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Examination held on 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
8 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

1. Pick the Synonym for the word "SUSTAINED" 9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
(a) sporadic (b) confirmed statement in the question : That which cannot be read
(c) steady (d) supported (a) Negligible (b) Illegible
2. sentence is given in the Direct/Indirect form. Out of (c) Ineligible (d) Incorrigible
the four alternatives suggested, select the one which 10. Four parts of a sentence (P/Q/R/S) are given. Arrange
best expresses the same sentence in the Indirect/Direct them in the right order to produce a correct sentence :
form: even when/are well informed/people engaged in a
"Please open my bag and check if my Physics notebook conversation/their conversation may be dull
is there" Rakesh said to Rajesh. (a) QSPR (b) PRQS
(a) Rakesh requested Rajesh to open his bag and check (c) SRQP (d) SQRP
if his Physics notebook was there. 11. Excess of amino acids are broken down to form urea in
(b) Rakesh requested Rajesh to open his bag and see if (a) kidney (b) liver
his Physics notebook is there. (c) spleen (d) rectum
(c) Rakeshasked Rajesh to open his bag and check if
12. The science dealing with studuy of tumor
his Physics notebook is there.
(a) cosmology (b) oncology
(d) Rakeshordered Rajesh to open his bag and see if
(c) Ornithology (d) odontology
his Physics notebook was there.
13. Indian National Song is taken from ___________
3. Mark the most appropriate substitute to fill the blanks
(a) Geethanjali (b) Durgesh Nandini
in the given description : You have to leave your shoes
(c) Bharat Vidatha (d) Anand Math
______________the door when you enter the house.
(a) In (b) Over 14. Uber Cup is associated with-
(c) To (d) By (a) Tennis (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Badminton
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice :
They greet me cheerfully every morning. 15. BSNL free roaming launched w.e.f.15.6.2015 is
(a) I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning. applicable on
(b) I am being greeted cheerfully by them every (a) Outgoing calls
morning. (b) Incoming calls
(c) Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning (c) Broadband
to me. (d) Both incoming and outgoing calls
(d) Every morning I was greeted cheerfully. 16. Which space probe of NASA recently made the closest
5. The first two words are related in a particular manner. approach to Pluto?
Select the word from given choices, which is related to (a) New Horizon (b) Pioneer 9
third one in the same manner : (c) Helios (d) Cosmos
DISTANCE:MILE ::liquid 17. Indian-origin Sunita Williams was recently chosen by
(a) water (b) gram NASA for the following assignment
(c) scale (d) litre (a) To fly to the International Space Station
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the (b) To fly NASA's first commercial space vehicle
given words: AFFLUENT (c) For spacewalk at ISS
(a) affected (b) uneducated (d) For Mars human landing
(c) rural (d) poor 18. Which city has topped the Swachh Bharat rankings
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given among 476 cities in the country as per the survey
alternatives. On entering the home , he found all jewels conducted by Ministry of Urban Development?
___________. (a) Mysuru (b) Ahmedabad
(a) steal (b) steals (c) Chandigarh (d) Chennai
(c) stealing (d) stolen 19. Who was the first Indian to make a movie
8. Change the direct narration to indirect narration : (a) H. S. Bhatwadekar
"Please don't go away", she said. (b) Ardeshir Irani
(a) She told me to go away. (c) Dhundiraj Govind Phalke
(b) She requested me not to go away. (d) V. Shantaram
(c) She begged that I not go away. 20. The 'Armed Forces Flag Day' is observed every year
(d) She said to please her and not go away. on?
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(a) 7-Dec (b) 24-Jan (c) d = | c1 c2 | ( 1 + m2)


(c) 30-Oct (d) 30-Jan
(d) None of these
5 4 28. If u = x4 + yx3 + 3x2 . y2 + 3x2 . y2 + 3x2y, find u/x
21. The eigen values of are- (a) 4x3 + 6xy2 + 6xy (b) 12x2 + 6y2 + 6y
1 2 3 3
(c) x + y + 3xy (d) x3 + 6xy2 + 6xy
(a) 1, 6 (b) 1, 6
(c) 1, 6 (d) 1, 6 29. Find the differentiation of cos1 x
1 1
x 2 y2 u u (a) 2 (b)
22. if u = log x y then x y is equal to- 1 x 1 x2
x x
1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d) 1 + x2
(c) u (d) eu 1 x2
30. The Fourier series of an even periodic function will
x 2
dx consist of _______________ terms only
23. If z = e sin y, x = loget, y = t then is given by the
dt (a) cosine term (b) sine terms
expression- (c) cosine and sine term (d) DC and cosine terms
ex 31. 31.0.4 % of 400 is equal to
(a) (sin y 2t2 cosy) (a) 16 (b) 1.6
t
(c) 0.16 (d) 0.016
ex 32. sin( ) =
(b) (sin y + 2t2 cosy)
t (a) sin () cos () + cos () sin ()
(b) sin () cos () cos () sin ()
ex (c) cos () cos () sin () sin ()
(c) (cos y + 2t2 siny)
t (d) cos () cos () + sin () sin ()
ex 33. The maximum value of f(x) = (1 + cos x) sin x is
(d) (cos y 2t2 siny)
t (a) 3 (b) 3 3
24. The minimum distance from the point (4, 2) to the (c) 4 (d) 3 3 /4
Parabola y2 = 8 x will be

(a) 2 (b) 2 2 34. The inverse Fourier transform of F(jw) = exp (jwt)

(c) 2 (d) 3 2 f(t) dt is



25. Identify the true statement (a) f (t) exp ( jwt)f ( jw)dw

(a) Force is vector quantity and Time Period is scalar
quantity 1
(b) f (t) exp ( wt)f ( jw)dw
(b) Force is scalar and Time Period is scalar quantity 2
(c) Force is vector quantity and Time Period is vector
quantity 1
(c) f (t) exp ( jwt)f ( jw)dw
(d) Force is scalar quantity and Time Period is vector 2
quantity
1
(d) f (t) exp ( wt)f ( jw)dw
26. The angle between two lines having slopes m1 and 2
m2 is given by
(a) tan = (m1 m2) / m1m2 35. Absolute value of z = x + iy is
(b) tan = (m1 m2) / 1 + m1m2
(a) z (x 2 y2 ) (b) z (x 2 / y 2 )
(c) tan = (m1 + m2) / m1m2
(d) tan = (m1 m2) / m1 + m2
(c) z (x 2 y2 ) (d) z (x 2 y2 )
27. The distance d between two lines y1 = mx + c1 and y2 =
mx + c2 is given by 36. Line x + y = 4
(a) Never passes through (0, 0)
(a) d = | c1 c2 | ( 1 + m2)
(b) Always passes through (0, 0)
(b) d = | c1 + c2 | ( 1 + m2) (c) Meets Y axis at y = 0
10 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

(d) Always passes through (0, 0) power factor is 0.5, then one of the wattmeter will read
37. The equation of the straight line which makes intercepts (a) W/2 (b) 0
( 7/3) and 2/5 on x and y axis respectively is (c) 0.577 (d) 1.414W
(a) 6x 35y + 14 = 0 46. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected
(b) 35x 6y + 14 = 0 on the supply side of the current coil when
(c) 6x 35y + 14 = 0 (a) supply voltage is low
(d) None of these (b) supply voltage is high
(c) load impedance is low
7 0 3 0 (d) load impedance is high
38. Find x and y if x + y = xy
2 5 0 3 47. One of physical quantities which is not a base quantity
is
5 0 2 0 (a) length (b) force
(a) x y
1 4 1 1 (c) mass (d) time

4 5 1 0 48. According to system international length of substance


(b) x 1 0 y 2 1 is measured in
(a) cm (b) m
0 4 2 1 (c) km (d) mm
(c) x 1 5 y 0 1 49. The Atomic Theory was given by

(a) James Chadwick (b) John Dalton
5 0 2 0 (c) J. J. Thomson (d) E. Rutherford
(d) x 1 4 y 1 1
50. Which one of the following quantities does not have a
Unit
39. The dimension of gravitational constant G is-
(a) Velocity (b) Density
(a) ML2T3 (b) ML2
2 2
(c) Specific gravity (d) Mass
(c) ML T (d) M1L3T2
51. SI unit of "Inertia"
40. An automobile travels 72Km/hr towards a high wall.
(a) kgm2 (b) kg per metre
The driver sounds a horn of frequency 124 cycle/sec.
(c) kg (d) kgm-3
What is the frequency of the reflected sound heard by
the driver? (Velocity of sound = 330 m/sec) 52. Mirage Effect is caused due to
(a) 124 cycles /sec (b) 132 cycles/sec (a) Reflection of Light
(c) 140 cycles /sec (d) 148 cycles/sec (b) Refraction of Light
(c) Scattering and reflection of Light
41. The atomic weight and atomic number of an element (d) Reflection and Refraction Light
are A and Z respectively. The number of neutrons in
the atom of that element is- 53. To a stationary man, the frequency of sound source
(a) A (b) Z moving towards the man appears to be
(c) Z (d) A Z (a) higher than the original frequency
(b) lower than the original frequency
42. y rays are- (c) same as original frequency
(a) High energy electrons (d) square root of original frequency
(b) Low energy electrons
(c) High energy electromagnetic waves 54. Which colour light has the longest wavelength
(d) High energy positrons (a) Violet (b) Yellow
(c) Red (d) Green
43. The maximum number of electrons that can be
accommodated by p sub shell is- 55. Sound waves in air are
(a) 10 (b) 2 (a) transverse waves (b) longitudinal waves
(c) 6 (d) 14 (c) may be both types (d) none of these
44. A instrument has sensitivity of 1000 ohms/volt. On the 56. The laser produced from stimulated emission has the
100 volt scale. The instrument will have internal following characteristic
resistance of (a) Monochromatic
(a) 10 ohms (b) 10000 ohms (b) Coherent
(c) 1000 ohms (d) 100000 ohms (c) very narrow and collimated ray
(d) All of these
45. In two wattmeter method of measuring 3-phase power,
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57. A 6 V battery is connected to a 300 load. Under these consumed in circuit is


conditions, it is rated at 40 Ah. How long can it supply (a) 300 watt (b) 33 watt
current to the load? (c) 66.66 watt (d) 150 watt
(a) 1000 h (b) 2000 h 65. A capacitor is charged by a constant current of 2 mA
(c) 200 h (d) 4000 h and results in a voltage increase of 12 V in a 10 sec
58. A 12 V source has an internal resistance of 90 . If a interval. The value of capacitance is
load resistance of 20 is connected to the voltage (a) 0.75 milli Farad (b) 24 milli Farad
source, the load power, PL is- (c) 12 milli Farad (d) 1.67 milli Farad
(a) 2.38 mW (b) 2.38 W 66. Twelve 6 ohm resistor are used as edge to form a cube.
(c) 238 mW (d) 23.8 W The resistance between two diagonally opposite corner
59. A network consists of a large number of ideal linear of the cube is
resistors, one of which is R and 2 constant ideal sources. (a) 5/6 ohm (b) 6/5 ohm
The power consumed by R i s P1 when only the first (c) 5 ohm (d) 6 ohm
source is active and P2 when only the second source is
67. The source of a magnetic field is
active. If both sources are active simultaneously, then
(a) an isolated magnetic pole
the power consumed by R is
(b) static electric charge
(a) P1 P2 (b) P1 P2 (c) magnetic substances
(d) current loop
(c) ( P1 P2 ) (d) (P1 P2)
68. AT/m is the unit of
60. Find the power dissipated in 8 resistors in the circuit (a) m.m.f. (b) reluctance
(c) magnetizing force (d) magnetic flux density
+ 69. A galvanometer may be converted into ammeter or
+ 20V voltmeter. In which of the following cases the resistance
10V 10 of the device will be the largest?
10 (a) an ammeter of range 10 A
(b) a voltmeter of range 5 volt
10 5 (c) an ammeter of range 5 A
(d) a voltmeter of range 10 V
15V
70. Hystersis loss can be reduced by
(a) laminating the magnetic circuit
8 (b) using material of narrow hysteresis loop
(c) increasing m.m.f. of the circuit
(a) 7.37 W (b) 7.73 W (d) None of these
(c) 3.73 W (d) 3.37 W 71. One unit of electricity is
61. Kirchhoff's second law is based on law of conservation (a) One Kilo volt
of (b) One Kilo Watt
(a) charge (b) energy (c) One Kilo Watt Hour
(c) momentum (d) mass (d) One Kilo Amp Hour
62. During charging the specific gravity of electrolyte of a 72. Two wires A and B of the same material and length L
lead acid battery and 2L have radius r and 2r respectively. The ratio of
(a) increases (b) decreases their specific resistance will be:
(c) remains same (d) becomes zero (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 8
63. Norton's theorem states that a complex network
connected to a load can be replaced with an equivalence 73. For a given line voltage, four heating coils will produce
impedance maximum heat when connected
(a) in series with a current source (a) all in parallel
(b) in parallel with a voltage source (b) all in series
(c) in series with a voltage source (c) two parallel pairs in series
(d) in parallel with a current source (d) one pair in parallel with the two in series
64. Two bulbs marked "200 watt-200 volts" and "100 watt- 74. At low frequenies the material used for transformer core
200 volts" are joined in series to 200 volts supply. Power is
12 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

(a) copper (b) silicon iron 84. In LCR circuit which one of the following statement is
(c) soft iron (d) none correct
75. The ideal OPAMP has the following characteristic- (a) L and R oppose each other
(a) Ri = , A = , R0 = 0 (b) R value increases with frequency
(b) Ri = , A = , R0 = 0 (c) the inductive reactance increases with frequency
(c) Ri = , A = , R0 = (d) the capacitive reactance increases with frequency
(d) Ri = , A = , R0 = 85. Miller sweep has the following data R = 1K ohms,
76. The correct full wave rectifier circuit is- C = 1 PF, V = 10 Volts. Its sweep speed is
(a) 103 V/S (b) 106 V/S
4
(c) 10 V/S (d) 1010 V/S
Input

Input
86. In a p-n diode, hole diffuse from pregion to n-region
Output

Output
(a) (b) because
(a) there is high concentration of holes in the pregion
(b) holes are positively charged
(c) holes are urged to move by the barrier potential
(d) the free electrons in the n-region attract the holes.
Input

Input
Output

(c) (d) Output 87. Which of the following method of biasing provides the
best operating point stability
(a) Two battery bias
77. Negative feedback in an amplifer (b) Collector-to-base bias
(a) reduce gain (c) Fixed bias
(b) increases freqency and phase distrotions (d) Self bias
(c) reduces bandwidth 88. Feedback is said to be positive if
(d) increases noise (a) the feedback signal gets subtracted from the input
78. In case of class A amplifiers, the ratio of efficiency of signal
transformer coupled amplifier to efficiency of a (b) the feedback signal gets added to the input signal
transformer less amplifier is (c) any increase in the output signal results in a
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 feedback signal which on being mixed with the
(c) 1.36 (d) 2.0 input signal causes further increase in magnitude
of the output signal
79. When a PN Junction is formed, diffusion current causes (d) none of these
(a) mixing of current carriers
(b) forward bias 89. Astable multivibrator may be used as
(c) reverse bias (a) frequency to voltage converter
(d) barrier potential (b) voltage to frequency converter
(c) squaring circuit
80. Pure Semiconductor Silicon Dopped with Boron forms (d) comparator circuit
(a) pn-Type Semiconductor
(b) n-type Semiconductor 90. The most important consideration in power amplifier
(c) p-type Semiconductor is
(d) np-type semiconductor (a) Biasing the circuit
(b) Collector efficiency
81. Wider Band gap Semiconductors are called: (c) To keep the transformer cool
(a) Super conductor (b) Super Isolators (d) None of these
(c) Semi Semiconductors (d) Semi Isolators
91. A transformer coupled class A power amplifier has a
82. Which of the following is common feature of FET? load of 100 on the secondary. If the turn ratio is 10:1,
(a) They have high input imepdance what is the value of load appearing on the primary?
(b) These are voltage controlled devices (a) 50 k (b) 20 k
(c) They have isolated input & output (c) 100 k (d) 10 k
(d) All of these
92. For frequencies below the resonant frequency, a parallel
83. All of the following can propagate through vaccum LC circuit behaves as a ________ load
except (a) Inductive (b) Resistive
(a) X-rays (b) radio waves (c) Capacitive (d) None of these
(c) light waves (d) sound waves
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93. The advantage of using a dual slope ADC in a digital 103. If A and B are two input in AND gates, the AND gate
voltmeter is that has output of 1, when the values of A and B are
(a) its conversion time is small (a) A = 0, B = 0 (b) A = 1, B = 1
(b) its accuracy is high (c) A = 1, B = 0 (d) A = 0, B = 1
(c) it gives output in BCD format 104. Which of the following can be used as an inverter
(d) None of these (a) AND (b) NOR
94. The Boolean experssion Y = AB + CD represents (c) OR (d) None of these
(a) Two ORs ANDed together 105. The 9's complement of a Decimal digit is the
(b) A 4-input AND gate (a) 1's Complement of the Excess-3 code for the Digit
(c) Two ANDs ORed together (b) 2's Complement of the Excess-3 code for the Digit
(d) An exclusive OR (c) 1's Complement of the Excess-4 code for the Digit
95. A 4 bit module-6 ripple counter uses JK flip flop. If the (d) 2's Complement of the Excess-4 code for the Digit
propogation by each flip flop is 50 ns . The maximum
106. Hexadecimal equivalent of binary number
clock frequency be used
10001101011001 is
(a) 5 MHz (b) 10 MHz
(a) 2359 (b) 9493
(c) 4 MHz (d) 20 MHz
(c) 8D62 (d) 8DF2
96. MOD-12 and MOD-6 counters and multipliers are most
107. Which of the following statement is true?
commonly used as
(a) Frequency counters (a) A AB A
(b) Multiplexed displays (b) A(A AB)
(c) Power consumption meters
(d) Digital Colcks (c) CA CAB CA CB
(d) None of these
97. Decimal counter using flipflops and feedback, are more
popular than a decimal counter of ring type because of 108. In Boolean algebra, the term sum-of-products means
(a) simple decade circuitary required (a) the AND function of several OR functions
(b) economy in the number of flipflops (b) the OR function of several AND functions
(c) high speed of operation (c) the OR function of several OR functions
(d) its availability in IC form (d) the AND function of several AND functions

98. The Characteristic Equation of JK Flip Flop is 109. The output of a sequential circuit depends on
(a) Q_next = JQ + QK (a) present inputs
(b) Q_next = JQ + KQ (b) past outputs
(c) Q_next = JQ + QK (c) both present and past inputs
(d) Q_next = JQ + QK (d) past inputs

