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1.

Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and
controlling an or ganizations resources to achieve its mission and objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

2. Refers to the activity combining technical knowledge with the ability to organize and
coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.

A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club

3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except

A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education

4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about
nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.

A. Research
B. Design and Development

C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product
concept to a finished physical term.

A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development

6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts
are tested for workability.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production


personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the
construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction
process.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government
9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the companys customers to meet
their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.

A. Construction
B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales

10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or
organization requiring his services.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government
performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the
activities of various institutions, public or private.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting

12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is
assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people
performing specific tasks.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.

A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving

15. The first step in Decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity

16. The last step in decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results
17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational
and analytical.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and
determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing

D. Supervision

20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies
and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

21. The top management of any f irm is involved in this type of planning.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with
allocated resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time
with available resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an
organizations marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in
broad terms and by product family.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes
financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms
of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the companys strategic plan.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan

30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors ar e
mostly concerned with these planes.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken
by middle and top management.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur
repeatedly.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about
recurring situations or function.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are
unlikely to be repeated.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains
where the required funds will come from.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to
support a program.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to
accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.


A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure
42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional
activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially single business
firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those
involved with a certain type of product or customer.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in sever al related
industries.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division
manager and to a project or group manager.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

47. Refers to a managers right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

A staff specialists right to give advice to a superior. 48.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

A specialists right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless 49.
of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority
50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits,
selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an or ganization.

A. Resourcing
B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
D. Staffing

53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of
the organization.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and
goals.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that
those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to
succeed on the job.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Selection
D. Training
58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessar y information
about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-
workers.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater
responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility
in the organization.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or r esponsibility attached
to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee
until he is offered a higher position.

A. Separation
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.

A. Separation
B. Transfer
C. Termination
D. Demotion

64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.

A. Counseling
B. Communication
C. Hypnotism
D. Language

65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels
in the organization.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function
66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit
themselves to the organizations objectives.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are r epressed in the organization,
employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space,
touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a
particular goal.

A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Unification

71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:

A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
C. Needs satisfaction
D. Inferiority complex

72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:

Maslows Needs Hierarchy Theor y A.


B. Expectancy Theory
Herzbergs Two-Factor Theory C.
D. Gagarins Theory

73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work
behaviors necessary to reach or ganizational goals.

A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
C. Leading
D. Commanding
74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions
within the organization. This describes:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests,
it termed as:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be
identified with the former.

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:

A. A high level of personal drive


B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
C. Charisma
D. Greedy

79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been
achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives
better in the future.

A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
D. Inspection

80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their
occurrence.

A. Feed forward control


B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect
variances are made.

A. Feed forward control


B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in
order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.

A. Feed forward control


B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in
useful ways.

A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation

84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives
efficiently and effectively.

A. Planning
B. Operations management
C. Evaluation management
D. Backboning

85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the
situation.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the
demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement
of these facilities.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long
each operation in the production process takes.

A. Plotting
B. Scheduling
C. Timetable
D. Anticipating

88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all
material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.

A. Work
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management
90. The process of determining the physical arr angement of the production system.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.

A. Advertisement
B. Commercial
C. Marketing
D. Sales

The four Ps of marketing are the following except: 93.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Publicity

94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the
product, idea, or service.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached
by their customers.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence
attitudes and behavior.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of
informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea
on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

1. Management is:
An art
Both science and art
A science
Neither art nor science
2. Engineering is:
An art
Both science and art
A science
Neither art nor science
3. Engineers can become good managers only through __________.
Experience
Taking master degree in management
Effective career planning
Trainings
4. If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
Develop new talents
Acquire new values
Broaden your point of view
All of the above
5. When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to
acquire?
Learning to trust others
Learning how to work through others
Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
All of the above
6. What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them,
estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and
goals?
Planning
Leading
Controlling
Organizing
7. What refers to the establishing interr elationships between people and things in such a way
that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the
company?

Planning
Leading
Controlling
Organizing
8. What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?
Organizing
Staffing
Motivating
Controlling
9. What management function involves orienting personnel in the most eff ective way and
channeling resources?
Directing
Planning
Organizing
Leading
10. Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to
check for deviation and to take cor rective action. This action refers to what management
function?
Organizing
Planning
Controlling
Staffing
11. What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set
for them, with great commitment and conviction?
Staffing
Motivating
Controlling
Leading
12. What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce
a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
Directing
Motivating
Staffing
Controlling
13. What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of
inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
Project Management
Engineering Management
Management
Planning
14. Which is NOT an element of project management process?
Data and information
Research and development
Decision making
Implementation and action
15. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
Leadership
Charisma
Communication skill
Knowledge
16. In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and
controlling a project at each stage of its development?
R & D model
Project feasibility
Life cycle model
All of the above
17. What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology ptoject?
Morris model
Waterfall model
Incremental release model
Prototype model
18. In project management, R & D stands for:
Retail Distribution
Research and Development
Repair and Develop
Reduce and Deduce
19. In project management O & M stands for:
Operation and Manpower
Operation and Maintenance
Operation and Management
Operation and Mission
20. A project management must be very good in which of the following skills?
Communication skills
Human relationship skills
Leadership skills
All of the above
21. Project integration management involves which of the following processes?
Project plan development
Project plan execution
Integrated change control
Quality planning
22. Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
Quality planning
Quality assurance
Quality Control
Quality feature
23. What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected
information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
Electronic Data Processing Systems
Management Information System
Central Processing System
Data Management System
24. Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?
Intermediate planning
Strategic planning
Operational planning
Direct planning
25. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
Lower management level
Middle management level
Top management level
Lowest management level
26. What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?
Little managerial control and high degree of risk
Time consuming and cost ineffective
Little ideas from subordinate in decision- making
All of the above
27. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to
Set goals
Determine the resources needed
Set a standard
Develop strategies and tactics
28. What is defined as the process of planning, or ganizing, and controlling operations to reach
objective efficiently and effectively?
General Management
Engineering Management
Production Management
Operations Management
29. For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a
good __________.
Interpersonal skills
Communication skills
Leadership
Decision- making skills
30. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of
territorial power or hidden agenda?
Technical opinion conflict
Politics
Ambiguous roles
Managerial procedure conflict
31. The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as
__________.
Division of labor
Segmentation
Departmentalization
Territorialization
32. By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes __________?
Authority
Responsibility
Accountability
All of the above

33. What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only?
Interim committee
Temporary committee
Standing committee
Ad hoc committee
34. What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?
Efficiency
Effectiveness
Ability to manage
Decision- making ability
35. An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be
__________ if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days
Efficient
Effective
Reliable
Qualified
36. If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with
the same output, he is said to be more __________.
Managerial skill
Economical
Effective
Efficient
37. To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test
that is used to measure a persons current knowledge of a subject?
Interest test
Aptitude test
Performance test
Personality test
38. What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom
instruction in particular subject?
On-the-job training
Vestibule school
Apprenticeship program
In-basket
39. What type of authority refers to a specialists right to oversee lower level personnel involved
in the project regardless of the personnels assignment in the organization?
Top authority
Line authority
Staff authority
Functional authority
40. When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of
authority?
Top authority
Line authority
Staff authority
Functional authority
41. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the
determining the scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to __________.
Division of labor
Delegation of authority
Departmentation
Span of control
42. When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of
related jobs, activities, or processes into major or ganizational subunits. This refers to:
Division of labor
Delegation of authority
Departmentation
Span of control
43. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative
evaluation?
Comparison technique
Intuition and subjective judgment
Rational technique
Analytical technique
44. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative
evaluation?
Rational and analytical techniques
Intuition and subjective judgment
Comparison in number technique
Cost analysis
45. What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its
philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in
terms of products, services and markets?
Corporate mission
Corporate vision
Corporate character
Corporate identity
46. What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically
toward achieving objectives?
Power
Leadership
Teamwork
Charisma
47. What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both
customers waiting time and cost of service?
Queuing theory
Network model
Sampling theory
Simulation
48. What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations
involving limited or partial information about the decision environment?
Sampling theory
Linear programming
Decision theory
Simulation
49. What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to
be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing r esearch?
Sampling theory
Linear programming
Statistical decision theory
Simulation
50. The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers
to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest?
Physiological need
Security need
Esteem need
Self- actualization need

51. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job?
Training
Development
Vestibule
Specialized courses
52. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard
activities?
Benchmark job technique
Parametric technique
Modular technique
Non- modular technique
53. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in
a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?
Functional organization
Territorial organization
Process organization
Product organization
54. What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single
organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
Functional organization
Territorial organization
Process organization
Product organization
55. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human
resources and skills?
Functional organization
Matrix organization
Process organization
Product organization
56. In which type of or ganization where the structure can lead to a dual boss phenomenon?
Functional organization
Matrix organization
Process organization
Product organization

57. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?


Rapid reaction organization
Adaptation to changing environment
State-of-the-art technology
Better utilization of resources
58. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
Dual accountability of personnel
Conflicts between project and functional managers
Profit-and-loss accountability dif ficult
Inefficient use of specialist
59. Which one is an advantage projectized organization?
Efficient use of technical personnel
Good project schedule and cost control
Single point for customer contact
Rapid reaction time possible
60. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
Uncertain technical direction
Inefficient use of specialist
Insecurity regarding future job assignments
Slower work flow
61. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?
Efficient use of technical personnel
Rapid reaction time possible
Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
Good technology transfer between projects
62. Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization?
Weak customer interface
Weak project authority
Inefficient use of specialist
Slower work flow
63. In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of
the project and is often assigned a budget?
Functional organization
Matrix organization
Projectized organization
Project coordinated organization
64. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?
Finance and accounting
Customer relation
Location
Technology
65. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational
structure for managing projects?
Overhead cost
Type of technology used
Location of the project
Level of uncertainty in projects
66. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his __________ to
reach a compromise solution.
Leadership
Tradeoff analysis skill
Authority
Decision-making skill
67. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by
time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
Functional manager
Project manager
Chief engineer
Department supervisor
68. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently
and effectively?
Area manager
Sales manager
Functional manager
Project manager
69. What is the major activity of the project support office?
Administrative support for projects
Support for tools and techniques
Overall project management support
Project management via the internet
70. What is the major activity of the project office?
Administrative support for projects
Support for tools and techniques
Overall project management support
Project management via internet
71. What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the projects work content?
Linear responsibility chart
Gantt chart
Life cycle model
Project design chart
72. What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their
responsibilities in each project element?
Linear responsibility chart
Matrix responsibility chart
Responsibility interface matrix
All of the above
73. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
Forecasting
Critical path method
Program evaluation review technique
Simulation
74. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
Forecasting
Critical path method
Program evaluation review technique
Simulation
75. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the
planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the
network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?
Critical plan method
Critical path method
Critical project method
Coordinated plan method

76. For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the
planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the
network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?
Project evaluation review technique
Program evaluation review technique
Path evaluation review technique
Program execution review technique
77. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project
management?
They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling
project.
They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks
They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the probability
that the project will be completed by a specific date
All of the above
78. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?
1957
1958
1959
1960
79. In what year was PERT developed?
1957
1958
1959
1960
80. In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in
sequence?
3
4
5
6
81. What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?
Planning and design
Feasibility
Production
Turnover and startup

82. Risk management is:


Risk avoidance
Controlling risk
To gain opportunities
All of the above

83. What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule
Use a different technology
Use a different supplier
Buying insurance
84. Buying insurance is a form of:
Risk elimination
Risk reduction
Risk sharing
Risk absorption
85. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to
mitigate its consequences?
Reliability management
Risk management
Quality assurance management
Project assurance management
86. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of
risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
Risk management
Risk-benefit analysis
Benefit management
Uncertainty analysis
87. What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need
to get an approval from his or her manager?
Responsibility
Leadership
Authority
Tradeoff skill

88. What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its
objectives?
Goal
Strategy
Program
Plan
89. When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to
clients, it is a sign that
the engineer manager in-charge:
Lacks leadership skill
Has inadequate control
Has poor organization
Has no proper planning
90. What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the
relevance of available
information to the problem at hand?
Statistical confidence
Tolerance
Incompleteness of the data
Ambiguity in modeling the problem
91. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does
the acronym
SMEAC stands for?
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination
Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
92. In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration,
which is the
appropriate question will the manager ask?
What do we need to get it done?
What are we aiming to do?
How are we going to do it?
What is the operation environment?
93. In project management, what is usually the fir st step underlying in the
process of performing
a project?
Select appropriate performance measures
Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
Identify a need for a product or service
Develop a technological concept
94. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or
service is identified,
what is usually the next step?
Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
Develop a budget
Develop a schedule
Develop the technological concept
95. What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
Select appropriate performance measures
Implement a plan
Monitor and control the project
Evaluate project success

96. To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management,


laws on project
management are developed. One of which is A careless planned project
will take __________
times longer to complete than expected.
Three
Four
Two
Two and a half

97. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is


under the __________.
Finance manager
Manufacturing manager
General manager
Marketing manager
98. What is a diagram of the organizations official positions and formal
lines of authority
called?
Organization chart
Authority chart
Policy chart
Control chart
99. What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative
courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situations?
Sampling theory
Alternative-analysis
Problem-solving
Decision-making

100. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how
with the ability to
organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other
resources including
money?
Engineering management
Engineering technology
Technical manger
General management
1. During the Babylonian period, laws that contained clauses dealing with injuries,
allowable fees for physicians, and monetary damages were found in which of the
following?

Answer: Code of Hammurabi

2. Who was noted for studying efficiency in manufacturing?

Answer: Frederick Taylor

3. What is the government's administration arm that conducts inspections,


investigates problems, issues citations, provides a database of health and safety
statistics, and many other safety and health functions?

Answer: Occupational Safety and Health Administration

4. A staff of health and safety professionals in a large company could include which of
the following?

Answer: Industrial Safety Engineer

5. Which of the following is an early safety program based on the "Three E's of
Safety"?

Answer: Education, Enforcement, and Engineering


1. What is the leading cause of deaths in the United States?

Your Answer: Heart disease

2. What is the most common cause of work injuries?

Your Answer: Overexertion

3. Which industrial category has the highest death rate?

Correct Answer: Mining/quarrying

4. Which part(s) of the body is most frequently injured, according to the NSC
(National Safety Council)?

Correct Answer: Back

5. When do many chemical burn injuries (46%) to employees occur?

Correct Answer: While cleaning tools or equipment


1. Herbert W. Heinrich's study of the causes of industrial accidents in the 1920s
concluded that most accidents are caused by:

Correct Answer: Unsafe acts committed by fellow workers

2. Which three factors lead to human error in the human factors theory?

Correct Answer: Overload, inappropriate response, and inappropriate activities

3. Ergonomic traps, overload, and/or a decision to err lead to human error according
to the:

Your Answer: Accident/incident theory

4. The systems theory views a situation in which an accident might occur as a system
comprised of:

Your Answer: Person, machine, and environment

5. Which of the following are warning signs of depression?

Correct Answer: All of the above


1. The modern health and safety manager must understand the bottom line concerns
of all the following EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Vendors

2. Productivity, quality, cost, and response time is:

Correct Answer: The key to productivity

3. Which professional field is concerned with motion and the processes whereby other
energy forms are converted into motion?

Your Answer: Mechanical engineering

4. The design process includes all the following steps EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Cost

5. Who are the most likely candidates to work as safety engineers?

Correct Answer: Industrial engineers


1. Competitiveness is the ability to succeed and prosper in :

Correct Answer: All of the above

2. Productivity is a measure of:

Correct Answer: Output/input

3. Quality without ____ will result in costs that are too high to be competitive.

Your Answer: Productivity

4. The literacy level of the labor pool is actually declining in the United States. This
will cause:

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. Quality is essential to:

Correct Answer: Competitiveness


1. Which of the following statements was the purpose of Congress passing the OSH
Act in 1970?

Correct Answer: To promote safe and healthful working conditions for


employees

2. What are the three different types of action OSHA may utilize to maintain health
and safety standards?

Correct Answer: Adopt, amend, or revise

3. Once a standard is passed, an employer who is opposed to the standard must file
an appeal in:

Correct Answer: 60 days

4. The record keeping and reporting requirements of the OSH Act apply to employers
with:

Your Answer: 11 or more workers

5. Under the OSH Act, employees have all the following rights EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Refusal to wear safety equipment


1. All of the following employees are covered under the workers' compensation laws
EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Agricultural employees

2. Insurance rates are affected by all the factors listed below EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Profit/loss of the company

3. When the employer is classified by type, which one of the following methods is
used to determine the premium rate?

Your Answer: Experience rating

4. In which of the following states can compensation for permanent total disability be
awarded for life?

Correct Answer: California

5. The following are all approaches used to settle a workers' compensation claim
EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Union arbitration


1. Which of the following is the primary reason for accident investigation?

Correct Answer: To prevent future accidents

2. What is the purpose of an accident investigation?

Your Answer: To collect facts

3. Select the correct sequence of steps in the accident investigation.

Your Answer: Isolate the accident site, record all evidence, photograph or
videotape the scene, identify witnesses, interview witnesses.

4. When interviewing witnesses, what questions should be asked?

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. Injuries/illnesses must be recorded if they result in:

Your Answer: All of the above


1. When developing product literature, which of the following should be used
whenever possible?

Correct Answer: Illustrations

2. Together burns and scalding accounted for how many microwave-related injuries in
1989?

Correct Answer: 5000

3. When was the concept of nonliability established in the courts of England?

Correct Answer: 1842

4. Which concept requires warning labels on many consumer products?

Correct Answer: Duty to warn

5. Which is a fundamental component of a PSM program?

Correct Answer: All of the above


1. Which of the following agencies has issued guidelines for reporting of occupational
injuries and illnesses?

Correct Answer: Bureau of Labor Statistics

2. Understanding the hazards associated with a job or process is provided by training


and educating:

Correct Answer: All of the above

3. What is one way to reduce stress among the employees within the workplace?

Your Answer: Provide adjustable machines or work surfaces

4. In the age of high technology, what is the key to the most significant and enduring
productivity improvement?

Your Answer: Human involvement

5. OSHAs current plan for reducing ergonomic hazards in the workplace includes:

Correct Answer: all of the above.


1. A pathological, and therefore generally undesirable, human reaction to
psychological, social, occupational, or environmental stimuli is:

Correct Answer: Stress

2. Sources of on-the-job stress involve all of the following EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Job enrichment

3. M. Selye's three stages of the human stress response are:

Correct Answer: Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

4. The best policy regarding stress is to:

Your Answer: Learn to adapt to being sick because of stress

5. Which of the following is not a strategy for industrial stress reduction?

Correct Answer: Increasing employees' hourly pay rate


1. Demonstration is the process in which the instructor:

Correct Answer: Shows students how to perform specific skills or task

2. Learners retain most from which type of instruction?

Your Answer: Doing

3. In order to know if training has improved performance, what do health and safety
professionals need to know?

Correct Answer: All of the above

4. Illiteracy in the workplace will result in:

Your Answer: Difficulty in filling high-skill jobs

5. Select the agency where an Advance Safety Certificate may be earned by health
and safety professionals.

Correct Answer: National Safety Council


1. Which of the following defines workplace violence?

Your Answer: Violent acts, behavior, or threats that occur in the workplace

2. High-risk occupations in terms of workplace violence are:

Your Answer: All of the above

3. How many individuals are direct victims of some form of violent crime in the
workplace every year?

Correct Answer: 1 million

4. Which of the following are strategies used by employers to reduce the risk of
workplace violence?

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. A management program relating to safety and health in the workplace has:

Correct Answer: A and B

1. When a body part comes in contact with a sharp edge, which of the following
occurs?
Correct Answer: Cutting

2. Which type of guard shuts down the machine when the guard is not securely in
place?

Correct Answer: Interlock

3. An optical device that shuts down the machine any time the light field is broken is
a(n):

Correct Answer: Photoelectric device

4. The best guard used in a robot's work envelope is a(n):

Correct Answer: Physical barrier

5. When a machine is being operated without the safeguard, which of the following
actions should be taken?

Correct Answer: Stop the machine immediately.


1. Which of the following is not one of the primary causes of falls?

Correct Answer: Fall prevention component

2. The method used for measuring surface traction is called:

Correct Answer: Coefficient of friction

3. 40% of injuries occur in the first year of employment. In which of the following
areas do most of these injuries occur?

Correct Answer: Back-related

4. Hard hats are tested to withstand how many foot-pounds of impact?

Correct Answer: 40

5. The National Safety Council recommends all the following do's when using a ladder
except:

Correct Answer: Do lean the ladder against a fragile, slippery, or unstable


surface.
1. When heat gain from any source or sources is more than the body can compensate
for by sweating, the result is:

Your Answer: Heat stress

2. The severity of a burn depends on several factors. The most important of these is:

Correct Answer: Depth to which burn penetrates

3. Critical burns are second-degree burns covering what percentage of body surface?

Your Answer: 30%

4. Which of the following is not a factor contributing to cold injury?

Correct Answer: Convection

5. Which of the following types of cold stress is not considered a less severe disorder?

Correct Answer: Hypothermia


1. All of the following are safety hazards associated with boilers and other pressurized
vessels EXCEPT:

Your Answer: Proper operator training

2. Which of the following is not an inert gas?

Your Answer: Oxygen

3. Water vapor, although it is a gas, does not conform to:

Correct Answer: Dalton's law

4. Which of the following situations may cause a vacuum?

Correct Answer: Pressures below the atmospheric level

5. Atmospheric pressure is usually measured with a(n):

Correct Answer: Barometer


1. Ohms law is stated as _____, where V=volts, I=amps, and R=ohms.

Your Answer: V = IR

2. A tree is a common natural path for what type of electrical hazard?

Correct Answer: Lightning

3. Power is measured in:

Your Answer: Watts

4. In the United States, a standard AC circuit cycles how many times per second?

Your Answer: 60

5. Which safety device is used to detect the flow of current to the ground and open
the circuit?

Correct Answer: Ground fault interrupter


1. What three elements are required to start and sustain fire?

Your Answer: Fuel, heat, and oxygen

2. Fires are classified according to their properties, which relate to the nature of the
fuel. What class of fire has a metal fuel?

Correct Answer: Class D

3. Which of the following are products of combustion?

Correct Answer: Gases, flame, heat, and smoke

4. The result of incomplete combustion of fuel is carbon monoxide, which is:

Your Answer: All of the above

5. The National Fire Protection Association has devised a system, NFPA 704, for quick
identification of hazards presented when substances burn. Which color is used to
identify reactivity?

Your Answer: Yellow


1. Toxic effects are a function of several factors. Which of the following is not a
factor?

Correct Answer: Time of day

2. Which of the following is associated with chronic effects/exposures of toxic


substances?

Correct Answer: Little or no awareness of exposures on the part of affected


workers

3. Which industry has had a long history of dealing with industrial hygiene problems?

Correct Answer: Textile

4. What are the key concepts in the Indoor Air Quality Standard?

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. OSHA recommends a three-step process for investigating the possibility of the


presence of toxic mold in the workplace. Which of the following are the three
steps?

Correct Answer: All of the above


1. How many rems per calendar quarter is the limit of exposure for the hands and
forearms?

Correct Answer: 18.74 rems

2. Which agency assists OSHA in regulation radiation exposure?

Correct Answer: NRC

3. Companies involved in producing, using, storing, handling, and/or transporting


radioactive materials must inform how many employees of existing radiation
hazards?

Correct Answer: All employees

4. When must an incident be reported?

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. If an incident occurs, employers are required to follow up with a written report


within how many days?

Correct Answer: 30 days


1. Which of the following is nonrepetitive impulse noise?

Your Answer: Jack hammer

2. What is considered the maximum limit of continuous exposure to noise over eight-
hour days without protection?

Correct Answer: 90 dBA

3. How many workers in the United States between the ages of 50 and 59 years of
age are estimated to have compensable noise-induced hearing loss?

Correct Answer: 1.7 million

4. Which of the following factors distinguishes noise from sound?

Correct Answer: Unwanted sound

5. What kind of information should be included on an audiometric form?

Correct Answer: All of the above


1. The feeling workers have when they are not able to control the work environment
is:

Correct Answer: Powerlessness

2. Variance control, boundary location, work group organization, management


support, design process, and quality of work life are components:

Correct Answer: Sociotechnical system theory

3. Which condition is most associated with robots in the workplace?

Correct Answer: Work envelope injuries

4. Broad-based efforts at automating mechanical processes and systems began in


the:

Correct Answer: 1960s

5. The advent of computers has brought about health and safety problems concerned
with:

Correct Answer: Video display terminals


1. How many people are estimated to have been infected by the virus that causes
AIDS?

Correct Answer: 1 million

2. In what year was the AIDS virus first reported in the United States?

Correct Answer: Mid-1981

3. A corporate AIDS policy should have which of the following components?

Correct Answer: All the above

4. What actions should companies take with HIV-positive employees?

Correct Answer: Allow them to work/perform job

5. From the following, select the method by which the AIDS virus may be transmitted.

Correct Answer: None of the above


1. From the following, select the most important component of emergency
preparation.

Your Answer: Planning

2. Which of the following groups may respond to an emergency?

Correct Answer: All of the above

3. From which of the following agencies would it be most appropriate to obtain first
aid training materials?

Your Answer: National Safety Council

4. Which of the following should be used to keep employees up-to-date concerning


first aid information?

Your Answer: First aid fact sheet

5. Emergency preparation involves:

Your Answer: All of the above


1. Health and safety professionals may use which of the following approaches to
handle ethical problems?

Correct Answer: Any of the above

2. Select the guideline for determining ethical behavior which requires you to listen to
your instincts.

Correct Answer: Common sense test

3. The ethical dilemma faced by Camillo Garcia, Mil-Tech's health and safety
manager, was brought about by top management's decision to use:

Correct Answer: New paint

4. One of the most pervasive and complex problems facing business organizations
today is managing:

Your Answer: Ethical behavior

5. Morality refers to:

Correct Answer: Values


1. For every hazard there are typically several different remedies. Which of the
following is an important factor in corrective action regarding the corresponding
benefit?

Your Answer: Cost

2. Select the best method of hazard analysis, which uses a graphic model to visually
display the analysis process.

Correct Answer: Fault tree analysis

3. Risk analysis is normally associated with:

Correct Answer: Insurance and investment

4. When should human error analysis be used?

Your Answer: Before hazards cause accidents

5. Which of the following is a condition or combination of conditions that, if left


uncorrected, might lead to an accident, illness, or property damage?

Correct Answer: Hazard


1. A benefit companies may gain from asking employees to sign a declaration of
safety is:

Your Answer: Personal commitment

2. When developing safety rules and regulations:

Correct Answer: Minimize the number of rules to the extent possible.

3. One of the best ways to promote safety in the workplace is:

Your Answer: Through ongoing safety training programs

4. A company's safety policy should make what clear?

Correct Answer: That safe work practices are expected of all employees

5. One of the keys to successfully promoting safety is to:

Your Answer: Involve employees


1. Congress initially became interested in cleaning up and protecting the environment
during the:

Correct Answer: 1960s

2. By how much were carbon monoxide emissions reduced between 1970 and 1986?

Your Answer: 38%

3. The ISO 14000 series contains two types of standards:

Your Answer: Specification and guidance standards

4. EMS is the component of an organization with primary responsibility for leading,


planning, controlling, and organizing as they relate specifically to:

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. The goal of the OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard is to:

Correct Answer: All of the above


1. A Total Quality approach can be used for managing safety even in traditional
organizations that reject QM overall. What is this approach called?

Your Answer: TSM

2. Which of the following characteristics is developed in an organization to achieve the


purpose of QM?

Correct Answer: All of the above

3. QM is implemented using a ____ step process.

Correct Answer: 20

4. Which one of the following is a step in the planning and preparation phase in the
TSM model?

Your Answer: Develop the organization's safety and health

5. What can employees do as their part to make the workplace safe and healthy?

Correct Answer: A and C


1. Which of the following defines a safety-friendly corporate culture?

Answer: Beliefs, values, and attitudes shared and accepted

2. Team charters are an excellent way for:

Answer: Employees to see that safe and healthy work practices are expected

3. Enhancements in which key areas continue to enable ever-increasing levels of


globalization?

Answer: All of the above

4. The most fundamental reason for having a safety-friendly corporate culture is

Answer: Competition

5. Corporate cultures are established in organizations based on what is

Answer: all of the above


1.) A bookstore purchased a best-selling book at P200.00 per copy. At what price should this
book be sold so that by giving a 20% discount, the profit is 30%

A. P200.00
B. P300.00
C. P400.00
D. P500.00

2.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average of 42%, what minimum rate of
return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 13.02%
B. 12.07%
C. 10.89%
D. 11.08%

3.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators.
Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5
days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the
line to meet the demand?

A. 1 hour
B. 1 hour and 10 minutes
C. 1 hour and 15 minutes
D. 1 hour and 30 minutes

4.) Dalisay Corporations gross margin is 45% of sales. Operating expenses such as sales and
administration are 15% of sales. Dalisay Corporation is in 40% tax bracket. What percent
of sales is their profit after taxes?

A. 21%
B. 20%
C. 19%
D. 18%

5.) In determining the cost involved in fabricating sub-assembly B within a company, the
following data have been gathered:

Direct material - P0.30 per unit


Direct labor - P0.50 per unit
Testing set-up - P300.00 per set-up

It is decided to subcontract the manufacturing of assembly B to an outside company. For


an order of 100 units, what is the cost per unit that is acceptable to the company?

A. P3.80
B. P4.00
C. P4.10
D. P4.20

6.) By selling balut at P5 per dozen, a vendor gains 20%. The cost of the eggs rises by
12.5%. If he sells at the same price as before, find his new gain in %.

A. 6.89%
B. 6.67%
C. 6.58%
D. 6.12%

7.) An equipment installation job in the completion stage can be completed in 50 days of 8
hour/day work, with 50 men working. With the contract expiring in 40 days, the
mechanical engineer contractor decided to add 15 men on the job, overtime not being
permitted.

If the liquidated damages is P5000 per day of delay, and the men are paid P150 per day,
how much money would he save with the additional workers?

A. P43,450
B. P43,750
C. P44,250
D. P44,750
8.) In a certain department store, the monthly salar y of a saleslady is partly constant and
partly varies as the value of her sales for the month. When the value of her sales for the
month is P10,000.00, her salar y for the month is P900.00. When her monthly sales go up
to P12,000.00, her monthly salary goes up to P1,000.00. What must be the value of her
sales so that her salary for the month will be P2,000.00?

A. P30,000
B. P31,000
C. P32,000
D. P33,000

9.) Jojo bought a second-hand Betamax VCR and then sold it to Rudy at a profit of 40%.
Rudy then sold the VCR to Noel at a profit of 20%. If Noel paid P2,856 more than it
costs Jojo, how much did Jojo pay for the unit?

A. P4,100
B. P3,900
C. P4,000
D. P4,200

10.) The selling price of a TV set is double that of its net cost. If the TV set is sold to a
customer at a profit of 25% of the net cost, how much discount was given to the
customer?

A. 37.5%
B. 37.9%
C. 38.2%
D. 38.5%

11.) A Mechanical Engineer who was awarded a P450,000 contract to install the
machineries of an oil mill failed to finish the work on time. As provided for in the
contract, he has to pay a daily penalty equivalent to one fourth of one per cent per day
for the first 10 days and 0.5% per day for the next 10 days and one per cent per day for
everyday thereafter. If the total penalty was P60,750.00, how many days was the
completion of the contract delayed?

A. 26 days
B. 27 days
C. 28 days
D. 29 days

12.) The quarrying cost of marble and granite blocks plus delivery cost to the processing
plant each is P2,400.00 per cubic meter. Processing cost of marble into tile is P200.00
per square meter and that of the granite into tiles also is P600.00 per square meter.

If marble has a net yield of 40 square meters of tile per cubic meter of block and sells
P400 per square meter, and granite gives a net yield of 50 square meters of tiles per
cubic meter of block and sells at P1000 per square meter. Considering all other costs to
be the same, the granite is more profitable than the marble by how much?

A. P12,000 per cubic meter


B. P13,000 per cubic meter
C. P14,000 per cubic meter
D. P15,000 per cubic meter

13.) A man would like to invest P50,000 in government bonds and stocks that will give an
overall annual return of about 5%. The money to be invested in government bonds will
give an annual return of 4.5% and the stocks of about 6%. The investments are in units
of P100.00 each. If he desires to keep his stock investment to minimum in order to
reduce his risk, determine how many stocks should be purchased.

A. 165
B. 166
C. 167
D. 168
14.) A 220 V 2 hp motor has an efficiency of 80%. If power costs P3.00 per kw-hr for the
first 50 kw-hr, 2.90 per kw-hr for the second 50 kw-hr, P2.80 for the third kw-hr and so
on until a minimum of P2.50 per kw-hr is reached. How much does it cost to run this
motor continuously for 7 days?

A. P800
B. P820
C. P840
D. P860

15.) An 8-meter concrete road pavement 500 meters long is desired to be constructed over a
well-compacted gravel road, together with the necessary concrete curbs and gutters on
both sides. In order to put the subgrade on an even level grade, a 500 cubic meters of
sand filling is necessary, over which the 10 inch concrete pavement will be placed?

Assume the following data:

A. Sand fill, including rolling and watering = P100 per cubic meter
B. Concrete pavement, 10 in thick (labor and materials) including curing = P220
per sq. Meter
C. Curbs and gutters = P12 per linear meter

How much will the project cost allowing 15% for contingency?

A. P1,207,000
B. P1,207,500
C. P1,208,000
D. P1,208,500

16.) An electric utility purchases 2,300,000 kw-hr per month of electric ener gy from
National Power Corporation at P2.00 per kw-hr and sells all this to consumers after
deducting distribution losses of 20%. At what average rate per kw-hr should this energy
be sold to break even if the following are other monthly expenses in its operation:

Taxes 2.5 % of gross revenue


Salaries P750,000
Depreciation P2,250,000
Interest P700,000
Maintenance P300,000
Miscellaneous P200,000

A. P4.90
B. P5.20
C. P5.90
D. P6.30

17.) An engineer bidding on the asphalting of 7 km stretch of road is confronted with a


problem of choosing between two possible sites on which to set-up the asphalt-mixing
machine.

Site A Site B
Average hauling distance 2.5 km 2.75 km
Monthly rental P35,000 P6,500
Installing and dismantling of machine P20,000 P10,000

At Site A, it would be necessary to hir e 2 flagmen at P150 per working day. The job
can be completed in 32 weeks working 6 days a week. The project requir es 16,670
cubic meter of asphalt mix per kilometre of road. If the asphalt mix is to be hauled by a
contractor at P42 per cubic meter per km of haul. How much is site B more expensive
than site A?

A. P949,645
B. P962,101
C. P956,807
D. P974,090
18.) A fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed manufacturing
plant and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated
to be 10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total
investment if the annual profit is P2,500,000.

A. 28.33%
B. 29.34%
C. 30.12%
D. 30.78%

19.) A call to bid was advertised in the Philippine Daily Inquirer for the construction of a
transmission line from a mini-hydroelectric power plant to the substation which is
5.035 kilometers away. The tanalized timber electrical posts must be placed at an
interval of 50 m. The electrical posts must be 30 feet long, 8 inches in diameter at the
tip and 12 inches in diameter at the butt. The power house is 15 m from the first electric
post and the substation is 20 m from the last electric post. Compute the estimated cost
for the project using the following data:

Cost of one tanalized timber post 30 feet long is P5,000 including deliver y to the site.
Labourer at P180 per day and 5 laborers can dig and erect 3 posts per day. Electrician at
P250 per day and 4 electricians can strung wires complete 150 meters per day. Electric
wire cost P4.00 per meter. Use only 5 labor ers and 4 electricians for the project and is
supervised by a foreman which is paid at P400 per day. Contingency is 10% and profit
is 25%.

A. P745,890.23
B. P817,692.00
C. P789,120.80
D. P829,592.50
20.) Upon the retirement after 44 years in government service, Mrs. Salud Araoarao was
able to get a retirement lump sum of P2,300,000. As a hedge against inflation, she
decided to use a part of it invested in real state at Pagadian City and the remainder wer e
invested as follows:

A. 30% in T-bills earning 12% interest


B. 35% in money market placement earning 14%
C. 35% in blue chip stock earning 13%

If her annual earnings from the T-bills, money market and stock is P50,000, How much
did she invests in real estate?

A. P2,091,639.12
B. P1,916,858.24
C. P1,856,120.53
D. P1,790,274.78

21.) The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Alarde is 3200 pieces.
With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cuffing cost is P25.00. An electrically
operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Alarde at a price of P275,000.00 and
which cuts by 30% the unit cuffing cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many
months will Mr. Alarde be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy
now?

A. 10 months
B. 11 months
C. 12 months
D. 13 months
22.) In a new gold mining area in Southern Leyte the ore contains on the average of ten
ounces of gold per ton. Different methods of processing are tabulated as follows:

Processing Method Cost per ton % Recovery


A P5,500 90
B P2,500 80
C P400 70

If gold can be sold at P4,000 per ounce, which method of processing yield the biggest
return?

A. Processing method A
B. Processing method B
C. Processing method C
D. Either of the processing methods B or C

23.) JRT Motors Inc. has been shipping its Suzuki engines in containers to avoid the
necessary crating of the engines. JRT Motors Inc. will pay freight on container load of
40 tons, regardless of whether or not the container is completely filled with engines.
Record shows that due to engine size, JRT Motors Inc. has shipped only 30 tons per
container. Freight of container cost P3.00 per kilograms.

If the engines are crated so that they can be shipped at the rate of P3.50 per hundred
kilograms with the freight bill computed only on the actual weight shipped. The cost of
crating would be P50 per engine and would increase the shipping weight from 1500 kg
to 1520 kg per engine. How much more economical shipping the engine in crates than
in containers?

A. P670 per engine


B. P630 per engine
C. P650 per engine
D. P610 per engine

24.) A paint manufacturing company uses a sand mill for fine grinding of paint with an
output of 100 liters per hour using glass beads as grinding media. Media load in the mill
is 25 kg costing P200.00 per kg and is fully replenished in 2 months time at 8 hours per
day operation, 25 days a month. A ceramic grinding media is offered to this paint
company, costing P400 per kg and needs 30 kg load in the sand mill, but guarantees an
output of 120 liters per hour and full replenishment of media in 3 months. If profit on
paint reduction is P15 per liter how much is a diff erence in profit between the two
media?

A. P436,900
B. P462,000
C. P473,000
D. P498,200

25.) If P1000 accumulates to P1500 when invested at a simple interest for three years, what
is the rate of interest?

A. 14.12%
B. 15.89%
C. 16.67%
D. 16.97%

26.) You loan from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20%
but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at
the end of one year, you have to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate
of interest?
A. 23.5%
B. 24.7%
C. 25.0%
D. 25.8%
27.) A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%,
what future amount is due at the end of the loan period?

A. P5,937.50
B. P5,873.20
C. P5,712.40
D. P5,690.12

28.) If you borrowed money from your friend with simple interest at 12%, find the present
worth of P50,000, which is due at the end of 7 months.

A. P46,728.97
B. P47,098.12
C. P47,890.12
D. P48,090.21

29.) Mr. J. Reyes borrowed money from the bank. He r eceived from the bank P1,842 and
promised to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple
interest.

A. 12.19%
B. 12.03%
C. 11.54%
D. 10.29%

30.) If you borrowed P10,000 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the total
amount to be repaid at the end of one year?

A. P10,900
B. P11,200
C. P11,800
D. P12,000

31.) A price tag of P1,200 is payable in 60 days but if paid within 30 days it will have a 3%
discount. Find the rate of interest.

A. 35.45%
B. 35.89%
C. 36.18%
D. 37.11%

32.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of discount?

A. 3.67%
B. 4.00%
C. 4.15%
D. 4.25%

33.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 4.00%
B. 4.07%
C. 4.17%
D. 4.25%

34.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per year?

A. P25,168
B. P25,175
C. P25,189
D. P25,250
35.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per month?

A. P28,000
B. P28,165
C. P28,289
D. P28,250

36.) It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they gr ant a loan, the
interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release
of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank
and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was
deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of
P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?

A. 16.02%
B. 16.28%
C. 16.32%
D. 16.47%

37.) A deposit of P110,000 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20%
withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.

A. 11.50%
B. 11.75%
C. 11.95%
D. 12.32%

38.) P5,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P5,066.67
B. P5,133.33
C. P5,050.00
D. P5,166.67

39.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum
rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 12.07%
B. 12.34%
C. 12.67%
D. 12.87%

40.) A man borrowed P20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple interest of
16% but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the money was
borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of one year. How much is the actual rate of
interest?

A. 19.05%
B. 19.34%
C. 19.67%
D. 19.87%

41.) P4,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P4,033.33
B. P4,333.33
C. P4,133.33
D. P4,666.67
42.) Agnes Abanilla was granted a loan of P20,000 by her employer CPM Industrial
Fabricator and Construction Corporation with an interest rate of 6% for 180 days on the
principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for
P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.

A. P18,800
B. P18,900
C. P19,000
D. P19,100

43.) If you borrow money from your friend with simple interest of 12%, find the present
worth of P20,000 which is due at the end of nine months.

A. P18,992.08
B. P18,782.18
C. P18,348.62
D. P18,120.45

44.) A man borrowed from a bank under a promissory note that he signed in the amount of
P25,000.00 for a period of one year. He receives only the amount of P21,915.00 after
the bank collected the advance interest and an additional of P85.00 for notarial and
inspection fees. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 13.05%
B. 13.22%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.64%

45.) Mr. Danilo Conde borrowed money from a bank. He received from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine rate of simple
interest.

A. 15.92%
B. 15.75%
C. 15.45%
D. 15.08%

46.) Mr. J. Dela Cruz borrowed money from a bank. He receives from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding
discount rate or often referred to as the bankers discount.

A. 13.15%
B. 13.32%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.73%

47.) Annie buys a television set from a merchant who ask P1,250.00 at the end of 60 days.
Annie wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash price on
the assumption that money is worth 8% simple interest. What is the cash price?

A. P1,124.67
B. P1,233.55
C. P1,289.08
D. P1,302.67

48.) A man borrowed money from a loan shark. He receives from the loan shark and amount
of P1,342.00 and promised to repay P1,500.00 at the end of 3 quarters. What is the
simple interest rate?

A. 15.47%
B. 15.69%
C. 15.80%
D. 15.96%

49.) Determine the exact simple interest on P5,000 invested for the period from January
15,1996 to October 12,1996, if the rate interest is 18%.

A. P664.23
B. P664.89
C. P665.21
D. P666.39
50.) The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21,1995 to December 25,1995
is P100. What is the rate of interest?

A. 3.90%
B. 3.92%
C. 3.95%
D. 3.98%

51.) On her recent birthday, April 22, 2001, Nicole was given by her mother a certain sum
of money as birthday pr esent. She decided to invest the said amount on 20% exact
simple interest. If the account will mature on Christmas day at an amount of
P10,000.00, how much did Nicole receive from her mother on her birthday?

A. P8,807.92
B. P8,827.56
C. P8,832.17
D. P8,845.78

52.) What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?

A. P39.01
B. P39.45
C. P39.82
D. P39.99

53.) Nicole has P20,400 in cash. She invested it at 7% from March 1, 2006 to November 1,
2006 at 7% interest. How much is the interest using the Bankers Rule?

A. P972.12
B. P970.78
C. P973.12
D. P971.83

54.) The amount of P20,000 was deposited in a bank earning an interest of 6.5% per annum.
Determine the total amount at the end of 7 years if the principal and interest were not
withdrawn during this period?

A. P30,890.22
B. P30,980.22
C. P31,079.73
D. P31,179.37

55.) A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the
effective rate of money?

A. 9.01%
B. 9.14%
C. 9.31%
D. 9.41%

56.) The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P71,781.47
B. P71,187.47
C. P71,817.47
D. P71,718.47

57.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P80,000 to be made in six years with an
interest of 12% compounded annually.

A. P40,540.49
B. P40,450.49
C. P40,350.49
D. P40,530.49
58.) What is the effective r ate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is
equal to 360 days.

A. 19.61%
B. 19.44%
C. 19.31%
D. 19.72%

59.) What nominal rate, compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16%
compounded quarterly?

A. 16.09%
B. 16.32%
C. 16.45%
D. 16.78%

60.) What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?

A. 8.07%
B. 8.12%
C. 8.16%
D. 8.24%

61.) Find the nominal rate, which if converted quarterly could be used instead of 12%
compounded semi-annually.

A. 11.83%
B. 11.09%
C. 11.65%
D. 11.25%

62.) Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?

A. 12.35% compounded annually


B. 11.90% compounded semi-annually
C. 12.20% compounded quarterly
D. 11.60% compounded monthly

63.) Find the compound amount if P2,500 is invested at 8% compounded quarterly for 5
years and 6 months.

A. P3,864.95
B. P3,846.59
C. P3,889.95
64.) An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find
the nominal interest.

A. 11.89%
B. 12.00%
C. 12.08%
D. 12.32%

65.) If P5,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly, then what is the
compound interest at the end of 10 years?

A. P6,080.40
B. P6,020.40
C. P6,040.20
D. P6,060.20

66.) What is the corresponding effective rate of 18% compounded semi-quarterly?

A. 19.24%
B. 19.48%
C. 19.84%
D. 19.92%

67.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P100,000 to be made in 10 years with an
interest of 12% compounded quarterly.

A. P30,555.68
B. P30,656.86
C. P30,556.86
D. P30,655.68

68.) In how many years is required for P2,000 to increase by P3,000 if interest at 12%
compounded semi-annually?

A. 7.86 years
B. 7.65 years
C. 7.23 years
D. 8.12 years

69.) The amount of P150,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P215,344.40

70.) How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A. 13.7 years
B. 14.2 years
C. 14.7 years
D. 15.3 years

71.) What is the corresponding effective interest r ate of 18% compounded semi-monthly?

A. 19.35%
B. 19.84%
C. 19.48%
D. 19.64%

72.) What is the effective r ate of 14% compounded semi-annually?

A. 14.49%
B. 14.59%
C. 14.69%
D. 14.79%

73.) At an interest rate of 10% compounded annually, how much will a deposit of P1,500 be
in 15 years?

A. P6,265.87
B. P6,256.78
C. P6,526.87
D. P6,652.78

74.) A man expects to receive P25,000 in 8 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. P13,256.83
B. P13,655.28
C. P13,625.83
D. P13,265.83

75.) About how many years will P100,000 earn a compound interest of P50,000 if the
interest rate is 9% compounded quarterly?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years

76.) Compute the equivalent rate of 6% compounded semi-annually to a rate compounded


quarterly.

A. 5.12%
B. 5.96%
C. 5.78%
D. 6.12%
77.) What is the amount of P12,800 in 4 years at 5% compounded quarterly?

A. P15,461.59
B. P15,146.95
C. P15,641.59
D. P15,614.59

78.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by
her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 11.23 years
B. 11.46 years
C. 11.57 years
D. 11.87 years

79.) If P50,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 4% compounded quarterly, find the
compounded interest at the end of 10 years.

A. P2,333.32
B. P2,444.32
C. P2,555.32
D. P2,666.32

80.) A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective
annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16 th
year.

A. P693.12
B. P700.12
C. P702.15
D. P705.42
81.) P1,500.00 was deposited in a bank account, 20 years ago. Today, it is worth P3,000.00.
Interest is paid semi-annually. Determine the interest rate paid on this account.

A. 2.9%
B. 3.0%
C. 3.2%
D. 3.5%

82.) A merchant puts in his P2,000.00 to a small business for a period of six years. With a
given interest rate on the investment of 15% per year, compounded annually, how much
will he collect at the end of the sixth year?

A. P4,626.12
B. P4,262.12
C. P4,383.12
D. P4,444.12

83.) A man borrowed P100,000 at the interest rate of 12% per annum, compounded
quarterly. What is the effective rate?

A. 12.75%
B. 12.55%
C. 12.45%
D. 12.35%

84.) Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the
interest is compounded.

A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually
85.) When will an amount be tripled with an interest of 11.56%?

A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years

86.) A student plans to deposit P1,500.00 in the bank now and another P3,000.00 for the
next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000.00 three years from after his last deposit
for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after
one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.

A. P1,549.64

87.) How much must be invested on January 1, 1998 in order to accumulate P2,000 on
January 1, 2003? Money is worth 6%.

A. P1,509.34
B. P1,249.64
C. P1,378.98
D. P1,494.52

88.) A nominal interest of 3% compounded continuously is given on the account. What is


the accumulated amount of P10,000 after 10 years?

A. P13,498.59
B. P13,489.59
C. P13,789.98
D. P13,494.52

89.) A mechanical engineer wishes to accumulate a total of P10,000 in a savings account at


the end of 10 years. If the bank pays only 4% compounded quarterly, what should be
the initial deposit?

A. P6,176.35
B. P6,761.35
C. P6,716.53
D. P6,167.35

90.) Funds are deposited in a savings account at an interest of 8% per annum. What is the
initial amount that must be deposited to yield a total of P10,000 in 10 years?

A. P4,196.30
B. P4,721.39
C. P4,796.03
D. P4,631.93

91.) If P500,000 is deposited at a rate of 11.25% compounded monthly, determine the


compounded interest after 7 years and 9 montths.

A. P690,848.73
B. P670,651.23
C. P680,649.56
D. P685,781.25
92.) An interest rate is quoted as being 7.5% compounded quarterly. What is the effective
annual interest rate?

A. 7.91%
B. 7.51%
C. 7.71%
D. 7.31%

93.) You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month
instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you
will pay by borrowing the money from the bank?

A. P53.89
B. P54.66
C. P53.78
D. P54.98
94.) A deposit of P1,000 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. Approximately how much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,187.39
B. P2,145.78
C. P2,176.45
D. P2,158.92

95.) Fifteen years ago P1,000.00 was deposited in a bank account, and today it is worth
P2,370.00. The bank pays interest semi-annually. What was the interest rate paid in this
account?

A. 5.72%
B. 5.78%
C. 5.84%
D. 5.90%

96.) P200,000 was deposited on January 1, 1988 at an interest rate of 24% compounded
semi-annually. How much would the sum be on January 1, 1993?

A. P631,627.78
B. P612,890.76
C. P621,169.64
D. P611,672.18

97.) What is the present worth of two P100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.

A. P150.56
B. P152.88
C. P153.89
D. P151.09

98.) Consider a deposit of P600.00 to be paid back in one year by P700.00. What is the rate
of interest, i% per year compounded annually such that the net present wor th of the
investment is positive? Assume i 0.

A. 16.50%
B. 16.75%
C. 16.33%
D. 16.67%

99.) A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8 %. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for
the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?

A. P3,260.34
B. P3,280.34
C. P3,270.34
D. P3,250.34

100.) A machine has been purchased and installed at a total cost of P18,000.00. The machine
will retire at the end of 5 years, at which time it is expected to have a scrap value of
P2,000.00 based on current prices. The machine will then be replaced with an exact
duplicate. The company plans to establish a reserve funds to accumulate the capital
needed to replace the machine. If an average annual rate of inflation of 3% is
anticipated, how much capital must be accumulated?

A. P18,854.38
B. P18,548.38
C. P18,458.38
D. P18,845,38

101.) What is the effective r ate corresponding to 16% compounding daily? Take 1 year = 360
days.

A. 17.35%
B. 17.45%
C. 17.55%
D. 17.65%
102.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P25,000 is left to a girl to be held in a trust fund
by her guardian until it amounts to P45,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 7.42 years
103.) P200,000 was deposited at an interest r ate of 24% compounded semi-annually. After
how many years will the sum be P621,170?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years

104.) In year zero, you invest P10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the
average annual inflation is 6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos will be in the
account at maturity?

A. P15,030.03
B. P20,113.57
C. P18,289.05
D. P16,892.34

105.) A company invests P10,000 today to be repaid in 5 years in one lump sum at 12%
compounded annually. How much profit in present day pesos is realized?

A. P7,563.29
B. P7,498.20
C. P7,340.12
D. P7,623.42

106.) How long (in nearest years) will it take money to quadruple if it earns 7% compounded
semi-annually?

A. 20 years
B. 18 years
C. 21 years
D. 19 years

107.) How much should you put into a 10% savings account in order to have P10,000.00 in
five years?

A. P6,216.21
B. P6,212.12
C. P6,218.21
D. P6,209.21
108.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 6% compounded quarterly?

A. P11,042.89
B. P11,035.12
C. P11,025.25
D. P11,012.52

109.) P500,000 was deposited 20.15 years ago at an interest rate of 7% compounded semi-
annually. How much is the sum now?

A. P2,000,033.33
B. P2,000,166.28
C. P2,001,450.23
D. P2,002,820.12

110.) A bank pays one percent interest on savings accounts four times a year. What is the
effective annual interest rate?

A. 4.06%
B. 4.12%
C. 4.16%
D. 4.28%
111.) Alexander Michael owes P25,000.00 due in 1 year and P75,000 due in 4 years. He
agrees to pay P50,000.00 today and the balance in 2 years. How much must he pay at
the end of two years if money is worth 5% compounded semi-annually?

A. P39,015.23
B. P39,026.25
C. P39,056.21
D. P39,089/78

112.) Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a savings deposit
of P50,000 at 10% per annum for 3 years.

A. P1,510
B. P1,530
C. P1,550
D. P1,570

113.) If money is worth 5% compounded quarterly, find the equated time for paying a loan of
P150,000 due in 1 year and P280,000 due in 2 years.

A. 1.52 years
B. 1.64 years
114.) For a loan acquired six years ago, a man paid out the amount of P75,000.00. The
interest was computed at 18% compounded annually. How much was the borrowed
amount?

