Pathology Chapter 9- Diseases of heart and blood

vessels

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airbud123's version from 3-2-2015

Section 1
Question
leading killer among all sexes and
races
predisposing factors for cardiovascular
disease
congestive heart failure
what exactly happens during
congestive heart failure
what is the most common cause of
right-sided cardiac failure
what occurs during right sided cardiac
failure
what is most common cause of left side
cardiac failure
what occurs during left side cardiac
failure
individuals with left side heat failure
usually experiience what
what is dyspnea
why is less blood entering the kidney
bad
fibrillation
arrhythmia
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Answer
cardiovascular disease
high blood pressure, drug abuse, hihg cholestoral, tobacco, bad
activity/nutrition
heart is unable to pump as much blood as the venous system supplies
blood is left in the ventricles and venous system, which results in no blood in
arterial system. Fluids accumulate and the heart is burdened
disorder of the left ventricle
anasarca is developed especially in hands, feet, abdomen. Enlargement of ab
organs is also available
high blood pressure, mitral or aortic valve disease, coronary artery disease,
myocardium disease
pulmonary edema, due to the heart not able to remove fluid
dyspnea
shortness of breath
kidneys absorb more sodium and more blood volume in vascular sytem
increases clotting chances
quivering or spontaneous contraction of individual cardiac cells
loss of the normal beating rhythm of the heart
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Section 2
Question Answer
what are the two types of cardiac hypertrophy and cardiac dilatation
enlargement of the heart
cardiac hypertrophy an increase in the size of the heart or an increase in the size of part of the heart
due to an increase in the size of the muscle fibers
cardiac dilatation pathological condition in which heart or a chamber of the heart increases in size
due to a streching of the muscle fibers in the walls of the chambers
what occurs as the heart increases
in size
difference between athletic heart
and diseased heart
what does streched muscle fibers
of the heart result in
myocardial infarction
infarction
the demand for oxygen of cells increases
capillary beds off the iseased myocardium do not increase in size, which starves
heart for oxygen
damag to cardiac septum or heart valves, allowing backflow of the heart
what is known as a heart attack
formation of an area of necrosis in a tissue caused by obstruction in the artery
supplying the area
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Section 3
Question Answer
what are most heart attack the blood clot within the coronary artery that blocks the flow of blood to the heart
result of muscle (thrombosis)
what does a myocardial infarction necrosis has occured in an area of the heart muscle as a result of reduced blood
indicate flow through the coronary artery
angina pectoris chest pain that is associated with heart attacks
symptoms of heart attck crushing sensation, nausea, vomitng, hard breathing, fear
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Section 4
Question Answer
endocarditis inflammation of the lining of the heart ir the heart valves, often due to infection
what my cause endocarditis lining of the heart is damaged due to bllod clots and bacteria infect the tissues
what does damaged heart valves disrupt the flow of blood thorugh the heart because the heart valves are unable to
od to the heart properly function
the implamantaion of what can artificial heart valves
cause endocarditis
where does endocarditis infection to the kidney, inflaming the renal blood vessels
spread
pericardium tough fibrous layer that surrounds the heart and attaches to the diaphragm,
sternum, and cartilage
pericarditis inflammation of the protective tissues that surround the heart
two common causes of infections and blunt force trauma
pericarditis
cardiac tamponade occurs during the inflammatory process in which an excessive amount of fluid
accumulates within the pericardial sac
difference between pericarditis pericarditis- inflammation of the pericardial sac that surround the heart; tampon-
and cardiac tamponade decrease in blood pressure due to accumulation of fluids in the pericardial sac
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 Section 5
Question
cardiomyopathy
alcoholic cardiomyopathy
hypertophic cardiomyopathy
parasitic cardiomyopathy
restrictive cardiomyopaty
difference between primary and
secondary cardiomyopaty
Answer
diesease of the heart muscle due to a variety of reasons
due ot excessive alcohol consumption
enlargement of the infant cardiac septum
infection in the myocardium associated with parasitic organisms
lack of flexibility of the walls of the heart chambers
primary-idiopathic, secondary- has a known cause (associated with toxic
chemical, metabloci disorder, diabetes)
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Section 6
Question Answer
primary function of heart valves to prevent backflow of blood between chambers of the heart
two mechanisms by which deformed valvular defects and deformed valves
cardiac valves may cause disease
valvular defects cause obstruction of blood flow
deformed valve more susceptible to infection
three ways valves typically disrupt blood insufficiency, stenosis, prolapse
flow
valvular insufficiency congenital condition in which valves of heart fail to properly develop in
the fetus
valvular stenosis characterized by a narrowing of the valvular orifice, causing disruption
of blood flow
valvular prolapse due to excessive streching of the valevs, causing extension of the inner
layers of the valves and streching the valves out of shape
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Section 7
Question Answer
rheumatic fever characterized by severe arthritis in multiple joints in the body
what causes rheumatic heart bacterial infection that originates as strep throat and spreads to the heart
disease
what does rheumatic fever damage to the mitral valve, which can lead to endocarditis and infection of multiple
damage layers of the heart
if severe enough, what does cardiac failure
rheumatic fever lead to
hypertension high blood pressure based on three readings spread out over several weeks in which
blood pressure is higher than 140 ML of mercury systolic and 90 ML of mercury
diastolic
what occurs during left ventricle increases in size (demand for nutrients increases), ability to deliver
hypertensive heart disease blood diminishes and heart fails
atrial septal defect when the foramen ovale fails to close at birth
what happens during atrial too much blood passes through the right ventricle and lungs of the newborn infant.
septal defect This causes the blood not to be sufficiently oxygenated
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Section 8
Question Answer
coronary heart disease most common cause of death in economiclly developed countries
what is coronary heart disease characterized narrowing of the lumen of the coronary arteries due to artheriosclerosis
by
three changes that contribute to severity of acute laque changes, blood clots in coronary artery, spasms of coronary
cornary disease artery
what reduces blood flow in coronary artery substance called plaque or thckening of arterial walls
artheriosclerosis menaing general term that literally menas "hardening of the arteries"
arteriosclerosis disease of arterial vessels marked by thickening, hardening, and loss of
elasticity in the arterial walls
three forms of arteriosclerosis atherosclerosis, sclerosis of arterioles, calcification of medial layer of
the arteries
where is arteriosclerosis usally found large and medium size arteries
why does arteriosclerosis usually occur in because blood pressure is lower in the femoral arteries, also femoral can
the femoral occlude quicker
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Section 9
Question Answer
athero meaning porridhge
sclerosis hardness
artherosclerosis process in which deposits of fatty substances-cholesterol, cellular waste,
calcium,-build up the inner lining forming plaque
who is usully effected by artherosclerosis the elderly
what happens if an embolism is blocking acute cardiac failure
an artery to the heart
what happens if an embolism is blocking a stroke
an artery to the brain
aneurysm the abnormal enlargement or bulging of an artery caused by damage to or
weakness in the blood vessel wall
where do aneurysms usually occur in an artery
peripheral aneurysm aneurysms that occur in the thoracic aorta of the chest or in large arteries
cerebral aneurysm chacrteristics headache, drowsy, neck stiff, nausea, vomiting, mental confusion, loss of
conciousness
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Section 10
Question Answer
hypertension what is commonly reffered to as hbp, can cause stroke, kidnye failure, and
coronary artery disease
what should normal blood 120 over 80
pressure be
what effect does hbp have on the pressure effects the lining of the wall for arteries
arteries
arteritis idiopathic inflammatory disease that affects the arteries of the body
most common causes of arteritis bacteria, fungi, and viruses
autoimmune diseases when the body attacks itself
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Section 11
Question Answer
takayasu arteritis an inflammatory disease of the aorta and the arteries that branch from it
characteristics of takayasu arteritis muscles in face atrophy, vission loss, heart failure likely
what happens to arteries during takayasu weakness of arterial walls is occured
arteritis
indicator of takayasu arteritis anemia, weightloss, joint pain, fatigue, impaired speech
temporal arteritis most ocmmon form of arterial inflammation and is also known as giant
cell arteritis
where is temporal artertis usually diagnosed in the temporal artery
cause of of temporal arteritis unknown
what happens to the vessels during temporal they are infiltrated by immune cells like lymphocytes and plasma cells
arteritis
what happens to the body during temporal blindness may occur
arteritis
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Section 12
Question Answer
phlebitis an inflammatory condition of the veins of the legs, in which clots form along the alss and
valves of the veins
what do valves do in help prevent backflow
veins
deep venous thrombosis inflammation of veins of the legs can spread thorugh the pevis
charcteristic of phlebitis pain and redness along the involved vein,
varicose veins enlarged veins, whcih are close to the skins surface, most ocmmonly found in the hands
and feet
what casues varicose
veins
charcteristic of varicose
what can help in
embalming
predisposing event
excessive amounts of venous blood pressure that deforms the veins
sensation of pressure in legs and feet, throbbing, edmea, ankle discolration, itching, ulcers
co-injection and pre-injection
condition that enhances the specific cause of a disease

Pathology Chapter 8- Disease of Blood

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Section 1
Question Answer
categories of blood disease diseases of the red blood cells, diseases of the white b lood cells, or
bleeding disorder
disease of red blood cells are associated anemia
with
diseases of white blood cells disorder of growth of white blood cells
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Section 2
Question Answer
leukocytosis increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood
what causes leukocytosis hemorrhage, extensive surgery, coronary occlusion, cancer, pregnancy, and toxemias
leukopenia disease condition in which there are a decreased number of white blood cells
leukopenia may be caused by caused by a wide variety of pharmaceutical agents, as well as failure of bone marrow
what? to produce white blood cells
when is leukopenia common? after chemotherapy and radiation treatments also HIV
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Section 3
Question Answer
anemia blood disorder in which the capacity of blood to transport oxygen is decreased, ususally
because the number of red blood cells is diminished
what are the two categories Primary anemia and secondary anemia
of anemia
primary anemia types of anmeia in which there is a decrease in production of red blood cells
secondary anemia anemia in which there is an increased loss or destruction of red blood cells
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Section 4
Question Answer
aplastic anemia caused by improper growth or impaired function of bone marrow
what can damage bone benzene, arsenic, and x-rays
marrow
what happens in cases of red bone marrow is unable to produce adequate aounts of red blood cells to transport
aplasticanemia hemoglobin
hemolytic anmeia results from hemolyisi, or rupturing of red bllod cells prematurely
what happens during hemoglobin seperates into heme and globin prematurely, reducing the available
hemolyitc anemia amount of hemoglobin in the blood to transport oxygen
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Section 5
Question Answer
pernicious anemia caused by a failure of the body to prodcue enough intrisic factor; an
intestinal che mical, to absorb vitamin B12 in the intestine
what is vitamin B12 a vitamin required for absorbing iron in the diet
what is iron needed for? red blood cell production because red blood cells are capable of
tranporting oxygen in their hemoglobin
binding site for oxygen in the hemeglobin heme (consists primarily of iron)
what is lack of intrinsic factors no proper digestion for iron
sickle cell anemia a hereditary, chronic anemia, characterized by the presence of a large
number of crescent or sickle-celled shpae red blood cells
what must both parents have for sickle recessive gene for hemoglobin S.
cell
what causes the alteration of the blood single amino acid substitution in one of the chains of amino acids form
cells in sickle cell anemia which hemoglobin produced
why did sickle cell anemia occur better chance to survive malaria
where is sickle ceel most common africans, mediterraneans, native africans
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Section 6
Question Answer
leukemia cancer of the white blood cells or tissues which synthesize white blood cells
most common sign of leikemia white blood cell count is elevated 10 to 100 times the normal range
what can cause leukemia down syndrome, overexposure to radiation, being treated agressively with
chemotherapy
what are the 4 main types of acute myelocytic leukemia, chronic myeloid leukemia, acute lympocytic leukemia,
chemotherapy chronic lymphocytic leukemia
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Section 7
Question Answer
polycythemia/erthrocytosis an idiopathic blood disorder, which causes an abnormally high red blood cell count
polycthemia vera a chronic life shortening disorder involving bone marrow
what occurs during polycthemia high red blood cell count results in clotting and concentration of hemoglobin in the
vera red blood
charcteristics of polycythemia eakness, fatigue, vertigo, tinnitis, irritability
hemophelia a hemorrhagic disease characterized by a tendency toward excessive and sometime
spontaneous bleeding
hemophelia A lack of blood cotting proteins ( VIII)
hemophelia B due to a lack of factor IX (aka christmas disease)
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Section 8
Question Answer
thrombocytopenia severely reduced platelet count in the blood. It typically piccrs when bone marrow
fails to produce platelets
life span of platels 10 days and there are usually 150-400 million platelets of blood
when does platelets drop when there is less than 100 million
dangersously low
purpura spontaneous bleeding in the subcutaneous tissues such as that associated with
thrombocytopenia
symptoms of purpura looks like hemorrhaging into the skin, leaving discolorations that are red, darkening
into purple, and usually disappear in two or three weeks
is it possible to get rid of not in the deceased, will not clear
purpura
hemolytic disease of a new born erythroblastosis fetalis
erythroblastosis fetalis is passed through genetic of Rh
down how?
what happens during mother Rh blood mixes and harms baby
erythroblastosis

Pthology Chapter 6- Disturbance In Circulation

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Section 1
Question Answer
edema aka dropsy, is a local or generalized condition in which body tissues contain an
excessive amount of tissue fluid
what are the 4 primary increased permeability in capillary walls, increased capillary pressure due to venous
causes of edema obstrcution, inflammatory conditions, and fluid/electrolyte disturbances
increased permeability of excess fluid leaches out of extravascular walls
capillary walls
obstruction in veins increase in capillary blood pressure
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Section 2
Question Answer
hyperemia increased flow of blood in an area of the body
active hyperemia increased arterial blood supply to an organforphysiologic reasons
what caues active hyperemia anything from exercise to acute inflmmatory diseases
passive hyperemia the engorgement of an organ r tissues with venous blood resulting from inadequate
venous drainage
exampof passive hyperemia presence of excess blood in the liver and other abdominal organs associated with heart
failure
cyanosis the discoloration associated with passive hyperemia
where can cyanosis be finger nail beds, palms of hands, soles of feet, whites of eye
observed
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Section 3
Question Answer
ischemia a deficiency of arterial blood flow to an organ or tissue
hypoxia decrease in the level of oxygen within tissue
example of fatal ischemia ischemic heart disease, which causes myocardial infractions and transient attacks
in brain blood flow
what does ischemia eventually hypoxia
result in
why does hypoxia occur any reason the blood does not carry sufficent oxygen
what can thrombi and emboli do block flow of blood within arterial blood vessels
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Section 4
Question Answer
thrombosis the formation of a blood clot
thrombus a stationary blood clot that has te potential to fragment in the blood stream
what are four casues of blood clots injries to blood vessels, reduced rate of blood flow, alterations in the
composition of blood, certain blood diseases
one of the most common reasons for damage to the endothelial lining in vessels
blood clotting
what causes blood clots in arterial and damage to the endothelial
heart circulation
what else may cause blood clots bed rest, myocardial infractions, bone farcture, cancer, cicle cell
infarct supply of nutrients to the tissue is prevented due to a blockage of arteries
an caute myocardial infection is aa a heart attack
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Section 5
Question Answer
embolism sudden obstruction of a vessel by debris
embolus free-floating object in the bloodstream, such as blood clots containign pllaque, cancer, bacteria...
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Section 6
Question Answer
most common fom ofinjury to the bleeding
circulatory system
hemorrhage escape of blood from the blood vascular system
four common causes of heorrhage trauma, vascular disease, high blood pressure, blood disease
petechiae antemortem pinpoint-size hemmorrhages of small capillaries in the skin
of mucous membranes
ecchymosis scientific name for a common bruise
where is ecchymosis commonly seen in the hands and arms of deceased
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Section 7
Question Answer
epistaxis scientific name for blood coming from the nose
how is epistaxis usually when a dilated blood vessel in the nasal septum is damaged
caused
what can an epistaxis show signs of cancer or blood clotting disorder
purge blood or any bloody fuid appearing in the nose, mouth, or ears
hemoptysis coughing of bloody sputum from the respitory tract
where does sputum derive anywhere in the respitory tract; may contain cellular debris, pus, caseous material, or
from microorganisms
what can cause hemoptysis small blood vesslel ruptured during coughing
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Section 8
Question Answer
hematemesis vommiting of blood
where does hematemesis usually take in the upper gi tract, incluidng the duodenum, and esophagus
place
what is the most cmmon cause of stomach in the ulcer
hematesis
melena black, tarry feces caused by digestion of blood in te gastrointestinal tract,
common in new borns
how much blood is required for 2 table spoons
melena
red bloody stool may be casued by hemmrrhoids, inflammatory bowel disease, viral intestinal infections, or colon
polyps
dark stool may be caused by divertucolsis, tumors, gastroenteritis
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Section 9
 Question Answer
hematuria the presence of blood in the urine, that indicates something is casuing bleeding in the
genioutiary tract
gross hamturia urine is pink, brown, and may even contain blood clots
microscopic hematuria blood in the urine is microscopic
other symptoms of abdominal pain, reduced urinary output, fever, frequent urination, inability to empty
hematuria bladder
exsanguination massive bleeding from anywhere in the body
exsanguinate loss of blood to the point of death
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Section 10
Question Answer
diminshed one of themost important challenges for the embalmer to overcome
circulation
hematoma swelling consisting of a mass of extravascular blood, which is usually clotted and confined to a a
tissue, organ, or space
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Section 11
Question Answer
anasacra sever, generalized edma
ascites accumulation of fluid in the abdomen caused by obstruction of vena cava, lymphatic drainage
hydrothorax a collection of fluid in the pleural cavity, cauding shortnes of breath
hydrocee edema of scrotum
hydropericardium edema of pericardial sac that surrounds the heart. It is charcterized bychest pan or discomfort
pitting edema edema of the skin of the extremities. When pessed firmly with a finger the skin maintain a
depression
pulmonary edem potentiallly life threatning accumulation of fluid in the lungs. Fluid may inhibit the exchange of
oxygen and carbon dioxide
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Section 12
Question Answer
fragments of thrombi blood clots breaks aprt, into small pieces of the clot where it travels thorugh the blood stream where it m
microorganisms many microorganisms spread thorugh the body in blood, whic is known as septicemia
tumor cells metastasis is the process of when tcancer cells spread thorughout the body.
animal parasites varity of animal parasites are capable of spreading through the blood stream
fat fat globules may enter the tissue and damaged blood vessels. If that happens, instant death may occur
gas bubbles may enter the blood during chest injuries, surgery, or a simple inoculation
foreign bodies emboli can be any free floating object that can be blocking a blood vessel...example glass or sand

