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AIPMT 2015

Previous Year
Question Paper
AIPMT 2015

AIPMT 2015
Time: 3hrs Total Marks: 720

1. If force E , velocity v and time T are chosen as fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface tension will
(1) [Ev 2 T 1] (2) [Ev 1 T 2 ] (3) [Ev 2 T 2 ] (4) [E2v 1 T 3 ]

2. A Ship A is moving westwards with a speed of 10 km h1 and a ship B 100 km south of A is moving northwards with a
speed of 10 km h . The time after which the distance between them becomes shortest is
(1) 0 h (2) 5 h (3) 5 2 h (4) 10 2 h StudMonk

3. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to v x x2n
where and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of x is given by
(1) 2n2 x 2n (2) 2n2 x 4n1 (3) 22 x 2n1 (4) 2n2 e4n1

4. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4kg, 2kg and 1kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as shown. If a force
of 14N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A and B is

(1) 2N (2) 6N (3) 8N (4) 18N

5. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at the edge of table and from
its other end another block B of mass m 2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is k . When the block A
is sliding on the table, the tension in the string is

m2 km1 g (2)
m2 km1 g (3)
m1m2 1 k g
m1m2 1 k g
m1 m2 m1 m2 m1 m2 m1 m2

6. Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants KP and K Q . They are stretched, first by the same amount (case a),

then b y the same force (case b) . The work done by the springs WP and WQ are related as in case a and case b ,

7. A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x direction with a constant speed of 10 ms1 is subjected to a retarding force F 0.1 x J / m during
its travel from x 20 m to 30 m . Its final KE will be
(1) 475 J (2) 450 J (3) 275 J (4) 250 J

AIPMT 2015

8. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a constant power k watts . If the particle starts from rest, the force on the particle at
time t is
mk 1/2 1
(1) t (2) mk t 1/2 (3) 2mk t 1/2 (4) mk t 1/2
2 2

9. Two particles of masses m1, m2 move with initial velocities u1 and u2 . On collision, one of the particles get excited to higher level, after
absorbing energy E . If final velocities of particles be v1 and v 2 then we must have
1 1 1 1
(1) m12u1 m22u2 E m12 v1 m22v 2 (2) m1u12 m2u22 m1v12 m2v 22 E
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
(3) m1u12 m2u22 E m1v12 m2v 22 (4) m12u1 m22u2 m12 v1 m22v 2 E
2 2 2 2

10. The rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The knives are at a distance
d from each other. The centre of mass of the rod is at distance x from A . The normal reaction on A is
Wx Wd W d x W d x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
d x x d

11. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane with velocity v 0 at a radius R0 . The mass is attached to a string which passes
through a smooth hole in the plane as shown

The tension in the string is increased gradually and finally m moves in a circle of radius . The final value of the kinetic energy is
1 1
(1) mv 02 (2) mv 02 (3) 2mv 02 (4) mv 02
4 2

12. Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r placed as shown in figure. Consider an axis XX ' which is touching to two shells
and passing through diameter of third shell.
Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these three spherical shells about XX ' axis is

11 2
(1) mr
(2) 3 mr 2
(3) mr 2
(4) 4 mr 2

AIPMT 2015

13. Kepler s third law states that square of period of revolution T of a planet around the Sun is proportional to third power of average distance r
between Sun and planet
i.e. T2 Kr 3
here K is constant
If the masses of Sun and planet are M and m , respectively, then as per Newto s law of gravitation, force of attraction between them is
F , here G is gravitational constant. The relation between G and K is described as
(1) GK 42 (2) GMK 42 (3) K G (4) K

14. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal
to 12R . If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body before collision is
(1) 2.5R (2) 4.5R (3) 7.5R (4) 1.5R

15. On observing light from three different stars P, Q and R , it was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum in the spectrum of P, the
intensity of green colour is maximum in the spectrum of R and the intensity of red colour is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If TP , TQ and TR
are the respective absolute temperatures of P,Q and R , then it can be concluded from the above observation that
(1) TP TQ TR (2) TP TR TQ (3) TP TR TQ (4) TP TQ TR

16. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m . the compressibility of water is 45.4 1011 Pa1 and density of water is 103 kg / m3 . What
fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?
(1) 0.8 102 (2) 1.0 102 (3) 1.2 102 (4) 1.4 102

17. The two ends of a metal rod maintained at temperatures 100 C and 110 C . The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 J / s . If the
ends are maintained at temperatures 200 C and 210 C , the rate of heat flow will be
(1) 44.0 J / s (2) 16.8 J / s (3) 8.0 J / s (4) 4.0 J / s
18. A wind with speed 40m / s blows parallel to the roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2 . Assuming that the pressure inside the house
is atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force will be
(Pr essure of air 1.2 kg / m3 )
(1) 4.8 105 N, downwards (2) 4.8 105 N, upwards
(3) 2.4 105 N, upwards (4) 2.4 105 N, downwards

19. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from a state A to a state C.