A. P27,367.28
B. P27,278.36
C. P27,782.36
D. P27,872.63

115.) A couple decided that for ever y child that will be born to them they will place a deposit
in the bank so that on the childs 18 birthday, the child will receive the amount of th
P300,000.00. If the bank will pay an interest of 18% compounded yearly, how much
deposit will the couple have to make on the birth of a child to them?

A. P15,367.18
B. P15,249.13
C. P15,722.16
D. P15,482.64

116.) On his 6 birthday a boy is left an inheritance. The inheritance will be paid in a lump th
sum of P10,000 on his 21 birthday. What is the present value of the inheritance as of st
the boys 6 birthday, if the interest is compounded annually? Assume i = 4%. th

A. P5,552.64
B. P5,549.10
C. P5,522.12
D. P5,582.63

117.) A man who won P300,000 in a lottery decided to place 50% of his winning in a trust
fund for the college education of his son. If the money will earn 14% per year
compounded quarterly, how much will the man have at the end of 10 years when his
son will be starting his college education?

A. P593,120.12
B. P593,452.12
C. P592,739.96
D. P593,888.96

118.) If the sum of P15,000 is deposited in an account earning 4% per annum compounded
quarterly, what will be the deposited amount at the end of 5 years?

A. P18,302.85
B. P18,450.89
119.) The Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers is planning to put up its own building.
Two proposals being considered are:

a. The construction of the building now to cost P400,000.


b. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5
years, an extension to be added to cost P200,000.

By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20%
and depreciation is to be neglected?

A. P19,122.15
B. P19,423.69
C. P19,518.03
D. P19,624.49

120.) A credit plan charges interest rate of 36% compounded monthly. Find its effective rate.

A. 42.21%
B. 42.30%
C. 42.41%
D. 42.57%

121.) A master card compounds monthly and charges an interest of 1.5% per month. What is
the effective interest rate per year?

A. 19.23%
B. 19.45%
C. 19.56%
D. 19.65%

122.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. If interest is computed at 6%


compounded quarterly, how much is it worth today?

A. P11,025.25
B. P11,035.25
C. P11,045.25
D. P11,055.25

123.) Microsoft CEO, billionaire Bill Gates willed that a sum of $25 million be given to a
child but will be held in trust by the childs mother until it amounts to $45 million. If
the amount is invested and earns 8% compounded quarterly, when will the child receive
the money?

A. 8.11 years
B. 7.90 years
C. 7.42 years
D. 7.24 years

124.) Find the present value of instalment payments of P1,000 now, P2,000 at the end of the
first year, P3,000 at the end of the second year, P4,000 at the end of the thir d year and
P5,000 at the end of the fourth year, if money is worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P11,411.10
B. P11,530.98
C. P11,621.67
D. P11,717.85

125.) How long will it take money to triple itself if invested at 8% compounded annually?

A. 14.27 years
B. 14.56 years
C. 14.78 years
D. 14.98 years
126.) Two hundred years ago, your great, great, great grandfather deposited P1 in a savings
account. Today, the bank notified you that you are the sole heir to this account. How
much is the account today if it earns 8% per annum?

A. P4,002,450.78
B. P4,102,405.90
C. P4,838,949.58
D. P4,909,289.45

127.) What is the present worth of a future payment of P200,000 to be made in 10 years with
an interest of 10% compounded annually?

A. P76,901.21
B. P77,108.66
C. P78,109.32
D. P79,667.32

128.) A deposit of P1,000.00 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. How much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,374.21
B. P2,158.92
C. P2,734.12
D. P2,400.12
129.) What nominal rate compounded annually would quadruple the principal in 4 years?

A. 41.42%
B. 40.81%
C. 41.79%
D. 40.45%

130.) Five years ago, you paid P34,000 for a residential lot. Today you sell it at P50,000.
What is your annual rate of appreciation?

A. 8.12%
B. 8.00%
C. 7.92%
D. 8.32%

131.) Suppose that P100,000 is invested at a certain rate of interest compounded annually for
2 years. If the accumulated interest at the end of 2 years is P21,000. Find the rate of
interest.

A. 10.12%
B. 10.00%
C. 10.92%
D. 10.32%

132.) An investment of P20,000 will be required at the end of the year. The project would
terminate at the end of the 5 th year and the assets are estimated to have a salvage value
of P25,000 at that time. What is the rate of interest for this project to break even?

A. 5.74%
B. 5.43%
C. 5.91%
D. 5.67%

133.) Frank Medina possesses a promissory note, due in 2 years hence, whose maturity value
is P3,200. What is the discount value of this note, based on an interest rate of 7%?

A. P2,795.00
B. P2,975.00
C. P2,579.00
D. P2,759.00
134.) Sonny borrowed a certain amount on June 1990 from Romeo. Two years later, Sonny
borrowed again from Romeo an amount of P5,000. Sonny paid P1,000 on June 1993
and discharged his balance by paying P7,500 on June 1995. What was the amount
borrowed by Sonny on June 1990 if the interest is 8% compounded annually?

A. P1,511.61
B. P1,611.51
C. P1,711.41
D. P1,811.31

135.) Dr. Leopold Lucero invests P50,000 in a time deposit that yields 10% for his retirement
30 years from now. If the inflation rate is 5%, what will be the value of the account at
maturity in terms of todays peso.

A. P201,689.91
B. P201,571.91
C. P201,345.91
D. P201,869.91

136.) First Benchmark Publisher Inc. invests P100,000 today to be repaid in five years in one
lump sum at 12% compounded annually. If the rate of inflation is 4% compounded
annually, how much profit, in todays pesos, is realized over the five-year period?

A. P44,512.89
B. P44,672.10
C. P44,851.64
D. P44,901.23

137.) A manufacturing firm contemplates retiring an existing machine at the end of 2002.
The new machine to replace the existing one will have an estimated cost of P400,000.
This expense will be partially defrayed by the sale of the old machine as scrap for
P30,000. To accumulate the balance of the r equired capital, the firm will deposit the
following sum in an account earning interest at 5% compounded quarterly:

P60,000 at the end of 1999


P60,000 at the end of 2000
P80,000 at the end of 2001

What cash disbursement will be necessary at the end of 2002 to purchase the new
machine?

A. P155,890.12
B. P153,085.56
C. P154,200.12
D. P156,930.38

138.) On June 1, 1998, Mrs. Emelie Roe purchased stock of San Miguel Corporation at a
total cost of P144,000. She then received the following semiannual dividends:

P4,200 on December 1, 1998


P4,400 on June 1, 1999
P4,400 on December 1, 1999
P4,000 on June 1, 2000

After receiving the last dividend, Mrs. Roe sold her stock, receiving P152,000 after
deduction of brokerage fees. What semiannual rate did this dividend realize on her
investment?

A. 4.26%
B. 4.54%
C. 4.87%
D. 4.91%
139.) Engr. Altarejos has P13,760 in cash and he would like to invest it in business. His
estimates of the year-by-year receipts and disbursements for all purposes are shown in
the tabulation below:

Year Receipts Disbursements


0 0 - P13,760
4 P5,000 + P1,000
5 P6,200 + P1,200
6 P7,500 + P1,500
7 P8,800 + P1,800

He estimates that his equipment will have a salvage value of P2,000 at the end of useful
life. Find the rate of return of the prospective equipment.

A. 10.11%
B. 11.80%
C. 11.10%
D. 10.51%

140.) What interest rate, compounded monthly, is equivalent to a 10% effective rate?

A. 9.45%
B. 9.26%
C. 9.65%
D. 9.56%

141.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. plans to purchase a piece of land and to
build a school building on this land. However, since the school building is not an
immediate requirement, the institute is considering whether it should purchase this land
and build the building now or defer this action for 3 years. The current costs are as
follows:

Land: P800,000 Building: P12,000,000

The purchase price of the land and the cost of the school building are expected to
appreciate at the r ate of 15% and 4% per annum, respectively. What will be the total
cost of the land and structure 3 years hence?

A. P14,520,120
B. P14,715,068
C. P14,902,189
D. P15,021,781

142.) Mr. Ramon owes Mr. Alarde the following amounts:

P40,000 due 2 years hence


P60,000 due 3 years hence
P72,000 due 4 years hence

Having won the lottery, Mr. Ramos decided to liquidate the debts at the present time. If
the two parties agree on a 5% interest rate, what sum must Mr. Ramos pay?

A. P147,520.20
B. P147,346.02
C. P147,902.89
D. P147,021.81
143.) Mr. James Lubay working in the United States planned of returning to the Philippines
at the end of 2001. He established a fund starting in 1995 with the following recorded
deposits and withdrawals.

January 1, 1995 Deposit of P40,000


January 1, 1997 Deposit of P80,000
July 1, 1997 Withdrawal of P12,000
July 1, 1998 Deposit of P64,000
January 1, 1999 Withdrawal of P48,000

His fund earned interest at the rate of 3.5% compounded semiannually until the end of
1997. At that date, the interest was augmented to 4% compounded semiannually. What
will be the principal in the fund at the end of 2001?

A. P146,323.08
B. P146,992.99
C. P146,846.92
D. P146,022.82

144.) JRT Publishers is contemplating of installing a labor-saving printing equipment. It has a


choice between two different models. Model A will cost P1,460,000 while model B
will cost P1,452,000. The anticipated repair costs for each model are as follows:

Model A: P60,000 at the end of 5 th year


P80,000 at the end of 10 th year
Model B: P152,000 at the end of 9 year th

The two models are alike in all other respects. If the publisher is earning a 7% return of
its capital, which model should be purchased? How much savings will be accrued if the
publisher will purchase the more economical model?

A. P8,769.18
B. P8,918.23
C. P9,012.53
D. P9,341.11

145.) What is the future amount of P50,000 if the single payment compound amount factor of
this investment is 1.23%

A. P61,700
B. P61,900
C. P61,200
D. P61,500

An investment indicates a single compound amount factor of 1.32 if invested for n 146.)
years. If the interest rate is 4.73% per annum, find the value of n.

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

147.) Mr. Tambangan invests P50,000 today. Several years later, it becomes P60,000. What
is the single payment present worth factor of this investment? If the amount was
invested for 5 years, what is the rate of interest?

A. 3.1%
B. 3.3%
C. 3.5%
D. 3.7%

148.) Money is deposited in a certain account for which the interest is compounded
continuously. If the balance doubles in 6 years, what is the annual percentage rate?

A. 11.55%
B. 11.66%
C. 11.77%
D. 11.88%
149.) On January 1, 1999, Mrs. Jocelyn De Gala opened an account at Bank of Philippine
Islands with an initial deposit of P1,000,000.00. On March 1, 2000, she opened an
additional P1,000,000.00. If the bank pays 12% interest compounded monthly, how
much will be in the account on April 1, 2000?

A. P2,180,968.95
B. P2,190,968.95
C. P2,160,968.95
D. P2,170,968.95

The paper currency issued by the Central Bank which forms part of the countrys 150.)
money supply.

A. T-bills
B. Bank note
C. Check
D. Coupon

151.) Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in
the general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

152.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Debt
C. Amortization
D. Deposit

153.) The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Market
B. Business
C. Recreation center
D. Buy and sell section

154.) A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitute

A. Monopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly

155.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

156.) The total income equals the total operating cost.

A. Balanced sheet
B. In-place value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even no gain no loss

157.) Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

A. Analytic
B. Pure
C. Gratuitous
D. Private
158.) Direct labor costs incurred in the factory and direct material costs are the costs of all
materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as:

A. GS and A expenses
B. Operating and maintenance costs
C. Prime cost
D. O and M costs

159.) An index of short term paying ability is called:

A. Receivable turn-over
B. Profit margin ratio
C. Current ratio
D. Acid-test ratio

160.) Artificial expenses that spread the purchase price of an asset or another property over a
number of years.

A. Depreciation
B. Sinking fund
C. Amnesty
D. Bond

161.) Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

162.) Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials
on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Material update
C. Technological assessment
D. Material count

163.) Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to


bidding date.

A. Delict
B. Escalatory
C. Technological assessment
D. Bid bulletin

164.) A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.

A. Depreciation
B. Annuity
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

165.) What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%?

A. P727.17
B. P717.17
C. P714.71
D. P731.17

166.) Today, a businessman borrowed money to be paid in 10 equal payments for 10


quarters. If the interest rate is 10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly payment is
P2,000, how much did he borrow?

A. P17,304.78
B. P17,404.12
C. P17,504.13
167.) What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P20,000?
Assume i = 6% annually.

A. P1,290.34
B. P1,185.54
C. P1,107.34
D. P1,205.74

168.) Find the annual payment to extinguish a debt of P10,000 payable for 6 years at 12%
interest annually.

A. P2,324.62
B. P2,234.26
C. P2,432.26
D. P2,342.26

169.) A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money to provide funds to cover
the yearly operating expenses and the cost of replacing every year the dyes of a
stamping machine used in making radio chassis as model changes for a period of 10
years.

Operating cost per year = P500.00


Cost of dye = P1,200.00
Salvage value of dye = P600.00

The money will be deposited in a savings account which earns 6% interest. Determine
the sum of money that must be provided, including the cost of the initial dye.

A. P8,626.02
B. P8,662.02
C. P8,226.02
D. P8,666.22

170.) A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P10,000.00 and agreed to pay the
dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded
annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is
the annual payment?

A. P2,500.57
B. P2,544.45
C. P2,540.56
D. P2,504.57
171.) A man paid 10% downpayment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agr eed to pay the
90% balance on monthly installment for 60 months at an interest r ate of 15%
compounded monthly. Compute the amount of the monthly payment.

A. P42,821.86
B. P42,128.67
C. P42,218.57
D. P42,812.68

172.) What is the present worth of a 3 year annuity paying P3,000.00 at the end of each year,
with interest at 8% compounded annually?

A. P7,654.04
B. P7,731.29
C. P7,420.89
D. P7,590.12

173.) What is the accumulated amount of five-year annuity paying P6,000 at the end of each
year, with interest at 15% compounded annually?

A. P40,519.21
B. P40,681.29
C. P40,454.29
D. P40,329.10
174.) A debt of P10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be amortized by
semi-annual payment over the next 5 years. The f irst due in 6 months. Determine the
semi-annual payment.

A. P1,234.09
B. P1,255.90
C. P1,275.68
D. P1,295.05

175.) A man borrowed P300,000 from a lending institution which will be paid after 10 years
at an interest rate of 12% compounded annually. If money is worth 8% per annum, how
much should he deposit to a bank monthly in order to discharge his debt 10 yrs hence?

A. P5,174.23
B. P5,162.89
C. P5,190.12
D. P5,194.23

176.) A man loans P187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He
agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at
the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments.
A. P43,600.10
B. P43,489.47
C. P43,263.91
D. P43,763.20

177.) Money borrowed today is to be paid in 6 equal payments at the end of 6 quarters. If the
interest is 12% compounded quarterly, how much was initially borrowed if quarterly
payment is P2,000.00?

A. P10,834.38
B. P10,278.12
C. P10,450.00
D. P10,672.90

178.) A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual
payments of P8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of
the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?

A. P142,999.08
B. P143,104.89
C. P142,189.67
D. P143,999.08

179.) How much must you invest today in order to withdraw P2,000 annually for 10 years if
the interest rate is 9%?

A. P12,835.32
B. P12,992.22
C. P12,562.09
D. P12,004.59

180.) How much must be deposited at 6% each year beginning on January 1, year 1, in order
to accumulate P5,000 on the date of the last deposit, January 1, year 6?

A. P728.99
B. P742.09
C. P716.81
D. P702.00

181.) A piece of machinery can be bought for P10,000 cash or for P2,000 down and
payments of P750 per year for 15 years. What is the annual interest rate for the time
payments?

A. 4.61%
B. 4.71%
182.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years to accumulate the funds required for r edemption. The firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12 th year?

A. P38,120.00
B. P37,520.34
C. P37,250.34
D. P37,002.00

183.) A house and lot can be acquired by a downpayment of P500,000 and a yearly payment
of P100,000 at the end of each year for a period of 10 years, starting at the end of 5
years from the date of purchase. If money is worth 14% compounded annually, what is
the cash price of the property?

A. P806,899.33
B. P807,100.12
C. P807,778.12
D. P808,835.92

184.) A parent on the day the child is born wishes to determine what lump sum would have to
be paid into an account bearing interest at 5% compounded annually, in order to
withdraw P20,000 each on the childs 18 th , 19 th , 20 th and 21 st birthdays. How much is
the lump sum amount?

A. P30,119.73
B. P30,941.73
C. P30,149.37
D. P30,419.73

185.) An instructor plans to retire in exactly one year and want an account that will pay him
P25,000 a year for the next 15 years. Assuming a 6% annual effective interest rate,
what is the amount he would need to deposit now? (The fund will be depleted after 15
years).

A. P242,860.22
B. P242,680.22
C. P242,608.22
D. P242,806.22

186.) A manufacturing firm wishes to give each 80 employees a holiday bonus. How much is
needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest rate compounded monthly,
so that each employee will receive a P2,000 bonus?
A. P12,615.80
B. P12,516.80
C. P12,611.80
D. P12,510.80

187.) A man purchased on monthly instalment a P100,000 worth of land. The interest rate is
12% nominal and payable in 20 years. What is the monthly amortization?

A. P1,101.08
B. P1,202.08
C. P1,303.08
D. P1,404.08

188.) A young engineer borrowed P10,000 at 12% interest and paid P2,000 per annum for the
last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his
loan?

A. P6,999.39
B. P6,292.93
C. P6,222.39
D. P6,922.93
189.) An investment of P350,000 is made today and is equivalent to payments of P200,000
each year for 3 years. What is the annual rate of return on investment for the project?

A. 32.7%
B. 33.8%
C. 33.2%
D. 33.6%

190.) Maintenance cost of an equipment is P200,000 for 2 years, P40,000 at the end of 4
years and P80,000 at the end of 8 years. Compute the semi-annual amount that will be
set aside for this equipment. Money worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P7,425.72
B. P7,329.67
C. P7,245.89
D. P7,178.89

191.) Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500 at the end of
each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The amount that
will be available in two years is:

A. P13,100.60
B. P13,589.50
C. P13,982.80
D. P13,486.70

192.) A small machine has an initial cost of P20,000, a salvage value of P2,000 and a life of
10 years. If your cost of operation per year is P3,500 and your revenues per year is
P9,000, what is the approximate rate of return (ROR) on the investment?

A. 24.2%
B. 24.8%
C. 25.1%
D. 25.4%

193.) An employee is about to receive the sum of P300.00 at the end of each year for 5 years.
One year prior to the receipt of the first sum, he decides to discount all 5 sum. If the
interest rate is 6%, what proceeds will he obtain?

A. P1,298.00
B. P1,231.09
C. P1,221.62
D. P1,263.71

194.) The president of a growing engineering firm wishes to give each of 50 employees a
holiday bonus. How much is needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal rate
compounded monthly, so that each employee will receive a P1,000.00 bonus?

A. P3,942.44
B. P3,271.22
C. P3,600.12
D. P3,080.32

195.) Mr. Robles plans a deposit of P500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual
interest, compounded monthly. What will be the amount that will be available in 2
years?

A. P13,941.44
B. P13,272.22
C. P13,486.73
D. P13,089.32

196.) Mr. Ramirez borrowed P15,000 two years ago. The terms of the loan are 10% interest
for 10 years with uniform payments. He just made his second annual payment. How
much principal does he still owe?

A. P13,841.34
B. P13,472.22
C. P13,286.63
D. P13,023.52
197.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000 ever y end of 3 months for 10 years.
However, he may choose to get a single lump sum payment at the end of 4 years. How
much is this lump sum of the cost of money is 14% compounded quarterly?

A. P3,702,939.73
B. P3,607,562.16
C. P3,799,801.23
D. P3,676,590.12

198.) A man paid 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for x years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. If the monthly instalment was P42,821.87, find the value of x?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

199.) You need P4,000 per year for four years to go to college. Your father invested P5,000
in 7% account for your education when you were born. If you withdraw P4,000 at the
end of your 17 , 18 , 19 and 20 birthday, how much will be left in the account at the th th th th
end of the 21 year? st

A. P1,666.98
B. P1,699.86
C. P1,623.89
D. P1,645.67

200.) Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back the
loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each month.
What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?

A. P839.19
B. P842.38
C. P807.16
D. P814.75

201.) A machine is under consideration for investment. The cost of the machine is
P25,000.00. Each year it operates, the machine will generate a savings of P15,000.00.
Given the effective annual interest rate of 18%, what is the discounted payback period,
in years, on the investment of the machine?

A. 3.15
B. 1.75
C. 2.15
D. 2.75

202.) A machine costs P20,000.00 today and has an estimated scrap value of P2,000.00 after
8 years. Inflation is 2% per year. The effective annual interest rate earned on money
invested is 8%. How much money needs to be set aside each year to replace the
machine with an identical model 8 years from now?

A. P3,345.77
B. P3,389.32
C. P3,489.11
D. P3,573.99

203.) Engr. Sison borrows P100,000.00 at 10% effective annual inter est. He must pay back
the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payment due on the first day of each
month. What does Engr. Sison pay each month?

A. P838.86
B. P849.12
C. P850.12
D. P840.21
204.) Instead of paying P100,000.00 in annual rent for office space at the beginning of each
year for the next 10 years, an engineering firm has decided to take out a 10-year
P1,000,000.00 loan for a new building at 6% interest. The firm will invest P100,000.00
of the rent saved and earn 18% annual inter est on that amount. What will be the
difference between the firms annual revenue and expenses?

A. P10,200.12
B. P10,205.13
C. P10,210.67
D. P10,215.56

205.) A service car whose cash price was P540,000 was bought with a downpayment of
P162,000 and monthly instalment of P10,874.29 for 5 years. What was the rate of
interest if compounded monthly?

A. 20%
B. 24%
C. 21%
D. 23%

206.) What uniform annual amount should be deposited each year in order to accumulate
P100,000.00 at the end of the 5 annual deposit if money earns 10% interest? th

A. P16,002.18
B. P15,890.12
C. P16,379.75
D. P15,980.12

207.) In five years, P18,000 will be needed to pay for a building renovation. In order to
generate this sum, a sinking fund consisting of thr ee annual payments is established
now. For tax purposes, no further payment will be made after three years. What
payments are necessary if money worth 15% per annum?

A. P3,919.52
B. P3,871.23
C. P3,781.32
D. P3,199.52

208.) Find the present value in pesos, of a perpetuity of P15,000 payable semi-annually if
money is worth 8% compounded quarterly.

A. P371,719.52
B. P371,287.13
C. P371,670.34
D. P371,802.63

209.) If P500.00 is invested at the end of each year for 6 years, at an annual interest rate of
7%, what is the total peso amount available upon the deposit of the sixth payment?

A. P3,671.71
B. P3,712.87
C. P3,450.12
D. P3,576.64

210.) How many years must you invest today in order to withdraw P1,000.00 per year for 10
years if the interest rate is 12%?

A. P5,467.12
B. P5,560.22
C. P5,650.22
D. P5,780.12

211.) A man paid a 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lit and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for 5 years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. What was the monthly instalment in pesos?

A. P42,821.87
B. P42,980.00
C. P43,102.23
D. P43,189.03
212.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000.00 every end of 3 months for x
years. However, he may choose to get a single lump sum of P3,702,939.80 at the end of
4 years. If the rate of interest was 14% compounded quarterly, what is the value of x?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

213.) If you obtain a loan of P1M at the rate of 12% compounded annually in order to build a
house, how much must you pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10
years?

A. P13,994.17
B. P14,801.12
C. P13,720.15
D. P14,078.78

214.) Rainer Wandrew borrowed P50,000.00 from Social Security System, in the form of
calamity loan, with interest at 8% compounded quarterly payable in equal quarterly
instalments for 10 years. Find the quarterly payments.

A. P1,590.83
B. P1.609.23
C. P1,778.17
D. P1,827.79

215.) For having been loyal, trustworthy and efficient, the company has offered a supervisor
a yearly gratuity pay of P20,000.00 for 10 years with the first payment to be made one
year after his retirement. The supervisor, instead, r equested that he be paid a lump sum
on the date of his retirement less interact that the company would have earned if the
gratuity is to be paid on the yearly basis. If interest is 15%, what is the equivalently
lump sum that he could get?

A. P100,357.37
B. P100,537.73
C. P100,375.37
D. P100,735.37

216.) In anticipation of a much bigger volume of business after 10 year s, a fabrication


company purchased an adjacent lot for its expansion program where it hopes to put up a
building projected to cost P4,000,000.00 when it will be constructed 10 years after, To
provide the required capital expense, it plans to put up a sinking fund for the purpose.
How much must the company deposit each year if interest to be earned is computed at
15%?
A. P194,089.17
B. P195,780.12
C. P196,801.56
D. P197,008.25

217.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20 instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. How much is his monthly th
payment?
A. P8,929.29
B. P8,225.00
C. P8,552.00
D. P8,008.20

218.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20 th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. What is the remaining balance
that he paid?

A. P186,927.24
B. P188,225.00
C. P187,701.26
D. P185,900.20
219.) A company purchased for a cash price of P500,000.00 a machine which is estimated to
have a salvage value of P50,000.00 at the end of its 10 years economic life. How much
yearly deposit must the company deposit in a sinking fund that will pay 18% interest,
compounded yearly, to accumulate the needed fund to purchase the new machine at the
end of the 10 th year economic life of the machine it purchased if a new machine will
cost 75% more by that time?

A. P34,859.78
B. P35,890.12
C. P35,074.58
D. P34,074.85

220.) A car dealer advertises the sale of a car model for a cash price of P280,000. If
purchased on instalment, the regular downpayment is 15% and balance payable in 18
equal monthly instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per month. How much will be
required monthly payments?

A. P15,185.78

221.) A machinery supplier is offering a certain machinery on a 10% downpayment and the
balance payable in equal end of the year payments without interest for 2 years. Under
this arrangement, the price is pegged to be P250,000. However, for cash purchase, the
machine would only cost P195,000. What is the equivalent interest rate that is being
charged on the 2-year payment plan if interest is compounded quarterly?

A. 18.47%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.47%
D. 19.74%

222.) A company has approved a car plan for its six senior officers in which the company
will shoulder 25% of the cost and the difference payable by each officer to a financing
company in 48 equal end of the month instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per
month. If the cost of each car is P350,000, determine the amount each officer has to pay
the financing company per month?

A. P7,523.90
B. P7,619.22
C. P7,190.00
D. P7,710.94

223.) If P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, how much annuity can a person get
annually from the bank every year for 8 years star ting 1 year after the 9 deposit is th
made. Cost of money is 14%.

A. P34,467.21
B. P34,567.81
C. P34,675.18
D. P34,867.37

224.) An employee is earning P12,000.00 a month and he can afford to purchase a car which
will require a downpayment of P10,000.00 and a monthly amortization of not more
than 30% of his monthly salary. What should be the maximum cash value of a car he
can purchase if the seller will agree to a downpayment of P10,000.00 and the balance
payable in four years at 18% per year payable on monthly basis? The first payment will
be due at the end of the first month?

A. P135,267.21
B. P135,507.42
C. P135,605.48
D. P135,807.30
225.) A new company developed a program in which the employees will be allowed to
purchase shares of stocks of the company at the end of its fifth year of operation, when
the companys thought to have gained stability already. The stock has a par value of
P100.00 per share.

Believing in the good potential of the company, an employee decided to save in a bank
the amount of P8,000.00 at the end of every year which will earn for him 9% interest,
compounded annually.

How much shares of stocks will he be able to purchase at the end of the fifth year of his
yearly deposits?

A. 476
B. 478
C. 480
D. 482

226.) Mr. Pablo Catimbang borrows P100,000 at 10% compounded annually, agreeing to
repay the loan in twenty equal annual payments. How much of the original principal is
still unpaid after he has made the tenth payment?

A. P69,890.42
B. P72,000.80
C. P72,173.90
D. P72,311.44

227.) A debt of P12,000 with an interest of 20% compounded quarterly is to be amortized by


equal semi-annual payments over the next three years, the first due in 6 months. How
much is the semi-annual payments?

A. P2,775.50
B. P2,662.89
C. P2,590.04
D. P2,409.78

228.) A fund donated by a benefactor to PICE to provide annual scholarships to deserving CE


students. The fund will grant P5,000 for each of the first five years, P8,000 for the next
five years and P10,000 each year thereafter. The scholarship will start one year after the
fund is established. If the fund earns 8% interest, what is the amount of the donation?

A. P99,490.00
B. P99,507.35
C. P99,601.71
D. P99,723.54
229.) If a low cost house and lot worth P87,000 were offered at 10% downpayment and P500
per month for 25 years, what is the effective monthly interest rate on the diminishing
balance?

A. 0.492%
B. 4.92%
C. 0.0492%
D. 49.2%

230.) The average annual cost of damages caused by floods at Dona Rosario Village located
along Butuanon river is estimated at P700,000. To build a gravity dam to protect the
area from the floods, would cost P2,500,000 and would involve an annual maintenance
cost of P20,000. With interest at 8% compounded annually, how many years will it take
for the dam to pay for itself?

A. 4.0 years
B. 4.5 years
C. 5.0 years
D. 5.5 years
231.) A businessman borrowed P10,000.00 from a bank at 12% interest, and paid P2,000.00
per annum for the first 4 years. What does he pay at the end of the fifth year in order to
pay-off the loan?

A. P6,812.54
B. P6,782.31
C. P6,917.72
D. P6,660.90

232.) Engr. Richard Flores agreed to pay the loan he is borrowing from a development bank
in six annual end-of-the-year payments of P71,477.70. Interest is 18% per annum
compounded annually and is included in the yearly amount he will be paying the bank.
How much money Engr. Flores is borrowing from the bank?

A. P250,000
B. P260,000
C. P270,000
D. P280,000

233.) Barbette wishes to purchase a 29-inch flat-screened colored TV at Gillamac Appliance


Center an amount of P20,000.00. She made a downpayment of P5,000.00 and the
balance payable in 24 equal monthly instalments. If financing charge is 12% for each
year computed on the total balance to be paid by instalment and interest rate 12%, how
much would Barbette pay every month for the colored TV? What will be the actual cost
of the money?

A. 36.71%
B. 36.21%
C. 35.89%
D. 35.23%

234.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund that earns
6% per annum. Determine the annual deposit.

A. P277,189.56
B. P278,664.54
C. P279,180.00
D. P280,673.12

235.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund. If money
is worth 6% per annum, determine the annual deposit.

A. P367,890.12
B. P366,062.33
C. P365,089.34
D. P364,890.43

236.) Because of the peso devaluation, a car costing P150,000 is to be purchased through a
finance company instead of paying cash. If the buyer is required to pay P40,000 as
downpayment and P4,000 each month for 4 years, what is the effective interest rate on
the diminishing balance?

A. 35.28%
B. 35.82%
C. 34.89%
D. 34.29%
237.) Engr. Clyde Vasquez plans to purchase a new office building costing P1,000,000. He
can raise the building by issuing 10%, 20-year bond that would pay P150,000 interest
per year and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new building, he
can least it for P140,000 per year, first payment being due one year from now. The
building has an expected life of 20 years. Ignoring effects on income tax, what is the
difference between buying the building and leasing the building?

A. P233,779.27
B. P233,070.12
C. P234,070.34
D. P234,560.12

238.) JJ Construction Firm had put up for sale of some of their heavy equipments for
construction works. There were two interested buyers submitting their respective bids
for the heavy equipments. The bids are as follows:

Buyer A offers P10,000,000 payable 20% downpayment, the balance payable


P1,000,000 annually for 8 years. Buyer B of fers P9,000,000 payable P2,000,000 down
payment, the balance payable P500,000 semi-annually for 7 years.

How much is the difference between the two bids if money is worth 10% effective?

A. P346,520.05
B. P346,980.12
C. P347,019.45
D. P347,733.29

239.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001


P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003

To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform


annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the annual deposit.

A. P217,520.05
B. P216,980.12
C. P217,679.01
D. P216,733.29

240.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001


P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003

To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform


annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the balance in the fund on January 1, 2002.

A. P2,185,902.11
B. P2,195,600.03
C. P2,165,399.54
D. P2,175,380.00

241.) J & N Pawnshop sells jewelries on either of the f ollowing arrangements:

Cash Price: Discount of 10% of the marked price


Installment: Downpayment of 20% of the marked price and the balance payable in
equal annual instalments for the next 4 years.

If you are buying a necklace with a marked price of P5,000, how much is the difference
between buying in cash and buying in instalment? Assume that money is worth 5%.

A. P40.76
B. P41.90
C. P43.54
D. P45.95
242.) Lim Bon Fing Y Hermanos Inc has offer ed for sale its two-storey building in the
commercial district of Cebu City. The building contains two stores on the ground floor
and a number of offices on the second floor.

A prospective buyer estimates that if he buys this property, he will hold it for about 10
years. He estimates that the average receipts from the rental during this period to be
P350,000.00 and the average expenses for all purpose in connection with its ownership
and operation (maintenance and r epairs, janitorial services, insurance, etc.) to be
P135,000.00. He believes that the property can be sold for a net of P2,000,000 at the
end of the 10 th year. If the rate of return on this type of investment is 7%, determine the
cash price of this property for the buyer to recover his investment with a 7% return
before income taxes.

A. P2,526,768.61
B. P2,490,156.34
C. P2,390,189.00
D. P2,230,120.56

243.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the low price strategy.

A. P34,389.12
B. P34,490.10
C. P34,518.89
D. P34,710.74

244.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the high price strategy.

A. P32,727.27
B. P33,737.34
C. P33,747.20
D. P33,757.89

245.) Jan Michael plans to purchase a new house costing P1,000,000. He can raise the
building by issuing a 10%, 20 year old bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year
and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new house, Jan Michael
has an option of leasing it for P140,000 per year, the first payment due one year from
now. The building has an expected life of 20 years. If interest charge for leasing is 12%,
which of the following is true?

A. Lease is more economical than borrow and buy.


B. Lease has same result with borrow and buy.
C. Borrow and buy is half the value than lease.
D. Borrow and buy is economical by almost a hundred thousand than lease.
246.) Engr. Harold Landicho is considering establishing his own business. An investment of
P100,000 will be required which must be recovered in 15 years. It is estimated that
sales will be P150,000 per year and that annual operating expenses will be as follows:

Materials P40,000
Labor P70,000
Overhead P10,000 + 10% of sales
Selling expenses P5,000

Engr. Landicho will give up his regular job paying P15,000 per year and devote full
time to the operation of the business. This will result in decreasing labor cost by
P10,000 per year, material cost by P7,000 per year and overhead cost by P8,000 per
year. If he expects to earn at least 20% of his capital, is investing in this business a
sound idea?

A. Yes, it is a sound idea


B. No, it is not a sound idea
C. Neither yes nor no because it simply breakeven
D. It depends on the current demand of the market.
247.) A housewife bought a brand new washing machine costing P12,000 if paid in cash.
However, she can purchase it on instalment basis to be paid within 5 years. If money is
worth 8% compounded annually, what is her yearly amortization if all payments are to
be made at the beginning of each year?

A. P2,617.65
B. P2,782.93
C. P2,890.13
D. P2,589.90

248.) A Civil Engineering student borrowed P2,000.00 to meet college expenses during his
senior year. He promised to repay the loan with interest at 4.5% in 10 equal semi-
annual instalments, the first payment to be made 3 years after the date of the loan. How
much will this payment be?

A. P252.12
B. P261.89
C. P273.90
D. P280.94

249.) A father wishes to provide P40,000 for his son on his sons 21 birthday. How much st
should he deposit every 6 months in a savings account which pays 3% compounded
semi-annually, if the first deposit was made when the son was 3 years old?

A. P829.68
B. P815.80
C. P830.12
D. P846.10

250.) A group of Filipino Mechanical Engineers formed a corporation and the opportunity to
invest P8,000,000 in either of the two situations. The first is to expand a domestic
operation. It is estimated that this investment would return a net year end cash flow of
P2,000,000 each year for 10 years and at the end of that time, the physical assets, which
would no longer be needed, could be sold at P5,000,000. The alternative opportunity
would involve building and operating a plant in a foreign country. This operation would
involve no net cash flow during the first 3 years, but it is believed that, beginning with
the end of the fourth year, an annual flow of P4,000,000 would be received, running
through the end of the 10 th year. After that time, it is believed that the operation and
facilities might be expropriated, with little, if any, compensation, being paid. Which of
the following is true?

A. Foreign operation yields bigger rate of return.


B. Domestic and foreign operations yield the same rate of return.
C. Domestic operation has double the rate of return of the foreign operation.
D. Foreign operation yields approximately 3% less rate of return than domestic
operation.
251.) A house costs P400,000 cash. A purchaser will pay P90,000 cash, P60,000 at the end of
2 years and a sequence of 6 equal annual payments starting with one at the end of 4
years, to discharge all his liabilities as to the principal and interest at 7% compounded
annually. Find the annual payment which must be made for 6 years.

A. P66,204.14
B. P65,701.67
C. P67,901.34
D. P68,900.12

252.) Two years ago, the rental for the use of equipment and facilities as paid 5 years in
advance, with option to renew the r ent for another years by payment of P15,000
annually at the start of each year for the renewal period. Now, the lessor asks the lessee
if it could be possible to prepay the rental that will be paid annually in the renewed 5
years period. If the lessee will consider the request, what would be the fair prepayment
to be made to the lessor if interest is now figured at 8 %?

A. P51,843.90
B. P51,346.58
C. P52,002.45
D. P52,740.20

253.) NCT Builders plans to construct an additional building at the end of 10 years for an
estimated cost of P5,000,000.00. To accumulate the amount, it will have equal year end
deposits in a fund earning 13%. However, at the end of the 5 year, it was decided to th
have a larger building that originally intended to an estimated cost of P8,000,000.00.
What should be the annual deposit for the last 5 years?

A. P734,391.48
B. P742,890.10
C. P738,900.45
D. P740,010.86

254.) The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Demand
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods

255.) Work-in process is classified as:

A. An asset
B. A liability
C. An expenses
D. An owners equity

256.) What is the highest position in the corporation?

A. President
B. Board of Directors
C. Chairman of the Board
D. Stockholders

257.) Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their
own interest.

A. Equitable
B. Public
C. Private
D. Pure

258.) Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Inflation
B. Depletion
C. Recession
D. Depreciation

259.) An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-
owners for profit.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Company
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

260.) We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the
principal for one year as:

A. Nominal rate
B. Rate of return
C. Exact interest rate
D. Effective rate
261.) It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Discount
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

262.) It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Book value
D. Salvage value

263.) This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of


vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Elastic demand

264.) These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if
money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

265.) These are products or services that are requir ed to support human life and activities,
that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies
considerably.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

266.) A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action
of one will lead to almost the same action of the others.

A. Oligopoly
B. Semi-monopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

267.) Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Investment
C. Subscribed capital
D. Money market
268.) The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Face value
C. Market value
D. Book value

269.) Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Discount
B. Credit
C. Interest
D. Profit

270.) Liquid assets such as cash, and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash,
such as accounts receivable and merchandise are called:

A. Total assets
B. Fixed assets
C. Current assets
D. None of the above

271.) The length of time which the property may be considered at a profit.

A. Physical life
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. All of the above

272.) The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and
labor cost.

A. Secondary cause
B. Escalatory clause

273.) The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called

A. Book value
B. Capital recovery
C. Depreciation recovery
D. Sinking fund

274.) Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a per centage of sales is called:

A. Profit margin
B. Gross margin
C. Net income
D. Rate of return

275.) Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

276.) Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern.

A. Initial investment
B. Current accounts
C. Working capital
D. Subscribed capital

277.) A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony
278.) A market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers.

A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral oligopsony

279.) A market situation where there is one seller and one buyer.
A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Bilateral monopoly
D. Bilateral monopsony

280.) A market situation where there are only two buyers with many sellers.

A. Duopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Oligopsony

281.) The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will learn.

A. Present worth factor


B. Interest rate
C. Time value of money
D. Yield

282.) Defined as the future value minus the present value.

A. Interest
B. Rate of return
C. Discount
D. Capital

283.) The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called:

A. Capital recovery
B. Cash flow
C. Economic return
D. Earning value

284.) An investment consisting of deposits of P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 are made at the end
of the 2 nd year, 3 rd year and 4 th year, respectively. If money is worth 10%, what is the
equivalent present worth of the investment?

A. P3,129.89
B. P3,319.45
C. P3,372.12
D. P3,490.09

285.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2 nd year, 3 rd year
and 4 th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How
much is in the account at the end of the 4 year? th

A. P4,880.00
B. P4,820.00
C. P4,860.00
D. P4,840.00

286.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2 year, 3 year nd rd
and 4 th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. What is
the equivalent uniform deposit for the uniform gradient only?

A. P670.81
B. P690.58
C. P660.53
D. P680.12
287.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first years,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year and P3,500 on the fourth year.
What is the equivalent present worth of the debt if interest is 5%?

A. P15,093.28
B. P15,178.34
C. P15,890.12
D. P15,389.82

288.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year.
Determine future amount of the amortization if interest is 5%.

A. P18,030.56
B. P18,290.12
C. P18,621.89
D. P18,449.37

289.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year. What is
the equivalent uniform periodic payment if interest is 5%?

A. P4,280.47
B. P4,378.17
C. P4,259.68
D. P4,325.12

290.) An NBA Basketball superstar, playing for Los Angeles Lakers is earning an average
annual salary of $5,000,000 for 10 years. Chicago Bulls ball club would like to acquire
his services as a replacement of the retired Michael Jordan, offered him an initial
annual salary of $3,000,000 but is increasing at the rate of $400,000 annually. If he can
still play in the NBA for 10 years and money is worth 10%, which one is true?

Chicago Bulls offer is smaller than that of LA Lakers A.


B. Chicago Bulls offer is exactly the same as LA Lakers
C. Chicago Bulls offer is just few dollars more per year than that of LA Lakers
D. Chicago Bulls of fer is over $150,000 per year than that of LA Lakers

291.) John Grisham, author of the best-selling novel The Chamber sold its copyright to
Warner Bros. for the rights to make it into a motion picture. Mr. Grishams has options
between the following Warner Bros. proposals:

A. An immediate lump sum payment of $5,000,000.


An initial payment of $2,500,000 plus 4% of the movies gross receipts for the next B.
5 years which is forecasted as follows:

End of year Gross receipt 4% of Gross Receipt


1 $10,000,000.00 $400,000.00
2 $8,000,000.00 $320,000.00
3 $6,000,000.00 $240,000.00
4 $4,000,000.00 $160,000.00
5 $2,000,000.00 $80,000.00

If money is worth 10% and Mr. Grisham will not receive any royalty after the fifth year
of exhibition of the movie, by how much is proposal A bigger than proposal B?

A. P1,532,630
B. P1,390,090
C. P1,478,100
D. P1,289,450
292.) Two sisters, Joan and Jocelyn decided to save money in funds that earns 14%
compounded annually but on different ways. Joan decided to save by making an end-
of-year deposit of P1,000 on the first year, P1,100 on the second year, P1,210 on the
third year and so on increasing the next years deposit by 10% of the deposit in the
preceding year until the end of the 10 th year. Jocelyn decided to save by just making an
equal deposit of P1,400 annually for 10 years. Who has more savings at the end of 10
years and by how much bigger compar ed to the other sister?

A. Jocelyn, P671.18
B. Jocelyn, P763.27
C. Joan, P671.18
D. Joan, P763.27

293.) Engr. Hermo, believing that life begins at 40, decided to retire and start enjoying life at
age 40. He wishes to have upon his retirement the sum of P5,000,000. On his 21 st
birthday, he deposited a certain amount and increased his deposit by 15% each year
until he will be 40. If the money is deposited in a super savings account which earns
15% interest compounded annually, how much was his initial deposit?

A. P17,253.18
B. P17,566.33
C. P17,672.77
D. P17,490.21

294.) A newly-acquired equipment requires an annual maintenance costs of P10,000. If the


annual maintenance cost is increased by 20% each year ever y year for 10 years, what is
the estimated present worth of the maintenance costs if money is worth 15%?

A. P105,712.33
B. P106,101.37
C. P107,490.12
D. P108,890.11

295.) The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of
obligations to financial contributors or claims of other based on profit.

A. Economic return
B. Yield
C. Earning value
D. Expected yield

296.) The payment for the use of borrowed money is called:

A. Loan
B. Maturity value
C. Interest
D. Principal

297.) The interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the
interest earned by an investment.

A. Effective rate
B. Nominal rate
C. Rate of return
D. Yield

298.) The ratio of the interest payment to the principal f or a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal.
A. Interest
B. Interest rate
C. Investment
D. All of the above

299.) The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1
year period is known as:

A. Expected return
B. Interest
C. Nominal interest
D. Effective interest
300.) The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specific
product or service in a stated region of the country.

A. Market value
B. Book value
C. Goodwill value
D. Franchise value

301.) The recorded current value of an asset is known as:

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Present worth

302.) Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as:

A. Book value
B. Salvage value
C. Replacement value
D. Future value

303.) What is sometimes called second-hand value?

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Going value

304.) An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation.

A. Book value
B. Fair value
C. Goodwill value
D. Going value

305.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years. To accumulate the funds required for redemption the firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12 year? th

A. P37,002.54
B. P37,520.34
C. P38,010.23
D. P38,782.34

306.) A local firm is establishing a sinking fund for the purpose of accumulating a sufficient
capital to retire its outstanding bonds at maturity. The bonds are redeemable in 10 years
and their maturity value is P150,000.00. How much should be deposited each year if
the fund pays interest at the rate of 3%?

A. P13,084.58
B. P13,048.85
C. P13,408.58
D. P13,480.58

307.) A P1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15- year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of
this investment?

A. 3.0%
B. 3.4%
C. 3.7%
D. 4.0%

308.) A man was offered a Land Bank certificate with a face value of P100,000 which is
bearing interest of 6% per year payable semiannually and due in 6 years. If he wants to
earn 8% semiannually, how much must he pay the certificate?

A. P90,123.09
B. P90,614.93
C. P90,590.12
D. P90,333.25
309.) A P1,000 bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 8% payable
annually is to be redeemed at par at the end of this period. It is sold at P1,030.
Determine the yield at this price.

A. 7.56%

310.) You purchase a bond at P5,100. The bond pays P200 per year. It is redeemable for
P5,050 at the end of 10 years. What is the net rate of interest on your investment?

A. 3.56%
B. 3.85%
C. 3.75%
D. 3.68%

311.) A P1,000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June
21, 2004. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.

A. P1,122.70
B. P1,144.81
C. P1,133.78
D. P1,155.06

312.) The value which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will
determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties.

A. Market value
B. Goodwill value
C. Fair value
D. Franchise value

313.) A type of annuity where the payments ar e made at the end of each payment period
starting from the first period.

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

314.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Deferred annuity
B. Delayed annuity
C. Progressive annuity
D. Simple annuity

315.) A type of annuity where the payments ar e made at the start of each period, beginning
from the first period.
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

316.) Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal.


B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

317.) A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then present worth of a perpetuity =

A. Ai
B. Ai n
C. A /i n
D. A/i
318.) A mathematical expression also known as the present value of an annuity of 1 is called

A. Load factor
B. Demand factor
C. Sinking fund factor
D. Present worth factor

319.) As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic
changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or
irregular prearranged progr am is called

A. Annuity
B. Capital recovery
C. Annuity factor
D. Amortization

320.) The reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time.

A. Scrap value
B. Depletion
C. Depreciation
D. Book value

321.) A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage
of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year which the depreciation
applies.
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. SYD method
D. Declining balance method

322.) A VOM has a selling price of P400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of
10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?

A. P222.67
B. P212.90
C. P236.20
D. P231.56

323.) A machine costs P8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P500.
What is its book value after 8 years using str aight line method?

A. P2,000.00
B. P2,100.00
C. P2,200.00
D. P2,300.00

324.) A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6 million, freight
and installation charges amounted to 4% of the purchased price. If the equipment will
be depreciated over a period of 10 years with a salvage value of 8%, determine the
depreciation cost during the 5 th year using SYD.

A. P626,269.09
B. P623,209.09
C. P625,129.09
D. P624,069.89

325.) ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage
value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD
method.

A. 7 years
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years
326.) A company purchases an asset for P10,000.00 and plans to keep it for 20 years. If the
salvage value is zero at the end of the 20 year, what is the depreciation in the third th
year? Use SYD method.

A. P857.14
B. P862.19
C. P871.11
D. P880.00

327.) An asset is purchased for P500,000.00. The salvage value in 25 years is P100,000.00.
What is the total depreciation in the first three years using straight-line method?

A. P45,000.00
B. P46,000.00
C. P47,000.00
D. P48,000.00

328.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
What is the book value after 5 years using straight line depreciation?

A. P30,000.00
B. P31,000.00
C. P30,500.00
D. P31,500.00

329.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P1,000.00. Find the book value during the first year if SYD depreciation is
used.

A. P7,545.45
B. P7,320.11
C. P7,490.00
D. P7,690.12

330.) The cost of equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000. If the salvage
value is 10% of the cost of equipment at the end of years, determine the book value at
the end of the fourth year. Use straight-line method.

A. P146,320.50
B. P146,000.00
C. P146,230.50
D. P146,023.50

331.) An asset is purchased for P20,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the first year using SYD method.

A. P1,545.45
B. P1,454.54
C. P1,344.21
D. P1,245.45

332.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
Find the book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation.

A. P31,000.00
B. P31,500.00
C. P30,000.00
D. P30,500.00

333.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000.00 and a salvage value of P10,000.00 after 10
years. What is the straight line method depreciation rate as a percentage of the initial
cost?

A. 10%
B. 8%
C. 7%
D. 9%
334.) A machine costing P45,000 is estimated to have a book value of P4,350 when retired at
the end of 6 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the
declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 32.50%
B. 32.25%
C. 32.00%
D. 32.75%

335.) An asset is purchased for P120,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years, after which it will
be sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the second year using the sum-of-
years digit method.

A. P17,578.13
B. P17,412.43
C. P17,344.67
D. P17,672.73

336.) A machine costing P720,000 is estimated to have a book value of P40,545.73 when
retired at the end of 10 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant
percentage of the declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 25%
B. 26%
C. 27%
D. 28%
337.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using straight
line method.

A. P2,400.00
B. P2,412.34
C. P2,250.00
D. P2,450.00

338.) An engineer bought an equipment for P500,000. He spent an additional amount of


P30,000 for installation and other expenses. The estimated useful life of the equipment
is 10 years. The salvage value is x% of the first cost. Using the straight line method of
depreciation, the book value at the end of 5 years will be P291,500. What is the value
of x?

A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.3
D. 0.1

339.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the annual depreciation charge?

A. P75,500.00
B. P76,000.00
C. P76,500.00
D. P77,000.00

340.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the book value of the machine at the end of six years?

A. P341,000.00
B. P343,000.00
C. P340,000.00
D. P342,000.00
341.) A unit of welding machine cost P45,000 with an estimated life of 5 years. Its salvage
value is P2,500. Find its depreciation rate by straight-line method.

A. 18.89%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.58%
342.) A tax and duty free importation of a 30 hp sandmill for paint manufacturing cost
P360,000.00. Bank charges arrastre and brokerage cost P5,000.00. Foundation and
installation costs were P25,000.00. Other incidental expenses amount to P20,000.00.
Salvage value of the mill is estimated to be P60,000 after 20 years. Find the appraisal
value of the mill using straight line depreciation at the end of 10 years.

A. P234,000.00
B. P235,000.00
C. P234,500.00
D. P235,500.00

343.) An equipment costs P10,000 with a salvage value of P500 at the end of 10 years.
Calculate the annual depreciation cost by sinking-fund method at 4% interest.

A. P791.26
B. P792.61
C. P726.17
D. P771.26

344.) A machine initially worth P50,000 depreciates in value each year by 20% of its value at
the beginning of that year. Find its book value when it is 9 years old.

A. P6,710.89
B. P6,400.89
C. P6,666.89
D. P6,512.78

345.) A consortium of international telecommunications companies contracted for the


purchase and installation of fiber optic cable linking Manila City and Cebu City at a
total cost of P960 million. This amount includes freight and installation charges
estimated at 10% of the above total contract price. If the cable shall be depreciated over
a period of 15 years with zero salvage value and money is worth 6% per annum, what is
the annual depreciation charge?

A. P41,044,903.40
B. P41,211,158.40
C. P41,254,000.40
D. P41,244,253.40

346.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-
years digit method.

A. P3,279.27
B. P3,927.27
C. P3,729.27
D. P3,792.72

347.) A radio service panel truck initially cost P560,000. Its resale value at the end of the 5 th
year of the useful life is estimated at P150,000. By means of declining balance method,
determine the depreciation char ge for the second year.

A. P99,658.41
B. P99,128.45
C. P99,290.00
D. P99,378.45

348.) Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular
year of P50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for
depletion is P18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular
year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%.

A. P9,358.41
B. P9,228.45
C. P9,250.00
D. P9,308.45
349.) The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $50,000,000. What is the depletion char ge
during the year where it produces half -million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method
in computing depletion.

A. $500,000,000
B. $510,000,000
C. $525,000,000
D. $550,000,000

350.) The first cost of a certain equipment is P324,000 and a salvage value of P50,000 at the
end of its life of 4 years. If money is worth 6% compounded annually, find the
capitalized cost.

A. P540,090.34
B. P541,033.66
C. P540,589.12
D. P541,320.99

351.) An item is purchased for P100,000. Annual cost is P18,000. Using interest rate of 8%,
what is the capitalized cost of perpetual service?

A. P310,000
B. P315,000
C. P320,000
D. P325,000

352.) A corporation uses a type of motor which costs P5,000 with 2 life years and final
salvage value of P800. How much could the corporation afford to pay for another type
of motor of the same purpose whose life is 3 years a with a final salvage value of
P1,000. Money is worth 4%.

A. P7,892.13
B. P7,157.40
C. P7,489.21
D. P7,300.12

353.) A motorcycle costs P50,000 and has an expected life of 10 years. The salvage value is
estimated to be P2,000 and annual operating cost is estimated at P1,000. What is the
appropriate rate of return on the investment if the annual revenue is P10,000?

