1. Which of the following statements best describes Communicable Disease?

a. It is applied to diseases that are easily spread directly from one person to another.
b. Is an illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxic products that are transmitted directly or indirectly to a well
person through an agency, and a vector or an inanimate object.
c. A disease produced by the invasion of the body tissues with pathogenic microorganisms which multiply and
produce the signs and symptoms of disease
d. All of the above
2. Microorganisms have the ability to invade the body tissues and proliferate causing infection. One factor is virulence
of the organism. What is the other factor?
a. weakness of the body
b. weakness of the organism
c. resistance of the body
d. resistance of the organism
3. What type of immunity is developed through introduction of antibodies that comes from other sources such as
human serum or from animals?
a. Natural active
b. Natural passive
c. Artificial active
d. Artificial passive
4. The immediate and continuous disinfection of infected discharges and articles:
a. Concurrent disinfection
b. Terminal disinfection
c. Quarantine
d. Sterilization
5. Type of Immunoglobulin that is detected first after exposure to an antigen:
a. IgM antibodies
b. IgG antibodies
c. IgD antibodies
d. IgG antibodies
6. Legal responsibilities of the nurse regarding protection and control of CD
1. Isolation of the CD case
2. Carry out of quarantine laws
3. Assist in surveillance and case finding
4. Report cases to the health authority
a. Only 1 & 2
b. All of the above
c. All except 2
d. None of the above
7. It is a system that will isolate all moist and potentially infectious substance from all patient:
a. Standard precaution
b. Body substance isolation
c. Handwashing
d. Transmission base precaution
8. Hospital waste management program is a new requirement before construction of a facility. The hospital personnel
required to train in waste management to prevent which of the following?
a. Cross infection
b. Communicable disease
c. Nosocomial infection
d. Transmission of disease
9. Destruction of pathogenic microorganism outside the body by directly applying physical and chemical means but
does not kill bacterial spores:
a. Sterilization

b. Fumigation
c. Disinfection
d. Antiseptic
10. Agents that inhibit growth of some microorganism. It is safe to use in skin tissue
a. Disinfectant
b. Alcohol
c. Sanitizer
d. Antiseptic
11. What do you call the objects that are contaminated with an infectious agent like Bacteria, Viruses, Fungi,
Rickettsia, Chlamydia, Protozoa or Parasites?
a. Agent
b. Fomites
c. Vector
d. Vehicle
12. What stage of infection pertains to the interval between entrance of pathogenic microorganism to the appearance
of the unique sign and symptom of a specific infection?
a. Stage of illness
b. Prodromal stage
c. Incubation period
d. Convalescence
13. A 3 year old boy with tetralogy of fallot after 7 days of fever has whitish to bluish specks on his buccal area after
attending a childrens party. As the pediatric nurse assigned to this client you must suspect that the child is in what
stage of infection?
a. Convalescence
b. Incubation period
c. Prodromal stage
d. Stage of illness
14. A 42 year old male client has Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) hence the attending physician ordered
airborne precaution. The following are interventions for a client under airborne precaution except:
a. Wear an N95 respirator when visiting the patient
b. Wear a mask when working within 3 feet away from the client
c. Place the client in a private room or a client infected with the same organism
d. Instruct family members and caregivers to wear respiratory devices
15. If a disease is said to be highly communicable like SARS, Meningococcemia or Avian Influenza isolation must be
implemented by the Communicable Disease Nurse (CDN), which among the following definition best describe the
word isolation?
a. Isolation is the separation of infected individual from those who are uninfected for the maximum incubation period
of a specific disease
b. Isolation is the limitation of freedom of movement of a well individual exposed to a specific disease for the
maximum incubation period
c. Isolation is the limitation of freedom of movement of a well individual exposed to a specific disease for the
maximum communicability period
d. Isolation is the separation of infected individual from those who are uninfected for the maximum communicability
period of a specific disease.
16. The following are not a type of transmission based precaution except:
a. Borreliosis
b. Consumption Disease
c. Dandys fever
d. Weils Disease

