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ELECTRICAL QUESTION
1. A circuit breaker is
(A) power factor correcting device
(B) a device to neutralize the effect of transients
(C) a waveform correcting device
(D) a current interrupting device.
Get Answer:
D
2. The function of protective relay in a circuit breaker is

(A) to each any stray voltages
(B) to close the contacts when the actuating quantity reaches a certain predetermined value
(C) to limit arcing current during the operation of circuit breaker
(D) to provide additional safety in the operation of circuit breaker.
Get Answer:
B
3. Low voltage circuit breakers have rated voltage of less than

(A) 220 V
(B) 400V
(C) 1000 V
(D) 10,000 V.
4. The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker is usually

(A) few minutes
(B) few seconds
(C) one second
(D) few cycles of supply voltage.
5. The medium employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker is

(A) SF6
(B) Oil
(C) Air
(D) Water.
6. Which of the following circuit breakers is preferred for EHT application

(A) Air blast circuit breakers
(B) Minimum oil circuit breakers
(C) Bulk oil circuit breakers
(D) SF6 oil circuit breakers.
7. For high voltage, ac circuit breakers, the rated short circuit current is passed for
(A) 0.01 sec
(B) 0.1 sec
(C) 3 seconds
(D) 30 seconds.
8. Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit breakers ?
(A) Electro-magnetic
(B) Electro-pneumatic
(C) Pneumatic
(D) Vacuum.
9. Interrupting medium in a contactor may be

(A) air
(B) oil
(C) SF6 gas
(D) any of the above.
Get Answer: (Show)

D
10. In air blast circuit breakers, the pressure of air is of the order of
(A) 100 mm Hg
(B) 1 kg/cm2
(C) 20 to 30 kg/cm2
(D) 200 to 300 kg/cm2 .
11. SF6 gas is

(A) sulphur fluoride
(B) sulphur difluoride
(C) sulphur hexafluorine
(D) sulphur hexafluoride.
12. SF6 gas

(A) is yellow in color
(B) has pungent odor
(C) is highly toxic
(D) is non-inflammable.
13. SF6 gas

(A) is lighter than hydrogen
(B) is lighter than air
(C) has density 2-times as compared to that of air
(D) has density 5 limes as compared to that of air.
14. The pressure of SF6 gas in circuit breakers is of the order of

(A) 100 mm Hg
(B) 1 kg/cm2
(C) 3 to 5 kg/cm2
(D) 30 to 50 kg/cm2.
15. While selecting a gas for circuit breaker, the property of gas that should be considered is
(A) high dielectric strength
(B) non-inflammability
(C) non-toxicity
(D) all of the above.
D
1.D ----- 2.B ----- 3.C ----- 4.D ----- 5.C ----- 6.D ----- 7.C ----- 8.D -----9.D -----10.C -----11.D ----- 12.D
-----13.D -----14.C ----- 15.D
ELECTRICAL QUESTION
1. A circuit breaker is (A) power factor correcting device (B) a device to neutralize the effect of
transients (C) a waveform correcting device (D) a current interrupting device. Get Answer: ( Hide ) D 2.
The function of protective relay in a circuit bre..
Transformer
1. In a transformer
(a) All turns are equally insulated (b) The end turns are more strongly insulated
(c) The end turns are closely wound (d) The end turns are widely separated
2. Laminated insulations coated with varnish are normally used in the transformer
(a) To reduce reluctance of magnetic path
(b) To reduce the effect of eddy current
(c) To increase the reluctance of magnetic path
(d) To reduce the hysteresis effect
3. The required thickness of lamination in a transformer decreases when

(a) The applied frequency increases (b) The applied frequency decreases
(c) The applied voltage increases (d) The applied voltage decreases
4. Oil in transformer is used to

(a) Transfer electrical energy (b) Insulate the windings
(c) Cool the windings (d) None of the above
5. The following arrangement will reduce the reluctance of magnetic path of the
transformer.
6. The windings of a transformer are divided into several coils because
(a) It is difficult to wind as one coil (b) It reduces voltage per coil
(c) It requires less insulation (d) None of the above
7. The size and construction of bushings in a transformer depend upon the

(a) Size of winding (b) Size of tank
(c) Current flowing (d)Voltage supplied
8. Transformer humming sound is reduced by the

(a) Proper bracing of transformers assemblies
(b) Proper insulation
(c) Proper design
(d) Proper design of winding
9. Sludge in transformer oil is due to

(a) Decomposition of oil (b) Decomposition of insulation
(c) Moisture content in oil (d) None of the above
10. A transformer used only for electrical isolation between two circuits has turns ratio
which is
(a) More than unity (b) Less than unity (c) Equal to unity (d) More than 0.5
11. If 90 per cent of normal voltage and 90 per cent of normal frequency are applied
to a transformer, the per cent charge in hysteresis losses will be
(a) 20% (b) 4.7% (c) 19% (d) 21%
12. If 110 per cent of normal voltage and 110 per cent of normal frequency is applied
to a transformer, the percentage change of eddy current losses will be
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 21%
13. A transformer has two 2,400 V primary coils and two 240 V coils. By proper
connection of the windings, the transformation ratio that can be obtained is
(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 20 (d) 9
14. A single-phase, 2,200/200 V transformer takes 1 A at the HT side or no load at

a power factor of 0.385 lagging. The iron losses are
(a) 167 W (b) 77 W (c) 88 W (d) 98 W
15. Neglecting resistance, at constant flux density, the power required per kilogram to
magnetize the iron core of a transformer is 0.8 W at 25 Hz and 2.04 W at 60 Hz. The
power required per kilogram for 100 Hz is
(a) 3.8 W (b) 3.63 W (c) 3.4 W (d) 5.2 W
16. Select the correct statement:

(a) emf per turn of both the windings are equal
(b) emf per turn in HV winding is more than the emf per turn in LV winding
(c) emf per turn in HV winding is less than the emf per turn in LV winding
17. The flux involved in the emf equation of a transformer has

(a) rms value (b) Average value (c) Total value (d) Maximum value
18. The no-load current in a transformer lags the applied voltage by

(a) 90 95 (b) About 80 85 (c) 0 15 (d) About 110
19. High leakage impedance transformers are used for applications such as
(a) Power distribution (b) Electrical toys
(c) Arc welding (d) Fluorescent lamps
20. A transformer 2,000 kVA, 250 Hz is operated at 50 Hz. Its kVA rating should be
revised to
(a) 400 kVA (b) 10,000 kVA
(c) 2,000 kVA (d) Cannot be revised
21. The transformer which will have the largest size is

(a) 100 kVA, 25 Hz (b) 100 kVA, 100 Hz
(c) 100 kVA, 50 Hz (d) 100 kVA, 60 Hz
22. The magnetic flux of a transformer follows

(a) High reluctance path (b) Low reluctance path
(c) Low conductivity path (d) High conductivity path
23. The efficiency of a transformer is usually in the range of

(a) 5060% (b) 6575%
(c) 7090% (d) 9098%
24. Transformer is laminated to reduce

(a) Hystersis loss (b) Eddy current loss
(c) Partly (a) and partly (b) (d) Increases exciting current
25. Transformer changes the value of

(a) Power (b) Frequency
(c) Voltage (d) Current
26. Transfer of electrical power from primary to secondary in a transformer takes place
(a) Electrically (b) Electromagnetically
(c) Magnetically (d) None of these
27. The thickness of a 50 Hz transformer lamination is

(a) 0.35 cm (b) 0.35 mm
(c) 0.33 m (d) 0.30 cm
28. A power transformer is a constant

(a) Current device (b) Voltage device
(c) Power device (d) Main flux device
29. The value of flux in the emf equation of a transformer is

(a) rms (b) Average
(c) Maximum (d) Integral wave cycle
30. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon the value of

(a) Load current (b) Supply frequency
(c) Mutual flux (d) None of these
31. The voltage regulation of a transformer at full-load 0.8 power factor lag is 6 per
cent. Its voltage regulation at full-load 0.8 power factor lead will be
(a) Negative (b) 54% (c) Positive (d) Zero
32. The full-load efficiency of a transformer at 0.85 p.f. lag is 97 per cent. Its efficiency
at full load 0.85 bpower factor lead will be
(a) 99% (b) 96% (c) 97% (d) 98%
33. If a load on secondary side of a transformer increases, the current on the primary
side
(a) Remains constant (b) Increases (c) Decreases (d) None of these
34. If a sinusoidal exciting current is applied to a transformer, the mutual flux

produced is
(a) Negative (b) Sinusoidal (c) Zero (d) Flat top
35. To get sinusoidal flux in a transformer the mutual flux produced is

(a) Non-sinusoidal (b) Sinusoidal (c) Direct current (d) Zero
36. A 220V, 150V bulb is connected in series with the primary of a 220/1,100 V, 50 Hz
transformer. If the load on the secondary side is disconnected, the brightness of the bulb
will
(a) Decrease (b) Increase
(c) Be unaffected (d) Decrease to a very low value
37. The open circuit test of a transformer gives information about

(a) Core losses of the transformer (b) Cu losses of the transformer
(c) Exciting current (d) None of these
38. The short circuit test of a transformer gives the information of

