Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CM370715005

Hindi

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

NEET-II BOOSTER COURSE

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016
Test Type : PART TEST # 05 Test Pattern : NEET
TEST DATE : 25 - 06 - 2016
Important Instructions /
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.


2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3
180
720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.


1

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR



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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/25-06-2016
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1. An ionized gas contains both positive and negative 1.

ions. If it is subjected simultaneously to an electric
+x
field along the +x direction and a magnetic field
+z
along the +z direction, then :-
(1)
+y
y
(1) Positive ions deflect towards +y direction and

negative ions towards y direction
(2)
+y
(2) All ions deflect towards +y direction
(3) All ions deflect towards y direction (3)
y

(4) Positive ions deflect towards y direction and (4)

y
+y
negative ions towards +y direction
2. A charged particle is whirled in a horizontal circle 2.
on a frictionless table by attaching it to a string fixed
at one point. If a magnetic field is switched on in
the vertical direction, the tension in the string:-
:-
(1) will increase (1)
(2) will decrease (2)
(3) will remain the same (3)
(4) may increase or decrease (4)
3. In the case of an inductor : 3.

(1) voltage lags the current by (1)

2 2

(2) voltage leads the current by (2)

2 2

(3) voltage leads the current by (3)

3 3

(4) voltage leads the current by (4)

4 4
4. The value of escape velocity on a certain planet 4. 2 km/s
is 2 km/s. Then the value of orbital speed for a
satellite orbiting close to its surface is :-
:-
(1) 12 km/s (1) 12 km/s
(2) 1 km/s (2) 1 km/s

(3) 2 km/s (3) 2 km/s

(4) 2 2 km / s (4) 2 2 km / s

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5. (a) Calculate the force needed to keep the sliding 5. (a)
v
wire moving with a constant velocity v. (b) If the
(b)
force needed just after t = 0 is F0, find the time t = 0
F0
at which the force needed will be F 0/2. (The F0/2
resistance of all the wires is r per unit length & (
r
t = 0
at t = 0 the sliding wire is close to the left edge U

of U shaped wire). )

v v
B B

B2 2 v B2 2 v B2 2v B2 2v
(1) , (2) , (1) , (2) ,
2r( vt) v r( vt) v 2r( vt) v r( vt) v

B2 2v B2 2 v B2 2v B2 2v
(3) , (4) , (3) , (4) ,
2r( vt) 2v r( vt) 2v 2r( vt) 2v r( vt) 2v
6. In an AC circuit, V and I are given by 6. AC
V
I

V=150 sin (150t) volts and I = 150 sin 150t

I = 150 sin 150t amp
V = 150 sin (150t) volt
3 3
amperes. The power dissipated in the circuit is :
(1) 100 W (2) 150 W (1) 100 W (2) 150 W
(3) 5625 W (4) zero (3) 5625 W (4)
7. The displacement of a particle of mass 3g executing 7.
3
simple harmonic motion is given by : y = 3 sin (0.2t) y = 3 sin (0.2t) (SI

in SI units. The kinetic energy of the particle at a
point which is at a distance equal to (1/3) of its

(1/3)

amplitude from its mean position is :-
(1) 12 103 J (2) 25 103 J
(1) 12 103 J (2) 25 103 J (3) 0.48 103 J (4) 0.24 103 J
3
(3) 0.48 10 J (4) 0.24 103 J
K
8. In a certain region of space gravitational field is 8.
I =
r
given by I = (K/r). Taking reference point to be r = r0

at r = r0 with V = V0, find potential at distance r.

r = r0
V0 r
r
:-
(1) V = V0 + K loge r
0 r
(1) V = V0 + K loge
r0
r
(2) V = V0 K loge r r
0 (2) V = V0 K loge
r0
1 1
(3) V = K r 2 r 2 1 1
0 (3) V = K r 2 r 2
0

K K
(4) V = (4) V =
r02 r02

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9. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by 9.
the equations :
:

Y1 = 10sin 3t Y1 = 10sin 3t
4 4
Y2 = 5(sin 3t + 3 cos 3t). Y2 = 5(sin 3t + 3 cos 3t).
Their amplitudes are in the ratio of :
:
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4
10. A particle is projected vertically upwards from the 10.
Re)
surface of the earth (radius Re) with a speed equal
to one fourth of escape speed. What is the maximum
height attained by it from the surface of the earth?
16 Re 16 Re
(1) Re (2) (1) Re (2)
15 15 15 15

4 4
(3) Re (4) None of these (3) Re (4)
15 15

11. The power factor of the circuit in figure is 1/ 2 . 11.

1/ 2
The capacitance of the circuit is equal to :-
:-
2 sin (100t) 2 sin (100t)

10 0.1H 10 0.1H

C C
(1) 400F (2) 300F (3) 500F (4) 200F (1) 400F (2) 300F (3) 500F (4) 200F
12. If i1 = 3 sin t and i2 = 4 cos t, then i3 is :- 12. i1 = 3 sin t i2 = 4 cos t,
i3 :-
i1 i2 i1 i2

i3 i3

(1) 5 sin(t + 53) (2) 5 sin(t + 37) (1) 5 sin(t + 53) (2) 5 sin(t + 37)
(3) 5 sin(t + 45) (4) 5 sin(t + 50) (3) 5 sin(t + 45) (4) 5 sin(t + 50)
13. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) 13.
(E)
of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is
(r)
correctly represented by :-

E E E E
R R
(1) O (2) O (1) O r
(2) O r
r R r R

E E E E
R R
O O O O
r (3) r (4)
(3) (4) R r R r

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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/25-06-2016
14. In a string the speed of wave is 10 m/s and its 14.
10
frequency is 100 Hz . The value of the phase 100 Hz .
2.5
difference between two points separated by
2.5 cm in radian will be :
(1) /2 (2) /8 (3) 3/2 (4) 2 (1) /2 (2) /8 (3) 3/2 (4) 2
15. In a resonance tube the first resonance with a 15.
16 cm
tuning fork occurs at 16 cm and second at 49 cm.
49 cm
If the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, the frequency
330 m/s
:-
of tuning fork is :-
(1) 500 Hz (2) 300 Hz (1) 500 Hz (2) 300 Hz
(3) 330 Hz (4) 165 Hz (3) 330 Hz (4) 165 Hz
16. When a guitar string is sounded with a 440 Hz 16.
440 Hz
tuning fork a beat frequency of 5 Hz is heard. 5 Hz

