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T - Territory ,
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O - Other Scheduled Areas (Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram and Assam) - Remember it considering
you MeT MiA (famous Vj),
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M - Municipalities
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, have solemnly resolved to constitute India into a
SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrityof the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HERE BY ADOPT,
ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
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26 1949
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U Can Fly Directly From US to UP to Meet Sita Ram
Free Transport Service To Every Senior & Older
Even Mahila Attains Transport Services
6. The ideal of justice - social, economic and political- mentioned in the preamble
has been taken from
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) American Civil War
(d) None of the above
7.The three words - liberty, equality and fraternity- mentioned in our Preamble have
been taken from
(a) Russian revolution
(b) American Civil War
(c) French Revolution
(d) None of the above
9. At which case,the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is nota part of
the Constitution
(a) Berubari Union case (1960)
(b) Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
10. At which case,the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that
Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution
(a) Berubari Union case (1960)
(b) Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
12. 42nd amendment of Indian Constitution (1976) added which of the terms to
Preamble
(a) Socialist
(b) Secular
(c) Sovereign
(d) Both 1 & 2
15. The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from
(a) Indian Culture
(b) Government of India
(c) The People of India
(d) Princely States
Answer: 1946
2. When was the first session of theConstituent Assembly held ?
Answer: 9 December, 1946
3. Under which Plan was the Constituent Assembly constituted ?
Answer: Cabinet Mission Plan
4. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly ?
Answer: Dr. Rajandra Prasad
5. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee ?
Answer: B R. Ambedkar
6. When was the drafting of the Indian Constitution completed and adopted ?
Answer: 26 November, 1949
7. When was the Constitution of India put into effect ?
Answer: 26 January ,1950
8. Since when India became a Republic ?
Answer:26 January, 1950
9. Who was the first President of the India ?
Answer: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
10. Who was the first Vice- President of the Indian Union ?
Answer: Radhakrishnan
11. Who was the first Prime Minister of the Indian Union ?
Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru
12. Who was the last Governor- General (Viceroy) of British India ?
Answer: Lord Mountbatten
13. Who was the first Governor- General of Independent India ?
Answer: Lord Mountbatten
14. When adopted the National Flag of India ?
Answer: July 21st 1947 by The Constituent Assembly
15. Who set forth the main objectives of the Constituent Assembly in the form of the
Objective Resolution ?
Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru
16. How many articles are there in the Indian Constitution ?
Answer: 448 Articles
17. How many Fundamental Rights have been guaranteed by the Indian Constitution
?
Answer: 6(six)
18. How many Fundamental Duties have been assigned to the citizens of India ?
Answer: 10(ten)
19. Who appoints the Prime minister of India ?
Answer: The President of India
20. How is the President of India elected ?
Answer: Every elected member of the legislative assembly of a State shall have as many votes as
there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the
state by the total number of elected members of the Assembly;
21. What is the name of the Upper House of the Indian Parliament?
Answer: Rajya Sabha
22. What is the name of the Lower House of the Indian Parliament?
Answer: Lok Sabha
23. Who presides over the session of the Lok Sabha?
Answer: The Speaker
24. Who presides over the session of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer: The Vice-President of India
25. which article give special status to Jammu & Kashmir ?
Answer: Article 370
26. Who appoints the Governors of States?
Answer: The President of India
27. What is the total number of members in the Lok Sabha?
Answer: 552
28. What is the number of elected members in the Lok Sabha?
Answer: 530
29. How many members constitute the Rajya Sabha?
Answer: 250
30. How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected?
Answer: Membership is limited to 250 members, 12 of whom are nominated by the President of
India for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.
31. who designed rupee symbol?
Answer: symbols adoption in July 2010 by D Udaya Kumar
32. who designed Indian flag ?
Answer: The Indian national flag was designed in 1916 by Pingali Venkayya from Vijayawada
33. What is the tenure of Lok Sabha?
Answer: 5 years
34. Which is the highest Judicial Court of India?
Answer: The Supreme Court
35. How many Judges constitute the Supreme Court?
Answer: 30 Judges
36. How many times till 2013 the Parliamentary Elections have been held?
Answer: 15 times
37. A citizen of how many years of age can cast vote?
Answer: 18 years
38. How many Indian Territories are there in the Indian Union?
Answer: 7 (seven)
39. How many times (January 2013) Indian Constitution has been amended?
Answer: 98 times
40. How many high court in India
Answer: India's unitary judicial system is made up of the Supreme Court of India at the national
level, for the entire country and the 24 High Courts at the State & Union territory level.
100 MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION BASED ON THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION FR THE
COMPETITIVE EXAMS***
1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental
Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency.
(A) 44th Amendment Act SSC General Knowledge : The Constitution of India
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act
2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of
India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened.
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India
6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation
without approval by the ParliamenT.
