Verbal Analysis

in assumptions questions right link and check connections bewtween word used in concluison and the premise ...
n u will get the answers
(only eliminate when you are sure it is wrong and look for the easier decision points first) then you will get this difficult problem correct.
mark a EXCfor except question and normal signs so that u do not mistake
always read and understand the premise and write the conlusion and then relate ...u will save time of writing prmise and increase
concentration
do not ever get stuck ...........at questions ...it is anyways going wrong ...or will make other questions go erong in the end
concntrate on the subjects whose percentages are given and based on that mark ur consluion ....before reading he answers there will be
traps will similar word to set u swrong
FOR RC INFERENCE ....FIND THE LOCATION FIRST ....NOW STICK TO THAT IDEA WHILEELIMINATING THE OTHERS
CROSS OUT THE EXTRE,ES IN RC OPTIONS RIGHT AWAY AND THEN TRY N FIND UT THE ONES MAKING MORE LOGOCAL SENSE IN THE
PASSAGE ..CROOS CHECK THE FACTS AND MARK
DO WORD VERIFICATION FOR THE GIVEN OPTIONS .....AND THEN ELIMINATE ...THAT WORD VERIFICTAION CAN BE DONE ATLAST FOR
TWO CLOSE OPTIONS BY REREADING PARTS OF PASSAGE TO JUSTIFY ...AND GET THE BASIC TONE AND THEME IN LINE
AGAIN KEY TO SUCCESS IN RCS IS CHEW EACH WORD AND VERIFY ...DOUBT IT EVEN IF THEY ARE NOT EXPTREMES ARETHEY IN THE
RIGHT TONE ....IS TEHE AUTHOR REAALY SAYING THAT ...I MEAN AUTHOR MIGHT BUY THE ENTIRE OPTION AS PERFECT BUT JUST ONE
WORD CAN RUIN THE PARTY SO CATCH HOLD OF IT AT THE START ITSELF ...HAPPY RC""ING""
WHEN IT IS A NEGATIVE QUESTION ...BEAR THAT IN MIND AND BE MORE ATTENTIVE AND MARK ON SCRATCH SHEET (-VE)....NOW THE
BEST NEGATIVE ANSWERS ARE ABOLUTE WORDSS WHICH NO BODY WOULD AGREE ....AND STILL CATCH HOLD OF B=WORD
EVERIFICATIONS ALWAYS AND U WILL BE ABLE TO IMPROVE
in algebra qunats DS just try substitute solve and choose an answer not so obvious atleast try tthat
Problem 41
41
People with major depressive disorder are much more likely to have immune disorders such as lupus and chronic fatigue syndrome than
people who are not depressed. This suggests strongly that major depressive disorder reduces the bodys ability to fight infection, because
primary infections are thought to cause many of these immune disorders.
Which of the following is an assumption required by the argument above?
People who are depressed do not tend to overstate the severity of their symptoms.
People with major depressive disorder are less careful than others about protecting themselves from infection.
Major depressive disorder does not usually have a very sudden onset.
Immune disorders do not cause major depressive disorders in many people.
Many immune disorders are known to have causes other than primary infections.
Solution
D. This problem contains a classic flaw relating to correlation and causation. While there is evidence that major depressive disorder is
strongly correlated with certain immune disorders, there is no evidence that one is causing the other. Maybe it is the case that immune
disorders are causing the depression, not the other way around! In order to make this conclusion, you need to know that immune disorders
are not the cause of the depression and answer choice (D) does this perfectly. Assumption-negation is a helpful technique for dealing with
the negatively worded answer choices (A), (C) and (D) read them affirmatively to see if they weaken the argument. For (A), if depressed
people DO tend to overstate the severity of their symptoms, then it is not a problem in this argument so (A) is not correct. In (C) if depression
DOES usually have a sudden onset, then it is also not a problem for this argument, so (C) is not correct. For (D), if immune disorders DO
cause many cases of depression, then the whole argument falls apart and you have the correct answer. (B) is tricky but if people with
depression are less careful than others about protecting themselves from depression then it WEAKENS this argument as it gives another
possible explanation for the conclusion. (E) is relatively easy to eliminate as other causes would not be important in this argument.
Stats
Average time: 01m 54s

Your time: 00m 20s
People who are depressed do not tend to overstate the severity of their symptoms.
6%
People with major depressive disorder are less careful than others about protecting themselves from infection.
12%
Major depressive disorder does not usually have a very sudden onset.
3%
Immune disorders do not cause major depressive disorders in many people.
71%
Many immune disorders are known to have causes other than primary infections.
6%
back
41
Question ID: 07626
back
Problem 40
40
In all, fifteen or more Greenwich Capital employees were tied to insider trading while at the fund, with four to plead guilty and more likely.
All told, fifteen or more Greenwich Capital employees had been tied to insider trading while at the fund, with four having pleaded guilty and
more likely.
All told, at least fifteen Greenwich Capital employees have been tied to insider trading while at the fund; four have pleaded guilty and more
are likely to do so.
In all, at least fifteen Greenwich Capital employees have been tied to insider trading while at the fund; with four having pleaded guilty and
more are likely to do so.
are likely.
Solution
Solution: C
Explanation: The easiest answer choice to eliminate is (B) as the past perfect is clearly incorrect in this case: it suggests they were tied to
insider trading before they were at the fund. Also (D) is incorrect as the semi-colon is incorrectly used in that case it should be separating
an independent clause. In (A), the past tense could be correct, but the structure at the end is not parallel and it is imprecise. The and more
likely does not make it clear what is more likely and does not logically follow the structure before it. In (E), the more are likely is also
incorrect as something needs to follow it because the structure before cannot be logically put after it. You cannot say: four have pleaded
guilty and more are likely have pleaded guilty Only (C) gets the second part correct: the semi-colon is used to separate an independent
clause and it uses the proper to do so after more likely to show that four have pleaded guilty and more are likely (to plead guilty). Answer
is (C).
Stats

Your time: 00m 19s
4%
All told, fifteen or more Greenwich Capital employees had been tied to insider trading while at the fund, with four having pleaded guilty and
more likely.
1%
are likely to do so.
63%
In all, at least fifteen Greenwich Capital employees have been tied to insider trading while at the fund; with four having pleaded guilty and
more are likely to do so.
23%
are likely.
7%
back
40
back
Problem 39
39
On average, schools that provide an extra recess period each day during which children are allowed unstructured play score higher on state
aptitude tests than schools that do not provide such a recess period. Therefore, the test scores at Malthus Elementary would likely improve if
the school adds a recess period of unstructured play.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument?
Nearly all of the schools providing the extra unstructured recess period provided it to reward students for their performance on the aptitude
tests.
Schools that add an extra period of recess perform better than schools that merely switch from structured to unstructured recess.
Malthus already enjoys above average scores on the aptitude tests in question.
An extra recess period allows students less time to study for their aptitude tests.
Malthus formerly had an extra period of recess.
Solution
Solution: A
Begin this question as you would any Weaken question: locate the conclusion, negate it, and seek support for the negation. The negation
here would be that Malthus might NOT benefit from an extra period, and while a number of answer choices raise that possibility, (A) does so
most convincingly, stating that the extra period was not the cause of the increased scores but a reward FOR the increased scores in other
words, a benefit stemming from a result, not necessarily a cause.
Stats