In process AB, 400J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100J of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the
system in the process AC will be
(1) 380 J (2) 500 J (3) 460 J (4) 300 J

AIPMT 2015

20. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat engine is used as a refrigerator. Ifthe work done on the system is 10 J , the amount of
energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is
(1) 100 J (2) 99J (3) 90 J (4) 1J

21. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path
AB as shown in the figure,
The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is
(1) 20 kJ
(2) 20kJ
(3) 20 J
(4) 12kJ

22. The ratio of the specific heats in terms of degrees of freedom n is given by
1 n 2 n
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 1
n 3 n 2

23. When two displacements represented by y1 a sin t and y 2 b cos t are superimposed the motion is
(1) Not a simple harmonic (2) Simple harmonic with amplitude

(3) Simple harmonic with amplitude a2 b2 (4) Simple harmonic with amplitude
a b

24. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. It s velocities at distances x1 and x 2 from the mean position are v1 and v 2 , respectively. Its
time period is
(1) x12 x 22 x 22 x12 v12 v 22 v12 v 22
2 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 2
v12 v 22 v12 v 22 x12 x 22 x12 x 22

25. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe open at both the
ends. The length of organ pipe open at both ends is
(1) 80 cm (2) 100 cm (3) 120 cm (4) 140 cm

26. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric
constant K which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) The potential difference between the plates decrease K times
(2) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times
1 1
(3) The change in energy stored is CV 2 1
2 K
(4) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.

27. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by E Ar. A charge contained in a sphere of radius 'a ' centred at the
origin of the field, will be given by
(1) 4 0 Aa2 (2) A 0a 2 (3) 4 0 A a3 (4) 0 A a3

28. A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 . The resistance that must be connected in series with the wire and an accumulator
of emf 2 V , so as to get a potential gradient 1 mV / cm on the wire is
(1) 32 (2) 40 (3) 44 (4) 48

AIPMT 2015

29. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5R and 3R respectively, as shown in the figure. When some potential difference is applied
between X and Y , the voltmeter readings are VA , VB and VC respectively, then

(1) VA VB VC (2) VA VB VC (3) VA VB VC (4) VA VB VC

30. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross section a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the
conductor is
(1) current density (2) current (3) drift velocity (4) electric field

31. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire
are very long and parallel to X -axis, while semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y Z
plane. Magnetic field at point O is(1) B 0
4 R

i 2k

(2) B 0
4 R

i 2k
(3) B 0
4 R

i 2k
(4) B 0
4 R

i 2k

32. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n rotations per second. The
magnetic field produced at the centre has magnitude:
ne n2e ne
(1) 0 (2) Zero (3) 0 (4) 0
2r r 2r

33. A conducting square frame of side 'a ' and a long straight wire carrying current I are
located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a
constant velocity ' v ' . The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to
(1) 2
2x a

2x a 2x a

AIPMT 2015

34. A resistance 'R ' draws power 'P ' when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the
impedance of the circuit becomes ' Z ' , the power drawn will be
(1) P (2) P (3) P (4) P

35. A radiation of energy 'E ' falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is c velocity of light :
E 2E 2E E
(1) (2) (3) (4)
c c c2 c2

36. Two identical thin planoconvex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5 ) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex
surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7 . The focal length of the combination is
(1) 20cm (2) 25cm (3) 50cm (4) 50cm

37. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength ' ' , diffraction is produced by a single s lit whose width 'a ' is of the order of the
wavelength of the light. If 'D ' is the distance of the screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be
2D D Da 2Da
(1) (2) (3) (4) StudMonk
a a

38. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used.
What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern?
(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.1 mm (3) 0.5 mm (4) 0.02 mm

39. The refracting angle of a prism is A , and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot A / 2 . The angle of minimum deviation is
(1) 180 3A (2) 180 2A (3) 90 A (4) 180 2A

40. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength . The stopping potential for photoelectric current for this light
is 3V0 . If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2 , the stopping potential is V0 . The threshold wavelength for this
surface for photoelectric effect is

(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) (4)
4 6

41. Which of the following figure represents the variation of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

42. Consider 3rd orbit of He (Helium), using non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be [given k 9 109 constant,
Z 2 and h (Pla ck s constant) 6.6 1034 Js ]
(1) 2.92 106 m / s (2) 1.46 106 m / s (3) 0.73 106 m / s (4) 3.0 108 m / s

27 125
43. If radius of the 13 Al nucleus is taken to be R Al then the radius of 53 Te nucleus is nearly:
1/3 1/3
53 5 3 13
(1) R Al (2) R Al (3) R Al (4) R Al
13 3 5 53

AIPMT 2015

44. If in a p n junction, a square input signal of 10V is applied, as shown

Then the output across RL will be

(1) (2) (3) (4)

45. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?


(1) OR (2) NAND (3) AND (4) NOR


46. Which of the following species contains equal number of and -bonds?
(1) HCO 3 (2) XeO4 (3) CN2 (4) CH2 CN2

47. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?
(1) Ar K Ca2 (2) Ca2 Ar K
(3) Ca K Ar (4) K Ar Ca2

48. The function of odiu pu p is a biological process operating in each and every cell of all animals. Which of the following biologically important
ions is also a constituent of this pump?
(1) Ca2 (2) Mg2 (3) K (4) Fe2

49. Metals are usually not found as nitrates in their ores . Out of the following two (a and b) reasons which is/are true for the above
Metal nitrates are highly unstable.
Metal nitrates are highly soluble in water.
(1) a and b are true (2) a and b are false (3) a is false but b is true (4) a is true but b is false

AIPMT 2015

50. Solubility of the alkaline earth s metal sulphates in water decreases in the sequence :
(1) Mg Ca Sr Ba (2) Ca Sr Ba Mg
(3) Sr Ca Mg Ba (4) Ba Mg Sr Ca

51. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis are
atomic numbers).
(1) Ti 22 and Zr 40 (2) Zr 40 and Nb 41
(3) Zr 40 and Hf 72 (4) Zr 40 and Ta 73 StudMonk

52. Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?
(1) Rusting of iron sheets
(2) Decolourisation of blue CuSO4 solution by iron
(3) Formation of Fe CO 3 from Fe
(4) Liberation of H2 from steam by iron at high temperature

53. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
(1) CO32 ,SO32 (2) ClO3 ,CO32 (3) SO32 ,NO3 (4) ClO3 ,SO32

54. Which of the following option represents the correct bond order?
(1) O2 O2 O2 (2) O2 O2 O2 (3) O2 O2 O2 (4) O2 O2 O2

55. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some properties in common. Which property is shown by one of these compounds, but not by the
(1) for s acid-rai (2) is a reducing agent (3) is soluble in water (4) is used as a food-preservative

56. Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following?

(1) NO2 (2) NO 2 (3) NO 2 (4) NO 3

57. Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by: ( At. nos. Ni 28,Ti 22,Cr 24,Co 27)
(1) Ni2 (2) Ti3 (3) Cr 2 (4) Co2

58. Cobalt III chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following will not give test for chloride ions with silver
nitrate at 25C ?
(1) CoCl3 .3NH3 (2) CoCl3 .4NH3 (3) CoCl3 .5NH3 (4) CoCl3 .6NH3

59. Which of these statements about [Co CN6 ]3 is true?

(1) [Co CN6 ]3 has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration
(2) [Co CN6 ]3 has four unpaired electrons and will be in low-spin configuration
(3) [Co CN6 ]3 has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
(4) [Co CN6 ]3 has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration

60. The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs?
ln K 1 T 1
(1) ln K vs T (2) vs T (3) ln K vs (4) vs
T T ln K T

61. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution?

