TABLE OF CONTENTS

PAGE

FOREWORD i

INTRODUCTION iii

SUBJECT-WISE ANALYSIS

1. ENGLISH 1

Paper 1 2

Paper 2 14

2. HINDI 42

3. ELECTIVE ENGLISH 76
 FOREWORD

This document of the analysis of pupils performance at the ISC Year 12 and ICSE Year 10 Examination is one
of its kind. It has grown and evolved over the years to provide feedback to schools in terms of the strengths and
weaknesses of the candidates in handling the examinations.

We commend the work of Mrs. Poonam Sodhi and the ISC Division of the Council who have painstakingly
prepared this analysis. We are grateful to the examiners who have contributed through their comments on the
performance of the candidates under examination as well as for their suggestions to teachers and students for the
effective transaction of the syllabus.

We hope the schools will find this document useful. We invite comments from schools on its utility and quality.

Gerry Arathoon
November 2015 Chief Executive & Secretary

i
 INTRODUCTION

The Council has consistently been bringing out the Pupil Performance Analysis document since 1994.
This document is reviewed every year and changes incorporated based on suggestions received from various
quarters which include experts in the field of education as well as heads of schools and teachers, in order to
make the study more useful and meaningful.

This document comprises of qualitative analysis of performance of pupils at the ISC examinations. Performance
Analysis has been carried out for the most popular subjects that are largely ascribed to, by the schools.
The purpose of this study is to enable teachers to see at a glance, overall performance of all candidates who have
taken the examination and examiners comments on each question. This would enable the teachers to understand
the assessment of the ISC examinations better and would help them to guide their students more effectively.

The qualitative analysis details the assessment criteria followed for evaluation of answer scripts. Once the
process of evaluation of scripts is over, examiners are requested to give detailed comments on the performance
of candidates for each question. This includes the examiners response on what constitutes a good answer;
common errors made by candidates while answering the questions; their popularity with students and overall
performance of students.

Mrs. Shilpi Gupta along with Mrs. Desiree Tennent, Ms. Mansi Guleria and Mrs. Theresa Cherian have done
commendable work in ensuring that this document is prepared well in time, in order to guide students who will
be appearing for the ISC Examination.

Poonam Sodhi
November 2015 Deputy Secretary

iii
 ENGLISH
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 70,120
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 1
Mean Marks Obtained 77.97

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 40 241 6832 32928 30079
Percentage of Candidates 0.06 0.34 9.74 46.96 42.90
Cumulative Number 40 281 7113 40041 70120
Cumulative Percentage 0.06 0.40 10.14 57.10 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

46.96
50.00
42.90
Percentage of Candidates

45.00
40.00
35.00
30.00
25.00
20.00
15.00 9.74
10.00
5.00 0.06 0.34

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100

Marks Obtained

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B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

ENGLISH PAPER 1 (LANGUAGE)

Question 1
Write a composition (in approximately 450-500 words) on any one of the following subjects: [30]
(You are reminded that you will be rewarded for orderly and coherent presentation of material,
use of appropriate style and general accuracy of spelling, punctuation and grammar.)
(a) Courage does not mean the absence of fear, but implies an attempt to conquer fear.
Describe some of your worst fears and how you managed to overcome them.
(b) Grandparents are a source of joy to us. Narrate the most memorable experience you
have had with your grandparents.
(c) Films should be made to escape from reality, not to remind us of how grim life is.
Argue for or against this statement.
(d) How far do you agree that nice people are seldom successful and thoroughly successful
people are seldom nice?
(e) Eyes.
(f) Write an original story beginning with the following words:
The news came as a pleasant surprise..
Comments of Examiners
(a) This was a descriptive topic where the candidates
Suggestions for teachers
were required to write on fear and how to
Teach students to plan logically
conquer fear. Most candidates wrote only on before writing the essay.
courage without writing on fear and how to Practice in essay writing is a MUST
conquer it, while in some cases only fear was in class.
highlighted. There was evidence of lack of planning, Special emphasis should be laid on
repetition of ideas, linguistic and structural errors maintaining the tense, correct usage
and rambling. of verbs, prepositions and
(b) A large number of candidates attempted this topic. conjunctions
Most did a good job but in some cases, a general Teach students to read and
account of how their grandparents were and the understand key words in the topic
relationship between them was given but an account before writing the essay.
Explain the necessity of taking a
of a memorable incident was left out. As a result,
STAND
marks were lost. Students to be told not to use
(c) Most of the candidates who attempted this topic did vernacular idioms or their
not take a stand. A large number first wrote that translations in the essays.
films should be for entertainment and then There should be an open discussion
contradicted themselves. Many of the essays were on various topics in class for
long and rambling, which led to repetition of ideas. circulation of ideas.
Essays lacked lucidity, coherence and planning.

2
(d) There was much confusion between nice and
successful in this essay. Many candidates drifted Teach students the essential
away from the topic and failed to give their own components of a short story, such as
viewpoint. The essays tended to lack a personal plot, characters, dialogues, a proper
perspective. beginning and an end.
(e) This one-word topic Eyes was attempted by a
fairly large number of candidates. Many wrote from a scientific point of view about the eye, how
it works, its several parts, the problems faced by those who lack eyesight, and so on. Most essays
were well-written and properly organized; however some lacked focus and creativity and were full
of errors.
(f) Story writing was attempted by quite a few candidates. However, most essays consisted of a
simple narrative only. Many were neither original nor creative, without a plot, story, characters,
dialogues and a proper conclusion. A large number lacked coherence and lucidity and were full of
errors.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
The quality of language employed, the range of appropriateness of vocabulary and sentence structure,
syntax, the correctness of grammatical constructions, punctuation and spelling decided the overall
grade of the essay.
Marks were deducted for gross errors like errors of agreement and number, serious tense errors,
wrong verb form, elementary errors of sentence construction, misuse of vocabulary, errors in spellings,
punctuation or lack of it. Marks were also deducted for use of incorrect or irrelevant idioms, misuse of
pronouns, articles and preposition.
(a) This was a descriptive topic. The candidate were required to describe his or her worst fears and
how he / she managed to overcome them.
(b) This was a narrative topic. It called for a true account of a personal experience. Candidates
needed to write about any incident with their grandparents during their lives which was
particularly memorable. (as a teenager/17 year old could also talk of a single grandparent)
(c) This was an argumentative topic. Candidates had to take a definite stand and express it clearly.
The stand had to be supported by effective argumentation. Candidates could NOT sit on the
fence. Candidates were not penalized for holding a view different from that of the examiner.
(d) This was a reflective topic. The candidates were required to write in some detail, their opinion
on how nice people are seldom successful and thoroughly successful people are seldom nice.
Candidates had to agree or disagree with the topic or even give their general views.
(e) This was a one-word topic. The content had a wide range / scope. All relevant interpretations /
approaches were accepted.
(f) Candidates were required to begin their story with the given words. The story had to be original
and not plagiarised or lifted partly or wholly from any source. It needed to have all the
necessary elements such as: plot, characterisation and dialogue. It was not to be a mere narration
of events. Originality of thought and a creative bent of mind were given credit.

3
Question 2
Write an article for your School magazine on a competition that was recently held in your school. [20]
Write the article in about 300 words using the points given below:

Name of the competition nature of event organisers number of participants chief guest
judges quality of the competition criteria for judgement winners overall experience.

Comments of Examiners
This was a question based on amplification of given
points on a competition held in school. Many
candidates scored because all the points were present in
the piece of writing. However, a lot of candidates could
not differentiate between competition, tournament and
fest. Many copied the points word by word from the
question paper; this led to the word limit not being
maintained. There was lack of awareness regarding rules
and regulations of competitions and criteria for
judgement.
Suggestions for teachers
Practice in writing a variety of
reports is a MUST in class.
Students must be encouraged to read
newspapers so that the correct usage
and style of language is maintained.
Instructions on how to write a
proper report must be given to
students.
Special care must be taken to add to
the vocabulary of students; technical
terms and event-related words must
be dealt with.
Importance of the word-limit should
be explained.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
This was an exercise in amplification. There had to be effective linking of points. Candidates could
use the points in any order they chose; however, all points had to be used. If there was no development
of points, marks were deducted.

Question 3
Answer sections (a), (b) and (c).
(a) In each of the following items, sentence A is complete, while sentence B is [10]
not. Complete sentence B, making it as similar as possible to sentence A.
Write sentence B in each case.
Example:
(0) (A) If you want to earn well, you must work hard.
(B) To earn
Answer: (0) To earn well, you must work hard.

4
 (1) (A) Sachin is an outstanding sportsman and a good artist.
(B) Besides.
(2) (A) Mother said to Paul, A courier came for you yesterday.
(B) Mother told Paul that.....
(3) (A) As soon as the minister took the oath, the spectators started
applauding.
(B) No sooner ..
(4) (A) He is so short that he cannot be a soldier.
(B) He is too ..
(5) (A) The lawyer examined the documents with utmost care.
(B) The documents...
(6) (A) I will buy the horse if it is quite sound.
(B) Unless.
(7) (A) Only Shakespeare could write such a tragedy.
(B) No one.
(8) (A) Rita is a journalist and writer.
(B) Not only .....
(9) (A) Although Lakshmi worked very hard, she failed in the
examination.
(B) Notwithstanding Lakshmis .
(10) (A) No one would deny that he was totally fit before his death.
(B) Everyone ...
(b) Fill in each blank with a suitable word. (Do not write the sentence.) [5]
(1) Do you want to take _______ every single object from the box?
(2) The plane must take _________ before dark.
(3) The children spoke ______ a whisper as they were scared.
(4) We must not speak ill about a person ______ his back.
(5) He disliked the play so much that he walked _______ in the middle of
the first act.
(6) Walking barefoot _________ the grass is very good for health.

5
 (7) This rule does not apply _________ you as you are less than eighteen
years old.
(8) You must apply ________ the job immediately.
(9) They have been living in Delhi _________ ten years.
(10) Mrs. Kapur has been living in Chennai_______ 2000.

(c) Fill in the blanks in the passage given below with the appropriate form of the [5]
verb given in brackets. Do not write the passage, but write the verbs in the
correct order.
Two carpenters ______(1)(work) on Mr. Sharmas roof. When they
________(2) (stop) work at 6 p.m., they ______(3) (leave) their ladder ______
(4)(lean) against the house. At 7 p.m., Raju, a thief, passed by the house and
________(5)(see) the ladder. The house___________(6)(be) now empty as
Mr. and Mrs. Sharma ________(7) (go) to the market. Raju _______(8)
(climb) up the ladder, ________(9)(get) in through a first-floor window, and
_______(10)(go) straight to the main bed room where he stole all of
Mrs. Sharmas jewellery.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates used the exact words of the question
sentence. Many candidates made superfluous use of
commas which caused them to lose marks. Rules of
transformation were not clear to most candidates.
(b) This part was mostly attempted satisfactorily.
However, some candidates wrote more than one
answer, and many were careless while writing,
making errors in spelling.
(c) This part of the question was attempted satisfactorily.
However, once again, candidates erred in giving more
than one answer. Some candidates did not follow the
correct sequence of tenses; the passage then began to
lack coherence.
Suggestions for teachers
Rules of punctuation to be made
clear to students.
Enough practice must be given in
transformation of sentences.
Instruct students to write only ONE
appropriate answer.
Rules of tenses and sequence of
tenses should be made clear to
students.
Give more practice in verbs and
tenses and insist on the careful
working out of the passage,
following the correct order.

6
MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a) The opening word of each answer (part B) had to be given as in the question paper. No other
beginning was acceptable.
(1) (B) Besides being an outstanding sportsman, Sachin is a good artist.
(2) (B) Mother told Paul that a courier had come for him the previous day / the day
before.
(3) (B) No sooner did the minister take the oath than the spectators started applauding.
(4) (B) He is too short to be a soldier.
(5) (B) The documents were examined by the lawyer with utmost care.
The documents were examined with utmost care by the lawyer.
(6) (B) Unless the horse is quite sound, I will not buy it.
(7) (B) No one but Shakespeare could write such a tragedy./
No one save Shakespeare could write such a tragedy.
(8) (B) Not only is Rita a journalist but also a writer.
(9) (B) Notwithstanding Lakshmis hard work, she failed in the examination.
(10) (B) Everyone would agree/accept/admit that he was totally fit before his death.
(b) The candidates were advised not to copy the sentences (This was done with a view to save
their time). However the strict order had to be maintained.
(1) out
(2) off
(3) in
(4) behind
(5) out
(6) on
(7) to
(8) for
(9) for
(10) since
(c) The candidates were advised not to copy the sentence. However the strict order had to be
maintained.
(1) were working / had been working
(2) stopped

7
 (3) left
(4) leaning
(5) saw
(6) was
(7) had gone
(8) climbed
(9) got
(10) went

Question 4
Read the passage given below and answer the questions (a), (b) and (c) that follow:
(1) To be encumbered with a corpse is to be in a difficult position. True, any doctor, even
one just out of medical school, would have been able to diagnose the cause of death.
The man had died of heart failure or what the doctors call cardiac arrest. The cause of
his heart having stopped pumping blood was that someone had slid a sharp sliver of
steel between his ribs just far enough to penetrate the great muscle of the heart and to 5
cause a serious and irreversible leakage of blood so that it stopped beating. Cardiac
arrest, as I said.
(2) I wasnt too anxious to find a doctor because the knife was mine and the hilt had been
in my hand when he died. I stood on the open road with the body at my feet and I was
scared, so scared that the nausea rose in my throat to choke me. This particular body 10
had been a stranger I had never seen him before in my life.
(3) I was unarmed, if you except the sgian dubh the black knife which I always carry.
The sgian dubh is a much underrated weapon. Mine is at least a hundred and fifty
years old. The ebony handle is ribbed on one side to give a good grip, but smooth on
the other side so it draws clear without catching; the blade is less than four inches long; 15
the stone set in the handle balances the knife so that it makes a superlative throwing
weapon. I carry it in a flat sheath in my left sock.
(4) This is how it had happened.
(5) A little after I had driven out of the city, I saw a car ahead, pulled off the road, and a
man waving the universally recognized distress signal of the stranded motorist. It 20
turned out, quite naturally, that there was something wrong with his car and he
couldnt get it to move. I got out, walked over to his car and peered at the exposed
engine.

8
(6) He didnt use the gun straight away. He first tried to take a swipe at me with a well-
designed little club. I turned my head and saw his upraised arm and dodged sideways. 25
If the club had connected with my skull it would have jarred my brains loose; instead it
hit my shoulder and my whole arm went numb.
(7) I hopped back and groped for the sgian dubh as I went. Fortunately its a left-handed
weapon which was just as well because my right arm wasnt going to be of any use.
(8) He came for me again but when he saw the knife he hesitated. He dropped the club and 30
dipped his hand beneath his jacket and it was my turn to hesitate. But his club had a
leather wrist loop and the dangling weapon spoilt his draw and I jumped him just as
the pistol came out.
(9) I didnt stab him. He swung around and ran straight into the blade. He sagged against
me with a look of surprise on his face. Then he went down at my feet and the knife 35
came free.
(10) So there I was on a lonely road with a newly created corpse at my feet and a knife in
my hand, a bad taste in my mouth and a frozen brain.
(11) From the time I had got out of my car to the moment of death had been less than two
minutes. 40

Adapted from Running Blind by Desmond Bagley

(a) (i) Given below are four words and phrases. Find the words which have [4]
a similar meaning in the passage:
(1) burdened
(2) enter
(3) not given much importance
(4) most effective
(ii) For each of the words given below, write a sentence of at least [4]
ten words using the same word unchanged in form, but with a
different meaning from that which it carries in the passage:

(1) arrest (line 4)

(2) draws (line 17)

(3) set (line 18)

(4) club (line 28)

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(b) Answer the following questions in your own words as briefly as possible:
(i) How did the stranger die? [3]
(ii) Why was the narrator scared? [2]
(iii) Describe the narrators weapon. [3]
(iv) Why did the narrator stop his car and get out? [2]
(c) Describe the incident of the killing of the stranger in not more than 100 words
(Paragraphs 5 to 9). Failure to keep within the word limit will be penalised.
You will be required to:
(i) List your ideas clearly in point form. [6]
(ii) In about 100 words, write your points in the form of a connected passage. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Some candidates were unable to locate the
correct word, especially for (3) and (4).
(ii) A number of candidates had limited knowledge
of the different meanings / functions of the same
word. Instructions on usage in sentences were
not followed in many cases. At times, the
sentences were too short and the meaning was
unclear.
(b) (i) Many candidates misunderstood the question and
wrote about the whole sequence of events that
caused the strangers death.
(ii) Several candidates could not analyse what
caused the narrators fear; they wrote instead
about the consequence of the fear.
(iii)Most candidates answered this question
satisfactorily. However, some could not present
a systematic description of the weapon.
(iv) Analysis of the exact answer was not done by a
number of candidates who did not write the
required points.
(c) (i) Several candidates overlooked the hint given for
answering the question (paragraphs 5 to 9).
Note-making rules were not clear to a number of
candidates as single words were written, which
carried no meaning and had no relevance to the
given question. At times, ideas were haphazardly
noted, with no idea of the sequence of events. In
some cases, only a few points were written, not
sufficient to cover the complete answer.
Suggestions for teachers
Encourage vocabulary and word
building exercises. Encourage use
of dictionary.
Give practice in making sentences
with words having multiple
meanings / functions.
Stress upon reading the instructions
carefully.
Teach students to analyse and
distinguish between cause and
effect.
Tell students that when description
is to be done, proper sequence of
the features must be given.
Teach students the basic rules of
note-making. Practice must be
given with the help of short unseen
passages.
Prcis writing, using complete
sentences, condensation and
precision in presenting information
correctly and relevantly should be
made very clear by teachers.

10
 (ii) In some cases, the prcis were not written in 100 words. In other cases, the summarised passage
had no connection with the points in (c)(i). A number of candidates wrote the whole summary
in the form of notes. Incomplete sentences and random phrases were written, with no regard for
punctuation and articles, which made the passage meaningless and incoherent.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a) (i) Candidates were instructed to find words, from the passage which had a similar meaning to
those given in the question paper.
(1) Encumbered
(2) Penetrate
(3) Underrated
(4) Superlative
(ii) The candidates were instructed to use the following words in sentences of their own but
with a different meaning from that used in the passage. If the form of the word was
changed or if the meaning was the same as that of the passage, marks were deducted.
(1) arrest (as used in the passage: to stop the process of something) seize someone
and take them into custody ; the action of arresting someone; arrest someones
attention.
(2) draws (as used in the passage: pulls out) produces a picture; pulls curtains open or
shut; attracts people to a place or an event; takes in a breath; finishes a contest with
an even score.
(3) set (as used in the passage: put in a specified place or position) give someone a
task; fix a time; establish as an example; prepare a table for a meal; harden into a
solid, semi-solid or fixed state; arrange hair; put a broken or dislocated bone into
place for healing; a number of things or people grouped together; set of the sun or
moon (not sunset); a set in tennis or any other game; a set in a play or a film; firmly
fixed and unchanging; set off; set out; set in; set aside.
(4) club (as used in the passage: a heavy stick used as a weapon) a stick with a heavy
head used to play golf; a group of people who meet regularly for a particular
activity; a place where members can relax, eat meals or stay overnight.
(b) Candidates were required to answer the questions as briefly as possible and in their own words.
Marks were deducted for excessive length and gross errors. Candidates had to draw their material
only from the passage.
(i) The stranger died of heart failure or cardiac arrest. Someone had slid a knife into his heart
and caused a serious leakage of blood / damage to the heart muscles to stop it beating.
(ii) The narrator was scared because he was encumbered with a corpse; the knife that killed the
corpse belonged to him; the hilt had been in
his hand when the man had died; and he was standing on an open road with the body at his
feet.

11
 (iii) The narrators weapon was a sgian dubh the black knife; it was a 150 years old; the
ebony handle was ribbed on one side to give a good grip; it was smooth on the other side
so it could draw out without catching on anything; the blade was less than four inches long;
and the stone set in the handle gave it balance; superlative throwing weapon; carried in a
flat sheath in his sock. (any six of these eight points)
(iv) The narrator had driven out of the city and a little ahead he had seen a car with its driver
signalling for help. There was something wrong with the car.
(c) Summary:
(i) A minimum of six points are required. Marks were given for content. The following
points could also be combined into six points.
(ii) Marks were awarded for expression and the candidates ability to express the points
clearly. Marks were deducted for linguistic errors.
Possible points for the summary:
The narrator was driving on the road when he saw a car stopped on the side. 1
He got out of his car to help the driver.
The driver tried to hit him with a club-like weapon.
The narrator dodged the weapon but got hit on his shoulder. 2
His arm became numb.
The narrator groped for his own knife.
3
The knife was a left handed weapon so he could use it with his good hand.
The stranger tried to take out his gun but could not.
4
The narrator jumped on him just as he took his gun out.
The stranger swung around and ran into the narrators blade.
5
He sagged against the narrator.
He fell at the narrators feet and the knife came free.
6

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GENERAL COMMENTS
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
Q 1 (a), (c), and (d)
Q3a
Q 4 (a) (i) and (a) (ii)
Q 4 (c) (i) and (c) (ii)

(b) Concepts in which candidates got confused:

Narrative essay and short story
Rules of transformation
Argumentative and critical writing / composition
Analysis, cause and effect
Note-making and writing the key words
Amplification
Competition and Annual event / activity
Organizing as hosts and participating as guests

(c) Suggestions for candidates:

Read works in English, of good standard by noted writers
Practice use of new words
Use the dictionary and thesaurus extensively
Practice listening and speaking skills in English to acquire competence in writing skills
Pay close attention to the rubric, question-wise instructions, word-limit, key words of the
composition topics
Improve upon your stock of words and be aware of the changes taking place in English
Remain true to the rules of grammar and dont experiment with the set rules
Be careful of spelling errors, careless omissions and punctuation negligence
Do smart work to get the maximum marks

13
 V

ENGLISH PAPER 2 (LITERATURE)

SECTION A
(Answer one question)
MUCH ADO ABOUT NOTHINGShakespeare

Question 1
Choose two of the passages (a) to (c) and answer briefly the questions that follow:
(a) Leonato : A victory is twice itself when the achiever brings home
full numbers. I find here that Don Pedro hath bestowed
much honour on a young Florentine called Claudio.
Messenger : Much deserved on his part, and equally remembered by
Don Pedro. He hath borne himself beyond the promise
of his age, doing in the figure of a lamb the feats of a
lion. He hath indeed better bettered expectation than
you must expect of me to tell you how.
Leonato : He hath an uncle here in Messina will be very much
glad of it.
(i) Where are the speakers? Which victory does Leonato refer to [1]
in his speech?
(ii) What role has Claudio played in the war? [2]
(iii) Explain the line:
A victory is twice itself when the achiever brings home full [1]
numbers.
(iv) What information does the messenger give as a response to Leonatos [2]
words in the last line of the extract?
(v) What, according to the messenger, has been Benedicks performance in [2]
the war?
(vi) Give the meanings of the following words as they are used in the context [1]
of the passage:
bestowed; expectation; feats

(b) Leonato : [To Hero] Daughter, remember what I told you.If

the prince do solicit you in that kind, you know your
answer.

Beatrice : The fault will be in the music, cousin, if you be not

wooed in good time. If the prince be too important,
tell him there is measure in everything, and so dance
out the answer.

14
 (i) Where does this scene take place? Who is the prince that Leonato is [1]
talking about?
(ii) What is Beatrices opinion regarding marriage just before this extract? [2]
(iii) Explain the line:
If the prince be too important, tell him there is measure in [1]
everything, and so dance out the answer.
(iv) Describe in detail the three dances that Beatrice compares to the acts of [2]
wooing, wedding and repenting.
(v) What does the scene tell you about Beatrices nature? [2]
(vi) Give the meanings of the following words as they are used in the [1]
context of the passage:

solicit; wooed; measure

(c) Benedick : Sir, sir, be patient. For my part, I am so attird in

wonder
I know not what to say.
Beatrice : O, on my soul, my cousin is belied.
Benedick : Lady, were you her bedfellow last night?
Beatrice : No, truly not, although until last night
I have this twelvemonth been her bedfellow.
Leonato : Confirmd, confirmd, oh that is stronger made,
Which was before barrd up with ribs of iron.
Would the two princes lie? And Claudio lie,
Who loved her so, that speaking of her foulness,
Washed it with tears? Hence from her, let her die.
Friar Francis : Hear me a little
For I have only been silent so long
And given way unto this course of fortune
By noting of the lady.
(i) Whom does Benedick refer to as Sir? [1]
(ii) Which signs has Friar Francis noted about Hero? [2]
(iii) Explain the line:
I have only been [1]
Silent so long, and given way unto
This course of fortune
(iv) What is Leonato confirming? How did he arrive at this conclusion? What [2]
does he wish for his daughter and why?

15
 (v) What advice does Friar Francis give them later in the scene and what [2]
according to him could be the possible outcome to his plan?
(vi) Give the meanings of the following words as they are used in the context [1]
of the passage:
belied; attird; barrd

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) While attempting this part, some candidates did
not give the reference to the war fought. Suggestions for teachers
(ii) The fact that Claudio, though young, had fought Students must be encouraged to do
bravely, was not written by several candidates. an exhaustive reading of text.
(iii)A number of candidates could not explain twice Students should be taught to
itself and full numbers. Most merely repeated identify and focus on important
what was already given in the quoted lines. information in the scenes studied.
(iv)Several candidates did not write that the Relationship between characters,
messenger had delivered the news to their traits, what their words
Claudios uncle and that he had wept tears of reveal about them should be
joy. They merely wrote that the uncle was emphasised.
overjoyed. Students should be encouraged to
(v) This part was answered correctly by most of the develop their own perspective and
candidates. analysis.
(vi)Some candidates were unable to give the correct
meaning of feats.
(b) (i) This part was answered correctly by most of the candidates.
(ii) Many candidates were unsure of their answers and gave vague answers about Beatrices
opinion of men.
(iii)The meaning of important and dance out the answer was not given by many candidates. It
was evident that these candidates did not know how to explain the lines.
(iv)There was considerable confusion about the three dances and the corresponding states of
emotion or feeling. Most candidates merely gave the names of the three dances.
(v) Most candidates answered this part correctly.
(vi)A few candidates could not give the correct meaning of the word solicit.
(c) (i) Most candidates answered this part correctly.
(ii) The signs of Heros innocence noticed by the Friar were not given in some cases. Some
candidates mentioned the emotions.
(iii)The lines were not explained exhaustively. Many candidates merely paraphrased the quoted
lines. The meaning of given way.course of fortune was not given in several cases.
(iv)The manner in which Leonato comes to the conclusion was not brought out in many answers.
(v) This part was answered correctly by majority of the candidates.
(vi)Most candidates answred this part correctly.

16
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
(a) (i) The speakers are in Leonatos house / in front of Leonatos house.
The victory referred to here is the successful military campaign of Don Pedro/ putting
down of civil strife by Don John.
(ii) Claudio has fought bravely in the war and though young and inexperienced (he is
compared to a lamb) he has fought like a lion and fought more bravely than was
expected of him.
(iii) The line means that the victory is worth celebrating as few men of high rank have been
killed in the war / have come home safely/ very few or none killed.
(iv) The messenger says that he had already delivered him letters and his uncle shed tears of
joy at the news.
(v) Benedick has fought well and has done good service in the wars. He is a good soldier.
(vi) Bestowed conferred/ given/ awarded/ showered
Expectation anticipation/ presumption / thought of
Feats achievements/ brave acts/ accomplishments/ attainments/ valiant deeds
(b) (i) The scene takes place in a hall in Leonatos house. Don Pedro is the prince that
Leonato is talking about.
(ii) Beatrice says that she will not accept a husband made of dust/clay. She will not be
mastered by a handful of dust. Adam is the father of mankind and so, all his sons are
her brothers.
(iii) Beatrice says if the prince is very important, then he should romance Hero like a dance.
The dance should have proper rhythm and timing./ If he is importunate, Hero should
remind him that there is proper rhythm and sequence in everything and so dance out her
answer,/ be tactful in her answer.
(iv) Wooing, wedding and repenting are like three different dances.
Wooing is like a Scottish Jig, hot, hasty and fantastical.
Wedding is like a measure, proper, modest and old fashioned.
Repentance is the lively Cinque pace. It moves with speed, faster and faster.
(any two have to associate act with dance)
(v) She is lively, intelligent, not over awed by her uncle and knows her own mind, witty,
independent, harbours a dislike for marriage, strong headed. (any two)
(vi) Solicit - ask, approach, entreat, appeal, seek approval
wooed to pursue in way of marriage / court
Measure moderation, proportion, rhythm, a slow dance.

17
(c) (i) Leonato
(ii) Heros face had an expression of shock which expressed that she was not unfaithful.
There was a burning desire in her eyes to prove to the princes that she is not guilty/she
is innocent.
(iii) I have only so long been quiet and allowed matters to go in this way/take its course.
(iv) Leonato confirms that his daughter is guilty because Beatrice mentions that she did not
keep Hero company the night the man was seen at her window. He wishes death for her
as it would be better for her than to live in shame and bring dishonour to his name.
(v) The Friar advises them to pretend that Hero has died.
The possible outcomes to his plan could be: news of her death may make those who are
accused feel pity/ her death will bring new life in Claudios deeper love/ will cleanse of
her tarnished reputation/ if plan fails she can be sent to a nunnery. (any one)
(vi) belied - falsely accused, slandered, blamed
attired wrapped up, covered, dressed, clothed
barred fastened, strengthened

ARMS AND THE MANGeorge Bernard Shaw

Question 2
Choose two of the passages (a) to (c) and answer briefly the questions that follow:
(a) Raina : [dreamily] I sent her away. I wanted to be alone. The
stars are so beautiful! What is the matter?
Catherine : Such news! There has been a battle.
Raina : [her eyes dilating]Ah! [She comes eagerly to Catherine].
Catherine : A great battle at Slivnitza! A victory! And it was won by
Sergius.
Raina : [with a cry of delight] Ah! (They embrace rapturously).
Oh, mother! (Then with sudden anxiety) Is father safe?
(i) How does Catherine assure Raina that her father is safe? [2]

(ii) Describe the role played by Sergius in the cavalry charge. [2]

(iii) What fear did Raina have about Sergius before he proved himself? [1]

(iv) Who interrupts the conversation between Raina and Catherine? What does [2]
the person inform them about the events in the town?
(v) How does Catherine want Raina to treat Sergius when he returns? [1]

(vi) What does Raina do when she is left alone in her chamber? [2]

18
(b) Catherine : You are a barbarian at heart still, Paul. I hope you behaved
yourself before all those Russian officers.
Petkoff: : I did my best. I took care to let them know that we have
a library.
Catherine : Ah; but you didnt tell them that we have an electric bell in it?
I have had one put up.
Petkoff : Whats an electric bell?
Catherine : You touch a button; something tinkles in the kitchen and then
Nicola comes up.
Petkoff : Why not shout for him?
(i) Where are Major Petkoff and Catherine? [1]

(ii) Why does Catherine call Major Petkoff a barbarian at heart? [2]
(iii) What reasons did Major give for his early return from war? [2]
(iv) What did both of them boast of? [1]
(v) Major and Catherine have their own individual views on civilized people. [2]
Give details of their views.
(vi) Whom does Major Petkoff shout at? [2]

(c) Nicola : [going closer to her for greater emphasis] Never you mind
my soul: but just listen to my advice. If you want to be a lady,
your present behaviour to me wont do at all, unless when
were alone. Its too sharp and impudent; and impudence is a
sort of familiarity: it shews affection for me.
(i) Why does Nicola react in this manner? [2]
(ii) In an earlier scene, what had Louka said about Nicolas soul? [1]
(iii) Explain the meaning of: its too sharp and impudent. [1]
(iv) How does Louka react to the suggestions given to her by Nicola in this [2]
extract?
(v) What explanation does Nicola give Sergius for his presence in the room? [2]
(vi) Give two traits of each of the following characters: [2]
(1) Nicola
(2) Louka

19
Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Many candidates wrote that the messenger had
Suggestions for teachers
given the news of Sergius victory.
Stress upon a thorough reading of
(ii) The fact that Sergius had gone against his
the text.
instructions and acted without orders was not
The dynamics between characters
mentioned in several cases.
should be discussed in class.
(iii) A number of candidates did not write that
Characteristics and attitudes of the
Raina feared that Sergius would cut a poor
characters to the various situations
figure on the battlefield.
should be pointed out.
(iv) This part was answered correctly by most
Development of the plot/action
candidates.
should be noted.
(v) Many candidates did not use the word
worship but used various other synonyms
which were accepted.
(vi) Rainas activities were not clearly given by many candidates.
(b) (i) Most candidates answered this part correctly.
(ii) The discussion between Major Petkoff and his wife about bathing was not correctly given by
a number of candidates.
(iii) The order to demobilise the army was not mentioned in many answers.
(iv) The library and the electric bell were not mentioned in some scripts.
(v) This part was generally answered correctly.
(vi) Most candidates attempted this part correctly.
(c) (i) Nicolas sense of affront was not conveyed properly in many cases.
(ii) Candidates answered this part correctly.
(iii) The exact meaning of sharp and impudent was not given in several cases. Answers were
vague and generalised.
(iv) Many candidates seemed to be unaware of the answer to this question. They did not mention
that she felt that Nicola took away all her courage with his cold blooded wisdom.
(v) Candidates answered this part correctly.
(vi) This part was attempted correctly by most candidates.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
(a) (i) He has sent the news about the victory in the battle of Slivnitza. He has informed that
Sergius is the hero of the hour, the idol of the regiment.
(ii) Sergius went against Russian commanders/ acted without orders, led and headed the
cavalry charge on his own responsibility/ was the first man to attack.
(iii) She feared that he might cut a poor figure in front of all those clever Russians officers.
(iv) Louka. To fasten the shutters and close the windows as there may be shooting in streets.
The Serbs being chased by Bulgarian cavalry, there is a possibility of them running into
town.
(v) Catherine wants Raina to worship him when he returns.
(vi) Takes of her fur cloak and throws it on the ottoman OR goes to the chest of drawers to
adore Sergius portrait, takes it in her hands and elevates it like a priestess OR prepares
to read a romantic novel.

20
(b) (i) In the garden of Major Petkoffs house.
(ii) Catherine calls her husband a barbarian at heart, because he tells her that he does not
believe in the modern custom of washing and bathing every day. His father had never
had a bath in his life and he lived to be 98, the healthiest man in Bulgaria. He does not
mind a good wash once a week to keep up to his position but once a day was extreme and
ridiculous. (any two)
(iii) The war was over/ The treaty was signed three days ago at Bucharest /and the order for
the army to demobilise was issued the day before.
(iv) Petkoff had boasted of having a library in their house and Catherine now tells him that
they had also an electric bell.
(v) Catherine feels it is uncivilised to shout for ones servants as civilized people did not do
so. Petkoff told her that civilized people did not hang out their washing to dry where
visitors could see them. Catherine says civilised people would not notice such things.
(vi) Major Petkoff shouted at Nicola (as Nicola did not respond to his call). (He felt that
Nicola had become deaf).
(c) (i) Nicola is stung by Loukas comment that he prefers to be her servant rather than her
husband humiliates him, mentions his soul which is that of a servant.
(ii) Louka said that she knew Nicolas soul, which was the soul of a servant. She meant that
Nicola could only be a servant and nothing else.
(iii) Loukas behaviour, according to Nicola, was too rude and undignified.

(iv) Louka is rebellious and defiant. She tells Nicola that he takes away all courage from her
by his cold blooded wisdom.
(v) Nicola told Sergius that he was here to warn Louka away as whenever, she had free time,
she would run to the library to read books. (Obviously, Nicola is trying to create a good
impression about Louka in Sergius mind).
(vi) Nicola, the male servant is obedient servile and faithful.
Louka is ambitious, defiant, clever, shrewd and an opportunist.

SECTION B

(Answer four questions on at least three textbooks which may include EITHER
Much Ado about Nothing OR Arms and the Man.)
MUCH ADO ABOUT NOTHINGShakespeare

Question 3 [20]
How do Ursula, Don Pedro and Hero try to trick Beatrice into believing that Benedick is in
love with her? How does Beatrice react and what does she resolve to do?

21
Comments of Examiners:
This was a purely textual question, so candidates should
have paid attention to close textual detail. Suggestions for teachers
Some candidates gave a very long and winding Stress upon a thorough reading of
introduction so the actual tricking of Beatrice was the texts. Discourage summaries or
shortened considerably. notes.
The main points of the scene/scenes
Some tended to give an account of the tricking of
Benedick also. should be noted and emphasised.
Close attention to textual detail was missing. Students should learn to interpret,
Many candidates left out the second part of the question analyse and develop a point of
and therefore in spite of writing the first part well, lost view.
Important lines which can be used
marks.
While many candidates quoted extensively from the for quotations should be pointed
scene some tended to write mere summaries without any out.
reference or quotation from the scene. Students should learn how
Poor language and weak construction of the long answer character traits are revealed through
question led to low marks being scored in some cases. the actions of the characters.
Few commented on Heros unusual liveliness and her
ingenuity as revealed in this scene.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
Don Pedro is interested in the merry war that exists between Beatrice and Benedick.
He feels that they are suited to each other and believes that if only they could overcome their
antipathy to each other, they would able to come closer. He includes Claudio and Hero in his plan.
While Don Pedro and Claudio decided to arrange matters in such a manner, that Benedick would be
made aware of Beatrices liking him, Hero decides to ensure that Beatrice would also realize
Benedicks deep affection for her.
She sets the scene in the orchard where she plans to engage Ursula in artless conversation all the
while ensuring that Beatrice over hears them.
Hero sets trap for Beatrice by sending Margaret to tell Beatrice that she is the subject of Hero and
Ursulas gossip.
Beatrice appears instantly and follows them, hidden among the honeysuckle, to eavesdrop.
Hero and Ursula speak of Benedicks unrequited love for Beatrice and Beatrices disdainful scorn
for Benedick.
They speak of Benedicks virtues and Beatrices faults, concluding that Beatrice is too
self-endeared to be told of the matter.
Hero, feigning exasperation, tells Ursula that she will devise some honest slander to poison
Benedicks love for Beatrice and thereby save him from wasting away with love.
Alone, reflecting on what she has just heard, Beatrice surrenders contempt and maiden pride, and
determines to accept Benedicks love.

22
 Beatrices simple, humble, intuitive acceptance of her faults and her willingness to change
foreshadows the intimacy of her next meeting with Benedick.
Beatrices concern for Benedick is real, though guarded due to an earlier perceived rejection by
him.

Question 4 [20]
Though Hero is supposed to be the heroine of the play, she is a passive character. Discuss.
Comments of Examiners
There was a tendency to write Heros character which
Suggestions for teachers
was not required - candidates did not seem to have read
Discourage the tendency to merely
or understood the words of the question.
summarise.
Very flat and generalised answers were given in some
Encourage independent thought and
cases. A few candidates wrote about Heros quiet dignity
analysis.
or that she is being presented as a stereotype. Most
Encourage students to focus on the
candidates tended to compare and contrast her with her
wording of the question.
more vivacious cousin Beatrice.
Discourage flat answers. Answers
Some candidates gave a short summary of the play. Very
should be analytical and display
few examples from the play were given.
critical insight with constant
Very few candidates mentioned Heros unusual liveliness
reference to individual scenes and
and inventiveness during the tricking of Beatrice.
acts.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
Hero is the heroine of the play but she is overshadowed by Beatrice and thrown into the
background due to her passive and meek nature. She is influenced by other characters and events
and acted upon by external circumstances rather than taking the course of action herself.
In Act I, though, she is the lady of the house, she speaks only to inform that Signor Montanto is
Benedick, she quietly accepts her fathers order to accept Don Pedro if he proposes to marry her.
Then, she passively accepts Claudio and is resigned to her fate when she is brutally slandered in
church. She remarks Hath no mans dagger here a point for me? and then she swoons. In the last
revelation scene, she readily accepts Claudio and agrees to marry him.
Unlike Beatrice she shows a tendency to depend on others. Only in the gulling scene of Beatrice
does she show use of wit and intelligence, practices deception on her cousin. She is quite, chaste
and modest, the pride of her father and this impression is what she leaves on the audience.
Dignified manner in which she deals with Don Pedro.
Foil to Beatrice.
Pattern of womanhood along the lines of Ophelia & Desdemona.
Acted upon does not act.
Contrast to Beatrice: Beatrices indignation juxtaposed against Heros quiet compliance.

23
 ARMS AND THE MANGeorge Bernard Shaw
Question 5 [20]
Give a vivid description of the interaction between Raina and the fugitive in the first Act.
How are their views different from each other?
Comments of Examiners
Most candidates provided correct and exhaustive answers Suggestions for teachers
to this question. However, some gave very long Stress upon a thorough reading of
introductions and therefore the actual interaction was the play.
mentioned very briefly. Some merely provided a Discussion of the major issues
summary of the scene. The two viewpoints of the cavalry presented in the play must be carried
charge was not written in some cases. A few candidates out in class.
did not focus on Bluntschlis description of the realities The attitudes of the characters, their
of war. pronouncements should be
The second part of the question was not answered by examined in the light of their natures
several candidates. and roles in the play.
Students should be taught to avoid
the tendency to summarise.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
Raina is young, beautiful, aristocratic and engaged to Sergius, a handsome officer fighting for his
country. She takes great pride in her heritage, her family and her love.
Raina has romantic and idealized attitude towards love and war based on reading Byron,
Pushkin and attending operas. She is extremely thrilled with Sergiuss victory.
A fugitive seeks cover in her room while trying to escape the Bulgarian army. He threatens her
unchivalrously. She protects him by hiding him behind the curtains.
He gives her the true picture of war, which is in sharp contrast to her concepts of chivalry and
honour.
He talks about chocolates and is frightened; nervous and ready to cry which is definitely not what
is expected of a soldier.
He has no quixotic illusions about his profession or about the business of warfare.
He destroys Rainas romantic image of Sergius and makes him appear as foolish and a coward.
A fugitive who shows Raina reality and is practical in his views.
It signifies a pragmatic and down-to-earth attitude to war with Rainas romantic ideals and vision.
Anti Romantic theme.

24
Question 6 [20]
Arms and The Man has been called a drama of ideas. Discuss the manner in which the
ideas on War, Love and Social Status are dealt with in the play.

Comments of Examiners
The contrasting ideas of war and love were not given by
many candidates. Very generalised answers were given
by a number of candidates. The theme of social snobbery
was not dealt with in several cases. There was very little
reference to Shaws socialistic ideas as presented in the
play. Candidates did not analyse why Raina prefers
Bluntschli and Sergius feels comfortable with Louka.
Some candidates displayed a tendency to summarise.
Suggestions for teachers
While teaching emphasis should be
laid not merely on the plot or the
story but also on the characters and
the themes of the play.
Students should be encouraged to
discuss their interpretations and
insights into the incidents and the
characters of the play.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
The drama of ideas is an aspect of modern drama.
This was a natural progression from the well-made Play of the19th century which had the features
of exposition, situation and unravelling.
In modern Drama, this was replaced by exposition, situation and discussion.
The discussion centred on the conflict of contrasting ideas.
In Arms and the Man, Shaw presents several ideas which went against contemporary beliefs and
attitudes.
Central to the play is the conflict between idealism and realism.
Shaw uses the drama of ideas but uses humour and laughter to expose the unrealistic attitudes
towards Love and War. In this way, he made his ideas more palatable to his audience.
He attacks the sham glamour and the artificial sentiment associated with love and war which lead
people to adopt romantic postures and deceive themselves.
Through Raina and Sergius, the drama depicts the idealisation of love. The romantic couple behave
like characters in a heroic romance.
Sergius imagines himself as a knight of medieval romance and dedicates his military achievements
to his lady love, Dearest, all my deeds have been yours. You inspired me. I have gone through the
war like a knight in a tournament, with his lady looking down at him.
They talk about higher love. Their language and actions are hyperbolical - he drops chivalrously
upon one knee to kiss he hand; she adores his portrait and elevates it like a priestess. They
worship each other. She refers to him as, my soul, my hero, my lord and so on. He addresses
her as my queen, my lady, my saint. Their language with each other is the language of courtly
love. They believe that there can be: no meanness, no smallness, no deceit in their love.

25
 This is however belied by Sergius attitude with Louka. Raina finds herself attracted to Bluntschli,
her chocolate cream soldier. Both realise that higher love is a very fatiguing thing to keep up
for any length of time.
The play also explores the romanticism that surrounds War. Raina and Catherine see only the
glamour of War. Catherines eloquent description of Sergius accomplishment at Slivnitza is the
stuff of romance. You cant guess how splendid it wasChaff
Bluntschli, the fugitive from the battlefield, brings in the realistic aspect of War. He exposes the
fear and futility of war comparing Sergius to Don Quixote tilting at windmills.
Ultimately, even Sergius denounces war as a fraud. A hollow sham. He says, soldering is the
cowards art of attacking mercilessly..equal terms.
We learn that Sergius won because the Serbians did not have the correct ammunition.
Bluntschli, on the other hand, is a professional who fights only when it is necessary. Im a
professional soldier. I fight.havent to. He isnt an amateur like Sergius who playacts whether it
be at love or at war.
The play also deals with social snobbery. The Petkoffs boast of their library, their trips to Vienna,
and their lineage which goes back twenty years. Their snobbery is revealed as a hollow sham. In
Shaws eyes (perhaps referring to the snobbery of the upper classes in England.) wealth and status
is not commendable, ability and efficiency is. By this yardstick, Nicola, Bluntschli and Louka are
more able than Sergius and the Petkoffs.
The issue of social class is also discussed through the aspirations of people like Louka and Nicola.
Whereas Nicola is content with his position and wishes to be the perfect servant so that he can
open his own shop with the goodwill of his employers, Louka wishes to be free of the restrictions
of class and society as she feels that she is no way inferior to Raina. She sets about achieving her
goal and ultimately wins Sergius.

IVANHOESir Walter Scott

Question 7 [20]
Describe the general tournament held on the second day of the tournament at Ashby.
Comment on the role of the Dark Knight at the tournament.

Comments of Examiners
Few candidates attempted this question.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
The second day of the tournament was a general tournament. It was more dangerous than single
encounters and at the same time, more frequented and practised by the chivalry of the age.
Many knights who did not have the confidence in their own skill to defy a single adversary, of high
reputation, would display their valour in the general combat.
At this general tournament about 50 knights would fight on each side.

26
 The Disinherited Knight was the leader of one body and Boris Guilbert would lead the other band.
Prince Johns arrival was followed by the arrival of Cedric with Lady Rowena. Prince John
assisted Lady Rowena, the destined Queen of the Day to the seat opposite his own.
Heralds proclaimed silence and the rules of the tourney were declared. This was necessary as the
tournament would be conducted with sharp swords and pointed lances, so undue disasters had to be
avoided.
The combat had to cease as soon as Prince John threw down the warder in his hand. If a knight
contravened the rules, he would be stripped of his arms, humiliated and punished.
After the proclamation, the heralds withdrew and knights entered on either side and arranged
themselves in a double file opposite each other with the leader of each party in the centre..
The trumpets sounded and the foremost ranks of either party rushed at each other. The rear rank of
each party advanced at a slower pace to help the defeated and aid the victors of their party.
After the dust had settled, it could be seen that half the knights on each side had fallen off their
horses. The ones still mounted, were now fighting with swords as their lances had broken.
The second rank on each side who were acting as reserve rushed forward to aid their companions.
The Disinherited Knights party were at a disadvantage. He was hemmed in by Frank de Beouf and
Athelstane. The publics sympathies were with him. Only his superb horsemanship kept saving
him.
Prince John was advised to throw down his warder and end the fight but his malice against the
Disinherited Knight prevented him from doing so.
In the Disinherited Knights party there was a large knight in black armour, mounted on a black
horse. Initially he showed no interest in fighting, acting more like a spectator. The public had
dubbed him the Black Sluggard.
When the Disinherited Knight was surrounded and attacked, he came to his aid and attacked
Athelstane. Having dealt with him, he left the Disinherited Knight to deal with Bois Guilbert.
Seeing the Templar at a disadvantage, Prince John threw down the warder and ended the fight.
Prince John was urged to announce the Disinherited Knight as the best knight of the tournament
but he decided to award the Black Knight. However when his name was announced, he was
nowhere to be found.
When the Disinherited Knight was brought forward to receive the chaplet of honour, his helmet
was removed and the people realised that he was actually Ivanhoe, Cedrics estranged son.

Question 8 [20]
Compare and contrast the characters Rowena and Rebecca. What are the difficulties faced
by each of the women?

Comments of Examiners
Few candidates attempted this question.

27
MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
In many ways, Rebecca and Rowena are quite similar. They are beautiful, virtuous, loyal, self-
possessed. They contend with strong willed fathers and they love Ivanhoe. Lady Rowena is the
ward of Cedric the Saxon. She is prevented from marrying Ivanhoe till the end of the book
because Cedric would like to see Rowena married to Athelstane, a match that could reawaken the
Anglo-Saron line. Rowena is fair, chaste, loyal, mild mannered but she has some backbone as she
defies her guardian by refusing to marry Athelstane. Rebecca the daughter of Issac, a Jew, falls in
love with Ivanhoe but she shows self-control.
The differences that emerges between them is simply the different challenges they face. The
portrayal of Rebecca is more sympathetic as she does more she heals Ivanhoe and has to contend
with her own feelings. Rebecca tends to Ivanhoe after his injury at Ashby and falls in love with
him. She is also the woman Brian de Bois Guilbert pursues putting her in the position of being
victimised at Temple-stone.
Another point of view is the womens cultural backgrounds as a Saxon, Rowena is a second class
citizen, as a Jew Rebecca is truly beneath everyone in the social hierarchy of twelfth century
England. This fact makes the readers sympathetic to her. That the Templars are able to try her as a
sorceress with no evidence whatsoever is also due to the fact that she is Jewish. They would never
have done this to a Christian Saxon such as Rowena.

Question 9 [20]
Evaluate the role of Gurth in the plot of Ivanhoe.

Comments of Examiners
Few candidates attempted this question.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
A swineherd for Cedric of Rutherwood.
He wears an iron collar around his neck with Cedrics name on it like a dog.
He has great regard for his master, shares Cedrics love for Saxon culture but hatred for Normans.
He wants to be free.
Cedric chains him for leaving Rutherwood without permission.
What really sours things between Gurth and Cedric isnt politics of thralldom, its Ivanhoe.
He chooses to help Ivanhoe at the Ashby tournament rather than looking after Cedrics pigs.
Even though he is truly loyal to Cedric, he is actually close to Ivanhoe.
When De Bracy and Bois Guilbert capture Cedric, he does best to save his life.
When they are fighting on the same side with Gurth to rescue Cedric, he is successfully freed and
Cedric appreciates his effort and Gurths dream comes true.
Although he genuinely loves both, ultimately he still remains a slave.

28
 ISC COLLECTION OF ESSAYS
Question 10 [20]
Give a vivid description of how E.V. Lucas views the pleasures of giving and receiving
presents in his essay Unbirthday and other Presents.

Comments of Examiners
Very vague and generalised answers were given by many
candidates. Some candidates did not seem aware of the Suggestions for teachers
Stress upon a careful reading of the
points and made up their own answers. There was
absence of examples from the essay in many answers. essays.
The main points of the essay could
The importance of unbirthday presents was not
emphasised by several candidates. be underlined for greater clarity and
understanding.
Students should be able to
understand the writers intent and
point of view.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 10
There are different varieties of gifts birthday, wedding, Christmas.
Unbirthday presents are the nicest. It calls for great care and excitement, as other presents may not
require thought or affection.
It is the only present where the golden rule applies you must never give to another, anything
that you would rather keep for yourself, nothing that does not cause you a pang to part from.
The thoughts that go in while buying a birthday present and an unbirthday present.
The benevolence factor comes into play when one thinks of buying unbirthday presents.
Ordinary presents are sought as dates near. Out of all the three presents, wedding presents are
generally bought without care or affection.
Lucas states that certain presents should not be given as presents pictures, scent, cigars and
neckties. He says where thoughts and imagination are required it will always be difficult to select.
While hunting for presents there is a possibility of visiting curiosity shops set up in high-end areas.
He claims that carrying chequebook in these places would be extremely dangerous.
Refers to a London shop that has kept a cheque-block on every counter and has a mechanical door.
He ends on the note that if shops adopted these plans then happiness of the world would be
doubled.

29
Question 11 [20]
An inconvenience is only an adventure wrongly considered. With close reference to
G.K. Chestertons essay On Running After Ones Hat, give suitable examples to prove
his point.

Comments of Examiners
Candidates displayed a tendency to summarise the
Suggestions for teachers
essay. There was repetition of points in many answers.
Stress upon a thorough reading of
The cheerful, optimistic, positive attitude of the writer
the essay.
was not brought out by many candidates. In several
The examples given by the essayist
cases, examples given by the writer were not given.
could be listed for better
understanding.
The tone of the essay and the attitude
of the essayist should be pointed out.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 11
G.K. Chesterton conveys the message of optimism towards lifes trivial annoyance. He comments
on the interesting nature of inconveniences expecting everyone to look at such inconveniences,
e.g. flooding in London and the fire in a romantic light.
He claims that men swear or women cry due to sentimental or imaginative inconveniences.
He cites an example of a grown up complaining while waiting for a train. For a young boy this
wait turns out to be a time of adventure. What is important is ones perception.
He illustrates how a man running after his hat shouldnt be regarded as an inconvenience but as a
comic event. He compliments and thanks an old gentleman running after his hat in Hyde Park for
he provided a humorous situation for onlookers to enjoy.
He focuses on his friends everyday attempt to open up his jammed drawer and encourages him to
picture his efforts as exciting and adventurous.
Thus even the floods in London should be regarded as nothing more than adventures.
By examining these everyday inconveniences, Chesterton concludes that they are unrealized
adventures.

Question 12 [20]
Referring closely to the essay, On Going On a Journey, discuss Hazlitts thoughts on
going on a journey.

30
Comments of Examiners
Generalised and vague answers were given by many
candidates. Weaker candidates tended to write their own
essays which had no relevance to the text. The attitude
and the philosophy of the essayist was not brought out in
many answers. Hazlitts arguments for a solitary journey
was not mentioned by several candidates who attempted
this question.
Suggestions for teachers
Careful reading and re-reading of
the essay must be stressed upon.
Students should try and attempt
silent reading so as to internalise
the intention of the writer.
Main points should be pointed out
and emphasised

MARKING SCHEME
Question 12
William Hazlitt likes to go on a journey alone. While he enjoys society indoors, outdoors, nature
is company enough for him.
He does not like to carry the encumbrances of life in the city when he goes on his journey. He
prefers his solitude.
He also enjoys the perfect liberty to think, feel and do as he pleases. In such circumstances he
would like to be left to his repose.
He refers to Sterne who had said that he would like a companion during his travels, but one who
would only remark about natural phenomena and nothing else. However, Hazlitt believes that the
constant comparing of notes interferes with the involuntary impression of things on the mind and
hurts the sentiment. He does not want any conflict or controversy during his journey.
This would make a toil of pleasure. Perhaps both are attracted and enchanted by different things
and instead of being in perfect accord there would be a certain uneasiness and dissatisfaction.
Moreover, it would be difficult to communicate ones perceptions to others. He says that to give
way to ones feelings before others seems extravagance or affectation and at the same time to
unravel the mystery of ones thoughts and to make others take an equal interest in it is a task to
which few are competent. Even if he has a travelling companion, he would not like to share too
many of his thoughts with him. A friend may intrude into our musings and thoughts and bring up
unpalatable topics.
He lovingly mentions spots where he has had unusual experiences. He would like to return to
these places at some distant time, but he would like to return alone, so that he can revive the
influx of thoughts of regret and delight that he had felt once. He would also like to ponder over
the realisation of how much both he and the world have changed.
Hazlitt declares that he has no objection to visiting ruins, aqueducts and pictures in the company
of friends or a party as these things can be talked about. The sentiment here is not tacit but
communicable and overt.
He distinguishes between the two kinds of journeying. In setting out on a solitary ramble, the
question is what we shall meet by the way. He declares that the mind is its own place and we are
not really ready to arrive at the end of our journey.

31
 When he goes on a journey to a foreign country, he would like a companion as he would like to
hear the sound of his own language. Moreover certain sights like the Pyramids are too mighty for
any single contemplation.

ISC COLLECTION OF SHORT STORIES

Question 13 [20]
In the short story A Real Durwan, Boori Mas services resembled those of a real
durwan. Do you agree with the given statement? What are your views with regard to her
services?
Comments of Examiners
Candidates who attempted this question gave very vague
Suggestions for teachers
and general answers. The idea of Boori Ma as a durwan
While teaching, help students grasp
was not brought out by many candidates. Several
the main points of the story.
candidates did not attempt the latter part of the answer.
Encourage class discussions so that
a text can be looked at from
different angles. The points of view
of the different characters should be
discussed.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 13
Boori Ma committed and dedicated woman sweeping the stairwell, lived a simple life.
She patrolled activities not only within the building but also around it and her services like a real
durwan. In the building no one had anything valuable except Mrs. Misra who had a telephone.
Refugee from East Bengal during partition. Took refuge in this building. Created fanciful stories
of her opulent lifestyle before partition. She recalled her happy days before the partition now
she is a refugee. Mr. Chatterjees constant refrain she was the victim of changing times.
She was a superb entertainer and everyone loved and liked her.
Boori Ma visited the homes of residents who welcomed her.
Patrolled activities in the colony.
Screened itinerant peddlers.
Would summon a rickshaw for the inhabitants of the house.
With a few slaps of her broom, she would rout any suspicious character that strayed into the area
in order to spit, urinate, or cause some other trouble.
Is compared to the gatekeepers of houses on Lower Circular Road or Jodhpur Park.
The residents of the building took her services for granted.
She existed on the fringes of their lives, commenting and observing.( She would sit in the
doorway, not inside their rooms)

32
However her relatively easy existence changed when the following occurred:
One Mrs. Dalal, on the third floor took special care of her. When her husband got promoted, he
bought two basins. He planned to install one on the stairwell just to impress visitors.
The workmen toiled throughout the day making it impossible for Boori Ma to sweep the stairwell
and she retired to the rooftop. Mr. Chatterjee again commented that these were sure signs of the
changing times.
Mr. Dalal promised her a blanket as they were going on a vacation; she was the only one who
wished her goodbye.
Renovation works started in many households making it difficult for her to keep track of people
going in and out of the collapsible gate. She took to sleeping on the rooftop. She became
restless and started circling the neighbourhood in the afternoons, talking to strangers.
The basin got stolen and the blame fell on her. People in the building sought the advice of
Mr. Chatterjee who claimed that the building needed a real durwan. Everyone decided to
appoint a real durwan.. Boori Ma resigned herself to her fate.
Theme of displacement and alienation. Boori Ma truly falls a victim to changing times and
attitudes
Personal Interpretationirony of the term real durwan. Decision of the inmates reflects the
growing selfishness and mercenary and materialistic attitudes of times erasing all humanity.

Question 14 [20]
Referring closely to the short story The Lumber Room, discuss how young Nicholas
outwits his aunt and thus evades her attempts to confine him in a dry, boring and
unimaginative existence.

Comments of Examiners
Many candidates scored well in this question. Most
answers were well written and comprehensive.
Some candidates did not focus on Nicholas opinion of
his aunt and the manner in which he outwits her. The
lumber room and the sway its treasures had on the young
boys imagination was not explored. Nicholas fertile
mind as opposed to his aunts unimaginative
authoritarian nature was not explored in a few cases.
Suggestions for teachers
Very close reading of the text is
vital.
Encourage students to explore the
ideas presented through the story.
Teach the students to corroborate
their opinions with examples from
the text.

33
MARKING SCHEME
Question 14
The Lumber room takes us into the magical world of the child, Nicholas, the protagonist of the
story is a precocious child with a lively imagination. His aunt on the other hand, is a literal
minded, unimaginative dictatorial person, who enjoyed using the psychology of the carrot and the
stick as a means of disciplining the children. The aunt in the story is modelled upon one of
Murros aunts who had made his childhood miserable.
Little wonder then that Nicholas was always testing his abilities against the tolerance levels of his
aunt. The incident described in the short story centres around the punishment meted out to
Nicholas by his aunt. The punishment was given to Nicholas because Nicholas had declared that
there was a frog in his wholesome bread and milk and had therefore, refused to have it. The aunt
had immediately turned the excuse frivolous. However, Nicholas, the skilled tactician had
refused to shift from his ground because he had himself put the frog into the bowl of bread and
milk.
His aunt had taken immediate punitive measures. His boy-cousin, and girl-cousin and his quite
uninteresting younger brother were to be taken to the Jagborough sands to enjoy themselves while
Nicholas was to stay at home. Unfortunately, however, the looked for reaction in Nicholas was not
forthcoming. Nicholas did not look suitably chastened. The beginning of the expedition itself
seemed to indicate how it would progress as the girl-cousin scrapped her knee rather painfully
against the step of the carriage as she was scrambling in and as she began crying.
Somehow, this seemed to put Nicholas in good humour. He also knew that his younger brother
Bobby would not enjoy himself as his boots were tight and were hurting him. His aunt sought to
further increase misery by dictating that Nicholas would not go into the Gooseberry garden which
was one of his favourite haunts. Predictably, Nicholas face took on a look of obstinacy. This
proved to his aunt that he was determined to get into the Gooseberry Garden. Because I have
told him, he is not to to foil his attempts, the aunt spent an hour or two in trivial garden
operations so that she could keep a watchful eye on Nicholas and prevent him from entering the
forbidden paradise. This was quite in character as the aunt was a woman of few ideas.
Nicholas, however, had other plans He did make one or two sorties into the garden with obvious
stealth of purpose but he had other plans of entertaining himself. He had planned to explore the
Lumber Room which was always kept locked. Compared to the Lumber Room with all its hidden
delights, the Gooseberry Garden was a delight, a mere material pleasure.
The Lumber Room is normally a room where discarded furniture and objects no longer in use are
kept. To the young Nicholas, the large dimly lit room with one high window providing the only
source of illumination was a store house of unimagined treasures. He lost himself in the piece of
framed tapestry which was evidently meant to be a fire screen. To Nicholas, the details of the
tapestry picture was a living breathing story. The tapestry depicted a hunting scene, a man
having killed a stag with an arrow. Nicholas deduced that it could not have been a difficult shot
because the stag was only one or two paces away from the hunter. The thick vegetation
embroidered on the tapestry suggested that the hunter had crept up to a feeding stag. The two dogs
in Nicholas opinion had been trained to keep to heel till the arrow was discharged. Nicholas also
imagined four galloping wolves coming towards the hunter. His lively imagination wondered
whether the hunter would be able to kill them with the two arrows remaining in his quiver. Thus,
he sat for many golden minutes revolving possibilities of the scene.

34
 Nicholas attention was also captured by other interesting things stored in the room such as the
quaint twisted candle sticks in the shape of snakes, a teapot fashioned like a China duck and a
carved sandalwood box packed with aromatic cotton wool in which was stored little brass figures
of bull, peacocks and goblins delightful to see and to handle. There was also a large square book
with plain black covers inside which there were pictures of the most exotic and delightful birds.
While Nicholas was admiring the pictures, he heard his aunt calling out to him. When the
summons became more and more agitated, and shrill, Nicholas crept out from the room, locked it
behind him and sauntered casually into the garden. There, he found that the aunt had slipped into
the rainwater tank, while trying to search for him. She now needed Nicholas help to get out. This
was the perfect moment for Nicholas to extract his revenge. He declared that the voice was not his
aunts at all. It was actually the evil one tempting him. He proceeded to test the voice was
asking whether there would be strawberry jam for tea. When the aunt said yes, he immediately
declared that this proved that he certainly was the evil one because his aunt had said that there
wasnt any jam. Nicholas had seen four jars in the store cupboard. Probably, his aunt did not
know of their presence. However, the evil one must have known about the jars. there was an
unusual sense of luxury in being able to talk to an aunt as though, one was talking to the Evil
One. However, Nicholas knew that he could not stretch the matter any further and therefore, he
went nosily away from the spot. The aunt had to be rescued by a kitchen maid.
The twist in the story arises out of the fact that Nicholas who was supposed to have been punished,
enjoyed himself the most that day whereas the three children who were given a treat had a
thoroughly miserable time at the beach.

Question 15 [20]
Referring closely to the short story Lamb to the Slaughter, give details of the conditions
that led Mary Maloney to commit her husbands murder. Describe her feelings and the
strategies adopted by her to prove her innocence.

Comments of Examiners
Most candidates wrote good answers to this question.
Some however, made errors in factual details. The events Suggestions for teachers
leading to Mary murdering her husband were not Stress upon a thorough reading of
explained by a number of candidates. The strategies the text.
adopted by her to establish her innocence and to gain the Students should be taught to
sympathy of the policemen were not given in detail in establish the sequence of events in
several cases. The ending of the story was not explored. the story.
Instead of mentioning the leg of lamb several other Students should be warned against
things were mentioned by the candidates. presenting incorrect facts in their
answers.

35
MARKING SCHEME
Question 15
Mary Maloney, six months pregnant, is awaiting her detective husbands return. His return was
always a blissful time of day for her. It is evident that her life revolves around her husband
She made him drinks, but there is not much conversation; the husband prepares another drink for
himself. She tries to talk to him but he does not pay attention. He seems a little tense and
preoccupied.
He makes her sit down and tells her that he wants to leave her but promises to give her money and
promises to look after her. Her reaction- at first she does not seem to understand his words.
She takes refuge in routine and does things mechanically. She decides to roast a leg of lamb for
supper but hes not interested His words act as a trigger and suddenly she walks behind him and
hits him with the meat piece felling him with a blow.
Reality kicks in and still acting on impulse, she quickly puts the meat in the oven. She becomes
aware of her crime and knows the outcome but is concerned about her unborn child. Already a
scheme is being prepared in her mind. She gets ready, rehearses her lines and checks her voice and
facial expression before she goes to the grocer, Sam, and has a normal conversation with him. In
her conversation, she establishes the fact that she is cooking supper for her husband
When she returns home all her emotions come to the fore. She assumes the role of the hysterical
wife
She dials the police station.
Noonan and OMalley investigate the case along with two detectives and a police photographer.
The policemen were exceptionally nice to her and tried to make her feel comfortable.
They search for clues and discuss all possibilities. Mrs. Maloney seizing the opportunity offers
drinks and encourages them to have the meat while they continue to discuss the case thus leaving
no evidence of the weapon used to murder her husband.
She sits in the other room and giggles, giving the story a slightly macabre ending. The reader is
left entertained but also horrified.

ISC COLLECTION OF POEMS

Question 16 [20]
The poem The Eve of Waterloo begins in revelry and merriment, which unexpectedly
transforms into despair and ultimately, a revelation. Describe the events that lead to this
transformation.

36
Comments of Examiners
Partial answers were given by many candidates. Most
answers were generalised and showed lack of awareness
of the text.
The transition from revelry and merriment to tension and
fear and ultimately pathos was not explored in many
answers.
Important portions of the poem, especially the reference
to the Scots and the two last stanzas of the poem were left
out by some candidates. The revelation at the end was left
out in several cases.
Suggestions for teachers
Poems should be studied keeping
the theme and major ideas in mind.
Students should become aware of
tone, imagery, poetic tools used.
Concepts found difficult should be
explained clearly.
References to experiences of
students would encourage and foster
empathy.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 16
The Eve of Waterloo refers to the events that took place before the battle of Quatre Bras a
preliminary battle before the Battle of Waterloo.
The poem begins with the description of a Ball in Belgiums capital Brussels by the Duchess of
Richmond. There is merriment, excitement and revelry as the beautiful women interacted with the
brave soldiers until their enjoyment is disrupted by the sound of cannons.
They ignore the sound and resume their fun when the cannons sound even more deadly than
before.
Fredrick William of Brunswick understands the meaning of the sound and rushes to the battlefield
to avenge his fathers death. He fell fighting as a hero.
The approaching enemy led to sudden partings between the soldiers and the ladies as the
soldiers are bound by their sense of duty and responsibility.
The war preparations begin and with the sounding of the trumpets, the soldiers are roused to
action. Even the citizens throng the streets with fear in their hearts..
The Scottish ranks recall their martial glory and the fame of their Scottish heroes, Evan and
Donald.
As the army march through the woods of Ardennes, even Nature appears to be lamenting. These
soldiers now treading the grass by evening might be dead beneath the same grass
The entire sequence of events is recalled and when the war ends the earth appears to be uniformly
covered. Death becomes a great leveller.
The ephemeral nature of all human endeavour is portrayed. War is presented at the end of the
poem as the great leveller. There is also the suggestion that war only leads to large scale
destruction.

37
Question 17 [20]

Referring closely to the poem Mending Wall, discuss the two attitudes to barriers or walls,
as presented in the poem. What, in your opinion, does the poet wish to convey through the
poem?

Comments of Examiners
Many candidates did not seem to have understood the
poem, especially, the whimsical tone of the speaker in
the poem. No critical insight was found in the answers.
Most candidates attempted a vague general summary of
the poem without focussing on the deeper issues
involved. The two attitudes to walls and relations were
not brought out in many answers. The two voices or
points of view were ignored.
In some cases, the second part of the poem was left out.
Suggestions for teachers
Philosophy of life reflected in the
poem should be explored in class.
The two voices or attitudes should
be emphasised.
The characteristics of the poet
should be explained to the students.
Issues arising out of the poem could
be discussed with modern day
examples.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 17
The poem presents two distinct attitudes to life. These attitudes are depicted through the
commonplace rural activity of repairing walls in farms in Spring.
Frost creates two distinct characters that have different ideas of what exactly makes a person a
good neighbour.
The narrator or speaker in the poem describes a phenomenon that he has observed in Nature.
A mysterious force in Nature which does not like the existence of walls sends the frozen ground
bloat the frozen ground under his walls so that the upper boulders are spilled to the ground.
He distinguishes this from the activity of the hunters who tear the boulders down to search for the
hiding rabbits to please their yelping dogs.
The gaps which he refers to are made imperceptibly so that large gaps are made through which two
people could pass together abreast.
The narrator informs his neighbour who lives beyond the hill and on an appointed day, they meet
to walk along the boundary and set the wall between us once again.
They keep the wall between us as we go and pick up the boulders from their respective sides.
A note of whimsy is introduced in the narrators comment that they have to use a magic spell to
ensure that the boulders balance on each other.
The narrator deplores his neighbours preoccupation with repairing the wall. He views it as old
fashioned and even archaic.
The narrator can be characterized as philosophical, unconvinced and amiable.

38
 To him, this activity means nothing more than an outdoor game. He tries to reason with his
neighbour pointing out that here they dont need a wall as the neighbour grows pine trees and the
narrator has an apple orchard.
His logical mind wants to know whom he is walling in or walling out before he builds a wall.
He wishes that his neighbour arrived at an understanding of the utter meaningless and futility of a
wall by himself.
However, this seems improbable as the neighbour will not go beyond his fathers saying Good
fences make good neighbours.
As the neighbour moves about on his task grasping the boulders in his hands he appears to the
speaker as an old stone age savage armed. The darkness that he moves about in emanates from
within his mind which is resolutely shut to any new notion.
The wall does not only act as a divider separating the two properties but also as a barrier to
friendship and communication. From the narrators point of view, barriers lead to alienation and
emotional isolation and loneliness. The wall represents both mental and physical barriers.
It is against Nature so nature tries to bring the wall down.
The dispute between the two neighbours represents the clash between tradition and modernity.
Perhaps, the speaker feels that one cannot get to know a person unless one puts down ones wall or
barrier.
The poet is scrupulous in presenting the other point of view in the poem, i.e. barriers help in
maintaining their individuality and personal identity.

Question 18 [20]
How does Dilip Chitre in his poem Father Returning Home, highlight Mans
estrangement from a man-made world?
Comments of Examiners
Majority of the candidates scored well in this question. Suggestions for teachers
However, some showed poor knowledge of the poem. Explore the poem in the context of
Critical insight was lacking in some answers. No effort present day society and social
was made to explore the images presented by the poem. concerns.
Close reference to the poem was lacking at times. Some Encourage discussion in class and
help students to sustain their
candidates added their own matter in their answers.
insights with references to the
The sense of alienation and estrangement of the father poem.
was left out by a few candidates. Help students to understand the
images and poetic tools used in the
poem.

39
MARKING SCHEME
Question 18
The poem Father Returning Home, is at times a dispassionate and yet a very sympathetic picture
of the life lived by a daily commuter in a city.
To such a person, the train by which he travels to and fro from work becomes an integral part of
his life.
In no other place, does the term being lonely in a crowd achieve a more telling significance.
The first stanza of the poem describes the fathers train journey while returning home. It is a
journey that he undertakes every-day.
The father stands among commuters in the yellow light of a local compartment. The suburbs
slide past his unseeing eyes. He has become used to these sights and therefore, does not pay
attention to them anymore.
The fathers social status is conveyed subtly through his appearance and clothes. His shirt and
pants are soggy and his raincoat is mud stained. He, however, carries a heavy load of books in a
bag that is falling apart. The books indicate an intellectual inquiring mind which is not, perhaps,
apparent to his indifferent family.
His eyes, grown dim with age, peer out at the world. He goes homeward perhaps in hope he
gets off the train as a word dropped from a long sentence a redundant word, whose absence does
not make a difference to the sentence.
The train carries on without any feeling. The man did not have any importance to the life in the
train. There is a certain eagerness in the manner that he hurries across the length of the grey
platform, enters the lane and though the mud on his chappals seem to hinder him, he hurries home.
The eagerness with which the father hurries home is contrasted with the indifference and apathy he
encounters there. There is nothing waiting for him but stale chappati and weak tea, both the
adjectives become symptomatic of his life. He is alienated from everything around him. Like the
train, the family seems to have dropped him from their lives as they carry on with their lives.
His book and the toilet to which he retreats become his defences against a harsh uncaring world.
He contemplates mans estrangement from a man-made world.
The greying hair at his wrists evokes a sense of sympathy for a man who has nothing to look
forward to.
Interestingly enough, no conversation either in the train or in the home is referred to. The silence
of the father indicates the utter isolation and loneliness of his world.
His children are sullen keeping away their jokes and secrets from him. The only companion
in his life is the radio and his dreams of his past (the ancestors entering the subcontinent through
the Khyber Pass) and his future, his grandchildren. In spite of his dreary existence, he had dreams
and he has hope.

40
GENERAL COMMENTS:

(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:

Hero as a passive character in Much Ado About Nothing
Treatment of the themes of love, war and social snobbery in Arms and the Man
Mending Wall- the theme of manmade barriers.
(b) Concepts in which candidates got confused:
Hero as the heroine of the play, yet a passive character.
Eve of Waterloo- the rapid change from joy and merriment to tension and despair.
The two attitudes to manmade barriers in Mending Wall.
The growing isolation and estrangement of the modern, urban man.
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
Read the texts thoroughly and repeatedly.
Identify and if necessary, underline or mark important portions in the context of plot, theme,
characterization, philosophy, authorial comment and so on.
Practice both references to the context and long answer questions.
Learn proper time management so that equal attention can be given to all the questions in the
paper.
While writing answers, answer all parts of the question.
Refer or quote extensively from the text to support your assessment or point of view.
Avoid long rambling introductions in your answers.
Try and answer the question asked and avoid giving generalized answers.

41
 HINDI

STATISTICS AT A GLANCE

Total Number of students who took the examination 23,857

Highest Marks Obtained 99
Lowest Marks Obtained 1
Mean Marks Obtained 83.58

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Details Mark Range

0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 17 50 1126 5901 16763
Percentage of Candidates 0.07 0.21 4.72 24.73 70.26
Cumulative Number 17 67 1193 7094 23857
Cumulative Percentage 0.07 0.28 5.00 29.74 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

80.00 70.26
Percentage of Candidates

70.00

60.00

50.00

40.00
24.73
30.00

20.00
4.72
10.00 0.07 0.21

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

42
 B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

SECTION A
Question 1
Write a composition in Hindi in approximately 400 words on any ONE of the topics given below:-
fuEufyf[kr fo"k;ksa esa ls fdlh ,d fo"k; ij yxHkx 400 'kCnksa esa fgUnh esa fucU/k fyf[k;s :-
(a) Ukkjh : ek] cgu] iRuh rFkk csVh gj #i esa vknj.kh; gSA & foospu dhft,A
(b) thou esa lq[k le`f) ikus ds fy, gj O;fDr vius fy, fdlh O;olk; dks pquuk pkgrk gSA vki
vius fy, fdl O;olk; dks pquuk ilan djsaxsA mldh izkIrh ds fy, vki D;k D;k iz;Ru djsaxs
rFkk mlls nsk o lekt dks D;k ykHk gksxkA
(c) ^ekuo dh vfregRokdka{kk us gh iznw"k.k tSlh fodjky leL;k dks tUe fn;k gSA bl dFku ds i{k
;k foi{k esa vius fopkj izdV djsaA
(d) vkt ds ;qx esa VwVrs ifjokjA
(e) fdlh ,sls pyfp= dk o.kZu dhft, ftls vkius vius ifjokj ds lkFk ns[kkA ml pyfp= ds fuZnsku]
laxhr fuZnsku] dgkuh rFkk dgkuh ls feyus okyh fk{kk dk o.kZu djrs gq, crk,a fd og pyfp=
vkidks fdl dkj.k ls cgqr vPNk yxkA
(f) fuEufyf[kr fo"k;ksa esa ls fdlh ,d fo"k; ij ekSfyd dgkuh fyf[k, :-
(ii) dgkuh dk vafre okD; gksxk --------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------^firkth ds ekxZnkZu ls gh vkt eSa bl ;ksX; cuk gwA^
(ii) dgkuh dh 'kq#vkr uhps fy[ks okD; ls dhft, :
^,d fnu esjk iMkslh^^--------------------------------------------

ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
(a) ukjh % ek] cgu] iRuh rFkk csVh gj :i esa vknj.kh; gS & v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
vf/kdkak Nk=&Nk=kvksa us bl fo"k; ij fucU/k fy[kkA dqN us
ek dk :i cgqr foLrkj ls fy[kk] 'ks"k cgu] iRuh csVh ds ckjs esa & v/;kidksa dks pkfg, fd fucU/k ys[ku dk
de fy[kkA vH;kl djk,aA ^izLrkouk* dh fucU/k ds
fucU/k esa izLrkouk cgqr de Nk=&Nk=kvksa }kjk fy[kh x;hA fy, vko;drk le>k,saA
& fucU/k ds izR;sd igyw ij ys[ku vk/kkfjr
(b) thou esa lq[k le`f) ikus ds fy, gj O;fDr vius fy, fdlh
dk;Z djus ds fy, Nk=ksa dks izfjr fd;k
O;olk; dks pquuk pkgrk gSA
tk,A
bl fo"k; esa Nk=&Nk=kvksa esa ^O;olk;* 'kCn ds }kjk Hkze mRiUu
gqvkA mUgksaus gksVy [kksyuk] nqdku [kksyuk lHkh ckrsa vius fucU/k
esa 'kkfey dhA okLrfod y{; ugha crk;kA ^izLrkouk* dk vHkko Hkh n`f"Vxkspj FkkA

43
(c) ^^ekuo dh vfregRokdka{kk us gh iznw"k.k tSlh fodjky leL;k & fucU/k ds izR;sd igyw ij fy[kk tk,A
dks tUe fn;k gSA** dksbZ Hkh igyw vuns[kk u jgsA d{kk esa
bl fo"k; ij ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us cgqr vf/kd o cgqr vPNk fy[kkA izR;sd igyw dk vH;kl djkus gsrq fucU/k
vkt dh ToyUr leL;k ij gksus ds dkj.k fo"k; dh tkudkjh ys[ku djk;k tk,A
mke Js.kh dh jghA dgha&dgha ^egRodka{kk* dk ifjizs{; vLi"V & dgkuh ys[ku gsrq bl rjg ds fo"k;ksa gsrq
jgkA d{kk esa vH;kl djk;k tk;s ftlls ;s Lej.k
(d) vkt ds ;qx esa VwVrs ifjokj & vf/kdkakr% ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us la;qDr jgs dh vfUre iafDr fn, tkus ij fy[kuk
ifjokj o ,dy ifjokj ds gkfu&ykHk fy[ksA ifjokj ds VwVus vko;d gSA
ds eq[; dkj.k de yksxksa }kjk crk, x,A & dgkuh ys[ku esa fo"k; /;ku ls i<+k tk,A
(e) ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us bl fo"k; ij Hkh vf/kd fy[kkA ^Fkzh bfM,Vl* o iafDr fy[kdj o.kZu izkjEHk djus dk vH;kl
^ih ds* fQYe dh dgkuh cgqr vPNs <+ax ls fy[khA ifjokj ds djk;k tkuk pkfg;sA
lkFk dk vuqHko dqN yksxksa ls fy[kkA funsZku o laxhr funsZku
dSlk Fkk bl ij cgqr de fy[kk x;kA
(f) (i) vusd Nk=&Nk=kvksa us bl fo"k; ij fy[kkA firk }kjk ik, ekxZnkZu dk o.kZu fd;k] ijUrq dqN Nk=ksa us
vfUre okD; tksM+uk vko;d ugha le>kA
(ii) bl fo"k; ij cgqr de fy[kk x;kA

MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(a) Hkwfedk %& ukjh n;k] ek;k] eerk] d#.kk vkSj izse dh ewfrZ] fo/kkrk dh vn~Hkwr jpuk -------------------------
--------------xq.kksa dk Hk.Mkj -----------------ek] cgu] iRuh] csVh gj #i esa vknj.kh; -------------------------------dke dkt
esa eU=h ---------------------------------Hkkstu rS;kj djds nsus okyh ekrk -----------------------k;u ds le; vIljk ----
----------------------/keZ ds vuqlkj pyus okyh ---------------------------- {kek tSls xq.kksa dh Lokfeuh -----------------------ohj
lkglh iq=ksa dh tUe nk=h ------------------------------ek ds #i eerk dh ewfrZ -----------------------iRuh ds #i
lgukhyrk ---------------------------------cgu ds #i esa lgukhyrk] ykM ds lkFk---------------------------------cq<+kis es
yM+ds ls T;knk ennxkj ------------------------vuUr xq.kksa dk Hk.Mkj ------------------------gj #i es vknj.kh; ---------
----------milagkj
(b) izLrkouk %& -------------------izR;sd O;fDr lq[k lqfo/kk pkgrk gS] ----------------------thou fcrkus ds fy;s dksbZ
u dksbZ dke djrk gS --------------------------fo|kFkhZ dkSu ls O;olk; pquuk pkgrk gS ----------------
mlds fy, D;k D;k iz;kl -------------------------nsk o lekt dks D;k ykHk -------------------milagkjA
(c) Hkwfedk %& ekuo dh egRokdk{kk, D;k gS ------------------------mu bPNkvksa ds dkj.k dkSu dkSu ls uohu
lk ---------------------------mu lk/kuksa ds ykHk ------------------------------muds iz;ksx ls iznw"k dh leL;k -------------------------
----------iz;ksx dgk rd mfpr -------------------------- milagkjA
ijh{kkFkhZ dh viuh bPNk gS og blds i{k es fy[ks ;k foi{k esa
(d) Hkwfedk %& VwVrs ifjokj ls D;k vfHkizk; ----------------vkt fdu dkj.kksa ls ifjokj VwV jgs gSa ---------------------
-----euq"; dk egRokdka{kh gksuk -------------------nwj nwj ukSdfj;k feyuk -----------------------------,d ;k nks cPps ------
--------------vkil esa fopkjksa dk u feyuk -------------------------LorU=rk ls jgus dh bPNk-------------------vf/kd iSls
dekus dh bPNk ----------------------ekrk&firk o ?kj ftEesnkfj;ksa ls cpuk ------------------ekrk firk o cPpksa dh
lksp dk vUrjA lek/kku ds fy, ekrk firk rFkk cPpksa ds feydj jgus ds ykHk lkspuk -----------------?kj

44
 dh vk/kh ckgj dh lkjh ,d cjkcj bl fo"k; dks le>uk -----------------dsoy /ku ds ihNs ugh Hkkxuk ---
----------de jksd Vksd djuk ----------,d nwljs ds dke vkuk --- milagkjA
ijh{kkFkhZ ek cki ls cPpksa dk vyx gksuk ;k ifr iRuh dk vyx gksuk fdlh Hkh fo"k; ij fy[k
ldrk gSA nksuksa gh ekU; gksaxs
(e) Hkwfedk %& euksjatu ds lk/ku dkSu ls-------------------pyfp= D;k gS ----------------------dc vkSj dSls ifjokj ds
lkFk dk;Zdze cuk --------------------dkSu lh fQYe ns[kh -----------------------------funsZku fdlus fd;k -------------------
dSlk funsZku Fkk -----------------laxhr dSlk Fkk ------------------------------dgkuh dSlh ------------------------lekt ij D;k
izHkko --------------------------------D;k vPNk yxk ------------- milagkjA
(f)(i) dgkuh ekSfyd gksuh pkfg, rFkk vfUre okD; **firkth ds ekZx nZku ls gh vkt eSa bl ;ksX; cuk
gw gh gksuk pkfg,A
(ii) dgkuh ekSfyd gksuh pkfg, rFkk dgkuh dh kq#vkr %& ,d fnu esjk iM+kslh ---------------------------ls gh
gksuh pkfg,A

Question 2
Read the following passage and briefly answer the questions that follows:-
fuEufyf[kr vorj.k dks i<+dj] vUr esa fn, x, izuksa ds laf{kIr mkj fyf[, %&
igyk lq[k fujksxh dk;k vFkkZr~ lcls cM+k lq[k LoLFk kjhj gS A vLoLFk O;fDr u viuk Hkyk dj
ldrk gS] u ?kj dk] u lekt dk vkSj u gh nsk dk A
izkphu dky ls gh mke LokLF; ds fy, O;k;ke ds ego dks igpkuk x;k gS A cM+s&cM+s euhf"k;ksa us
O;k;ke dks mke LokLF; dk vk/kkj crk;k gS A
/keZ] vFkZ] dke] eks{k bu pkjksa dk ewy vk/kkj LokLF; gS A tgk rd bl lQyrk dh ckr djsa rks
ekuo&thou dh lQyrk Hkh blh lw= esa fNih gS A
Cqf/nekkiw.kZ dk;Z rFkk lQyrk ds fy, ifjJe Hkh LoLFk kjhj ls gh laHko gksrk gS A vr% LoLFk
efLr"d rFkk LoLFk cqf/n ds fy, gesa kjhj dks LoLFk j[kuk pkfg, A
LokLF; vkSj lQyrk dk xgjk ukrk gS A lQyrk ds fy, O;fDr dks ifjJe djuk vko;d gS vkSj
vLoLFk O;fDr ifjJe ugha dj ldrk A LoLFk efLr"d ls gh euq"; esa lkspus&fopkjus dh kfDr vkrh gS]
og viuk gkfu&ykHk lksp ldrk gS A ftl nsk ds O;fDr det+ksj o vLoLFk gksaxs og nsk dHkh mUur ugh
gks ldrk A ,d fo|kFkhZ rHkh Js"B fo|kFkhZ gksxk tc og LoLFk gksxk A pkgs fo|kFkhZ gks ;k v/;kid] O;kikjh
gks ;k odhy] deZpkjh gks ;k kkld] ukSdj gks ;k Lokeh] izR;sd dks vius dk;Z esa lQyrk izkIr djus ds
fy, LoLFk gksuk vko;d gS A
bl LokLF; dh j{kk ds fy, euhf"k;ksa us ] oS|ks&MkWDVjksa us rFkk ;ksxh egkRekvksa us vusd lk/ku crk,
gSa & ftlesa kq/n ok;q] izkr% Hkze.k] la;fer thou] lPpfj=rk] fufpUrrk] lUrqfyr Hkkstu] xgjh uhan rFkk
O;k;ke izeq[k gS A bues Hkh O;k;ke gh mke LokLF; dh ewy tM+ gS A vkyL; :ih egkfjiq ls NqVdkjk ikus
ds fy, Hkh O;k;ke dks viukuk vko;d gS A O;k;ke O;fDr dk pqLr&nq#Lr j[krk gS A O;k;ke kkjhfjd
o ckSf/nd nks izdkj dk gksrk gS Akkjhfjd O;k;ke ds fy, n.M&cSBd] [kqyh gok esa nkSM+ yxkuk] unh esa

45
rSjuk] ?kqM+lokjh djuk] dqrh yM+uk rFkk fofHkUu izdkj ds [ksy] tSls & gkdh dcM~Mh] jLlkdlh] cSMfe.Vu
vkfn [ksys tk ldrs gS A ckSf/nd O;k;ke ds vUrZxr kCn igsfy;k] cqf/n&ijh{k.k ds izu rFkk krjat vkfn
[ksy vkrs gSa A
LokLF; ds izfr tkx:d gksus ds dkj.k gh vkt O;fDr fQj ;ksx dh vksj eqM+ jgs gSa A ;ksxkluksa dk ego
c<+rk tk jgk gS A bu ;ksxkluksa ds }kjk kjhj dh eklisfk;k iq"V gksrh gSa A lkFk gh euq"; dks ,dkxzfpkrk
dh kfDr izkIr gksrh gS A O;k;ke djus o ;ksxkluksa ls euq"; tYnh cw<+k ugh gksrk A mldh ikpu fdz;k
Bhd jgrh gS] jDr&lapkj fu;fer gksrk gS ftlls efLr"d LoLFk jgrk gS A euq"; esa vkRefookl] vkRefuHkZjrk
tSls xq.kksa dk lekosk gksrk gS tks euq"; dh lQyrk dh dqath gSA
Tkks lq[kksa dk miHkksx djuk pkgrk gS rFkk thou esa lQyrk :ih dqath ikuk pkgrk gS mls LokLF; ds
fu;ekas dk ikyu djuk pkfg, A
iz'u %&
(a) ^igyk lq[k fujksxh dk;k^ ls vki D;k le>rs gSa \ LokLF; fu;eksa dk ikyu djus ls D;k ykHk gksrk
gS \
(b) LokLF; vkSj lQyrk dk vkil esa xgjk ukrk fdl izdkj gS \
(c) LokLF; j{kk ds fy; fdlus vkSj D;k lk/ku crk, \
(d) 'kkjhfjd o ckSf)d O;k;ke ls vki D;k le>rs gSa \ ;s fdl izdkj fd;s tkrs gSa \
(e) ;ksx lk/kuksa dk egRo D;ksa c<+ jgk gS rFkk bl ;ksx lk?kuk ds D;k ykHk gSa \

ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
(a) vifBr x|kak vf/kdrj Nk=ksa dh le> esa vk;kA *igyk lq[k v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
fujksxh dk;k* dk vFkZ Nk=ksa us vius vuqlkj Li"V fd;k o
blesa os lQy Hkh jgsA & fk{kdksa dks pkfg, fd vifBr x|kak ds
mkj fy[kokrs le; izukuqlkj mkj
(b) vf/kdrj Nk=ksa us izu dk mkj vPNh rjg fn;kA
fy[kus dk vH;kl vo; djok;saA
(c) LokLF; j{kk ds lk/kuksa esa izu&i= ds vykok Hkh tkudkfj;k
& Nk=ksa dks funsZk nsa fd os fdlh Hkh igyw dks
nh x;hA Nk=ksa dks izu&i= ds vk/kkj ij gh mkj nsus ds
vuns[kk u NksM+saA gj fcUnq ij /;ku nsaA
fy;s izsfjr djuk djuk pkfg;sA
& mkj dks viuh Hkk"kk esa fy[kus dk vH;kl
mudks crkuk pkfg, fd i<h x;h ckr dks vius vuqlkj cny
djk,saA
dj fy[ksaA
(d) 'kkjhfjd o ckSf)d O;k;ke iwNs tkus ij vf/kdkak Nk=ksa us nksuksa ds ckjs esa tkudkjh ugha nhA dqN us 'kkjhfjd
O;k;ke rks crk;k ijUrq ckSf)d O;k;ke ugha fy[kkA
(e) ;ksx ds lk/kuksa dk egRo] ykHk] Nk=&Nk=kvksa us izui= ds vuqlkj vPNh rjg ls fy[kkA izR;sd fcUnq ij mke
rjhds ls fy[kk x;kA

46
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) igyk lq[k fujksxh dk vfHkizk; gS fd bl lalkj esa lcls cM+k lq[k kjhj dk LoLFk gksuk gSA D;ksafd
vLoLFk O;fDr u rks viuk Hkyk dj ldrk gS] u vius ifjokj dk] u gh nsk o lekt dk Hkyk dj
ldrk gSA LokLF; ds fu;eksa dk ikyu djus ls O;fDr g`"V iq"V jgrk gSA lq[kksa dk Hkksx djrk gS
vkSj thou esa lQyrk izkIr djrk gSA
(b) LokLF; vkSj lQyrk dk xgjk ukrk bl izdkj gS fd lQyrk ds fy, esgur vko;;d gSA vLoLFk
O;fDr rks esgur dj ugha ldrkA LoLFk efLr"d ls gh euq"; esa lkspus fopkj djus dh kfDr vkrh
gSA og viuh gkfu ykHk lksp ldrk gSA ftl nsk ds yksx detksj o vLoLFk gksaxs og nsk dHkh
mUufr ugha dj ldrkA ,d fo|kFkhZ rHkh Js"B fo|kFkhZ cu ldrk gS tc og LoLFk gksxkA fo|kFkhZ
gh D;ksa v/;kid] O;kikjh] odhy] deZpkjh ;k dksbZ kkld] dksbZ Hkh ekfyd ;k ukSdj gj fdlh dks
vius dk;Z dh lQyrk ds fy, LoLFk gksuk t#jh gSA
(c) LokLF; j{kk ds fy, cM+s cM+s oS|ksa&MkWDVjksa euhf"k;ksa rFkk ;ksxh egkRekvksa us vusd lk/ku crk, gSa
ftuesa kq/n gok] lqcg dh lSj] la;eiw.kZ thou] vPNk pfj=] fufpUrrk] lUrqfyr Hkkstu] iwjh uhan
rFkk O;k;ke izeq[k gSAa vPNs LokLF; ds fy, O;k;ke bu lc ls mke gSA
(d) Tkks kjhj dks rkdr o kfDr iznku djs og kkjhfjd O;k;ke rFkk tks eu dks izlUu o LoLFk j[ks
rFkk cqf/n dks dqkkxz djs og ckSf/nd O;k;ke gSA
kkjhfjd O;k;ke ds fy, [kqqyh gok esa nkSM+ yxkuk] n.M cSBd yxkuk] unh esa rSjuk] ?kqM+lokjh
djuk rFkk fofHkUu izdkj ds [ksy [ksys tk ldrs gSa tSls gkWdh] dcM~Mh] jLlkdkh rFkk cSMfe.Vu
vkfnA
ckSf/nd O;k;ke ds fy, kCn igsfy;k cw>uk] cqf/n ijh{k.k ds izuksa ds mkj nsuk rFkk krjat
vkfn [ksy [ksys tk ldrs gSaA
(e) vktdy yksx vius LokLF; ds izfr cgqr tkx#d gks jgs gSAa bl fy;s ;ksx lk/kuksa dh vksj eqM+ jgs gSAa bu
;ksx lk/kuksa ls kjhj dh ekal isfk;k iq"V gksrh gSa] euq"; dks ,dkxzfpkrk dh kfDr izkIr gksrh gSA blls
mldh ikpu fdz;k Bhd jgrh gS] jDr lapkj fu;fer gksrk gSA og tYnh cw<+k ugha gksrkA O;fDr dk efLr"d
LoLFk jgrk gS mlesa vkRe fookl c<+rk gS] vkRe fuHkZjrk vk tkrh gSA Tkks euq"; ds thou dks lQyrk
dh vksj ys tkrh gSA

Question 3
(a) Correct the following sentences :-
fuEufyf[kr okD;ksa dks 'kq) djds fy[ks:a -
(i) Tkks dke djks og iwjk t#j djksA
(ii) firk dk iq= esa fookl gSA
(iii) mls e`R;qn.M dh ltk feyh gSA
(iv) og xq.koku efgyk gSA
(v) lHkh dk;kZy; esa mifLFkfr de gSA

