Neet Model Papers (Eenadu)

NEET
MODEL PAPER
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Instructions :
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*
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This question paper contains 180 questions in Physics,
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Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
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* Each objective question has four options, in which student has

to select one best option.
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* Each correct option will be rewarded with four marks. However,

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if the attempt of answering a question is wrong there will be

1 mark.
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* Maximum time allowed to answer this paper is three hours

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(180 min)
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x-x-x
Page No.1
PHYSICS
1. Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross section varying as shown in the
figure. The variation of pressure P at points along the axis is represented by the graph :
P P P P
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1) 2) 3) 4)
x x x x
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2. A cubical block of side a and density slides over a fixed inclined plane with constant
velocity V. There is a film of viscous fluid of thickness t between the plane and the block.
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Then the coefficient of viscosity of the film will be
ib

agt gta sin

t V
1) = 2)
ra 3) 4) None of these
s in V agt sin
3. Wien's displacement law tells us that an extremely hot star looks.
up
1) Violet or indigo 2) Green or yellow 3) Orange or red 4) White

4. Water at 0c, contained in a closed vessel, is abruptly opened in an evacuated chamber. If
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the specific heat of fusion and vaporization at 0c be in the ratio :1 , the fraction of
water evaporated will be
1 1
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1) 2) 3) 4)
1 +1 1 1+
Cp 4
5. The value of = is for an adiabatic process of an ideal gas for which internal en-
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Cv 3
ergy is U=K+xPV. The value of x will be
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
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6. A fixed U-sphaed smooth wire has a semicircular bending between A and B as shown in
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the figure. A bead of mass m moving with uniform speed V through the wire enters the
semicircular bend at A and leaves at B. The average force exerted by the bead on the part
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AB of the wire is
A d
m
d
B
4mv 2 2mv 2
1) 0 2) 3) 4) None
d d
Page No.2
7. A block on table shown in figure is just on the wedge of slipping. Find the coefficient of
static friction between the block and table to
T
30
40N
60N
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1) 1.15 2) 0.866 3) 0.707 4) 1.4
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8. After perfectly inclastic collision between two identical particles moving with same speed
in different directions. The speed of the combined particle become half the initial speed
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of either particle. The angle between the velocities of the two before collision is
1) 60 2) 120 3) 180 4) 150
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9. One end of a light spring of natural length d and spring constant k is fixed on a rigid wall
and the other is attached to a smooth ring of mass m, which can slide with out friction on
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a vertical rod fixed at a distance d from the wall. Initially the spring makes an angle of
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37 with the horizontal as shown in figure. If the system is released from rest, the speed of
the ring when the spring becomes horizontal is [sin37=3/5]
up
A V=0
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37
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B
d
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d 3g K 3g K 2d 3g K d 3g K
1) + 2) d + 3) + 4) +
2 2d 16m 2d 16m 3 2d m 2 2 d 8m
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10. Assertion(A):Position of centre of mass of a body is independent of coordinate system

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Reason (R) : Internal force do not effect the motion of centre of mass
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explain of A
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2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explain of A

3) A is true and R is false 4) A is false and R is true
11. The spin drier of a washing machine revolving at 15rps slows down to 5rps. While mak-
ing 50 revolutions. Find the time interval in this
1) 10s 2) 6s 3) 5s 4) 9s
Page No.3
12. Assertion (A) : The hard boiled egg and raw egg can be distinguished on the basis of
spinning of both
Reason (R) : The moment of inertia of hard boiled egg is more as compare to raw egg.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explain of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explain of A
3) A is true and R is false 4) A is false and R is true
13. Two satellites are going round the earth one at a distance 3000km and the other at 4000
et
km from the centre of earth. The ratio of their angular speeds is
4 16 8 64
1) 2) 3) 4)
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3 9 3 3 27
14. Figure shows the variation of force acting on a particle of mass 400g executing simple
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harmonic motion. Find the frequency of oscillations of the particle in (s-1) is
F(N)
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2.0
1.5
t 1
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0.5
x(cm)
up
20 -15 -10 -5 5 10 15 20
-0.5
-1
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-1.5
2.0
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4 5 2 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 4 5 2
15. One end of a wire 1m long and radius 2mm is clamped and the other end is twisted by an
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angle of 45. The angle of sheer is

1) 0.9 2) 0.09 3) 9 4) 4.5
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16. Radio waves are produced by

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1) Klystron valve
2) Rapid acceleration and deceleration of electrons
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3) Vibration of atoms and molecules 4) Radio active decay of the nucles

17. The maximum distance upto while TV transmission from a TV tower of height 'h' can be
received is proportional to
1) h1/2 2) h-1/2 3) h3/2 4) h-3/2
Page No.4
18. Pure Si at 300k has equal electron (ne) and hole (nn) concentration of 1.5 1016 m 3 . It is
doped with 4.5 10 22 m 3 indium. Calculate ne in the doped silicon
1) 5 1010 m 3 2) 5 109 m 3 3) 3 106 m 3 4) 3 107 m 3
19. In a npn transistor circuit, the collector current is 10mA. If 90% of electrons injected by
the emitter are able to reach the collector, then.
1) Emitter current is 11.11mA 2) The base current is 0.1 mA
3) Base current is 0.9 mA 4) The emitter current is 9 mA
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20. A nucleus z x A at rest emits an -particle with velocity V. The recoil speed of the daugh-
ter nucleus is
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A4 4V V
1) 2) 3) V 4)
4V A4 4
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21. The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to that in helium gas at 300k is
2 1 3 6
1) 2) 3) 4)
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7 7 5 5
2
22. If Y = A sin (Vt x) represents a transverse wave travelling along x-axis, then the

t
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particle velocity VP, the wave velocity V and the slope S of the wave are related as
up
V
1) VP = 2) VP=S2V 3) VP=-VS 4) VP=-V/S2
S
23. Figure a tube structure in which signal is sent from one end and is received at the other
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end. The frequency of sound source can be varied electronically between 2000Hz to 5000Hz.
The frequency at which maximum intensity is detected (The speed of sound in air is 343m/s)
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20cm
10cm B C Ear
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A D
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10cm
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E
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1) 4280Hz 2) 4950Hz 3) 4490Hz 4) 4000Hz

24. An object 2.4m infront of a lens forms a sharp image on a film 12cm behind the lens. A
gass plate 1cm thick, of refractive index 1.50 is interposed between lens and film with its
plane face parallel to film. To what distance ( from lens) should object shifted to be in
sharp focus on film?
1) 7.2m 2) 2.4m 3) 3.2m 4) 5.6m
Page No.5
25. If for a given pair of media CR, CY, CB are the critical angles for red, yellow and blue
colours respectively, then
1) CR=CY=CB 2) CB>CY>CR 3) CR>CY>CB 4) CR>CY<CB
26. Primary rainbow is formed due to
1) Two refractions, one internal reflection 2) Two internal reflection, one refraction .
3) One refraction, one internal reflection 4) Only one refraction
27. In order to increase the resolving power of an electron microscope
1) De-Broglie wave length of the electron beam must be increased
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2) The electron beam must be accelerated through a high potential difference
3) The electron beam must be subjected to rerardation potential
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4) The electron beam must be accelerated through a low potential difference.
28. Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2R are charged such that both have the
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same charge density . If the two spheres are connected by a conducting wire, the charges
on them become q11 and q12 respectively then.
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1 40 2 20 2 20 2 40 2
1) q1 = R , q12 = R 1
2) q1 = R , q12 = R
3 3 3 3
t
1 1 20 2
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3) q1 = q2 = R 4) q1 = q2 = R
3 3
29. A cell sends a current i1 through a coil of resistance R1 and a current i2 through a coil of
up
resistance is R2, the emf of the cell is

i1i2 i1i2 i2 R2 i1R1 i1R2 i2 R1
2) i i ( R2 R1 ) ( R2 R1 )
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1) i + i 3) i1 + i2 4) R2 R1
1 2 1 2
30. In the circuit shown below, the readings of the ammeter and voltmeter are
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6V , 1
V
A
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10
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6 60
1) 6V, 60V 2) 0.6V, 6V 3) 6A, 6V 4) A, V
11 11
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31. Two mutually perpendicular conductors carry currents I1 and I2 along x and y axis re-
spectively. The locus of points at which the magnetic induction is zero is
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I2 x P(x, y)
y
O I1
I1 I2 I1 I 2 I1 + I 2
1) Y = x 2) Y = x 3) Y = x 4) Y = x
I2 I1 I 2 + I1 I 2 I1
Page No.6
32. The angular momentum (L) of a charged particle of mass m, interms of magnetic mo-
mentum M, If it is circulate in a loop.
2M M
1) L = m 2) L = m
q 2q
3M M
3) L = m 4) L = m
2 q q
33. Statement I : According to Gauss law in magnetism v B .dl = O
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Statement II :Magnetic field lines always form closed loops
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1) Statement I & II are correct and II is correct explanation to I
2) Statement I & II are correct and II is not correct explanation of I.
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3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
34. The rectangular wire frame shown in figure has a width l, mass m, resistance R and a
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large length. A constant force F starts acting on the frame pushing it into magnetic field
t
at time, t=0, the acceleration of the same when its speed has increased to V is
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x x x
up
x xl x
x x x F
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2( FR B 2l 2V ) ( FR B 2l 2V ) FR B 2l 2V ( FR B 2l 2V )
1) 2) 3) 4)
mR 2 mR 2 mR mR
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35. A 60Hz, 230V rms voltage is applied on an inductance. The equation for voltage is
1) 230sin12t 2) 230 2 sin 60t
.e
230
3) sin 60t 4) 230 2 sin120t
2
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36. At every instant the ratio of the magnitude of the electric field to the magnetic field in an
electromagnetic wave in vacuum is equal to
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1) The speed of radio waves 2) The speed of -rays

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3) The speed of light 4) All of the above

37. In an experiment on scattering of particles, 100 -particles are scattered per second
at 60 with incident direction. The number of -particles scattered per second at 90 is
1) Zero 2) 100 3) 50 4) 25
38. The de-Broglie wave length of electron in the ground state of a hydrogen atom is
1) 0.53A 2) 1.06A 3) 1.67A 4) 3.33A
Page No.7
39. Statement I : A photocell is also called an electric eye
Statement II : Photocell generates electric current, when light falls on it.
This is similar to on eye observing on object in the presence of light
1) Statement I & II are correct and II is correct explanation to I
2) Statement I & II are correct and II is not correct explanation of I.
3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
40. A deutron moves with a kinetic energy of 0.36 Mev. The temperature at which it can have
et
this energy is
1) 2.8 109 K 2) 2.1 106 K 3) 2.8 1010 K 4) 2.1 107 K
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41. The dimension of h/e (h=planks constant, e=electronic charge) is same as that
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1) Magnetic flux 2) Electric flux 3) Electric field 4) Magneticfield
42. Velocity of a car as function of time is given by Vx (t ) = + t 2 where = 3.00m / s and
ib
= 0.100m / s3 . The average acceleration for the time interval t = 0 to t = 5s is
1) 1m/s2 2) 0.5m/s2 3) 0.75m/s2 4) 1.25m/s2
t
43. An air craft is flying at a height of 3400m above the ground. If the angle subtended at a
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ground observation centre by two positions of the air craft 10s apart is 30, the speed of
the air craft is . [The observation point is on the vertical line, which is midway between
up
positions of air craft]. Given that [Tan15 = 0.2679].
P1 x x
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P2
15 15 h
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\\\\\\ \\\\\\ \\\\\\

O
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1) 262.4 m/s 2) 131.2 m/s 3) 91.1m/s 4) 182.2 m/s

44. A projectile is projected at an angle of 45 to the horizontal. The slope of trajectory of the
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body varies with time t as

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Slope Slope
Slope Slope
t t
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1) t 2) t 3) 4)
JG JG JG
45. If A = 3i + 4 j and B = 7i + 24 j , find a vector having the same magnitude as B and parallel
JG
to A .
1) 15i + 20 j 2) 20i 15 j 3) 75i + 100 j 4) 100i + 75 j
Page No.8
CHEMISTRY
46. C2 H5 Br
AlcKOH
A
Br
B
AlcKOH
2
NaNH
C ( final ) 2
Then identify the correct statement

1) The hybrisization of carbon atoms in A and B are sp3
2) A can be obtained by the pyrolysis of ethane
3) 'C' can be obtained by the dehydration of ethyl alcohol
4) 'C' on treatment with SO2Cl2, gives mustard gas
47. Catalyst used in wacker's process is
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2
1) CuCl2 2) Ni (CN )4 3) PdCl2 4) TiCl4 + AlR3
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48. Correct order of acidic strength is
1) ClCH 2COOH > HCOOH > C6 H 5COOH > ClCH 2CH 2COOH
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2) HCOOH > Cl.CH 2COOH > ClCH 2CH 2COOH > C6 H 5COOH
3) Cl.CH 2COOH > HCOOH > ClCH 2CH 2COOH > C6 H 5COOH
ib
4) ClCH 2COOH > Cl.CH 2CH 2COOH > HCOOH > C6 H 5COOH
49. Toulene a)
CrO 2 Cl 2
t
A ; Benzene carbontrile H B B
Partial

r2 / K O H
C .
b) H 3 O
ra ydrolosys
A + C D
LiAlH 4
E.
Incorrect statement is
up
1) D is Schiff's base 2) E is benzylphenyl amine

3) D is benzal aniline 4) IUPAC name of A is benzene carboxamide
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50. Activation energy of a reaction when temperature changes from 300K to 310K
[ Temperature co-efficient = 2, R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1]
1) 53.6 KJ mol-1 2) 48.6 KJ mol-1
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3) 36.2 KJ mol-1 4) 60.5 KJ mol-1

51. In vanderWaal's equation of state about gas laws, the constant 'b' is a measure of
1) intermolecular collissions per unit volume 2) intermolecular attraction
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3) volume occupied by the molecules 4) intermolecular repulsions

52. Which of the following exists only at high temparature
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1) CO 2) GeO 3) SiO 4) SnO

53. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO is 3. Which statement is true for these two
+
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species ?
1) Bond length is unpredictable 2) Bond length in NO is greater than that in NO+
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3) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO 4) Bond length in NO+ is greater than that in NO
54. Incorrect statement is
1) Nylon 6, 6 is a copolymer of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
2) Nylon 6 is a polymer of formaldehyde and phenol
3) Dacron is a copolymer of ethyleneglycol and terepthalic acid
4) Natural rubber is a linear polymer of 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene
Page No.9
55. The optically inactive aminoacid is
1) Leucine 2) Alanine 3) Glycine 4) Glutamine
56. Electron affinity of chlorine atom is 3.55ev. what is the energy released in Kcal when one
gram of Cl(g) converts to Cl(g)
1) 5 2) 9.6 3) 2.3 4) 4.8
57. The sweetner which the lowest sweetness value
1) Alitane 2) Aspartame 3) Saccharir 4) Sucralose
58. The number of oxygen atoms bounded to one phosphorous atom is P4O10 is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 6 4) 5
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59. B2H6 liberates H2 gas when it reacts with
1) H2O 2) KOH 3) NH3 at high temparature 4) All of these
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60. The molar ionic conductances of the octahedral complexes
I) PtCl4.5NH3 II) PtCl4.4NH3 III) PtCl4.3NH3 IV) PtCl4.2NH3
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1) I<II<III<IV 2) IV<III<II<I 3) III<IV<II<I 4) IV<III<I<II
61. The total volume of atoms present in face centred cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic
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radius)
20 r 3 24 r 3 12 r 3 16 r 3
1) 2)
t3) 4)
3 3
ra 3 3
62. The decreasing order of stability of oxides formed by halogens are
1) Br >Cl 2) I > Cl > Br 3) Cl > Br > I 4) Cl > I > Br
up
63. An aqueous solution freezes at -0.186 C (Kf = 1.86; Kb = 0.512), the elevation in boiling
o
point is
1) 0.186 2) 0.512 3) 0.86 4) 0.0512
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NaNO + HX
64.
A B + N2
Cu X
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2 2 2
273 278 K
here A, B are respectively

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1) C6 H 5 N 2+ X ; C6 H 5 X 2) C6 H 5 N 2+ X ; C6 H 5CH 2 X
3) C6 H 5 X ; C6 H 5 N 2+ X 4) C6 H 5 NO2 ; C6 H 5 N 2+ X
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65. Among the following the one that gives positive iodoform test upon reaction with
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I2 and NaOH is
1) CH 3CH 2CH (OH )CH 2CH 3 2) C6 H 5CH 2CH 2OH
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3) (CH 3 )2 CHCH 2OH 4) C6 H 5CH (OH )CH 3

66. Two glass bulbs A and B are connected by a very small tube (of negligible volume) having
a stop cock. Volume of bulb A is 100 cm3 and it contains some gas. Bulb 'B' is empty. On
opening the stop cock, the pressure dropped by 60%. The volume of Bulb B must be
1) 100 cm3 2) 150 cm3 3) 200 cm3 4) 180 cm3
Page No.10
67. Four sparingly soluble salts AB, AB2, AB3, AB4 have same value of Ksp. Solubility is highest
for
1) AB3 2) AB4 3) AB 4) AB2
68. The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is found to be
0.295V at 250C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction would be
1) 2 1011 2) 4 1012 3) 102 4) 1010
69. Which of the following ionic crystals contain both Schottkey as well as Frenkel defects?
1) AgBr 2) NaCl 3) CsCl 4) ZnS
70. A current of 0.965 amp is passed through an aqueous solution of AgNO3 for 10minutes
et
during electrolysis. Then the mass of Ag deposited at the cathode is (At.wt of Ag = 108)
1) 0.648 gr 2) 0.6 gr 3) 6 gr 4) 60 gr
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71. Which one of the following sets does not contain iso electronic species?
1) BO33 , CO32 , NO3 2) SO32 , CO32 , NO3 3) CN , N 2 , C22 4) PO43 , SO42 , ClO4
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72. Very pure nitrogen is obtained by
1) thermal decomposition of Ammonium dichromate
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2) thermal decomposition of Barium azide
3) the reaction of aqeous NH4Cl and aqueous NaNO3
4) all the above
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73. When excess KI solution is added to AgNO3 solution
1) negatively charged colloidal solution is formed
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2) positively charged colloidal solution is formed
3) neutral colloidal solution is formed 4) no collodial solution is formed
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74. The conjugate base of H 2 PO4 is

1) PO43 2) HPO42 3) H 3 PO4 4) P2O5
75. The orbital angular momentum for a 2p electron is
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h 2h h h
1) 2) 3) 6 4) 2
2 4 2
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76. Very pure hydrogen (99.9) can be prepared by

1) Reaction of methane with steam 2) Reaction of saline hydrides with water
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3) Electrolysis of Ba(OH)2/ Ni electrodes 4) Mixing natural hydrocarbon

77. Least basic of the following is
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1) Aniline 2) Quinine 3) Methanamine 4) Benzyl amine

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78. Critical micelle concentration for soaps is

1) 104 M 103 M 2) 1M 10M 3) 101M 102M 4) 105M108M
79. Nin hydrin reagent is used to identify
1) Carbohydrates 2) Amino acids 3) Proteins 4) Nucleic acid
80. The acid which exhibits oxidising, reducing and complex formation properties
1) HNO3 2) HCl 3) H2SO4 4) HNO2
Page No.11
81. The enthalphy change and entropy change for fusion of KCl are 7.25KJmol and 0.007KJK-
1
mol-1. The melting point of KCl is nearly
1) 2071K 2) 1036K 3) 950K 4) 1500K
82. A buffer solution formed by mixing CH3COOH/CH3COONa has PH = 6.04. If PKa of acetic
acid is 4.74 the the ratio of [Salt]/[Acid] is
1) 10:1 2) 1:10 3) 20:1 4) 1:20
83. All naturally occuring amino acids have............... configuration, all naturally occuring
carbohydrates have _______ configuration
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1) L,D 2) D, L 3) L, L 4) D,D
84. In the redox reaction of KMnO4 vs H2C2O4 is the volume of 0.1M KMNO4 required to
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oxidize 25ml of 0.25M H2C2O4 solution is
1) 25ml 2) 125ml 3) 12.5ml 4) 2.5ml
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85. Gold numbers of protective collrids A, B, C and D are 0.01, 0.10, 0.50 and 0.005
respectively. The correct order of their protective powers is
1) D<A<C<B 2) C<B<A<D 3) A<C<B<D 4) B<D<A<C
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86. Which one of the following complex ions can shows optical isomerism ?
1) Co (CN )6
3
t
2) Cr (C2O4 )3
3
3) [ZnCl4 ]
2
4) Cu ( NH 3 )4
2+
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87. If 0 is the threshold wavelength of a metal and is the wavelength of the incident
radiation, the maximum velocity of the ejected electrons from the metal would be
up
1 1
2hc 0 2hc 0
2 2 1 1
h 2
2h 2
1) 2) 3) 2 (0 ) 4) ( 0 )
m 0 m 0 m m
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88. The decreasing order of stability of carbanions

(CH3 )3 C (1); (CH 3 )2 CH (2 ); CH 3CH 2 (3); C6 H 5CH 2 (4 ) is
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1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 3) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3 4) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3
89. IUPAC name of the following compound is
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1) 3-ethyl-4-methyl hex-5-en-2-ol 2) 4-ethyl-3-methyl hex-1-en-5-ol

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3) 3-methyl-4-ethyl hex-1-en-5-ol 4) 4-methyl-3-ethyl hex-5-en-2-ol

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90. Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates in a closed reaction vessel as ,

PCl3( g ) + Cl2( g )
PCl5( g )
.
If the total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction mixture is P and degree of dissociation
of PCl5 is x, the partial pressure of PCl3 will be
x 2x x x
1) P 2) P 3) P 4) P
x +1 1 x x 1 1 x
Page No.12
BOTANY
91. How many of the following are meiospores? Zygospores, Akinetes, Chlamydospores,
Endospores, Parthenospores, Conidia, Germspores, Ascospores, Basidiospores,
Pollengrains, Megaspores.
1) 6 2) 5 3) 4 4) 3
92. Well exposed gametangia and concealed sporangia are found in
1) Marchantia 2) Dryopteris 3) Cedrus 4) Citrus
93. Which of the following is not an incorrect statement with reference to angiosperms
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1) Triple fusion begins first and followed by syngamy
2) Vessels are the only conducting elements of xylem
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3) Exalbuminous seeds are formed if triple fusion fails
4) Female gametophyte is the site of fertilization and embryogenesis
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94. The flower of Bean family does not show
1) Cohesion of stamens 2) Postero-anterior overlapping of petals
3) Adhesion of stamens 4) Marginal placentation
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95. Medicinal plant with incomplete flowers is
1) Aswagandha
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2) Sarsaparilla 3) Fenugreek 4) Glory lily
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96. Match the following and choose the correct match.
ColumnI ColumnII
up
A) Peroxysome I) Bio-genesis of ribosomes
B) Glyoxysome II) Phosphorylation of lipids
C) Dictyosome III) Glycosidation of proteins
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D) Plasmosome IV) Conversion of lipids to carbohydrates

A B C D A B C D
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1) II IV III I 2) II III IV I
3) II I IV III 4) II III I IV
97. Roots with high surface area of water absorption but without root hairs are found in
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1) Cuscuta 2) Pinus 3) Vanda 4) Avicennia

98. Stone fruits are all
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1) Single chambered 2) Single seeded 3) With stony epicarp 4) With stony endocarp
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99. Cycas is called "relic of past" because

1) It is a primitive gymnosperm 2) It is the ancestor of angiosperms
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3) It retains few morphological fern characters 4) It retains all anatomical fern characters
100. Wrong expression among the following is
1) All types of chlorophyll pigments are found in red algae
2) Sporophylls are well differentiated in Angiosperms
3) Sclerenchyma is universal mechanical tissue in tracheophytes
4) Stomata are found in bryophytic sporophytes
Page No.13
101. Club fungi without fruiling bodies are
1) Bracket fungi 2) Smut and Rust fungi 3) Puff balls 4) Toad stools
102. Flagellated chlorophyllous organism with cellulosic cell wall whose species show
isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy is
1) Chlorella 2) Paramecium 3) Chlamydomonas 4) Gonyaulax
103. Wrongly matched of the following is
1) Flora Habitat and distribution of plants of an area
2) Mannual Names of species found in an area
et
3) Monograph Information on one taxon
4) Digital herbarium Homologous to herbarium
.n
104. The processing of proteins occurs
1) On ribosomes 2) In Aleuroplasts 3) In RER 4) On microsomes
ha
105. Heteropolymers are
1) Some proteins 2) Some nucleic acids
3) All lipids 4) Some polysaccharides
ib
t
1) 'S' phase Replication of euchromatin but not heterochromatin
ra
2) G2 phase '2C' amount of DNA if the cell is haploid
3) Prophase Disorganisation of nucleus
up
4) Metaphase Alignment of chromosomes on equatorial line

107. Maximum number of chiasmata in each bivalent are seen during
ad
1) Diplotene 2) Diakinesis 3) MetaphaseI 4) AnaphaseI

108. Non.lignified conducting elements with tapering ends are found
1) In all tracheophytes 2) In only pteridophytes
en
3) Never in angiosperms 4) In all spermatophytes

109. Which of the following is not a correct statement.
.e
1) Annual rings are circular in shape in radial longitudinal section of stem

2) Cork is a suberized secondary tissue
w
3) Tyloses are tracheary plugs

4) Bast is the vital tissue of bark
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110. Pericycle initiates secondary growth in

1) Stems of dicots 2) Stems of gymnosperms
w
3) Roots of dicots 4) Roots of monocots

111. Natural openings of plant body unconcerned with gaseous exchange are
1) Lenticels 2) Knots 3) Stomata 4) Hydathodes
112. The endosperm of coconut is
1) Free nuclear type 2) Cellular type
3) Helobial type 4) Partially free nuclear and partially cellular
Page No.14
113. When extra pressure above the normal atmospheric pressure is applied over a solution,
then it's
1) Z becomes less ve 2) Q becomes more ve
3) Both Z and Q become less ve 4) Both Z and Q become more ve
114. Match the following and choose the correct match.
ColumnI ColumnII
A) Transpiration I) Passive process
B) Loading of xylem II) Passive process
et
C) Loading of phloem III) Active process
D) Unloading of xylem IV) Active process
.n
A B C D A B C D
1) II IV III I 2) II III I IV
ha
3) II I IV III 4) II IV I III
115. The transport of xylem sap is a pull due to
1) + ve hydrostatic pressure gradient 2) ve hydrostatic pressure gradient
ib
3) + ve pull at the top 4) ve push at the base
t
116. Pigmented anoxygenic nitrogen fixer is
ra
1) Anabaena 2) Azospirillum 3) Oscillatoria 4) Rhodospirillum
117. Which of the following set of reactions correctly represents the requirement of NADPH
up
and ATP respectively

1) PGA l 1, 3 bis PGA l G3P
ad
2) B .Ketoglutaric acid l Glutamate l Glutamine

3) Oxalo acetic acid l Aspartic acid l Aspargine
4) Malic acid l Pyruvic acid l Phospho enol pyruvic acid
en
118. When co.factor is removed then the apo. enzyme

1) Retains catalytic activity 2) Becomes simple enzyme
3) Looses catalytic activity 4) Becomes denatured
.e
119. Feredoxin is the

1) Oxidant of NADP+ in non-cyclic e transport
w
2) Reductant of plastoquinone in cyclic e transport

w
3) Reductant of P700 in both cyclic and non-cyclic e transports

4) Reductant of NADP+ in cyclic e transport
w
120. Carbon assimilation does not occur in the chloroplasts of

1) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants 2) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
3) Photosynthetic cells of CAM plants 4) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants
121. The substrate of decarboxylation in photorespiration is a/an
1) C4 dicarboxylic acid 2) C5 dicarboxylic acid
3) C2 Amino acid 4) C3 Mono carboxylic acid
Page No.15
122. The product of karyogamy in somatic hybridization is called
1) Synkaryon 2) Heterokaryon 3) Restitutive nucleus 4) Mesokaryon
123. Which of the following is not a hybrid.
1) Himgiri variety of wheat
2) pusa sadabahar variety of chilly
3) Flavor saver variety of tomato
4) Parbhani kranti variety of bhindi
124. Acellular biopesticide, employed in IPM is
1) Bacillus thuringiencis 2) Lady bird
et
3) NPV 4) Pollinator predators
.n
1) Selectable marker drug producing gene
2) PCR technique Gene amplification
ha
3) Gene gun method Direct method of gene transformation
4) Colony hybridization Selection of transformed cells using gene probe
ib
126. Which of the following is not a correct statements
1) Lac operon has both -ve and +ve control
2) Exons are coding sequences of gene
t
ra
3) Cistron is a gene in prokaryokaryotes but it is a part of gene in eukaryotes
4) Splicing of m.R.N.A occurs in the nucleoplasm in eukaryotes
up
127. The property of genetic code of non - participation of each nucleotide of m.R.N.A. is more
than one codon i s
1) Non - ambiguous 2) Redundancy 3) Non - overlapping 4) Commaless
ad
128. How many times the probability of double homozygous recessive progeny of dihybrid
test cross is more than the same progeny in the F2 generation of Mendelian dihybrid
en
cross
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6
129. The phenotypical ratio of F2 generation when cross is made between RRyyq rrYY is
.e
1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 2) 7 : 1 : 1 : 7 3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 4) 1 : 7 : 7 : 1
130. CO2 is evolved during the process of
w
1) Baking 2) Brewing 3) Seed germination 4) All the above

131. The number of pairs of redox equivalents removed from C3 intermediary compounds of
w
aerobic respiration per glucose is

w
1) 4 2) 2 3) 6 4) 12
1) R.Q of germinating castor seed < 1
2) Number of COOH groups in B Ketoglutaric acid 2
3) Number of ADP required in glycolysis 2
4) Yield of ATP per glucose in aerobic respiration within mitochondria 3 4
Page No.16
133. The product of dedifferentiation in the stele of dicot stem is
1) Fascicular cambium 2) Interfascicular cambium
3) Cork cambium 4) Vascular cambium
134. The promotion of sprouting of potato tubers by ethylene is it's
1) Anti GA property 2) Synergistic property with ABA
3) Anti ABA property 4) Anti auxin property
135. Site of vernalization in annual plants is
1) Seed stage 2) Shoot apex 3) Root apex 4) Leaf
et
ZOOLOGY
136. A population is said to be evolving one due to
.n
1) Random mating 2) its large size
ha
3) differential reproductive success 4) Same age group of its members
137. The immediate source of energy for primary carnivore is
1) NPP 2) NSP in primary consumer
ib
3) GSP in primary consumer 4) NSP in secondary consumer
138. In population growth curves, 'r' value remains relatively more stable at
t
ra
1) Exponential phase 2) Lag phase 3) Asymptote 4) Acceleration
139. The following is the graph showing relationship between area and species richness
up
Y Z VALUE =1.5
rv e
cu A
SPECIES RICHNESS
r
ea
ad
n lin Z VALUE =1
No E
i cal C AL B
t S
the G Z VALUE =0.6
y po G-LO etical
en
H LO ypoth C
H al
y p othetic Z VALUE =0.2
H D
X
.e
AREA
1) The number of species at A - more

w
2) The number of species at B - very high

w
3) The number of species at C - least

4) The number of species at A and D - same
w
140. Second pair of spermathecal aperture in pheretima exist between these segments
1) 5/6 2) 6/7 3) 7/8 4) 8/9
141. These open in to Bidders canal in Frog
1) Seminiferous tubules 2) Vas deferens
3) Vasa efferentia 4) Oviduct
Page No.17
142. Absence of primary induction results the
1) Absence of contact between gut and endoderm
2) Absence of contact between gut and Mesoderm
3) Absence of contact between gut and endoderm and ectoderm
4) Absence of contact between mesoderm and ectoderm
143. The embryonic mesenchyme due to ossification forms
1) Pisiform bone 2) Scapula 3) Humerus 4) Parietal bones
144. In Pheratima, the oviduct pierces through the inter segmental septum between the
et
1) 12th and 13th segment 2) 13th and 14th segment
3) 17th and 18th segment 4) 11th and 12th segment
.n
145. Basal plate of dentine and a spine tipped with vitrodentine exist in
1) Ctenoid scales 2) Cycloid scales 3) Ganoid scales 4) Placoid scales
ha
146. Skull is monocondylic in
1) Macropus, Neophron, Neoceratodus 2) Delphinus, Daboia, Dysyatis
3) Trionyx, Torpedo, Pteropus 4) Ptyas, Pristis, Psittacula
ib
147. Severe, uncontrollable muscle spasms leading to lock jaw is a symptom of
1) Chikungunya 2) Plague 3) Tetanus 4) Diphtheria
t
148. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of
ra
1) FSH 2) Oxytocin 3) Vasopressin 4) Progesterone
up
149. Which of the following can not be detected in a developing foetus by Amniocentesis?
1) Down's syndrome 2) Klinefelter's syndrome
3) Sex of the foetus 4) Jaundice
ad
150. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation

1) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid
en
2) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

3) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
4) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
.e
151. Select the correct statement with respect to humans

1) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation
w
2) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae

3) The joint between the adjescent vertebrae is fibrous joint
w
4) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people

w
152. All mammals without any exception are characterised by

1) Viviparity, and Biconcave RBCs
2) Extra abdominal testes and 4 chambered heart
3) 4 pairs of salivary glands and 12 pairs of cranial nerves
4) A muscular diaphragm and milk producing glands
Page No.18
153. Which of the following are correctly matched
a. Crocodile - 4 chambered heart b. Seaurchin - parapodia
c. Obelia - metagenesis d. Lemur - thecodont
1) b, c, d 2) only a and d 3) only a and c 4) a, c and d
154. A woman is married for the second time. Her first husband blood group is A and the child
by that marriage has a O group. Her new husband is type B and their child is type AB.
What is the genotype and phenotype of womans group
1) IAIO = A 2) IAIA = A 3) IBIO= B 4) IOIO= O
et
155. This hormone stimulates the secretion of succus entericus
.n
1) Enterogastrone 2) Gastrin 3) Secretin 4) Enterocrinin
156. Absorptive surface area required is more for
ha
1) primary carnivores 2) Primary consumer
3) Secondary consumer 4) Secondary cornivore
ib
157. The number of possible homozygous genotypes for Rh+ve phenotype as per Weiner is
1) 16 2) 4 3) 26 4) 5
t
158. If the size of the cell increases due to parasitic infection, it is known as
ra
1) Hyper plagia 2) Hypertrophy 3) Hypophysis 4) Neoplasia
up
159. Epididymis possess
1) Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium 2) Columner ciliated epithelium
3) Columnar nonciliated epithelium 4) pseudostratified nonciliated epithelium
ad
160. Anti A antibodies exist in

1) Antisera B 2) Antisera A 3) A group person 4) AB group person
en
161. The correct path of blood flow in Periplaneta is

1) Aorta m head sinus m perivisceral haemocoel m Pericardial haemocoel m heart
2) Aorta m perivisceral sinus m head sinus m Pericardial haemocoel m heart
.e
3) Aorta m head sinus m Pericardial sinus m perivisceral sinus m heart

4) Aorta m head sinus m perivisceral sinus m heart m Pericardial sinus
w
162. In the eye of man, action potential is first generated in

w
1) Ganglionated cells 2) Rods and cones 3) Bipolar cells 4) Retina

w
163. In humanbeing, during the implantation, the uterus is in

1) Secretary phase 2) ovulatory phase 3) Prolifirative phase 4) Menstruation
164. Choose the incorrect combination
1) Hepatatitis - Bm HBV 2) Genital herpes m HPV
3) Genital warts m HPV 4) AIDS m HIV
Page No.19
165. Salk's polio vaccine is
1) Attenuated whole agent 2) Toxoid
3) Inactivated whole agent 4) DNA vaccine
166. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phe-
notypic adaptation in response to a common environmental challenges is called
1) Convergent evolution 2) Non random evolution
3) Adaptive radiation 4) Natural selection
167. Hypercalcemia is denoted in ECG by
et
1) Inverted T wave 2) Prolonged Q.T interval
.n
3) Elevated S.T segment 4) Shortened Q-T interval
168. This hormone is not involved in erythropoiesis
ha
1) Cortisol 2) Erythropoietin 3) Thyroxine 4) Calcitonin
169. These vertebrae provide surface for the attachment of the large back muscles
ib
1) Sacral 2) Thoracic 3) Lumbar 4) Cervical
170. In humen kidney, NaCl is actively pumped out from this part
t
1) Thin segment of ascending limb of Henle's loop
ra
2) Thick segment of descending limb of Henle's loop
up
3) Thick segment of ascending limb of Henle's loop
4) Thin segment of descending limb of Henle's loop
171. Fibrin stabilising factor is produced by
ad
1) Extra vascular Tissues 2) Collagen in vascular walls

3) Blood platelets 4) Liver
en
172. Bacterial poultry disease among these

1) Brooder pneumonia 2) Gumboro
.e
3) CRD 4) Marek's disease

173. It is called the vessel of the vessels
w
1) Vasa racta 2) Ductus arteriosus 3) Vasa vasorum 4) Conus arteriosus

174. The maximum volume of air, a person can breath in after forced expiration is
w
1) TLC 2) IC 3) FRC 4) VC
w
175. In Drosophila, the probability of inheritance of bobbed bristle from male parent is
1) more to female progeny
2) more to male progeny
3) only to female progeny
4) equal to both the male and female progeny
Page No.20
176. G1 check point in cell division cycle can be operated more efficiently, when
1) p53 gene is recessive 2) p53 gene is dominant
3) Either proto oncogene or p53 gene is recessive
4) both p53 gene and proto oncogene should be dominant
177. Sympatric speciation results due to
1) Reproductive isolation due to Geographical isolation
2) Geographical isolation due to reproductive isolation
3) Behavioural, physiological factors in the same habitat
et
4) Behavioural, physiological factors in the different habitats
.n
178. Mutations are discontinuous because
1) Random variations are not continued into next generation
ha
2) Random variations are continued into next generation
3) Random variations are full fledged
ib
4) Random variations can not accumulate over generations
179. These are phylogenetically more similar
1) Asterias, Astacus, Astacia
t
ra
2) Echinus, Echinococcus, Echeneis
up
3) Gerris, Gorgonocephalus, Gorgonia, Giardia
4) Chiton, Chaetoderma, Chamaeleon, Chlamydomonas
180. Both MHC class I and MHC class II, exist in all these except
ad
1) Macrophages and Dendritic cells 2) Neurons and Muscles

3) Macrophages and Mature B cells 4) All the APCs
en
.e
w
w
w
Page No.21
KEY
PHYSICS
1) 1 2) 2 3) 1 4) 2 5) 2 6) 2 7) 2 8) 2 9) 2 10) 2
11) 3 12) 3 13) 3 14) 2 15) 2 16) 2 17) 1 18) 2 19) 1 20) 2
21) 3 22) 3 23) 3 24) 4 25) 3 26) 1 27) 2 28) 2 29) 2 30) 4
31) 1 32) 1 33) 1 34) 4 35) 4 36) 4 37) 4 38) 4 39) 1 40) 1
et
41) 1 42) 2 43) 4 44) 4 45) 1
.n
CHEMISTRY
ha
46) 2 47) 3 48) 3 49) 4 50) 1 51) 3 52) 3 53) 2 54) 2 55) 3
56) 3 57) 2 58) 1 59) 4 60) 2 61) 4 62) 2 63) 4 64) 1 65) 4
ib
66) 2 67) 2 68) 4 69) 1 70) 1 71) 2 72) 4 73) 1 74) 2 75) 1
76) 3 77) 1 78) 1 79) 2 80) 4 81) 2 82) 3 83) 1 84) 1 85) 2
t
86) 2 87) 1 88) 2 89) 1
ra
90) 1
BOTANY
up
91) 2 92) 1 93) 4 94) 3 95) 2 96) 1 97) 2 98) 4 99) 3 100) 1
101) 2 102) 3 103) 4 104) 3 105) 4 106) 1 107) 1 108) 3 109) 1 110) 3
ad
111) 4 112) 4 113) 1 114) 1 115) 2 116) 4 117) 2 118) 3 119) 2 120) 4
121) 3 122) 2 123) 3 124) 3 125) 1 126) 4 127) 3 128) 3 129) 1 130) 4
en
131) 1 132) 3 133) 2 134) 3 135) 1
ZOOLOGY
.e
136) 3 137) 2 138) 3 139) 1 140) 2 141) 3 142) 2 143) 4 144) 2 145) 4
w
146) 4 147) 3 148) 4 149) 4 150) 3 151) 1 152) 4 153) 4 154) 1 155) 4
156) 2 157) 2 158) 2 159) 4 160) 2 161) 1 162) 2 163) 1 164) 2 165) 3
w
166) 1 167) 4 168) 4 169) 3 170) 3 171) 3 172) 3 173) 3 174) 4 175) 4
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176) 2 177) 3 178) 4 179) 2 180) 2
This question paper prepared by
Sri Chaitanya Medical Academy
Page No.22
NEET
MODEL PAPER
et
.n
ha
Instructions :
ib
*
t
ra
up

ad

en

1 mark.
.e

w
(180 min)
w
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x-x-x
Page No.1
PHYSICS
1. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities S1 and
S 2 respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are
vibrating in their first overtone with same frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is
L 4L 4L S1 4L S 2
1) 2) 3) 3 S2
4) 3 S1
3 3
2. Two similar rods are joined as shown in figure. Assume that no heat loss through lateral
et
surface of rod and temperatures at the ends are shown in steady state. Then temperature
500C
of the junction is
.n
1) 500C
2) 750C 1000C 00C
ha
3) 66.60C
4) 33.30C 500C
100C 0
ib
3. A tap supplies water at and another tap at 100 C. How much hot water must be
taken so that we get 20 kg of water at 350C.
t
40 50
ra 20 60
1) kg 2) kg 3) kg 4) kg
9 9 9 9
4. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%,
up
a 3b 2
2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows P ; The percentage
cd
ad
error in 'P' is
1) 14% 2) 10% 3) 7% 4) 4%
en
5. A material has poission's ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudnal strain of
2 q103 . Then the percentage change in the volume is
1) 0.6 2) 0.4 3) 0.2 4) Zero
.e
6. A child with mass 'm' is standing at the edge of a merry-go-round with moment of inertia
w
I, radius 'R' and initial angular velocity X , as shown in figure. The child jumps off the
edge of the merry-go-round with a velocity ' V ' with respect to the ground in a direction
w
tangent to periphery of the disc as shown. The new angular velocity of the merry-go-
round is
w
1)
IX2 mV2
2)
I mR2
X2 mV2 X
I I
3)
IX mVR
4)
I mR 2
X mVR R
I I
Page No.2
7. When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0
towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v0, it moves with an
initial acceleration 3a0 towards west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are
respectively.
ma 0 2ma 0 ma 0 2ma 0
1) west ; ev upwards 2) west ; ev downwards
e 0 e 0
ma 0 3ma 0 ma 0 3ma 0
3) east ; ev upwards 4) east ; ev downwards
et
e 0 e 0
8. The adjoining figure represents a wavefront 'AB' which passes from air to another
.n
transparent medium and produces a new wavefront 'CD' after refraction. 'PQ' is the
boundary between air and the medium. The refractive index N
of the transparent medium
ha
is
B
cos R1 cos R 4
ib
air
1) cos R 2) cos R
3 1 A R1 R4
P R3
Q
t R2 D
sin R1 sin R2
ra medium
3) sin R 4) sin R
3 3 C
9. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which
up
one of the following options describe best about the image formed, whose object is of
height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ?
ad
1) Virtual ; upright ; height = 0.5 cm 2) Real ; inverted ; height = 4 cm

3) Real ; inverted ; height = 1 cm 4) Virtual ; upright ; height = 1 cm
10. The half-life of a radioactive isotope 'X' is 20 years. It decays to another element 'Y'
en
which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in a sample
of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be
.e
1) 40 years 2) 60 years 3) 80 years 4) 100 years

11. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be
w
A
X
w
1) X A.B 2) X A.B 3) X = A.B 4) X A B

w
12. The TV transmission tower in VIJAYAWADA has a height 150m. What is the total population
covered by the TV tower, if the population density around the TV tower is 103(km)2 ?
(Radius of the earth is 6.4 q106 m )
1) 60.288 lakh 2) 40.192 lakh 3) 100 lakh 4) 20.22 lakh
Page No.3
13. In the circuit shown in the figure, what is the value of I1 just after pressing the key k ?
5 5 68 I1 2mH
1) A 2) A I3
7 11 I2
k 88 88
5
3) 1A 4) A 10v
4
14. de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is M n and the
angular momentum is Jn then
1
et
1) M n r J n 2) M n r J 3) M n r J 2n 4) M n r J n
n
15. In a spring - block system force constant of the spring is k = 16 N/m, mass of the block is
.n
1kg. Maximum kinetic energy of the block is 8J. Then pickout the wrong statement
1) Amplitude of oscillation is 1m
ha
2) At half the amplitude potential energy stored in the spring is 2J
3) At half the amplitude kinetic energy is 6J
4) Angular frequency of oscillation is 16 rad/s
ib
16. A uniform ring of mass m is lying at a distance 3 a from the centre of a sphere of mass
'M', where 'a' is the radius of the ring as well as that of sphere. Then magnitude of
t
gravitational force between them is
ra
GMm GMm 3 GMm 3 GMm
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
8a 2 3a a2 8a 2
up
17. By what percent the energy of a earth's satellite has to be increased to shift the satellite
from an orbit of radius r to (3/2) r ?
1) 15% 2) 20.3% 3) 66.7% 4) 33.33%
ad
18. A particle of mass 'm' is located in a one-dimensional conservative field, where the
potential energy can be represented by U(x) = A(1 + cos Px) where A and P are constants.
The period of small oscillations of the particle is
en
m m m m
1) 2Q 2) 2Q 3) 2 Q 4) 2 Q
AP AP 2 A A2P
.e
19. If the length of seconds pendulum is increased by 2%, then in a day the pendulum
1) Loses 764 s 2) Loses 924 s 3) Gains 432 s 4) Loses 864 s
w
20. PV versus T graph of equal masses of three different gases namely Hydrogen (H2) ;
Helium (He) and Oxygen (O2) is as shown in the figure. Choose the correct alternative.
w
PV C
B
w
O T
1) A corresponds to O2 ; B corresponds to He and C corresponds to H2

2) A corresponds to He ; B corresponds to H2 and C corresponds to O2
3) A corresponds to He ; B corresponds to O2 and C corresponds to H2
4) A corresponds to O2 ; B corresponds to H2 and C corresponds to He
Page No.4
21. Figure given hare shows the variation of velocity of a particle with time. Average velocity
during the motion is _________
v ms-1
4
t
0 2 4 7
et
20 18 36 12
1) m/s 2) m/s 3) m/s 4) m/s
7 7 7 7
.n
22. The centre of mass of a system of three particles of masses 1g ; 2g and 3 g is taken as the
ha
origin of the coordinate system. The position vector of a fourth particle of mass 4g such

that the centre of mass of the four particle system lies at the point (1, 2, 3) is B i 2j 3k
,
ib
where ' B ' is a constant. The value of ' B ' is
1)
10
2)
5
t 3)
1
4)
2
3 2
ra 2 5
23. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity ' V '. It
up
3V 2
reaches upto a maximum height of with respect to the initial position. What is that
4g
ad
object ?
1) Ring 2) Solid sphere 3) Hollow sphere 4) Disc
en
24. A projectile is fired on a horizontal ground. Coefficient of restitution between the

R1
projectile and the ground is e. The ratio of horizontal range R in first two collisions
.e
2
with the ground is
w
1) 1/e 2) 1/e2 3) e 4) e2
25. Two constant horizontal forces F1 and F2 are acting on the blocks 'A' and 'B' as shown in
w
the figure. At an instant acceleration of block 'B' is 4 m/s2 in the direction of F1, then the
w
acceleration of block A with respect to block 'B' at this moment is

1) 1 m/s2 F2=70N
A B
F1=100N
2) 2 m/s2 2 kg 5 kg
3) 5 m/s2
4) 9 m/s2 Smooth surface
Page No.5
26. A beam of light is incident on a glass slab of refractive index, N 1.54 in a direction as
shown in the figure. The reflected light is analysed by a polaroid prism. On rotating the
polaroid, (tan 570 = 1.54)
A B
330 330
O GLASS SLAB
1) The intensity remains unchanged
et
2) The intensity is reduced to zero and remains at zero
.n
3) The intensity gradually reduced to zero and then again increases
4) The intensity increase gradually
ha
27. In feedback amplifier, feedback can be achieved by
A) Inductive coupling B) LC network C) RC network
ib
1) Only A is correct 2) Only B is correct
3) Only C is correct
t 4) A, B and C are correct
ra
28. Pick out the correct statements from the following.
up
I) Electron emission during C decay is always accompanied by neutrino
II) Nuclear force is charge independent
III) Fusion is cheif source of stellar energy
ad
1) I, II are correct 2) I, III are correct

3) Only I is correct 4) II, III are correct
en
29. The increasing order of the frequency bands used for various communication services is
.e
1) Space waves, sky waves, ground waves 2) Space waves, ground waves, sky waves
3) Sky waves, ground waves, space waves 4) Ground waves, sky waves, space waves
w
30. In the diagram shown, I1, I2 are the strength of the currents in the loop and straight
w
conductors respectively. OA = AB = R. The net magnetic field at the centre 'O' is zero.
Then, the ratio of the currents in the loop and the straight conductor is
w
I1
1) Q 2) 2Q O
A
1 1
3) 4) B I2
Q 2Q
Page No.6
31. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red, then becomes reddish
yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation
is possible by using
1) Stefan's law 2) Wein's displacement law
3) Kirchoff's law in thermal radiation 4) Newton's law of cooling
32. Assertion (A) : In the case of projectile motion, the rate of change in magnitude of potential
energy of the particle first decreases and then increasing during motion.
et
Reason (R) : In the case of projectile motion, the rate of change of linear momentum of
a particle remains constant during motion.
.n
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
ha
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, R is false.
4) A is false, R is true.
ib
33. A car of mass 'm' is accelerating on a level smooth road under the action of a single force
t
F. The power delivered to the car is constant and equal to 'P'. If the velocity of the car at
ra
an instant is v, then after travelling how much distance its velocity becomes double ?
7mv3 4mv3 mv3 18mv3

up
1) 2) 3) 4)
3P 3P P 7P
34. The current (I) in the inductor coil is varying with time according to the plot shown in
ad
figure.
(current) I
I0
en
O T/2 T time (t)

.e
Which of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the inductor
coil
w
V
V V V
w
1) T 2) 3) T 4) T/2 T t
O T/2 T/2 t T/2 t
w
35. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination ' R ' is perfectly smooth, while lower
half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again came to rest at
the bottom, the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is
1 2
1) N 2) N 3) N 2 tan R 4) N tan R
tan R tan R
Page No.7
36. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as shown in figure and the frame is dipped
into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the film. When
'A' is pricked
Frame
A
B
Thread
et
1) Thread will become concave on seeing from side 'A'
2) Thread will become concave on seeing from side 'B'
.n
3) Thread will become straight
ha
4) Thread will remain as it is
37. The end correction of a resonance column is 1cm. If the shortest length resonating with
the tunnnig fork is 15cm. The next resonating length will be
ib
1) 31 cm 2) 45 cm 3) 46 cm 4) 47 cm
t
38. The root-mean-square (rms) speed of oxygen molecule at a certain absolute temperature
ra
is v. If the temperature is doubled and the oxygen gas dissociates into atomic oxygen, then
the rms speed would be
up
1) v 2) 2v 3) 2v 4) 2 2v
39. A body submerged in the sea. Which of the following graphs represents correctly the
variation of the pressure on the body with the depth?
ad
en
1 Atom 1 Atom
pressure pressure
1) 2)
.e
depth depth
w
w
1 Atom
1atom pressure
3) pressure 4)
w
depth depth
40. The Davisson-Germer experiment is the direct evidence of

1) Particle nature of electrons 2) Wave nature of electrons
3) Wave nature of light 4) Particle nature of light
Page No.8
41. Pressure versus density graph of an ideal gas is as shown in the figure. Choose the correct
option.
C
Pressure (P)
B
D
A
Density ( S)
1) During the process AB workdone by the gas is positive
et
2) During the process AB workdone by the gas is negative
.n
3) During the process BC internal energy of the gas is increasing
4) During the process DA internal energy of the gas remains constant
ha
42. Three identical metallic uncharged spheres A, B and C of radius 'a' are kept at the corners
of an equilateral triangle of side d(d >>> a). A fourth sphere of radius 'a' which has
ib
charge Q touches 'A' and then removed to a position faraway. 'B' is earthed and then the
earth connection is removed. Now 'C' is earthed. The charge on the 'C' is
t
ra
Qa 2d a Qa 2d a Qa a d 2Qa d a
1) 2) 3) 4)
2d 2d 2d d 2d d d 2d
up
43. From the diagram shown, area of each plate is 2m2 and d 2 q103 m . A charge of
8.85q108 C is given to the plate Q. Then the potential of Q becomes
ad
P
Q d
1) 13V 2) 10V
2d
en
R
20
3) V 4) 8.85 V
3
.e
44. Three conductors individually draw currents of 1A, 2A and 3A respectively, when connected
across a battery. If they are joined in series and the combination is connected across the
w
same battery, the current drawn will be

w
6 1 4 2
1) A 2) A 3) 4)
11 6 7 7
w
45. For the circuit shown the charge on the capacitor will be
C R2
CE R1
1) CE 2) R r
1 R1
CE R 2 CE R1 E r
3) R r 4) R r
1 2
Page No.9
CHEMISTRY
46. The electron affinity values of 3rd period elements A, B, C and D are respectively -135, -60, -200
and 348KJ mole 1 . The outer configuration of element 'B' is
1) 3s 2 3 p1 2) 3s 2 3 p 4 3) 3s 2 3 p3 4) 3s 2 3 p 2
47. In a face centered cubic lattice, atom 'A' occupies the corner positions and atom 'B' occupies the
face center positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centered points. The formula
of the compound is
et
1) A2 B 2) A2 B5 3) AB2 4) A2 B2
48. A hydrocarbon with molecular formula C4H6 reacts with bromine readily and gives a red precipitate
.n
with ammoniacal Cu2Cl2. On treatment with dilute H2SO4 Containing HgSO4 gives 2- butanone.
ha
The hydrocarbon is
1) 2- Butyne 2) 1 Butene 3) 1- butyne 4) Cyclobutene
ib
a
49. In C C = C b C = C c C d C , the strongest C - C single bond is
1) b 2) a
t 3) c 4) d
ra
50. One molal solution of K x [Fe (CN) 6 ] is isotonic with 4 molal urea solution. The
degree of dissociation of potassium Iron cyanide is one. Then the value of 'x' is
up
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
51. The standard potential for the electrode MnO4 MnO2 in solution is
ad
o
Given E MnO +2 = 1.51V and E o = 1.23V
4 Mn MnO2 Mn +2
1) - 1.70 V 2) + 1.1 V 3) + 1.70 V 4) - 1.1V

en
52. The limiting molar conductivities 0

for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150Scm2 mol1
respectively. The 0 for NaBr is :
1) 278 S cm2 mol1 2) 176 S cm2 mol1 3) 128 S cm2 mol1 4) 302 S cm2 mol1
.e
53. NaCl
H 2SO4
NaHSO 4
NaCl
Na 2SO 4 . Correct statement is
w
T 1 T 2
1) HCl is obtained in both steps 2) T1 < T2

w
3) HCl is dried using conc H 2 SO4 4) All of these

w
54. Number of configurational isomers for (CH 3 )2 CH . CH . Cl .CH = CHCl
1) 2 2) 3 3) zero 4) 4
55. Emf of the cell Pt , H2 (1 atm) / H+ (0.01) // Cl2(1atm) / Cl- ( 0.1M) , Pt . Given E of Cl2 Cl = 1.36V
1) + 1.36V 2) + 1.54V 3) + 1.48V 4) + 1.12V
Page No.10
56. X and Y are two crystalline substances both having cubic unit cells. The ratio of molecular masses
is 1 : 2. The ratio of 'a' parameters is 1 : 2. The ratio of number of formula units (Z) is 1 : 4.
The ratio of their densities is
1) 4 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 4
3 3
57. The complex Co NH3
6 is an inner orbital complex whereas the <CoF6 > is an outer orbital
complex. The number of unpaired electrons in these two complexes are respectively
1) Zero and 4 2) 4 and 4 3) 6 and 2 4) 3 and 4
58. In the roasting of iron pyrites, equivalent weight of iron pyrites is
et
M 11 M M 6M
1) 2) 3) 4)
11 10 6 5
.n
59. Name of the compound given below
CH 3
ha
CH 3
CH 3
ib
CH 3
1) 5 - ethyl - 6 - methyl octane 2) 4 - ethy l - 3 - methyl octane
t
3) 3 - methyl - 4 ethyl octane
ra 4) 2, 3 diethyl heptane
60. An alkene on ozonolysis gives isobutyraldehyde only. The alkene is
up
1) 2, 5 dimethyl hex - 3 ene 2) 3, 4 dimethyl hex - 3 ene
3) 2, 3 dimethyl but - 2 ene 4) 3 methyl pent - 1 - ene
61. Absolute configuration of
ad
CH 3
en
H Cl
Cl H
.e
C2H5
w
1) 2S, 3R 2) 3R, 2S 3) 2R, 3R 4) 2S, 3S

w
62. 'X' along with liquid oxygen provide a tremendous thrust in rockets. Oxidation state of nitrogen in
'X' is
w
1) - 2 2) - 3 3) - 1 4) + 1
63. The number of p d bonds present in XeO3 and XeO4 molecules respectively
1) 3, 4 2) 4, 2 3) 2, 3 4) 3, 2
64. 1, 3 butadiene and styrene on polymerisation give
1) Bakelite 2) Terylene 3) Buna - S 4) Teflon
Page No.11
65. To a 25ml H 2O2 solution, excess acidified solution of KI is added. The iodine liberated required
20ml of 0.3M Na2 S2O3 solution. Strength of H 2O2 solution is
1) 1.344 gr litre 2) 3.244 gr litre 3) 5.4 gr litre 4) 4.08 gr litre
66. Which of the following cannot undergo disproportionation ?

1) ClO- 2) ClO 2 3) ClO3 4) ClO 4
67. Balance the following equation by oxidation number method
Cr(s ) + Pb ( NO3 )2 (aq )

Cr ( NO3 )3 + Pb(s ) , the coefficients of species in balanced reaction :
et
1) 3, 2, 3, 2 2) 2, 3, 2, 3 3) 2, 2, 3, 3 4) 3, 3, 2, 2
.n
68. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of
1) Primary aromatic amine 2) Primary aliphatic amine
ha
3) Secondary amine 4) Tertiary amine
69. CH 2 = CH CH (Br ) CH3

alc.KOH
X (major ) . 'X' is
ib
1) CH 2 = C = CH CH 3 2) CH 2 = CH CH = CH 2
t
3) CH 3 CH = CH CH 3
ra 4) CH 2 = CH CH 2 CH 3
70. Bond length and bond angle in ozone molecule is/are
up
1) 119, 121pm 2) 117, 148pm 3) 117, 128pm 4) 111, 128pm
CH(CH3)2 OH
ad
O +
71.
2 H
A
H O + B . B in the above sequence of reaction is
2
en
1) CH3CHO 2) CH3COCH3 3) CH3COOH 4) CH3CHOHCH3

72. Which of the following is fast dehydro brominated
.e
Br Br Br
Br
w
1) 2) 3) 4)
w
73. Grignard reagent + CdCl2

A + MgCl2
w
A + B
Butanone + CdCl2
A and B are respectively
1) (CH3)2Cd & C2H5COCl 2) CH3MgCl & C2H5Cl
3) (C2H5)2Cd & CH3Cl 4) CH3COCl & (C2H5)2Cd
Page No.12
74. A steel cylinder of 8 lit capacity contains H2 gas at 12 atm. At the same temperature, how many
cycle tubes of 4l capacity at 2 atm pressure can be filled by this gas ?
1) 12 2) 5 3) 10 4) 15
SOCl2 Benzene
75. CH3COOH A
anhyd . AlCl3 B C
HCN H2O
D
In the following sequence of reactions, acetic acid yields D. The structure of D is
OH
OH
| |
et
1) C COOH 2) CH 2 C COOH
|
|
CH 3
.n
CH 3
ha
OH OH
| |
3) C CH 3 4) CH 2 C COOH
ib
| |
CN CN
t
ra
76. The gas evolved on heating NH 4
2 Cr2O7 is
1) NH3 2) N2 3) N2O 4) O2
up
77. When HNO3 oxidizes I 2 , the change in oxidation number of iodine is

1) 0 to + 4 2) 0 to -5 3) 0 to +5 4) 0 to +3
ad
78. On passing H2S gas into a solution containing both Cu2+ and Zn2+ ions in acidic medium , only CuS
gets precipitated. This is because
en
1) CuS more stable than ZnS 2) Ksp of CuS = Ksp of Zns

3) Ksp of CuS < Ksp of ZnS 4) Ksp CuS > Ksp of ZnS
.e
79. The number of unpaired electrons present in the first excited state of chlorine atom is
1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2
w
80. The total number of antibonding electrons in N 2 and O2 molecules respectively is

w
1) 4, 8 2) 4, 6 3) 6, 8 4) 5, 8
w
81. The value of K P for the equillibrium of the reaction N 2O4 ( g ) U 2 NO2 ( g ) is 2. Calculate the
percentage dissociation of N 2O4 at a pressure of 0.5 atm
1) 71 2) 50 3) 25 4) 88
82. The pH of 1010 M Mg (OH )2 solution will be
1) 10 2) 6 3) 4 4) 7.001
Page No.13
83. Consider the following reactions at 1000C
1
1) Zn(s ) + O2 ( g )
ZnO(s ) ; G = 360 KJ mole1
2
1
CO( g ) ; G = 460 KJ mole 1
2) C(s ) + O2 (g )
2
Choose the correct statement at 1000C
1) Zinc can be oxidised by CO 2) Zinc oxide can be reduced by C
3) Zinc can be reduced by CO 4) Zinc can be reduced by C
et
84. Copper matte contains
1) Cu2 S and Cu2O 2) Cu2O and FeS 3) Cu2 S and FeO 4) Cu2 S and FeS
.n
x
ha
85. In an adsorption experiment a graph between log vs log P is found to be linear with a slope of
m
x
45 . The Y - intercept was found to be 0.3010. What is m if pressure is 6 bar (tan 45 = 1 and
ib
0.3010 = log 2)
1) 0.6 2) 2.8
t 3) 6 4) 12
ra
86. 0.303 grams of an organic compound was analysed for nitrogen by Kjeldahl's method. The ammonia
evolved was absorbed in 50ml of 0.1N H 2 SO4 . The excess acid required 25ml of 0.1N NaOH for
up
neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound
1) 11.55% 2) 23.3% 3) 44.6% 4) 18.4%
ad
87. The Vanderwaals constant b is.times volume of the molecule
1) 4 2) 5 3) 2 4) 10
en
88. Which one of the following statements is correct

1) Chloroxylenol is a tranquilizer 2) Sucralose is an antiseptic
3) Prontosil is an antimicrobial 4) Seconal is an antipyretic
.e
89. If the total energy of an electron in H - atom is - 3.4 eV then the kinetic energy and potential energy
w
are respectively
1) 6.8eV, -3.4eV 2) 6.8eV, 3.4eV 3) 3.4eV, -6.8eV 4) 3.4eV, -3.4eV
w
90. The molecular formula of carbon compound X is C4H10O. It liberates hydrogen gas with Na metal
and gives turbidity immediately with Lucas Reagent. If the vapours of X are passed over hot
w
copper the product obtained is
1) CH 3 CH 2 O CH 2 CH 3 2) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHO
CH3 C CH 2 CH3
3) 4) CH3 C = CH 2
O CH3
Page No.14
BOTANY
91. What is the ratio of total number of floral leaves in one flower of Pisum to one flower of Allium?
1) 5 : 6 2) 4 : 5 3) 7 : 5 4) 4 : 3
92. Radial, Collateral, and Bicollateral vascular bundles are present respectively in anatomy of
1) Dicot and Monocot roots, dicot and monocot stem, and cucurbita stems
2) Dicot and Monocot stem, dicot and monocot root and cucurbita stem
3) Dicot and Monocot Root, cucurbita stem , dicot and Monocot stem
4) Dicot and monocot stem, cucurbita stems and Dicot and monocot root
et
93. Osmosis in involved in
.n
1) Ascent of sap in xylem vessels
2) Translocation of sucrose in sieve tube elements
ha
3) Turgidity and flaccidity of guard cells
4) Loss of water vapour into atmosphere from sub stomatal cavity
94. Statement - I : The initial appearance of deficiency symptoms is related to mobility of elements in
ib
plant system
Statement - II : Deficiency symptoms first appear in senescent leaves and young leaves for mobile
and immobile elements respectively
t
ra
1) Statement I and II both are correct
2) Statement I is correct, statement II is wrong
up
3) Statement II is correct, statement I is wrong

4) Statement I and II both are wrong
ad
95. Choose the mismatch

1) Single cell protein Spirulina, Chlorella 2) Medicinal plants Arnica, Cinchona
en
3) Food for astronauts Chlorella 4) Petroplants Datura, Digitalis

96. Immuno suppressive agent cyclosporin A is produced by
1) Monascus purpureus 2) Streptococcus
.e
3) Trichoderma polysporum 4) Propionibacterium sharmanii

97. Given in the diagram shows at a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis
w
maximum crossing over will occur between genes

w
w
1) A and a, D and d 2) C and d, c and D 3) B and c, b and C 4) A and d, a and D
Page No.15
98. T.W. Engelmanns experimental plant for his discovery of first action spectrum of photosynthesis is
1) Azatobacter 2) Chlorella 3) Cladophora 4) Chlamydomonas
99. The following group of plants belong to how many families?
Lupin, Ashwagandha, Tulip, Tobacco, Petunia, Trifolium, Brinjal, Gloriosa
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 8
100. Choose the incorrect match regarding ETS of Respiration for one Glucose molecule
1) Cofactors oxidized ( NADH 2 and FADH 2 ) 12

2) Number of water molecules produced in ETS 12
et
3) Complexes involved in transfer of electrons 4
4) Oxygen atoms utilized in ETS 6
.n
101. A canary grass seedling is exposed to light. Which one of the diagram given below best describes
the condition of the coleoptiles tip at the end of the experiment ?
ha
t ib
ra
up
1) 2) 3) 4)
ad
102. Choose the correct set of statements about Lac operon

1) Operator lies upstream to structural genes
en
2) Lactose is the inducer

3) Repressor is a protein which binds to the operator
.e
4) All the above

w
103. First pair of enzymes catalysic the transfer of groups and second pair of enzyme catalyse breakdown/
removal of groups from substrate. What would be the correct options ?
w
Transfer Removal
w
1) Oxidoreductases and transferases Hydrolases and Lyases

2) Oxidoreductases and transferases Hydrolases and Ligases
3) Hydrolases and Ligases Oxidoreductases and transferases
4) Oxidoreductases and transferases Ligases and Lyases
Page No.16
104. A round and yellow plant is crossed to a round and green plant and progeny produced have all four
phenotypes in 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 ratio (round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow, wrinkled green)
respectively. Predict the genotypes of parents and choose the correct option.
1) RrYY RRyy 2) RrYy Rryy 3) RRYy Rryy 4) RRyy RRyy
105. Pick the wrong match
Placentation Placenta Example
1) Marginal Margins of ventral suture Pisum
2) Axial Axis formed due to fusion of many ventral sutures Hibiscus
3) Free central Central axis with bilocular or multilocular condition Dianthus
et
4) Parietal Inner wall of the ovary Argemone
.n
106. Pick the incorrect match
1) Rhizopus Asexual endogenous sporangiospores Bread preparation
ha
2) Chlamydomonas Motile asexual zoospores Biflagellated gametes
3) Penicillium Asexual exogenous conidiospores Roquefort cheese and antibiotic
4) Cladophora Isogamy Biflagellated gametes
ib
107. Bacterial transformation is
t
1) Discovered by F. Griffith in Streptococcus pneumoniae
ra
2) Absorption of DNA from surroundings to recipient cell
3) Artificially induced by changing the permeability of host cell
up
4) All the above are correct
108. Choose the palindromic sequence in the following
ad
1) 5' ACGTAC 3' 2) 5' GACCAG 3' 3) 5' AACGTC 3' 4) 5' ATTACG 3'
3' TGCATG 5' 3' CTGGTC 5' 3' TTGCAG 5' 3' TAATGC 5'
109. An enzymatic reaction format occurring in respiration is given below
en
A + B
C+ D
A = six carbon aldose sugar
.e
B = Nucleotide called energy currency

C = Hexose 6 phosphate
w
With the information provided to you, what could be the enzyme catalysing the above reaction and
its enzyme code
w
1) Malic dehydrogenase, 2.7.1.2 2) Fructose 1, 6 di kinase, 2.7.1.2

w
3) Glucose isomerase, 2.7.1.2 4) Hexokinase, 2.7.1.2

110. Linkage is exhibited by
1) Genes that are located on homologous chromosomes
2) Genes that are located on same chromosome
3) Alleles of the same gene located on homologous chromosomes
4) Genes that are located on non homologous chromosomes
Page No.17
111. Choose the correct match
1) Probiotics - Salmonella, Methanobacillus
2) Biofertilisers - Spirulina, Chlorella
3) Therapeutic chemicals - Clostridium, Aspergillus
4) Bio control - Trichoderma, NPV, Dragon fly
1) Oxalis, strawberry Runner Rooted at each node
2) Pistia, Eichhornia Offsets One internodal length branch with respiratory
et
roots and leaves at a node
3) Nerium, Jasminium Stolon Axillary branch bending downwards
.n
4) Chrysanthemum, Ananas Suckers Underground branch moving upwards
113. Two genera are given below. In the genus A, its aerial roots possess multilayered dead epidermis
ha
with chlorenchymatous cortex. In the genus B, a whorl of leaves at each node possess multilayered
epidermis with well developed chlorenchymatous palisade tissue on both sides of leaf. The two
genera A and B respectively
ib
1) Pisum and Taeniophyllum 2) Nerium and Pisum
3) Ficus and Taeniophyllum 4) Taeniophyllum and Nerium
t
114. The common character observed in members of Inferae, Heteromerae and Bicarpellatae in Bentham
ra
and Hookers classification is
1) Inferior ovary 2) Superior ovary 3) Free petals 4) Fused petals
up
115. A cell organelle "A" produce polysaccharides, glycoproteins and glycolipids. A cell organelle "B"
oxidize carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids and help in release of energy. A & B cell organelles
respectively are
ad
1) Golgi complex and Endoplasmic reticulum 2) Golgi complex and Mitochondria

3) E. R and Chloroplasts 4) E.R and Mitochondria
en
116. A vascular element "A" is dead, cylindrical, lignified and conduct substances due to a negative
pressure created in it due to transpiratory pull. A vascular element "B" is living, cylindrical, non
lignified, enucleated and conduct substances due to a positive pressure created in it. A & B
conducting elements respectively are
.e
1) Xylem parenchyma & Sieve tubes 2) Xylem vessels & Sieve tubes
w
3) Sieve tubes & Xylem tracheids 4) Sieve tubes & Xylem vessels
117. Plant 'A' exhibit apocarpy with many free carpels on conical thalamus. Plant 'B' exhibit syncarpy
w
and is without style. Plant C exhibit syncarpy with five free stigmas. A, B and C respectively are
1) Michelia, Papaver, Hibiscus 2) Papaver, Michelia, Hibiscus
w
3) Hibiscus, Papaver, Michelia 4) Michelia, Hibiscus, Papaver

118. Read the following four statements and pick the incorrect match
1) Herbarium - Preserve only plant specimens
2) Museum - Preserve both plant and animal specimens in preservative solutions or in dry conditions
3) Botanical gardens - Live plant specimens grown for the purpose of identification
4) Manual - Information about any one taxon
Page No.18
119. Choose the incorrect match
Genus Fruit Edible part
1) Annona (Annonaceae) Aggregate of berries Mesocarp and endocarp of fruitlet
2) Ananas (Bromeliaceae) Sorosis Peduncle, fleshy bracts
3) Artocarpus (Moraceae) Syconus Fleshy perianth
4) Pyrus (Rosaceae) Pome Fleshy thalamus
120. A linear double stranded DNA and a circular double stranded DNA, each with 4 target sites for a
particular restriction endonuclease were cleaved with that enzyme. The number of fragments
generated from linear and circular DNA respectively
et
1) 5 & 5 2) 5 & 4 3) 4 & 4 4) 4 & 5
.n
121. A free floating hydrophyte with subaerial stem modification and a succulent xerophyte with aerial
stem modification respectively are
1) Musa, Bryophyllum 2) Chrysanthemum, Casuarina
ha
3) Eichhornea, Opuntia 4) Dioscorea, Asparagus
122. Succession that starts on a bare rock is an example for
ib
1) Primary succession 2) Lithosere 3) Xerosere 4) All the above
123. Plant physiologist among the following scientists is
t
1) Carolus Von Linnaeus
ra 2) G..N. Ramachandran
3) Sir J.C. Bose 4) M.S. Swaminathan
up
124. A genus with woody unbranched stem, spadix inflorescence, single seeded drupe fruit and
endospermic seed is
1) Mangifera 2) Colacasia 3) Ricinus 4) Cocos
ad
125. Assign the floral diagrams and floral formula to their respective families
en
.e
C
w
K (5)C(5) A5 G (2 )
w
w
1) A-Brassicaceae B- Fabaceae C- Liliaceae

2) A - Solanaceae, B- Fabaceae, C- Brassicaceae
3) A- Liliaceae, B- Fabaceae, C- Solanaceae
4) A- Liliaceae, B - Fabaceae, C- Brassicaceae
Page No.19
126. N- terminal and C- terminal ends are present in macromolecule A, reducing end and non reducing
end are found in B, and 5' end and 3' end are found in macromolecule C. What does A, B, C
respectively represent?
1) Polysaccharides Proteins DNA
2) Collagen Cellulose RNA
3) Chitin DNA Haemoglobin
4) Triglycerides Polysaccharides Nucleic acids
127. Permanent tissues may undergo ______ while secondary meristem form secondary permanent
tissues by ____
et
1) Differentiation, Redifferentiation 2) Differentiation, Dedifferentiation
3) Dedifferentiation, Redifferentiation 4) Redifferentiation, Differentiation
.n
128. Sexual reproduction method in bacteria that provides the basis for understanding DNA as genetic
material
ha
1) Binary fission 2) Transformation 3) Conjugation 4) Transduction
129. What would be the ratio of number of ATP molecules required for the production of two molecules
of NH3 in biological nitrogen fixation, six RUBP in regeneration phase of Calvin cycle and one
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molecule of fructose 1, 6 diphosphate in glycolysis.
1) 4 : 3 : 1 2) 4 : 6 : 1 3) 8 : 9 : 1 4) 16 : 6 : 0
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130. The ratio of megasporophylls of modified reproductive shoots of mustard, pea, makoi and onion
plants is
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1) 6 : 10 : 5 : 6 2) 4 : 5 : 5 : 3 3) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3 4) 16 : 21 : 17 : 15
131. A four carbon dicarboxylic acid that is an intermediate of C 4 pathway, CAM pathway and Kreb's
cycle is
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1) Aspartic acid 2) Oxalosuccinic acid 3) Malic acid 4) Succinic acid

132. The ratio between the number of male gametes and that of female gametes produced due to one
meiotic division occurring in their respective spore mother cells is
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1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 8 : 1 4) 2 : 7
133. One of the following is not a benefit of symbiotic association of fungus namely Glomus in plants.
What is it ?
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1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil 2) Resistance to root - borne pathogens

3) Tolerance to salinity and drought 4) Nitrogen fixation
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134. Choose the correct matches from the following

1) Red colour of Red sea - Trichodesmium
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2) Red tides in Mediterranean sea - Gonyaulax

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3) Red colour of red algae - r. phycoerythrin

4) All the above
135. Choose the correct sequence of genera that are characterised by palmella stage, coenobium, kelp
body and strobilus respectively
1) Spirulina, Volvox, Fucus, Pinus 2) Euglena, Volvox, Fucus, Equisetum
3) Amoeba, Slime mould, Porphyra, Annona 4) Chara, Funaria, Adiantum, Cycas
Page No.20
ZOOLOGY
136. The following oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curves explain the effect of pH on oxygen-
affinity of haemoglobin. Find out option that gives the correct descending order of pH
for X, Y and Z.
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(1) Z>Y>X (2) X>Z>Y (3) Y>X>Z (4) X>Y>Z
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137. Choose the correctly matched pair.
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(1) Columnar epithelium proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
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(2) Cuboidal epithelium mucosa of stomach and intestine
(3) Squamous epithelium alveoli of lungs
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(4) Compound epithelium bronchioles
138. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process
called
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(1) Facilitated transport (2) Active transport

(3) Simple diffusion (4) Co-transport
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139. About seven percent of carbon dioxide is transported to the lungs

(1) As carbamino compounds through RBC
(2) In a dissolved state through the plasma
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(3) As bicarbonate ions through RBC

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(4) As bicarbonate ions through the plasma

140. Which of the following is an extinct subspecies of plains zebra that lived in South Africa
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until the 19th century?

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(1) Quagga (2) Thylacine (3) Caspian (4) Dodo

141. Select the taxon mentioned that represents only marine species.
(1) Porifera (2) Cnidaria (3) Ctenophora (4) Arthropoda
142. Hypostome is present in
(1) Planaria (2) Obelia (3) Aplysia (4) Euspongia
Page No.21
143. A marine cartilaginous fish that possesses a poison sting is
(1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (3) Labeo (4) Trygon
144. Mark the correct statement about ozone.
(1) Bad ozone is formed in the troposphere whereas good ozone is found in the ionosphere.
(2) Bad ozone is formed in the mesosphere whereas good ozone is found in the thermosphere.
(3) Bad ozone is formed in the stratosphere whereas good ozone is found in the troposphere.
(4) Bad ozone is formed in the troposphere whereas good ozone is found in the stratosphere.
et
(1) Specialised connective tissue areolar tissue
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(2) Dense regular connective tissue tendon
(3) Loose connective tissue cartilage
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(4) Fluid connective tissue bone
146. Given below is a pie chart showing relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to
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total global warming. What gases to the four portions (A D) represent respectively?
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A B C D
(1) Carbon dioxide CFCs Methane N2O
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(2) Carbon dioxide Methane N2O CFCs

(3) Carbon dioxide Methane CFCs N2O
(4) Methane Carbon dioxide CFCs N2O
.e
147. Coat colour in mouse (albino, agouti and black) is an example for
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(1) Recessive epistasis (2) Dominant epistasis

(3) Complementary genes (4) Inhibitory genes
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148. An example of in situ conservation is

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(1) Seed bank (2) Zoological park

(3) In vitro fertilization (4) Sacred groove
149. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called
(1) Vulnerable species (2) Critically endangered species
(3) Endemic species (4) Extinct species
Page No.22
150. A person with O type blood is considered universal donor because he has
(1) Both anti-Aand anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma and has A and B antigens on his RBC
(2) Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma
(3) Neither A nor B antigens on his RBC
(4) Both A and B antigens on his RBC
151. Which enzymes are likely to act on sweet potatoes eaten by a man, starting from mouth as
it moves down the alimentary canal?
(1) Maltase g Amylase g Lactase
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(2) Lipase g Trypsin g Aminopeptidase
(3) Salivary amylase g Trypsin g Invertase
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(4) Salivary amylase g Pancreatic amylase g Maltase
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152. Active sites are unmasked when calcium binds with a subunit of
(1) Troponin (2) Tropomyosin (3) Actin (4) Myosin
153. A localized injury to the hypothalamus is not likely to affect
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(1) Eating (2) Drinking (3) Breathing (4) Body temperature
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154. Assisted reproductive technology, GIFT involves transfer of
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(1) Ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another woman who cannot produce
one.
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(2) The zygote into the fallopian tube.

(3) The early embryos with upto 8 blastomeres into the uterus.
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(4) Sperm from husband or a donor into the cytoplasm of the ovum.
155. A colour-blind man whose father was normal, marries a normal woman whose father was
colour-blind. What percentage of the children of this couple are likely to be colour-blind?
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(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%

156. Hypoglycemia stimulates the secretion of
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(1) Glucagon from beta cells It stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

(2) Glucagon from alpha cells It stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
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(3) Insulin from beta cells It stimulates glycogenesis and lipogenesis

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157. Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches.
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(1) The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the belly-side
part of its body.
(2) Males bear a pair of short, thread-like anal cerci which are absent in females.
(3) The mesothoracic wings are transparent, membranous and are used in flight.
(4) Malpighian tubules remove urea from the haemolymph and release it into the hindgut.
Page No.23
158. Hormones produced in women only during pregnancy are
(1) Oestrogen, progesterone, FSH and LH
(2) hCG, oxytocin and prolactin
(3) Relaxin, oxytocin and progesterone
(4) Human chorionic gonadotropin, human placental lactogen and relaxin
159. Which of the following is a contraceptive that contains progesterone?
(1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload-375 (3) Saheli (4) Lippes loop
160. Muscles that help in the blood circulation in cockroach are
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(1) Alary muscles (2) Dorsal longitudinal muscles
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(3) Dorsoventral muscles (4) Ventral longitudinal muscles
161. The following figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it along with its characteristic.
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Blood cell Characteristic
(1) Basophil
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Involved in inflammatory reactions
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(2) Neutrophil The most abundant cells of total WBC
(3) Lymphocyte Responsible for immune responses of the body
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(4) Monocyte Phagocytic and destroy foreign organisms
162. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system:
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(1) Fibrous joint - between adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column

(2) Cartilaginous joint sutures between the cranial bones
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(3) Pivot joint between carpal bones in the wrist

(4) Saddle joint between carpal and metacarpal of the thumb
.e
163. Identify the correct matching of a hormone with its source and function.
(1) PTH Parathyroid glands; decreases calcium levels in the blood
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(2) Melatonin Pituitary gland; maintains sleep-wake cycle

(3) Cortisol adrenal cortex; carbohydrate metabolism
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(4) Renin JG cells of efferent arteriole; increases GFR

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164. In a population of 10,000 individuals, 6,400 individuals are of the genotype AA, 3,200
individuals are of the genotype Aa and the remaining individuals are of the genotype
aa. Based on this data, the frequency of the allele A in the population is
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.8
Page No.24
165. A human with Downs syndrome
(1) Has the karyotype 47,XXY
(2) Has an additional copy of chromosome 21
(3) Lacks one X chromosome and has rudimentary ovaries
(4) Lacks one chromosome in the 21st pair
166. Given below is a simplified model of nitrogen cycle in an ecosystem with three blanks
labelled X, Y and Z. Identify the blanks.
et
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t ib
Options:
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X Y Z
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(1) NH3 NO3 NO2

(2) N2 NO2 NO3
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(3) NH3 NO2 NO3

(4) NO3 NO2 NH3
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167. The vehicular emission control device that converts carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide is
(1) Scrubber (2) Catalytic converter
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(3) Electrostatic precipitator (4) Incinerator

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168. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to
peacock as food in the following chain?
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Plant g Mice g Snake g Peacock

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(1) 2 J (2) 0.2 J (3) 0.02 J (4) 0.002 J

169. Renal pyramids contain
(1) Proximal convoluted tubules (2) Malpighian corpuscles
(3) Distal convoluted tubules (4) Loops of Henle
Page No.25
170. Which of the following is an example of escape in time from stressful environmental
conditions?
(1) A person moving from Delhi to Shimla for the duration of summer.
(2) Change of the osmotic concentration of the body fluids in aquatic animals when the ambient
water osmotic concentration changes.
(3) Siberian cranes migrating to Keolado National Park in Rajasthan every winter.
(4) Many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds entering diapause under unvavourable
conditions.
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171. The random unidirectional change in allelic frequencies that occurs by chance, especially
in small populations is called
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(1) Mutation (2) Genetic recombination
(3) Natural selection (4) Genetic drift
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172. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about
(1) 30% (2) 50% (3) 10% (4) 60%
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173. Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?
(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (2) Presence of adhesive organs
t
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(3) Loss of reproductive capacity (4) Loss of digestive system
174. Which of the following are barrier methods of contraception?
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(1) Condoms and intrauterine devices
(2) Condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults
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(3) Lippes loop, multiload-375, vaults and cervical caps

(4) Vasectomy, tubectomy and coitus interruptus
175. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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(1) Scala media is filled with endolymph.

(2) At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at the oval window.
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(3) Ampulla contains a projecting ridge called macula.

(4) Organ of Corti contains hair cells covered by a tectorial membrane.
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176. The foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of

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(1) Oxytocin from the maternal pituitary (2) Oxytocin from the foetal pituitary
(3) hCG from the placenta (4) hPL from the placenta
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177. The sequencing and annotation of chromosome 1, the largest chromosome in the human
genome, was completed in the year
(1) 2006 (2) 2003 (3) 2005 (4) 1990
Page No.26
178. Eyes of octopus and of mammals are an example of
(1) Vestigial organs (2) Homologous organs
(3) Adaptive radiation (4) Analogous organs
179. Which drug is extracted from the plant shown below?
et
.n
(1) Marijuana (2) Morphine (3) Cocaine (4) LSD
ha
180. It is imperative, for the physical and psychological well-being, that the HIV/AIDS infected
persons are not isolated from family and society because
(1) There is always a time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms.
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(2) HIV is not spread by mere touch; it spreads only through body fluids.
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(3) Anti-retroviral drugs are available to cure the disease effectively.
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(4) AIDS is only a congenital disease and cannot be acquired during the life of a person.
up
ad
en
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w
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Page No.27
KEY
PHYSICS
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 1 5) 4 6) 4 7) 2 8) 3 9) 2 10) 2
11) 3 12) 1 13) 1 14) 1 15) 4 16) 3 17) 4 18) 2 19) 4 20) 1
21) 1 22) 2 23) 4 24) 1 25) 1 26) 3 27) 4 28) 4 29) 4 30) 4
31) 2 32) 2 33) 1 34) 4 35) 3 36) 1 37) 4 38) 3 39) 1 40) 2
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41) 4 42) 3 43) 3 44) 1 45) 2
.n
CHEMISTRY
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46) 3 47) 2 48) 3 49) 1 50) 2 51) 3 52) 3 53) 4 54) 4 55) 2
56) 2 57) 1 58) 1 59) 2 60) 1 61) 4 62) 1 63) 1 64) 3 65) 4
ib
66) 4 67) 2 68) 2 69) 2 70) 3 71) 2 72) 2 73) 1 74) 3 75) 4
76) 2 77) 3 78) 3 79) 2 80) 2 81) 1 82) 4 83) 2 84) 4 85) 4
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86) 1 87) 1 88) 3 89) 3
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90) 4
BOTANY
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91) 3 92) 1 93) 3 94) 1 95) 4 96) 3 97) 4 98) 3 99) 1 100) 4
101) 2 102) 4 103) 1 104) 2 105) 3 106) 1 107) 4 108) 3 109) 4 110) 2
ad
111) 1 112) 2 113) 4 114) 4 115) 2 116) 2 117) 1 118) 4 119) 3 120) 2
121) 3 122) 4 123) 3 124) 4 125) 3 126) 2 127) 3 128) 2 129) 3 130) 3
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131) 3 132) 3 133) 4 134) 4 135) 2
ZOOLOGY
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136) 4 137) 3 138) 1 139) 2 140) 1 141) 3 142) 2 143) 4 144) 4 145) 2
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146) 3 147) 1 148) 4 149) 2 150) 3 151) 4 152) 1 153) 3 154) 1 155) 3
156) 2 157) 1 158) 4 159) 1 160) 1 161) 2 162) 4 163) 3 164) 4 165) 2
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166) 3 167) 2 168) 2 169) 4 170) 4 171) 4 172) 1 173) 3 174) 2 175) 3
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176) 1 177) 1 178) 4 179) 2 180) 2
Sri Chaitanya Medical Academy
Page No.28
NEET
MODEL PAPER
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ha
Instructions :
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(180 min)
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*
up
ad

en

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1 mark.
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w
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x-x-x
Page No.1
PHYSICS
1. When a liquid is poured, it insists to runs down the side of the can instead of falling
straight down from the tip as shown in fig. This can be explained by
et
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1) Viscosity 2) Surface tension
3) Bernoulli's principle 4) Newton's third law of motion
ha
2
2. A flask with open mouth contains air at 270C. Find the temperature at which th mass of
5
the air escapes the flask.
1) 2270C 2) 3000C 3) 2460C 4) 2730C
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3. Three rods A, B and C made of the same material and having the same cross-section have
t
lengths 10cm, 20cm and 10cm respectively. Their ends are at temperatures 600C, 600C
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and 00C as shown. Then the temperature of the junction D is
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600C
A
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10cm
C
B
00C 10cm D 600C
20cm
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1) 300C 2) 360C 3) 500C 4) 400C

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4. Three moles of an ideal monoatomic gas perform on cycle as shown. The gas tempera-
tures in different states are T1= 400K, T2= 800K, T3= 2400K & T4=1200K. The work
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done by the gas during the cycles is approximately.

