Form Number : Paper Code : 0999D M310315030

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2016
Test Type : ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (MAJOR) Test Pattern : AIIMS
TEST DATE : 24 - 04 - 2016
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

Important Instructions /
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.


2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each
incorrect answer.

1

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Correction
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 ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/Pre-Medical /AIIMS/24-04-2016
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

1. is perpendicular to vector
If vector (a 2b) 1. (a 2b)

(5a 4b)
, then find the angle between a and b
(5a 4b) a b
3 3 3 3
(1) cos1
2 (2) cos1 2 (1) cos1 2 (2) cos1
2
1 1 1 1

(3) cos1
2 (4) cos1 2 (3) cos1 2 (4) cos1 2

2. A body of mass 1 kg moving with velocity 1 m/s 2. 1 kg

1 m/s
makes an elastic one dimensional collision with
an identical stationary body. They are in contact
1 s
for brief time 1 sec. Their force of interaction
increases from zero to F0 linearly in time 0.5 s

0.5 s
and decreases linearly to zero in further time F0
0.5 s
0.5 sec as shown in figure. Find the magnitude
F 0
of force F0 in newton.

F F

F0 F0

t t
o 0.5s 1s o 0.5s 1s
(1) 1N (2) 2N (1) 1N (2) 2N
(3) 4N (4) 0.5 N (3) 4N (4) 0.5 N
3. When a guitar string is sounded with a 440 Hz 3.
440 Hz
tuning fork a beat frequency of 5 Hz is heard, if 5 Hz

the experiment is repeated with a tuning fork of
437 Hz
437 Hz. the beat frequency is 8 Hz. The string 8 Hz

frequency (Hz) is :-
(Hz)
(1) 445 (2) 435 (3) 429 (4) 448 (1) 445 (2) 435 (3) 429 (4) 448
4. 10 mA current can pass through a galvanometer 4. 25
10 mA
of resistance 25. What resistance in series should
be connected through it, so that it is converted into 100
a voltmeter of 100 volt ?
?
(1) 0.955 (2) 99.75 (1) 0.955 (2) 99.75
(3) 975 (4) 9975 (3) 975 (4) 9975
5. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) were 5. (E), (V) (T)
chosen as fundamental physical quantities for
measurement, then the dimensional formula for

mass will be
(1) [E]1 [V]2 [T]1 (2) [E]2 [V]2 [T]0 (1) [E]1 [V]2 [T]1 (2) [E]2 [V]2 [T]0
1 2 0
(3) [E] [V] [T] (4) [E]1 [V]2 [T]1 (3) [E]1 [V]2 [T]0 (4) [E]1 [V]2 [T]1

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6. A solid sphere rolling on a surface has total kinetic 6.
:-
energy given by :-
1 7
1 2 7 2
(1) mv 2 (2) mv
2

(1) mv (2) mv 2 5
2 5
7 3
7
mv 2
3
mv 2 (3) mv 2 (4) mv 2
(3) (4) 10 10
10 10
7. The vibrations of four air columns are represented 7.
in the figure. The ratio of frequencies np:nq:nr:ns is :- np:nq:nr:ns :-

P q P q

r s r s

(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4 (2) 1:2:4:3 (1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3

(3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1 (4) 6:2:3:4 (3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1 (4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4
8. A magnet of magnetic dipole moment 8.
10(i j k)

10(i j k)
is placed in a magnetic field
0.6i 0.4 j 0.5k
0.6i 0.4 j 0.5k . Force acting on the dipole in :- :-
(1) i j 2k (1) i j 2k
(2) i j 2k (2) i j 2k
(3) Zero (3) Zero
(4) None of these (4) None of these
9. Rain drops are falling with velocity 2 i - 4j m/s. 9.
2i - 4j m/s
What should be the velocity of man so rain drops
hit him with speed 5m/s. 5 m/s
(1) -i (2) 5i (1) -i (2) 5i
(3) 2i (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) 2i (4)
(1) (2)
10. A uniform disc of mass m and radius R is rolling 10. m
R
down a rough inclined plane which makes an
30
angle 30 with the horizontal. If the coefficients

of static and kinetic friction are each equal to
and the only forces, acting are gravitational and

frictional, then the mgnitude of the frictional force
acting on the disc is :- :-
(1) (mg/3) upwards (1) (mg/3)
(2) (mg/3) downwards (2) (mg/3)
(3) (mg/6) upwards (3) (mg/6)
(4) (mg/6) downwards
(4) (mg/6)

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11. An electron projected with velocity v v 0 x in the 11.
E E 0 y
v v 0 x

electric field E E 0 y . Trace the path followed by
the electron :-
:-
(1) Parabola (1)
(2) Circle (2)
(3) Straight line in + y direction (3) + y
(4) Straight line in y direction (4) y
12. A point object is kept between a plane mirror and 12.
a concave mirror facing each other. The distance
between the mirrors is 22.5 cm. Plane mirror is
placed perpendicular to principal axis of concave

22.5
mirror. The radius of curvature of the concave
mirror is 20 cm. What should be the distance of 20
the object from the concave mirror so that after
two successive reflections the final image is
formed on the object itself ? (
)
(Consider first reflection from concave mirror)
(1) 5 cm (2) 15 cm
(1) 5 cm (2) 15 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 7.5 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 7.5 cm
13. A ball is thrown upwards. Its height varies with 13.
time as shown in figure. If the acceleration due to

gravity is 7.5 m/s2, then the height h is
7.5 m/s2,
h

Height (m) Height (m)

h h

1 2 5 6 time (s) 1 2 5 6 time (s)

(1) 10 m (2) 15 m (1) 10 m (2) 15 m
(3) 20 m (4) 25 m (3) 20 m (4) 25 m
14. A uniform pressure P is exerted on all sides of 14.
P
a solid cube.It is heated through t C in order t C

to bring its volume back to the value it has before
:-
the application of pressure. Then :- ( =
=
( = Bulk Modulus, = Coefficient of volumetric
)
expansion)
P B
(1) t = (2) t =
P B B P
(1) t = (2) t =
B P
B
(3) t = BP (4) t =
B P
(3) t = BP (4) t =
P

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15. The electric potential in a region is given by the 15.
V(x) = 4 + 5x2
relation V(x) = 4 + 5x2. If a dipole is placed at
(1,0)

position (1,0) with dipole moment p pointing p
Y-
along positive Y-direction, then
(1) Net force on the dipole is zero. (1)
(2) Net torque on the dipole is zero (2)
(3) Net torque on the dipole is not zero and it is (3)
in clockwise direction
(4) None of these (4)
16. A meniscus lens is made of a material of refractive 16.
2
index 2. Both its surfaces have radii of curvature
R
R. It has two different media of refractive indices 1 3
1 and 3 respectively, on its two sides (shown
in the figure). Calculate its focal length for 1 < 2 < 3

1 < 2 < 3, when light is incident on it as shown :-

3R 2R 3R 2R
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 1 3 2
3 1 3 2

1R
1R (3) (4)
(3) (4)None of these 3 1
3 1

17. A block of mass 15kg is resting on a rough 17. 15kg

inclined plane as shown in figure. The block is

tied up by a horizontal string which has a tension
of 50N. Calculate the coefficient of friction 50N

between the block and inclined plane.