47
(b) Use the following idioms in sentences of your own to illustrate their meaning:-
fuEufyf[kr eqgkojksa dk vFkZ Li"V djus ds fy, okD;ksa esa iz;ksx dhft, : -
(i) Qwyk u lekukA
(ii) dku HkjukA
(iii) Ikkuh esa vkx yxkukA
(iv) Jh x.ksk djukA
(v) Ykksgs ds pus pckukA

ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
(a) (i) okD; laks/ku esa Nk=ksa us O;kdj.k vkSj okD; jpuk laEcU/kh v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
vkqf);k dhA dqN us vuko;d ifjoZru dj ds okD;
'kq) djus dk iz;Ru fd;k] dqN us ^Hkh^ tksM+dj 'kq) fd;k & d{kk esa O;kdj.k dk vH;kl fu;ekuqlkj
tks xyr FkkA ek=k lEcU/kh xyfr;k Hkh feyhaA djk;k tkuk pkfg,A
& vH;kl ds lkFk&lkFk] le; le; ij
(ii) dkjd dk ifjiDr Kku u gksus ds dkj.k dqN Nk=ksa us
O;kdj.k dh ijh{kk ysA blls O;kdj.k
xyfr;k djhaA
'kqf) ij idM+ cuh jgsxhA
(iii))dkSulk 'kCn L=hfyax gS vkSj dkSulk iqfYyax] bldk Kku
& ^foks"k.k* dh tkudkjh nsdj L=hfyax o
dqN Nk=ksa dks ugha FkkA lakks/ku ds fu;eksa dh mis{kk dj]
iqfyax 'kCnksa dk iz;ksx dk vH;kl djk;k
euekuk gsj Qsj djds okD; iqu% fy[k fn;k x;kA
tk,A 'kCndksk esa o`f) dh tk,A
(iv) vf/kdkak L=hfyax ds 'kCnksa esa iz;qDr foks"k.k lgh fy[kk
& d{kk esa ikB esa vk, eqgkojksa ds okD; iz;ksx
x;k FkkA dqN Nk=ksa us ^xquorh^ ds LFkku ij ^xquourh^ dk
dk vH;kl djk;k tk,A
iz;ksx fd;k
& d{kk esa eqgkojksa ds vFkZ le>k, tk,sa o
(v) ^opu*ds vuqlkj d{kk esa okD; ifjorZu djuk fl[kk;k
okD; cuok, tk,saA
tk,A dqN Nk=ksa us cgqopu dk iz;ksx u djds inksa esa gsj & cgqr ls Nk= dsoy vFkZ gh fy[k nsrs gSa ;k
Qsj djds fy[k fn;k] ;k fcanq yxkus esa pwd x,A vFkZ dk iz;ksx dj okD; cukrs gSaA d{kk
(b) (i) eqgkojk ^Qwyk u lekuk* vf/kdkak ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us le>k o esa bl ij /;ku fn;k tk,A
lgh izdkj ls okD; iz;ksx fd;kA
(ii) *dku Hkjuk* eqgkojs dk Hkh vf/kdkak Nk=kas us mfpr o lgh
<+ax ls iz;ksx fd;kA
(iii)*ikuh esa vkx yxkuk* vf/kdkak ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us okD; xyr cuk,A 'kk;n os eqgkojs dk vFkZ ugha le> ik,A
(iv) Jh x.ksk djuk& eqgkojk cgqr ls Nk=ksa }kjk ^iwtk* ds lUnHkZ esa fy;k x;kA izkr% oUnuk ds vFkZ esa vf/kdkak
Nk=ksa us bl eqgkojs dk vFkZ le>k o okD; cuk;kA
(v) ^yksgs ds pus pckuk*&vf/kdkak Nk=ksa us lgh okD; cuk,A dqN ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us okD; esa eqgkojs ds vFkZ dk iz;ksx
fd;kA

48
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a)(i) tks dke djks mls iwjk t#j djksA
(ii) firk dk iq= ij fookl gSA
(iii) mls e`R;qn.M feyk gSA
(iv) og xq.korh efgyk gSA
(v) lHkh dk;kZy;ksa esa mifLFkfr de gSA
(b)(i) cgqr [kqk gksukA
okD; % cgqr fnuksa ckn fe= ls feydj jkdsk Qwyk u lek;kA
(ii) pqxyh djuh
okD; % jesk vius ekfyd ds gj le; dku Hkjrk jgrk gS ftlds ifj.kke Lo#i vkWfWQl ds vU;
yksxksa dks MkV [kkuh iM+rh gSA
(iii) kkUr okrkoj.k dks vkkaUr djukA
okD; % ,d minzoh O;fDr ls xko okyksa us dgk fd rqe viuh prqjkbZ fn[kkdj ikuh esa vkx yxkus
dk dke djrs gksA
(iv) dk;Z izkjEHk djukA
okD; % vkt eksgu us viuh ubZ nqdku dk Jh x.ksk dj fn;kA
(v) cgqr dfBu dk;ZA
okD; % thou esa lQyrk ikus ds fy, vdlj yksgs ds pus pckus iM+rs gSAa

SECTION B
dkO; rjax
Question 4
lwjnkl us fofHkUu #iksa esa vius vkjk/; ds izfr viuh Hkkoukvksa dks O;Dr fd;k gSA ^fou; vkSj HkfDr^ [121/2]
ds vk/kkj ij lwjnkl dh HkfDr dk ifjp; mnkgj.k lfgr nhft,A
ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
bl izu dks ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us mfpr <+ax ls fy[kus dk iz;kl fd;k
& d{kk esa ftl dfo dks i<+k;k tk; mldk
fdUrq lwjnkl dh HkfDr dk ifjp; nsus esa iw.kZ lQy ugha fn[ksA
laf{kIr ifp; crkrs gq, HkfDr Hkkouk o Hkk"kk
lwj dh HkfDr vkSj muds vkjk/;] nksuksa ij ppkZ de dh x;hA
ij Hkh ppkZ dh tk,A
dqN Nk= in ds vuqlkj HkokFkZ crkrs jgsA izu ds izR;sd i{k
& le;kuqlkj mfpr fof/k ls izu dk mkj
ij ppkZ ugha djh x;hA
fy[kus dk vH;kl d{kk esa djk;k tk,A
& lxq.k&fuxqZ.k] lkdkj&fujkdkj ^l[kkHkko*
;k ^nkL;Hkko*] bl ij Li"V :i ls ppkZ
dh tk,A

49
MARKING SCHEME
Question 4

Lwkjnkl fgUnh lxq.k dkO; /kkjk dh d`".k HkfDr kk[kk ds izeq[k dfo gSAa d`".k HkfDr dk izpkj djus okys
izeq[k :Ik ls pSrU; egkizHkq rFkk oYyHkpk;Z gSAa oYyHkpk;Z us d`".k HkfDr dk cgqr vf/kd izpkj fd;k vkSj
HkfDr ds {ks= esa iqf"VekxZ dh LFkkiuk dh Fkh ftldk vFkZ gS Jh d`".k Hkxoku dh d`ik gh iqf"V gSA lwjnkl
bl kk[kk ds lw;Z ekus tkrs gSaA bUgksaus d`".k dh yhykvksa ls lEcfU/kr cgqr ls in fy[ks gSaA buds dkO;
esa Hkxoku ds yksdjatd :Ik dk o.kZu gSA lwjnkl us lxq.k HkfDr ds ego dks izdV fd;k gSA d`".k ds
lkFk l[kk Hkko dks iznfkZr fd;k gSA lwj k`axkj vkSj okRlY; jl ds dfo gSA buds dkO; dh Hkk"kk ljl
cztHkk"kk gSA lwjnkl dk dkO; xhfrdkO; gS tks eqDrd kSyh dk vn~Hkqr laxe gSA lwj izkjEHk esa fujkdkj
czk dh mikluk djrs Fks ijUrq vxkspj gksus ds dkj.k ;g mikluk bUgsa yqHkk ugha ikbZA
Lkwjnkl th dgrs gSa fd ftl ij bZoj dh d`ik gksrh gS og vlaHko dkeksa dks laHko dj nsrk gSA
blhfy, lwjnkl Jhd`".k dh HkfDr dks vius thou dk vk/kkj ekurs gSAa
**tkdh d`ik iaxq fxfj yk?kSS] va/ks dw lc dqN njlkbZA
cfgjkss lquS ewd iafu cksys] jsd pys flj N= /kjkbZAA
bl in esa lwjnkl us ;g ckr cM+s vPNs <ax ls nkkZ;h gS fd HkDr vius Lokeh dh HkfDr esa tc lc
dqN vfiZr dj nsrk gS rks mls peRdkfjd ykHk igqprk gSA os Jhd`".k ds pj.kksa dh oUnuk djus ds fy,
dgrs gSaA muds pj.kksa dh oUnuk dk izrki bruk vf/kd gS fd yaxM+k O;fDr Hkh ioZr dks ikj dj ldrk
gSA va/kk O;fDr vk[ksa ikdj lc dqN ns[k ldrk gSA cgjs esa bruh kfDr vk tkrh gS fd og lc dqN
lquus yxrk gSA xwxk O;fDr cksyus yxrk gSA mUgksaus Jhd`".k ds izfr viuk vuU; HkfDr Hkko izdV fd;k
gSA uo/kk HkfDr dks bZoj izkfIr dk vk/kkj crk;k gS ftlesa bZoj ds pj.kksa dh lsok djuk Hkh gSA blhfy,
dgrs gSa &
**pj.k dey cankS gfjjkbZA
Lkwjnkl us fujkdkj ck dh HkfDr dh rqyuk xwxs ds ehBs Qy ls dh gSA xwxs dks ehBk Qy f[kyk
nks rks og mlds Lokn dks vuqHko rks djrk gS ysfdu crk ugha ldrkA
**T;ksa xwxs ehBs Qy dks jl varjxr gh HkkoSA
lwjnkl lxq.k HkfDr ds mikld Fks blfy, mUgksaus bZoj ds :i;qDr vkdkj] vorkj vkSj yhykvksa dk
o.kZu fd;k gSA budh HkfDr iw.kZ :Ik ls izse ij vk/kkfjr gSA buds er esa dksjk Kku bZoj dks izkIr ugha
dj ldrkA tks eu vkSj ok.kh ls vxkspj gS mldk o.kZu djuk cgqr dfBu gSA lwj dgrs gSa &
**vfoxr&xfr dNq dgr u vkoSA
ftls tkuk gh u tk lds mldk o.kZu djuk vR;Ur dfBu gSA fuxqZ.k ck dh mikluk mikld dks
lUrks"k vkSj vkuan rks ns ldrh gS ij og mls eu ls le> ugha ldrk vkSj ok.kh ls izdV ugha dj ldrkA
fuxqZ.k dkO; /kkjk ds yksx bZoj ds vorkj dks ekU;rk ugha nsrsA mUgksaus bZoj dks bfUnz;ksa ds vuqHko dh
oLrq u ekudj mls Kku ds }kjk vuqHko dh tkus okyh oLrq dgk gSA bZoj dks Kku vkSj vuqHko ls izkIr
fd;k tk ldrk gS A mls :Ik vkSj xq.k ls jfgsr ekuk gSA blh er dk [k.Mu lwj us vius in esa fd;k
gSA
**:i&js[k&xqu&tkfr&tqxfr fcuq] fujkyEc fdr /kkoSA
Eku ftldh dYiuk ugha dj ldrk rFkk ok.kh ftldh vfHkO;fDr ugha dj ldrh ml ck dh
mikluk dSls dh tk,\ mlesa bfUnz;k ,dkxz gksdj mikluk esa yhu ugha gks ldrhA lkalkfjd thou esa
vius mkjnkf;Ro dks fuHkkrs gq, fujkdkj ck dh mikluk cgqr dfBu gSA fujkdkj ck dh vuqHkwfr
dsoy Kkuh yksx gh dj ldrs gS] lk/kkj.k O;fDr ughaA fujkdkj ck dh mikluk esa dbZ tfVyrk, Hkh
gSaA

50
 **lc fof/k vxe fopkjfg rkrsa] lwj lxqu&in xkoSA
blfy, lwj us fujkdkj ck dh mikluk dh vis{kk lkdkj ck dh mikluk ij cy fn;k gSA
izse] HkfDr vkSj fouez izkFkZuk gh bZoj rd igqpk ldrh gSA
lwjnkl d`".kkJ;h kk[kk ds izeq[k dfo FksA blfy, os dgrs gSa fd mudk eu d`".k HkfDr djus ds vfrfjDr
dgha ls Hkh lq[k izkfIr ugha dj ldrkA d`".k dh kj.k gh mUgsa lq[k vkSj kkfUr iznku dj ldrh gSA
**esjks eu vur dgk lq[k ikoSA
tSls Js"B oLrq ik ysus ij dkssbZ Hkh rqPN oLrq dh bPNk ugha djrk oSls gh Hkxoku d`".k dh HkfDr dks
NksM+dj mUgsa dgha lUrks"k ugha feyrkA mUgksaus vius eu dh rqyuk tgkt ij cSBs i{kh ls dh gSA vFkkg
lkxj esa tc ikuh dk tgkt tk jgk gS] ml ij cSBk i{kh dgha ij Hkh tk, ij pkjksa vksj vikj ty
ns[kdj iqu% tgkt ij vkdj cSB tkrk gSA blh izdkj ;g lalkj ,d vFkkg lkxj gS ftlesa tho dke]
dzks/k] yksHk] eksg vkfn ls vkPNkfnr gksdj Mwc tkrk gSA vxj og Hkxoku :ih tgkt dk vkJ; ys ysrk
gS rks rj tkrk gSA dfo dk ekuuk gS fd vxj lalkj lkxj esa eSa HkVd Hkh tk] vUr esa vki Jhd`".k
ds ikl gh vkxkA
**ije&xaxk dks NkfM fi;klkS] nqjefr dwi [kukoSA
bl iafDr ds ek/;e ls dfo us bl rF; dh vksj ladsr fd;k gS fd xaxk ds fdukjs jgdj nqcqZf/nxzLr
O;fDr gh I;kl cq>kus ds fy,] dqvk [kksnsxkA dey tSls us=ksa okys Jhd`".k dh HkfDr dks NksM+dj vU;
nsoh&nsorkvksa dh vkjk/kuk D;ksa dh tk,A dey dk jliku djus okys Hkojsa dks dM+os Qy D;ksa vPNs yxsaxs!
izHkq :ih dke/ksuq dks NksM+dj vU; nsoh&nsorkvksa :ih cdjh dk nw/k dkSu nqgkosxkA
bl izdkj d`".k HkDr dfo;ksa esa lwjnkl th dk egoiw.kZ LFkku gSA
i) fofHkUu :iksa esa vkjk/; ds izfr vfHko;fDr
ii) HkfDr ifjp; l[kkHkko ,oa iqf"V ekxhZ

Question 5
^jghe
nkl th nSfud thou ls mnkgj.k ysdj uhfr dh xw<+ ckr dks vklkuh ls le>k nsrs gSaA ^& [121/2]
bl vk/kkj ij jghe ds nksgksa dh foks"krk crkrs gq, mudh dkO; 'kSyh ij izdkk Mkfy,A
ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
jghenkl ds fo"k; esa ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us mfpr rjhds ls fy[kkA izu v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
esa Li"V iwNk x;k Fkk fd ^jghe ds nksgksa dh foks"krk, o dkO;
'kSyh + + + + + +dqN Nk=&Nk=kvksa us nksgksa dh foks"krk,sa fy[kh ij & d{kk esa dfo ifjp; ds lkFk Hkk"kk&kSyh ,oa
dkO; 'kSyh ugha le>k ik,A jpukvksa dh foks"krk,sa Hkh le>k,saA
dfoRo Hkkx ij /;ku ugha fn;kA mnkgj.k fy[kus ds & Hkk"kk&kSyh dk Li"Vhdj.k d{kk esa fn;k
lkFk&lkFk O;k[;k Hkkx fy[kuk vko;d gksrk gSA tkuk vko;d gSA
& Ikzu ds izR;sd Hkkx dks vge eku dj ml
ij fopkjkfHkO;fDr djus dk vH;kl d{kk
esa djk;k tk,A dkO; ds izu esa dfork
Hkkx fy[kuk vko;d crk;k tk;A

51
MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
jghe vius uhfrijd nksgksa ds fy, fo[;kr gSaA jghe dk iwjk uke vCnqjZghe [k+ku[k+kuk FkkA os thoui;ZUr
vdcj ds njckj esa jgsA eqlyeku gksrs gq, Hkh fgUnq /keZ ds izfr mudk n`f"Vdks.k mnkj FkkA jghe us thou
esa vusd mrkj&p<+ko ns[ks Fks] blfy, mUgsa lalkj dk xgu vuqHko FkkA muds nksgs dgkorksa vkSj yksdksfDr;ksa
dk :Ik xzg.k dj pqds gSaA vkt Hkh yksx mudks mnkgj.kksa ds :Ik esa iz;ksx dj viuh ckr dks vf/kd
izHkkokkyh cukrs gSAa jghe dks yksd laLd`fr] yksd O;ogkj vkSj kkL=ksa dk xgjk Kku FkkA mUgksusa bl Kku
dks lkekU; Hkk"kk esa cM+h lgtrk ds lkFk vius nksgkas esa O;Dr fd;k gSA os lk/kkj.k euq"; ds nSfud thou
ls mnkgj.k ysdj uhfr dh xw<+ ckr dks vklkuh ls le>k nsrs gSaA muds nksgksa esa thou dh ,slh lPpkb;k
fNih gqbZ gSa ftudk ix&ix ij tu ekul dks vuqHko gksrk gSA jkepUnz kqDy ds kCnksa eas & **jghe ds
nksgksa esa ekfeZdrk gSA muds Hkhrj ls ,d lPpk n; >kd jgk gSA
jghe us viuh ckr le>kus ds fy, lVhd n`"VkUrksa dk iz;ksx fd;k gSA os dgrs gSa fd uhp yksxksa dk lkFk
djus ls vPNs vkSj cM+s yksxksa dh Hkh cnukeh gksrh gSA ftl izdkj ,d efnjk cspus okyh ds gkFk esa ;fn
nw/k dk ik= gks rks yskx mls Hkh efnjk gh le>rs gSAa
jfgeu uhpu lax cfl] yxr dyad u dkfgA
nw/k dykfju gkFk yf[k; en leq>S lc rkfgAA
cqjk djus dk Qy cqjk gh gksrk gSA nwljs dk cqjk pkgdj lq[k dh dkeuk djuk O;FkZ gS D;ksafd cqjkbZ
ds cnys cqjkbZ gh feyrh gSA euq"; nwljs dk cqjk djds mlls vPNkbZ dh bPNk j[krk gS] ij ;g vlEHko
gS & ;fn ge uhe dk isM+ yxk,xs rks mlesa vke dk Qy dgk ls yxsxk\
;fn O;fDr esa fo|k] cqf/n] /keZ] ;k vkSj nku tSls xq.k ugha gSa rks mldk bl i`Foh ij tUe ysuk
O;FkZ gSA og fcuk iwN vkSj lhax ds Ikkq ds leku gSA dfo dgrs gSa fd gj O;fDr dk le; vkrk gS tc
mldh iwN gksrh gSA o"kkZ _rq esa dks;y dh ehBh ok.kh dk ego u gksus ds dkj.k og ekSu /kkj.k dj ysrh
gSA
o"kkZ _rq esa esa<d viuh VjZ&VjZ dh /ofu dks pkjksa vksj QSykrs gS D;ksafd vc mudk le; gS A
isM+ dh tM+ dks lhapus ls gh iwjk isM+ flap tkrk gS] ;fn ge isM+ dh tM+ dks u lhapdj mlds
vyx&vyx Hkkxksa dks lhapsxs rks iwjs isM+ dks ykHk ugh igqpk Lkdrk A blh izdkj fdlh Hkh dk;Z ds eq[;
vk/kkj dh ns[k&Hkky djus ls ml dk;Z esa lQyrk vo; feyrh gSA
,dS lk/ks lc l/kS] lc lk/ks lc tk;A
jfgeu ewyfg lhafpcks] QwyS QyS v?kk;AA
jghe us gj pht dh vfr dks cqjk crk;k gS A vfr gksus ls oLrq vkSj O;fDr dk ego de gks tkrk
gS A ;fn fdlh ls vf/kd ifjp; gks tkrk gS rks vR;f/kd esytksy ds dkj.k ,d nwljs ds izfr vuknj
rFkk v#fp iSnk gksus yxrh gS A ey; ioZr ij pUnu ds cgqr ls o`{k yxs jgrs gS A panu dh ydM+h
dherh ekuh tkrh gS ij ey; ioZr ij jgus okyh Hkhyuh dks mlds ego dk Kku ugha A og mlls vU;
ydfM+;ksa dh Hkkfr tykus dk dke ysrh gS A
vfr ijpS rs gksr gS] v#fp ] vuknj Hkk;A
ey;kfxfj dh Hkhyuh] panu nsr tyk;AA
jghe us vius lw{e voyksdu dks fuEufyf[kr nksgs esa izdV fd;k gSA [kSfj;r] [kwu] [kklh] [kqkh]
nqeuh] izse vkSj efnjkiku dks euq"; fNikuk Hkh pkgsa rks fNi ugha ldrs cfYd os vkSj T+;knk izdV gksdj

52
lkeus vkrs gSa ftlls lHkh mUgsa tku ysrs gSaA [kSfj;r ekywe gks tkrh gS] [kwu ,d u ,d fnu izdV gks
tkrk gSA efnjkiku dks Hkh euq"; fNik ugha ldrkA
[kSj [kwu [kklh] cSj izhfr enikuA jfgeu nkcS u ncS]a tkur ldy tgkuAA
uhp O;fDr ;fn fdlh dkj.kok vius xq.k vkSj lkeF;Z ls vf/kd dqN ik ysrk gS rks og ?keaMh gks
tkrk gSA og vius ewy lh/ks vkSj frjNs [kkuksa esa Hkh fdruh Hkh nwj py ldrk gSA I;knk tc vkf[kjh [kkus
esa igqp tkrk gS rks ml [kkus ds ewy :Ik essa jgus okys eksgjs ds cjkcj gks tkrk gS vkSj mlh dh pky
pyus yxrk gSA ;fn I;knk ot+hj ds [kkus rd vk tkrk gS rks mlh ds led{k gks tkrk gSA
Tkks jghe vksNks c<+S] rks vfr gh brjk;A
I;knk lkSa Qjth Hk;kS] Vs<+ks&Vs<+ks tk;AA
fdlh lk/kkj.k O;fDr dks pk in feyus ij mlesa ?keaM vk tkrk gSA
jghe ds nksgksa esa vusd uSfrd fk{kk, gSa tks gekjs nSfud thou esa dke vkrh gSA jghe us ijksidkjh
euq"; dh izkalk dh gSA ijksidkjh euq"; nwljksa dk Hkyk djus ds lkFk&lkFk vius vki dks Hkh /kU; djrk
gS] ftl izdkj esagnh ckVus okys ds gkFk vuk;kl gh esagnh ls jp tkrs gSaA bl izdkj ijksidkj ds n~okjk
euq"; nwljksa dk Hkyk djus ds lkFk&lkFk viuk Hkh Hkyk djrk gSA
Oks jghe uj /kU; gS] ij midkjh vax A
ckVuokjs dks yxS] T;ksa esagnh dks jax AA
jghe ds dFkukuqlkj dqlax dk izHkko vPNs yksxksa ij ugha iM+rkA vxj gekjk LoHkko vPNk gS rks ml
ij cqjs yksxksa dh laxfr dk izHkko ugha iM+rk] ftl izdkj panu ds o`{k ij lkIk fyiVs jgrs gSa ijarq panu
viuh lqxa/k vkSj khryrk ugha NksM+rkA mke izd`fr ds yksx fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa vius vPNs LoHkko dks
ugha NksM+rsA
tks jghe mke izd`fr] dk dfj ldr dqlaxA
panu fo"k O;kir ugha] fyiVs jgr HkqtaxAA
dfo dgrs gSa fpUrk vkSj r`".kk lc ijskkfu;ksa dh tM+ gSA vxj euq"; fparkeqDr gks tk, rks og lcls cM+k
lkgwdkj dgyk,xkA fuEufyf[kr nksgs esa jghe us blh ckr dks Li"V fd;k gS %
pkg xbZ fpark feVh] euqvk csijokgA
ftudks dNq u pkfg,] os lkgu ds lkgAA
jghe dh dfork esa mudh izfrHkk] Kku] fo"k; fokkyrk vkSj fofo/krk ds nkZu gksrs gSAa uhfr] Ja`xkj vkSj
HkfDr muds dkO; ds fo"k; FksA vius nksgksa esa jghe us ykSfdd] vykSfdd rFkk thou ds O;kogkfjd i{kksa
dks nkkZ;k gSA jghe dh Hkk"kk czt vkSj vo/kh gSA blds vfrfjDr mUgsa dbZ Hkk"kkvksa dk Kku FkkA os ;ksX;rk
ds lPps ikj[kh FksA mUgksaus ekuo O;ogkj vkSj izd`fr O;ogkj dk xgu fujh{k.k fd;k FkkA lw{e voyksdu]
kkL=Kku vkSj lgt vfHkO;fDr mudh futh foks"krk, gSAa muds O;fDrRo esa mnkjrk] lgtrk] lPpfj=rk
vkSj fouezrk ds xq.k FksA jghe dk le; HkfDrdky vkSj jhfrdky ds chp dh dM+h gSA jghe ds nksgksa dh
lPpkbZ ikBdksa ds n; ij xgjk izHkko NksM+rh gSA mUgksaus thou ds [kV~Vs&ehBs vuqHkoksa dks viuh jpukvksa
esa mrkjk gS blfy, muds nksgksa esa gesa thou ds fofo/k fp= feyrs gSAa fgUnh ds uhfrdkjksa esa jghe dk
LFkku loksZifj gSA
i) nksgksa dh foks"krk %& ljl] ikf.MR; iw.kZ] fk{kk izn] loZ tufgrk; vFkZ xkEHkh;Z ;qDr] vrqHkotU;
lPpkbZ] uSfrdrk vkfn ij izdkk MkyukA
ii) dkO; 'kSyh & ljl ,oa lqcks/k

53
Question 6
^^drZO;ksavkSj mRrjnkf;Roksa dks fuHkkus okyk O;fDr Js"B gksrk gS rFkk ,slk gh O;fDr bZoj dks fiz; [121/2]
Hkh gksrk gSA*^ fujkyk th }kjk jfpr ^fiz;re^ dfork ds vk/kkj ij fl) fdft, A

ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
^fiz;re* dfork ij vk/kkfjr bl izu dks Nk=&Nk=kvksa }kjk v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
lokZf/kd fy[kk x;kA dfork Hkkx vklku gksus ds dkj.k mnkgj.k
ds lkFk fy[kk x;kA & d{kk esa le;lhek ds vuqlkj mkj fy[kus
fdlh&fdlh ijh{kkFkhZ us vko;drk ls vf/kd foLr`r dk vH;kl djk;k tk,A
mkj fy[kkA & v/;kid dfork&Hkkx dks daBLFk djk dj
dgha&dgha ek=kxr vkqf);k feyh ftls d{kk esa lq/kkjk Hkh Lej.k djuk fl[kk ldrs gSaA
tk ldrk gSA & dfork dk HkkokFkZ] mkj esa fy[kuk fl[kk;k
tk,A dfork dh lh[k vo; 'kkfey dh
tk,A
& Nk=ksa dks crk,sa fd dfo dk foLr`r ifjp;
iwNus ij gh fn;k tk,A

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
Ckgqeq[kh izfrHkk ds /kuh dfo fujkyk th Nk;koknh dkO;/kkjk ds izeq[k dfo;ksa esa ,d fofk"V LFkku j[krs gSAa
budh ckn dh jpukvksa esa izxfrokn ds Loj QwVrs fn[kkbZ nsrs gSaA egkdfo ^fujkyk* us fgUnh lkfgR; dks
,d uohu vkHkk iznku dhA bUgksaus eqDr Nan dh kq#vkr dh rFkk bl izdkj fgUnh dfork dks NUn vkSj
rqd ds cU/ku ls eqDr fd;k] NUn ls eqDr gksus ij Hkh budh dfork esa laxhr ds ek/kq;Z dh vuqHkwfr gksrh
gSA ^fiz;re* budh blh izdkj dh jpuk gSA
fujkyk th us laLd`rfu"B [kM+h cksyh dk iz;ksx fd;k gSA Hkkjrh; laLd`fr ds izfr dfo iw.kZr% lefiZr
gSA izLrqr dfork ^fiz;re* esa dfo us fo".kq Hkxoku vkSj ukjn th ls lEcfU/kr ,d ikSjkf.kd izlax ds ek/;e
ls ;g fl/n djus dk iz;kl fd;k gS fd thou esa vius dkZO;ksa vkSj mkjnkf;Roksa dks fuHkkus okyk O;fDr
gh Js"B gksrk gS vkSj ,slk gh O;fDr bZoj dks fiz; gSA
,d ckj ukjn th cSdq.B /kke esa fo".kq Hkxoku ds ikl igqps vkSj iwNus yxs & gs Hkxou~! e`R;qyksd
esa vkidk lcls fiz; HkDr dkSu gS\ blds mkj esa Hkxoku fo".kq us ukjn th ls dgk fd eq>s vius izk.kksa
ls Hkh fiz; ,d fdlku gSA ukjn th dgrs gSa &
**e`R;qyksd esa dkSu gS iq.;yksd
HkDr rqEgkjk iz/kku\
fo".kq Hkxoku us dgk &&**,d lTtu fdlku gS izk.kksa ls fiz;reA
ukjn th fo".kq Hkxoku ds bl mkj ls pfdr jg x, vkSj lkspus yxs fd Hkxoku us fdl vk/kkj ij
,d lk/kkj.k fdlku dks viuk loZfiz; HkDr eku fy;k tcfd og Lo;a jkr&fnu Hkxoku ds uke dk tki
djrs jgrs gSa **ukjk;.k ukjk;.kA vr% ;g ckr muds xys ugha mrjhA os cksys **mldh ijh{kk ywxkA

54
 fo".kq Hkxoku ;g lqudj glus yxsA os le> x, fd ukjn th dks ;g ckr vPNh ughA yxh vr%
mUgksaus ukjn th ls dgkA
**ys ldrs gksA
Ukkjn th cSdq.B /kke ls e`R;qyksd esa pys vk, vkSj fdlku dh ijh{kk ysus mlds ikl igqpsA ogk
igqp dj mUgksaus ns[kk fd og fdlku nksigj dks gy tksrdj tc vius ?kj igqpk rks mlus njokts ij
igqpdj *jke th * dk uke fy;kA fQj og Luku djds rFkk Hkkstu djds vius [ksrksa es dke ij pyk
x;kA kke dks ykSVdj mlus njokts ds ikl gh [kM+s gksdj jke dk uke fy;k rFkk izkr%dky [ksr esa dke
ij tkrs gq, ml fdlku us ,d ckj fQj Hkxoku jke dk uke fy;kA ;g ns[kdj ukjn th pdjk x,
vkSj lkspus yxs & bl fdlku us fnu&Hkj esa dsoy rhu ckj gh Hkxoku dk uke fy;k fQj Hkh Hkxoku dks
;gh HkDr ;kn jgk! dfo ds kCnksa esa &
izkr% dky pyrs le;
,d ckj fQj mlus
e/kqj uke Lej.k fd;kA
**cl dsoy rhu ckj\
Ukkjn pdjk x, &
fdUrq Hkxoku dks ;g fdlku gh ;kn vk;k\
ukjn th viuh blh my>u dks ysdj fo".kq yksd pys x, vkSj Hkxoku ls cksys &
**ns[kk fdlku dks
fnu Hkj esa rhu ckj
Ukke mlus fy;k gSA
fQj Hkh vkidks ogh fdlku fiz; gS\
fo".kq Hkxoku us rRdky bl izu dk mkj nsuk mfpr u le>kA blds fy, mUgksaus ukjn th dh
ijh{kk ysuh pkgh ftlls muds izu dk mkj izkIr gks tk,A fo".kq Hkxoku us ukjn th dks ,d dk;Z lksaik
vkSj dgk &
**ukjn th] vko;d nwljk
,d dke vk;k gS]
rqEgsa NksM+dj dksbZ
vkSj ugh dj ldrkA
fo".kq Hkxoku us ukjn th dks rsy ls Hkjk gqvk ,d ik= fn;k vkSj dgk fd bls gkFk esa ysdj HkweaMy
dh iznf{k.kk dj vkb,A ,d ckr dk foks"k /;ku j[kuk gS fd rsy dk ik= ys tkrs le; mlesa ls ,d Hkh
cwn tehu ij u fxjsA fo".kq th cksys &
**rSy&iw.kZ ik= ;g
Yksdj iznf{k.kk dj vkb, HkweaMy dhA
/;ku jgs lfoks"k
,d cwn Hkh blls
rSy u fxjus ik,A
Ukkjn th rsy&ik= gkFk esa ysdj Hkwe.My dh iznf{k.kk djds tc cSdq.B dks ykSVs rks mudk eu
cgqr izQqfYyr Fkk fd mUgksaus fo".kq Hkxoku dh vkKk dk iw.kZr% ikyu fd;k vkSj rsy dh ,d cwn Hkh /kjrh

55
 ij fxjus u ikbZA lkFk gh ukjn th ;g lksp&lksp dj vkSj Hkh izlUu gks jgs Fks fd rsy ds ckjs esa vkt
,d u;k jgL; irk pysxkA ukjn th dks mYyflr ns[kdj fo".kq Hkxoku us Lusg ls cSBkdj dgk&
**;g mkj rqEgkjk ;gha vk x;k]
Ckrykvks] ik= ysdj tkrs le; fdruh ckj
Ukke b"V dk fy;k \
fo".kq Hkxoku ds bl izu dks lqudj ukjn th kafdr gks x, vkSj Hkxoku ls cksys & gs Hkxou~! vkius gh
;g dk;Z eq>s lkSaik Fkk vr% eSa iw.kZ euks;ksx ls mls gh iw.kZ djus esa yxk Fkk fQj vkidk uke dc ysrk\
fo".kq Hkxoku us ukjn th dks le>krs gq, dgk fd gs ukjn! ml fdlku dk Hkh og dk;Z esjk gh fn;k
gqvk gSA og vius dk;Z dks iwjs eu ds lkFk iw.kZ fu"Bk ls djrk gSA blds vfrfjDr vius ifjokj ds izfr
vU; mkjnkf;Ro Hkh fuHkkrk gS vkSj viuh ftEesnkfj;k iw.kZ djrs gq, og fdlku esjk uke Hkh ysrk gSA ;gh
dkj.k gS fd og fdlku esjk lcls fiz; HkDr gS &
**ukjn ml fdlku dk Hkh dke
Eksjk fn;k gqvk gSA
mkjnkf;Ro dbZ ykns gSa ,d lkFk
lcdks fuHkkrk vkSj
dke djrk gqvk
uke Hkh og ysrk gS
blh ls gS fiz;reA
ukjn th ;g mkj ikdj yfTtr gks x,A mudh le> esa vk x;k fd lPph iwtk viuk dkZO; djus esa
gSA tks O;fDr yxu o fu"Bk ls vius dkZO; iw.kZ djrk gS vkSj vius mRrjnkf;Ro Hkh fuHkkrk gS] bZoj
mlls izlUu jgrs gSaA vdeZ.; jgdj dsoy bZoj Hktu esa yhu jgus esa dksbZ le>nkjh ugha gS vkSj u
bZoj gh ml HkDr dks viuk fiz; ik= le>rsa gSaA ukjn th bl lR; dks le> x, vkSj cksys & **;g
lR; gSA

fueZyk
Question 7
fueZyk miU;kl dk m/ns; lekt esa QSyh cgqr lh leL;kvksa dks mtkxj djuk gS A Li"V [121/2]
dhft,A
ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
^fueZyk* miU;kl ij vk/kkfjr bl izu dks vf/kdrj ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa & fueZyk miU;kl esa of.kZr leL;kvksa dks
}kjk fy[kk x;kA O;ogkfjd thou ls tksM+ dj le>k,saA
dqN ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us u dsoy eq[; leL;kvksa dk o.kZu fd;k miU;kl esa of.kZr izR;sd leL;k dks foLr`r
cfYd lHkh leL;kvksa dks foLrkj ls crk;kA :i ls rRdkyhu ifjfLFkfr;ksa ds ifjizs{; esa
dqN Nk=ksa us foLr`r :i ls ys[kd izsepan dk ifjp; fy[kk le>k;k tk,A
tks vko;d ugha FkkA & ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa esa ekSfyd fopkjksa dh mRifk o
dFkk dks izu ds lkFk lekfgr djds fy[kus dk vH;kl fn, x, fo"k; ij lksp dks fodflr djus
djk;k tk, ftldk dqN ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa esa vHkko fn[kkbZ fn;kA dk iz;kl fd;k tk,A
& Nk=ksa dks crk,sa fd dfo ;k ys[kd ifjp;
cgqr laf{kIr :i ls fy[kk tk,A

56
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7

eqakh izsepan n~~okjk fyf[kr ^fueZyk* miU;kl ,d ,slh jpuk gS] tks dsoy euksjatu ds fy, ugha fy[kh xbZ]
vfirq lekt esa QSyh dqN dqjhfr;ksa vkSj cqjkb;ksa ij pksV djus rFkk bu cqjkb;kas dks nwj djus dh izsj.kk
nsus ds mn~ns; ls jfpr gSA
vkt ds lekt esa ^ngst izFkk* ,d ,slh Hkh"k.k leL;k gS] ftlds dkj.k fujkk ekrk&firk ngst ds
vHkko es viuh lqkhy ,oa ;ksX; dU;k dk fookg v;ksX; nqgktw O;fDr;ksa ls djus dks ck/; gksrs gSAa fueZyk
dgkuh esa izsepan th us blh leL;k ij izgkj fd;k gSA fueZyk tSlh lqanj] lqkhy ,oa fonq"kh dU;k dk
fookg mldh ek dks eqakh rksrkjke tSls O;fDr ls blhfy, djuk iM+k] D;ksafd mlds firk dh vlkef;d
e`R;q ds dkj.k ngst dks ysdj flUgk ifjokj us mls viuh iq=o/kw cukus ls lkQ badkj dj fn;k FkkA
fueZyk dks vius firk dh leku vk;q okys dq:Ik O;fDr dks viuk ifr Lohdkj djuk iM+k] blls cM+k
vfHkkki vkSj D;k gks ldrk gSA nksuksa dh vk;q esa varj ds dkj.k fueZyk dks ekufld d"V feys] ogha mldk
cw<+k ifr geskk mls lansg dh ut+jksa ls ns[krk jgkA blls cM+h uhprk D;k gks ldrh gS fd vius gh iq=
vkSj iRuh ds Lusg iw.kZ O;ogkj dks mlus lansg dh n`f"V ls ns[kkA ftlds dkj.k u dsoy mls vius toku
iq= ls gkFk /kksuk iM+k] cfYd ifjokj dh kakfr Hkax djus rFkk varr% mlds loZukk dk dkj.k cukA
vuesy fookg ds dkj.k dU;k dk ;kSou] :Ik vkSj mez lc u"V gks tkrs gSaA fueZy ds ek/;e ls izsepan th
us ukjh dh varosZnuk] ihM+k rFkk ekufld O;Fkk dks mtkxj djus dk iz;kl fd;k gSA lkFk gh MkW Hkqou
eksgu flUgk rFkk mlds ekrk&firk dks vkM+s gkFkksa fy;k gS] tks dU;k dh Js"Brk mlds khy] lnkpkj]
pfj= ,oa lkSan;Z ls ugha vkdrs] cfYd ngst esa feyus okyh jde ls vkdrs gSAa
^fueZyk* miU;kl esa ngst izFkk rFkk vuesy fookg ds vykok dbZ vU; leL;kvksa dh vskj Hkh ikBdksa
dk /;ku vkd`"V fd;k x;k gSA bl miU;kl esa foekrk dh leL;k dh vksj Hkh izdkk Mkyk x;k gSA ;g
vke /kkj.kk gS fd foekrk vius lkSrsys cPpksa ls I;kj djuk rks nwj] mUgsa QwVh vk[k Hkh ugha ns[k ldrh]
tc fd miU;kl esa bl izpfyr /kkj.kk dk [kaMu fd;k x;k gSA fueZyk eqakh rksrkjke ds rhuksa cPpksa ls
fuNy Lusg djrh gS] ijarq ;g mldk nqHkZkX; fd mls lkSrsyh ekrk le> dj ml ij rjg&rjg ds ykaNu
,oa nks"kkjksi.k fd, tkrs gSAa
Ckspkjh fueZyk rks ckr&ckr esa ;g lko/kkuh cjrrh gS fd fdlh izdkj vius ifr] viuh uun vkSj
lkSrsys cPpksa dk fookl thr ldsA blhfy, og vusd ckj vieku ds dM+os ?kwV ihdj Hkh pqi jg tkrh
gSA ft;k dks xgus pqjkrs ns[k ysus ij Hkh mlus vius ifr ls mldk uke ugha fy;kA ;gh ugha mls iqfyl
ls cpkus ds fy, ,d gtkj #i;s Hkh nsrh gSA iszepan lekt dh bl /kkj.kk dks fuewZy fln~/k djuk pkgrs
Fks] fd gj lkSrsyh ek vius lkSrsys cPpksa dh nqeu gksrh gSA ^fueZyk* miU;kl esa dqN vU; leL;kvksa dh
vksj Hkh ladsr fd;k x;k gS] ftuesa fL=;ksa dh fjor [kksjh rFkk iznkZu fiz;rk] uun&Hkkot ds >xM+s vkfn
eq[; gSsA buesa uun&Hkkot ds >xM+s vke ifjokj esa ns[ks tk ldrs gSaA tSls] uun&Hkkot dh uksad&>ksad]
,d&nwljs ij kd&lansg] pqxyh&fkdk;r] Vhdk&fVIi.kh] yM+kbZz&>xMk gksuk vke ckr gSA
eqakh rksrkjke dh cgu #fDe.kh dks vius HkkbZ dh nwljh iRuh fueZyk QwVh vk[k Hkh ugh lqgkrhA og
mls uhpk fn[kkus rFkk rax djus dk dksbZ Hkh ekSdk ugh xokrhA og dHkh vius HkkbZ eqakh rksrkjke dks vkM+s
gkFkksa ysrh gS] rks dHkh mlds rhuks cPpksa dks fueZyk ds fo#n~/k djus esa dksbZ dlj ugh NksM+rhA
iszepan us #fDe.kh ds ek/;e ls fo/kok dh leL;k dks Hkh mtkxj fd;k gSaA eqakh rksrkjke dh fo/kok
cgu mlds ikl dsoy blhfy, jgus dks fook gS] D;ksafd mlds ifjokj esa mlds fy, dksbZ txg ugha gSAa
og vieku lgdj Hkh vius HkkbZ ds ;gk iM+h jgrh gSA rksrkjke Lo;a fueZyk ls dgrk gS & **eSaus lkspk

57
 Fkk] fo/kok gS] vukFk gS] iko Hkj vkVk [kk,xh] iM+h jgsxhA tc ukSdj&pkdj [kk jgs gSa] rks og viuh cgu
gh gS] yM+dkas dh ns[kHky ds fy, t:jr Fkh] j[k fy;kA
^lq/kk* pfj= ds ek/;e ls izsepan dk mn~ns; vkt dh fkf{kr ukjh rFkk mlds LokfHkeku dks mtkxj djuk
gSA lq/kk dks tc ;g irk pyrk gS fd mlds ifr us fueZyk ds fookg lca/k dks dsoy blhfy, Bqdjk fn;k
fd mlds firk dh e`R;q ds ckn ogk ls ngst feyus dh dksbZ mEehn u jgh Fkh] rks mlus vius ifr dks
vkM+s gkFkksa fy;k vkSj izk;fpr Lo:Ik fueZyk dh NksVh cgu dk fookg vius ifr ds NksVs HkkbZ ls fcuk
ngst fy, djok fn;kA
fueZyk ls nqO;Zogkj djus ij Hkh mlus vius ifr dks ugha NksM+kA mls ,slk yrkM+k fd og vkRegR;k
djus ij fook gks x;kA orZeku ;qx dh LokfHkekuh ukjh ds vuq:Ik mldk dFku & **bZoj dks tks eatwj
Fkk] og gqvk] ,sls lkSHkkX; ls eSa oS/kO; dks cqjk ugh le>rhA ys[kd ds bl mn~ns; dh vksj ladsr djrk
gS fd ukjh ds LokfHkeku dh j{kk djuh pkfg, rFkk fuHkhZd gksdj viuh ckr dguh pkfg,A
lq/kk ugh tkurh Fkh fd mldh HkRlZuk lqudj mlds ifr vkRegR;k dj ysaxAs ij og ukjh ds vieku
dks lg Hkh ugh ldrh FkhA lq/kk vkSj MkW Hkqoueksgu ds ek/;e ls izsepan th lekt esa O;kIr pfj=ghurk
ij izgkj djrs gSAa
HkkypUnzz flUgk ds ek/;e ls lekt esa O;kIr en~;eku] fjor[kksjh rFkk Hkz"Vkpkj dk inkZQkk fd;k
x;k gSA Hkkypanz flUgk vR;ar dzwj] okpky vkSj /ku ds yksHkh FksA os lekt ds .sls oxZ ds izfrfuf/k gS] tks
fjor rFkk /kks[kk&?kM+h ls /ku dekdj ekuoh; Hkkoukvksa dks frykatfy ns nsrs gSAa mudk csVk MkW Hkqoueksgu
Hkh firk ds infpg~uksa ij pyus okyk ,slk ;qod fn[kk;k c;k gS] ftls fookg esa dU;k pkgs tSlh feys] ij
vf/kd ls vf/kd ngst vo; feyuk pkfg,A
bl izdkj fueZyk miU;kl dk mn~ns; lekt esa QSyh cgqr lh lEkL;kvksa dks mtkxj djuk gS
tSls &
ngst izFkk] vuesy fookg] lekt esa O;kIr Hkz"Vkpkj rFkk fjor[kksjh]
pfj=ghurk] fo/kok dh leL;k] e/;oxhZ; ifjokjksa dh vkarfjd dyg]
foekrk dh leL;k] rFkk ukjh tkfr dh fookrk vkfn A
fuZeyk miU;kl esa of.kZr leL;k, %&
a) i) ngst izFkk ii) vuesy fookg iii) iznkZu dh Hkkouk

iv) iq=&iq=h esa Hksn v) fo/kok thou

b) ?kwl[kksjh] ;qokvksa esa dq"Bk] foekrk dh fLFkfr

Question 8
fl;kjke lk/kq dh ckrksa ls D;ksa vkSj dSls izHkkfor gks x;k\ nksuksa dh HksaV dk o.kZu dhft,A [121/2]

58
ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
^fueZyk* miU;kl dk ;g izu fl;kjke o lk/kq ls tqM+k FkkA bls
cgqr vf/kd Nk=ksa us fy[kkA
nksuksa dh HksaV dk o.kZu cgqr :fp ds lkFk fd;k x;kA
;= r= ek=kvksa dh vkqf);k feyhA miU;kl ds vak ls mkj
dks Hkh izekf.kd djrs gq, fy[kus dk iz;kl fd;k x;kA
dqN Nk=ksa us mkj esa ys[kd dk foLr`r ifjp; fn;k
tks vko;d ugha FkkA
v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
& Nk=ksa dks crk,s fd vxj iwNk uk x;k gks
rks ys[kd dk foLr`r ifjp; nsuk mkj esa
vko;d ugha gSA tks iwNk gS ml ij gh
foLr`r ppkZ gksA
& miU;k; ds vak dks ljykFkZ djds le>k;k
tk,A ?kVukdze le>krs le; miU;kl ds
vak nsdj fy[kus dk vH;kl djk,A
& miU;kl i<+krs le; izR;sd igyw ij fopkj
foekZ vko; fd;k tk,A

MARKING SCHEME
Question 8

Xkgus pksjh gks tkus rFkk ft;kjke dh e`R;q dh ?kVuk ds ckn ls fueZyk ds O;ogkj esa vpkud ifjorZu
vk x;k A Hkfo"; dh fpUrk ds dkj.k og fpM+fpM+h gks xbZA og bdykSrs cps fl;kjke ij Hkh /;ku u nsrh]
mlds ikl Ldwy tkus ds fy, twrs Hkh u gksrsA #fDe.kh vkSj mldh vkil esa jkst gh >M+Ik gks tkrh A
og ,d&,d dkSM+h dks nkr ls idM+us yxh vr% ?kj dh t:jrksa dks Vky tkrhA ;gk rd fd Lo;a dh
/kksrh Hkh tc rd rkj&rkj u gks tkrh ubZ u [kjhnrhA
,d fnu mlus fl;kjke dks ?kh ykus ds fy, ckt+kj Hkstk D;ksafd mls Hkwxh ij fookl u FkkA fl;kjke
fdlh pht+ esa gsjkQsjh ugha djrk FkkA og ,d&,d pht+ dks rkSyrh] de gksus ij okil djok nsrhA vkt
tc og ?kh yk;k rks mlus lw?kdj dg fn;k &**?kh [kjkc gS YkkSVk vkvksA fl;kjke us dgk fd ;g ?kh
lcls vPNk gS] nqdkunkj us dgk Fkk fd eky okil u gksxk] Bhd ls ns[kdj ys tkvksA fueZyk us dgk &
**?kh esa lkQ pchZ feyh gqbZ gSA vkSj og ?kh dh gkMh NksM+dj pyh xbZA fl;kjke dzks/k o {kksHk ls Hkj x;k]
fdl eqg ls ykSVkus tk,A
fl;kjke cgqr nq%[kh gks x;kA mls viuh ek dh ;kn vk xbZA og lkspus yxk & ealk Hkb;k] ft;k
Hkb;k rks pys x, eSa gh nq%[k Hkskxus dks D;ksa cp x;k\ jksr&s jksrs og ek dks ;kn dj cksyk & **vEek! rqe
eq>s D;ksa Hkwy xbZ\ eq>s D;ksa ugha cqyk ysrh\
fl;kjke dks ogha cSBk ns[k fueZyk dzksf/kr gksdj cksyh & rqe vHkh rd ;gha cSBs gks\ [kkuk dc cusxk\
fl;kjke us Ldwy dk okLrk fn;k fd og jkst gh le; ij Ldwy ugha igqp ikrk] ij fueZyk us mls nks
pkj ckrsa vkSj lquk nh] dgus yxh & **foekrk dk uke gh cqjk gksrk gSA viuh ek fo"k Hkh f[kyk, rks ve`r
gS eSa ve`r Hkh fiyk rks fo"k gks tk,xkA
bruk dgdj og jksus yxhA ckyd fl;kjke lge x;k fd u tkus vc dkSu lk naM feys\ vr% og
?kh okil djus py fn;k ij cfu, us ?kh YkSkVkus ls euk dj fn;kA
cfu, dh nqdku ij gh ,d lk/kq ;g rekkk ns[k jgk Fkk vkSj fl;kjke ls cksyk & ?kh rks cgqr vPNk
gSA fl;kjke jks iM+k fd vc dSls dgs fd ?kh vPNk ugha gSA cksyk & **ogh rks dgrh gS] ?kh vPNk ugh gS]
YkkSVk vkvksA cfu, us **lkSrsyh ek gS u! dgdj ckyd dks vkSj HkM+dk fn;k A fQj lk/kq Hkh n;k fn[kkrs
gq, cksyk & Hkxoku~ rqe fdruk cM+k vuFkZ djrs gks! bl ckyd dks ekr`izse ls oafpr dj fn;kA jk{klh

59
 foekrk ds xys Mky fn;kA vkSj mlus lkg th ls ?kh YkkSVkus dk vuqjks/k fd;kA lk/kq dh n;kyqrk dk ckyd
ij xgjk izHkko iM+ x;kA
fl;kjke ?kh ysdj ykSVk rks jkLrs esa lk/kq mlls ehBh&ehBh ckrsa djus yxkA
og mldh nq[krh jx ij gkFk j[krs gq, cksyk & esjh ek Hkh eq>s rhu lky dk NksM+dj ijyksd fl/kkj
xbZ Fkh] rHkh rks ekr`foghu ckydksa dks ns[kdj esjk n; QV iM+rk gS A esjs firk us Hkh nwljk fookg dj
fy;k Fkk] foekrk cM+h dBksj Fkh] [kkuk u nsrh] ekjrh] ,d fnu eSa ?kj ls fudy x;kA mlh fnu ls esjs
lkjs d"Vksa dk vUr gks x;kA
lk/kq dh ckr lqudj fl;kjke ds Lo;a ds Hkkxus ds fopkj dks cy feykA lk/kq us mls crk;k fd
Lokeh ijekuUn ds ikl vkdj mlus ;ksxfo|k lh[kh ftlls og viuh ek ds nkZu dj ysrk gSA
ckyd vkp;Z ls cksyk & e`r ek dks dSls ns[k ikrs gSa\ rc lk/kq us mls crk;k fd ;ksX; xq# ds
ikl vH;kl djus ls lc lEHko gSA fl;kjke us mldh ckrksa ls izHkkfor gksdj ml lk/kq dk LFkku tkuuk
pkgkA og mlh le; mlds lkFk tkuk pkgrk Fkk ij lk/kq us fQj nksckjk vkus ds fy, dgkA fl;kjke
izlUu gks x;k vkSj mlls vius ?kj vkus dks dgkA vkt og cgqr izlUu FkkA mlus lk/kq ls iwNk & **dy
fdl oDr vkb,xk\ lk/kq us dgk & **fup; ls ugh dg ldrkA fdlh le; vk tkxkA
bl izdkj lk/kq dh ckrksa ls vR;f/kd izHkkfor gqvk ckyd mlds tky esa Qal x;k A og ckyd I;kj
dks ikus ds fy, ?kj ij rjl jgk Fkk] lk/kq ds nks ehBs cukoVh cksyksa us mlds O;fFkr n; ij ejge dk
dke fd;k vkSj vUr esa mlls iqu% feyus dk ok;nk dj og ?kj pyk x;kA
foekrk ds O;ogkj ls nq[kh] iqu%&iqu% cktkj nkSMuk lkSnk ysus tkuk vkSj okil djus tkuk vkfn]
cfu;s dh nwdku ij lk?kw diVh osk /kkjh ls HksaV] ?kh ykSVkus dh flQkfjl] cfu;s vkSj lk?kw }kjk foekrk
dh vkykspuk] lk/kw ds diV iw.kZ e/kqj O;ogkj vkfn ij izdkk MkyukA

Question 9
fueZyk miU;kl ds kh"kZd dh lkFkZdrk ij izdkk Mkyrs gq, vius mkj dh lrdZ iqf"V dhft, A [121/2]

ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
vf/kdrj ijh{kkfFZk;ksa }kjk 'kh"kZd dh lkFkZdrk dks fl) djus gsrq v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
cgqr de fy[kk x;kA dFkk] D;k gS] ;s vf/kd le>k;k x;kA
vf/kdkak Nk=ksa us fueZyk dh dFkk crkrs gw, ^fueZyk* dh & fueZyk dh izR;sd ?kVuk dks d{kk esa foLrkj
?kVukvksa dks of.kZr fd;k o ^fueZyk* miU;kl dk 'kh"kZd fueZyk ls le>k;k tk,A
ls tksM+ fn;kA & miU;kl i<+krs le; izR;sd igyw ij
okLro esa 'kh"kZd dh lkFkZdrk iw.kZ gS ;k ugha ls Li"V fopkj&foekZ djsaA
fu.kZ; ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us ugha fn;kA

60
MARKING SCHEME
Question 9

izzsepan th dk fueZyk miU;kl ukf;dk iz/kku miU;kl gSA miU;kl esa fueZyk dh d#.kk Hkjh dgkuh dk
fp=.k gqvk gSA miU;kl dh izR;sd ?kVuk miU;kl dh ukf;dk fueZyk ls vo; tqMh gS rFkk miU;kl dk
dFkkud fueZyk ds bnZ&fxnZ ?kwerk gSA
fdlh Hkh dgkuh vFkok miU;kl ds kh"kZd dk laca/k mlds dFkkud dh egRoiw.kZ ?kVukvksa ls vo;
gksrk gSA kh"kZd dh ;g foks"krk gksrh gS fd mls i<+rs gh IkkBd ds eu esa dFkkud rFkk egRoiw.kZ ?kVukvksa
,oa ik=ksa ds lanHkZ esa ;g ftKklk tkxzr gksrh gS fd ^kh"kZd* dk muls D;k laca/k gSA fdlh Hkh miU;kl
dk kh"kZd bruk izHkkokkyh gksuk pkkfg, fd og vius varj esa miU;kl dk laf{kIr dysoj lesVs gq, gksA
^fueZyk* kh"kZd dks i<+rs gh ikBd ds eu esa ^fueZyk* uked ik= ds laca/k esa ftKklk mRiUu gksuk LokHkkfod
gSA miU;kl dk vkn~;ksaikar iBu djus ds ckn ikBd dks Hkyh&HkkWfr ;g le> esa vk tkrk gS fd bl
miU;kl dk blls vPNk kh"kZd gks ugha ldrk Fkk] D;ksafd miU;kl dk lkjk rkuk&ckuk fueZyk dks /;ku
esa j[kdj gh cquk x;k gSA
miU;kl i<+rs le; ikBd fueZyk ds izfr xgjh lgkuqHkwfr O;Dr djrk gS A mlds dk#f.kd thou
ls og nzfor gks mBrk gS] mlds nnZ ls mldk eu NViVkus yxrk gS] mldh O;Fkk ikBdksa ds eu dks Hkh
O;fFkr djrh gS A mlds R;kx] cfynku ,oa leiZ.k ikBdksa dks izHkkfor fd, fcuk ugha jg ikrk] ngst ,oa
vuesy fookg ds dkj.k bqbZ mldh n;uh; nkk ls ikBd fog~oy gks mBrk gSA funksZ"k] fu"dyad rFkk
lPpfj= fueZyk ij mlds ifr n~okjk yxk, x, vkjksi ls ikBdksa dk n; {kksHk ls Hkj tkrk gSA
izsepan th us bl miU;kl esa fueZyk ds ek/;e ls ukjh thou dk ftruk ekfeZd rFkk euksoSKkfud
fp=.k fd;k gS] oSlk kk;n gh vU;= feysxkA
mi;qZDr ckrksa ls ;g Hkyh&Hkkfr Li"V gks tkrk gS fd miU;kl dk kh"kZd ^fueZyk* loZFkk mi;qDr]
izHkkokkyh rFkk lkFkZd gSA miU;kl dk dFkkud izkjaHk ls gh fueZyk ds thou dh ?kVukvksa ls lacaf/kr gSA
dFkkud dk izkjaHk ^fueZyk* ds cpiu dh gh ,d ?kVuk ls gksrk gSA mlds firk dh e`R;q ds dkj.k mlds
ykyph rFkk ngst yksHkh llqj n~okjk fookg laca/k rksM+uk] ngst ds vHkko esa mldh ekrk n~okjk mldk
fookg mlds firk dh vk;q ds nqgktw eaqkh rksrkjke ls fd;k tkuk] llqjky vkrs gh mldk eqakh rksrkjke
dh iwoZ iRuh ds rhu iq=ksa dh ekrk cuuk] vius ifr rksrkjke rFkk viuh vk;q dh xgjh [kkbZ ds mijkar
mldk vius HkkX; ls le>kkSrk djuk] fo/kok uun ds rkuksa rFkk ifr n~okjk mlds vkSj Eaklkjke ds ifo=
laca/kksa ij lansg fd;k tkuk] ealkjke rFkk ft;kjke dh e`R;q rFkk fl;kjke ds ?kj NksM+dj pys tkus ds
ckn fueZyk dh ekufld fLFkfr] ihM+k ,oa varn~Zoan~o ,oa var esa ifr ds x`g&R;kx ds dkj.k nsgkar&;s lc
?kVuk, fueZyk ls gh tqM+h gSAa
vr% Li"V gS fd vkn~;ksikar miU;kl dh ?kVuk, u dsoy fueZyk ls tqM+h gSa] vfirq bu ?kVukvksa dh
izsjd Hkh fueZyk gh gS A bUgha dkj.kksa ls izsepan th us vius bl miU;kl dk ukedj.k fueZyk ds uke ij
fd;k gSA
'kh"kZd NksVk] dkSrwgy o/kZd] leLr ?kVukvksa dk dsUnzfcUnq la{ksi@lw= esa lEiw.kZ dFkk lesVs gq, vkfn
fcUnqvksa ij lrdZ izdkk Mkyuk vkfnA

61
 dFkk lqjfHk
Question 10

^lEeku j{kk ds fy, vkfrF; Hkkst ds LFkku ij vius cM+ksa dk lEeku djuk vf/kd csgrj gS A [121/2]
dFku dks fl/n djrs gq, ^cw<+h dkdh^ dgkuh dk m/ns; fyf[k, A
ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
^dFkk lqjfHk* ls ^cw<+h dkdh* ij vk/kkfjr bl izu dks vf/kdrj v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
Nk=&Nk=kvksa us fy[kkA
& v/;kid d{kk esa dFkk ds lkjys[ku ds
dqN Nk=&Nk=kvksa us ^cw<+h dkdh* dk laf{kIr lkj fy[kk o
lkFk&lkFk ewy m)s; o dFkk dh lh[k
dgkuh dk m)s; esa izu dh Hkk"kk gh fy[kh D;ksafd ;gha m)s;
Li"Vr% le>k,saA
Hkh gSA
& dgkuh esa vk, dfBu 'kCnkFkZ Hkh le>k,
tk,saA
& gj izu ds mkj esa dsoy dFkk&lkj u
fy[kdj izR;sd igyw ij ppkZ djuk
fl[kk;k tk,A

MARKING SCHEME
Question 10

fgUnh lkfgR; lezkV eqakh izsepUn }kjk jfpr cw<+h dkdh dgkuh ,d Hkkouk iz/kku lkekftd leL;k
ij vk/kkfjr dgkuh gS A izsepUn us blesa ,d loZdkyhu leL;k dks mBk;k gS A vkt dk ekuo vkRedsfUnzr
gksrk tk jgk gS ftlesa la;qDr ifjokj ds fy, dksbZ LFkku ugha gS A vk/kqfud o izxfrkhy dgs tkus okys
bl ;qx esa euq"; n;ghu o LokFkhZ gks x;k gS A mldk n; ,d cqtqxZ dh vkRe&O;Fkk lquus dks rS;kj
ugha gS A dgkuhdkj us cw<+h dkdh ds ek/;e ls lekt }kjk misf{kr ,d o`) L=h ds n;LFk Hkkoksa dk
euksoSKkfud fp=.k fd;k gS A
dkdh dks ifr o nksuksa iq=ksa dh e`R;q gks tkus ls Hkrhts cqf)jke dk gh vkljk [kkstuk iM+k A mUgksaus
viuh lkjh lEifk cqf)jke ds uke dj nh A cqf)jke us ml le; rks dkdh dks jaxhu [okc fn[kk,] ij
ckn eas jksVh&jksVh dks Hkh eksgrkt dj fn;kA dkdh Hkw[k ls O;kdqy gksdj jksus yxrh] ij muds larki vkSj
vkkZukn ij dksbZ /;ku ugha nsrk FkkA
cqf)jke ds ?kj ij csVs ds fryd dk mRlo euk;k tk jgk FkkA fofo/k O;atu cuk, tk jgs FksA
esgekuksa ds Lokxr dh rS;kfj;k py jgh FkhaA ij cw<+h dkdh bl pgy&igy ls nwj viuh dksBjh esa
kksdeXu cSBh gqbZ FkhA mUgsa yxk fd lc yksx Hkkstu dj pqds gSaA mudk eu jksus dks gqvk ij vikdqu
ds Mj ls jks Hkh u ikbZA
:Ikk esgekuksa ds Lokxr lRdkj esa yxh gqbZ Fkh & dkdh dh fdlh dks lq/k ugha FkhA og mnkl gksdj
dgrh gS &vkgk! dSlh lqxaf/k gS\ vc eq>s dkSu iwNrk gS\ tc jksfV;ksa gh ds ykys iM+s gS rc ,sls HkkX;
dgk fd HkjisV iwfM+;k feysa\ dkdh ls jgk ugha x;kA og jsx a rh gqbZ dM+kg ds ikl igqp xbZA :ik us dkdh
dks ns[kk rks og dkdh ij >iV iM+h vkSj mUgsa [kjh&[kksVh lqukus yxh D;ksafd mls viuh >wBh izfr"Bk ij
vkp vkrh fn[kkbzZ ns jgh FkhA og dkdh ls cksyh &
**rqe dksbZ nsoh ugha gks fd pkgs fdlh ds eqg esa ikuh u tk,] ijUrq rqEgkjh iwtk igys gh gks tk,A

62
 Lkc ds lc esgeku Hkkstu dj jgs Fks] rc Hkh ?kj ds fdlh lnL; dks dkdh dk ?;ku ugha vk;kA
dkdh mdMw cSBdj gkFkksa ds cy ljdrh vkxu esa vkbZ ij esgekuksa us dkdh dks ns[kdj nqRdkj fn;k &**vjs
;g cqf<+;k dkSu gS\ ;g dgk ls vk xbZ\ ns[kks fdlh dks Nw u ysA
lH; dgykus okys gekjs lekt dh ,d cqtqxZ ds fy, eu esa ,slh fud`"V Hkkouk!
;g gesa lkspus dks fook dj nsrh gS bruk gh ugha dkdh dk Hkrhtk] tks vkt dkdh dh lEifk ds cy
ij bruk mNy jgk gS] og Hkh dkdh dk lEeku u dj ldk cfYd mlus Hkjh lHkk esa dkdh dks ?klhVrs
gq, tkdj v/ksjh dksBjh esa iVd fn;kA dkdh csgkskh dh gkyr esa iM+h jghA jkr dks tc mUgsa gksk vk;k
rks dksbZ vkgV u ikdj lkspus yxh &
**lc yksx [kk&ihdj lks x, vkSj muds lkFk esjh rdnhj Hkh lks xbZA dSls dVsxh\ jke! D;k [kk\
dkdh ds ;s okD; Hkhrj rd n; dks phj dj j[k nsrs gSaA mUgsa esgekuksa ds chp vius gh lxs csVs
rFkk cgw }kjk dh xbZ nqxZfr o vieku dh ckr ;kn vkbZ] os lkspus yxh & ;fn vkxu esa pyh xbZ rks D;k
cqf<+;k ls bruk dgrs u curk Fkk fd dkdh vHkh yksx [kk jgs gSa] fQj Hkh eq>s ?klhVk] iVdk! mUgha iwfM+;ksa
ds fy, :ik us lcds lkeus xkfy;k nhA
bl izdkj ys[kd us ikBdksa ds lkeus bl izu dks j[kk gS fd D;k cqtqxksZ ds lkFk ,slk orkZo mfpr
gS\ lkFk gh mUgkasus :ik dk n; ifjorZu dj ,d vkkk dh fdj.k Hkh NksM+h gS fd ekuo Hkhrj ls bruk
dBksj ugha gS] dgha mldh lqIr dksey Hkkouk, Hkh gSA ys[kd mUgsa txkuk pkgrs gSaA tc dkdh ls Hkw[k
vlgu gks mBh rks og ykMyh ds lgkjs twBs ikyksa rd igqp xbZ vkSj twBh ikyksa esa iM+h iwfM+;ksa ds VqdM
[kkus yxhA Bhd mlh le; :ik dh vk[k [kqyh rFkk og bl n`; dks ns[kdj lUu jg xbZ vkSj Lo;a dks
nks"kh ekudj Hkyk&cqjk dgus yxhA vUr esa dkdh ls {kek ;kpuk djrs gq, mudks Hkkstu dk Fkky nsrs gq,
dgrh gS & **dkdh mBks] Hkkstu dj yks] eq>ls vkt cM+h Hkwy gqbZ] mldk cqjk u ekuukA ijekRek ls izkFkZuk
dj ysuk fd og esjk vijk/k {kek dj nsAa
bl izdkj dgkuhdkj bl dgkuh }kjk izsj.kk nsrs gSa fd gesa >wBh lkekftd eku&izfr"Bk ds LFkku ij
igys vius cM+ksa dk lEeku djuk pkfg,A yksx ckr lekt esa vius uke o ;k ds fy, iwjs ds iwjs xko o
'kgj ds yksxksa dks Hkkstu djkrs gSa ysfdu vius ?kj ds cM+s izk.kh dks rqPN le> dj ,d dksus esa iVd nsrs
gSa tks muds izfr vU;k; gSA ys[kd lekt esa tkx`fr iSnk djuk pkgrs gSa D;ksafd dbZ ifjokjksa esa] tgk cqtqxZ
gksrs gSa] cPps muds izfr mis{kk dk Hkko j[krs gSa tks mfpr ugha gSAa
vkt O;fDr >wBh eku&izfr"Bk ds fy, vius laLdkj o laLd`fr [kksrk tk jgk gSA ubZ ih<+h iqjkuh
ih<h dks misf{kr ekudj mldk vieku djrh jgrh gSA ys[kd us ykMyh o dkdh ds ek/;e ls ckyeu o
izkS<+eu ds vUrj dks fn[kk;k gSA ys[kd vkkkoknh vkSj vknkZoknh gSaA :ik ds n; ifjorZu }kjk og
lekt esa tkx:drk iSnk djuk pkgrs gSa vkSj og vius m)s; esa lQy jgs gSaA
i) dFku dh lkFkZdrk ij izdkk

ii) m)s;

Question 11
^fpfdRlk kkL= ds bfrgkl esa ,slk jksx vc rd ns[kk&lquk ugha x;k A ,sls jktjksx dks dksbZ [121/2]
lk/kkj.k vkneh >sy Hkh dSls ldrk Fkk A dgkuh esa fufgr O;aX; dks Li"V dhft, A

63
ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
bl izu esa vf/kdkak ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us dsoy dFkk dk lkj fy[kkA v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
ek=kxr vkqf);k vf/kd ikbZ xbZA dgha&dgha vaxzsth esa & ys[kd us D;k dgus dk] le>kus dk iz;kl
Hkh 'kCn fy[ks x,A fd;k gS] v/;kid Li"V :i ls d{kk esa
dgkuh ds vak fy[kdj O;aX;&Hkko le>kuk FkkA le>k,A
Nk=&Nk=kvksa us lEokn fy[kdj [kukiwfrZ dhA & LFkku o O;fDr ds uke lgh fy[kus dk
vH;kl djk;k tk,A

MARKING SCHEME
Question 11

^egkjktk dk bykt* dgkuh ds ys[kd Jh ;kiky ekDlZoknh fopkjksa ds dgkuhdkj gSaA budh dgkuh
oxZ la?k"kZ rFkk lekt dh fofo/k fLFkfr;ksa dks lkeus j[k nsrh gSA budh lHkh dgkfu;ksa o miU;klksa esa thou
dk ;FkkFkZ ,oe~ okLrfod fp=.k feyrk gSA ;FkkFkZoknh gksus ds dkj.k gh bUgkasus lekt esa QSyh gqbZ dqjhfr;ksa
o :f<+;ksa dk [kqydj fojks/k fd;k gSA
izLrqr dgkuh ^egkjktk dk bykt* vk/kqfud lekt dh iwthoknh eukso`fk ij vk/kkfjr gSA mUgksaus
xjhch vkSj vehjh dk HksnHkko rFkk vkfFkZd fo"kerk dks lekt dh leL;kvksa dk ewy dkj.k ekukA egkjktk
eksguk ds ?kqVus vkil esa tqM+ x, FksA fiNys ukS o"kksaZ ls mudk bykt py jgk gSA mudh ns[k&js[k ds fy,
rFkk bykt ds fy, MkWDVjksa dh QkSt rS;kj jgrh gS ysfdu mUgsa tjk Hkh vkjke ughaA egkjktk dh chekjh
dks fpf=r djus ds fy, ys[kd us O;aX;kRed 'kSyh dk iz;ksx fd;k gS] tSls &
**egkjktk tc dHkh dksBh ls fjDkk ij ckgj fudyrs rks fjDkk [khapusokys pkj dqfy;ksa ds lkFk
cnyh ds fy, vU; pkj dqyh Hkh lkFk&lkFk nkSM+rs pyrsA lko/kkuh ds fy, egkjktk ds futh MkWDVj ?kksM+s
ij lokj fjDkk ds ihNs jgrs Fks A
flrEcj ds eghus esa egkjktk tc igkM+ ls viuh fj;klr y[ku ykSVrs rks muds izLFkku ls iwoZ MkWDVjksa
esa gypy ep tkrhA muds fy, dejs cqd gks tkrsA MkWDVjksa ds fy, fjDkk o cf<+;k ?kksM+s lqjf{kr dj
fy, tkrsA yksxksa dks u gksVyksa esa LFkku feyrk vkSj u mUgsa lokfj;k gh feyrh FkhaA ckr QSy tkrh fd
egkjktk eksguk dks ns[kus MkWDVj vk jgs gSaA mi;qZDr dFku esa Hkh ys[kd us O;aX; dk iz;ksx fd;k gS A
ys[kd bls jktjksx dgdj O;aX; djrs gSA egkjktk dh chekjh dh ppkZ ftyk dksVZ dh ckj esa] ftyk
eftLVsV ds ;gk vkSj xouZesaV gkml rd esa FkhA cEcbZ eSfMdy dkWyst ds fizafliy MkWDVj dkSky dks Hkh
MkWDVjksa ds lEesyu esa cqyk;k x;k FkkA
izLrqr dgkuh esa ys[kd us deZ ls iyk;u fn[kk;k gS tks iwthoknh ekufldrk dk izrhd gSA ,d LFkku
ij ys[kd blh fLFkfr dks izdV djrs gS & **lc MkWDVj viuh Qhl] vkus tkus dk fdjk;k vkSj vkfrF;
ikdj ykSV tkrs] ijUrq egkjkt ds LokLF; esa dksbZ lq/kkj u gksrkA
mijksDr okD; ls irk pyrk gS fd thou esa dk;Z djus ls c<+dj izkfLr o vkfrF; ikuk Js;Ldj
gSA ,d vU; LFkku ij ys[kd dgrs gSa & **fpfdRlkkkL= ds bfrgkl esa ,slk jksx vc rd ns[kk&lquk ugha
x;kA ,sls jktjksx dks dksbZ lk/kj.k vkneh >sy Hkh dSls ldrk Fkk!
egkjktk ,d ,sls ejht Fks tks MkWDVjksa dks vknsk fn;k djrs FksA egkjktk ds lsdzsVjh fou; us MkWDVj
la?kkfV;k dks lwpuk nh fd **muls igys vk, MkWDVj egkjktk dh ijh{kk dj ysa rks os Hkh egkjktk dh
ijh{kk djus dh d`ik djsaxAs ckhl MkWDVjksa dh ,d lHkk dk vk;kstu fd;k x;kA ftlds ckn MkWDVjksa ls

64
 vuqjks/k fd;k x;k fd os viuh ijh{kk vkSj funku ds lEcU/k esa ijLij fopkj djds viuk earO; fy[k
ysAa blds Ipkr~ egkjktk lHkk esa mifLFkr gksdj MkWDVjksa dh jk; lqusaxAs
okLro esa egkjktk dh chekjh ekufld O;Fkk Fkh] ekufld tdM+u Fkh ftlds dkj.k muds ?kqVus vkSj
flj ds nnZ dk bykt ugha gks ik jgk FkkA MkWDVj la?kkfV;k us egkjkt ds jksx dk v/;;u fd;kA cqysfVu
dk v/;;u djus ds ipkr~ mUgksaus bls ekufld gh vf/kd crk;kA mUgksus egkjkt ls dgk &
**esjk fopkkj gS fd egkjktk dk ;g jksx lk/kkj.k 'kkjhfjd mipkj }kjk nwj gksuk nqLlk/; gksxk -----A
Ekgkjktk dks ml ;qok MkWDVj dk dFku vPNk yxk vkSj mUgksus viuh xnZu ph dj yhA MkWDVj us
viuh ckr esa fdlh esgrj ds bykt dh ppkZ dh vkSj egkjktk ls mldh rqyuk dj MkyhA bl mnkgj.k
}kjk ys[kd us iwthokn o :f<+okn ij djkjk O;aX; fd;k gSA ;s iwthoknh yksx nksgjh ekufldrk j[krs gSAa
lEiUu yksx viuh rqyuk ,d esgrj ls ugha dj ldrsA MkWDVj la?kkfV;k le> x, Fks fd egkjktk dh
chekjh ekufld vf/kd gSA vr% mUgksus egkjktk ds fy, 'kkWd VhVesaV dk iz;ksx fd;kA viuh chekjh dh
rqyuk ,d esgrj dh chekjh ls gksrs gh egkjktk dks vk?kkr igqpkA og ;g dgrs gq, ph[k iM+s & **fudky
nks ckgj cntkr dks! gedks esgrj ls feykrk gS ------\ fudky nks cntkr dks] MkWDVj cuk gSA vkSj
egkjktk lsodksa }kjk dqlhZ yk, tkus dh izrh{kk fd, fcuk gh dkirs gq, ikoksa ls gkWy ls ckgj pys x,A
MkWDVj la?kkfV;k eqLdjkdj dgrs gSa & **[kSj tks gks] chekjh dk bykt rks gks x;k ------A
bl izdkj ys[kd us bu izHkqrk lEiUu yksxksa dh ekufldrk dks le>dj O;aX;kRed 'kSyh esa buds
bykt dh ckr dg dj viuh ckr lekt ds le{k j[kh gSA
dgkuh esa fufgr O;aX; dks vPNh rjg ls Li"V djuk ;Fkk ;ksX; LFkku ij Li"Vhdj.k ds fy, mi;qDr
mnkgj.k izLrqr djuk Js;"djA

Question 12
^deZukkk dh gkj^ dgkuh ds vk/kkj ij ikaMs th dk pfj= fp=.k djrs gq, Li"V dhft, fd mudk [121/2]
thou vknkZ fl/nkUrksa dh uhao ij [kM+k Fkk A

ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
^deZukkk dh gkj* ij de Nk=kas us fy[kkA ik.Ms th dk pfj= v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
Li"V :i ls iwNk x;k Fkk ij dqN Nk=&Nk=kvksa us mlesa dgkuh
& d{kk esa dFkk le>krs le; pfj= ds
fy[k dj Li"V fd;kA
xq.k&voxq.k Hkh le>k, tk,saA
Ik.Msth dk pfj= vknZk dSls gS ;g cgqr de Nk=ksa us
& Ek=kxr vkqf);ksa ij /;ku nsaA
li"V fd;kA
& pfj=&fp=.k fy[kus dk vH;kl djk;k
tk,A
& dFkk dk m)s; o lh[k Hkh d{kk esa Li"V
djk;h tk,A

65
MARKING SCHEME
Question 12

Mk fkoizlkn flag dh dgkuh ^deZukkk dh gkj* ds HkSjksa ikaMs ,d izHkkokkyh pfj= ds O;fDr gSaA os ubZMhg
xko ds iafMr FksA muds izHkko ls xko esa dksbZ fdlh dks lrkus dh fgEer ugha djrk FkkA mudh pkfjf=d
foks"krk, fuEufyf[kr gSa &
ftEesnkj HkkbZ
ekrk&firk nks lky ds NksVs HkkbZ dh ftEesnkjh iSjksa ls iaxq HkSjksa ikaMs dks lkSai dj pys x;sA /ku
ds uke ij firk dtZ NksM+dj x;s FksA HkSjksa ikaMs us da/ks ls fpidk, vius nq/keqgs HkkbZ ds ikyu&iks"k.k esa
dksbZ deh ugha j[khA os #bZ ls fcukSys fudkyrs] lwr dkrrs vkSj lR;ukjk;,k dh dFkk ckprsA blls tks
dqN feyrk Fkk] og dqynhi dh i<+kbZ vkSj diM+s&yks esa [kpZ djrsA dqynhi ds ckjs esa HkSjksa ikaMs dqN
lquuk ugha pkgrs FksA tc eqf[k;k th mlds dkys jax dks ns[kdj dgrs &
**bls HkSjksa ikaMs ds nknk dh ykSNkj iM+h gSA
os eqf[k;k dks eu gh eu dkslrsA
lknk thou
mudk thou lknk FkkA feV~Vh dh cuh iqjkuh c[kjh esa jgrsA ck<+ ds dkj.k mldh gkyr ttZj gks
xbZ FkhA iafMrkbZ ls tks dqN feyrk mlls viuk vkSj vius HkkbZ dk isV ikyrsA HkkbZ ds ikyu&iks"k.k esa
mUgksaus dksbZ deh ugh j[kh FkhA
ifjJeh
HkSjksa ikaMs dsoy iqjksfgrkbZ ls gh xqtkjk ugha djrs FksA viax gksrs gq, Hkh o #bZ ls fcukSys fudkyrs]
#bZ dks /kqurs] lwr dkrrs vkSj mlls tus cukrsA ttekuh Hkh djrs FksA
vkRe&la;eh
muds vanj vkRe&la;e dh Hkkouk izcy FkhA mudsk vius NksVs HkkbZ dqynhi vkSj Qwyerh ds lEcU/kksa
dh tkudkjh FkhA os dbZ ckj dzks/k ls fryfeyk mBrsA dqynhi dks Vksdrs HkhA tc dqynhi mnkl gks tkrk
rkss os Lo;a Hkh nq%[kh gks tkrsA ij vius ij dkcw j[krsA
{kekkhy
Tkc xko ds eqf[k;k dh csVh dh kknh Fkh rc lkjk xko ogk tek FkkA ij dqynhi vkSj Qwyerh
egfQ+y ls nwj vkeksa ds isM+ksa ds uhps ckrsa dj jgs FksA HkSjksa ikaMs us mUgsa jxs gkFkksa idM+ fy;kA Qwyerh rks
Hkkx xbZA mUgksaus dqynhi dks le>k;k] **rqe xyr jkLrs ij iko j[k jgs gks csVk] rqeus dHkh vius cki&nknksa
dh bTT+kr ds ckjs esa Hkh lkspk gS\
dqqynhi QwV&QwV dj jksus yxkA HkSjksa ikaMs Hkh HkkbZ ls fyiV x;s vkSj mldh ihB lgyk jgs FksA
Ikpkkki ds vklw fny dh eSy /kks nsrs gSaA mUgsa fookl Fkk fd dqynhi vc Bhd jkLrs ij vk tk;sxkA
muds oak dh e;kZnk vieku ds rjktw esa p<+us ls cp tk;sxhA mUgksaus dqynhi dks {kek dj fn;kA
ifjokj dh izfr"Bk dk /;ku j[kuss okys
HkSjksa ikaMs us vius cki&nknk dh izfr"Bk dk lnSo /;ku j[kk FkkA muds lk/ku lhfer gksus ij Hkh xko
ds yksx muds ncncs dks ekurs FksA tc mUgksaus fo/kok Qwyerh ds cPpk gksus dh [kcj lquh rks os cM+s nq[kh

66
gq, vkSj lkspus yxs fd deZukkk dh ck<+ mudh bl tt+Zj c[kjh dks gM+ius ugha] muds firkeg dh vewY;
izfr"Bk dks gM+ius vkbZ gSA
Lkkjh ?kVukvksa ds ckjs esa lksprs gq, mudk eu rhoz O;Fkk ls tyus yxkA os cqncqnk, **ikaMs ds oak esa
,slk igys dHkh ugha gqvk FkkA
Tkc mUgksaus Qwyerh vkSj dqynhi dks vkeksa ds isM+ksa ds uhps jxs gkFkksa idM+k rks mls vius oak dh e;kZnk
dh ;kn fnykrs gq, cksys]
**rqeus dHkh vius cki&nknksa dh bTt+r ds ckjs esa lkspk gS] cM+s iq.; ds ckn bl ?kj esa tUe feyk
gSA --------
va/kfookl dk fojks/k djus okys
Ysk[kd us xzkE;&lekt rFkk mlesa O;kIr dqjhfr;ksa vkSj va/kfookl dk o.kZu fd;k gS ogk ?kksj vKku
vkSj vfk{kk O;kIr FkhA ;s va/kfookl lekt dks [kks[kyk dj nsrs gSaA budk fojks/k djus dh kfDr fdlh
esa ugha gksrhA deZukkk ds ckjs esa Hkh yksxksa esa ,d fookl izpfyr Fkk fd ;fn unh esa ,d ckj ck<+ vk
tk;s rks fcuk euq"; dh cyh fy, ykSVrh ughaA unh esa ikuh vkus ij yksx eqf[k;k ds ?kj bdV~Bs gksrs vkSj
xhr xkrsA ij tc unh viuk Hk;adj :Ik /kkj.k dj ysrh rks mls kkar djus ds fy, iki&kkafr ds
iwtk&ikB gksrsA euq";ksa dh cyh nh tkrhA ,d ckj ,d va/kh yM+dh vkSj ,d vikfgt cqf<+;k dh HksaV nh
xbZA bl ckj xkookys fo/kok Qwyerh vkSj mlds cPps dks unh dh HksaV djuk pkgrs FksA deZukkk dks izk.kksa
dh cfy pkkfg,A fcuk cfy ds ck<+ ugha mrjsxhA mlh dh cfy D;ksa u nh tk, ftlus iki fd;k gS\ bldk
fojks/k djus dk lkgl fdlh esa ugha FkkA HkSjksa ikaMs HkhM+ esa ls vkxs c<+s vkSj vdsys gh cM+h etcwrh ls bldk
fojks/k fd;k vkSj dgk &
^deZukkk dh ck<+ nq/keqgs cPps vkSj ,d vcyk dh cfy nsus ls ugha #dsxh] mlds fy, rqEgsa ilhuk
cgkdj ck/kksa dks Bhd djuk gksxkA
Tkc eqf[k;k th us dgk fd iki dk Qy vkSj lekt dk n.M rks >syuk gksxk] bl ij ikaMs th cksys &
**t:j Hkksxuk gksxk eqf[k;k th ------fdUrq] eSa vkids lekt dks deZukkk ls de ugha le>rkA fdUrq] eSa
,d&,d ds iki fxukus yxw rks ;gk [kM+s lkjs yksxksa dks ifjokj lesr deZukkk ds isV esa tkuk iM+sxkA ----
--
va/kfooklksa dk vkard rc rd jgrk gS tc rd ge muls Mjs jgrs gSaA va/kfookl dks futh LokFkZ ds
fy, Hkh yksx Lohdkj dj ysrs gSaA buls eqfDr dk mik; va/kfookl ds mRiUu gksus ds dkj.k dh tkudkjh
izkIr djuk gSA
HkSjksa ikaMs us o"kksZ ls QSys xzkeh.kksa ds va/kfookl dks rksM+kA deZukkk ds ckjs eas tks Hkze yksxksa esa izpfyr
Fkk] mls nwj fd;kA bl izdkj HkSjksa IkakMs ds n~okjk deZukkk dh gkj gqbZA bl izdkj ge dg ldrs gSa fd
ikaMs th dk pfj= vknkZ fl/nkUrksa dh uhao ij [kM+k FkkA vr% mudk fojks/k djus dk lkgl fdlh esa Hkh
ugha FkkA
i) pkfjf=d foks"krk, fcUnqokj

ii) vknkZ fl)kUrksa ij izdkk

67
 Tokykeq[kh ds Qwy
Question 13
uUn oak ds foukk ds fy, pk.kD; us pUnzxqIr dks gh D;ksa pquk \ pUnzxqIr dh foks"krkvksa ij [121/2]
izdkk Mkyrs gq, foLrkj ls fyf[k, A
ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
bl izu dk mkj vf/kdkak ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us Bhd vkSj mi;qDr v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
fy[kkA dqN Nk=ksa us iwokZ/kZ dks foLrkj ls fy[kk vkSj mkjkFkZ ij
laf{kIr izdkk MkykA orZuh vkfn dh xyfr;k Hkh ns[kus dks feyhaA & dkSu lh ?kVuk D;k crkrh gS bl ij Li"V
:i ls ppkZ dh tk,A
& ek=kxr vkqf);k d{kk esa lq/kkjh tk,aA

MARKING SCHEME
Question 13

vk;Z kdVkj }kjk nku ysus ds fy, vkeaaf=r pk.kD; dks nku kkyk essa mlds dq:Ik gksus ds dkj.k Hkjh
lHkk esa lezkV~ uUn us viekfur fd;k FkkA
Hkjs njckj esa pk.kD; us viuh fk[kk [kksydj izfrKk dh Fkh fd eSa] fo".kqqxqIr pk.kD; izfrKk djrk gwa
fd tc rd vfHkekuh uUnksa dk lewy ukk ugha dj nwxk] rc rd fQj ls fk[kk ugha ck/kwxkA
Pkk.kD; ds fy, uUnksa dk foukk djuk dfBu ugha FkkA lezkV~ dh e`R;q ds ckn ex/k dh xn~nh ds fy,
,d okLrfod jktk dh vko;drk Fkh ftlds jkT; esa iztk dks vf/kd ls vf/kd lq[k feys] iztk dks dkbZ
d"V u gksA
dqkk&dkVksa vkSj >kM+&>[kkM+ksa ls ygwyqgku] dq:Ik pk.kD; ,d okLrfod jktk dh [kksst esa ouksa esa
HkVdrk fQj jgk FkkA
,d fnu vpkud uxj dh vksj tkrs le; pk.kD; dks kks.k unh ds eSnku esa jktk dk vfHku; djrs
gq, pUnzxqIr ls lkeuk gks tkrk gSA
fdkksj pjokgs vkSj pUnzxqIr blh LFkku ij viuh lHkk tekrs vkSj [ksy [ksyrsA ml fnu pUnzxqIr ds
xys esa Qwyksa dk cM+k&lk gkj iM+k FkkA ekFks ij pUnu yxk FkkA mlus flj ij Hkh Qwwyksa dk eqdqV igu j[kk
FkkA
[ksy kq: gqvkA uhps cSBs fdkksjksa us mBdj vknj ls iz.kke fd;kA lkFk gh t;t;dkj xwt mBh] jktk
dh t; gksA
jktk us egkekR; ls iztk dk dqky{kse iwNkA fdkksj egkekR; us mkj fn;k fd fdlesa lkgl gS tks
izrkih jktk pUnzxqIr ekS;Z dh iztk dks nq%[k nsA gekjs cyoku jktk dh iztk ij dkSu vR;kpkj djsxk\
rHkh ,d L=h dh tksj&tksj ls jksus dh vkokt lqukbZ nh
jktk ds lkFk&lkFk lHkh fdkksjksa dh vk[ksa ml vksj mB xbZ && ,d L=h xksn esa NksVk lk cPpk fy,
vkxs&vkxs rsth ls pyh vk jgh Fkh] ihNs&ihNs ,d detksj&lh L=h jksrh gqbZ nkSM+ jgh FkhA og ckj&ckj
vkxs [kM+h gksdj cPps okyh L=h dks jksd ysrh] idM+rh] gkFk tksM+dj fxM+fxM+krh vkSj mlds iko idM+dj
yVd tkrhA ij cPps okyh L=h ckj&ckj /kDdk&eqDdh djds NqM+k ysrh vkSj mls Bksdj ekjdj rsth ls c<+
pyrhA detksj L=h vkSj tksj ls jksus yxrh vkSj fQj yM+[kM+krh gqbZ mlds ihNs yx tkrhA

68
 jktk us vkKk nh fd nksuksa fL=;ksa dks idM+ dj gekjh lHkk esa mifLFkr djksA ge mlds nq%[k dk
dkj.k tkuuk pkgrs gSAa
Ukxj dh vksj tkrs pk.kD; us fdkksj jktk dh vkKk lquhA dkSrqdok pk.kD; jktlHkk ds fudV vk
[kM+k gqvkA
vkxs&vkxs pyrh L=h fp<+dj ?keaM ds lkFk mUgsa /kedkus yxhA ;s dSls fnu vk x, gSAa dy ds Nksdjs
;s pjokgs rd ifFkdksa ij Mkdk Mkyus yxs gSaA eSa jktiq#"kksa ls dgwxhA iztk ij bl rjg dk vR;kpkj -----A
egkekR; cus fdkksj us MiV dj dgk] pqi jgA jktk pUnzxqIr ds gkssrs gq, Hkyk fdlesa bruk lkgl gS
fd iztk ij vR;kpkj djsA
jktk us egkekR; ls dgk fd buls iwNks] D;ksa yM+ jgh gS\a ge U;k; djsaxAs
ek% nksuksa gh fL=;ksa us ;g nkok fd;k fd og cPpk mudk gS A cPpk ,d Fkk] vkSj nkosnkj nks A
egkekR; us flj >qdkdj jktk ls fuosnu fd;k fd U;k; djsAa
pUnzzxqIr ds psgjs ij xgjh js[kk, f[kap xbZ A ikl [kM+k pk.kD; Hkh ijskku gks x;kA Hkyk bl >xM+s
dk fu.kZ; dSls gksxk ] ;g fdkksj jktk D;k U;k; djsxk\ pk.kD; dkSrwgy ds lkFk pUnzxqIr dh vksj ns[kus
yxkA
pUnzxqIr dh rh[kh n`f"V ckjh&ckjh ls nksuksa fL=;ksa ds psgjs ij nkSM+rh jgh] ij dqN Hkh vuqeku ugha yx
ikrk FkkA nksuksa gh cPpsa ds fy, rM+Ik jgh FkhA nksuksa gh jks jgh FkhaA nksuksa vius&vius gB ij vM+h FkhaA
lglk pUnzzxqIr dks ,d rjdhc lw>hA mlus vkKk nh of/kd dks cqyokvksA [ksy esa dHkh of/kd dh
vko;drk ugha iM+h Fkh] blfy, fdlh fdkksj dks of/kd fu;qDr Hkh ugha fd;k x;k FkkA
fdkksj egkekR; dks lglk mik; lw>k mlus rqjUr gh ikl [kM+s dkys dq:Ik pk.kD; dks ladsr djds
cqyk;kA dksSrqdok pk.kD; of/kd dk vfHku; djus ds fy, izLrqr gks x,A
jktk us of/kd dks vknsk fn;k fd bl cPps dks chp ls phjdj bu nksuksa fL=;ksa dks cjkcj&cjkcj ckV
nsA
nwljh L=h ngkM+ ekjdj jks iM+hA cksyh &&esjs yky dks ekjks erA rqe mlh dks ns nksA esjk yky thrk
rks jgsxkA
pUnzxqIr us le> fy;k fd cPpk blh L=h dk gSA mUgkasus egkekR; dks vkKk nh fd cPpk blh L=h
dk gSA ;gh ek gSA cPpk bls ns nksA vkSj ml fueZe L=h dks ys tkdj jktiq#"kksa ds gkFk lkSai nksA mls
mldh djuh dk n.M feysxkA
pk.kD; ml fdkksj jktk ds O;fDrRo] usr`Ro&{kerk vkSj foy{k.k cqf) dks ns[kdj vkp;Zpfdr gks
x,A ftl leL;k dk lek/kku fo}ku~ pk.kD; ugha [kkst ik, Fks] mls fdkksj pUnzxqIr us {k.k Hkj esa [kkst
fy;kA mUgsa fookl gks x;k fd ftl okLrfod jktk dh mUgsa rykk gS og ;gh fdkksj pUnzxqIr gh gSA
[ksy [kRe gksus ij jktk ixMaMh ij vdsyk gh cLrh dh vksj pyk tk jgk FkkA pk.kD; yiddj mlds
ihNs&ihNs pyus yxsA
mlds ?kj igqp dj pk.kD; us pUnz dh ek ls pUnzxqIr ds ckjs esa jktlHkk esa ?kVh nks ?kVukvksa dk
o.kZu lqukA mldh fuHkhZdrk] lkgl rFkk egokdka{kk dks izR;{k ns[kdj pk.kD; us uUnoak ds foukk ds
fy, pUnzxqIr dks pquk FkkA og pkgrs Fks fd pUnzxqIr vius firk ds gR;kjs dk cnyk Lo;a ysA