Pathology Chapter 2-Nature of Disease
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airbud123's version from 1-28-2015
Section 1
Question
what is a disorder
what is a disease
what is a illness
what is an organic disease
what is a functional disease
what is a infection
what is a deficiency
what is a hereditary disease
Section 2
Question
what is diagnosis
what is prognosis
what is pathogenesis
what are complications
what are signs
what are symptoms
examples of symptoms
examples of signs
Section 3
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Answer
typically a measue of specific changes associated with a pathological condition
when certain patterns that result in a deviation of health are noticed in the body
the symptoms and signs of a disease
diseases accompanied by specific anatomical changes (red spots, yellow skin)
diseases that cause no recognizable changes (schizophrenia)
the state or condition in which the body or a part of it is invaded by a disease-causing age
a lack of dietary or metabolic substance that can lead to disease
a disease that is based on genetic characteristics transmitted from parent to offspring
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Answer
the recognition of the nature of a particular disease
the prediction of the outcome of a particular illness
the manner in which the disease develops
any unfavorable conditions that arise during the course of a disease, which may manifest as si
the objective disturbances produced by a disease that can be observed by other people
the subjective disturbances caused by specific disease, but are only felt by the patient, but is n
pain, nausea, anxiety, mumbness
(increase in heart beat, swelling of mouth, skin color change)
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 Question
what are congenital diseases
what are acquired diseases
what are acute diseases
what are chronic diseases
what are fulminating diseases
what is remission of a disease
what is the recurrence of a disease
what does exacerbate mean
Section 4
Question
what is a communicable disease
what is a prevalent disease
what is an endemic
what is an epidemic
what is a sporadic disease
what is a pandemic
what is a syndrome
what is morbidity
what is mortality
Section 5
Question
what is the morbidity rate
what is the mortality rate
what is predisposing conditions
what are immediate causes of disease
what are idiopathic diseases
what are iatrogenic diseases
what are nonsocomial diseases
what is occupational disease
what is intoxication
what is infestation
what is an allergy
Recent badges
Answer
diseases that are present at birth
diseases acquired after birth
diseases that have a rapid onset and a short duration
diseases that have a slow onset and a long duration
a special type of acute disease that has a rapid and severe onset, that are usually fat
the temporary cessation of the symptoms of a disease
the reappearance of the symptoms of a disease after a period of remission
the severtiy of a disease has increased
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Answer
a disease that can be transmitted directly or indrectly from one individual to another
the number of cases of disease present in a specific population
a disease that is continuosly present in a population
a disease that is currently higher than normal numbers
a disease that occurs occasionally in a random or isolated manner
a disease that is worldwide spread
a set of signs and symptoms associated with a particular disease
the study of occurance of disease
the study of death due to a specific cause
memorize
Answer
amount of disease in a given population at a given time
the number of deaths in a given time or place
conditions that are more likely to make someone develop a disease
causes that result in a illness
illnesses fir which the cause is unknown
diseases that are caused by meical operations
ones that are congested in the hospital
a disease that is very common in a certain workforce
the state of being poisoned by a drug
the harboring of parasites
having a hypersensitivity to certain substances
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Pathology Chapter 14- Diseases of Female

Reproductive System
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Section 1
Question Answer
pelvic inflammatory terms used to describe infection and inflammation of the upper gi tract,
disease/salpingitis especially the fallopian tubes
first stage of pelvic inflmmatory a vaginal or cervical infection develops
disease
second stage of pelvic inflammatory infection spreads to the upper gi tract
disease
how many stds are identified in the over twenty
USA
cost of stds to health care system over $10 billion
common stds AIDS, chlamydia, genital herpes, genital warts, gonnorhea, and syphillis
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Section 2
Question Answer
ectoptic pregnancy implamantation of the fertilized ovum in a site other than one in the
uterine cavity
where does an egg implant during ectoptic in the fallopian tube, although it may implant in the ovary, abdomen,
pregnancy or cervix
why does an ectopic pregnancy occur physical blockage in the fallpian tube or failure of tube epithelium to
move the egg
what do women who experience tubal salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease
pregnancy have a history of
pre-eclampsia serious condition that occurs during pregnancy characterized by hbp,
weight gain, and protein in the urine
eclampsia occurence of seizures during pregnancy, that cannot be attributed to
another cause
what cause eclampsia it is unknown
what increases the risk of eclampsia first pregnancies, teen pregnancy, mothers older than 40, African-
American women
treatment for eclampsia includes medication for blood pressure and seizures
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Section 3
 Question Answer
endometriosis condition in which the tissue normally lines the uterus (endometrium), grows in other areas
of the body, such as pelvic area, uterus surface, ovaries, and intestines
characteristics of causes pain, irregular bleeding, and infertility as the disease progresses
endometriosis
how does endometrisosis the endothelial cells of the uterine lining cause a physical blockage in the ovaries and tubes
occur
what are ovarian blood chocolate cysts
cysts AKA
symptoms of painful periods, ab pain, pain during intercourse, painful bowel movement, infertility,
endometriosis splotchiness
ovarian cysts sac filled with fluids that develop on or within the ovary
how are ovarian cysts they disappear on their own
treated
how does an ovarian cyst a follicle is formed and fails to rupture, but instead the follicle forms a cyst
form
signs of ovarian cyst dull aching pain, pain during sex, pelvic pain, changes in menstrural bleeding, absence of
menstruation, ab bloating
dermoid cyst tumor that is covered in dermislike tissue that contains sebaceous glands, hair, cartilage,
and bones/teeth
cystic teratoma dermoid cyst that occurs in the ovary
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Section 4
Question Answer
two primary categories of adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma
cervical cancer
most common form of cervical squamous cell carcinoma, which develops from the flat cells covering the outer
cancer surface of the cervix at the top of the vagina
adenocarcinoma form of cervical cancer that develops in the glandular cells lining the cervical canal
how to test for cervical cancer smear tests
symptoms of cervical cancer abnormal bleeding between periods or after sex, odor, and discomfortable sex
who is breast cancer most caucasians over 50
common in
early signs of breast cancer lump or thickening of the breast, change in size/shape, nipple discharge, inverted
nipple, warm areola, ridges of breast resemble orange
fine needle aspiration tin needle is used to remove fluid and cells from a breast lump
needle biopsy use of a larger needle that can remove much fluid and tissue
lumpectomy surgeon removes the lump and an area of healthy tissue around its edges
mestectomy removal of portion or whole breast
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Section 5
Question Answer
subcutaneous masectomy removal of the entire breast leaving the nipple and areola
total (simple) masectomy removal of the entire breast, but not axillary lymph nodes
modified (radical) masectomy removal of the entire breast and most of the axillary lymphnodes
radical masectomy removal of entire pectoralis muscle and breast/axillary lymph
nodes
postmortem ocnditions with reproductive rapid blood coagulation, ascites, edema, infection, discoloration
conditions
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Section 6
Question Answer
endometritis inflammation of the lining of the uterus due to bacterial infection
endocervocitis inflammation of the uterus and cervix
salpingitis inflammation of the fallopian (uterine) tube
oophritis inflammation of the ovaries
vaginitis inflammation of the vagina

Pathology Chapter 17- Diseases of the

Endocrine system
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Section 1
Question Answer
type I diabetes insulin dependent
type II diabetes non-insulin dependent
what does a diabtics breath sweet due to the presence of acetone in the body
smell like
diabtes mellitus metabolic disorder in which the carbs that break down into sugars in the digestive
system are not digested effectively because of a lack of appropriate insulin production
in the pancreatic islets
what happens if diabetes coma and death
mellitus is left untreated
what can diabeties cause blindness, carbuncles of legs and feet, ulcers of feet, amputation of lower extremities,
and renal failure/cardiac disorders
what complications can elevated blood sugar, excessive urination (polyuria), excessive thirst, increased appetite
diabates mellitus cause
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Section 2
Question Answer
where do most pancreatic cancers begin in the ducts that carry pancreatic juices
where does cancer of the pancreas tend nearby lymph nodes, the peritoneum, the liver, and the lungs
to spread
symptoms of pancreatic cancer pain in upper abdomen/back, jaunidce, dark urine, weakness, loss of
appetite, nausea, vomiting
what is pancreatic cancer AKA the silent killer
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Section 3
Question Answer
acromegaly hyperfunction of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland after
ossification has been completed
what is acromegaly charcterized by elongation and enlargement of the bones of the extremities and
certain head bones, especially frontal bone and jaw
what causes acromegaly over production of growth hormone in the anterior portion of the
pituitary gland
in most cases of acromegaly in adults, what a benign tumor AKA adenoma
causes the over production of hormones
characteristics of acromegaly abnormal growth of hands/feet, big nose/lips, protrusion of
brow/jaw, thick coarse skin, deep voice, excessive sweating,
diabates
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Section 4
Question Answer
somatotropin human growth hormone
what does overproduction of growth hormone cause gigantism or giantism
difference between acromegaly and gigantism acromegaly- adult, gigantism- kids
if pituitary fails to secrete enough hormone, what happens growth is stunted and dwarfism occurs
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Section 5
Question Answer
difference between diabtes mellitus and mellitus- disorder of pancreas, insipidus- disorder of the kidneys and
diabetes insipidus pituitary gland
diabtes insipidus uncommon condition rsulting from inhability of the kidneys to conserve
water
function of the kidney is controlled by what release of antidiuretic hormone from the pituitary gland
where is antidiuretic hormone produced in the hypothalamus, but stored and released by the pituitary gland
most pronounced symptoms of insipidus extreme thirst and excessive urination
what causes diabetes insipidus damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland caused by surgery,
infection, tumors, or head injury
memorize
edit
Section 6
Question Answer
cretinism hypothyroid condition of infants and children in which the thyroid gland does not secrete
sufficient quantities of thyroid hormones
cretinism is charcterized arrested physical and mental development, dystrophy of bones, lowered basal metabolism
by
myxedema clinical manifestation of hypothyroidism that includes an infiltration of the skin by a thick,
gelatinous substance formed by the bonding of water and mucopolysaccarides, which
gives skin a waxy feel
what does myxedema lack of iodine in the diet, but can result from surgical removal of they thyroid gland or
usually result from excessive use of thyroid drugs
symptoms of myexdema enlargement of tounge, coarse and thick skin, slow speech, puffy skin, dry hair, mental
apathy, drowsiness
what is cretinism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy
myexdema treated by
memorize
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Section 7
Question Answer
graves disease distinct type of hyperthyroidism caused by an autoimmune attack on they thyroid gland
hyperthyroidism overactive thyroid gland
what occurs during graves antibodies are produced that stimulate growth of the thyroid gland, excessive growth
disease results in excessive thyroid hormone production
grave disease fatigue, weight loss, tachyardia (rapid heart beat), changes in libido, heat intolerance,
characteristics tremors, enlarged thyroid gland, blurred vision, hair changes,
exopthalmia hyperplasia of the eyeballs
memorize
edit
Section 8
Question Answer
goiter excessive growth of the thyroid gland due to a lack of iodine in the diet
simple goiter occurs when the thyroid gland enlarges to overcome deficiencies in the production of
thyroid hormones
endemic goiters AKA colloid generally result in lack of iodine, which is needed for the production of thyroid
goiters hormone
sporadic goiters AKA toxic unknown cause, but they may result from the use of certain medications like lithium
goiters and aminoglutehimide
memorize
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Section 9
Question Answer
what do parathyroid galnds do regulate the level of clacium in the bodys tissue
hyperparathyroidism overproduction of hormones from parathyroid gland
charcteristics of wekaness, weightloss, fatigue, muscle atrophy, bone pain, gastrointestinal distress
hyperparathyroidism
hypoparathyroidism underproduction of hormones from parathyroid gland
charcteristics of mouth numbness, muscle cramps, depression, irritability
hypoparathyroidism
chvosteks test twitching of muscles of mouth, nose, eyelids, evoked by tapping of facial nerve
trousseaus sign blood pressure cuff is inflated above normal systolic pressure for over 2 minutes,
causing spasms of wrist
memorize
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Section 10
Question Answer
addisons disease rare endocrine disorder, occuring when the adrenal glands fail to produce enough
of the hormones cortisone and aldosterone
charcterisitcs of addison disease weight loss, muscle weakness, dizziness and fainting, bronze skin color, nuasea,
vomiting, diarrhea
what occurs in 70% of addison autoimmune disorder causes adrenal cortex to be destroyed by own body
diseases patients
glucocoricoid hormones used to treat inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, asthma, and
ulcerative colitis
memorize
edit
Section 11
Question Answer
cushings dyndrome iatrogenic disorder of the adrenal glands due to chronic glucocorticoid hormone
therapy
what does cushings syndrome elevated levels of cortisone in the body, tumors of adrenal gland
result from
characterstics of cushings rounded face, obese upper body, metal retarded, purple strech marks, transluscent,
diesease think skin, easy bruising, diabtes
memorize
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Section 12
Question Answer
waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome failure of the adrenal glands to secrete appropriate levels of corticosteroids
due to bleeding within the adrenal cortex
what is waterhouse-friderichsen septic bacteria infection with a rapidly deteriorating progression
syndrome characterized by
what does waterhouse-friderichsen congestion of the blood vessels and insufficient levels of platelets
syndrome manifest with disrupting proper blood clotting
postmortem ocnditions edema, discolration, deformities, circulatory discolorations
memorize