M M

45 45

1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 2 2 3 2 2

Key

Filling

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18. If radius of two soap bubbles are R1 and R2 18. R1
R2
respectively combined in vacuum in isothermal

conditions to form a single soap bubble then
radius of combined soap bubble is:
R 1R 2 R 1R 2
(1) R + R (2) 2
R +R 2 (1) R + R (2) R 12 + R 22
1 2 1 2
1 2

R1 + R 2 R1 R 2 R1 + R 2 R1 R 2
(3) (4) R - R (3) (4) R - R
2 1 2 2 1 2

19. Four identical cells each of e.m.f. 2V and joined 19.

in parallel providing supply of current to external 2V

circuit consisting of two 15 resistors joined in 15
parallel. The terminal voltage of the equivalent
cell as read by an ideal voltmeter is 1.6V calculate 1.6
the internal resistance of each cell.
(1) 5 (2) 5.8 (1) 5 (2) 5.8
(3) 6 (4) 7.5 (3) 6 (4) 7.5
20. In Youngs double slit experiment using 20.
monochromatic light the fringe pattern shifts by a 1.964

certain distance on the screen when a mica sheet
microns)
1.6
of refractive index 1.6 and thickness 1.964 microns
is introduced in the path of one of the interfering

waves. The mica sheet is then removed and the
distance between the plane of slits and the screen
is doubled. It is found that the distance between
successive maxima (or minima) now is the same
as the observed fringe shift upon the introduction
of the mica sheet. The wavelength of the light will

be :-
(1) 3000 (2) 4850
(1) 3000 (2) 4850
(3) 5892 (4) None of these (3) 5892 (4)
21. Gravitational potential difference between a point 21.
10 m
on surface of planet and another point 10 m above
is 4 J/kg. Considering gravitational field to be
4 J/kg
2 kg
uniform, how much work is done in moving a
mass of 2 kg from the surface to a point 5m above

5m
the surface?
(1) 4 J (2) 5 J (1) 4 J (2) 5 J
(3) 6 J (4) 7 J (3) 6 J (4) 7 J
22. A metallic sphere with an internal cavity weighs 22.
(cavity)
40 g-wt in air and 20 g-wt in water.If the density 40

of the material with cavity be 8 g per cm3, then 20
the volume of cavity is :-
8
3
:-
(1) zero (2) 15 cm3
(3) 5 cm3 (4) 20 cm3 (1) (2) 15 cm3
(3) 5 cm3 (4) 20 cm3

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23. If no current flows through the galvanometer 23.
then find the value of unknown resistance X.
X
Assume that resistance per unit length of wire AB
0.02
/
AB is 0.02 /cm.
X C R=2
X C R=2
G
G
60 cm 40cm
60 cm 40cm A B
A B J
J
4V
4V

(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1
24. Two identical metal plates show photoelectric 24.
A B
effect by a light of wavelength A falling on plate A
B
(A = 2B)
A and B on plate B (A = 2B). The maximum
kinetic energy is :-

:-
(1) 2KA = KB (1) 2KA = KB
(2) KA < KB/2 (2) KA < KB/2
(3) KA = 2KB (3) KA = 2KB
(4) KA > KB/2 (4) KA > KB/2
25. A particle moves in one dimensional field with 25.
total mechanical energy E. If potential energy of
particle is U(x), then
EU(x)
(1) Particle has zero speed where U(x) = 0 (1) U(x) = 0
(2)Particle has zero acceleration where (2) U(x) = E
U(x) = E
dU x dU x
(3) Particle has zero velocity where =0 (3) = 0
dx dx
(4) Particle has zero acceleration where
dU x
dU x (4) = 0
=0 dx
dx
26. A square hole of side length l is made at a depth 26.
y
of y and a circular hole is made at a depth of
l
4y
4 y from the surface of water tank, kept on a
horizontal surface. If equal amount of water
comes out of the vessel through the holes per
second, then the radius of circular hole is equal
(r, l<< y) :-
to : (r, l<< y) :-
l l l l
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2

l l l l
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 2

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27. An infinite wire having charge density passes 27.
through one of the edges of a cube having edge
a
length a. Find the flux passed through the cube:-

a a a a
(1) (2) 2 (1) (2) 2
0 0 0 0

a a a a
(3) 4 (4) 8 (3) 4 (4) 8
0 0 0 0

28. Figure represents a graph of maximum kinetic 28.

energy (K) of photoelectrons (in eV) and (eV
)
frequency () for a metal used as cathode in
photoelectric experiment. The work function of

()
metal is :-
:-
K K
3 3
2 2
1 1
0 0
1
1
2 2
3 3
(1) 1 eV (2) 1.5eV (1) 1 eV (2) 1.5eV
(3) 2 eV (4) 3 eV (3) 2 eV (4) 3 eV
29. A block attached to a spring, pulled by a constant 29.
horizontal force, is kept on a smooth surface as
shown in the figure. Initially, the spring is in the
natural state. Then the maximum positive work
F
that the applied force F can do is :
[Given that spring does not break] [
]

k F k F

2 2 2 2
(1) F (2) 2F (1) F (2) 2F
k k k k

2 2
(3) (4) F (3) (4) F
2k 2k

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30. A uniform metal rod is used as a bar pendulum. 30.
If the room temperature rises by 10C and the 10C

coefficient of linear expansion of the metal of the
rod is 2106 perC, the period of the pendulum 2106 /C
will have percentage increase of :-
:-
(1) 2103 (1) 2103
(2) 1103 (2) 1103
(3) 2103 (3) 2103
(4) 1103 (4) 1103
31. Capacitance C 1 = 2C 2 = 2C 3 and potential 31.
C1 = 2C2 = 2C3
C1, C2 C3
difference across C1, C2 & C3 are V1, V2 & V3
V1, V2 V3 :-
respectively then :-
C2
C2 C1
C1
C3
C3 +
+
V
V
(1) V1 = V2 = V3
(1) V1 = V2 = V3
(2) V1 = 2V2 = 2V3
(2) V1 = 2V2 = 2V3
(3) 2V1 = V2 = V3 (3) 2V1 = V2 = V3
(4) 2V1 = 2V2 = V3 (4) 2V1 = 2V2 = V3
32. The activity of a sample is 64 105 Ci. Its 32.
64 105
half-life is 3 days. The activity will become 5 106 Ci 3
5 106
after :-
:-
(1) 12 days (2) 7 days (1) 12 (2) 7
(3) 18 days (4) 21 days (3) 18 (4) 21
33. Starting from rest, a particle rotates in a circle of 33.
R = 2
radius R = 2 m with an angular acceleration

=

/2
4
= rad/sec2. Calculate the magnitude of average
4

velocity of the particle over the time it rotates quarter
circle.
1 1
(1) 2 m/s (2) m/s (1) 2 m/s (2) m/s
2 2
(3) 2 m/s (4) 1 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) 1 m/s
34. Two spheres A and B have diameters in the ratio 34.
A
B
1:2,
1:2, densities in the ratio 2:1 and specific heats 2:1
1:3
in the ratio 1:3; find the ratio of their thermal

:-
capacities :-
(1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 12
(1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 12
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

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35. Which of the following statement is correct regarding 35.
AC
:-
the AC circuit shown in the adjacent figure :- XL=4 XC=4
XL=4 XC=4

~
~ V=100sint
V=100sint (1)
5 2 A
(1) The rms value of the current through the circuit
(2)
is irms = 5 2 A
(2) The phase difference between source emf and 1
= cos1
1 3
current is = cos1
3
(3) Average power dissipated in the circuit is 500 W (3)
500 W
(4) None of the above (4)
36. In a PNP transistor working as a common-base 36. PNP
amplifier, current gain is 0.96 and emitter current 0.96

is 7.2 mA. The base current is :-
7.2 mA:-
(1) 0.4 mA (2) 0.2 mA (1) 0.4 mA (2) 0.2 mA
(3) 0.29 mA (4) 0.35 mA (3) 0.29 mA (4) 0.35 mA
37. A bomb of mass 3.0 kg explodes in air into two 37. 3.0
2.0 1.0

pieces of masses 2.0 kg and 1.0 kg. The smaller
80 / .
mass goes at a speed of 80 m/s. The total energy

imparted to the two fragments is -
(1) 1.07 kJ (2) 2.14 kJ (3) 2.4 kJ (4) 4.8 kJ (1) 1.07 kJ (2) 2.14 kJ (3) 2.4 kJ (4) 4.8 kJ
38. A body cools in 7 min from 60C to 40C.What 38. 60C 40C 7
will be its temperature after the next 7 min ? 7
?
(The temperature of the surroundings is 10C):- (
10C
):-
(1) 50C (2) 25C (3) 28C (4) 30C (1) 50C (2) 25C (3) 28C
(4) 30C
39. In the circuit of figure the bulb will become 39.
:-
suddenly bright if :- L B
L B