(a) Cu losses of the transformer (b) Core losses of the transformer
(c) Winding circuit impedance (d) None of these
39. During testing of a transformer

(a) Both SC and OC tests are performed at rated current
(b) Both SC and OC tests are performed at rated voltage
(c) OC test is performed at rated voltage
(d) SC test is performed at rated current

40. All-day efficiency of a transformer is
(a) Equal to its power efficiency (b) Less than its power efficiency
(c) More than its power efficiency (d) None of these
41. Routine efficiency of a transformer depends upon the value of

(c) Power factor of load (d) Both (a) and (b)
42. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because ferrites have
(a) Lower permeability (b) High hysteresis
(c) Alnico as the main constituent (d) High resistance
43. The maximum regulation of a transformer occurs at a power factor of

(a) Unity (b) (c) (d)
44. The zero of regulation of a transformer occurs at a power factor of

(a) Zero (b) (c) (d)
45. Circular coil sections are used because they

(a) Reduce iron material (b) Reduce copper material
(c) Have the strongest mechanical shape (d) All of these
46. A transformer is connected to a constant voltage source. If the supply frequency

decreases, the magnetic flux in the core will
(a) Increase towards saturation (b) Decrease
(c) Remain unchanged (d) None of these
47. The power in autotransformer is transferred through

(a) Inductive process (b) Convection process
(c) Conduction process (d) All of these
48. The cross-sectional area of the common portion of an autotransformer is

(a) Kept constant (b) Proportionally decreased
(c) Proportionally increased (d) None of these
49. The efficiency of an autotransformer for the same output compared to a two-
winding transformer is
(a) Greater (b) Lesser (c) Poor (d) None of these
50. The condition for successful parallel operation of transformer is

(a) Correct polarity
(b) Per unit impedance based on their rating should be equal
(c) Identical voltage and frequency rating
(d) Equal ratio of equivalent resistance to reactance
(e) All of these
51. During parallel operation of transformers incorrect polarity will result in

(a) Open circuit
(b) Dead short circuit
(c) Regeneration of power
(d) Power factor of transformer will be different from that of the connected load
52. In an autotransformer of voltage ratio and V1 > V2, the fraction of power
transferred inductively is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
53. A 10 kVA, 400/200 V sinlge-phase transformer with 10 per cent impedance draws
a steady short circuit line current of
(a) 50 A (b) 150 A (c) 250 A (d) 350 A
54. A 400/100 V, 10 kVA two-winding transformer is reconnected as an

autotransformer across a suitable voltage source. The maximum kVA is
(a) 50 kVA (b) 15 kVA (c) 12.5 kVA (d) 8.75 kVA
55. An autotransformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 10 kW.

The power transferred inductively from the primary to the secondary is
(a) 10 kW (b) 8 kW (c) 2 kW (d) Zero
56. A single-phase induction regulator is a constant input transformer to obtain smooth

variation of the output voltage by varying the
(a) Ratio of turns between primary and secondary winding
(b) Frequency
(c) Flux-density in the core
(d) Angle between the magnetic forces of the primary and secondary windings
57. In operating a 400 Hz transformer at 50 Hz

(a) Only voltage is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(b) Only kVA is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(c) Both voltage and kVA rating are reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(d) None of the above
58. In performing the short circuit test of a transformer

(a) High-voltage side is usually short-circuited
(b) Low-voltage side is usually short-circuited
(c) Any side is short-circuited with preference
(d) None of these
59. In performing open circuit test of a transformer

(a) High voltage is usually kept open (b) Low voltage is usually kept open
(c) Any side can be kept open (d) None of the above
60. Transformer core usually uses grain-oriented laminated sheets. The grain
orientation reduces
(a) Copper loss (b) Eddy current loss
(c) Hysteresis loss (d) None of the above
61. In the circuit model of a transformer, the core loss is represented as

(a) Series resistance (b) Series inductance
(c) Shunt resistance (d) Shunt inductance
62. While performing short circuit test on a transformer, the impressed voltage
magnitude is kept constant but the frequency is increased. The short circuit current will
(a) Increase1 (b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same (d) None of the above
63. A transformer has a hysteresis loss of 30 W at 240 V, 60 Hz. The hysteresis loss at
200 V, 50 Hz will be
(a) 20.8 W (b) 25 W (c) 30 W (d) 36 W
64. In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the
impressed voltage provided
(a) Only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
(b) Only the core loss is ignored
(c) Both the leakage and impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
(d) Only no-load copper loss is ignored
65. Magnetizing impedance of a transformer is determined by

(a) Short circuit test
(b) Open circuit test
(c) Both open circuit and short circuit tests
(d) None of these
66. A transformer is to be tested at full-load conditions consuming only losses from the
mains. We do
(a) Load test (b) Open circuit and short circuit tests
(c) Back-to-back test (d) None of these
67. In a transformer operating at constant voltage if the input frequency increases the
core loss will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(c) Remain constant (d) Increase as the square of the frequency
68. Grain-oriented laminated sheet steel in a transformer reduces

(c) Hysteresis loss (d) None of above
69. R1 is the resistance of the primary winding of a transformer. The turns ratio in
terms of primary to secondary is a. The equivalent resistance of the primary referred to as
secondary is
(a) R1/a (b) a2 R1 (c) R1/a2 (d) None of these
70. Choose the correct statement:

(a) emf per turn in high-voltage winding is more than the emf per turn in low-voltage winding
(b) emf per turn in both the finding are equal
(c) emf per turn in both the windings are not equal
(d) None of these
71. If E2 and V2 be the induced emf in secondary winding and V2 be the terminal
voltage during load, the regulation of the transformer is given by
(a) (b) (c) (d)
72. One transformer has leakage impedance of 1 + j 4 and 3 + j 4 for its primary
and secondary windings, respectively. The transformer has
(a) Low voltage primary (b) High voltage primary
(c) Medium voltage primary (d) Insufficient data
73. A single-phase transformer has its maximum efficiency at 60 per cent of full load.
At full load copper loss will be
(a) Equal to core loss (b) Less than core loss
(c) More than core loss (d) Zero

74. The flux in a magnetic core is alternating sinusoidally at a frequency of 600 Hz.
The maximum flux density is 2 T and eddy current loss is 15 W. If the frequency is raised
to 800 Hz and maximum flux density reduced to 1.5 T, the eddy current loss will be
(a) Same (b) Reduced to half
(c) Doubled (d) Increased by 50%
75. The core flux in a transformer depends mainly on

(a) Supply voltage
(b) Supply voltage and frequency
(c) Supply voltage, frequency and load
(d) Supply voltage and load but independent of frequency
Answers
1(B) D , 2 (B) , 3 (C) , 4 (C) , 5 ( C) , 6 (B) , 7 (B)(D) , 8 (A) , 9 (A) , 10 (C) ,11 (B) ,
12(D)
13(A) (B) (C),14(B),15(B), 16(A), 17(D), 18(B), 19(C), 20 (A), 21(B),22(B), 23(D),
24(B),25(C)(D).26(B)
27(B), 28(D), 29(C), 30(A), 31(A), 31(C), 33(B),34(D), 35(A), 36(D),37(A)(C), 38(A)(C),
39(C)(D), 40(B)
41(A)(C), 42(D), 43(B),44(B),45(C),46(A), 47(A)(C), 48(B), 49(A), 50(E), 51(B), 52(D),
53(C), 54(A),55(C), 56(D)
57(c), 58(B), 59(A) , 60 (B) , 61(C), 62(B), 63(B), 64(B), 65(B), 66(C), 67(A), 68(C) ,
69(C), 70(B), 71(A), 72(A)
73(C), 74(A), 75(B)
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Biopolar Junction transistor

Bipolar Junction Transistor
Objective Type Question and answer.
1. Transistor is a _______ terminal device.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(a) (d) Both (a) & (b).
2. The Three Terminal of transistor are:
(a) Gate , Collector and emitter
(b) Collector, Base, and Source
(c) Base , Collector & emitter
(d) Base, Gate & Collector
3. The Transistor means ____
(a) Transfer-resistor
(b) Trans-resistor
(c) Tri-resistor
4. BJT is a _____ device.
(a) Unipolar
(b) Bipolar
(c) Multipolar.
5. In Unipolar transistor, the current conduction is due to ____
(a) Minority carriers
(b) Majority carriers
(c) Both minority & majority carriers
6. In bipolar transistor, the current is due to _____

(a) Holes
(b) Electrons
(c) Both Holes & electrons
7. BJT is _____ controlled device.
(a) Field
(b) Voltage
(c) Resistor
(d) Current
8. The types of bipolar junction transistor are.
(a) Ppn, npn
(b) pnp,npn
(C) Npp,ppn
(d) nnp,pnp
9. The middle region of transistor is called
(a) Base
(b) Collector
(c) Emitter
10. The process by which impurities are added to a pure semiconductor.is
(a) Diffusing
(b) Drift
(c) Doping
(d) Mixing.
11. Base of the transistor is always ___ and ____doped
(a) Thick , Lightly
(b) Thin, Lightly
(c) Thin, heavily
12. The collector of a transistor is ___ doped

(a) Heavily
(b) Moderately
(c) Lightly
13. In a transistor the collector region is larger than the emitter region for ______
(a) Better Heat dissipation
(b) Higher value of B
(c) Better amplification
14. Doping concentration is the highest in _____ in a BJT.
(a) Emitter region
(b) Collector region
(c) Base region
(d) All of the above
15. The ___ region has highest thickness than all other regions in a BJT.
(a) Base
(b) Collector
(c) Emitter
16. The arrow in transistor symbol indicates the direction of ____
(a) Conventional emitter current
(b) election current in emitter
(c) Supply current
(d) ans a & b
17. The arrow in the transistor symbol indicates ____ terminal
(a) Base
(b) Collector
(c) Emitter
18 Transistor has ___pn junction
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
19 The depletion region a emitter junction in an unbiased transistor extends more into the region
(a) Collector
(b) Base
(c) Emitter
20. The depletion region at collector junction in an unbiased transistor extends more into the base
Region because it is __ doped
(a) Heavily
(b) Moderately
(c) Lightly
21. Barrier voltage is ___ on the N side.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
22. __ of electrons and holes in the base region constitutes the base current.
(a) Ionization
(b) Recombination
(c) Thermal agitation
23. ___ constitutes the dominant current in a npn transistor.