If the experiment is repeated with a tuning fork
437 Hz
of 437 Hz, the beat frequency is 8 Hz. The string
8 Hz
frequency (Hz) is
Hz
(1) 445 (2) 435 (3) 429 (4) 448 (1) 445 (2) 435 (3) 429 (4) 448
17. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car 17.
driver sounds a horn of frequency f. The
f

reflected sound heard by the driver has a
frequency 2f. If v be the velocity of sound then 2f
v

the velocity of the car, in the same velocity units,
will be :
:
v v v v v v v v
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 2 2 3 4 2 2
18. A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2cm. The 18.
2cm
x-
wave travels in the + ve direction of x axis with 128 m/s

a speed of 128 m/s and it is noted that 5 complete

4 m
5
waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The equation
describing the wave is :-
:-
(1) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x 1005t) (1) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x 1005t
(2) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x + 1005t) (2) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x + 1005t)
(3) y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x 2010t) (3) y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x 2010t)
(4) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x + 2010t) (4) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x + 2010t)
19. Waves from two sources superimpose on each 19.
other at a particular point. Amplitude and
frequency of both the waves are equal. The ratio

of intensities when both waves reach in the same
phase and they reach with the phase difference
900
of 900 will be
(1) 1:1 (2) 2 :1
(1) 1:1 (2) 2 :1
(3) 2:1 (4) 4:1 (3) 2:1 (4) 4:1
20. If a star emitting light of wavelength 5000 is 20. 5000
moving towards earth with a velocity of
1.5 106 m
s
1.5 106 m/s then the shift in the wavelength due
to Doppler's effect will be :
(1) 2.5 (2) 250 (1) 2.5 (2) 250
(3) 25 (4) Zero (3) 25 (4)

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21. A wave represented by the equation y = a sin(kx t) 21. y = a sin(kx t)
is superimposed with another wave to form a
stationary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node. x = 0

Then the equation of other wave is
(1) y = a cos (kx t) (2) y = acos (kx + t) (1) y = a cos (kx t) (2) y = acos (kx + t)
(3) y = asin (kx + t) (4) y = a sin (kx + t) (3) y = asin (kx + t) (4) y = a sin (kx + t)
22. A transverse sinusoidal wave moves along a string 22.
10 cm/s
in the positive x-direction at a speed of 10 cm/s. x-
The wavelength of the wave is 0.5 m and its
amplitude is 10 cm. At a particular time t, the snap 0.5 m
10 cm
shot of the wave is shown in figure. The velocity
snapshot
of P when its displacement is 5 cm is : P
5 cm
y y

P P
x x

3 3
3 3 (1) i m/s (2) j m/s
(1) i m/s (2) j m/s 50 50
50 50

3 3 3 3
(3) j m/s (4) i m/s (3) j m/s (4) i m/s
50 50 50 50
23. A set of 56 tuning forks are so arranged in series 23. 56
that each fork gives 4 beats per second with the
4
previous one. The frequency of the last fork is

3 times that of first. The frequency of first fork
is :
(1) 110 Hz (2) 60 Hz (3) 56 Hz (4) 65 Hz (1) 110 Hz (2) 60 Hz (3) 56 Hz (4) 65 Hz
24. A whistle revolves in a circle with angular speed 24. 50 cm
= 20 rad/sec using a string of length 50 cm. If =
20
the frequency of sound from the whistle is

385 Hz
385 Hz, then what is the minimum frequency
heard by an observer which is far away from the
centre: (Vsound = 340 m/s)
(Vsound = 340 m/s)
(1) 385 Hz (2) 374 Hz (1) 385 Hz (2) 374 Hz
(3) 394 Hz (4) 333 Hz (3) 394 Hz (4) 333 Hz
25. A cylindrical tube (L = 120 cm) is resonant with 25. (L = 120 cm)
a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz. If it is filled
330 Hz
with water, then to get resonance minimum length
of water column is (Vair = 330 m/s)
(Vair=330
m/s)
(1) 45 cm. (2) 60 cm. (3) 25 cm. (4) 20 cm. (1) 45 cm. (2) 60 cm. (3) 25 cm. (4) 20 cm.
26. The mean distance between the atoms of iron is 26.
3 1010 m and inter atomic force constant for
3 1010
iron is 7 N/m. The Young's modulus of elasticity
7N/m
for iron is :
(1) 2.33 105 N/m2 (2) 23.3 1010 N/m2
(1) 2.33 105 N/m2 (2) 23.3 1010 N/m2
(3) 233 1010 N/m2 (4) 2.33 1010 N/m2
(3) 233 1010 N/m2 (4) 2.33 1010 N/m2
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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/25-06-2016
27. If 'S' is stress and 'Y' is Young's modulus of 27. 'S'
'Y'
material of a wire, the energy stored in the wire
per unit volume is :-

S 2Y S2 S 2Y S2
(4) 2S 2 Y (1) (2) (3) (4) 2S 2 Y
(1)
2Y
(2) 2
S
(3)
2Y 2Y S2 2Y
28. A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A is 28.
A
L
made of a material of Young's modulus Y. The Y
x
work done in stretching the wire by an amount x

is given by
YAx2 YAx2 YAx2 YAx2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
L 2L L 2L

YAL2 YAL2 YAL2 YAL2

(3) (4) (3) (4)
x 2x x 2x
29. Copper of fixed volume 'V' is drawn into wire of 29. 'V'
'l'
length 'l'. When this wire is subjected to a constant 'F'
force 'F', the extension produced in the wire is 'l'.
'l'

Which of the following graphs is a straight line?

1
(1) l versus (2) l versus l2 1
l (1) l (2) l
l2
l
1 1
(3) l versus
l2
(4) l versus l (3) l 2 (4) l l
l
30. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at 30. PQ
M
L
end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless P

string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When
Q
string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the

rod is :-

:-

P
Q
P
Q
L
L
2g 3g
(1) (2) 2g 3g
3L 2L
(1) (2) (3) g/L (4) 2g/L
(3) g/L (4) 2g/L 3L 2L
31. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 31.
1
2
2 having densities 1 and 2 , respectively.
3
A solid ball, made of a material of density 3, is
dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the

2
3
position shown in the figure. Which of the
following is true for 1, 2 & 3?
(1) 3 < 1 < 2 (1) 3 < 1 < 2
Liquid 1
Liquid 1

(2) 1 > 3 > 2 (2) 1 > 3 > 2

(3) 1 < 2 < 3 (3) 1 < 2 < 3

Liquid 2
Liquid 2
(4) 1 < 3 < 2 (4) 1 < 3 < 2

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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/25-06-2016
32. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length
32.
L (L < H/2)
L (L < H/2), crosssectional area A/5 is immersed
such that it floats with its axis vertical at the A/5
liquidliquid interface with length L/4 in the
denser liquid as shown in the figure. The lower L/4
density liquid is open to atmosphere having

pressure P0. Then, density D of solid cylinder is
given by : P0
D

d d

5 4 d 5 4 d
(1) d (2) d (3) 4d (4) (1) d (2) d (3) 4d (4)
4 5 5 4 5 5
33. A piece of ice is floating in a jar containing water. 33.
When the ice melts, then the level of water :-
(1) Rises (2) Falls (1) (2)
(3) Remains unchanged (4) Changes erratically (3) (4)
34. A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One 34.
is a square hole of side L at a depth y from the L)
y
top and the other is a circular hole of radius R
R
at a depth 4y from the top. When the tank is
4y
completely filled with water, the quantities of
water flowing out per second from both the holes
are same. Then, R is equal to :
R
-
L L
(1) (2) 2L (1) (2) 2L
2 2