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month
7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the
President
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months
10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and
Governors
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and
performance of the powers and duties of their office
12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official
act
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361
13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official
act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369
14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the
proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly &
Legislative Council
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C
15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued
for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is
published
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature.
Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, an must not have
been expunged
(B) It must be a report as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report
would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above .
16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to
exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements tha were in
operation before commencement of the Constitution
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above .
18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by
the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964 .
20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to
the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367
21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the
Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State
cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court
22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State
Governments
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India
25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten
26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of
Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days
27. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his
office is under consideration
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya
Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94
29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is
received from the Election Commission
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above
33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of Parliament
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House
37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above
38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above
39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public
importance having serious consequences.
41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister
42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House
43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes
act
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above
44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure
48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above
51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other
Commissioner in the Election Commission
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above
53. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above
54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the
Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above
55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the
Election
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22
56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become
eligible as a voter
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295
58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to
Parliament
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84
59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State
Legislature
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178
60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above
61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission
62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned
in any Court
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the
State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided
made by law by appropriate Legislature
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition
64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334
65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community' with
House of the People
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333
66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in
Lok Sabha by the President
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the
Legislative Assembly
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333
69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be
nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3
70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid
down
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above
71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980
72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for
SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984
73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok
Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980
74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST
in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above
75. Which Constitutional Article mentions Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and
post
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339
77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha
79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the
parliament
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above
80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill
86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down
by their country's constitution
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the
Constitution
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above
88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government .
90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of
Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342
92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament
93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also
need ratification by the State Legislature
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of
Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above
94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended
for the first time
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act
95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be
abridged
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above
96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of theConstitution?
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council
97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution?
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court
98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under
Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the
Constitution?
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha
99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable-
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India
100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution
(Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above
Answers :
1.(A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(A) 6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(D)
11.(A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(D) 16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(A) 19.(B) 20.(C)
21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(D) 24.(A) 25.(C) 26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(C) 30.(A)
31.(C) 32.(C) 33.(A) 34.(A) 35.(D) 36.(D) 37.(A) 38.(B) 39.(D) 40.(C)
41.(A) 42.(D) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(B) 46.(C) 47.(A) 48.(C) 49.(B) 50.(C)
51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(A) 54.(B) 55.(C) 56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(D) 59.(A) 60.(C)
61.(A) 62.(C) 63.(D) 64.(A) 65.(B) 66.(C) 67.(A) 68.(D) 69.(B) 70.(D)
71.(B) 72.(C) 73.(D) 74.(A) 75.(B) 76.(D) 77.(C) 78.(B) 79.(A) 80.(B)
81.(D) 82.(D) 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(C) 86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B)
91.(A) 92.(D) 93.(D) 94.(C) 95.(A) 96.(B) 97.(A) 98.(D) 99.(D) 100.(D)
Q.1 When was Indian Independence Act passed, by whom and on the basis
of what plan?
Ans. Thee Indian Independence Act was passed by the British Parliament on 5th
July in 1947. This act was passed to give effect to the Mountbatten plan creating the
two independent states of India and Pakistan.
Q.2- What were the options before the Indian native states in the Indian
Independence Act?
Ans. The Indian Independence Act gave three options to the Indian native states
(1) to join India(2) to join Pakistan(3) to remain Independent.
Ans. The Indian constitution was drafted by the Drafting Committee of the
Constituent Assembly.
Q.4 -Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly? Who was
the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Ans. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Chairman of Constituent Assembly. Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar was the Chairman of Drafting Committee.
Equality: of status and opportunity, and Fraternity, assuring the dignity of the
individual and unity of the nation.
Ans. The original constitution had 395 Arts and 7 schedules. Now after the 80th
amendment of the constitution there are 405 Arts and 10 schedules in the
constitution.
Ans. The preamble describes India to be a secular state. It means that there is no
established religion in India and that state does not give any preference to any
religion in India.
The 42nd amendment of the Indian constitution makes India a socialist state. It
means that the state shall abolish private ownership of the means of production and
distribution. This however has not yet been achieved. On the other hand the state
now encourages private ownership.
Ans. India is a sovereign state. It means the state in India is the supreme authority
over all men and all associations within the country and is absolutely free from any
outside control.
India is democratic. It means that in India all governments are formed on the basis of
popular support.
India is republic. It means all offices of the state from the highest to the lowest are
held on the basis of merit and no office of the state is held on the basis of hereditary
right.
Q.1 2- How many states and union territories are there in the Indian Union?
Ans. There are 25 states and 7 union territories in the Indian Union.
Ans. This Art gives the state of Jammu & Kashmir a separate constitutional status.
Laws passed by the Indian Parliament apply to Jammu & Kashmir if they are
accepted by the J. K. legislature.
