2017 04 10 12 51 06

Academic Session: 2016-17 CODE - 4
FULL SYLLABUS TEST (FST-4)
DO NOT BREAK THE SEAL WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

(XII Syllabus)
(NEET PATTERN)
Target: NEET-2017
tc rd ifjos"kd funsZ'k ugha nsa rc rd iz'u i=k dh lhy dks ugha [kksaysA
Date: 09 April, 2017 | Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 720
COURSE : SAFAL (MR)
Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions.
(i;k funsZ'kksa ds fy;s bl iqfLrdk ds vfUre i`"B dks i<+sA)
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PARTA
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,
Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
Straight Objective Type Straight Objective Type
This section contains 45 multiple choice questions. This section contains 45 multiple choice questions.
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
its answer, out of which Only One is correct. answer, out of which Only One is correct.
1. The complex formed in "Mond process" has ..... 1. "ekS.M fof/k" esa cuus okyk ladqy ----------------- vkd`fr
shape : j[krk gS %
(1) square planar (1) oxkZdkj lery
(2) tetrahedral (2) prq"Qydh;
(3) pyramidal (3) fijkfeMh;
(4) pentagonal (4) iapHkqth;
2. Which of the following statements regarding 2. lYQj ds lEcU/k esa fuEu esa ls dkSu lk dFku vlR; gS \
sulphur is incorrect ?
(1) S2 v.kq vuqpqEcdh; gSA
(1) S2 molecule is paramagnetic.
(2) 200C ij ok"i esa vf/kdrj S8 oy; ik;s tkrs
(2) The vapours at 200C consists mostly of S 8
rings. gSaA
(3) At 600C the gas mainly consists of S2
(3) 600C ij xSl esa vf/kdrj S2 v.kq ik;s tkrs gSaA
molecules.
(4) tc S8 xeZ fd;k tkrk gS rks mldh ';kurk
(4) When S8 is heated viscosity continuously
decreases yxkrkj ?kVrh gSA

3. The correct order of EM 2
/M
values with negative 3. pkj mkjkskj rRoksa Cr, Mn, Fe vkSj Co ds fy,

sign for the four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe EM 2
/M
eku _.kkRed fpUgksa ds lkFk fdl lgh e esa
and Co is gksrs gSa \
(1) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co (1) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co
(2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co (2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co
(3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co (3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co
(4) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co (4) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co
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MRFST090417C4-1
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4. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the 4. ySaFksuks;Mksa ds lacU/k esa fuEu dFku fn;s tkrs gSA buesa
following statement is not correct ? ls dkSulk ,d lgh ugha gSa\
(1) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of
(1) ijek.kq la[;k ds c<+us ds lkFk Js.kh esa ijek.kq
the members with increasing atomic
=k`T;k,a /khjs&/khjs ?kVrh jgrh gSA
number in the series.
(2) lHkh lnL; +3 vkDlhdj.k voLFkk iznf'kZr djrs gSA
(2) All the member exhibit +3 oxidation state.
(3) leku xq.k/keZ ds dkj.k ySaFksuks;Mksa dk i`Fkd~dj.k
(3) Because of similar properties the
separation of lanthanoids is not easy. vklku ugha gksrk gSA
(4) Availability of 4f electrons results in the (4) 4f bysDVkuksa dh miyC/krk dk ifj.kke gS fd bl
formation of compounds in +4 state for all Js.kh ds lHkh lnL; +4 vkDlhdj.k voLFkk
the members of the series. iznf'kZr djrs gSA
5. Total charge required for the oxidation of two 5. nks eksy MnO42dk MnO4 esa vkWDlhdj.k ds fy,
moles MnO42 into MnO4 is : vko';d dqy vkos'k fuEu gS %
(1) 5 F (2) 1 F (1) 5 F (2) 1 F
(3) 2 F (4) None of these (3) 2 F (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
6. Which is not correct regarding the physical 6. fuEu esa ls D;k xSl ds Bksl lrg ij HkkSfrd vf/k'kks"k.k
adsorption of a gas on surface of solid? ds fy, lR; ugha gS %
(1) On increasing temperature adsorption (1) rkieku c<+kus ij vf/k'kks"k.k fu;r :i ls c<+rk gS
increases continuously (2) ,UFkSYih o ,.Vksih ifjorZu _.kkRed gS
(2) Enthalpy and entropy change is negative (3) fdlh vf/k'kks"k.k] xSl dh izd`fr ds fy, de
(3) Adsorption less specifice in nature of gas fof'k"B gS
(4) Reversible (4) mRe.kh;
7. If a first order reaction is completed to the extent 7. ,d izFke dksfV dh vfHkf;k esa le; vUrjky t1 vkSj
of 75% and 50% in time intervals, t1 and t2, what t2 ij vfHkf;k e'k% 75% vkSj 50% iw.kZ gks tkrh gS
is the ratio, t1 : t2 ?
rks t1 : t2 dk vuqikr gksxk ?
ln (3 / 4)
(1) ln 2 (2) ln (3 / 4)
ln 2 (1) ln 2 (2)
ln 2
(3) 2 (4) 1/2 (3) 2 (4) 1/2
8. Which one of the following pair of compounds 8. fuEu esa ls dkSuls ;kSfxdksa dk ;qXe tSofuEuuh; cgqyd
forms the biodegradable polymer ?
cukrk gS \
(1) H2NCH2COOH & H2N(CH2)5COOH
(1) H2NCH2COOH & H2N(CH2)5COOH
(2) HOCH2CH2OH & HOOC COOH
(2) HOCH2CH2OH & HOOC COOH
(3) PhOH & HCHO
(3) PhOH & HCHO
(4) CH2=CHCN & CH2=CHCH=CH2
(4) CH2=CHCN & CH2=CHCH=CH2
MRFST090417C4-2
9. A compound P (C7H7NO) on treatment with Br2 9. ,d ;kSfxd P (C7H7NO) Br2 rFkk KOH ds lkFk
and KOH gives an amine Q, which gives vfHkf;k ij ,d ,ehu Q nsrk gS] tksfd dkfcZy ,ehu
carbylamine test. Q upon diazotization and ijh{k.k nsxkA Q Mkb,tksfVdj.k rRi'pkr fQukWy ds
coupling with phenol forms an azodye. P can be
lkFk ;qXeu ij ,tks jatd nsrk gSA P gksxk %
(1) C6H5CONHCH3
(1) C6H5CONHCH3
(2) C6H5CONH2 (2) C6H5CONH2
(3) C6H5NO (3) C6H5NO
(4) o, m or p-C6H4(NH2)CHO (4) o, m or p-C6H4(NH2)CHO
10. Bithional is an example of : 10. fcfFk;ksuSy fuEu dk mnkgj.k gS %

(1) Disinfectant (1) folaked
(2) Antiseptic (2) iwfrjks/kh
(3) Antibiotic (3) izfrtSfod
(4) Analgesic (4) nnZfuokjd
11. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of 11. RCH2OH RCHO esa cnyus dk lcls vf/kd
RCH2OH RCHO is : mi;qDr vfHkdkjd gksrk gS :
(1) KMnO4 (1) KMnO4
(2) K2Cr2O7 (2) K2Cr2O7
(3) CrO3 (3) CrO3
(4) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate) (4) PCC fifjMhfu;e DyksjksksesV
12. A carbonyl compound (Q) is formed by the 12. vkWfyQhu (P) ds vip;ukRed vkstksuhvi?kVu ij ,d
reductive ozonolysis of olefin (P). Q in the basic dkcksZfuy ;kSfxd (Q) curk gSA ;kSfxd (Q) {kkjh;
medium produced 3- Hydroxybutanal. The olefin
ek/;e esa 3- gkbMksDlhC;wVsuSy nsrk gS vr% vkWfyQhu
(P) is :
(P) gS %
(1) CH2=CHCH2CH3
(1) CH2=CHCH2CH3
(2) CH2=CH2
(2) CH2=CH2
(3) CH3CH=CHCH3 (3) CH3CH=CHCH3
(4) (CH3)2C=CH2 (4) (CH3)2C=CH2
13. A+B 13. A+B
(A) & (B) can be differentiated by : (A) rFkk (B) fdlds }kjk foHksfnr fd;s tk ldrs gS %
(1) 2,4-DNP (1) 2,4-DNP
(2) Fehling solution (2) Qsgfyax foy;u
(3) Lucas reagent (3) Y;wWdkl vfHkdeZd
(4) NaHSO3 (4) NaHSO3
MRFST090417C4-3
14. 14.
The alkyl group R of the reagent will be - vfHkdeZd esa ,fYdy lewg R gS &
(1) CH3CH2 (2)

(1) CH3CH2 (2)
(3) CH3 (4)

(3) CH3 (4)
15. Which reaction can give strongest acid among 15. fuEu esa ls dkSulh vfHkf;k dk mRikn izcyre vEy
the following products.
gksxk

HO
(1) CH3CN
3
H O
(1) CH3CN
3
KMnO ,H ,
(2) PhCH2CH3
KMnO ,H ,
4
(2) PhCH2CH3

4
KMnO4 ,
(3) CH3CH2CHO KMnO4 ,

H / (3) CH3CH2CHO

H /
H3O
(4) HCOOCH3

HO
(4) HCOOCH3
3
16. Orthonitrophenol is less soluble in water than 16. vkWFkksZukbVksfQukWy dh ty esa foys;rk p-rFkk
p-and m-nitrophenol because. m-ukbVksfQukWy ls de gksrh gS D;ksafd
(1) o-Nitrophenol is more volatile than those of (1) o-ukbVksfQukWy m rFkk p-leko;fo;ksa ls vf/kd
m & p-isomers. ok"i'khy gksrk gSA
(2) o-Nitrophenol shows intramolecular (2) o-ukbVksfQukWy esa vUr%vkf.od H-ca/k mifLFkr
H-bonding. gksrs gSaA
(3) o-Nitrophenol shows intermolecular (3) o-ukbVksfQukWy esa vUrjvkf.od H-ca/k mifLFkr
H-bonding. gksrs gSaA
(4) melting point of o-Nitrophenol is lower than (4) o-ukbVksfQukWy dk xyukad m rFkk p-leko;fo;ksa
those of m & p-isomers. ls de gksrk gSA
17. Cyclohexanone on reaction with hydroxylamine 17. lkbDyksgsDlsuksu ruq HCl dh mifLFkfr esa
in dil. HCl produces a compound(X). In presence gkbMksfDly,ehu ds lkFk vfHkf;k djus ij ,d
of conc. H2SO4 compound X gives Y. Y on ;kSfxd (X) nsrk gSA tks lkUnz H2SO4 dh mifLFkfr esa
;kSfxd Y nsrk gSA ;kSfxd Y dk tyvi?kVu djus ds
hydrolysis followed by polymerisation gives
ckn cgqyhdj.k djus ij la'ysf"kr cgqyd (uk;ykWu-6)
synthetic polymer (Nylon-6). Compound Y is :
izkIr gksrk gSA vr% ;kSfxd Y gS :
(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 N O CH3 N O
N O N O
H H
CH3 CH3
O O
NOH NOH
(3) (4) NH (3) (4) NH
MRFST090417C4-4
18. 18.
Product Q is: mRikn Q gS :
(1) PhNH2 (2) PhOH (1) PhNH2 (2) PhOH
(3) PhCOOH (4) PhCH2NH2 (3) PhCOOH (4) PhCH2NH2
19. End product of the following series of reaction is 19. vfHkf;k vuqe esa vfUre mRikn dkSulk&lk gksxk
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
20. Which one of the following will not give 20. fuEu esa dkSulk ;kSfxd -gkbMkWDlh vEy ugha nsrkA
-hydroxy acid.
(1) C6H5CH=O
(1) C6H5CH=O
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4) All of these (4) mi;qZDr lHkh
21. Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II 21. dwV dk mi;ksx djrs gq, fyLV-I esa fn, x, ;kSfxdksa dk
and select the suitable option using the code
lqesy fyLV -II ls dhft, &
given below :
Code % (a) (b) (c) (d) Code % (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
MRFST090417C4-5
22. Which of the following is not correct regarding 22. Vsjhyhu ds fy, D;k lgh ugha gS \
terylene ?
(1) Jà[kyk o`f} cgqyd
(1) step-growth polymer
(2) jS'ks
(2) fibre
(3) condensation polymer (3) la?kuu cgqyd
(4) thermosetting plastic. (4) rkin`<+ IykfLVd
23. Rapid inter conversion of -D-Glucose and 23. -D-Xywdksl o -D-Xywdksl esa le; ds lkFk tyh;
-D-Glucose in solution with time is known is : foy;u esa rhoz vUrZifjorZu dgykrk gS %
(1) Racemisation (1) jslsehdj.k
(2) Isomerisation
(2) leko;ohdj.k
(3) Mutarotation
(3) ifjorhZ ?kw.kZu
(4) None of these
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
24. 24.
Final Products of this reaction is : mijksDr vfHkf;k dk vfUre mRikn gS %

COOH COOH
CHCH3 CHCH3
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) PhCH(CH3)COOH (3) PhCH(CH3)COOH
(4) Cl CHNH2 +HCOOH (4) Cl CHNH2 +HCOOH

CH3 CH3
25. Rate fo nucleophilic substitution reaction for the 25. fuEu ;kSfxdksa ds fy, ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu vfHkf;k
following compounds is :
dh nj dk e D;k gksxk %
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(1) i > ii > iii > iv
(2) iii > iv > i > ii (2) iii > iv > i > ii
(3) iv > iii > i > ii (3) iv > iii > i > ii
(4) iv > iii > ii > i (4) iv > iii > ii > i
MRFST090417C4-6
H O H O
26. CH3CCH3 + PhMgBr A B
H3PO4
C 26. CH3CCH3 + PhMgBr A B
H3PO4
C
3 3

O O
C is : ;kSfxd C gS
CH3 CH3
(1) PhCCH3 (2) PhCCH3 (1) PhCCH3 (2) PhCCH3
O OH O OH
(3) PhC=CH2 (4) PhCHCH3 (3) PhC=CH2 (4) PhCHCH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
27. Denaturation of protein : 27. izksVhu dk fod`frdj.k :

(1) Destroyed only primary or secondary or (1) izksVhu dh dsoy izkFkfed ;k f}rh;d ;k r`rh;d
tertiary structure of protein lajpuk dks u"V djrk gSA
(2) Destroyed the secondary and tertiary (2) izksVhu dh f}rh;d rFkk r`rh;d ljapuk dks u"V
structure only djrk gSA
(3) Destroyed the primary, secondary and (3) izksVhu dh izkFkfed] f}rh;d rFkk r`rh;d ;gka
tertiary and even the quaternary structure of rd dh prq"d ljapuk dks u"V djrk gSA
protein (4) okLrfod tSfod f;k'khyrk ij dksbZ izHkko ugha
(4) will not affect the original biological activity gksrk gSA
28. A non volatile, non electrolyte solute C nH2nOn of 28. ,d vok"i'khy] oS|qr vu~vi?kV~; foys; CnH2nOn ds
2.4 g is dissolved in 100 g water so its boiling 2.4 g dks 100 g ty ds foys; fd;k tkrk gSA bl
point get elevated upto 100.1C (k b of water = izdkj] blds DoFkukad fcUnq esa 100.1C rd mUu;u
0.5 K-kg/mole).What is the value of 'n'. gksrk gSA (ty dk kb = 0.5 K-kg/mole). rc 'n' dk
(1) 2 (2) 4 eku D;k gS \
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) none of these
(3) 3 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
29. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a 29. 35C ij 9.8% Hkkj vuqlkj H2SO4 foy;u ftldk
density 1.2 gm/cc at 35C and contains 9.8%
?kuRo 1.2 gm/cc dh eksyjrk D;k gSA
H2SO4 by weight ?
(1) 2.4 M (2) 8.14 M (1) 2.4 M (2) 8.14 M
(3) 1.2 M (4) 18 M. (3) 1.2 M (4) 18 M.
30. The edge length of a NaCl type unit cell is 508 30. ,d NaCl izdkj ds bdkbZ lsy dh dksj yEckbZ 508
pm. If the radius of the anion is 144 pm, what is pm gSA ;fn _.kk;u dh f=kT;k 144 pm gS rks /kuk;u
the radius of the cation ? dh f=kT;k D;k gS\
(1) 210 pm (2) 150 pm (1) 210 pm (2) 150 pm
(3) 125 pm (4) 110 pm (3) 125 pm (4) 110 pm
MRFST090417C4-7
31. A metal crystallizes into FCC and BCC lattice 31. ,d /kkrq FCC rFkk BCC tkyd esa fLVyhd`r gksrh gS
with edge length 45 and 3.0 respectively. dksj yEckbZ e'k%45 rFkk 3.0 gS rks ?kuRoksa
The ratio of densities (dfee/dbcc) will be : (dfee/dbcc) dk vuqikr gksxk %
2 3
(1) (2) 2 3
3 2 (1) (2)
3 2
8 16 8 16
(3) (4) (3) (4)
9 27 9 27
32. In a crystal structure of cubic unit cell, atoms 'A' 32. ?kuh; ,dd dksf"Bdk dh fLVyh; lajpuk esa 'A'
3 3
are found to occupy th of corners. Atoms 'B' ijek.kq th dksus ?ksjrs gSaA 'B' ijek.kq dsoy nks foijhr
4 4
are present at only two diagonally opposite edge
fod.khZ dksj dsUnz ij mifLFkr gSaA 'C' ijek.kq 'ks"k dksus
contres. The atoms 'C' are present at the
rFkk 'ks"k dksj dsUnzksa ij mifLFkr gSaA rks ;kSfxd dk lw=k
remaining corners and edge centres. The
formula of the compound can be - gks ldrk gS &
(1) A3B2C11 (1) A3B2C11
(2) A2B3C8 (2) A2B3C8
(3) A3B6O11 (3) A3B6O11
(4) A6B3O8 (4) A6B3O8
33. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 70 torr 33. 27C ij ,d 'kq) nzo A dk ok"inkc 70 torr gSA ;g
at 27C. It forms an ideal solution with another
nwljs nzo 'B' ds lkFk ,d vkn'kZ foy;u cukrs gSaA
liquid 'B'. The mole fraction of 'B' is 0.2 and total
27C ij 'B' dk eksy fHkUu 0.2 o foy;u dk dqy
vapour pressure of the solution is 84 torr at
27C. The vapour pressure of pure liquid 'B' at ok"i nkc 84 torr gSA 27C ij 'kq) 0nzo 'B' dk ok"i
27C is : nkc fuEu gS &