Pathology Chapter 13- Disease of Nervous

System
rename
airbud123's version from 4-14-2015
edit
 Section 1
Question Answer
meningitis an infection of the cerebrospinal fluid, which is the fluid surrounding the spinal cord
and brain
which is worse viral or viral
bacterial meningitis
current cause of bacterial Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis
meningitis
symptoms of meningitis stiff neck, headache, high fever, seizures, nausea, vomiting
hydrocephaulus degenerative disorder in which the cerebrospinal fluid fails to be properly drained or
absorbed, causing the ventricles of the brain to fill with cerebrospinal fluid
what causes hydrocephaulus developmental anomalies, infection, injury, or brain tumors
treatment for hydrocephaulus shunt used to drain cerebrospinal fluid
memorize
edit
Section 2
Question Answer
encephalitis inflammation of the brain
two forms of encephalitis primary and secondary
primary encephalitis occurs when a virus directly invades the brain and spinal cord
secondary encephalitis virus first infects another part of the body and then spreads to the brain
symptoms of encephalitis drowsiness, confusion, seizures, fever, headache, nausea, vommitng,
convulsions, or tremors
convulsions an abnormal, violent, and involuntary contraction or series of contractions of
the muscles
seizures sudden, uncontrolled discharges, of electrical activity in the brain
three broad categories that cause herpes virus, chilhood infection, arboviruses
encephalitis
memorize
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Section 3
Question Answer
myelitis inflammation of the spinal cord, resulting from an infection in the spinal cord, noninfectious
necrosing of the spinal cord, or demyelization of the spinal cord
myelitis is charcterized flaccid limb paralysis, incontinence, and weakness or numbness of the limbs
by what
transverse myelitis inflmmatory disorder of the spinal cord
what causes transverse demyelization (loss of the fatty tissue that surrounds the nerves)
myelitis
transverse myelitis low back pain, spinal cord dysfunction, muscle spasms, headache, loss of appetite,
symptoms numbness in legs
prognosis of transverse not good, only smymptoms can be treated
myelitis
neuritis inflmmation of a nerve or nerves
causes of neuritis
Section 4
Question
epilepsy
how is epiliepsy characterized
two types of seizures associated
with epilepsy
grand mal seizures
petite mal seizures
rabies
why do people and animals drool
while sick with rabies
how is rabies spread
what eventually happens to people
with rabies
Section 5
Question
multiple sclerosis
what is the treatment for MS
what is assumed to cause MS
parkinsons disease
why does one shake when they
have parkinsons
recovery from parkinsons
disease
Section 6
Question
dementia
what occurs during dementia
most common form of dementia in USA
what occurs during the brain during
alzheimers disease
include trauma, infection, and posions
memorize
edit
Answer
recurent degenerative disorder of the nervous system marked by repetitive
abnormal electrical discharges within the brain known as seizures
by sudden convulsions and seizures or altered concioousess, depending on the
type of attack
grand mal and petite mal
charcterized by fecal and urinary incontinence, uncontrolled contractions of the
muscles, loss of consciusness, cry caused by muscle contractions
differ from grand mal seizures, because they last for a few seconds
an infection that affects the nervous system and it is casued by the rabies virus
they can no longer swallow, due to nervous system
through the bite and saliva of contaminated animals
they become paralyzed
memorize
edit
Answer
inflmmatory disease of the central nervous system in which infiltrating lymphocytes,
mostly T cells, and macrophages, degrade the myelin sheath of nerves
steroids
a viral infection
chronic nervous disease charcterized by a fine spreading tremor, muscular weakness,
and rigidity, and peculiar gait
diminished levels of dopamene (neurotransmitter) in their brains
rarely occurs
memorize
edit
Answer
a condition of deteriorated mental ability accompanied by emotional
instability
it is an progressive, irreversible decline in mental function, marked by
memory impairment
alzheimers deisease
amyloid plaque and bundles of fibers build bup. nerve cells and
neurotransmitters also reduced
sundowning confusion or disorientation that increases in the afternoon r evening
what occurs to one due to alzheimers they forget how to do simple tasks, and eventually need to be cared for
by others
why does sundowning occur it is because the light effects brain stimulation
memorize
edit
Section 7
Question Answer
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis a progressive, fatal, neurological disease that belongs to a class of disorders
known as motor neuron diseases
what is ALS the result of the degeneration of specific nerve cells in the central nervous system that
control voluntary movement
weaking of motor neurons cells the weakening and atrophy of muscles, which then leads to paralysis
result in what
symptoms of ALS tripping, loss of motor control, speech impairment, difficulty swallowing
(dyspahgia), muscle twitching
gliomas malignant tumors of lial cells, which provide supporting structure to the neurons
of the brain
why are gliomas hard to remove they grow around brain tissue
memorize
edit
Section 8
Question Answer
Creutzfeldt Jakob disease rare, degenerative brain disorder with no known cure
how to confirm one has JCD the brain is biopsied during an autopsy
symptoms of CJD failing memory, behavorial changes, lack of coordination, visual
disturbances, blindness, coma, involuntary movements
cerebral paulsy term used to describe a group of chronic disorders charcterized by
the impairment of control over movement
what causes cerebral paulsy developmental abnormalities, or damage to areas of the brain,
disrupting its ability to control movement and posture
symptoms of cerebral paulsy lack of motor skills, involuntary movements, seizures and mental
impairment
spina bfida congenital defect in which the spinal cord protrudes
where is the opening of the body where the spinal lumbar vertabrae, AKA (spina bfida cystica)
cord exits when one has spina bfida
memorize
edit
Section 9
Question Answer
what are strokes AKA transient ischemic attacks (TIA), cerbrovascular accidents (CVAs)
where does a stroke in the blood vessels of the brain
occur
what occurs during a a blood vessel bursts in the brain, causing a loss of blood flow to the tissues of the brain,
stroke resulting in death of the brain
ischemic stroke cerebral blood vessel becomes occluded
hemorrhagic stroke cerebral blood vessel ruptures, causing internal bleeding
common effects of loss of motor control, loss of sensory perception, and loss of speech
stroke
TIA a stroke that lasts only a few minutes
what occurs during a tia blood supply to the brain is interuppted
symptoms of a TIA similar to a severe stroke, but do not last long, however they may persist for as much as a
day or so
memorize
edit
Section 10
Question Answer
concussion traumatic injury to the head resulting in temporary loss of consciousness,
paralysis, vomiting, and seizures
why is a contusion worse than a contusion can include brain hemorrhaging
concusiion
contusion head injury of sufficient force to bruise the brain, which often involves the
surface of the brain and can cause an extravasation of blood without rupture of
the meninges
epidural hematoma traumatic accumulation of blood between the skull and dural membrane, which is
most frequent of a ruptured meningal artery
prognosis of epidural hematoma very good, if treated correctly
acute subdural hematoma rapidly clotting blood collection below the inner layer of the dura, but external to
the brain and arachnoid membrane
subdural hematoma bleeding between dura mater and the arachnoid membrane
subarachnoid hematoma bleeding between the pia matter and the arachnoid membrane
where does embalmer insert babay the criboform plate of the ethmoid bone
trocar to aspirate the brain
postmortem conditions of nervous brain purge, hemmorrhage, atrophy, diminished circulation
system disorders
hemorrhage an escape of blood from a ruptured blood vessel, especially when profuse
memorize

Pathology Chapter 12- Diseases of the Urinary

System
rename
airbud123's version from 4-13-2015
edit
Section 1
Question Answer
What is responsible for the production two kidneys
of urine?
What is responsible for the elimination two uterers, urinary bladder, urethra
of urine?
What is cystitis?
What is urethritis?
What is the etiology of cystitis and
urethritis?
What are the signs & symptoms of
cystitis and urethritis?
why is the urinary system important to
the embalmer
what does nitrogen do to the body
what difficulties can nitrogen do to the
embalming process
Section 2
Question
What is pyelonephritis?
What is a result of pyelonephritis?
What is the most common type of
kidney disease?
What is the etiology of pyelonephritis?
What are the signs & symptoms of
pyelonephritis?
What is glomerulonephritis?
how is uremia noticed to the embalmer
bright's disease
what occurs at cellular level during
glomeruleonephritis
what causes glomerulenephrosis
Section 3
Question
What are the signs & symptoms of
glomerulonephritis?
chronic glomerulenephritis
microorganisms that cause UTI's
pyelitis
pyelonephritis
how do microrgansisms invade the body
when does chronic pyelonephritis occur
inflammation of the bladder
inflammation of the urethra
usually caused by E. Coli; also caused by repeated urinary catheterizations;
may be caused by STDs, mainly chlamydia & gonorrhea
fever, dysuria, low abdominal pain, discolored urine
the build up of the element nitrogen is very important
the higher the formaldehyde demand, due to edema and inhabiting of
microorgansims
cause edema, microbial agents, dehydration, effect the distribution of fluids
memorize
edit
Answer
inflammation of the kidneys due to infection.
the destruction or scarring of renal tissue
pyelonephritis
most commonly caused by E. Coli bacteria
N&V, fever, chills, lumbar pain, dysuria, nocturia. These symptoms appear
rapidly.
most devastating and dangerous renal failure, caused by sudden onset of blood
and protein in the urine accompanied by salt and water
strong odor and yellow discoloration of the tissues
antiquated name for kidney disease in general
increase in # of epithelial and endothelial cells, immune system cells increase,
along with capillary walls swelling
streptococcal throat infection, skin infection, hepatitis, diabetes
memorize
edit
Answer
hematuria, change in taste, distended jugulars, seizures and tremors
the glomeruleus becomes fibrous
Neisseria gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis, Escherichia coli,
any inflammation of the renal pelvis and the calyces of the kidneys
inflammatory disorder of the nephrons of the kidney caused by renal
infections
travelling through the urethra to the bladder, then up the ureters to
the kidneys
in anatomic abnormalities...uti's, obstructions, structual birth defects
 memorize
edit
Section 4
Question Answer
ureteritis inflammation of one or both of the tubes that connect the bladder to the kidney
What is necrosis? tissue death
when does ureteritis typically occur when an infection spreads from the kidneys to the urinary bladder
cystitis any inflmmation of the urinary bladder
symptoms of cystitis urgent need to urinate, increasing pain in the bladder,
cause of cystitis idiopathic cause
urehtritis inflammatory condition of the urethra
what is urethitis AKA urinary tract infection
memorize
edit
Section 5
Question Answer
hydronephrosis condition that occurs as part of a disease, when a kidney becomes distended due to a
backup of urine
how is hydronephrosis inserting a stint that allows for urination
treated
symptosm of ab pain, naudea, vomiting, fever, uti, urgency/frequent urination
hydronephrosis
nephrolithiasis condition in which one or more kidney stones are present in the urinary system
renal calculi term for kidney stones
why do kidney stones when the urine becomes overconcentrated with substances such as calcium, oxalates,
form phosphates, and carbonate
memorize
edit
Section 6
Question Answer
polycystoc kidney disease inherited disorder characterized by grapelike clusters of cysts that replace renal
tissue
why is the cysts present in the the blood does not flow as well through the kidney as needed
kidney bad
dysplasia abnormal tissue pattern occurs in the kidney that is arranged in specific pattern
with one kidney
hypoplasia smaller than normal size kidneys
memorize
edit
Section 7
Question Answer
renal cell carcinoma charcterized by lack of warning signs, diverse clinical manifestations, and both
resistance to chemotherapy and radiation,
where does renal cell carcinoma epithelium of the proximal renal tube
originate
where does renal cell carcinoma lung, soft tissues, bone, liver, and brain
usually metastisize too
symptoms of renal cell carcinoma hematuria, ab mass, weight loss, fever, hypertension, night sweats
what is bladder cancer typically transitional cell carcinoma, which can appear in any part of the urinary tract
caused by including the renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, or urethra
how is bladder cancer categorized low/high grade, superficial or muscle invasive
signs of bladder cancer painless hematuria
memorize
edit
Section 8
Question Answer
renal failure loss of function of the kidneys
acute renal failure results from a sudden drop in blood pressure brought on by trauma, complications in
surgery, septic shock, hemorrhage, burns, and dehydration, blockage of renal artery
chronic renal failure results in the accumulation of fluid and waste products in the body, causing uremia
uremia buildup of nitrogenous waste products in blood, which may occur without symptoms
dialyisis process of diffusing blood across a semipermeable membrane to remove toxic
materials and to maintain fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balances
hemodialysis type of dialysis which works by circulating the blood thorugh special filters in a
hemodialysis machine
artrovenous graft portions of a person great saphenous vein, cows carotid artery, and synthetic graft is
used to suffice
arteriovenous fistula surgcial joining of an artery and vein
four post mortem conditions edema, uremia, dehydration, and odor
result of urinary disease
urotropin formed due to affinity of formaldehyde for nitrogen
memorize
edit
Section 9
Question Answer
glomerulenephritis microbial inflammation of the glomerulus and the nephron
pyelonephritis inflammation of the kidney and nephron
pyelitis inflammation of the renal pelvis of the kidney
nephrolithiasis kidney stones
urteritis inflmmation of the ureter
cystits inflmmation of the urinary bladder
urethritis inflammation of the urethra
memorize

Pathology- Diseases of Respiratory System

 rename
airbud123's version from 4-8-2015
edit
Section 1
Question Answer
disorders of respiratory system are classified upper respiratory disease or lower respiratory disease
as either
upper respiratory disease nose, throat, and trachea
lower respiratory diseases bronchi and lungs
rhinitis term that descirbes symptoms produced by nasal irritation or
inflammation
sinusitis inflammation of any or all of the four sinus cavities of the skull that
open into the nasal passage
pharyngitis inflammation of the pharynx (throat)
laryngitis inflammation of the larynx (voice box)
pahryngitis and laryngitis are symptoms of common cold or strep throat
what infections
memorize
edit
Section 2
Question Answer
how many viruses can casue the common over 200
cold
two of the most common causes of colds rhinovirus and coronavirus
symptoms of common cold coughing, sneezing, sorethroat, and headache
tracheitis inflammation of the trachea; but may refer to bacterial infection of the
windpipe
what is the most common bacteria that Staphylococcus aureus
causes tracheitis
signs of tracheitis deep, barking cough, crowing sounds during inhalation, high fever,
difficulty breathing, intercostal retractions
intercostal retractions muscles between the ribs pull as the person attempts to breathe
memorize
edit
Section 3
Question Answer
bronchitis inflammation of the bronchi, which are main passages ot the lungs
two forms of bronchitis acute and chronic
acute bronchitis usually follows a viral respiratory infection that generally begins in the nose and speads to
bronchi
chronic bronchitis long-term disorder of bronchi accompanied by excessive mucous production and
productive cough. Always due to inflammation of the bronchi
asthma is a condition in which the bronchi are hypersensitive to stimuli
what occurs during the lining of bronchi becomes irritated, resulting in them to swell shut
asthma
astma attacks may be pollen, dust, mold spores, or dander
casued by
memorize
edit
Section 4
Question Answer
pneumonia inflammation of the lungs, although usually reffered to an infection
lobar pneumonia effects single lobe in the lung
bronchial pneumonia affects smaller lung areas in several lobes
majority cases of pneumonia are due to bacterial infection, but also viruses
pleurisy inflammatory condition of the pleurae that surround the lungs
empyema exudate that develops between the pleura that may contain pus
hemorrhagic pleurisy when blood is found in the exudate of the pleural spaces
pleurisy may be charcterized by stabbing pain in affected area, chills, coughing, fever, pale face
memorize
edit
Section 5
Question Answer
tuberculosis highly contagious disease that is spread through the air when infected
persons sneeze or cough
bacterium that causes tuberculosis Myobacterium tuberculosis
what is the main concern of TB not all strains are treatable; they are multi drug resistant
why can TB be hard to kill the bacterium is covered in a waxy coat, that makes it drug and weather
resistant
what occurs during TB tubercles are produced in the lung, causing necrotic tissue, and turning
the tissue into a caseous
cavitation formation of cavities within the lung tissue or other organs affected by
TB
pneumoconiosis inflammatory disorder of the respiratory system caused by the inhilation
of mineral dusts
four most common causes of asbestos, coal dust, silica, and beryllium
pneumoconisosis
what happens if duest is trapped in the macrophages accumulate causing fibrous masses in the lungs
respitory system
memorize
edit
Section 6
Question Answer
coal worker pneumoconiosis coal miners developed pneumoconiosis due to the rock particles in the air
(black lung)
silicosis inhilation of crystalline silica. which occurs as a result of occupational exposure
jobs high in rate of silicosis sand blaster, quarry mining, drilling, tunneling, and stone cutting
crystalline forms of silica quartz, cristobalite, & tridmyite
include
asbestosis pneumoconiosis resulting from the inhilation of asbestos, which is a crystalline form
of silica that has a fibrous structure
berylliosis pneumoconiosis resulting from inhalation of beryllium
where is beryllium used in golf clubs, dental applications, nonsparking tools, and wheelchairs
memorize
edit
Section 7
Question Answer
atelectasis (collapsed lung) the loss of lung volume due to inadequate expansion of airspaces, which results in
inadequate oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange within the lungs
what is the result of a collapsed blood is not able to eliminate carbon dioxide and refresh itself with oxygen it needs
lung
two categories of collapsed lung obstructed and non obstrcuted
obstructive atelectasis most common type of collapsed lung, which results when the trachea or bronchi
becomes blocked
causes of obstructive atelectasis choking on a foreign body, tumors in the airway, fungal respitory infections, pesence
of excessive amounts of mucus in airways
diseases assoicated with bronchial asthma, chronic bronchitis, cystic fibrosis, paralysis,
obstructive atelectasis
nonobstructive atelectasis caused by a loss of contact between the parietal and visceral pleurae, compression,
loss of surfactant, and replacement of lung tissue by scarring
pneumothorax the trapped air between the outside and inside of the lung prevents the lung from
fully expanding
memorize
edit
Section 8
Question Answer
emphysema chronic inflammatory disease of the respiratory system, characterized by the presence
of air pockets at the terminal ends of the bronchioles
lung abscess an area of inflamed, pus filled tissue in the lung caused by infection
what causes a lung abcess usually bacteria that have been inhaled from the nose and mouth, resulting in the
infection
what happens when a lung lung cavity is filled with fluid and air, while pus is spread through the body
abcess ruptures
cystic fibrosis most common fatal genetic disease in the USA
what causes cystic fibrosis mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator gene
what occurs during cystic defective cells do not release chloride, which results in an imbalance in the cells
fibrosis which creates mucus
where are respiratory polyps in the nose and throat of people with rhinitis or sinushitis
most common
polyp tumor with a pedicle, which is a stem that attaches to surrounding tissue and supplies
it with blood
memorize
 edit
Section 9
Question Answer
carbon monoxide a colorless, tasteless, odorless gas produced by burning material containing
carbon
hwo does carbon monoxide kill by inducing central nervous systems impairment, which prevents the person
being poisoned from recognizing its effects and seeking help
what causes the cherry red carboxyhemoglobin in the blood
discoloration found in CM deaths
flail chest the paradoxical movement of a segment of chest wall caused by three or more
ribs broken in two or more places
paradoxical movement when someone with a flail chest inhales, the portion of the rib cage that is
fractured does not move with the expanding chest wall
lung cancer leading cause of cancer deaths in both men and women in the united states
compunds that can cause lung cancer smoking, asbestos, chromium, beryllium, arsenic
characteristics of lung cancer chest pain, shortness of breath, coughing of blood, pneumonia, bronchitis,
wheezing,
two categories of lung cancer small cell lung cancer and non small cell lung cancer
small cell lung cancer (oat cell cancer) these tumors are normally associated with a history of cigarette smoking. The
tumors grow rapidly and spread to other organs
types of non small lung carcinoma squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, large cell carcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma usually begins in the bronchi and closely related to smoking
adenocarcinoma usually develops along the outer edges of the lungs under the membranes
lining the bronchi
large cell carcinoma cancer with large masses of cells
memorize
edit
Section 10
Question Answer
COPD respiratory disorder in which the bronchioles become occluded, and the alveolar sacs become
dehydrated
asphyxia the inability to take in necessary amounts of oxygen. The physical constriction and squeezing of the
soft tissues not only prevents breathing, it effects the cardiovascular system
signs of congestion of veins, facial edema, cyanosis, petechial hemorrhages, ligature marks
asphyxia
cyanosis bluish color that may occur during hanging
petechia pin point discolorations that can occur
drowning death secondry to asphyxia while immersed in liquid, usually water, or within 24 hours of
submersion
memorize

