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If Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea is 4.

Which one of the following statements


a cardinal principle of criminal law, then correctly describe the concept of
which one of the following statements 'Mensrea'?
correctly, ref! ects the above principl e? a Mens rea need be present at th
a Mens rea is an essential. element of a planning, but not at the
crime and there cannot be a crime with commission of the o ffenc
out mens rea b. Mens rea should be
b. Criminal liability under Indian Law' the statute specific
always implies mens rea proved
c. To constitute a crime there must be c. Absolute pro
actus teus and mens rea negative mens a
d. Actus reus is not always necessary to d. If the st<tue is s1 bout mens rea, as
constitute a crime be read it the
2. 'A' contracted to make and deliv er 500

;:
pairs of shoes to 'B' by lOth January. A
strike by A's employees prevented him
from fulfilling his contract. If B sues A for
5.

'! orrect?
among item A and

ommon intension within the

.f
breach of contract, then
I. i::e::c: :n o:4 ; ::n:o::
commit the same act.
b. 2. implication of a pre -arranged plan,
prior meeting of mind, between all the
over persons constituting the group.
c. he can recover the 3. a desire of several persons to commit
contract was an act without contemplating the
impossibility of consequences.
d. the contract is Item B: Within the meaning of section 149
A. 'in prosecution of common object of an
3. select the unlawful assembly' means

I. in relation to common intension of the


group
2. in order to attain the common object
3. in relation to a common object
Innocence Select the correct answer using the codes
of the act to be unlawful given below:
a I and 2 of both items
ways not necessary b. I and 3 of both items
Co ndition precedent for any offence c. 2 alone of both items
3. Relevant and to impute intention d. 3 alone of both items
4. Until crime is proved beyond doubt 6. Consider the following statements
Code: Section 34 of the I. P.C. does NOT
A B c D where
a I 2 4 3 I. five or more persons assembled where
li
b. 2 3 4 one killed A
c. 4 3 2 2. A and B who are enemies of C decided
d. 2 3 4 distinctly to kill C, A killed C when B
was also present.
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3. the presence of any person, who 3. Against a person who commits
participated in the prearranged plan, is mischief under such circumstances as
not; necessary at the time of actual may reasonably cause apprehension
commission of the crime. that grievous hoo would be a
4. privity of mind of all the accused is an consequence.
essential ingredient for the commission Select the correct answer from the codes
of a crime. given below:
Of these statements a I and 3 of both items
a I, 2 and 4 are correct b. 2 and 3 of both items
b. I, 2 and 3 are correct c.
c. 2, 3 and 4 are correct d.
d. I, 3 and 4 are correct 9.
7. 'A' surgeon knowing fully well that except
a miracle, nothing can save X, who is
ailing from a disease. In good faith, if the
operated on X, but as a
consequence of that operation X died, then
which one of the following would be
correct?
a A is held guilty of for knowing

b.

c.

d.

8.
b.
c.
d.
10. 'A' entered into an agreement with B to
obtain undue from a member of the
Government on the promise that A will
pay, Rupees one I akh to B, who will
deliver the same to that member. A paid
the amount to B, who in tum paid it to C, a
2. member of Government for the said
purpose as reward. C subsequently refused
to do any favour.
On the basis of above facts
a B alone is responsible for his actions
b. both B and C are liable as 'there was
an abetment by conspiracy
consequence. c. C alone ts responsible as he
Item B: For defence of property misappropriated the money for his own
I. While the trespasser is engaged m use
house breaking during day time. d. A has no ground to bring prosecution
2. Against a thief who reasonably causes against C, because at the time of
the defender to believe that he would agreement C' s name was not known to
lose his property. B

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II. Which of 'the following statements are Of these statements
correct? a I alone is correct
I. Abettor may be liable for a different b. 2 and 3 are correct
offence than that for which principal is c. I, 3 and 4 are correct
liable. d. I, 2 and 4 are correct
2. Abettor is li able even if principal is 14. Which one of the following conditions if
innocent. present would constitute the offence of
3. Abettor's liability is dependent on the sedition?
of the principal. a A film depicting corruption
4. Abettor must have the same guilty politicians with a view to bri
intention or knowledge as the hared and contempt ci
principal. diss<tisfaction towards po an
Select the correct answer using the codes b. An arti cle in the iferous
given below: language expressin disap o aion of
a I, 2 and 3 the measurG by the
b. I, 3 and 4 Government In in rei ation to
c. I, 2 and 4 liberalisation o omy and thereby
d. 2, 3 and 4 towards
12. Consider the following prov1s1ons m

