1. A patient complains of an itching rash on her abdomen. On examination, the 14.

14. A laboratory technician has isolated an organism that grows in blood agar,
lesions were found to be red, circular; with a vesiculated border and a healing forms round, smooth, pale yellow colonies surrounded by a narrow area of
central area. The most appropriate laboratory procedure to make a diagnosis hemolysis, ferments mannitol, and is both catalase- and coagulase-positive.
is a: This organism is:
A. Potassium hydroxide mount of skin scrapings A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Giemsa stain for multinucleated cells B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Fluorescent antibody stain of the vesicle fluid C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Four-fold rise in antibody titer against the organism D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

2. During the first week of the disease Leptospirosis, the most reliable way to 15. Cultures of two neomycin-sensitive strains of Escherichia coli are mixed and
detect the presence of the causative agent is: cultured in the presence of neomycin. After 2 hours, the mixture is plated on
A. Culturing the urine neomycin-containing agar. A few neomycin-resistant colonies grow. The
B. Examination of cerebrospinal fluid emergence of these resistant strains most likely resulted from:
C. Culturing of blood A. Conjugation
D. Culturing of kidney tissue B. Spontaneous mutation
C. Transduction
3. A hospital worker is found to have hepatitis B surface antigens. Subsequent D. Transformation
test reveal the presence of e Antigen as well. The worker most likely is:
A. Infective and has active hepatitis 16. An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella virus in
B. Infective but does not have active hepatitis eighteenth week of pregnancy. She does not remember getting a rubella
C. Not infective vaccination. The best immediate course of action is to:
D. Evincing a biologic false-positive test for hepatitis A. Terminate pregnancy
B. Order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status
4. A patients serum yields a positive RPR & a negative FTA. These results most C. Administer rubella immune globulin
likely indicate: D. Administer rubella vaccine
A. Reactive for syphilis
B. False negative FTA due to low sensitivity of the test 17. A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She recalls
C. Biological false-positive RPR due to cross-reacting antibodies sticking herself with a needle approximately 4 months before after drawing
D. Patient in remission for syphilis blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HBsAg, antibodies to HBsAg, and
hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however, she is positive for IgM core
5. A positive ELISA test for HIV-1 & a Western blot test with bands at p24 & antibody. The nurse:
gp41 most likely indicate: A. Does not have hepatitis B
A. False-positive ELISA & inconclusive Western blot B. Has hepatitis A
B. Positive ELISA & Western blot; indicating HIV infection C. Is in the window phase
C. False positive ELISA & Western blot D. Has hepatitis C
D. Lack of HIV infection
18. There are millions of cases of leprosy (Hansens disease) worldwide, but
6. A Staphylococcus produces a fibrin clot in the tube coagulase test, but not in predominantly in Asia and Africa. The clinical spectrum of Hansens disease is
the slide coagulase test. This organism: best characterized by:
A. Produces only free coagulase & is most likely Staphylococcus aureus A. Immunologic anergy
B. Produces only bound coagulase & is most likely Staphylococcus aureus B. Chronic pneumonitis
C. Is most likely Staphylococcus epidermidis because of the negative slide C. Peripheral neuritis
test D. Erythematous lesions
D. Is most likely Staphylococcus epidermidis since the slide test in
unreliable 19. A 6-year old girl presents to the clinic with scaly patches on the scalp. Primary
smears and culture of the skin and hair were negative. A few weeks later, she
7. If you start out with a population density of 200 CFU/ml of a bacterium that returned and found to have inflammatory lesions. The hair fluoresce under
divides every 20 minutes, what will be the population density at the end of Woods light and primary smears of skin and hair contained septate hyphae.
two hours, assuming the cells are in the log phase of growth: On speaking with the parents, it was discovered that there were several pets
A. 1200 CFU/ml in the household. Which of the following is the most likely agent?:
B. 26 CFU/ml A. Microsporum audouinii
C. 3200 CFU/ml B. Microsporum canis
D. 2006 CFU/ml C. Trichophyton tonsurans
D. Epidermophyton floccosum
8. The presence of low levels of IgG but not IgM antibodies to rubella virus in the
newborn suggests: 20. One of the most remarkable aspects of human immune system is its diversity,
A. Presence of maternal antibodies that is, the ability to recognize a wide range of antigens and to mount a
B. Susceptibility to rubella virus infection specific antibody response. This is called clonal selection. At the cellular level,
C. Congenital infection which of the following is primarily responsible for such specificity?:
D. Persistent infection A. Cyctotoxic T cells
B. Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells
9. Despite feeling healthy, a fourth-year medical student has developed a C. Specific T cell receptors
positive PPD skin test after three years of negative results. The most likely D. Memory cells
interpretation of this result would be that the student has:
A. Reacted as a result of a BCG vaccine given in childhood 21. Relative to the primary immunological response, secondary and later booster
B. An HIV infection which may give a false-positive PPD test responses to a given hapten-protein complex can be associated with which of
C. Secondary tuberculosis as a result of the activation of a long standing the following?:
primary infection A. Lower titers of antibody
D. Been exposed to a person with active tuberculosis and has developed a B. Decreased antibody avidity for the original hapten-protein complex
primary tuberculosis infection C. Increased antibody affinity for the hapten
D. Antibodies that are less efficient in preventing specific disease