99. Transparent Flip Flops are also called as 110. A multiplexer is also known as
(a) Latches (a) counter (b) decoder
(b) Asynchronous Flip Flops (c) data selector (d) none of these
(c) Multiplexers 111. Three equal impedances are first connected in star
(d) Both Latches & Asynchronous Flip Flops across a balanced 3 phase supply. If connected in delta
100. 63 in Decimal System can be written in Binary Systems across the same supply-
as (a) Phase current will be tripled
(a) 111100 (b) 111101 (b) Phase current will be doubled
(c) 111111 (d) 101010 (c) Line current will become one third
(d) Power consumed will increase three fold
101. In a class A amplifier with sinusoidal input signal, the
output current flows for : 112. The capacitive circuit are used to___________ pf
(a) half the cycle (b) full cycle (Power factor)
(c) less than half cycle (d) more than half cycle (a) increases (b) decreases
(c) satblizer (d) No effect on
102. A moving charge produces:
(a) an electric field only 113. The efficiency of transformer is maximum when
(b) a magnetic field only (a) copper loss = twice Iron loss
(c) Both an electric field only & a magnetic field only (b) copper loss = half times Iron loss
(d) None of these (c) copper loss = Iron Loss
(d) no condition for maximum efficiency
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114. A series motor is best suited for driving 125. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to-
(a) latches (b) cranes and hoists (a) prevent mode jumping
(c) shears and punches (d) machine tools (b) prevent cathode back heating
115. Materials used for precision resistors should have (c) ensure bunching
(a) low resistivitiy (d) improve phase focussing effect
(b) high resistance temperature 126. Which of the following gives maximum probability of
(c) high themoelectric emf against copper error
(d) none of these (a) ASK (b) FSK
116. In a synchronous motor the magnitude of back emf Eb (c) PSK (d) DPSK
depends on ______________ 127. A telephone exchange has 9000 subscribers. If the
(a) speed of the motor number of calls originating at peak time is 10,000 in
(b) load on the motor one hour, the calling rate is
(c) both speed and stator flux (a) 0.9 (b) 10/9
(d) d.c. excitation only (c) 0.81 (d) 0.1
117. When a 3 phase induction motor is switched on the 128. A layer which is above the Presentation layer in OSI
rotor frequency is ______________ model is
(a) 50 Hz (a) DataLink Layer (b) Physical Layer
(b) same as supply frequency (c) Application Layer (d) Session Layer
(c) same as slip frequency
129. The synchronous modems are more costly than the
(d) zero
asynchronous modems because
118. The regulation of a synchronous motor is ___________ (a) They produce large volume of data
(a) 0.01 (b) 1 (b) They contain clock recovery circuit
(c) 0.5 (d) 0 (c) They transmit the data with stop and start bits
(d) They operate with a larger bandwidth
119. In a 3-Phase star connected system, the line current is
(a) equal to phase current 130. Foster seelay discriminator uses a
(a) Single tuned circuit
(b) 1/ 3 times phase current
(b) Double tuned circuit with primary and secondary
(c) 3 times phase current tuned to the different frequency
(d) 3 times phase current (c) Double tuned circuit with primary and secondary
tuned to the same frequency
120. Three equal resistances of 3 ohms each are connected
(d) None of these
in delta. The star equivalent value of resistance in ohms
is 131. A transmitter puts out a total power of 2.09 Watts of
(a) 2 (b) 6 30% AM signal. How much power is contained in each
(c) 2/3 (d) 2/6 of the sidebands?
121. The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is (a) 2.09 watts (b) 2 Watts
(a) positive (b) zero (c) 0.09 watts (d) 0.045 watts
(c) negative (d) any of the these 132. As compared to PPM, the disadvantage of PDM is that
122. The stator of a split phase type single phase induction it requires ______________
motor is provided with (a) more samples per second
(a) 3 windings (b) 2 windings (b) pulses of larger width
(c) 1 winding (d) 6 windings (c) powerful transmitter
(d) none of these
123. Among the following statements which one is true?
133. Over modulation of transmitter signal is corrected by
(a) a.c. transmission is more efficient
the adjustment of the __________
(b) d.c. transmission is more efficient
(a) speech amplifier
(c) both are equally efficient
(b) power amplifier
(d) low voltage d.c. transmission is more efficient
(c) RF oscillator
124. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to: (d) frequency doubler
(a) increase the gain of the system
(b) increase the bandwidth of the system 134. Speech amplifiers are usually operated as
(c) reduce the size of the main reflector (a) Class A (b) Class B
(d) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point (c) Class C (d) None of these
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135. Cylindrical cavity resonators are not used with because 146. The attenuator where the series arm Ra is usually made
they have ___ equal to characteristic impedance, is a ________
(a) Q that is too low (a) symmetrical T attenuator
(b) A shape whose resonant frequency is too (b) symmetrical attenuator
(c) Harmonically related resonant frequency (c) bridged T attenuator
(d) None of these (d) lattice T attenuator
136. The maximum speed at which the data can be 147. A filter having two pass bands and seperated by a small
transmitted on standard PCM stream is frequency band has zero output, the filter is of the type
(a) 64 kbps (b) 128 kbps _________
(c) 2 Mbps (d) 4 Mbps (a) band stop (b) high pass
137. A purely resistance load ZL is connected to a 50 (c) m-derived band pass (d) band pass
lossless transmission line such that it has a voltage 148. If an m-derived filter section is built with m = 1, it will
standing wave ratio of 3. The possible value of ZL will _______
be- (a) not be physically realizable
(a) 50 (b) 450 (b) not act as filter
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these (c) become a prototype section
138. The VSWR can have any value between- (d) be used only where very high attenuation near cutoff
(a) 0 and 1 (b) 1 and +1 is desired
(c) 0 and (d) 1 and 149. Closed circuit technique are based on
(a) superposition theorem
139. For a 2-port symmetrical bilateral network, if
(b) Thevenins theorem
transmission parameters A = 3 and B = 1, the value of
(c) Kirchoff's current law
parameter C is
(d) Kirchoff's voltage law
(a) 3 (b) 8
(c) 7 (d) 9 150. The dimensions of force are-
(a) MLT2 (b) ML1T2
140. A line becomes distortion less if 1
(c) MLT (d) ML2T2
(a) It is properly matched
(b) It is terminated into Zo 151. For measuring a very high resistance we should use-
(c) LG = CR (a) Kelvin's double bridge
(d) LR = GC (b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Megger
141. Input impedance of a shortcircuited lossless line with
(d) None of these
length /4 is
(a) Z0 (b) Zero 152. The pressure coil of a dynamometer type wattmeter is
(c) One (d) Infinity (a) Highly inductive (b) Highly resistive
142. BRI in ISDN has which of the following channels? (c) Purely resistive (d) Purely inductive
(a) 30B+1D (b) 2B+1D 153. The Guage factor of a Resistance wire strain guage, is
(c) 30B+2D (d) Only 2 B Channels a measure of
143. Pollen count and Solar Protons affects the Microwave (a) Sensitivity of the Guage
Link by- (b) Dynamic range of displacement measure
(a) Increasing the gain of the receiver (c) Resolution
(b) Increase in the Interference (d) Resistevity
(c) Increased the Distance Covered 154. The performance of Servomotors is ______________
(d) None of these Than stepper motors
(a) Very Accurate
144. Input impedance of a shorted loss lessline of length /
(b) Highly controlled by feedback
4 is _________
(c) Both Very Accurate & Highly controlled by
(a) infinity (b) zero
feedback
(c) Z0 (d) none of these
(d) None of these
145. The phase angle corresponding to /4 in a standing
wave pattern is __________ 155. Microwaves have frequency range of
(a) 180 degree (b) 135 degree (a) 10 GHz to 30 Ghz
(c) 45 degree (d) 90 degree (b) 1 Mhz to 100 Mhz
(c) 1 GHz to 30 GHz
(d) 1 MHz to 300 GHz
16 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

156. Sensititivity and Specificity are related to j


(a) Accuracy of the instrument
(b) Precision of the instrument
(c) Both Accuracy of the instrument & Precision of
K=5
the instrument K= K= K=
(d) None of these
K 3 2 1
157. Precision Rectifier can be used as ______________ with
small modifications
(a) Pulse Width Detector K=
(b) Peak Detector
(a) only if 0 k 1
(c) Frequency Detector
(b) only if 1 < k < 5
(d) Phase Detector
(c) only if k > 5
158. Q of a resonant transmission line is _____________ (d) if 0 k < 1 or k > 5
(a) Q = L/R
165. Which of the following is an open loop control system
(b) Q = L/R
(a) Field controlled D.C. motor
(c) Q = R/L
(b) Ward leonard control
(d) Q = L/R
(c) Metadyne
159. An LCD requires a power of ____________ (d) Stroboscope
(a) 20
166. The transfer function of the tacheometer is of the form
(b) 20 mW
(a) Ks (b) K/s
(c) 20 W
(c) K/(s+1) (d) K/[s(s+1)]
(d) 20 nW
167. Which of the following is aclosed loop system
160. A linear scale used in ___
(a) electric switch
(a) Thermocouple meters
(b) car starter
(b) Moving iron meters
(c) dc generator
(c) Hotwire meters
(d) auto-pilot for an aircraft
(d) None of these
168. Poles are the complex frequencies of a transfer funtion
161. A thereto-couple ammeter/voltmeter has ___
where the response becomes
(a) A logarithmic law response
(a) infinite (b) zero
(b) A square law response
(c) oscillatory (d) decaying
(c) A linear law response
(d) None of these 169. Which signal will become zero when the feedback signal
and reference signal are equal?
162. Strike out the features not to be associated with the
(a) Actuating signal (b) Input signal
rectifier instruments
(c) Reference signal (d) Feed back signal
(a) Small power loss
(b) High degree of measuring accuracy 170. High power amplification is achieved by the use of
(c) High sensitivity (a) Magnetic amplifier (b) DC amplifier
(d) None of these (c) DC generator (d) Amplidyne
163. The system shown in fig. below has steadystate error 171. The system steady state error can be minimized by
0.1 to unit step input. The value of K is- (a) decreasing damped frequency
(b) decreasing natural frequency
R(s) K C(s) (c) Increasing damped frequency
(s+1) (0.1s+1) (d) Increasing system gain constant K
172. The time constant of a servocontrol system can be
decreased by
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.9 (a) decreasing the inertial of the system
(c) 1 (d) 9 (b) decreasing the viscous damping of the system
(c) All of these
164. The root-locus diagram for a closed-loop feedback (d) None of these
system is shown in the figure. The system is
overdamped- 173. Zero initial conditions mean that the system is
(a) At rest and no energy is stored in any of its
components
[Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 17

(b) Working with zero reference signal' 182. Keeping in view the stability of the control circuit the
(c) Working with zero stored energy feedback factor (x) and gain without feedback (y) for a
(d) None of these stable circuit are related as
174. The most important technique used for stability and (a) xy = 1 (b) x/y < 1
the transient response of the system is (c) xy < 1 (d) x = y
(a) Nyquist plot (b) Root locus 183. Washing maching is example of
(c) Bode plot (d) Routh Hurwitz criteria (a) Closed Loop control System
175. Synchro transmitter also acts as an (b) Open Loop contro system
(a) error detector (b) compensator (c) Both Closed Loop control System & Open Loop
(c) comperator (d) input to a servomotor contro system
(d) None of these
176. The number of memory cycles required to execute the
184. Binary 11110 equals ____ in hexadecimal
following 8085 instructions
(a) 2A (b) 2E
(i) LDA 3000 H
(c) 1E (d) 2C
(ii) LXI D, F0F1 H
would be 185. Gate is a circuit with one or more input but out put is
(a) 2 for (i) and 2 for (ii) (a) two (b) one
(b) 4 for (i) and 3 for (ii) (c) three (d) more than 1
(c) 3 for (i) and 3 for (ii)
186. _____ data transmission is more useful when sending
(d) 3 for (i) and 4 for (ii)
information for long distances
177. In an 8085 microprocessor, the instruction CMP B has (a) serial (b) parallel
been executed while the content of the accumulator is (c) either (d) neither
less than that of register B. As a result-
187. 8085 MPU is
(a) Carry flag will be set but Zero flag will be reset
(a) 8 bit (b) 16 bit
(b) Carry flag will be reset but Zero flag will be set
(c) 32 bit (d) 64 bit
(c) Both Carry flag and Zero flag will be reset
(d) Both Carry flag and Zero flag will be set 188. Which of the following languages is suitable for
artificial intelligence?
178. The contents of accumulator after the execution of
(a) Fortran (b) Basic
following instructions will be
(c) Prolong (d) 'C'
MVI
A, B7H 189. Which one of the following task is not done by data
ORA A link layer?
RAL (a) Framing (b) Error control
(a) 6EH (b) 6FH (c) Flow control (d) Channel coding
(c) EEH (d) EFH 190. X.25 works on __________________ protocol
179. In 8085 microprocessor, stack works on- (a) LAP A (b) LAP B
(a) LILO (b) LIFO (c) LAP C (d) LAP D
(c) FIFO (d) None of these 191. The brain of any computer system is
180. The total size and the total number of Interrupts (a) ALU (b) CPU
procedures that can be defined in this memory of 8086 (c) ROM (d) RAM
is 192. MODEM can be classified as equipment of
(a) 256 Bytes, 256 Procedures (a) DCE (data MB_Communication equipment)
(b) 1K Bytes, 256 Procedures (b) DTE( DATA terminal equipment)
(c) 256 Bytes, 1K Procedures (c) both
(d) 1K Bytes, 1K Procedures (d) None of these
181. NMI input is 193. A MB_Computer program that converts an entire
(a) Edge Triggererd on Negative edge i.e. 1 to 0 program into machine language at one time is called-
transition (a) interpreter (b) simulator
(b) Edge Triggererd on Positive edge i.e. 0 to 1 (c) compiler (d) commander
transition
(c) Level triggered on 1 194. The Q of a radio coil
(d) Level triggered on 0 (a) is independent of frequency
(b) increases monotonically as frequency increases
18 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

(c) decreases monotonically as frequency increases 198. The following is not an operating system
(d) increases up to a certain frequency and decreases (a) MS-DOS (b) MS-Office
beyond that frequency (c) MS-Window (d) UNIX
195. A linear circuit is one whose parameters (e.g. 199. The following is a single user operating system
resistance)etc. (a) WINDOWS (b) WINDOWS-NT
(a) change with change in current (c) UNIX (d) none of these
(b) change with change in voltage 200. Active portion contains an operating system that will
(c) do not change with voltage and current be loaded
(d) none of these (a) when you start the system only
196. Programmable logic Array (PLA) uses ___________ (b) when you reset the system only
(a) PROM matrices (c) both when you start the system only and when you
(b) RAM matrices reset the system only
(c) Silo memory (d) neither when you start the system only nor when
(d) ROM matrices you reset the system only
197. Debug is synonymous to ____________
(a) erase (b) exponent
(c) trouble shoot (d) emulate

Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (c)
101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (c)
111. (d) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (d)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (b) 130. (c)
131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (c) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (c)
141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (c) 147. (d) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (c) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (d)
161. (b) 162. (d) 163. (d) 164. (d) 165. (a) 166. (a) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (b)
171. (b) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (d) 176. (b) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (a) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (a) 186. (d) 187. (d) 188. (b) 189. (d) 190. (b)
191. (b) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (d) 197. (c) 198. (d) 199. (b) 200. (b)
Examination held on 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
20 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

1. Pick the Synonym for the word "INDICTMENT" 11. Fastest express train in India
(a) accusation (b) acquaintance (a) Bhopal Shatabdi
(c) judgement (d) allegiance (b) Gatimaan
2. Which of the following is correct sentence (c) Sealdah duronto
(a) I have no taste in painting (d) Mumbai Rajdhani
(b) I have no taste to painting 12. Which gas gives pungent smell to LPG cylinders as a
(c) I have no taste for painting warning of leakage?
(d) All are correct (a) Methane (b) Odonil
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the (c) Ethyl Mercaptan (d) All of these
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make 13. The study of the origins and predecessors of the present
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. human species, using fossils and other remains
Seeing that there was an ongoing sale in one of her (a) Archaeology (b) Autobiography
favourite stores, Seeta made a beeline for it (c) Gemmology (d) Paleo Anthropology
immediately.
14. SEBI is a
(a) made a bee's line for
(a) constitutional body (b) advisory body
(b) make bees lined
(c) statutory body (d) non-statutory body
(c) made be-line to
(d) no correction required 15. Which country has recently defaulted on IMF loan
repayment due to an economic crisis
4. Choose the odd one from given four choices :
(a) USA (b) Italy
(a) Table (b) Chair
(c) Greece (d) Syria
(c) Bed (d) Rug
16. Fundamental rights in the Indian constitution have been
5. The first two words are related in a particular manner.
taken from the
Select the word from given choices, which is related to
(a) Russian constitution (b) U.S. constitution
third one in the same manner : ARMY : LOGISTICS
(c) British constitution (d) Act of 1935
: : business
(a) strategy (b) logic 17. Dove is a symbol of
(c) studies (d) team (a) Mourning (b) Peace
(c) War (d) Joy
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the
given words: PERTINENT 18. Which gland in human body is referred to as a master
(a) Irrational (b) Irregular gland?
(c) Inconsistent (d) Irrelevant (a) Thyroid (b) Adrenal gland
(c) Pituitary gland (d) Pancreas
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given
alternatives. I prefer Hindi songs ________ Telugu 19. Hindi novel 'Maila Anchal' is written by
songs (a) Phinshwar Nath Renu
(a) to (b) for (b) Prem Chand
(c) with (d) from (c) Surya Kant Tripathi Nirala
(d) Mohen Rakesh
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Ray
(a) Rayoes (b) Raies 20. Which atomic power station in India is built completely
(c) Rays (d) Rice indigenously?
(a) Kalpakkam (b) Narora
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
(c) Rawat Bhata (d) Tarapore
statement in the question : One who is all powerful
(a) Anarchist (b) Omnipotent dy
21. The solution for the differential equation 2x 2 y
(c) Omnisient (d) Strong dx
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the is
sentences: Rahul ______________ my tennis racket c c
without asking my permission. I got really angry with (a) y 2 (b) y 2
x x
him.
(a) needn't have taken (c) y 2 c x (d) y 2 c x
(b) must not have taken
(c) shouldn't have taken 22. The general solution of the differential equation
(d) didn't need to taken d 2 y dy
2y 10cos x is
dx 2 dx
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 21

(a) y = c1ex + c2e2x 3 cos x sin x 35. The area of the circle with centre at (1,2) and passing
(b) y = c1ex + c2e2x 3 cos x through (4,6) is
(c) y = c1ex + c2e2x 3 cos x sin x (a) 5n sq. units (b) 25 sq. units
(d) y = c1ex + c2e2x 3 x + sin x (c) 29n sq. units (d) None
23. The equation of the circle with radius 3 and centre 36. The vertex of the parabola y2 2y + 8x 23 = 0
(3, 2) is (a) (3, 1) (b) (1, 3)
(a) x2 + y2 6x + 4y + 4 = 0 (c) (1, 3) (d) (1, 3)
(b) x2 + y2 + 6x + 4y + 5 = 0 37. The trigonometric Fourier series of a periodic time
(c) x2 + y2 + 6x 4y 4 = 0 function can have only
(d) x2 + y2 + 6x + 4y + 10 = 0 (a) Cosine terms (b) Sine terms
24. Find dy/dx if y = ex sin x (c) Cosine & Sine terms (d) Cosine & DC terms
(a) ex sin x (b) ex cos x
38. The vectors having the same initial point are called
(c) sinx (d) ex cos x + sin x ex
(a) Position vector (b) Free vector
25. 20 % of 4 is equal to (c) Co-Initial Vector (d) Unit Vector
(a) 1 (b) 8 39. Isotopes of an element have-
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.08 (a) Same atomic number
26. 5n/4 radian = (b) Different mass number
(a) 225 (b) 270 (c) Same chemical properties
(c) 335 (d) 456 (d) All of these
27. Order of the partial differential equation is 40. Ideal value of VSWR is
(a) the order of the highest derivative appears in it (a) 0 (b) 1
(b) the order of the lowest derivative appears in it (c) Infinit (d) 10
(c) the order of any derivative appears in it
41. An instrument to check whether RF power in the
(d) none of these
transmission line is transferred to the antenna is:
28. Commutative means (a) an antenna tuner (b) a dummy load
(a) a + c = b + a (b) a + b = b + c (c) a keying monitor (d) wave ratio meter
(c) a + b = b + a (d) a+(b+c)=(a+b)+c 42. The total addressable memory size of 8085 is
29. Laplace Transform is used in (a) 16 kb (b) 32 kb
(a) Fourier Series (b) Probability Distribution (c) 64 kb (d) 128 kb
(c) Complex Numbers (d) None of these 43. Light year is unit of
30. A function (t) is said to be even if : (a) Light (b) Time
(a) f(t) = f(t) (b) f(t) = f( t) (c) Distance (d) Velocity
(c) ft = f(t) (d) None of these
44. IUPAC stands for
31. For any complex no. Z the minimum value of (a) International Union of Physics and Applied
IzI + Iz1I is: Chemistry
(a) 1 (b) 0 (b) International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry
(c) 1/2 (d) 3/2 (c) International Unit of Pure and Applied Chemistry
32. Area of the triangle formed by the lines 7x2y + 10 = 0, (d) International Unit of Pure and Application
7x + 2y10 = 0 and y + 2 = 0 is Chemistry
(a) 8 (b) 14 45. Quantities that are used to describe laws of physics are
(c) 16 (d) 18/7 called
(a) atomic quantities (b) nuclear quantities
d (c) mechanical quantities (d) physical quantities
33. (sin 3 x)
dx 46. Electron was discovered by
(a) 3 sin2x cos x (b) 2 sin2x cos x (a) Germer (b) Einstein
(c) 3 cos2x sin x (d) 2 cos x sin x (c) Davison (d) J.J Thomson
/2 47. Electromagnetic radiation with minimum wavelength
34. sin 2 xdx
0 is
(a) n/4 (b) n/5 (a) radiowaves (b) ultra violet
(c) n/2 (d) n/6 (c) X-rays (d) infrared
22 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

48. Which of the following pairs can form correct set of (a) 40 V (b) 20 V
isosters? (c) 10 V (d) 5 V
(a) MgS , CaF2 (b) CO2, N2O 59. One Joule per coulomb is called?
(c) CO2, N2O (d) All of these (a) volt (b) ampere
49. The discovery of atomic nuclues was done by (c) farad (d) gauss
(a) Faraday (b) J. J. Thomson 60. Calculate the current in I3 in the circuit
(c) Fermi (d) E. Rutherford
50. The number of neutrons present in the atom of 56Be137 I2 = 2A
(a) 56 (b) 137
(c) 193 (d) 81 I1 = 7A
51. The fundamental unit which is common in CGS and I3
SI system is
(a) Second (b) Kilogram
(c) Gram (d) Metre I4 = 3A
52. Sounds with frequency 2000 Hz are called as (a) 8A (b) 8A
(a) Ultrasonics (b) Infrasonic (c) 7A (d) 12A
(c) Audible sounds (d) None of these 61. When "n" resistor each of value "r" are connected in
53. The Dimensional Formula for Force is parallel, then resultant resistance is x. When these "n"
(a) MLT1 (b) ML2T2 resistors are connected in series, total resistance is
(c) MLT 2
(d) None of these (a) nx (b) mx
(c) x/n (d) n2x
54. Which of the following have same dimensional formula
(a) Work and Energy 62. When a Magnet is heated
(b) Impulse and Momentum (a) it gains magnetism
(c) Both Work and Energy & Impulse and Momentum (b) it loses magnetism
(d) None of these (c) it neither loses nor gains magnetism
(d) None of these
55. Laser is a
(a) Light Source 63. A charged particle of charge q is moving with a velocity
(b) Light Detector v along the axis of a current carrying solenoid. The
(c) Both Light Source & Light Detector magnetic force on the particle is
(d) None of these (a) qvB (b) 0
(c) qv+2B (d) None of these
56. Laser Light is different from others because
(a) It is Coherent (b) It is incoherent 64. Whenever a charged particle moves in a Electric
(c) High Intensity (d) High Speed Potential
(a) Particle gets potential energy
57. Find the Thevenin equivalent VTH and RTH between the (b) Particle gets kinetic energy
terminals A & B of the circuit (c) Particle gets electric energy
R1 (d) None of these
68
65. Permanent Magnets are made of
R2 (a) Diamagnetic Materials
100 (b) Paramagnetic Materials
VS A (c) Ferromagnetic Materials
100V (d) Piezoelectric Materials
R3 VTH
120 66. The Force between two permanent Magnets is
B determined by
(a) Distance among them
(b) Direction of Magnets
(a) 4.16 V, 120 (b) 41.6 V, 120 (c) Orientation of Magnets
(c) 4.16 V, 70 (d) 41.6 V, 70 (d) All of these
58. The current through a 4H inductor is given by IL(s) = 67. Eddy Currents are the currents generated in
10 (a) Moving conductor in stationary magnetic field
. The initial voltage across the inductor is- (b) Stationary conductor in changing Magnetic Field
s(s 2)
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 23

