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1. It describes how close a test to its true value.

Accuracy
2. What are needed to check accuracy? Reference samples
Standards w/ known values
3. It describes how close the test results are to one another Precision
when repeated analysts of the same material are performed.
4. Precision is expressed by ______ Standard Deviation
Coefficient of variation
5. It refers to the ability of a test to be produced by the different Reproducibility
observers
6. It is the degree of agreement of measurements by the same Repeatability
observer Practicability
7. It refers to the comparison of instrument or reading to a Calibration
known physical constant
8. Highly purified substance Standard
9. It is the ability of a test to remain accurate and precise in an Reliability
extended period of time even if personnel/equipment may
change
10. What represents a specimen that is similar in composition to Control
the patients whole blood or plasma? The value is known and
measured the same way with the patient unknown sample.
11. What is a set of values for a parameter that is expected in a Reference range
healthy population of defined characteristics
12. What is the means by which QC between laboratories is Proficiency Testing
maintained?
13. What do quality control monitors? Accuracy and Reproducibility
14. What is the first step in making a quality control? Draw from a pool of samples or Prepare
commercially
15. What is the last step in making a quality control? Analyze data statistically
16. What is the process to create an aliquot? Reconstitution
17. What are used in the process of reconstitution? Lyophilized reagent
Distilled water
18. It is an increase in the frequency of both high and low Dispersion
minimally acceptable values
19. Any progressive drift of values to one side of the average Shift
value for at least 3 days
20. It demonstrated an abrupt shift or change from the Trend
established average value for 3 days in a row
21. What are assayed controls? With control value and +/-2SD range is
established
22. What are unassayed controls? With target values
23. It is a control that are useful for analyses that are performed Unassayed control
frequently
24. It is used for daily monitoring of accuracy and precision Internal QC
25. What is the other name for Internal QC? Intralaboratory QC
26. What is the chart used to plot Internal QC? Levy Jennings Chart
27. Another name for Levy Jennings Chart Shewhart Chart
28. It is used for long-term monitoring of accuracy and precision External QC
29. What is the other name for External QC? Interlaboratory QC
30. What is the chart used to plot External QC? Tonks-Youden Chart
31. What are the factor to consider in Quality Control Patient identification, Sampling and Testing
32. It is a variable scale that can take only a limited number of Nominal scale
values or variables that served as labels
33. It is a variable scale that has specific values that have some Ordinal Scale
inherent order but without equivalent distances between
categories
34. It is variable scale that takes on values in a quantitative range Interval Scale
with defined difference between points.
35. Interval Scale can either be _______ and __________ Discrete; Continuous
36. It is part of the measures of center which shows the average Mean
of all values
37. It is part of the measures of center which is the middle data Median
after the data have been ranked in order
38. It is the most frequent occurring or common value in the data Mode
set
39. It is part of the measures of dispersion or spread which Reference Range or Normal Range
conveys the expected range of values without any implication
of health or illness
40. What indicates the amount of difference among the individual Standard deviation
data points?
41. It is a good estimate of dispersion or how the values are Standard deviation
distributed
42. An increase in SD, means? A low precision
43. It is the distance that an individual data point is away from the Standard deviation Index
mean value divided by the SD
44. It is the main application of Standard deviation index Proficiency testing
45. What provides relative accuracy of 2 methods? Coefficient of Variation
46. What monitors the consistency of accuracy? Coefficient of Variation
47. It is the dispersion of value around the mean. Coefficient of Variation
48. It is the quantity under the square root sign. Variance
49. In Gaussian Distribution, what is plotted on the X-axis? Actual value
50. In Gaussian Distribution, what is plotted on the Y-axis? Frequency
51. It characterizes a normal distribution. Bell curve
52. What is the percentage between 1SD 68.3%
53. What is the percentage between 2SD 95.8%
54. What is the percentage between 3SD 99.7%
55. It refers to the sharp rise to a cluster of values at the peak of Non-Gaussian Distribution