69
 pUnzxqIr esa jktk ds lHkh xq.kksa dks ns[kdj gh os nsoh eqjk ls dgrs gSa fd eq>s viuh izfrKk dh iwfrZ ds
fy, ,d jktk pkfg,A og jktk gS rsjk iq=A r{kfkyk ds fo|ky; esa eSa Lo;a bls jktuhfr dh fk{kk nwxkA
vFkZkkL= dk Kku djkxkA /kjrh dks tSlk jktk pkfg,] og eSa nwxk] ek rw pUnzxqIr dks esjs lkFk tkus nsA
eSa fo".kqxqIr pk.kD;] vFkZkkL= dk vkpk;Z rq>ls nku ekx jgk gwA /kjrh ds fy, ,d jktk nsA ns ns]
ek!
pUnzxqIr dh foks"krk,
pUnzxqIr dk HkO; O;fDrRo FkkA og xEHkhj] LokfHkekuh] fuMj] fuHkhZd] vkRefooklh] /kS;Zoku] ,dkxzfpk]
izfrHkkkkyh] egodka{kh] Li"VoDrk] rdZ cqf) dk /kuh vkSj izR;qRiUuefr rFkk foy{k.k cqf) lEiUu ckyd
FkkA fo}kuksa ds izfr vknj Hkko vkfn mldh izeq[k foks"krk, FkhaA
[ksy O;ogkj esa pUnz xqIr] usr`Ro {kerk] vuqkklu] dqkkxzrk] izHkko] mRlkg] izR;qRiUuefr U;k; lkeF;Z
uhj&{khj foosd j[kus okyk fuHkhZd lkglh vkSj egokdka{kh O;fDrRo lEiUu fdkksj esa jktksfpr lHkh xq.k
vLrq pUnzxqIr dks gh uUn ds foukk ds fy, pqukA

Question 14
^lk> dks ekSdk ns[kdj pUnzxqIr pqipki ckgj fudy iM+k A b/kj m/kj ns[krk] cM+h lko/kkuh ls [121/2]
og lkeUr nsonk ds ;gk igqpk A
pUnzxqIr bl le; dgk ij gS\ og lkeUr nsonk ds ;gk D;ksa x;k gS \ D;k mls vius
m/ns; esa lQyrk feyh \
ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
cgqr de ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa us bl izu dks fy[kkA v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
Nk=ksa us bl izu esa pUnzxqIr dk lkeUr nsonk ls feyus dh
?kVuk dk o.kZu fd;kA og ogk D;ksa x;k Hkh Li"V fd;k ijUrq & ^Tokykeq[kh ds Qwy* ,d ,sfrgkfld ukVd
D;k ogk og vius m)s; esa lQy jgk&bldk mkj dqN Nk=ksa gSA bldh ?kVukvksa dks tSlk of.kZr gS] oSlk
us ugha fy[kkA ek=kvksa dh =qfV;k ns[kus dks feyhaA gh fy[kus dk iz;kl djkuk pkfg,A Lo;a
ds vuqlkj blesa ifjorZu u fd;k tk,A
& izu ds izR;sd igyq ij fy[kuk vko;d
crk;k tk,A
& lHkh ?kVukvksa ls tqM+h ckrksa ij ppkZ dh
tk,A

70
MARKING SCHEME
Question 14

pUnzxqIr bl le; r{kfkyk esa gSA

;kstuk ds vuqlkj pUnzxqIr dks r{kfkyk esa rhu fnu #duk FkkA bUgha rhu fnuksa esa mls fdlh
izdkj vius fe=ksa dks vkSj Hkh ?kfu"B cukuk gSA
vkpk;Z dkSfVY; us iapun iznsk ds jktkvksa dks tks vkoklu fn;k gS ml ij ;s yksx pUnzxqIr dh
Lohd`fr pkgrs gSAa lkeUr nsonk ds ek/;e ls mldk mu yksxksa ls feyuk laHko gks ldrk gSA
Pkk.kD; us igys gh lkeUr nsonk dks le>k fn;k gS fd bl dk;Z esa mldh D;k Hkwfedk gS rFkk
pUnzxqIr ls mudks dSls feyokuk gS A
pUnzxqIr vkt blh m)s; dh iwfrZ ds fy, nsonk ds ;gk x;k gSA
pUnzxqIr cM+h lko/kkuh ls lkeUr nsonk ds ;gk igqp x;k gS A pUnz dks ns[krs gh lkeUr nsonk
cgqr izlUu gqvk vkSj mls n; ls yxk fy;kA
lkeUr us lwfpr fd;k fd ;qojkt ey;dsrq r{kfkyk esa gh gSA vkpk;ksZ dk nkZu djds og 'kh?kz gh
viuh jkt/kkuh dh vksj ykSVus okys gSaA muls vPNk ek/;e Hkyk D;k gksxkA
pUnzxqIr izlUu gks x,A cksys] dc nkZu gksax\s brus esa gh jFkksa ds vkus dh /ofu lqukbZ iM+hA lkeUr
nsonk us xok{k ls >kaddj ns[kk] fQj cksys] cl vk gh x,A
nsonk us pUnzxqIr dks le>krs gq, dgk fd rqels mudks feykdj eSa fdlh cgkus ls ;gk ls pyk
tkxkA mruh nsj esa rqe ckr dj ysukA
tc pUnzxqIr us iwNk fd ;gk fdlh izdkj dh vlqfo/kk rks ugha gksxh\ nsonk us glrs gq, dgk] ughaA
Hkxoku~ dkSfVY; dh vkKk ls eSsaus igys gh ;qf dj nh gSA ckgj dk izgjh dqN lqu ugha ldrk vkSj Hkhrj
rqe nksuksa dh lsok esa tks ifjpkfjdk jgsxh] og xwxh vkSj cgjh nksuksa gh gSA vko;drk iM+us ij rqEgha ladsr
djds mls cqykukA dksbZ vkKk nsuh gks rks rqEgha laHkkyukA ;qojkt ey;dsrq dks bldk vkHkkl u gksus ik,
rks vPNk gh gSA dgha og bls viuk vieku le>dj eq> ij #"V u gks tk,A
;qojkt ey;dsrq ds vkus ij lkeUr nsonk us pUnzxqIr ls mudk ifjp; djk;kA
iwoZ ;kstuk ds vuqlkj }kjiky us lkeUr nsonk dks lwpuk nh fd egkjkt vkfEHk us rRdky vkidks
cqyk;k gSA
lkeUr nsonk] ;qojkt vkSj pUnxqIr ls {kek ekx dj mudks ,dkUr esa ckr djus dk volj nsdj
pys x,A
ifjpkfjdk us lqxfU/kr Hkkstu lkexzh ltk nhA ;qojkt cksys] xzg.k djsa] vk;Z pUnxqIrA
pUnzxqIr us vkxzg Lohdkj djrs gq, nw/k ds iq, dk ,d VqdM+k mBk fy;k vkSj [kkus yxsA
okkkZyki ds chp- ey;dsrq ds eqg ls vius fy, *nso* dk lEcks/ku lqudj pUnzxqIr xEHkhj gks x, A
laHkydj ml in ds vuqdwy gh O;ogkj djus yxsA pUnzxqIr dks yxk ekuks fdlh tknw ds cy ls og
lglk gh cgqr ps vklu ij cSB x, gksAa
pUnzxqIr us xEHkhj Loj esa iwNk] ;qojkt dks laokn rks fey gh pqdk gksxk \

71
 gkA fQj cksyk vkt gh firkJh ds Hksts pj us crk;k fd r{kfkyk esa gh nsonkZu dk Hkh lkSHkkX;
feysxkA lkeUr dh vksj ls fuea=.k ikrs gh eSa le> x;k FkkA
D;ksa\ lkeUr ds lkFk D;k esjs lEidZ dh ckr ;gk lHkh tkurs gSa\ pUn dh HkkSags Vs<+h iM+ xbZA
Ukgha] ugha! ;qojkt us viuh xyrh lq/kkjrs gq, dgk fd eq>ls dgus esa =qfV gks xbZA egkjkt ds nwr
us gh eq>s crk;k Fkk fd lkeUr blesa lgk;d gksaxAs
pUnzxqIr us lqxfU/kr ty ihrs gq, dgk fd ;qojkt ,d ckj rqEgkjs euksje iznsk dh ;k=k djus dh
cM+h bPNk gSA
;qojkt us dgk fd dk;Z fl/n gksus ij nso gekjs ;gk vfrfFk cudj rks i/kkjsxas ghA
pUnzxqIr mldh prqjrk dks le> x, A jktk ioZrd rks vius dks mlds cjkcj dk gh kkld le>saxs]
rHkh rks ;g ex/k&lezkV~ dks viuk vfrfFk cuk jgk gSA pUnzxqIr eu gh eu glkA Hkxoku dkSfVY; ds eu
esa irk ugha D;k gS\ dkSu tkus] fdlh fnu [kM~x ysdj mldk jkT; thrus ds fy, Hkh rks ogk tkuk iM+
ldrk gSA
ij ls eqLdjkdj pUnzxqIr us dgk] ge ml fnu dh izrh{kk djsaxAs
ge Hkh djsaxs] nso! ;qojkt us ,slk dgdj tSls lc dqN pUnzxqIr ij gh Mky fn;kA ;qojkt fQj
cksyk] eSa iwtuh; egkjkt ls D;k fuosnu d:xk\
fotsrk dh Hkkfr gkFk c<+kdj pUnzxqIr us dgk] ge viuh vksj ls fn;k x;k gj opu iwjk djus dks
rRij gSa A
pUnzxqIr us ;qojkt ey;dsrq ls fQj iwNk] egkjkt ioZrd ;gh vkoklu pkgrs gSa u \
;qojkt us dgk] dsoy ;gh A vkSj vc egkjkt dh vkKk ls eSa fuosnu djuk pkgrk gw fd tgk] ftl
le; Hkh gekjh vko;drk gksxh] ogk nson`f"V mBkrs gh gesa rRij ik,xs A pUnzxqIr vkSj jktk ioZrd ds
chp ekSf[kd laf/k gks xbZ A
dk;Z iwjk gksrs gh pUnzxqIr mB [kM+k gqvk vkSj fcuk lkEkUr nsonk dh izrh{kk fd, eqLdjkdj ckgj
fudy iM+k A
bl rjg pUnzxqIr ds r{kfkyk vkus dk m/ns; iwjk gks x;k vkSj mls vius m/ns; esa lQyrk fey
xbZA

i) pUnzxqIr bl le; r{kfkyk esa gS

ii) vkpk;Z pk.kD; dh ;kstukuqlkj fe= jktkvksa ls feydj ?kfu"Brk c<+kus esa lkeUr nsonk dk lg;ksx
visf{kr Fkk vr% vius b"Vdk;Z dks lEikfnr djus ds m)s; ls lkeUr nsonk ds ;gk x;k FkkA
iii) gk mls vius m)s; esa lQyrk feyhA

Question 15
^vfrfFk dh bPNk iwjh djus ds fy, eq>s lcls vkxs jguk iM+sxk A vfrfFk dkSu gS] pUnxqIr us mldh [121/2]
bPNk fdl rjg ls iwjh dh Fkh \ le>kdj fyf[k, A

72
ijh{kdksa dh fVIif.k;k
Nk=ksa }kjk le; dh lhek ds vuqlkj mkj ugha fy[ks
x,A dgha mkj vfr foLr`r Fks rks dgha laf{kIrA ek=kxr vkqf);k
Hkh ns[kus dks feyhaA
v/;kidksa ds fy, lq>ko
& ,sfrgkfld i`"BHkwfe ij vk/kkfjr miU;klksa
dks i<+kus esa foks"k :fp ysaA
& iafDr;ksa dk lUnHkZ le>k;k tk,A ewy
i`"BHkwfe vo; le>k;h tk,A rc gh Nk=
izukskj fy[k ldsaxsA
& ek=kxr vkqf);k lq/kkjus ds fy;s d{kk esa
vH;kl djk,saA

MARKING SCHEME
Question 15

vfrfFk* lsY;wdl dh iq=h gsysu gSA

lezkV~ pUnzxqIr us pjksa ls lquk Fkk fd ;ouksa dh jktdqekjh gsysu eq>s ns[kuk pkgrh gSA mlh fnu
lezkV~ us fup; dj fy;k Fkk fd og ;q) esa lcls vkxs pydj mls viuk nkZu nsxkA
vkpk;Z dkSfVY;] egkekR; jk{kl rFkk lezkV~ pUnzxqIr ;q/n j.kuhfr ij fopkj dj jgs FksA rHkh jk{kl
us dgk fd Hkxoku~ dkSfVY; dh ;qfDr dk fooj.k Hkh ;Fkkor~ ns pqdk gwA vc lezkV~ dh tSlh vkKk gksA
pUnzxqIr gl iM+k vkSj cksyk] **egkekR; jk{kl dgk jg x,\
**tgk jk{kl dks gksuk pkfg,A jk{kl cksys] **gj ;q/n esa jk{kl lsuk esa lcls vkxs jgrk vk;k gS] bl
ckj Hkh------A
**ugha] ughaA egkekR; rks esjk gh vf/kdkj Nhu jgs gSAa pk.kD; us pUnzxqIr dks le>k;k fd uhfr dk
fu.kZ; djus dk vf/kdkj egkekR; jk{kl dks gh gS] o`"ky!
**uhfr ds nks&nks vkpk;Z feydj eq> lSfud dks ywV jgs gSAa ugha] ughaA ;g vR;kpkj ugha pysxkA
**eSa lezkV~ Hkh gw] vr% esjk dkZO; gS fd vfrfFk dh bPNk iwjh d:A
jk{kl us pfdr gksdj dgk] **;g dSlk rdZ] lezkV~\
**gk] eSa vius i{k dk rdZ ns jgk gwA vfrfFk dh bPNk iwjh djus ds fy, eq>s lcls vkxs jguk iM+sxkA
jk{kl us dgk] **egkizHkq dk rdZ dSls dkV ldrk gw\ vkpk;Z dkSfVY; j{kk djsa esjh!
dkSfVY; gl iM+k] **eSa rks bruk gh dg ldrk gw egkekR;] fd o`"ky cpiu ls gh gBh gS A gk] eq>s
,d ubZ fpUrk gks jgh gSA
**esjs jgrs vkpk;Z dks fpUrk] pUnzxqIr cksykA **rw gh rks fpUrk dk dkj.k gS] o`"kyA ;fn ml vfrfFk
dh ;g bPNk thou Hkj dh bPNk cu xbZ rks\ dgha ;ou jktiq=h gsysu thou&Hkj izrkih ex/k&lezkV~ dk
fuR; nkZu ikus dks O;xz gks mBh rks -----
pUnzxqIr us yfTtr gksdj eqg Qsj fy;kA

73
 pk.kD; us dgk] **vc bl czk.k ls vki yksxksa us vkSj rks lHkh dqN Nhu fy;k gS] dsoy bruk gh
gkFk esa jg x;k gS && ;ou jktdU;k dk fookg ex/k lezkV~ ls djk nw! rks blh {k.k ,d HkO; jktHkou
cuokus dh vkKk ns nhft,A egkekR;] ;g Hkh lghA
lezkV~ us iwNk] **rkss igys fookg gksxk vFkok ;q/n\
**{kf=;ksa dh ijEijk ds vuqlkj igys ;q/n] fQj fookg !
Lkcls igys igkM+ tSls ps xtjkt ij fojkV~ dk; nsork dh rjg [kM+k ex/k&lezkV~ ;q/n{ks= esa
vk;kA gsysu us jFk ij cSBs vius firk dks >d>ksj dj dgk] **tSls Lo;a nsork twfiVj mrj vk;k gks]
ns[kkA
**rw tk] eSa bl ikq dks ck/kdj rq>s migkj esa nwxkA lsuk esa ;q/n ds ckts ct mBsA
Bhd mlh le; pUnzxqIr dk ka[k xjt mBkA ;ou lsuk dks Hkkjrh; O;wgksa esa Qlkdj ;ou dkSky
ls dkVk tkus yxkA ml vn~Hqkr ;q/n ds dkj.k lsY;wdl dks dkB&lk ekj x;kA
vk/kh lsuk dVk pqdus ds ckn O;wg esa Qls gq, lsY;wdl dh vk[kksa ij iM+h fnfXot; ds lius dh /kq/k
NV xbZA Fkdk&gkjk lsY;wdl pUnzxqIr ds ikl lfU/k dk izLrko Hkstdj vius ,dkUr fkfoj esa csgky iM+k
Fkk A jktdU;k gsysu dksus eas [kM+h fotsrk dks rM+irs ns[krh jghA
lfU/k gks xbZA lsY;wdl dk lEeku djus ds fy, ex/k lezkV~ us vusd gkFkh] jFk] ?kksM+s rFkk ewY;oku
jRu migkj esa fn,A
lsY;wdl us vius thrs gq, iznsk dk cgqr cM+k Hkkx ex/k lezkV~ dks fn;kA viuh iq=h gsysu dk gkFk
lezkV~ ds gkFkksa esa lkSai fn;kA bl rjg ls lezkV~ us gsysu dks viuh iRuh cukdj mldh bPNk iwjh dj
nhA
i) vfrfFk ;ou jktdU;k gsysu lsY;wdl dh iq=h

ii) gsysu lezkV pUnzxqIr dks ns[kuk pkgrh Fkh bl dk;Z lEiknu esa gj lEHko iz;kl }kjk fLFkfr dks
fufoZ?u vkSj fujkin cukus esa vkpk;Z dkSfVY;] vkekR; jk{kl vkSJ lezkV pUnzxqIr dh Hkwfedk ij
lE;d izdkk MkyukA
iii) lezkV pUnzxqIr us ;ou jktdU;k dq gsysu dks nkZu nsus ds lkFk&lkFk viuh iRuh Lohdkj dj bPNk
iwjh dhA

General Comments:
(a) izu i= esa dkSu ls fo"k; ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa dks dfBu yxs\
& thou esa lq[k le`f) gsrq fdlh O;olk; dk pqukoA
& vkt ds VwVrs ifjokjA
& okD; 'kqf)A
& lwjnkl dh HkfDr HkkoukA
& fueZyk esa 9th izu 'kh"kZd dh lkFkZdrkA
& Tokykeq[kh ls izu & 14

74
(b) izu i= esa dkSu ls fo"k; ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, vLi"V jgs\
& fdlh O;olk; dks pquuk & le> u ikus ds dkj.k dkYifud ckrsa fy[kh x;haA
& ^ikuh esa vkx yxkuk* eqgkojk cPpksa dks vLi"V yxkA
& izu 11 esa O;aX;HkkoA

(c) fo|kfFkZ;ksa ds fy, lq>ko %&

izuksa dks /;ku ls i<+dj] lHkh fcUnqvksa ij fopkj&foekZ mijkUr fy[ksA
fucU/k esa i{k&foi{k iwNs tkus ij fdlh ,d igyw ij t+ksj nsaA
ek=kxr 'kqf);ksa ij /;ku nsaA
O;kdj.k Hkkx ij vf/kd t+ksj nsaA
miU;kl dgkuh o dfork ds vak mkj esa lekfgr djsaA
izu dh Hkk"kk i<+dj izR;sd fcUnq ij fy[ksaA
le; lhek dk /;ku j[ksaA
fucU/k esa fo"k;ksfpr mnkgj.k o dfork vak Hkh 'kkfey djsaA

75
 ELECTIVE ENGLISH

STATISTICS AT A GLANCE

Total Number of students who took the examination 518

Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 10
Mean Marks Obtained 74.53

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Details Mark Range

0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 5 6 107 166 234
Percentage of Candidates 0.97 1.16 20.66 32.05 45.17
Cumulative Number 5 11 118 284 518
Cumulative Percentage 0.97 2.12 22.78 54.83 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

50.00 45.17
Percentage of Candidates

45.00
40.00
32.05
35.00
30.00
25.00 20.66
20.00
15.00
10.00
0.97 1.16
5.00
0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

76
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

TO KILL A MOCKINGBIRD Harper Lee

Question 1

What treasures did the knot hole of the oak tree that stood at the edge of the Radley lot [20]
afford Jem and Scout? Describe how the interest in the tree ended. What in your opinion
is the significance of this episode in the novel?

Comments of Examiners
This answer required a thorough knowledge of textual
Suggestions for teachers
detail plus analysis of significance. All items of treasures
found in the knot hole were not mentioned by
candidates, some of whom could not critically analyse
the significance of this episode in the novel especially as
it was spread across chapters. In other cases, the
interest and the significance were well attempted,
even if the narrative detail was missing.
Some candidates who wrote a long introduction could
not devote sufficient time and energy to the main point
of question and despite a lengthy answer, sometimes
well written, could not score because much of it was
irrelevant and only a fraction of the total marks was
allotted to an introduction.
Quotes and / or points of critical thinking that enhance
the level of answer were missing in many answers.
Stress upon a thorough knowledge
of the text - if necessary trace the
sequence or enumerate / list points
necessary to support direct
questions. Key points could be
underlined while the text is read in
class.
Accuracy of detail is a must.
Demand sufficient written practice
during the session with adequate
training on how to write suitable
introductions to long answers and
understand the main point of
questions. The focus should not be
lost in irrelevant detail.
Supporting key words / phrases that
can be quoted should be identified.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
Two oak trees stood at the edge of the Radley lot. One of them had a knot-hole. Well into her school
year, Scout on her way back from school without Jem, as usual was sprinting past the Radley place
when something caught her eye. It was tinfoil glinting in the afternoon sun. When she reached for it,
she found two pieces of chewing gum minus their outer wrappers. Scout quickly ate the gum. Jem
was angry with her for eating something from the Radley place and asked her to spit out the wad and
gargle. The fear of the malevolent phantom was still very much there. After waiting for three days
for someone to claim it, the children pocketed the ball of grey twine lying there the next time, and
considered everything found there their own.
With summer upon them, Scout and Jem found more tinfoil in the tree. Upon opening the package,
they looked at a small box patch-worked with bits of tinfoil collected from chewing-gum wrappers. It

77
was the kind of box wedding rings came in, purple velvet with a minute catch. Inside were two
scrubbed and polished pennies. They were Indian heads, nineteen six and nineteen hundred. The
children debated what to do with them. Finders were keepers for flowers and a squirt of milk but not
money. The children decided to keep the coins safely and make inquiries later about who the possible
owner could be.
In October, the children discovered two small figures carved in soap, one of a boy and the other of
a girl in a crude dress. Scout afraid of hoo-dooing threw them down but Jem admired the
craftsmanship. Upon closer observation, the children noticed the resemblance to themselves. Jem kept
them away in his trunk.
Next, they found a package of chewing gum and this time Jem forgot about his fear of having
anything close to the Radley place. The knot-hole then surrendered a tarnished medal, an old
spelling medal. The biggest treasure was a pocket watch on an aluminium chain with a knife. The
watch would not run but Atticus said it was worth ten dollars.
The children did not tell Atticus where they had obtained it from, but decided to write a note to thank
their unknown benefactor. When they went the next morning to place the envelope in the knot hole,
they were aghast to see the hole had been cemented. Jem kept a vigil by the tree and finally got to ask
Nathan Radley if he had filled the knot-hole. Nathan Radley admitted he had because the tree was
dying. Jem was silent but later asked Atticus if the tree indeed was dying. Atticus did not think it was.
Jem stayed out the entire evening and when he returned Scout could see he had been crying.
The knot-hole was Boos way of reaching out and trying to establish a connection with the innocence
of childhood, which he had been watching, with amusement and care, over time. The cementing of the
knot-hole was the adult worlds response to this clear-hearted attempt. It was one of the ways that the
adult world with all its prejudices killed a harmless mockingbird that did nothing but spread its
song, which Boo represented. This episode therefore supports the overall theme of prejudice
smothering harmless nobility.
The novel is also a bildungsroman, a novel about coming of age. While Scouts reaction to the knot-
hole is childish, Jems is a change: from fear, scepticism, gradual understanding as he stares in
the direction of the Radley home each time, admiration and great anguish at the blocking of this
channel of communication. His orders to discard anything found there and confusion about the
ethical ramifications of taking things change to acceptance and when the hole is cemented, he stands
there till nightfall, obviously crying at the injustice. It is a precursor to the larger lesson he will
learn at the trial later.

78
Question 2
Discuss the various mockingbirds in Harper Lees novel To Kill a Mockingbird. [20]

Comments of Examiners
Most candidates gave fairly comprehensive answers to
Suggestions for teachers
this question, addressing all the characters that are
This is an obvious and key aspect
considered the mockingbirds. However, a few
of the novel and teachers must
candidates who referred to Mayella as a mockingbird
communicate the significance
could not provide adequate justification for their opinion.
correctly to students. The link to it
Many candidates who succeeded in presenting the
being a sin to kill a mockingbird
symbolic role of mockingbirds could discuss only the
has to be made and analysed in the
two main ones (Tom and Boo). Where Dill, Jem and
context of each character that may
Dolphus Raymond were mentioned, analysis was often
be considered a mockingbird.
sparse.
An opinion necessary for such a
In some cases, the candidates misunderstood the meaning question must be supported by
and context of mockingbirds and interpreted the term as justification from the text.
mocking and ridiculing, basing their answers on how Candidates should be discouraged
Tom and Boo were ridiculed by society. from including every character to
A well-substantiated opinion was acceptable. Some be safe such generalisations are
candidates presented Atticus as a mockingbird and marks easily caught out as signs of
were given on the basis of justification of that opinion. insufficient critical thinking and
understanding of text and rarely
score well because in playing safe,
candidates cannot provide
convincing substantiation of the
broad opinion.
Teachers should read text
thoroughly in class and discuss both
major and minor characters and
their symbolic role in the context of
the title.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
Atticus philosophy is that it is a .. sin to kill a mockingbird. When Scout and Jem receive airguns
for Christmas, Atticus tells them that although he would prefer that they practise their shooting with
cans, if they must shoot at living things, they must never shoot at mockingbirds. Atticus explains that
it is a sin to kill a mockingbird. Clearly, this is the title scene, but the theme continues throughout
the book. Miss Maudie explains why Atticus is correct mockingbirds never do anyone any harm,
and are not pests in any way. All they do is sing beautifully and live peacefully.
The mockingbird comes to represent true goodness and purity. The sin is in corrupting this.
Tom Robinson is one example of a human mockingbird. He stands accused of raping and beating
Mayella Ewell, but is innocent of the charges. The town commits the ultimate sin by finding him

79
guilty and sentencing him to death. In effect, they have killed a mockingbird, literally and in
spirit. He was convicted the moment Mayella opened her mouth to scream. Ironically, his kindness
works against him: his offer of help and his feeling sorry for a white woman cause his tragedy. After
Tom Robinson is shot, Mr. Underwood compares his death to the senseless slaughter of
songbirds.
Boo Radley is another example of a human mockingbird. He has spent his entire life as a prisoner
of his own home because his father was overzealous in punishing him for a childhood mistake.
Boo Radley observes the world around him, causing no harm to anyone, and then saves Jem and
Scouts lives when Bob Ewell attacks. The sheriff determines that Ewells death will be ruled an
accident because he does not wish this harmless good soul to be killed by attention. At the end
of the book Scout thinks that hurting Boo Radley would be like shooting a mockingbird.
By presenting the blacks of Maycomb as virtuous victims good people made to suffer Lee makes
her moral condemnation of prejudice direct, emphatic, and explicit. The mockingbird represents true
goodness and innocence that should always be protected. The title of To Kill a Mockingbird has very
little literal connection to the plot, but it carries a great deal of symbolic weight in the book. In this
story of innocents destroyed by evil, the mockingbird comes to represent the idea of innocence. Thus,
to kill a mockingbird is to destroy innocence. Other characters such as Dolphus Raymond too are
considered innocents who have been injured or destroyed through contact with evil.
That Jem and Scouts last name is Finch (another type of small bird) indicates that they are
particularly vulnerable in the racist world of Maycomb, which often treats the fragile innocence
of childhood harshly. Jem is another mockingbird. All the three children are innocent and shocked
by the harsh reality of prejudice and injustice. Dill even breaks down. However, Jem suffers the most.
It becomes his turn to cry. He condemns the system and the people of Maycomb until Atticus explains
gently that he is being unfair. He grows up overnight but, unlike Scout, suffers heartbreak and
disillusionment.
Mayella is sometimes considered a mockingbird because of her sorry condition, abusive alcoholic
father and her hidden aspirations symbolised by the neat red geraniums. However, she is not
harmless, and whether out of fear or shame, wrongly accuses an innocent man and causes the
death of a genuine mockingbird.

Question 3
What is your impression of Atticus Finch as a lawyer and a pillar of the community from [20]
the way he handles the trial of Tom Robinson? Substantiate your opinion by narrating
aspects of the Tom Robinson trial that illustrate the point.

80
Comments of Examiners
Very few attempted this question but many of those Suggestions for teachers
who did, wrote fairly good answers. In some cases, the
details of the trial were not given and hence marks were
lost since those details were necessary to prove Atticus
standing as a lawyer. On the other hand, some put down
detailed narration of the entire trial but showed no link
to Atticus as a lawyer handling it.
In some centres, candidates did not read the question
well enough to understand that the answer needed an
opinion of Atticus as a lawyer and as a respected citizen
specifically based on the trial, which includes not just
the events at the court house but also precursors and
aftermath related to it. Answers included a general
study of Atticus as a father, outside the trial.
Students must be given practice in
how to read questions and
understand exactly what their focus
is. Teachers should provide
sufficient written practice and
feedback on this key skill.
Guide students on how to
effectively use the fifteen-minute
reading time, and how to divide
writing time among answers.
Part of the supporting information
from the text should consist of key
words / phrases / lines from text in
the form of accurate quotes

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3.
Tom Robinson was a Negro who had been accused of trying to rape Mayella Ewell, a white woman.
Racial prejudice being rampant at the time, the case came to trial with the odds stacked against the
black man even though the white so-called victim belonged to the dregs of Maycomb society.
Atticus Finch was given the task of defending Tom Robinson, for which he was criticised as a nigger
lover by many in Maycomb.
When Scout got into a fight defending her father and questioned him about this, he said he had to take
on the case despite the disapproval because if he did not, he would not be able to hold up his head in
Maycomb, nor represent the county in the legislature. He would not even be able to reprimand
his children or worship at church. This case, which according to him goes to the essence of
mans conscience, affected him personally; and it was important to Atticus to stand by his
principles before expecting others to do so. He was firm that he had to first live with himself and that
conscience did not live by majority rule. He knew there was little chance of victory and that he was
fighting a losing battle, yet he took a stand on grounds of principles, saying
Simply because we were licked a hundred years before we started is no reason for us not to
try to win
Besides the moral courage he displayed at this time, he was brave enough to singlehandedly face a
group of antagonistic citizens and defend Tom Robinson before a lynch mob.
Despite the prejudice, he advocated understanding and tolerance and reminded Scout that no matter
how bitter things became, theyre still our friends and this is still our home. When Bob Ewell spat
on him, Atticus did not condemn him for anything more than chewing tobacco; he explained the action
came from the humiliation Atticus had subjected him to on the stand, destroying his last shred of
credibility. Compassionate, Atticus was willing to suffer if it meant saving Mayella Ewell one extra
beating.

81
Atticus was a competent lawyer and had thought things through clearly. He told his brother that the
jury could not be expected to take Tom Robinsons word against the Ewells, but he had a chance to
jar the jury and have a reasonable chance on the appeal. During the trial he was calm, courteous,
and clear. He cross examined witnesses, asking if a doctor had been called, insisting on detail of
Mayellas injuries. He questioned Bob Ewell, who first thought he would have an easy time with
Atticus, to show he was left-handed and could have beaten up Mayella himself. He questioned
Mayella courteously and slowly built a picture of the home she lived in, her life without friends and
the drunken violence of her father. After questioning her about her testimony about how Tom
Robinson had attacked her, he presented the idea that had he indeed done so, she could have
defended herself better and the beating could have been by Bob Ewell. He then showed Tom
Robinsons left arm was useless and crippled and that the injuries on Mayella therefore could not
have been inflicted by him. While questioning Tom, Atticus brought him out as a decent helpful
man who had been unfairly accused and framed. In his closing address, he said that the case should
never have come to court, and that Mayella had accused Tom out of fear that she had kissed a Negro
whose only fault was that he had the temerity to feel sorry for a white woman. He spoke of equality
and integrity, and appealed to the jury in the name of God to do its duty. At the end, when he left
the courtroom, all those in the gallery upstairs stood for him as a mark of respect for his moral
courage, sincere attempt to do the correct thing and the efficiency with which he went about it.
In the way he handled the trial, he vindicated Judge Taylors faith in him. Miss Maudie explained to
Jem later that Atticus had deliberately been chosen to fight a case that could not be won simply because
he was the only one who could have kept the jury out so long. He was the one Maycomb looked up
to, and was responsible for the baby step in the fight against racism.
Atticus was fair and unbiased. He chafed at Maycombs usual disease:
Why reasonable people go stark raving mad when anything involving a Negro comes up, is
something I dont pretend to understand
Despite his patience with anothers point of view, he explained the bias of the jury in terms of racist
attitude. He told Jem that whether the mob at the prison or the jury, otherwise reasonable men lose
their heads when it came to taking a white mans word against a black mans. He vehemently
disapproved of white men who cheated black men, calling them trash.
Thus, Atticus Finch proved his mettle as an honourable, just and efficient lawyer, citizen and a pillar of
Maycomb society, taking up a battle that he knew was a lost one, making a difference in the attitudes in
his mild, yet courageous, and far sighted manner.

THE HUNGRY TIDE Amitav Ghosh

Question 4
Comment on Amitav Ghoshs use of history and myth that surrounded the Sunderbans. [20]

82
 Comments of Examiners
This question was not widely attempted.
Suggestions for teachers
Very few candidates could really do justice to the Ensure that students read the novel
question as it demanded a thorough and detailed in detail and develop the skill to
knowledge of the text. Some gave merely the detailed compress vast information into
narration of the Bon Bibi myth and ignored the use of focussed answers. Adequate written
history and other myths. Quotes did not form an practice against the clock is
appropriately strong part of substantiation in many advised.
answers. Include some challenging
discussion and written assignments
too that call for high order critical
thinking and writing skills.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4.
Amitav Ghosh's greatest gift as a writer may well be his sense of place. A landscape, a city, a village on
the edge of a desert: it is these images that we summon from his novels when we are distanced from
them in memory. Perhaps this is what makes him such a master of the travel narrative, a form whose
contours are shaped by places and their histories. His most recent book, The Hungry Tide, is set in the
Sundarbans, the vast, intermittently submerged archipelago, largely covered by mangrove
forests, that forms the delta of the Ganges as it debouches into the Bay of Bengal. The region is
supposed to derive its name from the sundari tree, as the mangrove is locally called; in his book,
Ghosh speculates on whether the name may not more simply correspond to sundarban, beautiful
forest, as many prefer to believe. Two-thirds of the Sundarbans are in Bangladesh, only one-third in
India: it is a region whose fishing folk easily traverse the imaginary boundaries of the modern nation-
state, crossing, as the wind and the tides take them, the mouths of the many river-channels that set up a
unique turbulence of fresh and salt water washing the islands of the archipelago.
To this land discovered by the ebb-tide, bhatirdesh, as Ghosh calls it in a remarkable and poetic
application of the term used in Mughal land-records, come a young cetologist from the United
States on the trail of a breed of freshwater dolphin, the Orcaellabrevirostris, and a middle-aged linguist
who runs a translation bureau in Delhi. The two are thrown together by chance, and for a time the male
translator, Kanai Dutt, accompanies the female scientist, Piya Roy, as an unofficial interpreter. The
novel is not really about their developing acquaintance. Much more centrally and in a far more extended
way, it is about the many histories of the region they have come to. Kanai's aunt Nilima has lived in
one of the islands for years; she sends for him after the discovery of a diary belonging to her long-
dead husband Nirmal, a Marxist schoolteacher whose withdrawal from political activism had brought
them to settle in a Sundarbans village. As Kanai reads the diary, its narrative of past events, hopes and
disappointments (held together as much by the inexorable flow of historical time as by Nirmal's
constant evocation of lines from Rilke's Duino Elegies), is interwoven with other stories. These include
Kanai's own memories of a visit he paid his uncle and aunt as a child, his present experiences as a guest
at Nilima's hospital, and Piya's search, aided by the fisherman Fokir, for the Orcaella.

83
At the heart of Nirmal's diary is a historical event: the eviction of refugee settlers from the island of
Morichjhapi in the Sunderbans by the Left Front government of West Bengal in 1979. For the old
Communist in the novel, like many others at the time, this act of state violence was a betrayal of
everything left-wing politics in the post-Partition era had stood for. It was these very leftists who had
declared, in the face of Dr Bidhan Chandra Roy's attempts to find land in neighbouring states for the
successive waves of refugees who crossed over from East Pakistan in the forties and fifties, that they
would not consent to a single one being resettled outside West Bengal. And indeed the conditions of
such resettlement were harsh and alien. In 1978 a group of refugees fled from the Dandakaranya camp
in Madhya Pradesh and came to the island of Morichjhapi in the Sundarbans with the intention of
settling there. They cleared the land for agriculture, and began to fish and farm. But their presence there
alarmed the Left Front ministry, who saw it as the first of a possibly endless series of encroachments on
protected forest land, and the settlers were evicted in a brutal display of state power in May, 1979.
Many, like the girl Kusum in Ghosh's novel, Kanai's childhood playmate who becomes the repository of
Nirmal's idealist hopes, were killed. Nirmal, who stays with the settlers during those final hours, is later
discovered wandering in the port town of Canning; he is shattered by the event and never recovers. As
the last significant expression of the trauma of Bengal's Partition, the story of Morichjhapi occupies a
central place in the novel.
But it is only one of the histories - part fact, part fiction - that the Sundarbans of Ghosh's novel enfolds.
There are others: the life cycle of the Orcaella, the story of its identification and the aquatic history
of which it is part; the story of the port town of Canning, and the folly of its foundation by the
British; the storms, named cyclones by the shipping inspector Henry Piddington, which ravage
the region with irresistible ferocity; the visionary ambition of Sir Daniel Hamilton, who bought
ten thousand acres of land in the Sundarbans and set out to build an ideal community; the tale of
Bon Bibi and her worship, recounted in many folk epics, fusing Muslim and Hindu faith; and of
course the present histories of Kanai, Nilima, Piya, Fokir, Fokir's wife Moyna and their son
Tutul, among others. In a land regularly obliterated, at least in part, by the flood tide or by the
huge tidal waves dredged up by cyclones (one of which marks the novel's climax), Ghosh makes
us aware of the sedimentation of human history, the layers of past knowledge, experience and
memory that constitute our human sense of place.
Ghosh's sense of Bengali social history is, as always, unerring and profound. One of the most moving
things in the novel is the textual tenor, at once perceptive and self-deceived, of Nirmal's diary,
especially as it stands framed by the more robust and enduring social activism of his wife Nilima, and
by the common sense of his companion on his last journey, the fisherman Horen Naskor.
(suitably chosen quotes of candidates choice to be credited)

Question 5
Give an account of what Sir Daniel Hamilton did to achieve his dream in the Sunderbans. [20]
After his death, what was the ultimate outcome of all his efforts?

84
 Comments of Examiners
The first part of the question was attempted well, but the Suggestions for teachers
outcome was left out. A few candidates managed to Teachers must guide students on
write a line or two on it. Despite it being a how to read a question and judge
straightforward question, it was attempted by very few the balance in the answer.
candidates, perhaps because of the depth of textual Quotes from texts must be
knowledge required. strategically placed. They must be
accurate.
Quotes were lacking in many answers. Teachers must provide practice in
identifying relevant facts from text
and collating them in an organised
manner to address complete
question.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5.
His dream:
Sir Daniel Hamilton (pictured in stockings and knee breeches, wearing buckled shoes and a jacket with
brass buttons) had been schooled in Scotland that lifes most important lesson is Labour conquers
everything.
He came to India to seek his fortune, joined MacKinnon and McKenzie in Calcutta and worked hard,
being the only ticket agent selling hundreds of tickets (monipolikapitalist I) land, unlike others, he did
not take his money and leave or spent it all on places and luxuries. Instead, he sailed towards the Bay of
Bengal while other sahebs and mems revelled. He wondered why no one lived here and this valuable
soil was allowed to lie fallow and was told that . People lived here once, but they were driven away by
tempests and tides, tigers and crocodiles.
Since this was no remote or lonely frontier, he asked, But if people lived here once, why shouldnt they
again? Considering this area to be Indias doormat, he envisioned a thriving settlement in this place
and, upon his return to Calcutta, he sought out knowledgeable people to learn about the hazards of
the Sunderbans.
In 1903, he bought ten thousand areas of the tide country from the British sarkar. (Many islands
worth.Gosaba, Rangbelia, Satleja these were all his.) Later, he added Lusibari to these islands and
wanted his newly bought lands to be called Andrewpur, after St. Andew of Scotland. People called it
Hamiltonabad and the population grew. SDaniel gave names like Shobnomoskar (welcome to
all) and Rajat Jubilee (Silver Jubilee of some king or the other) as well as Jamespur I and Emilybari,
after the names of his relatives.
No one came to live in those places in the beginning but started pouring in (by the thousands) later
for the land that was in their own country without having to take a boat to Burma or Malaya or Fiji or
Trinidad.
And what was more, it was free.
SDaniel welcomed everyone who was willing to work upon the condition that they could not
bring all their petty little divisions and differences. Here there would be no Brahmins or
Untouchables..

85
People came in boats and dinghieshacked at the forest with their daas slept on the
hammocks.
The tigers, crocodiles and snakes had a feast, killing hundreds of people. SDaniel began to give
rewards to anyone who killed the wild beasts. The purpose of all this, however, was not money.
SDaniel wanted to build a new society, a new kind of country. (run by co-operatives, with no
exploitation). S.Daniel spoke with Mahatma Gandhi, Rabindranath Thakur and many others. He
followed Marxs Labour Theory of Value.
For electricity, there was a huge generator next to the school (now a discoloured wire that ran along
the wall). He also put phones in Gosaba long before there were phones in Kolkata.
(Outcome:)
According to Kanai, SDaniel ended up with These rat eaten islands. After his death in 1939, the
estate passed into the possession of his nephew, James Hamilton, who lived on the isle of Arran in
Scotland and had never been to India before coming into his inheritance. He had paid a very brief
visit to Gosaba. The estate was practically now entirely in the hands of its management. And
where was the shared wealth of the Republic of Co-operative Credit? What had become of its currency
and banks? Where was the gold The present state was of destitution.

Question 6
What is your assessment of the character Nirmal in the novel The Hungry Tide? [20]

Comments of Examiners
Most candidates merely presented a narrative of events
in which Nirmal was involved. The analysis of
character with suitable substantiation was missing from
most answers.
The question was not read carefully. Nirmal in the
novel was presented through his profession, marriage,
fondness for Kusum, leftist intellectualism and so on.
The assessment was missing. Hence, the character
did not emerge.
The shortcoming was probably because in the novel
the character of Nirmal is not dealt with in
chronological sequence of his life. The novel begins
with his death and incidents of his life and what they
reveal about him come up not necessarily in the
chronology of when they occurred. While the structure
followed in the answer was the candidates choice,
Nirmals life and the assessment of his character had to
be complete.
Suggestions for teachers
Students should be taught to
analyse a character through an
insightful presentation of the
personality of the character and his
or her role in the novel. Character
analysis should include physical
description, impact of character on
incidents and other characters and
their impact on him / her. Change
evidenced in the character as he /
she progresses through the novel
must be brought out clearly. All
opinion and analysis should be
supported by textual illustration.
In study of character, both facts and
observations (analysis) are
important.
The tracking of events in Nirmals
life had to be done without being
confused by the novelists choice of
structure and flow.
Quotes must form a part of the
answer.

86
MARKING SCHEME
Question 6.
The first we hear of Nirmal is during Kanais conversation with Piya in which he mentions his first visit
to Lusibari to his uncle and aunt in 1970 as a punishment. Subsequently Kanai recalls his last
encounter with Nirmal in the late 1970s when, as a college student in Calcutta, he was hurrying to get
to a lecture and had collided with someone browsing at one of the stalls displaying old books. It was his
uncle, leafing through a translation of Francois Berniers Travels in the Mughal Empire. Nirmal did not
have the money to pay for the damaged book and Kanai made the payment to ease his uncles
predicament. Later Kanai read that this visit of his had been the result of despondency at the prospect
of superannuation and regret at giving up writing and reading. Nirmal, a school headmaster, was
obviously a book lover although he could scarcely afford to buy books and Kanai often imagined he
would run into his uncle in a book shop and discreetly buy him a book or two. However, two years
later, Nirmal died in Lusibari after a long illness. Incoherent for many months, he had
nevertheless spoken of Kanai and some writings he wanted to give him. Nilima had searched for
them but in vain. About twenty years later, Nilima found a packet addressed to Kanai and had
called him to Lusibari. In death, Nirmal was responsible for Kanais second eventful visit there.
Nirmals presence is felt in Canning as Kanai reaches; and later in Lusibari when he returns to
the Hamilton compound, and hears his uncles words again. His observation on the monument to
excess on the banks of rivers and a recollection of his silhouette like that of a long-legged waterbird,
with his flapping clothes and umbrella strike Kanai, who is unaware of the mysterious conditions
surrounding his uncles final days. Nilima tells him that he was found on the embankment in
Canning, probably out in the rain since he caught pneumonia, and had lived only a couple of months
after that. Nirmals behaviour had become very erratic and he would disappear for days on end. He had
died around the time of the Morichjhapi incident. It was assumed that Nirmal had been put on one of
the buses to the resettlement camps but had been recognised and let off somewhere. No one could tell
what had happened since by then he was talking irrationally, his only lucid moment being his desire to
pass on his writings to Kanai. Later when his journal is revealed, it is clear that the only one he
trusted with his closest secret and passion was Kanai and even in illness and irrationality, he
was particular about that. Nilima cannot erase the image of her muddied husband shouting, The
Matla will rise! seemingly alluding to the story of the prediction that the river would rise and drown
Canning.
Kanai remembers his uncles fondness for Rainer Maria Rilkes Duino Elegies, and later when he
reads Nirmals journal, he finds translated lines from Rilke, whom Nirmal writes of as the Poet - are
intrinsic to it. Kanai is right when he tells Piya that Nirmal was one of the people who live through
poetry and are hard to understand. The journal was written over two or three days in 1979 a period
when even Nilima thought he had given up writing - and deals entirely with Nirmals experience and
thoughts about Morichjhapi or Pepper Island, encapsulated in interspersed lines such as those about
beauty being the start of terror when he describes the place. The journal also signifies Nirmals
yearning to leave a mark and his strength: he writes he was once a writer and has picked up the pen
again to leave some trace of what happened there. This thought along with the fear that very naturally
preceded it urged him to take up writing again. The vulnerability, courage, belief and ability of
Nirmal emerge in his last days.
Thus, it is through Kanais memories of Nirmal or his reading of Nirmals journal that parts of
the past, background and events are revealed. The story of Sir Daniel Hamilton and the
establishment of an ideal community in the Sunderbans is Kainas recollection of Nirmal telling him the
story. It was a revolutionarys dream: the community at Lusibari is painted as Sir Daniels vision of a

87
new society, a new kind of country through Nirmals eyes and voice from the past. That Nirmal was
as impassioned as SDaniel is evident from his hurt at Kainis reaction of the futility of getting rat-
eaten islands, and his hope that It may yet come to be.
In keeping with the writers style and technique in this book, Nirmals story is not in chronological
sequence. How he reached Lusibari is revealed only after establishing his presence and role there.
Nirmal and Nilima came to Lusibari in search of a safe haven barely a year after they were married.
Originally from Dhaka, Nirmal was cut off from his family by the Partition and his choice of Calcutta.
He made a name for himself as a leftist intellectual and a writer of promise. Nilima was a
student in his English Literature classes at Ashutosh College. Like many, she was mesmerized by his
fiery lectures and her resolve to marry him did not falter despite her familys opposition. Inquiries
into Nirmals role in a Socialist conference unsettled him and following the advice of Nilimas family,
comrades and Nilima, he left the city. He was of too frail a temperament to be useful to his
comrades anyway. At first horrified at the prospect of associating with an enterprise of a capitalist,
Nirmal was impressed by Sir Daniels attempts to address rural poverty and humbled by the
realisation that in spite of their radical talk, they had no knowledge of life outside the city. The
couple had not expected a utopia but were nonplussed about what was to be done with the settlement.
Nilima was the more dynamic and practical one and drew the union and trust to greater heights. Nirmal
was not fully supportive since he winced at the stigma of social service, but he did give the trust its
name. While there was a sense of caring between husband and wife, particularly from Nilimas side,
Nirmal, wrapped up in his own thoughts caused her pain by withdrawing from her. In the year of
his death, he became a stranger to her, as if she had become his enemy.
Nilimas appraisal of Nirmal is true. He had developed an obsession with Morichjhapi. The cause
had so much appeal for him because he was in love with the idea of revolution. Revolution was the
secret god that ruled his heart. Supporting the settlers was the closest Nirmal would ever come to a
revolutionary moment and perhaps a delaying of acknowledging his age was passing.So caught was he
in this that he became contemptuous of his wifes lifelong achievement. Since Kanai had never
supposed his uncle to be capable of malice or cruelty he found it difficult to believe that the journal had
not been meant for him as a slender connection to the outside world. At the end, Kanai tells
NilimaNirmal did not think she would be sympathetic and she says for Nirmal it had to be all or
nothing, while she was satisfied with a narrower sympathy.
Nilima also admits that there had been rumours about Nirmal and Kusum, which may have
accounted somewhat for his obsession. Kania understands what Kusum meant to Nirmal: holding fast
on to Rilkes life is lived in transformation, he saw Kusum as the embodiment of Rilkes idea of
transformation. His love for poetry also made him recognise what Fokir, unlettered though he was,
was reciting: the story that gave this land its life.
Morichjhapi had a transforming effect on Nirmal, who assumes the personality of a pioneer like Sir
Daniel in recognising the birth of something new, something hitherto unseen in Morichjhapi. The
difference was the while Lusibari was one mans vision, the Morichjhapi dream had been dreamt by
the very people who were trying to make it real. Recognising this gave the listless Nirmal a purpose:
I felt all of existence swelling in my veins. In his married life too, the gulf between the couple who
had married for love was created by this attraction for the settlers and their dream. He kept his visits
there a secret from his disapproving wife once the seed of our mistrust was sown. He was honest
enough to acknowledge the sacrifices Nilima has made for him and that his old mans hallucination
would jeopardise all that she had striven for.
Nirmals is a strong presence throughout the novel, although chronologically he is dead even before it
starts. He is the poet, the revolutionary and the prophet-like figure who predicts the river rising and
the cyclone that strikes the mangroves and devours Fokir and his land.

88
 A DOLLS HOUSE Henrik Ibsen
Question 7

One of the surprises of the play is that Krogstad is not really the central antagonist. Trace [20]
how this transition occurs.
Comments of Examiners
This question was fairly well attempted by some Suggestions for teachers
candidates, except for cases where the transformation Students must be taught to give
was abruptly dealt with. In other cases, character sketch balanced answer after reading all
of Krogstad was drawn without showing how he was or parts of the question.
was not central antagonist. Students to be taught the difference
between a character sketch and
tracing change or transformation in
character when question specifies
the difference.
Quotes must be incorporated well
in answer, especially from a drama
text.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7.
Although on the diabolic side, Nils Krogstad from A Dolls House does not have the same passion for
evil expected of a central antagonist. He seems ruthless at first, but experiences a change of heart
early on in Act Three.
At first it may seem that Krogstad is the plays main antagonist. Nora Helmer is a happy wife. Shes
been out Christmas shopping for her lovely children. Her husband is just about to receive a raise and a
promotion. Then the audience learns that Krogstad, a lawyer who attended school with Torvald and
a co-worker, has the power to blackmail Nora. She forged the signature of her dead father when she
obtained a loan from him, unbeknownst to her husband. Now, Krogstad wants to secure his position at
the bank. If Nora fails to prevent Krogstad from being dismissed, he will reveal her criminal actions and
desecrate Torvalds good name.
When Nora is unable to persuade her husband, Krogstad grows angry and impatient. Throughout
the first two acts, Krogstad serves as a catalyst, initiating the action of the play. He sparks the
flames of conflict, and with each unpleasant visit to the Helmer residence, Noras troubles
escalate. In fact, she even contemplates suicide as a means of escaping her woes. Krogstad senses her
plan and counters it:
Krogstad: So if you are thinking of trying any desperate measures if you happen to be thinking of
running away or anything worse. So you havent the courage either, eh? It would also be very
stupid.
Krogstad, shares a great deal with Nora Helmer: both have committed the crime of forgery.
Moreover, their motives were out of a desperate desire to save their loved ones. Also like Nora,
Krogstad has contemplated ending his life to eliminate his troubles, but was ultimately too scared to
follow through.

89
Despite being labelled as corrupt and morally sick, Krogstad has been trying to lead a
legitimate life. He complains, For the last eighteen months Ive gone straight; all the time its been
hard going. I was content to work my way up, step by step. Then he angrily explains to Nora, Dont
forget: its him who is forcing me off the straight and narrow again, your own husband! Thats
something Ill never forgive him for. Although at times Krogstad is vicious, his motivation is for his
motherless children, thus casting a slightly sympathetic light on his otherwise cruel character. He says,
Even money-lenders backs, well, a man like me, can have a little or what you call feeling
Krogstad has his motives, the main being concern that his children are saved from hardship that
comes with losing a job and reputation. He has suffered social stigma for a relatively minor
crime, and was abandoned by the woman he loved. Sympathy for him comes when he is shown as
wronged and a victim of circumstances.
Near the beginning of Act Three, Krogstad has an earnest conversation with his lost love, the widow
Mrs. Linde. They reconcile, and once their romance is reignited, Krogstad no longer wants to deal
with blackmail and extortion. He asks Mrs.Linde if he should tear up the revealing letter that was
intended for Torvalds eyes. Surprisingly, Mrs.Linde decides that he should leave it in the mailbox so
that Nora and Torvald can finally have an honest discussion about things. He agrees to this, but minutes
later he chooses to drop off a second letter explaining that their secret is safe and that the IOU is
theirs to dispose.
Krogstad occasionally lets his compassion shine through his bitterness. Playwright Henrik Ibsen
provides enough hints in the first two acts to convince us that all Krogstad really needed was someone
like Mrs. Linde to love and admire him for him to change from the position of an adversary or hostility.

Question 8
Narrate the confrontation of Mrs. Linde and Krogstad in Act III of the play. What, in your [20]
opinion, is the significance of this confrontation in the play?
Comments of Examiners
The first part of the question was answered fairly well
Suggestions for teachers
and included textual knowledge. The significance was
Ensure that students have a detailed
left incomplete, as for instance, the key point about
knowledge of the text developed by
Mrs. Linde being a foil to Nora and adopting a different
discussion of impact of incidents,
path to self-fulfilment.
characters and relationships. Layers
Lack of use of quotes was observed in many answers. of interpretation and impact on plot
development must be brought out.
They should aim to develop
analytical skills and their
application to questions.
Use of quotes must be encouraged.
Accuracy and relevance to analysis
must be reinforced.

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MARKING SCHEME
Question 8.
It is the night of the party and dance music can be heard from upstairs. Nora and Torvald are at the party
and Mrs Linde sits alone in their apartment, waiting for someone. Krogstad arrives; it is he whom
she was expecting. He reproaches Mrs. Linde for jilting him, but she says she had no choice; she had
family to support and he was poor. She tells him that only today did she discover that it is his job
that she is due to take. He asks her if she will give it back to him, but she says this would not benefit
him. She needs someone to look after, and suggests that they get back together. He cannot believe
that she can overlook his past life, but she has faith in his essential goodness and believes his previous
claim that he would be a better man if he were with her.
He is delighted. He realises that she knows what steps he has taken with the Helmers, and suggests
that he ask for his letter back. But Mrs. Linde insists that Torvald must know Noras unhappy
secret. They must give up concealment and grow to a full understanding. Krogstad leaves.
Mrs. Linde is overjoyed that at last she will have someone to care for.
Torvald enters, dragging Nora in with him.
Mrs. Linde is a foil (contrast) to Nora in that her route to self-fulfilment is the reverse of Noras.
Nora chooses to leave her family, but Mrs. Linde, who has led just such an independent life as the one
Nora is embarking upon, decides to give it up to look after the man she loves and his children. Some
critics have commented that Mrs. Lindes decision undermines Noras and implies that Nora will come
to regret her course of action. However, Ibsen does not suggest that Noras action in leaving her family
is the only route for a woman to find her true identity. The important thing is that Nora, having lived in
a sham marriage, makes a conscious choice of independence, and that Mrs. Linde, having once given up
the man she loved to support her relations, makes a conscious choice to look after him.
Both are being true to themselves after a period of denying their true natures.
In terms of the plot, Krogstad mellows and shows a noble side to his nature so it appears Nora will
be saved. However, the decision to let the truth be revealed, leads to the clash between Torvald and
Nora, Noras realisation of Torvalds hypocrisy and hollow vows, and her decision to leave him.
Candidates can present any reasonable opinion on significance in terms of plot, character and theme
but it must emerge from confrontation.

Question 9

Write short notes on the symbolism of: [20]

(a) The Christmas tree
(b) The Tarantella

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 Comments of Examiners
In some cases, short note (a) was written on how a
Christmas tree brings joy and happiness, with no parallel
drawn to Nora or mention of the symbolic role of the
tree. In others, where the decorative aspect was
addressed, the tree becoming decrepit was not
considered. Noras psychological condition, the situation
at the Helmer household and the state of Noras marriage
not brought out.
For short note (b), many wrote a description of the dance
and perhaps Noras persuading Torvald to watch her
dance. Symbolism was not addressed. The means of
escape from repression and the connection to morality
were some of the salient points missing in the answers of
many candidates.
Suggestions for teachers
Teach importance literary concepts,
of which symbolism is one.
Classroom teaching could involve
clues to help students arrive at the
concept and use of symbolism by
themselves so as to be able to
recognise it independently.
All parallels / levels of symbols to
be discerned, not just the most
obvious one.
Short notes can also have quotes,
albeit at fewer points than a long
answer.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 9.
(a) The Christmas tree
The Christmas Tree, a festive object meant to serve a decorative purpose. It symbolises Noras
position in her household as a plaything who is pleasing to look at. It adds charm to the
home.
Parallels can be drawn between Nora and the Christmas tree in the play: Just as Nora instructs
the maid that the children cannot see the tree until it has been decorated, she tells Torvald
that no one can see her in her dress until the evening of the dance. In the beginning of the
second act, after Noras psychological condition has begun to erode, the stage directions
indicate that the Christmas tree is correspondingly dishevelled.
In Norway, Christmas is an important family celebration, but the focus of the festivities and the
opening of presents occur on Christmas Eve. Christmas Day is something of an anti-climax.
At the beginning of the play on Christmas Eve, Nora still believes her marriage to be happy.
We see her ordering the Christmas tree to be brought in and insisting that it is hidden until she
has decorated it. Symbolically, this alerts us to the fact that there are hidden aspects to life
in this household, that a carefully created appearance is what matters, and that Nora is
the keeper of appearances.
Significantly, when she is trying to wheedle Torvald into keeping Krogstad in his job, she
draws his attention to how pretty the flowers on the tree look.
By Christmas Day, the tree is stripped of its ornaments and its candles have burnt out (a
link with the symbol of light).
By this point, Torvald has refused to keep Krogstad in his job and Nora feels sure that Krogstad
will reveal all to him. The carefully maintained appearance of the happy marriage is
disintegrating under the encroachment of truth.

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(b) The Tarantella:
The Tarantella was a wild southern Italian dance, generally danced by a couple or line of
couples. The dance was named after the tarantula spider, whose poisonous bite was mistakenly
believed to cause tarantism, an uncontrollable urge for wild dancing. The cure prescribed by
doctors was for the sufferer to dance to exhaustion.
Modern psychologists speculate that the true cause of the disorder, which achieved its highest
profile in the nineteenth century and which involved symptoms of what would not be called
hysteria, was not the spiders bite but the repressed morals of that age. The only outlet for
passionate self-expression, they reason, was the Tarantella.
In this light, it is significant that Torvald tells Nora to practice the Tarantella while he shuts
himself away in his office:
I shall hear nothing; you can make as much noise as you please.
While Torvald is ostensibly being indulgent towards his wife, the image of her practising this
passionate dance alone and unheard emphasizes her isolation within her marriage.
She persuades him to watch her practise the dance in order to prevent him opening
Krogstads letter. He tries to rein in her wildness with his instructions, but she ignores his
comments and dances ever more wildly, her hair coming loose.
The mythology of tarantism suggests that she is dancing in order to rid herself of a deadly
poison. Depending on how we wish to interpret this symbolism, the poison may be the threat
posed by Krogstads revelations, or the poison of deception and hypocrisy that
characterizes the Helmer marriage.

DEATH OF A SALESMAN Arthur Miller

Question 10

With close reference to the dialogue between Willy and Howard in Act II, bring out your [20]
assessment of his subservient relationship with his boss and its significance to the play.
Comments of Examiners
Candidates with strong textual knowledge could answer Suggestions for teachers
the narrative part of the question well. Details of Use classes to discuss impact and
dialogues were also vividly given, although in some significance of scenes in depth.
centres minute details such as Willy picking up the Quotes, although used by some in
lighter, collapsing and accidentally turning on the this answer, can be used with
recorder were omitted. The assessment of the greater effect.
subservient relationship was also done well by some Narrative sequence in such
candidates; some missed the patronising air. However, questions must be reinforced,
the significance of this to the play was not brought out including seemingly minor actions.
very clearly by many candidates. Few candidates Once analysis is discussed, the
mentioned the crucial fact of Willys looking to the past relevance of every detail is
while Howard was the face of things as they were to be. reinforced.

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MARKING SCHEME
Question 10.
The second act begins with a change in tone from the previous act, as Willy is now cheerful and
optimistic and speaks to Linda about buying a new house in the country; he now believes that after
seeing Howard he will have his job permanently in New York City.
Howard Wagner is Willys boss. Howard inherited the company from his father, whom Willy regarded
as a masterful man and a prince. Though much younger than Willy, Howard treats Willy with
condescension and eventually fires him.
Willy goes to the office with intention of asking Howard for a New York position; however,
Howard makes this difficult. As soon as Willy walks into Howards office he ignores Willys attempt
of discussing his career with him. Many a time Willy asks Howard a question and he simply ignores it
or changes the subject. Howard seems to be fascinated with his new wire recorder. The only
questions that Howard answers are about the recorder. Whats that, Howard? Didnt you ever see
one of these? Wire recorder. After this Willy tries to ignore the recorder, Oh can we talk a minute?
After this Howard continues to be preoccupied with his new gadget. He does not show Willy even
common courtesy.
Howard, still obsessing over the machine then turns it on to let Willy hear his children. Instead of
expressing irritation, Willy does his best to remain calm as he is desperate for Howard to hear him
out. After the recording stops, Howard starts to interrupt Willy mid-sentence.
Howard is a very self-indulgent man who is very materialistic. He patronises Willy slightly, Dont
you have a radio in the car? He says this in a sense that everyone must have a radio. Willy finally
gets his say, but only when he mentions the Christmas party where Howard had promised to give
Willy an in-town job if there were any ever available. Oh, yeah, yeah. I remember. Well, I
couldnt think of anything for you Willy. After Willy hears this he panics, the tables now turn
and Willy interrupts Howard mid-sentence. Willy starts to show emotion, God knows Howard; I
never asked a favour of any man. But I was with the firm when your father used to carry you here in his
arms. Willy is asking for some kind of respect for that.
Willy shows how desperate he is, picking Howards lighter up for him. Willys anger is also starts to
show. Howard is being patronising again, he calls Willy kid, feeling sorry for him. In complete
desperation to convince Howard to change his mind, Willy resorts to old memories of his successful
days working for Howards father. Willy attempts to explain why he became a salesman. He
describes Dave Singleman, a well-respected salesman who made a lasting impression on society when
he died. He describes Dave Singleman to be a man who was remembered and loved and helped by so
many different people. When he died, he died the death of a salesman.
There is certainly a connection between Dave Singleman and Willy Loman. Willy told Howard that
hundreds of salesman and buyers were at his funeral. This of course was a lie, no one came, and Dave
Singleman was to always be a single man.
Howard, now feeling he has heard enough, tries to end their meeting; however, Willy is now angry.
You cant eat the orange and throw the peel away- a man is not a piece of fruit! In the course
of the dialogue, Willys desperation shows as he keeps reducing his demand for salary.
Willy is now angry with himself for getting angry at Howard; he speaks to Howards father, Frank.
Willy is devastated; he collapses and accidentally turns on the screaming noise of Howards
children on the recorder which drives Willy crazy. When Howard comes back in to see what the fuss
is about, he lets Willy know that he no longer wants him for the firm.

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Howard realises Willys false pride, as he is still lying, saying how great his sons are, There working
on a very big deal. Howard is so fed up by the end, he wants Willy gone and continues to patronise
him, telling him, pull yourself together. This scene is where Willys misplaced values and delusions
come to a head, and he is left in a state of incredulous collapse.
In this second act, Arthur Miller uses Howard as a symbol of the future. Howards office emphasizes
the technology of the future. Howard is more interested in the future, not the past. In contrast, Willy
speaks not of his future with the company but with his history and past promises. The recorder
symbolizes how Willy is not right for the modern business world. Even his values belong in the past.
Despite being much younger than Willy, Howard patronizes Willy by repeatedly calling him kid.
Willy proves entirely subservient to Howard, as evidenced by the fact that he picks up Howards lighter
and hands it to him, unable to follow his own advice about such office boy jobs. Willys repeated
reminders to Howard that he helped his father name Howard illustrate his psychological reliance on
outmoded and insubstantial concepts of chivalry and nobility incompatible with the reality of the
modern business world.
(any other assessment that addresses question and has justification can be accepted and credit given
for critical thinking)

Question 11

Comment on the title of Arthur Millers play -Death of a Salesman. [20]

Comments of Examiners
This was a challenging question requiring a broad
Suggestions for teachers
perspective of play. It covered physical death, death of
Develop in students the skill to
the American Dream, Willys failures, insurance,
coordinate points from across the
idealised funeral and the real one, Willys collapse. Not
play, so that all threads of a wider
all points were covered by many candidates. In many
aspect are known. Students must
cases, the answers were general explanations without
be taught to look beyond the
reference to the text for substantiation. Without
obvious.
substantiation and with only limited perspective, many
Textual reference to support
points were repeated in answers. Many answers may
opinion is a must. This includes
have had the length but lacked the content.
quotes.
Students must plan and revise
answers to ensure flow, structure
and clarity. There is no need to
repeat points. Written practice and
proper correction can help.

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MARKING SCHEME
Question 11.
The title has several layers of meaning. The most blatantly obvious one is that it refers to Willy
Lomans actual physical death unfortunately by suicide.
It also refers to Willys idealized way of dying; he wants a massive funeral with everyone weeping and
beating their chests and so forth. Willy models this dream funeral on the service held for an old
salesman, Dave Singleman.
Singlemans funeral is in fact part of what inspired Willy to become a salesman in the first place. Willy
says that it was huge and well attended, making it totally obvious to all that Singleman was successful
and well liked. Unfortunately for Willy, his funeral is nothing like the way he describes; had he seen it,
he would be totally devastated. By Willys own standards, his funeral shows that he wasnt very
successful and wasnt particularly liked. The gap between how Willy dreams that his death will
be received and how it actually goes down makes this title sadly ironic.
The title also refers to the death of Willys salesman dream the dream to be financially successful
and a father to successful sons. By the end of the play, Willy is bankrupt and without a job. Willy
hopes, though, that by killing himself he can leave some legacy to his son Biff in the form of life
insurance money. This would give Biff a chance to succeed in the business world. Actually, that
doesnt happen at all. In the funeral scene, its more than clear that all Willys dreams are dead. Biff
has no interest in following in his fathers footsteps. Also, its painfully obvious to everybody that
Willy committed suicide, meaning there will be no life insurance money coming to his family. In the
end, Willys salesman dream is dead.
The title also indicates figurative death: Willys mental collapse before his actual death. His
exhaustion and mental wanderings are clear from the moment he enters. He keeps moving to the past,
re-living it at moments of anxiety. His collapse climaxes at the restaurant where he is left a gibbering
idiot by his sons. His delusions and failure as a salesman, husband, father and provider hasten
this death.
On a larger level, the title could be taking yet another swipe at capitalists and the American Dream.
Willy, being a salesman, in many ways represents American commercialism. The fact that he gets
destroyed by the system may be a comment on the soullessness of the system itself.
(Quotes and textual reference as appropriate)

Question 12
Discuss Biff as a character who is compelled to seek the truth about himself, unlike his [20]
father Willy.

96
 Comments of Examiners
Many candidates performed well in this question. While Suggestions for teachers
a number of candidates analysed Biff and contrasted him Study of character traits, growth
to Willy, some stopped at Biff ignoring the latter half of or change and role in play can help.
question. Students must be asked to ensure
that they address the complete
question.
Discourage students from studying
from free websites and summaries /
guides. The analysis is too
superficial or incomplete and often
without textual reference. Further,
word by word similarity across
centres makes lack of original
thought obvious.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 12.
Biff is a catalyst. He drives Willy's actions and thoughts, particularly his memories, throughout the play.
Whenever Willy is unable to accept the present, he retreats to the past, and Biff is usually there.
Prior to his Boston trip, Biff adored Willy. He believed his father's stories and accepted his father's
philosophy that a person will be successful, provided that he is "well-liked." Biff never questioned
Willy, even when it was obvious that Willy was breaking the rules. As a result, Biff grew up
believing that he was not bound by social rules or expectations because Willy did not have to
abide by them, nor did Willy expect Biff to. It is not surprising that Biff's penchant for stealing
continued throughout his adult life because Willy encouraged Biff's "little thefts" while he was
growing up. For example, instead of disciplining Biff for stealing the football, Willy praised his
initiative.
Biff's perception of Willy as the ideal father is destroyed after Biff's trip to Boston. Once he learns
that Willy is having an affair, Biff rejects Willy and his philosophy. Biff considers Willy to be a
"fake," and he no longer believes in, or goes along with, Willy's grand fantasies of success. Instead, Biff
despises his father and everything he represents.
Biff's problem lies in the fact that, even though he does not want to associate with Willy, he cannot
change the fact that he is his son. And as a result, he cannot change the fact that his father has inevitably
affected him. It is true that Biff is not a womanizer like his brother Happy, but he has incorporated
Willy's tendency to exaggerate and manipulate reality in his favour. For example, Biff truly
believes he was a salesman for Oliver, rather than a shipping clerk. It is only when he confronts Oliver
that Biff realises how wrong he was.
Biff is different from Willy because he does finally accept and embrace the fact that he has been
living a lie all of his life. Biff is relieved once he realizes who he is and what he wants, as opposed
to who Willy thinks he should be and who Biff needs to pretend to be in order to please him. Once
Biff states that "We never told the truth for ten minutes in this house," he severs himself from Willy

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because he openly refuses to live by Willy's philosophy any longer. Ironically, Biff reconciles with
Willy almost immediately following this statement. Since he acknowledges that he, too, is a "fake," Biff
can no longer hold a grudge against Willy.
Biff and Happy are richly drawn characters; one realizes who he is and the other is lost, following in the
footsteps of his father.
At the conclusion of the play, Happy is extremely angry at Biff because Biff said that Willy "didn't
know who he was." It is at this very moment in the play that Biff realises who he is; he has
achieved a truth about himself--"I know who I am, kid"--he has the right to express the truth about
Willy.
Happy, on the other hand, is still like his father and will likely follow in Willy's footsteps. Happy cannot
admit that Willy's dreams were "all, all, wrong."
Biff has certainly won the right to say that and is believable when he says that. Happy is still the one
living in a dreamlike fantasy world and will never grow out of it. That's what makes Happy sad, almost
tragic-like, and Biff, heroic. Biff finally can admit to himself who he is and finally change for the
better.
Unlike Willy and Happy, Biff feels compelled to seek the truth about himself. While his father and
brother are unable to accept the miserable reality of their respective lives, Biff acknowledges his
failure and eventually manages to confront it. Even the difference between his name and theirs
reflects this polarity: whereas Willy and Happy wilfully and happily delude themselves, Biff bristles
stiffly at self-deception. Biffs discovery that Willy has a mistress strips him of his faith in Willy and
Willys ambitions for him. Consequently, Willy sees Biff as an underachiever, while Biff sees himself
as trapped in Willys grandiose fantasies. After his epiphany in Bill Olivers office, Biff determines to
break through the lies surrounding the Loman family in order to come to realistic terms with his own
life. Intent on revealing the simple and humble truth behind Willys fantasy, Biff longs for the territory
(the symbolically free West) obscured by his fathers blind faith in a skewed, materialist version of the
American Dream.

NINETEENTH AND TWENTIETH CENTURY VERSE Edited by Chris Woodhead

Question 13

Comment on the imagery and theme of The Ship of Death by D.H. Lawrence. [20]

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 Comments of Examiners
Many candidates did a paraphrase of the poem and dealt
with the theme only as death and preparing for it. The
attempt was a mere summary of the poem and no
specific discussion of images and their effect and
themes.
In some cases, images were more thoroughly presented,
although the focus was on the major, visual ones with
the other sensory images such as the smell of ashes and
the palpable fear of the soul omitted. Themes were
mentioned but inadequately substantiated by some
candidates.
Suggestions for teachers
The poem must be taught with any
literary devices or concepts
involved, in this case, imagery.
Themes must be elaborated upon as
they emerge in the teaching. Mere
explanation of lines and the most
obvious interpretation is
insufficient.
Analysis (themes) must be backed
by reference to text and quotes.
Answers must be framed to address
the focus of the question. Teachers
must give a variety of questions on
the same writer / poem to check if
the answers are framed
appropriately. A general summary
or overview for all is not enough.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 13.
This poem is a part of Lawrences great collection, Last Poems, released posthumously. It indicates that
he did develop certain intense convictions about death. Dying of tuberculosis at age 35, Lawrence wrote
this. It is considered to be one of the greatest meditations on death in the 20 th century. In April 1927,
Lawrence explored Etruscan Tombs in Haly and wrote how he saw the little bronze ship of
death in one of them.
In The Ship of Death, Lawrence wrestles with the preparations he must make for his own
imminent demise.
He begins by relating his own decay to that of the autumnal world surrounding him. The apples
falling like great drops of dew / To bruise themselves an exit from themselves.
He recognizes that it is time to find an exit from the fallen self, and considers how this should be
done.
He rejects suicide, alluding to Hamlet:
With daggers, bodkins, bullets, man can make / a bruise or break of exit for his life / But is that a
quietus, O tell me, is it quietus?
Lawrence responds with the great exhortation, Build then the ship of death, for you must take / the
longest journey, to oblivion.
Lawrence provides a shadowy but suggestive intimation of the Beyond. Sensing his own disintegration,
he imagines his entire body and mind receding completely into oblivion before a strange resurrection
at the end.
In the end, he sees to the other side of oblivion, to a new life:
Wait, wait! Even so, a flush of yellow / and strangely, O chilled wan soul, a flush of rose. / A flush of
rose, and the whole thing starts again./ The flood subsides, and the body, like a worn sea-shell /

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emerges strange and lovely.
(Candidates should be able to bring out the theme of painful and slow death, death and after, and new
life or re-birth. Preparing for death should be a part of the explanation. Images created: apples, smell
of ashes, ship and provision, silence and darkness of voyage, dawn, body as shell, soul as frightened
person, death as rising flood.)

Question 14

As the Teams Head Brass is an account by Edward Thomas of the effects of war on the [20]
simple routine of everyday lives. Comment.
Comments of Examiners
Very few candidates attempted this question.
Suggestions for teachers
Candidates with an in depth textual knowledge could
Teachers should be able to place
do justice to this question since it demanded a detailed
poems in context of the poets life
narration of the poem (the dialogue). Not many
and circumstances, especially when
candidates, however, referred to the poets own
these have a direct bearing on his
involvement in the war and the context of the poem
work. Students could be asked to
which is linked to bringing out the effects of war asked
research and try and find
about. The question hints at a discussion of this poem
connections on their own to
as a war poem.
enhance critical thinking by placing
Analysis of how the effect of war is brought out was
poems in socio-political or
insufficient. Hardly any literary terms were used.
biographical contexts.
A poem has more aspects to it than
just the obvious line by line
explanation. Layers of
interpretation and connections have
to discovered by students.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 14.
Edward Thomass wrote his poetry before he embarked for the Front in late January 1917. As opposed
to the recording of the horrors of war from first-hand experience, Thomas writes of the effects of the
First World War upon those whose routines at home continued away from the heat of actual battle. As
the Teams Head Brass was written on May 27, 1916, an account of what Thomas saw of the
countryside that he so loved walking in. The ominous shadow of war is brought out through the
description of its disruptive impact on the peaceful lives in the English countryside.
On the persuasion of good friend Robert Frost, Thomas began writing poetry later on in his literary
career that began with prose writing primarily to earn income. His frustration at being no better than a
hack and his temperament made him susceptible to melancholy, depression and even suicidal thoughts,
much to his wife Helens fear. When the war began, he was still recording every moment and
observation in note books for prose pieces, some of which he re-wrote as poems. Having enlisted with
the Artists Rifles in July 1915 Thomas was based at High Beech in Essex before being moved to
Hare Hall camp where he acted as a map-reading instructor. As the Teams Head Brass was
composed a few weeks before he applied for a commission in the Royal Artillery at a stage in
decision-making about war. Acceptance into it would lead him to France in the early months of the
following year and his death in April 1917 in the Battle of Arras.

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He wrote to Helen that he set out from Hare Hall camp on a long walk and sat down at an inn and in
fields, passed the same pair of lovers three or four times, and wrote some lines them and re-wrote them.
He composed this poem using enjambment and iambic pentameter, echoing the rhythmic movement of
the plough across the field of charlock, interspersing the dialogue between the ploughman and the poet-
soldier. This dialogue, deceptively casual, conveys Edward Thomass reflections on the war and his
love for his native countryside. When asked why he had enlisted, it is said he picked up a pinch of earth
and said, Literally, for this. The jagged line turns themselves indicate the intrusion of the war into the
pastoral.
Instead of ignoring the newcomer settled on the branch of a fallen elm, the farmer would lean
across the handle and talk to him as the plough turned at the end. It began as a desultory conversation
about the weather, and then moved on to the war. The ploughman informed the poet that the elm on
whose boughs he sat perched had been felled by a blizzard. When asked when it would be taken away,
he replied, When the wars over. The conversation thus veered to the war. Talk would last a
minute and have an interval of ten as the plough went across and returned to this end of the field. The
interested question Have you been out? was followed by a comment on the soldier perhaps not
wanting to go. The poet replied he would not mind if he returned: he would not mind losing an
arm, would hate to lose a leg and, in a show of dry humour, said if he lost his head, he should
want nothing more. The talk then shifted to the losses, that area of the country having lost a good
few men, including the ploughmans mate who died on his second day in France.
There is a tone of wistfulness as the ploughman said the tree would have been moved had his mate
been there. Then, they discussed how things would have been different and the opportunity for the
soldier to sit there would not have been there:
Everything
Would have been different. For it would have been
Another world.
The suggestion that it might have been a better world is quickly dispensed with. At that moment the
lovers who had disappeared into the woods earlier emerged, and the poem ends on the note of
continuity as the ploughman and his stumbling team return to their task.
While there is no direct reference to the brutality of war, the violence is brought out in the farmers
revelation that his area has lost many men, including the mate who died soon after he joined the
fighting in France. War is indifferent and futile and it leaves a void, which is apparent, since Only two
teams work on the farm this year and the elm has been left there for there is no one to help remove it.
Thomas uses his love for and observation of nature to show how the peaceful life of the English
countryside has been disrupted by the war in Europe. The elm, itself a symbol of destruction and
tellingly felled by a blizzard, signifying the tumult and storm of killing miles away, still lies there
serving as a reminder of the harsh truth. Thomas steers clear of denouncing the war-torn world and
does not develop the idea of the world being better without it, possibly because it may be seen as a
blasphemy against the scheme of an all-powerful Creator. Hence,
though
If we could see all all might seem good.
Without there being a judgement on good or bad, the notion of the world being different is clear.
The poem does not end on the desultoriness with which it begins. The fresh clods of earth turned up
by the plough, the act of ploughing itself and the young lovers who emerge from the woods just as
the discussion has turned to the world being affected by war all signify hope of a new life and

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beginning, regeneration and strength to survive the threat to the life as known till then.

Question 15
Analyse W.H. Audens The Unknown Citizen as a socio-political statement. [20]
Comments of Examiners
Many attempted this well, including textual detail and Suggestions for teachers
quotes in answers. The poem has to be carefully taught
While most analyses were well brought out, many keeping awareness of the poets life
omitted to discuss the poem as a critical comment on and beliefs in mind. Incomplete
American Capitalism, instead stopping at the totalitarian teaching is a disadvantage to
state. This proved a major gap in comprehension since it students.
indicated that the clues in the poem (Fudge Motors Inc Reliance on free websites must be
and instalments on refrigerator) had been overlooked. avoided. Regurgitating them
In a few cases, the answer turned out to be a general without comprehension of poem
critical essay on how technology has taken over modern and question needs to be
life. discouraged.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 15.

In a mild satirical tone, Auden is critiquing the states determination to define the meaning of a
citizens life in just a few facts collected by technology. He is suggesting that much more
important information about a human life is left uncollected and, therefore, unconsidered by the
state and society. The result of this accumulation of facts is an incomplete picture. These statistics do
not get to the essence of the man.
That there was a time when individuals were known by their names rather than by their social security
numbers seems almost incomprehensible. Neither Auden nor the reader has any sense of who this
modern man is. He is truly unknown to both poet and reader. Auden wrote this twenty-nine line
poem about the nameless, middle-class man in the middle of the twentieth century..
The poem is a dark satire about what can possibly happen if political and bureaucratic principles
corrode the creative and revolutionary spirit of the individual. The poem was also titled after tombs of
the unknown soldiers, tombs that were used to represent soldiers who were impossible to identify since
the end of World War I. Auden wrote the poem shortly after becoming a citizen of the United
States. He came to the U. S. to escape what he thought was the repressive nature of Britain. Before
arriving in the States, Auden left his hometown of Britain for the country Berlin. He said that it was
there that he first experienced the social and political problems that later became a centre-piece for the
majority of the themes of his poetry. After staying in Berlin, he temporarily moved to Spain where he
had a job broadcasting propaganda. This experience made him feel even more morally ambiguous
regarding his typically far-left viewpoints. His background suggests that he provides the character
of the Unknown Citizen as a symbol for many of the people who mythically come to America to
be free, but are later surprised when they learn that capitalism and bureaucracy have been
ineffective systems that enslaved people in greater ways than the dominance of the status quo
might affect issues related to human independence. The Unknown Citizen is given a reference to
be identified by in the beginning epigram of the poem, but the point of reference is not a human
name but a number. The epigram reads, To JS/07/M/378, this Marble Monument is erected by
102
the State. This is a striking metaphor for the individual being reduced down to a number. Upon
the first read it is difficult to realise the absolute significance of that combination of letters and numbers.
Theres not even a point of reference about whom that identification number belongs to. However, on
closer readings it becomes evident that in this instance the number is part of a slight rhyming scheme
that gracefully sets up the rhythm and meter that follows throughout the stanza that encompasses the
majority of the poem. The only part of the poem that deviates from that one stanza is the question that
concludes the poem. In this sense the poem reads almost like an obituary, especially with its down-
to-earth and conversational rhythm and rhyming scheme.
The protagonist is represented as being a very dull and pitiful person. Hes portrayed as someone who
doesnt take risks such as disobedience or holding his own opinions. Auden writes in one line that
his reactions to advertisements were normal in every way. Also the main character has served in a
recent war from around the time that the poem is set in, but ends up making ends meet by being
employed at an automotive factory. The factory is called Fudge Motors, Inc. in the poem. The pun
on the brand name of a car factory shows even more of Audens attitudes towards capitalism, its
treatment of the downtrodden blue-collar worker, and capitalisms reduction of the working-class
into nullified labourers with less capability for having attitudes or opinions of their own. The
poem says, He held the proper opinions for the time of year.
He also is compared to the modern man in that he has a phonograph, a car, a radio, and a
Frigidaire just like many other people around him do, but he does not have much of any
possessions to call his own. As was the norm at the time, he was aware of the Instalment Plan.
He was no burden on the social security system, since his insurance was paid and his health card
revealed that he was hospitalised once and he left cured. He complied with the Eugenist ideal of
adding five children to the population. He did not interfere with their education, accepting whatever
was provided by the system.
The main character of the poem appears to be trying his best to conform. It appears as if the main
character of the poem actually is not happy. He spends his entire life trying to find approval but he
doesnt look inward to himself for his own opinions and solutions. The biting question at the end that
the poet asks:
Was he free? Was he happy? The question is absurd:
Had anything been wrong, we should certainly have heard.
The poets tone is satiric and ironic, as he paints a picture of a non-descript, unintelligible member of a
legion of such conformists. This is Audens comment on the Capitalist society that he found in
America.

103
GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question paper:
- Those demanding minute and accurate detail from text
- Those relating to specifics, either of narration or event the focus was not clear and answers
were general therefore irrelevant since detail of the part asked about was incomplete or
superficial
- Those that involved keeping a track of events or character spread over chapters, particularly if
not in chronological sequence. Character analysis suffered.
- Those that involved analysis and discussion of title literal and figurative. In depth analytical
skill needs to be polished.
- Those requiring understanding of symbolism, imagery and theme.
- Those demanding context of literary work whether in terms of indirect impact or by way of
direct question on history and myth.
(b) Concepts between which candidates got confused:
- Specific incident and general events leading to that incident
- Characters in literary text in the context of plot (narration of sequence of events / action) and
role in terms of theme: candidates found it difficult to analyse role of characters and relied on
narrating their actions.
- Title of novel: To Kill a Mockingbird (mockingbird and mocking).
- Death of a Salesman literal death and metaphorical death.
- A Dolls House narration / description of Christmas tree and Tarantella and their symbolism.
- Poetry Images and themes versus general explanation of poem.
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
- Every incident or event in a prose or drama text is intrinsic to story its narrative and other
detail, sequence and accurate description must be learnt as also an understanding
developed of what makes that event significant. Students should try and link the event to
plot, theme and character.
- Characters have to be studied in terms of what they do literally in novel or drama and what they
stand for. All character-based questions should consist of a study of the character in terms
of his or her personality traits supported by what he or she does or thinks in the novel to
bring those out, and the role that character plays whether in bringing out theme or other
characters. Any change in the character must be traced. The weightage to each depends on
how the question is phrased.
- The skill to track threads of plot (action and character) spread across chapters and not
always in chronological sequence must be developed. Several novels have narration of
simultaneously occurring events in each chapter, or incidents that move back and forth in time.
The whole has to be understood from such seeming fragments.

104
- Strategic placing of accurate quotes from the texts is necessary. General overviews without
in depth textual knowledge are to be avoided. Evidence of thorough study of text is appropriate
use of quotes, whether lines, words or phrases; choice and technicalities of quoting are
necessary to a study of English Literature. Students should be able to identify textual detail,
including accurate quotes that will support an opinion or analysis.
- Gaining knowledge about the literary texts background and its writers circumstances helps in
understanding the text better as a direct product of or protest against its context. Students
should look for relevant biographical detail as well as social, political, religious and artistic
factors.
- Regular and frequent written practice is essential. Learning to recognise demands of the
question is equally vital. Different questions on the same poem or aspect of play or novel can
be answered to understand how to structure and frame answers. All parts of the question need
to be addressed. Regular practice will also ensure time management improves so that the
candidate can do justice to all five questions in the given three hours.
- Long, irrelevant introduction and conclusion take away from the main point of the answer.
Candidates should learn to write suitable introductions and conclusions that link answer to
question but do not take reader away into lengthy information that the reader is not looking for
in that question.
- Grammar, spelling and syntax need to be polished for accuracy. Simple but correct language
is always preferable to attempted complexities that are confused because of incorrect usage.

105
 TABLE OF CONTENTS

PAGE

FOREWORD i

INTRODUCTION iii

SUBJECT-WISE ANALYSIS

1. PHYSICS 1

Paper 1 2

Paper 2 30

2. CHEMISTRY 37

Paper 1 38

Paper 2 63

3. BIOLOGY 72

Paper 1 73

Paper 2 95

4. MATHEMATICS 115

5. COMPUTER SCIENCE 144

 FOREWORD

This document of the analysis of pupils performance at the ISC Year 12 and ICSE Year 10 Examination is one
of its kind. It has grown and evolved over the years to provide feedback to schools in terms of the strengths and
weaknesses of the candidates in handling the examinations.

We commend the work of Mrs. Poonam Sodhi and the ISC Division of the Council who have painstakingly
prepared this analysis. We are grateful to the examiners who have contributed through their comments on the
performance of the candidates under examination as well as for their suggestions to teachers and students for the
effective transaction of the syllabus.

We hope the schools will find this document useful. We invite comments from schools on its utility and quality.

Gerry Arathoon
November 2015 Chief Executive & Secretary

i
 INTRODUCTION

The Council has consistently been bringing out the Pupil Performance Analysis document since 1994.
This document is reviewed every year and changes incorporated based on suggestions received from various
quarters which include experts in the field of education as well as heads of schools and teachers, in order to make
the study more useful and meaningful.

This document comprises of qualitative analysis of performance of pupils at the ISC examinations. Performance
Analysis has been carried out for the most popular subjects that are largely ascribed to, by the schools.
The purpose of this study is to enable teachers to see at a glance, overall performance of all candidates who
have taken the examination and examiners comments on each question. This would enable the teachers to
understand the assessment of the ISC examinations better and would help them to guide their students more
effectively.

The qualitative analysis details the assessment criteria followed for evaluation of answer scripts. Once the
process of evaluation of scripts is over, examiners are requested to give detailed comments on the performance
of candidates for each question. This includes the examiners response on what constitutes a good answer;
common errors made by candidates while answering the questions; their popularity with students and overall
performance of students.

Mrs. Shilpi Gupta along with Dr. M.K. Gandhi, Mrs. Desiree Tennent and Ms. Mansi Guleria have done
commendable work in ensuring that this document is prepared well in time, in order to guide students who will
be appearing for the ISC Examination.

Poonam Sodhi
November 2015 Deputy Secretary
 PHYSICS
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 36,522
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 3
Mean Marks Obtained 66.72

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 417 936 13833 12209 9127
Percentage of Candidates 1.14 2.56 37.88 33.43 24.99
Cumulative Number 417 1353 15186 27395 36522
Cumulative Percentage 1.14 3.70 41.58 75.01 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

37.88
40.00
33.43
Percentage of Candidates

35.00

30.00
24.99
25.00

20.00

15.00

10.00
2.56
5.00 1.14

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

1
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

PART I (20 Marks)

Answer all questions.

Question 1

A. Choose the correct alternative (a), (b), (c) or (d) for each of the questions given below: [5]
(i) A short electric dipole (which consists of two point charges, +q and q) is placed at
the centre O and inside a large cube (ABCDEFGH) of length L, as shown in
Figure 1. The electric flux, emanating through the cube is:
F C

E D
O
B
G

H A
L
Figure 1

(a) q/40L
(b) zero
(c) q/20Lm
(d) q/30L
(ii) The equivalent resistance between points a and f of the network shown in Figure 2 is:
10 20
a b c

50

d 40 e 80 f
Figure 2

(a) 24
(b) 110
(c) 140
(d) 200

2
 (iii) A moving electron enters a uniform and perpendicular magnetic field.
Inside the magnetic field, the electron travels along:
(a) a straight line
(b) a parabola
(c) a circle
(d) a hyperbola
(iv)
A fish which is at a depth of 12 cm in water ( = ) is viewed by an observer on the
bank of a lake. Its apparent depth as observed by the observer is:
(a) 3 cm
(b) 9 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 16 cm
(v) If Ep and Ek represent potential energy and kinetic energy respectively, of an orbital
electron, then, according to Bohrs theory:
(a) Ek = -Ep/2
(b) Ek = -Ep
(c) Ek = -2Ep
(d) Ek = 2Ep

B. Answer all questions given below briefly and to the point:

(i) What is meant by the term Quantization of charge?

(ii) A resistor R is connected to a cell of emf e and internal resistance r.

Potential difference across the resistor R is found to be V.
State the relation between e, V, R and r.
(iii) Three identical cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance 1 are connected in series
to form a battery. The battery is then connected to a parallel combination of two
identical resistors, each of resistance 6. Find the current delivered by the battery.
(iv) State how magnetic susceptibility is different for the three types of magnetic
materials, i.e. diamagnetic, paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials.
(v) An emf of 2V is induced in a coil when current in it is changed from 0A to 10A in
040 sec. Find the coefficient of self-inductance of the coil.
(vi) How are electric vector ( ), magnetic vector (
) and velocity vector ( ) oriented in
an electromagnetic wave?
(vii) State any two methods by which ordinary light can be polarised.

(viii) A monochromatic ray of light falls on a regular prism. What is the relation between
angle of incidence and angle of emergence in the case of minimum deviation?

3
 (ix) What type of lens is used to correct long-sightedness?
(x) State any one advantage of using a reflecting telescope in place of a refracting
telescope.
(xi) State Moseleys law.
(xii) Wavelengths of the first lines of the Lyman series, Paschen series and Balmer series,
in hydrogen spectrum are denoted by L, P, and B, respectively. Arrange these
wavelengths in increasing order.
(xiii) What is the significance of binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus of a radioactive
element?
(xiv) Write any one balanced equation representing nuclear fission.

(xv) What is the difference between analogue signal and digital signal?
Comments of Examiners
(A) (i) Some candidates selected option c. They could
not apply Gauss Law.
(ii) Many candidates thought that the given circuit
was that of a balanced Wheatstone bridge.
(iii) Very few candidates could answer this question.
They selected a (wrong) option b i.e. a
parabola.
(iv) A few candidates gave option a as they got
confused between apparent depth and upward
displacement.
(v) Many candidates gave wrong options, i.e. c, d, etc.
(B) (i) A number of candidates gave an incomplete
statement. Some candidates could not identify
elementary charge, i.e. charge of a proton (e).
(ii) Many candidates could not obtain the correct
relation. They wrote two separate equations
instead of one.
(iii) In this part, several candidates could not find the
net emf, while some others were unable to find
total internal resistance. A few candidates could
not apply ohms law.
(iv) Many candidates were unable to recall the correct
values of magnetic susceptibility for the three
magnetic materials.
(v) The expression for induced emf was not known to
some candidates.
(vi) Some candidates wrote C E B , which is incorrect. Several others wrote C
also wrong.
Suggestions for teachers
Train students to read questions
carefully, understand what is being
asked for and then give relevant and
to the point answers.
Explain Gauss Law and give
practice in solving numericals based
on it.
Train student to find equivalent
resistance of a few circuits in class.
Explain the motion of a charged
particle in a uniform and
perpendicular magnetic field and
why it is an arc of a circle.
Explain the concept of real depth (R)
and apparent depth (A).
Derive an expression for total
energy En of an electron in the nth
orbit to kinetic energy Ek and
potential energy Ep of the orbiting
electron.
Explain the meaning of the term:
quantization.
E
, which is
B

4
(vii) Some candidates gave only one method of
polarization of light instead of two as required.
Several others gave two methods of polarization
but they meant the same thing. They were unable
to write two different methods of polarization of
light.
(viii) Many candidates gave the expression
= i + e - A, instead of the correct answer i.e.
i = e. Some candidates gave the prism formula.
(ix) Instead of the correct answer i.e. convex lens, a
number of candidates gave the answer as
concave lens.
(x) A number of candidates were not able to answer
correctly they gave answers such as, it has
greater magnifying power or that it is cheaper or
it forms a clearer image.
(xi) Some candidates could not state Moseleys law
correctly. They did not write K X rays or
characteristic X rays.
(xii) Many candidates could not arrange L , P & B
in the correct increasing order.
(xiii) A number of candidates defined binding energy
per nucleon, instead of giving its physical
significance.
(xiv) Quite a few candidates wrote unbalanced
reactions or imaginary/unrealistic reactions. A
few did not give the left hand side of the
equation. In many cases, incorrect symbols were
used.
(xv) Some candidates defined either analogue signal
or digital signal but did not state the difference
between the two. Many candidates did not state
that digital signal has only two values.
5
V
Explain when the formula I=
R
E
should be used and when I= is
Rr
to be used. Also emphasize that EV
in general. Explain the difference
between E and V.
Explain the concept of cells in series
and cells in parallel and how to find
net emf and effective internal
resistance in each case.
Define diamagnetic, paramagnetic
and ferromagnetic materials.
Tabulate the difference in properties
of these materials, with special
reference to susceptibility;
permeability and effect of
temperature.
Explain the phenomenon of self-
induction, immediately after stating
laws of electromagnetic induction.
Explain with the help of a diagram
that E , B and C are always
perpendicular to each other in an
electromagnetic wave.
In addition to explaining what is
short sightedness and long
sightedness, explain how they can
be corrected, preferably with the
help of diagrams.
Ask students to learn and state the
laws, theorems, principles as they
are and not to distort them.
Explain students the hydrogen
spectrum systematically.
Give practice to students in writing
balanced equations and explain how
atomic number and mass numbers
are balanced.
Explain the differences between
analogue and digital signal with
the help of labelled graphs.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
A. (i) (b) OR Zero
(ii) (c) OR 140 ()
(iii) (c) OR circle
(iv) (b) OR 9(cm)
(v) (a) OR Ek = -Ep/2
B. (i) Charge on a body is an integral or exact multiple of the elementary charge OR q =( ) ne
(where n is an integer).
(ii) eR e
V= OR V = e - r OR V = e - .r
r+R R+r
OR
Any other correct relation containing all four quantities, i.e. r, R, e and V.
(iii)
1A, with some working. i= OR OR circuit with correct values.
+ +
(iv) (Susceptibility) is small and negative for diamagnetic material OR <0
(Susceptibility) is small and positive for paramagnetic material OR >0
(Susceptibility) is very large and positive for ferromagnetic material OR >> 0
(v) 008 H , with correct substitution/formula.
and other correct units
(vi) They are mutually perpendicular (to each other)/ orthogonal
OR ()

E, B & c in any order
()

()

(vii) Any two of the following:

(a) Using a polarizer or a Polaroid or a tourmaline lamina/crystal
(b) By reflection (at a surface of a transparent material)
(c) By double refraction / NICOL prism/dichroic/anisotropic/quartz/calcite
(d) Pile of glass plates/refraction
(e) By scattering
(f) Selective absorption

6
(viii) (They are) equal OR i = e or i1= i2 or by diagram

(ix) A convex lens or converging lens or diagram

(x) Image is free from spherical aberration OR

Image is free from chromatic aberration OR
Image is brighter/sharper/easier to install/less distorted (or free) /better quality.
(xi) z
[Where v : frequency of K X ray or
Frequency of (characteristic) X rays and
z = atomic number. OR
Statement: Square Root of the frequency of (K) X rays varies directly with atomic number
(of the target element)]
(xii) L, B and p OR P > B > L L < B < p
or
(xiii) It gives us an idea of the stability of the nucleus.

