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GENERAL STUIDES (P) TEST 2136 (2017)
Q 1.A
o Article 323A provides that Parliament by law can provide to establish an administrative tribunal for
union and separate administrative tribunal for each state or two or more states. Thus under the
Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985, the Central government is empowered to establish the State
Administrative Tribunals (SATs) on specific request of the concerned state governments. Like the CAT,
the SATs exercise original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of state
government employees. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Statement 2 is not correct: The Chairman, and members of the SATs are appointed by the President
after consultation with the Governor of the state concerned.
Q 2.A
Blue Bond is a type of green bond which specifically invests in climate resilient water management and
water infrastructure. However, bonds used to specifically finance water infrastructure projects are also
termed as blue bonds.
Q 3.A
Monotremes are egg-laying mammals. Monotremes represent one of the three major subdivisions of
mammals. The other two groups, the marsupials and placentals give birth to live young.
There are only five extant (living) species of monotremes, the platypus and four species of echidna. The
platypus is a semi-aquatic, duck-billed mammal endemic to eastern Australia and Tasmania it is one of
the few venomous mammals. Echidnas, sometimes referred to as 'spiny anteaters', are native to New
Guinea and Australia.
Like other mammals, monotremes are warm-blooded, with a high metabolic rate (though not as high as
other mammals); have hair on their bodies; produce milk to feed their young; have a single bone in their
lower jaw; and have three middle ear bones.
Q 4.D
Biofertilizer is a substance which contains living microorganism which, when applied to seed, plant
surfaces, or soil, colonizes the rhizosphere or the interior of the plant and promotes growth by
increasing the supply or availability of primary nutrients to the host plant.
Examples: Azotobacter, Clostridium, Nostoc Rhizobium, Frankia, Anabaena azollae, Azospirillum,
Cyanobacteria, Azolla, AM fungi, Silicate solubilizing bacteria (SSB), Plant Growth Promoting
Rhizobacteria (PGPR), Pseudomonas striata etc.
Q 5.D
All of the heat transfer methods will work.
Radiation: All objects radiate energy in the form of electromagnetic waves. The rate at which this energy
is released is proportional to the Kelvin temperature (T) raised to the fourth power.The hotter the
object, the more it radiates.
Conduction: The mechanism in which heat is transferred from one object to another object through
particle collisions is known as conduction. In conduction, there is no net transfer of physical stuff
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between the objects. Nothing material moves across the boundary. The changes in temperature are
wholly explained as the result of the gains and losses of kinetic energy during collisions.
Convection: Convection is the process of heat transfer from one location to the next by the movement
of fluids. The moving fluid carries energy with it. The fluid flows from a high temperature location to a
low temperature location. As the kettle is hot, it begins to conduct heat to the water. The water at the
boundary with the metal pan becomes hot. Fluids expand when heated and become less dense. So as
the water at the bottom of the pot becomes hot, its density decreases. Differences in water density
between the bottom of the pot and the top of the pot results in the gradual formation of circulation
currents.
Q 6.B
For regulating development activities, the coastal stretches within 500 metres of High Tide Line on the
landward side are classified into four categories, namely:
o Category I (CRZ-I):(i) Areas that are ecologically sensitive and important, such as national
parks/marine parks, sanctuaries, reserve forests, wildlife habitats, mangroves, corals/coral reefs,
areas close to breeding and spawning grounds of fish and other marine life, areas of outstanding
natural beauty/historically/heritage areas, areas rich in genetic diversity, areas likely to be inundated
due to rise in sea level consequent upon global warming and such other areas as may be declared by
the Central Government or the concerned authorities at the State/Union Territory level from time to
time. (ii) Area between Low Tide Line and the high Tide Line.
No new construction shall be permitted in CRZ- I except (a) Projects relating to Department of Atomic
Energy and (b) Pipelines, conveying systems including transmission lines and (c) facilities that are
essential for activities permissible under CRZ-I.
o Category-II (CRZ-II): The areas that have already been developed upto or close to the shoreline. For
this purpose, 'developed area' is referred to as that area within the municipal limits or in other
legally designated urban areas which is already substantially built up and which has been provided
with drainage and approach roads and other infrastructural facilities, such as water supply and
sewerage mains.The area upto 200 metres from the High Tide Line is to be earmarked as 'No
Development Zone'. No construction shall be permitted within this zone except for repairs of
existing authorised structures
o Category-III (CRZ-III): Areas that are relatively undisturbed and those which do not belong to either
Category-I or II. These will include coastal zone in the rural areas (developed and undeveloped) and
also areas within Municipal limits or in other legally designated urban areas which are not
substantially built up.
o Category-IV (CRZ-IV): Coastal stretches in the Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep and small islands,
except those designated as CRZ-I, CRZ-II or CRZ-III.
Q 7.C
o Mahalwari system was introduced in 1833 during the period of Sir William Bentick. It was introduced in
Central Province, North-West Frontier, Agra, Punjab, Gangetic Valley, etc of British India. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
o The settlement under the Mahalwari operation was directly made with the villages or estates or Mahals.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o The settlement possesses a mixture of Bengal Zamindari as well as Madras Rayotwari. Here, the
settlements had neither been with great hereditary revenue farmers like the Bengal `Zamindars nor with
the humble cultivators as in madras, but generally with the co-sharing village brotherhood called as
village community.
o Most of the historians placed the new system as a modified version of Permanent Zamindari of Bengal
which was usually made with the body of co-sharers.
o The rent was fixed with the consultation of lambardar and the land revenue was revised periodically,
generally after 30 years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 8.A
Ornamental fishery is a sub-sector of the fisheries sector dealing with breeding and rearing of coloured
fish of both freshwater and marine water. Ornamental fishes are usually kept in glass aquarium and
hence popularly known as 'Aquarium Fishes'. They need not always have bright colours; as sometimes
their peculiar characteristics such as body colour, morphology, mode of taking food etc. may also add to
their attractiveness. Though ornamental fisheries does not directly contribute to the food and nutritional
security, it generates livelihood and income for the rural and peri-urban population, especially women
and unemployed youth as part-time activities. The ornamental fish industry in India is small but vibrant,
with potential for tremendous growth. About 400 species of marine ornamental fishes and 375
freshwater ornamental varieties are available in various parts of our country.
Q 9.A
o The Diamond Quadrilateral is a project of the Indian Railway to establish high-speed rail network, which
will connect the four metros, namely Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.
o Six corridors on Diamond Quadrilateral connecting metropolitan cities and growth centers of the country
(Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai & Kolkata) have been identified for feasibility studies for high speed rail
connectivity viz: (i) Delhi-Mumbai, (ii) Mumbai-Chennai, (iii) Chennai-Kolkata, (iv) Kolkata-Delhi and both
diagonals i.e. (v) Delhi-Chennai and (vi) Mumbai-Kolkata routes.
Q 10.D
o Statement 1 is not correct. Sangam Literature are the Tamil texts. They are not written in Sanskrit.
Statement 2 is not correct. These texts are secular in nature praising many heroes and heroines.
Statement 3 is not correct. Sangam Literature comprises about 30,000 lines of poetry. These are a
collection of poems not prose.
o Sangam literature was produced over a period of three to four centuries by poets who assembled in
colleges patronized by chiefs and kings. Such colleges were called Sangam, and the literature produced
in these assemblies was known as Sangam literature. The compilation of the corpus is attributed to the
first four Christian centuries, although they were really completed by the sixth century.
Q 11.C
Mixed farming is one which crop production is combined with the rearing of livestock. The live stock
enterprises are complementary to crop production. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Cover crops are grasses, legumes planted to provide seasonal soil cover on cropland when the soil would
otherwise be bare i.e., before the crop emerges in spring or after fall harvest. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
Zero-tillage farming is a way of growing crops or pasture from year to year without disturbing the soil
through tillage. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 12.C
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) has been bestowed with multiple functions.