qy. c.
Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code containing a speech
Several culpable states of mind are /{pre ng dissatisfaction towards the
referred to with the ment's policy of reservation and
I Intention to cause death.. 'ting caste feeling among di fferent
2 that the act 1s so ection of society and thereby bringing
1mmtnently dangerous that it must the government mto d1srepute
all probability cause death. d. A speech made by dissident member of
3 Intention to cause such bodily inJury a national political party with a v iew to
the offender knows to be exciting d1saffecnon towards the
cause death of the person to government and to change the
h arm is caused. government established by law 'by
4 1ntention of causing sue il i . resorllng to violent means.
,,;,
nature to cause de
"' IS . A '"""'-' by Bfo" oop o Whil B
is in the kitchen preparing tea, A finds a

Thecorrectorderofth e ein which golden ring on the table. He picks it up and
they are 'i e pr n is: places 1t somewhere tn the room With the
a 1, 2, 3, 4 + intention of dishonestly taking it away
b. 1, 3,4, some time later. A commits
a no offence
I 43
dc. 2,' ' ' b. extortion
13. C llowi ng statements: c. attempt to commit theft
the benefit of provocation in d theft
ng the for murder the 16. Which one of the following st<ternents
er must prove that the correctly distinguishes theft from
extortion?
provocallon was sufficient in 'ordinary
cause of nature to cause a person of a In theft, there is dishonest intention
ordinary temper to lose his self- where in extortion it is not there
control. b. In extortion there is dishonest intention
2. provo cation was grave and sudden to whereas in theft it is not there
j ustify the killing. c. In theft, there is dishonest intentiol\
3. provocation was so grave that it would whereas in extortion it is fraudulent
stir a desire for revenge intention
4. sufficient time did not elapse so as to
cool down the passion
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d. In theft there is taking of property b. V. R Krishna Iyer, J.
whereas in extortion there is delivery c. P.N. Bhagwati. C.J.
of property. d. Lord Atkin.
17. X obtains property from Z by saying that 22. A patient is brought to a hospital
"your thud is in the hands of my gang and maintained by B. The patient is to be
will be put to death unless you send us ten operated up on. If as a result of faulty
lac rupees". X commits oxygen supply: machine, 'the patient dies
a criminal breach of trust on the operation table, then
b. robbery a B would not be liable,

a
c. extortion surgeon was negligent.
d. theft b. B would not be liable be ther
18. Which one of the following statement no master and servant ela ship
correctly defines the offence of "criminal between E and the
breach oftrusn c. B would he liabl beca e hospital
a Whoever IS entrusted with the staff were ne n . :.ceeping the
dominion of property, eli shonestly hospital equip ent, 1 proper order
converts it as his property is guilty of d. B would not cariously liable

:3
criminal breach of trust is a highly skilled
b. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates wor en . B would have 'no
any property for his own use, is guilty
of criminal breach of trust 23. e of the following is an
c Who ever uses any movable property m statement?
v1olat1on of I aw or legal contract Innocent pnnc1p al 1s h able for the
comm1ts cnrrunal breach of trust aud ofh1s agent
d None of the above An mnocent pnnc1pal1s not !table for
19. The mam supporter of the theorythat"1t1s the fraud ofh1s agent
a law of Tort" and "not law ofTorts" 1s c An Innocent agent 1s !table for all his
a Wmfield
b Salmond
c. Fleming
flj 24.
pnnc1pals' torts mclucling fraud
d None of the above
Two dogs belonging to two different
d. Heuston owners acting in concert attacked a flock
20. Due to the collapse ofr ; o ,.er in of sheep and injured several sheep. In an
the main ':r of the y, n b er of action for damages brought agamst the
persons died. The clo c r elonged to owners of the dogs, if one of them put in
the Municipal orpor and was defence claiming that he was liable for one
exclusively un er ts It was 8 0 half only of the damage, then which one of
years old bu ormal life of the the followmg statements IS legally
which had fallen sustainable in the above case?
y t orty "five years having a Each owner of the dog was liable for
of mortar used. If one the whole of the damage
...,.lfmlse husband died due to the b. Each owner was responsible for one
se f the clock tower filed the 'suit half of the damage
am ages against the Municipal. c. Neither of the owners is liable for
rp oration, then which one of the damage done by his dog
o lowing maxims is applicable? d. The owners themselves are not joint
a Damnum sine injuria tortfeasors
b. Injuria sine damno 25. Which of the following statements are
c. Res Ipsa loquitur NOT correct
d. Valenti non fit injuria I. Res ipsa I oquitur is used for the
21. The "Absolute liability" theory as the basis purpose of fixing liability based on
for liability in, tort for industrial injuries strict liability.
was propounded by 2. Inference of negligience could prop et1 y
a Blackburn J. be drawn in res ipsa loquitur.