Ans. The preamble is like an introduction to the constitution. The courts use the
preamble to clarify: the meaning of the Law whenever there is an ambiguity.
Q.17 Does the Indian Constitution recognize the principle of dual citizenship?
Ans. Though India is a federation, the principle of dual citizenship has not been
accepted in the constitution. All Indians are accepted as the citizens of India. There is
no citizenship of the states.
Q.19 Into how many categories are the Indian citizens divided?
Ans. Indian citizens are divided into two categoriescitizens by birth and citizens
by adoption.
Q.20 What are the provisions of the Indian Constitution regarding integration
or creation of new states?
Ans. The Indian Parliament by Acts passed that it can integrate new states into
India or can create new states out of the territory of an existing state or states.
Ans. Originally the constitution conferred on the Indian citizens seven fundamental
rights. They are (a) right to equality (b) right to freedom (c) right against exploitation
(d) right to religious freedom. (e) right to education and culture (f) right to property and
(g) right to constitutional remedies:. At present there are six fundamental rights. Right
to private property has been removed from the list of fundamental rights by the 44th
amendment of the constitution.
Ans. Equality in the eye of law as provided by Art. 14 of the constitution mean that
nobody is above the law. Law applies to all persons equally.
Q.23 What are the freedoms granted to citizens by Art 19 of the Constitution?
Ans. Art 19 of the constitution grants six freedoms to the citizens They are right to
freedom of
(I) expression, (2) to assemble peaceably and without arms (3) to form association,
(4) to move freely in India, (5) to five anywhere in India and (6) to adopt any
profession or business.
Q.24 What Art of the Constitution forbids use of titles or honor conferred by
foreign states?
Ans. No. The directive principle of the constitution declares right to work and
employment as desirable. But the directives are non- justiciable in character.
Q.26 Are the conferment of honour like Bharat Ratna or Padma Bibhusun
violative of right to equality under Art. 114?
Ans. No, because Bharat Ratna, Padma Bibhusun etc. are not considered as titles.
They cannot be used before or after the names of the persons on whom they are
conferred.
Ans. Under Arts 22 (3) of the constitution enemy aliens and persons arrested under
preventive detention Acts can be imprisoned without trial.
Ans. Indian secularism means that the state does not have any established religion,
that people are free to practice and profess any religion and that the state does not
show any preference to any religion.
Ans. Private property was a fundamental right before the passing of 44th
amendment of the constitution. Now the possession of private property is an ordinary
legal right and not a fundamental right.
Ans. Art 32 of the constitution confer the right to constitutional remedies on the
citizens.
Q.33 How many kinds of writs the Supreme Court or the High Court may
issue in case of transgression of Fundamental Rights?
Ans. The Supreme Court or the High Courts may issue five kinds of writs.
These are writs of (1) Habeas Corpus (2) Mandamus (3) Prohibition (4) Certiorari and
(5) Quowarranto.
Q.34 What is Habeas Corpus? What Art of the Constitution provides for it?
Ans. Habeas Corpus: literally means that human person is sacred. Hence no man
can be detained illegally. Whenever a man is detained he must be produced before a
court. This writ is a powerful safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention Art. 32
of the constitution provides for Habeas Corpus.
Q.35 -Do the members of the armed forces enjoy the Fundamental Rights
given by the Constitution?
Ans. The parliament may restrict the fundamental rights by passing laws. Beyond
such restrictions the members of the Armed Forces enjoy their fundamental rights.
Ans. Obeying the constitution, showing respect to the national flag and the national
anthem, defending Indias sovereignty, integrity, and unity protecting national
properties and upholding Indias glorious mixed culture and also showing respect to
woman are the principal duties of the Indian citizens.
Q.37 -When were the duties of the citizens added to the Constitution?
Ans. Ten duties of the Indian citizens have been added to the constitution by the
42nd amendment to the constitution.
Q.38 In what chapter of the Constitution and in what Arts are the Directive
principles of the Constitution given?
Ans. In chapter IV Arts 35-51 the directive principle of the constitution are given.
Q.39 -What is the principal difference between the directive principles and the
fundamental rights?
Ans. The fundamental rights are justiciable while the directive principals are non-
justiciable i.e. the fundamental rights are enforced by the courts while the directives
are not enforced by the courts.
Ans. (1) The states should provide help in cases of old age, unemployment and
disability. (2) State should strive to reduce inequality between individuals, groups and
professions (3) State should promote and foster rural cottage industries. (4) The state
should provide compulsory free primary education to children below 14 years if age.
Ans. (A) The state should prevent concentration of the ownership of the means of
production in the hands of the few (Art. 39c).
(B) The state should provide help and assistance in case of unemployment and
disability.
Ans. -Art 45 of the constitution directs the state to promote and foster Panchayeti Raj
in India.
Q.43 -What are the value and importance of the directive principles?
