COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

1. What is the opposition to the transfer 7. _________ is the ratio of reflected

of energy which is considered the voltage to the forward travelling voltage.
dominant characteristics of a cable or
circuit that emanates from its physical A. SWR
structure? B. VSWR
C. Reflection coefficient
A. Conductance D. ISWR
B. Resistance
C. Reactance 8. Transmission line must be matched to
D. Impedance the load to ___________.

2. When load impedance equals to Zo of A. Transfer maximum voltage to the load

the line, It means that the load _____ all B. Transfer maximum power to the load
the power. C. Reduce the load current
D. Transfer maximum current to the load
A. Reflects
B. Absorbs 9. Which indicate the relative energy loss
C. Attenuates in a capacitor?
D. Radiates
A. Quality factor
3. Impedance matching ratio of a coax B. Reactive factor
balun. C. Dissipation factor
D. Power factor
A. 1:4
B. 4:1 10. What is the standard test tone?
C. 2:1
D. 3:2 A. 0 dB
B. 0 dBW
4. Which stands for dB relative level? C. 0 dBm
D. 0 dBrn
A. dBrn
B. dBa 11. The energy that neither radiated into
C. dBr space nor completely transmitted.
D. dBx
A. Reflected waves
5. Standard test tone used for audio B. Captured waves
measurement. C. Incident waves
D. Standing waves
A. 800 Hz
B. 300 Hz 12. Micron is equal _______ meter.
C. 100 Hz
D. 1000 Hz A. 10^-10
B. 10^-9
6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this C. 10^-6
means D. 10^-3

A. That no power is applied

B. That the load is purely resistive
C. That the load is a pure reactance
D. That the load is opened

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to 19. ________ is the advantage of the

balanced transmission line compared to
A. 10^-3 micron unbalance line.
B. 10^-10 m
C. 10^-6 micron A. Low attenuation
D. 10^-6 m B. Easy installation
C. Low radiation loss
D. Tensile strength
14. Why is it impossible to use a
waveguide at low radio frequencies? 20. _________ is the method of
determining the bandwidth of any
A. Because of the size of the waveguide processing system.
B. Due to severe attenuation
C. Due to too much radiation A. Fourier series
D. All of these B. Spectral analysis
C. Frequency analysis
15. ___________ is the transmission and D. Bandwidth analysis
reception of information.
21. What causes the attenuation present
A. Modulation in a waveguide?
B. Communications
C. Radiation A. The air dielectric filling the guide.
D. Emission B. The coating of silver inside
C. Losses in the conducting walls of the
16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if guide
the power ratio of output to input is D. Radiation loss
0.01?
22. A device that converts a balanced
A. 20 line to an unbalanced line of a
B. -20 transmission line.
C. 40
D. -40 A. Hybrid
B. Stub
17. Transmission lines are either C. Directional coupler
balanced or unbalanced with respect to D. Balun

A. Negative terminal 23. What is the approximate line

B. Reference impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced
C. Ground 1 cm apart with the length of 50 cm?
D. Positive terminal
A. 10 ohms
18. The standing wave ratio is equal to B. 15 ohms
________ if the load is properly matched C. 18 ohms
with the transmission line. D. 23 ohms

A. Infinity
B. 0
C. -1
D. 1

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

24. What is the average power of rating

of RG-58 C/u? 29. Impedance inversion can be obtained
by
A. 25 W
B. 50 W A. A short-circuited stub
C. 75 W B. An open-circuited stub
D. 200 W C. A quarter-wave line
D. A half-wave line
25. A coaxial cable used for high
temperatures. 30. Transmission lines when connected
to antennas have
A. RG-58C
B. RG11A A. Capacitive load
C. RG-213 B. Resistive load whose resistance is
D. RG-211A greater than the characteristic impedance of
the line
26. If you have available number of C. Resistive load whose resistance is less
power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, than characteristic impedance of the line
how many such amplifiers do you need D. Resistive load at the resonant
to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 frequency
dB?
31. One of the following is not a bounded
A. 2 media.
B. 3
C. 4 A. Coaxial line
D. 5 B. Two-wire line
C. Waveguide
27. You are measuring noise channel at a D. Ocean
-4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73
dBm, convert the reading into dBrnCO. 32. The impedance measured at the input
of the transmission line when its length
A. 12 is infinite.
B. 16
C. 18 A. Input impedance
D. 21 B. Open circuit impedance
C. Characteristic impedance
28. The velocity factor of a transmission D. Short circuit impedance
line
33. The following are considered primary
A. Depends on the dielectric constant of line constants except
the material used
B. Increases the velocity along the A. Conductance
transmission line B. Resistance
C. Is governed by the skin effect C. Capacitance
D. Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air D. Complex propagation constant

3|Page
COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

34. The dielectric constants of materials

commonly used in transmission lines
range about 39. A quaterwave transformer is
connected to a parallel wire line in order
A. 1.2 to 2.8 to match the line to a load of 100 ohms.
B. 2.8 to 3.5 The transformer has a characteristic
C. 3.5 to 5.2 impedance of 316.23 ohms. The distance
D. 1.0 to 1.2 between centers is 4 inches. What is the
percentage reduction in diameter of the
35. Typically, the velocity factor of the line?
materials used in transmission lines
range from A. 85%
B. 83%
A. 0.6 to 0.9 C. 86%
B. 0.1 to 0.5 D. 90%
C. 1.0 to 0.9
D. 0.6 to 0.8 40. The concept use to make one Smith
chart universal is called
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the
minimum characteristic impedance value A. Ionization
is B. Normalization
C. Rationalization
A. 85 ohms D. Termination
B. 83 ohms
C. 90 ohms 41. What are the basic elements of
D. 88 ohms communication system?