(1) 14 (2) 56 (1) 14 (2) 56
(3) 140 (4) 70 (3) 140 (4) 70
34. The geometry of [Ni(CN)4]2 and [NiCl4]2 ions 34. ([Ni(CN)4]2 rFkk [NiCl4]2 vk;uksa dh T;kferh gS %)
are :
(1) prq"Qydh;A
(1) tetrahedral.
(2) oxZ leryh;A
(2) square planar.
(3) square planar and tetrahedral respectively. (3) e'k% oxZ leryh; o prq"Qydh;A
(4) tetrahedral and square planar respectively. (4) e'k% prq"Qydh; o oxZ leryh;A
MRFST090417C4-8
35. The standard reduction potentials at 25C for the 35. 25C ij fuEu vZ vfHkf;kvksa ds fy, izR;sd dk
following half reactions are given against each ekud vip;u foHko fn;k x;k gS
Zn2+(aq) + 2e Zn(s), 0.762 V
Zn2+(aq) + 2e Zn(s), 0.762 V
Cr3+(aq) + 3e Cr(s), 0.740 V
Cr3+(aq) + 3e Cr(s), 0.740 V
2H+ + 2e H2(g), 0.00 V 2H+ + 2e H2(g), 0.00 V
Fe3+ + e Fe2+, 0.77 V Fe3+ + e Fe2+, 0.77 V
Which is the strongest reducing agent - fuEu esa ls dkSulk izcyre vipk;d gS &
(1) Zn (2) Cr
(1) Zn (2) Cr
(3) H2(g) (4) Fe3+(aq) (3) H2(g) (4) Fe3+(aq)
36. Increasing value of magnetic moment of 36. (I) [Fe(CN)6]4 (II) [Fe(CN)6]3
(I) [Fe(CN)6]4 (II) [Fe(CN)6]3 (III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (IV) [Ni(H2O)4]2+
(III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (IV) [Ni(H2O)4]2+ is - ds pqEcdh; vk?kw.kksZ dk c<+rk gqvk e gS-

(1) I < II < III < IV (1) I < II < III < IV
(2) IV < III < II < I (2) IV < III < II < I
(3) II < III < I < IV (3) II < III < I < IV
(4) I < II < IV < III (4) I < II < IV < III
37. The oxidation potential of a hydrogen electrode 37. pH = 10 ,oa PH2 1 ij gkbMkstu bysDVkWM dk
at pH = 10 and PH2 1 :
vkWDlhdj.k foHko gS :
(1) 0.51 V (2) 0.00 V
(1) 0.51 V (2) 0.00 V
(3) + 0.59 V (4) 0.059 V (3) + 0.59 V (4) 0.059 V
38. NaCN is sometimes added in the froth flotation 38. >kx Iykou fof/k esa NaCN dks dHkh&dHkh voueudkjh
process as a depressant when ZnS and PbS ds :i esa Mkyk tkrk gS tc ZnS rFkk PbS yo.k ik,
minerals are expected because : tkrs gS D;ksafd &
(1) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on (1) Pb(CN)2 vo{ksfir gks tkrk gS tc fd ZnS ij
ZnS. dksbZ izHkko ugha gksrk gSA
(2) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] (2) ZnS foys; ladqy Na2[Zn(CN)4] cukrk gS tcfd
while PbS forms froth PbS >kx cukrk gSA
(3) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(3) PbS foys; ladqy Na2[Pb(CN)4] cukrk gS tcfd
while ZnS forms froth.
ZnS >kx cukrk gSA
(4) NaCN is never added in froth floatation
(4) >kx Iykou fo/kh esa NaCN dks ugha feyk;k tkrk
process.
gSA
MRFST090417C4-9
39. Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Process of 39. lwph - I (/kkrq) dks lwph - II (fu"d"kZ.k dk ize) ds lkFk
Extraction) and select the correct answer using feyku dhft, rFkk uhps nh xbZ lwph ds ladsrksa ls lgh
the codes given below the lists - mkj dk p;u dhft, -
List - I List - II
lwph - I lwph - II
(Metal) (Process of Extraction)
(/kkrq) (fu"d"kZ.k dk ize)
i. Aluminium a. Blast furnace
i. ,Y;wfefu;e a. okR;k HkV~Vh
ii. Iron b. Mond process
ii. vk;ju b. ekaM ize
iii. Nickel c. Bayer process
iii. fudy c. cs;j ize
iv. Copper d. Cyanide process
iv. dkWij d. lk;ukbM ize
e. Froath floatation
e. >kx Iyou
Code: i ii iii iv
(1) b e d a
ladsr : i ii iii iv
(2) c a b e (1) b e d a
(2) c a b e
(3) b a d e
(3) b a d e
(4) c e b a
(4) c e b a
40. Which of the following statements are not correct 40. lewg 15 ds rRoksa ds gkbMkbMksa ds fy;s fuEu esa ls
about the hydrides of group 15 elements - dkSulk dFku lgh ugha gS -
(1) The hydrides of the elements of group 15 (1) lewg 15 ds gkbMkbM vk;fud gS rFkk lery
are ionic and have planar triangular shape f=kdks.kh; vkd`fr j[krs gSA
(2) The thermal stability of the hydrides
(2) lewg esa uhps tkus ij gkbMbMks dk rkih;
decreases down the group
LFkkf;Ro de gksrk gSA
(3) The basic character of the hydrides
(3) lewg esa uhps tkus ij gkbMkbMksa dk {kkjh; y{k.k
decreases down the group
de gksrk gSA
(4) The reducing nature of the hydrides
(4) lewg esa uhps tkus ij gkbMkbMksa dh vipk;d
increases down the group
izo`fr c<+rh gSA
41. Which one of the following properties of white 41. fuEu esa ls dkSulk xq.k lQsn QkLQksjl o yky
phosphorous are shared by red phosphorous - QkLQksjl ds e/; la;qDr gS -
(1) It dissolves in CS2 (1) ;g CS2 esa ?kqyrk gSA
(2) It reacts with NaOH to give PH3 (2) ;g NaOH ds lkFk f;k djds PH3 nsrk gSA
(3) It phosphorescences in air (3) ;g ok;q esa izfrfnIr gksrk gSA
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
MRFST090417C4-10
42. In a first order reaction, the concentration of the 42. ,d izFke dksfV vfHkf;k esa] vfHkdkjd dh lkUnzrk 15
reactant, decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in 15 fefuV esa 0.8 M ls 0.4 M rd ?kV tkrh gSA 0.1 M ls
minutes. The time taken for the concentration to 0.025 M rd lkUnzrk ifjorZu ds fy, fy;k x;k le;
change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is :
fuEu gS :
(1) 30 min (2) 15 min
(1) 30 min (2) 15 min
(3) 7.5 min (4) 60 min
(3) 7.5 min (4) 60 min
43. The chemical reaction, 2O3 3O2 proceeds as 43. jklk;fud vfHkf;k 2O3 3O2 fuEu izdkj ls gksrh
follows : gS:
O3 O2 + O fast O3 O2 + O rhoz
O + O3 2O2 slow
O + O3 2O2 /kheh
the rate law expression should be :
nj fu;e O;atd fuEu gks ldrk gS :
(1) r = k[O3]2
(1) r = k[O3]2
(2) r = k[O3]2[O2]1
(2) r = k[O3]2[O2]1
(3) r=k[O3][O2] (3) r=k[O3][O2]
(4) r = k[O3][O2]2 (4) r = k[O3][O2]2
44. A reactant (A) forms two products : 44. ,d vfHkdkjd (A) nks mRikn cukrk gS :
k
A B Activation energy Ea1 k
A B lf;.k
1 1
tkZ Ea1
k
A C Activation energy Ea2
k
A C lf;.k
2 2
tkZ Ea2
If Ea2 = 2 Ea1 then k1 and k2 will be related as : ;fn Ea2 = 2 Ea1 rks k1 rFkk k2 fuEu izdkj ls lEcfU/kr gSa
Ea1 / RT Ea1 / RT
(1) k2 = k1e (1) k2 = k1e
Ea2 / RT Ea2 / RT
(2) k2 = k1e (2) k2 = k1e
Ea1 / RT Ea1 / RT
(3) k1 = A k 2e (3) k1 = A k 2e
(4) k1 = 2k 2eEa2 / RT (4) k1 = 2k 2eEa2 / RT
45. Which property of colloidal solution is 45. dksykWbMh foy;u dk dkSu lk xq.k dksykWbMh d.kksa ij
independent of charge on the colloidal vkos'k ls Lora=k gS ?
particles ?
(1) oS|qr d.k lapyu
(1) Electrophoresis
(2) oS|qr&ijklj.k
(2) Electro-osmosis
(3) fVUMy izHkko
(3) Tyndalleffect
(4) Coagulation (4) Ldanu
MRFST090417C4-11
PARTB
Straight Objective Type lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

This section contains 45 multiple choice
bl [k.M esa 45 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls flQZ ,d
(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which Only One
is correct. lgh gSA
46. When a beam of light goes from denser medium 46. tc ,d izdk'k fdj.k l?ku ek/;e d) ls fojy ek/;e
(d) to rarer medium (r), then it is generally r) esa izos'k djrh gSA rks vkiru dks.k dk eku viorZu
observed that magnitude of angle of incidence is dks.k dk vk/kk gksrk gS] vkiru dks.k dk ifj.kke gksxk
half that of angle of refraction. Then magnitude
;gk = d/r)
of incident angle will be- (here = d/r)

(2) 2 cos
-1 -1
(1) 2 sin
(2) 2 cos
-1 -1
(1) 2 sin 2
2

-1 -1
-1 -1 (3) cos (4) 2 cos
(3) cos (4) 2 cos 2 2
2 2
47. In the given fig. which of the diodes are foward 47. fuEu fp=k esa dkSu ls Mk;ksM vxz vfHkufr esa gS-
biased-
+5V
+5V +10V
R
+10V
R
R
R +5V
+5V (ii)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
-12V
R R
-12V -10V
R R
-10V
(iii) -5V
-5V (iv)
(iii)
(iv)
R
R
-10V
-10V (v)
(v)
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iv), (v)

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iv), (v)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv)
MRFST090417C4-12
48. A ray of light is incident on a parallel slab of 48. t eksVkbZ o n viorZukad okyh ,d lekUrj IysV ij
thickness t and refractive index n. If the angle of ,d izdk'k fdj.k vkifrr dh tkrh gSA ;fn vkiru
incidence is small, than the displacement in dks.k NksVk gS] rks vkifrr ,oa fuxZr fdj.k esa
the incident and emergent ray will be: foLFkkiu gksxk %
t (n 1) t t (n 1) t
(1) (2)
n n (1) (2)
n n
t n t n
(3) (4) none (3) (4) dksbZ ugha
n 1 n 1
49. For the given combination of gates, if the logic 49. fn;s x;s ykWftd esVksa ds fudk; ds fy, ;fn fuos'kh
states of inputs A, B, C are as follows A = B = C
(inputs) A, B, C dh fLFkfr A = B = C = 0 rFkk A =
= 0 and A = B = 1, C = 0 then the logic states of
B = 1, C = 0 gks] rks fuxZr (output) D dh fLFkfr gksxh:
output D are
(1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 1 (1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 1
(3) 1, 0 (4) 1, 1 (3) 1, 0 (4) 1, 1
50. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium 50. ,d izdk'k fdj.k viorZukad okys ek/;e ls xqtjrh
of refractive index , falls on a surface
gqbZ ,sls ek/;e gok lrg ij vkifrr gksrh gS] tks
separating the medium from air at an angle of
incidence of 45. For which of the following ek/;e esa 45 ds dks.k ij fLFkr gS] fuEu esa ls dk
value of the ray can undergo total internal og eku ftlds fy;s fdj.k iw.kZ vkUrfjd ijkorZu gks
reflection?
(1) = 1.33 (2) = 1.40
(1) = 1.33 (2) = 1.40
(3) = 1.50 (4) = 1.25
(3) = 1.50 (4) = 1.25
51. In a laboratory four convex lenses L1, L2, L3 and 51. pkj mky ySal L1, L2, L3 ,oa L4 ftudh Qksdl nwjh
L4 of focal lengths 2, 4, 6 and 8 cm, respectively e'k% 2, 4, 6 o 8 cm, gS] ,d iz;ksx'kkyk esa miyC/k
are available. Two of these lenses form a gSA buesa ls nks ySal ls 10 cm, yEckbZ o vko/kZu
telescope of length 10 cm and magnifying power
{kerk 4 dk ,d nwjn'khZ curk gSA vfHkn`';d o vfHkus=k
4. The objective and eye lenses are respectively
ySal e'k% gksxsa&
(1) L2, L3, (2) L2, L4
(1) L2, L3, (2) L2, L4
(3) L1, L2, (4) L4, L1
(3) L1, L2, (4) L4, L1
MRFST090417C4-13
52. A simple pendulum has a length , mass of bob 52. ,d ljy yksyd dh yEckbZ o ckWc dk nzO;eku m gSA
m. The bob is given a charge q coulomb. The ckWc dks q dwyke vkos'k fn;k tkrk gSA yksyd fp=k esa
pendulum is suspended in a uniform horizontal
n'kkZ;s vuqlkj E rhozrk ds le:i {kSfrt fo|qr {ks=k esa
electric field of strength E as shown in figure,
then calculate the time period of oscillation when
yVdk gS] rks tc ckWc bldh ek/; fLFkfr ls FkksM+k
the bob is slightly displace from its mean position foLFkkfir fd;k tkrk gS] rc bldk nksyu dk
is : vkorZdky Kkr djks %&
E
E
q1m
q1m
(1) 2
g (1) 2
g

(2) 2
qE (2) 2
g
m g qE
m

(3) 2
(3) 2
g qE qE
m g
m
(4) 2
2 (4) 2
qE 2
g2 qE
m g2
m
53. The potential difference between points A and B 53. fn;s x;s ,d leku fo|qr {ks=k esa fcUnq A o B ds e/;
in the given uniform electric field is :
foHkokUrj gS :
a
C B a
C B
E
b E
b
A
E A
E
(1) Ea (2) E (a2 b2 )