B
B +
+
(1)
(1) contact is made or broken
(2) contact is made
(2)
(3) contact is broken (3)
(4) would not become bright at all (4)
40. In a common emitter transistor circuit, the base 40.
current is 40 A, then VBE is : 40 A
VBE
:

2k 2k
245k C 245k C
VCC=10V VCC=10V
B B
E E

(1) 2 V (2) 0.2 V (3) 0.8 V (4) Zero (1) 2 V (2) 0.2 V (3) 0.8 V (4) Zero
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41. Which of the following statements are correct ? 41.
(1) Tl3+ salts are reducing agents due to inert pair (1) Tl3+
effect
(2) Ga+ salts are reducing agents (2) Ga+
(3) Pb4+ salts are better reducing agents (3) Pb4+
(4) All of these (4)
42. To prepare a buffer of pH = 8.26, amount of 42. pH = 8.26 ,
(NH4)2SO4 to be added in to 500 mL of 0.01 M 500 mL, 0.01 M NH4OH
NH4OH solution : (pKa of NH4+ = 9.26) is - (NH4)2SO4
: (pKa of NH4+ = 9.26)
(1) 0.05 mol (2) 0.025 mol (1) 0.05 mol (2) 0.025 mol
(3) 0.1 mol (4) 0.005 mol (3) 0.1 mol (4) 0.005 mol
43. Which of the following is incorrect :- 43. :-
(1) Silica is used in metallurgy of copper (1) Copper
(2) Chromatography is used to purify metal
(2)
compounds
(3) Ni + 4CN [Ni(CN)4]2+


(3) Ni + 4CN [Ni(CN)4]2+ is Mond's process
(4) Cast iron is hard phase of molten iron with (4)
small impurity while pig iron is liquid Fe with C, Si, Mn, S
impurity of C, Si, Mn, S and P P
44. As2S3 sol is :- 44. As2S3 :-
(1) Positive colloid (2) Negative colloid (1) (2)
(3) Neutral colloid (4) None of the above (3) (4)
45. The first (IE1) and second (IE2) ionisation energies 45.
(IE1) (IE2)
(kJ mol1) of a few elements are shown below :- (kJ mol )
1
:-
IE1 IE2 IE1 IE2
(a) 2372 5251 (a) 2372 5251
(b) 520 7300 (b) 520 7300
(c) 900 1760 (c) 900 1760
(d) 1680 3380 (d) 1680 3380
Which of the above elements is likely to be a noble
gas.
(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d)
46. Enthalpy of formation of 2 mol of NH3(g) 46. 2 NH3(g)
90 kJ
is 90 kJ and HHH and HNH are respectively HHH HNH 435 kJ mol1
435 kJ mol1 and 390 kJ mol1 the value of 390 kJ mol1
HNN
HNN is :- :-
(1) 472.5 KJ (2) 945 KJ mol1 (1) 472.5 kJ (2) 945 kJ mol1
(3) +472.5 KJ (4) +945 KJ mol1 (3) +472.5 kJ (4) +945 kJ mol1
47. CuSO4 + KCN X
KCN
Y. Which of the 47.
KCN
CuSO4 + KCN X Y.
:-
following is correct :- (1) X, Cu(CN)2
Cu(CN)
(1) X is Cu(CN)2 which further decompose to
Cu(CN). (2) X, KCN
(2) X is soluble in excess of KCN
(3) Y, K3[Cu(CN)4]
(3) Y is K3[Cu(CN)4]
(4)
(4) All are correct
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SO3H SO3H

(x)NaHCO 3 (x)NaHCO 3
48. HCC COOH 48. HCC COOH

OH OH
Total number of moles of NaHCO3 consumed
(x)
NaHCO3
during given reaction will be (x) :-
:-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
49. Which of the following compounds show 49.
intramolecular hydrogen bonding :-
:-
(a) o-nitrophenol (b) p-nitrophenol (a) o-(b) p-
(c) phenol (d) salicyl aldehyde (c) (d)
(1) a & b (2) a & c (1) a b (2) a c
(3) a & d (4) b & c (3) a d (4) b c
50. At low pressure, the vander waal's equation is 50.
reduced to :-
a Pb
a Pb (1) Z = 1 (2) Z = 1 +
(1) Z = 1 (2) Z = 1 + Vm RT RT
Vm RT RT
a a
(3) PVm = KT (4) Z = 1 (3) PVm = KT (4) Z = 1
RT RT
51. PCl3 when put in moisture fumes can be seen. 51.
PCl3
fumes
Fumes produced due to formation of :- fumes
(1) H3PO3 (2) P2H4 (3) HCl (4) P2O3 (1) H3PO3 (2) P2H4 (3) HCl (4) P2O3
NaHCO3
52. Ph COOH A 52. NaHCO3
Ph COOH A
(Gas) (
)

NaHCO3
Ph SO 3H B NaHCO3
Ph SO3 H B
(Gas)
( )

Gas released in above reaction are :-

:-
(1) CO2, SO3 (2) CO2, SO2 (1) CO2, SO3 (2) CO2, SO2
(3) CO2, CO2 (4) CO, CO (3) CO2, CO2 (4) CO, CO
53. Higher is the bond order, greater is :- 53.
:-
(1) Bond dissociation energy (1)
(2) Covalent character & lewis basic strength (2)
(3) Bond length, lewis basic strength & ultra spin (3)
moment
(4) Paramagnetism & lusture (4)
3 3
54. S+ O 2 SO3 + 2x Kcal 54. S+ O 2 SO3 + 2x Kcal
2 2
1 1
SO2 + O 2 SO3 + y Kcal SO2 + O 2 SO3 + y Kcal
2 2
the enthalpy of formation of SO2 is :- SO2
:-
(1) (y 2x) Kcal/mol (2) (2x + y) Kcal/mol (1) (y 2x) Kcal/mol (2) (2x + y) Kcal/mol
(3) (x + y) Kcal/mol (4) 2x/y Kcal/mol (3) (x + y) Kcal/mol (4) 2x/y Kcal/mol

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55. Molybdenum (At. Wt. = 96 gmol1) crystallizes 55.
(
= 96 gmol1) bcc
as bcc crystal. If density of crystal is 10.3g/cm3,
10.3g/cm3
Mo
then radius of Mo atom is (use NA = 6 1023):- 23
(NA = 6 10 ):-
(1) 111 pm (2) 314 pm (1) 111 pm (2) 314 pm
(3) 135.96 pm (4) None of these (3) 135.96 pm (4)
Br2
56.
Br2
CH3 CH CH CH 3
CCl4
56. CH3 CH CH CH 3
CCl4

Number of products (Including stereoisomer)

formed in given reaction are :-
:-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
57. Sodium peroxide in contact with moist air turns 57.
white due to the formation of :-
:-
(1) Na2O & sodium zeolite (1) Na2O &
(2) Na2CO3 & thermal form of baking soda (2) Na2CO3 &
(3) NaHCO3 & ozone (3) NaHCO3 &
(4) NaOH (4) NaOH
58. The correct order of stability of given carbanion is :- 58.
:-