(c) Both Moving conductor in stationary magnetic field (a) Active Network (b) Passive Network
& Stationary conductor in changing Magnetic Field (c) Electric Network (d) None of these
(d) None of these 75. The cause of potential barrier in an pnjunction diode is
68. In High Power Lines the power is transmitted at (a) Deplention of positive charge near the junction
(a) High current level and low voltage (b) Concentration of positive charge near the junction
(b) High voltage level and low current (c) Depletion of negative charge near the junction
(c) Any combination (d) Concentratio of postive and negative charge near
(d) None of these the junction
69. When a single turn coil rotates in a uniform magnetic 76. An npn transistor (with C = 0.3 pF) has a unity gain
field, at uniform speed, the induced emf will be cutoff frequency fT of 4000 MHz at a dc current
(a) alternating (b) steady Ic = 1mA. The value of its C (in pF) is approx
(c) pulsating (d) none of these (VT = 26 mV)
(a) 15 (b) 30
70. In a series R-L-C circuit, magnitude of resonance
(c) 50 (d) 96
frequency can be changed by changing the value of
(a) R only (b) L only 77. A transistor in common emitter mode has
(c) C only (d) L or C (a) a high input resistance and a high output resistance
(b) a very low input resistance and a low output
71. A battery of 24 V is applied across terminals AB of the
resistance
circuit shown in figure. Current in 2 Ohm resister will
(c) a medium input resistance and high output
be-
resistance
5 Ohm 2 Ohm (d) a high input resistance and low output resistance
A 78. Thermal runaway in BJT will take place if the quicent
point is such that
(a) Vce > 1/2 Vcc (b) Vce
8 Ohm (c) Vce < 2Vcc (d) Vce < 1/2Vcc
6 Ohm 4 Ohm
79. N Type silicon is obtained by doping silicon with
(a) Germanium (b) Gallium
B (c) Phosphorous (d) Boron
D F
80. IC LM7815 is a
(a) 3A (b) 6A (a) Voltage Regulator with a +5 V output voltage
(c) 2.5A (d) 1.5A (b) Voltage Regulator with a 5 V output voltage
72. The current in 3K resistors in figure by converting (c) Voltage Regulator with a +15 V output voltage
the current source into voltage source is (d) Voltage Regulator with a 15 V output voltage
81. If the output of a CMOS inverter gets accidently shorted
to ground
(a) the nchannel driver MOSFET will be damaged
(b) the supply voltage source will be damaged
15 ma 6K 36K (c) the current drain for the supply will increase, which
may damage the pchannel load MOSFET
(d) none of the these will happen
82. The main drawback of JFET is its :
(a) 10 mA (b) 12 mA (a) high input impedance
(c) 6 mA (d) 5 mA (b) low input impedance
73. We have assigned a frequency of 50 Hz to power system (c) higher noise
because it (d) lower gain
(a) can be easily obtained 83. The electric current is due to the flow of
(b) gives best result when used for operating both lights (a) positive charge only
and machinery (b) negative charge only
(c) easy calculations (c) both the charges
(d) none (d) neutral particles only
74. A network which contain one or more than one source 84. A semi conductor when placed at 0 K, will act as
of emf is known as
24 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

(a) Insulator (b) Conductor 96. A 4-bit synchronous counter uses flip-flops with
(c) Semiconductor (d) Metal propogation delay time of 25ns each. The maximum
85. Which of the following multi vibrator is also called as possible time required for change of state will be
Eccles Jordan Circuit in early days (a) 20ns (b) 50ns
(a) Bistable Multivibrator (c) 75ns (d) 100ns
(b) Monostable Multi vibrator 97. In a UJT, intrinsic stand off ratio n is typically
(c) Astable Multivibrator (a) 0.2 (b) 0.4
(d) All of these (c) 0.7 (d) 0.99
86. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ideal 98. White noise is that signal whose frequency spectrum
Opearational Amplifier (a) extends over infinite range
(a) BW = (b) has flat spectral density
(b) Perfect balance V0 = 0 when V1 = V2 (c) has special density varying as 1/f
(c) Gain is (d) has limited number of frequency components
(d) Input resistance is Zero
99. The relation between the number of inputs (n) and
87. In a CE amplifier, thermal runaway is unconditionally output (o) of binary coded decoder is
avoided if (a) o = 2n (b) o = n + 2
(a) VCE = VCC/2 (b) VCE > VCC/2 (c) o = 2^n (d) o = n/2
(c) VCE < VCC/2 (d) VCE = VCC/ 2 100. Multiplexer converts
88. The input and output voltages of a CE amplifier are (a) Multiple inputs to single output
(a) equal (b) 180 out of phase (b) Single input to multiple outputs
(c) always negative (d) in phase (c) Both Multiple inputs to single output & Single
input to multiple outputs
89. Emitter follower is characterized by (d) None of these
(a) low output impedance and little distortion
(b) low output impedance and significant distortion 101. Decimal number 74 may be written in binary system as
(c) significant output impedance and significant (a) 1001010 (b) 1001001
distortion (c) 1001011 (d) 100011
(d) none of these 102. In which of the following gates the output is 0 if and
90. An astable multivibrator has only if atleast one input is 1?
(a) two stable states (b) one stable state (a) NOT (b) AND
(c) no stable state (d) none of these (c) NOR (d) NAND

91. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to 103. An ideal diode


(a) Only holes (a) should have zero resistance in the forward bias as
(b) Only free electrons well as reverse bias
(c) Holes and free electrons (b) should have zero resistance in the forward bias and
(d) None of these infinitely large resistance in reverse bias
(c) should have infinetly large resistance in the forward
92. The maximum efficiency of a halfwave rectifier is bias and zero resistance in reverse bias
(a) 40.6% (b) 25% (d) should have infinitely large resistance in the
(c) 81.2% (d) 50% forward bias as well as reverse bias
93. Each cell of a static Random Access Memory contains- 104. Boolean expression of three input AND gate is
(a) 6 MOS transistors (a) A.B.C = D (b) A+B+C = D
(b) 4 MOS transistors and 2 capacitors
(c) A.B.C = D (d) A+B+C = D
(c) 2 MOS transistors and 4 capacitors
(d) 1 MOS transistors and 1 capacitors 105. How many full adders are needed to construct an m-bit
parallel adder?
94. If a mod-6 counter is constructed using 3 flip-flops the (a) m 1 (b) m/2
counter will skip ___ counts (c) m + 2 (d) m
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1 106. An SR flip-flop does not accept the input entry when
(a) both inputs zero
95. The Reflected Binary code (RBC) "100" is equal to (b) zero at R and one at S
________ in binary (c) zero at S and one at R
(a) 100 (b) 110 (d) both inputs at one
(c) 111 (d) 101
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 25

107. Schmitt trigger may be used to S L


(a) change voltage to corresponding frequency
+
(b) change frequency to voltage
(c) change a slowly varying voltage to square voltage
(d) none of these
108. The factor is not important while selecting a logic 100 V D 10
technology is
(a) cost
(b) power dissipation
(c) number of pins (a) 2.5, 5, 5 (b) 5, 2.5, 5
(d) speed of operation (c) 5, 5, 2.5 (d) 2.5, 5, 2.5
109. A shift register can be used for 118. For Higher Voltage ranges ______________
(a) parallel to serial conversion only Transformers are used.
(b) serial to parallel conversion only (a) Core Type
(c) digital time delay only (b) Shell Type
(d) All of these (c) Both Core Type & Shell Type
110. Which of the following counters has the highest speed? (d) None of these
(a) asynchronous counter 119. Two wattmeter method for measuring the power factor
(b) synchronous counter is used for ______________
(c) ripple counter (a) balanced load only
(d) ring counter (b) balanced and unbalanced load both
111. A T-T transformer cannot be paralleled with _____ (c) unbalanced load only
transformer. (d) star connected balanced load only
(a) V-V (b) Y- 120. Insulation resistance is measured by normally using
(c) Y-Y (d) - _________
112. The eddy current loss in the transformer occurs in the (a) earth resistence tester
(a) primary winding (b) megger
(b) core (c) galvanometer
(c) secondary winding (d) PMMC instrument
(d) None of these 121. In a 3-Phase delta connected system, the line voltage is
113. In a d.c machine iron losses occurs in (a) equal to phase voltage
(a) the yoke (b) the pole shoe (b) 1/ 3 times phase voltage
(c) the armature (d) the field
(c) 3 times phase voltage
114. A 200kVA transformer has an iron loss of 1kW and (d) 3 times phase voltage
fullload copper loss of 2kW. Its load kVA corresponds
to maximum efficiency is 122. The instrument transformers are normally used to
(a) 100kVA (b) 70.7kVA extend the range of
(c) 200kVA (d) 141.4kVA (a) induction instruments
(b) electrostatic instruments
115. The critical resistance of the D.C generator is the (c) moving iron instruments
resistance of (d) All of these
(a) armature (b) field
(c) load (d) brushed 123. Transmission lines and distribution lines can be
discriminated by
116. Effective method of providing protection to (a) the size of conductor
transmission lines against direct lightning strokes is (b) the operating voltage
by the use of (c) The amount of current carried by the liner
(a) The Earthing screen (d) None of these
(b) Over Head Ground wires
(c) lightning Arrester 124. In PCM system, if the code word length is increased
(d) None of these from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio
improves by the factor-
117. In figure, Ra , Rb and Rc are 20 , 10 and 10 (a) 8/6 (b) 12
respectively. The resistances R1, R2 and R3 in of an (c) 16 (d) 8
equivalent starconnection are
26 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

125. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10 KW, the 136. Microwave energies propagate the length of the wave
power in the carrier for modulation index of 0.6 is nearly guide by ____ its side walls.
(a) 8.24 KW (b) 8.47 KW (a) Moving off (b) Refraction
(c) 9.26 KW (d) 9.6 KW (c) Reflection off (d) None of these
126. A carrier is modulated simultaneously by two sine waves 137. A transmission line whose characteristic impedance is
with modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4,the total 100 has 300 terminating load. What is the
modulation index percentage of reflected voltage
(a) is 1 (b) can not be calculated (a) 33.3% (b) 50%
(c) is 0.5 (d) is 0.7 (c) 66.6% (d) 55%
127. A carrier is modulated by two modulating waves A and 138. SAP Sybase, MySQL and Oracle are examples of
B having modulation indices of 0.6 and 0.8 respectively. (a) DBMS
The overall modulation index is (b) RDBMS
(a) 1 (b) 0.7 (c) Database
(c) 0.2 (d) 1.4 (d) High Level Programming Lanugage
128. During the heterodyne process in reciever, the 139. Email works of the ________ layer of OSI Model
modulation of the signal ______________ (a) Presentation (b) Application
(a) decreases (b) remains unaffected (c) Data Link Layer (d) Transport Layer
(c) increases (d) is eliminated
140. The active filters used in Networks are having
129. The disadvantage of FSK is that _____________ (a) Passive components (b) Low Q Factor
(a) It does not provide sufficient S/N ratio (c) High Q Factor (d) None of these
(b) It does not have low error probability
141. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission
(c) it is not efficient in is use of spectrum space
line is infinity, the line is terminated in _________
(d) none of these
(a) a short circuit (b) a complex impedance
130. If the synchronization between tranmitter and receiver (c) an open circuit (d) a pure reactance
fails which of the following pulse systems would be
142. Stub matching eliminates standing waves on
affected ?
_____________
(a) PAM (b) PDM
(a) transmitter side of stub
(c) PPM (d) none of these
(b) load side of the stub
131. The difference between phase and frequency modulation (c) both side of the stub
(a) Is purely theoretical because they are same in (d) none of these
practice 143. The propogation constantof a transmission line is
(b) Is too great to make the two systems compatible _____________
(c) Lies in the poorer audio response to phase (a) (R + j L)/(G + j C)
modulation
(d) Lies in the definitions of the modulation index (b) (1/ LC)
132. To connect the output of a data source to a telephone (c) (L / C)
line, it is necessary to have __________
(a) An FMVFT system (b) Modem (d) {(R j L)(G j C)}
(c) A leased line (d) Phase shift key
144. If reflection coefficient is 1/5 then corresponding VSWR
133. Cut off wavelength of rectangular waveguide for TE0,1, is given by ______
if 'a' is width and 'b' is height (a > b) (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 2a (b) 2b (c) 3 (d) 3/2
(c) a (d) b
145. To determine the value of the net resistance (R) for
134. A matched load is one in which three parallel resistors R1, R2 and R3, we can use the
(a) reflection is zero following equation
(b) reflection is unity (a) R=R1+R2+R3 (b) R=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3
(c) partial reflection and partial transmission (c) 1/R=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3 (d) 1/R=R1+R2+R3
(d) none of these
146. For an RL circuit, the power factor cannot be less
135. Wave guide can be considered as than_____ or greater than_____
(a) high pass filter (b) low pass filter (a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 0
(c) band pass filter (d) none of these (c) 1, 1 (d) 00, +00
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 27

147. Which has the greatest period (a) static measurement


(a) 10 Hz (b) 100 Hz (b) dynamic measurments
(c) 10 KHz (d) 100 KHz (c) both static and dynamic measurements
148. The effect of an inductance is such that current flowing (d) transient measurement
through it 157. Dynamic characteristics of capacitive transducers are
(a) can not change instantaneously similar to those of ___________
(b) can change instantaneously (a) low pass filter (b) notch filter
(c) can not change (c) band stop filter (d) high pass filter
(d) is opposed by the inductance 158. For a 1000 micro Amp movement with 100 ohms Rte,it
149. Total current drawn from two 3.0 volt batteries in voltage V. at HI scale deflection is
parallel is 1 amp. Each battery supplies (a) 250 micro Volt (b) 0.1 Volt
(a) 1 amp (b) 0.5 amp- (c) 0.2 Volt (d) 0.5 Volt
(c) 2 amp (d) 0.30 amp
159. The principle type of current meter being employed is
150. Assertion (A): Shunt of an ammeter has a low (a) D' Arsenal Galvanometer
resistance. (b) Thermal current meter
Reason (R): Shunt may be connected in series or in (c) Electromagnetic current meter
parallel with ammeter. (d) None
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation
160. Amp. Hour is the unit for measuring
of A
(a) Power of the meter (b) Energy
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
(c) Capacity of a cell (d) None of these
explanation of A
(c) A is true R is false 161. If m identical cells of e.m.f. V and internal resistance
(d) A is false R is true 'r' are connected in series, they produce a current
through an external resistance R equal to
151. An ammeter of 0-25 A range has a guaranteed accuracy
(a) mv/(R+r) (b) mv/R
of 1% of full scale reading. The current measured is 5
(c) V/(R+r) (d) mv/(R+mr)
A. The limiting error is
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.04 162. The precision measurement of resistance is generally
(c) 0.025 (d) 0.02 carried out by
(a) potentiometer method (b) CRO method
152. A logic probe is placed on the output of a digital circuit
(c) bridge method (d) voltmeter method
and the probe lamp is dimly lit. This display indicates
_______ 163. The closed loop transfer function of a system is
(a) that an open or bad logic level exists (s 8)(s 6)
(b) a high level output T(s) = . The number of
s s 4s3 4s 2 3s 2
5 4
(c) a high-frequency pulse train
(d) that the supply voltage is low polesin RHP and LHP are-
(a) 4, 1 (b) 1, 4
153. The output of a piezoelectric crystal has (c) 3, 2 (d) 2, 3
(a) low amplitude and low impedance
(b) high amplitude and high impedance 164. Consider a unity feedback control system with openloop
(c) low amplitude and high impedance transfer funtion G(s) = K/s (s + 1)
(d) high amplitude and low impedance (a) 0 (b) K
(c) 1 / K (d) infinity
154. In a venturimeter, the flow is 0.15 cum/sec. When the
differential pressure in 30 KN/sqm. What is the value 165. A Servomechanism is a feedback control system
of flow when the differential pressure is 60 KN/sqm? required to control
(a) 0.106 (b) 0.212 (a) position
(c) 0.3 (d) 0.075 (b) a derivative of position
(c) either (a) or (b) above
155. In a transducer the observed output deviates from the (d) none of these
current value by a constant factor. The resulting error
is called _______ 166. The main drawback of a feedback system is
(a) zero error (b) non conformity error (a) inaccuracy (b) inefficiency
(c) sensitivity error (d) hysteresis error (c) insensitivity (d) instability

156. Capacitive transducers are normally used for 167. Acceleration error constant is a measure of the steady
______________ state error of the system when the input is _______
28 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

(a) unit step function (b) ramp function 179. The stack in MUP operates as
(c) impulse function (d) parabolic function (a) FIFO (b) LIFO
168. For type 2 system with input as unit ramp, velocity (c) LILO (d) None of these
error constant and steady state error are respectively. 180. What are the commands to the assembler itself, called
(a) 0, (b) , 0 (a) Macros (b) Macro-instruction
(c) , (d) 0, 0 (c) Micro-Instruction (d) Pseudo-Instruction
169. The Laplace transform of eat is ___________ 181. A 16mA current source has an internal resistance of 10
(a) 1/as (b) 1/(s a) kohm. How much current will flow in a 2.5 K ohm
(c) 1/(s + a) (d) a/(s + a) load connected across its terminals
(a) 4.2 mA (b) 6 mA
170. G(s) = 1/(1 + sRC) in a RC network represents _______
(c) 11.5 mA (d) 12.8 mA
(a) low pass (b) high pass
(c) band pass (d) band stop 182. Cycle stealing mode of DMA operation involves
3 2
171. The characteristic equation s + 8s + 14s + 24 = 0 (a) DMA-controlled taking on the address, data and
represents ___________ control buses, while a block of data is transformed
(a) stable system between memory and I/O device.
(b) unstable system (b) While the microporcessor is executing a
programme, an interface circuit takes control of
(c) marginally stable system
the address, data and control buses, when not in
(d) none of these
use by the microprocessor.
172. The transfer function of a system is used to calculate (c) Data transfer takes place, between I/O device and
________ memory during every alternate clock cycle.
(a) output for given input (d) The DMA controller working for the
(b) input for a given output microprocessor to finish execution of the
(c) order of the system programme and then takes over the buses.
(d) time constant
183. The control signal ALE is sent by Intel-8085 in order
173. Which system has tendency to oscillate ? to
(a) open loop system (a) Inform I/O device that address is being sent over
(b) close loop system the AD Line
(c) both open loop system and close loop system (b) achieve seperation of address from data.
(d) none of these (c) inform the memory device that address is being
174. In root locus plot the angle of asymptote is given as sent over the AD line
___________ (d) inform I/O and memory that data is being sent over
(a) 360 degree/nimber of poles the AD line
(b) 360 degree/ number of zeroes 184. Evaluate 1101112/1012
(c) 360 degree/(number of poles-number of zeroes) (a) 11102 (b) 10112
(d) 360 degree/ (number of poles+ number of zeroes) (c) 11112 (d) 10012
175. When a unit step input is applied to a perfect integrator, 185. Specify the range of char type data
the output (a) 127 to 128 (b) 128 to 129
(a) is bounded (b) unbounded (c) 128 to 127 (d) 128 to 128
(c) remaining constant (d) is unity
186. The transfer function of a tachometer is of the form
176. The number of hardware interrupts (which require an (a) Ks (b) K/s
external signal to interrupt) present in an 8085 (c) K/(s+1) (d) K/s(s+1)
microprocessor are-
187. Which section of the CPU affects and sequences all
(a) 1 (b) 4
events within the CPU and the entire microcomputer?
(c) 5 (d) 13
(a) Registers
177. To address a memory location out of N memory (b) ALU
locations, the number of address lines required is (c) Instruction-decoding circuitry
(a) log N (to the base 2) (b) log N (to the base 10) (d) Control and timing section
(c) log N (to the base e) (d) log (2N) (to the base e)
188. The 8085 MPU can address
178. What are level Triggering interrupts? (a) 28 memory locations
(a) INTR &TRAP (b) RST6.5 & RST5 (b) 212 memory locations
(c) RST7.5 & RST6.5 (d) none of these
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 29

(c) 216 memory locations (a) 16 (b) 1.6


(d) 232 memory locations (c) 3.2 (d) 60
189. The errors that can be pointed out by the compiler are- 195. Pulse code modulation employing 4 bit code is used to
(a) Syntax errors (b) Semantic errors transmit a data signal having frequency components
(c) Logical errors (d) Internal errors from dc to 2 KHz. The minimum bandwidth of the
190. DOS is carrier channel should be
(a) Operating System (a) 2 KHz (b) 4 KHz
(b) Application Software (c) 8 KHz (d) 16 KHz
(c) Special Pakage Software 196. Execute Cycle of Computer is
(d) Data Base Software (a) Longer than instruction cycle
(b) Equal to Instruction Cycle
191. X.25 protocol uses ______ for end-to-end transmission.
(c) Part of Instruction Cycle
(a) Physical layer (b) Frame Layer
(d) None of these
(c) Packet Layer (d) application layer
192. sine wave of frequency, fm modulates carrier of 197. Scratch pad memory is __________
frequency fc, producing the same frequency deviation (a) local temporary memory
and the same modulation index in both FM and PM. (b) local permanent memory
(c) first in first out memory
Next if the modulation frequency is doubled, the
(d) last in first out memory
modulation index in FM relative to that in PM will be:
(a) the same (b) halved 198. Single parity check is not reliable in case of __________
(c) doubled (d) quadrupled (a) paper tape (b) magnetic drum
(c) magnetic tape (d) cores
193. Image signal frequency in a superhet receiver is given
by 199. Object code is
(a) fs + fi (b) fs + 2fi (a) high level language (b) machine code
(c) fs fi (d) fs 2fi (c) assembly language (d) None of these
194. A communication channel disturbed by additive white 200. A programmed stored in a higher memory that can be
Gaussian noise has a bandwidth of 4 KHz and SNR of used repeatedly as part of main program is known as
15. The highest transmission rate that such channel (a) sub program (b) micro program
can support (inkbits/ sec) is (c) sub routine (d) library
30 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (a)
101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (a) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (c) 130. (c)
131. (c) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (b) 139. (b) 140. (c)
141. (b) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (d) 146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (b) 155. (c) 156. (b) 157. (d) 158. (b) 159. (d) 160. (d)
161. (d) 162. (a) 163. (c) 164. (a) 165. (c) 166. (d) 167. (d) 168. (b) 169. (c) 170. (a)
171. (a) 172. (a) 173. (b) 174. (c) 175. (a) 176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (d) 182. (b) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (a) 187. (d) 188. (a) 189. (a) 190. (a)
191. (c) 192. (b) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (c) 197. (a) 198. (c) 199. (a) 200. (d)
Examination held on 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)