10. Penicillin is added to a culture of a Gram-positive rod. Twelve hours later, the
number of bacteria has increased, and the organisms have assumed a round 22. Which one of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?:
configuration. The most likely explanation for these observations is that the: A. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
A. Concentration of penicillin was insufficient B. Inactivation of elongation factor-2
B. Organism carries a mutated transpeptidase C. Blocks release of acetyl choline
C. Organism is deficient in autolytic activity D. Causes the release tumor necrosis factor
D. Organism secretes penicillin
23. The major role of T cells in the immune response includes:
11. A 35-year old migrant worker is admitted to the hospital with a high fever and A. Recognition of epitopes presented with MHC molecules
malaise. When he started feeling weak 3 days ago, he checked his B. Complement fixation
temperature and found it to be slightly elevated. Over the last 3 days, he has C. Phagocytosis
felt progressively worse and his temperature has reached 39.4C. The D. Production of antibodies
resident on call in the emergency room observes a scanty maculopapular
rash on the patients trunk. The patient mentions that another worker in his 24. A culture of skin lesions from a patient with pyoderma (impetigo) shows
group has been sick with similar symptoms. Which one of the following tests numerous colonies surrounded by a zone of beta hemolysis on a blood agar
would most likely yield a diagnosis: plate. A Gram-stained smear shows gram-positive cocci. If you found the
A. Blood cultures catalase test to be negative, which one of the following organisms would you
B. Methylene blue staining of a fecal extract most probably have isolated?:
C. Serologic tests for mumps virus, rubella virus, coxsackie viruses and A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
echovirus B. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Stool cultures C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
12. Which one of the following procedures is best for decontaminating a heat-
sensitive reusable piece of equipment?: 25. Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant a 24-year old woman and her
A. Ethylene oxide gas sterilization husband both developed nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. This is most likely
B. Pasteurization due to:
C. Soaking in 3% hydrogen peroxide A. Clostridium perfringens
D. Soaking in alcohol B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus cereus
13. An alginate-producing, aerobic, oxidase-positive, Gram-negative bacillus is D. Salmonella enteritidis
isolated from the sputum of a patient with cystic fibrosis. This organism is
likely to be:
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
26. Escherichia coli has two major porins located in the outer membrane. The 38. Salmonella has been isolated as a source of contamination in an outbreak of
function of porins is: gastroenteritis associated with eggs. Which of the following reactions is
A. Stabilization of the mesosome correct for this genus?:
B. Metabolism of phosphorylated intermediates A. H2S positive, urease negative, non-motile
C. Transfer of small molecules through the outer membrane B. H2S positive, urease negative, motile
D. Serologic stabilization of the O antigen C. H2S negative, urease positive, motile
D. H2S positive, urease positive, non-motile
27. A recently hired laboratory technologist forgets the iodine-fixation step while
performing a Grams stain on a strain of Staphylococcus. The most likely 39. An organism isolated from an anaerobic blood agar was subcultured onto
result is that the organisms would: both aerobic blood agar, which was incubated aerobically and anaerobic
A. Appear pink blood agar, which was incubated anaerobically. After 48 hours, growth was
B. Appear blue evident only on the anaerobic blood agar plate. This organism is most likely:
C. Be colorless A. An obligate aerobe
D. Wash off the slide B. An obligate anaerobe
C. A facultative anaerobe
28. Your patient is a woman with vaginal discharge. You suspect on clinical D. Capnophilic
grounds, that it may be due to Candida albicans. Which of the following
statements is true?: 40. As compared to a primary response, a typical anamnestic response yields:
A. A Gram stain of the discharge should reveal an encapsulated yeast A. About the same antibody level but the level persists longer
cells B. More antibody but the level is lower to develop
B. Culture of the discharge on Sabourauds agar should produce a white C. A much higher antibody level that also persists longer
mycelium with aerial conidia D. A higher antibody level that declines much more rapidly
C. To identify the organism, you should determine whether germ tubes are
produced 41. Most polar compounds cross the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria
D. Dematiaceous, septated hyphae should be seen together with the yeast by:
cells A. Simple diffusion through the lipid bilayer
B. Diffusion through porins
29. Fungal cells that reproduce by budding are seen in the infected tissues of C. Facilitated diffusion via specific carriers
patients with: D. Active transport using ATP in the periplasm
A. Candidiasis, Cryptococcosis, and Sporotrichosis
B. Mycetoma, Candidiasis, and Mucormycosis 42. Individual prokaryotic cells grow:
C. Tinea corporis, Tinea unguium, and Tinea versicolor A. Slowly at first, then more rapidly
D. Sporotrichosis, Mycetoma, and Aspergillosis B. At a constant rate throughout the cell cycle
C. Rapidly at first, then more slowly
30. Bacteriologic examination of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of a 6-year old girl D. In brief spurts, interspersed with periods of non-growth
with suspected meningitis results in the isolation of a Gram-negative
diplococcus that grows in chocolate agar and is oxidase positive. Which type 43. In terms of temperature optimums for growth, which group encompasses the
of antibacterial should be selected for the treatment of this patient?: human pathogens?:
A. cause misreading of bacterial messenger RNA A. Psychrophile
B. inactivate DNA-dependent RNA polymerase B. Mesophile
C. inhibit peptidoglycan cross-linking C. Thermophile
D. inhibit DNA gyrase D. Hyperthermophile