37. When a quarter-wave section A. Source, transmission channel, transmitter

transmission lines is terminated by a B. Transmitter, receiver, transmission
short circuit ad us connected to an RF channel
source at the other end, its put C. Information, transmission channel,
impedance is receiver
D. Sender and receiver
A. Inductive
B. Capacitive 42. _________ is the transmission of
C. Resistive printed material over telephone lines.
D. Equivalent to a parallel resonant LC
circuit A. Internet
B. Data communication
38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz C. Telegraphy
with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of D. Facsimile
RG-8A/u cable to an antenna that has an
input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the
reflection coefficient.

A. 0.71
B. 0.77
C. 0.97
D. 0.76

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

43. _________ is a continuous tone 48. The central switching office

generated by the combination of two
frequencies of 350 Hz and 440 Hz used in
telephone sets.
A. DC tone
B. Ringing tone
C. Dial tone
D. Call waiting tone
44. __________ are unidirectional
amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that
are placed about 75 km apart used to
compensate for losses along the
telephone line.
coordinating element for all cell sites
that has cellular processor and cellular
switch. It interfaces with telephone
company zone offices, control call
processing and handle billing activities.
A. MTSO
B. Cell Site
C. PTSN
D. Trunk Line
49. __________ in a cellular system
performs radio-related functions for
cellular site.

A. VF repeaters A. Switching system

B. Loading coils B. Base station
C. Loop extenders C. Operation and support system
D. Echo suppressors D. Mobile station

45. __________ is a component in the 50. A technology used to increase the

telephone set that has the primary capacity of a mobile phone system.
function of interfacing the handset to the
local loop. A. Frequency re-use
B. Cell splitting
A. Resistor C. TDM
B. Capacitor D. FDM
C. Varistor
D. Induction coil 51. If the grade of service of a telephone
system indicated P = 0.05, what does it
46. Pulse dialing has __________ rate. mean?

A. 20 pulses/min A. Completed call of 5 %

B. 10 pulses/min B. Lost calls of 5 %
C. 10 pulses/sec C. Lost calls of 95 %
D. 80 pulses/sec D. Lost calls of 105 %

47. __________ is a telephone wire that 52. __________ is the Out-of-Band

connects two central offices. signaling between Toll Central Offices.

A. 2-wire circuit A. 3,825 Hz

B. Trunk line B. 3700 Hz
C. Leased line C. 2600 Hz
D. Private line D. 800 Hz

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

58. The standard analog telephone

53. In a telephone system, the channel bandwidth.
customers telephone directory
numbering is from 000 to 999, what is the A. 300-3400 Hz
capacity of a telephone system B. 1200 Hz
numbering from 000 to 999? C. 200-3200 Hz
D. 300-3000 Hz
A. 100 lines
B. 1000 lines 59. Type of switching in which a pair of
C. 10000 lines wire from the telephone set terminates in
D. 100000 lines a jack and the switch is supervised by an
operator.
54. If the SWR is infinite, what type of
load transmission line has? A. Crossbar switching
B. Manual switching
A. Purely reactive C. Electronic switching
B. Purely resistive D. Step-by-step switching
C. Purely capacitive
D. Purely inductive 60. Every time when the telephone is
idle, the handset is in the __________
55. Not more than __________ digits state.
make up an international telephone
number as recommended by CCITT REC. A. On-hook
E. 161. B. Off-hook
C. Busy
A. 8 D. Spare
B. 10
C. 11 61. __________ is a component in the
D. 12 telephone set that has the primary
function of compensating for the local
56. One Erlang is equal to __________. loop length.

A. 360 CCS A. Resistor

B. 36 CCS B. Varistor
C. 3.6 CCS C. Capacitor
D. 100 CCS D. Induction coil

57. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone 62. What kind of receiver is used in
service beyond the normal flat rate in conventional telephone handset?
that area.
A. Carbon
A. WATS B. Electromagnetic
B. OTLP C. Ceramic
C. TIP D. Capacitor
D. DTWX

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

63. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN 68. The published rates, regulations, and
has an ideal passband of descriptions governing the provision of
communications service for public use
A. 0 to 4 Hz
B. 0 to 4 MHz A. Toll rate
C. 0 to 4 kHz B. Tariff
D. 0 to 4 GHz C. Bulk billing
D. Detailed billing
64. __________ is the minimum-quality
circuit available using the PTN. 69. What is the power loss of a telephone
hybrid?
A. Basic voice grade
B. Basic voice channel A. 1 dB
C. Basic voice band B. 2 dB
D. Basic telephone channel C. 3 dB
D. 6 dB
65. Direct distance dialing network is
called 70. Telephone channel has a band-pass
characteristic occupying the frequency
A. Private-line network range of __________.
B. PT network
C. Dial-up network A. 300-400 Hz
D. Trunk network B. 300-3400 Hz
C. 300-3000 Hz
66. What is the advantage of sidetone? D. 300-2700 Hz