(a) Holes
(b) Electrons
(c) Both Holes & Electrons
24. ___ is the highest current in any bipolar transistor.
(a) IB
(b) IC
(c) IE
25. The ___ current of a transistor is neither the largest nor the smallest.
(a) Base
(b) Collector
(c) Emitter
26. Which of the following currents are nearly equal to each other
(a) IB & IC
(b) IE & IC
(c) IB & IE
(d) IB,IC & IE
27. For transistor properly biased PnP transistor let IC=10mA and IE=10.2 mA. What is the level of IB?
(a) 0.2 mA
(b) 200 mA
(c) 200 UA
(d) 20.2 mA
28. Holes flow constitutes the dominant current in a _____transistor.
(a) Npn
(b) Pnp
(c) Npn & pnp
29. For operating in the active region the emitter junction should be ___biased and collector
Junction should be ____biased in BJT.
(a) Forward ,forward
(b) Reverse, reverse
(c) Forward, reverse
(d) Reverse, forward
30. The emitter junction is ___ biased for operating BJT in saturation region.
(a) Forward
(b) Reverse
(c) Zero
31. In which region are both the collector base and base emitter junctions forward biased for BJT?
(a) Active
(b) Cut off
(c) Saturation
32. For the BJT to operate in the saturation region the base emitter junction must be
____ biased and the base collector junction must be ___biased
(a) Forward , forward
(b) Forward , reverse
(c) Reverse , reverse
(d) Reverse, forward.
33. At what region of operation is the base emitter junction forward biased and the base collector
Junction reverse biased for BJT.
(a) Saturation
(b) Linear or active
(c) Cut-off
34. Which of the following configurations can a transistor set up?
(a) Common base
(b) Common emitter
(c) Common collector
35. In CB configuration a reverse biased collector junction IC= ____ when the emitter
Is left open.
(a) 0
(b) IE
(c) ICBO
36. ICBO flows from ___ to ____ when emitter is open.
(a) Collector , Base
(b) Base, Collector
(c) Collector , emitter
37. The ___ carriers constitute current ICBO
(a) Both minority and majority
(b) Minority
(c) Majority
38. ICBO current is ___
(a) Greater than IC
(b) Increase with temperature

(c) Less than ICO
(d) Flows when base junction is forward biased.
39. with rise in temp ICBO___
(a) Increase linearly
(b) Doubles of every 10 C
(c) Decrease linearly.
40. The Alpha DC is always
(a) unity
(b) less than unity
(c) greater than unity
41. The = ____
(a) IB/IE
(b) IC/IE
(c) IC/IB
(d) None of the above.
42. Smaller the thickness of the base ____ is the value of dc
(a) Smaller
(b) Larger
(c) Constant.
43. The is the current gain of ____ configuration
(a) CB
(b) CC
(c) CE
44. In CB configuration input resistance is ______
(a) VEB/IE
(b) VCB/IE
(c) VCB/IC
45. The input resistance of CB configuration is measured constant ______
(a) IB
(b) IC
(c) Vcb
(d) Vce
46. The dynamic output resistance of transistor in CB configuration is ___ at constant IE.
(a) VEB/IE
(b) VEB/IC
(c) VCB/IC
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Friday, August 8, 2014
Basic Electronics
Objective Questions from Measurements Instrumentation
[1] A CRO can display
(a) AC signals
(b) DC signals
(c) Both AC and DC signals
(d) Time invariant signals
Ans: C
Answer
[2] The internal resistance of an ammeter should be
(a) Very small
(b) medium
(c) High
(d) Infinity
Ans: A
Answer
[3] A galvanometer has
(a) air friction damping
(b) fluid friction damping
(c) Spring coil damping
(d) Eddy current damping
Ans:D
Answer
[4] Electrostatic instruments are normally used for
(a) Low current measurements
(b) High current measurements
(c) Low voltage measurements
(d) High voltage measurements
Ans:D
Answer
[5] In a moving coil instrument, the deflecting torque is proportional to
(a) Current
(b) Square of the current
(c) Squareroot of the current
(d) sine of the measurand
Ans:A
Answer
[6] The absolute measurement of resistance is done by

(a) Ohm's law method
(b) Bridge Method
(c) Rayleigh method
(d) Lorenz method
Ans: D
Answer
[7] To measure the flux, devices used are based on
(a) Voltaic effect
(b) Piezo-electric effect
(c) Hall effect
(d) Photo-voltaic effect
Ans:C
Answer
[8] The form factor in AC is the ratio of
(a) peak value to average value
(b) peak value to rms value
(c) rms value to average value
(d) rms value to peak value
Ans:C
Answer
[9] PMMC type instruments normally use
(a) Air friction damping
(b) Fluid friction damping
(c) Eddy current damping
Ans: C
Answer
[10] In a moving iron meter, the deflecting torque is proportional to
(a) Current through the coil
(b) Square of the current through the coil
(c) Sine of the measurand
(d) Squareroot of the measurand
Ans: B
Answer
[11] In a gravity controlled instrument, the deflection angle is proportional
(a) Measurand
(b) Square of the measurand

(c) sine inverse of measurand
(d) sine of the measurand
Ans: C
Answer
[12] Ampere is one of the
(a) Supplementary units
(b) Derived units
(c) Base units
(d) Units used to measure charge
Ans: C
Answer
[13] Direct method is used to measure
(a) Length
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure
(d) Voltage
Ans: A
Answer
Please leave your comments and questions below...
Basic Electrical objective type questions: Part-13
Posted: 23 Jul 2014 10:19 AM PDT
Electrical Objective Questions with Answers:
[1] In a uniform electric field, field lines and equipotentials [Gate 1997 ]
a) Are parallel to one another
b) Intersect at 45 deg
c) Intersect at 30 deg
d) Are orthogonal
Ans:D
Answer
[2] For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primay to secondary are respectively
(a) ferrite; 20:1
(b) laminated iron; 1:1

(c) ferrite; 1:1
(d) powdered iron; 1:1
Ans: C
Answer
[3] The capacitance of a reverse biased junction of a thyristor is 20 picofarad. The charging current of this thyristor is 4mA. The
limiting value
of dv/dt is .....V/uS
Ans:200
Answer
[4] When the induction motor runs at synchronous speed the voltage induced in the rotor of it is
(a) Very near input voltage to stator
(b) Slip time the input voltage
(c) Zero
Ans:C
Answer
[5] Chopper control for the DC motor provides variation in
(a) Input voltage
(b) Frequency
(c) None of the above
Ans: A
Answer
[6] While comparing SCR with BJT, which of the following is true
(a) SCR requires turn off circuit while BJT does not
(b) The voltage drop of SCR is less than BJT
(c) SCR requires a continuous gate current
(d) BJT draws continuously base current
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) a only
(2) d only
(3) a, d
(4) b, d
Common Data Questions: 7 & 8
In the 3-phase inverter circuit shown, the load is balanced and the gating scheme is 180-conduction mode.All the switching devices
are ideal
Ans: 3
Answer
[7] The rms value of load phase voltage is [GATE2012]
a. 106.1V
b. 141.4V
c. 212.2V
d. 282.8V
Ans: B
Answer
[8] If the dc bus voltage Vd=300V, the power consumed by 3-phase load is [GATE2012]
a. 1.5kW
b. 2.0kW
c. 2.5kW
d. 3.0kW
Ans: D
Answer
[9] The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20A thyristor is [GATE 2012]
a. 5.0
b. 2.0
c. 1.0
d. 0.5
Ans: B
Answer
[10] A half-controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an R-L load. It is operated at a firing angle and the load current
is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the freewheeling diode conducts is [GATE 2012]
a. 1/2
b. (1-/)
c. /2
d. /
Ans: D
Answer
[11] For power factor correction of power systems which one is used:
(a) capacitor
(b) inductor
(c) resistors
Ans: A
Answer
[12] Which type of motor used in home ceiling fan:
(a) capacitor motor
(b) shaded pole motor
(c) universal motor
(SPLIT PHASE CAPACITOR MOTOR)
Ans: A
Answer
[13] Op-amp (operational amplifier) input resistance:
(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) Relative resistance
(d) Same output resistance
Ans:B
Answer
[14] For an inverter op-amp, what will be the equivalent output resistance?
(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) Relative forward resistance
(d) Same as the input resistance
Ans: A
Answer
Power Electronics Objective Type Questions: Part-13
Posted: 11 Feb 2014 03:23 AM PST
Power Electronics Multiple Choice Questions
[1] During forward blocking state, the SCR has
(a) Low current, medium voltage
(b) Low current, large voltage
(c) Medium current, large voltage
(d) Large current, low voltage
Answer: B
[2] Once SCR starts conducting a forward current, its gate loses control over
(a) Anode circuit current only
(b) Anode circuit voltage only
(c) Anode circuit voltage and current
(d) Anode circuit voltage, current and time
Answer: C
[3] In a SCRs
(a) Both Latching current and holding current are associated with turn-off process
(b) Latching current is associated with turn-off process and holding current with turn on process
(c) Holding current is associated with turn-off process and Latching current with turn-on process
(d) Both Latching current and holding current are associated with turn on process
Answer: C
[4] The SCR can be termed as
(a) DC switch
(b) AC switch
(c) Square-wave switch
(d) Either A or B
Answer: A
[5] In a thyristor, the magnitude of anode current will
(a) Increase if gate current is increased
(b) Increase if gate current is decreased
(c) Decrease if gate current is decreased
(d) Not change with any variation in gate current
Answer: D
[6] Turn on time of an SCR can be reduced by using a
(a) Rectangular pulse of high amplitude and narrow width
(b) Rectangular pulse of low amplitude and wide width
(c) Triangular pulse
(d) Trapezoidal pulse
Answer: A
[7] Turn off time of an SCR in series with RL circuit can be reduced by
(a) Increasing circuit resistance R
(b) Decreasing circuit resistance R
(c) Increasing circuit inductance L
(d) Decreasing circuit inductance L
Options:
1) B, C
2) A, D
3) B, D
4) D only
Answer: 4
[8] A forward voltage can be applied to an SCR after its
(a) Anode current reduces to zero
(b) Gate recovery time
(c) Reverse recovery time
(d) Anode voltage reduces to zero
Answer: B
[9] Turn-off time of an SCR is measured from the instant