(I) pO2NC6H4CH2 (II) mO2NC6H4CH2 (I) pO2NC6H4CH2 (II) mO2NC6H4CH2

(III) mOHCC6H4CH2 (III) mOHCC6H4CH2

(IV) PhCH2CH2
(IV) PhCH2CH2
(1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > III > II > IV (1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > III > II > IV
(3) I > II > III > IV (4) III > I > II > IV (3) I > II > III > IV (4) III > I > II > IV
59. At 25C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid A 59. 25C A (Mw =40) 100
(mol. wt. = 40) is 100 torr, While that of pure

B
40
(Mw = 80)
liquid B is 40 torr, (mol. wt. = 80). The vapour
pressure at 25C of a solution containing 20g of 25C
each A and B is :- (A B) 20
:-
(1) 80 torr (2) 59.8 torr (3) 68 torr (4) 48 torr (1) 80 torr (2) 59.8 torr (3) 68 torr (4) 48 torr
60. Which of the following is syn-aldoxime :- 60.
:-
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(1) C=N (2) C=N (1) C=N (2) C=N
H OH C2H 5 OH H OH C2H 5 OH

H H
C=N C=N
(3) (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) (4) (1)
(2)
CH3 OH CH3 OH
61. Which of the following statements concerning 61.
protium, deuterium and tritium is not true :-
:-
(1) They are allotropes of each other (1)
(2) They have different electronic configurations (2)
(3) They exist in the nature in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 (3)
1 : 2 : 3
(4) All of the above (4)

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

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62. Which of following hydrogen is most likely to take 62.
part in tautomerism, in given compound :-
:-
O (1) Ha O
(1) Ha
H Hd Hb
(2) H d Hb (2) Hb
b
(3) Hc N Hc (3) Hc N Hc
(4) Hd Ha (4) Hd Ha
63. Bromoform has a normal freezing point of 7.734 C and 63.
7.734 C
it's Kf = 14.4C/m. A solution of 2.60g of an unknown Kf = 14.4 C/m
2.60g
compound in 100g of bromoform freezes at 5.43C. 100g
5.43C
What is the molecular weight of the unknown ?
?
(1) 16.25 (2) 162.5 (1) 16.25 (2) 162.5
(3) 100 (4) None of these (3) 100 (4) None of these
64. In which of the reaction formation of Diazonium 64.
salt takes place ?
?
NHCH3 NHCH3
NH 2 NH 2
NaNO2 NaNO2 NaNO2 NaNO2
(1) 2HCl
(2) 2HCl
(1) 2HCl
(2) 2HCl

NaNO2 NaNO2 NaNO2 NaNO2

(3) (4) 2HCl
(3) (4) 2HCl
2HCl 2HCl
N N N N
H CH3 H CH3

65. Pure silver metal can be formed by heating silver 65.

carbonate. How many grams of silver carbonate must
21.6 g
be decomposed to produce 21.6 g of silver :-
:-
(1) 276 g (2) 21.6 g (1) 276 g (2) 21.6 g
(3) 27.6 g (4) 2.76 g (3) 27.6 g (4) 2.76 g
66. Which of the following does not have z 66.
z
:-
configuration:-
F Cl
F OH Cl
Cl Cl (1) (2)
OH Cl SH
(1) (2) Cl
Cl SH
Cl

F I F I H 2N NH2
H 2N NH2 I
I (3) (4) OCH3
(3) (4) OCH3 OH
OH O NH 2
O NH 2
67. Cadmium amalgam is prepared electrolysis of 67.
CdCl2
-
solution of CdCl2 using a mercury cathode How
4.5
long should a current of 4 A be passed in order Hg
10% Cd
Cd-Hg
to prepare 10% by wt. Cd in CdHg amalgam on 4A

cathode of 4.5 g Hg ? (Atomic wt. of Cd = 112):- ? (Cd
= 112) :-
(1) 400 sec (2) 215.40 sec (1) 400 sec (2) 215.40 sec
(3) 861.6 sec (4) 430.8 sec. (3) 861.6 sec (4) 430.8 sec.

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OH OH

68. Br 2/H 2O
; major product formed is :- 68. Br 2/H 2O
;
:-

OH OH
OH OH
Br Br
(1) (2) (1) (2)

Br Br
OH OH OH OH
Br Br Br Br
(3) (4) (3) (4)
Br Br
Br Br
69. What should be the value of KC for the reaction, 69. 2SO3(g)
2SO2(g) + O2(g)
2SO3(g). If the amounts are
2SO2(g) + O2(g) KC
1 L
:
SO3 = 48 g, SO2 = 12.8 g and O2 = 9.6 g at SO3 = 48 g, SO2 = 12.8 g
O2 = 9.6 g
equilibrium and the volume of the container is 1 L.
(1) 64 (2) 30 (3) 42 (4) 8.5 (1) 64 (2) 30 (3) 42 (4) 8.5

70. HCl
major product :- 70. HCl

:-
Ph
Peroxide Ph Peroxide

Cl Cl
(1) (2) (1) (2)
Ph Cl Ph Ph Cl Ph
Cl Cl
(3) (4) (3) Cl (4)
Cl Ph
Ph Ph
Ph
71. Based on the following information arrange four 71.
metals A, B, C and D in order of decreasing ability A, B, C D
to act as reducing agents :- :-
(i) Only A, B and C reacts with 1 MHCl to give (i) 1 MHCl A, B
C
H2(g) H2(g)
(ii) When C is added to solution of the other metal (ii) C
ions, Metallic B and D are formed B D

(iii)Metal C does not reduce An+. (iii)
C, An+
(1) C > A > B > D (2) C > A > D > B (1) C > A > B > D (2) C > A > D > B
(3) A > C > D > B (4) A > C > B > D (3) A > C > D > B (4) A > C > B > D
R R
72. CH2 CH2 72. CH2 CH2
Carbocation rearrangement is not possible when
'R'
:-
'R' is :- (1) HCl (2) HOCl
(1) HCl (2) HOCl (3) H2O/ H (4) All of these (3) H2O/ H (4)
73. Which of the following process involves decrease 73.
in the entropy of system :-
(1) Br2() Br2(g)
(1) Br2() Br2(g)
(2)
(2) elongating the rubber band
(3) N2(g) (10 atm) N2(g) (1 atm) (3) N2(g) (10 atm) N2(g) (1 atm)
(4) Hardening of egg on boiling (4)

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74. Which of the following does not give alkane on 74.
RMgX
reaction with RMgX :-
:-
(1) PhOH (2) CH3COOH (1) PhOH (2) CH3COOH
(3) HCl (4) ClNH2 (3) HCl (4) ClNH2

t 0.875 t 0.875
75. The value of for nth order reaction is :- 75. n
:-
t 0.50 t 0.50

(1) 2(2n2) (2) 2(2n2)1 (1) 2(2n2) (2) 2(2n2)1

8n 1 1 8n 1 1
(3) (4) None of these (3) (4)
2 n 1 1 2 n 1 1
76. Which of the following carbonyl compound give 76.
racemic mixture in following reaction sequence :
:

HCN H3O HCN HO
Carbonyl
Alkali
A B
Alkali
A B 3

(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone (1) (2)