Your time: 00m 52s
Nearly all of the schools providing the extra unstructured recess period provided it to reward students for their performance on the aptitude
tests.
62%
Schools that add an extra period of recess perform better than schools that merely switch from structured to unstructured recess.
3%
Malthus already enjoys above average scores on the aptitude tests in question.
10%
An extra recess period allows students less time to study for their aptitude tests.
10%
Malthus formerly had an extra period of recess.
12%
back
39
Question ID: 03024
Problem 38
38
Patient: I have read that particles of my artificial hip can wear off and be absorbed by surrounding tissues. I believe that this is responsible
for the discomfort that I am now experiencing.
Surgeon: Your surgery was so recent that with normal use it is almost impossible for the artificial hip to have already begun to wear away.
The reason for your current discomfort is due to routine post-operative inflammation which can be treated with a nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drug.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the patients position regarding her discomfort?
The patient has not followed the post-operative instructions she was given regarding how much time she should spend engaged in vigorous
activities.
The inflammation that is common to people who have had replacement hip replacement surgery often needs to be treated with more potent
drugs than the ones being recommended by the surgeon.
The patient has an artificial hip that is made of a material that can begin to wear out after a few weeks when exposed to temperatures higher
than 200 degrees.
The patient read about the possibility of artificial hips wearing out in a respected medical journal.
The surgeon has only been performing hip-replacement surgery for less than a year.
Solution
Solution: A
Explanation: The surgeon explains that it is almost impossible for the artificial hip to wear away so soon WITH NORMAL USE. However, if the
patient was inappropriately engaged in vigorous activities, particles of her hip may very well be wearing off.
(B) The question is what is causing the discomfort, not how to treat it.
(C) There is no reason to think that the patient could have been exposed to such an extreme temperature.
(D) This lends strength to the idea that artificial hips CAN wear away, but does not strengthen the proposition that this is what happened to
her.
(E) The surgeons lack of experience does not necessarily weaken his position or strengthen the patients.
Stats

Your time: 01m 28s
The patient has not followed the post-operative instructions she was given regarding how much time she should spend engaged in vigorous
activities.
56%
The inflammation that is common to people who have had replacement hip replacement surgery often needs to be treated with more potent
drugs than the ones being recommended by the surgeon.
5%
The patient has an artificial hip that is made of a material that can begin to wear out after a few weeks when exposed to temperatures higher
than 200 degrees.
25%
The patient read about the possibility of artificial hips wearing out in a respected medical journal.
9%
The surgeon has only been performing hip-replacement surgery for less than a year.
3%
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38
Question ID: 06516
Problem 37
37
Historian: The vast majority of scholars studying the American Civil War regard Confederate generals as superior to their Union counterparts.
They also acknowledge that the Confederate soldier was, on average, more committed to the cause and, therefore, willing to fight harder than
the Union soldier. However, most of these same scholars agree with my contention that when the Civil War began in 1861, it was already true
that the Confederacy could not prevail without the intervention of a major foreign power such as Great Britain or France.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the historian's contention?
Both the Confederate and Union troops started the war using similar single-shot muzzle-loading guns to which bayonets could be attached.
The Confederacy had a greater proportion of officers who had attended the United States Military Academy at West Point and had served
with distinction in the Mexican War.
The Union had four times the total population of the Confederacy and most of the industrial manufacturing in North America.
The Confederacy won several important victories early in the war and earned the respect of foreign leaders.
By the end of the war in 1865, many Union soldiers were armed with the new Spencer repeating rifles that fired seven shots before reloading;
the Confederate army continued to rely on slower, single-shot weapons for its soldiers.
Solution
Correct Answer: C
This question asks for the answer choice that strengthens the contention that it was true at the start of the Civil War that the Confederacy
could not have won without foreign intervention. The correct answer is Choice C, because it provides two overwhelming Union advantages to
counter the superior generals and more committed soldiers on the Confederate side. It is also a factor that was in place at the beginning of
the war. Choice E also provides a significant advantage to the Union, but this advantage was not in place at the beginning of the war as
required by the historian's contention. Choice A provides a factor that provides a similarity between the Confederate and Union forces. Choice
B gives a factor that might be considered another advantage for the Confederacy. Choice D is irrelevant because it is not an advantage for
either side, but just a report of the results earlier in the war.
Stats

Your time: 01m 16s
Both the Confederate and Union troops started the war using similar single-shot muzzle-loading guns to which bayonets could be attached.
2%
The Confederacy had a greater proportion of officers who had attended the United States Military Academy at West Point and had served
with distinction in the Mexican War.
5%
The Union had four times the total population of the Confederacy and most of the industrial manufacturing in North America.
67%
The Confederacy won several important victories early in the war and earned the respect of foreign leaders.
10%
By the end of the war in 1865, many Union soldiers were armed with the new Spencer repeating rifles that fired seven shots before reloading;
the Confederate army continued to rely on slower, single-shot weapons for its soldiers.
14%
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37
Question ID: 01722
Problem 29
29
Of the adults who live in Idaho, approximately 5% own livestock. Of the adults who live in Idaho and indicated support for a recently proposed
bill via an online poll, however, approximately 12% own livestock. Clearly, adults who own livestock are more likely to be affected by the
proposed legislation than are adults who do not own livestock.
The conclusion drawn above is based on the assumption that _____________.
Adults who own livestock were less likely to indicate support via the online poll than were adults who do not own livestock.
The number of adults who indicated support for the bill via the online poll was greater than the number of adults who own livestock.
At least some of the adults in Idaho who own livestock responded more than once to the online poll.
Adults who indicate support for legislation are more likely to be affected by that legislation than are adults who do not indicate support.
Adults who own livestock in Idaho are more likely to indicate support for proposed legislation than are adults who own livestock in a state
with less livestock.
Solution
D. Note the gap in logic here between the premises and the conclusion - the premise is that a a higher percentage of livestock owners
supported this bill than their normal proportion of the population. The conclusion then states that livestock owners are more likely to be
affected than others - a bit of a leap, as it infers the reason they vote this way is that they're more directly affected and not, for example, just
more ideologically in support of a law that would affect everyone (say, higher speed limits or decreased taxes). Before you even get to the
answer choices you should be skeptical.
If you use the Assumption Negation Technique on answer choice D, it becomes "Adults who indicate support are NOT more likely to be
affected than those who do not indicate support" - which blows open that gap in logic that the support must have been directly because they
were personally affected. Answer choice D is, therefore, correct.
Stats