Following are few of them.
1. To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives, recognizing that strong
States make a strong nation.
2. To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these
progressively at higher levels of government.
3. To ensure, on areas that are specifically referred to it, that the interests of national security are
incorporated in economic strategy and policy.
4. To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system. It is to be done through a
collaborative community of national and international experts, practitioners and other partners.

5. To actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of programmes and initiatives. It includes the
identification of the needed resources.
Hence, statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
Devolving funds to the States is not a function of NITI Aayog. It was a mandate of the erstwhile Planning
Commission. Hence, statement 5 is not correct.
Q 13.B
Government of India launched the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 in 2013. It
aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles in the country.
Government launched the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles (FAME
India) under NEMMP 2020 in the Union Budget for 2015-16 with an initial outlay of Rs. 75 Cr with the
objective to support hybrid/electric vehicles market development and Manufacturing eco-system. The
scheme has 4 focus areas i.e. Technology development, Demand Creation, Pilot Projects and Charging
Infrastructure. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The FAME India Scheme is aimed at incentivising all vehicle segments i.e. 2 Wheeler, 3 Wheeler Auto,
Passenger 4 Wheeler Vehicle, Light Commercial Vehicles and Buses. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
The scheme covers Hybrid & Electric technologies like Mild Hybrid, Strong Hybrid, Plug in Hybrid &
Battery Electric Vehicles. Recently, the government has withdrawn incentives given to mild hybrid
vehicles under FAME India.
Q 14.A
The Union government recently approved setting up Rail Development Authority (RDA), an independent
regulator to recommend passenger and freight fares.
It will act within parameters of Railway Act, 1989 and undertake the following broad functions: tariff
determination, ensuring fair play and level playing field for stakeholder investment in Railways, setting
efficiency and performance standards, dissemination of information. The RDA will help the government
take appropriate decisions on important policy and operational issues, including pricing of services
commensurate with costs, suggest measures for enhancement of non-fare revenue, ensure protection of
consumer interests, promote competition, encourage market development, create positive environment
for investment and promote efficient resource allocation.
It will also benchmark service standards, suggest measures for absorption of new technologies and
human resource development and provide a framework for non-discriminatory open access to the
dedicated freight corridor infrastructure. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
RDA will only be a recommendatory body and the final decisions on setting fares will be made by the
Railway Ministry. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 15.B
In a pond, the phytoplankton and zooplankton constitute the pioneer community. Submerged aquatic
plants, with their roots anchored in the mud, are next to colonise the pond. The dead remains of these
organisms settle at the pond bottom. Besides, floating plant species invade the pond. With the
continued siltation, the pond bottom is gradually raised and water layer becomes shallow and rich in
nutrients. As a result, rooted, emerged plants with aerial leaves, such as reeds, are able to colonise the
pond. This is accompanied by the invasion of Dragon flies, crustaceans and more rooted species of
plants. Thus, the species composition of plants keeps changing with time. With increased settling of silt
and deposition of dead organic matter derived from floating and rooted species, the pond becomes
shallower until it gets transformed into a terrestrial habitat. Ultimately, terrestrial species, like grasses,
bushes and trees, colonise the pond area and a climax community is established.

Q 16.B
All the pairs are correctly matched.
o Bt cotton produced by incorporating Bt gene which encodes for BT toxin (insecticidal protein in
Bacillus thuringiensis) in the cotton plant. The plant becomes insect resistant and this gene has been
incorporated in corn, potato, tomato, tobacco etc. making them insect resistant (bio pesticides).
o 'Golden Rice' a transgenic with enhanced vitamin A content producing nutritionally rich rice to save
many lives.
o Cold damage to crop plants can be minimized by introducing genes for antifreeze proteins (AFPs)
found in the blood of artic fishes. Frost resistant tomatoes (Flavr Savr tomatoes) have been
produced by introducing gene for antifreeze proteins from polar fish living in ice water.
Q 17.D
o The Scheme of Mega Food Park aims at providing a mechanism to link agricultural production to the
market by bringing together farmers, processors and retailers so as to ensure maximizing value addition,
minimizing wastage, increasing farmers income and creating employment opportunities particularly in
rural sector. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The Mega Food Park Scheme is based on Cluster approach and envisages a well-defined agree/
horticultural-processing zone containing state-of-the art processing facilities with support infrastructure
and well-established supply chain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o A Mega Food Park is located in the area of a minimum of 50 acres and works in a cluster based approach
based on a hub and spokes model. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o Infrastructure is created for primary processing and storage near the farm in the form of Primary
Processing Centres (PPCs), Collection Centres (CCs) located in production areas. Common facilities and
enabling infrastructure at Central Processing Centre like modern warehousing, cold storage, IQF, sorting,
grading, packaging, pulping, ripening chambers and tetra packaging units roads, electricity, water, ETP
facilities etc.
o This helps in reducing the cost of individual units significantly and makes them more viable. Induction of
latest technology, quality assurance of processed food products through better process control and
meeting of environmental and safety standards are other major benefits of Mega Food Parks.
Q 18.B
Dam - River
1. Baglihar - Chenab
2. Tehri - Bhagirathi
3. Nagarjuna Sagar - Krishna
Q 19.D
Positive contributions:
o The movements emphasized on the human intellect's capacity to think and reason. It helped in
weeding out corrupt elements like the priests, religious beliefs and practices. Also, by translation of
religious texts into vernacular languages, emphasis on an individual's right to interpret the scriptures
and simplification of rituals made worship a more personal experience. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
o The movements also promoted modern, scientific and rational outlook. Socially, this attitude was
reflected in a basic change in notion of 'pollution and purity'. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o It helped in rise of national consciousness among the middle class Indians. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Negative contributions:
o It also led to compartmentalizing of Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs and Parsis and resulted in rise in
communal conscience too.
o Their social base was narrow, mainly educated and urban middleclass and masses were largely
unaffected.
o By appealing to the greatness of the past and by relying on scriptural authority, reforms indirectly
encouraged mysticism in new form and fostered pseudo-scientific thinking.

o The Hindus reformers confined their praise of the Indian past to its ancient period during which the
lower caste sections suffered under religiously sanctioned exploitation. It indirectly widened the gap
between the Hindus upper caste and the Hindus lower caste.
Q 20.C
The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is an international non-
profit organization that undertakes scientific research for development. Because it focuses on the
drylands, it has an extra specialization on crops that survive in these harsh climates. For these mandated
crops, ICRISAT builds special expertise across the whole value chain conserving, analyzing, breeding,
understanding on- farm management practices, processing and agribusiness opportunities. Hence,
ICRISATs approach is through partnerships and with an inclusive market oriented development. It
focuses its research and development efforts on making farming profitable, helping move farmers from
subsistence to commercial operators. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 21.B
Areas of sinking air which result in high pressure are called anticyclones. High pressure systems have
small pressure gradients (ie the air pressure doesn't change rapidly).This means that the winds are
gentle. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
As the air sinks, it warms up, leading to warm and dry weather. Descending air does not lead to
formation of clouds. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Anticyclones are much larger than depressions and produce periods of settled and calm weather lasting
many days or weeks.
