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** Complete Solved Paper with Explanations** ( UGC NET
January 2017 Computer Science & Application- Paper-II)
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Here I provide the complete solutions and explanations of Paper-II
of UGC NET January 2017 in Computer Science & Applications.
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Due care has been taken while solving the questions, if some
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**Complete
1. Consider a sequence F00 defined as: Solved
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Then what shall be the set of values of the sequence F00?
(a) (1, 110, 1200) 2016 (9)
(b) (1, 110, 600, 1200)
(c) (1, 2, 55, 110, 600, 1200)
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(d) (1, 55, 110, 600, 1200)

*Mock Test For GATE* (Exclusively

Solution: F00(2) = (10*F00(1) + 100)/ F00(0)
designed for GATE 2017)
= 110
F00(3) = (10*F00(2) + 100)/F00(1) Here is a mock test designed for GATE 2017.
= 1200 Candidates can test their preparation based
F00(4) = (10*F00(3) + 100)/F00(2) on their performance in this test. Our only aim
= 110 he...
Since the values keep on repeating after these three values, the set of values for F00 will be {1, 110,
1200}
Ans: (A)

2. Match the following:

List-I List-II
a. Absurd i. Clearly impossible being
contrary to some evident truth.
b. Ambiguous ii. Capable of more than one
interpretation or meaning.
c. Axiom iii. An assertion that is accepted
and used without a proof.
d. Conjecture iv. An opinion Preferably based
on some experience or wisdom.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) ii i iii iv

This is the simple word-meaning problem. Answer is Option (A).

3. The functions mapping R into R are defined as:

f(x) = x 3-4x, g(x)=1/(x 2+1) and h(x)=x 4
Then find the value of the following composite functions:

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hog(x) and hogof(x)
(A) (x 2+1)4 and [(x 3-4x)2+1]4
(B) (x 2+1)4 and [(x 3-4x)2+1]- 4
(C) (x 2+1)- 4 and [(x 3-4x)2+1]4
(D) (x 2+1) 4 and [(x 3-4x)2+1]- 4

Solution: h0g(x)= h(1/(x 2+1) ) = (x 2+1) 4

h0g0f(x) = h0g(x 3-4x) = h( (x 3-4x)2+1)) = [(x 3-4x)2+1]- 4
Correct option is (D)

4. How many multiples of 6 are there between the following pairs of numbers?
0 and 100 and -6 and 34
(A) 16 and 6
(B) 17 and 6
(C) 17 and 7
(D) 16 and 7

Solution: To find out the number of multiples from 1 to 100, we need to divide 100 by 6. We get
16.3, we need to take lower bound of this. Since the range starts from 0, we need to add this too.
Total numbers will be 17.

From 0 to 34, there will be (5+1) multiples. Since -6 is also a multiple, total number of multiples
will be 7.
Correct option is (C).

5. Consider a Hamiltonian Graph G with no loops or parallel edges and with |V(G)|=n3. Then
which of the following is true?
(A) deg(v) n/2 for each vertex v.
(B) |E(G)| 1/2(n-1)(n-2)+2
(C) deg(v)+deg(w) n whenever v and w are not connected by an edge.
(D) All of the above

Solution: Wikipedia says: In the mathematical field of graph theory, a Hamiltonian path (or
traceable path) is a path in an undirected or directed graph that visits each vertex exactly once. A
Hamiltonian cycle (or Hamiltonian circuit) is a Hamiltonian path that is a cycle.
Since, Hamiltonian cycle satisfies all the properties given in the options. Correct option is (D)

6. In propositional logic if (PQ)(RS) and (PR) are two premises such that

Y is the premise:
(A) PR
(B) PS
(C) QR
(D) QS
Solution: (PQ)(RS) means if P is true, then Q has to be true, and if R is true then S has to
be true.
In the second statement, it says that P or Q is true, it means either Q or S will be true.
Correct option is (D).

