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FIITJEE JEE (Main), 2017

In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated

PART TEST IV
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 432
Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
School Program & 4423 Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016

s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 03 and 10 to 12) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +8 marks for correct answer and 2 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-A (04 to 09 and 13 to 30) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong
answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Plancks constant h = 6.625 1034 Js
= 6.625 1027 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 1027 kg
19
1 eV = 1.6 10 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART I

SECTION A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choice (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In a standard meter bridge experiment conducted to measure the specific resistance of a wire the
following data was recorded:-
Length (L) (1 01)m measured by a meter scale
Radius of wire = 1mm .01mm. (measured by screw gauge).
Resistance of wire (R) = (5.01)
The maximum possible error in the measurement of specific resistance is
r 2
(You may use the formula:- R)
L
(A) .1m (B) .2m
(C) .5m (D) .6m

a3 b2
2. A physical quantity P is related to four measurable quantities as P . If the errors in
c 3 d4.
measurement of a, b, c, d are 0.1%, 0.2%, 0.3%, 0.1% respectively, what is the maximum percentage
error in measurement of P.
(A) 1% (B) 2%
(C) 3% (D) 4%

3. When N0 molecules of a radioactive nuclide are taken at t = 0, the activity reduces to A in time t 0 .
When 3No molecules of the same nuclide are taken, activity will become 3Ae in time t equal to :-
1
(A) t 0 (B) t 0

1
(C) t 0 (D) None of these

Where; is decay constant of the Nuclide
Space for rough work

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4. The plot of characteristic frequency f in case of Ky X-rays, with the atomic number Z of an element
may be best represented by :-

(A) (B)
f f

Z
Z
(C) (D)
f f

Z Z

5. Two waves of Intensity I1 and I2 interfere. The maximum intensity produced to the minimum intensity
is in the ratio . Then, I1 / I2 is equal to
1 1
(A) , if I1 > I2 (B) , if I1 > I2
1 1
2 2
1 1
(C) , if I1 < I2 (D) if I1 > I2
1 1

6. The current i in the circuit at any time t is 5 L = 0.1 H


(A) 20 A (B) 20 sin 50t A 5
4
C = 0.004F
(C) 20 sin 50t A (D) 20 sin 50t A
4 I
100 sin (50t) volts.

7. A conducting square loop of length L is placed in a magnetic field


X X X X X X X AX X X X X X X X
of Induction B0 End A and End C are moved away from each
L B0
other. So that finally the square loop becomes a straight line. The X X X X X X X X X X X X X
total charge flowing through the loop, if its resistance is R then : B D

B L2 B L2 X X X X X X X X X X X X X
(A) 0 (B) 0
R R
X X X X X X X CX X X X X X X XX
B0L2 B0L2
(C) (D)
R R
Space for rough work

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8. A thin biconvex lens of focal length 30cm is Kept 90 cm away


from a plane mirror kept parallel to the plane of the lens. A point O F 90cm
object is placed on the optical axis of the lens 60cm away from 30cm 30cm

the lens as shown in the figure. Now, if the point object is slowly Y
moved towards the lens with a small velocity, the image of the
object in the mirror. X
(A) Moves in the + ve x direction (B) Moves in ve x direction
(C) Does not move (D) Data insufficient

9. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron moving in nth orbit of a hydrogen atom
and its first Bohrs radius is
(A) 2n : 1 (B) n : 2
(C) n3 : 1 (D) n : 1

10. A hemispherical bowl of radius 10 cm is filled with liquid of refractive index


= 4/3. A glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is placed on the top of bowl. If
for the observer above the plate the shift in position of a point P on the
bottom is 3 cm find the thickness of glass plate. P
(A) 1.5 cm (B) 1 cm
(C) 7 cm (D) 10 cm

11. An electron is knocked out from K shell of tungsten atom. P1, P2, P3 are probabilities that an electron
jumps from L, M and N shell to K shell, then which is correct
(A) P1 =P2 = P3 (B) P3 > P2 > P1
(C) P1 = P2 > P3 (D) P1 > P2 > P3