1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
32 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

1. Pick the Synonym for the word "ENCOMPASSING" (a) Wet (b) Dull
(a) surrounding (b) incorporating (c) Accidental (d) Privileged
(c) dealing (d) accepting 10. .Four parts of a sentence are given. Arrange them in
2. A sentence is given in the Direct/Indirect form. Out of the right order to produce a correct sentence residents
the four alternatives suggested, select the one which have been planting/the ornamental trees outside/their
best expresses the same sentence in the Indirect/Direct homes and in lawns to/add beauty and give their place
form: The boy was very happy and said to his mother, a grand look P/ Q/ R/ S
"Do you want me to come with you?" (a) QRSP (b) SRQP
(a) The boy had been very happy and asked his mother (c) PRQS (d) PQRS
if she wanted him to come with her. 11. The present Minister for Communication
(b) The boy was very happy and asked his mother if (a) Shri. Ravi Shankar Prasad
she wants him to come with her. (b) Shri. Arun Jaitley
(c) The boy was very happy and said to his mother if (c) Shri. Manoj Sinha
she wants him to come with her. (d) None of these
(d) The boy was very happy and asked his mother if
she wanted him to come with her. 12. What is the present Loks abha Constituency of Sushma
Swaraj?
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the (a) Ambala (b) Delhi
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make (c) Bellary (d) Vidisha
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct.
Varun was on cloud nine after having stood first in his 13. India is planning to launch a dedicated satellite for
class which organisation?
(a) in ninth cloud (b) on nine clouds (a) ASEAN (b) BRICS
(c) a cloudy nine (d) no correction required (c) SAARC (d) SCO
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice : 14. Before becoming President of India Mr. Pranab
After driving professor Kumar to the museum she Mukharjee was working as
dropped him at his hotel. (a) Deputy Chairman Planning Commission
(a) After she had driven Professor Kumar to the (b) Home Minister
museum she had dropped him at his hotel. (c) Finance Minister
(b) After she was driven Professor Kumar to the (d) External Affair Minister
museum she had dropped him at his hotel. 15. Decimal equivalent of Binary No. 100 is :
(c) After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar (a) 100 (b) 1
was dropped at his hotel. (c) 4 (d) 16
(d) Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his
hotel. 16. The pH of Human blood is normally around
(a) 4.5 5.5 (b) 5.5 6.5
5. The first two words are related in a particular manner. (c) 8.5 9 (d) 7.5 8
Select the word from given choices, which is related to
third one in the same manner : LIGHT:BLIND :: speech 17. Which state in India produces the largest quantity of
(a) tongue (b) dumb rubber?
(c) sound (d) chat (a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharastra
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the
given words: Execrable 18. Which one of the following is a missile system
(a) shocking (b) laudable developed by India that can hit a target at a distance of
(c) repulsive (d) unhappy more than 5000 kilometers?
(a) Arjun (b) Akash
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (c) Agni-V (d) Nag
alternatives. The firemen were able to ________ the
fire in church street. 19. An Agreement on Coastal and Maritime Shipping has
(a) put out (b) put away been signed by India with which of the following South
(c) put of (d) put in Asian countries for commencement of coastal shipping
between the two countries?
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Fish (a) Sri Lanka (b) Maldives
(a) Flies (b) Fishes (c) Bangladesh (d) Mauritius
(c) Fish (d) Many Fish
20. Which state is bound by Bangladesh on three sides?
9. Choose the word /group of words which is similar in (a) Mizorarn (b) Meghalaya
meaning to the word. Insipid
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 33

(c) Tripura (d) West Bengal 31. Cramer's rule is an explicit formula for the solution of
21. The relation |3 z| + |3 + z| = 5 represents- a system of
(a) A circle (b) A parabola (a) non-linear equation (b) quadratic equation
(c) An ellipse (d) A hyperbola (c) variable equation (d) linear equations

22. The Laplace transform of sin 2t is- 32. Which of the following function is a periodic function
(a) sin x (b) cos x
2 s (c) f(x) = constant (d) All of these
(a) (b)
s2 4 s2 4 33. Partial differential equation involves
2 2 (a) only one independent variable
(c) 2 (d) 2 (b) only two independent variable
s 4 s 4
(c) two or more one independent variable
23. The inverse Laplace transform of a function (d) no independent variable
1 34. The perimeter of the triangle whose vertices are
F(s) = is given by- (1, 0), (2, 3) and (4, 1) are ( )
s(s 1)
(a) f(t) = sin t (b) f(t) = et sin t (a) 5 2 26 (b) 26 5
(c) f(t) = et (d) f(t) = 1 et (c) 6 26 7 (d) 7 26
2 2
24. The equation x + y + 2gx + 2fy + c represents a circle uur uur uur uur uur uur
having radius- 35. The value of m when 2i mj 3k and 2i 3j 4k are
perpendicular ios
(a) g2 f 2 c (b) g2 f 2 c
(a) m = 8 / 3 (b) m = 8 / 3
(c) (g c) 2 (f c) 2 (d) (g c) 2 (f c) 2 (c) m = 3 / 8 (d) m = 3 / 8

r r 3 4 x 7
25. Find the angle between two vectors a and b and 36. Solve for x and y if
r r 4 3 y 1
magnitudes 1 and 2 respectively and a . b 1 (a) x = 1, y = 1 (b) x 1, y = 1
(a) 30 degrees (b) 60 degrees (c) x 1, y 1 (d) None of these
(c) 45 degrees (d) zero degrees
37. The angle between the pair of straight lines x2 2xy +
26. Find the distance between two points A(3, 4) and y2 = 0
B (3, 4) (a) 45 (b) 30
(a) 0 (b) 10 (c) 120 (d) 90
(c) 100 (d) 10 38. In complex numbers, the value of i37 =
(a) 37i (b) i
2 3 (c) i (d) 37i
27. Find the inverse of
4 5 39. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 140 days.
After 560 days, 1 g of element will reduce to..
2 3 5 3 (a) 1/2 g (b) 1/4 g
(a) 4 5 (b)
4 2 (c) 1/8 g (d) 1/16 g

1 5 3 40. In majority of instruments damping is provided by


(c) (d) Inverse not exists (a) fluid friction (b) spring
2 4 2
(c) eddy currents (d) All of these
28. The Unity matrix is also called 41. When measuring phase angle between two waves using
(a) identity matrix (b) binary matrix a CRO, the time base generator is connected to
(c) null matrix (d) None of these (a) X Plate (b) Y plate
29. The residue of z cos 1/z at z = 0 is (c) both X and Y plates (d) neither X nor Y plates
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/3 42. Electron Volt is unit of
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/2 (a) Current (b) Potential
30. Find the net area between y = sin x and the x-axis (c) Energy (d) Magnetic Force
between the values x = 0 and x = 2n. 43. The dimensional formula of Plank constant is
(a) 4 (b) 3 (a) [MLT] (b) [MT1L2]
(c) 2 (d) 0 2 2
(c) [MT L ] (d) [MT2L2]
34 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

44. The Theory that no two electrons in an atom can have (a) multiply by 1.8 and add 32
identical values of the four quantum numbers is known (b) subtract 32 and divide by 1.8
as (c) multiply by 32 and add 1.8
(a) Hund's Rule (b) Bohr's theory (d) subtract 1.8 and divide by 32
(c) Autbau's Principle (d) Pauli's principle 56. The unit used to measure the supersonic speed is
45. The bending nature if light around the corners of (a) knots (b) Mach
obstacles is called (c) Richter (d) Hertz
(a) Refraction (b) Reflection 57. The energy required to move 120 Coulomb through 5
(c) Diffraction (d) None of these V is
46. The phenomenon used in the optical fiber is (a) 60 J (b) 600 J
(a) Difraction (c) 4.8 J (d) 24 J
(b) Refraction
58. The current in an inductor changes from 0 to 200 mA
(c) Total internal Reflection
in 4 ms and induces a voltage of 100 mV . The value of
(d) Polarisation
inductor is
47. Commonly used Laser in MB_Computer printers is (a) 2 mH (b) 0.5 mH
________ (c) 8 mH (d) 4 mH
(a) He-Ne Gas (b) Ruby
59. Which of the following is statements is incorrect?
(c) Semiconductor (d) All of these
(a) The unit of Magnetic field is Ampere/m
48. Laser light is intense because (b) The unit for magnetomotive force is Ampere-turns
(a) it has very less number of Photons that in phase (c) The unit for magnetic flux density is Weber
(b) it has very less number of Photons that are not in (d) The unit of permeability is Henry/meter
phase
60. Twelve 6 W resistors are used as edge to form a cube.
(c) it has very large number of Photons that are in
The resistance between two diagonally opposite corners
phase
of the cube is-
(d) it has very large number of Photons that are not in
(a) 5/6 W (b) 6/5 W
phase
(c) 5 W (d) 6 W
49. An Isotope without any Neutron is
61. Resistance of a wire is r ohms.The wire is stretched to
(a) Trituim (b) Deuterium
double its length, and its radius is halfed then its
(c) Protium (d) None of these
resistance in ohms is
50. In a closed organ pipe ____ is formed end and _______ (a) r/2 (b) 4r
is formed at the open end (c) 8r (d) r/4
(a) node, antinode (b) antinode, node 62. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f in a conductor
(c) vibration, oscillation (d) oscillation, vibration depends on the
51. Intensify of light is due to (a) amount of flux cut
(a) super position of two waves (b) amount of flux linkages
(b) Doppler effect (c) rate of change of flux linkages
(c) diffraction (d) flux denity of the magnetic field
(d) none of these 63. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 hz. Its angular
52. The frequency of tunning fork can be determined by frequency is ..radian/second
(a) magnetic tape (b) modulator (a) 50/n (b) 50/2n
(c) sonometer (d) reed instrument (c) 50 n (d) 100 n
53. Mass and weight __________ 64. The energy required to charge a 10 F capacitor to 100
(a) are same quantities V is
(b) Are different quantities (a) 0.10 J (b) 0.05 J
(c) No relation between them (c) 5 109 J (d) 10 109 J
(d) All of these 65. The relative permeability of iron is of the order of
54. The phenomenon of bending of light at the surface of (a) 0 (b) 10+4
separation of two media having different R.I is called (c) 1 (d) 104
(a) Deflection of Light (b) Reflection of Light 66. A current flows in a conductor from east to west. The
(c) Refraction of Light (d) Absorption of Light direction of magnetic fiels at a point above the conductor
55. To convert Celsius (Centigrade) to Fahrenheit
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 35

is (a) excessive heat production at collector terminal


(a) toward north (b) toward south (b) distortion in output signal
(c) toward east (d) toward west (c) faulty location of the load line
67. Capacitance of a Capacitor (d) heavy loading of the emitter terminal
(a) Increases with increase in Overlapping Area of 77. The maximum number of electrons which the M-shelll
Plates of an atom can contain is
(b) Increases with increase in relative permittivity of (a) 32 (b) 8
the dielectric (c) 18 (d) 50
(c) Increase with decreases in distance betwwen the 78. Current flow in a semiconductor depends on the
plates phenomenon of
(d) All of these (a) drift (b) diffusion
68. The Energy provided by Ideal Voltage Source when the (c) recombination (d) All of these
Load is Open Circuit
79. Earth breaker Circuit uses
(a) Zero (b) Infinite
(a) Polarized Relay (b) Reed Relay
(c) Unity (d) Not specific
(c) Latching Relay (d) Machine Tool Relay
69. At electric Breakdown 80. The conductivity of the semiconductor
(a) conductor become insulator
(a) does not depend on temperature
(b) Insulator becomes Conductor
(b) decreases with rise in temperature
(c) Semiconductor becomes conductor
(c) increases with rise in temperature
(d) Conductor becomes superconductor
(d) first increases and then decreases with rise in
70. Earth potential is taken as temperature
(a) zero (b) that of supply
81. Hall effect can be used to measure
(c) infinite (d) none of these
(a) electric field intensity
71. In Fleming's Left hand rule, Thumb always represent (b) magnetic field intensity
direction of (c) carrier concentration
(a) current flow (b) induced emf (d) none of these
(c) magnetic field (d) mechanical force
82. Potential difference has the unit of
72. To convert a galvanometer into voltmeter, the value (a) charge (b) power
and type of connection of the resistance to be connected (c) energy (d) none
with should be 83. If the relative permitivity of the medium increases, the
(a) low and parallel (b) high and parallel electric intensity at a point due to a given charge
(c) low and series (d) high and series (a) decreases (b) increases
73. A 40 W tube light is in parallel with a room heater on a (c) remains the same (d) none
main line. What happens when the light is switched 84. The stabilization factor "Sico" of Fixed bias circuit is
off. (a) Sico = (1 + ) (b) Sico = 1
(a) the heater output remains the same (c) Sico = (d) None
(b) the heater output is larger
(c) the heater output is smaller 85. The most stable sine wave oscillator with most simple
(d) none circuit is
(a) Colpits (b) Armstrong
74. The Battery will get warm, when we try to send too
(c) Phase-shift Circuit (d) Crystal
much current thorugh battery. This is mainly due to
(a) Battery manufacturing defect 86. In a forward biased p-n diode, the injected hole current
(b) Due to defect of connected Load in the n-junction is proportion to (Where Q is the total
(c) Internal Resistance of the Battery stored charge)
(d) None (a) 1/Q (b) Q
(c) Square root of Q (d) Cube root of Q
75. MOSFET is _____________ controlled device
(a) Voltage 87. The main drawback of a JFET is its
(b) Current (a) high input impedance
(c) Voltage and Current both (b) low input impedance
(d) Cannot be controlled (c) higher noise
(d) lower gain
76. Improper biasing of a transistor leads to
36 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

88. Which of the following circuits is used as a comparator 99. Master-slave configuration is used in FF to
(a) Astable multivibrator (a) increase its clocking rate
(b) Bistable multivibrator (b) reduces power dissipation
(c) Monostable multivibrator (c) eliminates race around condition
(d) Schmitt trigger (d) improves its reliability
89. The sampling unit in an automatic voltage regulator is 100. The number of comparisions carried out in a 4 bit
generally in the form of flashtype A/D converter is
(a) a Zener diode (b) a potentiometer (a) 16 (b) 15
(c) a transistor (d) a silicon diode (c) 4 (d) None of these
90. If a transistor is operated in such a way that output 101. Depth of an Arithmetic Circuit is
current flow for 60 degree of the input signal, the it is (a) Number of Gates in it
(a) Class A operation (b) Class B operation (b) Length of the longest path in it
(c) Class C operation (d) None of these (c) Sum of Number of Gates and Length
(d) None of these
91. The maximum speed of electronic switch can be
(a) 104 operations per second 102. Resolution of Analog to Digital Converter ranging from
(b) 102 operations per second 5V to +5V with 8 Bits coding is
(c) 103 operations per second (a) 3.9V (b) 0.39V
(d) 109 operations per second (c) 3.9 mV (d) 39 mV
92. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most 103. Which logic gate is similar to the function of two
important consideration is parallel switches?
(a) forward characteristic (a) AND (b) NAND
(b) doping level (c) OR (d) NOR
(c) reverse characteristic
104. The base or radix of a hexadecimal system is :
(d) PIC rating
(a) 2 (b) 3
93. For a four-input OR gate the number of input condition, (c) 8 (d) 16
that will produce HIGH output are
105. The logic performed by the circuit shown below is
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 15 (d) 0
1
94. The minimum number of 2-to-1 multiplexers required
to realize a 4-to-1 multiplexers is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 2
95. TTL circuits with active pull-up are preferred because (a) NAND (b) AND
of their suitability for (c) Ex. OR (d) None of these
(a) wire-And Operation
(b) bus operated system 106. The number of 4:1 MUX required to make 64:1 MUX
(c) wired logic operation is
(d) resonable dissipation and speed of operation (a) 16 (b) 64
(c) 20 (d) 21
96. The resolution of an n-bit D/A converter with a
maximum input of 5V is 5mV. The value of n is 107. Hexadecimal number system is
(a) 8 (b) 9 (a) an obsolete system no longer in use
(c) 10 (d) 11 (b) widely used in analyzing and programming
microprocessors
97. (1111.11)2 equals (c) used in calculators only
(a) 1.1010 (b) 0.7510 (d) none of these
(c) 15.310 (d) 15.7510
108. A master slave JK flip-flop consists of
98. Triggering action can be obtained in a JK FF by joining (a) a cascade of two SR flip-flops
(a) J and K points to ground (b) a JK flip-flop connected in series with a D flip-
(b) J point to X and K to X flop
(c) J and K points to positive supply (c) two SR flip-flops connected in parallel
(d) J point to positive supply (d) an SR flip-flop and a T flip-flop
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 37

109. The logic which has the highest speed is 120. A wheatstone bridge has ratio of arms of 1000 ohm
(a) DTL (b) RTL and 100 ohm, the standard resistance arms consists 4
(c) ECL (d) TTL decade resistance boxes of 1000,100,10, 1 ohm steps.
110. A n-stage ripple counter will count up to The maximum and minimum values of unknown
(a) 2n (b) 2n 1 resistance which can be determined with this set up is
(c) n (d) 2n + 1 (a) 111100 ohm, 1 ohm
(b) 11110 ohm, 10 ohm
111. Watt meter is an instrument which measures (c) 111100 ohm, 10 ohm
(a) instantanoues power (b) average power (d) none of these
(c) apparent power (d) reactive power
121. Dummy coil in a d.c. generator is provided to reduce
112. A balanced 3-phase star connected load draws power ___________
from a 440 V supply. The two wattmeters connected (a) mechanichal unbalance
indicate W1 = 4.2 kW and W2=0.8 kW. Calculate the (b) hysteresis losses
current in the circuit in Ampers (c) armature reaction
(a) 10.731 (b) 10.137 (d) tendency of reversal
(c) 10.271 (d) 10.371
122. If the flux of a dc motor approached zero ___________
113. Induction motor rotor always rotate at a speed _____ (a) its speed will approach zero
than synchronous speed (b) the motor will tend to run at infinite speed
(a) same (b) greater (c) the motor will stop
(c) less (d) infinite (d) its speed will remain unchanged
114. An RLC series circuit is said to be inductive if 123. Aluminium is not used as winding wire for the armature
(a) L > 1/C (b) L = 1/C of d. c. machine because
(c) L < 1/C (d) L = C (a) Aluminium has low resistivity
115. The Battery Capacity is expressed in (b) Of large winding space required by Aluminium
(a) watts (b) amps conductor
(c) volts (d) Ampere-Hours (c) Of low thermal conductivity of Aluminium
(d) Of high cost of Aluminium
116. In a balanced 3-phase 400V circuit, the line current is
115.5 A. When the power is measured by two wattmeter 124. The data transfer rate of a modem is measured in-
method, one meter reads 40kW and the other zero.what (a) bytes per second (b) baud rate
is the power factor of the load (c) bits per second (d) hertz
(a) 1 (b) 0.5 125. Companding is used in PCM to
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.8 (a) Reduce Bandwidth
117. In a synchronous machine when the rotor speed (b) Reduce Power
becomes more than the synchronous speed during (c) Increase S/N ratio
hunting, the damping bars develop (d) Get almost uniform S/N ratio
(a) synchronous motor torque 126. If the value of a resistor creating thermal noise is
(b) d.c. motor torque doubled, the noise generated is
(c) induction motor torque (a) halved (b) doubled
(d) induction generator torque (c) unchanged (d) slightly unchanged
118. In the analysis of a vacuum tube circuit, we generally 127. In PCM system Encoder
use ______________ Theorem (a) assignes quantized values
(a) superposition (b) Norton's (b) changes quantized value to binary value
(c) Thevenin's (d) Reciprocity (c) changes quantized value to numerical value
119. A dc circuit can be represented by an internal voltage (d) Changes numerical values to binary values
source of 50 v with an output resistance of 100 kohm. 128. Intermediate frequency used in commercial Medium
In order to achieve 99 percent accuracy for voltage Wave Super Heterodyne receiver is
measurement across its terminals, the voltage (a) 455 KHz (b) 10.7 MHz
measuring device should have (c) 38.9 MHz (d) 1450 KHz
(a) a resistance of atleast 10M ohm
(b) a resistance of 100 K ohm 129. What part of 192.168.10.51 is the Network ID,
(c) a resistance of atleast 10 ohm assuming a default subnet mask?
(d) none of these (a) 192 (b) 192.168
(c) 192.168.10 (d) 192.168.10.51
38 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

130. In a radio receiver, which of the following stages does 140. The z-parameters of the shown T-network im Figure
not need alignment ___________ given by
(a) TRF stage (b) IF stage 5 12
(c) antenna input stage (d) audio stage
1 2
131. The standard value of sampling rate of audio frequency
signal is ______________
(a) 4000 samples per second
8
(b) 8000 samples per second
(c) 10000 samples per second 1 2
(d) 16000 samples per second (a) 13, 8, 8, 20 (b) 13, 20, 8, 8
(c) 20, 13, 8, 8 (d) 8, 8, 13, 20
132. In tropospheric scatter links, it is necessary to have
_______________ 141. An antenna is desired to operate on a frequency of 40
(a) high transmitting power MHz whose quality factor is 50. The bandwidth of
(b) parabolic antenna reflectors antenna is
(c) low noise receivers (a) 20 kHz (b) 80 kHz
(d) all of these (c) 800 kHz (d) 8 kHz

