UNIVERSITY OF BRISTOL

Summer 2014 Examination Period

School of Earth Sciences

Year 1 Examination

EXAM PAPER CODE EASC10002

ENVIRONMENTAL GEOSCIENCE 1

TIME ALLOWED

3 HOURS

This paper contains 3 sections: A, B and C

All students must answer all questions in each section.

Section A (1 hour)

Section A consists of 40 multiple choice questions

Answer all multiple choice questions by filling in the OMR sheet on lines 1-40 for
questions A1-A40.

Section B (1 hour)

Section B consists of 4 questions.

PLEASE ANSWER EACH QUESTION IN A NEW BLUE ANSWER BOOK.

Section C (1hour)

Section C consists of 2 questions

AGAIN ANSWER EACH QUESTION IN A NEW BLUE ANSWER BOOK.

Other instructions

PLEASE READ AND FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING IN THE

OMR SHEET VERY CAREFULLY.
NON-PROGRAMMABLE AND NON-GRAPHING CALCULATORS ARE PERMITTED IN
THIS EXAMINATION

TURN OVER ONLY WHEN TOLD TO START WRITING

 Section A. 40 marks in total.

A1. The global atmosphere holds about 0.0152x106 km3 of water. Every year
precipitation transfers 0.107x106 km3 of water onto the land surface and 0.398 x106
km3 into the oceans. What is the average residence time of water in the atmosphere?

A. 0.3 years
B. 11 days
C. 0.14 years
D. 0.05 years
E. 184 days
F. 0.3 days

A2. What was the likely trigger of the Huronian glaciation 2.3 billion years ago?

A. The reduction in solar flux.

B. Life evolved oxygenic photosynthesis, and atmospheric concentrations of CH4
abruptly decreased.
C. Organic carbon burial was more efficient, decreasing atmospheric CO2 concentration
and therefore the natural greenhouse effect.
D. India collided with Asia forming the Himalayas, which initiated the Indian monsoon
and increased the silicate weathering rate.
E. Sea floor spreading rates decreased.
F. Two of the above.

A3. Assuming that a black body has a surface temperature of 5800K, what is the
characteristic maximum wavelength it emits?

A. 5 m
B. 1.6x109 m
C. 500 m
D. 2 m
E. 200 nm
F. 0.5 m

A4. The non-conservative constituents of the atmosphere include:

A. O2
B. the noble gases
C. O3
D. N2
E. CO2
F. Two of the above
A5. Which statement about ocean circulation is incorrect:

A. Surface ocean circulation is driven by wind stress.

B. the Coriolis effect deflects water transport throughout the water column.
C. Ekman flow causes the sea surface to be raised in the centre of gyres.
D. Deep ocean circulation transports 90% of the heat transferred by the ocean.
E. Deep ocean circulation and water column stability is driven by seawater density
differences, which are controlled by temperature and salinity.
F. sea ice formation reduces ocean circulation by insulating the ocean surface from the
atmosphere.

A6. This system diagram outlines the components in the ice-albedo feedback loop. The
couplings (labelled X, Y, Z) that show how one component of the system affects another
positively or negatively have been blanked out. Which of the following statements is
false:

A. This is a positive feedback loop.

B. Increases in planetary albedo ultimately lead to increased snow and ice cover.
C. The connectors X, Y and Z are all negative couplings.
D. This ice-albedo feedback can lead to a Snowball Earth.
E. This feedback is dependent on solar radiation input.
F. The age of the snow and ice has an impact on albedo.
A7. Which statement is incorrect in reference to this illustrated concentration profile of
a hypothetical element in seawater:

A. An element with this profile has very high input and output fluxes.
B. This profile is characteristic of an element that is scavenged by highly charged
particles and transported vertically.
C. An element with this profile has a very short residence time in seawater.
D. Concentration profiles of this element are likely to be very variable, spatially around
the oceans and also temporally.
E. It is likely that this is a biologically active element.
F. The reservoir size of this element in seawater will be extremely small.

A8. Which of the following statements about Banded Iron Formations (BIFs) is
incorrect?

A. BIFs are used as evidence that the early Earth had a reducing atmosphere.
B. BIFs can form immediately following Snowball Earth events.
C. BIFs were common formations prior to 1.9 billion years ago.
D. BIFs form at the same time as continental red sandstones containing Fe2O3.
E. BIFs are formed because iron is insoluble as Fe3+ and therefore precipitates out as
hematite or magnetite.
F. BIFs are formed because iron is soluble as Fe2+ and therefore mixes through the
oceans.

A9. Which of the following is true about nutrient pollution?

