17 Segment Reporting
13. AS-18 Related Party Disclosure
14. AS-21 Consolidated Financial Statements
ALM refers to risk management to avoid mismanagement between Assets and Liabilities. The
risk of Liquidity and Interest rates, if not controlled may result into negative spread and can
cause loss to bank. Therefore ALM manages two risks : 1. Liquidity Risk & 2. Interest Rate Risk.
Liquidity Risk is translated into Interest Rate Risk when funds have to be arranged at higher
rate. Mismatch between Assets and Liabilities also lead to Interest Rate Risk.
Significance of ALM
1. Market is Volatile. The rate fluctuations affect the NII and ultimate profits are affected.
2. Rapid innovations of products are taking place. Most products affect risk profile of the
bank.
3. Regulatory Environment also expects from banks compliance of Basel norms which
cannot be undertaken without ALM.
4. Management also recognises ALM mechanism as innovative job.
Objectives of ALM
ALM techniques are so designed to manage various risks and the parameters are:
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NII = Interest Income Interest Expenditure
2. NIM Net Interest Margin
It is comparison of NII with Average Total Assets
It is calculated as under:
NIM = NII (Net Interest Income)
Average Total Assets
3. Economic Equity Ratio
It is comparison of Shareholders Funds with Total Assets.
It is calculated as under:
Shareholders Funds
Total Assets
Practical Example
Expenses Incomes
Interest Paid 10 Interest Earned 170
Other expenses 35 Other Income 110
Provisions 75
Operating Expenses 120
Gross Profit 40
Find NII (Net Interest Income), NIM and Economic Equity Ratio
= 400/2000= 20%
Find out Capital Charge on Operational Risk and Risk Weighted Assets for Operational
Risk.
Capital Charge on Operational risk is 15% of average gross positive income of previous 3 years.
In the instant case, only 1 year study is given.
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Asset Classification
One of the important recommendations of Narsimham Committee was to adopt International
Accounting Practices and Accounting Standards with an objective of bringing transparency in
the Balance Sheet.
The major source of Income in the banks is in the from Interest on loans, which is booked
initially and recovered later on i.e. on Accrual basis. If the same is not recovered within
reasonable time, the Income should not be recognized as per International Standards.
Asset Classification
Loan Account remains in Sub standard category for 1 year
Loan becomes Doubtful after remaining 1 year in D1 category for 1 year
Substandard category). D2 category from 1-3 years
(The account is transferred to Doubtful category directly if D3 category beyond 3 years
security loss is 50% or above)
Loan becomes Loss Asset If Loss of security is either 100%
or 90% or more.
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2. Interest accrued and credited to Income account but not recovered during corresponding
previous year will be reversed.
3. Provision is made for NPAs (Bad and Doubtful debts) from the current years profits.
Asset Classification Borrower wise and not Facility wise
It means if one account of the borrower is classified as NPA, other accounts will also be
treated as NPAs even if these are regular.
Advances under Consortium
Each bank will take view of transferring account to NPA category on the basis of its own
recovery.
PROVISIONING NORMS
In terms of Monetary policy 2011-12, the revised norms of provisioning are as under:
Standard Assets
Classification Rate of
provision
Direct SME and Direct 0.25%
Agriculture
Others 0.40%
CRE-RH (Residential Housing) 0.75%
CRE Commercial Real Estate 1%
Teaser Housing Loans 2%
Restructured accounts classified as 2.75%
standard advances:
In the first two years from the date of
restructuring.
Sub-standard Advances:
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Doubtful Advances- Secured Portion
Practical Examples
Ex. 1
Account with Outstanding of Rs. 10.00 lac became Out of order on 22.1.11 and it became NPA
on 22.4.2011. The Value of Security at later stage is Rs. 7.00 lac. Calculate Provision as on
31.3.12.
Solution
It is a Sub-Standard Asset as on 31.3.2012.
Provision is 1000000*15/100 = 150000/-
Ex. 2
A loan account with outstanding of Rs. 10.00 lac and Value of Security Rs. 6.00 lac was Sub-
standard as on 30.3.2008. What will be provision as on 31.3.2012?
Solution
The account will be Doubtful (DI) on 30.3.2009, D2 on 30.9.2010, D3 on 30.3.2012. Provision
will as under:
Secured portion = 6.00*100/100 = 6.00 lac
Un-secured portion = 4.00*100/100 = 4.00 lac
Total Provision = 6+4 = 10.00 lac.