Your time: 02m 40s
Adults who own livestock were less likely to indicate support via the online poll than were adults who do not own livestock.
6%
The number of adults who indicated support for the bill via the online poll was greater than the number of adults who own livestock.
15%
At least some of the adults in Idaho who own livestock responded more than once to the online poll.
8%
Adults who indicate support for legislation are more likely to be affected by that legislation than are adults who do not indicate support.
65%
Adults who own livestock in Idaho are more likely to indicate support for proposed legislation than are adults who own livestock in a state
with less livestock.
3%
back
29
Problem 27
27
Midway through the parade, the rodeo queen from New Mexico appeared a red sash across her chest, a crown hugging the band of her
cowboy hat; she rode in circles on her gray horse, waving at the crowd as if she knew each of them personally.
appeared a red sash across her chest, a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat; she rode in circles on her gray horse, waving at the
crowd as if she knew each of them personally
appeared a red sash across her chest and a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat; she rode in circles on her gray horse and waving at
the crowd as if she knew each of them personally
appeared a red sash across her chest; a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat; she rode in circles on her gray horse and was waving
at the crowd as if she knew each of them personally
appeared with a red sash across her chest, a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat, she rode in circles on her gray horse, and was
waving at the crowd as if she knew each of them personally
appeared with a red sash across her chest and a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat, rode in circles on her gray horse, waving at the
Solution
This sentence correction problem uses an unusual structure to hide the correct answer - a common tool used by testmakers that you
learned about in the Advanced Verbal lesson. In (A), the phrase a red sash across her chest, a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat is
unusual because normally you would expect a conjunction between the two modifiers (here and so that it would read: a red sash across
her chest and a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat). However, this fairly unusual rhetorical device (called asyndeton) is allowed and
certainly something you have encountered in your reading over the years. Everything else in the sentence is fine so (A) is indeed the correct
answer. However many students will eliminate it because they are not familiar with this rhetorical device. The other four answer choices all
have fatal flaws and if you use the proper strategy (only eliminate when you are sure it is wrong and look for the easier decision points
first) then you will get this difficult problem correct. For (B), the second clause following the semi-colon is clearly incorrect because waving
is not used as a conjugated verb: she rode in circles on her gray horse and waving at the crowd as if she knew each of them personally. This
would have to be she rodeand waved For (C), the multiple semi-colons are incorrect. While you can use multiple semi-colons in a sentence
to link parallel elements in a series, that is not the case in this example and the usage is incorrect. In (D) and (E), you have a series of things
that either lack any parallelism or are linked together improperly. In (D) the she rode clause is inserted without any conjunction a classic
comma splice and is also not parallel to the other structures. In (E) there is no conjunction after cowboy hat, and before rode. After
using slash-and-burn (E) reads like this: she appeared.,rode clearly incorrect without a conjunction. Answer is (A).
Stats

Your time: 02m 07s
appeared a red sash across her chest, a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat; she rode in circles on her gray horse, waving at the
51%
appeared a red sash across her chest and a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat; she rode in circles on her gray horse and waving at
the crowd as if she knew each of them personally
18%
appeared a red sash across her chest; a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat; she rode in circles on her gray horse and was waving
at the crowd as if she knew each of them personally
9%
appeared with a red sash across her chest, a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat, she rode in circles on her gray horse, and was
waving at the crowd as if she knew each of them personally
6%
appeared with a red sash across her chest and a crown hugging the band of her cowboy hat, rode in circles on her gray horse, waving at the
14%
back
27
Question ID: 08754
Problem 23
23
Since 2004, when storm waters introduced Pacific carp to Hoffman Lake, the lakes population of smallmouth bass has decreased by nearly
one third. In the same time period, the lakes population of sand trout has decreased by approximately 40%. Still, Hoffman Lake is home to
more sand trout than to any other type of fish.
Which of the following must be true on the basis of the statements above?
If plans to remove Pacific carp from Lake Hoffman are successful, the population of smallmouth bass and sand trout will increase.
In 2004, there were more sand trout than any other type of fish in Lake Hoffman.
Pacific carp are a natural predator of sand trout and smallmouth bass.
At some point there were more sand trout in Lake Hoffman than smallmouth bass.
If trends are to continue, Pacific carp will one day be the most numerous fish in Hoffman Lake.
Solution
D. If you follow the mathematical logic of the stimulus, you can see that the remaining 60% of sand trout is a greater number than the
remaining 67% of smallmouth bass, or:
.6T > .67B (where T stands for the original number of Trout and B stands for the original number of Bass)
This means that T > B, proving that at some point (right around 2004) there were more sand trout than smallmouth bass. Beware the other
answer choices, which are not necessarily true. For A and C, you do not know that the carp were the reason for the decrease in the population
of the other fish; it could have been other elements of that storm. For B, you don't know whether other types of fish were even more
numerous but suffered a greater decrease. And for E, you don't know at all that the population of carp is increasing.
Stats

Your time: 02m 10s
If plans to remove Pacific carp from Lake Hoffman are successful, the population of smallmouth bass and sand trout will increase.
4%
In 2004, there were more sand trout than any other type of fish in Lake Hoffman.
48%
Pacific carp are a natural predator of sand trout and smallmouth bass.
9%
At some point there were more sand trout in Lake Hoffman than smallmouth bass.
33%
If trends are to continue, Pacific carp will one day be the most numerous fish in Hoffman Lake.
3%
back
23
Question ID: 07725
Problem 13
13
Though trained in Sweden, the renowned doctor has spent most of her life in Africa, grew up in Kenya as the eldest of a missionary couples
six children, attended prep school in Namibia, and after college and medical school in Sweden, did graduate work in the Congo and
Zimbabwe.
grew up in Kenya as the eldest of a missionary couples six children, attended prep school in Namibia, and after college and medical school in
Sweden, did
has grown up in Kenya as the eldest of a missionary couples six children, has attended prep school in Namibia, and after college and
medical school in Sweden, did
having grown up in Kenya as the eldest of a missionary couples six children, attended prep school in Namibia, and after college and medical
school in Sweden, having done
growing up in Kenya as the eldest of a missionary couples six children, attending prep school in Namibia, and, after college and medical
school in Sweden, doing
school in Sweden, she did
Solution
Explanation: In this type of parallelism/sentence construction problem, you need to isolate what structures need to be parallel. To start, you
need to use the participial structure (growing or having grown) - what follows the word Africa is helping us understand better how she spent
most of her life on the continent. These are not separate things she did not spend most of her life in Africa, AND grew up in Kenya, AND
attended prep school in Namibiathese are just modifiers to help you understand how she has spent most of her life in Africa. Also, there is
an illogical mixing of the simple past and present perfect tenses in series that follows. (C) contains a bungled series you cannot say
having grown, attended, and having done. It would have to be having grown, attended, and done or having grown, having attended, and
having done. (D) uses the proper ing participial structure and is perfectly parallel: growingattendingand doing. (E) has another bungled
series:
growing, attending, and she did. Correct answer is (D).
Stats