133. A scheme in which several channels are interleaved 142. LAN works on which of the following Layers?
and then transmitted together is known as (a) Physical
(a) Frequency division multiplexing (b) Datalink
(b) TDM (c) Datalink and Network
(c) a group (d) Physical and Datalink
(d) a super group 143. On a Power grid the Load is genrerally
134. Tunnel diode can also be used as ____ power (a) Capacitive (b) Resistive
microwave oscillators (c) Inductive (d) All of these
(a) High (b) Low 144. A two port network is reciprocal if _________
(c) Medium (d) irrespective of (a) Y11 = Y22 (b) Y12 = Y21
135. The parametric amplifier has ____ gain and ____ noise (c) Y12 = Y11 (d) Y22 = Y21
figure 145. In delta connected circuit, when one resistor is open,
(a) Low, high (b) low, low the power
(c) high, high (d) high, low (a) remains same (b) reduced by 1/3
136. The maximum speed at which the data can be (c) reduced by 1/2 (d) increased by 1/2
transmitted on each channel of a standard PCM stream 146. Form factor is defined as
is (a) rms value/peak value
(a) 64 kbps (b) 128 kbps (b) peak value/rms value
(c) 2 Mbps (d) 4 Mbps (c) rms value/average value
137. A lossless transmission line is terminated in a short (d) peak value/average value
circuit. The minimum possible length of the line for 147. Magnitude of the impedance 4+3j is given by
which it appears as a short circuit at its input terminals (a) 7 ohms (b) 1 ohms
is (c) 12 ohms (d) 5 ohms
(a) /2 (b) /4
148. Two resistances R1 and R2 when connected in series
(c) (d) 2
give an equivalent resistance of 9 ohms and 2 ohms
138. Inductance and capacitance per unit length of a lossless when connected in parallel. The value of R1 & R2 are
transmission line are 250 nH/m and 0.1 nF/m (a) 3 ohms & 9 ohms (b) 3 ohms & 6 ohms
respectively. The velocity of the wave propagation and (c) 6 ohms & 1.5 ohms (d) 9 ohms & 1 ohms
characteristic impedance of the transmission line are
149. In a series RC circuit, the current ____ the voltage by
respectively
an angle ____ degrees.
(a) 2 108 m/s, 100 (b) 3 108 m/s, 50
(a) lags, of 45
(c) 2 108 m/s, 50 (d) 3 108 m/s, 100
(b) lags, of 0
139. The Characteristic Impedance of a low pass filter in (c) leads, between 0 and 90
attenuation Band is (d) leads, of 90
(a) 0 (b) Real value
150. To increase Q factor of a coil, the wire should be-
(c) Complex quantity (d) Purely imaginary
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 39

(a) long (b) thin 162. Murray, Varley and Fisher loop tests are used for
(c) thick (d) long and thin (a) short circuit fault in cables
151. Two ammeters A and B both 0-10 A have internal (b) open circuit fault in the cables
resistance of 1 and 0.5 respectively. They are (c) short circuit and ground fault in cables
connected in parallel. If total current is 15 A, then (d) open circuit and ground fault in cables
(a) IA = IB = 7.5 A (b) IA = 5 A, IB = 10 A
1 0.5s
(c) IA = 10 A, IB = 5 A (d) IA = 9 A, IB = 6 A 163. The transfer function represent a
1 s
152. The input impedance of CRO is about- (a) Lag network
(a) 0 (b) 10 (b) Lead network
(c) 100 (d) 1 M (c) Laglead network
153. To measure dielectric loss you would use- (d) Proportional controller
(a) Anderson bridge (b) Kelvin Bridge 164. The gain margin (in dB) for the system with open-loop
(c) Schering bridge (d) Maxwell's bridge
2(1 s)
154. The accurate voltmeter must have a resistance of transfer function G(s)H(s) is
s2
(a) Very low value (b) low value
(c) Very high value (d) none of these (a) (b) 0
(c) 1 (d)
155. A voltmeter having sensitivity of 1000 ohm/v reads its
150V scale when connected across unknown resistance 165. For a unity feedback control system the openloop
in series with a milliamter neglect the resistance of transfer function G(s)=10 (s+2)/s 2 (s+1) find
miliammeter when milli ammter reads 5 mA the acceleration error constant
millimeter will be (a) 10 (b) 20
(a) 0.1333 (b) 0.1566 (c) (d) 0
(c) 0.0333 (d) 0.0111 166. The number of sign changes in the first coloumn of the
156. Photo conductive cell is used for Routh's array denotes
(a) high frequency application (a) the number of zeros of the system in Right half of
(b) medium frequency application s-plane
(c) low frequency application (b) the number of zeros of the system in left half of
(d) all of these splane
(c) the number of open loop poles in Right half of
157. A aquadag is used in a CRO to collect __________ s-plane
(a) secondary emission electrons (d) the number of roots of characteristic equation in
(b) primary electrons Right half of s-plane
(c) both primary and secondary emission electrons
(d) none of these 167. The noise figure of an amplifier is 3 dB. Its noise
temperature will be about
158. The effective resistance of a coils at high frequencies is (a) 145 K (b) 290 K
more than its d.c. resistance on account of __________ (c) 280 K (d) 870 K
(a) skin effects (b) proximitiy effects
(c) eddy current loses (d) All of these 168. The response of second order system is oscillatory when
damping ratio is ______________
159. A triangular wave shape is obtained ______________ (a) 1 (b) 0
(a) by differentiating a sine wave (c) > 1 (d) 0 < < 1
(b) by integrating a sine wave
(c) by integrating a square wave 169. In a system if the poles lie off the real axis then the
(d) by differencing a square wave system is ________
(a) over damped (b) under damped
160. A megger is a device used for measuring (c) critically damped (d) none of these
(a) Extremely high current
(b) Extremely high voltage 170. A system having G(s)=1/(s+2)(s+5) and H(s)=10/s is
(c) Extremely high resistance of type
(d) Extremely low resistance (a) N = 1 (b) N = 1
(c) N = 2 (d) N = 3
161. Q meter works on the principle of
(a) Series resonant circuit 171. In an open loop control system
(b) Parallel resonant circuit (a) output signal has no control on the input signal ect
(c) Resistive circuit (d) None of these on the input signal
40 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

(b) None of the variables have any eff (c) Reverse PN Diode
(c) System variables effect the output signal (d) None of these
(d) All of these 182. In a oscilloscole, the sensitivity can be increased by
172. Laplace transform of a unity function is _____________
(a) 1/s (b) 1/s2 (a) decreasing the value of accelerating voltage Ea
3
(c) 1/s (d) Zero (b) increasing the value of accelerating voltage Ea
173. The force of a mechanical body in motion is (c) increasing the separation between the deflecting
(a) Mass X displacement (b) Mass X velocity plates
(c) Mass X acceleration (d) Independent of mass (d) none of these
183. ASCII stands for _______
174. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of ___
(a) American standard computer for information
(a) RC parallel circuit (b) Motor generator set
interchange
(c) Amplidyne set (d) None of these
(b) American standard code for international
175. The disadvantage of the Routh's criteria are interchange
(a) It provides information about absolute stability only (c) American standard code for information
(b) It assumes that the system characteristic equation interchange
is available in the polynomial form (d) American standard computer for international
(c) All of these interchange
(d) None of these
184. Which of the following is a nonmaskable interrupt?
176. In an 8085 P system, the RST instruction will cause (a) RST 7.5 (b) RST 6.5
an interrupt- (c) TRAP (d) RST 5.5
(a) only if an interrupt service routine is not being
185. What will be the content of acculmulator after the
executed
execution of XRA A instruction?
(b) only if a bit in the interrupt mask is made 0
(a) 1
(c) only if interrupts have been enabled by an EI
(b) 0
instruction
(c) Depends upon the current content of the
(d) None of these
accumulator
177. Which one of the following is not a vectored intrerrupt (d) none of these
(a) TRAP (b) RST 7.5
186. The basic building block of sequential logic circuit is
(c) RST 3 (d) INTR
(a) gate (b) flip-flop
178. Pseudo instructions are basically (c) ALU (d) control unit
(a) False Instructions
(b) Instructions that are ignored by Micro processor 187. The 8085 MPU requires a power supply of
(c) Assembler Directives (a) +5V single (b) +5V dual
(d) Instructions that are traeted like comments (c) +12V single (d) +12V dual

179. Which of the following statement is true 188. Cache memory is inserted between
(a) The group of machine cycle is called state (a) the memory and CPU
(b) A machine cycle consists of one or more instruction (b) the secondary storage and main memory
cycles (c) the archival storage and secondary storage
(c) An instruction cycle is made up of machine cycles (d) the secondary storage and CPU
and a machine cycle is made up of number of states 189. URL stands for
(d) All of these (a) unique reference label
(b) uniform reference label
180. A compiler is
(c) uniform resource locator
(a) a combination of computer hardware
(d) unique resource locator
(b) a program which translates from one high level
language to another level 190. Modulator at transmitting side and detector at the
(c) a program which translates one high level language receving side
to machine language (a) which deals with analog signals and show digital
(d) none of these information,
181. Which of the following diodes can be uses as Voltage (b) which deals with analog signals and show digital
Regulator? information
(a) Normal PN Diode (b) Zener Diode (c) Modulator at receving side and detector at the
transmitting side
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 41

(d) a device which deals with digital signals only 196. A passive element in a circuit is one which
191. Personal Computer genrally should not be used for (a) supplies energy
(a) Online Shopping (b) Ticket Booking (b) receives energy
(c) Server (d) Internet (c) both supplies and receives energy
(d) none of these
192. LINUX is
(a) Open Source OS (b) Closed Source OS 197. Assembly language is
(c) It is not a OS (d) None of these (a) Low Level Language (b) Portable
(c) High Level Language (d) None of These
193. The permanent memeory is
198. The basic elements of a microprocessor are _______
(a) ROM (b) RAM
(a) ALU, control unit
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) None of these
(b) ALU, memory
194. What is full form of ALU? (c) ALU, memory, I/O device
(a) Allowed logic unit (d) ALU, control unit, memory
(b) Ascii logic unit
(c) Arithmetic logic unit 199. Which of the following are most difficult?
(d) Arithmetic least unit (a) Using of MSwindows
(b) Programming in UNIX
195. Data link layer in IEEE standard is divided into two (c) Programming in Assembly language
sub layers of (d) Programming in machine language
(a) LLC and MAC
200. The following is not correct in file names MS-DOS
(b) LLC and IP
(a) it can be alphanumeric
(c) MAC and IP
(b) the chcaracters can be more than eight
(d) no sublayers are in data link layer
(c) the limit of characters is eight
(d) can have special characters like ~, $, @
42 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (3) 95. (d) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (d) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (a)
111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (d) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (b)
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (c) 130. (d)
131. (b) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (b) 136. (d) 137. (a) 138. (b) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (b) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (c)
151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (c) 157. (a) 158. (d) 159. (c) 160. (d)
161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (b) 166. (d) 167. (d) 168. (d) 169. (b) 170. (b)
171. (c) 172. (d) 173. (d) 174. (d) 175. (c) 176. (c) 177. (d) 178. (c) 179. (c) 180. (c)
181. (b) 182. (a) 183. (c) 184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (a) 187. (d) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (b)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (a) 194. (c) 195. (a) 196. (b) 197. (a) 198. (a) 199. (d) 200. (b)
Examination held on 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
44 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

1. Pick the Synonym for the word "transparent" 13. Who became the first India born basketball player to
(a) verbose (b) involved be picked in National Basketball Association (NBA)?
(c) lucid (d) witty (a) Balbir Singh (b) Satnam Singh Bhamra
2. Pick the most suitable one word substitute for "A person (c) Balbir Chauhan (d) Ramesh Rathode
who does not believe in the existence of God" 14. Which company has been awarded the Leading Oil &
(a) Theist (b) Atheist Gas Corporate of the Year-2015 award?
(c) Ascetic (d) Agnostic (a) IOC (b) ONGC
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the (c) HPCL (d) BPCL
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make 15. Which of the following festivals is not a harvest festival
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. of India
(a) Onam (b) Pongal
The differences between two photographs will remove
(c) Bhogali Bihu (d) Lohri
with the help of Photoshop.
(a) should remove 16. M.F. Hussain is famous for
(b) could have been removed (a) Poet (b) Musician
(c) must have removed (c) Painter (d) Journalist
(d) had removed 17. Name the state whose boundaries touch maximum
4. Choose the odd one from given four choices : number of states
(a) Honey (b) Pearl (a) U.P. (b) M.P.
(c) Coral (d) Resin (c) Bihar (d) Jharkhand
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given: 18. Which day is celebrated as world BioFuel
(a) Excessive (b) Exccessive (a) 10-August (b) 15-September
(c) Exccesive (d) Excesive (c) 30-August (d) 10-September
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the 19. Oxygen in our blood is transported by a protein named
given words: BELITTLE (a) haemoglobin (b) keratin
(a) Criticize (b) Flatter (c) collagen (d) myoglobin
(c) Exaggerate (d) Adore 20. The oldest mountains in India are
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (a) Aravalis (b) Vindhyas
alternatives. India is planning _______ many atomic (c) Satpuras (d) Nilgiri Hills
plants to generate power.
(a) builds (b) to build x2
21. x 2 1
dx is equal to-
(c) building (d) be builds
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Church (a) x2 + log(x2 + 1) + c
(a) Churchs (b) Churches (b) log(x2 + 1) x2 + c
(c) Many Church (d) Churchies
(c) x2 log (x2 + 1) + c
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
(d) x2 + log (x2 + 1) + c
statement in the question: A person who talks too much
(a) Astute (b) Discerning 22. The angle between two lines whose direction cosines
(c) Garrulous (d) Perceptive are l1, m1, n1 and l2, m2, n2 is-
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the (a) sin1(l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2)
sentences: We tried hard, and in the end, we were able (b) cos1(l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2)
to_____________ Pradeep ______________us his car (c) tan1(l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2)
just for an hour
(a) make / lending (b) force / lend (d) cot1(l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2)
(c) get / to lend (d) have / lent 23. The Laplace transform of e2t sin 2 is _______.
11. In which year was the TRAI set up? 2s 2s
(a) 1997 (b) 1998 (a) (b)
(s 2) 2 22 (s 2) 2 42
(c) 1999 (d) 2000
12. The focal length of lens of the eye is under the control 2s 2s
(c) (d)
of (s 2) 2 42 (s 2) 2 22
(a) iris (b) pupil
(c) ciliary body (d) cornea
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 45

24. Find the area of the parallellogram whose adjacent sides 35. A system consisting of two particles moves on a plane.
are given by the vectors Then the degree of freedom is
(a) 42 (b) (a) 2 (b) 3
42
(c) 4 (d) 6
(c) 21 (d) 21
36. For a conservative holonomic dynamical system, the
25. For Multiplication of matrix which of the following is Lagrangian L, kinetic energy T and potential energy V
true are connected by
(a) All Square Matrices can be multiplied (a) L = T + V (b) L = TV
(b) M N matrix can be multiplied with M N matrix (c) L = 2T + V (d) L = 2TV
(c) M N matrix can be multiplied with N A matrix 37. The Fourier sin transform of xm1 is defined by
(d) None of these

26. The Complex number a + ib can be represented as (a) x m 1 sin sx (b) x m 1 sin sx
0
(z, ), where is
(a) Tan (b/a) (b) Inv (tan (b/a)) (c) x m 1 sin x (d) x m 1 sin x
0
(c) Sin (b/a) (d) Inv (Sin(b/a))
38. Lsin2 at equals
1 (a) 2a2 / s(s2 + 4a2) (b) 2a2 / s(s24 a2)
(c) 2s / (s2 + 4a2) (d) none of these
27. Fill up the blansk (3 4 7) 2 = 18
? 39. A spectrum line = 6000 of a star is found to be
shifted 0.1 A towards longer wavelengths from the
(a) 2 b) 4 position of the same line in terrestrial laboratory.
(c) 1 (d) 5 Assuming the shift to be due to Doppler effect, what is
the velocity of the star?
2
28. x 2 dx (a) 5 104 m/sec (b) 5 103 m/sec
t 4
(c) 2.5 10 m/sec (d) 2.5 103 m/sec
(a) 7/3 (b) 3/7
(c) 2/3 (d) 3/2 40. An induction wattmeter can be used for
(a) both D.C. and A.C. (b) D.C. only
29. Find the distance between the points (3, 2) and (6,4).
(c) A.C. only (d) any of the these
(a) 85 (b) 79 41. Intel 8085 is an _____ MUP
(c) 5 3 (d) 3 5 (a) 8 bit NMOS (b) 8 bit CMOS
(c) 8 bit PMOS (d) 8 bit HMOS
30. Find the radius of a circle whose diameter has endpoints
(3, 2) and (7, 8). 42. The transition elements are also known as the _____-
block elements.
(a) 5 (b) 5 2
(a) a (b) b
(c) (2, 3) (d) 52 (c) c (d) d
31. The partial differential equation 43. In MKS system, the unit of time is
5(2z / x2) + 6(2z / y2) = xy is classified as (a) hour (b) second
(a) elliptic (b) parabolic (c) minute (d) day
(c) hyperbolic (d) none of these 44. Light waves
32. The partial differential equation (a) can travel in perfect vaccum
(2z / x2) 5(2z / y2) = 0 is classified as (b) require air to travel through
(a) elliptic (b) parabolic (c) require an electric field to travel through
(c) hyperbolic (d) none of these (d) require a magnetic field to travel throug
33. The ring Z[x] is 45. When light passes from air to glass, it experiences
(a) a PID (b) a UFD change of
(c) a PID and a UFD (d) none of these (a) frequency/ wavelength
(b) frequency and speed
34. Given that y1(x) = x1 is one solution of 2x2y" + 3xy'
(c) wavelength and speed
y = 0, x > 0. Then the second linearly independent
(d) frequency, wavelength and speed
solution is
(a) x2 (b) x 46. ____________ is a dimensionless quantity.
(c) x1/2 (d) x2 (a) Gravity (b) Specific Gravity
46 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

(c) Density (d) acceleration 5 10 10 10


47. 1KWH is unit of
(a) Time (b) Power
(c) Energy (d) Stress Req 10 10 10 upto
48. Which of the following has no units?
(a) Thermal capacity (b) Magnetic susceptibility
(c) Angular acceleration (d) Moment of a magnet D
49. kg m/sec is the unit of (a) 11.86 (b) 10
(a) Impulse (c) 25 (d) 11.18
(b) Angular acceleration 59. Ohms law is not applicable for
(c) Capacity of condenser (a) Insulators (b) electrolytes
(d) Acceleration (c) vacum ratio valves (d) Arc lamps
50. The fundamental unit which is common in F.P.S and 60. If 120 C of charge passes through an electric conductor
M.K.S systems is in 60 sec, the current in the conductor is
(a) foot (b) sec (a) 0.5 A (b) 2A
(c) kilo gram (d) pound (c) 1A (d) 4A
51. Reflectivity of metals 61. In the above circuit the currents I1 and I2 are
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.50
(c) 0.95 (d) None 3 I1
52. Technique used to absorb noise by using soft and porous
surfaces is called
(a) acoustic protection (b) refraction
9A
(c) absorption (d) semi lunar protection
53. By exposure of electrons beams on atoms and observing 6 I2
their behavior upon fall of beam can help to determine (a) 6A, 3A (b) 3A, 6A
(a) charge (b) weight (c) 4.5A, 4.5A (d) 5A, 4A
(c) length (d) all
62. What is the form factor of pure sine wave?
54. Atomic spectra is an example of (a) 1.11 (b) 1.414
(a) line spectra (c) 1.732 (d) 0.5
(b) continuous spectra
(c) band spectra 63. Two uncoupled 3 H inductors are connected in parallel.
(d) both line spectra and continuous spectra Their total inductance is
(a) 1.5 H (b) 6 H
55. Electron in atom are held in atom due to (c) 12 H (d) 3H
(a) coulombs force
(b) nuclear force 64. The Energy Stored in a Capacitor can be represented
(c) atomic force as
(d) both coulombs force and nuclear force (a) CV2/2 (b) V2/2C
(c) C2V/2 (d) None of these
56. Work done on body equals to change in its kinetic energy
is known as 65. Faraday's Law is applicable
(a) work done principle (a) In all changing Magnetic fileds
(b) work-energy principle (b) In all moving conductors
(c) work-velocity principle (c) Only when the conductor is closed loop of thin wire
(d) speed-displacement principle (d) Only when magnetic field is of permanent magnet

57. A capacitor is charged by a constant current of 2 mA 66. In insulators


and results in a voltage increase of 12 V in a 10 sec (a) Internal Electric Charges flows freely with external
interval. The value of capacitance is- electric field
(a) 0.75 mF (b) 1.33 mF (b) Internal Electric Charges does not flow freely with
(c) 0.6 mF (d) 1.67 mF external electric field
(c) Internal Electric Charges flows along with external
58. What is the value of Req? electric field
(d) Internal Eelectric Charges flows opposite to
external electric field
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 47

67. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two 75. An n-type silicon bar 0.1 cm long and 100 m2 cros-
resistors is 12 ohms. One of the resistence wire breaks ssectional area has a majority carrier concentration of
and the effective resistance become 18 ohms. The 5 1020 /m3 and the carrier mobility is 0.13 m2/V-s at
resistence of the broken wire is 300 K. If charge of an electron is 1.6 1019 coulomb,
(a) 48 ohms (b) 18 ohms the resistance of the bar is-
(c) 36 ohms (d) 24 ohms (a) 106 Ohm (b) 107 Ohm
5
68. Voltage drop across 14.5 Ohm resester as in figure is (c) 10 Ohm (d) 104 Ohm

14.5 Ohm 26.5 Ohm 60 Ohm 76. Assume that the of transistor is extremely large and
VBE = 07. V, IC and VCE in the circuit shown in the
figure are-
5V

4 k 2.2 k

(+) 200V () +
(a) 29 V (b) 30.5 V VEC
(c) 14 V (d) 18 V
69. The total conductance of the circut below 1 k 300
10 Ohm