12. A potential difference of 2 kV is applied across a X-ray tube and X-rays thus produced fall on a
metallic plate at a potential of 100 V. What is the maximum K.E. of photoelectrons emitted from the
plate if its work function is 5.8 eV ?
(A) 2094.2 eV (B) 2105.8 eV
(C) 1906.8 eV (D) 1894.2 eV

13. The velocity of a real object, moving along the principal axis of a lens, at an instant is 4 times the
velocity of the virtual image for a lens. Then the ratio of focal length to image distance is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
Space for rough work

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14. There are 10 atoms of C14 in a sample of carbon atoms. After one half life period the number of
14
radioactive atoms of C in sample will be
(A) exactly 5 (B) certainly more than 5
(C) certainly less than 5 (D) can not find exactly

15. An arrangement for YDSE is f =20 cm


shown in figure. S is a light
source then find the position of S O1
central maxima from point O on
1mm
screen B. 3 mm
O
(A) 5 mm below O
O2
(B) 5 mm above O
(C) 30 mm below O 80 cm 1m
(D) 12 mm above O 20 cm
Screen A Screen B

16. An object starts moving at an angle of 450 with the principal f = 10 cm


axis as shown in the figure in front of a biconvex lens of focal
length + 10 cm. If denotes the angle at which image starts
0
moving with principal axis then 45
3 O I
(A) = (B) =
4 2
20 cm

(C) = (D) = -
4 4

17. A thin equiconvex lens, made of material of refractive index 1.5, has a focal length of 10 cm in air.
One side of the lens is replaced by a medium (B) of refractive index 1.3. When a point object is
placed in air at a distance of 20 cm from the lens on its principal axis, its image is formed at distance
of x cm in the medium (B), from the lens. When the same object is placed in the medium B, at a
distance of 20 cm from the lens on its principal axis, its image is formed at a distance of y cm in air,
from the lens. Then
fair =10 cm fair =10 cm
=1 =1
=1.3 =1.3

O I I O

20 cm
20cm x y

=1.5 =1.5
(A) x > 1.3 y (B) x < 1.3 y
(C) x = 1.3 y (D) none of the above is true.
Space for rough work

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18. Planar light waves and sound waves incident on the air - water A
interface along the direction of the line are AO as shown in the 45
0
air
figure. Assume that AO represents the direction of the incident ray
(for both light and sound). Given that the speed of sound wave in O
air and water is 330 m/s and 1500 m/s respectively and of the light
wave it is 3 108 m/s and 2.26 108 m/s. respectively then,
(assume Snells law is valid for both waves):
(A) light wave and sound wave will refract through same angle.
(B) angle of refraction for light wave will be 300. Water
B
(C) water is acoustically denser medium than air for sound wave.
(D) the angle between the two rays when they get separated by the air water surface is
3 1 0.75
sin rad ..
4 2

19. Find the value of reactance XC as shown in the figure. i1= 1A 15 XL = 20


(A) 3 (B) 6 R
0.5
(C) 2 (D) none of these
i2=10A XC

V, f, Hz

20. A conducting cross bar of mass m and length L can slide, without friction, L
vertically up and down on two conducting rails. The rails are connected on the v

bottom via a variable resistance R and a battery E, so that rails and the bar form B
a rectangular conducting loop. A uniform magnetic field B points into the plane
of the loop. Whole system is placed in constant gravitational field g. Find the
h
value of E for which rod will move up with a constant velocity v.
mgR mg R E
(A) (B) BV
B RB
mg
(C) B V (D) zero
RB

21. The value of the current in the resistor R in the following circuit will be C L C L

(Given C = 1 F, L = 1 H, R = 1 )
100 R
(A) zero (B) sin(50t )
R C C
(C) 100/R (D) cant be calculated

V = 100 sin50t

Space for rough work

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22. A concave mirror is placed in a medium of refractive index 1 1.2. An object 1 = 1.2
O
placed at 30 cm from pole of the mirror and its image coincides. Now a liquid of 30cm
refractive index is placed in the concave mirror in the shaded region while the
medium of refractive index 1.2 is retained in the remaining region. It is found
that object needs to be shifted by 7.5 cm below O for the object and image to
coincide. The refractive index of the liquid is
4
(A) (B) 1.2
3
(C) 1.6 (D) None of the above