(xiv) 1 235 148 85 1

n+ U (La) + (Br) +3 n
0 92 57 35 0
OR any other correct balanced equation
(xv) V v

OR
t
t
Analogue signal
Digital signal

Statement i.e. analogue signal has infinite number of values or many continuously varying
values whereas digital signal has only two values.
OR Analogue sinusoidal wave
Digital square (pulse) or rectangular wave

7
 PART II (50 Marks)
SECTION A
Question 2

(a) Derive an expression for intensity of electric field at a point in broadside position or on [4]
an equatorial line of an electric dipole.
(b) Two point charges of 10C each are kept at a distance of 3m in vacuum. Calculate their [1]
electrostatic potential energy.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Several candidates derived an expression for intensity
Suggestions for teachers
of electric field E at a point in the end-on positon i.e. Explain the meaning of the terms:
axial position, instead of that in the broad side end-on/axial position & broadside
position, as required. Some candidates did not position.
understand/remember which derivation was to be Show students how to draw correct
given, hence, they wrote both the derivations. Many labelled diagrams, specially
candidates could not draw the correct labelled directions of electric field intensity
diagram. A few candidates were not able to reach the E at a point due to charges q and
last step. + q.
(b) Many candidates used wrong formulae. Some used the Make students practice these
formula for force/ intensity/ potential. In several derivations. Instruct students to read
cases the unit of energy i.e. J was not written. the question carefully and write
answer to the point. Self
contradictory answers are not
acceptable.
Ask students to learn the formulae
by heart and practice them at home.
The importance of writing the unit
along with the answer must be
emphasised.

8
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
(a)
E1cos E1
ER P
or E2cos (at one place must be shown)
E E2 r

B-q q A
2l

E1 =

q q
= OR K . 2 2
(r l )
2 2
r l
1
E2 =
4 2
1 q
= 2 2 OR K . 2 2
4 ( + ) r l
E = E1 cos + E2 cos
OR E1 = E2
E = 2 E1 cos
1 q l
E 2. . 2 2 1/2
4 r l (r l )
2 2

OR
1
= {q2l = p}
4 ( 2 + 2 )3/2

(b)
U= .

Correct substitution (with or without formula) with correct result with proper unit.
i.e. 31011 J

9
Question 3
(a) Four capacitors, C1, C2, C3 and C4 are connected as shown in Figure 3 below. Calculate [3]
equivalent capacitance of the circuit between points X and Y.

C1=10 F C2=30 F C3=20 F

X Y

C4=28 F
Figure 3
(b) Draw labelled graphs to show how electrical resistance varies with temperature for: [2]
(i) a metallic wire.
(ii) a piece of carbon.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates made conceptual errors, i.e. they were
not clear as to which capacitors were in series and which Suggestions for teachers
were in parallel. Explain clearly the concept of
(b) (i) A number of candidates did not draw a straight line capacitors in series and capacitors
graph. Some did not label the axes or labelled them in parallel. Start with simple circuits
incorrectly. and proceed to more and more
(ii) Several candidates drew a straight line graph instead complex ones.
of a curve. The axes were interchanged by some Tell students that the formulae for
candidates. equivalent capacitors are inverse of
those for resistors.
Explain to students that resistance
of a metallic wire increases
uniformly with the increase in
temperature. So, straight line graph
moves upwards. For non-metals and
semi-conductors, resistance
decreases, and that too
non-uniformly with the rise in
temperature. Hence, a downward
curve is almost like a parabola.
Stress upon correct labelling of the
axes.

10
MARKING SCHEME
Question 3.
(a) (i) Equivalent capacitance of C2 and C3, C5 = 12
(ii) Equivalent capacitance of C4 and C5, C6 = 40 (C6 = C4 + C5 )
C1C6
(iii) Final equivalent capacitance = 8 (C = )
C1 C6
(b) (i)
OR R OR R
R

t t t

(ii)
R OR R OR R

t t t

OR any other correct graph (showing correct behaviour)

Question 4
(a) Two resistors R1 = 400 and R2 = 20 are connected in parallel to a battery. If heating [2]
power developed in R1 is 25 W, find the heating power developed in R2.
(b) With the help of a labelled diagram, show that the balancing condition of a Wheatstone [3]
bridge is:

= where the terms have their usual meaning.

11
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates seemed to have conceptual problems -
instead of taking potential difference same, they took Suggestions for teachers
Tell students that in parallel,
current as same and hence, ended with wrong result. Some
candidates used wrong formulae, e.g. P=V2R instead potential difference across resistors
is same. Therefore, the formula
V2
of P = . V2
R P= is relevant. When resistors
(b) A number of candidates used symbols P, Q, R & S, instead R
of the given symbols i.e. R1, R2, R3 & R4. Ig = 0 in case of are in series, current I is same.
a balanced Wheatstone bridge, was not mentioned by a Therefore P = I2 R is more relevant.
number of candidates. Some candidates did not apply Adequate practice should be given
Kirchoffs laws correctly. in solving such problems in class
and ask students to practice more at
home.
Train students to read questions
slowly and carefully. Advise them to
use data (including symbols) given
in the question bases and not their
own.
Derivations must be learnt by heart
logically by the candidates and
practiced, along with properly
drawn and labelled diagrams.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4.
(a)
=


i.e. = Correct substitution (in formula)

P2 = 500 W
OR
V = OR = 100 V

P= OR = 500 W

12
(b)
B
I1
R1
Ig R2
I1
A G (Ig= 0) C
I2
R4 (Correct labelled diagram compulsory)
R3
I2
D

For a balanced bridge

Ig = 0 VB = VD
VA VB = I1 R1
VB VC = I1 R2
VA VD = I2 R3

VD VC = I2 R4

I1 R1 = I2 R3

I1 R2 = I2 R4

On dividing, we get =

(or any other correct method)

Question 5
(a) A 10m long uniform metallic wire having a resistance of 20 is used as a potentiometer [3]
wire. This wire is connected in series with another resistance of 480 and a battery of
emf 5V having neglegible internal resistance. If an unknown emf e is balanced across 6m
of the potentiometer wire, calculate:
(i) the potential gradient across the potentiometer wire.
(ii) the value of the unknown emf e.
(b) (i) Explain the term hysteresis. [2]
(ii) Name three elements of the earths magnetic field which help in defining earths
magnetic field completely.

13
 Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Many candidates did not take resistance of the wire into
account while calculating current and hence arrived at a
wrong answer for potential gradient (k). Some did not
write the correct unit of potential gradient (k).
(ii) Many candidates did not realise/know that
unknown e = k balancing length.
(b) (i) A number of candidates drew the B-H loop i.e. hysteresis
curve, instead of defining the term hysteresis.
(ii) Instead of giving the three elements, BH, & which
define earths magnetic field completely, some
candidates gave only two components. A few
candidates gave the answer as, geographical meridian,
magnetic meridian, etc.
Suggestions for teachers
The topic of potentiometer must be
taught highlighting how emf of a
cell is balanced against a potential
difference across the balancing
length.
Students may be taken to the physics
laboratory to show the use of
potentiometer by making all
connections. They must be taught
how to get the balance point.
Students must be trained to write
relevant answers: writing a correct
answer to the point, is an art which
can gradually be developed amongst
students.
While teaching the chapter of
Earths magnetic field, explain to
students how the knowledge of BH,
& helps us in knowing earths
magnetic field at that place
completely.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5.
(a) (i)
=
+ +

Or = = 001 A
+
(ii) .
k = or or = 002 Vm-1

e = ( ) kL or 002 6 = 0.12V
(b) (i) The phenomenon in which magnetic flux density /(B) lags behind magnetising field intensity/
(H) is called hysteresis.
(ii) BH (Horizontal component of earths magnetic field)
(angle of dip) and
(angle of declination)

14
Question 6
(a) Obtain an expression for magnetic flux density B at the centre of a circular coil of radius [3]
R, having N turns and carrying a current I.
(b) A coil of self inductance 25H and resistance 20 is connected to a battery of emf 120V [2]
having internal resistance of 5 . Find:
(i) The time constant of the circuit.
(ii) The current in the circuit in steady state.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Several candidates used Ampere Circuital Law to find
magnetic flux density. Many candidates did not derive Suggestions for teachers
Students should be explained
the expression for magnetic flux density B at the centre
of a circular coil having N turns. Some derived the distinctly the application of Biot
formula of B along the axis and then got B at the centre Savarts Law and Ampere Circuital
of the coil. Law.
While explaining growth of current
(b) (i) Some candidates did not know the formula of time
constant. A few used an incorrect formula. Several or decay of current in an LR circuit;
candidates used the formula of A.C circuits. In specially with their graphs, concept
many cases, the correct unit was not given. of time constant should be
(ii) A number of candidates did not consider internal introduced. It should be defined both
resistance to calculate steady current. In some ways. It may also be shown that
cases, the unit was missing. Several candidates did L
= has unit and dimension of
not understand the meaning of steady state R
current. time.
Tell students that steady state
current i.e. final current can be
found by applying ohms law i.e.
E
I= .
Rr

15
MARKING SCHEME
Question 6.
(a) .
dB = .
4 2

dl
B = or B = B R

2
B=( ) OR
4

B = with some working
2

dl Alternate Method
r
dB

x dB sin
R

idl sin
dB = .
4 r2
idl
dB = . (=900)
4 r 2
B = dB sin
2i R 2
=
4 ( x 2 R 2 )3/2
For centre x=0
Ni
B=
2R
(b) 25 2.5
Time constant = / = 0125 s OR / = 0.1s
20 + 25
120
(Steady state current) I = / = 48 A
+ 20+5

16
Question 7
(a) Figure 4 below shows a capacitor C, an inductor L and a resistor R, connected in series [4]
to an a.c. supply of 220 V.
4
C=25 F L=(2)H R=100

220 V
Figure 4
Calculate:
(i) The resonant frequency of the given CLR circuit.
(ii) Current flowing through the circuit.
(iii) Average power consumed by the circuit.
(b) In a series LCR circuit, what is the phase difference between VL and VC where VL is the [1]
potential difference across the inductor and VC is the potential difference across the
capacitor?
Comments of Examiners
(a)(i) A number of candidates found the value of 0 not
Suggestions for teachers
of f0. Some candidates did not convert microfarad to
Explain the difference between
farad.
angular frequency and
(ii) Several candidates did not write the current with
frequency f and thus derive
appropriate unit.
formula of fo. Solve a few
(iii) Many candidates used the incomplete/incorrect
numericals based on it.
formula to calculate average power conumed by the
Emphasize that, at resonance,
circuit P = V.I. A few candidates did not write the
impedance (Z) = resistance (R).
unit of power i.e. watt.

(b) Many candidates wrote the answer as 90 as they Hence, I = I= .
thought it was phase difference between I and VL or
Stress upon writing the units.
I and VC. Several candidates used the wrong formula
V V
tan = L C . Some candidates did not give the
VR
correct unit of .

17
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 7.
(a) (i) Resonant frequency
1
fo = Correct substitution with or without formula
2 4
2 25106

fo = 50 Hz correct answer with unit

(ii) 220 V 220 220

I= = = 22 (A) OR I = / /
100 z z ( L C ) 2 R 2
(iii) <P> = VT I or I2 R / (22)2 100=484 (W)
(b) 180o or (radian)
OR
VL & VC shown clearly on phasor diagram.

SECTION B
Answer any three questions.
Question 8
(a) On the basis of Huygens Wave theory of light, show that angle of reflection is equal [4]
to angle of incidence. You must draw a labelled diagram for this derivation.
(b) State any one difference between interference of light and diffraction of light. [1]
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some of the errors made by candidates in this part were
Suggestions for teachers
as follows:
Train the students to draw correct
Correct diagrams were not drawn;
and completely labelled diagrams.
The arrows were not marked;
Tell the students that a ray is
Angles i and r were not marked correctly;
perpendicular to the wavefront.
Wavefronts were not shown or not
Tell students that there are many
marked/labelled;
methods to prove r = i and
The rays were not perpendicular to the relevant
give them the simplest of all.
wave fronts;
Ask the students to practice these
Congruency of triangles was not proved correctly
diagrams and derivations.
and completely.
Since both interference of light and
Derived the formula of refraction.
diffraction of light involve
(b) Some candidates did not know the correct difference
superposition of waves, the
between interference of light and diffraction of light.
difference between the two must be
brought out clearly.

18
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 8.
(a) Correct diagram with at least one arrow, an incident or reflected ray
Or mentioned wave fronts i and r marked
Proof of 2 triangles as congruent (angle between ray and wave front is 90 , either shown on diagram
or written mathematically)
Proving r = i
(b) Any one difference
Interference of light requires two coherent sources (slits), diffraction of light requires only one source.
OR
Many bright and dark fringes are obtained in interference
A few bright and dark fringes are obtained in diffraction OR
All bright fringes are equally bright in interference.
They are of decreasing intensities in diffraction. OR
Intensity curves diagram but axes may not be marked OR
Interference Fringes may or may not be of equal widths
Diffraction Fringe width varies

Question 9
(a) Laser light of wavelength 630 nm is incident on a pair of slits which are separated by [3]
18mm. If the screen is kept 80 cm away from the two slits, calculate:

(i) fringe separation i.e. fringe width.

(ii) distance of 10th bright fringe from the centre of the interference pattern.
(b) Show graphically the intensity distribution in Fraunhofers single slit diffraction [2]
experiment. Label the axes.

19
Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) A number of candidates used incorrect formula. Some
did not know the correct meaning of the symbols
i.e. D and d, hence they interchanged them. Some
candidates did not convert nm to m as well as cm
to m.
(ii) Several candidates used wrong formula to find the
distance of the 10th bright fringe. Some candidates used
n for calculating distance. A few did not write the unit,
along with the answer.
(b) Many candidates did not label the graph or labelled it
incorrectly. Some candidates could not draw the correct
shape of the graph. In some cases, the height of the
secondary maxima was high.
Suggestions for teachers
Students must be asked to learn the
formulae with proper understanding
of all the symbols used. All
quantities must be brought to SI
system before substituting them in
the formula.
Give adequate practice to students in
solving numerical problems based
on formula, Xn and .
Students should be taught how to
draw a correct labelled graph of
relative intensity vs . Tell them that
central maxima has highest peak
(maximum intensity) and secondary
peaks become smaller and smaller.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 9.

(a) (i) Fringe width = formula with correct understanding of terms D & d

630109 08
OR =
18103

= 280 10-6 m Correct value of fringe width with other appropriate

units is also acceptable
(ii) X(10) = (10 ) = 10 280 10-6
n D
= 28 10-3 m OR correct substitution in Xn =
d
(b) I

(correct shape of the graph with proper labelling)

- +
or d or in terms of / e

20
Question 10
(a) A point object O is placed at a distance of 15cm from a convex lens L of [3]
focal length 10cm as shown in Figure 5 below. On the other side of the lens, a convex
mirror M is placed such that its distance from the lens is equal to the focal length of the
lens. The final image formed by this combination is observed to coincide with the object
O. Find the focal length of the convex mirror.

I
O L M I1

Figure 5
(b) What is chromatic aberration? How can it be minimised or eliminated? [2]

Comments of Examiners
(a) In the lens portion, some candidates could not apply the
Suggestions for teachers
correct sign convention, hence, they got wrong value of v.
Teach any one sign convention to
In the mirror part, a number of candidates could not
students. Using it, solve as many
identify its centre of curvature. Some were not aware of the
numericals as possible. Then ask
relation R = 2f for a spherical mirror.
them to solve/practice few more
(b) A number of candidates were confused between spherical
problems. (It should be
aberration and chromatic aberration and hence they
accompanied by a proper ray
described the former instead of the latter. While defining
diagram). After solving numericals
chromatic aberration, some candidates did not mention
on spherical mirrors and lenses,
white light as incident light. A few candidates wrote stops
solve a few involving lens- mirror
should be used to reduce chromatic aberration.
combination.
Various terms in physics should not
only be defined but also explained
so that students are able to recall
them in the examination.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 10.
(a) Using lens formula for convex lens:
1 1 1
+ = (Any sign convention may be followed by the candidate)
15 10
v = 30 (cm) (negative value of v will not be accepted.
2 f = R = v 10
2 f = 30 10
OR
f = 10 cm

21
 (b) It is that defect of image in which coloured images are formed by a lens when an object is illuminated
with white light. OR by diagram with arrows with atleast one incident ray marked with white
/polychromatic light.
It can be minimised by combining a convex lens with a suitable concave lens

OR by satisfying the condition: + =0

OR using achromatic doublet/achromatic combination of lenses.

Question 11
(a) Draw a labelled ray diagram of an image formed by a compound microscope, when the [3]
final image lies at the least distance of distinct vision (D).
(b) With regard to an astronomical telescope of refracting type, state how you will increase [2]
its:
(i) magnifying power
(ii) resolving power
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates could not show the correct formation of Suggestions for Teachers
the final image. In some cases, the diagram was not labelled Give practice to students in drawing
fully, or arrows were not put on the rays of light. ray diagrams of compound
(b) (i) A few candidates used the wrong formula to increase microscope, astronomical telescope.
M of telescope. Putting arrows on the rays must be
(ii) Many candidates did not know how to increase stressed upon.
resolving power of a telescope. Derive the expresion of magnifying
power (M) of an astronomical
telescope i.e. M = o/e. Then
explain to students that M can be
increased by either increasing the
focal length of objective lens(o) or
by decreasing the focal length of
eyepiece lens (e).
After explaining the concept of
resolving power, tell students how it
can be increased/decreased. Factors
affecting resolving power of a
telescope must be stated clearly.

22
MARKING SCHEME
Question 11.
(a) First lens (marked as objective) with at least two rays from an object with an arrow on one of them.
with I1 correctly formed.
Second lens (marked as Eye piece) with two emergent rays with an arrow on one of them, with
I2 correctly formed.
Marking of fo, fe, uo, ue, D, v0 and (any five marked correctly )
(b) (i) Magnifying power can be increased by either increasing focal length.
of objective lens i.e. fo OR
by decreasing focal length of eyepiece i.e. fe
(ii) Resolving power can be increased by increasing the diameter / aperture
Or size of the objective lens

SECTION C
Answer any three questions.

Question 12
(a) In an experiment of photoelectric effect, the graph of maximum kinetic energy EK of the [3]
emitted photoelectrons versus the frequency v of the incident light is a straight line AB
as shown in Figure 6 below:
B
8
6
EK (eV)
4
2
A
0
10 20 30 1014
-2
-4 v (Hz)
C

Figure 6

Find:
(i) Threshold frequency of the metal.
(ii) Work function of the metal.
(iii) Stopping potential for the photoelectrons emitted by the light of frequency
v = 301014 Hz.

23
 (b) (i) State how de-Broglie wavelength () of moving particles varies with their [2]
linear momentum (p).
(ii) State any one phenomenon in which moving particles exhibit wave nature.

Comments of Examiners
(a)(i) Some candidates did not read the given graph correctly. Suggestions for teachers
Explain the graph of Emax Vs
They thought vo was 10 and not 10 x1014 HZ. Some
frequency ( ) of incident radiation.
calculated the values of vo from the data, instead of just Train students how to read the graph
reading its value from the graph. and use it to determine:
(ii) Many candidates were unaware of the fact that y Threshold frequency
intercept of the graph gives us the value of work function
Work function
of the metal.
Plancks constant.
(iii) Many candidates gave wrong unit of stopping potential.
State and explain the de Broglie
They wrote eVin place of volt.
Hypothesis and give the
(b)(i) A number of candidates gave wrong relationship between
h
and p. Some drew a wrong graph between and p. mathematical relation . Tell
(ii) Several candidates gave the answer as reflection or p
refraction instead of diffraction and interference. 1
students that when y , graph of y
x
Vs x is a rectangular hyperbola.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 12.
(a) (i) Threshold frequency (vo) = 10 x 1014 Hz
(ii) W = ( hvo)
= 66 10-34 10 1014
= 66 10-19 J = 4.125 eV
E
(iii) K = 8 16 10-19 J = 8eV

8161019
Vs =
161019
Vs = 80V
(b) (i) Either
1
OR p

OR
(de Broglie) wavelength varies inversely with the linear momentum
(ii) Electron Diffraction /diffraction/G P Thomson/ Davisson-Germer Experiment /Interference.

24
Question 13
(a) On the basis of Bohrs theory, derive an expression for the radius of the nth orbit of an [3]
electron of hydrogen atom.

(b) Using the constants given on page 8 of this Paper, find the minimum wavelength of the [2]
emitted X rays, when an X ray tube is operated at 50 kV.
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates were unable to recall the correct equations
2 1 2 Suggestions for teachers
i.e. mvr = and =( ) Ask candidates to learn derivations
2 4 2
by heart and also to practice them.
Many candidates derived the correct formula of radius, but Tell students that the answer must be
forgot to write z = 1 for hydrogen atom. written as per the question, so,
(b) A number of candidates did not use the correct formula. reading the questions carefully is
Some did not convert 50kV to volt. A few candidates did very important.
not write the correct unit, after using the short cut formula,
12400
min = .
V

MARKING SCHEME
Question 13.
(a)
mv= OR

2 2
2 2 2
mvr = (i)
42
2 1 2
=( ) (ii)
4 2
2 2
Dividing (i) by (ii) r =
2
for Z = 1
2 2
r=
2
(b) hc
min= ( )
E
12375
= A
EorV
12375
Correct result with proper unit
50000
mi = 024810-10 m (or equivalent)
=0.2475 A (or 0.248) A

25
Question 14
(a) (i) Define half life of a radioactive substance. [3]
(ii) Using the equation N = Noe-t, obtain the relation between half life (T) and decay
constant () of a radioactive substance.
(b) With the help of a suitable example and an equation, explain the term pair production. [2]

Comments of Examiners
(a)(i) Many candidates could not recall the correct definition
Suggestions for teachers
of half-life. Some defined average life instead of half
Tell students that definitions must
life.
be learnt correctly.
(ii) Some candidates derived the formula N=Noe-t which
Derive the relation between T and
was actually given in the question. Some wrote log 2
in class. Tell students that T is a
instead of loge 2 or ln 2. Many candidates used t in
constant whereas t can have any
place of T or T1/2.
value - t cannot be used for half
(b) Some candidates were confused between pair production
life.
and pair annihilation. Many candidates were unable to write
Pair production is a rare
a correct and balanced equation. Some candidates used
phenomenon in which matter is
wrong symbols. Several candidates could not draw the
created from energy. It must be
correct diagram for pair production. Many used a photon,
explained correctly with the help of
instead of gamma ray photon.
a diagram and a balanced equation,
making use of correct symbols.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 14.
(a) (i) It is that time in which a quantity of a radioactive substance becomes half.
OR
It is that time in which half of the given number of nuclei disintegrate.
(ii)
Substitute N = and t = T

OR

= No e-T

T = loge 2 or ln 2
(b) It is that phenomenon in which a pair of an electron and a positron is produced from a gamma ray
photon.

+

Correct Diagram

26
Question 15
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of a full wave rectifier. Show how output voltage varies with [3]
time, if input voltage is a sinusoidal voltage.
(b) What is a NAND gate? Write its truth table. [2]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Some common errors made by candidates in this part
Suggestions for teachers
were:
A.C. input voltage was not shown;
Complete circuit was not drawn;
Resistor in output circuit was not shown;
The circuit was not labelled;
Many candidates could not show correctly how output
voltage varies with time. Some candidates did not label
the axes of the graph.
(b) Instead of defining what a NAND gate is (a
combination of AND gate a NOT gate or an AND gate
followed by a NOT gate), some candidates simply said
that it is a universal gate. A number of candidates gave
incomplete truth table whereas some candidates gave
wrong truth table.
Working of full wave rectifier must
be clearly explained with the help of
a labelled circuit diagram. Variation
of input and output signals with time
must also be shown correctly with
the help of labelled diagrams.
Students should be asked to practice
drawing the diagram and graphs of
input and output voltages.
Give students correct definition and
symbols of various basic gates as
well NOR gate, NAND gate, etc.
encourage them to understand the
truth tables of each one of them
logically.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 15.
(a)

(P) (S) RL
(INPUT) ^^^^^^ V(o)
OUTPUT t

(b) It is a combination of an AND gate and a NOT gate or it is a negated/ inverted or complement of on
AND gate.

TRUTH table of NAND gate

A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

27
GENERAL COMMENTS
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question paper:
Equivalent resistance of a circuit.
Equivalent capacitance of a given circuit.
Mosleys law
Potentiometer.
Hysteresis.
Time constant of an LR circuit.
Lens mirror combination.
Resolving power of a telescope.
Polarisation of light.
Reflection of light by Huygens theory.
Drawing and use of labelled graphs.
Elements of earths magnetic field.
Derivation of E in broad side position of an electric dipole.
Derivation of B at the Centre of a circular coil of N turns.
Drawing a ray diagram of a compound microscope.

(b) Concepts between which candidates got confused:

Capacitors in series and parallel.
Resistors in series and parallel
Cells in series and parallel
Ordinary electric circuit and Wheatstone bridge.
End on position and broad side position of an electric dipole.
Biot-savarts law and Amperes circuital law.
Long-sightedness and short sightedness.
Reflection of light and refraction of light by Huygenss wave theory.
Spherical aberration and chromatic aberration.
Pair production and pair annihilation.
Interference of light and diffraction of light.
LR dc circuit and LR ac circuit.
Electrostatic potential and potential energy.
Magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic, ferromagnetic and diamagnetic materials.
Effect of temperature on resistance of metals and nonmetals.

28
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
Learn various laws, principles, and terms. Try to understand them, rather than learning them by
rote. Build up the concept and develop them with the help of examples, diagrams, numerical, etc.
If need be, take the help of reference books.
Study regularly, not just before the examination.
Practice what you have learnt, theory, graphs, diagrams, numerical etc.
Make a list of all the formulae in each chapter and learn these formulae, along with the meaning
of each and every symbol.
Make a list of derivations in each chapter. Lay more emphasis on understanding the derivations
logically and step wise. Learn them and practice them regularly.
During the Examination, read each and every question carefully and then write the answer to the
point.
In ray optics, arrows must be given to the rays.
While solving a numerical problem, read the question carefully and write the given data. See if
all given quantities are in same system i.e. S.I system. If not, make proper conversions e.g. cm
m, F F & eV to J. Then write the relevant formula, substitute the known
quantities in it and solve for the unknown. Write the answer with proper unit.
Be careful with vector quantities as they have directions.

29
 PHYSICS PAPER 2 (PRACTICAL)
Answer all questions.
You should not spend more than one and a half hours on each question.

Question 1 [12]
This experiment determines the focal length of the given convex lens by
displacement method.
You are provided with:
(a) A lens holder
(b) A convex lens
(c) Two optical pins
(d) An optical bench
Note: The experiment may be performed on a table top, using a metre scale, in case an
optical bench is not available.
(i) Determine the approximate focal length f of the given convex lens by projecting the
image of a distant object on a wall or a screen. Record the value of f in cm, correct
upto one decimal place.
(ii) Now, arrange the object pin O, the image pin I and the lens L on the optical bench
or table top as shown in Figure 1(a) so that the tips of O and I lie on the principal
axis of the lens.
L I
O

L1
x
Figure 1(a)

(iii) Adjust the distance x between O and I to be nearly equal to (4f + 10) cm. Ensure
that this separation is maintained throughout this particular setting.
(iv) Move the lens towards the pin I and adjust its position until the diminished and
inverted image of O coincides with the image pin I.
(v) Read and record the positions of O, L1 and I on the metre scale in cm, correct upto
one decimal place.

30
(vi) Keeping O and I fixed, move the lens towards the object pin O and adjust its position
as shown in Figure 1(b) until the magnified and inverted image of O coincides with
I. Record the new position L2 of the lens.

I
O

L2 d L1
x
Figure 1(b)
(vii) The difference between the two positions L1 and L2 of the lens is the displacement
d of the lens. Calculate and record the value of d, in cm, correct upto one decimal
place.
(viii) Repeat the experiment to obtain four more sets of x and d, taking values of x in the
range (4f + 10) cm and 100 cm. Note that for each set, the positions of O and I are
maintained constant and the parallax is removed by moving the lens only.
(ix) Show the image position when the parallax has been removed, in any one of the
readings in (viii) above, to the Visiting Examiner.
(x) Tabulate all the five sets of values of x, x2, d, d2, and y = (x2 d2)/100, along with
their units given at each column head. Compute y up to three significant figures.
(xi) Plot a graph of y against x. Draw the line of best fit and determine its slope S using:

S= =

(xii) Calculate the focal length F of the given lens correct up to one decimal place, using:
F = 25 S.
(xiii) Record the value of F in your answer booklet.

31
Comments of Examiners
Common errors made by candidates in attempting this
question were as follows:
RECORD:
Proper trend (x proportional to d) was not followed in a
few cases.
Many candidates did not express approximate focal
length of convex lens correct upto 1 d.p and with unit.
d, x and y were not recorded in a few cases.
A few candidates obtained the value of d>x because of
which calculation of y became negative.
Many candidates took x<(4f+ 10) and many candidate
took 50 cm as a constant value.
Some candidates made the mistake of rounding off y
upto three significant figures.
GRAPH:
A few candidates did not label the graph or labelled
wrongly, some used a kink; in several cases,
non-uniform and inconvenient scale was chosen.
Many candidates did not plot correctly or marked blobs.
A number of candidates were unable to make the best fit
line.
DEDUCTION:
Many candidates took plotted points for finding slope.
Many candidates did not record the focal length of the
lens upto one decimal point.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
RECORD (R)
A. Approximate focal length of the lens correct upto 1 dp. with unit.
B. Four correct sets of x and d
Note:
Correct set means as x increases, d also increases
Unit of x or d: cm.
d should be recorded upto 1 decimal place in at least three sets.
32
Suggestions for teachers
Show students different instruments
such as, the metre scale, Vernier
callipers, screw gauge, ammeter,
voltmeter, etc. and tell them to write
the least count. Teach students how
to write observations in consistence
with the L.C of the instrument, with
correct unit.
Give special emphasis on
measurement, unit, significant
figures, etc., so that mistakes are
minimised.
Explain about parallax error and
show students how to remove it.
Give sufficient practice in graphical
skills which include:
(i) Proper labelling with unit,
(ii) Marking of origin with two
coordinates without kink,
(iii) Choice of a uniform and
convenient scale (tell students about
inconvenient scale, e.g. 1 div.
=0.3,0.33,0.67,0.66 etc not to be
taken) (iv) Meaning of correct
plotting (vi) Concept of best fit
and how to draw the best fit line.
(vii) Determining the Slope (for
slope take two unplotted points on
the line that are widely separated.)
Instruct students to read the
question paper carefully and
underline the important points in
pencil.
 C. Correct calculation of x2, d2 and y in at least three sets;
Rounded off y upto 3s.f
GRAPH (G)
A. Axes labelled correctly with or without units. The scale should be uniform, convenient,
covering more than 50% of the graph paper. Origin may / may not be marked. Interchange
of axes is allowed but kink is not allowed.
B. Four correct plots
Note:
Points must be sharp and encircled. A blob is not a point.
Correct plot means if the plotting points lie within 50% of one of the smallest
divisions on both the scale of actual position.
C. Best fit line (thin and uniform) at least the line passes very close to the four points (even
for blobs) or within five divisions / one cm. perpendicular distance on both sides of the
line drawn. The line should be extended on both sides with respect to the four plots.
DEDUCTION (D)
A. Correct calculation of slope (S) of the best fit line using two distant points (separated 50%
or more than that of the line drawn, taking at least one unplotted point.
B. Correct calculation of F, with 1dp.
QUALITY (Q)
Candidates F= should be in the range 7.5cm F 12.5cm.

Question 2 [6+2]
A. This experiment determines the resistivity of the material of the given wire.
You are provided with a 100 cm long uniform metallic wire AB stretched along a
metre scale and provided with terminals at both ends.
You are also provided with a resistance box R.B., a voltmeter of range 0-3V, an
ammeter of range 0 - 1A, a 4V dc power supply E, a plug key K, a jockey J
and a few connecting wires.

33
 (i) Determine and record the least count of the given voltmeter and the ammeter
with proper units in your answer booklet.
(ii) Set up a circuit as shown in Figure 2 below. Make sure that all connections
are tight. R.B.
E K
( ) A

80 cm C
A
J
B
100 cm
0 cm

Figure 2
(iii) Take out 1 plug from the resistance box R.B. so that R = 1. Ensure that
all other plugs are tightly closed. Place the jockey J at a point C on the wire
AB, such that AC=80 cm. The reading of the voltmeter as well as the ammeter
must be within its range. Read and record the readings of the voltmeter and
the ammeter, i.e. V and I, with proper units.
(iv) Repeat the experiment to obtain four more sets of readings of R, V and I by
increasing the resistance R by 1 each time. Ensure that the jockey is always
kept at the same position C such that AC = 80 cm in all five sets of readings.
(v) Show any one of the readings in (iv) above, to the Visiting Examiner.
(vi) Determine the value of resistance r using:
r=

for each set, correct upto three significant figures.

(vii) Now, tabulate all the five sets of values of R, V, I and r with proper units.
(viii) Find ro, the mean of all the five values of r and record its value in your answer
booklet.
B. (i) Determine and record the least count of the given micrometer screw gauge
in cm.
(ii) Using it, calculate the diameter d of the given specimen wire X and record
its value in cm in your answer booklet.
(iii) Calculate the resistivity of the material of the wire, using the formula:

= ro

34
Comments of Examiners
Some errors made by candidates in attempting this question were as follows:
RECORD:
Suggestions for teachers
Least counts of the ammeter and voltmeter were not
Give practice to students in different
recorded correctly by some candidates.
electricity experiments and tell them
The trends of R, V, and I were not correct in many
the aim and trend of the experiment.
cases.
Check practical record books of
Several candidates did not record the values of V and
students regularly.
I in consistence with the least counts of the
Give more practice to students in
instruments.
recording the diameter of a wire
Some candidates measured l and (100-l) instead of V
using a screw gauge.
and I.
Dimensions of different physical
A few candidates recorded absurd values of voltage
quantities must be explained
(e.g. 5V, 7V, 10V, 12V) and current.
Tell students to pay attention to the
DEDUCTION: instructions given in the Question
Many candidates did not write r = V/I correct up to Paper.
three significant figures. Give more practice to students in
In several cases, the mean value of r as r0 was not making calculations.
calculated correctly or not shown at all.
Record of L.C of screw gauge not written in cm.
The value of diameter of the wire was not written in consistence with the L.C of screw gauge and
also at times, without unit.
Resistivity was not calculated in some cases or calculated incorrectly.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.

A RECORD (R)
L.C. of ammeter and voltmeter with their units.
Any four correct sets of R, V and I
Note: Correct set means:
(i) As R increases, I decreases and V decreases
(ii) V and I recorded correctly in agreement with the L.C. of V and A respectively.
DEDUCTION (D)
(i) Correct calculation of r in at least 3 sets with unit.
(ii) Correct calculation of mean ro (1d.p.)
B (i) Record of least count in cm and correct calculation of diameter d (The unit cm
should be present either in LC or in diameter.
(ii) Correct calculation of .

35
GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult and confusing by candidates:
Removal of parallax error.
Concept of significant figures.
Concept of Decimal place, rounding off upto proper decimal place.
Significant figures, least count of instruments and writing of observations in consistence with the
least count, with proper unit.
Mention of correct unit of physical quantities.
Graphical skills - proper choice of origin, uniform and convenient scale, proper labelling of the
axes, meaning of correct plotting and concept of best fit line.
How to find the slope from best fit line.
(b) Suggestions for candidates:
Read the question carefully and follow the instructions, using only the formula given in the
question paper for all the calculations.
Ensure that all observations are consistent with L.C. of the measuring instrument and recorded in
tabular form with unit. Note down the L.C. of the instruments used before starting the experiment.
All values calculated should be calculated upto the decimal place or significant figures asked for
the in the question.
While doing any optical experiment with lens, always record the positions of object pin, image
pin and the lens.
Scale should be uniform and convenient with axes properly labelled.
Origin should begin from zero if the intercept is to be found. Co-ordinates of the origin must be
given/ marked on graph paper.
Plots should be small encircled dots, correct to the nearest division of the graph sheet.
Line of best fit means the aggregate of all plotted points drawn symmetrically and extended on
both sides of the last plotted points.
Slope calculation should be from two widely separated, unplotted points lying on the best fit line.
The scale of the graph should be such that at least 2/3 of the graph paper is used.

36
 CHEMISTRY
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 36,423
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 4
Mean Marks Obtained 64.21

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 138 690 17342 11582 6671
Percentage of Candidates 0.38 1.89 47.61 31.80 18.32
Cumulative Number 138 828 18170 29752 36423
Cumulative Percentage 0.38 2.27 49.89 81.68 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

47.61
50.00
Percentage of Candidates

45.00
40.00
31.80
35.00
30.00
25.00
18.32
20.00
15.00
10.00
1.89
5.00 0.38

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

37
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

PART I (20 Marks)

Answer all questions.
Question 1
(a) Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the [5]
brackets:
(increases, decreases, positive, efficient, 68, non-efficient, no -hydrogen, -hydrogen,
negative, Rosenmunds, greater, Cannizzaro, 74, common-ion effect, lesser, buffer
action, diamagnetic, paramagnetic)
(i) The more__________ the standard reduction potential of a metal, the ________ is
its ability to displace hydrogen from acids.
(ii) Both ccp and hcp are ____________ packings and occupy about _________% of
the available space.
(iii) Solubility of silver chloride _____________ in the presence of sodium chloride
because of _____________.
(iv) Benzaldehyde undergoes ___________ reaction on treatment with concentrated
sodium hydroxide because it has ___________ atom.
(v) The transition metals show ______________ character because of the presence of
unpaired electrons and Cu+ is _____________because its electronic configuration
is [Ar]3d10.
(b) Complete the following statements by selecting the correct alternative from the [5]
choices given: [5]
(i) The molal freezing point constant of water is 186 K kg mol -1 . Therefore, the
freezing point of 01M NaCl solution in water is expected to be:
(1) -186oC
(2) -0372oC
(3) -0186oC
(4) +0372oC
(ii) For a first order reaction the rate constant for decomposition of N2O5 is 610-4sec-1.
The half-life period for the decomposition in seconds is:
(1) 1155
(2) 1155
(3) 1155
(4) 1155

38
 (iii) When acetaldehyde is treated with Grignard reagent, followed by hydrolysis the
product formed is:
(1) Primary alcohol
(2) Secondary alcohol
(3) Carboxylic acid
(4) Tertiary alcohol
(iv) The geometry of XeF6 molecule and the hybridization of Xe atom in the molecule is:
(1) Distorted octahedral and sp3d3
(2) Square planar and sp3d2
(3) Pyramidal and sp3
(4) Octahedral and sp3d3
(v) In the complexes [Fe(CN)6]3- and [Pt(en) (H2O)2(NO2)(Cl)]2+ the respective
oxidation numbers of central metal atoms are :
(1) + 3 and +4
(2) +6 and +4
(3) +6 and +3
(4) +3 and +3
(c) Answer the following questions: [5]
(i) What is the effect of temperature on the ionic product of water? How will it change
the pH value of a neutral solution?
(ii) How many hours does it take to reduce 3 moles of Fe3+to Fe2+ with 20 A current
intensity?
(iii) How is urea prepared by Wohler synthesis?
(iv) Two liquids A and B form type II non ideal solution which shows a minimum in its
temperature -mole fraction plot (T- diagram). Can the two liquids be completely
separated by fractional distillation?
(v) The aqueous solution of sodium acetate is basic. Explain.
(d) Match the following: [5]
(i) Disaccharide (a) Lucas reagent
(ii) Carbylamine (b) Condensation polymer
(iii) Dacron (c) Obnoxious smell
(iv) Low spin complex, d2sp3 (d) Sucrose
(v) Anhydrous ZnCl2 + conc. HCl (e) Hexaamminecobalt(III)ion

39
Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Instead of writing negative and greater many
candidates wrote positive and lesser.
(ii) In place of efficient and 74 which was the
correct answer, some candidates wrote inefficient
and 68.
(iii) The concept of common ion effect was not very
clear to the candidates. A few candidates wrote
increases in place of decreases. Many
candidates wrote buffer action in place of
common ion effect.
(iv) In the first blank, a few candidates wrote
Rosenmunds reaction in place of Cannizzaros
reaction. For the second blank, instead of no
hydrogen many candidates wrote hydrogen
which was not correct.
(v) Several candidates reversed the order i.e.
diamagnetic and paramagnetic instead of
paramagnetic and diamagnetic.
(b) (i) Most of the candidates chose the wrong alternative
i.e. -0.186oC instead of -0.372oC which was the
correct answer. Vant Hoff factor (i) was ignored
by the candidates.
(ii) Many candidates were unaware of the formula
and hence gave wrong answers.
(iii)A number of candidates were unaware that the
reactions between acetaldehyde and Grignards
reagent, followed by hydrolysis, gives secondary
alcohol.
(iv) A number of candidates wrote the geometry and
hybridization of XeF6 molecule as octahedral and
sp3d3 instead of distorted octahedral and sp3d3.
(v) The oxidation numbers of central metal atom
were reported correctly by many candidates but
some candidates choose option +3 and +3.
(c) (i) Many candidates wrote incomplete answers. The
ionic product of water is directly proportional to
temperature. Many candidates were not sure how
the pH value of neutral solution changes with
increase in temperature.
(ii) Several candidates were unable to calculate the
time period in hours and reported the answer in
seconds or minutes. Some candidates did not take
into account that 3 moles of Fe3+ should be reduced
to Fe2+.
40
Suggestions for teachers
Electro chemical series should be
explained properly with reasons.
The selection of cathode and anode
on the basis of standard electrode
potential must be explained to
candidates.
Packing fraction in cubic solids
should be explained clearly.
Students must be explained how the
presence of common ion in a
solution decreases the dissociation
of weak electrolyte. Suitable
examples must be used.
Emphasis should be laid upon the
named organic reactions. The
conditions for reaction must be
explained clearly.
Vant Hoff factor must be explained
clearly to students.
The relationship between the rate
constant and half-life period must
be explained clearly.
Chemical properties of Grignards
reagent, for the preparation of
various organic compounds must be
properly explained.
Geometry and hybridization of
compounds of inert gases must be
discussed in class. The shape and
geometry depends on both the
bonding and non-bonding electrons
of central atoms.
The calculation of oxidation state of
the central metal atom in
coordination compounds should be
taught in detail.
The relationship between the
concentration of H+ and OH- and
pH value should be explained to
students. Variation of ionic product
of water with temperature must be
discussed
 (iii) For preparation of urea by Wohler synthesis,
many candidates did not mention the proper Discuss Faradays law of
conditions. Unbalanced equations were given by electrolysis and explain the
many candidates. following concepts :
(iv) Instead of writing that the two liquids cannot be 1F = 96,500 coulomb = 1 mole of e-
separated completely by fractional distillation, Students must be told to express the
some candidates wrote that they can be separated. answer in hours if asked in question
In some cases, conditions were not mentioned - paper.
that liquid A and B will form a constant boiling Stress upon writing balanced
azeotropic mixture. equations with correct conditions.
(v) The concept of salt hydrolysis was not clear to The salt hydrolysis of all the four
some candidates. Anionic hydrolysis was not types of salts must be explained
mentioned by several candidates. with suitable examples.
(d) Most of the candidates matched the answers
correctly.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(a) (i) negative, greater
(ii) efficient, 74
(iii) decreases, common-ion effect
(iv) Cannizzaro, no - hydrogen
(v) paramagnetic, diamagnetic
(b) (i) (2) -0372oC
(ii) (3) 1155
(iii) (2) secondary alcohol
(iv) (1) distorted octahedral and sp3d3
(v) (1) +3 and +4
(c) (i) Ionic product increases with increase in temperature because the dissociation of water
increases with increase of temperature. With increase in concentration of H3O+ ions,
pH of the neutral solution will decrease.
(ii) Reduction of 1mol of Fe3+ requires = 96500 C
Reduction of 3 mol of Fe3+ require = 3 x 96500 C = 2.895 X 105C
Q=Ixt
2.895 x 105 1.4475 x 105
Time = ___________ = 1.4475 x 105sec. = ______________ = 40.21 hours
2 60 x60
(iii)
heat
2 KCNO + (NH4)2SO4 2NH4CNO + K2SO4
Molecular arrangement
NH4CNO NH2CONH2

41
 (iv) The two liquids cannot be separated completely by fractional distillation because they
form a constant boiling azeotropic mixture, therefore at a definite composition both the
liquids will distil over without any change in composition.
(v) Sodium acetate undergoes anionic hydrolysis and forms weakly dissociated CH3COOH
and highly dissociated NaOH.
(d) (i) Disaccharide (d) sucrose
(ii) carbylamine (c) obnoxious smell
(iii) Dacron (b) condensation polymer
(iv) 2 3
Low spin complex, d sp (e) hexaamminecobalt(III) ion
(v) anhydrous ZnCl2+conc.HCl (a) Lucas reagent

PART II (50 Marks)

Answer six questions choosing two from Section A, two from
Section B and two from Section C.
SECTION A
Answer any two questions.
Question 2
(a) (i) A solution containing 05 g of KCl dissolves in 100 g of water and freezes [3]
at 024oC. Calculate the degree of dissociation of the salt. (Kf for water = 1.86oC)
Atomic weights [K = 39, Cl = 355]
(ii) If 171 g of sugar (molar mass = 342) are dissolved in 500 ml of an aqueous [1]
solution at 300 K, what will be its osmotic pressure?
(iii) 070g of an organic compound when dissolved in 32g of acetone produces an [1]
elevation of 025oC in the boiling point. Calculate the molecular mass of organic
compound (Kb for acetone = 172 K kg mol-1).
(b) (i) What is the difference between order of a reaction and the molecularity of a [2]
reaction?
(ii) A substance decomposes by following first order kinetics. If 50% of the compound [2]
is decomposed in 120 minutes, how long will it take for 90% of the compound to
decompose?
(c) Name the crystal structure of the copper metal. [1]

42
Comments of Examiners
(a)(i) Some candidates did the calculations upto vant Hoff
Suggestions for teachers
factor but the degree of dissociation of salt was not
Give practice to students in doing
calculated. The relationship between degree of
numericals. Numerical problems
dissociation () and vant Hoff factor (i) was not clear
based on abnormal molecular
to a few candidates.
weights, calculation of degree of
(ii) Some candidates did not mention the unit i.e. atm
dissociation and association
along with the answer. Several candidates used the
should be given.
incorrect value of R, instead of 0.0821 Lit-atm K-1
Students must be told that while
mole-1 the value used was R=8.314 J K-1mole-1.
solving numerical problems, they
(iii)The molecular weight of organic compound was
must write the formula, substitute
calculated correctly by most of the candidates. In
correctly and write the answer
some cases wrong unit for molecular weight was
with the correct unit.
mentioned.
Order of reaction and
(b)(i)Some candidates just defined the terms. In a number of
molecularity of reaction should be
cases, all the differences were not given. The concept
explained with examples.
of rate law for order of reaction was not clear to many
More practice must be given in
candidates. A few candidates interchanged the
solving problems based on half-
differences.
life period of radioactive
(ii) Time taken for 90% decay was calculated correctly by
substances. The answer should be
many candidates. Some candidates took the value of
given with the same unit as
[A] as 90 instead of [A] = 10, if [Ao] =100 and thus
mentioned in the question paper.
got wrong answer. Some candidates failed to write the
Crystal structure of all types of
correct unit.
crystalline solids must be
(c) Some candidates wrote hexagonal close packing or
explained to students.
body centered cubic instead of face centered cubic or
cubic closed packing'.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) (i) (i) Observed molecular mass
Kf x w x 1000
m = _____________________
Tf x W

= 1.86 x 0.5 x 1000 = 38.75

0.24 x 100

Normal molecular mass of KCl = 74.5

Vant Hoff factor, i = normal molar mass / observed molar mass
= 74.5 / 38.75 = 1.92

43
 KCl dissociates as
KCl K+ + Cl-
Moles after dissociation 1
Total no. of moles after dissociation = 1+

Observed moles of solute

i = _______________________ = 1+
normal moles of solute 1

1+ ___ = 1.92 = 1.92 1 = 0.92

1
Degree of dissociation = 92 %
(ii) = CRT
= n / V RT = w RT / m V
= 1.71 x 0.082 x 300 / 342 x 500/1000
= 0.246 atm

(iii)
m= or

= 1505 g mol-1
(b) (i) Difference between order of reaction and molecularity of a reaction:

S.NO. Order of reaction Molecularity of reaction

1. It is equal to the sum of the It is equal to the total number of molecules
powers of the molar of the reactants which take part in a single
concentrations of the reactants step chemical reaction.
in the rate law.
2. It may be in fractions or may It is always a positive whole number value.
be zero or negative.
3. It is for the overall reaction and It is theoretical concept and depends on the
an experimentally determined rate determining step in the reaction
quantity. mechanism because overall molecularity of
a complex reaction has no significance.

(any two of the above)

(ii) k = 0.6930 / t
k = 0.6930 / 120 = 5.77 x 10-3 min-1
Now for the first order reaction,
t = 2.303 / k log [A]O / [A]
= 2.303 / 5.77 x 10-3log 10 = 399 minutes
(c) Face centered cubic (fcc) or Cubic close packing (ccp)

44
Question 3
(a) (i) Chromium metal crystallises with a body centered cubic lattice. The edge [2]
length of the unit cell is found to be 287 pm. Calculate the atomic radius. What
would be the density of chromium in g / cm3? (atomic mass of Cr = 5299)
(ii) Why does sodium chloride on heating with sodium vapours acquire yellow [1]
colour?
(iii) The equilibrium constant for the reaction: [1]
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) at 715 K, is 60 10-2.
If, in a particular reaction, there are 025 mol L-1 of H2 and 006 mol L-1 of NH3
present, calculate the concentration of N2 at equilibrium.
(iv) Calculate the concentration of OH- ions in solution when [H+] = 6.2 x 10- [1]
2
molL-1.
(v) State the Le-Chateliers principle. [1]
(b) For a crystal of sodium chloride, state: [2]
(i) The type of lattice in which it crystallises.
(ii) The coordination number of each sodium ion and chloride ion in the crystal
lattice.
(iii) The number of sodium ions and chloride ions present in a unit cell of sodium
chloride.
(iv) The structural arrangement of the sodium chloride crystal.
(c) Consider the following reaction: [2]
N2O4(g) + Heat 2NO2(g)
How is the composition of equilibrium mixture affected by:
(i) a change in temperature
(ii) a change in pressure
(iii) a change in concentration of N2O4
(iv) the removal of NO2 from the reaction mixture

45
Comments of Examiners
(a)(i) The value of Z (no. of particles) was not taken
correctly by some candidates. Instead of 2 the
value taken was 4. The edge length a was not
converted to centimetre in some cases. The
density of chromium and atomic radius were not
calculated correctly by a few candidates.
(ii) This part was not answered well by many
candidates.
(iii)The concentration of N2 (g) at equilibrium was
calculated correctly by many candidates but some
did not mentioned the correct unit.
(iv) In this part, some candidates calculated pOH
value instead of OH- ion concentration. The value
of Kw was taken as 1014 instead of 10-14.
(v) In this part, a few candidates failed to write the
term equilibrium.
(b) (i) A few candidates wrote the type of lattice of NaCl
as octahedral or hcp instead of fcc or ccp.
(ii) Most candidates were able to attempt this part
correctly.
(iii)Some candidates reported the wrong value of
number of sodium and chloride ions present in a
unit cell of sodium chloride.
(iv)Most of the candidates could not write the
structural arrangement correctly. Some wrote fcc
instead of octahedral structure.
(c)(i)Many candidates considered the reaction as
exothermic although it was an endothermic
reaction. Increase in temperature favours the
forward reaction. Many candidate wrote - favours
forward reaction with the change in temperature,
without mentioning increase in temperature.
(ii) Increase in pressure favours the backward
reaction. Some candidates wrote - equilibrium
changes with change in pressure.
(iii)Increase in concentration of N2O4 shifts the
equilibrium in forward direction. Some
candidates wrote, with change in concentration
of N2O4 without mentioning increase and
decrease.
(iv)The removal of NO2 favours the forward reaction.
Some candidates wrote that rate of backward
reaction will increase.
46
Suggestions for teachers
The value of Z changes with the
type of unit cell. The density must
be reported in gm/cm3. Students
must be told to calculate the radius
of atoms of different types of unit
cell.
The imperfections in solids must be
clearly explained to students.
Chemical equilibrium and its
characteristics must be explained to
the students. More practice must be
given in equilibrium constant (Kc)
and its calculation.
More practice must be given in
numerical problems based on pH
value and ionic products of water.
Students should be asked to learn
definitions with proper key words.
Explain the crystal lattice of sodium
chloride with the help of proper
diagram.
Coordination number of each ion in
sodium chloride should be clearly
explained.
Calculation of number of atoms
present in a unit cell must be
explained clearly. The corner atom
contributes (1/8), face centered
atom (1/2) body centered (1) and
edge center (1/4) to the unit cell.
While teaching chemical
equilibrium, the Le Chateliers
principle should be explained
clearly. Practice must be given in
shifting of equilibrium under all
conditions of temperature, pressure
and concentration.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a)(i)
For bcc crystal, atomic radius, r =
a= edge length

r = 3 / 4 x 287 = 124.27 pm

density = mass of unit cell / volume of the unit cell

= Z x atomic mass / NA x a3

Here Z = 2 ( for bcc)

Volume of the unit cell = a3 = (287 pm)3 = ( 287 x 10 -10cm3)3

Density = 2 x 52.99 / 6.023 x 1023 x (2.87 x 10 -10 cm3) 3

= 7.44 g cm-3

(ii) On heating sodium chloride with sodium vapours, the chloride ions diffuse to the surface of the
crystals and combine with Na atoms which get ionized to Na+ ions by losing electrons. These
electrons get trapped in anion vacancies and act as F- centres which impart colour to the
crystal.

(iii) For the reaction

N2 (g) + 3 H2(g) === 2 NH3(g)

k = [NH3]2 / [N2] [H2]3 = 6.0 x 10-2

k = (0.06)2 / (0.25)3 [N2] = 6.0 x 10-2

[N2] = ( 0.06)2 / (0.25)3 ( 6.0 x 10-2) = 3.84 (mol L-1)-2

(iv) KW = [H+] [OH-]

[OH-] = KW / [H+] = 10-14 / 6.2 x 10-2 = 1.6 x 10 -11 mol L-1

(v) If an equilibrium is subjected to a stress (change in concentration, pressure or temperature etc.)

equilibrium shifts in such a way so as to undo or decrease the effect of stress imposed.

(b)(i) Face-centered cubic lattice (fcc) (or) cubic close-packing(ccp)

(ii) Coordination number of each Na+ ion as well as Cl- ion is 6.
(iii) The unit cell of sodium chloride possess 4 sodium ions and 4 chloride ions.
(iv) Octahedral.

47
 (c)(i) Increase in temperature favors the forward reaction, concentration of NO 2 increases and vice
versa.
(ii) Increase in pressure favors backward reaction and vice versa.
(iii) Addition of N2O4 favors the forward reaction and vice versa.
(iv) Removal of NO2 increases the rate of forward reaction or equilibrium will shift to the
forward direction.

Question 4
(a) The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of acetic acid at 298 K is [3]
1.65 x 10-4 ohm-1 cm-1.The molar conductance at infinite dilution for H+ ion and
CH3COO ion are 349.1 ohm-1 cm2mol-1 and 40.9 ohm-1 cm2mol-1 respectively.
Calculate:
(i) Molar conductance of the solution.
(ii) Degree of dissociation of CH3COOH.
(iii) Dissociation constant for acetic acid.
(b) (i) Calculate the e.m.f. of the following cell reaction at 298 K: [2]
Mg (s) + Cu2+ (0.0001 M) Mg2+ (0.001M) + Cu (s)
The standard potential (E0) of the cell is 2.71 V.
(ii) The solubility product (Ksp) of BaSO4 is 1.5 x 10-9.Calculate the solubility of [2]
barium sulphate in pure water and in 0.1 M BaCl2.
(c) Explain the following :
(i) When NH4 Cl and NH4OH are added to a solution containing both, Fe3+ and Ca2+ [2]
ions, which ion is precipitated first and why?
(ii) Dissociation of H2S is suppressed in acidic medium. [1]
Comments of Examiners
(a)(i) Some candidates were unable to do this part correctly.
They used wrong formula to calculate the molar Suggestions for teachers
conductance at infinite dilution. A few candidates wrote Calculation of molar conductance,
wrong units or did not write the unit at all. specific conductance, degree of
(ii) The correct value of degree of dissociation was not dissociation and dissociation
calculated by some candidates. constant along with their
(iii)Since parts (i) and (ii) were not answered correctly by relationship must be explained
some candidates, the dissociation constant (k) was also clearly to students.
not calculated correctly. Give more practice in calculation
(b)(i) Most of the candidates answered this part correctly. Some of E0cell and Ecell for
candidates did not give Nernst equation correctly and got electrochemical cell.
wrong e.m.f. value. In some cases the unit was not
mentioned.

48
 (ii)Solubility of BaSO4 in pure water was reported
correctly by most of the candidates, but the solubility Suggestions for teachers
of BaSO4 in 0.1 M BaCl2 solution was not reported Numericals based on solubility
correctly by many candidates. product, solubility and their
(c)(i) A number of candidates were able to give the correct relationship for different kinds of
answer i.e. Fe3+ will be precipitated first. Some wrote sparingly soluble electrolytes
that Ca2+ will be precipitated first. The explanation should be explained clearly.
given by candidates did not match with the correct Explain the concept of solubility
answer. product (Ksp) and ionic
(ii)The answers given by candidates were correct in concentration product (ICP) in the
most of the cases. A few candidates did not mention practical class. Explain that the
that it is due to common ion effect. precipitation occur when ICP > Ksp.
How common ion affects the
dissociation of weak electrolyte
must be explained by giving
examples.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a) (i) Molar conductance = x 1000 = 1.65 x 10-4 x 1000 = 16.5 ohm-1cm2mol-1
(^m) C 0.01

(ii) Degree of dissociation

^c m
= _________

^m

^m = 16.5ohm-1cm2mol-1

^m (CH3COOH) = (H+) + (CH3COO-)

= 349.1 + 40.9 = 390 ohm-1cm2mol-1

= 16.5 / 390 = 0.0423

(iii) Dissociation constant (K)

Acetic acid dissociates as

CH3COOH ===== CH3COO- + H+

Initial concentration c 0 0
Equilibrium conc. c(1-) c c

49
 [CH3COO-] [H+] c x c 0.01 x (0.0423)2
K = ___________________ = ______________ = _________________
[CH3COOH] c(1-) 1 0.0423

= 1.86 x 10 -5

(b) (i) Ecell = EOcell 0.0591 log [Mg2+] [Cu]

2 [Mg] [Cu2+]

= 2.71 - 0.0591 log 0.001

2 0.0001
= 2.71 - 0.0295

= 2.6805 V
(ii) Solubility of Ba SO4 in water

BaSO4 Ba2+ + SO42-

s mol s mol s mol

Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42- ]

Ksp = s . s = s2

s = 1.5 x 10-9 = 3.87 x 10 -5 mol L-1

solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 M BaCl2

[Ba2+] = 0.1 + s , [SO42-] = s

Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42-]

= [0.1 + s] [s] = 0.1 s

0.1 s = 1.5 x 10-9

s = 1.5 x 10 -8 mol L-1

(c) (i) Fe3+ ion will precipitate out first.

NH4OH NH4+ + OH-
NH4Cl NH4+ Cl- (eq. or common ion effect)
Due to common ion effect less OH- ions are produced, which are large enough to cause
the precipitation of Fe3+ ions. As its solubility product is less (Ksp is less for Fe(OH)3 and
Ksp is more for Ca(OH)2).
(ii) This is due to common ion effect. The suppression of degree of dissociation of a weak
electrolyte by (H2S) the addition of a strong electrolyte (HCl) having a common ion with
the weak electrolyte (H2S).

50
 SECTION B
Answer any two questions
Question 5
(a) Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds: [1]
(i) [Cr(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl3
(ii) [PtCl2(NH3)4] [PtCl4]
(b) State the hybridization and magnetic property of [Fe(CN)6]3- ion according to the [1]
valence bond theory.
(c) (i) What type of isomers are [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br.? Give a [2]
chemical test to distinguish between them.
(ii) Write the structures of optical isomers of the complex ion [Co(en)2Cl2]+ [1]

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Many candidates wrote amine instead of
ammine for NH3. Oxidation state was reported Suggestions for teachers
wrongly in some cases while some others did not More practice should be given in
give the order of ligands alphabetically. naming coordination compounds.
(ii) Many candidates wrote wrong oxidation states Calculation of oxidation state of the
of central metal atom. central metal atom/ ion should be
(b) Many candidates reported sp3d2 and diamagnetic explained clearly. While writing
whereas the correct answer was d2sp3 hybridization names of the ligands, alphabetical
and paramagnetic. order must be followed.
(c) (i) The type of isomerism was reported correctly by Explain the valence bond theory in
most of the candidates. The chemical test to detail and give enough practice
distinguish between the isomers was not given using different examples.
correctly in a few cases. Explain all the types of isomerism
(ii) The structure of optical isomers of complex ion shown by coordination compounds.
[Co(en)2Cl2]+ was not given correctly. More practice should be given in
the structure of optical isomers by
using mirror image.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) (i) tetraamminediaquachromium(III)chloride
(ii) tetraamminedichloroplatinum(IV)tetrachloroplatinate(II)
(b) d2sp3hybridisation and paramagnetic
(c) (i) Ionisation isomers
One of these is red-violet and forms a precipitate with BaCl2indicating that sulphate ion is
outside the coordination sphere. The second one is red and does not form ppt. with BaCl2
but forms a ppt. of AgBr with AgNO3 indicating that bromide ion is outside the
coordination sphere. (or any other correct chemical test)

51
 (ii) en
+ en +

Cl------------------------------ .-------------------- ------------Cl

Co Co

Cl--------------------------- ------------------------------- Cl

en en

d- form (cis) mirror l-form ( cis)

Question 6
(a) Give balanced chemical equations for the following reactions: [3]
(i) Fluorine is passed through cold, dilute NaOH solution.
(ii) Hydrogen peroxide is treated with acidified KMnO4 solution.
(iii) Sulphuric acid is treated with hydrogen sulphide.
(b) Draw the structure of xenon tetrafluoride molecule and state the hybridization of the [2]
central atom and the geometry of the molecule.

Comments of Examiners
Suggestions for teachers
(a) A number of candidates gave unbalanced equations. Teach the chemical reactions of
In some cases, all the products were not mentioned. inorganic chemistry in detail and
Some candidates wrote wrong products. give practice in balancing
(b) The structure of XeF4 was drawn correctly but some equations.
candidates failed to show the lone pairs of electrons. Explain the shape, hybridization
The hybridization and geometry was given correctly and the structure of compounds of
by most of the candidates. A few candidates gave inert gases diagrammatically.
wrong hybridization. Instead of sp3d2 they
wrote d2sp3.

52
MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) (i) 2 F2 + 2 NaOH 2NaF + H2O + OF2
(cold & dilute) (oxygen difluoride)

(ii) 2KMnO4 + 3 H2SO4 + 5 H2O2 K2SO4 + 2 MnSO4+ 8 H2O + 5O2

(iii) H2SO4 + H2S S + SO2 + 2H2O
(b) XeF4 molecules a square planar geometry and is formed by the sp3d2 hybridisation.

. . lone pair of electrons

F --------------------------F

Xe

..
F-------------------------- F

Question 7
(a) Name the important ore of silver. Write all the steps and reactions involved in the [3]
Cyanide process for the extraction of silver from its ore.
(b) Explain the following: [2]
(i) Why do transition metal ions possess a great tendency to form complexes?
(ii) The paramagnetic character in 3d-transition series elements increases up to Mn and
then decreases.

Comments of Examiners
(a) The formula of ore of silver was given instead of
Suggestions for teachers
name of the ore by many candidates. Proper reactions
The extraction of metals must be
and steps of metallurgy were not given in many cases.
taught in detail. All the steps must
Electrolytic refining of silver was not shown by some
be shown in proper order with
candidates.
balanced chemical equations.
(b) (i) Most of the candidates did not write presence of
Explain the role of vacant
vacant d orbital, instead they mentioned
d orbital in the formation of
(n-1) d orbital, partially filled d orbital, etc.
complexes. Important properties of
Candidates seemed to be unaware of the
d block elements must be told to
significance of vacant d orbital in the formation
students.
of complexes.
Reason for paramagnetism,
(ii) Relationship between unpaired/paired electrons
electronic configuration of elements
and magnetic behaviour was not understood by
should be explained in detail.
many candidates.

53
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) Argentite ( silver glance), Ag2S or Horn silver
Concentration The sulphide ore is crushed, powdered and then concentrated by the
Froth flotation process.
Treatment with sodium cyanide
The concentrated ore is agitated with dilute solution of NaCN in the presence of air
When soluble sodium argentocyanide is obtained.

Ag2S + 4 NaCN 2 Na[Ag(CN)2] + Na2S

Na2S + 2O2 Na2SO4
________________________________________________
Ag2S + 4 NaCN + 2O2 2 Na[Ag(CN)2] + Na2SO4

Precipitation of silver
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2 Ag

Silver thus obtained is in the form of dark amorphous mass.

Fusion
The precipitated silver is filtered, pressed, dried and fused with borax when a bright
Compact mass is obtained.

Electrolytic refining process

Silver thus obtained usually contain impurities of Zn, Cu and gold.
Thin sheet of pure silver cathode
A block of impure silver anode
K[Ag(CN)2] or a solution of silver nitrate containing 1% HNO3is used as a electrolyte.
On passing electricity pure silver gets deposited on the cathode.

(b) (i) Due to small size, high nuclear charge, availability of vacant d- orbitals of suitable
energy to accommodate lone pairs of electrons donated by the ligands.

(ii) On moving from Sc to Mn, the number of unpaired electrons increases and hence
Paramagnetic character increases. But after Mn, the pairing of electrons in the
d-subshell starts and the number of unpaired electrons and hence paramagnetic
character decreases.

54
 SECTION C
Answer any two questions.
Question 8
(a) How can the following conversions be brought about:
(i) Glycerol to formic acid [1]
(ii) Chlorobenzene to phenol [1]
(iii) Diethyl ether to ethanol [1]
(iv) Phenol to aniline. [2]
(b) (i) How is iodoform prepared from ethanol? Give balanced equation. [1]
(ii) What will be the product formed when chlorobenzene is heated with sodium metal [1]
in the presence of dry ether?
(c) Identify the compounds A, B, C , D, E and F: [3]

Conc.HNO3 SOCl2 NH3 LiAlH4

CH3COCH3 A B C D
(O)
HNO2 CH3COCl
E F

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) In the conversion of glycerol to formic acid by Suggestions for teachers
using oxalic acid, the temperature was not Stress should be laid upon giving
mentioned by many candidates. the correct conditions and catalysts.
(ii) The conditions required for the conversion of Insist that candidates learn all
chlorobenzene to phenol were not given by many important name reactions. Stress
candidates. upon writing complete balanced
(iii) The condition that HI used for the conversion of equations. Explain iodoform
diethyl ether to ethanol should be cold or hot was reaction in one step with I2 and
not mentioned by many candidates. Acid catalysis NaOH.
was not mentioned by many candidates. Explain Wurtz- Fittig reaction in
(iv) The steps shown by candidates for the conversion detail with proper conditions.
of phenol to aniline were mostly correct but in a
few cases, the conditions were missing.
(b)(i) The conversion of ethanol to iodoform was done correctly by many candidates but in some
cases, instead of iodoform reaction, candidates first converted C2H5OH to CH3CHO then
formed iodoform.
(ii)Chlorobenzene when heated with sodium metal in presence of dry ether gives diphenyl but
some candidates gave incorrect answers.
(c) Most of the candidates identified the compounds A, B, C, D and E correctly. Some were not able
to identify compound F. Instead of CH3COOC2H5 they identified compound F as C2H5-
COOCH3.

55
MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
(a) (i) Glycerol to formic acid
CH2OH HOOC CH2OOCH
383K +H2O
CHOH + HOOC CHOH
-CO2
CH2OH CH2OH

CH2OH

CHOH + HCOOH

CH2OH
(ii) Chlorobenzene to phenol
573 623 K + HCl
C6H5Cl + NaOH C6H5ONa C6H5OH
200 atm. - NaCl

(iii) Diethyl ether to ethanol

cold
C2H5 O C2H5 + HI C2H5I + C2H5OH
(or)
heat NaOH
C2H5 O C2H5 + HI C2H5I C2H5OH
-NaI

(or any other correct method)

(iv) Phenol to aniline

Zn dust, conc.HNO3 & conc. H2SO4

C6H5OH C6H6 C6H5NO2
Benzene 60OC Nitrobenzene

Sn/ HCl 6 [H]

C6H5NH2
Aniline
(any other correct method)

56
(b) (i)
(b) (i) CH3CH2OH + 4I2 + 6 NaOH CHI3 + HCOONa + 5NaI + 5 H2O

(OR)

CH3CH2OH + 4I2 + 3 Na2CO3 CHI3 + HCOONa + 5 NaI + 3 CO2 + 2 H2O

(ii) dry ether

(ii) C6H5Cl + 2 Na + C6H5Cl C6H5-C6H5 + 2 NaCl
heat (diphenyl)

(c) A CH3COOH (Acetic acid)

B CH3COCl (Acetyl chloride)

C - CH3CONH2 (Acetamide)

D CH3CH2NH2 (Ethylamine)

E CH3CH2OH ( Ethyl alcohol)

F CH3COOC2H5( Ethyl acetate)

Question 9
(a) Give balanced equations for the following name reactions: [3]
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
(ii) Rosenmund reaction
(iii) Hoffmanns degradation reaction
(b) Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds: [3]
(i) Ethylamine and diethylamine.
(ii) Acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde
(c) (i) Arrange the following compounds in the ascending order of their basic strength and [2]
give reasons for your answer:
Methylamine, Aniline, Ethylamine, Diethyl ether
(ii) Name the monomers and the type of polymerization in each of the following [2]
polymers:
(a) Polyester
(b) Bakelite

57
Comments of Examiners
(a)(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction: the reactants and the
Suggestions for teachers
products given in the chemical equation were
The named organic reactions must be
correct in most cases but equation was not balanced
taught in detail. The following points
in many cases.
must be stressed upon:
(ii) Rosenmund reaction: correct equations were given
by most candidates. Some candidates failed to Reactants and conditions of
mention the catalyst i.e. Pd and BaSO4 while a few named reactions;
used 2[H] for reduction instead of H2. Balancing of equations.
(iii) Hoffmanns degradation reaction: some candidates Students must be told to give the
were not able to write this equation correctly. On reagent used, observations made and
the product side, only methyl amine was written in one positive test for each compound.
several cases; all the products formed were not Reaction mechanism must be taught
mentioned by candidates. properly with suitable examples.
(b)(i)To distinguish between ethyl amine and diethyl Polymerisation should be taught in
amine, some candidates only mentioned the name detail and the monomers for different
of the test but the observations were not given. polymers explained to students.
(ii) To distinguish between acetaldehyde and Teach monomers, polymers, type of
benzaldehyde, candidates used Tollens reagent polymerisation and uses in a tabular
which is given by both the compounds. form.
(c)(i)The order was given incorrectly in most cases.
Aniline was shown as the most basic compound. Many candidates were unable to explain the
correct reasons for basicity, i.e. +I effect, steric effect.
(ii)(a) The monomers given were wrong in several cases. The type of polymerization given by some
candidates was addition polymerization instead of condensation polymerization.
(b) Most candidates wrote cross linked polymerization instead of condensation polymerization.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
(a) (i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

C6H5OH + CHCl3 + 3KOH C6H4(OH)CHO + 3KCl + 2H2O

salicylaldehyde
(ohydroxyl benzaldehyde)
(ii) Rosenmund reaction
O Pd / BaSO4 O
+ H2
+ HCl
R C Cl R C H
Boiling xylene

(iii) Hoffmanns degradation reaction

heat
CH3CONH2 + Br2 + 4KOH CH3NH2 + K2CO3 + 2KBr + 2H2O
Acetamide methylamine

58
(b) Chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs:

(i) Ethyl amine and diethylamine

Hinsbergs test

Ethylamine when shaken with benzene sulphonyl chloride and aqueous KOH solution,
ethyl amine gives a clear solution.
- HCl KOH
C6H5SO2Cl + CH3CH2NH2 C6H5SO2NHCH2CH3
-H2O
- +
[C6H5SO2-N -CH2CH3]K + H2O
Potassium salt
(soluble in KOH)
Clear solution
Diethylamine on similar treatment forms an insoluble substance.
KOH
C6H5SO2Cl + C2H5NHC2H5 C6H5 SO2N(C2H5)2 + HCl
( N,N- diethylbenzenesulphonamide)
Insoluble in KOH
(or any other correct test)
(ii) Acetaldehyde to Benzaldehyde

Acetaldehyde gives iodoform test with Iodine and alkali, benzaldehyde does not give
iodoform test. (or any other correct test)
(c) Increasing order of basic strength
(i) Diethyl ether < Aniline < methylamine < ethylamine
Reason- + I effect of the alkyl groups
Steric effects of alkyl groups
Aromatic amines are weaker bases than aliphatic amines.
(ii)(a) Polyester
Monomer ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid (or formulae of monomers)
Condensation polymer/ polymerisation
(b) Bakelite
Monomer Phenol + Formaldehyde
Condensation polymer / polymerisation

59
Question 10
(a) An organic compound A with molecular formula C2H7N on reaction with nitrous acid [3]
gives a compound B. B on controlled oxidation gives compound C. C reduces Tollens
reagent to give silver mirror and D. B reacts with D in the presence of concentrated
sulphuric acid to give sweet smelling compound E. Identify A, B, C, D and E. Give the
reaction of C with ammonia.
(b) Give balanced equations for the following reactions: [4]
(i) How will you convert ethyl amine to methyl amine?
(ii) What is the effect of denaturation on the structure of proteins?
(iii) Name the nitrogen base residues present in DNA.
(c) Give balanced equations for the following reactions: [3]
(i) Aniline is treated with nitrous acid and HCl at low temperature.
(ii) Acetyl chloride is treated with ethyl alcohol.
(iii) Formaldehyde is treated with ammonia
Comments of Examiners
(a) The identification of compounds A, B, C, D and E Suggestions for teachers
was done correctly by most of the candidates. Many Give practice to students in solving
candidates were not able to write the reaction such type of problems in which the
between compound C and ammonia. In some cases, identification of compounds is
D was identified as HCOOH instead of CH3COOH. based on different chemical
(b) (i) Conversion of ethylamine to methylamine was reactions.
done correctly by a number of candidates. In Explain denaturation of proteins by
some cases, correct conditions were not shown. explaining the changes in structure
(ii) During denaturation of protein, secondary and of proteins.
tertiary structures are destroyed but primary Structure of DNA and RNA must
structures remains unchanged. Some candidates be explained with the help of
diagrams.
wrote primary structure changes. The point that
Give sufficient practice in writing
globular proteins are converted into fibrous
organic reactions with correct
protein was not reported by many candidates.
names.
(iii) The nitrogenous base residues adenine, guanine, Formula and structure of urotropine
cytosine and thymine present in DNA were should be explained.
named correctly by many candidates. Some
candidates reported uracil which was not correct.
(c) (i) In a number of cases, the equation was not balanced and by product i.e. H2O was not given.
(ii) This part was answered correctly by most of the candidates. Some candidates forgot to write
HCl.
(iii) Many candidates were not able to write this reaction correctly. The main product given by
some of the candidates was wrong. The equation given was unbalanced in some cases.

60
MARKING SCHEME
Question 10
(a) Identify A, B, C, D and E
A = C2H5NH2
B = C2H5OH
C = CH3CHO
D = CH3COOH
E = CH3COOC2H5 H
H

CH3CHO + NH3 CH3C NH2 or CH3 C = NH + H2O

OH
(b) (i) Ethylamine to methylamine

HONO K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 (O)

C2H5NH2 C2H5OH CH3CHO CH3COOH
(O)

NH3 heat Br2 / KOH

CH3COONH4 CH3CONH2 CH3NH2
(ii) During denaturation, secondary and tertiary structures of proteins are destroyed but
primary structures remain as such. Again, the globular proteins are converted into fibrous
proteins and their biological activity is lost.
(iii) Adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine
(c) Balanced equations for the following:
0 5oC
(i) C6H5NH2 + HNO2 + HCl C6H5N2+Cl- + 2H2O
Aniline Benzene diazonium chloride

(ii) CH3COCl + C2H5OH CH3COOC2H5 + HCl

Acetyl chloride Ethyl acetate
(iii) 6 HCHO + 4 NH3 (CH2)6N4 + 6H2O
Formaldehyde Urotropine

61
GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question paper:
Relative molecular mass and mole (numerical problems), abnormal molecular weights.
Solid state, voids and defects in solid state.
Ionic equilibria (numerical problems) concept of solubility product, ionic product and common
ion effect.
Electrolytic conductance, electrode potential and Nernst equation.
Nomenclature, isomerism, hybridization and geometry of coordination compounds.
Balancing of equations for inorganic compounds.
Organic conversions, named reactions and balancing of equations.
Bio molecules.
Polymers.
(b) Concepts between which candidates got confused:
Vant Hoff factor, calculation of degree of dissociation.
Azeotropic mixtures, ideal and non-ideal solutions.
Order and molecularity of reaction, calculation of time period for the decomposition of
radioactive elements by 1st order kinetics.
Le Chateliers principle, change in equilibrium with change in pressure and temperature.
Electrolytic conductance, numerical problems, calculation of Eocell and Ecell by using Nernst
equation.
Calculation of solubility from solubility product, common ion effect and buffer solution.
Nomenclature, isomerism, hybridization and geometry of coordination compounds.
Conversion of organic compounds, conditions and catalyst, named organic reactions.
Polymerisation, biomolecules.
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
Avoid selective study, give equal importance to all the topics.
Practice writing the IUPAC names for coordination compounds as well as organic compounds.
Practice more numerical problems. Solve the problems step-wise with correct formula and
units.
Learn both positive and negative chemical tests in organic reactions as it will help in
distinguishing between organic compounds.
Learn the reactions both organic and inorganic with proper conditions. Always write the correct
balanced equations.
Learn the shapes and hybridization of molecules with diagram.
Read questions carefully and understand what is required before attempting the question.
While solving numerical problems, proper steps should be followed, i.e. formula, substitution
and correct answer with units.
Do not give dual statements for any answer.
Learn to write the key words in the answer.

62
 CHEMISTRY PAPER 2 (PRACTICAL)
Attempt all questions.

Question 1 [8]
You are provided with two solutions as follows:
C-10 is a solution prepared by dissolving 35 gms of impure sample of potassium
manganate(VII), KMnO4 per litre.
C-11 is a solution prepared by dissolving 65 gms of oxalic acid, H2C2O4.2H2O per
litre.
[

PROCEDURE:
Rinse and fill the burette with potassium manganate(VII) solution C-10 (KMnO4).
Pipette out 20 ml or 25 ml of the oxalic acid solution C-11 (H2C2O4.2H2O) in a clean
conical flask. To this, add 20 ml of dilute H2SO4, C-12, specially provided for this
purpose. Warm the contents of the flask to 60oC 70oC. The heating should be
continued till the first bubble appears at the bottom of the flask.
Remove the conical flask from fire and titrate this solution by running solution C-10
from the burette. Shake the solution constantly till a permanent pale pink colour is
obtained. Ensure that the pink colour obtained does not disappear on shaking the
contents of the conical flask.
Repeat the above procedure to get at least two concordant readings.
Tabulate your readings.
State:
(a) The capacity of the pipette used.
(b) The titre value you intend to use in your calculations.
Show the titre value to the Visiting Examiner.
The equations for the above reactions are as follows:
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 + 5H2C2O4 K2SO4 + 2MnSO4+ 8H2O + 10CO2
2MnO + 5C2O + 16H+ 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O
Relative atomic masses:
K = 39 Mn = 55 C = 12 O = 16 H=1
Calculate the following:
(i) The molarity of oxalic acid solution C-11.
(ii) The molarity of potassium manganate (VII) solution C-10.
(iii) The strength of potassium manganate(VII) solution in gms per litre.
(iv) The percentage purity of the sample of potassium manganate (VII) solution.
Note: Molarity must be calculated upto at least 4 decimal places.

63
Comments of Examiners
A number of candidates did not seem to be aware of
the significance of tabulating the readings and
giving the size of the pipette.
Some candidates did not write the initial and final
readings.
Many candidates just gave one titre value - they had
no concept of concordant values.
Some candidates used average value with a
difference between two readings of more than 0.2.
They also calculated the average up to two decimal
places.
A few candidates did not read the question paper
carefully and used wrong solutions in the burette
and pipette.
Overwriting in the titre value was observed in a
number of cases. In some cases, the readings were
recorded in pencil instead of ink.
Many candidates used wrong formula to calculate
molarity of potassium permanganate i.e.
M1V1/M2V2 = n1/n2 instead of gms per litre /
molecular weight.
Some candidates rounded off the value of molarity
in questions (i) and (ii) and used only two places
after the decimal instead of four, although the
question paper required molarity to be calculated
upto at least four decimal places.
In some cases, molecular weight of oxalic acid was
calculated without water of crystallization.
64
Suggestions for teachers
All students at a centre must be
given pipettes of the same size.
Insist that students tabulate the titre
value correctly. Teach them the
tabular form and explain the
significance of each column. Insist
on one trial run and two concordant
readings. Tell them that the average
should not be taken and overwriting
in the readings should be strictly
avoided. Instruct students to
complete all work in ink.
Give sufficient practice in
calculating molarity, percentage
purity, water of crystallization for
all oxidation/ reduction titrations in
the syllabus.
Tell students it is absolutely
imperative to write up to at least
four decimal places in the
calculation of molarities, and at
least two decimal places for
molecular weight and percentage
purity.
Students should be told that water
of crystallization must be a whole
number.
Instruct students to read the
question paper carefully, refer to
the formula of the substances,
chemical equation and atomic
weights, as given in the question
paper.
Explain that for only pure
compounds with complete
molecular formula given, students
can use molarity = weight dissolved
per liter/ molecular weight.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
Let the titre value be 245 ml
(i) Molarity of the solution C 11(Oxalic Acid H2C2O4.2H2O)

.
Molarity = .
= = 00515 M
(ii) Molarity of the solution , C-10 (KMnO4)


= M1 Molarity of C-10

V1 Volume of C-10
n1 Number of moles of C-10
M2 Molarity of C-11
V2 Volume of C-11
n2 Number of moles of C-11


=

Let the titre value be 245ml

=
M1 = 00210M
(iii) Strength in grams per litre of KMnO4
= molarity mol. Wt.

= 00210 158 = 331 gms / lit.

(iv)
% purity of KMnO4= 100 = 100

=9457%

Question 2 [5]
(a) Substance C13 is an organic compound. Perform the experiments given below.
Record the changes taking place at each step of the experiment.
Note the smell of the substance formed, the colour of the substance obtained, the
colour of the precipitate produced, changes on heating and cooling and any other
observations you may have. State the identity of the compound on the basis of
the experiments and observational changes.

65
 Substance C13
PROCEDURE:
(i) Take 2 ml of C-13 in a test tube. To this, add 1 ml of Tollens reagent.
Warm the contents in a water bath.
(ii) Take 2 ml of C-13 in a test tube and add 1 ml of freshly prepared pyrogallol
solution. Shake the contents. Add 2 ml of concentrated hydrochloric acid
and warm the contents in a water bath.
(iii) Take 2 ml of C-13 in a test tube and add a few crystals of resorcinol, shake
the contents. Slowly add 1 ml of concentrated sulphuric acid along the sides
of the test tube.
(b) Substance C-14 is an unknown sample of either carbohydrate or protein. Carry
out the following experiments and record all your observations. State the identity
of the compound as carbohydrate or protein on the basis of the experiments and
observational changes.
Substance C-14
PROCEDURE:
Take the sample C-14 in a test tube. Dissolve it in 10 ml of distilled water in
order to obtain saturated solution. Divide the solution into three parts.
(i) To the first part of C-14, add 2 drops of alcoholic -naphthol solution
followed by 1 ml of concentrated H2SO4 carefully by the side of the test
tube.
(ii) To the second part of C-14, add 1 ml of lead acetate solution, heat to boil.
Now, add 5 ml of ammonium hydroxide solution and heat to boil again.
(iii) To the third part of C-14, add 1 ml of copper sulphate solution, followed by
3 ml of sodium hydroxide solution.
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates made mistakes in the
observation of ring/mirror. Sequential Suggestions for teachers
observations were not listed in many cases. The chemistry of the organic tests,
Though the question clearly stated write down along with the physical properties
all changes, taking place at each step of the of the organic substances should be
experiment, some candidates tended to give a taught to students. This is to ensure
summary. Common errors made by the that they do not work mechanically.
candidates were as follows: Emphasize upon the use of correct
(i) Instead of silver mirror, candidates reported quantity of reagent and explain
black mass, precipitate and solution. what can occur with use of excess.
(ii) Incomplete observation was given i.e. Also tell students why adding drop
changes to pink or red instead of white wise is very important, so that
precipitate changes to pink and finally red. changes can be seen at every step.

66
 (iii) Red ring was reported as colour/precipitate
and the second part i.e. white precipitate is
formed in the aqueous layer was left out by
many candidates.
(b) Candidates did not seem to have adequate
practice in performing food tests and recording
the observations. They did not understand or read
the question paper carefully and gave extra
observations for glucose. Some reported
glucose instead of carbohydrate when the
question paper clearly stated carbohydrate or
protein. Some common errors made by
candidates were as follows:
(i) Instead of violet ring precipitate/colour was
mentioned.
(ii) White solution was reported instead of white
precipitate changes to salmon pink.
(iii) Instead of no change or blue colouration,
several candidates heated without being
asked and gave incorrect observations.
Advise students to write the
experiment, observations and
inferences in a tabular form, so that
they may answer sequentially,
instead of just reporting the final
observation.
Teach students to write complete
observations with correct changes
instead of incomplete and incorrect
observations. They also need to
know difference between precipitate
/colouration or solid/liquid state.
Emphasize the importance of
indentifying correct colours and
giving correct inferences.
Practice the tests with proper
instructions. Do not do things
which are not asked for in the
question paper.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
Identification of organic compounds
(a) Substance C-13
(i) Silver mirror/deposit/ coating is formed
(ii) White precipitate/ residue/ solid which changes to pink or deep red
(iii) A red ring/layer at the junction of the two liquids
and a white precipitate is formed in the aqueous layer
Deduction: Substance C-13 is formaldehyde
(Should be based on any two correct tests)
(b) Substance C-14:
A purple/ violet ring/layer/ band is formed at the junction of two liquids
A white ppt is formed on boiling, which turns to salmon pink on boiling with ammonium
hydroxide
No change / blue colouration or precipitate
Deduction - Substance C-14 is a sample of carbohydrate (Glucose)
(Should be based on any two correct tests)

67
Question 3 [7]
Analyse qualitatively the substance C-15 which contains two anions and two cations. Identify
these ions.

(a) While testing for anions you must mention:

(i) How the solution/soda extract was prepared.

(ii) How the gases were identified.

(iii) The confirmatory test for each anion.

Show the results as required to the Visiting Examiner.
(b) While testing for cations you must mention:

(i) How the original solution for group analysis was prepared.
(ii) The formal group analysis with pertinent group reagents.
(iii) The confirmatory test for each cation.
Show the results as required to the Visiting Examiner.

Note: Use of qualitative analysis booklet/table is not allowed.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Wet tests for anions were performed by many Suggestions for teachers
candidates using either the aqueous solution or soda Teach students the steps for
extract, instead of neutralized soda extract. preparing the original solution.
Common errors made by candidates were as Insist that the wet tests for the anion
follows: should be performed with
For the acetate ion test, ferric chloride was used neutralized sodium carbonate
which is incorrect (neutral ferric chloride should extract, even if the salt mixture is
have been used). more or less soluble in water.
Concepts of formal group analysis
Alternate test for acetate ion using salt mixture,
like common ion, buffer and
ethanol, concentrated sulphuric acid and heat solubility product must be taught
was incorrectly done with salt solution dilute thoroughly before doing salt
sulphuric acid and without heat. \ analysis. The concept of group
The sulphate ion test was performed with separation and group analysis must
aqueous solution instead of neutralised sodium be clearly explained.
carbonate extract. Practice mixture analysis and guide
The white precipitate obtained in the barium student on how to record formal
chloride test, which should be insoluble in group analysis correctly and
mineral acid to confirm the presence of sulphate meaningfully with pertinent group
ion was omitted by many candidates. reagents.

68
(b) Preparation of original solution for cation
Ask students to use reagents and
detection was not done correctly by many
tests that are acceptable.
candidates. Solubility of mixture was reported
Explain to students the importance
in dilute HCl instead of distilled water.
of adding concentrated nitric acid
Common errors made by candidates were as
and boiling to convert ferrous to
follows:
ferric.
Formal group reagents for zero group like,
Removal of H2S before group III
salt, NaOH and heat were not used. Instead,
and V must be taught clearly.
test for zero group was performed with
Students do the test for the
original solution and without heat.
respective groups but forget to
Nesslers reagent was added to ammonia gas
mention whether the group is
instead of passing ammonia gas through
present or absent. They must be
Nesslers reagent.
cautioned against this.
Absence of group I & II was not reported.
Formal group separation must be
Most of the candidates did not add
adhered to even though Group I to
concentrated nitric acid in group III and did
V are absent.
not boil off H2S gas.
The order of preparing the buffer medium in
group III was incorrect.
Absence of group IV & V was not reported.
H2S was not boiled off before group V reagents were added.
For separation of group VI, original solution was used instead of filtrate after group V.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3.
Substance C-15
Mixture C-15 contains ammonium acetate and magnesium sulphate in the ratio (1:1) by
mass.
Preparation of original solution
Acetate ion
Sulphate ion
Identification of Group Zero
Confirmation of ammonium ion
Presence of group VI
Confirmation of magnesium ion.
Details of tests:
Original solution is made in distilled water
Test for sulphate:
To the neutral Na2CO3 extract acidified with (dil HCl / acetic acid / HNO3)
BaCl2 solution is added a white precipitate insoluble in all mineral
acids SO42- ion confirmed

69
Acetate:
To the neutral Na2CO3 extract acidified with (dil. HCl / H2SO4 / HNO3,) neutral FeCl3 is added
a wine red colour is obtained. On heating it changes to reddish brown ppt. Confirms acetate ion.
OR
Salt mixture is heated with ethyl alcohol and concentrated H2SO4 A fruity odour/ sweet smell of
ethyl acetate is obtained. Confirms acetate ion.
Group Zero:
Salt Mixture + NaOH and heat a pungent smelling gas evolved which turns red litmus blue /
gives dense white fumes with a rod dipped in conc. HCl Group 0 present.
Confirmatory test for NH4+ :
The gas is passed through Nesslers reagent/ paper dipped in Nesslers reagent it turns brown
NH4+ confirmed.
Group VI:
Formal group separation must be carried out from Group I to Group V with pertinent reagents and
written as being absent. Proceed with the solution of group V and show the presence of group VI.

OS + dilute HCl no ppt Group I absent

Solution after group I/filtrate

Pass H2S gas no ppt Group II absent

Solution after group II/ filtrate

boil off H2S gas (add conc. HNO3 no ppt Group III absent
and boil). Cool add
NH4Cl solid NH4OH
solution

Pass H2S gas through the no ppt Group IV absent

above solution/filtrate

Boil off H2S gas add no ppt Group V absent

NH4Cl solid NH4OH solution and
(NH4)2CO3 solution to the above solution/ filtrate

Solution after group V white ppt Group VI

present add NH4Cl solid NH4OH
solution and NaH2PO4 *
solution

Confirmatory:
To the Group V solution, add a pinch of solid NH4Cl, NH4OH solution and excess of disodium
hydrogen phosphate / *ammonium phosphate / sodium dihydrogen phosphate solution. Shake
well and scratch the inner walls of the test tube with a glass rod A white crystalline precipitate
on standing Confirms Mg2+

70
GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question paper:
Concepts of molarity based on (grams/liter)/ molecular weight for pure substances and molarity
based on titer value.
Principles of formal group analysis.
(b) Concepts between which candidates got confused:
Confusion between precipitate/coloration/solution/ring/mirror while reporting organic
compounds.
Solubility of mixture/neutralized sodium carbonate extract.
Distinguishing between carbohydrate and protein.
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
Listen to the teachers instructions carefully, read the experiment thoroughly and then perform
them.
Develop a habit of observation and note them down correctly and to the point.
Practice makes perfect, hence practice as many salt mixtures as possible.
Learn all the tests and the observations for organic detection. Make sure that the correct amount
of reagent is added and wait for the changes to take place.
Plan before writing formal group analysis.
Do not perform any additional test outside the question paper.
Remember to tabulate your readings neatly, keeping in mind concordant readings and avoid
overwriting in the tabular column and do not leave your tabulation in pencil.
Do not round off molarity values, report to minimum four decimal places (check scope of
syllabus).
Follow the molecular formula given in the question paper, whether it is hydrated or anhydrous.
Do not forget the use of concentrated nitric acid in group III. Also understand why it is being
used.
Group VI must be reported with the filtrate after group V is reported absent and not with the
original solution.

