BASIC LEVEL III REFRESHER

SECTION!:

Interpretation of SNT-TC-IA. 1996 Edition and ANSIIASNT CP-189-1995

1. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. Certification is written testimony of qualification.

b. Qualification is the skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly
perform the duties of a specific job.
c. The employer is the corporate or private entity which employs personnel for wages
or salary.
d. A certifying agency is any organization used by an employer in training NDT
personnel.
e. Training is a program developed to impart the knowledge and skills necessary for
qualification.

2. To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-IA currently applicable?

a. Visual testing
b. Thermal / infrared testing /
c. Acoustic emission testing--
d. All of the above
e. Only a and c above

(2) ASNT intended that the requirements of CP-189 be applied:

a. with flexibility and reason.

b. as modified by other codes or standards.
c. as minimum requirements.
d. as maximum requirements.

4. Certification is:

a. the skill, training and experience required for personnel to properly perform the
duties of a specific job.
b. written testimony of qualification.
c. intended to be conferred by an organization independent from the employer.
d. intended to be conferred by an organization hired by the employer.
e. intended to be conferred on Level ill personnel by ASNT only.

@ ASNT intended that the recommendations of SNT-TC-IA be applied:

a. with flexibility and reason.

b. precisely as written.
c. as minimum requirements.
d. as maximum requirements.
e. only when work is being done in accordance with a code or specification.

Basic L-lII Refresher Course

Revised 1195
1
6. The basic levels of qualification specified in CP-189 are:
a. trainee, Level J, Level ITand Level m.
b. instructor, trainee, Level J, Level ITand Level m.
c. Level I, Level IT and Level Ill.
d. Level ITand Level m.
e. none of the above.

7. Certification of Level III personnel per CP-189 requires the employer to administer the
following examinations:

a. Basic, Method and Specific.

b. Vision, Basic, Method and Specific.
c. General, Specific and Practical.
d. Vision, Specific and Practical.
e. Specific and Practical

8. The basic levels of qualification recommended by SNT-TC-1A are:

a. trainee, Level J, Level ITand Level m.

b. trainee, apprentice, Level I, Level ITand Level Ill.
c. Level I, Level II and Level Ill.
d. trainee, Level I, Level II, Instructor and Level III
e. none of the above.

9. Level III certifications per CP-189 shall expire:

a. at the end of the five-year certification period.

b. when the vision examination interval exceeds one year.
c. when the ASNT Level III certificate expires.
d. a or b above.
e. a or c above.

10. Which of the fOllO~~not within the scope of activities of a Level II individual, as
recommended by S - -lA?

a. Calibrate equipment
b. Prepare written instructions
c. Establish techniques
d. Provide training
e. Both b and c above

Basic L-IlI Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 2
11. Maya Level I independently perform, evaluate, and sign for results of nondestructive tests
with occasional supervision of a Level ITor Level ill?

a. Yes, the intent is that the Level I may perform the above functions provided they are
in accordance with written procedures and so documented in the employer's written
practice.
b . No, the Level I may perform the above functions in accordance with written
procedures, but must be under constant supervision and guidance of a Level ITor a
Level III.
c. No, the Level I may not sign for test results.
d. No, the Level I is not allowed to take any independent action
e. Yes, provided that the Level I receives detailed verbal instructions from the Level IT
or ill and demonstrates the capability to follow the instructions.

12. In accordance with SNT-TC-IA, who is responsible for establishing a written practice for
the control and administration of NDT personnel training, examination and certification?

a. The NDT Level ill

b. The employer
c. ASNT
d. An appropriate regulatory authority
e. The customer

13. All NDT training of personnel in accordance with CP-189 shall be presented by an
individual qualified as:

a. an NDT Level ill.

b. an NDT Level II.
c. an NDT trainee.
d. an NDT instructor.
e. none of the above.

Per CP-189, the vision examinations shall consists of a:

a. near distance acuity reading a Jaeger #2 chart at a distance of not less than 12"
administered annually.
b. color vision examination which demonstrates the ability to differentiate among
colors used in the method administered annually.
c. distance vision test administered initially and at recertification.
d. a and b above.
e. none of the above.

15. Inleak testing, recommended training and work time experience:

a. differs for each of four major techniques.

b. does not consider different techniques.
c. is listed for Levels ITand III only.
d. is significantly greater than for ultrasonic testing.
e. does not include pressure change testing.