(a) Anode current becomes zero
(b) Anode voltage becomes zero
(c) Anode voltage and anode current become zero at the same time
(d) Gate current becomes zero
Answer: A
[10] In an SCR, anode current flows over a narrow region near the gate during
(a) Delay time td
(b) Rise time tr and spread time tp
(c) td and tp
(d) td and tr
Answer: D
[11] Gate characteristic of a thyristor
(a) Is straight line passing through origin
(b) Is of the type Vg = a + bIg
(c) Is a curve between Vg and Ig
(d) Has a spread between two curves of Vg-Ig
Answer: D
[12] Surge current rating of an SCR specified the maximum
(a) Repetitive current with sine wave
(b) Non-repetitive current with rectangular wave
(c) Non-repetitive current with sine wave
(d) Repetitive current with rectangular wave
Answer: C
[13] The di/dt rating of an SCR is specified for its
(a) Decaying anode current
(b) Decaying gate current
(c) Rising gate current
(d) Rising anode current
Answer: D
[14] For an SCR, dv/dt protection is achieved through the use of
(a) RL in series with SCR
(b) RC across
(c) L in series with
(d) RC in series with

Answer: B
[15] For an SCR, di/dt protection is achieved through the use of
(a) R in series with SCR
(b) RL in series with SCR
(c) L in series with SCR
(d) L across SCR
Answer: C
Solution Hint:
[4] SCR will allow current flow in one direction only. So the ideal SCR is similar to DC switch
[7] By the decreasing the Inductor L value, the di/dt is increasing. ie, fast turn off process
[14] Snubber circuit ( RC circuit across device) is used for dv/dt protection
[15] Inductor will oppose sudden change in current (di/dt). For inductor, series resistance is not required. But in snubber circuit, R is
mandatory for dissipating the stored energy in the capacitor.
Power Electronics Multiple Choice Questions: Part-12
Multiple Choice Questions Based on Power Electronics and Drives
[1] When a line commutated converter operates in the inverter mode
(a) It draws both real and reactive power from the AC supply
(b) It delivers both real and reactive power to the AC supply
(c) It delivers real power to the AC supply
(d) It draws reactive power from the AC supply
Answer: C
[2] A chopper operating at a fixed frequency is feeding an RL load. As the duty ratio of the chopper is increased from 25% to 75%, the
ripple in the load current is
(a) Remains constant
(b) Decreases, reaches a minimum at 50% duty ratio and then increases
(c) Increases, reaches a maximum at 50% duty ratio and then decreases
(d) Keeps on increasing as the duty ratio is increased
Answer: A
[3] To turn off a SCR, the reverse bias should be applied for a period ....... the turn-off time of the SCR
(a) Equal to
(b) Longer than
(c) Less than

(d) Irrespective of
Answer: B
[4] In class A and class B commutation the resonating circuit has to be
(a) Over damped
(b) Critically damped
(c) Under damped
(d) Negatively damped
Answer: C
[5] In phase controlled rectification power factor (PF)
(a) Remains unaffected
(b) Improves with increase of firing angle
(c) Deteriorates with increase of
(d) Is unrelated to
Answer: C
[6] Comparing with the full wave rectifier using two diodes, the four diode bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of
(a) Higher current carrying
(b) Lower peak inverse voltage requirement
(c) Lower ripple factor
(d) Higher efficiency
Answer: B
[7] A SCR is rated at 75A peak, 20A average. The greatest possible delay in the trigger angle if the dc is at rated value is
(a) 47.5
(b) 30 to 45
(c) 74.5
(d) 137
Answer: B
[8] The applied sine voltage to a SCR is VM=200V and R=10Ohm. If the gate trigger lags the ac supply by 120, the average load
current is
(a) 15/ A
(b) 5/ A
(c) -5/ A
(d) -15/ A
Answer: A
[9] A sine voltage of 200Vrms, 50Hz is applied to an SCR through 100ohm resistor. The firing angle is 60. Consider no voltage drop.
The output voltage in rms is

(a) 89.7 V
(b) 126.7 V
(c) 166.7 V
(d) 2002 V
Answer: B
[10] A 100VDC is applied to the inductive load through a SCR. The SCR's specified latching current is 100mA. The minimum required
width of gating pulse to turn on the SCR is
(a) 100S
(b) 100S
(c) 1mS
(d) 50S
Answer: A
[11] A cycloconverter is a
(a) Frequency changer from higher to lower frequency with one-state conversion
(b) Frequency changer from higher to lower frequency with two-stage conversion
(c) Frequency changer from lower to higher frequency with one-stage conversion
(d) Either a or c
Answer: D
[12] The cycloconverter require natural or forced commutation as under
(a) Natural commutationin bothstep-up and step down cycloconverter
(b) Forced commutation in both step-up and step-down cycloconverter
(c) Forced commutation in step-up cycloconverter
(d) Forced commutation in step-down cycloconverter
Answer: C
[13] In synchronized UJT triggering of an SCR, voltage VC across capacitor reaches UJT threshold thrice in each half cycle so that
there are three firing pulses during each half cycle. The firing angle of the SCR can be controlled
(a) Once in each half cycle
(b) Thrice in each half cycle
(c) Twice in each half cycle
(d) Four times in each half cycle
(e) None of the above
Answer: A
[14] In a GTO, anode current begins to fall when gate current
(a) Is negative peak at time t=0
(b) Is negative peak at t = storage period tS
(c) Just begins to become negative at t = 0

(d) Is negative peak at t = (tS + fall time)
Answer: B
[15] The SCR can be turned on by
(a) Applying anode voltage at a sufficiently fast rate
(b) Applying sufficiently large anode voltage
(c) Increasing the temperature of SCR to a sufficiently large value
(d) Applying sufficiently large gate current
OPTIONS:
1) A, B
2) C, D
3) B, C
4) A, B, C, D
5) None of the above options
Answer: 4
Solution Hint:
[2] VL= V[(Ton/(Ton+Toff)]
=V. f .Ton
There are two ways to vary VL. Either by varying f or Ton. Here f is fixed and Ton is varied. As the frequency is kept constant ripple
remains constant.
[6] The PIV of diodes used in the full wave rectifier using two diodes is 2 times that of the four diode bridge rectifier
[7] RMS Current/ Average Current = Form Factor
[8] Idc = [Vm/2R](1+cos)
= delay angle
[15] a= dv/dt triggering, b = forward voltage triggering, c= temperature triggering, d = gate triggering. So all are correct
Objective Type Questions on Power Electronics: Part-11