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P
2 3
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1
4
T
O
1) 10kJ 2) 20kJ 3) 30kJ 4) 15kJ
Page No.2
5. Assertion (A): Mean free path of the molecule of a gas varies inversely as the density of
the gas
Reason (R): Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is flase but R is true
6. A body is projected up a smooth inclined plane with velocity u from the point A as shown
in fig. The height of the inclined plane is 5.4m and the top of the inclind plane is con-
nected to a well of diameter 3.6m. the body just manages to cross the well. The value of
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u is ( g= 10ms2)
v
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u 5.4m
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450
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3.6m
1) 20ms1 2) 12ms1 3) 30ms1 4)54ms 1

7.
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Two blocks, A of mass 1kg and another B of mass 2kg are shown in figure. A force of 5N is
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applied on A. Coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 and that between B and hori-
zontal surface is zero. Find the time taken for the front face of A to coincide with that of B:
up
4cm
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A 5N
en
B
8cm
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8 3
1) 2s 2) s 3) s 4) 0.2s
3 8
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8. When a body is moving vertically up with constant velocity, then match the following
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Column-I Column -II

1) Work done by lifting force is A) Negative
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2) Total work done byall the forces is B) Positive

3) Work done by gravity C) Zero
4) Work done by lifting force + work done by gravity D) Higher positive values
1) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - C 2) 1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - A
3) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D 4) 1 - A, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
Page No.3
9. A ladder of length 6m and mass 40kg rests with its upper end against a smooth wall and
lower end on rough ground. Find the minimum coefficient of friction between the ground
and the ladder so that the ladder does not slip if the ladder makes an angel of 600 with the
horizontal ( take g =10ms2)
1 3 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2 2 3
10. During the vapourization of some amount of water at 373K at atmospheric pressure which
of the following statements is correct ?
a) Work is done by the steam water system on the atmosphere
et
b) Work is done on the steam water system by the atmosphere
c) The internal energy of the steam water system increases
.n
d) The internal energy of the steam water system decreases
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1. a, c only 2. b, d only 3. b, c only 4. a, d only
11. Which of the following is not correct about the centre of mass?
1) It depends on the frame of reference
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2) The angular momentum of a system about the centre of mass is always zero
3) Internal forces do not affect the motion of centre of mass
t
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4) Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre of gravity
12. Two billiard balls of the same size (radius r ) and same mass are in contact on a billiard
up
table. A third ball also of the same size and mass strikes them symmetrically and remains
at rest after the impact. The coefficient of restitution between the balls is
1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 1/2 4) 3/4
ad
13. Find the ratio of energy required to raise a satellite upto a height R (radius of earth)
from the surface of earth to that required to put it into an orbit at that height.
en
3 4 3
1) 2/3 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4
14. A wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. When a weight W is hanged from its
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lower end, in air, the wire extends by 16cm. When the weigth is completely immersed in
water, the extension reduces to 12cm. Then the relative density of the material of the
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weigth is
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1) 5gcm3 2) 8gcm3 3) 4gcm3 4) 6gcm3

15. A small block of wood of specific gravity 0.4 is submerged at a depth of 1.6m in a con-
w
g
tainer containing water. The container is accelerated upward with an aceleration .
3
Then the time taken by the block to reach the surface when released with zero initial
velocity is
1) 0.4s 2) 0.5s 3) 0.1s 4) 0.2s
Page No.4
h
16. The dimensions of are same as that of (where h = planck's constant and e = charge)
e
1) Magnetic field induction 2) Magnetic flux
3) Electric field strength 4) Elctric flux
17. A block A is pulled on a smooth horizontal plane with a rope which moves with velocity
as shown in figure. The velocity of the block on the plane 'u' is
v
et
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ha
u
smooth
ib
1) cos ec 2) s in 3) cos 4) sec
( )( ) ( )
18. Find the value of p so that 2i j + k , i + 2 j 3k and 3i + pj + 5k may be coplanar
t
1) -8 2) -4
ra 3) 2 4) 4
19. A stationary body of mass 3kg explodes into three equal pieces. Two of the pieces fly off at
up
at right angles to each other, one with a velocity 2i ms1 and the other with a velocity
3 j ms1. If the explosion takes plece in 105s, the average force acting on the third piece
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in newton is
1) (2i + 3 j )10 2) (2i + 3 j )10 3) (3 j + 2i )10 4) (2i 3 j )10
5 5 5 5
20. A small particle of mass m is released from rest from point A on frictionless hemispheri-
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cal bowl as shown in figure. The ratio of magnitude of centripetal force and normal reaciton
on the particle at any point B is
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A O

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R
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B
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1) 2/3 2) 1/2 3) 2/3 4) 4/5
21. A particle performs SHM with a period of 16s. At time t=2s, the particle passes through
origin (MP), while at t=4s, its velocity is 4ms-1. Its amplitude is ______
32 2 16 3 24 2 16
1) 2) 3) 2 4)
2
Page No.5
22. Speed of sound is 320m/s and frequency of sound wave entering at A is 500Hz. No sound is
heard at B as shown in fig. Then the length of the curved path curved path CDE may be
C
E
A B
1) 16cm 2) 32cm 3) 48cm 4) 88cm

23. A radar sends a radio signal of frequency 9 109 Hz towards an aircraft approaching the
et
radar. If the reflected wave shows a frequency shift of 3 103 Hz, the speed with which the
aircraft is approaching the radar in ms1 [ Velocity of the radio signal = 3X108ms1]
.n
1) 150 2) 100 3) 50 4) 25
24. Two similar charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make
ha
an angle of 300 with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8gm/cc, the angle
remains the same. What is the dielectric constant of the liquid ? Given density of material
of the spheres =1.6gm/cc.
ib
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5
25. The equipotential lines and their positions in x y plane are shown in figure. Find electric
field internsity in this region
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y
up
4V 8V 12V
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30 0 30 0 30 0
5cm 10cm x
15cm
1) 140 V/m 2) 160 V/m 3) 120 V/m 4) 180 V/m

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26. An electrical dipole is placed at the origin and is directed along the x-axis At a point P, far
away from the dipole, the electric field is parallel to the y- axis. OP makes an angle
with the x- axis then
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1
1) tan = 3 2) tan = 2 3) = 450 4) tan =
2
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27. The LED, i.e., light emitting diode

a) is made from Ge or Si b) is made from Ga As P
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c) is forward biased d) is reverse biased

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1) a and b are correct 2) b and c are correct

3) a, b and c are correct 4) a, b and d are correct
28. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 and respectively. If
initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1
to that of X2 will be 1/e after a time of
1 1 11 1
1) 10 2) 11 3) 10 4) 9
Page No.6
29. Assertion (A): Free electrons in conductors do not acquire infinite velocity even after
eE
infinite time though acceleration is a = .
m
Reason (R): The velocity acquired by them becomes zero after every collision with the
lattice sites
30. Resistance of potentiometer wire AB is 10 . This is in series with a battery of 5V and a
et
resistance R = 40 . The length of the potentiometer wire is 5m. The null point is obtained
at 2m from the end A . Find emf 'E'.
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5V
R = 40
ha
D
A B
ib
E
1) 2V 2) 0.2V
t 3) 20mV 4) 0.4V
31. Modulation is required to
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a) Distinguish different transmissions
up
b) Ensure that the information may be transmitted over long distances
c) Allow the information accessible for different people
1) a and b are true 2) b and c are true 3) c and a are true 4) a, b and c are true
ad
32. A source emits electromagnetic waves of wavelength 3m. One beam reaches the observer
directly and other after reflection from a water surface, travelling 1.5m extra distance
and with intensity reduced to 1/4 as compared to intensity due to the direct beam alone.
en
The resultant intensity will be

1) (1/4) fold 2) (3/4) fold 3) (5/4) fold 4) (9/4) fold
33. A particle of mass m at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2 having non
.e
1
zero velocities. The ratio of de broglie wavelengths of the particles is
w
m1 m2 m2
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1) m 2) m 3) 1 4) m1
2 1
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34. What is the force exerted by a photon of intensity 1.4kWm2, if it falls on a perfect absorber
of radius 2 metre?
1) 5.88 105 N 2) 108 N 3) 8.35 10 4 N 4) 8.8 108 N
35. If the series limit of lymen series for hydrogen atom is equal to the series limit of Balmer
series for a hydrogen like atom, then atomic number of this hydrogen like atom is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 8
Page No.7
36. In ac a.c circuit, the current flowing is i = 5sin (100t / 2 ) A and the potential difference
is V = 200sin (100t )V . The power consumption is equal to
1) 100W 2) 40W 3) 20W 4) 0W
37. In the given circuit each one of the diodes D1 and D2 has forward resistance of 40 ohm and
infinite backward resistance. Each one of the ammeters A1, A2 and A3 has internal resistance
5ohm. The readings of A1A2 and A3 are respectively
A3
et
D1 50
75
.n
A2
D2
ha
100
A1
12V
ib
1) 0.06A, Zero, 0.04A 2) Zero, 0.08A, 0.03A
3) 0.06A, Zero, 0.06A 4) 0.03A, 0.08A, Zero
t
ra V
38. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is given by Ex= 0, E y =2.5
m
[cos (2 106 rads 1 )t ( 102 m 1 ) x ] , Ez = 0, The wave is
up
1) Moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100m

ad
3) Moving along -x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m

4) Moving along y-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m
en
39. An object is placed at a distance of 60cm from the lens. A convex mirror is placed as
shown. The image thus formed coincides with the object. The focal length of the lens and
mirror are 20cm and 12cm respectively. Find the distance between the lens and the convex
.e
mirror
f=12cm
w
X
w
w
60cm
1) 6cm 2) 12cm 3) 24cm 4) 30cm

40. A driver uses a lens of power 1.25D for driving a car . The distance of far point of his eye
is:
1) 125cm 2) 62.5cm 3) 80cm 4) 150cm
Page No.8
41. A tightly wound long solenoid of the radius r metre and number of turns per metre equal
to n, carries a current of i amp. A paticle of mass m and charge q projected from a point on
its axis in a direction at right angle to its axis. Find the maximum velocity of the particle
so that it may not touch the solenoid
0 nqri 0 nqri 0 mnri 0 riq
1) 2) 3) 4)
m 4m 2 2mn
42. A galvanometer of 25 resistance can read a maximum currect of 6mA. It can be used as
a voltmeter to measure maximum of 6V by connecting a resistance to the galvanometer.
Identify the correct choice in the given answers.
et
1) 1025 in series 2) 1025 in parallel 3) 975 in series 4) 975 in parallel
43. When a current is passed in a circular coil, neutral point is found to be at its centre and
.n
BH at that place is 0.32 104 T . What will be the resultant magnetic field at the centre
when the plane of the coil is turned though 900 ?
1) 0.32 104 T 2) 0.64 104 T 3) 0.45 10 4 T 4) 0.16 104 T
ha
44. The material suitable for making electromagnets should have:
1) High retentivity and high coercivity 2) Low retentivity and high coercivity
ib
3) High retentivity and low coercivity 4) Low retentivity and low coercivity
45. The loop PQ, as shwon in figure moves with a velocity . Both loop and velocity are in the
G
t
plane of paper and a magnetic field B exists in the region perpendicular to plane and
ra
directed inward. Find the emf induced between P and Q.
up
x x x x x x x
v
x x x x x x x
ad
r
x x x x x x x
P
a A C Q
b
en
x x x x x x x
1) B 2r 2) B(a + b + 2r ) 3) B(a + b + r ) 4) B r
.e
CHEMISTRY
w
46. AlCl3 and FeCl3 can be separated from their mixture by using
1) NH4OH 2) NaOH 3) H2O 4) magnetic method
w
47. Which of the following are correct w.r.t D2O?

w
1) It can be used as moderator 2) Its m.p. is 3.820C

3) Its b.p. is 101.420C 4) All of these
48. 0.5 molal aqueous solutions of each of NaCl, BaCl2 and AlCl3 have boiling points T1, T2 and
T3 respectively. Which of the following is correct ?
1) T1 > T2 > T3 2) T3 > T2 > T1 3) T2 > T1 > T3 4) T1 > T3 > T2
Page No.9
49. i) P Q U A fast
ii) A R m B slow

iii) B Q m S T fast

are the elementary steps of the reactions,

2P Q 2R m S T
The rate law of the reaction is:
2 3
1) r = k [P] [Q] 2) r = k [P] [Q] [R] 3) r k < P >1/2 <Q >< R >1/3 4) r k <P ><Q >< R >
et
50. NH3 gives brown precipitate with Nesslers reagent. The formula of brown compound is :
1) K2HgI4 2) H 2 N Hg O Hg I
.n
3) Ca 3P2 CaC 2 4) NH 4
2 MoO 4
51. 2-3% gypsum is added to sample for
ha
1) increasing hardness 2) decreasing setting time
3) increasing setting time 4) making is soft
ib
52. The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is 30.8 kJ mol-1 at its boiling point (80.10C). Cal-
culate the entropy change in the condensation process.
1) +87.3 JK-1 mol-1 2) -87.3 JK-1 mol-1
t
3) 240 JK-1 mol-1 4) -240 JK-1 mol-1
ra
53. pH of a solution is changed from 2 to 5. What has been done to the solution ?
1) 3 times dilution 2) 3 times concentration
up
3) 100 times concentration 4) 1000 times dilution
54. Equal masses of H2and He gases mixed in vessel recorded a pressure of 7.5 atm. The par-
tial pressure of H2 is
ad
1) 4.8 atm 2) 2.4 atm 3) 5 atm 4) 7.5 atm

55. Which of the following does not have spherical as well as angular node ?
1) 1s 2) 2p 3) 3d 4) 5f
en
56. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal ?
1) XeF4 2) BF4 3) SF4 4) SiF4
.e
57. If P %0 , the d4 is represented as

1 ) t 211 0
2) t111 1
3) t 02g e 22 4) t12g e g21
w
2g e g 2g e g g
58. A fixed mass of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and

w
back to K as shown
w
K L
P
N M
V
The pair of isochoric processes among the transformations of sates is

1) K to L and L to M 2) L to M and N to K 3) L to M and M to N 4) M to N and N to K
Page No.10
59. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species ?
1) N 2 , O2 , NO , CO 2) C 22 , O2 , CO, NO 3) NO , C 22 , CN , N 2 4) CN , N2 ,O22 ,C22
60. If fraction of space occupied in hcp is 'x' and in fcc is 'y', then
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x = y 4) uncertain
61. The energy of second Bohr's orbit in hydrogen atom is 328kJ mol1. The energy of the
third Bohr's orbit of H is
1) 583.11kJ mol1 2) 853.11kJ mol1 3) 145.78 kJ mol1 4) 511.83kJ mol1
62. 0.24 g of a volatile substance displaced 53.78 mL of air at STP. The molecular mass of the
of the substance is
et
1) 24g 2) 53.78g 3) 50g 4) 100g
63. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of
.n
1) CH 2 CH CH CH 2 and C6 H 5CH CH 2
2) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH CH CH 2
ha
3) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH C CH 2
|
ib
CH 3
Cl
t
|
ra
4) CH 2 CH C CH 2 and CH 2 CH CH CH 2
64. Which one of the following elements, when present as an impurity in silicon makes it a p-
up
type semiconductor?
1) As 2) P 3) In 4) Sb
ad
65. CuSO4. H2O is blue in colour but anhydrous CuSO4 is white though in both copper exists
as Cu2+ ion with one unpaired electron the reason is :
1) CuSO4 (anhydrous) absorbs white light 2) CuSO4 . 5H2O absorbs blue light
en
3) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4 (anhydrous) and absorption of orange red light takes
place
4) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4.5H2O and absorption of orange-red light takes place
.e
66. In which of the following the experimental dipole moment is more than what is expected
from theory ?
w
CH3 F Cl
CH3 OH Cl
w
1) 2) 3) 4) All of these
w
67. The reaction ,

15
C6 H 6 (l ) O 2 g

l 6CO 2 g
3H 2 O(l ) is spontaneous, then which of the following is
2
correct ?
1) %H T%S 2) %H T%S 3) %H T%S 4) %H 0 and %S 0
Page No.11
68. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can be represented as
2AB2 g
YZZ 2AB g
B2 g
ZZX
The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the
degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is
1) 2K p / P
2) 2K p / P
3) K p / P
4) 2K p / P
1/3 1/ 2
69. The pH of water at 298 K is 7.0. If water is heated to 350 K, then

1) pH will decrease, water will become acidic 2) pH will remain same
3) pH will increase, water wil remain neutral 4) pH will decrease, water will remain neutral
et
70. 1 mole of each of A and B form an ideal solution of vapour pressure 100 mm Hg. Addition
of 2 moles of B to it, decrease the vapour pressure by 20 mm Hg. Vapour pressures of A
.n
and B in pure state are respectively
1) 100 and 100 mm Hg 2) 100 and 80 mm Hg
ha
3) 60 and 140 mm Hg 4) 140 and 60 mm Hg
71. A 4.0 molar aqueous solutio of NaCl is prepared and 500mL of this solution is electrolysed.
This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes. The total number of
ib
moles of chlorine gas evolveed is
1) 0.5 2) 1.0 3) 2.0 4) 3.0
t
72. For the given three cells, which of the following is correct?
ra
a) Zn Zn 2 1.0M
Cu 2 1.0M
Cu; E1 b) Zn Zn 2 1.0M
Cu 2 10.0M
Cu; E 2
up
c) Zn Zn 2 10.0M
Cu 2 1.0M
Cu; E3
1) E1 E 2 E 3 2) E 3 E 2 E1 3) E 2 E1 E 3 4) E1 E 2 E3
ad
73. Which of the following graphs represents the first order reaction ?
log[A]0
Intercept constant
en
Rate
Conc.
log [A]
-k
1) Slope=k 2) 3) Slope=2.303
Conc. Time Time

.e
4) All represent 1st order reaction

74. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electrical field. The particles move towards anode.
w
The coagulation of same sol is studied using NaCl, BaCl2 and AlC3 solutions. Their
coasgulating power should be
w
1) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 2) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl
w
3) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl 4) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3
75. Which is wrongly reported ?
1) Spelter : impure zinc 2) Pig iron : impure iron
3) Sphalerite : ZnO 4) Blister Copper : Impure Copper
76. 100 cm3 of a sample of H2O2 gives 1000cm3 of O2 at STP. The given sample is
1) 10 volume H2O2 2) 100 volume H2O2 3) 10% H2O2 (W/V) 4) 2.786N
Page No.12
77. Cs2CO3 is highly soluble in water while BaCO3 quite sparingly soluble. Which of the
following is correct ?
1) %hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of Cs2CO3 while it is opposite in case of BaCO3
2) %hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of BaCO3 while its opposite in case of Cs2CO3
3) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is high 4) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is low
78. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicon polymer ?
1) Me3SiCl 2) PhSiCl3 3) MeSiCl3 4) Me2SiCl2
79. In PO34 , the bond order of P O bond and formal charge on O atom are, respectively
et
1) 0.25, 0.25 2) 0.50, 0.50 3) 1.25, 0.75 4) 0.75, 1.25
.n
80. Chormite ore X

Na CO /air
fuse
2
l Y
.X and Y are
3
1) Cr2O3 and Na 2 Cr2O7 2) FeO.Cr2O3 and Na 2 Cr2O7
ha
3) FeO.Cr2O3 and Na 2 CrO 4 4) Cr2O3 and Na 2 CrO4
81. In the titration of Oxalic acid solution with KMnO4, the substance working as catalyst is
ib
1) KMnO4 2) MnO2 3) Oxalic acid 4) MnSO4
82. Which will oxidise glucose to gluconic acid ?
t
ra
1) Br2 water 2) Benedict solution 3) Tollens'reagent 4) All of these
i
O 2 / %
up
83. Cl CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
AlCl3
l P
ii
H O
l Q Phenol
3
The major product P and Q are

ad
1) and CH3-CH2-CHO 2) and CH3-CH2-CHO

en
3) 4)
.e
and CH3COCH3 and CH3-CH2-CHO

w
84. CH 3 CH OH
CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 andCH 3 CH 2 CHOH CH 2 CH 3
can be distinguished by
w
1) HCl / ZnCl2 2) Br2 / CCl4 3) KMnO 4 / H 4) I 2 / NaOH

w
85. Ethanal is treated with HCN and the resulting compound on hydrolysis followed by
polymerisation gives 'X'. 'X' is used as / in
1) Orthopedic devices 2) Making capsules
3) Post operative stitches 4) Photo films
Page No.13
86. Kjeldahl's method can not be used to estimate nitrogen in which of the following com-
pounds?
O
1) N 2) 3) NH2 4) All of these
NH2 C NH2
87. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation
1) O2N CH2 2) CH2
et
3) CH3 CH2 4) CH3O CH2
.n
88. How are the following related ?
ha
CH3 CH2 CH2 N CH3 CH3 CH2 N CH3
I) II)
H CH3
ib
III) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2
1) I and II are position isomers 2) I and III are chain isomers

3) I, II and III are metamers
t 4) I, II and III are functional isomers
ra
up
89. Ozonolysis is of (using H2O/Zn) produces
O
ad
||
1) HCHO OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 2) HCHO OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO
O
||
en
3) CO 2 H 2O OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 4) H 2 O CO 2 OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO
90. Which of the following is a chain initiation step in the chlorination of CH4?
.e
. . .
1) Cl Cl
hv
l2Cl 2) CH 4 C l
l C H3 HCl
. . . .
w
3) C H 3 Cl2
l CH 3Cl Cl 4) C H 3 C H 3
l CH 3 CH 3
w
BOTANY
w
91. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from

1) Synergids 2) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
3) Antipodal cells 4) Diploid egg
92. Fleshy fruits that develop from inferior ovaries are found in
1) Sunflower, apple, cucumber 2) Apple, cucumber, citrus
3) Tomato, grapes, guava 4) Guava, apple, cucumber
Page No.14
93. Identify the types of placentations in the diagrams A, B, C, D given below respectively
et
.n
1) Marginal, axile, parietal, basal 2) Marginal, axile, parietal, parietal
3) Marginal, parietal, parietal, axile 4) Parietal, axile, parietal, marginal
ha
94. A character not applicable to chinarose is
1) Alternate phyllotaxy
2) Twisted aestivation in the second whorl of flower
ib
3) Cohesion in the third whorl of flower 4) Solitary, terminal inflorescence
t
95. Cup shaped structure in the flower of guava is
ra
1) Thalamus 2) Peduncle 3) Bracts 4) Ovary
96. Which of the following is not a tendril climber
up
1) Smilax 2) Pisum 3) Grape vine 4) Bean

97. Find the correct match:
ad
1) Mustard plant : leaves are opposite

2) Guava plant : leaves are alternate
en
3) Nerium plant : leaves are whorled

4) Calotropis plant : leaves are alternate
98. Green leaf like modified branches with a single internode are called
.e
1) Phyllode 2) Phylloclade 3) Bulbils 4) Cladode

99. The structure which contains vascular bundle and is the modification of stem is
w
1) Spine 2) Trichome 3) Thorn 4) Prickle

w
100. Aerial roots are modified for both absorption and assimilation in this genus
1) Vanda 2) Monstera 3) Banyan 4) Taeniophyllum
w
101. How many plants in the list given below have tap root modifications - Banyan, Vanda,
Turnip, Sweet potato, Groundnut, Sugarcane, Monstera
1) Four 2) Two 3) Three 4) Five
Page No.15
102. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correct option.
A) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence
2) The multicellular female gametophyte is called endosperm
3) The gymnosperms are heterosporous
1) A and B are true but C is false 2) A and C are true but B is false
3) B and C are false but A is true 4) B and C are true but A is false
103. The given figures show thalli of a liverwort. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D in
that
et
.n
ha
ib
a) b)
t
ra
up
1) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C- Roots ; D - Archegoniophore
2) A - sporophyte ; B: rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore
3) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore
ad
4) A - gemma cup ; B - roots ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore

104. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in which of the following groups
en
1) Fungi 2) Animalia 3) Monera 4) Plantae

105. In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in
.e
1) Protista 2) Algae 3) Plantae 4) Monera

106. Incorrect statement among the following
w
1) In mustard flower stamens have no adhesion or cohesion

2) In thorn apple stamens have adhesion, but not cohesion
w
3) In sunhemp stamens have cohesion, but not adhesion

w
4) In lily stamens have both cohesion and adhesion

107. Which of the following is wrongly matched:
1) Aloe - medicine 2) Sesbania - green manure
3) Thorn apple - fumigatory 4) Asparagus - vegetable
Page No.16
108. Which of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ?
1) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane
2) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
3) Adenylic acid - adenosine with glucose phosphate molecule
4) Alanine amino acid - contains an amino group and acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
109. Identify the amino acids n-2, n-1, n, n+1 in the following representation of primary structure
a hypothetical protein
OH
et
C H 2C O O H
SH CH 2
.n
C H 2O H CH 2 CH 2
CH 2
ha
HN CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO
n-1 n
n-2 n+1
ib
1) Glutamic acid, Tyrosine, Cysteine, Serine 2) Serine, cystine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid
3) Serine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid, Cystine 4) Serine, Cystein, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid
t
110. What is true about ribosomes
ra
1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where "S" stands for sedimentation co-efficient
up
2) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and protein
3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
4) These are self - splicing introns of some ribozymes
ad
111. If mitotic division is restricted in the G1-Phase of a cell cycle then the condition is known
as
en
1) S-Phase 2) G2-Phase 3) M-Phase 4) G0-Phase

112. In the following diagram of phloem identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D
.e
w
w
w
1) A - Sieve pore, B - Sieve tube element, C-companion cell, D-Phloem parenchyma

2) A - Sieve pore, B-sieve tube element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-Companion cell
3) A-perforation plate, B-Sieve element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-companion cell
4) A-Sieve pore, B-companion cell, C-sieve tube element, D- Phloem parenchyma
Page No.17
113. Which of the following statements is correct for secondary succession
1) It begins on a bare rock
2) It occurs on a deforested site
3) It follows primary succession
4) It takes place slowly than that of primary succession
114. A cell is equally permeable to sucrose solution and NaCl solution. First the cell is put in
0.6 M sucrose solution, there is no change in size but when put in 0.6 M NaCl solution the
size will
et
1) Increase 2) Decrease 3) Remain same 4) Can't be said
115. Stomata open at night in
.n
1) hydrophytes 2) Succulents 3) mesophytes 4) halophytes
116. In the illustration of mass flow by Munch, identify A, B, C, D respectively
ha
t ib
A B
C
ra D
up
1) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-sink, D- source

2) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-source, D-sink
ad
3) A-concentrated solution, B-dilute solution, C- sink, D-pure water

4) A- dilute solution, B-concentrated solution, C- sink, D-purewater
en
117. Which inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens
1) Feed back inhibitors 2) Non competitive inhibitors
.e
3) Competitive inhibitors 4) Allosteric inhibitors

118. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less effected by atmospheric CO2 levels because
w
1) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells

w
2) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2

w
3) Four carbon acids are primary initial CO2 fixation products

4) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
119. During the operation of non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the immediate source of
electrons to P700 is
1) Cyt f 2) PC 3) PQ 4) Fd
Page No.18
120. The following diagram represents ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis. Identify A, B, C,
D parts labelled in it H +
NADP+
B
A C NADPH
H2O
H+
H+ H+
Lumen
H+
Thylakoid
et
membrane
Stroma
.n
D
ADP ATP
A B C D
ha
1) Photosystem I Cytochrome b and f Photosystem II ATP synthase
2) PhotosystemII cytochrome b and f Photosystem I CF0
3) Photosystem II Cytochrome b and f Photosystem I ATP synthase
ib
4) Photosystem II ATP synthase PhotosystemI CFI
t
121. Mutations which alter nucleotide sequence with in a gene are
ra
1) Frame shift mutation 2) Base pair substitution
3) Both a and b 4) None of these
up
122. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

1) Make cut at specific positions within the DNA molecule
ad
2) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase

3) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
4) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
en
123. Which of the following is a wrong match for a microbe and its industrial product
1) Yeast - statins 2) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid
.e
3) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid 4) Aspergillus niger - citric acid

124. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This
protein
w
1) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry

w
2) Does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to the toxin
3) Is activated by acidic pH in the foregut of insect pest
w
4) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut in the insect pest ultimately killing it
125. Which of the following is a eukaryotic biofertilizer
1) Nostoc 2) NPV 3) Rhizobium 4) Glomus
126. Mendel's principle of seggregation means germ cells always receive
1) One pair of alleles 2) One quarter of the genes
3) One of the paired alleles 4) Any pair of alleles
Page No.19
127. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross
1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombinations
2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations
4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
128. In the history of biology human genome project led to the development of
1) Biotechnology 2) Biomonitoring 3) Bioinformatics 4) Biosystematics
129. The purpose of polymerase chain reaction is
et
1) DNA modification 2) DNA amplification
3) DNA replication 4) DNA visualisation
.n
130. Match the codons with their respective aminoacids and choose correct answer
Colum I Colum II
ha
A. UUU 1. Serine
B. GGG 2. Methionine
ib
C. UCU 3. Phenylalanine
D. CCC 4. Glycine
E. AUG
t 5. Proline
ra
1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2 2) A-3, B-1, D-4, D-5, E-2
3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-2 4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-3
up
131. Assimilatory power used in bundlesheath cells of maize for the net production of one
glucose molecule is
ad
1) 30ATP, 12NADPH+H+ 2) 12ATP, 6NADPH+H+

132. ATP produced in the mitochondria per one glucose molecule is (both substrate
en
phosphorylation and oxidation of all reduced coenzymes produced in cytoplasm and matrix)
1) 34 2) 32 3) 30 4) 24
.e
133. Glucose
w
A
NAD+
w
NADH+H+
w
3 PGA
NAD+
C
NADH+
D Pyruvic
NADH+H+
CO2+H2O acid
NAD+
B +CO2
Page No.20
A, B, C, D in the above representation of respiration are
A B C D
1) PGAL Lactic acid Ethanol Aerobic respiration
2) 1,3 bis PGA Ethanol Lactic acid Krebs cycle
3) G-3-P Ethanol Lactic acid Aerobic respiration
4) F, 1,6 bis P Ethanol Lactic acid Aerobic respiration
134. Bacteria with a tuft of flagella at one pole is known as
1) Lophotrichous 2) Monotrichous 3) Amphitrichous 4) Peritrichous
et
135. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results, from this he concluded
that
.n
1) These is no independent assortment of traits
2) These is no dominance of any trait
ha
3) Gametes are always pure for a particular trait
4) Sex has no influence on the dominance of traits
ib
ZOOLOGY
t
136. In humans mucous connective tissue is present mainly in the
ra
1) mucosa lining of gut 2) lining of alveoli of lungs
3) umbilical chord of newly born infants
up
4) walls of trachea, bronchi and bronchioles

137. Cardiac muscles are highly resistant to fatigue mainly due to the presence of
ad
1) intercalated discs 2) branched muscle fibres and communication junctions

3) specialised autorhythmic muscle fibres
4) numerous sarcosomes and myoglobin molecules
en
138. Identify the correct combination from the following

Scientific name Respiratory organs Excretory organs
.e
1) Astacus Dermal branchiae Green glands

2) Aplysia Ctenidia Meta nephridia
w
3) Aphrodite Parapodia Protonephridia

w
4) Ascidian Pharyngeal gill slits Proboscis gland

139. Echinoderm with elongated body and without arms,spines is
w
1) Gorgonocephalus 2) Thyone 3) Clypeaster 4) Antedon

140. Incorrect statement about "great white shark" from the following
1) Sharks exhibit physiological uraemia
2) They have placoid scales and heteroceracal caudal fin
3) Fertilization internal and viviparous in nature
4) Lobe finned fishes with air bladder acting as hydrostatic organ
Page No.21
141. Identify the correct match from the following
1) Gavialis-Vascular cloacal wall 2) Corvus-Urinary bladder present
3) Cervus-Intra abdominal testes 4) Trichechus-Six cervical vertebrae
142. In India, grassland ecosystems are found mainly in
1) Ladakh region 2) Himalayan region
3) Deccan plateau 4) Western ghats
143. The influence of light on non-directional movement of animals is known as
1) phototaxis 2) photoperiodism 3) photokinesis 4) phototropism
et
144. According to the study of molecular systematics, the kingdom replaced by the two king-
doms bacteria and archebacteria is
.n
1) Fungi 2) Protista 3) Monera 4) Metaphyta
ha
1) Earth summit-Johannesburg, South Africa
2) Biosphere reserves-Norman Myers
ib
3) Jim Corbett National park-first Indian national park in Gujarat
4) Cryopreservation-ex-situ conservation
t
146. In the case of suspected filarial patients, blood samples are collected during night time
ra
because the
1) patients do not feel much pain
up
2) filarial worms enter into blood from lymph during night time
3) microfilariae exhibit nocturnal periodicity
ad
4) adult worms are active in blood circulation during night time

147. The drug cocaine produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy levels as it
en
1) acts as amphetamine 2) stimulates adrenal glands to produce steroids

3) causes the inhibition of cholinergic nerves 4) interferes with the transport of dopamine
148. Which of the following is not a symptom of chronic malaria?
.e
1) Splenomegaly 2) Hypertrophy of RBC

3) Cirrhosis of liver 4) Anaemia
w
149. In cockroach, the structures that help in locomotion on smooth surface are
w
1) claws and arolium 2) pulvillus and bristles of podomeres

3) plantulae on tarsus 4) plantulae, claws
w
150. Incorrect statement about the mushroom shaped gland of Periplaneta americana from
the following
1) Helps in storage and excretion of uric acid
2) Secretes the innermost layer of spermatophore
3) Stores the sperms in the form of spermatophores
4) Nourishes the sperms
Page No.22
151. In a biological community Gauses principle explains
1) competition among different species under unlimited resources
2) competitive exclusion of an inferior species due to the limited natural resources
3) coexistence of closely related species due to resource partitioning
4) intra specific competition due to limited natural resources
152. Identify the uricotelic animal from the following
1) Land leech 2) Land snail 3) Desert fox 4) Camel
153. Incorrect match from the following
et
1) Paneth cells-lysozyme 2) Schawnn cells-myelin sheath
3) Dendritic cells-afferent neurons 4) Mast cells-inflammation
.n
154. Which of the following is an exotic carp?
1) Tunas 2) Common carp 3) Cat fish 4) Oil sardine
ha
155. Follicular hyperkeratosis is a/an
1) sex influenced trait 2) holandric character
ib
3) sexlinked dominant trait 4) autosomal recessive character
156. Amniocentesis test is developed mainly to
t
1) confirm the pregnancy
ra 2) determin the sex of the foetus
3) detect the chromosomal abnormalities 4) findout the correct position of foetus
up
157. Which of the following disorder is not caused by trisomy(2n+1) in human beings?
1) Down syndrome 2) Turner's syndrome
3) Kline felter syndrome 4) Patau syndrome
ad
158. In a family, blood groups of children are entirely different from that of parents only if the
blood groups of the parents are
en
1) A and B 2) AB and AB 3) AB and O 4) O and A or B

159. Correct match from the following
1) Mutation theory-Bateson 2) Survival of the fittest-Herbert Spencer
.e
3) Principles of geology-Alfred Wallace 4) Biochemical recapitulation -Ernst Haeckel

160. The first human like being frugivorous in habit and hunted with sharp stony objects was
w
named
w
1) Australopithecus 2) Homo neanderthalensis

3) Homo habilis 4) Homo erectus
w

1) MRI-aneurysm 2) EEG-epilepsy
3) PSA test-cervical cancer 4) PCR-HIV detection
162. The technique of attenuating or weakening of a microbe was developed by
1) Edward Jenner 2) Alexander Fleming 3) Louis Pasteur 4) Jonas Salk
Page No.23
163. Ampulla of vater is formed by the union of
1) common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct 2) common bile duct and pancreatic duct
3) cystic duct and common hepatic duct 4) infundibulum and isthmus of fallopian tube
164. Adenoids are present in
1) nasopharynx 2) oropharynx
3) below the tongue 4) laryngophrynx
165. In human development, most of the organ systems are developed by the end of
1) first month 2) 24 weeks 3) first trimester 4) 8 weeks
et
166. Hensen's disc is
1) part of primitive streak 2) part of sarcomere made of only myosin
.n
3) primitive knot through which chordamesodermal cells involute to form notochord
4) bilaminar embryonic disc with epiblast and hypoblast
ha
167. Autoimmune disease from the following
1) Glomerulo nephritis 2) Osteo arthritis
ib
3) Rheumatoid arthritis 4) Meningitis
168. In the conduction of nerve impulse, relative refractory period coincides with the phase of
t
1) depolarisation
ra
2) repolarisation 3) hyperpolarisation 4) polarisation
169. In kidneys, renal columns are made of
up
1) renal calyces 2) medullary pyramids
3) renal cortex 4) renal papillae
170. In the process of urine formation, selective reabsorption is minimum in this part of neph-
ad
ron
1) Proximal convoluted tubule 2) Distal convoluted tubule
en
3) Henle's loop 4) Collecting duct

171. Which of the following hormones are not antagonistic to each other in their actions?
1) Parathormone and calcitonin 2) Somatocrinin and somatostatin
.e
3) Cortisol and Catecholamines 4) Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide

172. Prostaglandins are derivatives of
w
1) tryptophan 2) tyrosine 3) glycoproteins 4) eicosanoids

w
173. The vestibular apparatus concerned with body equilibrium is constituted by

1) saccule and utricle 2) ampullae and cristae
w
3) maculae and vestibule 4) semicircular canals and otolith organ

174. Inter ventricular foramina are connecting the
1) atria and ventricles in heart 2) paracoels and diocoel in brain
3) 3rd and 4th ventricles of brain 4) right and left ventricles of heart
Page No.24
175. Joint between two adjacent vertebrae of mammals is an example of
1) symphysis and synarthrosis 2) synchondrosis and syndesmosis
3) diarthrose and syndesmosis 4) symphysis and amphiarthrosis
176. The cells that provide nutrition to developing spermatozoa in tests are called
1) Kupffer cells 2) Leydig cells 3) Sertoli cells 4) Oxyntic cells
177. Rima glottidis is the narrow space between the
1) true vocal folds and false vocal cords 2) true vocal cords and arytenoids
3) corniculate cartilages and cuneiform cartilages 4) arytenoids and thyroid cartilages
et
178. Pneumoconiosis is caused by the
1) bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae
.n
2) inhalation of coal dust and sulphur particles
3) release of vasodilator substances due to allergens
ha
4) deposition of iron particles in alveoli of lungs
179. The specialised myocytes present in inner ventricular walls of heart beneath
ib
endocardium are called
1) Chorde tendinae 2) Papillary muscles 3) Purkinje fibres 4) Columnae carneae
t
ra
180. In human heart, the non functional valve in the right atrium is present at the opening of
1) coronary sinus 2) superior venacava
up
3) inferior venacava 4) right atrioventricular aperture
ad
en
.e
w
w
w
Page No.25
KEY
PHYSICS
1) 2 2) 1 3) 2 4) 2 5) 2 6) 2 7) 4 8) 1 9) 1 10) 1
11) 1 12) 2 13) 1 14) 3 15) 1 16) 2 17) 1 18) 2 19) 2 20) 3
21) 1 22) 4 23) 3 24) 3 25) 2 26) 2 27) 2 28) 4 29) 1 30) 4
31) 4 32) 4 33) 3 34) 1 35) 2 36) 4 37) 3 38) 2 39) 1 40) 3
et
41) 1 42) 3 43) 3 44) 4 45) 2
.n
CHEMISTRY
ha
46) 2 47) 4 48) 2 49) 4 50) 2 51) 3 52) 2 53) 4 54) 3 55) 1
56) 3 57) 2 58) 2 59) 3 60) 3 61) 3 62) 4 63) 2 64) 3 65) 4
ib
66) 2 67) 1 68) 1 69) 4 70) 4 71) 2 72) 3 73) 4 74) 3 75) 3
76) 1 77) 1 78) 1 79) 3 80) 3 81) 4 82) 4 83) 3 84) 4 85) 3
t
86) 1 87) 1 88) 4 89) 2
ra
90) 1
BOTANY
up
91) 2 92) 4 93) 2 94) 4 95) 1 96) 4 97) 3 98) 4 99) 3 100) 4
101) 2 102) 4 103) 3 104) 3 105) 1 106) 4 107) 3 108) 1 109) 4 110) 2
ad
111) 4 112) 2 113) 2 114) 2 115) 2 116) 1 117) 3 118) 4 119) 2 120) 3
121)3 122) 1 123) 3 124) 4 125) 4 126) 3 127) 4 128) 3 129) 2 130) 1
en
131) 3 132) 1 133) 3 134) 1 135) 4
ZOOLOGY
.e
136) 3 137) 4 138) 2 139) 2 140) 4 141) 4 142) 2 143) 3 144) 3 145) 4
w
146) 3 147) 4 148) 3 149) 3 150) 3 151) 2 152) 2 153) 3 154) 2 155) 3
156) 3 157) 2 158) 3 159) 2 160) 3 161) 3 162) 3 163) 2 164) 1 165) 3
w
166) 2 167) 3 168) 3 169) 3 170) 3 171) 3 172) 4 173) 4 174) 2 175) 4
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176) 3 177) 2 178) 4 179) 3 180) 3
Varsity Education Management Limited
Page No.26
www.eenadupratibha.net
NEET MODEL PAPER

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This Question paper contains 180 questions in Physics, Chemistry and Biology
e t
2.
(Botany and Zoology).
. n
Each objective question has four options, in which student has to select one best option.
3.
h
Each corrrect option will be rewarded with four marks. However if the attempt of a
answering a question is wrong there will be -1 mark.
i b
4.
t
Maximum time allot to answer this paper is three hours (180 minutes).
BIOLOGY
a
1.
p r
Read the following statements and answer the given question.
u
(a) Porin protein is found in all the bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplast.
d
n a
(b) Root pressure developed when the rate of transpiration decreases.
(c) Transportation of sucrose from mesophyll cell to phloem is called phloem unloading.
.e e
(d) Xylem vessels explain apoplastic movement of water
How many statements are correct
(1) 3
w w (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
e t
2.
w Read the following characters.
(a) Diadelphous condition
. n
(b) vaxillary aestivation
h a
(c) Non-endospermic seed
the above characters belongs to family
i b
(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae
a t
(3) Cruciferae (4) Gramineae
3. Read the following features.
(i) Nerve chord is Dorsal, hollow & single
p r (ii) Gill clefts are found in pharynx
(iii) Notochord absent
a du (iv) Ventral heart

Out of these which are the features shown by a typical chordate animal?
(1) Only (i) & (iv)
e n (2) Only (ii) & (iii)
4.
.e
(3) All (i) to (iv) (4) Only (i), (ii) & (iv)
In addition to malpighian tubules which other structures also help in excretion in cockroach?
5.
w ww
(1) Nephrocytes
Polysome is
(2) Uricose gland
(1) Several ribosomes attached to a DNA

(3) Urate cells (4) All
(2) Several ribosomes attached to a single m-RNA

(3) Several ribosomes attached to ER (4) All of the above
6. Spleen contains cords of billoroth, these are
(1) Red pulp (2) White pulp (3) Muscle (4) Only nerve fiber
ONLINE-2016 www.eenadupratibha.net
7. The blood disorder caused by following substitution mRNA GAG GUG can be exhibited by which
of the following pedigree chart?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
e t
. n
8. Consider the following statements (A - D).
h a
(A) When we look at stars on a clear night sky we are in a way looking back in time.
(B) Stellar distance measured in light year.
i b
reaching our eyes now.
a t
(C) Stars emitted light started it's journey million of year back & from trillions of kilometres away &
time.
p r
(D) When we see stars in our immediate surrounding we see them instantly and hence in the present
d u
Which of the above statement are correct?
(1) A, B & C
(3) A, C & D
n a (2) B, C & D
(4) All of the above
9.
e e
During life cycle of malarial parasite it reproduces asexually in
.
(1) Stomach and intestine of mosquito (2) Salivary gland and RBC of mosquito
w w
(3) Liver and RBC of human host (4) Only in RBC of human host
e t
10.
w
Which of the following will not suffer from minimata disease?
(1) Rabbit (2) Seal (3) Fish
. n
(4) All of these
11. The Darwin of the 20th Century
h a
12.
(1) Linnacus (2) Ramdev
i b
(3) Ernst Mayr
Which one of the following statement about human sperm is correct?
(4) Santapau
a t
(1) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in
fertilization.
p r
(2) The middle piece possesses numerous mitochondria, which provide energy for the movement of tail.
u
(3) The sperm head contains an elongated diploid nucleus.
d
13.
n a
(4) Acrosome serves as sensory structure leading the sperm towards to ovum.
How many animals in the list given below are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and
.e e
pseudocoelomate?
Ascaris, Facsiola, Ancylostoma, Taenia, Neries, Wuchereria, Pheretima
ww
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
14.
w
Which statement is not correct?
(1) Fluid mosaic model for membrane structure was given by S.J.Singer and G.L.Nicolson.
(2) The middle lamella layer mainly consists of Ca-pectate.
(3) Golgi apparatus synthesise complex polysaccharides for cell wall.
(4) Division of centromere occurs in anaphase first only.
15. In cyclic photophosphorylation
(1) Light energy not utilised (2) Oxygen not released
(3) NADPH2 forms (4) PS - II involved
16. Volume of air that will remain in the lung after normal inspiration
e t
(1) ERV + TV + RV
(2) TV + ERV
. n
(3) FRC + TV
h a
17.
(4) One & three both correct
i b
The phenomenon of ....... was discovered by ....... in the organism .......... It prevents independent
assortment of genes.
(1) Linkage, Morgan, Drosophila
a t
(2) Segregation, Mendel, Garden pea
p r
(3) Crossing over, Morgan, Drosophila
d u
(4) Linkage, Sutton and Boveri, Drosophila
18.
n a
Universe is very old & vast where as earth itself is almost only a
.e e
(1) Clusters of galaxies
(2) Clouds of gas, dust and stars
w
(3) speck
w e t
19. w
(4) planet & Sattelite
In human body, HIV infects
. n
(1) Macrophages & Neutrophils
h a
(2) Macrophages & T-killer cells
(3) T-killer cells & T-helper cells
i b
(4) T-helper cells & Macrophage
a t
20. DDT is categorised under
(1) Non-biodegradable pollutants
p r (2) Primary pollutants
(3) Qualitative pollutants
d u (4) All of these

21.
a
Which of the following is correct for given diagram?
n
.e e
w ww
(1) Bulbils o wheat (2) Leaf bud of Bryophyllum
(3) Leafs of Garlic (4) Bulbils of Agave
22. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which
month of pregnancy?
(1) Fifth month (2) First month
23.
(3) Fourth month (4) Third month
e t
A drop of each of the following is placed separately on fours slides. Which of them will not caugulate?
(1) Blood taken from pulmonary vein
. n
(2) Blood plasma
(3) Blood serum
h a
(4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
i b
24.
(1) w (2) p t
Which one is not exhibited by sucrose solution of 0.3 M concentration?
a(3) s (4) DPD

25.
p
Three stages of Calvin cycle are described as
r
d
(2) Carboxylation, Reduction, Oxidationu
(1) Carboxylation, Nitrification, Regeneration
n a
(3) Carboxylation, Reduction, Regeneration
26.
. e
(4) Fixation, Reduction, Amination
e
Which of the following statements are true/false?
w
(A) Calcitonin regulates the homeostasis of calcium along with PTH
w e t
w
(B) Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth
(C) "Grave's disease" is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal gland
. n
(D) ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine production
h a
(1) A and C are true, B and D are false
(2) A and B are true, C and D are false
i b
(3) A and D are false, B and C are true
a t
27.
(4) A, B, C are true, D only false
p r
Which one of the following option gives the correct match?
A
d u B C
(1)
(2)
n a
Dicot seed
Monocot seed
Sunflower
Pea
Non-albuminous
Non-albuminous
(3)
(4)
.e e Dicot seed
Monocot seed
Wheat
Maize
Albuminous
Albuminous
ww
28. Which of the following are considered as solid evidences of organic evolution?
w
(1) Homologous and analogous organs
(2) Analogous and vestigeal organs
(3) Homologous organs and palaeontological evidences
(4) Palaeontological and Taxonomic evidences
29. Which of the following shows hallucinogenic properties?
CH3
N O CH3
O
(1)
H
H
e t
H O
. n
(2)
h a
(3)
i b
(4) Both (2) and (3)
a t
30.
p
Acids (H2SO4 & HNO3) constituent of acid rain are r
(1) Primary pollutants
(3) Synergism
d u (2) Secondary pollutants
31. What is scutellum?

n a (4) 2 & 3
.e e
(1) Reduced cotyledon in monocots
(3) Endosperm
(2) One Tigellum
(4) One cotyledon in monocots
32.
w w
A, B and C. C
e t
It is diagramatic presentation of the human foetus within the uterus, choose the correct option about
w . n
A
B
h a
i b
a t
Plug of mucurs in cervix
A B
p r C
(1)
(2)
Cavity of Uterus
Yolk sac
d u Umblical cord
Embryo
Embryo
Placental villi
a
en
(3) Placental villi Embryo Yolk sac
(4) Umblical cord Cavity of uterus Yolk sac
33.
.e
Read the following statements.
ww
(i) Ascending Limb of Henle's loop is impermeable to water.
(ii) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman's capsule.
w
(iii) Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except the nitrogenous wastes.
(iv) ADH helps in water elimination and making the urine hypotonic.
Out of these how many statements are correct?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) All of these
34. Read the following statements carefully.
i) Causes the 25% loss of CO2 fixed by Calvin Benson cycle
ii) Operates is chloroplasts, leaf peroxisomes and mitochondria
iii) Absent in photosynthetic Bacteria
e t
iv) ATP not produced
What is this light dependent phenomenon?
. n
(1) Cyclic ETS (2) Photolysis of water
h a
35.
(3) Photorespiration
Movement in tendril of cucurbits is
i b
(4) Pentose phosphate pathway
at
(1) Thigmonasty (2) Thigmotropism (3) Chemotropism (4) None
36.
r
The thymus gland secretes the .... hormone called ..... which play a major role in the differentiation of
.... lymphocytes.
p
(1) Gylcoproteinaceous, thymosin, T
(3) Peptide, thymosin, T
d u (2) Steroid, thymosin, T
(4) Peptide, thymosin, B
37.
n a
In the diagram given below synergid, male gametes, polar nuclei and filform apparatus are
.e e
respectively. C
w w D
e t
w B
. n
A
h a
E
i b
38.
(1) D, A, B, C (2) D, A, C, B
a
Big Bang Theory attempts to explains all the following except t
(3) D, E, C, B (4) C, A, E, B
(1) Origin of universe
p r
(2) Singular huge explosion
d u
(3) Temperature came down due to expanded universe
a
(4) Multiple huge explosions creates universe stars planet sattellite
n
39.
e e
Read the following statements.
(a) Tissue matching and blood matching is essential before transplantation.
.
ww
(b) Symptoms of allergy are rapidly decreased with the use of antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids.
(c) Pneumonia and common cold are spread to a halthy person through droplets of an infected person
w by cough and sneezing.