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 3
8 CP-189 requires that the employer records include:
a. copies of current and previous employer examinations.
b. a monthly log of experience.
c. a copy of current Level III examinations.
d. results of all required vision examinations.
e. all of the above.

Per CP-189, the employer's certification procedure shall be approved by:

a. the employer's representative designated by the NDT Level III.

b. the customer.
c. the NDT Level illdesignated by the employer.
d. ASNT.
e. the employer's Quality Assurance Manager.

Per CP-189, for an individual to receive credit for training, that individual must:

a. have attended the entire course.

b. have a passing composite score.
c. pass all quizzes and examinations.
d. pass a final examination.
e. have attended at least 70% of the couse hours.

19. Which of the following may conduct and grade all qualification examinations (general,
specific and practical) for Level I and Level II personnel for both SNT-TC-IA and CPf%,fJ
189? ~I".

a. An NDT Level III in that method Q_ '\ r

b. A selected representative of the NDT Level III r .~ I[; ,
c. An ASNT Level III certificate holder in that method V
do All of the above
e. Both a and b above

20. Which of the following statements is true with re_gardto the administration of written
examinations?

a. The examinee should no~ted access to any reference material.

b. Reference data nUtflJeSUpplied for the practical examination only.
c. Level III personnel should be required to memorize everything except codes,
specifications and procedures.
d. Codes, specifications, procedures, graphs and tables can be provided to examinees
for reference during examinations.
e. None of the above is true.

Basic L-llI Refresher Course

Revised 1195 4
 SECTION IT: NDT METHODS

Radiographic Testing

21. The difference between the densities of two areas of a radiograph is called:

a. radiographic contrast.
b. subject contrast.
c. film contrast.
d. definition.
e. opacity.

22. The penetrating ability of an x-ray beam is governed by:

a. kilovoltage or wavelength.
b. time.
c. milliamperage.
d. source-to-film distance.

23. Two x-ray machines operating at the same nominal kilovoltage and milliamperage settings:

a. will produce the same intensities and energies of radiation.

b. will produce the same intensities but may produce different energies of radiation.
c. will produce the same energies but may produce different intensities of radiation.
d. may give not only different intensities but also different energies of radiation.

The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation, ionize and become electrical conductors
make them useful in:

a. x-ray transformers.
b. x-ray tubes.
c. masks.
d. radiation detection equipment.
e. fluoroscopy.

25. Which of the following technique variables is most commonly used to adjust subject
contrast?

a. Source-film distance
b. Milliamperage
c. Kilovoltage
d. Focal spot size
e. All of the above

26. When viewing a radiograph, an image of the back of the cassette superimposed on the
image of the specimen is noted. This is most likely due to:

a. undercut.
b. over-exposure.
c. x-ray intensity too high.
d. back-scattered radiation.

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 5
27. A penetrameter is used to measure the:
a. size of discontinuities in a part.
b. density of the film.
c. amount of film contrast.
d. quality of the radiographic technique.
e. amount of radiation that penetrates the test object.

Magnetic Particle Testing

28. Circular magnetization is useful in the detection of:

a. circumferential cracks.
b. longitudinal cracks.
c. cracks in cylindrical parts at right angles to the long axis of the part.
d. both a and c above.

29. How is the inside diameter of a cylinder best magnetized?

a. by a head shot.
b. by using prods at either end.
c. with a central conductor placed between contact heads.
d. with the cylinder placed crosswise in a solenoid.

30. Which of the following is a major disadvantage of using the prod method?

a. The magnetic field may be applied in the wrong direction.

b. The inspection surface may be arc burned.
c. Magnetic saturation may occur.
d. The operator's eyes may be burned by arc strikes.

31. The best type of magnetizing current for inspection of fatigue cracks is:

a. direct current.
b. alternating current.
c. half-wave direct current.
d. full-wave rectified direct current.
e. any of the above if the current is correct.

32. Fluorescent magnetic particles are used in preference to visible magnetic particles:

a. when parts are big and bulky.

b. to take advantage of the fluorescent lights that are normally used in plants.
c. if parts are for railroad applications.
d. to increase the speed and reliability of detecting very small discontinuities.

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 6
33. The amount of amperage used for magnetic particle inspection using the prod method is
based on the:

a. thickness of the part.

b. distance between the prods.
c. diameter of the prods.
d. all of the above.
e. both a and b above.