(1) Ea (2) E (a2 b2 )
(3) Eb (4) (Eb / 2 )
(3) Eb (4) (Eb / 2 )
MRFST090417C4-14
54. For an infinite line of charge having charge 54. xv{k ds vuqfn'k vkos'kksa dh vuUr yEch Jà[kyk dk
density lying along x-axis, the work required in vkos'k ?kuRo gSA pki CA ds vuqfn'k vkos'k q dks C
moving charge q from C to A along arc CA is : ls A rd ys tkus ds fy, vko';d dk;Z gksxk :
q q q q
(1) loge 2 (2) loge 2 (1) loge 2 (2) loge 2
0 40 0 40
q q 1 q q 1
(3) loge 2 (4) loge (3) loge 2 (4) loge
40 20 2 40 20 2
55. A long hollow conducting cylinder is kept 55. ,d yEck , [kks[kyk (hollow), pkyd csyu mlls cM+h
coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting f=kT;k okys ,d nwljs yEcs] [kks[kys pkyd csyu ds
cylinder of larger radius. Both the cylinders are vUnj lek{k :i ls j[kk x;k gSA nksauksa csyu kjEHk esa
initially electrically neutral. fo|qrh; n`f"V ls mnklhu gSA
(1) A potential difference appears between the (1) nksauks csyuksa ds chp ,d foHkokUrj iSnk gksrk gS
two cylinders when a charge density is tc Hkhrjh csyu ij ,d vkos'k ?kuRo fn;k tkrk
given to the inner cylinder.
gSA
(2) A potential difference appears between the
(2) nksuksa csyuksa ds chp ,d foHkokUrj iSnk gksrk gS
two cylinders when a charge density is
tc ckgjh csyu ij ,d vkos'k ?kuRo fn;k tkrk
given to the outer cylinder.
gSA
(3) No potential difference appears between
(3) nksuksa csyuksa ds chp dksbZ foHkokUrj iSnk ugha gksrk
the two cylinders when a uniform line
charge is kept along the axis of the
tc ,d ,dleku js[kh; vkos'k csyuksa ds v{k ds
cylinders. vuqfn'k j[kk tkrk gSA
(4) No potential difference appears between (4) nksuksa csyuksa ds chp dksbZ foHkokUrj iSnk ugha gksrk
the two cylinders when same charge tc nksuksa csyuksa ij leku vkos'k ?kuRo fn;k
density is given to both the cylinders. tkrk gSA
56. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given 56. fcUnq (x, y, z) ij oS|qr foHko
by
V = x2 y xz3 + 4 gSA
V = x2 y xz3 + 4
The electric field E at that point is bl fcUnq ij oS|qr {ks=k E gksxkA
V = x2 y xz3 + 4 gSA
(1) E = i (2xy+ z3) + j x2 + k 3xz2
(1) E = i (2xy+ z3) + j x2 + k 3xz2
(2) E = i 2xy + j (x2 + y2 ) + k (3xz y2)
(2) E = i 2xy + j (x2 + y2 ) + k (3xz y2)
(3) E = i z3 + j xyz + k z2
(3) E = i z3 + j xyz + k z2
(4) E = i (2xy z3) + j xy2 + k 3z2x
(4) E = i (2xy z3) + j xy2 + k 3z2x
MRFST090417C4-15
57. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal 57. nks xksyh; pkyd B rFkk C dh f=kT;k,a leku o bu ij
radii and carrying equal charges in them repel vkos'k Hkh leku gSA ;s ijLij F cy ls izfrdf"kZr djrs
each other with a force F when kept apart at
gSa] tc fdlh nwjh ij tkrs gSaA ,d rhljk leku pkyd
some distance. A third spherical conductor
xksyk ftldh f=kT;k B ds leku fdUrq fujkosf'kr gS] dks
having same radius as that of B but uncharged,
is brought in contact with B, then brought in B ds lEidZ esa yk;k tkrk gS o fQj C ds lEidZ esa
contact withC and finally removed away from ykdj] varr% nksuks ls nwj ys tk;k tkrk gSA B rFkk C
both. The new force of repulsion between B and
ds e/; u;k izfrd"kZ.k cy gksxk&
C is
F 3F
F 3F (1) (2)
(1) (2) 4 4
4 4
F 3F
F 3F (3) (4)
(3) (4) 8 8
8 8
58. The efficiency of a cell when connected to a 58. tc lsy dks ck frjks/k R ls tksM+rs gS rks bldh
resistance R is 60%. What will be its efficiency if n{krk 60% gksrh gSA ;fn ck; frjks/k dks N% xquk dj
the external resistance is increased to six times.
fn;k tk;s rks bldh n{krk gksxh &
(1) 80 % (2) 90%
(1) 80 % (2) 90%
(3) 55% (4) 95%
(3) 55% (4) 95%
59. Two coils connected in series have resistances 59. Js.khe esa tqM+h nks dq.Mfy;ksa ds izfrjks/k e'k% 600
600 and 300 at 20C and temperature
rFkk 300 gSa rFkk muds rkih; izfrjks/k xq.kkad
coefficient of resistivity 0.001 k 1 and 0.004 k1
respectively. 20C ij e'k% 0.001 k1 rFkk 0.004 k1 gS &
The effective temperature coefficient of the
la;kstu dk izHkkoh rkih; xq.kkad gS&
combination is
1 1
1 1 (1) degree1 (2) degree1
(1) degree1 (2) degree1 1000 250
1000 250
1 3 1 3
(3) degree1 (4) degree1 (3) degree1 (4) degree1
500 1000 500 1000
60. The potentiometer wire 10 m long and 20 ohm 60. 10 m yEcs rFkk 20 ohm izfrjks/k ds foHkoekih rkj ds
resistance is connected to a 3 volt emf battery Js.khe esa 3 volt fo- ok- cy dh cSVjh rFkk 10 vkse
and a 10 ohm resistance. The value of potential
dk izfrjks/k tqM+k gS] foHkoekih rkj ij foHko izo.krk dk
gradient in volt/m of the wire will be
eku oksYV@ehVj esa gksxk&
(1) 1.0 (2) 0.2
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.02 (1) 1.0 (2) 0.2
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.02

MRFST090417C4-16
61. A conductor with rectangular cross section has 61. fp=k esa fn[kk;s vuqlkj ,d vk;rkdkj vuqizLFk dkV ds
dimension (a 2a 4a) as shown in fig. pkyd dh foek,sa (a 2a 4a) gSA AB ds e/;
Resistance across AB is x, across CD is y and izfrjks/k x o CD ds e/; izfrjks/k y o EF ds e/; z gS
across EF is z. Then
rks&
(1) x = y = z (2) x > y > z (1) x = y = z (2) x > y > z

(3) y > z > x (4) x > z > y (3) y > z > x (4) x > z > y
62. If the reading of ammeter A1 in figure is 2.4 A. 62. ;fn fp=k esa iznf'kZr vehVj A1 dk ikB~;kad 2.4 A gS]
Neglecting the resistances of the ammeters, the rks vehVj A2 rFkk A3 ds ikB~;kad D;k gksxsa\ vehVjksa ds
reading of ammeter A2 will be : izfrjks/k ux.; eku yhft;sA
(1) 1.6 A (2) 1.2 A (1) 1.6 A (2) 1.2 A

(3) 1 A (4) 2 A (3) 1 A (4) 2 A
63. Cell having an emf and internal resistance r is 63. ,d lsy dk fo|qr okgd cy bZ-,e-,Q rFkk
connected across a variable external resistance vkUrfjd izfrjks/k r gSA bls ,d ifjorhZ izfrjks/k R dk
R .As the resistance R is increased, the plot of eku c<+k;k tk; rk R ds fljksa ds chp foHkokUrj V
potential difference V across R is given by :
dk vkys[k gksxk %
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
MRFST090417C4-17
64. A potentiometer wire of length L and a 64. L yEckbZ ds ,d foHkoekih rkj rFkk ,d izfrjks/kh r dks
resistance r are connected in series with a Js.kh e esa E0 bZ ,d ,Q dh ,d cSVjh rFkk izfrjks/k
battery of e.m.f. E0 and a resistance r1. An
r1 ls tksMk x;k gS bl foHkoekih dh l yEckbZ ij fdlh
unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length l of the
vKkr bZ ,e ,Q E ds fy;s larqyu fcUnq izkIr gksrk gS
potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given by
: rks E dk eku gS:
E0r l E0l E0r l E0l
(1) . (2) (1) . (2)
(r r1 ) L L (r r1 ) L L
LE0r LE0r LE0r LE0r

(3) (4) (3) (4)
(r r1 )l lr1 (r r1 )l lr1
65. The figure shows a graph of current (I) flowing

65. vkjs[k esa fdlh lsy dh VfeZuy oksYVrk (V) rFkk mlls
throught a cell against its terminal voltage (V). izokfgr fo/kqr /kkjk (I) ds chp xzkQ n'kkZ;k x;k gSA rks]
The emf and internal resistance of this cell are lsy dk fo/kqr okgd cy rFkk vkarfjd izfrjks/k e'k%
gksaxs
(1) 1 V ; 0.25 (2) 1 V ; 4

(1) 1 V ; 0.25 (2) 1 V ; 4
(3) 1 V ; 1 (4) 0.25 V ; 0.25
(3) 1 V ; 1 (4) 0.25 V ; 0.25

66. In the circuit given, charge (in C) on each 66. iznf'kZr ifjiFk esa izR;sd la/kkfj=k ij C eas LFkk;h
capacitor in steady state will be voLFkk esa vkos'k gksxk&
(1) 12 (2) 10
(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 8 (4) 6
(3) 8 (4) 6
MRFST090417C4-18
67. The radius of the circular plates of a parallel 67. lekUrj iV~V la/kkfj=k dh o`kkdkj IysVksa dh f=kT;k
plate capacitor is R. Air is dielectric medium
R gS] IysVksa ds chp esa ijkoS|qr inkFkZ ok;q gSaA ;fn
between the plates. If the capacitance of the
la/kkfj=k dh /kkfjrk R f=kT;k ds xksys dh /kkfjrk ds
capacitor is equal to the capacitance of a sphere
of radius R, then the distance between the plates cjkcj gS] rks IysVksa ds chp dh nwjh gksxh&
is (1) R/4 (2) R/2
(1) R/4 (2) R/2 (3) R (4) 2R
(3) R (4) 2R
68. A current i is flowing in a straight conductor of 68. L yEckbZ ds lh/ks /kkjkokgh pkyd esa i /kkjk izokfgr gks
length L. The magnetic induction at a point L
jgh gSA blds e/; fcUnq ls nwjh ij fLFkr fcUnq ij
4
L
distant from its centre will be - pqEcdh; izsj.k dk eku gksxkA
4
40i 0i 40i 0i
(1) (2) (1) (2)
5 L 2 L 5 L 2 L
0i
0i (3) (4) 'kwU;
(3) (4) zero 2L
2L
69. fp=kkuqlkj fdlh ukfHkd N ds ikl ls xqtjrs d.k ds
69. In the following fig., three paths of particle
crossing a nucleus N are shown. The correct rhu iFk fn[kk;s x;s gS buesa ls lgh iFk gSA
path is -
N N N
N N N (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) (c)
(1) a o c (2) a o b
(1) a and c (2) a and b
(3) a, b o c (4) dsoy a
(3) a, b and c (4) only a
70. An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form 70. ,d vuUr yEckbZ ds rkj PQR dks ledks.k ij
a right angle as shown. A current flows through fp=kkuqlkj eksM+k x;k gSA PQR ls /kkjk izokfgr gks jgh
PQR. The magnetic field due to this current at gSA bl /kkjk ds dkj.k fcUnq M ij pq- {ks=k H1 gSA vc
the point M is H1. Now, another infinitely long ,d nwljk vuUr yEckbZ dk rkj QS fcUnq Q ij bl
straight conductor QS is connected at Q so that
izdkj tksM+k tkrk gSA fd PQ esa /kkjk vifjofrZr jgrh
the current in PQ remaining unchanged. The
gSA fcUnq M ij vc pqEcdh; {ks=k H2 gks rks H1/H2 dk
magnetic field at M is now H2. The ratio H1/H2 is
vuqikr gksxk \
given by
(1) 1/2 (2) 1

(1) 1/2 (2) 1
(3) 2/3 (4) 2
(3) 2/3 (4) 2
MRFST090417C4-19
71. Two particles A and B of masses m A and mB 71. nks d.k A rFkk B ftuds nzO;eku e'k% mA rFkk mB gS
respectively and having the same charge are rFkk ftlds vkos'k leku gS] ,d ry esa xfreku gSA
moving in a plane. A uniform magnetic field
bl ry ds yEcor~ ,d pqEcdh; {ks=k fo|eku gSA d.kksa
exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of
dh pkysa e'k% vA rFkk vB gSa rFkk iz{ksi iFk fp=k ds
the particles are vA and vB respectively and the
trajectories are as shown in the figure. Then
vuqlkj gSA rc %
(1) mAvA < mBvB (1) mAvA < mBvB
(2) mAvA > mBvB (2) mAvA > mBvB
(3) mA < mB and vA < vB (3) mA < mB and vA < vB
(4) mA = mB and vA = vB (4) mA = mB and vA = vB
72. Three identical coils A, B and C are placed 72. rhu leku cUn dq.Mfy;k A, B rFkk C bl izdkj j[kh
coaxially with their planes parallel to each other. x;h gSA fd muds ry ,d nwljs ds lekUrj gSA
The coil A and C carry equal currents in opposite dq.Mfy;k A rFkk C ls leku ek=kk dh /kkjk fp=k esa
direction as shown. The coils B and C are fixed
fn[kk;s vuqlkj izokfgr gks jgh gSA dq.Mfy;k B rFkk C
and the coil A is moved towards B with a uniform
fLFkj gS vkSj dq.Myh A dks B dh vksj fdlh leosx ls
speed, then -
ljdk;k tkrk gS&
A B C
A B C
(1) there will be induced current in coil B which

(1) dq.Myh B esa /kkjk izfs jr gksxh vkSj ;g A esa /kkjk
will be opposite to the direction of current in
ds foijhr gksxhA
A
(2) there will be induced current in coil B in the (2) dq.Myh B esa /kkjk izfs jr gksxh vkSj ;g A eas /kkjk
same direction as in A. dh fn'kk esa gksxhA
(3) there will be no induced current in B. (3) dq.Myh B eas dksbZ /kkjk izsfjr ugha gksxhA
(4) current induced by coils A and C in coil B (4) dq.Myh B esa dq.Mfy;k A rFkk C ds }kjk izfs jr
will be equal and opposite, therefore net
/kkjk cjkcj ,oa foijhr fn'kk esa gksxh blfy;s B
current in B will be zero
esa usV /kkjk dk eku 'kwU; gksxkA
MRFST090417C4-20
73. A metallic rod completes its circuit as shown in 73. ,d /kkrq dh NM+ fp=kkuqlkj ifjiFk iw.kZ djrh gSA ;g
the figure. The circuit is normal to a magnetic ifjiFk B = 0.15 Vslyk ds pqEcdh; {ks=k ds yEcor gS]
field of B = 0.15 tesla. If the resistance of the rod ;fn izfrjks/k dk eku 3gS] rks NM+ dks 2 eh-@ls-
is 3 the force required to move the rod with a vpy osx ls xfr'khy djus ds fy;s vko';d cy
constant velocity of 2 m/sec is- gksxk&

v = 2m/s v = 2m/s
0.5m
0.5m
R R

3 3
(1) 3.75 10 N (1) 3.75 10 U;wVu
2 2
(2) 3.75 10 N (2) 3.75 10 U;wVu
2
(3) 3.75 10 N
2
(3) 3.75 10 U;wVu
4 4
(4) 3.75 10 N (4) 3.75 10 U;wVu
74. In the figure shown, the magnet is pushed 74. fp=kkuqlkj ,d pqEcd dks vpy oy; dh v{k ds
towards the fixed ring along the axis of the ring vuqfn'k oy; dh rjQ /kDdk fn;k tkrk gS rFkk ;g
and it passes through the ring. oy; ls xqtjrh gS
A B N S A B N S
B & A are right & left B & A are right & left
faces respectively faces respectively
(1) when magnet goes towards the ring the (1) tc pqEcd oy; dh rjQ xfreku gksrh gS bldk
face B becomes south pole and the face A B Qyd nf{k.k /kqoz dh rjg rFkk A Qyd mkj
becomes north pole /kzqo dh rjg dk;Z djrk gSA
(2) when magnet goes away from the ring the (2) tc pqEcd oy; ls nwj tkrh gS rks B Qyd
face B becomes north pole and the face A mRrj /kzqo rFkk A Qyd niZ.k /kzqo dh rjg dk;Z
becomes south pole djrk gSA
(3) when magnet goes away from the ring the (3) tc pqEcd oy; ls nwj tkrh gS Qyd A mRrj
face A becomes north pole and the face B /kqzo rFkk Qyd B nf{k.k /kzqo dh rjg dk;Z djrk
becomes south pole
gSA
(4) the face A will always be a north pole.
(4) Qyd A ges'kk mkjh /kzqo dh rjg dk;Z djrk gSA
MRFST090417C4-21
75. In the given arrangement, the loop is moved with 75. fn;s x;s la;kstu esa] fLFkj pky v ls ,d ywi dks
constant velocity v in a uniform magnetic field B lhfer pkSM+kbZ 'a' okys ,d leku pqEcdh; {ks=k B ls
in a restricted region of width a. The time for xqtkjrs gSA og le;] ftleas ifjiFk esa fo0ok0 cy
which the emf is induced in the circuit is:
sfjr gksxk og gS :
2b 2a
(1) (2) 2b 2a
(1) (2)

(a b) 2(a b) (a b) 2(a b)
(3) (4) (3) (4)

175 175
76. In an L-R series circuit (L = mH and 76. L-R (L = mH rFkk R = 12) Js.kh ifjiFk ls
11 11
R = 12), a variable emf source (V = V0 sin t) ifjorhZ fo-ok-cy lzksr (V = V0 sin t) tqM+k gSA bldk
of Vrms = 130 2 V and frequency 50 Hz is Vrms = 130 2 V rFkk vko`fr 50 Hz gSA ifjiFk ls
applied. The current amplitude in the circuit and
/kkjk vk;ke rFkk /kkjk dh foHko ds lkis{k dyk e'k%
phase of current with respect to voltage are
gksaxs & (= 22/7 dk mi;ksx djsa)
respectively(Use = 22/7)
5
5 (1) 14.14A, 30 (2) 10 2 A, tan-1
(1) 14.14A, 30 (2) 10 2 A, tan-1 12
12
5 5
5 5 (3) 10 A, tan-1 (4) 20 A, tan-1
(3) 10 A, tan-1 (4) 20 A, tan-1 12 12
12 12
77. An alternating current flows through a circuit 77. izsjdRo rFkk izfrjks/k L rFkk izfrjks/k R okys ifjiFk esa
consisting of inductance L and resistance R.
izR;korhZ /kkjk izokfgr gksrh gS] fo|qr L=kksr dh vko`fk