Your time: 02m 12s
grew up in Kenya as the eldest of a missionary couples six children, attended prep school in Namibia, and after college and medical school in
Sweden, did
19%
has grown up in Kenya as the eldest of a missionary couples six children, has attended prep school in Namibia, and after college and
medical school in Sweden, did
6%
having grown up in Kenya as the eldest of a missionary couples six children, attended prep school in Namibia, and after college and medical
school in Sweden, having done
7%
school in Sweden, doing
53%
school in Sweden, she did
13%
back
13
Question ID: 09783
Problem 3
3
The data being collected in the current geological survey are providing a strong warning for engineers as they consider the new dam project,
but their greatest importance might lie in how they influence the upcoming decision by those same engineers on whether to retrofit 75
bridges in the survey zone.
but their greatest importance
The data being collected in the current geological survey provide a strong warning for engineers as they consider the new dam project, but its
greatest importance
The data collected in the current geological survey is providing a strong warning for engineers as they consider the new dam project, but their
greatest importance
The data collected in the current geological survey provides a strong warning for engineers in consideration of the new dam project, but its
greatest importance
The data collected in the current geological survey provide a strong warning for engineers in consideration for the new dam project, but the
greatest importance
Solution
Solution: A
Explanation: A quick scan of answer choices shows that this problem hinges primarily on numerical agreement (subject verb agreement and
pronoun agreement). There is a choice between verbs: are providing and provide are plural verbs requiring a plural subject and is
providing and provides are singular verbs requiring a singular subject. Data is a difficult noun that can be treated either as the plural of
datum or as a singular mass noun. While students may wrack their brain trying to determine whether data is singular or plural in this
sentence, that is a classic false decision point! It is accepted commonly as either plural or singular so there must be other important issues
in the sentence. In (B) if data is being used with a plural verb (provide) then it must be used as a plural noun throughout the sentence.
Therefore, the its is incorrect as it has no singular antecedent so (B) is incorrect. In (C) data is used with a singular verb is providing so it
must be singular throughout the sentence. The pronouns their and they further in the sentence are incorrectly referring to the singular
data so (C) is also wrong. In (D) data is again used with a singular verb provides so it must be singular throughout the sentence. While
the pronoun its is now correct in (D), the pronoun they in the non-underlined portion of the sentence is incorrectly referring to the singular
data so (D) is also wrong. In (E) in consideration for is improper diction and the meaning is unclear in the second portion without the
possessive their it is unclear what the greatest importance is referring to thus (E) is incorrect. Only (A) even though it may sound
strange to your ear properly matches the plural data with a plural verb and plural verbs. Answer choice (A) is correct.
Stats

Your time: 04m 33s
but their greatest importance
18%
The data being collected in the current geological survey provide a strong warning for engineers as they consider the new dam project, but its
greatest importance
6%
The data collected in the current geological survey is providing a strong warning for engineers as they consider the new dam project, but their
greatest importance
10%
The data collected in the current geological survey provides a strong warning for engineers in consideration of the new dam project, but its
greatest importance
44%
The data collected in the current geological survey provide a strong warning for engineers in consideration for the new dam project, but the
greatest importance
19%
back
3
Question ID: 07443
back
Problem 6
6
In the past 50 years, the population of honeybees in the United States has been cut in half. The decline is due primarily to the increasing use
of pesticides in the United States, as well as to the introduction of two types of mites that weaken and kill the bees. Honeybees are the
primary pollinators for a variety of important fruit crops, including oranges, apples, grapes, peaches, cranberries and watermelons. Therefore,
if the honey bee population continues this drastic decline then most fruits will no longer be available to consumers.,(THIS IS ALWAYS
TRU ....THEN IS IT POSSIBLE TO EVEALUTE THE THEN PART IS WHAT IS THE CONCLUION DOING ...SO CONCENTRATE THERE ...U CANNOT
CHANGE THE IF THE ...IF STTEMENT SETS THE PREMISE CONSITION EVEEN AFTER THAT DECLINE ID IT POSSIBLE TO GET FRUITS OR NOT
IS WHAT IS BEING ASKED
In evaluating the conclusion, which of the following questions would be LEAST useful to answer?
Are there other insect pollinators that could pollinate these fruit crops instead of the honeybee?
Are honeybee populations declining in other important fruit-producing regions, like Chile and New Zealand?
Is it feasible for humans to hand-pollinate the fruits that have been pollinated by bees?
Will reducing the use of pesticides in the United States reverse the decline in honeybee populations?
Is it possible to genetically engineer fruit-producing plants so that they no longer require pollination?
Solution
Correct Answer: D
This is a type of weaken question that asks the test-taker to provide the question that would, when answered, either strengthen or weaken
the conclusion. In this exception question, the correct answer will be the question that is not useful in evaluating the conclusion. Choice D is
the correct answer because it is the one that is not directly focused on the conclusion, which is the prediction that most fruits will be
unavailable in the absence of the honeybees. Choice D poses a very important question about a possible way to reverse the decline in the
honeybee population, but the answer to this question would neither strengthen nor weaken the conclusion. Choices A and C ask about
potential alternative ways to pollinate the fruit, while Choice E presents the possibility that pollination could be bypassed through genetic
engineering. Choice B asks about other fruit-producing regions that might be used as alternative sources of fruit for consumers.
Stats

Your time: 02m 06s
Are there other insect pollinators that could pollinate these fruit crops instead of the honeybee?
4%
Are honeybee populations declining in other important fruit-producing regions, like Chile and New Zealand?
53%
Is it feasible for humans to hand-pollinate the fruits that have been pollinated by bees?
7%
Will reducing the use of pesticides in the United States reverse the decline in honeybee populations?
27%
Is it possible to genetically engineer fruit-producing plants so that they no longer require pollination?
5%
back
Problem 11
11
In nests across North America, the host mother tries to identify their own eggs and weed out the fakes, but the brown-headed cowbird a
brood parasite that sneaks its eggs into other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to those of the host, making that task
surprisingly difficult.
the host mother tries to identify their own eggs and weed out the fakes, but the brown-headed cowbird a brood parasite that sneaks its
eggs into other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to those of the host, making that task surprisingly difficult
the host mother tries to identify its own eggs and weed out the fakes, but the brown-headed cowbird a brood parasite that sneaks its eggs
into other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to that of the host, making it surprisingly difficult
host mothers try to identify their own eggs and weed out the fakes, but the brown-headed cowbird a brood parasite that sneaks its eggs
into other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to the hosts, making that task surprisingly difficult
into other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to that of the hosts, making it surprisingly difficult
host mothers try to identify its own eggs and weed out the fakes, but the brown-headed cowbird a brood parasite that sneaks its eggs into
other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to those of the hosts, making that task surprisingly difficult
Solution
This sentence correction problem is almost exclusively testing numerical agreement. Most of the decision points relate to choices between
plural and singular pronouns and plural and singular nouns. In (A) the their is clearly incorrect as it does not agree with the singular
antecedent the host mother. In (B), that problem of agreement is fixed but then the that is incorrect after very similar to because it must
agree with the plural eggs in the comparison. (D) contains that same error so is also incorrect. In (E) the its does not agree with the plural
host mothers so that choice is incorrect. Only (C) gets all the agreement correct: host mothers goes with the plural their. The
comparison is proper because you are comparing the eggs of the cowbird with the hosts eggs (remember that the eggs is understood
and does not need to be written a tricky part of that correct answer). There are several other problems in the incorrect answer choices that
you may have also noted. Making it surprisingly difficult is ambiguous as it is unclear what the it is referring to. Also, the possessive
hosts used with that and those in (D) and (E) is redundant and incorrect. Answer is (C).
Stats