17. Nurse Sakura Chan just finished rendering care to a patient with Consumption Disease in an isolation room.
Nurse Sakura begins to remove her personal protective equipment (PPE). What should she remove first?
a. Mask
b. Goggles
c. Gown
d. Cap
18. Lia lives in Palawan, known to be endemic area for Filariasis. Endemic means that?
a. The pattern of occurrence and distribution is continuous throughout a period of time.
b. The pattern of occurrence and distribution is intermittent of a few isolated and unrelated cases in a given locality.
c. The pattern of occurrence and distribution is unusually large number of cases in a relatively short period of time.
d. The pattern of occurrence and distribution is simultaneous occurrence of the same disease in several countries.
19. Mang Andres, who is one of the attendees in you seminar, asks you what can be done to prevent the spread of a
disease. Your appropriate response would be based on the easiest link to break, which is:
a. Portal of Exit
b. Reservoir or Environment
c. Mode of Transmission
d. Portal of Entry
20. As part of your duties as Community Health Nurse you conduct a seminar about Immunization. One of your
attendees ask you what type of immunity can an infant get through breast feeding your appropriate response would
be?
a. Natural:Passive
b. Artificial:Active
c. Natural:Active
d. Artificial:Passive
21. A client 3 year old client was rushed by his mother to the hospital with Diphtheria; assessment reveals
temperature 38.5 degrees Celsius, respiration 28 with presence of grayish pseudomembrane. The following are the
nursing care for a client with diphtheria except:
a. CBR to prevent myocarditis
b. Increase fluid intake to liquefy secretions
c. Oral hygiene with emphasized on the removal of pseudomembrane
d. ANST before giving antitoxin
22. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate management of diphtheria:
a. Performing Moloneys test to determine hypersensitivity to antidiphtheria antitoxin
b. Removal of pseudomembrane to decrease the toxic effects of diphtheria toxin
c. Performing emergency tracheostomy for suspected airway obstruction
d. Aerosol inhalations and postural drainage of pulmonary secretion upon doctors order
23. A common finding in patients with Diphtheria is the presence of pseudomembranes due to the necrosis of local
tissues leading to fibrinopurulent exudates. Which type of diphtheria is characterized by bull neck apperance?
a. Nasal diphtheria
b. Laryngeal diphtheria
c. Pharyngeal diphtheria
d. Cutaneous diphtheria
24. A nurse provides home care instructions to the parents of a child hospitalized with Pertussis. The child is in
convalescent
stage and is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following will not be included in the teaching plan?
a. Maintain respiratory precautions and quiet environment for at least 2 weeks
b. Coughing spells may be triggered by dust or smoke
c. Encourage fluid intake
d. Good handwashing techniques must be instituted to prevent spreading of the disease to others
25. The nurse is wary of possible spread of pertussis among children because the period of greatest communicability
is at what stage?
a. Incubation period
b. Catarrhal stage
c. Paroxysmal stage
d. Convalscent period
26. If this is pertussis, the nurse will prepare which of the following drugs:
a. Cephalosporins
b. Tetracyclines
c. Erythromycin
d. Ciprofloxacin
SITUATION: Malaria is one of the major health problems in Palawan. Knowledge of the nature of this disease and its
mode of transmission will help the nurse in planning and implementing preventive control measures.
27. As a prevention for malaria, you educate people living in malaria endemic areas to do which of the following:

A. Avoid going out between 12 nn to 3 am

B. Take chloroquine tablets once a day
C. Apply insect repellant on house walls
D. Use long sleeved shirts when going out at night
E. Plant Neem tree in their back yards
F. Clear hanging branches near rivers

a. A, B, C, D, E, F
b. B, C, D, E, F
c. C, D, E, F
d. B, C, D,E
28. You are assigned in Palawan where there is a sudden increase in the occurence of malaria. As a preventive
measure to your pregnant clients, you will:
a. Instruct the patient to wear long sleeve and pants all the time and apply mosquito repellants when going out of the
house to protect themselves from mosquitoes.
b. Tell the pregnant women to transfer to another place of residence temporarily until there are no more cases of
malaria in the locality.
c. Give them each 2 chloroquine tablets to be taken every week as prophylaxis
d. Perform fumigation to destroy all mosquitoes
29. When monitoring laboratory results, the most important parameter frequently checked in patient with Dengue is:
a. Hematocrit
b. Platelet
c. Prothrombin time
d. Hemoglobin
30. Mateo, 23 years old sought consultation due to high grade fever for three days unresponsive to oral paracetamol,
severe nausea and vomiting, headache and malaise. After taking the vital signs, the nurse performs a tourniquet test.
Jumong is positive if:
a. There are 20 or more petechiae noted in 2.5 cm square
b. There are 20 or more petechiae noted in 1 inch square
c. There are 20 or more petechiae noted in 5 cm square
d. Both a and b
SITUATION: Abigail, a 12 year-old female, was brought to Dr. San Diegos clinic because of generalized rashes and
was subsequently diagnosed with chickenpox.
31. Nurse Sasuke recognizes the following as signs and symptoms of chickenpox:
a. Rashes which pass through stages of macule, papule, vesicle and pustule more abundant on the face and
extremities.
b. Rashes which begin on the head and neck and spread cephalocaudally
c. Red blotchy rashes which appears on the 3rd to the 7th day.
d. Rashes which begin on the head and spread peripherally and more abundant on covered body parts.
32. The following nursing interventions are appropriate for the patient, except:
a. Increase oral fluid intake
b. apply calamine lotion to the lesions to decrease pruritus
c. give aspirin for fever
d. Soap is omitted to prevent irritation
33. A nurse is performing an assessment on a child with chicken pox. The mother of the child tells the nurse that child
keeps scratching at night, and the nurse teaches the mother about the measures that will prevent an alteration in skin
integrity. Which statement of the mother indicates that the teaching is effective?
a. I will apply generous amounts of a cortisone cream to prevent itching .
b. I need to place white gloves on my childs hands at night.
c. I need to keep my child in a warm room at night so that covers will not cause my child to scratch.
d. I will give my child a glass of warm milk at bedtime to help my child sleep .
34. The name for a comprehensive strategy which primary health services around the world is using to detect and
cure TB patients
a. National TB program
b. Direct Observe Treatment Short Course (DOTS)
c. Center for Communicable Diseases
d. International TB Control Organization
35. Tuberculosis is considered as the worlds deadliest disease remains as a major public health problem in the
Philippines. The infectious agent that causes this disease in cattle is known as:
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycobacterium bovis
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Mycobacterium leprae
36. One of the early preventions against tuberculosis is:
a. Prompt diagnosis and treatment of infectious cases
b. Improve social condition
c. BCG vaccination of newborn
d. Make available medical and laboratory facilities for examination
37. As part of your duties as community nurse you are discussing about the nature of tuberculosis. Your attendees
understand the discussion if they state that the primary diagnostic tool in tuberculosis to detect extent of lesion is:
a. X ray and culture
b.Direct sputum smear microscopy
c. PPD skin test
d. X ray
38. A Mantoux test or Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) is interpreted after:
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 48-72 hours
39.. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS Category II?
a. Sputum negative cavitary cases
b. Clients returning after a default
c. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment
d. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam
40. Treatment failure and relapses falls under what recommended category of treatment regimen?
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV
41. Sauke stopped taking his medications prescribed in the hospital for PTB because he had no money to buy for the
next months supply. He stopped taking it for a few months then he goes to the nearest health center in their
baranggay for check-up and treatment. Mr. Carlos will be placed under DOTS treatment regimen?
a. 2 HRZE / 2 HR
b. 2 HRZE / 4 HR
c. 2 HRZES / 4 HRE
d. 2 HRZES / 1 HRZE / 5 HRE
42. The most adverse side effect of Ethambutol is:
a. Stomach upset
b. Peripheral neuritis
c. Vertigo
d. Optic Neuritis
43. A nurse is reading a Mantoux skin test for a client with no documented health problems. The site has no
induration and a 1mm area of ecchymosis. The nurse nterprets that the result is:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Uncertain
d. Borderline
44. Which of the following could be ordered to relieve the spasm in a patient suffering from tetanus?
a. Pen G Sodium
b. Tetanus Antitoxin
c. Diazepam (Valium)
d. Anti-Tetanus serum
45. Nurse Shan Deok, who is caring for a child with symptoms of tetanus responds to the childs parents request to
assist their sons care by stating:
a. I can understand you wanting to help, but we must avoid all unnnecessary stimuli at this time
b. You may talk but dont touch him since it could cause uncontrolled seizures
c. Tell me more about your concerns, we realize you must be so upset with the hospitalization. You may attend to
your son as much as you wish.
d. We encourage you to speak to him and touch him even though he is unable to respond you
46. Tetanus is an acute disease caused by a bacillus growing in wounds and at the site of the umbilicus among
infants. The causative agent for tetanus is:
a. Gram (-)Aerobic
b. Gram (-)Anaeobic
c. Gram (+)Aerobic
d. Gram (+)Anaerobic
47. Nurse Jang Gium asked Lady Gaga what she did immediately after the incident. LGs response indicate correct
understanding of first aid measure when she says that:
a. I ran after the dog and killed it before it can bite again.
b. I washed my wound immediately with soap and water.
c. I went to the drug store and bought 500mg antibiotic.
d. I went to the police station and reported the incident.
48. The confirmatory diagnostic test for rabies:
a. Negri bodies antibody test
b. Flourescent Rabies antibody test
c. Immunodiagnostic procedure
d. Nasal and throat swab
49. Rabies is preventable but not curable. The patient was given Imurab. The doses are given on the following
schedule:
a. Day 0, 3, 7, 14, 28
b. Day 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
c. Day 3, 7, 10
d. Day 1, 7, 10, 11, 16, 22
50. Jang Gium interviewed Lady Gaga and her mother at the emergency room to take the history before seeing a
doctor. She told LGs mother not to kill the dog because the dog will be:
a. Injected with a vaccine
b. Confined at a veterinary clinic
c. Observed for 10 days
d. Treated with antibiotic against rabies
51. Based on report that the Philippines ranked number six among the countries with the highest reported incidence
of rabies in the world and considering that rabies is one of the most acurately fatal infections which causes the death
of between 200-500 Filipinos annualy, voluntary pre-exposure prophylaxis among people who are at risk is highly
recommended. These people include:
a. Barangay tanod officials patrolling the streets at night, pet owners, veterinarians, animal handlers
b. All people living within an area where there are dogs that roam their neighborhood
c. Pet owners, animal handlers, health personnel working in anti-rabies units and children below 15 years old.
d. Pregnant women, side-walk vendors, pet owners, veterinarians an
52. A 22 year male was bitten by a rabid dog. To confirm whether the client is infected with rabies, what test is to be
done?
a. FAT (Fluorescent Antibody Test)
b. MAT (Microscopic Agglutination Test)
c. LAT (Leptospira Agglutination Test)
d. SSS (Slit Skin Smear)
53. The following are nursing management for rabies, except:
a. Administration of tetanus prophylaxis and antibiotics
b. Locating and observing the rabid animal
c. Suturing the bite wound (techniques should allow adequate wound drainage)
d. Rubbing garlic on the wounds