Periodicity of the supply is which of the
2
gSA fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh gS&
following is true- 2
(1) The limiting value of impedance is L for low
(1) fuEu vko`fk ds fy;s izfrck/kk lhek eku L gSA
frequency
(2) The limiting value of impedance for high (2) mPp vko`fk ds fy;s izfrck/kk lhek eku LgSA
frequency is L
(3) The limiting value of impedance for high (3) mPp vko`fk ds fy;s izfrck/kk lhek eku R gSA
frequency is R
(4) fuEu vko`fk ds fy;s izfrck/kk lhek eku LgSA
(4) The limiting value of impedance for low
frequency is L
MRFST090417C4-22
78. In the series LCR circuit as shown in figure, the 78. fp=kkuqlkj LCR Js.kh ifjiFk esa, oksYVehVj rFkk vehVj
voltmeter and ammeter readings are :
ds ikB;kad gS :
(1) V = 100 volt, = 2 amp

(1) V = 100 volt, = 2 amp
(2) V = 100 volt, = 5 amp
(2) V = 100 volt, = 5 amp
(3) V = 1000 volt, = 2 amp
(3) V = 1000 volt, = 2 amp
(4) V = 300 volt, = 1 amp
(4) V = 300 volt, = 1 amp
79. An AC ammeter is used to measure current in a 79. fdlh ifjiFk esa /kkjk ekius ds fy, R;korhZ /kkjk
circuit. When a given direct constant current vehVj dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA tc ifjiFk esa vpj
passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter eku dh fn"V /kkjk okfgr dh tkrh gS rks vehVj dk
reads 3 ampere. When an alternating current ikB;kad 3 ,sfEi;j gSA tc ifjiFk ls vU; R;korhZ
passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter /kkjk okfgr dh tkrh gS rks bldk ikB;kad 4 ,sfEi;j
reads 4 ampere. Then the reading of this gSA tc R;korhZ /kkjk rFkk fn"V /kkjk nksuksa dks ,d
ammeter if DC and AC flow through the circuit
lkFk okfgr fd;k tkrk gS rks vehVj dk ikB;kad
simultaneously, is :
gksxk &
(1) 3 A (2) 4 A
(1) 3 A (2) 4 A
(3) 7 A (4) 5 A (3) 7 A (4) 5 A
80. Let 1 be the frequency of the series limited of 80. ekuk ykbeu Js.kh dh lhekUr vko`fk 1 gSA ykbeu
the Lyman series, 2 be the frequency of the first Js.kh dh igyh js[kk dh vko`fk 2 gS rFkk ckWej Js.kh
line of the Lyman series, and 3 be the frequency
dh lhekUr vko`fk 3 gS -
of the series limited of the Balmer series.
(1) 1 2 = 3 (2) 2 1 = 3 (1) 1 2 = 3 (2) 2 1 = 3
1 1
(3) 3 = ( + 3) (4) 1 + 2 = 3 (3) 3 = ( + 3) (4) 1 + 2 = 3
2 1 2 1
81. In the Bohrs model of a hydrogen atom, the 81. gkbMkstu ijek.kq ds cksj ekWMy esa bysDVkWu dh
enctripetal force is furnished by the Coulomb o`kkdkj d{kk ds fy;s vfHkdsU cy ksVkWu rFkk
attraction between teh proton and the electron. If bysDVkWu ds chp dwykWe cy nku djrk gSA ;fn
a0 is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is the
a0 ewy d{kk dh f=kT;k gks] m bysDVksWu dk O;eku]
mass and e is the charge on the electron, o is
e bysDVkWu ij vkos'k o fuokZr dh fo|qr'khyrk gks] rks
the vacuum permittivity, the speed of the
electron is :
bysDVkWu dh pky gksxh %
e e
(1) zero (2) (1) 'kwU; (2)
0 a0 m 0 a0 m
e 4 0 a0 m e 4 0 a0 m
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 0 a0 m e 4 0 a0 m e
MRFST090417C4-23
82. A radio station is transmitting the waves of 82. ,d jsfM;ks LVs'ku 300 ehVj rajxnS/;Z okyh rajxsa
wavelength 300 m. Radiation capacity of the izlkfjr dj jgk gS] ;fn VkalehVj dh fofdj.k
transmitter is 10 KW. Find out the number of
{kerk10 KW.gS rks izfr lssd.M+ fosdfjr gksus okyh
photons which are emitting in per unit time :
QksVkWauksa dh la[;k fdruh gksxh%
(1) 1.5 1035 (2) 1.5 1031
(3) 1.5 1029 (4) 1.5 1033 (1) 1.5 1035 (2) 1.5 1031
(3) 1.5 1029 (4) 1.5 1033
83. The decay constant of a radioactive substance is 83. ,d jsfM+;k,fDVo inkFkZ dk {k; fu;arkd gSA inkFkZ
. The life and mean life of substance are dh v}Z vk;q rFkk vk;q dze'k% gksxh%
respectively given by
1 loge 2 loge 2 1
1 loge 2 loge 2 1 (1) rFkk (2) rFkk
(1) and (2) and

1
1 (3) rFkk (4) rFkk 2
(3) and (4) and 2 loge 2 loge 2
loge 2 loge 2
84. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per 84. eku ysa fd izfr U;wfDy;kWu ukfHkfd; ca/ku&tkZ
nucleon (B/A) versus mass number (A) is as (B/A) cuke nzO;eku la[;k (A) uhps n'kkZ;s fp=k ds
shown in the figure. Use this plot to choose the vuqlkj gSA bl xzkQ dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkjksa
correct choice(s) given below.

dk pquko djsaA
B/A
fp=k :
B/A
8
8
6
6
4
4
2
2
0
100 200 A 0
100 200 A
(1) Fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers
(1) nks ukfHkdksa ds lay;u (Fusion) esa] ftudh
lying in the range of 1 < A < 50 will release
nzO;eku la[;k 1 < A < 50 ds chp esa gS] tkZ dk
energy
mRltZu (release) gksxk
(2) Fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers
(2) nks ukfHkdksa ds lay;u esa] ftudh nzO;eku la[;k
lying in the range of 51 < A < 100 will
51 < A < 100 ds chp eas gS] tkZ dk mRltZu
release energy
gksxk
(3) Fission of a nucleus lying in the mass range
(3) ,d ukfHkd] ftldh nzO;eku la[;k 100 < A <
of 100 < A < 200 will release energy when 200 ds chp esa gS] ds nks leku Hkkxksa esa fo[kaMu
broken into two equal fragments ij tkZ dk mRltZu gksxkA
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) nksuks (1) vkSj (2)
MRFST090417C4-24
85. A fission reaction is given by 236
92 U 140
54 Xe + 85. ,d fo[kaMu izf;k 236
92 U 140
54 Xe + 94
38 Sr +x+y
94 236
38 Sr + x + y, where x and y are two particles. nh x;h gS] tgk x rFkk y nks d.k gSA 92 U fojkekoLFkk
236
Considering 92 U to be at rest, the kinetic esa gS rFkk mRiknksa dh xfrt tkZ, e'k% KXe, KSr, Kx
energies of the products are denoted by KXe, KSr, (2MeV) rFkk Ky (2MeV) ls n'kkZ;h x;h gSA 236
92 U ,
Kx (2MeV) and Ky (2MeV), respectively. Let the
140 94
54 Xe rFkk 38 Sr dh izfr U;fDYkvkWu ca/ku tkZvksa
236 140
binding energies per nucleon of 92 U , 54 Xe
dks e'k% 7.5 MeV, 8.5 MeV rFkk 8.5 MeV ysaA
94
and 38 Sr be 7.5 MeV, 8.5 MeV and 8.5 MeV,
fofHkUu laj{k.k fu;eksa dk /;ku j[krs gq, lgh fodYi
respectively. Considering different conservation
gS gSa
laws, the correct option(s) is(are)
(1) x = n, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV (1) x = n, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV
(2) x = p, y = e, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV (2) x = p, y = e, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV
(3) x = p, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV (3) x = p, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV
(4) x = n, y = n, KSr = 86 MeV, KXe = 129 MeV (4) x = n, y = n, KSr = 86 MeV, KXe = 129 MeV
86. The angle of polarisation for any medium is 60 86. fdlh ek/;e ds fy;s /kzqo.k dks.k 60 gS] blds fy;s
what will be critical angle for this kafrd dks.k gksxk
(1) sin1 3 (2) tan1 3
(1) sin1 3 (2) tan1 3
1
(3) cos1 3 (4) sin1 1
3 (3) cos1 3 (4) sin1
3
87. If a thin mica sheet of thickness t and refractive 87. fp=k esa fn[kk;h x;h O;frdj.k dj jgh fdj.kksa esa ,d
index = [5/3] is placed in the path of one of the ds ekxZ esa ;fn t eksVkbZ ,oe~ viorZukad = [5/3] dh
interfering beams as shown in fig. then the
vHkzd dh iryh ih izfo"V djsa] rc fUt izk:i dk
distance placement of the fringe system is-
foLFkkiu gksxk&
P
t
S1 P
t
S1
2d
2d
D
S2
D
S2
Dt Dt
(1) (2)
3d 5d Dt Dt
(1) (2)
Dt 2Dt 3d 5d
(3) (4)
4d 5d Dt 2Dt
(3) (4)
4d 5d
MRFST090417C4-25
88. A two slit Youngs interference experiment is 88. ;ax dk ;ksx o.khZ; dk'k ftldh rjaxnS/;Z 6000
done with monochromatic light of wavelength
ds lkFk fd;k tkrk gSA fLyV 2 mm nwjh ij gSA fUt
6000 . The slits are 2 mm apart. The fringes
dks 10 cm dh nwjh ij fLFkr insZ ij ns[kk tkrk gSA
are observed on a screen placed 10 cm away
from the slits. Now a transparent plate of vc ,d iryh ikjn'khZ ifdk ftldh eksVkbZ 0.5 mm
thickness 0.5 mm is placed in front of one of the gSA fdlh ,d fLyV ds lkeus j[k fn;k tkrk gSA ;g
slits and it is found that the interference pattern
ns[kk tkrk gS fd O;fDrdj.k k:i 5 mm foLFkkfir
shifts by 5 mm. The refractive index of the
gks tkrk gSA IysV dk viorZUkkad gksxkA
transparent plate is :
(1)1.2 (2) 0.6 (1)1.2 (2) 0.6
(3) 2.4 (4) 1.5 (3) 2.4 (4) 1.5
89. Which one of the following diagrams correctly 89. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fp=k pizdkj ds v)Zpkyd esa mtkZ
represents the energy levels in the ptype Lrj lgh :i esa n'kkZrk gSA
semiconductor?
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
90. ,d ysUl izdk'k L=kksr o nhokj ds chp fLFkr gSa bldh
90. A lens is placed between a source of light and a
wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on the
nks fHkUu fLFkfr;ksa ds fy, ;g nhokj ij {ks=kQy A1 o
wall for its two different positions. The area of A2 dk izfrfcEc cukrk gSA izdk'k ;k L=kksr~ dk {ks=kQy
the sourece of light is gksxkA
1
A A2 1 1 A A2 1 1
1
(1) 1 (2) (1) 1 (2)
2 A1 A2 2 A1 A2
2
A1 A2 A1 A2
2
(3) A1 A2 (4) (4;)

(3) A1 A2
2 2
MRFST090417C4-26
PART- C
Straight Objective Type lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

This section contains 90 multiple choice
bl [k.M esa 90 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls flQZ ,d
ONE is correct. lgh gSA
91. Which one of the following can be explained by 91. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d esaMy ds oa'kkxfr ds fu;e ds
mendal's law of inheritance }kjk le>k;k tk ldrk gS&
(1) Polygenic inheritance (1) cgqthuh oa'kkxfr
(2) Multiple allelism (2) cgq;qXefodfYirk
(3) Pleiotropy (3) fIy;ksVkWih
(4) Qualitative inheritance
(4) xq.kkRed oa'kkxfr
92. In human beings presence of one barr body and 92. euq";ksa esa ,d ckj dk; dh mifLFkfr rFkk
gynaecomastia are features of a syndrome that xkbusdksesfLV;k ,d flUMkse ds y{k.k gSa ftls tkuk
is known as tkrk gS -
(1) Turner's syndrome (1) VuZj flUMkse
(2) Klinefelter syndrome (2) DykbuQsYVj flUMkse
(3) Down's syndrome
(3) MkmUl flUMkse
(4) Super Female
(4) lqij Qhesy
93. The process by which soluble substances 93. og izf;k ftlesa vi?kVu }kjk izkIr ?kqyu'khy inkFkZ
formed by decomposition passage in the depth e`nk dh xgjkbZ esa Nudj igqp tkrs gS
of soil/soil water by percolalating water is called
(1) [kfuthdj.k
(1) Mineralization
(2) fu{kkyu
(2) Leaching
(3) Humification (3) ;wehfQds'ku
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005
MRFST090417C4-27
Toll Free : 1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029
94. Given below the following examples 94. uhps dqN mnkgj.k fn, x, gSa&
(a) Relationship of Cuscuta and trees (a) dLdqVk o o`{k ds chp dk laca/k
(b) Relationship of starfish pisaster &
(b) vesfjdu islsfQd rV dh LVkjfQ'k fitkLVj
invertebrates of american pacific coast.
(c) Relationship of sea anemone and clown
rFkk vd'ks:fd;ksa ds chp dk laca/k
fish (c) lh ,fueksu rFkk DYkkmu fQ'k dk laca/k
(d) Relationship of fig and wasp (d) vathj rFkk cjZ dk laca/k
(e) Relationship of cuckoo an crow
(e) dks;y rFkk dkSvk dk laca/k
Select the option that shows correct interaction
of above examples
ml fodYi dks pqfu;s ftlesa mijks mnkgj.kksa dh
(1) aCompetitive releasing, bPredation, c lgh vU;ksU; f;k dks n'kkZ;k x;k gSA
Mutualism, d Coevolution, eParasitism (1) a Li/khZ ekspu, bijHk{k.k, c lgksidkfjrk, d
(2) aCompetitive exclusion, bMutualism, c
lgfodkl, eijthfork
co-evolution, dMutualism, eBrood
(2) a Li/khZ viotZu, blgksidkfjrk, c lgfodkl,
parasitism
(3) aEctoparasitism, bpredation, d lgksidkfjrk, ev.Mijthfork
c commensalism, d Mutualism, eBrood (3) a ck ijthfork, bijHk{k.k, c lgHkksftrk, d
parasitism
lgksidkfjrk, ev.Mijthfork
(4) aEctoparasitism, bpredation,
(4) a ck ijthfork, bijHk{k.k, c lgHkksftrk,
ccommensalism, dCo-evolution,
ecompetitive exclusion d lgfodkl, eLi/khZ viotZu
95. In this diagram which of the following acts as 95. bl fp=k eas ysd vksijkWu esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk izsjd
inducer in lac operon (Inducer) ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gSA
(1) Glucose (1) Xywdkst

