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CHAPTER 2: EMBRYOLOGY

1. Prior to fertilizing an egg, a sperm must:


* a. Penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida.
b. Undergo a second meiotic division.
c. Undergo capacitation.
d. Secrete fluids that promote its motility.
e. Attain a diploid number of chromosomes.

2. Bleeding that may occur near the 13th day of development.


a. Represents a shedding of uterine tissue.
* b. Is caused by increased blood flow into lacunar spaces.
c. Is not normal.
d. May be confused with normal menstrual bleeding.
e. Represents a spontaneous abortion.

3. Primordial germ cells migrate to the gonads from the:


a. Intermediate mesoderm
* b. Wall of the yolk sac
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
d. Endoderm of the bilaminar disc
e. Splanchnic mesoderm.

4. Fertilization to implantation:
a. Morula is the immediate product of fertilization.
b. Implantation starts between the 8th & 10th day.
c. Initial penetration of the endometrium by the developing embryo is by the inner
cell mass.
d. Implantation normally starts in the fallopian tube.
* e. Fertilization occurs when the spermatozoon penetrates the zona pellucida but not
the corona radiata.

5. In cell division:
* a. Meiosis normally results in 4 haploid daughter cells.
b. A haploid human cell contains 46 chromosomes in its nucleus.
c. Meiosis is the method by which somatic cells multiply.
d. Metaphase is the stage at which DNA and therefore chromosomes undergo
duplication.
e. Anaphase is the technical term for Go of the cell cycle.

6. Ovulation:
a. Can occur at any stage of the maturation of the graafian follicle.
* b. Results in the release of the oocyte leaving behind a corpus luteum.
c. The corpus luteum produces oestrogen and androgens.
d. Ovulation is followed by the proliferative phase of the endometrium during the
menstral cycle.
e. The oocyte gains entry into the oviduct via its isthmus.
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7. Cells that often remain in the same stage of development for more than 30 years:
a. Primordial germ cells
b. Polar bodies
* c. Primary oocytes
d. Secondary oocytes
e. Oogonia

8. Cells that migrate to the genital ridges from the yolk sac:
* a. Primordial germ cells
b. Polar bodies
c. Primary oocytes
d. Secondary oocytes
e. Oogonia

9. Cells that are present in primary follicles in sexually mature females:


a. Primordial germ cells
b. Polar bodies
* c. Primary oocytes
d. Secondary oocytes
e. Oogonia

10. Cells that are ovulated and are capable of being fertilized:
a. Primodial germ cells
b. Polar bodies
c. Primary oocytes
* d. Secondary oocytes
e. Oogonia

11. The hormone of pregnancy is:


a. Oestrogen
b. Luteinising hormone
* c. Progesterone
d. Follicle stimulating hormone
e. Prolactin

12. The commonest site of ectopic implantation is:


a. Uterus
b. Ovary
c. Rectouterine pouch
d. Cervix
* e. Uterine tubes.

13. The human somatic cell:


a. Contains a haploid number of chromosomes.
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b. Has 23 chromosomes.
* c. Has a diploid number of chromosomes.
d. Has only autosomes.
e. (b) and (c).

14. The hormone responsible for the release of the ovum at ovulation is:
a. Follicle stimulating hormone.
* b. Luteinising hormone
c. Oestrogen
d. Progesterone
e. None of the above.

15. The following are TRUE concerning female infertility except:


a. May be due to hostile cervical mucus.
b. May be due to immunity to spermatozoa.
c. May be due to absence of ovulation.
* d. May be due to insufficient number of sperms.
e. May be due to occluded uterine tubes.

16. Division of the centromere marks the beginning of:


a. Metaphase
b. Telophase
* c. Anaphase
d. Prometaphase
e. Prophase

17. The primary spermatocyte after DNA replication gives rise to:
a. 2 polar bodies
b. 4 secondary spermatocytes
c. 4 spermatids
d. 2 spermatozoa
* e. None of the above.

