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CHAPTER 2: EMBRYOLOGY
4. Fertilization to implantation:
a. Morula is the immediate product of fertilization.
b. Implantation starts between the 8th & 10th day.
c. Initial penetration of the endometrium by the developing embryo is by the inner
cell mass.
d. Implantation normally starts in the fallopian tube.
* e. Fertilization occurs when the spermatozoon penetrates the zona pellucida but not
the corona radiata.
5. In cell division:
* a. Meiosis normally results in 4 haploid daughter cells.
b. A haploid human cell contains 46 chromosomes in its nucleus.
c. Meiosis is the method by which somatic cells multiply.
d. Metaphase is the stage at which DNA and therefore chromosomes undergo
duplication.
e. Anaphase is the technical term for Go of the cell cycle.
6. Ovulation:
a. Can occur at any stage of the maturation of the graafian follicle.
* b. Results in the release of the oocyte leaving behind a corpus luteum.
c. The corpus luteum produces oestrogen and androgens.
d. Ovulation is followed by the proliferative phase of the endometrium during the
menstral cycle.
e. The oocyte gains entry into the oviduct via its isthmus.
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7. Cells that often remain in the same stage of development for more than 30 years:
a. Primordial germ cells
b. Polar bodies
* c. Primary oocytes
d. Secondary oocytes
e. Oogonia
8. Cells that migrate to the genital ridges from the yolk sac:
* a. Primordial germ cells
b. Polar bodies
c. Primary oocytes
d. Secondary oocytes
e. Oogonia
10. Cells that are ovulated and are capable of being fertilized:
a. Primodial germ cells
b. Polar bodies
c. Primary oocytes
* d. Secondary oocytes
e. Oogonia
14. The hormone responsible for the release of the ovum at ovulation is:
a. Follicle stimulating hormone.
* b. Luteinising hormone
c. Oestrogen
d. Progesterone
e. None of the above.
17. The primary spermatocyte after DNA replication gives rise to:
a. 2 polar bodies
b. 4 secondary spermatocytes
c. 4 spermatids
d. 2 spermatozoa
* e. None of the above.
18. Presence of 2 sex chromatin bodies, scanty menstrual periods, and some degree of mental
retardation are features of:
a. Down's sysndrome
b. XXY
c. XO
* d. XXX
e. Cri-du-chat
19. Before mitosis can be observed by a microscopy the following process must occur.
* a. Chromosomal replication
b. Splitting of the centrosome
c. Dissolution of the nucleolus
d. Mitochondrial degeneration
e. Visualization
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20. A chromosome with a centromere near its end is described as:
a. Metacentric
b. Submetacentric
c. Acrocentric
d. Telecentric
e. None of the above
22. The primordial germ cells differentiate into many distinct cell types in a sexually mature
adult. These cell types include all of the following except:
a. Spermatids
b. Polar bodies
c. Ova
* d. Sertoli cells
e. Spermatogenia
23. All of the following statments concerning gametogenesis are TRUE except:
a. There are more male gametes than female gametes.
b. Meiosis in males is completed in the testes.
* c. Meiosis in females is completed just before ovulation.
d. The secondary oocyte contains a dipoid amount of DNA.
e. The second polar body is a haploid cell.
24. All of the following statements concerning spermatogenesis are TRUE except:
* a. It ends at about age 55 years.
b. Spermatogonia are present prior to puberty.
c. Spermatozoa are present after puberty.
d. Primary spermatocytes contain paired homologs.
e. Spermatids are haploid cells with haploid DNA.
26. During mitosis the following events and phases correspond except:
a. Chromosomal dispersion and replication during prophase.
b. Chromosomal alignment along the equator of the cell during metaphase.
c. Half chromosomes pull apart during anaphase.
* d. Daughter nuclei form during telophaphase.
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e. Chromosomes clamp and become visible with a light microscope during
prometaphase.
34. By the 12th day of development, the following take place except:
a. The blastocyst is completely implanted.
b. There is formation of lacunar
c. Maternal capillaries get eroded.
d. Decidual reaction
* e. Primary villi is formed.
35. Which of these congenital anormalies occur particulary during the 3-8th week.
* a. Malformations
b. Disruptions
c. Deformaties
d. Syndromes
e. All the above.
42. The most characteristic event occuring during the 3rd week is:
a. Neurulation
* b. Gastrulation
c. Cephalo caudal folding
d. Lateral folding
e. Formation of the urinary system.
43. During the period when the body and its parts are being laid down, development and
differentiation appear in the:
* a. Cephalic region.
b. Caudal region.
c. Mid-embryo region.
d. Distal third region.
e. Mid-third region.
45. All of the following statements about the decidua are TRUE except:
* a. The decidua basalis becomes part of the definitive placenta.
b. The decidua limits syncytiotro-phoblast invasion.
c. The decidua parietalis forms part of the wall of the uterine cavity.
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d. The decidua vera forms from fusion of the decidual capsularis and the decidua
parietalis.
e. Most of the decidual tissue remains in the uterus and is resorbed after birth.
49. Penetration of chorionic villi into the uterine wall normally does not extend beyond the:
a. Stratum compactum
b. Stratum spongiosum
c. Endothelial layer
d. Sub mucosa
* e. Stratum basale
53. Primary ossification centres are present in the long bones and skull by:
a. The 1st week
b. The 4th week
* c. The 12th week
d. The second week
e. The 8th week
55. Regarding the embryo at six weeks, which of the following statements is true.
a. The neural tube has closed.
b. Herniation of part of the midgut is present.
c. The limb buds have already developed.
* d. The palatine processes have fused.
e. The mandibular processes give rise to incus, malleus and stapes.
77. All the following traverse the primitive umbilical ring except
a. Allantois
b. Vitelline duct
c. Spiral arteries.
* d. Canal between the intra and extraembryonic cavities.
e. Yolk sac stalk.
78. Which of the following does not apply to monozygotic (identical) twins:
a. Develop from a single fertilized ovum
b. The earliest separation is believed to occur at the two-cell stage.
c. Separation may occur at the bilaminar germ disc stage.
d. May have a common chorionic and single amniotic sac.
* e. Their twinning rate is about 15 in every 1000.
84. The following apply to the break down of fetal red blood cells
(erythroblastosis) fetalis except:
a. May lead to intrauterine death
b. May result from Rh-positive fetus and Rh-negative mother.
* c. May result from Rh-negative fetus and Rh-positive mother.
d. Can be prevented by giving the mother Rh immunoglobulin.
e. Small bleeds at the surface of the villi are probably responsible for the
antigen antibody interaction between fetus and mother.
88. A persistence of the proximal end of the yolk stalk in an adult is called the:
a. Urachal ligament.
b. Ductus venosum.
c. Vitelline membrane.
d. Appendix.
* e. None of the above.
90. All of the following statements about embryonic and fetal urine production are
TRUE except:
* a. The pronephros forms copious hypertonic urine.
b. The mesonephros forms hypotonic urine.
c. Polyhydramnios can be due to fetal swallowing disorders.
d. Fetuses urinate into the amniotic fluid.
e. Oligohydramnios can be due to renal agenesis.
92. Cataracts, deafness and ear defects are most likely caused by which of the
following agents:
* a. Rubella virus
b. Thalidomide
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Methyl mercury
e. Hyperthermia