A. Transmission efficiency is increased 71. The first Strowger step-by-step

B. Speaker increases his voice resulting in a switch was used in __________.
strengthened signal
C. No dissipation of energy in the balancing A. 1875
network B. 1890
D. Assure the customer that the C. 1897
telephone is working D. 1913

72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz

67. __________ is a special service voice signal if the phase shift is 15
circuit connecting two private branch degrees?
exchanges.
A. 52 sec
A. Phantom line B. 1.25 sec
B. Tie trunk C. 83.33 sec
C. Tandem trunk D. 26 sec
D. Private trunk
73. What is the CCITT recommendation
for a preparation of loss plan, a variable
loss plans and a fixed loss plan?

A. G. 133
B. G. 141
C. G. 132
D. G. 122

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

74. What is the diameter of a copper wire 79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to
to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop open circuited stubs because the latter
resistance of 100 ohms/km? are

A. 0.838 mm A. More difficult to make and connect

B. 0.465 mm B. Made of a transmission line with a
C. 1.626 mm different characteristic impedance
D. 2.159 mm C. Liable to radiate
D. Incapable of giving a full range of
75. What kind of cell is appropriate for reactances
load management, fast moving mobiles
and low-usage areas? 80. What is the ratio of the reflected
voltage to the incident voltage?
A. Pico cells
B. Micro cells A. VSWR
C. Nano cells B. ISWR
D. Umbrella cells C. SWR
D. Coefficient of reflection
76. In cellular networks, standard base
station antennas are replaced by 81. One method of determined antenna
__________ impedance.

A. Adaptive array A. Stub matching

B. Flat plate antenna B. Trial and error
C. Dipole array C. Smith chart
D. Focused antenna D. Quarter-wave matching

77. What is the basis of the first 82. __________ is a single conductor
generation wireless local loop? running from the transmitter to the
antenna.
A. Digital cellular technology
B. Analogue cellular technology A. Single-wire line
C. PSTN B. Microstrip
D. AMPS technology C. Twin lead
D. Coaxial line
78. When the calling party hears a
busy tone on his telephone, the call is 83. Coaxial cable impedance is typically
considered __________.

A. Lost A. 150 to 300 ohms

B. Disconnected B. 50 to 75 ohms
C. Completed C. 30 to 45 ohms
D. Incomplete D. 300 to 600 ohms

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

84. Waveguide becomes compulsory 89. The transmission lines which can
above what frequencies? convey electromagnetic waves only in
higher modes is us usually called
A. Above 3 GHz
B. Above 10 kHz A. Coaxial cable
C. At 300 MHz B. Waveguide
D. Above 10 GHz C. Power lines
D. Twisted wire of telephone line
85. Nominal voice channel bandwidth is
__________. 90. Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used
A. 20 to 30 kHz in waveguide?
B. 0 to 3 kHz
C. 4 kHz A. To increase the distributed capacitance
D. 55 kHz above B. To keep the waveguide dry
C. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of
86. Echo suppressors are used on all the guide
communications system when the round D. To raise the guides wave impedance
trip propagation time exceeds
__________. 91. The apparent speed of propagation
along a waveguide based on the
A. 50 ms distance between wavefronts along the
B. 30 ms walls of the guide is called
C. 100 ms
D. 1 ms A. Group velocity
B. Phase velocity
87. A radio transmission line of 300 C. Normal velocity
ohms impedance is to be connected to D. Abnormal velocity
an antenna having an input impedance
of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a 92. How do you couple In and out of a
quarter-wave matching line? waveguide?

A. 212 ohms A. Wrap coil of wire around one end of the

B. 250 ohms waveguide
C. 200 ohms B. Insertion of an E-probe into the
D. 150 ohms waveguide
C. Insertion of an H-loop into the waveguide
88. Quarter-wavelength line is used as D. Both B and C
__________.
A. Impedance transformer 93. A rectangular waveguide is operating
B. Lecher line in the dominant TE10 mode. The
C. Transmission line associated flux lines are established
D. Harmonic suppressor
A. Transversely across the narrow
dimension of the waveguide
B. Transversely across the wide dimension
of the waveguide
C. In the metal walls parallel to the direction
of propagation
D. In the metal walls perpendicular to the
direction of propagation