A. 12.12%
B. 12.54%
C. 12.72%
D. 12.99%

354.) At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20 years, if
the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each 20 years.

A. P297,308,323.10
B. P298,308,323.10
C. P296,308,323.10
D. P295,308,323.10

355.) A new broiler was installed by a textile plant at a total cost of P300,000 and projected
to have a useful life of 15 years. At the end of its useful life, it is estimated to have a
salvage value of P30,000. Determine its capitalized cost if interest is 18% compounded
annually.

A. P323,500.33
B. P322,549.33
C. P332,509.33
D. P341,240.33
356.) A man planned of building a house. The cost of construction is P500,000 while annual
maintenance cost is estimated at P10,000. If the interest rate is 6%, what is the
capitalized cost of the house?

A. P666,000.00
B. P666,666.67
C. P633,333.33
D. P650,000.00

357.) An untreated electrical wooden pole that will last 10 years under a certain soil
condition, costs P1,200.00. If a treated pole will last for 20 years, what is the maximum
justifiable amount that can be paid for the treated pole, if the maximum return on
investment is 12%. Consider annual taxes and insurance amount to be 1% of the first
cost.

A. P1,612.01
B. P1,559.50
C. P1,789.23
D. P1,409.38

358.) A granite quarry purchased for P1,600,000 is expected to be exhausted at the end of 4
years. If the resale value of the land is P100,000, what annual income is required to
yield an investment rate of 12%? Use a sinking fund rate of 3%.

A. P550,540.57
B. P551,540.57
C. P552,540.57
D. P553,540.57

359.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material cost
per unit is P100, variable cost of P3.00 each. If the item has a selling price of P995,
how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to breakeven if
the monthly overhead is P461,600?

A. 782
B. 800
C. 806
D. 812

360.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P69,994. If the cost of making a
forging is P56 per unit and its selling price is P135 per for ged unit, find the number of
units to be forged to break-even.

A. 892
B. 870
C. 886
D. 862

361.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P115 each, material cost of
P76 each and variable cost of P2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P600, how
many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the
monthly overhead is P428,000.

A. 1,033
B. 1,037
C. 1,043
D. 1,053

362.) Steel drum manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed operating cost of $200,000. Each drum
manufactured cost $160 to produce and sells $200. What is the manufacturers break-
even sales volume in drums per year?

A. 5,031
B. 5,017
C. 5,043
D. 5,000
363.) XYZ Corporation manufactures bookcases that sell for P65.00 each. It costs XYZ
corporation P35,000 per year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation
charges on equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is
P50.00, how many cases must be sold each year for XYZ to avoid taking a loss?

A. 2,334
B. 2,443
C. 2,223
D. 2,322

364.) A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200
motors a month. The variable costs are P150.00 per motor. The average selling price of
the motors is P275.00. Fixed costs of the company amount to P20,000 per month which
includes taxes. Find the number of motors that must be sold each month to breakeven.

A. 160
B. 157
C. 153
D. 163

365.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine is P70,000. If the cost of making a forging is
P56 and its selling price is P125 per forged unit. Find the number of units to be forged
to breakeven.

A. 1,000
B. 1,012
C. 1,015
D. 1,018
366.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal
generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours
per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours
required of the line to meet the demand?

A. 1.0 hours per unit


B. 1.2 hours per unit
C. 1.4 hours per unit
D. 1.6 hours per unit

367.) Compute the number of blocks that an ice plant must be able to sell per month to break
even based on the following data:

Cost of electricity per block - P20.00


Tax to be paid per block - P2.00
Real Estate Tax - P3,500.00 per month
Salaries and Wages - P25,000.00 per month
Others - P12,000.00 per month
Selling price of ice - P55.00 per block

A. 1,220
B. 1,224
C. 1,228
D. 1,302

368.) JRT Industries manufactures automatic voltage regulators at a labor cost of P85.00 per
unit and material cost of P350.00 per unit. The fixed charges on the business are
P15,000 per month and the variable costs are P20.00 per unit. If the automatic voltage
regulators are sold to retailers at P580.00 each, how many units must be produced and
sold per month to breakeven?

A. 120
B. 124
C. 128
D. 130
369.) General Electric Company which manufactures electric motor has a capacity of
producing 150 motors a month. The variable costs are P4,000.00 per month, the
average selling price of the motor is P750.00 per motor. Fixed costs of the company
amount to P78,000.00 per month which includes all taxes. Determine the number of
motors to be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 100
B. 104
C. 110
D. 112
370.) A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enamelled wire or
tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection
on the enamelled wire will be P1.65, on the tinned wire, it will be P1.15. A 100-pair
cable made up with enamelled wire cost P0.55 per linear foot and those made up of
tinned wire cost P0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that
the cost of each installation would be the same.

A. 1,000 feet
B. 1,040 feet
C. 1,100 feet
D. 1,120 feet

371.) A local factory assembling calculators produces 400 units per month and sells them at
P1,800 each. Dividends are 8% on the 8,000 shares with par value of P250 each. The
fixed operating cost per month is P25,000. Other costs are P1,000 per unit. If 200 units
were produced a month, determine the profit or loss.

A. Profit of P121,666.67
B. Profit of P21,666.67
C. Loss of P121,666.67
D. Loss of P21,666.67

372.) Nike shoes manufacturer produces a pair of Air Jordan Shoes at a labor cost of P900.00
a pair and a material cost of P800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are
P5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P400.00 a pair. Royalty to Michael
Jordan is P1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P5,000 a pair, how many
pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to breakeven?

A. 2,590
B. 2,632
C. 2,712
D. 2,890

373.) In a steel fabrication shop located somewhere in Cebu, various size rivet holes must be
made in structural members. This may be done by laying out the position of the hole on
the members and using a drill press for this method, a machinist wage rate is P20.25 per
hour and he can drill 27 holes per hour. An alternative method is by the use of the
multiple punch machine. In this process, the machinist wage rate is P20.00 per hour and
he can complete 8 holes per minute. This method requires P0.50 per holes to set the
multiple punch machine and an installation cost of P2,000.00. If all other costs are the
same, for what number of rivet holes will the multiple punch machine pay f or itself?

A. 9,601
B. 9,592
C. 9,581
374.) A new civil engineer produces a certain construction material at a labor cost of P16.20
per piece, material cost of P38.50 per piece and variable cost of P7.40 per piece. The
fixed charge on the business is P100,000.00 per month. If he sells the finished product
at P95.00 each, how many pieces must be manufactured in each month to breakeven?

A. 3,045
B. 3,035
C. 3,030
D. 3,040
375.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present total profit for a year?

A. P168,000
B. P170,000
C. P172,000
D. P174,000

376.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present breakeven point in units?

A. 160,000
B. 162,000
C. 165,000
D. 170,000

377.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the current profit or loss?

A. P87,450
B. P88,960
C. P88,450
D. P87,960

378.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the breakeven point?
A. 294,560
B. 291,000
C. 290,780
D. 295,490
379.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firms annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What is the firms annual profit or loss?

A. P814,320
B. P815,230
C. P816,567
D. P817,239

380.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firms annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What volume of sales does the firm breakeven?

A. P3,354,680
B. P3,534,880
C. P3,155,690
D. P3,254,680

381.) A small shop in Bulacan fabricates threshers for palay producers in the locality. The
shop can produce each thresher at a labor cost of P1,800.00. The cost of materials for
each unit is P2,500.00. The variable costs amounts to P650.00 per unit while fixed
charges incurred per annum totals P69,000.00. If the portable threshers are sold at
P7,800.00 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold per annum to
breakeven?

A. 28
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27
382.) The direct labor cost and material cost of a certain product are P300 and P400 per unit,
respectively. Fixed charges are P100,000 per month and other variable costs are P100
per unit. If the product is sold at P1,200 per unit, how many units must be produced and
sold to breakeven?

A. 280
B. 250
C. 260
383.) The following data for year 2000 are available for Cagayan Automotive Company
which manufactures and sells a single automotive product line:

Unit selling price - P40.00


Unit variable cost - P20.00
Unit contribution margin - P20.00
Total fixed costs - P200,000.00

What is the breakeven point in units for the current year?

A. 10,000
B. 10,100
C. 10,050
D. 10,200

384.) The cost of producing a small transistor radio set consists of P230.00 for labor and
P370.00 for material. The fixed charges is operating the plant is P1,000,000.00 per
month. The variable cost is P10.00 per set. The radio set can be sold for P750.00 each.
Determine how many sets must be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 7,123
B. 7,133
C. 7,143
D. 7,153

385.) An item which can be sold for P63.00 per unit wholesale is being produced with the
following cost data:

Labor cost - P10.00 per unit


Material cost - P15.00 per unit
Fixed charges - P10,000.00
Variable cost - P8.00 per unit

What is the breakeven point sales volume if one out of ever y 10 units produced is
defective and is rejected with only full recover y on materials?

A. P25,011
B. P25,111
C. P25,121
D. P25,132

386.) A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the
estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output.

A. Straight line method


B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method
387.) Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?

A. Declining balance method


B. Sinking fund method
C. Straight line method
D. SYD method

388.) A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at


compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal
to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the assets estimated life.

A. Straight line method


B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method

389.) The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a
sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits.

A. Sinking fund factor


B. Present worth factor
C. Capacity factor
D. Demand factor

390.) The first cost of any property includes:

A. The original purchase price and freight and tr ansportation char ges
B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permits fee
D. All of the above

391.) In SYD method, the sum of years digit is calculated using which formula with n =
number of useful years of the equipment.

A.
B.
C. n(n+1)
D. n(n-1)

392.) Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the:


A. Annual cost
B. First cost + Interest of the first cost
C. First cost + Cost of perpetual maintenance
D. First cost + Salvage value

393.) The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available
(referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, etc).

A. Depreciation
B. Depletion
C. Inflation
D. Incremental cost

394.) Is the simplest form of business organization.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Enterprise
D. Corporation

395.) An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable


business.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation
396.) A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

397.) Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Enterprise

398.) Which is NOT a type of business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Corporation
C. Enterprise
D. Partnership

399.) What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7

400.) In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to
pay the liabilities.
The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership C.
D. The partners may sell stock to generate additional capital.
1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek
words meaning _________.
a. transformation of heat
b. transformation of energy
c. movement of heat
d. movement of matter

2. What is the Si unit for temperature?


a. Kelvin
b. Celsius
c. Fahrenheit
d. Rankine

3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object
because of the difference in temperature is called
a. heat
b. temperature
c. thermodynamics cycle
d. energy flow

4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a
substance changes from one phase to another.
a. specific heat
b. heat of expansion
c. latent heat
d. useful heat

5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.


a. intensive property
b. extensive property
c. volume expansion
d. thermal expansion

6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in


response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.
a. elongation
b. thermal stress
c. expansion contraction
d. thermal expansion

7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.


a. Specific Energy
b. Molecular Energy
c. Internal Energy
d. Phase Energy

8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or
removed to change the temperature of a substance.
a. Specific Heat Capacity
b. Latent Heat
c. Heat of Transformation
d. Internal Heat

9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or
solid phase.
a. Phase Pressure
b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure
c. Specific Pressure
d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure

10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.


a. pressure
b. force
c. volume
d. temperature
11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases
possible for that particular substance.
a. Phase diagram
b. P-T diagram
c. Wein Diagram
d. Histogram

12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.


a. Internal Energy
b. Grand Energy
c. Atomic Energy
d. Elemental Energy

13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1
gram of water by 1 Celsius degree.
a. specific heat
b. latent heat
c. Joule
d. calorie

14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic ener gy per molecule in a substance.
a. movement
b. temperature
c. heat
d. mass

15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.
a. internal KE
b. Atomic kinetic energy
c. Zero-Point Energy
d. Subliminal Energy

16. Convert the change of temperature from 20C to 30C to Kelvin scale.
a. 10 K
b. 293 K
c. 303 K
d. 273 K
17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the useful work obtainable 17.
from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.
a. useful work
b. energy consumed
c. Helmholtz free energy
d. Kinetic Energy

18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the
temperature varies from -15C in winter to 41C in summer?
a. 0.67 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 3.1 m
d. 0.47 m

19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of
house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the
temperature can change by 55C?
a. 0.21 m
b. 0.18 m
c. 0.31 in
d. 0.18 in

20. What is the amount of radiant ener gy received each second over each square meter that is
at right angles to the suns rays at the top of the atmosphere?
a. 1400 J
b. 6000 J
c. 10000 J
d. 800 J
21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the useful or process-initiating
work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.
a. Du-Pont Potential
b. Gibbs free energy
c. Rabz-Eccles Energy
d. Claussius Energy

22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.


a. heat
b. depleted
c. exhausted
d. work

23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the
equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.
a. vacuum pressure
b. relative humidity
c. absolute pressure
d. vapor pressure

24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no
intermediate liquid stage.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation

25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.


a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation

26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a
temperature change.
a. expand
b. contract
c. change
d. increase

27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of
linear expansion.
a. unrelated to
b. proportional to
c. twice
d. three times

28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from
4C to 0C.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above

29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.
a. no volume
b. no pressure
c. zero temperature at all scales
d. none of the above

30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the
temperature rises?
a. the relative humidity increases
b. the relative humidity decreases
c. the relative humidity remains constant
d. the air would eventually become saturated
31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.
a. placidity
b. mass flow
c. convection current
d. heat transfer

32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.


a. elastic material
b. transponder material
c. Teflon
d. blackbody

33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the
material.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Emission

34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadros number of atoms/molecules.


a. mass
b. matter
c. gram-mole
d. volume

35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.


a. velocity of propagation
b. escape velocity
c. Maxwell speed Distribution
d. terminal velocity

36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a f an, is used to produce the
fluid flow.
a. Forced Convection
b. External Convection
c. Placid Convection
d. Thermionic Convection

37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process
used to reach that state.
a. cycle
b. path function
c. point function
d. process

38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular
change in state.
a. path function
b. point function
c. process
d. cycle

39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.
a. wall
b. boundary
c. interface
d. intersection

40. A closed system is also known as _________.


a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume
41. Open system is also known as _________.
a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume

42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. 290
b. 63
c. -120
d. -256

43. When a solid melts,


a. the temperature of the substance increases.
b. the temperature of the substance decreases.
c. heat leaves the substance.
d. heat enters the substance.

44. How many kilocalories of heat are r equired to heat 750 g of water from 35 C to 55C.
a. 15
b. 1500
c. 1.5 x 10^4
d. 6.3 x 10^4

45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal ener gy an object has?
a. temperature
b. amount of material
c. type of material
d. shape of the object

46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?


a. liquids
b. gases
c. metals
d. solids other than metals

47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature.
Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched?
a. aluminium
b. brass
c. glass
d. concrete

48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume


a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. none of the above

49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its


a. pressure
b. Celsius temperature
c. Kelvin temperature
d. Fahrenheit temperature
50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled,
the volume is
a. increased fourfold
b. doubled
c. reduced by half
d. decreased by a quarter

51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the
molecules in the gas?
a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2
b. it increases by a factor of 2
c. it increases by factor of 4
d. none of the above
52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.
a. enthalpy
b. entropy
c. law of diminishing return
Lenz Law d.

53. No volume changes occur during this type of process


a. Isobaric process
b. Isomillimetric process
c. Isocaloric process
d. Isochoric process
54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________
process.
a. adiabatic
b. isochoric
c. isobaric
d. zero work

When liquid water is converted to steam at 100C, the entropy of water 55.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. none of the above

56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.


a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Isolated system
d. Isoenergetic system

57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.
a. boiling temperature
b. normal boiling point
c. triple point
d. point of infliction

58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation
temperature.
a. dry steam
b. current steam
c. wet steam
d. aerosol

59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate
receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.
a. dry steam
b. wet steam
c. phase steam
d. flash steam
60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.
a. dryness fraction
b. Vaporization
c. fusion
d. super heated steam

61. What device measures infrar ed radiation below?


a. thermocouple
b. thermopile
c. thermodynamic device
d. thermos

62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,


a. any holes in the object expand as well
b. any holes in the object remain the same
c. mass increases
d. molecular activities would cease

63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water
1 F from 63 F to 64 F.
a. one Joule
b. one calorie
c. one watt
d. one BTU

64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.


a. volume
b. power
c. heat
d. pressure

65. Thermos was invented by _________.


a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
b. Sir Fredrich the Great
c. Thomas Edison
d. Sir James Dewar

66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.


a. Isochoric
b. Isothermal
c. Isobaric
d. Isovolumic

67. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________
respectively.
a. raising the temp and lowering the temp
b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature
c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure
d. lowering the temp and raising the temp

The statement heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body is governed 68.
by _________.
a. the first law of thermodynamics
b. the second law of thermodynamics
c. the third law of thermodynamics
d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics

69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler
to a hotter body
Carnots statement a.
b. Clausius statement
c. Rankine statement
d. Gauss statement

70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another
molecule.
a. mean free path
b. path allowance
c. compacting factor
d. molecular space
71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.
a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2
b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2
c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2
d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2

72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?
a. 1 x 10^5 tons
b. 2 x 10^6 tons
c. 6 x 10^15 tons
d. 8 x 10^10 tons

73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm
long.
a. surface pressure
b. gage pressure
c. standard atmospheric pressure
d. isobaric pressure

74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at
every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.
a. Torricellis law
b. Barometric law
c. Newtons Second law
d. Pascals law

What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyles Law? 75.


a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. Gauge Pressure
c. Surface Pressure
d. Isobaric Pressure

76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.
a. 62.4 lb
b. 9.81 lb
c. 76 lb
d. 760 lb

77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.
a. force per length
b. surface tension
c. Pressure
d. Density

78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by
_________.
a. Archimedes Principle
b. Evangelistas Law
c. Torricellis Theorem
d. Bernoullis Equation

79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called
_________.
a. diffusion
b. viscosity
c. streamline flow
d. solution

80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon
centigrade and used Celsius Instead?
a. 1950
b. 1936
c. 1957
d. 1948
81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to
produce saturation.
a. relative humidity
b. triple point temperature
c. dew point
d. critical point
82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to
its initial state.
a. process
b. system
c. equilibrium
d. cycle

83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.


a. Bulk Properties
b. Innate Properties
c. Natural Properties
d. Inside Properties

84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic


process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower
pressure state.
a. Rankine Process
b. Carnot Cycle
c. Joule-Thomson process
d. Refrigeration process

85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Burnign Cycle
c. Shikki Cycle
d. Shapa R Elli Cycle

Twenty grams of ice at 0C melts to water at 0C. How much does the entropy of the 20g 86.
change in this process?
a. 30.5 J/K
b. 24.6 J/K
c. 21.3 J/K
d. 15.7 J/K
87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a. conservation of mass
b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
c. action reaction
d. conservation of energy

88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in
internal energy of the system.
a. 1400 J
b. 1700 J
c. 1900 J
d. 1500 J

89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is
heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200
kPa. Find the work done on the system.
a. 5 kJ
b. 15 kJ
c. 10 kJ
d. 12 kJ

90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180C and exhausts directly into
the air at 100C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?
a. 11.28 %
b. 36.77 %
c. 20.36 %
d. 17.66 %

91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.


a. Latent heat
b. Sensible heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat of Fusion
92. Who coined the term latent heat?
a. John Thompson
b. Studey Baker
c. Joe di Maggio
d. Joseph Black

93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?


a. Latent Heat
b. Sensible Heat
c. Specific Heat
d. Heat of Fusion

94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0
Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.
a. First Law of thermodynamics
b. Second Law of thermodynamics
c. Third Law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics

95. One calorie is equal to _________.


a. 1/180 W.h
b. 1/860 W.h
c. 1/360 W.h
d. 1/250 W.h

96. A _________ is a reversible process in which ther e is transfer of heat and takes place
according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.
a. Polytropic process
b. Entropy
c. Ideal Gas Law
d. Carnot Cycle
97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the
system remain constant with respect to time.
a. streamline flow
b. steady flow
c. constant flow
d. algebraic flow

98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is
the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Lazare Cycle
c. Isothermal Cycle
d. Carnot Cycle

99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine
the pressure at this point
a. 733.33 kPa
b. 833.33 kPa
c. 933.33 kPa
d. 633.33 kPa

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?


a. Lazare Carnot
b. Sadi Carnot
c. William Thompson
d. Rudolf Classius
1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want

A. Necessity
B. Utility
C. Luxuries
D. Discount

2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the
owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.

A. Common stock
B. Voting stock
C. Pretend stock
D. Non par value stock

3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Use value
D. Fair value

4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a
difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.
A. Loss
B. Depreciation
C. Extracted
D. Gain

5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that
one suppliers actions significantly affect prices and supply.

A. Oligopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods
substitute.

A. Monosony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.

A. Salvage value
B. Price
C. Book value
D. Scrap value

8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely


formed to increase profit and block new comers f rom the industry.

A. Cartel
B. Monopoly
C. Corporation
D. Competitors

10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monophony
C. Oligopoly
D. Perfect competition

11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Bilateral Monopoly

12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation

13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bonds

14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Interest
B. Amortization
C. Annuity
D. Bonds
15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Maker
B. Store
C. Bargain center
D. Port

16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate

A. Stock value
B. Par value
C. Interest
D. Maturity value

17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many
sellers.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Duopoly

18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in
one business market or commodity.

A. Oligopoly
B. Duopoly
C. Duopsony
D. duopoly

19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the
beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.
A. Tally
B. Par value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even

21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be
retrieved.

A. Sunk cost
B. Fixed costs
C. Depletion cost
D. Construction cost

22. An obligation with no condition attach is called

A. Personal
B. Gratuitous
C. Concealed
D. Private

23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.

A. Operation costs
B. Construction cost
C. Depletion cost
D. Production cost

24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.

A. Marginal cost
B. Marginal revenue
C. Extra profit
D. Prime cost

25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.

A. Junk value
B. Salvage value
C. Scrap value
D. Book value
26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has
been charged to depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Market value

27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all
materials that go into production is called

A. Net cost
B. Maintenance cost
C. Prime cost
D. Operating cost

28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the
future is called

A. Market value
B. Net value
C. Discount
D. Interest

29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is

A. Prime cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Differential cost
D. Sunk cost

30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or
maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.

A. Annuity
B. Bond
C. Amortization
D. Collateral
31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Counting principle
C. Stock assessment
D. Periodic material update

33. This consists of a cash and account r eceivable during the next period or any other
material which will be sold.

A. Fixed assets
B. Deferred charges
C. Current asset
D. Liability

34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by
the injured party to recover damages.

A. Fraud
B. Tort
C. Libel
D. Scam

35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time

A. Depletion
B. Capitalized cost
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

36. These are products or services that are requir ed to support human life and activities that
will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies
considerably.
A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Demands
D. Luxury

37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Utility
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods

38. It is sometimes called the second hand value

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Par value

39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Deflation
B. Depletion
C. Declination
D. Depreciation

40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.

A. Single proprietorship
B. Party
C. Corporation
D. Partnership

41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one
person.

A. Partnership
B. Proprietorship
C. Corporation
D. Joint venture

42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.

A. Dummy person
B. Minors
C. Demented persons
D. Convict

43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Satisfaction
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of


vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Monophony
C. Monopoly
D. Cartel

45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money
is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Supplies

46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Paid off capital
C. Subscribed capital
D. Investment
47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.

A. Ledger
B. Spreadsheet
C. Journal
D. Logbook

48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.

A. Life span
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. Profitable life

49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain
region.

A. Permit
B. Royalty
C. License
D. Franchise

50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Par value
C. Market value
D. Book value
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic
limit without being ruptured is called
A. ductility
B. malleability
C. elasticity
D. hardness
2. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling
together is known as
A. Friction
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion
D. Viscosity
3. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called
A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Plastic
D. Malleable
4. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another
I known as
A. Potential difference
B. Charge
C. Specific change
D. Nucleon interaction
5. The property which per mits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference
is called
A. Resistance
B. Permeance
C. Impedence
D. Conductance
6. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called
A. Thermoscopic
B. Thermotropic
C. Thermoduric
D. Thermoplastic
7. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as
A. Gummosity
B. Glutinosity
C. Viscidity
D. Viscosity
8. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed
is called
A. Elastance
B. Elasticity
C. Elastivity
D. Anelastivity

9. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as


A. Incandescence
B. Luminescence
C. Scintillation
D. Phosphorescence
10. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a
glass prism?
A. The violet color travels faster than the red color
B. The violet color travels slower than the red color
C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed
D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color
11. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or
motion is called
A. Torpidity
B. Passivity
C. Inactivity
D. Inertia
12. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric char ge is
A. Capacitance
B. Conductance
C. Permeability
D. Accumulation
13. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called
A. Isodynamic
B. Isotropic
C. Isogonic
D. Isotopic
14. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with
another object is called
A. Calidity
B. Pyxeria
C. Caloric
D. Temperature
15. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature
gradient is called
A. Thermal capacity
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal radiation
D. Thermal convection

16. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the
crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as
A. dichroism
B. dichromatism
C. diastrophism
D. chromaticity
17. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher
frequency is called
A. illuminance
B. fluorescence
C. radioluminescence
D. incandescence
18. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. ferromagnetic
19. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called
A. debility
B. rigidity
C. elastic deformation
D. fatigue
20. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having
negligible to the flow of an electric current is called
A. supercharging
B. supercooling
C. superfluidity
D. superconductivity
1. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
2. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
A. Obligum
B. Obligate
C. Obligare
D. Obligus
3. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property,
independent of contract.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
4. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of
justice may compel their performance.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
5. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience,
they are not legally demandable.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
6. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
7. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
8. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the
obligation or known as the creditor or oblige
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject

9. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or


known as the debtor or obligor
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
A. Law
B. Contracts
C. Quai-delicts
D. Work
11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
A. An act or omission
B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
D. Acts or omissions punished by law
12. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific
date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the
fulfillment of the condition.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory obligation
16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the
happening of the event.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory Condition

17. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration
of said term.
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
18. A borrowed money from B in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount as
soon as possible. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the
remedy of B is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be
paid. This illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
19. A kind of period with suspensive effect.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain
date
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
21. A period established by law.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
22. A period agreed to by the parties.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
23. A period authorized by the court.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
25. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of
the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not
compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this
illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
26. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is
sufficient, determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
27. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt,
and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
28. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the
creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
29. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
30. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
31. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this
is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity

32. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.


A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
33. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice
to be delivered by Juan on May 1 st , and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00.
Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1 st , and Pedro to pay Juan the
same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
34. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Moral
35. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Mental
36. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. All of the above
37. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.
A. Law
B. Penal clause
C. Stipulation
D. Preceding
A binds himself to deliver to B a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They 38.
agree in writing that should A fail to deliver the car on a specified date, A shall pay
B as penalty P10,000.00. A fails to make the delivery. B could demand the
payment of P10,000.00 against A. B, however could not compel A to deliver the
car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal clause:
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial

39. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can
be enforced.
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
40. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
A. By Payment or Performance
B. By the condition or remission of the debt
C. By altering the signature
D. By the loss of the thing due
41. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
42. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced
totally.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
43. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
44. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
45. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
46. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts
in their concurr ent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial
compensation
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation

47. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the
parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts.
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
48. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the
defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
49. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different
amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
50. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and
compensation extinguishes the obligations entir ely.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
51. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
A obliged himself to deliver to B a car. Subsequently, they entered into another 52.
contract whereby instead of A delivering a car, A would deliver a truck. This
illustrates:
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
53. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to
the rights of the creditor.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation

54. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or
modification of principal condition.
A. Mixed novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
55. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect
to the other to give something or to render some services.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
56. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
A. Kontrus
B. contractus
C. Tractum
D. Contractumus
57. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
A. consent of the parties
B. object or subject matter
C. cause or consideration
D. effects to the subject
58. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law
unless there is an agreement to the contrary
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
59. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such
as conditions, terms, etc.
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
60. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon
the terms of the contract.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation

61. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in
agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
62. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the
amount. This refers to what stage of the contract
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
63. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount
P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
64. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
65. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
66. A contract that has already been performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
67. A contract that has not yet performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
68. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
69. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
70. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or
gratuitous deposit.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
71. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
A, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with B whereby the 72.
latter agreed to murder C. This limitation upon the right to contract that r efers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
A entered into a contract with B whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the 73.
latter agrees to live with A without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the
right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
74. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed
and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial
bed. Pedro, however walked out of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon
the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
75. A entered into a contract with B whereby A will not enter into any enterprise
whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order

76. The following are requisites of contracts except


A. Consent
B. Object of contract
C. Cause of contract
D. Effect of contract
A classification of contr acts as to its cause where the cause is the pure liberality of the 77.
giver.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contrary
D. Liberation Contract
A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the service or benefit for 78.
which the remuneration is given.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the mutual undertaking 79.
or promise of either of the contracting parties.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
80. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to
express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has
been committed.
A. Reformation
B. Novation
C. Defect
D. Erroneous
81. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?
A. There is a valid contract;
B. The contract is in writing;
C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual
mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.
82. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons,
such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded.
A. Rescissible Contract
B. Voidable Contract
C. Unenforced Contracts
D. Void or Inexistent Contracts
83. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the
price is unjust or inadequate.
A. damage
B. effect
C. lesion
D. payment
84. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely,
consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
85. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
86. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
87. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to
another without the consent of the latter.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Contract
88. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation,
recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence
either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act.
A. Payment
B. Injury
C. Damages
D. Compensation
89. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical
expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
90. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety,
besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar
injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
91. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injur y due to a
violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be
awarded to determine the right.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
92. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
93. Damages where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by
the judgment of a competent court.
A. Liquidated Damages
B. Exemplary Damages
C. Corrective Damages
D. Compensatory Damages
94. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of
wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages
95. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants,
mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the
civilized countries of the world.
A. Law of merchants
B. Law of businessmen
C. Law of mariners
D. Law of people
1. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.
A. Thunder
B. Lightning
C. Corona
D. Aurora
2. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from
minor discomfort to serious injury.
A. Electrical Shock
B. Super Sonic
C. Acoustic Shock
D. Sonic Boom
3. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Conductance
4. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
A. 10,000 ohms
B. 100,000 ohms
C. 1,000,000 ohms
D. 100 ohms
5. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________
amperes and above passes through ones chest cavity.
A. 0.010
B. 0.11
C. 0.030
D. 0.33
6. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 45V RMS AC
B. 12V RMS AC
C. 24V RMS AC
D. 50V RMS AC
7. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 150V DC
B. 45V DC
C. 135V DC
D. 160V DC

8. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface
separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum
potential gradient shall be no greater than __________.
A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC
B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC
C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC
D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC
9. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign
potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage
to plant equipment possible.
A. Grounding
B. Shielding
C. Bonding
D. Current Limiting
10. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct
bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which
operate under abnormal voltage condition.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
11. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a
fuse in series with a circuit.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
12. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected
and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
13. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its
connection to ground electrode.
A. Ground Resistance
B. Grounde Electrode
C. Ground Path
D. Resistance Path

14. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance
must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
15. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground
resistance must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
16. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance
electrical contact with the earth.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
17. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to
protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel)
from lightning damage.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
18. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding
19. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal
operating potentials.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding

20. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Bonding or Grounding
21. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:
A. Direct Method or two terminal test
B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method
C. Triangulation Method
D. Three terminal test
22. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-
centimeter.
A. Ground resistance
B. Earth resistivity
C. Cubic resistance
D. Earth density
23. The following are ways to improve grounds except:
A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth
B. Use multiple rods
C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not f easible
D. Place stones near the rod
24. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least
__________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED
SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
25. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________
to be sure they are tight.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
26. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone

27. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
28. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
29. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees
Celsius.
A. 12.5 and 25.2
B. 15.5 and 32.2
C. 15.2 and 52.2
D. 55.5 and 60.3
30. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds
__________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the
equipment room or location where people are staying.
A. 5 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 15 kW
Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and NO 31.
SMOKING signs should be posted ___________.
A. inside the room only
B. before entering battery rooms
C. outside the room only
D. Both A and C
32. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery
rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
A. oil
B. kerosene
C. flour
D. Caustic soda
33. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground
connections or between similar parts of two circuits.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
34. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for
linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon.
A. Stairway
B. Climbing Space
C. Guy
D. Pole
35. Insulated wires, used to run a subscribers line from the terminal on the pole to the
protector at the house or building.
A. main line
B. main cable
C. dropline
D. dropwire
36. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in
a required manner.
A. damaged
B. hazard
C. fault
D. short
37. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any
abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.
A. Fault current
B. Dark current
C. Leakage current
D. Dead short
38. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured
readily when subjected to flame.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame

39. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to
burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame
40. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation,
between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage
such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.
A. Aurora
B. Corona
C. Washover
D. Arc
41. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electr ic circuit
or equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent
that serves in place of the earth.
A. short
B. jumper
C. ground
D. ink
42. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced
force on a pole or other overhead line structures.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
43. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.
A. Overhead guy
B. Anchor guy
C. Bla guy
D. Guy post
44. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole

45. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting sur ge
current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified.
A. Lightning ball
B. Lightning Arrester
C. Fuse
D. Lightning Protector
46. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more
conduit runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors,
cables and any associated apparatus.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole
47. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its
primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.
A. guy
B. support
C. conduit
D. messenger
48. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a
communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
A. zone
B. area
C. plant
D. division
49. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.
A. Lightning rod
B. Ground rod
C. Drop ground
D. Radials
50. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to
earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.
A. Lightning arrester
B. Lightning rod
C. Breaker
D. Lightning gap

51. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customers premises.
A. Service drop
Subscribers loop B.
C. Main line
D. Local drop
52. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at
that elevation.
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
53. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind
load position at that elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
54. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that
elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
55. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.
A. underneath
B. underground
C. earth mat
D. under earth
1. Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross
connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility.
A. drop wire
B. local loop
C. service entrance
D. subscribers loop
2. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a
pole to a building.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
3. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter.
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
4. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should
be ___________.
A. 20m
B. 30m
C. 40m
D. 50m
5. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power
entrance must be __________ radial distance.
A. 2m
B. 3m
C. 4m
D. 1m
6. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street
must be ___________.
A. 4.4m
B. 3.3m
C. 5.5m
D. 6.6m

7. In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must
be __________.
A. 3.5m
B. 5.5m
C. 4.5m
D. 6.1m
8. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the
need for possible subsequent repairs to the property.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
9. An underground entrances minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic
inside private property is
A. 800 mm
B. 600 mm
C. 900 mm
D. 700 mm
10. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated f rom power conduits by not
less than __________ in well-tamped earth:
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
11. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ of concrete.
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
12. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller
than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a
service box.
A. 50 mm
B. 75 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 45 mm
13. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________
pairs.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
14. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
15. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
16. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________
pairs. The minimum size for service box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
17. The minimum size for service-box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
18. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
19. The minimum number of entrance conduit is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
20. It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are
terminated.
A. drop wire
B. terminal wire
C. main terminals
D. service box
21. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and
located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish.
A. 1.3 m
B. 2.3 m
C. 1.6 m
D. 2.6 m
22. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all
terminations. Normally __________ away from all hazards.
A. 800 mm
B. 800 mm
C. 1000 mm
D. 700 mm
23. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal
blocks.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
24. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other
special services is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
25. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an
entrance is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
26. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers
is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue

27. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will
exceed 300 pairs.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
28. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines
between two or more floors or adjoining pr emises on the same floor of a building
generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
29. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no
floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless
placed in metallic conduit.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
30. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets
vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and
extending throughout the height of the building.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
1. RA 9292 is known as
A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines
2. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems
involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in
gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices,
including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other
energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals.
A. Electronics
B. Communications
C. Electricity
D. Physics
3. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters
PECE.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
4. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECE.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
5. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECT.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics Technician
6. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
7. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or
instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting
the results.
A. Computer
B. ICT
C. ATM
D. Laptop
8. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data
and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or
the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing
such data and information.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
9. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages
between two (2) or more points by r adio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and
wired or wireless medium.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
10. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written
or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible
signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or
format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other
electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
11. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other
signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or
wireless means.
A. Communications
B. Broadcasting
C. Transmission
D. Paging

12. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors wher e
electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being
used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
13. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,
condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas,
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other
building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically- controlled
machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
14. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional
capability in undertaking advisor y and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies,
design, planning, construction, supervision, management and related services, and other
technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.
A. Consulting services
B. Primary services
C. Secondary services
D. Technical services
15. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician.
A. IECEP
B. Accredited Prof essional Organization
C. PIECEP
D. Organization of PECE
16. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the
Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment.
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 3 years
17. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ year s from date of
appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be
re-appointed once for another term.
A. 7
B. 10
C. 5
D. 3
18. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination:
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
19. One shall be allowed to take one r emoval examination on the subject/s where he/she has
failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a
passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.
A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%
B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%
C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%
D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%
20. Certified experience record of active self -pr actice and/or employment either in
government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board,
indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific
responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate supervisors
for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least
___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work,
from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer
or Electronics Engineer.
A. 10 years; 3 years
B. 7 years; 2 years
C. 5 years; 2 years
D. 10 years; 2 years
21. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______.
A. 5224; 2683
B. 5447; 458
C. 5734; 109
D. 5533; 4552

22. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
A. February 2, 2004
B. March 2, 2007
C. April 17,2004
D. March 5, 2005
23. RA 9292 was approved on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. March 17, 2005
D. March 27, 2004
24. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. May 24, 2004
D. May 28, 2004
25. To qualify in the registr ation to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s
signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the
applicant is factual.
A. 1; 3
B. 1; 2
C. 3; 3
D. 2; 2
26. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No.
9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications
Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity
of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 3
D. 7
27. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start
within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7

28. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least
___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment
either in the Government or private sector.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
29. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s
from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical
capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the
Board.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
30. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for
reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to compliance with the
applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
31. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the
Philippines
B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad
C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are
temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the
Philippines
D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the
Philippines
32. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm

33. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
34. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
35. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the
words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
36. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer
37. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 electron
B. 2 electrons
C. 3 electrons
D. 4 electrons
38. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 nucleus
B. 2 nuclei
C. 3 nuclei
D. 4 nuclei
39. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with
A. grey with boundaries in black color
B. orange with boundaries in navy color
C. white with boundaries in black color
D. yellow with boundaries in black color

40. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is


A. black with white background
B. white with black background
C. black with grey background
D. white with grey background
41. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
A. orange background
B. navy blue background
C. black background
D. white background
42. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the
nucleus and electrons in __________ color.
A. Black ; red
B. White; orange
C. White; red
D. Black; orange
43. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the
outer circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
44. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner
circle measuring ___________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 35 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
45. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the
upper part of the inner circle
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer

46. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
47. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the
A. license number
the word PHILIPPINES B.
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER D.
48. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the
diametral space shall bear
A. license number
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
49. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
50. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
1. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________
of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis.
A. 30 min.
B. 60 min.
C. 45 min.
D. 75 min.
2. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes
D. All of the above
3. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding
intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
A. Newsbreak
B. Flash report
C. Newscast
D. all of the above
4. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates
A. Primary source
B. Secondary source
C. 1 st person source
D. 2 person source nd
5. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of
news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a per son who acts as a conduit.
A. primary source
B. secondary source
C. 1 st person source
D. 2 nd person source
6. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and
recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC
for the cancellation of permit to operate the station, for improper placement of
advertisement shall be given for:
A. first offense
B. third offense
C. second offense
D. fourth offense

7. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the
KBP or directly with the broadcast station.
A. Public Service Announcements
B. Private Announcements
C. Private Service Announcements
D. Public Announcements
8. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio
stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPMs every clockhour.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
9. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial
broadcasting is:
A. Advertising
B. Donation
C. Fund
D. All of the above
10. A commercial preceding the opening of the progr am is called
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
11. A commercial following the close of the program is called:
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
12. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro
Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
13. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within
Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec

14. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro
Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
15. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
within Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
16. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside
Metro Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
17. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
18. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro
Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
19. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec

20. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
22. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of
the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per
hour.
A. 20 min
B. 15 min
C. 30 min
D. 25 min
23. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards:
A. shall not be placed within the same cluster
B. can be placed in the same time cluster
C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between
D. A and B
24. The following advertisements shall not be allowed:
A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading
expressions
B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these
acts
C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and
grammar
D. All of the above
25. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province
A. Local product
B. Local account
C. Local merchandise
D. Local goods

26. The following are considered local accounts except:


A. Bowling Alleys
B. Painting shops
C. Barber shops
D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province
27. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
28. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
29. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
30. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
31. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM
32. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
33. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
34. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
35. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. all of the above
36. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon
B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM
D. All of the above
37. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
38. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
39. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
D. all of the above
40. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
41. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
42. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be
allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and supervision.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
43. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast
(aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 45 min
D. 75 min
44. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like:
A. news bulletins
B. last minute program changes
C. advisories in the public interest
D. advertisements
45. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes
per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of breakspots.
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 20
What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?

E. O. 125
R. A. 3846
R. A. 3396
R. A. 7925
Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as
Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
Telecommunications Law of the Philippines
PRC Modernization Law
Municipal Telephone Act of 2000
What is otherwise known as The Maritime Communications Law ?

R. A. 109
R. A. 3396
R. A. 3846
R. A. 7925

What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to improve the provision
of local exchange carrier service?
O. 109
R. A. 3846
O. 59
O. 546
What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the
Philippines and other purposes?\
R. A. 3846
D. O. 11
D. O. 88
D. O. 5
What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and Communications
Engineer in the designing, installation and construction, operation and maintenance of radio
stations?

R. A. 3846
R. A. 9292
R. A. 5734
D. O. 88

Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine communicateons
satellite corporation with the National Telecommunications Commission?

E. O. 109
E. O. 196
E. O. 59
E. O. 205

What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television stations and
for other purposes?

P. D. No. 223
P. D. No. 576-A
P. D. No. 567-A
P. D. No. 657-A

What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the manufacture,
acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?

MC No. 9-13-98
MC No. 8-06-88
MC No. 4-22-99
MC No. 2-05-88

What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?

E. O. 196
E. O. 463
E. O. 436
E. O. 205
What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the country?
E. O. 467
E. O. 468
E. O. 109
E. O. 59
Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of international satellite
communications in the country?

E. O. 468
E. O. 109
E. O. 205
E. O. 467

What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?

E. O. 436
E. O. 205
E. O. 250
E. O. 346

What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March 1998 providing
the national policy in the operation and use of international satellite communications in the
Philippines?

E. O. 3846
E. O. 59
E. O. 456
E. O. 467

When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?

December 21, 1993


February 24, 1993
June 21, 1993
December 12, 1993

When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 436?

September 11, 1997


September 6, 1997
September 9, 1997
September 18, 1997

When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 109?

July 12, 1993


July 15, 1993
October 10, 1993
December 12, 1993

When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?

June 30, 1987


June 21, 1987
June 12, 1987
June 1, 1987

When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?

March 1, 1995
March 21, 1995
February 20, 1995
March 7, 1995
When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?

March 1, 1995
March 15, 1995
March 17, 1995
March 21, 1995

What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)?

P. D. 223
P. D. 1986
P. D. 1987
P. D. 1988

What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?

P. D. 223
P. D. 1986
P. D. 1987
P. D. 1988

What is the new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile personal
communication having a global coverage using satellite?

NMT
GMPCS
GSM
TACS

What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?

Bureau of Communications
Department of Transportation and Communications
House of Representatives
National Telecommunications Commission

What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic Commerce
Promotion Council?

NTC
DOTC
NEDA
DTI

The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and members.

10
18
22
25

MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman & members.

5
10
20
30

MTRCB law defines an Adult as a person years of age and above.

18
19
20
21

Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?

7 PM
8 PM
9 PM
10 PM
All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one?

5 AM to 9 AM
12 NN to 2 PM
11 AM to 3 PM
4 PM to 7 PM

For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from local time.

6:00 to 11:00 PM
5:00 to 10:00 PM
4:00 to 9:00 PM
3:00 to 8:00 PM

What is the prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations?

5 AM to 7 PM
6 AM to 8 PM
7 AM to 7 PM
6 PM to 7 PM

What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?

5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8PM
4 AM to 8 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
5 AM to 9 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM
6 AM to 10 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM

What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila?

7:00 AM to 7 PM
6:00 AM to 6 PM
6:00 AM to 8 PM
7:00 AM to 8 PM

In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM r adio is from


.

6 AM to 8 PM
9 PM to 12 MN
5 AM to 6 AM and 8 PM to 9 PM
12 MN to 5 AM

According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term nighttime refers to the
period of time between UTC.

1000 to 2200
1000 to 1600
1000 to 1500
1000 to 1800

What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919 1312 AM broadcast station in Metro
Manila?

10 kW
20 kW
15 kW
5 kW

What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where effective and
direct supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is required?

5 kW
4 kW
1kW
3kW
What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila?

10 kW
25 kW
50 kW
100 kW

According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in
Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for channels 7 13?

300 kW
500 kW
1000 kW
1500 kW

In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes for one hour program.

10
15
20
25

KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of of news per day.

1 hour
45 minutes
2 hours
1 hour and 30 minutes
Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
breaks in every program hour.

8
5
6
7

Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
breaks per program hour.

5
6
7
8

Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes in one hour
program.

12
15
17
20

All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing OPM every hour.

2
4
1
3

All station must have a minimum of news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM.

50 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
45 minutes
Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of excluding
intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
1 minute
2 minutes
30 seconds
1 minute and 30 seconds

In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not exceed how many
breaks in 1 hour?

5
3
7
6

TV station is required at least newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day
during weekdays.

20 minutes
40 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes

Radio station shall allocate at least as a program or programs rendering public


service.

2 hours per day


3 hours per day
1 hour per day
1.5 hours per day

What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system?

40.25 MHz
45.75 MHz
43.75MHz
41.25 MHz

What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?

40.25 MHz
45.75 MHz
43.75MHz
41.25 MHz

Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?

ELF
UHF
VHF
HF
The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a CATV
operator shall have a maximum term of how many years?

5 years
10 years
15 years
20 years

High speed networks are ICT networks that have a capacity of at leas Mbps.

2.048
32
64
256
The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the UHF band
is MHz

1.725 to 1.79
1.275 to 1.975
1.925 to 1.975
1.575 to 1.975

In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than dB.

30
34
36
38

In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should a minimum
loss of dB.

16
18
20
22

What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting car riers for accessing the
facilities of such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting carriers for the origination
and/or termination of all types of traffic derived fr om the interconnector?

Interconnection charge
Approach charge
Access charge
Network charge

What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage to the
acquisition, servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and/or transceivers, parts
and accessories thereof?

Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit


Radio Communication Equipment Manufactur e Permit
Service Center Operation Permit
Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point

A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the Philippines
and no regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in CATV system as
.

Off-network
Cablecasting
First-Run series
First-Run No-series programs

The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly supervised by a


registered ECE. The statement above is:

True
False
It depends upon the area of coverage
It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system

Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the global
maritime distress and safety system implemented last 1999?

A facsimile
A radio personnel
A Morse code
A radio-telegraph operator
Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for every
urban local exchange lines.

5
10
15
20

Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of switch termination.

100 local exchange lines per international


200 local exchange lines per international
300 local exchange lines per international
500 local exchange lines per international

What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a Certificate of
Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued?

Franchise
B SEC document
Business Permit
Radio station license

When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under Department


Order No. 88?

FM broadcast station with a car rier power of 1000 watts


TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts
TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW
Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW

An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network operator, authorized


to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines
and to engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance services is known as
.

Local exchange carrier


International carrier
Inter-exchange carrier
National carrier

An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local
exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services
beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers is known as .
International carrier
Value-added service provider
Inter-exchange carrier
Local exchange carrier

What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress, authorizing


an entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service?

Authority to Operate
Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
Franchise
Provisional Authority

NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television system within
the same franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or Certificate of Authority
previously granted by the Commission.
Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the authorization.
New entrant has more f inancial support
Current service is grossly inadequate
Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition
Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing telecommunication law, should
an international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to provide local exchange service
in un-served and under-served areas within three years from grant of authority?

Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule


Cancellation of its authority
Given one year to comply
Given two years to comply

When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area?

When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be within the
franchise area.
When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization and upon
approval of NTC.
Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability.
Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in rate and
access, and has separated books of account.

What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or
other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired
or wireless means?

Telecommunications
Broadcasting
Mass media
Multi media

What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees,
place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages?

Telephone-telegraph calling center


Telecommunications calling station
Public toll calling station
Call center

The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local exchange
service in unserved or underserved areas within years from the grant of the authority
as required by existing regulation.

3 years
4 years
2 years
5 years

International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international gateway system
equivalent to kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates.

56.6
64
128
256

Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling frequency
for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using frequencies in the
authorized bands between 156 MHz and 174 MHz?

165.8 MHz
156.8 MHz
158.6 MHz
168.5 MHz

Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications Development Bureau
report?

RRB
WTDC
WRC
WTSC
What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the orbit/spectrum
resources?

Depending on geographical boundary of a nation


Efficient use and equitable access
Depending on national sovereignty
Equal distribution

Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?

ITU-R
ITU-D
ITU-T
RAG

Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU report?

WTSC
TDAB
WRC
Council

The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international radio


communications as .

IRCC
ITU
IRR
CCIR

What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and r ecommended practices for all civil
aviation?

ICAO
CAA
IATA
ATO
What is the executive branch of government in-charge of policy making in the
telecommunication?

National Telecommunications Commission


Telecommunications Control Bureau
Department of Transportation and Communications
Bureau of Telecommunications

What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test, malfunctions
and corrections in communication system?

File
Documentation
Reporting
Log

Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to the reserve
transmitter and receiver?