(2) Galactose (2) xsysDVkst
(3) Lactose (3) ysDVkst
(4) Maltose (4) ekYVkst
MRFST090417C4-28
96. Which of the following statements are true 96. fuEu esa ls dkSuls dFku ekuo theksu izkstsDV (HGP)
about Human Genome project (HGP). ds ckjs esa lgh gSaA
(a) The SNP in human DNA are found at 1.4 (a) euq"; ds DNA esa 1.4 fcfy;u LFkkuksa ij SNP
billion places.
ik;s tkrs gSaA
(b) In methodology of HGP, one approach
(b) HGP esa ,d vuq'kalk mu lHkh thUl dh igpku
focused on identifying all the genes that
expressed as RNA referred to as ds fy, dh xbZ gSa tks RNA ds :i esa vfHkO;Dr
expressed sequence tag of EST. gksrs gSa] dks EST ds :i esa O;Dr fd;k x;kA
(c) In human genome, the total number of (c) ekuo thukse esa dqy thUl dh la[;k yxHkx
genes is about 30000. 30000 gksrh gSaA
(d) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2068) and
(d) xq.klw=k 1 esa vf/kdre thUl (2068) gksrs gSa rFkk
the Y has the fewest (231)
Y esa dqN (231) thUl gksrs gSaA
(1) a & c (2) b & d
(1) a & c (2) b & d
(3) a & d (4) b, c
(3) a & d (4) b, c
97. Which of the following is wrongly matched 97. fuEu esa ls dkSulh vU;ksU; f;k mlds mnkgj.kksa ds
interaction with its example lkFk lgh lqesfyr ugha gS
A B
A B
(1) Red billed Facultative
(1) jsM fcYM vkWDlisdj fodYih
oxpecker mutualism
and Rhenoceros rFkk xasMk lgksidkfjrk
(2) Capturing & eating Predation (2) uhisUFkht }kjk dhVksa ijHk{k.k
of insect
dks idM+uk rFkk [kkuk
by Nepenthes
(3) Relationship of Co-evolution (3) dks;y rFkk dkS, lg fodkl
Cuckoo and crow dk laca/k
(4) Copepods and Endoparasitism
(4) dksisiksM~l rFkk vUr% ijthfork
many marine
fishes vusd leqnzh eNfy;k
98. Give below the following statements 98. uhps dFku fn;s x;s gSaA
(a) In western contries, Pollen consumption (a) if'peh ns'kksa es /kkodksa rFkk jsl ds ?kksM+ksa dh
has been claimed to increase the {kerk esa c<+ksrjh ds fy, ijkx ds miHkksx dks
performance of athletes and race horses. mi;ksxh ekuk x;k gSA
(b) The vaibility of pollen grains in some (b) jkstslh, ysX;wfeukslh rFkk lksysuslh ds dqN lnL;ksa
members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and esa ijkxd.k dh mojZrk dqN o"kZ gksrh gSa A
Solanaceae is few years (c) ekbdsfy;k esa cgqv.Mih rFkk fo;qDrk.Mih tk;kax
(c) Multicarpellary and apocarpous gynoecium
ik;k tkrk gSA
(d) iksyu cSad esa vusd tkfr;ksa ds ijkx d.k
is found in Michelia
196C rkie ij rjy ukbVkstu esa laxzfgr
(d) In pollen banks, the pollen grains of large
fd;s tk ldrs gSaA
no. of species can be stored in liquid
(e) chtk.M}kj chtk.M ds vk/kkjh; Hkkx dks n'kkZrk
mitrogen at 196C.
gSaA
(e) Micropyle represent the basal part of ovule.
lgh fodYiksa dks pqfu;s
Pickup the correct options (1) c, d, e (2) a, b, e
(1) c, d, e (2) a, b, e (3) a, c, d (4) b, c, e
(3) a, c, d (4) b, c, e
MRFST090417C4-29
99. Select the wrong statement 99. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,&
(1) According to the concept of Mendel, factor (1) es.My dh ladYiuk ds vuqlkj dkjd ;k thu
or gene is stable and discrete unit that fLFkj ,oa fofoDr bZdkbZ gS] tks ,d fo'ks"kd dh
controls expression of a trait vfHkO;fDr dks fu;af=kr djrk gSA
(2) Male sterility in maize, is an example of (2) eDdk esa uj ca/;rk] ekr`d oa'kkxfr dk ,d
Maternal inheritance mnkgj.k gSA
(3) ZW- and ZZ- type of sex determination (3) ZW- ,oa ZZ- izdkj dk fyax fu/kkZj.k if{k;ksa
is found in birds esa ik;k tkrk gS
(4) In both Down's syndrome and turner's (4) Mku fl.Mkse ,oa VuZj fl.Mkse nksuksa esa ejht
syndrome, the patient has bar body
ckj dk; j[krk gSA
100. Which of the following is rooted floating 100. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ewyh; Iykoh tyksn~fHkn gS&
hydrophyte.
(1) oSfylusfj;k (2) oksfYQ;k
(1) Vallisneria (2 Wolffia
(3) ;qfVdqysfj;k (4) fufEQ;k
(3) Utriculatria (4) Nymphaea
101. Select wrong pair 101. xyr ;qXe pqfu;s

A B A B
(1) Stomium of Dehiscence (1) ,.MksFkhfl;e dh ijkxdks'k

endothecium of anther LVksfe;e dk LQqVu
(2) Pollinia Calotropis (2) iksfyfu;k dsykVkWfil
(3) Epihydrophily Vallisnaria (3) vf/ktyijkx.k osfylusfj;k
(4) Castor Dioecious plant (4) vj.Mh ,dfyaxkJ;h ikni
102. Select the wrong statement 102. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,&
(1) The term linkage describes physical (1) lgyXurk 'kCn ,d xq.klw=k ij thuksa ds HkkSfrd
association of genes on a chromosome la;kstu dk o.kZu djrk gS
(2) The term recombination describes the (2) iqu;ksZtu 'kCn] iSr`d thu la;kstu dh ih<h dk
generation of parental gene combinations o.kZu djrk gS
(3) In butterflies, female is heterogametic (3) frrfy;ksa esa eknk fo"ke;qXedh gksrh gS
(4) Deletion or insertion of base pairs of DNA, (4) DNA ds {kkj ;qXeksa ds foyksiu ;k fuos'ku ds
causes frame-shift mutation
dkj.k sef'kV mRifjorZu gksrk gS
103. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid 103. fgLVksUl esa {kkjh; vehuks vEy bZdkbZ;k
residues.......(i).......& .......(ii)....... .......(i).......&......(ii).......izpwjrk ls gksrh gSA
(1) (i) Lysines (ii) arginines (1) (i) ykbflUl (ii) vkWthZfuUl
(2) (i) Tryptophan (ii) arginines (2) (i) fVIVksQsu (ii) vkWthZfuUl
(3) (i) Lysines (ii) methionine (3) (i) ykbflUl (ii)a fefFk;ksfuUk
(4) (i) Valine (ii) tyrosine (4) (i) osyhu (ii) Vk;jksflu
MRFST090417C4-30
104.
104.
In the above food web, identifies the a, b, c, d mijksDr [kk| tky esa e'k% a, b, c, d gSa&
respectively
(1) a - esa<d , b - NksVh eNyh, c - [kjxks'k,
(1) a - Frog , b - small fish , c - Rabbit ,
d - jackal d - xhnM+
(2) a - Sparrow , b - Frog , c - Nepenthes ,
(2) a - xkSjs;k , b - esa<d , c - fuisUFkht , d - fx)
d - Vulture
(3) a - Frog , b - Sparrow , c - Rat , d - wolf (3) a - esa<d, b - xkSjs;k , c - pwgk , d- HksfM+;k
(4) a - Sparrow , b - crustacean , c - Rat ,
(4) a - xkSjs;k , b - LVsf'k;u , c - pwgk , d - xsaMk
d - Rhenceros
105.
105.
lgh ukekadu pqfu;s -

Select the correct labelling
(1) a - Hkzw.kdks'k, b - ukfHkdk, c - ck v/;koj.k,
(1) a - Embryo sac, b - hilum, c - outer
integument, d - Nucellus, e - micropyle d - chtk.Mdk;, e - chtk.M}kj
(2) a - Nucellus, b - hilum, c - outer (2) a - chtk.Mdk;, b - ukfHkdk, c - ck v/;koj.k,

integument, d - embryo sac, e - micropyle d - Hkzw.kdks'k, e - chtk.M}kj
(3) a - Nucellus, b -hilum c - outer rintegument, (3) a - chtk.Mdk;, b - ukfHkdk] c - ck v/;koj.k,
d - megaspore-e pore
d - xq:chtk.kq, e - fNnz
(4) a - Chalaza, b - inner integument, c-outer
(4) a - fuHkkx, b - vkarfjd v/;koj.k, c - ck
integument, d - Megaspore, e - Micropylar
end
v/;koj.k, d - xq:chtk.kq, e - chtk.M}kjh; fljk
106. A father bears 'AB' blood group. & Mother's 106. ,d firk dk :f/kj oxZ 'AB' gS rFkk ekrk dk :f/kj
blood group is untraced. They have three oxZ Kkr ugh gS buds rhu larkusa gSa muesa ls ,d dk
children. One has 'A' blood group while second :f/kj oxZ 'A' gS tcfd nwljs dk :f/kj oxZ 'B' gS rks
has 'B' blood group Find out the the possibility rhljh larku esa 'O' :f/kj oxZ gksus dh D;k laHkkouk gS
of occurence of 'O' Blood group in third offspring \
(1) 25% (2) 50% (1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 0% (4) 75% (3) 0% (4) 75%
MRFST090417C4-31
107. The tiger census in our national parks and tiger 107. gekjs jk"Vh; m|kuksa rFkk Vkbxj fjtoZ esa Vkbxj
reserves is often based on lsUlsl fdl ij vk/kkfjr gS
(1) lsaifyax fof/k ij
(1) Sampling method
(2) ey xqfVdkvksa rFkk in fpUgksa ij
(2) Fecal pellets & pugmarks
(3) Vkbxj }kjk ew=k esa eqDr fd;s x;s jlk;uksa dh
(3) Smell of chemical released in Urine by tiger
xa/k }kjk
(4) Terrority of a tiger (4) ,d Vkbxj dh {ks=kh;rk }kjk
108. Which of the following pair is wrong for the 108. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;qXe thu vU;ksU; f;kvksa esa F2
Phenotypic ratio of F2 generation in the gene ih<+h ds y{k.k iz:ih vuqikr ds fy, xyr gSA
interactions
(1) f}d thu 15 : 1
(1) Duplicate gene 15 : 1
(2) vizHkkoh izcyrk 9 : 6 : 1
(2) Recessive epistasis 9 : 6 : 1
(3) lIyhesUVjh thu 9 : 3 : 4
(3) Supplimentary gene 9 : 3 : 4
(4) Dominent epistasis 12 : 3 : 1 (4) izHkkoh izcyrk 12 : 3 : 1
109. Which of the following is wrong statement 109. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gSA
(1) PAN is secondary pollutant that causes (1) PAN ,d f}rh;d nw"kd gS tks ikniksa esa PS-
prevention of PS- in plants ds fujks/ku dk dkj.k gSA
(2) Higher CO2 concentrations leads to global (2) mPp CO2 lkUnzrk ds dkj.k oSf'od m".krk gksrh
warming gSA
(3) Classical smog contains SO2, H2S, dust (3) Dykfldy Leksx esa SO2, H2S, /kwy gksrh gS rFkk
and formed in Oxidative environment vkWDlhdkjh okrkoj.k esa curk gSA
(4) Sanitary land fill is effective method to (4) lsusVjh yS.MfQy MafEaix vif'k"V ds fu;eu dh
regulate dumping waste Hkkoh fof/k gSA
110. There are many indirect benefits we receive 110. ;gk ge ikfjfLFkfrdh lsokvksa ls vusd vizR;{k ykHk
through ecosystem services like pest control, tSls ihM+d fu;a=k.k] ijkx.k] tyok;q larqyu rFkk ck<+
pollination, climate moderation & flood control. It fu;a=k.k vkfn izkIr djrs gSA ;g fdlds varxZr
involves under
'kkfey gS&
(1) ladh.kZ:i
(1) Narrow utilitarian's
(2) O;kid :i
(2) Broad utilitarian's
(3) uSfrd rdZ
(3) Ethical argument
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) None of the above
MRFST090417C4-32
111. Given below the following statement 111. uhps fuEu dFku fn;s x;s gSA
(a) Autogamy & geitonogamy cause inbreeding (a) vkVksxseh rFkk fxVsuksxseh nksuksa vUr% iztuu
depression voueu dk dkj.k gSA
(b) Filiform apparatus guides the entry of (b) rUrq:ih midj.k Hkzw.kdks"k eas ijkxuyh ds izos'k
pollen tube in the embryo sac. dks funsZf'kr djrk gSA
(c) The coconut water from tender coconut is (c) dPps ukfj;y dk ukfj;y ikuh eqDr dsUdh;
free nuclear endosperm. Hkzw.kiks"k gksrk gSA
(d) Male gametes are formed by generative (d) lw=kh foHkktu }kjk tujsfVo dksf'kdk ls uj
cell through mitosis ;qXed fufeZr fd;s tkrs gSA
(e) Water hyacinth is pollinated by water (e) okVjgk;flUFk (tydqEHkh) esa ijkx.k ty }kjk
Pick up the no. of correct statements gksrk gSA
(1) 3 (2) 4 lgh dFkuksa dh la[;k NkWfV;sa
(3) 2 (4) 5 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5
112. In Virus-infected plants the Meristematic tissues 112. ok;jl lafer ikniksa esa 'kh"kZLFk rFkk d{kLFk
in both apical and axillary buds are free of virus dfydkvksa nksuksa dk foHkT;ksrd rd ok;jl eq
because: gksrs gSa D;ksafd
(1) The dividing cells are virus resistant (1) foHkktu'khy dksf'kdk, ok;jl izfrjks/kh gksrh gSa
(2) Meristems have anti viral compounds (2) foHkT;ksrdksa esa ,UVhok;jl ;kSfxd gksrs gSa
(3) The cell division of meristems are faster than (3) foHkT;ksrdksa dk dksf'kdk foHkktu ok;jl xq.ku
the rate of viral multiplication dh nj ls vf/kd rsth ls gksrk gS
(4) Viruses cannot multiply within meristem cell (4) ok;jl foHkT;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa esa xq.ku ugha dj
(s). ldrs gSaA
113. In the results of F2 generation of Mendelian 113. eVj ds ikni esa esf.Mfy;u f}ladj kWl dh F2 ih<+h
dihybrid cross in pea plant, The ratio of yellow ds ifj.kkeksa esa ihys cht/kkjh o >qjhZnkj eVj ds ikniksa
and wrinkled seeded pea plants is dk vuqikr gS&
(1) 1/16 (2) 3/16
(1) 1/16 (2) 3/16
(3) 4/16 (4) 6/16 (3) 4/16 (4) 6/16
114. Pusa Sawani is a variety of 114. iwlk lkouh fdldh ,d fdLe gSA
(1) Wheat (2) Okra (1) xsgw (2) fHk.Mh
(3) Cauliflower (4) Mustard (3) QwyxksHkh (4) ljlksa
115. Some of the stages in the hydrarch are labelled 115. tykjEHkh (hydrarch) esa dqN voLFkkvksa dks bl dkj
as ukekfdr fd;k x;k gSA
(i) Marsh meadow (ii) Reed swamp
(i) ek'kZ ehMks (ii) uM+ vuwi koLFkk
stage
(iii) fueXu ikni koLFkk (iv) ikniIyod koLFkk
(iii) Submerged plant stage (iv) Phytoplankton
(v) Submerged free (v) fueXu eqDr iykoh ikni koLFkk
floating plant stage bu koLFkkvksa dk lgh e igpkfu;s
Identify the these stages
(1) iv, iii, v, ii & i (2) iv, v, iii, ii & i
(1) iv, iii, v, ii & i (2) iv, v, iii, ii & i
(3) iii, v, i, ii & iv (4) ii, iv, iii, i & v
(3) iii, v, i, ii & iv (4) ii, iv, iii, i & v
MRFST090417C4-33
116. 116.
The above pedigree chart show mijks oa'kkoyh pkVZ n'kkZrk gS&
(1) Autosomal dominant trait (1) vkWVkslksey izHkkoh fo'ks"kd
(2) Sex linked dominant trait (2) fyax lgyXu izHkkoh fo'ks"kd
(3) Autosomal recessive trait (3) vkWVkslksey vizHkkoh fo'ks"kd
(4) Sex linked recessive trait (4) fyax lgyXu vizHkkoh fo'ks"kd
117. In mendelian dihybridcross. The ratio among 117. es.Msfy;u f}ladj kWl esa eVj ds ikni esa F2 ih<+h
homozygous dominant, pure heterozygous and esa le;qXeuth izHkkoh] 'kq) fo"ke;qXeuth rFkk
homozygous recessive traits in F 2 generation in le;qXeuth vizHkkoh fo'ks"kd fdl vuqikr esa izkIr
pea plant is gksrs gSaA
(1) 1: 8 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 (1) 1: 8 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 2 : 6 : 2 (4) 1 : 4 : 1 (3) 2 : 6 : 2 (4) 1 : 4 : 1
118. The cells of endosperm have 24 chromosomes. 118. Hkwz.kiks"k dh dksf'kdk esa 24 xq.klw=k gSA ;qXedksa esa
What will be number of chromosomes in the xq.klw=kksa dhs la[;k D;k gksxh
gametes
(1) 8 (2) 16
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 72 (4) 24
(3) 72 (4) 24
119. Given below the following statements 119. uhps fuEu dFku fn;s x;s gSa -
(a) 'r' is high in the population that show (a) lef"V tks pj?kkrkadh o`f) n'kkZRkh gS mlesa 'r' dk
exponential growth. eku mPPk gksrk gS
(b) Populations of an habitat evolve to (b) ,d vkokl dh lef"V;k viuh vf/kdre tuuh;
maximize their reproductive fitness having fQVusl dh vksj izokZ gksrh gS ftudh de 'r'
low 'r' gksrh gS
(c) A plant species which is able to make its (c) ,d ikni tkfr tks viuk Hkkstu cukus esa l{ke
own food cannot survive alone & it needs
gksrh gS vdsyh thfor ugha jg ldrh rFkk bls
soil microbes to breakdown the organic
dkcZfud inkFkks ds fo?kVu rFkk vo'kks"k.k gsrq
matter in soil & return the inorganic
vdkcZfud iks"kdksa dks ykSVkus ds fy;s e`nk ds
nutrients for absorption.
lw{e thoksa dh vko';drk gksrh gSA
(d) The intrinsic rate of natural increase (r) is a
(d) izkfrd o`f) dh bfUVftd nj (r) ,d o`f)dkjh
measure of the inharent potential of a
population to grow
lef"V ds tUetkr 'kfDr dh ,d eki gS
Select the correct statements lgh dFkuksa dks pqfu;s
(1) a, b, (2) a, c, d (1) a, b, (2) a, c, d
(3) b, d (4) a, b, d
(3) b, d (4) a, b, d
MRFST090417C4-34
120. Linkage maps or genetic maps of chromosomes 120. xq.klw=kksa ds lgyXurk ekufp=k ;k vkuqokaf'kd ekufp=k
are based on fdl ij vk/kkfjr gaS-
(1) Translocation (1) LFkkukarj.k ij
(2) Dominance (2) izHkkfork ij
(3) Non-disjunction (3) vfo;kstu ij
(4) Genetic recombination (4) vkuqokaf'kd iqu;ksZtu ij
121. Nt+1 = Nt+ (B + I) (D + E) 121. Nt+1 = Nt+ (B + I) (D + E)