Pathology Digest Continued

rename
airbud123's version from 4-3-2015
 edit
Section 1
Question Answer
cirrhosis a chronic, degnerative disorder of the liver
what casues cirrhosis of the liver alcoholism, poisoning, or hepatitis
what occurs during cirrhosis of the fatty and cellular infiltration and degeneration of liver cells, which causes
liver hardening
symptoms of cirrhosis of the liver ascites, dementia, jaundice, blood clotting disorder
memorize
edit
Section 2
Question Answer
cholelithiasis formation of gallstones and its inflammatory disorder of the gallbladder
what are the 3 types of gallstones cholestorol gallstones, pigment gall stones, amd mixed gallstones
how are gallstones formed bile becomes crystallized within the gallbladder or bile duct
why do women get more gall stones they produce more estrogen
cholangitis inflmmation of the bile duct
cholecystisis inflmmation of the gallbladder
symptoms of gallstones pain in upper right quadrant, indigestion, belching, bloating
memorize
edit
Section 3
Question Answer
cholangitis acute infection of the bile duct caused by blockage of the bile duct
what occurs during blackage of bacteria is bred very rapidly and creates infection
flow
why is mortality high with present of underlying diseases and spread through the blood
choangitis
signs of cholangitis fever, jaundice, pain in upper right quadrant, dementia,, blood poisoning
pancreatitis inflammatory process in which the pancreas is digested by its own enzymes
autolysis self-digestion of tissues by cellular enzymes
primary causes of pancreatitis alcohol consumption and gallstones
what does a blockage in the pancreatic juices casue the breakdown and digestion of the pancreas
pancreas do
sympoms of pancreatitis upper ab pain that radiates to the back, nausea, vomiting, mild jaundice, fever,
bruising discoloration of the abdominal flanks
necrotizing pancreatitis sever form of pancreatits, that can form cysts and bleeing in areas around the
pancreas
memorize
edit
Section 4
Question Answer
peritonitis inflmmation of the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the wall of the
 abdomen and covers the abdominal organs
when does primary peritonitis when an infection is present in the abdomen without obvious organ rupture
occur
what is primary peritinitis a result cirrhosis and fluid in the abdomen, espcially in the cases of TB related to AIDS
of and in dialysis
when does secondary peritonitis when an organ is ruptured by the infection
occur
what is secondary peritonitis ruptured appendix, perofrated ulcer, abdominal trauma, or crhons disease
usually a result of
symptoms of peritonitis ab pain/distension, fever, low urine output, fluid in the abdomen, inability too
pass feces or gas
treatment for peritonitis surgery and antibiotics
memorize
edit
Section 5
Question Answer
diverticulosis charcterized by the development of small sacs in the wall of the colon w/o symptoms
how does diverticuosis feces gets caught in the sacs, which then stagnates and casues gangreene
occur
symptoms of constipation, mucus in stool, and ab pain
diverticulosis
bronze diabtes rare form of diabtes that affects the liver's ability to metabolize iron, causing enlargement
of the liver and a bronze discoloration of the skin
what can bronze diabetes cardiac failure
lead to
memorize
edit
Section 6
Question Answer
hernia protrusion of an organ through a wall of the cavity containing the organ
hiatal hernai a hernia that includes the protrusion of digestive organs
stomach cancer/gastric cancer intitally spreads through the stomach wall to nearby lymphnodes and organs,
eventually spreading to lungs
why is stomach cancer hard to no symptoms in the early stages
diagnose
charcterisitcs o stomach cancer indigestion, ab pain, nausea, puking, diahhrhea, bloating, not hungry, bloody
vomit/feces
liver largest internal organ in the body, located under the right ribs just inferior to the
lung and diaphgram
most common form of liver cancer hepatocellular carcinoma
in adults
cholangiocarcinoma cancer that starts in the bile ducts of the liver
why is liver a secondary place of blood is filtered in the liver
mestasis
memorize
 edit
Section 7
Question Answer
colorectal cancer cancer that starts in any portion of the large intestine
detection of cholorectal cancer polyps are usually seen
adhesion occurs as part of the healing rpocess after injury
paralysis loss of the movemtn in miscles, may prevent bowel movements
intussusception charcterized by one part of the intestine slipping into a previos segment of the intestine
volvulus when the intestine twists itself
memorize

Pathology Chapter 10- Disease of Digestive

System
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airbud123's version from 3-29-2015
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Section 1
Question Answer
gingivitis inflammation of the gums
pharyngitis inflammation of pharynx (sore throat)
esophagitis inflammation of the esophagus
gastritis inflammation of the stomach
enteritis inflammation of the lininig of the intestines
colitis inflammation of colon
appendicitis inflammtion of vermiform appendix
hemorrhoids inflamation of the blood vessels of the rectum
choleocystitis inflammation of the gall bladder
choleolithasis gallstones
cholangitis inflammation of the bile duct
pancreatitis inflammation of the pancreas
peritonitis inflammation of the membrane surrounding the abdominal cavity
memorize
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Section 2
Question Answer
what is gingiva destruction of the gums
what causes gingivitis long term effects of plaque, which turns into tartar (bacteria, mucus,
food)
when is gingivitis more common in cases of uncontrolled diabetes
what causes pahryngitis variety of microorganisms, but mostly caused by a virus
what is the most frequent viral causes of common cold, flu, adenovirus, mono and HIV
pharyngitis
bacterial causes of pharyngitis streptococcus, corneybacterium, Neissera gonorrhoae, chlamydia
pneumoniae
memorize
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Section 3
Question Answer
what condition causes gastroesphageal reflux
esophagitis
what occurs during gastric contents are passively regurgitated into the esophagus
gastoesophageal reflux
what does gastric acid do to irritates the squamous epithelium, leading to formation of ulcers, eventually a
the esophagus columnar epithelial lining forms and can ebcome malignant
heart burn is AKA dyspepsia
what can cause gastritis excessive alcohol consumption, prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflmmatory
drugs, pernicious anemia, autoimmuune disorder, or bacteria
symtpms of gastritis ab pain, belching, bloating, nausea, vomiting
memorize
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Section 4
Question Answer
ulcerative colitis disease that causes ulcers in the lining of the rectum and lower part of colon
inflammation of ulcerative colitis diarrhea, pus from the ulcers, bleeding from ulcers
causes what
ulcerative colitis is considered inflmmatory bowel disease
what
what can ulcerative colitis be crohns disease
diagnosed as
what causes ulcerative colitis it it idiopathic, but most likely due to immune system reacting to virus or bacteria
what occurs during ulcertaive weight loss, no appetit, rectal bleeding, loss of body fluids, frequent fever, nausea,
colitis cramps
proctocolectomy surgical removal of the colon and rectum
what occurs during a colostomy a small hole is made in abdomen called a stoma, fces travels thorugh small intestine
and exits the stoma, the colostomy bag collects stool
memorize
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Section 5
Question Answer
ulcer localized area of necrosis on the skin or mucous membranes
where do peptic ulcers occur stomach and small intestine
symptoms of peptic ulcers blood in stool, ab pain, fatigue, hearburn, indigestion
pyloric stenosis when scar tissue narrows the opening through which food passes, then food gets
bloked
what happens if food gets into an infection occurs, which can be fatal
ulcer
what caauses ulcers
Crohns Disease (iletis enteritis)
what causes Crohns Disease
characterisitc of crohns
Section 6
Question
what causes enteritis
common microorganisms
that cause enteritis
symptoms of enteritis
when is enteritis common
types of colitis
coltis may be caused by
what
symtpoms of colitis
when is appendicitis most
common
what causes appendicitis
charcteristic of appendacitis
appendectomy
Section 7
Question
what causes hemorrhoids
symptoms of hemorrhoids
how to help reduce risk of
hemorrhoids
hepatitis
what is a second cause of hepatitis
what does hapetatits cause
certain risk factors associated with
contracting hepatitis
forms of hepatitis
symtpoms of hep
bacteria (Helicobacter pylori)
inflmmatory bowel disease, which is a general term for diseases that cause
inflammation of the intestines
idiopathic, but most likely due to blackage of an intestine
ab pain in lower right region, diarrhea, rectal bleeding, weightloss, fever, ulcers
memorize
edit
Answer
microorganisms which are usually ingested in contaminated food or water
staphylococcus, salmonella, shigella, camplyobacter, & Escherchia coli
cramps, diarrhea, fever, dehydration, ab pain
travelling to places with contaminated water
pseudomembraneous colitis, crohns disease, ulcerative colitis, ischemic colitis, irritable
bowel syndrome, necrotizing enterocolitis, cryptosporidium colitis, cytomegalovirus
coltis
both acuta and chronic infections
ab pain, diarrhea, dehydration, ab bloating, intestinal gas, bloody feces
people age 10-30
viral infection or whn opening connecting the large intestine and apendix becomes
occluded
pain in right side of abdomen, nausea, vommiting, constipation, diarrhea, low fever, ab
swelling, loss of appetitie
removal of the appendix
memorize
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Answer
inflamed veins, which often result from straining to defecate, pregancy, anal sex,
thorugh cleaning/irritation
bright red rectal bleeding, and painful swelling around the anus
exercise, increase in fiber/water intake
inflmmation of th liver caused by parasites, bacteria, and viruses
illicit drugs or poisonous msuhrooms
progressive liver damage, liver failure, or liver cancer
eating contaminated foods, sex, IV drug abuse, nursing hom, getting a tatoo, aids
hep a, hep b, hep c, autoimmune hep, drug-induced hep, and alcohol hep
dark urine, clay colred feces, loss of appetite, fatigue, ab pain, ab distension,
 general itching, jaundice, nausea, weight los, and gyenocomastia
vaccines for hep both a & b have vaccines, no C
memorize
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Section 8
Question Answer
methyldopa used to treat hypertension
isonniazide use to treat tuberculosis
valproate or phenytoin used to treat seizures
chlopromazine/amiodarone used to treat irregular heartbeat
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole or erythromycin antibiotics used to treat infections
methotrexate used to treat cancer and in small doses, arthritis
memorize
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Section 9
Question Answer
jaundice is AKA icterus
what causes jaundice excess bilirubin in the blood
what is bilirubin a breakdown product of hemoglobin, usually rid of in feces
memorize

Bacterium-Name
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airbud123's version from 10-14-2014
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Section 1
Question Answer
Bacillus anthracis anthrax
Bordetella pertussis whooping cough
Clostridium botulinium Botulism
Clostridium tetani Tetanus
Clostridium diphtheria Diptheria
Vibrio cholarae Cholera
Borrelia burgdoferi Lyme Disease
Chlamydia psittaci Parrot Fever
Francisella tularensis Tularemia(rabbit fever)
Leptospira interrogans Leptospirosis
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Section 2
Question Answer
Rickettsia rickettsii Rocky MOuntain Spotted Fever
R. typhi Typhus fever
Yersina pestis Plague
Escherichia coli E Coli
Haemophilus influenzae Influenzal meningitis
Myobacterium tuberculosis Tuberculosis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae Gonorrhea
Neisseria meningitidis Meningococcal meningitis
Salmonella enteritidis Salmonella food poisining
S. typhi Typhoid fever
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Section 3
Question Answer
Staphylococcus aureus skin and wound infection
S. pyogenes Impetigo
Treponema pallidium syphillis
memorize