34. Which of the following materials cannot be tested by magnetic particle techniques?

a. High alloy steels

b. Tool steels
c. Copper alloys
d. Ferritic stainless steels
e. Both c and d above

Ultrasonic Testing

0-
'~5.) Ultrasonic testing techniques are useful in testing laminate and sandwich construction test
,j objects for:

a. paint thickness.
b. bond integrity.
c. leakage.
d. surface roughness.
e. electrical conductivity.

36.

a. laminar type flaws with major dimension parallel to the plane of the rolled surface.
b. transverse type flaws with major dimensions at right angles to the plane of the
rolled surface.
c. radial flaws with major dimensions along the length but radially oriented to the
rolled surface.
d. none of the above.

37. Generally, the best ultrasonic testing technique for detecting discontinuities oriented along
the fusion zone in a welded plate is:

a. an angle-beam contact method employing surface waves.

b. a contact test using a straight longitudinal wave.
c. an immersion test using surface waves.
d. a resonance technique.
e. an angle-beam method using shear waves.

Basic L-Ill Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 7
38. Ingeneral, shear waves are more sensitive to small discontinuities than longitudinal waves
for a given frequency and in a given material because:
. a. the wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the wavelength of longitudinal
waves.
b. shear waves are not as easily dispersed in the material.
c. the direction of particle vibration for shear waves is more sensitive to
discontinuities .
d. the wavelength of shear waves is longer than the wavelength of longitudinal waves.

> Lack of parallelism between the entry surface and the back surface:

a. may result in a screen pattern that does not contain back reflection indications.
b. makes it difficult to locate discontinuities that lie parallel to the entry surface.
c. usually indicates a porous condition existing in the metal.
d. will decrease the penetrating power of the test.

40. The amount of energy reflected from a discontinuity is dependent on:

a. the size of the discontinuity.

b. the orientation of the discontinuity.
c. the type of the discontinuity.
d. all of the above.
e. only a and b above.

41. Ultrasonic velocities are different for different materials. These differences are primarily
caused by differences in the material's:

a. frequency and wavelength.

b. thickness and travel time.
c. elasticity and density.
d. chemistry and permeability.

Penetrant Testing

42. Penetrant testing is a nondestructive test which can be used for:

a. locating and evaluating all types of discontinuities in a test specimen.

b. locating and determining the length, width, and depth of discontinuities in a test
specimen.
c. determining the tensile strength of a test specimen.
d. locating discontinuities open to the surface.
e. all but c above.

Basic L-Ill Refresher Course

Revised 1195 8
 The property of a dye used in penetrant materials to emit light of a range.of.waselengths
different from the wavelength of light that excites the emission is called:

a. emissivity.
b. irradiation.
c. blacklight.
d. spectrum blocking.
e. fluorescence.

44. Which of the followin~stic that applies to penetrant testing?

a. This method can accurately measure the depth of a crack or discontinuity.

b. This method can be used for on -site testing of large parts.
c. This method can be used to find shallow surface discontinuities.
d. This method can be made more or less sensitive by using different penetrant
materials.

45. A red penetrant indication against white background is most likely to be seen when:

a. dry developers are used.

b. visible dye penetrants are used.
c. fluorescent post emulsified penetrants are used.
d. wet developers are used.
e. ultraviolet light is used with visible dye penetrants.

46. In a penetrant test, scattered round indications on the surface of the part could be indicative
of:
a. fatigue cracks.
b. porosity.
c. weld laps.
d. hot tears.
e. grinding cracks.

Which of the following statements doe~ppJy_to d,.eyelopers

__
used during penetrant
testing? -

a. Developers are normally high fluorescent.

b. Some developers furnish a contrasting background during inspection.
c. Developers absorb or blot the penetrant that remains in discontinuities after the
excess penetrant has been removed.
d. Both band c above.

48. The function of emulsifier in the post-emulsified penetrant process is to:

a. more rapidly drive the penetrant into deep, tight cracks.

b. react with the surface penetrant to make the penetrant water-washable.
c. add fluorescent dye or pigment to the penetrant.
d. provide a coating to which dry powder developer can adhere.
e. emulsify surface oils and greases to facilitate their removal.

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 9
 Eddy Current Testing

Q Eddy current testing relies on the principle of:

a. magnetostriction.
b. electromagnetic induction.
c. piezoelectric energy conversion.
d. magnetomotive force.
e. direct current flow in a resistive circuit.