9|Page
COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW
94. For dominant mode of a rectangular
waveguide, the distance between 2
instantaneous consecutive position of
maximum field intensity is referred to as
half of the
A. Free-space wavelength
B. Cut-off wavelength in the wide dimension
C. Guide wavelength
D. Group wavelength
95. The guide wavelength in a
rectangular waveguide is
A. Equal to the free-space wavelength at
the cut-off frequency
B. Equal to the free-space wavelength for
the same signal frequency
C. Less than the free-space wavelength at
the cut-off frequency
D. Greater than the free-space
wavelength at the same signal frequency
96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave
power can only be transmitted in free
rectangular guide provided
A. The wider dimension is less than one-half
of the wavelength in free space
B. The narrow dimension is less than one-
quarter of the wavelength in free space
C. The wide dimension is greater than one-
half of the guide wavelength
D. The wide dimension is greater than
one-half of the wavelength in free space
97. If the signal frequency applied to a
rectangular guide is increased and the
dominant mode is employed
A. The free space wavelength is increased
B. The phase velocity increased
C. The guide wavelength is increased
D. The group velocity is increased
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98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a
arectangular waveguide and the
reflection angle is 20 degrees, what is
the value of the guide wavelength?
A. 6.10 cm
B. 5.32 cm
C. 4.78 cm
D. 5.00 cm
99. The inner dimension of a rectangular
waveguide are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. the
cutoff wavelength for the dominant mode
is
A. 1.75 cm
B. 3.5 cm
C. 7.0 cm
D. 0.4375 cm
100. A signal whose wavelength is 3.5
cm is being propagated along a guide
whose inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4
cm. What is the value of the guide
wavelength?
A. 3.12 cm
B. 3.89 cm
C. 3.57 cm
D. 6.30 cm
1. The frequency range over which a
rectangular waveguide is excited in the
dominant mode is limited to
A. The difference between the frequency for
which the reflection angle is 90 degrees and
the frequency for which angle is zero.
B. The difference between the frequency for
which the free space wavelength is equal to
cutoff value and the frequency for which the
free-space wavelength is equal to the guide
wavelength
C. The difference between the frequency
at which the cutoff wavelength is twice
the narrow dimension.
D. None of these
COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW
2. If a rectangular waveguide is to be
excited in the dominant mode, the E-
probe should be inserted
A. At the sealed end
B. At a distance of one quarter-
wavelength from the sealed end
C. At a distance of one-half wavelength
from the sealed end
D. At a distance of three-quarters of a
wavelength from the sealed end
3. A quarter-wave line is connected to an
RF generator and is shorted out at the
far end. What is the input impedance to
the line generator?
A. A low value of resistance
B. A high value of resistance
C. A capacitive resistance which is equal in
the value to the lines surge impedance
D. An inductive resistance which is equal to
the value to lines surge impedance
4. If the SWR on a transmission line has
a high value, the reason could be
A. An impedance mismatch between the
line and the load.
B. That the line is non-resonant
C. A reflection coefficient of zero at the load
D. That the load is matched to the line
5. If a quarter-wave transmission line is
shorted at one end
A. There is minimum current at the shorted
end
B. The line behaves as a parallel-tuned
circuit in relation to the generator
C. The line behaves as a series-turned
circuit in relation to the generator
D. There is a minimum voltage at the
shorted end.
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6. A 50 ohm transmission line is feeding an
antenna which represents a 50 ohms
resistive load. To shorten the line, the length
must be
A. Any convenient value
B. An odd multiple of three-quarters of a
wavelength
C. An odd multiple of half a wavelength
D. An even multiple of a quarter of a
wavelength
7. The outer conductor of the coaxial
cable is usually grounded
A. At the beginning and at the end of the
cable
B. Only at the beginning of the cable and
only at the end of the cable
C. Only at the end of the cable
D. At the middle of the cable
8. A feature of an infinite transmission
line is that
A. Its input impedance at the generator is
equal to the lines surge impedance
B. Its phase velocity is greater than the
velocity of light
C. No RF current will be drawn from the
generator
D. The impedance varies at different
positions on the line
9. When the surge impedance of a line is
matched to a load, the line will
A. Transfer maximum current to the load
B. Transfer maximum voltage to the load
C. Transfer maximum power to the load
D. Have a VSWR equal to zero
COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

10. A lossless line is terminated by a 16. __________ is a hollow structure that

resistive load which is not equal to the has no center conductor but allows
surge impedance. If the value of the waves to propagate down its length.
reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
A. Waveguide
A. 2 B. Hybrid
B. 3 C. Pipe
C. 4 D. Directional coupler
D. 15
17. To connect a coaxial line to a parallel
11. Ratio of the mismatch between the wire line, __________ is used.
antenna and the transmitter power.
A. Hybrid circuit
A. Standing wave pattern B. Balun
B. Reflection coefficient C. Directional coupler
C. SWR D. Quarter-wave transformer matching
D. Index of refraction circuit

12. Emission designation for a facsimile. 18. What length for which the input
power has been halved for a
A. H3E and A4E transmission line with an attenuation of
B. R3E and A4E 6 dB/km?
C. F4E and J3E
D. F3C and A3E A. 1.5 km
B. 0.5 km
13. Commonly used telephone wire. C. 63 km
D. 2 km
A. AWG #19
B. AWG #18
C. AWG #30 19. In a waveguide, __________ is a
D. AWG #33 specific configuration of electric and
magnetic fields that allows a wave to
14. What is the distance traveled by a propagate.
wave in the time of one cycle?
A. Set-up
A. Frequency B. Coupler
B. Hop C. Channel
C. Wavelength D. Mode
D. Crest
20. A rectangular waveguide has
15. The velocity factor is inversely dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. what is the
proportional with respect to the dominant mode cut-off frequency?
__________.
A. 2 GHz
A. Square of the dielectric constant B. 3 GHz
B. Square root of the dielectric constant C. 2.5 GHz
C. Dielectric constant D. 3.5 GHz
D. Square root of refractive index

12 | P a g e
COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

21. __________ are transmission lines 27. The characteristic impedance of a

which can convey electromagnetic transmission line does not depend upon
waves only in higher order modes? its

A. Coaxial cables A. Length

B. Twisted pairs of telephone wire B. Conductor diameter
C. Power cables C. Conductor spacing
D. Waveguides D. Dielectric material

22. The amount of uncertainty in a 28. One of the following is not a common
system of symbols is also called transmission line impedance.