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Ex. 3
A loan became Doubtful on 12.2.2009. The outstanding is 6.00 lac. What will be provision on
31.3.2012.
Solution
The Account will be categorized as Doubtful (D3) as on 12.2.2012. Provision is 100% of 6.00 lac
= 6.00 lac
Ex. 4
D2 category account has outstanding--10.00 lac, DI/SI ----2.00 lac, Value of security ---6.00 lac
Solution
Un- Secured portion = 10-2-6 = 2.00 lac Provision = 2.00 * 100/100 = 2.00 lac
Secured portion = 6.00 * 40/100 = 2.40 lac
Total provision = 2.00 + 2.40 = 4.40 lac
Ex. 5
D2 Category loan is having outstanding 4.00 lac, Value of Security 1.50 lac and ECGC cover
50%. Calculate provision as on 31.3.2012.
Solution
Unsecured portion = 50% of (O/s VS) = 50% (4.00 1.50) = 1.25 lac
Secured portion = 1.50 lac
Provision on Unsecured portion = 1.25*100/100 = 1.25 lac
Provision on Secured portion = 1.50*40/100 = 0.60 lac
Total provision = 1.25 +0.60 = 1.85 lac.
Ex. 6
A D2 category loan is having outstanding Rs. 6.00 lac. The Collateral Security is Rs. 3.00 lac
and Primary Security is Rs. 2.00 lac. There is also Guarantee of Rs. 10.00 lac. Calculate
provision.
Solution
Unsecured portion = O/s Primary Security Collateral = 6.00 2.00 -3.00 = 1.00 lac
Secured portion = 2.00 + 3.00 = 5.00 lac.
Provision on Unsecured portion = 1.00 *100/100 = 1.00 lac
Provision on Secured portion = 5.00*40/100 = 2.00 lac
Total provision = 1.00 + 2.00 = 3.00 lac.
Ex. 7
Advance portfolio of a bank is as under:
Total advances = 40000 crore, Gross NPAs = 9%, Net NPAs = 2%
Find out 1) Total Provision 2) Provisioning Coverage Ratio
Solution
NPAs = Total Advances *9/100 = 40000*9/100 = 3600 crore
Standard Assets = 40000-3600 = 36400 crore
Provision on Standard Assets = 36400*0.40% = 145.60 crore
Provision on NPAs = 9% - 2% = 7% = 40000*7/100 = 2800 crore
1) Total provision = 145.60 + 2800 = 2945.60 crore
Gross NPAs = 40000*9/100 = 3600 crore
Net NPAs = 40000*2/100 = 800 crore
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2) Provision Coverage Ratio = Provision on NPAs / Gross NPAs = 2800/3600 = 77%.
Ex. 7 Account becomes doubtful on 12th Feb 2008. The Balance is Rs. 6 lac. Value of security is
3 lac. What will be the provision on 31.3.2011?
Solution
It is D3 Type of account.
Therefore, provision will be 100% i.e. 6 lac = 6.00 lac Ans.
Ex. 8 NPA o/s : Rs. 10 lac including suspended interest/Derecognized interest Rs. 2 lac.
Security value is Rs. 6 lac. It became NPA on 25th Feb 2008. What would be the provision on
31.3.2011.
It is D2 category account
4.40 LAC (10-2-6= 2x100%= 2 lac + 40% on 6 lac ie 2.40 lac = 4.40 lac) D2
Ex. 9 A/c became NPA on 2nd January 2008. Balance o/s is 10 lac including Derecognized
interest Rs. 2 lac and ECGC cover of 50%. Value of security is 4 lac. What will be provision on
31.3.2009.
It is D1 category account.
10 lac 2 lac, DI 4 lac Sec. = 4 lac
ECGC Cover: 4 lac x 50% = 2 lac
Provision on Unsecured portion
Unsecured: 4 lac 2 lac = 2 lac x100% = 2.00 lac
Provision on Secured portion
Secured: 4 lac x 25% = 1.00 lac
Total Provision: 2 + 1 = 3.00 lac
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Liquidity Management
Banks are required to honour withdrawals from Deposits. Also the banks are supposed to
disburse loans in time. Liquidity is needed to meet both these requirements. In other words,
liquidity is the ability to accommodate decrease in liability as well as funding of increase in
assets.