SITUATION: Mr. Boy Abundat has been experiencing paresthesia on his lower extremities for the past few months
associated with a non-healing wound on his big toe. The skin

scraping on the site confirms presence of Mycobacterium leprae.

54. Of the following statements about Hansens disease, which one is false?
a. an early symptom is loss of sensation, sweating, and hair in a localized patch of skin
b. the incubation period is less than a month
c. treatment should include giving rifampicin with dapsone
d. the form the disease takes depends on the immune status of the victim
55. The identification of M. Leprae is best seen on which of the following tests:
a. Agglutination test
b. Direct microscopy
c. Skin biopsy
d. Acid fast bacilli
56. Preventive aspect of care is a priority consideration. Which of the following vaccine is also preventive measure?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. MMR
d. ATS
57. The following are late signs and symptoms of leprosy except:
a. Madarosis
b. Loss of sensation on the skin lesion
c. Clawing of fingers and toes
d. Lagophthalmos
58. The nurse would expect the client to exhibit which of the following symptoms during icteric phase of viral
hepatitis?
a. Light frothy urine
b. Yellowed sclera
c. Shortness of breath
d. Tarry stool
59. The physician determines that Hazel is in the icteric stage of Hepatitis A infection. Which nursing intervention is
not appropriate during this stage?
a. Administering vitamin K as ordered
b. Forcing fluids (3,000 ml or more daily)
c. Encouraging ambulation to prevent pneumonia
d. Providing mittens for the patient
60. Nurse Gorabhels is developing a plan of care for the client with viral hepatitis, she should incorporate nursing
orders that reflect the primary treatment. Emphasis will be on ensuring the client receives which of the following?
a. Generous fluid intake
b. Adequate bed rest
c. Regular antibiotic therapy
d. Regular check-up
61. Which of the following diets most likely be prescribed for a client with viral hepatitis?
a. High fat, low protein, low carbohydrates
b. Low sodium, low fat
c. High carbohydrates, high calorie, low protein
d. High protein, low carbohydrates
62. Infectious hepatitis is:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Non A non B
c. Hepatitis D
63. You will suspect bird flu if a person exhibits which of the following manifestations?
a. Fever, body weakness, vomiting, diarrhea,anorexia
b. Fever, body weakness, cough, dyspnea, sore throat
c. Fever, cough, sore throat, diarrhea, bloody stools, hemoptysis
d. Difficulty breathing, sore eyes, hemoptysis, vomiting, diarrhea

64. AH1N1 compose of 4 genes. These includes:

a. 2 genes from bird, 1 gene from pig and 1 gene from human
b. 2 genes from pig, 1 gene from bird and 1 gene from human
c. 3 genes from human and 1 gene from pig
d. 2 genes from human, 1 gene from pig and 1 gene from bird

65. As a nurse, you must do an assessment upon seeing a patient with leprosy. Which one of the following is early
sign and symptom?
a. clawing of fingers and toes
b. decrease or loss of sweating or hair growth
c. contractures
d. loss of eyelids or eyebrows
66. Which of the following attributes is/ are true of amoebiasis?
1. Amoebiasis can cause amoebic liver abscess.
2. Entamoeba hystolitica is the etiologic agent and has two developmental stages which are the cyst and the
trophozoite.
3. Source of infection is human excreta.
4. The cysts are resistant to levels of chlorine normally used for water purification.
a. 1, 2,3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
67. Nurses should be aware that clinical features of amoebiasis include the following, except:
a. Bloody-mucoid stool
b. Onset is sudden
c. Tenesmus
d. Diarrhea and abdominal distention
68. The patient asks the nurse what are the treatment modalities for amoebiasis. The nurse mentions the following as
treatment modalities, except:
a. Metronidazole
b. Tetracycline
c. Fluid and electrolytes replacement
d.Praziquantel
69. One of the most important responsibilities of a nurse is to provide health education. Health education should
tackle about the following, except:

a. Eat ground vegetables such as lettuce, carrots and the like regularly.
b. Boil water for drinking or use purified water.
c. Avoid washing food from open drum or pail.
d. Cover left-over foods.
70. A client with a bacterial pneumonia is to be started on IV antibiotics. Which of the following diagnosis test must be
completed before antibiotic therapy begins?
a. Urinalysis
b. Chest X-ray
c. WBC count
d. Sputum culture and sensitivity
71. Mr. Underson, 41 years old is brought by his wife Kim Chow to a doctors clinic to be tested for filariasis upon the
advise of their family physician. The most likely diagnostic test that he will undergo is:
a. Immunochromatographic test ( ICT )
b. Nocturnal Blood Examination
c. Stool exam
d. Urinalysis
72. Mr. Underson is in the acute stage of the disease, expected findings at this time will include the following:
a. Lymphangitis, lymphadenitis, epidydimitis
b. Hydrocele, lymphedema, elephantiasis
c. Orchitis, hydrocele, elephantiasis
d. Lymphangitis, lymphedema, orchitis
SITUATION: Red tide poisoning is a syndrome of characteristic symptoms predominantly neurologic which occurs
within minutes or several hours after ingestion of poisonous shellfish.
73. Modes of transmission of red tide poisoning:
1. Ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked bi-valve shellfish during red tide season.
2. Ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked mollusks during red tide season.
3. Ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked fishes during red tide season.
4. Ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked shrimps and crabs.
a. 1,2
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
74.Pedro has eaten infected tahong and sought consultation to the nearby health center due to numbness, vomiting
and tingling sensation. The nurse anticipated the following as management to the patient:
1. The doctor would prescribe medication to the patient.
2. Advised the patient to cook shellfishes with vinegar the next time around.
3. Induced vomiting
4. Instructed the patient to drink coconut milk and sodium bicarbonate solution during the early stage of
poisoning.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1,2, 3
c. 1, 2
d. 3, 4
75. Individuals who ingested shellfish during red tide season should be monitored for:
1. numbness of face especially the mouth
2. vomiting, hematemesis and dizziness
3. tingling sensation, paresthesia and eventual paralysis of hands and feet
4. floating sensation and weakness
a. 1, 2 , 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1,3,4
76. One of the residents in Brgy. Bagumbong asks the nurse if its recommended to cook and eat tahong affected by
red tide. The nurse is correct in his response if he states:
a. Eating tahong affected by red tide can be eaten provided that it is cook with vinegar to destroy the toxin.
b. Tahong is rich in iodine hence it should be eaten despite the red tide warning issued by the proper authorities.
c. Toxin of red tide is not totally destroyed upon cooking hence eating tahong should be avoided.
d. Red tide phenomena cannot affect tahong thus it can be safely eaten.
77. Organism that causes red tide:
a. Pyromidium bahamense
b. Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis
c. Yersinia
d. Pediculus humanus
SITUATION: Mang Pedro Penduko, a ricefield farmer from Samar, sought consult to a private MD regarding the
progressive enlargement of his abdomen associated with a history of watery stools and easy fatigability. Impression
was liver cirrhosis secondary to schistosomiasis.
78. You know as a nurse that Schistosomiasis has an intermediate host. What is it?
a. Rat
b. Snail
c. Mosquito
d. Tick
79. What is the specific name of the intermediate host in the above question?
a. Aedes poecilus
b. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Oncomelania quadrasi
d. Plasmodium
80. The mode of transmission of schistosomiasis is:
airborne
Respiratory
Skin Contact
Sexual
81. Which of the following species of Schistosoma, the causative agent of Schistosomiasis, is the only endemic to the
Philippines?
Haematobium
b. Mansoni
c. Japonicum
d. Falciparum
82. The nurse would anticipate that Mang Pedro will be taking which of the following drug:
a. Primaquine
b. Metronidazole
c. Mebendazole
d. Praziquantel
83. The primary preventive measure against HIV-AIDS is:
a. Withdrawal
b. Virus killing drugs
c. Use of condom
d. Foams and gels use
84. Transmission of HIV from an infected individual to another person occurs:
a. Most frequently in nurses with needle sticks
b. Only if there is a lagre viral load in the blood
c. In all infants born to women with HIV infection
d. Most commonly as a result of sexual contact
SITUATION: A suspect cases of poliomyelitis is defined as any patient below 15 years old with acute flaccid
paralysis.