AA
Direction finder
Main transmitter
Emergency transmitter
102. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and safety system
is the:
provision of Morse code.
provision of radiotelegraph operator.
provision of facsimile.
provision of radio personnel.
103. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship under the global
maritime distress and safety system. Which one?
On board radio facilities
Radio operator telegraphy onboard
Shore base facilities
Radio personnel onboard

104. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open circuited and that
any auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?
AA
Emergency transmitter
Direction finder
Ground
105. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured or when the
ship is in electrical storm?
AA
Main transmitter
Grounded
HF

106. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications Union in its
international conf erence issues on orbital resources?
Assign frequencies and organized conferences.
Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of distribution of
the orbit/spectrum resources.
Determine principles of a spectrum distribution and assignment of frequencies.
Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots.
107. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is required to post a
performance bond of .
P 1 million
P 3 million
P 5 million
P 10 million
108. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more
telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or
enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of the
other carrier or operator?
Interconnection
Toll patching
Gateway
Outside plant sharing

109. Which law refers to the Electronic Commerce Act of 2000?


R. A. 8927
R. A. 9287
R. A. 8792
R. A. 8729
110. What is otherwise known as Electronics Engineering Law of 2004?
P. D. 223
R. A. 5734
R. A. 9292
R. A. 7925
111. What is otherwise known as PRC modernization law?
R. A. 8891
R. A. 8981
R. A. 8918
R. A. 8198
112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under .
P. D. 323
P. D. 223
P. D. 232
P. D. 223
113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223?
June 21, 1973
June 22, 1973
June 23, 1973
June 24, 1974
114. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved?
June 21, 2000
October 10, 2000
April 22, 2000
June 14, 2000
115. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo?
April 12, 2004
April 17, 2004
April 19, 2004
April 27, 2004
116. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292 approved?
August 27, 2007
August 28, 2007
August 29, 2007
August 31, 2007
117. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering consultation services?
Registered Electronic Technicians
Registered Electronic Engineers
Professional Electronic Engineers
Choices B and C above

118. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services?
Yes
No
Yes if he has more than 5 years experience
Yes if he has more than 10 years experience
119. Under R. A. 9292, the Professional Electronic Engineer shall the electronics plan
designed by a Registered Electronic Engineer?
review
sign
seal
all of the choices
120. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics
construction and installation?
Professional Electronic Engineers
Registered Electronic Engineers
Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers
Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice experience
121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on
.
current practice
current costumer price index
minimum basic daily wage
all of the above

122. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainers fee to be charged by the consulting electronics
engineer for routine or ordinary consultation will not be less than per
month.
P 1,500
P 2,000
P 2,500
P3,000
123. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in of the R. A. No. 9292.
Section 5
Section 6
Section 7
Section 8
124. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be released
within days after the examination.
5
10
15
3
125. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall give any false or
fraudulent statement to the Board to obtain a Certificate of registration and/or Professional
ID Card as Electronics Engineer?
P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
P 10,000 or imprisonment of 3 months
P 50,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year
126. The electronic designer will furnish sets of drawing specifications and other contract
documents to the client.
5
3
7
2
127. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners with less than 5 years
of active service?
P 4,000 to P 8,000
P 2,000 to P 5,000
P 5,000 to P 9,000
P 6,000 to P 10,000
128. To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and systems is under what
field of ECE practice?
Engineering consultation
Design Services
Construction and Installation
Inspection and Appraisal
129. Testing and quality control of electronic products is under what field of ECE practice?
Education Service
Research and Development
Manufacturing
Maintenance

130. If the ECE consultants present is required in another place away from his office, additional
compensation of for every hour he is away from his office or if the place
more than 50 km away fr om his office.
P 1,000.00
P 500.00
P 250.00
P 100.00
131. For professional services rendered by the electronics engineer as consultant for project with
definite duration, the minimum recommended hourly rate is for salaried ECEs.
0.01 of basic monthly salary scale
0.02 of basic monthly salary scale
0.03 of basic monthly salary scale
0.04 of basic monthly salary scale
132. Aside from compensation, the client will pay for the cost of at least business class
transportation and accommodation if the meetings are conducted in a place more than
km away from the established office of electronic engineer consultant.
30
40
50
100
133. For court appearance electronics engineer must charge a minimum fee to the client of not
less than per hour per appearance regardless whether the hearing is postponed or not.
P 500.00
P 250.00
P 1,000.00
P 100.00
134. For conference, electronics engineer must not charge fee to the client more than
per hour per attendance r egardless whether the meeting is postponed or not.
P 500.00
P 250.00
P 1,000.00
P 750.00
135. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers except:
Constant Percentage Method
Percent of Cost Method
Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
Percent of Total Project Cost

136. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications, etc, which does not
involve a whole project, what method is used for computing the professional fee?
Unit Cost Method
Constant Percentage Method
Per Lot Method
Per Project Method
137. What method of computing fees is where the electronic facilities are divided into
classifications which have corresponding unit design rate?
Percent of Cost Method
Unit Cost Method
Per Lot Method
Per Project Method
138. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with 5 to 10 years of
active service?
P 6,000 to P 20,000
P 5,000 to P 8,000
P 8,000 to P 12,000
P 10,000 to P 15,000
139. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with more than 10
years of active service?
P 15,000 up
P 12,000 up
P 8,000 up
P 10,000 up
140. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics engineers, the minimum rate
of retainers fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer is .
P 1,500 per month
P 1,000 per month
P 2,000 per month
P 2,500 per month
141. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; to erect or to
form and/or to set or establish electronics equipment, systems or facilities?
Construction and/or installation
Investigation
Appraisal
Acceptance
142. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic equipment and/or
related components, parts, devices and accessories?
Quality control
Manufacturing
Development
System design
143. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a scheme, system and
facility using the arts and science of electronics along with social, economic, financial and
technical consideration?
Construction service
Consultation service
Organizing service
Design service
144. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of electronics
engineering and its related fields in line with current internationally accepted standards and
practices?
Consultancy design
Professional consultation
Engineering consultation
Consultancy service

145. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in
the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
P 100,000
P 500,000
P 100,000
P 50,000
146. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in
the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
6 months imprisonment
12 months imprisonment
2 months imprisonment
3 months imprisonment

147. A secret code which secures and def ends sensitive information that crosses over public
channels into a form decipherable only with a matching electronic key is referred to as
password
username
encrypted code
electronic key
148. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission?
5 years
3 years
6 years
7 years
149. Which one is NOT the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine Electronic
Codes?
Voltage/current limiting and interrupting
Undergrounding
Grounding and bonding
Shielding
150. What unit measures the dosage ratio of radiation?
roentgens per minute
milliroentgens per hour (mr per hour)
rebs per hour
per minute

151. What unit expresses the amount of radiation actually absorbed in the tissue?
rad
rbe
rem
reb
152. What refers to radiation other than X-rays which will cause an absorption equal to 1
roentgen?
rbe
reb
rem
rep
153. What refers t the different sources of radiation have different effects which are related to X-
rays by a number?
rbe
rems
rebs
all of the above
154. Which of the following determines the total dose of radiation?
The total dose is determined by multiplying the dosage rate by the number of hours of
exposure.
The total dose is determined by adding the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
The total dose is determined by dividing the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
The total dose is determined by subtracting the dosage rate by the number of hours of
exposure.
155. According to safety standards, what is the maximum allowable radiation from an electronic
equipment?
Must not exceed 100 mr per week
Must not exceed 10 mr per week
Must not exceed 1000 mr per day
Must not exceed 100 mr per day
156. What unit expresses the rbe dose?
rems (roentgen equivalent man)
rebs (roentgen equivalent biological)
Both A & B
Only A
157. What formula gives the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) in rems to the
whole body, with N = persons age?
MPD = 5 (N 18)
MPD = 3 (N 15)
MPD = 7 (N 18)
MPD = 5 (N 15)
158. What is the rbe of alpha particles and fast neutrons?
10
5
15
7

159. What is the rbe of any radiation produced by a radio transmitter?


2
1
4
3
160. What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of r adiation that can cause genetic
and somatic effects?
roentgens
rems
rbes
rebs
161. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when as underground service
entrance will be used as the most feasible and economical way?
Expense of telephone company
Expense of subscriber
Length of a bale to be used by subscriber
Decision of depth of conduit at interconnection point
162. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any electrical
installation should not exceed volts RMS.
10
45
0
30

163. Which of the following is the lowest resistance grounding on earth?


Sand
Clay
Surface loam soil
Limestone
164. Which part of housing of a building cable system has the same function as the slot but
circular in shape?
Fitting
Sleeve
Insert
Header
165. What refers to a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to ser ve a portion or an
entire floor of a building?
Floor terminal distribution area
Raceway terminal
Floor distribution terminal
Riser terminal
166. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the floor
structure to allow the passage of a cable and wire?
Insert
Sleeve
Raceway
Slot
167. In cable facilities for a building communications service, is referred to as a
physical cable within a building or series of buildings which may include both main cable
pairs and house cable pairs but not wiring cable.
entrance cable
floor distribution cable
house cable
building cable
168. A telephone companys cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to the main
cross-connecting a point within the building is called .
Telephone cable
Entrance cable
Connecting cable
Building cable
169. It is a non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between enclosed type metallic
terminal cabinets or boxes.
Raceway
Riser shaft
Riser conduit
Entrance cable
170. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft
of the building is called .
Service fitting
Raceway
Riser conduit
Riser shaft

171. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two story
residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE building code?
Two lines
Five lines
Three lines
Not required
172. What is the device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away from the
equipment thus protected?
Alpeth
Anchor
Alarm
Arrester
173. What is one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited transmitter
oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant oscillation?
Poor soldered connections.
Heating of capacitor in the oscillator.
DC and RF ac heating of the resistors which cause change in values.
Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics.

174. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?
Honesty
Justice
Integrity
Courtesy
175. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods or services?
Consideration
Partnership
Contract
Obligation
176. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that ar e morally desir able in

engineering practice and research?


Engineering ethics
Engineering management
Engineering system
Engineering integrity

177. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be endorsed by those engaged
in engineering, and also of desirable ideals and personal commitments in engineering?
Ethics
Code of ethics
Engineering ethics
Engineering standards
178. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which the
application of moral values is problematic?
Silo mentality
Preventive ethics
Ethical issues
Moral dilemmas
179. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and as
represented by a professional society?
Preventive ethics
Work ethics
Code of ethics
Professional code
180. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation, concerning the value of
work?
Preventive ethics
Work ethics
Code of ethics
Professional code

181. Ethics is synonymous to .


morality
money
standards
conduct
182. A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons?
Death of a party to the contract
Failure of consideration
Mutual agreement of the parties to the contract
All of the above
183. Some contracts may be dissolved by which valid reason?
Court order
Passage of new laws
Declaration of war
All of the above
184. What is the major advantage of a standard contract?
The meanings of the clauses were established.
The clauses of this contract are to be litigated.
The clauses of this contract are rarely ambiguous.
All of the above
185. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors is known as
contractor.
real
original
prime
legitimate
186. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to be binding?
There must be a clear, specific and definite off er.
There must be some form of conditional future consideration.
There must be an acceptance of the offer.
All of the above
187. What contract document is part of the constr uctive contracts?
Agreement form
General condition
Drawings and specifications
All of the above
188. What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the contract is
made?
A representation
An offer
A proposal
A consideration
189. What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the
contract?
Warranty
Condition
Injuction
Innominate terms

190. What type of damages is awarded, usually for fraud cases, to punish and make an example
of the def endant to deter other from doing the same thing?
Punitive damages
Nominal damages
Liquidated damages
Consequential damages
191. What is another term for punitive damages?
Liquidated damages
Exemplary damages
Compensatory damages
Nominal damages
192. What is defined as a non-performance that results in the injured party receiving something
substantially less than or different from what the contract is intended?
Willful breach
Material breach
Unintentional breach
Intentional breach
193. What refers to the condition that in a contract between two parties, only the parties to a
contract may sue under it and that any third party names in that contract or who benefit from
that contract cannot sue or be sued under that contract?
Doctrine of contract
Party policy of contract
Equity of contract
Privity of contract
194. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his
property, emotional well-being, or reputation?
Consequential damage
Fraud
Punitive damage
Tort
195. The tort law is concerned with .
imprisonment
fine
compensation for the injury
punishment
196. What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an individual in
ceremonies?
Canon
Code
Creed
Rule
197. A canon is defined as:
a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
198. A rule is defined as:
a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
199. A code is defined as:
a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.

200. What refers to the rendition of service by a dully licensed professional by virtue of his
technical education, training, experience and competence?
Professional practice
Professional service
Legal practice and service
Professional consultation

The term thermodynamics comes from Greek words therme and dynamis which means
_______.

Heat power
Heat transfer
Heat energy
Heat motion

The term thermodynamics was first used in 1849 in the publication of a

Rudolph Clausius
William Rankine
Lord Kelvin
Thomas Savery

What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property?

First law of Thermodynamics


Second law of Thermodynamics
Third law of Thermodynamics
Zeroth law of Thermodynamics

What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity?

First law of Thermodynamics


Second law of Thermodynamics
Third law of Thermodynamics
Zeroth law of Thermodynamics

The macroscopic approach to the study of thermodynamics does not require a knowledge of the
behavior of individual particles is called _____.

Dynamic thermodynamics
Static thermodynamics
Statistical thermodynamics
Classical thermodynamics

What is the more elaborate approach to the study of thermodynamics and based on the average
behavior of large groups of individual particles?

Dynamic thermodynamics
Static thermodynamics
Statistical thermodynamics
Classical thermodynamics
What is defined a region in space chosen for study?

Surroundings
System
Boundary
Volume

The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

Conservation of mass
Conservation of energy
Action and reaction
The entropy-temperature relationship

What is the mass or region outside the system called?

Surroundings
Boundary
Volume
Environment

What is the real or imaginary surface that separates the system from its surroundings?

Division
Wall
Boundary
Interface

A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its boundary called
_____.

Equilibrium system
Thermal equilibrium system
Open system
Closed system

A system in which even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called ____.

Closed system
Exclusive system
Isolated system
Special system

A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as _____.

Equilibrium system
Isolated system
Open system
Closed system

Open system usually encloses which of the following devices?

Compressor
Turbine
Nozzle
All of the above

The boundaries of a control volume, which may either real or imaginar y is called _____.

Control boundary
Control system
Interface
Control surface

Any characteristic of a thermodynamics system is called a _____.

Property
Process
Phase
Cycle
How are thermodynamic properties classified?

Physical and chemical


Intensive and extensive
Real and imaginary
Homogeneous and heterogeneous

The thermodynamic properties that are independent on the size of the system is called _____.

Extensive property
Intensive property
Open property
Closed property

The thermodynamic properties that are dependent on the size or extent of the system is called
_____.

Extensive property
Intensive property
Open property
Closed property

Which is NOT an intensive property of thermodynamics?

Temperature
Mass
Pressure
Density

Which is NOT an extensive property of thermodynamics?

Density
Mass
Volume
Energy

Extensive properties per unit mass are called _____.

Specific properties
Relative properties
Unit properties
Phase properties

A system is in ______ equilibrium if the temperature is the same throughout the entire system.
Static
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase

A system is in ______ equilibrium if there is no change in pressure at any point of the system
with time.

Pressure
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase

If a system involves two phases, it is in ______ equilibrium when the mass of each phase reaches
an equilibrium level and stays there.

Chemical
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase
A system is in ______ equilibrium of its chemical composition does not change with time, i.e.,
no chemical reaction occurs.

Chemical
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase

The state of a simple compressible system is completely specified by two independent,


intensive properties. This is known as ______.

Equilibrium postulate
State postulate
Environment postulate
Compressible system postulate

What is the unit of the total energy of the system?


Kj
Kj/Kg
Kg
g

Without electrical, mechanical, gravitational, surface tension and motion effects, a system is
called _____ system.

Simple
Simple compressible
Compressible
Independent

What refers to any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another
equilibrium state?

Process
Path
Phase
Cycle

What refers to the series of state through which a system passes during a process?

Path
Phase
Cycle
Direction

How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure
gaseous compound?

4
3
2
1

What is a process in which the system remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium state at all
times?

Path equilibrium process


Cycle equilibrium process
Phase equilibrium process
Quasi-state or quasi- equilibrium process

A closed system may refer to ______.

Control mass
Control volume
Control energy
Control temperature
An open system may refer to ______.

Control mass
Control volume
Control energy
Control temperature

A system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if it maintains ______ equilibrium.

Mechanical and phase


Thermal and chemical
Thermal, mechanical and chemical
Thermal, phase, mechanical and chemical

What is a process with identical end states called?

Cycle
Path
Phase
Either path or phase

What is a process during which the temperature remains constant?

Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Isochoric process
Isometric process

What is a process during which the pressure remains constant?

Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Isochoric process
Isometric process

What is a process during which the specific volume remains constant?

Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Isochoric or isometric process
Isovolumetric process

The prefix iso used to designate a process means ______.


Cannot be interchanged
Remains constant
Approximately equal
Slight difference
What does the term steady implies?

No change with volume


No change with time
No change with location
No change with mass

What does the tem uniform implies?

No change with volume


No change with time
No change with location
No change with mass

What is defined as a process during which a fluid flows through a control volume steadily?

Transient-flow process
Steady and uniform process
Uniform-flow process
Steady-flow process
The sum of all the microscopic form of energy is called _____.

Total energy
Internal energy
System energy
Phase energy

What type of system energy is related to the molecular structure of a system?

Macroscopic form of energy


Microscopic form of energy
Internal energy
External energy

What form of energy refers to those a system possesses as a whole with respect to some outside
reference fr ame, such as potential and kinetic energies?

Macroscopic form of energy


Microscopic form of energy
Internal energy
External energy

Who coined the word energy in 1807?

William Rankine
Rudolph Clausius
Lord Kelvin
Thomas Young

The molecules of a gas moving through space with some velocity possesses what kind of
energy?

Translational energy
Spin energy
Rotational kinetic energy
Sensible energy

The electrons in an atom which rotate about the nucleus possess what kind of energy?

Translational energy
Spin energy
Rotational kinetic energy
Sensible energy

The electrons which spins about its axis will possess what kind of energy?

Translational energy
Spin energy
Rotational kinetic energy
Sensible energy

What refers to the portion of the internal energy of a system associated with the kinetic energies
of the molecules?

Translational energy
Spin energy
Rotational kinetic energy
Sensible energy

What is the internal energy associated with the phase of a system called?

Chemical energy
Latent energy
Phase energy
Thermal energy
What is the internal energy associated with the atomic bonds in a molecule called?

Chemical energy
Latent energy
Phase energy
State energy

What is the extremely large amount of energy associated with the strong bonds within the
nucleus of the atom itself called?

Chemical energy
Latent energy
Phase energy
Nuclear energy

What are the only two forms of energy interactions associated with a closed system?

Kinetic energy and heat


Heat transfer and work
Thermal energy and chemical ener gy
Latent energy and thermal energy

What states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in
equilibrium with each other?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics


First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics in 1931?

A. Celsuis
A. Einstein
R.H. Fowler
G. Fahrenheit

What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system?

Kelvin scale
Celsius scale
Fahrenheit scale
Rankine scale

What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the English system?

Kelvin scale
Celsius scale
Fahrenheit scale
Rankine scale

What temperature scale is identical to the Kelvin scale?

Ideal gas temperature scale


Ideal temperature scale
Absolute gas temperature scale
Triple point temperature scale

The temperatures of the ideal gas temperature scale are measured by using a ______.

Constant-volume gas thermometer


Constant-mass gas thermometer
Constant-temperature gas thermometer
Constant-pressure gas thermometer
What refers to the strong repulsion between the positively charged nuclei which makes fusion
reaction difficult to attain?

Atomic repulsion
Nuclear repulsion
Coulomb repulsion
Charge repulsion

What gas thermometer is based on the principle that at low pressure, the temperature of a gas is
proportional to its pressure at constant volume?

Constant-pressure gas thermometer


Isobaric gas thermometer
Isometric gas thermometer
Constant-volume gas thermometer

What is the state at which all three phases of water coexist in equilibrium?

Tripoint of water
Triple point of water
Triple phase point of water
Phase point of water

What is defined as the force per unit area?

Pressure
Energy
Work
Power

The unit pascal is equivalent to ______.

N/m^2
N/m
N-m
N-m^2

Which of the following is NOT a value of the standard atmospheric pressure?

1 bar
1 atm
1 kgf/cm^2
14.223 psi

What is the SI unit of pressure?

Atm
Bar
Pa
Psi

1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?

10^3
10^4
10^5
10^6

1 atm is equivalent to how many pascals?

101,325
101,689
101,102
101,812
What is considered as the actual pressure at a given position and is measured relative to absolute
vacuum?

Gage pressure
Absolute pressure
Atmospheric pressure
Vacuum pressure

What is the pressure below atmospheric pr essure called?

Gage pressure
Absolute pressure
Atmospheric pressure
Vacuum pressure

The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmospheric pressure is called the _____
pressure.

Gage
Normal
Standard
Vacuum

Which of the following is NOT an instrument used to measure pressure?

Bourdon tube
Pitot tube
Aneroid
Manometer

What instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

Pitot tube
Wind vane
Barometer
Manometer

Another unit used to measure atmospheric pressure is the torr. This is named after the Italian
physicist, Evangelista Torrecelli. An average atmospheric pressure is how many torr?

740
750
760
770

What states that for a confined fluid, the pressure at a point has the same magnitude in all
directions?

Avogadros Law
Amagat Law
Pascals Law
Bernoullis Theorem

What pressure measuring device consists of a coiled hollow tube that tends to straighten out
when the tube is subjected to an internal pressur e?

Aneroid
Manometer
Bourdon pressure gage
Barometer
What is an energy that can be transferred from one object to another causing a change in
temperature of each object?

Power
Heat transfer
Heat
Work

What is the SI unit of energy?

Newton
Btu
Calorie
Joule

One joule is equivalent to one _____.

Kg m/ s^2
Kg m^2/s^2
Kg m^2/s
Kg m/s

One calorie is equivalent to how many joules?

4.448
4.184
4.418
4.814

One erg is equivalent to how many joules?

10^-8
10^-7
10^-6
10^-5

The first law of thermodynamics is the:


Law of conservation of momentum
Law of conservation of mass
Law of conservation of power
Law of conservation of energy

What is the study of energy and its transformations?

Thermostatics
Thermophysics
Thermochemistry
Thermodynamics

What is considered as the heat content of a system?


Enthalpy
Entropy
Internal heat
Molar heat
What refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of an object by one degree
Celsius or 1K?

Heat capacity
Specific heat
Latent heat
Molar heat

What is the heat capacity of one mole of substance?

Molecular heat
Specific heat
Latent heat
Molar heat
What is the heat capacity of one gram of a substance?

Molecular heat
Specific heat
Latent heat
Molar heat

The enthalpy change for any chemical reaction is independent of the intermediate stages,
provided the initial and final conditions are the same for each route. This statement is
known as:

Dulongs Law
Daltons Law
Hesss Law
Petit Law

What refers to the measure of the disorder present in a given substance or system?

Enthalpy
Entropy
Heat capacity
Molar heat

Entropy is measured in ______.

Joule/Kelvin
Joule-Meter/Kelvin
Meter/Kelvin
Newton/Kelvin

What is the energy absorbed during chemical reaction under constant volume conditions?

Entropy
Ion exchange
Enthalpy
Enthalpy of reaction

When water exists in the liquid phase and is not about to vaporize, it is considered as
_____liquid.

Saturated
Compressed o subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated

A liquid that is about to vaporize is called ______ liquid.

Saturated
Compressed or subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated

A vapor that is about to condense is called ______ vapor.

Saturated
Compressed or subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated

A vapor that is not about to condense is called _____ vapor.

Saturated
Compressed or subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated
A substance that has a fixed chemical composition is known as ______ substance.

Monoatomic
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Pure

What refers to the temperature at which a pure substance changes phase at a given pressure?

Equilibrium temperature
Saturation temperature
Superheated temperature
Subcooled temperature

What refers to the pressure at which a pure substance changes phase at a given temperature?

Equilibrium pressure
Saturation pressure
Superheated pressure
Subcooled pressure

What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1 kg of the substance at its melting point from the
solid to liquid state?

Heat of fusion
Heat of vaporation
Heat of condensation
Heat of fission

What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1kg of the substance at its boiling point from the
liquid to the gaseous state?

Heat of fusion
Heat of vaporation
Heat of condensation
Heat of fission

What refers to the amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase-change process?

Molar heat
Latent heat
Vaporization heat
Condensation heat

What is the latent heat of fusion of water at 1 atm?

331.1 kJ/kg
332.6 kJ/kg
333.7 kJ/kg
330.7 kJ/kg

What is the latent heat of vaporization of water at 1 atm?

2314.8 kJ/kg
2257.1 kJ/kg
2511.7 kJ/kg
2429.8 kJ/kg

What refers to the point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are the same or
identical?

Triple point
Inflection point
Maximum point
Critical point
What is defined as the direct conversion of a substance from the solid to the vapor state or vice
versa without passing the liquid state?

Condensation
Vaporization
Sublimation
Cryogenation

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water through 1 C is called
______.

Calorie
Joule
BTU
Kilocalorie

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1F is called
______.

Calorie
Joule
BTU
Kilocalorie

1 British thermal unit (BTU) is equivalent to how many joules?

1016
1043
1023
1054

The term enthalpy comes from Greek enthalpen which means ______.

Warm
Hot
Heat
Cold

The ratio of the mass of vapor to the total mass of the mixture is called ______.

Vapor ratio
Vapor content
Vapor index
Quality

The equation of state refers to any equation that relates the ______ of the substance.

Pressure and temperature


Pressure, temperature and specific weight
Temperature and specific weight
Pressure, temperature and specific volume

In the equation Pv = RT, the constant of proportionality R is known as ______.

Universal gas constant


Gas constant
Ideal gas factor
Gas index
The gas constant of a certain gas is the ratio of:

Universal gas constant to molar mass


Universal gas constant to atomic weight
Universal gas constant to atomic number
Universal gas constant to number of moles

What is the value of the universal gas constant in kJ/kmol K?

10.73
1.986
8.314
1545

The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is known as ______.


Molar weight
Molar mass
Molar volume
Molar constant
What is defined as the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by
one degree?

Latent heat of fusion


Molar heat
Specific heat capacity
Specific heat

The ______ of a substance is the amount of heat that must be added or removed from a unit mass
of the substance to change its temperature by one degree.

Latent heat of fusion


Molar heat
Specific heat capacity
Specific heat

What is the specific heat capacity of water in J/kg C?

4581
4185
4518
4815

What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity?

J/kg
J/kg F
J/kg C
J/C

What is constant for a substance that is considered incompressible?

Specific volume of density


Pressure
Temperature
All of the above

If there is no heat transferred during the process, it is called a ______ process.

Static
Isobaric
Polytropic
Adiabatic

The term adiabatic comes from Greek adiabatos which means ______.

No heat
No transfer
Not to be passed
No transformation
How is heat transferred?

By conduction
By convection
By radiation
All of the above

What refers to the transfer of ener gy due to the emission of electromagnetic waves or photons?

Conduction

Convection
Radiation
Electrification

What refers to the transfer of ener gy between a solid surface and the adjacent fluid that is in
motion?

Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Electrification

What refers to the transfer of ener gy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the
adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interaction between particles?

Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Electrification

What states that the net mass transfer to or from a system during a process is equal to the net
change in the total mass of the system during that process?

Third law of thermodynamics


Conservation of energy principle
Second law of thermodynamic
Conservation of mass principle

Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas?

PV = nRT
An increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas
The total volume of molecules on a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as a
whole
No attractive forces exists between the molecule of a gas

How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?

Adiabatic heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic heat transfer is zero
Both heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible
Adiabatic heat transfer = 0; isentropic: heat transfer is not equal to zero
Both heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic: irreversible

Which of the following is the Ideal gas law (equation)?

V/T = K
V= k*(1/P)
P1/T1 = P2/T2
PV = nRT

What is a measure of the ability of a material to conduct heat?

Specific heat capacity


Coefficient of thermal expansion
Coefficient of thermal conductivity
Thermal conductivity
What refers to the heating of the earths atmosphere not caused by direct sunlight but by infrared
light radiated by the surface and absorbed mainly by atmospheric carbon dioxide?

Greenhouse effect
Global warming
Thermal rise effect
Ozone effect

What is a form of mechanical work which is related with the expansion and compression of
substances?

Boundary work
Thermodynamic work
Phase work
System work

Thermal radiation is an electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths in _____ range.

1 to 100m
0.1 to 100m
0.1 to 10m
10 to 100m

What refers to the rate of thermal radiation emitter per unit area of a body?

Thermal conductivity
Absorptivity
Emissivity
Emissive power

What states that for any two bodies in thermal equilibrium, the ratios of emissive power to the
absorptivity are equal?

Kirchhoffs radiation law


Newtons law of cooling
Stefan-Boltzmann law
Hesss law

What is considered as a perfect absorber as well as a perfect emitter?

Gray body
Black body
Real body
White body

What is a body that emits a constant emissivity regardless of the wavelength?

Gray body
Black body
Real body
White body

At same temperatures, the radiation emitted by all real surf aces is ______ the radiation emitted
by a black body.

Less than
Greater than
Equal to
Either less than or greater than

Which is NOT a characteristic of emissivity?

It is high with most nonmetals


It is directly proportional to temperature
It is independent with the surface condition of the material
It is low with highly polished metals
What is the emissivity of a black body?

0
1
0.5
0.25

What is the absorptivity of a black body?

0
1
0.5
0.25

What is sometimes known as the Fourth-power law?

Kirchhoffs radiation law


Newtons law of cooling
Stefan-Boltzmann law
Hesss law

What states that the net change in the total energy of the system during a process is equal to the
difference between the total energy entering and the total energy leaving the system during
that process?

Third law of thermodynamics


Conservation of energy principle
Second law of thermodynamics
Conservation of mass principle

The equation E E = E is known as ______.


in out system

Energy conservation
Energy equation
Energy balance
Energy conversion equation

What remains constant during a steady-flow process?

Mass
Energy content of the control volume
Temperature
Mass and energy content of the control volume

Thermal efficiency is the ratio of:

Net work input to total heat input


Net work output to total heat output
Net work output to total heat input
Net work input to total heat output

What law states that it is impossible to operate an engine operating in a cycle that will have no
other effect than to extract heat from a reservoir and turn it into an equivalent amount of
work?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics


First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that no heat engine can have a
thermal efficiency of 100 percent?

Kelvin-Planck statement
Clausius statement
Kevin statement
Rankine statement
What is the ratio of the useful heat extracted to heating value?

Combustion efficiency
Phase efficiency
Heat efficiency
Work efficiency

What is defined as the ratio of the net electrical power output to the rate of fuel energy input?

Combustion efficiency
Thermal efficiency
Overall efficiency
Furnace efficiency

What refers to the amount of heat removed from the cooled space in BTSs for 1 watt -hour of
electricity consumed?

Cost efficiency rating


Energy efficiency rating
Coefficient of performance
Cost of performance

What law states that it is impossible to build a device that oper ates in a cycle and produces no
effect other than the tr ansfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-temperatur e
body?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics


First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

What statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that it is impossible to build a device
that operates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a lower -
temperature body to a higher-temperature body?

Kelvin-Planck statement
Clausius statement
Kelvin statement
Rankine statement

A device that violates either the first law of thermodynamics or the second law of
thermodynamics is known as _____.
Ambiguous machine
Universal machine
Perpetual-motion machine
Unique machine
A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a _____.

Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind


Universal machine of the first kind
Ambiguous machine of the first kind
Unique machine of the first kind

A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a ______.

Perpetual motion machine of the second kind


Universal machine of the second kind
Ambiguous machine of the second kind
Unique machine of the second kind

Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was first proposed in what year?

1842
1824
1832
1834
Who proposed the Carnot cycle?

Sammy Carnot
Sonny Carnot
Sadi Carnot
Suri Carnot

The Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes?

2
3
4
5

The Carnot cycle is composed of ______ processes.


One isothermal and one adiabatic
One isothermal and two adiabatic
Two isothermal and one adiabatic
Two isothermal and two adiabatic

What is the highest efficiency of heat engine operating between the two thermal energy
reservoirs at temperature limits?

Ericson efficiency
Otto efficiency
Carnot efficiency
Stirling efficiency

What is a heat engine that operates on the reversible Carnot cycle called?

Carnot heat engine


Ideal heat engine
Most efficient heat engine
Best heat engine

What states that thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same
two reservoirs are the same and that no heat engine is more ef ficient than a reversible one
operating between the same two reservoirs?

Ericson principle
Carnot principle
Otto principle
Stirling principle

Who discovered the thermodynamic property Entropy in 1865?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics


First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

A process during which entropy remains constant is called ______ process

Isometric
Isochoric
Isobaric
Isentropic

A reversible adiabatic process is necessarily isentropic but an isentropic process is not


necessarily reversible adiabatic process. This statement is:

True
False
May be true and may be false
Absurd
The term isentropic process used in thermodynamics implies what?

Reversible adiabatic process


Externally reversible, adiabatic process
Internally reversible, adiabatic process
Irreversible adiabatic process

What states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero temperature is zero?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics


First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

What law provides an absolute reference point for the determination of entropy?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics


First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

The entropy change of a system during a process is equal to the net entropy transfer through the
system boundary and the entropy generated within the system. This statement is known as:

Entropy generation
Entropy change of a system
Entropy balance relation
Third law of thermodynamics

What law states that entropy can be created but it cannot be destroyed?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics


First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

Entropy is transferred by ______.

Work
Heat
Energy
Work and heat

During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?

It is temperature-dependent
It is always greater than zero
It is always zero
It is always less than zero

Water boils when:

Its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmospheric pressure


Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercur y
Its temperature reaches 212 degree Celsius
Its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm
Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

0 degree Celsius and one atmosphere


32 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure
0 degree Kelvin and one atmosphere
0 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure

What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
Zero
Positive
Negative
Positive or negative
At constant pressure, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. This is
known as ______.

Boyles Law
Charless Law
Gay-Lussac Law
Ideal gas law

Which of the following is the mathematical representation of the Charless law?

V1/V2= P2/P1
V1/T1=V2/T2
V1/T2=V2/T1
V1/V2=vP2/vP1

Which of the following is the formula for thermal resistance?

Thickness of material/ thermal conductivity of material


2(thickness of material)/thermal conductivity of material
Thickness of material/ 2(thermal conductivity of material)
Thickness of material x thermal conductivity of material

In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is the speed of
electromagnetic waves?

182,000 miles/second
184,000 miles/second
186,000 miles/second
188,000 miles/second

For heat engine operating between two temperatures (T1>T2), what is the maximum efficiency
attainable?

Eff = 1 (T2/T1)
Eff = 1 -(T1/T2)
Eff = T1-T2
Eff = 1- (T2/T1)^2

Which one is the correct relation between ener gy efficiency ratio (EER) and coefficient of
performance (COP)?

EER = 2.34COP
EER = 3.24COP
EER = 3.42COP
EER = 4.23COP

The coefficient of performance (COP) is the r atio between the:

Power consumption in watts and heat absorbed per hour


Heat absorbed per hour and the power consumption in watts
Work required and the absorbed heat
Absorbed heat and work required
What predicts the approximate molar specific heat at high temperatures from the atomic weight?

Third law of thermodynamics


Law of Dulong and Petit
Mollier diagram
Pressure-enthalpy diagram

Considering one mole of any gas, the equation of state of ideal gases is simply the ______ law.

Gay-Lussac law
Dulong and Petit
Avogadros
Henr ys

An ideal gas whose specific heats are constant is called _____.

Perfect gas
Natural gas
Artificial gas
Refined gas

What are the assumptions of the kinetic gas theory?

Gas molecules do not attract each other


The volume of the gas molecules is negligible compared to the volume of the gas
The molecules behave like hard spheres
All of the above

The total volume of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial volumes.
This statement is known as ______.

Law of Dulong and Petit


Maxwell-Boltzmann law
Amagats law
Avogadros law

An adiabatic process in which there is no change in system enthalpy but for which there is a
significant decrease in pressure is called _____.

Isochoric process
Isobaric process
Throttling process
Quasistatic process

What is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure when a real
gas is throttled?

Rankine coefficient
Kelvin coefficient
Maxwell-Boltzmann coefficient
Joule-Thomson coefficient

The low temperature reservoir of the heat reservoirs is known as ______.

Source reservoir
Heel reservoir
Toe reservoir
Sink reservoir

A ______ is a flow in which the gas flow is adiabatic and frictionless and entropy change is zero.

Isentropic flow
Isobaric flow
Steady flow
Uniform flow
What refers to the minimum temperature at which combustion can be sustained?

Burn temperature
Kindle temperature
Spark temperature
Ignition temperature

What law predicts the dew point of moisture in the fuel gas?

Daltons law
Law of Dulong and Petit
Ringelman law
Amagats law

What law states that one energy from can be converted without loss into another form?

Amagats law
Joules law
Lussacs law
Henr ys law

Which is NOT a correct statement?

A superheated vapor will not condense when small amount of heat re removed
An ideal gas is a gas that is not a superheated vapor
A saturated liquid can absorb as much heat as it can without vaporizing
Water at 1 atm and room temperatur e is subcooled
1. First Benchmark Publishings gross margin is 50% of sales. The operating costs of the
publishing are estimated at 15% of sales. If the company is within the 40% tax bracket,
determine the percent of sales is their profit after taxes?
21%
20%
19%
18%

2. A farmer selling eggs at 50 pesos a dozen gains 20%. If he sells the eggs at the same price
after the costs of the eggs rises by 12.5%, how much will be his new gain in percent?
6.89%
6.65%
6.58%
6.12%
3. A feasibility study shows that a fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a
proposed construction firm and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation
is estimated to be10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total
investment if the annual profit is P3,500,000.
28.33%
29.17%
30.12%
30.78%
4. The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Camus is 3200 pieces. With a
manual operated guillotine, the unit cutting cost is P25.00. An electrically operated hydraulic
guillotine was offered to Mr. Camus at a price of P275,000.00 and which cuts by 30% the unit
cutting cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many months will Mr. Camus be able to
recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy now?
10 months
11 months
12 months
13 months
5. Engr. Trinidad loans from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of
20% but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at the
end of one year, she has to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate of interest?
23.5%
24.7%
25.0%
25.8%

6. A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what
future amount is due at the end of the loan period?
P5,937.50
5,873.20
5,712.40
5,690.12

7. Mr. Bacani borrowed money f rom the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and promised
to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest.
12.19%
12.03%
11.54%
10.29%
8. A college freshman borrowed P2,000 from a bank for his tuition fee and promised to pay the
amount for one year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected the advance
interest of P80.00. What was the rate of discount?
3.67%
4.00%
4.15%
4.25%
9. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the interest
for one year is automatically deducted from the pr incipal amount upon release of money to a
borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank and the P80,000 was
approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was deducted and you were given a check
of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of P80,000 one year after, what then will be the
effective interest rate?
16.02%
16.28%
16.32%
16.47%
10. A man invested P110,000 for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding tax
is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.
11.50%
11.75%
11.95%
12.32%

11. A investor wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an
available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum rate of return,
before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?
12.07%
12.34%
12.67%
12.87%

12. Mr. Jun Ramos was granted a loan of P20,000 by his employer Excel First Review and
Training Center, Inc. with an interest of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected in advance.
The corporation would accept a promissory note for P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If
discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.
P18,000
P18,900
P19,000
P19,100
13. Miss Evilla borrowed money from a bank. She receives from the bank P1,340.00 and
promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corr esponding discount rate or
often referred to as the bankers discount.
13.15%
13.32%
13.46%
13.73%
14. The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25, 1995 is
P100. What is the rate of interest?
3.90%
3.92%
3.95%
3.98%
15. What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
P39.01
P39.82
P39.45
P39.99

16. A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the effective
rate of money?
9.01%
9.14%
9.31%
9.41%
17. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to
360 days.

19.61%
19.44%
19.31%
19.72%
18. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the r ate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?
8.07%
8.12%
8.16%
8.24%
19. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?
12.35% compounded annually
11.90% compounded annually
12.20% compounded annually
11.60% compounded annually
20. An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the
nominal interest.
11.89%
12.00%
12.08%
12.32%
21. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?
13.7 years
14.7 years
14.2 years
15.3 years

22. By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her
guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if fund invested at
8% compounded quarterly?
11.23 years
11.46 years
11.57 years
11.87 years
23. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest
rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16 th year?
P693.12
P700.12
P702.15
P705.42

24. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the
interest is compounded.
Monthly
Bimonthly
Quarterly
Annually
25. A student plans to deposit P1,500 in the bank now and another P3,000 for the next 2 years. If
he plans to withdraw P5,000 three years from after his last deposit for the purpose of buying
shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal?
Effective annual interest rate is 10%.
P1,549.64
P1,459.64
P1,345.98
P1,945.64
26. You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month
instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will pay by
borrowing the money from the bank?
P 62.44
P44.55
P54.66
P37.56
27. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.
P 150.56
P 152.88
P 153.89
P 151.09
28. A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the
amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
P 3,260.34
P 3,280.34
P 3,270.34
P 3,250.34
29. In year zero, you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the
average annual inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be in the account at
maturity?
P 15,030.03
P 20,113.57
P 18,289.05
P 16,892.34
30. The institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines (IECEP) is
planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are:
A. The construction of the building now to cost P 400,000
B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years, an
extension to be added to cost P 200,000.
By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and
depreciation to be neglected?
P 19,122.15
P 19,423.69
P 19,518.03
P 19,624.49
31. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10 %?
P 727.17
P 717.17
P 714.71
P 731.17
32. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P 20,000? Assume
i= 6% annually.
P 1,290.34
P 1,185.54
P 1,107.34
P 1,205.74
33. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer
uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the
final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment?
P 2,500.57
P 2,544.45
P 2,540.56
P 2,504.57
34. What is the present worth of a year annuity paying P 3,000.00 at the end of each year, with
interest at 8% compounded annually?
P 7,654.04
P 7,731.29
P 7,420.89
P 7,590.12
35. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to
pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years.
Find the annual payments.
P 43,600.10
P 43,489.47
P 43,263.91
P 43,763.20
36. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual
payments of P 8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the
investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?
P 142,999.08
P 143,104.89
P 142,189.67
P 143,999.08

37. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the
last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan?
P 6,999.39
P 6,292.93
P 6,222.39
P 6,922.93
38. Miss Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at the end of the 2 nd year, 3 rd year and
4 th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the
account at the end of the 4 th year?
P 4,880.00
P 4,820.00
P 4,860.00
P 4,840.00

39. A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15- year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this
investment?
3.0%
3.4%
3.7%
4.0%
40. A P 1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21,
204. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.
P 1,122.70
P 1,144.81
P 1,133.78
P 1,155.06
41. A VOM has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of
10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?
P 222.67
P 212.90
P 236.20
P 231.56
42. A machine costs of P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P 500.
What is its book value after 8 years using str aight line method?
P 2,000.00
P 2,100.00
P 2,200.00
P 2,300.00
43. ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value.
Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method.
7 eyars
8 years
9 years
10 years
44. An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it
will be sold for P 1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of- years digit
method
P 3,279.27
P 3,927.27
P 3,729.27
P 3,792.72
45. Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year of
P 50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P
18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take percentage
of gross income for oil as 22%.
P 9,358.41
P 9,228.45
P 9,250.00
P 9,308.45
46. The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $ 50,000,000. What is the depletion char ge during the
year where it produces half million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method in computing
depletion.
$ 5,000,000.00
$ 5,010,000.00
$ 5,025,000.00
$ 5,050,000.00
47. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P 115 each, material cost of P 76
each and variable cost of P 2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P 600, how many units must
be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is
P428,000
1,033
1,037
1,043
1,053
48. A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators.
Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per
week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the
demand?
1.0 hour per unit
1.2 hours per unit
1.4 hours per unit
1.6 hours per unit
49. A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enameled wire or tinned
wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the
enameled wire will be P 1.65 on the tinned wire, it will be P 1.15. A 100- pair cable made up
with enameled wire cost P 0.55 per linear foot and those made up of tinned wire cost P 0.75 per
linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that the cost of each installation would be
the same.
1,000 feet
1,040 feet
1,100 feet
1,120 feet

50. A leading shoe manufactur er produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a labor cost
of P 900.00 a pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P
5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty to Lebron James is P 1,000
per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P 5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each
month for the manufacturer to break-even?
2.590
2,632
2,712
2,890

What is defines as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by using the
theories and principles of economics to engineering applications, designs and projects?

Economic Analysis
Engineering cost analysis
Engineering economy
Design cost analysis

What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a countrys domestic money
supply?

Monetary unit
Currency
Foreign exchange
Cash or check
What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or indirectly to the
satisfaction of human want?

Services
Goods
Commodities
Goods or commodities

What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or indirectly to the
satisfaction of human want?

Services
Goods
Commodities
Goods or commodities

What are the two classifications of goods and services?


Local and imported
Raw and finished
Consumer and producer
Ready-made and made-to-order

What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life, needs and
activities?

Producer products
Consumer products
Luxury
Necessity
What refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be acquired only after
all the needs have been satisfied?

Producer products
Consumer products
Luxury
Necessity

What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the buyers of a
product, factor of production or financial security?

Mall
Market
Store
Office

What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity?

Seller
Manufacturer
Producer
Buyer or consumer

What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to buyer or
consumer in exchange of monetar y consideration?

Seller
Manufacturer
Producer
Buyer or consumer

What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there is no
goods substitute?

Monopsony
Monopoly
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
What market situation exists where there ar e few sellers and few buyers?

Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Bilateral oligopoly
Bilateral Oligopsony

What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller?

Monopsony
Monopoly
Bilateral monopsony
Bilateral monopoly

What is the market situation exist when there are many buyers and many sellers?

Perfect compettion
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is ________ .

Duopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is _________ .

Duopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

Oligopoly exists when there is/are:

Few sellers and few buyers


Few sellers and many buyers
Many sellers and few buyers
One seller and few buyers

Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are:

Few sellers and few buyers


Few sellers and many buyers
Many sellers and few buyers
One seller and few buyers

Duopoly is a market situation where there is/are:

Few sellers and few buyers


Few sellers and many buyers
Many sellers and few buyers
One seller and few buyers

What is another term for perfect competition?

Atomistic competition
No-limit competition
Free-for-all competition
Heterogeneous market
What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied by a ver y large
number of vendors and there is no restriction against additional vendors from entering the
market?

Perfect competition
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

Aside from many sellers and many buyers, which one is a characteristic of perfect competition?

Homogeneous product
Free market entry and exit
Perfect information and absence of all economic fr iction
All of the above

What is the opposite of perfect competition?

Monopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

Perfect monopoly exists only if:

the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market
the single vendor gets the absolute franchise of the product
the single vendor is the only one who has the permit to sell
the single vendor is the only one who has the knowledge of the product

A ______ is a market situation where economies of scale are so significant that cost are only
minimized when the entire output of an industr y is supplied by a single producer so that the
supply costs are lower under monopoly that under perfect competition.

Perfect monopoly
Bilateral monopoly
Natural monopoly
Ordinary monopoly

When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing
the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output.
This statement is known as the:

Law of diminishing return


Law of supply
Law of demand
Law of supply and demand

What refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to purchase it?

Supply
Demand
Product
Good

What refers to the amount of a product made available for sale?

Supply
Demand
Product
Good
Under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which any given product will be supplied
and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal. This
statement is known as the:

Law of diminishing return


Law of supply
Law of demand
Law of supply and demand

What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool, flour,
coffee, etc.?

Utility
Necessity
Commodity
Stock

What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that is based only on the original amount of
the loan or principal?

Effective rate of interest


Nominal rate of interest
Compound interest
Simple interest

Under ordinary simple interest, how many days in one year?

300
360
365
366

One bankers year is equivalent to ______ days.

300
360
365
366

What refers to the cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on
the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn?

Present worth factor


Interest rate
Time value of money
Yield

The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in the future is
called ______.

Discount
Deduction
Inflation
Depletion

What refers to the present worth of the probable future net earnings?

Total fair value


Total market value
Going concern value
Earning value
What refers to the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital?

Interest
Rate of interest
Simple interest
Principal

What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and
usually expressed as a percentage of the principal?

Return of investment
Interest rate
Yield
Rate of return

What is defined as the investment of loan or principal which is based not only on the original
amount of the loan or principal but the amount of loaned or principal plus the previous
accumulated interest?

Effective rate of interest


Nominal rate of interest
Compound interest
Simple interest

What refers to the cost of borrowing money or the amount earned by a unit principal per unit
time?

Yield rate
Rate of return
Rate of interest
Economic return

A uniform series of payment occurring at equal interval of time is called ______.

Annuity
Amortization
Depreciation
Bond

What is the term for an annuity with a fixed time span?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity certain
Annuity due

What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period starting from
the first period?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity

What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of the each period
starting from the first period?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity

What is the type of annuity that does not have a fixed time span but continues indefinitely or
forever?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
What is the type of annuity where the first payment does not begin until some later date in the
cash flow?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity

Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

The amounts of all payments are equal.


The payments are made at equal interval of time.
The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.
Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

What is defined as a financial security note issued by business or corporation and by the
government as a means of borrowing long-term fund?

T-bills
Securities
Bond
Bank notes

What refers to the present worth of all the amount the bondholder will receive through his
possession of the bond?

Par value of bond


Face value of bond
Redeemed value of bond
Value of bond

What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a period not less than
10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation?

Bond
T-bills
Stock
Promissory note

What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security?

Bond
Bank note
Coupon
Check
What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?

Mortgage bond
Joint bond
Tie-up bond
Trust bond

What type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment, such as freight and
passenger cars, locomotives, etc.?

Railroad bond
Equipment obligation bond
Equipment bond
Equipment trust bond

A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such
interest is to be paid is called ______.

Registered bond
Coupon bond
Mortgage bond
Collateral trust bond
What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified assets of the corporation?

Registered bond
Collateral trust bond
Mortgage bond
Debenture bond

A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation is
called ______.

Joint bond
Debenture bond
Trust bond
Common bond

A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the stock or
bonds of one of its subsidiaries.

Mortgage bond
Joint bond
Security bond
Collateral trust bond
What type of bond where the corporations owner name are recorded and the interest is paid
periodically to the owners with their asking for it?

Preferred bond
Registered bond
Incorporators bond
Callable bond

What type of bond which can be redeemed before maturity date?

Preferred bond
Registered bond
Incorporators bond
Callable bond

What is the feature of some bonds whereby the issuer can redeem it before it matures?

Return clause
Callability
Recall clause
Call calss

The price at which the callable bond will be redeemed from the bondholder is called ______.

Par value
Call value
Face value
Redemption value

What is defined as the reduction or fall of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage
of time?

Depletion
Inflation
Depreciation
Deflation

In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the loss in value is directly
proportional to the age of the equipment or asset?

Straight line method


Sinking fund method
Sum-of-year digit method
Declining balance method
In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that a sinking fund is established in
which funds will accumulate for replacement purposes?

Straight line method


Sinking fund method
Sum-of-year digit method
Declining balance method

In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the annual cost of depreciation
is a fixed percentage of the book value at the beginning of the year?

Straight line method


Sinking fund method
Sum-of-year digit method
Declining balance method

In SYD method of computing depreciation, which of the following is the formula in finding the
sum of years digits?

The declining balance method is also known as ______.

Double percentage method


Constant percentage method
Modified sinking fund method
Modified SYD method

What type of depreciation is due to the reduction in the demand for the function that the
equipment or asset was designed to render?

Functional depreciation
Design depreciation
Physical depreciation
Demand depreciation

What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an equipment or asset
to produce results?

Functional depreciation
Design depreciation
Physical depreciation
Demand depreciation

The functional depreciation is sometimes called ______.

Demand depreciation
Adolescence
Life depreciation
Failure depreciation

What is defined as the reduction of the value of certain natural resources such as mines, oil,
timber, quarries, etc. due to the gradual extraction of its contents?

Depletion
Inflation
Depreciation
Deflation
What are the common methods of computing depletion char ge?

Rational method and irrational method


Conservative method and conventional method
Unit method and percentage method
Discrete method and depletion allowance method

Under the depletion allowance method in computing depreciation, the depletion charge is equal
to either ______ whichever is smaller.

Fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income


Fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income

The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as ______.

Unit method
Percentage method
Factor method
Sinking fund method

What is another term for unit method for computing depletion?

Initial cost method


Percentage method
Factor method
Sinking fund method

Using factor method, the depletion at any given year is equal to:

Initial cost of property times number of unit sold during the year divided by the total
units in property
Initial cost of property divided by the number of units sold during the year
Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year
Initial cost of property divided by the total units in property

What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the depreciation
period of the asset?

Asset recovery
Depreciation recovery
Period recovery
After-tax recovery

A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is called ______.

Load factor
Demand factor
Sinking fund factor
Present worth factor

The amount of property in which a willing buyer to a willing seller for the property when neither
one is under the compulsion to buy nor to sell is called ______.

Fair value
Market value
Good will value
Book value

Salvage value is sometimes known as ______.

Scrap value
Going value
Junk value
Second-hand value
What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer
and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties?

Book value
Market value
Fair value
Franchise value

What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of a company
to provide a specified product and service in a certain region of the country?

Company value
Going value
Goodwill value
Franchise value

The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been bought for a second
hand dealer or some other business is called ______.

Material cost
Fixed cost
First cost
In-place value
In computing depreciation of an equipment, which of the following represents the first cost?

The original purchase price and freight char ges


Installation expenses
Initial taxes and permit fees
All of the above

The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific reason is called
______.

Investment
Valuation
Economy
Depletion

The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of the equipment
is called ______.

Sunk cost
Economic life
In-place value
Annuity
What refers to the present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time?

Annual cost
Increment cost
Capitalized cost
Operating cost

Capitalized cost of a project is also known as ______.

Infinite cost
Life cycle cost
Life cost
Project cost

What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplish the same purpose but have
unequal lives?

Capitalized cost method


Present worth method
Annual cost method
MARR
What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and costs accrue to
different segments of the community?

Annual cost method


Benefit-cost ratio
Rate of return method
EUAC
What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular strategy is
rejected?

Opportunity cost
Ghost cost
Horizon cost
Null cost

What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation is seldom used
in the industry?

Unstable economy
Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined
The initial deprecation is high
The initial depreciation is low

What is the factor name of the formula (1+i)^-n?


Uniform gradient future worth
Capital recovery
Single payment present worth
Single payment compound amount

What is the factor name of the formula [i(1+i)^n]/[((1+i)^n)-1]?

Uniform series sinking fund


Capital recovery
Single payment present worth
Uniform gradient future worth

A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone and entirely for
his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities.

Sole proprietorship
Entrepreneurship
Partnership
Corporation

Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the process,
attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence.

Corporation
Property
Partnership
Organization

What is the simplest form of business organization?

Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Enterprise
Corporation

Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Corporation
Enterprise
In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay
the liabilities
The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
The partners nay sell stock to generate additional capital

Which is true about partnership?

It has a perpetual life.


It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership.
It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
Its capitalization must be equal for each partner.

Which is true about corporation?

It is worse type of business organization.


The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three.
Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.
The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments.

Aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by
law as a fictitious person is called ______.

Partnership
Investors
Corporation
Stockholders

An association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging into a business for profit is
called ______.

Entrepreneurship
Partnership
Proprietorship
Corporation

What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the
corporation after all other claims have been settled?

Authorized capital stock


Preferred stock
Incorporator stock
Common stock

What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock?

Authorized stock
Preferred stock
Incorporators stock
Presidential stock

The amount of companys profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to
distribute to ordinary shareholders is called ______.

Dividend
Return
Share of stock
Equity

What refers to the residual value of a companys assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders
excluded) have been allowed for?

Dividend
Equity
Return
Par value
What refers to the claim of anyone to ownership?

Proprietorship
Assets
Equity
Liability

Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise are generally called
______.

Capital
Funds
Assets
Liabilities

What represents the share of participation in business organizations?

Franchise
Partnership
Stock
Corporation

The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to
financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as ______.

Yield
Economic return
Earning value
Gain

______ is the element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration
and patronage of its costumers arising from its well known and well conducted policies and
operations.

Status company
Big income
Known owners
Goodwill

Which of the following is an example of intangible asset?

Cash
Investment in subsidiary companies
Furnitures
Patents

Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are example of what type of asset?

Current asset
Trade investment asset
Fixed asset
Intangible asset

What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of
the interest earned by an investment?

Economic return
Yield
Rate of return
Return of investment

What is another term for current assets?

Fixed assets
Non-liquid assets
Liquid assets
Ccash
What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment?

Cost of goods sold


Cost accounting
Standard cost

What is the change in cost per unit variable change called?

Variable cost
Incremental cost
Fixed cost
Supplemental cost

What is used to record historical financial transactions?

Bookkeeping system
Ledger system
Balance check
General journal system

What is a secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the journal is
called?

Balanced sheet
Ledger
Worksheet
Trial balance

The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book.

Work book
Journal
Ledger
Account book

All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of goods is called
______.

Net income
Gross income
Net revenue
Total sales

All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT one. Which one?

Inspection cost
Testing cost
Assembly cost
Supervision cost

What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?

Current ratio
Quick ratio
Acid test ratio
Receivable turnover

The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called ______.

Current ratio
Inventory turnover
Profit margin ratio
Price-earnings ratio

What do you call a one-time credit against taxes?

Due credit
Tax credit
Credible credit
Revenue credit
What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time for the invested money is needed?

Rule of 48
Rule of 36
Rule of 24
Rule of 72
What is the increase in the money value of a capital asset is called?