Q 22.C
o Article 31A saves five categories of laws (related to agricultural land reforms, industry and commerce )
from being challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights
conferred by Article 14 and Article 19.
o However, Article 31A does not immunise a state law from judicial review unless it has been reserved for
the President's consideration and has received his assent.
o Article 31B saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule from being challenged and
invalidated on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights.
o However, the Supreme Court in 2007 (I.R. Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu) ruled that laws placed under
the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 (Keshvananda Bharti Case verdict), are open to challenge in court
if they violated fundamentals rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21 or the basic structure of
the constitution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Article 31C, as inserted by the 25th Amendment Act of 1971, contained the following two provisions:
No law that seeks to implement the socialistic directive principles specified in Article 39(b)or(c) shall
be void on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14 or Article
19
No law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be questioned in any
court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.
o In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court declared the above second provision of
Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the
Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away. However, the above first provision of Article 31C was
held to be constitutional and valid. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 23.C
o Twin deficit refer to a nation's current account deficits and the fiscal deficit.
o Twin deficit basically refers to a situation where the country runs relatively large current account and
fiscal deficits.
o Higher twin deficit is inherently destabilizing and was the primary reason why India faced a currency
crisis back in 1991.

Q 24.B
The Governor of a state shall, after every five years, constitute a Finance Commission to review the
financial position of the Panchayats. It shall make the following recommendations to the Governor:
The principles that should govern:
o The distribution between the state and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls
and fees levied by the state.
o The determination of taxes, duties, tolls and fees that may be assigned to the Panchayats.
o The grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the consolidated fund of the state.
o The measures needed to improve the financial position of the Panchayats.
o Any other matter referred to it by the governor in the interests of sound finance of the Panchayats.
Q 25.C
The Aitchison Commission (Public Service Commission) was set up in 1886 under the chairmanship of Sir
Charles Umpherston Aitchison to come up with a scheme for fulfilling the claims of Indians to higher and
more extensive employment in public service. It recommended a three-tier classification-Imperial,
provincial and subordinate civil services. It recommended the admission of Indians subject to their
fitness into Indian covenanted civil services. But he did not favor holding of simultaneous competitive
exams in Britain and India.
Q 26.B
The frequent occurrence of earthquakes in the Himalayan region shows that the Himalayas have not yet
attained isostatic equilibrium and they still continue to rise further.
The Himalayan rivers are still in their youthful stage and have been rejuvenated in recent times. Terraces
found at the valley sides suggest rejuvenation of the valley region due to upliftment.
Diversity in vegetation is due to higher altitudes of Himalayas. It gives no evidence of ongoing
upliftment.
Q 27.C
The correct order from west to east is : Paris - Stockholm - St. Petersburg
Paris : France
Stockholm : Sweden
St. Petersburg : Russia
Q 28.C
o With a view to enhance enrollment, retention and attendance and simultaneously improving nutritional
levels among children, the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NP-NSPE)
was launched as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme on 15th August 1995 by Ministry of Human Resource
Development.
o In 2001 MDMS became a cooked Mid Day Meal Scheme under which every child in every Government
and Government aided primary school was to be served a prepared Mid Day Meal with a minimum
content of 300 calories of energy and 8-12 gram protein per day for a minimum of 200 days.
o The Scheme was further extended in 2002 to cover not only children studying in Government,
Government aided and local body schools, but also children studying in Education Guarantee Scheme
(EGS) and Alternative & Innovative Education (AIE) centres. In July 2006 the nutritional norm was revised
to 450 Calories and 12 gram of protein.
o In 2007, the Scheme was extended to cover children of upper primary classes (i.e. class VI to VIII)
studying in 3,479 Educationally Backwards Blocks (EBBs) and the name of the Scheme was changed from
'National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education' to 'National Programme of Mid Day
Meal in Schools'. The nutritional norm for upper primary stage was fixed at 700 Calories and 20 grams of
protein. The Scheme was further revised in April 2008 to extend the scheme to recognized as well as
unrecognized Madarsas / Maqtabs supported under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.

Q 29.B
o The CSP from the beginning assigned itself the task of both transforming the Congress and of
strengthening it.
o The CSP was to develop as the nucleus of the alternative socialist leadership of the Congress.
o As the Meerut Thesis of the CSP put it in 1935, the task was to wean the anti-imperialist elements in the
Congress away from its present bourgeois leadership and to bring them under the leadership of
revolutionary socialism.
o This perspective was, however, soon found to be unrealistic and was abandoned in favour of a
'composite' leadership in which socialists would be taken into the leadership at all levels.
Q 30.D
Ratio of frequency of tropical cyclones in Arabian sea and in bay of Bengal is 1:4
Statement 1 is correct: Cyclones that form over the Bay of Bengal are either those that develop insitu
over southeast Bay of Bengal and adjoining Andaman Sea or remnants of typhoons over Northwest
Pacific and that move across South China sea to Indian Seas.
As the frequency of typhoons over Northwest Pacific is quite high (about 35 % of the global annual
average), the Bay of Bengal also gets its increased quota. The cyclones over the Arabian Sea either
originate in situ over southeast Arabian Sea (which includes Lakshadweep area also) or remnants of
cyclones from the Bay of Bengal that move across south peninsula. As the majority of Cyclones over the
Bay of Bengal weaken over land after landfall, the frequency of migration into Arabian Sea is low.
Statement 2 is correct: Bay of Bengal is more land locked and hence has higher sea surface temperature
which is conducive for the formation of strong cyclones.
Statement 3 is correct: Arabian Sea is relatively colder than Bay of Bengal and hence inhibits the
formation and intensification of the system i.e. temperature is too low for cyclogenesis. There is a large-
scale downward wind movement over the Arabian Sea during most of the year and convection has little
chance to grow and intensify into cyclones.
Q 31.B
The phosphorus cycle is defined as the biogeochemical cycle which describes the movement of
phosphorus through the spheres of the ecosystem that is through lithosphere and hydrosphere.
Phosphorus and phosphorus based compounds are usually in solid form in typical temperature range.
Essentially, it means that it does not include a gas phase.
When it rains, phosphates are removed from the rocks (via weathering) and are distributed throughout
both soils and water. Plants take up the phosphate ions from the soil. The phosphates then moves from
plants to animals when herbivores eat plants and carnivores eat plants or herbivores. The phosphates
absorbed by animal tissue through consumption eventually returns to the soil through the excretion of
urine and feces, as well as from the final decomposition of plants and animals after death. It is the
slowest of all the biogeochemical cycles.
Humans can alter the phosphorus cycle in many ways, including in the cutting of tropical rain forests and
through the use of agricultural fertilizers. Agricultural runoff provides much of the phosphate found in
waterways. Crops often cannot absorb all of the fertilizer in the soils, causing excess fertilizer runoff and
increasing phosphate levels in rivers and other bodies of water causing eutrophication.
Q 32.B
Water is not suitable for fires involving oil and petrol. Becasue water is heavier than oil. So, it sinks
below the oil, and oil keeps burning on top.
For fires involving electrical equipment and inflammable materials like petrol, carbon dioxide (CO2) is
the best extinguisher. CO, being heavier than oxygen, covers the fire like a blanket. Since the contact
between the fuel and oxygen is cut off, the fire is controlled.
Q 33.A
The Global Warming Potential (GWP) was developed to allow comparisons of the global warming
impacts of different gases. Specifically, it is a measure of how much energy the emissions of 1 ton of a
gas will absorb over a given period of time, relative to the emissions of 1 ton of carbon dioxide (CO2).
The larger the GWP, the more that a given gas warms the Earth compared to CO2 over that time period.
Hence, statement 1 is correct. The time period usually used for GWPs is 100 years. Methane (CH4) is
estimated to have a GWP of 2836 over 100 years. Nitrous Oxide (N2O) has a GWP 265298 times that
of CO2 for a 100-year timescale. N2O emitted today remains in the atmosphere for more than 100 years,
on average. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 34.D
El Salvador, Central America's smallest nation, has become the first country in the world to ban metals
mining nationwide following a long-running dispute with a Canadian-Australian company over an
environmentally questioned gold project. El Salvador's capital and largest city is San Salvador.