When the electrical current in an eddy current coil reverses direction, the:

a. direction of the eddy currents in a part remains the same.

b. eddy currents in the test part will change phase by 45.
c. direction of the eddy currents in the part also reverses.
d. eddy currents in the part remain the same.

In order to generate measurable eddy currents in a test specimen, the specimen must be:

a. an electrical conductor.
b. an electrical insulator.
c. either a conductor or insulator.
d. a ferromagnetic material.
e. a non-magnetic material.
,, 52. A term used to describe the effect observed due to change in the coupling between a test
specimen and a flat probe coil when the distance of separation between them is varied is:

a. fill factor.
b. edge effect.
c. end effect.
d. lift-off.
e. coupling loss.

In eddy current testing, lACS is a recognized abbreviation for:

a.
b.
c.
induced alternating current system.
inductively activated comparison system.
internal applied current system.
d. international annealed copper standard.

\";,;.\ The thickness of nonconductive coatings on a conductive base can be most simply
V measured by:
a. observing the lift-off effect caused by the coating.
b. testing both sides of the specimen.
c. varying the test frequency over a given range during the test.
d. using a specially shaped encircling coil.

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1195 10
55. It is often possible to sort various alloys of a nonmagnetic metal by means of an eddy
current test when:

a. there is a unique range of permeability values for each alloy.

b. there is a unique range of conductivity values for each alloy.
c. the direction of induced eddy currents varies for each alloy.
d. the magnetic domains for each alloy are different.
e. the alloy is slightly magnetic, but not if totally non-magnetic.

Neutron Radiography Testing

56. Which of the following neutron radiography converter foils can not be used for transfer
or indirect radiography?

a. Dysprosium.
b. Indium.
c. Gadolinium.
d. Gold

(fi." A quantitative term often used to indicate the size of the smallest detail which can be seen in
\) a radiograph is:

a. radiographic sensitivity.
b. radiographic definition.
c. radiographic contrast.
d. subject contrast.

58. Neutron radiography can be used

,
for inspectingwhich
~--
of the following applications?

a. Presence of explosive in a metal device.

b. Presence of foreign materials such as oils.
c. Lubricants in metal systems- .
d. Hydrogen content in metals:
e. All of the above.

Leak Testing

@ Which of the following is an advantage of all the techniques of the bubble leak test method?
~
a. The results are quantitative in nature.
b. Limited skill and training is required for personnel.
c. Very high sensitivity is~e.
d. It is not satisfactory for detecting gross leakagex,

Basic L-1Il Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 11
60. Which of the following is the most commonly used tracer gas for Halogen Diode Leak
Testing?

a. Coolant #6
b. Acetate #18
c. Reagent #901
d. Refrigerent R-12

61. The passage of gas by diffusion through a solid material where ther is no physical leak in
the sense of an opening or defect is called:

a. Absorption
b. Adsorption
c. Capillary action
d. Permeation

Acoustic Emission

62. Attenuation of a wave is best defined by which of the following statements?

a. A decrease in frequency with the distance traveled.

b. A decrease in amplitude with distance traveled.
c. A decrease in wave speed with distance traveled.
d. A change in direction with a function of time.

63. Which of the following factors will tend to produce low amplitude acoustic emission
response during a tensile test?

a. Low temperature.
b. High strain rate.
c. Plastic deformation.
d. Crack propagation.

64. Acoustic emission transducers are piezoelectric sensors which operate at frequencies from:

a. 1MHz - 25 Mhz
b. 60 Hz - 120 Hz
c. 20 KHz - 1.5 MHz
d. 50 MHz - 100 MHz

Thermal! Infrared Testing

65. Which of the following conditions would be detected with thermography?

a. Unbond conditions.
b. Presence of moisture in structures.
c. Heat loss from components.
d. Leaks in flat, composite roofs.
e. All of the above.

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 12
66. Thermography sensors are capable of detecting electromagnetic radiation wavelengths:

a. shorter than the x-ray and gamma ray spectrum.

b. in the visible light spectrum.
c. long than the radio and television wave spectrum.
d. in the infrared spectrum,
e. both band d.

67. Which of the following would be considered to be a contact type sensor?

a. Pyromenters.
b. Hand held scanners.
c. Thermal quenched phosphor.
d. Pyroelectric vidicon cameras.
e. None of the above.