23. An object is placed at 30 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15cm. On the other side of the lens a
convex mirror of focal length 12cm is placed so that the principal axis of both coincide. It is observed
that the object and image coincide. What is the separation between the lens and mirror?
(A) 6 cm (B) 30 cm
(C) either (A) or (B) (D) none of the above

24. Initially two capacitors each of capacitors C have charges as shown and
the inductor L has zero current. After the switch S is closed, the L Q
C
Q
maximum current in the inductor is
3Q 3Q 2Q
C
(A) (B) 2Q
2LC LC
4Q 5Q S
(C) (D)
LC LC

25. The given figure shows a convergent lens placed inside a cell filled = 1.6
with liquid. The lens has focal length +20 cm when in air, and its
material has refractive index 1.50. If the liquid has refractive index
= 1.5
1.60, then focal length of the lens in the cell is
(A) 80 cm (B) 80 cm
(C) 24 cm (D) 160 cm
Space for rough work

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26. An equiconvex glass lens (a) has focal length f and power P. It is cut into two
symmetrical halves (b) by a plane containing the principal axis. The two pieces
are recombined as shown in figure (c). The power of the new combination is
P (c)
(a) (b)
(A) zero (B)
2
(C) 2P (D) none of the above

27. Choose incorrect statements :


An inductor of inductance L, capacitance C and resistance R are connected in series to a variable
sinusoidal voltage supply, whose frequency is variable, but rms voltage is constant. At resonance
(I) Average power will be maximum (II) Average power will be minimum
(III) Impedence will be maximum (IV) current and voltage will be in same phase
(A) I and IV (B) II and III
(C) I and III (D) II, III, and IV

28. Which of the following is accompanied by the characteristic X-ray emission?


(A) -particle emission (B) Electron emission
(C) Positron emission (D) K-electron capture

29. The switch Sw of the circuit shown in the figure is closed at t = 0. i1 and i2 are the L1
electric current in the branch containing two ideal inductors L1 and L2
respectively, at a certain instant. Choose the most appropriate statement.
di di L2
(A) At t = 0,(just after the switch is closed) 1 and 2
dt L1 dt L 2
(B) At t = 0, ,(just after the switch is closed) i1 = 0, i2 = 0
L 2 L1
(C) After long time i1 and i2 r Sw
(L1 L2 ) (L1 L 2 )r
(D) All the above are true

30. Monochromatic light is used in Youngs double slit experiment. When one of the slits is covered by a
transparent sheet of thickness 1.8 10 5 m, made of material of refractive index 1 number of
fringes which shift is 18. when another sheet of thickness 3.6 10 5 m, made of material of refractive
index 2 is used, number of fringes which shift is 9. Relation between 1 and 2 is given by
(A) 4 2 1 = 3 (B) 4 1 2 = 3
(C) 3 2 1 = 4 (D) 2 1 2 = 4

Space for rough work

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Chemistry PART II

1. The cell reaction for the given cell is spontaneous if:


Pt Cl2 | Cl 1M || Cl 1 M | Pt Cl2
P1 P2
(A) P1 > P2 (B) P1 < P2
(C) P1 = P2 (D) P2 = 1 atm

2. The oxidation potential of a hydrogen electrode at pH = 10 & PH2 1.


(A) 0.51 V (B) 0.00 V
(C) +0.59 V (D) 0.059 V

0 0 0
3. Given that EFe3
/Fe
& EFe2
/Fe
are 0.36 V & 0.439 V, respectively. The value of EFe3
/Fe 2
will be
(A) (0.36 0.439) V (B) [3(+0.36) 2(0.439)] V
(C) (0.36 + 0.439) V (D) [3(0.36) 2(0.439)] V