A. Bandwidth A. 50 ohms
B. Loss B. 75 ohms
C. Entropy C. 120 ohms
D. Quantum D. 300 ohms

23. The twist in twisted wire pairs
A. Reduced electromagnetic interference
B. Occur at a 30 degree angle
C. Eliminate loading
D. Were removed due to cost
24. An example of a bounded medium is
A. Coaxial cable
B. Waveguide
C. Fiber-optic cable
D. All of the above
29. For maximum absorption of power at
the antenna, the relationship between
the characteristic impedance of the line
Zo and the load impedance ZL should be
A. Zo = ZL
B. Zo > ZL
C. Zo < ZL
D. Zo = 0
30. The mismatch between antenna and
transmission line impedance cannot be
corrected for by

25. Loading means the addition of A. Using LC matching network

B. Adjusting antenna length
A. Resistor C. Using a balun
B. Capacitor D. Adjusting the length of transmission
C. Bullet line
D. Inductance
31. __________ is a pattern of voltage
26. What is the most commonly used and current variations along a
transmission line for high frequency transmission line not terminated in its
application? characteristic impedance.

A. Two-wire balance line A. An electric field

B. Single wire B. Radio wave
C. Three-wire line C. Standing waves
D. Coaxial D. A magnetic field

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

32. Which is the desirable SWR on a

transmission line? 38. At very high frequencies,
transmission lines act as
A. 0
B. 1 A. Tuned circuits
C. 2 B. Antennas
D. Infinity C. Insulators
D. Resistors
33. A 50 ohms coax is connected to a 73
ohms antenna. What is the SWR? 39. A shorted quarter-wave line at the
operating frequency acts like a/an
A. 0.685
B. 1 A. Capacitor
C. 1.46 B. Inductor
D. 2.92 C. Series resonant circuit
D. Parallel resonant circuit
34. What is the most desirable reflection
coefficient? 40. A shorted half-wave line at the
operating frequency acts like a/an
A. 0
B. 0.5 A. Capacitor
C. 1 B. Inductor
D. Infinity C. Series resonant circuit
D. Parallel resonant circuit
35. What is the ratio expressing the
percentage of incident voltage reflected 41. A medium least susceptible to noise?
on a transmission line?
A. Shielded pair
A. Velocity factor B. Twisted pair
B. Standing-wave ratio C. Fiber-optic
C. Reflection coefficient D. Coaxial
D. Line efficiency
42. A medium most widely used in
36. The minimum voltage along a LANs?
transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V the SWR is A. Parallel-wire line
B. Twisted pair
A. 0.67 C. Fiber-optic
B. 1 D. Coaxial
C. 1.2
D. 1.5 43. The most commonly used
transmission line in television system.
37. One meter is one wavelength at a
frequency of A. Parallel-wire line
B. Coaxial cable
A. 150 MHz C. Waveguide
B. 164 MHz D. Open-wire with ceramic supports
C. 300 MHz
D. 328 MHz

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

44. The impedance of a TV transmission

line depends on several factors. Which is 49. Important useful quantities
not one of those factors? describing waveforms.

A. Diameter A. Time and frequency

B. Length of the wire B. Voltage an current
C. Dielectric material C. Frequency and voltage
D. Separation between conductors D. Power and frequency

45. DC blocks are used in coaxial 50. Halving the power means
transmission line for the purpose of
A. 6-dB gain
A. Passing DC while blocking AC B. 3-dB loss
B. Passing AC voltage but prevent DC C. 3-dB gain
C. Preventing AC voltage from reaching the D. 6-dB loss
pre-amplifier
D. Preventing AC power supply voltage 51. One neper (Np) is how many
from being shorted by a balun or band decibels?
splitter
A. 8.866
46. __________ is a type of interference B. 8.686
caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4, C. 8.688
plus a satellite dish operating on channel D. 8.868
3.
52. A signal is amplified 100 times in
A. Adjacent channel interference power. The dB gain is
B. Ghost
C. Co-channel interference A. 20 dB
D. CrosstalK B. 119 dB
C. 15 dB
47. Dithering is a process for D. 25 dB

A. Reducing the effect of noise on the 53. Which of the following is used to
TVRO video signal measure SWR?
B. Centering the video fine tuning on TVRO
channels A. Spectrum analyzer
C. Moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise B. Reflectometer
angle C. Oscilloscope
D. Moving the actuator exactly onto the D. Multimeter
desired satellite beam
54. 214-056 twin lead which is commonly
48. A network that has an input of 75 dB used for TV lead-in has a characteristics
and an output of 35 dB. The loss of the impedance of
network is __________.
A. 52 ohms
A. -40 dB B. 75 ohms
B. 40 dB C. 600 ohms
C. 40 dBm D. 300 ohms
D. -40 dBm

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55. What is the characteristics 59. In the preceding problem, calculate

impedance of a transmission line which the line current.
is to act as a quarterwave matching
transformer between a 175 ohms A. 1.7 A
transmission line and 600 ohms load? B. 1.3 A
C. 1.5 A
A. 300.04 ohms D. 1.0 A
B. 324.04 ohms
C. 310.04 ohms 60. Determine also the total attenuation
D. 320.04 ohms of the line in the preceding problem.