Q 35.D
The major components of the economic drain, according to Dadabhai Naoroji, were:
o Salaries and pensions of civil and military officials posted in India
o Interests on loan taken by the Indian Government from abroad.
o Profits on foreign investment in India
o Stores purchased in Britain for civil and military departments
o Payments to be made for shipping, banking and insurance services
Q 36.C
o The Vaikom Satyagraha was the first systematically organized agitation in Kerala against orthodoxy to
secure the rights of the depressed classes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The Satyagraha (in Travancore, Kerala) was led by K.P. Kesava aimed at securing freedom of movement
for all sections of society through the public roads leading to the Sri Mahadevar Temple at Vaikom.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o The satyagraha was reinforced by jathas from Punjab and Madurai. Mahatma Gandhi undertook a tour
of Kerala in support of the movement. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 37.D
The Atlee Government in 1946 decided to send a high powered mission of three British Cabinet
members to India to find out ways and means for a negotiated, peaceful transfer of power to India.
These Cabinet members were:
o Pethick Lawrence- Secretary of State for India
o Stafford Cripps- President of the Board of Trade
o A.V. Alexander- First Lord of Admiralty
Q 38.D
o The tradition of building temples and embellishing them with carvings and paintings was prominent
during the reign of the Chola kings. The temples of Brihadeswara at Thanjavur were built during the
reigns of Rajaraja Chola and his son, Rajendra Chola. Most important Chola paintings are seen in
Brihadeswara temple. The paintings were executed on the walls of the narrow passage surrounding the
shrine. Two layers of paint were found when they were discovered. The upper layer was painted during
the Nayak period, in the sixteenth century.
o When the Pandyas rose to power, they too patronized art. Tirumalaipuram caves and Jaina caves at
Sittanvasal are some of the surviving examples. A few fragmented layers of paintings can be seen in
Tirumalaipuram. In Sittanavasal, the paintings are visible on the ceilings of shrines, in verandas, and on
the brackets.
o The earliest Brahmanical paintings so far known are the fragments found in Badami caves. Though the
technique follows that of Ajanta and Bagh, the modelling is much more sensitive in texture and
expression and the outline soft and elastic. The paintings of Ajanta, Bagh and Badami represent the
classical tradition of the North and the Deccan at its best.
Q 39.D
o The most powerful trend of medieval Indian literature between 1000 and 1800 A.D. is devotional
(bhakti) poetry which dominates almost all the major languages of the country. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
o Muslim poets like Malik Muhammad Jayasi, Raskhan, Rahim and other wrote Sufi and Vaishnava poetry.
The religious and cultural synthesis that was a special feature of medieval India finds abundant
expression in its literature. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o Love ballads and heroic poetry in Punjabi, known as Kissa and Var, were popular Punjabi medieval forms.
The most famous Punjabi love ballad is Hir Ranjha, an immortal book by a Muslim poet called Warris
Shah. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 40.D
o Kathiawari originated in Gir forests of South Kathiawar in Gujarat. Horns are peculiarly curved, giving a
half moon appearance. Milk yield ranges from 1200-1800 kgs. This bread is known for its hardiness and
disease resistance.
o Sahiwal originated in Montgomery region of undivided India. It is one of the best indigenous dairy
breed. The average milk yield of this breed is between 1400 and 2500kgs.
o Kankrej originated from Southeast Rann of Kutch of Gujarat and adjoining Rajasthan districts. Kankrej is
valued for fast, powerful, draught cattle and is useful in ploughing and carting.
Q 41.D
World Wetlands Day on 2 February, 2017 had the theme "Wetlands and Disaster Risk Reduction".
Wetlands have a vital, yet not fully recognized, role for disaster risk reduction and to mitigate the effects
of climate change. This comes as a result of some key wetland functions such as those of:
o Climate regulation through carbon storage, especially in peatlands.
o Protection from extreme weather events such as lagoons that provide coastal protection against
storms.
o Natural water storage performed by marshes and ponds; restitution in the dry period (thus fighting
against drought); and the moisturing role in the fight against soil compaction.
o Inland wetlands act as a sponge relieving both floods and droughts. Peatlands and wet grasslands
alongside river basins absorb rainfall and control flow into streams and rivers. Peatlands alone also
store twice as much carbon as all forests in the world.
Q 42.A
Shankaracharya established four Maths (Monasteries) at Shingeri, Puri, Dwaraka and Badrinath. No
Math was established at Rameswaram. The objective of these maths were propagation of Sanathana
Dharma.
Q 43.A
o Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional
status and protection to co-operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in
the constitution:
It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19(1)).
It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies (Article
43-B).
It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled "The Co-operative Societies" (Articles
243-ZH to 243-ZT).
o Statement 3 is not correct: The state legislature may make provisions for the maintenance of accounts
by the co-operative societies and the auditing of such accounts at least once in each financial year. It
shall lay down the minimum qualifications and experience of auditors and auditing firms that shall be
eligible for auditing the accounts of the co-operative societies. Every co-operative society shall be
audited by an auditor or auditing firm, appointed by the general body of the co-operative society. But,
such an auditor or auditing firm shall be appointed from a panel approved by the State Government or a
body authorised by the State Government on this behalf.
Q 44.C
Both statements are correct.
Tobin Tax is a means of taxing spot currency conversions. It was developed with the intention of
penalizing short-term currency speculation. Thus, It discourages currency speculation and tries
controlling the stability of a given country's currency.
Q 45.A
o The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) through the Indian Agricultural Research Institute
(IARI) has formulated a collaborative research project entitled SENSAGRI: SENsor based Smart
AGRIculture involving six partner Institutes (Agriculture & IT) to be funded by Information Technology
Research Academy (ITRA), Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DEITY), Ministry of
Communication and Information Technology (MCIT), Govt. of India and ICAR.
o The major objective is to develop indigenous prototype for drone based crop and soil health monitoring
system using hyperspectral remote sensing (HRS) sensors. This technology could also be integrated with
satellite-based technologies for large scale applications.
o Drone technology based unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) has ability for smooth scouting over farm fields,
gathering precise information and transmitting the data on real time basis.
o This capability could be used for the benefit of farming sector at regional/local scale for assessing land
and crop health; extent, type and severity of damage besides issuing forewarning, post-event
management and settlement of compensation under crop insurance schemes.
Q 46.B
o Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution provides for reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Lok
Sabha only on the basis of population ratio.
o Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the
case of Rajya Sabha and system of territorial representation for the election of members to the Lok
Sabha.
Q 47.B
Great Rift Valley is a geological fault system of SW Asia and E Africa. It extends 4,830 km from N Syria to
central Mozambique. The northernmost extension runs south through Syria and Lebanon, the Jordan
valley, the Dead Sea, and the Gulf of Aqaba.
It continues into the trough of the Red Sea and at the southern end branches into the Gulf of Aden,
where it continues as part of the Mid-Oceanic Ridge of the Indian Ocean.
The main section of the valley in Africa continues from the Red Sea south west across Ethiopia and south
across Kenya, Tanzania, and Malawi to the lower Zambezi River valley in Mozambique. Many small lakes
in Ethiopia and several long narrow lakes, notably lakes Turkana and Nyasa, lie on its course.
Just north of Lake Nyasa there is a western branch, which runs north, chiefly along the eastern border of
Congo ; this branch is marked by a chain of lakes, including lakes Tanganyika, Kivu, Edward, and Albert
(Mobutu).
Lake Titicaca is a lake in the Andes on the border of Bolivia and Peru in South America. It is not the part
of Great Rift Valley system.