7. ECL is the fastest of all logic families. High Speed in ECL is possible because transistors are
used in difference amplifier configuration, in which they are never driven into ...............
(A) Race condition
(B) Saturation
(C) Delay
(D) High impedance

ECL is fastest logic family among all and this is due to avoidance
Solution:
of saturation region for application.
Ans: (B)

8. A binary 3-bit down counter uses J-K flip-flops, FFi with inputs Ji, Ki and outputs Qi, i=0,1,2
respectively. The minimized expression for the input from following, is
I. J0=K0=0

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II. J0=K0=1
III. J1=K1=Q0
IV. J1=K1=Q'0
V. J2=K2=Q1Q0
Vl. J2=K2=Q'1Q'0

(A) I, Ill, V
(B) I, IV, VI
(C) Il, III, V
(D) Il, IV, Vl

Solution: Ans: (D)

9. Convert the octal number 0.4051 into its equivalent decimal number.
(A) 0.5100098
(B) 0.2096
(C) 0.52
(D) 0.4192

Solution: Step 1:Take the given octal number.

Step 2: Find out the number of digits in the number
Step 3: Let it have n digits.
Step 4: Multiply each digit in the number with 8n-1,when the digit is in the nth position.
Step 5: Add all digits after multiplication.
Step 6: The resultant is the equivalent decimal to the given octal number.
If octal number contains a decimal point
Step 7: Let m digits are there after the decimal
Step 8: Multiply each digit after decimal with 1/8^m ,when the digit is the mth position.

Ans: (A)

10. The hexadecimal equivalent of the octal number 2357 is:

(A) 2EE
(B) 2FF
(C) 4EF
(D) 4FE

Solution: Step 1: Consider the given hexadecimal number

Step 2: First count the number of digits in the number
Step 3: If n is the position of the digit from the right end then multiply each digit with 16n-1
Step 4: Add the terms after multiplication
Step 5: Resultant is the equivalent decimal form
Step 6: Divide the decimal number with 8
Step 7: Note down the remainder
Step 8: Continue step 6 and 7 with the quotient, until the quotient is zero
Step 9: Write the remainders in reverse order
Step 10: The obtained number is the required result.

Ans: (C)

11. Which of the following cannot be passed to a function in C++?

(A) Constant
(B) Structure
(C) Array
(D) Header file

Ans: (D)

12. Which one of the following is correct for overloaded functions in C++?
(A) Compiler sets up a separate function for every definition of function.
(B) Compiler does not set up a separate function for every definition of function.
(C) Overloaded functions cannot handle different types of objects.
(D) Overloaded functions cannot have same number of arguments.

Solution: When you call an overloaded function or operator, the compiler determines the most
appropriate definition to use by comparing the argument types you used to call the function or
operator with the parameter types specified in the definitions. The process of selecting the most
appropriate overloaded function or operator is called overload resolution.
Ans: (A)

13. Which of the following storage classes have global visibility in C/C++?

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(A) Auto
(B) Extern
(C) Static
(D) Register

Ans: (B)

14. Which of the following operators cannot be overloaded in C/C++?

(A) Bitwise right shift assignment
(B) Address of
(C) Indirection
(D) Structure reference

Solution: Ans: (D)

15. If X is a binary number which is power of 2, then the value of

X&(X-1) is:
(A) 11....11
(B) 00.....00
(C) 100.....0
(D) 000.....1

Solution: A number X which is a power of 2 will have 1 at MSB and all other bits 0. In that way, X-1,
will have all its bit 0 except for its MSB which is 0. If we take bitwise AND of these two numbers, it
will be all 0's.

