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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

214. All of the following drugs are used as prophylaxis in motion sickness EXCEPT:
a. Cyclizine.
b. Dramamine.
c. Diphenhydramine.
d. Famotidine.
e. Cetrizine.

215. What is polycythemia treated with?

a. Sodium P23.*
b. Piroxicam
c. NaCL
d. Kcl.
e. Ammonium chloride.

216. Pethidine is:

a. Antibacterial.
b. Anti-cholinergic.
c. Anti-depressant.
d. Anesthetic.*
e. Antipsychotic.

217. Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral Contraceptives include all of the following
a. Fluid retention.
b. Headache.
c. Hypertension.
d. Constipation.*
e. Depression.

218. Which is true in treatment of menopause?

a. Progesterone and estrogen at intervals.*
b. Estrogen alone with risk of cancer.
c. Progesterone.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

Page 30 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

208. When there is absolute refractory period, if you apply another stimulus, what will be the effect on muscle?
a. Contraction.
b. Relaxation.
c. Remains in existing state.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.*
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

209. In post menopausal therapy:

a. Conjugated Estrogen carries the risk of endometrial cancer.*
b. Progesterone combined with Estrogen reduces the chances of cancer.*
c. Progesterone alone is effective but does not help vaginal itching and dryness.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.*
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

210. Tachycardia means fast heart rate usually faster than 100. It is caused by:
a. Increased temperature.*
b. Stimulation of heart by autonomous nerves.*
c. Toxic condition.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

211. Bradycardia means slow heart rate, usually less than 60 beats per minute caused by:
a. Vagal nerve stimulation.*
b. Vagal nerve suppression.
c. Exercise.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

212. Metoclopramide (Primperan)R is:

a. Dopamine antagonist.
b. Used in treatment of Diabetic Gastro-Epistaxis (delayed gastric emptying).
c. Stimulates motility of the stomach.
d. Cholinomimetic (decrease CTZ)
e. Anti-emetic during cancer chemotherapy (Centrally).
f. All of the above.*

213. Which of the following is/are considered side effects of Minoxidil?

a. Increased hair growth (Hairsutism)*
b. Weight gain & tachycardia.*
c. Fluid retention.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

Page 29 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

200. All of the following are side effect of Digoxin EXCEPT:

a. Confusion.
b. Anorexia.
c. Constipation.*
d. Nausea & vomiting.
e. Dysrythmia.

201. Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if the drug:
a. Is basic.*
b. Is protein pound.
c. Is acidic but not protein bound.
d. Has a small volume of distribution.
e. Has a large volume of distribution.

202. A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication:
a. In the refrigerator.
b. In a plastic vial with a childproof cap.
c. With the original cotton.
d. In an amber glass bottle with a metal cap.*
e. In a warm, dry place.

203. In elderly, all of the following are decreased EXCEPT:

a. Kidney functions.
b. Glomerular Filtration.
c. Water content.
d. Serum creatinine.*
e. Lean body mass.

204. Among the drugs used in smoking cessation is/are:

a. Buspirone.
b. Zyban.
c. Nicotine.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.*
v. (a), (b), and (c).

205. Repeated (with respiration & inspiration) Arrhythmia means:

a. Tachy Arrhythmia.
b. Paroxysmal Arrhythmia.*
c. Ventricular Arrhythmia.
d. Atrial fibrillation.
e. Flutter.

206. What type of Arrhythmia a person will have with high fever?
a. Paroxysmal tachycardia.*
b. Bradycardia.
c. S-A Arrhythmia.
d. Ventricular Arrhythmia.
e. Flutter.

207. Which of the following is a competitive inhibitor of ACH?

a. Carbachol.
b. Edrophonium.*
c. Succinylcholine.
d. Pancuronium.
e. Bethanicol.

Page 28 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

192. Which one of the following can cause osteoporosis?

a. Long use of corticosteroids.
b. Menopause.
c. Increase in phosphate level or decrease in Calcium level.
d. Hyperthyroidism.
e. All of the above.*

193. Which type of the local anesthetic is most effective?

a. The most Lipophilic.*
b. The less Lipophilic.
c. The most hydrophilic.
d. Ester types.
e. Amide types.

194. Advantages of Ranitidine over Cimetidine may include:

a. More potent.*
b. Fewer side effects.*
c. Less sedative.
d. More expensive.
e. Not increasing prolactin level.*

195. Which of the following is not antifungal?

a. Ketoconazole.
b. Miconazole.
c. Metronidazole.*
d. Nystatin.
e. Itraconazole

196. Metronidazole spectrum of indication may include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Anti protozoal agent.
b. Anti microbial agent.
c. Anti fungal agent.*
d. Antibiotic.
e. Antibacterial.

197. Metronidazole is used to treating:

a. Amoebiasis.
b. Anaerobic bacterial infections.
c. Gonorrhea.
d. Otitis media.
e. Pseudomonas infections

198. Which of the following is true about chronic use of mineral oils:
a. They decrease absorption of fat soluble vitamins (D.E.K.A.).
b. They cause Pruritusani.
c. Induce Hepatotoxicity.
d. Docusate increases their systemic absorption.
e. All of the above.*

199. Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension include which of the following?
a. Shake well before use.*
b. Take with plenty of water.*
c. Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

Page 27 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

186. Side effects of Phenytoin include:

a. Gingival Hyperplasia, ataxia, nystegmus*
b. Steven Johnson's syndrome.*
c. Hairsutism & acne.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

187. Early symptoms of Epilepsy are:

a. Part of brain is involved.*
b. Sensory seizure or focal motor seizure.*
c. Patient is conscious.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

188. In a patient with Iron deficiency:

a. Care must be taken because a little more dose of iron can cause harm.*
b. The therapy should be discontinued if the symptoms of anemia disappear.*
c. The therapy should be continued even if the symptoms of anemia disappear.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.*
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

189. Correct statement(s) regarding dextran may include:

a. Used as plasma expander to increase plasma volume.*
b. Prevents aggregation of erythrocytes in the blood.*
c. Not replacement for blood in case of CO2 & Cyanide toxicity.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

190. Autoimmune disorders include which of the following?

a. Graves disease.*
b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).*
c. Osteoarthritis.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.*
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

191. The following are side effects of Quinidine:

a. Cinchonism = Tinnitus = Hear loss.*
b. Blurred vision.*
c. Confusion, headache and psychosis.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

Page 26 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

178. The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with:
a. Salbutamol.
b. Diphenhydramine.
c. Adrenaline.*
d. Acetazolamide.
e. Aminophylline.