L L
(3) L (4) (3) L (4)
2 2
35. The flow speeds of air on the lower and upper 35.
surfaces of the wing of an aeroplane are v and

v 2 v
2 v respectively. The density of air is and
A
surface area of wing is A. The dynamic lift on the
wing is :
(1) v2A 2 (1) v2A (2) 2
2 v A
(2) 2 v A
(3) (1/2) v2A (4) 2v2A (3) (1/2) v2A (4) 2v2A
36. A current as a function of time can be described 36.
as i = t2 for 0 < t < T. The rms valve of this current i = t2 (0 < t < T)
is :- :-

T2 T T3 T T2 T T3 T
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 7 2 5 3 7 2

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37. A body of mass 200 gram is moving along XY 37. 200
XY
plane. Work performed by the force given by (0, 0) (1, 2)

F (2xi yj)
acting on it when the body gets
F (2xi yj)
displaced from (0, 0) to (1, 2) will be equal to (1) 3 (2) 6
(1) 3 unit (2) 6 unit
(3) 5 unit (4) 1.5 unit (3) 5 (4) 1.5
38. A stone is projected vertically up to reach 38.
h
maximum height h. The ratio of its kinetic 4h
4h
5

energy to potential energy, at a height will
5
be :-
:-
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 4 : 5 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1 (1) 5 : 4 (2) 4 : 5 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
39. Six steel balls of identical size are lined up along 39.
a straight frictionless groove. Two similar balls
V
moving with a speed V along the groove collide
with this row on the extreme left hand then-
-

(1) all the balls will start moving to the right with (1)
V/8
speed V/8 each
(2)
6
V/6
(2) all the six balls initially at rest will move on
with speed V/6 each and two identical balls
will come to rest
(3)
(v)
(3) two balls from the extreme right end will move
on with speed V each and the remaining balls
will remain at rest (4)
2V
(4) one ball from the right end will move on with
speed 2V, the remaining balls will be at rest.
40. Two particles each of mass m travelling with 40. m
u1 u2
velocities u1 and u2 collide perfectly inelastically.

The loss of kinetic energy will be
1 1
1 1
(1) m(u1 u2)2 (2) m(u1 u2)2
2 4
(1) m(u1 u2)2 (2) m(u1 u2)2
2 4 (3) m(u1 u2)2 (4) 2m(u1 u2)2
(3) m(u1 u2)2 (4) 2m(u1 u2)2
10
41. A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible 41. L
(inextensible)
3
10
string of length L m is whirling in a circular
L
3
path of radius L in a vertical plane. If the ratio of
4
the maximum to the minimum tension in the string

g = 10
2

is 4 and g = 10m/s2, the speed of the stone at the
highest point of the circle is :-
(1) 20 m/s (2) 10 3 m/s (1) 20 m/s (2) 10 3 m/s

(3) 5 2 m/s (4) 10 m/s (3) 5 2 m/s (4) 10 m/s

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42. A T-shaped object of uniform thickness & same 42.
T
material with dimensions as shown in the figure,

AB F
P
is lying on a smooth floor. A force F is applied

at the point P parallel to AB, such that the object

C
P
has only the translation motion without rotation.
Find the location of P with respect to C.

4 4 l
l (1)
(1) A B
3 A B 3
(2) (2)
P
2 P
2l 2 2l
(3) F (3) F
3 3

3 3
(4) C
(4) C
2
2
43. Four similar point masses (each of mass m) are 43. M R
4
placed on the circumference of a disc of mass M m

and radius R. The M.I. of the system about the O
normal axis through the centre O will be:-
:
2 2
(1) MR2 + 4mR2 (1) MR + 4mR

1 1
(2) MR2 + 4mR2 O (2) MR2 + 4mR2 O
2 2

8 8
(3) MR2 + mR2 (3) MR2 + mR2
5 5
(4) None of these (4)
44. A string is wrapped around the rim of a wheel of 44. 20
0.20
2

moment of inertia 0.20 kg-m2 and radius 20 cm.
(Rim)
The wheel is free to rotate about its axis and
initially it is at rest. The string is now pulled by 20N

a force of 20N. The angular velocity of the string
after 5 seconds will be : 20N (1) 90 20N

(1) 90 rad/s
(2) 70
(2) 70 rad/s
(3) 95
(3) 95 rad/s
(4) 100 rad/s (4) 100
45. A particle of mass m 45. m Y
Y D E
moves with a constant D E
velocity. Which of the
A C
A C
following statements is

not correct about its B
angular momentum B
X
O X
O
about origin? (1) A
OA
(1) it is zero when particle is at A and is moving
along OA (2) DE
(2) it is the same at all points along the line DE (3) B D
(3) it is of the same magnitude but oppositely
directed at B and D (4) BC
(4) increases as it moves along the line BC
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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/25-06-2016
46. A compound contains elements X, Y and Z which 46.
X, Y Z
have oxidation numbers +3, +5 and 2 respectively
+3, +5
2
then possible formula of compound is :
:
(1) XYZ2 (2) X3(Y4Z)2 (1) XYZ2 (2) X3(Y4Z)2
(3) Y2(XZ3)2 (4) X3(YZ4)3 (3) Y2(XZ3)2 (4) X3(YZ4)3
47. The set of coefficients of P4, OH and H2PO2 47. P4 + OH PH 3 + H 2PO 2 P 4, OH
in the reaction P4 + OH PH 3 + H 2PO 2 is :
H2PO2
:
(1) 2, 3, 3 (2) 2, 4, 4 (1) 2, 3, 3 (2) 2, 4, 4
(3) 1, 3, 3 (4) 2, 5, 3 (3) 1, 3, 3 (4) 2, 5, 3
48. Molar conductivity of a solution is 48.
1.26 102 1 cm2 mol1 1.26 102 1 cm2 mol1
0.01
Its molarity is 0.01. The specific conductivity of

:-
solution will be :-
(1) 1.26 102 S cm1 (2) 1.26 103 S cm1
(1) 1.26 102 S cm1 (2) 1.26 103 S cm1
(3) 1.26 104 S cm1 (4) 0.0063 S cm1 (3) 1.26 104 S cm1 (4) 0.0063 S cm1
49. Consider the following four electrodes- 49.
-
P = Cu+2 (0.0001 M)/Cu(s) P = Cu+2 (0.0001 M)/Cu(s)
Q = Cu+2 (0.1 M)/Cu(s) Q = Cu+2 (0.1 M)/Cu(s)
R = Cu+2 (0.01 M)/Cu(s) R = Cu+2 (0.01 M)/Cu(s)
S = Cu+2 (0.001 M)/Cu(s) S = Cu+2 (0.001 M)/Cu(s)
If the standard electrods potential of Cu+2/Cu is
Cu+2/Cu
0.34 V
0.34 V. The reduction potential of the above

:-
electrods follow the order :-
(1) S > R > Q > P (2) R > S > Q > P (1) S > R > Q > P (2) R > S > Q > P
(3) P > Q > R > S (4) Q > R > S > P (3) P > Q > R > S (4) Q > R > S > P