Ans: (B)

16. An attribute A of datatype varchar(20) has value 'Ram' and the attribute B of datatype char(20)
has value 'Sita' in oracle. The attribute A has .......... memory spaces and B has .......... memory
spaces.
(A) 20, 20
(B) 3, 20
(C) 3, 4
(D) 20, 4

Solution: In varchar, the size of the string is determined by the actual size of the string not by its
allocated space. So, in this question, "Ram" will be of size 3, but in case of char, the specified
space is the actual size.
Ans: (B)

17. Integrity constraints ensure that changes made to the database by authorized users do not
result into loss of data consistency. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true w.r.t. the
examples of integrity constraints?
(A) An instructor Id. No. cannot be null, provided Instructor Id. No. being primary key.
(B) No two citizens have same Adhar-Id.
(C) Budget of a company must be zero.
(1) (A), (B) and (C) are true.
(2) (A) false, (B) and (C) are true.
(3) (A) and (B) are true; (C) false.
(4) (A), (B) and (C) are false.

Solution: Answer is Option (3). No Solution Required!

18. Let M and N be two entities in an E-R diagram with simple single valued attributes. R1 and
R2 are two relationships between M and N, whereas
R1 is one-to-many and R2 is many-to-many.
The minimum number of tables required to represent M, N, R1 and R2 in the relational model
are ..........
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 3

Solution: Strong entities E1 and E2 are represented as separate tables.

In addition to that many-to-many relationships(R2) must be converted as seperate table by having
primary keys of E1 and E2 as foreign keys.

One-to-many relationship (R1) must be transferred to many side table(i.e. E2) by having primary
key of one side(E1) as foreign key( this way we need not to make a seperate table for R1).

Correct option is (D).

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19. Consider a schema R(MNPQ) and functional dependencies MN, PQ. Then the
decomposition of R into R1(MN) and R2(PQ) is .............

(A) Dependency preserving but not lossless join.

(B) Dependency preserving and lossless join
(C) Lossless join but not dependency preserving
(D) Neither dependency preserving nor lossless join.

Solution: As we know, the common attributes between R1 and R2 should be a key for any one of
the relations, then the decomposition is said to be a lossless one. But here there is no common
attribute, so its not a lossless decomposition. In addition to that, both dependencies are preserved
in the given decomposition.
Ans: (A)

20. The order of a leaf node in a B+ tree is the maximum number of children it can have. Suppose
that block size is 1 kilobytes, the child pointer takes 7 bytes long and search field value takes 14
bytes long. The order of the leaf node is ............
(A) 16
(B) 63
(C) 64
(D) 65

Solution: Disk Block size = 1024 bytes Data Record Pointer size, r = 7 bytes Value size, V = 9
bytes Disk Block ptr, P = 6 bytes
Let order of leaf be m. A leaf node in B+ tree contains at most m record pointers, at most m
values, and one disk block pointer. r*m + V*m + p <= 1024 16m <= 1018 m =< 63

Ans: (B)

21.

Which of the following is true for computation time in insertion, deletion and finding maximum and
minimum element in a sorted array?
(A) Insertion-O(1), Deletion-O(1), Maximum-O(1), Minimum-O(1)
(B) Insertion-O(1), Deletion-O(1), Maximum-O(n), Minimum-O(n)
(C) Insertion-O(n), Deletion-O(n), Maximum-O(1), Minimum-O(1)
(D) Insertion-O(n), Deletion-O(n), Maximum-O(n), Minimum-O(n)

Solution: To insert an element in a sorted array, in the worst case we may have to scan the whole
array, so the complexity will be O(n). Same is the case for deletion.
However finding the maximum/minimum element is trivial. It takes O(1) time.
Ans: (C)

22.

The seven elements A, B, C, D, E, F and G are pushed onto a stack in reverse order, i.e., starting
from G. The stack is popped five times and each element is inserted into a queue. Two elements
are deleted from the queue and pushed back onto the stack. Now, one element is popped from the
stack. The popped item is ...................
(A) A
(B) B
(C) F
(D) G

Solution: This is how the stack will look after inserting the elements:
A
B
C
D
E
F
G

After popping these elements and inserting them into a queue, this is how the queue will look:
A B C D E

Now, A and B are deleted from the queue and inserted into the stack.
B
A
F
G
Now the item to be popped is B.
Ans: (B)

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23. Which of the following is a valid heap?

Solution: Since, in figure A, 8 comes below 4, it is not a valid heap.