31. A 22-year old woman developed urinary tract infection during her honeymoon. 44. Pili contribute to bacterial invasiveness by:
At the time she sought medical advice, she was febrile and complained of A. Helping pathogens attach to host cells
painful urination and flank pain. Her urine appeared cloudy. Urine culture B. Inhibiting phagocytosis
yields a lactose-fermenting, indole-positive, Gram-negative bacillus. The C. Dissolving the extracellular matrix
infectiveness of the organism responsible for this urinary tract infection is D. Inhibiting phagosome-lysosome fusion
associated with specific:
A. exotoxins 45. The symptom of diffuse, watery diarrhea that produces a relatively clear stool
B. P fimbriae containing mucus flecks (rice water stool) is most closely associated with an
C. K antigens infection caused by:
D. plasmids A. Escherichia coli
B. Shigella dysenteriae
32. The survival of Mycobacteria after ingestion by macrophages is attributed to: C. Vibrio cholerae
A. bacterial inhibition of complement activation via the alternative pathway D. Campylobacter jejuni
B. bacterial inhibition of phagolysosome formation and interference with
endosomal acidification 46. A clinical problem has emerged concerning infections after prosthetic heart
C. the poor immunogenecity of the cell wall glycolipids valve insertion or other cardiac procedures with methicillin-resistant strains of:
D. the bacteriums rapid escape from the endosome into the cytoplasm of A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
infected cells B. Serratia marcescens
C. Streptococcus salivarius
33. A Gram-negative bacterium is isolated from a patients cerebrospinal fluid D. Enterococcus faecalis
(CSF). It grows on enriched chocolate agar but does not grow on blood agar
except adjacent to a streak of staphylococci. The organism is most probably: 47. Shigella sonnei is differentiated from the other species by:
A. Neisseria meningitidis A. Its ability to ferment lactose
B. Neisseria gonorrheae B. Its positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction
C. Haemophilus influenzae C. Its negative oxidase reaction
D. Listeria monocytogenes D. Its ability to demonstrate motility at 42C