50.
2
Electrode potential of Zn (aq ) / Zn (s ) is 0.76 V and 50. Zn (aq2 ) / Zn (s )
0.76
V
2
of Cu (aq) / Cu (s ) is + 0.34 V. The emf of the cell
2
Cu (aq) / Cu (s )
+ 0.34 V
constructed between these two electrodes is :-
emf :-
(1) 1.10 V (2) 0.42 V (1) 1.10 V (2) 0.42 V
(3) 1.1 V (4) 0.42 V (3) 1.1 V (4) 0.42 V
51. The current in a given wire is 1.8 A. The number 51.
1.8
of coulombs that flow in 1.36 minutes will be :- 1.36
:-
(1) 100 C (2) 147 C (1) 100 C (2) 147 C
(3) 247 C (4) 347 C (3) 247 C (4) 347 C
52. A solid has b.c.c. structure. If the distance of 52. b.c.c.
closest approach between the two atoms is 1.73. 1.73
The edge length of the cell is :-
:-
3 3
(1) 200 pm (2) pm (3) 142.2 pm (4) 2 pm (1) 200 pm (2) pm (3) 142.2 pm (4) 2 pm
2 2
53. The volume of atoms present in a face-centered 53.
cubic unit cell of a metal (r is the atomic radius)
r :-
is :-
20 3 24 3 12 3 16 3
20 3 24 3 12 3 16 3 (1) r (2) r (3) r (4) r
(1) r (2) r (3) r (4) r 3 3 3 3
3 3 3 3
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54. Percentage of free space in a b.c.c. unit cell is :- 54. b.c.c.
:-
(1) 34% (2) 28 % (1) 34% (2) 28 %
(3) 30% (4) 32% (3) 30% (4) 32%
55. High boiling azeotrope from the following is :- 55.
:-
(1) CH3OH + H2O (2) CHCl3 + CCl4 (1) CH3OH + H2O (2) CHCl3 + CCl4
(3) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 (4) HNO3 + H2O (3) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 (4) HNO3 + H2O
56. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of an 56.
aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute is 0.0125
0.0125
then the molality of solution is :-
:-
(1) 0.50 (2) 0.60 (3) 0.70 (4) 0.80 (1) 0.50 (2) 0.60 (3) 0.70 (4) 0.80
57. The osmotic pressure of a solution increases :- 57. :-
(1) On increase in temperature (1)
(2) On decrease in solution constant (2)
(3) On decrease in number of solute particles (3)
(4) On volume increase (4)
58. The Vant Hoff's factor for the solute showing 58.
association in solution is :-
:-
(1) zero (2) one (1) (2)
(3) less than 1 (4) more than 1 (3) (4)
59. At a constant temperature vapour pressure of pure 59.
benzene and toluene are 160 and 60 mm 160
60
respectively. If toluene and benzene are present

3 : 2
in solution in 3 : 2 mole ratio then what will be
the mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase ?

(1) 0.64 (2) 0.36 (1) 0.64 (2) 0.36
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.2 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.2

1 1
60. For the reaction N 2 O5
N 2O 4 O2(g) 60. N 2 O5
N 2O 4 O2(g)
(g) (g) 2 (g) (g) 2
initial pressure is 114 mm and after 20 seconds
114
20
the pressure of reaction mixture becomes 133

133 mm. Then the average rate of reaction will
:-
be :-
(1) 1.9 atm. sec1 (2) 8.75 103 atm sec1
(1) 1.9 atm. sec1 (2) 8.75 103 atm sec1
(3) 2.5 10 atm sec (4) 6.65 atm sec1
3 1 (3) 2.5 103 atm sec1 (4) 6.65 atm sec1
61. Rate law for a reaction 2A + B C + D is 61. 2A + B C + D :
rate = k [A]2 [B] then correct option is :- = k [A] [B]
2
:-
(1) Reaction must be elementary (1)
(2) Reaction must be complex (2)
(3) Reaction may be complex or elementary (3)
(4) None of the above (4)
62. What will be the rate of disappearance of SO2 if 62. 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
for the reaction 2SO2 + O2 2SO3,
d[O2 ]
d[O2 ] = 2.5 104 L1 sec1
SO2
= 2.5 104 mol L1 sec1. dt
dt
:-
(1) 5 104 mol L1 sec1 (1) 5 104 mol L1 sec1
(2) 2.25 104 mol L1 sec1 (2) 2.25 104 mol L1 sec1
(3) 3.75 104 mol L1 sec1 (3) 3.75 104 mol L1 sec1
(4) 50 104 mol L1 sec1 (4) 50 104 mol L1 sec1
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63. In the reaction 2A product, the concentration 63.
2A A
10
of A becomes 0.4 mol L1 from 0.5 mol L1 in 0.5
L 0.4
1
L
1

10 minutes then the rate of reaction in this time

:-
interval will be :-
(1) 2.5 103 mol L1 min1
(1) 2.5 103 mol L1 min1
(2) 7.5 103 mol L1 min1 (2) 7.5 103 mol L1 min1
(3) 1.25 103 mol L1 min1 (3) 1.25 103 mol L1 min1
(4) 5 103 mol L1 min1 (4) 5 103 mol L1 min1
64. The coagulation values of AlCl3 & NaCl are 0.093 64. AlCl3 NaCl
0.093
52
& 52 respectively. Then coagulation power of
AlCl3
NaCl

:-
AlCl3 as compared to that of NaCl is:-
(1) 52 0.093 times (2) 52/0.093 times (1) 52 0.093 (2) 52/0.093

0.093 0.093
(3) times (4) 52 0.093 times (3) (4) 52 0.093
52 52
65. The variation of amount of gas adsorbed per gm 65.
of adsorbent with pressure at different
temperatures is given in the fig. below, Which of
the following is correct :-
T1

T1

T2
gas adsorbed

T2
Amount of

T3
T3

Pressure

(1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T2 > T1 > T3 (1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T2 > T1 > T3
(3) T3 > T2 > T1 (4) T1 = T2 = T3 (3) T3 > T2 > T1 (4) T1 = T2 = T3
66. Which of the following compounds are meso form :- 66.
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H OH H Cl H OH H Cl
H OH Cl H H OH Cl H
CH3 CH3
C2H 5 CH3 C2H 5 CH3
A B C A CB
(1) A only (2) C Only (1) A (2) C
(3) A and B (4) B and C (3) A B (4) B C
67. Consider the following structures (A), (B), (C) 67.
(A), (B), (C) (D)
and (D) CH3 C 2H 5 Cl Cl
CH3 C2H 5 Cl Cl Cl Br Cl Br CH3 Br C2H5 CH3
Cl Br Cl Br CH3 Br C2H5 CH3 C 2H 5 CH3 C2H5 Br
C2H5 CH3 C2H5 Br
A B C D
A B C D
Wrong statement will be :-
(1) B C
(1) B and C are identical
(2) A B
(2) A and B are enantiomers
(3) A and C are enantiomers (3) A C
(4) B and D are enantiomers (4) B D

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68. Which of the following conformers of n-Butane 68. n
has maximum strain :- :-
CH3 CH3
CH3 H CH3 CH3 H CH3
CH3 CH3

(1) (2) H H (1) (2)