Ans. The directive principles though non-justiciable are not worthless. Sir B.N. Rao
contends that the directives are moral precepts. K.M. Panikkar holds that the
directives promise India to achieve economic socialism or economic democracy.
Q.44 -What directive aims to secure separation of the executive from the
judiciary?
Ans. Art 50 of the constitution direct the state to separate the executive from the
judiciary. This is important to secure the independence of the judiciary from executive
control and influence.
Ans. The Arts related to fundamental rights may be amended when a bill to that
effect is passed by 2/3 votes of the members present and voting in each House of the
Parliament but the members present and voting must constitute a majority of total
membership of each House.
Q.46 In what Art of the Indian Constitution India has been described as a
Union of States.
Ans. Art one of the Indian constitutions says that India that is Bharat shall be a
Union of States.
Q.47 What is the other name of India given in the Constitution and in what
Art.?
Q.48 Does any Art of the Indian Constitution use the term federation? If not
what is the term used in the constitution by which India can be called a
federation?
Ans. No Art of the constitution calls India a federation. Instead Art.1 of the
constitution calls India a Union of States. From this, constitutional experts infer that
India is a federation.
Q.50 Through how many lists powers have been distributed between the
Union and the States in India? Name them.
Ans. The Indian constitution distributes powers between the union and the states
through three lists, the Union list, the State list and the Concurrent list.
Q.51 What is the procedure through which powers have been distributed
between the Union and the States in India?
Ans. The Indian Constitution has not followed either the U. S. or the Canadian
system of distribution of powers between the federal government and the
governments of the federating units. In the U. S. A. there is only one list of powers of
the national government. The residues belong to the states. In Canada there is only
one list of powers of the governments of the provinces and the residues belong to the
central government. In India there are three liststhe Union list, the State list and the
Concurrent list. The residues belong to the centre.
Ans. On three occasions the Union government may legislate on state subjects.(i)
to give effect to an international treaty, (ii) when the Rajyasabha by 2/3 majority
authorized the Parliament under Art 249 to legislate on any state subject, (iii) when
one or more states request the union government to legislate on any state subject.
Q. 53 Under what Art the President may constitute Inter State Councils and
for what purpose?
Ans. Under Arts 263 of the Indian constitution the President may constitute Inter
State Councils to regulate the relations between the centre and the states or between
the states.
Ans. Defence, Foreign relations, Citizenship and Banking are four important
subjects in the Union list.
Ans. (i) Land Revenue, (ii) Law and order, (iii) Local government, (iv) Education up
to the secondary level.
Ans. The concurrent list mentions the subjects on which the union and the state
governments, both can legislate but in case of conflict between a union and state law
the union law prevails. Administrative and criminal law, vagrancy, forests, protection
of wild animals and birds are four important subjects in the concurrent list.
Ans. The union government may issue directive to the state government for the
protection of the Railways and Ports and also on subjects considered important in the
national interest.
Ans. In a federal constitution powers not mentioned in any list of powers given to
the centre or the states is known as the residual power. In India the residuary belongs
to the union government.
Q. 59 Mention two taxes the proceeds of which are divided between the
union and the state governments.
Ans. Non-agricultural income tax and excise duties except on cosmetics and
medicines.
Ans. The state government may realize (i) sales tax, (ii) land revenue, (iii)
amusement tax and taxes on (iv) transportations.
1. The largest constitution in the world ?
a.Australia
b.Japan
c.Indian
d.Canada
Answer
c.Indian
Answer
Answer
d.395
Answer
a.True
Answer
a.14
Answer
c.Article 19
Answer
a.Article 21A
Answer
d.Article 12 35
Answer
b.Abolition of Untouchability
Answer
c.Article 29
Answer
d.Article 51A
12. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with the directive principles?
a.Part IV
b.Part VII
c.Part IX
d.Part III
Answer
a.Part IV
Answer
d.12
14. In which article of the Indian Constitution the admission or establishment of new states is
mentioned?
a.Article 1
b.Article 2
c.Article 3
d.Article 4
Answer
b.Article 2
15. Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan is
mentioned in which article ?
a.Article 4
b.Article 8
c.Article 6
d.Article 10
Answer
c.Article 6
16. Who made the statement The preamble of the constitution is the horoscope of
Indian Republic ?
a.K. M. Munshi
b.Jawaharlal Nehru
c.B.R.Ambedkar
d.Mahatma Gandhi
Answer
a.K. M. Munshi
17. Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law is mentioned in which article of the
Indian Constitution ?
a.Article 41
b.Article 37
c.Article 13
d.Article 11
Answer
d.Article 11
Answer
Answer
b.Article 45
20. Procedure for the impeachment of the President is mentioned in which article of the Indian
Constitution?
a.Article 59
b.Article 71
c.Article 140
d.Article 61
Answer
d.Article 61
Answer
22. Annual financial statement is mentioned in which article of the Indian Constitution?
a.Article 112
b.Article 125
c.Article 140
d.Article 131
Answer
a.Article 112
Answer
c.Article 124
24. Duties and powers of the comptroller and auditor general is mentioned in which article?
a.Article 137
b.Article 149
c.Article 98
d.Article 150
Answer
b.Article 149
25. Who is known as the chief architect of Indian Constitution ?
a.Jawaharlal Nehru
b.Mahatma Gandhi
c.RajendraPrasad
d.Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
Answer
d.Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
1. Who is regarded as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution?
Ans:- B.R.Ambedkar
Q. How long earlier the World War II had ended before the Indian Constitution came into effect in
1950?