2 Ohm (a) I c = 1 mA, VCE = 4.7 V


(b) Ic = 0.5 mA, VCE = 3.75 V
(c) Ic = 1 mA, VCE = 2.5 V
(d) Ic = 0.5 mA, VCE = 3.9 V
1 Ohm 77. What is the range of an FET's input impedance?
(a) 13 (b) 1.6 (a) 10 to 1 k
(c) 6 (d) 2.5 (b) 1 k to 10 k
70. Norton's theorem is .. Thereni's theorem (c) 50 k to 100 k
(a) the same as (b) converse of (d) 1 M to several hundred M
(c) none of these (d) cannot say 78. Silicon is preferred for manufacturing zener diode
71. Power factor of a circuit can be improved by the use of because it
(a) choke coil (b) capacitor (a) is relatively cheap
(c) induction motor (d) none (b) needs lower doping level
(c) has higher temperature and current capacity
72. Domestic appliances are connected in parallel across
(d) has lower break-down voltage
AC mains because
(a) it is simple arrangement 79. A darlington pair and an emitter follower have the same
(b) operation of each appliance becomes independent (a) input impedance (b) current gain
of each other (c) voltage gain (d) power gain
(c) appliances have same current ratings 80. Seminconductor material have
(d) none of this (a) ionic bands (b) covalent bonds
73. A coil having an inductance of 150 mH is carrying a (c) mutual bonds (d) metallic bonds
current of 5 Amp. If the current is reduced to zero in 1 81. Silicon has Z=14, its outermost orbit is
milli seconds, the self-induced emf will be (a) partially filled (b) half filled
(a) 125V (b) 375V (c) completey occupied (d) empty
(c) 500V (d) 750V
82. Input impedance of BJT is
74. Kirchoff's Voltage Law is known as (a) Higher than that of FET
(a) Conservation of Charge (b) Lower than that of FET
(b) Conservation Energy (c) Depends upon the type of usage
(c) Both (d) None (d) Same as that of FET
48 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

83. Leakage current in the Silicon semicondcutor is in the 93. A master-slave flip flop has the characteristic that-
order of (a) change in the input is immediately reflected in the
(a) Amps (b) milli Amps output
(c) micro Amps (d) nano Amps (b) change in the output occurs when the state of the
84. In a N-channel JFET, Drain current is maximum when master is affected
Gate Voltage VGS is ______ (c) change in the output occurs when the state of the
(a) equal to + VDD (b) more than to + VDD slave is affected
(c) equal to "0 volts" (d) All of these (d) both the master and the slave states are affected at
the same time
85. Which of the following is true with respect to DC
Amplifier ( Direct coupled amplifier) 94. The ripple counter shown in the given figure works as
(a) Capable of amplifying DC signals a-
(b) is designed without use of any coupling capacitors
at input
(c) Poor Thermal stabilty J PresetQ J PresetQ J PresetQ
(d) All of these A B C
1 K Q 1 K Q 1 K Q
86. In a BJT, the base spreading resistance is of the order
Clock
of (a) mod-3 up counter
(a) 1 (b) 10 (b) mod-5 up counter
(c) 100 (d) 1000 (c) mod-3 down counter
87. Typically Ge transistors are operated over temperature (d) mod-5 down counter
range extending from
95. The Boolean experssion Y=A'B'C'D + A'BCD' +
(a) 25 C to + 175C (b) 65 C to + 75C
AB'C'D + ABC'D' can be minimized
(c) 65 C to + 175C (d) 25 C to + 75C
(a) Y=A'B'C'D + A'BC' + AC'D
88. Effect of cascading several amplifier stages is to (b) Y= A'B'C'D + BCD' + AB'C'D
(a) reduce the overall gain (c) Y= A'BCD' + B'C'D + AB'C'D
(b) reduce the overall frequency response (d) Y=A'BCD' + B'C'D + ABC'D'
(c) increase the overall gain and reduce the frequency
96. In a 3.5 digital voltmeter, the largest number that can
response
be read is
(d) decrease the overall gain and increase the frequency
(a) 999 (b) 1999
response
(c) 4999 (d) 9999
89. Schmitt trigger is also known as 97. For a 4096 8 EPROM, the number of address lines is
(a) squaring circuit (a) 14 (b) 12
(b) blocking oscillator (c) 10 (d) 8
(c) sweep circuit
(d) astable multivibrator 98. The ___________ gate is generally used to check for
or to generate the proper parity in a code.
90. Which of the following circuits is used is used for (a) NAND (b) NOR
production of delays (c) EX-NOR (d) EX-OR
(a) Astable multivibrator
(b) Bistable multivibrator 99. A circuit has an output that is determined by the present
(c) Monostable multivibrator input as well as previous output states, the circuit is
(d) Schmitt trigger known as
(a) mealey machine (b) moore machine
91. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn
(c) sequential circuit (d) None of these
junction are
(a) +ve terminal to p and ve terminal to n 100. Shifting the contents of a shift register, left by one place,
(b) ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n is equivalent to
(c) ve terminal to p and ve terminal to n (a) Dividing the contents by 10
(d) None of these (b) Dividing the contents by 2
(c) Multiplying the contents by 2
92. The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance (d) None of these
of a germanium crystal diode is about
(a) 1:1 (b) 100:1 101. CMOS circuits are extensively used for IC-chips
(c) 1000:1 (d) 40000:1 fabrication, mainly because of their extremely
(a) low power dissipation
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 49

(b) large packing density (a) iron (b) brass


(c) high noise immunity (c) mica (d) carbon
(d) low cost 115. Calculate the regulation of transformer in which ohmic
102. Simple Delay Circuit can be constituted by loss is 1% of the output and reactance drop is 5% of the
(a) Shift Registers (b) Flip Flops voltage, when the power factor is 0.8 Lag
(c) Multiplexer (d) All of these (a) 3.8% (b) 3.5%
103. FG in Hexadecimal Systems can be written in Binary (c) 1% (d) 5%
System as 116. The apparent power of AC Flow is measured in :
(a) 11111100 (a) Watts (b) Joules
(b) 11110011 (c) Volt-Amp (d) Amp-Hour
(c) 11111111
117. The RMS Output of Full wave rectifier is
(d) Not a valid Hexadecimal Number
(a) V (peak)/Sqrt(2) (b) V (peak)/Sqrt(n)
104. The bandwidth of an audio amplifier extends from 20 (c) V (peak)/n (d) None of these
Hz to : 118. Standard Motor Starter supplies ____________ initial
(a) 2000 Hz (b) 10000 Hz voltage for proper starting of the motor.
(c) 20000 Hz (d) 100000 Hz (a) Higher (b) Constant
105. How many bytes are there in binary number (c) Normal (d) Lower
1001101000111010?
119. In an ideal transformer the no load primary current I0
(a) 1 (b) 2
____________
(c) 3 (d) 4
(a) is in phase with V1
106. The diameter of an atom is (b) leads V1 by 90 degree
(a) 106 (b) 1010
(c) 10 15
(d) 1021 (c) lags V1 by 90 degree
(d) lags V1 behind 90 degree
107. The binary equivalent of decimal number 17 is
(a) 10000 (b) 01111 120. When the direction of power flow reverses, a
(c) 100001 (d) 11111 differentialy compounded DC motor becomes
______________
108. The Flip Flop which acts as Frequency divider is
(a) a shunt motor
(a) SR Flip Flop (b) D Flip Flop
(b) a series motor
(c) T Flip Flop (d) None
(c) a cumulatively compounded generator
109. Five memory chips of 16 4 size have their address (d) a differentially compounded generator
buses connected together. This system will be of size
121. The speed of 3 phase, 4 pole, 50 Hz induction motor
(a) 16 16 (b) 16 20
whose rotor in energysed from an independent 3 phase,
(c) 20 16 (d) 16 64
30 Hz supply, is__________RPM
110. The equipment uses Binary coded decimal (BC) (a) 600 (b) 2400
numbers is (c) either 'a' or 'b' (d) 900
(a) pocket calculator (b) electronic counter
122. The motor normally used for crane travel is
(c) digital voltmeter (d) all of these
______________
111. The current drawn by a 120 V DC motor of armature (a) synchronous motor
resistance 0.5 and back emf 110 V is ____ ampere. (b) d.c. differentially compounded motor
(a) 20 (b) 240 (c) ward leonard controlled d.c. shunt motor
(c) 220 (d) 5 (d) a.c. slip ring motor
112. The power taken by a 3- load is given by the expression 123. In an induction motor for a value slip(s)=0, the torque
(T) is
(a) 3 VLIL cos (b) 3 VLIL cos (a) maximum
(c) 3 VLIL sin (d) 3 VLIL sin (b) zero
(c) minimum
113. A good tranformer must have voltage regulation as high (d) Twice the value of full torque
as possible
(a) True (b) False 124. What is the percentage power saving when the carrier
(c) Cannot be said (d) None of these and one of the sidebands are suppressed in an AM wave
modulated to a depth of 50%?
114. The brushes of a dc machine are made of
50 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

(a) 66.6% (b) 50% (b) they are very reliable


(c) 33.3% (d) 94.4% (c) the transmitting antennas are of convenient size
125. In PCM system, if the quantization levels are increased (d) interleaves pulses belonging to different
from 2 to 8, the bandwidth requirement will- transmission
(a) remain same (b) be doubled 135. Transposition of open wires in carrier systems is
(c) be tripled (d) become four times necessary to
126. The modulation inherently most noise resistant is- (a) avoid cross talk
(a) SSB supressed carrier (b) boost the signal levels
(b) frequency modulation (c) increase the band width
(c) pulse position modulation (d) None of these
(d) pulse code modulation 136. The following is analog media
(a) em (b) cable PCM
127. If the lower sideband overlaps the basebands, the
(c) OFC system (d) digital micro-wave
distortion is called
(a) Cross-Over distortion (b) Aliasing 137. Loading of a cable is done to
(c) Cross-talk (d) None of these 1. Increase its inductance
128. The ring modulator is generally used for generating 2. Increase its leakage resistance
3. Decrease its leakage resistance
(a) SSB/SC signal (b) ISI Signal
4. Achieve distortionless condition
(c) wideband signal (d) DSB /SC signal
(a) 1, 3 & 4 (b) 1 & 3 only
129. A duplexer is used to (c) 2 & 4 only (d) 1 & 4 only
(a) couple two antennas to a transmitter
138. The dynamic impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at
(b) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
resonance is
(c) prevent interference between two antennas
(a) C /LR (b) L/CR
connected to receiver
(c) R/LC (d) RLC
(d) uses same antenna for reception and transmission
without interference 139. In a transmission line terminated by characteristic
impedance, Zo
130. AGC voltage is applied to the stages which are
(a) The reflection is maximum due to termination
______________
(b) There are a large number of maximum and
(a) before the detector stage
minimum on the line.
(b) after the detector stage
(c) The incident current is zero for any applied signal
(c) either before or after the detector stage
(d) There is no reflection of the incident wave
(d) none of these
131. PDM is generated by employing ______________ 140. Inductive Impedance of a load increases with
(a) monostable multivibrator (a) Increase in Frequency
(b) schmitt trigger (b) Decrease in Frequency
(c) free running multivibrator (c) Increase in Amplitude
(d) JK flip flop (d) Decrease in Amplitude

132. Which of the following microwave tube amplifiers uses 141. Phase Modulation is gernerally not used for
an axial magnetic field and radial electric field? transmission because
(a) CFA (a) It needs higher power
(b) Coaxial magnetron (b) it needs large Antennaa Sizes
(c) Travelling wave magnetron (c) It is complex for decoding
(d) Reflex klystron (d) It does not carry much information
142. Voltage Controlled Oscillator is used for
133. The Hartley law states that _______________
(a) Decoding FM signal
(a) the maximum rate of information transmission
(b) Generating FM Signal
depends on the channel bandwidth
(c) Decoding AM Signal
(b) the maximum rate of information depends on the
(d) Generating AM Signal
depth of modulation
(c) redudancy is essential 143. The Characteristic impedance of transmission line
(d) only binary code may be used (a) Increases with increase in length
134. VLF waves are used for some types of services because (b) Decreases with length of line
(a) of the low power required (c) Independent of Line Length
(d) None of these
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 51

144. Characteristic impedance is given by _____________ (b) Using Optimum Bandwidth


(c) Maximize Intersymbol Interference
(a) Z 0 (OCSC) (b) Z 0 (SCSC)
(d) Simplicity of Circuits
(c) Z 0 (OCSC) (d) Z 0 1 / (OCSC) 155. PID controller uses _______________ Between input
and output
145. Zo of constant K filter in the pass band B is (a) Proprtional Relation (b) Integral Relation
_____________ (c) Differential Relation (d) All of these
(a) a pure inductance
(b) a pure resistance 156. In measurement system, which of the following are
(c) a pure capacitance undesirable static characteristic?
(d) a complex impedance (a) sensitivity and accuracy
(b) drift, static error and dead zone
146. In an A.C. resistive circuit the current _________ (c) drift, static error, dead zone and nonlinearity
voltage by__________ degrees (d) reproducibility and nonlinearity
(a) lags, 90 (b) leads, 90
(c) lags, 0 (d) lags, 30 157. A crircuilar piece of specimen has surface resistance
RS. Its diameter is d and the thickness is t. The surface
147. The output of a lead acid cell is resistivity S of the specimen is given by ___________
(a) 1.25V (b) 1.35V (a) n d2 RS/t (b) Rs/tn d
(c) 2.2V (d) 6V (c) Rs/t/n d2 (d) n dRs/t
148. The time constant of a capacitive circuit is 158. The rotor of a synchro transmitter ________
(a) CR (b) C/R (a) uses a salient pole type of construction
(c) wC/R (d) wCR (b) uses a cylindrical type of construction
149. RMS value is related to peak value as (c) may use either salient pole or cylindrical type of
(a) RMS value = 0.707 peak value construction
(b) RMS value = 1/0.707 peak value (d) none of these
(c) RMS value = 1.414 peak value 159. Maxwell's inductancecapacitance A.C. bridge is used
(d) RMS value = 1/1.414 peak value for measurement of inductance of ____________
150. In figure, Z a = 10050, Z b = 30090 and (a) low and medium Q coils
Zc = 2000. For balanced condition, Zd will be- (b) high Q coils
(c) low Q coils
Za Zb (d) medium Q coils
160. The most basic of all instruments is
D (a) The Current meter
U
(b) The Voltmeter
(c) The Multimeter
Zc Zd (d) The Oscilloscope

(a) 600 40 (b) 600 140 161. A 100 micro Amp, 3000 ohm meter movement, the
(c) 600 140 (d) 150 40 shunt resistance for double the current range is ____
(a) 100 ohm (b) 1,500 ohm
151. The Y plates of a CRO are excited by a voltage 2 sin (c) 3,000 ohm (d) 60K ohm
100 t and the X plates are not connected. The display
would be 162. A voltmeter must have a very high internal resistance
(a) a vertical line (b) a horizontal line so that the
(c) A sine wave (d) A slant line (a) accuracy is high
(b) resolution is high
152. The operation of a Thermocouple is based on (c) meter draws minimum current
(a) Thomson effect (b) Seebeck effect (d) loading is maximum
(c) Peltier effect (d) Faraday's laws
163. For a second order system settling time is Ts = 7 s and
153. A tachometer encoder has peak time is Tp = 3 s. The location of poles are
(a) one output (b) two outputs (a) 0.97 j0.69 (b) 0.69 j0.97
(c) three outputs (d) none of these (c) 1.047 j0.571 (d) 0.571 j1.047
154. Pulse Shaping in line coding is used for 164. The Nyquist plot of a openloop transfer function
(a) Using Optimum Power Consumption G(jw)H(jw) of a system encloses the (1, j0) point. The
gain margin of the system is
52 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

(a) less than zero (b) greater than zero 175. The margin between actual gain and critical gain is a
(c) zero (d) infinity measure of
165. The constant M circle for M=1 is the (a) Relative stability (b) Absolute stability
(a) staright line x=1/2 (b) Critical point (1, j0) (c) Sensitivity (d) Gain margin
(c) circle with r=0.33 (d) circle with r=0.67 176. The Programmable interrupt controller is required to-
166. The unity feedback system is characterised by an open (a) handle one interrupt request
loop transfer function G(s)=K/s(s+10). Determine the (b) handle one or more interrupt requests at a time
gain K, so that the system will have (c) handle one or more interrupt requests with a delay
(a) 10 (b) 100 (d) handle no interrupt request
(c) 1000 (d) 0.1 177. The number of hardware interrupts present in 8085 are
(a) 5 (b) 8
167. The impulse response of an R-L circuit is
(c) 10 (d) 16
(a) rising exponential function
(b) decaying exponential function 178. The correct sequence of steps to perform "Fetch"
(c) step function opearation in microprocessor is
(d) parabolic function 1. Opcode is decoded
168. A communication channel with additive whit Gaussian 2. Places the address of first byte of instruction on
the address bus
noise, has a bandwidth of 4 KHz and SNR of 15. Its
3. Gets opcode on the databus
channel capacity is
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 1
(a) 1.6 Kbps (b) 16 Kbps
(c) 2, 1 (d) 2, 3, 1
(c) 32 Kbps (d) 256 Kbps
179. SD RAM refers to
169. Feed back in an amplifier always helps to ___________
(a) Static DRAM (b) Synchronous DRAM
(a) increase its gain
(c) Semi DRAM (d) All of these
(b) decrease its input impedance
(c) stabilize its gain 180. A stack is normally used in digital computers to store
(d) control its output the return address at the time of a subroutine call
because
170. Gain cross over fequency is that frequency at which
(a) Stacks are nonvolatile memories
_______
(b) Stacks have large capacity
(a) |GH (j )| = 0 (b) |GH (j )| = 1
(c) Information in a stack cannot be altered by other
(c) |GH (j )| = (d) |GH(j )| = 1/ 2 instructions
(d) Stacks permit easy nesting of subroutine
171. Magnetic amplifiers are used for
(a) Voltage amplification 181. Multiplexing of address and data lines is used in
(b) Current amplification (a) Intel 8086 (b) Z-80
(c) Power amplification (c) 6502 (d) MC-68000
(d) All of these 182. In relational model, the data structures are
172. The loading effect on the potentiometer can be avoided (a) simple
by the use of (b) compiled
(a) Alternator (c) both simple & compiled
(b) Battery (d) All of these
(c) Constant current source 183. For fibre optical sencsors ___________
(d) Trimmer (a) multimode transmission is used
173. The frequency domain and time domain analysis are (b) single mode transmission is used
related through (c) both single and multimode transmission is
(a) Fourier transformation commonly used
(b) Laplace transformation (d) none of these
(c) All of these 184. MPU connections to the data bus are considered
(d) Z-transformation ______________
174. Transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of (a) input
output to input in (b) output
(a) Laplace transform (b) Z-transform (c) both inputs and outputs
(c) Fourier transform (d) Single algebraic form (d) none of these
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 53

185. In 8085 MPU, the flag flip flops have ______________ 193. The contents of information are stored in
status indicators. (a) memory data register
(a) 5 (b) 2 (b) memory address registerr
(c) 4 (d) 1 (c) memory access register
186. The 8085 is an enhancement of the popular INTEL (d) memory arithmetic register
____________ microprocessor. 194. DMA channel facilitates data to move into and out of
(a) 8080 (b) 8155 the system ____________
(c) 8355 (d) 8086 (a) on first come first serve basis
187. Which of the following is a DMA controller? (b) without program intervention
(a) Intel 8257 (b) Intel 8259 (c) without subroutine
(c) Intel 8255 (d) Intel 8253 (d) with equal time delay
195. In a compiler, the module that checks every character
188. The address bus of 8085 MPU is a group of
of the source text is called ______
(a) 8 lines (b) 12 lines
(a) the code generator (b) the code optimizer
(c) 16 lines (d) 32 lines
(c) the lexical analyzer (d) syntax analyzer
189. An I/O processor control the flow of information
between- 196. Dynamic memory cells are constructed using
___________
(a) cache memory and I/O devices
(a) transistors (b) MOSFETs
(b) main memory and I/O devices
(c) flip-flops (d) FETs
(c) two I/O devices
(d) cache and main memories 197. A program that can be used repeatedly throughout a
major program is called _
190. Which of the following services use TCP?
(a) subroutine (b) loop
1. DHCP
(c) program module (d) tempelate
2. SMTP
3. HTTP 198. A type of memory in which the stored data is not lost
4. TFTP when the power is turned off is called
5. FTP (a) megnetic memory (b) non volatail memory
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 5 (c) volatile memory (d) semiconductor memory
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
199. ADA is
191. The resultant binary of the decimal problem 49 + 1 = (a) machine code (b) assembly language
is __ (c) high level lanuguage (d) None of these
(a) 00110101 (b) 01010101 200. Extension in DOS files can have a maximum of
(c) 00110010 (d) 00110001 _______ characters
192. In high level programming language Pascal, each (a) 4 (b) 8
program statement ends with the (c) 2 (d) 3
(a) comma
(b) semicolon
(c) double quotation marks
(d) single quotation marks
54 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (h) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (d) 96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (b) 106. (b) 107. (b) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (d)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (c)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (d) 124. (d) 125. (c) 126. (d) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (a)
131. (a) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (a) 137. (d) 138. (b) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (b) 155. (d) 156. (c) 157. (d) 158. (a) 159. (d) 160. (b)
161. (d) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (a) 165. (a) 166. (b) 167. (b) 168. (c) 169. (d) 170. (b)
171. (b) 172. (b) 173. (b) 174. (b) 175. (c) 176. (b) 177. (a) 178. (d) 179. (b) 180. (d)
181. (a) 182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (c) 185. (a) 186. (a) 187. (a) 188. (d) 189. (b) 190. (b)
191. (c) 192. (b) 193. (a) 194. (b) 195. (c) 196. (b) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b) 200. (a)
Examination held on 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)

1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
56 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