the curve and then a gradual tailing off to higher values within
the population
56. What is the other name for Non-Gaussian Distribution? Long-Normal Distribution
57. It is used to determine if there is a significant difference T tests
between 2 sets of data or sample means.
58. It is incorrectly rejecting the null hypothesis and stating the Type 1 error or Alpha error
two groups are statistically different why they are not.
59. It is incorrectly rejecting the null hypothesis and stating the Type 2 error or Beta error
two groups are not statistically different why they are.
60. It allows possible differences between 3 or MORE Independent/One-Way ANOVA
independent groups to be examined.
61. It is when the experimental design has two categorical Within Subjects Anova
independent variables (input) and a continuous dependent Two way Anova
variable (output).
62. It determines whether there are differences between two F Test
variances or if the observed difference between the two SD is
significant
63. Another name for F Test Variance ratio test
64. It describes the relationship or correlation between two Pearson
quantitative variables
65. Correlation maybe 1, -1, 0
66. It is a mathematical process for calculating the best straight Linear regression
line to fit the relationship observed between two variables
measured on the same items
67. In Levey-Jennings Plot, what is plotted on the X-axis? Date of Analysis
68. In Levey-Jennings Plot, what is plotted on the Y-axis? Value obtained for the control
69. Remedy for Random error Sample is re-assayed using the same reagent
70. Remedy for Systematic error Perform a step-wise evaluation
71. Step-wise evaluation Prepare a new control
Re-calibrate machine
72. It is seen as a trend or control values gradually rise or fall Random Error
from the previously established limits
73. What should be done on the reagents close to its expiration Discarded and Remade
date?
74. It refers to the difference between target value and assayed Constant error
value.
75. It is independent of sample concentration. Constant error
76. It results in greater deviation from the target value to a higher Proportional error
sample concentration
77. Other names for Proportional error Slope error
Percent error
78. An error that occurs with the use of handwritten labels and Clerical error
request forms
79. How many quadrants are there in Tonks-Youden Plot? 4
80. How do you know if a systematic error exists using the Tonks- If the laboratorys monthly means both plot in
Youden Plot? the lower left or upper right
81. What is the earliest indicator of shift or trend? Cumulative Sum Graph (CUSUM)
82. What is the algebraic difference between each QC result and Cumulative Sum Graph (CUSUM)
mean?
83. What is the widely used system in clinical laboratory? Levy-Jennings Chart
84. What is the ability of a method to measure the smallest Sensitivity
concentration of the analyte being measured?
85. What is the ability of a method to measure the analyte of Specificity
interest?
86. It refers to the positive result in patient who has the disease True Positive
87. It refers to the negative result in patient who doesnt have the True Negative
disease
88. It refers to the positive result in patient who doesnt have the False Positive
disease
89. It refers to the negative result in patient who has the disease False Negative
90. A low False Negative result, means? High Sensitivity
91. A low False Positive result, means? High Specificity
92. It used in Screening tests Sensitivity
93. It used in Confirmatory tests Specificity
94. What is the best way to ascertain accuracy? Standard
95. Another name for Standard Systematic control
96. When would you use a Standard? New machine
Out of control results
New reagent with different control
97. First step when the result goes out of control Rerun control
98. Last step when the result goes out of control Call for assistance
99. Step-wise process if the result goes out of control Reruncontrol
New control
Rerun new control
Recalibrate
Used a new control
Rerun new control
Call for assistance
100. It measures the degree of precision Standard Deviation
101. What is the best way to ascertain precision? Control
102. What is the reference lab for CC? Lung Center of the Philippines
103. Where should a lab post the NEQAS result? OPD
104. Where should a lab post the Medtech license? OPD
105. Generally, what is plotted in the Y-axis? Dependent variable
106. Generally, what is plotted in the X-axis? Independent variable
107. Where is reference method plotted? X-axis
108. Where is a new test method plotted? Y-axis
109. What is the most common cause of Trend Reagent deterioration
110. It never touches the mean. Shift
111. What is the most appropriate thing to do if there is 1:2S result Do nothing
in Westgard rules?
112. It is comparing results from 2 different machines Parallel testing