71
 BIOLOGY
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 13,570
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 10
Mean Marks Obtained 70.74

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 43 249 3814 5476 3988
Percentage of Candidates 0.32 1.83 28.11 40.35 29.39
Cumulative Number 43 292 4106 9582 13570
Cumulative Percentage 0.32 2.15 30.26 70.61 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

45.00 40.35
Percentage of Candidates

40.00

35.00
29.39
28.11
30.00

25.00

20.00

15.00

10.00
1.83
5.00 0.32

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

72
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE
PART I (20 Marks)
Answer all questions.
Question 1

(a) Give a brief answer for each of the following: [4]

(i) What is heterosis?
(ii) Why is non-cyclic photo phosphorylation considered as a non-cyclic pathway?
(iii) Define test cross.
(iv) What are introns?
(b) Each of the following question(s)/statement(s) has four suggested answers. Choose [4]
the correct option in each case.
1. Triple Fusion involves:
(i) Fusion of one male gamete with female gamete
(ii) Fusion of tube nucleus with generative nucleus
(iii) Fusion of two polar nuclei
(iv) Fusion of second male gamete with two polar nuclei
2. An EEG represents spontaneous electrical activity of the:
(i) Kidney
(ii) Spinal cord
(iii) Heart
(iv) Brain
3. The genotype of a person with Turners syndrome will be:
(i) 44+XXY
(ii) 44+XYY
(iii) 44+XO
(iv) 44+XXYY
4. Transcription is the transfer of genetic code from a DNA molecule to:
(i) RNA molecule
(ii) Second DNA molecule
(iii) Ribosomal sub unit
(iv) Sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule
(c) Give a scientific term for each of the following: [4]
(i) The first formed category of photosynthetic organisms.

73
 (ii) The surgical removal of a section of fallopian tube.
(iii) An animal behaviour which benefits others but is of no advantage to itself.
(iv) The hydrostatic pressure developed inside the cell on the cell wall due to
endosmosis.
(d) Expand the following abbreviations: [4]
(i) STD
(ii) NADP
(iii) MRI
(iv) DDT
(e) Name the scientists who are associated with the following: [4]
(i) Discovered the fossil of Australopithecus
(ii) Microspheres
(iii) Coined the term Diffusion Pressure Deficit
(iv) Invented the CT scan

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) This part was attempted correctly by most of the
candidates. Some candidates wrote only hybrid
vigour without any explanation.
(ii) A number of candidates answered this part
incorrectly. They did not mention that the
electrons do not return back.
(iii) Several candidates seemed to be confused
between test cross and back cross. Some
mentioned only offspring and parent but did not
write cross of F1 hybrid with recessive parent.
(iv) A number of candidates did not attempt this part
correctly. Some wrote opposite answers. A few
candidates got confused between introns and
interferons.
(b) (i) Most candidates answered this part correctly.
Some candidates got confused with fertilisation.
(ii) A few candidates confused with EEG with ECG.
(iii)Most candidates attempted this part correctly.
(iv)This part was answered well by majority of the
candidates.
(c) (i) Some candidates gave the answer as green
plants and a few wrote coacervates.
(ii) A few candidates gave the answer as
vasectomy.
(iii)Some candidates wrote communalism instead of
commensalism.
(iv) A few candidates gave the answer as wall
pressure.
Suggestions for teachers
In heterosis, the point that
offsprings exhibit superiority over
parents should be emphasized.
Cyclic and non-cyclic photo
phosphorylation should be
explained with diagrams and
arrows to show the flow of
electrons.
Back cross and test cross should be
discussed with suitable examples
and appropriate crosses using
checker boards.
For introns, stress should be laid on
splicing of non-coding segments.
Events between pollination and
fertilisation should be taught. The
terms fertilisation, double
fertilisation and triple fusion should
be explained clearly.
Name of the instrument and
application to the related organ
should be taught.
Written practice of abbreviations is
a must.

74
(d) (i) Most candidates answered this part correctly.
Normal Karyotype and
(ii) In place of Dinucleotide phosphate some
candidates wrote Diphosphate. Some wrote chromosomal abnormality should be
Adenosine instead of Adenine. explained with symptoms and name
(iii) A few candidates wrote magnet instead of of the disease.
magnetic and resonant instead of Terms like protobionts, coacervates,
resonance. microspheres should be thoroughly
(iv) Many candidates wrote Tetra instead of Tri discussed.
and ethylene/methane in place of ethane. Teachers should stress upon
(e) Candidates made mistakes in naming the scientists important terms and their correct
correctly. In some cases, the first name was spellings.
written correctly but the second name Names of scientists given in the
was wrongly mentioned. Spelling mistakes were syllabus and their contributions
common.
should be studied with correct
spellings.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
(a) (i) Heterosis or hybrid vigour is the exhibition of superiority of the hybrid/F1/offspring over
both of its parents in one or more traits such as the ability to give higher yield or disease
or pest resistance (or explained).
(ii) In non-cyclic photo phosphorylation the electrons ejected from PS II do not return back,
but instead are used by PS I (or explained diagrammatically).
(iii) Test cross: A test cross is when the F1 hybrid is crossed with the double recessive
parent/homozygous recessive/Tt x tt
(iv) Introns are the non-coding segments of eukaryotic chromosomes./DNA/gene/Non coding
sequences/sequences removed/spliced/intervening sequences/segments not expressed.
(b) 1. (iv) fusion of second male gamete with two polar nuclei
2. (iv) brain
3. (iii) 44+XO
4. (i) RNA molecule
(c) (i) Protobionts/photoautotrophs/cyanobacteria/blue green algae/ chemosynthetic/
Archaebacteria/sulphur bacteria
(ii) Tubectomy
(iii) Altruism/Commensalism
(iv) Turgor pressure
(d) (i) STD - Sexually Transmitted Disease
(ii) NADP - Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate
(iii) MRI - Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(iv) DDT Di-chloro Diphenyl Tri-chloro ethane

75
 (e) (i) Raymond Dart
(ii) Sydney Fox
(iii) Meyer
(iv) Godfrey Hounsfield

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A
Answer any two questions.

Question 2
(a) Give any three characters that have developed during human evolution. [3]
(b) Explain the term chemogeny. [1]
(c) Give any two distinctive features of Dryopithecus. [1]

Comments of Examiners
(a) This part was well attempted by most candidates
except for a few who gave vague answers such as,
change in posture, change in cranial capacity,
dentition, etc.
(b) While explaining the term chemogeny, some
candidates wrote formation of chemicals or
origin of chemicals without mentioning during
evolution. A few candidates did not mention
complex organic molecules.
(c) Distinctive features of Dryopithecus were not
mentioned by many candidates. Vague
answers like, presence of hair, walking on four legs,
tree dwellers, were given by a number of candidates.
Suggestions for teachers
Differences between the features of
ancestors and modern man should be
discussed in class. Comparison
between ape and man should be also
be discussed.
The steps of origin of life -
chemogeny biogeny cognogeny
should be taught in the proper
context and not in isolation.
Specific distinguishing characters of
the fossils of human ancestors
mentioned in the syllabus should be
learnt. It should be correlated with
the trend of evolution during the
course of evolution of present day
humans.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
(a) 1. Distinct lumber curve
2. Hind limbs to support weight/Hind limbs longer than fore limbs.
3. Forelimbs for grasping / opposable thumb

76
4. Pelvis broadened to balance trunk / Development of broad basin-shaped iliac bones in the
pelvic girdle.
5. Skull shifted on upper end
6. Stereoscopic vision/binocular vision/3D vision.
7. Large size of brain/High cranial capacity/1400 to 1500 cc.
8. Ability to learn
9. Unspecialized teeth
10. Low fertility rate
11. Bipedal locomotion
12. Straight posture
13. Acetabular cavities shifted inward to give straight posture/erect
14. Flattening of face/orthognathus
15. Loss of supraorbital ridges/brow ridges not distinct.
16. Straightening of forehead/flattening/prominent
17. Formation of chin/jutting out
18. Sparse body hair
19. Narrowing of nose/elevated nose/nose bridge.
20. Thinning of jawbones
21. Reduction in the size of canines/small canines.
22. Increase in intelligence
23. Social and cultural organization/communication.
24. Foramen magnum shifted downward.
25. Simian gap/Diastema absent.
26. Parabolic denture
27. Loss of tail.
28. Curvature of sole/plantigrade/sub plantigrade locomotion/heel formation.
29. Flattening of sternum. (any three)

77
 (b) Chemogeny: chemical origin of life/ abiotic synthesis of macromolecules/chemical evolution
Formation of various simple and complex organic molecules from ammonia, methane, water and
vapours/ Formation of chemicals/biomolecules (during origin of life) in the primitive
atmosphere.
(c) Distinctive features of Dryopithecus:
1. Their arms and legs were of almost equal length
2. They had a semi erect posture
3. Large canines like those of modern apes
4. Frontally broadened jaws/large jaws.
5. No brow ridges
6. 4 ft. tall
7. Cranial capacity (500 to 700cc)

Question 3
(a) Explain the evolution of giraffes neck according to Lamarcks theory of evolution. [3]
(b) Give two chromosomal similarities between man and apes. [1]
(c) Name any two temporary embryonic structures in vertebrates which provide evidence [1]
for evolution.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Some explained the basic postulates of Lamarckism
and some gave the explanation on the basis of Suggestions for teachers
Darwinism. A number of candidates did not mention The elongation of giraffes neck
about the loss of vegetation from the ground. They should be explained according to
only mentioned that small sized giraffe had to stretch Lamarck as well as Darwin.
the neck to reach the branches of trees but the reason Importance of reading the question
was not mentioned. properly should be stressed upon.
(b) Some candidates gave other similarities between man The exact chromosome number of
and apes instead of chromosomal similarities as asked. apes and man should be given.
Several candidates mentioned that the number of Banding pattern of 3rd and 6th
chromosomes is same (instead of similar). In banding chromosome must also be
pattern many candidates did not make a mention of 3rd mentioned.
and 6th chromosome number. While discussing Theory of
(c) Instead of naming temporary embryonic structures, Recapitulation suitable examples
some candidates mentioned vestigial structures such as should be given which can be taken
vermiform appendix, last molar, pinna muscles, etc. as embryological evidences in
favour of evolution.

78
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 3.
(a) Giraffes have evolved from deer-like ancestors/goat like/small height
Had short neck and forelimbs
Grazed on grass
Ground vegetation disappeared /grass disappeared/ replaced by high trees
Stretched their neck continuously to feed upon branches/leaves of trees
Resulted in gradual elongation of neck and forelimbs
Increase was transmitted to the next generation/acquired by descendants.
(b) Chromosomal similarities between man and apes:
Close similarities in chromosome number. (apes = 24 pairs, humans = 23 pairs.
Banding patterns of chromosome 3 and 6 are similar
Similarity in DNA sequences./amount/content. (any two)
(c) Temporary embryonic structures:
Visceral clefts or gill clefts develop in all land vertebrates, but are not present in the adult.
They are only useful to fish. / Gill slits functional in fishes only but of no use for land
vertebrates.
Tooth buds develop in embryos of toothless whales and birds, which are absent in adults.
Embryos of all vertebrates develop a notochord which is replaced by a vertebral column in
adults.
Post anal tail (any two)

Question 4
(a) Persons suffering from sickle cell anaemia are at an advantage in Malaria infested [3]
areas. Explain.
(b) Define the term gene flow. [1]
(c) What are analogous organs? Describe with one example from the plant kingdom. [1]

Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates got confused with G6PD Suggestions for teachers
deficiency. The concept of homozygous and Homozygous and heterozygous
heterozygous condition was not clear to many condition effects must be discussed.
candidates. Some candidates wrote sickle shaped The basic concept that due to sickle
haemoglobin instead of Red Blood Cell. shape of RBC, surface area is
(b) While defining gene flow, many candidates wrote reduced for oxygen transport and
flow of gene from one place malarial parasite cannot multiply,
to another place instead of one population to should be explained.
another population. Difference between homologous
(c) The question asked was examples of plants having and analogous organs must be
analogous organs, but many candidates gave examples taught with at least two examples
of animals instead. each of plants as well as animals

79
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 4.
(a) Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder/autosomal/recessive where normal haemoglobin
HbA is replaced by HbS, reducing the oxygen carrying capacity.
RBCs become sickle shaped/malaria parasite cannot multiply and rupture at low
concentration of oxygen/hypoxia leading to severe haaemolytic anaemia.
Homozygous individuals die (HbS/HbS), but heterozygotes (HbA/HbS) remain normal.
Natural selection has allowed this condition to remain in Africa, where the heterozygous
individuals are able to cope with malarial infection, better than the persons with normal
RBCs.
(b) Movement/ transfer/ migration of alleles/ genes from one population to another as a result of
interbreeding between members of the two populations./Transfer of genes from generation to
generation/transfer of genes among members of the same species/population.
(c) Analogous organs:
Analogous structures are those structures which perform the same function but have different
origin/internal structure/basic plan/. Organs which reflect or show convergent evolution/
adaptive convergence.
e.g. Plant leaves and ruscus cladode/asparagus both photosynthesise but are of different origin.
Sweet potato and potato have same function but different origin.
Tendrils help in climbing but have different origins like modified stipules in smilax petioles in
Nepenthes, leaflets in pea and axillary bud in Passiflora.

SECTION B
Answer any two questions.
Question 5
(a) With the help of diagrams, name and describe the different types of placentation [4]
seen in angiosperms.
(b) Give four points of anatomical differences between a monocot stem and a dicot [4]
stem.
(c) Define the following terms: [2]
(i) Racemose inflorescence
(ii) Osmotic pressure

80
Comments of Examiners
(a) Few candidates attempted this question correctly.
Some candidates did not write all the four types of Suggestions for teachers
Types of placentation and their
placenta; several candidates discussed different types
of ovules instead of placentation. In many cases, the diagrams should be given
importance in the practical class.
diagrams were not drawn accurately.
Morphological as well as
(b) Some candidates wrote morphological differences
anatomical differences must be
between a monocot stem and a dicot stem instead of
explained separately. Students must
anatomical differences as required. Some others
be taught to write differences in a
wrote opposite answers.
tabular form. The differences
(c) (i) Many candidates wrote about acropetal
written must be compatible.
succession but did not mention the very
Different types of inflorescence
important point of indeterminate growth.
should be explained with diagrams.
Correct diagram was not drawn in several cases.
Definitions mentioned in the scope
(ii) This part was generally well attempted by most must be explained. Key words in
candidates except for a few who defined definitions must be highlighted and
osmosis/turgor pressure/osmotic potential students must be asked to learn
instead. definition with the key words.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 5.
(a) Types of placentation:
1. Marginal: In monocarpellary, unilocular ovary, placenta is borne on the fused margins of
the same carpel. The ovules are present along the ventral suture of the carpel./Placenta
forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and ovules are attached on this ridge
side by side in two alternating rows e.g. Pea
2. Axile: Multicarpellary, syncarpous multilocular gynoecium. Placenta is borne on fused
margins of the same carpel. The ovules are borne on confluent margins which meet on the
central axis./ovary is divided into several chambers or locules and placentae are borne
along the septa of the ovary e.g. Tomato/China rose
3. Parietal: Multicarpellary, syncarpous unilocular ovary. Placenta is borne on the fused
margin of the same carpel./ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on the
peripheral part e.g. Cruciferae (mustard)
4. Free central: Multicarpellary, syncarpous, unilocular ovary. Ovules appear to arise from
the central column/Ovules are borne on the central axis and septa are absent e.g.
Carnation/Dianthus.
5. Basal: Unilocular ovary, with a solitary ovule which appears to arise from the base of the
ovary./The placenta with one ovule attached to it, lies at the base of the ovary e.g.
Sunflower
6. Superficial: multicarpellary, sycarpous ovary. Most of the internal surface of the ovary
wall is covered with ovules/Any portion of the inner wall of the ovary may serve as a
placenta e.g. Water Lily
7. Pendulous: Placenta at the top of the ovary and ovule hanging down.
8. Lamellar: Placenta enlarges considerably and extends towards the centre. (any four)

81
 PLACENTTION
(b) MONOCOT STEM
Hair/ Trichomes are absent
Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
Ground tissue is uniform/undifferentiated
Numerous vascular bundles scattered in
the ground tissue
Cambium absent and closed
Xylem arranged in the form of a Y/V
Lysigenous cavity present
Vascular bundles surrounded by
sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
Medullary rays and pith absent
Vascular bundles are smaller and near the
periphery and bigger in the centre
Resin ducts are absent
82
(any four)
DICOT STEM
Trichomes present
Hypodermis is collenchymatous
Ground tissue differentiated into cortex,
endodermis and pericycle
Fewer vascular bundles arranged in a ring
Cambium present and open vascular bundles
Xylem vessels arranged in radial rows,
polygonal in shape
No lysigenous cavity
No bundle sheath
Medullary rays and pith present
They are of uniform size.
Resin ducts are present
(any four)
 (c) (i) Racemose inflorescence: The floral axis shows indeterminate growth, main axis is
elongated and unbranched with older flowers at the bottom and younger flowers at the top
(acropetal succession)./Main axis does not end in flower/unlimited growth
E.g. Gladiolus, Triticum, etc. (diagram accepted but tip should not have flower)
(ii) Osmotic pressure: Maximum pressure developed in a solution when separated from pure
water by a semipermeable membrane/pressure required to prevent osmosis.

Question 6
(a) Draw a diagram of the internal structure of the human ovary. [4]
(b) Define the term water potential. What are its components? Explain. [4]
(c) Give definition and importance of: [2]
(i) Imbibition
(ii) Parturition

Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates drew the ovule of plants.
Suggestions for teachers
Several others drew the female reproductive system.
Sufficient practice must be given in
The correct sequence of follicular growth was not
drawing correct labelled diagrams.
shown by many candidates.
Definition of water potential and its
(b) The concept of water potential was not clear to many
components should be taught
candidates. Several candidates attempted only the
emphasising why these terms are
definition of water potential. Relevant points were
preferred over DPD, OP or TP.
not given in many answers. Components of water
Their inter-relationship should be
potential were not mentioned by a number of
expressed in the form of
candidates.
mathematical equation
(c) (i) While defining imbibition, several candidates
(w = m + s + p). m should
did not mention adsorption or surface
not be ignored.
absorption. Some also failed to mention in non-
Importance of using correct key
living hydrophilic substances.
words must be highlighted.
(ii) A few candidates used the word babies instead
of foetus while defining parturition.

83
MARKING SCHEME
Question 6.
(a)

Labelling:
Germinal epithelium/ epithelium/ peritoneum
Cortex
Medulla
Primary follicles/primordial follicle
Secondary follicle
Tertiary follicle
Graphian follicle
Ovum released
Corpus luteum
Corpus albicans
Corpus hemorrhagium
Blood clot
Stroma/ connective tissue
Antrum
Egg nest
Atretic follicle
(Any eight)

84
 (b) Water potential: The difference in the free energy/kinetic energy of water molecules in the
solution and that of pure water at the same temperature and pressure. Kinetic energy per mole of
water/ the tendency of water to leave the system/sum of matrix potential, solute (osmotic)
potential & pressure potential. (equation accepted)
Components:
1. Matrix potential: the hydrophillic colloidal particles to which water is adsorbed/
component of WP affected due to presence of hydrophilic substances/decrease in the WP
due to the presence of matrix
2. Solute potential/Osmotic potential: the decrease in chemical potential of pure water or
solvent due to the presence of solute particles/ the component of WP affected due to
presence of solutes.
3. Pressure potential: Pressure which governs the movement of water into a cell, developed
due to turgor and wall pressure/ the hydrostatic pressure applied by the cell contents on the
cell wall in a turgid cell.
(c) (i) Imbibition: Surface adsorption of water by non-living hydrophilic substances like
cellulose/colloids due to surface attraction
Initial stages of absorption of water.
Initial stages of germination of seeds.
(ii) Parturition Act of expelling the full term foetus from mothers uterus at the end of
gestation.

Question 7
(a) Give four adaptations in flowers pollinated by insects. [4]
(b) Describe the mass flow hypothesis for translocation of organic solutes (food) in [4]
plants.
(c) Write a brief note on the causes of infertility. [2]

85
Comments of Examiners
(a) This question was well attempted by most
Suggestions for teachers
candidates. A few candidates wrote adaptations for
Different types of adaptations for
wind pollination.
pollination should be taught with
(b) Very few candidates gave correct and coherent
specific examples.
explanation in proper sequence. Some candidates
Translocation of food should be
mentioned the movement of water directly from
explained by a diagram
xylem to phloem. They did not mention source or
highlighting source, supply end,
sink. Some of those who tried to explain with the
xylem, phloem. The point that
help of diagram did not show arrows.
movement of food occurs along
(c) Some candidates mentioned causes of infertility of
turgor pressure gradient and not
soil.
according to osmotic gradient alone
must be stressed upon. Name of the
scientist Munch must be mentioned.
Students should be advised to go
through the syllabus carefully and
limit their answers to the scope of
the syllabus.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7.
(a) Large conspicuous
Brightly coloured
Sweet smell/Fragrant
Nectar secreting
Pollen grains are rough and sticky/spiny
Stigma is sticky
Guidelines on petals
Arranged in inflorescence
Lever mechanism or mimics the female
(Any four)
(b) The transport of food along the conc. gradient/TP gradient/enmass movement.)
- Munch
- Sugar prepared in the mesophyll cells of leaf increases the osmotic pressure
- Water from xylem elements and neighbouring cells increases the TP. This forces some of the
dissolved food into sieve tube
- The cells of the root and storage organ have low osmotic and turgor pressure due to low food
concentration.

86
- This creates TP gradient between leaf and phloem
- As a result of this mass flow of water containing dissolved organic food takes place from the
upper end to the lower end of the plant through phloem
- The source of supply is the leaf and the storage organ is the root.
- This theory could not explain the bidirectional movement of metabolites.

(i) Sugar added

(ii) Entry of sugar into Bulb A
(iii) Movement to Bulb B through P
(iv) Exit from Bulb B
(v) Removal of sugar
(vi) Movement of water from X vessel to Y vessel through T
(Diagram with arrows drawn may be accepted)

87
 (c) Causes of infertility:
Cryptorchidism: failure of testes to descend into the scrotum
Hyperthermia: higher temperature of the scrotal sac
Blockage of vas deferens /sperm duct Blockage of the fallopian tube
Age related
DNA damage
Genetic factors
Diabetes mellitus / thyroid disorders
Hypothalamic pituitary factors (hyperprolactinemia and hypopituitarism)
Low sperm count/oligospermia/ azospermia/ abnormal sperm structure/ poor sperm motility
Irregular or no ovulation/ less egg production
Defect in the genital tract
Defective endometrium, cervix, vaginal growth
Deficiency of sex hormones/hormonal imbalance
Hostile response to sperm by the production of antibodies by the womans blood.
Overweight / underweight females.
Improper fertilization
Inability of meeting of sperm and egg
Polycystic ovary

SECTION C
Answer any two questions.
Question 8
(a) Give any four reasons for Mendels success. [4]
(b) Briefly describe the technique employed in DNA fingerprinting. [4]
(c) Give any two features of Genetic Code. [2]
Comments of Examiners
(a) Correct reasons were not mentioned by a number of Suggestions for teachers
candidates. Some candidates wrote about Laws of Discuss the reasons for Mendels
Mendel. Several candidates wrote reasons success, his reasons for choosing
behind selecting pea plant by Mendel. pea plant and the laws separately.
(b) This part was not attempted properly by Steps for DNA fingerprinting should
many candidates. Most candidates were be taught pointwise and importance
aware of the applications of DNA of correct sequence should be
fingerprinting but not of its technique. In some cases,
correct sequence was not written. Some key words stressed upon.
like, VNTR and RFLP were missing in many answers. Features of genetic code should be
(c) This part was well attempted by most candidates. discussed with proper explanation.

88
MARKING SCHEME
Question 8.
(a) Mendel selected the pea plant in which:
Concentrated at a time only on one particular trait/one character at a time
Maintained accurate record of observations/ used statistical/ mathematical analysis
Several varieties available
Easy to cultivate
Artificial cross breeding between varieties was possible so hybrids were totally fertile.
Genes coding for seven pairs of contrasting characters were on different chromosomes. /
Fortunate in choosing seven pairs of characters
The characters he chose did not show any interaction / linkage.
Used pure varieties
Bisexuality.
Short life span
Large sample size/high yield
(Any four)
(b) DNA fingerprinting technique: Alec Jeffery
Isolation of DNA by high speed centrifugation.
DNA amplification by polymerase chain reaction in case the sample is very small.
Fragmentation of amplified DNA into segments of variable lengths by digesting with
restriction endonuclease enzymes.
Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis over agarose gel. The separated segments
are called restriction fragment length polymorphism.
Denaturation of DNA fragments by alkali treatment.
Transfer of single stranded DNA fragments from gel onto a synthetic membrane such as
nitrocellulose or nylon by southern blotting method.
Fixation of separated DNA fragments to the membrane by exposing to UV light.
Hybridisation of single stranded DNA with radio labeled VNTR probes.
Exposure of membrane containing hybrids of radioactive DNA probes and VNTR to X rays,
so that the hybridized VNTRs appear as dark bands. The film provides DNA profile and is
called autoradiogram.
(c) It is always triplet
Non overlapping

89
 Universal
No punctuations
Collinear
Degenerative / Redundant
Initiator codon AUG
Non sense codons / termination codons

Question 9
(a) Explain the mechanism of action of T cells to antigens. [4]
(b) Explain how insulin can be produced using recombinant DNA technology. [4]
(c) What is pisiculture? Give one advantage. [2]
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates mentioned the role of
T. Lymphocytes as phagocytosis without specifying Suggestions for teachers
different subtypes of T-cells and their specific Specific role of different
function. components of immune system
(b) Steps of rDT to make insulin were not written should be discussed separately
in proper sequence by many candidates. under the headings of Cell mediated
Key terms like vector, host, use of and Humoral immunity.
restriction enzymes, ligase, etc. were missing in many Steps of rDT should be discussed in
answers. Most of the candidates did not mention proper sequence, e.g. selection of
separate polypeptide chains-A and B and cloning of host, vector, selection of
their respective genes. recombinants, cloning etc.
(c) Some candidates confused Pisciculture with Key words should be highlighted in
Ichthyology i.e. instead of writing rearing of fish definitions.
they wrote study of fish.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 9.
(a) Mechanism of action of T cells to antigens:
T cells provide cell mediated immunity recognize specific antigens.
The T lymphocyte divides rapidly/differentiate to form a clone of T cells of 4 types:
Killer cells/CT cells: destroy infected cells having the foreign antigen attached to their
surface.
Memory T cells: are sensitized by antigens and retain their sensitization for the
future/remember the nature of antigen for future (secondary) response.
Suppressor T cells: inhibit immune response by releasing cytokines that suppress activity of
other T and B cells.
Helper T cells: secrete substances that enhance or activate immune response./stimulate
antibody production of B cells.

90
 (b) Using recombinant DNA to make Insulin:
Two polypeptide chains (Chain A with 21 amino acids, Chain B with 30 amino acids
interlinked through disulphide bridges)
Restriction enzymes used to produce nicks in insulin gene in E.coli plasmid at the same
restriction sites producing sticky ends
Mutant strains of E.coli used to avoid bacteria attacking foreign genes
Insert insulin gene next to E.coli galactosidase gene which controls transcription
Bacterial cells replicate and make copies of insulin gene
Insulin protein is purified (beta-galactosidase removed)
Chains are mixed and disulphide bridges formed
Final product insulin is chemically identical to human insulin
The Rhesus Factor
(c) Pisiculture: The process of fish farming in isolated water bodies./rearing of fish
Advantage: - Provide income and employment to fisherman/economic, helps to enhance food
production/nutrition/fish oil (cod liver oil), leather (shagreen).
- Increase in organic fertilisation by fish excreta.
- Better tilling of rice seedlings.
- Reduction in number of harmful insects whose larvae are eaten by fish.
(any one advantage)

Question 10
(a) Name the causative organism and preventive measures for each of the following: [4]
(i) Swine flu
(ii) Typhoid
(iii) Filariasis
(iv) Syphilis
(b) State four causes and four consequences of population growth. [4]
(c) Differentiate between: [2]
(i) Cannabinoids and Barbiturates
(ii) Biotic potential and Carrying capacity

91
Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Most of the candidates were able to attempt this Suggestions for teachers
part correctly. A few candidates wrote wrong Causative organisms should be
preventive measures. written with correct generic name
(ii) Some candidates wrote causative agent correctly and specific name.
but instead of mentioning TAB vaccine wrote Method of prevention and specific
Vaccination only. Some wrote more water symptoms of diseases should be
instead of clean water. taught.
(iii) Scientific name with wrong spelling was written Instruct students to read the
by a number candidates. Several candidates did question properly and answer to the
not mention mosquito but wrote insects in point.
general. For preventive measures, some
candidates wrote keep clean instead of mentioning destruction of breeding ground.
(iv) Some candidates made spelling mistakes in this part. A number of candidates confused it with
AIDS. Some candidates wrote preventive measures but did not mention multiple partners.
(b) A number of candidates wrote only the causes of population growth and omitted writing the
consequences. Some explained the same point for cause as well as for consequence. A few wrote
migration/immigration under causes.
(c) (i) Many candidates did not have any idea about cannabinoids. Vague answers were given by
many. Some defined cannibalism instead of cannabinoids. In many cases, the differences
given were not compatible.
(ii) In the definition of Biotic Potential, key words such as, inherent power/population/ideal
conditions, etc. were found to be missing in many answers. Some candidates were confused
between biotic potential and carrying capacity.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 10.
(a) Name the causative organism and preventive measures for each of the following:
Disease Causative Organism Preventive Measure
(i) Swine flu Virus/H1N1 Personal hygiene and
sanitation/cover nose/mouth
(ii) Typhoid Salmonella typhii Sanitation, personal cleanliness,
clean food and water/TAB
vaccine
(iii) Filariasis Wuchereria/Filaria Destruction of mosquitoes and
bancrofti their breeding places, protection
against mosquito bites
(iv) Syphilis Treponemapallidum Avoid sexual intercourse with
multiple partners, use of condom

92
(b) Causes:
Advancement in agriculture
Control of famines
Better public health
Control of diseases
Better storage facilities
More children reach reproductive age
Low mortality rate
Illiteracy/lack of education/lack of awareness.
Desire for a male child
Better socio economic conditions/more children more money
Religious beliefs
Early marriage
Lack of use of contraceptives/lack of family planning.
Poverty/lack of recreation.
Consequences:
Food crisis/economic crises.
Acute clothing shortage/shelter/poverty/housing.
Shortage of drinking water
Pollution
Danger of epidemics
Unemployment
Lack of educational facilities
Acute shortage of natural resources/deforestation.
Poor health of mother and child
(c) Difference:
(i) Cannabinoids:
Obtained from Cannabis sativa/Natural
Intoxicating and hallucinogenic/mood swings/loss of memory/loss of motor
coordination/narcosis
Interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally in the brain.
Generally inhaled or ingested orally
Barbiturates:
Derivatives of barbituric acid/synthetic
Used as sedative/induce sleep/narcotic effect
Moderate doses produce relaxing effect and relieve stress
Larger doses impair ones physical, psychological or psychological functions/cause
drowsiness/confusion
Taken orally

93
 (ii) Biotic potential
Biotic potential refers to the inherent power of a population to increase in numbers when
all environmental conditions are favourable/physiological capacity to produce offsprings
under ideal conditions
Carrying capacity
Carrying capacity refers to the maximum population size that a given environment can
support/sustain.

GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question paper:
Water Potential and its components.
DNA finger printing technique.
Action of T cells to antigens.
Placentation in angiosperms.
Cannabinoids and Barbiturates
Mass flow hypothesis.
Characteristics of Dryopithecus
(b) Concepts between which candidates got confused:
Gene flow and genetic drift/genetic erosion
Types of placenta and types of ovules.
DNA finger printing and finger printing
Pisciculture and Ichthyology
Cannabinoids and Cannibalism
Biotic potential and carrying capacity
Chromosomal and anatomical features of apes and man.
Infertility in humans and infertility in soil
Features of pea plant and laws of Mendel
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
Read the chapter thoroughly and prepare notes taking care of key concepts and important
points.
Practice through flow charts and diagrams with correct labelling.
Learn the process or phenomenon in sequence.
Read the question carefully.
Learn definitions with the key words. Underline the key words.
Names of scientists and abbreviations when elaborated should have correct spellings.

94
 BIOLOGY PAPER 2 (PRACTICAL)
Question 1 [5]
(a) Carefully examine the two flower specimens D-41 and D-42 provided. Describe the
floral characteristics of each in semi-technical terms. (Details of individual whorls
are not required.)
(b) Cut a longitudinal section of the specimen D-41 with a sharp razor blade. Arrange
one of the cut surfaces on a moist filter paper so that all the parts are clearly visible.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the cut surface.
(c) Similarly, with the help of a sharp razor blade, cut a longitudinal section of
specimen D-42. Place one of the cut surfaces on a moist filter paper. Draw a neat
and labelled diagram of this cut surface.
(d) With the hand lens provided, carefully observe the cut surfaces of D-41 and D-42.
Record your observation as per the table given below:
Androecium: D-41 D-42
(i) Relation of stamens to each other
(ii) Nature of anthers
(iii) Relation of stamens to petals
Gynoecium
(i) Nature of stigma
(ii) Type of placentation

(e) Take a fresh specimen D-41 and with the help of forceps, remove the calyx. Now,
detach each petal carefully and arrange the whorl on a moist filter paper. Draw a
labelled diagram of the arrangement of petals.
(f) Remove the stamens from this specimen D-41 and expose the gynoecium. Cut a
longitudinal section of the gynoecium. Draw a neat labelled diagram of this
longitudinal section.
(g) Draw the floral diagram of specimen D-42.
(h) Name the families to which each specimen, D-41 and D-42 belong respectively.
(i) Write two characteristics of each family mentioned in (h) above.
(j) Write the floral formula of each specimen, D-41 and D-42.
(k) Mention one economically important plant of each family you have mentioned in (h)
above. (write the botanical name only)

95
Comments of Examiners
(a)Spelling errors were made by candidates in describing
the semi-technical terms. Many candidates described Suggestions for teachers
Explain semi-technical terms by
all floral whorls. Some used contrasting terms such
as, zygomorphic / actinomorphic for the same flower. showing examples.
Ask students to follow the
(b) Some candidates did not understand the term L.S..
In some cases, ovules were not attached to upper instructions given in the Question
margin of ovary wall. Spelling errors were observed Paper.
Explain concepts of T.S, L.S. C.S.
in labelling words like keel/carina were misspelt. In
some cases, very thick ovary was drawn. etc.
Ask students to refrain from using
(c) Some mistakes made by candidates in drawing the
diagram were as follows: epicalyx missing in the text book diagrams. Students must
diagram; polypetalous/ gamopetalous condition be encouraged to draw from the
wrongly represented; reniform anthers not shown; actual sample.
Explain all relevant terms. Students
style passing through staminal tube not drawn;
locules and ovules not well represented. must be made aware that spellings
(d) A number of candidates made mistakes in spelling the errors of technical terms lead to
terms. In some cases, tabular form was not used by loss of, marks.
Dissection of flower and
candidates.
(e) Many candidates did not understand the concept of arrangement of whorls on a fitter
arranging the whorl. In some cases, standard, wing paper must be practised during
and keel were not drawn with reference to each other. practical classes.
Relevance of the mother axis in a
In a few cases, the broad standard was not drawn or
keel not joined. floral diagram must be highlighted.
(f) Many candidates drew a T.S of the ovary instead of Orientation of whorls with respect
the L.S. Many drew the entire gynoecium and not the to the M.A. must be explained.
Make students aware of scientific
L.S. In several cases, feathery stigma was not drawn/
swollen ovary was drawn instead of a narrow ovary. names.
Specific characteristics must be
(g) In the floral diagrams drawn by many candidates, the
mother axis was missing or wrongly placed. In some taught by demonstrating relevant
cases, orientation of whorls was incorrect. In a few live specimens of the family.
More practice must be given in
diagrams, petals were attached to the gynoecium
instead of the androecium or locules, ovules and writing the floral formula.
Students must be made aware of the
placentation was shown incorrectly.
(h) Spelling errors were made by many candidates while rules of binomial nomenclature.
naming the family. Some candidates used a small
letter for family name.
(i) In several cases, characteristics solely pertinent to the family were not written by candidates.
(j) Several candidates were confused regarding br/ebr with reference to the supplied specimen. Epik
was not used by many. Epipetalous condition not shown in a few cases.
(k) In several cases, the Genus and species name were both capitalised. Spelling mistakes were also
observed. Underling was not done correctly in many cases.

96
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
(a) Description of flower D 41 in semi-technical terms: Ebracteate, ebracteolate, complete,
pedicillate, hermaphrodite (bisexual), zygomorphic (irregular), pentamerous, hypogynous
(sometimes perigynous), papilionaceous, acyclic.
(Bracteate if Clitoria is given)
Description of flower D 42 in semi-technical terms:
Bracteolate (bracteoles form epicalyx), ebracteate, complete, pedicillate, hermaphrodite
(bisexual), actinomorphic (regular), pentamerous, hypogynous, cyclic.
(b)

Drawing: Labelling:
1. 2 sepals shown 1. Sepal
2. Broad Standard shown 2. Standard/ Vexillum
3. Smaller wing is shown on the 3. Wing/ Ala
standard 4. Keel/ Carina
4. Much smaller keel on wing 5. Anther/ Stamen
5. More than 2 stamens shown 6. Filament
6. Elongated ovary shown 7. Stigma
7. Bent style 8. Style
8. One chambered ovary 9. Ovary
9. 2-3 ovules attached to the 10. Ovule
10. Upper margin of the ovary 11. Pedicel/ Stalk
12. Locule

97
(c)

Drawing: Labelling:
1. 2 epicalyx shown 1. Stigmatic lobe/Stigma
2. 2 sepals shown 2. Style
3. 2 3 free petals shown 3. Staminal tube
4. Staminal tube shown 4. Anther/ Stamen
5. Thin long style passing through 5. Petal
staminal tube
6. 2-many reniform anthers shown 6. Sepal
7. Ovary
7. 2 3 capitate stigma shown 8. Ovule
8. 2 locules visible in the ovary 9. Epicalyx/ Episepal
9. 2 rows of ovules attached 10. Pedicel/ Stalk
to the placenta 11. Thalamus / Receptacle
12. Placenta
13. Locule

98
(d) Floral Whorls D 41 Sesbania D 42 Hibiscus

Androecium
Relation of stamens to Diadelphous(9+1) or Monadelphous or explained
each other explained

Nature of anther Dithecous/ introrse, Monothecous/ extrorse

Relation of stamen to Free from petals/ Not Epipetalous /Petals adnate to the
petals adnate with petals base of the staminal tube
Gynoecium
Nature of stigma Hairy/ indistinct/ Pentafid/ capitate / Discoid
feathery/plain
Type of placentation Marginal Axile

(e)

Drawing: Labelling:
1. Broad standard petal shown 1. Standard / Vexillum
2. Two wing petals drawn perpendicular 2. Wing / Ala
to standard
3. Two small keel petal drawn (fused) 3. Keel / Carina

99
(f)

Drawing: (any five) Labelling: (any five)

1. Narrow elongated ovary 1. Stigma
2. One locule 2. Style
3. 3-6 ovules attached to the upper 3. Ovary
Margin of the ovary 4. Locule
4. Bent style 5. Ovule
5. Small / feathery/plain stigma 6. Pedicel/ stalk
6. Pedicel shown
(g)

Floral diagram of D42

Drawing:
Mother axis shown
Epicalyx shown
Five joined sepals in correct orientation
Five separate petals in correct orientation

100
 Epipetalous stamens
Monadelphous androecium
Pentalocular ovary
Two ovules in each locule
Axile placentation (any eight)
(h) Family of Specimen D - 41
Family: Leguminosae/ Fabaceae
Family of Specimen D 42
Family: Malvaceae
(i) Family characters of Specimen D 41 (Any two)
1. Papilionaceous corolla
2. Vexillary aestivation
3. Diadelphous stamen Or stamen in two bundles
4. Marginal placentation
5. Feathery stigma / hairy Stigma
6. Bent style
7. Zygomorphic flower
Family characters of Specimen D 42 (Any two)
1. Monadelphous stamen
2. Reniform or kidney shaped anther
3. Mucilaginous flower
4. Style passes through staminal tube
5. Epicalyx present
(j) Floral Formula of Specimen D - 41

1+(9)

Floral diagram of Specimen D 42

5/7/9

101
(k) Scientific name of economically important plant belonging to the same family as
Specimen D - 41
Lens esculenta
Vigna radiata
Clitoria ternatea
Abrus, Acacia Arachis
Bauhinia Butea Cajanus
Calliandra Calliandropsis Cassia
Cicer Clitoria Dalbergia
Desmodium Glycine Halimodendron
Indigofera Inga Jacksonia
Lablab Lathyrus Lens
Leucaena Parkinsonia Patagonium
Peltiera Phaca Phaseolus
Pisum Sesbania Vicia
Vigna Zornia

Scientific name of economically important plant belonging to the same family as

Specimen D - 42
Gossypium herbaceum
Abelmoschus esculentus
Abelmoschus Abroma Abutilon
Acropogon Adansonia Alcea
Althaea Bombax Bombycidendron
Ceiba Cenocentrum Corchorus
Gossypium Lavatera Lecanophora
Octolobus Peltaea Phymosia
Sida

102
Question 2 [5]

You are provided with glassware and twigs of plant D-43 to set up an experiment to
demonstrate photosynthesis. Set up the experiment using one or two twigs of D-43 and tap
water. Keep the apparatus near a light source.
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of the experimental set-up.
(b) When gas bubbles start emerging from the cut ends of the twig(s), show the set-up to
the Visiting Examiner.
(c) Count the number of bubbles evolved in one minute and record it. Repeat your
observation for two more readings. Tabulate the three readings and calculate the
average number of bubbles (x) evolved in one minute.
(d) Prepare 10% solution of NaHCO3 (Sodium bicarbonate). Add 10 ml of this solution
to the experimental set-up. Stir the water with the glass rod. Wait for three minutes.
Count the number of bubbles evolved in one minute. Repeat your observation for two
more readings. Tabulate the three consecutive readings and calculate the average
number of bubbles evolved in one minute (y).
(e) Add another 10 ml of freshly prepared NaHCO3 solution to the set-up and stir the
water with the glass rod. Wait for three minutes. Count the number of bubbles
evolved in one minute. Take two more readings and calculate the average number of
bubbles evolved in one minute (z).
Tabulate your observations as follows:

Experimental set-up Number of bubbles evolved per Average Value

minute
Initial set-up: tap (i)
water. (ii) x:
(iii)
After adding 10 ml of (i)
10% NaHCO3 solution (ii) y:
(iii)
After adding another (i)
10 ml of 10% (ii) z:
NaHCO3 solution (iii)

103
 (f) Name the plant specimen D-43.
(g) Comment briefly on the observations made by you regarding the recorded average
values (x, y and z) of the bubbles evolved per minute.
(h) What do you conclude from this experiment?
(i) Mention any two precautions you have taken while performing this experiment.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Some common mistakes made by candidates while Suggestions for teachers
drawing the diagram were: Tell students that the number of
the stem of the aquatic plant was not directed bubbles cannot be represented in
towards the neck of the funnel; decimals.
the funnel not placed at the base of the beaker; Stress upon the importance of
the stem of the funnel was above the level of spelling scientific names correctly.
water in the beaker; Explain the importance of dealing
the test tube was not resting on the funnel; with each observation separately
the light source was missing. with relevant conditions.
(c) & (d) Some candidates calculated the bubbles in Theoretical and practical work on
decimals. photosynthesis should be
(e) The observation table was not filled up properly by a correlated. Factors influencing rate
number of candidates. of photosynthesis should be
(f) The name of the aquatic plant specimen was spelt explained.
incorrectly by many candidates.
(g) In a number of cases, the explanation of x, y and
z was not given individually but in a general manner. The fact that NaHCO3 increases
CO2 concentration was not mentioned by some candidates. The rate of photosynthesis was not
mentioned. Initial condition of tap water (with low CO2) was ignored in a few cases.
(h) Several candidates did not correlate the CO2 concentration with the rate of photosynthesis. They
failed to mention that the other factors should remain constant. Unnecessary explanation of
Blackmans Law of Limiting factors was given by some candidates.

104
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
(a)

Drawing points: Labelling points:

1. Stem of the twig pointed towards 1. Light
the neck of the funnel
2. Test tube rests on the funnel 2. Test tube
3. Stem of the funnel in beaker under water 3. Water
4. Light source 4. Beaker
5. Bubbles shown in the test tube under water. 5. Funnel
6. Hydrilla / Aquatic plant
7. Air bubble/ Gas bubble
8. Collected gas

105
(e)

x, y, z in increasing order
(f) Hydrilla / Elodea / Ceratophyllum demersum
(g) X
Initially in tap water (or in low / normal carbon dioxide concentration, number of bubbles is
minimum or low (or value stated) because (rate) of photosynthesis is low or minimum
(accept photosynthesis is low or slow).
Y
(On addition of 10ml of 10% solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate) the carbon dioxide
concentration increases. So (rate) of photosynthesis increases and hence (rate) of bubble
evolution increases / number of bubbles increases (or value given).
Z
(On addition of another 10ml of 10% solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate) the carbon
dioxide concentration increases further. So (rate) of photosynthesis increases (further) and
hence (rate) of bubble evolution increases further (or more that y)/ number of bubbles further
increases (or value given).
(h) All other factors (light, temperature, water) remaining constant, the rate of photosynthesis
increases (rate of evolution of bubbles increases) with the increase in concentration of carbon
dioxide.
(i) Precautions: (Any two)
Hydrilla should be fresh
Hydrilla twig should be obliquely cut
Cut end of the twig should face towards the stem of the funnel
Test tube should be filled with water/ there should be no air bubbles.
Adequate light source
Stem of funnel should be under the water level of beaker.
Sodium bicarbonate should be freshly prepared
Distilled water should not be used

106
Question 3 [5]
(a) With a sharp razor blade, cut several transverse sections of the specimen D-44
provided. Select a good section and stain with safranin. Mount the stained section
in glycerine. Show your slide to the Visiting Examiner under low power of
microscope.
(b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the mount as seen under the microscope.
(microscopic details are not required)
(c) (i) Identify the specimen.
(ii) Give two reasons to support your answer in (c)(i) above.

Comments of Examiners
(b) Most candidates drew diagrams with cellular details.
Suggestions for teachers
In many cases, trichrome/stem hair were missing.
More practice must be given in
Differentiation of epidermis, hypodermis and cortex
cutting T.S. of specimen with
was not clear in several cases. A thick hypodermis
emphasis on the characteristic
was drawn by some candidates. Vascular bundles
features of each layer.
were not clear with relevant endarch xylem. Labelling
Students should be made aware of
lines intersected each other.
the fact that labelling lines should
(c) (i) A few candidates wrote sunflower stem instead
not intersect each other.
of T.S. of dicot stem.
The concept of open/closed
(ii) Reasons were given incorrectly by several
vascular bundle must be clarified.
candidates, e.g. vascular bundles are conjoint and
Conceptual errors should be
open (incorrect); vascular bundles are endarch
clarified while teaching theoretical
(incorrect) it is xylem which is endarch.
concepts in class.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3.

107
 Drawing Points Labelling Points
1. Trichome/ multicellular hair 1.Trichome/ multicellular hair/stem hair
2. Single layered epidermis 2. Epidermis
3. Hypodermis 3. Hypodermis
4. General Cortex (thick) 4. Cortex
5. Endodermis 5.Endodermis/ Starch Sheath
6. Pericycle (in patches) 6. Pericycle
7. Vascular bundles arranged in a ring 7. Xylem
8. Conjoint, collateral, open vascular bundles 8. Pith
9. Endarch xylem 9. Phloem
10. Distinct pith 10. Vascular bundle (instead of Xylem
and phloem)

(i) The given specimen is Dicot Stem.

(ii) Reasons of identification: (Any two)

Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open (operative).
Vascular bundles arranged in a ring.
Xylem endarch - (Protoxylem towards the centre and metaxylem towards the periphery).
Cortex differentiated into hypodermis general cortex, endodermis.
Pericycle consists of (semi-lunar) patches (of sclerenchyma and intervening masses of
parenchyma).
Distinct pith

Question 4 [5]
Identify the given specimens A to E. For specimen D, identify the type of inflorescence.
Give two reasons to support your answer in each case. Draw a neat labelled diagram of each
specimen. You are not allowed to spend more than three minutes for each spot.
Note: Hand over your continuation booklet to the Supervising Examiner after you finish answering
this question.

108
Comments of Examiners
(a) In the identification, the term T.S of mammalian Suggestions for teachers
was missing in many cases. Some common mistakes Theoretical concepts must be
made by candidates in the diagrams drawn were as clarified.
follows: follicles of different sizes were not shown in Practice must be given in drawing
the cortex; Graafian follicle did not contain an ovum; non-cellular diagrams in the
germinal epithelium was not labelled; labelling of stipulated time.
cortex/medulla was interchanged; corpus luteum and The different stages in embryonic
empty follicle were indistinguishable; incomplete development must be explained
labelling was done. clearly.
(b) In many cases, identification mentioned T.S. instead Theoretical concepts of
of whole mount of specimen. The scientific name was inflorescence must be made clear
spelt incorrectly. In the diagrams, ectoplasm/ with specimens.
endoplasm was labelled as ectoderm/ endoderm; It must be clarified that the need for
many pseudopodia drawn instead of one; single food CO2 in photosynthesis is
vacuole was drawn instead of many. demonstrated by the KOH
(c) Identification did not mention the term experiment not by the hydrilla set
T.S/mammalian. Some candidates mentioned frog up.
blastula. In some of the diagrams, inner cell mass
was not attached to trophoblast.
(d) The specimen was wrongly identified as gladiolus/capitulum/cymose inflorescence. In some of the
diagrams drawn by candidates, bracts were not shown; there was no difference in size between
younger and older flowers; sessile flowers were not drawn.
(e) Many candidates identified this spot as Molls half-leaf experiment. Some centres drew the evolution
of O2 by Hydrilla. In the diagrams drawn by a few candidates, sunlight was not drawn and labelled.
No support was drawn for the conical flask containing KOH.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4.
SPOT A
Identification: (Slide showing) T.S. of Mammalian Ovary
Reasons for Identification: (Any two)
(The outer surface is covered by) germinal epithelium is visible/present (composed of single
layer of cubical cells).
The cortex contains numerous ovarian follicles of different sizes at different stages of
maturation and (Graafian follicles).
The matured Graafian follicles (containing centrally placed) with ovum surrounded by
several layers of granular cells, visible.
Corpus luteum present
Primordial/ primary follicle are seen near the germinal epithelium

109
Drawing: Labelling:
1. Follicles of different sizes shown 1. Germinal epithelium
2. Germinal epithelium present 2. Maturing follicle/Graffian follicle
3. Ovum seen in mature follicle 3. Primordial follicle
4. Empty follicle visible 4. Ovum
5. Corpus luteum 5. Medulla
6. Cortex
7. Corpus Luteum

SPOT B
Identification: (Slide showing) Entamoeba histolytica
Reasons for Identification: (Any two)
Unicellular microorganism
Pseudopodium visible
Cytoplasm/ Endoplasm is granular and contains a spherical nucleus, Red Blood Cells,
Leucocytes and tissue debris.
Many (dark) food vacuoles present.
Cytoplasm is differentiated into ecto and endoplasm

110
Drawing: Labelling:
1. Unicellular organism 1. Ectoplasm/
2. Ectoplasm/ Endoplasm/ Cytoplasm
cytoplasm 2. Plasma membrane /Cell Membrane
3. Nucleus 3. Nucleus
4. Food vacuole 4. Food vacuole
5. Ingested Red Blood Cells 5. Ingested Red Blood Cells
6. Endoplasm
7. Cytoplasm (instead of ecto and endoplasm
8. Pseudopodium
SPOT C
Identification: Slide showing T.S. of mammalian blastula
Reasons for Identification: (Any two)
The trophoblast or trophoectoderm visible.
Embryonal knob/ inner mass of cell is visible.
(Fluid filled cavity called) blastocoel present.

111
Drawing: Labelling:
1. Trophoblast 1. Trophoblast
2. Blastocoel 2. Blastocoel
3. Embryonal knob / or spherical 3. Embryonal knob/ inner mass of cell
mass of cell on one side / inner cell mass
SPOT D
Identification: (Twig of Gladioli showing) Racemose inflorescence/ Spike

Reasons for Identification: (Any two)

Main axis or rachis or /or floral axis is elongated/ unbranched /grows indefinitely
Flowers are arranged in acropetal manner, older flowers are borne at the base and younger
flowers towards the apex.
Flowers are sessile

112
Drawing: Labelling:
1. Main axis 1. Main axis/ rachis/ penduncle
2. Younger flower at the top 2. Older flower/Big
3. Older flower at the bottom 3. Younger flower/Small
4. Sessile flower 4. Bract
5. Bracteate flowers/ bract

SPOT E
Identification: (Experimental set up to show that) CO2 is necessary for photosynthesis.
Reasons for Identification: (Any two)
Experimental leaf is kept in a conical flask
KOH (pellets) in the bottle/flask (for absorbing carbon dioxide).
On performing starch test control leaf turns blue black due to presence of starch and
experimental leaf does not turn blue black due to absence of starch as photosynthesis did
not occur in the experimental leaf due to absence of CO2 which was absorbed by KOH
pellets/ Experimental leaf gives ive result for starch test.

113
 Drawing: Labelling:
1. Leaf connected to potted plant 1. Leaf
2. One whole leaf inside the bottle 2. KOH
3. KOH present in the bottle 3. Conical flask/ bottle/ jar
4. Bottle is balanced by support 4. Light
5. Light source

GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
The L.S. of gynoecium- Q.1 (f)
Floral diagram- Q.1 (g)
A comprehensive explanation of the observation of Q.2 (g)
Spot E with relevant reasons. (Q.no. 4)
(b) Suggestions for candidates:
Learn semi-technical terms with correct spellings
Practice drawing all diagrams through observation. Draw neat well labelled diagrams.
Correlate theoretical concepts with the practicals.
Conceptual understanding is important.

114
 MATHEMATICS
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 44659
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 2
Mean Marks Obtained 68.13

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 1516 2083 12743 14622 13695
Percentage of Candidates 3.39 4.66 28.53 32.74 30.67
Cumulative Number 1516 3599 16342 30964 44659
Cumulative Percentage 3.39 8.06 36.59 69.33 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

32.74
35.00 30.67
28.53
Percentage of Candidates

30.00

25.00

20.00

15.00

10.00
4.66
3.39
5.00

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

115
 B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

SECTION A
Question 1 [10 3]
1 2
(i) Find the value of k if M = and M2 k M I2 = 0
2 3

(ii) Find the equation of an ellipse whose latus rectum is 8 and eccentricity is .
(iii) Solve: cos-1(sin cos-1x) =

(iv) x sin x
Using LHospitals rule, evaluate: lim
x0 x 2 sin x
2 y2
(v) Evaluate: y2 4
dy

2 ,0
(vi) Evaluate: , where f(x) =
3, 3
(vii) The two lines of regressions are 4x + 2y 3 = 0 and 3x + 6y + 5 = 0. Find the
correlation co-efficient between x and y.
(viii) A card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of playing cards. What is the probability
that it is either a spade or an ace or both?

(ix) If 1, and 2
are the cube roots of unity, prove that =

(x) Solve the differential equation: sin-1 = +

Comments of Examiners Suggestions for teachers

1 4 Revise all matrix operations in the
(i) A number of candidates wrote M2 as instead of
4 9
class. Pay heed to matrix
multiplication.
5 8
8 13 . Some candidates took k as matrix instead Identity matrix, null matrix and their
order should be explained
of k as scalar value while some candidates wrote thoroughly.
2 0 The topic of ellipse and hyperbola
I2 as which was not correct. I2 was an identity
0 2
should be taught separately and then
matrix of the order 22. their properties should be compared.
Horizontal and vertical ellipse
(ii) Some candidates took the length of latus rectum as 4a
should be explained thoroughly.
2b 2
instead of . A few candidates wrote the equation Relation b2=a2(1-e2) where e<1
a should be explained.

116
 x2 y2
of hyperbola in place of ellipse i.e. 1 instead
a2 b2
x2 y2
of 1 . A few candidates used eccentricity
a2 b2
formula, which was incorrect.
(iii) Many candidates did this question well but a few used
wrong value of cos , while some wrote incorrect
6
conversion of cos x in terms of sin-1 x. A few candidates
-1
wrote cos-1x in terms of tan-1x which made the expression
complicated.
(iv) Some candidates wrote incorrect differentiation of
numerator and denominator. They wrote differentiation
of 1-cosx as 1-sinx which was not correct. Some
wrote the differentiation of sinx as (-cosx).
(v) The power of numerator and denominator was equal in
the given integral so division was a must or addition and
subtraction of constant could also work but many
candidates forgot and tried to solve it as it was.
(vi) Candidates were able to score marks in this question.
(vii) Many candidates answered this question correctly.
However, a few candidates wrote incorrect regression
coefficient.
(viii) Many candidates found this topic difficult. Some did not
understand the meaning of either or term in the
question.
(ix) Many candidates wrote the formula but were not able to
apply it correctly. They put the value of w = -1-w 2 and
w2 = -1-w, which made the equation very complicated.
(x) A number of candidates wrote sin (x + y) as,
sin x + sin y which was incorrect. On the other hand,
some candidates were not able to substitute x + y = t. A
few candidates made calculation mistakes in this
question
117
Teach students derivations of
inverse Trigonometric functions.
0
Indeterminate forms i.e. , etc.
0
should be explained properly and
revision of differentiation chapter
must be done for practice.
L Hospitals rule must be taught
giving appropriate conditions to deal
with different indeterminate forms.
Teach students the properties of
definite integrals properly and their
use in area.
Coefficient of regression of lines y
on x and x on y should be explained
by explaining r = byx bxy and that the
value of r should be less than 1;
byx and bxy both positive, r will be
positive otherwise negative.
Theorem either or and theorem
AND should be explained properly
to students. Number of outcomes
and number of favourable outcomes
should be explained properly.
P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) P(A B);
P(A B)= P (A). P(B) and P (A/B)=
P( A B)
.
P( B)
Complex numbers should be divided
into different parts then explained
step by step. Application of cube
roots of unity needs to be explained
thoroughly. Stress upon the
techniques of solving such
questions.
Differential equations and various
forms i.e. separation of variables,
homogenous, linear differential
equations and their reducible forms
need to be revised by doing different
types of questions based on them.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.

(i) M 2 kM I 2 = 0
1 2 1 2 k 2k 1 0
- - 0
2 3 2 3 2k 3k 0 1

5 8 k 2k 1 0
= 0
8 13 2k 3k 0 1
5 k 8 2k 1 0
=
8 2k 13 3k 0 1

5 k = 1, 8 2k = 0, 13 3k = 1
k = 4
(ii) 2b 2
1
8; e =
a 3
b2 = 4a
b2 = a2

4a = a2
9
a
2
b2 = 18.
Equation of an ellipse:
4 x2 y2
+ = 1 or 8x2 + 9y2 = 162
81 18
(iii)
cos-1(sin cos-1x)
6

3
sin(cos-1x) = cos = =
6 2
3

2
3 1
1-x2 = x2 =
4 4
1
x
2

118
(iv)

=
sin x 1
x
Lt 0
6x 6
2 y2
(v) y2 4
dy

y2 4 4
2 dy
y2 4
1 y
= 2y - 8. tan 1 c
2 2
y
2y - 4 tan 1 c
2

3
(vi)
f ( x) dx
0

= +

(0 0) + 3 3 -
2
3
9-
2
(vii) Let the line of regression of x on y be
4x + 2y - 3 = 0
1 3
x= y+
2 4
1
bxy =
2

let the line of regression of y on x be

3x + 6y + 5 = 0
1 5
y= x-
2 6

1
byx =
2
119
 1 1 1
r2 = byx bxy = =
2 2 4

r= , since bxy and byx are negative.

(viii) P(E) =

(ix)

Multiplying numerator and denominator by

since

(x) sin-1 =x+y

Let

120
Question 2
(a) Using properties of determinants, prove that: [5]
1 2 2
2 1 2 = (1 + a2 + b2)3
2 2 1
(b) Given two matrices A and B [5]
1 2 3 11 5 14
A 1 4 1 and B = 1 1 2 ,
1 3 2 7 1 6
find AB and use this result to solve the following system of equations:
x 2y + 3z = 6, x + 4y + z = 12, x 3y + 2z = 1

Comments of Examiners
(a) Properties of determinants were not correctly
Suggestions for teachers
implemented by several candidates. A few expanded the
Plenty of practice must be given in
determinants directly without applying any property. They
using determinant properties. The
were not able to get zeroes in row or column. Some
idea of obtaining two zeroes in a row
applied useless properties which did not lead to result.
or a column is to be taught for
Rows and columns were not correctly identified by several
easiest simplification.
candidates.
Inverse of a square matrix needs to
(b) A few candidates found the product of AB incorrectly.
be taught step by step. Utilisation of
Many did not use the product of AB to solve the equation
the inverse to correctly find the
system. They found A-1 by using matrix inverse method.
unknown matrix needs to be grasped
Several candidates found incorrect cofactors hence their
properly. Product of two matrices
values of x, y, z were incorrect. Some candidates could not
needs attention. Sufficient practice
obtain adjoint and inverse of a matrix correctly.
is a must.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
(a) Replace C1 C1 bC3, C2 C2 +aC3 and take

Replace R3 by R3 bR1 to get

Expanding by C1, we get

121
 (b)

AB= -8 I

Question 3
(a) Solve the equation for x: , x 0 [5]
(b) A, B and C represent switches in on position and A', B' and C' represent them in [5]
off position. Construct a switching circuit representing the polynomial ABC +
ABC + ABC. Using Boolean Algebra, prove that the given polynomial can be
simplified to C(A + B). Construct an equivalent switching circuit.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates made mistakes while converting
Suggestions for teachers
sin-1 to cos-1 or vice versa. Many candidates got
All algebraic and trigonometric laws
incorrect algebraic equation independent from inverse
need to be revised thoroughly before
function. As a result they could not solve the equation
learning inverse trigonometric
further. Some candidates applied sin-1 formula but they
functions and their operations.
could not solve further.
Application of formula for inverse
(b) A few candidates made errors while constructing a
trigonometric functions needs
switching circuit. They made mistakes while
attention. Domains and range needs
simplifying the given polynomial. They were not able
to be explained properly.
to write distributive law at this step (AB + AB +
All properties of Boolean algebra
AB)C while a few wrote B + B = 0 which was need to be well understood before
incorrect. Some candidates made simplification errors application. Sufficient practice is a
while expanding the Boolean function by applying
must.
incorrect properties of Boolean algebra.

122
MARKING SCHEME
Question 3.
(a)

squaring on both sides

x = 13 is the required answer

(b) ABC+ABC +ABC

= ACB+ACB + ABC
=AC ( B+B) + ABC (B+B =1)
= AC + ABC
= (A+AB)C
=(A+A)(A+B) C
= (A+B) C

123
Question 4
(a) Verify Lagranges Mean Value Theorem for the following function:
[5]
f(x) = 2 sin x + sin2x on [0, ]
(b) Find the equation of the hyperbola whose foci are (0, 10) and passing through [5]
the point (2, 3).

Comments of Examiners Suggestions for teachers

Help students enumerate the criteria
(a) Many candidates failed to state all the criteria for application for mean value theorem correctly.
of Lagranges theorem correctly. The concept of closed or Firstly, the given function has to be
open was not clear to many candidates. A few candidates got continuous in the closed
confused with Rolles theorem condition f (a) = f (h). interval, secondly, the derivation of
(b) Some candidates did not have proper knowledge of given function needs to exist in open
hyperbola and conjugate hyperbola. They wrote incorrect interval and thirdly,
equation of hyperbola, hence got incorrect answer; a few f (b) f (a)
took 2ae = 10 which was incorrect (where 2ae is the f (c) = where c
ba
distance between the two foci). A few candidates found the exists in open interval. Explanation
value of a & b correctly but substituted incorrectly. of geometrical interpretation of
mean value theorem with the help of
figure is a must.
Stress upon conics noting details
with regard to their sketching and
derivation of their equations for
standard form as well as for other
modified forms. Regular practice of
conics is a must.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4.
(a) f(x) =(2 sinx + sin 2x) is continuous in [ 0,]
f '(x) exists in (0,)
f '(x) =2cos x + 2cos2x f(0) =0, f() =0
All the conditions of Lagranges Mean Value theorem are satisfied
there exist ' c ' in ( 0, )
( )- ( )
such that f (c)=
-
2cosc + 2cos2c = 0
2cos2c + cosc -1=0
cos c = -1, cos c = cos c = (not possible)

or cos c = cos
3

c= 0,
3

124
 c = /3 which lies between 0 to , hence, LMV theorem is verified.
(b) Foci 0, 10
be = 10
a2 = b2(e2 1) = b2e2 b2
a2 = 10 b2

let the equation be: - =1

1 9 a2 40 + 4 a2 = 10 a2 a4
a4 + 3a2 40 = 0
(a2 + 8) (a2 5) = 0 a2 = -8 or a2 = 5, (a2 can't be negative)
a2 = 5, b2 = 5
the required equation is

y2 x2 = 5

Question 5

(a)
If y = , prove that:
[5]
1
(b) Show that the rectangle of maximum perimeter which can be inscribed in a circle [5]
of radius 10 cm is a square of side 102 cm.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates wrote differentiation
cos-1 x incorrectly. Many candidates did not place
as y after first differentiation. Second order
derivation was incorrectly shown by several
candidates. Some made calculation mistakes while
simplifying the equation.
(b) Many candidates were not able to write the expression
in mathematical form. They were not able to express
the equation in one variable. A number of candidates
made calculation mistakes while differentiating.
of
Suggestions for teachers
Differentiation rules for different
functions and terms need attention.
A through revision is a must.
Explain to students the importance
of finding the second derivative.
They must show the condition of
maxima or minima as per the
requirement.

125
MARKING SCHEME
Question 5.
(a) y=
dy m
e m cos -1 x
dx 1 x2
dy
1 - x2 - my differentiating again wrt x.
dx

= -m
2

1 - x
2 d y
dx 2
x
dy
dx
= -m
dy
dx
1 x2

= - m (-my)

= m2y

(b) AB = 2x; BC = 2y
x2 + y2 = 102 4x2+ 4y2 = 400
2 x 2 y 20
2 2 2

P = 4x + 4y
= 4x + 4100- x D C
10
4 =0 52 0
2y
10

A B
2x
4 = 0

Hence, perimeter is maximum when x = 52

y = 52 x = y
ABCD is square of side 102 cm

126
Question 6
(a) Evaluate: [5]

1

(b) Find the smaller area enclosed by the circle x2 + y2 and the line x + y = 2. [5]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates were not able to integrate the given
Suggestions for teachers
expression. Some candidates could not decompose the
Partial fraction rule need to be
problem into partial fraction. Errors were also made while
understood and applied correctly.
integrating factors.
Methods of proper substitution need
(b) Many candidates attempted this part correctly by taking
attention.
arbitrary value of the radius of the circle.
A lot of practice of such problems
must be given by the teachers.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6.
(a) sec x
I= 1 cos ec x dx

= dx

=
Put t = sin x
dt = cos x dx

=

=
-

t = A(1+t)2 + B(1 t2) + c(1 t A(1 2t t 2 ) B Bt 2 C Ct

t t 2 ( A B) t (2 A C ) ( A B C )
A B 0, 2 A C 1, A B C 0
Solving equations we get
A = , ,

127
 I=

= |1 | |1 |

I=

(b) The required area: y

= 4 2 2
2
= 4 2 0 x

= 2 4+2 = 2 sq. units

Question 7
(a) Given that the observations are: [5]
(9, 4), (10, 3), (11, 1), (12, 0), (13, 1), (14, 3), (15, 5), (16, 8).
Find the two lines of regression and estimate the value of y when x = 135.

(b) In a contest the competitors are awarded marks out of 20 by two judges. The [5]
scores of the 10 competitors are given below. Calculate Spearmans rank
correlation.
Competitors A B C D E F G H I J
Judge A 2 11 11 18 6 5 8 16 13 15
Judge B 6 11 16 9 14 20 4 3 13 17

128
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates found byx and bxy incorrectly, as a
Suggestions for teachers
result, the two regression lines were incorrect. Some
Various methods of finding byx and
candidates found the value of y from given value of x
bxy should be taught giving
by using regression equation of x on y instead of y on
examples. Students should be
x. Several candidates were unable to calculate the
careful about the formulae for byx
correct values of xy, x2, y2, byx and bxy which led
and bxy as well as the regression
to wrong results.
equation of x on y and that of y on x.
(b) Some candidates calculated the ranks incorrectly.
Students should be given adequate
Correction factor for d2 was either incorrect or
practice to understand which
applied incorrectly in the formula for r. Some
formula is to be applied when ranks
candidates wrote incorrect formula for spearmans
are repeated and when ranks are not
rank correlation.
repeated.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 7.
(a) x y xy x2 y2
9 -4 -36 81 16
10 -3 -30 100 9 = = 125
11 -1 -11 121 1 = = 1125
12 0 0 144 0
byx =
13 1 13 169 1 ( )

14 3 42 196 9 =
( )
15 5 75 225 25
=
16 8 128 256 64
= 163
= = 1292 = 125
181
= 100 = 9

bxy=
( )

= = = 0596
( )
Line of regression of y on x
y = 163 (x 125)

Line of regression of x on y

x 125 = 0596 (y )

129
 x = 0596 y + 1183

y, when x = 135

y = 163 x - 1925

y = 163 135 - 1925

= 2755 = 276

(b) Judge A Judge B

2 6 10 8 2 4
11 11 5.5 6 -0.5 0.25
11 16 5.5 3 2.5 6.25
18 9 1 7 -6 36
6 14 8 4 4 16
5 20 9 1 8 64
8 4 7 9 -2 4
16 3 2 10 -8 64
13 13 4 5 -1 1
15 17 3 2 1 1
d =1965

r=16

= 1-

=1- 0 194

Question 8

(a) An urn contains 2 white and 2 black balls. A ball is drawn at random. If it is white, [5]
it is not replaced into the urn. Otherwise, it is replaced with another ball of the same
colour. The process is repeated. Find the probability that the third ball drawn is
black.

(b) Three persons A, B and C shoot to hit a target. If A hits the target four times in five [5]
trials, B hits it three times in four trials and C hits it two times in three trials, find
the probability that:
(i) Exactly two persons hit the target.
(ii) At least two persons hit the target.
(iii) None hit the target.

130
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates handled this problem well but some Suggestions for teachers
could not understand the underlying principle. Explain the correct interpretation of
(b) In some cases, the probability of hitting the target were not such problems.
found correctly. In part (ii), several candidates could not Laws of probability should be taught
understand the meaning of at least while some did not in detail with plenty of examples and
apply AND theorem. illustrations.
Terms such as at least, at most,
exact, none should be discussed
and problems based on them
practiced.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 8.
(a) P(E) = P(WWB) + P(WBB) + P(BWB) + P(BBB)

=
Alternate solution:
P(E) = P(WWB) + P(WBB) + P(BWB) + P(BBB)

(b) P(A) = , P(B) = , P(C) =

(i)
P ABC P ABC P ABC
=

= =

(ii)
P ABC P ABC P ABC P ABC

131
 = = =
(iii) P ABC
=

Question 9
(a) If z = x + iy, = and | |=1, find the locus of z and illustrate it in the [5]
Argand Plane.

(b) Solve the differential equation: [5]

1 + 1 0 when x = 0, y = 1

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most of the candidates made mistakes while finding the Suggestions for teachers
modulus as well as in the simplification to find the Interpret the locus of a complex
correct values of z. Illustration of z in the Argand plane number clearly. Explain the concept
was incorrectly shown by some candidates. of Argand plane. The procedure for
(b) Many candidates substituted y = vx and proceeded finding modulus must be revised
further to solve the given equation using the rules of thoroughly.
All forms of integration need
homogeneous equation, which was an incorrect
approach. The subsequent integrals were not correctly rigorous practice. The constant of
understood by some. A few candidates did not find the integration should not be ignored.
value of C (constant) under the given condition i.e. x=0,
y=1.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 9.
(a) =1

=
im (z)
=
Squaring 0, 4/3
4 + 4y + y2 + x2 = 4x2 + 4y2 -4y + 1 Type equation here.
3x2 + 3y2 8y 3 = 0 Re (z)
x2+ y2 y 1 = 0

Circle, Centre 0, and r = 1

=
132
(b)

Substitute

Integrating

when

SECTION B

Question 10
(a) Using vectors, prove that angle in a semicircle is a right angle. [5]
(b) Find the volume of a parallelopiped whose edges are represented by the vectors: [5]

a 2i 3 j 4k , b i 2 j k , and c 3i j 2k .

133
Comments of Examiners
(a) Most of the candidates were unable to proceed with the Suggestions for teachers
solution for a vector based geometrical question.
Vector symbols were not used by many candidates. Dot product and cross product
Some candidates did not show the arrow in the diagram should be explained well to students.
drawn by them. The dot product of vectors was found Students must be told to give proper
incorrectly by some candidates. direction to the vectors.
Vector algebra in totality needs to be
(b) The concept of scalar triple product was clear to most explained well to students,
of the candidates but some wrote dot product first and especially the properties of scalar
then cross product, which was incorrect. Some wrote [ triple product. Combination of dot
a b c ] in determinant form and made mistakes in and cross product in scalar triple
product needs thorough
calculation. understanding as well as rigorous
practice.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 10.
(a) Let O be the centre of the circle and AB be the diameter. C is a point on the circumference. Take O as

the origin and let OA a and OC c C

Therefore, OB a

A O B

= = 0, Where r is radius
Therefore, angle ACB is a right angle.

(b) The volume of the parallolepiped is:

2 1 1 1 1 2
=2 3 4
1 2 3 2 3 1
= 25 + 35 - 4(-5)
= 25 + 35 4 (-5)
= 45 cubic units

134
Question 11
(a) Find the equation of the plane passing through the intersection of the planes: [5]
x + y + z +1 = 0 and 2x 3y + 5z 2 = 0 and the point ( 1, 2, 1).
(b) Find the shortest distance between the lines = + 2 + 3 + (2 + 3 + 4 [5]
and = 2 + 4 + 5 + (4 + 6 + 8
Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates wrote incorrect equation of
Suggestions for teachers
the plane passing through the intersection of planes.
Teach the equation of plane
Some made mistakes in calculating the value of . A
thoroughly. Cartesian and vector of
few candidates applied the condition of
plane should be revised by
perpendicularity in this question which was incorrect.
practicing different types of
(b) A number of candidates were unable to calculate the questions.
correct values of a1 , a2 andb . Some made mistakes in The concept of parallel and non-
parallel lines needs to be explained
calculating ( a2 a ). The concepts of skew lines and clearly to students.
parallel lines were not clear to many candidates.
Some candidates calculated b1 b 0 . They were unable to understand that the given lines are
parallel. A few candidates applied wrong formula to calculate the shortest distance between the given
lines.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 11.
(a) Equation of plane passing through the intersection of the given planes is:
(x + y + z + 1) +k (2x -3y + 5z- 2)=0
If this plane passes through (-1,2,1) then
( -1+2+1+1) +k ( -2 6 + 5 -2) =0
3 =5k
K=3/5
5(x+y+z+1)+ 3(2x-3y+5z -2)=0

11x- 4y + 20z -1 =0 Or equivalent form

(b) Here, a1 + 2 + 3 and a2 = 2 + 4+ 5

135
 shortest distance = 0.415

Question 12
(a) Box I contains two white and three black balls. Box II contains four white and one [5]
black balls and box III contains three white and four black balls. A dice having three
red, two yellow and one green face, is thrown to select the box. If red face turns up,
we pick up box I, if a yellow face turns up we pick up box II, otherwise, we pick up
box III. Then, we draw a ball from the selected box. If the ball drawn is white, what
is the probability that the dice had turned up with a red face?
(b) Five dice are thrown simultaneously. If the occurrence of an odd number in a single [5]
dice is considered a success, find the probability of maximum three successes.

136
Comments of Examiners
(a) The concept of Bayes theorem was clear to most
candidates but some candidates found incorrect
probability. While some candidates found conditional
probability for the happening of an event incorrectly, even
probability of a specific known event was found wrongly
by a few candidates.
(b) Many candidates were unable to understand the problem
correctly. The concept of P (x 3) was not clear to many
candidates. Probability distribution theory was incorrectly
applied by some candidates.
Suggestions for teachers
Teach Bayes theorem with proper
explanation and illustration. Pay
heed to the laws of total probability.
Give adequate practice of Bayes
theorem.
Revise Binomial theorem in the
class thoroughly before teaching the
probability distribution theory.
Explain each term in the expansion.
Train students about the situation of
maximum three successes and
minimum three successes.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 12.
(a) P(A) = 3/6 , P(B) = 2/6,P(C) =1/6
Let D be the probability of drawing a white ball.
P ( D/A) =2/5, P(D/B) = 4/ 5, P(D /C) = 3/7

P( A/D) = P(A) P(D/A)

P(A)P(D/A) +P(B)P(D/B) +P(C) P(D/C)

= 3/6 2/5
(3/6 2/5+ 2/6 4/5 + 1/6 3/7)

= ( 6/30 )x(210/113)
= 42/113 = 0.37
(b) n = 5, p = , q =
p(x ) = 1 p(x=4,5)

=1-

=1 = 0.81

137
 SECTION C

Question 13
(a) Mr. Nirav borrowed 50,000 from the bank for 5 years. The rate of interest is [5]
9% per annum compounded monthly. Find the payment he makes monthly if he pays
back at the beginning of each month.
(b) A dietician wishes to mix two kinds of food X and Y in such a way that the mixture [5]
contains at least 10 units of vitamin A, 12 units of vitamin B and 8 units of vitamin
C. The vitamin contents of one kg food is given below:
Food Vitamin A Vitamin B Vitamin C
X 1unit 2 units 3 units
Y 2 units 2 units 1 unit

One kg of food X costs 24 and one kg of food Y costs 36. Using Linear
Programming, find the least cost of the total mixture which will contain the required
vitamins.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Instead of present value of an annuity due, some Suggestions for teachers
candidates used the formula for present value of an Explain the difference between
ordinary Annuity. Number of instalments (n) was not annuities due and ordinary
calculated in terms of months, even rate of interest was not annuities by giving examples.
Train students to read the
calculated per month by a few candidates. Many question carefully, understand
candidates used wrong formulae. the meaning of the question and
apply the formula accordingly.
(b) Many candidates took incorrect inequality sign, hence
A thorough and regular practice
they got incorrect feasible region and their corner points is a must.
were also incorrect. Some candidates did not show any Give practice to students in
graphical representation of the inequalities. In some cases, sketching of lines. They should
be asked to express the line in
the representation of the problem was not up to the mark,
intercept form i.e. x/a+ y/b =1,
and the work was not systematic resulting in candidates so that sketching is easy. Correct
missing the point of minimum cost. feasible region and its plotting is
important.

138
MARKING SCHEME
Question 13.
(a) Here, P = 50000, i = 0.0075 and n = 60

Now, P = (1+i)[1-(1+i)-n]

50000 = (1+0.0075)[1-(1+0.0075)-60]
.

50000 = (1.0075)[1-(1.0075)-60]
.

A=

= 1030.2
Thus, monthly installment should be Rs.1,030.2

(b) Let there be x units of food x and y units of food y.

y
Min z = 24x + 36y
Subject to the constraints
x + 2y 10
2x + 2y 12
3x+ y 8 X
x 0, y 0 0

x y Z(cost)
10 0 240
0 8 288
1 5 204
2 4 192 (Min. cost)

Question 14
(a) A bill for 7,650 was drawn on 8th March, 2013, at 7 months. It was discounted [5]
on 18th May, 2013 and the holder of the bill received 7,497. What is the rate of
interest charged by the bank?
(b) [5]
The average cost function, AC for a commodity is given by AC = x + 5 + ,
in terms of output x. Find:
(i) The total cost, C and marginal cost, MC as a function of x.
(ii) The outputs for which AC increases.

139
Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates calculated discounted days Suggestions for teachers
incorrectly. They were not able to calculate the rate of Explain Bills of exchange in detail.
interest. Some tried to find r by using B.G. while others Differentiate the B.D, T.D and B.G.
used T.D. A few candidates took the difference of Rs. 7650 The procedure for calculating the
and Rs. 7497 as interest and applied the present worth due date should be taught clearly.
formula which was not correct. Some candidates used The concepts of Marginal Cost,
formula T.D = A ni instead of B.D = Ani. Total Cost and Average Cost should
1 ni be taught in depth for increasing and
(b) Some candidates wrote incorrect formula of cost function, decreasing functions by giving
so their marginal cost was incorrect. Some wrote incorrect sufficient examples.
differentiation of the expression. Many candidates were Familiarize students with the
not able to answer the second part of the question. They different terms used in this question
were confused with the maximum minimum condition. by giving adequate practice.
They found the derivative and put it equal to zero.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 14.
(a) Face value of the bill= 7650 = A
Discounted value of the bill = 7497
Bankers discount=( 7650 -7497)
= 153
Nominal due date is 8th October (8th October + 3 days of grace).
Legal due date of the bill is 11October
Number of unexpired days from 8 May to 11 October is 146 days n =(2/5)year
Bankers discount =Ani
153 = 7650 r (2/5)
r =(1/20) = 0.05 r = 5%

(b) Cost function C = AC x = (x + 5 + + 5x + 36

also, 5 1

For AC to be increasing > 0 1- 0

Hence, average cost increases if the output x is > 6.

140
Question 15
(a) Calculate the index number for the year 2014, with 2010 as the base year by the [5]
weighted aggregate method from the following data:
Commodity Price in Weight
2010 2014
A 2 4 8
B 5 6 10
C 4 5 14
D 2 2 19

(b) The quarterly profits of a small scale industry (in thousands of rupees) is as follows : [5]

Year Quarter Quarter Quarter Quarter

1 2 3 4
2012 39 47 20 56
2013 68 59 66 72
2014 88 60 60 67

Calculate four quarterly moving averages. Display these and the original figures
graphically on the same graph sheet.
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates used the weighted average of price
relative method instead of weighted aggregate method
to calculate the index number. A number of candidates
wrote incorrect formula of weighted aggregate
method.
(b) Some candidates did not calculate centered moving
average. Several candidates made mistakes while
finding the four yearly moving averages as well as
centered moving averages. Plotting of the centered
average was inaccurate in a few cases.
Suggestions for teachers
A thorough and comprehensive
practice for calculation of Index
number by various method is a must.
Students must be advised to read the
question carefully so as to work out
the question using the correct
method.
Students must be advised to practice
various methods for finding moving
averages rigorously. They must be
taught to plot a neat graph for both
actual and trend.

141
MARKING SCHEME
Question 15.
(a)
Commodity 2010 2014 p1w pow
po w p1 w
A 2 8 4 8 32 16
B 5 10 6 10 60 50
C 4 14 5 14 70 56
D 2 19 2 19 38 38
200 160

The index number for the year 2014 with 2010 as the base year is 100 = 125
(b) Year Quarter Quarterly 4 yearly moving 4 yearly average 4 yearly centered
profits total moving average
2012 1 39

2 47
162 40.5
3 20 44.125
191 47.75
4 56 49.25
203 50.75
2013 1 68 56.5
249 62.25
2 59 64.25
265 66.25
3 66 68.75
285 71.25
4 72 71.375
286 71.5
2014 1 88 70.75
280 70
2 60 69.375
275 68.75
3 60

4 67
Correct Graph

Note: For questions having more than one correct solution, alternate correct solutions, apart from
those given in the marking scheme, have also been accepted.

142
GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
Determinant properties and their use.
Conics (parabola, ellipse, hyperbola)
Application of L Hospitals rule.
Indefinite Integrals, Definite Integrals.
Inverse trigonometric functions.
Area of curves.
Probability (Both sections) and probability distribution.
Differential equations.
Complex numbers.
Vectors.
3D plane & straight-line.
Annuities.
Linear programming.
Regression lines.
(b) Concepts between which candidates got confused:
Conics (parabola, ellipse, hyperbola)
Open & closed intervals for Mean value theorem.
Conversion of inverse trigonometric functions.
Regression coefficient byx & bxy and r.
Differential equations (Linear & Homogeneous form)
Geometrical problem in vectors.
Annuity due & ordinary annuity.
Bankers discount & bankers gain.
Price relative and aggregate method in Index No.
Shortest distance between skew lines and parallel lines.
Probability distribution (conceptual problem)
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
Learn to use the easiest method with correct formula for solving a problem.
Theorem, rules and laws to be well understood.
In each chapter, go through the theory and concepts thoroughly followed by solving the
illustrations, examples without looking at their solutions.
Revise and practice from previous years question paper and sample papers.
Question paper needs to be read carefully and answered accordingly.
Wise choices should be made from the options available.
All steps of calculation need to be simplified before proceeding to the next step.
Take sufficient rest before the examination.
Utilize the reading time properly.

143
 COMPUTER SCIENCE
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 18,375
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 1
Mean Marks Obtained 86.23

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 16 59 1156 4352 12792
Percentage of Candidates 0.09 0.32 6.29 23.68 69.62
Cumulative Number 16 75 1231 5583 18375
Cumulative Percentage 0.09 0.41 6.70 30.38 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

69.62
70.00
Percentage of Candidates

60.00

50.00

40.00

30.00 23.68

20.00
6.29
10.00
0.09 0.32

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100

Marks Obtained

144
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE
PART I
Answer all questions.
While answering questions in this Part, indicate briefly your working and reasoning,
wherever required.
Question 1
(a) Simplify: (A + C)(A+ AD) + AC + C [2]
(b) Draw a logic circuit for (A + B)(C + D)C [2]
(c) Verify the following proposition with the help of a truth table: [2] [2]
P (~P Q) = P Q
(d) State De Morgans law and verify it, using a truth table. [2]

(e) Answer the questions related to the circuit given below: [2]

X
Y

(i) Give the output if, X=1 and Y=0

(ii) Name the basic gate represented by the above diagram.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most of the candidates answered well. Some
reduced the expression in one step without showing
the working. In a few cases, the laws were used
incorrectly. Some candidates were unable to open
the brackets in the expression
(b) Some candidates interchanged the gates. i.e. OR
gate with AND gate and vice versa.
(c) This part was well answered by most candidates.
Some were confused with symbols and V and
interchanged them in the truth table. Some solved
algebraically instead of using the truth table.
(d) A number of candidates proved both the laws of De
Morgan. A few candidates mentioned some other
law. Some wrote Break the line and change the
sign which is not the law, but a way to remember
the law.
(e) (i) Most of the candidates attempted this part well
except for a few who gave the answer as 0.
(ii) A few candidates mentioned the name of the
gate used in the circuit instead of the basic
gate the circuit represents. i.e NOR gate
instead of OR gate.
Suggestions for teachers
Students should be told to show the
working and mention the laws, if
necessary in such type of questions.
Knowledge of the laws and practice
in their application is important.
Logic gates and logic circuits must
be practiced with almost every
expression.
Propositional logic should be taught
using all terms that are required.
The symbols used in propositions
must be explained.
All the laws of Boolean algebra
must be practiced and proved with
the help of truth table.
Logic circuits with objective type
expression must be done.
More practice must be given for
Universal Gates.

145
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
(a) Simplify: (A + C) (A + AD) + AC + C
(A + C) A + AC + C
A + AC +AC + C
A+C
(b) Logic circuit for ( A+B ) . ( C+D) . C

(c) Proving of P ~P Q = P Q
LHS RHS
P Q ~P ~P Q P ~P Q PQ
0 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 1 0 0 1 1

(d) De Morgans law states that the complement of sum of the variables is same as product
of the individual complements of the variables and vice-versa.
(A.B)' = A' + B' (A+B)' = A' . B'

A B A.B (A.B) A+B

0 0 0 1 1
0 1 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 0 0
(e) (i) 1
(ii) OR gate

146
Question 2
(a) Define computational complexity. Calculate the complexity using BigO notation [2]
for the following code segment:
for(int k=0;k<n;k++)
s+=k;
(b) Convert the following infix notation into postfix form: [2] [2]
X + ( Y Z ) +(( W + E) * F ) / J
(c) Differentiate between this keyword and super key word. [2]
(d) The array D[-210][38] contains double type elements. If the base address is [2]
4110, find the address of D[4][5], when the array is stored in Column Major Wise.
(e) State any two characteristics of a Binary tree. [2]

Comments of Examiners
(a) This part was answered well by most of the candidates.
Several candidates used examples to illustrate the Suggestions for teachers
answer. A few candidates found it difficult to provide More practice must be given in
appropriate definition. Some candidates wrote k complexity of a code or a segment.
instead of n for complexity All definitions related to
(b) Most candidates were able to solve this problem complexity must be covered.
correctly. Some candidates wrote the correct answer Examples need to be practiced with
without showing the working. Some applied the conversion of Infix to Postfix
postfix correctly, but could not derive the final answer. notation using direct method or the
Order of precedence was not clear and the placement stack method. The order of
of + sign was improper in several cases. precedence must be explained.
(c) Examples were used by a number of candidates to Java keywords must be explained
show the difference. In some cases, only super and practiced in programs for better
keyword was explained. understanding.
(d) A number of candidates were confused with the width Size of various data types must be
of the cell and assumed different values. Some wrote explained as it is necessary in such
the answer directly without showing the working or type of questions. Formula and
mentioning the formula. working should also be shown.
(e) Various answers were given by candidates. Some More practice must be given in
explained with the help of a diagram. Binary Tree, its parts and
characteristics.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
(a) Computational complexity is the growth rate or measurement of an algorithm. The level in difficulty in
solving mathematically posed problems as measured by the time, number of steps or arithmetic operations,
or memory space required (called time complexity, computational complexity, and space complexity,
respectively).
Complexity of the segment = O(n)
(b) = X+ ( Y Z ) +( ( W + E) * F ) / J

147
 = X + Y Z - + ( W E + * F) / J
=X+ YZ-+WE+F* /J
=X+YZ-+ WE+F* J/
=XYZ +WE+F*J/+
(c) this ( ) is used to refer to the instance variables of the class.
super ( ) is used to invoke the super classs constructor/ instance variable/methods
(d) The given values are:
B = 4110, W = 8 bytes or 64 bits for double type , I = 4, J = 5, Lr = -2, Lc = 3,
M = (10- (-2)+1 = 10+2+1 = 13
Address of A [ I ][ J ] = B + W * [ ( I - Lr ) + M * ( J - Lc ) ]
= 4110 + 8 * [(4 - (-2)) + 13 * (5 - 3)]
= 4110 + 8 * [6 + 13*2]
= 4110 + 8 * [6+26]
= 4110 + 8 * [32] = 4110 + 256 OR = 4110 + 64 * [32] = 4110 + 2048
= 4366 (Ans) = 6158 (Ans)
(e) 1. It is acyclic
2. No two node can be similar or identical
3. It is recursive
4. There is only one unique path between two nodes.
5. Rooted data structure OR Linear data structure OR Dynamic data structure
6. Every node has a maximum of two sub nodes ( or maximum degree 2 )

Question 3
(a) The following function is a part of some class. Assume x and y are positive
integers, greater than 0. Answer the given questions along with dry run / working.
void someFun(int x, int y)
{
if(x>1)
{ if(x%y==0)
{ System.out.print(y+ );
someFun(x/y, y);
}
else
someFun(x, y+1);
}
}

148
 (i) What will be returned bysomeFun(24,2)? [2]
(ii) What will be returned bysomeFun(84,2)? [2]
(iii) State in one line what does the function someFun( )do, apart from [1]
recursion?
(b) The following is a function of some class which checks if a positive integer is an
Armstrong number by returning true or false. (A number is said to be Armstrong if
the sum of the cubes of all its digits is equal to the original number.)The function
does not use modulus (%) operator to extract digit. There are some places in the
code marked by ?1?, ?2?, ?3?, ?4?, ?5?which may be replaced by a
statement/expression so that the function works properly.

boolean ArmstrongNum( int N )

{
int sum= ?1?;
int num=N;
while( num>0)
{
int f= num/10;
int s = ?2?;
int digit = num s;
sum+= ?3?;
num = ?4?;
}
if(?5? )
return true;
else
return false;
}
[
(i) What is the statement or expression at ?1? [1]
(ii) What is the statement or expression at ?2? [1]
(iii) What is the statement or expression at ?3? [1]
(iv) What is the statement or expression at ?4? [1]
(v) What is the statement or expression at ?5? [1]

149
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates used examples to illustrate the
answer. A number of candidates found it difficult to
provide an appropriate definition. A few candidates
wrote k instead of n for complexity
(b) Most candidates were able to solve this problem
correctly. Some candidates wrote the correct answer
without showing the working. Some applied the
postfix correctly, but could not derive the final
answer. The order of precedence was not clear and
the placement of + sign was improper in several
cases. A few candidates interpreted the expression as
sum = = num instead of sum = = N.
Suggestions for teachers
Students should be asked to show
the working and explain with
memory blocks. More practice
must be given in Recursive
techniques.
Practice should be given to
understand the program line by line
and derive at a conclusion of what
the function is doing.
More practice should be given on
programs using conditions / looping
and other output related programs.
Teachers are expected to show the
dry run/ working of program and
emphasize that working is
necessary to get full credit. More
practice must be given in standard
programs.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3.
(a) (i) someFun(24, 2)
24>1 true 24%2==0 true output 2
someFun(24/2, 2)
12>1 true 12%2==0 true output 2
someFun(12/2, 2)
6>1 true 6%2==0 true output 2
someFun(6/2, 2)
3>1 true 3%2==0 false call someFun(3, 3)
someFun(3, 3)
3>1 true 3%3==0 true output 3
someFun(3/3, 3) 1>1 false

OUTPUT: 2 2 2 3
(ii)someFun(84, 2)
84>1 true 84%2==0 true output 2
someFun(42/2, 2)
42>1 true 42%2==0 true output 2
someFun(42/2, 2)
21>1 true 21%2==0 false call someFun(21, 3)
someFun(21, 3)
21>1 true 21%3==0 true output 3
someFun(7/3, 3)

150
 7>1 true 7%3==0 false call someFun(7, 4)
someFun(7, 4)
7>1 true 7%4==0 false call someFun(7, 5)
someFun(7, 5)
7>1 true 7%5==0 false call someFun(7, 6)
someFun(7, 6)
7>1 true 7%6==0 false call someFun(7, 7)
someFun(7, 7)
7>1 true 7%7==0 true output 7
someFun(7/7, 7) 1>1 false

OUTPUT: 2 2 3 7
(iii) Generating Prime factors.
(b) (i) 0
(ii) f * 10;
(iii) digit*digit*digit; OR Math.pow(digit,3)) ;
(iv) num / 10; OR f;
(v) sum = = N OR N= = sum

PART II
Answer seven questions in this part, choosing three questions from
Section A, two from Section B and two from Section C.
SECTION - A
Answer any three questions.
Question 4
(a) Given the Boolean function F(A, B, C, D) = (0,1,2,3,5,7,8,9,10,11).
(i) Reduce the above expression by using 4-variable Karnaugh map, showing [4]
the various groups (i.e. octal, quads and pairs).
(ii) Draw the logic gate diagram for the reduced expression. Assume that the [1]
variables and their complements are available as inputs.
(b) Given the Boolean function:
P(A, B, C, D) = ABC'D' + A'BC'D' + A'BC'D + ABC'D + A'BCD + ABCD
(i) Reduce the above expression by using 4-variable Karnaugh map, showing [4]
the various groups (i.e. octal, quads and pairs).
(ii) Draw the logic gate diagram for the reduced expression. Assume that the [1]
variables and their complements are available as inputs.