Profit
Capital gain
Capital expenditure
Capital stock

What is the reduction in the money value of capital asset is called?

Capital expenditure
Capital loss
Loss
Deficit

What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lien of a term deposit?
Time deposit
Bond
Capital gain certificate
Certificate of deposit

What denotes in the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others? This term is
usually applies to the floating exchange rate.

Currency appreciation
Currency depreciation
Currency devaluation
Currency float

The deliberate lowering of the price of a nations currency in terms of the accepted standard
(Gold, American dollar or the British pound) is known as ______.

Currency appreciation
Currency depreciation
Currency devaluation
Currency float

What refers to the saving which takes place because goods are not available for consumption
rather than consumer really want to save?

Compulsor y saving
Consumer saving
Forced saving
All of the above

The flow back of profit plus depreciation form a given project is called ______.

Capital recovery
Cash flow
Economic return
Earning value

As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to
operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular
prearranged programs is called ______.

Annuity
Amortization
Capital recovery
Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?

First cost + interest of first cost


Annual cost interest of first cost
First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
First cost + salvage value

The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period
is known as ______.

Expected return
Nominal interest
Effective interest
Economic return
Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the:

Net income to owners equity


Market price per share to earnings per share
Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory at hand
Net credit sales to average net receivable

Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to ______.

Net sale
Owners equity
Inventory turnover
Quick assets

What is another term for acid-test ratio?

Current ratio
Quick ratio
Profit margin ratio
Price-earnings ratio

What is a government bond which has an indefinite life rather than a specific maturity?

Coupon
T-bill
Debenture
Consol

A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their mutual
benefit is called ______.

Cooperative
Corporation
Enterprise
Partnership

What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a means of


regulating the price of that product?

Stock pile
Hoard stock
Buffer stock
Withheld stock

The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as ______.

Solvency
Leverage
Insolvency
Liquidity
The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as ______.

Solvency
Liquidity
Leverage
Insolvency

What is the basic accounting equation?

Assets = liability + owners equity


Liability = assets + owners equity
Owners equity = assets + liability
Owners equity = liability assets

The financial health of the company is measured in terms of:

Liquidity
Solvency
Relative risk
All of the above

What is an index of short-term paying ability?

Price-earnings ratio
Current ratio
Profit margin ratio
Gross margin

The common ratio is the ratio of:

Net credit sales to average net receivable


Current assets to current liabilities
Gross profit to net sales
Net income to owners equity

What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses?

Profit margin ratio


Price-earnings ratio
Return of investment ratio
Quick ratio

What is the ratio of the quick assets to curr ent liabilities?

Profit margin ratio


Price-earnings ratio
Return of investment ratio
Quick ratio

What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?

Profit margin ratio


Receivables turnover
Return of investment ratio
Average age of receivables

Receivable turnover is the ratio of:


Net credit sales to average net receivables
Market price per share to earnings per shar e
Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
Common shareholders equity to number of outstanding shares

What is the ratio of the net income to owners equity?

Gross margin
Return of investment ratio
Book value per share of common stock
Inventory turnover
What is the ratio of the market price per share to earnings per share called?

Gross margin
Price-earnings ratio
Book value per share of common stock
Inventory turnover

What is the profit margin ratio?

The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales


The ratio of gross profit to net sales
The ratio of common shareholders equity to the number of outstanding shares
The ratio of cost goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

What is a gross margin?

The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales


The ratio of gross profit to net sales
The ratio of common shareholders equity to the number of outstanding shares
The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

Which of the following is a book value share of common stock?

The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales


The ratio of gross profit to net sales
The ratio of common shareholders equity to the number of outstanding shares
The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

What is an inventory turnover?

The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales


The ratio of gross profit to net sales
The ratio of common shareholders equity to the number of outstanding shares
The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

The average age of receivables is computed using which formula?

365 / receivable turnovers


365 / average net receivable
365 / inventory turnover
365 / average cost of inventory on hand

What is a method of determining when the value of one alternative becomes equal to the value of
another?

Specific identification method


Average cost method
Break-even analysis
Incremental value method

The days supply of inventory on hand is calculated using which formula?

365 / receivable turnovers


365 / average net receivable
365 / inventory turnover
365 / average cost of inventory on hand

What is defined as the length of time usually in years, for cumulative net annual profit to equal
the initial investment?

Return of investment period


Turnover period
Break-even period
Payback period
What is defined as ratio of its return to its cost?

Return of an investment
Value of an investment
Breakeven point of an investment
Term of an investment

Which of the following is an accelerated depreciation method?

Straight line method and sinking fund method


Straight line method and double declining balance method
Double declining balance method and SYD method
SYD method and sinking fund method

What is an accelerated depreciation method?

It is one that calculates a depreciation amount greater than a straight line amount
It is one that calculates a depreciation amount lesser than a straight line amount
It is one that calculates a depreciation amount equal to straight line amount
It is one that calculates a depreciation not in any way related to straight line amount

What refers to the reduction in the level of a national income and output usually accompanied by
a fall in the general price level?

Deflation
Inflation
Devaluation
Depreciation

A formal organization of producers within an industry forming a perfect collusion purposely


formed to increase profit and block new comers form the industry is called ______.

Monopoly
Cartel
Corporation
Competitors

The paper currency issued by the central bank which forms part of the countrys money supply is
called ______.

T-bills
Bank notes
Check
Coupon

When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing
the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output.

Law of diminishing return


Law of supply
Law of demand
Law of supply and demand

What is the ratio of the market price per share to the earnings per share?

Inventory turnover
Price-earnings
Book value per share of common stock
Profit margin

What is the ratio of the net income to owners equity?


Return on investment
Inventory turnover
Profit margin
Price-earnings
What refers to the ration of the net income before taxes to net sales?

Receivable turnover
Acid test ratio
Return on investment
Profit margin
What refers to the buying or selling of goods between two or mor e markers in order to take
profitable advantage of any differences in the prices quoted in these markets?

Cartel
Arbitrage
Black market
A priori

The suspension of repayment of debt or interest for a specified period of time is called ______.

Moratorium
Escrow
Numeraire
Porcupine
1. What are considered as the building blocks for engineering materials?

A. Atoms
B. Elements
C. Matters
D. Compounds

2. What are the major classes of engineering mater ials?

A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors


B. Polymers, metals and composites
C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors
D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites

3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?

A. Crystals
B. Amorphous materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Metalloids

4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?

A. Metalloids
B. Matrix alloys
C. Metal lattices
D. Metal Matrix composites

5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?

A. Metalloids
B. B. Matrix Composite
C. C. Inert
D. D. Ceramic

6. Polymer comes from Greek words poly which means many and meros which means
__________.

A. metal
B. material
C. part
D. plastic

7. The engineering materials known as plastics are more correctly called ____________.

A. Polyvinyl chloride
B. Polymers
C. Polyethylene
D. Mers

8. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components
materials do not have by themselves?

A. Compound
B. Composite
C. Mixture
D. Matrix

9. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?

A. Periodic Table
B. Truth Table
C. Building blocks of Materials
D. Structure of Materials
10. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on
heating or solidifies on cooling?

A. Melting point
B. Curie point
C. Refractive index
D. Specific heat

11. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic
materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?

A. Melting point
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal expansion
D. Curie point

12. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in
a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled
environment?

A. Dielectric strength
B. Electric resistivity
C. Water absorption
D. Thermal conductivity

13. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a
homogenous material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit temperature gradient in
a direction perpendicular to area?

A. Thermal expansion
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Water absorption

14. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that
an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of
electrical breakdown through its bulk?

A. Thermal expansion
B. Conductivity
C. Dielectric strength

15. What physical proper ty of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise
the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass
of water to 1 degree.

A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat of fission

16. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?

A. Curie temperature
B. Specific heat
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Thermal conductivity

17. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension
test at constant load and constant temperature?

A. Creep strength
B. Stress rapture strength
C. Compressive yield strength
D. Hardness
18. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?

A. Rigidity
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility
D. Hardness

19. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops
below some predetermined value, usually 15ft-lb?
A. Nil ductility temperature
B. Curie temperature
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Heat distortion temperature

20. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?

A. Elastic limit
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material
C. Creep
D. All of the choices

21. What dimensional property of a material refer s to the deviation from edge straightness?

A. Lay
B. Out of flat
C. Camber
D. Waviness

22. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface,
generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness?

A. Lay
B. Waviness
C. surface finish
D. Out of flat

23. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural
polymer called ________.

A. plastic
B. lignin
C. mer
D. additive

24. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two
different monuments?

A. Copolymerization
B. Blending

25. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as nylon?

A. Polyacetals
B. Polyamide
C. Cellulose
D. Polyester

26. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _____ elongation in tensile test and is
capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed.

A. 100%
B. 150%
C. 200%
D. 250%
27. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes in which
the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold
by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold?

A. Calendaring
B. Blow molding
C. Thermoformig
D. Solid phase forming

28. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal
die?

A. Calendaring
B. Thermoforming
C. Lithugraphy
D. Extrusion

29. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by
chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?

A. Stereo specificity
B. Corrosion resistance
C. Conductivity
D. Electrical resistance

30. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an ordered,
spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?

A. Stereo specificity
B. Conductivity
C. Retentivity
D. Spatial configuration

31. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?

A. Impact strength
B. Endurance limit
C. Creep strength
D. Stress rupture strength

32. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under
stress?

A. Elongation
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Rupture

33. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from
proportionality of stress and strain?

A. Tensile strength
B. shear strength
C. Yield strength
D. Flexural strength

34. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from
acceptable of stress to strain is called _______.

Elongation
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. elastic limit
35. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite
number of stress cycles?

A. Endurance state
B. Endurance test
C. Endurance limit
D. endurance strength

36. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

A. Conductor
B. Semiconductor
C. Magnet
D. Semimetal

37. Which of the following is a natural magnet?

A. Steel
B. Magnesia
C. Lodestone
D. Soft iron

38. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?

A. Hardness
B. Stiffness
C. Creepage
D. Rigidity

39. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials

40. What materials has permiabilities slightly greater than of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

41. Which of the materials have very high permiabilities?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

42. What is the defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic
substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and some stage in its
manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow?

A. Metal
B. Metalloid
C. Plastic
D. Ceramic

43. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds
called ________.

A. Metallic bond
B. Van der Waals bond
C. Cross linking
D. Covalent bond
44. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer?

A. Homo polymer
B. Ethenic polymer
C. Polyethylene

45. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as _______.

A. monomer
B. elastomer
C. mers
D. copolymer or interpolymer

46. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?

A. Vulcanizer
B. Elasticmer
C. Polychloroprene
D. Elastomer

47. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain
concentration limits?

A. Steel
B. Wrought Iron
C. Cast Iron
D. Tendons

48. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of steel
from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots?

A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR)


B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM)
C. Electron beam refining
D. Electroslag refining

49. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute)
into an ingot mold?

A. Electroslag refining
B. Vacuum are remelting
C. Vacuum induction melting
D. Electron beam refining

50. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?

A. Alloy steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Galvanized steel
D. Carbon steel

51. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite?

A. Austenite
B. Eutectoid
C. Hyper-eutectoid
D. Stainless steel

52. What group of steel are water-hardened tool steels?

A. Group S
B. Group W
C. Group O
D. Group T

53. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels?

A. Group A
B. Group D
C. Group M
D. Group H
54. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high and strength
are known as?

A. Medium-carbon steel
B. Low-carbon steel
C. Very high-carbon
D. High-carbon steel

55. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _________.

A. Carbon
B. Sulfur
C. Zinc
D. Nickel

56. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics?

A. A370
B. D638
C. E292
D. C674

57. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastic?

A. D638
B. D695
C. D790
D. D732

58. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?

A. D732
B. D790
C. D695
D. D638

59. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods for steel products?

A. A370
B. E345
C. E8
D. C674

60. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for non-structural
application is classified as ____________.

Merchant quality
Commercial quality
Drawing quality
Special quality

61. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as_______.

Tempering
Pickling
Machining
Galvanizing

62. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying?

To increase brittleness
To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness.
To reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur
To increase corrosion and resistance
63. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

About 10% of the earths crust is iron.


Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft.
Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than 2%)
Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast
furnace or direct reductions vessel.

64. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?

E
H
X
B

65. What is prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?

A. E
B. H
C. X
D. B

66. What letter suffix steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element?

A. xxLxx
B. xxBxx
C. xxHxx
D. xxKxx

67. What refers to the tin mill steel, without a coating?

A. White plate
B. Tin Steel free
C. Black plate
D. Dechromate tin

68. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and
high strength at red hear temperatur es, making it useful in resistance heating?

A. Aluminum bronze
B. Nichrome
C. Hastelloy
D. Alnico

69. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of
chromium?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 5%

70. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?

A. Deorizers
B. Deoxidizers
C. Deterrent
D. Deoxifiers

71. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon-silicon alloy?


A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Alloy iron

72. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?

A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Ductile iron
73. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. White iron
D. Malleable iron

74. What is considered as the general purpose oldest type and widely used cast iron?

A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. Alloy iron
D. Malleable iron

75. What is the effect if manganese in cast iron?

A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form


B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness
above 0.5%
C. To dioxide molten cast iron
D. To increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature

76. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron?

A. To increase hardness above 0.5%


B. To deoxidize molten cast iron
C. To affect machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form
D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%

77. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron?

Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase the hardness above
0.5%
Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature.
Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and
increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13%
deoxidizes molten cast iron

78. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earths crust is iron?
A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 20%
D. 8%

79. What is the advantage of quench hardening?

A. Improved strength
B. Hardness
C. Wear characteristics
D. All of the choices

80. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench?

A. Carburizing
B. Tempering
C. Nitriding
D. Heat-treating

81. The following statements are true except one. Which one?

A. Carburizing does not harden a steel.


B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels.
C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.
82. Which of he following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

A. Heating to the proper temperature


B. Sufficient carbon content
C. Adequate quench
D. All of the choices

83. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?

A. Metallurgy
B. Geology
C. Material Science
D. Metalgraphy

84. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?

A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Gangue
D. Ore

85. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?

A. Tuyere
B. Coke
C. Diamond
D. Hematite

86. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Brass
B. Zinc
C. Nickle
D. Aluminum

87. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel ear the
surface of a part is increased?

A. Carburizing
B. Annealing
C. Normalizing
D. Martempering

88. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical
temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling?

A. Normalizing
B. Spheroidizing
C. Carburizing
D. Tempering

89. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite
composition and a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?

A. Pearlite
B. Eutectoid
C. Austernite
D. Delta solid solution
90. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?

A. Sulfur
B. Phosphorus
C. Silicon
D. Manganese

91. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened
is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000oF?

A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
C. Carburizing
D. Nitriding

92. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test?

A. 10 mm ball
B. 120 diamond (brale)
C. 1.6 mm diameter ball
D. 20needle

93. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of
the test bar?

A. Tensile strength
B. Yield strength
C. Shear strength
D. Flexural Strength

94. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic ranger?

A. Poissons ratio
B. Refractive index
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Percent elongation

95. What is a measure of rigidity?

A. Stiffness
B. Hardness
C. Strength
D. Modulus of elasticity

96. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures,
within the gage length is called _______.

A. percent elongation
B. creep
C. elasticity
D. elongation

97. What impurity in steel can cause red shortness, which means the steel becomes unworkable
at high temperature?

A. Sulfur
B. Silicon
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus

98. What is a process of producing a hard surf ace in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon
content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?

A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Induction hardening
99. What is the common reinforcement for polymer composites?

A. Boron
B. Ceramic
C. Graphite
D. Glass fiber

100. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity?

A. Electrolyte
B. Water
C. Solution
D. Acid

101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

A. Cracking
B. Pitting
C. Cavitation
D. Erosion

102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses?

A. Dezincification
B. Graphitization
C. Stabilization
D. Dealloying

103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?

A. Expoliation
B. Corrosion fatigue
C. Scaping
D. Fretting

104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?

A. Stray current corrosion


B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion

105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude
(20 to 100 m) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?

A. Stray current corrosion


B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion

106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.

Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not good
conduction of electricity.
The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals.
Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.

107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ______
percent.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?

The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.
Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.
Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.

109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?

Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel


Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
Iron, chromium, carbon and copper

110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ time that of carbon
steel.

5
6
10
15

111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

Casting
Molding
Forming
All of the choices

112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?

A. Water-cooled metal cavities


B. machined metal holding blocks
C. Ejection mechanism
D. Metal mold (matching halves)

113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite?

A. Ductile iron
B. Wrought iron
C. Gray iron
D. White iron

114. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resin-
impregnated glass stands through a die?

A. Continuous pultrusion
B. Bulk molding
C. Vacuum bag forming
D. Resin transfer moulding

115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products
of alcohols and acids?

A. Alkaline
B. Alkydes
C. Alcocids
D. Aldehyde

116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?

A. 13XX
B. 23XX
C. 25XX
D. 31XX
117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?

A. 13XX
B. 31XX
C. 23XX
D. 12XX

118. What does AISI stands for?

A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries


B. American Institute of Steel Industries
C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
D. American Iron and Steel Institute

119. What does SAE stands for?

A. Society of Automotive Engineers


B. Society of American Engineers
C. Society of Architects and Engineers
D. Society of Alloy Engineers

120. What does ASTM stands for?

A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials


B. American Society for Testing and Materials
C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials
D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials

121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?

A. 12% to 18%
B. 10% to 12%
C. 16% to 20%
D. 20% to 24%

122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?

A. 600 C to 1100 C o o
B. 1000 o C to 1500 o C
C. 1100 o C to 2000 o C
D. 200 o C to 800 o C

123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except:

A. Molybdenum
B. Tungsten
C. Cobalt
D. Chromium

124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?

A. 0.10
B. 0.20
C. 0.30
D. 0.40

125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?

A. 0.15 to 0.30
B. 0.05 to 0.15
C. 0.30 to 0.45
D. 0.45 to 0.60

126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?

A. 1 to 5
B. 5 to 10
C. 11 to 14
D. 14 to 18
127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _______, that is, the
hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked.

A. cold harden
B. stress harden
C. cool-temperature
D. strain harden

128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium?

A. 4 to 8
B. 9 to 10
C. 11 to 17
D. 17 to 21

129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it
will become hard?

A. Caburizing
B. Casehardening
C. Annealing
D. Surfacehardening

130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?

A. Malleability
B. Hardenability
C. Spheroidability
D. Rigidity

131. What is the equilibirium temperature of transf ormation of austenite to pearlite?

A. 1000 o F
B. 1333 o F
C. 1666 o F
D. 1222 F o

132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ____________.

A. 770 C o
B. 550 o C
C. 660 o C
D. 440 o C

133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of
the curve?

A. Pearlite
B. Bainite
C. Austenite
D. Martensite

134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temper ature
to 1670 F? o

A. Beta iron
B. Gamma iron
C. Delta iron
D. Alpha iron

135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000 o F for up to 100 hours in an
ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?

A. Nitriding
B. Flame hardening
C. Precipitaion hardening
D. Carburizing
136. What is the chief ore of tin?

A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Ilmanite
D. Galena

137. What is the chief ore of zinc?

A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Sphalerite
D. Ilmanite

138. What is the chief ore of titanium?

A. Sphalerite
B. Ilmanite
C. Bauxite
D. Cassiterite

139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?

A. Bauxite
B. Rutile
C. Galera
D. Sphalerite

140. The term brass is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:

A. copper and zinc


B. aluminum and iron
C. copper and aluminum
D. zinc and nickel

141. The term bronze is used to designate any alloy containing:

A. copper and zinc


B. copper and aluminum
C. copper and nickel
D. copper and tin

142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What
does the first digit indicates?

A. The purity of aluminum


B. The identity of the alloy
C. The alloy group
D. The strength of the alloy

143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents?

A. The purity of aluminum


B. The identity of the alloy
C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits
D. The alloy group

144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number
indicates what condition of the alloy?

A. As fabricated
B. Strain hardened
C. Annealed
D. Artificially aged
145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:

A. Zinc alloys
B. Magnesium alloys
C. Manganese alloys
D. Aluminum alloys

146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?

A. 25000 lbf/in 2
B. 35000 lbf/in 2
C. 50000 lbf/in 2
D. 100000 lbf/in 2

147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?

A. less than 0.1 percent


B. exactly 0.1 percent
C. more than 0.1 percent
D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent

148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?

A. 10%
B. 14%
C. 18%
D. 22%

149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called
______.

A. yellow brass
B. red brass
C. Muntz metal
D. white brass

150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?

A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

151. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?

A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 40%

152. Indicate the false statement.

Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.


Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners.
Bronze is a copper-tin alloy.
Tin is relatively soluble in copper.

153. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

A. Aluminum
B. Steel
C. Iron
D. Copper

154. Indicate the false statement about aluminum.

A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel.


B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel.
C. It has high strength-to-weight ratio.
D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.
155. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?

A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting.


B. Improve conductivity
C. Lowers castability
D. Improves machinability

156. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?

A. Increase strength up to about 12%


B. Reduces shrinkage
C. Improves machinability
D. Increases fluidity in casting

157. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for
permanent magnets?

A. Invar and Nilvar


B. Nichrome and Constantan
C. Elinvar and Invar
D. Alnico and Conife

158. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except:

A. lime
B. silica
C. alumina
D. asphalt

159. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear
region in the stress-strain diagr am?

A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Proportionality limit
C. Secant modulus
D. Tangent modulus

160. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?

A. Jominy end-quench test


B. The lever rule
C. Gibbs phase test
D. Stress relief test

161. What steel relief process is used with hypocutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?

A. Tempering
B. Normalizing
C. Annealing
D. Spheroidizing

162. What is another term for tempering?

A. Recrystalization
B. Annealing
C. Spheroidizing
D. Drawing or toughening

163. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?

A. Carburizing
B. Flame hardening
C. Nitriding
D. Annealing

164. For metric wire gage, the No. 2 wir e is ________ in diameter.

A. 0.1 mm
B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.3 mm
D. 0.4 mm
165. Bus bars of rectangular cross section are generally used for carrying ________.

A. high electric current


B. low electric current
C. high voltage
D. low voltage

166. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards?

A. Unlaminated flat conductors


B. Insulated conductors
C. Rounded flexible conductors
D. Flat flexible conductors

167. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion
resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper?

A. 65%
B. 35%
C. 55%
D. 45%

168. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generator?

A. yellow brass
B. Beryllium copper
C. Tin Bronze
D. Phosphor bronze

169. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in O -cm?

A. 1.76
B. 1.71
C. 1.67
D. 3.10

170. What should be the resistivity in O -cm of a resistor material?

A. 200 300
B. 100 200
C. 50 150
D. 10 50

171. What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry?

A. Polymer
B. Plastic
C. Rubber
D. All of the above

172. What are natural or synthetic rubber like materials which have outstanding elastic
characteristics?

A. Thermosetting plastics
B. Polymers
C. Elastomers
D. Thermoplastic plastics

173. What are cellular forms of urethanes, polystyrenes, vinyls, polyehtylenes, polypropylenes,
phenolics, epoxies and variety of other plastics?

A. Thermoplastic plastics
B. Plastic foams
C. Polymers
D. Thermosetting plastics
174. What is the widely used electrical insulator?

A. Plastic
B. Polymer
C. Epoxy
D. Paper

175. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper?

A. 6 to 12 MV/m
B. 8 to 14 MV/m
C. 10 to 16 MV/m
D. 12 to 18 MV/m

176. What is the most widely known carbide?

A. Carbon carbide
B. Lead carbide
C. Germanium carbide
D. silicon carbide

177. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to _____.

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 500

178. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors?

A. 500 to 10,000
B. 1,000 to 10,000
C. 500 to 5,000
D. 100 to 1,000

179. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings?

A. Alkyds
B. Acrylics
C. Epoxies
D. Vinyls

180. What is widely used in the electronic industry as a structural member, such as tube
envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated
circuits, etc.?

A. Glass
B. Plastic
C. Silica
D. Film

181. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100 o C below their softening point to form
a very fine network of crystalline phase?

A. Fused silica
B. Glass ceramics
C. Fused quartz
D. Fiber glass

182. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging
called the ____________.

A. aging index
B. aging factor
C. aging coefficient
D. aging point
183. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called
____________.

A. magnetic anisotropy
B. magnetoresistance
C. magnetostriction
D. magnetizing factor

184. Which material is used for de application such as electromagnetic cores and relays?

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Steel
D. Aluminum

185. Which of the following is known as electrical steel?

A. Silicon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Carbon steel
D. Cast Steel

186. What is the highest-frequency ferrite?

A. Garnet
B. Spinel
C. Mumetal
D. Superinvar

187. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and
injection lasers?

A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallian Phosphide

188. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red
light?

A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallium Phosphide

189. Lead compounds such as load sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which
application?

A. Diodes and transistors at low temperature


B. Infrared detectors
C. Thermoelectric applications
D. All of the above

190. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator?

A. Sphere
B. Square pyramid
C. Asymmetrical pyramid
D. Cube
191. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material?

A. Knoop test
B. Vickers test
C. File hardness test
D. Toughness test

192. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point?

A. Elastic toughness
B. Fatigue
C. Hardness
D. Creep strain

193. The following are typical properties of ceramics except one. Which one?

A. High melting point


B. High compressive strength
C. High corrosion resistance
D. High thermal conductivity

194. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to
several thousand?

A. Polymerization constant
B. Polymerization factor
C. Degree of polymerization
D. Polemerization index

195. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat
temperature and contain 15 to 20% chromium?

A. Alnico
B. Nichrome
C. Invar
D. Nilvar

196. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon?

A. 96%
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 69%

197. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties?

A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Beryllium
D. Zinc

198. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard?

A. Aluminum
B. Zinc
C. Lead
D. Silicon

199. What element constitutes the major component of most bronzes?

A. Zinc
B. Tin
C. Lead
D. Aluminum

200. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Tin
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
A man borrows P6, 400 from a loan association. In repaying this dept, he has to pay P400 at
the end of ever y 3 months on the principal and a simple interest of 16% on the principal
outstanding at that time. Determine the total amount he has paid after paying all his debt.
P 7490
P 8576
P12 400
P6850
If the sum of P12 000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded
quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 year s?
P24, 457.24
P57, 420.42
P42, 516.12
P30, 632.50
When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase
in output. This law is _________.
Law of diminishing Return
Law of Diminishing Utility
Law of Supply
Law of Demand
It occurs when the mathematical product of pr ice and volume of sales remains constant
regardless of any change in price.
Elastic demand
Inelastic demand
Unitary demand
Utility
It exists when a certain product or service is offered by many suppliers and there is no
restriction against other suppliers from entering the market. This is _________.
Monopoly
Competition
Oligopoly
Anomaly
It is an annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic payment
continue indefinitely.
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
A jeepney worth P 318 650 cash could also be purchased with a down payment of P 127 460
and 24 monthly installments of P11, 320 at the end of each month. Determine the
nominal rate of interest.
36.3% compounded monthly
30.5% compounded monthly
25.15% compounded monthly
32.5% compounded monthly

A businessman bought a communication equipment costing P25000 payable in 10 semi-


annual payments, each installment payable at the beginning of each period. If rate of
interest is 26% compounded semi-annually, what is the amount of each installment?
P 4277.70
P 4770.20
P 4777.20
P 4077.20
It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is designed to
produce a profit.
Write off period
Physical life
Economic life
Perpetual life
It includes the original purchase price, freight and transportation charges, installation
expenses, initial taxes and permits to operate and all other expenses needed to put the
equipment into operation.
Depreciation cost
First cost
Salvage cost
Scrap cost
It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each year.
Matheson Formula
Straight Line method
SYD Method
Sinking Fund Method
A certain company makes it a policy that for any pieces of equipment, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 10% of the original cost at any time with no salvage
value. Determine the length of the service life necessary if the depreciation method is
straight line.
8 yrs
12 yrs
10 yrs
6 yrs
A contractor imported an equipment paying P 2 500 000 to manufacturer. Freight and
insurance charges amounted to P180, 000; customs brokers fee and arrastre services, P
85, 000; taxes, permits and installation expenses, P250, 000. The life of the unit is 10
years. Determine the book value of the unit at the end of years using sinking fund method
at 8% interest. Salvage value is 10% of the first cost.
P 1,589,496.90
P 1,165,430.50
P 1,805,460.50
None of these

A certain annuity pays P100 at the end of each interest per period. If the present value of the
annuity is P 2, 000, and the accumulated amount is P3500. Find the nominal rate of
interest if it compounds quarterly.
6.45%
12.5%
10.5%
8.56%
A loan of P30000 was to be amortized by a series of 10 equal semi-annual payments, the 1 st
payment being made 6 months after the loan was granted. The debtor continued paying
the semi-annual installments but immediately after the sixth payments he was in the
position to pay the remaining balance. What single amount must be paid if the interest is
14% compounded semi-annually?
P 14,467.84
P 16,750,50
P 18,120.50
P 12,845.60
It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it which can engage in
practically any business transacti0on which a real person can do.
Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Corporation
None of these
A 100 kg block of ice is released at the top of a 30 degrees incline plane 10 m above the
ground. If the slight melting of the ice renders the surface frictionless, calculate the
velocity at the foot of the incline plane.
14.1 m/s
16.5 m/s
9.64 m/s
12.8 m/s
It is the study of the changes in the motion of rigid bodies produced by an unbalanced force
system, and of the means of determining the forces required to produce any desired
change in its motion.
Kinematics
Statics
Kinetics
Robotics
A branch of mechanics which deals with the study of motion without consideration of the
forces causing the motion.
Kinematics
Statics
Kinetics
Robotics
This law states that in every action there is an opposite and equal reaction.
Newtons 2 law nd
Newtons 3 law rd
Varignons theorem
DAlemberts Principles
These are system of forces whereby all forces dont meet even of they are extended along
their line of axes.
Concurrent forces
Parallel forces
Forces in space
Non-concurrent forces
These are two or more forces which has the same effect as that of a single force.
Resultant
Equilibrant
Component
Parallel
It is the temperature reading whereby it is the same in the Fahrenheit and Celsius scale.
40 C o
-50 C o
-40 C o
-10 o C
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a force couple:
The resultant force of a couple is zero
The moment of a couple is independent of its distance from the moment axis
The force couple must always be parallel with one another
The force couple must be going on the same direction
A car staring from rest pick-up at a uniform rate and passes three electric post in succession.
The post is spaced 360 cm apart along a street road. The car takes 10 seconds to travel
from the first post to the second post and takes 6 seconds to go from the 2 nd to the 3 rd
post. Where did the car started from the first post?
73.5 m
75.3 cm
57.3
35.7 m
It is the product of the mass of a body and its instantaneous velocity
Impulse
Momentum
Centroid
Moment

When the force is divided by the r esisting area parallel to it.


Shearing stress
Normal stress
Axial stress
Bearing stress
A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How
long will it take the body to return to the ground?
7.85 seconds
12.5 seconds
5.1 seconds
10.2 seconds
It is a beam where one end is fixed or restrained and the other end is simply supported
Simple beam
Cantilever beam
Propped beam
Overhanging beam
The point on the beam where the shear is zero
Point of inflection
Maximum shear
Maximum moment reaction
Reaction
The shear stress of a solid circular shaft has the formula _________.
16T/(pi)d^2
16T/(pi)d^4
16T/(pi)d^3
16T/(pi)d
A simply supported beam carries a concentrated load of 120 kN. If the span is 8 m, the
maximum moment developed is ________.
240 kN-m
160 kN-m
204 kN-m
402 kN-m
A solid circular shaft is subjected to a torsion of 4775 N-m when transmitting power at 200
rpm. The transmitted power is _______.
20 kW
200 kW
10 kW
100 kW

Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This law is _______.
Guy Lussacs Law
Hookes Law
Van der Walls Law
Charles Law
The deformation due to the applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.
PL/2AE
PL/AE
PL 2 /AE
PA/EL
A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is
______________.
Rectangle
Triangle
2 degree nd
3 degree rd
At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every
time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.
8 rpm
12 rpm
10.6 rpm
9.97 rpm
A car must attain a speed of 65 kph for zero side thrust. If coefficient of friction is 0.60, what
maximum safe speed at which the car can go without sliding up the curvature of the 100
m radius?
100 kph
90 kph
122 kph
130 kph
It is a quantity whereby it has a magnitude and sense of direction.
Scalar quantity
Vector quantity
Product
Difference
A cable has its ends at the same level which are 100m away. It weighs 5 kg/m and with a sag
of 8 m at its center. The tension at the sag is ______.
708.25 kg
615.7 kg
781.25 kg

A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. if coefficient of restitution is
0.95, what height will it attain on its 5 th bounce?
3m
8m
4m
6m
Turbines are driven by water from a dam through a 60 cm diameter penstock at a total head
of 100m. The available power from each tribune is _______.
12.286 mW
18.62 mW
16.82 mW
20.56 mW
An object was fired at an initial velocity of 50 m/s at an inclination of 60 with
the o
horizontal. How long did it take the object to strike the ground if it was fired at the same
level with its range?
12.83 sec
10.25 sec
8.83 sec
9.58 sec
How long will it take for a 2 Hp pump to fill a cylindrical tank with water if the radius of the
tank is 4 m and height is 6 m. water is pumped thru the bottom from a source 12 from the
base of the tank.
5.5 hrs
6.45 hrs
8.26 hrs
7.6 hrs
The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base is b and a height of h with respect to the base
is ________.
bh /3 3
bh /12 3
bh 3 /36
bh 3 /4
The force required to pull a body resting on a horizontal surface whose coefficient of friction
is f is minimum when force is applied.
Horizontally
30 o
45 o
arctan f
The energy involved due to the motion of the body is _____.
Potential energy
Kinetic energy
Work energy
Power

A 2 m long uniform rod whose diameter is 4 cm is subjected to an axial tensile force of 200
kN. The young Modulus of elasticity is 100 GPa. The rod is elongated by _______.
2.56 mm
1.38 mm
3.18 mm
3.81 mm
A beam of negligible weight carries a concentrated load of 60 kN applied at center in a span
of 6 m. The maximum moment developed is _______.
90 kN-m
120 kN-m
180 kN-m
100 kN-m
The frictional force on a body is dependent on the following except:
Degree of roughness of contract surf ace
Area of contract surface
Normal force
Weight of body
It repr esents the ownership of stockholder who has residual claim on the assets of the
corporation after all the claims have been settled.
Preferred stock
Common stock
Bond
Capital
This bond is without security behind it except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation.
Debenture bond
Joint bond
Lien bond
Mortgage bond
These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any changes in operation or
policy which is made.
Increment cost
Differential cost
Fixed cost
Variable cost
When free competition exists the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal
to the demand this is __________.
Law of supply
Law of diminishing return
Law of supply and demand
Law of demand

It occurs when there are few suppliers of the product pr service and any action taken by
anyone of them will definitely affect the course of action of the others
Monopoly
Competition
Utility
Oligopoly
It is that element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration
and the patronage of its customers arising from its well known and well conducted
policies and operations.
Good-will value
Salvage value
Fair value
Book value
It is the sum of its cost and present worth of all costs for the replacement, operating and
maintenance for a long time or forever.
First cost
Capitalized cost
Original cost
None of these
It is an annuity where the payment periods extend forever or in which the periodic payments
continue indefinitely.
Ordinary annuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
Perpetuity
The basic assumption for this method of depreciation is that the annual cost of depreciation is
constant percentage of the salvage value at the beginning of the year.
Straight Line Method
Sinking Fund method
SYD Method
Matheson Formula
The rate of time at which the original cost or capital used to purchase a unit have already
been recovered is _____.
Economic life
Write-off period
Physical life
It is a legal distinct entity, separate from the individuals who own it, and which can engage in
practically any business transaction which a real person can do.
Corporation
Partnership
Conglomerate
Proprietorship
This is the level of production whereby the total income is just equal to the total expenses
resulting in no profit.
Kelvins law
Break-even point
Unhealthy point
Minimum cost Analysis
Determine the exact simple interest on P 5, 000.00 from the period January 15 to June 20,
1996 if the rate of simple interest is 14%.
P299.18
P303.33
P279.82
P309.18
If the sum of P12000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded
quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 years?
P 20,642.50
P 32,120.30
P 26,132.32
P 24,457.24
Find the nominal rate compounded monthly which is equivalent to 12% compounded
quarterly.
11.882%
12.6%
10.5%
12.3%
A certain annuity pays P80 at the end of every quarter. If the resent value of the annuity is
P1200 and the accumulated amount is P2000, determine the nominal rate of interest.
11.35 percent
9.37 percent
10.67 percent
12.6 percent
For its plant expansion, a company sets aside P 200,000 at the end of each year. It interest is
8% compounded annually, how long before P 2,500,000 can be accumulated?
8 yrs
9 yrs
10 yrs
11 yrs
A machine has a first cost of P 130,000 and an estimated life of 15 years with a salvage value
of P10, 000. Using the straight line method, find the annual depreciation charge.
P 8,000
P 9,000
P 7,000
P 6,000
A telephone switchboard cable can be made up of either enameled wire or tinned wire. There
are 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled wire is
P33; on tinned wire is P23. A cable made of enameled wire coast P11 per linear meter
and tinned wire P15.20 per linear meter. Calculate the length of cable used so that the
cost of each installation will be the same.
892 m
726 m
846 m
953 m
A man borrows P 10,000 from a loan association. The rate of simple interest is 15%. But the
interest is to be deducted from the load at the time the money is borrowed. At the end of
one year, he has to pay back P10, 000. What is the actual rate of interest?
15%
16.5%
17.65%
18%
An employee obtained a loan P 100,000 at a rate of 6% compounded annually in order to
build a house. How much must he pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10
years?
P 2,040.30
P 1,102.40
P 1,200.50
P 1,350.60
How many years will it take a unit deposit to triple if interest is 18% compounded daily.
6.5 yrs
5.8 yrs
6.1 yrs
7.2 yrs
It is a decrease in value due to some factors, like new models have been manufactured and
shift of population.
Physical depreciation
Depletion
Functional depreciation
Deflation
Depletion
Functional depreciation
Deflation
It is the distance from its moment of inertia axis at which the entire area can be considered as
being concentrated without changing its moment of inertia.
Centroid
Radius of gyration
Center of gravity
Neutral axis
The maximum moment of simply supported beam carrying a uniform load throughout its
length L and carrying a uniform load whose intensity is W/L is ____.
wL 2 /8
wL /12 2
wL /4 2
wL /2 2
A process of joining two or more parts by depositing fused metal from a slender rod along
the joint between them and allowing it to cool, the heat of fusion being applied either by
an electric arc or by an oxyacetylene torch.
Welding
Riveting
Soldering
None of these
The shearing stress developed on a soled circular shaft whose diameter is d and subjected to a
torsion T is _________.
16T/d 2
16T/d
16T/d 3
16T/d 4
It is the stress developed on a body when the force acting it os divided by the resisting area
parallel to it.
Axial stress
Shearing stress
Bearing stress
Compressive stress
A laterally supported beam 6 m long is carrying a concentrated load 30 kN applied at the
middle of the beam. The maximum moment caused by this load with the weight of the
beam is neglected is ________.
150 kN-m
280 kN-m
120 kN-m
180 kN-m
A solid circular shaft 6 cm in diameter was stressed to 40 MPa when transmitting power at
1200 rpm. What horsepower is transmitted? G= 100 GPa.
245.85 hp
285.75 hp
320.50 hp
296.45 hp
A beam carrier a 20 kN/m uniform load throughout its length. It is 30 cm wide and 40 cm
deep. If it is 8 m long and neglecting its own weight, the maximum flexural stress
developed is ______.
25 MPa
30 MPa
18 MPa
20 MPa
A rod tapers from a diameter of 5 cm to 2 cm in a length of 2 m. What axial tensile load can
elongate the rod by 0.1mm if E=100 GPa.
1309 kN
2050 kN
1200 kN
1500 kN
The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base b and height h with respect to its centroid is
_____.
bh /12 3
bh 3 /30
bh 3 /36
bh 3 /3
An object was fired at an inclination of 60 o with the horizontal with an initial velocity of 100
m/s/ the total time it will be in air is _______.
17.66 s
18.5 s
16.4 s
19.2 s
A 6 m long beam carries a 60 kN concentrated load applied at its midspan. If bam is simply
supported the maximum moment is _______.
80 kN-m
90 kN-m
120 kN-m
70 kN-m
It is a physical quantity that possesses both the magnitude and direction.
Scalar quantity
Vector quantity
Resultant
Displacement
The product of a force and moment which tends to produce rotational motion
Torque
Resultant
Equilibrant
Couple
The velocity which an object needs to overcome the gravitational force of a planet.
Orbiting velocity
Angular velocity
Escape velocity
Linear velocity
It is the force that opposes the relative motion of body at r est or in motion.
Centrifugal force
Frictional force
Centripetal force
Resultant force
It is a thermodynamic process where there is no change in temperature
Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Adiabatic process
Isentropic process
It is the product of the force and the time during which it acts on a body.
Impulse
Momentum
Work
Power
The force between point charges is proportional to the product of the charges and inversely
proportional with the square of the distance between them.
Ohms Law
Avogadros Law
Coulombs Law
Faradays Law
Which of the following is a vector quantity:
Entropy
Electric field intensity
Kinetic energy
Charge
Evaluate (2i-3j)(i+j-k)(3i-k)
6
3
4
5
A ping pong ball was dropped from a height of 10 m into a cement slab. If coefficient of
restitution is 0.95, what height does the ball attain on its 5 bounce. th
6.88 m
5.99 m
8m
7.5 m
A 100 g bullet was fired into a 5 kg block suspended at the end of a 3 m long sting. Due to
impact caused by bullet, the block was thrown, thus the string subtended 50 o with the
vertical. If the bullet was embedded on the block, find the muzzle velocity of the bullet.
200.6 m/s
252.6 m/s
213.5 m/s
233.85 m/s
A block was made to slide down a 30 o incline plane. If coefficient of friction between the
block and the plane is 0.30, how long will it take the block to travel 20 m from the rest?
5.65 s
4.12 s
3.55 s
6.55 s
GENERAL ENGINEERING II

Refers to the continuous emission of energy from the surface of all bodies.
Convection
Radiation
Conduction
Emission
It is the ratio of the change in velocity that occurs within the time interval to that time
interval
Instantaneous acceleration
Constant acceleration
Average acceleration
Speed
It is a single force whose magnitude is equal to the resultant but oppositely directed.
Equivalent force
Co-planar
The discount of one unit of principal for one unit of time.
Rate discount
Nominal discount
Actual discount
Sales discount
An annuity whereby the payment is postponed for a certain period of time is?
Ordinary annuity
Suspended annuity
Deferred annuity
Annuity due
The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as?
Compounded interest
Nominal interest
Simple interest
Effective interest
A bond where the security behind it are the equipment of the issuing corporation.
Debenture
Mortgage
Collateral
Lien
Characterized by a few supplies of a product/services that the action by one will almost
inevitably result in the similar action by the other.
Monopoly
Oligopoly
Competition
Necessity
It is the worth of a property as shown on the accounting records.
Resale value
Face value
Book value
Written value
The decrease in the value of a property due to gradual extraction of its contents.
Depreciation
Depletion
Devaluation
Deviation
It is usually determined by a disinterested third party to establish a price good enough to both
the seller and the buyer.
Fair value
Market value
Common value
Safe value
The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or services in a given region
of the country.
Outlet
Branch
Extension
Franchise
It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs or replacement, operation and
maintenance.
Total cost
Capitalized cost
Initial cost
Variable cost
A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and
guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries.
Collateral
Bond
Mortgage
Contract
What the property is worth to the owner as an operating unit.
Utility value
Present value
Salvage value
Resale value
Occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing
to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
Free market
Perfect competition
Open market
Law of supply and demand
In making economy studies a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included as
a cost. A method called as __________.
Rate of return
Annual cost pattern
Present worth pattern
Capital cost
Annuity is required over 10 years to equate to a future amount of P 15, 000 with i=5%
P 1, 192.57
P 1, 912.75
P 1, 219.60
P 1, 921.65

A debt of P 1000 is to be paid off in 5 equal yearly payments, each combining an


amortization installment and interest at 4% on the previously unpaid balance of the debt.
What should be the amount of each payment?
P 220.50
P 224.62
P 242.61
P 222.50
P 1000 is deposited in a bank at 7% interest. What is the value of the money after 25 years,
assuming that nothing was deposited after the initial deposit?
P 5, 247.63
P 5, 437.34
P 5, 427.43
P 5, 720.51
What is the interest due on a P 1500 note for 4 years and 3 month, if it bears 12% ordinary
simple interest?
P 756
P 765
P 675
P 576
A P 1000-bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond r ate of 10% payable annually
is to be redeemed at P 1040 at the end of this period. If it is sold now at P
1,120.
Determine the yield at this price.
4.68%
6.48%
8.64%
8.46%
A company sets aside P 300,000 each year as a fund for expansion. If the fund earns 9%
compounded annually, determine how long will it take before a building costing P 3, 000,
000 can be built?
7.34 years
7.44 years
7.20 years
7.54 years
A man sold 7 more than 5/8 of his load of apple, after which he had 9 less than 2/5 of his
original load left. What was the original load?
80

The sum of the digit of the 3-digit number is 11. If we interchange the first and the last digits,
the new number is greater than the original number by 594. If we interchange the last two
digits of the new number, the resulting number is greater than the original by 576. Find
the original number.
137
147
127
157
In how many minutes after 2 oclock will the hands a clock first be at right angle to each
other?
27 3/11
23 7/11
11 3/7
3 11/27
A train an hour after starting, meets an accident which delayed the trip for one hour, after
which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives 3 hrs after time. Had the incident
happened 50 km further out the line, it would have arrived 3/2 hrs sooner. Find the length
of the journey?
98.88 km
88.88 km
78 km
68.88 km
A boat can go 12 kph in still water. Going full sped it goes 25 km upstream in the same time
it takes it to go 35 km downstream. What is the rate of the current?
1.5 kph
2.5 kph
2 kph
2.75 kph
Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?
Arithmetic mean
Median
Root mean square
Range
If Jun is 10% taller than Rene and Rene is 10% taller than Daf, then Jun is taller than Daf by
__ %
18%
19%
23%
21%
23%
21%
Find the standard deviation of 11, 13, 16, 18, 20 and 22
3.82
3.72
3.52
3.62
If = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3., find the value of x?
-1/2

-1/3
1/3
In statistics, the standard deviation means?
Central tendency
Dispersion
Distribution
Frequency

If the supplement of an angle is 5/2 of its compliment, find the angle.


25 degrees
30 degrees
20 degrees
15 degrees
A place on the terrestrial sphere has an altitude of 25 15N. how many nautical miles is that o
place from the north?
5, 883
5, 838
3, 885
5, 883
The point of concurrency of the perpendicular bisector of the sides of a triangle is called the
_______.
Incenter
Circumcenter
Centroid
Orthocenter
What is the apothem of a regular polygon having an area of 225 and perimeter of 60.
5.5
6.5
8.5
7.5
The deformation due to an applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.
PL/2AE
PL/AE
PL 2 /AE
PA/EL
At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every
time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.
7.99 rpm
9.97 rpm
10.97 rpm
8.99 rpm
A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How
long will it take the body to return to the ground?
10.2 sec
5.1 sec
7.8 sec
12.2 sec
Which of the following cannot be a probability value?
(0.99)^4
88/100
(0.59)^(1/3)
(0.50)^-1
If the eccentricity of a conic is less than 1, then it is _______.
A circle
An ellipse
A parabola
A hyperbola
The degree of y^3 + x = (y-xy)^-3 is
1
2
3
4
Find the Area bounded by y^2 = 4 x ad y^2=4-4x.
8
10
6
12
Find the equation of the family of curves for which the slope at any point is equal to the
reciprocal of the product of the coordinates of the point.
y^2=lnx + 2C
y^2=ln2x + C
y^2=2(lnx + C)
y^2=2lnx + Cx

Given 4x^2 + 8y^2 = 32, find y.


-8/y^3
-6/y^3
-2/y^3
-4/y^3
Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This is otherwise known as
_________.
Guy Lussacs Law
Hookes Law
Charles Law
L.A. Law
A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is ______.
Rectangle
Triangle
2 nd degree
3 rd degree
It is a beam where one end is fixed and the other end is simply supported.
Simple beam
Cantilever beam
Propped beam
Overhanging beam
A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. If the coefficient of restitution is
0.95, what height it will attain on its 5 th bounce?
4m
5m
6m
7m
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

Engineering Economy and Accounting

Jaime R. Tiong

Encoded by:

Mercado, Jose Carlo A.


1.) A bookstore purchased a best-selling book at P200.00 per copy. At what price should this
book be sold so that by giving a 20% discount, the profit is 30%

A. P200.00
B. P300.00
C. P400.00
D. P500.00

2.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average of 42%, what minimum rate of
return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 13.02%
B. 12.07%
C. 10.89%
D. 11.08%

3.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators.
Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5
days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the
line to meet the demand?

A. 1 hour
B. 1 hour and 10 minutes
C. 1 hour and 15 minutes
D. 1 hour and 30 minutes

4.) Dalisay Corporations gross margin is 45% of sales. Operating expenses such as sales and
administration are 15% of sales. Dalisay Corporation is in 40% tax bracket. What percent
of sales is their profit after taxes?

A. 21%
B. 20%
C. 19%
D. 18%

5.) In determining the cost involved in fabricating sub-assembly B within a company, the
following data have been gathered:

Direct material - P0.30 per unit


Direct labor - P0.50 per unit
Testing set-up - P300.00 per set-up

It is decided to subcontract the manufacturing of assembly B to an outside company. For


an order of 100 units, what is the cost per unit that is acceptable to the company?
A. P3.80
B. P4.00
C. P4.10
D. P4.20

6.) By selling balut at P5 per dozen, a vendor gains 20%. The cost of the eggs rises by
12.5%. If he sells at the same price as before, find his new gain in %.

A. 6.89%
B. 6.67%
C. 6.58%
D. 6.12%

7.) An equipment installation job in the completion stage can be completed in 50 days of 8
hour/day work, with 50 men working. With the contract expiring in 40 days, the
mechanical engineer contractor decided to add 15 men on the job, overtime not being
permitted.

If the liquidated damages is P5000 per day of delay, and the men are paid P150 per day,
how much money would he save with the additional workers?

A. P43,450
B. P43,750
C. P44,250
D. P44,750

8.) In a certain department store, the monthly salary of a saleslady is partly constant and
partly varies as the value of her sales for the month. When the value of her sales for the
month is P10,000.00, her salary for the month is P900.00. When her monthly sales go up
to P12,000.00, her monthly salary goes up to P1,000.00. What must be the value of her
sales so that her salary for the month will be P2,000.00?

A. P30,000
B. P31,000
C. P32,000
D. P33,000

9.) Jojo bought a second-hand Betamax VCR and then sold it to Rudy at a profit of 40%.
Rudy then sold the VCR to Noel at a profit of 20%. If Noel paid P2,856 more than it
costs Jojo, how much did Jojo pay for the unit?

A. P4,100
B. P3,900
C. P4,000
D. P4,200
10.) The selling price of a TV set is double that of its net cost. If the TV set is sold to a
customer at a profit of 25% of the net cost, how much discount was given to the
customer?

A. 37.5%
B. 37.9%
C. 38.2%
D. 38.5%

11.) A Mechanical Engineer who was awarded a P450,000 contract to install the
machineries of an oil mill failed to finish the work on time. As provided for in the
contract, he has to pay a daily penalty equivalent to one fourth of one per cent per day
for the first 10 days and 0.5% per day for the next 10 days and one per cent per day for
everyday thereafter. If the total penalty was P60,750.00, how many days was the
completion of the contract delayed?

A. 26 days
B. 27 days
C. 28 days
D. 29 days

12.) The quarrying cost of marble and granite blocks plus delivery cost to the processing
plant each is P2,400.00 per cubic meter. Processing cost of marble into tile is P200.00
per square meter and that of the granite into tiles also is P600.00 per square meter.

If marble has a net yield of 40 square meters of tile per cubic meter of block and sells
P400 per square meter, and granite gives a net yield of 50 square meters of tiles per
cubic meter of block and sells at P1000 per square meter. Considering all other costs to
be the same, the granite is more profitable than the marble by how much?

A. P12,000 per cubic meter


B. P13,000 per cubic meter
C. P14,000 per cubic meter
D. P15,000 per cubic meter

13.) A man would like to invest P50,000 in government bonds and stocks that will give an
overall annual return of about 5%. The money to be invested in government bonds will
give an annual return of 4.5% and the stocks of about 6%. The investments are in units
of P100.00 each. If he desires to keep his stock investment to minimum in order to
reduce his risk, determine how many stocks should be purchased.

A. 165
B. 166
C. 167
D. 168
14.) A 220 V 2 hp motor has an efficiency of 80%. If power costs P3.00 per kw-hr for the
first 50 kw-hr, 2.90 per kw-hr for the second 50 kw-hr, P2.80 for the third kw-hr and so
on until a minimum of P2.50 per kw-hr is reached. How much does it cost to run this
motor continuously for 7 days?

A. P800
B. P820
C. P840
D. P860

15.) An 8-meter concrete road pavement 500 meters long is desired to be constructed over a
well-compacted gravel road, together with the necessary concrete curbs and gutters on
both sides. In order to put the subgrade on an even level grade, a 500 cubic meters of
sand filling is necessary, over which the 10 inch concrete pavement will be placed?

Assume the following data:

A. Sand fill, including rolling and watering = P100 per cubic meter
B. Concrete pavement, 10 in thick (labor and materials) including curing = P220
per sq. Meter
C. Curbs and gutters = P12 per linear meter

How much will the project cost allowing 15% for contingency?