In the above equation, if the value of D + E is mijksDr lehdj.k esa ;fn D + E dk eku B + I ls
more than B + I then population will - vf/kd gksrk gS rks lef"V dSlh gksxh\
(1) Declining (1) ?kVrh gqbZ
(2) Stable (2) fLFkj
(3) Expanding (3) izlkfjr ;k c<+rh gqbZ
(4) Non evaluated (4) vkadfyr ugha dh tk ldrh
122. Monoecious condition of Maize plant favours 122. eDdk esa mHk;fyaxkJ;h voLFkk fdldks vuqefr nsrh
(1) Both Autogamy & Geitonogamy gSA
(2) Only Autogamy (1) vkVksxseh o fXkVksuksxseh nksuksa dks
(3) Prevention of Autogamy & proceeding of (2) dsoy vkVksxseh dks
Geitonogamy (3) vkVksxseh dks jksdrh gS rFkk fxVksuksxseh dks gksus
(4) Proceeding of Autogamy & preventing of nsrh gSA
(4) vkVksxseh dks gksus nsrh gS rFkk fxVksuksxseh dks
Geitonogamy
jksdrh gSA
123. Select the incorrect statement 123. vlR; dFku dks NkWfV;s
(1) Geitonogamy do not favours inbreeding (1) ltkrh; iq"i ijkx.k] vUr% iztuu voueu dks
depression. izsfjr ugha djrh gSA
(2) Commelina and viola bears both (2) dksesfyuk rFkk ok;ksyk esa vuUewyh; rFkk
cleistogamous and chasmogamous flowers. psLeksxsel nksuksa izdkj ds Ikq"i gksrs gSaA
(3) vUkUewyh; iq"i ijkxd dh vuqifLFkfr esa cht
(3) Cleistogamous flowers can produce seeds
mRi dj ldrs gSaA
even in the absence of pollinator.
(4) vuqUewyh;rk dk nks"k ;g gS fd blds }kjk
(4) Cleistogomy is disadventageous in respect
larfr;ksa esa mkjkskj foHkrkvksa dk fodkl ugha
to no further development of variations in
gksrk gSA
offsprings.
124. has the greatest biodiversity on 124. -------------------dh tSofofokrk i`Foh ij lcls vfkd gSA
earth-it is home to more than 40,000 species of ;gk ij 40,000 ikni tkfr;k] 3,000 eRL;] 1300
plants, 3,000 of fishes, 1,300 of birds, 427 of i{kh] 427 Lrukkjh] 427 mHk;pj] 378 ljhlì rFkk
mammals, 427 of amphibians, 378 of reptiles 1 yk[k iPphl gtkj ls vfkd vd'ks#dh tkfr;ksa dk
and of more than 1,25,000 invertebrates. vkokl gSsA
(1) Temperate region like the Midwest of the (1) ;w-,l-,- ds e; if'pe esa fLFkr 'khrks".k {ks=k ds
USA. ou
(2) Polar areas. (2) /kzqoh; {ks=k
(3) The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest
(3) nf{k.kh vesfjdk ds vestu m".k dfVcak o"kkZ ou
in South America
(4) Tropical deciduous forests (4) m".k dfVcaf/k; i.kZikrh ou
MRFST090417C4-35
125. National Forest Policy (1988) of India has 125. Hkkjr dh jk"Vh; ou uhfr (1988) esa flQkfj'k dh xbZ
recommended gS fd
(1) eSnkuh bykdksa esa 67 izfr'kr taxy {ks=k gksus
(1) 67 percent forest cover for the plains and
pkfg, vkSj ioZrh; {ks=kksa esa 33 izfr'kr taxy {ks=k
33 percent for the hills. gksus pkfg,A
(2) 33 percent forest cover for the plains and (2) eSnkuh bykdksa esa 33 izfr'kr taxy {ks=k gksus
67 percent for the hills.
gksus pkfg,A
(3) 19.4 percent forest cover for the plains and (3) eSnkuh bykdksa esa 19.4 izfr'kr taxy {ks=k gksus
20.64 percent for the hills. pkfg, vkSj ioZrh; {ks=kksa esa 20.64 izfr'kr taxy
(4) 32 percent forest cover for the plains and {ks=k gksus pkfg,A
(4) eSnkuh bykdksa esa 32 izfr'kr taxy {ks=k gksus
66 percent for the hills.
gksus pkfg,A
126. Which of the following represent the correct 126. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ijkxd.k rFkk Hkzw.kdks"k ds chp lgh
relationship between pollen grain and embryo lEcU/k n'kkZrk gSA
sac
(1) 'kqk.kq rFkk v.Ms
(1) Sperm and egg
(2) Male gametophyte and egg (2) uj xSehVkQkbV rFkk v.Ms
(3) Sperm and female gametophyte (3) 'kqk.kq rFkk eknk xSehVksQkbV
(4) Male gametophyte and female
(4) uj xSehVksQkbV rFkk eknk xSehVksQkbV
gametophyte
127. The ploidy level of endosperm, syngerid, 127. Hkzw.kiks"k, flujftM, v/;koj.k, y?kqchtk.kq, chtk.Mdk;
integument, microspore, nucellus is respectively dk xqf.krk Lrj e'k% gS&
(1) 2n, n,2n,n, 3n (1) 2n, n,2n,n, 3n
(2) 3n, n,2n,n, 2n (2) 3n, n,2n,n, 2n
(3) 3n, n,n,n, 2n (3) 3n, n,n,n, 2n
(4) 3n, 2n,2n,2n,n (4) 3n, 2n,2n,2n,n
128. There are 10 flowers in our individual plant of 128. vkyw ds ,d ikS/ks esa 10 iq"i gSa mlds izR;sd iqadslj ds
Potato. Each microsporangium of every stamen izR;sd y?kqchtk.kq/kkuh esa 25 y?kqchtk.kq ekr`dksf'kdk
contains 25 microspore mother cells. How many ikbZ tkrh gS rks bl ikS/ks ls fdrus y?kqchtk.kq
microspores would be formed from this plant?
(microspores) izkIr gksxsa\
(1) 4,000
(1) 4,000
(2) 5,000
(2) 5,000
(3) 10,000
(3) 10,000
(4) 20,000 (4) 20,000
MRFST090417C4-36
129. Given below the following statements. 129. uhps fuEu dFku fn;s x;s gSa
a. DNA mutate faster than RNA. a. RNA dh vis{kk DNA vf/kd rsth ls mRifjofrZr
(mutate) gksrs gSa
b. RNA was first genetic material as it directly
b. RNA izFke vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ gS D;ksafd ;g
associated with various life processes such thou dh fofHk f;kvksa tSls mikip;] vuqoknu
as metabolism, translation and splicing. rFkk Liykbflax tSlh vfHkf;kvksa ls lh/ks
c. Presence of 2'-OH group in every lEcfU/kr gksrk gSA
nucleotide of RNA, makes it unstable. c. vkj,u, ds izR;sd U;wfDy;ksVkbM ij 2^-
gkbMkWfDly lewg dh mifLFkfr] mls vLFkk;h
d. DNA is only genetic material as it shows
cukrh gS
splicing. d. dsoy Liykbflax iznf'kZr djus ds dkj.k DNA
e. For elongation of polypeptide chain during gh dsoy vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ gSA
translation process, peptidyl transferase e. vuqoknu izf;k ds nkSjku iksyhisIVkbM Jà[kyk ds
enzyme is essential. nh?khZdj.k gsrq isIVkbfMy VkalQjst ,UTkkbe
How many above statements are correct?
vko';d gSA
mijks fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(1) One (2) Two
(1) ,d (2) nks
(3) Three (4) Four (3) rhu (4) pkj
130. A collection of all the alleles of all the genes of a 130. ,d "; ikni ds lHkh thUl ds lHkh ;qXefodfYi;ksa
crop plant is called: dk laxzg dgykrk gSA
(1) Germplasm collection (1) teZIykTe laxzg.k
(2) Protoplasm collection (2) izksVksIykTe laxzg.k
(3) Herbarium (3) gcsZfj;e
(4) Somaclonal collection. (4) dk;DYkksu fofHkrk,
131. Which organism can be placed in more than 131. fuEu esa ls dkSulk tho ,d ls vf/kd iks"k Lrjksa esa
one trophic levels? j[kk tk ldrk gS
(1) Fish (2) Sparrow (1) eNyh (2) xkSjs;k
(3) Human (4) All of the above
(3) euq"; (4) mijks lHkh
132. The distance between a base pair in a helix of 132. DNA ds ,d dq.Myh esa ,d {kkj ;qXe ds chp dh nwjh
DNA is approximately. yxHkx gksrh gSA
(1) 2 nm (2) 3.4 nm (1) 2 nm (2) 3.4 nm
(3) 0.34 nm (4) 0.034 nm (3) 0.34 nm (4) 0.034 nm
133. What is Bioprospecting? 133. ck;ksksLisfDVax tSo vUosa"k.k D;k gS&

(1) Increasing production of useful products by (1) tSo lalk/kuksa ds mi;ksx }kjk mi;ksxh mRiknksa ds
using Bioresources. mRiknu esa c<+ksrjh djukA
(2) Monitoring the loss of Biodiversity in (2) fofHk HkkSxksfyd {ks=kksa eas tSo fofo/krk dh gkfu
different geographical areas. dk fujh{k.k djuk

(3) Exploring molecular genetics and species (3) vkfFkZd egRo ds mRiknksa ds fy, vk.kfod
level diversity for products of economic

vkuqokaf'kdh rFkk tkfr Lrjh; fofo/krk dk
importance.
vUos"k.k djuk
(4) mi;ksxh tkfr;ksa dks muds vFkok muls fufeZr
(4) Selecting useful species for commercial
mRiknksa ds O;olkf;d mi;ksx ds fy, p;fur
utilizaiton of them or their products.
djuk
MRFST090417C4-37
134. The DNA replicates semiconservatively, the 134. DNA izfrfr;u v/kZlaj{kh :i ls gksrk gS ;g ize
process is guided by the complementary fdlds }kjk funsZf'kr gksrk gS
(1) Glycosidic bonds (1) XykbdksflfMd ca/k
(2) Phosphodiester bonds
(2) QkWLQksMkb,LVj ca/k
(3) H-bonding
(3) H-ca/k
(4) Ionic bond
(4) vk;fud ca/k
135. In the diagram, choose the correct combination 135. mijksDr fp=k esa vuqys[ku esa lgh ukeakdu dk p;u
of labelling in transcription dhft,
(1) A = DNA helix, B = Promoter, C = Sigma (1) A = DNA gsfyDl, B = izeksVj, C = flXek dkjd
factor D = RNA polymerase E = Terminator D = RNA ikyhejst E = VehZusVj, F = RNA, G =
F = RNA, G = rho factor rho dkjd
(2) A = Sigma factor, B = Promoter C = DNA (2) A = flXek dkjd, B = izeksVj, C = DNA gsfyDl,
helix, D = DNA polymerase, E = D = DNA ikyhejst, E = VehZusVj, F = rho-dkjd
Terminator, F = rho-factor G = RNA G = RNA.
(3) A = Promoter, B = Sigma factor, C = DNA (3) A = izeksVj, B =
flXek dkjd, C = DNA gsfYkDl,
helix, D = DNA polymerase, E = RNA, F = D = DNA ikyhejst, E = RNA, F = rho-dkjd,
rho-factor, G = Terminator G = VehZusVj
(4) A = DNA helix, B = Sigma factor, C = (4) A = DNA gsfyDl, B = flXek dkjd, C = izeksVj,
Promoter, D = RNA polymerase, E = D = RNA ikyhejst, E = VehZusVj, F = RNA G =
Terminator, F = RNA G = rho factor rho dkjd
136. In India, family planning programmes, were 136. Hkkjr es ifjokj fu;kstu dk;Ze dc izkjEHk fd;s x;s
started in the year- Fks
(1) 1948 (2) 1962 (1) 1948 esa (2) 1962 esa
(3) 1959 (4) 1951
(3) 1959 esa (4) 1951 esa
137. The immunity obtained after the body has 137. jksx dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ 'kjhj esa fodflr izfrj{kk
recovered from a disease is dks D;k dgrs gS\
(1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity (1) lf; izfrj{kk (2) vf; izfrj{kk
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Innate immunity
(3) mijks nksuksa (4) tUetkr izfrj{kk
MRFST090417C4-38
138. The permissible use of amniocentesis is for 138. ,fEu;kslsUVsfll Lohdk;Z mi;ksx gS&
(1) Artificial insemination (1) f=ke oh;Z lalspu ds fy,
(2) Detecting any genetic abnormality
(2) vkuqokaf'kd fofr;ksa dk irk yxkus esa
(3) Transfer of an embryo into the uterus of a
(3) /kk; ek esa Hkwz.k dk LFkkukUrj.k ds fy,
surrogate mother
(4) vtUesa Hkzw.k ds fy, fyax dk irk yxkus esa
(4) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus.
139. Profuse, yellowish, greenish frothy smelling 139. ;ksfu ls ihyk] gjk >kxh; nqxZU/k;q ko.k gksrk gS&
discharge from vagina is due to infection of (1) Vsiksfuek iSysfM;e ds lae.k ds dkj.k
(1) Treponema pallidium
(2) DysekbfM;k ds lae.k ds dkj.k
(2) Chlamydia
(3) Trichomanas vaginalis (3) VkbZdkseksukl osthusfyl ds lae.k ds dkj.k
(4) Neisseria (4) uhlsfj;k ds lae.k ds dkj.k
140. Immunoglobulins are proteins that show 140. bE;wuksXyksC;wfyu izksVhu gksrh gS tks fd fuEu lajpuk
_______ structure. n'kkZrh gS&
(1) Primary (2) Secondary (1) izkFkfed (2) f}rh;d
(3) Tertiary (4) Quaternary (3) r`rh;d (4) prqFkZd
141. Which of the following statements is/are 141. fuEu esa ls dkSulk@dkSuls dFku lgh gSS\
correct? (1) gsisVkbfVl B okbjl (HBN) jDr izR;ky;u]
(1) Hepatitis B virus (HBN) can be transmitted ySafxd lEidZ] ykj] vJq] bUVkfoul vkS"kf/k
through blood transfusion, sexual contact,
nq:i;ksx] VSVw cuokus] ukd o dku fNnokus] jstj
saliva, tears intravenous drug abuse
dk lk>k djus bR;kfn }kjk LFkkukUrfjr fd;k
tattooing ear and nose piercing sharing of
razors etc., tk ldrk gSA
(2) Hepatitis B virus vaccine is the second (2) gsisVkbfVl B okbjl dk Vhdk nwljh ih<+h dk
generation vaccine produced from Vhdk gS] tks iqu;ksZth DNA rduhd }kjk
transgenic yeast by recombinant DNA ijkmRifk ewyd ls mRikfnr fd;k x;k gSA
technology.
(3) gsisVkbfVl B okbjl dk Vhdk vuqokaf'kd
(3) Hepatitis B virus vaccine is the first
vfHk;kaf=kdh }kjk mRikfnr izFke O;olkf;d :i
commercially available human vaccine
produced by genetic engineering
ls miyC/k ekuo Vhdk gSA
(4) All of these (4) ;s lHkh
142. Opium, morphine, heroine, pethidine and 142. vQhe] ekWQhZu] gsjksbu] isFkhMhu] rFkk esFksMksu dks
methadone are collectively called as lkewfgd :i ls D;k dgrs gS\
(1) Transquilisers (2) Stimulants (1) /khjt nsus okys (2) mkstd
(3) Hallucinogens (4) Opiate narcotics (3) Hkze mRiknud (4) vksfi;sV ukdksZfVDl
MRFST090417C4-39
143. The figure given below shows mode of action of 143. uhps fn;k x;k fp=k ,M~l fo"kk.kq dh f;k dh fof/k dks
AIDS virus identify steps A, B, C, D and E n'kkZrh gSA blesa A, B, C, D rFkk E ls ukekafdr inksa
labelled in it. dks igpkfu,A
(1) Anew viral DNA, B- viral RNA introduced (1) Au;k fo"kk.kq DNA, B- dksf'kdk esa izosf'kr
inot cell C- viral DNA incorporated into fo"kk.kq RNA C- ijiks"kh thukse ls tksM+k x;k
host genome D-viral DNA, E- new viruses fo"kk.kq DNA D- fo"kk.kq DNA, E- mRikfnr u;s
produced. fo"kk.kq
(2) A-viral DNA incorporated into host genome, (2) A- ijiks"kh thukse ls tksM+k x;k fo"kk.kq DNA, B-
B- viral DNA, C- new viral RNA, D-viral fo"kk.kq DNA, C- u;k fo"kk.kq RNA, D- fo"kk.kq
RNA introduced, E- new viruses produced RNA dk izos'k, E- mRikfnr u;s fo"kk.kq
(3) A-viral RNA introduced, B- viral DNA, C- (3) A- fo"kk.kq RNA dk izos'k, B- fo"kk.kq DNA, C-
viral DNA incorporated into host genome, ijiks"kh thukse ls tksM+k x;k fo"kk.kq DNA, D-
D- new viral RNA E-new viruses produced u;k fo"kk.kq RNA E- mRikfnr u;s fo"kk.kq
(4) A- viral DNA introduced, B viral RNA, C- (4) A- fo"kk.kq DNA dk izos'k, B fo"kk.kq RNA, C-
viral RNA incorporated into host genome, ijiks"kh thukse ls tksM+k x;k fo"kk.kq RNA, D-
D-new viral DNA E-new viruses produced u;k fo"kk.kq DNA E- mRikfnr u;s fo"kk.kq
144. The first clinical gene therapy was given for 144. lcls igys uSnkfud thu fpfdRlk fdlds mipkj ds
treating fy, nh xbZ Fkh\
(1) Diabetes mellitus (1) e/kqesg
(2) Chicken pox (2) NksVh ekrk
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis (3) :esVh xfB;k
(4) Adenosine deaminasedeficiency (4) ,sMhukslhu Mh,sehust vYirk
145. Which among following is direct ancestor of 145. fuEu esa ls dkSu gkseks lsfi;Ul dk izR;{k iwoZt gSa\
Homo sapiens? (1) fu;UMjFky ekuo (2) jkekfiFksdl
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Ramapithecus (3) gkseks bjsDVl (4) vkWLVsyksfiFksdl
(3) Homo erectus (4) Australopithecus
MRFST090417C4-40
146. Find the incorrect statement. 146. xyr dFku dks igpkfu,A
(1) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is (1) 8 ls 16 dksjd[k.M ;qDr Hkzw.k dks rwrd dgk
called as a morula tkrk gS
(2) The interaction of fertilizin of an ovum with (2) ,d v.Mk.kq ds QVhZykbflu ,oa 'kqk.kq ds
antifertilizin of sperm is species specific ,aVhQVhZykbflu dh vfrf;k tkfr fof'k"V gksrh
(3) Sex of a baby is determined by the father gS
and not by the mother (3) ,d f'k'kq dk fyax firk }kjk fu/kkZfjr fd;k tkrk
(4) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio does not change gS] u fd ekrk }kjk
as cleavage progresses (4) dsUd dksf'kdkO; vuqikr fonyu dh izksfr ds
lkFk ifjofrZr ugha gksrk gS
147. It is generally said Zona pellucida prevents 147. ;g lkekU;r;k dgk tkrk gS fd tksuk isyqflMk ,d
implantation of blastocyst at an abnormal site. vlkekU; LFky ij CykLVksflLV ds vkjks"k.k dks jksdrh
The most appropriate reason is gSA lcls mfpr dkj.k gSA
(1) It prevents the exposure of sticky and (1) ;g fpifpih ,oa Hk{kd VksQksCykLV dksf'kdkvksa dks
phagocytic trophoblast cells vuko`r gksus ls jksdrh gS
(2) It is repelled by uterine wall (2) ;g xHkkZ'k;h fHkfk }kjk /kdsy nh tkrh gS
(3) Zona pellucida does not have any
(3) tksuk isyqflMk eas xHkkZ'k; ls tqMus ds fy, dksbZ
glycoproteinaceous sticky substance to
XykbdksizksVhuh; fpifpik inkFkZ ugha gksrk gS
attach with uterus
(4) tksuk isyqflMk tqM+ko ds fy, xHkkZ'k;h fHkfk dsk
(4) Zona pellucida do not have receptors to
igpkuus ds fy, xzkgh ugha j[krh gS
recognize uterine wall for attachment
148. Following STDs are completely curable if