18. Presence of 2 sex chromatin bodies, scanty menstrual periods, and some degree of mental
retardation are features of:
a. Down's sysndrome
b. XXY
c. XO
* d. XXX
e. Cri-du-chat

19. Before mitosis can be observed by a microscopy the following process must occur.
* a. Chromosomal replication
b. Splitting of the centrosome
c. Dissolution of the nucleolus
d. Mitochondrial degeneration
e. Visualization
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20. A chromosome with a centromere near its end is described as:
a. Metacentric
b. Submetacentric
c. Acrocentric
d. Telecentric
e. None of the above

21. Ovulation is marked by the following except:


a. Release of ovum into the peritoneal cavity
b. Formation of the corpus luteum
* c. Ceasation of oestrogen production
d. Initiation of secretory phase of the cycle.
e. None of the above

22. The primordial germ cells differentiate into many distinct cell types in a sexually mature
adult. These cell types include all of the following except:
a. Spermatids
b. Polar bodies
c. Ova
* d. Sertoli cells
e. Spermatogenia

23. All of the following statments concerning gametogenesis are TRUE except:
a. There are more male gametes than female gametes.
b. Meiosis in males is completed in the testes.
* c. Meiosis in females is completed just before ovulation.
d. The secondary oocyte contains a dipoid amount of DNA.
e. The second polar body is a haploid cell.

24. All of the following statements concerning spermatogenesis are TRUE except:
* a. It ends at about age 55 years.
b. Spermatogonia are present prior to puberty.
c. Spermatozoa are present after puberty.
d. Primary spermatocytes contain paired homologs.
e. Spermatids are haploid cells with haploid DNA.

25. The syncytiotrophoblast shows all of the following features except:


a. An abundance of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
b. A scanty Golgi apparatus
c. Many mitochondria
* d. Few intercellular junctions between syncytial cells.
e. Many cytoplasmic transport vesicles and vacuoles.

26. During mitosis the following events and phases correspond except:
a. Chromosomal dispersion and replication during prophase.
b. Chromosomal alignment along the equator of the cell during metaphase.
c. Half chromosomes pull apart during anaphase.
* d. Daughter nuclei form during telophaphase.
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e. Chromosomes clamp and become visible with a light microscope during
prometaphase.

27. Which of the following statements is correct:


a. Primodial germ cells arise in the wall of the yolk sac in the 12th week of
intrauterine life.
b. The primary oogonia is haploid.
c. First meiotic division results into one secondary oocyte and three polar bodies.
d. Chiasma formation during meiosis results in exchange of chromosomes.
* e. Meiosis is arrested at prophase (the diplotene stage) until puberty.

28. The following statement is correct:


a. Ovulation normallly occurs at the same time in both ovaries.
b. Capacitation refers to increase spermatozoa/motility ahead of fertilization.
* c. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone during the secretory endometrial phase.
d. The corpus luteum is shade immediately after implantation.
e. Fertilization often occurs in the isthmus of the fallopian tube.

29. The bilaminar germ disc:


* a. Consists of hypoblast and epiblast.
b. Is derived from trophoblast cells.
c. Forms the embryo proper.
d. Is maintained by oestrogens
e. Contains the exocoelomic membrane enclosing the primitive yolk sac.

30. The chorionic cavity:


a. Is equivalent to the intraembryonic coelom
b. Is lined by intraembryonic endoderm
* c. Is formed by a coalition of exocoelomic cysts
d. Contains the free-floating foetus
e. Communicates with the uterine endometrium via the chorionic plate.

31. The two layer embryo:


a. Is characterised by the presence of the mesoderm and endoderm.
* b. Is the pre implantation stage.
c. Has an amniotic cavity enclosed by ectodermal cells and amnioblasts.
d. The exocoelomic cavity and primitive yolk sac are one and the same thing.
e. Has two cytotrophoblastic layers.

32. During the 4th to the 8th week IUL:


* a. A portion of the ectoderm thickens and later forms the neurotube.
b. The interior neuropore closes 2-3 days after the posterior one has closed.
c. Closure of the neural groove to form the neural tube starts in the lumbar region.
d. The somite or intermediate mesoderm is formed.
e. When closure of the posterior neuropore fails, anencephaly results.

33. The corpus Luteum of pregnancy starts degenerating by:


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a. 9th day of fertilization.
b. 2 weeks after fertilization
c. 2 months after fertilization.
* d. 3 to 4 months after fertilization.
e. None of the above.