6. Who was elected the president of Constituent Assembly after Sacchidananda Sinha?
7. What are the two major languages, the original constitution written in?
8. Which most important feature made Indian Constitution unique to any constitution of the world?
Answer : Indian constitution is the only longest written constitution in the world ever
Answer : The Indian Constitution declared Hindi as the official language in 1950
10. When English became the official language of India across Hindi?
Answer : According to Official Language Act 1963, English became official language of India in
1965 along with Hindi
11. What was the basic structure of the Indian constitution during the time of commencement?
Ans:- During the time of commencement there were 395 articles, 22 parts and 8
schedules. Present structure is 448 articles, 12 schedules, 5 appendices and 100
ammendments till 2015
Answer : Vice-President
Answer : 1983
Answer : Sarkaria Commission can supervise the required changes of the constitution and the
balance of power between state and central governments. Ranjit Singh Sarkaria is the head of
this commission
16. Directive principles of state policy in Indian Constitution has been adopted from which
country?
Ans:- Ireland
Answer : Directive Principles are the guideline to making laws by the government. In part IV of the
Indian Constitution, these provisions can be enforced by the courts.
18. Which famous bengali artists have a great contribution in designing of Indian constitution?
Q. Who said this famous constitutional quote that Law and order are the medicine of the body
politic and when the body politic gets sick, medicine must be administered.
20. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity are borrowed features of which nationality?
21. Distribution of power between Union and state govt policy borrowed from which nation?
Ans:- Canada
Ans:- Britain
23. By which legislation India and Pakistan were divided as two independent nations?
24. Currently there are how many fundamental rights are recognized by the Indian constitution?
Answer : There are six fundamental rights- 1) Right to equality 2) Right to freedom 3) Right
against exploitation 4) Right to freedom of religion 5) Cultural and educational rights 6) Right to
constitutional remedies
Answer : Frances Declaration of the Rights of Man and United States Bill of Rights
27. Who is empowered by the Indian Constitution to appoint the Attorney General of India?
28. Who is the only person holding the right of appointment of Chief Justice of India?
29. By which procedure the President of India may be removed before the expiry of the term?
Answer : Impeachment
Q. Who said this famous quote that Constitution is not a mere lawyers document, it is a vehicle of
Life, and its spirit is always the spirit of Age.?
35. Who was the British Prime Minister during Indias Independence?
Answer : The Mountbatten Plan was an agreement between Lord Mountbatten and Indian
National Congress, Muslim League and Sikh community
41. Who appoints the Chairman and other members of the UPSC(Union Public Service
Commission)?
Answer : President
Ans:- 3 years
47. Who was the legal advisor to the constitutions Drafting Committee?
Answer : B. N. Rau
48. Under which commission the first constituent assembly election was held?
Answer : 389
Answer : Unicameral
53. Who was the first temporary two day president of the Constituent Assembly?
54. On 29th August 1947 how many members were appointed by drafting committee and who
was the chairman?
55. How many times and when the preamble has been amended so far?
Answer : So far the preamble has been amended only once. On 18 December 1976 during the
time of Emergency in India in Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi
Answer : On August 1940 a proposal offered by Viceroy Lord Linlithgow about the expansion of
Executive Council, is called August Offer.
58. Which was the major political party having maximum seats in Constituent Assembly?
Answer : Congress
59. What was the old name before India became Republic in 1950?
60. Who was the President of Provincial Constitution Committee of Constituent Assembly?
Answer : Part 9
Q. By which constitutional amendment the goods and services tax(GST) adopted in India from 1
July 2017?
63. Which article is related to provisions for setting up Rent Controls Tribunals?
Answer : Article 16
Q. By which article, practice of untouchability has been declared a punishable offence by law?
Answer : Article 17
Q. Which article prohibits state from conferring any titles other than military or academic
distinctions?
Answer : Article 18
Answer : Article 19 ensures six freedoms which include- Freedom of speech and expression,
Freedom of association, Freedom of assembly without arms, Freedom of movement, Freedom to
practise any profession and Freedom to reside in any part of the Indian union.