(d) Tumor cells don't show contact inhibition.
How many of above sentences are true?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
40. Which of the following are unburn hydrocarbon released from vehicle?
(a) CH4
(b) C6H6 (Benzene)
(c) 3 - 4 Benzapyrine
e t
(d) Poly nuclear aeromatic hydrocarbon
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d (3) a, b, c and d
. n
(4) b, c and d
41. Find the incorrect match.
h a
(1)
(2)
White rust of crucifer
Red rust of Tea
Oomycetes
Basidiomycetes
i b
(3) Leaf spot disease of rice Deuteromycetes
a t
42.
(4) Aspergelosis Ascomycetes
p r
The given below diagram is of female reproductive system. Identify the structures which are marked
as A, B, C and D
d u B
Uterine cavity
n a
.e e C
w w A
e t
w D
. n
h a
(1)
A
Endometrium
B
Uterine cavity
C
isthmus
i b D
Vagina
(2) Myometrium Uterine cavity infundibilum
t Uterus
(3)
(4)
Endometrium
Perimetrium
Uterine fundus
Uterine fundus
p ra
infundibilum
Ampulla
Cervix
Cervix
43. Cartilageneous joint is found in
d u
n
(2) Between cranial bones a
(1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
.e e
(3) Between atlas and axis
(4) Between two adjacent vetebrae
ww
44. DCMU treated green plant synthesised ATP in sunlight by
45.
w
(1) Calvin-cycle
(3) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
Which enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of t-RNA?
(2) C2-cycle
(4) Respiration
(1) RNA replicase (2) RNA polymerase

(3) Amino acyl t-RNA synthetase (4) Ribosomal enzyme
46. Given below is diagram showing of an eye. Which of the following option is correctly matched with
statements and their labelling?
A
D
E
e t
F
. n
C
B
h a
(i) Visible coloured portion of the eye
(ii) Non vascular, transparent portion
i b
(iii) Photoreceptor cells are absent in this region
a t
r
(iv) Portion of retina where only the cones are densely packed
up
(1) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-E (2) i-A, ii-F, iii-E, iv-C
47.
(3) i-C, ii-E, iii-A, iv-D
Find the incorrect statement.
a d (4) i-C, ii-A, iii-E, iv-D
n
(1) Sewage treatment not only reduces pollution but also produces biogas
e
w e
(2) Trichoderma not only serves as biocontrol agent but also provides immunosuppressive agent
.
(3) Production of SCP not only provides alternative sources of protein but also reduces pollution
t
48.
w w
(4) Mycorhiza not only absorbs phosphorus from soil fertility by performing nitrogen fixation
n e
Electrodes
a .
To vacuum
pump CH4
b
Spark discharge (A)
h
NH3
H2O
t i
H2
r a Water out
Condenser
u p Water in
Water droplets
a d Water containing
organic compounds
en
Boiling water
Liquid water in trap (B)
e
Consider the following statements regarding the above diagrammatic representation.
.
ww
(A) Miller experiment at laboratory scale.
(B) Proved theory of Oparin and Haldane that life originated from non-living organic molecules like
w R.N.A. and Proteins.

(C) Formation of amino-acids was observed.
(D) Experiment demonstrated that life comes only from pre existing life.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) A & B (2) A & C (3) A, B & C (4) All of these
49. Various stage of primary succession in a newly formed fresh water pond are given.
(a) Scrub stage
(b) Reed swamp stage
(c) Submerged plant stage
e t
(d) Phytoplanktons
(e) Forest stage
. n
(f) Floating plant stage
h a
(g) Marsh meadow stage
Arrange these according to their sequence of occurrence.
i b
(1) d, c, f, b, a, g, e
a t(2) d, b, c, f, g, a, e
50.
(3) d, f, c, b, e, g, a
p r (4) d, c, f, b, g, a, e
CO (a)
d u
HC
n a
(b)
NOx
.e e (c)
w w e t
w Catalytic convertor
Labell a, b and c respectively
.n
(1) CO2, H2O + CO2, N2 (2) H2O + CO2, CO, NH3
h a
51.
(3) H2O + CO2, CO, N2
Match the following column.
i b
(4) All of these
I Two unequal flagella (a)
a
Rhodophyceae
t
II
III
2-8 flagella
Agar-Agar
(b)
(c)
p r
Phaeophyceae
Chlorophyceae
IV
I
Phycobillins
II III IV
a
(d)
du Gracilaria
(1) c
e
b d a
n
(2)
(3)
b
a
.e c
b
d
c
a
d
52.
(4)
w ww
c b a d
Birds differ from reptiles in which one of the following character?
(1) Skin has scales
(2) They ley eggs
(3) 12 pair cranial nerve
(4) There is regulation of body temperature
53. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of Human skull. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and
select the right option about them?
D
C B
e t
. n
A
h a
Option Part A Part B
i
Part C
b Part D
(1)
(2)
Occipital Bone
Occipital condyle
Temporal Bone
Ethmoid Bone
a t Sphenoid Bone
Temporal Bone
Frontal Bone
Frontal Bone
r
up
(3) Occipital Bone Temporal Bone Frontal Bone Spphenoid Bone
(4) Occipital condyle Sphenoid Bone Parental Bone Frontal Bone
54. Which pair is wrong?
(1) Term ''Phytochrome" Butler
a d
e n
(2) Allosteric Enzyme Hexokinase
w e
(3) Abscisic acid Foolish seeding disease
.
(4) Aerobic Respiration in E coli Mesosome and cytosol
t
55.
w w
There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because
n e
(1) there are 64 types of t-RNA found in the cell.
(2) there are 44 meaning less codons and 20 codons for amino acids.
a .
(3) there are 64 amino acids to be coded.
b h
56.
(4) genetic code is triplet.
In the given figure, what is indicated by 'X'?
t i
Hypothalamus
r a
u p
Release-inhibiting
Releasing
hormone
a d hormone
en
stimulates Inhibits
X
.e
ww
Hormone
57.
w
(1) Thyroid
(3) Anterior Pituitary
Distillation of fermented broth is required to produce
(2) Parathyroid
(4) Posterior pituitary
(1) Wine and beer (2) Wine and whysky

(3) Brandy and beer (4) Brandy and rum
58.
[A]
[C]
e t
[B]
. n
h a
i b
a t
[D]
p r
d u
A a
Select the option with the correct identification of animals (A-D) in the above family tree of dinosaurs.
n B C D
(1)
(2)
.e e Stegosaurs
Triceratops
Pteranodon
Pteranodon
Triceratops
Tyrannosaurs
Brachiosaurs
Stegosaurs
w
(3)
w Triceratops Bat Brachiosaurs Stegosaurs
e t
59. w (4) Tyrannosaurs
Guano is the rich source of
Archaeopteryx Triceratops Brachiosaurs
. n
(1) Sulphur (2) Nitrogen (3) Carbon
h a (4) Phosphorus
60.
(1) 1st October 2001
i b
When did Euro-IV (Bharat stage-IV) became applicable for 4 wheelers in 13 mega cities of India?
(2) 1st April 2005
(3) 1st April 2010
a t
(4) 1st April 2011
61.
(1) Sterile human
p r
Reproduction is not a defining property of living organisms due to following exceptions.
(2) Worker hony bees
62.
(3) Mules
Scales in cyclostomata are
a du (4) All of the above
(1) Ctenoid
e n(2) Cycloid (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Absent

63.
e
Read the following four statements (A-D).
.
(A) Tricuspid valve is present in between right auricle and right ventricle.
w ww
(B) Bicuspid valve is present in between right auricle and right ventricle.
(C) Semilunar valves are present at the opening of pulmonary arch and carotid systemic arch.
(D) All these valves are always be bidirectional.
Out of these how many statements are incorrect?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) None of these
64. What are the P, Q, R, S in given diagram.
Centrosome
R
S
e t
Cytoplasm
. n
Q
Endoplasmic reticulum
h a
i b
Ribosomes
P
a t
P Q
p r R S
(1) Plastid E.R.
d u Nucleus Mitochondrion
(2)
(3)
Mitochondria
Plasma membrane
n a Nucleus
Golgibody
Golgibody
Nucleus
Cell-membrane
Mitochondria
65.
(4)
.e e Golgi body
Sugar with 5 ring structure is called
E.R. Plastid Ribosome
w w
(1) Furanose (2) Pyranose (3) Dextrorotatory
e t
(4) Laevorotatory
66.
w
In the match given below which of the following is incorrect?
Blood group Blood group Possible ABO blood group antigen
. n
of father of mother on erythrocyte of progeny
h a
(1)
(2)
O
A
O
B
i b
None
None
t
ra
(3) AB O None
(4) A O None
67. Observe the diagrams given below of pBR322 plasmid
u p
DNA
a d DNA DNA
en
ampR tetR ampR tetR ampR tetR
ampR tetR
DNA
.e B C D
ww
A
Presence of which of the following vector in the host will help in screening of transformants that can
68.
w
grow on ampicillin containing medium but not on that containing tetracycline?
(1) D (2) C
Artificially acquired active immunity is induced by
(3) B (4) A
(1) Readymade antibodies (2) Vaccination

(3) Colostrum (4) Natural infection
69. All given are included among 34 biodiversity hot spots of world, except
(1) Indo-Burma (2) Western Ghats, and Sri Lanka
(3) Himalaya (4) Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar
70. Hybrid vigour is induced by
e t
(a) Clonal selection
(b) Crossing of suitable plants
. n
(c) Species differentiation
h a
(1) Only b
(3) a and c both
(2) b and c Both
(4) Only c
i b
71.
t
Presence of xylem vessels and triploid endosperm is the property of
a
72.
(1) Gymnosperm (2) Angiosperm
p r
Petromyzon & myxine is not regarded as true fishes because
(3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta
(1) They lack unpaired fins
d u
(2) They have scales
n
(3) In them operculum is absenta
73.
. e
(4) There is absence of paired fins & jaws
e
Read the following features of blood vessels
w w
(i) It carries blood from heart to organs
e t
w
(ii) Mostly carries impure blood
(iii) It's walls are thin and soft
. n
(iv) Their lumen is wide
h a
(v) It's walls contain unidirectional valves
(vi) They don't collapse when they empty
i b
(vii) They are deeply situated in the body
a t
(viii) Blood flows with a low pressure in it
p r
Out of these how many features are correct with regards to veins?
74.
(1) Four (2) Five
a du (3) Six (4) Seven

The synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA replication takes place. If the initial amount
(1) 2C n
of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to ..........
e (2) 4C (3) 8C (4) 16C

75.
.e
Match the following.
ww
(A) Jaundice (i) Difficulty in breathing
w(B)
(C)
(D)
Pernicious anemia
Diarrohea
Asthma
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Decreased absorption
Bile pigment
Vit B12
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv) (2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)
(3) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii) (4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
76. The diagram given here is showing a particular stage of cell divisions. It helps to prove which law of
inheritance?
A
A
e t
a
. n
a
h a
i b
(1) Law of dominance
(3) Law of independent assortment
a t
(2) Law of segregation
(4) Law of linkage
r
up
77. Which of the following is a technique to provide pest resistance to crop plants?
(1) ANDi (2) RNAi (3) miRNA (4) ELISA
78.
d
Bacterial disease spread due to intake of contaminated food and water
a
79.
e n
(1) Pneumonia (2) Typhoid (3) Ascariasis
During the past century, the mean temperature of the earth has increased by
(4) Amoebiasis
80.
w.e
(1) 0.4C
Selection is the method of?
(2) 0.2C (3) 0.6C (4) 0.9C
t
w w
(a) Plant physiology (b) Plant breeding
n e
(c) Plant anatomy
(1) a, b and c
(d) Cytology
(2) Only b (3) Only c
a .
(4) Only d
81. Numerical taxonomy
b h
(1) is a modern taxonomy
(3) is based on all the characters
t i
(2) is a most widely used taxonomy
(4) more than one option are correct
82.
r a
In which pair both characters are found without exception in all mammals
(1) Hair & vivipary
(3) Vivipary & Mammary gland
u p (2) Vivipary & internal fertilizatioin
(4) Mammary glands & internal fertilization
83.
a d
Which of the following cells/organism shows 'Ameoboid movement'?
(i) Hydra
e n
(iv) Macrophases
(ii) Leucocytes
(v) Paramoecium
(iii) Erythrocytes
(vi) Amoeba
.e
(1) (ii), (iii) and (vi) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
ww
(3) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (4) (ii), (iv) and (v)
84.
85.
w
Besides nucleus the Eukaryotic cells have other membrane bound distinct structures called
(1) Mesosome (2) Organelles (3) Chromatophore (4) Inclusion bodies
Partial pressure of oxygen in tissue, atmospheric air, oxygenated blood, alveolar air are
(1) 159, 40, 104, 95 (2) 159, 40, 95, 104
(3) 40, 159, 95, 104 (4) 95, 40, 159, 104
86. Read the following statements:
(a) In both grasshopper and Drosophila males have only one X chromosome in their cells.
(b) i gene of Lac operon is expressed only in presence of lactose.
(c) Being repetitive, satellite DNA forms multiple copies of same polypeptide.
e t
independent assortment of genes.
. n
(d) Random arrangement of chromosomes at metaphasic plate of meiosis I is the basis of
The correct statements are

a
bh
(a) a, d (2) c, d (3) a, b, c (4) b, c, d
87.
(1) Biopiracy
t i
The second amendment of the Indian Patents Bill has been cleared to prevent?
(2) Biowar
(3) Biodiversity loss
r a(4) Biomagnification
88.
p
Number of chromosomes in a patient of Down's syndrome are
(1) Autosome - 46, Sex chromosomes - 2
u
a d
e n
89.
.e
The most Hazardous metal pollutant form automobile exhaust is
w
(1) Lead (2) Mercury (3) Copper (4) Cadmium
t
90.
w w
Breeding of crops having high level of minerals, Vitamins and proteins is called
n e
(1) Biomagnification
(3) Somatic hybridisation
(2) Micropropagation
(4) Biofortification
a .
CHEMISTRY
b h
91.
t i
Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
92.
(1) Mg2+ (2) Ti3+
p ra (3) V3+ (4) Fe2+

Phenol (mol. wt. 94) is dimerised to 60% in a solvent, the observed molecular weight of phenol will be
(1) Less than 94 (2) 134.2
d u (3) 100 (4) 150

93.
(1) Be2+ a
The ions having highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution is
n (2) Mg2+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Ba2+

94.
.e e
Which of the following does not give primary amine?
LIAlH4 LIAlH4
ww
(1) CH3CN (2) CH3NC
LIAlH4 Br2/NaOH
95. w
(3) CH3CONH2
Equivalent weight of As2S3 in the change

(4) CH3CONH2
As2S3 AsO4-3 + S (M - molecular weight of As2S3)

M M M M
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 6 3 10
96. A substance that will reduce Ag+ to Ag but will not reduce Ni2+ to Ni is?
(1) Zn (2) Pb (3) Mg (4) Al
97. Pure water boils at 99.725C at Shimla. If Kb for water is 0.51 K mol-1kg, the boiling point of
0.69 molal urea solution will be
(1) 100.35 (2) 100.08 (3) 99.37
e t
(4) None of these
98. Match List-I with List-II and select the answer the codes given below
. n
Code List-I Code List-II
h a
A
B
XeF4
XeF6
i
ii
Distorted octahedral
Tetrahedral
i b
C XeO3 iii Square planar
a t
D XeO4 iv
(1) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii r
Trigonal pyramidal
p (2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv

(3) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii
d u (4) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii

99. Biuret test is not given by
(1) Urea
n a (2) Protein
.e e
(3) Carbohydrate
100. For a lyophilic sol
(4) Polypeptides
w
(1) Surface tension & Viscosity are less than that of the medium
w e t
w
(2) Surface tension & viscosity are more than that of medium
(3) Surface tension & viscosity are equal to that of medium
. n
(4) Surface tension is less but viscosity is more than that of medium
h a
101. In the equation
SnCl2 + 2 HgCl2 Hg2Cl2 + SnCl4
i b
t
The equivalent weight of stannous chloride (molecular weight - 190) will be?
(1) 190 (2) 95
p ra (3) 47.5 (4) 154.5

102. An exothermic reaction X - Y is spontaneous in the backward direction. What will be the sign of S for
the forward reaction?
(1) +ve
d u (2) -ve
n
(3) May be +ve or -ve
a (4) S will be zero
e e
103. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3- and NH4+ are
(1) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively
.
ww
(2) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(3) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively
w
(4) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
104. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis gives
(1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehyde
(3) n-Propyhl alcohol (4) Isopropyl alcohol
105. Select the incorrect order.
3+ 3+ 3-
(1) [M(H2O)6] < [M(NH3)6] < [M(NO2)6] Absorbed light '' order
3+ 3+ 3+
(2) [Co(H2O)6] < [Cr(H2O)6] < [Fe(H2O)6] - Paramagnatism
(3) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] < [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] < [Pt(NH3)2Cl2Br2] - No. of Geometrical isomer

e t
(4) [Mn(CO)5]
- +
< [Co(CO)6] < [Co(CO)6] C - O bond order
. n
106. Bredic arc method cannot be be used to prepare colloidal solution of?
(1) Pt (2) Fe (3) Ag
h a
(4) Au
6 g cm-3 is
i b
107. The number of atoms is 270 g of an element present in bcc system with edge 300 pm and density
(1) 3.33 1022

108. Bond order of nitric oxide is
(2) 3.33 1024
r at
(3) 3.33 1026 (4) 3.33 1020
(1) 1.0 (2) 2.5
u p (3) 2.0 (4) 1.5
a
(CH3)2C = CHCH(Br)CH(OH)CH = CHCH3 d
109. Number of stereoisomers of the molecule is
(1) 4
e
(2) 6
n
110. The sum of no. of unpaired e- in following compounds
(3) 8 (4) 16
.e
[Ni(CN)4]2- [NiCl4]2-, [CuCl4]2- [Cu(CN)4]2-
w t
w w
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
n e
111. A first order reaction is 20% completed in 10 minutes, calculate time taken for the reaction to go to
75% completion?
(1) 62.18 minute (2) 72.18 minute (3) 90 minute
a .(4) 79 minute
h
ib
112. Largest jump between second and third ionisation energy is for
(1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) C
t
113. The increasing thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 follows the sequence
a
(1) H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te
(3) H2S, H2O, H2Se, H2Te
p r (2) H2Te, H2Se, H2S, H2O
(4) H2Se, H2S, H2O, H2T
PCl3
114. CH3 - CH - CH2 - OH A B
d u

CH3
n
AlCl3
a
.e e
Find product B.
Ph
ww

(1) CH3 - CH - CH2 - CH3 (2) C(CH3)3
w(3) CH3 - CH2 - CH (4) CH - CH3

CH3 CH3
115. Select the incorrect matched.
(1) Mond process - Purification of Ni
(2) Zone-refining - refining of Si, Ge
(3) Mac-arthur cyanide process - refining of Ag & Au
e t
(4) Cupellation - refining of Ag
N
116. How much volume of water is required to dilute 500 ml, of HCl into decinormal?
2
. n
(1) 2000 ml (2) 2500 ml (3) 3000 ml
h a
(4) 1000 ml
117. Which is not applicable to ozone?
(1) It is a bent molecule with bond angle approx 117
i b
(2) The two O - O bond length are equal
a t
(3) It is an allotrope of oxygen
p r
(4) It has four lone pair of electron on central atom
incorrect?
d u
118. It is observed that chemistry of lanthaindes decided by their +3 oxidation states. Which statement is
n a
(1) Size of Ln (III) decrease with increase in atomic number
e e
(2) Compounds of Ln (III) are generally colourless
(3) Hydroxides of Ln (III) are mainly basic in nature
.
w w
(4) Compounds of Ln (III) are mainly contains ionic bond due to large size of Ln (III)
119. Which of the following is not aromatic?
e t
w . n
(1) (2) (3)
h a (4)
b
120. Leakage of which gas was responsible for Bhopal gas Tragedy in 1984?
i
(1) CH3NCS
121. Minimum pH will be of
(2) CH3CNO
a t
(3) CH3CNS (4) CH3NCO
(1) 0.1 M BaCl2 (2) 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2
p r (3) 0.1 M BeCl2 (4) 0.1 M Ba(OH)2

122. Select the incorrect statement.
d u
(1) Stability of normal oxides of I A elements decreases down the group
a
(2) Stability of superoxide of I A elements increases down the group
n
e e
(3) Stability of hydrides of I A elements increases down the group
(4) Be and Mg does not give flame test
.
ww
123. What will be the products of the reaction?
CH2 - O OH HI
w(1) CH2 - OH Only (2) CH2 - I + HO OH
(3) CH2 - OH + I OH (4) CH2 - OH + I I
124. IUPAC name of the following is
OH
CH3
(1) 5-Methyl hex-3-en -1-ol (2) 2-Methyl pent-3-en-5-ol
e t
(3) 2-Methyl hex-3-en-6-ol (4) 4-Methyl pent-2-en-1-ol
. n
125. Which of the following is a Homopolymer?
(1) Acrilan (2) PHBV (3) Glyptal
h a
(4) Dacron
126. Which of the following is not precipitated with H2S?
i b
(1) Pb+2 (2) Cu+2
a t
(3) Ag+
127. From amongst the following triatomic molecules the least bond angle is in
(4) Sn+2
(1) O3 (2) I3-
p r (3) NO2
-
(4) H2S
128. Methyl benzoate can be prepared by
(1) C6H5COOH + CH3OH

H+
d u
n a
Pyridine
. e
(2) C6H5COCl + CH3OH
e
(3) C6H5COOH + CH2N2

w w
(4) All of the above methods
e t
w
129. Assume that during electrolysis of AgNO3, only H2O is electrolysed and O2 is formed as
2 H2O 4 H+ + O2 + 4 e-
. n
O2 formed at NTP due to passage 2 A of current for 965 s is
h a
(1) 0.112 L (2) 0.224 L (3) 11.2 L
i b
130. Which one of the following is employed as a Antihistaminic drug?
(4) 22.4 L
(1) Brompheniramine
a t
(2) Ranitidine
(3) Valium
p r (4) Chloramphenicol
131. 20% of PCl5 is not dissociated at 25C (V = 1 ltr), KC =
(1) 3.2
132. Boric acid is polymeric due to
(2) 1.6
a du (3) (3.2)-1 (4) 32
(1) Its acidic nature
e n
.e
(2) The presence of hydrogen bonds
(3) Its monobasic nature
w ww
(4) Its geometry
133. Among the following compounds most acidic is
(1) p-nitrophenol
(2) p-hydroxy benzoic acid
(3) m-hydroxy benzoic acid
(4) p-methyl benzoic acid
134. Consider the given data
Half-cell reaction E
a. Cr2O72- + 14 H2 + 6 e- 2 Cr3+ + 7 H2O + 133 V
b. Cr3 + 3 e- Cr - 0.74 V
e t
c. Cu+ + e-
d. Cu2+ + 2 e-
Cu
Cu
+ 0.52 V
+ 0.34 V
. n
Eo for the reaction
h a
2 Cr(s) + 3 Cu2+ (aq)
(1) -1.08 V
2 Cr3+ + 3 Cu is
(2) -0.70 V
i b
(3) 1.08 V
t
(4) 2.50 V
a
NaNH2 CH3 - I
135. A B 2 - pentyne
p r
What is A?
(1) Propyne
d u (2) I - Butyne
(3) Both (I) and (2)
n a (4) None
.e e PHYSICS
w w e t
136. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is being rotated about a vertical axis through the centre of
the circular base. If the radius of the vessel is r and angular velocity of rotation is , then the
w
difference in the heights of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and the edge is
(1)
r
(2)
r22
(3) 2gr
.
(4)
2 n
2g 2g
h a 2gr2
137. A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. Which of the
b
diagram shown in figure correctly shows the displacement time curve for its motion?
i
d d
a t
d d
(1) (2)
p r (3) (4)
d u t t t
n a
138. An ideal gas after going through a series of four thermodynamic states in order, reaches the initial state
again (cyclic process). The amounts of heat (Q) and work (W) involved in the states are
e e
Q1 = 6000 J; Q2 = -5500 J;
.
Q3 = -3000 J; Q4 = 3500 J
w ww
W1 = 2500 J; W2 = -1000 J;
W3 = - 1200 J; W4 = xJ
The ratio of net work done by the gas to the total heat absorbed by the gas in . The value of x and
in percentage are nearly
(1) 500 ; 7.5 (2) 700; 10.5
(3) 1000; 21 (4) 1500; 15
139. In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is in its balanced state. The meter bridge wire has a resistance
0.1 ohm/cm. The value of unknown resistance X and the current drawn from the battery of negligible
resistance is
X 6
e t
A 40 cm
G
60 cm B
. n
h a
(1) 6 , 5 amp
5V
i
(2) 10 , 0.1 amp
b
(3) 4 , 1.0 amp
a t
(4) 4 , 0.5 amp
combination is
p r
140. Two lenses of power - 15 D and + 5 D are in contact with each other. The focal length of the
(1) -20 cm
d u
(2) -10 cm (3) +20 cm (4) + 10 cm
n a
141. A tube of semicircular cross section contains some liquid and is placed vertically. The angle of contact
is zero. The ratio of forces due to surface tension for circular and plane portion of the tube is
(1) 1 : 1
.e
(3) 2 :
e (2) : 2
(4) None of these
w w
142. A mass of 5 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If the mass making 600 revolution per
minute, its kinetic energy would be
e t
w(1) 500 2 (2) 200 2 (3) 3600 2
. (4) 1000 2
n
h a
143. A uniform spring whose natural length is l has force constant K. The spring is cut into pieces of
unstressed length l1 & l2. Where l1 = nl2 where n being an integer. Now a mass m is made to oscillate
with first spring. The time period of its oscillation would be

i b
t
mn m
(1) T = 2 (2) T = 2
K(n + 1) K(n + 1)
ra

m m(n + 1)
(3) T = 2 (4) T = 2
nR
u p nK
144. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.81 ohm. To increase the range to 10 A the
value of the required shunt is
(1) 0.09
a d
(2) 0.03 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.9
e n
145. When a ray of light is incident normally on one refracting surface of an equilateral prism.
(Refractive index of the material of the prism = 1.5)
.e
(1) emerging ray is deviated by 30
w ww
(2) emerging ray is deviated by 45
(3) emerging ray just grazes the second refracting surface
(4) the ray undergoes total internal reflection at the second refracting surface
146. The Young's modulus of a metal is 1.2 1011 N/m2 and the interatomic force constant is 3.6 10-9
N/Angstrom. The mean distance between the atoms of the metal is
(1) 2 A (2) 3 A (3) 4.5 A (4) 5 A
147. A body of mass m kg collides elastically with another body at rest and then continuous to move in the
original direction with half of its original speed, then mass of the second body is
2 m m
(1) m kg (2) m kg (3) kg (4) kg
3 3
148. In case of simple pendulum time period verses length is depicted by (l << R)
2
e t
T T
. n
(1)
l
(2)
h a
i b l
(3)
T
r at
(4)
T
u p l
5
( r
) a d
149. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge distribution with charge density varying as
(r) = 0 - upto r = R, and (r) = 0 for r > R, where r is the distance from the origin.
4
e
R
n
(w.e)
The electric field at a distance r (r < R) from the origin is given by
0r 5 r 40r 5 r
(1) - (2)
( -
) t
w(3) w
40
0r
4
(
R
5 r
-
)
30
40r
(4)
(
3
5
R
r
-
) n e
40 3 R 30 4 R
a .
150. Light of wavelength 2 10-3 m falls on a slit of width 4 10-3 m. The approx angular dispersion of
the central maximum will be
h
(1) 30 (2) 60
151. A physical quantity P is given by P =

A3B1/2
(3) 90
t ib (4) 180
C-4 D3/2
r a
(1) A (2) B p
The quantity which brings is the maximum percentage error in P is
u (3) C (4) D
a d
152. An object of mass m slides down a hill of height h and of arbitrary shape and stops at the bottom
because of friction. The coefficient of friction may be different for different segment of the path. Work
n
required to return the objection to its position along the same path by a tangential force is
e
(1) mgh
(3) -mgh
.e (2) 2mgh
(4) Cannot be calculated
w ww
153. At the nodes of a longitudinal stationary wave
(1) The amplitude of oscillation is maximum
(2) The density variation is zero
(3) The pressure variation is maximum
(4) The velocity amplitude is maximum
154. Two equal point charges are fixed at x = -a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is placed
at the origin. The change in the electrical potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a small distance
x along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to
1
(2) x2 (3) x3 (4)
(1) x
x
155. In an interference experiment using waves of same amplitude, path difference between the waves at a
e t

n
point on the screen is . The ratio of intensity at this point with that at the central bright fringe is
4
.
(1) 1 (2) 0.5 (3) 1.5
h a
(4) 2.0
it is projected from the ground

i b
156. Which of the following is the graph between the horizontal velocity (vx) of a projectile & time (t) when
Vx Vx
a t Vx Vx
(1)
t
(2)
p t
r (3)
t
(4)
t
d u
157. A wheel of radius 20 cm has forces applied to it as shown in the figure. The net torque produced by the
forces 4 N at A, 8 N at B, 6 N at C and 9 N at D at angles indicated is
n a 4N
A
.e e B
90
30 20 cm
D
w w 8N
90
e t
w C 9N
. n
(1) 5.4 N-m anticlockwise
6N
(2) 1.80 N-m clock wise
h a
(3) 2.0 N-m clockwise
b
(4) 5.4 N-m clock wise
i
158. In the spectrum of light of a luminous heavenly body the wavelength of a spectral line is measured to
with respect to the earth will be

a t
be 4747 A while actual wavelength of the line is 4700A. The relative velocity of the heavenly body
(1) 3 105 ms-1 (towards the earth)

(3) 3 106 ms-1 (towards the earth)
p r (2) 3 105 ms-1 (away from the earth)
(4) 3 106 ms-1 (away from the earth)
d u
159. An electron emitted by a heated cathode and accelerated through a potential difference of 2.0 kV, enters
n a
a region with uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. Determine the trajectory of the electron if the field
(a) is transverse to its initial velocity, (b) makes an angle of 30 with the initial velocity.
.e e
(1) (a) Straight line (b) Helix
(3) (a) Helix (b) Helix
(2) (a) Circle (b) Circle
(4) (a) Circle (b) Helix
ww
160. An -particle of 5 MeV energy strikes with a nucleus of uranium (stationary) at an scattering angle of
180. The nearest distance upto which -particle reaches the nucleus will be of the order of
w(1) 1 A (2) 10-10 cm (3) 10-12 cm (4) 10-15 cm

161. By what percentage the energy of a satellite has to be increased to shift it from an orbit of radius r to
3r

2
(1) 15% (2) 33.33% (3) 66.7% (4) 20.3%
162. A particle performs uniform circular motion with an angular momentum L. If the frequency of
particles motion is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, the angular momentum becomes
L L
(1) 2L (2) 4L (3) (4)
2 4
e t
163. A long glass tube is held vertically in water. A tuning fork is struck and held over the tube. Strong
velocity of sound is 340 ms-1 then the frequency of the tuning fork is
. n
resonances are observed at two successive lengths 0.5 m and 0.84 m above the surface of water. If the
(1) 128 Hz (2) 256 Hz (3) 384 Hz
h a
(4) 500 Hz
b
164. A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields. The angle between the field directions
is 60, and one of the fields has a magnitude of 1.2 10-2 T. If the dipole comes to stable equilibrium
i
at
at an angle of 15 with this field, what is the magnitude of the other field?
(1) 4.4 10-3 T (2) 4.4 T (3) 2.2 10-3 T (4) 8 T
p r
165. In a sample, ratio of P31 and P32 is 1 : 2, P31 is stable. But P32 is a radioactive and decay in S32 with
half life T. After how long time ratio of P31 and P32 be equal to 2 : 1
(1) T (2) 2T
d u (3) 4T
T
(4)
2
n a
166. An electromagnetic wave travels along z-axis. Which of the following pairs of space and time
.e
(1) Ez, Bxe
varying fields would generate such a wave?
(2) Ey, Bz (3) Ex, By (4) Ey, Bx
w w
z-axis respectively. Coefficient of cubical expansion of its material will be equal to
e t
167. An anisotropic material has coefficients of linear thermal expansion 1, 2 and 3 along x, y and
w(1) 1 + 2 + 3 (2) 1 + 22 + 33 (3) 31 + 22 + 3

.(4)
3 n
1 + 2 + 3
h a
168. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a
R-5/2, then T2 is proportional to

i b
period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between planet and star is proportional to
(1) R3 (2) R7/2

a t
(3) R5/2 (4) R3/2
p r
169. Figure shows a metal rod PQ resting on the smooth rails B and positioned between the poles of
d u
a permanent magnet. The rails, the rod, and the magnetic field are in three mutual perpendicular
directions. A galvanometer G connects the rails through a switch K. Length of the rod = 15 cm,
n a
B = 0.50 T, resistance of the closed loop containing the rod = 9.0 m. Assume the field to be uniform.
.e e K
P
A
w ww G
Q
B
S
What is the retarding force on the rod when K is closed? (Velocity of rod = 12 cm/sec)
(1) 5 N (2) 75 10-6 N (3) 75 10-3 N (4) 7.5 N
170. Figure represents a graph of kinetic energy (K) of photoelectrons (in eV) and frequency () for a metal
used as cathode is photoelectric experiment. The work function of metal is
K
e t
2
1
. n
0
h a
-1
-2
i b
-3
a t
(1) 1 eV (2) 1.5 eV
p r (3) 2 eV (4) 3 eV
d u
171. A particle of small mass m is joined to a very heavy body by a light string passing over a light pulley.
Both bodies are free to move. The total downward force on the pulley is
(1) >> mg
n a
(2) 4 mg (3) 2 mg (4) mg
e
172. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the same metal from the sides of an
e
isosceles triangle ABC right angled at B. The points A and B are maintained at temperatures T and

.
2 T respectively in the steady state. Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, temperature of
w w
point C will be A
e t
w B C
. n
3T T T
h a T
(1)

2+1
(2)

2+1
(3)

b
3( 2 - 1)
i
(4)

2-1
t
173. A mass M is split into two parts, m and (M-m), which are then separated by a certain distance. What
ra
ratio of m/M maximises the gravitational force between the two parts?
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2
u p 2 5
174. Figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source. L = 5.0 H, C = 80
F, R = 40 .
a d R
e n
.e C
w ww
L
Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating frequency.
(1) 40 , 8.1 A (2) 20 , 8.1 A (3) 60 , 16 A (4) 60 , 4 A
175. The energy band diagrams for three semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown. We can then assert
that
e t
. n
X Y Z
h a
(1) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a third group and a fifth group
impurity respectively.
i b
a t
(2) Sample X is undoped while both samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group impurity.
(3) Sample X has been doped with equal amounts of third and fifth group impurities while samples
Y and Z are undoped.
p r
(4) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group and a third group
impurity respectively.
d u
a
176. A block of mass 5 kg is at rest on a rough inclined plane as shown in figure. The magnitude of net force
exerted by the surface on the block will be (g = 10 m/s2)
n
(1) 25 N
(2) 50
.e e 5k
g
w w
(3) 10 N
(4) 30 N
60
e t
w . n
177. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under three different processes. Process I is isobaric process,
process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let U1, U2 and U3 be the change in internal
energy of the gas in these three processes. Then
h a
P
P0
1
i b
2
a t
3
p r V
(1) U1 > U2 > U3
V0
d u 2V0
(2) U1 < U2 < U3
(3) U2 < U1 < U3
n a (4) U2 < U3 < U1

178. In the Wheatstone bridge shown below, in order to balance the bridge, values of R1 and R2 will be
.e e 10
R1
ww
R2
30

w 9
(1) R1 = 3 ; R2 = 3 (2) R1 = 6 ; R2 = 15
(3) R1 = 1.5 ; R2 = any finite value (4) R1 = 3 ; R2 = any finite value
179. A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 is connected to a 230 V variable
frequency supply. What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum. Obtain this
maximum value.
(1) 663 Hz, 14.1 A
(3) 230 Hz, 14.1 A
(2) 663 Hz, 10 A
(4) 663 Hz, 5 A
e t
180. In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward biased?
+5V
. n
i)
R
ii)
h a
+10V
+5V
i b
a t
iii) -10V
r iv)
up
-12V R
-5V
v) R
a d
e n -10V
w.e
(1) i, ii iii (2) ii, iv, v
ANSWER KEY
(3) i, iii, iv (4) ii, iii, iv
t
w w n e
a .
1-3; 2-2; 3-4; 4-4; 5-2; 6-1; 7-2; 8-1; 9-3; 10-1; 11-3; 12-2; 13-2; 14-4; 15-2; 16-4; 17-1; 18-3; 19-4; 20-4;
21-4; 22-1; 23-3; 24-2; 25-3; 26-2; 27-4; 28-3; 29-4; 30-2; 31-4; 32-2; 33-3; 34-3; 35-2; 36-3; 37-2; 38-4;
b h
39-1; 40-4; 41-2; 42-3; 43-4; 44-4; 45-2; 46-4; 47-4; 48-3; 49-4; 50-1; 51-2; 52-4; 53-4; 54-3; 55-4; 56-3;
57-4; 58-2; 59-4; 60-3; 61-4; 62-4; 63-2; 64-2; 65-1; 66-3; 67-2; 68-2; 69-4; 70-1; 71-2; 72-4; 73-2; 74-2;
75-4; 76-2; 77-2; 78-2; 79-3; 80-2; 81-4; 82-4; 83-3; 84-2; 85-3; 86-1; 87-1; 88-2; 89-1; 90-4; 91-4; 92-2;
t i
93-4; 94-2; 95-4; 96-2; 97-2; 98-4; 99-3; 100-4; 101-2; 102-2; 103-2; 104-4; 105-1; 106-2; 107-2; 108-2;
109-3; 110-4; 111-1; 112-2; 113-2; 114-2; 115-3; 116-1; 117-4; 118-2; 119-2; 120-4; 121-3; 122-3 123-2;
r a
124-4; 125-1; 126-3; 127-4; 128-4; 129-1; 130-1; 131-1; 132-2; 133-3; 134-3; 135-2; 136-2; 137-2; 138-2;
139-3; 140-2; 141-2; 142-4; 143-1; 144-1; 145-4; 146-2; 147-3; 148-2; 149-3; 150-2; 151-3; 152-2; 153-3;
u p
154-2; 155-2; 156-2; 157-2; 158-4; 159-4; 160-3; 161-2; 162-4; 163-4; 164-1; 165-2; 166-3; 167-1; 168-2;
169-3; 170-3; 171-2; 172-1; 173-2; 174-1; 175-4; 176-2; 177-1; 178-4; 179-1; 180-2.
d
(Prepared by Sri Gayatri Educational Institutions, Hyderabad)
a
e n
.e
w ww
NEET MODEL GRAND TEST

No. of Questions: 180 Marks: 720 Time: 3 Hours
PART - A: PHYSICS
e t
1.
. n
An electric charge experience a force 'F' due to a short dipole in its axial position. If the distance of the
charge is halved, then effective force will be
a)
F
b)
F
c)
F
h a
2.
2 8 4
i b d) 8 F
Radius of sphere is measured to be (2.1 0.5) cm. Calculate its surface area with error limits.
a) (50 26.4) cm2
a t
b) (55.4 26.4) cm2
3.
c) (55.4 25.1) cm2
p r d) (50 + 27.4) cm2

