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QB-Chemistry-KLR2

1. Of the following reactions, which involves the largest decrease in entropy?


(A) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) (B) Pb(NO3)3 + 2 KI PbI2 + 2 KNO3
(C) C3H8 + O2(g) 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O (D) 4 La + 3 O2(g) 2 La2O3

2. A hot-air balloon rises. Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation?
(A) The pressure on the walls of the balloon increases with increasing temperature.
(B) The difference in temperature between the air inside and outside the balloon produces
convection currents.
(C) The cooler air outside the balloon pushes in on the walls of the balloon.
(D) The air density inside the balloon is less than that of the surrounding air.

3. The melting point of MgO is higher than that of NaF. Explanations for this observation include
I. Mg2+ is more positively charged than Na+
II. O2- is more negatively charged than F
III. The O2- ion is smaller than the F ion
(A) II only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only

4. If the temperature of an aqueous solution of NaCl is increased from 20 C to 90 C, the property


of solution remaining unchanged is
(A) Density (B) Molarity (C) Molality (D) Mole fraction of solute

5. A 1 L sample of an aqueous solution contains 0.10 mol of NaCl and 0.10 mol of CaCl2. The
minimum number of moles of AgNO3 required to precipitate all of the Cl as AgCl(s) is (Assume that
AgCl is insoluble.)
(A) 0.10 mol (B) 0.20 mol (C) 0.30 mol (D) 0.40 mol

6. In the electrolytic cell with the half-reaction: AlF63 + 3e Al + 6F , process occurring is


(A) AlF63- is reduced at the cathode. (B) Al is oxidized at the anode.
(C) F- acts as a reducing agent. (D) F- is reduced at the cathode.

7. A molecule or an ion is classified as a Lewis acid if it


(A) accepts a proton from water (B) accepts a pair of electrons
(C) donates a pair of electrons (D) donates a proton to water

8. Of the following molecules, which has the largest dipole moment?


(A) CO (B) CO2 (C) O2 (D) HF

9. A rigid metal tank contains oxygen gas. The correct statement applying to the gas in the tank
when additional oxygen is added at constant temperature is
(A) The volume of the gas increase.
(B) The pressure of the gas decreases.
(C) The average speed of the gas molecules remains the same.
(D) The total number of gas molecules remains the same.

10. When excess concentrated NH3(aq) is mixed thoroughly with 0.1 M Cu(NO3)2(aq):
(A) A dark red precipitate forms and settles out.
(B) Separate layers of immiscible liquids form with a blue layer on top.
(C) The colour of the solution turns from light blue to dark blue.
(D) The pH of the solution decreases.
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

11. If 87.5 percent of a sample of pure 131I decays in 24 days, its half-life is
(A) 6 days (B) 8 days (C) 12 days (D) 14 days

12. In the periodic table, as the atomic number increases from 11 to 17, the atomic radius
(A) remains constant (B) increases
(C) increases, then decreases (D) decreases

13. A correct interpretation of the results of Rutherford's experiments in which gold atoms were
bombarded with alpha particles is
(A) Atoms have equal numbers of positive and negative charges.
(B) Electrons in atoms are arranged in shells.
(C) Neutrons and protons in atoms have nearly equal mass.
(D) The positive charge of an atom is concentrated in a small region.

14. Gases W and X react in a closed, rigid vessel to form gases Y and Z according to the equation
W(g) + X(g) Y(g) + Z(g).
The initial pressure of W(g) is 1.20 atm and that of X(g) is 1.60 atm. No Y(g) or Z(g) is initially present.
The experiment is carried out at constant temperature. The partial pressure of Z(g) when the partial
pressure of W(g) has decreased to 1.0 atm will be
(A) 0.20 atm (B) 0.40 atm (C) 1.0 atm (D) 1.2 atm

15. The only factor that would cause a decrease in the value of Keq for the reaction
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2 NO2(g) (H < 0) is
(A) Decreasing the temperature (B) Increasing the temperature
(C) Decreasing the volume of the reaction vessel (D) Adding a catalyst

16. Using the information; M(s) + 3 Ag+(aq) 3 Ag(s) + M3+(aq): E = +2.46 V and
Ag+(aq) + e Ag(s): E = +0.80 V, the computed standard reduction potential for the half-reaction
M3+(aq) + 3 e M(s) is
(A) -1.66 V (B) -0.06 V (C) 0.06 V (D) 1.66 V

17. On a mountaintop, it is observed that water boils at 90 C, not at 100 C as at sea level. This
phenomenon occurs because on the mountaintop the
A) equilibrium water vapor pressure is higher due to the higher atmospheric pressure
B) equilibrium water vapor pressure is lower due to the higher atmospheric pressure
C) equilibrium water vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure at a lower temperature
D) water molecules have a higher average kinetic energy due to the lower atmospheric pressure

18. For the reaction of ethylene C2H4(g) + 3 O2(g) 2 CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g), H is - 1,323 kJ. The
value of H if the combustion produced liquid water H2O(l), rather than water vapor H2O(g) (H for
the phase change H2O(g) H2O(l) is -44 kJ mol 1.) is
(A) -1,411 kJ (B) -1,279 kJ (C) -1,323 kJ (D) -1,367 kJ

19. Equal numbers of moles of He(g), Ar(g), and Ne(g) are placed in a glass vessel. If the vessel
has a pinhole-sized leak, true statement regarding the relative values of the partial pressures of the
gases remaining in the vessel after some of the gas mixture has effused is
(A) PHe < PNe < PAr (B) PHe < PAr < PNe (C) PNe < PAr < PHe (D) PAr < PHe < PNe
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

20. The reaction HC2H3O2(aq) + CN (aq) HCN(aq) + C2H3O2 (aq) has an equilibrium constant
4
equal to 3.7 x 10 . Conclusion that can be drawn from this is
(A) CN (aq) is a stronger base than C2H3O2 (aq)
(B) HCN(aq) is a stronger acid than HC2H3O2(aq)
(C) The conjugate base of CN (aq) is C2H3O2 (aq)
(D) The equilibrium constant will increase with an increase in temperature.

21. When 100 mL of 1.0 M Na3PO4 is mixed with 100 mL of 1.0 M AgNO3, a yellow precipitate
forms and [Ag+] becomes negligibly small. Correct listing of the ions remaining in solution in order of
increasing concentration is
(A) [PO43 ] < [NO3 ] < [Na+] (B) [PO43 ] < [Na+]<[NO3 ]
3 +
(C) [NO3 ] < [PO4 ] < [Na ] (D) [Na+] < [NO3 ] < [PO43 ]

22. The process in which covalent bonds are broken is


(A) I2(s) I2(g) (B) CO2(s) CO2(g)
(C) NaCl(s) NaCl(l) (D) C(diamond) C(g)

23. When solid ammonium chloride, NH4Cl(s) is added to water at 25 C, it dissolves and the
temperature of the solution decreases. Correct statement regarding values of H and S for the
dissolving process is
H S
(A) Positive Positive
(B) Positive Negative
(C) Positive Equal to zero
(D) Negative Positive

24. What is the oxidation state of vanadium in the compound NH4VO3


(A). -1 (B). +3 (C). +5 (D). +6

25. Which of the following statements is correct?


(A). Galvanic cell is same as voltaic cell
(B). Galvanic cell is same as electrolytic cell
(C). Galvanic cell and voltaic cell are distinct
(D). In Galvanic cell, electricity is used to drive chemical reaction

26. An element X forms two oxides whose formulas are XO3 and X2O3. One of these oxides
contains 52% of X by mass and has a molar mass of 99.98. What is the formula of this oxide?
(A). Mg2O3 (B). K2O3 (C). CrO3 (D). VO3

27. The radioactive isotope Na-24 is used to observe the circulation of blood. What isotope is
produced when Na-24 decays by emitting a beta particle, which is a fast-moving electron?
(A). Mg-24 (B). Na-25 (C). Ne-23 (D). Na-23

28. Oxygen condenses at 183 C and freezes at 223 C. According to the kinetic molecular
theory, the kinetic energy of oxygen molecules tends to reach zero at
(A). 183 C (B). 273 C (C). 373 C (D). 223 C
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

29. An automobile cylinder has a volume of 450 cc. The engine takes in air at a pressure of 1.00
atm and a temperature of 27C, and compresses it to a volume of 50.0 cc at 77C. What is the final
pressure of air in the cylinder?
A. 1.17 atm B. 7.7 atm C. 10.5 atm D. 25.7 atm

30. Solid CO2 is called "dry ice", because it changes directly from a solid to a gas at 78 C without
ever becoming liquid (at 1 atm pressure). When solid CO2 becomes a gas:
A. Its energy decreases and its entropy decreases
B. Its energy is constant and its entropy increases
C. Its energy decreases and its entropy increases
D. Its energy increases and its entropy increases

31. According to crystal field theory, when the valence d orbitals of the central metal ion are split in
energy in an octahedral ligand field, orbitals that are raised least in energy are:
(A) d xy and d x 2 y2 (B) dxy, dxz and dyz (C) dxz and dyz (D) d xz ,d yz and d z2

32. If the intermolecular forces in liquid A are stronger than in liquid B, then compared to liquid A:
(A). Liquid B has a lower boiling point and a lower vapor pressure at 25C
(B). Liquid B has a lower boiling point and a higher vapor pressure at 25
(C). Liquid B has a higher boiling point and a lower vapor pressure at 25C
(D). Liquid B has a higher boiling point and the same vapor pressure at 25C

33. According to crystal field theory, strong field ligands such as CN-:
(A) usually produce high spin complexes and small crystal field splittings.
(B) usually produce low spin complexes and small crystal field splittings.
(C) usually produce low spin complexes and high crystal field splittings.
(D) usually produce high spin complexes and high crystal field splittings.

34. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?


(A) In an octahedral crystal field, the d electrons on a metal ion occupy the eg set of orbitals before
they occupy the t2g set of orbitals.
(B) Diamagnetic metal ions cannot have an odd number of electrons.
(C) Low spin complexes can be paramagnetic.
(D) In high spin octahedral complexes, oct is less than the electron pairing energy, and is relatively
very small.

35. A molecule that cannot be superimposed on its mirror image is said to exhibit which of the
following?
(A) geometrical isomerism (B) optical isomerism
(C) linkage isomerism (D) reactive isomerism

36. The oxidation number of the central metal atom in the coordination compound [Pt(NH3)3Cl]Cl is:
(A) -1 (B) 0 (C) +1 (D) +2

37. Which one of the following complexes can exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (square planar) (B) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2] (tetrahedral)
2+
(C) [Cu(NH3)4] (square planar) (D) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (octahedral)
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

38. Magnetic measurements indicate that [Co(OH2)6]2+ has 3 unpaired electrons. Therefore, the
hybridization of the metal's orbitals in [Co(OH2)6]2+ is:
(A) sp3 (B) sp2d (C) dsp2 (D) sp3d2

39. Select the correct IUPAC name for: [Co(NH3)6]2+


(A) hexammoniacobaltate(II) ion (B) hexaamminecobaltate(II) ion
(C) hexammoniacobalt(II) ion (D) hexaamminecobalt(II) ion

40. Which name-formula combination is NOT correct?


FORMULA NAME
(A) [Co(NH3)4(OH2)I]SO4 tetraammineaquaiodocobalt(III) ulfate
(B) K[Cr(NH3)2Cl4] potassium diamminetetrachlorochromate(III)
2-
(C) [Mn(CN)5] pentacyanomanganate(II) ion
(D) [Ni(CO)4] tetracarbonylnickel(0)

41. Consider the coordination compound, Na2[Pt(CN)4]. The Lewis acid is


(A) [Pt(CN)4]2- (B) Na+ (C) Pt (D) Pt2+

42. In coordination chemistry, the donor atom of a ligand is


(A) a Lewis acid.
(B) the counter ion
(C) the central metal atom.
(D) the atom in the ligand that shares an electron pair with the metal.