Your time: 01m 36s
the host mother tries to identify their own eggs and weed out the fakes, but the brown-headed cowbird a brood parasite that sneaks its
eggs into other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to those of the host, making that task surprisingly difficult
5%
the host mother tries to identify its own eggs and weed out the fakes, but the brown-headed cowbird a brood parasite that sneaks its eggs
into other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to that of the host, making it surprisingly difficult
13%
into other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to the hosts, making that task surprisingly difficult
51%
into other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to that of the hosts, making it surprisingly difficult
12%
host mothers try to identify its own eggs and weed out the fakes, but the brown-headed cowbird a brood parasite that sneaks its eggs into
other birds nests produces eggs that look very similar to those of the hosts, making that task surprisingly difficult
17%
back
11
Problem 8
8
An extinction event (also known as a mass extinction or biotic crisis) is a widespread and rapid decrease in the amount of life on earth. Such
an event is identified by a sharp change in the diversity and abundance of macroscopic life. It occurs when the rate of extinction increases
with respect to the rate of speciation. Because the majority of diversity and biomass on Earth is microbial, and thus difficult to measure,
recorded extinction events affect the easily observed, biologically complex component of the biosphere rather than the total diversity and
abundance of life.
Over 98% of documented species are now extinct, but extinction occurs at a very uneven rate. Based on the fossil record, the background
rate of extinctions on Earth is about two to five taxonomic families of marine invertebrates and vertebrates every million years. Marine fossils
are mostly used to measure extinction rates because of their superior fossil record and stratigraphic range compared to land organism
fossils.
Since life began on Earth, the five major mass extinctions have significantly exceeded the background extinction rate for animal and plant
species. The most recent, the CretaceousPaleocene extinction event, which occurred approximately 66 million years ago, was a large-scale
mass extinction of animal and plant species in a geologically short period of time. In the past 540 million years, during each of these five
major events, over 50% of animal and plant species died. Mass extinctions seem to be a Phanerozoic-era phenomenon, with extinction rates
low before large complex organisms arose.
It can be inferred from the passage that the Phanerozoic era was:
a time period that existed before 540 million years ago.
a time period during which few new species emerged.
a time period before the CretaceousPaleocene era.
a time period during which large, complex organisms existed.
a time period during which fewer than 50% of animal and plant species died.
Solution
For this type of question, go find the key word (end of the last paragraph) and make the proper inference. The sentence reads: Mass
extinctions seem to be a Phanerozoic-era phenomenon, with extinction rates low before large complex organisms arose. In the first part of
the sentence you learn that mass extinctions took place during this era. In the second part you learn that the extinction rates were low before
large complex organisms arose (i.e. before this era.) From this you can conclude definitively that this era was a time during which large,
complex organisms existed and (D) is thus correct. (A) must be false from this information, as the Phanerozoic era had to overlap with those
540 million years. For (B), you have no idea from this passage about the emergence of species. Again, (C) is contradicted by this section and
for (E) you cannot make this inference (and the passage suggests that number is near 98%). Answer is (D).
Stats

Your time: 01m 44s
a time period that existed before 540 million years ago.
7%
a time period during which few new species emerged.
13%
a time period before the CretaceousPaleocene era.
23%
a time period during which large, complex organisms existed.
44%
a time period during which fewer than 50% of animal and plant species died.
10%
back
8
Question ID: 09561
Problem 9
9
An extinction event (also known as a mass extinction or biotic crisis) is a widespread and rapid decrease in the amount of life on earth. Such
an event is identified by a sharp change in the diversity and abundance of macroscopic life. It occurs when the rate of extinction increases
with respect to the rate of speciation. Because the majority of diversity and biomass on Earth is microbial, and thus difficult to measure,
recorded extinction events affect the easily observed, biologically complex component of the biosphere rather than the total diversity and
abundance of life.
Over 98% of documented species are now extinct, but extinction occurs at a very uneven rate. Based on the fossil record, the background
rate of extinctions on Earth is about two to five taxonomic families of marine invertebrates and vertebrates every million years. Marine fossils
are mostly used to measure extinction rates because of their superior fossil record and stratigraphic range compared to land organism
fossils.
Since life began on Earth, the five major mass extinctions have significantly exceeded the background extinction rate for animal and plant
species. The most recent, the CretaceousPaleocene extinction event, which occurred approximately 66 million years ago, was a large-scale
mass extinction of animal and plant species in a geologically short period of time. In the past 540 million years, during each of these five
major events, over 50% of animal and plant species died. Mass extinctions seem to be a Phanerozoic-era phenomenon, with extinction rates
low before large complex organisms arose.
The author would most probably agree with which of the following statements?
The diversity of microbial life has changed dramatically during mass extinction events.
The CretaceousPaleocene extinction event was the most significant in the past 540 million years.
There were many mass extinction events prior to 540 million years ago.
Extinction rates have varied widely over the past 540 million years.
Mass extinctions are less likely now than in the past 540 million years.
Solution
As you learned in several previous questions, you cannot assess the impacts on microbial life from this passage so (A) is incorrect (you have
no idea what the author would think). For (B), while the author references this extinction event specifically, no information is given about its
significance in relation to the other major extinction events. (C) is contradicted by the passage as you learn at the end of the passage that
extinction rates were low before that time period. For (D), there is direct support for this statement in the first sentence of the 2nd paragraph,
in which the author states that extinction occurs at a very uneven rate. No information is given in the passage to support (E) so it is
incorrect. Answer is (D).
Stats

Your time: 01m 50s
The diversity of microbial life has changed dramatically during mass extinction events.
21%
The CretaceousPaleocene extinction event was the most significant in the past 540 million years.
9%
There were many mass extinction events prior to 540 million years ago.
6%
Extinction rates have varied widely over the past 540 million years.
52%
Mass extinctions are less likely now than in the past 540 million years.
10%
back
9
Question ID: 09564
Problem 19
19
Passage
The fact that a superior product can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not
mean that every attempt at improving a product's quality will create such an advantage.
Investments in product quality, like those in marketing and distribution, must be weighed against
other types of investments with regard to direct, tangible benefits, such as increased profitability
(including one or both of decreased costs and increased revenues) resulting from an investment.
If a company is already competitive with others in the market in providing a product that is
satisfactory to customers and avoids a negative reputation, then investment in increasing the
quality of the product may be wasted because product quality, so long as it exceeds a minimum
threshold, is rarely a primary factor for most customers in their buying decisions.
This concept was not understood by executives of one leading toy company, which failed to
improve its competitive position, despite tremendous investment in strengthening the durability
of its wooden toys. The toy company's executives did not recognize the leading role in which the
brand names of their company and that of their primary competitors play in the buying decisions
of their customers. As such, customers who are satisfied with a certain brand tend to remain loyal
to that brand, despite changes in the quality of products made by that brand or any of its
competitors. Similarly, they failed to analyze and properly understand the negative effects of an
improvement in product quality, whereby their future purchases by customers loyal to their brand
were actually cannibalized by the improved durability and extended lifespan of the newly
improved toys. The only positive outcome of the improved product quality was the ability to
easily market the toys to customers.
Question
This primary purpose of this passage is to
compare potential positive and negative outcomes of a type of business investment.
suggest greater due diligence into a type of business investment.
illustrate a variety of cases in which a type of business investment could fail to achieve greater
revenue.
analyze the general problems of a company caused by a certain type of business investment.
criticize the manner in which managers tend to consider costs and benefits of business
investments.
Solution
Correct Answer: B
The correct answer to this question is (B). This is a Universal question about the primary purpose
of the passage, requiring the test taker to successfully identify STOP in order to efficiently and
accurately locate the correct answer. The Scope and Tone of the passage should guide the test
taker in selecting the correct answer regarding the passage's primary purpose. (A) is incorrect as
it is out of Scope; the passage is primarily concerned with the concept in which an investment
does not yield enhanced competitive advantage, which is then illustrated by an example. (B) This
is the correct answer. Investments in improved product quality should be better analyzed with
regard to the benefits they will produce. (C) is incorrect as the passage only explores one case in
which an investment did not achieve increased revenue. (D) is incorrect as it is out of Scope; the
passage is not focused on the problems a company experiences as a result of an investment. (E)
is incorrect as the passage focuses on the lack of analysis of the costs and benefits associated
with an investment, not the way in which managers conduct the analysis of such costs and
benefits.
Stats