1. Pick the Synonym for the word "SLUGGISH" (a) Jargon (b) Idiom
(a) active (c) Vernacular (d) Vocabulary
(b) energetic 10. Four parts of a sentence (P/Q/R/S) are given.
(c) inactive Arrange them in the right order to produce a correct
(d) suspicious sentence : providence had helped me/to retain my true
2. Which of the phrases (a), (b) and (c) given below should identity and/changed the course of my life/in the process
replace the phrase given in bold in the following (a) PSQR (b) PQSR
sentence to make the sentence grammatically (c) RSQP (d) PRQS
meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it 11. What is the name of the job portal brought under the
is and no correction is required, mark (d) as the answer. Common Services Centres initiative?
But in the hectic rush of events, both the military and (a) CSC Rozgarsahayata
civilian authorities will fail to make effective use of (b) CSC Rozgarduniya
the information they had collected. (c) CSC Rozgarmitra
(a) was failed in making effective use of (d) CSC Rozgarkaryalaya
(b) failed to make effective use of
(c) fails to make effective use of 12. Moti Masjid in the Red Fort, Delhi was Constructed by
(d) no correction required (a) Shershah
(b) Shahjahan
3. Mark the most appropriate substitute to fill the blanks (c) Aurangzeb
in the given description: (d) Bhahadurshah Zafar
His habits are very similar ______ mine
(a) Of (b) To 13. Which "Mobile App" has been launched by TRAI to
(c) On (d) With measure Mobile Internet speed
(a) SpeedAxis b) WhatSpeed
4. Choose the odd one from given four choices:
c) MySpeed d) MobileSpeed
(a) Radio (b) Stereo
(c) Gramophone (d) Televison 14. The present ISRO Chairman
(a) G Madhavan Nair
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given:
(b) K Radhakrishnan
(a) Obedeint (b) Obedient
(c) AS Kiran Kumar
(c) Obadeint (d) Obedeant
(d) None of these
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the
15. Who has been appointed as President of International
given words:
Cricket Council (ICC)?
(a) Influx (b) Homecoming
(a) Zaheer Abbas (b) Mustafa Kamal
(c) Return (d) Restoration
(c) Austin Garden (d) John Sheriff
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given 16. What are you doing? The most suitable answer to the
alternatives. question is
They ___________________ no notice of what people (a) I am in dark sleep
say about them (b) I am waiting for someone
(a) Make (b) Mind
(c) I was in dark sleep
(c) Take (d) Keep
(d) None of these
8. Change the direct narration to indirect narration : 17. Mahabharta was written by :
"If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you", he said to (a) Ved Vyas (b) Valmiki
her in a calm voice. (c) Tulsidas (d) None of these
(a) He said calmly that I shall shoot you if you don't
be quiet. 18. Which of the following is cold blooded animal?
b) He warned her calmly that he would shoot her if she (a) man (b) crow
didn't keep quiet. (c) lizard (d) tiger
(c) Calmly he warned her that be quiet or else he will 19. The longest National Highway in India runs from
have to shoot her. (a) Kolkata to Jammu
(d) He warned her to shoot if she didn't keep quiet (b) Bhopal to Kanyakumari
calmly. (c) Ambala to Nagarcoil
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the (d) Varanasi to Kanyakumari
statement in the question : 20. Which one of the following is described a the Fourth
Language which is confused and unintelligible Estate
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 57

(a) Executive (b) Legislature (a) the slopes of all four sides
(c) Press (d) Judiciary (b) the slopes of two opposite sides
21. Find the Inverse Laplace transform of f(p) = 1 / (p1) (c) the lengths of all four sides
(a) 1 (b) eat (d) both the lengths and slopes of all four sides
(c) cos at (d) cosh at 31. When proving that a triangle is a right triangle using
22. The maximum value of (1/x)x coordinate geometry methods, you must:
(a) e (b) e1/e (a) show that the slopes of two of the sides are negative
(c) (1/e)e (d) None of these reciprocals creating perpendicular lines and right
angles.
(b) show that the lengths of the sides satisfy the
23. In fourier series f(x) = a0 + n 1
{a n cos(nx) bn sin
Pythagorean Theorem, thus creating a right angle.
(nx)}, Euler formula is (c) both
1 (d) None
(a) a 0
2n
f (x)dx
32. If f(x) = 3x2, then F(x) =
(a) 6x (b) x3
(b) a 0 f (x)dx (c) x3 + C (d) 6x + C

1 33. A partial differential equation requires


2x
(c) a 0 f (x) sin(x)dx (a) exactly one independent variable
(b) two or more independent variables
(d) None of these (c) more than one dependent variable
24. The equation of the circle whose two diameters are (d) accurate and independent variable
x = 2y and 2x + y = 0 and radius = 5 is 34. If G is a cyclic group of order 24 and a2002 = an where
(a) x2 + y2 25 = 0 (b) x2 + y2 + 25 = 0 a G and 0 < n < 24. Then the value of n is
2 2
(c) x + y + 15 = 0 (d) x2 y2 25 = 0 (a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 10
3 5
25. The real part and imaginary part of are 35. Let g(x) = f(x) + f(1 x) and f(x) < 0 for all x (0, 1).
4 j 4 j
Then the interval in which g(x) is increasing is
(a) a = 32/17, 2/17 (b) 17/32, 17/2 (a) (1/2, 1) (b) 0, 1/2
(c) 17/32, 17/2 (d) None of the above (c) (0, 1/2) (1/2, 1) (d) None of these
d 36. The first iterated kernel of the kernel k(x,t)=e x+t ;
26. cosec hx a=0,b=1 is given by
dx
(a) cosec hx cot hx (b) cosec hx cot hx (a) 2ex+t (b) (1/2) ex+t
x+t
(c) sec hx cot hx (d) sec hx cot hx (c) e (d) (e2 1) ex+t

27. If is the angle between two lines whose slopes are m1 37. Mathematical Expectation of the product of two random
and m2, then tan = _________ variables is equal to the product of their expectations"
(a) m1 m2 (b) m1 + m2 is true for
(c) (m1 m2)/(1 + m1m2) (d) (m1 m2)/(1 m1m2) (a) any two random variables.
(b) if the random variables are independent.
28. Find the midpoint of the segment joining the points (c) if the covariance between the random variables is
(4, 2) and ( 8, 6). non zero.
(a) (6, 4) (b) ( 6, 4) (d) if the variance of the random variables are equal.
(c) (2, 2) (d) (2, 2)
38. Consider the group Z495 under addition modulo 495.
29. When proving that a quadrilateral is a trapezoid, it is (i) {0,99,198,307,406} is the unique subgroup of Z495
necessary to show of order 5.
(a) only one set of parallel sides (ii) {0,55,110,165,220,275,330,385,440} is the unique
(b) one set of parallel sides and one set of nonparallel subgroup of Z495 of order 9.
sides Then,
(c) one set of parallel sides and one set of congruent (a) (i) is true, but (ii) is false
sides (b) (ii) is true, but (i) is false
(d) two sets of parallel sides (c) both (i) and (ii) are true
30. When proving that a quadrilateral is a parallelogram (d) both (i) and (ii) are false
by using slopes, you must find:
58 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

39. A hydrogen atom is excited from n=1 to n=3. What is 51. Echo of sound is more prominent if surface is
the value of energy absorbed by the atom? (a) soft (b) rigid
(a) 9.06 eV (b) 12.09 eV (c) porous (d) smooth
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 10.2 eV 52. Ratio of sin(x) of angle of incidence to sin(x) of angle
40. The element with maximum number of its electrons in of refraction is
the valence shell has atomic number (a) Gravitational law (b) Reflection law
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) Refraction law (d) Snell's law
(c) 9 (d) 15 53. Bending of light as it passes from one medium to
41. Candela unit according to system international is a another is called
(a) derived unit (b) supplementary unit (a) reflection (b) diffraction
(c) international unit (d) base unit (c) refraction (d) deflection
42. The electronic configuration of "Cr" with atomic 54. Refractive index of a medium is
number 24 is (a) Speed of light in air to speed of light in vacuum
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2 (b) Speed of light in vacuum to speed of light in air
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 (c) focal length to object distance
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1 (d) speed of light in the medium x speed of light in the
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s1 4p1 air
43. Which one of the following is not correctly match 55. Color TV has approximate power of
(a) kilo-watt-hour-energy (a) 100 (b) 110
(b) Celsiusname-of a king (c) 120 (d) 130
(c) Balance wheel in watchinvar
56. If a vector gets multiplied by a positive number, then
(d) newton-forces
its direction
44. These are used for bloodless surgery
(a) remain same (b) reversed
(a) Anesthetic (b) Fiber-optics
(c) gets half (d) gets double
(c) Lasers (d) None of these
57. Parameters for a RLC circuit are R= 2, L= 1H,
45. Which one of the following is not a unit of time C = 1F. If these are connected in series first and then in
(a) Micro second (b) Second parallel, the system response for both the circuits will
(c) Year (d) Light year be
46. Boltzman's constant and planck's constant differ in the (a) underdamped, undamped
dimensions of (b) critically damped, overdamped
(a) Time and temperature (c) critically damped, underdamped
(b) Mass and temperature (d) under damped, critically damped
(c) Length and mass 58. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for
(d) Length and time (a) DC only (b) AC only
47. Visible light's wavelength range ______________. (c) Both (d) None
(a) 0.39 0.77 mm (b) 0.39 0.77 m
59. Find the radius of an isolated sphere capable of being
(c) 0.39 0.77 nm (d) 0.39 0.77 cm
charged to 1 million volt potential before sparking into
48. Metals are __________. the air, given that breakdown voltage of air is
(a) Transparent (b) Opaque 3 104V/cm
(c) Translucent (d) None of these (a) 0.33 metre (b) 0.43 metre
49. Sky looks blue because the sun light is subjected to (c) 0.53 metre (d) 0.63 metre
__________. 60. In an a.c circuit,the ratio of kW/kVA represents
(a) Rayleigh scattering (a) power factor (b) load factor
(b) Compton scattering (c) form factor (d) diversity factor
(c) Rayleigh scattering and Compton scattering 61. Gausss law due to different charge distribution is used
(d) None to calculate
50. Soft materials absorb large amount of (a) electric field (b) electric charge
(a) heat energy (c) electric intensity (d) electric field lines
(b) light energy
62. Relative permeability of vacum is
(c) electromagnetic waves
(a) 4 10 7 H/m (b) 1 H/m
(d) sound energy
(c) 1 (d) 4
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 59

63. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is not (b) negative plates
influenced by (c) both positive and negative plates
(a) Thickness of conducting plates (d) electrolyte
(b) Area of the conducting plates 73. Electrons in atoms and molecules can change energy
(c) Distance separating the plates levels by emitting or absorbing
(d) Nature of the dielectric between the plates (a) Protons (b) Photons
64. The direction of induced e.m.f. in a conductor (or coil) (c) electrons (d) All of the above
can be determined by 74. When a lead acid cell is recharged
(a) work law (a) The anode becomes dark chocolate brown colour
(b) ampere's law (b) Voltage rises
(c) fleming's right hand rule (c) Energy is absorbed by the cell
(d) fleming's left hand rule (d) All of these
65. Electric Field is defined as 75. A bipolar junction transistor with forward current
(a) Potential per unit Distance transfer ratio a=0.98, when working in CE mode,
(b) Force Per Unit Charge provides current transfer ration as
(c) Voltage per unit Current (a) 98 (b) 0.02
(d) None of These (c) 49 (d) 0.49
66. Electric Field is a 76. A Series Series feedback amplifier is
(a) Scalar Quantity (a) Voltage amplifier (b) Current amplifier
(b) Vector Quantity (c) Transresistance (d) Transconductance
(c) Both Scalar Quantity & Vector Quantity
77. When a BJT is employed as an amplifier it operates
(d) None of these
(a) in cut-off (b) in saturation
67. Tesla is the unit of (c) well into saturation (d) over the active region
(a) Magnetic Field (b) Magnetic Flux
78. Electronic distribution of an Si atom
(c) Electric Field (d) Electric Flux
(a) 2,10,2 (b) 2,8,4
68. Power Factor of an A C circuit lies between (c) 2,7,5 (d) 2,4,8
(a) 0 and 1 (b) 1 and 1
79. Diamagnetic materials are
(c) 1 and 0 (d) None of these (a) Attracted by Both poles
69. A solar cell is an example of (b) Attracted by North Pole
(a) photo voltaic cell (b) photo conductive cell (c) Repelled by North Pole
(c) photo emissive cell (d) photo radiation cell (d) Repelled by Both Poles
70. Fidn the voltage across RL in figure when RL = 1 K 80. Ferromagnet can be demagnatised by
and 2 K (a) Heating to Curie Temperature
(b) Keeping Magnet in Alternating fields
1.5K
(c) Exposure to Cyclic Fields
(d) All of these
81. Botzmann Constant represents the variation of voltage
45V 12 ma 3K RL with
(a) Current (b) Resistance
(c) Pressure (d) Temperature
(a) 9V, 12V (b) 4V, 8V 82. The depletion layer in p-n junction is caused by
(c) 16V, 24V (d) 18V, 36V (a) drift of holes
71. Two lamps of 100W and 200W rated for 220 V are (b) diffusion of charge carriers
placed in series and a 440V applied across them, then (c) migration of impurity ions
(a) only 100W lamp will fuse (d) drift of electrons
(b) only 200W lamp will fuse 83. Which of the following configuration is used for Emitter
(c) both lamps will fuse follower Amplifier
(d) no lamp will fuse (a) Common Base (b) Common Emitter
72. The internal resistance of a lead acid cell is mainly due (c) Common Collector (d) None of these
to.. 84. Semiconductors (e.g. germanium, silicon etc.) are those
(a) positive plates substances whose electrical conductivity lies in between
60 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

conductors and insulators. In terms of energy band, the (a) R = 10 ns, S = 40 ns


valence band is __________ and conduction band is (b) R = 40 ns, S = 10 ns
___________ (c) R = 10 ns S = 30 ns
(a) almost filled, almost empty (d) R = 30 ns, S = 10 ns
(b) almost empty, almost filled 94. The K-map for a Boolean function is shown in the
(c) almost filled, almost filled figure. The number of essential prime implicates for
(d) almost empty, almost empty this function is
85. The current gain of amplifier stage is lowest in
(a) CB configuration AB
(b) CE configuration CD 00 01 11 10
(c) CC configuration 00 1 1
(d) same in all configurations
86. In a negative feedback amplifier, current sampling 01 1
(a) tends to decrease the output resistance
(b) tends to increase the output resistance 11 1
(c) does not alter the output resistance
(d) produces the same effect on output resistance as 10 1 1
voltage sampling
87. A high Q tuned circuit in a tuned amplifier permits it (a) 4 (b) 5
to have high (c) 6 (d) 8
(a) selectivity (b) fidelity 95. AND operation of (79)10 and (56)10 result in
(c) sensitivity (d) frequency range (a) 50 H (b) 48 H
88. Crystal oscillator uses (c) 42 H (d) 08 H
(a) silicon crystal 96. Conversion of +1000 decimal number into signed
(b) germanium crystal binary word results
(c) crystal diode (a) 0000 0011 1110 1000
(d) piezo-electric quartz crystal (b) 1000 0011 1110 1000
89. The pulsating dc applied to power amplifier causes (c) 1111 1100 0001 1000
(a) Burning of transistor (d) 0111 1100 0001 1000
(b) Hum in the circuit 97. BCD input 1000 is fed to a 7 segment display through
(c) Excessive forward voltage a BCD to 7 segment decoder/driver. The segments
(d) None of these which will lit up are
90. Power amplifiers generally use transformer coupling (a) a, b, d (b) a, b, c
because transformer permit (c) a, b, g, c, d (d) a, b, g, c, d, e, f
(a) cooling of the circuit 98. Which one of the following can be used to change data
(b) Impedance matching from special code to temporal code
(c) distortion-less output (a) shift registers (b) counters
(d) good frequency response (c) A/D converters (d) combinational circuits
91. Low efficiency of a power amplifier results in 99. Frequencies in UHF range propagate by means of
(a) Low forward bias (a) ground waves (b) sky waves
(b) Less battery consumption (c) space waves (d) surface waves
(c) More battery consumption
100. In a transistor which of the following reason is very
(d) none of these
lightly doped and is very thin
92. A semiconductor has generally ________ valance (a) emitter (b) base
electrons (c) collector (d) None
(a) 2 (b) 3
101. Which of the following is a passive component?
(c) 4 (d) 6
(a) semiconductor devices
93. A 4 bit ripple counter and a bit synchronous counter (b) vaccum tube devices
are made using flip flops having a propagation delay (c) capacitors
of 10 ns each. If the worst case delay in the ripple (d) All of these
counter and the synchronous counter be R and S
102. An infrared LED is usually fabricated from
respectively, then
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 61

(a) Ge (b) Si (b) zero


(c) Ga As (d) Ga As P (c) Half of constant losses
103. The decimal equivalent of (11011101) is (d) Twice constant losses
(a) 225 (b) 229 115. Thevenin's theorem is________ form of an equivalent
(c) 221 (d) None circuit
104. Which of the following classes has lowest efficiency ? (a) voltage
(a) class A (b) class B (b) current
(c) class AB (d) class C (c) both voltage and current
(d) none of these
105. Logic expressions can be simplified by using
116. At the time of starting the motor consumes current
(a) Boolean Algebra Method
____________ than normal
(b) Karnaugh-map Method
(a) Same (b) High
(c) Tabulation Method
(c) Low (d) None of these
(d) any of the these
106. Access Time in Memories is equal to 117. Two resisters are said to be connected in series uniquely
(a) Latency Time (b) Seek Time if ______________
(c) Transfer Time (d) sum of all these (a) both carry the same value of current
(b) anch currents
107. The universal gate is (c) same current passes in turn through both
(a) NAND gate (b) OR gate (d) None of these
(c) AND gate (d) None of these
118. The basic requirement of a d.c. armature winding is
108. An AND circuit that it must be _____________
(a) is a memory circuit (a) a lap winding (b) a closed one
(b) gives an output when all input signals are present (c) a wave winding (d) either 'a' or 'c'
simultaneously
119. In order to run an induction motor at synchronous speed
(c) is a negative OR circuit
______________
(d) is a linear circuit
(a) load must be reduced
109. Which of the following is not a sequential circuit? (b) friction at bearing must be reduced
(a) flip-flop (b) counter (c) e.m.f must be injected in the rotor in a phase with
(c) shift register (d) multiplexer rotor e.m.f
110. Most of the memory systems have (d) e.m.f. must be injected in the rotor in a phase
(a) electro-pneumatic properties opposite to the rotor e.m.f.
(b) electrostatic properties 120. "Cogging" in induction motor occurs when __________
(c) magnetic properties (a) number of stator teethnumber of rotor teeth = odd
(d) all of these number
111. The commercial efficiency of a shunt generator is (b) number of stator teethnumber of rotor teeth = zero
maximum when its variable loss equals the (c) number of stator teethnumber of rotor teeth = even
_____________ loss. number
(a) Constant (b) Stray (d) number of stator teethnumber of rotor teeth =
(c) Iron (d) Friction and windage negative number

112. Maximum speed of a synchronous machine for 50 Hz 121. In a synchoronous motor with field underexcited, the
is power factor will be ____________
(a) 1500 rmp (b) 3000 rpm (a) lagging (b) leading
(c) 20000 rpm (d) 30000 rpm (c) unity (d) none of these
113. A balanced star connected load of (8+j6) per phase is 122. Which relay is used for protection of feeders?
connected to a balanced 3-phase 400V Supply. Find (a) MHO relay (b) Translaty relay
the power factor (c) Merz Price protection (d) Buchholz relay
(a) 0.8 lead (b) 0.8 lag 123. The induced e.m.f. in the armature of a lap wound 4-
(c) 1 (d) 0.6 lag pole d.c. machine having 1000 armature conductors
114. The efficiency of d.c machine is maximum when rotating at 600 rpm and with 0.1 wb flux per pole is
variable losses are equal to (a) 1000 V (b) 100 V
(a) Constant losses (c) 10000 V (d) 10 V
62 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

124. A rectangular waveguide of internal dimensions a=4 (c) a, b are true for TEM mode
cm and b=3 cm is to be operated in TE11 mode. The (d) None of these
minimum operating frequency is 137. The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on
(a) 6.25 GHz (b) 12 GHz (a) Temperature
(c) 3.12 GHz (d) 5 GHz (b) skin effect
125. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is (c) Relative permittivity of dielectric
suppressed, the percentage power saving will be (d) None of these
(a) 50 (b) 150 138. A piece of coaxial cable has a 75 characteristic
(c) 100 (d) 66.66 impedance and a nominal capacitance of 69 pF/m. What
126. The basic Data rate of bearer channel in ISDN is is the inductance per meter ?
(a) 8 Kbps (b) 16 Kbps (a) 0.388 H/m (b) 3.88 H/m
(c) 64 Kbps (d) 384 Kbps (c) 38.8 H/m (d) 0.388 H/m
127. Which of the following will carry the same information 139. A parallel plate lossless transmission line consists of
as the AM wave itself ? brass strips of width w and separated by a distance d. If
(a) SSB (b) VSB both w and d are doubled then its characteristic
(c) DSB (d) All of these impedance will be
(a) halved (b) doubled
128. The disadvantage of FM over AM is that ____________
(c) not change (d) none of these
(a) the noise is very high for high frequency signal
(b) high modulating power is required 140. For transmission line load matching over a range of
(c) larger bandwidth is required frequencies, it is best to use a
(d) high output power is required (a) Balun
(b) Double stub
129. The input impedance of a line of infinite length is equal
(c) Broadband directional coupler
to ______________
(d) Single stub
(a) zero (b) Zo/2
(c) Zo (d) Infinity 141. Altrenately the characteristic impedance is called
(a) Match Impedance (b) Iterative Impedance
130. Microwave ovens operate at a frequency of __________
(c) Surge Impedance (d) Reflected Impedance
(a) 1.37 GHz (b) 2.45 GHz
(c) 3.37 GHz (d) 5.52 GHz 142. Johnson noise is
131. Quadrature amplitude modulation is a combination of (a) caused by thermal agitation of free electrons
______________ carrying current therefore modulating the current
(a) PSK & FSK (b) ASK & FSK (b) noise carried into a circuit through conductors
(c) ASK & ICW (d) ASK & PSK (c) noise of an electromagnetic origin that is radiated
into a ciruit
132. In an amplitude modulated wave, the value of Emax is (d) shot noise which results from emission of electrons
10V and Emin is 5V, then percentage of modulation across a pn junction
will be
(a) 2% (b) 33.3% 143. PSK and FSK are which type of modulation?
(c) 50% (d) 75% (a) Analog Modulation
(b) Digital Modulation
133. Typical gain of an amplifier for the UHF channels is (c) Both Analog Modulation & Digital Modulation
(a) 0 db (b) 2 db (d) None of these
(c) 5 db (d) 40 db
144. U interface in ISDN is the interface between
134. Which of the following stages has AGC bias (a) PSTN and Desktop
(a) Local oscillator (b) mixer (b) TA and ISDN Phone
(c) RF ampliffer (d) AFT discriminator (c) TA and non ISDN Device
135. If the modulation index of an AM wave is 0.6, the power (d) TA and PSTN
saved for transmission is ____ 145. Microwaves propagates through waveguide in
(a) 0.94 (b) 0.9 (a) Straight Path
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.5 (b) Circular Path
136. TEM mode in coaxial line has on. (c) Zigzag path due to reflection of guide
(a) no cut off wave length (d) Analog the outer surface of the waveguide
(b) direct current can't pass 146. Antennas used in Microwave Communication are
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 63