Visual Testing

68. Hand held magnifiers should fall into which of the following ranges?

a. 2X - 4X
b. 5X - lOX
c. lOX - 20X
d. 20X - 30X
e. None of the above.

69. Which of the followi~involve dimensional metrology for a visual

examination?

a. Bolt circle spacing

b. Selection of lubricant for given bearing allowance
c. Bevel angle limits for weld edge preparation
d. Tolerance required for a shaft in a bearing
e. Hole depth

70. Visual acuity is the ability of the eye to:

a. resolve details
b. perceive light intensity
c. distinguish between different colors
d. retain images after the light source is removed
e. identify specific wavelengths

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 13
 SECTION III: MA TERTALS & PROCESSES

71. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.

b. All discontinuities are defects.
c. All defects will lead to failure if undetected; discontinuities can be harmless.
d. Discontinuities are external natural boundaries only; defects are internal flaws
originating from errors in processing.

72. Most metals and plastics that are solids and have reasonable strength at room temperature
are called:

a. composite materials.
b. manufacturing materials.
c. raw materials.
d. allotropic materials.
e. engineering materials.

73. Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a newly developed alloy in order to
determine the ultimate tensile strength of the material. Such tests are referred to as:

a. indirect tests.
b. physical properties tests.
c. destructive tests.
d. proof tests.
74. On the diagram below, point B is called the:

a. elastic range.
b. elastic limit.
c. yield point.
d. yield strength.
e. modulus of elasticity.

c
., D
Co

iii
III
W
a::
I-
III
I-
2
:::l

A
UNIT DEFORMATION

Stress-strain diagram
Basic L-III Refresher Course
Revised 1/95 14
75. Which of the following tests utilizes a pendulum to break a specimen that is notched and
supported on both ends, with the result of measuring energy absorption?

a. Creep test
b. Charpy test
c. Fatigue test
d. Transverse rupture test

76. The terms "body-centered cubic", "face-centered cubic", and "hexagonal closed-packed" all
refer to the:

a. different size grains that can exist at the same time in a metallic structure.
b. sequence of crystalline growth in a typical mild steel.
c. lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure.
d. change in a metallic structure as it undergoes plastic deformation.

77. The reduction of iron ore by mixing with coke, limestone, and oxygen for combustion of
the coke is accomplished in:

a. a blast furnace.
b. an open-hearth furnace.
c. a Bessemer converter.
d. a basic oxygen furnace.

78. In the iron and steel making process, the term "pig iron" refers to:

a. the waste material that contains high concentrations of impurities and slag and is
either discarded or used as a by product.
b. a high carb~<?-w ductility rn~taL~h~~~ in~t4_~.?lastfurnace w~~c:.an_be
used to _l_!@(~ubsequent~p~s_gf.ltO~j. ~'- ..- - ------
c. the molten metarfrOrilthe blast furnace that is not usable and is poured off into a
series of crude castings called "pigs".
d. both a and c above.
e. none of the above.

79. Austenitic stainless steels are paramagnetic. This means that:

a. alternating current must be used when using the magnetic particle testing method.
b. the steel is very dense and, relative to other steels, difficult to penetrate with x-rays,
c. ultrasonics is the logical NDT method to choose because of the coarse-grained
nature of a paramagnetic material.
d. all of the above are true.
e. none of the above is true.

80. The heat treatment of aluminum for the purpose of hardening and strengthening:

a. is not possible with aluminum alloys as they contain no carbon and cannot undergo
allotropic changes.
b. can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some carbon steels.
c. requires the use of special furnaces and is rarely done as a practical application.
d. requires that iron and carbon be alloyed for the best results.

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 15
 81. Design engineers are responsible for establishing the function, appearance, quality, and
cost of a product. Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which of the following is
true?

a. As a group, designers, by their training and education, are adequately informed

about NDT to establish NDE procedures and acceptance criteria.
b. When NDT appears necessary in a design, the designer should properly select the
methods and techniques to be used by reference to NDT handbooks.
c. Designers should depend solely upon NDT personnel to establish acceptance
criteria.
Cd. None of the above is true.

/' 82. '\ Which of the following is true regarding solidification of molten metal in a casting mold?
( j ~-------
',_/ a. The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing fine equiaxed grains throughout.
b. Cooling takes place in phases having different rates that produce different types of
grain structure in different sections of the casting.
c. Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning at the interior of the casting and
progressing outward.
d. Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than thin sections because thin sections
consist mostly of fine equiaxed grains.