179. If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 ml/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 ml/min then one
may assume that:
a. The drug is extensively metabolized.*
b. Greater than normal drug concentration would occur in patients with moderate renal failure.
c. Entero-hepatic recycling is significant.
d. The drug is not bound to plasma proteins.
e. The drug is concentrated in adipose tissue.

180. Aspirin is believed to inhibit clotting by its action on which of the following endogenous substances?
a. Endorphin A.
b. Xanthine Oxidase.
c. Cyclo oxygenase.*
d. Dopa Decarboxylase.
e. None of the above.

181. Valproic Acid (Depakin)R is used to treat:

a. Petit mal epilepsy (absent of seizure).*
b. Grand mal epilepsy (general seizure).*
c. Febrile seizures in children.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

182. Which drug can be used in treatment of epilepsy in pregnancy?

a. Phenytoin.
b. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)R.*
c. Methadone.
d. Valproic acid.
e. Diazepam.

183. Which of the following is the most effective in absence seizure?

a. Clonazepam.
b. Phenytoin.
c. Valproic Acid.
d. Ethosuximide.*
e. Diazepam.

184. Phenytoin causes elevated blood glucose levels by:

a. Enhancing Insulin degradation.
b. Increasing glucose absorption.
c. Decrease insulin release.*
d. Increase glycogen release.
e. Inhibition insulin action.

185. Which of the following accelerate metabolism of Phenytoin?

a. Folic acid.*
b. Co enzyme A.
c. Ampicillin.
d. Cephalosporins.
e. Esmolol.

Page 25 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

170. Which condition is associated in Hypocalcemia:

a. Hypoparathyroidism.*
b. Decrease in Vitamin D.* Hypocalcemia usually implies a deficiency in either the production or response to
c. Hypomagnesemia.* parathyroid hormone (PTH) or vitamin D. PTH abnormalities include
hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, or hypomagnesemia. Vitamin D
i. (a) Only. abnormalities can be caused by decreased nutritional intake, decreased absorption
ii. (c) Only. of vitamin D, a decrease in production, or an increase in metabolism.
iii. (a), (b) Only. Administration of loop diuretics causing diuresis can also decrease serum Ca.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

171. Factor(s) that may increase the risk of renal failure is/are:
a. Hemorrhage.
b. Heart disease.
c. Oliguria.
d. Pulmonary edema.
e. All of the above.*

172. Which drug causes rebound hypertension?

a. Clonidine ( agonist)*
b. Guanithidine.
c. Hydralazine.
d. Propranolol.
e. Nifedipine.

173. In hypertension of renal origin (moderate) and in presence of CHF, which antihypertensive is used?
a. Clonidine.
b. Hydralazine.
c. Captopril.*
d. Hydrochlorothiazide.
e. Telmisartan.

174. In case of severe hypertension with history of heart disease, the patient can use:
a. Propranolol.*
b. Methyl dopa.
c. Reserpine.
d. Hydrochlorothiazide.
e. Labetolol.

175. Thiazide diuretics are used in treating all of the following cases EXCEPT:
a. Hypertension.
b. Gout.*
c. Congestive Heart Failure.
d. Pulmonary edema.
e. Hypernatremia.

176. Which of the following drug is Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor (ACE)?
a. Misoprostol.
b. Timolol.
c. Ramipril.*
d. Telmisartan.
e. Losartan.

177. Coughing and wheezing during breath is termed as:

a. Asthma.*
b. Emphysema.
c. Allergic Rhinitis.
d. Common cold.
e. COPD.

Page 24 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

162. Aluminium Hydroxide (Al)-OH3 is used as:

a. Antacid.*
b. Astringent.
c. Purgative.
d. Bulk cathartic.
e. Osmotic laxative.

163. Correct statement(s) about antacids may include:

a. Can relief pain.
b. They are more effective if given 2-3 hours after meals.
c. If given hourly, there dose should be small.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

164. Which antacid causes acid rebound phenomena?

a. Aluminium hydroxide.
b. Magnesium hydroxide.
c. Calcium carbonate.*
d. Sodium carbonate.
e. Simethicone.

165. Magnesium deficiency is usually associated with:

a. Impaired muscle contraction.*
b. Impaired respiration.
c. Impaired movement.
d. Sexual insufficiency.
e. None of the above.

166. Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects?

a. Calcium carbonate.
b. Sodium carbonate.
c. Magnesium hydroxide.*
d. Calcium sulfate.
e. Aluminum hydroxide.

167. Pressure atrophy is caused by:

a. Gigantism.
b. Bed sores.*
c. Postural hypotension.
d. Postural position.
e. None of the above.

168. Among side effects of Thiazides diuretics is:

a. Hyponatremia & Hyperurecemia.
b. Hypokalemia & Hypertriglycemia.
c. Hypovolimia & Hypercalcemia.
d. Alkalosis.
e. All of the above.*

169. Triamterene is:

a. Osmotic diuretic.
b. Loop diuretic.
c. Potassium-sparing diuretic.*
d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
e. Thiazide diuretic.

Page 23 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

155. All of the following are Oral Hypoglycemic agents EXCEPT:

a. Tolbutamide.
b. Metformin.
c. Glibenclamide.
d. Glyburide.
e. Insulin.*

156. The side effects of prolonged use of Sulphonylureas include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Hypoglycemic reactions.
b. GI disturbances.
c. Bradycardia.*
d. Cholestatic jaundice.
e. Skin rash.

157. For how long is an Insulin preparation be used after taking it out of refrigerator?
a. A week.
b. 10 days.*
c. 20 days.
d. 30 days.
e. Should be discarded.

158. Insulin shock in an unconscious patient is treated by:

a. Injection of Glucagon.*
b. Glucose.
c. Sugar.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

159. A person with Juvenile diabetes will use:

a. Sulfonylureas.
b. Insulin.*
c. Eat more food.
d. Rosiglitazone.
e. Acarbose.

160. In the management of diabetes in Canada:

a. The fasting glucose used in the diagnosis is 7.8 mmol/L.
b. Mass screening for type 2 diabetes is not recommended.*
c. Glycosylated hemoglobin should be measured every 6 months in people taking hypoglycemic agents.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.*
v. (a), (b), and (c).

161. Correct statement(s) regarding "Juvenile onset" diabetes type I may include:
a. Patient is advised to eat several times but only eat low calories food.*
b. Insulin dependent diabetes Mellitus.
c. Prone to ketosis.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

Page 22 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

148. The dose of 6-mercaptopurine should be adjusted with which of the following agents?
a. Elase.
b. Dipyridamol.
c. Allopurinol.*
d. Trimethoprim.
e. Amoxicillin.

149. Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reaction of:
a. Glutathione conjugates.*
b. Glucuronide conjugates.
c. Glycine conjugates.
d. Glutamate conjugates.
e. Sulfate conjugates.

150. In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, the salicylates:

a. Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement.
b. Specifically reverse the cause of the disease.
c. Provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.*
d. Are effective because they are uricosuric agents.
e. Are more effective when given with allopurinol.

151. In regard to Methotrexate administration and dosage:

a. Initiated at a weekly dose between 5 10 mg.*
b. Starting dose are either 7.5mg at once or 2.5mg/12 hours for three doses.*
c. Dose can be increased slowly at 3-6 week intervals to 15-20mg a week.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

152. Ketone bodies (Acetone -Hydroxy Butyric Acid) caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Diabetes.
b. Hyperglycemia.
c. Hypoglycemia.*
d. Starvation.
e. Bacterial infections

153. The side effects of Mitformen may include:

a. Fatal lactic acidosis.*
b. Metallic taste.*
c. GI effects like epigastric distress, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

154. In the body, insulin is increased in a response to which of the following?

a. Bacterial infection.*
b. Surgery.*
c. Stress.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

Page 21 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

140. Which of the following can be used for teething infant?

a. Teething ring.*
b. Benzocain 7.5%.*
c. Benzocain 20%.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

141. All of the following statements are correct regarding piroxicam (Feldene)R EXCEPT:
a. Is classified as non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug.
b. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
c. Taken once daily.
d. Causes frontal headache.*
e. Increase patient compliance.

142. All of the following statements are correct about indomethacin (Indocid)R EXCEPT:
a. Analgesic antipyretic.
b. Anti-inflammatory.
c. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
d. Can be used in the treatment of gout.
e. Has the least side effect on the GIT*

143. Refecoxib (Vioxx)R can be classified as:

a. Cox1 and cox2 inhibitor. Refecoxib is Non Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID)
b. Cox2 inhibitor.* that is an inhibitor of Cyclo-Oxygenase-2 (COX2). Most other
c. Cytoprotectant. NSAID are cox1 inhibitors and they are likely to cause GI upset
d. Anti-cholinergic. and bleeding
e. Anti pyretic.

144. All of the following are drugs that used in cancer chemotherapy. They act as antimetabolite EXCEPT:
a. -Mercaptopurine.
b. Methotrexate.
c. Thiouracil.
d. Sulfasalazine
e. Methyl dopa.*

145. Sincalide (Kinevac) is used as diagnostic aid to obtain samples of:

a. Albumin.
b. Bile.*
c. Gastric Juice.
Sincalide cause contraction of gallbladder and devacation
d. Ketones. bladder.
e. Blood.

146. Keratin is an/a:

a. Protein.
b. Fatty substances.
c. Peptine.
d. Albuminoid.*
e. Lipid material.

147. Which of the following enhances the activity of Azathioprine (Immurane) by inhibiting enzymatic oxidation?
a. Allopurinol.*
b. Elase.
c. Dipyridamol.
d. Trimethoprim.
e. Pyridoxine.

Page 20 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

132. While administering IM injection, we usually tend to use the side of lateral part because of:
a. Fear to injure sciatic nerve.*
b. Fear to injure femoral artery.
c. Large surface area of drug absorption.
d. Fear to injure femoral vein.
e. Rich blood supply.

133. In case of congestive heart failure (CHF), or left ventricular failure, accumulation of blood occurs in:
a. Liver.
b. Lungs.*
c. Aorta.
d. Superior vena cava.
e. Inferior vena cava.

134. Venous pooling is caused by which of the following vasodilators?

a. Sodium Nitroprusside.
b. Hydralazine.
c. Isosorbide Dinitrate.
d. Nitroglycerine.*
e. Minoxidil.

135. During inspiration, in which vessel the least blood pressure found?
a. The vena cava.*
b. Arterioles.
c. Coronary arteries.
d. Venules.
e. Capillaries.

136. Barbiturates, Anti-depressants, Anti-coagulants, contraceptives are all increase liver microsomal enzyme (liver
biotransformation), which one of the following also does so?
a. Metronidazole.
b. Rifampicin.*
c. Isoniazide.
d. Ampicillin.
e. Amoxicillin.

137. ASA should not be given to a child due to the high chances of the child having:
a. Grays disease.
b. Goiter disease.
c. Reyes disease.*
d. Acromegaly disease.
e. Mongolism.

138. Grey baby syndrome in infants is caused by which of the following antibiotics?
a. Aminoglycosides. Grey baby syndrome is a circulatory collapse due to tissue
b. Chloramphenicol.* accumulation of unchanged Chloramphenicol resulting from
c. Tetracycline. deficiency of Glucoronyl transferase enzyme in infants, which is
d. Cephalosporins. responsible for Chloramphenicol metabolism, through either
reduction or conjugation.
e. Macrolides.

139. Cefalothen is excreted at a rate of 500 ml/min, this information indicates that the drug is:
a. Mostly metabolized.
b. Not protein bound.
c. Actively excreted in kidney.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.*
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

Page 19 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

124. Which is true about tolaremia?

a. Transmitted by a bite of infected flies, ticks, and their animal reservoir.*
b. Transferred by domestic animal & aquatic animals.*
c. Treated by tetracycline with Streptomycin.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

125. Which one of the following drugs is eliminated through tubular excretion?
a. Chloramphenicol.
b. Penicillin.*
c. Aminoglycosides.
d. Doxycycline.
e. Tetracycline.

126. Calcitonin secreted from:

a. Pituitary gland.
b. Adrenal cortex.
c. Adrenal medulla.
d. Thyroid gland.*
e. Thymus gland.

127. The following vitamin is responsible for regulation of calcium level in the blood through tubular reabsorption:
a. Vitamin D3.
b. Calciferol.
c. Calcitonin.*
d. Vitamin B.
e. Vitamin K,

128. The principal mode of transmission of Hepatitis-A is considered to be through:

a. Direct personal contact.
b. Fecal & oral route. Hepatitis-B is transmitted by physical contacts and skin-
transmitted in blood/body fluids
c. Food and water.*
d. Skin.
e. Air.

129. Bacteria is characterized by absence of :

a. Mitochondria.
b. Nucleus.
c. Flagella.*
d. Nucleotide.
e. Cell wall.