Diseases and Microorganisms
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airbud123's version from 10-10-2014
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Section 1
Question Answer
Disease Any change from a state of health interruption in the normal functioning of a body structure
structure or system.
Infection state of condition in which a body or a part of it is invaded by a pathogenic agent that, under
favorable conditions, multiple and produces injurious effects
contamination the act of introducing pathogens or infectious material into or on an inanimate object
pathogenicity the state of producing or being able to produce pathological changes and disease
attenuation dilution or weakening of the virulence of a microorganism; reducing or abolishing pathogenicity
drug-fast resistant, as in bacteria, to the action of a drug or drugs.
true pathogens an organism that due to its own virulence (relative power of an organism to produce disease) is
able to produce disease
opportunist an organism that exists as part of the normal flora (the microbial population that lives with the
host in a healthy condition) but may become pathogenic under certain conditions
example of an ecoli
opportunist
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Section 2
Question Answer
exogenous (coming from outside the body) these pathogens enter the host from another host or
the environment
endogenous (produced or arising from within the body) these are caused by permanent members
of the host flora
acute infection is usually of rapid onset and short duration
chronic infection infection is normally of slow beginning and of an extended interval
communicable infection is a disease that may be transmitted directly or indirectly from one individual to
another
example of exogenous Ex. Measles diptheria, tuberculosis, syphilis
example of endogenous Actinomycosis (caused by an organism found in the gingival crevice of the mouth
example of acute infection Example: appendicitis
example of chronic infection Example: cancer, arthritis
example of communicable Example: HIV, Ebola, cold
infection
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Section 3
Question Answer
endemic describes those diseases that occur at a constantly low frequency in a community. They
are present at low levels at all times
epidemic describes a disease that affects a large number of people in a community in a short time.
An infection will appear with high level of intensity for a short time.
pandemic describes a world wide epidemic where persons all over the world become infected with
the same disease
example of pandemic influenza pandemic of 1918-1919
sporadic a few persons get a disease at irregular intervals. These appear to be a seasonal incidence
to this type of infection.
example of sporadic Example: Tularemia (rabbit-fever) is usually just seen during summer months
disease
non-communable disease infections are not transmitted from one host to another. Only a few diseases are of this
nature.
example of non- Example: tetanus only transmitted via a deep puncture wound
communable disease
primary (First) infection that a host acquires after a state of health
secondary (second) infection that a host acquires after a state of health
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Section 4
Question Answer
mixed infection infection has two or more organisms that cause an initial infection
example of mixed An infection of a wound resulting from a human bite.
infection
local infection remains confined to the area where the pathogens were introduced
example of skin infection Example: Skin infection (boil)
General Systemic moves and spreads throughout the body (circulatory system) during the course of the
infection infection
focal infection is one that localizes in one area of the body and then moves to another site
example of focal infection tooth abcess
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Section 5
Question Answer
Septicemia (sepsis) aka blood a condition of bacteria in the blood where they actively grow and multiply
poisoning
symptoms of septicemia May cause rash, chills, fever, petechiae (pinpoint bleeding) ultimately shock
and death.
Toxemia the presence of toxins in the blood; distributed throughout the body of
poisonous products of bacteria growing in local or focal sites, producing
generalized symptoms
symptoms of toxemia May cause fever, vomiting, diarrhea, ultimately shock and death
bacteremia condition in which bacteria are in bloodstream but do not multiply there
Terminal infections is the last infection that a host will ever have. This delivers the
death blow and is the cause of death in most cases where the host as a fatal
disease.
example of terminal aids, jcd, hep c
Bacteria have several mechanisms by Bacteria may produce toxins (poisons) enzymes or capsules to aid in their
which they can overcome the hosts pathogenic potential.
defenses to cause disease
Toxins are certain types of poisons (plant, animal, bacterial or fungal) produced by
bacteria as as aid to successfully complete with the host. Only a few bacterial
toxins are known to be responsible for the pathogenesis of infectious disease.
exotoxins are usually toxic produced by microorganisms and excreted into its
surroundings, they are the most powerful biological poisons known to
humankind
example of exotoxins tetanus, diptheria
endotoxins are bacterial toxins confined within the body of a bacterium that is only freed
when broken down. Their effects on the cardiovascular, respiratory and
blood-clotting mechanisms have been known to cause septic shock and
death.
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Section 6
Question Answer
capsules are an envelope of polysaccharide or protein that surrounds certain microorganism.
endospores are minute, highly durable bodies, developed within certain bacterial cells and is capable of
developing into new vegetative cells; characteristic of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium
what do endospores and help the microorganism survive changes in temperature, pH, light, and osmotic pressure
capsules do that could otherwise damage it.
primary sources of ill animals or sick people
infection
passive carriers may be temporary or transient; excrete the pathogen for less than a year without the
organism suffering from the clinical symptoms of the disease
active carriers shed, transmit or excrete pathogens while suffering from a clinically recognizable attack of
a disease.
covalescent carriers are a source of causative agent of a disease while recovering from a clinically recognized
disease
chronic carriers can transmit pathogenic microorganisms for longer than a year. Usually the host suffers no
symptoms of the disease they are transmitting.
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Section 7
Question Answer
direct transmission the organism casing the disease is directly transmitted from one host to another in a short period
of time.
physical contacts includes casual touching like a handshake. infectious agents may also be transmitted via kissing
(mononucleosis, fever blisters, respiratory diseases like the flu or common cold). Transmission
may occur via sexual contract, referred to as venereal disease (syphilis, gonorrhea) as well as
venereal herpes.
droplet infections involves the generation of a droplet spray of contaminated respiratory mucous into the
atmosphere around a person who coughs, sneezes, laughs, talks or any activity where air is passed
through the upper airway passages. Inhaled by susceptible hosts, the droplets cause respiratory
infections
example of droplet tuberculosis (TB), pneumonia, influenza, diptheria, whopping cough (pertusisn)
infection
congenital pertains to the transmission in utero (from the mother to the fetus). The organism travels from the
mothers blood to the fetus via the placenta. Certain microorganisms penetrate the placental barrier
and cause infection (syphilis, toxoplasmosis, rubella) These types of infection may also occur
during childbirth when microorganism in the vagina come into contact with the infant
example of mom has gonorrhea (Neisseria Gonorrhoea) it may cause serious eye infections in the infant
congenital disease
indirect the organism causing a disease is indirectly passed from one host to another after remaining in the
transmission environment of an undetermined period of time. The pathogen usually remains outside of the
second host in food, H2O, on an inanimate object (like your desk) or in or on an insect
food that is eaten can carry microorganisms that transmit intestinal diseases (diarrhea, dysentery
(prolonged), severe stomach cramps). The source of the pathogen can be from the organisms
contained in contaminated feces or urine. It may also be contaminated by toxins produced by
some microorganisms that actually kill the host. (clostridium botulism and staphylococcus aureus)
both cause food poisoning. These organisms can also be transferred from infected food handlers.
milk microbial contaminants may be from direct or droplet spray exposure from a milk handler or an
indirect contact with feces, urine, or the microorganisms carried by insect vectors such as flies.
Certain enteric (affecting the stomach intestines) bacilli can be found an ice cream, cheese and
butter (all made from milk)
water polluted with sewage transmits intestinal diseases. Many forms of enteric diseases cause viruses,
bacteria, protozoa, and larger parasites via H2O. Water treatment facilities chemically treat;
however, lakes, ponds, streams, springs that untreated may contain microflora capable of causing
disease
fomites are inanimate (nonliving) objects, like your desk, a fork, cups, pencil, books, door knobs, money,
etc. all are are capable of carrying the agents of disease to the susceptible host. Microorganisms
from the respiratory, intestinal tracts, or skin may contaminate fomites. If these microorganisms
are trapped in mucous secretions, they may be able to withstand drying and the effects of light for
long periods of
soil dirt carries a myriad or organisms. Most are non-pathogenic but soil has the potential to harbor
organisms that cause disease. Infectious agents may be spread indirectly via dust particles or
droplet nuclei. The dried secretions containing organism from the skin and excretions may be
found in dust particles. Once dispersed into air, the dust may be inhaled or come in contact with
open wounds.
memorize
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Section 8
Question Answer
vectors (insects) classified as arthropods du to their appendages and hard
exoskeleton. Vectors that transmit pathogens include
example of vector mosquito, tick, lice
mechanical vector A living organism or an object that is capable of transmitting infections by
carrying the disease agent on its external body part or surface
portals of entry Respiratory Tract, Digestive Tract, Genitourinary Tract, Placenta
Abrasions, lesions, and open wounds in the introduction of disease causing microorganisms
the skin are an invitation to
A human bite may result in the greatest inflammatory reactions.
mucous membrane of the eyes and ears become infected with pathogenic microorganisms
may also
espiratory Tract is invaded by airborne pathogens capable of multiplying in its warm, moist environment
Ingestion of infected or contaminated is a frequent cause of the spread of disease
foods and water
Chemical defenses against infection Lysozyme, Gastric juice, interferon
memorize

Microbiology Chapter 22
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airbud123's version from 9-20-2014
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Section 1
Question Answer
autotrophic bacteria self-nourishing bacteria capable of growing in the absence of
organic compounds
where do autotrophic bacteria obtain their nutrients from carbon in carbon dioxide
one of largest groups of autotrophic bacteria cyanobacteria
how much of the Earth's oxygen does autotrophic 20% of earths oxygen
bacteria produce
what does autotrophic bacteria use to create their light and carbon dioxide
food
why are cyanobacteria necessary for human they can convert atmospheric nitrogen into organic form
survival
what type of disease does autotrophic bacteria cause swimmers itch
Heterotrophic bacteria bacteria that require complex organic food from a carbon source
to grow and develop
heterotrophic bacteria are the cause of what many diseases in humans
heterotrophs are able to survive on what over 90 types of organic bacteria
beneficial heterotrophs do what help wth fermentation of beer, wine, yeast
three categories of heterotrophic bacteria strict (obligate) saprophytes, strict (obligate) parasites, faculative
bacteria
strict saprophytes organisms that only survive in dead or decaying organic matter
strict parasites completely dependent on their living hosts for the nutrients they
needs to survive
virus, viroids, prions are parasites are examples of obligate parasite (they lack internal structures to produce energy)
what
faculative bacteria adapt to differing sources of nutrients
memorize
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Section 2
Question Answer
5 classifictaions of bacteria based on obligate (strict) aerobes, obligate (strict) anaerobes, microaerophilic
oxygen requirement organisms, facuative organisms, & aerotolerant organisms
obligate aerobes microorganisms that can only live in the presence of oxygen, because they
need oxygen to metabolize sugars
two organisms that are usually strict bacillus and pseudomonas
aerobes
obligate anaerobes microbes that can only survive in an environment devoided of oxygen
examples of strict anaerobes C. Perfringens, Listeria
Microaerophilic bacteria microorganisms that require little free oxygen (2%-10%)
faculative bacteria capable of adjusting to changes in oxygen levels in their environment
diseases caused by microaerophilic gonorrhea, stomach ulcers, meningococcal meningitis
bacteria
aerotolerant organisms can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
example of aerotolerant diseases strep throat, scarlet fever
memorize
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Section 3
Question Answer
what does each microorganism have reffering to a maximum, optimum, and minimum amount of moisture
moisture
bacteria that cause disease in human require how
much moisture
molds and yeasts that can cause human disease
require how much moisture
Psychrophiles
Mesophiles
Thermophiles
High temperature bacteria
variations in temperature growth explains what
why is temperature difference important to the
embalmer
why do embalmers place bodies in the fridge
what happens if a body is frozen
Section 4
Question
pH scale is used to indicate what
0 on the pH scale means what
14 mens what on the pH scale
what is human body pH level
how are yeasts and molds affected by light
osmotic pressure
what happens when the fluids outside of a
bacterial cell contain salt
why is salt used to preserve meats
why is osmotic pressure high in arterial
fluids
why is sugar a good preservativr=
cell swelling and bursting
Section 5
Question
symbiosis when two or more different species of organisms live close together in association
mutualism the living together of two organisms in intimate association
example of mutualism e coli live in digestive tract where they synthesize certain vitamins
a high amount of moisture
a low amount of moisture
bacteria that prefer cold, thriving at temps between 0 C and 25 C
(32-77F)
bacteria that prefer moderate temperatures and grow best between
25 - 40 C (77-104 F)
bacteria that grow best at high temperatures between 40-70C (104-
158 F)
bacteria found inside of volcanoes 105-110 C (212-230 F)
why some bacteria grow in different parts of the body
changes in body temperature occur before and after death
influencing the rate of decomp in human remains
the low temps retard the growth of mesophilic bacteria, which
slows decomp
cellular damage would occur, which would inhibit arterial
embalming
memorize
edit
Answer
concentration of hydrogen ions present
extremely acidic
extremely alkaline
7.4 (neutral)
they dont contain chlorphyll, so light does not help produce energy
pressure required to prevent the net flow of water across a semipermeable
membrane, such as a cell membrane found in bacteria
the water from the cell is pulled out to the external fluid, which results in
the membrane collapsing and killing the cell
high concentrations of salt retard decomp by inhibiting microbial growth
the fluids retard decomposition
it naturally resists the decomp effects of many bacteria
plasmoptysis
memorize
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Answer
commensalism only one organism benfits and there is no harm or benfit for the other one
example of bacteria that live on the surface of the human skin
commensalism
parasitism parasite gains its nutrition, protection, livelihood at expense of other host
example of paratism tick on a dog
synergism two organisms that grow better together than apart, but can survive alone. They dont need
each other
example of synegism bacteria loctaed in the cecum and certain lymphatic tissues (peyers patches) in the GI tract
antagonism two organisms where one may harm the other
example of anatagonism antibiotic is used to kill diseases
example of antagonism lactobacilli reduces pH in human vagina lowering risk of infection
memorize

Introduction to Microbiology
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airbud123's version from 9-6-2014
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Section 1
Question Answer
spontaneous generation thought that life forms appear from non-living matter
Francseco Redi used maggots and meat to challenge spontaneous generation
John Needham Chicken broth sealed in flasks. challenged theory of spontaneous generation
Louis Pasteur Proved theory of spontaneous generation was incorrect
Rudolph Vurchow Theory of biogenesis
Joseph Lister Anti-Septic solution for surgery
memorize
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Section 2
Question Answer
in the early 1900's what was discovered about they cause disease
microorganisms
what was the early methods to control disease trial and error
Edward Jenner founded vaccine for small pox
what did people originally think caused disease foul odors and sewage
germ theory the thought that microorganisms actually cause disease
Robert Hooke discovered little "boxes" or "cells" using a double lensed
microscope
Anton Van Leehvnohoken Noticed microorganisms or "animalcules" in water, feces,
and teeth
what did joseph lister use as a didinfectant phenol and carbolic acid
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 Section 3
Question Answer
what was the "magic bullet" a disinfectant that would be used inside the body
Paul Ehlrich German (1899) whose goal was to find a magic bullet for syphillis
Principle of modern 1.) study chemical constitution of drugs 2.) chemical action 3.) action on cells of
chemotherapy disease causing organism
Alex Flemming accidnetally discovered a fungus that helped with disease...penacillen
why is there no magic bullet all drugs have side effects
memorize
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Section 4
Question Answer
microbiology study of microorganisms and the effect on living organisms
micro extremely small
bio life
bacteriology study of bacteria
rickettisology study if rickettsia
virology study of a virus
protozoology study of protozoa
mycology study of a fungus
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Section 5
Question Answer
main diffrence between eukaryotic cell and prokaryotic cell e-has nucleus/cytoskeleton
eukaryotic contain dna and organells
hwo much bigger is a eukaryotic cell 10X bigger
what is made up of eukaryotic cells plants and animals
what is made of prokaryotic cells bacteria
memorize
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Section 6
Question Answer
5 kingdoms monera (prokaryote), protista, fungi, plantae, animalia
1st name of microorganism refers to genus
last name of microorganism referes to species
what kingdom does bacteria belong to kingdom monera
what do pathogenic bacteria do cause disease
how much bigger is bacteria than a virus 10 X bigger
memorize
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Section 7
 Question
mycoplasmas
why is mycoplasma prokaryotic
what do mycoplasmas feed off of
what diseases do mycoplasmas cause
what does mycoplasma produce, that may damage
human cells
what does mycoplasmas contain
what is rickettsia
where does rickettsia reproduce
how is rickettsia spread
what ype of parasite is rickettsia
where is rickettsia usually found
what does rickettsia need to survive
Section 8
Question
Chlamydia
how is chlamydia similar to a virus
why is chlamydia dependent on a cell
what infections are caused in the human body
what is the main carrier of chlaymidia
what does chlamydia infect
Section 9
Question
what kingdom does protozoa
belong to
why is protozoa eukaryotic
how much protozoa in the world
what are the classification
what is fungi
what are the divisions of fung
if a fungus is unicelluar and has a
capsule
fungus that is filamentous and
multicellular
how does fungus reproduce
Answer
smallest and simplest self-replicating bacterium
they have no cell wall
urea and some cholesteral
AIDS, pneumonia, stillbirths, infertility, spontaneous
abortions, uti's
hydrogen peroxide
double stranded dna
rod shaped, intracellular parasitic bacteria
only inside a host cell
through lice, ticks, fleas
obligate parasite
small blood vessels of brain, heart, skin
a host cell
memorize
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Answer
group of nonmotile, gram-negative, intracellular parasite
the bacteria replicates in the hosts cell cytoplasm
the ATP in a cell is needed for energy
eye and genital infections
birds
mucous lining of respitory tract, liver, kidney, and heart
memorize
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Answer
kingdom protista
have a nucleus and rigid form
more than any other microorganism
flagellates, amoebae, sporozoans, ciliates
group of often fillamentous unicellular and multicellular organisms lacking
chlorophyll and containing spores
yeast, mold, and dimorphic fungi
it is a yeast
is mold
both sexually and asexually
how does yeat reproduce via budding
memorize
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Section 10
Question Answer
virus intracellular, infectious parasite, capable of living and replication only in
living cells
what can viruses infect any living cell including bacteria, fungi, and parasites
what do viruses contain only on type of nucleic acid (DNA/RNA), wrpped in a protein coat
what are viruses classified by nucleic acid, size, shape, substructure
what do viroids contain only RNA
what do viroids lack a protein coat
what do viroids and viruses creat in immune system reaction
humans
prion small proteinaceous, infectious particle that are resistant to most procedures
what do prions consist of proteins produced by human genes
what do they lack nucleic acid (DNA/RNA)
where do they multiply only inside living cells

Virus and Prion Disease

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airbud123's version from 11-19-2014
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Section 1
Question Answer
cytomegalovirus inclusion disease
ebola virus ebola hemorrhagic fever
encephalitis virus encephalitis
epstein-barr virus mononucleosis
hantavirus hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
hepatitus a virus infectious hepatitus
hepatitus b virus serum hepatitus
hepatitus c virus non a, non b
memorize
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Section 2
Question Answer
herspes simplex virus 1 cold sores
herpes simplex virus 2 genital herpes
HIV AIDS
influenza virus flu
mumps virus
poliovirus
rabies virus
rubella virus
rubeola virus
Section 3
Question
varicella-zoster virus chicken pox (varicella virus)
varicella-zoster virus shingles (zoster virus)
varoila virus small pox
west nile virus west nile encephalitis
Section 4
Question
cytomegalovirus mot
ebola virus mot
encephalitis virus mot
epstein-barr virus mot
hantavirus mot
hepatitus a virus mot
hepatitus b virus mot
hapatitus c virus mot
HIV mot
Section 5
Question
influenza virus mot
mumps virus mot
poliovirus mot
rabies virus mot
rubella virus
rubeola virus mot
varicella-zoster mot
varicella-zoster virus mot
varoila virus mot
west nile virus mot
epidemic parotis
poliomyelitis
rabies
german measles
measles
memorize
edit
Answer
memorize
edit
Answer
contact with body secretions (saliva, urine, semen, vaginal fluid, breast milk)
body fluid contact
mosquito bite
transfer of saliva
inhalation of virus from infected rodents
fecal-oral route, ingestion of contaminated food or water
contaminated body fluids
blood transfusion
stds, sharing needles
memorize
edit
Answer
inhalation of respitory droplets
inhalation of respitory droplets
fecal oral route, contaminated water
animal bite or inhalation of aerosolized virus
inhilation of respitory dropleys
inhalation of respitory droplets
inhaltion of respitory droplets
reactivation of varicella virus
respitory route
mosquito bite
memorize