How should three charges q, 2q and 8q be arranged on 9 cm long line such that the potential energy of
the system is minimum?
d u
n a
a) q charge should at a distance of 3 cm from 2q charge
b) q charge should at a distance of 5 cm from 2q charge
.e e
c) 2q charge should at a distance of 7 cm from q charge
d) 2q charge should at a distance of 9 cm from q charge
4.
w w e t
A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed 'v' from a height 'h' meters above the ground. The time
wtaken for the ball to hit ground
a)
v

1 2gh
b)

1 + 2gh

. n
c)
g
v
g

v 2
1 + 2gh

v2
v
d)
v2
[ b

g 1 + 1 +
2hg
v2 h] a
5.
t i
A parallel plate capacitor of capacity 5 F and plate separation 6 cm is connected to a 4 volt battery
r a
and is charged. If a dielectric of dielectric constant 4 and thickness 4 cm is introduced into the
capacitor, then additional charge that flows into the capacitor from battery is
6.
a) 20 C b) 10 C
u p c) 5 C
Which of the following statements is true for the planets orbiting around the sun?
d) Zero
a d
a) Their velocity increases when they are nearest to the sun in accordance with the conservation of
e n
angular momentum.
b) Their velocity decreases when they are nearest to the sun in accordance with the conservation of
e
angular momentum.
.
ww
c) Areal velocity of the planet with time to conserve the energy.
d) Areal velocity of the planet is directly proportional to the distance of the planet from the sun.
7.
wIn the circuit shown in figure, each resistance is R. Net resistance between points
A and B is
4 7R
a) R b)
3 2
R 5
c) d) R
2 3
R-20,21,22-7-16
8. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decrease by a factor of:
a) 100 b) 1000 c) 10000 d) 10
9. Potential difference across the terminals of the battery shown in figure is (in volt)
a) 8
e t
b) Zero
c) 4
. n
d) 10
h a
10.
b
The magnitude of displacement of a particle moving in a circle of radius a with constant angular speed
'' varies with time t as:
i
a) 2a sin t
t
b) 2a sin
2
a t
c) 2a cos t
t
d) 2a cos
2
11.
r
A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an angle of 45 with magnetic field.
p
The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is x. The radius of the helix will be
x
a)

b) 2x
d u c)
x

2
d)

2x

12.
2
n a
A large number of bullets are fired in all directions with same speed v. What is the maximum area on
v2
a)
. e
the ground on which these bullets will spread?
e v4
b)
v4
c) 2
v2
d) 2 2
13.
w w
g g2 g2 g
e
The escape velocity from the earth is about 11 km/second. The escape velocity from a planet havingt
w
twice the radius and the same mean density as the earth, is:
a) 22 km/sec b) 11 km/sec c) 5.5 km/sec
. n
d) 15.5 km/sec
14. The value of T1 is
h a
a)
2
kg wt
3
i b
3

b) kg wt
a t
2

c) 2 3 kg wt
p r
d) 2 kg wt
d u
15.
a
A charged particle is released from rest in a region of steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields
en
which are parallel to each other. The particle will moved in a
a) Straight line b) Circle c) Helix d) Cycloid
16.
.e t3
A body of mass 3 kg is displaced by a force. Its displacement s = . Find the work done by the force
ww
3
in first 2 seconds
17. w
a) 2 J b) 3.8 J c) 5.2 J d) 24 J
A material rod, when placed in a strong magnetic field aligns itself at right angles to the magnetic field.
The nature of material is
a) Diamagnetic b) Ferromagnetic
c) Paramagnetic d) Low ferromagnetic
18. Rod of length 'L' and mass 'M' is bent to form a semicircular ring as shown. The moment of inertia
about AB axis is
ML2 ML2
a) b)
22
ML
2
2ML2
e t
c)
22
d)
2
. n
19. The magnetic flux linked with a coil is and emf induced in it is 'e', then
a) If = 0, e must be zero
h a
b) If 0, e must be zero
i b
c) If e 0, may or may not be zero
a t
d) Value of induced emf does not depend on change in flux
20.
p r
For a given lens the magnification was found to be twice as large as when the object was 0.15 m
a) 0.05 m b) 0.10 m u
distant from it as when the distance was 0.2 m. The focal length of the lens is:
d c) 0.15 m d) 0.20 m
21.
a
The average power loss in L C series combination of AC circuit will be
n () E0 I0 L2 E0 I0 I 2
a)
2
. e e
E0 I0 L

C( ) b)
2

C
c)
2

LC( ) d) Zero
(ww)
22. Three rods of same mass are placed as shown. Find coordinate of CM of system
2a 2a
a) , (a a
b) , ) e t
w( )
3
a a
3 3 3
. n
c) ,
2 2
d) (a, a)
h a
23.
i b
The electric potential varies in space according to the relation V = 3x + 4y. A particle of mass 0.1 kg
starts from rest from point (2, 3.2) under the influence of this field. The charge on the particle is
+ 1 C. Assume V and (x, y) are in SI units. The time taken to cross the X-axis is:
a) 20 s b) 40 s
a c) 200 s t d) 400 s
24.
r
A solid sphere is projected on rough horizontal surface with speed v0. The speed of its centre of mass
when it starts pure rolling is
p
2v0
a)
7
a
2v0
b)
6 du 5v0
c)
7
7v0
d)
5
25.
n
The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab, consisting of two materials having
e
coefficients of thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x respectively are T2 and T1
.e (A(T2 T1)K
(T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is
)
ww
f, with f
x
equal to:
w
a) 1
2
1
b)
2
1
5v0 7v0
c) d) 7 5
3 3
26. If an artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has total mechanical energy E0. Its
potential energy is
a) 2 E0 b) 1.5 E0 c) 2 E0 d) E0
27. In a Hydrogen atom, the electron is in nth excited state. It comes down to first excited state by
emitting ten different wavelengths. The value of n is
e t
a) 5 b) 10 c) 3

d) 6
. n
28. ( )
a
Displacement equation in SHM is given as y = 6 sin 100 t + . If mass of body is 1 kg, then its
4
h
maximum kinetic energy is
a) 6 J b) 36 J c) 20 J
i b d) 18 J
29.
a t
N1 atoms of a radioactive element emit N2 beta particles per second. The decay constant of the ele-
-1
ment is (in s )
r
up ( )
N1 N2 N1
a) b) c) N2 log(N1) d) log
N2 N1 N2
30.
d
Bernoulli's theorem is the consequence of
a
en
a) Conservation of mass b) Conservation of energy
c) Conservation of linear momentum d) Conservation of angular momentum
31.
.e
Fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by
w
a) The use of lead shielding
t
w w
b) Passing them through heavy water
n e
c) Elastic collisions with heavy nuclei
d) Applying a strong electric field
a .
32.
b h
There is a hole at the bottom of a cylindrical vessel. Water is filled upto height H and water flows out
t
a) b) 2t c) 4t
t i
in t sec. If water is filled to height 4H, then it will flow out in time
t
d)
33.
4
Which of the following is a correct statement?
r a 2
a) rays are same as cathode rays.
u p
a d
b) rays are high energetic neutrons.
c) particles are singly ionized helium atoms.
e n
d) Protons and neutrons have exactly the same mass.
34.
e
The relation between isothermal elasticity (E) and adiabatic elasticity (E) is ( = Cp/Cv):
.
ww
a) E = E b) E = E c) E = E d) E . E =
35. An equiconvex lens of glass (g = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm is silvered on one side. It will behave like
w
a
a) Convex mirror of focal length 10 cm
b) Concave mirror of focal length 2.5 cm
c) Concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
d) Convex mirror of focal length 7.5 cm
36. A refrigerator with coefficient of performance 1/3 releases 200 J of heat to a hot reservoir, then the work
done on the working substance is:
100 200
a) Joule b) 100 Joule c) Joule d) 150 Joule
37.
3 3
e
Electronic configuration of germanium is 2, 8, 18 and 4. To make it extrinsic semiconductor small t
quantity of antimony is added:
. n
a) The material obtained will be N-type germanium in which electrons and holes are equal in number.
b) The material obtained will be P-type germanium.
h a
temperature.
i b
c) The material obtained will be N-type germanium which has more electrons than holes at room
temperature.
a t
d) The material obtained will be N-type germanium which has less electrons than holes at room
38.
p r
If a body cools down from 80C to 60C in 10 minutes when the temperature of surrounding is 30C.
a) 50C b) 10C
d u
Then the temperature of body after next 10 minutes will be
c) 48C
15
d) C
39.
n a
The main cause of zener breakdown is
2
e e
a) Low doping
.
b) Avalanche of electrons
w w
c) Production of electron hole pairs due to field emission
e t
40. w
d) Collision of electrons
. n
In a spring - mass system, the length of the spring is 'L' and spring constant 'k' and it has a mass 'M'
h a
attached to it and oscillates with an angular frequency . The spring is then cut into two parts, one
(a) with relaxed length L and the other (b) with relaxed length (1 ) L. The force constants of the
two springs A and B are:
i b
k
1
k
a) and

k
b) and

k
1
a t
c) k, (1 )k d) k and k
41.
r
The image of point P when viewed from top of the slabs will be

p
d u
= 1.5 3 cm

n a 8.0 cm

= 1.5 6 cm
.e e .

10.0 cm

ww
P
42. w
a) 2.0 cm above P b) 4.0 cm above P c) 3.0 cm above P d) 1.0 cm below P
The temperature at which the speed of sound in air becomes double of its value at 27C is
a) 327C b) 127C c) 927C d) 123C

43. The deviation produced by a prism of angle 4 and refractive index of material 2 is
a) 2.210 b) 0.627 c) 1.414 d) 1.656
44. A string is hanging from rigid support. A transverse wave pulse is setup at the free end. The velocity of
the pulse related to distance covered by it is
1 1
a) v x b) v x c) v d) v 2
45.
x x
e t
Two light waves having displacement y1 = 18 sin (t kx) and y2 = 9 sin (t kx + ) interfere. The
ratio of maximum to the minimum intensity of light in the interference pattern is
a) 9 : 1 b) 3 : 1 c) 2 : 1
. n
d) 81 : 1
PART - B: CHEMISTRY
h a
46.
i b
In the following figure the Cr O Cr bond angle is of X. What is the exact value of X?
a t
p r
a) 126 b) 136
d u c) 116 d) 106
47.
a) N a
Which of the following element has the +ve electron gain enthalpy?
nb) Mg c) He d) All of these

48.
e e
The relative lowering of the vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing a nonvolatile solute is
.
0.0125. The molality of the solution is
w w
a) 0.70 b) 0.50 c) 0.80 d) 0.40
e t
49.
w
Which of the following is incorrect regarding H-bonding?
a) Intramolecular H-bonding gives more stability than intermolecular H-bond.
. n
b) In the absence of H-bonding boiling point of water should be very slow.
h a
c) Strongest H-bond is found in KHCl2.
d) H-bond of NH3 can exist in liquid state.
i b
50.
t
Which of the following properties are same for hcp and ccp lattice?
a
a) Number of atoms per unit cell
b) Coordination number
p r
c) Packing fraction
d u
51.
d) both (b) and (c)
n a
Which of the following is correct regarding quantum mechanical model of atom?
.e e
a) Schrodinger equation can be written only for those system, whose energy does not change with time.
b) Out of four quantum numbers only three are derived from Schrodinger equation.
52.
ww
c) It is based on Heisenberg uncertainty principle and wave nature of electron.
w
d) All of these
Nickel crystallizes in a fcc unit cell with a cell edge length of 0.3524 nm. The radius of the nickel atoms
a) 0.1824 nm b) 0.1246 nm
c) 0.2164 nm d) 0.426 nm
53. The reaction of anisole with HI gives phenol rather than iodobenzene because
a) the bond between O CH3 is weaker than O C6H5
b) the carbon of phenyl group is sp2 hybridised and has a partial double bond character
c) Both (a) and (b)
e t
54.
d) None of the above
Peptization involves
. n
a) Precipitation of colloidal particles
h a
b) Disintegration of precipitate particles
c) Evaporation of dispersion medium
i b
t
d) Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
a
55. Equilibrium constant of a reversible reaction
p
a) Tells about the maximum yield of product r
u
b) Tells about the time taken to complete the reaction
d
d) both (a) and (c)
n a
c) Tells about the relative thermodynamic stability of product and reactant
56.
.
a) Na2SO4
e
The maximum power of coagulating Arsenious sol is, shown by
e b) Na3PO4 c) AlCl3 d) Mg(NO3)2

57.
w w
Solubility of an electrolyte does not depend on
e t
w
i) Temperature
iii) Nature of solvent
ii) Nature of electrolyte
iv) Presence of common ion
. n
a) (ii) & (iii) b) (iv) only
h a
58.
c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
The rate law for the reaction
i b
d) It depends on all these factors
2 H2(g) + 2 NO(g) N2(g) + 2 H2O(g) is rate = K[H2][NO]2
a t
1
a)
r
If volume of reactant becomes double by adding water then rate changes by a factor of
p 1
d)
8
b) 8
d u c) 4
4
59.
H2 + I2
n 2 HI will be a
If at equilibrium HI dissociates 50% then equilibrium constant of the reaction
1
a)
4
.e e b) 4
1
c)
2
d) 2
ww
60. In an exothermic reaction X Y, the activation energy is 100 kJ mol1 of X. The enthalpy of the
reaction is 140 kJ mol1. The activation energy of the reverse reaction Y Z is
61.
w
a) 40 kJ mol
1

b) 340 kJ mol
1
c) 240 kJ mol
1
In the ring test for NO3 ion, a brown ring is formed due to the formation of
d) 100 kJ mol
1
a) FeSO4 . NO2 b) FeSO4 .HNO3

c) [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+ d) [Fe(H2O)4 (NO)2]2+
62. On heating, which of the following nitrates gives O2 under normal condition?
a) NH4NO3 b) NH4NO2 c) NaNO3 d) All of these
63. Which of the following reaction is not possible according to electrode potential?

a) 2 Ag2O 4 Ag + O2

b) 2 Ag + Cu+2 2 Ag+ + Cu
e t

c) Cu + 2 H2SO4 SO2 + CuSO4 + 2 H2O d) Na2O No reaction
. n
64.
(conc.)
h a
In thiosulphuric acid (H2S2O3), the two sulphur atoms have the oxidation states
a) +2 and 2 b) +4 and 2 c) +6 and 2
i b d) +4 and +2
65. Which is correct?
a) For H2, He, Z > 1
a t
b) aH < aCl
2 2
p r
d) All of these
2
d u
c) TC(NH ) > TC(H ) (where TC = Critical temperature)
3
66.
a
Fluorine reacts with water to produce
n
.e
2 e
a) HF and H2O2
c) F, O and H+
b) HF, O2 and F2O2
d) F2O and F2O2
If bond energy of N N, H H, and N H bond is x, y and z cal mol1 respectively then
67.
w w
N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3
e t
w
a) Hr = 6z (x + 3y) (
x + 3y
b) Hf(NH ) =
2 ) 3z
. n
c) Hf(NH ) = 6z + (x + 3y)
3
3
d) Both (a) and (b)
h a
68. On the basis of information given below mark the correct option.
Information:
i b
nearly same as A B type interactions.
a t
A) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture intermolecular interactions of A A and B B type are
p r
B) In ethanol and acetone mixture A A or B B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than
A B type interactions.
d u
C) In chloroform and acetone mixture A A or B B type intermolecular interactions are weaker than
A B type interactions.
n a
e e
a) Solution (B) and (C) will follow Raoult's law.
b) Solution (A) will follow Raoult's law.
.
ww
c) Solution (B) will show negative deviation from Raoult's law.
d) Solution (C) will show positive deviation from Raoult's law.
69.
w
Which of the following should be most volatile?
CH3CH2
I. CH3CH2CH2NH2 II. (CH3)3N III. NH IV. CH3CH2CH3
CH3
Choose the correct option.
a) II b) IV c) I d) III
70. Which of the following is expected to be colourless?
a) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ b) [Ti(NO3)4]

c) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ d) [Fe(CN)6]3
71. Correct sequence of ionization enthalpy of group 13 element is
e t
a) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
c) B > Ga > Al > Tl > In
b) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl
d) B > In > Gn > Al >Tl
. n
72.
a
Which of the following pairs of structures represents facial and meridional isomers respectively?
h
NH3
Cl
Cl NH3
Cl
i b Cl
a)
NH3
Co
Cl
and
NH3
a t Co
Cl
NH3
r Cl
up
Cl Cl
NH3 Cl NH3 Cl
b)
NH3
Co
a d and
NH3
Co
Cl
e n Cl
Cl
NH3
NH3
Cl
c)
w.e
NH3
Co
NH3
and
NH3
Co
Cl
t
w w
NH3
Cl
Cl NH3
Cl
NH3
n e
d)
NH3
Cl
NH3 Cl
NH3
Cl
a .
Cl
Co
Cl
and
NH3
Co
b h
NH3 Cl
t i
NH3
73. Which of the following forms sesquioxides mainly?

a) Group 1
r a b) Group 2
c) Group 13
u p d) Group 14
74.
d
Catalytic activity of transition metal is due to
a) High malleability
a
n
b) High ductility
e
.e
c) Variable oxidation state
d) High charge/mass
75.
w ww
Which is incorrect regarding C60?
a) All the Cl are in sp2 state
b) They are aromatic
c) There are 12 five membered and 20 six membered ring
d) It has 60 vertices
76. Most reactive aryl halide towards nucleophilic substitution reaction
Br F Cl I
a) b) c) d)
e t
77.
n
In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a 0.01 M MgCl2
solution is ................
.
78.
a) the same b) about twice c) about three times
h ad) about six times

According to Arrhenius equation, rate constant k is equal to AEa/RT. Which of the following options
1
represents the graph of ln k vs ?
T
i b
a)
a t
b)
p r
d u
c)
n a d)
.e e
79.
w
Methyl carbanion is isostructural with
w e t
80. w
a) BCl3 b) CHCl3
Thermoplastic polymers are those
c) NH3
. n
d) All of these
a) That becomes soft on heating
h a
b) That possess intermolecular forces stronger than elastomeres
c) That possess intermolecular forces weaker than fibres
i b
d) All of these
a t
81.
r
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
p
a)
d u
n a
(+E Effect)
b)
.e e
w
c)
ww ( - p conjugation)
(n - p Conjugation)
d) (+R effect)
82. The number of HIO4 molecules required to react with one molecule of glucose is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 4 d) 3
83. Kjeldahl method cannot be used for
a) Pyridine b) Nitro-group c) Azo-group d) All of these
e t
84.
PCl3
The final product obtained in the reaction sequence is CH3CH2COOH I II
.
AlCl3 n C6H6
NH2NH2
III
basic, heat
h a
a) CH2CH2CH3
i b
a t
b) CH - CH2 - CH3
p r
OH
O
d u
c)
n a
C - OCH2CH3
d)
.e e O
C - CH2CH3
w w e t
85.
w
What are components of photochemical smog?
a) PAN b) HCHO c) Ozone
. n
d) All of these
86. Arrange the following in order of decreasing acidic strength
h a
I) p-nitrophenol
II) p-cresol
i b
III) m-cresol
a t
IV) phenol
a) I > IV > III > II
p r b) IV > III > II > I
c) I > III > I I > IV
aH
+ du
KMnO4 / H
+
d) III > II > I > IV
87.
e n
+ CH3 CH = CH2 A B then B will be
.e
ww
COOH CH2COOH CHO
a) b) c) d)
88.
w
The reducing agent used in the Stephen reduction is
a) Sn/HCl b) Zn/HCl
c) SnCl2/HCl d) Na Hg/Alcohol
89. IUPAC name of the compound
CH2 COOH

CH COOH

CH2 COOH
e t
a) Propane 1, 2, 3 - tricarboxylic acid
. n
b) 2 - carboxy, pentane 1, 5 - dioic acid
h a
c) 2 - Keto, pentane 1, 5 - dioic acid
d) 2 - Carboxy, propane 1, 3 - dicarboxylic acid
i b
90.
NH3 NaOH Br2/KOH HCl
Phthalic acid A B C D E
a t
In this reaction, the product E is
H2O
p r
a) o-nitrobenzoic acid
b) Salicyclic acid
d u
c) Anthranilic acid
n a
.e e
d) Crotonic acid
PART - C : BIOLOGY
91.
w w
Match the Column - I and Column - II
e t
w
Column - I
(Vitamins)
Column - II
(Deficiency disease)
. n
A) B1 i) Scurvy
h a
B) B12
C) C
ii) Nyctalopia
iii) Beri beri
i b
D) A
a
iv) Pernicious Anaemia
t
a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
p r b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
92.
d u
Which component of bile is useful in digestion of fat?
a) Sodium glycholate
a b) Sodium taurocholate
en
c) HCO 3 d) Both (a) and (b)
93.
.e
In humans, sphincter of oddi is associated with opening of following
a) Glottis b) Cardiac stomach
94.
w ww
c) Ampulla of vater d) Common hepatic duct
Absorption of water, simple sugar and alcohol etc take place in
a) Mouth b) Oesophagus c) Colon d) Stomach
95. The human teeth are
a) Heterodont b) Diphyodont
c) Thecodont d) All of these
96. The structure that covers the opening of internal nasal pores during ingestion of food is
a) Vulva b) Uvula
c) Velum palati d) Both (b) and (c)
97. The myenteric plexus are present between ................ and ..........., & it controls .............
e t
a) Mucosa, submucosa, peristalsis
b) Serosa, circular muscle, secretion
. n
c) Longitudinal muscles, circular muscles, peristalsis
h a
98.
d) Circular muscles, submucosa, secretion
Ciliated epithelium in human body is present in
i b
a) Stomach and kidney
a t
b) Trachea and alveoli
c) Fallopian tube and cavity of brain
p r
d) Stomach and urinary bladder
d u
99.
a
Blood is false connective tissue because
a) Fibres are absent
n
.e e
b) Cells do not divide
c) Matrix is not secreted by cells
w w
d) All of these
e t
w
100. Which of the following is an example of dense connective tissue?
A. Ligament B. Tendon
. n
C. Adipose tissue D. Areolar tissue
h a
a) A and B b) A and C c) A and D
i b d) B and D
101. Read the following statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only
A. Adipose tissue store fats
a t
B. Ligament joins bone to bone
C. Tendon joins muscle to skin
p r
d u
D. Haversian system is absent in the femur of frog
Options:
n
a) Statements B, C and D a
e e
b) Statements A, B and D
.
c) Statements C and D
w ww
d) Statements A and D only
102. In the following brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is present
a) Intestine b) PCT c) Stomach d) Gall bladder
103. Junction which facilitates exchange of small and big molecules transportation is
a) Tight junction b) Interdigitation
c) Desmosomes d) Gap junction
104. Match the following correctly.
i. Simple Tubular Gland A. Sebaceous gland
ii. Compound Saccular glands B. Parotid glands
iii. Heterocrine gland C. Crypts of lieberkuhn
e t
iv. Compound tubular alveolar glands
a) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
D. Pancreas
. n
b) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
h a
c) i-A, ii-C, iii-D, iv-B
d) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
i b
a t
105. In some animals, the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Instead, the mesoderm is present as
scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called
r
up
a) Acoelom b) Schizocoelom
c) Pseudocoelom d) Enterocoelom
d
106. Find out correct match from the following table.
a
en
Column - I Column - II Column - III
i. Secretory cells secrete Apocrine Sebaceous gland
.e
substance by simple diffusion
w
ii. Secretory products are Merocrine Mammary gland
t
w w
collected in apical part of
n e
secretory cell
iii. Secretion is shed with cell Holocrine
a
Zeis gland .
destruction
b h
a) i only
c) iii only
t i
b) i and iii
d) ii and iii
r a
107. Read the following statements (A-D) regard porifera. Select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
u p
A. They are generally marine and symmetrical animals.
a d
B. They are primitive multicellular animals and have tissue level of organisation.
C. Central cavity is called spongocoel.
e n
D. They are hermaphrodite.
e
Options:
.
ww
a) Statements A and B
b) Statements B and C
wc) Statements C and D

d) Statements A and D
108. Consider the following diagram.
e t
. n
h a
a) Comb jellies, Fresh H2O, Bilateral symmetrical, Diploblastic
i b
It is commonly known as ..........., are exclusively ............., ............., ........... organisms.
b) Sea walnuts, Marine, Radially symmetrical, Diploblastic
a t
p r
c) Comb jelly, Terrestrial, Radially symmetrical, Triploblastic
d) Sea walnuts, Marine, Bilateral symmetrical, Triploblastic
109. Match the following.
d u
i. Nereis
ii. Ascaris
n a A. Muscular pharynx
B. Radula
.
iv. Pila
e e
iii. Cockroach C. Parapodia
D. Malpighian tubule
w w
a) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
e t
wb) i-A, ii-C, iii-D, iv-B
c) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
. n
d) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
h a
110. Identify the correct match from the Column I, II, and III.
i b
I. Exocoetus A. Amphibia
a t
i. Circular mouth
II. Rana
III. Petomyzon
B. Aves
C. Osteichtnyes
p r
ii. Air bladder
iii. Tympanum
IV. Columba D. Cyclostomata
a
a) I-C-ii, II-A-iii, III-B-i, IV-D-iv du iv. Air sacs
n
b) I-A-ii, II-C-iii, III-D-i, IV-B-iv
e
.e
c) I-C-ii, II-A-iii, III-D-i, IV-B-iv
d) I-C-iii, II-A-ii, III-D-iv, IV-B-i
w ww
111. Axial skeleton comprises of 80 bones, it includes
a) Skull, vertebral, sternum, femur
b) Pectoral girdle, skull, sternum, pelvic girdle
c) Skull, vertebral column, sternum, ribs
d) Femur, humerus, radius, tibia
112. Match the following.
i. Skull bones A. Gliding joint
ii. Adjacent vertebrae B. Fibrous joint
iii. Between atlas and axis C. Cartilaginous joints
e t
iv. Between the the carpals
a) i-C, ii-B, iii-D, iv-A
D. Pivot joint
b) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A
. n
c) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C d) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D
h a
a) Osteomalacia
i
b) Osteoarthritisb
113. Age related disorder characterised by decreased bond mass and increased chances of fractures is
c) Osteoporosis
a t
d) Gout
r
114. The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the 7th rib with
up
the help of
a) Hayline cartilage b) Elastin cartilage
c) Calcified cartilage
a d d) Fibrous cartilage
en
115. Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of following
a) Ischium, Pubis, Sacrum b) Ischium, Pelvis, Pubis
w.e
c) Ilium, Ischium, Pubis d) Ilium, Ischium, Sacrum
t
116. The interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres, which are seen as
w w
...... during cell division.
a) Chromatin b) Chromosome
n e
c) Nucleosome d) Solenoid
a .
b h
117. (I) The Interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres called chromosome.
(II) Perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the
nucleolus.
t i
r a
(III) Always there is only one nucleolus per cell.
(IV) The nucleoli are spherical structures present in the cytoplasm.
p
(V) Larger and Less numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis.
u
a d
(VI) Chromatin contains DNA and some acidic proteins called histone.
How many above statements are not true for Nucleus?
called:
e n
118. Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction on the sides of which disc shaped structures
.e
a) Kinetochore b) Centromere
w ww
c) Telomere
119. A = Binding DNA + B + C + H1 Histon
a) A = Nucleosome, B = Octamer, C = Linker DNA
d) Satellite
b) A = Chromatid, B = Octamer, C = Linker Protein

c) A = Chromosome, B = Centromere, C = Linker DNA
d) A = Centromere, B = Kinetochore, C = Linker Protein
120.
e t
. n
a
a)
A
Perinuclear
B
Nucleolus
C
Euchromatin
i bh
D
Heterochromatin
E
Karyotheca
space
a t
b) Karyotheca Nucleolus
r
Euchromatin
p
Heterochromatin Perinuclear
space
c) Karyotheca Nucleolus
d u
Heterochromatin Euchromatin Perinuclear
d) Karyotheca
n a
False Heterochromatin Euchromatin
space
Perinuclear
121.
.e e Nucleolus space
w w e t
w . n
h a
Choose the correct answer for given diagram:
i b
a) A has negative charge
a t
b) B is Linker DNA
c) C - form by five types of Histone
p r
d) A is a sealing Protein
d u
n a
122. DNA, RNA, Protein, Kinetochore, Centromere, Centriole, Polyamine, N2 - Base. How many
components mentioned above are non related to Chromatide?
a) 3
.e e b) 2 c) 4
123. Karyotype can be studied in which phase of cell division:
d) 5
ww
a) Prophase b) Anaphase
wc) Metaphase d) S - phase

124. Which of the following is not a type of transmembrane protein but attached with transmembrane
protein:
a) Porins b) Tunnel Protein
c) Pump Protein c) Spectrin
125. (A) Transport of substances
(B) Synthesis of proteins
(C) Lipoproteins synthesis
(D) Glycogen synthesis
e t
(E) Glycolipid synthesis
(F) Helpful for lysosome formation
. n
(G) Glycoprotein synthesis
Choose the correct option for the function of ER:
h a
a) A, B, C, E, F b) B, C, D, F, G
i
c) A, C, E, F
b d) A, B, C, D, F
126. Which one is membrane bound structure?
a) Nucleolus b) Cilia
a t
c) Centrosome d) Ribosome
p r
127. ........ contain genetic information and ........ to form constant number of ........ during cell division.
Choose the correct option for blanks.
d u
a) Chromatin fibers; condensed; chromosomes
n a
b) Chromosome; condensed; chromatid
e e
c) Chromatin fibers; decondensed; chromosome
d) Chromosome; decondensed; chromatin fibers
.
w
128. Photorespiration not present in which one cell organelle?
w
a) Mitochondria b) Peroxisome c) Chloroplast
e
d) Glyoxisomet
w
129. Which cell organelle contains the enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis and protein synthesis:
. n
a) Ribosome
c) Matrix of chloroplast d) Lysosome
h a
b) Matrix of mitochondria
130. Major site of synthesis of lipid in cell ......
i b
a) Golgibody b) RER
131. Which one of the statements is correct for chromosome?
a
c) SER
t d) Nucleus
a) It is highly condense form of chromatin.
p r
d u
b) It is seen in Interphase of cell division.
c) It is decondensed in metaphase of cell division.
n a
d) In metaphase the chromosome has one chromatid.
132. Chlorophyll pigments are present in:
e
a) Stroma
. e b) Thylakoid lumen
ww
c) Thylakoid membrane d) Cells membrane
133. (A) Cell growth (B) Formation of inter cellular junctions
w(C) Secretion
(E) Cell division
(G) Exocytosis
(D) Endocytosis
(F) Cell wall formation
How many functions mentioned above are completed by cell membrane:

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 7
134. Amyloplast, Elaioplast and Aleurplasts stored food respectively:
a) Starch, Fat, Protein b) Starch, Protein, Fat
c) Fat, Starch, Protein d) Protein, Starch, Fat
135. Which one is incorrect for Nucleus?
e t
a) Nucleus contains nucleoli and chromatin network.
b) Only control the activities of organelles.
. n
c) Plays a major role in heredity.
h a
d) Nuclear membrane form by RER in telophase.
i b
136. Sertoli cells are found in seminiferous tubules, about which all statements are correct, except one:
a t
a) They are long elongated and pyramidal cells attached to basement membrane of the tubules.
b) Their apices carry depressions in which spermatozoa remain embedded till spermiation.
c) They function in response to FSH.
p r
d u
d) They undergo division to form 4 - 8 layers of spermatogenic cells.
137. Select incorrect matching of protozoan and the disease caused by it:
a
a) Babesia Tick fever in cattle
n
e e
b) Trichomonas Leucorrhoea
c) Trypanosoma Sleeping sickness
.
w w
d) Eimeria Pebrine in silk worms
138. Gonads are usually ectodermal in origin and sex cells discharged externally in:
e t
wa) Hydrozoa b) Scyphozoa
. n
c) Anthozoa
139. Process of parturition is an example of: a
d) Both Scyphozoa and Anthozoa
h
a) Reflex action
i b
b) Neuroendocrine process
c) Sympathetic response
a t
d) Hormonal mechanism
140. Pristis can be identified as a cartilaginous fish, as it does not possess:
a) Ability to regulate body temperature
p r
b) Ability to swim continuously
c) Homocercal tail
d u
d) Placoid scales over its body
n a
e e
141. Separation of eyelids and formation of eyelashes occurs by the end of:
a) Nine months of pregnancy
.
ww
b) 12 weeks of pregnancy
c) 24 weeks of pregnancy
wd) Fifth month

142. When under certain conditions, the P50 value of haemoglobin rises, the affinity of the pigment of
combing with O2 will?
a) Remain same b) Fall
c) Rises d) First rises than fall
143. Methods of contraception that work only on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperm
meeting are:
a) IUDS
b) Oral contraceptives
c) Natural methods
e t
d) Implants
. n
144. Mark the statement that is incorrect for epithelial tissue:
h
a) Ciliated epithelium allows movement of material in a particular direction. a
i b
b) Adhering junctions in epithelium allow tight cementing of membranes of cells.
a t
c) Neurosensory epithelium converts electrical stimuli to chemical or mechanical stimuli.
d) Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium lines buccal cavity.
p r
145. Infertility due to impotency of male partner of due to very low sperm count in the ejaculate, could be
supplemented by:
a) GlFT b) Al
d u c) lUT d) ZlFT
a
146. Red muscles are characterised by:
n
e e
a) Presence of very little quantity of myoglobin
b) Highly extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum
.
w w
c) Fatigue resistance
d) Very high number of mitochondria
e t
w
147. Read the following four statements (A-D):
. n
h a
(A) Energy 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
(B) Energy 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers about 50 ml of O2 to the tissues.
b
(C) Nearly 20-25% of CO2 is transported by blood plasma as bicarbonate.
i
(D) About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC in the blood.
How many of the above statements are wrong?
a t
a) Four b) Three
p r c) Two d) One
Respiratory capacity u
148. Which respiratory capacity is correctly matched with its formula and value?
d Formula Value
a
a) Functional residual capacity TV + ERV 2100 ml
.e
c) Vital capacity en
b) Total lungs capacity VC + RV
TV + RV
5800 ml
4600 ml
ww
d) Inspiratory capacity TV + IRV 2500 ml
149. Emergency contraception can be provided to a patient of sexual assault through:
wa) Tubectomy
b) Oestrogen progesterone combination
c) Insertion of spermicidal chemicals in blood
d) Gossypol
150. Identify the structure of molecule that provides stability to cell membranes:
H

a) NH2 CH COOH
O
e t
b) CH2 O C R

. n
O

h a
CH O C R
O

i b
CH2 O P O(CH2)2 N+ (CH3)3

a t
OH
p r
CH2OH CH2OH
d u
c) H
O
OH
n a
.e e H OH
w w OH H
e t
w O
. n
d)
HN
C C - CH3
h a
O C
N CH
i b
H
a t
151. Which of the following factors favours the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin?
(A) PO2, PCO2, Temp
(B) PO2, PCO2, Temp
p r
+
(C) PO2, PCO2, H conc.
d u
+
(D) PO2, PCO2, H conc.
a
en
a) A and B b) A and C
.e
c) B and C d) B and D
ww
152. Enzyme mediated reactions that are inhibited by inhibitors that have gross resemblance with normal
substrate:
wa) Show disobeyance of Km value of reaction

b) Show destruction of tertiary structure of enzyme on inhibition
c) Show linking of inhibitors with active site of enzyme
d) Show fall in Vmax
153. During normal expiration, the contraction of following muscles take place:
a) EICM b) IICM c) Diaphragm d) None of these
154. Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III:
e t
I) DUP
II) LUB
A) 5 L/min
B) 2nd Heart Sound
i) Closening of AV valves
. n
ii) Volume of blood pumped out by each
h
ventricle per minute
a
III) Stroke C) 70 ml
b
iii) During cardiac cycle blood pump out by
i
each ventricle
IV) Cardiac output D) 1st Heart sound
a t
iv) Closening of semilunar valves
a) I-B-iv, II-D-i, III-C-ii, IV-A-iii
p r
b) II-D-i, I-B-iv, IV-A-ii, III-C-iii
c) II-D-i, I-B-iv, III-C-ii, IV-A-iii
d u
n a
d) I-D-iv, II-B-i, III-A-iii, IV-C-ii
e
155. The black melanic form of peppered moth must have arose due to:
e
a) Recurring random mutation
. b) Industrial revolution
w w
c) Disappearance of grey form
156. Ductus botelli connects:
d) Predation pressure
e t
wa) Systemic and carotid
. n
b) Two systemic arch
c) Pulmonary artery and systemic arch
h a
d) Carotid and pulmonary artery
i b
a) Wheezing and difficult expiration
a t
157. A violent, sudden super hypersensitive immune response to an allergen leads to:
b) Dilation of arteries / anaphylactic shock

p r
d) Eczema
d u
c) Hypersecretion of mucus membrane of nose
n a
158. The mushroom gland in cockroach is:
.e e
a) Located between 2nd to 6th segment
b) Known for performing accessory excretion
ww
c) Responsible for furnishing oothecal material
wd) Known for harbouring symbiotic micro organisms

159. A tetanus toxoid vaccine given to a pregnant female will provide .......... immunity to mother and ...........
immunity to foetus.
a) passive, passive b) active, active
c) active, passive d) passive, active
160. In small intestine carrier mediated facilitated diffusion of amino acids becomes possible with the help
of:

a) Na+ b) Cl c) K+ d) HCO3
161. A drug commonly called crack that has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system
producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy is:
e t
a) Opium b) Cocaine
. n
c) Mescaline
162. Read the following four statements.
d) Benzodiazepines
h a
b
(A) The cardiac output of a person varies according to his physiological demand.
i
ventricle.
a t
(B) Stroke volume of heart is almost equal to the amount of blood transferred from left auricle to left
p r
(C) Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in the systemic aorta in one beat.
(D) End diastolic volume of auricles is about 120 ml.
d u
How many of the above statements are wrong?
a) Four
n a
b) Three c) Two d) One
163. A patient shows symptoms of internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and blockage of the
. e
intestinal passage. It seems that the patient must be suffering from:
e
a) Typhoid b) Amoebiasis
w w
c) Malaria d) Ascariasis
e t
w
164. Excretory structure present in crustacean is:
a) Green gland b) Antennary gland
. n
c) Neural gland d) Both a and b
h a 1
165. Osmolarity increase towards the inner medulla interstitism i.e., from 300 m osml L in the cortex to
1
b
about 1200 m osml L in the inner medulla. This gradient is maintain by following:
i
a) NaCl
c) Glucose
a
b) Urea
t
d) Both a and b
p r
166. Opening of bile duct in duct of wirsung is guarded by:
a) Sphincter of oddi
c) Pyloric sphincter
d u b) Sphincter of boyden
d) Myenteric plexus
a
en
167. Breeds of cattle that produce good working bullocks are known as:
a) Milch breeds b) Drought breeds
.e
c) General utility breeds d) Dual purpose breeds
ww
168. Which of the following cartilage lies below thyroid cartilage in larynx?
wa) Corniculate
c) Cricoid
169. Sublingual gland is associated with:
b) Cuneiform
d) Arytenoid
a) Stensen's duct b) Bartholin duct

c) Rivinus duct d) Both b and c
170. Choose the correct match.
a) Marginal artery - Diaphragm
b) Effective filling ensures effective emptying - Starling's law
c) Joint diastole - 30% filling of ventricles
e t
d) Rheumatic heart disease - Congenital disorder
171. One amongst the following is not a fresh water fish reared in lndia:
. n
a) Catla b) Rohu c) Salmon
h a
d) Malli
172. Maximum reabsorption of substances in PCT is determined by:
a) Availability of mitochondria in brush border cells
i b
b) Their threshold limit
a t
c) Their concentration in glomerular filtrate
d) Rate of filtration in PCT
p r
u
173. Basic steps in genetic modification of an organism include all the following, except one:
d
n a
a) Identification of DNA with desirable genes
b) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
.e e
c) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny
d) Assessment of the ability of vector to tolerate toxins in the environment
w w
174. Small amounts of glucose and amino acid are absorbed by following.
e t
wa) Simple diffusion
c) Exosmosis
b) Facilitated diffusion
d) Both a and b
. n
175. Coracoid process is characteristic of:
h a
a) Ulna b) Humerus
176. Identify the correctly matched pair.
c) Scapula
i b d) Fibula
a) Bacillus thuringiensis
a
- RNA interference gene
t
b) Cosmid
c) Sa ll
p r
- Carries 300 - 350 kbp length of DNA
- Restriction endonuclease
d) Molecular glue
d u
- Alkaline phosphatase
n a
177. Identify the pallindromic sequence recognised by Hae lll:

.e e
a) 5 G G C C 3
3 C C G G 5
b) 5 C C C G G G 3
3 G G G C C C 5
w ww

c) 5 C G A T C G 3

d) 5 A G C T 3
3 G C T A G C 5 3 T C G A 5

178. Aqueduct of sylvius is found between:
a) Third and fourth ventricle
b) Lateral ventricles
c) Paracoel and diocoel
e t
d) Rhinocoel and paracoel
. n
179. At a crime site one hair was recovered along with hair follicle, believed to be belonging to the suspect
to achieve the objective is:

h a
of crime. For matching the DNA contained in the sample, a chain of suspects is present. The best way
a) By hybridising the DNA with a DNA prode
i b
b) By subjecting the DNA to polymerase chain reaction
c) By subjecting the DNA to gel electrophoresis
a t
d) By treating the DNA with restriction endonuclease
p r
a) Relaxation of urinary bladder
d u
180. Which of the following is correct statement w.r.t. adrenaline function?
b) Erection of hair
n a
e e
c) Dilation of visceral smooth muscle capillaries
d) Constriction of pupils
.
w w KEY
1-d; 2-b; 3-a; 4-d; 5-a; 6-a; 7-c; 8-a; 9-b; 10-b; 11-a; 12-b; 13-a; 14-c; 15-a; 16-d; 17-a; 18-a; 19-c; 20-b;
e t
w
21-d; 22-c; 23-d; 24-c; 25-d; 26-c; 27-a; 28-d; 29-b; 30-b; 31-b; 32-b; 33-a; 34-b; 35-b; 36-d; 37-c; 38-c;
.
39-c; 40-b; 41-c; 42-c; 43-d; 44-a; 45-a; 46-a; 47-d; 48-a; 49-c; 50-d; 51-d; 52-b; 53-c; 54-b; 55-d; 56-c; n
h a
57-d; 58-a; 59-b; 60-c; 61-c; 62-c; 63-b; 64-c; 65-d; 66-c; 67-b; 68-b; 69-b; 70-b; 71-a; 72-a; 73-c; 74-c;
75-c; 76-b; 77-c; 78-a; 79-c; 80-d; 81-a; 82-a; 83-d; 84-a; 85-d; 86-a; 87-b; 88-c; 89-a; 90-c; 91-c; 92-d;
i b
93-c; 94-d; 95-d; 96-d; 97-c; 98-c; 99-d; 100-a; 101-b; 102-b; 103-d; 104-b; 105-c; 106-c; 107-c; 108-b;
109-a; 110-c; 111-c; 112-b; 113-c; 114-a; 115-c; 116-b; 117-d; 118-a; 119-a; 120-c; 121-a; 122-b; 123-c;
a t
124-d; 125-d; 126-b; 127-a; 128-d; 129-c; 130-c; 131-a; 132-c; 133-d; 134-a; 135-b; 136-d; 137-d; 138-a;
139-b; 140-c; 141-c; 142-b; 143-c; 144-c; 145-b; 146-d; 147-c; 148-b; 149-b; 150-b; 151-d; 152-c; 153-d;
p r
154-b; 155-a; 156-c; 157-b; 158-b; 159-c; 160-a; 161-b; 162-d; 163-d; 164-d; 165-d; 166-b; 167-b; 168-c;
169-d; 170-b; 171-c; 172-b; 173-d; 174-a; 175-c; 176-c; 177-a; 178-a; 179-b; 180-b.
d u (--vQ --vA -N-un- -C- -E-- -v-o -v-Eo --C-.)
n a
.e e
w ww
NEET
.
Model Grand Test 2017
Instructions :
1. This paper contains 180 objective questions; 90 from Biology, 45 from Physics
and 45 from Chemistry
t
ne
2. Each question caries 4 marks. Candidate will get 4 marks for a correct response.
For each incorrect response 1 mark will be deducted from the total score
.
3. Maximum time is 3 hours and maximum marks is 720
ha
4. To darken the appropriate circle of the correct option against each question use
blue or black ball point pen only. Answer marked with pencil would not be
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evaluated.
BIOLOGY : ra
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VARSITY EDUCATION MANAGEMENT LTD.