151
Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Most candidates fared well in this part. Some
candidates were not able to draw the K-Map
for the POS expression correctly. For a number
of candidates the Map rolling concept was
not very clear. Grey coding and labelling the
K-Map was not clear to a number of
candidates.
(ii) Some candidates drew the logic circuit using
NOR gates while some others drew vague
diagrams.
(b) (i) Many candidates made errors in place value
and putting variables in K-Map. In other cases,
the groups were reduced by laws. Several
candidates drew the K-Map incorrectly. Some
converted the canonical form to cardinal form
and then reduced it. Many candidates included
the redundant group in the final expression
(ii) Some candidates drew the logic circuit using
NAND gates while some others drew vague
diagrams.
152
Suggestions for teachers
Make students reduce POS and
SOP expressions using K-Map
simultaneously. Students should be
told not to include the redundant
group in the final expression.
Reducing the groups by laws is not
needed. Only direct answer for the
groups to be written in the reduced
expression.
More and more practice should be
given in drawing logic circuits
using basic gates and also with
universal gates.
Emphasize on arranging the
variables in proper order and the
importance of cell values
corresponding with the variables.
Explain clearly how the group are
framed and reduced. Redundant
groups are not to be included in the
final reduced expression.
More practice should be given in
drawing logic circuits using basic
gates and also with universal gates.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 4.
(a) F (A,B,C,D) = (0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 8 , 9 , 10 , 11 )

C+D C+D C+D C+D

0 1 3 2
A+B 0 0 0 0
4 5 7 6
A+B 1 0 0 1

12 13 15 14
A+B 1 1 1 1

8 9 11 10
A+B 0 0 0 0

There is one Octal and one Quad :

Octal : ( M0 M1 M2 M3 M8 M9 M10 M11) = B

Quad : ( M1 M3 M5 M7) = A + D

Hence F (A,B,C,D) = B . (A + D)

153
(b) P (A,B,C,D) =ABCD + ABCD + ABCD + ABCD + ABCD + ABCD

CD CD CD CD

0 1 3 2
AB
4 5 7 6
AB 1 1 1

12 13 15 14
AB 1 1 1

8 9 11 10
AB

There are two quads :

Quad1 (m4+ m5+ m12+ m13) = BC Quad 2 (m5+ m7+ m13+ m15 ) = BD

Hence P (A, B, C, D) = BC + BD

154
Question 5
A person is allowed to travel in a reserved coach of the train, if he/she satisfies the [10]
criteria given below:
The person has a valid reservation ticket and a valid ID proof.
OR
The person does not have a valid reservation ticket, but holds a valid pass
issued by the Railway department with a valid ID proof.
OR
The person is a disabled person and holds a valid pass issued by the Railway
department along with a valid ID proof.
The inputs are:
INPUTS
R The person has a valid reservation ticket.
P The person holds a valid pass issued by the Railway department.
D The person has a valid ID proof.
H The person is a disabled person.
(In all the above cases 1 indicates yes and 0indicatesno).
Output : T Denotes allowed to travel (1 indicates yes and 0 indicates no in all the
cases)
(a) Draw the truth table for the inputs and outputs given above and write the POS [5]
expression for T(R, P, D, H).
(b) Reduce T(R, P, D, H) using Karnaugh map. [5]
Draw the logic gate diagram for the reduced POS expression for T(R, P, D, H)
using only NOR gates. You may use gates with two or more inputs. Assume that
the variable and their complements are available as inputs.

155
Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates were able to attempt this part Suggestions for teachers
satisfactorily. Some candidates did not mention the Students should be told to read the
final expression. Some were confused with the POS question carefully and answer
expression and took the output with 1s instead of accordingly so that no part is left
0s. A few candidates took 0s as outputs but wrote unanswered. More practice should
the minterms instead of maxterms. be given to derive SOP and POS
(b) Many candidates fared well in this part. However, expression from any given
some candidates were not able to draw the K-Map for truth table (i.e. Minterms and
the POS expression correctly. For a number of Maxterms )
candidates the map rolling concept was not very Make students reduce POS and
clear. Some converted the canonical form to cardinal SOP expressions using K-Map
form and then reduced it. NOR gates in the circuit simultaneously. Students should be
was ignored by a few candidates. told not to include the redundant
group in the final expression. The
circuit diagram for the reduced
expression must be practiced both
with basic gates and universal
gates.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5.
(a)
T
R P D H
(OUTPUT)
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0 0
0 0 1 1 0
0 1 0 0 0
0 1 0 1 0
0 1 1 0 1
0 1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 1 0
1 0 1 0 1
1 0 1 1 1
1 1 0 0 0
1 1 0 1 0
1 1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1

POS Expression: T (R ,P, D , H) = (0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 8 , 9 , 12 , 13)

156
(b)

D+H D+H D+H D+H

0 1 3 2
R+P 0 0 0 0
4 5 7 6
R+P 0 0 1 1

12 13 15 14
R+P 0 0 1 1

8 9 11 10
R+P 0 0 1 1

There is one Octal and one Quad :

Octal : ( M0 M1 M4 M5 M8 M9 M12 M13) = D

Quad : ( M0 M1 M2 M3) = R+P

Hence T (R,P,D,H) = D . (R + P)
R
(R+P)
P [(R+P)+D]
D

Question 6
(a) Draw the truth table and logic gate diagram for an Octal to Binary encoder. [4]
(b) What is a Multiplexer? State an application of a Multiplexer. Also, draw the logic [4]
diagram of a 4:1 Multiplexer.
(c) Verify the following expression using Boolean laws. Also, mention the law used at [2]
each step of simplification. [3]
XYZ + XY'Z + XYZ' = X ( Y + Z )

157
Comments of Examiners
Suggestions for teachers
(a) Most of the candidates answered this part correctly. A few More practice should be given in
candidates drew the decimal encoder while some others drawing encoder and decoder. Use
drew the gates wrong. of proper connector and gates must
(b) Some candidates wrote the definition instead of application be explained.
and in some cases block diagrams were used instead. Some More practice must be given in
candidates interchanged the gates in the circuit diagram. drawing of multiplexer.
(c) While most candidates answered this part correctly, some Explanation of various gates and
did not mentioned the laws. A few candidates wrote the their use must be emphasized
answer directly in one step. Tell students that laws must be
mentioned while reducing,
minimizing or proving an
expression.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6.
(a) Truth table for Octal to Binary Encoder : Input Output
Octal number B2 B1 B0
0 0 0 0
1 0 0 1
2 0 1 0
3 0 1 1
4 1 0 0
5 1 0 1
6 1 1 0
7 1 1 1
Logic Diagram for Octal to Binary Encoder :
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7

B2 B1 B0

(b) Multiplexer: It is a combinational circuit which inputs parallel data and outputs one serial
data.

Application: (1) It is used as data selector.

(2) Routing of signals
(3) Data transmission
(4) Telephone exchange ,Tv etc.

158
(c) X.Y.Z + X.Y.Z + X.Y.Z = X .( Y + Z )
= X.Y.Z + X.Y.Z + X.Y.Z
= X.Y.(Z + Z ) + X.Y.Z Complimentary law: Z+Z=1
= X.Y + X.Y.Z
= X.(Y + Y.Z ) Distributive law: A + B.C = (A+B).(A+C)
= X.[ (Y + Y) .( Y+Z ) ] Complimentary law: Y+Y=1
= X.( Y+Z )

Question 7
(a) Derive a Boolean expression for the logic circuit given below and reduce the derived [3]
expression, using Boolean laws:
A o
B o o
C o X

(b) What are universal gates? Construct a logic circuit using NAND gates only for the [3]
expression: A (B + C)
(c) Define Half Adders. Draw the circuit diagram and the truth table for a Half Adder. [4]

159
Comments of Examiners
Suggestions for teachers
(a) Most of the candidates answered this part correctly.
Some candidates gave incomplete answers. A few
candidates could not reduce the expression. Some
wrote the answer directly without mentioning the
intermediate points.
(b) Some candidates used basic gates in drawing the
logic circuit instead of NAND gates. The concept of
Universal gates not clear to a number of candidates.
(c) Some candidates drew wrong circuit diagrams. The
circuits for partial sum and carry were done
separately and not as one circuit in some cases.
More practice should be given in
deriving expression for any circuit
diagram and then reducing it.
Drawing of logic circuits using
universal gates must be explained
clearly. Proving of universality of
gates must be explained.
More practice should be given in
drawing half adder and full adder
and also the truth table and
expression of both adders. Students
must be told that Half Adder is one
circuit and not two different
circuits.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 7.

(a) 1. (A.B.C)
2. (A.B.C)
3. (A.B.C) . C
4. (A.B.C) . C + ( A.B.C)
(A+B+C) . C + (A+B+C)
(A+B+C) . (C+1)
A+B+C

(b) Universal gates are derived gates which can perform the function of all basic gates. NAND gate
and NOR gate are Universal gates.

(c) Half adders are combinational circuits which adds two input binary bits and output two binary
bits. (Partial Sum and Carry).

160
 Truth table of half adder :

A B Partial Sum Carry

0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 1

OR

SECTION B
Answer any two questions.
Each program should be written in such a way that it clearly depicts the logic of the problem.
This can be achieved by using mnemonic names and comments in the program.
(Flowcharts and Algorithms are not required.)
The programs must be written in Java.
Question 8
A class Admission contains the admission numbers of 100 students. Some of the data [10]
members / member functions are given below:
Class name : Admission
Data member/instance variable:
Adno[ ] : integer array to store admission numbers
Member functions/methods:
Admission( ) : constructor to initialize the array elements
void fillArray( ) : to accept the elements of the array in ascending
order
int binSearch(int l, int u, int v) : to search for a particular admission number (v)
using binary search and recursive technique
and returns 1 if found otherwise returns -1
Specify the class Admission giving details of the constructor, void fillArray( ) and
int binSearch(int, int, int) . Define the main( ) function to create an object and call the
functions accordingly to enable the task.

161
Comments of Examiners
Most of the candidates were able to attempt this part
Suggestions for teachers
correctly. Common errors made by candidates in this
More practice should be given in
question were: the concept of recursion was not clear to
solving programs using recursive
some candidates; several candidates did not use the
techniques. Much attention should
parameters in the function; some took extra variables
be paid by the teachers towards
while others did not initialize the array in the constructor;
recursion and its techniques with
a few candidates wrote the function binsearch( ) without
examples. Knowledge of base case
using the recursive technique. The other function
and recursive case should be given
including the constructor was well answered. Some
to the students for every program
candidates did not write the main( ) function and also
using recursive technique. Invoking
ignored the comments to be given in the program.
function within another function
should be given more practice. The
students should create recursive
code for most iteration cases.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 8.

import java.util.*;
public class Admission
{ static Scanner x=new Scanner(System.in);
int Adno[]=new int[100];
Admission(){ }
void fillArray()
{
System.out.println("Enter 100 elements in ascending order ");
for(int i=0;i<100;i++)
Adno[i]=x.nextInt();
}

int binSearch(int l,int u,int v)

{ int m=(l+u)/2;
if(Adno[m]==v)
return 1; OR return m;
else if(l>u)
return -1;
else if(Adno[m]>v)
return binSearch(l,m-1,v); OR u = m-1
else else
return binSearch(m+1,u,v); l= m+1
} return binSearch (l,u,v);

static void main()

{ Admission obj=new Admission();

162
 obj.fillArray();
System.out.println("Enter value to be searched");
int v=x.nextInt();
int p=obj.binSearch(0,obj.Adno.length-1,v);

if(p==-1)
System.out.println("No. not found");
else
System.out.println("No. is present " );
}
}

Question 9
A class Merger concatenates two positive integers that are greater than 0 and produces a [10]
new merged integer.
Example: If the first number is 23 and the second is 764, then the concatenated number
will be 23764.
Some of the members of the class are given below:
Class name : Merger
Data members/instance variables:
n1 : long integer to store first number
n2 : long integer to store second number
mergNum : long integer to store the merged number
Member functions:
Merger() :
constructor to initialize the data members
void readNum( ) to accept the values of the data members n1 and
:
n2
voidJoinNum( ) : to concatenate the numbers n1 and n2 and store
it in mergNum
void show( ) : to display the original numbers and the merged
number with appropriate messages
Specify the class Merger, giving the details of the constructor, void readNum( ),void
JoinNum( )and void show( ). Define the main( ) function to create an object and call the
functions accordingly to enable the task.

163
Comments of Examiners
A number of candidates were able to attempt this part
well. The joinnum() function was not done properly by Suggestions for teachers
some candidates. Various methods/techniques were used More practice must be given in
to concatenate the numbers. Some did it directly without conversion from numeric to string
converting it to String type. Several candidates reversed and string to numeric. That
the number using while loop and then added it to the other concatenation of strings is possible
number. In some cases int was used instead of long but does not work on numeric data,
data type. Object creation in the main ( ) function was not must be explained.
properly defined in some cases. Constructor and the
main() method was answered properly by a few
candidates.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 9.

import java.util.*;
public class Merger
{
long n1,n2,mergNum;
Merger( ) { } OR Merger(){ n1= n2 = mergNum = 0;}
void readNum()
{ Scanner x=new Scanner(System.in);
System.out.println("Enter two numbers");
n1=x.nextLong();
n2=x.nextLong();
} void JoinNum( )
void JoinNum() { int s=1; long a=n2 ;
{ String s=Long.toString(n1); while(a!=0)
{ s=s*10;
String s1=Long.toString(n2); OR a=a/10;
String s2=s+s1; }
mergNum=Long.valueOf(s2); mergeNum = (n1 * s) +
} n2;
void show() }
{ System.out.println("First Number= " + n1);
System.out.println("Second Number= " + n2);
System.out.println("Merged Number= " + mergNum);
}
static void main()
{ Merger obj=new Merger();
obj.readNum();
obj.JoinNum();
obj.show();
}
}

164
Question 10
A class TheString accepts a string of a maximum of 100 characters with only one blank [10]
space between the words.
Some of the members of the class are as follows:

Class name : TheString

Data member/instance variable:
str : to store a string
len : integer to store the length of the string
wordcount : integer to store the number of words
cons : integer to store the number of consonants
Member functions/methods:
TheString( ) : default constructor to initialize the data
members
TheString( String ds) : parameterized constructor to assign str=ds
void countFreq() : to count the number of words and the number of
consonants and store them in wordcount and
cons respectively
void Display( ) : to display the original string, along with the
number of words and the number of consonants
Specify the class TheString giving the details of the constructors, void countFreq() and
void Display( ). Define the main( ) function to create an object and call the functions
accordingly to enable the task.

Comments of Examiners
Suggestions for teachers
Different methods / logic was used to extract the words
from the sentence. Some candidates used String tokenizer
while some others used the split function and charArray
to separate words from the sentence. Several candidates
did not include the blank space for words. A number of
candidates were not able to find the frequency of
consonants properly. A few candidates used || operator
instead of && operator. The main() function,
constructor and object creation were not answered by
some of the candidates.
Practice should be given to extract
characters from words, words from
sentences and sentences from
paragraphs. Different methods
/logic should be adopted so that
wider exposure to string
manipulation related programs is
given to candidates. Knowledge of
constructors to initialize a string
and other data members should be
given.

165
MARKING SCHEME
Question 10.

public class TheString

{
String str;
int len,wordcount,cons;
TheString(){} OR TheString( ) { str=; wordcount=0; cons=0;}
TheString(String ds)
{ str=ds; len=str.length();
}
void countFreq()
{ char c;
str=str.toLowerCase ();
for(int i=0;i<len;i++)
{ c=str.charAt(i);
if(c==32)
wordcount++;
if(c!='a' && c!='e' && c!='i' && c!='o' && c!='u')
cons++;
}
cons = cons wordcount;
++wordcount;
}
void Display()
{ System.out.println(" Number of words=" + wordcount ); OR ( wordcount + 1 )*
System.out.println(" Number of consonants=" + cons); OR ( cons wordcount )*
}
static void main()
{ TheString x=new TheString("india is my country");
x.countFreq();
x.Display();
}
}

166
 SECTION C
Answer any two questions.
Each program should be written in such a way that it clearly depicts the logic of the problem stepwise.
This can be achieved by using comments in the program and mnemonic names or pseudo codes for
algorithms. The programs must be written in Java and the algorithms must be written in general /
standard form, wherever required / specified.
(Flowcharts are not required.)

Question 11
WordPile is an entity which can hold maximum of 20 characters. The restriction is that a
character can be added or removed from one end only.
Some of the members of classes are given below:
Class name : WordPile
Data members/instance variables:
ch[ ] : character array to hold the character elements
capacity : integer variable to store the maximum capacity
top : to point to the index of the topmost element
Methods/Member functions:
WordPile( int cap) : constructor to initialise the data member
capacity = cap, top = -1 and create the
WordPile
void pushChar( char v) : adds the character to the top of WordPile if
possible, otherwise output a message
WordPile is full
char popChar() : returns the deleted character from the top of the
WordPile if possible, otherwise it returns \\
(a) Specify the class WordPile giving the details of the constructor, [8]
voidpushChar(char) and char popChar( ).
The main function and algorithm need not be written.
(b) What is the name of the entity described above and state one of its applications. [2]

167
Comments of Examiners
Suggestions for teachers
(a) The concept of stack was not clear to most of the
More practice should be given in
candidates. Common errors made by candidates
data structure programs like the
were: (i) the condition / logic for underflow and
stacks, queues, de queues, etc.
overflow was not answered correctly; (ii) increment /
Working must be shown as to how
decrement of top index was not done properly. The
the stack or a queue performs
methods pushchar() and popchar() were found to be
(examples can be supportive).The
difficult by some candidates. Some were confused
concept of LIFO and FIFO must be
with the Character type array and were not able to
explained to the students with
return properly. The class declaration and
examples from real world.
constructors was well answered.
Implementation of stacks, queues
(b) Some candidates were unable to state the applications
and de queues using arrays should
and gave vague answers. Some candidates
be emphasized. Only the concept
overlooked this part of the question.
has to be explained taking the base
as an array. It should be made clear
to students that it is not an array
related program which can be
manipulated by shifting / inserting
or initializing by any value since
these data structures requires
pointers and pointers are not
supported in java. So, the array is
used to show the working of a
stack, queue or a de queue
Stacks and Queues must be
explained in details giving all its
applications / uses.
Students should be asked to read
the question carefully and answer
accordingly.

168
MARKING SCHEME
Question 11.

(a) public class WordPile

{
char ch[] = new char[20];
int capacity,top;
WordPile(int cap)
{ capacity=cap;
top=-1;
ch=new char[capacity];
}
void pushChar(char v)
{ if(top<capacity-1)
ch[++top]=v;
else
System.out.println("WordPile is full");
}
char popChar()
{
if(top>=0)
return ch[top--];
else
return '\\';
}
}
(b) Name of the Entity : Stack
Application : LIFO (Last In First Out )
Recursion
Undo
infix to postfix ( any one)

Question 12
A line on a plane can be represented by coordinates of the two-endpointsp1 and p2 as p1(x1, [10]
y1) and p2(x2, y2).
A super class Plane is defined to represent a line and a sub class Circle to find the length of
the radius and the area of circle by using the required data members of super class.
Some of the members of both the classes are given below:
Class name : Plane
Data members/instance variables:
x1 : to store the x-coordinate of the first end point
y1 : to store the y-coordinate of the first end point

169
Member functions/methods:

Plane( intnx, intny ) : parameterized constructor to assign the data

members x1=nx and y1=ny
void Show( ) : to display the coordinates
Class name : Circle
Data members/instance variables:
x2 : to store the x-coordinate of the second end point
y2 : to store the y-coordinate of the second end point
radius : double variable to store the radius of the circle
area : double variable to store the area of the circle
Member functions / methods
Circle() : parameterized constructor to assign values to data
members of both the classes
void findRadius( ) : to calculate the length of radius using the
formula:
( x2 x1 + y2 y1 )/2
assuming thatx1, x2, y1, y2 are the coordinates of
the two ends of the diameter of a circle
void findArea( ) : to find the area of circle using formula: r2. The
value of pie () is 22/7 or 3.14
void Show( ) : to display both the coordinates along with the
length of the radius and area of the of the circle
Specify the class Plane giving details of the constructor and void Show( ). Using the
concept of inheritance, specify the class Circle giving details of the constructor, void
findRadius( ), void findArea( ) and void Show( ).
The main function and algorithm need not be written.

Comments of Examiners
The concept of inheritance was not clear to a number of
candidates. Constructor with inheritance was not
answered correctly. Accessing the members of the super
class by the derived class, Mathematical functions
Math.pow( ) and Math.sqrt( ) were not clear to several
candidates. In some cases, double data members were
not declared properly. Invoking the show() function in
the derived class was not answered properly by a few
candidates. In some cases, algorithm was written instead
of a program. The rest of the function were well
answered.
170
Suggestions for teachers
Practice should be given to students
on inheritance. Use of constructor
using the base class member should
be made clear.
Explain to students the different
visibility modes and their accessing
capability. Knowledge of calling the
member function from the super class
to the derived class must be made
clear. The keywords extends and
super must be given special
attention while dealing with
inheritance.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 12.

public class Plane

{
double x1,y1;
Plane(double nx, double ny)
{ x1=nx;
y1=ny;
}
void Show()
{ System.out.println("x- coordinate= "+ x1);
System.out.println("y- coordinate= "+ y1);
}
}

public class Circle extends Plane

{
double x2, y2, radius, area;
Circle(double nx, double ny, double a, double b)
{ super(nx,ny);
x2=a;
y2=b;
}
void findRadius()
{ radius= ( Math.sqrt( Math.pow((x2-x1),2) + Math.pow((y2-y1),2) ) ) / 2;

}
void findArea()
{ area = 3.14 * radius * radius ;
}
void Show()
{ super.Show();
System.out.println("Second x- coordinate= "+ x2);
System.out.println("Second y- coordinate= "+ y2);
System.out.println(" Length of radius = "+radius);
System.out.println(" Area = " + area);
}
}

171
Question 13:

(a) A linked list is formed from the objects of the class: [4] [4]
class Nodes
{
int num;
Nodes next;
}
Write an Algorithm OR a Method to print the sum of nodes that contains only odd
integers of an existing linked list.
The method declaration is as follows:
void NodesCount( Nodes starPtr )
(b) (i) Give the meaning of the following common expression in Big O notation: [1]
O(N)
O(N2)
(ii) List any two cases to analyse algorithm complexities. [1]
(c) Answer the following questions from the diagram of a Binary Tree given below:

C F

R M H P

N E
(i) Name the leaf nodes of the right sub-tree. [1]
(ii) Write post order traversal of the left sub-tree of node B including itself. [1]
(iii) State the level number of nodes R and M when the root is at level 0. [1]
(iv) Name the internal nodes of the tree. [1]

172
Comments of Examiners
(a) This part was well answered by most candidates.
A number of candidates did not create a temporary
pointer to the first node. Some candidates had
problems in moving the pointer to the next node
and checking for null. A few were confused
whether to count the nodes or to find the sum of
the nodes. Some wrote the algorithm in simple
English language covering all the main steps.
(b) (i) Several candidates were confused and gave
vague answers with examples. Some
mentioned examples of O(n) and O(n2).
(ii) This part was answered well by most of the
candidates. Some gave examples to illustrate
their answer. A few candidates mentioned the
types of complexities instead of cases of
complexities.
(c) (i) Several candidates mentioned the leaf nodes of
the entire tree instead of right sub tree.
(ii) While most candidates answered this part
correctly some wrote the post order of the
entire tree.
(iii)This part was well answered by most
candidates.
(iv) Some candidates included root B also in the
answer for internal nodes. However, most of
the candidates answered this part well.
Suggestions for teachers
More programs / algorithms should
be practiced with link list and
binary tree data structure. Diagrams
to illustrate the link list and the
Binary Trees must be practiced.
Definition of complexities / big O
and the three cases of complexities
must be explained in detail along
with examples. The role of the term
(N) in complexities must be
explained.
All the three cases of complexities
with the factors that influence them
must be explained to students.
Examples in all three cases must
also be given. Also explain the
difference between types and cases
of complexities to students.
Explain binary tree with the
different parts like root,
nodes(internal and external),
height, depth ,level, size, tree
traversal (preorder, inorder and
postorder), etc.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 13.

(a) Algorithm to print the sum of the nodes of odd integers in an existing linked list.

Steps :
1 - Start
2 - Set temporary pointer to start node
3 - Repeat steps 4 & 5 until the pointer reaches null. Display the Count. Exit.
4 - Check for odd integers and accumulate
5 - Move pointer to the next node
6 - End

OR

Method to print the sum of the nodes of odd integers in an existing linked list.

void NodeCount( Nodes starPtr)

173
 {
Nodes temp = new Nodes(starPtr)
int c=0;
while (temp!=null)
{
if( temp.num%2 !=0)
c=c+temp.num;
temp=temp.next;
}

System.out.println(c);
}

(b) (i) O(n) -- It is the complexity of a single loop or condition / expressions

O(n 2) It is a nested loop with each loop going upto n.

(ii) Best case complexity and Worst case complexity

(c) i. P,E
ii. R,N,M,C,B
iii. 2
iv. C,M,F,H

GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
The symbols and v from propositional logic
Computational complexity definition.
Size of double data type for the width of an array cell.
Keywords this and super with respect to overriding
Extracting digits without using the % sign.
K-MAPS (Grouping , map-rolling , place value)
Deriving POS expression from a truth table
Recursive technique
Pre-defined size of an array and re-declaring the size in the constructor.
Complexity and Big O Notation
Stack operations for adding and removing characters.

174
(b) Concepts in which candidates got confused:
The symbols in a proposition.
Difference between this and super .
Deriving POS expression from Truth table
Deriving expression from a given circuit and reducing it.
Concatenation of two numbers.
Left and right sub tree for a Binary Tree.

(c) Suggestions for Candidates:

Prepare summary for each chapter or use high-lighters to recognize the important
terms and definitions.
Always use latest version for compilers and other software.
Answers and definitions should be short and precise and according to marks
intended. Important words and terms should be underlined or highlighted. Working
should be shown at the side of each question where ever required.
Laws must be mentioned while reducing a Boolean Expression.
Practice one form of K-Map with proper place value for both SOP and POS.
In programming documentation is compulsory and should be mentioned with each
program.
Declare the class with data members and member functions. Expand or define each
function according to the instructions given by the side of each function.
Do not memorize the program, try to understand the logic.
Practice constructors with every program. Treat each function of a class as separate
program.

175
 TABLE OF CONTENTS

PAGE

i
FOREWORD

INTRODUCTION iii

SUBJECT-WISE ANALYSIS

1. History 1

2. Political Science 28

3. Geography 45

4. Sociology 67

5. Psychology 81

6. Economics 108

7. Commerce 127

8. Accounts 150
 FOREWORD

This document of the analysis of pupils performance at the ISC Year 12 and ICSE Year 10 Examination is one
of its kind. It has grown and evolved over the years to provide feedback to schools in terms of the strengths and
weaknesses of the candidates in handling the examinations.

We commend the work of Mrs. Poonam Sodhi and the ISC Division of the Council who have painstakingly
prepared this analysis. We are grateful to the examiners who have contributed through their comments on the
performance of the candidates under examination as well as for their suggestions to teachers and students for the
effective transaction of the syllabus.

We hope the schools will find this document useful. We invite comments from schools on its utility and quality.

Gerry Arathoon
November 2015 Chief Executive & Secretary

i
 INTRODUCTION

The Council has consistently been bringing out the Pupil Performance Analysis document since 1994.
This document is reviewed every year and changes incorporated based on suggestions received from various
quarters which include experts in the field of education as well as heads of schools and teachers, in order to make
the study more useful and meaningful.

This document comprises of qualitative analysis of performance of pupils at the ISC examinations. Performance
Analysis has been carried out for the most popular subjects that are largely ascribed to, by the schools.
The purpose of this study is to enable teachers to see at a glance, overall performance of all candidates who
have taken the examination and examiners comments on each question. This would enable the teachers to
understand the assessment of the ISC examinations better and would help them to guide their students more
effectively.

The qualitative analysis details the assessment criteria followed for evaluation of answer scripts. Once the
process of evaluation of scripts is over, examiners are requested to give detailed comments on the performance
of candidates for each question. This includes the examiners response on what constitutes a good answer;
common errors made by candidates while answering the questions; their popularity with students and overall
performance of students.

Mrs. Shilpi Gupta along with Mrs. Desiree Tennent, Ms. Mansi Guleria, Mrs. Geeta Bakhshi and
Mrs. Theresa Cherian and have done commendable work in ensuring that this document is prepared well in time,
in order to guide students who will be appearing for the ISC Examination.

Poonam Sodhi
November 2015 Deputy Secretary
 HISTORY
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 3,452
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 1
Mean Marks Obtained 60.51

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 394 68 1429 742 819
Percentage of Candidates 11.41 1.97 41.40 21.49 23.73
Cumulative Number 394 462 1891 2633 3452
Cumulative Percentage 11.41 13.38 54.78 76.27 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

45.00 41.40
Percentage of Candidates

40.00

35.00

30.00
23.73
25.00 21.49

20.00
11.41
15.00

10.00
1.97
5.00

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100

Marks Obtained

1
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

PART I
Answer all questions
Question 1 [20]
(i) Name one well-known revolutionary organization established in Bengal, in the
early years of the twentieth century.
(ii) How did the British Government implement the policy of Divide and Rule in
the Morley Minto Reforms of 1909?
(iii) What was Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khans main objective in establishing the
Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College?
(iv) Why did Gandhiji form the Satyagraha Sabha in February, 1919?
(v) What was the main objective of the Nehru Report?
(vi) Why was the All India States Peoples Conference formed?
(vii) What was the most important feature of the Government of IndiaAct of 1935?
(viii) Why did the Congress Ministries resign in 1939?
(ix) What was the primary objective of Direct Action Day launched by the Muslim
League?
(x) Which international movement was based on the principles of Panchsheel?
(xi) Why did Mussolini introduce the Battle of Wheat programme?
(xii) Mention the significance of the Enabling Law (March 1933).
(xiii) Mention any one adverse effect of the Great Depression (1929) on the Japanese
economy.
(xiv) Name the original signatories of the Anti-Comintern Pact (1936).
(xv) Give any one reason for the launch of Operation Overlord (1944) by the Allied
Powers.
(xvi) What is the economic extension of the Truman Doctrine known as?
(xvii) What was the objective of the Berlin Blockade (1948-49)?
(xviii) Name any two founder members of ASEAN.
(xix) What important result did the Korean War have on the future powers of the UN
General Assembly?
(xx) Why did Nasser nationalize the Suez Canal?

2
Comments of Examiners
(i) Some candidates got confused with revolutionary
organization established in Bengal and Suggestions for teachers
Maharashtra. They wrote Abhinav Bharat in
place of Anushilan Samiti.
(ii) Many candidates did not mention Separate
electorates, instead, they wrote to break the
Hindu Muslim Unity.
(iii) Instead of writing to promote western education,
some candidates wrote only education while a
few wrote, to enlighten the Muslims.
(iv) Many candidates did not mention Rowlatt Act.
Instead, they wrote generally on Satyagraha as a
principle of Gandhiji.
(v) Some candidates got confused between Dominion
Status and Complete Independence
(vi) Instead of writing to co-ordinate the political
activities in different states, many candidates
wrote, to fight against the British.
(vii) Instead of Provincial Autonomy many candidates
used the term diarchy.
(viii) Most candidates were able to answer this question
correctly.
(ix) Some candidates did not have a clear idea about
the objective of the Direct Action Day.
(x) Most of the students wrote the correct answer
NAM.
(xi) Candidates were able to answer this question
correctly
(xii) Most candidates answered this part correctly.
(xiii) Majority of the candidates answered this question
correctly.
(xiv) A few candidates made the mistake of giving the
answer as, Germany and Italy, instead of
Germany and Japan.
(xv) Some candidates made the mistake of writing to
attack France instead of to liberate France from
German Occupation
(xvi) Some candidates wrote Mototov Plan instead of
Marshal Plan or Economic Recovery
Programme.
(xvii) Several candidates got confused between Berlin
Blockade and Berlin Wall.
(xviii) This question was answered correctly by most of
the candidates.
(xix) Many candidates failed to give the correct answer.
They did not write that the Korean War enhanced
the power of the General Assembly.
(xx) While most candidates could answer this question correctly, a few wrote vague answers such as,
it was an important route between Europe and Asia instead of writing to finance the Aswan
Dam.
3
Names of organisations can be
taught in a tabular form with names
of places and corresponding
organizations.
The concept of separate electorate
should be clearly explained.
The specific contribution of Syed
Ahmad Khan in the field of
education should be emphasised.
While teaching about Gandhi,
distinction must be made between
the concept and the movement
based on the concept.
Explain the difference between
Dominion Status and Complete
independence. Emphasis should be
laid on terminologies.
While teaching the provisions of
various Acts, highlight the important
provisions of each Act.
Students should be explained that it
was the dismal performance of the
Muslim League in the elections to
the Constituent Assembly and fear of
future domination by the Congress,
which made them resort to direct
action.
The difference between Marshall
Plan and Molotov Plan should be
made clear to students.
Emphasise on the difference in dates
between the two events (Berlin
Blockade and Berlin Wall), so that
mistakes can be avoided.
The uniting for Peace Resolution
should be taught against the
backdrop of the Korean War.
Students should be asked to answer
to the point instead of giving
unnecessary details.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(i) Anushilan Samiti, Dawn Society, Anti Circular Society, Brati, Swadesh Bhandav, Suhrid and
Sadhana.
(ii) The British introduced the system of Separate Electorates / by which separate constituencies
would be reserved for the Muslims / Muslims would vote only for Muslims and Muslims
alone could be elected from separate constituencies.
(any one point)
(iii) To spread (i) Western education/ (ii) Sciences amongst the Indian Muslims.
(any one point)
(iv) To launch an agitation against the proposed Rowlatt Act / to oppose the Rowlatt Act.
(v) To attain Dominion Status for India / self-government within the British Empire.
(vi) To coordinate political activities in different states.
To wage popular struggles in the states against the autocratic rulers.
To organize movements for democratic rights.
(vii) Introduction of Provincial Autonomy / Federal Government or Federation.
(viii) The British Government had involved India in the Second World War without consulting the
Central Legislature and the Provisional Government.
(ix) The Congress had an overwhelming majority in the Constituent Assembly. It felt that it would
be outvoted in the Assembly so it bid goodbye to constitutional methods./ It also wanted to
obtain Pakistan by force.
(x) NAM OR Non Aligned Movement.(any one)
(xi) To achieve the goal of self-sufficiency / increase production of wheat.
(xii) It made Hitler a dictator / the Weimar Constitution was abandoned / make laws without
consulting the legislature. He could rule by decree.
(xiii) 1. Exports shrank
2. Americans reduced their imports of silk
3. Prices fell
4. Blow for Japanese farmers
5. Extreme poverty
6. Unemployment
(any one point)
(xiv) Germany and Japan

4
(xv) 1. To liberate France from German occupation.
2. Allied Powers felt that time was ripe to invade Germany as Italy was eliminated.
3. U-boats had been brought under control.
4. Air superiority proved.
5. To open the Second Front.
(any one point)
(xvi) Marshall Plan / European Recovery Programme.
(xvii) To force the Western forces to withdraw from West Berlin by reducing it to starvation point.
(xviii) Indonesia, Philippines, Malaysia, Singapore, Thailand (any two)
(xix) 1. The Uniting for Peace resolution.
2. Enhanced the powers of the General Assembly.
3. The General Assembly could in future, by-pass a Security Council veto.
(any one point)
(xx) To finance the Aswan Dam/ America had refused to finance the Aswan Dam.

PART II
SECTION A
Question 2
Radical nationalism took place in the closing years of the 19thcentury and in the early
years of the 20th century. In this context discuss:
(a) The economic and political causes that led to the growth of this phase of the [8]
National Movement.
(b) The impact of international events. [4]
(c) The methods adopted by the radical nationalists to achieve their objectives. [4]

5
Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates failed to identify the
economic and political causes. Some candidates even Suggestions for teachers
Discuss the economic and political
wrote about the failure of the Moderates.
(b) Most of the candidates were able to answer this part causes separately.
Emphasize on learning of correct
correctly. However, a few mixed up certain facts.
For example, they wrote, Defeat of Russia by facts.
Give practice to students in writing
Ethiopia and Defeat of Italy by Japan.
(c) Though a number of candidates mentioned the such answers.
Stress upon the need to explain each
methods adopted by the radical nationalists to
achieve their objectives, many failed to explain point.
them.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) Recognition of the true nature of the British rule.
Economic famines / plague / epidemics of 1896-1900, The Tariff Act, Cotton Duties Act
and Government apathy / Dada Bhais Poverty and Un British Rule in India. R.C. Dutts
Economic History of India exposed the economic exploitation of India under the British
rule.
Political disappointment with Act of 1892, curb on civil rights *(anti sedition law), arrest
of Tilak, deportation of Natu brothers.
Reactionary policies of Lord Curzon Calcutta Corporation Act, Official Secrets Act,
Indian universities Act (names only) Delhi Durbar, Partition of Bengal.
(any two points with explanation or any four points)
(b) International events:
International influences humiliating treatment of Indians in South Africa / nationalist
movements in China, Egypt, Turkey / Russia Japans victory over Russia / Abyssinias defeat
of Italy / Spectacular rise of modern Japan / Boer wars.
(any four points)
(c) The methods adopted by the radical nationalists:
1. Swadeshi: Emphasis on use of goods made in ones own country
2. Boycott of British goods to encourage Indian industries and create opportunities for
employment.
3. National Education a national scheme of education was planned national schools were
opened efforts were made to give education a national orientation in the vernacular
languages.
4. Passive resistance people were asked not to cooperate with the government and boycott
government service, courts, schools and colleges.

6
 5. Revivalism Revived self-respect by reviving Indias past glory Shivaji festival, worship
of Chandragupta Vikramaditya, Rana Pratap and Shivaji as national heroes.
6. Personal sacrifices They were ready for self-sacrifice, suffering and hardships.
7. Mass involvement they proposed to win freedom through mass action.
(any four point with explanation)

Question 3
(a) Discuss the following factors and events that led to the establishment of the [6]
Muslim League (1906):
(i) Economic backwardness of the country.
(ii) The Hindi-Urdu controversy.
(b) What were the principal demands of the Shimla Deputation? [4]
(c) State any two objectives of the Muslim League. How did the British Government [6]
respond to its formation?

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Many candidates only focussed on educational
Suggestions for teachers
backwardness of Muslims; economic
Economic factors responsible for the
backwardness of Muslims was not explained.
growth of communalism should be
Several candidates failed to correlate economic
explained clearly.
backwardness with the formation of the Muslim
Students should be told to read the
League.
question very carefully before
(ii) On the whole, this part was well attempted.
answering it.
However, in a few cases, candidates incorrectly
In the context of Hindi-Urdu
wrote that Hindus demanded that Urdu should
controversy, explain to students that
be replaced by Hindi/ some others wrote that
Hindi was not to replace Urdu.
government ordered petitions to be written only
Instead, Hindus wanted permission
in Hindi.
to submit petitions in Hindi also, in
(b) Most candidates answered this part correctly. Some
addition to Urdu.
confused it with the objectives of the Muslim
Explain clearly the demands of the
League.
Shimla deputation and the objectives
(c) Most candidates wrote the correct answer. In some
of the Muslim League.
cases, clarity was missing due to incorrect language.
Emphasis should be laid on use of
correct language.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a) Factors that led to the establishment of the Muslim League (1906):
(i) Economic backwardness of the country:
Due to the lack of modern industrial development, unemployment was an acute

7
 problem in India.
This led to an intense competition for existing jobs.
This led the people to demand reservation in jobs on the basis of caste, creed or
religion.
This was used by the British to push further their policy of divide and rule
and fan communal rivalry on the question of jobs in government service.
(any three points)
(ii) The Hindi-Urdu controversy:
1. U.P. was the centre of Muslim politics as it was a Muslim majority area.
2. In U.P., all petitions to government offices were written only in Urdu.
3. As early as 1868, some Benaras Hindus demanded the use of Devnagri script in
government correspondence.
4. Syed Ahmed Khan supported the Muslims claim for Urdu in this script controversy.
5. In 1900, Lt. Governor Macdonnell gave instructions that all petitions written in
Devnagri, i.e. Hindi should he entertained along with the Urdu script petitions.
6. The Muslims organised protest meetings in different parts of the province.
7. Similarly, the Hindus also held meetings supporting the government stand.
(any three)

(b) The principal demands of the Shimla Deputation:

1. Separate electorates / Muslims would vote for Muslim candidates.
2. Weightage in representation on the basis of their position in India and not on numerical
strength.
3. Separate representation in the Municipal.
4. University bodies.
5. Greater representation in Civil, Military and judicial services.
6. Muslim judges in the High Courts.
7. Government aid in founding a Muslim University.
8. Appointment by nomination should be given preference over elections / doing away with
Competitive exam.
9. Influential groups within Muslims e.g. Landowners, lawyers to be given preference for
appointment. (any four points)
(c) Objectives of Muslim League:
1. To promote among Indian Muslims feelings of loyalty towards British Government.
2. Remove misconceptions that may arise as to the intentions of government in relation to
Indian Muslims

8
 3. To protect the political and other rights of the Muslims.
4. To place before the government their needs and aspirations in mild and moderate language.
5. To prevent the rise of any feeling of hostility between Muslims and other communities
without adversely affecting the objectives of the League.
6. To prevent educated Muslim Youth from joining the Congress.
(any two points)
Response of the British Government:
1. The British welcomed the formation of the League
2. They announced that they would protect the special interest of the Muslims.
3. The British used the League as an instrument to counteract the growing popularity of the
Congress and the nationalist movement/ Congress.
4. They supported the League to prevent the emerging Muslim intelligentsia from joining the
National Movement/Congress.
5. The British granted separate Electorates to the Muslims by the Act of 1909.
(any two points)

Question 4
(a) Why was the Simon Commission sent to India in 1927? How did the Indians [6]
react to it?
(b) Give an account of the significant developments in the National Movement from [10]
the Lahore Session of the Congress in 1929 to the suspension of the Civil
Disobedience Movement in 1931.
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates gave only one reason as to why the Suggestions for teachers
Simon Commission was sent to India. Reaction of All the reasons responsible for
the Indians to the Simon Commission was well sending the Simon Commission to
answered by most of the candidates. India need to be explained.
(b) Most of the candidates could cover the time period While teaching the three mass
given in the question. However, a few got confused movements under Gandhiji, the time
and wrote about the Non-Cooperation Movement. In frame must be clearly pointed out.
a few cases, there was repetition of facts. Students should be cautioned against
repeating.

9
MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a) (i) 1) The Act of 1919 had provided for the appointment of a Commission to enquire into
the working of the constitutional reforms introduced by that Act.
2) The British government appointed the Simon Commission to examine the question of
further constitutional reforms.
3) General elections was due in England in 1929 and the Conservative government did
not want to leave the appointment of the Commission to its successor government
which would in all probability, be a Labour government.
4) Nationalist Leaders were impatient for reforms.
(ii) 1) All the members of the Commission were Englishmen this was highly resented by
the Indians / resented all-White Commission.
2) The Congress decided to boycott the Commission at every stage and every form.
3) The Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision.
4) An all India hartal was organised on the day the Commission reached Bombay.
5) Wherever the Commission reached, it was greeted with hartals
6) Black flag demonstrations under the slogan Simon go back.
7) Lajpat Rai injured and succumbed while leading protest.
The government used brutal suppression to crush the protest movement.
(any four points)
(b) Important decisions taken at the Lahore Session:
The Congress passed a resolution of Poorna Swaraj / Complete Independence as Congress
objective.
All talk of Dominion status was now over.
Congress boycotted the First Round Table Conference.
26th January 1930 was fixed as the First Independence Day to be celebrated every year, till we
attained independence.
31st December 1929 the newly adopted tricolour flag of freedom was hoisted.
Congress announced the launching of the Civil Obedience Movement to attain Poorna
Swaraj.
Gandhi demanded 11 points which were rejected.
Took the decision to launch the Movement with the Dandi March on 12th March 1930.
Gandhi led the March with 78 followers from Sabarmati Ashram.
6th April 1930 he reached Dandi and broke the Salt Law by picking up salt.

10
 It was followed by the breaking of Civil Laws in different parts of India.
Forest laws were broken in Maharashtra, M.P. and Karnataka.
Refused to pay the Chowkidari Tax in Eastern India.
NWFP Khan Abdul Gaffar Kahn started Khudai Khidmadgar.
Rani Gidileu responded to Gandhijis call.
Participation of women.
Hartals and demonstrations throughout the country.
Boycott of foreign goods, liquor and any part of the British programme.
Mass participation / spread of the movement throughout India.
Garhwali soldiers refused to open fire on mass demonstrators.
Failure of the First Round Table Conference.
Signing of the Gandhi Irvin Pact and Suspension of the movement.

Question 5
(a) What historic announcement did the British Prime Minister Clement Atlee make [2]
on 20th February, 1947?
(b) Enumerate the main provisions of the Indian Independence Act. [8]
(c) Why did the Congress accept partition? [6]

omments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates wrote the incorrect date. Instead of
Suggestions for teachers
writing the exact date, 30th June, 1948, they wrote
Some dates need to be specifically
August, 1947.
mentioned as they are very
(b) A number of candidates got confused between the
important.
Mountbatten Plan and the Indian Independence Act.
Differences between the
(c) This part was well attempted by most candidates. In
Mountbatten Plan and the Indian
a few cases, candidates gave only two reasons
Independence Act should be
instead of three, as to why the Congress accepted
highlighted. Frequent class tests
partition.
should be conducted to avoid
mistakes.

11
MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) The historic announcement made by Atlee on 20th February 1947 was that the British would
transfer power by 30th June 1948.
Lord Wavell was to be replaced by Lord Mountbatten.
(b) Main provisions of the Indian Independence Act:
1) It provided for the creation of two independent dominions, India and Pakistan.
2) Each dominion was to have a Governor General.
3) The Constituent Assembly of each Dominion was to serve as the Central Legislature.
4) Princely States would become independent.
5) All British powers in relation to the Princely States were terminated.
6) All treaties signed between Princely States and British Government to come to end.
7) Princely States had the freedom to join India or Pakistan.
8) The office of the Secretary of State was abolished.
9) Provision was made for the division of the Indian army and sharing of assets between the two
dominions.
10) Provision was also made to safeguard the interest of the existing officers appointed by the
Secretary of State/ provide alternative jobs.
11) The Governor General was given the necessary powers for bringing the Act into effective
operation.
(any four points)
(c) 1) Communal riots had taken a serious turn as a result of Direct Action by the Muslim League.
2) Experience of the Congress of working with the Muslim League in the interim government
was not good.
3) The only alternative to partition was a weak federation.
4) A smaller India with a strong central authority was better than a bigger state with a weak
centre.
5) The Congress saw it as an opportunity to get rid of separate electorates.
6) Further delay in the transfer of power could find India in the midst of a civil war.
7) Congress was in a hurry to get the British out of India as it was instigating the princely states
not to accede to India.

12
Question 6
(a) With reference to the conflict between India and Pakistan after the partition, [8]
explain the following:
(i) The refugee problem
(ii) Problems arising from transfer of assets
(iii) The causes of the Indus River Waters dispute
(iv) The resolution of the Indus River waters dispute
(b) Why did India follow a policy of Non-alignment under Nehru? [4]
(c) State the aims of NAM. [4]

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Many candidates gave a very general account of
Suggestions for teachers
the problem. Specific details pertaining to the
Division of assets must be taught
refugee problem were missing in many answers.
very specifically with reference to
(ii) Most candidates were thoroughly confused in
railways, finance, etc.
this answer they could not differentiate
Teachers need to clearly distinguish
between personal asset and national asset.
between reasons, aims and principles
For example, several candidates wrote about
of NAM so that students do not get
household items instead of printed currency,
confused.
coins, postal and revenue stamps, etc.
Differences between the principles
(iii) Some candidates failed to interpret the question.
of Panchsheel and the aims of NAM
They did not seem to have any idea regarding the
should be clearly explained to
causes of the Indus River Waters Dispute.
students.
(iv) Most candidates wrote the correct answer in this
part.
(b) Only one or two reasons as to why India followed the policy of non-alignment were given by many
candidates.
(c) Many candidates wrote the principles of Panchsheel instead of writing the aims of the Non-Aligned
Movement.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) (i) Refugee problem:
1) By mid-1948, about 5.5 million non-Muslims had moved into India and a very large
number of Muslims left India for Pakistan.
2) Non-Muslims left behind property of 500 crores in West Pakistan.
3) Muslims losses in India about 100 crores
4) Claims and counter claims discussed and some kind of settlement arrived at.
5) By 1951, problem of rehabilitation of the West Punjab refugees had been tackled at great
cost for the newly independent India.

13
 6) But the exodus from East Pakistan continued for longer and put pressure on the state of
West Bengal, Tripura and Assam.
7) 1950 PMs of both countries signed Nehru-Liaqat Pact to solve problems of minorities.
8) Migration of Hindus continued from East Pakistan.
(any two points)
(ii) Transfer of Assets:
1) There was sharing of assets and liabilities / of all the monetary and liquid assets, Pakistan
got 17.5% while Indias share was 82.5%. (Indias share was much larger than Pakistans)
2) Liquid assets included printed currency stocks, coins, postal and revenue stamps, gold
reserves, assets of RBI.
3) Of all the movable and non-liquid assets, there was to be a division in the ratio of 80:20
between India and Pakistan.
4) Jute Mills and factories remained in India while jute growing areas went to Pakistan.
5) Army was to be divided.
6) Railway stock and government vehicles were divided in proportion.
7) India was to pay 55 crores to Pakistan at the time of independence which it refused to pay
when Pakistan invaded Kashmir.
(any two points)
(iii) Indus Waters Dispute:
1) The Indus Waters dispute arose because Indus and its tributaries flowed through India
and Pakistan.
2) West Pakistan and West India were both dependent on its tributaries for water, power
supply and irrigation.
3) These rivers rise in India and the head works of their canal systems are also in India.
4) Partition cut through a complex and unified system of canals.
(any two points)
(iv) The resolution of the Indus Waters Dispute:
1) Initially, India and Pakistan signed interim agreements for the sharing of waters.
2) But in 1950s, the Indian government had plans to carry water from these rivers to irrigate
Rajasthan Desert.
3) Afraid that this would deprive them of their share of river waters.
4) Pakistan protested strongly and blamed India for natural calamities like floods and
droughts.

14
 5) In 1951, the chairman of the Tennessee Valley suggested a common programme for both
countries to jointly develop the Indus Water system.
6) Discussions followed by major role being played by World Bank Chairman, Eugene
Black / World Bank.
7) Amicable solution found with Indus Waters Treaty in 1960.
8) Pakistan to have use of Western Rivers Indus, Jhelum and Chenab and India to have
exclusive right over eastern rivers Ravi, Beas and Sutlej.
9) Indus Waters Commission set up to settle any disputes and act as a common forum of
discussion / Indian people were unhappy due to small share of river water.
10) World Bank helped Pakistan by organising massive loans for building strong dams and
irrigation canals in Pakistan / Indias contribution towards the construction of the canals
was fixed at 83.3 crores.
11) Despite wars and other problems, both countries have adhered to this agreement.
(any two points)
(b) Reasons for following the policy of Non-Alignment Movement:
1) Reaction against Cold War.
2) System of Military Alliances like NATO and WARSAW.
3) Desire of Asian and African nations to assert national independence / preserve their newly
acquired freedom.
4) Economic development of Asian and African countries in the wake of their poverty and
underdevelopment.
5) Need for financial assistance from both power blocks.
6) Need for peace for real development.
7) Arms race between the two power blocks dangerous for world peace.
8) They would strengthen UNO by being non-aligned.
9) To avoid war.
(any four points)
(c) Aims of Non Alignment Movement:
1) Abolition of Imperialism / colonialism
2) Self-determination / natural equity / freedom of all nations
3) Maintenance of international peace and security
4) Prevent war

15
 5) End to racism
6) Disarmament / opposed to possession of nuclear weapons.
7) Helping the UN to carry out its functions effectively
8) Creation of new international economic order / demanded reforms in international monetary
matters, technology and foreign investment.
9) Protection of the environment through global cooperation.
10) Cultural equality
11) Enforcement of human rights.
(any four points)

SECTION B
Question 7
(a) Give a brief account of the circumstances of the backstage deal that enabled [4]
Hitler to come to power legally in 1933.
(b) Discuss the changes brought about by Hitler in the following spheres of life of the [8]
people of Germany:
(i) Educational
(ii) Cultural

(c) What extreme measures did Hitler adopt against the Jews? [4]
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates failed to comprehend the question.
Suggestions for teachers
Some wrote about the weaknesses of the Weimar Emphasis must be laid on the
Republic instead of writing about the role of the backstage deal.
right- wing politicians. The backstage deal was not More written practice needs to be
mentioned in several cases. given to students.
(b) (i) Most of the candidates wrote the answer correctly. Students can be encouraged to
However, in a few cases, positive points were watch films on Hitler.
highlighted rather than writing how Hitler The difference between culture
controlled the cultural and educational life of the and religion must be explained to
people. students.
Students must be asked to read the
(ii) Several candidates got confused and wrote about
question carefully.
the religious policy of Hitler. Some even wrote
about Hilters policy towards the Jews.
(c) Most candidates answered this part correctly. They seemed to have a clear understanding of his
anti-Jewish Policy. In a few cases, there was repetition and overlapping of points.

16
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) Brief account of the circumstances that enabled Hitler to come to power legally in 1933.
Back stage deal that brought Hitler to power
1. After November 1932, a small clique of right wing politicians with support from the
Reichswehr (army) decided to bring Hitler into a coalition government with the
Nationalists.
2. The main conspirators were Papen and General Schleicherthey were afraid of the Nazis
attempting to seize power by a coup.
3. They believed they could control Hitler inside the government.
4. The Nationalists had only 37 seats in the Reichstag in 1932 and hoped to get a majority
with Nazi votes.
5. Better chance of controlling the Communists.
6. Complicated manoeuvring with wealthy businessmen.
7. President Hindenburg persuaded to appoint Papen as Chancellor and Hitler as
Vice-Chancellor
8. But Hitler would settle for nothing less than the post of Chancellor.
9. Hitler able to come to power legally because all other political parties failed to recognise
danger and failed to unite in opposition
10. Nationalists made the fatal mistake of inviting Hitler into power.
(Any four points with explanation.)
(b) Changes brought about by Hitler in the following spheres:
(i) Educational:
1) The education system was closely controlled so that children could be indoctrinated
with Nazi opinion.
2) (a) School textbooks were often rewritten to fit in with Nazi theory.
(b) History was distorted to fit in with Hitlers view that great things could only be
achieved by force.
(c) Human biology was dominated by the Nazi race theory. (Any one of a, b, c +
three other points.)
3) Teachers, professors were closely watched so that they do not deviate from party
lines and lived in fear.
4) The system was supplemented by the Hitler Youth which all boys had to join at 14;
girls joined the League of German Maidens.
5) They all learned that their first duty was to obey Hitler; the favourite slogan was The
fuehrer is always right.
6) Children were even encouraged to betray their parents to the Gestapo (secret police).
(any four points)

17
 (ii) Cultural life:
1) All communications and the media were controlled by the Minister of Propaganda,
Dr Joseph Goebbels.
2) Radio, newspapers, magazines, books, theatre, films, music and art were all
supervised. By the end of 1934, about 4000 books were on the forbidden list because
they were un-German.
3) It was impossible to perform the plays or the music of communists or Jews.
4) Writers, artists and scholars were harassed until it became impossible to express any
opinion which did not fit in with the Nazi system.
(any four points)
(c) Escalation of Campaign against Jews:
1) The worst aspect of the Nazi system was Hitlers anti-Semitic / anti-Jewish policy.
2) Hitler used the Jews as a scapegoat for everything the humiliation at Versailles, the
depression, unemployment and communism and claimed that there was a world Jewish plot.
3) Lots of Germans were in such a desperate economic situation that they accepted the
propaganda and were not worried to see thousands of Jews being removed from their jobs as
lawyers, doctors, teachers and journalists.
4) The campaign was given legal status by the Nuremberg Laws (1935) / it deprived the Jews
of their German citizenship, forbade them to marry non-Jews and ruled that even a person
with only one Jewish grandparent would be classed as a Jew.
5) Later, the policy became more extreme. Jews were harassed in every possible manner, their
property was attacked and burnt, shops looted, synagogues destroyed, and Jews themselves
herded into concentration camps.
6) Eventually, Hitler intended to exterminate the entire Jewish race his final solution. It is
believed that by 1939, over 5 million Jews had been murdered, most of them in gas
chambers of the concentration camps.
7) The Holocaust, was probably the worst crime against them.
(Any four points)

Question 8
Aggressive nationalism in Italy and Germany eventually led to the outbreak of the
Second World War. In this context, discuss the following:
(a) Italys invasion of Abyssinia (1935). [6]
(b) Introduction of conscription by Hitler. [4]
(c) Germanys Anschluss with Austria (1938). [6]

18
Comments of Examiners
(a) In a number of answers, more emphasis was laid on
Suggestions for teachers
the aims but very little was written about the
Motives for conquests and events
consequences.
following them must be explained
(b) Very few candidates answered this part correctly.
separately.
Most candidates could not write how conscription
A detailed account of conscription
was put into effect by Hitler. For e.g. candidates did
should be given to students.
not write about the increase in the size of the army
Explain the two Anschluss with
or the Anglo-German Naval Agreement.
Austria separately - one as a failure
(c) While most candidates could answer this part
and one as a success.
correctly, a few wrote about the 1934 Anschluss with
Austria, instead of 1938.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
(a) Italys invasion of Abyssinia (1935):
1) Italy invaded Abyssinia in 1935 because her existing colonies in East
Africa were not rewarding / Italy was suffering from economic Aims
depression, a victory would boost its sagging morale / would avenge the
defeat of 1896.
2) The League condemned Italy as an aggressor.
3) Economic Sanctions were imposed on Italy by Britain and France but did not include ban on
coal and oil. Hence, no serious obstacle to Italys war efforts.
4) Britain/France followed appeasement to retain Mussolini as an ally against Hitler.
5) Mussolini was annoyed by the sanctions.
6) Mussolini drew closer to Hitler, who had neither criticized the invasion nor applied
sanctions.
7) Mussolini withdrew his objection to Anschluss.
8) Mussolinis foreign policy began to be dominated by Hitler.
(Any six points which include one aim)
(b) Introduction of conscription by Hitler.
1) Hitlers first successful breach of Versailles came in March 1935 when he announced the
reintroduction of conscription.
2) His excuse was that Britain had just announced air force increases and France had extended
conscription from 12 to 13 months (their justification was German rearmament).
3) Much to their alarm, Hitler told his startled generals and the rest of the world that he would
build up his peacetime army to 36 divisions (about 600000 men).
4) Although, the Stresa Front condemned this violation of Versailles, no action was taken.

19
 5) By the end of 1938, the army stood at 51 divisions (about 800000 men) plus reserves, there
were 21 large naval vessels, battleships, cruisers and destroyers, many more under
construction, and 47 U- boats. A large air force of over 5000 aircraft had been built up.

(c) Germanys Anschluss with Austria.

1) Austrian Nazis staged huge demonstrations in Vienna, Graz and Linz, which Schuschniggs
government could not control.
2) Schuschnigg announced a plebiscite to decide whether or not Austria should remain
independent.
3) Hitler decided to act before voting took place, in case it went against the union.
4) German troops moved in and Austria became a part of Germany.
5) It was a victory for Germany.
6) It dealt a severe blow to Czechoslovakia, which could now be easily attacked from all sides.
(Any 3 points)

Question 9
In the context of the Second World War, discuss the following:
(a) Hitlers final miscalculation over Poland. [4]
(b) The causes and consequences of the German invasion of Russia (1941). [6]
(c) Any three reasons for the defeat of the Axis Powers in the Second World War. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most candidates failed to comprehend the question.
Suggestions for teachers
The reason why it was a miscalculation was not
Explain the developments
answered by majority of the candidates. They
chronologically, leading to the
simply wrote about Hitlers invasion of Poland,
invasion of Poland in 1939.
using the Blitzkrieg method.
Germanys final miscalculation,
(b) Many candidates wrote only one cause for German
particularly, related to Britains
invasion of Russia (1941). For the consequences
policy of appeasement, should be
also, several candidates wrote just one fact. Some
explained clearly.
candidates elaborated too much on the winter
All the major causes should be
campaign.
taught with specific reference to
(c) Reasons for the defeat of the Axis Powers were well
causes, consequences and
attempted by many candidates. However, in a few
significance.
cases, the heading and the explanation did not match
Students should be told to write the
for e.g. under the heading, Axis Powers took on too
main heading and then explain it.
much, the explanation given was that USA was very
powerful so Axis Powers could not handle it.

20
MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
(a) Hitlers final miscalculation over Poland:
1) In April 1939, Hitler demanded the return of Danzig.
2) Poles convinced that German demands were only a preliminary to an invasion.
3) With British support, the Polish rejected German demands.
4) Refused to attend a conference and the British pressure on the Poles to surrender Danzig
was to no avail.
5) Hitler went ahead and signed a Non-aggression pact with USSR.
6) He agreed to divide Poland as he was convinced, that with Russia neutral, Britain and
France would not risk intervention.
7) When the British ratified their guarantee to Poland, Hitler took it as a bluff.
8) When the Polish still refused to negotiate, a full-scale German invasion began on 1st
September 1939.
9) Chamberlain still in a mood to appease suggested that if German troops were withdrawn, a
conference could be held, the Germans did not respond and Chamberlain sent an ultimatum
to Germany.
10) When this expired on 3 September, Britain declared war on Germany followed by France
led to outbreak of the Second World War.
(any four points)
(b) The causes and consequences of the German invasion of Russia (1941).
Causes:
1) Hitlers hatred of communism.
2) Desire for lebensraum (living space) for the growing German population.
3) Fear that Russia might attack Germany while she was still occupied in the in the West.
4) Hope that this would stimulate Japan to attack Russia in the Far East.
5) This might prevent USA from entering the war. (any three points)
Consequences:
1) Important Russian cities like Riga, Smolensk and Kiev were captured.
2) Germans failed to capture Leningrad and Moscow.
3) They were severely hampered by the heavy rains of October which turned the Russian roads
into mud
4) Severe frosts of November and December when in some places the temperature fell to minus
38 degrees centigrade
5) The Germans had inadequate winter clothing because Hitler had expected the campaigns to
be over before winter

21
 6) Even in the spring of 1942, no progress was made in the north and centre as Hitler decided
to concentrate on a major drive south-eastwards towards the Caucasus to seize the oil-fields.
7) Russians began retreating/scorched earth policy/cause German supply line problems.
(c) Reasons for the defeat of the Axis Powers in the Second World War:
1. Shortage of raw materials:
Both Italy and Germany had to import supplies
Germany was short of rubber, cotton, nickel and later oil
2. The allies learnt from their mistakes and early failures
By 1942, the Allies knew how to check Blitzkrieg.
They understood the importance of air support and aircraft carriers.
Built up air and naval superiority which won the battles of the Atlantic and Pacific.
3. The Axis powers took on more than they could handle
Hitler did not realize that war against Britain involved the British Empire as well.
German troops would be thinly spread on various fronts.
Japanese operations were also widely spread on various fronts, beyond their capacity.
The combined resources of the USA, USSR and British Empire.
The longer the war lasted, the less chance the Axis had of victory.
The Japanese and Germans could not match the industrial production, manpower / human
resources of the Russians and the Americans.
The Axis powers made serious tactical mistakes.
The Japanese concentrated on battleships more than aircraft carriers.
Hitler did not make adequate preparations for a winter campaign in Russia and refused to
retreat.
Hitler did not develop jet aircraft which might have resorted German air superiority
(any four points with explanation)

Question 10
The period after the Second World War was marked by tension and cooperation.
Answer the questions below, with reference to this statement:
(a) Why was there a thaw in the Cold War in the 1950s? Give examples to show that [6]
the thaw was only partial.
(b) What led to a permanent relaxation of tensions (dtente) in the 1970s? [4]
(c) Why did many European world leaders promote the idea of greater economic [6]
cooperation and unity in Western Europe after the Second World War?

22
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates wrote less reasons for the thaw in
Suggestions for teachers
the Cold War and elaborated more on the examples.
A clear explanation of what is thaw,
(b) In many cases, the reasons for dtente were not
signs of thaw, followed by an
written according to countries. Some candidates
explanation of why it was partial
failed to distinguish between thaw and dtente.
should be given in order to make the
(c) Many candidates gave only one reason for greater
students understand the topic.
economic unity in Europe. Several candidates wrote
Difference between thaw and
about Benelux Union and a general note on the
dtente must be explained.
formation of EEC instead of writing the reasons for
Reasons for dtente should be taught
its formation.
according to countries.
The students should be instructed to
read the question carefully before
answering it.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 10
(a) Causes:
1. Death of Stalin (1953)
2. New leaders like Bulganin, Khruschev wanted to improve relations with USA.
3. Both sides had developed the hydrogen bomb-even a minor crisis could lead to a nuclear
war.
4. Khruschev was convinced that peaceful co-existence with the west was the one and only
option to prevent a nuclear war.
5. Khruschev believed that communist domination would be established not by war but by the
recognition of the superiority of the Soviet economic system.
6. Neutral states could be won over by lavish economic aid.
7. McCarthy was discredited (1954) and the anti-communist hysteria in the USA declined.
8. President Eisenhower proposed development of friendly ties with the Russians.
However thaw was only partial(any four points)

1. Ruthless suppression of Hungarian uprising by Soviet Union showed limits of freedom of

satellite states.
2. Warsaw Pact (1955) signed between USSR and satellite states to counteract the increasing
power of NATO (West Germany joined NATO).
3. Both sides continued to build nuclear arms/ Russian lead in making ICBM and Sputnik:
USA responded in kind.
4. 1961: The Berlin wall was erected when Kennedy refused to withdraw from Berlin.
(two examples)

23
(b) Dtente in the 1970s- Reasons:
1. The Cuban missile crisis had brought USA and USSR to their senses and made them
conscious of the terrifying implications of a nuclear war.
The process of Dtente was set in motion.
2. Both sides were sickened by the horrors of the Vietnam war.
3. USSR: The expenses of keeping up with the Americans was crippling.
Urgent need to reduce defence expenditure/ divert and utilise funds for the economic
recovery of the USSR and satellite states/ raising living standards to western levels/
Communist bloc threatened by economic unrest.
4. Relations between communist China and USA began to improve in 1971. Russians who
were on bad terms with China did not want to be isolated.
5. USA: Realised that there were better options of dealing effectively with communism./
Military power had limitations; had proved a failure in Vietnam; signs of preference for the
return to isolationism.
6. China: Anxious about its isolation/ nervous about American intentions in Vietnam;
unhappy with increasing tensions with USSR.
7. Nations of Western Europe: Fears that they would have to bear the brunt in the event of
nuclear attack.
8. Policy of Ostpolitik adopted by West Germany ( better relations with Eastern Europe)
(Any four points)
(c) Support for greater unity in Europe:
1. Best way for Europe to recover from the ravages of World War II- pool resources and work
together for mutual benefits.
2. Individual states too small and economies too weak to be economically viable and survive
in a world dominated by the superpowers: USA and USSR
3. A united Western Europe could effectively combat the threat of communism from Russia
and influence of US (Third force).
4. European unity would help Germany to gain quicker recognition and acceptance as a
responsible nation.
5. It would establish peace and stability in Europe.
6. Franco-Germany rivalry would come to an end.
(any three points)

Question 11
With reference to the conflict in the Middle East, answer the following questions:
(a) Give a brief account of the Arab-Israel conflict in Palestine after the First World [8]
War and explain how it led to the outbreak of war in 1948.
(b) State the results of the Arab-Israel war (1948-49). [4]
(c) What were the main points agreed upon in the Camp David Peace Accord (1979)? [4]

24
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates wrote about the Arab-Israeli
Suggestions for teachers
conflict from 78 A.D. instead of writing from the
Students should be encouraged to
First World War. A lot of time was wasted by many
write according to the requirements
candidates in giving unnecessary details.
of the question. Time-line for such
(b) Instead of writing the results of the Arab-Israeli
topics is a must.
conflict of 1948-49, some candidates wrote about
Audio-Visual aids can be used while
other wars like, the Suez War of 1956.
teaching about various Wars.
(c) This part was answered well by the most of the
Causes and consequences of
candidates. However, a few candidates wrote only
different wars should be taught in a
one point correctly.
tabular form.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 11
(a) Causes:
1. After 1919, when Palestine became a British mandate, a large number of Jews began to
arrive in Palestine.
2. The Arabs began to protest to the British, demanding an independent Palestine and an end to
Jewish immigration.
3. The British hoped to persuade the Jews and the Arabs to live peacefully in the same state.
4. Nazi persecution of the Jews after 1933 led to a flood of refugees to Palestine.
5. The Peel Commission proposed dividing Palestine into two separate statesin1937.
6. In 1945 the US pressurized Britain to allow 100, 000 Jews into Palestine.
7. The Jews were determined to fight back. They started terrorists campaign against the Arabs
and the British.
8. Britain unable to cope with the situation, asked the UN to deal with the situation.
9. November 1947: the U.N. voted to partition Palestine roughly into halves, to form an
independent state. Fighting began between the Jews and the Arabs.
10. May 1948, Jewish leader, Ben Gurion, declared the independence of the new state of Israel.
It was unanimously attacked by Egypt, Syria, Iraq and Lebanon.
11. The British withdrew all their troops from Palestine.
(any eight points)
(b) Results of the conflict:
1. Israelis ended up with about three-quarters of Palestine.
2. Egyptian port of Eilat on the Red Sea.
3. The Palestinian Arabs became the innocent victims who found themselves without a state or
a homeland /some were in the new Jewish state of Israel / others who lived in the area seized
by King Abdullah, found themselves living in Jordan.

25
 4. After some Jews had slaughtered the entire population of an Arab village in Israel, nearly a
million Arabs fled into Egypt, Lebanon, Jordan and Syria where they had to live in
miserable refugee camps.
5. Jerusalem was divided between Israel and Jordan.
6. The USA, Britain and France guaranteed Israels frontiers.
7. The Arab states did not regard the ceasefire as permanent. They would not recognize the
legality of Israel, and they regarded this war as only the first round in the struggle to destroy
Israel and liberate Palestine.
(any four points)
(c) The main points agreed upon in the Camp David Peace Treaty:
With Carter acting as intermediary, the talks led to a peace treaty being signed in Washington
March 1979). The main points were:
1. The state of war which had existed between Egypt and Israel since 1948 was now ended.
2. Israel promised to withdraw its troops from Sinai;
3. Egypt promised not to attack Israel again.
4. Guaranteed to supply her with oil from the recently opened wells in southern Sinai;
5. Israeli ships could use the Suez Canal.
(any two points)

GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
Economic causes leading to the growth of Radical Nationalism.
Economic backwardness of the country leading to the formation of the Muslim League.
Refugee problem
Transfer of assets (between India and Pakistan post-independence).
Cultural changes introduced by Hitler
Circumstances while brought Hitler to power
Hitlers final miscalculation over Poland
Introduction of conscription by Hitler.
(b) Concepts between which candidates got confused:
Economic and political causes leading to the growth of Radical Nationalism
Economic backwardness of the country leading to the establishment of the Muslim League.
Germanys Anschluss with Austria (1938) with 1934 Anschluss.
Aims of NAM with Panchsheel.
Cultural and religious policies of Hitler.
26
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
An in depth study of the course content, on the lines defined by the Scope of Syllabus should
be done.
Study on a regular basis and avoid last minute preparation.
Answers must be presented in a logical, systematic manner. Rambling lengthy answers with
irrelevant, vague, repetitive points must be avoided.
Objective answers must be concise, precise, to the point and comprehensive.
Work out past years papers.
Read the question carefully and correctly, identify its requirements and answer accordingly.
Subheadings and key points must be clearly mentioned and then explained.
Time management skills must be developed.
Presentation must be neat and tidy. Handwriting MUST be legible.
Look up websites suggested by the teacher to supplement textual knowledge.
Historical movies, plays, novels, contemporary literature, travel, exploration of historical
sites, museums etc. can add another dimension to the study of history.

27
 POLITICAL SCIENCE
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 3,781
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 1
Mean Marks Obtained 65.67

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 249 140 1241 960 1191
Percentage of Candidates 6.59 3.70 32.82 25.39 31.50
Cumulative Number 249 389 1630 2590 3781
Cumulative Percentage 6.59 10.29 43.11 68.50 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

32.82
35.00 31.50
Percentage of Candidates

30.00
25.39

25.00

20.00

15.00

10.00 6.59
3.70
5.00

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

28
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

PART I
(Compulsory)
Question 1 [15 2]
Answer briefly each of the questions (i) to (xv).
(i) State Aristotles Theory of Cyclic Change.
(ii) Give an example of a Federal State and a Quasi Federal State.
(iii) Mention any two merits of a Parliamentary system of government.
(iv) State any two conventions of the written constitution of the United States of
America.
(v) Define cumulative vote system.
(vi) Explain the meaning of Psychological Basis for the organization of political
parties.
(vii) How has the judicial review undermined the legislature?
(viii) What is the tenure of the President of USA? How many terms can the US
President serve?
(ix) Name the two conventions that are followed while appointing the British Prime
Minister.
(x) Explain the statement American President can pigeon hole any bill.
(xi) Why is the judiciary in USA called the two tier system?
(xii) State what is meant by open trial system.
(xiii) Explain the meaning of Jury System.
(xiv) What is casteism?
(xv) State the importance of reforms in the education system to check communalism.

Comments of Examiners
(i) While attempting this part, several candidates failed
to mention the correct sequence of the forms of
governments.
(ii) Some candidates failed to differentiate between
Federal and Quasi-federal states and therefore
incorrect examples were given.
(iii) While most candidates answered this question
correctly, in some cases, merits and features were
combined to make points.
(iv) A number of candidates thought conventions to be
written rules and wrote about checks and balances in
USA.
Suggestions for teachers
Explain the difference between the
words, basis, typology and cyclic
theory by tabular as well as
pictorial analysis so that it registers
in the minds of students.
Clarify the difference between
unitary, federal and quasi or semi-
federal, with examples.
Explain to students the difference
between merits and features.

29
2
 (v) Some candidates confused cumulative vote system
with second ballot or limited vote system.
(vi) A number of candidates did not know the meaning
of psychological basis for the organization of
political parties and hence gave vague answers.
(vii) Some candidates did not understand the meaning of
undermined and judicial review.
(viii) Several candidates were confused about the tenure
of the President of U.S.A. The second part of the
question was not answered by many candidates.
(ix) Many candidates gave examples of conventions in
UK, but not in specific the ones followed while
appointing the British Prime Minister.
(x) Some candidates confused pigeon hole any bill
with suspensory and pocket veto of the
U.S President.
(xi) Many candidates were not aware of the hierarchy of
the judiciary in USA.
(xii) A few candidates confused open trial with open
punishment.
(xiii) Some candidates gave examples of UK and
confused Jury System to be a group of judges or a
bench system.
(xiv) Some candidates explained the effects of casteism.
(xv) While many candidates suggested reforms to check communalism, very few were able to
suggest reforms in the education system to check communalism.
Explain the difference between
written and unwritten constitution.
A chart on conventions of US, U.K.
and India can be used effectively to
minimize errors.
Explain veto powers of U.S President
clearly and precisely as they exist in
different situations.
Meaning of jury as a group of people
giving opinion to judges should be
explained to students.
Give adequate training to students in
understanding application based
questions.
Teach students to give precise, crisp
and to the point answers in Part I.
Teach students to understand the
question and answer as per the
requirements of the question.
Train students in identifying key
words in the question.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(i) Aristotles Theory of Cyclic Change:
Monarchy Tyranny
Aristocracy Oligarchy
Polity - Democracy
(ii) Example of a Federal State and a Quasi Federal State:2
Federal State USA, Canada, Switzerland, Australia, India
Quasi Federal State - India
(iii) Merits of a Parliamentary system of government:
Merits - Harmony between legislature and executive.
Executive responsible.
Flexible - to make change in Executive
Executive cannot be despotic.
Public Opinion and opposition checks Government. (any two)

30
(iv) Conventions of the written constitution of the United States of America:
Presidential cabinet
Judicial review
The office of the Speaker of the House of Representatives
Senatorial courtesy
Direct election
Party system (any two)
(v) Cumulative vote system:
Under Cumulative Vote system, Multi member constituencies are created. Each voter is given
as many votes as is the number of representatives which are to be elected and each voter has
the freedom either to give all his votes to any one candidate or to distribute his votes among as
many candidates as he wishes.
(vi) Psychological Basis for the organization of political parties means:
Human nature has led to the organization of conservative parties which are orthodox and
liberal parties which are pro-change. (Ideological basis and any other relevant point.)
(vii) Judicial review undermining the legislature:
The right of the courts to declare a law passed by the legislature as unconstitutional and hence
reject it as null and void.
(viii) Tenure of the President of USA:
Four years.
The number of terms the US President can serve:
The US President can serve for a maximum of two terms, i.e. eight years.
(ix) The two conventions that are followed while appointing the British Prime Minister.
Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party.
He must be a member of the House of Commons.
(x) American President can pigeon hole any bill.
The President, being the executive, can kill the spirit of any bill by half-hearted
implementation of the same.
(xi) The judiciary in USA called the two tier system because:
USA has the (1) Federal Judicial System and (2) State Judicial System. The former consists of
the US Supreme Court, and other constitutional and legislative courts which interpret and
apply Federal laws. In the latter, each state of the US federation has its own judicial system
which can interpret and apply the law of the state in disputes involving that state.
(xii) Open trial system:
Everybody can hear and observe the case. The accused is not punished in secret and gets a full
opportunity to defend himself. Provision for free legal aid to the poor and needy.
(xiii) Jury System:
Jury means a body of people discharging the responsibility of deciding the truth of some
claim. Members of the Jury are selected at random out of common people who are not in any
31
 way concerned with the case being heard. Generally, common persons from different activity
are included in the Jury. The Jury assists the judges in taking decisions. In the criminal cases,
all courts which can award punishment of more than three months are tried by Jury.
(xiv) Casteism.
Caste based behaviour and caste based decisions and policies constitute casteism in India.
(or any other relevant answer)
(xv) The importance of reforms in the education system to check communalism:
A secular environment should be created in schools, in order to promote goodwill and
harmony. This can be ensured by providing text-books which do not carry material promoting
communalism. Educational tours and exchange programmes will also help the candidates to
understand each other better and promote communal harmony.
(any other relevant points)

PART II
SECTION A
Answer two questions
Question 2
(a) C.F. Strong has suggested a modern classification of States. Explain the same, with [8]
the help of examples.
(b) Discuss any six merits of liberal democracy. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates confused C.F Strong with Suggestions for teachers
Marriot. Some others made the table showing Teach classification in a tabular
C.F. Strongs classification, but failed to elaborate form with meaning and example of
on each point. Terms such as Nature of each thinker separately.
Legislature, Nature of Executive and Nature of Importance/ features/ merits should
Judiciary with all the subparts and examples were be explained separately and the
found to be missing in some answers. difference between them
(b) A number candidates mixed up merits and highlighted.
features of democracy. In several cases the points
were not adequately explained and at times,
candidates repeated ideas in different points.

32
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) Modern Classification of States as suggested by C.F. Strong:
(i) The nature of state to which the Constitution applies-- Unitary/federal
(ii) The nature of constitution itself--- Flexible/Rigid (written/ unwritten).
(iii)The nature of the legislature---suffrage, Single/multimember Constituency,
(iv) Elective/non or partially elected second chamber. Popular checks/absence of it.
(v) The nature of the executive--Parliamentary/Presidential.
(vi)The nature of the judiciary-- Rule of law/Administrative law.
(Explanation of all points with appropriate examples such as - UK, USA, India, France, etc. are
required).
(b) Merits of liberal democracy:
(i) Representative and responsible government.
(ii) Government based on public opinion
(iii)Free and open struggle for political power
(iv)Political education for the people
(v) Peaceful change of government
(vi)Accountability of the government.
(Six points with explanation are required. Any other relevant points may also be accepted)

Question 3
(a) Distinguish between the unitary form of government and the federal form of [8]
government.
(b) Discuss any six merits of a Presidential form of government. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidates wrote several points of difference
between Unitary and Federal state but did not explain
the meaning. Examples of different forms of
governments were not given in many cases. Several
candidates wrote examples as points of distinction,
which is erroneous.
(b) Many candidates confused features of a Presidential
form of government with its merits. In several cases,
the points were not adequately explained and at times,
candidates repeated same ideas in different language.
Suggestions for teachers
Teach students to write differences
in a methodical manner, under the
following headings: Definition,
Meaning, Division of Power,
Constitutions, Merits and Demerits.
Train students in writing good
meaningful answers.

33
MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a) Unitary form of government and the federal form of government.
1. On the basis of powers of centre and units: In Unitary type, all powers belong to the
Central government. The powers and functions of provisional governments are given /
delegated by the centre / government. But in federal form, the federal government of the
federating units are independent of one another. There is a distribution of powers.
2. Nature of constitution: In a Unitary form, the constitution is generally flexible. It could be
written or unwritten. But, in the Federal form, the constitution is unwritten and it is always
rigid.
3. Role of Judiciary: In a unitary state, the judiciary is not considered interpreter / custodian
of the constitution. There is no judicial review. But, in a federal form, the judiciary is the
interpreter / custodian of the constitution. There is judicial review.
4. Citizenship: In a Unitary form, there is only a single citizenship. But in the federal state
there is a double citizenship.
5. Composition of the second chamber: In a unitary form, there is no fixed principle. But in a
federal form, all the units are given equal / proportional representation.
(Any four differences to be explained - examples to be given. Any other relevant points may
be accepted)
(b) Merits of a presidential form of government
1. It ensures stable government
2. Most suitable for emergencies
3. It leads to the efficiency in administration
4. Less influence of parties
5. Based on the theory of separation of powers
6. Most suitable for multiple party system
7. Selection of capable men
8. Continuity of government policy
9. Good for countries with diverse groups.
(any six points with explanation)

34
Question 4
(a) The distinction between a written and an unwritten constitution is a false one. [8]
Discuss this statement.
(b) Explain any three merits and any three demerits of a rigid constitution. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates wrote differences between
Suggestions for teachers
a written and an unwritten constitution instead of
Explain to students that in a
explaining as to how the difference between written
statement based question, the
and unwritten constitution in a false one.
statement has to be explained with
Illustrations/ examples were not given by many
appropriate examples.
candidates.
Highlight the differences between
(b) Most candidates answered this part correctly
features and merits of a rigid
although a few candidates intermixed features and
constitution.
merits.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a) Distinction between a written and an unwritten constitution is a false one because:
A written constitution means a constitution written in the form of a book or a series of
documents combined in the form of a book. It is a consciously planned and enacted
constitution which is formulated and adopted by a constituent assembly or a council committee
or a legislature. An unwritten constitution is one which is neither drafted nor enacted by a
Constituent Assembly. It is not written in the form of a book or one document. It is a product
of slow and gradual evolution. The difference between written and unwritten constitutions is
not organic. In a written constitution, the written parts are in majority and there are several
unwritten parts in the form of conventions. In an unwritten constitution, most of the parts are
unwritten in the sense that these are not written in the form of a book and these lay scattered in
different documents. Along with it, in an unwritten constitution, conventions regulate most of
the organisation and working of the government. Britain has an unwritten constitution. The
USA has a written constitution, However, in both there are present a large number of unwritten
conventions which regulate the organisation and working of their governments and political
processes. Written constitutions observes Bryce became developed by interpretations,
fringed with decisions and enlarged by customs They work with the help of
supplementations provided by conventions.
As such, no real and organic distinction exists between written and unwritten constitutions.
C.F. Strong calls division between them as false, misleading and illusory. K.C. Wheare opines
that the classification of constitutions between written and unwritten should be discarded as
there is little distinction between countries with written and unwritten constitutions and those
which have no written constitutions. Similar view have also been expressed by Fine, Curtis,
Bryce and many others. We also accept the merit of such a logic.
In contemporary times, each democratic state has a written constitution. However, Britain
continues to be an exception.
(Examples from the constitutions of India, U.K and U.S.A to be given.)

35
(b) Merits and Demerits of a rigid constitution:
Merits:
1. A rigid constitution is a source of stability in administration.
2. It maintains continuity in administration.
3. It prevents autocratic exercise of powers by the government.
Demerits:
1. It fails to keep pace with fast changing socio-economic environment and needs.
2. Due to its inability to change easily, it hinders the process of social and political
development.
3. It can be a source of hindrance during emergencies.
(any other relevant point may be accepted)

SECTION B
Answer three questions.
Question 5
(a) Explain how the system of checks and balances makes the theory of separation of [8]
powers workable in the United States.
(b) Why is Universal Adult Franchise the most accepted form of Representation in a [6]
modern state?

Comments of Examiners
(a) Several candidates did not know the concept of
checks and balances as it works in USA. Instead,
they explained separation of powers in detail.
(b) Majority of the candidates were able to perform well
in this question by applying common logic. However
in some cases, the points were overlapping/ not
arranged systematically.
Suggestions for teachers
Make students aware of the fact
that Checks and Balances is a
theory and Separation of Power is
practical application.
Students should be instructed not to
write vague points. Instead, various
social and economic aspects of
democracy should be explained in a
logical manner.

36
MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) System of checks and balances makes the theory of separation of powers workable in the
United States:
The Theory of Checks and Balances holds that no organ of power should enjoy unchecked
power in its sphere. The power of one organ should be restrained and checked by the power
of the other two organs. Thereby a balance should be secured which should prevent such
organs from misusing its power.
The US constitution provides for a system of mutual checks and balances among the three
organs of the government. The Congress, the President and the Supreme Court. The major
checks of each organ over the other two organs can be described as under:
Congressional Checks upon the US President:
All appointments made by the President require Senatorial approval
All treaties made by the President require Senatorial ratification by a 2/3rd majority.
The President depends upon the Congress for finances.
The Congress has the power to remove the President through a process of impeachment.
Congressional Checks upon the Supreme Court and Other Courts:
The Judges of the US Supreme Court are appointed by the President with the approval of
the senate.
The Judges can be removed from the office by the Congress through impeachment.
The Congress alone has the power to ordain and establish new inferior-subordinate
Courts.
Presidential Checks Upon the Congress:
The President can use suspensory veto over the bills passed by the Congress.
During the last 10 days of a session of the Congress, the President can kill the bills
submitted to him for signatures by not signing them. It is called the Pocket Veto of the
President.
The President can pigeon-hole any law by half-hearted and lukewarm enforcement.
Presidential Checks Upon the Judiciary:
The Judges are appointed by the President, with the approval of the Senate.
The President, as head of the State, has the right to grant pardon, reprieve and amnesty to
any criminal.
Judicial Checks over the Congress and the President:
The US Supreme Court has the power to conduct judicial review over the laws of the
Congress during the course of a litigation process. It can declare any law or any part of it,
as unconstitutional, and reject it for future.

37
 The Supreme Court can, similarly, conduct a judicial review over the orders issued and
adopted by the President.
The Supreme Court acts as the guardian, protector and final interpreter of the Constitution.
(eight points to be given)
(b) Universal Adult Franchise is the most accepted form of Representation in a modern state
because:
In tune with Democracy--full participation of the people.
Justified Right to Equality-- equal citizenship.
Laws of state applies to all... right to vote.
Political socialisation.
Source of stability and better obedience to law.
National integration.
Less chance of revolution.
Everyone pays tax so all enjoys rights to vote.
Community feeling and security feeling for the minorities.
Basis for all rights.
Dignity and popular sovereignty.
(any six any other relevant points may be accepted)

Question 6
(a) What is meant by the sovereignty of the British Parliament? What are its [8]
limitations?
(b) Make a comparative study of US House of Representatives and the British House [6]
of Commons.

Comments of Examiners
(a) The first part of the question was not answered Suggestions for teachers
correctly by a number of candidates. Proper The need to focus on key issues in
explanation of the concept of sovereignty of the the syllabus must be reiterated at
British Parliament was missing in many answers. A regular intervals.
few candidates did not understand the meaning of The difference between
the word Limitations. dimensions, meaning and
(b) This part was attempted well by a number of limitations must be brought out
candidates. clearly.
Comparison of all Houses can be
done in a tabular form so as to help
students retain differences in a
much better manner.

38
MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) Sovereignty of the British Parliament and its limitations:
Parliamentary Sovereignty: is one of the salient features of the British political system. This
means that the British Parliament is legally sovereign and has unlimited power to make,
amend and unmake any law on any subject. However, in actual practice, there are several
limitations on its sovereignty:
1. Conventions
2. Powerful, stable executive in the Parliament
3. Moral values of the British society
4. Complex laws catering to the needs of a welfare state requires delegated legislation
5. Manifestoes of the political parties (as government or as opposition)
6. Public opinion
7. International laws and Treaty obligations.
(Any four points to be adequately explained.)
(b) Comparative study of House of Representatives and the British House of Commons:
Difference about their origin, size and tenure: British Parliament is the result of evolution
and it is very old. The American Congress is the product of constitution. Article 1 of the
Constitution provides for the House of Representatives. House of Commons has 650
members which keeps on changing and the House of Representatives has 435 members.
The tenure of the House of Commons is 5 years while that of the House of Representatives
is of 2 years.
Difference in their Powers: There is a vast difference in the powers and position. There is
a unitary form of government in England and the parliament can make laws on any
subject. In America, there is a federal form of government and hence the Congress can
make laws only on the federal subjects. In England, no distinction is made between
constitutional law and ordinary law. American Constitution being a written constitution,
makes a distinction between an ordinary law and a constitutional law. There is no judicial
review in England whereas the Supreme Court of America enjoys this power and can
declare a law null and void.
Difference in their relations to Executive: England has a parliamentary form of
government and so there is a close relationship between the executive and legislature.
Executive (cabinet) is responsible to the House of Commons. It can oust the cabinet by
passing a motion of no-confidence. As compared to this, there is no relationship between
the executive and legislature in America. The House of Representatives has no control
over the executive.
Relations with the Second Chamber: House of Commons is more powerful than the
House of Lords. House of Lords has the delaying power of 30 days over the money bills
and one year over an ordinary bill. As compared to this, House of Representatives is a
weak chamber. Senate can make any change in both money bills as well as ordinary bills
passed by the House of Representatives.
(Any three powers and functions to be explained.)

39
Question 7
(a) Explain the reasons why the power of the Executive has grown in recent years. [8]

(b) State the main differences between the political executive and the permanent [6]
executive.
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates confused reasons for recent growth Suggestions for teachers
in power of the executive with features/ functions of Train students to prepare topics in
Executive. Several answered lacked the required such a manner that both short
points. answer and long answer questions
(b) While most candidates did well in this question, a few can be adequately answered.
got confused and wrote the differences between real Help students understand the
and nominal executive rather than political executive difference between different types
and the permanent executive. of executives, using plenty of
examples.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) The reason for the growth of power of the Executive in recent years:
(i) Rise of Welfare State.
(ii) System of Delegated legislation.
(iii) System of Administrative Justice--quasi-judicial functions in complex industrial society,
permits, licenses, quotas, tax cases.
(iv) Important functions of Exec - finance, international relations, war and peace, treaty
making fighting terrorism, fiscal management etc.
(v) Planning functions - socio-eco development.
(vi) Decline in the role of legislature,
(vii) Availability of the services of the Civil Services.
(viii) Control over Military and Police.
(ix) Power to meet emergencies and provide relief.
(any eight points with explanation)
(b) Main differences between political and permanent executive:
Political Executive Permanent Executive
Ministers Civil servants
Political-party affiliations, leaders Non-political
Policy formulation Advises, helps ,alternative policies

40
 Responsible and accountable to the Not responsible or answerable
public/legis.
Amateurs Experts
Short tenure Long tenure
(any six points)

Question 8
(a) Discuss the functions of the Judiciary. [8]
(b) Discuss the original and appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most candidates answered this part well but some Suggestions for teachers
wrote functions of Supreme Court of USA, India and Advise students to write different
UK. points instead of writing the same
(b) This answer was attempted correctly by most point differently.
candidates. Every aspect of the topic as
highlighted in the syllabus, must be
comprehensively taught.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
(a) The functions of Judiciary:
(i) Administration of Justice.
(ii) Interpretation and application of Laws.
(iii) Role in Law making.
(iv) Equity legislation.
(v) Protection of Rights.
(vi) Guardian of the Constitution.
(vii) Enforcement of Decisions and Judgements.
(viii) Special role in Federation.
(ix) Running Judicial Administration of the State.
(x) Advisory function -- President/ Supreme Court.
(xi) To conduct Judicial Probes.
(xii) Miscellaneous Functions- local officials, licenses, patents, copy rights, trustees, etc.
(any eight points with explanation)

41
(b) Original and appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
Original Jurisdiction:-
i) Between Government of India and one or more states.
ii) Between Government of India and one or more states on one side and one or more states
on the other
iii) Between two or more States-- only legal disputes, not political.
Appellate Jurisdiction:
Civil Cases--1)-involves substantial question of law,
2) High Court feels case should go to Supreme Court.
Criminal Cases--1) HC has reversed order of acquittal of an accused and death sentence given.
2) HC has withdrawn for trail a case from subordinate court and awarded death sentence to the
accused
3) HC certifies that the case is fit for appeal to the SC.
In Constitutional Cases-- interpretation of Constitution.

Question 9
(a) State any two consequences of regional imbalances. Suggest six steps for [8]
removing regional imbalances.
(b) Give any six ways to combat Separatism. [6]
[

Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates stressed upon the causes instead of
Suggestions for teachers
the consequences of regional imbalances as required.
Examples of consequences or
(b) Some candidates did not understand the meaning of
effects of Regional Imbalances
combat so they gave general statements rather than
should be given from different
giving appropriate points. In several cases,
states of India so as to make it
separatism as a concept was confused with
interesting and easier for students to
religious differences and communalism.
grasp.
Help students understand the
meaning of terms such as, casteism,
communalism, regional imbalance,
separatism and so on. Tell students
that same remedial measures or
consequences cannot be written for
all.

42
MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
(a) Consequences of regional imbalances and steps for removing regional imbalances:
Consequences of Regional Imbalances:
Inadequate and slow development of national economy.
Source of regionalism and communalism.
Source of tensions and conflict.
Hindrances in the way of national integration and nation building.
Source of violence in society and politics.
Steps to be taken:
Area specific plans for socio-economic development of under-developed regions.
Special area development projects
Empowerment of local self-government intuitions
Effective use of Tribal Councils and Hill Councils.
Special efforts for development of education
Employment opportunities, particularly for weaker sections of society and rural people.
Special steps for boosting agriculture and rural development.
Positive role of political parties
(Any other relevant points may be accepted.)
(b) Steps to combat Separatism:
1. People of India must come forward united to defeat the forces of separatism.
2. Indian state must take stronger state action to eliminate the evil of separatism.
3. There should be international cooperation to fight international terrorism which promotes
separatism.
4. There should be special steps for meeting cross border terrorism.
5. Security system should be more efficient
6. Rapid industrial, economic and technological development and spread of education to
defeat the forces of separatism.
7. There should be an efficient and accountable law and order machinery.
(Any other relevant points may be accepted)

43
GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
Jury System; Quasi Federal; Cumulative Vote System; Psychological basis; Pigeon hole a bill;
Two tier System
Distinction between written and unwritten constitution is a false one.
Meaning of Sovereignty of British Parliament.
Jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India.
Ways to combat separatism.

(b) Concepts in which candidates got confused:

Pocket veto and suspensory veto and pigeon holing a bill
Jury and judges
Appellate and Original jurisdiction
Cumulative vote system and Second ballot system
Term and tenure
Federal and Quasi Federal
Political and Permanent Executive with Real and Nominal Executive
Separatism and Casteism
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
Selective study should be avoided.
Be aware of the day to day political, social and economic issues, both national and
international.
Comparative study of the political systems should be done with examples.
Read the question paper well. Write the answers according to the requirements of the question.
Write answers in points and explain the points. Substantiate the answers with examples. Do not
write vague statements. Points should not be repeated.
Time management skills must be developed.
Lookup websites suggested by the teacher to supplement textual knowledge.

44
 GEOGRAPHY
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 3,395
Highest Marks Obtained 98
Lowest Marks Obtained 23
Mean Marks Obtained 61.63

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 0 46 1823 1223 303
Percentage of Candidates 0.00 1.35 53.70 36.02 8.92
Cumulative Number 0 46 1869 3092 3395
Cumulative Percentage 0.00 1.35 55.05 91.08 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

60.00 53.70
Percentage of Candidates

50.00

36.02
40.00

30.00

20.00
8.92
10.00
0.00 1.35

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

45
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

PART I (30 Marks)

Answer all questions.
Section A

Question 1 [10 2]
(i) Mention the land area of India and Australia in Kilometres.

(ii) The figure below represents a section from the Aravalis to the Peninsular
region.
A B C D
Aravalis
(m) R.Chambal R.Narmada R.Tapi
Elevation

Identify any two of the relief features marked, A, B, C and D.