A. It can be caused by fracking nutrient-rich source rocks.

B. It is a consequence of ocean acidification due to climate change.
C. It can be caused by contamination of freshwater by manure.
D. It can be caused by bioturbation of soils with high cation exchange capacity.
E. It is a major cause of tropospheric ozone.
F. It usually leads to a decrease in phytoplankton productivity.
A10. Acid rain is caused by which acids?

A. HNO3
B. H2SO4
C. HPO4
D. HCl
E. H2CO3
F. A and B only
G. C and D only
H. All of the above

A11. Rising atmospheric CO2 levels will NOT lead to:

A. Melting of the ice caps

B. Higher sea levels
C. An increase in the size of the hole in the ozone layer
D. Ecosystem migrations
E. Unpredictable weather patterns
F. Ocean acidification
G. D and F only
H. C and D only

A12. Which gas is produced by the action of soil bacteria on nitrate fertilizers?

A. CH4
B. NO3-
C. CH3CN
D. O3
E. HNO3
F. NH4+
G. CN
H. N2O

A13. Bioremediation is:

A. The use of microorganisms to immobilize pollutants.

B. The use of microorganisms to restore biodiversity.
C. The process of removing microbial contaminants from groundwater.
D. The use of microorganisms to convert a toxic substance to a non-toxic form.
E. The process of adding microbial products to crop land to improve food production.
F. Both B and E.
G. Both A and D.
H. Both A. and C.
A14. Which of the following processes would most likely increase the amount of erosion
in an area?

A. Deforestation
B. Compaction
C. Urbanization
D. Eutrophication
E. Sedimentation
F. Global warming

A15. What does indirect land use change refer to?

A. Government policies that lead to land use change

B. Using land for fracking instead of food production
C. Deforestation related to climate change
D. Salination of crop lands related to climate change
E. Biofuel production
F. Drying out of fields related to over-pumping of aquifers

A16. Where is a pollutant not a hazard?

A. Where it is not bioremediated

B. Where it is not bioavailable
C. Where it is mobile
D. Where it is toxic
E. Where it is not chemically reactive
F. Where it is a nutrient

A17. Which seismic waves travel at the highest speed through the upper portion of the
Earths crust?

A. Love waves
B. Compressional waves
C. Rayleigh waves
D. Shear waves
E. Extensional waves
F. Refracted waves

A18. Stream power is a measure of energy dissipation of a river against its bed and
banks. On average, what is the size (in km2) of the drainage area of rivers that show the
highest stream power?

A. 10000
B. 1000000
C. 1
D. 100
E. 10
F. 1000
A19. Which of the following parameters is NOT essential for the creation of a tropical
cyclone?

A. Eye development
B. Efficient convective instability
C. Development of a vortex tube
D. Weak vertical wind shear
E. Humidity in the lower atmosphere
F. Convergence of surface air

A20. Which one of these materials has a fissile nucleus to thermal neutrons?

A. Polonium, 209Po
B. Actinium, 227Ac
C. Thorium, 232Th
D. Uranium, 235U
E. Uranium, 238U

A21. Which one of these materials can breed using thermal neutrons?

A. Thorium, 232Th
B. Uranium, 233 U
C. Uranium, 235U
D. Uranium, 238U
E. Plutonium, 239Pu

A22. Three similar Carnot heat engines, X, Y and Z are powered from different heat
sources/sinks. The heat source at temperatures for engines X, Y and Z are 1000K, 9270C
and 1400K respectively; while their respective heat sink temperatures are 300K, 2270C
and 700K. Which engine(s) has/have the highest efficiency?

A. Engine X
B. Engine Y
C. Engine Z
D. All engines have equal efficiency
E. Engines X and Y
F. Engines Y and Z

A23. What makes the typical power density available in wave power much greater than
that usually available in the wind power?

A. Wave speed
B. Wave amplitude
C. Wave frequency
D. Size of the harvesting device
E. Density of water
A24. What is the current expected conversion efficiency for mass produced commercial
domestic photovoltaic cells?

A. 1%
B. 7%
C. 14%
D. 21%
E. 28%
F. 35%

A25. What effect will increase in temperature have on the performance of a

photovoltaic cell?

A. Reduce its efficiency

B. Increase its efficiency
C. Increase the open circuit voltage
D. Decrease the closed circuit current
E. No effect on efficiency

A26. The power harvested by a modern wind turbines increases slightly more than the
linear increase in the turbine harvesting area, why ?

A. Dissipation of power due to friction on the bearings is not linear with area
B. Wake interference is less pronounced at large scales
C. Tip blade speed increases linearly with diameter of rotor
D. Rotor root area at the nacelle takes up a decreasing proportion of the harvesting area
E. A larger proportion of the wind is less affected by ground boundary layer effects

A27. Why is it easier to put forward a viable commercial case for combined heat and
power for a gas burning power station than for a nuclear station?