Mumbai, Hyderabad, Vijayawada, Bangalore
w
.
NEET
Model Grand Test - 2017
NEET Date: 00-00-2017
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 720
PHYSICS
1. The dimensions of emf in MKS is (if charge
(c) N m (d) N m
is fundamental unit) 15 18
(a) ML-1 T-2 Q-2 (b) ML2T-2Q-2 7. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I
(c) MLT-2Q-1 (d) ML2T-2Q-1 and 2I respectively about their axis of
2. A 150 m long train is moving with a rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation
et
uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time are equal, their angular momenta will be in
taken by the train to cross a bridge of the ratio
.n
length 850 meters is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 :1
(a) 56 sec (b) 68 sec
ha
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1: 2
(c) 80 sec (d) 92 sec
8. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are
3. Two particles of mass M and m are moving
tib
moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is
in a circle of radii R and r. If their time
four times the mass of S2. Which one of the
periods are the same, what will be the ratio
following statements is true ?
of their linear velocities ?
ra
(a) The time period of S1 is four times that
(a) MR : mr (b) M : m
up
of S2
(c) R : r (d) 1 : 1
(b) The potential energies of earth and
4. A 30 gm bullet initially travelling at 120
satellite in the two cases are equal
ad
m/s penetrates 12 cm into a wooden block.

(c) S1 and S2 are moving with the same
The average resistance exerted by the
speed
wooden block is
en
(d) The kinetic energies of two satellites are

(a) 2850 N (b) 2200 N
equal
(c) 2000 N (d) 1800 N
.e
9. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards

5. If a long spring is stretched by 0.02 m, its
from the surface of the earth, with a
potential energy is U. If the spring is
w
velocity u. The mass and the radius of the

stretched by 0.1 m, then its potential
w
earth are, respectively, M and R. G is

energy will be
gravitational constant and g is acceleration
w
U
(a) (b) U due to gravity on the surface of the earth.
5
The minimum value of u so that the
(c) 5 U (d) 25 U
particle does not return back to earth is
6. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg m2
about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 2GM 2GM
(a) (b)
60 rpm about this axis. The torque which R R2
can stop the wheels rotation in one minute 4GM
(c) 2gR 2 (d)
would be R2
2 10. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700
(a) N m (b) N m
15 12 m. The compressibility of water is 45.410 -
11 Pa-1 and density of water is 103 kg/m3.
What fractional compression of water will ratio of its displacement and amplitude will
be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ? be
(a) 0.8 102 (b) 1.0 102 1 3

(a) (b)
(c) 1.2 102 (d) 1.4 102 2 2
11. Water rises to height h in capillary tube. If 1
(c) (d) 2
the length of capillary tube above the 2
surface of water is made less than h, then 17. Which one of the following statements is
(a) water does not rise at all true for the speed v and the acceleration a
(b) water rises up to the tip of capillary tube of a particle executing simple harmonic
and then starts overflowing like a fountain motion ?
et
(c) water rises up to the top of capillary (a) When v is maximum, a is minimum
tube and stays there without overflowing (b) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the
.n
(d) water rises up to a point a little below value of v
the top and stays there (c) When v is zero, a is zero
ha
12. The temperature of the body is increased (d) When v is maximum, a is zero
from -73oC to 357oC, the ratio of energy 18. An observer moves towards a stationary
tib
emitted per second is source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 81
ra speed of sound. The wavelength and
(c) 1 : 27 (d) 1 : 91 frequency of the source emitted are and f
13. If the temperate of the sun (black body) is respectively. The apparent frequency and
up
doubled, the rate of energy received on wavelength recorded by the observer are
earth will be increased by a factor of respectively
ad
(a) 2 (b) 4 (a) 1.2 f, (b) f, 1.2

(c) 8 (d) 16
(c) 0.8 f, 0.8 (d) 1.2 f, 1.2
14. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a
en
19. Two points are located at a distance of 10

temperature of -13oC. The coefficient of
m and 15 m from the source of oscillation.
performance of the engine is 5. The
The period of oscillation is 0.05 s and the
.e
temperature of the air (to which heat is

velocity of the wave is 300 m/s. What is the
rejected) will be
w
phase difference between the oscillation of

(a) 325oC (b) 325 K
two points ?
w
(c) 39oC (d) 320oC

2
15. A mono atomic gas is supplied with the (a) (b)
w
3 3
heat Q very slowly keeping the pressure

constant. The work done by the gas will be (c) (d)
6
2 3
(a) Q (b) Q 20. The electric intensity due to a dipole of
3 5
length 10 cm and having a charge of
2 1
(c) Q (d) Q 500 C , at a point on the axis at a distance
5 5
20 cm from one of the charges in air, is
16. The kinetic energy and the potential energy
of a particle executing SHM are equal. The (a) 6.25 107 N / C (b) 9.28 107 N / C
(c) 13.1 1111 N / C (d) 20.5 107 N / C
Page | 2 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017
21. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, (a) the resistance will be doubled and the
are separated by a distance d. If F is the specific resistance will be halved
force of repulsion between the ions, the (b) the resistance will be halved and the
number of electrons mission from each ion specific resistance will remain unchanged
will be ( e being the charge on an electron) (c) the resistance will be halved and the
specific resistance will be doubled
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fe 2
(a) (b) (d) the resistance and the specific
e2 d2
resistance, will both remain unchanged
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd 2 26. A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V
(c) (d)
e2 q2 for 8 H when the current flowing is 10 A.
22. Three capacitors each of capacity 4 F are The battery on discharge supplied a current
et
to be connected in such a way that the of 5 A for 15 H. The mean terminal voltage
6 F . This can be during discharge is 14 V. The watt-hour
.n
effective capacitance is
efficiency of the battery is :
done by
ha
(a) 82.5% (b) 80%
(a) Connecting them in parallel
(c) 90% (d) 87.5%
(b) Connecting two in series and one in
27. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and
tib
parallel
(c) Connecting two in parallel and one in its scale is graduated for a current up to
100 A. After an additional shunt has been
series
ra
(d) Connecting al of them in series connected to this ammeter it becomes
up
23. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a possible to measure currents up to 750 A
potential difference of V volts. After by this meter. The value of shunt resistance
disconnecting the charging battery the is

ad
distance between the plates of the capacitor (a) 20 (b) 2

is increased using an insulating handle. As (c) 0.2 (d) 0.02
en
a result the potential difference between the

28. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a
plates
uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic
.e
(a) decreases (b) does not change

field B at the centre of the circle. The
(c) becomes zero (d) increases
radius of the circle is proportional to
w
24. A steady current flows in a metallic

B v
w
conductor of non-uniform cross-section. (a) (b)

v B
The quantity / quantities constant along
w
the length of the conductor is / are

v B
(c) (d)
(a) Current, electric field and drift speed
B v
(b) Drift speed only 29. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic
(c) Current and drift speed field a charged particle is moving in a circle
(d) Current only of radius R with Constant speed v. The time
25. The electric resistance of a certain wire of period of the motion
iron is R. If its length and radius are both (a) depends on v and not on R
doubled, then (b) depends on both R and v

(c) is independent of both R and v

(d) depends on R and not on v (c) 40 s (d) 20 s
30. Two magnets are held together in a 35. What is the value of inductance L for which
vibration magnetometer and are allowed to the current is a maximum in a series LCR
oscillate in the earths magnetic field with circuit with C 10 F and 1000s 1 ?
like poles together, 12 oscillations per
(a) 100 mH
minute are made but for unlike poles
(b) 1 mH
together only 4 oscillations per minute are
(c) Cannot be calculated unless R is known
executed. The ratio of their magnetic
(d) 10 mH
moments is
36. Which of the following are not
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
electromagnetic waves ?
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 4
(a) Cosmic rays (b) Gamma rays
et
31. Curie temperatures is the temperature
(c) rays (d) X-rays
above which
.n
37. The electric and the magnetic field,
(a) ferromagnetic material becomes
associated with an electromagnetic wave,
ha
paramagnetic material
propagating along the +z axis, can be
(b) paramagnetic material becomes
represented by
diamagnetic material
tib
(c) paramagnetic material becomes (a) E E0 k, B B0i

ferromagnetic material
ra (b) E E0 j , B B0i

(d) ferromagnetic materials becomes
diamagnetic material
E E0 j , B B0i

up
(c)
32. A magnetic field of 2 102 T acts at right
(d) E E0i, B B0i
angles to a coil of area 100 cm2 with 50
ad
turns. The average emf induced in the coil 38. An air bubble in sphere having 4 cm
is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field diameter appears 1 cm from surface
en
in time t. The value of t is nearest to eye when looked along diameter.
(a) 0.1 sec (b) 0.01 sec If a g 1.5 , the distance of bubble from
.e
(c) 1 sec (d) 20 sec refracting surface is

33. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a (a) 1.2 cm (b) 3.2 cm
w
current of 2 A is passed through it, the (c) 2.8 cm (d) 1.6 cm

w
resulting magnetic flux linked with each 39. A person who can see things most clearly at
3
the turn of the solenoid is 4 10 Wb . The a distance of 10 cm requires spectacles to
w
self-inductance of the solenoid is enable to him to sec clearly things at a

(a) 2.5 H (b) 2.0 H distance of 30 cm. What should be the focal
(c) 1.0 H (d) 4.0 H length of the spectacles.
34. A coil of 40 H inductance is connected in (a) 15 cm (Concave)
series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the (b) 15 cm (Convex)
combination is joined to the terminals of a (c) 10 cm
2V battery. The time constant of the circuit (d) 0
is 40. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5
(a) 5 s (b) 1/5 s and illuminated with light of 6000 Ao . If
the screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits. 5 5
(a) A (b) A
The distance of the third bright image from 40 50
the centre will be 5 5
(c) A (d) A
(a) 1.5 mm (b) 9 mm 10 20
(c) 6 mm (d) 3 mm CHEMISTRY
41. A photosensitive metallic surface has work 46. Which has maximum number of
function, hv0. If photons of energy 2hv0 fall molecules?
on this surface, the electrons come out with (a) 7 gm N2 (b) 2 gm H2
a maximum velocity of 4 10 m/s. When
6
(c) 16 gm NO2 (d) 16 gm O2
the photon energy is increased to 5hv0, 47. The following quantum numbers are
then maximum velocity of photoelectrons possible for how many orbital (s) n = 3, l =
et
will be 2, m = +2 ?
.n
(a) 2 106 m / s (b) 2 107 m / s (a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 4
(c) 8 105 m / s (d) 8 106 m / s
ha
48. Identify the incorrect statements among the
42. In the phenomenon of electric discharge
following :
through gases at low pressure, the coloured
tib
(a) lanthanoids contraction is observed in
glow in the tube appears as a result of
lanthanoid elements and their ions
(a) excitation of electrons in the atoms
(b) as a result of lanthanoids contraction,
ra
(b) collision between the atoms of the gas
the properties of 4d series of the transition
(c) collisions between the charged particles
up
elements have no similarities with the 5d
emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
series of transition elements
the gas
(c) shielding power of 4f electrons is quite
ad
(d) collision between different electrons of

weak
the atoms of the gas
(d) there is a decrease in the radii of the
en
43. The total energy of an electron in the first

atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to
excited state of hydrogen is about -3.4 eV.
Lu
Its kinetic energy in this state is
.e
49. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is

(a) -3.4 eV (b) -6.8 eV
because
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(c) 6.8 eV (d) 3.4 eV

(a) The electro negativity of F is greater
44. Which of the following are suitable for the
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than that of O
fusion process ?
(b) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas
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(a) Heavy nuclei (b) Light nuclei

BeF2 is a discrete molecule
(c) Atom bomb (d) Radioactive decay
(c) H2O is linear an dBeF2 is angular
45. Current in the circuit will be
(d) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
50. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it
indicates that
(a) pressure of the gas increases
(b) number of the molecules of gas
increases

(c) kinetic energy of molecules remains the (c) In electrochemical series, Zn is above
same hydrogen
(d) kinetic energy of molecules decreases (d) NO3 is reduced in preference to
51. Considering entropy (S) as a
hydronium ion
thermodynamics parameter, the criterion
55. The O O H bond angle in H2O2 (gas) is
for the spontaneity of any process is
(a) 106o (b) 109o28
(a) Ssystem Ssurroundingsbe ve (c) 120o (d) 94.8o
(b) Ssystem Ssurroundings be ve 56. The alkali metals form slat like hydrides by
the direct synthesis at elevated
(c) Ssystem be zero
temperature. The thermal stability of these
(d) Ssurroundings be zero hydrides decreases in
et
52. Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the Which of the following orders ?
.n
following equilibria are related as (a) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
(b) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH
ha
1
NO g O2 g
NO2 g ; K1 (c) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
2
(d) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
2 NO2 g
2 NO g O2 g ; K 2
tib
57. Which oxidation states are the most
1 1 characteristic of lead and tin respectively ?
(a) K2 (b) K2
K12
ra K1 (a) +2, +2 (b) +4, +4
K1 (c) +2, +4 (d) +4, +2

(c) K 2 K12 (d) K2
up
2 58. In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen
53. H2S gas when passed through a solution of 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL
ad
cations containing HCl precipitates the of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature
cations of second group in qualitative and 715 mm pressure. The percentage
analysis but not those belonging to the composition of nitrogen in the compound
en
fourth group. It is because would be : (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15
(a) the presence of HCl decreases the mm)

.e
sulphide ion concentration (a) 14.45 (b) 15.45
(b) the presence of HCl increases the (c) 16.45 (d) 17.45
w
sulphide ion concentration 59. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution

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(c) the solubility product of group II reaction among the following ?
sulphides is more than that of group IV (a) CH 3CHO HCN CH 3CH OH CN

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sulpides
(b) CH 3 CH CH 2 H 2O
H
(d) the sulphides of group IV cations are
unstable in HCl CH 3 CH CH 3
54. Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 and HCl but |
not with HNO3 because OH
(a) Zn acts as an oxidizing agent when it R CH R
reacts with HNO3 (c) RCHO RMgX |
(b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2SO4 and OH
HCl
CH 3 64. Liquid hydrocarbon can be converted to a
(d) | mixture of gaseous hydrocarbon by
CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 2 Br NH 3 (a) oxidation (b) cracking

(c) hydrolysis
CH 3
(d) distillation under reduced pressure
|
65. Green chemistry remains such reactions
CH 3 CH 2CH CH 2 NH 2
which
60. A strong base can abstract an hydrogen (a) produce colour during reactions
from (b) reduce the use and production of
(a) amine (b) ketone hazardous chemical
(c) alkane (d) alkene (c) are related to the depletion of ozone
et
61. The chirality of the compound is layer
(d) study the reactions in plants
.n
66. the radioisotope tritium H3
1 has a half-
ha
life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of
tritium is 32 mg, how many milligrams of it
tib
(a) R (b) S would remain after 49.2 years ?
(c) Z (d) I
ra (a) 1 mg (b) 2 mg
62. The order of stability of the following (c) 4 mg (d) 8 mg
tautomeric compounds is 67. AB crystallizes in a bcc lattice with edge
up
length a equal to 387 pm. The distance
between two oppositely charged ions in the
ad
lattice is
(a) 335 pm (b) 250 pm
(c) 200 pm (d) 300 pm
en
68. A solution of urea (molar mass 56) boils at

100.18oC at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and
.e
Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K molality

respectively, the above solution will freeze
w
at
(a) III > I > II (b) II > I > III
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(a) -6.54oC (b) 6.54oC

(c) III > II > I (d) II > III > I
(c) -0.654oC (d) 0.654oC
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63. Using HCl and anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst,

69. The electrolytic conductance is a direct
which one of the following reactions
measure of
produces ethylbenzene (PhEt) ?
(a) resistance (b) potential
(a) H 3C CH 2OH C6 H 6 (c) concentration (d) dissociation
(b) CH 3 CH CH 2 C6 H 6 70. Standard free energies of formation (in
kJ/mol) at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and -
(c) H 2C CH 2 C6 H 6
8.2 for H2O(l), CO2 (g) and pentane (g)
(d) H 3C CH 3 C6 H 6

respectively. The value of
0
Ecell for the (c) a solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified with
H2SO4
pentane oxygen fuel cell is
(d) a solution of KOH (aq)
(a) 0.0968 V (b) 1.0968 V
76. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to its
(c) 0.0968 V (d) 1.968 V
(a) Oxidising property
71. The reaction A B follows fist order
(b) Acidic property
kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to
(c) Basic property
produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hr. What is the
(d) Reducing propery
time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A
77. Which has the highest molar heat of
to produce 0.675 mole of B ?
vaporization ?
(a) 1 hr (b) 0.5 hr
(a) HF (b) HCl
et
(c) 0.25 hr (d) 2 hr
(c) HBr (d) HI
72. The rate constants k1 and k2 for two
78. Which of the following is monoatomic ?
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different reactions are 1016 e-2000/T and 1015
(a) Nitrogen (b) Fluorine
e-1000T, respectively. The temperature at
ha
(c) Neon (d) Oxygen
which k1 = k2 is
79. When HNO3 is dropped onto the palm and
2000
(a) K (b) 2000 K washed with water, it turns into yellow. It
tib
2.303
shows the presence of
1000 (a) NO2 (b) N2O
(c) K (d) 1000 K
2.303
ra
(c) NO (d) N2O5
73. Which of the following forms cationic
80. Which of the following pairs is coloured in
up
micelles above certain concentrations ?
aqueous solution ?
(a) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
(a) Sc3+, Co2+ (b) Ni2+, Zn2+
ad
(b) Urea
(c) Ni2+, Ti3+ (d) Sc3+, Ti3+
(c) Sodium acetate
81. Atomic numbers of Cr and Fe are
(d) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
en
respectively 24 and 26. Which of the

74. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a
following is paramagnetic with the spin of
by product. This is a colourless gas with
.e
the electron ?
chocking smell of burnt sulphur and
3
causes great damage to respiratory organs (a) Cr NH 3 6 (b) Fe CO 5
w
as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous 4

Fe CN 6 Cr CO 6
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(c) (d)
solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent
82. Which of the following does not have a
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and its acid has never been isolated. The

gas X is metal carbon bond ?
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (a) K Pt C2 H 4 Cl3

(c) SO3 (d) H2S
(b) Ni CO 4
75. Nitrogen can be purified from the
impurities of oxides of nitrogen and (c) Al OC2 H 5 3
ammonia by passing through
(d) C2 H 5 MgBr
(a) conc. HCl
(b) alkaline solution of pyrogallol 83. Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidized to
(a) O2 (b) COCl2

(c) O2, C2 (d) none of these
84. Consider the following reaction: Phenol
(c)

Zn dust
X
CH 3Cl
Anhydrous AlCl3
Y
( i ) Alkaline KMnO4
( ii ) H
Z
, the product Z is
(a) benzoic acid (b) toluene (d)
(c) benzaldehyde (d) benzene 89. The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin
85. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into are
hydrocarbons using Zn Hg + HCl (conc.) (a) NH3, Cl (b) NH3, H2O
is called (c) Cl, H2O (d) NO, Cl
(a) Cope reaction 90. When bismuth chloride is poured into a
et
(b) Dow reaction large volume of water, the white precipitate
produced is
.n
(c) Wolf-Kishner reaction
(d) Clemmensen reduction (a) Bi(OH)3 (b) Bi2O3
ha
86. Method by which Aniline cannot be (c) BiOCl (d) Bi2OCl3
prepared is BIOLOGY
91. Biosystematics aims at
tib
(a) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in
ethanol (a) The classification of organisms based on
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated broad morphological characters

ra
with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis (b) Delimiting various taxa of organism and
establishing their relationships
up
with aqueous NaOH solution
(c) hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with (c) The classification of organisms based on
acidic solution their evolutionary history and establishing

ad
(d) degradation of benzamide with bromine their phylogeny on the totality of various
in alkaline solution parameters from all fields of studies

en
87. Methyl - -D-glucoside and methyl- -D (d) Identification and arrangement of

organisms on the basis of cytological
glucoside are
.e
characteristics
(a) epimers
92. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament
(b) anomers
w
of size
(c) enatiomers
(a) 300 10 nm (b) 300 5 nm
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(d) conformational diastereomers

(c) 300 20 nm (d) 700 30 nm
88. Which one of the following is an example of
w
93. Which of the following statements is not

thermosetting polymer ?
true for retroviruses ?
(a) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA
dependent DNA polymerase
(a) (b) The genetic material in mature
retroviruses is RNA
(c) Retroviruses are causative agents for
(b)
certain kinds of cancer in man

(d) DNA is not present at any stage in the 99. A common structural feature of vessel
life cycle of retroviruses elements and sieve tube elements is
94. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, (a) Thick secondary walls
the antherozoids and eggs mature at (b) Pores on lateral wall
different times (c) Presence of p-protein
As a result (d) Enucleate condition
(a) Self fertilization is prevented 100. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle
(b) There is no change in success rate of on its outer surface without damaging its
fertilization gut, the fluid that comes out is
(c) There is high degree of strerility (a) Slimy mucus (b) Excretory fluid
(d) One can concude that the plant is (c) Coelomic fluid (d) Haemolymph
et
apomictic 101. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
95. Select one of the following pairs of (a) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
.n
important features distinguishing Gneutum (b) Polar layer is hydrophobic
ha
form Cycas and Pinus and showing (c) Phospholipis form a biomolecular layer
affinities with angiosperms in middle part
(a) perianth and two integuments (d) Proteins form a middle layer
tib
(b) embryo development and apical 102. Vacuole in a plant cell
meristem (a) Lacks membrane and contains air
ra
(c) absence of resin duct and leaf venation (b) Lacks membrane and contains water
(d) presence of vessel elements and absence and excretory substances
up
of Archegonia (c) Is membrane bound and contains

96. In Hydra, waste material of food digestion storage proteins and lipids
ad
and nitrogenous waste material removed (d) Is membrane bond and contains water
from and excretory substances
en
(a) Mouth and mouth 103. Which of the following statements regarding
(b) Body wall and body wall enzyme inhibition is correct ?
.e
(c) Mouth and body wall (a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a
(d) Mouth and tentacles substrate competes with an enzyme for
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97. One of the following is a very unique binding to an inhibitor protein

feature of the mammalian body (b) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to
w
(a) Presence of diaphragm the enzyme irreversibly

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(b) Four chambered heart (c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the
(c) Rib cage substrate and the inhibitor compete for the
(d) Homeothermy active site on the enzyme
98. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, (d) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme
bicarpelary ovary with oblique septa, and can be overcome by adding large amount of
frit a capsule or berry are characteristic substrate
features of 104. Which one of the following structural
(a) Asteraceae (b) Brassicaceae formulae of two organic compounds is
(c) Solanaceae (d) Liliaceae

correctly identified along with its related (a) Blue and green (b) Green and red
function ? (c) Red and violet (d) Violet and blue
109. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis
during CO2 fixation occurs in
(a) bundle sheath (b) guard cells
(c) epidermal cells (d) mesophyll cells
110. During anaerobic digestion of organic
waste, such as in producing biogas, which
one of the following is left under graded
(a) Lipids
(b) Lignin
et
(c) Hemi cellulose
(d) Cellulose
.n
111. Which one of the following pairs is not
ha
(a) A: Lecithin a component of cell correctly matched ?
membrane (a) IAA Cell wall elongation

(b) Absicisic acid Stomatal closure
tib
(b) B: Adenine a nucleotide that makes up
nucleic acids (c) Gibberellic acid Leaf fall
(c) A: Triglyceride major source of energy (d) Cytokinin Cell division

ra
(d) B: Uracil a component of DNA 112. Which one of the following mammalian cells
is not capable of metabolizing glucose to
up
105. In S phase of the cell cycle
(a) amount of DNA doubles in each cell carbon dioxide aerobically ?
(b) amount of DNA remains same in each (a) Red blood cells
ad
cell (b) White blood cells
(c) chromosome number is increased (c) Unstraited muscle cell

en
(d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in (d) Liver cells
each cell 113. If due to some injury the chordate

.e
106. The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture tendineae of the tricuspid value of the
insects is due to human heart is partially non-functional,

w
(a) Rapid turgor pressure changes what will be the immediate effect
(a) the flow of blood into the arota will be
w
(b) A passive process requiring no special

ability on the part of the plant slowed down
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(c) Specialized muscle-like cells (b) The pacemaker will stop working
(d) Chemical stimulation by the prey (c) The blood will tend to flow back into the
107. An element playing important role in left atrium
nitrogen fixation is (d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary
(a) Molybdenum (b) Copper artery will be reduced
(c) Manganese (d) Zinc 114. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous
108. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of component of the excretory products of
solar radiations are primarily absorbed by (a) Frog (b) man
carotenoids of the higher plants ? (c) Earthworm (d) Cockroach

115. A person entering an empty room suddenly (b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
finds a snake right in front on opening the (c) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
door. Which one of the following is likely to (d) Primary follicle starts developing
happen in his neurohormonal control 120. The part of fallopian tube closest to the
system ? ovary is
(a) Hypothalamus activates the (a) Isthmus (b) Infundibulum
parasympathetic divison of brain (c) Cervix (d) Ampulla
(b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated 121. The Leydig cells as found in the human
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine body are the secretory source of
from adrenal cortex (a) Glucagon (b) Androgens
(c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated (c) Progesterone (d) Intestinal mucus
et
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine 122. The main function of mammalian corpus
from adrenal medulla luteum is to produce
.n
(d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across (a) estrogen only
ha
the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse (b) progesterone
116. Which one of the following statements is (c) human chorionic gonadotropin
correct ? (d) relaxin only
tib
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but 123. Which of the following events is not
not vice versa associated with ovulation in human
ra
(b) Endocrine glands regulate neural female?
activity, and nervous system regulates (a) LH surge
up
endocrine glands (b) Decrease in estadiol

(c) Neither hormones control neural activity (c) Full development of Graafian follicle
ad
nor the neurons control endocrine activity (d) Release of secondary oocyte
(d) Endocrine glands regulate neural 124. Which of the following cannot be detected
en
activity, but not vice versa in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

117. Top shaped multiciliate male gametes, (a) Klinefelter syndrome
.e
and the mature seed which bears only one (b) Sex of the foetus
embryo with two cotyledons, are (c) Down syndrome
w
characteristic features of (d) Jaundice

(a) Gamopetalous angiosperms 125. Two nonallelic genes produce the new
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(b) Conifers phenotype when present together but fail to

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(c) Polypetalous angiosperms do so independently then it is called

(d) Cycads (a) Epistasis
118. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig (b) Polygene
encloses a number of (c) Non-complimentary gene
(a) berries (b) mericarps (d) Complimentary gene
(c) achenes (d) smaras 126. A gene is said to be dominant if
119. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, (a) It expresses its effect only in
which one of the following is unlikely homozygous stage
(a) Estrogen secretion further decreases

(b) It is expressed only in heterozygous often superior to both parents. This
condition phenomenon is called
(c) It is expressed both in homozygous and (a) Metamorphosis (b) Heterosis
in heterozygous condition (c) Transformation (d) Sphcing
(d) It is never expressed in any condition 134. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,
127. Two crosses between the same pair of which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
genotypes or phenotypes In which the what are the chances of pregnancy
sources of the gametes are reversed in one resulting in an affected child ?
cross is known as (a) no chance (b) 50%
(a) Test cross (b) Reciprocal cross (c) 25% (d) 100%
(c) Dihybrid cross (d) Reverse cross 135. Fruit colour in squash is an example of
et
128. A male human is heterozygous for (a) Recessive epistasis
autosomal genes A and B and is also (b) Dominant epistasis
.n
hemizgous for hemophilic gene h. What (c) Complementary genes
ha
proportion of his sperms will be abh ? (d) Inhibitory genes
(a) 1/32 (b) 1/16 136. In his classic experiments on pea plants,
(c) (d) 1/8 Mendel did not use
tib
129. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is (a) Flower position (b) Seed colour
associated with haemolysis of (c) Pod length (d) Seed shape
ra
(a) Leucocytes (b) Lymphocytes 137. In negative operon
(c) Platelets (d) RBCs (a) Inducer binds with repressor
up
130. Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated (b) Corepressor binds with inducer
from the African population because (c) Corepressor binds with inducer
ad
(a) It is controlled by recessive genes (d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
(b) It is not a fatal disease 138. Which one of the following triplet codes is
en
(c) It provides immunity against malaria correctly matched with its specificity for an
(d) It is controlled by dominant genes amino acid in protein synthesis or as start
.e
131. Two genes R and y are located very close on or stop codon
the chromosomal linkage map of maize (a) UCG Start (b) UUU Stop
w
plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are (c) UGU Leucine (d) UAC Tyrosine
hybridized, the F2 segregation will sow 139. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
w
(a) Higher number of the parental types consist of short sequences of

w
(b) Higher number of the recombinant types (a) Cytosine rich repeats
(c) Segregation in the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio (b) Adenine rich repeats
(d) Segregation in 3:1 ratio (c) Guanine rich repeats
132. Infectious proteins are present in (d) Thymine rich repeats
(a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions 140. In which mode of inheritance do you expect
(c) Viroids (d) Satellite viruses more maternal influence among the
133. When two unrelated individuals or lines are offspring ?
crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is (a) Autosomal (b) Cytoplasmic
(c) Y-linked (d) X-linked

141. Which one of the following pairs of codons (a) Colour change in chameleon
is correctly matched with their function or (b) Poison fangs in snakes
the signal for the particular amino acid ? (c) Melanism in moths
(a) AUG, ACG Start / Methionine (d) Enlargement of body size by swallowing
(b) UUA, UCA Leucine air in puffer fish
(c) GUU, GCU Alanine 149. Adaptive radiation refers to
(d) UAG, UGA Stop (a) Power of adaptation in an individual to a
142. The one aspect which is not a salient variety of environments
feature of genetic code is its being (b) Adaptations due to geographical
(a) Degenerate (b) Ambiguous isolation
(c) Universal (d) Specific (c) Evolution of different species from a
et
143. Which one of the following is not a part of a common ancestor
transcription unit in DNA ? (d) Migration of members of a species to
.n
(a) A promoter (b) The structural gene different geographical areas
ha
(c) the inducer (d) A terminator 150. Which one of the following statement is
144. An abnormal human baby with XXX sex correct ?
chromosomes was born due to (a) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
tib
(a) fusion of two sperms and on ovum (b) Stem cells are specialized cells
(b) formation of abnormal sperms in the (c) There is no evidence of the existence of
ra
father gills during embryogenesis of mammals
(c) formation of abnormal ova in the mother (d) All plant and animal cells are totipotent
up
(d) fusion of two ova and one sperm 151. Which one of the following in birds
145. Which of the following biomolecules does indicates their reptilian ancestry ?
ad
have a phosphodiester bond ? (a) Two special chambers crop and gizzard
(a) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide in their digestive tract
en
(b) Fatty acids in a diglyceride (b) Eggs with a calcareous shell

(c) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide (c) Homeothermy
.e
(d) Amino acids in a polypeptide (d) Four chambered heart

146. There is no life on moon due to the absence 152. According to Darwin, the organic evolution
w
of is due to
(a) O2 (b) Water (a) Intraspecific competition
w
(c) Light (d) Temperature (b) Interspecific competition

w
147. de Vries gave his mutation theory on (c) Competition within closely related
organic evolution while working on species
(a) Oenothera lamarckiana (d) Reduced feeding efficiency in one
(b) Drosophila melanogaster species due to the presence of interfering
(c) Pisum sativum species
(d) Althaea rosea 153. Industrial melanism is an example of
148. Animals have the innate ability to escape (a) Neo Lamarckism (b) Neo Darwinism
from predation. Examples for the same are (c) Natural selection (d) Mutation
given below. Select the incorrect example.

154. Which one of the following conditions (d) Chikungunya virus
though harmful in itself is also a potential 160. The most likely reason for the development
saviour from a mosquito borne infectious of resistance against pesticides in insects
disease ? damaging a crop is
(a) Thalassemia (a) Genetic recombination
(b) Sickle cell anaemia (b) Directed mutations
(c) Pernicius anaemia (c) Acquired heritable changes
(d) Leukemia (d) Random mutations
155. The blue baby syndrome results from 161. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop,
(a) Excess of chloride has been obtained by crossing wheat with
(b) Methemoglobin (a) Rye (b) Pearl millet
et
(c) Excess of dissolved oxygen (c) Sugarcane (d) Barley
(d) Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids) 162. What is antisense technology ?
.n
156. To which type of barriers under innate (a) When a piece of RNA that is
ha
immunity, do the salvia in the mouth and complementary in sequence is used to stop
the tears from the eyes, belong ? expression
(a) Physiological barriers (b) RNA polymerase producing DNA
tib
(b) Physical barriers (c) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used
(c) Cytokine barriers for the synthesis of antigens
ra
(d) Cellular barriers (d) Production of somaclonal variants in
157. Select the correct statement from the ones tissue cultures
up
given below 163. Jaya and Ratna developed for green

(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals revolution in India are the varieties of
ad
make them tell the truth (a) Bajra (b) Maize

(b) Morphine is often given to persons who (c) Rice (d) Wheat
en
have undergone surgery as a pain killer 164. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure matched ?
.e
and heart rate (a) Coliforms Vinegar

(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery (b) Methanogens Gobar gas
w
as it stimulates recovery (c) Yeast Ethanol

158. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in (d) Streptomycets Antibiotic
w
(a) Human RBCs 165. What is true for monoclonal antibodies ?

w
(b) Human liver (a) These antibodies obtained from one

(c) Gut of female Anopheles parent and for one antigen
(d) Salivary glands of Anopheles (b) These obtained from different parents
159. Which of the following viruses is not and for one antigen
transferred through semen of an infected (c) These obtained from one parent and for
male ? many antigens
(a) Herpes simplex virus (d) These obtained from many parents and
(b) Hepatitis B virus for many antigen
(c) Human immunodeficiency virus

166. Transgenic plants are the ones (a) the population is large
(a) Grown in artificial medium after (b) individuals mate selectively
hybridization in the field (c) there are no mutations
(b) Produced by a somatic embryo in (d) thee is no migration
artificial medium 173. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged
(c) Generated by introducing foreign DNA but can recover after some time if damaging
into a cell and regenerating a plant from effect stops will be having
that cell (a) High stability and low resilience
(d) Produced after protoplast fusion in (b) Low stability and low resilience
artificial medium (c) High stability and high resilience
167. Continuous addition of sugars in fed batch (d) Low stability and high resilience
et
fermentation is done to 174. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen
(a) degrade sewage logs in nature is due to their
.n
(b) produce methane (a) anaerobic environment around them
ha
(c) obtain antibiotics (b) low cellulose content
(d) purify enzymes (c) low moisture content
168. Choose the correct sequence of stages of (d) poor nitrogen content
tib
growth curve for bacteria 175. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of
(a) Lag, log, decline, stationary phase numbers. What could be one of the
ra
(b) Lag, log, stationary phase possibilities about certain organisms at
(c) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase some of the different levels ?
up
(d) Decline, lag, log phase

169. Which one of the following pairs is
ad
mismatched ?
(a) Savanna acacia trees
en
(b) Coniferous forest evergreen trees (a) Level one PP is papal trees and the
(c) Tundra permafrost level SC is sheep
.e
(d) Prairie epiphytes (b) Level PC is rats and level SC cats

170. Which one of the following is one of the (c) Level PC is insects and level SC is
w
etheracteristics of a biological community ? small insectivorous birds

(a) Stratification (b) Natality (d) Level PP is phytoplanktons in sea and
w
(c) Mortality (d) Sex-ratio Whale on top level TC

w
171. A biologist studied the population of rats in 176. In an ecosystem the rate of production of
a barn. He found that the average natality organic matter during photosynthesis is
was 250, average mortality 240, termed as
immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net (a) Net productivity
increase in population is (b) Net primary productivity
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) Gross primary productivity
(c) 05 (d) zero (d) Secondary productivity
172. A population will not exist in Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium if

177. Which of the following pairs of an animal 180. Measuring biochemical oxygen demand
and a plant represents endangered (BOD) is a method used for
organism in India (a) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces
(a) Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda cereviscae in producing card on a
(b) Tamarind and rhesus monkey commercial scale
(c) Cinchona and leopard (b) Working out the efficiency of RBCs
(d) Banyan and blackbuck about their capacity to carry oxygen
178. Which one of the following is an example of (c) Estimating the amount organic matter in
exsitu conservation ? sewage water
(a) Wild life sanctuary (d) Working out the efficiency of oil driven
(b) Seed bank automobile engines
et
(c) Sacred groves
(d) National park
.n
179. Step taken by the Government of India to
ha
control air pollution include
(a) Use of non-polluting compressed
Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses
tib
and trucks
(b) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol
ra
with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel
(c) Compulsory PUC (Pollution Under
up
Control) certification of petrol driven

vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide
ad
and hydrocarbons
(d) Permission to use only pure diesel with
en
a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for

vehicles
.e
w
w
w

Model Grand Test
KEY
NEET Date: 00-00-2017
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 720
PHYSICS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d)
et
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a)
36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
.n
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b)
ha
CHEMISTRY
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (d)
tib
56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (b)
66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (c)
76. (d) 77. (d)
ra 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d)
up
86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c)
BIOLOGY
ad
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (d)
96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)
101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (a)
106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (d) 110. (b)
en
111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (c)
116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (b)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (d) 125. (a)
.e
126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (c)
131. (a) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (b)
136. (c) 137. (c,b) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (b)
w
141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (c) 145. (a)
146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (b) 149. (c) 150. (a)
w
151. (b) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (b) 155. (b)
156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (d) 160. (d)
w
161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (c) 164. (a) 165. (a)
166. (c) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (d) 170. (a)
171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (d)
176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (c) 180. (c)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
1.
2. Total distance to be covered for crossing

the bridge 8. In the same orbit, orbital sped of satellites
et
= length of train + length of bridge remain same. When two satellites of earth
are moving in the same orbit, then time
.n
= 150 m + 850 m = 1000 m
periods of both are equal
ha
From Keplers third law
T 2 r3
3. Linear velocity v r
tib
Time period is independent of mass, hence
v1 r1 , v2 r2 their time periods will be equal.
[ is the same in both cases because The potential energy and kinetic energy are
ra
time period is the same] mass dependent, hence the PE and KE of
up
v1 r1 R satellites are not equal

v2 r2 r But, if they are orbiting in the same orbit,
then they have equal orbital speed
ad
4.
9. Escape velocity
en
5.
.e
w
60 10. Bulk modulus

6. Given I = 2 kg m2, 0 2 rad / s
w
60
0, t 60 s
w
The torque required to stop the wheels

rotation is
7. AS said, (KE)rot remains same

11. Condition of insufficient length of capillary 18.
1
tube h
r
and since the source is stationary, so wave
Q
12. Energy per second P T4 length remains unchanged for observer
t
19.
13. Amount of energy radiated
(Temperature)4
14. Coefficient of performance
et
15.
.n
ha
tib
20.
ra
16.
up
ad
en
17. In simple harmonic motion, the

displacement equation is, y = A sin t 21. Two positive ions each carrying a charge q
.e
Where A is amplitude of the motion. are kept at a distance d, then it is found

that force of repulsion between them is
w
w
w
22. The given circuit can be drawn as follows
Hence, it is clear that when v is maximum,

then a is minimum (i.e., zero) or vice versa
23. Charge remains constant after charging. If
the battery is removed after charging, then
the charge stored in the capacitor remains
constant.
q = constant
26.
et
As capacitance decreases, so potential
.n
difference increases
24. If E is the electric field, then current
ha
density j E
27. The potential difference across ammeter
i and shunt is the same
tib
Also we know that current density j
A Let ia is the current. Flowing through
Hence j is different for different area of
ammeter and i the total current. So, a
ra
cross section. When j is different, then E is
current i - ia will flow through shunt
also different. Thus E is not constant. The
up
resistance
drift velocity vd is given by
j
vd =different for different j value.
ad
ne
Hence only current i will be constant
en
25. The formula for resistance of the wire is

l
R
.e
A
Where =specific resistance of the wire
w
l
R
w
A
l
A r
w
R 2
r2
R1 l1 r22
(i)
R2 l2 r12
28. The time period of electron moving in a
circular orbit

Electric current corresponds to the 32.
revolution of electron is
Magnet field at centre of circle
33. Inductance of a coil is numerically equal to

the emf induce din the coil when the
current in the coil changes at the rate of 1
As-1.
Hence
If I is the current flowing in the circuit,
29. To move on circular path in a magnetic
then flux linked with the circuit is observed
et
field, a centripetal force is provide by the
to be proportional to I, i.e.,
magnetic force. When magnetic field is
.n
perpendicular to motion of charged particle,
I
or LI (i)
ha
then
Centripetal force = magnetic force Where L is called the self inductance or
That is coefficient of self-inductance or simply
tib
inductance of the coil.
Net flux through solenoid,
ra
Further, time period of the motion
up
34.
ad
It is independent of both R and v.

30. In the sum and difference method of
vibration magnetometer
en
M 1 T22 T12

M 2 T22 T12 35. In resonance condition, maximum current
.e
Here flows in the circuit

w
Current in LCR series circuit

w
w
31. Ferromagnetism decreases with rise in Where V is rms value of current, R is
temperature. If we heat a ferromagnetic resistance, XL is inductive reactance and XC
substance, then at a definite temperature is capacitive reactance
the ferromagnetic property of the substance For current to be maximum, denominator
suddenly disappears and the substance should be minimum which can be done, if
becomes paramagnetic. The temperature XL = X C
above which a ferromagnetic substance This happens in resonance state of the
becomes paramagnetic is called the Curie circuit, i.e.,
temperature of the substance

1 41. Einseins photoelectric equation can be
L
C written as
1
Or L .. (i)
2C
Given, 1000 s 1 , C 10 F 10 10 6 F
Hence,
1
L 0.1 H 100mH
1000 10 106
2
36. -rays are beams of fat electrons

42. The discharge of electricity through rarefied
37. EB
et
gases is an interesting phenomenon which
E0i B0 j E0 B0 k can be systematically studied with the help
.n
E B points in the direction of wave of a discharge tube. In discharge tube
collisions between the charge particles
ha
propagation
38. v=1 cm, R = 2 cm emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
the gas results to the coloured glow in the
2 1 2 1
tib
By using tube.
v u R
43. Kinetic energy of electron
ra
Ze 2
K
8 0 r
up
1 Ze 2
Potential energy of electron U
4 0 r
ad
Total energy
en
Ze 2 Ze 2
E K U
8 0 r 4 0 r
.e
Ze 2
or E
8 0 r
w
39. for lens u = wants to sec = -30cm or E = - K

and v = can see = -10 cm
w
or K E 3.4 3.4eV
w
44. For nuclear fusion process the nuclei with

low mass are suitable
40. Distance of the nth bright fringe from the
45. The diode in lower branch is forward biased
centre
and diode in upper branch is reverse biased
5 5
i A
20 30 50
CHEMISTRY
46. 2 g of H2 means one mole of H2, hence
contains 6.023 1023 molecules. Others

have less than one mole, so have less no. of
molecules.
47. Quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, m = +2
represent an orbital with 3d xy or 3d x2 y 2

48. In each vertical column of transition
element, the elements of second and third
transition series resemble each other more
closely than the elements of first and
second transition series on account of
55. O O H bond angel in H2O2 is 94.8o
lanthanoids contraction. Hence the
56. The tendency to form their hydrides, basic
et
properties of elements of 4d series of the
character and stability decreases from Li to
transition elements resemble with the
.n
Cs since the electropositive character
properties of the elements of 5d series of
decreases from Cs to Li
the transition elements
ha
57. the tendency to form +2 ionic state
50. KE = 3/2 RT. (At any constant temperature
increases on moving down the group due to
the KE of gaseous molecules remains the
tib
inert pair effect. Most characteristic
same).
oxidation states for lead and tin are +2 and
51. For a spontaneous process
ra +4 respectively.
58.
up
52.
ad
en
.e
53. In qualitative analysis of cations of second

group, H2S gas is passed in the presence of
w
HCl. Therefore, due to common ion effect, 59. Nucleophile (-NH3) replaces other
w
lower concentration of sulphide ions is nucleophile (-Br) in the reaction

obtained which is sufficient for the 60. Removal of H from ketone gives resonance
w
precipitation of second group cations in the stabilized carbanion

form of their sulphides due to lower value
of their solubility product (Ksp). Here fourth
group cations are not precipitated because
they require more sulpide ions for
exceeding their ionic product to their
61. Highest to lowest priority (Br > CH3) is clock
solubility products which is not obtained
wise, i.e., R.
here due to common ion effect
Its Fisher projection
54.

63. 71. For the reaction
HCl AlCl3
C6 H 6 CH 2 CH 2 C6 H 5CH 2CH 3 2 A B 3C D
64. Cracking converts liquid hydrocarbons to Rate constant of first order reaction
gaseous hydrocarbons by cleavage of C C
et
and C H bonds
65. Green chemistry may be defined as the
.n
programme of developing new chemical
(because 0.6 mole of B is formed)
products and chemical processes or making
ha
Suppose t1 hour is required for changing
improvements in the already existing
the concentration of A from 0.9 mole to
compounds and processes so as to make
tib
0.675 mole of B. Remaining mole of A = 0.9
less harmful to human health and
0.675 0.225
environment. This means the same as to
ra
reduce the use and production of
hazardous chemicals.
up
66.
ad
en
72.
67. For body centered cubic (bcc) lattice,
distance between two oppositely charged
.e
ions,
w
74.
w
76. SO2 act as bleaching agent due to its

w
68. reducing property
SO2 2 H 2O H 2 SO4 2 H
Coloured matter H Colourless matter
77. In case of HI due to large size of iodine
strong vander Waal forces are present.
69. Because conductance is increased when Hence, it has highest molar heat of
the dissociation is more vaporization
70.