AIPMT 2015

(1) Hmix (2) Smix (3) Vmix (4) P PObserved PRaoult

62. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O 2 gases in the ratio of 1: 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture?
(1) 1: 4 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 16 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

63. A given metal crystallizes out with a cubic structure having edge length of 361 pm . If there are four metal atoms in one unit cell, what is the
radius of one atom?
(1) 40 pm (2) 127 pm (3) 80 pm (4) 108 pm

64. When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half life period is not affected. The order of the reaction is:
(1) Zero (2) First (3) Second (4) More than zero but less than first StudMonk

65. If the value of an equilibrium constant for a particular reaction is 1.6 1012 , then at equilibrium the system will contain
(1) All reactants (2) Mostly reactants (3) Mostly products (4) Similar amounts of reactants and products

66. A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is known as :
(1) Fuel cell (2) Electrolytic cell (3) Dynamo (4) NiCd cell

67. The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg1 solution of X in water is greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. Which one of the following
statements is true in this case?
(1) X is undergoing dissociation in water
(2) Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass of Y
(3) Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular mass of Y
(4) Y is undergoing dissociation in water, while X undergoes no change

68. Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of va t Hoff s factor (i) as that of Al2 (SO4 )3 (if all are 100% ionized)?
(1) K 2SO4 (2) K 3 [Fe CN6 ] (3) Al(NO3 )3 (4) K 4 [Fe CN6 ]

69. The number of d-electrons in Fe2 Z 26 is not equal to the number of electrons in which one of the following?
(1) s-electrons in Mg (Z 12) (2) p-electrons in Cl Z 17
(3) d-electrons in Fe (Z 26) (4) p-electrons in Ne Z 10

70. The correct bond order in the following species is:

(1) O22 O2 O2 (2) O22 O2 O2 (3) O2 O2 O22 (4) O2 O2 O22

71. The angular momentum of electron in ' d' orbital is equal to:
(1) 6h (2) 2h (3) 2 3 h (4) 0 h

72. The K sp of Ag2CrO4 , AgCl,AgBr and AgI are, respectively, 1.11012,1.8 1010, 5.0 1013, 8.3 1017 . Which one of the following salts will
precipitate last if AgNO3 solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of NaCl,NaBr,NaI and Na2CrO4
(1) AgI (2) AgCl (3) AgBr (4) AgCrO4

73. Which property of colloidal solution is independent of charge on the colloidal particles?
(1) Coagulation (2) Electrophoresis (3) Electro-osmosis (4) Tyndall effect

74. Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible process in a state of equilibrium?

AIPMT 2015

(1) G 2.30 RT logK (2) G 2.30 RT log K

(3) G 2.30 RT log K (4) G 2.30 RT log K

75. Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an additive to function as a/an:

(1) Softener (2) Dryer (3) Buffering agent (4) Antiseptic

76. The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium produces:

(1) p-Aminophenol (2) Azoxybenzene (3) Azobenzene (4) Aniline

77. In Dumas method for estimation of nitrogen 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL if nitrogen collected at 300K temperature and
725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm , the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:
(1) 17.36 (2) 18.20 (3) 16.76 (4) 15.76

78. In which of the following compounds, the C Cl bond ionization shall give most stable carbonium ion?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

79. The reaction

| |
| |
(1) Williamson Synthesis (2) Williamson continuous etherification process
(3) Etard reaction (4) GatttermanKoch reaction

80. The reaction of C6H5CH CHCH3 with HBr produces

(1) C6H5 C H CH2CH3 (2) C6H5CH2 C HCH3 (3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br (4)
| |
Br Br

81. A single compound of the structure

is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds

AIPMT 2015

(1) (2) (3) (4)

82. Treatment of cyclopentanone with methyl lithium gives which of the following species?

(1) Cyclopentanonyl anion (2) Cyclopentanonyl cation

(3) Cyclopentanonyl radical (4) Cyclopentanonyl biradical

83. Consider the following compounds

Hyperconjugation occurs in:

(1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) I and III


84. Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement of a nucleophilic reaction to take place
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

AIPMT 2015

85. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as below has:

(1) 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds (2) 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bonds
(3) 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds (4) 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bonds

86. Given

Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?

(1) I and II (2) I and III (3) II and III (4) I, II and III

87. Given

The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as:

(1) I II III (2) III II I
(3) II III I (4) II I III

88. Biodegradable polymer which can be produced from glycine and aminocaproic acid is
(1) Nylon 2nylon 6 (2) PHBV (3) Buna-N (4) Nylon 6, 6

AIPMT 2015

89. The total number of bond electrons in the following structure is:

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16

90. An organic compound ' X ' having molecular formula C5H10O yields phenyl hydrazone and gives negative response to the lodoform test and
Tolle s test. It produces n- pentane on reduction. ' X ' could be:
(1) Pentanal (2) 2-Pentanone (3) 3-Pentanone (4) n-Amyl alcohol