43. The segment -CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2- represents the polymer named _______ .


(A) polybutylene (B) polyhexene (C) polypropylene (D) polyethylene

44. Hydrolysis (saponification) of a fat would yield ______ .


(A) water and an alkene (B) ethanol and propanoic acid
(C) glycerol and soap (D) ethanol and a soap

45. Which of the following alcohols forms a ketone when oxidized?


(A) 1-propanol (B) methanol (C) 2-methyl-2-propanol (D) 2-propanol

46. A reaction in which a carboxylic acid reacts with a base to form a salt and water is called
(A) neutralization (B) ionization (C) esterification (D) hydrolysis

47. Dehydration of an alcohol leads to the formation of an _____ .


(A) alkene (B) alkane (C) alkyne (D) alkyl halide

48. The reaction of ethyne with which of the following gives CH2Br-CHBrCl?
(A) HCl, then HBr (B) HCl, then Br2 (C) Cl2, then HBr (D) Cl2, then Br2

49. Which of the following will undergo an addition reaction with chlorine?
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (B) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3
(C) C6H6 (D) CH3CH2COOH
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

50. What is the relationship between the structures shown?

(A) structural isomers (B) geometric isomers


(C) conformational structures (D) identical structures

51. Which of the following amino acids is achiral?


(A) arginine (Arg) (B) glycine (Gly) (C) histidine (His) (D) cysteine (Cys)

52. Which of the following compounds displays optical isomerism?


(A) CH2(OH)-CH2(OH) (B) CH3-CHCl-COOH
(C) CH2=CHCl (D) CHCl=CHCl

53. Select the IUPAC name for the compound below.

(A) 2,4-dimethylpentanoic acid (B) 1,1,3-trimethylbutanoic acid


(C) 1-hydroxy-2,4-dimethylpentanone (D) 2-carboxyisohexane

54. A graphene sheet differs from the framework of a fullerene because:


(A) the graphene sheet consists of Cn rings in which n = 5 and 6, but in a fullerene n = 5
(B) the graphene sheet consists of Cn rings in which n = 6, but in some fullerenes n = 5
(C) the graphene sheet consists of Cn rings in which n = 6, but in fullerenes n = 5 and 6
(D) the graphene sheet consists of Cn rings in which n = 5 or 6, but in most fullerenes n = 6

55. The number of radial nodes possessed by a 4f atomic orbital is:


(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4

56. In the coordination chemistry of Ln(III) centres, bulky amido ligands are used to stabilize:
(A) high coordination numbers (>10) (B) coordination numbers of 6 to 8
(C) coordination numbers of 8 to 10 (D) low coordination numbers (<6)

57. Marcus-Hush theory applies to:


(A) any electron transfer reaction (B) outer-sphere electron transfer
(C) inner-sphere electron transfer (D) all biological redox reactions

58. Which statement about the trans-effect and the trans-influence is correct?
(A) The trans-influence is a ground-state effect, whereas the trans-effect has a kinetic origin
(B) The trans-effect is a ground-state effect, whereas the trans-influence has a kinetic origin
(C) Both the trans-effect and trans-influence are ground-state effects
(D) Rates of substitution are affected by the trans-effect but have nothing to do with the trans-
influence of ligands
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

59. Which ordering correctly describes the tendency of a ligand to direct ligand substitution in a
square planar complex to a position opposite to itself?
(A) [CN] > [NO2] > Br > NH3 (B) [CN] > Br > NH3 > [NO2]
(C) [NO2] > [CN] > NH3 > Br (D) Br > [CN] > NH3 > [NO2]

60. An Eyring plot allows you to find the activation parameters H and S from the temperature
(T) dependence of the rate constant (k). What would you plot against what in a typical Eyring graph?
(A) ln k against 1/T (B) ln(k/T) against 1/T
(C) ln(k/T) against T (D) ln(1/T) against kT

61. The reaction: Mn(CO)5Me + CO Mn(CO)5(COMe) is an example of:


(A) a ligand addition (B) a -elimination
(C) an oxidative addition (D) an alkyl migration

62. The Y3+ ion is:


(A) hard, and favours ligands with N- and/or O-donor atoms
(B) hard, and favours ligands with S- and/or P-donor atoms
(C) soft, and favours ligands with S- and/or P-donor atoms
(D) soft, and favours ligands with N- and/or O-donor atoms

63. Which one of the following is a secondary alcohol?


(A) CH3CH2OH (B) CH3OH (C) CH3CH(OH)CH3 (D) (CH3)C3OH

64. Para-xylene is the same as:


(A) 1,2-dimethylbenzene (B) 1,3-diethylbenzene
(C) 1,3-dimethylbenzene (D) 1,4-dimethylbenzene

65. How many actual double bonds does the benzene ring possess?
(A) None, carbon-carbon bonds in benzene are delocalized around the ring
(B) 1 double bond
(C) 2 double bonds
(D) 3 double bonds

66. What makes carbon such a unique element?


(A) Elemental carbon comes in two forms, diamond and graphite.
(B) Carbon forms four bonds, although the ground state configuration would predict the formation of
fewer bonds.
(C) Carbon forms covalent bonds rather than ionic bonds.
(D) To a greater extent than any other element, carbon can bond to itself to form straight chains,
branched chains and rings.

67. Which of the following substances is the strongest reducing agent?


(A) Cl2 (B) Cl- (C) Br2 (D) Br-

68. Which of the following statements about sulfuric acid is false?


(A) It is a strong acid.
(B) One mole of sulfuric acid reacts completely with two moles of potassium hydroxide.
(C) The sulfur atom is sp2 hybridized.
(D) It is often present in acid rain.
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

69. In the standard notation for a voltaic cell, the double vertical line "||" represents:
(A) a phase boundary (B) gas electrode
(C) a wire (metal) connection (D) a salt bridge

70. When we mix together, from separate sources, the ions of a slightly soluble ionic salt, the salt
will precipitate if Qsp _____ Ksp, and will continue to precipitate until Qsp _____ Ksp.
(A) is greater than; equals (B) is less than; is greater than
(C) is less than; equals (D) equals; is less than

71. In a sample of pure water, only one of the following statements is always true at all conditions of
temperature and pressure. Which one is always true?
(A) [H3O+] = 1.0 x 10-7 M (B) [OH-] = 1.0 x 10-7 M
(C) pH = 7.0 (D) [H3O+] = [OH-]

72. Consider the following solubility data for various chromates at 25oC.
Ksp
Ag2CrO4 9.0 x 10-12
BaCrO4 2.0 x 10-10
PbCrO4 1.8 x 10-14
The chromate that is the most soluble in water at 25oC on a molar basis is:
(A) Ag2CrO4 (B) BaCrO4 (C) PbCrO4 (D) impossible to determine

73. Which of the following species contains Fe in its highest oxidation state?
(A) [FeO4]2 (B) [FeO4]3 (C) [FeO4]4 (D) [FeO3]2

74. Consider a solution which is 0.10 M in CH3COOH and 0.20 M in NaCH3COO. Which of the
following statements is true?
(A) If a small amount of NaOH is added, the pH decreases very slightly.
(B) If NaOH is added, the OH- ions react with the CH3COO- ions.
(C) If a small amount of HCl is added, the pH decreases very slightly.
(D) If HCl is added, the H+ ions react with CH3COOH ions.

75. The pOH of a solution of NaOH is 11.30. What is the [H+] for this solution?
(A) 2.0 x 10-3 (B) 2.5 x 10-3 (C) 5.0 x 10-12 (D) 4.0 x 10-12

76. If Kw is 2.9 x 10-15 at 10oC, what is the pH of pure water at 10oC?


(A) 6.72 (B) 7.00 (C) 7.27 (D) 7.53

77. Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
(A) HClO (B) CH3COOH (C) HF (D) HCN

78. A 0.10 M solution of a weak acid, HX, is 0.059% ionized. Evaluate Ka for the acid.
(A) 3.8 x 10-9 (B) 6.5 x 10-7 (C) 7.0 x 10-6 (D) 3.5 x 10-8

79. The pH of a solution is 4.80. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions in this solution?
(A) 4.2 x 10-9 M (B) 1.6 x 10-5 M (C) 3.6 x 10-12 M (D) 6.3 x 10-10 M
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

80. Consider the reversible reaction at equilibrium at 392oC: 2A(g) + B(g) C(g)
The partial pressures are found to be: A: 6.70 atm, B: 10.1 atm, C: 3.60 atm. Evaluate Kp for this
reaction.
(A) 7.94 x 10-3 (B) 0.146 (C) 0.0532 (D) 54.5

81. Consider the following system in a 1.00 L container: A(g) + B(g) 2C(g)
The equilibrium concentrations at 200oC were determined to be:
[A] = 0.200 M [B] = 3.00 M [C] = 0.500 M
How many moles of A must be added to increase the concentration of C to 0.700 M at 200oC?
(A) 0.225 mol (B) 0.305 mol (C) 0.417 mol (D) 0.610 mol

82. When the system A + B C + D is at equilibrium,


(A) the sum of the concentrations of A and B must equal the sum of the concentrations of C and D.
(B) the forward reaction has stopped.
(C) both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped.
(D) neither the forward nor the reverse reaction has stopped.

83. Consider the gas-phase equilibrium system represented by the equation:


2H2O(g) 2H2(g) + O2(g)
Given that the forward reaction (the conversion of "left-hand" species to "right-hand" species) is
endothermic, which of the following changes will decrease the equilibrium amount of H2O?
(A) adding more oxygen
(B) adding a solid phase catalyst
(C) decreasing the volume of the container (the total pressure increases)
(D) increasing the temperature at constant pressure

84. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction A + 2B C + 5/2 D has a value of 4.0, what is the
value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2C + 5D 2A + 4B at the same temperature?
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.063 (C) 2.0 (D) 8.0

85. When the concentration of reactant molecules is increased, the rate of reaction increases. The
best explanation is: As the reactant concentration increases,
(A) the average kinetic energy of molecules increases.
(B) the frequency of molecular collisions increases.
(C) the rate constant increases.
(D) the activation energy increases.

86. Which statement is false?


(A) If a reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous it may occur rapidly.
(B) If a reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous, it must have a low activation energy.
(C) Activation energy is a kinetic quantity rather than a thermodynamic quantity.
(D) If a reaction is thermodynamically nonspontaneous, it will not occur spontaneously.

87. If reaction A has an activation energy of 250 kJ and reaction B has an activation energy of
100kJ, which of the following statements must be correct?
(A) If reaction A is exothermic and reaction B is endothermic then reaction A is favored kinetically.
(B) At the same temperature the rate of reaction B is greater than the rate of reaction A.
(C) The energy of reaction A must be greater than the energy of reaction B.
(D) The energy of reaction B must be greater than the energy of reaction A.
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

88. Assume that the reaction A + 3B 2C + D is first order with respect to reactant A and second
order with respect to reactant B. If the concentration of A is doubled and the concentration of B is
halved, the rate of the reaction would _____ by a factor of _____.
(A) increase, 2 (B) decrease, 2 (C) increase, 4 (D) decrease, 4

89. What are the units of k for the rate law: Rate = k[A][B]2, when the concentration unit is mol/L?
(A) s-1 (B) s (C) L mol-1 s-1 (D) L2 mol-2 s-1

90. For a reaction 2A + B 2C, with the rate equation: Rate = k[A]2[B]
(A) the order with respect to A is 1 and the order overall is 1.
(B) the order with respect to A is 2 and the order overall is 2.
(C) the order with respect to A is 2 and the order overall is 3.
(D) the order with respect to B is 2 and the order overall is 2.

91. The standard heat of combustion of ethanol, C2H5OH, is 1372 kJ/mol ethanol. How much heat
(in kJ) would be liberated by completely burning a 20.0 g sample?
(A) 686 kJ (B) 519 kJ (C) 715 kJ (D) 597 kJ

92. Which statement is incorrect?


(A) At constant pressure, H = E + PV
(B) The thermodynamic symbol for entropy is S.
(C) Gibbs free energy is a state function.
(D) For an endothermic process, H is negative.