Your time: 01m 46s
compare potential positive and negative outcomes of a type of business investment.
13%
suggest greater due diligence into a type of business investment.
46%
illustrate a variety of cases in which a type of business investment could fail to achieve greater
revenue.
11%
analyze the general problems of a company caused by a certain type of business investment.
19%
criticize the manner in which managers tend to consider costs and benefits of business
investments.
8%
back
Problem 30
30
Passage
When views can freely flourish in the marketplace of ideas, individuals are afforded the advantage of deciding what notions and concepts to
question, support or reject. On June 8, 1789, James Madison introduced in the House of Representatives an amendment to the Constitution:
The people shall not be deprived or abridged of their right to speak, to write, or to publish their sentiments; and the freedom of the press, as
one of the great bulwarks of liberty, shall be inviolable. This commitment to a free press is a principle Americans hold firmly, because they
view it as a necessary ingredient for a properly functioning political process and a critical component of a free society. Yet, since the time of
Americas founding, the politicized nature of the press has not fundamentally changed.
While conservatives and liberals alike claim that todays mainstream media is biased, opinionated, and devoid of objectivity and balanced
analysis, American newspapers at the time of this nations birth were all partisan, believing that their responsibility was not to report news,
but to convey, without apology, a particular political position. Perhaps the high point of partisan newspapers was in New York during the
1920s, when the city had over a dozen daily papers, each geared toward a particular ethnic and political niche; people selected the paper that
made the most sense of the world to them. Despite the naysayers who warn that the lack of objectivity and fair-mindedness is corrosive to
society, partisan journalism can be good journalism. It produces plenty of excellent reporting and analysis and is the norm in many nations.
Two centuries ago, newspapers subsidized by Andrew Jackson's Democrats and Henry Clay's Whigs were dependable supporters of their
parties. Todays newspapers claim that they too are only giving their readership what it wants.
Legally, the Supreme Court has tried since 1919 to clarify how free the press is. Over time, older laws that allowed publications to be
punished for libel, obscenity, sedition, and publishing inflammatory material have given way to more expansive rights to publish. The First
Amendment protections offered to journalists have evolved to a broader interpretation of freedom of the press. During the 1960s and 1970s,
journalists exposed the governments mismanagement of the Vietnam War, and their investigative reporting eventually brought about the
resignation of President Nixon. By the end of the twentieth century, the Constitutions protections were broadly held to cover the content of all
papers, from the highly regarded New York Times to tabloids such as The National Enquirer.
Question
According to the author, which of the following is true about partisan journalism throughout American history?
It has had a limited impact on the political process.
Its lack of objectivity is detrimental.
It has played an important role in reliably informing individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds.
It is what all members of society want from their news sources.
It has essentially been the status quo since Americas founding.
Solution
Correct answer: (E)
Solution: This Specific question asks what is true about partisan journalism throughout American history. What is stated is that since its
beginning, the press has not significantly changed. The passage additionally says that like newspapers today, newspapers at the time of
Americas birth were all partisan, thereby making (E) the correct response. (A) is incorrect because the passage states that the commitment
to a free press is a necessary ingredient for the political process to function properly. (B) is incorrect because the first paragraph does state
that partisan journalism can be good journalism. (C) is incorrect because while partisan journalism has played an important role in informing
individuals, we have no way of knowing whether it has done so reliably. (D) is incorrect because it is too extreme. The passage does not
support the universal conclusion that absolutely everyone desires partisan journalism.
Stats

Your time: 04m 32s
It has had a limited impact on the political process.
1%
Its lack of objectivity is detrimental.
7%
It has played an important role in reliably informing individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds.
25%
It is what all members of society want from their news sources.
14%
It has essentially been the status quo since Americas founding.
51%
back
30
Question ID: 07011
Problem 32
32
Passage
When views can freely flourish in the marketplace of ideas, individuals are afforded the advantage of deciding what notions and concepts to
question, support or reject. On June 8, 1789, James Madison introduced in the House of Representatives an amendment to the Constitution:
The people shall not be deprived or abridged of their right to speak, to write, or to publish their sentiments; and the freedom of the press, as
one of the great bulwarks of liberty, shall be inviolable. This commitment to a free press is a principle Americans hold firmly, because they
view it as a necessary ingredient for a properly functioning political process and a critical component of a free society. Yet, since the time of
Americas founding, the politicized nature of the press has not fundamentally changed.
While conservatives and liberals alike claim that todays mainstream media is biased, opinionated, and devoid of objectivity and balanced
analysis, American newspapers at the time of this nations birth were all partisan, believing that their responsibility was not to report news,
but to convey, without apology, a particular political position. Perhaps the high point of partisan newspapers was in New York during the
1920s, when the city had over a dozen daily papers, each geared toward a particular ethnic and political niche; people selected the paper that
made the most sense of the world to them. Despite the naysayers who warn that the lack of objectivity and fair-mindedness is corrosive to
society, partisan journalism can be good journalism. It produces plenty of excellent reporting and analysis and is the norm in many nations.
Two centuries ago, newspapers subsidized by Andrew Jackson's Democrats and Henry Clay's Whigs were dependable supporters of their
parties. Todays newspapers claim that they too are only giving their readership what it wants.
Legally, the Supreme Court has tried since 1919 to clarify how free the press is. Over time, older laws that allowed publications to be
punished for libel, obscenity, sedition, and publishing inflammatory material have given way to more expansive rights to publish. The First
Amendment protections offered to journalists have evolved to a broader interpretation of freedom of the press. During the 1960s and 1970s,
journalists exposed the governments mismanagement of the Vietnam War, and their investigative reporting eventually brought about the
resignation of President Nixon. By the end of the twentieth century, the Constitutions protections were broadly held to cover the content of all
papers, from the highly regarded New York Times to tabloids such as The National Enquirer.
Question
The author of the passage would disagree with which of the following statements?
The legal understanding of press freedoms has shifted over time.
Over time, the First Amendment protections offered to the press have become absolute.
Americas legal evolution has given way to a more liberal understanding of press freedom.
First Amendment press rights today protect a broad section of the newspaper industry.
Freedoms offered to the press have helped shape events in history.