4. Potassium chlorate is prepared by the electrolysis of KCl in basic medium as:


Cl 6OH ClO3 3H2O 6e
If only 60% of current is utilised in the reaction, the time to produce 10 g of KClO3 using current of 2
ampere: (molelcular weight of KClO3 = 122.5)
(A) 1.94 hr (B) 10.94 hr
(C) 19.09 hr (D) 12.09 hr

5. Glucose is added to 1 litre water to such an extent that Tf/Kf becomes equal to 1/1000, the weight of
glucose is added is
(A) 0.32 g (B) 0.42 g
(C) 0.22 g (D) 0.18 g

Space for rough work

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0
6. If P & Ps are the vapour pressures of the solvent & solution respectively, n1 & n2 are the mole
fractions of the solvent & solute respectively, then:
(A) Ps = P0n1 (B) Ps = P0n2
0 0
(C) P = Psn2 (D) Ps = P (n1/n2)

7. One mole of non-volatile solute is dissolved in two mole of water. The vapour pressure of the solution
relative to that of water is
(A) 2/3 (B) 1/3
(C) 1/2 (D) 3/2

8. The amount of ice that will seprate out on cooling a solution containing 50 g of ethylene glycol in 200
g water to 9.3 C is
K F' 1.86 K molality 1
(A) 38.71 g (B) 38.71 mg
(C) 42 g (D) 42 mg

9. An alloy of Cu, Ag and Au is found to have copper constituting the cpp lattice. If Ag atom occupy the
edge centres & Au atom is present at body centre, the formula of this alloy is
(A) Cu4Ag4Au (B) Cu4Ag2Au
(C) CuAgAu (D) Cu4Ag3Au

10. A metal crystallises in b.c.c lattice. The percent fraction of edge length not covered by atom is
(A) 11.4% (B) 12.4 %
(C) 13.4 % (D) 14.4 %

11. CsBr crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the
atomic mass of Cs = 133 & that of Br = 80 amu & Avogadros number be ing 6.02 1023 mol1. The
density of CsBr is
3 3
(A) 8.50 g/cm (B) 4.25 g/cm
3 3
(C) 42.5 g/cm (D) 0.425 g/cm

12. If a stands for the edge length of the cubic systems: simple cubic system centred cubic &
face centred cubic, then then the radii of the spheres in the these system will be respectively:
a a 3 a 2
(A) : : (B) 1a : 3a : 2a
2 2 2
a a 3 a a a
(C) : : (D) : 3a :
2 4 2 2 2 2

Space for rough work

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13. Which of the following metals is leached by cyanide process?


(A) Ag (B) Na
(C) Al (D) Cu

14. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by


(A) electrolytic reduction
(B) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(C) roasting followed by reduction with another metal
(D) roasting followed by self reduction

15. The ore that is concentrated by froth floatation process is


(A) cinnabar (B) bauxite
(C) malachite (D) zincite

16. The chemical reaction that involves roasting proces is


(A) Fe2O3 3CO 2Fe 3CO2
(B) 2Al Fe2 O3
2Fe Al2O3
(C) 2ZnS 3O 2
2ZnO 3SO2
(D) FeO SiO2 FeSiO3

17. The number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is


(A) 17 (B) 16
(C) 7 (D) 6

18. Which one of the acids is a dibasic acid?


(A) H3PO3 (B) H3PO2
(C) HPO3 (D) H3PO4

19. Excess of PCl5 react with conc. H2SO4 giving


(A) sulphuryl chloride (B) sulphurous acid
(C) chlorosulphonic acid (D) thionyl chloride

20. The element evolving two different gases on reaction with conc. H2SO4 is
(A) P (B) C
(C) Hg (D) S
Space for rough work

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21. What products are expected from disproportionation reaction of hypochlorous acid?
(A) HClO3 & Cl2O (B) HClO2 & HClO4
(C) HCl & Cl2O (D) HCl & HClO3

22. Shape of ClF3 is


(A) equitorial triangle (B) pyramidal
(C) V- shaped (D) T-shaped

23. Which of the two have same hybridisation of the central atom?
XeF2, XeF4, XeO3, XeOF4
(A) XeF2, XeF4 (B) XeF4, XeOF4
(C) XeF4, XeO3 (D) XeO3, XeOF4