Q 48.C
Relative humidity depends on both the water vapor content and the air temperature. At the same air
temperature, an increase in the water vapor content of the air increases the relative humidity as the air
approaches saturation. With the same water vapor content, an increase in air temperature causes a
decrease in relative humidity as the air moves farther away from being saturated.

The relative humidity is high near the equator because the actual vapor pressure ( amount of moisture)
is high. The relative humidity is high near the poles because the saturation vapor pressure is low.
Hence, both statements are correct.
Q 49.B
Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a measure of the trade-weighted average exchange rate of a
currency against a basket of currencies after adjusting for inflation differentials with regard to the
countries concerned and expressed as an index number relative to a base year.
The weights are determined by comparing the relative trade balance of a country's currency against
each country within the index. This exchange rate is used to determine an individual country's currency
value relative to the other major currencies in the index, such as the U.S. dollar, Japanese yen and the
euro.
Q 50.B
Statement 1 is not correct. Satavahanas show traces of matrilineal social structure. It was customary for
their king to be named after their mother (eg Gautamiputra Satakarni). Queens made important
religious gifts in their own right. But succession to the throne passed to the male member. So, the social
structure was only partially matrilineal.
Statement 2 is not correct. They did not issue any Gold coin as the Kushans did. They mostly issued coins
of Lead, copper and bronze.
Statement 3 is correct. Their official language was Prakrit. All inscriptions were composed in ths
language and written in Brahmi script.
Q 51.C
The Union HRD Ministry has recently in February of 2017 constituted a sub-committee of Central
Advisory Board of Education (CABE) under Chairmanship of Kadiyam Srihari to look into issues of girl's
education. It seeks to:
examine the reasons for low participation of girls in education, including the socio-economic factors
with resultant gender bias and suggest ways to reduce gender disparity so as to achieve better
gender parity index.
analyse girl's participation at all levels of school education across socio-economic groups of SC/ST,
minorities and in rural-urban areas and reduce existing educational disparities among them.
examine the existing schemes, measures and incentives aimed at enhancing girls participation and
ensuring their retention in education and suggest improvements and modifications in the existing
schemes.

Q 52.B
Nor Westers :
These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature can be
understood from the local nomenclature of 'Kal Baisakhi' i.e. a calamity of the month of Baisakh. These
storms most frequently (move west to east in general) come from the west or north -west towards
Kolkata city of West Bengal state of India and hence are called Nor Westers.
These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. But due to their severity, cause extensive
damage to life and property.
The formation of nor westers is attributed to a warm, moist, southerly low-level flow from the Bay of
Bengal and an upper -level dry, cool, westerly or north-westerly flow giving rise to an atmosphere with
high latent instability. Norwesters generally originates over Bihar and Jharkhand state of India and strike
West Bengal and Orissa from the north-west. In Assam,these storms are known as "Bardoli Chheerha".
Q 53.A
Statement 1 is correct. Venture capital is financing that investors provide to startup companies and
small businesses that are believed to have long-term growth potential. For startups without access to
capital markets, venture capital is an essential source of money. Angel Investors are high net worth
individuals, who invest in start-ups.
Statement 2 is not correct. Risk is typically high for investors. Listed companies are old and established
one where as start-ups are new companies. So, they have high risk of failure.
Statement 3 is not correct. The venture capitalists usually get a say in company decisions. They get some
equity also. But there is no fixed return on investment.
Q 54.A
Statement 1 is correct: Lakshadweep islands are coral islands, and those continental shelves are from
the dead submerged coral reefs. Corals form continental shelf of 4000 sq. km
Statement 2 is not correct: Continental shelves of western coast are due to faulting and submergence of
the western flank. Sunken western flank formed the Arabian sea continental shelf whereas the eastern
flank remained as Western ghats
Q 55.A
o Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905 to unite and train Indians of
different ethnicities and religions in welfare work. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o It was a secular organisation in the country. It devoted itself to the underprivileged, rural and tribal
people, emergency relief work and other social causes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o The organisation has its headquarter in Pune and branches in Chennai, Mumbai, Allahabad, Nagpur and
other locales.
o Some of the members of the Society joined the agitation under the Home Rule League Movement
started by Annie Besant and Tilak. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 56.B
The term basadi is derived from the word vasati which refers to the place of residence of Jain monks.
Epigraphic evidence from 6th century indicates spread of Jainism in Karnataka. Several of these Jain
monastic establishments called basadis sprang up on the lands granted by the kings. They later became
centres of religious activities and became places of worship for Jains.
Q 57.B
o Statement 1 is not correct: In 2009, the Accelerated Rural Water Supply Programme was modified as the
National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP) with major emphasis on ensuring sustainability of
water availability in terms of potability, adequacy, convenience, affordability and equity, on a
sustainable basis, while also adopting decentralized approach involving PRIs and community
organizations. It is implemented by Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation.

o Statement 2 is correct: The XIIth Five Year plan approach of focus on piped water supply, increasing
household tap connections and raising drinking water supply norms from 40 lpcd to 55 lpcd have been
incorporated in implementing the NRDWP. The principal changes include:-
It focuses on piped water supply rather than on handpumps, so as to decrease the pressure on
ground water extraction and also ensure potability of water;
Enhancement of service levels for rural water supply from the norm of 40 lpcd to 55 lpcd for
designing of systems
Moving towards the target that, by 2017, at least 50 per cent of rural population in the country have
access to 55 lpcd within their household premises or within 100 metres radius, with at least 30 per
cent having individual household connections, as against 13 per cent;
Conjoint approach between rural water supply and rural sanitation so as to achieve saturation of
habitations with both these services;
Prioritisation of States which are lagging in terms of coverage with piped water supply;
Earmarking of funds for coverage of SC and ST population concentrated habitations;
Incentive to ASHA workers for encouraging households to take household connection.
Q 58.B
Cess:
A cess imposed by the central government is a tax on tax, levied by the government for a specific
purpose. Generally, cess is expected to be levied till the time the government gets enough money for
that purpose.For example, a cess for financing primary education the education cess (which is imposed
on all central government taxes) is to be spent only for financing primary education (SSA) and not for any
other purposes.A cess is different from the usual taxes like excise duty and personal income tax as it is
imposed as an additional tax besides the existing tax (i.e. tax on tax). At present, the main cess are:
education cess, road cess or (fuel cess), infrastructure cess, clean energy cess, krishi kalyan cess and
swachh bharat cess.
Surcharge:
Surcharge is a charge on any tax, charged on the tax already paid. As the name suggests, surcharge is an
additional charge or tax. The main surcharges are that on personal income tax (on high income slabs and
on super rich) and on corporate income tax.
A common feature of both surcharge and cess is that the centre need not share it with states. Following
are the difference between the usual taxes, surcharge and cess.
o The usual taxes goes to the consolidated fund of India and can be spend for any purposes.
o Surcharge also goes to the consolidated fund of India and can be spent for any purposes.
o Cess goes to Consolidated Fund of India but can be spend only for the specific purposes.
The main difference between surcharge and cess is that despite they are not shareable with state
governments, surcharge can be kept with the CFI and spent like any other taxes, the cess should be kept
as a separate fund after allocating to CFI and can be spent only for a specific purpose. This means cess
can be spent only for the specific purpose for which it is created. If the purpose for which the cess is
created is fulfilled, it should be eliminated.
Q 59.C
o The Constitution has used various expressions like 'socially and educationally backward classes of
citizens' in Article 15, 'backward class of citizens' in Article 16, 'weaker sections of the people' in Article
46 and again 'socially and educationally backward classes' in Article 340.
o In 1991, the Narasimha Rao Government introduced two changes: (a) preference to the poorer sections
among the OBCs in the 27% quota, i.e., adoption of the economic criteria in granting reservation, and (b)
reservation of another 10% of jobs for poorer (economically backward) sections of higher castes who are
not covered by any existing schemes of reservation.
o In the famous Mandal case (1992), the scope and extent of Article 16(4), which provides for reservation
of jobs in favour of backward classes, has been examined thoroughly by the Supreme Court. Though the
Court has rejected the additional reservation of 10% for poorer sections of higher castes, it upheld the
constitutional validity of 27% reservation for the OBCs.