93. Calculate Go for the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) given the following information:
Gfo for SO2(g) = -300.4 kJ/mol
Gfo for SO3(g) = -370.4 kJ/mol
(A) -70.0 kJ (B) +70.0 kJ (C) -670.8 kJ (D) -140.0 kJ

94. At a constant temperature, an ideal gas is compressed from 6.0 liters to 4.0 liters by a constant
external pressure of 5.0 atm. How much work is done on the gas?
(A) w = +10 liter atm (B) w = -10 liter atm
(C) w = +30 liter atm (D) w = -30 liter atm

95. The entropy will usually increase when


I. a molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules.
II. a reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number of moles of gas.
III. a solid changes to a liquid.
IV. a liquid changes to a gas.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I, II, III, and IV

96. A system suffers an increase in internal energy of 80 J and at the same time has 50 J of work
done on it. What is the heat change of the system?
(A) +130 J (B) +30 J (C) -130 J (D) -30 J

97. Which one of the following thermodynamic quantities is not a state function?
(A) Work (B) Gibbs free energy (C) entropy (D) internal energy
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

98. The vapor pressure of a solution containing a nonvolatile solute is directly proportional to the
(A) molality of the solvent. (B) osmotic pressure of the solute.
(C) molarity of the solvent. (D) mole fraction of solvent.

99. Which observation(s) reflect(s) colligative properties?


(I) A 0.5 m NaBr solution has a higher vapor pressure than a 0.5 m BaCl2 solution.
(II) A 0.5 m NaOH solution freezes at a lower temperature than pure water.
(III) Pure water freezes at a higher temperature than pure methanol.
(A) only I (B) only II (C) only III (D) I and II

100. Consider the following pairs of liquids. Which pairs are miscible?
1. benzene, C6H6, and hexane, C6H12
2. water and methanol, CH3OH
3. water and hexane
(A) 1, 2 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 only (D) 1, 2, 3

101. In any cubic lattice, an atom lying at the corner of a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit
cells?
(A) one (B) two (C) eight (D) four

102. Where on a phase diagram can you locate conditions under which only one phase exists?
(A) at an intersection of two lines (B) at the normal boiling point
(C) at an intersection of three lines (D) in an area bounded by lines

103. Consider the solvents: (I) H2O, (II) CH3OH, (III) anhydrous CH3COOH, The amphiprotic
solvent(s) among these is(are)
(A) I only (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) All

104. An aqueous solution of NaNO2 is


(A) Basic (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) Need more information

105. Given Ka of HCN is 2.1 x 10-9, Kb for the equilibrium reaction CN++ H2O HCN + OH- is
(A) 4.8 x 10-6 (B) 2.1 x 10-9 (C) 2.1 x 105 (D) 2.1 x 10-23

106. In the reaction NH3 + CH3OH NH +4 + CH3O -, the conjugate acid is


(A) CH3OH (B) NH +4 (C) CH3O- (D) CH3O- and NH +4

107. Perchloric and hydrochloric acids are completely dissociated in water. In anhydrous acetic acid,
(A) Both acids dissociate completely (B) They partially dissociate to same extent
(C) Larger dissociation of HCl (D) Larger dissociation of HClO4

108. BF3 is a
(A) Lewis base (B) Lewis acid (C) Bronsted acid (D) Bronsted base

109. Lewis acid among (I) HCOOH, (II) H, (III) SiF4, (IV) NH3 is
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

110. An aqueous solution of FeCl3 is


(A) Neutral (B) Basic (C) Acidic (D) Need more information
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

111. An aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is


(A) Acidic (B) Amphoteric (C) Neutral (D) Alkaline

112. If the temperature of water is increased from 250C to 800C, its pH


(A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) Remains constant (D) Need more information

113. The ionic strength of 0.1 M solution of KNO3 is


(A) 0.01 (B) 0.1 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.001

114. The ionic strength of 0.1 M Na2SO4 is


(A) 0.01 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.4

115. The ionic product of water, when measured in aqueous NaCl solution of varying molarity,
(A) Is independent of concentration of NaCl
(B) Decreases with increasing concentration of NaCl
(C) Increases with increasing concentration of NaCl
(D) Need more information

116. When BaSO4 precipitate is equilibrated with a solution containing HCl acid, its solubility
(A) Increases as more acid is added (B) Remains constant
(C) Decreases as more acid is added (D) Need more information

117. Equilibrium constant (Ka) for the dissociation of acetic acid is measured in 10-5 and 0.1 M NaCl
solution. The value of Ka
(A) Decreases with increasing concentration of NaCl
(B) Is independent of concentration of NaCl
(C) Need more information
(D) Increases with increasing concentration of NaCl

118. Degree of dissociation of acetic acid in 0.1 M NaCl and in 0.1 M Na2SO4 is
(A) Independent of electrolyte
(B) Increases in Na2SO4 as compared to in NaCl
(C) Increases in NaCl as compared to in Na2SO4
(D) Need more information

119. The solubility product (ksp) of Mg(OH)2 is 1.8 x 10-11. The maximum concentration of hydroxide
ions that can be tolerated in solution without causing the precipitation of Mg(OH)2 from a solution
containing 0.1 M Mg2+ ions , is
(A) 1.8 x 10-11 (B) 1.3 x 10-5 (C) 3.6 x 10-11 (D) 2.6 x 10-5

120. In the Volhard method, silver ions are titrated with a standard solution of thiocycnate ion and
Fe3+ is used as indicator. The titration is always carried out in acidic solution because
(A) End point is sharp
(B) Otherwise silver will get precipitated
(C) Acid medium prevents the hydrolysis of Fe(III) ion
(D) Otherwise colour change does not occur
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

121. The difference between a galvanic cell and an electrolytic cell is


(A) There is no difference. Both mean the same
(B) Galvanic cell consumes electricity while electrolytic cell stores electricity
(C) Galvanic cell stores electricity while electrolytic cell consumes electricity
(D) In a galvanic cell reduction occurs at cathode while in electrolytic cell oxidation occurs at cathode

122. The correct expression for an acid buffer is


[S] [S]
(A) p H = p K a +l o g (B) p K a + p H+l o g
[A] [A]
[A] [A]
(C) p H = p K a +l o g (D) p K a = p H+
[S] [S]

123. The pH of a solution that is 0.4 M in formic acid and 1.0 M in sodium formate is
(Ka of formic acid is 1.77 x 10-4)
(A) 4 (B) 4.15 (C) 1 (D) 1.01

124. The base dissociation constant (Kb) for NH3 is1.76 x 10-5. Its Ka is
(A) 1.76 x 10-5 (B) 1x 10-14 (C) 5.68 x 10-10 (D) 1.76 x 10-9

125. We can prepare stable standard solutions of HCl, HClO4 or even H2SO4 but NOT of HNO3. The
reason is
(A) Presence of ubiquitous nitrogen
(B) HNO3 acid cannot be stored in glass bottles
(C) HNO3 acid is highly corrosive
(D) HNO3 acid has oxidizing properties and hence cannot be stored for long durations

126. EDTA is a
(A) Hexadentate ligand, (B) Pentadentate ligand
(C) Tetradentate ligand (D) Bidentate ligand

127. Multidentate ligands are generally preferable to unidentate ligands for complexometric titrations
because
(A) Multidentate ligands are easily available
(B) They form more stable and single complexes with a given metal ion in single step
(C) A metal ion indicator is readily available for multidentate ligands
(D) We can control other experimental conditions such as pH, temperature etc. in the case of
multidentate ligands

128. In the Volhard method for the determination of chloride, excess silver nitrate is added to a
chloride solution and the AgCl precipitated is filtered and the excess silver ions in the filtrate are
titrated. But this filtration is not required in the case of bromide or iodide determination. This is
because of
(A) Common ion effect
(B) AgCl, being a gelatinous precipitate as compared to other silver halides absorbs chloride ions
more leading to erroneous results.
(C) Silver chloride being more soluble than silver thiocyanate, interferes during titration if not
separated
(D) Need more information
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

129. The difference between a galvanic cell and a voltaic cell is


(A) Galvanic cell consumes electricity while voltaic cell stores electricity
(B) Opposite of A
(C) In a galvanic cell oxidation occurs at anode while in voltaic cell reduction occurs at anode
(D) No difference both are same

130. The potential of an electrochemical cell is given by


(A) Ecell = Ecathode - Eanode (B) Ecell = Eanode - Ecathode
(C) Ecell = Ecathode + Eanode (D) Ecell = | Ecathode Eanode |

131. Thermodynamic potential of the cell Cu|Cu2+(0.100 M)||Ag+(0.200 M)|Ag is


(Ag+ + e- Ag(s) E0 = 0.799 V and Cu2+ + 2e- Cu(s) E0 = 0.337 V)
(A) 1.136 V (B) 0.451 V (C) 0.451 V (D) 0.462 V

132. If the molar concentration of a saturated solution of La(IO3)3 is 6.92 x 10-4 M, the solubility
product of La(IO3)3 is
(A) 6.19 x 10-12 (B) 6.92 x 10-4 (C) 4.8 x 10-8 (D) 2.3 x 10-13

133. The solubility products for the series of iodides are: TlI = 6.5 x 10-8, AgI = 8.3 x 10-17, PbI2 = 7.1
x 10-9, BiI3 = 8.1 x 10-19. Their molar solubility in water follows the order
(A) PbI2 < TlI < BiI3 < AgI (B) TlI > AgI > PbI2 > BiI3
(C) TlI < AgI < PbI2 < BiI3 (D) PbI2 > TlI > BiI3 > AgI

134. A saturated solution of Fe(OH)2 is 1.17 x 10-5 M in OH - . Solubility product of Fe(OH)2 is


(A) 3.3 x 10-15 (B)8.0 x 10-16 (C) 1.2 x 10-5 (D) 2.2 x 10-10

135. A typical electrochemical cell is represented as A|Am+ (x M)||Bn+ (y M)|B. By convention,


(A) Cathodic process is always displayed on left, | refers to phase boundary and || refers to liquid
junction potential
(B) Cathodic process is always displayed on left, || refers to phase boundary and | refers to liquid
junction potential
(C) Anodic process is always displayed on left, | refers to phase boundary and || refers to liquid
junction potential
(D) Anodic process is always displayed on left, || refers to phase boundary and | refers to liquid
junction potential

136. The thermodynamic potential of the cell (I) Cu|Cu2+(0.1 M)||Ag+(0.2 M)|Ag is +0.451 V and that
of the cell (II) Ag|Ag+(0.2 M)||Cu2+(0.1 M)|Cu is 0.451 V. Galvanic and electrolytic cells between
these two are
(A) Both are galvanic (B) Both are electrolytic
(C) I is galvanic and II is electrolytic (D) I is electrolytic and II is galvanic

137. The number of water molecules present in 1 L of water is


(A) 18 (B) 18000 (C) 6.023 x 1023 (D) 3.35 x 1025

138. The valency of a metal is 3. The most probable formula of its oxide is
(A) M3O4 (B) MO3 (C) M3O (D) M2O3

139. In the reaction 2Na2S2O3 + I2 Na2S4O6 + 2NaI, the equivalent weight of hypo is
(A) Mol.wt/3. (B) Mol.wt/2 (C) Mol.wt. (D) Mol.wt/4
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

140. In the reaction H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 CaHPO4 + 2H2O, the equivalent weight of H3PO4 is
(A) Mol.wt/3. (B) Mol.wt/2 (C) Mol.wt. (D) Mol.wt/4

141. Zn reacts with CuSO4 according to the equation Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu. If excess Zinc is
added to 100 mL of 0.05 M CuSO4, the amount of Cu formed is
(A) 0.005 moles (B) 0.05 moles (C) 0.5 moles (D) 5 moles

142. In a reaction sodium is treated with BeCl2. In this reaction sodium acts as a
(A) Reducing agent (B) Oxidising agent
(C) Hydrolysis agent (D) Precipitating agent

143. H2O2 acts as a reducing agent in


(A) PbS + 4 H2O2 PbSO4 + 4H2O
(B) Ag2O (moist) + H2O2 2Ag + H2O + O2
(C) Na2SO3 + H2O2 Na2SO4 + H2O
(D) 2KI + H2O2 + H2SO4 K2SO4 + I2 + H2O

144. H2O2 DOES NOT act as


(A) Reducing agent (B) Oxidising agent (C) Dehydrating agent (D) Bleaching agent

-
145. The number of electrons lost by Br in the reaction Br - BrO-4 is
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 8 (D) 7
2+
146. In the reaction C 2 O 2-
4 + MnO + 8H Mn + 2CO2 + 4H2O, the reductant is
-
4
+