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3. Res ipsa loquitur dispenses with taking nuisance, then which one of the following
of evidence. conclusions is correct in the above suit?
4. Res ipsa loquitur mostly favours the a The defendant was liable for nuisance
defendant. b. The defendant was not liable for

A B c D
a 2 4 3
b. 4 3 2
d. noneofthe above c. 3 4 2
30. The branch of a tree growing on the d. 4 2 3
defendant's I and hung on the highway at a 33. Kelsen's theory of law is called pure
height of about I 0 metres above the theory because, Kelsen
ground. A branch of the tree suddenly a purely discussed jurisprudence only
broke and fell up on the pi aintiff' s vehicle b. defined law In accordance with
which was passing along the highway. morality and purity
If the pi aintiff sues the defendant for the
damage of the vehicle on the ground of
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c. separated I aw from religion, ethics, a laws made by state legislature
sociology and history b. laws dec! ared by the Judges in judicial
d. discussed law purely in terms of justice decisions
34. "Law as such is found and not made. It is c. administrative adjudication
to be found in popular faith, common d. rules, bye Laws and regulations made
convictions customs, traits, habits, by virtue of statutory powers
traditions which in course of time grow 39. Which of the following are sub ordinate
into legal rules." legislations?
This, concept of law was propounded by I. Parli arnentary legislation
a Thibaut 2. Coloniallegislation
b. Henry Maine 3. Judiciallegislation
c. Savigny 4. Executive legislation
d. Salmond
35. Match List I with List II and select the given below:
correct answer: a 2,3 and4
List I b. 1,2and3
A. Thomas Aquinas c. I, 2 and4
d.
B. John .Austin
C. Kelsen 40. Tort c tr occurs where
D. Rawls a oo e persons combine to Injure
List II arty by unlawful means
I. Normative order more persons combine to injure
2. Command Theory rd party by I awful means
3. Dictates of reasoning ..,-'b.,,o or more persons combine to help a
4. Theory of Justice third party by lawful means
5. System of Rules d. two or more persons, combine not to
Codes: injure a third party by unlawful means
A B c 'A' was carelessly driving his carat 50
a 2 3 km!hr, at a bus street in the city and hit 'B'
b. 4 2 5 injuring his leg. On these facts the
c. 3 4 Supreme Court of India he! d that 'A' is
d. 3 2 liable to pay compersation to. 'B'. It
36. The most important i t of legal means that the Supreme Court laid down
reform is the I aw that the injured parts, is enti tied
for compensatrion in all cases of
a I egislation
+ a car accidents at a busy place, if the
b. driver was negligent
b. causmg InJUry m accidents by
negligent driving of any vehicle
37.
c. inflicting physical. InJUry by
negligence
d. negligent causing of damage of another
42. If the jural co-relative of "Right" is
"Duty", then the co -rei ati ve of" Liberty" is
a Power
b. Disability
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: c. Liability
a 1,2 and3 d. No claim
43. Right in re aliena means a right over
b. I and 2
a his own property
c. 2 and 3
b. a property of someone else
d. land3
c. a property situated in a foreign country
38. Delegated legislation means
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d. a property situated in one's own a 1 and 2


country b. 1 and 3
44 . Which of the following duties have been c. 1, 2 and 3
included by Austin in the of d 2 and 3
"absolute duties"? 48. Ownership to patents, copyright are
1. Duties owed to persons indefinitely trademarks and the right to an easement is
2. S e1 f regarding duties called
3. Duties owed to the sovereign a Incorporeal ownership
4. Duties owed to the parents b. Corporeal, ownership
Select the correct answer using the codes c. Equitable ownership
given below.: d. Contingent ownership
a I, 3 and 4 49. A soldier found a brooch in a
b. 2, 3 and 4 was compulsorily
c. I, 2 and 4 Government for war p
d. I, 2 and 3 of the house had
45. Which of the following combination(s) Occupation of it was
requisitioned for my. The person