Q. Human trafficking and forced labour are the punishable offence by law under which article?
Answer : Article 23
Q. Which article prohibits employment of child labour under the age of 14?
Answer : Article 24
65. Which part of constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Answer : Part IV
Answer : Article 45 ensures Provision for free and compulsory education for children
67. In the Indian Constitution article 48-A deals with which issue?
Answer : Article 48-A ensures Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of
forests and wildlife
69. Which article states that constitution is the supreme law of the nation?
Answer : Article 13
70. Which articles of Indian constitution provides the fundamental right against exploitation?
Answer : Governor
73. By which article President can ask the Attorney General of India to attend Parliamentary
sessions and to report him?
Answer : Article 88
75. By which article of Indian Constitution President carry the power of pardoning?
Answer : Article 72
78. Which Part of Constitution indicates the relation between States and Union territories of India?
Answer : Part I
79. The Election Commission of India operates under which article of Indian Constitution?
80. By which ammendment Socialist and Secular two words have been included in Indian
Constitution?
82. What is the significance behind 61st amendment of article 326 in 1989?
83. By which constitutional amendment Sikkim became a state of Indian Union in 1975?
85. By which constitutional amendment and when Nagaland was formed as a state of Indian
Union?
86. By which constitutional amendment and when Right to Property was excluded from
fundamental rights list?
87. By which constitutional amendment article 31-C inserted into the Directive Principles of State
Policy?
88. By which amendment the Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Indian
Constitution?
89. Sindhi was included as an official language by amending which schedule in 1967?
90. By which constitutional amendment Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali included as Official
Languages?
Answer : Amending of schedule 8 by 71st amendment in 1992
91. Which article amendment is related to reservation for Scheduled Tribes in Tripura State
Legislative Assembly?
92. Which part of constitution indicates the relation between the Union and States?
Ans:- Part XI
93. Which article indicates to protect, preserve and defend law and constitution by President?
Ans:- Article 60
94. Which article ensures the Prime Ministers leadership in Union Cabinet of India?
Ans:- Article 74
95. Which article of Indian Constitution detaches Jammu & Kashmir state from India?
Answer : 1962
98. How the constitution empowers by the 68th amendment of article 356 in 1991?
Answer : Article 356 amended to permit Presidents rule up to five years in the state of Punjab.
100. When the article 365 was used for the first time in India?
102. How long the Presidents rule can be continued as per constitution?
103. When the Presidents rule was imposed for the first time in Karnataka?
Answer : 1951
Answer : Parliament
Q. What is the only constitutional body has the supreme power of making laws?
Answer : Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body where laws are made as per Indian
Constitution
112. Within how many days Money Bill can be recommended by council of states?
Answer : 14 Days
116. Parliamentary form of govt policy has been taken from which country?
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
118. How many members are appointed by the President to the Rajya Sabha?
119. Who elects the two nominees from Anglo-Indian Community in Lok Sabha?
120. A bill passed in Parliament cant become a law without permission of-
Answer : President
121. In Parliamentary System how many seats there in Lok Sabha?
122. In Parliamentary System how many seats are there in Rajya Sabha?
Answer : P. J. Kurien
127. Who is the current Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha as of 2017?
Answer : M. Thambidurai
129. Who is the current leader of the upper house Rajya Sabha?
Answer : Rajya Sabha MPs(Member of Parliament) are elected by the members of All the State
Legislative Assembly
Answer : The Lok Sabha MPs are directly elected by Indian public voting through Lok Sabha
Election
Answer : President
Answer : 25 Years
Judiciary Gk Quiz
135. Who is the chief adviser to the President of India?
Answer : Article 13
Answer : The Supreme Court of India came into force on 28 January 1950
Answer : In the year 1861 Indian High Courts Act was enacted to create High Courts
142. When the Federal Court of India replaced by Supreme Court of India?
Answer : Federal Court of India worked under Government of India Act 1935
1. The council of Ministers of the National Capital Territory of Delhi shall consist of not
more than
Ans : 10 Ministers
4. If a stay order has been granted by the High Court in a case, the application of the
affected party by such an order shall be disposed of by the High Court within a period of
Ans : Two week
5. The power to make rules for the transaction of the business of the Government of
Indian and for the allocation of business among Ministers lies with the
Ans : President
7. According to Article 243 of the Constitution, the Panchayats at the intermediate level
may not be constituted in a State which has a population
Ans : Not exceeding 20 lakhs
8.The power to determine the number of judges in a High Court lies with the
Ans : President of India
10. How many members are nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Council of a
State?
Ans : 1/12 of the total membership
11. What is the maximum limit of total membership of the Legislative Council of a State?
Ans : 1/3 of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly
12. Which of the following categories of members are represented in the Legislative
Council of a State?