H H H H H
H
H H H H
H H

CH3 CH3
CH3 H H CH3 H H
H H

(3) (4) H H
(3) (4) H H
CH3 CH3
HH H HH H
CH3 CH3

69. Which of the following acid has lowest value of 69.

dissociation constant :- :-
(1) CH3CHCOOH (2) CH2CH2COOH (1) CH3CHCOOH (2) CH2CH2COOH
F F F F
(3) CH2CH2COOH (4) CH3CHCOOH (3) CH2CH2COOH (4) CH3CHCOOH
Br Br Br Br
70. Which of the following are electrophile :- 70.
:-

BF3 CCl2 NH4 CO2 BF3 CCl2 NH4 CO2
[A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D]
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C (1) A B (2) A, B
C
(3) B, C and D (4) A, B and D (3) B, C
D (4) A, B
D
71. Which comparison is not correct as indicated. 71.
(1) OH > CH3OH [Acidic nature] (1) OH > CH3OH [
]

(2) NH2 > CH3NH2 [Basic nature] (2) NH2 > CH3NH2 [
]

(3) CH2 > CH3CH2 [Stability] (3) CH2 > CH3CH2 [
]

(4) CH C > CH 2=CH [Stability] (4) CH C > CH2=CH [

]
72. How many electrons are their in the following 72.

?
species ?

(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (3) 6 (4) 8
73. Which of the following exhibit electromeric 73.
:-
effect. (1)
(1) Carbonyl compounds (2)
(2) Alkyl halide (3)
(3) Alkane (4)1 2
(4) 1 & 2 both

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74. Which of the following is least basic :- 74.
:-
(1) CH2=CHNH2 (2) CH3CNH 2 (1) CH2=CHNH2 (2) CH3CNH 2
O O
(3) CH3NH2 (4) ClCH2NH2 (3) CH3NH2 (4) ClCH2NH2
75. Which of the following compounds can show 75.
:-
tautomerism :-
O
O
(1) HCHO (2)
(1) HCHO (2)
O
O
O O
CH3 CH3
(3) CH3CCHO (4) (3) CH3CCHO (4)
CH3 CH3
76. Arrange the following alkenes in their stability 76.
order:-

A B C
A B C
(1) A > B > C (2) C > B > A
(1) A > B > C (2) C > B > A
(3) B > C > A (4) C > A > B (3) B > C > A (4) C > A > B
77. Which of the following ring has maximum 77.
electron density.
OH OH OH OH

(1) (2) (1) (2)

OCH3 NO2 OCH3 NO2
OH OH
OH OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)
CH3 CH3
78. Isopropyl magnesium bromide when reacted with 78.
dry ether and absolute alcohol gives.
(1) Isopropane (2) Propane (1) (2)
(3) n-propyl alcohol (4) Isopropyl alcohol (3) n- (4)
79. Which of the following carboxylic acid will be 79.
decarboxylated most easily.
O O O O
COOH COOH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
COOH COOH
O COOH O COOH
(3) (4) (3) (4)

COOH COOH
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h h
80. R H X 2 R X H X 80. R H X 2 R X H X
for above reaction correct order of reactivity for
halogen will be :-
:-
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(2) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 (2) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
(3) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (3) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
(4) Br2 > Cl2 > I2 > F2 (4) Br2 > Cl2 > I2 > F2
HBr HBr
81. CH3C=CHCH 3 ROOR
Major product [A] CH3C=CHCH 3 ROOR
Major product [A]
81.
CH3 CH3
A will be :- A
:-
(1) CH3CHCH(Br)CH3 (1) CH3CHCH(Br)CH3
CH3 CH3
Br Br
(2) CH3CCH2CH3 (2) CH3CCH2CH3
CH3 CH3

Br Br
(3) CH2CHCH2CH3 (3) CH2CHCH2CH3
CH3 CH3

(4) CH3CHCH 2CH2(Br) (4) CH3CHCH 2CH2(Br)

CH3 CH3
82. Arrange the following alkenes for acid catalyzed 82.
hydration.
(A) Isobutene (B) Ethene (A) (B)
(C) 1-Butene (D) 1-Phenyl ethene (C) 1- (D) 1-
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > C > A > D (1) A > B > C > D (2) B > C > A > D
(3) D > A > C > B (4) A > D > C > B (3) D > A > C > B (4) A > D > C > B
83. The major product formed when 2-Bromo butane 83.
KOH
2-
is treated with alcoholic KOH.
(1) 1Butanol (2) 2Butanol (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 1Butene (4) 2Butene (3) 1 (4) 2
84. One mole of an unsaturated hydrocarbon on 84.
ozonolysis gives one mole each of CH3CHO, CH3CHO, HCHO OHCCHO
HCHO and OHCCHO. The hydrocarbon is :-
:-
(1) CH3CH2CCCH3 (1) CH3CH2CCCH3
(2) HCCCH2CH2CH3 (2) HCCCH2CH2CH3
(3) CH3CH=CHCH=CH2 (3) CH3CH=CHCH=CH2
(4) CH2=C=CHCH2CH3 (4) CH2=C=CHCH2CH3

NBS NBS
85. CH3 CH CHD Product 85. CH3 CH CHD
Product of this reaction would be :-
:-
(1) CH2CH=CHD (2) CH3CH=CHBr (1) CH2CH=CHD (2) CH3CH=CHBr
Br Br
(3) CH2=CHCHD (4) Both 1 & 3 (3) CH2=CHCHD (4) 1 3
Br Br
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86. Kolbe's electrolysis

A propyne 86. Kolbe's electrolysis
A
A will be :- A
:-
(1) CH3CH2CH2COOK (1) CH3CH2CH2COOK
(2) CH2CHCH3 (2) CH2CHCH3
COOK COOK COOK COOK

(3) CH = C CH3 (3) CH = C CH3

COOK COOK COOK COOK

(4) CH 2CH=CH2 (4) CH 2CH=CH2

COOK COOK
87. Phenyl acetylene when reacted with dil. H2SO4 87.
HgSO4
H2SO4
in presence of HgSO4 then major product will be :-
:-

O O
CH2CHO CH2CHO
CCH3 CCH3
(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) + CH3CHO (4) + CH3 CH2 (3) + CH3CHO (4) + CH3 CH2
OH OH
88. 1 mole of hydrocarbon 'A' gives 4 moles CO2 on 88. 'A'
4 CO2
combustion. It can decolourise Br2 water. 'A' Br2
'A' H2 Pd/BaSO4
gives B when reacted with H2 and Pd/BaSO4. 'B'
'B'
B Br2
can also decolurise Br2 water. 'A' can react with
'A'
Tollens reagent but B can not, A & B are.
B A B
(1) , (1) ,

(2) , (2) ,

(3) , (3) ,

(4) , (4) ,
89. The number of geometrical isomer in case of a 89.
compound with the structure :-
CH3CH=CHCH=CHC2H5 CH3CH=CHCH=CHC2H5
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 8 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 8
90. Which of the following is not correctly matched 90.
IUPAC
common and IUPAC name
(1) Acetone propanone (1)