+
(A) MnO -4 (B) MnO -4 and H+ (C) H (D) C 2 O 42-

147. The total number of electrons involved in the oxidation of C 2 O 42- CO2 is
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

148. The reaction NOT involving the change in the oxidation state of metal is
(A) VO2+ V2O3 (B) CrO 2- 2-
4 Cr2 O 7 (C) Na Na+ (D) Zn2+ Zn

149. In the reaction 2KMnO4 + 2KOH 2K2MnO4 + H2O + (O), the equivalent weight of KMnO4 is
(A) Mol.wt. (B) Mol.wt/2 (C) Mol.wt/5 (D) 2 xMol.wt

150. If an element M forms a bromide of formula MBr5, then the formula of its oxide could be
(A) M2O5 (B) MO5 (C) M5O (D) M5O2

151. The disproportionation reaction among the following is


(A) Cl2 + H2 2HCl (B) Cl2 + 2NaOH NaCl + NaOCl + H2O
(C) Cl2 + 2KBr 2KCl + Br2 (D) Cl2 + 2NO 2NOCl

152. The reaction in which ozone acts as a reductant is


(A) 2HCl + O3 Cl2 + H2O + O2 (B) PbS + 4O3 PbSO4 + 4O2
(C) BaO2 + O3 BaO + 2O2 (D) 2KI + O3 + H2O 2KOH + I2 + O2

153. The oxidation number of manganese in KMnO4 is


(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

154. The oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7 is


(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

155. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is


(A) 5 (B)4 (C) 3 (D) 2

156. The halogen NOT exhibiting positive oxidation state in its compounds is
(A) Cl (B) F (C) Br (D) I

157. The oxidation state of Na in sodium amalgum is


(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) 2

158. The oxidation state of iodine in ICl-2 is


(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 2

159. In the reaction NO 2 +OCl- NO13 +Cl- , the oxidation state of chlorine
(A) Does not change (B) Changes from +1 to 1
(C) Changes from 2 to 1 (D) Changes from 0 to 1

160. The buffer solution among the following if the stoichiometric concentration of each component is
0.15 M in each case:
(A) HBr + NaBr (B) HF + NaBr (C) NaF + NaBr (D) NaF + HF

161. The end point in a visual indicator titration is


(A) the point at which the pH is exactly equal to 7.00
(B) the point at which the indicator changes color
(C) determined by the equilibrium constant
(D) The point at which pH is exactly zero

162. The pH of a solution that is 0.2 M in acetic acid (Ka = 1.8 x 10-5) and 0.2 M in sodium acetate is
(A) 4.7 (B) 9.3 (C) 7.0 (D) 5.4

163. You dissolve 0.500 gram of an unknown diprotic acid H2X in 200 mL of H2O. This solution is just
neutralized by 5.00 mL of a 1.00 M NaOH solution. The molecular weight of the unknown acid is
(A) 12.5 (B) 25.0 (C) 100 (D) 200

164. Methyl orange is an indicator with a Ka of 1 x 10-4. Its acid form, HIn, is red, while its base form,
In-, is yellow. At pH 6.0, the indicator will be
(A) red (B) orange (C) yellow (D) need more information

165. The molar solubility of BaF2 is 7.5 x 10-3 mol/L. What is the value of Ksp for BaF2 ?
(A) 4.2 x 10-7 (B) 1.7 x 10-6 (C) 8.4 x 10-7 (D) 8.7 x 10-2

166. The relationship between the solubility in water, s, and the Ksp is Ksp = 4s3 for all of the following
except
(A) Mg(OH)2(s) (B) Na2SO4(s) (C) BaSO4 (s) (D) PbF2 (s)
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

167. The process for which S is negative:


(A) evaporation of 1 mol of CCl4 (l)
(B) mixing 5 mL ethanol with 25 mL water
(C) compressing 1 mol Ne at constant temperature from 1.5 atm to 0.5 atm
(D) raising the temperature of 100 g Cu from 275 K to 295 K

168. For the reaction Cl2O(g) + (3/2) O2 (g) 2 ClO2(g), given H = 126.4 kJ/mol and S = -74.9
J/K mol. At 377C, G equals:
(A) 98.3 kJ/mol (B) 77.8 kJ/mol (C) 51.5 kJ/mol (D) 175.1 kJ/mol

169. Calculate G for the reaction 2 N2O5(g) 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) at 298 K.


Hf (kJmol-1) 11.29 33.15 0
S(Jmol-1 K-1) 355.3 239.9 204.8
(A) -135 kJ (B) 98.7 kJ (C) -11.2 kJ (D) -25.2 kJ

170. In a 1.0 x 10-2 M CrCl3 (which dissociates completely) solution in water, the chloride ion
concentration [Cl-] is
(A) 0.30 x 10-2 (B) 1.0 x 10-2 (C) 2.0 x 10-2 (D) 3.0 x 10-2

171. The third law of thermodynamics states:


(A) The entropy of the universe is increasing.
(B) The entropy of the universe is constant.
(C) The entropy is zero at zero K for a perfect crystal.
(D) The absolute entropy of a substance decreases with increasing temperature.

172. Which of the following gases is not normally associated with acid rain?
(A) N2 (B) SO2 (C) SO3 (D) NO2

173. Consider the reaction: Sb + H+ + NO-3(aq) Sb4O6 + NO + H2O. Oxidizing agent is:
(A) Sb (B) H+ (C) NO-3 (D) Sb4O6

174. The coefficient for H+ in the balanced equation (using the set of smallest whole numbers)?
(A) 7 (B) 1 (C) 8 (D) 4

175. The equivalent weight of NO-3in the reaction


(A) 186.03 (B) 20.67 (C) 124.02 (D) 31.01

176. Which of the following aqueous solutions, formed by mixing the two components in each case,
would act as an acid-base buffer solution
(A) 100 ml of 1M HCl and 100 ml of 1M NaOH
(B) 100 ml of 1M NH4Cl and 100 ml of 1M NH3
(C) 100 ml of NH3 and 100 ml of 1M HC2H3O2
(D) 10 ml of 1M HCl and 100 ml of 1M NaCl

177. The solubility of M2Y3 is 1 x 10-10 mole per liter. What is the K solubility product for
the compound?
(A) 1 x 10-48 (B) 6 x 10-28 (C) 1 x 10-20 (D) 1 x 10-56
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

178. If heat is added to a pure liquid substance at its boiling point, the
(A) temperature will increase.
(B) temperature will decrease.
(C) temperature will remain constant.
(D) temperature of the vapor will be greater than the temperature of the liquid.

179. In an aqueous solution of 0.1 M sodium acetate, the concentration of hydronium ions [H3O+] is
(A) less than the [H3O+] in 0.1M acetic acid.
(B) equal to the [H3O+] in 0.1M acetic acid.
(C) greater than the [H3O+] in 0.1M acetic acid.
(D) impossible to compare with the [H3O+] in 0.1M acetic acid.

180. If the ionization constant for an acid, HA, is equal to that of a base, BOH, then the solution of
the salt, BA, in water (at 25C) is expected to have a pH
(A) > 7. (B) 7. (C) < 7. (D) impossible to predict.

181. The overall order of a reaction which obeys the rate law Rate=k[A][B]2, is
(A) second order. (B) third order. (C) first order. (D) zeroth order.

182. The expression for the molar concentration equilibrium constant, Kc, for the reaction
2A(s) + 3B(s) 4C(g) is:
[A]2 [B]3 [C]4
(A) Kc = (B) K C = (C) Kc = [A]2[B]3 (D) Kc = [C]4
[C]2 [A]2 [B]3

183. The thermodynamic quantity which measures the degree of disorder in a system is
(A) enthalpy. (B) free energy. (C) entropy. (D) absolute temperature.

184. Consider the following reaction, initially at equilibrium.


4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) The addition of more O2 would
(A) decrease the number of moles of NH3 present.
(B) increase the number of moles of NH3 present.
(C) decrease the number of moles of NO present.
(D) cause no change in the number of moles of H2O present.

185. The 0.1022 g of an unknown acid H2X is neutralized by 40.0 ml of 0.15N NaOH solution. The
equivalent weight of the acid is:
(A) 38.4 (B) 2.6 (C) 27.3 (D) 17.0

186. At 400C the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) HI(g) has an equilibrium constant, Kp, of 50.00. If an
equilibrium mixture of H2, I2, and HI is such that the partial pressure of H2 is 0.200 atm., and the
partial pressure of I2 is 0.250 atm., the total pressure of the equilibrium mixture is:
(A) 3.61 atm (B) 2.03 atm (C) 0.45 atm (D) 32.07 atm

187. Consider a reaction which is endothermic and which is accompanied by a decrease in the
randomness of the system. This reaction
(A) would be spontaneous at a high temperature
(B) would be spontaneous at a low temperature
(C) would not be spontaneous at a low temperature
(D) would not be spontaneous at any temperature
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

188. Radioactive decay is an example of a reaction whose rate is first order. If the half-life of
radioactive iodine is 12 hours, how many grams of the radioactive iodine will be left after two days if
you intially had 16 g?
(A) 4 g (B) 2 g (C) 1 g (D) .5 g

189. If the heat of formation, Hf, of CO2(g) is -94 kcal/mol while the heat of formation, Hf, of CO(g)
is -26 kcal/mol, the enthalpy change for the reaction: 2CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g) would be
(A) -68 kcal/mol (B) -120 kcal/mol (C) -136 kcal/mol (D) -240 kcal/mol

190. Given that the initial rate law for the reaction A + 2B products has the form, rate = k[A]2, if the
concentration of B is doubled, the initial rate of the reaction
(A) will double.
(B) will quadruple.
(C) will not change.
(D) will change and the given rate law must be incorrect since B is one of the reactants.

191. If 2.50 amperes of current are passed for 45 minutes through a solution, which contains Cu2+,
how many grams of Cu metal will be produced? Assume no other material is reduced in the process.
(A) .9 (B) 1.7 (C) 2.2 (D) 2.9

192. Total number of all atoms present in a mole of CH4 is:


(A) 1.20x 1024 (B) 3.01x 1024 (C) 1.20x 1023 (D) 6.023x 1023

193. An ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion, doing 500J of work in the process. What is the
change in the internal energy of the gas?
(A) 0J (B) 500J (C) 500J (D) need more information

194. The average speed of a hydrogen atom in a gas is 400 ms-1. The average speed of a hydrogen
molecule (H2) in the same gas will be
(A) 283ms-1 (B) 100ms-1 (C) 200ms-1 (D) 800ms-1.

195. A power station generates 500 MW of power and exhausts 800 MW as waste heat into the
environment. What is the efficiency of the power station?
(A) 61.5% (B) 38.5% (C) 62.5% (D) 23 %.

196. An ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion, doing 300J of work in the process. What is the
change in the internal energy of the Gas?
(A) 300J (B) 300J (C) 0J (D) need more information.

197, How long does it take a 350W coffeepot to boil off 0.7L of water initially at 1000C. (The latent
heat of vapourisation of water = 2.1x 106Jkg-1).
(A) 6.1 min (B) 70 min (C) 3.9x 103min (D) 31 min.