Ans : Representatives of Municipalities, Representatives of teachers, Representatives of
graduates
13. The members of the Legislative Council appointed by the Governor shall have special
knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as
Ans : Literature, Science, Art, Co-operative movement and Social Service
14. In which State in India, is a certain amount of grants paid out of the Consolidated
Fund of the State for the maintenance of some Hindu temples and shrines, as per the
provisions of the Constitution?
Ans : Tamilnadu
15. The President of India can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only on the
written recommendation of
Ans : The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union
16. Under the provisions of Article 343 of the Constitution, Hindi was declared the official
language of the Union. But the use of English language was allowed to continue for the
official purpose of the Union for a period of
Ans : 15 years
17. Which category of minority have been recognized by the Constitution of India?
Ans : Religious minorities and Linguistic minorities
18 How many times has the proclamation of National Emergency been enforced in India?
Ans : Three times
19. At present, how many members of the Lok Sabha can be elected from Union
Territories?
Ans : 20
20 The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is removed from his office by
Ans : The President on the basis of a resolution passed by both the Houses of Parliament
by special majority
21. Which schedule of the Constitution make special provisions for the administration and
control of scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?
Ans : Fifth Schedule
22. Which schedule of the Constitution makes provisions for the administration of Tribal
Areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram?
Ans : Sixth Schedule
24. A Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State can be delayed by the Legislative
Council for a maximum period of?
Ans : Three month
25. According to the provisions of Article 243, which category of person do not have
mandatory reservations of seats in Panchayats?
Ans : Backward Classes
Basic aim of DPSPs is to set up social & economic goals before the law
makers
To bring socio-economic change in the country
To fulfill the basic needs of the common man
To reshape the structure of Indian society in direction of greater socio-
economic equality.
Articles 36 to 51 deal with the provisions of the Directive Principles & are
broadly classified into
Socialist principles
Gandhian principles
Liberal intellectual principles
Socialist Principles
To secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.
To strive to minimise inequalities of income i.e. operation of the
economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and
means of production to the common detriment;
ownership and control of the material resources of the community are
so distributed as best to subserve the common good;
Equal justice and free legal aid.
Ownership and control of material resources of the community shall be
so distributed so as to subserve the common good.
Equal pay for equal work.
Health & strength of workers, and the tender age of children must not
be abused.
Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases.
Provision of just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief.
Participation of workers in the management of the industries.
Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of
living and to improve public health.
Children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy
manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood
and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and
material abandonment.
The Western Liberal Principles
Uniform Civil Code for the citizens.
Provide free and compulsory education for children below 14 years.
Separation of Judiciary from Executive.
To promote international peace and amity.
Protection of monuments and places and objects of national
importance
Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of
forests and wild life.
FRs have been laid down in clear DPSPs are laid in general terms
legal language in constitution and are sort of moral obligations
What if laws made by state giving effect to DPSPs violates FR, can
they be valid? This question was raised before SC in 1951 in
Champakam Dorairajan case !
SC held that they are supplementary to each other & no as such inherent conflict is between
them, thus, as far as possible, should be interpreted harmoniously. However, if it is not
possible, FRs will prevail over DPSPs means DPSPs can not override FRs, hence such a law is
void.
On this ground, SC held Bank nationalisation act & Privy purse (abolition) act unconstitutional
In 1971, 25th amendment introduced a new article 31-c, which states that if state enacts any
law giving effect to two directive principles viz. Equitable distribution of wealth (article 39-b)
& Prevention of concentration of wealth in fewer hands (article 39-c), & in that process if the
law violates FRs (article 14, 19 & 31), it can not be held void merely on this ground.
Article 31-c further states that such a law giving effect to 39 b & 39 c, can not be
questioned in court of law.
25th amendment was challenged in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), in which SC held that
only first part of the article 31-c (overriding article 14, 19 & 31) is valid, but second part
which bars judicial review held unconstitutional.
42nd amendment, 1976 further amended article 31-c & widened its scope & gave precedence
for all DPSPs over article 14, 19 & 31 & hence made them immune to judicial review.
Minerva Mills case, 1980: SC struck down the changes introduced by 42ndamendment in
article 31-c & held them unconstitutional on grounds that total exclusion of judicial review
would offend the basic structure of the constitution.
Historical background various Acts passed from Regulation Act, 1773 to Indian
Independence Act, 1947.
Give more importance to Acts post 1857, when British Crown assumed sovereignty
over India from the East India Company.
Be aware of at least two-three major provisions of an Act, and how did it help in creating
a basic framework for the governance or administration during the British rule.
Example:
Indian-Councils Act, 1909 For the first time direct election was introduced; It provided
for a separate electorate for the Muslims
Making of the Constitution Context in which the Constituent Assembly was framed.
Role of Cripps Mission in the making of the Constitution
Composition and role of the Constituent Assembly and its criticism
Salient Features of the Constitution
Schedules and Sources from where it has been borrowed
Philosophy of the Constitution The Preamble -its importance and utility; Understand
the objective of the Preamble along with the key words like Sovereignty, Socialist,
Secular, Justice etc.