Q 60.B
o Statement 1 is not correct: The Radcilffe Committee was appointed by Lord Mountbatten, the final
Viceroy of India, to recommend how regions of Punjab and Bengal were to be divided between India and
Pakistan.
o Statement 2 is correct: It consisted of four members from the Indian National Congress and four from
the Muslim League and was chaired by Sir Cyril Radcliffe.
Q 61.B
o Stent is a tube-shaped device which is inserted into a blocked blood vessel.
o It helps clear the blockage in arteries, sometimes through physical means (Bare Metal stents) and often
through the drugs it gives out at a slow rate (Drug eluting stents).
o Thinner the stent, more sophisticated and expensive it is supposed to be.
Q 62.D
o The Energy Architecture Performance Index (EAPI), developed by the World Economic Forum, aims to
provide an additional set of data to help leaders benchmark the current performance of national energy
systems, and inform decision-making in the context of the changes under way in the global energy
landscape.
o Being compiled since 2013, the Energy Architecture Performance Index (EAPI) is a composite index that
focuses on tracking specific indicators to measure the energy system performance of 127 countries.
o It has 18 indicators defined across the three sides of the 'energy triangle' -- economic growth and
development, environmental sustainability, and energy access and security.
o India has marginally improved its position to 87th place this year (2017).
o Top 5 Countries are: Switzerland (1), Norway (2), Sweden (3), Denmark (4) and France (5).
Q 63.B
Biosphere reserves are demarcated into following 3 inter-related zones:
o Core Zone: Core zone must contain suitable habitat for numerous plant and animal species,
including higher order predators and may contain centres of endemism. Core areas often conserve
the wild relatives of economic species and also represent important genetic reservoirs having
exceptional scientific interest. A core zone being National Park or Sanctuary/protected/regulated
mostly under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Whilst realizing that perturbation is an ingredient
of ecosystem functioning, the core zone is to be kept free from human pressures external to the
system.
o Buffer Zone: The buffer zone, adjoins or surrounds core zone, uses and activities are managed in this
area in the ways that help in protection of core zone in its natural condition. These uses and
activities include restoration, demonstration sites for enhancing value addition to the resources,
limited recreation, tourism, fishing, grazing, etc; which are permitted to reduce its effect on core
zone. Research and educational activities are to be encouraged. Human activities, if natural within
BR, are likely to continue if these do not adversely affect the ecological diversity.
o Transition Zone: The transition area is the outermost part of a biosphere reserve. This is usually not
delimited one and is a zone of cooperation where conservation knowledge and management skills
are applied and uses are managed in harmony with the purpose of the biosphere reserve. This
includes settlements, crop lands, managed forests and area for intensive recreation and other
economic uses characteristics of the region.
Q 64.C
When a disease-carrying microbe enters our body, the body produces antibodies to fight the invader.
The body also remembers how to fight the microbe if it enters again. So, if dead or weakened microbes
are introduced in a healthy body, the body fights and kills them by producing suitable antibodies. The
antibodies remain in the body and we are protected from the disease causing microbes. This is how a
vaccine works. Several diseases, including cholera, tuberculosis, smallpox and hepatitis can be prevented
by vaccination.

Q 65.C
o Assam government has initiated a project to make river island Majuli the country's first ever Carbon
Neutral district by 2020.
o The project titled 'Sustainable Action for Climate Resilient Development in Majuli' (SACReD, Majuli) has
been initiated by Assam's department of Environment and Forest.
o Majuli is the biggest river island in the world and also the first island district of the country.
o The island had a total area of 1,250 square kilometers at the beginning of the 20th century, but has lost a
major chunk of its land due to relentless erosion by the Brahmaputra.
Q 66.B
o Metcalfe (Governor general 1835-36) is knows as Liberator of Indian press. He repealed the obnoxious
1823 ordinance which meant that starting or using a press without license was a legal offence. The new
press act 1835 required a printer to give a precise account of premise of a publication and cease
functioning if required by similar declaration.
Q 67.A
Goa Mollem National Park
Manipur - Keibul Lamjao National Park
Jharkhand Betla National Park
Q 68.D
o In addition to the budget that contains the ordinary estimates of income and expenditure for one
financial year, various other grants are made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special
circumstances:
o Supplementary Grant: It is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the
appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that
year.
o Additional Grant: It is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional
expenditure upon some new service not contempleted in the budget for that year.
o Excess Grant: It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of
the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the
financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they
must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
o Vote of Credit: It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on
account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with
the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok
Sabha.
o Exceptional Grant: It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any
financial year.
o Token Grant: It is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made
available by reappropriation. A demand for the grant of a token sum (of Re 1) is submitted to the vote of
the Lok Sabha and if assented, funds are made available.
o Reappropriation: involves transfer of funds from one head to another. It does not involve any additional
expenditure.
o Supplementary, additional, excess and exceptional grants and vote of credit are regulated by the same
procedure which is applicable in the case of a regular budget.
Q 69.D
o The Competition Act, 2002 was enacted by the Parliament of India and governs Indian competition law.
It replaced the archaic The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.

o It is an Act to give, keeping in view of the economic development of the country, for the establishment
of a Commission to prevent practices having adverse effect on competition, to promote and sustain
competition in markets, to protect the interests of consumers and to ensure freedom of trade carried on
by other participants in markets, in India, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o In accordance with the provisions of the Amendment Act, the Competition Commission of India and the
Competition Appellate Tribunal have been established. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 70.B
o The objectives of EXIM Bank include - providing financial assistance to exporters and importers, and
functioning as the principal financial institution for coordinating the working of institutions engaged in
financing export and import of goods and services with a view to promoting the country's international
trade. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Established by the Government of India EXIM Bank commenced operations in 1982 under the Export-
Import Bank of India Act, 1981 as a purveyor of export credit, mirroring global Export Credit Agencies.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Exim Bank is managed by a Board of Directors, which has representatives from the Government, Reserve
Bank of India, Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India, a financial institution, public sector banks,
and the business community. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 71.B
o The National Highways Authority of India has been recently entrusted with developing India's first
Personal Rapid Transit (PRT) network or pod taxis, to be named Metrino for Delhi-NCR region.
o These pod taxis are small, automated, driverless vehicles that travel independently, suspended under an
overhead network of light guideways, 5-10m above the street, with docking stations for passengers to
get on and off.
Q 72.C
The PSUs fulfilling the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status.
(i) It should be having Navratna status.
(ii) It should be listed on Indian stock exchange with minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI
regulations.
(iii) Average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crore, during the last 3 years.
(iv) Average annual net worth of more than Rs. 15,000 crore, during the last 3 years.
(v) Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crore, during the last 3 years.
(vi) It should have significant global presence/international operations.
There is no criteria on the basis of market share.
Q 73.D
o The Red-Crowned Roof Turtle is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened
Species. Endemic to South Asia, the last known stronghold for this river turtle is on the Chambal River in
central India, however, small isolated populations may still exist in the Ganges and Brahmaputra river
basins.
o River Terrapin in Critically endangered on IUCN list. It used to be found in the large rivers and estuaries
of the coastal district of the Sundarbans. However, its spotting is extremely rare now and efforts are
being undertaken to save the species.
o In India, leatherback turtles nest mainly in the Andaman and Nicobar islands. They are the largest of
living sea turtles.