(iii) Briefly discuss the role of El-Nino in Indian climate.

(iv) Mention two objectives of the Indian Forest Policy.

(v) What is the index of concentration of population? Which state in India has
the maximum index of concentration according to the 2011 census?

(vi) State any two problems faced by the fishing industry in Bangladesh.

(vii) Give one difference between natural harbours and artificial harbours.

(viii) Name two centres of integrated iron and steel industry in India.

(ix) Write two factors which have facilitated the setting up of cotton textile
industry in Mumbai.

(x) Mention any two positive impacts of tourism in India.

46
Comments of Examiners
(i) The land area was not stated in the correct unit, i.e.
sq. km. Some candidates mentioned the length and
breadth, while a few gave the latitudinal and
longitudinal extent of India.
(ii) Common errors committed in this part were: A,
B, C, D were not mentioned against the
landforms mentioned; the Vindhyas and the Satpuras
were interchanged; instead of the Deccan Plateau,
Chota Nagpur Plateau was mentioned.
(iii)Several candidates could not relate El Nino with the
Indian climate. Some confused El Nino with western
disturbances.
(iv)There was a lot of confusion between deforestation
and afforestation; whereas, afforestation is an
objective, prevention of deforestation is not, but it
was mentioned nevertheless.
(v) Candidates answered correctly in many cases, but
some forgot to mention proportion of population in
the definition. The second part of the question was
attempted correctly by most candidates.
(vi)This part was answered well in most cases.
However, some candidates just wrote storms
instead of tropical storms. Several candidates,
instead of writing about problem of preservation of
fish (because of the tropical climate), wrote about
conservation of fish.
(vii) A number of candidates merely wrote that natural
harbours are natural and artificial harbours are
man made. Key words like, indented coastline,
dredging, were missing in many answers.
(viii) A number of candidates failed to understand the
question. Instead of mentioning two centres of
integrated iron and steel industry in India many
candidates named the Iron and Steel plants or states
where they are located.
(ix)Some candidates wrote that cotton is available in
Mumbai they did not write about the black cotton
soil of Maharashtra and the surrounding area. While
many candidates wrote about the humid climate of
Mumbai, they did not mention the effect of humid
climate on cotton thread.
(x) This question was well answered by many
candidates. However, a few candidates mentioned
the positive impacts in a very generalised and vague
manner, e.g. improvement in standard, conservation of forests, etc.
47
Suggestions for teachers
Stress upon the writing the correct
unit of measurement, e.g. length
kms; width kms; area sq kms/
km2.
Give more practice in drawing cross
sections in the Physical map of
India.
Stress upon key words such as
proportion or percentage while
dealing with the definition of IOC.
While discussing El Nino as a factor
affecting climate, discuss the effects
specifically with reference to the
Indian climate.
Explain to students the difference
between tertiary occupation and
secondary occupation as the
problems of these two are totally
different.
Explain the meaning of natural and
artificial harbour before dealing with
major ports and harbours in the
country.
Students should be taught that the
humid climate of Mumbai ensures
that the fine yarn does not break
while spinning. They should be
made aware that raw cotton grown
on the black soil in the hinterland of
Mumbai is readily available.
While teaching any locational factor
for an industry, stress upon specific
factors that are available in that
region and not the general factors
that are required for development of
such industry.
Train students to identify key words
in the question.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(i) India - 32,87,782 Km2/ 32,87,263 Km2/ 3214 km x 2933 Km
Australia 76,86,848 Km2, 76, 8617 square kilometres
(ii) A Malwa Plateau
B Vindhyas
C Satpuras
D Deccan Plateau
(iii) El-Nino is a narrow warm ocean current which sometimes appears off the Peru coast.
- El-Nino causes widespread floods / droughts in Indian tropical regions.
- It influences the monsoon winds to change their direction of movement/ affects the global
pattern of pressure and wind system including monsoon winds over the Indian Ocean
- El-Nino affects Indian pressure and wind systems/ global pressure and wind systems
- Its occurrence near Peru Coast leads to weak South West monsoon rainfall / droughts in
India.
(iv) - Maintenance of environmental stability through preservation and restoration of ecological
balance.
- Conservation of natural heritage.
- (Check on soil erosion and denudation/ degradation in catchment area) of rivers, lakes, and
reservoirs.
- Check on extension of sand dunes in desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts.
- Substantial increase in forest / tree cover through massive afforestation and social forestry
programmes.
- Steps to meet requirements of fuel, food, fodder, minor forest produce and timber of rural
and tribal population.
- Increase in productivity of forest to meet the national needs.
- Encouragement of efficient utilisation of forest produce and optimum substitution of wood.
- Steps to create massive peoples movement with involvement of women to achieve the
objectives and minimise pressure on existing forests.
- Stop shifting cultivation increase efficiency of forest administration facilities for
research and management control grazing promote welfare of the people.
(v) Index of concentration of population:
- It is the proportion of population living in each state or union territory to the total
population of India. OR
- 100
either one accepted
Uttar Pradesh

48
(vi) - Severe tropical cyclones/ storms
- Small scale fishing
- Small boats
- Traditional fishing methods
- Inefficient fishing methods
- Problems of preservation / drying and salting
- Problems of transportation due to tropical climate
(vii) Natural harbours Artificial harbours
They occur along fairly indented coastline/ They are constructed by dredging and
irregular/ broken coastline / inlet erecting a wall against the sea along a
coastline.

(viii) Centres of iron and Steel industry:

- Jamshedpur
- Kulti
- Burnpur
- Hirapur
- Bhadravati
- Durgapur
- Bhilai
- Rourkela
- Bokaro
- Salem
- Tornagal
- Paradip
- Visakhapatnam
- Daitari
- Kalinganagar
- Dolvi
(any two)
(ix) - Availability of raw cotton
- Cheap hydraulic power
- Chemicals for dying
- Cheap abundant labour
- Good means of road rail and port facility

49
 - Humid climate which does not allow the thread to break
- Large local market
- Ease of importing machineries through Mumbai ports
- Facilities for washing and dyeing also exist here
- There is no dearth of capital inputs
- Mumbai has the advantage of early start
- Port for export/ import
(any two)
(x) Positive impacts of Tourism:
- Provided vast employment opportunities (any type of employment related to tourism,
Employment of women, hotels, restaurants, transport, and special contribution of railways.
- Helped in developing infrastructural facilities in an area.
- Involvement of local bodies, government and non-governmental organisations in creating
awareness and eating facilities.
- Generate income
- Source of foreign exchange earnings
- Preservation of national heritage/ monuments
- Development of environment, parks and sanctuaries.
- Promotes peace and stability (any two)

SECTION B
Question 2 [10]
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Mark and name the 235o N latitude.
(b) Mark and name the Anaimudi peak.
(c) Trace the course of River Kaveri.
(d) Mark with an arrow the direction of winter jet stream over India.
(e) Mark and name the state with the lowest level of urbanisation.
(f) Shade the State with the highest cropping intensity.
(g) Shade and name the leading state for rice production.
(h) Mark and name a centre for manganese production.
(i) Mark Kochi seaport.
(j) Mark and name the Pune centre of sugar industry in Maharashtra.
Note: All the map work, including legend (Index) should be done on the map sheet only.

50
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates did not mark the Tropic of Cancer Suggestions for teachers
as a curved line. Some candidates marked the tropic Tell students that the tropic of
correctly, but forgot to label it. Cancer should be shown as a curved
(b) Precise marking was not done by many candidates. line.
In some cases, the Anaimudi peak was marked in Ensure that students get regular
North India. practice in maps. Work must also be
(c) The course of River Kaveri was not traced correctly checked on a regular basis.
by several candidates either the mouth/source of Show students the direction of
the river was wrongly marked. different monsoons, western
(d) Many candidates marked the North-West winds disturbances, direction of cyclones
and the jet stream in summer and
which bring winter depressions and rain to this part
winter on a wall map while teaching
of the country instead of the winter jet stream. Some the chapter on Climate.
candidates just drew a line without showing the Students must be taught the source
direction (arrow head). as well as the mouth of the river
(e) Many candidates named the state correctly but were along with the course of river.
unable to mark the boundary of Himachal Pradesh. Practice should be given to students
(f) Instead of Punjab, many candidates marked Uttar in drawing outlines of States.
Pradesh. Shading again was not entirely correct
several candidates just shaded a small area.
(g) A number of candidates drew the lower part of West Bengal correctly but the northern part was
marked incorrectly.
(h) In this question many candidates lost marks as some could not name the centre of manganese
production. In several cases, even if the naming was correct, the location was in the wrong place.
(i) Kochi was marked correctly in most cases. However in a few cases, Kochi was marked too far to
the North.
(j) Many candidates marked Pune very close to Mumbai. Some candidates marked it on the coastline.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
Candidates were required to give a correctly labelled map showing the exact location of the
regions/places asked for.

51
 PART II (40 Marks)
Answer any four questions.
Question 3
(a) (i) Briefly explain the geological evolution of the peninsular plateau. [4]
(ii) Define the terms Lagoon and Delta with an example of each from the
Indian region.
(b) Name the two rivers that make the Eastern most and Western most limits of [2]
Kumaon Himalayas.
(c) Distinguish between the terms flora and forest. [2]
(d) Study the climatic graph of station A given below and answer the questions that [2]
follow:

20 400

RAINFALL IN MILLI METRES

TEMPERATURE

TEMPERATURE IN oC

15 300

10 200

5 100
0 0
J F M A M J J A S O N D
-5


-10

(i) Give a reason as to why extreme low temperature is indicated for

station A.
(ii) Name the month when the highest amount of rainfall is received.

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Some candidates were unable to trace the entire
Suggestions for teachers
evolution of the Peninsular Plateau.
Guide students to discuss geological
(ii) The definitions given by candidates were
evolution in points.
incomplete in many cases. Lagoon was defined
The concepts need to be clarified
as a salt water lake but the fact that it is cut off
and then learnt by heart with the help
from the sea by sand bars was not mentioned. In
of examples.
some cases, the candidates named Kochi as a
Encourage students to learn with the
Lagoon. The definition of delta was correctly
help of maps.
given by most candidates. However, the
Learning of definitions is a must.
examples were incorrect in many cases. Several
Key words in the definition must be
candidates named the Sunderbans as a delta.
highlighted.
The concept of low altitude and high
altitude must be explained.

52
(b) Several candidates got confused about the Eastern most and Western most limits of the Kumaon
Himalayas and wrote Kali and Sutlej rivers instead of Sutlej and Kali rivers.
(c) A number of candidates got confused between flora and fauna. Instead of writing, plants of a
particular region, candidates wrote trees/grass etc. The definition of forest was given correctly in
most cases.
(d) (i) Many candidates provided vague and generalised answers such as, due to the Himalayas, but
the key word high was missing in most answers.
(ii) This part of the question was answered correctly in most cases.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a) (i) A block of crystal rocks which emerged during Pre-Cambrian era from a large depression
/ and has never submerged again.
(ii) Lagoon a shallow salt water lake in coastal areas separated from main sea by sandy
dunes.
Examples: Vembanand / Chilika / Pulicat /
Delta a flat plain of fine alluvium deposit at the mouth of a river.
Examples: Ganga delta / Brahmaputra delta, Mahanadi delta / Godavari delta / Krishna
and Kaveri deltas.
(Definition with examples)
(b) Satluj and Kali rivers
(c) Flora: Plants of a particular region listed by species. / Different plants can be found in different
types of environment. (any one point)
Forest: A large area covered by trees and shrubs / they provide just one landscape/ dense
growth of trees/ shrubs. (any one point)
(d) (i) Due to high altitude/ high mountains/ high Himalayas
(ii) Highest rainfall month, July / August (any one)

53
Question 4

(a) Define an urban area according to the latest census. [2]

(b) (i) What is the present population of India? [2]
(ii) With reference to the percentage of world population, state Indias
position in the world.
(c) What is the difference between arithmetic density of population and [2]
physiological density of population?
(d) Study the given types of rural settlements and answer the questions that follow: [4]

Settlement A Settlement B

(i) Identify the two types of settlements A and B. State one characteristic
feature each of the two settlements.
(ii) What is the main economic function performed in a rural settlement?

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most of the candidates scored well in this question.
Suggestions for teachers
Some candidates, however, defined only census
The concept of census towns and
towns or only statutory towns. A few candidates
statutory towns must be explained.
failed to define according to the latest Census.
Current figures and statistics must be
(b) (i) This part was answered correctly by majority of
provided and students should be
the candidates. A few candidates wrote the
encouraged to state figures with
figures of population in India correctly but the
units.
unit million or billion was not mentioned. Some
Teach the types of rural settlements
candidates quoted the 2001 census figures.
with diagrams so that the concepts
(ii) This part of the answer was found to be correct
are clear. Settlements can also be
in most cases.
taught with the help of topographical
maps.

54
(c) While the definition of arithmetic density was found to be correct in most cases, some candidates
used terms such as cultivable area and net sown area for physiological density.
(d) (i) The settlement types were identified correctly by most candidates. However, a few candidates,
instead of identifying dispersed settlement (A) and clustered settlement (B), identified them as
rural and urban settlements, respectively. In some cases, the identification was correct but
candidates had difficulty in identifying the characteristic features.
(ii) This question was answered correctly my most candidates.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a) - All places with a Municipality/ corporation/ cantonment board/ or notified town area
committee (any two)
- All places which have a minimum population of 5000
- At least 75% male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities
- A density of population of at least 400 persons/ km2 (any two points)
(b) (i) Indias population according to 2011 census 1210.0 million / 121 crores / 1.2 billion
(ii) Indias percentage share 17.4% / 17.5 OR India is second in position

(c) (i) Arithmetic density OR can be expressed as a percentage

(ii) Physiological density OR can be expressed as a percentage

(d) (i) Compact / clustered / nucleated / agglomerated - B
Dispersed / isolated / scattered / sprinkled - A
Characteristic features:
Compact Dispersed
Definite layout plan No specific plan
Dense and close block of houses Hamlets are scattered over a vast
area
Narrow winding rows separate rows Wide open area unsurfaced roads
of houses with settlement in a single hamlet.
Small in size and provide less space Bigger in size and provide more
space
Streets are dirty due to lack of Neat and clean streets
sanitation

(ii) Agriculture / Cultivation / Farming

55
Question 5
(a) What is meant by environmental management? [2]
Why is there a need for environmental management in India?
(b) What is the percentage of net sown area and net forest area of India in present [2]
times?
(c) Mention any three advantages of well irrigation in India. [3]
(d) Name one perennial canal in each of the following states: [3]
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) Punjab
(iii) Tamil Nadu

Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates did not define environmental
management correctly. They confused it with
environmental pollution or sustainable development.
(b) Several candidates wrote incorrect percentage of net
sown area and net forest area of India.
(c) Most of the candidates answered this question
correctly. However, in a few cases, the answers were
incomplete. Some candidates wrote about over
watering in well irrigation.
(d) Part (i) was answered well by the majority of
candidates. In parts (ii) & (iii) the names of canals
were mistaken with names of multipurpose projects.
Spellings of canal names were found to be incorrect
in several cases.
Suggestions for teachers
Stress upon learning definitions with
emphasis on key words.
While teaching the chapter on Land
use, emphasise on the definitions
and also highlight the facts and
figures in class.
Encourage students to learn at least
two examples of canals in each state
of India.
Importance should also be given to
spellings.

56
MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) Environment Management:
A process of planning/ review/ assessment/ decision-making which is essential in the real life
situation of limited resources and changing priorities.
for sustainable development/ prevent indiscriminate use of natural resources/ prevent overall
degradation of environment
(b) Net sown area 46.5%
Forest area 22.86% / 22%
(c) Advantages of well irrigation:
simple
cheapest source of irrigation
Independent source of irrigation
No over watering / excessive irrigation by canals leads to problem of reh which is not there
in well irrigation
Easy to be dug at a convenient place where ground water is available.
Chemicals which may be added to well water can reach fields easily.
(any three)

(d) (i) Uttar Pradesh Upper Ganga / Lower Ganga / Sharda / East Yamuna / Agra / Betwa
(ii) Punjab Upper Bari Doab / Sirhind / Bhakra / Bist Doab
(iii) Tamil Nadu Mettur / Lower Bhawain / Parambikulam / Aliyar / Manimuthar
(any one of each)

Question 6
(a) State a difference between wet farming and dry farming. [1]
(b) (i) Mention the climatic conditions required for growing coconut in India. [3]
(ii) Name two areas of coconut production in Sri Lanka.
(c) Suggest any two methods for fish conservation. [2]
(d) (i) Name a major state for the development of each of the following: [4]
Thermal Power.
Hydro-electric Power.
(ii) State two advantages of using biogas as a source of energy.

57
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates answered this part correctly. Some
candidates did not mention more than or less than
75cms of rainfall. A few candidates failed to write
the unit cm.
(b) (i) The temperature and rainfall range was found to
be incorrect in many cases. Many candidates forgot
to write the unit C.
(ii) Very few candidates could answer the areas of
coconut production in Sri Lanka correctly. A
number of candidates skipped this question.
(c) Most of the candidates answered this question
correctly. However a few confused conservation
with preservation and said that drying, salting were
methods of conservation.
(d) This question was answered correctly by most of the
candidates.
Suggestions for teachers
Explain the meaning of wet farming
and dry farming to students. The
importance of using units must be
emphasised.
Train students to write relevant
answers. There is a difference
between geographical factors and
climatic factors.
Whenever crop cultivation is
studied, it should be done along with
its distribution.
Crop cultivation and crop producing
areas should be taught with the help
of maps.
The difference between preservation
and conservation should be
explained.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) Wet farming:
Farming in areas receiving more than 75 cm rainfall.
Dry farming farming in regions with less than 75 cm rainfall.
(b) (i) Coconut - T : 25oC 30oC
R : well distributed 100 130 cm/ 125-130 cms
Frost and drought are harmful. (any two)
(ii) Areas of coconut production in Srilanka:
- Negombo
- Chilaw
- Kurunegala
- Jaffna Peninsula
- South of Batticaloa
(any two)
(c) Methods of fish conservation:
Restocking of overfished waters
Checking indiscriminate fishing

58
 Artificial fertilization of eggs
Protection from pollution
International agreement on control of waters for fishing
Research and development in world fisheries. (any two)

(d) (i) (1) Thermal Power State Maharashtra / Gujarat / Haryana / West Bengal / Jharkhand
/ Madhya Pradesh, / Andhra Pradesh/ U.P./ Delhi/ Punjab/ Assam/ Bihar/ Orissa/
Chhattisgarh. (any one)
(2) Hydroelectric Power Punjab/ H.P./ M.P./ Jharkhand/ Maharashtra/ Karnataka/
Kerala/ Tamil Nadu/ North Eastern States (any one)
(ii) Advantages:
It produces enriched fertilizers
It improves sanitation of the rural areas
It provides smokeless and efficient cooking fuel
It can be used for lighting and power generation
There is no problem of scavengers
It upgrades our environment
Renewable (any two)

59
Question 7
(a) Give any three reasons to explain why railways are well developed in the [3]
Northern plains of India.
(b) Give one point of difference between Golden Quadrilateral Highways and [2]
National Highways.
(c) Explain the relationship between transport and industrial development. [3]
(d) What are the two ways in which Radio can be considered as a powerful means of [2]
communication?

Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates got confused in this
Suggestions for teachers
question and could not segregate the points clearly.
Teach students how to answer
They answered the factors correctly but many failed
application based questions.
to explain these factors and their relationship with
Students should be encouraged to
the railways.
mention the cause and its effect
(b) Vague and generalised differences were stated by
distinctly.
many candidates. Many candidates missed out
Explain to students terms such as,
important keywords like, super highways, six lane
the Golden Quadrilateral, National
super highways, four lane highways, etc.
Highway and the North South
(c) This question was well answered by many
Corridor and the points of difference
candidates. In some cases, answers were not written
between them.
in points.
(d) The performance of candidates was quite satisfactory
in this question. A few candidates however, confused news and entertainment radios with wireless
radios. This showed that candidates were not familiar with the text.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) Plain area therefore, ease in construction.
Developed economy need for efficient movement of goods and people.
High density of population therefore, large/ great demand.
Fertile soil for agriculture - helped in development of railways.
(any three)
(b) Golden Quadrilateral National Highways
- A massive programme of road building - Main roads across the country
taken up by NHDP constructed and maintained by CPWD.
- It is a six lane super highway connecting - These roads connect state capitals big
Delhi - Mumbai Chennai - Kolkata cities and important ports.
Delhi
(any one difference)

60
(c) - Transport are the basic economic arteries linking production and consumption centres.
- Transport plays an important role in production and distribution.
- Transport system if well-knit and coordinated plays an important role in the sustained
economic growth of a country.
- Transport provides low specific cost for heavy industry
- Transport facilities are required for raw material and labour force for manufacturing goods
to the market.
- The location of an industry, growth of a city and trade are all influenced by transport.
- Speed of improved means of transport has facilitated large-scale production, marketing and
turnover of capital.
(any three)
(d) - It is sometimes the only source of useful information/ health, family, womens issues,
education in rural and remote areas.
- News broadcaster
- Variety of entertainment
- Cheapest source of information and entertainment (any two)

Question 8
(a) Name a major industrial region of India and state any three factors that are [4]
responsible for the growth of this region.
(b) State two significant factors influencing the location of Aluminium industry in [2]
India.
(c) Name any one important centre of production for the following: [2]
(i) Ships
(ii) Cement
(iii) Automobiles
(iv) Aircrafts
(d) State any two advantages of tourism in India. [2]

61
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates did not write the names of the
Suggestions for teachers
industrial regions correctly. In some cases, the
Location of industries must be taught
factors of location did not match the industrial
by stating the factors and mentioning
region written.
the source area of it.
(b) Some candidates mentioned bauxite correctly,
Encourage students to write the
however hydel power was missed out.
industrial regions completely, e.g.
(c) The candidates that attempted this question gave
Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region.
correct answers.
A few important centres for the
(d) Most candidates attempted this question well. A few
production of industrial/engineering
candidates confused economic development, cultural
goods should be highlighted by the
development and social development.
teacher.
Selective study should be
discouraged.
Help students prepare a list of
advantages or positive impacts of
tourism.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
(a) 1. Mumbai Pune Industrial Region:
Growth of cotton textile industry/ raw cotton in black soil area
Development of hydel power
Cheap labour force
Port facilities for export - import
Growth of chemical industry
Opening of Mumbai High petroleum field
The nuclear energy plants
Banking and insurance
2. Hooghly Industrial Region:
Rich hinterland of the Ganga Brahmaputra plains/ Hooghly inland river port
Navigable rivers/ well connected by tributaries
Roads, railways and ports
Discovery of coal and iron ore in Chotanagpur plateau
Tea plantation in Assam and West Bengal
Jute growth in Bengals deltaic region
Thick populated states of Odisha, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh providing cheap labour
Construction of Farakka Barrage
Banking investment and insurance
3. Bengaluru Tamil Nadu Industrial Region:
Rich cotton growing tract/large scale cotton textile industries.
Cheap hydroelectric power availability from Metur/ Sivasamudran/ Sharavati/
Paparasam

62
 Cheap skilled labour
Close vast local market
Petroleum refinery at Chennai
4. Gujarat industrial region:
Rich cotton growing tract /growth of cotton textile industries
Availability of cheap land
Cheap skilled labour
Nearness to vast marketing centres of the Ganga and Satluj Plains.
Nearness to sources of raw material.
Disadvantages of Mumbai lead to the emergence of Ahmedabad
Oil in Gulf of Khambat/ Ankeleswar/ Jamnagar
Refineries at Koyali and Jamnagar for petroleum industries
Kandla Port
5. Chotanagpur industrial region:
Discovery of coal in Damodar
Iron ore in Jharkhand -Odisha mineral belt
Power from Damodar valley
Thermal power from local coal
Cheap labour from densely populated region of Jharkhand/ Bihar/ Odisha/ West Bengal
(any one state)
Large market in the Kolkata region
Kolkata port
6. Visakhapatnam Guntur industrial region:
Presence of Visakhapatnam and Machlipatnam ports
Developed agriculture
Rich mineral resources in the hinterland
Coalfields of the Godavari basin for source of energy
Hindustan Shipyard Ltd. at Visakhapatnam is the main focus
Petroleum refinery at Visakhapatnam has further facilitated growth of Petrochemical
industry.
High quality iron ore from Chhattisgarh
7. Gurgaon Delhi Meerut Industrial region:
Hydro-electricity from Bhakranangal Project
Thermal power from Faridabad/ Panipat / Harduaganj
Software industry is a recent addition
Mathura oil refinery and Petrochemical complex
Far from mineral and power resources, therefore industries are light and market
oriented.
8. Kollam Thiruvananthapuram Industrial Region:
Agricultural products processing
Market oriented light industries

63
 Plantation agriculture
Hydro-electricity
Oil refinery at Kochi provide solid base to petrochemical industries
[any one region with three factors]
(b) Electricity, Bauxite.

(c) Ships:
Kochi / Mumbai/ Marmagao (Goa shipyard)/ Mandvi / Visakhapatnam / Kolkata
(any one)
Cement:
Chennai / Porbandar / Katni / Lakheri /Dwarka / Japla / Banmore / Mehgaon / Kymore /
Shahabad / Dalmiya nagar / Dalmiyapuram / Charki Dadri / Krishna/ Vijaywada/ Sawai
Madhopur/ Udaipur (any one)
Automobiles:
Mumbai / Chennai / Kolkata / Jamshedpur / Jabalpur / Lucknow / Kanpur / Gurgaon / Rupnagar
/ Hyderabad /Pithampur / Surajpur (any one)
Aircrafts:
Bengaluru / Koraput / Nasik / Hyderabad / Lucknow (any one)
(d) Advantages:
Promotes national integration
Promotes international understanding
Helps in improving infrastructure
Creates employment opportunities/ income for people
Augments foreign exchange earnings
Leads to social and economic development
Develops local handicrafts, cultural activities
Preservation of national heritage
Exchange of ideas
(any two)

Question 9

(a) Explain the meaning of a planning region. [2]

(b) Name two centres each in Chhattisgarh where the following are mined: [2]
(i) iron ore
(ii) bauxite
(c) Why was the state of Chhattisgarh created? Name two of its bordering states. [3]
(d) Mention three factors which have influenced the development of the Electronic [3]
City of Bengaluru.

64
Comments of Examiners
(a) This question was answered well by most
Suggestions for teachers
candidates. In a few cases, parts of the definition
Insist on learning correct definitions
were missed out.
with the key words.
(b) (i) This part was attempted well by most of the
A complete and thorough
candidates.
understanding/study of the text is
(ii) For areas of bauxite production, some candidates
needed.
wrote Bastar an area of iron ore production and not
Causes for formation of regions,
bauxite.
planning regions must be spelt out.
(c) Most candidates were able to perform well in this
The different factors that have
question.
influenced their development must
(d) Most candidates answered this question well.
be enumerated.
Regions of Chhattisgarh, Bengaluru
and Haldia should be taught with the
help of maps.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
(a) A planning region:
A self-created living organism having a life time which not only supports the life in the region /
but also radiates influencing forces that enable the region to be a unified regional space so as to
facilitate the practice of regional planning. /
Planning Region is a living organism in which the whole is related to parts in the same way as
the parts are related to the whole /
A planning region is a unit of area which is distinguishable from another area by the display of
some unifying characteristics.
(b) Iron ore Bastar , Durg, Surguja, Raigarh, Bilaspur
Bauxite Bilaspur, Durg , Surguja, Raigarh (any two of each)
(c) Bordering States:
- Jharkhand / UP / AP / Odisha / MP / Maharashtra (any two)
(d) Factors:
Large number of electronic factories
Large scale incentives by state and central government
Strategic location in the middle of Indian peninsula
Close network of roads and railways
Large input of capital by various companies to nourish industries here
Being the capital city of Karnataka, it has unique advantages.
Large number of MNCs/ Foreign Companies
(any three)

65
GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
Correct unit for area not mentioned.
The causes/factors that make the El-Nino cause floods and droughts.
Difference between flora and forest.
The meaning of Environmental Management.
Differences between the Golden Quadrilateral & National Highways.
The relationship between transport and industrial development.
Map work shading state boundaries and marking centres.
(b) Concepts in which candidates got confused:
Centres of Iron and Steel Industry with names of Iron and Steel plants
Flora and fauna.
Names of canals and names of multipurpose river valley projects.
Relationship between transport and development
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
Avoid selective study.
Consult the atlas to get an idea of location of places being studied.
Find out the geographical reasons that are causing different phenomena, e.g.- climatic
variations, floods and drought, changes in population, location of industries, cropping
patterns, etc.
Make a list of terms topic-wise and learn definitions accordingly, with key words.
Try to correlate topics.
Develop your power of reasoning and analysis by working out more application based
questions.
Examples should always be mentioned.
Instead of learning paragraphs by rote- mark out/number out points.
Underline the key words given in the answer.
Give comparable differences
Map practice is a must-it should be done regularly. Refer to the map list given by the in the
Syllabus booklet.

66
 SOCIOLOGY
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 2,552
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 25
Mean Marks Obtained 79.43

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 0 3 319 1026 1204
Percentage of Candidates 0.00 0.12 12.50 40.20 47.18
Cumulative Number 0 3 322 1348 2552
Cumulative Percentage 0.00 0.12 12.62 52.82 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

47.18
50.00
Percentage of Candidates

45.00 40.20
40.00
35.00
30.00
25.00
20.00
12.50
15.00
10.00
5.00 0.00 0.12

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

67
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE
PART I (20 Marks)
Answer all questions.

Question 1
Answer briefly each of the following questions: [10 2]

(i) What is marriage by trial?

(ii) What is gotra?

(iii) What are the terms amitate, avoidance and couvades known as?

(iv) Explain the term multiple possessory rights.

(v) What is meant by sororate?

(vi) How are capital goods and consumer goods different from each other?

(vii) Mention two negative effects of mass media.

(viii) What is meant by shifting axe cultivation?

(ix) Mention any two social reforms that led to the change in the status of women in
Pre-British and British India.

(x) According to Frazer, what are the different types of magic?

Comments of Examiners
(i) Some candidates confused marriage by trial with
marriage by probation. The emphasis on proving
personal courage and bravery was missing in most
answers.
(ii) Gotra was explained by most candidates as a sub
clan requirement for marriage. The concept of
descent from a common rishi ancestor was missing
in many answers.
(iii) Amitate, avoidance and couvade were explained by
most candidates without any reference to them being
kinship usages. Many candidates have even stated
that these are kinship terms.
(iv) The concept of multiple possessory rights could not
be explained by most candidates. Candidates
confused it with collective ownership or communal
ownership of family property or land.
Suggestions for teachers
In case of marriage by trial,
emphasis should be laid on the
word Trial and what it stands for.
The term sororate needs to be
explained as a form of preferential
marriage designed to promote inter-
familial cordiality, where several
sisters are simultaneously or
potentially the spouses of the same
man, mainly to compensate for
bride price given. The words
simultaneously and potential
need to be highlighted.

68
 (v) Sororate was explained as polygyny by most
candidates whereby a man marries several women,
sometimes sisters. The concept of being a potential
mate was not found in many answers.
(vi) Capital goods and consumer good were be
distinguished properly with examples by most
candidates.
(vii) Negative effects of Mass Media were written
correctly by most candidates.
(viii) In case of shifting axe cultivation, many candidates
wrote about burning crops and/or land after
harvesting. In several cases candidates wrote: the
land is shifted, the axe is shifted, etc.
(ix) Reforms like prevention of child marriage, allowance
of widow remarriage were mentioned by many
candidates but some mentioned reforms of
post-independent period. Some wrote about
organizations initiating reforms or names of
reformers.
(x) Frazers Magic was described by many candidates as
Black Magic and White Magic instead of
Homeopathic and Contagious magic.
69
Clarify what kinship usages are and
how the concept differs from
degree, range or kinship terms.
Explain and differentiate between
capital goods and consumer goods
with relevant examples.
Explain that in shifting axe
cultivation, the same plot of land is
not cultivated for very long,
instead, the cultivator moves from
one place to another.
While explaining types of Magic
by Frazer, the following points
should be pointed out: Cause and
effect relationship; Laws law of
similarity and law of contagion;
principles on which Frazer based
these laws.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1.
(i) Marriage by Trial is a way of getting married in tribal societies. It involves the show of
strength, courage and bravery as desirable traits in young men. Once the young man has shown
his prowess, he can marry any girl he wants from amongst the eligible.
(ii) When the ancestor is believed to be one of the seven rishis or sages as specified in Hindu
scriptures, then the clan is known as gotra.
(iii) Kinship Usages.

(iv) Multiple possessory rights Among the tribals, several individuals own the same land and use
it for different purposes. One individual may own the trees on a plot of land and the other may
cultivate the same piece of land.

(v) Sororate - a form of preferential marriage where one is a potential mate to ones deceased
wifes sister.

(vi) Capital goods and Consumer goods are both types of Economic goods. Capital goods have the
capacity to produce further like machinery and raw materials. Through organized human effort
they are transformed into consumer goods which are products that are used soon after
procurement like eatables, toiletries, groceries etc.
(vii) Mass media can be used for transmitting and perpetuating stereotypes in society. It can
influence public opinion; hence can be used for brain washing people.
It can be used as a propaganda machine.
It can blow out of proportion non-sensitive issues, thus sensationalize trivial matters.
Over exposure to outside world through media, like films and television can lead to
decline of ones own culture.
(any two)
(viii) Shifting axe cultivation consists of felling of trees or setting them on fire, to get a fresh piece
of fertile land as the existing land loses fertility due to continuous farming.

(ix) Abolition of sati system, child marriage and female infanticide. Introducing of widow
remarriage and women education.

(any two)
(x) Magic according to Frazer:
Homeopathic or imitative
Contagious magic

70
 PART II (50 Marks)
Answer any five questions.

Question 2

(a) Discuss Consanguine kinship and Affinal kinship. [5]

(b) Define degrees of kinship. Explain the three degrees of kinship giving one example of [5]
each.

Comments of Examiners

(a) Many candidates defined kinship, consanguineous

kinship, and affinal kinship and cited examples of
both but did not go beyond that. Some candidates
wrote about social recognition being the most
important element in determining consanguineous
kinship.
(b) The definition of degrees of kinship was not cited by
many candidates or in several cases, the definition
given lacked clarity. Some candidates made mistakes
in giving examples for tertiary kinship.
Suggestions for teachers
The difference between affinal and
consanguineous kinship can be
explained with the help of diagrams
and examples.
The term ego must be stressed
upon as the relationship has to be
traced back to the ego. Teach about
genealogical charts and their uses.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
(a) Consanguine Kinship Relations Defined by blood relations for e.g. between Parents and
children. The composition of consanguine kin group depends on the rules of descent in the
society. Consanguine kin can be patrilineal, matrilineal or bilateral. Relationships here are
informal and intimate. Consanguine groups maintain rules of exogamy. Rules of exogamy are
important and the incest taboo ensures that the consanguineal kin group maintains solidarity.

Affinal kinship relations are based on marital ties for e.g. between husband and wife.
Most families are composed of some affinal relatives. An exception is the Nayar Tarawad
which is a consanguine kin group.
Affinal kinship relations are characterized by distance and respect, for e.g. the relationship
between parents of two married individuals.
They provide emotional and economic support when consanguine relations fail.
Outside the lineage based kin group ones wifes parental family is the most important.
Affinal relations may end with the death of a spouse.
Affinal relations are an extension of consanguineal relations.
Such relations connect two families and can be an alternative to consanguine relations for e.g.
ones sister- in- law can be treated as ones sister.

71
 The relationship with affinal relatives is characterized by distance and respect. One often
guards against interference shown by the parents of ones wife in ones own family affairs.
(b) Degrees of kinship: enable a person to understand to what degree a person is related to the
person being referred to. There are three main degrees of kinship.
1. Primary degree If a person is related to ego directly. For example, ones father is his
primary kin.
2. Secondary degree If a person is related to ego through primary kin, for e.g. ones fathers
brother is his secondary kin.
3. Tertiary degree. The secondary kin of a primary kin and the primary kin of a secondary
kin. For e.g. ones fathers brothers children are his Tertiary kin.
Diagram

Question 3

(a) Describe any five ways of acquiring mates in primitive societies. [5]
(b) Examine polygamy as one of the forms of marriage. [5]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most candidates were able to write about the five Suggestion for teachers
ways of acquiring mates in a primitive societies. Acquaint students with the
(b) Polygamy, polygyny and polyandry could be differences between polygyny and
explained by most candidates. However, in some polyandry.
cases, candidates got confused between polygyny and
polyandry. Some were not able to explain polygamy and its types. A number of candidates were
not able to explain the causes.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3.
(a) Ways of acquiring mates in primitive societies:
Ways of acquiring mates in primitive societies are many with a number of variations. However
Lowie identified some popular means of acquiring mates in tribal society.
Marriage by probation
Marriage by capture
Marriage by trial
Marriage by purchase
Marriage by elopement
Marriage by service
Marriage by exchange
Marriage by intrusion
Filial widow inheritance
(Any five of the above with appropriate examples.)

72
 (b) Polygamy is the practice of having more than one spouse at a time.
It is of two types: Polygyny and Polyandry.
Polygyny- When a man has more than one wife at the same time.
When these wives are sisters-sororal polygyny
When these wives are not sisters- non sororal polygyny- Muslims
Causes for polygyny- social status; desire for more children; taboos against menstruating,
pregnant and lactating women.
Polyandry- When a woman has more than one husband at the same time.eg Todas, Khasas
When husbands are brothers- Fraternal polyandry.
When husbands are not brothers- non-fraternal polyandry.
Causes for polyandry- Scarcity of women, high bride price, sterility of men, hypergamy in the
case of shudra men.

Question 4
(a) Functions of a family have undergone several changes in modern times. Discuss any [5]
five such changes.
(b) Make a comparative study between religion and science. [5]
Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates confused changes in Suggestions for teachers
functions of a family with features of family/ Ask students to read the question
functions of family/ structural changes/ factors carefully and to focus on its
responsible for changes. requirements.
(b) Most candidates could differentiate between religion Tell students that in a question in
and science though in some cases differences were which comparison is required, both
vague and many points were repetitive. In several similarities and differences need to
cases, candidates did not write about similarities and be specified.
differences simultaneously.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 4.
(a) Changes in the functions of Family in Modern times:
The reproductive function of family has suffered
Parental and educational functions of family have been shifted to external agencies.
Protective functions of family have declined.
Economic functions of family have been distributed.
Socialization functions of family is gaining increased attention.
Status ascription function of family has weakened because of the importance of achieved
status.
Recreational functions of family is losing importance.
Decrease in religious activities.
(Expand on the above)

73
(b) The comparison between religion and science:
Religion is a system of beliefs, emotional attitudes and practices which help people cope
with the stresses of human life.
Science is a body of knowledge about man and the universe acquired through scientific
techniques.
Religion deals with the super empirical world.
Science deals with the empirical world.
The purpose of religion is to explain all occurrences by the will of God.
The object of science is to explain the operation of the universe by generalizations arrived
at after an objective study of the universe.
Scientific generalizations can be proved or disproved.
Religious beliefs are not true in any scientific sense.
Science develops habits of the mind and accepts only the empirical truth.
Religion has as its supreme goal the pursuit of non-empirical truth.
(Any five points may be explained. Similarities may also be included. Any other relevant
points.)

Question 5

(a) Religion is a pacifying agent, but can also act as a divisive force. Justify this [5]
statement with three functions and two dysfunctions of religion.
(b) Define the word Education. State any five main functions of education. [5]

Comments of Examiners

(a) Most candidates could answer this question on

functions and dysfunctions of religion.
(b) Most candidates could answer this question
satisfactorily. In some cases, the definition of
education was rather unclear.
Suggestion for teachers
Encourage debates in class on
religion and society to provide for a
better understanding. This will also
help students in drawing examples
from contemporary India.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5.
(a) Functions and Dysfunctions of religion:
Religion is a universal institution and is an inseparable part of society. It is intricately
interwoven with all other aspects of human life.
Functions of religion:
Religion provides religious experience.
It provides peace of mind.
It promotes social solidarity.
Religion conserves the value of life.

74
 It acts as an agent of social control.
Priestly functions are performed by religion leading to stability in society.
Religion promotes welfare.
It provides recreation.
It explains individual suffering and helps integrate the human personality.
Religion enhances self-importance.
(Any three points to be explained)
Dysfunctions of religion:
Religion inhibits protests and impedes social change.
Hampers the adaptation of society to changed conditions.
It increases conflict making the evolution of realistic solutions difficult.
It impedes the development of new identities.
It can foster dependence and irresponsibility.
It can promote evil practices and superstition.
Contributes to inequalities.
Religion can act as a divisive force.
It retards scientific achievements.
Religion promotes fanaticism.
(Any two points to be explained)
(b) Education: Education word is derived from the Latin word educare, meaning, bring forth. If
may be defined as a process whereby the social heritage of a group is passed on from one
generation to another, as well as the process whereby the child becomes socialized, i.e. Learns
the rules of behaviour of the group in which he is born.
To complete the socialization process
To transmit the cultural heritage
For the formation of social personality
Reformation of attitudes / values
Education for occupational placements
Conferring of status
Encourages the spirit of competition
Education acts as an integrative force.
(Any five points)

75
Question 6

(a) Discuss the nature of primitive economies. [5]

(b) Define status. How has Lowie described the determinants of status? [5]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Nature of primitive economies was confused with
types of economies by most candidates. Candidates
talked about various types such as, food gathering,
pastoralism, shifting axe cultivation, etc.
(b) A number of candidates were unable to define
status correctly. Specific answers were missing in
many cases - the four determinants were replaced by
other words, thus giving only partial idea, e.g. extent
of work was replaced by content of work and
actual treatment by treatment.
Suggestions for teachers
Ask students to read the question
carefully and answer accordingly.
Explain the difference between
nature and types of economies.
Ask students to learn definitions by
heart.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6.
(a) Nature / Characteristics of primitive economies:
Economic activity involves all those activities of man which are designed to secure him
physical survival. All economic systems need to maximize satisfaction through economic
allocation of various resources which are limited for the satisfaction of needs which are
unlimited.
Primitive economic systems have characteristics that make them structurally different from
modern economic systems.
They are-
Inadequate, ineffective and wasteful use of nature (in the absence of advanced technology),
(For example shifting cultivation where agricultural surplus is also not created).
Money as a store of value and a medium of exchange is not widely used in primitive
society. Therefore modern concepts such as banking and credit are absent. Relations in
primitive society are based on barter.
The profit motive of economic dealings is absent in primitive economies. Mutual
obligation, sharing and solidarity are important.
The co-operative and collective efforts are important in these economies which are
communal economies.
The rate of innovation is very low in these economies. Therefore there is stability and
uniformity due to simplicity and uniformity of the techniques used.
The market as an institution is absent. Weekly markets or seasonal markets exist. Therefore
competition and monopoly are absent.
Economic activities in primitive societies are directed largely to the manufacture of
consumption and not production of goods.

76
 Specialization based on technical abilities is absent.
Division of labour is, however, based on age and sex. Women, infants and the aged are
kept away from economic activities which require rigorous labour and due to prohibitive
taboos.
Property in primitive societies is communally owned and multiple possessory right apply
to property. It also includes rights and privileges and giving feasts of merit.
(any five points to be explained)
(b) Status can be defined as a synonym for roles bringing prestige to the person who performs.
According to Lowie, status has four determinants- actual treatment; legal status; opportunity
for social participation; character and extent of work. All four are independent without any
causal relationship. Any correlation is purely empirical and not conceptual.
(Lowies four determinants should be explained)

Question 7

(a) Discuss the difference between primitive law and modern law. [5]
(b) Write a short note on the history of the Narmada Bachao Andolan. [5]

Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates were able to attempt this Suggestions for teachers
question correctly. In some cases, points were
repeated. Many candidates gave only three points of
difference between primitive and modern law. A few
candidates explained primitive law in detail without
actually distinguishing it from modern law.
(b) Many candidates could write about the main cause of
the movement but were confused regarding the date,
the name of the initiator of the movement, the course
of movement and the end result.
All points of difference between
primitive law and modern law must
be explained clearly to students.
Students must be asked to write
differences in column form.
Comparable points of difference
must be written and repetition must
be avoided.
The movement can be explained in
terms of: cause; date and initiator
of the movement; course;
consequences.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 7.
(a) Primitive Law Modern Law
Collective Responsibility Individual responsibility
Public Opinion and ethical norms Based on written law
Criminal not civil Both criminal and civil law
Punishment varies depending on the status of Status plays no role in punishment. The same
individual punishment for the same crime.

Intention not given importance Intention is important, determinant of legality

77
 Concrete evidence absent. Establishment of Proper evidences are considered.
guilt through Oath and Ordeal
Wergild Compensation and punishment
Law obeyed purely due to the fear of Law obeyed due to fear of punishment and
supernatural retribution, social criticism.
Public opinion ad ethical norms. Based on written law and conventions.
Kinship bonds are important. Territorial ties are important.
(Any five)
(b) Most popular mass movement-1985-against construction of Sardar Sarovar Dam on River
Narmada in Gujarat.
Led by Medha Patkar consisted of adivasis, farmers, environmentalists, human right activists.
Fight was about social and environmental concerns- displacement of 3,20,000 people;
destruction of thousands of hectares of rich, cultivable land, forest cover and natural
biodiversity.
Creation of worldwide awareness regarding the plight of adivasis and the destruction of
environment;
Raising the issue of rehabilitation with decent and adequate compensation
Withdrawal of World Bank funding;
Monitoring by Supreme Court and Central Government
(Any five points to be explained)

Question 8
(a) Contact with wider society has led to tribal transformation. Analyse the given [5]
statement.

(b) Describe the cultural classification of tribes. [5]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Several candidates were unable to comprehend the
Suggestions for teachers
question and gave very general answers. In some
Explain the meaning of tribal
cases, only three or four points were discussed.
transformation with reference to
(b) Some candidates confused racial and geographical
integration and assimilation, as
classification with cultural classification. A number
given in the scope.
of candidates wrote about Elwins classification but
Teach classifications with the help
the details were not given clearly.
of mind maps or flow charts.

78
MARKING SCHEME
Question 8.
(a) Contact with wider society has led to tribal transformation:
Explanation of Assimilation Isolation integration OR
Changes noticed due to contact with wider society:
Decline of Dormitories which are essential for cultural education;
Influence of Hinduism leading to appearance of Caste system, practises of dowry, child
marriage;
Influence of Christianity: complete denial of dormitories as considered derogatory by
missionaries;
Introduction of health problems;
Exploitation at the hands of Upper-class and money lenders and sometimes even the state
officials.
(Any five points to be explained) - any other relevant point accepted.

(b) Cultural classification of tribes in India:

Tribals were classified on the basis of their cultural distance from rural and urban groups. This
comparative approach is considered to be important in evolving a plan for rehabilitation
because it focuses on those problems of tribal India, which are the outcome of haphazard
contact with or isolation of tribes from the rural urban population.
Tribal Culture
Assimilation those who are completely assimilated.
Adaptive.
(i) Commensalic.
(ii) Symbiotic.
(iii) Acculturative.

Commensalic- those with common economic pursuits with their neighbours, and thus their
growth is arrested.

Symbiotic their relationship with their neighbours is based on interdependence and

acculturation is haphazard.

Acculturative- there is a one way flow of culture traits, where tribals are taking in culture
traits from the surrounding rural and urban groups. This leads to a situation of culture crisis
leading to sudden cultural changes.

According to Majumdar all three of the above are in a state of culture crisis.

The main criticism to this theory lies in the fact that though this classification could help in
the rehabilitation of tribals it does not include cultures that are culturally distant from rural
and urban groups.

79
GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question paper:
Concept of Gotra
Multiple possessory rights
Social reforms
Functional changes in family
Nature of primitive economies
Tribal Transformation
Cultural classification of tribes
(b) Concepts between which candidates got confused:
Marriage by Trial with Probation.
Gotra with common concept of class
Multiple possessory rights and collective ownership
Sororate and Polygamy
Black and white magic in place of Homeopathic and contagious.
Functional changes of family with structural changes, factors responsible for changes and
features.
Nature of economics with types of economies.
Tribal transformation and tribal problems.
Cultural classification and geographical, linguistic or racial classification.

(c) Suggestions for candidates:

Study regularly and systematically.
Write the answers in point form. Headings should be underlined. Differences should be written
in column form.
Give diagrams wherever required. This will help in explaining the answer well.
Clarify doubts related to terms and their meanings on a regular basis.
Try to connect a concept or a topic learnt in class to what you see around you and what you
read in the newspapers and magazines.
Utilize the time allocated for reading the question paper, understand the question and its
requirements before attempting to answer.
Address exactly what the question is asking. Do not put down everything you know in a
particular topic.
Answer each part of the question and substantiate the answers with examples.
In a define question, first define the concept, and then give an example to illustrate. Do not
just give an example without definition.
Manage your time effectively to ensure that all the answers are completed on time
Presentation should be neat and tidy and handwriting clearly legible.

80
 PSYCHOLOGY
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 2,118
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 28
Mean Marks Obtained 79.73

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 0 9 329 642 1138
Percentage of Candidates 0.00 0.42 15.53 30.31 53.73
Cumulative Number 0 9 338 980 2118
Cumulative Percentage 0.00 0.42 15.96 46.27 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

60.00 53.73
Percentage of Candidates

50.00

40.00
30.31

30.00

15.53
20.00

10.00
0.00 0.42

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

81
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE
PART I (20 Marks)
Answer all questions.
Question 1 [20]

Answer briefly all the questions (i) to (xx):

(i) Define culture fair test.
(ii) What is meant by personality disorder?
(iii) Mention any one use of the study of life span development.
(iv) What is meant by individual intelligence test?
(v) Explain the term attribution.
(vi) What is meant by hypertension?
(vii) Explain identity versus role confusion by referring to Eriksons theory.
(viii) What is meant by anxiety disorder?
(ix) Mention any two causes of prejudice.
(x) What is the difference between aptitude and interest?
(xi) Who put forward the concept of multiple intelligences?
(xii) Mention one way in which psychology can help in improving school environment.
(xiii) What is meant by disorganised attachment?
(xiv) According to Freud, what is meant by the term ego?
(xv) What is meant by the term motivated scepticism?
(xvi) Name the personality theory put forward by Abraham Maslow.
(xvii) With reference to social behaviour, what is meant by recategorisation?
(xviii) Explain the term modelling as used in psychotherapy.
(xix) Define social influence.
(xx) What is meant by stress?

82
 Comments of Examiners

(i) Most of the candidates were able to answer the

Suggestions for teachers
question correctly. Some candidate did not write the
Explain the meaning of the term
meaning of Culture Fair and only gave examples.
Culture Fair, giving examples of
(ii) Majority of the candidates answered this well. A few
Cattell and Ravens Tests and how
confused personality disorder with mental disorder.
they do not discriminate against
(iii) Most of the candidates answered this question well.
individuals of varied background.
(iv) While a number of candidates explained the word
The difference between mental
individual test there were some who only explained
disorders, mental retardation and
intelligence test and overlooked the word
personality disorders needs to be
individual.
taught clearly and what they mean
(v) Most of the candidates answered this question
as it is defined in DSM IV.
correctly but a few did not specify that it is the cause
Clarify to students that attribution is
behind others behavior. They just wrote the cause of
a concept of Social Psychology and
behavior.
the cause behind others behaviour.
(vi) Hypertension was explained in a very general manner
Moreover, examples need to be
and the biological aspects were not mentioned by the
given in order to explain the
candidates. Some candidates wrote it as an effect of
concept.
tension.
Explain hypertension as an effect of
(vii) Very few candidates explained identity vs. role
stress on the biological system as it
confusion completely. Some discussed only one
leads to higher levels of sodium in
dimension, either identity or role confusion.
the blood stream.
(viii) Many of the candidates just defined anxiety while
Anxiety disorders should be taught
some defined generalized anxiety disorder.
with the help of a flow chart
(ix) This question was attempted correctly by most of the
discussing the specific
candidates. Some used the point role of social
characteristics of each form of
learning as two different points by giving different
anxiety disorder.
examples. For example, learning from parents and
The four causes of prejudice must
learning from grandparents.
be clearly explained with relevant
(x) Some candidates discussed the difference between
examples.
aptitude and achievement, instead of the difference
While teaching the chapter
between aptitude and interest. Others defined aptitude
Intelligence and ability, concepts of
or interest incorrectly.
general and specific mental abilities
(xi) Majority of the candidates scored well in this part.
and then the individual concepts of
(xii) This question was attempted correctly by most of the
aptitude, achievement and interest
candidates. A few candidates wrote in general about
need to be differentiated.
application of psychology in school. They forget the
Stress upon learning the full names
word environment, hence very few wrote about the
of the proponent psychologist with
relationship.
emphasis on correct spelling.
(xiii) This question was not attempted well by majority of
The different biases need to be
the candidates. Many candidates discussed avoidant
explained to students clearly.
or ambivalent attachment. Some gave very vague
Examples should be given so as to
definitions.
enable them to understand each
(xiv) A number of the candidates answered this question
concept.
correctly but some were confused between the terms

id and ego.

83
 (xv) Most of the candidates explained this concept
wrongly. The answers given by candidates were
confused and incorrect. In some cases, the examples
were not clear.
(xvi) Almost all candidates answered this part correctly.
(xvii) Most of the candidates answered well. A few
candidates got confused and wrote the definition of
social categorization without bringing out the
change in the boundaries of us and them groups.
(xviii) Many candidates did not use the words observing
and imitating and wrote about modeling in the
fashion world and television.
(xix) Several candidates wrote social influence as an
influence only.
(xx) While this part was attempted well by majority of the
candidates, a few defined stressors instead.
The principles on which id, ego and
superego are based must be
explained properly.
While teaching, the difference
between social categorization and
recategorization should be brought
out clearly.
Observational Learning should be
taught in detail, so that students
know that behaviour of the role
model is followed or imitated.
Social influence can be taught with
the help of flow charts, with
emphasis on key words.
The difference between stress and
stressor needs to be explained
well with examples.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(i) Intelligence tests which do not discriminate against individuals belonging to different cultures
are called culture-fair tests. In such tests, items are constructed in a manner that eases
experiences common to all cultures.
(ii) Personality Disorders are defined by the DSM-IV as extreme and unflexible personality traits
that are distressing to the persons who have them or cause them problems in school, work or
interpersonal relations.
(iii) By studying life span development, we get to know:
1. The changes which take place during infancy, childhood and adolescence which can
be physical, cognitive, moral and socio-emotional in nature.
2. It prepares parents / teachers, before time.
3. It helps to evaluate milestones reached.
4. Helps in proper personality development.
5. It is an urgent guide for a childs proper exposure to his innate abilities.
6. Good parenting (any one)
(iv) Individual intelligence test is a test that must be given to a single individual at a time typically
by a specially trained person. E.g. Binet-Simon Scale.
(v) Attribution are the processes through which we seek to determine the causes behind others
behaviour.
(vi) Hypertension means high blood pressure, a condition in which the pressure within the blood
vessels is abnormally high/ high level of sodium

84
(vii) Identify versus role confusion means, adolescents must integrate various roles into a
consistent self-identity. If they fail to do so, they may experience confusion over who they
are. OR
Identity versus confusion is a crucial stage in Eriksons theory. At this time of life, teenagers
ask themselves, who am I? What am I really like? What do I want to become? They
seek to establish a clear self-identity to understand their own unique traits and what is really
of central importance to them. Adolescents adopt many different strategies to help them
resolve their own personal identity arises if they fail to develop a self-identity they may
experience confusion over who they are.
(viii) Anxiety disorder: Generalised feeling of fear or apprehension. Vague concern that something
unpleasant will soon occur and persist for a long time.
Anxiety disorders are psychological disorders that take several different forms, but which are
all related to a generalized feeling of anxiety/ high arousal
(ix) 1. Direct inter-group conflict competition as a source of bias.
2. Social categorization
3. Role of social learning
4. Cognitive source of prejudice role of stereotypes
(Any other correct cause )
(any two)
(x) Difference between aptitude and interest:
Aptitude refers to an individuals underlying potential for acquiring skills.
Interest is the preference / inclination / liking in one or more specific activities relative to
others.
For example, a person may be interested in a particular activity, job or training, but may not
have the aptitude for it.
(xi) Howard Gardner./ H Gardner
(xii) Way in which Psychology can help in school environment:
1. Problem of discipline
2. Use of audio-visual aids
3. Democratic administration
4. Time table
5. Co-curricular activities
6. Use of innovative methods (any one)

(xiii) Disorganised attachment is a pattern of attachment in which infants show contradictory

reactions to their care giver after being reunited with her in the strange situation test.
(xiv) In Freuds theory, the part of personality that takes account of external reality in the
expression of instinctive sexual and aggressive urges. Reality keeps check on Id and balance
85
 between Id and Superego. (Maximum pleasure and minimum pain)
(xv) Motivated Scepticism is the tendency to require more information to make a decision
contrary to ones initial preferences than a decision consistent with ones initial preferences.
(xvi) The Theory of Need Hierarchy /Humanistic Theory/Theory of Self-Actualisation.
(xvii) Recategorization is a technique for reducing prejudice that involves inducing individuals to
shift the boundary between us and them so that it now includes groups they previously
viewed as them.
(xviii) Modelling is a process with learning in which an individual acquires responses by observing
and imitating others.
(xix) Social influence are the efforts by one or more persons to change the attitudes or behaviour of
one or more people.
(xx) Stress is our response to / factors / events that disrupt, or threaten to disrupt our physical or
psychological functioning.

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A
Answer any two questions.
Question 2

(a) Describe Guilfords Structure of Intelligence Model. [5]

(b) Discuss Ravens progressive matrices as a means of intelligence measurement. [5]

Comments of Examiners

(a) Most of the candidates were unable to list all the

Suggestions for teachers
factors hardly anyone mentioned the trigram
Diagrammatic explanation needs to
symbol.
be given while teaching Guilfords
(b) A number of the candidates did not write the names
SOI Model. Also, the key terms
and details of three forms of progressive Matrices.
like, structure of intellect, trigram
Some candidates did not know whether it is a verbal
symbol, should to be emphasized.
or a non-verbal intelligence test. They were
Ravens Progressive Matrices,
generally confused about the time limit. Some did
should be taught in detail by
not mention educative ability and reproductive
including the three forms for
ability.
different ability levels. Students
should be made aware that it is a
group test which is non-verbal and
culture fair. There is no time limit.

86
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2.
(a) Guilford and his associates developed a model of intellect on the basis of the factor analytical
research studies conducted by them, which involved a number of intelligence tests. It consists
of 5 x 6 x 5 = 150 factors in all which may constitute human intelligence, where each
parameter operations, contents and products may be further subdivided into some specific
factors and elements. Each one of these factors has a trigram symbol, i.e. at least one factor
from each of the three parameters has to be present in any specific intellectual activity or
mental task. (180 Factors according to the latest revision/120 factors).
Division of intellectual activity with parameters and specific factors:
Operation Contents Products
Evaluation (E) Visual factor (F) Units (U)
Convergent Thinking (C) Symbolic (S) Classes (C)
Divergent Thinking (D) Semantic (M) Relations (R)
Memory (M) Behavioural (B) Systems (S)
Cognition (C) Auditory (A) Transformation (T)
Implication (I)

Principles/Diagram:
1. Reasoning and problem solving skills (Convergent and Divergent operations) can be
subdivided into 30 distinct activities (6 products 5 contents)
2. Memory operations can be subdivided into 30 different skills (6 products 5 contents)
3. Decision making skills (Evaluation operations) can be subdivided into 30 distinct
abilities (6 product 5 contents)
4. Language related skills (Cognitive operations) can be subdivided into 30 distinct
abilities (6 product 5 contents) (any two)
(b) Raven's Progressive Matrices (also Raven Progressive Matrices) are widely used non-verbal
intelligence tests. Culture fair test / group test. In each test item, one is asked to find the
missing pattern in a series. Each set of items gets progressively harder, requiring greater
cognitive capacity to encode and analyze. The test consist of 60 matrices or abstract designs
from each of which a part has been removed. Subject has 6 - 8 alternative and there is no time
limit. /(Educative ability and reproductive).
(any four)
They are offered in three different forms for different ability levels, and for age ranges from
five through adult:
Coloured Progressed Matrices (younger children and special groups)
Standard Progressive Matrices (average 6 to 80 year olds)
Advanced Progressive Matrices (above average adolescents & adults)
Coloured Progressive Matrices: Designed for younger children, the elderly, and people with
moderate or severe learning difficulties, this test contains sets A and B from the standard
matrices, with a further set of 12 items inserted between the two, as set AB. Most items are

87
 presented on a coloured background to make the test visually stimulating for participants.
However the very last few items in set B are presented as black-on-white in this way, if
participants exceed the tester's expectations, transition to sets C, D, and E of the standard
matrices is eased. (Name + 1 description)
Standard Progressive Matrices: These were the original form of the matrices, first
published in 1938. The booklet comprises five sets (A to E) of 12 items each (e.g. A1 through
to A12), with items within a set becoming increasingly difficult, requiring ever greater
cognitive capacity to encode and analyze information. All items are presented in black ink on
a white background. (Name + 1 description)
Advanced Progressive Matrices: The advanced form of the matrices contains 48 items,
presented as one set of 12 (set I), and another of 36 (set II). Items are again presented in black
ink on a white background, and become increasingly difficult as progress is made through
each set. These items are appropriate for adults and adolescents of above average
intelligence./ (Name + one description for each of the Matrices).

Question 3
(a) Explain the personality theory by Carl Rogers. [5]
(b) Explain the trait theory of personality given by Allport. [5]

Comments of Examiners

(a) A number of candidates did not mention distortion or

Suggestions for teachers
denial. Some did not mention positive conditional
All main concepts, that is, fully
regard. Others mentioned the names of concepts
functioning person, self-concept
without explaining them. Several candidates only
reality, denial, distort or conditional
explained fully functioning person in detail, without
positive regard and unconditional
mentioning any other concepts. A few candidates
positive regard should be explained
discussed Rogers Client - centered Therapy.
clearly.
(b) Definition of trait theory of personality was not
Students should be asked to read
written by most of the candidates. Functional
the question carefully. They should
autonomy was not explained by many. In some cases,
be taught to write each and every
three types of traits were mentioned but their
concept of the theory. All traits
examples were not given. Some candidates were
should be explained with relevant
confused about central and cardinal traits.
examples. The difference between
Central and Cardinal traits should
be explained clearly.

88
MARKING SCHEME
Question 3.
(a) One central assumption of Rogers theory was that human beings show many positive
characteristics and move, over the course of their lives, toward becoming fully functioning
person. What are such persons like? Rogers suggested that they are people who strive to
experience life to the fullest, who live in the here and now and who trust their own feeling.
They are sensitive to the needs and rights of others but they do not allow society's standards
to shape their feelings or actions to an excessive degree. Fully functioning people aren't
saints. They can and do act in ways they later regret but throughout life, their actions are
dominated by constructive impulses. They are in close touch with their own values and
feelings and experience life more deeply than most other persons.
If all human beings possess the capacity to become fully functioning person, why don't they
all succeed? Why aren't we surrounded by models of health and happy adjustments? The
answer, Rogers contends, lies in the anxiety generated when life experience are inconsistent
with our ideas about ourselves. In short- When a gap develops between our self-concept(our
believes and knowledge about ourselves) and reality or our perceptions of it. For ex. a young
girl who is quite independent and self-reliant, and who thinks of herself in this way. After her
older sibling dies in an accident parents begun to baby her and feels she must be sheltered
from the outside world. This treatment is highly inconsistent with her self-concept. As a result
she experiences anxiety and adopts one or more psychological defences to reduce it. The most
common defence is distortion-changing our perception of reality so that they are consistent
with our self-concept. For ex. the girl may come to believe that her parents aren't being
overprotective, they are just showing normal concern for her safety. Another defence process
is denial; she may refuse admit to herself that as a result of being baby she is indeed losing
her independence.
The larger such gaps, Rogers contends the greater individual maladjustment-and personal
unhappiness. Rogers suggested that distortions in the self-concepts are common because most
people grow up in an atmosphere of conditional positive regard. That is they learn that such
as their parents, will approve of them only when they behave in certain ways and express
certain feelings. As a result many people are forced to deny the existence of various impulses
and feelings and their self-concepts become badly distorted.
Rogers suggest that therapists can help to accomplish this goal by placing individuals in an
atmosphere of unconditional positive regard- a setting in which they will be accepted by the
therapists no matter what they say or do. Such conditions are provided by client centered
therapy.
(b) Gordon Allport (1897-1967) is often called the father of personality theory. He was very
much a trait theorist. Traits are specific dimensions along which individuals differ in
consistent and stable ways. He believed in the individuality and uniqueness of the person and
that people have consistent personalities.
Allport who spent thirty years searching for the traits that combine to form personality, found
nearly 18,000 dictionary terms that can be used to describe human behaviour. Allport
believed that traits are essentially unique to each individual. On the basis of his studies,
Allport concluded that personality traits could be divided into several categories that varied in
their importance. The least important are secondary traits; these are traits that exert relatively

89
 weak and limited effects on behaviour. More important are central traits- five to ten traits that
together account for the uniqueness of an individuals personality. Such traits are stronger and
more resistant to situational forces. Finally, Allport noted that a few people are dominated by
a single trait called cardinal trait. Nearly all of the individuals actions can be tracked back to
such traits. Napoleon (ambition) and Alexander the Great (lust for power) are a few examples
of such persons and their cardinal traits.
According to Allport, more important than all of the searching into the past or the history of
the organism is the simple question of what the individual intends to do in the future.
Intentions include hopes, wishes, ambitions, aspirations, and plans of the person. It is the
contention of this theory that what the individual is trying to do is the most important key to
how the person will behave in the present. In this respect, he showed a strong similarity to
certain views of Alfred Adler and Carl Jung.
The principle of functional autonomy simply states that a given activity may become an end
or goal in itself, in spite of the fact that it was originally engaged in for some other reason.
For example, initially a child may learn to read because this pleases his teachers and parents.
Later in life, however, the same person may read because he has come to enjoy this activity in
itself. This contrasts with Freuds view that the roots of adult personality are planted firmly in
the soil of childhood. For Allport, such connections are not necessarily present, and our adult
behaviour may spring from roots entirely different from those that give rise to our childhood
behaviour.

Question 4

(a) Explain Strong Campbell Interest Inventory as a means to measure interest. [5]
(b) Describe the Psychosexual Stages of development by Freud. [5]

Comments of Examiners

(a) The test items were written incorrectly by many

Suggestions for teachers
candidates. Some candidates hardly knew the details
All the necessary details of the test
of SCII. A number of candidates missed the scoring
should be explained to students
part of the test.
especially about the seven parts and
(b) Majority of the candidates attempted this question
their preference categories. Scoring
correctly. Some candidates were confused between
in terms of mean and standard
the latency stage and the genital stage. In some
deviations must be explained. The
cases, the stages were not written in the proper
six themes and the basic interest
sequence or order. Several candidates missed out the
scale must also be discussed.
phallic stage but wrote Oedipus.
All five psychosexual stages must
be explained clearly, along with
libido and fixation at each stage.
The importance of writing the
correct name of each stage, in the
right order must be stressed upon.

90
MARKING SCHEME
Question 4.
(a) Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory has been the subject of 50 years of research. It is mainly
taken from Strongs earlier version Strong Vocational Interest Blank. SCII represents the
1974 revision of the SVIB formulated by E.K. Strong Junior. The type of scores that this
inventory gives, indicates the degree to which a person is similar in his interest to persons in a
particular occupation.

Description of the test:

In SCII the mens and womens forms of SVIB were merged. It consists of 325 items grouped
in 7 parts. All the items were selected on the basis of empirical criterion keying. Items in first
five parts fall into following categories:
1. Occupations
2. School subjects
3. Activities (of making a speech, raising money for charity etc.)
4. Amusements (things you would like to do when you have a lot of time)
5. Day to day contact with various types of people (e.g. military officers)
The examinee has to express his preferences for these items under three categories: Like
(L), Indifferent(I), or Dislike (D).
The remaining two parts require the respondent to express a preference between paired items
e.g. dealing with things vs dealing with people.
Scoring:
In order to establish the scoring key for an occupation Strong and Campbell compare the
responses of persons in general to responses of persons within that occupation. Since the
responses of men and women show substantial differences on a number of interest items, the
comparisons have been carried out separately for men and women.

The total score is the sum of the item- responses. A raw score is obtained in this way for each
of the occupations. The raw scores are converted into standard scores where the mean for the
sample is taken to be 50 and standard deviation to be 10. A standard score of 45 or above is
considered similar to those in occupation and thus indicative of interest whereas a score of 25
or less is considered to be dissimilar. A score between 26 and 44 is viewed as rather
uninformative.

The Strong Campbell Inventory has added two types of scales that were not there in the
original SVIB.
The first of these scales is called the General Occupational Themes Scales. Each theme is
described not only by the occupations that appear to relate to it but also by a set of adjectives
that are thought to be typical of person in whom that theme is predominant. Thus a person
high on a realistic theme is described as robust, rugged, practical, stable, natural and
persistent. The six themes given are Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising and
Conventional.

91
 Finally, the SCII provides Basic Interest Scales. These are scores based on small clusters of
items in which the items correlate fairly substantially with each other and appear to share
common content.
This inventory has fairly good reliability and validity. Scores in most interest inventories are
quite stable over short periods of time such as two weeks or a month. Correlation of about
0.90 are typical of those reported in manuals for both the Strong and Kuder Inventories.
Takes 25 minutes.

(b) According to Freud, there is an innate sequence of stages through which all human beings
pass. At each stage pleasure is focused on a different regions of the body.
Oral stage: The stage of psycho sexual development during which pleasure is centered in the
region of mouth.
Anal stage: The psycho sexual stage of development in which pleasure is focused primarily in
the anal zone.
Phallic stage: An early stage of psycho sexual development during which pleasure is centered
in the genital region. It is during this stage that the Oedipus Complex develops.
Oedipus Complex (The Father and the Daughter, Electra complex (the mother and the son):
In Freuds theory a crisis of psycho sexual development in which children must give up the
sexual attraction to their opposite sex parents.
Latency stage: The psycho sexual stage of development that follows resolution of the Oedipus
Complex. During this stage sexual desires are relatively weak.
Genital stage: The final stage of psycho sexual development- one in which individual
acquires the adult capacity to combine lust with affection.

92
 SECTION B
Answer any three questions.
Question 5

(a) Explain the self-gender awareness that is found during childhood. [5]
(b) Describe the cognitive development that occurs during infancy. [5]

Comments of Examiners

(a) A number of candidates wrote general answers. Only

Suggestions for teachers
a few discussed concepts such as, gender stability,
Familiarise students with terms
gender consistency, etc.
such as, gender identity, gender
(b) A number of candidates who attempted this question
stability, gender consistency,
did not write about concepts such as, assimilation and
gender stereotype, gender roles and
accommodation. A few candidates discussed the
sex consistency (defining all of
preoperational period instead of sensorimotor period.
them). The role of social learning
Several candidates did not write about reflexes. In
and cognitive development theory
some cases, the examples were not clear.
should be explained.
Each stage of cognitive
development must be discussed
with age, range and distinctive
developmental features.
Key words of each stage must be
included in the explanation.
Students should be taught to
differentiate between cognitive,
social and physical development.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5.
(a) By the age of four, one understands the fact that one is a male or female which is termed as
gender identity.
Again, children understand that the gender is stable over the time, which is known as gender
stability.
Ruble and her colleagues have proposed that complete understanding of ones sexual identity
involves all three components and centres around a biologically based categorical distinction
between males and females.
It is not until they are six or even seven, however, that children acquire gender consistency
the understanding that even if they adopted the clothing, hair styles, and behaviours
associated with the other sex, they would still retain their current sexual identity. At this
time, they can answer correctly questions such as If Jack were gentle and cooked dinner,
would Jack be a boy or a girl?

93
 Gender: A societys beliefs about the traits and behaviour of males and females.
Gender stereotypes: Cultural beliefs about differences between women and men.
Gender Roles: Expected behaviours of males and females in many situations.
Sex consistency is complete understanding of ones sexual identity, centring around a
biologically based categorical distinction between males or females.
Several contrasting but not necessarily competing explanations have been offered. One of
these social learning theory emphasizes the role of learning especially the impact of
modelling and operant conditioning. According to this theory, children are rewarded for
behaving in these accordance with gender stereotypes and gender roles for behaving as boys
and girls are expected to behave.
A second view of gender development, cognitive development theory, suggests that
childrens increasing understanding of gender is just one reflection of their steady cognitive
growth.
A third view is the theory that children develop a cognitive frame work reflecting the belief
of their society about the characteristics and roles of males and females, this gender schema
often strongly affects the processing of new social information./(Gender schema theory)
(b) In Piagets view, the development of knowledge is a form of adaptation and as such involves
the interplay of two processes, assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation means
modifying ones environment so that it fits into ones already developed ways of thinking and
acting. For example, when a child hoists a banana and runs around in a circle shouting Look
it is a jet, the child is assimilating the banana into ways of thinking and behaving that are
already in place. Accommodation means modifying oneself so as to fit in with existing
characteristics of the environment. The child who, for the first time manages to peel a banana
and adjust his mouth so that the banana will fit into it has accommodated his ways of thinking
and behaving to the banana as it really is. Of course, most steps in development
accommodates to the banana (adjusting his ways of holding his hand and his mouth) also
assimilates the banana (by chewing and swallowing it). Piaget also spoke of equilibration
the tendency of the developing individual to stay in balance intellectually by filling in gaps in
knowledge and by restructuring beliefs when they fail to test out against reality.
According to Piaget, the processes of assimilation, accommodation and equilibration operate
in different ways at different age levels.
Piaget called the period of infancy the sensorimotor stage, The label reflects the infants way
of knowing the world are sensory, perceptual and motoric. Piaget called each specific way of
knowing a scheme. A scheme is an action sequence guided by throughout. For example,
when infants suck, they are exercising a sucking scheme.
When young infants see an object and the object is then hidden, they seem unaware that the
object continues to exist.
Hold an object within view of the baby until he or she is clearly interested and is reaching for
it; then quickly cover the object with a cloth. Chances are that the baby will stop in mid-
reach and will not search for the object at all. Repeat the same experiment with the same
youngster 3 or 4 months later, and you are apt to see the baby search for the hidden object.
The search suggests that the baby has attained what Piaget called object permanence the

94
 idea that objects continue to exist even when we can no longer see them. To understand the
importance of object permanence, remember that the mother and father are also objects in a
babys world. Evidence suggests that very young infants are not aware of the permanence of
people even their own parents when these people are hidden from view.
1. Reflexes scheme birth to one month
2. Primary Circular Reaction 1 to 4 months
3. Secondary circular reaction 4 to 8 months
4. Coordination of secondary schemes 8 to 12 months
5. Tertiary circular reaction 12 to 18 months
6. Mental combination 18 to 24 months
(any five)

Question 6
(a) Explain with examples any five ineffective strategies of handling stress. [5]
(b) Describe the different stages of General Adaptation Syndrome. [5]

Comments of Examiners
(a) This question was well answered by majority of the
candidates who attempted it but some candidates Suggestions for teachers
gave vague answers while some others did not give Each defence mechanism must be
examples. A few candidates discussed effective explained with an example.
strategies of handling stress instead of the The difference between effective
ineffective strategies as required. Some candidates and ineffective strategies of
drew the wellness cycle of stress. handling stress must be clearly
(b) Most of the candidates attempted this question well. brought out.
However, a few candidates did not mention Hans Discuss the different stages of GAS
Seyle. In several cases Hans Selye was spelt Model and explain each stage
incorrectly. Some candidates wrote about the Stage of clearly.
Resistance but missed out on ACTH Hormones, CRF
factors. A few candidates simply mentioned the
stages but did not explain them.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6.
(a) Ineffective strategies of handling stress:
DEFENSE DESCRIPTION EXAMPLE
1. Displacement Passing on the impulses Slamming a door instead of hitting a person.
on a less threatening Yelling at spouse after an argument with the
target. boss
2. Projection Passing off the A man who feels strongly hostile towards a
unacceptable impulses neighbour perceives the neighbour as being
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 within self on to hostile to him.
someone else.
3. Supplying a logical or A young woman explains that she ate an
Rationalisation rational reason as entire chocolate cake so that it wouldnt
(Release from opposed to the real spoil in the summer heat.
guilt feeling reason.
4. Reaction Taking the opposite If people are too modest, too solicitous, too
formation belief because the true affectionate or too strident in their crusades
belief causes anxiety against an evil such as alcoholism it is
possible that they are unconsciously
harbouring the opposite feelings.
5. Regression Returning to a previous A child who is toilet trained starts wetting
stage of development. the bed after new sibling arrival.

6. Repression Pushing things into the A student asks her professor to raise her;
conscious when she refuses, the student throws a
temper tantrum.
7. Sublimation Acting out unacceptable Instead of trying to seduce the young man,
impulses in a socially according to Freud the widows id wants
acceptable way. to, she might adopt him as a son and
provide financial support to further his
education.
(any acceptable example for any of the five strategies of defence mechanism be accepted)
(any five) OR
(Emotional expression, complaining, fantasy, helping others, substances abuse, eating
disorder)
(b) Different stages of general adaptation syndrome:
Hans Selye (1956, 1976) termed the bodys response to stressors the general adaptation
syndrome. The general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages. (1) The alarm reaction,
(2) The stage of resistance, and (3) The stage of exhaustion.
Alarm Reaction: The alarm reaction is essentially the emergency response of the body.
Stage of Resistance: If the stressor continues to be present, the stage of resistance begins,
wherein the body resists the effects of the continuous stressor. However, resistance to new
stressors is impaired during this stage. During this stage, certain hormonal response of the
body is an important line of defence in resisting the effects of stressors.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted into the bloodstream by certain cells in the
pituitary gland. The rate of ACTH secretion, is in part, controlled by another hormone-like
chemical substance corticotrophin-releasing factor (CRF) that is made by certain cells in
the brain structure known as the hypothalamus. The corticotrophin-releasing factor flows
from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland through a specialised system of blood vessels.
Stressors are able to activate the nerve cells of the hypothalamus to that more corticotrophin
releasing factor is sent to the pituitary gland, thus increasing secretion of ACTH into the

96
 blood. In this way, brain activity triggered by stressors influences hormone release; thus this
is a major link between environmental events stressors and the bodily state of stress.
Cortisol and other, similar hormones have many secretions which allow the body to deal
adaptively with stressors for long periods of time during the stage of resistance. But
maintained high levels of these hormones can be harmful. For instance, cortisol promotes the
formation of glucose (blood sugar) a fuel needed for nerve and muscle activity by
breaking down fats and proteins.
Stage of Exhaustion: The final stage of the general adaptation syndrome is the stage of
exhaustion. In this stage, the bodys capacity to respond to both continuous and new stressors
has been seriously compromised. For instance, due to the actions of cortisol, a person may no
longer be able to ward off infection and may become sick and perhaps die. Or, because of
other stressor-induced hormonal effects, stomach ulcers, diabetes, skin disorders, asthma,
high blood pressure, increased susceptibility to cancer (Bammer & Newberry, 1983) or a host
of other diseases may occur at this stage or late in the stage of resistance.

Question 7

(a) Explain the central features of psychodynamic therapies. [6]

(b) Give any four characteristics for each of the following: [4]
(i) Generalised Anxiety Disorder.
(ii) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder.
Comments of Examiners
(a) This question was answered well by majority of the Suggestions for teachers
candidates. However, a few candidates did not The basic concept of the
explain the basic concept of psychodynamic therapy. psychodynamic theory must be
(b) (i) Most of the candidates wrote this answer explained along with all major
correctly. concepts such as, free association,
(ii) Many candidate defined obsession and compulsion dream analysis, resistance,
repeatedly - they did not give typical behavioral transference and counter
characteristics. transference.
The difference between various
types of anxiety disorders should be
clearly explained.
Various characteristics of obsession
compulsive disorder should be
highlighted.

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MARKING SCHEME
Question 7.
(a) Features of Psychodynamic therapy:
Psychodynamic theory is used for the treatment of psychological disorders focusing on the
interplay of motives and urges./(Basic Concept )
Probing the Unconscious: Free Association and Dream Analysis:
Because unconscious impulses and conflicts are assumed to be the cause of neurotic behaviour,
the analyst uses several techniques to discover these unconscious processes and nudge them
into view. One of these techniques is free association, a technique in which patients are asked
to let their thoughts run free, without censorship, reporting them as they occur. To facilitate
their free association, patients are asked to relax on a couch and look away from the analyst.
Unexpected trains of thought, sudden memory lapses, and unusual statements give the analyst
clues to the patients repressed thoughts, feelings, and conflicts.
Freud believed that another pathway to the unconscious was dream analysis. He felt that id
urges and unconscious conflicts push for expression even when we are asleep and that our
defence mechanism even relax a bit during sleep. In analysing dreams, the psychoanalyst tries
to understand the particular urges that a patient has repressed and conflicts that are hidden
from view. One is that the symbols we use in our dreams have highly personal meanings,
though analysts believe that we use certain common symbols to stand for particular ideas.
Another is that parts of the dream may seem illogical or confusing. Still another is that parts of
dreams are forgotten.
Coping with Resistance, Transference and Countertransference:
Efforts to avoid or evade by rejecting the analysts interpretations, holding back crucial
information or failing to remember were labelled resistance by Freud. He saw resistance as a
patients unconscious struggle to prevent painful material from being brought out to the
surface and faced directly. The analyst copes with resistance in several ways. Often the
resistance is interpreted for the patient; the analyst explains why the patient may be rejecting
an interpretation or forgetting and the analyst may interpret the repressed feelings in ways that
are easier to accept. The analyst also interprets and builds on the transference that develops
during analysis. The patients attitudes and feelings towards people outside analysis can
resurface in the patients relationship with the analyst. Sometimes, the analyst develops a
counter-transference reaction with respect to the patient, meaning that the analyst transfers
onto his or her relationship with the patient certain attitudes and feelings that originated in the
analysts relationship outside the analysis.
(b) (i) Generalised anxiety disorder:
Excessive anxiety and worry , occurring more days than not for at least 6 months
about a number of events or activities (such as work or school performance)
The person finds it difficult to control worry.
The anxiety and worry are associated with at least three (or more) of the following six
symptoms:

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 - Restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge

- Being easily fatigued

- Difficulty concentrating or mind going blank
- Vigilance is evidenced by irritability
- Muscle tension manifested in shakiness, restlessness and headaches.
- Sleep disturbance (difficulty falling or staying asleep or restless, unsatisfying
sleep)
- Hyperactivity is manifested by shortness of breath, excessive sweating,
palpitations and even stomach ailments like chronic diarrhea.
The focus of the anxiety and worry is not confined to features of an Axis I disorder,
The anxiety, worry or physical symptoms cause clinically significant distress or
impairment in social, occupational or other important areas of functioning.
The disturbance is not due to the direct psychological effects of a substance (example
drugs of abuse [or] medication) or a general medical condition (e.g.
hyperthyroidism), and does not occur exclusively during a mood disorder, psychotic
disorder, or a pervasive developmental disorder.
(any four)
(ii) Obsessive compulsive disorder:
A. Either Obsessions or Compulsions
Obsessions are defined by the following:
1. Recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses or images that are experienced at
some time during the disturbances as intrusive and inappropriate and cause
marked anxiety or distress.
2. The thoughts, impulses or images are not simply excessive worries about real
life problems.
3. The person attempts to ignore or suppress such thoughts, impulses or images
or to neutralise them with some other thought or action.
4. The person recognises that the obsessional thoughts , impulses or images are
a product of his or her own mind (not imposed from without as in thought
insertion)
Compulsions are defined by the following:
1. Repetitive behaviours (e.g. hand-washing, ordering, checking) or mental acts
(e.g. praying, counting, repeating words silently) that the person feels driven
to perform in response to an obsession, or according to rules that must be
applied rigidly.

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 2. The behaviours or mental acts are aimed at preventing or reducing distress or
preventing some dreaded event or situation; however, these behaviours or
mental acts either are not connected in a realistic way with what they are
designed to neutralize or prevent or are clearly excessive.
B. At some point during the course of the disorder, the person has recognized that
the obsessions or compulsions are excessive or unreasonable. However, this does
not apply to children.
C. The obsessions or compulsions cause marked distress, are time consuming (take
more than one hour a day) or significantly interfere with the persons normal
routine, occupational (or academic) functioning, or usual social activities or
relationships.

The Symptoms of OCD

1. Contamination.
2. Pathological Doubt
3. Intrusive Thoughts
4. Symmetry
5. Religious Obsession and Compulsive hoardings

Question 8
(a) Define attitude. Explain the various components of attitude. [4]
(b) Explain each of the following biases. Give one example for each: [6]
(i) False consensus effect
(ii) Automatic vigilance
(iii) Self-serving bias

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most of the candidates answered the question well.
(b) (i) Several candidates just gave the explanation but
did not give a relevant example.
(ii) Many candidates gave an incorrect answer for this
question. In many cases, the examples were also
wrong.
(iii) Self-serving bias was written correctly by most of
the candidates along with the correct example.
100
Suggestions for teachers
The definition of attitude needs to
be explained clearly to students,
along with the ABC components
with examples.
Biases in attribution are very
important hence conceptual
teaching is a must. Sufficient
examples need to be given so that
students are clear in their
understanding.
This concept of automatic vigilance
should be explained clearly to the
student with correct examples.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 8.
(a) Attitudes: G .W. Allport who introduced this term, defined attitude as a preparation or
readiness for response. Attitudes can be defined as lasting evaluations of virtually any and
every aspect of the social world- issues, ideas, persons, social groups, objects. Attitudes are
also defined as a learnt predisposition to respond to a person or an object in either a favourable
or unfavourable way.
Components of Attitude:
Three components which are found to be common to all attitudes are:
1. Cognitive: Cognitive or belief component refers to the sets of beliefs and opinions
through which the attitude is expressed e.g. the cognitive component of the attitude
towards a political party may refer to the beliefs whether or not the party has honest,
unselfish and capable persons as leaders. The cognitive component also refers to how
this party should be assessed by the masses. Specifically a positive attitude towards a
political party implies a belief that after coming to the power this party would provide a
better government to the country than any other political party.
2. Affective: Affective or feeling component refers to the emotions associated with a person
or an object. These emotions include pleasant or unpleasant feelings, liking or disliking
for the object, good or bad mood, attraction or aversion. Feeling component serves as a
motivating factor and intensity of positive or negative feeling would determine the
motivational force behind the resulting behaviour. E.g. the affective component of your
attitude towards a political party would be whether you feel good or bad when this party
wins or loses an election.
3. Behavioural: Behavioural or action component refers to the actual behaviour which
occurs in relation to a person or an object. If a person holds a positive attitude towards
another person, he will show a tendency to help or support that person. If his attitude is
negative, the tendency would be to discourage or ignore that person. A favourable
attitude towards a particular party would prompt you to campaign for that party in an
election or to actually join the party as a member.

(b) (i) False consensus effect:

The tendency to believe that other persons share our attitudes to a greater extent than is
true.
The false consensus effect is not necessarily restricted to cases where people believe that
their values are shared by the majority. The false consensus effect is also evidenced
when people overestimate the extent of their particular belief is correlated with the belief
of others. Thus, fundamentalists do not necessarily believe that the majority of people
share their views, but their estimates of the number of people who share their point of
view will tend to exceed the actual number. Fundamentalists and political radicals often
overestimate the number of people who share their values and beliefs, because of the
false consensus effect.

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(ii) Automatic vigilance: This is the strong tendency to pay attention to negative social
information. If another person smiles at us twenty times during a conversation but
frowns once, it is the frown we tend to notice.
In an important sense this tendency is very reasonable. It alerts us to potential danger and
it is crucial that we recognize it and respond to it as quickly as possible. But our attention
capacity is limited, so when we direct attention to negative social information we run the
risk of overlooking other valuable forms of input. Thus, it may save us cognitive effort
but it can lead us into errors in our perceptions or judgments of others. Automatic
vigilance effect also helps explain why it is often so important to make a good first
impression on others. Since people are highly sensitive to negative information anything
we say or do during a first meeting that triggers negative reactions is likely to have a
strong effect on the impression we create than positive information. In this and many
other respects the automatic vigilance effect can have important effects on key aspects of
social thought.

(iii) The self-serving bias: This is the tendency to attribute positive outcomes to our own
traits or characteristics but negative outcomes to factors beyond our control. e.g. if
students score well in an exam they will most likely attribute it to internal causes like
talent or hard work but if they score poorly they will attribute it to external factors like
difficult paper or strict marking. Thus we have a tendency to take credit for positive
behaviour or outcomes by attributing them to internal causes, but to blame negative ones
on external causes, especially on factors beyond our control.
There are several factors which determine this attribution but the most important is the
need to protect and enhance our self-esteem or the desire to look good to others.
Attributing our successes to internal causes while failure to external causes permits us to
accomplish these ego-protective goals. Self-serving bias is a cause of much interpersonal
friction. It often leads persons who work with others on a joint task to perceive that they,
not their partners, have made the major contribution. Similarly, it leads individuals to
perceive that while their own successes stem from internal causes and are well deserved,
the success of others stem from external factors and are less appropriate. Also, because
of the self-serving bias many persons tend to perceive negative actions on their parts as
justified and excusable but identical actions by others as irrational and inexcusable.
In these ways the self-serving bias can have important effects on interpersonal relations.
There may be a number of good examples of the self-serving bias. Below are some of
the self-serving bias examples:
1. Believing that you are more intelligent than you actually are.
2. Believing that a positive outcome (e.g. writing a best-selling book) is completely due
to your talents when it may be partly explained by chance factors or the effects of
others.
3. Blaming a negative outcome in your life on other people or bad luck when it may be
partly due to making bad decisions.
4. Believing that you can become a famous singer when most people have doubted your
singing ability.

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Question 9

Write notes on any two of the following: [5x2]

(a) Role of a counsellor in dealing with groups.
(b) Role of persuasion in changing ones attitude.
(c) Application of psychology in recruiting and motivating employees in an organization.

Comments of Examiners
(i) Majority of the candidates wrote the answer
Suggestions for teachers
correctly. They managed to explain most of the
The role of a counsellor in dealing
points. However, a few candidates wrote on couples
with groups should be taught
counselling/ criminal counselling with rehabilitation
clearly to students.
or a combination of both.
The different ways of persuasion in
(a) Most of the candidates who attempted this question
changing attitudes should be
performed well.
explained clearly.
(b) Many candidates who attempted this question did not
The Scope of the syllabus must be
give sufficient details for recruitment or motivation.
referred to and the details under
organizational psychology must be
discussed with examples.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 9.
(a) Role of a counsellor in dealing with groups:
Counselling can be imparted in groups. When groups of people have similar problems, and
they fall within a particular age range, they can be counselled in groups. In group
counselling, the problems should be simple and not complicated or acute.
Group counselling is a type of counselling or relationship between the counsellor and the
client characterised by trust or openness in a group. It is conducted in a group of small
number of people. In group counselling, few people with similar background and similar
problems should be involved. But if more number of persons are taken in a group of
interpersonal contact may be absent which will not help the client. Many psychologists
consider counselling as a process of interpersonal interaction and communication. For
effective counselling in a group, the client and the counsellor must be able to approximately
and accurately send and receive both verbal and non-verbal messages.
The purpose of group counsellor programme is to provide some help and advice to the
persons facing problems in career, job, profession, in group relations and family.
They are advised how to deal with their negative emotions like aggression, violence and
anger in a realistic manner and with a positive approach. Realistic examples should be given
to convince them so that the advice given would really work.
Group counselling is economical. It saves time and cost. Even people in need and
susceptible to economic crimes like theft, robbery, petty crimes can be made aware of various

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 means of income.
In group counselling technique, the problems of all the clients should be same so that it would
be easy for the counsellor to concentrate on a particular issue and all the participants
consciously or unconsciously are influenced by the advice of the counsellor.
In group counselling, not many people should be taken in a group. The best size is of 8 to 10
clients. The client must attend all the group sessions.
Psychodrama which is a group psychotherapy can be used for group counselling. Originated
by Jacob Moreno, Psychodrama aims at exploring the emotional problems, interpersonal
relationships, personality make up, conflicts and emotional problems of the client. It is based
on the role playing technique. The clients express their complexes, suppressed and repressed
urges, aggression and violence through the character they play. Selection of a role for a
particular individual which may have some special significance for him is of great
importance. (Any five points)
(b) In the early twenty-first century, the business of changing attitudes or at least trying to
change them seems to grow bigger and more intense through television commercials,
magazine ads, billboards, warning labels on products, etc. The goal remains the same; to
change peoples attitudes and so, ultimately, their behaviour. Psychologists have the
following observations about these issues:
1. Experts are more persuasive than non-experts (Hovland and Weiss, 1951). The arguments
carry more weight when delivered by people who seem to know what they are talking
about than, when they are made by people lacking expertise.
2. Messages that do not appear to be designed to change our attitudes are often more
successful in this respect than ones that seem intended to reach this goal (Walster &
Festinger, 1962). In other words, we generally dont trust and generally refuse to be
influenced by persons who deliberately set out to persuade us. This is one reason why the
soft sell is so popular in advertising and in politics.
3. Attractive sources are more effective in changing attitudes than unattractive ones (Kiesler
and Kiesler, 1969). This is one reason why the models featured in many ads are highly
attractive and why advertisers engage in a perpetual search for appealing new faces.
4. People are sometimes more susceptible to persuasion when they are distracted by some
extraneous event than when they are paying full attention to what is being said (Allyn &
Festinger, 1961).
5. When an audience hold attitudes contrary to those of a would-be persuader, it is often more
effective for the communicator to adopt a two-sided approach, in which both sides of the
argument are presented, than one-side of an issue, acknowledging that the other side has a
few good points in its favour serves to disarm the audience and makes it harder for them to
resist the sources major conclusions.
6. People who speak rapidly are often more persuasive than persons who speak more slowly
(Miller et al., 1976). So, contrary to popular belief, we do not always distrust fast-talking
politicians and salespersons.
7. Persuasion can be enhanced by messages that arouse strong emotions (especially fear) in
the audience particularly, when the message provides specific recommendations about how
a change in attitudes or behavior will prevent the negative consequences described in the
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 fear-provoking message (Leventhal, Singer & Jones, 1965).
8. Cognitive approach to persuasion and ELM (Elaboration Likelihood Model)
Message Source - credibility of sources, attractiveness.
Content of the message suggestion, appeals to fear, one sided vs two sides messages
Characteristic of target influenceability, selective attention and interpretation,
immunization
(any five)
(c) Application of psychology in the recruiting and motivating employees in an organization:
Recruitment:
A psychologist who specializes in industrial problems and industrial relations is called an
industrial psychologist. Fitting the worker to the job is best done by proper and judicious
selection. Poor selection increases job dissatisfaction, absenteeism, labour turnover and
reduces efficiency. Hence, selection should be scientific, objective and based on tests and
interviews. The task of the industrial psychologist is to ascertain that the tests are reliable and
valid based on objective and scientific procedures.
Scientific Method of Selection includes selection on the basis of photograph, letter of
application, which includes biodata application blanks, reference and recommendations, use
of psychological tests, group discussions and interviews.

Letter of application is a good basis for prediction of job success which gives the biodata and
sufficient information about the applicant. Much preliminary information about the applicant
is obtained through letter of application which may be useful for a final selection. The
application blank is a highly structured interview in which the questions have been
formulated and standardized in advance. If the application blank is properly used, it becomes
an aid to selection and sometimes it is one of the better selection devices at the disposal of the
personnel technician. The bias and prejudice found in interviews is absent in selection
through application blank.
Interview techniques are extensively used for the selection of employees. Even the
personality characteristics like emotional stability, anxiety and stress, etc. can be traced
through interviews conducted by expert and experienced psychologists. In interviews,
situational tests are given like asking the interviewee to teach a subject or solve a crisis in
industry. These are also called role playing techniques.
In group discussions how the candidate is participating, how he is reacting, showing
interpersonal relation, how he is cooperating can be known by observing him. His tactfulness,
emotional stability, activity or passivity, initiative, decision making power, presence of mind
and capacity for taking the group with him can be traced by observing him in a group
discussion.
In sum in the recruitment and selection procedure various objective techniques should be used
to select the best candidate.