91. Which one of the following matches is correct?

(1) Phytophthora Aseptate mycelium Basidiomycetes

(2) Alternaria Sexual reproduction absent Deuteromycetes
(3) Mucor Reproduction by conjugation Ascomycetes
(4) Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes

92. Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements:
(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise on a bare rock
(B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM
(D)Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte.
(1) (A),(C) and (D) (2) (B),(C) and (D)
(3) (A),(D) and (E) (4) (B),(C) and (E)

93. In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living

(1) Funaria (2) Marchantia (3) Pteris (4) Pinus

94. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) Algin and carrageenan are products of algae
(2) Agaragar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
(4) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae

95. The guts of cow and buffalo possess

(1) Fucus spp. (2) Chlorella spp. (3) Methanogens (4) Cyanobacteria

96. Male gametes are flagellated in

(1) Polysiphonia (2) Anabaena (3) Ectocarpus (4) Spirogyra

97. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because

(1) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle

AIPMT 2015

(2) Cambium is absent

(3) There are no vessels with perforations
(4) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem

98. is the floral formula of

(1) Allium (2) Sesbania (3) Petunia (4) Brassica

99. A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of

(1) Open vascular bundles
(2) Scattered vascular bundles
(3) Vasculature without cambium
(4) Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem along the radius

100. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of

(1) Tulip (2 )Indigofera (3) Aloe (4) Tomato

101. Perigynous flowers are found in

(1) Guava (2) Cucumber (3) China rose (4) Rose

102. Leaves become modified into spins in

(1) Opuntia (2) Pea (3) Onion (4) Silk cotton

103. The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are
(1) Cristae (2) Grana (3) Stroma lamellae (4) Stroma

104. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are
(1) Metacentric (2) Acrocentric (3) Telocentric (4) Sub-metacentric

105. Select the correct matching in the following pairs

(1) Smooth ER Oxidation of phospholipids
(2) Smooth ER Synthesis of lipids
(3) Rough ER Synthesis of glycogen
(4) Rough ER Oxidation of fatty acids

106. True nucleus is absent in

(1) Anabaena (2) Mucor (3) Vaucheria (4) Volvox

107. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?
(1) Phosphate granule (2) Cyanophycean granule
(3) Glycogen granule (4) Polysome

108. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by

(1) Pulling it upward (2) Pulling and pushing it, respectively
(3) Pushing it upward (4) Pushing and pulling it, respectively

109. Minerals known to be required in large amounts for plant growth include
(1) Phosphorus, Potassium, Sulphur, Calcium
(2) Calcium, Magnesium, Manganese, Copper
(3) Potassium, Phosphorus, Selenium, Boron
(4) Magnesium, Sulphur, Iron, Zinc StudMonk

110. What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side to bend toward the source of light as it grows?
(1) Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis
(2) Green plants seek light because they are phototropic
(3) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster
(4) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there.

AIPMT 2015

111. In a ring girdled plant

(1) The shoot dies first (2) The root dies first
(3) The shoot and root die together (4) Neither root nor shoot will die

112. Typical growth curve in plants is

(1) Sigmoid (2) Linear (3) Stair step shaped (4) Parabolic

113. Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal movements?
(1) Transpiration (2) Potassium influx and efflux
(3) Starch hydrolysis (4) Guard cell photosynthesis

114. The hilum is a scar on the

(1) Seed, where funicle was attached (2) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
(3) Fruit, where style was present (4) Seed, where micropyle was present

115. Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy (3) Apogamy (4) Cleistogamy

116. Which one of the following statement is not true?

(1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they are used in the form of tablets and syrups
(2) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people
(3) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odour to attract them
(4) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers

117. Transmission tissue is characteristics feature of

(1) Hollow style (2) Solid style (3) Dry stigma (4) Wet stigma

118. In ginger, vegetative propagation occurs through

(1) Rhizome (2) Offsets (3) Bulbils (4) Runners

119. Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators?
(1) Colour and large size of flower
(2) Nectar and pollen grains
(3) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
(4) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates

120. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studies by Mendel in his experiments?
(1) Five (2) Six (3) Eight (4) Seven

121. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of a sexually reproducing organism?
(1) Transduction (2) Chromosomal aberrations
(3) Genetic drift (4) Recombination

122. A technique of micropropagation is

(1) Somatic hybridization (2) Somatic embryogenesis
(3) Protoplast fusion (4) Embryo rescue