78. Neon Ne is monoatomic and others (N2, 88. Thermosetting polymers undergo chemical
F2 and O2) are diatomic changes when heated and set to hard mass
79. 4 Zn 10 HNO3 4 Zn NO3 2 NH 4 NO3 3H 2O when cooled, Exaple. Bakelite
89. Cis-diamminedichloroplatinum (II) (cis-
80.
platin) is a widely used anticancer drug.
Ligands in cis-platin are NH3 and Cl
Hence, Ni2+ and Ti3+ are coloured in

aqueous solution due to the presence of
et
90.
unpaired electrons in d-subshell
82. Al(OC2H5)3 contains bonding through O and
.n
thus it does not have metal carbon bond
ha
83. Chloroform is oxidized to a poisonous gas,
phosgene (COCl2) by atmospheric gas
tib
CHCl3 O COCl2 HCl
ra
up
84.
ad
en
85. It is called Clemmensen reduction

.e
86.
w
w
w
due to resonance C Cl bond acquires

double bond character.
87. Methyl- -D-glucoside and methyl- -D-
glucoside differs at C-1, hence are called

anomers.
SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS - INDIA

NEET MODEL PAPER
PHYSICS
Pattern of the Entrance Test:-

1) The Entrance Test shall consist of one paper containing 180 objective type questions (four
options with single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology)
to be answered on the specially designed machine-gradable sheet using Ball Point Pen only.
The duration of paper would be 03 hours
2) Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response one mark will be deducted from the total score.
1. Figure given hare shows the variation of velocity of a particle with time. Average
velocity during the motion is _________
v ms-1
4
t
0 2 4 7
20 18 36 12
1) m/s 2) m/s 3) m/s 4) m/s
7 7 7 7
2. The centre of mass of a system of three particles of masses 1g ; 2g and 3 g is taken as

the origin of the coordinate system. The position vector of a fourth particle of mass 4g
such that the centre of mass of the four particle system lies at the point (1, 2, 3) is

i 2j 3k
, where ' ' is a constant. The value of ' ' is

10 5 1 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 2 5
3. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity
3 2
' '. It reaches upto a maximum height of with respect to the initial position.
4g
What is that object ?
1) Ring 2) Solid sphere 3) Hollow sphere 4) Disc
4. A projectile is fired on a horizontal ground. Coefficient of restitution between the
R1
projectile and the ground is e. The ratio of horizontal range R in first two
2
collisions with the ground is
1) 1/e 2) 1/e2 3) e 4) e2
5. Two constant horizontal forces F1 and F2 are acting on the blocks 'A' and 'B' as shown
in the figure. At an instant acceleration of block 'B' is 4 m/s2 in the direction of F1,
then the acceleration of block A with respect to block 'B' at this moment is
1) 1 m/s2 F2=70N
A B
F1=100N
2) 2 m/s2 2 kg 5 kg
3) 5 m/s2
4) 9 m/s2 Smooth surface
6. A child with mass 'm' is standing at the edge of a merry-go-round with moment of
inertia I, radius 'R' and initial angular velocity , as shown in figure. The child
jumps off the edge of the merry-go-round with a velocity ' ' with respect to the ground
in a direction tangent to periphery of the disc as shown. The new angular velocity of
the merry-go-round is V
1)
I2 m 2
2)
I mR2 2 m2
I I
3)
I mR
4)
I mR 2 mR R
I I
7. When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0
towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v0, it moves with an
initial acceleration 3a0 towards west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room
are respectively.
ma 0 2ma 0 ma 0 2ma 0
1) west ; upwards 2) west ; downwards
e ev0 e ev0
ma 0 3ma 0 ma 0 3ma 0
3) east ; upwards 4) east ; downwards
e ev 0 e ev 0
8. The adjoining figure represents a wavefront 'AB' which passes from air to another
transparent medium and produces a new wavefront 'CD' after refraction. 'PQ' is the
boundary between air and the medium. The refractive index of the transparent
medium is
cos 1 cos 4
1) cos 2) cos
3 1
B
air
A 1 4
P 3 Q
2 D
sin 1 sin 2medium

3) sin 4) sin
3 C 3
9. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm.
Which one of the following options describe best about the image formed, whose object
is of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ?
1) Virtual ; upright ; height = 0.5 cm 2) Real ; inverted ; height = 4 cm
3) Real ; inverted ; height = 1 cm 4) Virtual ; upright ; height = 1 cm
10. The half-life of a radioactive isotope 'X' is 20 years. It decays to another element 'Y'
which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in a
sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be
1) 40 years 2) 60 years 3) 80 years 4) 100 years
11. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red, then becomes reddish
yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation
is possible by using
1) Stefan's law 2) Wein's displacement law
3) Kirchoff's law in thermal radiation 4) Newton's law of cooling
12. Assertion (A) : In the case of projectile motion, the rate of change in magnitude of
potential energy of the particle first decreases and then increasing during motion.
Reason (R) : In the case of projectile motion, the rate of change of linear momentum
of a particle remains constant during motion.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, R is false. 4) A is false, R is true.
13. A car of mass 'm' is accelerating on a level smooth road under the action of a single
force F. The power delivered to the car is constant and equal to 'P'. If the velocity of
the car at an instant is v, then after travelling how much distance its velocity becomes
double ?
7mv3 4mv3 mv3 18mv3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3P 3P P 7P
14. The current (I) in the inductor coil is varying with time according to the plot shown
in figure.
(current) I
I0
O T/2 T time (t)

Which of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the inductor
coil
V
V V V
1) T 2) 3) T 4) T/2 T t
O T/2 T/2 t T/2 t
15. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination ' ' is perfectly smooth, while lower
half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again came to rest
at the bottom, the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane
is
1 2
1) 2) 3) 2 tan 4) tan
tan tan
16. A uniform ring of mass m is lying at a distance 3 a from the centre of a sphere of
mass 'M', where 'a' is the radius of the ring as well as that of sphere. Then magnitude
of gravitational force between them is
GMm GMm 3 GMm 3 GMm
1) 2) 3) 4)
8a 2 3 a2 a2 8a 2
17. By what percent the energy of a earth's satellite has to be increased to shift the satellite
from an orbit of radius r to (3/2) r ?
1) 15% 2) 20.3% 3) 66.7% 4) 33.33%
18. A particle of mass 'm' is located in a one-dimensional conservative field, where the
potential energy can be represented by U(x) = A(1 + cos Px) where A and P are constants.
The period of small oscillations of the particle is
m m m m
1) 2 2) 2 2 3) 2 4) 2
AP AP A A2 P
19. If the length of seconds pendulum is increased by 2%, then in a day the pendulum
1) Loses 764 s 2) Loses 924 s 3) Gains 432 s 4) Loses 864 s
20. PV versus T graph of equal masses of three different gases namely Hydrogen (H2) ;
Helium (He) and Oxygen (O2) is as shown in the figure. Choose the correct alternative.
PV C
B
A
O T
1) A corresponds to O2 ; B corresponds to He and C corresponds to H2

2) A corresponds to He ; B corresponds to H2 and C corresponds to O2
3) A corresponds to He ; B corresponds to O2 and C corresponds to H2
4) A corresponds to O2 ; B corresponds to H2 and C corresponds to He
21. Pressure versus density graph of an ideal gas is as shown in the figure. Choose the
correct option.
C
Pressure (P)
B
D
A
Density ( )
1) During the process AB workdone by the gas is positive
2) During the process AB workdone by the gas is negative
3) During the process BC internal energy of the gas is increasing
4) During the process DA internal energy of the gas remains constant
22. Three identical metallic uncharged spheres A, B and C of radius 'a' are kept at the
corners of an equilateral triangle of side d(d >>> a). A fourth sphere of radius 'a'
which has charge Q touches 'A' and then removed to a position faraway. 'B' is earthed
and then the earth connection is removed. Now 'C' is earthed. The charge on the 'C' is
Qa 2d a Qa 2d a Qa a d 2Qa d a

2d 2d 2d d 2d d d 2d
1) 2) 3) 4)
23. From the diagram shown, area of each plate is 2m2 and d 2 103 m . A charge of
8.85108 C is given to the plate Q. Then the potential of Q becomes
P
Q d
1) 13V 2) 10V
2d
R
20
3) V 4) 8.85 V
3
24. Three conductors individually draw currents of 1A, 2A and 3A respectively, when
connected across a battery. If they are joined in series and the combination is connected
across the same battery, the current drawn will be
6 1 4 2
1) A 2) A 3) 4)
11 6 7 7
25. For the circuit shown the charge on the capacitor will be
C R2
CE R1
1) CE 2)
R1 r R1
CE R 2 CE R1 E r
3) 4)
R1 r R2 r
26. A beam of light is incident on a glass slab of refractive index, 1.54 in a direction as
shown in the figure. The reflected light is analysed by a polaroid prism. On rotating
the polaroid, (tan 570 = 1.54)
A B
330 330
O GLASS SLAB
1) The intensity remains unchanged

2) The intensity is reduced to zero and remains at zero
3) The intensity gradually reduced to zero and then again increases
4) The intensity increase gradually
27. In feedback amplifier, feedback can be achieved by
A) Inductive coupling B) LC network C) RC network
1) Only A is correct 2) Only B is correct
3) Only C is correct 4) A, B and C are correct
28. Pick out the correct statements from the following.
I) Electron emission during decay is always accompanied by neutrino
II) Nuclear force is charge independent
III) Fusion is cheif source of stellar energy
1) I, II are correct 2) I, III are correct 3) Only I is correct 4) II, III are correct
29. The increasing order of the frequency bands used for various communication services is
1) Space waves, sky waves, ground waves 2) Space waves, ground waves, sky waves
3) Sky waves, ground waves, space waves 4) Ground waves, sky waves, space waves
30. In the diagram shown, I1, I2 are the strength of the currents in the loop and straight
conductors respectively. OA = AB = R. The net magnetic field at the centre 'O' is
zero. Then, the ratio of the currents in the loop and the straight conductor is
I1
1) 2) 2 O
A
1 1
3) 4) B I2
2
31. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities 1 and
2 respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the
pipes are vibrating in their first overtone with same frequency. The length of the open
organ pipe is
L 4L 4L 1 4L 2
1) 2) 3) 3 2
4) 3 1
3 3
32. Two similar rods are joined as shown in figure. Assume that no heat loss through
lateral surface of rod and temperatures at the ends are shown in steady state. Then
500C
temperature of the junction is
1) 500C
2) 750C 1000C 00C
3) 66.60C
4) 33.30C 500C
33. A tap supplies water at 100C and another tap at 1000C. How much hot water must be
taken so that we get 20 kg of water at 350C.
40 50 20 60
1) kg 2) kg 3) kg 4) kg
9 9 9 9
34. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%,
a 3b2
2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows P ; The
cd
percentage error in 'P' is
1) 14% 2) 10% 3) 7% 4) 4%
35. A material has poission's ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudnal strain
of 2103 . Then the percentage change in the volume is
1) 0.6 2) 0.4 3) 0.2 4) Zero
36. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as shown in figure and the frame is
dipped into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the
film. When 'A' is pricked
1) Thread will become concave on seeing from side 'A' Frame
2) Thread will become concave on seeing from side 'B' A

3) Thread will become straight B
4) Thread will remain as it is Thread
37. The end correction of a resonance column is 1cm. If the shortest length resonating
with the tunnnig fork is 15cm. The next resonating length will be
1) 31 cm 3) 45 cm 3) 46 cm 4) 47 cm
38. The root-mean-square (rms) speed of oxygen molecule at a certain absolute temperature
is v. If the temperature is doubled and the oxygen gas dissociates into atomic oxygen,
then the rms speed would be
1) v 2) 2v 3) 2v 4) 2 2v
39. A body submerged in the sea. Which of the following graphs represents correctly the
variation of the pressure on the body with the depth?
1 Atom 1 Atom
pressure pressure
1) 2)
depth depth
1 Atom
1atom pressure
3) pressure 4)
depth depth
40. The Davisson-Germer experiment is the direct evidence of

1) Particle nature of electrons 2) Wave nature of electrons
3) Wave nature of light 4) Particle nature of light
41. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be
A
X
B
1) X A.B 2) X A.B 3) X = A.B 4) X A B

42. The TV transmission tower in VIJAYAWADA has a height 150m. What is the total
population covered by the TV tower, if the population density around the TV tower is
103(km)2 ? (Radius of the earth is 6.4 106 m )
1) 60.288 lakh 2) 40.192 lakh 3) 100 lakh 4) 20.22 lakh
43. In the circuit shown in the figure, what is the value of I1 just after pressing the key k ?
5 5 6 I1 2mH
1) A 2) A I3
7 11 I2
k 8 8
5
3) 1A 4) A 10v
4
44. de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is n and
the angular momentum is Jn then
1
1) n J n 2) n J 3) n J n2 4) n J n
n
45. In a spring - block system force constant of the spring is k = 16 N/m, mass of the block
is 1kg. Maximum kinetic energy of the block is 8J. Then pickout the wrong statement
1) Amplitude of oscillation is 1m
2) At half the amplitude potential energy stored in the spring is 2J
3) At half the amplitude kinetic energy is 6J
4) Angular frequency of oscillation is 16 rad/s
46. X and Y are two crystalline substances both having cubic unit cells. The ratio of molecular
masses is 1 : 2. The ratio of 'a' parameters is 1 : 2. The ratio of number of formula units (Z) is
1 : 4. The ratio of their densities is
1) 4 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 4
3 3
47. The complex Co NH3 6 is an inner orbital complex whereas the CoF6 is an outer orbital
complex. The number of unpaired electrons in these two complexes are respectively
1) Zero and 4 2) 4 and 4 3) 6 and 2 4) 3 and 4
48. A hydrocarbon with molecular formula C4H6 reacts with bromine readily and gives a red precipitate
with ammoniacal Cu2Cl2. On treatment with dilute H2SO4 Containing HgSO4 gives 2- butanone.
The hydrocarbon is
1) 2- Butyne 2) 1 Butene 3) 1- butyne 4) Cyclobutene
a
49. In C C C b C C c C d C , the strongest C - C single bond is
1) b 2) a 3) c 4) d
50. One molal solution of K x [Fe (CN) 6 ] is isotonic with 4 molal urea solution. The
degree of dissociation of potassium Iron cyanide is one. Then the value of 'x' is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
51. The standard potential for the electrode MnO4 MnO2 in solution is
o
Given E MnO +2 1.51V and E o 1.23V
4 Mn MnO 2 Mn +2
1) - 1.70 V 2) + 1.1 V 3) + 1.70 V 4) - 1.1V

0
52. The limiting molar conductivities for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150Scm2 mol1
respectively. The 0 for NaBr is :
1) 278 S cm2 mol1 2) 176 S cm2 mol1 3) 128 S cm2 mol1 4) 302 S cm2 mol1
ROUGH
H 2SO4 NaCl
53. NaCl T
NaHSO 4
T
Na 2SO 4 . Correct statement is
1 2
1) HCl is obtained in both steps 2) T1 T2
3) HCl is dried using conc H 2 SO4 4) All of these
54. Number of configurational isomers for CH 3 2 CH .CH .Cl .CH CHCl
1) 2 2) 3 3) zero 4) 4
55. Emf of the cell Pt , H2 (1 atm) / H+ (0.01) // Cl2(1atm) / Cl- ( 0.1M) , Pt . Given E of
Cl2 Cl 1.36V
1) + 1.36V 2) + 1.54V 3) + 1.48V 4) + 1.12V
56. The electron affinity values of 3rd period elements A, B, C and D are respectively -135, -60, -
200 and 348KJ mole1 . The outer configuration of element 'B' is
1) 3s 2 3 p1 2) 3s 2 3 p 4 3) 3s 2 3 p 3 4) 3s 2 3 p 2
57. In a face centered cubic lattice, atom 'A' occupies the corner positions and atom 'B' occupies
the face center positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centered points. The
formula of the compound is
1) A2 B 2) A2 B5 3) AB2 4) A2 B2
58. In the roasting of iron pyrites, equivalent weight of iron pyrites is
M 11 M M 6M
1) 2) 3) 4)
11 10 6 5
alc.KOH
59. CH 2 CH CH Br CH3 X major . 'X' is
1) CH 2 C CH CH 3 2) CH 2 CH CH CH 2
3) CH 3 CH CH CH 3 4) CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 3
60. Bond length and bond angle in ozone molecule is/are
1) 119, 121pm 2) 117, 148pm 3) 117, 128pm 4) 111, 128pm
ROUGH
61. Absolute configuration of
CH3
H Cl
Cl H
C 2 H5
1) 2S, 3R 2) 3R, 2S 3) 2R, 3R 4) 2S, 3S

62. 'X' along with liquid oxygen provide a tremendous thrust in rockets. Oxidation state of nitrogen
in 'X' is
1) - 2 2) - 3 3) - 1 4) + 1
63. The number of p d bonds present in XeO3 and XeO4 molecules respectively
1) 3, 4 2) 4, 2 3) 2, 3 4) 3, 2
64. 1, 3 butadiene and styrene on polymerisation give
1) Bakelite 2) Terylene 3) Buna - S 4) Teflon
65. To a 25ml H 2O2 solution, excess acidified solution of KI is added. The iodine liberated required
20ml of 0.3M Na2 S 2O3 solution. Strength of H 2O2 solution is
1) 1.344 gr litre 2) 3.244 gr litre 3) 5.4 gr litre 4) 4.08 gr litre
66. The gas evolved on heating NH 4 2 Cr2O 7 is

1) NH3 2) N2 3) N2O 4) O2
67. When HNO3 oxidizes I 2 , the change in oxidation number of iodine is
a) 0 to + 4 2) 0 to -5 3) 0 to +5 4) 0 to +3
68. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of
a) Primary aromatic amine 2) Primary aliphatic amine
c) Secondary amine 4) Tertiary amine
ROUGH
69. Name of the compound given below
CH 3
CH 3
CH 3
CH 3
1) 5 - ethyl - 6 - methyl octane 2) 4 - ethy l - 3 - methyl octane

3) 3 - methyl - 4 ethyl octane 4) 2, 3 diethyl heptane
70. An alkene on ozonolysis gives isobutyraldehyde only. The alkene is
1) 2, 5 dimethyl hex - 3 ene 2) 3, 4 dimethyl hex - 3 ene
3) 2, 3 dimethyl but - 2 ene 4) 3 methyl pent - 1 - ene
CH(CH3)2 OH
O H +
71. 2
A
H O + B . B in the above sequence of reaction is
2
1) CH3CHO 2) CH3COCH3 3) CH3COOH 4) CH3CHOHCH3

72. Which of the following is fast dehydro brominated
Br Br Br
Br
1) 2) 3) 4)
73. Grignard reagent + CdCl2

A + MgCl2
A + B
Butanone + CdCl2
A and B are respectively
1) (CH3)2Cd & C2H5COCl 2) CH3MgCl & C2H5Cl
3) (C2H5)2Cd & CH3Cl 4) CH3COCl & (C2H5)2Cd
ROUGH
74. A steel cylinder of 8 lit capacity contains H2 gas at 12 atm. At the same temperature, how many
cycle tubes of 4l capacity at 2 atm pressure can be filled by this gas ?
1) 12 2) 5 3) 10 4) 15
SOCl2 Benzene HCN H2O
75. CH3COOH A
anhyd . AlCl3 B C D
In the following sequence of reactions, acetic acid yields D. The structure of D is
OH
OH
| |
1) C COOH 2) CH 2 C COOH
|
|
CH 3
CH 3
OH OH
| |
3) C CH 3 4) CH 2 C COOH
| |
CN CN
76. Which of the following cannot undergo disproportionation ?

1) ClO- 2) ClO 2 3) ClO3 4) ClO 4
77. Balance the following equation by oxidation number method
Cr s Pb NO3 2 aq
Cr NO3 3 Pb s , the coefficients of species in balanced reaction :
1) 3, 2, 3, 2 2) 2, 3, 2, 3 3) 2, 2, 3, 3 4) 3, 3, 2, 2
78. On passing H2S gas into a solution containing both Cu2+ and Zn2+ ions in acidic medium , only
CuS gets precipitated. This is because
1) CuS more stable than ZnS 2) Ksp of CuS = Ksp of Zns

3) Ksp of CuS < Ksp of ZnS 4) Ksp CuS > Ksp of ZnS
79. If the total energy of an electron in H - atom is - 3.4 eV then the kinetic energy and potential
energy are respectively
1) 6.8eV, -3.4eV 2) 6.8eV, 3.4eV 3) 3.4eV, -6.8eV 4) 3.4eV, -3.4eV
ROUGH
80. The molecular formula of carbon compound X is C4H10O. It liberates hydrogen gas with Na
metal and gives turbidity immediately with Lucas Reagent. If the vapours of X are passed
over hot copper the product obtained is
1) CH 3 CH 2 O CH 2 CH 3 2) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHO
CH3 C CH 2 CH3
3) 4) CH 3 C CH 2
O CH 3
81. The value of K P for the equillibrium of the reaction N 2O4 g 2 NO2 g is 2. Calculate the
percentage dissociation of N 2O4 at a pressure of 0.5 atm
1) 71 2) 50 3) 25 4) 88
82. The pH of 1010 M Mg OH 2 solution will be
1) 10 2) 6 3) 4 4) 7.001
83. Consider the following reactions at 1000C
1
ZnO s ; G 360 KJ mole 1
1) Zn s O2 g
2
1
CO g ; G 460 KJ mole 1
2) C s O2 g
2
Choose the correct statement at 1000C
1) Zinc can be oxidised by CO 2) Zinc oxide can be reduced by C
3) Zinc can be reduced by CO 4) Zinc can be reduced by C
84. Copper matte contains
1) Cu2 S and Cu2O 2) Cu2O and FeS 3) Cu2 S and FeO 4) Cu2 S and FeS
x
85. In an adsorption experiment a graph between log vs log P is found to be linear with a slope
m
x
of 45 . The Y - intercept was found to be 0.3010. What is if pressure is 6 bar (tan 45 1
m
and 0.3010 = log 2)
1) 0.6 2) 2.8 3) 6 4) 12
ROUGH
86. 0.303 grams of an organic compound was analysed for nitrogen by Kjeldahl's method. The
ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50ml of 0.1N H 2 SO4 . The excess acid required 25ml of 0.1N
NaOH for neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound
1) 11.55% 2) 23.3% 3) 44.6% 4) 18.4%
87. The Vanderwaals constant b is.times volume of the molecule
1) 4 2) 5 3) 2 4) 10
88. Which one of the following statements is correct
1) Chloroxylenol is a tranquilizer 2) Sucralose is an antiseptic
3) Prontosil is an antimicrobial 4) Seconal is an antipyretic
89. The number of unpaired electrons present in the first excited state of chlorine atom is
1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2
90. The total number of antibonding electrons in N 2 and O2 molecules respectively is

1) 4, 8 2) 4, 6 3) 6, 8 4) 5, 8
ROUGH
91. The following group of plants belong to how many families?
Lupin, Ashwagandha, Tulip, Tobacco, Petunia, Trifolium, Brinjal, Gloriosa
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 8
92. Choose the incorrect match regarding ETS of Respiration for one Glucose molecule
1) Cofactors oxidized NADH 2 and FADH 2 12

2) Number of water molecules produced in ETS 12
3) Complexes involved in transfer of electrons 4
4) Oxygen atoms utilized in ETS 6
93. A canary grass seedling is exposed to light. Which one of the diagram given below best describes
the condition of the coleoptiles tip at the end of the experiment ?
1) 2) 3) 4)
94. Choose the correct set of statements about Lac operon

1) Operator lies upstream to structural genes
2) Lactose is the inducer
3) Repressor is a protein which binds to the operator
4) All the above
95. Choose the mismatch
1) Single cell protein Spirulina, Chlorella 2) Medicinal plants Arnica, Cinchona
3) Food for astronauts Chlorella 4) Petroplants Datura, Digitalis
96. Immuno suppressive agent cyclosporin A is produced by
1) Monascus purpureus 2) Streptococcus
3) Trichoderma polysporum 4) Propionibacterium sharmanii
97. Given in the diagram shows at a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis
maximum crossing over will occur between genes
1) A and a, D and d 2) C and d, c and D 3) B and c, b and C 4) A and d, a and D

98. T.W. Engelmanns experimental plant for his discovery of first action spectrum of photosynthesis
is
1) Azatobacter 2) Chlorella 3) Cladophora 4) Chlamydomonas
99. What is the ratio of total number of floral leaves in one flower of Pisum to one flower of Allium?
1) 5 : 6 2) 4 : 5 3) 7 : 5 4) 4 : 3
100. Radial, Collateral, and Bicollateral vascular bundles are present respectively in anatomy of
1) Dicot and Monocot roots, dicot and monocot stem, and cucurbita stems
2) Dicot and Monocot stem, dicot and monocot root and cucurbita stem
3) Dicot and Monocot Root, cucurbita stem , dicot and Monocot stem
4) Dicot and monocot stem, cucurbita stems and Dicot and monocot root
101. Osmosis in involved in
1) Ascent of sap in xylem vessels
2) Translocation of sucrose in sieve tube elements
3) Turgidity and flaccidity of guard cells
4) Loss of water vapour into atmosphere from sub stomatal cavity
102. Statement - I : The initial appearance of deficiency symptoms is related to mobility of elements
in plant system
Statement - II : Deficiency symptoms first appear in senescent leaves and young leaves for
mobile and immobile elements respectively
1) Statement I and II both are correct
2) Statement I is correct, statement II is wrong
3) Statement II is correct, statement I is wrong
4) Statement I and II both are wrong
103. First pair of enzymes catalysic the transfer of groups and second pair of enzyme catalyse
breakdown/ removal of groups from substrate. What would be the correct options ?
Transfer Removal
1) Oxidoreductases and transferases Hydrolases and Lyases
2) Oxidoreductases and transferases Hydrolases and Ligases
3) Hydrolases and Ligases Oxidoreductases and transferases
4) Oxidoreductases and transferases Ligases and Lyases
104. A round and yellow plant is crossed to a round and green plant and progeny produced have all
four phenotypes in 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 ratio (round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow, wrinkled green)
respectively. Predict the genotypes of parents and choose the correct option.
1) RrYY RRyy 2) RrYy Rryy 3) RRYy Rryy 4) RRyy RRyy
105. Two genera are given below. In the genus A, its aerial roots possess multilayered dead epidermis
with chlorenchymatous cortex. In the genus B, a whorl of leaves at each node possess multilayered
epidermis with well developed chlorenchymatous palisade tissue on both sides of leaf. The two
genera A and B respectively
1) Pisum and Taeniophyllum 2) Nerium and Pisum
3) Ficus and Taeniophyllum 4) Taeniophyllum and Nerium
106. The common character observed in members of Inferae, Heteromerae and Bicarpellatae in
Bentham and Hookers classification is
1) Inferior ovary 2) Superior ovary 3) Free petals 4) Fused petals
107. A cell organelle "A" produce polysaccharides, glycoproteins and glycolipids. A cell organelle
"B" oxidize carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids and help in release of energy. A & B cell
organelles respectively are
1) Golgi complex and Endoplasmic reticulum 2) Golgi complex and Mitochondria
3) E. R and Chloroplasts 4) E.R and Mitochondria
108. A vascular element "A" is dead, cylindrical, lignified and conduct substances due to a negative
pressure created in it due to transpiratory pull. A vascular element "B" is living, cylindrical,
non lignified, enucleated and conduct substances due to a positive pressure created in it. A &
B conducting elements respectively are
1) Xylem parenchyma & Sieve tubes 2) Xylem vessels & Sieve tubes
3) Sieve tubes & Xylem tracheids 4) Sieve tubes & Xylem vessels
109. An enzymatic reaction format occurring in respiration is given below
A B
C D
A = six carbon aldose sugar
B = Nucleotide called energy currency
C = Hexose 6 phosphate
With the information provided to you, what could be the enzyme catalysing the above reaction
and its enzyme code
1) Malic dehydrogenase, 2.7.1.2 2) Fructose 1, 6 di kinase, 2.7.1.2
3) Glucose isomerase, 2.7.1.2 4) Hexokinase, 2.7.1.2
110. Linkage is exhibited by
1) Genes that are located on homologous chromosomes
2) Genes that are located on same chromosome
3) Alleles of the same gene located on homologous chromosomes
4) Genes that are located on non homologous chromosomes
111. Choose the correct match
1) Probiotics - Salmonella, Methanobacillus
2) Biofertilisers - Spirulina, Chlorella
3) Therapeutic chemicals - Clostridium, Aspergillus
4) Bio control - Trichoderma, NPV, Dragon fly
1) Oxalis, strawberry Runner Rooted at each node
2) Pistia, Eichhornia Offsets One internodal length branch with respiratory
roots and leaves at a node
3) Nerium, Jasminium Stolon Axillary branch bending downwards
4) Chrysanthemum, Ananas Suckers Underground branch moving upwards
113. Pick the wrong match
Placentation Placenta Example
1) Marginal Margins of ventral suture Pisum
2) Axial Axis formed due to fusion of many ventral sutures Hibiscus
3) Free central Central axis with bilocular or multilocular condition Dianthus
4) Parietal Inner wall of the ovary Argemone
1) Rhizopus Asexual endogenous sporangiospores Bread preparation
2) Chlamydomonas Motile asexual zoospores Biflagellated gametes
3) Penicillium Asexual exogenous conidiospores Roquefort cheese and antibiotic
4) Cladophora Isogamy Biflagellated gametes
115. Bacterial transformation is
1) Discovered by F. Griffith in Streptococcus pneumoniae
2) Absorption of DNA from surroundings to recipient cell
3) Artificially induced by changing the permeability of host cell
4) All the above are correct
116. Choose the palindromic sequence in the following
1) 5' ACGTAC 3' 2) 5' GACCAG 3' 3) 5' AACGTC 3' 4) 5' ATTACG 3'
3' TGCATG 5' 3' CTGGTC 5' 3' TTGCAG 5' 3' TAATGC 5'
117. Plant 'A' exhibit apocarpy with many free carpels on conical thalamus. Plant 'B' exhibit syncarpy
and is without style. Plant C exhibit syncarpy with five free stigmas. A, B and C respectively are
1) Michelia, Papaver, Hibiscus 2) Papaver, Michelia, Hibiscus
3) Hibiscus, Papaver, Michelia 4) Michelia, Hibiscus, Papaver
118. Read the following four statements and pick the incorrect match
1) Herbarium - Preserve only plant specimens
2) Museum - Preserve both plant and animal specimens in preservative solutions or in dry conditions
3) Botanical gardens - Live plant specimens grown for the purpose of identification
4) Manual - Information about any one taxon
119. Choose the incorrect match
Genus Fruit Edible part
1) Annona (Annonaceae) Aggregate of berries Mesocarp and endocarp of fruitlet
2) Ananas (Bromeliaceae) Sorosis Peduncle, fleshy bracts
3) Artocarpus (Moraceae) Syconus Fleshy perianth
4) Pyrus (Rosaceae) Pome Fleshy thalamus
120. A linear double stranded DNA and a circular double stranded DNA, each with 4 target sites for
a particular restriction endonuclease were cleaved with that enzyme. The number of fragments
generated from linear and circular DNA respectively
1) 5 & 5 2) 5 & 4 3) 4 & 4 4) 4 & 5
121. The ratio between the number of male gametes and that of female gametes produced due to one
meiotic division occurring in their respective spore mother cells is
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 8 : 1 4) 2 : 7
122. One of the following is not a benefit of symbiotic association of fungus namely Glomus in
plants. What is it ?
1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil 2) Resistance to root - borne pathogens
3) Tolerance to salinity and drought 4) Nitrogen fixation
123. Choose the correct matches from the following
1) Red colour of Red sea - Trichodesmium
2) Red tides in Mediterranean sea - Gonyaulax
3) Red colour of red algae - r. phycoerythrin
4) All the above
124. Choose the correct sequence of genera that are characterised by palmella stage, coenobium,
kelp body and strobilus respectively
1) Spirulina, Volvox, Fucus, Pinus 2) Euglena, Volvox, Fucus, Equisetum
3) Amoeba, Slime mould, Porphyra, Annona 4) Chara, Funaria, Adiantum, Cycas
125. Assign the floral diagrams and floral formula to their respective families
C
K 5C5 A5 G 2
1) A-Brassicaceae B- Fabaceae C- Liliaceae 2) A - Solanaceae, B- Fabaceae, C- Brassicaceae

3) A- Liliaceae, B- Fabaceae, C- Solanaceae 4) A- Liliaceae, B - Fabaceae, C- Brassicaceae
126. N- terminal and C- terminal ends are present in macromolecule A, reducing end and non reducing
end are found in B, and 5' end and 3' end are found in macromolecule C. What does A, B, C
respectively represent?
1) Polysaccharides Proteins DNA
2) Collagen Cellulose RNA
3) Chitin DNA Haemoglobin
4) Triglycerides Polysaccharides Nucleic acids
127. Permanent tissues may undergo ______ while secondary meristem form secondary permanent
tissues by ____
1) Differentiation, Redifferentiation 2) Differentiation, Dedifferentiation
3) Dedifferentiation, Redifferentiation 4) Redifferentiation, Differentiation
128. Sexual reproduction method in bacteria that provides the basis for understanding DNA as genetic
material
1) Binary fission 2) Transformation 3) Conjugation 4) Transduction
129. What would be the ratio of number of ATP molecules required for the production of two molecules
of NH3 in biological nitrogen fixation, six RUBP in regeneration phase of Calvin cycle and one
molecule of fructose 1, 6 diphosphate in glycolysis.
1) 4 : 3 : 1 2) 4 : 6 : 1 3) 8 : 9 : 1 4) 16 : 6 : 0
130. The ratio of megasporophylls of modified reproductive shoots of mustard, pea, makoi and onion
plants is
1) 6 : 10 : 5 : 6 2) 4 : 5 : 5 : 3 3) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3 4) 16 : 21 : 17 : 15
131. A four carbon dicarboxylic acid that is an intermediate of C 4 pathway, CAM pathway and
Kreb's cycle is
1) Aspartic acid 2) Oxalosuccinic acid 3) Malic acid 4) Succinic acid
132. A free floating hydrophyte with subaerial stem modification and a succulent xerophyte with
aerial stem modification respectively are
1) Musa, Bryophyllum 2) Chrysanthemum, Casuarina
3) Eichhornea, Opuntia 4) Dioscorea, Asparagus
133. Succession that starts on a bare rock is an example for
1) Primary succession 2) Lithosere 3) Xerosere 4) All the above
134. Plant physiologist among the following scientists is
1) Carolus Von Linnaeus 2) G..N. Ramachandran
3) Sir J.C. Bose 4) M.S. Swaminathan
135. A genus with woody unbranched stem, spadix inflorescence, single seeded drupe fruit and
endospermic seed is
1) Mangifera 2) Colacasia 3) Ricinus 4) Cocos
136. Given below is a pie chart showing relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total
global warming. What gases to the four portions (A D) represent respectively?
A B C D
(1) Carbon dioxide CFCs Methane N2O
(2) Carbon dioxide Methane N2O CFCs
(3) Carbon dioxide Methane CFCs N2O
(4) Methane Carbon dioxide CFCs N2O
137. Coat colour in mouse (albino, agouti and black) is an example for
(1) Recessive epistasis (2) Dominant epistasis
(3) Complementary genes (4) Inhibitory genes
138. An example of in situ conservation is

(1) Seed bank (2) Zoological park
(3) In vitro fertilization (4) Sacred groove
139. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called
(1) Vulnerable species (2) Critically endangered species
(3) Endemic species (4) Extinct species
140. Which of the following is an extinct subspecies of plains zebra that lived in South Africa
until the 19th century?
(1) Quagga (2) Thylacine (3) Caspian (4) Dodo
141. Select the taxon mentioned that represents only marine species.
(1) Porifera (2) Cnidaria (3) Ctenophora (4) Arthropoda
142. Hypostome is present in

(1) Planaria (2) Obelia (3) Aplysia (4) Euspongia
143. A marine cartilaginous fish that possesses a poison sting is

(1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (3) Labeo (4) Trygon
Rough Work
144. Mark the correct statement about ozone.
(1) Bad ozone is formed in the troposphere whereas good ozone is found in the ionosphere.
(2) Bad ozone is formed in the mesosphere whereas good ozone is found in the thermosphere.
(3) Bad ozone is formed in the stratosphere whereas good ozone is found in the troposphere.
(4) Bad ozone is formed in the troposphere whereas good ozone is found in the stratosphere.

(1) Specialised connective tissue areolar tissue
(2) Dense regular connective tissue tendon
(3) Loose connective tissue cartilage
(4) Fluid connective tissue bone
146. The following oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curves explain the effect of pH on oxygen-
affinity of haemoglobin. Find out option that gives the correct descending order of pH for
X, Y and Z.
(1) Z>Y>X (2) X>Z>Y (3) Y>X>Z (4) X>Y>Z

(1) Columnar epithelium proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(2) Cuboidal epithelium mucosa of stomach and intestine
(3) Squamous epithelium alveoli of lungs
(4) Compound epithelium bronchioles
148. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called
(1) Facilitated transport (2) Active transport
(3) Simple diffusion (4) Co-transport
Rough Work
149. About seven percent of carbon dioxide is transported to the lungs
(1) As carbamino compounds through RBC
(2) In a dissolved state through the plasma
(3) As bicarbonate ions through RBC
(4) As bicarbonate ions through the plasma
150. A person with O type blood is considered universal donor because he has
(1) Both anti-Aand anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma and has Aand B antigens on his RBC
(2) Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma
(3) Neither A nor B antigens on his RBC
(4) Both A and B antigens on his RBC
151. Which enzymes are likely to act on sweet potatoes eaten by a man, starting from mouth as it
moves down the alimentary canal?
(1) Maltase Amylase Lactase
(2) Lipase Trypsin Aminopeptidase
(3) Salivary amylase Trypsin Invertase
(4) Salivary amylase Pancreatic amylase Maltase
152. Muscles that help in the blood circulation in cockroach are

(1) Alary muscles (2) Dorsal longitudinal muscles
(3) Dorsoventral muscles (4) Ventral longitudinal muscles
153. The following figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it along with its characteristic.
Blood cell Characteristic

(1) Basophil Involved in inflammatory reactions
(2) Neutrophil The most abundant cells of total WBC
(3) Lymphocyte Responsible for immune responses of the body
(3) Monocyte Phagocytic and destroy foreign organisms
154. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system:
(1) Fibrous joint - between adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column
(2) Cartilaginous joint sutures between the cranial bones
(3) Pivot joint between carpal bones in the wrist
(4) Saddle joint between carpal and metacarpal of the thumb
Rough Work
155. Identify the correct matching of a hormone with its source and function.
(1) PTH Parathyroid glands; decreases calcium levels in the blood
(2) Melatonin Pituitary gland; maintains sleep-wake cycle
(3) Cortisol adrenal cortex; carbohydrate metabolism
(4) Renin JG cells of efferent arteriole; increases GFR
156. Hypoglycemia stimulates the secretion of

(1) Glucagon from beta cells It stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
(2) Glucagon from alpha cells It stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
157. Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches.

(1) The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the belly-
side part of its body.
(2) Males bear a pair of short, thread-like anal cerci which are absent in females.
(3) The mesothoracic wings are transparent, membranous and are used in flight.
(4) Malpighian tubules remove urea from the haemolymph and release it into the
hindgut.
158. Hormones produced in women only during pregnancy are

(1) Oestrogen, progesterone, FSH and LH
(2) hCG, oxytocin and prolactin
(3) Relaxin, oxytocin and progesterone
(4) Human chorionic gonadotropin, human placental lactogen and relaxin
159. Which of the following is a contraceptive that contains progesterone?

(1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload-375 (3) Saheli (4) Lippes loop
160. Active sites are unmasked when calcium binds with a subunit of
(1) Troponin (2) Tropomyosin (3) Actin (4) Myosin
161. A localized injury to the hypothalamus is not likely to affect

(1) Eating (2) Drinking (3) Breathing (4) Body temperature
162. Assisted reproductive technology, GIFT involves transfer of

(1) Ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another woman who cannot produce one.
(2) The zygote into the fallopian tube.
(3) The early embryos with upto 8 blastomeres into the uterus.
(4) Sperm from husband or a donor into the cytoplasm of the ovum.
Rough Work
163. A colour-blind man whose father was normal, marries a normal woman whose father was
colour-blind. What percentage of the children of this couple are likely to be colour-blind?
(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%
164. In a population of 10,000 individuals, 6,400 individuals are of the genotype AA, 3,200
individuals are of the genotype Aa and the remaining individuals are of the genotype aa.
Based on this data, the frequency of the allele A in the population is
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.8
165. A human with Downs syndrome

(1) Has the karyotype 47,XXY
(2) Has an additional copy of chromosome 21
(3) Lacks one X chromosome and has rudimentary ovaries
(4) Lacks one chromosome in the 21st pair
166. The sequencing and annotation of chromosome 1, the largest chromosome in the human
genome, was completed in the year
(1) 2006 (2) 2003 (3) 2005 (4) 1990
167. Eyes of octopus and of mammals are an example of

(1) Vestigial organs (2) Homologous organs
(3) Adaptive radiation (4) Analogous organs
168. Which drug is extracted from the plant shown below?
(1) Marijuana (2) Morphine (3) Cocaine (4) LSD
169. It is imperative, for the physical and psychological well-being, that the HIV/AIDS infected
persons are not isolated from family and society because
(1) There is always a time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms.
(2) HIV is not spread by mere touch; it spreads only through body fluids.
(3) Anti-retroviral drugs are available to cure the disease effectively.
(4) AIDS is only a congenital disease and cannot be acquired during the life of a person.
Rough Work
170. Which of the following is an example of escape in time from stressful environmental
conditions?
(1) A person moving from Delhi to Shimla for the duration of summer.
(2) Change of the osmotic concentration of the body fluids in aquatic animals when the
ambient water osmotic concentration changes.
(3) Siberian cranes migrating to Keolado National Park in Rajasthan every winter.
(4) Many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds entering diapause under unvavourable
conditions.
171. The random unidirectional change in allelic frequencies that occurs by chance, especially in
small populations is called
(1) Mutation (2) Genetic recombination
(3) Natural selection (4) Genetic drift
172. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about
(1) 30% (2) 50% (3) 10% (4) 60%
173. Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?

(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (2) Presence of adhesive organs
(3) Loss of reproductive capacity (4) Loss of digestive system
174. Which of the following are barrier methods of contraception?