(2) Isobutyl alcohol 2-Methyl propan-2-ol (2)
2-
-2-
(3) Acryl aldehyde Propenal (3)

(4) Crotonic acid But-2-enoic acid (4)
-2-
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91. Consider the following statements and select the 91.
option which include all correct statements : :
(a) Radial symmetry is exhibited by sedentary (a)
animals
(b) All triploblastic animals are schizocoelomates (b)
(c) All triploblastic animals have bilateral symmetry (c)
(d) In ascaris blind sac body plan is present (d)
(1) a, b correct (2) b, c correct (1) a, b (2) b, c
(3) a and c correct (4) c, d correct (3) a c (4) c, d
92. Which of the following phyla are included in 92.
enterozoa ?
(1) Annelida, mollusca, porifera (1) Annelida, mollusca, porifera
(2) Porifera, arthropoda (2) Porifera, arthropoda
(3) Mollusca, arthropoda (3) Mollusca, arthropoda
(4) Porifera, hemichordata (4) Porifera, hemichordata
93. Triploblastic, unsegmented, acoelomate, bilateral 93.
symmetry reproduction by sexual method.
All above characters are valid for :
(1) Neopilina (2) Aphrodites (1) (2)
(3) Fasciola hepatica (4) Silkworm (3) (4)
94. The body cavity of "Euplactella" is lined by : 94. "
"
:
(1) Cnidoblast cells (1)
(2) Coller cells (2)
(3) Amoebocytes (3)
(4) Interstitial cells (4)
95. Contractile vacuole of Amoeba is analogous to : 95.
:-
(1) Typhlosole of earthworm (1)
(2) Sweat gland of human (2)
(3) Uriniferous tubules of frog (3)
(4) Gastrovascular cavity of hydra (4)
96. Unique character of insects :- 96.
(1) Three pairs of legs (2) Large abdomen (1) (2)
(3) Compound eyes (4) Two wings (3) (4)
97. Which one is a living fossil :- 97.
(1) Dog fish (1)
(2) Flying fish (2)
(3) Coelocanth (3)
(4) Dodo (4)
98. All mammals have hairs on body except :- 98.
(1) Cetacea (2) Chiroptera
(1) (2)
(3) Primates (4) Rodentia (3) (4)
99. Which of the following mouth part is called 99.
tongue of cockroach ?
(1) Maxilla (2) Mandible (1) (2)
(3) Labium (4) Hypopharynx (3) (4)

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100. Match the following :- 100.

A B A B

a Sclerite of Dorsal side i) Pleurona i)

a

b Sclerite of ventral side ii) Tergum ii)

b

c Sclerite of lateral side iii) Sternum iii)

c

Option: :
(1) a (ii) b (i) c (iii) (1) a (ii) b (i) c (iii)
(2) a (iii) b (ii) c (i) (2) a (iii) b (ii) c (i)
(3) a (i) b (ii) c (iii) (3) a (i) b (ii) c (iii)
(4) a (ii) b (iii) c (i) (4) a (ii) b (iii) c (i)
101. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from 101.
Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which
diagnostic technique will you recommend for its
detection ?
(1) ELISA (2) MRI (1) (2)
(3) Ultra sound (4) WIDAL test (3) (4)
102. Recurring chills and fever in malaria is due to 102.
release of :-
:-
(1) Haemotoxin (2) Haemozoin (1) (2)
(3) Hamolysin (4) Haematochromatin (3) (4)
103. Which of the following are obtained from 103.

Cannabis Sativa?
(1) (2)
(1) Marijuana (2) Coke
(3) Smack (4) LSD (3) (4) LSD
104. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:- 104.
(1) Eosinophils and lymphocytes
(2) Neutrophils and monocytes (1)
(2)
(3) Neutrophils and eosinophils
(3)
(4) Lymphocytes and macrophages (4)
105. Which one of the following options gives the 105.
correct matching of a disease with its pathogen

and mode of infection ?

Disease Pathogen Mode of
infection (1)
(1) Ringworm Haemophilus Droplet
influenzae infection

(2)
(2) Typhoid Salmonella Airborn
typhi infection
(3)
(3) Malaria Plasmodium Bite by male
Anopheles

(4) Filariasis Wuchereria Bite of female (4)
bancrofti mosquito

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106. Naturally active acquired immunity is given by :- 106.
:-
(1) Vaccination (2) Antiserum (1) (2)
(3) NK cells (4) Infections (3) NK (4)
107. Which of the following statement is false ?
107.
?
(1) Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs
is only partially effective. (1)
(2) Normal cells show a property called contact
inhibition. (2)
(3) Treatment of AIDS can only prolong the life
of the patient but cannot prevent death, which (3)
is inevitable.
(4) T-helper cell continue to produce HIV and in (4) HIV

this way acts as HIV factory.

108. Human population is affected by :- 108.
(1) Geographical factors (1)
(2) Geological factors
(2)
(3) Demographic, geographical and socio-economic
(3)
factors
(4) Demographic and geographic factors (4)
109. In food chain, total living material is shown by:- 109.
(1) Pyramid of energy (2) Pyramid of number
:-
(1) (2)
(3) Pyramid of biomass (4) All of the above (3) (4)
110. Which one of the following ecosystem types has 110.
the highest annual net primary productivity ?
(1) Temperate deciduous forest (1)
(2) Tropical rain forest (2)
(3) Tropical deciduous forest (3)
(4) Temperate evergreen forest (4)
111. A high density of elephant population in an area 111.
can result in :-
(1) Predation on one another (1)
(2) Mutualism (2)
(3) Intra specific competition (3)
(4) Inter specific competition (4)
112. About 70% of total global carbon is found in :- 112. 70%
(1) Oceans (2) Forests

(1) (2)
(3) Grasslands (4) Agroecosystems (3) (4)
113. Quercus species are the dominant component in:- 113.


(1) Scrub forests
(1)
(2) Tropical rain forests (2)
(3) Temperate deciduous forests (3)
(4) Alpine forests (4)

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114. In which biome a new plant may adapt soon:- 114.
:-
(1) Tropical rain forest (2) Desert (1)
(2)
(3) Mangroove (4) Sea island (3) (4)
115. What is the best pH of the soil for cultivation of 115.
pH
plants:-
(1) 3.4 5.4 (2) 6.5 7.5
(1) 3.4 5.4 (2) 6.5 7.5
(3) 4.5 8.5 (4) 5.5 6.5 (3) 4.5 8.5 (4) 5.5 6.5
116. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity 116.
is called as -
(1) Biotic potential (2) Fertility (1) (2)
(3) Carring capacity (4) Birth rate (3) (4)
117. Which type of association is found in between 117.
entomophilous flower and pollinating agent ?
(1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism (1) (2)
(3) Proto Co-operation (4) Co-evolution (3) (4)
118. Two different species can not live for long 118.
duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is
(1) Allen's law (1)
(2) Bargman's law (2)
(3) Competitive exclusion principal (3)
(4) Weiseman's theory (4)
119. Which of the following is a correct pair? 119.