In figure C, 7 comes below 1, it is not a valid heap, same is the case for figure D.
Ans: (B)

24. If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used to hash n keys into a
table of size m, where nm, the expected number of collisions involving a particular key x is less
than ...................
(A) 1
(B) 1/n
(C) 1/m
(D) n/m

Solution: Expected number of collisions is 1.

Ans: (A)

25. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Optimal binary search tree construction can be performed efficiently using dynamic
programming.
(B) Breadth-first search cannot be used to find connected components of a graph.
(C) Given the prefix and postfix walks of a binary tree, the tree cannot be re-constructed uniquely.
(D) Depth-first-search can be used to find the components of a graph.
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

Ans: (B)

26. Match the following Layers and Protocols for a user browsing with SSL:
a. Application of layer i. TCP
b. Transport layer ii. IP
c. Network layer iii. PPP
d. Datalink layer iv. HTTP
Codes:
abcd
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii i iv ii

Ans: (A)

27. The maximum size of the data that the application layer can pass on to the TCP layer below is
.........
(A) 216 bytes
(B) 216 bytes + TCP header length
(C) 216 bytes - TCP header length
(D) 215 bytes

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Solution: The default TCP Maximum Segment Size is 536. Where a host wishes to set the
maximum segment size to a value other than the default, the maximum segment size is specified
as a TCP option, initially in the TCP SYN packet during the TCP handshake. Because the
maximum segment size parameter is controlled by a TCP option, a host can change the value in
any later segment.

Ans: (Marks To All)

28. A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment is sent to ..............
(A) File server
(B) DNS server
(C) DHCP server
(D) Default gateway

Solution: A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment is sent to
default gateway.
Ans: (D)

29. Distance vector routing algorithm is a dynamic routing algorithm. The routing tables in distance
vector routing algorithm are updated ...........
(A) automatically
(B) by server
(C) by exchanging information with neighbour nodes.
(D) with back up database

Solution: A distance-vector routing protocol requires that a router inform its neighbors of topology
changes periodically.

Ans: (C)
30. In link state routing algorithm after the construction of link state packets, new routes are
computed using:
(A) DES algorithm
(B) Dijkstra's algorithm
(C) RSA algorithm
(D) Packets

Solution: In link state routing algorithm we uUse a routing protocol to collect the whole network
topology , then we obtain destination reachability information as well as link weights/states and
then we have to compute shortest paths using Dijkstras algorithm from a node to all other nodes.

Ans: (B)

31. Which of the following strings would match the regular expression: p+[3-5]*[xyz]?
I. p443y
Il. p6y
III. 3xyz
IV. p35z
V. p353535x
Vl. ppp5
(A) I, III and Vl only
(B) IV, V and VI only
(C) II, IV and V only
(D) I, IV and V only

Solution: Since, p has to be present as the first character of each string, III string is not valid and
also p occurs only once, so VI becomes invalid.
Since 6 is not a part of the set, II string is also invalid.

Ans: (D)

32. Consider the following assembly language instructions:

mov al, 15
mov ah, 15
xor al, al
mov cl, 3
shr ax, cl
add al, 90H
adc ah, 0
What is the value in ax register after execution of above instructions?
(A) 0270H
(B) 0170H
(C) 01E0H
(D) 0370H

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Ans: (A)

33. Consider the following statements related to compiler construction:

I. Lexical Analysis is specified by context-free grammars and implemented by pushdown
automata.
II. Syntax Analysis is specified by regular expressions and implemented by finite-state machine.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only l
(B) Only ll
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor Il

Solution:
Lexical Analysis is specified by regular expressions and implemented by finite-state machine.
SyntaxAnalysis is specified by context-free grammars and implemented by pushdown automata.