Q 74.B
o Sir William Wedderburn organised the Indian Parliamentary Committee in London in 1893 with himself
as chairman and Herbert Roberts as secretary. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o Its main aim was to raise voice against British policies in India and demand for Indian political reforms in
the House of Commons (British Parliament). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 75.A
o Statement 1 is correct : Article 29 provides that 'any section of the citizens' residing in any part of India
having a distinct language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. Further,
no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving
aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language. Thus, Article 29 grants
protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. However, the Supreme Court held
that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only. This is because of the use of
words section of citizens in the Article that include minorities as well as majority.
o Statement 2 is not correct : Article 30 grants the following rights to minorities, whether religious or
linguistic:
All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
The compensation amount fixed by the State for the compulsory acquisition of any property of a
minority educational institution shall not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed to them.
In granting aid, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution managed by a
minority
o The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic) and does not extend
to any section of citizens (as under Article 29)
o The right under Article 30 also includes the right of a minority to impart education to its children in their
own language.
Q 76.A
The Constitution (74th Amendment Act), 1992, does not apply to :-
o the Scheduled Areas referred to in clause (1) and the tribal areas referred to in clause (2), of Article
244 (administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas).
o Nothing in this Part shall be construed to affect the functions and powers of the Darjeeling Gorkha
Hill Council constituted under any law for the time being in force for the hill areas of the district of
Darjeeling in the State of West Bengal.
o Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may, by law, extend the provisions of this
Part to the Scheduled Areas and the tribal areas referred to in clause (1) subject to such exceptions
and modifications as may be specified in such law, and no such law shall be deemed to be an
amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Q 77.D
o Small savings schemes are designed to provide safe and attractive investment options to the public and
at the same time to mobilise resources for development.
o The small savings schemes include Post Office deposits, Public Provident Fund, Senior Citizen Savings,
National Savings Certificate and Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme.
Q 78.B
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of
India and in his absence, the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: A person appointed as a judge of a high court has to subscribe an oath
before the Governor of the state or the person appointed by him for this purpose.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Though the President of India appoints the Chief Minister of Delhi, his/her
oath is administered by the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.
Q 79.D
All the statements are correct.
o Seabuckthorn plant is popularly known as Leh berries. The MoEF and DRDO have launched a major
national initiative for seabuckthorn cultivation in the high-altitude, cold desert ecosystems. The

initiative is one of many conservation measures for fragile high-altitude ecosystems. Seabuckthorn,
also called the Wonder plantand Ladakh gold.
o It has multi- purpose medicinal and nutritional properties, and also helps in soil conservation and
nitrogen fixation.
o Seabuckthorn fruit grows in the cold deserts of Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, Lahul-Spiti in
Himachal Pradesh and some parts of Arunachal Pradesh.
o National Mission on Seabuckthorn stresses the need for creation of National Consortium of
Seabuckthorn to integrate functioning of Defense Institute of High Altitude Research (DIHAR), Leh,
which is one of the laboratories of Defense Research & Development Organization (DRDO) located at
Leh and allied institutions for promoting its impact at national level. DIHAR (DRDO) has been
appointed as the nodal centre of National Seabuckthorn Mission in view of the pioneering Research
and Development and commercialization of Seabuckthorn based products in India.
Q 80.D
The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was approved by the MHRD in 2015. The NIRF
ranks the institutions on the basis of five parameters: teaching-learning resources (student strength,
faculty-student ratio, faculty qualifications and experience, financial resources and utilisation); research
and professional practice (publications, quality of publications, patents, projects); graduation outcomes
(placement and higher studies, salary, Ph.D degrees awarded); outreach and inclusivity (diversity in
student pool); and perception (among peers, employers and the public).
Q 81.B
An ecological niche is the role and position a species has in its environment; how it meets its needs for
food and shelter, how it survives, and how it reproduces. A species' niche includes all of its interactions
with the biotic and abiotic factors of its environment. Biotic factors are living things, while abiotic
factors are nonliving things. It is advantageous for a species to occupy a unique niche in an ecosystem
because it reduces the amount of competition for resources that species will encounter.
Q 82.C
o Faults form in rocks when the stresses overcome the internal strength of the rock resulting in a fracture.
A fault can be defined as the displacement of once connected blocks of rock along a fault plane. This can
occur in any direction with the blocks moving away from each other. Faults occur from both tensional
and compressional forces.
o Deformation of rock involves changes in the shape and/or volume of these substances. Changes in shape
and volume occur when stress and strain causes rock to buckle and fracture or crumple into folds. A fold
can be defined as a bend in rock that is the response to compressional forces.
Q 83.D
o Kadambini Ganguly and Chandramukhi Basu were the first female graduate from India (Calcutta
University).
o She studied in Medical College, Bengal but could not get through the MD examination in 1888 as she
failed in one paper.
o However, the Principal of the College awarded her the Diploma called Graduate of Medical College of
Bengal which enabled her to do private practice. She was a practitioner of western medicine in India.
o She was among the 6 persons who addressed the Calcutta Session of INC in 1890.
o Annie besant was the first women president of INC and Sarojini naidu was the first Indian woman who
presided the INC.
Q 84.A
Slash and burn agriculture is a widely used method of growing food in which wild or forested land is
clear cut and any remaining vegetation burned. The resulting layer of ash provides the newly-cleared
land with a nutrient-rich layer to help fertilize crops. There are many problems that result from this -
deforestation, loss of habitat and species, an increase in air pollution and the release of carbon into the
atmosphere - which contributes to global climate change, and an increase in accidental fires. Slash and
burn agriculture also results in significant soil erosion and accompanying landslides, water
contamination, and/or dust clouds, as without trees and vegetation and their root systems, soil washes
away during heavy rains and blows away during droughts.
Q 85.C
When wind forces moist air landwards towards mountainous terrain, the mountain lifts the moist air
masses high into the atmosphere. Once the air rises, it cools and allows precipitation to occur. As the
wind or water vapor rises, they become unstable and heavy. They develop around condensational nuclei
and form thick clouds. They rise further and become unstable water droplets. They fall to the ground as
raindrops. This type of rainfall mostly occurs at the areas facing the hill or mountain called the windward
side. The opposite side or leeward side receives the descending dry air and low or no rain At times, it
comes as droplets or in a form shower. Characteristically, orographic rainfall occurs in mountainous
areas and along slopes of hills. The mountain or hill blocks and forces the rain bearing winds or water
vapor to rise. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due
to the pressure difference. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Precipitation in the form of intense afternoon showers of short duration is a feature of convective
rainfall. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 86.D
Oil palm is a humid tropical crop and thrives well where temperature ranges from 22-33C. It requires
around 80% humidity for optimum growth. The crop requires evenly distributed annual rainfall of about
150mm monthly. Oil Palm thrives best in well drained loamy, moist soil, alluvial soil rich in organic
matter. It does not grow well in saline and alkaline soils.
Q 87.A
The Vindhyas are continued eastwards as Bharner and Kaimur hills.
Satpura Range includes:
1. Rajpipla hills
2. Gawilgarh hills
3. Mahadeo hills
4. Maikala range
Purvanchal range includes:
1. Patkai Bum
2. Naga hills
3. Manipur hills
4. Lushai hills
The Abor Hills is a region of Arunachal Pradesh located in Himalayan range, in the northeast of India,
near the border with China. The hills are bordered by the Mishmi Hills and Miri Hills, and drained by the
Dibang River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra.
Q 88.A
Soil Steaming is a method of soil sterilization. It is the act of killing or destroying the action of diseases
causing organism that are present in the soil without causing harm to other plants.