Power Electronics Objective Type Questions with Answers: Part-11
[1] In a SCR,
(a) Gate current is directly proportional to forward breakover voltage
(b) As gate current is raised, forward breakover voltage reduces
(c) Gate current has to be kept on continuously for conduction
(d) Forward breakover voltage is low in the forward blocking state.
Answer: B
[2] In a SCR, at switch on, there is a sudden increase of current, then
(a) The tolerance limit of di/dt varies from 3 to 30A/us
(b) di/dt upper limit is 3A/us
(c) di/dt rating can be increased by having an inductive load
(d) di/dt rating can be increased by a resistive load
(1) a, c
(2) c, d
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) a, b
Answer: 1
[3] The following PNPN device has a terminal for synchronising purpose
(a) SUS
(b) DIAC
(c) TRIAC
(d) Schmitt trigger
Answer: A
[4] In single phase full wave controlled rectifier, maximum output voltage is obtained at conduction angle....and minimum at
conduction angle...
(a) 0, 180
(b) 180, 0
(c) 0, 0
(d) 180, 180
Answer: A
[5] A thyristor is triggered by a pulse train of 5kHz. The duty ratio is 0.4. If the allowable average power is 100W the maximum
allowable gate drive power is
(a) 1002 W
(b) 50 W
(c) 150 W
(d) 250 W
Answer: D
[6] The consequence of introducing inductance in the load circuit of SCR is
(a) Anode current through SCR rises slowly
(b) Anode current reached is more than without it
(c) SCR has to be derated for anode current
(d) SCR's current rating can be raised
(1) a, c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) b, d
(4) a, d
Answer: 4
[7] When a SCR is in the forward blocking state,
(a) All the 3 junctions are reverse biased
(b) The anode and cathode junctions are forward biased but the gate junction is reverse biased
(c) The anode junction is forward biased but the cathode and gate junctions are reverse biased
(d) The anode and gate junctions are forward biased but the cathode junction is reverse biased
Answer: B
[8] When we need to drive a dc shunt motor at different speeds in both directions ( forward and reverse) and also to brake it in both
the directions, which one of the following would you use?
(a) A half-controlled SCR bridge
(b) A full controlled thyristor bridge
(c) A dual converter
(d) A diode bridge
Answer: C
[9] The frequency of the ripple present in the output voltage of the 3 phase half controlled bridge rectifier depends on the
(a) Firing angle
(b) Load inductance
(c) Load resistance
(d) Supple frequency
Answer: D
[10] A fully controlled thyristor bridge drives a DC motor. The system is capable of
(a) Motoring and braking in both directions

(b) Only motoring in both directions, no braking
(c) Motoring in forward direction and braking in reverse direction
(d) Only motoring in forward direction, no braking
Answer: D
[11] Three-phase to three-phase cycloconverter employing 18 SCRs and 36 SCRs have the same voltage and current ratings for their
component thyristors. The ratio of VA rating of 36 SCR device to that of 18 SCR device is
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer: C
[12] Three phase to three phase cycloconverter employing 18 SCRs are 36 SCRs have the same voltage and current ratings for their
component thyristors. The ratio of power handled by 36 SCR device to that handled by 18 SCR device is
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 1/2
Answer: A
[13] The number of SCRs required for single phase to single phase cycloconverter of the mid point type and for three phase to three
phase type cycloconverter are respectively
(a) 4, 6
(b) 8, 18
(c) 4, 18
(d) 4, 36
Answer: C
[14] For dynamic equalizing circuit used for series connected SCRs, the choice of C is based on
(a) Reverse recovery characteristics
(b) Turn-on characteristics
(c) Turn-off characteristics
(d) Rise-time characteristics
OPTIONS:
1) A
2) B, C
3) D
4) A, B, C, D

Answer: 1
[15] The function of connecting zener diode in an UJT circuit, used for the triggering of SCRs, is to
(a) Expedite the generation of triggering pulses
(b) Delay the generation of triggering pulses
(c) Provide a constant voltage to UJT to prevent erratic firing
(d) Provide a variable voltage to UJT as the source voltage changes.
OPTIONS:
1) B, C
2) C
3) A
4) D
Answer: 2
Solution Hint:
[4] When the conduction angle is 0, it will not suppress any part of the input, whereas during 180 degree conduction angle, it will
suppress entire input waveform.
[5] PMAX >= Pavg/(f.TON)
Duty cycle D =TON/T = f.TON
PMAX >= Pavg/D =100/0.4 =250W
[7] When a SCR is in the forward blocking state, outer junctions (j1 & j3) are forward biased and middle junction(j2) is reverse biased
[15] Remember that the use of zener diode in a circuit is to provide voltage regulation ( constant voltage)
Power Electronics Part- 10 Objective Questions with Answers
Power Electronics Objective Questions with Answers: Part-10
1. SCR is the solid state equivalent of
(a) Transistor
(b) Thyratron
(c) Vacuum diode
(d) Crystal diode
Answer: B
2. With gate open, if the supply voltage exceeds the breakover voltage of SCR, then SCR will conduct
(a) False
(b) True
(c) For DC
(d) For AC
Answer: B
3. The SCR is turned off when the anode current falls below
(a) Forward current rating
(b) Break over voltage
(c) Holding current
(d) Latching current
Answer: C
4. In a SCR circuit, the angle of conduction can be changed by changing
(a) Anode voltage
(b) Anode current
(c) Forward current rating
(d) Gate current
Answer: D
5. The normal way to close a SCR is by appropriate
(a) Gate current
(b) Cathode current
(c) Anode current
(d) Forward current
Answer: A
6. An SCR has ......PN junctions
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) One
Answer: C
7. If gate current is increased, the anode-cathode voltage at which SCR closes is.....
(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
(c) Maximum
(d) Least
Answer: B
8. A conducting SCR can be opened by reducing ..... to zero
(a) Supply voltage
(b) Grid voltage

(c) Grid current
(d) Anode current
Answer: A
9. With gate open, a SCR can be turned-on by making supply voltage....
(a) Minimum
(b).Reverse
(c) Equal to cathode voltage
(d) Equal to breakover voltage
Answer: D
10. If firing angle in a SCR rectifier is increased, output is....
(a) Increased
(b) Maximum
(c) Decreased
(d) Unaffected
Answer: C
11. A SCR is a ...switch
(a) Two directional
(b) Unidirectional
(c) Three directional
(d) Four directional
Answer: B
12. The anode of SCR is always maintained at........potential with respect to cathode
(a) Positive
(b) Zero
(c) negative
(d) Equipotential
Answer: A
13. IF the chopper switching frequency is 200Hz and Ton time is 2ms, the duty cycle is
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.6
Answer: A
14. Speed control of induction motor can be effected by varying
(a) Flux
(b) Voltage input to stator
(c) Keeping rotor coil open
Answer: B
15. In a Dc motor if the field coil gets opened, the speed of the motor will
(a) Decrease
(b) Come to stop
(c) Increase
Answer: C
Solution Hint:
[11] SCR will conduct in one direction only. So it act as a unidirectional switch.
[13] T=1/f, D = TON/T

Electrical drives(Cranes )
1. The consideration involved in the selection of the type of electric drive for a particular application depends on
(A) Speed control range and its nature
(B) Starting torque
(C) Environmental conditions
(D) All of the above.
Get Answer:
2. Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives ?
(A) Synchronous motors
(B) Squirrel cage induction motor
(C) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors
(D) Any of the above.
Get Answer: (Show)
3. Which type of drive can be used for hoisting machinery
(A) AC slip ring motor
(B) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
(C) DC compound motor
Get Answer: (Hide)
4. The motor normally used for crane travel is
(C) Synchronous motor
(D) DC differentially compound motor.
Get Answer:
A
5. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor when the major consideration involved is
(A) high starting torque
(B) low starting current
(C) speed control over limited range
Get Answer: (Hide)
6. When smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired, the motor preferred is
(A) synchronous motor
(B) squirrel cage induction motor
(C) wound rotor induction motor
(D) dc motor.
Get Answer:
7. When quick speed reversal is a consideration, the motor preferred is
(D) dc motor.
Get Answer:
8. Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for
(A) fan and pump drives
(B) drive of a crane
(C) running it as generator
(D) constant load drive.
Get Answer:
9. The selection of control gear for a particular application is based on the consideration of
(A) duty
(B) starting torque
(C) limitations on starting current
Get Answer:
10. As compared to squirrel cage induction motor, a wound rotor induction motor is preferred when the major consideration is
(B) low windage losses
(C) slow speed operation
Get Answer:
11. A synchronous motor is found to be more economical when the load is above
(A) 1 kW
(B) 10 kW
(C) 20 kW
(D)100kW.
Get Answer:
12. The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is
(A) high power factor
(B) better efficiency
(C) lower cost
Get Answer:
13. In motor circuit static frequency changers are used for
(A) power factor improvement
(B) improved cooling
(C) reversal of direction
(D) speed regulation.