A. Gas power stations can be sited closer to conurbation

B. Electricity generated by nuclear means is less expensive
C. Electricity generated by burning gas is less expensive
D. Gas power stations have higher thermal efficiencies
E. The temperatures available with gas power stations are higher

A28. To the nearest order of magnitude, which is TRUE of the average residence times
of water in the global water system?
A. 101 years in the atmosphere
B. 101 years in a river
C. 101-103 years in an aquifer
D. 105 years in the ocean
E. Two of answers A-D
F. Three of answers A-D
G. All of the answers A-D
A29. Key controls on evaporation from an open water body are

A. Windspeed
B. Saturation deficit
C. Temperature of the water
D. Air turbulence
E. Two of answers A-D
F. Three of answers A-D
G. All of answers A-D

A30. Deforestation could lead to a drop in the elevation of the water table as a result of
which one of the following?

A. Increased interception
B. Decreased transpiration
C. Increased overland flow
D. Decreased streamflow
E. Increased infiltration capacity

A31. What is the relative magnitude of the major components of the global water
consumption?

A. 90% Agriculture: 8% Industry: 2% Domestic

B. 80% Agriculture: 12% Industry: 8% Domestic
C. 70% Agriculture: 22% Industry: 8% Domestic
D. 60% Agriculture: 22% Industry: 18% Domestic
E. 50% Agriculture: 32% Industry: 18% Domestic
F. 40% Agriculture: 32% Industry: 28% Domestic

A32. Virtual water is best defined as

A. The average global per capita water consumption

B. Water embedded in commodities
C. Water lost from the aquifer by evaporation
D. Groundwater held by adsorption and capillarity in the unsaturated zone
E. The difference between measured inputs to the water budget and measured outputs

A33. Which of the following statements about disease transmission is FALSE?

A. Improved water storage reduces water-related insect vectors for disease

B. Improved water quality reduces water-bourne disease
C. Improved water accessibility reduces water-based disease
D. Improved water accessibility reduces water-washed disease
A34. An example of a hydrothermal ore is:

A. a crystal differentiate
B. large rock bodies with numerous sulfide-filled fracture fillings
C. segregations of Ni and Cu sulfides associated with ultramafic lavas
D. a skarn
E. evaporate deposits
F. a and c
G. b and d

A35. Banded iron formations have layers of oxidized iron because:

A. the source of ferrous iron (Fe2+) is diminished

B. seawater becomes too oxygen-rich for magnetite precipitation
C. seawater becomes too oxygen-poor for magnetite precipitation
D. high erosion rates deposit vast quantities of silica
E. ferric iron (Fe3+) is insoluble in seawater

A36. Which of the following statement(s) about a laterite deposit is (are) false?

A. It is composed primarily of the minerals goethite, orthoclase and magnetite

B. It is a surface soil horizon that forms in tropical areas which is enriched in iron and
aluminium
C. It is enriched in soluble elements such as potassium and sodium
D. It is a horizon of epithermal precipitation of minerals
E. a and c
F. a and d

A37. First boiling in a magma refers to a process whereby:

A. a magma reaches water saturation late and at a shallow level due to intersection with
the water-saturated solidus
B. a magma boils at a shallow level for a second time after an initial deep boiling
C. crystallization in a magma begins early, forcing the magma to water-saturation
nearly isobarically (at constant pressure)
D. volatiles saturation occurs as a result of an increase in pressure
E. a magma boils due to latent heat of crystallisation

A38. The distribution of porphyry copper deposits is related to:

A. impact structures
B. black smokers at transform margins
C. large aphanitic granite complexes
D. magma generation at convergent margins
E. all of the above
F. none of the above
A39. Serecite alteration proceeds by which of the following mechanisms:

A. potassic alteration of iron oxides

B. breakdown of primary muscovite to hematite plus quartz
C. argillic alteration
D. breakdown of primary albite to chlorite plus quartz
E. breakdown of primary orthoclase to quartz plus muscovite

A40. Which environment would be most likely to result in petroleum generation?

A. low organic carbon productivity

B. homogeneous, oxic water column
C. stratified water column with anoxic bottom water
D. high riverine input of freshwater plants
E. none of the above
F. all of the above
 Section B. 40 marks in total. 10 marks for each question.

B1.

Give 1 sentence definitions for each of the following terms, including the mathematical
equation, chemical formula or a drawn figure where appropriate

A. The carbonate-silicate weathering cycle reactions (3 equations required)

B. Stefan-Boltzman Law
C. Net radiation at the top of the Earths atmosphere
D. Lapse rate
E. Latent heat
F. Dissolved Inorganic Carbon
G. The biological pump

B2.