130. All of the following are Adrenergic anti-histamines except: (block receptor cite on which histamine acts "H1", histamine
stimulates gastric secretions, capillary dilatation)
a. Diphenhydramine.
b. Promethazine.
c. Antazoline.
d. Cyproheptadine (PeriactinR).
e. Propranolol.*

131. High dose of Phenylephrine causes:

a. Severe Hypotension.
b. Severe Hypertension.* Phenylephrine is Vasopressin which is alpha1 agonist.
Hypertension in this case can be counteracted by
c. Hyperkalemia. Phentolamine which is alpha blocker.
d. Hypokalemia.
e. Orthostatic hypotension.

Page 18 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

116. Tinea Pestis is:

a. Bacterial infection.
b. Malarial infection.
c. Mushroom & yeast infection.
d. Fungal infection.*
e. Protozaol infection.

117. Morphine in therapeutic dose will:

a. Cause nausea and vomiting.
b. Have Antitussive effect.*
c. Will cause respiratory depression.
d. Have anti-diarrheal effect.
e. Will cause urinary retention.

118. Which of the following you give to a patient who is tolerant to morphine?
a. Heroin.
b. Methadone.*
c. Meperidine.
d. Codeine.
e. Oxycodone.

119. Which of the following anti-cholesterol drugs can be prescribed for pregnant woman?
a. Clofibrate.
b. Mevacor. (X Mevacor pregnancy risk category)
c. Cholestyramine.*
d. Mycostatin.
e. Simvastatin.

120. Clomifen:
a. Increases secretion of GRH, LH, and FSH.*
b. Block estrogen receptor in hypothalamus
c. Decreases secretion of GRH, LH, and FSH.
d. Stimulate estrogen receptor in hypothalamus
e. Stimulate progestin production.

121. During ovulation peak plasma concentration of which of the following hormones will be reached?
a. Leutinizing Hormone (LH).*
b. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH).*
c. Progesterone.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

122. Of the following, which one is not the side effect of Anti-Cholinergic?
a. Constipation.
b. Blurred vision.
c. Diarrhea.*
d. Dizziness.
e. Constipation.

123. The drug of choice for chronic constipation is:

a. Docusate sodium.*
b. High fiber diet.
c. Bulk cathartics.
d. Sugars.
e. Stimulant laxatives.

Page 17 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

109. Blood flow in brain is due to?

a. Partition coefficient of CO2.*
b. Partition coefficient of O2.
c. High protein binding.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

110. Which of the following is arterial dilator?

a. Diazoxide.*
b. Minoxidil.*
c. Hydralazine.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

111. Which drug causes venous pooling?

a. Hydralazine (Isosorbide).*
b. Captopril.
c. Hydrochlorothiazide.
d. Clonidine.
e. Labetolol.

112. Radioactive iodine (I 131) is used in:

a. Hyperthyroidism.*
b. Hypothyroidism.
c. Graves' disease.
d. Toxic adenoma.
e. Hashimotos disease.

113. Coronary vasodilatation is caused by release of:

a. Adenosine.
b. Adrenaline.
c. Serotonin.
d. Acetyl Choline.*
e. Kinins.

114. Which drug is used as anthelmintic?

a. Pyrivinium Pamoate. (Compantrin)R Also used during pregnancy.*
b. Pyrimethamine.
c. Pyridoxine.
d. Streptomycin.
e. Phenylephrine.

115. Cholestyramine decreases:

a. Cholesterol.*
b. Triglycerides.*
c. Hyperlipidemia.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

Page 16 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

101. After injury or surgery, as blood substitution we give:

a. 0.9% NaCL.
b. 5% Dextrose.
c. Plasma.*
d. Distilled water.
e. Normal saline.

102. Parity means:

a. Number of pregnancies.
b. Ability of a woman to carry a pregnancy to post viability.*
c. Inability to complete safe pregnancy.
d. A woman cannot be pregnant.
e. A woman can be pregnant for 3 times.

103. Gravida is:

a. Number of times someone has become pregnant.*
b. Number of times someone has become depressed.
c. Number of times someone has become thirst.
d. Number of times someone has become weak.
e. None of the above.

104. The concentration of Ether can be determined by:

a. Alveolar Concentration.*
b. Blood Concentration.
c. Brain Blood concentration.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

105. Inhalation anesthetic action is based upon:

a. Concentration in alveolar sac.
b. Partial pressure in alveolar sac.
c. Concentration in brain.*
d. Concentration in lungs.
e. Concentration in blood

106. Which of the following is inhalant anesthetic?

a. Thiopental Sodium.
b. Phenobarbital.
c. Halothane.
d. Nitrous Oxide.*
e. Lidocaine.

107. In the moderate exercise, the Blood Pressure is normally higher than normal due to:
a. Release of Acetylcholine.
b. Increase in Angiotensin Renin activity and/or (Increased venous return)*
c. Dopamine release.
d. Adrenaline release.
e. Serotonin release.

108. In suppositories Epinephrine is used as:

a. Vasoconstrictor.*
b. Anesthetic.
c. Irritant.
d. Emollient.
e. Astringent.

Page 15 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

93. Ticarcillin (Extended Spectrum Penicillin) is preferred than Carbenicillin in CHF patients because:
a. It is usually given in smaller dose.*
b. It is less allergenic.
c. Have more efficacies.
d. Covers more bacterial spectrum.
e. Not expensive.

94. Trivalent Ferric is converted to Divalent ferrous (Ferrous conversion) takes place through:
a. Sulphuric Acid.
b. Ascorbic Acid.
c. Gastric Acid.*
d. Antacid.
e. Gastrin.

95. The most obvious sign and symptom of Tardive Dyskinesia is:
a. Akinesia (absence of movement).
b. Dyskinesia (impairment of voluntary movement).
c. Coughing
d. Oro-Buccal symptoms.*
e. Vermicularis.

96. An important advantage of using Dopamine in Cardiogenic shock is:

a. Will not cross the BBB and cause CNS effect.
b. Has no effect in and receptors.
c. Produce dose dependent increase in cardiac output and renal perfusion.*
d. Will not increase blood pressure.
e. Can be given orally.

97. Pre-Anesthetic drugs are given 30 to 60 minutes before surgery

a. To minimize side effects.
b. For full muscle relaxation.
c. To reduce anxiety.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.*
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

98. Neuron blocker Anti-Hypertensive drug

a. Glutathione.
b. Guanithidine (causes postural hypotension).*
c. Glutamic Acid.
d. Reserpine.
e. Pilocarpine

99. Postural hypotension is caused by:

a. Guanithidine.*
b. Propranolol.
c. Misoprostol.
d. Losec.
e. Propranolol.