Section 6
Question
cytomegalovirus symptoms
ebola virus symptoms
encephalitis virus symptoms
epstein-barr virus symptoms
hantavirus symptoms
hep a virus symptoms
hep b virus symptoms
hep c virus symptoms
herspes simplex 1 virus
symptoms
herpes simplex 2 virus
symptoms
Section 7
Question
HIV symtoms
influenza virus symptoms
mumps virus symptoms
poliovirus symptoms
rabies virus symptoms
rubella virus symptoms
rubeola virus symptoms
varicella-zoster virus
symptoms
varicella-zoster virus
symptoms
varoila virus symptoms
west nile virus symptoms
Disease Caused By Virus and Prions
rename
airbud123's version from 11-17-2014
Section 1
Question
prions
edit
Answer
fetal birth defect, in adults: prolonged fever and mild hepatitus
acute fever, headache, arthritis, muscle pain, sore throat, vommiting, rash, in/ex
bleeding
chills, fever, headache, confusion, coma
infection of parotid salivary glands, fever, sore throat, fatigue
fatigue, fever, muscle aches, headache, dizziness, chills
anorexia, fatigue, nausea, diarrhea, fever, jaundice
chronic or fatal, scarring and hardening of liver, jaundice, liver cancer, liver failure
similar to hep b virus
cold sore lesion on mouth
lesions around genitals
memorize
edit
Answer
failure of immune system
fever, chills, headache, cough, extreme fatigue
swelling of parotid salivary gland, fever, painful swallowing, orchitis, neningits,
pancreatitus
sore throat, fever, nausea, vomiting, meningitis, paralysis
encephalitis, paralyisis, inability to swallow
red spots and feveer that lead to encephalitis
red spots on face/trunk, more severe than german measles
lesions that fill with pus and crust over
blistering of lower extremities, sensitive nerve endings
pox lesions on skin and organs
inflammation of nervous system
edit
Answer
small proteinaceous, that are resistant to most procedures
unlike viruses and viroids, prions do not DNA & RNA
contain
prions are intracellular parasites
diseases caused by prions are known as what spongiform encephalapothies (turn brain to sponge)
amyloid general term for any intracellular or intercellular starch deposit
scarpie disease of sheep and goats that causes them to rub sores on their
bodies
what is mad cow disease aka bovine spongiform encephalotapy
memorize
edit
Section 2
Question Answer
Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease progressive disease that causes spongiform-pourous like sponge-then
defamation of the brain
symptoms of CJD dementia, loss of nervous system control, blindness...people usually die
within a year
embalmers should avoid what when contact with brain tissue, contact with spinal cord, and contact with spleen
emblaming CJD
Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome a rare central nervous system disorder of famlies that makes it different
from CJD
Fatal Familial Insomnia genetic disorder within famlies that results from a mutation of the normal
protein prion in brain
memorize
edit
Section 3
Question Answer
virus intracellular parasite capable of living and replicating only in living cells
viruses are basically piece of genetic material wrapped in a protein, they contain either DNA or
RNA
how do they replicate inside cells they use the cell's own structures to reproduce more infected cells
why are viruses dependent on cells they lack the ATP required for energy
why are viruses sensitive to they have lipids in their coverings
disinfection
memorize
edit
Section 4
Question Answer
what do you call virus of the skin dermatropic
small pox skin vrus that causes painful lesions to form on skin
who made small pox vaccine edward jenner
how does small pox eneter the human body through respitory system
monkey pox viral disease with a clinical presentation to small pox patients
measles extremely contagious skin disease that is spread via respitory
transmisson
symptoms of measles
German Measles
Congenital Rubella Syndrome
babies born with congenital rubella
syndrome expirience what
chicken pox/shingles
primary symptom of chicken pox
Herpes Simplex Virus 1 (cold sores)
Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (GH)
Section 5
Question
pneumotropic
common cold
common cold symptoms
Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome
how is HPS spread
characteristics of Hantavirus
Pulmonary Syndrome
Severe acute respitory disease
symptoms of severe acute respitory
syndrome
how is severe acute respitory
syndrome spread
Section 6
Question
neurotropic
rabies
how is rabies spread
what does rabies cause
how is rabies characterzed
polio
how is polio transmitted
encephalitis
charcterstics of encephalitis
west nile virus
rash on face and rash spreading to lower extremities
more mild form of measles that causes red spots and fever
form of birth defect that occurs when the mother becomes infected with
the rubella virus in her first trimester
stunted growth, disinfigurement, deafness, cataracts, heart defects
infectious skin disease spread by respitory tract infection
blisters that fill with pus and last 3-4 days
virus transmitted VIA oral route, causes sore in the mouth area
STD that causes painful blisters around vagina or scrotum
memorize
edit
Answer
respitory tract disease
most common illness in us
ruuny nose, sore throat, coguhing/sneexing
belongs to bunyavirus family which contains 5 genera of viruses that are each
made up of single stranded RNA
through contact with rodents
fever, shortness of breath, muscle pain, head ache, chills
respitory illness that has recently become prevelant in asia, north america, and
europe
fever greater than 100.4, headache, discomfort, body aches
close person to person contact
memorize
edit
Answer
virus of the central nervous system caused by a rhabdovirus
an acute, neurotrophic, infectious disease
via bite of an infected animal or through aerosols infecting the human body
encephalitis
by alternating periods of calmness, fear of water, spasms that cause foaming of mouth
neurotropic, viral infection caused by poliovirus
via contaminated water
viral inflammation of the brain
chills, headache, fever, confusin, coma
mosquito spread disease that causes flu like symptoms
 memorize
edit
Section 7
Question Answer
viscerotropic visceral diseases
hepatitis inflammatory disorder of the liver
according to OSHA funeral home employees must recieve what vaccinations of HBV
where does mononucleosis replicate in parotid salivary glands until fever occurs
why do embalmers need to be aware of inclusion disease children have a high rate of transmission
orchitis inflammation of testiles that lead to sterilization
oophoritis inflammation of ovaries
the ebola virus is what an RNA virus
memorize

Chapter 25 Disease Caused By Bacteria

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airbud123's version from 10-28-2014
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Section 1
Question Answer
Bacillus antracis anthrax
Bordetella pertussis whooping cough
Clostridium botulinium Botulism
Clostridium Tetnai Tetanus
Cornybacterium diphtheriae Diptheria
Estrechia Coli Etroinvasive coli
Francisella tularensis Tularemia (rabbit fever)
Haemophilus influenzae iinfluenzal meningitis
Myobacterium Tuberculosis Tuberculosis
Neisseria Gonorrhoeae Gonorrhea
memorize
edit
Section 2
Question Answer
Salmonella enteritidis Salmonella food poisoning
Salmonella. Typhi Typhoid Fever
Staphylococcus auereus Skin/Wound infection
Streptococcus. pneumonia septic sore throat (strep)
Streptococcus. pyogenes impitego/scarlet fever/rheumatic fever
Treponema pallidium syphillis
Vibrio cholerae Cholera
Yersinia pestis
Section 3
Question
Bordetella pertussis mot
Borrelia burgdoferi mot
Clostridium botulinium mot
Clostridium perfringins mot
Clostridium Tetani mot
Corneybacterium diphheria mot
E Coli mot
Francisella tularensis mot
M. tuberculosis mot
Neisseria gonorrhoeae mot
Section 4
Question
Salmonella enteridis mot
Salmonella. typhi mot
Staphylcoccus aureus mot
Staphylococcus. pneumonia mot
Staphylococcus. pyogenes mot
Treponema pallidium mot
Vibrio Cholerae
Section 5
Question
Bacillus anthracis symptoms
Bordetella pertussis
Borrelia burgdorferi
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium perfingins
C. Tetani
Cornybacterium diptheriae
E Coli
Franisella Tularensis
M. Tuberculosis
Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
Bubonic plague
memorize
edit
Answer
inhalation of respitory droplets
tick bite
toxin
ingestion of spores/wound contamination/relocation of microbes
infections of wounds from contaminated soil
droplet or hand to mouth
fecal-oral route
inhalation, ingestion, bites, or skin breaks
inhalation of respitory droplets
direct sexual contact
memorize
edit
Answer
ingestion of contaminated food
fecal-oral route
direct contact
close contact/respitory drops
inhalation of respitory droplets
direct sexual contact
contaminated food
memorize
edit
Answer
flu like, shock, coma, resp failure
whooping sound between gasping for air
bulls eye rash, heart infections, CNS
paralysis, cardia/resp failure, nausea, difficulty swallowing
abdominal pain/swelling, necrosis of tissues
contraction of jaw muscles and resp system leading to asphyxia
sore throat, fever, fatigue, swollen neck
fever, ab cramps, diarhea, low platelet count
inflammation, enlargement of lympnodes, pneumonia, abcess thorughout the body
coughing of blood, chest pain, weight loss, anorexia, fever
pus from genitals, painful urination
 memorize
edit
Section 6
Question Answer
Salmonella fever, chills, ab pain, watery diarrhea
Typhoid fever fever, head ache, ab pain, nose bleed, white fur on tongue
staphylcoccus auerus pimples, turnucles, septicemia
Streptococcus. pneumonia water in lungs causes fever, chills, chest pain
Streptococcus. pyogenes weeping lesions, sore throat, heart valve
treponema pallidium chancre, rash, gummas, blindness, CNS infection
Vibrio cholerae watery stool, shock, blood viscosity increase
memorize
edit
Section 7
Question Answer
coagulase function is to clot bllod by converting fibrogen into fibrin
hyaluronidase allows S.aerues to penetrate connective tissue, allowing easy infection
lipase acts with oils and fats sectredted by sebaceous glands allowing colonization
eschar lesion that develops into a ring of small blisters surrounding a dark center
memorize

MT ANATOMY
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airbud123's version from 10-16-2013
edit
Section
Question Answer
What is peristalsis? waves of muscular contractions of muscle layers which propel fluid along.
What are examples of peristalsis? Digestive tract, urination, & ejaculation
What are the reproductive organs testes
in the male?
What are the reproductive organs ovaries
in the female?
What is the prepuce? the foreskin; a retractable piece of skin that covers the glans of the penis
Where is the prostate gland encircles the urethra, inferior to the bladder
located?
What does the prostate gland do? Adds a milky fluid to seminal fluid to activate spermtozoa
What is the first layer of the endometrium
uterine lining?
What is the endometrium? inner lining of uterus, involved in proliferating and developing into components
necessary to sustain fetal life if pregnancy occurs.
What is the second layer of the myometrium
uterine lining?
What is the myometrium?
What is the third layer of the
uterine lining?
What is the perimetrium?
What is oogenesis?
Where does oogenesis take place?
What are the structural units of the
kidney?
What are the functions of the
kidney?
Where is the location of the hilus
of the kidney?
What is aponeurosis?
What is the galea aponeurotica?
What is a tendon?
What is a ligament?
Which portion of the ailmentary
canal is located between the
pharnyx and the stomach?
What organ is attached to the
liver?
What is the function of the
gallbladder?
Where does the ileum join with
the large intestine?
What is a zygote?
How long is typical release of an
ovum from the ovary?
What is gross anatomy?
What is microscopic anatomy?
What is regional anatomy?
What is systemic anatomy?
What is the epididymis?
What occurs in the epididymis?
What is the urethra?
What is the glottis?
Where is the glottis located?
the middle layer of uterus, muscular layer, consisting of thick, smooth muscle
tissue
perimetrium
the serous outer lining around the uterus, which is actually visceral peritoneum
process of egg or ova formation
female ovaries
hilus, cortex, medulla, pelvis, nephrons, and calyces
ltration, formulate and eliminate waste, helps balance the level of salt and water
in the body, helps maintain a steady internal environment for optimal cell
metabolism (homeostasis), helps regulate PH of the blood (potential hydrogen)
produces RBCs synthesis of vitamin D
concavity on medial side of kidney, where blood vessels, nerves and ureters enter
and leave the kidney. Adipose helps cushion and protect kidney and hold it in
abdominal cavity
any broad at tendon in the body
tendinous sheet of tissue over the top of the epicranius
connects muscle to bone or bone to bone
bone or cartilage brous connective tissue
the esophagus
the gallbladder
a place where bile can be stored for future use in small intestine
the cecum
a fertilized egg
28 days
the study of body which is visible to naked eye ex. Looking at lobes of liver
study of human body with aid of a microscope
study of a particular body region as a seperate unit ex. head or chest
study of individual body organs and systems ex. digestive system or respitory
system
a tightly coiled and twisted structure which lies against the posterior surface of the
testes. First portion of spermatic duct,
spermatozoa continues it's maturing process and leaves.Tubules that connect to
testes.
tube which carries urine out of the urinary bladder to the outside of the body, lined
with mucous membrane, male also part of reproductive
opening part between larynx and pharynx
medial to pharynx and larynx
What occurs during the process of sex cells combine
fertilization?
Where does fertilization take the fallopian tubes
place?
Which structure forms eustachian tubes
communication between pharynx
and the middle ear?
How many pairs of salivary glands 3
are there in the human body?
What are the 3 pairs of salivary parotid, submandibular, sublingual
glands?
Where are the parotid salivary posterior lower jaw, infront of lower part of ear
glands?
Where are the sublingual glands? under the tongue
Where are the submandibular behind and beneath the mandible
glands?
The pharynx and larynx are digestive and respitory
divisions of what two systems?
What are the divisions of the fundus, body and Antrum
stomach?
What are divisions of the small duodenum, jejunum, ileum
intestine?
What are the divisions of the large ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon
intestine?
Where are the peyers patches small intestine; mostly in ileum
located?
What do the peyers patches do? keep bacteria in food from entering bloodstream
Where are islets of langerhan pancreas
located?
What do the islets of langerhan secrete insulin
do?
What structure forms the wall of cecum
the vermiform appendix?
What are the accessory organs in teeth, tongue, salivary gland, gall bladder, pancreas, liver
the digestive system?
What do accessory organs do? Bite, tear and chew. Helps with voice production, mastication process. Keeps
mouth moist. Produce bile. Both help prevent toxins from entering blood stream.
Where is the cardiac sphincter entrance of stomach, where esophagus empties into
valve?
Where is pyloric sphincter valve? exit of the stomach
Where is cancellous bone found? the interior of a bone
What type of tissue lines hollow epithelial tissue
body organs?
What is level of organization in chem., cell, tissue, organ, system, organism
human body?
What is the birth canal? vagina
On which bone is the Sella sphenoid bone, which houses pituitary gland
Turcica located?
What is a membrane? .a thin expanse layer of tissue covering surfaces or separating or connecting
regions, structures or organs
What is an example of a mucous lips or inner lining
membrane?
In which bones are auditory temporal bones
ossicles found?
What organ is located in the kidney
retroperitoneal position?
What bones have to do with sense incus, malleus, and stapes
of hearing?
What is anatomy? -derived from Latin and Greek "throughout" and "to cut" The study of the
structure of the human body.
What is physiology? has to do with mechanics; the function
What is histology? the study of the structure of tissue
What is osteology? study of bones
What is mycology? study of muscles
What is cytology? study of cells