(1) Cuscuta - parasite (1)
(2) Dischidia - insectivorous (2)
(3) Opuntia - predator (3)
(4) Capscella - hydrophyte (4)

120. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and 120.
development of every population. One of them
relates to the ability to reproduce at a given rate.

:-
The force opposing it is called :-
(1) Morbidity (2) Fecundity (1) (2)
(3) Biotic potential (4) Environmental resistance (3) (4)
121. What is a keystone species ? 121.
?
(1) A common species that has plenty of biomass, (1)
yet has a fairly low impact on the community's
organization
(2) A rare species that has minimal impact on the (2)
biomass and on other species in the

community
(3) A dominant species that constitutes a large (3)
proportion of the biomass and which affects
many other species
(4) A species which makes up only a small (4)
proportion of the total biomass of a
community, yet has a huge impact on the
community's organization and survival
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122. Lichens are well known combination of an alga 122.
and a fungus where fungus has :-
(1) An epiphytic relationship with the alga (1)
(2) A parasitic relationship with the alga (2)
(3) A symbiotic relationship with the alga (3)
(4) A saprophytic relationship with the alga (4)
123. Certain characteristic demographic features of 123.
developing countries are (1)
(1) High fertility, high density, rapidly rising
mortality rate and a very young age
distribution (2)
(2) High infant mortality, low fertility, uneven
population growth and a very young age
distribution (3)
(3) High mortality, high density, uneven
population growth and a very old age
distribution (4)
(4) High fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality
rate, rapid population growth and a very young

age distribution
124. In which one of the following habitats does the 124.
diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most ?
?
(1) Forest (2) Desert (1) (2)
(3) Grassland (4) Shrub land (3) (4)
125. More than 70% of world's fresh water is contained 125. 70%

in (1)
(2)
(1) Antarctica (2) Polar ice
(3) Glaciers and Mountains (4) Greenland (3)
(4)
126. The formula for exponential population growth is 126. ?
(1) dt/dN=rN (2) dN/rN=dt (1) dt/dN=rN (2) dN/rN=dt
(3) rN/dN=dt (4) dN/dt=rN (3) rN/dN=dt (4) dN/dt=rN
127. Which one of the following is not used for 127.
construction of ecological pyramids ?
?
(1) Dry weight (1)
(2) Number of individuals (2)
(3) Rate of energy flow (3)
(4) Fresh weight (4)
128. Niche overlap indicates 128.
?
(1) Active cooperation between two species (1)
(2) Two different parasites on the same host (2)
(3) Sharing of one or more resources between the (3)
two species
(4) Mutualism between two species (4)
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129. If in a pond ecosystem, only autotrophs are present 129.
and all decomposers and heterotrophs are absent,
then what would happen in this ecosystem ?

(1) Gradually changes to dense forest
(1)
(2) Pond will convert in to barren land (2)
(3) It remains unchanged (3)
(4) All living organisms of pond will die, only (4)
water will remain.
130. Monarch butterfly escapes from predators 130.
by ?
(1) Foul smell (1)
(2) bitter taste (2)
(3) Colour combination (3)
(4) Rough skin (4)
131. When the resources are limited, which are the 131.
phases exhibited by an organism during growth?
(1) Lag, Log, exponential, asymptomatic,
deacceleration (1)
(2) Lag, log asymptomatic, deacceleration,
exponential (2)
(3) Lag, log, deacceleration, exponential,
(3)
asymptomatic
(4) Lag, acceleration, log, deacceleration,
(4)
asymptomatic
132. Ecosystem may be defined as - 132.
(1) A localized association of several plants and
(1)
animals
(2) Different communities of plants, animals and (2)
microbes together with thier physico-chemical
environment. (3)
(3) Different communities of plants microbes plus

their physico-chemical environment
(4) None of the above (4)
133. Veldts of Africa & Pampas of South America are 133.
(1) Rain forest biomes (2) Chaparral biomes (1)
(2)
(3) Temperate biomes (4) Grassland biomes (3) (4)
134. The term biosphere is used for the zone of the earth 134.
where life exists -
(1) On the lithospere
(1) (lithosphere)
(2) In the hydrosphere
(3) In the lithosphere and hydrosphere (2) (hydrosphere)
(4) In the lithosphere, hydrosphere and (3)
atmosphere (4)
135. The first organism to be found on a bare rock is 135.
(1) Moss (2) Alga
(3) Lichen (4) Fern (1) (2) (3) (4)

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136. Tunica corpus theory is related with :- 136.
(1) Shoot apex (2) Root apex (1) (2)
(3) Root cap (4) Lateral meristem (3) (4)
137. Lateral roots originate from :- 137.
(1) Pericycle (2) Endodermis (1) (2)
(3) Hypodermis (4) Sap wood (3) (4)
138. Ring bark is formed in :- 138.
(1) Acer rebum (2) Pyrus communis (1) (2)

(3) Betula utillis (4) Carya obata (3)
(4)

139. Annual rings are distinct in :- 139.
(1) Temperate region (2) Tropical region (1)
(2)
(3) Tundra region (4) Grassland (3)
(4)
140. Floral formula of solanaceae is :- 140.
(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

141. Cruciform corolla is found in :- 141.
?
(1) Sunflower (2) Chinarose (1) (2)
(3) Radish (4) Pea (3) (4)

142. Br P(3+3) A3 + 3 G (3) floral formula belongs to 142. Br P(3+3) A3 + 3 G (3)

which family? ?
(1) Leguminosae (2) Liliaceae (1) (2)
(3) Labiatae (4) Graminae (3) (4)
143. In which family Pentamerous flowers having 143.
monoadelphous stamen and dry dehiscent fruit are
:-
persent :-
(1) (2)
(1) Leguminosae (2) Malvaceae
(3) Cruciferae (4) Solanaceae (3) (4)
144. Catkin inflorescence is found in :- 144.
(1) Wheat (2) Oat (1) (2)
(3) Mulberry (4) Fig (3) (4)
145. In angiosperms, female gametophyte is 145.
represented by
(1) Ovule (1)
(2) Nucellus (2)
(3) Megaspore mother cells (3)
(4) Embryo sac (4)
146. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the 146.
stigma of another flower of the same plant is
called
(1) Geitonogamy (1)
(2) Autogamy (2)
(3) Karyogamy (3)
(4) Xenogamy (4)

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147. Development of embryo from nucellar cells is 147.
common in many varieties of
(1) Citrus (2) Sunflower (1) (2)
(3) Oat (4) Marigold (3) (4)
148. Endosperm is not completely consumed during 148.
embryo development in seeds of
(1) Gram (2) Pea (3) Bean (4) Castor (1) (2) (3) (4)
149. Number of meiotic divisions required to obtain 149. 200
200 microspores :-
(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 100 (4) 200 (1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 100 (4) 200
150. Double fertilization is characteristic of :- 150.
(1) Angiosperms (2) Gymnosperms (1) (2)
(3) Ferns (4) Bryophyta (3) (4)
151. Xenia effect of pollen grains is on :- 151.
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac (1) (2)
(3) Embryo (4) None (3) (4)
152. If number of chromosomes in pollen grain of any 152.
species of Pinus is 8, then after fertilization what 8
will be the number of chromosomes in
Endosperm:-

:-
(1) 24 (2) 16 (3) 08 (4) 32 (1) 24 (2) 16 (3) 08 (4) 32
153. Read the following statements (a e) and answer 153.
(a e)
the question which follows them.
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes (a)
are free living
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are (b)
heterosporous (c)

(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and

Allbugo is oogamous
(d)
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate

than that in mosses
(e)


(e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
Which of the above statements are correct?