34. By the 12th day of development, the following take place except:
a. The blastocyst is completely implanted.
b. There is formation of lacunar
c. Maternal capillaries get eroded.
d. Decidual reaction
* e. Primary villi is formed.

35. Which of these congenital anormalies occur particulary during the 3-8th week.
* a. Malformations
b. Disruptions
c. Deformaties
d. Syndromes
e. All the above.

36. The amniotic cavity:


* a. Is formed from the inner cell mass.
b. Lies between the epiblast layer and the syncytiotrophoblast.
c. Is formed in the extra-embryonic mesoderm.
d. Is part of the chorionic cavity.
e. Contains the primtive yolk sac.

37. At 10 - 12 days of development, the embryo is characterised by the following except:


* a. Contains 3 germ layers.
b. Has made a defect in the endometrial epithelium which is closed by a plug.
c. Can be localised by the slight elevation produced on the endometrial surface.
d. Is surrounded by lacunar spaces formed in the endometrium by the trophoblast.
e. None of the above.

38. The initial morphological change preparatory to gastrulation is:


a. Formation of the prechordal plate.
b. Migration of laterally placed ectoderm cells toward the midline.
* c. Formation of the primitive streak.
d. Formation of the notochordal process.
e. Delamination of the epiblast from the hypoblast.

39. During the 3rd week:


a. The primitive streak develops from endoderm.
b. Cells migrating from ectoderm in the direction of the primitive streak form the
intra embryonic mesoderm.
c. The mesoderm and notochordal process separate the ectoderm from the
endoderm.
d. The notochord permanently fuses with the endoderm.
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* e. None of the above.

40. The following statement(s) is/are true:


a. The lateral plate mesoderm divides into two and the medial portion develops into
the gonads.
* b. The lateral plate splits to enclose the intraembryonic coelomic cavity.
c. The visceral muscle wall is of mesodermal origin but the peritoneal lining
develops from ectoderm.
d. Like the bladder, the kidney is of endodermal origin.
e. The stomadeum is the only point where the endoderm meets ectoderm during
intrauterine development.

41. Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced by the:


a. Cytotrophoblast
b. Secondary yolk sac
c. Somato pleuric mesoderm
d. Pituitary
* e. Syncytiotrophoblast

42. The most characteristic event occuring during the 3rd week is:
a. Neurulation
* b. Gastrulation
c. Cephalo caudal folding
d. Lateral folding
e. Formation of the urinary system.

43. During the period when the body and its parts are being laid down, development and
differentiation appear in the:
* a. Cephalic region.
b. Caudal region.
c. Mid-embryo region.
d. Distal third region.
e. Mid-third region.

44. In the 3 layer germ disc the following is achieved:


a. The enamel of the teeth is formed.
b. Neurilation occurs
c. Muscles are formed
* d. The formation of the placenta is completed.
e. Teh folding of the embryo is finalized.

45. All of the following statements about the decidua are TRUE except:
* a. The decidua basalis becomes part of the definitive placenta.
b. The decidua limits syncytiotro-phoblast invasion.
c. The decidua parietalis forms part of the wall of the uterine cavity.
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d. The decidua vera forms from fusion of the decidual capsularis and the decidua
parietalis.
e. Most of the decidual tissue remains in the uterus and is resorbed after birth.

46. The initial morphological change preparatory to gastrulation is:


a. Formation of the prochordal plate.
b. Migration of laterally placed ectoderm cells toward the midline.
* c. Formation of the primitive streak.
d. Formation of the notochordal process.
e. Delamination of the epiblast from the hypoblast.

47. Splitting of the lateral plate mesoderm forms the:


a. Amniotic cavity
b. Yolk sac cavity
c. Somites
d. Paraxial and intermediate mesoderm.
* e. Intra-embryonic coelomic cavity.

48. Which of the following statements is not TRUE regarding gastrulation:


a. Occurs during the third week IUL
b. Beginning with the formation of the primitive streak.
c. Epiblast is the source of all the three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm and endo-
derm.
d. Is associated with prechordal plate which maintains two germ layers.
* e. None of the above.