Respratory System
rename
airbud123's version from 10-25-2013
Section
Question
What is respiration?
What is breathing
What connects the mouth and the nose?
Where does normal breathing occur?
What is the rate of respiration dependent
on?
What is the purpose of respiration?
What two systems work together in
respiraton?
What acts as the "vehicles" in the
bloodstream when respiration occurs?
During respiration, where does the
exchange of metabolic gasses (o2 CO2)
take place?
What is the term that describes the
edit
Answer
process in which body exchanges oxygen from the inspired air to the
carbon dioxide manufactured by cells during metabolism.
process in which air is pulled form environemt by contraction of
diaphragm or phrenic muscle. Followd by pushing of air from lungs.
pharynx or throat
the nose
activity level of the body
supply oxygen to cells; remove carbon dioxide produced by cells
respitory and circulatory
erythrocytes
level of capillary beds of lungs
external respiration
exchange of metabolic gasses in the
capillary bed of the lungs?
What occurs during external respiration? Oxygen is taken in by red blood cells and carbon dioxide is given off
What occurs during internal respiration? red cells give up oxygen to individual body cells
What are other terms to describe oxygen oxygentated blood, artrialized blood, and pure blood
rich blood?
What are the terms used to describe blood de-oxygenated blood, venous blood, impure blood
rich with carbon dioxide?
How many distinct organs are there in the 6
respitory system?
What are the 6 organs of the respirtory nose,pharynx,larynx,trachea,bronchi,&lungs
system?
What is the protruding part of the nose cartilage covered with skin and lined with mucous epithelial membrane
made of?
What are the dorsum, the wings, and the tip alar cartilage
of the nose made of?
What are the oval shaped holes located at anterior nares
the base of the nose (entrance way) called?
What holds the alar cartilage away from septal cartilage
the skull?
What does the septal cartilage help from? nasal septum
What does the nasal septum do? divide nose into right and left chambers
What part of the nose creates a hole in the nasal cavity
skull below and between the orbital
cavitites?
The nasal cavity is reduced in size by right and left inferior conchae bones
what?
Inspired air will exit the nasal cavity VIA posterior nares (oval shaped holes)
what?
What divides tha nasal cavity into two vomer bone and perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
seprate chambers?
What is the naval cavity surrounded by? sinuses
What are nearly closed holes in bones sinuses
called?
What are the sinuses also known as? paranasal sinuses
What is the sinuses of the nose? ethmoid sinus,sphenoid sinus,frontal sinus,&maxillary sinus
What do the hairs contained inside the filter polluted air (dust and pollen)
nasal cavity do?
What does the moisture rich mucous lining humidify the air
of the nose and nasal cavity do?
What takes place best in a moist diffusion
environment?
What are the sensory nerves that detect olfactory nerves
odors called?
Where does the nasal cavity invert air into? cone shaped structure called the pharynx
What portion of the pharynx lies posterior nasopharynx
to the nares and superior to the oral cavity?
What can the nasopharynx be obstructed inflamed adenoid glands
by?
What structures connect the pharynx to the eustachian tube
middle ear?
What is the middle portion of the pharynx? oropharynx
What is contained in the oropharynx? tonsils
What structure is known as the voice box? larynx
What is the cartigilous flap like structure epiglottis
that prevents food from entering the voice
box?
What does the epiglottis cover? opening of the pharynx
What are the anterior and lateral walls of thyroid cartilage
the larynx formed by?
Why is the thyroid cartilage called what it location to the thyroid gland
is?
What is the protrusion located on the adam's apple
thyroid gland?
What is the function of the adam's apple? Marks the point of attachment of true vocal cords
What is the most inferior portion of the cricold cartilage
larynx?
What does the inferor edge of the cricold mark the beginning of the trachea
cartilage do?
What is the entrance into the pharynx glottis
called?
What are true vocal cords? ligament like tissue, important in sound production
What is the narrow space between the true rima glottis
vocal cords?
What is the growth rate of the larynx hormone production (puberty)
affected by?
What structure is known as the windpipe trachea
What is the trachea part of? throacic cavity and cervical region
The trachea bifurcates into what? right/left primary or principle bronchi
What does each principle bronchi divide secondary or lobe bronchi
into?
What do lobe bronchi divide into? segmental bronchioles
What do segmental bRonchiloes divide terminal bronchioles
into?
What is an alveolus or alveolar sac? small globelike structure at the end of each terminal bronchiole
What are lungs comprised of? millions of alveolar sacs held together in a triangular shape
What holds the lungs together? an epithelial membrane called the pleura
What is the layer of pleura that surrounds visceral pleura
and defines the shape of each lung?
What layer of pleura lines the cavity of the parietal pleura
lungs?
How many lobes does the right lung have? 3
How many lobes does the left lung have? 2
What does thel left lung have that the right indentation on medial side
does not?
What is the name of the indentation on the cardiac notch
left lung?
Why is there a cardiac notch? heart lies against the lung
Why do healthy lungs have a pinkish red blood cells contained in the alveolar sacs
color?
What color is an unhealthy lung? gray or black
memorize
original image

Label Answer
A Esophagus
B Trachea
C Brachiocephalic Artery
D Superior Vena Cava
E Right Pulmonary Arteries
F Right Pulmonary Veins
G Right Atrium
H Bronchi
I Atrioventricular (tricuspid) Valve
J Right Ventricle
K Inferior Vena Cava
L Esophagus
M Left Carotid Artery
N Left Subclavian Artery
O Aorta
P Left Pulmonary Arteries
Q Left Pulmonary Veins
R Left Atrium
S Bronchi
T Semilunar Valves
U Atrioventricular (mitral) Valve
V Left Ventricle
W Septum
X Descending Aorta
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Anatomy Circulatory System

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airbud123's version from 11-5-2013
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Section
Question Answer
What are the three major functions of the circulatory system transportation, regulation, and protection
movement of all the substances necessary for cellular metabolism transportation function
throuhgout the circulatory system
study of circulation angiology
study of blood hematology
clear straw colored liquid, contains blood cells plasma
primarily responsible for carryong gasses erythrocytes
where are red blood cells manufactured red bone marrow
iron pigment heme
protein pigment globin
when rbc's breakdown after 120 days what happens bilirubin is formed
what is greenish pigmented substance due to biilirubin chemical biliveredin
change
condition when pigments builds up on liver, resulting in a yellow jaundice
color
what is primary responsibilty of white blood cells (wbc) fight against injury and infextion
what is it called when wbc's pass through the walls of the capillaries diapedesis
bloodcell that contains granules in cytoplasm granulocytes
bloodcell that doesn't contain granules in cytoplasm agranulocytes
example of granulocytes neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
example of agranulocytes lymphocytes and monocytes
process in which wbc's have ability to seek out foreign substances in phagocytosis
blood or tissue and engulf the froeign substance
what blood cells are considered phagocytes neutrophils, monocytes, and eosinophils
what helps form clots in wall of broken blood vessels thrombocytes/platelets
what is the liquid part of blood plasma
where do we find formed elements in blood plasma
how much is plasma composed of h20 92%-95%
how much is plasma composed of dissolved components 5%-8%
what is plasma that has all of the clotting factors removed called serum
what is blood grouping/typing of blood based on presence or absence of certain agglutinogens in
 membrane of rbc's
what are the two agglutinogens found in blood agglutinogen A and agglutinogen B
how many combos of blood types are there 4
what type of blood is universal donor type O
what type of blood is universal recipient type AB
study of the heart cardiology
muscular pump that pumps blood to all parts of the body heart
outermost serous membrane of the heart epicardium/visceral pericardium
middle muscular layer of the heart myocardium
innermost, endothelial layer of the heart endocardium
superior or upper chambers of the heart; for blood entering the heart atria(p) atrium(s)
what are the atrium identified as right atrium/left atrium
lower chambers of the heart; serve as exit chambers for blood leaving ventricles
the heart
what are the ventricles identifies as right ventricle/left ventricle
blood vascular system that carries blood from the heart to lungs for pulmonary circulation
oxygen and back to heart
what begins pulmonary circulation right ventricle
what ends pulmonary circulation left atrium
blood vascular system that carries oxygenated blood to all body parts, systemic circulation
then returns to heart
beginning of systemic circulation left ventricle
ending of systemic circulation right atrium
thick walled; elastic type vessel; carries blood away from heart artery
thin walled vessels that carry blood to heart vein
what color are arteries red
what color are veins blue
what does blood enter the heart through atria
what does blood exit the heart through ventricles
recieves de oxygenated blood from head and body right atria
(located in right atrium)serves to drain the head, upper extremeties, superior vena cava
and chest
(located in right atrium)serves to drain blood from abdomen and inferior vena cava
lower extremeties
(located in right atrium)serves to drain blood from ffrom heart coronary sinus
muscle itslef
large vessel that exits the right ventricle; carries oxygenated blood pulmonary trunk/pulmonary artery
toward lungs for oxygenation
receives oxygenated blood from lungs VIA 4 pulmonary veins left atrium
only veins that carry oxygenated blood pulmonary veins
large vessel contained within left ventricle; serves to carry blood to aorta/ascending aorta
all parts of the body
dividing wall that seperates right and left atria atrial septum
dividing wall that seperates right and left ventricle ventricular septum
wall that seperates right atrium from right ventricle right atrio-ventricular septum
wall that seperates left atrium and left ventricle left atrio-ventricular septum
valve located in right atrio-ventricular septum of the heart tricuspid valve
valve located in left atrio-ventriclular septum of the heart bicuspid valve
valve at the exit of the right ventricle and mouth of pulmonary trunk pulmonary semilunar valve
valve at the exit of the left ventricle into mouth of ascending aorta aortic seminular valve
process in which heart pumps blood cardiac cycle
contraction phase of the cardiac cycle systole
relaxation phase of cardiac cycle diastole
where does blood enter heart from right atrium one of 3 vessels (Inf. vena cava,
sup. vena cava, coronary)
after right atrium blood... passes through tricuspid valve into right
ventricle
blood leaves heart VIA pulmonary semilunar valve or pulmonary artery
after leaving the heart, blood goes to .... the lungs
after the lungs, blood reenters the heart VIA what left atrium by way of 4 pulmonary veins
after reentering VIA the left atrium, blood must pass through what bicuspid valve
after biscupid valve blood enters what left ventricle
after left ventricle, blood passes through what aortic semilunar valve into ascending aorta
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Lymphatic System
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airbud123's version from 11-14-2013
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Section
Question Answer
what is the lymphatic system considered a part of circulatory system
what is the source of connection lymph
what is lymph derived from tissue fluid
what is the lymphatic system extensive network of small vessels called lymphatics
what is the purpose of the lymphatic system collect excess tissue fluid, return to blood vascular system
unlike blood vascular system, the lymphatics have what no pumping mechanism
how are contents of lymphs transported by gravity and pressure from surrounding vessels
what does blood plasma escape through walls of capallaries
what is blood plasma minus some essential proteins tissue fluid
what does tissue fluid provide important fluid enviornment in which body cells exist
what does tissue fluid provide transportation system in which cells recieve nutrients and
 exchange gases
excess tissue fluid that enters lymphatic vessels is known lymph
as...
what is tissue fluid that builds up in excess and is not edema
carried away by lymphs or capillaries
what color is lymph pale amber colored liquid
what is specific gravity level pf lymph 1.015
what is acidity of lymph slightly alkaline with pH level of 7.4
how fast is lymph very slow
what is inner layer of lymphatics intima
what is middle layer of lymphatics media
what is outer layer of lymphatics adventitia
what helps keep lymph flowing toward the heart valves
what is purpose of right lymphatic duct to drain lymph from superior right quadrant of body
what does right lymphatic duct empty into right sub clavian or right brachio cephalic
what is left lymphatic duct AKA thoracic duct
What does left lymphatic duct drain serves to drain lymph from superior left quadrant and both
inferior quadrants of the body
where does thoracic duct begin cisterna chyli in abdomen
where does thoracic duct drain left subclavian or left brachiocephalic vein
what is cisterna chyli dialated inferior end of thoracic duct, which is collecting
space for lymph coming from abdomen
what are lymph vessels which drain from the digestive lacteals
tract
what does lacteal come from milky like appearance found in the lymph
why is there a milky appearance in the lymph presence of fats that are dissolved in the lymph
what is the special kind of lymph called chyme
what are prominent clusters of lymphs found in various lymph nodes
areas of body
cluster of lymph nodes located in walls of small intestine Peyer's Patches
What does payer patches do helps filter lymph leaving the intestinal area via lacteals
where else are lymph nodes found axilla, groin, breast, neck, and major vessels
what is metastasize when malignencies spread by way of lymph vessels
what are the masses of lymphoid tissue found in throat tonsils
what is massive amount of thyroid tissue behind the top thymus gland
of sternum
what does thymus gland do involved i n early production of lymphocytes
what system does thymus gland help immune system
what do lymphocytes do blood cells responsible for assisting in protection of the
body against disease
what is largest mass of lymphoid tissue in the body spleen
where is the spleen located right hypochondriac region of the abdominal cavity
why is spleen important
what is spleen secondary function
Endocrine System
rename
airbud123's version from 11-24-2013
Section
Question
study of endocrine system
body organ that emits secretion(s) to be
used somewhere else in body
endocrine gland
exocrine gland
heterocrine gland
example of endocrine glands
example of exocrine glands
example of heterocrine glands
hormones
what do hormones regulate
what is pituitary gland aka
how many hormones are involved
somatrophic hormone (STH) is aka
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
prolactin
melanoctyle stimulating hormone
(MSH)
thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
helps in phagocystosis of bacteria and other foreign
particles; including worn out rbc's
resorvoir for extra red blood cells
memorize
edit
Answer
endocrinology
glands
(ductless) secretions absorbed directly into blood stream
(contains ducts) "via ducts and not directly"
BOTH endo/exocrine
thymus, pituitary, thyroid, adrenal gland
sweat, oil, tear
pancreas/gonads
chemical substances released from endocrine tissue into blood stream with
specific target
metabolism, growth, development, tissue function, sleep, mood
"master gland"
9 w/ homeostatsis
growth hormone
stimulate the ovaries of female to develop and ovum each month and
produce estrogen. In males it stimulates sperm and sex hormone production
is testes
work with FHS to stimulate ovulation and sex hormones in females, and
production of testosterone the male sex hormone
stimulates milk secretion by mammary glands after pregnancy
affects the production and distribution of melanin, a skin coloring pigment
stimulates thyroid gland to stimulate hormone
stimulates the adrenal gland to produce their hormones
has effect of regulatong kidney ouput by the kidneys
how many parathyroid glands are there 4

what is outlerlayer of adrenal gland cortex

what is inner layer of adrenal gland medulla

what does zona glomerulosa do prouduce mineralcoritocoids( maintain minerals in bloodstream)

what does zona fasciulata do secrete glucocoirticoids( maintain glucose in blood)
what does zona reticularis do secrete gonadocorticoids which are weak sex hormones

how does adrenaline enter blood stream
what does adrenaline do
what are female gonads aka
what hormones do gonads secrete
what is estrogen responsible for
what is progesterone responsible for
what are male gonads aka
what hormone do the testes produce
what is testosterone responsible for
what type of gland is male/female
gonads considered
through medulla in times of stress
increase blood pressure and heart rate
ovaries
estrogen and pregestrone
development of female sex characteristsics, such as maturing of the sexual
organs and breasts, also menstrual cycle
assists in development of menstrual cycle, prepares uterus for pregnancy,
and stimulates breasts to produce milk
testes
testosterone
development of male sex characterisitcs. changes voice, produces male sex
cells/spermatozoa, and body hair growth
heterocrine gland