113. How many controls are there in Westgard rules 2

114. What is the best plot for the comparision of accuracy and Tonks-Youden Plot
precision among laboratoties?
115. What should you check when buying rapid test? Sensitivity and Specificity

116. Westgard rules that indicates random error? 1:2s, 1:3s, R:4s
117. Westgard rules that indicates systematic error? 2:2s, 4:1s, 10:x
118. What maintains accuracy and precision? Reliability
119. It should be available for a minimum of 1 year QC materials
120. How to estimate accuracy? Recovery, Interference and Sample
Comparison Study
121. It determines how much of the analyte can be identified in the Recovery Study
sample
122. It determines if specific compounds affect the laboratory tests Interference Study
like hemolysis, turbidity and icteric
123. It is used to assess presence of error in actual patient sample Sample Comparison Study
124. What is the gold standard for clinical laboratory external QC? College of American Pathologists (CAP)
125. Proficiency tests for chemistry must be Quantitative
126. It is implemented if there is no available proficiency testing Non-proficiency test scheme
program for a certain analyte
127. What is the ultimate goal of proficiency testing? To ensure our clinicians that patients result
are accurate
128. It is used to check the stability of machine Quality control
129. It is used to check the quality of reagents Quality control
130. It is used to check technical (operator) errors Quality control
131. How many levels of control solutions are used in general 2 levels
chemistry?
132. How many levels of control solutions are used in 3 levels
immunoassays?
133. How many days should different levels of control material 20 days
must be analyzed on a new instrument or on a new lot
number of control materials?
134. How many days should different levels of control material 5 days
must be analyzed on highly prcised assays suchs as blood
gas?
135. Control limits are calculated from? Mean and SD
136. The ideal control/reference limit is between 2SD
137. Preferred control materials Human control materials
138. Used control materials Bovine control materials
139. Bovine based QC materials are not applicable in Immunochemistry
Dye-binding
Bilirubin assays
140. What are the results of improper product manufacturing, use Matrix effects
of unpurified human and nonhuman analyte additives and
altered protein components?
141. It can be purchased with or without assayed values Control materials
142. It does not require reconstitution Stabilized frozen controls
143. It is recommended by Westgard, et. al. And CLIA to 40 to 100 samples
determine accuracy and precision Each method
Duplicate
Same Day
Over 8-20 days
Within 4 hours
144. What is the rationale of performing repeated assays? To detect random errors
145. What is the most important characteristic of method To determine if the total error is less than the
evaluation? allowable error
146. What is the first step in method evaluation? Precision study
147. It estimates the random error? Precision study
148. How to study imprecision or random error? 2 control solutions
Twice a day
Within 10-20 days
149. What is the most accurate measure of performance Total imprecision analysis
150. Who are responsible for 29% errors in lab results? Nonlaboratory personnel
151. It is the most error-free means of requesting lab tests Online computer input
152. Allowable error (Ea) are expressied in mmol/L or %
153. What is used to compare the means or SD of 2 groups of Inferential statistics
data
154. It is used to determine the types and quantity of error Statistical analyses
155. It is used to decide whether the test is still valid or Statistical analyses
unacceptable to make clinical decisions
156. What are the parametric tests? T-test
ANOVA
157. Measure spread and distribution CV, SD, range
158. It describes distribution of all values around the mean SD
159. These represent the average distance from the center of the SD and Variance
data (mean) and every value in the data set
160. It allows the laboratorian to compare SDs with different units CV
161. It indicated the number of quantities free to vary Degree of freedom (n-1)
162. It gives estimates of the with-in run, between-run and total ANOVA
imprecision
163. ESSENTIAL, BUT NOT SUFFICIENT Method evaluation and Statistical analysis
164. What is the total area under the Gaussian Curve 1.0 or 100%
165. What is the common method used in CUSUM V-mask
166. In CUSUM, when can you tell if the results are out of control? Slop exceeds 45
2.7SD is exceeded
167. In Y-T Plot, what suggests a proportional error? The points falling from a center but on the 45
line
168. In Y-T Plot, what suggests a constant error? The points falling from a center but NOT on
the 45 line
169. What is the main cause of Trend? Deterioration of reagents
170. What is the main cause of Shift? Improper calibration of instrument
171. Control values that are far from the main set of values? Outliers
172. These are highly deviating values. Outliers
173. At least how many samples that must be run by comparison- 40 samples
of-methods experiment?
174. Preferred number of samples that must be run by 100 samples
comparison-of-methods experiment?
175. Combination of control rules and control chart is called? Multirule Shewhart Procedure
176. A term used by Westgard to indicate if the analytical process Control rule
is out of control.
177. It is a sign of a potential problem A control value between 2s and 3s
178. What is most commonly used patient based-QC technique? Delta check
179. What is the concentration range over which the measured Linear range/Dynamic range
concentration is equal to the actual concentration?
180. It is referred to as absurd value Physiologic limit
181. Physiologic limit is sometimes referred to as Absurd value
182. It is type of analytical testing performed outside the confines Point of care testing (POCT)
of the central laboratory?
183. The most commonly used POCT Use of portable whole blood glucose meters
184. Other names for POCT Near-patient testing
Decentralized testing
Bedside testing
Alternate Site Testing
185. What experiment shows whether a method measures all the Recovery experiment
analytes or only part of it?
186. What describes the relationship between posttest abd pretest Bayes theorem
probability of disease or no disease based on the sensitivity
and specificity of test?
187. At least how many individuals should be tested in each age 120 individuals
and gender to derive a reliable estimate of reference
intervals?
188. How many individuals need to be sampled for analysis on the Only 20 indiviuals
test instrument if the laboratorian wants to determine ift he
test instrument and test subject population are similar to
those described in the manufacturers package insert?
189. If greater than 10% falls outside the reported limits, what An additional 20 or more subjects/samples
should be done? should be analyzed
190. A laboratory result that may represent a life-threatening Critical Value
situation
191. Other name for Critical value Panic value
192. It is the degree of flatness or sharpness Kurtosis
193. Other names for Random error Imprecision
Indeterminate
194. Other names for Systematic error Inaccuracy
Determinate
195. What are the parameters for Random error? SD
CV
196. What is the parameter for Systemic error? Mean
197. T test measures? Uses? Accuracy, Mean
198. F test measures? Uses? Precision, SD
199. X-axis Horizontal, abscissa, independent variables
200. Y-axis Vertical, ordinate, dependent variables
201. It is formed by control values that either increase or decrease Trend
for six consecutive days
202. It is formed by control values that distribute themselves on Shift
one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days

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