Get Answer:
14. In case of traveling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is
(D) Single phase motor.
Get Answer:
15. The characteristics of drive for. crane hoisting and lowering is
(A) smooth movement
(B) precise control
(C) fast speed control
Get Answer:
Reaction
s:
Monday, April 7, 2014
Transformer
1. In a transformer
(a) All turns are equally insulated (b) The end turns are more strongly
insulated
(c) The end turns are closely (d) The end turns are widely separated
wound



5. The following arrangement will reduce the reluctance of magnetic path of the transformer.


(c) Proper design


10. A transformer used only for electrical isolation between two circuits has turns ratio which is
11. If 90 per cent of normal voltage and 90 per cent of normal frequency are applied to a transformer, the per cent charge in hysteresis
losses will be
(a) 20% (b) 4.7% (c) 19% (d) 21%

12. If 110 per cent of normal voltage and 110 per cent of normal frequency is applied to a transformer, the percentage change of eddy
current losses will be
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 21%

13. A transformer has two 2,400 V primary coils and two 240 V coils. By proper connection of the windings, the transformation ratio that
can be obtained is
(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 20 (d) 9

14. A single-phase, 2,200/200 V transformer takes 1 A at the HT side or no load at a power factor of 0.385 lagging. The iron losses are
(a) 167 W (b) 77 W (c) 88 W (d) 98 W

15. Neglecting resistance, at constant flux density, the power required per kilogram to magnetize the iron core of a transformer is 0.8 W at
25 Hz and 2.04 W at 60 Hz. The power required per kilogram for 100 Hz is
(a) 3.8 W (b) 3.63 W (c) 3.4 W (d) 5.2 W

(a) 90 95 (b) About 80 85 (c) 0 15 (d) About 110


20. A transformer 2,000 kVA, 250 Hz is operated at 50 Hz. Its kVA rating should be revised to
(a) 400 kVA (b) 10,000 kVA

(a) 100 kVA, 25 Hz (b) 100 kVA, 100 Hz
(c) 100 kVA, 50 Hz (d) 100 kVA, 60 Hz


(a) 5060% (b) 6575%
(c) 7090% (d) 9098%



(a) 0.35 cm (b) 0.35 mm
(c) 0.33 m (d) 0.30 cm


(a) rms (b) Average


31. The voltage regulation of a transformer at full-load 0.8 power factor lag is 6 per cent. Its voltage regulation at full-load 0.8 power factor
lead will be

32. The full-load efficiency of a transformer at 0.85 p.f. lag is 97 per cent. Its efficiency at full load 0.85 bpower factor lead will be
(a) 99% (b) 96% (c) 97% (d) 98%

33. If a load on secondary side of a transformer increases, the current on the primary side
34. If a sinusoidal exciting current is applied to a transformer, the mutual flux produced is


36. A 220V, 150V bulb is connected in series with the primary of a 220/1,100 V, 50 Hz transformer. If the load on the secondary side is
disconnected, the brightness of the bulb will








46. A transformer is connected to a constant voltage source. If the supply frequency decreases, the magnetic flux in the core will



49. The efficiency of an autotransformer for the same output compared to a two-winding transformer is

(e) All of these

(a) Open circuit
(d) Power factor of transformer will be different from that of the connected
load
52. In an autotransformer of voltage ratio and V1 > V2, the fraction of power transferred inductively is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
53. A 10 kVA, 400/200 V sinlge-phase transformer with 10 per cent impedance draws a steady short circuit line current of
(a) 50 A (b) 150 A (c) 250 A (d) 350 A

54. A 400/100 V, 10 kVA two-winding transformer is reconnected as an autotransformer across a suitable voltage source. The maximum
kVA is
55. An autotransformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 10 kW. The power transferred inductively from the primary to
the secondary is
(a) 10 kW (b) 8 kW (c) 2 kW (d) Zero

56. A single-phase induction regulator is a constant input transformer to obtain smooth variation of the output voltage by varying the
(b) Frequency
(d) Angle between the magnetic forces of the primary and secondary
windings
(c) Both voltage and kVA rating are reduced in the same proportion as the
frequency

(d) None of these

60. Transformer core usually uses grain-oriented laminated sheets. The grain orientation reduces


62. While performing short circuit test on a transformer, the impressed voltage magnitude is kept constant but the frequency is increased.
The short circuit current will

63. A transformer has a hysteresis loss of 30 W at 240 V, 60 Hz. The hysteresis loss at 200 V, 50 Hz will be
(a) 20.8 W (b) 25 W (c) 30 W (d) 36 W

64. In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided


(d) None of these

66. A transformer is to be tested at full-load conditions consuming only losses from the mains. We do

67. In a transformer operating at constant voltage if the input frequency increases the core loss will


69. R1 is the resistance of the primary winding of a transformer. The turns ratio in terms of primary to secondary is a. The equivalent
resistance of the primary referred to as secondary is

(a) emf per turn in high-voltage winding is more than the emf per turn in low-
voltage winding
(d) None of these

71. If E2 and V2 be the induced emf in secondary winding and V2 be the terminal voltage during load, the regulation of the transformer is
given by
(a) (b) (c) (d)
72. One transformer has leakage impedance of 1 + j 4 and 3 + j 4 for its primary and secondary windings, respectively. The
transformer has

73. A single-phase transformer has its maximum efficiency at 60 per cent of full load. At full load copper loss will be

74. The flux in a magnetic core is alternating sinusoidally at a frequency of 600 Hz. The maximum flux density is 2 T and eddy current loss
is 15 W. If the frequency is raised to 800 Hz and maximum flux density reduced to 1.5 T, the eddy current loss will be

(a) Supply voltage

Answers
1(B) D , 2 (B) , 3 (C) , 4 (C) , 5 ( C) , 6 (B) , 7 (B)(D) , 8 (A) , 9 (A) , 10 (C) ,11 (B) , 12(D)
13(A) (B) (C),14(B),15(B), 16(A), 17(D), 18(B), 19(C), 20 (A), 21(B),22(B), 23(D), 24(B),25(C)(D).26(B)
27(B), 28(D), 29(C), 30(A), 31(A), 31(C), 33(B),34(D), 35(A), 36(D),37(A)(C), 38(A)(C), 39(C)(D), 40(B)
41(A)(C), 42(D), 43(B),44(B),45(C),46(A), 47(A)(C), 48(B), 49(A), 50(E), 51(B), 52(D), 53(C), 54(A),55(C), 56(D)
57(c), 58(B), 59(A) , 60 (B) , 61(C), 62(B), 63(B), 64(B), 65(B), 66(C), 67(A), 68(C) , 69(C), 70(B), 71(A), 72(A)
73(C), 74(A), 75(B)
Reaction
s:
Thursday, April 3, 2014
SYNCHRONOUS MOTOR
Synchronous Motors
1. Synchronous motor can operate at
(A) Lagging power factor only
(B) Leading power factor only
(C) Unity power factor only
(D) Lagging, leading and unity power factor only.
2. An unexcited single phase synchronous motor is
(A) reluctance motor
(B) repulsion motor
(C) universal motor
(D) AC series motor.
A
3. The maximum power developed in the synchronous motor will depend on
(A) rotor excitation only
(B) maximum value of coupling angle
(C) supply voltage only
(D) rotor excitation supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle.
4. In case the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
(A) leading
(B) lagging
(C) zero
(D) unity.
5. A synchronous motor is switched on to supply with its field windings shorted on themselves. It will
(A) not start
(B) start and continue to run as an induction motor
(C) start as an induction motor and then run as synchronous motor
(D) bum immediately.
6. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor gets disconnected
(A) the motor will bum
(B) the motor will stop
(C) the motor will ran as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(D) the motor will run as a reluctance motor at a lower speed.
7. The damping winding in a synchronous motor is generally used

(A) to provide starting torque only
(B) to reduce noise level
(C) to reduce eddy currents
(D) to prevent hunting and provide the starting torque.
8. The back emf set up in the stator of a synchronous motor will depend on
(A) rotor speed only
(B) rotor excitation only
(C) rotor excitation and rotor speed
(D) coupling angle, rotor speed and excitation.
9. A synchronous motor is a useful industrial machine on account of which of the following reasons ?
I. It improves the power factor of the complete installation
II. Its speed is constant at all loads, provided mains frequency remains constant
III. It can always be adjusted to operate at unity power factor for optimum efficiency and economy.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I, II and III.
10. Which of the following is an unexcited single phase synchronous motor ?
(A) A.C. series motor
(B) Universal motor
(C) Reluctance motor
(D) Repulsion motor.
C
11. An over excited synchronous motor draws current at
(A) lagging power factor
(B) leading power factor
(C) unity power factor
(D) depends on the nature of load.
12. With the increase in the excitation current of synchronous motor the power factor of the motor will
(A) improve
(B) decrease
(C) remain constant
(D) depend on other factors.
13. The armature current of a synchronous motor has large values for
(A) low excitation only
(B) high excitation only
(C) both low and high excitation
(D) depends on other factors.
(A) not start
(C) start as induction motor and then run as a synchronous motor.
15. If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
(A) lagging
(B) leading
(C) unity.
A
Get all answers at once:
1.D ----- 2.A ----- 3.D ----- 4.B ----- 5.C ----- 6.B ----- 7.D ----- 8.B -----9.D -----10.C -----11.B ----- 12.A -----13.C -----
14.C ----- 15.A
Electrical drives(Cranes )
1. The consideration involved in the selection of the type of electric drive for a particular application depends on
(A) Speed control range and its nature
(B) Starting torque
(C) Environmental conditions
(D) All of the above.
Get Answer:
D
2. Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives ?

