Pharmacology

1. Involves activation of second messengers C. Gastric Enzymes

such as diacylglycerol, IP3, and cAMP
A. G-protein coupled receptor
B. Intracellular Receptor
C. Ligand-gated ion channels receptors
D. Tyrosine Kinase coupled Receptors
2. Which of the following exhibits
metabolism by digestive and gastric
enzymes?
A. Penicillin
B. Insulin
C. Epinephrine
3. A parameter that measures ability of the
body to eliminate the drug
A. Volume of Elimination
B. Clearance
C. Volume of Distribution
D. Excretion Rate
4. One drug opposes the effect of the other
by biding at a different receptor and
counteract its effect
A. Chemical Antagonism
B. Physiologic Antagonism
C. Competitive Antagonism
D. Non-Competitive Antagonism
5. Converts the parent drug to a more polar
conjugate
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
6. Receptors for Lipid Soluble Drugs
A. Intracellular Receptors
B. G-protein coupled receptor
C. Ligand-gated ion channels receptors
D. Tyrosine Kinase Coupled Receptors
7. Synthetic Reaction
A. Phase I
B. Phase 2
8. Response Intensity is increased in a given
dose of the drug
A. Idiosyncratic Response
B. Hyporeactive Response
C. Hyperractive Response
D. Tolerance
9. The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
contains high concentration of which
enzymes:
A. Digestive Enzymes
B. Phase I Enzymes
D. Phase II Enzymes
10. Used to determine the range of plasma
levels that is acceptable when designing a
dosing regimen
A. Therapeutic Index
B. Therapeutic Window
C. Quantal Dose Curve
D. Dose-Response Curve
11. The antagonist binds to the agonist making
it unavailable to interact with the receptor
A. Chemical Antagonism
B. Physiologic Antagonism
C. Competitive Antagonism
D. Non-Competitive Antagonism
12. These are gene active receptors
A. Intracellular Receptors
B. G-protein coupled Receptors
C. Ligand-gated ion channels receptors
D. Tyrosine Kinase Coupled Receptors
13. The concentration is high relative to the
Km causing the rate of elimination to be
almost independent of concentration
A. First Order
B. Steady State
C. Zero Order
D. Pseudo Zero Order
14. Exemplified by the interaction between
atropine, a muscarinic antagonist and
metoprolol
A. Chemical Antagonism
B. Physiologic Antagonism
C. Competitive Antagonism
D. Non-competitive Antagonism
15. Response is decreased due to prolonged
exposure to drug
A. Tachyphylaxis
B. Hyporeactive Response
C. Hyperreactive Response
D. Tolerance
16. Median Effective dose, median toxic dose,
and median lethal dose are derived from
this
A. Graded-Dose Response Relationship
B. Quantal-Dose Relationship
C. Both
D. Neither

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Pharmacology
17. Exemplified by the interaction between
epinephrine and propranolol, a beta
blocker
A. Chemical Antagonism
B. Physiologic Antagonism
C. Competitive Antagonism
D. Non-Competitive Antagonism
18. Rate of Elimination wherein clearance is
constant
A. First-order
B. Steady State
C. Zero-Order
D. Pseudo-Zero Order
19. In the presence of this antagonist, the
dose-response curve of the agonist is
shifted to the right but the maximal
efficacy remains the same
A. Chemical Antagonist
B. Physiologic Antagonist
C. Competitive Antagonist
D. Non-Competitive Antagonist
20. Unmasking of a polar group
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
21. This type of agonist produces less specific
effects and is less easy to control
A. Chemical Antagonist
B. Physiologic Antagonist
C. Competitive Antagonist
D. Non-Competitive Antagonist
22. In the presence of this antagonist, the
potency and maximal efficacy of the
agonist is reduced no matter how much
the dose of the agonist is increased.
A. Inverse Relation B. Direct Relation
28. Therapeutic Window and Drug Efficacy
29. Kd and Drug Safety
30. Volume of Distribution and Half Life
31. LD50 and Drug Safety
32. ED50 and Potency
33. Therapeutic Window and Drug Safety
34. TD50 and Clinical Efficacy
A. i > ii
42. Margin of Safety
i. Therapeutic Index = 50
ii. Therapeutic Index = 2
A. Chemical Antagonist
B. Physiologic Antagonist
C. Competitive Antagonist
D. Non-competitive Antagonist
23. Non-synthetic Reaction
A. Phase I
B. Phase 2
24. The largest receptor family and are also
called seven-transmembrane or serpentine
receptors
A. Intracellular receptor
B. G-protein coupled receptors
C. Ligand-gated ion channels receptors
D. Tyrosine Kinase Coupled Receptors
25. Rate of drug administration is equal to rate
of elimination
A. First Order
B. Steady State
C. Zero Order
D. Pseudo Zero Order
26. Response intensity is diminished in a given
dose of the drug
A. Idiosyncratic Response
B. Hyporeactive Response
C. Hyperreactive Response
D. Tolerance
27. Exemplified by the interaction between
heparin and protamine sulfate.
A. Chemical Antagonism
B. Physiologic Antagonism
C. Competitive Antagonism
D. Non-competitive Antagonism
C. No Relation
35. Accumulation and Fraction Dose Lost
36. Therapeutic Index and Drug Efficacy
37. Rate of Elimination and Concentration
38. KD and Drug Affinity for the Receptors
39. Clearance and Half-Life
40. LD50 and Drug Affinity for the Receptors
41. Therapeutic Index and Drug Safety
B. i < ii C. i = ii
43. Solubility of Weak Acid in Lipid
i. pH < 7
ii. pH > 7
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Pharmacology