(3) Benzophenone (4) Diethylketone (3) (4)
77. Solubility of BaF2 in a solution of Ba(NO3)2 will 77. BaF2 Ba(NO3)2
be represented by the concentration term :-
:-
(1) [Ba+2] (2) [F] (1) [Ba+2] (2) [F]
1 1
(3) [F ] (4) 2[NO3] (3) [F ] (4) 2[NO3]
2 2
78. Which among the following order of oxidising 78.
:-
character is correct :-
(1) CrO3 > MoO3 (2) Fe(CO)5 > Mn(CO)5
(1) CrO3 > MoO3 (2) Fe(CO)5 > Mn(CO)5
(3) V2O3 > V2O5 (4) K2Cr2O7 > KMnO4
(3) V2O3 > V2O5 (4) K2Cr2O7 > KMnO4
79. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 79.
27C 50%
20 minutes at 27C and in 5 minutes at 47C. The
20
47C 5
energy of activation of the reaction is :-
:-
(1) 43.85 kJ/mol (2) 55.14 kJ/mol (1) 43.85 kJ/mol (2) 55.14 kJ/mol
(3) 11.97 kJ/mol (4) 6.65 kJ/mol (3) 11.97 kJ/mol (4) 6.65 kJ/mol
O O
(i) CH3MgBr (i) CH3MgBr
80. + (A) 80. + (A)
(ii) H3O / (ii) H3O /
Product (A) is :-
(A) :-
CH3 OH CH3 CH 3 OH CH3
(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 CH2 CH3 CH2

OH OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)

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81. In Cacti the spines are modification of :- 81. :-
(1) Axillary Bud (2) Leaves (1) (2)
(3) Stem (4) Epidermis (3) (4)
82. In one Calvin cycle how many ATP is/are required 82.
3-
for conversion of one mole of 3 phosphoglycerate ATP

into triose phosphate :-
(1) 1 ATP (2) 2 ATP (1) 1 ATP (2) 2 ATP
(3) 12 ATP (4) 3 ATP (3) 12 ATP (4) 3 ATP
83. Select the incorrect match :- 83.
:-
(1) Citric acid Aspergillus flavus (1)

(2) Clot buster Streptococcus (2)

(3) Cyclosporin A Trichoderma (3)

(4) Butyric acid Clostridium butylicum (4)

84. Which statement is false ? 84.

(1) In some seeds, para ascorbic acid inhibits the (1)
germination.

(2) The maize embryo consist of an upper
shield-shaped scutellum, which is actually a (2)
plumule.
(3) Papaya is a dioecious plant.
(3)
(4) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably
autogamous. (4)
85. Complimentary cells are :- 85.
:-
(1) Collenchymatous (1)
(2) Parenchymatous (2)
(3) Sclerenchymatous (3)
(4) Chlorenchymatous (4)
86. Suppose a drug were added to mitochondria that 86.
allowed protons to freely pass through the inner
membrane. Which of the following mitochondrial
activities would most likely be inhibited ?
?
(1) Citric acid cycle (1)
(2) Oxidative phosphorylation (2)
(3) Substrate-level phosphorylation (3)
(4) The electron transport chain (4)
87. Which of the following had no role in evolution 87.
of large variety of finches (Darwin finches) on
galapogos island ?
(1)
(1) Geographical isolation
(2)
(2) Founder's effects
(3) Adaptive radiation (3)
(4) Natural selection due to anthropogenic action (4)

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88. Double fertilization involves :- 88.
:-
(1) Fertilization of egg by two male gametes (1)
(2) Fertilization of the two eggs in the same
embryosac by two male gametes brought by (2)
one pollen tube
(3) Fertilization of the egg and secondary nucleus
(3)
by two male gametes brought by same pollen
tube
(4) Fertilization of the egg and secondary nucleus
(4)
by two male gametes brought by different
pollen tubes
89. In all of the following algal members sex organs 89.
are unicellular except :-
:-
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Ulothrix (1) (2)
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chara (3) (4)
90. Which statement about cytokinins is not true ? 90.
?
(1) They promote cell division in tissue cultures (1)
(2) They delay the senescence of leaves (2)
(3) They usually promote the elongation of stems (3)
(4) They help to overcome the apical dominance (4)
91. Sweet potato and potato is modification of :- 91.
:-
(1) Stem and root respectively and show analogy (1)
(2) Root and stem respectively and show analogy (2)
(3) Both are root and show homology (3)
(4) Both are stem and show analogy (4)
92. Which one of the following is not a positive 92.
photoblastic seed ? ?
(1) Lettuce (2) Nigella (1) (2)
(3) Tobacco (4) Lepidium (3) (4)
93. Which algae show oogamous type of sexual 93.
reproduction ?
(1) Volvox (2) Albugo (1) (2)
(3) Spirogyra (4) Ulothrix (3) (4)
94. Match the following and choose the correct 94.
combination from the given options :-
:-

Column I Column II
I
II
A Potassium 1 Splitting of water A 1
B Manganese 2 Involved in stomatal
movement B 2

C Molybdenum 3 Needed in the C 3

synthesis of auxin
D Zinc 4 Component of D 4
nitrogenase
A B C D A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4 (1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 1 4 3 (2) 2 1 4 3
(3) 2 1 3 4 (3) 2 1 3 4
(4) 3 4 1 2 (4) 3 4 1 2
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95. Which of the following is mainly responsible for 95.
anamenestic immune response ?
(1) Interferon (1)
(2) Antigen presenting cells (2)
(3) Memory cells (3)
(4) Natural killer cells (4)
96. The central fluid filled cavity of the blastula is 96. Blastula
known as :- :-
(1) Archenteron (2) Blastocoel (1) Archenteron (2) Blastocoel
(3) Blastocyst (4) Morula (3) Blastocyst (4) Morula
97. Which fungi causes smut disease in wheat plants:- 97.
(smut)
:-
(1) Agaricus (2) Ustilago (1) (2)
(3) Aspergillus (4) Albugo (3) (4)
98. Which is true about the difference between 98.
cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons ?
?
(1) Most nephrons are juxtamedullary (1)
(2) The efferent arterioles of cortical nephrons (2)
give rise to most of the vasa recta
(3) The afferent arterioles of the juxtamedullary (3)
nephrons give rise to most of the vasa recta
(4) Juxtamedullary nephrons generate a (4)
hyperosmotic medullary interstitium
99. Match the column-I with column-II and findout 99.
-I
-II
correct option.

Column-I Column-II
-I
-II
Sustained high fever,
(a) Pneumonia (i) (a) (i)
intestinal perforation

Common Recurring high fever

(b) (ii) (b) (ii)
cold due to haemozoin
Infection of nose and
(c) Typhoid (iii) respiratory passage (c) (iii)
but not the alveoli

(d) Malaria (iv)
Alveoli get filled (d) (iv)
with fluid

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

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100. Find the correct pair :- 100.
:-
(1) IUDs Cervical caps (1) IUDs Cervical caps
(2) In vivo fertilization ZIFT (2) In vivo fertilization ZIFT
(3) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection IUT (3) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection IUT
(4) Invitro fertilization Test tube baby. (4) Invitro fertilization Test tube baby.
101. Which of the following statement is incorrect 101.
regarding Aschelminthes ?
?
(1) Skeleton is mineralised (1)
(2) Sexual dimorphism present (2)
(3) They are triploblastic (3)
triploblastic)
(4) They are pseudocoelomates (4)
102. The figure represents total period of one cardiac 102.
cycle i.e., 0.8 sec whereas A, B and C represent
0.8 A, B C
its stages. Identify A, B and C and select the A, B C

correct statement regarding them :-
:-

B B

A C A C

(1) During A, tricuspid bicuspid and semilunar (1) A

valves open and blood flows from atria into
the ventricles
(2) B
(2) During B, bicuspid and tricuspid valves close

producing first heart sound
(3) C
(3) During C, the semilunar valves close
producing second heart sound
(4) During B, the atria contract due to a wave of (4) B
SA
contraction by SA node
103. 103.