56. What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50 dB A. 2.0 dB

antenna connected to transmitter with an B. 1.5 dB
output of 10 kW through a transmission C. 2.5 dB
line with a loss of 5 dB? D. 1.0 dB

A. 85 dBW 61. What is the maximum subscriber

B. 955 dBW
C. 90 dBW
D. 80 dBw
57. If a quarterwave transformer is
required to match a 180 ohms load to a
transmission line with an impedance of
300 ohms, what should be the
characteristic impedance of the
matching transformer? Assume that the
matching transformer is to be connected
directly to the load.
A. 180 ohms
B. 232 ohms
C. 300 ohms
D. 480 ohms
58. A transmitter of 100 W RF power
output, 100 % modulated is operating on
a frequency of 169 MHz. the antenna
transmission line consists of a 50 ohms
coaxial cable 150 ft. long. The coaxial
inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162
in. Determine the outside diameter of the
outer conductor if the outer conductor
has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k =
1).
A. 1 in
B. 0.9 in
C. 0.7 in
D. 0.5 in
loop length, in ft., of a telephone system
of the signaling resistance is 1800 ohms
using a telephone cable pair of gauge #
26 with a loop resistance of 83.5 ohms
per 100 ft. assume the telephone set
resistance is equal of 200 ohms.
A. 15, 161.7 feet
B. 19, 161 feet
C. 15, 300 feet
D. 20, 000 feet
62. If the same subscriber loop above
limits the voice attenuation to a
maximum of 6 dB, what is the maximum
allowable subscriber loop length, in feet,
using the same gauge # 26 telephone
wire? Assume a 2.7 dB loss per mile.
A. 20,000 ft
B. 13,900 ft
C. 15,280 ft
D. 11, 733 ft
63. The input is 0.1 W and the network
gain is 13 dB, the output is
A. 2 W
B. 2.5 W
C. 1.5 W
D. 1.8 W

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69. To find the characteristic impedance

64. Known as one-tenth of a neper. of a coaxial cable, measurements are
made with (a) the far end open circuited
A. dB and (b) far end short circuited, the
B. dBm corresponding readings being
C. dBp a) Ro = 3 ohms and Xc = 55 ohms
D. dNp capacitive
b) Rs = 10 ohms and XL = 90 ohms
65. The input impedance of a inductive
quarterwave short-circuited What is the characteristic impedance,
transmission line at its resonant Zo, of the line?
frequency is
A. 75.7 j2.0 ohms
A. 0 ohms B. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms
B. Infinite or an open circuit C. 87.5 j5 ohms
C. Ohms D. 70.7 j1.97 ohms
D. 70 ohms
70. A TV antenna receives a signal
66. The ratio of the largest rms value to measured at 200 mV and is immediately
the smallest rms value of the voltage in amplified by a preamplified with a 15 dB
the line is called gain. This amplified signal then passes
through a coaxial cable with 3 dB loss,
A. SWR what is the resulting input to the TV set,
B. ISWR in dBmV?
C. VSWR
D. Coefficient of reflection A. 1.98
B. 13.98
67. An open-wire, two-wire transmission C. -1.98
line is to be connected to a dipole D. -13.98
antenna through a quarter-wave
matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, 71. The characteristic impedance of a
compute the length of the dipole. transmission line does not depend upon
its __________.
A. 20 m
B. 7.5 m A. Conductor spacing
C. 15 m B. Conductor diameter
D. 25 m C. Length
D. Conductor radius
68. From the preceding problem,
compute also the length of the 72. What does a power difference of -3
quarterwave stub. dB mean?

A. 15 m A. A loss of one third of the power

B. 7.5 m B. A loss of one half of the power
C. 20 m C. A loss of three watts of power
D. 25 m D. No significant change

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78. If the ratio of the maximum current to

73. Which of the following is an minimum current in a transmission line
advantage of the balance transmission is 2:1 then the ratio of maximum voltage
line? to minimum voltage is

A. Easy installation A. 4:1

B. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses B. 1:2
C. Low attenuation C. 1:4
D. None of these D. 2:1