Q 89.A
Nylon
Nylon is a man-made fibre which is strong, elastic and light. It is lustrous and easy to wash. So, it became
very popular for making clothes. Many articles are made from nylon such as socks, ropes, tents,
toothbrushes, car seat belts, sleeping bags, curtains etc. Nylon is also used for making parachutes and
ropes for rock climbing. A nylon thread is actually stronger than a steel wire.
Rayon
Rayon is obtained from a natural source, wood pulp, yet it is a man-made fibre. It is cheaper than silk
and can be woven like silk fibres. It can also be dyed in a wide variety of colours. Rayon is mixed with
cotton to make bed sheets or mixed with wool to make carpets.
Teflon
Teflon is a special plastic on which oil and water do not stick. It is used for nonstick coating on
cookwares.
Q 90.B
The Belmont Forum, created in 2009, is a high level group of the world's major and emerging funders of
global environmental change research and international science councils. It provides an opportunity to
identify, study and deliver international environmental research priorities, for the society, in an
accelerated way through transnational research collaboration between natural and social scientists and
alignment of international resources. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
India is a member of Belmont Forum, besides Australia, Brazil, Canada, European Commission, France,
Germany, Japan, Netherland, South Africa, UK and USA etc. Ministry of Earth Science (MoES), represents
India in the Belmont Forum since 2012. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 91.C
o The worlds largest artificial sun, called Synlight, by the German Aerospace Centre (DLR) was switched on
the 23rd of March 2017, with the intention of innovating the production of renewable energy.
o Synlight is housed in a three-storey building in Jlich, Germany and is composed of 149 Xenon short-arc
lamps which can produce a scorching heat of up to 3,000 degrees Celsius.
Q 92.C
Until 2010, National Highways continued to be numbered the way they were numbered in the National
Highways Act of 1956, which listed each National Highway. In 2010, the government issued a notification
to rationalise the numbering system, arguing that the existing number of National Highway does not
give any indication of its location and direction.
In the new system, all east-west highways have odd numbers, and all north-south highways have even
numbers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
On odd-numbered highways, the number increases from north to south. So a highway from Jodhpur to
Kanpur will have a smaller number than a highway from Mumbai to Chennai.
For even-numbered highways, the numbers increase from east to west. A highway from Kolkata to
Chennai will have a smaller number than a highway from Delhi to Mumbai. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
Q 93.B
Shahtoosh is a specific kind of shawl, which is woven with the hair of the Tibetan antelope (chiru), by
craftsmen of Kashmir. The Shahtoosh shawl is now a banned item with possession and sale being illegal
in most countries for Chiru is an endangered species under CITES. In India, the Tibetan Antelope is
protected by Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.
Q 94.D
After the death of Buddha, Buddhists text were compiled in the form of Tripitakas. It means 3 baskets to
hold three types of text. They were classified according to length as well as subject matter.
Vinay Pitaka included rules and regulations for those who joined the Sangha or monastic order. And the
Abhidhamma pitaka deals with the philosophical matters.
The Sutta Pitaka contains the teaching of the Buddha. Sutta means teaching. The text has more than
10,000 suttas.
Q 95.A
o Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003 inserted Article 75(1)(A)
i.e. the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not
exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People.
o Statement 2 is not correct : The nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President cannot be
enquired by any court. This provision emphasises the intimate and the confidential relationship between
the President and the ministers.
Q 96.B
o By 44th Amendment Act of 1978, President's Rule was brought under the scope of judicial review. In
Bommai case (1994), the following propositions have been laid down by the Supreme Court on
imposition of President's Rule in a state under Article 356:
The Presidential proclamation imposing President's Rule is subject to judicial review.
The satisfaction of the President must be based on relevant material. The action of the President can
be struck down by the court if it is based on irrelevant or extraneous grounds or if it was found to be
malafide or perverse.
Burden lies on the Centre to prove that relevant material exist to justify the imposition of the
President's Rule.
The court cannot go into the correctness of the material or its adequacy but it can see whether it is
relevant to the action.
If the court holds the Presidential proclamation to be unconstitutional and invalid, it has power to
restore the dismissed state government and revive the state legislative assembly if it was
suspended or dissolved.
The state legislative assembly should be dissolved only after the Parliament has approved the
presidential proclamation. Until such approval is given, the President can only suspend the assembly.
In case the Parliament fails to approve the proclamation, the assembly would get reactivated.
Secularism is one of the 'basic features' of the Constitution. Hence, a state government pursuing
anti-secular politics is liable to action under Article 356.
The question of the state government losing the confidence of the legislative assembly should be
decided on the floor of the House and until that is done the ministry should not be unseated.
Where a new political party assumes power at the Centre, it will not have the authority to dismiss
ministries formed by other parties in the states.
The power under Article 356 is an exceptional power and should be used only occasionally to meet
the requirements of special situations.
Q 97.D
Consider the following pairs:
Type of climate Area
1. Monsoon with: Wast coast of India south of Goa
short dry season
2. Monsoon with dry:
Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu
summer
3. Tropical savannah : Most of the Peninsular plateau, south of
Tropic of Cancer
4. Semi-arid steppe: NW Gujarat, some parts of Western
climate Rajasthan and Punjab
5. Hot Desert : Extreme western Rajasthan
6. Monsoon with dry: Ganga plain, eastern Rajasthan, northern
winter MP, most of NE India
7. Cold humid winter: Arunachal Pradesh
with short summer
8. Polar type : J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttaranchal
Q 98.D
The Government of India provides financial and technical assistance to the State/UT Governments for
activities aimed at wildlife conservation through the Centrally Sponsored Scheme viz. Integrated
Development of Wildlife Habitats. The scheme has following three components:
Support to Protected Areas (National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves and
Community Reserves)
Protection of Wildlife Outside Protected Areas
Recovery programmes for saving critically endangered species and habitats.

Through activities covered under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme Integrated Development of Wildlife
Habitats, it aims at Eco-development and community oriented activities like addressing man-animal
conflict, fostering ecotourism.
Q 99.A
o Motion of Thanks is a motion in Indian Parliament which follows the address of the President of India to
the joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at the commencement of first session of a new Lok
Sabha and first session of every year. Thus, it is the first session after each general election and the first
session of every fiscal year is addressed by the President.
o In this address, the President outlines the policies and programmes of the government in the preceding
year and ensuing year. At the end of the discussion, the motion is put to vote. This motion must be
passed in both the Houses. Otherwise, it amounts to the defeat of the government. Thus, this inaugural
speech of the President provides opportunity to the members of Parliament to raise discussions and
debates to examine and criticise the government and administration for its lapses and failures.
Q 100.D
o The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a committee of the Central Bank in India (Reserve Bank of
India), headed by its Governor, which is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy interest
rate (repo rate) to contain inflation within the specified target level. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are
correct.
o The MPC replaced the earlier system wherein the RBI governor, with the aid and advice of his internal
team and a technical advisory committee, had complete control over monetary policy decisions. A
Committee-based approach adds lot of value and transparency to monetary policy decisions.
o MPC was set up consequent to the agreement reached between Government and RBI to task RBI with
the responsibility for price stability and inflation targeting.
o Each Member of the Monetary Policy Committee has to write a statement specifying the reasons for
voting in favour of, or against the proposed resolution, and the same alongwith the resolution adopted
by the MPC is published as minutes of the meeting by RBI after 14 days of the said meeting. In addition,
subsequent to the MPC meeting, RBI has to publish a document explaining the steps to be taken by it to
implement the decisions of the Monetary Policy Committee, including any changes thereto.
o MPC has 6 members, - the RBI Governor (Chairperson), the RBI Deputy Governor in charge of monetary
policy, one official nominated by the RBI Board and the remaining three members would represent the
Government of India.
o The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government shall hold office
for a period of four years, with immediate effect or until further orders, whichever is earlier. Hence,
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