34. A gardener pricked his toe while cutting rose bushes. Four days later a 48. The optimal specimen for the recovery of Bordetella pertussis is:
pustule that changed to an ulcer developed on his toe. Then 3 nodules A. Coughed sputum
formed along the local lymphatic drainage. The most likely agent is: B. Blood
A. Sporothricum schenckii C. Anterior nares swab
B. Trichophyton rubrum D. Nasopharyngeal swab
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Candida albicans 49. A gram-negative bacillus was recovered from the urine of a child with a
history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The organism was oxidase
35. A 24-year old construction worker, who has had four injections of the DPT negative, lactose negative, urease positive, and motile. The most likely
vaccine in his first year of life and boosters at ages 5 & 19, received a deep identification of this agent would be:
laceration while excavating a buildings foundation. The preferred method of A. Proteus mirabilis
treatment would be: B. Escherichia coli
A. An aminoglycoside antibiotic C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Human tetanus immunoglobulin, because it will stimulate his D. Enterobacter aerogenes
anamnestic response
C. Equine tetanus immune globulin, because it will passively immunize 50. The enzyme produced by Helicobacter pylori that appears to be important for
him. survival of the organism in the stomach is:
D. Tetanus toxoid, because it will stimulate his anamnestic response A. Protease
B. Urease
36. A Gram stain from the purulent drainage of a synovial fluid reveals numerous C. Adenylate cyclase
gram-negative diplococci. The organism grew on chocolate agar and Thayer D. Alkaline phosphatase
Martin medium but failed to grow on blood agar or MacConkey agar. Further
testing revealed the organism to be oxidase positive with positive utilization of 51. A microaerophilic curved rod, which frequently causes enteritis in humans,
glucose. All other carbohydrates were negative. The beta lactamase result resides in the intestinal and reproductive tracts of animals:
was positive. The organism is most likely: A. Vibrio cholerae
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Salmonella choleraesuis
B. Neisseria gonorrheae C. Shigella flexneri
C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Moraxellal catarrhalis
52. The most appropriate method for sterilizing a bacteriologic medium is:
37. Beta-hemolytic streptococci were isolated from the throat culture of a 15-year A. Autoclave
old male. Select the best group of tests to identify this organism: B. Ethylene oxide application
A. Bacitracin and SXT C. Filtration
B. Bacitracin and CAMP D. Use of dry heat
C. Bile esculin and PYRase
D. Optochin and CAMP
53. Urease production by enteric bacteria involved with urinary tract infections is
clinically significant because: 67. All of the DNA elements carried within a bacterium whether plasmid, a
A. The enzyme destroys the epithelial lining of the bladder cloned fragment of DNA carried by a vector, or the chromosome must share
B. Products of urease activity cause an alkalinization of the urine and which of the following?:
precipitation of calcium and magnesium phosphates A. Common promoter sequences
C. The enzyme facilitates migration of bacteria into the kidneys B. Common ribosome binding sites
D. The enzyme is required for adherence of bacteria to uroepithelial cells C. Bacterial origins for DNA replication
D. Common repressor binding sequences
54. The highest incidence of meningococcal infection occurs in which age
group?: 68. Serologic diagnosis is an important tool in infectious disease treatment
A. 0 to 6 months of age because:
B. 6 to 24 months of age A. It detects the presence of the specific antigen
C. 2 years to 5 years of age B. It is useful even if the etiologic agent is difficult or impossible to isolate
D. 5 years to 21 years of age C. It is a reflection of current infection
Page 9 of 17 D. It is effective earlier in infection than any type of direct culture