198. The oxidation number of Mn in K2MnO4 is:


(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6

199. The oxidation number of C in HC2H3O2 is:


(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D0 2
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

200. Which reaction is an example of oxidation-reduction?


(A) KOH + HCl KCl + H2O (B) BaCl2 + K2SO4 2 KCl + BaSO4
(C) 2 KCl 2 K + Cl2 (D) KCl + AgNO3 AgCl + KNO3

201. The mode of radioactive decay involving orbital electrons is


(A) Not possible (B) Gamma decay
(C) Positron emission (D) Electron capture

202. An element X forms two oxides whose formulas are XO 3 and X 2 O 3 . One of these oxides
contains 52% of X by mass and has a molar mass of 99.98. What is the formula of this oxide?
(A) Mg2O3 (B) K2O3 (C) CrO3 (D) Al2O3

203. The ion H2PO4 can act as either an acid or a base. Its conjugate base and acid are
(A) H3PO4 and HPO2-4 (B) HPO2-4 and H3PO4
(C) PO3-4 and HPO2-4 (D) H3PO4 and PO3-4 (E) PO3-4 and H3 PO4

204. Find the enthalpy change (H) for the reaction: C2H4(g) + 6 F2(g) 2 CF4 (g) + 4HF(g) using
the following thermochemical data:
C(s) + 2 F2(g) CF4(g) H = 680 kJ
2 C(s) + 2 H2 (g ) C2H4 (g) H = +52 kJ
H2 (g) + F2(g) 2 HF(g) H = 537 kJ
(A) 2382 kJ (B) 3560 kJ (C) 1269 kJ (D) 2486 kJ

205. The pH of an aqueous solution of Ca(OH)2 is 11.26. Its concentration is


(A) 0.0018 M (B) 9.1 x 10-4 M (C) 5.5.x 10-12 M (D) 2.8 x 10-12 M

206. Ka of gallic acid (HC7H5O5) is 4.57 x 10-3. Kb for gallate ion (NaC7H5O5) is
(A) 4.57 x 10-3 (B) 5.43 x 10-5 (C) 2.19 x 10-12 (D) 2.19 x 102

207. 0.50 mol of each of the bases shown below is added to 1-L of water:
(i) aniline(Kb = 4.3 x 10-10) (ii) ethylamine (Kb = 6.4 x 10-4)
(iii) ammonia (Kb = 1.8 x 10-5) (iv) piperidine (Kb = 1.3 x 10-3)
The solution with the highest pH would be formed by
(A) piperidine (B) aniline (C) ethylamine (D) ammonia

208. A 0.038 M solution of weak acid HX is 12.7% ionized. The Ka of HX is


(A) 1.18 x 10-6 (B) 9.31 x 10-5 (C) 0.127 (D) 7.02 x 10-4

209. Step-wise dissociation of a dibasic acid H2A occurs as follows:


H2A + H2O H3O+ + HA- (Ka1 = 3.3 x 10-5) HA- + H2O H3O+ + A2- (Ka2 = 1.7 x 10-9)
The pH of an aqueous solution of 0.0655 M H2A is
(A) 3.75 (B) 4.98 (C) 3.04 (D) 2.83

210. Equilibrium constants for the reactions are: A + B C (Kc = 819) and
C D + E (Kc = 0.22). The equilibrium for the reaction A + B D + E is
(A) 180 (B) 519 (C) 3,723 (D) 0.00027

211. Hydroxide concentration in 0.005 M HCl (aq.) is


(A) 5 x 10-3 M (B) 2 x 10-12 M (C) 1 x 10-13 M (D) 9.3 x 10-10 M
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

212. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: 2 CO2(g) 2 CO(g) + O2(g), H = -514 kJ. The
yield of CO2 in the reaction can be maximized by carrying out the reaction
(A) at low temperature and low pressure (B) at high temperature and high pressure
(C) at high temperature and low pressure (D) at low temperature and high pressure

213. H2S is passed through a solution containing 0.1 M each of Cd and Tl. Given Ksp of CdS = 2 x 10-
28
and Ksp of Tl2S = 1 x 10-22, separation of Cd and Tl by sulphide precipitation is possible
(A) by adjusting the H+ ion concentration (B) not possible at all
(C) no need to adjust H+ ion concentration (D) need more information

214. Ka of formic acid is 1.77 x 10-4.pH of a solution that is 0.4 M in formic acid and 1 M in sodium
formate is
(A) zero (B) 4.15 (C) 7 (D) 8.15

215. Solution containing equal concentrations of formic acid and sodium formate is
(Ka of formic acid is 1.77 x 10-4)
(A) basic (B) neutral (C) acidic (D) need more information

216. pH of a solution that is 0.2 M in NH3 and 0.3 M in NH4Cl is


(A) zero (B) 7 (C) 11 (D) need more information

217. Ka of hypochlorous acid (HOCl) is 3 x 10-8. A solution of HOCl and sodium hypochlorite has a
pH of 7.17. The ratio of acid to conjugate base is
(A) 7.17 (B) 5.15 (C) 7.6 (D) 2.2

218. Consider the reactions: (1) Sn4+ + H2(g) Sn2+ + 2 H+ , (2) 2 H+ + Sn(s) H2(g) + Sn2+ and
(3) 2 Fe3+ + Sn2+ 2 Fe2+ + Sn4+ . Order of oxidizing strength of ions is
(A) Fe > Sn > H > Sn2+
3+ 4+ +
(B) Fe3+ < Sn4+ < H+ < Sn2+
(C) Fe3+ > Sn4+ = H+ > Sn2+ (D) Fe3+ = Sn4+ = H+ > Sn2+

219. The units for a second-order rate constant are:


A. Ms-1 B. M-1s-1 C. s-1 D. M-2s-1

220. The difference between a galvanic and electrolytic cells is


(A) Galvanic cells store electricity while electrolytic cells consume electricity
(B) There is no difference between them
(C) Electrolytic cells store electricity while galvanic cells consume electricity
(D) Need more information

221. In both galvanic and electrolytic cells


(A) Oxidation always occurs at cathode and reduction always occurs at anode
(B) Oxidation always occurs at anode and reduction always occurs at cathode
(C) In galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at cathode and reduction occurs at anode but in electrolytic
cell the processes are reversed
(D) Need more information
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

222. An electrode potential is the potential of a cell in which


(A) The electrode in question is anode and calomel electrode is cathode
(B) The electrode in question is cathode and calomel electrode is anode
(C) The electrode in question is cathode and standard hydrogen electrode is anode
(D) The electrode in question is anode and standard hydrogen electrode is cathode

223. According to IUPAC convention, the term electrode potential is reserved to describe
(A) half-cell reactions written as oxidations
(B) overall cell reactions when calomel electrode constitutes one half-cell
(C) overall call reactions when standard hydrogen electrode constitutes one half-cell
(D) half-cell reactions written as reductions
RT [Products]
224. The electrode potential is given by Nernst equation: E=E 0 - ln . For the cell
nF [Reactants]
reaction MnO -4 +5e - +8H + Mn 2+ +4H 2 O , n equals to
(A) 1 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 5

225. The standard electrode potential (E0) for a given system is measured at varying temperatures,
and concentrations. The magnitude of E0
(A) changes with concentration and temperature
(B) changes with concentration but independent of temperature changes
(C) changes with temperature but is independent of concentrations
(D) is independent of both temperature and concentration changes

226. The standard electrode potential data for Ag and Cu are Ag+ + e- Ag(s) E0 = 0.799 V and
Cu2+ + 2e- Cu(s) E0 = 0.337 V. Now (1) a piece of silver is immersed in a copper(II) solution, and
(2) a piece of copper is immersed in a silver(I) solution, then
(A) both silver and copper oxidize (B) only copper oxidizes but not silver
(C) only silver oxidizes but not copper (D) need more information

227. Pb2+ + 2 e- Pb(s) E0 = -0.126 V and Hg2+ + 2 e- Hg(l) E0 = 0.854 V. The potential of the
cell Pb|Pb2+ (0.04 M)||Hg2+ (0.08 M)|Hg and its type are
(A) 0.989 V, galvanic (B) 0.989 V, electrolytic
(C) 0.989 V, electrolytic (D) 0.989 V, galvanic

228. In the accepted convention of notation to describe electrochemical cells,


(A) anodic process is always displayed on the left
(B) cathodic process is always displayed on the left
(C) no specific convention but the processes are indicated alongside
(D) need more information

229. The following reactions proceed as written: (1) Zn(s) + 2 Cr3+ Zn2+ + 2 Cr2+
(2) Sn4+ + 2 Cr2+ Sn2+ + 2 Cr3+. A reaction between (i) Zn2+ and Sn2+, and (ii) Sn4+ and Zn(s)
(A) (i) no reaction, (ii) reaction (B) (i) reaction, (ii) no reaction
(C) reaction in both the cases (D) no reaction in both the cases24.
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

230. The following reactions proceed as written: (1) Sn4+ + 2 Cr2+ Sn2+ + 2 Cr3+
(2) I2 + Sn2+ 2 I- + Sn4+. A reaction between (i) I2 and Cr2+, and (ii) I- and Sn4+
(A) reaction in both cases (B) (i) reaction, and (ii) no reaction
(C) (i) no reaction, (ii) reaction (D) no reaction in both the cases

231. The following reactions proceed as written: (1) 2Fe3+ + Sn2+ 2Fe2+ + Sn4+
(2) V(OH) +4 +Fe 2+ +2H + VO 2+ +Fe3+ +H 2 O . Possibility of a reaction between
(i) V(OH) +4 and Sn2+, and (ii) Sn4+ and VO2+ is
(A) reaction in both the cases (B) no reaction in both the cases
(C) (i) reaction, (ii) no reaction (D) (i) no reaction, (ii) reaction

232. Ni2+ + 2 e- Ni(s) E0 = -0.25 V and Fe2+ + 2 e- Fe(s) E0 = -0.44 V. The potential of the cell
Ni|Ni2+ (0.10 M)||Fe2+ (0.02 M)|Fe and its type are
(A) 0.211 V, galvanic (B) 0.211 V, electrolytic
(C) -0.211 V, galvanic (D) 0.211 V, electrolytic

233. Gaseous N2O5 decomposes according to the equation:


[ N 2O5]
N2O5(g) 2NO2(g) + 1/2O2(g) = k[ N 2O5]
t
At a certain temperature, the rate constant is k = 5.0 x 10-4/s. How many seconds will it take for the
concentration of N2O5 to decrease to one-tenth of its initial value?
A. 2.0 x 103 s B. 4.6 x 103 s C. 2.1 x 102 s D. 1.4 x 103 s

234. A first-order reaction has a rate constant of 3.0 x 10-3 s-1. The time required for the reaction to
be 75% complete is:
A. 95.8 s B. 201 s C. 231 s D. 462 s

235. A first-order reaction has a rate constant of 7.5 x 10-3 s-1. The time required for the reaction to
be 60% complete is:
A. 3.8 x 10-3 s B. 6.9 x 10-3 s C. 68 s D. 120 s

236. At 25oC, the second-order reaction: NOCl(g) NO(g) + 1/2Cl2(g) is 50% complete after
5.82 hours when the initial concentration of NOCl is 4.46 mol/L. How long will it take for the reaction
to be 75% complete?
A. 8.22 h B. 11.6 h C. 15.5 h D. 17.5 h

237. For the chemical reaction A + B C, a plot of [A] versus time is found to give a straight line
with a negative slope. What is the order of reaction?
A. zero B. first C. second D. third

238. The reaction 2NO2(g) 2NO(g) + O2(g) is suspected to be second-order in NO2.


Which of the following kinetic plots would be the best to do to prove the reaction to be second order?
A. a plot of [NO2] 1 vs. t B. a plot of ln [NO2] vs. t
C. a plot of [NO2] vs. t D. a plot of ln [NO2] 1 vs. t
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

239. For the chemical reaction A C, a plot of 1/[A] versus time was found to give a straight
line with a positive slope. What is the order of reaction?
A. zero B. first
C. second D. Plot does not reveal the order of reaction

240. For a second-order reaction, the half-life is equal to:


A. t1/2 = 0.693/k B. t1/2 = k/0.693 C. t1/2 = 1/k[A]o D. t1/2 = k

241. Which one of the following would alter the rate constant (k) for the reaction
2A + B products?
A. increasing the concentration of A
B. increasing the concentration of B
C. increasing the temperature
D. measuring k again after the reaction has run for a while

(Ea / RT)
242. The Arrhenius equation is: k = A e . The slope of a plot of ln k vs. 1/T is equal to:
A. k B. k C. Ea D. Ea / R

243. The activation energy for the reaction 2HI H2 + I2 is 184 kJ/mol. How many times greater is
the rate constant for this reaction at 520 C than at 500oC? R = 8.31 J/molK.
o

A. 0.18 B. 0.50 C. 2.0 D. 4.0

244. The activation energy for the reaction CH3CO CH3 + CO is 71 kJ/mol. How many times
greater is the rate constant for this reaction at 170 C than at 150oC? (R = 8.31 J/molK.)
o

A. 0.40 B. 1.1 C. 2.5 D. 4.0

245. If Ea for a certain biological reaction is 50 kJ/mol, by what factor (how many times) will the rate
of this reaction increase when body temperature increases from 37oC (normal) to 40oC (fever)?
A. 1.15 times B. 1.20 times C. 2.0 x 105 times D. 1.0002 times

246. The activation energy for the reaction Sn2+ + 2Co3+ Sn4+ + 2Co2+ is 60 kJ/mol. By what
factor will the rate constant increase when the temperature is raised from 10o C to 28o C?
A. 1.002 B. 4.6 C. 5.6 D. 2.8

247. The isomerization of cyclopropane follows first order kinetics. The rate constant at 700 K is
6.20x10-4,min-1, and the half-life at 760 K is 29.0 min. Calculate the activation energy for this
reaction.
A. 5.07 kJ/mol B. 27.0 kJ/mol C. 270 kJ/mol D. 160 kJ/mol

248. The isomerization of methyl isocyanide (CH3NC): CH3NC CH3CN follows first-order
kinetics. The half-lives were found to be 161 min at 199 C, and 12.5 min at 230o C. Calculate the
o

activation energy in kJ/mol for this reaction.