100. Which of the following is H2 blocker?

a. Allopurinol.
b. Omniprazol.
c. Famotidine.*
d. Losec.
e. Lanzoprazole.

Page 14 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

86. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a CHF patients with B blocker?
a. Verelan.*
b. Catapres. Verapamil has a high negative inotropic and A.V. node
suppression properties. This restricts its use in patients with
c. Vasotec. CHF or in patients that are currently on any b blocker.
d. Diuril.
e. Nitrostat.

87. Mrs. X has been taking Verelan for the past 3 years. Which of the following drug(s) would be the choice for Verelan
induced side effects?
a. Pericolace.*
The common adverse effect associated with use of Verelan
b. Maalox ext Strength. is constipation. Peri-Colace is drug of choice for treatment
c. AlternaGEL. of above side effect.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (a), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

88. Digitalis toxicity is associated with a

a. Decrease in serum concentration of k+.*
b. Decrease in serum concentration of Mg++.*
c. Increase in serum concentration of Ca++.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

89. Which of the following new devices is marketed for control of Coumadin therapy?
a. Nicocheck.
b. Chemstrip bG. Coagucheck is a new device for controlled of Coumadin
c. Coagucheck.* therapy. It helps to measure prothrombin time.
d. Acucheck.
e. Glucometer elite.

90. All of the following are true about Allegra EXCEPT: Allegra (Fexofenadine) is an active metabolite
a. Its active ingredient is principle metabolite of Terfenadine. of Seldane (Terfenadine). Liver metabolism of
b. It is anti-allergic drug with non-sedative properties. Allegra is negligible compared to Seldane. It is
c. Liver metabolism is very negligible. antihistamine agent with low sedation
properties. It is a H1 receptor antagonist useful
d. Onset of action is within 60 minutes. for treatment of allergy problem.
e. It is a H2 receptor antagonist.*

91. Nifedipine (Adalat)R is used in:

a. Angina Pectoris and heart failure.*
b. Arrhythmias.
c. Hypertension.
d. Myocardial Infarction.
e. Coronary artery diseases.

92. Phenothiazine causes Orthostatic Hypotension by:

a. Direct action on arterioles (dilates).
b. Direct action via the CNS.
c. Mono Amine Oxidase (MAO) inhibition (Anti-depressant)
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

Page 13 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

79. Serum concentration of the following neurotransmitter(s) is/are increased in pheochromocytoma.

a. Epinephrine.*
b. Norepinephrine.* Blood serum concentration of epinephrine and
c. Tyramine. norepinephrine is generally found to be elevated in patients
i. (a) Only. with pheochromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma is generally
ii. (c) Only. defined as an adrenal medulla cancer in which a large
amount of noradrenaline and adrenaline secrete from the
iii. (a), (b) only.* adrenal medulla.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).

80. Which of the following drugs is the first line choice for treatment of hypertension?
a. Monopril.
b. Diltiazem. Beta blocker and diuretic are first line agents for treatment
of hypertension. Ca-channel blocker and Ace inhibitor are
c. Betaxolol.* indicated when b blocker and diuretic therapy dont
d. Quinidine. produce any satisfactory results.
e. Nitroglycerine.

81. Mr. X has taken Inderal 10 mg by mouth two times daily for the last 3 years. Suddenly he suffers from cold and flu-like
symptoms. For 4 days he does not take Inderal. For treatment of flu, he took Sudafed. After 1 week he feels a terrible
tension in his head. Upon measuring his B.P., it was near 215/110. The possibility of this high B.P. is because of
a. Not taking Inderal for a week.*
b. Because of withdrawal symptoms of Inderal.*
c. Because of Sudafed.*
The elevation of blood pressure may be due to any of the following reason.
i. (a) Only. Patient was not taking Inderal for last couple of days, which contributed to
ii. (c) Only. an elevation of his blood pressure due to withdrawal symptoms of drug.
iii. (a), (b) only. Patient was taking Sudafed (Pseudo-ephedrine) for treatment of his cold.
iv. (c), (c) only. Sudafed has a Alpha-1 stimulating properties that might contribute to an
elevation of patientss blood pressure.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

82. Mr. X has a past history of depression. Now he is suffering from hypertension. Which of the following antihypertensive
agents should be avoided because of his past history of depression?
a. Cordarone.
b. Catapres.* Catapres (Clonidine) has a high tendency to extravagate the depression. Patients
c. Diuril. has past history of depression, therefore he needs to avoid Clonidine as a
antihypertensive agent. Aldomet (Methyldopa) and Reserpine may also contribute
d. Lasix. in worsening the depression. The use of these agents in patients with past or
e. Inderal. current history of depression may require careful monitoring in the patients.

83. All of the following symptoms indicate that patients has a S.L.E. EXCEPT:
a. Fatigue.
b. Malaise. Fatigue, malaise, low grade fever and joint ache are
c. Dryness of mouth.* common symptoms of S.L.E. Dryness of mouth is an
adverse effect of anti-cholinergic drugs.
d. Low grade fever.
e. Joint ache.

84. Excessive hair growth is commonly reported with use of

a. Catapres.
b. Apresoline. Loniten (Minoxidil) is associated with hyper-trichosis
c. Loniten.* (excessive hair growth). Minoxidil is available as OTC
product under brand name of Rogaine. Rogaine is used
d. Risperdal. topically to reduce male pattern baldness.
e. Zyprexa.

85. All of the following are adverse effects of Ace-Inhibitors EXCEPT:

a. Neutropenia.
b. Proteinuria. Neutropenia, proteinuria, hyperkalemia and dry hacking
c. Hyperkalemia. cough are common adverse effects of Ace-Inhibitors.
d. Dry-hacking cough. Sialism is not a side effect of Ace-Inhibitors. It is generally
reported with Trazodone.
e. Sialism.*

Page 12 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

73. Which of the following is/are true about Fiber-Con?

a. It is indicated for constipation as well as for diarrhea.*
b. It should be taken with plenty of water.*
c. III. It should be avoided with Tetracycline.* The active ingredient of Fibercon is Calcium Polycarbophil. It is indicated
for constipation as well as diarrhea. Its water absorbing properties make it
i. (a) Only. useful in treatment of diarrhea. It should be taken with plenty of water.
ii. (c) Only. It forms chelation when given with tetracycline antibiotic. Polycarbophil
iii. (a), (b) only. water and bile salt binding capacity may result in bulkier solid stool.
iv. (b) ,(c) only. Polycarbophil is available as a chewable tablet that absorbs up to 60 times
its weight of water. Prescription for a Polycarbophil can be filled by
v. (a), (b), and (c).* Fibercon, Equalactin or by Mitrolan.