69. Fungal cultures should be held and observed for growth for at least:
55. The agent for artificial immunization against Clostridium tetani consists of: A. 72 hours
A. Purified capsular antigen B. 1 week
B. Purified cell-wall protein C. 1 month
C. An attenuated live organism D. 2 months
D. A toxic protein treated with formaldehyde
70. A laboratory contaminant that produced blue-green growth and
56. An individual experiences severe diarrhea after eating sushi in a restaurant. microscopically showed branching septate hyphae, large, flask-shaped
The most probable cause of the problem is: vesicles, phialides, uniserated heads and parallel chains of conidia covering
A. Salmonella enteritidis the upper half of the vesicle is most likely:
B. Campylobacter jejuni A. Rhizopus
C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus B. Aspergillus
D. Shigella sonnei C. Absidia
D. Penicillium
57. The lowest amount of antibiotic that results in 99.9% in vitro killing of the
organism is the: 71. Which of the following is NOT appropriate when discussing cultures of blood
A. Minimal bacteriostatic concentration for the recovery of bacteria?
B. Serum bactericidal level A. No more than 3 cultures should be drawn in one day
C. Serum peak level B. Should be drawn before the expected fever spike
D. Minimal bactericidal concentration C. Cultures are incubated aerobically and anaerobically
D. Collect 5 ml of blood for optimal recovery of pathogen
58. Propionibacterium acnes were isolated in one tube of a set of three blood
cultures. The other two tubes revealed no growth and no organisms were 72. When clinical specimens are being processed for the recovery of
seen on the Gram stain. This most likely indicates: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the generally recommended method for
A. Septicemia from the organism digestion and decontamination of the sample is:
B. Failure to inoculate the negative bottles properly with blood A. Sodium hypochlorite
C. Skin contamination from improper disinfection before venipuncture B. Trisodium phosphate
D. None of the above C. N-acetyl-L-cysteine
D. Potassium hydroxide
59. The iodine stain for the identification of Chlamydia trachomatis stains:
A. The glycogen in the inclusion brown 73. Effective vaccines presently in use against meningococcal disease contain
B. The periplasmic space purple which of the following as the primary immunizing agent?:
C. The cell membrane brown A. heat-killed bacilli
D. The DNA in the inclusion purple B. lipopolysaccharide
C. major outer-membrane protein
60. An infant was seen in the emergency room with symptoms of neuromuscular D. capsular polysaccharide
weakness and constipation. The diagnosis of infant botulism was confirmed
by the demonstration of toxin in the childs stool. The child most likely 74. The mycobacteria are described as acid-fast because:
contracted the disease by: A. The organisms cannot be stained with acidic dyes
A. Ingestion of spores that germinated in the intestine B. The organisms are rapidly decolorized with acid-alcohol
B. A puncture wound with contaminated household item C. Once stained, the organisms cannot be decolorized with acid-alcohol
C. Ingestion of preformed toxin found in a contaminated jar of pureed D. The organisms are easily stained with acidic dyes
vegetables
D. Inhalation of contaminated fomites 75. You are growing bacterial cells in culture and notice that the cells do not look
very healthy. After some checking you discover that there is a lot of lactic acid
61. Each of the following statements correctly describes the mycoplasmas, in the culture fluid. What is probably wrong with this culture?:
EXCEPT: A. Too much sugar is in the medium
A. They contain both DNA and RNA B. Ethyl alcohol is being produced in excess
B. They do not have a cell wall C. The cells do not have enough oxygen
C. They cannot replicate on their own D. Glycolysis is being inhibited
D. They are the smallest free living organisms known
76. What is the cause of anemia associated with ancylostomiasis?:
62. The synergistic action of sulfonamides and trimethoprim is related to which of A. Bone marrow depression caused by parasitic invasion
the following? B. Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by competitive absorption by the parasite