A. 6.17x103 B. 31.4 kJ/mol C. 163 kJ/mol D. 78.2 kJ/mol

249. The activation energy for the first-order reaction N2O5(g) 2NO2(g) + 1/2O2(g) is 102
kJ/mol.
The rate constant (k) is 1.35 x 10-4 s-1 at 35o C. What is k at 0o C?
A. 8.2 x 10-7 s-1 B. 1.9 x 10-5 s-1 C. 4.2 x 10-5 s-1 (D). none of these x
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

250. Calculate the activation energy, in kJ/mol, for the redox reaction
Sn2+ + 2Co3+ Sn4+ + 2Co2+ (Recall R = 8.31 J mole-1K-1)
Given: Temp (o C) k (M-1s-1)
2 3.12 x 103
27 27.0 x 103
A. 59.2 B. 0.477 C. 5.37 D. 163

251. An increase in the temperature of the reactants causes an increase in the rate of reaction. The
best explanation is: As the temperature increases:
A. the concentration of reactants increases.
B. the activation energy decreases.
C. the collision frequency increases.
D. the fraction of collisions with total kinetic energy > Ea increases.

252. According to the collision theory, all collisions do not lead to reaction. The most probable
reasons could be:
1. The total energy of two colliding molecules is less than some minimum amount
of energy.
2. Molecules cannot react with each other unless a catalyst is present.
3. Molecules that are improperly oriented during collision will not react.
4. Solids cannot react with gases.
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3

253. When the concentration of reactant molecules are increased, the rate of reaction increases.
The best explanation is: As the reactant concentration increases;
A. the average kinetic energy of molecules increases.
B. the frequency of molecular collisions increases.
C. the rate constant increases.
D. the activation energy increases.

254. A reaction mechanism usually is:


A. the same as the balanced chemical equation.
B. restricted to only one possible explanation.
C. obvious if the reaction order is known.
D. difficult to prove.

255. A reaction A products, is first order in A with a rate constant of 0.33 min-1. How many
minutes will it take for a concentration of A of 0.13 M to decrease to 0.088 M by this reaction?
A. 1.2 min B. 1.4 min C. 0.70 min D. 0.13 min

256. The rate law for the reaction: H2O2 + 2H+ + 2I I2 + 2H2O is rate = k[H2O2][I
]. The
following mechanism has been suggested.
H2O2 + I HOI + OH slow
OH + H+ H2O fast
+
HOI + H + I I2 + H2O fast
Identify all intermediates included in this mechanism.
A. H+ and I B. H+ and HOI C. HOI and OH
D. H+ only
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

257. The rate law for the reaction 2NO2 + O3 N2O5 + O2 is rate = k[NO2][O3]. Which one of the
following mechanisms is consistent with this rate law?
A. NO2 + NO2 N2O4 (fast) B. NO2 + O3 NO5 (fast)
N2O4 + O3 N2O5 + O2 (slow) NO5 + NO5 N2O5 + 5/2 O2 (slow)
C. NO2 + O3 NO3 + O2 (slow) D. NO2 + NO2 N2O2 + O2 (slow)
NO3 + NO2 N2O5 (fast) N2O2 + O3 N2O5 (fast)

258. Complete the statement. A catalyst:


A. increases the activation energy.
B. alters the reaction mechanism.
C. increases the average kinetic energy of the reactants.
D. increases the concentration of reactants.

259. The gas phase reaction of nitrogen dioxide and carbon monoxide was found by experiment to
be second-order with respect to NO2, and zero-order with respect to CO below 25oC.
NO2 + CO NO + CO2
Which one of the following mechanisms is consistent with the observed reaction order?
A. (i) NO2 + 2CO N + 2CO2 fast (ii) N + NO2 2NO slow
B. (i) NO2 + 2CO N + 2CO2 slow (ii) N + NO2 2NO fast
C. (i) NO2 + NO2 NO3 + NO fast (ii) NO3 + CO NO2 + CO2 slow
D. (i) NO2 + NO2 NO3 + NO slow (ii) NO3 + CO NO2 + CO2 fast

260. For the reaction: X2 + Y + Z XY + XZ


The rate equation is: rate = k [X2][Y]. Why does the concentration of Z have no effect on the rate?
A. The concentration of Z is very small and the others are very large.
B. Z must react in a step after the rate determining step.
C. Z is an intermediate.
D. The fraction of molecules of Z that have very high energies is zero.

261. Which statement is false? A catalyst:


A. increases the rate of the forward reaction, but does not alter the reverse reaction rate.
B. alters the mechanism of reaction.
C. alters the activation energy.
D. is altered in the reaction, but is always regenerated.

262. Peroxodisulfate ions can oxidize iodide ions to iodine according to the balanced equation.
S2O82 + 2I 2SO42 + I2.
The reaction is catalyzed by certain chemical species. Pick out the catalyst in the following
mechanism.
step 1: Fe3+ + 2I Fe2+ + I2 and step 2: S2O82 + Fe2+ 2SO42 + Fe3+
A. Fe3+ B. I C. S2O82 D. Fe2+

263. Dinitrogen monoxide (N2O) decomposes at 600oC according to the balanced equation:
2N2O(g) 2N2(g) + O2(g). A reaction mechanism involving three steps is shown below. Pick out
all of the catalysts in the following mechanism.
Cl2(g) 2Cl(g)
N2O(g) + Cl(g) N2(g) + ClO(g) (occurs twice)
ClO(g) + ClO(g) Cl2(g) + O2(g)
A. Cl B. Cl2 C. ClO D. N2O
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

264. Given 0.5 g aluminum at 25oC, the best choice to realise the fastest reaction with gaseous
chlorine will be:
A. 0.5 g aluminum in one sphere.
B. 0.5 g aluminum divided into 10 spheres.
C. 0.5 g aluminum divided into 100 spheres.
D. 0.5 g aluminum divided into 1000 spheres.

265. The units for a first-order rate constant are:


A. M/s B. 1/Ms C. 1/s D. 1/M2s

266. Suppose that the reaction Cl2(g) + 3 F2(g) 2 ClF3(g), is first order in F2 and second order
Cl2. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. If [F2] is doubled, the reaction rate doubles.
B. If [Cl2] is doubled, the reaction rate quadruples (increases by 4x).
C. If both [F2] and [Cl2] are doubled, the reaction rate is 8x.
D. If [F2] is doubled and [Cl2] is cut in half, the rate of the reaction remains the same.

267. Ozone is often produced in the troposphere (the layer of air nearest the earths surface).
Several investigations indicate that one way it can be produced is by the following sequence of
reactions:
The overall reaction is 3/2 O2 O3 (all gaseous):
NO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) NO2(g)
NO2(g) + light NO(g) + O(g)
O2(g) + O(g) O3(g)
Which of the following is TRUE?
A. There are no reaction intermediates.
B. NO(g) is the only reaction intermediate.
C. NO(g) is a catalyst.
D. Both NO(g) and O(g) are catalysts.

268. A change in temperature from 10C to 20C is found to double the rate of a given chemical
reaction. How did this change affect the reacting molecules?
A. It doubled their average velocity.
B. It doubled their average energy.
C. It doubled the number of collisions per second.
D. It doubled the proportion of molecules possessing at least the minimum energy required for the
reaction

269. How would you increase the yield of products at equilibrium in the reaction:
SO2 (g) + NO2 (g) SO3 (g) + NO(g) H = 42 kJ. Assume that all the gases behave ideally.
A. Add a catalyst B. Decrease the volume
C. Increase the volume D. Decrease the temperature

270. The rate equation for a chemical reaction is determined by


A. theoretical calculations.
B. measuring reaction rate as a function of concentration of reacting species.
C. referring to the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
D. measuring reaction rates as a function of temperature
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

271. What is the rate constant for a first order reaction A B given the following data:
Time (s) [A]
------------ -----
0 1.76
6 0.88
12 0.44
18 0.22
A. 0.23 B. 1.0 C. 0.17 D. 0.12

272. Which of the following statements about catalysts is NOT TRUE?


(A) Catalysts are the same as intermediates.
(B) Enzymes are biological catalysts.
(C) Catalysts often provide a different reaction pathway for the reaction.
(D) Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.

273. The ion H 2 PO -4 can act as either an acid or a base. Its conjugate base and acid are
respectively
A. H3PO4 and HPO -24 B. HPO -24 and H3PO4
C. PO-34 and HPO -24 D. H3PO4 and PO-34

274. For the reaction BrO3 + 5Br + 6H+ 3Br2 + 3H2O, [BrO 3- ] / t = 1.5 x 10-2 M/s at a
particular time. What is [Br-]/ t at the same instant?
A. 13 M/s B. 7.5 x 10-2 M/s C. 1.5 x 10-2 M/s D. 3.0 x 10-3 M/s

275. The gas phase reaction X + Y Z has a reaction rate which is experimentally observed to
2
follow the relationship of rate = k[X] [Y]. If the concentration of X is tripled and the concentration of Y
is doubled, the reaction rate would be increased by a factor of:
A. 6 B. 9 C. 12 D. 18

276. It takes 42 min for the concentration of a reactant in a first-order reaction to drop from 0.45 M to
0.32 M at 25oC. How long will it take for the reaction to be 90% complete?
A. 284 min B. 86 min C. 137 min D. 222 min

277. Eigen function of an electron is


(A) de-Broglies concept (B) Schrodingers concept
(C) Sommerfields concept (D) Heisenbergs concept

278. A certain first-order reaction A B is 25% complete in 42 min at 25oC. What is its rate
constant for the reaction?
A. 6.8 x 10-3 min-1 B. 8.3 x 10-3 min-1
C. 3.3 x 10-2 min-1 D. -3.3 x 10-2 min-1
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

279. Nitric oxide gas (NO) reacts with chlorine gas according to the equation: NO + 1/2Cl2 NOCl
The following initial rates of reaction have been measured for the given reagent concentrations.
Expt.# Rate (M/hr) NO (M) Cl2 (M)
1 1.19 0.50 0.50
2 4.79 1.00 0.50
3 9.59 1.00 1.0
Which of the following is the rate law (rate equation) for this reaction?
A. rate = k[NO] B. rate = k[NO][Cl2]1/2
C. rate = k[NO][Cl2] D. rate = k[NO]2[Cl2]

280. The total number of magnetic quantum numbers possible for an value of 3 are
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 6

281. The magnetic moment of Mn+2 (at.no. 25) is 5.92 BM. Number of unpaired electrons in the ion is
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3

282. The four quantum numbers of the valence electron of potassium atom (at.no. 19) are
(A) 4, 0, 1, 1/2 (B) 4, 1, 0, 1/2 (C) 4, 0, 0, 1/2 (D) 4, 1, 1, 1/2

283. Bohrs model of H-atom could not explain


(A) Zeeman effect (B) Stark effect (C) Fine structure of H spectrum (D) All the three