A. P1,207,000
B. P1,207,500
C. P1,208,000
D. P1,208,500

16.) An electric utility purchases 2,300,000 kw-hr per month of electric energy from
National Power Corporation at P2.00 per kw-hr and sells all this to consumers after
deducting distribution losses of 20%. At what average rate per kw-hr should this energy
be sold to break even if the following are other monthly expenses in its operation:

Taxes 2.5 % of gross revenue


Salaries P750,000
Depreciation P2,250,000
Interest P700,000
Maintenance P300,000
Miscellaneous P200,000

A. P4.90
B. P5.20
C. P5.90
D. P6.30
17.) An engineer bidding on the asphalting of 7 km stretch of road is confronted with a
problem of choosing between two possible sites on which to set-up the asphalt-mixing
machine.

Site A Site B
Average hauling distance 2.5 km 2.75 km
Monthly rental P35,000 P6,500
Installing and dismantling of machine P20,000 P10,000

At Site A, it would be necessary to hire 2 flagmen at P150 per working day. The job
can be completed in 32 weeks working 6 days a week. The project requires 16,670
cubic meter of asphalt mix per kilometre of road. If the asphalt mix is to be hauled by a
contractor at P42 per cubic meter per km of haul. How much is site B more expensive
than site A?

A. P949,645
B. P962,101
C. P956,807
D. P974,090

18.) A fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed manufacturing


plant and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated
to be 10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total
investment if the annual profit is P2,500,000.

A. 28.33%
B. 29.34%
C. 30.12%
D. 30.78%

19.) A call to bid was advertised in the Philippine Daily Inquirer for the construction of a
transmission line from a mini-hydroelectric power plant to the substation which is
5.035 kilometers away. The tanalized timber electrical posts must be placed at an
interval of 50 m. The electrical posts must be 30 feet long, 8 inches in diameter at the
tip and 12 inches in diameter at the butt. The power house is 15 m from the first electric
post and the substation is 20 m from the last electric post. Compute the estimated cost
for the project using the following data:

Cost of one tanalized timber post 30 feet long is P5,000 including delivery to the site.
Labourer at P180 per day and 5 laborers can dig and erect 3 posts per day. Electrician at
P250 per day and 4 electricians can strung wires complete 150 meters per day. Electric
wire cost P4.00 per meter. Use only 5 laborers and 4 electricians for the project and is
supervised by a foreman which is paid at P400 per day. Contingency is 10% and profit
is 25%.

A. P745,890.23
B. P817,692.00
C. P789,120.80
D. P829,592.50

20.) Upon the retirement after 44 years in government service, Mrs. Salud Araoarao was
able to get a retirement lump sum of P2,300,000. As a hedge against inflation, she
decided to use a part of it invested in real state at Pagadian City and the remainder were
invested as follows:

A. 30% in T-bills earning 12% interest


B. 35% in money market placement earning 14%
C. 35% in blue chip stock earning 13%

If her annual earnings from the T-bills, money market and stock is P50,000, How much
did she invests in real estate?

A. P2,091,639.12
B. P1,916,858.24
C. P1,856,120.53
D. P1,790,274.78

21.) The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Alarde is 3200 pieces.
With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cuffing cost is P25.00. An electrically
operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Alarde at a price of P275,000.00 and
which cuts by 30% the unit cuffing cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many
months will Mr. Alarde be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy
now?

A. 10 months
B. 11 months
C. 12 months
D. 13 months

22.) In a new gold mining area in Southern Leyte the ore contains on the average of ten
ounces of gold per ton. Different methods of processing are tabulated as follows:

Processing Method Cost per ton % Recovery


A P5,500 90
B P2,500 80
C P400 70

If gold can be sold at P4,000 per ounce, which method of processing yield the biggest
return?

A. Processing method A
B. Processing method B
C. Processing method C
D. Either of the processing methods B or C

23.) JRT Motors Inc. has been shipping its Suzuki engines in containers to avoid the
necessary crating of the engines. JRT Motors Inc. will pay freight on container load of
40 tons, regardless of whether or not the container is completely filled with engines.
Record shows that due to engine size, JRT Motors Inc. has shipped only 30 tons per
container. Freight of container cost P3.00 per kilograms.

If the engines are crated so that they can be shipped at the rate of P3.50 per hundred
kilograms with the freight bill computed only on the actual weight shipped. The cost of
crating would be P50 per engine and would increase the shipping weight from 1500 kg
to 1520 kg per engine. How much more economical shipping the engine in crates than
in containers?

A. P670 per engine


B. P630 per engine
C. P650 per engine
D. P610 per engine

24.) A paint manufacturing company uses a sand mill for fine grinding of paint with an
output of 100 liters per hour using glass beads as grinding media. Media load in the mill
is 25 kg costing P200.00 per kg and is fully replenished in 2 months time at 8 hours per
day operation, 25 days a month. A ceramic grinding media is offered to this paint
company, costing P400 per kg and needs 30 kg load in the sand mill, but guarantees an
output of 120 liters per hour and full replenishment of media in 3 months. If profit on
paint reduction is P15 per liter how much is a difference in profit between the two
media?

A. P436,900
B. P462,000
C. P473,000
D. P498,200

25.) If P1000 accumulates to P1500 when invested at a simple interest for three years, what
is the rate of interest?

A. 14.12%
B. 15.89%
C. 16.67%
D. 16.97%

26.) You loan from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20%
but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at
the end of one year, you have to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate
of interest?
A. 23.5%
B. 24.7%
C. 25.0%
D. 25.8%

27.) A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%,
what future amount is due at the end of the loan period?

A. P5,937.50
B. P5,873.20
C. P5,712.40
D. P5,690.12

28.) If you borrowed money from your friend with simple interest at 12%, find the present
worth of P50,000, which is due at the end of 7 months.

A. P46,728.97
B. P47,098.12
C. P47,890.12
D. P48,090.21

29.) Mr. J. Reyes borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and
promised to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple
interest.

A. 12.19%
B. 12.03%
C. 11.54%
D. 10.29%

30.) If you borrowed P10,000 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the total
amount to be repaid at the end of one year?

A. P10,900
B. P11,200
C. P11,800
D. P12,000

31.) A price tag of P1,200 is payable in 60 days but if paid within 30 days it will have a 3%
discount. Find the rate of interest.

A. 35.45%
B. 35.89%
C. 36.18%
D. 37.11%
32.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of discount?

A. 3.67%
B. 4.00%
C. 4.15%
D. 4.25%

33.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 4.00%
B. 4.07%
C. 4.17%
D. 4.25%

34.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per year?

A. P25,168
B. P25,175
C. P25,189
D. P25,250

35.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per month?

A. P28,000
B. P28,165
C. P28,289
D. P28,250

36.) It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the
interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release
of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank
and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was
deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of
P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?

A. 16.02%
B. 16.28%
C. 16.32%
D. 16.47%
37.) A deposit of P110,000 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20%
withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.

A. 11.50%
B. 11.75%
C. 11.95%
D. 12.32%

38.) P5,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P5,066.67
B. P5,133.33
C. P5,050.00
D. P5,166.67

39.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum
rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 12.07%
B. 12.34%
C. 12.67%
D. 12.87%

40.) A man borrowed P20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple interest of
16% but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the money was
borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of one year. How much is the actual rate of
interest?

A. 19.05%
B. 19.34%
C. 19.67%
D. 19.87%

41.) P4,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P4,033.33
B. P4,333.33
C. P4,133.33
D. P4,666.67

42.) Agnes Abanilla was granted a loan of P20,000 by her employer CPM Industrial
Fabricator and Construction Corporation with an interest rate of 6% for 180 days on the
principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for
P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.

A. P18,800
B. P18,900
C. P19,000
D. P19,100

43.) If you borrow money from your friend with simple interest of 12%, find the present
worth of P20,000 which is due at the end of nine months.

A. P18,992.08
B. P18,782.18
C. P18,348.62
D. P18,120.45

44.) A man borrowed from a bank under a promissory note that he signed in the amount of
P25,000.00 for a period of one year. He receives only the amount of P21,915.00 after
the bank collected the advance interest and an additional of P85.00 for notarial and
inspection fees. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 13.05%
B. 13.22%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.64%

45.) Mr. Danilo Conde borrowed money from a bank. He received from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine rate of simple
interest.

A. 15.92%
B. 15.75%
C. 15.45%
D. 15.08%

46.) Mr. J. Dela Cruz borrowed money from a bank. He receives from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding
discount rate or often referred to as the bankers discount.

A. 13.15%
B. 13.32%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.73%
47.) Annie buys a television set from a merchant who ask P1,250.00 at the end of 60 days.
Annie wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash price on
the assumption that money is worth 8% simple interest. What is the cash price?

A. P1,124.67
B. P1,233.55
C. P1,289.08
D. P1,302.67

48.) A man borrowed money from a loan shark. He receives from the loan shark and amount
of P1,342.00 and promised to repay P1,500.00 at the end of 3 quarters. What is the
simple interest rate?

A. 15.47%
B. 15.69%
C. 15.80%
D. 15.96%

49.) Determine the exact simple interest on P5,000 invested for the period from January
15,1996 to October 12,1996, if the rate interest is 18%.

A. P664.23
B. P664.89
C. P665.21
D. P666.39

50.) The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21,1995 to December 25,1995
is P100. What is the rate of interest?

A. 3.90%
B. 3.92%
C. 3.95%
D. 3.98%

51.) On her recent birthday, April 22, 2001, Nicole was given by her mother a certain sum
of money as birthday present. She decided to invest the said amount on 20% exact
simple interest. If the account will mature on Christmas day at an amount of
P10,000.00, how much did Nicole receive from her mother on her birthday?

A. P8,807.92
B. P8,827.56
C. P8,832.17
D. P8,845.78

52.) What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
A. P39.01
B. P39.45
C. P39.82
D. P39.99

53.) Nicole has P20,400 in cash. She invested it at 7% from March 1, 2006 to November 1,
2006 at 7% interest. How much is the interest using the Bankers Rule?

A. P972.12
B. P970.78
C. P973.12
D. P971.83

54.) The amount of P20,000 was deposited in a bank earning an interest of 6.5% per annum.
Determine the total amount at the end of 7 years if the principal and interest were not
withdrawn during this period?

A. P30,890.22
B. P30,980.22
C. P31,079.73
D. P31,179.37

55.) A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the
effective rate of money?

A. 9.01%
B. 9.14%
C. 9.31%
D. 9.41%

56.) The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P71,781.47
B. P71,187.47
C. P71,817.47
D. P71,718.47

57.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P80,000 to be made in six years with an
interest of 12% compounded annually.

A. P40,540.49
B. P40,450.49
C. P40,350.49
D. P40,530.49
58.) What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is
equal to 360 days.

A. 19.61%
B. 19.44%
C. 19.31%
D. 19.72%

59.) What nominal rate, compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16%
compounded quarterly?

A. 16.09%
B. 16.32%
C. 16.45%
D. 16.78%

60.) What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?

A. 8.07%
B. 8.12%
C. 8.16%
D. 8.24%

61.) Find the nominal rate, which if converted quarterly could be used instead of 12%
compounded semi-annually.

A. 11.83%
B. 11.09%
C. 11.65%
D. 11.25%

62.) Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?

A. 12.35% compounded annually


B. 11.90% compounded semi-annually
C. 12.20% compounded quarterly
D. 11.60% compounded monthly

63.) Find the compound amount if P2,500 is invested at 8% compounded quarterly for 5
years and 6 months.

A. P3,864.95
B. P3,846.59
C. P3,889.95
D. P3,844.95

64.) An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find
the nominal interest.

A. 11.89%
B. 12.00%
C. 12.08%
D. 12.32%

65.) If P5,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly, then what is the
compound interest at the end of 10 years?

A. P6,080.40
B. P6,020.40
C. P6,040.20
D. P6,060.20

66.) What is the corresponding effective rate of 18% compounded semi-quarterly?

A. 19.24%
B. 19.48%
C. 19.84%
D. 19.92%

67.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P100,000 to be made in 10 years with an
interest of 12% compounded quarterly.

A. P30,555.68
B. P30,656.86
C. P30,556.86
D. P30,655.68

68.) In how many years is required for P2,000 to increase by P3,000 if interest at 12%
compounded semi-annually?

A. 7.86 years
B. 7.65 years
C. 7.23 years
D. 8.12 years

69.) The amount of P150,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P215,344.40
B. P213,544.40
C. P234,153.40
D. P255.443.10

70.) How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A. 13.7 years
B. 14.2 years
C. 14.7 years
D. 15.3 years

71.) What is the corresponding effective interest rate of 18% compounded semi-monthly?

A. 19.35%
B. 19.84%
C. 19.48%
D. 19.64%

72.) What is the effective rate of 14% compounded semi-annually?

A. 14.49%
B. 14.59%
C. 14.69%
D. 14.79%

73.) At an interest rate of 10% compounded annually, how much will a deposit of P1,500 be
in 15 years?

A. P6,265.87
B. P6,256.78
C. P6,526.87
D. P6,652.78

74.) A man expects to receive P25,000 in 8 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. P13,256.83
B. P13,655.28
C. P13,625.83
D. P13,265.83

75.) About how many years will P100,000 earn a compound interest of P50,000 if the
interest rate is 9% compounded quarterly?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years

76.) Compute the equivalent rate of 6% compounded semi-annually to a rate compounded


quarterly.

A. 5.12%
B. 5.96%
C. 5.78%
D. 6.12%

77.) What is the amount of P12,800 in 4 years at 5% compounded quarterly?

A. P15,461.59
B. P15,146.95
C. P15,641.59
D. P15,614.59

78.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by
her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 11.23 years
B. 11.46 years
C. 11.57 years
D. 11.87 years

79.) If P50,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 4% compounded quarterly, find the
compounded interest at the end of 10 years.

A. P2,333.32
B. P2,444.32
C. P2,555.32
D. P2,666.32

80.) A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective
annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th
year.

A. P693.12
B. P700.12
C. P702.15
D. P705.42
81.) P1,500.00 was deposited in a bank account, 20 years ago. Today, it is worth P3,000.00.
Interest is paid semi-annually. Determine the interest rate paid on this account.

A. 2.9%
B. 3.0%
C. 3.2%
D. 3.5%

82.) A merchant puts in his P2,000.00 to a small business for a period of six years. With a
given interest rate on the investment of 15% per year, compounded annually, how much
will he collect at the end of the sixth year?

A. P4,626.12
B. P4,262.12
C. P4,383.12
D. P4,444.12

83.) A man borrowed P100,000 at the interest rate of 12% per annum, compounded
quarterly. What is the effective rate?

A. 12.75%
B. 12.55%
C. 12.45%
D. 12.35%

84.) Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the
interest is compounded.

A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually

85.) When will an amount be tripled with an interest of 11.56%?

A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years

86.) A student plans to deposit P1,500.00 in the bank now and another P3,000.00 for the
next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000.00 three years from after his last deposit
for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after
one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.

A. P1,549.64
B. P1,459.64
C. P1,345.98
D. P1,945.64

87.) How much must be invested on January 1, 1998 in order to accumulate P2,000 on
January 1, 2003? Money is worth 6%.

A. P1,509.34
B. P1,249.64
C. P1,378.98
D. P1,494.52

88.) A nominal interest of 3% compounded continuously is given on the account. What is


the accumulated amount of P10,000 after 10 years?

A. P13,498.59
B. P13,489.59
C. P13,789.98
D. P13,494.52

89.) A mechanical engineer wishes to accumulate a total of P10,000 in a savings account at


the end of 10 years. If the bank pays only 4% compounded quarterly, what should be
the initial deposit?

A. P6,176.35
B. P6,761.35
C. P6,716.53
D. P6,167.35

90.) Funds are deposited in a savings account at an interest of 8% per annum. What is the
initial amount that must be deposited to yield a total of P10,000 in 10 years?

A. P4,196.30
B. P4,721.39
C. P4,796.03
D. P4,631.93

91.) If P500,000 is deposited at a rate of 11.25% compounded monthly, determine the


compounded interest after 7 years and 9 montths.

A. P690,848.73
B. P670,651.23
C. P680,649.56
D. P685,781.25
92.) An interest rate is quoted as being 7.5% compounded quarterly. What is the effective
annual interest rate?

A. 7.91%
B. 7.51%
C. 7.71%
D. 7.31%

93.) You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month
instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you
will pay by borrowing the money from the bank?

A. P53.89
B. P54.66
C. P53.78
D. P54.98

94.) A deposit of P1,000 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. Approximately how much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,187.39
B. P2,145.78
C. P2,176.45
D. P2,158.92

95.) Fifteen years ago P1,000.00 was deposited in a bank account, and today it is worth
P2,370.00. The bank pays interest semi-annually. What was the interest rate paid in this
account?

A. 5.72%
B. 5.78%
C. 5.84%
D. 5.90%

96.) P200,000 was deposited on January 1, 1988 at an interest rate of 24% compounded
semi-annually. How much would the sum be on January 1, 1993?

A. P631,627.78
B. P612,890.76
C. P621,169.64
D. P611,672.18

97.) What is the present worth of two P100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.

A. P150.56
B. P152.88
C. P153.89
D. P151.09

98.) Consider a deposit of P600.00 to be paid back in one year by P700.00. What is the rate
of interest, i% per year compounded annually such that the net present worth of the
investment is positive? Assume i 0.

A. 16.50%
B. 16.75%
C. 16.33%
D. 16.67%

99.) A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8 %. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for
the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?

A. P3,260.34
B. P3,280.34
C. P3,270.34
D. P3,250.34

100.) A machine has been purchased and installed at a total cost of P18,000.00. The machine
will retire at the end of 5 years, at which time it is expected to have a scrap value of
P2,000.00 based on current prices. The machine will then be replaced with an exact
duplicate. The company plans to establish a reserve funds to accumulate the capital
needed to replace the machine. If an average annual rate of inflation of 3% is
anticipated, how much capital must be accumulated?

A. P18,854.38
B. P18,548.38
C. P18,458.38
D. P18,845,38

101.) What is the effective rate corresponding to 16% compounding daily? Take 1 year = 360
days.

A. 17.35%
B. 17.45%
C. 17.55%
D. 17.65%

102.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P25,000 is left to a girl to be held in a trust fund
by her guardian until it amounts to P45,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 7.42 years
B. 7.67 years
C. 7.85 years
D. 7.98 years

103.) P200,000 was deposited at an interest rate of 24% compounded semi-annually. After
how many years will the sum be P621,170?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years

104.) In year zero, you invest P10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the
average annual inflation is 6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos will be in the
account at maturity?

A. P15,030.03
B. P20,113.57
C. P18,289.05
D. P16,892.34

105.) A company invests P10,000 today to be repaid in 5 years in one lump sum at 12%
compounded annually. How much profit in present day pesos is realized?

A. P7,563.29
B. P7,498.20
C. P7,340.12
D. P7,623.42

106.) How long (in nearest years) will it take money to quadruple if it earns 7% compounded
semi-annually?

A. 20 years
B. 18 years
C. 21 years
D. 19 years

107.) How much should you put into a 10% savings account in order to have P10,000.00 in
five years?

A. P6,216.21
B. P6,212.12
C. P6,218.21
D. P6,209.21
108.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 6% compounded quarterly?

A. P11,042.89
B. P11,035.12
C. P11,025.25
D. P11,012.52

109.) P500,000 was deposited 20.15 years ago at an interest rate of 7% compounded semi-
annually. How much is the sum now?

A. P2,000,033.33
B. P2,000,166.28
C. P2,001,450.23
D. P2,002,820.12

110.) A bank pays one percent interest on savings accounts four times a year. What is the
effective annual interest rate?

A. 4.06%
B. 4.12%
C. 4.16%
D. 4.28%

111.) Alexander Michael owes P25,000.00 due in 1 year and P75,000 due in 4 years. He
agrees to pay P50,000.00 today and the balance in 2 years. How much must he pay at
the end of two years if money is worth 5% compounded semi-annually?

A. P39,015.23
B. P39,026.25
C. P39,056.21
D. P39,089/78

112.) Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a savings deposit
of P50,000 at 10% per annum for 3 years.

A. P1,510
B. P1,530
C. P1,550
D. P1,570

113.) If money is worth 5% compounded quarterly, find the equated time for paying a loan of
P150,000 due in 1 year and P280,000 due in 2 years.

A. 1.52 years
B. 1.64 years
C. 1.69 years
D. 1.72 years

114.) For a loan acquired six years ago, a man paid out the amount of P75,000.00. The
interest was computed at 18% compounded annually. How much was the borrowed
amount?

A. P27,367.28
B. P27,278.36
C. P27,782.36
D. P27,872.63

115.) A couple decided that for every child that will be born to them they will place a deposit
in the bank so that on the childs 18th birthday, the child will receive the amount of
P300,000.00. If the bank will pay an interest of 18% compounded yearly, how much
deposit will the couple have to make on the birth of a child to them?

A. P15,367.18
B. P15,249.13
C. P15,722.16
D. P15,482.64

116.) On his 6th birthday a boy is left an inheritance. The inheritance will be paid in a lump
sum of P10,000 on his 21st birthday. What is the present value of the inheritance as of
the boys 6th birthday, if the interest is compounded annually? Assume i = 4%.

A. P5,552.64
B. P5,549.10
C. P5,522.12
D. P5,582.63

117.) A man who won P300,000 in a lottery decided to place 50% of his winning in a trust
fund for the college education of his son. If the money will earn 14% per year
compounded quarterly, how much will the man have at the end of 10 years when his
son will be starting his college education?

A. P593,120.12
B. P593,452.12
C. P592,739.96
D. P593,888.96

118.) If the sum of P15,000 is deposited in an account earning 4% per annum compounded
quarterly, what will be the deposited amount at the end of 5 years?

A. P18,302.85
B. P18,450.89
C. P18,512.83
D. P18,638.29

119.) The Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers is planning to put up its own building.
Two proposals being considered are:

a. The construction of the building now to cost P400,000.


b. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5
years, an extension to be added to cost P200,000.

By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20%
and depreciation is to be neglected?

A. P19,122.15
B. P19,423.69
C. P19,518.03
D. P19,624.49

120.) A credit plan charges interest rate of 36% compounded monthly. Find its effective rate.

A. 42.21%
B. 42.30%
C. 42.41%
D. 42.57%

121.) A master card compounds monthly and charges an interest of 1.5% per month. What is
the effective interest rate per year?

A. 19.23%
B. 19.45%
C. 19.56%
D. 19.65%

122.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. If interest is computed at 6%


compounded quarterly, how much is it worth today?

A. P11,025.25
B. P11,035.25
C. P11,045.25
D. P11,055.25

123.) Microsoft CEO, billionaire Bill Gates willed that a sum of $25 million be given to a
child but will be held in trust by the childs mother until it amounts to $45 million. If
the amount is invested and earns 8% compounded quarterly, when will the child receive
the money?
A. 8.11 years
B. 7.90 years
C. 7.42 years
D. 7.24 years

124.) Find the present value of instalment payments of P1,000 now, P2,000 at the end of the
first year, P3,000 at the end of the second year, P4,000 at the end of the third year and
P5,000 at the end of the fourth year, if money is worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P11,411.10
B. P11,530.98
C. P11,621.67
D. P11,717.85

125.) How long will it take money to triple itself if invested at 8% compounded annually?

A. 14.27 years
B. 14.56 years
C. 14.78 years
D. 14.98 years

126.) Two hundred years ago, your great, great, great grandfather deposited P1 in a savings
account. Today, the bank notified you that you are the sole heir to this account. How
much is the account today if it earns 8% per annum?

A. P4,002,450.78
B. P4,102,405.90
C. P4,838,949.58
D. P4,909,289.45

127.) What is the present worth of a future payment of P200,000 to be made in 10 years with
an interest of 10% compounded annually?

A. P76,901.21
B. P77,108.66
C. P78,109.32
D. P79,667.32

128.) A deposit of P1,000.00 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. How much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,374.21
B. P2,158.92
C. P2,734.12
D. P2,400.12
129.) What nominal rate compounded annually would quadruple the principal in 4 years?

A. 41.42%
B. 40.81%
C. 41.79%
D. 40.45%

130.) Five years ago, you paid P34,000 for a residential lot. Today you sell it at P50,000.
What is your annual rate of appreciation?

A. 8.12%
B. 8.00%
C. 7.92%
D. 8.32%

131.) Suppose that P100,000 is invested at a certain rate of interest compounded annually for
2 years. If the accumulated interest at the end of 2 years is P21,000. Find the rate of
interest.

A. 10.12%
B. 10.00%
C. 10.92%
D. 10.32%

132.) An investment of P20,000 will be required at the end of the year. The project would
terminate at the end of the 5th year and the assets are estimated to have a salvage value
of P25,000 at that time. What is the rate of interest for this project to break even?

A. 5.74%
B. 5.43%
C. 5.91%
D. 5.67%

133.) Frank Medina possesses a promissory note, due in 2 years hence, whose maturity value
is P3,200. What is the discount value of this note, based on an interest rate of 7%?

A. P2,795.00
B. P2,975.00
C. P2,579.00
D. P2,759.00

134.) Sonny borrowed a certain amount on June 1990 from Romeo. Two years later, Sonny
borrowed again from Romeo an amount of P5,000. Sonny paid P1,000 on June 1993
and discharged his balance by paying P7,500 on June 1995. What was the amount
borrowed by Sonny on June 1990 if the interest is 8% compounded annually?
A. P1,511.61
B. P1,611.51
C. P1,711.41
D. P1,811.31

135.) Dr. Leopold Lucero invests P50,000 in a time deposit that yields 10% for his retirement
30 years from now. If the inflation rate is 5%, what will be the value of the account at
maturity in terms of todays peso.

A. P201,689.91
B. P201,571.91
C. P201,345.91
D. P201,869.91

136.) First Benchmark Publisher Inc. invests P100,000 today to be repaid in five years in one
lump sum at 12% compounded annually. If the rate of inflation is 4% compounded
annually, how much profit, in todays pesos, is realized over the five-year period?

A. P44,512.89
B. P44,672.10
C. P44,851.64
D. P44,901.23

137.) A manufacturing firm contemplates retiring an existing machine at the end of 2002.
The new machine to replace the existing one will have an estimated cost of P400,000.
This expense will be partially defrayed by the sale of the old machine as scrap for
P30,000. To accumulate the balance of the required capital, the firm will deposit the
following sum in an account earning interest at 5% compounded quarterly:

P60,000 at the end of 1999


P60,000 at the end of 2000
P80,000 at the end of 2001

What cash disbursement will be necessary at the end of 2002 to purchase the new
machine?

A. P155,890.12
B. P153,085.56
C. P154,200.12
D. P156,930.38

138.) On June 1, 1998, Mrs. Emelie Roe purchased stock of San Miguel Corporation at a
total cost of P144,000. She then received the following semiannual dividends:

P4,200 on December 1, 1998


P4,400 on June 1, 1999
P4,400 on December 1, 1999
P4,000 on June 1, 2000

After receiving the last dividend, Mrs. Roe sold her stock, receiving P152,000 after
deduction of brokerage fees. What semiannual rate did this dividend realize on her
investment?

A. 4.26%
B. 4.54%
C. 4.87%
D. 4.91%

139.) Engr. Altarejos has P13,760 in cash and he would like to invest it in business. His
estimates of the year-by-year receipts and disbursements for all purposes are shown in
the tabulation below:

Year Receipts Disbursements


0 0 - P13,760
4 P5,000 + P1,000
5 P6,200 + P1,200
6 P7,500 + P1,500
7 P8,800 + P1,800

He estimates that his equipment will have a salvage value of P2,000 at the end of useful
life. Find the rate of return of the prospective equipment.

A. 10.11%
B. 11.80%
C. 11.10%
D. 10.51%

140.) What interest rate, compounded monthly, is equivalent to a 10% effective rate?

A. 9.45%
B. 9.26%
C. 9.65%
D. 9.56%

141.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. plans to purchase a piece of land and to
build a school building on this land. However, since the school building is not an
immediate requirement, the institute is considering whether it should purchase this land
and build the building now or defer this action for 3 years. The current costs are as
follows:

Land: P800,000 Building: P12,000,000


The purchase price of the land and the cost of the school building are expected to
appreciate at the rate of 15% and 4% per annum, respectively. What will be the total
cost of the land and structure 3 years hence?

A. P14,520,120
B. P14,715,068
C. P14,902,189
D. P15,021,781

142.) Mr. Ramon owes Mr. Alarde the following amounts:

P40,000 due 2 years hence


P60,000 due 3 years hence
P72,000 due 4 years hence

Having won the lottery, Mr. Ramos decided to liquidate the debts at the present time. If
the two parties agree on a 5% interest rate, what sum must Mr. Ramos pay?

A. P147,520.20
B. P147,346.02
C. P147,902.89
D. P147,021.81

143.) Mr. James Lubay working in the United States planned of returning to the Philippines
at the end of 2001. He established a fund starting in 1995 with the following recorded
deposits and withdrawals.

January 1, 1995 Deposit of P40,000


January 1, 1997 Deposit of P80,000
July 1, 1997 Withdrawal of P12,000
July 1, 1998 Deposit of P64,000
January 1, 1999 Withdrawal of P48,000

His fund earned interest at the rate of 3.5% compounded semiannually until the end of
1997. At that date, the interest was augmented to 4% compounded semiannually. What
will be the principal in the fund at the end of 2001?

A. P146,323.08
B. P146,992.99
C. P146,846.92
D. P146,022.82

144.) JRT Publishers is contemplating of installing a labor-saving printing equipment. It has a


choice between two different models. Model A will cost P1,460,000 while model B
will cost P1,452,000. The anticipated repair costs for each model are as follows:
Model A: P60,000 at the end of 5th year
P80,000 at the end of 10th year
Model B: P152,000 at the end of 9th year

The two models are alike in all other respects. If the publisher is earning a 7% return of
its capital, which model should be purchased? How much savings will be accrued if the
publisher will purchase the more economical model?

A. P8,769.18
B. P8,918.23
C. P9,012.53
D. P9,341.11

145.) What is the future amount of P50,000 if the single payment compound amount factor of
this investment is 1.23%

A. P61,700
B. P61,900
C. P61,200
D. P61,500

146.) An investment indicates a single compound amount factor of 1.32 if invested for n
years. If the interest rate is 4.73% per annum, find the value of n.

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

147.) Mr. Tambangan invests P50,000 today. Several years later, it becomes P60,000. What
is the single payment present worth factor of this investment? If the amount was
invested for 5 years, what is the rate of interest?

A. 3.1%
B. 3.3%
C. 3.5%
D. 3.7%

148.) Money is deposited in a certain account for which the interest is compounded
continuously. If the balance doubles in 6 years, what is the annual percentage rate?

A. 11.55%
B. 11.66%
C. 11.77%
D. 11.88%
149.) On January 1, 1999, Mrs. Jocelyn De Gala opened an account at Bank of Philippine
Islands with an initial deposit of P1,000,000.00. On March 1, 2000, she opened an
additional P1,000,000.00. If the bank pays 12% interest compounded monthly, how
much will be in the account on April 1, 2000?

A. P2,180,968.95
B. P2,190,968.95
C. P2,160,968.95
D. P2,170,968.95

150.) The paper currency issued by the Central Bank which forms part of the countrys
money supply.

A. T-bills
B. Bank note
C. Check
D. Coupon

151.) Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in
the general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

152.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Debt
C. Amortization
D. Deposit

153.) The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Market
B. Business
C. Recreation center
D. Buy and sell section

154.) A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitute

A. Monopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Oligopsony

155.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

156.) The total income equals the total operating cost.

A. Balanced sheet
B. In-place value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even no gain no loss

157.) Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

A. Analytic
B. Pure
C. Gratuitous
D. Private

158.) Direct labor costs incurred in the factory and direct material costs are the costs of all
materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as:

A. GS and A expenses
B. Operating and maintenance costs
C. Prime cost
D. O and M costs

159.) An index of short term paying ability is called:

A. Receivable turn-over
B. Profit margin ratio
C. Current ratio
D. Acid-test ratio

160.) Artificial expenses that spread the purchase price of an asset or another property over a
number of years.

A. Depreciation
B. Sinking fund
C. Amnesty
D. Bond
161.) Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

162.) Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials
on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Material update
C. Technological assessment
D. Material count

163.) Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to


bidding date.

A. Delict
B. Escalatory
C. Technological assessment
D. Bid bulletin

164.) A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.

A. Depreciation
B. Annuity
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

165.) What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%?

A. P727.17
B. P717.17
C. P714.71
D. P731.17

166.) Today, a businessman borrowed money to be paid in 10 equal payments for 10


quarters. If the interest rate is 10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly payment is
P2,000, how much did he borrow?

A. P17,304.78
B. P17,404.12
C. P17,504.13
D. P17,604.34

167.) What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P20,000?
Assume i = 6% annually.

A. P1,290.34
B. P1,185.54
C. P1,107.34
D. P1,205.74

168.) Find the annual payment to extinguish a debt of P10,000 payable for 6 years at 12%
interest annually.

A. P2,324.62
B. P2,234.26
C. P2,432.26
D. P2,342.26

169.) A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money to provide funds to cover
the yearly operating expenses and the cost of replacing every year the dyes of a
stamping machine used in making radio chassis as model changes for a period of 10
years.

Operating cost per year = P500.00


Cost of dye = P1,200.00
Salvage value of dye = P600.00

The money will be deposited in a savings account which earns 6% interest. Determine
the sum of money that must be provided, including the cost of the initial dye.

A. P8,626.02
B. P8,662.02
C. P8,226.02
D. P8,666.22

170.) A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P10,000.00 and agreed to pay the
dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded
annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is
the annual payment?

A. P2,500.57
B. P2,544.45
C. P2,540.56
D. P2,504.57
171.) A man paid 10% downpayment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the
90% balance on monthly installment for 60 months at an interest rate of 15%
compounded monthly. Compute the amount of the monthly payment.

A. P42,821.86
B. P42,128.67
C. P42,218.57
D. P42,812.68

172.) What is the present worth of a 3 year annuity paying P3,000.00 at the end of each year,
with interest at 8% compounded annually?

A. P7,654.04
B. P7,731.29
C. P7,420.89
D. P7,590.12

173.) What is the accumulated amount of five-year annuity paying P6,000 at the end of each
year, with interest at 15% compounded annually?

A. P40,519.21
B. P40,681.29
C. P40,454.29
D. P40,329.10

174.) A debt of P10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be amortized by


semi-annual payment over the next 5 years. The first due in 6 months. Determine the
semi-annual payment.

A. P1,234.09
B. P1,255.90
C. P1,275.68
D. P1,295.05

175.) A man borrowed P300,000 from a lending institution which will be paid after 10 years
at an interest rate of 12% compounded annually. If money is worth 8% per annum, how
much should he deposit to a bank monthly in order to discharge his debt 10 yrs hence?

A. P5,174.23
B. P5,162.89
C. P5,190.12
D. P5,194.23

176.) A man loans P187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He
agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at
the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments.
A. P43,600.10
B. P43,489.47
C. P43,263.91
D. P43,763.20

177.) Money borrowed today is to be paid in 6 equal payments at the end of 6 quarters. If the
interest is 12% compounded quarterly, how much was initially borrowed if quarterly
payment is P2,000.00?

A. P10,834.38
B. P10,278.12
C. P10,450.00
D. P10,672.90

178.) A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual
payments of P8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of
the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?

A. P142,999.08
B. P143,104.89
C. P142,189.67
D. P143,999.08

179.) How much must you invest today in order to withdraw P2,000 annually for 10 years if
the interest rate is 9%?

A. P12,835.32
B. P12,992.22
C. P12,562.09
D. P12,004.59

180.) How much must be deposited at 6% each year beginning on January 1, year 1, in order
to accumulate P5,000 on the date of the last deposit, January 1, year 6?

A. P728.99
B. P742.09
C. P716.81
D. P702.00

181.) A piece of machinery can be bought for P10,000 cash or for P2,000 down and
payments of P750 per year for 15 years. What is the annual interest rate for the time
payments?

A. 4.61%
B. 4.71%
C. 4.41%
D. 4.51%

182.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years to accumulate the funds required for redemption. The firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12th year?

A. P38,120.00
B. P37,520.34
C. P37,250.34
D. P37,002.00

183.) A house and lot can be acquired by a downpayment of P500,000 and a yearly payment
of P100,000 at the end of each year for a period of 10 years, starting at the end of 5
years from the date of purchase. If money is worth 14% compounded annually, what is
the cash price of the property?

A. P806,899.33
B. P807,100.12
C. P807,778.12
D. P808,835.92

184.) A parent on the day the child is born wishes to determine what lump sum would have to
be paid into an account bearing interest at 5% compounded annually, in order to
withdraw P20,000 each on the childs 18th, 19th, 20th and 21st birthdays. How much is
the lump sum amount?

A. P30,119.73
B. P30,941.73
C. P30,149.37
D. P30,419.73

185.) An instructor plans to retire in exactly one year and want an account that will pay him
P25,000 a year for the next 15 years. Assuming a 6% annual effective interest rate,
what is the amount he would need to deposit now? (The fund will be depleted after 15
years).

A. P242,860.22
B. P242,680.22
C. P242,608.22
D. P242,806.22

186.) A manufacturing firm wishes to give each 80 employees a holiday bonus. How much is
needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest rate compounded monthly,
so that each employee will receive a P2,000 bonus?
A. P12,615.80
B. P12,516.80
C. P12,611.80
D. P12,510.80

187.) A man purchased on monthly instalment a P100,000 worth of land. The interest rate is
12% nominal and payable in 20 years. What is the monthly amortization?

A. P1,101.08
B. P1,202.08
C. P1,303.08
D. P1,404.08

188.) A young engineer borrowed P10,000 at 12% interest and paid P2,000 per annum for the
last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his
loan?

A. P6,999.39
B. P6,292.93
C. P6,222.39
D. P6,922.93

189.) An investment of P350,000 is made today and is equivalent to payments of P200,000


each year for 3 years. What is the annual rate of return on investment for the project?

A. 32.7%
B. 33.8%
C. 33.2%
D. 33.6%

190.) Maintenance cost of an equipment is P200,000 for 2 years, P40,000 at the end of 4
years and P80,000 at the end of 8 years. Compute the semi-annual amount that will be
set aside for this equipment. Money worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P7,425.72
B. P7,329.67
C. P7,245.89
D. P7,178.89

191.) Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500 at the end of
each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The amount that
will be available in two years is:

A. P13,100.60
B. P13,589.50
C. P13,982.80
D. P13,486.70

192.) A small machine has an initial cost of P20,000, a salvage value of P2,000 and a life of
10 years. If your cost of operation per year is P3,500 and your revenues per year is
P9,000, what is the approximate rate of return (ROR) on the investment?

A. 24.2%
B. 24.8%
C. 25.1%
D. 25.4%

193.) An employee is about to receive the sum of P300.00 at the end of each year for 5 years.
One year prior to the receipt of the first sum, he decides to discount all 5 sum. If the
interest rate is 6%, what proceeds will he obtain?

A. P1,298.00
B. P1,231.09
C. P1,221.62
D. P1,263.71

194.) The president of a growing engineering firm wishes to give each of 50 employees a
holiday bonus. How much is needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal rate
compounded monthly, so that each employee will receive a P1,000.00 bonus?

A. P3,942.44
B. P3,271.22
C. P3,600.12
D. P3,080.32

195.) Mr. Robles plans a deposit of P500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual
interest, compounded monthly. What will be the amount that will be available in 2
years?

A. P13,941.44
B. P13,272.22
C. P13,486.73
D. P13,089.32

196.) Mr. Ramirez borrowed P15,000 two years ago. The terms of the loan are 10% interest
for 10 years with uniform payments. He just made his second annual payment. How
much principal does he still owe?

A. P13,841.34
B. P13,472.22
C. P13,286.63
D. P13,023.52

197.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000 every end of 3 months for 10 years.
However, he may choose to get a single lump sum payment at the end of 4 years. How
much is this lump sum of the cost of money is 14% compounded quarterly?

A. P3,702,939.73
B. P3,607,562.16
C. P3,799,801.23
D. P3,676,590.12

198.) A man paid 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for x years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. If the monthly instalment was P42,821.87, find the value of x?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

199.) You need P4,000 per year for four years to go to college. Your father invested P5,000
in 7% account for your education when you were born. If you withdraw P4,000 at the
end of your 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th birthday, how much will be left in the account at the
end of the 21st year?

A. P1,666.98
B. P1,699.86
C. P1,623.89
D. P1,645.67

200.) Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back the
loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each month.
What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?

A. P839.19
B. P842.38
C. P807.16
D. P814.75

201.) A machine is under consideration for investment. The cost of the machine is
P25,000.00. Each year it operates, the machine will generate a savings of P15,000.00.
Given the effective annual interest rate of 18%, what is the discounted payback period,
in years, on the investment of the machine?

A. 3.15
B. 1.75
C. 2.15
D. 2.75

202.) A machine costs P20,000.00 today and has an estimated scrap value of P2,000.00 after
8 years. Inflation is 2% per year. The effective annual interest rate earned on money
invested is 8%. How much money needs to be set aside each year to replace the
machine with an identical model 8 years from now?

A. P3,345.77
B. P3,389.32
C. P3,489.11
D. P3,573.99

203.) Engr. Sison borrows P100,000.00 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back
the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payment due on the first day of each
month. What does Engr. Sison pay each month?

A. P838.86
B. P849.12
C. P850.12
D. P840.21

204.) Instead of paying P100,000.00 in annual rent for office space at the beginning of each
year for the next 10 years, an engineering firm has decided to take out a 10-year
P1,000,000.00 loan for a new building at 6% interest. The firm will invest P100,000.00
of the rent saved and earn 18% annual interest on that amount. What will be the
difference between the firms annual revenue and expenses?

A. P10,200.12
B. P10,205.13
C. P10,210.67
D. P10,215.56

205.) A service car whose cash price was P540,000 was bought with a downpayment of
P162,000 and monthly instalment of P10,874.29 for 5 years. What was the rate of
interest if compounded monthly?

A. 20%
B. 24%
C. 21%
D. 23%

206.) What uniform annual amount should be deposited each year in order to accumulate
P100,000.00 at the end of the 5th annual deposit if money earns 10% interest?

A. P16,002.18
B. P15,890.12
C. P16,379.75
D. P15,980.12

207.) In five years, P18,000 will be needed to pay for a building renovation. In order to
generate this sum, a sinking fund consisting of three annual payments is established
now. For tax purposes, no further payment will be made after three years. What
payments are necessary if money worth 15% per annum?

A. P3,919.52
B. P3,871.23
C. P3,781.32
D. P3,199.52

208.) Find the present value in pesos, of a perpetuity of P15,000 payable semi-annually if
money is worth 8% compounded quarterly.

A. P371,719.52
B. P371,287.13
C. P371,670.34
D. P371,802.63

209.) If P500.00 is invested at the end of each year for 6 years, at an annual interest rate of
7%, what is the total peso amount available upon the deposit of the sixth payment?

A. P3,671.71
B. P3,712.87
C. P3,450.12
D. P3,576.64

210.) How many years must you invest today in order to withdraw P1,000.00 per year for 10
years if the interest rate is 12%?

A. P5,467.12
B. P5,560.22
C. P5,650.22
D. P5,780.12

211.) A man paid a 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lit and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for 5 years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. What was the monthly instalment in pesos?

A. P42,821.87
B. P42,980.00
C. P43,102.23
D. P43,189.03
212.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000.00 every end of 3 months for x
years. However, he may choose to get a single lump sum of P3,702,939.80 at the end of
4 years. If the rate of interest was 14% compounded quarterly, what is the value of x?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

213.) If you obtain a loan of P1M at the rate of 12% compounded annually in order to build a
house, how much must you pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10
years?

A. P13,994.17
B. P14,801.12
C. P13,720.15
D. P14,078.78

214.) Rainer Wandrew borrowed P50,000.00 from Social Security System, in the form of
calamity loan, with interest at 8% compounded quarterly payable in equal quarterly
instalments for 10 years. Find the quarterly payments.

A. P1,590.83
B. P1.609.23
C. P1,778.17
D. P1,827.79

215.) For having been loyal, trustworthy and efficient, the company has offered a supervisor
a yearly gratuity pay of P20,000.00 for 10 years with the first payment to be made one
year after his retirement. The supervisor, instead, requested that he be paid a lump sum
on the date of his retirement less interact that the company would have earned if the
gratuity is to be paid on the yearly basis. If interest is 15%, what is the equivalently
lump sum that he could get?

A. P100,357.37
B. P100,537.73
C. P100,375.37
D. P100,735.37

216.) In anticipation of a much bigger volume of business after 10 years, a fabrication


company purchased an adjacent lot for its expansion program where it hopes to put up a
building projected to cost P4,000,000.00 when it will be constructed 10 years after, To
provide the required capital expense, it plans to put up a sinking fund for the purpose.
How much must the company deposit each year if interest to be earned is computed at
15%?
A. P194,089.17
B. P195,780.12
C. P196,801.56
D. P197,008.25

217.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. How much is his monthly
payment?

A. P8,929.29
B. P8,225.00
C. P8,552.00
D. P8,008.20

218.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. What is the remaining balance
that he paid?

A. P186,927.24
B. P188,225.00
C. P187,701.26
D. P185,900.20

219.) A company purchased for a cash price of P500,000.00 a machine which is estimated to
have a salvage value of P50,000.00 at the end of its 10 years economic life. How much
yearly deposit must the company deposit in a sinking fund that will pay 18% interest,
compounded yearly, to accumulate the needed fund to purchase the new machine at the
end of the 10th year economic life of the machine it purchased if a new machine will
cost 75% more by that time?

A. P34,859.78
B. P35,890.12
C. P35,074.58
D. P34,074.85

220.) A car dealer advertises the sale of a car model for a cash price of P280,000. If
purchased on instalment, the regular downpayment is 15% and balance payable in 18
equal monthly instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per month. How much will be
required monthly payments?

A. P15,185.78
B. P15,289.12
C. P15,783.90
D. P15,632.11

221.) A machinery supplier is offering a certain machinery on a 10% downpayment and the
balance payable in equal end of the year payments without interest for 2 years. Under
this arrangement, the price is pegged to be P250,000. However, for cash purchase, the
machine would only cost P195,000. What is the equivalent interest rate that is being
charged on the 2-year payment plan if interest is compounded quarterly?

A. 18.47%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.47%
D. 19.74%

222.) A company has approved a car plan for its six senior officers in which the company
will shoulder 25% of the cost and the difference payable by each officer to a financing
company in 48 equal end of the month instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per
month. If the cost of each car is P350,000, determine the amount each officer has to pay
the financing company per month?

A. P7,523.90
B. P7,619.22
C. P7,190.00
D. P7,710.94

223.) If P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, how much annuity can a person get
annually from the bank every year for 8 years starting 1 year after the 9th deposit is
made. Cost of money is 14%.

A. P34,467.21
B. P34,567.81
C. P34,675.18
D. P34,867.37

224.) An employee is earning P12,000.00 a month and he can afford to purchase a car which
will require a downpayment of P10,000.00 and a monthly amortization of not more
than 30% of his monthly salary. What should be the maximum cash value of a car he
can purchase if the seller will agree to a downpayment of P10,000.00 and the balance
payable in four years at 18% per year payable on monthly basis? The first payment will
be due at the end of the first month?

A. P135,267.21
B. P135,507.42
C. P135,605.48
D. P135,807.30
225.) A new company developed a program in which the employees will be allowed to
purchase shares of stocks of the company at the end of its fifth year of operation, when
the companys thought to have gained stability already. The stock has a par value of
P100.00 per share.

Believing in the good potential of the company, an employee decided to save in a bank
the amount of P8,000.00 at the end of every year which will earn for him 9% interest,
compounded annually.

How much shares of stocks will he be able to purchase at the end of the fifth year of his
yearly deposits?

A. 476
B. 478
C. 480
D. 482

226.) Mr. Pablo Catimbang borrows P100,000 at 10% compounded annually, agreeing to
repay the loan in twenty equal annual payments. How much of the original principal is
still unpaid after he has made the tenth payment?

A. P69,890.42
B. P72,000.80
C. P72,173.90
D. P72,311.44

227.) A debt of P12,000 with an interest of 20% compounded quarterly is to be amortized by


equal semi-annual payments over the next three years, the first due in 6 months. How
much is the semi-annual payments?

A. P2,775.50
B. P2,662.89
C. P2,590.04
D. P2,409.78

228.) A fund donated by a benefactor to PICE to provide annual scholarships to deserving CE


students. The fund will grant P5,000 for each of the first five years, P8,000 for the next
five years and P10,000 each year thereafter. The scholarship will start one year after the
fund is established. If the fund earns 8% interest, what is the amount of the donation?

A. P99,490.00
B. P99,507.35
C. P99,601.71
D. P99,723.54
229.) If a low cost house and lot worth P87,000 were offered at 10% downpayment and P500
per month for 25 years, what is the effective monthly interest rate on the diminishing
balance?

A. 0.492%
B. 4.92%
C. 0.0492%
D. 49.2%

230.) The average annual cost of damages caused by floods at Dona Rosario Village located
along Butuanon river is estimated at P700,000. To build a gravity dam to protect the
area from the floods, would cost P2,500,000 and would involve an annual maintenance
cost of P20,000. With interest at 8% compounded annually, how many years will it take
for the dam to pay for itself?

A. 4.0 years
B. 4.5 years
C. 5.0 years
D. 5.5 years

231.) A businessman borrowed P10,000.00 from a bank at 12% interest, and paid P2,000.00
per annum for the first 4 years. What does he pay at the end of the fifth year in order to
pay-off the loan?

A. P6,812.54
B. P6,782.31
C. P6,917.72
D. P6,660.90

232.) Engr. Richard Flores agreed to pay the loan he is borrowing from a development bank
in six annual end-of-the-year payments of P71,477.70. Interest is 18% per annum
compounded annually and is included in the yearly amount he will be paying the bank.
How much money Engr. Flores is borrowing from the bank?

A. P250,000
B. P260,000
C. P270,000
D. P280,000

233.) Barbette wishes to purchase a 29-inch flat-screened colored TV at Gillamac Appliance


Center an amount of P20,000.00. She made a downpayment of P5,000.00 and the
balance payable in 24 equal monthly instalments. If financing charge is 12% for each
year computed on the total balance to be paid by instalment and interest rate 12%, how
much would Barbette pay every month for the colored TV? What will be the actual cost
of the money?
A. 36.71%
B. 36.21%
C. 35.89%
D. 35.23%

234.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund that earns
6% per annum. Determine the annual deposit.

A. P277,189.56
B. P278,664.54
C. P279,180.00
D. P280,673.12

235.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund. If money
is worth 6% per annum, determine the annual deposit.

A. P367,890.12
B. P366,062.33
C. P365,089.34
D. P364,890.43

236.) Because of the peso devaluation, a car costing P150,000 is to be purchased through a
finance company instead of paying cash. If the buyer is required to pay P40,000 as
downpayment and P4,000 each month for 4 years, what is the effective interest rate on
the diminishing balance?

A. 35.28%
B. 35.82%
C. 34.89%
D. 34.29%

237.) Engr. Clyde Vasquez plans to purchase a new office building costing P1,000,000. He
can raise the building by issuing 10%, 20-year bond that would pay P150,000 interest
per year and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new building, he
can least it for P140,000 per year, first payment being due one year from now. The
building has an expected life of 20 years. Ignoring effects on income tax, what is the
difference between buying the building and leasing the building?

A. P233,779.27
B. P233,070.12
C. P234,070.34
D. P234,560.12

238.) JJ Construction Firm had put up for sale of some of their heavy equipments for
construction works. There were two interested buyers submitting their respective bids
for the heavy equipments. The bids are as follows:

Buyer A offers P10,000,000 payable 20% downpayment, the balance payable


P1,000,000 annually for 8 years. Buyer B offers P9,000,000 payable P2,000,000 down
payment, the balance payable P500,000 semi-annually for 7 years.

How much is the difference between the two bids if money is worth 10% effective?

A. P346,520.05
B. P346,980.12
C. P347,019.45
D. P347,733.29

239.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001


P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003

To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform


annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the annual deposit.

A. P217,520.05
B. P216,980.12
C. P217,679.01
D. P216,733.29

240.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001


P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003
To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform
annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the balance in the fund on January 1, 2002.

A. P2,185,902.11
B. P2,195,600.03
C. P2,165,399.54
D. P2,175,380.00

241.) J & N Pawnshop sells jewelries on either of the following arrangements:

Cash Price: Discount of 10% of the marked price


Installment: Downpayment of 20% of the marked price and the balance payable in
equal annual instalments for the next 4 years.

If you are buying a necklace with a marked price of P5,000, how much is the difference
between buying in cash and buying in instalment? Assume that money is worth 5%.

A. P40.76
B. P41.90
C. P43.54
D. P45.95

242.) Lim Bon Fing Y Hermanos Inc has offered for sale its two-storey building in the
commercial district of Cebu City. The building contains two stores on the ground floor
and a number of offices on the second floor.

A prospective buyer estimates that if he buys this property, he will hold it for about 10
years. He estimates that the average receipts from the rental during this period to be
P350,000.00 and the average expenses for all purpose in connection with its ownership
and operation (maintenance and repairs, janitorial services, insurance, etc.) to be
P135,000.00. He believes that the property can be sold for a net of P2,000,000 at the
end of the 10th year. If the rate of return on this type of investment is 7%, determine the
cash price of this property for the buyer to recover his investment with a 7% return
before income taxes.

A. P2,526,768.61
B. P2,490,156.34
C. P2,390,189.00
D. P2,230,120.56

243.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the low price strategy.

A. P34,389.12
B. P34,490.10
C. P34,518.89
D. P34,710.74

244.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the high price strategy.