A. Inhibition of beta-lactamase C. Malabsorption of folic acid as a result of chronic diarrhea
B. Inhibition of sequential steps in tetrahydrofolate synthesis D. Persistent iron loss
C. Altered penicillin-binding proteins
D. Inhibition of DNA gyrase 77. A child who plays in dirt contaminated with human and pet feces is
susceptible to which of the following set of parasites?:
63. The characterization of spirochetes relies primarily on: A. Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura, Trichinella spiralis, Wuchereria
A. Metabolic end products bancrofti
B. Cell wall constituents B. Loa loa, Capillaria philippinensis, Enterobius vermicularis, Trichinella
C. Carbohydrate degradation spiralis
D. Morphology C. Strongyloides stercoralis, Toxocara canis, Ascaris lumbricoides, Necator
americanus
64. Chronic carriers, persons who remain infected with an organism for long D. Ancylostoma braziliense, Trichuris trichiura, Trichinella spiralis, Necator
periods, are typically associated with the dissemination of: americanus
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae 78. A scolex is recovered in human feces after the patient is treated with
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae medication. The scolex bears four cup-shaped suckers. This parasite is.
D. Bordetella pertussis A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Echinococcus granulosus
65. A college student got a summer job working at a marina. While working on C. Taenia saginata
one of the outboard motors on a rental boat, he received several lacerations D. Hymenolepis nana
on his right forearm. No medical treatment was sought at the time of the injury
but after several weeks he noted that the lesions were not healing and sought 79. While examining a fecal specimen, Isospora belli is suspected. The
the opinion of his physician. A biopsy of one of the lesions showed it to be a technologist would expect to see:
cutaneous granulomatous condition. Given the history, which of the following A. Cysts containing sporozoites
microorganisms would most likely be the etiologic agent in this case?: B. Oocysts that are acid fast
A. Vibrio vulnificus C. Cysts with red blood cell inclusions
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Spores that are acid fast
C. Mycobacterium marinum
D. Nocardia asteroids 80. You have decided to move to the Great Lakes area of the United States to
become a sheepherder. You will be a hermit, enjoying a completely self-
66. A microbiology student noticed that a Fluid Thioglycollate culture broth was sustained life by the edge of a lake with your sheepdog and sheep. Which of
very turbid at the surface and turbid throughout the rest of the tube. She can the following sets of Platyhelminthes are you most likely to contract?:
conclude that the: A. Fasciola hepatica, Paragonimus westermani, Taenia solium
A. Organisms cannot tolerate oxygen B. Schistosoma mansoni, Echinococcus granulosus, Clonorchis sinensis
B. Organisms are aerobes C. Fasciolopsus buski, Diphyllobothium latum, Schistosoma japonicum
C. Organisms should be put in a candle jar D. Fasciola hepatica, Echinococcus granulosus, Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Organisms are facultative anaerobes
81. Fly larvae were recovered from an open wound on the arm of a nursing home D. Babesiosis
patient. This finding is called:
A. Facultative myiasis 94. Initial gastritis followed by hypereosinophilia and vasculitis, and ultimately
B. Intestinal myiasis myositis, are symptoms of clinical cases of which of the following:
C. Mechanical myiasis A. Cysticercosis
D. Obligate myiasis B. Sparganosis
C. Trichinosis
82. An 8-year old girl with respiratory symptoms comes to the emergency room. D. Visceral larva migrans
Her mother tells the physician that her daughter has been more clumsy than
usual over the past 3 days. On physical examination, an engorged tick is 95. Disseminated intravascular coagulation resulting in decreased
found on the childs neck. Her temperature is 37C, and her complete blood microcirculation and tissue anoxia is responsible for the severe renal and
count levels are normal. These symptoms suggest that the child has: cerebral manifestations of:
A. Babesiosis A. Amebic meningoencephalitis
B. Colorado tick fever B. Malignant malaria
C. Lyme disease C. Neonatal toxoplasmosis
D. Tick paralysis D. Urinary schistosomiasis