100000KJ 100000KJ
P C1 C2 C3 P C1 C2 C3

Find out the amount of energy available at C2 :- C2

:-
(1) 100 KJ (2) 1000 KJ (1) 100 KJ (2) 1000 KJ
(3) 10 KJ (4) 1 KJ (3) 10 KJ (4) 1 KJ
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104. In this given diagram which of the following is 104.
F2
not true for F2 generation :-
:-
P generation P generation

Round yellow Wrinkled green Round yellow Wrinkled green

RR YY rr yy RR YY rr yy

Gametes RY ry Gametes ry
RY

F1 generation Round Yellow F1 generation Round Yellow

Rr Yy Rr Yy
Selfing Selfing

RY RY RY RY

rY rY Gametes rY Gametes
rY
Gametes RRYY RRYY
Gametes
Ry Ry Ry Ry
RrYY RrYY RrYY RrYY

ry ry ry
RRYy rrYY RRYy ry RRYy rrYY RRYy

RRYy RRyy RrYy RrYy RrYy

RRYy RRyy RrYy

rrYy RRyy rrYy rrYy RRyy rrYy

F2 generation F2 generation

Rryy Rryy Rryy

Rryy

rryy rryy

(1) Types of gametes = 4

(1) =4
(2) Types of genotype = 9
(2) =9
(3) Types of phenotype = 4
(3) =4
(4) Types of zygote = 16
(4) = 16
105. Which of the following structure of brain contain 105.
centres which control respiration, and
:-
cardiovascular reflex :-
(1) Cerebrum (2) Pons (1) (2)
(3) Medulla (4) Cerebellum (3) (4)
106. Which of the following statements is/are true 106.
regarding the control of gastric secretion ? ?
(i) When meal enters the stomach, the stretching (i)
effect stimulates further more secretion of (stretching effect)
gastric juice.
(ii) The mechanical control has a prominent and (ii)
persistent effect on gastric secretion.
(iii) The presence of food in the stomach causes (iii)
certain cells in the stomach epithelium to secrete
gastrin into the blood stream which circulates
in the body and on reaching the gastric glands
causes further secretion of gastric juice.
(iv) The effect of nervous control is due to vagus (iv)
nerve to the stomach. This effect persists for
a short time only.
(1) iv only (2) i, iii and iv (1) iv (2) i, iii iv
(3) i and iii (4) ii and iv (3) i iii (4) ii iv
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107. Secondary producers are :- 107.
:-
(1) Herbivores (2) Producers (1) (2)
(3) Carnivores (4) Decomposers (3) (4)
108. After completion of the biosynthetic stage, the 108.
product has to be subjected through a series of
process before it is ready for marketing
:-
collectively reffered as :-
(1)
(1) Elution
(2)
(2) Upstream processing
(3) Downstream processing (3)
(4) Transformation (4)
109. Identify the parts of given fig. labelled A, B, C, 109.
A, B, C, D E
D and E from the list (ivii) and select the correct
(ivii)
options :- :-
(C) (C)
(E) (E)
(A) (A)
(D) (D)
(B) (B)

(i) Inner membrane (ii) Outer membrane (i) (ii)

(iii) Stroma lamella (iv) Thylakoid (iii)
(iv)
(v) Cristae (vi) Stroma (v) (vi)
(vii) Granum (vii)

A B C D E A B C D E
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (vii) (v) (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (vii) (v)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (vii) (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (vii)
(3) (vii) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (3) (vii) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (vii) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) (vii) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)
110. 'Tetany' is caused by :- 110. ""
:-
(1) Hypersecretion of parathormone (1)
(2) Hyposecretion of parathormone (2)
(3) Hyposecretion of calcitonin (3)
(4) Hyposecretion of TSH (4) TSH
111. Which of the following is correct for Predator :- 111.
:-
(A) They keeps prey populations under control. (A)
(B) They maintains prey species diversity at (B)
community level.
(C) They exhibits a great level of assimilation
(C)
efficiency, respiratory loss with prudent
nature.

Option :- :-
(1) only A (2) only A, B (1) A (2) A, B
(3) only A, C (4) A, B, C all (3) A, C (4) A, B, C
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112. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select 112.
(a-d)
the option which includes all the correct ones only :-
:-
(a) In mendelian inheritance in a dissimilar pair (a)
of factors one member of the pair dominates
(dominant) the other (recessive)
(b) The alleles do not show any blending and that
both the characters are recovered as such in (b) ( )
the F2 generation though one of these is not F 2
seen at the F1 stage F 1

(c) When IA and IB are present together then both
express their own type of sugars, this is (c) IA IB
because of incomplete dominance.
(d) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of
a gene when more than one phenotype is (d)
influenced by the same gene
(1) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) (1) (a), (b), (c) (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (d) (2) (a), (b) (d)
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d) (3) (a), (c) (d)
(4) Statements (c) and (d) (4) (c) (d)
113. Most cells will divide if they receive the proper 113.
signal at a check point in the .......... phase of the ..........
cell cycle :- :-
(1) M (2) G1 (3) S (4) G2 (1) M (2) G1 (3) S (4) G2
114. Most freely movable joints is :- 114.
:-
(1) Pivot joint (2) Gliding joint (1) (2)
(3) Ball & socket joint (4) Saddle joint (3)
(4)
115. According to which one of the following plots 115.
with more species show less year to year variation
in total biomass :-
:-
(1) Rivet popper hypothesis (1)
(2) Tilman (2)
(3) IUCN (3)
(4) JFM (4)
116. Given below is a pedigree chart showing the 116.
inheritance of a certain sex-linked trait in humans:-
:-

I I

II II

III III

The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is

(1) Dominant X-linked (2) Recessive X-linked (1) X- (2) X-
(3) Dominant Y-linked (4) Recessive Y-linked (3) Y- (4) Y-

Time Management is Life Management

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117. If the sequence of bases in sense strand of DNA 117. DNA sense strand
is 5'-GTTCATCG-3, then the sequence of the 5'-GTTCATCG-3 RNA
bases in its RNA transcript would be :- (transcript)
(1) 5'-GTTCATCG-3' (2) 5'GUUCAUCG-3 (1) 5'-GTTCATCG-3' (2) 5'GUUCAUCG-3
(3) 5'CAAGTAGC-3' (4) 5'CAAGUAGC-3 (3) 5'CAAGTAGC-3' (4) 5'CAAGUAGC-3
118. Which of the following pairs is correctly match ? 118.
(1) Ribosomal RNA Carries amino acids to the (1)
RNA
site of protein synthesis.

(2) Transcription Process by which protein is
synthesized. (2)

(3) Translation Process by which m-RNA (3)

m-RNA
carries the information from
nucleus to ribosome.
(4) Anticodon Site of t-RNA molecule that (4) Anticodon t-RNA
m-RNA
binds to the m-RNA
119. Match the column :- 119.

I II I II

(a) Fragmentation (i) Leads to accumulation (a) (i)

of a dark coloured
amorphous substance
(b) Humification (ii) Water-soluble inorganic (b)
(ii)
nutrients undergo in soil

(c) Catabolism (iii) Bacterial and fungal
enzymes degrade (c) (iii)
detritus into simple
organic and inorganic
substance
(d) Leaching (iv) Detritivores break down (d) (iv)
detritus in small pieces

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
120. If a trihybrid dwarf variety of pea plant is treated 120.
with Gibberellic acid hormone, It grow as tall as
the tall pea plant On. Selfing this plant the
phenotypic ratio is likely to be :-
:-
(1) All dwarf (1)
(2) All tall (2)
(3) 50% tall (3)
50%
(4) 75% tall and 25% dwraf (4) 75%
25%
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DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180 121 180

These questions consist of two statements each,
printed as Assertion and Reason.While
answering these Questions you are required to
choose any one of the following four responses.

A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the A.

Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason B.
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. C.
D. If both Assertion & Reason are False. D.

e i jj e j k j

121. Assertion :- The angle between the two vectors 121.
3

i +j and j + k is 3 radian.
A

B

Reason :- Angle between two vectors A and B
-1 A.B



() = = cos
is given by = cos-1 A.B . AB
AB
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. Assertion : A sphere is rotating about a diameter 122. :
with constant angular acceleration .All the

particles on the surface have same linear

acceleration.