24. Which of the followng species is isostructural with ICl4?


(A) XeF2 (B) XeF4
(C) XeF6 (D) XeF7

25. Arrange the following ions in their magnetic moment:


4+ 4+ 3+ 2+
(i) V (ii) Mn (iii) Fe (iv) Ni
(Atomic number, V = 23, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)
(A) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv) (B) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)
(C) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i) (D) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)

26. In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution?
3+ 2+ 2+ +
(A) Sc , Co (B) Ni , Cu
3+ 3+ 2+ 3+
(C) Sc , Ti (D) Ni , Ti
Space for rough work

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27. KMnO4 in excess on treatement with conc. H2SO4 forms a compound X which decomposes
explosively giving Y. The X & Y are respectively:
(A) Mn2O7, Mn2O3 (B) Mn2O7, MnO2
(C) MnSO4, Mn2O3 (D) Mn2O3, MnO2

28. A metal M & its compounds can give the following reactions. The M is
dilute NaOH excess of
M
HNO3
Colourless solution
solution
White ppt.
NaOH solution
Colourless solution

H 2S

White ppt.
(A) Mg (B) Pb
(C) Zn (D) Sn

29. Which of the following salt will evolve sulphur dioxide gas along with formation of yellowish turbidity
when treated with dilute H2SO4?
(A) sodium sulphate (B) sodium sulphite
(C) sodium sulphide (D) sodium thiosulphate

30. Zinc pieces are added to an acidified solution of sulphite, the gas liberated can
(A) turn lime water milky
(B) turn lead acetate paper black
(C) turn K2Cr2O7 (acidified) paper green
(D) give none of the above tests
Space for rough work

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Mathematics PART III

SECTION A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choice (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.


1 If a , b , c are three non-coplanar vectors represented by concurrent edges of a parallelopiped of

volume 4, then (a b) (b c) (b c) (c a) (c a) (a b) is
(A) 12 (B) 4
(C) 12 (D) 0

2 The yz-plane divides the line joining the points (1, 3, 4) and (2, 5, 6) internally in the ratio
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 3 : 1

x 2 y 1 z 1 2
3 The line intersects the curve xy = k , z = 0 if k is
3 2 1
1
(A) 1 (B)
3
(C) 5 (D) none of these

2
x cos x ex
/2
4 If f(x) = sin x x2 sec x , then the value of f x dx is equal to
/2
tan x 1 2

(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) 0

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2 2 4 4 3 3
5 If A = 1 3 4 and B = 1
0 1 , then the value of determinant
1 2 3 4 4 3

A A B2 2

A 3 A 4B 4 ...100 terms is equal to
(A) 1000 (B) 800
(C) 0 (D) 8000

6 If R is idempotent matrix satisfying (I aR)1 = I 3R, where I is unit matrix of same order as that of R
and a is a real number, then the value of 2a is
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4

7 If A is a nilpotent matrix of index 2, then for any positive integer n, A(I + A)n is equal to
(A) A1 (B) A
(C) An (D) In
x 5 y 7 z 3 x8 y4 z5
8 The equation of the plane in which the lines and lie, is
4 4 5 7 1 3
(A) 17x 47y 24z 172 0 (B) 17x 47y 24z 172 0
(C) 17x 47y 24z 172 0 (D) 17x 47y 24z 172 0

sin( ) cos( ) 1
9 If A sin( ) cos( ) 1 ,then
sin( ) cos( ) 1
(A) A = 1 for all (B) A is an odd Function of
(C) A = 1 for (D) A is independent of

logan logan 1 logan 2


10. If a1,a2 ,a3 .....an .... are in G.P. then the value of the determinant logan 3 logan 4 logan 5 is
logan 6 logan 7 logan 8
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 0

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2
11. The area [(x, y) : |x| y x ] is equal to
(A) 1/6 (B) 1/3
(C) 3/4 (D) none of these
4 3 2
12. The area bounded by the curve y = x 2x + x + 3, the axis of x and two ordinates corresponding to
minima of the function y(x) is
91 71
(A) sq. units (B) sq. units
90 91
91 91
(C) sq. units (D) sq. units
80 30