Measurement of Liquidity Risks: Liquidity Risk can be measured in any of the two ways:
1. Stock Approach
2. Flow Approach
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Stock Approach
Following ratios are calculated to measure Liquidity Gap:
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Interest Rate Risk Management
There is complete deregulation of Interest rates on Fixed Deposits, Recurring Deposits, and SB
Deposits above Rs. 1.00 lac. Banks are also free to determine Interest rates on NRE Deposit
accounts. This has led to interest rate Volatility resulting into greater Interest Rate Risk.
Adverse movement of Interest rates has direct impact on NII as well as NIM. Market Interest
rate also has impact on Present Value of Bonds and Securities. 1% rise in market rate of return
will cause lesser valuation of securities. Also 1% fall in interest rate will cause higher valuation
of securities resulting into increase in Mark to Market Price.
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Measurement of Interest Rate Risk
1. Re-pricing Schedules
All Assets and Liabilities are assigned to Re-pricing time bands according to past
judgment and experience of the banks. The schedule distributes Interest Sensitive
Assets, Liabilities and Off Balance Sheet Items into certain number of pre-defined time
bands.
Under this method, steps are as under:
Ist step---------Adjusted Gap is calculated by netting Interest bearing assets and interest
bearing liabilities.
2nd step---------Re pricing of assets is done as per the following example
3rd step---------Standard Gap is calculated after deducting Re pricing liabilities from Re
pricing Assets.
How it is calculated?
A bank has following Assets and Liabilities:
Call Money -------500 crore
Cash Credit----400 crore
Cash in hand ---100 crore
SB Deposits-------500 crore
Fixed Deposits----500 crore
Current Deposits--200 crore
There is reduction in interest rates by 0.5% in call money, 1% in CC, 0.1% for SB and
0.8% for FD
2. Gap Analysis
Gap is Difference between RSA (Risk Sensitive Assets) and RSL (Risk Sensitive
Liabilities)
3. Duration Approach
Duration is the time that a bond holder must wait till nos. of years (Duration) to receive
Present Value of the bond.
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E.g. 5 year bond with Face Value of Rs. 100 @ 6% having McCauley Duration 3.7
years. It means Total Cash Flow of Rs. 130 to be received in 5 years would be
discounted with Present Value which will be equivalent as amount received in 3.7 years.
The Duration of the Bond is 3.7 Years.
Practical Example:
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SB Deposits 300 crore Cash in Hand------------ 200 crore
Suppose Interest rate falls 2% on all assets and liabilities. Liabilities are in excess. Bank
will have to pay less thereby improvement in NII by (60*2/100) i.e. 1.20 Crore
Now, if Interest Rate rises by 2%, bank will have to pay more. Since Negative gap is 60
crore. Banks NII will be reduced by 1.20 Crore.
Important Points
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RAROC (Risk Adjusted Return on Capital)
Profit Planning involves Balance Sheet Management. Higher risk will fetch more profits whereas
lower risk is the cause of lesser profits.
Risk and Risk is possible unfavorable impact on net cash flow in future due to
Capital uncertainty of happening or non-happening of events. Capital is a
cushion or shock observer required to absorb potential losses in future.
Higher the Risks, high will be the requirement of Capital and there will
be rise in RAROC (Risk Adjusted Return on Capital).
Motive of the bank is to Expand Income and Reduce Expenditure so that Profit can be
maximized. But, in order to Expand Income, more risks have be incurred which requires higher
Capital.
Example:
Bank has Rs. 1000 crore for Investment in Securities which can be invested under any of the
following alternative:
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t
Banks policy must be to invest in such a manner that optimum yield can be obtained at
a given level of Capital.
Banks non-interest income can be increased by popularizing 3rd party products and
widening scope of Treasury.
Banks profit can be enhanced through effective management of risks.
Low Cost Deposits must be increased to enhance Profits.
Through RAROC approach, each Risk is measured to determine both expected and
Unexpected losses using VaR (Value at Risk).
How to Calculate RC (Risk Capital) & RAMP (Risk Adjusted Performance Measures?
RAPM = Profit
RC
Example:
There are two traders One is Forex Trader and the other is Bond Trader. Each is having profit
of 10 Million USD last year. The performance of each can be compared as under:
Forex Trader
RC (Risk Capital) = VAR = 100,000,000 x 0.12 x2.33 = 28 Million USD
RAPM = 10/28 = 0.35
Bond Trader
RC (Risk Capital) = VAR = 200,000,000 x 0.04 x2.33 = 18.6 Million USD
RAPM = 10/18.6 = 0.53
Bond Trader has less Risk Capital and Higher Risk Adjusted Performance. Therefore Bond
Trader is performing better.
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