284. Splitting of spectral lines of H-atom in presence of electric field is called


(A) Stark effect (B) Zeeman effect (C) Compton effect (D) photoelectric effect

285. The element with (n-2)f7 (n-1)d1 ns2electronic configuration is a/an


(A) Inert element (B) representative element
(C) Inner transition element (D)Transition element

286. The polar nature of the covalent bond formed between two elements depends on their
(A) Ionisation potentials (B) Electronegativities
(C) Electron affinities (D) Oxidation potentials

287. The kinetic energy of a molecule at -273C is


(A) 8.2 Joules (B) 0 Joules (C) Maximum (D) Cannot be predicted
300. According to Fajans rule a covalent bond is favoured by
(A) Small cation and large anion (B) Small cation and small anion
(C) Large cation and large anion (D) Large cation and small anion

288. The banana bond in diborane is formed by


(A) 2-atoms and 3-electrons (B) 3-atoms and 2-electrons
(C) 3-atoms and 3-electrons (D) 2-atoms and 2-electrons

289. Hydrogen bond is formed between


(A) Two H atoms
(B) H atom and an electropositive atom
(C) H atom and an electronegative atom of small size
(D) H atom and an electronegative atom of large size
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

290. Gas-phase unimolecular decomposition reactions can take place as follows:


k * * k * k
(i) A + A 1
A + A (ii) A + A 1
A+ A (iii) A 2
Products .
The effect of pressure (P) on the order of the overall reaction is
(A) 1st order at higher P and 2nd order at lower P (C) Order does not change
nd st
(B) 2 order at higher P and 1 order at lower P (D) need more information

291. `a g of hydrogen and 16 g of oxygen occupy same volume at the same temperature and
pressure.
The weight of hydrogen in g is
(A) 2 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 1

292. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 2.4 g of that gas at STP will be
(A) 11.2 L (B) 2.24L (C) 1.2L (D) 2,4L

293. A gaseous mixture contains 4.0 g of H2 and 56 g of N2. The mole fraction of H2 in the mixture is
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 0.5 (D) 2.0

294. A vessel contains n1 moles of H2 and n2 moles of CO2. If P is the total pressure, then partial
pressure of CO2 is
n2 1 n2 n1 + n2 n1
(A) (B) P (C) P (D) P
n1 + n2 P n1 + n2 n2 n2

295. Equal weights of CH4 and H2 are mixed in an empty vessel at a temperature K. The fraction of
total pressure exerted by CH4 is
16 8 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17 9 17 9

296. The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O2 because the H2O molecule has
(A) fewer electrons than O2 (B) two covalent bonds (C) V-shape (D) dipole moment

297. If the pressure and absolute temperature of 2 litres of CO2 double the volume of CO2 would
become
(A) 2L (B) 4L (C) 5L (D) 8L

298. In the reaction 2Na2S2O3+ I2 Na2S4O6 + 2NaI, the equivalent of sodium thiosulphate is
(A) Mol.wt/2 (B) Mol.wt (C) Mol.wt/4 (D) Mol.wt/3

299. When 1 g of CaCO3 is dissolved in excess dilute acid, the volume of CO2 evolved at STP will be
(A) one litre (B) 224 cc (C) 22.4L (D) 2.24L

300. An organic compound contains 71% chlorine, 4% hydrogen and 25% carbon. Its molecular
weight is 99. Its empirical formula is
(A) CH3Cl (B) C2H4Cl2 (C) C3H4Cl2 (D) CH2Cl2

301. An organic compound has an empirical formula CH2O. Its V.D. is 30. The molecular formula of
the compound is
(A) C4H3O4 (B) C2H4O2 (C) C2H5O (D) C2H5O2
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

302. In which of the following reactions H2O2 acts as a reducing agent?


(A) PbS + 4H2O2 PbSO4 + 4H2O (B) Na2SO3 + H2O2 Na2SO4 + H2O
(C) Ag2O(moist) + H2O2 2Ag + H2O + O2 (D) 2KI + H2O2 + H2SO4 K2SO4 + I2 + H2O

303. In the reaction C2O42 + MnO4 + 8H + Mn+2 + 2CO2 + H 2O the reductants are
2 2
(A) MnO4 and H + (B) H + only (C) MnO4 and C2O4 (D) C2O4 and H +

304. Oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7 is


(A) +4 (B) +5 (C) +6 (D) +7

305. In the reaction Br2 BrO3 , the change in the oxidation number of bromine atom is
(A) 0 to +5 (B) 0 to +7 (C) +1 to +6 (D) -2 to +5

306. The oxidation number of sulphur in Na2S4O6 is


(A) -2.5 (B) -10 (C) +2.5 (D) +10

307. Endothermic reaction among the following is


(A) 2H2 + O2 2H2O (B) 3O2 + C2H5OH 2CO2 + 3H2O
(C) N2 + O2 2NO (D) 2NaOH + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + 2H2O

308. The complex species in which the oxidation state of the metal is zero is
(A) [Fe(CN6)]4- (B) [CrH2O6]+3 (C) [Cu(NH3)4]+2 (D) [Ni(CO)4]

309. Liquid benzene burns in O2 according to the reaction 2C6H6 + 15O2(g) 12CO2(g)+6H2O(g).
How many litres of O2 are required for complete combustion of 39g of liquid benzene
(A) 11.2 (B) 42 (C) 22.4 (D) 84

310. Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, property same for H2 and D2 is
(A) rate of reaction with other substances (B) average kinetic energy per mole
(C) most probable velocity (D) maximum density

311. A non-planar, non-linear molecule among the following is


(A) CO2 (B) H2O2 (C) SO2 (D) H2O

312. Vapour pressure of solution of a non-volatile solute is


(A) directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
(B) inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solute
(C) inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
(D) directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solute

313. The fine structure in the vibrational and rotational spectra of gases can be classified as P
branch, Q branch and R branch depending on the contribution from rotational levels (frequency r )
to the vibrational levels (frequency o ). These P, Q and R branch spectra correspond to transitions:
(A) P: o + r , Q: o - r and R: o (B) P: o - r , Q: o and R: o + r
(C) P: o - r , Q: o + r and R: o (D) P: o , Q: o + r and R: o - r
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

314. IUPAC name for OHC CHO IS


(A) ethanedial (B) glyoxal (C) dialdehyde (D) none

315. IUPAC name of CH3


|
CH3 (CH 2 )4 CH C CH 2 CH 2 CH3 is
| |
CH3 CH 2CH 3
(A) 3,4 dimethyl-3-n-propyl nonane (B) 4,5 dimethyl-4-ethyl decane
(C) 6,7 dimethyl-7-n-propyl nonane (D) 6,7 dimethyl-7-ethyl decane

316. The most stable species is


+
(A) H 3C (B) CH 3CH 2 (C) (CH 3 ) 2 C H (D)

317. The shape of carbanion resembles the shape of


(A) CH4 (B) NH3 (C) H2O (D) C6H6

318. Which of the following compounds can exist as optical isomers?


(A) CH3 CH COOH (B) CH3 CH COOH
|
CH3 C2 H5

(C) CH 3 C (OH ) COOH (D) CH2 (OH ) COOH


|
CH3

319. The product formed during the addition of HBr to CH 3 CH = CH 2 in the presence of H2O2 is
(A) CH 3 CH CH 3 (B) CH3 CH 2 CH 2 Br
|
Br

(C) CH2 = CH CH2 Br (D) Br CH = CH CH2

320. The presence of double bond is detected by treating the compound with
(A) Fehlings reagent (B) Tollens reagent (C) Baeyers reagent (D) Grignard reagent

321. Conversion of benzene to m-chloronitrobenzene is effected by


(A) simultaneous chlorination and nitration (B) first chlorination and then nitration
(C) first nitration and then chlorination (D) none of these

322. In metal-ligand complexes transition metal ions function as


(A) Bronsted bases (B) Lewis bases
C) Lewis acids (D) Bronsted acids
QB-Chemistry-KLR2


323. The colour of MnO4 is due to
(A) charge transfer (B) d-d transition
(C) d-p transition (D) unpaired d electrons

324. Number of moles of AgNO3 required to precipitate completely the chloride ions of one mole of
aqueous [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 solution is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

325. The effective atomic number of Cr in [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is (at.no. of Cr = 24)


(A) 36 (B) 35 (C) 33 (D) 27

326. The magnetic moment of Sc+3 is (at.no. of Sc = 21)


(A) zero BM (B) 1.73 BM (C) 2.6 BM (D) 3.4 BM

327. The liquid having highest vapour pressure among the following is
(A) para nitro phenol (B) ortho nitro phenol
(C) meta nitro phenol (D) all three will have equal vapour pressure

328. The molarity of 1.5N H3PO4 is


(A) 1.5M (B) 0.5M (C) 4.5M (D) 2M

329. Vapour pressure of solution of a non-volatile solute is


(A) directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
(B) inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solute
(C) inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
(D) directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solute

330. A non-volatile solute (A) is dissolved in volatile solvent (B). The vapour pressure of the resultant
0
solution is Ps. The vapour pressure of the pure solvent is p B . If X denotes mole fraction of the
component, the correct statement is
(A) ps = pB0 ( X A ) (B) ps = pB0 ( X B )
(C) p B0 = ps ( X A ) (D) p B0 = ps ( X B )

331. Lowering of vapour pressure of a binary aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute at 100C, if
the mole fraction of the solute is 0.01 is
(A) 7.6 mm (B) 7.0 mm (C) 0.76 mm (D) 0.70 mm

332. x g of a non-volatile solute of molecular weight 60 is dissolved in 90 g of water. The relative


lowering of vapour pressure is 0.02. The value of x is
(A) 4.12 (B) 6.12 (C) 8.12 (D) 10.12

333. In the reaction HCl + H 2O H 3O + + Cl , conjugate acid-base pair is

(A) HCl H2O (B) HCl H 3O + (C) HCl Cl (D) Cl H 2O

334. Nucleophiles are Lewis


(A) salts (B) bases (D) acids (D) both acids and salts
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

335. The concentrations of salt and weak acid are 0.01M and 0.1M respectively. PKa of weak acid is
5.8. The pH of the buffer is
(A) 4.8 (B) 5.8 (C) 6.3 (D) 6.8

336. The pKa of a weak acid is 4.8. What is the ratio of [salt]/[acid], if a buffer solution of pH = 5.8 is
to be prepared?
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:10 (C) 2:1 (D) 10:1

337. H + ion concentration of a weak acid of concentration C and dissociation constant Ka is equal to
(A) C / Ka (B) Ka C (C) Ka / C (D) C 2 Ka

338. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic because of


(A)anionic hydrolysis (B) cationic hydrolysis
(C) no hydrolysis (D) ionization

339. The final stable end product in the radioactive decay series of 232Th is
(A) 206Pb (B) 207Pb (C) 208Pb (D) 209Bi

340. The conjugate acid of N 3 (azide) ion is


(A) NH3 (B) HN3 (C) NH2 (D) N 2

341. The correct order of increasing basic strength of ClO4 , Cl andCH 3COO is
(A) ClO4 < Cl < CH 3COO (B) ClO4 > Cl > CH 3COO

(C) Cl < ClO4 < CH 3COO (D) CH 3COO < Cl < ClO4

342. The units of k for second order reaction are


(A) mol-1 lit-1 sec-1 (B) mol-1 lit sec-1 (C) mol-1 lit-1 sec (D) mol.lit.sec

343. The half-life period is independent of initial concentration of the reactants in reactions of
(A) Third order (B) second order (C) first order (D) zero order

344. The activation energy of the forward reaction of A + B C + D is 50 kcals. H of the


backward reaction is 30 kcals. The activation energy of the backward reaction is
(A) -20 kcals (B) 20 kcals (C) 30 kcals (D) 80 kcals

345 In the reaction 4 NH 3 + 5O2 4 NO + 6 H 2O , the rate of formation of NO is 1 x 10-3 moles.lire-


1
.sec-1. The rate of disappearance of O2 is
(A) 4 x 10-3 (B) 5 x 10-3 (C) 1.25 x 10-3 (D) 0.8 x 10-3