148. fuEu lHkh STDs iw.kZr% mipkj ;ksX; gS ;fn mudh
izkjfEHkd voLFkk es igpku dh tk,, fdUrq blds
detected at early stage, except
vykok
(1) Chlamydiasis (2) Trichomoniasis
(1) DysekbfM;kfll (2) Vkbdkseksfu;kfll
(3) Gonorrhoea (4) Hepatitis B
(3) xksuksfj;k (4) gsisVkbfVl ch
149. Progymnosperms arose in Devonian period, 149. Msoksfu;u dky esa izksftEuksLieZl~ dh mRifk gqbZ]
they give rise to fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldh mRifk buls gqbZ\
(1) Conifers (2) Bryophytes (1) dksuhQlZ (2) czk;ksQkbV~l
(3) Gnetales (4) Seed ferns
(3) fuVsYl (4) cht QuZ
150. Arrange the following in ascending order of 150. fuEufyf[kr fodkl ds vkjksgh e esa O;ofLFkr
evolution. dhft;s&
Rhynia, Psilophyton, Seed ferns, Dicotyledons,
jkbfu;k] flyksQkbVksu] chtQuZ] f}chti=kh]
Monocotyledons, Progymnosperms
(1) Rhynia, Psilophyton, Progymosperms,
,dchti=kh] izksftEuksLieZl~
Seed ferns, Dicotyledons, Monocotyledons (1) jkbfu;k] flyksQkbVksu] izksftEuksLieZl~] chtQuZ]
(2) Progymnosperms, Rhynia, Psilophyton, f}chti=kh] ,dchti=kh
Seed ferns, Dicotylendons,
(2) izksftEuksLieZl~] jkbfu;k] flyksQkbVksu] chtQuZ]
Monoctoyledons
(3) Dicotyedons, Rhynia, Psilophyton,
f}chti=kh] ,dchti=kh
Progymnosperms, Seed ferns, (3) f}chti=kh] jkbfu;k] flyksQkbVksu] izksftEuksLieZl~]
Monocotyledons chtQuZ] ,dchti=kh
(4) Monocotyledons, Dicotyledons, Rhynia,
(4) ,dchti=kh] f}chti=kh] jkbfu;k] flyksQkbVksu]
Psilophyton, Progymnosperms, Seed ferns
izksftEuksLieZl~] chtQuZ
MRFST090417C4-41
151. Icthyosaurs evolved from 151. fuEufyf[kr esa ls bfDFk;kslkSjl dk fodkl fdlls
(1) Land reptiles (2) Land amphibians gqvk gS&
(3) Fishes (4) Birds (1) LFky ljhlìksa (2) LFky mHk;pjksa
(3) eNfy;ksa (4) if{k;ksa
152. The natural selection in which more individuals 152. izkfrd p;u ftlesa vf/kdka'k O;f ek/; y{k.k izkIr
acquire mean character value is dj ysrs gSaA dgykrk gS&
(1) Stabilizing selection (1) fLFkjdkjh p;u
(2) Directional selection (2) fn'kkRed p;u
(3) Disruptive selection (3) fo?kVudkjh p;u
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) (1) & (2) nksuksa
153. Which of the following is central thesis of 153. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu lk MkfoZuokn dk ,d dsUnzh; 'kks/k
Darwinism? izcU/k gS\
a. Use and disuse of organ a. vaxksa dk mi;ksx ,oa vuqi;ksx
b. Branching descent b. czkfUpax fMlsUV
c. Natural selection c. izkfrd p;u
d. Mutation
d. mRifjorZu
(1) a & c correct
(1) a & c correct
(2) b & c correct (2) b & c correct
(3) b & d correct (3) b & d correct
(4) a & d correct (4) a & d correct
154. What is the benefit of using a retrovirus as a 154. thu mipkj esa ,d i'p fo"kk.kq dks ,d laokgd ds
vector in gene therapy? :i esa iz;ksx djus ds ykHk D;k gS?
(1) ;g ckgjh thu dks ijiks"kh xq.klw=kksa esa lekfo"V
(1) It incorporates the foreign gene into the
djkus dk dk;Z djrk gSA
host chromosome (2) ;g dksf'kdk ds vUnj izos'k djus ds fy, l{ke
(2) It is not able to enter cells ugh gksrk gSA
(3) It eliminates a lot of unnecessary steps (3) ;g <sj lkjs xSj vko';d pj.kksas dks fudkyus dk
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct dke djrk gSA
(4) (2) rFkk (3) lgh gSA
155. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium 155. gkMhZ foucxZ lkE;koLFkk ij ,d lef"V esa] ftlds
in which the frequency of A alleles (p) is 0.3, the vUrZxr A ,yhYl (p) dh vko`fk 0.3 gS] rks Aa
expected frequency of Aa individuals is: O;fDr;ksa@lnL; dh visf{kr vko`fk gS&
(1) 0.21
(1) 0.21
(2) 0.42
(2) 0.42
(3) 0.63 (3) 0.63
(4) 0.18 (4) 0.18
MRFST090417C4-42
156. Fill the blanks in the given statements and 156. fn, x, dFkuksas esa fjDr LFkkuksa dks Hkjus okys lgh
select the correct option.
fodYikasa dk p;u dhft,&
(A) The developmental stage of an animal
(A) ,d tarq dh ifjo/kZu voLFkk tks ekrk ds xHkkZ'k;
passed in the mother's womb is called
...(i).. esa xqtkjh tkrh gS ...(i).. dgykrh gSA
(B) The outer layer of blastula is called---(ii).. It (B) CykLVqyk dk ckgjh Lrj ---(ii).. dgykrk gSA ;g -
does not take part in the formation of --- --(iii).. ds fuekZ.k esa Hkkx ugha ysrk gSA
(iii)..
(C) (iv) izFke tuu Lrj gS tks foHksnu }kjk vkUrj
(C) (iv) is the first germ layer formed from the
inner cell mass by differentiation. dksf'kdk lagrh ls fufeZr gksrk gSA
(1) (ii)-mesoderm, (iii)-embryo proper, (iv)- (1) (ii)-e/;peZ, (iii)-iw.kZHkwz.k, (iv)-ckpeZ
ectoderm (2) (i)-v.Mk, (ii)-iks"kdksjd (iii)-iw.kZHkwz.k
(2) (i)- egg, (ii)-trophoblast. (iii)-embryo proper
(3) (i)-v.Mk, (iv)-vUr'peZ
(3) (i)-egg, (iv)- endoderm
(4) (i)-embryo, (iv)- endoderm (4) (i)-Hkwz.k, (iv)-vUr'peZ
157. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the 157. LrEHk -I dk LrEHk-II ls feyku dhft, rFkk uhps fn,
correct answer from the codes given below. x, dwV ls lgh mkj dk p;u dhft,
Column-I Column-II LrEHk -I LrEHk -II
A. Biopiracy (i) Effort to fix the non- A. ck;ksikbjslh (i) vdk;kZRed thu dks Bhd
functional gene djus dk iz;kl
B. Biopatent (ii) Gene silencing
B. ck;ksisVsaV (ii) thu lkbysaflax
C. Gene therapy (iii) Illegal removal of
C. thu Fksjsih (iii) tSfod inkFkksZ dk voS/k
biological materials
fu"dklu
D. RNAi (iv) Right granted for
D. RNAi (iv) tSfod rRoksa ds fy,
biological entities
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
iznku fd;k x;k vf/kdkj
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D- (ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) (4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
158. Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab produce toxins that 158. Cry II Ab ,oa Cry I Ab ,sls fo"k mRiUu djrs gS tks
control
e'k% fu;af=kr djrs gS&
(1) Cotton bollworms and corn borer
respectively (1) dkWVu ckWyokseZ ,oa dksuZ cksjj dks
(2) Corn borer and cotton bollworms
respectively
(2) dksuZ cksjj ,oa dkWVu ckWyokseZ dks
(3) Tobacco budworms and nematodes (3) rEckdq dkftdk fe;kas ,oa uhessVksM~l dks
respectively
(4) Nematodes and tobacco budworms (4) fuesVksM rFkk rEckdw dftdk fe
respectively.
MRFST090417C4-43
159. Corpus luteum in mammals is present in 159. Lrfu;ksa esa ihr fi.M gksrk gS&
(1) heart and initiates atrial contraction (1) n; esa] /kehu; ladqpu dks izkjEHk djus ds fy;s
(2) brain and connects the two cerebral
(2) efLr"d esa] izefLr"d xksyk)ks dks tksM+us ds fy;s
hemispheres
(3) v.Mk'k;ksa esa] izkstsLVsjkWu dk ko.k djus ds fy;s
(3) ovaries and produce progesterone
(4) skin and acts as a pain receptor
(4) Ropk esa] ihM+k laosnh jpuk ds :i esa
160. If the vasa deferentia of a man are surgically cut 160. ;fn ,d iq#"k dh 'kqqokfguh dks 'kY;f;k }kjk dkV
or blocked, then the fn;k tk, ;k vojksf/kr dj fn;k tk, rks D;k gksxk \
(1) Sperms in the semen will become non motile (1) oh;Z esa 'kqk.kq xfrghu gksaxs
(2) Spermatogenesis will not take place (2) 'kqk.kqtuu ughsa gksxk
(3) Testosterone will disappear from blood (3) #f/kj ls VsLVksfLVjkWu yqIr gks tk,xk
(4) Semen will be without sperms (4) oh;Z es 'kqk.kq ugh gksaxs
161. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves 161. bu&foVks QfVZykbts'ku rduhd esa fuEu esa ls fdldks
transfer of which one of the following into the QSyksfi;u ufydk esa LFkkukrafjr fd;k tkrk gS\
fallopian tube or oviduct ?
(1) dsoy ;qXeut
(1) Zygote only
(2) Embryo only upto 8 cell stage (2) dsoy 8 dksf'kdk voLFkk rd dk Hkzw.k
(3) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell (3) ;qXeut vFkok 8 dksf'kdk voLFkk rd dk Hkzw.k
stage
(4) 32 dksf'kdk voLFkk dk Hkzw.k
(4) Embryo of 32 cell stage
162. Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by 162. ekuo dksfj;ksfud xksusMksVksfiu dk ko.k gS\
(1) Chorion (2) Amnion (1) tjk;q }kjk (2) ,fEuvkWu }kjk
(3) Corpus luteum (4) Placenta (3) ihr fi.M }kjk (4) vijk }kjk
163. Under the Ganga and Yamuna action plans 163. xaxk rFkk ;equk ,D'ku Iyku ds varxZr&
(1) It is proposed to build a large number of (1) ;g izLrkfor fd;k x;k fd vf/kd la[;k esa
sewage treatment plants so that only okfgr ey mipkj m|ksx dk fuekZ.k fd;k tk,
treated sewage may be discharged in the rkfd dsoy mipkfjr okfgr ey dks gh ufn;ksa esa
rivers. eqDr fd;k tk ldsA
(2) The river water is treated with KmnO4 and
(2) ufn;ksa ds ikuh dks KMnO4 rFkk CaOCl2 ls
CaOCl2 so that it is cleaned of microbes.
mipkfjr fd;k tk, rkfd blesa ls lw{ethoksa dk
(3) The river water to be considered sacred so
lQk;k gks tk,A
that bathing and adding pollutants is not
(3) ufn;ksa ds ty dks ifo=k ekuk tk, rkfd mlesa
allowed.
ugkuk ,oa iznw"kdksa dks feykus dh vuqefr u gksA
(4) Addition of effluents is not banned in rivers.
(4) ufn;ksa ds cfg%L=kko dks feykus ij izfrca/k ugh
gksA
MRFST090417C4-44
164. The following figure shown improved breed of 164. fuEu fp=k tUrq rFkk i{kh dh mUur uLy dks n'kkZrk
animal and bird. Identify A and B. gSA A rFkk B dks igpkfu,A
A A
B
B (1) AchVy Btequkijh
(1) ABeetal, BJamunapari
(2) AekjokM+h Bfljksgh
(2) AMarwari, BSirohi
(3) AlqrhZ Blaxeusjh
(3) ASurti, BSangamneri
(4) AJersey, BLeghorn (4) AtlhZ ByssxgkuZ
165. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by 165. ,Ldsfjl dk lae.k lkekU;r% gksrk gSA
(1) Imperfectly cooked pork (1) lqvj ds v/kids ekl ls
(2) Tse tse Fly (2) lh&lh eD[kh ls
(3) Mosquito bite (3) ePNj ds dkVus ls
(4) Contaminated water and vegetables (4) lafer ty rFkk lfCt;ksa ls
166. Which is the particular type of drug that is 166. og dkSulk fo'ks"k izdkj dk eknd nzO; gS] tks ml
obtained from the plant whose one flowering ikS/ks ls izkIr gksrh gS] ftldh ,d iqf"ir 'kk[kk uhps
branch is shown below? fn[kkbZ xbZ gS\
(1) Stimulant (2) Pain killer (1) mn~nhid (2) nnZ fuokjd
(3) Hallucinogen (4) Depressant (3) foHkzed (4) voued
MRFST090417C4-45
167. Activated sludge should have the ability to settle 167. lff;r voiad esa 'kh?kzrk ls lek;ksftr gksus dh
quickly so that, it can {kerk gksuh pkfg, rkfd
(1) be rapidly pumped back from (1) bls rsth ls volknu VSad ls okil ok;o VSad esa
izokfgr fd;k tk ldsA
sedimentation tank to aeration tank
(2) ;g lek;kstu VSad ds ry dh vksj Mqcrs le;]
(2) absorb pathogenic bacteria present in vif'k"V ty esa mifLFkr jksxdkjd thok.kqvksa dks
waste water while sinking to the bottom of vo'kksf"kr dj lds
the settling tank (3) bls vyx fd;k tk lds rFkk vok;oh; :i ls
(3) be discarded and anaerobically digested
ipk;k tk ldsA
(4) ;g dksykWbM dkcZfud inkFkZ dks vo'kksf"kr dj
(4) absorb colloidal organic matter.
ldsA
168. BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring 168. vof'k"V ty dh BOD dks] ftldh ek=kk ds ekiu
the amount of }kjk vuqekfur fd;k tkrk gS] og gS
(1) total organic matter (1) dqy dkcZfud inkFkZ
(2) non-biodegradable organic matter (2) tSo vi?kVu jfgr dkcZfud inkFkZ
(3) oxygen evolution
(3) vkWDlhtu mRifk
(4) oxygen consumption
(4) vkWDlhtu miHkksx
169. A foreign DNA is inserted within the coding 169. ,d fotkrh; DNA ,Utkbe -xSyDVkslkbMst ,Utkbe
sequence of an enzyme -galactasidase used dks dksM djus okys thu esa izfo"V djk;k tkrk gS rFkk
as selective marker will distinguish oSdfYIkr oj.k;ksX; fpd dh Hkkaafr dk;Z djrk gS vkSj
recombinants from non-recombinants. This into iquZ;ksxtksa dks viquZ;ksxtksa ls i`Fkd djrk gS blesa
following except. fuEufyf[kr f;k,a gksrh gSa dsoy ,d dks NksMdj
(1) Inactivation of enzyme (1) ,Utkbe dk fuf"; gksuk
(2) Colonies produce no colour (2) dksyksuh jax ughas cukrh
(3) Insertional inactivation (3) fuos'kh fuf";rk
(4) Activation of enzyme which gives blue (4) ,Utkbe lf; gks tkrk gSS ftlls uhyk jax
colour. mRiUu gksrk gSA
170. After 7 PCR cycles how many DNA molecules 170. 7 PCR pksa ds ckn ,d DNA VsEiysV v.kq ls fdrus
are formed from one DNA template molecule DNA v.kq curs gSaA
(1) 64 (2) 128 (1) 64 (2) 128
(3) 32 (4) 256 (3) 32 (4) 256
171. Select wrong pair. 171. xyr ;qXe pqfu;s&