74. Waveguides are used mainly for 79. Two wires of 600 ohms
microwave transmission because characteristics impedance is to be
constructed out of a number 12 wire (81
A. They are bulky at lower frequencies mils). Find the attenuation of the line at
B. Losses are heavy at lower frequencies 0.6 GHz per 100 feet length.
C. They depend on straight line propagation
D. No generators are powerful enough to A. 0.05 dB
excite them B. 0.55 dB
C. 0.44 dB
75. The input is 1 W and the network loss D. 0.35 dB
is 27 dB, the output is
80. In the preceding problem, determine
A. 1 mW the spacing between wires from center
B. 3 mW to center.
C. 2 mW
D. 4 mW A. 6 in
B. 4 in
76. A combiner has two inputs +30 dBm C. 5 in
and +30 dBm, what is the resultant D. 3 in
output?
81. A lossless transmission line has a
A. +36 dBm shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a
B. +30 dBm series inductance of 4 mH/m. What is the
C. +60 dBm characteristic impedance?
D. +33 dBm
A. 500 ohms
77. The ratio of the smallest to the B. 400 ohms
largest rms current value is called C. 300 ohms
D. 200 ohms
A. SWR
B. VSWR 82. A ten times power change in
C. ISWR transmission system is equivalent to
D. Coefficient of reflection
A. 10 dBm
B. 10 dB
C. 20 dB
D. 100 dB

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83. A type of transmission line employed 88. If an amplifier has equal input and
where balanced properties are requied. output impedances, what voltage ratio does
the gain of 50 dB represent?
A. Balun
B. Parallel-wire line A. 316.2
C. Coaxial line B. 325.2
D. Quarterwave line C. 320.1
D. 315

84. What is the characteristic impedance

of a transmission line which has a 89. What is the inductance per foot of a
capacitance of 40 nF/ft and an cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF per ft
inductance of 0.5 mH/ft and a characteristic impedance of 60 ohms?

A. 111.8 ohms A. 0.167 H per ft

B. 110.8 ohms B. 0.178 H per ft
C. 112.8 ohms C. 0.19 H per ft
D. 109.8 ohms D. 0.18 H per ft

85. The input power to a loss-free cable 90. The ratio between the energy absorbed
is 5 W. If the reflected power is 7 dB by a surface to the total energy received by
down on the incident power, the output the surface.
power to the load is
A. Reflection coefficient
A. 4 W B. Absorption coefficient
B. 5 W C. Linear coefficient
C. 6 W D. Thermal coefficient
D. 7 W
91. When the diameter of the conductors of
86. To be properly matched the ratio of a a 2 wire transmission line is held constant,
maximum voltage along a transmission line the effect of decreasing the distance
should be equal to between the conductors is

A. 1 A. Increase the surge impedance

B. 10 B. Increase the radiation resistance
C. 50 C. Decrease the SWR
D. 2 D. Decrease the impedance

87. A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 92. The higher the gauge number of a
6 mm has a 50 ohms characteristic conductor
impedance. If the dielectric constant of the
insulation is 1.60, calculate the inner A. The bigger the diameter
diameter. B. The higher the resistance of the
smaller the diameter
A. 2.09 cm C. The higher the resistance
B. 2.09 in D. None of these
C. 2.09 mm
D. 2.09 mm 93. A short length of transmission line used

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to a reduce/eliminate standing waves in the 98. In the preceding problem, what is the
main transmission line. attenuation in dB per 100 ft. of the line
for a frequency of 4MHz?
A. Stub
B. Balun A. 0.05
C. ?/4 transformer B. 0.03
D. slot C. 0.04
D. 0.06

99. What is the SWR when the

94. Ratio of reflected power to incident transmission line is terminated in a short
power? circuit?

A. Incidence A. Zero
B. Reflectance B. One
C. Reflection index C. Infinite
D. None of these D. Indeterminate

95. A quarter wave transformer is used 100. An instrument designed to measure

to match a 600 ohms load antenna to a a frequency-weighted value of the sound
line of 52 ohms impedance, the pressure level.
characteristic impedance of the
matching transformer is A. Sound level meter
B. Transducer
A. 200 ohms C. Sound pressure meter
B. 150 ohms D. Sound analyzer
C. 176 ohms
D. 300 ohms A unit of noisiness related to the
perceived noise level
96. What is the capacitance of 55 miles
#44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From A. Noy
wire tables, # 44 wire has a radius to B. Sone
0.10215 in. C. dB
D. Phone
A. 0.467 F
B. 0.467 nF 1. An agreed set of empirical curves
C. 0.467 pF relating octave-band sound pressure
D. 0.467 fF level to the center frequency of the
octave bands.
97. A two-wire transmission line consists
of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). The A. C-message weighting curve
distance between wire centers is 10 B. Psophometric weighting curve
inches. What is the characteristic C. Noise rating curves
impedance of the line? D. F1A weighting curve