Reason : All the particles on the surface have same :

linear speed.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. Assertion :- An object may have varying speed 123.

without having varying velocity.
Reason :- If the velocity is zero at an instant, the
acceleration should also be zero at that instant.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. Assertion : To unscrew a rusted nut we need a 124. :

wrench with longer arm.
(wrench)

Reason : Wrench with longer arm reduces the :

torque of the arm.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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125. A man who can swim at a speed v relative to water 125. d
wants to cross the river of width d, flowing with
v
u
speed u.

B
B

d d u
u v
v
A
A

Assertion : He cannot reach the point B if u > v.

: B
u > v.
d
d :
Reason : The time of crossing is 2
v u2
v - u2
2

if u < v. u < v.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion : Potentiometer measures correct 126. :
value of emf of a cell.
Reason : No current flows through cell at null :
point of potentiometer.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. Assertion : The centre of mass of two particle 127. :
system lies on the line joining the two particles,

being closer to the heavier particle.

Reason : Product of mass of one particle and its
distance from centre of mass is numerically equal :
to product of mass of other particle and its distance
from centre of mass.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. Assertion : Increasing the charge on the plates 128. :
of a capacitor means increasing the capacitance.
Reason : Because Q = CV Q C. :
Q = CV Q C.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. Assertion : When a particle moves in a circle with 129. :
a uniform speed its acceleration is constant but
the velocity changes.

Reason : Angular displacement is not an axial :
vector.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion : When a neutral conductor placed 130. :
near to a charged conductor then capacitance of
charged conductor increase.
:
Reason : When neutral body is placed then more
charge can be provided to a charged conductor at
same potential.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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131. Assertion : Potential energy is possible only in 131.
:
conservative force field.
Reason : Potential energy is a relative quantity :
but K.E. is an absolute quantity.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. Assertion :- Magnetic moment of helium atom 132. :-
in zero.
Reason :- All the electron are paired in helium :-
e
atom orbitals.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. Assertion : Transverse waves travel through air 133. :
in an organ pipe. :
Reason : Air passes only elasticity of shape.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. Assertion :- A ray of light is incident normally 134. :- 1.25
on one face of an equilateral prism of refractive
index 1.25 then the angle of deviation is 60.
60
Reason :- For above system as :-
1 1 1
r2 = 60 > c = sin 53 r2 = 60 > c = sin1 53
1.25 1.25
therefore T.I.R occurs T.I.R
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. Assertion : The efficiency of a carnot cycle 135. :
depends on the nature of the gas used.
Reason : Adiabatic is a part of carnot cycle and :
work done in adiabatic process does not depend
on nature of gas.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion :- Photoelectric effect demonstrates 136. :-
the wave nature of light.
Reason :- The number of photoelectrons is :-
proportional to the frequency of light
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion : For an ideal black body, both 137. :
absorption coefficient and reflection coefficient
are one.
Reason : perfect absorbers are perfect reflectors.
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
138. Assertion :- The energy (E) and momentum (p) 138. :-
(E)

(p)
of a photon are related by p = E/c
p
= E/c
Reason :- The photon behaves like a particle. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Assertion : A dam for water reservoir is built 139. :
thicker at bottom than at the top.
Reason : Pressure of water is very large at the :
bottom.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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140. Assertion :- A transistor amplifier in common 140. :-
emitter configuration has a low input impedence.
Reason :- The base to emitter region is forward :-
biased.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. Assertion :- Cs and F combines violently to form 141.
:- Cs
F
CsF
CsF.
Reason :- Cs is most electronegetive and F is most :- Cs
F
electropositive.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
3+
142. Assertion :- [Ti(H 2 O) 6] is coloured while 142. :- [Ti(H2O)6]
3+
[Sc(H2O)6]3+
[Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.
Reason :- dd transition is not possible because :- [Sc(H2O)6]3+dd
no d e is present while possible for Ti3+ having d
Ti3+ d
delectrons.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
143. Assertion :- The dipole moment of NH3 is less 143. :- NH3
NF3
than dipole moment of NF3.
Reason :- The lone pair e on N atom contribute
more towards bond moment in NH3 and less in :- NH3
N
e
NF3. NF3

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. Assertion :- Anhydrous CaCl2 cannot be used to 144. :-
CaCl2
NH3
dry NH3.
Reason :- Anhydrous CaCl2 forms a adduct :- CaCl2
CaCl26NH3
CaCl26NH3 with NH3
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- Hydrides of d-block element have 145. :- d-
metallic lusture.
Reason :- Hydride ion occupies some interstitial :-
spaces.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
146. Assertion :- In NaCl structure, Na + ions occupy
146.
:- NaCl
, Na+
octahedral holes and Cl ions occupy ccp.
Cl ccp
Reason :- The distance of the nearest neighbours :- NaCl
in NaCl structure is a/2 where a is the edge length
a/2
a
of the cube.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. Assertion :- CH3COOH and C6H12O6 have same 147. :- CH3COOH
C6H12O6
%
% composition of elements.
Reason :- Both have same empirical formula. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. Assertion :- An ideal solution obeys Roult's law. 148. :-
Reason :- In an ideal solution, solute-solute as :-
-
well as solvent-solvent interactions are similar to
-
solute-solvent interactions.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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149. Assertion :- Mixture of CH 3 COOH and 149. :- CH3COOH
CH3COONH4
CH3COONH4 is an example of acidic buffer.
Reason :- Acidic buffer contains equimolar :-
mixture of weak acid and its salt with weak base.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. Assertion :- If SRP of substance is +0.3V, it's 150. :-
SRP, +0.3V
reduction is possible at cathode in aqueaes
solution.
Reason :- SRP of Zn+2 is positive.
:- Zn+2 SRP
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :- The chemical reaction, 151. :-
,
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
should be exothermic.
Reason :- The process passes into equilibrium :- GT, P
state when GT, P becomes zero.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- If the activation energy of reaction 152. :-
is zero, temperature will have no effect on the rate
constant.
Reason :- Lower the activation energy faster is :-
,
the reaction.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :- Various line of Lymen series of 153. :-
H-atom fall in U.V.region.

1 1 1 1 1
Reason :- According to
1
= RH 2 2 :- = RH 2 2
n1 n 2 n1 n 2
wavelength of lymen lines lie in the U.V.region.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :- The presence of nitro group increases rate 154. :-
of nucleopillic substitution reaction in aryl halides.
Reason :- The intermediate carbanion is stabilized :-
due to the presence of nitro-group.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :- cis2butene and trans2butene 155. :- 2
2
have different boiling point.
Reason :- Geometrical isomers have different :-
boiling point.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
156. Assertion :- 1-Butene on reaction with HBr in the 156. :- 1-
,
HBr
presence of a peroxide produce 1-bromobutane.
1-
Reason :- It involves formation of primary radical. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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157. Assertion :- The product obtained by heating 157. :-
isobutyric acid or butanoic acid, with sodalime,
is same.
Reason :- The reaction complete through
carbocation intermediate. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. Assertion :- Both grignard reagent and dialkyl 158. :-
cadmium react with acid chlorides to form
tert-alcohols .
Reason :- Grignard reagent are as reactive as :-
dialkylcadmium.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159. Assertion :- All positively charge species acts a 159. :-
electrophile.
Reason :- Electrophile are electron rich. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
160. Assertion :- t-Butyl methyl ether is not prepared 160. :- t-
t-
by the reaction of t-butyl bromide with sodium Na-
methoxide.
Reason :- Sodium methoxide is strong :-
nucleophile.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion :- Most distinct annual rings are formed 161. :-
in Tropical regions.
Reason :- Climatic variations are sharp in tropical :-
regions.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion :- The character suddenly appears which 162. :-
were supposed to be present in their ancestor but were
lost during the course of evolution is called atasvism.
Reason :- Nictitating membrane is an evidence :-
from atavism.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion :- Members of protista are chlorophyllous 163. :-
or non chlorophyllous and eukaryotic.
Reason :- They are primitive organisms lack :-
histone.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
164. Assertion :- Outbreeding never involves breeding 164. :-
between individuals of same breed.
Reason :- Outbreeding is carried out between :-
individuals of different breed or species.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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165. Assertion :- SA node is called as pacemaker of heart. 165. :- SA
Reason :- SA node can generate the maximum :- SA
number of action potentials and responsible for
initiating heart rhythm.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
166. Assertion :- An Ecological niche is usually 166. :-
occupied by a single species.