(1) Pseudomonas putidaBioremediation of oil (1) L;wMkseksukl I;wfVMk&vkW;y fLiy dk tSo
spills. fuLrkj.kA
(2) Tay-sac diseaseAbsence of tyrosinase (2) Vs&lsd jksxVk;jksflust ,atkbe dh vuqifLFkfrA
enzyme (3) fjVksok;jl&tUrq dksf'kdk esa DNA [k.M ds
(3) RetrovirusUsed as vector for transferring LFkkukraj.k ds fy;s okgd ds :i esa iz;q
DNA segment in to animal cell.
(4) -1 ,UVhfVfIlu,EQkbflek dk mipkj
(4) -1 antitrypsinTreatment of Emphysema
MRFST090417C4-46
172. Which of the following is not used as bio- 172. fuEu esa ls fdls tSo moZjd ds :i esa mi;ksx ugh
fertilizer? fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) Nostoc (1) ukWLVkWd
(2) Rhizobium (2) jkbtksfc;e
(3) Azotobacter (3) ,stksVkscSDVj
(4) Agrobacterium (4) ,xzkscSfDVfj;e
173. In plants, cells are bombarded with high velocity 173. ikS/kksa esa] dksf'kdkvksa ij Mh,u, ls foysfir------------------------
micro-particles of...................coated with DNA ---ds mPp osx lw{e d.kksa ls ceckjh djrs gSa ftls
in a method known as biolistics or gene gun. ck;ksfyfLVd ;k thu xu dgrs gSaA
(1) gold or silver (1) Lo.kZ ;k jtr
(2) gold or tungsten (2) Lo.kZ ;k VaxLVu
(3) copper or gold (3) rkack ;k Lo.kZ
(4) platinum or plutonium (4) IysfVue ;k IywVksfu;e
174. Which of the following is not a feature of pBR 174. dkSulk pBR 322 okgd dk ,d y{k.k ugh gS\
322 vector? (1) ;g IykfTeM ds lkFk bfPNr thu ds izfrfr;u
(1) It has "ori" site for replication of gene of ds fy, "ori" LFky j[krk gS
interest alongwith plasmid. (2) blesa pst I ds fy, izfrca/ku LFky ugh gksrk gS
(2) It does not have restriction site for pst I. (3) blesa IykfTeM ds izfrfr;u dks lqxfer cukus
(3) It has "rop" for facilitating replication of
ds fy, "rop" gksrk gSA
plasmid.
(4) blesa nks ,UVhckW;ksfVd izfrjks/kh thu ampR rFkk
(4) It has two antibiotic resistant genes, ampR
tetR gksrs gSaA
and tetR.
175. Taq DNA polymerase obtains from 175. Vkd DNA ikWfyejst fdlls izkIr gksrk gS
(1) Trichoderma polysporum (1) VkbdksMekZ ikWfyLiksje
(2) Pseudomonas putida (2) L;wMkseksukl I;wfVMk
(3) Thermus aquaticus (3) FkeZl ,DokfVdl
(4) Agrobacterium tumifaciens (4) ,xzkscSfDVfj;e V~;wfeQSf'k;Ul
176. Which of the following acids is produced by 176. LAB ds }kjk viuh o`f) ds nkSjku fuEu esa ls dkSulk
LAB during their growth? vEy mRikfnr fd;k tkrk gS?
(1) -Ketoglutaric acid (1) -dhVksXywVsfjd vEy
(2) Oxaloacetic acid (2) vkWDtsyks,lhfVd vEy
(3) Acetic acid (3) ,lhfVd vEy
(4) Lactic acid (4) ysfDVd vEy
MRFST090417C4-47
177. The microbial biocontrol agent that can be 177. frryh ds fMEHkdks ds fu;=ka.k gsrq ;ksx esa yk;k tk
introduced in order to control butterfly ldus okyk lw{ethoh tSoh; fu;=ka.k dkjd gSA
caterpillars is (1) jkbtksfc;e
(1) Rhizobium
(2) DykWfLVfM;e
(2) Clostridium
(3) csflyl FkwfjfUt,fUll
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) ek;dkscSDVhfj;e
(4) Mycobacterium
178. Bottled juices are clarified by the use of 178. fMCckcan jlks dk 'kqf)dj.k buds ;ksx ls fd;k tkrk gSA
(1) Pectinases and amylases (1) isfDVustst ,oa ,ekbystt
(2) Pectinases and proteases (2) isfDVustst ,oa ksfV,tst
(3) Pectinases and lipases (3) isfDVustst ,oa ykbistst
(4) Lipases and amylases (4) ykbistst ,oa ,ekbystst
179. The sewage water is treated to 179. Okkfgr ty dk mipkj fd;k tkrk gSA
(1) Reduce the BOD (1) chvksMh ?kVkus ds fy,
(2) Enhance the BOD (2) chvksMh mPp djus ds fy,
(3) Enhance polluting potential (3) nw"k.k {kerk c<+kus ds fy,
(4) Reduce O2 content (4) O2 dh ek=kk ?kVkus ds fy,
180. Which of the following is used for commercial 180. ,FkSukWy ds O;kikfjd mRiknu gsrq fuEu esa ls dkSu
production of ethanol? ;qDr fd;k tkrk gSa\
(1) Clostridium butylicum (1) DykWfLVfM;e C;wVkbfyde
(2) Acetobacter aceti (2) ,lhVkscSDVj ,lhfV
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) lSdjksekblht lsjsohlh
(4) Lactobacillus
(4) ySDVkscSflyl
MRFST090417C4-48
FULL SYLLABUS TEST (FST-4) (XII SYLLABUS)
DATE : 09-04-2017
COURSE : SAFAL (MR)
CODE - 4
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
i;k bu funsZ'kksa dks /;ku ls i<+saA vkidks 5 feuV fo'ks"k :i ls bl dke ds fy, fn;s x;s gSaA
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test 1.ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds bl i`"B ij vko';d fooj.k uhys@dkys ckWy
Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is IokbaV isu ls rRdky HkjsaA isfUly dk iz;ksx fcYdqy oftZr gSA
strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When 2. mkj i=k bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks ijh{kk
you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk, rks mkj i=k fudky dj
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
lko/kkuhiwoZd fooj.k HkjsaA
3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 3. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?kaVs gSA
4. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum 4.bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 180 iz'u gSA vf/kdre vad 720 gSA
marks are 720.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C 5. bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk es rhu Hkkx A, B, C gSA ftlds izR;sd Hkkx esa
consisting of Chemistry (45), Physics (45) and Biology jlk;u foKku (45)] HkkSfrd foKku (45)] ,oa tho foKku (90)
(90) questions. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for
correct response. iz'u gSA vkSj lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSA izR;sd iz'u ds lgh
mkj ds fy, 4 pkj vad fu/kkZfjr fd;s x;s gSA
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in 6. vH;kfFkZ;ksa dks izR;sd lgh mkj ds fy, mijksDr funsZ'ku la[;k 5
Instructions No. 5 for correct response of each question. ds funsZ'kkuqlkj ekDlZ fn;s tk,axsA izR;sd iz'u ds xyr mkj ds
[one fourth (1)] marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the fy;s oka Hkkx (1) dkV fy;k tk;sxkA ;fn mkj iqfLrdk esa
total score will be made if no response is indicated for an fdlh iz'u dk mkj ugha fn;k x;k gks rks dqy izkIrkad ls dksbZ
item in the answer sheet. dVkSrh ugha fd tk;sxhA
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling 7.R;sd iz'u dk dsoy ,d gh lgh mkj gSA ,d ls vf/kd mkj
up more than one response in any question will be treated nsus ij mls xyr mkj ekuk tk;sxk vkSj mijksDr funsZ'k 6 ds
as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be
deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above. vuqlkj vad dkV fy;s tk;saxsA
Filling the Top-half of the ORS : vksvkj,l (ORS) ds ijh&vk/ks fgLls dk Hkjko :
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. ORS dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy dkys cky iSu dk mi;ksx dhft,A
Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the
ORS.
8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of 8. ORS ds lcls ij cka;s dksus esa fn, x, ckDl esa viuk jksy
your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the uEcj dkys cky ikbUV ls fyf[k, rFkk laxr xksys Hkh dsoy dkys
corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also
fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space isu ls Hkfj;sA ORS ds ihNs dh rjQ Hkh viuk jksy uEcj fyf[k,
provided (if the ORS is both side printed). (;fn ORS nksuksa rjQ Nih gqbZ gSA).
9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and 9. ORS ij viuk isij dksM fyf[k, rFkk laxr xksyksa dks dkys cky
darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen. isu ls dkys dhft,A
10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code 10 ;fn fo|kFkhZ viuk jksy uEcj rFkk isij dksM lgh vkSj mfpr
correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be rjhds ugha Hkjrk gS rc mldk ifj.kke jksd fy;k tkosxkA
displayed.
11.Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled 11. pawfd isu ls Hkjs x, xksys feVkuk vkSj lq/kkjuk laHko ugha gS
bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while blfy, vki lko/kkuh iwoZd vius mkj ds xksyksa dks HkjsaA
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
12.Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the 12.fodYi dks u feVk,a@u Ldzsp djsa vkSj u gh xyr (X) fpUg dks
Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, HkjsaA ORS dks dkVs u gh QkMs u gh xUnk ugha djsa rFkk dksbZ Hkh
smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray
marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS. fu'kku ;k lQsnh ORS ij ugha yxk,aA
13.If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the 13. ;fn ORS esa fdlh izdkj dh fy[ks x, vkadMksa rFkk xksys fd, vkadMksa
bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as esa fojks/kkHkkl gS rks xksys fd, vkadMksa dks gh lgh ekuk tkosxkA
final.
Name of the Candidate (ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke) : Roll Number (jksy uEcj) :
I have read all the instructions and shall I have verified all the information filled by
abide by them the candidate.
eSaus lHkh funsZ'kksa dk i<+ fy;k gS vkSj eSa mudk ijh{kkFkhZ }kjk Hkjh xbZ lkjh tkudkjh dks eSusa
vo'; ikyu d:xk@d:xhA tkp fy;k gSA
...................................... ......................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj ijh{kd ds gLrk{kj

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Academic Session: 2016-17 CODE - 4

FULL SYLLABUS TEST (FST-4)

DO NOT BREAK THE SEAL WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

COURSE : SAFAL (MR)

Resonance Eduventures Ltd.

Straight Objective Type Straight Objective Type

decreases yxkrkj ?kVrh gSA

(4) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co (4) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

10. Bithional is an example of : 10. fcfFk;ksuSy fuEu dk mnkgj.k gS %

13. A+B 13. A+B

(1) CH3CH2 (2)

(3) CH3 (4)

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Final Products of this reaction is : mijksDr vfHkf;k dk vfUre mRikn gS %

(3) PhCH(CH3)COOH (3) PhCH(CH3)COOH

(4) Cl CHNH2 +HCOOH (4) Cl CHNH2 +HCOOH

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

27. Denaturation of protein : 27. izksVhu dk fod`frdj.k :

(3) 1.2 M (4) 18 M. (3) 1.2 M (4) 18 M.

27C is : nkc fuEu gS &

(I) [Fe(CN)6]4 (II) [Fe(CN)6]3 (III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (IV) [Ni(H2O)4]2+

(III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (IV) [Ni(H2O)4]2+ is - ds pqEcdh; vk?kw.kksZ dk c<+rk gqvk e gS-

(4) k1 = 2k 2eEa2 / RT (4) k1 = 2k 2eEa2 / RT

Straight Objective Type lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iv), (v)

(1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 1 (1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 1

(3) 1, 0 (4) 1, 1 (3) 1, 0 (4) 1, 1

(1) Ea (2) E (a2 b2 )

(3) 0.1 (4) 0.02 (1) 1.0 (2) 0.2

(3) 0.1 (4) 0.02

(1) x = y = z (2) x > y > z (1) x = y = z (2) x > y > z

(1) 1.6 A (2) 1.2 A (1) 1.6 A (2) 1.2 A

LE0r LE0r LE0r LE0r

65. The figure shows a graph of current (I) flowing

(1) 1 V ; 0.25 (2) 1 V ; 4

(1) 1/2 (2) 1

(1) mAvA < mBvB (1) mAvA < mBvB

(2) mAvA > mBvB (2) mAvA > mBvB

(3) mA < mB and vA < vB (3) mA < mB and vA < vB

(4) mA = mB and vA = vB (4) mA = mB and vA = vB

(1) there will be induced current in coil B which

same direction as in A. dh fn'kk esa gksxhA

(1) V = 100 volt, = 2 amp

correct choice(s) given below.

(3) 2.4 (4) 1.5 (3) 2.4 (4) 1.5

(3) A1 A2 (4) (4;)

Straight Objective Type lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

(3) Humification (3) ;wehfQds'ku

(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

(1) Glucose (1) Xywdkst

101. Select wrong pair 101. xyr ;qXe pqfu;s

(1) Stomium of Dehiscence (1) ,.MksFkhfl;e dh ijkxdks'k

lgh ukekadu pqfu;s -

(2) a - Nucellus, b - hilum, c - outer (2) a - chtk.Mdk;, b - ukfHkdk, c - ck v/;koj.k,

(s). ldrs gSaA

121. Nt+1 = Nt+ (B + I) (D + E) 121. Nt+1 = Nt+ (B + I) (D + E)

133. What is Bioprospecting? 133. ck;ksksLisfDVax tSo vUosa"k.k D;k gS&

different geographical areas. dk fujh{k.k djuk

level diversity for products of economic

148. Following STDs are completely curable if