44. Margin of Safety ii. Full Agonist + noncompetitive

i. Therapeutic Window = 10 agonist
ii. Therapeutic Window = 150 47. Maximal Efficacy
45. Potency of Drug i. Partial Agonist
i. ED50 = 40 mg/kg ii. Full Agonist
ii. ED50 = 10 mg/kg
48. Dominant form of Drug at pH >
pKa
46. Maximal Efficacy
i. Protonated Form
i. Full Agonist alone
ii. Unprotonated Form

A. Phase I Reaction B. Phase II Reaction

49. Hydrolysis 57. Desulfuration
50. H2O Conjugation 58. Dechlorination
51. Hydroxylation 59. Glutathione Conjugation
52. Methylation 60. Deamination
53. Sulfation 61. Acetylation-acetyl CoA
54. Reduction 62. Dehydrogenation
55. Epoxidation 63. Glycine Conjugation
56. Oxidative Dealkylation 64. Glucuronidation

A. Additive C. Potentiation
B. Synergistic D. Antagonism
65. Ethanol + Sedative 67. Heparin + Protamine
66. Cimetidine + Anticoagulant 68. Penicillin G + Gentamicin

If there are two possible answers, write both letters.

A. Transdermal D. Topical
B. Oral E. Rectal
C. Sublingual
69. Maximize concentration at the site of action
70. Prolong duration of drug absorption
71. Provides direct access to systemic veins
72. For convenience
73. Avoid first-pass effect
74. Minimize concentration outside site of action
75. Enter vessels that drain into the inferior vena cava

A. True B. False
76. The degree of inhibition produced by a competitive antagonist depends on the concentration
of the agonist competing for binding to the receptors.
77. Inert binding sites are completely not significant.
78. When CP450 is inhibited, metabolism of drug is diminished causing an increased effect
produced.

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Pharmacology
79. A weak acid is in its lipid soluble form when it is protonated, that is at pH greater than 7
80. The cross-sectional area of the diffusion path is directly proportional to the flux of drug
molecules
81. The steady-state concentration achieved by continuous infusion or the average concentration
following intermittent dosing depends only on clearance.
82. Systemic clearance is affected by bioavailability.
83. Clearance can affect the extent of availability because it determines the extraction ratio.
84. The difference in toxicity is a predictable consequence of the different patterns of
concentration and the saturable clearance mechanism.
85. Changes in drug effects will not be delayed if the plasma concentration is changed.
86. Blood flow is not a determinant of drug delivery.
87. Low bioavailability is also due to incomplete absorption.
88. The liver, although responsible for drug metabolism, may excrete the drug into the bile.
89. For an intravenous dose, bioavailability is assumed to be equal to unity.
90. The two major sites of drug elimination are the kidneys and the urinary bladder.
91. Although individual differences exist in drug distribution and rates of drug metabolism and
elimination, the dose and frequency of administration required to achieve effective therapeutic
blood and tissue levels remain the same.
92. Sex-dependent variations in drug metabolism exists.
93. Enzyme induction, a determinant of biotransformation rate, increases the rate of synthesis of
enzymes.
94. Diet and environmental factors affect biotransformation rate such as a charcoal inhibiting the
effects of drugs.
95. Ketoconazole is an example of enzyme inhibitor that may reduce drug effects.
96. Drugs with very high volumes of distribution means that they have much higher concentrations
in extravascular tissue than in the vascular compartment, in other words, are heterogeneously
distributed.
97. Adverse reactions include intolerance and idiosyncrasy but not allergy.
98. Ketamine is an example of drug which has more potent S or (-) enantiomer.
99. The total response when a full agonist is with a partial agonist gradually decreases reaching the
value produced by the partial agonist alone.
100. Enzyme induction enhances the drug effect.

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