Solution
Correct answer: (B)
Solution: In this question, four of the answer choices will contain statements that the author will agree with. The author would agree with
answer choices (A) and (C) because of the statements in the following sentence: Over time, older laws that allowed publications to be
punished for libel, obscenity, sedition, and publishing inflammatory material have given way to more expansive rights to publish. The author
would agree with (D). By the end of the twentieth century, the Constitutions protections were broadly held to cover the content of all papers.
The author would also agree with (E). During the 1960s and 1970s, journalists exposed the governments mismanagement of the Vietnam
War and their investigative reporting eventually brought about the resignation of President Nixon. The author would not agree with answer
choice (B). The passage states that courts have continuously reinterpreted what is meant by freedom of the press. Therefore, the author
would not agree that First Amendment protections are absolute, making (B) the correct response.
Stats

Your time: 01m 16s
The legal understanding of press freedoms has shifted over time.
10%
Over time, the First Amendment protections offered to the press have become absolute.
57%
Americas legal evolution has given way to a more liberal understanding of press freedom.
14%
First Amendment press rights today protect a broad section of the newspaper industry.
9%
Freedoms offered to the press have helped shape events in history.
8%
back
32
Question ID: 07017
Problem 4
4
In the correctly-worked multiplication problem above, each symbol represents a different nonzero digit. What is the value of ?
(1) is prime
(2) is not prime
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
Both statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked; but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed
Solution
If you start by factoring out 1995 to determine how it can be created via multiplication, you'll find that:
1995 = 5 * (400 - 1) = 5 * 399 = 5 * 3 * 133 = 5 * 3 * 7 * 19.
Since we must have 1995 as the product of two two-digit integers, we can have either 57 * 35 or 21 * 95. (Notice that we can't have 19 by
itself (i.e. 105 * 19) and we can't have 19 * 7, as that's a three-digit number, so we must have one of our numbers be either 19 * 3 or 19 * 5.)
The given information that the symbols are all each unique digits, that rules out the possibility of 57 * 35, as in that case the 5 would repeat.
So before you even get to the statements you should know that the problem must be created by either 21 * 95 or 95 * 21. So your job really
comes down to "do I know which one goes on top or bottom?".
With statement 1, you know that it's 21 on top and 95 on bottom, as 5 is prime but 1 is not. That, then, is sufficient.
Statement 2 also forces us to have 21 * 95, for the same reason. Our units digit possibilities are 1 and 5, and so the only non-prime option is
1, meaning that 21 goes on top and 95 on bottom. Therefore, the answer is D.
Stats

Your time: 02m 02s
4%
17%
29%
12%
35%
back
4
Question ID: 09942
Problem 8
8
A Pierpont prime is any prime number p such that p =
(2k)(3l)+1
, where k and l are non-negative integers. If r is an integer, is r a Pierpont prime?
1. 1<r<5
2. 0<r<4
Solution
Solution: C
Start by determining the eligible numbers. Statement (1) says that r could be 2, 3, or 4. 2 and 3 are both Pierpont primes;
2=(20)(30)+1
and
3=(21)(30)+1
. The number 4, however, is not a prime number at all; INSUFFICIENT. Statement (2) says that r could be 1, 2, or 3; 2 and 3 are Pierpont
primes, as shown above, while 1 is not a prime number and therefore not a Pierpont prime; INSUFFICIENT. Together r must be either 2 or 3,
which are both Pierpont primes, so the statements together are sufficient and the answer is (C)
Stats

Your time: 02m 04s
30%
9%
25%
14%
19%
back
Problem 11
11
Matt is touring a nation in which coins are issued in two amounts, 2 and 5, which are made of iron and copper, respectively. If Matt has ten
iron coins and ten copper coins, how many different sums from 1 to 70 can he make with a combination of his coins?
66
67
68
69
70
Solution
Matt can't make 1 or 3, obviously, so those options are out. Notice too that 70 is the maximum possible sum (that would use all the
coins), so 70 - 1, or 69, and 70 - 3, or 67 are impossible too. (67 would require at least 11 5 coins or at least 11 2 coins, and 69 is
even worse.) Hence at most 66 sums are possible ... and that's our lowest answer choice, so that must be it! (Isn't it nice that you don't
always have to prove things in GMAT Problem Solving?)
Note that the answer choices make for great guides here. Because they're the five highest possible numbers from the range 1-70, your
operational goal isn't to try to determine how many sums COULD be made, but rather how many CANNOT be made (and just subtract from
70). That quick look at the answer choices can help you efficiently use time on many similar problems.
Stats

Your time: 02m 12s
66
26%
67
13%
68
31%
69
16%
70
12%
back
11
Question ID: 09930
Problem 12
12
Occupancy rate is defined as the number of units occupied divided by the number of total units. Was the occupancy rate in a certain
apartment complex greater than 45% on June 30?
1. On January 1st, the occupancy rate was 75%.
2. At the end of each month from February to June, the occupancy rate was 80% of the figure at the end of the preceding month.
Solution
Solution: B
Statement (1) gives us a starting point but no information about today or any rate of change; INSUFFICIENT. Statement (2) tells us that the
rate at the end of each month is 80% of the rate at the beginning of that month. Consider the extreme possibility: lets say that on February 1
st the complex was 100% full. That number will be multiplied by 80% five times, or (.8) 5, since there will be five periods in which it drops.
Some guesstimation should be sufficient to show that 100(.8)5 is well below 45, but you can also pick numbers. Say there were 100 people
on February first and watch what happens youll end up with about 33 people; SUFFICIENT, (B) .
Stats

Your time: 01m 24s
0%
35%
32%
0%
30%
back
12
Question ID: 03915
Problem 13
13
What is the value of
?
(1)
x+y=2
(2)
xy=z2+1
Solution
C. You should quickly see that neither statement alone is sufficient, which should signify to you that you'll have to do some work on the C vs.
E decision. And here, algebra is the way to roll up your sleeves and get to work. If you take the first equation,
x+y=2
, and set it up to substitute in the second, you'll have:

x=2y
and
xy=z2+1
Substituting, that's:
y(2y)=z2+1
Which works out to:
2yy2=z2+1
If you then set this up as a quadratic in terms of y, you have:
z2=y22y+1
And then factor the quadratic:

z2=(y1)2
Now it's time to take a look logically. Since the left hand side cannot be positive (
z2
can't be negative, so once you apply that negative sign to whatever the result is it's either 0 or something negative) and the right hand side
cannot be negative (whatever
(y1)
is, when you square it it's either positive or 0), you can determine that
y1
must be 0, and therefore that

y=1
. Given that, plug back into the first equation to find that
x=1
, proving the two statements together to be sufficient.
Stats

Your time: 01m 12s
0%
0%
29%
0%
69%
back
13
Question ID: 09867
Problem 14
14
If
m
represents the slope of a line in the coordinate geometry plane, does the line intersect quadrant III?
1. |m|=m
2. m2=3m
Solution
Correct Answer: E
If a line has a positive slope, then it must go through quadrants I and III in the coordinate geometry plane. Once that is established, this
problem is more of a positive/negative number properties question. In other words, can the sign of m be determined from the information in
the statements. Statement (1) guarantees that m is either positive OR zero. If a line has a slope of zero, then it is a horizontal line such as y =
5 which does not go through quadrant III. However, it could also be a line with a positive slope that does go through quadrant III so statement
(1) is not sufficient. Statement (2) is a quadratic equation with two solutions. Setting all terms equal to 0, it is shown that m2 - 3m = 0 or m(m
- 3) = 0 and m = 3 or 0. Again, this information is not sufficient because m could be positive or zero, yielding the same possibilities as
statement (1). Putting the statements together, there is still ambiguity of whether m is 0 or positive, so the answer is E, both statements
together are not sufficient.
Stats