A. 650 ohms 2. The frequency of a free vibration.

B. 300 ohms
C. 600 ohms A. Resonant frequency
D. 660 ohms B. Natural frequency
C. Center frequency
D. Normal frequency

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3. The transmission of sound from one
room to an adjacent room, via common
walls, floors or ceilings.
A. Flanking transmission
B. Refraction
C. Reflection
D. Reverberation
4. A measure of threshold of hearing
expressed in decibels relative to a
specified standard of normal hearing.
A. Hearing loss
B. Sensation level
C. Hearing level
D. Sound pressure level
5. A certain machine with a slightly out-
of-balance motor rotating at 1800 per
min is fixed on a perfectly elastic mount
with a static compression of 2.50 mm.
Calculate the resonant frequency of
mount.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 30 Hz
D. 40 Hz
6. Calculate the lowest resonant
frequency for a brick partition 120 mm
thick, 4m by 2 m in area with longitudinal
wave velocity of 2350 meter per sec.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 30 Hz
D. 40 Hz
7. Velocity of sound in air
A. 300 meter per sec
B. 330 meter per sec
C. 1130 meter per sec
D. 344 meter per sec
8. What is the expected critical frequency
for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a
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longitudinal wave velocity in brick of
2350 meter per sec. and that the velocity
of sound in air is 330 meter per sec.
A. 114.5 Hz
B. 214.5 Hz
C. 314.5 Hz
D. 414.5 Hz
9. The sound power level of a certain jet
plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB
(re10^-12 W). Find the maximum sound
pressure level on the ground directly
below the flight path assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equally in all
directions.
A. 59.1 Hz
B. 69.1 Hz
C. 79.1 Hz
D. 89.1 Hz
10. Speaker is a device that
A. Converts sound waves into current and
voltage
B. Converts current variations into
sound waves
C. Converts electrical energy to mechanical
energy
D. Converts electrical energy into
electromagnetic energy
11. Which type of microphone operates
on the principle that the electrical
resistance of carbon granules varies as
the pressure on the granules vary?
A. Dynamic
B. Cystal
C. Carbon
D. Ribbon-type
12. Bass response is
A. maximum high frequency response
B. emphasizing the high audio frequencies
C. bypassing high audio frequencies
D. bypassing low audio frequencies
COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

13. Pure tone of sound used as standard D. Pressure variation

on testing.
19. What is the unit of pitch?
A. 1Hz
B. 10Hz A. Sone
C. 100Hz B. Phon
D. 1000Hz C. Decibel
D. Mel
14. _______ is early reflection of sound.
20. A measure of the intensity of sound
A. Echo in comparison to another sound
B. Reverberation intensity..
C. Pure sound
D. Intelligible sound A. Phon
B. Decibel
15. Noise reduction system used for film C. Pascal
sound in movie. D. Watts

A. dolby 21. Sound wave has two main

B. dBa characteristics which are
C. dBx
D.dBk A. highness and loudness
B. tone and loadness
16. What is the sound energy per unit C. pitch and loudness
area at right angles to the propagation D. rarefraction and compression
direction per unit time?
22. Which type of microphone operated
A. Loudness by electromagnetic induction that
B. Coherence generates an output signal voltage?
C. Sound pressure
D. Sound intensity A. Carbon
B. Dynamic
17. _______ is the unit of loudness level C. Crystal
of a sound. D. Condenser

A. Sone 23. The exciter lamp in the optical sound

B. Decibel part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V.
C. Mel How much power in watts is this light
D. Phon bulb consuming

A. 10 watts
B. 20 watts
18. __________ is the average rate of C. 40 watts
transmission of sound energy in a given D. 50 watts
direction through a cross-section area of
1 sq. m. at right angles to the direction.

A. Sound pressure
B. Loudness
C. Sound intensity

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24. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 28. Sound waves travel in water at a
ft per sec. What frequency has a _______ speed.
wavelength of 1 foot, 1.5 inches?
A. 12.4 miles per sec
A. 500 Hz B. 5000 ft per sec
B. 1000 Hz C. 186, 000 ft per sec
C. 1500 Hz D. 3141 ft per sec
D. 2000 Hz
29. What is the sound power from a
25. The wire that must bring 100 average motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5
watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must m is 87 dB assuming that it radiates
safely carry what rms current? sound uniformly?

A. 2 A A. 0.15 W
B. 4 A B. 0.21 W
C. 5 A C. 0.24 W
D. 6 A D. 0.18 W

26. A church has an internal volume of 30. Crest-to-crest distance along the
90, 05 cu. ft (2,550 cu. m). When it direction of wave travel.
contains 2,000 customary sabines of
absorption (186 metric sabines), what A. Compression
will be its reverberation time in seconds. B. Wavelength
C. Period
A. 2.0 D. Sound wave
B. 2.2
C. 2.5 31. Sound intensity level is _______.
D. 3.0
A. 10 log l per lref
27. If the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb per B. 10 log P per Pref
sq. ft, what is the sound pressure level? C. 20 log l per lref
D. 30 log P per Pref
A. 7.6 dB
B. 108 dB 32. Sound pressure level is _______.
C. 88 dB
D. 10 Db A. 20 log P per Pref
B. 30 log P per Pref
27. Speed that is faster than speed of C. 10 log P per Pref
sound. D. 20 log l per lref

A. Ultrasonic 33. The most important specification of

B. Supersonic loudspeakers and microphones.
C. Subsonic
D. Transonic A. Frequency response
B. Field strength
C. Power density
D. Gain

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34. Lowest frequency produced by a

musical instrument.

A. Midrange
B. Harmonic
C. Fundamental
D. Period

35. Tendency of a sound energy to

spread.

A. Diffraction
B. Rarefaction
C. Reflection
D. Refraction

36. When waves bend away from straight

lines of travel, it is called _______.

A. reflection
B. diffraction
C. rarefaction
D. refraction

37. Required time for any sound to decay

to 60 dB.

A. Echo time
B. Delay time
C. Reverberation time
D. Transient time

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