2 3
346 The rate equation for a reaction is rate = k[ A] [ B ] . How many times the rate of reaction is
increased if the concentrations of both A and B are doubled?
(A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 13 (D) 32

347 Time required for 75% completion of first order reaction is 200 min. The value of first order rate
constant is
(A) 3.46 x 10-3 min-1 (B) 6.93 x 10-3 min-1 (C) 3.46 x 10-2 min-1 (D) 6.93 x 10-2 min-1
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

348 The value of energy of activation for radioactive decay is


(A) almost zero (B) low (C) moderate (D) high

349. A + B products. On doubling the concentration of A, rate gets doubles. Doubling the
concentration of A and B also doubles the rate. The order of the reaction with respect to A and B is
(A) 1, 0 (B) 0,1 (C) 1, 1 (D) 1, 2

350. The units of equiulibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO (g) is
(A) moles/lit (B) (moles/lit)2 (C) lit/mole (D) no units

351. Identify the even function among the following:


(A) Cos(x) (B) Sin(x) (C) Tan(x) (D) Log(x)

352. For which of the following reactions H = E + 2RT


(A) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) (B) NH4HS (s) NH3 (g) + H2S (g)
(C) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) (D) N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO (g)

353. The heat of neutralization of all strong acid (SA) and strong base (SB) reactions is always 13.7
kcals because
(A) both are strong electrolytes (B) H2O is formed in all reactions
+ -
(C) the common reaction is H + OH H2O (D) need more information

354. The standard potentials of X+/X and Y+/Y are 0.34V and 1.66V respectively. Which of the
following reactions is likely to occur in the cell constructed from the electrodes?
(A) Y + X+ Y+ + X (B) X + Y+ X+ + Y
(C) X+ + Y+ + 2e- X + Y (D) X + Y X+ + Y+ +2e-


355. CHCl3 + Ag X . In this reaction X is
(A) CH2=CH2 (B) CH3CH2 (C) C2H5Cl (D) HCHC

356. When diethyl ether absorbs oxygen the product is


(A) ehoxide (B) ether peroxide (C) ethyl alcohol (D) acetic acid

357. The reagent that can distinguish aldehydes from ketones is


(A) Schiffs reagent (B) Fehlings solution (C) Tollens reagent (D) all

358. At room temperature, in the presence of traces of conc. H2SO4, acetaldehyde polymerizes to
(A) paraldehyde (B) metaldehyde (C) paraformaledehyde (D) none

aq . NaOH Na2Cr2 O7 ( C2 H 5O )3 Al
359. C2 H 5 Br X
H SO
Y Z . The product Z is
2 4

(A) acetaldehyde (B) acetic acid


(C) propionic acid (D) ethyl acetate

360. On heating aniline with acetic anhydride, the product formed is


QB-Chemistry-KLR2

361. In the following reaction, identify the reagents X and Y

(A) NH3 and H2SO4 (B) H2SO4/HNO3 and NH3/NH-2


(C) NaNO2/HCl and NH3/NH-2 (D) (CH3CO)2 and NH3/NH-2

362. In the reaction, X + Y XY, it was found that only X and the product XY have absorption
bands. Following absorption curves were obtained for varying concentrations of Y at a
constant concentration of X. The points A and B are known as

(A) Cross over points


(B) Null points
(C) Isosbestic points
(D) None of these

( x 2 + x 6) 2
363. The value of Lim
x2 ( x 2) 2
is

(A) 25 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 16

364. For metal carbonyls the stretching frequencies of CO ligands attached to a given metal atom will
follow the order:
(A) CO (free carbonyl) > CO (terminal carbonyl) > CO (bridging carbonyl)
(B) CO (bridging carbonyl) > CO (terminal carbonyl) > CO (free carbonyl)
(C) CO (terminal carbonyl) > CO (free carbonyl) > CO (bridging carbonyl)
(D) CO (free carbonyl) > CO (bridging carbonyl) > CO (terminal carbonyl)

365. The Russell-Saunders free ion ground state terms for V+3 and Ni+2 are
(A) 2D and 3F (B) 3
F and 2D (C) 4
F for both (D) 3
F for both

366. The number of degrees of freedom at the eutectic point for a two-component binary system is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

367. A certain compound has two allotropic modifications, one having the face-centered cubic and
the other having body-centered cubic structures. Assuming that the standard enthalpies of formation
of the two allotropes are same irrespective of temperature, which of the allotropes would exist at
higher temperature?
(A) Face-centered cubic (B) Body-centered cubic
(C) Equal mixture of both forms (D) Need more information to predict

368. A 2% solution of a non-electrolyte x is isotonic with a 1% solution of urea (mol.wt. = 60). The
mol. Wt. of x is
(A) 60 (B) 30 (C) 120 (D) 180
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

369. Order of basicity in the following compounds is


(A) p-nitrophnol < aniline < phenol (B) p-nitrophenol < phenol < aniline
(C) aniline < phenol < p-nitrophenol (D) phenol < aniline < p-nitrophenol

370. A paramagnetic substance is adiabatically de-magnetised. The temperature of the system will
(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) remains constant
(D) either increase or decrease depending on the magnetic moment of the substance

371 Point out the wrong statement


(A) A compound whose molecules are chiral can exist as enantiomers
(B) Stereoisomers that are not images of each other are called diastereomers
(C) All molecules containing chiral centers are chirals
(D) The presence or absence of a chiral center is not a criterion of chirality

372. Eigenfunction of the operator d/dx is


ax ( ax2 )
(A) e (B) e (C) Cos(ax) (D) none of these

373. An electron is confined in a box of length of 1nm. The probability of locating the electron
between
x = 0 and x = 0.2nm is
(A) 1 in 100 (B) 1 in 20 (C) 1 in 50 (D) zero

374. Average speed (cav), rms speed (crms) and most probable speed (cmp) of gas molecules are in
the order
(A) cmp < cav < crms (B) cmp > cav > crms C) cmp < cav = crms (D) cmp = cav > crms

375. Scattering of rays by a small particle and the accompanying recoil of particle is called
(A) Compton effect (B) Photoelectric effect (C) Zeeman effect (D) Tyndall effect

376. Specific configuration in the case of an enantiomer of 2,3-dichloropentane is

(A) 2S, 3S (B) 2R, 3R (C) 2S, 3R (D) 2R, 3S

377. The compound having the weakest intermolecular forces is


(A) CCl4 (B) CHCl3 (C) Br2 (D) Cl2

378. Generally the branched-chain isomer has a lower boiling point than a straight chain isomer.
This is due to
(A) Branched isomers tend to become spherical with smaller surface area resulting in weak
intermolecular forces
(B) Bond strengths in the branched isomers are weaker
(C) Bonds at the branched carbon atoms only are weaker
(D) Size of the branchedchain isomer is smaller than that of the straight-chain isomer
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

379. The expectation value <A>, of any observable is related to the wave function of the system
through

A d d
* *

(A) < A >= (B) < A >=


d A d
* *

(C) < A >= A d


*
(D)
*

380. The substance which conducts electricity when it is in the molten state but does not when it is in
the solid state is
(A) potassium chloride (B) silica (SiO2) (C) sulphur (D) zinc

381. The pressure exerted by 0.1 mole of an ideal gas enclosed in a rigid container at 50C is 5
atmospheres. If the temperature of the container is increased to 100C, new pressure of the gas ill be
(A) 2.5 atm (B) 5.8 atm (C) 10.0 atm (D) 100 atm

382. Ozone gas (O3) decomposes according to the following reaction 2 O3(g) 3 O2(g).
The pressure of a certain amount of ozone gas contained in a rigid container at 250C is 1.2
atmospheres. New pressure of the gas if all the ozone (O3) is converted to oxygen (O2) keeping the
temperature at 250 C will be
(A) 0.8 atm (B) 1.2 atm (C) 1.8 atm (D) 2.4 atm

383. 0.10 mole of each of NO and NO2 gases are filled into two separate closed identical cylinders
and heated to exactly the same temperature. Assuming both NO and NO2 behave as ideal gases
correct statement is: (Molar mass, g mol-1 : NO = 30.0; NO2 46.0)
(A) The mass of the gas in two cylinders is identical
(B) The pressure of the gas in the two cylinders is identical
(C) The pressure in the NO cylinder is higher than that in the NO2 cylinder
(D) The pressure in the NO2 cylinder is higher than that in the NO cylinder

384. Sodium metal reacts with chlorine gas forming sodium chloride according to the following
reaction
2Na(s) + Cl2(g) 2NaCl(s), Volume of Cl2(g) at STP reacting with 2.0 moles of Na(s) will be:
(A) 1.0 L (B) 2.0 L (C) 22.4 L (D) 44.8 L

385. The postulate NOT basic to kinetic theory of gases is


(A) Molecules in a gas have negligible volume
(B) Particles of a gas repel each other
(C) The gas particles have no attractive forces
(D) Pressure of a gas originates from the collision of the gas particles against the walls

386. The correct statement about graphite and diamond is


(A) They have the same crystal lattice structure
(B) They have the same degree of hardness
(C) They have the same electrical conductivity
(D) They can undergo the same chemical reactions

387. Enough water is added to 5.0 mL of the 4.0 mol L-1 HCl to make 50.0 mL of solution. The
concentration of H+ in mol L-1 in the 50.0 mL solution will be
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.50 (C) 4.0 (D) 5.0
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

388. Two atoms, A and B, have valence shell electron configurations of s2p4 and s2. Best
representation of the expected nature of a compound formed between A and B is
(A) covalent molecular (B) covalent network
(C) ionic (D) molecular gas

389. The electron configuration representing an element which belongs to Period 2 of the Periodic
Table and forms a monoatomic ion with a charge of 3- will be
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p1 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p3
2 2 6 2 1
(C) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p (D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

390. The molecular geometry of both COCl2 and SO3 is trigonal planar (triangular planar)

The true statement is:


(A) SO3 is non-polar whereas COCl2 is polar (B) Both COCl2 and SO3 are non-polar
(C) Both COCl2 and SO3 are polar (D) COCl2 is non-polar whereas SO3 is polar

391. 0.016 mol of magnesium chloride (MgCl2) was dissolved in water and then enough water added
to make the final volume of the solution 250.0 mL. The concentration (mol L-1) of Cl in the resulting
solution will be
(A) 0.040 (B) 0.080 (C) 0.064 (D) 0.128

392. The frequency of OH stretching vibration in CH3OH is 3300 cm-1. The frequency of OD vibration
in CH3OD will be
(A) 4401 cm-1 (B) 3401 cm -1 (C) 2401 cm-1 (D) 1401 cm -1.

393. Bonding that best describes the forces that allow nitrogen to condense to
the liquid state is
(A) covalent bonding (B) hydrogen bonding
(C) intermolecular bonding (D) intramolecular bonding

394. The Lewis structure of CO32 is as indicated:


The molecular geometry of CO32 is
(A) angular (B) tetrahedral
(C) trigonal planar (D) trigonal pyramidal

395. The Lewis structure of SO2 is

The correct statements about SO2 is


(A) SO2 has a dipole moment (B) SO2 has a linear molecular geometry
(C) SO2 is non-polar (D) SO2 forms an ionic solid

396. All of the following substances are at normal conditions (room temperature and standard
pressure). The substances having the strongest intermolecular interactions is
(A) Chlorine (g) (B) Iodine (s) (C) Helium (g) (D) Carbon Tetrachloride (l)
QB-Chemistry-KLR2

397. A cubic unit cell of iron contains 2 atoms per unit cell. The coordination number of one iron atom
is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12

398. The incorrect statement concerning a face-centered cubic unit cell and the corresponding
lattice, made up of identical atoms is
(A) Atoms at the corners touch those on the faces but not each other.
(B) The coordination number of the atoms in the lattice is 8.
(C) There are 4 atoms per unit cell in this type of packing.
(D) The face diagonal of the unit cell has a length equal to four atomic radii.

399. Among the following quantities, largest (most positive) would be


(A) H (vap) (B) H (fusion) (C) H (sublimation) (D) H (condensation)

400. Among temperature (T), volume (V), and density (), intensive property(ies) is(are)
(A) Temperature (B) Volume (C) both T and V (D) T and

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