s
islare correct?
Theory of corporate Personality I legally a t broochis
Propounder of Theory a the nt
1. Realist : Gierke b. the house
2. Symbolist: Savigny c. e so er
3. Fiction: !bering fthe above
Select the correct answer using the codes meaning of the term " mediate
given below: s10n" 1s
a I, 2 and 3 a possession, acquired through an agent
b. I and 3 b. title of the right and not the right itself
c. 2 and 3 c. voluntary relinquishment of possession
d. I alone d. continuous claim to a thing
46.
Commercial Tax and must be ascertained and administered
Court observed that a com red by courts of justice of appropriate
under the jurisdiction, as often as question of right
a is like a citizen of an avail depending upon it are duly presented for
itself of all rights a a to citizens their determination ." This was observed by
o f Justice Gray tn
b. is a art :! eqUivalent to a a Queen Vs Keyn case
citizen w b. Paquete Habana case
c. is a I n but 1s cannot avails c. Corfu channel case
it ndamental nghts under the d. Westrand Central Go ld Mining Co.
n available to citizens only Ltd. Vs. King case
'ther claim legal personality nor 52. "International Law may be defined as form
ts of a citizem. of rules- accepted by civilized States as
4 of the following statements are determining their conduct towards each
? other and towards each other's subjects." It
1. Ownership can be legal and, vested was held in
ownership. a Western Central Gold Mining Co. Ltd.
2. Ownership can be legal and equitable Vs. King
ownership. b. S.S Lotus case
3. Ownership can be trust and beneficial c. Queen Vs. Keyn
ownership. d. None of these
Select the correct answer using the codes 53. The controversy about the legal sources of
given below International Law was settled when the

!1. ................................. ............................. .................................


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legal sources were authoritatively laid economtc, so cia!, cultural or
down for the first time in humanitarian character.
a the Hague Convention for the specific Select the correct answer using the co des
settlement of International Disputes given below :
b. the covenant of the League of Nations a I, 2 and 3
c. the statute of international Court of b. I, 3 and 4
Justice c. I, 2 and4
d. the statute of Pennanent Court of d. 2, 3 and 4
International Justice 58. Decisions of the General Ass
54. Jus co gens mems md inc.ludes imporl<llt questions shall be mad
a customay roles only a simple majority
b. general rules of Intenutional b. simple majority present oti
c. Law treaty contracts c. two -thirds m"ority
d. peremptory nonns of International d. two -thirds esen d voting
Law which cannot be nonnally 59. The voting pro ure e Security
deorgated by any State Council for admi n o a member to the
55. Which one of the following international United Nations is b
lawyers used the expression "Succession a a of the members
to Rjght and Obligations" in place of pres d ting
"State succession"? b. . e vote of nine members
a J.L. Brierly c. af ative vote of nine members
b. L. Oppenheim mg the concurring votes of the
c. Fenwick manent members
d. J.G. Starke ./.... ncurring votes of all memb ers of the
56. Which one of the fo llowing opinio ns was Security Council
expressed by the British Court in 1905 In maintaining international peace and
Westrand Central Go ld Mining Co. security, the Security Council has
in the case of passing of co nrr:>cniOL..ncn a exclusive authority
and duties to a successor state b. primary authority
succession? c. both primary and exclusive authority
a Successo r state has d. collective authority
contractual rights 61. Which of the following functi ons are
b. Successor state is perfonned by the Economic and Social
which of the con!W Council?
duties are to b&.res:pe,cl't'r I. It may make or initiate studies with
Jtes to respect respect to international economic,
and duties in the social, cultural, educational, health md
damages related matters.
d. has to respect 2. It may recommendations for the
rights and duties in the purpose of promoting respect for and
unliquidated damages observance ofhumm rights.
57. the following is among the 3. It may make recommendations to
..... of the United Nations as laid promote fiiendly relations and
...., under, Article I ofthe U.N. Charter? understanding amongst member states.
I. To maintain international peace and 4. It may prepare draft conventions for
security. submissions to the General Assembly
2. To develop fiiendly relations among on any of the subjects falling within -
nations. the competence.
3. To ensure that non-members of the Select the correct answer from the codes
United Nations act in accordance with given below
the UN charter a 1,2and3
4. To achieve 'international co-operation b. I, 3 and4
in solving international problems of an c. I, 2 and4
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d. 2, 3 and 4 67. Assertion (A): The Union Publi c Sezvice