The eruption of Mt. St. Helens on May18, 1980 lasted for 9 hours during which 2.5*1012
kg of magma was erupted.
A) Estimate the theoretical average height of the eruption column for the power law
relationship between volume eruption rate and column height. Assume that magma
with a density of 2.5 g/cm3 was ejected at the same constant rate throughout the
duration of the eruption.
B) How would strong winds blowing from the SW on the day of the eruption have
affected the shape of the eruption column, its height and the volcanic ash dispersal?

B3.

How will climate change projected for the next century impact on water resources?
B4.

A spherical rhyolitic magma body of 5 km radius cools in the crust at a depth of 10 km.
The initial water content of the magma is 4 wt.%. As the body crystallises, the mass
fraction of melt varies as function of temperature according to the relationship:

1
fmelt =
T -T
1+ exp 0
23

i. Assuming that as the magma crystallises all of the water remains in the melt, calculate
the water concentration in wt.% (Xwater) in the residual melt at 775C, where T0 is 800
C:

Xwater(i)
Xwater = & Xwater(i ) = initial water content (in wt%)
fmelt

ii. The solubility of water in the residual rhyolite melt left over after crystallisation at 10
km is 6wt.%. Once the water content in the residual melt overcomes this limit, water is
no longer soluble and gas bubbles form. Calculate the mass of excess water in the
residual melt at 775 C (the density of the initial magma and the residual melt =
2200kg/m3; volume of sphere = 4r3,

iii. Assuming that no gas leaves the system, calculate the increase of volume in km3 due
to the generation of bubbles at 775 C. Use the ideal gas equation to calculate the volume
of gas: PV=nRT, where R = 8.13 m3Pa/K mol; T in Kelvin, P is in Pascal (N/m2) and
n=number of moles of water (molecular weight H2O=18). P is the lithostatic pressure at
10 km depth given by:

P10km = rc gd

where the density of the crust (c)=2700 kg/m3; g = 9.8 m/s2, and d is the depth.
 Section C. 40 marks in total. 20 marks for each question

C1. Refer to the diagram below showing reservoirs and fluxes of calcium (Ca) in a
forested watershed. Give all numerical answers with the correct units and with an
appropriate number of significant digits. The following values are known: the living
vegetation reservoir contains 500 kg Ca ha-1, the litterfall reservoir contains 100 kg Ca
ha-1, bedrock contains 0.2 g Ca cm-3, soil water contains 0.3 mg Ca ml-1, rainfall delivers
6 kg Ca ha-1 y-1, watershed area is 215 ha, 1 ml = 1 cm3, 1 ha = 104 m2.

(a) If 25 m3 of bedrock weathers in the watershed per year, what is the total annual
bedrock weathering input of Ca to the watershed in kg ha-1 y-1? (4 marks)

(b) If the watershed shown is in steady-state with respect to Ca, what is the stream flow
export of Ca in kg ha-1 y-1? (4 marks)

(c) Assume that biomass is in steady-state with respect to Ca, that the groundwater
reservoir is in steady-state with respect to Ca, that the rate of Ca sorption = the rate of
Ca desorption and that when the bedrock weathers, 20% of the Ca is retained in
secondary minerals whilst 80% is leached. Based on the given values and the fluxes
calculated above, what is the infiltration flux of Ca from the soil water to the
groundwater in kg ha-1 y-1? (4 marks)

(d) Assume that the forested watershed described above was partially cleared and
replaced by a housing development in 2011. This land use change resulted in a 70% loss
of living vegetation, a 20% loss of litterfall and caused 30% of the rainfall that year to
runoff directly to the stream, bypassing the soil water and groundwater reservoirs
entirely. What was the change in Ca storage, in kg, in the watershed in 2011? (8 marks)
C2. The colliery spoil heaps erected near the village of Aberfan in the first half of the 20th
century failed seven times between 1918 and 1966.

i) In hindsight, what was the probability of occurrence of such a mass wasting event
given these statics in any given year?

ii) Discuss the contributing factors for the destabilisation of the heap, which failed
catastrophically in 1966 killing 144 individuals.

iii) Given the run-out distance of the collapsed material of about 800 m and the initial
height of the heap of 250 m, establish the friction coefficient. Discuss your finding with
respect to friction coefficients of between 0.8 and 0.5 reported for landslides with
volumes of less than 1 km3.

iv) Which conclusions can you draw regarding the nature of the catastrophic collapse?
How do your findings on the dynamics of the 1964 heap collapse compare to the
dynamics of the Taren and East Pentwyn mass movements?