Ans: (D)

34. The contents of Register (BL) and Register (AL) of 8085 microprocessor are 49H and 3AH
respectively. The contents of AL, the status of carry flag (CF) and sign flag (SF) after executing
'SUB AL, BL' assembly language instruction, are
(A) AL=0FH; CF=1; SF=1
(B) AL=F0H; CF=0; SF=0
(C) AL=F1H; CF=1; SF=1
(D) AL=1FH; CF=1; SF=1

Ans: (A)

35. Which of the following statement(s) regarding a linker software is/are true?
I. A function of a linker is to combine several object modules into a single load module.
II. A function of a linker is to replace absolute references in an object module by symbolic
references to locations in other modules.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor Il

Solution: Both functions are performed by Linkers.

Ans: (C)

36. There are three processes P1, P2 and P3 sharing a semaphore for synchronising a variable.
Initial value of semaphore is one. Assume that negative value of semaphore tells us how many
processes are waiting in queue. Processes access the semaphore in following order:
(a) P2 needs to access
(b) P1 needs to access
(c) P3 needs to access
(d) P2 exits critical section
(e) Pi exits critical section
The final value of semaphore will be:

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) -1
(D) -2

Solution: Initially the value of semaphore S is 1.

After (a) S=0
(b) S=-1
(c) S= -2
(d) S= -1
(e) S= 0

Ans: (A)

37. In a paging system, it takes 30 ns to search translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) and 90 ns to
access the main memory. If the TLB hit ratio is 70%, the effective memory access time is:
(A) 48 ns
(B) 147 ns
(C) 120 ns
(D) 84 ns
Solution: We can assume single level paging and TLB look and page table look happens
sequentially meaning TLB look time is to be considered even for TLB miss. On a TLB miss we
need to access main memory for getting the physical address for the page table before doing the

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actual memory access for the data.

Effective access time = Hit ratio*Time during hit + Miss Ratio * Time During Miss

=0.7*(30+90) + 0.3 (30+90+90)

= 84 + 63

=147 ns

Ans: (B)

38. Match the following w.r.t. Input/Output management:

List-l List-II
a. Device controller i. Extracts information from the
controller register and store it
in data buffer
b. Device driver ii. I/O scheduling
c. Interrupt handler iii. Performs data transfer
d. Kernel I/O subsystem iv. Processing of I/O request
Codes:
abcd
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) i iii iv ii

Ans: (D)

39. Which of the following scheduling algorithms may cause starvation?

a. First-come-first-served
b. Round Robin
c. Priority
d. Shortest process next
e. Shortest remaining time first
(A) a, c and e
(B) c, d and e
(C) b, d and e
(D) b, c and d
Solution: Out of the given protocols, only round-robin is sure of not getting the starvation. However,
we can assume FCFS to be starvation-free (Only by looking at the options).

Ans: (B)

40. Distributed operating systems consist of:

(A) Loosely coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware
(B) Loosely coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware
(C) Tightly coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware
(D) Tightly coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware

Solution: These systems are referred as loosely coupled systems where each processor has its
own local memory and processors communicate with one another through various communication
lines, such as high speed buses or telephone lines. By loosely coupled systems, we mean that
such computers possess no hardware connections at the CPU - memory bus level, but are
connected by external interfaces that run under the control of software.

Ans: (A)

41. Software Engineering is an engineering discipline that is concerned with:

(A) how computer systems work.
(B) theories and methods that underlie computers and software systems.
(C) all aspects of software production.
(D) all aspects of computer-based systems development, including hardware, software and
process engineering.

Ans: (C)

42. Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects addressed by McCall's
software quality factors?
(A) Ability to undergo change.
(B) Adaptability to new environments.

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(C) Operational characteristics
(D) Production costs and scheduling
Ans: (D)

43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to software architecture?
S1: Coupling is a measure of how well the things grouped together in a module belong together
logically.
S2: Cohesion is a measure of the degree of interaction between software modules.
S3: If coupling is low and cohesion is high then it is easier to change one module without affecting
others.
(A) Only S1 and S2
(B) Only S3
(C) All of S1, S2 and S3
(D) Only S1

Solution: Cohesion is a measure of how well the things grouped together in a module belong
together logically. Coupling is a measure of the degree of interaction between software modules. If
coupling is low and cohesion is high then it is easier to change one module without affecting
others.