62 . The Budget of the ICJ is approved by Commission must be consulted as regards
a ICJ the reservation of posts for Backward
b. the ICJ or the General Assembly classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
c. the General Assembly Tribes.
d. General Assembly and the ICJ Reason (R): The functions of the Union
63 . Which one of the following will settle the Public Service Commission are only
issue in the event of a dispute as to advisory and the Government need not act
whether the International Court of Justice upon the advice of the Commission in any
has jurisdiction? case.
a The President of the Court a Both (A) and (R) are true
b. The Vice- President of the Court correct explanation of (A
c. Both the President and the Vice- b. Both (A) and (R) are
President together the correct explana no )
d. The court itself c. (A) is true bute .
64. Assertion (A) : The rule making power of d. (A) is false bu R) i e
the Supreme Court is not subject to any 68. Assertion (A) : covered under
law made by the Parliament of India Article (c) have been given
Reason (R): Only an impartial and protect! agamst some of the
mdependent judiciary can protect the funa ts
nghts of the individual without fear or Re on ( The D1rect1ve Pnnciples are
favour o ded relevant for considering
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) 1s the are reasonable restncbons under
correct explanation of (A) e 19
b
the correct exp lanation of (A) correct explanabon of (A)

65 .
c (A) IS true but (R) is false
d (A) is false but (R) is true
AssertJon (A): In a federalism,
division of powers between the e
the States.
q; 69 .
b Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanabon of(A)
c (A) 1s true but (R) 1s false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
Ass em on (A): As a general rule, vindictive
or exemplary damages of tort are unknown
tn contract.
Reason (R): The award of damages in case
of breach of a contract is made not as a
punishment for wrong.
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
70. Assertion (A): The entries in the three
legislative lists are not always set out with
Reason (R) : The power to amend does not scientific precision and definition .
include the power to abrogate the Reason (R): The entries are not powers but
Constitution. are only field of legislation.
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct exp lanation of (A) the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is fa! se but (R) is true d. (A) is false but (R) is true
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71. Assertion (A): A minor is liable for d. (A) is fa! se but (R) is true
necessaries supplied to him. 75. Assertion (A): A, a boy of the age of six
Reason (R): A minor's estate is liable for and a half years intentionally murders B. A
reimbursement of the expenses incurred on is not liable to be convicted.
supply of necessaries. Reason (R): A child up to the age of 7
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the years is immune from criminal liability.
correct explanation of (A) a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
the correct explanation of (A) b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (
c. (A) is true but (R) is false the correct explanation of (A
d. (A) is fa! se but (R) is true c. (A) is true but (R) is false
72. Assertion (A) If any part of a single d. (A) is fa! se but (R) is true
consideration for one or more objects, or 76. Assertion (A): There is
any one or any part of any one of several attempt to commit an i
considerations for a single object, is Reason (R): No
lawful, then the agreement is void. incurred under. S

a
Reason (R): An agreement not enforceable Penal Code for an pt to do an act
by law is said to be void. which, be an offence.
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the a Both (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is fa! se but (R) is true
fli
b.
ation of (A)
) and (R) are true but (R) is not
ect explanation of (A)
) is true but (R) is false
A) is fa! se but (R) is true
73.
an act or omission of the offerer. dacoity unless he has committed,
Reason (R): The communication of attempted to commit or aided in
proposal is complete, when it com! s fj committing robbery.
knowledge of the person, to wh 1 Reason (R): When two persons conjointly
made. commit robbery, then every person so
a Both (A) and (R) are e committing robbery is said to commit
correct explanation of dacoity.
b. Both (A) and (R) is not a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
the correct correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true bu R) is b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
d. (A) is fa! s ) i!J4.'1le the correct explanation of (A)
74. ) . the sister of X was c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is fa! se but (R) is true
78. Assertion (A) : Precedent is like a gold in a
nune.
Reason (R) : It has to be searched in I aw
reports.
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
Reason (R): The word 'abducting' in the correct explanation of (A)
Section 100 I.P.C. includes 'abduction c. (A) is true but (R) is false
simpliciter'. d. (A) is fa! se but (R) is true
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 79. Assertion (A): International Law is unlike
correct explanation of (A) municipal law.
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not Reason (R): There is no world legislature,
the correct explanation of (A) no international police arid no
c. (A) is true but (R) is false

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International Court with comp ulsory b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
jurisdiction. the correct explanation of (A)
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the c. (A) is true but (R) is false
correct exp lanation of (A) d. (A) is false but (R) is true
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not 84 . "Democracy and federalism are essential
the correct explanation of(A) features of our Constitution arid are part of
c. (A) is true but (R) is false its basi c structure" This observation was
d. (A) is false but (R) is true made in S. R. Bommai's case by
80. Asser1ion (A): Custom is an ineffective a Justice AM. Ahmadi
means of development of International b. Justice J.S. Verma
Law. c. Justice PB. Sawant
Reason (R): Custom is uncertain in content d. Justice S.R. Pandian
;nd develops slowly . 85.