74. Which of the following statement(s) about Lovenox is/are true?

a. No monitoring of INR, PT or PTT in patients with normal pre-surgical coagulation parameter with normal
recommended dose.*
b. It is indicated for prevention of deep vein thrombosis, which may lead to pulmonary embolism following hip
or knee replacement surgery.*
c. III. The recommended dose of Lovenox is 30mg every 12 hours by subcutaneous route.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only
iv. (b) ,(c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

75. Which of the following Methicillin resistant organisms should be treated by nasal Bactroban ointment ?
a. H. Influenza.
b. S. Pneumonia. Bactroban (Mupirocin 2%) ointment is indicated for treatment
c. S. Aureus.* of impetigo caused by staphylococcus aureus, B hemolytic
d. K. Pneumonia. streptococcus, and streptococcus pyrogen.
e. N. Gonorrhea.

76. Which of the following brand(s) is/are useful in treatment of hyperammonia?

a. Enulose.*
b. Constulose.* The active ingredient of Enulose, Constulose and Duphalac is Lactulose. It is useful in
c. Duphalac.* treatment of hyperammonia
i. (a) Only. Lactulose is generally degraded in colon by colonic bacteria in low molecular weight
organic acid. Acidification of colonic contents by this organic acid results in trapping of
ii. (c) Only. ammonia as ammonium ion in colon. The osmotic laxative action of Lactulose helps in
iii. (a), (b) only the excretion of ammonium ion from the colon in feces.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

77. Which of the following brand(s) is/are useful in treatment of Athletes foot infections?
a. Tinactin.*
b. Desenex Extra strength.*
c. Alphagan.
Tinactin (Tolnafate) and Desenex extrastrength (Tolnafate)
i. (a) Only. are antifungal agents useful in treatment of athletes foot
ii. (c) Only. infection. Alphagan is an ophthalmic drop indicated for
iii. (a), (b) only* ocular hypertension.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).

78. Which of the following is/are true about Propranolol?

a. Embolism generally occurs upon restoration of normal rhythm.*
b. It masks the symptoms of hypoglycemia.*
c. Because of its high extraction ratio, withdraw drug at any time without risk of rebound hypertension.
i. (a) Only.
Propranolol is a non-selective Beta-1 and Beta-2 blocker.
ii. (c) Only. When it is used for treatment of arrhythmia, embolism
iii. (a), (b) only.* generally occurs upon restoration of normal rhythm. It
iv. (a), (c) only. masks the symptoms of hypoglycemia.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

Page 11 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

65. All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young
healthy adult, EXCEPT:
a. Isoproterenol.
b. Histamine.
c. Phentolamine.
d. Phenylephrine.*
e. Atropine.

66. Which of the following can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) like Parkinsonism?
a. Haloperidol.
b. Chlorpromazine.*
c. Triazolam.
d. Diazepam.
e. Clonazepam.

67. Which drug is effective ORALLY in Parkinsonism?

a. Reserpine.
b. Chlorpromazine.
c. Amantadine.*
d. Dopamine.
e. All of the above.

68. Which is a correct statement about Amantadine:

a. Antiviral.
b. Used in Parkinsonism.
c. Used as prophylactic in Influenza.
d. Stimulates the release of Dopamine.
e. All of the above.*

69. Secondary causes of Parkinson's include:

a. Phenothiazines.*
b. Diuretics.
c. Oral contraceptives.
d. Antibiotics.
e. Barbiturates.

70. Adrenaline is used along with injection for the following reasons:
a. To cause vasoconstriction.*
b. To decrease absorption.*
c. To prolong the effect of the drug.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

71. Which of the following is used in the treatment of Schistosomiasis?

a. Praziquantel (Bitricide).*
b. Tazocin. Praziquantel increases permeability to calcium causing
c. Malarix. paralysis of worm, musculature dislodgement from mesenteric
d. Terazocin. & pelvic veins.
e. Metronidazole.

72. Duragesic TDS is available in all of the following strength EXCEPT:

a. 25 microgram/ hr. Duragesic (Fentanyl) transdermal system is available in 25 mcg, 50 mcg, 75 mcg and
b. 50 microgram/ hr. 100 mcg/hr strength. Because serious or life-threatening hypoventilation could occur,
c. 75 microgram/ hr. Duragesic cannot be used for treatment of mild to intermittent pain or in dose
d. 100 microgram/ hr. exceeding 25 mcg/hr at the initiation of therapy. It is a schedule II control drugs.
Duragesic may be worn continuously for 72 hours. If analgesia for more than 72 hours
e. 125 microgram/ hr.* is required, a new system should be applied.

Page 10 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

58. Alcohol & Disulfuram interaction is:

a. Increased when the dose of alcohol is increased.
b. Increased when the dose of Disulfiram is increased.
c. Inhibited by liver microsomal enzymes.
d. Independent of alcohol dose.*
e. Stimulated by liver microsomal enzymes.

59. Disulfuram like syndrome manifestations include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Face flushing.
b. Headache.
c. Respiratory difficulty.
d. Cold extremities.*
e. Vomiting.

60. Drug(s) that may have Disulfuram like syndrome are:

a. Metronidazole.
b. Tolbutamide.
c. Glyburide.
d. All of the above.*
e. None of the above.

61. Disulfuram interacts with all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Alcohol.
b. INH.
c. Phenytoin.
d. Phenobarbital.
e. Glycerin.*

62. Alcohol can:

a. Potentiate the effect of diazepam.*
b. Increase residence time of CNS drugs.*
c. Reduce microsomal enzymes in the liver.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

63. Capsicum is:

a. Counterirritant.
b. Used as pain inducer.
c. Used as pain reliever.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).

64. Drug induced Parkinsonism (Neuroleptic induced Parkinsonism) in 70 80% of patients; neuroleptics cause
extrapyramidal signs which mimic Parkinson's disease. It has the following sings and symptoms:
a. Stiffness.*
b. Short steps & akinesia.*
c. Ramped handwriting & tremor.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

Page 9 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

51. Which of the following will reverse the progression of the inflammatory stimulus?
a. Steroids.
b. Prostaglandins.
c. Anti-Pyretics.
d. Cold water.*
e. Heating.