A. P32,727.27
B. P33,737.34
C. P33,747.20
D. P33,757.89

245.) Jan Michael plans to purchase a new house costing P1,000,000. He can raise the
building by issuing a 10%, 20 year old bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year
and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new house, Jan Michael
has an option of leasing it for P140,000 per year, the first payment due one year from
now. The building has an expected life of 20 years. If interest charge for leasing is 12%,
which of the following is true?

A. Lease is more economical than borrow and buy.


B. Lease has same result with borrow and buy.
C. Borrow and buy is half the value than lease.
D. Borrow and buy is economical by almost a hundred thousand than lease.

246.) Engr. Harold Landicho is considering establishing his own business. An investment of
P100,000 will be required which must be recovered in 15 years. It is estimated that
sales will be P150,000 per year and that annual operating expenses will be as follows:

Materials P40,000
Labor P70,000
Overhead P10,000 + 10% of sales
Selling expenses P5,000

Engr. Landicho will give up his regular job paying P15,000 per year and devote full
time to the operation of the business. This will result in decreasing labor cost by
P10,000 per year, material cost by P7,000 per year and overhead cost by P8,000 per
year. If he expects to earn at least 20% of his capital, is investing in this business a
sound idea?

A. Yes, it is a sound idea


B. No, it is not a sound idea
C. Neither yes nor no because it simply breakeven
D. It depends on the current demand of the market.

247.) A housewife bought a brand new washing machine costing P12,000 if paid in cash.
However, she can purchase it on instalment basis to be paid within 5 years. If money is
worth 8% compounded annually, what is her yearly amortization if all payments are to
be made at the beginning of each year?

A. P2,617.65
B. P2,782.93
C. P2,890.13
D. P2,589.90

248.) A Civil Engineering student borrowed P2,000.00 to meet college expenses during his
senior year. He promised to repay the loan with interest at 4.5% in 10 equal semi-
annual instalments, the first payment to be made 3 years after the date of the loan. How
much will this payment be?

A. P252.12
B. P261.89
C. P273.90
D. P280.94

249.) A father wishes to provide P40,000 for his son on his sons 21st birthday. How much
should he deposit every 6 months in a savings account which pays 3% compounded
semi-annually, if the first deposit was made when the son was 3 years old?

A. P829.68
B. P815.80
C. P830.12
D. P846.10

250.) A group of Filipino Mechanical Engineers formed a corporation and the opportunity to
invest P8,000,000 in either of the two situations. The first is to expand a domestic
operation. It is estimated that this investment would return a net year end cash flow of
P2,000,000 each year for 10 years and at the end of that time, the physical assets, which
would no longer be needed, could be sold at P5,000,000. The alternative opportunity
would involve building and operating a plant in a foreign country. This operation would
involve no net cash flow during the first 3 years, but it is believed that, beginning with
the end of the fourth year, an annual flow of P4,000,000 would be received, running
through the end of the 10th year. After that time, it is believed that the operation and
facilities might be expropriated, with little, if any, compensation, being paid. Which of
the following is true?

A. Foreign operation yields bigger rate of return.


B. Domestic and foreign operations yield the same rate of return.
C. Domestic operation has double the rate of return of the foreign operation.
D. Foreign operation yields approximately 3% less rate of return than domestic
operation.

251.) A house costs P400,000 cash. A purchaser will pay P90,000 cash, P60,000 at the end of
2 years and a sequence of 6 equal annual payments starting with one at the end of 4
years, to discharge all his liabilities as to the principal and interest at 7% compounded
annually. Find the annual payment which must be made for 6 years.

A. P66,204.14
B. P65,701.67
C. P67,901.34
D. P68,900.12

252.) Two years ago, the rental for the use of equipment and facilities as paid 5 years in
advance, with option to renew the rent for another years by payment of P15,000
annually at the start of each year for the renewal period. Now, the lessor asks the lessee
if it could be possible to prepay the rental that will be paid annually in the renewed 5
years period. If the lessee will consider the request, what would be the fair prepayment
to be made to the lessor if interest is now figured at 8 %?

A. P51,843.90
B. P51,346.58
C. P52,002.45
D. P52,740.20

253.) NCT Builders plans to construct an additional building at the end of 10 years for an
estimated cost of P5,000,000.00. To accumulate the amount, it will have equal year end
deposits in a fund earning 13%. However, at the end of the 5th year, it was decided to
have a larger building that originally intended to an estimated cost of P8,000,000.00.
What should be the annual deposit for the last 5 years?

A. P734,391.48
B. P742,890.10
C. P738,900.45
D. P740,010.86

254.) The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Demand
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods

255.) Work-in process is classified as:

A. An asset
B. A liability
C. An expenses
D. An owners equity

256.) What is the highest position in the corporation?

A. President
B. Board of Directors
C. Chairman of the Board
D. Stockholders

257.) Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their
own interest.

A. Equitable
B. Public
C. Private
D. Pure

258.) Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Inflation
B. Depletion
C. Recession
D. Depreciation

259.) An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-
owners for profit.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Company
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

260.) We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the
principal for one year as:

A. Nominal rate
B. Rate of return
C. Exact interest rate
D. Effective rate

261.) It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Discount
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

262.) It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Book value
D. Salvage value

263.) This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of


vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Elastic demand

264.) These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if
money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

265.) These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities,
that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies
considerably.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

266.) A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action
of one will lead to almost the same action of the others.
A. Oligopoly
B. Semi-monopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

267.) Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Investment
C. Subscribed capital
D. Money market

268.) The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Face value
C. Market value
D. Book value

269.) Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Discount
B. Credit
C. Interest
D. Profit

270.) Liquid assets such as cash, and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash,
such as accounts receivable and merchandise are called:

A. Total assets
B. Fixed assets
C. Current assets
D. None of the above

271.) The length of time which the property may be considered at a profit.

A. Physical life
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. All of the above

272.) The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and
labor cost.

A. Secondary cause
B. Escalatory clause
C. Contingency clause
D. Main clause

273.) The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called

A. Book value
B. Capital recovery
C. Depreciation recovery
D. Sinking fund

274.) Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a percentage of sales is called:

A. Profit margin
B. Gross margin
C. Net income
D. Rate of return

275.) Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

276.) Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern.

A. Initial investment
B. Current accounts
C. Working capital
D. Subscribed capital

277.) A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

278.) A market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers.

A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral oligopsony

279.) A market situation where there is one seller and one buyer.
A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Bilateral monopoly
D. Bilateral monopsony

280.) A market situation where there are only two buyers with many sellers.

A. Duopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Oligopsony

281.) The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will learn.

A. Present worth factor


B. Interest rate
C. Time value of money
D. Yield

282.) Defined as the future value minus the present value.

A. Interest
B. Rate of return
C. Discount
D. Capital

283.) The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called:

A. Capital recovery
B. Cash flow
C. Economic return
D. Earning value

284.) An investment consisting of deposits of P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 are made at the end
of the 2nd year, 3rd year and 4th year, respectively. If money is worth 10%, what is the
equivalent present worth of the investment?

A. P3,129.89
B. P3,319.45
C. P3,372.12
D. P3,490.09
285.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year
and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How
much is in the account at the end of the 4th year?

A. P4,880.00
B. P4,820.00
C. P4,860.00
D. P4,840.00

286.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year
and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. What is
the equivalent uniform deposit for the uniform gradient only?

A. P670.81
B. P690.58
C. P660.53
D. P680.12

287.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first years,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year and P3,500 on the fourth year.
What is the equivalent present worth of the debt if interest is 5%?

A. P15,093.28
B. P15,178.34
C. P15,890.12
D. P15,389.82

288.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year.
Determine future amount of the amortization if interest is 5%.

A. P18,030.56
B. P18,290.12
C. P18,621.89
D. P18,449.37

289.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year. What is
the equivalent uniform periodic payment if interest is 5%?

A. P4,280.47
B. P4,378.17
C. P4,259.68
D. P4,325.12
290.) An NBA Basketball superstar, playing for Los Angeles Lakers is earning an average
annual salary of $5,000,000 for 10 years. Chicago Bulls ball club would like to acquire
his services as a replacement of the retired Michael Jordan, offered him an initial
annual salary of $3,000,000 but is increasing at the rate of $400,000 annually. If he can
still play in the NBA for 10 years and money is worth 10%, which one is true?

A. Chicago Bulls offer is smaller than that of LA Lakers


B. Chicago Bulls offer is exactly the same as LA Lakers
C. Chicago Bulls offer is just few dollars more per year than that of LA Lakers
D. Chicago Bulls offer is over $150,000 per year than that of LA Lakers

291.) John Grisham, author of the best-selling novel The Chamber sold its copyright to
Warner Bros. for the rights to make it into a motion picture. Mr. Grishams has options
between the following Warner Bros. proposals:

A. An immediate lump sum payment of $5,000,000.


B. An initial payment of $2,500,000 plus 4% of the movies gross receipts for the next
5 years which is forecasted as follows:

End of year Gross receipt 4% of Gross Receipt


1 $10,000,000.00 $400,000.00
2 $8,000,000.00 $320,000.00
3 $6,000,000.00 $240,000.00
4 $4,000,000.00 $160,000.00
5 $2,000,000.00 $80,000.00

If money is worth 10% and Mr. Grisham will not receive any royalty after the fifth year
of exhibition of the movie, by how much is proposal A bigger than proposal B?

A. P1,532,630
B. P1,390,090
C. P1,478,100
D. P1,289,450

292.) Two sisters, Joan and Jocelyn decided to save money in funds that earns 14%
compounded annually but on different ways. Joan decided to save by making an end-
of-year deposit of P1,000 on the first year, P1,100 on the second year, P1,210 on the
third year and so on increasing the next years deposit by 10% of the deposit in the
preceding year until the end of the 10th year. Jocelyn decided to save by just making an
equal deposit of P1,400 annually for 10 years. Who has more savings at the end of 10
years and by how much bigger compared to the other sister?

A. Jocelyn, P671.18
B. Jocelyn, P763.27
C. Joan, P671.18
D. Joan, P763.27
293.) Engr. Hermo, believing that life begins at 40, decided to retire and start enjoying life at
age 40. He wishes to have upon his retirement the sum of P5,000,000. On his 21st
birthday, he deposited a certain amount and increased his deposit by 15% each year
until he will be 40. If the money is deposited in a super savings account which earns
15% interest compounded annually, how much was his initial deposit?

A. P17,253.18
B. P17,566.33
C. P17,672.77
D. P17,490.21

294.) A newly-acquired equipment requires an annual maintenance costs of P10,000. If the


annual maintenance cost is increased by 20% each year every year for 10 years, what is
the estimated present worth of the maintenance costs if money is worth 15%?

A. P105,712.33
B. P106,101.37
C. P107,490.12
D. P108,890.11

295.) The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of
obligations to financial contributors or claims of other based on profit.

A. Economic return
B. Yield
C. Earning value
D. Expected yield

296.) The payment for the use of borrowed money is called:

A. Loan
B. Maturity value
C. Interest
D. Principal

297.) The interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the
interest earned by an investment.

A. Effective rate
B. Nominal rate
C. Rate of return
D. Yield

298.) The ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal.
A. Interest
B. Interest rate
C. Investment
D. All of the above

299.) The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1
year period is known as:

A. Expected return
B. Interest
C. Nominal interest
D. Effective interest

300.) The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specific
product or service in a stated region of the country.

A. Market value
B. Book value
C. Goodwill value
D. Franchise value

301.) The recorded current value of an asset is known as:

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Present worth

302.) Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as:

A. Book value
B. Salvage value
C. Replacement value
D. Future value

303.) What is sometimes called second-hand value?

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Going value

304.) An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation.

A. Book value
B. Fair value
C. Goodwill value
D. Going value

305.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years. To accumulate the funds required for redemption the firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12th year?

A. P37,002.54
B. P37,520.34
C. P38,010.23
D. P38,782.34

306.) A local firm is establishing a sinking fund for the purpose of accumulating a sufficient
capital to retire its outstanding bonds at maturity. The bonds are redeemable in 10 years
and their maturity value is P150,000.00. How much should be deposited each year if
the fund pays interest at the rate of 3%?

A. P13,084.58
B. P13,048.85
C. P13,408.58
D. P13,480.58

307.) A P1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of
this investment?

A. 3.0%
B. 3.4%
C. 3.7%
D. 4.0%

308.) A man was offered a Land Bank certificate with a face value of P100,000 which is
bearing interest of 6% per year payable semiannually and due in 6 years. If he wants to
earn 8% semiannually, how much must he pay the certificate?

A. P90,123.09
B. P90,614.93
C. P90,590.12
D. P90,333.25

309.) A P1,000 bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 8% payable
annually is to be redeemed at par at the end of this period. It is sold at P1,030.
Determine the yield at this price.

A. 7.56%
B. 7.65%
C. 7.75%
D. 7.86%

310.) You purchase a bond at P5,100. The bond pays P200 per year. It is redeemable for
P5,050 at the end of 10 years. What is the net rate of interest on your investment?

A. 3.56%
B. 3.85%
C. 3.75%
D. 3.68%

311.) A P1,000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June
21, 2004. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.

A. P1,122.70
B. P1,144.81
C. P1,133.78
D. P1,155.06

312.) The value which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will
determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties.

A. Market value
B. Goodwill value
C. Fair value
D. Franchise value

313.) A type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each payment period
starting from the first period.

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

314.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Deferred annuity
B. Delayed annuity
C. Progressive annuity
D. Simple annuity

315.) A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning
from the first period.
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

316.) Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal.


B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

317.) A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then present worth of a perpetuity =

A. Ai
B. Ain
C. An/i
D. A/i

318.) A mathematical expression also known as the present value of an annuity of 1 is called

A. Load factor
B. Demand factor
C. Sinking fund factor
D. Present worth factor

319.) As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic
changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or
irregular prearranged program is called

A. Annuity
B. Capital recovery
C. Annuity factor
D. Amortization

320.) The reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time.

A. Scrap value
B. Depletion
C. Depreciation
D. Book value

321.) A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage
of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year which the depreciation
applies.
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. SYD method
D. Declining balance method

322.) A VOM has a selling price of P400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of
10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?

A. P222.67
B. P212.90
C. P236.20
D. P231.56

323.) A machine costs P8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P500.
What is its book value after 8 years using straight line method?

A. P2,000.00
B. P2,100.00
C. P2,200.00
D. P2,300.00

324.) A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6 million, freight
and installation charges amounted to 4% of the purchased price. If the equipment will
be depreciated over a period of 10 years with a salvage value of 8%, determine the
depreciation cost during the 5th year using SYD.

A. P626,269.09
B. P623,209.09
C. P625,129.09
D. P624,069.89

325.) ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage
value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD
method.

A. 7 years
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years

326.) A company purchases an asset for P10,000.00 and plans to keep it for 20 years. If the
salvage value is zero at the end of the 20th year, what is the depreciation in the third
year? Use SYD method.
A. P857.14
B. P862.19
C. P871.11
D. P880.00

327.) An asset is purchased for P500,000.00. The salvage value in 25 years is P100,000.00.
What is the total depreciation in the first three years using straight-line method?

A. P45,000.00
B. P46,000.00
C. P47,000.00
D. P48,000.00

328.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
What is the book value after 5 years using straight line depreciation?

A. P30,000.00
B. P31,000.00
C. P30,500.00
D. P31,500.00

329.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P1,000.00. Find the book value during the first year if SYD depreciation is
used.

A. P7,545.45
B. P7,320.11
C. P7,490.00
D. P7,690.12

330.) The cost of equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000. If the salvage
value is 10% of the cost of equipment at the end of years, determine the book value at
the end of the fourth year. Use straight-line method.

A. P146,320.50
B. P146,000.00
C. P146,230.50
D. P146,023.50

331.) An asset is purchased for P20,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the first year using SYD method.

A. P1,545.45
B. P1,454.54
C. P1,344.21
D. P1,245.45
332.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
Find the book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation.

A. P31,000.00
B. P31,500.00
C. P30,000.00
D. P30,500.00

333.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000.00 and a salvage value of P10,000.00 after 10
years. What is the straight line method depreciation rate as a percentage of the initial
cost?

A. 10%
B. 8%
C. 7%
D. 9%

334.) A machine costing P45,000 is estimated to have a book value of P4,350 when retired at
the end of 6 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the
declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 32.50%
B. 32.25%
C. 32.00%
D. 32.75%

335.) An asset is purchased for P120,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years, after which it will
be sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the second year using the sum-of-
years digit method.

A. P17,578.13
B. P17,412.43
C. P17,344.67
D. P17,672.73

336.) A machine costing P720,000 is estimated to have a book value of P40,545.73 when
retired at the end of 10 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant
percentage of the declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 25%
B. 26%
C. 27%
D. 28%
337.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using straight
line method.

A. P2,400.00
B. P2,412.34
C. P2,250.00
D. P2,450.00

338.) An engineer bought an equipment for P500,000. He spent an additional amount of


P30,000 for installation and other expenses. The estimated useful life of the equipment
is 10 years. The salvage value is x% of the first cost. Using the straight line method of
depreciation, the book value at the end of 5 years will be P291,500. What is the value
of x?

A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.3
D. 0.1

339.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the annual depreciation charge?

A. P75,500.00
B. P76,000.00
C. P76,500.00
D. P77,000.00

340.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the book value of the machine at the end of six years?

A. P341,000.00
B. P343,000.00
C. P340,000.00
D. P342,000.00

341.) A unit of welding machine cost P45,000 with an estimated life of 5 years. Its salvage
value is P2,500. Find its depreciation rate by straight-line method.

A. 18.89%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.58%
D. 19.89%

342.) A tax and duty free importation of a 30 hp sandmill for paint manufacturing cost
P360,000.00. Bank charges arrastre and brokerage cost P5,000.00. Foundation and
installation costs were P25,000.00. Other incidental expenses amount to P20,000.00.
Salvage value of the mill is estimated to be P60,000 after 20 years. Find the appraisal
value of the mill using straight line depreciation at the end of 10 years.

A. P234,000.00
B. P235,000.00
C. P234,500.00
D. P235,500.00

343.) An equipment costs P10,000 with a salvage value of P500 at the end of 10 years.
Calculate the annual depreciation cost by sinking-fund method at 4% interest.

A. P791.26
B. P792.61
C. P726.17
D. P771.26

344.) A machine initially worth P50,000 depreciates in value each year by 20% of its value at
the beginning of that year. Find its book value when it is 9 years old.

A. P6,710.89
B. P6,400.89
C. P6,666.89
D. P6,512.78

345.) A consortium of international telecommunications companies contracted for the


purchase and installation of fiber optic cable linking Manila City and Cebu City at a
total cost of P960 million. This amount includes freight and installation charges
estimated at 10% of the above total contract price. If the cable shall be depreciated over
a period of 15 years with zero salvage value and money is worth 6% per annum, what is
the annual depreciation charge?

A. P41,044,903.40
B. P41,211,158.40
C. P41,254,000.40
D. P41,244,253.40

346.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-
years digit method.

A. P3,279.27
B. P3,927.27
C. P3,729.27
D. P3,792.72

347.) A radio service panel truck initially cost P560,000. Its resale value at the end of the 5th
year of the useful life is estimated at P150,000. By means of declining balance method,
determine the depreciation charge for the second year.

A. P99,658.41
B. P99,128.45
C. P99,290.00
D. P99,378.45

348.) Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular
year of P50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for
depletion is P18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular
year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%.

A. P9,358.41
B. P9,228.45
C. P9,250.00
D. P9,308.45

349.) The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $50,000,000. What is the depletion charge
during the year where it produces half-million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method
in computing depletion.

A. $500,000,000
B. $510,000,000
C. $525,000,000
D. $550,000,000

350.) The first cost of a certain equipment is P324,000 and a salvage value of P50,000 at the
end of its life of 4 years. If money is worth 6% compounded annually, find the
capitalized cost.

A. P540,090.34
B. P541,033.66
C. P540,589.12
D. P541,320.99

351.) An item is purchased for P100,000. Annual cost is P18,000. Using interest rate of 8%,
what is the capitalized cost of perpetual service?

A. P310,000
B. P315,000
C. P320,000
D. P325,000

352.) A corporation uses a type of motor which costs P5,000 with 2 life years and final
salvage value of P800. How much could the corporation afford to pay for another type
of motor of the same purpose whose life is 3 years a with a final salvage value of
P1,000. Money is worth 4%.

A. P7,892.13
B. P7,157.40
C. P7,489.21
D. P7,300.12

353.) A motorcycle costs P50,000 and has an expected life of 10 years. The salvage value is
estimated to be P2,000 and annual operating cost is estimated at P1,000. What is the
appropriate rate of return on the investment if the annual revenue is P10,000?

A. 12.12%
B. 12.54%
C. 12.72%
D. 12.99%

354.) At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20 years, if
the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each 20 years.

A. P297,308,323.10
B. P298,308,323.10
C. P296,308,323.10
D. P295,308,323.10

355.) A new broiler was installed by a textile plant at a total cost of P300,000 and projected
to have a useful life of 15 years. At the end of its useful life, it is estimated to have a
salvage value of P30,000. Determine its capitalized cost if interest is 18% compounded
annually.

A. P323,500.33
B. P322,549.33
C. P332,509.33
D. P341,240.33

356.) A man planned of building a house. The cost of construction is P500,000 while annual
maintenance cost is estimated at P10,000. If the interest rate is 6%, what is the
capitalized cost of the house?

A. P666,000.00
B. P666,666.67
C. P633,333.33
D. P650,000.00

357.) An untreated electrical wooden pole that will last 10 years under a certain soil
condition, costs P1,200.00. If a treated pole will last for 20 years, what is the maximum
justifiable amount that can be paid for the treated pole, if the maximum return on
investment is 12%. Consider annual taxes and insurance amount to be 1% of the first
cost.

A. P1,612.01
B. P1,559.50
C. P1,789.23
D. P1,409.38

358.) A granite quarry purchased for P1,600,000 is expected to be exhausted at the end of 4
years. If the resale value of the land is P100,000, what annual income is required to
yield an investment rate of 12%? Use a sinking fund rate of 3%.

A. P550,540.57
B. P551,540.57
C. P552,540.57
D. P553,540.57

359.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material cost
per unit is P100, variable cost of P3.00 each. If the item has a selling price of P995,
how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to breakeven if
the monthly overhead is P461,600?

A. 782
B. 800
C. 806
D. 812

360.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P69,994. If the cost of making a
forging is P56 per unit and its selling price is P135 per forged unit, find the number of
units to be forged to break-even.

A. 892
B. 870
C. 886
D. 862

361.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P115 each, material cost of
P76 each and variable cost of P2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P600, how
many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the
monthly overhead is P428,000.

A. 1,033
B. 1,037
C. 1,043
D. 1,053

362.) Steel drum manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed operating cost of $200,000. Each drum
manufactured cost $160 to produce and sells $200. What is the manufacturers break-
even sales volume in drums per year?

A. 5,031
B. 5,017
C. 5,043
D. 5,000

363.) XYZ Corporation manufactures bookcases that sell for P65.00 each. It costs XYZ
corporation P35,000 per year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation
charges on equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is
P50.00, how many cases must be sold each year for XYZ to avoid taking a loss?

A. 2,334
B. 2,443
C. 2,223
D. 2,322

364.) A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200
motors a month. The variable costs are P150.00 per motor. The average selling price of
the motors is P275.00. Fixed costs of the company amount to P20,000 per month which
includes taxes. Find the number of motors that must be sold each month to breakeven.

A. 160
B. 157
C. 153
D. 163

365.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine is P70,000. If the cost of making a forging is
P56 and its selling price is P125 per forged unit. Find the number of units to be forged
to breakeven.

A. 1,000
B. 1,012
C. 1,015
D. 1,018
366.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal
generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours
per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours
required of the line to meet the demand?

A. 1.0 hours per unit


B. 1.2 hours per unit
C. 1.4 hours per unit
D. 1.6 hours per unit

367.) Compute the number of blocks that an ice plant must be able to sell per month to break
even based on the following data:

Cost of electricity per block - P20.00


Tax to be paid per block - P2.00
Real Estate Tax - P3,500.00 per month
Salaries and Wages - P25,000.00 per month
Others - P12,000.00 per month
Selling price of ice - P55.00 per block

A. 1,220
B. 1,224
C. 1,228
D. 1,302

368.) JRT Industries manufactures automatic voltage regulators at a labor cost of P85.00 per
unit and material cost of P350.00 per unit. The fixed charges on the business are
P15,000 per month and the variable costs are P20.00 per unit. If the automatic voltage
regulators are sold to retailers at P580.00 each, how many units must be produced and
sold per month to breakeven?

A. 120
B. 124
C. 128
D. 130

369.) General Electric Company which manufactures electric motor has a capacity of
producing 150 motors a month. The variable costs are P4,000.00 per month, the
average selling price of the motor is P750.00 per motor. Fixed costs of the company
amount to P78,000.00 per month which includes all taxes. Determine the number of
motors to be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 100
B. 104
C. 110
D. 112
370.) A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enamelled wire or
tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection
on the enamelled wire will be P1.65, on the tinned wire, it will be P1.15. A 100-pair
cable made up with enamelled wire cost P0.55 per linear foot and those made up of
tinned wire cost P0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that
the cost of each installation would be the same.

A. 1,000 feet
B. 1,040 feet
C. 1,100 feet
D. 1,120 feet

371.) A local factory assembling calculators produces 400 units per month and sells them at
P1,800 each. Dividends are 8% on the 8,000 shares with par value of P250 each. The
fixed operating cost per month is P25,000. Other costs are P1,000 per unit. If 200 units
were produced a month, determine the profit or loss.

A. Profit of P121,666.67
B. Profit of P21,666.67
C. Loss of P121,666.67
D. Loss of P21,666.67

372.) Nike shoes manufacturer produces a pair of Air Jordan Shoes at a labor cost of P900.00
a pair and a material cost of P800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are
P5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P400.00 a pair. Royalty to Michael
Jordan is P1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P5,000 a pair, how many
pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to breakeven?

A. 2,590
B. 2,632
C. 2,712
D. 2,890

373.) In a steel fabrication shop located somewhere in Cebu, various size rivet holes must be
made in structural members. This may be done by laying out the position of the hole on
the members and using a drill press for this method, a machinist wage rate is P20.25 per
hour and he can drill 27 holes per hour. An alternative method is by the use of the
multiple punch machine. In this process, the machinist wage rate is P20.00 per hour and
he can complete 8 holes per minute. This method requires P0.50 per holes to set the
multiple punch machine and an installation cost of P2,000.00. If all other costs are the
same, for what number of rivet holes will the multiple punch machine pay for itself?

A. 9,601
B. 9,592
C. 9,581
D. 9,566

374.) A new civil engineer produces a certain construction material at a labor cost of P16.20
per piece, material cost of P38.50 per piece and variable cost of P7.40 per piece. The
fixed charge on the business is P100,000.00 per month. If he sells the finished product
at P95.00 each, how many pieces must be manufactured in each month to breakeven?

A. 3,045
B. 3,035
C. 3,030
D. 3,040

375.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present total profit for a year?

A. P168,000
B. P170,000
C. P172,000
D. P174,000

376.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present breakeven point in units?

A. 160,000
B. 162,000
C. 165,000
D. 170,000

377.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the current profit or loss?

A. P87,450
B. P88,960
C. P88,450
D. P87,960

378.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the breakeven point?
A. 294,560
B. 291,000
C. 290,780
D. 295,490

379.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firms annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What is the firms annual profit or loss?

A. P814,320
B. P815,230
C. P816,567
D. P817,239

380.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firms annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What volume of sales does the firm breakeven?

A. P3,354,680
B. P3,534,880
C. P3,155,690
D. P3,254,680

381.) A small shop in Bulacan fabricates threshers for palay producers in the locality. The
shop can produce each thresher at a labor cost of P1,800.00. The cost of materials for
each unit is P2,500.00. The variable costs amounts to P650.00 per unit while fixed
charges incurred per annum totals P69,000.00. If the portable threshers are sold at
P7,800.00 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold per annum to
breakeven?

A. 28
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27

382.) The direct labor cost and material cost of a certain product are P300 and P400 per unit,
respectively. Fixed charges are P100,000 per month and other variable costs are P100
per unit. If the product is sold at P1,200 per unit, how many units must be produced and
sold to breakeven?

A. 280
B. 250
C. 260
D. 270

383.) The following data for year 2000 are available for Cagayan Automotive Company
which manufactures and sells a single automotive product line:

Unit selling price - P40.00


Unit variable cost - P20.00
Unit contribution margin - P20.00
Total fixed costs - P200,000.00

What is the breakeven point in units for the current year?

A. 10,000
B. 10,100
C. 10,050
D. 10,200

384.) The cost of producing a small transistor radio set consists of P230.00 for labor and
P370.00 for material. The fixed charges is operating the plant is P1,000,000.00 per
month. The variable cost is P10.00 per set. The radio set can be sold for P750.00 each.
Determine how many sets must be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 7,123
B. 7,133
C. 7,143
D. 7,153

385.) An item which can be sold for P63.00 per unit wholesale is being produced with the
following cost data:

Labor cost - P10.00 per unit


Material cost - P15.00 per unit
Fixed charges - P10,000.00
Variable cost - P8.00 per unit

What is the breakeven point sales volume if one out of every 10 units produced is
defective and is rejected with only full recovery on materials?

A. P25,011
B. P25,111
C. P25,121
D. P25,132

386.) A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the
estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output.
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method

387.) Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?

A. Declining balance method


B. Sinking fund method
C. Straight line method
D. SYD method

388.) A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at


compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal
to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the assets estimated life.

A. Straight line method


B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method

389.) The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a
sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits.

A. Sinking fund factor


B. Present worth factor
C. Capacity factor
D. Demand factor

390.) The first cost of any property includes:

A. The original purchase price and freight and transportation charges


B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permits fee
D. All of the above

391.) In SYD method, the sum of years digit is calculated using which formula with n =
number of useful years of the equipment.

A.
B.
C. n(n+1)
D. n(n-1)

392.) Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the:


A. Annual cost
B. First cost + Interest of the first cost
C. First cost + Cost of perpetual maintenance
D. First cost + Salvage value

393.) The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available
(referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, etc).

A. Depreciation
B. Depletion
C. Inflation
D. Incremental cost

394.) Is the simplest form of business organization.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Enterprise
D. Corporation

395.) An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable


business.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

396.) A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

397.) Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Enterprise

398.) Which is NOT a type of business organization?


A. Sole proprietorship
B. Corporation
C. Enterprise
D. Partnership

399.) What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7

400.) In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to
pay the liabilities.
C. The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
D. The partners may sell stock to generate additional capital.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

GENERAL ENGINEERING
AND APPLIED SCIENCES
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

THERMODYNAMICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek
words meaning _________.
a. transformation of heat
b. transformation of energy
c. movement of heat
d. movement of matter

2. What is the Si unit for temperature?


a. Kelvin
b. Celsius
c. Fahrenheit
d. Rankine

3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object
because of the difference in temperature is called
a. heat
b. temperature
c. thermodynamics cycle
d. energy flow

4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a
substance changes from one phase to another.
a. specific heat
b. heat of expansion
c. latent heat
d. useful heat

5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.


a. intensive property
b. extensive property
c. volume expansion
d. thermal expansion

6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in


response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.
a. elongation
b. thermal stress
c. expansion contraction
d. thermal expansion
7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.
a. Specific Energy
b. Molecular Energy
c. Internal Energy
d. Phase Energy

8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or
removed to change the temperature of a substance.
a. Specific Heat Capacity
b. Latent Heat
c. Heat of Transformation
d. Internal Heat

9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or
solid phase.
a. Phase Pressure
b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure
c. Specific Pressure
d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure

10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.


a. pressure
b. force
c. volume
d. temperature

11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases
possible for that particular substance.
a. Phase diagram
b. P-T diagram
c. Wein Diagram
d. Histogram

12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.


a. Internal Energy
b. Grand Energy
c. Atomic Energy
d. Elemental Energy
13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1
gram of water by 1 Celsius degree.
a. specific heat
b. latent heat
c. Joule
d. calorie

14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance.
a. movement
b. temperature
c. heat
d. mass

15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.
a. internal KE
b. Atomic kinetic energy
c. Zero-Point Energy
d. Subliminal Energy

16. Convert the change of temperature from 20C to 30C to Kelvin scale.
a. 10 K
b. 293 K
c. 303 K
d. 273 K

17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the useful work obtainable
from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.
a. useful work
b. energy consumed
c. Helmholtz free energy
d. Kinetic Energy

18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the
temperature varies from -15C in winter to 41C in summer?
a. 0.67 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 3.1 m
d. 0.47 m
19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of
house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the
temperature can change by 55C?
a. 0.21 m
b. 0.18 m
c. 0.31 in
d. 0.18 in

20. What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is
at right angles to the suns rays at the top of the atmosphere?
a. 1400 J
b. 6000 J
c. 10000 J
d. 800 J

21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the useful or process-initiating


work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.
a. Du-Pont Potential
b. Gibbs free energy
c. Rabz-Eccles Energy
d. Claussius Energy

22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.


a. heat
b. depleted
c. exhausted
d. work

23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the
equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.
a. vacuum pressure
b. relative humidity
c. absolute pressure
d. vapor pressure

24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no
intermediate liquid stage.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation

25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.


a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation

26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a
temperature change.
a. expand
b. contract
c. change
d. increase

27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of
linear expansion.
a. unrelated to
b. proportional to
c. twice
d. three times

28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from
4C to 0C.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above

29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.
a. no volume
b. no pressure
c. zero temperature at all scales
d. none of the above

30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the
temperature rises?
a. the relative humidity increases
b. the relative humidity decreases
c. the relative humidity remains constant
d. the air would eventually become saturated

31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.


a. placidity
b. mass flow
c. convection current
d. heat transfer

32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.


a. elastic material
b. transponder material
c. Teflon
d. blackbody

33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the
material.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Emission

34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadros number of atoms/molecules.


a. mass
b. matter
c. gram-mole
d. volume

35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.


a. velocity of propagation
b. escape velocity
c. Maxwell speed Distribution
d. terminal velocity

36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a fan, is used to produce the
fluid flow.
a. Forced Convection
b. External Convection
c. Placid Convection
d. Thermionic Convection
37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process
used to reach that state.
a. cycle
b. path function
c. point function
d. process

38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular
change in state.
a. path function
b. point function
c. process
d. cycle

39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.
a. wall
b. boundary
c. interface
d. intersection

40. A closed system is also known as _________.


a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume

41. Open system is also known as _________.


a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume

42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. 290
b. 63
c. -120
d. -256

43. When a solid melts,


a. the temperature of the substance increases.
b. the temperature of the substance decreases.
c. heat leaves the substance.
d. heat enters the substance.

44. How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35C to 55C.
a. 15
b. 1500
c. 1.5 x 10^4
d. 6.3 x 10^4

45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has?
a. temperature
b. amount of material
c. type of material
d. shape of the object

46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?


a. liquids
b. gases
c. metals
d. solids other than metals

47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature.
Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched?
a. aluminium
b. brass
c. glass
d. concrete

48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume


a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. none of the above

49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its


a. pressure
b. Celsius temperature
c. Kelvin temperature
d. Fahrenheit temperature
50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled,
the volume is
a. increased fourfold
b. doubled
c. reduced by half
d. decreased by a quarter

51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the
molecules in the gas?
a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2
b. it increases by a factor of 2
c. it increases by factor of 4
d. none of the above

52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.
a. enthalpy
b. entropy
c. law of diminishing return
d. Lenz Law

53. No volume changes occur during this type of process


a. Isobaric process
b. Isomillimetric process
c. Isocaloric process
d. Isochoric process

54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________
process.
a. adiabatic
b. isochoric
c. isobaric
d. zero work

55. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100C, the entropy of water
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. none of the above

56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.


a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Isolated system
d. Isoenergetic system

57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.
a. boiling temperature
b. normal boiling point
c. triple point
d. point of infliction

58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation
temperature.
a. dry steam
b. current steam
c. wet steam
d. aerosol

59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate
receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.
a. dry steam
b. wet steam
c. phase steam
d. flash steam

60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.
a. dryness fraction
b. Vaporization
c. fusion
d. super heated steam

61. What device measures infrared radiation below?


a. thermocouple
b. thermopile
c. thermodynamic device
d. thermos

62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,


a. any holes in the object expand as well
b. any holes in the object remain the same
c. mass increases
d. molecular activities would cease

63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water
1 F from 63 F to 64 F.
a. one Joule
b. one calorie
c. one watt
d. one BTU

64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.


a. volume
b. power
c. heat
d. pressure

65. Thermos was invented by _________.


a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
b. Sir Fredrich the Great
c. Thomas Edison
d. Sir James Dewar

66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.


a. Isochoric
b. Isothermal
c. Isobaric
d. Isovolumic

67. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________
respectively.
a. raising the temp and lowering the temp
b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature
c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure
d. lowering the temp and raising the temp

68. The statement heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body is governed
by _________.
a. the first law of thermodynamics
b. the second law of thermodynamics
c. the third law of thermodynamics
d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics

69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler
to a hotter body
a. Carnots statement
b. Clausius statement
c. Rankine statement
d. Gauss statement

70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another
molecule.
a. mean free path
b. path allowance
c. compacting factor
d. molecular space

71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.


a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2
b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2
c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2
d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2

72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?
a. 1 x 10^5 tons
b. 2 x 10^6 tons
c. 6 x 10^15 tons
d. 8 x 10^10 tons

73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm
long.
a. surface pressure
b. gage pressure
c. standard atmospheric pressure
d. isobaric pressure

74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at
every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.
a. Torricellis law
b. Barometric law
c. Newtons Second law
d. Pascals law

75. What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyles Law?


a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. Gauge Pressure
c. Surface Pressure
d. Isobaric Pressure

76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.
a. 62.4 lb
b. 9.81 lb
c. 76 lb
d. 760 lb

77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.
a. force per length
b. surface tension
c. Pressure
d. Density

78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by
_________.
a. Archimedes Principle
b. Evangelistas Law
c. Torricellis Theorem
d. Bernoullis Equation

79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called
_________.
a. diffusion
b. viscosity
c. streamline flow
d. solution

80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon
centigrade and used Celsius Instead?
a. 1950
b. 1936
c. 1957
d. 1948
81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to
produce saturation.
a. relative humidity
b. triple point temperature
c. dew point
d. critical point

82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to
its initial state.
a. process
b. system
c. equilibrium
d. cycle

83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.


a. Bulk Properties
b. Innate Properties
c. Natural Properties
d. Inside Properties

84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic


process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower
pressure state.
a. Rankine Process
b. Carnot Cycle
c. Joule-Thomson process
d. Refrigeration process

85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Burnign Cycle
c. Shikki Cycle
d. Shapa R Elli Cycle

86. Twenty grams of ice at 0C melts to water at 0C. How much does the entropy of the 20g
change in this process?
a. 30.5 J/K
b. 24.6 J/K
c. 21.3 J/K
d. 15.7 J/K
87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a. conservation of mass
b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
c. action reaction
d. conservation of energy

88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in
internal energy of the system.
a. 1400 J
b. 1700 J
c. 1900 J
d. 1500 J

89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is
heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200
kPa. Find the work done on the system.
a. 5 kJ
b. 15 kJ
c. 10 kJ
d. 12 kJ

90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180C and exhausts directly into
the air at 100C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?
a. 11.28 %
b. 36.77 %
c. 20.36 %
d. 17.66 %

91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.


a. Latent heat
b. Sensible heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat of Fusion

92. Who coined the term latent heat?


a. John Thompson
b. Studey Baker
c. Joe di Maggio
d. Joseph Black
93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?
a. Latent Heat
b. Sensible Heat
c. Specific Heat
d. Heat of Fusion

94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0
Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.
a. First Law of thermodynamics
b. Second Law of thermodynamics
c. Third Law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics

95. One calorie is equal to _________.


a. 1/180 W.h
b. 1/860 W.h
c. 1/360 W.h
d. 1/250 W.h

96. A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place
according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.
a. Polytropic process
b. Entropy
c. Ideal Gas Law
d. Carnot Cycle

97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the
system remain constant with respect to time.
a. streamline flow
b. steady flow
c. constant flow
d. algebraic flow

98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is
the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Lazare Cycle
c. Isothermal Cycle
d. Carnot Cycle
99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine
the pressure at this point
a. 733.33 kPa
b. 833.33 kPa
c. 933.33 kPa
d. 633.33 kPa

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?


a. Lazare Carnot
b. Sadi Carnot
c. William Thompson
d. Rudolf Classius
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

CHEMISTRY
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
1. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their
individual relative masses.

A. mass spectrometer
B. barometer
C. hygrometer
D. hydrometer
2. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
A. isotope

B. hydrates
C. ion
D. mixture
3. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
A. combustion reactions

B. replacement reactions
C. metathesis
D. neutralization
4. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of
reaction is

A. decomposition
B. combination
C. displacement
D. double displacement
5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is
A. 76 mm Hg
B. 760 cm Hg

C. 760 mm Hg
D. 7.6 cm Hg
6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called
A. Calcination
B. Roasting

C. Smelting
D. Froth flotation process
7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?
A. volume

B. mass
C. pressure
D. density
8. A device used to measure density.
A. manometer

B. hydrometer
C. spectrometer
D. densimeter
9. The statement mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction is known as:

A. The law of conservation of mass


B. The law of constant composition
C. The law of multiple proportions
D. The law of chemical reaction
10. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is greater than 2.0

A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
11. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is less than 1.5?
A. Covalent Bond
B. Ionic Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
12. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic number 4. What is
the charge on the Be atom?
A. +4
B. +8
C. -4

D. Neutral
13. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is
called:

A. period
B. group
C. family
D. row
14. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called
A. polymorphs

B. hydrocarbons
C. polycarbon
D. plastics
15. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called

A. viscosity
B. elasticity
C. glueyness
D. stickiness
16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called
A. reductant
B. reducing agent
C. oxidant
D. acceptor
17. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the
reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:

A. the law of conservation of mass


B. the law of definite proportion
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
18. When the same elements can form two different two compounds, the ratio of masses of one
of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the
other element. This is known as:
A. The law of constant composition
B. The law of conservation of mass

C. The law of multiple proportion


D. The law of conservation of energy
19. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called:

A. specific gravity
B. relative gravity
C. specific weight
D. relative weight
20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?
A. 3

B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
21. The SI unit of temperature is
A. Fahrenheit

B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine
22. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by
mass. This is known as:

A. the law of constant composition


B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
23. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10
neutrons.
A. 10 amu

B. 19 amu
C. 15 amu
D. 21 amu
24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called

A. atomic number
B. percent abundance
C. atomic weight
D. oxidation number
25. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called
A. momentum

B. mass
C. inertia
D. velocity
26. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.
A. precision
B. error
C. tolerance
D. accuracy
27. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.
A. accuracy

B. precision
C. error
D. margin
28. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an identification tag for a substance.
A. mass
B. molarity

C. density
D. volume
29. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called

A. quarks
B. ions
C. isotope
D. warks
30. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally called Prousts Law is
now known as
A. The law of multiple proportion

B. The law of definite proportion


C. The law of conservation of mass
D. The law of compounds
31. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron?
A. 1837 times

B. 7300 times
C. 1829 times
D. 1567 times
32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
A. ions
B. quarks

C. isotopes
D. compounds
33. The forces that hold atoms together are called
A. mechanical bond
B. formula bond
C. atomic bind

D. chemical bond
34. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called

A. ion
B. isotope
C. positron
D. polymer
35. A positive ion is called
A. positron
B. anion

C. cation
D. quark
36. A negative ion is called
A. positron

B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called

A. ionic bonding
B. covalent bonding
C. polar bonding
D. metallic bonding
38. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called
A. group

B. period
C. series
D. row
39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called
A. period

B. group
C. series
D. column
40. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure
A. is decreased to half

B. is doubled
C. is increased to four times
D. remains unchanged
41. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called
A. argand diagram
B. constellation diagram

C. electron dot diagram


D. structural formula
42. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to
their group number?
A. transition group
B. noble gas
C. representative or main group
D. metals
43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a p orbital?
A. 2
B. 4

C. 6
D. 8
44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration

A. isoelectronic
B. isometric
C. iso-ionic
D. isotope
45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?

A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?
A. Group 4
B. Group 5
C. Group 6

D. Group 7
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
ECONOMICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want

A. Necessity
B. Utility
C. Luxuries
D. Discount

2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the
owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.

A. Common stock
B. Voting stock
C. Pretend stock
D. Non par value stock

3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Use value
D. Fair value

4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a
difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.

A. Loss
B. Depreciation
C. Extracted
D. Gain

5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that
one suppliers actions significantly affect prices and supply.

A. Oligopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition
6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods
substitute.

A. Monosony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.

A. Salvage value
B. Price
C. Book value
D. Scrap value

8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely


formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.

A. Cartel
B. Monopoly
C. Corporation
D. Competitors

10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monophony
C. Oligopoly
D. Perfect competition

11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.


A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Bilateral Monopoly

12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation

13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bonds

14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Interest
B. Amortization
C. Annuity
D. Bonds

15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Maker
B. Store
C. Bargain center
D. Port

16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate

A. Stock value
B. Par value
C. Interest
D. Maturity value
17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many
sellers.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Duopoly

18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in
one business market or commodity.

A. Oligopoly
B. Duopoly
C. Duopsony
D. duopoly

19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the
beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.

A. Tally
B. Par value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even

21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be
retrieved.

A. Sunk cost
B. Fixed costs
C. Depletion cost
D. Construction cost
22. An obligation with no condition attach is called

A. Personal
B. Gratuitous
C. Concealed
D. Private

23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.

A. Operation costs
B. Construction cost
C. Depletion cost
D. Production cost

24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.

A. Marginal cost
B. Marginal revenue
C. Extra profit
D. Prime cost

25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.

A. Junk value
B. Salvage value
C. Scrap value
D. Book value

26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has
been charged to depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Market value

27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all
materials that go into production is called

A. Net cost
B. Maintenance cost
C. Prime cost
D. Operating cost

28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the
future is called

A. Market value
B. Net value
C. Discount
D. Interest

29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is

A. Prime cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Differential cost
D. Sunk cost

30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or
maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.

A. Annuity
B. Bond
C. Amortization
D. Collateral

31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Counting principle
C. Stock assessment
D. Periodic material update
33. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other
material which will be sold.

A. Fixed assets
B. Deferred charges
C. Current asset
D. Liability

34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by
the injured party to recover damages.

A. Fraud
B. Tort
C. Libel
D. Scam

35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time

A. Depletion
B. Capitalized cost
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

36. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that
will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies
considerably.

A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Demands
D. Luxury

37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Utility
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods
38. It is sometimes called the second hand value

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Par value

39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Deflation
B. Depletion
C. Declination
D. Depreciation

40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.

A. Single proprietorship
B. Party
C. Corporation
D. Partnership

41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one
person.

A. Partnership
B. Proprietorship
C. Corporation
D. Joint venture

42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.

A. Dummy person
B. Minors
C. Demented persons
D. Convict

43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Satisfaction
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of


vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Monophony
C. Monopoly
D. Cartel

45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money
is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Supplies

46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Paid off capital
C. Subscribed capital
D. Investment

47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.

A. Ledger
B. Spreadsheet
C. Journal
D. Logbook

48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.

A. Life span
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. Profitable life
49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain
region.

A. Permit
B. Royalty
C. License
D. Franchise

50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Par value
C. Market value
D. Book value
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MANAGEMENT
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and
controlling an organizations resources to achieve its mission and objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

2. Refers to the activity combining technical knowledge with the ability to organize and
coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.

A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club

3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except

A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education

4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about
nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product
concept to a finished physical term.

A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development
6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts
are tested for workability.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production


personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the


construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction
process.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the companys customers to meet
their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.

A. Construction
B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales

10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or
organization requiring his services.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government
11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government
performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the
activities of various institutions, public or private.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting

12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is
assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people
performing specific tasks.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.

A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving

15. The first step in Decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity
16. The last step in decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational
and analytical.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and
determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies
and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

21. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with
allocated resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time
with available resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an
organizations marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in
broad terms and by product family.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes
financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms
of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the companys strategic plan.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan

30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are
mostly concerned with these planes.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken
by middle and top management.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur
repeatedly.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about
recurring situations or function.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are
unlikely to be repeated.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains
where the required funds will come from.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to
support a program.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to
accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.

A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.

A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure
42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional
activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially single business
firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those
involved with a certain type of product or customer.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related
industries.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division
manager and to a project or group manager.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization
47. Refers to a managers right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

48. A staff specialists right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

49. A specialists right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless
of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits,
selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.

A. Resourcing
B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
D. Staffing

53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of
the organization.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and
goals.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that
those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to
succeed on the job.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Selection
D. Training

58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information
about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-
workers.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater
responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility
in the organization.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached
to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee
until he is offered a higher position.
A. Separation
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.

A. Separation
B. Transfer
C. Termination
D. Demotion

64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.

A. Counseling
B. Communication
C. Hypnotism
D. Language

65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels
in the organization.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit


themselves to the organizations objectives.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization,
employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space,
touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a
particular goal.

A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Unification

71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:

A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
C. Needs satisfaction
D. Inferiority complex

72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:

A. Maslows Needs Hierarchy Theory


B. Expectancy Theory
C. Herzbergs Two-Factor Theory
D. Gagarins Theory
73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work
behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.

A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
C. Leading
D. Commanding

74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions
within the organization. This describes:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests,
it termed as:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be
identified with the former.

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:


A. A high level of personal drive
B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
C. Charisma
D. Greedy

79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been
achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives
better in the future.

A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
D. Inspection

80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their
occurrence.

A. Feed forward control


B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect
variances are made.

A. Feed forward control


B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in
order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.

A. Feed forward control


B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in
useful ways.

A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation

84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives
efficiently and effectively.

A. Planning
B. Operations management
C. Evaluation management
D. Backboning

85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the
situation.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the
demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement
of these facilities.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long
each operation in the production process takes.

A. Plotting
B. Scheduling
C. Timetable
D. Anticipating
88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all
material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.

A. Work
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

90. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.

A. Advertisement
B. Commercial
C. Marketing
D. Sales

93. The four Ps of marketing are the following except:

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Publicity

94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the
product, idea, or service.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached
by their customers.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence
attitudes and behavior.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of
informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea
on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MECHANICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe s.
1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.

A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above

2. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.

A. scalars
B. vectors
C. tensors
D. none of the above

3. The product of a scalar and a vector is a

A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above

4. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1

A. moment vector
B. tensor
C. unit vector
D. vector unity

5. It is sometimes called the scalar product.

A. dot product
B. vector product
C. cross product
D. unit scalar

6. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is
used.

A. vector product
B. scalar product
C. dot product
D. vector sum

7. It is sometimes called the vector product.

A. dot product
B. cross product
C. tensor product
D. unit vector

8. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The cross product is commutative.


B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.
C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.
D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.

9. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the
________.

A. line of apsides
B. line of reaction
C. line of vector
D. line of action

10. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.

A. parallel
B. coplanar
C. concurrent
D. two-dimensional

11. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.

A. coplanar
B. two-dimensional
C. A or B
D. none of the above

12. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.

A. internal force
B. external force
C. body force
D. surface force

13. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.

A. continuum translation
B. discrete translation
C. finite translation
D. steady translation
14. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components
about P.

A. Cavalieris Theorem
B. Pascals Theorem
C. Varignons Theorem
D. Torricellis Theorem

15. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.

A. moment
B. momentum
C. impulse
D. torsion

16. A couple is composed of two forces that are

A. equal
B. equal and opposite
C. equal and different lines of action
D. equal, opposite and different lines of action

17. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?

A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.


B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.
C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.
D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.

18. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle , the component of weight (w) parallel to
incline is __________.

A. w sin
B. w cos
C. w tan
D. w cot

19. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.

A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass

20. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass

21. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to


A. lbm-ft/s2
B. g-cm/s2
C. kg-m/s2
D. kgf

22. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is
called

A. ground reflected force


B. gravity reflected force
C. ground reaction force
D. gravity reaction force

23. The gravity in the moon is about

A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2

24. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point
called

A. center of force
B. center of reaction
C. center of reflection
D. center of pressure

25. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?

A. mass of the load


B. acceleration of gravity
C. moment arm
D. all of the above

26. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is
called

A. moment arm
B. moment distance
C. lever arm
D. A or C

27. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted
by the force ___________.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. is unchanged
D. becomes zero

28. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero.


B. the force is applied at the moment axis.
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.
D. all of the above

29. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when
acting in given directions.

A. resolution of forces
B. integration of forces
C. composition of forces
D. quantization of forces

30. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics

A. Gilbert Lewis
B. Stephen Timoshenko
C. J. Gordon
D. A. Cotrell

31. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.

A. Discrete Mechanics
B. Finite Element Method
C. Continuum Mechanics
D. Contact Mechanics

32. Which of the following is an example of contact force?

A. gravitational force
B. magnetic force
C. air resistance force
D. electric force
33. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.

A. dynamic friction
B. static friction
C. kinetic friction
D. sliding friction

34. Given = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if
pulled with a force of 3 N.

A. remain at rest
B. move
C. accelerate
D. B and C

35. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.


B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic
friction.
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.
D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.

36. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform
accelerations are often referred to as

A. UVATS
B. SUVAT
C. UVATS
D. Either of the above

37. Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the
time rate of change of its linear momentum. This is known as Newtons ___________ of
motion.

A. Zeroth Law
B. First Law
C. Second Law
D. Third Law

38. It is also known as quantity of motion.

A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. acceleration
39. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely
fills the space it occupies.

A. Finite Element
B. Contact
C. Discrete
D. Continuum

40. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be
made.

A. Brayton Number
B. Knudsen Number
C. Reynolds Number
D. Prandtl Number

41. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles
of the moving continuum body.