'-
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct expl;nation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
b. unitary !d
a federal in form and

c. unitary in fo IDd
d. purely federal
i spirit

era! in spirit

c. (A) is true but (R) is false 86. A part of the Constitution


81.
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
Assertion (A) : Austin said that, "only the
laws set by sovereign to the members of a
"W.J
reads as r:
of India, having sol emnly
res ed o constitute India into a
politi cal society are positive law or law Socialist Secular Democratic
simply and strictly so called." lie ....." Certain words in the above
Reason (R): In his theme of explaining ere inserted by
laws, Austin attached importance to the a the Constitution (Seventh Amendment)
element of sanct:i on. Act, 1956
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is b. the Constitution (Eighteenth
correct exp lanation of (A) Amendment) Act, 19 66
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but c. the Constitution (Thirty -fifth
the correct exp lanation Amendment) Act, 1974
c. (A) is true but (R) is fals d. the Constitution (Forty-second
d. (A) is false but (R) Amendment) Act, 1976
82. Assertion (A): Art:icl 2 f e UN 87 . The text of the Preamble of the
Charter authorises the ri Council to Constitution of India aims to secure
constitute p e kee force as an a fundamental rights to all individuals
anti -escalati ve e . + b. fundamental duties to citizens of India
Reason ( : Principle of non- c. dignity of the individual and unity md
.,., uHCh..., integrity of the nation
is on mw purposes md principles d. security of service to Government
of e ations. servant
) and (R) a-e true and (R) is the 88. "Directive Principles of State Policy are
rrect expl;nation of (A) the conscience of the Constitution which
th (A) ;nd (R) are true but (R) is not embody the social philosophy of the
e correct explanation of (A) Constitution" was described by
c. (A) is true but (R) is false a Granville Austin
d. (A) is false but (R) is true b. A.V. Dicey
83. Assertion (A) : Customs to have the force c. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
of law must be immemorial. d. KC. Wheare
Reason (R): Custom represents common 89. "R.i ght to life" does not include "right to
consciousness of peopl e. die". It has been bel din a case of
a Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the a R. Rathinam Vs. Union of India
correct exp lanation of (A) b. State Vs. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia

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I ,; :,': J I ;,

c. CheMa Jagadeaswar Vs. State of b. 1, 2 and 4


Anclhra Pradesh c. 2,3and4
d. Smt. Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab d. 1, 2 and 3
90. It has been held by the Supreme Co urt that 94. The constitutional authority vested with
appointment of the candidates in excess of the power of declaring castes or tribes as
the notified vacancies is a denial and the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes
deprivation of the fundamental rights is the
under article 14 read with article 16 (I) of a Parliament
the Constitution in b.
a Kerala Public Service Commission Vs. c.
Dr. Kanjamma Alex d
b. Ashok Kumar Vs. Banking 95.
Service Recruitment Board
c. State of Kamataka Vs. AB. Ongale
d. M.D. Kasekar Vs. Vishwanath Pandu
Barde
91. After the judgement of the Supreme Court
in Mandai case, it has been observed that
96.
"The poisonous weed of casteism has been