83. Large voids of porosity in a casting can result from:

a. turbulent flow of the molten metal during pouring.

b. alloy element segregation.
c. molten metal boiling because of superheat.
d. gas evolution after solidification.

84. During the solidification of a casting, the shrinkage that occurs:

a. may cause porosity and shrinkage cavities primarily in the outer surfaces where the
metal cools first.
b. requires that the pattern used be slightly smaller than the desired dimension of the
finished casting.
c. may cause cavities that are enlarged by the evolution of gases.
d. may result from all of the above.

85. Small metal supports used to support and position cores become part of a casting by fusing
with the molten metal. Such devices are called:

a. core hangers.
b. chills.
c. chaplets.
d. risers.
e. patterns.

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1/95 16
@ The part of the casting where the gate or riser was attached:
a. should be the area used to establish reference standards for future NDT
examinations because this area will contain the best quality cast material.
b. provides the best quality material because of rapid cooling in this area.
c. should be in the area that "freezes" first, thus preventing excessive shrinkage
cavities.
d. may provide a concentration point for discontinuities.

87. An assembly that has been created by joining two or more parts by one or more welds is
called a:

a joint.
b. bonded structure.
c. weld.
d. weldment.

88. Of the following, which is not a requirement for fusion bonding?

a. Melting
b. Atomic closeness
c. Atomic cleanliness
d. Pressure
e. Both b and c above

89. -------
In arc welding, the electric-...-,--
a. welding machine.
arc is usually
- --------~
sustained between an electrode and the:
-- ---'----,'-.---_-_

b. coating on the electrode.

c. work piece.
d. shielding gas.

90. Which of the following welding processes uses a n~sum.abl~~l~c.tIQde with the arc
maint~~g~sT -
a. Gas tungsten arc welding.
b. Submerged arc welding.
c. Gas metal arc welding.
d. Electroslag welding.

91. Undercut on a weld pass is usually caused by:

a. poor operator technique.

b. too slow a rate of travel, causing the base metal to become too hot.
c. using an electrode that is too large for the current capacity of the welding machine.
d. all of the above.
e. only band c above.

Basic L-llI RefresherCourse

Revised 1/95 17
 92. Among other things, the advantageous effects of recrystallization depend upon:

a. the rate of deformation.

b. the temperature at which deformation takes place.
c. the presence of carbon in excess of 2.5% for steels.
d. all of the above.
e. both a and b above.

93. Which of the following would have the least ductility?

a. Cold-rolled steel plate

b. Hot-rolled steel plate
c. Gray cast iron
d. Hot-rolled aluminum plate

t). Slabs, blooms, and billets are:

a. the three consecutive stages that the metal goes through during the production of
products such as angle iron and channel iron.
b. the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary operations.
c. types of defects that occur during the hot rolling of steel.
d. the three different shapes produced during typical cold rolling operations.

95. Which of~he f?llo~ing forms is generally selec~~f_high strength ~ontrolled

_W:OP~ .

a. Castings
b. Extrusions
c. Hot-rolled flat stock
d. Forgings
e. None of the above

96. Powder metallurgy provides two unique advantages in metals processing. One is the
capability to produce shapes and objects of refractory metals that are extremely difficult or
impractical to melt. The other is to:

a. economically produce metals with extremely low melting temperatures.

b. produce metal shapes with controlled porosity.
c. produce metals that can be easily machined by electrochemical processes.
d. produce metals that are corrosion resistant.

97. Which of the following terms describe operations that bend, stretch and shape sheet metals
into three-dimensional shapes without significant plastic flow and deformation?
98. The acronym EDM refers to:

a. engineering design materials.

b. energy discharge machines.
c. electro-dynamic machining.
d. electrical discharge machining.
e. elastomeric/diatomic mixture.

99.
accomplished by masking ar~:,~~!:~
a. electrical discharge machining.
~=-&.Il~
The process used for shaping metals by chemical dissolution only, with selective removal
be ~~.T~_~~is called:

b. chemical milling.
c. electrochemical machining.
d. electroforming.
e. none of the above.

100. Coatings are often applied to protect a material; their thickness can frequently be determined
nondestructively by:

a. acoustic emission.
b. eddy current.
c. surface wave ultrasonic techniques.
d. optical holography.

Basic L-III Refresher Course

Revised 1195 19