83. Recovery in human feces of a 7 mm-long gravid proglottid containing eight 96. Ulcerative colitis describes the intestinal lesions seen in clinical cases of
lateral branches indicates infection with: which of the following?:
A. Diphyllobothrium latum A. Ascariasis
B. Taenia solium B. Amebiasis
C. Echinococcus granulosus C. Giardiasis
D. Taenia saginata D. Enterobiasis

84. A patient with AIDS returned from Thailand with acute diarrhea. The stool 97. The modified acid-fast stain is most often used in parasitology to identify:
revealed an oval organism that was acid-fast and fluoresced blue under A. Protozoan cysts and trophozoites
ultraviolet light. The most likely identification of this organism is: B. Helmonth eggs
A. Giardia C. Plasmodium
B. Toxoplasma D. Cryptosporidium and other Coccidia
C. Cyclospora
D. Cryptosporidium 98. The observation of embryonic flame cell activity is recommended to
demonstrate the viability of the eggs of:
85. A newspaper correspondent has diarrhea for 2 weeks after an assignment in A. Clonorchis sinensis
Quezon province. You might expect to have: B. Fasciola hepatica
A. Schistosomiasis C. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Toxoplasmosis D. Taenia solium
C. Visceral larva migrans
D. Giardiasis 99. Enterobius vermicularis infection is usually diagnosed by:
A. Finding adult worm in feces
86. A retired Air Force colonel has had abdominal pain for 2 years. He makes B. Finding larvae in feces
yearly visits to his hometown in Leyte where he enjoys wading with bare feet C. Finding eggs in the feces
into streams. Which of the following should be in your differential diagnosis?: D. Finding eggs in the perianal specimens
A. Trichinosis
B. Schistosomiasis 100. Which of the following findings in a peripheral blood smear is especially
C. Visceral larva migrans associated with tissue-invading helminths but may also be found in a variety
D. Giardiasis of allergic conditions and other diseases?:
A. Anemia
87. A woman from Mindanao complains of having paroxysmal attacks of chills, B. Eosinophilia
fever, and sweating; these attacks last a day or two at a time and recur every C. Leucopenia
36 to 48 hours. Examination of a stained blood specimen reveals ring-like and D. Neutropenia
crescent-like forms within red blood cells. The infecting organism is most
likely:
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Babesia microti
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

88. A 56-year old missionary in Mindanao is in acute renal failure. Two months
earlier, the patient had been diagnosed with malaria and treated with
Chloroquine. Recrudescence occurred after the first month of therapy. The
recent deterioration in his kidney function followed a febrile crisis during which
the patient noted that his urine was very dark. The most likely cause for this
patients acute renal failure is:
A. acute dehydration
B. bilirubin toxicity
C. deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli
D. massive intravascular hemolysis

89. A pear-shaped flagellate with an undulating membrane extending one-half the

length of its body with four recurrent flagella but no anterior flagellum was
recovered from a urine specimen. This is most likely:
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Trichomonas hominis
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Trichomonas tenax

90. A 3-year old girl was admitted to the hospital with severe emaciation and
anemia secondary to a long term bloody diarrhea. While hospitalized, she
experienced several episodes of rectal prolapse. Numerous white worms
were seen attached to the surface of the prolapsed rectal mucosa. This
patient most probably has:
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Necator americanus
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Trichuris trichiura

91. An ameba isolated from a patient with keratitis has spiny pseudopods, well-
defined ectoplasm and endoplasm, and no flagellar phase noted. It is most
likely:
A. Iodamoeba
B. Cryptosporidium
C. Naegleria
D. Acanthamoeba

92. The host where the asexual or larval phase of the parasite occurs is known as
the:
A. Incidental host
B. Intermediate host
C. Definitive host
D. Carrier

93. Finding intraerythrocytic trophozoite, schizont and gametocyte stages in

stained thin blood smears during febrile periods is the usual means of
diagnosis of which of the following?:
A. Malaria
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Visceral leishmaniasis