Your time: 02m 14s
16%
14%
5%
24%
38%
back
14
Question ID: 01062
NOT DONE 15 ONWARDS
back
Problem 15
15
A car dealership carries only sedans and SUVs, and on Tuesday it sold 1/6 of the sedans that it had in stock at the beginning of the day. If no
new inventory arrived at any point on Tuesday, and the only change in inventory was that some vehicles were sold, did the dealership have
more than 100 vehicles in inventory at the beginning of the day Tuesday?
(1) By the end of the day, the dealership had sold 8/9 as many sedans as SUVs.
(2) The dealership sold 85% as many sedans on Tuesday as it did on Wednesday.
Solution
B. Statement 1 is not sufficient, as it allows for multiple scenarios in which less than 100 vehicles are sold:
This table satisfies all the information in the question stem. The number of sedans sold (8) is 1/6 of the total number of sedans (48), and 8
sedans were sold compared to 9 SUVs.
And in which more than 100 vehicles are sold:
The question doesn't put any restriction on the number of SUVs not sold, so you can make this number as big as you want to prove the
answer "yes".
Statement 2, however, is sufficient. While it may not look so at first, it combines with the given information to guarantee that the dealership
had a minimum of 102 sedans. Knowing that:
-The number of sedans sold was 17/20 (85%) of the number sold on another day tells us that the number of sedans sold must be a multiple
of 17.
-The number of sedans in stock is equal to 6(the number sold) tells us that the number of sedans in stock must be 17 x a multiple of 6. The
lowest such number is 102, guaranteeing that at least 102 vehicles were in stock at the beginning of the day.
Strategically, this problem is a good opportunity to "Leverage Assets" and ask "Why Are You Here?". The fact that statement 2 talks about
Wednesday when everything else in the problem talks only about Tuesday might seem like a total throwaway, but remember: the GMAT
rarely, if ever, completely throws away a DS statement. If a statement seems irrelevant upon first glance, it's a good opportunity for you to ask
why it's there:
-Could it be a clue that helps you better understand the other statement? -Could it be a trap, a piece of information that you thought you
might need but you actually don't? -Could it be, as it is in this case, a cleverly-worded piece of information that you can make useful by
Leveraging Assets - manipulating algebra, applying a number property or divisibility rule, etc.?
Stats

Your time: 04m 21s
10%
9%
9%
2%
67%
back
15
Question ID: 07494
Problem 17
17
How many five-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5, if no digits can repeat and the number must be divisible by 4?
36
48
72
96
144
Solution
The digits given are 0,1,2,3,4, and 5.
The divisibility rule of 4 says, if the last two digits are divisible by 4, the number is divisible by 4. So, the last two digits can be 04, 12, 20, 24,
32, 40, 52.
If the last two digits are 04 or 20 or 40, then the number of 5-digit numbers possible for each condition is = 4 * 3 * 2 = 24, since all four
remaining digits are possible for the first number.
Since this applies for the cases 04, 20, and 40, the total number of 5 digit numbers possible is 3 * 24 = 72 numbers.
Looking at the rest of the possibilities, we cannot use 0 as the first digit, so we will treat these numbers differently. If the last two digits are
12 or 24 or 32 or 52, then the number of 5 digits number possible for each condition is = 3 * 3 * 2 = 18.
Hence the total number of 5 digit number possible = 18*4+72 =144. Thus, the correct answer is E.
Stats

Your time: 00m 51s
36
13%
48
12%
72
14%
96
20%
144
38%
back
17
Question ID: 08394
Problem 20
20
If sets A and B have the same number of terms, is the standard deviation of set A greater than the standard deviation of set B?
1.The range of set A is greater than the range of set B.

2. Sets A and B are both evenly spaced sets.
Solution
Correct Answer: C
While the ranges of two different sets can sometimes help to indicate their relative standard deviation, more information is needed in this
case. Statement (1) tells us that the range of A is larger than the range of set B, but it does not guarantee that the standard deviation will be
bigger. If Set A were (5, 10,10,10,10,15) it would have a range of 10 and a fairly small standard deviation as most terms are the same as the
average. Set B could be the following (5,5,5,14,14,14) which would have a smaller range of 9 but a clearly larger standard deviation.
Statement 1 is not sufficient as numerous scenarios are possible. Statement (2) is clearly insufficient by itself as nothing is known about the
values in the sets. Taking the statements together, it is known that there are two evenly spaced sets with the same number of terms and A
has a bigger range than B. This guarantees that A must have a higher dispersion around the mean and thus a higher standard deviation. The
correct answer is C, both statements together are sufficient.
Stats

Your time: 01m 57s
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Question ID: 00876
Problem 23
23
On a partly cloudy day, Derek decides to walk back from work. When it is sunny, he walks at a speed of s miles/hr (s is an integer) and when
it gets cloudy, he increases his speed to (s + 1) miles/hr. If his average speed for the entire distance is 2.8 miles/hr, what fraction of the total
distance did he cover while the sun was shining on him?
14
45
15
16
17
Solution
Solution: (E)
Since the speed in the sun, s, is an integer, s + 1 must also be an integer. The average speed should lie somewhere in between these two
integers. Since the average speed is 2.8 miles/hr, this implies that s and (s + 1) must be 2 and 3 miles/hr respectively.
Now, Average Speed = [(2 Sunny Time) + (3 Cloudy Time)]/ (Sunny Time + Cloudy Time) 2.8 = [(2 Sunny Time) + (3 Cloudy Time)]/
(Sunny Time + Cloudy Time)
Sunny Time/ Cloudy Time = 1/4.
Hence ratio of time spent under the sun to time spent while it was cloudy is t : 4t
Be careful here the ratio of Time Spent in the sun to time spent in the clouds is 1:4, but the question asks for the fraction of the total
distance. Rate = Distance/Time, so:
Rate Sunny = 2 = D/(1/5) time
Rate Cloudy = 3 = D / 4/5 time
2/5 = Sunny Distance
12/5 = Cloudy Distance
The distances have a ratio of 2:12, which means that the distance he covered in the sun is 2/14 of the total distance, and the answer reduces
to 1/7.
Stats

Your time: 03m 03s
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Question ID: 06060
Problem 28
28
In a freshman high school class there are 125 total students. If 75 of the total students are enrolled in Geometry, how many students are
enrolled in Biology?
1. 50 of the total students are enrolled in Geometry but not Biology.
2. The number of those students who are enrolled in both Geometry and Biology is the same as the number of those students
enrolled in neither Geometry nor Biology.
Solution
Solution: B
Explanation: The goal in this question is to determine the total number of people enrolled in Biology. By organizing the information from the
question stem and from statement 1 you know the following:
Since there is no way to determine the breakdown between Biology only and neither, there is no way to determine how many total students
are studying biology. Statement (1) is not sufficient. For the second statement, it is VERY easy to overlook that it is sufficient by itself. Most
students will pick C as the information in statement (2) when added to statement (1) makes it clearly sufficient. As you learned in the Data
Sufficiency lesson, however, before you pick C, you should examine each one alone very carefully. For the second statement simply consider
the formula: Total = Set 1 + Set 2 Both + Neither and plug in the information from the question stem and from the statement: 125 = 75 +
Biology x + x. Since both and neither are the same, they will cancel out and the number of students taking Biology must be 50. Answer is
(B).
Stats

Your time: 03m 01s
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Question ID: 07437

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in assumptions questions right link and check connections bewtween word used in concluison and the premise ...

n u will get the answers

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