85. Which of the following serologic types of poliovirus is the most frequent cause of paralytic poliomyelitis?
a. Type I Brunhilde
b. Type III Leon
c. Type II Lansing
d. Type IV Tigre
86. Pandys test or Lumbar puncture is used for the CSF analysis. The expected finding of protein in the CSF is?
a. Moderately elevated as disease progresses.
b. Remained normal throughout the course of illness.
c. Decreased as disease progresses
d. None of the above
87. Positive Hoynes sign is present in paralytic of poliomyelitis. Positive hoynes is:
a. Hyperextension or arching of the back.
b. Stiffness and rigidity of spinal column.
c. Resistance to full extension of knee when hip is flexed.
d. Head falls back when the pt. is in supine position with shoulders elevated.
88. All of the following are TRUE of poliomyelitis except:
a. MOT is thru fecal-oral route
b. Poliomyelitis affects chiefly the anterior horn of CNS
c. Positive hoynes sign is present in paralytic polio
d. The use of handroll, trochanter roll and footboard is contraindicated.
SITUATION: Gloria, a 58 year old former politician was brought to the Jose Reyes Medical Center after complaining
of fever, headache and vomiting. She was diagnosed with meningitis by Dr. Quack-quack.
89. If Gloria develops sign of meningeal irritation, this may include the following, except:
a. Nuchal rigidity
b. Opistothonus
c. Kernings Sign
d. Homans sign
90. Which among the following is/are possible complication(s) in children with meningitis?
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Blindness
c. Deafness
d. All of the above
91. An osmotic diuretic used in patients with meningitis to counter cerebral edema includes:
a. Dexamethasone
b. Corticosteroid
c. Furosemide
d. Mannitol
92. A child is admitted with a diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis. The nurse is aware that isolation:
a. of any kind is not required
b. will be required for seven days
c. must be maintained during the incubation period.
d. is required for 24 hours after onset of antibiotic therapy
93. The physicians order for a child admitted with meningitis includes specific isolation. The nurse understands that
the child be placed on:
a. Reverse isolation
b. Respiratory isolation
c. Enteric precautions
d. Syringe and needle precaution
94. In CSF analysis of patient with meningitis, the level, of protein is of protein is:
a. Elevated/increased
b. Decrease
c. Fluctuating
d. none of the above
95. Stool exam is used as diagnostic exam in amoebiasis. Proper collection of stool is a must. Which of the following
should be advice to the patient?
a. Instruct patient to mix urine with stool
b. Small portion of stool is needed
c. Sending of specimen to the laboratory can be delayed.
d. Label specimen properly
96 Which of the following statements about measles is true?
a. It is an acute paramyxovirus infection
b. It is highly contagious
c. The prodromal period last for about two weeks
d. The rash usually begins behind the ears and neck
e. The cause of death is usually from complications
f. Serum antibodies appear on the third day of the incubation period

A. A, B, C, D, E, F
B. A, B, D, E
C. A, C, E, F
D. B, D, E

97. Which of the following describes Forscheimers spots in German measles?

a. Buildup of keratin debris located superficially in the conjunctiva
b. Discreet pink blanching lesions
c. Benign flat congenital birthmark with wavy borders and irregular shape
d. Small red papules on the area of the soft palate
98. Which among the following offers the least chance to get infected with HIV?
a. French kissing
b. Sexual contact
c. Drug users involving sharing of needles
d. Blood transfusion
99. Disease that is/are strongly associated with AIDS includes the following, except:
a. Pulmonary tuberculosis
b. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
c. Kaposis sarcoma
d. None of the above
100. AIDS is most common in?
a. man and woman relationship
b. woman to woman relationship
c. man to man relationship
d. all of the above