Ans: (B)

44. The Prototyping model of software development is:

(A) a reasonable approach when requirements are well-defined.
(B) a useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
(C) the best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
(D) a risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.

Ans: (B)

45. A software design pattern used to enhance the functionality of an object at run-time is:
(A) Adapter
(B) Decorator
(C) Delegation
(D) Proxy

Ans: (B)

46. Match the following:

List-l List-II
a. Affiliate marketing i. Vendors ask partners to place
logos on partner's site. If customers
click, come to vendors and buy.
b. Viral Marketing ii. Spread your brand on the net by
word-of-mouth. Receivers will send
your information to their friends.
c. Group Purchasing iii. Aggregating the demands of small
buyers to get a large volume. Then
negotiate a price.
d. Bartering Online iv. Exchanging surplus Products and
services with the process administered
completely online by an intermediary.
Company receives points for its contribution.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) ii iii i iv

Ans: (A)

47. ............ refers loosely to the process of semi-automatically analysing large databases to find
useful patterns.
(A) Datamining
(B) Data Warehousing
(C) DBMS
(D) Data mirroring

Solution: Data Mining refers loosely to the process of semi-automatically analysing large
databases to find useful patterns.

Ans: (A)

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48. Which of the following is/are true w.r.t. applications of mobile computing?
(A) Travelling of salesman
(B) Location awareness services
(1) (A) true; (B) false
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) false; (B) true.

Ans: (2)

49. In 3G network, W-CDMA is also known as UMTS. The minimum spectrum allocation required
for W-CDMA is ..........
(A) 2 MHz
(B) 20 KHz
(C) 5 KHz
(D) 5 MHz

Ans: (D)

50. Which of the following statements is/are true w.r.t. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)?
(A) ERP automates and integrates majority of business processes.
(B) ERP provides access to information in a Real Time Environment.
(C) ERP is inexpensive to implement.
(1) (A), (B) and (C) are false.
(2) (A) and (B) false; (C) true.
(3) (A) and (B) true; (C) false
(4) (A) true; (B) and (C) are false

Ans: (3)

Posted by Shivang Agarw al at 07:31

Recommend this on Google

13 comments:

TRIBIKRAM PRADHAN 24 January 2017 at 11:30

Very helpful site. All solutions are accurate. keep up the good work. God bless you.

Reply

ashish 24 January 2017 at 16:41

Thanks for the Paper 2 solution !please post the paper 3 solutions also.
Reply

Replies

Shivang Agarwal 26 January 2017 at 10:58

http://thegatemonk.blogspot.in/2017/01/solved-paper-ugc-net-paper-iii-
computer.html

Reply

jahangir 24 January 2017 at 23:01

Nice one thanx

Reply

Chahat Monga 25 January 2017 at 00:08

http://thegatemonk.blogspot.in/2017/01/solved-paper-ugc-net-january-2017.html 11/13
15/02/2017 The GATE monk : ** Complete Solved Paper with Explanations** ( UGC NET January 2017 Computer Science & Application- Paper-II)
Sir plzzz explain question no. 20
Reply

Anshul Sharma 25 January 2017 at 20:58

Good work.
Very helpful

Reply

vibhav singh 26 January 2017 at 06:29

Excellent Work...
Very helping

Reply

Revathi sundararajan 26 January 2017 at 07:40

Thank u so much
Reply

PINKY SHARMA 29 January 2017 at 00:16

thanks a lot sir

Reply

PINKY SHARMA 29 January 2017 at 00:17

thankx a lot sir...

Reply

Nagaveni B 30 January 2017 at 21:44

awesome work. very helpfull. thank you sir
Reply

pankaj paul 30 January 2017 at 23:25

34 out of 100
without prep
hhaha proud to myself
Reply

Param 7 February 2017 at 23:36

Gud job.... All d best!!!

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