(A) Synchronous motors
(B) Squirrel cage induction motor
(C) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors
Get Answer: (Show)

C
3. Which type of drive can be used for hoisting machinery

(C) DC compound motor
Get Answer: (Hide)

D
4. The motor normally used for crane travel is

(D) DC differentially compound motor.
Get Answer:
A
5. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor when the major consideration involved is
(B) low starting current
(C) speed control over limited range
Get Answer: (Hide)

D
6. When smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired, the motor preferred is
(D) dc motor.
Get Answer:
D
7. When quick speed reversal is a consideration, the motor preferred is

(D) dc motor.
Get Answer:
8. Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for
(A) fan and pump drives
(B) drive of a crane
(C) running it as generator
(D) constant load drive.
Get Answer:
A
9. The selection of control gear for a particular application is based on the consideration of
(A) duty
(B) starting torque
(C) limitations on starting current
Get Answer:
10. As compared to squirrel cage induction motor, a wound rotor induction motor is preferred when the major consideration is
(B) low windage losses
(C) slow speed operation
Get Answer:
A
11. A synchronous motor is found to be more economical when the load is above
(A) 1 kW
(B) 10 kW
(C) 20 kW
(D)100kW.
Get Answer:
D
12. The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is

(A) high power factor
(B) better efficiency
(C) lower cost
Get Answer:
13. In motor circuit static frequency changers are used for

(A) power factor improvement
(B) improved cooling
(C) reversal of direction
(D) speed regulation.
Get Answer:
D
14. In case of traveling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is
(D) Single phase motor.
Get Answer:
15. The characteristics of drive for. crane hoisting and lowering is

(A) smooth movement
(B) precise control
(C) fast speed control
Get Answer:
D
ELectronics
Question: Which of the following statements does not represent ohm's law?
1. current / potential difference = constant
2. potential difference / current = constant
3. potential difference = current x resistance
4. current = resistance x potential difference

Answer: 4
Question: The unit of current is _____________.
1. ampere
2. watt
3. volt
4. coulomb
Answer: 1
Question: The potential difference required to pass a current 0.2 A in a wire of resistance 20W is ____.
1. 100 V
2. 4V
3. .01 V
4. 40 V
Answer: 2
Question 4
Question: The resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current at 6.0 V is ___________.
1. 0 .5 W
2. 5W
3. 0.2 W
4. 2W
Answer: 2
Question 5
Question: The unit of resistivity is ____________.
1. ohm
2. ohm / m
3. ohm-m
4. mho
Answer: 3
Question 6
Question: Two resistances of 100 W and zero ohm are connected in parallel. The overall resistance will be
1. 100 W
2. 50 W
3. 25 W
4. zero ohm
Answer: 1
Question 7
Question: Three resistors 2 W , 3 W and 4 W are connected so that the equivalent resistance is 9 W . The resistors are connected
_________.
1. all in series
2. all in parallel
3. 2 W and 3 W in parallel and the combination in series with 4 W
4. 2 W and 3 W in series and the combination in parallel to 4 W
Answer: 1
Question 8
Question: In the figure,
1. 6 W , 3 W and 9 W are in series
2. 9 W and 6 W are in parallel and the combination is in series with 3 W
3. 3 W , 6 W and W are in parallel
4. 3 W , 6 W are in parallel and 9 W is in series
Answer: 4
Question 9
Question: The resistance across AB is
1. 4
2. 1
3. 2
4. 0 .5
Answer: 2
Question 10
Question: When a current 'I' flows through a resistance 'R' for time 't' the electrical energy spent is given by ___________.
1. IRt
2. I2 R t
3. I R2 t
4. I2R/t
Answer: 2
Question 11
Question: Kilowatt - hour is the unit of ______________.
1. potential difference
2. electric power
3. electrical energy
4. charge
Answer: 3
Question 12
Question: When a fuse is rated 8 A, it means _____________.
1. it will not work if current is less than 8 A
2. it has a resistance of 8 W
3. it will work only if current is 8 A

4. it will melt if current exceeds 8 A
Answer: 4
Question 13
Question: The device used for measuring potential difference is known as _____________.
1. potentiometer
2. ammeter
3. galvanometer
4. voltmeter
Answer: 4
Question 14
Question: The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric circuit is a measure of ___________.
1. current
2. potential difference
3. resistance
4. power
Answer: 2
Question 15
Question: The potential at a point is 20 V. The work done to bring a charge of 0.5 C from infinity to this point will be ________.
1. 20 J
2. 10 J
3. 5J
4. 40 J
Answer: 2
Question 16
Question: Joule / Coulomb is same as ______________.
1. watt
2. volt
3. ampere
4. ohm
Answer: 2
Question 17
Question: The free electrons of a metal _____________.
1. do not collide with each other
2. are free to escape through the surface
3. are free to fall into the nuclei
4. are free to move anywhere in the metal
Answer: 4
Question 18
Question: The path of a free electron in a metal is ___________.
1. parabolic
2. circular
3. a straight line
4. zig zag
Answer: 4
Question 19
Question: Heat produced in a current carrying wire in 5s is 60 J. The same current is passed through another wire of half the
resistance. The heat produced in 5 s will be _____________.
1. 60 J
2. 30 J
3. 15 J
4. 120 J
Answer: 2
Question 20
Question: The current in a wire ______________.
1. depends only on the potential difference applied
2. depends only on the resistance of the wire
3. depends on both resistance and potential difference
4. does not depend on resistance and potential difference
Answer: 3
Question 21
Question: When there is an electric current passing through a wire, the particles moving are _____________.
1. electrons
2. protons
3. atoms
4. ions
Answer: 1
Question 22
Question: A positive charge released from rest __________.
1. moves towards the regions of lower potential
2. moves towards the regions of higher potential
3. moves towards the regions of equal potential
4. does not move
Answer: 1
Question 23
Question: Three equal resistances when combined in series are equivalent to 90 W . Their equivalent resistance when combined in
parallel will be __________.
1. 270 W
2. 30 W
3. 810 W
4. 10 W
Answer: 4
Question 24
Question: An battery is used to ________________.
1. maintain a potential difference
2. measure electric current
3. measure electric potential
4. safeguard against short - circuit
Answer: 1
Question 25
Question: Ohm's law relates potential difference with ___________.
1. power
2. energy
3. current
4. time
Answer: 3
Question 26
Question: Which of the following is an ohmic resistor?
1. Diode
2. Germanium
3. Nichrome
4. Diamond
Answer: 3
Question 27
Question: The resistivity of a wire depends on ____.
1. length
2. material
3. area of cross- section
4. length, material and area of cross- section
Answer: 4
Question 28
Question: For which of the following substances, resistance decreases with temperature?
1. Copper
2. Platinum
3. Mercury
4. Carbon
Answer: 4
Question 29
Question: Four cells each of e.m.f 'E' are joined in parallel to form a battery. The equivalent e.m.f of the battery will be _______.
1. 4E
2. E
3. E/4
4. E=0
Answer: 2
Question 30
Question: Two electric bulbs have resistances in the ratio 1:2. If they are joined in series, the energy consumed in them are in the
ratio _________.
1. 1:2
2. 2:1
3. 4:1
4. 1:1
Answer: 2
SYNCHRONOUS MOTOR
Synchronous Motors
1. Synchronous motor can operate at
(A) Lagging power factor only
(B) Leading power factor only
(C) Unity power factor only
(D) Lagging, leading and unity power factor only.
2. An unexcited single phase synchronous motor is

(A) reluctance motor
(B) repulsion motor
(C) universal motor
(D) AC series motor.
3. The maximum power developed in the synchronous motor will depend on

(A) rotor excitation only
(B) maximum value of coupling angle
(C) supply voltage only
(D) rotor excitation supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle.
4. In case the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
(A) leading
(B) lagging
(C) zero
(D) unity.
(A) not start
(C) start as an induction motor and then run as synchronous motor
(D) bum immediately.
6. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor gets disconnected
(A) the motor will bum
(B) the motor will stop
(C) the motor will ran as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(D) the motor will run as a reluctance motor at a lower speed.
7. The damping winding in a synchronous motor is generally used

(A) to provide starting torque only
(B) to reduce noise level
(C) to reduce eddy currents
(D) to prevent hunting and provide the starting torque.
8. The back emf set up in the stator of a synchronous motor will depend on
(A) rotor speed only
(B) rotor excitation only
(C) rotor excitation and rotor speed
(D) coupling angle, rotor speed and excitation.
9. A synchronous motor is a useful industrial machine on account of which of the following reasons ?
I. It improves the power factor of the complete installation
II. Its speed is constant at all loads, provided mains frequency remains constant
III. It can always be adjusted to operate at unity power factor for optimum efficiency and economy.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I, II and III.
10. Which of the following is an unexcited single phase synchronous motor ?