A. Material Derivative
B. Continual Derivative
C. Particle Derivative
D. Quantum Derivative

42. Material derivative is also known as __________.

A. substantial derivative
B. commoving derivative
C. convective derivative
D. all of the above

43. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed
configuration is called the ________.

A. displacement vector
B. position vector
C. displacement field
D. position field

44. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.

A. position field
B. action field
C. displacement field
D. path field
45. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.

A. Continuum Mechanics
B. Solid Mechanics
C. Fluid Mechanics
D. Discrete Mechanics

46. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.

A. Particle Image Velocimetry


B. Particle Image Accelerometry
C. Particle Image Flowmeter
D. Particle Image Viscosimetry

47. A fluid at rest has no

A. longitudinal stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress

48. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.

A. compressibility
B. plasticity
C. elasticity
D. viscosity

49. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the
external pressure and internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.

A. Navier Stokes Equations


B. Torricelli Equations
C. Reynolds Equations
D. Lagrangian Equations

50. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow

A. Newtonian fluid
B. non-Newtonian fluid
C. Lagrangian fluid
D. non-Lagrangian fluid

51. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?

A. oobleck
B. pudding
C. water
D. paint

52. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then

A. no forces are acting on the object.


B. the forces acting the object are balanced.
C. the object is in equilibrium state.
D. either of the above

53. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.

A. reactant
B. equilibrant
C. buoyant
D. reverse effective force

54. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10 and 15 N at 100 is

A.18 N at 246
B. 18 N at 66
C. 25 N at -114
D. 25 N at 66

55. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act

A. center of gravity
B. centroid
C. center of mass
D. all of the above are correct

56. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will

A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry


B. lie anywhere on the area
C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry
D. not lie on the line of symmetry

57. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also
be called moment of inertia.

A. determine the state of stress in a section


B. calculate the resistance to buckling
C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam
D. all of the above
58. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal
axis to another parallel axis.

A. moment of axis theorem


B. transfer formula
C. parallel axis theorem
D. B or C

59. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero


B. the force is applied at the moment axis
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis
D. all of the above

60. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is

A. 1/5 mr2
B. 2/5 mr2
C. 3/5 mr2
D. 4/5 mr2

61. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is

A. 1/6 mr2
B. 1/3 mr2
C. 1/2 mr2
D. 2/3 mr2

62. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is
distributed about the reference axis.

A. moment of area
B. second moment of area
C. third moment of area
D. fourth moment of area

63. It is the materials ability to resist twisting

A. mass moment of inertia


B. moment of area
C. second moment of area
D. polar moment of area

64. Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the object. This is known as the ____________.
A. Bernoullis Principle
B. Torricellis Principle
C. Archimedes Principle
D. Pascals Principle

65. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or
partially immersed.

A. Archimedes force
B. fluid pressure
C. buoyancy
D. weight reaction

66. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of
weight 3 N. Determine the tension in the string.

A. 13 N
B. 7 N
C. 10 N
D. 3 N

67. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.

A. tends to rise
B. tends to sink
C. A or B
D. none of the above

68. It is the rate of change of velocity

A. displacement
B. acceleration
C. momentum
D. impulse

69. Impulse is equal to ________.

A. force x time
B. change in momentum
C. A or B
D. none of the above

70. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are
known as __________.

A. elastic collisions
B. inelastic collisions
C. static collisions
D. plastic collisions

71. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the
momentum change of the object?

A. 1 N-s
B. 400 N-s
C. 0.5 N-s
D. 200 N-s

72. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the
magnitude of the impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?

A. 1 N-s
B. 5 N-s
C. 10 N-s
D. 20 N-s

73. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.

A. momentum
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. acceleration

74. The SI unit for angular velocity is

A. degrees per second


B. revolutions per second
C. mils per second
D. radians per second

75. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula

A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity


B. mass x linear velocity
C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity
D. mass x angular velocity

76. The time derivative of angular momentum is called

A. angular velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. work
D. torque

77. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system
can be known at once.

A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle


B. particle momentum principle
C. particle position principle
D. Bohrs uncertainty principle

78. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is

A. kg-m2
B. kg-m4
C. m4
D. m2

79. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for
determining the internal forces and reactions on that structure.

A. statically determinate
B. statically indeterminate
C. dynamically determinate
D. dynamically indeterminate

80. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant
acceleration without having a known time interval.

A. Bernoullis equation
B. Torricellis equation
C. Newtons equation
D. Cavendishs equation

81. Torricellis equation of motion is

A. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + 2as
B. Vf = Vi + at
C. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + at
D. Vf = Vi + 2as

82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?

A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.


B. It appears to act outward the body.
C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.
D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.
83. Centripetal acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.


B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.
D. changes nothing about velocity.

84. Tangential acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.


B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.
D. changes nothing about velocity.

85. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic
force manifest.

A. Eforce
B. Tforce
C. Kforce
D. Gforce

86. The value of Gforce is equal to

A. 1.211 x 1041 N
B. 1.211 x 1042 N
C. 1.211 x 1043 N
D. 1.211 x 1044 N

87. The gravitational force constant has the units

A. m3 kg-1 s-2
B. N kg-1 s-2
C. m2 kg-1 s-2
D. N kg-1 m-1

88. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is

A. 1.02 x 1057 N
B. 1.02 x 10-57 N
C. 1.02 x 10-67 N
D. 1.02 x 1067 N

89. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is

A. 4 x 1011 m3 s-2
B. 4 x 1014 m3 s-2
C. 4 x 108 m3 s-2
D. 4 x 1010 m3 s-2

90. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 1022 kg, determine the
acceleration due to gravity on the moon.

A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2

91. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat
surface.

A. rolling resistance
B. rolling friction
C. rolling drag
D. either of the above

92. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?

A. type of material
B. dimensions
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

93. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as

A. coefficient of rolling friction


B. coefficient of friction
C. coefficient of resistance
D. rolling friction constant

94. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is

A. 0.0002 0.0010
B. 0.005
C. 0.02
D. 0.3

95. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is

A. 0.0002 0.0010
B. 0.1 0.2
C. 0.01 0.015
D. 0.05 0.06

96. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.

A. factor of safety
B. mechanical factor
C. mechanical advantage
D. mechanical coefficient

97. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.

A. quantum mechanics
B. classical mechanics
C. discrete mechanics
D. continuum mechanics

98. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j 90k (N).

A. 130 N
B. 120 N
C. 100 N
D. 110 N

99. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.

A. 18
B. 16
C. 14
D. 12

100. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = Uxi 4j + 6k and
V = 3i + 2j 3k. Determine the component Ux.

A. 5.67
B. 6.67
C. 7.67
D. 8.67
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

PHYSICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure,
the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the
same value. The concept is known as
A. Bernoullis Energy Principles
B. Fluid theorem
C. Pascals theorem
D. Hydraulic theorem
2. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of
the system.
A. Total mechanical energy
B. Total potential energy
C. Total kinetic energy
D. Total momentum
3. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite
directions are superimposed,
A. the phase difference is always zero
B. distractive waves are produced
C. standing waves are produced
D. constructive interference always results to zero
4. According to this law, The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude
of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them.
A. Law of Universal Gravitation
B. Newtons Law
C. Inverse Square Law
D. Coulombs Law
5. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per
square meter.
A. Illuminance
B. Luminance
C. Luminous Intensity
D. Radiance
6. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as
A. Pascals Principle
B. Bernoullis Theorem
C. Ideal Fluid Principle
D. Archimedes Principle
7. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is
A. condensation
B. cold fusion
C. latent heat of fusion
D. solid fusion
8. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure
A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid
B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure
C. is less than the atmospheric pressure
D. can have any value
9. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly
1500oC?
A. Gas thermometer
B. Platinum resistance thermometer
C. Thermo couple thermometer
D. Mercury thermometer
10. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is
A. Mechanical energy
B. Elastic potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Kinetic energy
11. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively,
which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to
freeze a liquid?
A. Q = -mif
B. Q = -miv
C. Q = mif
D. Q = miv
12. Which of the following is true? The density of water
A. Is maximum at 4oC
B. Decreases as the temperature is increased
C. Is minimum at 4oC
D. Increases with temperature
13. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its
A. frequency decreases
B. wavelength is increased
C. frequency increases
D. None of the above is true
14. Cohesion is the attraction between like
A. atom
B. element
C. compound
D. molecule
15. The quality known as specific heat is based on:
A. the increase in temperature due to induction
B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil
C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one
degree Celsius
D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead
16. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will
A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. decrease
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
17. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. remains unaffected
C. decreases
D. Any of the above is possible
18. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. none of the above
19. When salt is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
20. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?
A. The sound waves
B. The heat waves
C. The shock waves
D. The Beta rays
21. Which of the following is not true about sound waves?
A. They transmit the energy
B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions
C. They travel faster in air than in solids
D. They produce interference
22. Sound waves in air are
A. longitudinal
B. neither longitudinal nor transverse
C. transverse
D. stationary
23. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is
A. Less than 20 Hz
B. More than 25,000 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
D. All of these
24. The loudness of sound depends upon its
A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. All of the above
25. Sound above the frequency of 20000 Hz is called
A. Supersonic sound
B. Intrasonic sound
C. Hypersonic sound
D. Ultrasonic sound
26. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer by what process?
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. vaporization
27. Water starts boiling when
A. Its temperature reaches 100oC
B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface
D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
28. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements
is correct?
A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0oC
B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0oC
C. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered
D. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised
29. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in
A. mass
B. specific mass
C. density
D. temperature
30. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without
rise in its temperature is called its
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Water equivalent
31. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and
heat was
A. Joule
B. Boltzmann
C. Faraday
D. Kelvin
32. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the water stays relatively cool is
due to the difference in of water and sand.
A. density
B. specific heat
C. depth
D. thermal conductivity
33. The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is called
A. thermopile
B. thermometer
C. pyrometer
D. hydrometer
34. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure,
A. the potential energy of molecules increases
B. the potential energy of molecules decreases
C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases
D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases
35. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is
A. independent of its pressure P
B. directly proportional to square root of P
C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T
D. proportional to T
36. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same
reading?
A. -38oC
B. -40oC
C. -42oC
D. -50oC
37. A mercury thermometer is constructed at
A. room temperature
B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer
C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer
D. atmospheric pressure
38. The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. At hills it will be
A. 100oC
B. Less than 100oC
C. More than 100oC
D. May be any of the above
39. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of:
A. convection of heat
B. conduction of heat
C. radiation of heat
D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat
40. The density of water is
A. same at all temperature
B. maximum at 4oC
C. minimum at 4oC
D. maximum at 0oC
41. When a substance is heated, its
A. molecules move more slowly
B. molecules move more rapidly
C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules
D. its temperature always increases
42. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. none of these
43. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is
A. 0oC
B. -273oC
C. -39oC
D. -143oC
44. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the waves goes from
left is called a
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Transverse wave
C. Standing wave
D. None of these
45. When waves go from one place to another they transport
A. Energy and matter
B. Wavelength and matter
C. Frequency only
D. Energy only
46. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in
A. frequency
B. velocity
C. wavelength
D. amplitude
47. Echo is formed as a result of
A. refraction of sound
B. diffraction of sound
C. interference of sound
D. reflection of sound
48. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical notes having the
same frequency and loudness is called
A. pitch
B. intensity
C. timber
D. decibel
49. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?
A. electromagnetic waves
B. a sound wave in air
C. a water wave
D. waves on vibrating string
50. A Decibel is a
A. musical instrument
B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork
C. a measure of intensity level
D. a measure of clarity of sound
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

STRENGTH OF
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. Strength of materials can most aptly be described as statics of deformable _______
bodies.
A. elastic
B. rigid
C. compressible
D. thermal
2. It states that the elongation is proportional to the force
A. Pascals Law
B. Hookes Law
C. Youngs Theorem
D. Farrells Law
3. The modulus of elasticity is also known as
A. Youngs modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Hookes ratio
D. Yield strength
4. A ________ material is one having a relatively large tensile strain up to the point of
rupture
A. malleable
B. brittle
C. conductible
D. ductile
5. A ________ material has a relatively small strain up to the point of rupture
A. brittle
B. malleable
C. ductile
D. conductible
6. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension that the stress is a
linear function of strain.
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
7. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension test such that there is
no permanent or residual deformation when the load is entirely removed
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
8. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the origin to the proportional limit is
called
A. rigid range
B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range
9. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the proportional limit to the point of
rupture is called
A. rigid range
B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range
10. The ordinate of the point at which there is an increase in strain with no increase in stress
is known as
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
11. The maximum ordinate to the curve
A. yield strength
B. ultimate strength
C. tensile strength
D. both B and C are correct
12. The ratio of the strain in the lateral direction to that in the axial direction
A. Pascals Number
B. Factor of Safety
C. Youngs Modulus
D. Poissons ratio
13. Defined as the ratio of the ultimate strength to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
14. Defined as the ratio of the Youngs modulus to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
15. One of the same elastic properties at all points in the body
A. heterogeneous material
B. multistate material
C. homogenous material
D. monostate material
16. One of having the same elastic properties in all directions at any one point of the body
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
17. Material that does not possess any kind of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
18. Material that has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
19. The change of volume per unit volume is defined as the
A. Convection
B. Dilatation
C. Expansion
D. Mutation
20. A measure of the resistance of a material to change of volume without change of shape or
form
A. Youngs modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Bulk modulus
D. Shear modulus
21. Stresses arising when a change in temperature affects the original length of a body
A. Kelvin stress
B. Thermal stress
C. Hydraulic stress
D. Humid stress
22. The typical Youngs modulus of steel is
A. 145-170 GPa
B. 195-210 GPa
C. 225-240 GPa
D. 275-310 GPa
23. Poissons ratio of glass
A. 0.16
B. 0.19
C. 0.23
D. 0.27
24. The yield strength of pure aluminum is
A. 7-11 MPa
B. 7-11 GPa
C. 2-5 MPa
D. 2-5 GPa
25. One Newton per square meter is one
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Pascal
D. Kelvin
26. Stress on an object is _________ its cross sectional area
A. directly proportional to
B. inversely proportional to
C. less than
D. greater than
27. The condition under which the stress is constant or uniform is known as
A. Shearing stress
B. Tangential stress
C. Torsion
D. Simple stress
28. Tensile and compressive stress are caused by forces _________ to the areas on which
they act
A. perpendicular
B. parallel
C. angled
D. skew
29. Which of the following is/are known as tangential stress?
A. Circumferential stress
B. Hoop stress
C. Girth stress
D. All of the above
30. The maximum safe stress a material can carry
A. Optimum stress
B. Working stress
C. Differential stress
D. Partial stress
31. It is the change in shape and / or size of a continuum body after it undergoes a
displacement between an initial and a deformed configuration
A. Deformation
B. Distortion
C. Deflection
D. Dilation
32. Expressed as the ration of total deformation to the initial dimension of the material body
in which forces are being applied.
A. Elasticity
B. Dislocation
C. Stress
D. Strain
33. Engineering strain is also known as
A. Hooke strain
B. Cauchy strain
C. Couch strain
D. Pascal strain
34. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract, the
Poissons ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
35. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to expand, the
Poissons ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
36. Which of the following is known to have no contractions or expansion when stretched in
the other direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
37. Which of the following materials is known to expand instead of contracting when
stretched in the other direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
38. Is the twisting of an object due to an applied torque.
A. Torsion
B. Radial distortion
C. Circumferential shear
D. Centrifugal force
39. The angle of twist is measured in
A. Mils
B. Gradians
C. Radians
D. Degrees
40. It is the rotational force down a shaft
A. Pressure
B. Torque
C. Torsion
D. Tangential load
41. It is made of elastic material formed into the shape of a helix which returns to its natural
length when unloaded
A. Autumn
B. Spring
C. Spiral
D. Beam
42. The form of deformation of a spring is
A. Twisting
B. Volume expansion
C. Elongation
D. None of the above
43. A 6mm bar is subjected to a tensile force of 4000 N. Find the stress.
A. 333.33 MPa
B. 70.74 MPa
C. 435.34 MPa
D. 43.30 MPa
44. If the circumference of the cross section of a cylindrical bar is 25mm, what maximum
axial load can it handle if the stress is not to exceed 100 MPa?
A. 4973.59 N
B. 4932.43 N
C. 4901.53 N
D. 4892.43 N
45. What is the minimum diameter of a bar subjected to an axial load of 6.5 kN if its ultimate
stress is 140 MPa
A. 2.43 mm
B. 4.24 mm
C. 6.34 mm
D. 7.69 mm
46. A hollow cylindrical baris subjected to an axial load of 4.5 kN. If the inner diameter is
3mm, what should the outer diameter be if it is not to exceed 125 MPa?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.53 mm
C. 7.41 mm
D. 5.34 mm
47. Determine the outside of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a
stress of 140 MPa. Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside diameter.
A. 104 mm
B. 113 mm
C. 134 mm
D. 153 mm
48. A 20 m bar with a square cross section of 9 mm2 is subjected to a tensile force without
exceeding its ultimate stress. If the bar is to be replaced by cylindrical one, what should
the diameter be?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.32 mm
C. 3.39 mm
D. 1.24 mm
49. Two plates are being pulled at opposite directions with a load of 20 kN. If the plates are
secured by two bolts 75 mm in diameter, what is the shearing stress applied to each bolt?
A. 4.23 MPa
B. 3.21 MPa
C. 2.26 MPa
D. 1.28 MPa
50. Three plates, secured by a 60 mm bolt, are being pulled at opposite directions alternately.
What pulling force is needed to shear off the bolt if it can withstand a stress of up to 175
MPa?
A. 434 kN
B. 242 kN
C. 495 kN
D. 272 kN
51. What force is required to punch off a 5 mm hole out of a 4 mm thick plate if the ultimate
punching stress is 200 MPa?
A. 15.53 kN
B. 17.45 kN
C. 14.43 kN
D. 12.57 kN
52. A hole is to be punched out of a plate having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 MPa. If
the compressive stress in the punch is limited to 400 MPa, determine the maximum
thickness of plate from which a hole, 100 mm in diameter can be punched.
A. 33.3 mm
B. 17.9 mm
C. 13.4 mm
D. 26.9 mm
53. A cylindrical vessel with wall diameter of 15 mm containing gas holds pressure of 30
MPa. If the thickness is 10% of the inner diameter, what is the longitudinal stress?
A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 75 MPa
54. What is the tangential stress in question 51?
A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 75 MPa
55. If the tensile stress of a spherical vessel is limited to 17 MPa, what is the minimum
thickness allowed if its inner radius is 7 mm containing gas with 20 N/mm2 of pressure?
A. 2.06 mm
B. 4.12 mm
C. 6.24 mm
D. 8.75 mm
56. What is the bearing stress if a 15kN force is applied to plates 9 mm thick secured by a
bolt 8 mm in diameter?
A. 453.32 MPa
B. 321.43 MPa
C. 431.43 MPa
D. 208.33 MPa
57. What is the elongation if a steel bar 7m long is subjected to a temperature change of
17oC? Use = 11.7 x 10-6 / Co.
A. 1.34 mm
B. 13.44 mm
C. 134.44 mm
D. 1.34 m
58. By how much will a 15m steel rod with diameter of 3mm elongate if it is subjected to a
tensile load of 26 kN. Use E=200 GPa
A. 293.34 mm
B. 67.34 mm
C. 275.87 mm
D. 69.34 mm
59. At temperature of 25oC, a 17 m rod 8 mm in diameter is subjected to a tensile load of 24
kN. At what temperature without the load will the bar have the same elongation? Use =
13.8 x 10-6 / Co and E = 180 GPa.
A. 115 oC
B. 217 oC
C. 245 oC
D. 287 oC
60. A cylindrical bar 75 m long is attached to the ceiling atone end. At what new length could
be expected if it has a unit mass of 5000 kg/m3? Use E = 750 MPa.
A. 75.023 m
B. 75.104 m
C. 75.184 m
D. 75.245 m
61. A 7mm bar 9 m long is attached to the ceiling at one end. If a weight of 40 kN is hung on
its lower end, what is the total elongation? Use E = 200 GPa and unit mass of kg/m3.
A. 46.78 mm
B. 45.34 mm
C. 48.33 mm
D. 52.23 mm
62. A steel wire 10 m long, hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 2000 N. Neglecting
the weight of the wire, determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140
MPa and the total elongation is not to exceed 5 mm. Assume E = 200 GPa.
A. 4.26 mm
B. 3.12 mm
C. 5.05 mm
D. 2.46 mm
63. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300mm2 and length of 150 m is suspended
vertically from one end. It supports a load of 13 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of
steel is 5120 kg/m3 and E=200 GPa, find the total elongation of the rod.
A. 33.45 mm
B. 54.33 mm
C. 53.44 mm
D. 35.33 mm
64. What is the torsion on a solid cylindrical shaft whose diameter is 6 mm subjected to a
rotational force of 27 N-m?
A. 434.31 MPa
B. 542.46 MPa
C. 255.44 MPa
D. 636.62 MPa
65. What is the maximum torque allowed if a 12 mm shaft is allowed torsion of up to 40 MPa
only?
A. 13.57 N-m
B. 15.34 N-m
C. 18.34 N-m
D. 23.43 N-m
66. How many degrees of rotational deformation would occur on an 8 m cylindrical bar 8
mm in radius if it subjected to torque of 95 N-m?
A. 56.34o
B. 35.62o
C. 92.32o
D. 43.53o
67. What is the torque if the power transmitted by a shaft rotating at 30 rev/s is 1 MW?
A. 8.342 kN-m
B. 3.532 kN-m
C. 7.453 kN-m
D. 5.305 kN-m
68. A cylindrical solid shaft 7 mm in diameter is rotating at 18 rev/s. What is the maximum
allowable power transmitted if the stress should not exceed 380 MPa?
A. 3.43 kW
B. 5.23 kW
C. 1.53 kW
D. 2.89 kW
69. Determine the length of the shortest 2-mm diameter bronze wire which can be twisted
through two complete turns without exceeding a shearing stress of 343 MPa. Use G=35
GPa.
A. 6280 mm
B. 3420 mm
C. 1280 mm
D. 1658 mm
70. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4o. Using G=83
GPa, compute the power that can be transmitted by the shaft at 20 rev/s.
A. 1.21 MW
B. 1.67 MW
C. 3.21 MW
D. 1.26 MW
71. A helical spring with mean radius of 40 mm has wire diameter of 2.7 mm. What is the
shearing stress if there is a 22 N load? Use the approximate formula.
A. 325.32 MPa
B. 231.54 MPa
C. 432.43 MPa
D. 154.67 MPa
72. Solve question 69 using the exact formula.
A. 238.29 MPa
B. 431.32 MPa
C. 365.35 MPa
D. 153.64 MPa
73. By how much will a spring with 9 turns elongate if it supports a weight of 400 N? The
wire diameter is 6 mm and the mean radius is 28 mm. Use G=150 GPa.
A. 64.35 mm
B. 42.43 mm
C. 26.02 mm
D. 16.65 mm
74. A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a forming
cylinder 150 mm in diameter. Compute number of turns required to permit an elongation
of 132 mm without exceeding a shearing stress of 184.8 MPa. Use G=83 GPa.
A. 15.43 turns
B. 13.83 turns
C. 18.24 turns
D. 12.36 turns
75. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of
20-mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of
2kN. Use the exact formula.
A. 120.6 MPa
B. 117.9 MPa
C. 132.4 MPa
126.9 MPa
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic
limit without being ruptured is called
A. ductility
B. malleability
C. elasticity
D. hardness
2. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling
together is known as
A. Friction
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion
D. Viscosity
3. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called
A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Plastic
D. Malleable
4. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another
I known as
A. Potential difference
B. Charge
C. Specific change
D. Nucleon interaction
5. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference
is called
A. Resistance
B. Permeance
C. Impedence
D. Conductance
6. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called
A. Thermoscopic
B. Thermotropic
C. Thermoduric
D. Thermoplastic
7. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as
A. Gummosity
B. Glutinosity
C. Viscidity
D. Viscosity
8. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed
is called
A. Elastance
B. Elasticity
C. Elastivity
D. Anelastivity
9. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as
A. Incandescence
B. Luminescence
C. Scintillation
D. Phosphorescence
10. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a
glass prism?
A. The violet color travels faster than the red color
B. The violet color travels slower than the red color
C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed
D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color
11. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or
motion is called
A. Torpidity
B. Passivity
C. Inactivity
D. Inertia
12. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is
A. Capacitance
B. Conductance
C. Permeability
D. Accumulation
13. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called
A. Isodynamic
B. Isotropic
C. Isogonic
D. Isotopic
14. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with
another object is called
A. Calidity
B. Pyxeria
C. Caloric
D. Temperature
15. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature
gradient is called
A. Thermal capacity
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal radiation
D. Thermal convection
16. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the
crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as
A. dichroism
B. dichromatism
C. diastrophism
D. chromaticity
17. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher
frequency is called
A. illuminance
B. fluorescence
C. radioluminescence
D. incandescence
18. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. ferromagnetic
19. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called
A. debility
B. rigidity
C. elastic deformation
D. fatigue
20. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having
negligible to the flow of an electric current is called
A. supercharging
B. supercooling
C. superfluidity
D. superconductivity
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 1


General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
2. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
A. Obligum
B. Obligate
C. Obligare
D. Obligus
3. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property,
independent of contract.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
4. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of
justice may compel their performance.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
5. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience,
they are not legally demandable.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
6. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
7. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
8. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the
obligation or known as the creditor or oblige
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
9. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or
known as the debtor or obligor
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
A. Law
B. Contracts
C. Quai-delicts
D. Work
11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
A. An act or omission
B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
D. Acts or omissions punished by law
12. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific
date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the
fulfillment of the condition.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory obligation
16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the
happening of the event.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory Condition
17. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration
of said term.
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
18. A borrowed money from B in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount as
soon as possible. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the
remedy of B is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be
paid. This illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
19. A kind of period with suspensive effect.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain
date
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
21. A period established by law.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
22. A period agreed to by the parties.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
23. A period authorized by the court.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
25. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of
the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not
compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this
illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
26. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is
sufficient, determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
27. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt,
and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
28. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the
creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
29. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
30. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
31. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this
is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
32. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
33. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice
to be delivered by Juan on May 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00.
Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the
same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
34. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Moral
35. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Mental
36. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. All of the above
37. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.
A. Law
B. Penal clause
C. Stipulation
D. Preceding
38. A binds himself to deliver to B a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They
agree in writing that should A fail to deliver the car on a specified date, A shall pay
B as penalty P10,000.00. A fails to make the delivery. B could demand the
payment of P10,000.00 against A. B, however could not compel A to deliver the
car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal clause:
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
39. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can
be enforced.
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
40. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
A. By Payment or Performance
B. By the condition or remission of the debt
C. By altering the signature
D. By the loss of the thing due
41. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
42. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced
totally.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
43. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
44. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
45. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
46. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts
in their concurrent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial
compensation
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
47. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the
parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts.
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
48. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the
defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
49. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different
amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
50. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and
compensation extinguishes the obligations entirely.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
51. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
52. A obliged himself to deliver to B a car. Subsequently, they entered into another
contract whereby instead of A delivering a car, A would deliver a truck. This
illustrates:
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
53. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to
the rights of the creditor.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
54. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or
modification of principal condition.
A. Mixed novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
55. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect
to the other to give something or to render some services.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
56. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
A. Kontrus
B. contractus
C. Tractum
D. Contractumus
57. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
A. consent of the parties
B. object or subject matter
C. cause or consideration
D. effects to the subject
58. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law
unless there is an agreement to the contrary
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
59. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such
as conditions, terms, etc.
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
60. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon
the terms of the contract.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
61. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in
agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
62. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the
amount. This refers to what stage of the contract
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
63. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount
P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
64. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
65. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
66. A contract that has already been performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
67. A contract that has not yet performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
68. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
69. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
70. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or
gratuitous deposit.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
71. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
72. A, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with B whereby the
latter agreed to murder C. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
73. A entered into a contract with B whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the
latter agrees to live with A without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the
right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
74. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed
and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial
bed. Pedro, however walked out of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon
the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
75. A entered into a contract with B whereby A will not enter into any enterprise
whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
76. The following are requisites of contracts except
A. Consent
B. Object of contract
C. Cause of contract
D. Effect of contract
77. A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the pure liberality of the
giver.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contrary
D. Liberation Contract
78. A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the service or benefit for
which the remuneration is given.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
79. A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the mutual undertaking
or promise of either of the contracting parties.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
80. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to
express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has
been committed.
A. Reformation
B. Novation
C. Defect
D. Erroneous
81. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?
A. There is a valid contract;
B. The contract is in writing;
C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual
mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.
82. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons,
such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded.
A. Rescissible Contract
B. Voidable Contract
C. Unenforced Contracts
D. Void or Inexistent Contracts
83. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the
price is unjust or inadequate.
A. damage
B. effect
C. lesion
D. payment
84. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely,
consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
85. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
86. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
87. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to
another without the consent of the latter.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Contract
88. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation,
recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence
either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act.
A. Payment
B. Injury
C. Damages
D. Compensation
89. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical
expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
90. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety,
besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar
injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
91. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a
violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be
awarded to determine the right.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
92. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
93. Damages where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by
the judgment of a competent court.
A. Liquidated Damages
B. Exemplary Damages
C. Corrective Damages
D. Compensatory Damages
94. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of
wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages
95. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants,
mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the
civilized countries of the world.
A. Law of merchants
B. Law of businessmen
C. Law of mariners
D. Law of people
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 2


General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.
A. Thunder
B. Lightning
C. Corona
D. Aurora
2. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from
minor discomfort to serious injury.
A. Electrical Shock
B. Super Sonic
C. Acoustic Shock
D. Sonic Boom
3. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Conductance
4. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
A. 10,000 ohms
B. 100,000 ohms
C. 1,000,000 ohms
D. 100 ohms
5. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________
amperes and above passes through ones chest cavity.
A. 0.010
B. 0.11
C. 0.030
D. 0.33
6. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 45V RMS AC
B. 12V RMS AC
C. 24V RMS AC
D. 50V RMS AC
7. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 150V DC
B. 45V DC
C. 135V DC
D. 160V DC
8. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface
separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum
potential gradient shall be no greater than __________.
A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC
B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC
C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC
D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC
9. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign
potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage
to plant equipment possible.
A. Grounding
B. Shielding
C. Bonding
D. Current Limiting
10. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct
bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which
operate under abnormal voltage condition.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
11. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a
fuse in series with a circuit.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
12. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected
and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
13. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its
connection to ground electrode.
A. Ground Resistance
B. Grounde Electrode
C. Ground Path
D. Resistance Path
14. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance
must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
15. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground
resistance must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
16. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance
electrical contact with the earth.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
17. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to
protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel)
from lightning damage.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
18. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding
19. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal
operating potentials.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding
20. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Bonding or Grounding
21. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:
A. Direct Method or two terminal test
B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method
C. Triangulation Method
D. Three terminal test
22. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-
centimeter.
A. Ground resistance
B. Earth resistivity
C. Cubic resistance
D. Earth density
23. The following are ways to improve grounds except:
A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth
B. Use multiple rods
C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible
D. Place stones near the rod
24. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least
__________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED
SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
25. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________
to be sure they are tight.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
26. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
27. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
28. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
29. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees
Celsius.
A. 12.5 and 25.2
B. 15.5 and 32.2
C. 15.2 and 52.2
D. 55.5 and 60.3
30. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds
__________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the
equipment room or location where people are staying.
A. 5 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 15 kW
31. Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and NO
SMOKING signs should be posted ___________.
A. inside the room only
B. before entering battery rooms
C. outside the room only
D. Both A and C
32. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery
rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
A. oil
B. kerosene
C. flour
D. Caustic soda
33. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground
connections or between similar parts of two circuits.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
34. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for
linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon.
A. Stairway
B. Climbing Space
C. Guy
D. Pole
35. Insulated wires, used to run a subscribers line from the terminal on the pole to the
protector at the house or building.
A. main line
B. main cable
C. dropline
D. dropwire
36. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in
a required manner.
A. damaged
B. hazard
C. fault
D. short
37. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any
abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.
A. Fault current
B. Dark current
C. Leakage current
D. Dead short
38. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured
readily when subjected to flame.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame
39. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to
burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame
40. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation,
between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage
such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.
A. Aurora
B. Corona
C. Washover
D. Arc
41. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electric circuit
or equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent
that serves in place of the earth.
A. short
B. jumper
C. ground
D. ink
42. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced
force on a pole or other overhead line structures.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
43. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.
A. Overhead guy
B. Anchor guy
C. Bla guy
D. Guy post
44. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole
45. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting surge
current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified.
A. Lightning ball
B. Lightning Arrester
C. Fuse
D. Lightning Protector
46. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more
conduit runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors,
cables and any associated apparatus.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole
47. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its
primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.
A. guy
B. support
C. conduit
D. messenger
48. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a
communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
A. zone
B. area
C. plant
D. division
49. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.
A. Lightning rod
B. Ground rod
C. Drop ground
D. Radials
50. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to
earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.
A. Lightning arrester
B. Lightning rod
C. Breaker
D. Lightning gap
51. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customers premises.
A. Service drop
B. Subscribers loop
C. Main line
D. Local drop
52. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at
that elevation.
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
53. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind
load position at that elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
54. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that
elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
55. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.
A. underneath
B. underground
C. earth mat
D. under earth
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 3


General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross
connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility.
A. drop wire
B. local loop
C. service entrance
D. subscribers loop
2. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a
pole to a building.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
3. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter.
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
4. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should
be ___________.
A. 20m
B. 30m
C. 40m
D. 50m
5. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power
entrance must be __________ radial distance.
A. 2m
B. 3m
C. 4m
D. 1m
6. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street
must be ___________.
A. 4.4m
B. 3.3m
C. 5.5m
D. 6.6m
7. In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must
be __________.
A. 3.5m
B. 5.5m
C. 4.5m
D. 6.1m
8. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the
need for possible subsequent repairs to the property.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
9. An underground entrances minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic
inside private property is
A. 800 mm
B. 600 mm
C. 900 mm
D. 700 mm
10. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ in well-tamped earth:
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
11. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ of concrete.
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
12. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller
than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a
service box.
A. 50 mm
B. 75 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 45 mm
13. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________
pairs.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
14. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
15. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
16. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________
pairs. The minimum size for service box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
17. The minimum size for service-box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
18. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
19. The minimum number of entrance conduit is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
20. It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are
terminated.
A. drop wire
B. terminal wire
C. main terminals
D. service box
21. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and
located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish.
A. 1.3 m
B. 2.3 m
C. 1.6 m
D. 2.6 m
22. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all
terminations. Normally __________ away from all hazards.
A. 800 mm
B. 800 mm
C. 1000 mm
D. 700 mm
23. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal
blocks.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
24. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other
special services is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
25. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an
entrance is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
26. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers
is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
27. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will
exceed 300 pairs.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
28. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines
between two or more floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a building
generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
29. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no
floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless
placed in metallic conduit.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
30. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets
vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and
extending throughout the height of the building.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 4


General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. RA 9292 is known as
A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines
2. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems
involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in
gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices,
including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other
energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals.
A. Electronics
B. Communications
C. Electricity
D. Physics
3. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters
PECE.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
4. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECE.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
5. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECT.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics Technician
6. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
7. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or
instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting
the results.
A. Computer
B. ICT
C. ATM
D. Laptop
8. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data
and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or
the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing
such data and information.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
9. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages
between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and
wired or wireless medium.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
10. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written
or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible
signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or
format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other
electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
11. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other
signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or
wireless means.
A. Communications
B. Broadcasting
C. Transmission
D. Paging
12. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where
electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being
used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
13. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,
condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas,
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other
building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-controlled
machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
14. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional
capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies,
design, planning, construction, supervision, management and related services, and other
technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.
A. Consulting services
B. Primary services
C. Secondary services
D. Technical services
15. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician.
A. IECEP
B. Accredited Professional Organization
C. PIECEP
D. Organization of PECE
16. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the
Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment.
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 3 years
17. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years from date of
appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be
re-appointed once for another term.
A. 7
B. 10
C. 5
D. 3
18. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination:
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
19. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she has
failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a
passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.
A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%
B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%
C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%
D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%
20. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in
government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board,
indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific
responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate supervisors
for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least
___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work,
from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer
or Electronics Engineer.
A. 10 years; 3 years
B. 7 years; 2 years
C. 5 years; 2 years
D. 10 years; 2 years
21. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______.
A. 5224; 2683
B. 5447; 458
C. 5734; 109
D. 5533; 4552
22. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
A. February 2, 2004
B. March 2, 2007
C. April 17,2004
D. March 5, 2005
23. RA 9292 was approved on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. March 17, 2005
D. March 27, 2004
24. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. May 24, 2004
D. May 28, 2004
25. To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s
signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the
applicant is factual.
A. 1; 3
B. 1; 2
C. 3; 3
D. 2; 2
26. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No.
9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications
Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity
of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 3
D. 7
27. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start
within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
28. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least
___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment
either in the Government or private sector.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
29. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s
from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical
capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the
Board.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
30. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for
reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to compliance with the
applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
31. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the
Philippines
B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad
C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are
temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the
Philippines
D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the
Philippines
32. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
33. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
34. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
35. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the
words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
36. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer
37. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 electron
B. 2 electrons
C. 3 electrons
D. 4 electrons
38. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 nucleus
B. 2 nuclei
C. 3 nuclei
D. 4 nuclei
39. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with
A. grey with boundaries in black color
B. orange with boundaries in navy color
C. white with boundaries in black color
D. yellow with boundaries in black color
40. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is
A. black with white background
B. white with black background
C. black with grey background
D. white with grey background
41. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
A. orange background
B. navy blue background
C. black background
D. white background
42. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the
nucleus and electrons in __________ color.
A. Black ; red
B. White; orange
C. White; red
D. Black; orange
43. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the
outer circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
44. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner
circle measuring ___________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 35 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
45. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the
upper part of the inner circle
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer
46. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
47. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the
A. license number
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
48. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the
diametral space shall bear
A. license number
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
49. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
50. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 3


General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________
of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis.
A. 30 min.
B. 60 min.
C. 45 min.
D. 75 min.
2. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes
D. All of the above
3. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding
intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
A. Newsbreak
B. Flash report
C. Newscast
D. all of the above
4. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates
A. Primary source
B. Secondary source
C. 1st person source
D. 2nd person source
5. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of
news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a person who acts as a conduit.
A. primary source
B. secondary source
C. 1st person source
D. 2nd person source
6. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and
recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC
for the cancellation of permit to operate the station, for improper placement of
advertisement shall be given for:
A. first offense
B. third offense
C. second offense
D. fourth offense
7. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the
KBP or directly with the broadcast station.
A. Public Service Announcements
B. Private Announcements
C. Private Service Announcements
D. Public Announcements
8. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio
stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPMs every clockhour.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
9. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial
broadcasting is:
A. Advertising
B. Donation
C. Fund
D. All of the above
10. A commercial preceding the opening of the program is called
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
11. A commercial following the close of the program is called:
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
12. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro
Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
13. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within
Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
14. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro
Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
15. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
within Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
16. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside
Metro Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
17. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
18. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro
Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
19. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
20. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
22. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of
the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per
hour.
A. 20 min
B. 15 min
C. 30 min
D. 25 min
23. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards:
A. shall not be placed within the same cluster
B. can be placed in the same time cluster
C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between
D. A and B
24. The following advertisements shall not be allowed:
A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading
expressions
B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these
acts
C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and
grammar
D. All of the above
25. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province
A. Local product
B. Local account
C. Local merchandise
D. Local goods
26. The following are considered local accounts except:
A. Bowling Alleys
B. Painting shops
C. Barber shops
D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province
27. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
28. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
29. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
30. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
31. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM
32. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
33. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
34. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
35. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. all of the above
36. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon
B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM
D. All of the above
37. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
38. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
39. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
D. all of the above
40. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
41. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
42. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be
allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and supervision.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
43. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast
(aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 45 min
D. 75 min
44. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like:
A. news bulletins
B. last minute program changes
C. advisories in the public interest
D. advertisements
45. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes
per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of breakspots.
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 20
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS
AND TECHNOLOGIES
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

BROADCAST
ENGINEERING
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
1. In stereophonic broadcast, the center frequency of each SCA subcarrier shall be kept at
all times within ____ Hz of the authorized frequency.

A. 200
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500

2. Sawtooth generator circuits produce the scanning raster, but the sync pulses are needed
for

A. Linearity
B. Timing
C. Keystoning
D. Line pairing

3. Which of the following camera tubes has minimum lag?

A. Vidicon
B. Plumbicon
C. Saticon
D. Iconoscope

4. The service area in standard AM broadcast is described as ____ if there is no fading


signal.

A. Class A
B. Secondary
C. Class B
D. Primary

5. The vertical field-scanning frequency is _____ Hz.

A. 30
B. 60
C. 525
D. 15,750

6. A 4.5-MHz signal which is equal to the difference between the picture and sound RF
carrier frequencies in a 6-MHz TV channel.
A. Audio frequency
B. Video frequency
C. Intercarrier frequency
D. Subcarrier frequency

7. A system where the modulated RF picture and sound carrier signals are distributed in a
cable network, instead of wireless system.

A. CCTV
B. MATV
C. CATV
D. SATV

8. A class A FM station is limited in antenna height of _____ feet above average terrain.

A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 4000
D. 5000

9. What circuit in the TV receiver is used to develop the high voltage needed to operate the
picture tube?

A. Low-voltage power supply


B. Horizontal output
C. Vertical output
D. Sync separator

10. The modulated picture carrier wave includes the composite video signal as the

A. Average carrier level


B. Symmetric envelope of amplitude variations
C. Lower sideband without the upper sideband
D. Upper envelope without the lower envelope

11. With which emission type is the capture-effect more pronounced?

A. CW
B. FM
C. SSB
D. AM

12. The hue of color sync phase is

A. Red
B. Cyan
C. Blue
D. Yellow-green

13. How much is the equivalent internal resistance of the electron beam with a 1.2-mA beam
current at 25 kV?

A. 48 nano ohms
B. 30 ohms
C. 20.8 mega ohms
D. 15.6 kilo ohms

14. The difference between the picture and sound carrier frequencies for channel 3 is ____
MHz.

A. 3.58
B. 64.5
C. 4.5
D. 6.75

15. Refers to the deviation of the operating frequency of a crystal oscillator from its nominal
value due to temperature variations.

A. Drift
B. Flashover
C. Frequency deviation
D. Deviation ratio

16. It is the measure of how many picture elements can be reproduced

A. Definition
B. Resolution
C. Detail
D. Any of these
17. A 3.58-MHz subcarrier signal for color in television

A. Hue signal
B. Video signal
C. Audio signal
D. Chroma signal

18. A class D FM station shall have an authorized power not exceeding _____ watts.

A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5

19. Which of the following is not a benefit of cable TV?

A. Lower-cost reception
B. Greater stability
C. Less noise, stronger signal
D. Premium cable channels

20. The width of the vertical sync pulse in the Philippine TV system is

A. 21H
B. 3H
C. H
D. 0.5H

21. Term in communication which is referred, to send out in all direction

A. Announce
B. Broadcast
C. Transmit
D. Media

22. The number of frames per second in the Philippine TV system is

A. 60
B. 262
C. 4.5
D. 30

23. It means multiple outlines of edges to the right in the picture.

A. Ghosting
B. Ringing
C. Fading
D. Snowing

24. In the sawtooth waveform for linear scanning,

A. The linear rise is for flyback


B. The complete cycle includes trace and retrace
C. The sharp reversal in amplitude produces trace
D. The beam moves faster during trace and retrace

25. The purpose of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis in FM broadcasting is to :

A. Increase the high frequency amplitude


B. Improve the audio harmonic
C. Decrease the low frequency amplitude
D. Improve the S/N ratio

26. The part of the visible spectrum where camera pickup tubes have the greatest output is

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow-green
D. Infrared

27. The type of modulation of the sound carrier signal is ________.

A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Frequency modulation

28. A video or audio signal that can be used directly to reproduce the picture and sound.
A. Baseband signal
B. Broadband signal
C. Electromagnetic wave signal
D. Modulated signal

29. Class B FM station should have an ERP not exceeding ____ kW.

A. 50
B. 40
C. 30
D. 20

30. What technique is used to permit hundreds of TV signals to share a common cable?

A. Frequency modulation
B. Mixing
C. Frequency division multiplexing
D. Time division multiplexing

31. Another name for the horizontal retrace in a TV receiver is the

A. Ringing
B. Burst
C. Damper
D. Flyback

32. In the Philippine color television system, the intercarrier frequency, in MHz, is

A. 3.58
B. 3.579545
C. 4.5
D. 45.75

33. In channel 14 (470 to 476 MHz), the 3.58-MHz color signal is transmitted at

A. 471.25 MHz
B. 473.25 MHz
C. 474.83 MHz
D. 475.25 MHz
34. Interfaced scanning eliminates

A. Snowing
B. Flicker
C. Distortion
D. Fading

35. Beam alignment magnets for the camera tube are adjusted while rocking which control?

A. Optical focus
B. Electrical focus
C. Beam current
D. Shading

36. What is the frequency discriminator?

A. An FM generator
B. A circuit for detecting FM
C. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
D. An automatic bandwidth circuit

37. A system used in television field operation to make on the spot video tape recordings
using portable TV cameras and VTRs.

A. SNG
B. ENG
C. HAFC
D. MATV

38. Class B FM station shall have an authorized transmitter power not exceeding ______ kW.

A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000

39. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV signal is

A. 3.58 MHz
B. 4.5 MHz
C. 6 MHz
D. 10.7 MHz

40. Referred to the oscillator signal leak through from a property neutralized amplifier such
as a master oscillator power amplifier.

A. Carrier
B. Stray signal
C. Back wave
D. Loss wave

41. Interfacing is used in television to

A. Produce the illusion of motion


B. Ensure that all lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones
C. Simplify the vertical sync pulse train
D. Avoid flicker

42. Coaxial cable for distribution system has an impedance of

A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 300 ohms

43. The average voltage value of the 3.58-MHz modulated chrominance signal is

A. Zero for most colors


B. Close to black for yellow
C. The brightness of the color
D. The saturation of the color

44. When does broadcast station conduct an equipment test?

A. During day time


B. During night time
C. During experimental period
D. At any time
45. It causes the picture information to spread out or crowded at one end of the raster
compared to the opposite end.

A. Linear scanning
B. Interfaced scanning
C. Non-linear scanning
D. Retrace

46. If the camera cannot be placed far away enough to include everything in the scene,
change the lens to one with a

A. Lower f rating
B. Higher f rating
C. Longer focal length
D. Shorter focal length

47. Type of radio communication transmission utilizing frequency modulation technique

A. Television video
B. Broadcasting in 535-1606 kHz
C. Single sideband HF transmission
D. Television audio

48. The amount of color in the picture or color intensity is the ______.

A. Color level
B. Chroma level
C. Saturation
D. Any of these

49. One of the early radio transmitters which produced keyed carrier generating purer
waveform than spark transmitter, used for high powered RF transmission and are limited
to radio frequency of about 500 kHz.

A. Arc transmitter
B. Hartley transmitter
C. Spark transmitter
D. Frequency transmitter
50. A technique where segments of videotape are joined by electronic erasing and recording
to create a single program.

A. Masking
B. Segmenting
C. Editing
D. Programming

51. A class C FM station has an authorized radiated power not exceeding ____watts of ERP.

A. 500
B. 750
C. 1000
D. 2000

52. The assembly around the neck of a picture tube that produces the magnetic fields that
deflect and scan the electron beams is called the

A. Shadow mask
B. Phosphor
C. Electron gun
D. Yoke

53. An odd number of lines per frame forms part of every one of the worlds TV systems.
This is

A. Done to assist interlace


B. Purely an accident
C. To ensure that line and frame frequencies can be obtained from the same original
source
D. Done to minimize interference with the chroma subcarrier

54. The difference between the sound carrier and the color signal is

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 0.92 MHz
D. 0.25 MHz

55. In color television, it is made for uniform color in the raster.


A. Beam-landing adjustment
B. Degaussing
C. Internal blanking adjustment
D. Background control

56. Which of the following camera tubes uses load oxide for the photoconductive target
plate?

A. Vidicon
B. Plumbicon
C. Saticon
D. Image orthicon

57. The number of fields is _____ per frame.

A. 2
B. 60
C. 525
D. 262

58. An RF carrier wave that is frequency-modulated by the baseband audio signal in TV


broadcasting.

A. Audio signal
B. Video Signal
C. Intercarrier signal
D. Color signal

59. A class B FM station is limited in antenna height of _____ feet.

A. 1000
B. 500
C. 250
D. 100

60. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of a TV receiver is generated in the

A. Mains transformer
B. Vertical output stage
C. Horizontal output stage
D. Horizontal deflection oscillator

61. A tap for the subscriber drop line has a

A. High insertion loss


B. High tap loss
C. Low tap loss
D. 300-ohm

62. Which system can be used for both recording and playback?

A. CED
B. VHD
C. Laser disk
D. VHS

63. The hue 180 degrees out of phase with red is

A. Cyan
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue

64. It is used around the phosphor dots to make a darker black which improves contrast in the
picture.
A. Black masking
B. Convergence adjustment
C. Shadow masking
D. Color purity adjustment

65. A lens lower f rating is ____ lens that allows more light input.

A. Slower
B. Wider
C. Narrower
D. Faster

66. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of ____ per second.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 45
D. 50

67. The effective radiated power of a class A FM station should not exceed _____ kW.

A. 125
B. 30
C. 10
D. 1

68. In television, 4:3 represents the

A. Interface ratio
B. Maximum horizontal deflection
C. Aspect ratio
D. Ratio of the two diagonals

69. Titling the video head gaps is necessary with the

A. Color-under
B. Zero guard bands
C. FM luminance signal
D. Long-play tapes

70. It is a special camera tube with a test pattern in the image plate.

A. Vidicon
B. Monoscope
C. Oscilloscope
D. Iconoscope

71. The number of lines scanned per frame in the raster on the picture tube screen is

A. 525
B. 262
C. 20
D. 10
72. One of the following is a high powered RF ac basic transmitter that has two or more
stages, the oscillator stage which determines the frequency of operation and RF amplifier
stage or stages that develop the high power output. The purpose of which is to develop a
good frequency stability.

A. MOPA
B. Hartley
C. Alexanderson
D. Goldsmith

73. Camera signal output without sync is called ______.

A. Black burst
B. Generator lock video
C. Composite video
D. Non-composite video

74. The tint of the color is its

A. Brightness
B. Contrast
C. Chroma
D. Hue

75. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?

A. HF
B. UHF
C. MF
D. VHF

76. The I and Q composite color signals are multiplexed onto the picture carrier by
modulating a 3.58 MHz subcarrier using

A. FM
B. PM
C. DSB AM
D. Vestigial sideband AM

77. The shadow mask in a color picture tube is used to


A. Reduce X-ray emission
B. Ensure that each beam hits only its own dots
C. Increase screen brightness
D. Provide degaussing for the screen

78. The video heads rotate at high velocity to increase the

A. Tape speed
B. Writing speed
C. Reel rotation
D. Tape tension

79. How ho you eliminate radio frequency variation of an oscillator transmitter caused by its
supply voltage?

A. Use of regulated power supply


B. Use of new power supply
C. Use of high capacitor in the supply circuit
D. Loosen power supply shielding

80. The composite video signal includes the camera signal with the following except

A. Picture information
B. Sync pulses
C. Blanking pulses
D. Camera signal

81. A lens has an 8-cm focal length and 4-cm diameter. Its f rating is

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32

82. Which of the following is a possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in a self-
excited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting a poor frequency stability to hold a
constant frequency oscillation?

A. DC and RF AC heating of resistor which cause a change in values


B. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Power supply voltage changes

83. How long does it take to scan 2 picture elements when 400 are scanned in 50
microseconds?

A. 25 microsec
B. 0.25 microsec
C. 2.5 microsec
D. 0.5 microsec

84. Anode voltage for the picture tube, developed from the output of the horizontal deflection
circuit.

A. Yoke voltage
B. Flyback voltage
C. Aquadag voltage
D. Tube voltage

85. The channel spacing in the Philippine FM broadcast standards

A. 400 kHz
B. 800 kHz
C. 600 kHz
D. 200 kHz

86. What is the black-and-white or monochrome brightness signal in TV called?

A. RGB
B. Color subcarrier
C. Q and I
D. Luminance Y

87. Which of the following is a midband cable TV channel?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 14
D. 23
88. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?

A. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC


B. To provide most of the receiver gain
C. To develop the AGC voltage
D. To improve the receivers noise figure

89. The color with the most luminance is

A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue

90. It is the light flux intercepted by one-foot-square surface that is one foot from one-
candlepower source.

A. Candela
B. Footcandle
C. Lux
D. Lumens

91. Refers to the possible cause for an abrupt frequency variations in a self-excited
transmitter oscillator circuit resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant
oscillator.

A. Poor soldered connections


B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
C. DC and AC heating of resistors which cause change in values
D. Aging which cause change in condition in parts characteristics

92. It is the difference in intensity between the black parts and white parts of the picture.

A. Brightness
B. Hue
C. Contrast
D. Illumination

93. The stereophonic subcarrier suppression level in the Philippines standards


A. Less than 4% modulation of the main carrier
B. Less than 3% modulation of the main carrier
C. Less than 2% modulation of the main carrier
D. Less than 1% modulation of the main carrier

94. The sound IF in a TV receiver is

A. 4