tt1
replanted where it will trouble us a
thousand years: Each age will have to
constder it." This was observed by ran
a Prof Upendra Bax1 andamus
b N A Palkhiwal a uo Warranto
c Ram Jethmalani d Habeas Corpus
d Justice P. N. Bhagwati The Hlgh Court havmg the Junsdiction in
92. The Supreme Court has ruled that a pers l JUdtctal matters relating to the largest
belonging to a number of States/Uruon temtones is
transplanted by adoption or marr e a Calcutta Htgh Court
conversion or any. other volunt c o b. Kerala High Court
farruly belonging to reserv d ass c. Mumbai High Court
not become eli gib le to e of d. Guwahati High Court
54
res(erv
) atlf. ohn ecither. undf l le ( ) or 98. Which of the following combinations are
16 4 o t e onstltutlo NOT correctly matched?
a Indra Vs. f India 1. Writ of Haheas Corpus : available
b. Vs. Additional against private individuas as well
2. Write of Quo-Warranto : available
c. Cochin University
against subordinate courts only
d Vishwanath Pandu
3. Writ of Certiorari : avalable aganst
state only
93 . following are included in the
4. Write of Prohibition : available against
fundamental duties in the
autonomous bodies only
Select the correct answer from the codes
To abide by the Constitution and
respect its ideal and institution given below:
a 2, 3 and 4
2. T o safeguard public property and to
abjure violence b. 1,2and3
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, c. 1,2and4
unity and integrity of India d. 1,3and4
4. To uphold and protect secularism 99. Which of the following combinations are
Select the correct answer u sing the codes correctly matched?
given below 1. Territorial Nexus : Object should have
a 1,3and4 territorial connection with the state.

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2. Pith and substance The validity of d. It is a breach o ffamily responsibilities,
I egislation is detennined by the degree so specific performance order is called
of invasions into the field. for
3. Colourable legislation: You cannot do 103. "A' offers to sell his car to "B" for Rs.
indirectly, what you cannot do directly. 50,000/-. 'B' agrees to buy the car offering
4. Repugnancy Conflicting results are Rs. 45.000/-. The reply ofB amounts to
not produced where both the laws are a offer
applied to the same facts. b. counter offer
Select the correct answer from the codes c. invitation to an offer
given below: d. standing offer
a I, 2 and 4 104. Which one of the following c
b. 2, 3 and 4 offer in a self-service store?
c. I, 3 and 4 a Display of goods at G dow
d. I, 2 and 3 b. When the custom ask for some
100. The Article of the Constitution which goods
automatically becomes suspended on c. There is no of in s cases
proclamation of emergency is: d. Picking up an e and approaching
a Article 14 the c! a . for payment
b. Article 19 105 B posal of A by posttng a
c. Article21 lett cetoA

I 0 I.
d. Article 32
The President's Rule under Article 35 6
remains valid in a state for the maximum
ttj
Th bov ceptance
be revoked by B as he has
eady accepted the offer and dropped
period of e I etter of acceptance
a one year b can be revoked by B as soon as the

I 0 2.
b. two years
c. three years
d. four years
Ramesh and Geetha were husb a
wife living in Bangalore. Rajles
9i letter of acceptance reached A
c. can be revoked by B before the I etter
of acceptance reaches A
d. can be revoked by B at any time after
the I etter of acceptance reaches A
Income Tax Officer and a 106. A daughter promises to give maintenance
school teacher. o sons to her uncle in consideration of her mother
studying in schools in r Parents making a gift of certain properties to her.
of Ramesh were also n th them. The daughter pleads lack of consideration
Ramesh was tran rred t " adras and he when the unci e seeks to enforce the
had to leav fatily behind at contract. She says that the uncle is a
Bangalore. H sed to send every stranger to the consideration and so he
month ee thousand to meet cannot enforce the contract. The daughter
_ditti e, to his wife. Ramesh a will succeed because the uncle being a
eli ov y money from Madras. If stranger to the consideration cannot
led a suit for specific enforce it
mance of the contract, then which b. will not succeed because the uncle is a
the following is correct? near relative and in such cases
amily agreements are not contracts consideration is not necessary
and hence, no order for specific c. cannot succeed because according to
performance can be ordered the Indian Contract Act consideration
b. It is a valid contract. Specific might move from any person
performance is to be ordered d. will succeed because the uncle is a
c. This being an agreement without stranger to the contract
consideration, it is not an enforceable I 07. A person enjoying the benefit of non-
contract gratuitous act
a is under an obligation to make
compensation for this benefit
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1:! r=f l :;
b. may make compensation at his option 3. Agreements which stifle criminal
c. has no obligation towards any one prosecution.
d. has no remedy available against him Select the correct answer using the co des
108. Match List I with List 11 and select the given below:
correct answer: a I and 2
List I b. 2 and 3
A Breach c. I and 3
B. Damages d. I, 2 and 3
C. Hadley Vs. Baxendale 112. X. a trader, leaves goods at Y's h
D. Specific performance mistake. If V uses the goods, th
List 11 one of the following is corr'M
L Remoteness of danages demands the price of goods Y ses
2. Compensatory topay?
3. Discretionary a X must suffer for s mi e and he
4. Damage cannot recovere my
Code: b. Y is bound to iJY a did not intend
A B C D to suppl y goo tuitously and V
a 4 2 3 enio> f i !eqpts ofX's act
b. 2 3 1 4 c. Y ts to pay as he did not ask