B. Fifth Schedule
C. Eighth Schedule
D. Tenth Schedule
Solution (d)
Article 1, Article 2, Article 3 and Article 4 how article 2 is different from Article 3?
Understand the expression Union of India, how its different from the Territory of the
India
Parliaments power to reorganize State.
Different Commissions set-up for Reorganization of States DHAR commission and
JVP commission, Fazal Ali commission
Note: You dont have to remember formation of each State. Just remember the
1st State which was formed based on the Fazal Ali Commission and the recently
formed State- Telangana
Citizenship
Focus:
Note: Make note on the recent changes made regarding Citizenship, voting rights. Pre-
Independence provisions can be skipped
Fundamental Rights (FR) [ Part III ]and Fundamental Duties[ Part IV-A ]
Focus
Fundamental Rights-
Its significance implications and applications are important, than just remembering all
the articles. Have a broader understanding of classification of Fundamental Rights and
to which section of people are they targeted.
Example: Article 29, 30, 31 protects the Cultural and Educational Rights of Minorities.
FR available to citizens of India only and both to citizens and foreigners
Difference between Fundamental rights and Rights secured by other provisions of the
Constitution like Writs
Different types of Writs (Article 32) and its scope
Present position of Right to Property
Exceptional cases with regard to FRs Armed forces and when Martial Law is enforced
Fundamental Duties
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Ninth Schedule
Solution (b)
Procedure for amendment based on Simple and Special majority (Article 368);
provisions of the Constitution which can be amended based on Simple and Special
majority.
Amendability of Fundamenta Rights
What constitutes Basic Structure like Supremacy of the Constitution, Judicial Review,
Secular character etc.
Important Constitutional Amendments Acts 42nd, 44th , 61st 72nd, 73rd
Criticism
Note: Note down the recent amendments from 91st Amendment Act, 2003 till date.
Example (2013 Prelims Questions Paper):
Union Government
Note: Be aware of the recent issues w.r.t to Pardoning power (as was in the case of
Ajmal Kasab, Afzal Guru), Impeachment, Ordinance-making Power of the President
Central Council of Ministers (COM)
Why not option a? in that case even an alien residing in India could contest the
election
Why not option c? any citizen includes even children & others who are not
electors(whose names dont appear on the electoral roll)
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate
must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
About statement 2 Speaker will be from majority party & Deputy Speaker from
opposition is a convention not a constitutional provision
4) Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
a) Fundamental Right
b) Natural Right
c) Constitutional Right
d) Legal Right
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the
conduct of both general elections and bye-elections
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 & 3 only
d) 3 only
(Please note that for this question in the original blog, answer given was C. It was
by mistake. Though it could be inferred from the explanation given below,
correction has been made)
b) the power of the judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted
by the legislatures
c) the power of the judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before
they are assented to by the President
d) the power of the judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in
similar or different cases
6.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 1 & 3 only
c) 2 & 3 only
d) 1, 2 & 3
It needs to be focused that it is not required for the President to dissolve the State
Legislative Assembly in the event of proclamation of President Rule, he may
either suspend or dissolve it. So we can conclude that 1 is not necessarily the
consequence of the proclamation of Presidents Rule.
2. Abolition of untouchablity
a) 1, 2 & 4 only
b) 2, 3 & 4 only
c) 1 & 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Abolition of Untouchability is a part of Right to Equality.
d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose
hold over the people is in a state of decline
b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
13) Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to
the Constitution of India?
a) Liberty of Thought
b) Economic Liberty
c) Liberty of Expression
d) Liberty of Belief
An easy conclusion.
15) In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct
relationship between Rights and Duties?
d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State
While studying theory of duties, we come to know & realize how closely they are
connected with the rights.(Discussed in great detail in the classroom).
Rights cannot be divorced from duties, nor duties can be divorced from the Rights.
16) The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which
of the following?
a) The Preamble
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
a) 1 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) 1, 2 & 3
All the three devices are there for the legislative control over the executive.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Below I have given the image from the book called Our Parliament by Subhash
Kashyap to prove that second statement too is incorrect.
a) Privileges
b) Restraints
c) Competition
d) Ideology
20) Which principle among the following was added to the Directive
Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
The question I liked the most as we had repeatedly discussed this topic in the
class. What could be more beautiful!
One needs to read Political Science NCERT in detail in order to answer such
questions.
b) Democratic Decentralisation
c) Administrative Delegation
d) Direct Democracy
1. Legislative function
2. Executive function
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Some Fundamental Rights can be said to be limitations upon the action of the
state not DPSP. Thats why it is said that Fundamental Rights are negative in
nature whereas DPSP are positive in nature.