52. Pre-anesthetic drugs are given to:

a. Give Narcotic analgesic action (Morphine).*
b. Reduce toxicity (Benzodiazepines: Diazepam).*
c. Block Vagal reflexes and inhibits salivary and respiratory tract secretions (Scopolamine).*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

53. Side effect of local anesthetic:

a. CNS effects.*
b. Convulsion.*
c. Malignant Hyperthermia.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

54. Convulsion can be caused by:

a. Strychnine.*
b. Cephalosporins.
c. Ampicillins.
d. Thiazide.
e. Ramipril.

55. Malignant hyperthermia is caused by:

a. Local anesthetics.*
b. Anti-cholinergic.
c. Central anesthetics.
d. None of the above.
e. All of the above.

56. Agranulocytosis (Agranulocytopnia) is the side effect of:

a. Hypersensitivity type II.*
b. Hypersensitivity type I.
c. Hypersensitivity type III.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).

57. Anti-Thyroid can be given in the treatment of:

a. Cushing syndrome. Gravis disease is hyper-secretion of thyroid gland
b. Gravis disease.* and is treated by anti-thyroid drugs.
c. Addison's disease.
d. Parkinson's disease.
e. Hashimotos disease.

Page 8 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

43. The Phenothiazine with least side effect is:

a. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)R.
b. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)R.
c. Thioridazine (Melleril)R.*
d. Trifluoperazone (Stelazine)R.
e. Triflupromazine. (Vesprin)R

44. Which drug includes Parkinsonism like symptoms?

a. Phenothiazines.
b. Haloperidol.
c. Butorphanol.
d. Chlorpromazine.
e. All of the above.*

45. Prolonged use of Glucocorticoids will cause:

a. Osteoporosis.
b. Cushing syndrome.
c. Glucose intolerance (Hyperglycemia).
d. Increase in blood pressure, (Fluid retention).
e. All of the above.*

46. Prednisone may produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:

a. Skeletal muscle weakness.
b. Hypoglycemia.*
c. Sodium retention.
d. Peptic ulceration.
e. Lowered resistance to infection.

47. Side effects of Corticosteroids include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Hypokalemia.
b. Diabetes Mellitus.
c. Osteoporosis.
d. Decrease Glycogenolysis.*
e. Decrease ACTH.

48. Cross sensitivity to PABA has been reported with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Benzocain.
b. Tetracain.
c. Sulphonyl urea.
d. Chlorothiazide.
e. Griseofulvin.*

49. Which of the following causes peripheral edema?

a. Nifedipine.
b. Diltiazem.*
c. Verapamil.
d. Enalapril.
e. Felodepine.

50. Which of the following causes constipation?

a. Nifedipine.
b. Diltiazem.
c. Verapamil (Isopten)R.*
d. Amlodepine.
e. Benazepril.

Page 7 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

36. Which of the following can be used in open angle glaucoma but not in closed angle glaucoma?
a. Atropine.
b. Timolol.
c. Acetazolamide.
d. Epinephrine.*
e. Homatropine.

37. Pilocarpine is used to reduce the intra-ocular pressure (IOP) in:

a. Miosis.
"Pilocarpine exerts its miotic action
b. Mydriasis.* after 15-30 minutes and reduces IOP
c. Cycloplagia. after 2-4 hours".
d. Blurred vision.
e. Red eye.

38. Mineral oil is not used very often because:

a. It inhibits absorption of vitamins.*
b. There is a risk of pneumonitis.*
c. It is indigestible.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

39. Mineral oils should not used as cathartics (Laxative) because:

a. They interfere with fat soluble vitamins absorption.*
b. Leak past anal sphincter.
c. Interfere with healing of wounds in anorectal area.
d. May cause lipid pneumonia when gaining access to lungs.
e. Indigestible.

40. Which of the following represent(s) the side effect(s) of MAO inhibitors?
a. Insomnia.*
b. Orthostatic Hypotension & dizziness.*
c. Dry mouth & irritability.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

41. Interaction between MAO inhibitors and Tyramine may cause:

a. Hypotensive crisis.
b. Hypertensive crisis.*
c. Palpitations.
d. Arrhythmias.
e. Angina.

42. The purpose of giving a vasoconstrictor one hour before introducing anesthesia may include:
a. Decrease blood supply and enhance long action of anesthesia.*
b. Decrease side effects.*
c. Give smoother and good induction of anesthesia.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

Page 6 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

29. Which compound is used for all kinds of depression?

a. Lithium Carbonate.
b. Trazodone.*
c. Fluoxitine.
d. Paroxitine.
e. Imipramine.

30. Lithium Carbonate:

a. Needs one week before action appears.*
b. Used as anti-depressant (manic depression & psychosis) in dose 0.8 1.5 mg Eq.*
c. Has low safety margin.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

31. What is the most recognized side effect of Acetaminophen?

a. Liver cirrhosis.
b. Hepatic Necrosis.*
c. Nausea.
d. Vomiting.
e. Hemorrhage.

32. Acetaminophen could replace ASA in:

d. Anti-thermal effect.*
e. Pain killing effect.*
f. Anti-inflammatory effect.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).

33. Which of the following is NOT given in Narrow Angle Glaucoma?

a. Adrenaline.
b. Guanithidine.
c. Antazoline.
d. Phenylephrine.
e. All of the above.*

34. Out of all Glaucoma cases, narrow angle Glaucoma represents:

a. 90%
b. 60%
c. 50%
d. 30%
e. 10%*

35. Heavy mineral oils should not be taken for long time because
a. Decrease the level of cholesterol.
b. Over dose will lead to toxic substances in the body.
c. They can dissolve fats and cause high level of cholesterol.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.*
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).

Page 5 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

22. Which anti-hypertensive can be used by a diabetic and/or cardiac failure patient?
a. Prazocin.*
b. Captopril.*
c. Atenolol.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).

23. Prazocin side effects include:

a. Anti-muscarinic effects & priapism.
b. CV effects as sudden syncope, palpitation, and fluid retention.*
c. CNS effects as headache, drowsiness, weakness, dizziness, and vertigo.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only*
v. (a), (b), and (c).

24. Which anti-hypertensive causes CNS depression?

a. Isopreterenol.
b. Reserpine* (Also causes lethargy, sedation, and nightmares).
c. Carbachol.
d. Propranolol.
e. All of the above.