(A) A.C. series motor
(B) Universal motor
(C) Reluctance motor
(D) Repulsion motor.
11. An over excited synchronous motor draws current at

(A) lagging power factor
(B) leading power factor
(C) unity power factor
(D) depends on the nature of load.
12. With the increase in the excitation current of synchronous motor the power factor of the motor will
(A) improve
(B) decrease
(C) remain constant
(D) depend on other factors.
13. The armature current of a synchronous motor has large values for
(A) low excitation only
(B) high excitation only
(C) both low and high excitation
(D) depends on other factors.
C
(A) not start
(C) start as induction motor and then run as a synchronous motor.
15. If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
(A) lagging
(B) leading
(C) unity.
Get all answers at once:
1.D ----- 2.A ----- 3.D ----- 4.B ----- 5.C ----- 6.B ----- 7.D ----- 8.B -----9.D -----10.C -----11.B ----- 12.A -----13.C -----
14.C ----- 15.A
Transformer
1. In a transformer
(a) All turns are equally insulated (b) The end turns are more strongly insulated
(c) The end turns are closely wound (d) The end turns are widely separated



5. The following arrangement will reduce the reluctance of magnetic path of the transformer.


(c) Proper design


10. A transformer used only for electrical isolation between two circuits has turns ratio which is
11. If 90 per cent of normal voltage and 90 per cent of normal frequency are applied to a transformer, the per cent charge in hysteresis
losses will be
(a) 20% (b) 4.7% (c) 19% (d) 21%

12. If 110 per cent of normal voltage and 110 per cent of normal frequency is applied to a transformer, the percentage change of eddy
current losses will be
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 21%

13. A transformer has two 2,400 V primary coils and two 240 V coils. By proper connection of the windings, the transformation ratio that
can be obtained is
(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 20 (d) 9

14. A single-phase, 2,200/200 V transformer takes 1 A at the HT side or no load at a power factor of 0.385 lagging. The iron losses are
(a) 167 W (b) 77 W (c) 88 W (d) 98 W

15. Neglecting resistance, at constant flux density, the power required per kilogram to magnetize the iron core of a transformer is 0.8 W at
25 Hz and 2.04 W at 60 Hz. The power required per kilogram for 100 Hz is
(a) 3.8 W (b) 3.63 W (c) 3.4 W (d) 5.2 W


(a) 90 95 (b) About 80 85 (c) 0 15 (d) About 110


20. A transformer 2,000 kVA, 250 Hz is operated at 50 Hz. Its kVA rating should be revised to
(a) 400 kVA (b) 10,000 kVA

(a) 100 kVA, 25 Hz (b) 100 kVA, 100 Hz
(c) 100 kVA, 50 Hz (d) 100 kVA, 60 Hz


(a) 5060% (b) 6575%
(c) 7090% (d) 9098%



(a) 0.35 cm (b) 0.35 mm
(c) 0.33 m (d) 0.30 cm


(a) rms (b) Average


31. The voltage regulation of a transformer at full-load 0.8 power factor lag is 6 per cent. Its voltage regulation at full-load 0.8 power factor
lead will be

32. The full-load efficiency of a transformer at 0.85 p.f. lag is 97 per cent. Its efficiency at full load 0.85 bpower factor lead will be
(a) 99% (b) 96% (c) 97% (d) 98%

33. If a load on secondary side of a transformer increases, the current on the primary side
34. If a sinusoidal exciting current is applied to a transformer, the mutual flux produced is


36. A 220V, 150V bulb is connected in series with the primary of a 220/1,100 V, 50 Hz transformer. If the load on the secondary side is
disconnected, the brightness of the bulb will









46. A transformer is connected to a constant voltage source. If the supply frequency decreases, the magnetic flux in the core will



49. The efficiency of an autotransformer for the same output compared to a two-winding transformer is

(e) All of these

(a) Open circuit
(d) Power factor of transformer will be different from that of the connected load
52. In an autotransformer of voltage ratio and V1 > V2, the fraction of power transferred inductively is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
53. A 10 kVA, 400/200 V sinlge-phase transformer with 10 per cent impedance draws a steady short circuit line current of
(a) 50 A (b) 150 A (c) 250 A (d) 350 A

54. A 400/100 V, 10 kVA two-winding transformer is reconnected as an autotransformer across a suitable voltage source. The maximum
kVA is
55. An autotransformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 10 kW. The power transferred inductively from the primary to
the secondary is
(a) 10 kW (b) 8 kW (c) 2 kW (d) Zero
56. A single-phase induction regulator is a constant input transformer to obtain smooth variation of the output voltage by varying the
(b) Frequency
(d) Angle between the magnetic forces of the primary and secondary windings
(c) Both voltage and kVA rating are reduced in the same proportion as the frequency

(d) None of these

60. Transformer core usually uses grain-oriented laminated sheets. The grain orientation reduces


62. While performing short circuit test on a transformer, the impressed voltage magnitude is kept constant but the frequency is increased.
The short circuit current will

63. A transformer has a hysteresis loss of 30 W at 240 V, 60 Hz. The hysteresis loss at 200 V, 50 Hz will be
(a) 20.8 W (b) 25 W (c) 30 W (d) 36 W

64. In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided


(d) None of these

66. A transformer is to be tested at full-load conditions consuming only losses from the mains. We do

67. In a transformer operating at constant voltage if the input frequency increases the core loss will


69. R1 is the resistance of the primary winding of a transformer. The turns ratio in terms of primary to secondary is a. The equivalent
resistance of the primary referred to as secondary is

(a) emf per turn in high-voltage winding is more than the emf per turn in low-voltage winding
(d) None of these

71. If E2 and V2 be the induced emf in secondary winding and V2 be the terminal voltage during load, the regulation of the transformer is
given by
(a) (b) (c) (d)
72. One transformer has leakage impedance of 1 + j 4 and 3 + j 4 for its primary and secondary windings, respectively. The
transformer has

73. A single-phase transformer has its maximum efficiency at 60 per cent of full load. At full load copper loss will be

74. The flux in a magnetic core is alternating sinusoidally at a frequency of 600 Hz. The maximum flux density is 2 T and eddy current loss
is 15 W. If the frequency is raised to 800 Hz and maximum flux density reduced to 1.5 T, the eddy current loss will be

(a) Supply voltage

Answers
1(B) D , 2 (B) , 3 (C) , 4 (C) , 5 ( C) , 6 (B) , 7 (B)(D) , 8 (A) , 9 (A) , 10 (C) ,11 (B) , 12(D)
13(A) (B) (C),14(B),15(B), 16(A), 17(D), 18(B), 19(C), 20 (A), 21(B),22(B), 23(D), 24(B),25(C)(D).26(B)
27(B), 28(D), 29(C), 30(A), 31(A), 31(C), 33(B),34(D), 35(A), 36(D),37(A)(C), 38(A)(C), 39(C)(D), 40(B)
41(A)(C), 42(D), 43(B),44(B),45(C),46(A), 47(A)(C), 48(B), 49(A), 50(E), 51(B), 52(D), 53(C), 54(A),55(C), 56(D)
57(c), 58(B), 59(A) , 60 (B) , 61(C), 62(B), 63(B), 64(B), 65(B), 66(C), 67(A), 68(C) , 69(C), 70(B), 71(A), 72(A)
73(C), 74(A), 75(B)

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2. The function of protective relay in a circuit breaker is

3. Low voltage circuit breakers have rated voltage of less than

4. The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker is usually

5. The medium employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker is

6. Which of the following circuit breakers is preferred for EHT application

9. Interrupting medium in a contactor may be

Get Answer: (Show)

11. SF6 gas is

12. SF6 gas

13. SF6 gas

14. The pressure of SF6 gas in circuit breakers is of the order of

(b) To reduce the effect of eddy current

(c) To increase the reluctance of magnetic path

(d) To reduce the hysteresis effect

3. The required thickness of lamination in a transformer decreases when

4. Oil in transformer is used to

(c) It requires less insulation (d) None of the above

7. The size and construction of bushings in a transformer depend upon the

(c) Current flowing (d)Voltage supplied

8. Transformer humming sound is reduced by the

(b) Proper insulation

(c) Proper design

(d) Proper design of winding

9. Sludge in transformer oil is due to

(c) Moisture content in oil (d) None of the above

14. A single-phase, 2,200/200 V transformer takes 1 A at the HT side or no load at

16. Select the correct statement:

17. The flux involved in the emf equation of a transformer has

18. The no-load current in a transformer lags the applied voltage by

(c) Arc welding (d) Fluorescent lamps

(c) 2,000 kVA (d) Cannot be revised

21. The transformer which will have the largest size is

(c) 100 kVA, 50 Hz (d) 100 kVA, 60 Hz

22. The magnetic flux of a transformer follows

(c) Low conductivity path (d) High conductivity path

23. The efficiency of a transformer is usually in the range of

(c) 7090% (d) 9098%

24. Transformer is laminated to reduce

25. Transformer changes the value of

(c) Voltage (d) Current

(c) Magnetically (d) None of these

27. The thickness of a 50 Hz transformer lamination is

(c) 0.33 m (d) 0.30 cm

28. A power transformer is a constant

(c) Power device (d) Main flux device

29. The value of flux in the emf equation of a transformer is

(c) Maximum (d) Integral wave cycle

30. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon the value of

(c) Mutual flux (d) None of these

34. If a sinusoidal exciting current is applied to a transformer, the mutual flux

35. To get sinusoidal flux in a transformer the mutual flux produced is

(c) Be unaffected (d) Decrease to a very low value

37. The open circuit test of a transformer gives information about

(c) Exciting current (d) None of these

38. The short circuit test of a transformer gives the information of

(c) Winding circuit impedance (d) None of these

39. During testing of a transformer

(b) Both SC and OC tests are performed at rated voltage

(c) OC test is performed at rated voltage

(d) SC test is performed at rated current

(c) More than its power efficiency (d) None of these

41. Routine efficiency of a transformer depends upon the value of

(c) Power factor of load (d) Both (a) and (b)