123. The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called
(1) Inversion (2) Duplication (3) Translocation (4) Crossing over

124. Multiple alleles are present

(1) On different chromosomes
(2) At different loci on the same chromosome
(3) At the same locus of the chromosome
(4) On non-sister chromatids

125. Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services?
(1) Bio-safety committee

AIPMT 2015

(2) Indian council of agricultural research

(3) Genetic Engineering Approval committee
(4) Research committee on Genetic Manipulation

126. In BT cotton, the BT toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to
(1) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
(2) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(3) Action of gut microorganisms
(4) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut

127. The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to

(1) Fungi (2) Bacteria (3) Insects (4) Herbicides

128. DNA is not present in

(1) Chloroplast (2) Ribosomes (3) Nucleus (4) Mitochondria

129. Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of protoplasts?

(1) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
(2) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate
(3) IAA and kinetin
(4) IAA and gibberellins StudMonk

130. The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in
(1) Poland (2) South Africa (3) Peru (4)Qatar

131. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as
(1) Divergence (2) Stratification (3) Zonation (4) Pyramid

132. In which of the following both pairs have correct combination?

(1) In situ conservation : National Park
Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden
(2) In situ conservation : Cryopreservation
Ex situ conservation : Wildlife sanctuary
(3) In situ conservation : Seed Bank
Ex situ conservation : National Park
(4) In situ conservation : Tissue culture
Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves

133. Secondary succession takes place on/in

(1) Bare rock (2) Degraded forest (3) Newly created pond (4) Newly cooled lava

134. The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called
(1) Gross primary productivity (2) Standing state
(3) Net primary productivity (4) Standing crop

135. In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed
(1) Net primary productivity (2) Gross primary productivity
(3) Secondary productivity (4) Net productivity

136. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?
(1) Segmentation (2) Bilateral symmetry (3) Exoskeleton (4) Eyes

137. Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity

(1) Ancylostoma duodenale
(2) Enterobius vermicularis
(3) Trichinella spiralis
(4) Ascaris lumbricoides

AIPMT 2015

138. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?

Characteristics Class
(1) Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae; two pairs of limbs Mammalia

(2) Mouth ventral : gills without operculum; skin with placoid scales; persistent notochord Chondrichthyes

(3) Sucking and circular mouth; Jaws absent integument without scales; paired appendages Cyclostomata

(4) Body covered with feathers; skin moist and glandular; forelimbs form wings; lungs with air sacs Aves

139. Which of the following animals is not viviparous?

(1) Flying fox (bat) (2) Elephant (3) Platypus (4) Whale

140. Erythropoiesis starts in

(1) Kidney (2) Liver (3) Spleen (4) Red bone marrow

141. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by
(1) Cementing glue (2) Muscular tissue (3) Arthrodial membrane (4) Cartilage

142. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of

(1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (2) Membrane of Golgi complex
(3) Microtubules (4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

143. Cytochromes are found in

(1) Matrix of mitochondria (2) Outer wall of mitochondria
(3) Cristae of mitochondria (4) Lysosomes

144. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzyme to form an enzyme inhibitor complex
(2) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is not chemically changed by the enzyme
(3) The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate of breakdown of the enzyme substrate complex
(4) The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate

145. Select the correct option:

(a) Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes (i) Anaphase-II

(b) Synthesis of RNA and protein (ii) Zygotene

(c) Action of enzyme recombinase (iii) G2-Phase
(d) Centromeres do not separate but chromatids move toward opposite poles (iv) Anaphase-I
(v) Pachytene

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

AIPMT 2015

146. A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species, has
(1) Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
(2) Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA
(3) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
(4) Four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA StudMonk

147. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Bru er s glands are present in the submucosa of stomach and secrete pepsinogen
(2) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and secrete mucus
(3) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and secrete HCl
(4) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidase

148. Gastric juice of infants contains

(1) Maltase, pepsinogen, rennin (2) Nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
(3) Pepsinogen, lipase, rennin (4) Amylase, rennin, pepsinogen

149. When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe?
(1) Falling O 2 concentration (2) Rising CO2 concentration
(3) Falling CO2 concentration (4) Rising CO2 and falling O 2 concentration

150. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during

(1) Systole of the left atrium (2) Diastole of the right ventricle
(3) Systole of the left ventricle (4) Diastole of the right atrium

151. Which one of the following is correct?

(1) Plasma = Blood Lymphocytes (2) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen
(3) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC (4) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets

152. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in
(1) More diluted urine (2) More concentrated urine
(3) No change in quality and quantity of urine (4) No urine formation

153. Sliding filament theory can best explained as

(1) When myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments shorten, while Myosin filament do not shorten
(2) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
(3) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
(4) When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin filaments shorten, while Actin filaments do not shorten

154. Glenoid cavity articulates

(1) Clavicle with acromion (2) Scapula with acromion
(3) Clavicle with scapula (4) Humerus with scapula StudMonk

155. Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?
(1) Medulla oblongata Homoeostatic control
(2) Cerebellum Language comprehension
(3) Corpus callosum Communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
(4) Cerebrum Calculation and contemplation

156. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of
(1) Cochlea (2) Vestibular apparatus (3) Tectorial membrane (4) Organ of Corti

157. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is
(1) Melatonin (2) Calcitonin (3) Epinephrine (4) Cortisol

AIPMT 2015

158. Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?
(1) Alcohol (2) Caffeine (3) Renin (4) Atrial-natriuretic factor

159. Capacitation refers to changes in the

(1) Sperm before fertilization (2) Ovum before fertilization
(3) Ovum after fertilization (4) Sperm after fertilization

160. Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

(1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(2) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(3) Release of oxytocin
(4) Release of prolactin

161. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
(1) Hepatitis B virus (2) Human immunodeficiency virus
(3) Chikungunya virus (4) Ebola virus

162. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?

(1) Primary polar body (2) Spermatid
(3) Spermatogonia (4) Secondary polar body

163. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of

(1) Uterus (2) Prostate gland
(3) Vas deferens (4) Mammary glands

164. Which of the following is not sexually transmitted disease?

(1) Syphilis
(2) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

(3) Trichomoniasis StudMonk

(4) Encephalitis

165. An abnormal human baby with ' XXX ' sex chromosomes was born due to
(1) Formation of abnormal sperms in the father
(2) Formation of abnormal ova in the mother
(3) Fusion of two ova and one sperm
(4) Fusion of two sperms and one ovum

166. Alleles are

(1) Different phenotype
(2) True breeding homozygotes
(3) Different molecular forms of a gene
(4) Heterozygotes

167. A man with blood group ' A ' marries a woman with blood group 'B ' . What are all the possible blood groups of their offspring?
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and AB only
(3) A, B, AB and O (4) O only

168. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that involves the lac I gene product is
(1) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose
(2) Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription
(3) Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription
(4) Feedback inhibition because excess of - galactosidase can switch off transcription

169. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to
be present in the DNA are
(1) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5% (2) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(3) G 17%, A 33%, T 33% (4) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%

AIPMT 2015

170. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?

(1) Homo erectus (2) Homo sapiens
(3) Homo neanderthalensis (4) Homo habilis

171. A population will not exist in HardyWeinberg equilibrium is

(1) Individuals mate selectively (2) There are no mutations
(3) There is no migration (4) The population is large

172. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine:

(a) Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus
(b) Whooping cough (ii) Inactivated toxin
(c) Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria
(d) Polio (iv) Harmless bacteria
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

173. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying

(1) B-lymphocytes (2) Leucocytes
(3) Helper T-lymphocytes (4) Thrombocytes

174. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon

(1) Erythrocytes mucosa and submucosa of colon
(2) Mucosa and submucosa of colon only
(3) Food in intestine
(4) Blood only

175. High value of BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) indicates that

(1) Water is pure
(2) Water is highly polluted

(3) Water is less polluted

(4) Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes

176. Most animals are tree dwellers in a

(1) Coniferous forest (2) Thorn woodland
(3) Temperate deciduous forest (4) Tropical rainforest

177. The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field.
A possible reason for these changes is that
(1) Both plant populations in this habitat decreased
(2) Population B competed more successfully for food than population A
(3) Population A produced more offsprings than population B
(4)Population A consumed the members of population B


178. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as
(1) In situ conservation of biodiversity
(2) Advanced ex situ conservation of biodiversity
(3) In situ conservation by sacred groves
(4) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity

AIPMT 2015

179. Rachel Carso s famous book Silent spri g is related to

(1) Pesticide pollution (2) Noise pollution
(3) Population explosion (4) Ecosystem management

180. Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of
stratospheric ozone?
(1) Increased skin cancer (2) Reduced immune system
(3) Damage to eyes (4) Increased liver cancer StudMonk

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