13. The area enclosed by the curve |x 2| + |y + 1| = 1 is equal to


(A) 4 sq. units (B) 6 sq. units
(C) 2 sq. units (D) 8 sq. units

14. Area of the region consisting of all the points satisfying the conditions |x y| + |x + y| 8 and xy 2 is
equal to
(A) 4(7 ln8) sq. units (B) 4(9 ln8) sq. units
(C) 2(7 ln8) sq. units (D) 2(9 ln8) sq. units

15. The area bounded by the curves y = lnx, y = ln |x|, y = |lnx| and y = |ln |x|| is
(A) 5 sq. units (B) 4 sq. units
(C) 2 sq. units (D) 7/2 sq. units

16. The area of the figure bounded by the curves y = |x 1| and y = 3 |x| is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 1

dy
17. Solution of the solution : sin 2x y tan x is (where c is arbitrary constant)
dx
(A) y tan x c tan x (B) x ysinx = c
(C) xy tanx = c (D) none of these

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2
18. The solution of differential equation 4xdy ydx = x dy is
4x 4
(A) y = c.e (B) (x 4)y = c.x
4 4
(C) x y = cxy (D) none of these

19. The solution of the differential equation 3ex tany dx + (1 ex) sec2y dy = 0 is (where c is arbitrary
constant)
x x 3
(A) e tany = c (B) ce = (1 tany)
x 2 x 3
(C) ctany = (1 e ) (D) tany = c(1 e )
2
20. The general solution of the differential equation x dy + y(x + y) dx = 0 is
2
(A) x = cy(y + 2x) (B) xy = c(y + 2x)
(C) x2y = c(y + 2x) (D) none of these

21. A pack of cards containing 4 kings, 4 queens and 4 aces. 3 cards are drawn at random. The
probability that atleast one of them is queen, is
1 22
(A) (B)
4 29
41 1
(C) (D)
55 3

22. Three ladies have to speak at a meeting along with 5 men. If they speak in random order, the
probability that 1st lady speaks before 2nd lady and 2nd speaks before 3rd lady is
1 3
(A) (B)
6 8
5 3
(C) (D)
8 5

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23. A box contains 6 tickets each bearing one of the numbers from 1 to 6 exactly once. 3 tickets are
drawn from the box one by one with replacement. The chance that the largest number drawn is 5, is
3 2
5 5
(A) (B)
6 6
3 3 3
5 4 4
(C) (D)
6 6 6

24. If three numbers are selected from the set {1, 2, 3, , 15} without repetition, then the probability that
their product is a perfect cube is
1 2
(A) 15 (B) 15
C3 C3
3
(C) 15
(D) none of these
C3

25. The distinct numbers are chosen from the set {1, 2, ,6}. The probability that the product of two
numbers is the third one is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/3
(C) 1/ 2 (D) none of these

26. If a, b, c , are three nonzero vectors, no two of which are collinear, a 2b is collinear with c and

b 3c is collinear with a , then | a 2b 6c | will be equal to
(A) Zero (B) 1
(C) 9 (D) none of these

27. Let the unit vectors a, b, c be the position vectors of the vertices of a triangle ABC. If F is the position
vector of the mid point of the line segment joining its orthocentre and centroid then

a F 2 b F 2 c F 2 =
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) none of these

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28. The position vectors of vertices of ABC are a, b, c and a a b b c c = 3. If a b c = 0, then
the position vectors of the orthocentre of ABC is
1
(A) a b c (B)
3
abc
(C) 0 (D) none of these

29. The angle between any two diagonals of a cube is


1 1
(A) cos 1 (B) cos 1
2 3
1
(C) cos 1 (D) none of these
4

30. A line makes , , , with four diagonals of a cube, then the value of cos2 + cos2 + cos2 + cos2
is equal to
3 1
(A) (B)
4 4
4 2
(C) (D)
3 3
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