4
d. bound to pay as he becomes
109. If the terms of the contract are not
of the goods left at his house
fuJ filled, the Jaw will endeavour so far as r eement made to sell a cargo of com
money can go, to place the aggrieved party " h was not m eXIstence at the nme of
tn a position more advantageo us
a contract, ts
that which would have arisen had th a votdable at the opt! on of etther party
contract been performed b a vahd agreement
b. tn the same position as if the cr [ tj c a votd agreement
h as been performed d an unenforceable agreement
'f :co
c. in the equal position as; t 114. An agreement to share the benefits of a
had not been performed public office is
d. to status-quo a valid
II 0. Y sold his. reputed t p of 25 b. voidable
years standing to ch high price c. void
for the go s op, the only d. none of the above
condition Y should not 115. The defendant husband agrees to pay Rs.
establish shop of his own 400 per month to his plaintiff wife in
1s consider<tion of her giving up prosecution
of being against public against his under s494 I.P.C., an offence
compoundable with the leave of the court
Nll1ere being a complete meeting With the leave of the court, the offence
... was compounded and the husband was
becwse high price for goodwill acquitted, In an action by the wife to
was given enforce the agreement, the husband
contends that the agreement is one to sti fl e
d. void on account of agreement in
prosecution and hence unlawful in the
restraint of trade
light of the above, which one of the
II L Which of the following agreements are
following is correct?
invalid and unenforceable by Law?
a The agreement 1s one to stifle
L Agreements in restraint of marriage.
prosecution and hence the husband's
2. Agreements which result in con flict of
contention will prevail
duty with interest.
b. It is against public policy to give up
prosecution in a criminal case by

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receiving consideration for it and so d. a substitute contract without
the wife cannot enforce the agreement consideration
against the husband 119. 'A' a singer enter into a contract with 'B',
c. The wife can enforce the agreement the manager of a theatre, to sing at the
against the husband because the theatre two nights every week during the
agreement 1s supported by next two months, and 'B' engages to pay
consideration her Rs. 1000/- for each night's
d. The wife can enforce the agreement performance. If on the sixth night 'A'
against the husband because the wilfully absents herself from the theatre,
agreement is not one for stifling then which one of the followingi ct?
prosecution as the offence is one a 'B' is at liberty to put
compoundable with the p ennission of contract by virtue of Se
the court and has been so compounded In eli an Contract Acte
116. 'X' contracted with a tent house for b. 'B' is not at liberty put e d to the
erecting a shamiana for performing the contract by via n 39 of the
marriage of his daughter. On the day of In eli an Contra Act

s .
marriage, a curfew was clamped in the c. 'B' is at Iibert> t an end to the
area preventing the celebration of the of a recent ruling of
marriage. If the shamiana owner claimed the S n O'llrt of India
the charges agreed to be paid by X, then d. erty to put an end to the
a X has to pay the contracted charges ontr'tt only when 'it becomes
b. X need not pay the agreed charges but
on! y reasonable damages
c. X need not pay anything as the
celebration of the marriage was
impossible due to the curfew
5:.

List I
by virtue of Section 11 of the
an Contract Act
List I with List II and select the
ct answer:

d. X can require the State to bear th (Parties)


claim for damages A Hadley Vs. Baxendale
117. The basis of the doctrine of frustrr l f B. Simpson Vs. London & N.W. Rail
that the Company
a performance IS excueed he C. Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. Vs. New
fundamental assumpt:l Garage & Motor Company Limited
the contract has be :e po 1ble D. Norden Felt Vs. Maxim Norden Felt
b substantial obJect p es had Company Ltd.
1n 111 ew 1s no I nger a. Ie List II
c. literal p erfon ance may still be (Types of cases)
p oss1ble, wtn not fu1 fil the 1. Injunction
on design of the 2. Damages contemplated by the parties
at the time of the contract
3. Remoteness of damages
4. Specific performance
5. Liquidated damages and penalty
Codes:
A B c D
a 2 4 3
contract b. 2 3 5
c. 3 4 5
d. 3 4 5 2

b. and

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