what is insulin's relationship with its an atagonistic

glucagon

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Anatomy Nervous System

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airbud123's version from 11-30-2013
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Section 1
Question Answer
olfactory nerve detection of odor
optic nerve detection of light and color
oculomotor nerve vertical and horizontal movement of eyeball
trochlear nerve diagonal movement of eyeball
trifacial nerve iris of the eye, maxillary and mandibular teeth gums, and lip
abudecent nerve lateral rectus muscle of the eyeball
facial nerve skin of neck, scalp and external ear, taste buds, and middle ear
acoustic nerve detection of sound
glossopharyngeal nerve muscles of tongue
vagus nerve sensory and motor nerve of head, neck, and torso
accessory nerve muscles of the neck
hypoglossal nerve muscles of tongue
memorize
edit
Section 2
Question Answer
study of nervous system neurology
single nerve cell neuron
what is a nerve cell made of cell body, dendrites, and axons
what are the recieving units dendrites
space between axon of one neuron and dendrite of next synapse
non nervous tissue that surrounds a chain of neurons neuroglia
what is combination of neurons and neuroglia create nerve
nerve with single axon and single dendrite bipolar neurons
nerve with single axon and multiple dendrites multipolar neurons
impulses from brain or spinal cord to a body part causing body part to efferent or motor nerves
function
nerves which relay messages from body part back to brain or spinal cord afferent or sensory nerves (pain, pressure,
heat)
memorize
edit
Section 3
Question Answer
what does central nervous system comprise of brain and spinal cord
what are brain and lungs confined in dorsal cavity
what is periphial nervous system made of various cranial nerves and spinal nerves
scientific name for brain encephalon
numerous elevation on brain gyri
furrows of brain sulci
brain tissue on outside is reffered to as gray matter
tissue in central portion of brain white matter
where do intellectual activities occur gray matter
where is primarily involved in reflex and instincual behavoir white matter
what are cavities inside the brain ventricles
what are ventricles called right lateral, left lateral, third, and fourth
what is each ventricle lined with specialized capillary CHOROID PLEXUS
what does choroid plexus produce cerebral spinal fluid
where is cerebral spinal fluid emptied subarachnoid space
membranes that cover CNS system and protect brain meninges
what are 4 main section of brain cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, and diencephalon
memorize
edit
Section 4
Question Answer
what is largest section of brain cerebrum
equal portions that make up cerebellum hemispheres
what holds two hemispheres together corpus callosum
what are lobes in brain parietal, frontal, temporal, and occipital
what is cerebrum considered to be center of human intelect(memory, logic, reasoning)
what is smallest section of brain cerebellum
what does cerebellum occupy inferior and posterior section of cranial cavity
what is cerebellum divided into right and left hemisphere
what does cerebellum control equilibrium and muscle control
what is most inferior part of brain brain stem
what is upper part of brain stem mid-brain
what is middle segment of brain stem pons variolii
what is inferior/upper segment of brin stem medulla oblangata
what does brain stem control respiration, heart beat, blood pressure
memorize
edit
Section 5
Question Answer
what are two subdivison of diencephalon thalamus and hypathalamus
what does thalamus do help relay sensory messages to brain from body
what does hypathalamus do works closely with pituitary gland, regulates body temp
what is most inferior portion of brain brain stem
where does thalamus lie underneath the cerebrum
what is spinal cord attached to inferior end of brain stem
what does spinal cord extend from foramen magnum of occipital bone to second lumbar of vertabra
filum terminal second vertebra to coccyx bone
inner layer of meninges pia mater
middle layer of meninges arachnoid mater
outer layer of meninges dura mater
what is a group of spinal nerves called plexus
 Develpmental Anatomy
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airbud123's version from 12-4-2013
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Section 1
Question Answer
what is ovum reffered to as egg or female sex cell
process of shedding an egg ovulation
what is released during ovulation ovum or oocyte
how often is an ovum or oocyte released 28 days
what occurs during intercourse male deposits sperm into woman's vagina
what does egg travel through fallopian tubes
what occurs during fertilization sperm and egg meet
where does fertilization usually take place fallopian tube
memorize
edit
Section 2
Question Answer
what is a fertilized egg called zygote
what will a zygote undergo cell divisions
mass of cells morula
fluid filled ball blastocyst or blastula
structure that serves as connecting link to mother's body placenta
where does placenta plug into endometrium of uterus
what does placenta allow passing of wastes and nutrients
where does blastocyst eventually attach itself to endometrium (inner lining of uterues)
what is the process of attachment called implantation
when does implantation take place ten days - 2 weeks following fertilization
memorize
edit
Section 3
Question Answer
how is gas exchanged via blood supply
what happens after implantation embryo begins to form
what are the embryos layers reffered to as embryonic germ layers
what is outer embryonic layer ectoderm
what is middle embryonic layer mesoderm
what is inner embryonic layer endoderm
how lond does it take for legs, armas, and head to form about 4 weeks
how long is a lunar month 28 days
when is a embryo reffered to as a fetus beginning of 3rd lunar month
how big is a baby at birth approximately 20 inches
what is gestation period of pregnancy development
how long is a full term gestation term 9 months
memorize
edit
Section 4
Question Answer
what help baby breathe and eat placenta
serves to carry oxygen and nutrients from placenta to baby umbilical vein
branch of umbilical vein, creates shortcut bypassing liver, alllowing blood ductus venosus
what is ductus venosus reffered to as when umbilical cord is tied ligamnetum venosum
what does ductus venosus empty into portal vein
what is tied umbilical cord reffered to as when tied ligamentum teres
opening in arterial septum, which allows blood entering right atrium to pass into left foramen ovale
what is the closed foramen ovale reffered to when one is born fossa ovalis
short cut that blood enters aortic arch directly into ductus arteriosus
what is closed down ductus arteriosis reffered to as ligamentum arteriosum
memorize

Reproductive System Female

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airbud123's version from 10-14-2013
edit
Section
Question Answer
What are the essential organs of the female reproductive system? ovaries
What is the process of egg formation in the ovaries? oogenesis
How many egg cells mature in a woman during her reproductive years? 350-500
What is the tiny sac-like structure that houses a womans eggs? Graafian follicle
What is the process known as when an ovum is expelled each month? ovulation
What hormone is responsible for development of sex charactersitics such as estrogen
maturation of genitals, pubic hair growth, & menstrual cycle
What hormone is responsible for mammary gland milk production and progesterone
epithelial cell implanation?
What are the passageways for an ovum to reach the uterus? fallopian tubes
What is the funnel shaped end of a fallopian tube? infundibulum
What are the fringe-like projections in the infundibulum called? fimbriae
What do the fimbriae do? create currents that attract ovum into
fallopian tube
What is a fertilized ovum known as? zygote
How long does a zygote take to proceed to through the fallopian tubes and 10 days
find its way to uterin lining?
How long does it take for a zygote to grow and mature? 9 months
What is the female organ that serves as point of development for a fetus uterus
(pear shape/behind bladder)
What is the specialized inner lining of the uterus? endometrium
What is the middle, muscular layer of the uterus called? myometrium
What is the serous outer lining of the uterus called? perimetrium
What is teh upper dome shaped part of the uterus called? fundus
What is the main portion of the uterus called? body
What is neck-like inferior part of the uterus called? cervix
What is the birth canal known as? vagina
What are the external female genitals referred to as? vulva
What external part is an area of adipose tissue and skin, covered in pubic mons pubis
hair, which over lies the pubic bone?
What are the two folds of skin, running inferior and posterior to the mons labia majora
pubis, enclosing additional structures referred to?
What are the two smaller folds of tissue, covering the entrance way into the labia minora
vagina called?
What is the opening of the urethra, just anterior to the vaginal orfice? urethral orfice
What is the mass of highly sensitive erectile tissue; located at anterior clitoris
junction of labia minora called?
What is the thin mucous membrane that partially covers then vaginal hyman
entrance called?
What is the entrance way of the vagina? vestibule
What are the mammary glands also known as? breasts
Each breast contains a circular pigmented area known as? areola
Mammary galnds contain 15-20 lobes around the nipple which contain milk secreting glands
what?
What determines breast size? amount of adipose tissue
What is the process that refers to changes ina females reproductive organs? menstrual cycle
How often does a menstrual cycle occur? 28 days
What is day 1-5 of the menstrual cycle referred to? menstrual period
What is it called when a female first menstruates? menarche
What is it called when a zygote does not drop to uterus and gets stuck in ectopic pregnancy
fallopian tube?
What are the three functions of the vagina birth canal, passageway fro penis, &
passageway for menstrual flow

Section 1
Question Answer
what is the pituitary gland attached to the hypathalamus
where is pituitary gland located
one of the biggest glands in body
where is it thyroid gland located
what does thyroid gland control
what does thyroid gland control
what does thyroid gland make
what two hormones does thyroid gland secrete
what does thyroxen control
what does calcitonen do
where are parathyroid glands located
what hormone does parathyroid secrete
what does parathormone do
how is parathormone compared to calcitonen
Section 2
Question
where are the suparenal glands located
what are suparenal glands aka
what is function of adrenal gland
what does the adrenal medulla secrete
what type of gland is the pancreas
considered
what ype of secretion is pancreatic juice
what is pancreatic juice
what does pnacreatic juice do in small
intestine
what do the islets of langerhans
produce
what does glucagon do
what does insulin do
where is the thymus gland located
what hormone does thymus gland
secrete
what does thymosin do
where is pineal gland located
what does pineal gland do
what hormones do heart and kidney
give off
depression of sphenoid bone (sella turcica)
thyroid gland
in neck inferiror to thyroid cartilage
how quickly body uses energy
how sensitive body is to other hormones
makes proteins
thyroxin and calcitonen
rate at which cells release energy from nutrients absorbed
decrease blood calcium levels by preventing breakdown of bone cells
in posterior surface of thyroid
parathormone
regulates blood calcium levels
its a antagonistic as it acts to increase blood calcium levels
memorize
edit
Answer
superior to kidneys
adrenal glands
synthesize corticosteroids
hormone known as adrenaline or epinephrin
heterocrine
exocrine
digestive enzyme that travels through pancreatic duct eventually empties into
small intestine
digest fats
glucagon and insulin
hormone which stimulates liver to increase rate at which glucose is released
into blood stream
effect of decresing glucose level
behind manubrium of sternium
thymosin
helps immune system develop, by influencing maturation of wbc's in body (t
lymphocytes)
third ventricle of brain
assists ovarian function, adrenal cortex function, and normal brain
physiology
hormone which effects important function of blood pressure levels and red
blood cell production
 memorize
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Anatomy Final
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airbud123's version from 12-6-2013
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Section 1
Question Answer
nerves which send impulses from brain/spine to body efferent or motor nerve
part causing to move
type of cartilage found in larynx thyroid cartilage
where is most blood volume found in the body capillaries

what is pulmonary circulation exchange of air between atmosphere and lungs

what is internal respiration blood gives off oxygen to blood cells and takes in carbon
dioxide
what is external respiration exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen at the capillary level;
comes from environment
what are meninges protective membranes that protect brain from trauma
what do meninges do seperate encephalon from cranial bone, and spinal cord from
spinal canal
what are layer of meninges dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid mater
type of tissue found in body smooth, cardiac, epithelial, muscle
what is exit of urinary bladder urethra
memorize
edit
Section 2
Question Answer
the cerebrum is considered part of what structure of the encephalon
the brain
what is funnel shaped organ posterior to oral and pharynx
nasal cavities
how many pairs of spinal nerves are in human body 31

what are the islets of langerhans and where are they located in pancreas; secrete insulin
located
what is an endocrine gland gland that has no ducts, secretion absorbed directly into
bloodstream
example of endrocrine glands pituitary, thymus, thyroid, adrenal
what is an exocrine gland gland that secretes VIA ducts and secretion does not go directly
into blood stream
examples of exocrine gland oil, sweat, tear
what is a heterocrine gland both endo and exo secretions
examples of heterocrine gland pancreas, gonads
memorize
edit
Section 3
Question Answer
where are the adrenal glands superior to the kidneys
what part of the brain controls equilibrium cerebellum

how many pairs of floating ribs are in the rib cage 2

what is a cluster of capillaries located within a nephron glomerulus capillaries

memorize
edit
Section 4
Question Answer
where is sternocleidomastoid located neck

what gland is located at the base of the brain pituitary gland

what is pituitary gland reffered to as master gland
what are peyers patches lymphnodes which prevent bacteria from entering blood
stream
where are peyers patches located wall of small intestine
what is another term used to describe the vas ductus deferens
defferens
what is a protuberence a bulge or nob that sticks out of bone
where is occipital tuberence located occipital bone
what membrane lines abdominal cavity peritoneum
memorize
edit
Section 5
Question Answer
what are the two divisions of nervous system central nervous system and peripheral
nervous system

during post mortem exam, which portion of cranium is removed caliverium

what part of vascular system takes oxygenated blood to body and then systemic circulation
returns deoxygenated to heart
small ducts that convey lymph from villi of small intestine lacteals
what is osseous tissue bone and connective tissue
what is chyle special milky white lymph, which
dissolves fats
where is chyle found small intestine

from what part of the body is lymph returned to blood vascular system inferior part of neck
memorize
edit
Section 6
Question Answer
divisions of small intestine duodnum, jejunum, ileum
divisions of large intestine ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid
glands of endocrine system pituitary, thyroid, adrenal
which gland produces growth hormone pituitary gland
what system of body contains glottis respitory system
what structures of heart are included in systemic circulation right atrium, left ventricle, and superior vena
cava
from what do veins originate as continuations of capillaries
what chamber of heart is last to contain o2 blood before entering left ventricle
aorta
what are most numerous of corpuscles rbcs erythrocytes

what is ph of normal blood 7.41, slightly alkaline

what is mediastinum space between lungs
what is housed in mediastinum heart and larger blood vessels
memorize
edit
Section 7
Question Answer
what organs are located in pleural cavity the lungs
what structure drains lymph from right upper extremity right thoracic duct

what is an erythrocyte rbc, disc shaped, no nucleus. carry hemoglobin and

transport o2 and co2 to/from tissue
what is a leukocyte wbc colorless cell, which fights infection
what is a thrombocyte another term for platelet, clot
what large vein returns deoxygenated blood from lower inferior vena cava
extremity and abdomen to right atrium
what is function of optic nerve see light and color
what chamber of heart is not involved in pulmonary right atrium
circulation
what are three layers of heart epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

what is average volume of blood in adult human 5 liters

memorize
edit
 Section 8
Question Answer
where does vertebral artery arise subclavian artery

blood exits from left ventricle of heart through what aorta

where is chordae tendinae located ventricles of heart

what structure resemble cauda equina spinal cord and spinal nerves
what is the cervix inferior constricted opening of vagina

memorize
edit
Section 9
Question Answer
what artery is unpaired visceral branch of abdominal aorta celiac

what type of tissue is blood classified as connective

what type of tissue is myocardium classified as muscle

what blood valves transmit deoxygenated blood pulmonary, tricuspid, and semilunar valve
what quadrant of body feeds left lymphatic ducts left upper, left lower, and right lower

memorize
edit
Section 10
Question Answer
what is a saggital plane cuts body from front to back, resulting in left and right
parts
median plane divides body onto two equal halves
frontal/coronal plane cuts body from side to side, front and back parts of body
horizontal, transverse plane cuts the body horizontally and results in upper and lower
part
how many bones are in the axial skeleton 80
how many bones are in the appendicular skeleton 64
how many bones are in the lower extremity 62
what is immovable articultion synarthrosis
wat is slightly moveable articulation amphiarthroses
what is freely moveable articulation diarthroses
small wall that divides right and left atria atrial septum
small wall that divides right and left ventricles ventricular septum
small wall that seperates right atrium and right ventricle right atrio ventricular septum
small wall that seperates left atrium and left ventricle left atrio ventricular septum
valve at exit of right ventricle and mouth of pulmonary pulmonary semilunar valve
trunk
valve at exit of left ventricle into mouth of ascending aorta aortic semilunar valve
example of saddle joint thumb
example of hinge joint elbow
example of pivot joint neck
memorize

Anatomy Final Muscles

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airbud123's version from 12-6-2013
edit
Section
Question Answer
what muscle action causes body part to move towards median adduction
plane
what type of action involves turning of a body part on an axis rotation
where is the trapezius muscle located upper back
what is origin of trapezius muscle occipital bone/upper vertebrae
what is insertion of trapezius muscle clavicle and scapula
what is the action of the trapezius muscle extends head and raises scapula
what is insertion end of msucle, which is attached to more moveable
bone
what is origin end of muscle attached to less moveable bone
what is articulation where bone joins
what is the musucle of the anterior thigh quadriceps femoris
what is medial muscle of forearm flexor carpi ulnaris
what muscles comprise the hamstring biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus
where is sternocleidomastoid located neck
what is sternocleidomastoid insertion mastoid process of temporal bone
what is sternocleidomastoid origin sternum and clavicle
what is action of sternocleidomastoid rotates and flexes head
memorize

Anatomy Final Artery and Vein

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airbud123's version from 12-6-2013
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Section 1
Question Answer
what is an artery thick elasctic walled vessel, which carries blood away
 from the heart
which artery lies lateral to the tendon of the flexor carpi ulnar artery
ulnaris muscle
which artery would be raised to inject upper extremity below radial artery
the cubital fossa
what is a vein thin walled vessel, which carries blood to the heart
which vein does the internal jugular empty into brachiocephalic vein
which blood vessel bifurcates into right and left common iliac abdominal aorta
arteries
what is branch of external carotid artery maxillary
what artery is closely associated with inguinal ligament external iliac artery
what artery is main blood supply to brain internal carotid
where does deep palmar artery supply blood blood to hand
where does vertebral artery arise subclavian artery
which blood vessel is continuation of anterior tibial artery dorsalis pedis
which artery supplies blood to small intestine and .5 of large superior messentric
from which artery does liver recieve its blood celiac trunk
which veins form the portal vein splenic and superior messentric
which artery bifurcates into right subclavian and right comm brachiocephalic artery
carotid arteries
what is cerebral arterial circle "circle of willis" anterior communicating basilar and internal carotid
memorize
edit
Section 2
Question Answer
what artery is unpaired visceral branch of abdominal aorta celiac aretry
internal thoracic artery is a branch of which artery subclavian
what part of body is plantar arteries found foot
which artery begins at opening of adductor magnus popliteal
which artery begins at lateral border of first rib and terminates as it passes axillary
by tendon of teres major
what arteries are branches of aortic arch left comm carotid, left subclavian,
brachiocephalic
which organs recieve blood from celiac artery liver, stomach, spleen
which blood vessel is longest in human body great saphenous
memorize
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