(1) Condoms and intrauterine devices
(2) Condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults
(3) Lippes loop, multiload-375, vaults and cervical caps
(4) Vasectomy, tubectomy and coitus interruptus
175. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Scala media is filled with endolymph.
(2) At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at the oval window.
(3) Ampulla contains a projecting ridge called macula.
(4) Organ of Corti contains hair cells covered by a tectorial membrane.
176. The foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of

(1) Oxytocin from the maternal pituitary (2) Oxytocin from the foetal pituitary
(3) hCG from the placenta (4) hPL from the placenta
Rough Work
177. Given below is a simplified model of nitrogen cycle in an ecosystem with three blanks labelled
X, Y and Z. Identify the blanks.
Options:
X Y Z
(1) NH3 NO3 NO2
(2) N2 NO2 NO3
(3) NH3 NO2 NO3
(4) NO3 NO2 NH3
178. The vehicular emission control device that converts carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide is
(1) Scrubber (2) Catalytic converter
(3) Electrostatic precipitator (4) Incinerator
179. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to
peacock as food in the following chain?
Plant Mice Snake Peacock
(1) 2 J (2) 0.2 J (3) 0.02 J (4) 0.002 J
180. Renal pyramids contain

(1) Proximal convoluted tubules (2) Malpighian corpuscles
(3) Distal convoluted tubules (4) Loops of Henle
Rough Work
NEET PAPER -1 KEY SHEET
PHYSICS
1) 2 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1 5) 1 6) 4 7) 2 8) 3 9) 2 10) 2
11) 2 12) 2 13) 1 14) 4 15) 3 16) 4 17) 4 18) 2 19) 4 20) 1
21) 4 22) 3 23) 3 24) 1 25) 2 26) 3 27) 4 28) 4 29) 4 30) 4
31) 3 32) 1 33) 2 34) 1 35) 4 36) 1 37) 4 38) 3 39) 1 40) 2
41) 3 42) 1 43) 1 44) 1 45) 4

CHEMISTRY
46) 2 47) 1 48) 3 49) 1 50) 2 51) 3 52) 3 53) 4 54) 4 55) 2
56) 3 57) 2 58) 1 59) 2 60) 3 61) 4 62) 1 63) 1 64) 3 65) 4
66) 2 67) 3 68) 2 69) 2 70) 1 71) 2 72) 2 73) 1 74) 3 75) 4
76) 4 77) 2 78) 3 79) 3 80) 4 81) 1 82) 4 83) 2 84) 4 85) 4
86) 1 87) 1 88) 3 89) 2 90) 2

BOTANY
91) 1 92) 4 93) 2 94) 4 95) 4 96) 3 97) 4 98) 3 99) 3 100) 1
101) 3 102) 1 103) 1 104) 2 105) 4 106) 4 107) 2 108) 2 109) 4 110) 2
111) 1 112) 2 113) 3 114) 1 115) 4 116) 3 117) 1 118) 4 119) 3 120) 2
121) 3 122) 4 123) 4 124) 2 125) 3 126) 2 127) 3 128) 2 129) 3 130) 3
131) 3 132) 3 133) 4 134) 3 135) 4

ZOOLOGY
136) 3 137) 1 138) 4 139) 2 140) 1 141) 3 142) 2 143) 4 144) 4 145) 2
146) 4 147) 3 148) 1 149) 2 150) 3 151) 4 152) 1 153) 2 154) 4 155) 3
156) 2 157) 1 158) 4 159) 1 160) 1 161) 3 162) 1 163) 3 164) 4 165) 2
166) 1 167) 4 168) 2 169) 2 170) 4 171) 4 172) 1 173) 3 174) 2 175) 3
176) 1 177) 3 178) 2 179) 2 180) 4

NEET MODEL PAPER
PHYSICS
Pattern of the Entrance Test:-

1) The Entrance Test shall consist of one paper containing 180 objective type questions (four
options with single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology) to
be answered on the specially designed machine-gradable sheet using Ball Point Pen only. The
duration of paper would be 03 hours
2) Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response one mark will be deducted from the total score.
h
1. The dimensions of are same as that of (where h = planck's constant and e = charge)
e
1) Magnetic field induction 2) Magnetic flux
3) Electric field strength 4) Elctric flux
2. A block A is pulled on a smooth horizontal plane with a rope which moves with velocity
as shown in figure. The velocity of the block on the plane 'u' is
u
smooth
1) cos ec 2) s in 3) cos 4) sec
ROUGH
3.
Find the value of p so that 2i j k , i 2 j 3k and 3i pj 5k may be coplanar
1) -8 2) -4 3) 2 4) 4
4. A stationary body of mass 3kg explodes into three equal pieces. Two of the pieces fly off at
at right angles to each other, one with a velocity 2i ms1 and the other with a velocity
3 j ms1. If the explosion takes plece in 105s, the average force acting on the third piece
in newton is
1) 2i 3 j 10 2) 2i 3 j 10 3) 3 j 2i 10 4) 2i 3 j 10
5 5 5 5
5. A small particle of mass m is released from rest from point A on frictionless hemispheri-
cal bowl as shown in figure. The ratio of magnitude of centripetal force and normal reaciton
on the particle at any point B is
A O

R
B
1) 2/3 2) 1/2 3) 2/3 4) 4/5
6. A body is projected up a smooth inclined plane with velocity u from the point A as shown
in fig. The height of the inclined plane is 5.4m and the top of the inclind plane is con-
nected to a well of diameter 3.6m. the body just manages to cross the well. The value of
u is ( g= 10ms2)
u 5.4m
450
3.6m
1) 20ms1 2) 12ms1 3) 30ms1 4)54ms 1
ROUGH
7. Two blocks, A of mass 1kg and another B of mass 2kg are shown in figure. A force of 5N is
applied on A. Coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 and that between B and hori-
zontal surface is zero. Find the time taken for the front face of A to coincide with that of B:
4cm
A 5N
B
8cm
8 3
1) 2s 2) s 3) s 4) 0.2s
3 8
8. When a body is moving vertically up with constant velocity, then match the following
Column-I Column -II
1) Work done by lifting force is A) Negative
2) Total work done byall the forces is B) Positive
3) Work done by gravity C) Zero
4) Work done by lifting force + work done by gravity D) Higher positive values
1) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - C 2) 1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - A
3) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D 4) 1 - A, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
9. A ladder of length 6m and mass 40kg rests with its upper end against a smooth wall and
lower end on rough ground. Find the minimum coefficient of friction between the ground
and the ladder so that the ladder does not slip if the ladder makes an angel of 600 with the
horizontal ( take g =10ms2)
1 3 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2 2 3
10. During the vapourization of some amount of water at 373K at atmospheric pressure which
of the following statements is correct ?
a) Work is done by the steam water system on the atmosphere
b) Work is done on the steam water system by the atmosphere
c) The internal energy of the steam water system increases
d) The internal energy of the steam water system decreases
1. a, c only 2. b, d only 3. b, c only 4. a, d only
ROUGH
11. Which of the following is not correct about the centre of mass?
1) It depends on the frame of reference
2) The angular momentum of a system about the centre of mass is always zero
3) Internal forces do not affect the motion of centre of mass
4) Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre of gravity
12. Two billiard balls of the same size (radius r ) and same mass are in contact on a billiard
table. A third ball also of the same size and mass strikes them symmetrically and remains
at rest after the impact. The coefficient of restitution between the balls is
1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 1/2 4) 3/4
13. Find the ratio of energy required to raise a satellite upto a height R (radius of earth)
from the surface of earth to that required to put it into an orbit at that height.
3 4 3
1) 2/3 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4
14. A wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. When a weight W is hanged from its
lower end, in air, the wire extends by 16cm. When the weigth is completely immersed in
water, the extension reduces to 12cm. Then the relative density of the material of the
weigth is
1) 5gcm3 2) 8gcm3 3) 4gcm3 4) 6gcm3
15. A small block of wood of specific gravity 0.4 is submerged at a depth of 1.6m in a con-
g
tainer containing water. The container is accelerated upward with an aceleration .
3
Then the time taken by the block to reach the surface when released with zero initial
velocity is
1) 0.4s 2) 0.5s 3) 0.1s 4) 0.2s
16. When a liquid is poured, it insists to runs down the side of the can instead of falling
straight down from the tip as shown in fig. This can be explained by
1) Viscosity 2) Surface tension

3) Bernoulli's principle 4) Newton's third law of motion
ROUGH
2
17. A flask with open mouth contains air at 270C. Find the temperature at which th mass of
5
the air escapes the flask.
1) 2270C 2) 3000C 3) 2460C 4) 2730C
18. Three rods A, B and C made of the same material and having the same cross-section have
lengths 10cm, 20cm and 10cm respectively. Their ends are at temperatures 600C, 600C
and 00C as shown. Then the temperature of the junction D is
600C
A
10cm
C
B
0
0C 10cm D 600C
20cm
1) 300C 2) 360C 3) 500C 4) 400C

19. Three moles of an ideal monoatomic gas perform on cycle as shown. The gas tempera-
t ur es i n dif f er ent st at es ar e T 1= 400K, T2= 800K, T3= 2400K & T4=1200K. The work
done by the gas during the cycles is approximately.
P
2 3
1
4
T
O
1) 10kJ 2) 20kJ 3) 30kJ 4) 15kJ

20. Assertion (A): Mean free path of the molecule of a gas varies inversely as the density of
the gas
Reason (R): Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas.
21. A particle performs SHM with a period of 16s. At time t=2s, the particle passes through
origin (MP), while at t=4s, its velocity is 4ms-1. Its amplitude is ______
32 2 16 3 24 2 16
1) 2) 3) 2 4)
2
ROUGH
22. Speed of sound is 320m/s and frequency of sound wave entering at A is 500Hz. No sound is
heard at B as shown in fig. Then the length of the curved path curved path CDE may be
C
E
A B
1) 16cm 2) 32cm 3) 48cm 4) 88cm

23. A radar sends a radio signal of frequency 9 109 Hz towards an aircraft approaching the
radar. If the reflected wave shows a frequency shift of 3 103 Hz, the speed with which the
aircraft is approaching the radar in ms1 [ Velocity of the radio signal = 3X108ms1]
1) 150 2) 100 3) 50 4) 25
24. Two similar charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make
an angle of 300 with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8gm/cc, the
angle remains the same. What is the dielectric constant of the liquid ? Given density of
material of the spheres =1.6gm/cc.
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5
25. The equipotential lines and their positions in x y plane are shown in figure. Find electric
field internsity in this region
4V 8V 12V
300 30 0 30 0
5cm 10cm 15cm x
1) 140 V/m 2) 160 V/m 3) 120 V/m 4) 180 V/m

26. An electrical dipole is placed at the origin and is directed along the x-axis At a point P,
far away from the dipole, the electric field is parallel to the y- axis. OP makes an angle
with the x- axis then
1
1) tan 3 2) tan 2 3) 450 4) tan
2
ROUGH
27. The LED, i.e., light emitting diode
a) is made from Ge or Si b) is made from Ga As P
c) is forward biased d) is reverse biased
1) a and b are correct 2) b and c are correct
3) a, b and c are correct 4) a, b and d are correct
28. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 and respectively. If
initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1
to that of X2 will be 1/e after a time of
1 1 11 1
1) 10 2) 11 3) 10 4) 9
29. Assertion (A): Free electrons in conductors do not acquire infinite velocity even after
eE
infinite time though acceleration is a .
m
Reason (R): The velocity acquired by them becomes zero after every collision with the
lattice sites
30. Resistance of potentiometer wire AB is 10 . This is in series with a battery of 5V and a
resistance R 40 . The length of the potentiometer wire is 5m. The null point is obtained
at 2m from the end A . Find emf 'E'.
5V
R 40
D
A B
1) 2V 2) 0.2V 3) 20mV 4) 0.4V

31. A tightly wound long solenoid of the radius r metre and number of turns per metre equal
to n, carries a current of i amp. A paticle of mass m and charge q projected from a point on
its axis in a direction at right angle to its axis. Find the maximum velocity of the particle
so that it may not touch the solenoid
0 nqri 0 nqri 0 mnri 0 riq
1) 2) 3) 4)
m 4m 2 2mn
ROUGH
32. A galvanometer of 25 resistance can read a maximum currect of 6mA. It can be used as
a voltmeter to measure maximum of 6V by connecting a resistance to the galvanometer.
Identify the correct choice in the given answers.
1) 1025 in series 2) 1025 in parallel 3) 975 in series 4) 975 in parallel
33. When a current is passed in a circular coil, neutral point is found to be at its centre and
BH at that place is 0.32 104 T . What will be the resultant magnetic field at the centre
when the plane of the coil is turned though 900 ?
1) 0.32 104 T 2) 0.64 104 T 3) 0.45 104 T 4) 0.16 104 T
34. The material suitable for making electromagnets should have:
1) High retentivity and high coercivity 2) Low retentivity and high coercivity
3) High retentivity and low coercivity 4) Low retentivity and low coercivity
35. The loop PQ, as shwon in figure moves with a velocity . Both loop and velocity are in the

plane of paper and a magnetic field B exists in the region perpendicular to plane and
directed inward. Find the emf induced between P and Q.
x x x x x x x
v
x x x x x x x
r
x x x x x x x
P
a A C
b
Q
x x x x x x x
1) B 2r 2) B a b 2r 3) B a b r 4) B r
36. In ac a.c circuit, the current flowing is i 5sin 100t / 2 A and the potential difference
is V 200sin 100t V . The power consumption is equal to
1) 100W 2) 40W 3) 20W 4) 0W
ROUGH
37. In the given circuit each one of the diodes D1 and D2 has forward resistance of 40 ohm and
infinite backward resistance. Each one of the ammeters A1, A2 and A3 has internal resistance
5ohm. The readings of A1A2 and A3 are respectively
A3
D1 50
75
A2
D2
100
A1
12V
1) 0.06A, Zero, 0.04A 2) Zero, 0.08A, 0.03A

3) 0.06A, Zero, 0.06A 4) 0.03A, 0.08A, Zero
V
38. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is given by Ex= 0, E y =2.5
m
[cos 2 106 rads 1 t 10 2 m 1 x] , Ez = 0, The wave is
3) Moving along -x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m
4) Moving along y-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m
39. An object is placed at a distance of 60cm from the lens. A convex mirror is placed as
shown. The image thus formed coincides with the object. The focal length of the lens and
mirror are 20cm and 12cm respectively. Find the distance between the lens and the convex
mirror
f=12cm
60cm
1) 6cm 2) 12cm 3) 24cm 4) 30cm

40. A driver uses a lens of power 1.25D for driving a car . The distance of far point of his eye
is:
1) 125cm 2) 62.5cm 3) 80cm 4) 150cm
ROUGH
41. Modulation is required to
a) Distinguish different transmissions
b) Ensure that the information may be transmitted over long distances
c) Allow the information accessible for different people
1) a and b are true 2) b and c are true 3) c and a are true 4) a, b and c are true
42. A source emits electromagnetic waves of wavelength 3m. One beam reaches the observer
directly and other after reflection from a water surface, travelling 1.5m extra distance
and with intensity reduced to 1/4 as compared to intensity due to the direct beam alone.
The resultant intensity will be
1) (1/4) fold 2) (3/4) fold 3) (5/4) fold 4) (9/4) fold
43. A particle of mass m at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2 having non
1
zero velocities. The ratio of de broglie wavelengths of the particles is
2
m1 m2 m2
1) m 2) m 3) 1 4) m1
2 1
44. What is the force exerted by a photon of intensity 1.4kWm2, if it falls on a perfect absorber
of radius 2 metre?
1) 5.88 105 N 2) 108 N 3) 8.35 10 4 N 4) 8.8 108 N
45. If the series limit of lymen series for hydrogen atom is equal to the series limit of Balmer
series for a hydrogen like atom, then atomic number of this hydrogen like atom is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 8
ROUGH
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following does not have spherical as well as angular node ?
1) 1s 2) 2p 3) 3d 4) 5f
47. Equal masses of H2and He gases mixed in vessel recorded a pressure of 7.5 atm. The
partial pressure of H2 is
1) 4.8 atm 2) 2.4 atm 3) 5 atm 4) 7.5 atm
48. pH of a solution is changed from 2 to 5. What has been done to the solution ?
1) 3 times dilution 2) 3 times concentration
3) 100 times concentration 4) 1000 times dilution
49. The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is 30.8 kJ mol-1 at its boiling point (80.10C).
Calculate the entropy change in the condensation process.
1) +87.3 JK-1 mol-1 2) -87.3 JK-1 mol-1 3) 240 JK-1 mol-1 4) -240 JK-1 mol-1
50. 2-3% gypsum is added to sample for
1) increasing hardness 2) decreasing setting time
3) increasing setting time 4) making is soft
51. AlCl3 and FeCl3 can be separated from their mixture by using
1) NH4OH 2) NaOH 3) H2O 4) magnetic method
52. Which of the following are correct w.r.t D2O?
1) It can be used as moderator 2) Its m.p. is 3.820C
3) Its b.p. is 101.420C 4) All of these
53. 0.5 molal aqueous solutions of each of NaCl, BaCl2 and AlCl3 have boiling points T1, T2
and T3 respectively. Which of the following is correct ?
1) T1 > T2 > T3 2) T3 > T2 > T1 3) T2 > T1 > T3 4) T1 > T3 > T2
54. i) P Q A fast
ii) A R B slow
iii) B Q S T fast
are the elementary steps of the reactions,
2P Q 2R S T
The rate law of the reaction is:
2 3
1) r = k [P] [Q] 2) r = k [P] [Q] [R] 3) r k P 1/2 Q R 1/3 4) r k P Q R
55. NH3 gives brown precipitate with Nesslers reagent. The formula of brown compound is :
1) K2HgI4 2) H 2 N Hg O Hg I
3) Ca 3P2 CaC2 4) NH 4 2 MoO 4
ROUGH
56. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal ?
1) XeF4 2) BF4 3) SF4 4) SiF4
57. If P 0 , the d4 is represented as
1 ) t 211 0
2g e g 2) t111 1
2g e g 3) t 02g e g22 4) t12g eg21
58. CuSO4. H2O is blue in colour but anhydrous CuSO4 is white though in both copper
exists as Cu2+ ion with one unpaired electron the reason is :
1) CuSO4 (anhydrous) absorbs white light 2) CuSO4 . 5H2O absorbs blue light
3) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4 (anhydrous) and absorption of orange red light
takes place
4) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4.5H2O and absorption of orange-red light takes place
59. Which one of the following elements, when present as an impurity in silicon makes it a
p-type semiconductor?
1) As 2) P 3) In 4) Sb
60. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of
1) CH 2 CH CH CH 2 and C6 H 5CH CH 2
2) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH CH CH 2
3) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH C CH 2
|
CH 3
Cl
|
4) CH 2 CH C CH 2 and CH 2 CH CH CH 2
61. 0.24 g of a volatile substance displaced 53.78 mL of air at STP. The molecular mass of the
of the substance is
1) 24g 2) 53.78g 3) 50g 4) 100g
ROUGH
62. A fixed mass of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and
back to K as shown
K L
P
N M
V
The pair of isochoric processes among the transformations of sates is

1) K to L and L to M 2) L to M and N to K 3) L to M and M to N 4) M to N and N to K
63. If fraction of space occupied in hcp is 'x' and in fcc is 'y', then
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x = y 4) uncertain
64. The energy of second Bohr's orbit in hydrogen atom is 328kJ mol1. The energy of the
third Bohr's orbit of H is
1) 583.11kJ mol1 2) 853.11kJ mol1 3) 145.78 kJ mol1 4) 511.83kJ mol1
65. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species ?
1) N 2 , O2 , NO , CO 2) C 22 ,O2 , CO, NO 3) NO , C 22 , CN , N 2 4) CN , N2 ,O22 ,C22
66. In which of the following the experimental dipole moment is more than what is expected
from theory ?
CH3 F Cl
CH3 OH Cl
1) 2) 3) 4) All of these
67. The reaction ,

15
C 6 H 6 (l ) O 2 g
6CO 2 g 3H 2 O(l ) is spontaneous, then which of the following is
2
correct ?
1) H TS 2) H TS 3) H TS 4) H 0 and S 0
68. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can be represented as
2AB2 g
2AB g B2 g
The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the
degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is
1) 2K p / P 2) 2K p / P 3) K p / P 4) 2K p / P
1/3 1/ 2
ROUGH
69. The pH of water at 298 K is 7.0. If water is heated to 350 K, then
1) pH will decrease, water will become acidic 2) pH will remain same
3) pH will increase, water wil remain neutral 3) pH will decrease, water will remain neutral
70. 1 mole of each of A and B form an ideal solution of vapour pressure 100 mm Hg. Addition
of 2 moles of B to it, decrease the vapour pressure by 20 mm Hg. Vapour pressures of A
and B in pure state are respectively
1) 100 and 100 mm Hg 2) 100 and 80 mm Hg
3) 60 and 140 mm Hg 4) 140 and 60 mm Hg
71. A 4.0 molar aqueous solutio of NaCl is prepared and 500mL of this solution is electrolysed.
This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes. The total number of
moles of chlorine gas evolveed is
1) 0.5 2) 1.0 3) 2.0 4) 3.0
72. For the given three cells, which of the following is correct?
a) Zn Zn 2 1.0M Cu 2 1.0M Cu; E1 b) Zn Zn 2 1.0M Cu 2 10.0M Cu; E 2
c) Zn Zn 2 10.0M Cu 2 1.0M Cu; E 3
1) E1 E 2 E3 2) E3 E 2 E1 3) E 2 E1 E3 4) E1 E 2 E 3
73. Which of the following graphs represents the first order reaction ?
Rate
Conc.
1) Slope=k 2)
Conc. Time
log[A]0
Intercept constant
log [A]
-k
3) Slope=2.303 4) All represent 1st order reaction
Time
74. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electrical field. The particles move towards
anode. The coagulation of same sol is studied using NaCl, BaCl2 and AlC3 solu-
tions. Their coasgulating power should be
1) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 2) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl
3) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl 4) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3
ROUGH
75. Which is wrongly reported ?
1) Spelter : impure zinc 2) Pig iron : impure iron
3) Sphalerite : ZnO 4) Blister Copper : Impure Copper
3 3
76. 100 cm of a sample of H2O2 gives 1000cm of O2 at STP. The given sample is
1) 10 volume H2O2 2) 100 volume H2O2 3) 10% H2O2 (W/V) 4) 2.786N
77. Cs2CO3 is highly soluble in water while BaCO3 quite sparingly soluble. Which of the
following is correct ?
1) hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of Cs2CO3 while it is opposite in case of BaCO3
2) hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of BaCO3 while its opposite in case of Cs2CO3
3) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is high 4) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is low
78. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicon polymer ?
1) Me3SiCl 2) PhSiCl3 3) MeSiCl3 4) Me 2SiCl 2
3
79. In PO 4 , the bond order of P O bond and formal charge on O atom are, respectively
1) 0.25, 0.25 2) 0.50, 0.50 3) 1.25, 0.75 4) 0.75, 1.25
80. Chormite ore X Na CO /air
2
fuse
3
Y .X and Y aree
1) Cr2O3 and Na 2Cr2 O 7 2) FeO.Cr2 O3 and Na 2 Cr2 O7
3) FeO.Cr2 O3 and Na 2 CrO 4 4) Cr2O3 and Na 2CrO 4
81. Kjeldahl's method can not be used to estimate nitrogen in which of the following com-
pounds?
O
1) N 2) 3) NH2 4) All of these
NH2 C NH2
82. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation
1) O2N CH2 2) CH2
3) CH3 CH2 4) CH3O CH2
83. How are the following related ?

CH3 CH2 CH2 N CH3 CH3 CH2 N CH3
I) II)
H CH3
III) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2

1) I and II are position isomers 2) I and III are chain isomers
3) I, II and III are metamers 4) I, II and III are functional isomers
ROUGH
84. Ozonolysis is of (using H2O/Zn) produces
O
||
1) HCHO OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 2) HCHO OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO
O
||
3) CO 2 H 2 O OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 4) H 2 O CO 2 OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO
85. Which of the following is a chain initiation step in the chlorination of CH4?
. . .
1) Cl Cl
hv
2Cl 2) CH 4 C l
C H 3 HCl
. . . .
3) C H 3 Cl2
CH 3Cl Cl 4) C H3 C H 3
CH3 CH 3
86. Ethanal is treated with HCN and the resulting compound on hydrolysis followed by
polymerisation gives 'X'. 'X' is used as / in
1) Orthopedic devices 2) Making capsules
3) Post operative stitches 4) Photo films
87. CH 3 CH OH CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 andCH 3 CH 2 CHOH CH 2 CH 3
can be distinguished by
1) HCl / ZnCl2 2) Br2 / CCl4 3) KMnO 4 / H 4) I2 / NaOH
2
i O /
88. Cl CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
AlCl3
P
iiH O
Q Phenol
3
The major product P and Q are
1) and CH3-CH2-CHO 2) and CH3-CH2-CHO
3) and CH3COCH3 4) and CH3-CH2-CHO
89. Which will oxidise glucose to gluconic acid ?

1) Br2 water 2) Benedict solution 3) Tollens'reagent 4) All of these
90. In the titration of Oxalic acid solution with KMnO4, the substance working as catalyst is
1) KMnO4 2) MnO2 3) Oxalic acid 4) MnSO4
ROUGH
BOTANY
91. In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in
1) Protista 2) Algae 3) Plantae 4) Monera
92. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in which of the following groups
1) Fungi 2) Animalia 3) Monera 4) Plantae
93. The given figures show thalli of a liverwort. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D in
that
a) b)
1) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C- Roots ; D - Archegoniophore

2) A - sporophyte ; B: rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore
3) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore
4) A - gemma cup ; B - roots ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore
94. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correct
option.
A) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence
2) The multicellular female gametophyte is called endosperm
3) The gymnosperms are heterosporous
1) A and B are true but C is false 2) A and C are true but B is false
3) B and C are false but A is true 4) B and C are true but A is false
95. How many plants in the list given below have tap root modifications - Banyan, Vanda,
Turnip, Sweet potato, Groundnut, Sugarcane, Monstera
1) Four 2) Two 3) Three 4) Five
ROUGH
96. Aerial roots are modified for both absorption and assimilation in this genus
1) Vanda 2) Monstera 3) Banyan 4) Taeniophyllum
97. The structure which contains vascular bundle and is the modification of stem is
1) Spine 2) Trichome 3) Thorn 4) Prickle
98. Green leaf like modified branches with a single internode are called
1) Phyllode 2) Phylloclade 3) Bulbils 4) Cladode
99. Find the correct match:
1) Mustard plant : leaves are opposite
2) Guava plant : leaves are alternate
3) Nerium plant : leaves are whorled
4) Calotropis plant : leaves are alternate
100. Which of the following is not a tendril climber
1) Smilax 2) Pisum 3) Grape vine 4) Bean
101. Cup shaped structure in the flower of guava is
1) Thalamus 2) Peduncle 3) Bracts 4) Ovary
102. A character not applicable to chinarose is
1) Alternate phyllotaxy
2) Twisted aestivation in the second whorl of flower
3) Cohesion in the third whorl of flower 4) Solitary, terminal inflorescence
103. Identify the types of placentations in the diagrams A, B, C, D given below respectively
1) Marginal, axile, parietal, basal 2) Marginal, axile, parietal, parietal

3) Marginal, parietal, parietal, axile 4) Parietal, axile, parietal, marginal
ROUGH
104. Fleshy fruits that develop from inferior ovaries are found in
1) Sunflower, apple, cucumber 2) Apple, cucumber, citrus
3) Tomato, grapes, guava 4) Guava, apple, cucumber
105. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from
1) Synergids 2) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
3) Antipodal cells 4) Diploid egg
106. Incorrect statement among the following
1) In mustard flower stamens have no adhesion or cohesion
2) In thorn apple stamens have adhesion, but not cohesion
3) In sunhemp stamens have cohesion, but not adhesion
4) In lily stamens have both cohesion and adhesion
107. Which of the following is wrongly matched:
1) Aloe - medicine 2) Sesbania - green manure
3) Thorn apple - fumigatory 4) Asparagus - vegetable
108. Which of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ?
1) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane
2) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
3) Adenylic acid - adenosine with glucose phosphate molecule
4) Alanine amino acid - contains an amino group and acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
109. Identify the amino acids n-2, n-1, n, n+1 in the following representation of primary
structure a hypothetical protein
OH
C H 2C O O H
SH CH 2
C H 2O H CH 2 CH 2
CH 2
HN CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO
n-2 n-1 n
n+ 1
1) Glutamic acid, Tyrosine, Cysteine, Serine 2) Serine, cystine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid
3) Serine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid, Cystine 4) Serine, Cystein, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid
ROUGH
110. What is true about ribosomes
1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where "S" stands for sedimentation co-efficient
2) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and protein
3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
4) These are self - splicing introns of some ribozymes
111. If mitotic division is restricted in the G1-Phase of a cell cycle then the condition is
known as
1) S-Phase 2) G2-Phase 3) M-Phase 4) G0-Phase
112. In the following diagram of phloem identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D
1) A - Sieve pore, B - Sieve tube element, C-companion cell, D-Phloem parenchyma

2) A - Sieve pore, B-sieve tube element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-Companion cell
3) A-perforation plate, B-Sieve element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-companion cell
4) A-Sieve pore, B-companion cell, C-sieve tube element, D- Phloem parenchyma
113. Which of the following statements is correct for secondary succession
1) It begins on a bare rock 2) It occurs on a deforested site
3) It follows primary succession
4) It takes place slowly than that of primary succession
114. A cell is equally permeable to sucrose solution and NaCl solution. First the cell is put
in 0.6 M sucrose solution, there is no change in size but when put in 0.6 M NaCl solution
the size will
1) Increase 2) Decrease 3) Remain same 4) Can't be said
115. Stomata open at night in
1) hydrophytes 2) Succulents 3) mesophytes 4) halophytes
ROUGH
116. In the illustration of mass flow by Munch, identify A, B, C, D respectively
A B
C D
1) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-sink, D- source

2) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-source, D-sink
3) A-concentrated solution, B-dilute solution, C- sink, D-pure water
4) A- dilute solution, B-concentrated solution, C- sink, D-purewater
117. Which inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens
1) Feed back inhibitors 2) Non competitive inhibitors
3) Competitive inhibitors 4) Allosteric inhibitors
118. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less effected by atmospheric CO2 levels because
1) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells
2) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2
3) Four carbon acids are primary initial CO2 fixation products
4) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
119. During the operation of non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the immediate source of
electrons to P700 is
1) Cyt f 2) PC 3) PQ 4) Fd
ROUGH
120. The following diagram represents ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis. Identify A, B,
C, D parts labelled in it
H+
NADP+
B
A C NADPH
H 2O
H+
+
H H+
Lumen
H+
Thylakoid
membrane
Stroma
D
ADP ATP
A B C D
1) Photosystem I Cytochrome b and f Photosystem II ATP synthase
2) PhotosystemII cytochrome b and f Photosystem I CF0
3) Photosystem II Cytochrome b and f Photosystem I ATP synthase
4) Photosystem II ATP synthase PhotosystemI CFI
121. Assimilatory power used in bundlesheath cells of maize for the net production of one
glucose molecule is
122. ATP produced in the mitochondria per one glucose molecule is (both substrate
phosphorylation and oxidation of all reduced coenzymes produced in cytoplasm and
matrix)
1) 34 2) 32 3) 30 4) 24
ROUGH
123.
G lucose
A
NA D +
N A D H + H+
3 PG A
NA D +
C
NADH+
D Pyruvic N AD H +H +
C O 2 +H 2 O acid
NAD+
B +CO 2
A, B, C, D in the above representation of respiration are

A B C D
1) PGAL Lactic acid Ethanol Aerobic respiration
2) 1,3 bis PGA Ethanol Lactic acid Krebs cycle
3) G-3-P Ethanol Lactic acid Aerobic respiration
4) F, 1,6 bis P Ethanol Lactic acid Aerobic respiration
124. Bacteria with a tuft of flagella at one pole is known as
1) Lophotrichous 2) Monotrichous 3) Amphitrichous 4) Peritrichous
125. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results, from this he
concluded that
1) These is no independent assortment of traits
2) These is no dominance of any trait
3) Gametes are always pure for a particular trait
4) Sex has no influence on the dominance of traits
ROUGH
126. Mendel's principle of seggregation means germ cells always receive
1) One pair of alleles 2) One quarter of the genes
3) One of the paired alleles 4) Any pair of alleles
127. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross
1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombinations
2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations
4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
128. In the history of biology human genome project led to the development of
1) Biotechnology 2) Biomonitoring 3) Bioinformatics 4) Biosystematics
129. The purpose of polymerase chain reaction is
1) DNA modification 2) DNA amplification
3) DNA replication 4) DNA visualisation
130. Match the codons with their respective aminoacids and choose correct answer
Colum I Colum II
A. UUU 1. Serine
B. GGG 2. Methionine
C. UCU 3. Phenylalanine
D. CCC 4. Glycine
E. AUG 5. Proline
1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2 2) A-3, B-1, D-4, D-5, E-2
3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-2 4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-3
131. Mutations which alter nucleotide sequence with in a gene are
1) Frame shift mutation 2) Base pair substitution
3) Both a and b 4) None of these
132. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
1) Make cut at specific positions within the DNA molecule
2) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
3) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
4) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
ROUGH
133. Which of the following is a wrong match for a microbe and its industrial product
1) Yeast - statins 2) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid
3) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid 4) Aspergillus niger - citric acid
134. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This
protein
1) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry
2) Does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to the toxin
3) Is activated by acidic pH in the foregut of insect pest
4) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut in the insect pest ultimately killing it
135. Which of the following is a eukaryotic biofertilizer
1) Nostoc 2) NPV 3) Rhizobium 4) Glomus
ROUGH
ZOOLOGY
136. In the case of suspected filarial patients, blood samples are collected during night
time because the
1) patients do not feel much pain
2) filarial worms enter into blood from lymph during night time
3) microfilariae exhibit nocturnal periodicity
4) adult worms are active in blood circulation during night time
137. The drug cocaine produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy levels as it
1)acts as amphetamine 2)stimulates adrenal glands to produce steroids
3)causes the inhibition of cholinergic nerves 4)interferes with the transport of dopamine
138. Which of the following is not a symptom of chronic malaria?
1)Splenomegaly 2)Hypertrophy of RBC
3)Cirrhosis of liver 4)Anaemia
139. In cockroach, the structures that help in locomotion on smooth surface are
1)claws and arolium 2)pulvillus and bristles of podomeres
3)plantulae on tarsus 4)plantulae, claws
140. Incorrect statement about the mushroom shaped gland of Periplaneta americana from
the following
1)Helps in storage and excretion of uric acid
2)Secretes the innermost layer of spermatophore
3)Stores the sperms in the form of spermatophores
4)Nourishes the sperms
141. In a biological community Gauses principle explains
1)competition among different species under unlimited resources
2)competitive exclusion of an inferior species due to the limited natural resources
3)coexistence of closely related species due to resource partitioning
4)intra specific competition due to limited natural resources
142. In India, grassland ecosystems are found mainly in
1)Ladakh region 2)Himalayan region
3)Deccan plateau 4)Western ghats
ROUGH
143. The influence of light on non-directional movement of animals is known as
1)phototaxis 2)photoperiodism 3)photokinesis 4)phototropism
144. According to the study of molecular systematics, the kingdom replaced by the two
kingdoms bacteria and archebacteria is
1)Fungi 2)Protista 3)Monera 4)Metaphyta
1)Earth summit-Johannesburg, South Africa
2)Biosphere reserves-Norman Myers
3)Jim Corbett National park-first Indian national park in Gujarat
4)Cryopreservation-ex-situ conservation
146. In humans mucous connective tissue is present mainly in the
1)mucosa lining of gut 2)lining of alveoli of lungs
3)umbilical chord of newly born infants
4)walls of trachea, bronchi and bronchioles
147. Cardiac muscles are highly resistant to fatigue mainly due to the presence of
1)intercalated discs 2)branched muscle fibres and communication junctions
3)specialised autorhythmic muscle fibres
4)numerous sarcosomes and myoglobin molecules
148. Identify the correct combination from the following
Scientific name Respiratory organs Excretory organs
1)Astacus Dermal branchiae Green glands
2)Aplysia Ctenidia Meta nephridia
3)Aphrodite Parapodia Protonephridia
4)Ascidian Pharyngeal gill slits Proboscis gland
149. Echinoderm with elongated body and without arms,spines is
1)Gorgonocephalus 2)Thyone 3)Clypeaster 4)Antedon
150. Incorrect statement about "great white shark" from the following
1)Sharks exhibit physiological uraemia
2)They have placoid scales and heteroceracal caudal fin
3)Fertilization internal and viviparous in nature
4)Lobe finned fishes with air bladder acting as hydrostatic organ
ROUGH
1)Gavialis-Vascular cloacal wall 2)Corvus-Urinary bladder present
3)Cervus-Intra abdominal testes 4)Trichechus-Six cervical vertebrae
152. Identify the uricotelic animal from the following
1)Land leech 2)Land snail 3)Desert fox 4)Camel
1)Paneth cells-lysozyme 2)Schawnn cells-myelin sheath
3)Dendritic cells-afferent neurons 4)Mast cells-inflammation
154. Which of the following is an exotic carp?
1)Tunas 2)Common carp 3)Cat fish 4)Oil sardine
155. Follicular hyperkeratosis is a/an
1)sex influenced trait 2)holandric character
3)sexlinked dominant trait 4)autosomal recessive character
156. Amniocentesis test is developed mainly to
1)confirm the pregnancy 2)determin the sex of the foetus
3)detect the chromosomal abnormalities 4)findout the correct position of foetus
157. Which of the following disorder is not caused by trisomy(2n+1) in human beings?
1)Down syndrome 2)Turner's syndrome
3)Kline felter syndrome 4)Patau syndrome
158. In a family, blood groups of children are entirely different from that of parents only if
the blood groups of the parents are
1)A and B 2)AB and AB 3)AB and O 4)O and A or B
159. Correct match from the following
1)Mutation theory-Bateson 2)Survival of the fittest-Herbert Spencer
3)Principles of geology-Alfred Wallace 4)Biochemical recapitulation -Ernst Haeckel
160. The first human like being frugivorous in habit and hunted with sharp stony objects
was named
1)Australopithecus 2)Homo neanderthalensis
3)Homo habilis 4)Homo erectus
ROUGH
1)MRI-aneurysm 2)EEG-epilepsy
3)PSA test-cervical cancer 4)PCR-HIV detection
162. The technique of attenuating or weakening of a microbe was developed by
1)Edward Jenner 2)Alexander Fleming 3)Louis Pasteur 4)Jonas Salk
163. Ampulla of vater is formed by the union of
1)common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct 2)common bile duct and pancreatic duct
3)cystic duct and common hepatic duct 4)infundibulum and isthmus of fallopian tube
164. Adenoids are present in
1)nasopharynx 2)oropharynx
3)below the tongue 4)laryngophrynx
165. In human development, most of the organ systems are developed by the end of
1)first month 2)24 weeks 3)first trimester 4)8 weeks
166. The cells that provide nutrition to developing spermatozoa in testes are called
1)Kupffer cells 2)Leydig cells 3)Sertoli cells 4)Oxyntic cells
167. Rima glottidis is the narrow space between the
1)true vocal folds and false vocal cords 2)true vocal cords and arytenoids
3)corniculate cartilages and cuneiform cartilages 4)arytenoids and thyroid cartilages
168. Pneumoconiosis is caused by the
1)bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae
2)inhalation of coal dust and sulphur particles
3)release of vasodilator substances due to allergens
4)deposition of iron particles in alveoli of lungs
169. The specialised myocytes present in inner ventricular walls of heart beneath
endocardium are called
1)Chorde tendinae 2)Papillary muscles 3)Purkinje fibres 4)Columnae carneae
170. In human heart, the non functional valve in the right atrium is present at the opening
of
1)coronary sinus 2)superior venacava
3)inferior venacava 4)right atrioventricular aperture
ROUGH
171. Which of the following hormones are not antagonistic to each other in their actions?
1)Parathormone and calcitonin 2)Somatocrinin and somatostatin
3)Cortisol and Catecholamines 4)Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide
172. Prostaglandins are derivatives of
1)tryptophan 2)tyrosine 3)glycoproteins 4)eicosanoids
173. The vestibular apparatus concerned with body equilibrium is constituted by
1)saccule and utricle 2)ampullae and cristae
3)maculae and vestibule 4)semicircular canals and otolith organ
174. Inter ventricular foramina are connecting the
1)atria and ventricles in heart 2)paracoels and diocoel in brain
3)3rd and 4th ventricles of brain 4)right and left ventricles of heart
175. Joint between two adjacent vertebrae of mammals is an example of
1)symphysis and synarthrosis 2)synchondrosis and syndesmosis
3)diarthrose and syndesmosis 4)symphysis and amphiarthrosis
176. Hensen's disc is
1)part of primitive streak 2)part of sarcomere made of only myosin
3)primitive knot through which chordamesodermal cells involute to form notochord
4)bilaminar embryonic disc with epiblast and hypoblast
177. Autoimmune disease from the following
1)Glomerulo nephritis 2)Osteo arthritis
3)Rheumatoid arthritis 4)Meningitis
178. In the conduction of nerve impulse, relative refractory period coincides with the phase
of
1)depolarisation 2)repolarisation 3)hyperpolarisation 4)polarisation
179. In kidneys, renal columns are made of
1)renal calyces 2)medullary pyramids
3)renal cortex 4)renal papillae
180. In the process of urine formation, selective reabsorption is minimum in this part of
nephron
1)Proximal convoluted tubule 2)Distal convoluted tubule
3)Henle's loop 4)Collecting duct
ROUGH
NEET PAPER 2 KEY SHEET
PHYSICS
1) 2 2) 1 3) 2 4) 2 5) 3 6) 2 7) 4 8) 1 9) 1 10) 1
11) 1 12) 2 13) 1 14) 3 15) 1 16) 2 17) 1 18) 2 19) 2 20) 2
21) 1 22) 4 23) 3 24) 3 25) 2 26) 2 27) 2 28) 4 29) 1 30) 4
31) 1 32) 3 33) 3 34) 4 35) 2 36) 4 37) 3 38) 2 39) 1 40) 3
41) 4 42) 4 43) 3 44) 1 45) 2

CHEMISTRY
46) 1 47) 3 48) 4 49) 2 50) 3 51) 2 52) 4 53) 2 54) 4 55) 2
56) 3 57) 2 58) 4 59) 3 60) 2 61) 4 62) 2 63) 3 64) 3 65) 3
66) 2 67) 1 68) 1 69) 4 70) 4 71) 2 72) 3 73) 4 74) 3 75) 3
76) 1 77) 1 78) 1 79) 3 80) 3 81) 1 82) 1 83) 4 84) 2 85) 1
86) 3 87) 4 88) 3 89) 4 90) 4

BOTANY
91) 1 92) 3 93) 3 94) 4 95) 2 96) 4 97) 3 98) 4 99) 3 100) 4
101) 1 102) 4 103) 2 104) 4 105) 2 106) 4 107) 3 108) 1 109) 4 110) 2
111) 4 112) 2 113) 2 114) 2 115) 2 116) 1 117) 3 118) 4 119) 2 120) 3
121) 3 122) 1 123) 3 124) 1 125) 4 126) 3 127) 4 128) 3 129) 2 130) 1
131) 3 132) 1 133) 3 134) 4 135) 4

ZOOLOGY
136) 137) 4 138) 3 139) 3 140) 3 141) 2 142) 2 143) 3 144) 3 145) 4
3
146) 3 147) 4 148) 2 149) 2 150) 4 151) 4 152) 2 153) 3 154) 2 155) 3
156) 3 157) 2 158) 3 159) 2 160) 3 161) 3 162) 3 163) 2 164) 1 165) 3
166) 3 167) 2 168) 4 169) 3 170) 3 171) 3 172) 4 173) 4 174) 2 175) 4
176) 2 177) 3 178) 3 179) 3 180) 3

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NEET

* Each objective question has four options, in which student has

* Each correct option will be rewarded with four marks. However,

if the attempt of answering a question is wrong there will be

* Maximum time allowed to answer this paper is three hours

agt gta sin

1) Violet or indigo 2) Green or yellow 3) Orange or red 4) White

10. Assertion(A):Position of centre of mass of a body is independent of coordinate system

2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explain of A

angle of 45. The angle of sheer is

16. Radio waves are produced by

3) Vibration of atoms and molecules 4) Radio active decay of the nucles

1) 4280Hz 2) 4950Hz 3) 4490Hz 4) 4000Hz

resistance is R2, the emf of the cell is

33. Statement I : According to Gauss law in magnetism v B .dl = O

1) The speed of radio waves 2) The speed of -rays

3) The speed of light 4) All of the above

positions of air craft]. Given that [Tan15 = 0.2679].

\\\\\\ \\\\\\ \\\\\\

1) 262.4 m/s 2) 131.2 m/s 3) 91.1m/s 4) 182.2 m/s

body varies with time t as

Then identify the correct statement

1) D is Schiff's base 2) E is benzylphenyl amine

3) 36.2 KJ mol-1 4) 60.5 KJ mol-1

3) volume occupied by the molecules 4) intermolecular repulsions

1) CO 2) GeO 3) SiO 4) SnO

here A, B are respectively

3) (CH 3 )2 CHCH 2OH 4) C6 H 5CH (OH )CH 3

74. The conjugate base of H 2 PO4 is

76. Very pure hydrogen (99.9) can be prepared by

3) Electrolysis of Ba(OH)2/ Ni electrodes 4) Mixing natural hydrocarbon

1) Aniline 2) Quinine 3) Methanamine 4) Benzyl amine

78. Critical micelle concentration for soaps is

88. The decreasing order of stability of carbanions

1) 3-ethyl-4-methyl hex-5-en-2-ol 2) 4-ethyl-3-methyl hex-1-en-5-ol

3) 3-methyl-4-ethyl hex-1-en-5-ol 4) 4-methyl-3-ethyl hex-5-en-2-ol

90. Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates in a closed reaction vessel as ,

D) Plasmosome IV) Conversion of lipids to carbohydrates

1) Cuscuta 2) Pinus 3) Vanda 4) Avicennia

99. Cycas is called "relic of past" because

4) Metaphase Alignment of chromosomes on equatorial line

1) Diplotene 2) Diakinesis 3) MetaphaseI 4) AnaphaseI

3) Never in angiosperms 4) In all spermatophytes

1) Annual rings are circular in shape in radial longitudinal section of stem

3) Tyloses are tracheary plugs

110. Pericycle initiates secondary growth in

3) Roots of dicots 4) Roots of monocots

and ATP respectively

2) B .Ketoglutaric acid l Glutamate l Glutamine

118. When co.factor is removed then the apo. enzyme

119. Feredoxin is the

2) Reductant of plastoquinone in cyclic e transport

3) Reductant of P700 in both cyclic and non-cyclic e transports

120. Carbon assimilation does not occur in the chloroplasts of

1) Baking 2) Brewing 3) Seed germination 4) All the above

aerobic respiration per glucose is

1) The number of species at A - more

2) The number of species at B - very high

3) The number of species at C - least

150. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation

2) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

151. Select the correct statement with respect to humans

2) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae

1) X A.B 2) X A.B 3) X = A.B 4) X A B