25. What is true about lithium?

a. Onset of action is from 1 2 hours.
b. Onset of action is from 1 2 weeks.
c. Onset of action is from 2 3 weeks.*
d. Onset of action is from 6 8 hours.
e. Onset of action is from 6 16 hours.

26. The side effects of Lithium therapy include:

a. Hypothyroidism.
b. Slurred speech.
c. Dysrythmia.
d. Polyuria & polydypsia.
e. All of the above.*

27. Hypothyroidism is treated by:

a. Thyroxine T4.*
b. Triiodothyronine T3.*
c. Iodine.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).

28. All of the following statements about lithium therapy are true EXCEPT:
a. Used for all types of depression.*
b. Used for Manic (severe) depressive psychosis, Bi-Polar effective disorders.
c. Stays weeks before the effect takes place.
d. Not used in treating mild biogenic disorders.
e. Contraindicated with diuretics due to retention of it occurs.

Page 4 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

15. Which of the following is a non-systemic laxative antacid?

a. AL (OH)3.
b. Mg (OH)2.*
c. NaHCO3.
d. CaCO3.
e. Sucralfate.

16. Chemotherapy dosing is MOST FREQUENTLY based on which of the following?

a. Body weight.
b. AUC.
c. BSA.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.*
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

17. Long term therapy with Benzodiazepines will cause :

a. Potential drug abuse.*
b. Convulsions if suddenly withdrawn.*
c. Reduce REM sleep.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*

18. The most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis and coma in the diagnosed and treated diabetic is:
a. Insulin overdose.
b. Failure of the patient to utilize insulin properly.*
c. Electrolytes depletion.
d. Use of the wrong type of insulin.
e. Excessive physical activity.

19. Deficiency in which of the following vitamins are dangerous in alcoholic patient?
a. Folic acid.*
b. Thiamine*
c. Ascorbic acid.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).

20. Acute hemorrhagic gastritis is commonly seen with:

a. Chronic alcoholism*
b. H. pylori bacterial infection.
c. Carcinoma of the stomach.
d. Carcinoma of the colon.
e. Travellers diarrhea.

21. Gentamycin is used in:

a. UTI.
b. Skin infections.
c. Eye infections*
d. Ear infection.
e. Tonsillitis.

Page 3 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

7. The best way to express parentraly administered electrolytes is in:

a. Equivalent.
b. Milliequivalents.*
c. Milligram per cent.
d. Millimole.
e. Microgram.

8. The following diuretics would mostly cause hypokalemia EXCEPT:

a. Hydrochlorothiazide.
b. Triamterene.*
c. Chlorthalidone.
d. Furosemide.
e. Ethacrynic acid.

9. Thiazides may produce:

a. Reduced glucose tolerance.
b. Hypokalemia.*
c. Decreased blood level of uric acid.
d. Orthostatic hypotension.
e. Increased renal excretion of ammonia.

10. A patient with CHF is stabilized on 0.25 mg digoxin daily, Hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily and low sodium high
potassium diet. The patient developed a disease which requires corticosteroid therapy. Which of the following would be
more appropriate?
a. Hydrocortisone.
Dexamethasone is the least to cause water and sodium
b. Cortisone. retention.
c. Prednisolone.
d. Prednisone.
e. Dexamethasone.*

11. A patient with CHF who has been stabilized for three months on Digoxin, Hydrochlorothiazide and potassium chloride is
gradually placed on the following additional medicines, which of the following may cause a problem?
a. Quinidine.*
b. Temazepam. Quinidine causes drug-drug interaction with other
c. Captopril. medications and cause toxicity.
d. Aspirin.
e. Nitroglycerin.

12. An elderly patient using insulin was about to be put on a beta blocker for his hypertension. Which of the following would
be most appropriate?
a. Propranolol. Atenolol has not show any hyperglycemic effect.
b. Pindolol.
c. Timolol.
d. Nadolol.
e. Atenolol.*

13. One of the following should be considered as part of the initial drug therapy of most hypertensive patients:
a. Reserpine.
b. Methyldopa.
c. A Thiazide diuretic.*
d. Hydralazine.
e. Guanithidine.

14. A 50 years old patient makes bowel movement 3 times per week. What would you give him?
a. Stimulant laxative.
b. Advice to exercise.
c. Take more fiber diet.
d. Give stool softener.*
e. Drink warm water tid.

Page 2 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions

The following questions are not intended to be the evaluating exam ones. They are represented here to give the
student a clue to the examination format, so that they will have a better understanding of the way the exam questions
will look.

1. Which one of the following is Keratolytic?

a. Retinoic Acid.*
b. Retinol.
c. Vitamin C.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).

2. Which of the following compounds is used for treatment of Acne Vulgaris?

a. Vitamin E.
b. Vitamin A. Also 13-trans-Retenoic acid is used topically
c. Retinol. and 13-Cis-Retenoic acid is used orally in the
d. Retinoic Acid.* treatment of Acne".
e. Vitamin D.

3. Which of the following drugs is used in treatment of Tape Worm?

a. Niclosamide.*
b. Furosimide.
c. Isoniazide.
d. Aspirin.
e. Quinidine.

4. A diabetic patient tells you that he is planning a four-week trip and will not have a refrigerator in the place where he is
going to store his insulin. What information will you give him?
a. Store insulin in a small Styrofoam box and keep it cool with ice cubes.
b. Be sure that insulin is available where ever you are going and purchase it fresh.
c. The insulin will remain stable at room temperature during the time period in which a single vial will be used.*
d. Increase your insulin dose by 10% to account for any deterioration.
e. See your doctor to prescribe a mixture of insulin that will be more stable.

5. The only suitable method of measuring a 25-unit dose of U-100 insulin is to:
a. Use insulin-diluting fluid to make a stock solution (or suspension) of insulin having a concentration of 25-
b. Use a standard U-100 syringe that is pre-filled with 0.75 ml of insulin-diluting fluid.*
c. Use a special U-100 syringe that has a maximum capacity of 50 units.
d. Use a U-40 insulin syringe.
e. Use a standard U-100 syringe, but make sure that there are no bubbles in the liquid after it has been drawn into
the syringe.

6. A mixture of regular insulin and PZI in a ratio of less than 1:1 would be expected to have about the same duration of
action as:
a. The individual components of the mixture because there is no interaction.
b. NBH insulin because some free regular insulin will be present.
c. PZI alone because the excess protamine in PZI will bind essentially all of the regular insulin thereby
converting it to PZI.*
d. Lente insulin because lente insulin is made from these components in this specific ratio.
e. PZI alone if neutral regular insulin is used.

Page 1 of 30