?
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d (4) a, c, e (3) b, c, d (4) a, c, e
154. Protonema :- 154.
:-
(1) Is name of gametophyte in pteriodophytes (1)
(2) Stage between spore and bud in moss (2)
(3) Is mostly photosynthetic and produce spores (3)
(4) Directly produces gametes (4)
155. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in : 155.
(1) Cell membrane
(2) Mode of nutrition (1)
(3) Cell shape (2)
(3)
(4) Mode of reproduction
(4)
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156. Which one of the following is not a correct 156.

?
statements ? (1)
(1) Key is taxonomic aid for identification of
specimens
(2)
(2) Herbarium stored dried, pressed and preserved

plant specimens
(3)
(3) Botanical gardens have collection of living
plants for reference
(4) A museum has collection of photographs of (4)
plants and animals
157. Algae, used in preparation of ice-creams and 157.
jellies are :-
:-
(1) Gelidium and Chlorella (1)
(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria (2)

(3) Chara and Spirulina (3)

(4) Chlorella and Spirulina (4)

158. The guts of cow and buffalo possess: 158.
(1) Chlorella spp.
?
(1)

(2) Methanogens
(2)
(3) Cyanobacteria (3)
(4) Fucus spp. (4)
159. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of 159.
litter and help in mineral cycling belong to :
(1) Ascomycetes (1)
(2) Deuteromycetes (2)
(3) Basidiomycetes (3)
(4) Phycomycetes (4)
160. Which one of the following fungi contains 160.
hallucinogens ?
(1) Morchella esculenta (1)
(2) Amanita muscaria (2)
(3) Neurospora sp. (3)
(4) Ustilago sp. (4)
161. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans 161.
in making curd from milk and in production of
antibiotics are ones categorised as:
?
(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs (1)
(2) Heterotrophic bacteria (2)
(3) Cyanobactaria (3)
(4) Archaebacteria (4)
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162. Select the correct combination of the statement 162.
(a-d) regarding the characteristics of certain (a-d)
organisms : (a)
(a) Methanogens are Archaebacteria which
produce methane in marshy areas (b)
(b) Nostoc is filamentous blue-green alga which

fixes atmospheric nitrogen
(c)
(c) Chemoysynthetic autotrophic bacteria
synthesize cellulose from glucose

(d) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive (d)
without oxygen
The correct statements are :
(1) (a), (b), (c) (2) (b), (c), (d) (1) (a), (b), (c) (2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d) (4) (b), (c) (3) (a), (b), (d) (4) (b), (c)
163. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on:- 163.
:-
(1) Floral characters (1)
(2) Evolutionary relationships (2)
(3) Morphological features (3)
(4) Chemical constituents (4)
164. Which pair of the following belongs to 164.
Basidiomycetes ?
(1) Morchella and Mushrooms (1)

(2) Birds' nest fungi and Puffballs (2)
(3) Puff balls and Claviceps
(3)
(4) Peziza and Stink horns (4)
165. Which of the following is a flowering plant with 165.
root nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-
fixing microorganism ?
(1)
(1) Cicer arietinum
(2)
(2) Casuarina equisetifolia
(3) Crotalaria juncea (3)
(4) Cycas revoluta (4)
166. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to
166.
represent a significant step toward evolution of
seed habit because :-
(1) Embryo develops in female gametophyte (1)
which is retained on parent sporophyte
(2) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed (2)
like seeds.
(3) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia (3)
(4) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo (4)
surrounded by seed coat.
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167. Which one of the following sequences was 167.
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic
evolution? (1)
(1) Overproduction, variations, constancy of
population size, natural selection
(2)
(2) Variations, constancy of population size,

overproduction, natural selection
(3) Overproduction, constancy of population (3)
size, variations, natural selection
(4) Variations, natural selection, overproduction, (4)
constancy of population size
168. Random genetic drift in a population probably 168.
results from :-
:-
(1) Highly genetically variable individuals (1)
(2) Interbreeding within this population (2)
(3) Constant low mutation rate (3)
(4) Large population size (4)
169. Industrial melanism is an example of :- 169.
:-
(1) Drug resistance (1)
(2) Darkening of skin due to smoke from (2)
industries

(3) Protective resemblance with the surroundings
(4) Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet (3)
radiations (4)
170. In a random mating population in equilibrium, 170.
which of the following brings about a change in
gene frequency in a non-directional manner :-
:-
(1) Mutations (2) Gene flow (1) (2)
(3) Selection (4) Migration (3) (4)
171. Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did not 171.
believe in any role of which one of the following
in organic evolution :-
(1) Parasites and predators as natural enemies (1)
(2) Survival of the fittest (2)
(3) Struggle for existence (3)
(4) Discontinuous variations (4)
172. Which one of the following describes correctly the 172.
homologous structures?
(1) Organs with anatomical similarities, but (1)
performing different functions
(2) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but (2)
performing same function
(3) Organs that have no function now, but had an (3)
important function in ancestors
(4) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and (4)
disappearing later in the adult

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173. Adaptive radiation refers to :- 173.
(1) Power of adaptation in an individual to a (1)
variety of environments
(2) Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
(2)
(3) Evolution of different species from a common
(3)
ancestor
(4) Migration of members of a species to different (4)
geographical areas
174. The finches of Galapogis islands provide an 174.
evidence in favour of :-
(1) Biogeographical Evolution (1)
(2) Special Creation (2)
(3) Evolution due to Mutation (3)
(4) Retrogressive Evolution (4)
175. Select the correct statement from the following:- 175.

(1) Mutations are random and directional (1)
(2) Darwinian variations are small and (2)
directionless
(3)
(3) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
and gets selected by nature
(4) All mammals except whales and camels have (4)
seven cervical vertebrae
176. Which of the following is important for speciation 176.
(1) Seasonal isolation (1)
(2) Reproductive isolation (2)
(3) Behavioural isolation (3)
(4) Tropical isolation (4)
177. Which of the following are homologous organs? 177.
(1) Wings of birds & Locust (1)
(2) Wings of birds (Sparrow) & flippers of
(2)
penguine
(3)
(3) Wings of bat & Butterfly
(4) Legs of frog & Cockroach (4)
178. Genetic drift operates in :- 178.
(1) Small isolated population (1)
(2) Large isolated population (2)
(3) Fast reproductive population (3)
(4) Slow reproductive population (4)
179. There is no life on moon due to the absence of 179.
(1) O2 (2) Water
(3) Light (4) Temperature (1) O2 (2) (3) (4)
180. According to fossils which discovered up to 180.
present time, origin and evolution of man was
-
started from which country -
(1) France (2) Java (1) (2)
(3) Africa (4) China (3) (4)

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