105
 Motivation:
Psychologists tried to find out what are the basic incentives which motivate the workers.
Incentives can be divided into two parts: financial and non-financial.
Realists say that financial incentive (money and fringe benefits) is the only the incentive for
which people work. Idealists hold that work is very natural for a human being. But the
additional work one does requires some incentive which is non-financial.
While the financial incentives in industry mainly referred to time-rate, piece-rate, multiple
piece-rate, differential piece rate, profit-sharing plans like bonus, etc. group incentive plans,
saving plans, pension and gratuity, the non-financial ones refer to attitude, supervisory
relationship, advancement and security, credit for work done, autonomy, interest in work
counselling on personal problems, promotion policy, security, understanding and appreciation
of fellow employees, job satisfaction, praise and blame, knowledge or result and experience
of progress, cooperation and competition, level of aspiration, etc.
Motivation is a positive drive that forces a person to reach a goal. The psychologists convert
the potentialities into performance, developing a positive attitude towards work which leads
to an increase in employee efficiency and productivity.
(three points from motivation + two points recruitment or two points from motivation + three
points from recruitment)

GENERAL COMMENTS

(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question paper:

Meaning of hypertension
Identity vs role confusion
Meaning of disorganized attachment
Meaning of term motivated skepticism
Ravens Progressive Matrices as a means of intelligence measurement
Strong Campbell Interest Inventory as a means to measure interest.
Five ineffective strategies of handling stress.
Self-gender awareness found during childhood.
False consensus effect.
Autonomic vigilance.

(b) Concepts between which candidates got confused:

Identity and role confusion
Anxiety disorder and generalized anxiety disorder
Aptitude and intelligence
Social categorization and recategorisation
106
 Social influence and conformity
Ineffective and effective strategies of handling stress.
Biases in attribution.

(c) Suggestions for candidates:

Read articles on psychological issues in newspapers and journals as well as on the internet.
Before writing the answers, please pay attention to the command words of question (discuss,
explain, describe, etc.).
Be more specific and present answers in an organized manner.
Answer in point form or try presenting in separate paragraphs with underlined keywords
instead of writing vague, abstract essays.
Give examples, studies and diagrams where necessary.
Practice writing long answers with emphasis on description, implications and appropriate
evaluation.

107
 ECONOMICS
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 31,139
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 1
Mean Marks Obtained 59.53

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 807 4505 11645 7861 6321
Percentage of Candidates 2.59 14.47 37.40 25.24 20.30
Cumulative Number 807 5312 16957 24818 31139
Cumulative Percentage 2.59 17.06 54.46 79.70 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

37.40
40.00
Percentage of Candidates

35.00

30.00 25.24
25.00 20.30

20.00
14.47
15.00

10.00
2.59
5.00

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100

Marks Obtained

108
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

PART I (20 Marks)

Answer all questions.

Question 1
Answer briefly each of the following questions (i) to (x): [10 2]
(i) Define marginal utility. When can it be negative?
(ii) What is meant by production function?
(iii) Name the market where average revenue is equal to marginal revenue. Give a
reason for your answer.
(iv) Give one difference between accounting cost and opportunity cost.
(v) What is the reason for an indeterminate demand curve under Oligopoly?
(vi) What is meant by propensity to consume?
(vii) Explain discounting bills of exchange as one of the functions of the banks.
(viii) Differentiate between revaluation of currency and appreciation of currency.
(ix) How can gross domestic product at factor cost be obtained from gross national
product at market price?
(x) What is meant by revenue deficit? Explain its implication.
Comments of Examiners
(i) Instead of change in utility, candidates wrote
Suggestions for teachers
change in commodity which as a concept was Teach relationships between TU
incorrect. Some candidates wrote that marginal and MU with the help of graphs and
utility becomes negative when total utility is schedule.
maximum, which is incorrect. Stress upon the use of key words
(ii) Many candidates did not use the words best and their importance in definitions.
production technique or functional in defining Help students identify different
production function. They expressed it merely as forms of market on the basis of
a relationship between output and input. important characteristics.
(iii) Identification of perfect competition was correct Every term should be clarified with
in most cases. However, several candidates were the help of examples. In opportunity
cost, the emphasis should be on
not able to give the reason for equality between
next best alternative and that it
AR and MR.
also covers economic cost.

109
(iv) The concept of accounting cost was not clear to a
number of candidates. The next best alternative
was not mentioned by many candidates while
writing about opportunity cost.
(v) Some candidates mentioned few sellers instead of
intense competition and interdependence in
decision making.
(vi) In some cases, propensity to consume was
explained as a micro concept i.e. consumption
expenditure of a consumer which is incorrect. It
was written as C=f(y) instead of defining it with
respect to different levels of National Income.
(vii) The time period of 90 days was not mentioned by
many candidates. Some candidates discussed it
considering producer and consumer instead of
debtor and creditor.
(viii) Some candidates seemed to be confused. They did
not relate revaluation with attempt made by the
Government and appreciation with the market
forces of demand and supply.
(ix) Some candidate could not answer this part
correctly. They only subtracted NIT and not NFIA
from GNPmp.
(x) A number of candidates explained revenue deficit
as the difference between Expenditure and Income
or the difference between Revenue income and
Revenue expenditure. The explanation for
implication was also poor in many cases.
110
Concepts of National income should
be made clear to students.
The implication of each feature of
the market must be emphasized.
Students should have a clear idea of
the kinked demand curve as a
reason for price rigidity in
oligopoly.
Clarify the meaning of all terms
associated with a topic. Students
should be made to realize how use
of different terms changes the
meaning, e.g. macro / micro.
The meaning of propensity should
be explained with reference to
consumption expenditure at
different levels of national income.
The time period, i.e. 90 days is
important to mention when
explaining its discounting.
The terms Revaluation and
Appreciation should be discussed
separately. Revaluation is done by
the Government / Monetary
authorities as fixed exchange rate
and Appreciation by demand and
supply forces as flexible exchange
rate.
Students should be taught the
relevance of using excess of
Revenue expenditure over Revenue
income of the Government.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(i) Marginal Utility
Utility derived from every additional unit to the consumer is Marginal Utility. At one point
consumers total utility becomes maximum and then his total utility falls. This is the point
when marginal utility becomes negative.
(Diagram or explanation)
(ii) Production function
It is a functional relationship or interdependence between output and some factors of
production which are needed to produce that output. (Maximum quantity of a commodity
which can be produced per unit of time with the given amount of inputs when the best
production technique is used.)
Q = f(x1, x2), where Q is output, x1, x2 are factors of production.
(iii) Market is perfect competition
AR = MR as the price is same or uniform
OR
Perfect competitive firm is price taker
(iv) Difference between Accounting Cost and Opportunity Cost.
Explicit cost or accounting cost is the money payment for hiring or buying inputs or factors
of product. Example, wages paid or money paid to buy raw materials.
Opportunity cost is the cost of next best alternative which is sacrificed.
If producers use their own resources, they are losing out on income or cost. There are
implicit costs.

(v) Indeterminate Demand Curve under Oligopoly:

Oligopolist has intense competition, cannot ignore the reaction of rival firms as there is
interdependence
(vi) Propensity to consume refers to different possible amounts of consumption expenditure
which the consumers desire to spend at different levels of national income.
(vii) Discounting Bills of Exchange as one of the functions of the banks.
A bill of exchange is drawn by a creditor on the debtor specifying the amount of debt and
also the date, normally for 90 days. The creditor can get it discounted from a commercial
bank. By discounting, bank pays the money to the creditor and allows the debtor to pay
when the bill is due.
OR
Explained with numerical example
(viii) Difference between revaluation of currency and appreciation of currency:
Revaluation attempt made by the government or monetary authorities to increase the value
of home currency with respect to foreign currency.
Appreciation increase in the value of home currencies done by forces of demand and
supply.

111
 (ix) Domestic Product at Factor Cost to be obtained from Gross National Product at Market
Price.
GDPFC from GNPMP
GNPMP net indirect tax - net factor income earned from abroad =GDPFC
Net indirect tax = indirect tax subsidy
Net factor income earned = factor income received factor income given.

(x) Revenue deficit and its implication.

Revenue Deficit: When the revenue expenditure of the government is more than the revenue
receipts
Implication: to cover this deficit, government has to borrow, which will increase the capital
expenditure of the government.

PART II (60 Marks)

Answer any five questions.
Question 2
(a) Discuss the relationship between income of the consumer and demand for a [3]
commodity with respect to normal goods, inferior goods and necessities.
(b) Differentiate between extension of demand and increase in demand, using diagrams. [3]
(c) Explain with the help of a diagram the consumers equilibrium through utility [6]
approach.
Comments of Examiners
(a) Some candidate defined normal/inferior goods Suggestions for teachers
Help students understand the
relating with price, though in the question income
concepts of normal, inferior,
was clearly mentioned. In some cases, price was
necessities and Giffen goods through
measured along the vertical axis to draw the relevant the concepts of income demand and
curves of these three types of goods. price demand.
(b) A large number of candidates answered this part Give more practice to students for
well but some did not show the movement and shift understanding the concepts of
with the help of arrows. extension of demand and increase in
(c) A number of errors were observed in this question: demand. The diagrams should be
Some candidates used law of equi-marginal properly labelled and arrows should
utility to explain Consumers equilibrium; be used to show movement/shift.
A few candidates explained this equilibrium Teach the application of the different
using ordinal utility/ indifference curve utility approaches. Explain clearly
the differences between cardinal and
approach.
ordinal approach of utility.
The explanations given by many candidates were
Students should be taught that
devoid of unstable situations like effects of equilibrium means stable
MUx>Px and MUx<Px. Some candidates did not equilibrium. Therefore how the
show it with MUx=Px. consumer attains the stable situation
for unstable, is a must in the
112 explanation.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) Income increases, demand for normal good increases, positive relation or direct
Income increases, demand for inferior good reduces, inverse or negative relation
Income increases, demand for necessities remains same
OR
Only diagrams given and properly labelled
(b) Extension of demand due to fall in Increase of demand due to other factors
price (own price) like income increase, favourable tastes,
etc.
Extension of Demand due to fall in Increase of demand due to other factors
price (Own price) like income increase, favourable tastes,
etc.

A
P Price
Price P
P1 B
D D1
D
O Q Q1 Quantity O Q Q1 Quantity
(Explanation, diagram).
(c) Equilibrium through utility approach:
Definition of Consumers equilibrium
Condition MUx =Px
Numerical example:
Price of shirt Rs.600
Schedule:
Qty MUx
1 700 MU 800 E1
and 600 E
2 650
price E2
3 600 - Equilibrium 400
MU
4 500 200
0 1 2 3 Units consumed
(Diagram & explanation with example)
Consumer in equilibrium when he buys 3 shirts as At E1, MUx>Px, consumer buys
MUx =Px more.
When he buys 2 shirts MUx>Px, so he buys more. E2, MUx<Px, buys less
When he buys 4 shirts, MUx<Px.

113
Question 3
(a) Discuss any two properties of indifference curve. [3]
(b) Draw diagrams to show the elasticity of demand when it is: [3]
(i) Greater than one
(ii) Less than one
(iii) Unity
(c) Explain the geometric method of calculating elasticity of supply. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) In case of convexity of IC the role of DMRS was
Suggestions for teachers
not recognized properly by some candidates. The
Explain properties of IC curve with
explanation for two indifference curves never
the help of diagrams. Give the
intersecting was not properly explained by a few
reasons behind each property.
candidates.
Teach degrees of elasticity of
(b) In several cases, the demand curve drawn was
demand properly. Proper diagram
steeper instead of it being flatter. Proportionate
showing Ep>1, Ep<1 and Ep=1
change in price and demand was not shown
should be taught.
correctly. Some candidates did not draw a
Teach students how to draw
rectangular hyperbola to show unity. The three
perpendicular on x-axis and line
diagrams drawn did not show proper variations.
extended upto x-axis. The ratio to
In some cases, Ep>1, Ep<1 and Ep=1 were
calculate elasticity of supply should
shown on the same demand curve.
be correctly taught. Es>1, Es<1 and
(c) Some candidates just drew the curves but did not
Es=1 should be mentioned.
give any explanation to justify the position of
supply curves. The perpendicular from the point
on the curve was not drawn on the x-axis. The ratio to calculate elasticity of supply was not
shown correctly (line extended to x-axis and distance between perpendicular to origin).

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a) Properties of indifference curve:
(1) Downward sloping due to marginal rate of substitution OR in order to increase
additional units of one, other commodity has to be substituted.
(2) It is convex to origin showing decreasing MRS consumer is ready to substitute or
sacrifice less has he increases the consumption of one commodity.
(3) Higher indifference curve gives higher level of satisfaction as he consumes more or
both the commodities
(4) Two indifference curves never intersect. Point on intersection cannot be explained as
the point cannot have two levels of satisfaction.
(any two)

114
(b) Elasticity of demand:

q q1<P P1 q q1 =P P1
q q1>P P1
Price P
P Price
P1 Price P
P1 P1
e <1 e =1
e>1
O q q1 q q1 q q1
Qty O Qty O Qty
Y

Price
X
Q

(c) Explain the geometric method of calculating elasticity of supply:

es> 1 es< 1
A A
es> 1 Price es = 1
Price
Price

C
O c O
B Qty O B Qty C
B Qty

OR BC> OB OR BC<OB BC=OB

e>1 e<1 e=1

OR one diagram (3 curves)

115
Question 4
(a) Show with the help of diagrams, the effect on equilibrium price and quantity when: [3]
(i) There is fall in price of substitute goods.
(ii) There is a rise in prices of inputs.
(b) The cost function of a firm is given below: [3]
Output 0 1 2 3 4
Total cost 100 250 370 550 740

Calculate:
(i) AFC
(ii) AVC
(iii) MC
(c) Explain the law of variable proportions with the help of a diagram. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Some candidates depicted shift in both demand
and supply curves whereas only demand curve Suggestions for teachers
should have shifted to the left. Teach students to draw properly
(ii) In several cases, the demand curve was shifted labelled diagrams for equilibrium
which was incorrect. In some cases, both demand positions.
and supply curves were shifted. It should be explained that TFC=TC
(b) Some candidates were confused with 0 and at zero level of output.
infinite. However, a large number of candidates Teach the law of variable
were able to attempt this part correctly. proportions with assumptions.
(c) A number of candidates drew TP, AP and MP Thorough practice should be given
curves without mentioning their relationship in in making diagrams. It must be
different stages. At times, the diagrams did not shown where MP will cut AP and
show point of inflexion and stages. Some MP will become 0. Students must be
candidates explained the relationship between TP clear about when a particular stage
and MP which was not required. comes to an end. Stage wise
explanation of TP, AP and MP must
be given.

116
MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a) Show with the help of diagrams, the effect on equilibrium price and quantity when:
(i) There is fall in price of substitute goods.
Fall in price of substitute will shift demand curve to the left.
S

Price
P E
P1

E1
D
D1
O q1 q Qty
Equilibrium shifts E to E1.
E.g. price from P to P1 and Eq quantity q and q1
(ii) Rise in prices of inputs.
Rise in price of inputs will shift the supply curve to the left.
S1
S
P1 E1
P E

D x
O q1 q Qty
The equilibrium shifts from E to E1
E.g. Quantity from q and q1
e.g. Price from P to P1
OR Self-explanatory diagram

(b) Output 0 1 2 3 4
TC 100 250 370 550 740
TFC 100 100 100 100 100
TVC 0 150 270 450 640
AVC - 150 135 150 160
AFC 100 50 33.33 25
MC - 150 120 180 190

117
(c) Law of Variable Proportion:
Statement
Assumptions (two assumptions)
Diagram
Stages [1st, 2nd, 3rd] Behaviour of AP, MP and TP curves in each stage.

Question 5
(a) Discuss two features of monopoly. [3]
(b) Show with the help of a diagram, how a perfectly competitive firm earns normal [3]
profit in short run equilibrium.
(c) Explain how a producer can maximise profit by using MR and MC curves. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) The features of Monopoly were explained correctly
Suggestions for teachers
by many candidates but in some cases, the quality of
Explain the features of various
the answers was very poor. Some of the candidates
markets with reasons. Highlight key
misunderstood and wrote about monopolistic
words in the answer.
competition.
Explain all conditions of equilibrium
(b) The conditions like MC=MR and MC cuts MR from
in short run earning normal profit.
below were not mentioned by a number of
More practice should be given in
candidates. Also P = AC for normal profit was not
drawing diagrams.
mentioned in several cases. Instead of AC curve
Explain the MC/ MR curves to
AVC curve was considered by some. In a few cases,
students with the help of well
TR and TC approach was used to show break-even
labelled diagrams. The condition that
point which was not asked.
MC should cut MR from below
(c) A few candidates made mistakes in this question. In
should be explained.
some cases, the explanation was not satisfactory.
The point at which the consumer will be in
equilibrium was not shown clearly in the diagram by some.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) Features of monopoly.
Monopoly: One seller, price discrimination, no close substitute of the product, AR drawn
(downward)
No entry in the industry.
(any two of the above with proper explanation)

118
(b) Give condition MC = MR and AC = price (normal profit)
And MC cuts MR from below.

MC
Price AC
P AR = MR= price

O Q Output
(c) Maximise profit only necessary condition and sufficient condition.
MC

E E1
AR = MR = P
Cost and
revenue

O Q Qm Q1 Output

O to Q the MC > MR. firm suffers loss

E break-even point normal profit MC = MR
Q to Qm super normal profit MR > MC
Qm profit max
Qm to Q1 MC = MR (normal profit)
Beyond E1 loss
Firms maximizes profit at E1 because it has earned all supernormal profits
MC = MR (necessary condition)
E and E1 MC = MR
E1 sufficient condition MC cuts MR from below or beyond Q1 only loss.
(Diagram, explanation and conditions)

119
Question 6
(a) Find the value of additional investment made by the government, when MPC = 05 [3]
and increase in income (Y) = 1000.
(b) What is meant by autonomous consumption? Explain with the help of a diagram. [3]
(c) Explain the concept of deficient demand with the help of aggregate demand and [6]
aggregate supply curves. Discuss one physical and one monetary measure to
correct it.
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates attempted the numerical
Suggestions for teachers
correctly. In some cases the formula used was
Explain investment multiplier
incorrect. A few candidates solved only till the mechanism clearly.
multiplier and left the value of additional Explain to students that autonomous
investment. consumption is a part of aggregate
(b) In some cases, consumption function was consumption expenditure while the
drawn as a horizontal straight line instead of other part of it is a function of
positively sloped curve. Candidates could not national income. Students should be
relate income with consumption. told that consumption is independent
(c) The term at full employment was missing in of income.
the definition given by many candidates. Full Terms like excess demand,
employment level of income was not shown deficient demand must be
clearly in the diagram. Some candidates explained to students in the context
of full employment level. More
seemed to be confused between physical and
practice must be given in drawing
fiscal measures. correctly labelled diagrams.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) K I = Y. K = multiplier. Y = 1000 I =? K=Y/I

K= K= = 2.

I = I = 500/-

120
(b) Autonomous consumption is consumption when income is zero. It is independent of
income.

O
N.Y.
is the autonomous consumption.
(c) Deficient demand means when aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply at full
employment.

E b
Aggregate
demand
YF income
O
At the YF (full employment, aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply. There is
deficient demand of ab. This is also called the deficiency gap.

Question 7
(a) Discuss two qualitative methods of credit control. [3]
(b) Explain any two secondary functions of money. [3]
(c) Discuss the various components of the current account of balance of payment. [6]

Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates were confused between
Quantitative and Qualitative methods of credit
control.
(b) Some candidates were confused between primary
and secondary functions of money.
(c) Several candidates did not show the debit side or the
credit side in the table. In other cases, the
explanation was not complete. A glaring mistake
made by candidates was the incorporation of items
of capital account, such as, transaction of
international loan, inflow and outflow of capital,
etc., as components of current a/c.
121
Suggestions for teachers
Clarify the meaning and significance
of the terms quantitative and
qualitative.
Differentiate between primary and
secondary functions of money.
Teach the importance of the terms
debit and credit in maintaining
any account specially BOP.
Clarification of terms current and
capital is required.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) Qualitative methods of credit control:
Moral suasion, margin requirement, publicity, credit rationing.
(any two)
(b) Secondary functions of money:
Store of value, transfer of value, standard of deferred payment.
(Proper explanation of any two)
(c) Definition of Balance of current account
Balance of Trade Credit and debit side showing exports and imports of goods
(visible items). To be explained with an example.
Balance of invisible items credit and debit side of services like insurance, etc.
Balance of incomes factor incomes. Wages and salaries, interest (debit and credit).
Balance of transfers (payment and income) both, debit and credit.

Question 8
(a) Highlight two differences between sales tax and income tax. [3]
(b) What is meant by: [3]
(i) Union budget
(ii) State budget
(c) Explain four ways of Redemption of Public Debt. [6]
Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates gave more emphasis on the Suggestions for teachers
definitions of sales tax and income tax than on the Emphasise upon the impact and
differences between the two. Several candidates incidence of a tax. Shifting of tax
failed to make a mention of the impact and incidence should be explained.
of taxation. For both Union budget and State
(b) Budget as financial statement or estimated income budget, explain to students that
and expenditure was not mentioned by several budget is a financial statement of
candidates. Some candidates missed out the term Union/State govt. for a particular
annual financial statement. Instead of writing that year.
the budget is prepared by the Central or Union
government, some candidates wrote budget is made
for the economy or country as a whole. While explaining State budget, a few candidates
wrote that it is the budget made for the State instead of writing that it is the financial
statement made by the state government.

122
(c) This part was not answered well by a large number of candidates. Some candidates wrote
only the captions. In some cases, deficit financing as a way of debt redemption was
mentioned which was incorrect. Repudiation of debt was written as a method of redemption
by several candidates - this is not a method at all in modern times.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
(a) Differences between sales tax and income tax.
Differences: sales tax is an indirect tax whereas income tax is a direct tax.
Sales tax burden is passed on to other persons, incidence and impact not on the
same person.
Income tax incidence and impact on the same person.
Examples can be given.
(Any two differences)
(b) (i) Union budget:
Central government submits a budget called Union budget (financial statement of
central government).
(ii) State budget:
State government submits a budget called the state budget (financial statement of
the state government.
(c) Ways of Redemption of Public Debt:
Methods can be sinking fund approach, terminal annuity, budgetary surplus, capital, levy,
export surplus, changing the rate of interest.
(Any four can be explained.)

Question 9
(a) With the help of a diagram, show the circular flow of income in a two sector [3]
model with Savings and Investment.
(b) The growth of Gross Domestic Product is not a real indicator of economic [3]
welfare. Discuss two reasons to justify the given statement.

123
(c) From the following data, calculate GNPMP and NNPFC by Expenditure Method. [6]
in crores
(i) Mixed income of self employed 450
(ii) Compensation of employees 550
(iii) Private final consumption expenditure 1000
(iv) Net factor income from abroad () 20
(v) Net indirect taxes 150
(vi) Consumption of fixed capital 170
(vii) Net domestic capital formation 380
(viii) Net exports ()30
(ix) Profits 400
(x) Rent 150
(xi) Interest 200
(xii) Government final consumption expenditure 550

Comments of Examiners
(a) Following errors were observed in the answers
given by candidates:
Directions of flows were improper.
Real flow and money flow were not shown
properly.
Capital market, with proper direction of flows
of saving and investment was missing.
(b) In many cases, instead of giving reasons to justify
the statement, some candidates argued why PCI
or real PCI is a better indicator. A number of
candidates were confused as to why GDP is not a
real indicator of economic welfare.
(c) The Net of Net domestic capital formation was
overlooked by a number of candidates. It was
treated as gross instead. Hence, instead of
NDPmp candidates calculated GDPmp. In some
cases, Income Method was used to calculate
GNPmp and NNPfc though it was clearly
mentioned in the question that the expenditure
method was to be used.
Suggestions for teachers
Explain the 2, 3, 4 sector models
clearly and emphasize on drawing
arrows for real flow and money
flow.
Explain how growth of GDP is not a
real indicator of economic welfare if
people are not living a comfortable
life different points may be
discussed.
The concepts of GDP and aggregates
of National Income should be
explained clearly.
Give regular practice to students in
solving similar questions.
Develop logical thinking and
problem solving skills in students.

124
MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
(a) Circular flow of income in a Two Sector model with Savings and Investment.

Factor income
Factors of production
HHS S Bank I Firms

Goods
Price of Goods

(b) It is not a real indicator as it does not tell us about (i) inequality of income and wealth (ii)
poverty (iii) whether present production is increased at the cost of future (iv) whether
more of defence items produced. (any two can be explained)
(c) Expenditure Method GNPMP and NNPFC
C + I + G + (X M) = NDPMP
in crores
(C) Private final consumption expenditure = 1,000
(I) Net domestic capital formation = 380
(G) Government final consumption expenditure = 550
(x-M) Net Exports = - 30
NDPMP = 1,900
NDPMP net indirect tax + NFIA = 1900 150+(-20)
NNPFC = 1,730
GNPMP = NDPMP + NFIA + depreciation = 1900 +(-20) + 170= 2,050

GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
MR MC approach of equilibrium of a firm
Consumers equilibrium
Geometric method to calculate elasticity of supply
Numerical on National Income.

125
(b) Concepts in which candidates got confused:
Utility approach: confusion between single commodity equilibrium, more than one
commodity (law of equi-marginal utility) and indifference curve approach.
In short run equilibrium - where the normal profit will lie.
Confusion between NDPmp and GDPmpin calculating NNPfc.
Concept of deficient demand.
Components of Balance of Payment.

(c) Suggestions for candidates:

Pay attention to each and every term used by teacher while teaching a particular topic.
Ask questions in class and make sure you understand the logic.
Practice writing answers.
Study the entire syllabus.
The meaning and significance of each terminology should be clear.
Read the question paper carefully during the allotted time.
Be sure to revise the answer script after completion of the paper.

126
 COMMERCE
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 28,331
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 2
Mean Marks Obtained 66.09

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 127 1725 9804 9872 6803
Percentage of Candidates 0.45 6.09 34.61 34.85 24.01
Cumulative Number 127 1852 11656 21528 28331
Cumulative Percentage 0.45 6.54 41.14 75.99 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

34.61 34.85
35.00
Percentage of Candidates

30.00
24.01
25.00

20.00

15.00

10.00 6.09

5.00
0.45

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100

Marks Obtained

127
B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

PART I (20 Marks)

Answer all questions.

Question 1 [10 2]
Answer briefly each of the questions (i) to (x).
(i) Enumerate the components of macro environment of a business concern.
(ii) What is meant by capital gearing ratio?
(iii) Explain the meaning of gross working capital.
(iv) Distinguish between NEFT and RTGS.
(v) Distinguish between Unity of Direction and Unity of Command.
(vi) Explain the term span of control.
(vii) What are the steps involved in the process of recruitment?
(viii) What is meant by the term place in marketing mix?
(ix) Explain branding.
(x) What is mobile banking? State any two banking services available on mobile
phone.
Comments of Examiners
(i) Only two components of macro environment
Suggestions for teachers
were given and explained in detail by many
Stress upon use of correct terminology.
candidates. Some candidates wrote components
Explain the difference between capital
of micro environment instead. Candidates also
fund and equity fund
used words such as, technique/ technical/
Working capital, gross working
economical /legally instead of technological/
capital, and net working capital should
economic/ legal environment, which resulted in
be explained clearly. Also explain the
a change in the context of the word.
difference between assets, fixed assets
(ii) Many answers lacked conceptual clarity. In
and current assets.
some cases, equity to debt ratio was substituted
Tell students that when differences are
with words such as capital fund. The correct
asked, expanding the abbreviations
formula was not written by some candidates.
does not become a point of difference.
(iii) The concept of working capital was explained in
Teach students the latest banking
general by a number of candidates. Some
trends. They must also be trained to
candidates got confused between gross working
give the correct difference under the
capital and net working capital and gave an
correct heading.
explanation of net working capital. Several
candidates wrote that gross working capital is

128
 the book value of assets instead of writing that
gross working capital is book value of current Give oral and written practice to
assets, while other candidates wrote that gross students in writing short answers so as
working capital is the amount invested in fixed to help them understand the
assets/assets instead of current assets. methodology of answering a question.
(iv) Many candidates wrote the expanded forms of the Stress upon the important keywords
abbreviations NEFT and RTGS as a point of without which the answer is
difference. In several cases, the differences were meaningless and incomplete. The
not only given under the wrong headings but were principles of management and their
also inaccurate and incorrect. Candidates did not relevance must be taught giving
seem to be aware of the latest banking trends. suitable examples.
(v) Though majority of the candidates gave a correct Recruitment and selection process
explanation for unity of command, some could must be explained clearly.
not explain unity of direction correctly. Clarify the terms - market, marketing
Important key words such as, one head and one mix and elements of marketing mix.
plan, were missing in many answers. Discuss in class the latest banking
(vi) The keyword number of subordinates under one trends and facilities available through
supervisor was missing in many answers; also mobiles with suitable examples.
instead of writing subordinates some of the Ask students to read and understand
candidates wrote subordinate and instead of the question before attempting it.
writing manager the candidates wrote
managers', which changed the meaning of the answer.
(vii) Instead of writing the steps involved in recruitment, some candidates wrote the steps involved in
selection/ planning/controlling.
(viii) The meaning of market was given by several candidates instead of the element place in marketing
mix. Many candidates defined place mix as manufacturing producing place or as a function of
exchange. In some cases, either channel of distribution was written or distribution of products
was given, whereas, both formed an important part of the answer.
(ix) The most common error made in this answer was that though most of the candidates gave the
meaning of the word brand, they did not write its purpose i.e. product differentiation or
inculcating brand loyalty.
(x) This question was misunderstood and many candidates wrote about e-banking or net banking. Also,
instead of writing the meaning of the word mobile, candidates used words like, land line which
is contrary to the word mobile.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(i) The components of macro environment of a business concern:
Economic environment
Social environment
Technological environment
Political environment
Legal environment (any four points)

129
(ii) Capital gearing ratio:
The ratio between equity and debt (borrowed funds) is called capital gearing ratio / financial
leverage. Two types of gearing are: High gearing / Trading on thin equity and Low gearing /
Trading on thick equity.
High geared when borrowed capital > equity
(iii) Gross working capital means the total amount of funds invested in current assets / working
assets / cash, stock of goods, debtors and short term investments.
OR
Gross Woking Capital = Book value of current assets
(iv) NEFT and RTGS:
NEFT RTGS
1. Processing NEFT transactions are settled RTGS transactions are
in batches/NEFT is based on processed individually and
net settlement at specific times. continuously/RTGS is based on
gross settlement
2. Minimum No minimum value Minimum value is Rs.2 lakhs
transaction value
3. Number of Six times on week days and No limit on the number of
transfers during three times on Saturday transfers during the day
the day
4. Maximum value If one does not have a bank There is no upper ceiling for
account, the maximum amount RTGS.
that can be transferred is
`49,999. In the case of an
account holder, there is no
minimum or maximum limit.

5. Area Is used for national - NEFT For international/ national - Can

can be used only for remitting be used to receive foreign
Indian rupee among the remittances
participating banks within the
country
(any two)

130
 (v) Unity of Direction and Unity of Command:
Unity of direction Unity of command
1. Meaning One head and one plan for a group of One employee must be
activities having the same accountable to only one
objectives. supervisor/ head/ boss.
2. Relativeness Relates to the organization as a Relates to the functioning of
whole. people
(Any one)
(vi) Span of control means:
Span of control means the number of subordinates/ employees/ workers who report directly
to one Manager/ supervisor/ authority.
(vii) The steps involved in the process of recruitment are:
Identification of sources of manpower
Comparing the dependability of various sources
Choosing the best source of manpower
Calling applications for vacancies
OR
Identifying the sources of supply of adequate number and right type of personnel.
Publicizing information about job vacancies in the organization.
Assessing alternative sources and choosing the best source.
Contacting the chosen source or recruitment to secure applications.
(viii) Place in marketing mix:
Place is an element of marketing mix which refers to distribution of products and channels of
distribution to make the product available to customers for purchase and consumption.
(ix) Branding:
Branding may be defined as the process of giving a distinctive brand name / symbol / mark/
logo/ sign to a product with the purpose of differentiating it from competitive products or
inculcating brand loyalty.
(x) Mobile banking means banking transactions through mobile phone. Banking services
available on Mobile phone are:
1. SMS Alert
2. Making payments
3. Making enquiries
4. Money transfer (any two services)

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 PART II (60 Marks)
Answer any five questions.
Question 2
(a) Explain any three features of business environment. [3]
(b) Discuss in brief any four factors that affect the working capital requirement of a [4]
company.
(c) Explain any five rights of consumers as provided under the Consumer Protection [5]
Act, 1986.
Comments of Examiners
(a) In several cases, the features of business
Suggestions for teachers
environment were confused with
Explain to students the effect of
importance/benefits of business environment.
changing business environment.
Some candidate wrote features of marketing, while
Features and dimensions should be
some wrote the dimensions of micro environment
clearly distinguished.
or elements such as, customer, competitor,
Ask students to utilize the reading time
suppliers, etc.
given, to understand the question
(b) The most common error committed by candidates
before attempting it.
in this question was that they wrote the factors
Differences between the fixed capital
affecting the fixed capital requirement or the
and working capital must be
factors affecting financial planning or the factors
highlighted. Flow charts and mind
affecting capital structure instead of the factors that
maps can be used to help students
affect the working capital requirement of a
remember.
company, as asked.
(c) Some candidates wrote about responsibilities of
consumers, methods of consumer protection and the redressal machinery under the Consumer
Protection Act 1986, instead of the rights of consumers. Several candidates misunderstood and
wrote about illiteracy while writing about Right to Education. In a few cases, for the Right to be
heard, candidates wrote about hearing instead of the how grievances of consumers can be heard.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) Features of business environment:
Totality of External Forces
General and Specific Forces
Interrelatedness
Complexity
Dynamic
Uncertainty
Relativity
(Any three with explanation)

132
(b) Factors that affect the working capital requirement of a company:
Operational efficiency
Nature of business
Size of the enterprise
Manufacturing cycle/ length of the operating cycle
Terms of purchase and sales
Turnover of working capital
Business cycle
Dividend policy
Management attitude towards risk
Rate of growth of business
Seasonal variations
Goodwill/ creditworthiness/ reputation
(any four with explanation)
(c) Rights of consumers as provided under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Right to safety
Right to information
Right to choice
Right to be heard
Right to seek redressal
Right to education
Right to healthy environment
(Any five with explanation)

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Question 3
(a) What is meant by trade credit? Mention two advantages of trade credit as a short term [3]
source of finance.
(b) Explain any four types of debentures through which a Public Limited Company can collect [4]
its borrowed capital from the public.
(c) What is retained earning? Explain any two of its merits and two of its demerits. [5]
Comments of Examiners
(a) Instead of writing about trade credit, some
candidates wrote about cash credit or they wrote that Suggestions for teachers
it is the discount allowed by the seller to the buyer; Trade credit, cash credit and customer
some others wrote about trade credit being short advances are three different forms of
term loans given by financers. The advantages of short term finance. Trade credit must
trade credit as a short term source of finance were be explained from the business point
not properly explained by many candidates. of view.
(b) Correct headings were given by many candidates but Instruct students to write complete
the explanation was either an expansion of the sentences and not one word answers.
heading or was not correct, especially in the case of Tell students that explanation does not
registered and bearer debentures, Also, in case of mean expanding the heading. The
convertible debentures, several candidates forgot to meaning of each type of debenture
write that convertible debentures are converted into must be made clear.
equity shares. The importance of keywords must be
(c) In the explanation of retained earnings, not only is stressed upon. The type of answers
the word retaining important, but also the word required must be explained and
reinvesting, which many candidates did not shortcomings of answers given by
include in the answer. The explanation given by candidates must be discussed in class.
some candidates was general, vague and inadequate.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
(a) Trade credit:
Trade credit is the credit extended by one business firm to another as incidental to sale or
purchase of goods and services. In other words, Trade Credit is the credit extended by sellers
to buyers at all levels of production and distribution process down to the retailer.
Advantages of trade credit:
Trade Credit is a very simple or convenient method of raising short term finance.
No formalities are involved and the credit is readily available to reputed business firms.
No interest is payable.
No charge is created on companys assets.
More economical. (Meaning and any two advantages)

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(b) Types of Debentures:
Registered debentures
Bearer debentures
Redeemable debentures
Irredeemable debentures
Naked / unsecured debentures
Mortgage debentures
Convertible debentures
Non-convertible debentures
(any four with brief explanation)
(c) Retained earnings:
Retained earnings refer to the process of retaining and reinvesting part of net profit in the
business to expand the business and to meet the financial requirements.
Merits:
Convenient
Economical
Increases the credit worthiness of the company
No dilution of managerial power
No charge on companys assets
No burden on the companys profits.
Can be used to redeem debts
No dilution of voting rights
Helps to increase capital formation which is necessary for rapid development of nations
Can undertake plans for expansion irrespective of capital market conditions
Demerits:
May lead to over capitalization
Manipulate share prices
Lop sided development of the industry
May create monopoly.
Lead to dissatisfaction among the present shareholders
Unstable source since profits may not remain the same in future years

135
Question 4
(a) Distinguish between equity shares and preference shares. [4]
(b) Explain any four facilitating functions of marketing. [8]

Comments of Examiners
(a) The basis of differentiation was not given by many
candidates. As a result, they could not give clear,
complete and accurate differences. Some candidates
wrote the difference correctly but under wrong
headings. Several candidates wrote the word
interest as a return on shares and dividend as a
return on debentures. In some cases, only one word
was given as a difference, for example, under degree
of risk, a few candidates wrote high or low which
did not give the complete meaning.
(b) The most common error made in this part was that
instead of giving the facilitating functions of
marketing, many candidates gave functions of
exchange i.e. buying and selling or functions of
physical supply that is, transportation and
warehousing. In some cases, instead of facilitating
functions, candidates wrote about marketing mix.
Suggestions for teachers
Ask students to revise their answers
and ensure that they have written
the differences under correct
headings. If the differences are
written in a paragraph format, the
points of differences must be
clearly demarcated. The differences
given must correlate to each other.
Stress upon the use of correct
terminology.
The reading time must be utilized
effectively. Classification and the
basis of classification must be
explained. Reference work is a
must.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a)
Basis Equity Shares Preference Shares
1. Nominal value Generally low Generally high
2.Degree of risk Very high risk because Comparatively low because
dividend is not fixed. of fixed rate of dividend
3.Right to dividend After dividend paid to Prior to dividend on equity
preference shares shares
4.Refund of capital Repayment after all other Prior to refund of equity
obligations are refunded capital.
5.Voting rights Voting rights exists Limited voting rights
6. Appeal To the bold adventurous To the cautious and
investors conservative investors.
7.Redemption Not redeemed during the life Redeemable preference
shares are redeemed

136
 8.Convertibility Shares of business cannot be Can be converted into equity
converted to preference shares shares
9.Arrears of dividend Not paid Arrears of Cumulative
preference shares are paid
dividend out of next years
profit.
10.Further issue of shares Shareholders are entitled to Shareholders are not entitled
issue of right shares and to issue of right shares and
Bonus shares bonus shares.
11. Rate of dividend Varies with profit Fixed
(any four)
(b) Facilitating functions of Marketing:
Marketing research
Product planning and development
Standardization and grading
Packing and packaging
Branding and labelling
Pricing
Advertising and salesmanship
Financing
Risk taking
(any four points with proper explanation)

137
Question 5
(a) Mention three remedies available to consumers under the Consumer Protection [3]
Act, 1986.
(b) Explain any four merits of borrowing funds from financial institutions. [4]
(c) Explain any five ways of overcoming barriers to communication. [5]
Comments of Examiners
(a) In this part, a number of candidates wrote about the
Suggestions for teachers
redressal machinery instead of the remedies available
Consumer rights, responsibilities,
to consumers under the Consumer Protection Act,
remedies and redressal machinery are
1986. Some other candidates wrote about rights or
different concepts and must be clearly
responsibilities of consumers.
explained. Practice should be given to
(b) Though a few candidates could give a correct answer
students in various types of questions,
to this question, the merits were not clear and some
so that students can attempt them
candidates made up their own points. Some
without misunderstanding the
candidates wrote about merits of various long term
question.
sources of finance like shares and debentures. Some
The difference between banks and
candidates wrote about advantages of borrowing
financial institutions must be
funds from a bank, instead of financial institutions, as
explained and more oral and written
required.
practice must be given to the students.
(c) Many candidates did not seem to have conceptual
Different types of barriers to
knowledge about the ways of overcoming barriers to
communication and ways to
communication. Answers were vague, inadequate and
overcome them can be explained
incomplete. Some candidates wrote about barriers to
using suitable examples and case
communication instead of the ways to overcome
studies.
barriers to communication. At times, points were
overlapping or repetitive.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) Remedies available to consumers under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986:
To remove the defects in goods or deficiency in service.
To replace the defective product with a new one, free from any defect.
To refund the price paid for the product or the charges for the services.
To pay a reasonable amount of compensation for any loss or injury suffered by the
consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party.
To pay punitive damages in appropriate circumstances.
To discontinue the unfair / restrictive trade practices and not to repeat in future.
To cease manufacture of hazardous goods and to desist from offering hazardous services.
(any three)

138
(b) Merits of borrowing funds from financial institutions:
Both, risk/equity capital as well as loan capital is available.
Financial institutions provide under-writing facilities.
Benefits of trading on equity is available.
New companies which may find it difficult to raise finance from the public can get finance
from these institutions.
Financial institutions provide finance for modernization and expansion of a business
concern.
Loans and guarantee in foreign currency and deferred payment facilities are available
for the import of required machinery and equipment.
The rate of interest is economical/low and repayment procedure is convenient.
Along with finance, a company can obtain expert advice and guidance for the successful
planning and administration of projects.
(any four)
(c) Ways of overcoming barriers to communication:
Well drafted message with proper language
Two way communication
Sound organizational structure
Consistency
Empathetic listening
Motivation
Feedback
Open door policy
Gestures and tone (any five to be explained)

139
Question 6
(a) Explain any three internal factors of micro environment of a business [3]
organization.
(b) Explain the objectives of marketing. [4]
(c) Planning is beneficial to all. In the light of this statement, discuss the [5]
importance of planning.
Comments of Examiners
(a) Though majority of the candidates answered this
question correctly, a few misunderstood and wrote Suggestions for teachers
about the importance/ features/ external factors Students must be trained in
influencing the business organization. It was also answering similar type of questions.
noticed that in several cases, the candidates wrote Ask students to give a proper
correct headings but the explanation given under explanation for every heading.
these headings was incorrect. Use of flow charts and mind maps can
(b) Instead of giving the objectives of marketing, help in clarifying concepts.
importance or advantages of marketing were given by The shortcomings of an answer
many candidates. Also, in several cases, while the should be discussed with students in
headings were correct, the explanations given under class. Students must be told that if
these headings were vague, inaccurate and extremely they are using the paragraph format,
generalized or incorrect. the points should be well defined and
(c) Instead of writing the importance of planning, some clearly stated. The points must not
candidates gave features/ steps/ functions of planning. overlap.
Many candidates answered in a paragraph format
with the points not clearly demarcated and well defined.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) Internal factors of micro environment are:
Corporate culture: The values, beliefs and attitudes of the founders and top management
of the company.
Mission and objectives: The business philosophy and purpose of Company guides its
priorities, business strategy, product market scope and development process.
Top management structure: the composition of the board of directors, the degree of
professionalization of management and the organizational structure of a company have
important bearing on its business decisions.
Power structure
Company image and brand equity
Human and other resources
(any three)

140
(b) Objectives of Marketing:
Inducing customers to buy products
Consumers satisfaction
Increasing sales volume
Profitability
Coordination and integration
Improving standard of living of people
Optimum utilization of business resources
Service to society welfare of the society, protection of environment
Generating employment
(any four with brief explanation)
(c) Importance of planning:
Focuses attention on objectives
Makes activities meaningful
Brings order in place of chaos
Reduces risk of uncertainty
Improves economy of operations
Provides basis for control
Promotes innovation and creativity
Facilitates decision-making
Helps in co-ordination
Bridges gap between present and future
(Any five with explanation)

141
Question 7
(a) Differentiate between functional organization and divisional organization. [3]
(b) What is meant by service? Mention three features of service. [4]
(c) Coordination is the essence of management. Explain. [5]
Comments of Examiners
(a) This question was not attempted by a number of
candidates and many of those who attempted it gave Suggestions for teachers
Familiarize students with the
vague and inadequate explanations. Many candidates
did not write the basis of differentiation which functional and divisional forms of
organization through examples and
resulted in the differences not being clearly defined.
case studies so that they can bring out
Points were repeated by many candidates.
the differences between the two forms
(b) The keyword intangible was missing in many of the
clearly.
answers. Some candidates misinterpreted the word
Give practice to students in writing out
service as, being in employment and stated the
answers.
features of employment instead. However, some
Stress upon the important keywords in
candidates managed to write the features of service
the topic.
correctly.
Coordination is inherent in every
(c) While many candidates were able to explain the function of management which is why
meaning of coordination, some failed to explain as to it is considered as the essence of
why coordination is considered to be the essence of management. This must be made clear
management. Several candidates failed to relate while teaching the topic in the
every function of management to coordination and classroom
the fact that coordination is inherent in every
function of management.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) Basis Functional organization Divisional organization
1. Formation Each major function of the Each major product line
organization is a separate is a separate division
department
2. Type of Functional specialization Product specialization
specialization
3. Organizational units Functional departments and Product divisions and
sections sub-divisions
4. Coordination Difficult Simple
5. Cost Economical Expensive
6. Responsibility for Cannot be fixed on one Can be fixed on each
profits department division
7. Development of Not possible Possible
general managers

142
 8. Autonomy of Less More
operations
9. Control Simple Difficult
10. When useful For all types of firms For firms having
diversified product line.
(Any three)
(b) Meaning of Service:
Services are intangible products which cannot be seen and touched and the ownership of
services cannot be transferred.
Features:
Services are intangible
Services are perishable
Services are inseparable
Services are variable (brief explanation required)
(c) Coordination as the essence of Management:
Coordination is not a separate function but the very essence of management. The very purpose
of management is to achieve harmony between individual efforts and accomplishment of
group goals.
Or
It is because the very purpose of management is achievement of harmony between individual
efforts towards the accomplishment of group goals. It is because the achievement of
harmony between individual efforts towards the accomplishment of group goals is the very
purpose of management. Coordination is inherent in all the functions of management.
Coordination is the result which can be achieved through the proper performance of
managerial functions:
In planning, coordination is required between the master plan of the enterprise and the
plans of different departments or divisions. There should also be coordination between
the objectives and the available resources.
During organizing, there should be coordination between the authority and
responsibility of every individual. Same work should not be assigned twice. Organization
would be ineffective if there is lack of coordination between different departments and
divisions.
While staffing, coordination is achieved by balancing the skills and abilities of the
employees with the jobs assigned to them.
While directing, supervision, motivation and leadership are used to ensure harmonious
working of the organization.
During controlling, coordination is achieved by ensuring that actual results conform to
plans as closely as possible.

143
Question 8
(a) What is a market? Explain the meaning of capital market and money market. [3]
(b) Differentiate between traditional concept of marketing and modern concept of [4]
marketing.
(c) What is meant by indirect channels of distribution? Explain the types of indirect [5]
channels of distribution.

Comments of Examiners
(a) A general definition of market was given by many
Suggestions for teachers
candidates. In some cases, capital market and
Meaning of market must be clarified.
money market were not explained clearly.
Capital and money market must be
Majority of the candidates seemed to lack
explained clearly and with examples.
conceptual clarity. The sources from where funds
Students must be trained to write
are available were not explained by some
corresponding differences. Giving
candidates. A few candidates tried to link capital
one-word answers as differences must be
market and money market with fixed assets.
avoided. Students must also be cautioned
(b) Only one or two differences were explained by
against repetition of points.
many candidates. Some candidates gave
Stress upon the importance of
differences in one word. In several cases,
understanding the question before
differences were given under wrong headings and
attempting it. The word intermediary/
certain points were also repeated.
middleman is very important and must be
(c) Majority of the candidates answered this question
included in the answer for indirect
correctly but some candidates ignored the concept
channels of distribution so as to
of middleman and did not mention intermediaries
differentiate it from a direct channel of
which is an important part in indirect channel of
distribution.
distribution. Several candidates only gave one

level of channel of distribution. A few candidates
wrote about zero level which is not an indirect channel of distribution but a direct channel of
distribution.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
(a) Market: It is the sum total of the environment in which resources, activities and attitude of
buyers and sellers affect the demand for products and services / a place where the buyer and
seller meet either personally or virtually to affect the sale and purchase of products and
services.
Capital Market: This is a specialized market for providing long term finance of business
enterprise. It comprises specialized financial institutions, stock exchanges, investment trusts,
insurance companies, etc.
Money market: This is a specialised market for providing short term finance to business
enterprises. It consists of various types of banks.

144
(b) Traditional concept of Marketing Modern concept of Marketing
1. Scope It involves obtaining of orders Modern concept of marketing
from customers and delivering involves the design of the
them the products. products acceptable to
customers and transfer of
ownership from the sellers to
buyers.
2. Orientation It is selling oriented It is customer oriented
3. Beginning It begins (selling) after the goods Marketing begins before
are purchased production in order to identify
the wants of customers

4. End It ends with the sale of goods Marketing continues after sales
in order to provide after sales
services and to judge customers
response.
5. Focus Attention on sellers need of Attention on customers needs
increasing sales volume and satisfaction
6. Goal Short term goal of profit Long term goals such as growth
maximisation and stability
7. Means of Maximising profit by increasing Marketing aim is earning profit
achieving goal sales volume. through maximum customers
satisfaction

(any four)
(c) Indirect channels of distribution:
When one or more intermediary is involved in the distribution network, it is referred to as
indirect channel.
Types of indirect channels of distribution:
Manufacturer Retailer Consumer (One level channel)
Manufacturer Wholesale Retailer Consumer (Two level channel)
Manufacturer Agent Wholesaler Retailer Consumer (Three level channel)
(types with brief explanation)

145
Question 9
Write short notes on:
(a) Motivation as an element of directing. [4]
(b) Formal organization. [4]
(c) Internal sources of recruitment. [4]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Key words such as, desire, inducing people to work
Suggestions for teachers
hard and achieve goals, which were an important part
Give practice to students in writing
of the answer, were missing in many cases. The
short notes which should include the
explanation given by several candidate did not
meaning, objective, advantages as
synchronize with the heading given. Some candidates
well as disadvantages.
wrote Maslows Theory of Hierarchy of Needs.
Give regular assignments and provide
(b) The answers given by the many candidates showed
feedback to students on the
lack of in-depth study of the topic.
shortcomings of the answers written
(c) While the meaning was clearly bought out by most
by them.
candidates, some candidates did not write the
advantages and disadvantages of internal sources of
recruitment, while a few ignored types of internal recruitment, that is, promotion and transfer.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
(a) Motivation as an element of directing:
One of the functions of management is to create the desire among the employees to perform
their jobs to the best of their abilities. Inducing people to work hard for achieving common
goals constitutes the motivation function of management. Motivation, may, therefore, be
defined as the process of stimulating or inducing people to take the desired course of action.
Features:
It is the act of inspiring employees to work hard to achieve the desired goals of the
organization.
It involves arousing needs and desires in people so as to initiate and direct their behaviour
in a purposeful manner.
The aim of motivation is to influence the behaviour of subordinates for better performance
and achieving the desired results.
Motivation is an ongoing process. Human needs are unlimited whereas the means to
satisfy them are limited. As soon as one need is satisfied, another need arises. This
process is continued from birth to death.
Motivation produces goal directive behaviour. A motivated person works towards the
achievement of the desired goals. Human needs influence behaviour in different ways.

146
 Motivation may be positive or negative. Positive motivation means inspiring people to
work better and appreciating a work that is well done; in certain cases by offering rewards
or promotions. Negative motivation means forcing people to work by threatening or
punishing them.
Motivation is a result of interplay among three groups of factors.
Influences operating within an individual
Influences operating within an organization
Forces operating in the external environment
Process of Motivation:
Awareness of need
Stimulus for action
Fulfillment of need
Discovery of new need
(b) Formal organization:
An organizations structure which is designed and established by management to achieve
organizational goals is termed as formal organization. It is an official system of clearly
defined activities and relationships which are intended to divide and integrate the activities of
the organization.
Advantages:
Fixation of responsibility is easy as relationship among the members is clearly defined.
Clarity of roles helps in avoiding duplication of work.
Unity of command is maintained through an established chain of commands.
Effective accomplishment of goals by providing rules and procedures and by placing more
emphasis on work.
Stability in the organization, because behaviour of employees can be fairly predicted since
there are specific rules to guide them.
Disadvantages:
Delay in decision making: established chain of command and communication may lead to
procedural delays.
Lack of creative effort: rigid laid down policies may not provide adequate recognition to
creative talent.
(c) Internal sources of recruitment:
Internal sources may refer to employing persons from within the organisation. The important
internal sources of recruitment are as follows:
1. Promotion: it means shifting an employee to a higher post carrying higher salary, status
and responsibility.

147
 2. Transfer: It refers to shifting an employee to a similar job with no change in salary, status
and responsibility.
Advantages:
1. Familiarity the organization and employees are already familiar to each other
2. Economy minimum cost is involved.
3. Motivational value source of motivation and encouragement for employees
4. Better utilization of existing talent
Disadvantages:
1. Limited choice
2. Lack of competition
3. Conflicts among employees
4. Inbreeding new talent and new blood available outside, does not enter the enterprise.
5. Incomplete source.

GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
Capital gearing ratio
Unity of direction
Motivation
Span of control
Functional and divisional organization
Coordination as essence of management.
Capital and money market
(b) Concepts in which candidates got confused:
Facilitating functions with functions of exchange and functions of physical supply.
Trade credit with cash credit
Importance of planning with features and steps of planning
Barriers of communication with ways to overcome barriers to communication.
Direct with indirect channels of distribution.
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
Make brief notes on the various Units with key words.
To be regular and punctual and pay attention in the class.
Revise all topics and do not resort to selective studies.

148
 Make collective notes from different text books.
Complete the syllabus on time and leave enough time for revision.
Improve general knowledge by reading financial pages of the newspapers and know the terms
commonly used.
On the day of the examination, devote the reading time to collecting your thoughts and
selecting the questions to answer.
Read the questions twice before you start answering them.
Give answers that are in line with the requirements of the question.
Avoid repetition of points in the answer.
Write differences in a tabular form, making sure that the differences correlate with each other.
Headings and explanation must co-relate with one another.
Read your answers once you have finished the paper and correct the errors.

149
 ACCOUNTS
STATISTICS AT A GLANCE
Total Number of students who took the examination 28,548
Highest Marks Obtained 100
Lowest Marks Obtained 1
Mean Marks Obtained 61.73

Percentage of Candidates according to marks obtained

Mark Range
Details
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Number of Candidates 526 2409 11808 8125 5680
Percentage of Candidates 1.84 8.44 41.36 28.46 19.90
Cumulative Number 526 2935 14743 22868 28548
Cumulative Percentage 1.84 10.28 51.64 80.10 100.00

Range of Marks Obtained

45.00 41.36
Percentage of Candidates

40.00

35.00
28.46
30.00

25.00 19.90
20.00

15.00
8.44
10.00

5.00 1.84

0.00
0-20 21-40 41-60 61-80 81-100
Marks Obtained

150
 B. ANALYSIS OF PERFORMANCE

SECTION A
PART I (12 Marks)
Answer all questions.

Question 1 [6 2]

Answer briefly each of the following questions:

(i) What is meant by an operating cycle?

(ii) State one difference between partners loan account and partners capital account.

(iii) Give the adjusting entry and the closing entry for recording commission allowed to
a partner, when the firm follows the fixed capital method.
(iv) How will the firm record the payment of realization expenses which were to be
borne by a partner, but paid by the firm on his behalf?
(v) Give the accounting treatment in the books of a co-venturer under the Memorandum
Joint Venture Method, when he takes over the unsold stock.
(vi) What is the minimum price at which a company can reissue its forfeited shares
which were originally issued at par?
Comments of Examiners
(i) A number of candidates could not attempt this question Suggestions for teachers
correctly. Some candidates wrote the meaning of Explain the meaning of the terms
accounting cycle, while some others explained the in the Schedule VI / Schedule III
meaning of an accounting year. There were candidates of the Companies Act. While
who were not clear about the difference between explaining current assets and
acquisition of assets and acquisition of assets for current liabilities, operating cycle
processing. needs to be discussed.
(ii) In this part, a number of candidates gave the difference The difference between partners
loan account and partners
between interest on loan and interest on capital.
capital account must be brought
Some candidates wrote incorrect items to be shown in out through explanation when
the Partners Loan Account and Partners Capital teaching their preparation.
Account. Clarify the meaning of adjusting
(iii) A number of candidates could answer this question and closing entries while teaching
satisfactorily. However, a few lost marks as they could Financial Statements in class
not distinguish correctly between adjusting and closing eleven itself.
entry. Some passed the entry through fluctuating Stress should be laid (both in
capital account. Partnership and Company
(iv) Majority of the candidates could not answer this Accounts) on passing the journal
question satisfactorily. They passed the entry as if the entries and not only on making
ledger accounts.
151
 expenses were met by the firm and not the firm
Explain the various conditions for
making the payment on behalf of the firm. payment of realization expenses.
(v) Most of the candidates could not answer this Give adequate practice to
question well. They either passed the entry through students on the entries to be
no separate set of books method wherein all passed regarding the treatment of
covertures record all transactions or the journal entry realization expenses.
where they debited Memorandum Joint Venture Explain to students that the
Account. Memorandum Joint Venture A/c
(vi) Several candidates could not answer this part is not a part of the double entry
correctly. system of accounting.
Give practice to students on the
entries to be passed in all the
three methods of Joint Venture
Accounts.
Explain the concept of the
amount of maximum discount to
be given to the shareholders on
the reissue of forfeited shares/
minimum price at which forfeited
shares could be reissued while
teaching the journal entries on
reissue.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 1
(i) An operating cycle is the time between the acquisition of assets for processing and their
realization in cash or cash equivalents.
When the normal operating cycle cannot be identified, it is assumed to have a duration of
12 months.
(ii) Partners Loan Account Partners Capital Account
(a) In the absence of an agreement, a (a) In the absence of an agreement, no
partner is entitled to receive interest interest is allowed on a partners capital
@ 6% per annum on his loan a/c account.
(b) Partners Loan Account will always (b) Partners Capital Account may reflect a
reflect a Credit Balance debit or a credit balance if the capitals are
based on the fluctuating capital method.
(c) Partners Loan is repaid before Partners Capital is repaid after Partners
Partners Capital. Loan.
(any one)

152
(iii) Adjusting entry:
Partners commission A/c Dr.
To Partners current A/c
Closing entry:
Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c Dr.
To Partners commission A/c
(iv) Partners capital a/c Dr
To Cash / Bank a/c
(v) Purchases / Stock/ Asset A/c Dr
To Joint Venture with . A/c

(vi) Equal to the amount unpaid / calls in arrears on the forfeited shares
OR
It should not be less than the amount unpaid / calls in arrears on the forfeited shares.
OR
The minimum price is equal to the amount called up less amount forfeited/ received.
OR
The amount of discount given on the re-issued shares should not exceed the amount forfeited /
received on these shares.

153
 PART II (48 Marks)
(Answer any four)
Question 2 [12]
From the given Trial Balance, prepare the Balance Sheet of Moonlight Limited as at
31st March 2014.
Trial Balance as at 31st March, 2014
Particulars Debit Credit

Share Capital (40,000 Equity Shares of 10 each) 4,00,000

Bills receivable 90,000
16% Mortgage Loan 1,70,000
Stores and Spares 1,15,000
Debtors 1,66,000
Plant and Machinery 2,90,000
Goodwill 40,000
Provision for Tax 26,000
General Reserve 1,30,000
Cash in Hand 18,000
Calls in Arrears 2,000
Marketable Securities 5,000
________ ________
Total 7,26,000 7,26,000

Comments of Examiners
Majority of the candidates could answer this question Suggestions for teachers
satisfactorily. A few candidates considered Stores and
Spares as fixed tangible assets and not as current assets -
inventories. Some candidates did not disclose Share
Capital in Notes to Accounts. A few candidates
presented the Balance Sheet in the Horizontal format.
Refer to the guidelines issued by the
Council regarding the preparation of
the Balance Sheet as per the
Revised Schedule VI / Schedule III
of the Companies Act and the type
of problems to be done in the class
from this topic.
Emphasis must be laid on the
heading of the Balance Sheet -
Name of the company and the date
of its preparation.
Emphasis should be laid on
preparation of Notes to Accounts.

154
MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
Balance Sheet of Moonlight Ltd.
As at 31st March 2014
Particulars Note Current Year
( )
I EQUITY AND LIABILITIES
1. Shareholders` Fund
(a) Share Capital 1 3,98,000
(b) Reserves & Surplus (General reserve) 2 1,30,000

2. Non Current Liabilities

(a) Long-Term Borrowings (16% mortgage loan) 3 1,70,000
3. Current Liabilities
(a) Short Term Provisions (provision for tax) 4 26,000

Total 7,24,000
II ASSETS
1. Non-Current Assets
(a) Fixed Assets
(i) Tangible Assets (Plant and Machinery) 5 2,90,000
(ii) Intangible Assets (Goodwill) 6 40,000

2. Current Assets
(a) Current Investments (Marketable Securities) 7 5,000
(b) Inventories (Stores and Spares) 8 1,15,000
(c) Trade Receivables 9 2,56,000
(d) Cash & Cash Equivalents (Cash in hand) 10 18,000
Total 7,24,000

Notes to Accounts
Particulars
1. Share Capital
Authorized Capital
..Equity Shares of Rs.10 each
Issued Capital ------
.. equity shares of Rs.10 each
Subscribed Capital
Subscribed and Not Fully Paid Up
40000 share of Rs.10 each 4,00,000
Less Calls in Arrears (2,000) 3,98,000

155
 2. Reserves & Surplus
General Reserve 1,30,000

3. Long-Term Borrowings
16% Mortgage Loan 1,70,000

4. Short Term Provisions

Provision for Tax 26,000

5. Tangible Assets
Building 2,90,000

6. Intangible Assets
Goodwill 40,000

7. Current Investment
Marketable securities 5,000
8. Inventories-
Stores & Spares 1,15,000

9. Trade Receivables
Debtors 1,66,000
Bills receivable 90,000
2,56,000
10. Cash & Cash Equivalents
Cash in Hand 18,000

Question 3 [12]
Amit and Sumit entered into a joint venture to construct a shopping mall. They agreed to share
the profits and losses in the ratio 5:3.
The contract price was agreed upon at 50,00,000, payable as 10,00,000 in cash and
40,00,000 in the form of shares of 10 each.
A Joint Bank Account was opened in which the co-venturers, Amit and Sumit, deposited their
contributions of 25,00,000 and 10,00,000, respectively.
Amit also contributed bricks worth 4,80,000.
Sumit too contributed iron worth 55,000 and timber worth 3,25,000.
They acquired cement for 11,00,000 and plant for 15,40,000, from the funds of the venture.
Construction expenses amounted to 8,25,000.
The contract was completed and the contract price was received.
Amit took over the plant at 5,25,000.

156
The co-venturers sold the shares in the open market at a profit of 10%.
You are required to prepare:
(i) Joint Bank Account.
(ii) Joint Venture Account.
(iii) Co- venturers Accounts.

Comments of Examiners
Majority of the candidates were able to attempt this
Suggestions for teachers
question satisfactorily. However, a few candidates did not
The contract sums, where part
show the profit made on the sale of shares in the joint
payment is done through debentures
venture accounts. Some candidates did take the amount of
/ shares must be explained to
profit but wrote incorrect particulars about it. Several
students through journal entries and
candidates did not transfer the balance to be paid to the
ledger accounts.
coventureres in the Joint Bank Account. A few candidates
For better understanding, students
wrote Bank A/c in the Joint Venture A/c instead of
must be taught this topic through
Joint Bank A/c. Those candidates who solved the
the preparation of Shares /
question through shares account got the correct solution.
Debentures A/c
While preparing ledger accounts,
the correct particulars must be
stressed upon.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 3
Joint Bank A/c
Particulars Amount Particulars Amount

To Amit 25,00,000 By Joint Venture A/c 15,40,000
To Sumit 10,00,000 By Joint Venture A/c 11,00,000
To Joint Venture A/c 10,00,000 By Joint Venture A/c 8,25,000
To Shares / JV A/c 44,00,000 By Amit 34,55,000
By Sumit 19,80,000
89,00,000 89,00,000

Joint Venture A/c

Particulars Amount Particulars Amount

To Amit (Bricks) 4,80,000 By Amit (Plant) 5,25,000
To Sumit (Iron) 55,000 By Joint Bank A/c 10,00,000

157
 To Sumit (Timber) 3,25,000 By Shares / JB A/c 40,00,000
To Joint Bank (cement) 11,00,000 By Shares (Gain) / JB 4,00,000
A/c A/c
To Joint Bank (exp) A/c 8,25,000
To Joint Bank (plant) A/c 15,40,000
To Profit
Amit 10,00,000
Sumit 6,00,000
59,25,000 59,25,000

Co- Venturers A/c

Particulars Amit Sumit Particulars Amit Sumit
To Joint 5,25,000 By Joint Bank 25,00,000 10,00,000
Venture A/c
To Joint Bank 34,55,000 19,80,000 By Joint Venture 4,80,000
By Joint Venture 55,000
By Joint Venture 3,25,000
By Joint Venture 10,00,000 6,00,000
39,80,000 19,80,000 39,80,000 19,80,000

Question 4 [12]
Gautam and Rahul are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:3.
Their Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2014, was as follows:
Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2014
Liabilities Amount Assets Amount

Sundry Creditors 5,000 Goodwill 10,000
Bills Payable 15,000 Furniture 25,000
General Reserve 10,000 Stock 15,000
Capital A/c: S. Debtors 12,000
Gautam 30,000 Less Provision for
Rahul 40,000 70,000 Doubtful Debts (2,000) 10,000
Cash in hand 40,000
1,00,000 1,00,000

158
Karim was to be taken as a partner with effect from 1st April, 2014, on the following
terms:
(a) The new profit sharing ratio of Gautam, Rahul and Karim would be 5:3:2.
(b) Provision for Doubtful Debts would be raised to 20% of debtors.
(c) Karim would bring in cash, his share of capital of 40,000 and his share of
goodwill valued at 10,000.
(d) Gautam would take over the furniture at 22,000.
You are required to:
(i) Pass journal entries at the time of Karims admission.
(ii) Prepare the Balance Sheet of the reconstituted firm.

Comments of Examiners
A number of candidates were unable to attempt this
question satisfactorily.
Common errors made by candidates were:
- The date of the Balance Sheet of the reconstituted
firm was either missing or was incorrect.
- Candidates could not calculate the gaining partners
compensation to the sacrificing partner regarding the
self-generated goodwill.
- A few candidates did not take into account the
reduction in the value of furniture. Hence they got an
incorrect loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities.
- Some candidates prepared ledger accounts instead of
passing journal entries.
Suggestions for teachers
Give adequate practice to students
in calculating the total goodwill of
the firm on the basis of the new
partners goodwill and from there
calculating the old partners (the
one who gains) compensation to the
partner who sacrifices.
Revaluation of assets and liabilities
must be done thoroughly especially
when a partner takes over an asset
or discharges a liability at a value
other that the book value.
Stress upon writing the correct
Balance Sheet date.
Give adequate practice to students
in passing journal entries.

159
MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
Working Notes: OR Gautam : Rahul= 2:3
NR: Gautam : Rahul: Karim = 5:3:2
SR Gautam= 2/5 5/10 = -1/10 (gain) Rahul= 3/5 3/10 = 3/10
Journal
Date Particulars L.F Amount Amount
Cash a/c Dr 50,000
To Karims Capital a/c 40,000
To Premium for goodwill a/c 10,000
(Being cash brought in for capital and
goodwill)

Gautams Capital a/c Dr 5,000

Premium for goodwill a/c Dr 10,000
To Rahuls Capital a/c 15,000
(Being Rahul compensated)

Revaluation a/c Dr 3,400

To Provision for doubtful debts 400
To Furniture a/c 3,000
(Being assets and liabilities revalued)

Gautams Capital a/c Dr 1,360

Rahuls Capital a/c Dr 2,040
To Revaluation a/c 3,400
(Being loss on revaluation incurred by
the old partners)

Gautams Capital a/c Dr 22,000

To furniture a/c 22,000
(Being furniture taken over by Gautam)

General Reserve a/c Dr 10,000

To Gautams Capital a/c 4,000
To Rahuls Capital a/c 6,000
(Being GR transferred to old partners
capital accounts)

Gautams Capital a/c Dr 4,000

Rahuls Capital a/c Dr 6,000
To Goodwill a/c 10,000
(Being purchased goodwill w /off from
the capital accounts of the old partners in
the Old Ratio)

160
 Balance Sheet of Gautam, Rahul and Karim
As at 1st April, 2014
Liabilities Amount Assets Amount

Capital Accounts Stock 15,000
Gautam 1,640 Debtors 12,000
Rahul 52,960 Less Prov (2,400) 9,600
Karim 40,000 94,600
Sundry Creditors 5,000 Cash 40,000
Bills Payable 15,000 + 50,000 90,000
1,14,600 1,14,600

Question 5 [12]
Ram, Krishna and Mohan are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:5:2.
On 31st March, 2014, their Balance Sheet was as under:
Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2014
Liabilities Amount Assets Amount

Creditors 39,200 Land and building 48,000
General Reserve 16,000 Plant 72,000
Capital A/c Inventory 34,000
Ram 76,800 Trade Marks 26,400
Krishna 69,600 Bills Receivables 39,200
Mohan 54,000 2,00,400 Cash in Hand 24,000
________ Advertisement Suspense 12,000
2,55,600 2,55,600
Krishna died on 30th September, 2014. An agreement was reached amongst Ram, Mohan and
Krishnas legal representative that:
(a) Goodwill to be valued at 2 years purchase of the average profits of the previous three
years, which were:
Year: 2011-12 2012-13 2013-14
Profit: 31,200 28,800 36,000
(b) Trade marks to be revalued at 19,200; plant at 80% of its book value and land building
at 57,600.
(c) Krishnas share of profit to the date of his death to be calculated on the basis of previous
years profit.
(d) Interest on capital to be provided @10% per annum.
(e) 60,080 to be paid in cash to Krishnas legal representative and balance to be transferred
to the legal representatives loan account.

161
You are required to prepare:
(i) Revaluation Account.
(ii) Krishnas Capital Account.
(iii) Krishnas Legal Representatives Account.

Comments of Examiners
Majority of the candidates were able to attempt this
Suggestions for teachers
question satisfactorily. However, some candidates could
Teach revaluation of assets and
not calculate the revaluation loss as they took the revised
liabilities thoroughly
value of the trade marks in the revaluation account
Stress should be laid upon the
instead of the change. Some candidates showed the
correct mode of closing a deceased
payment in the deceased partners capital account and
partners capital account.
not in his executors account. In the deceased partners
capital account, a few candidates, posted the interest on
capital amount directly through P/L Suspense A/c.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
Working Notes
1. Krishnas share of goodwill:
- Average profits of past three years = [31200+28800+36000] = 96000/3 = 32000
Value of firms goodwill = 2x32000= 64000-
th
- Krishna`s share of goodwill - 5/10 of 64000 = 32000
2. Krishnas share of Profit from the date of last balance sheet till his death
- Previous years profit i.e. for the year 2012-13 = 36000
- Firms profit from 1.4.13 to 30.09.2014 based on previous year = 36000x6/12= 18000
- Krishna share of profit = 18000x5/10= 9000
3. Krishnas Interest on capital for six months
69600x10/100x6/12= 3480

Revaluation Account
Particular Amount Particulars Amount
To Trade Marks 7,200 By Land & Building 9,600
To Plant 14,400 By Loss : Ram 3,600
Krishna 6,000-
Mohan 2,400 12,000
21,600 21,600

162
 Krishnas Capital Account
Particulars Amount Particulars Amount
To Advertisement Suspense 6,000 By Balance b/d 69,600
To Revaluation 6,000 By General Reserve 8,000
To Krishnas Legal By Rams Capital 19,200
Representative A/c 1,10,080 By Mohans Capital 12,800
By Profit & Loss
Suspense 9,000
By Interest on Capital
3,480
1,22,080 1,22,080

Krishnas Legal Representative Account

Particulars Amount Particulars Amount
To Cash/Bank 60,080 By Krishna`s Capital A/c 110080
To Krishna`s L/R Loan A/c / 50000
Balance c/d 110080 110080

Question 6 [12]
1. Pluto Ltd. issued 20,000 Equity shares of 10 each, payable as follows:
On Application 4
On Allotment 1
st
On 1 Call 3
On 2 and Final Call 2
nd

Applications were received for 30,000 shares and pro-rata allotment was made to all the
applicants.
Excess money received on application was utilized towards allotment and subsequent calls.
One shareholder holding 100 shares did not pay the final call and his shares were forfeited. Of
the forfeited shares, the company reissued 70 shares as fully paid up at 12 per share.
You are required to pass journal entries in the books of the company for the year ending
31st March, 2014.

163
Comments of Examiners
A number of candidates attempted this question
Suggestions for teachers
satisfactorily. However, a few candidates did not take
Adequate practice must be given to
into consideration that the company was doing prorate
students on problems involving
allotment and hence they took the entire surplus as
pro- rata allotment of shares
advance payment of allotment in advance instead of
Insist that any installment not paid
allotment and calls in advance. Several candidates did
by a shareholder has to be taken in
not open calls-in arrears a/c. Some candidates
calls in arrears account and any call
transferred securities premium received on reissue to
amount received in advance has to
capital reserve account. A few candidates did not write
be transferred to calls in advance
the narrations of the journal entries.
account and not to the concerned
call account.
Tell students that all journal entries
must be accompanied with
narrations.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
Date Particulars L.F Amount Amount
Bank a/c Dr 120000
To Share Application a/c 120000
(Being share application money
received)

Share Application a/c Dr 120000

To Share Capital a/c 80000
To Share Allotment a/c 20000
To Calls- in advance a/c 20000
(Being share application money
transferred to share capital, surplus to
share allotment and 1st call)

Share Allotment a/c Dr 20000

To Share Capital a/c 20000
(Being share allotment due)

Share 1st Call a/c Dr 60000

To Share Capital a/c 60000
(Being share 1st call due)

Bank a/c Dr 40000

Calls-in-advance a/c Dr 20000

164
 To Share 1st Call a/c 60000
(Being share 1st call received)

Share 2nd and Final call a/c Dr 40000

To Share Capital a/c 40000
(Being 2nd call due)

Bank a/c Dr 39800

Calls-in-arrears a/c Dr 200
To Share 2nd and Final Call a/c 40000
(Being share 2nd call received)

Share Capital a/c Dr 1000

To Share Forfeiture a/c 800
To Calls in-arrears a/c 200
(Being 100 shares forfeited)

Bank A/c Dr 840

To Share Capital A/c 700
To Securities Premium Reserve A/c 140
(Being 70 Shares reissued)
Share Forfeiture A/c Dr 560
To Capital Reserve A/c 560
(Being Net gain on forfeited gain
transferred to Capital Reserve)

Question 7
(a) The partnership agreement of Rohit, Ali and Sneh provides that: [10]
1. Profits will be shared by them in the ratio of 2:2:1.
2. Interest on capital to be allowed at rate of 6% per annum.
3. Interest on drawings to be charged at the rate of 3% per annum.
4. Ali to be given a salary of 500 per month.
5. Alis guarantee to the firm that the firm would earn a net profit of at least 80,000
per annum and any shortfall in these profits would be personally met by him.
The capitals of the partners on 1st April, 2013, were:
Rohit- 1,20,000; Ali- 1,00,000; Sneh- 1,00,000.
During the financial year 2013-14, all the three partners withdrew 1,000 each at the
beginning of every month.
The net profit of the firm for the year 2013-14 was 70,000.

165
 You are required to prepare for the year 2013-2014:
(i) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account.
(ii) Partners Capital Accounts.
(b) Veera and Sia are partners, sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. Profits for the [2]
year 2013-14, amounting to 18,000 was distributed wrongly in the ratio of 2:3.
You are required to rectify the error by passing an adjusting journal entry.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most of the candidates attempted this part of the
Suggestions for teachers
question satisfactorily. However,
Give adequate practice to students
- a few candidates did not take the partners in calculating interest on drawings.
guarantee to the firm into consideration and Deal with all the three forms of
hence got incorrect profits; guarantee.
- some candidates went wrong in the calculation of Even for a single journal entry,
partners interest on drawings. insist upon journal format and
(b) Many candidates answered this question narration of the entry.
satisfactorily. However, a few lost marks for not
preparing the journal format or writing the
narration. Several candidates passed the rectified entry through the partners current accounts and
not capital accounts.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c
Particulars Amount Particulars Amount

To Interest on capital By Net Profit b/d 70,000
Rohit 7,200 By Alis Capital 10,000
Ali 6,000 By interest on drawings
Sneh 6,000 19,200 Rohit 195
To Salary (Ali) 6,000 Ali 195
To Profit / Capital Sneh 195 585
Rohit 22,154
Ali 22,154
Sneh 11,077 55,385
80,585 80,585
Partners Capital A/c
Particulars Rohit Ali Sneh Particulars Rohit Ali Sneh
To Drawings 12,000 12,000 12,000 By Bal. b/d 1,20,000 1,00,000 1,00,000
To IOD 195 195 195 By IOC 7,200 6,000 6,000
To P/L App 10,000 By Salary 6,000
To Bal. c/d 1,37,159 1,11,959 1,04,882 By Profit 22,154 22,154 11,077
1,49,354 1,34,154 1,17,077 1,49,354 1,34,154 1,17,077

166
(b) Adjusting Journal entry
Date Particulars L.F Amount Amount
Sias capital A/c Dr 3,600
To Veeras Capital A/c 3,600
(Being error rectified)

Working Notes:
Table Showing adjustments
Partners Amount which has been credited Amount which Difference
should have been (Debit or Credit)
credited
Veera 7,200 10,800 3,600 (Credit)
Sia 10,800 7,200 3,600 (Debit)

Question 8 [12]
On 1st April, 2013, Sunshine Ltd. issued 10,00,000, 15% Debentures of 100 each at 8%
discount payable:
40 on application
The balance on allotment.
These debentures were to be redeemed at a premium of 5% after five years. All the debentures
were subscribed for by the public.
Interest on these debentures was to be paid half-yearly which was duly paid by the company.
You are required to:
(i) Pass journal entries in the first year of debenture issue (including entries for debenture
interest.)
(ii) Prepare the 15 % Debenture Account for the year ending 31st March, 2014.

Comments of Examiners
Majority of the candidates answered this question
satisfactorily. Some candidates attempted the question by
considering issue of ten lakh debentures instead of one lakh
debentures. Several candidates calculated the incorrect
amount of interest on debentures. A few candidates did not
pass the entry to close the interest on debentures account.
Suggestion for teachers
Give adequate practice to students
on calculating interest on debentures
and lay stress on the fact that all
expenses accounts have to be closed
at the end of the year.

167
MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
Date Particulars L.F Amount Amount
1/3 Bank a/c Dr 4,00,000
To Debenture Application a/c 4,00,000
(Being deb app money received)

Deb App a/c Dr 4,00,000

To 15% Debenture a/c 4,00,000
(Being deb app money tsfd to deb a/c)

Deb Allot a/c Dr 5,20,000

Loss on issue of Deb a/c Dr 1,30,000
To 15% Debentures a/c 6,00,000
To Premium on Redemption of Deb a/c 50,000
( Being allot money due)
Bank a/c Dr 5,20,000
To Debenture allotment a/c 5,20,000
(Being debenture allot received)
30/9 Interest on Debentures a/c Dr 75,000
To Debenture holders a/c 75,000
Being int on deb due)

Debenture holders a/c Dr 75,000

To Bank a/c 75,000
(Being interest on debentures paid)

31/3 Interest on Debentures a/c Dr 75,000

To Debenture holders a/c 75,000
Being int on deb due)

Debenture holders a/c Dr 75,000

To Bank a/c 75,000
(Being interest on debentures paid)

31/3 Statement of P/L Dr 2,80,000

To interest on Debentures 1,50,000
To Loss on Issue of Debentures 1,30,000
(Being Loss on issue of Debe and interest
on deb written off from St of P/L)
Debentures A/c
Particulars Amount Particulars Amount

To Balance c/d 10,00,000 By Debenture app a/c 4,00,000
By Debenture allot a/c 5,20,000
By Loss on Issue of Deb a/c 80,000
10,00,000 10,00,000

168
 SECTION B
Answer any two questions

Question 9 [10]
You are required to prepare a Cash-Flow Statement (as per AS-3) for the year
2013-14 from the following Balance Sheets.
Balance Sheets of A.B.C. Ltd.
As at 31st March, 2014 and 31st March, 2013
Particulars Note 31.03.2014 31.03.2013
No.
I EQUITY AND LIABILITIES
1. Shareholders Funds
(a) Share Capital (Equity Share Capital) 6,00,000 4,00,000
(b) Reserves and Surplus (Statement of P/L) 2,00,000 1,00,000
2. Non-Current Liabilities
(a) Long Term Borrowing 1,00,000 2,00,000
3. Current Liabilities
(a) Short term borrowings (Bank loan) -- 10,000
(b) Trade Payables (Creditors) 45,000 60,000
(c) Short Term Provisions 1. 1,30,000 1,20,000
TOTAL 10,75,000 8,90,000
II ASSETS
1. Non-Current Assets
(a) Fixed Assets
(i) Tangible ( Building) 6,00,000 6,00,000
(ii) Intangible (Patents) 45,000 50,000
(b) Non-Current Investments 75,000 --
2. Current Assets
(b) Inventories 15,000 10,000
(c) Trade Receivables (Debtors) 2,55,000 2,00,000
(d) Cash and Cash Equivalent (Cash) 85,000 30,000
TOTAL 10,75,000 8,90,000

169
Notes to Accounts:
Particulars 31.03.2014 31.03.2013

1 Short term provisions
Proposed dividend 60,000 80,000
Provision for taxation 70,000 40,000

Additional Information:
During the year 2013-14:
(i) Building costing 75,000 was purchased.
(ii) An old building, the book value of which was 63,000, was sold at a loss of 5,000.
(iii) Tax provided during the year was 80,000.

Comments of Examiners
While a number of candidates could answer this
Suggestions for teachers
question satisfactorily, a few lost marks for considering
Refer to the scope of the syllabus
bank loan as an item in working capital changes whereas
for the treatment of the items while
it should have been considered as a financing activity.
preparing a Cash Flow Statement.
Some candidates were not able to calculate the
Give adequate practice to students
depreciation charged on fixed assets. A few could not
to find out depreciation charged on
calculate the tax paid during the year.
fixed assets through the preparation
of relevant accounts.
Adequate practice should also be
given to students to prepare
Provision for Tax A/c. The students
need to be taught to write the year
for which the Cash Flow Statement
is prepared.

170
MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
Working Note: 1
Building A/c
Particulars Amount Particulars Amount

To Balance b/d 6,00,000 By depreciation 12,000
To Cash (purchase) 75,000 By Cash a/c (sale) 58,000
By loss on sale a/c 5,000
By Balance c/d 6,00,000
6,75,000 6,75,000

Working Note: 2
Provision for Tax A/c
Particulars Amount Particulars Amount

To Cash a/c 50,000 By Balance b/d 40,000
To Balance c/d 70,000 By St of P/L 80,000
1,20,000 1,20,000

Working Note :3
St of P/L 1,00,000

Proposed dividend 60,000

Provision for Tax 80,000
Net Profit before Tax 2,40,000

Cash Flow Statement for the year ending 31st March, 2014
Particulars
I. Cash From Operating Activities
NP before Tax (WN 3) 2,40,000
Add non op / non cash exp

171
Depreciation on Building 12,000
Loss on sale of Building 5,000
Patents w/off 5,000
Net Op Profit before WC changes 2,62,000
Less Trade Payables (15,000)
Less Inventories (5,000)
Less Trade Receivables (55,000) (75,000)
Cash from Operating Activities before Tax paid 1,87,000
Less Tax paid (50,000)
Cash Flow from Operating Activities 1,37,000
II. Cash From Investing Activities
Purchase of Building (75,000)
Sale of Building 58,000
Purchase of Non- Current Investment (75,000)
Cash used in Investing Activities (92,000)
III. Cash From Financing Activities
Issue of Share Capital 2,00,000
Repayment of long term borrowing (1,00,000)
Dividend paid (80,000)
Bank Loan repaid (10,000)
Cash Flow from Financing Activities 10,000
Net increase in Cash as per I, II and III 55,000
Add Op Cash and Cash Equivalents 30,000
Cash
Closing Cash and Cash Equivalents
Cash 85,000 85,000
85,000 85,000

172
Question 10
(a) Give any two objectives of preparing Common Size Statements. [2]

(b) From the following data, prepare a Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss of [4]
Simon Ltd.
Particulars 31.3.2014 31.3.2013

Revenue from Operations 15,00,000 12,00,000
Other Income 30,000 20,000
Cost of Materials consumed 7,00,000 5,50,000

(c) From the following data, prepare Common Size Balance Sheet of Mint Ltd. [4]
Particulars 31.3.2014 31.3.2013

Share Capital 1,50,000 1,20,000
Reserves and Surplus 30,000 30,000
Trade Payables 20,000 40,000
Fixed Tangible Assets 2,00,000 1,90,000

Comments of Examiners
(a) A number of candidates were unable to answer this
Suggestions for teachers
question.
Explain to students the reason
(b) While many candidates could attempt this question
behind the preparation of Common
satisfactorily, some lost marks for not putting the
size statements.
periods for which the statements were being
Insist upon the complete heading
compared.
along with the date / period of any
(c) Most of the candidates were able to answer this
account / statement to be prepared
question. However, some candidates did not put the
by students.
dates for which the statements were being prepared.

173
MARKING SCHEME
Question 10
(a) To explain changes in various items in relation to revenue from operations, total assets and
total liabilities.
To establish a relationship between various items in the income statement or balance sheet
with revenue from operations and total assets / liabilities.
To provide a common base for comparison.
To compare companies of different sizes in the same industry.
To point out important changes in the components from one year to the next.
(any two)
(b) Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss of Simon Ltd.
For the years ending 31st March 2014 and 31st March 2013
Particulars 31.03.2014 31.03.2013 Absolute Percentage change
change
Revenue from operations 15,00,000 12,00,000 3,00,000 25
Other income 30,000 20,000 10,000 50
Total revenue 15,30,000 12,20,000 3,10,000 2541
Cost of materials consumed 7.00,000 5,50,000 1,50,000 2727
Total expenses 7,00,000 5,50,000 1,50,000 2727
Profit before tax 8,30,000 6,70,000 1,60,000 2388

(c) Common size Balance Sheet of Mint Ltd.

as at 31st March 2014 and 31st March 2013
Particulars Years % of Balance sheet total
31.03.2014 31.03.2013 31.03.2014 31.03.2013
I. Equity and Liabilities
1. Shareholders funds
(a) Share capital 1,50,000 1,20,000 75 6316
(b) Reserves and surplus 30,000 30,000 15 1579
2. Current liabilities
(a) Trade payables 20,000 40,000 10 2105
Total Liabilities 2,00,000 1,90,000 100 100
II. Assets
1. Non-current assets
(a) Fixed Assets
(i) Tangible Asset 2,00,000 1,90,000 100 100
Total Assets 2,00,000 1,90,000 100 100

174
Question 11
(a) From the following information calculate (up to two decimal places) : [6]

(i) Gross Profit Ratio

(ii) Inventory Turnover Ratio
(iii) Net Profit Ratio

Cash Revenue from Operations 70,000

Net Purchases 2,97,000
Credit Revenue from Operations 2,80,000
Closing Inventory 80,000
Opening Inventory 60,000
Carriage inward 3,000
Selling expenses 5,000
Administrative expenses 40,000
Loss on sale of fixed asset 10,000
Dividend received 7,000
(b) The Current Ratio of a company is 2:1. State whether the following will increase, reduce or [2]
not change the ratio:
(i) Bills Payable 5,000 discharged.
(ii) Purchase of inventory 20,000 on credit.

(c) Give the formulae for calculating: [2]

(i) Earning per share
(ii) Trade Payables Turnover Ratio

175
Comments of Examiners
(a) Most of the candidates could calculate Inventory
Suggestions for teachers
Turnover Ratio satisfactorily. For Gross Profit
Refer to the scope of the syllabus
Ratio, a few candidates used the term Net Sales
for correct terminology to be used
instead of Revenue from operations, as given in the
in the formulae for calculating
question. Many candidates were unable to calculate
ratios. Adequate practice must be
the correct net profit. They did not take dividend
given for calculating profit made by
received as an income.
the business from information given
(b) A number of candidates could not answer this
in the form of an extract.
question satisfactorily. They did not seem to be
Explain ratios in detail. The scope
familiar with the concept.
of the syllabus, sample papers and
(c) While giving the formula for Earning per share, a
guidelines must be referred to for
few candidates took number of shares into
specimen questions which could be
consideration instead of number of equity shares.
asked from the students in the
For Trade Payables turnover ratio, instead of
examination.
Average Trade Payables, a few candidates
expanded Average Trade Payables and while
showing its components, they used the term Average Creditors instead of Average Trade
Creditors.
MARKING SCHEME
Question 11
(a) Gross Profit
(i) Gross Profit Ratio: x100
Revenue from Operations
Gross profit = [70,000 + 2,80,000] + 80,000 [60,000 + 2,97,000+3,000]
= 4,30,000 3,60,000 = 70,000
70,000
GP Ratio = x100
3,50,000

= 20 %

(ii ) Inventory Turnover Ratio =

Cost of Revenue from Operation
Average Inventory
2,80,000
=
70,000
= 4 times

(iii) Net Profit Ratio:

Net Profit
x100
Revenue from Operations

176
 22,000
= 100
3,50,000
= 629%
(b) (i) Increase
(ii) Reduce
(c) (i) Earning per share:
Net Profit after Tax and Preference Dividend
No. of Equity Shares

(ii) Trade Payables Turnover Ratio:

Net Credit Purchases
Average Trade Payables

SECTION C
Answer any two questions
Question 12
(a) Give the address of the cell at 25th row and the 8th column. [2]
(b) What do you mean by range of cells? How is a range specified? [2]
(c) List the types of entries which are allowed in a worksheet? [2]
(d) You enter 45+15 in a cell. The worksheet does not display the sum 60 in the cell, instead, it [2]
shows 45+15. What is the reason for this?
(e) Write the formula to calculate the interest amount for a principal amount which is stored in [2]
cell B5, on the basis of the following specifications:
The time is stored in cell C5
if principal amount 50000 rate of interest 6%
If principal amount < 50000 rate of interest 5%.

177
Comments of Examiners
Few candidates attempted this question. Many of those
Suggestion for teachers
who attempted this question could not answer it
Give more practice to students in
correctly.
attempting similar type of questions.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 12
(a) H25
(b) Range of cells is a group of one or more contiguous/ adjacent cells (cells sharing common
border) that forms a rectangular area in shape.
It is specified by giving the addresses of the first cell and the last cell.
(c) Three types of entries allowed in a worksheet are
(i) Label- The text entry
(ii) Value- The numbers
(iii) Formulas
(d) Because in MS Excel, the formula starts with equal to sign (=), otherwise the entry will be
treated as a text.
(e) = B5 * C5* IF (B5>=50000,6%,5%)
Or
=IF (B5>=50000,6%,5%) * B5 * C5
OR
= B5 * C5* (IF (B5>=50000,6%,5%))
Or
= (IF (B5>=50000,6%,5%)) * B5 * C5 Any one

178
Question 13
The spread sheet below shows the sales of Jupiter Ltd. made by four salesmen in the four quarters
of the financial year 2013-14:

A B C D E F G H
1 Sales in

Salesman Commission Commission

2 Qtr 1 Qtr 2 Qtr 3 Qtr 4 Total Sales
@10% of sales @12% of sales
3 S1 3000 3000 4500 5500
4 S2 4000 3500 4200 4300
5 S3 4000 4000 4500 4500
6 S4 6000 6000 ? 6,000
7 Total

Answer questions (a) to (d) based on the above spreadsheet:

(a) It is the policy of the company to sell its goods at a profit of 20% on its sales.
(i) Write the formula to calculate the cost of the goods sold by Salesman S1 in Qtr 4. [2]
(ii) Salesman S4 sold goods costing 4,800 in Qtr 3. Calculate the price at which he [2]
sold the goods.
(b) Write the formula to calculate the total sales made by the company in cell F7. [2]
(c) The company gives a commission of 10% to a salesman on his total sales. Write the [2]
formula to calculate the commission earned by Salesman S3 in cell G5.
(d) Write an expression to show the effect on the profits if the rate of commission was [2]
increased from 10% to 12% of the sales.

Comments of Examiners
Few candidates attempted this question. Many of those
Suggestion for teachers
who attempted this question could not answer it
Give more practice to students in
correctly
attempting similar type of questions.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 13
(a) (i) = E3*80%
Or
= E3*.08
Or
=(E3-E3*20%)
Or
= (E3-E3*0.2) Any one

179
 (ii) = 4,800 *125%
Or
= 4,800 *1.25
Or
= 4,800 + 4800*25%
Or
= 4,800 + 4,800 *0.25
Or
Rs 6,000 Any one

(b) = F3+ F4 + F5 +F6

Or
=Sum (F3:F6) Any one
(c) = Sum (B5:E5) *10%
Or
= (B5 + C5 + D5 + E5) * 10%
OR
= (B5 + C5 + D5 + E5) * 0.10
Or
- Calculate F5 by using the formula =Sum(B5:E5) or =B5+C5+D5+E5
Then use the formula = F5 *10% Or F5 *0.10
Any one
(d) = (G7-H7)
Or
= F7*0.10 F7 *0.12
Or
= F7*10% F7 *12%
Any one

Question 14
(a) What is the use of SQL in database management system? [2]
(b) Define the term field as used in DBMS. [2]
(c) Arrange the following in hierarchy to create a DBMS: [2]
FIELD, DATA, FILE, RECORD
(d) How are the following SQL functions useful in RDBMS: [2]
(i) MAX
(ii) SQRT
(e) What is a table? [2]

180
Comments of Examiners
Few candidates attempted this question. Many of those
Suggestion for teachers
who attempted this question could not answer it
Give more practice to students in
correctly
attempting similar type of questions.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 14
(a) SQL is a Structured Query Language, which is a computer language for sorting, manipulating
and retrieving data stored in a relational database. / Easy access to all records.
(b) Every table is broken up into smaller entities called fields. The fields in the CUSTOMERS table
consists of ID, NAME, AGE, ADDRESS and SALARY.
A field is a column in a table that is designed to maintain specific information about every record
in a table./ Characteristics of an entity in a table.
(c) FILE, RECORD, FIELD, DATA
(d) (i) The SQL MAX aggregate function allows the operator to select the highest (maximum) value
in a certain column.
(ii) SQL SQRT is used to generate a square root of a given number.
(e) Table:
The data in RDBMS is stored in database objects called tables. The table is a collection of
related data entries and it consists of column and rows. Matrix of rows and columns/ fields. A
table is the most common and simplest form of data storage in a relational database.

GENERAL COMMENTS:
(a) Topics found difficult by candidates in the Question Paper:
- Passing of correct Journal entries in Part I of Section A.
- Calculation of interest on drawings.
- Ratio Analysis- Formulae and calculations.
- Cash Flow Statement- Treatment of Bank loan.
- Issue of shares- pro rata allotment.
- Balance Sheet of Company- Classification of Marketable Securities.
- Section C- Computerized Accounting.
(b) Concepts in which candidates got confused:
- Closing entry, adjusting entry for commission to partner
- Treatment of surplus funds received with the application money while issuing shares.
- Calculation of Net Profit to compute Net Profit Ratio.

181
(c) Suggestions for candidates:
- Do not neglect the Class XI syllabus.
- Understanding the concepts is very important. This will help in answering the theory questions.
- Study the entire syllabus thoroughly.
- Practice sums regularly. Always practice sums with proper formats drawn.
- Do not write short forms in the ratios formulae.
- Solve past years question papers.

182