49. Penetration of chorionic villi into the uterine wall normally does not extend beyond the:
a. Stratum compactum
b. Stratum spongiosum
c. Endothelial layer
d. Sub mucosa
* e. Stratum basale

50. Liquor amnii is:


a. In the yolk sac
* b. Is swallowed by foetus
c. Is produced by placenta
d. (a) & (b)
e. (a), (b) & (c)

51. The following is a neural crest derivative:


a. Thyroid epithelium
b. Posterior pituitary
* c. Adrenal medulla
d. Adrenal cortex
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e. Islets of Langhans

52. When does primitive uteroplacentral circulation occur:


* a. By the end of 2nd week
b. At the beginning of first week
c. During third week
d. At beginning of the fifth week
e. Usually during second week.

53. Primary ossification centres are present in the long bones and skull by:
a. The 1st week
b. The 4th week
* c. The 12th week
d. The second week
e. The 8th week

54. The following develop from the ectoderm except:


a. Hair
* b. Dentine
c. Mammary gland
d. The nose
e. Nails

55. Regarding the embryo at six weeks, which of the following statements is true.
a. The neural tube has closed.
b. Herniation of part of the midgut is present.
c. The limb buds have already developed.
* d. The palatine processes have fused.
e. The mandibular processes give rise to incus, malleus and stapes.

57. The neural crest tissue contributes to the:


* a. Nucleus pulposus
b. Bones of craniofacial structures.
c. Segmental spinal ganglia
d. Pharyngeal arches
e. Cutaneous melanoblasts

59. The following is embryologically derived from ectoderm:


a. Clavicle bone
* b. Enamel of teeth
c. Dentine of teeth
d. Vertebral skeleton
e. All the above

60. The following glands have ectodermal origin:


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a. Thymus gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Adrenal cortex
* d. Pineal gland
e. None of the above

61. Concerning the development of the central nervous system:


a. The cranial neuro pore closes by day 25
b. The caudal neuro pore closes by day 28
c. Failure of closure of the cranial neuro pore results in anencephaly.
d. Failure of closure of the caudal neuro pore results in spina bifida.
* e. All the above

63. The following are all derived from ectoderm except:


a. The central nervous system
b. The peripheral nervous system
c. The autonomic nervous system
d. The epidermis
* e. The gonads

64. The gut:


a. Maintains a connection with the yolk sac via the allantoic duct.
b. Assists in the cephalocaudal folding of the embryo.
c. Is derived from the mesoderm germ layer.
* d. Is bounded by the buccopharyngeal membrane cranially and the cloacal
membrane caudally.
e. All the above.

65. All the following are derivatives of endoderm except:


a. Foregut
b. Parenchyma of the thyroid
c. Epithelial lining of the urinary bladder.
* d. Epithelial line of adrenal gland.
e. Epithelial lining of the auditory tube.

66. Surfactant is present in the lungs starting from


* a. 7th month of pregnancy.
b. 8th month of pregnancy.
c. 9th month of pregnancy.
d. 10th month of pregnancy.
e. 11th month of pregnancy.

67. Implantation occurs:


* a. At the end of the first week IUL
b. By the end of second day IUL
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c. By the beginning of the second day IUL
d. By the fourth day IUL
e. None of the above

69. Intermediate mesoderm is responsible for formation of the:


a. Somites
b. Bone and muscle
* c. Excretory units of the urinary system.
d. Dermis and subcutaneous tissue of the skin.
e. None of the above.

70. The following is not of mesodermal origin:


a. Vertebral body
b. Muscle
* c. Oligodendrocyte
d. Polymorphonuclear leucocyte
e. Dermis

71. Which of the following eventually becomes the anal canal:


a. Stomodeum
b. Primitive streak
c. Prenotochordal cells
* d. Proctodeum
e. Notochord

72. All of the following are features of heart development except:


a. The heart is the first organ to begin its physiologic function.
b. The angiogenetic cell clusters giving rise to the heart originate cranial to the
oropharyngeal membrane.
c. The ventral mesocardium - breaks down after heart looping.
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d. The myoepicardial mantle forms cardiac myocytes.


* e. The cardiac endothelium is derived from mesenchyme.

73. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) can be detected:


a. By the end of the 4th day IUL
b. By the end of the 5th day IUL
c. At the beginning of the first week IUL
* d. By the end of the 2nd week IUL
e. By the end of the 3rd week IUL

75. Concerning amniotic fluid, the following are TRUE except:


* a. Restricts foetal movement within the amniotic cavity.
b. Is derived from maternal foetal blood.
c. Is swallowed by the foetus from beginning of 5th month.
d. Absorbs jolts to the fetus.
e. Is replaced every 3 hours.

77. All the following traverse the primitive umbilical ring except
a. Allantois
b. Vitelline duct
c. Spiral arteries.
* d. Canal between the intra and extraembryonic cavities.
e. Yolk sac stalk.

78. Which of the following does not apply to monozygotic (identical) twins:
a. Develop from a single fertilized ovum
b. The earliest separation is believed to occur at the two-cell stage.
c. Separation may occur at the bilaminar germ disc stage.
d. May have a common chorionic and single amniotic sac.
* e. Their twinning rate is about 15 in every 1000.

79. The embryonic period is between:


a. The first two weeks of IUL.
b. The 4th to 38th weeks of IUL
c. The 9th to 38th weeks of IUL
* d. The 3rd to 8th weeks of IUL
e. None of the above.

82. Regarding congenital malformations:


a. The period sensitive to teratogenic insults is the 8th - 12th week.
b. Cataracts, deafness and ear defects are most likely caused by
cytomegalovirus.
* c. Klinefelters syndrome is an example of a numeric chromosomal
abnormality.
d. The foetal alcohol syndrome is characterised by mental retardation.
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e. The action of a teratogenic agent is not affected by the duration of


exposure.

84. The following apply to the break down of fetal red blood cells
(erythroblastosis) fetalis except:
a. May lead to intrauterine death
b. May result from Rh-positive fetus and Rh-negative mother.
* c. May result from Rh-negative fetus and Rh-positive mother.
d. Can be prevented by giving the mother Rh immunoglobulin.
e. Small bleeds at the surface of the villi are probably responsible for the
antigen antibody interaction between fetus and mother.

85. Which of the following congenital anomalies follows gene mutations:


a. Down's syndrome
b. Cri-du-chat syndrome
c. Mosaicism
* d. Achondroplasia
e. Turner's syndrome

88. A persistence of the proximal end of the yolk stalk in an adult is called the:
a. Urachal ligament.
b. Ductus venosum.
c. Vitelline membrane.
d. Appendix.
* e. None of the above.

90. All of the following statements about embryonic and fetal urine production are
TRUE except:
* a. The pronephros forms copious hypertonic urine.
b. The mesonephros forms hypotonic urine.
c. Polyhydramnios can be due to fetal swallowing disorders.
d. Fetuses urinate into the amniotic fluid.
e. Oligohydramnios can be due to renal agenesis.

92. Cataracts, deafness and ear defects are most likely caused by which of the
following agents:
* a. Rubella virus
b. Thalidomide
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Methyl mercury
e. Hyperthermia

95. Allantoenteric diverticulum:


a. Forms at the anterior wall of the yolk sac.
b. Is quite elaborate in man.
* c. May be involved in abnormalities of bladder development.
d. Is synonymous with neurenteric canal.
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e. First appears in the fourth week IUL

ANSWERS FOR EMBRYOLOGY


1. A 25. D 49. E 73. D
2. B 26. D 50. B 74. D
3. B 27. E 51. C 75. A
4. E 28. C 52. A 76. C
5. A 29. A 53. C 77. D
6. B 30. C 54. B 78. E
7. C 31. B 55. D 79. D
8. A 32. A 56. C 80. A
9. C 33. D 57. A 81. E
10. D 34. E 58. B 82. C
11. C 35. A 59. B 83. E
12. E 36. A 60. D 84. C
13. C 37. A 61. E 85. D
14. B 38. C 62. C 86. A
15. D 39. E 63. E 87. E
16. C 40. B 64. D 88. E
17. E 41. E 65. D 89. B
18. D 42. B 66. A 90. A
19. A 43. A 67. A 91. B
20. 44. D 68. E 92. A
21. C 45. A 69. E 93. E
22. D 46. C 70. C 94. E
23. C 47. E 71. D 95. C
24. A 48. E 72. E
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