Reason :- More than one species can live in same :-
habitat.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion :- If an amino acid is coded by more than 167. :-
one codons then it is called degeneracy of codon.
Reason :- Genetic code is universal. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
168. Assertion :- Although oceans constitute 70% of earth 168. :-
70%
yet they contribute 32% of net primary productivity.
32%
Reason :- In ocean light is the limiting factor. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. Assertion :- Gibberellin helps to increase yield 169. :-
20
by as much as 20 tonnes per acre in sugarcane.
Reason :- Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellin :-
increases the length of stem.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. Assertion :- The seed coat of leguminous plants are 170. :-
impermeable to water at the time of their maturity.
Reason :- In leguminosae family, seed coat :-
consists of lignified cells.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. Assertion :- Excess of Mn may, in fact, induce 171. :-
deficiencies of Fe, Mg and Ca.

Reason :- Excess of Mn compete with uptake of :-
Fe and Mg and inhibit translocation of Ca to shoot
apex.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. Assertion :- Pollen tube shows chemotropic 172. :-
movement.
Reason :- Growth of pollen tube is controlled by :-
generative nucleus.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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173. Assertion :- Herring-Breurer reflex prevents 173.
:-
excessive inflation of the lungs.
Reason :- On overstretching of the lungs, the :-
stretch receptors send impulses along the vagus
nerve to stimulate the inspiratory centre.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- Sperms are produced in huge quantity 174. :-
in compared to Oocyte.
Reason :- Oocyte contains diploid nucleus. :-
Diploid
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
175. Assertion :- Gastrectomy can lead to iron-deficiency 175.
:-
anaemia.
3+
Reason :- HCl of gastric juice converts Fe into :- HCl, Fe3+
Fe2+
Fe2+ which makes iron absorbable.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
176. Assertion :- Incomplete dominance made it possible 176. :-
to distinguish heterozygous from homozygous.
Reason :- In incomplete dominance, F1 resemble :-
F1
either one of the parent.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
2+
177. Assertion :- In muscle contraction Ca plays an 177. :-
Ca
2+

important role.
Reason :- Calcium bind with a subunit of troponin :-
on actin filaments and there by remove the
masking of active sites for myosin.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. Assertion :- The genes encoding resistance to 178. :-
antibiotics are considered as useful selectable E.coli
marker for E.coli.
Reason :- The normal E.coli carry resistance :-
E.coli
against any of the antibiotics.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. Assertion :- RNA is less stable than DNA. 179. :- DNA
RNA
Reason :- In RNA 2'OH group is present on every :- RNA
2'OH
nucleotide.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
180. Assertion :- The stickness of ends produced by 180. :- DNA
restriction endonuclease facilitates the action of
restriction
DNA ligase. endonuclease
Reason :- When cut by the different restriction :-
enzyme, the resultant DNA fragements have the
DNA
same kind of sticky end
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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181. Viticulture is a culture of :- 181.
:-
(1) Wheat (2) Vitamin (1) (2)
(3) Grapes (4) Oranges (3) (4)
182. Thomas cup is associated with which of the 182.
?
following sports ?
(1) (2)
(1) Table Tennis (2) Lawn Tennis
(3) (4)
(3) Badminton (4) Football
183. The first satellite launched by India is :- 183.
(1) INSAT-1A (2) Bhaskar-1 (1)
-1A (2)
-1
(3) Aryabhatta (4) Rohini RS-1 (3) (4)
RS-1
184. What does green colour in our National Flag 184.
stands for ?
?
(1) Courage (2) Renunciation (1) (2)
(3) Truth and Peace (4) Prosperity (3) (4)
185. Which state of India has negative population 185.
2011
growth rate as per Census 2011:-
:-
(1) Nagaland (2) Tripura (1) (2)
(3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Goa (3) (4)
186. The phenomenon of Total Internal Reflection is 186.
observed in which one of the following :-
:-
(1) Twinkling star (1)
(2) Glowing tube light (2)
(3) Light passing through lens (3)
(4) Sparkling diamond (4)
187. Which of the following is not a secondary pollutant? 187.
?
(1) Carbon monooxide (1)
(2) Ozone (2)
(3) Nitrogen dioxide (3)
(4) Sulphuric acid (4)
188. Which of the following is not a world heritage site 188.
of India ?
?
(1) Simlipal National Park (1)
(2) Sunderban National Park (2)
(3) Kaziranga National Park (3)
(4) Manas wildlife sanctuary (4)
189. Kohinoor diamond was extracted from which mine? 189.
(1) Kolar (2) Kollur (1) (2)
(3) Khejri (4) Panna (3) (4)
190. What does FDI stand for ? 190. FDI
?
(1) Foreign Development Institute (1) Foreign Development Institute
(2) Foreign Direct Investment (2) Foreign Direct Investment
(3) Federal Defence Institute (3) Federal Defence Institute
(4) Federal Direct Investment (4) Federal Direct Investment

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191. Which one among the following Indian states shares 191.
International boundaries with three countries?
(1) Assam
(1)
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(2)
(3) Himachal Pradesh
(3)
(4) Uttarakhand
(4)
192. Which Indian Prime Minister gave slogan 192.
"Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan" ?
(1) Indira Gandhi (1)
(2) Lal Bahadur Shastri (2)
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru (3)
(4) Manmohan Singh (4)
193. Who is the author of 'Imagining India' ? 193.
(1) Amitav Ghosh (1)
(2) V.S. Naipaul (2)
(3) Arun Shourie (3)
(4) Nandan Nilekani (4)
194. Which of the following appointments is not made 194.
by the President of India?
(1) Chief Justice of India (1)
(2) Chief of Air staff (2)
(3) Chief of Army (3)
(4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (4)
195. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? 195.
(1) Archaeological Survey of India New Delhi (1)
(2) Indian Institute of Petroleum Dehradun (2)
(3) Integral Coach Factory Chennai (3)
(4) Forest Research Institute Lucknow (4)

196. Which one of the following is not a "Classical 196.
Language of India"?
(1) Malayalam (2) Kannada (1) (2)
(3) Bengali (4) Telugu (3) (4)
197. Which is the easternmost point of India ? 197.
(1) Nathula (1)
(2) Kibithu (2)
(3) Indira point (3)
(4) Cape comorin (4)

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198. Which ion is mostly present in coconut water ? 198.
(1) Calcium (2) Sodium (1) (2)
(3) Potassium (4) Magnesium (3) (4)
199. What does "G" in 2G, 3G, 4G stand for ? 199. 2G, 3G, 4G
"G"
?
(1) Global (2) Grade (1) Global (2) Grade
(3) Generation (4) Group (3) Generation (4) Group
200. Which is the oldest Football tournament in India? 200.
(1) Santosh Trophy (1)
(2) Durand Cup (2)
(3) Subroto Cup (3)
(4) Federation Cup (4)

Your moral duty

is to prove that is

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016

34/35 0999DM310315030
 ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/Pre-Medical /AIIMS/24-04-2016
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

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