(a) Parabolic antennas (a) Accuracy of the instrument


(b) Dipole antennas (b) Precision of the instrument
(c) Omni direction Antennas (c) Both Accuracy of the instrument & Precision of
(d) All of these the instrument
147. Standing wave is formed by (d) None of these
(a) Superposition of two waves of Same amplitude 157. A 0-300 V voltmeter has an error of 2% of full scale
(b) Superposition of two waves of Same Frequency deflection. What would be the range of reading if true
(c) Superposition of two waves of Same Phase voltage is 30V?
(d) Superposition of two waves of Same Origing (a) 24V-36V (b) 29.4V-30.6V
148. Impedance inversion may be obtained with (c) 20V-40V (d) none of these
______________ 158. Air cored inductive transducer are suitable for use
(a) a short circuited stub ________
(b) an open circuited stub (a) at lower frequencies
(c) a quarter wave line (b) at higher frequencies
(d) a half wave line (c) at equal frequencies
(d) as are employed for iron cored transducer
149. Thevenin's theorem reduces a two terminal network to
a 159. A vertical amplifier for a CRO can be desinged for
(a) One terminal network __________
(b) current generator in parallel with an impedance (a) only a high gain
(c) Voltage generator in series with an impedance (b) only a broad bandwidth
(d) combination of current and voltage generator (c) a constant gain times bandwidth product
(d) all of these
150. The wave applied to X plates in a CRO, for obtaining
trace of voltage wave, is 160. Spectrum analyzer is designed to represent graphically
(a) sawtooth wave (b) sinusoidal wave a plot of ____________
(c) rectangular wave (d) either (1) or (2) (a) amplitude vs phase
(b) phase vs frequency
151. A 300 V voltmeter has an accuracy of 2% of full
(c) amplitude vs time
scale deflection. When the reading is 222 V, the actual
(d) amplitude vs frequency
voltage-
(a) lies between 217.56 and 226.44 V 161. DC probes are generally used with a voltmeter to
(b) lies between 217.4 and 226.6 V (a) Decrease its range
(c) lies between 216 and 228 V (b) Increase its range
(d) is exact 222 V (c) Frequency independent
(d) None of these
152. In a CRO which of the following is not a part of electron
gun 162. A tangent galvanometer is a
(a) X-Y Plates (b) Grid (a) primary instrument
(c) Cathode (d) Accelerating anode (b) indicating instrument
(c) absolute instrument
153. Without a spectrum analyser, it is not possible to
(d) secondary instrument
determine
(a) carrier frequency (b) antenna pattern 163. The forward transfer function of a ufb system is
(c) pulse width (d) All of these
1
G(s) = . The system will be-
154. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is 2s 5s s 2 2s
4 3

used suppress (a) stable


(a) odd harmonics (b) unstable
(b) even harmonics (c) marginally stable
(c) fundamental component (d) more information is required
(d) dc component
164. For the signal flow graph shown in fig below the graph
155. A 0200 V voltmeter has an accuracy of 0.75% of full determinant is-
scale reading. If voltage measured is 100 V, the error is (a) 1 bc fg bcfg + cigj
(a) 3% (b) 2% (b) 1 bc fg cigi + bcfg
(c) 1.5% (d) 0.75% (c) 1 + bc + fg + cigi bcfg
156. Repeatability and Reproducitibility are related to (d) 1 + bc + fg + bcfg cigi
64 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

165. If the characteristic equation of a closed loop system is (a) Less than 9 db (b) More than 20 db
s2 + 2s + 2 = 0, then the system is (c) More than 3 db (d) Less than 10 db
(a) overdamped (b) critically damped 176. An 8085 microprocessor based system uses a 4K 8
(c) underdamped (d) undamped bit RAM whose starting address is AA00H. The address
166. In the standard form of closed loop transfer function of of the last byte in this RAM is-
second order system is given by C(s)/R(s)= 2n /s2 + (a) OFFFH (b) 1000H
2ns + 2n. The damping ratio = 0, then the system (c) B9FFH (d) BA00H
is 177. In the instruction MOV A, M
(a) undamped system (a) the content of memory addressed by HL pair is
(b) under damped system moved to A register
(c) critically damped system (b) The content of A register is moved to memory
(d) over damped system location addressed by HL pair
167. In the transient response of a second order system, delay (c) the 8 bit data is moved to A register
time td is the time required for the response to reach (d) none of these
the ____________ of the final value
178. The DBMS is divided into
(a) half (b) 1/ 2 (a) hierarchical mode (b) networking model
(c) 25% (d) 10% (c) relational model (d) All of these
168. The effect of addition of poles and zeros on phase 179. Find the invalid FOR loop structure
margin and gain margin can be most conveniently seen (a) FOR I=1 to N DO
in __________ (b) FOR J=1 TO 10 DO
(a) Bode plot (b) Nyquist plot (c) FOR K=1 TO (2*N) DO
(c) Root locus (d) Routh hurwitz (d) All of these
169. Which of the following is used for Nyquist plot? 180. For long distnce communication which of the following
(a) Characteristic equation data transfer technique is used?
(b) close loop function (a) Serial Transfer
(c) either 'a' or 'b' (b) Parallel Transfer
(d) open loop function (c) Serial Parallel-transfer
(d) Parallel Serial-Transfer
170. The best method for determining the stability and
transient response is __________ 181. System input of the Close loop circuit is output of
(a) Root locus (b) Nyquist plot ______________
(c) Bode plot (d) none of these (a) Controller after measuring the error
(b) Feedback after measuring the output
171. The electrical capacitance is analog of ___
(c) Direct input for desired output
(a) Fluid flow (b) Thermal resistance
(d) All of these
(c) Inertia (d) Spring
182. Which of the following instruction can alter the normal
172. The operational amplifier used in analog computers
incrementing of the program counter?
should have
(a) interrrupt (b) call
(a) very high gain
(c) branch (d) all of these
(b) very low gain
(c) Gain is not important 183. Which device converts, a decimal input number to
(d) Low input resistance binary
(a) accumulator (b) encoder
173. Usually the control system used should have
(c) ALU (d) memory
(a) No damping action
(b) Under damping action 184. In which logic gate, the output is HIGH when all the
(c) Critical damping action inputs are LOW?
(d) Over damping action (a) AND (b) OR
(c) NOR (d) NAND
174. The unity circle of Nyquist plot corresponds to 0 & B
line of Bode plot for 185. The word length for computers ranges from
(a) Low frequencies (b) High frequencies (a) 4 bits to 16 bits (b) 4 bits to 32 bits
(c) All of these (d) None of these (c) 4 bits to 12 bits (d) 4 bytes to 32 bytes
175. Band width is the range of frequencies for which system 186. There are _____ types of flags in 8086
gain is (a) 8 (b) 9
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 65

(c) 7 (d) 4 (b) Software is to provide the required IC chips for P


187. When the signal on REST IN goes low, which of the (c) Hardware is to develp program and to feed into
following happens in 8085? the computer.
(a) The program counter is set to zero (d) Software is the impermanent informational
(b) The buses are tristated structure.
(c) The MPU is reset 194. USTART chip provides ______
(d) All of these (a) half duplex operation
188. In 8085, instruction ADD IMMEDIATE to (b) full duplex operation
ACCUMULATOR WITH CARRY is represented by the (c) duplex operation
opcode (d) full duplex operation but cannot work in
(a) ADC (b) ACI asynchronous mode
(c) ADD (d) ADI 195. Floppy disk is
(a) a primary memory
189. Which among following first generation of
(b) cache memory
MB_Computers had?
(c) nothing but hard disk
(a) Magnetic Tape and Transistors
(d) used for backup purpose
(b) Integrated Circuits
(c) Vaccum Tubes and Magnetic Drum 196. How many bits are needed to address 64K memory
(d) All of these location
(a) 8 (b) 10
190. The number of bits used to store a BCD digit is:
(c) 16 (d) 32
(a) 8 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 1 197. Which of the following is fastest memory cell?
(a) core memory
191. Man-made noise is caused by
(b) semiconductor memory
(a) solar eruptions
(c) bubble memory
(b) distant stars
(d) superconductor memory
(c) arc discharge n electrical machine
(d) lightining discharges 198. Which of the following are not peripheral devices?
(a) VDU (b) CPU
192. The maximum power transfer theorem is used in
(c) Printer (d) Floppy drive
(a) electronic circuits (b) power system
(c) home lighting circuits(d) none of these 199. Dynamic memory is made up of
193. Which of the following is a correct statement? (a) flip flop (b) MOS transistor gate
(a) Hardware is merely the preparation of printed (c) magnetic core (d) magnetic bubbles
circuit board for the connection of microprocessor 200. ______ is a structured high level language
(P). (a) C (b) fortran
(c) Window (d) Java
66 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (b) 109. (d) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (a) 115. (a) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (d) 120. (b)
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (a) 125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (d) 128. (c) 129. (c) 130. (b)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (d) 139. (c) 140. (b)
141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (c) 146. (a) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (d) 150. (a)
151. (c) 152. (a) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (c) 156. (b) 157. (a) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (d)
161. (a) 162. (d) 163. (b) 164. (d) 165. (c) 166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (d) 170. (a)
171. (c) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (b) 175. (b) 176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (d) 179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (a) 182. (d) 183. (c) 184. (c) 185. (c) 186. (c) 187. (c) 188. (c) 189. (c) 190. (b)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (d) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (c) 199. (b) 200. (c)
Examination held on 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
68 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

1. Pick the Antonym for the word " Urge" (b) should have happened / has been
(a) persue (b) deter (c) may happen / will have been
(c) request (d) instruct (d) can have happened / would be
2. Pick the most suitable one word substitute for "Doctor 11. The half girl friend book is written by
for skin disease" (a) A P J Abdul Kalam (b) Salman Rushidi
(a) Dermatologist (b) Cardiologist (c) Durjoy Datta (d) Chetan Bhagat
(c) Psychiatrist (d) Paediatrician 12. Who is the first Indian to become CEO of Google
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the (a) Indra Nooyi (b) Sundar Pichai
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make (c) Satya Nadella (d) Mark Zuckerberg
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct.
13. "Wings of Fire" is an autobiography by which political
(a) nick of time
leader
(b) nicked time
(a) Fidel Castro (b) A P J Abdul Kalam
(c) nick and time
(c) Mahatma Gandh (d) Winston Churchill
(d) no correction required
14. Which Indian movie has won International Federation
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice: The of Film Critics award at 68th Cannes festival?
invigilator was reading out the instructions. (a) Lunch Box (b) Masaan
(a) The instructions were being read out by the
(c) Piku (d) Messenger of God
invigilator.
(b) The instructions had been read out by the 15. The Planet which is most near to Sun is:
invigilator. (a) Earth (b) Mars
(c) The instructions had been read by the invigilator. (c) Mercury (d) Jupitor
(d) The instructions were read by the invigilator. 16. The Ist woman President of United Nations General
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given: Assembly was
(a) Embaras (b) Embarras (a) Margaret Thatcher (b) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(c) Embarrass (d) Embarrass (c) Eleanor Roosvelt (d) Srimaro Bandaranaike
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the 17. The longest dam of India
given words: (a) Bhakra Dam (b) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
(a) barbaric (b) famished (c) Hirakuda dam (d) Kosi Dam
(c) counterfeit (d) moderate 18. What is the name of the mobile application launched
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given by Telecom Ministry to aid digital literacy?
alternatives. The box was _____ heavy for that little (a) Arihant (b) Rashta
child to carry. (c) Disha (d) Manzil
(a) very (b) too 19. In National Film Awards, the Nargis Dutt Award is
(c) enough (d) much given to:
8. Change the direct narration to indirect narration: He (a) A film for wholesome entertainment
said to his father, "Please increase my pocketmoney." (b) Best film on Natonal Integraton
(a) He pleaded his father to please increase my pocket (c) Best Child Film
money. (d) Best film on social issues
(b) He requested his father to increase his 20. Which of the following is the name of currency of a
pocketmoney. country
(c) He asked his father to increase his pocketmoney. (a) Peru (b) Syria
(d) He told his father, "Please increase the (c) Lira (d) Zambia
pocketmoney"
21. The transfer function of the block diagram of Fig.
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
statement in the question: One who is indifferent to all G3
pleasure and pain R(s) C(s)
(a) Stern (b) Stoic G1 G2
(c) Egoistic (d) Eccentric
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the H
sentences: What ____________ to Varun? He said he
_______________ here at eight o'clock. G1 (G 2 G 3 )
(a) might have happened / will be (a)
1 G1H G 2 H
28 September, 2016 (First Sitting) Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 69

G 2 (G1 G 3 ) (a) 48 (b) 80


(b)
1 G1G 2 H G1G 3 H (c) (d)
108 288
G1 (G 2 G 3 ) 29. Which point satisfies the linear quadratic system y = x
(c) + 3 and y = 5 x2?
1 G1H G 3 H
(a) (2, 1) (b) (2, 1)
G1 (G 2 G 3 ) (c) (1, 2) (d) (4, 1)
(d)
1 G1G 2 H G1G 3 H 30. Find the slope of a line perpendicular to the line whose
equation is 2y + 6x = 24.
22. If two lines are perpendicular then the product of their (a) 3 (b) 6
Gradient is (c) 1/3 (d) 1/6
(a) 1 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) None of these 31. Find the midpoint of the segment connecting the points
(a, b) and (5a, 7b).
1 (a) (3a, 3b) (b) (2a, 3b)
23. The laplace transform of a function sin(at) sinh (c) (3a, 4b) (d) (2a, 4b)
2a 2
(at) is 32. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the graphs
of the equations of a linear quadratic system?
s (a) the graphs may intersect in two locations.
(a) (a1 b 2 )
(s a )(s 2 b 2 )
2 2 (b) the graphs may intersect in one location.
(c) the graphs may not intersect.
1 (d) all three choices are true.
(b)
(s 4a 4 )
4
33. A lawn service company offers services within an 20
mile radius of their office. When the service area is
1 represented graphically with the office located at (0,0),
(c) the equation that represents the service area is:
(s 4a 4 )
4

(a) x2 + y2 = 20 (b) x2 + y2 = 40
2 2
1 (c) x + y = 400 (d) x2 + y2 = 4000
(d)
(s 4a 4 )
4
34. Mathematically, what is a differential?
(a) A gear box on the back end of your car.
24. The Second Order Derivative of a function at Maximum (b) A word used a lot on a popular medical television
Level is series.
(a) Constant Value (c) A method of directly relating how changes in an
(b) Not related to function independent variable affect changes in a dependent
(c) None of the Above variable.
(d) Both Constant Value & Not related to function (d) A method of directly relating how changes in a
dependent variable affect changes in an
1 e x dx independent variable.
25. 0 1 e2x 2 35. At what value of q is the concavity of w(q) = 2,
(a) tan1 en/4 (b) tan en/4 if w(q) = q4 16?
(c) tan en/2 (d) none (a) At q = fourth root of 14.
26. Find the value of k, if the equation 3x2 + 8xy + ky2 = 0 (b) At q = 0.
represents perpendicular lines (c) Never; w(q) is always concave down.
(a) 3 (b) 3 (d) Never; w(q) is always concave up.
(c) 0 (d) 8 36. What is needed to fully determine an anti-differentiated
27. The equation of the hyperbola of eccentricity 3 and the function?
distance between whose foci 24 is (a) A lot of luck.
(a) x2 8y2 = 128 (b) 8x2 y2 = 128 (b) A boundary condition.
2 2
(c) 16x y = 128 (d) None (c) What its value is at (0, 0).
(d) Its real world application.
28. The point ( 4, 2) lies on a circle. What is the length of
the radius of this circle if the center is located at 37. Let f : X Y be an one-to-one map. Then which of the
( 8, 10)? following is not correct?
70 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

(a) X may be a subset of Y 48. Metals can ________ the light beams.
(b) Y may be a subset of X (a) Reflect (b) Refract
(c) X should be equal to Y (c) Transmit (d) Any
(d) cardinality of X should be equal to cardinality of Y 49. Metals can transmit these ____.
38. ion of the partial differential equation yzp+zxq=xy is (a) Radio ways (b) Visible light
given by (c) Microwaves (d) x-rays
(a) x2 + y2 = c1 and x2 + z2 = c2 50. Snell's law relates ____________.
(b) x2 y2 = c1 and x2 z2 = c2 (a) Light relfection (b) Light refraction
(c) x2 + y2 = c1 and x2 z2 = c2 (c) Light transmission (d) Light Absorption
(d) x2 y2 = c1 and x2 + z2 = c2
51. Multiple reflections are called
39. The dimension for Torque are-
(a) reverberations (b) refraction
(a) M2L2T2 (b) ML2T2
(c) echo (d) compressions
(c) ML2T1 (d) M2L2T1
52. Sum of protons and neutrons in an atom gives off
40. Sound wave is a good example of- (a) nucleon number
(a) transverse waves (b) mass number
(b) longitudinal waves (c) atomic number
(c) both transverse and longitudinal waves
(d) both nucleon number and mass number
(d) none of these
53. Hydrogen atom has an approximate diameter of
41. Which of the following are the characteristics of LASER
(a) 10-9 m (b) 10-10 m
beam
(c) 9-10 m (d) 10-11 m
a. Directionality
b. Coherence 54. Elements which have same number of protons but
c. Monochromaticity different number of neutrons are called as
(a) a & b only (b) a & c only (a) isotopes (b) isomers
(c) b & c only (d) a, b & c (c) allotropes (d) allomers
42. A Q-meter uses the principle of 55. Proton number is denoted by symbol
(a) variation of self inductance (a) A (b) Z
(b) variation of mutual inductance (c) P (d) N
(c) series resonance 56. An electron can never be found inside nucleus', this
(d) None of these statement is according to
43. Two sources are said to be coherent if their emitted (a) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
waves have (b) Bernoulli's equation
(a) same amplitude (c) bohrs model
(b) same wavelength (d) both Heisenberg uncertainty principle and
(c) constant phase difference Bernoulli's equation
(d) All of these 57. For an RLC circuit, R = 20 , L = 0.6 H, the value of C
44. There are eight images of a candle which is kept in (in mF) for Critically damped, overdamped, under
between two plane mirrors. The angle of inclination of damped condition respectively will be
the plane mirror is (a) 6, > 6, < 6 (b) 6, < 6, > 6
(a) 60 (b) 90 (c) > 6, 6, < 6 (d) < 6, 6, > 6
(c) 40 (d) 45
s 2 7s 6
45. Unit of Intensity of magnetic induction field is 58. The network function is a-
(a) N/Am (b) Tesla s2
(c) Wb/m2 (d) All of these (a) RL impedance function
5
(b) RL admittance function
46. 10 Fermi is equal to (c) LC impedane function
(a) 1 meter (b) 100 micron (d) LC admittane function
(c) 1 angstrom unit (d) 1 mm
59. A 12 mA current source has an internal resistance, RS
47. Which of the following is Unit of length? of 1.2 k. The equivalent voltage source is-
(a) Lunar Month (b) Kelvin (a) 1.44 V (b) 14.4 V
(c) Candela (d) Light year (c) 7.2 V (d) 72 mV
28 September, 2016 (First Sitting) Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 71

60. The equivalent inductance is between I and I' is (a) 2 (b) 3


L1 L2 (c) 4 (d) 6
1 70. The Ohm's law for magnetic circuit is
(a) reluctance = flux/mmf
(b) mmf = reluctance
M (c) mmf = flux/reluctance
(d) mmf = flux x reluctance
71. The major drawback of a primary cell is that
1 (a) chemical action is not reversible
(a) L1 + L2 (b) L1 L2 (b) chemical action is reversible
(c) L1 + L2 + 2M (d) L1 + L2 2M (c) electrolyte used is very costly
61. The ratio of r.m.s value to average value is called (d) not portable
(a) amplitude factor (b) form factor 72. The current in capacitive circuits _______ the voltage
(c) crest factor (d) peak factor (a) Lags (b) Leads
62. Given two coupled inductors L1 and L2, their mutual (c) Inphase with (d) None of these
inductance M satisfies 73. The relative permiabilty r is given by
(a) B/0 . H (b) B/H
(L1 L2 )
(a) M L21 L22 (b) M (c) H/B (d) None
2
74. In a transformer, the ratio of primary to secondary is
(c) M L1L 2 (d) M L1L 2 9:4. If power input is P, what will be the ratio of power
output to the power input
63. When the relative permeability of a meterial is slightly (a) 4 : 9 (b) 9 : 4
less than 1, is called a (c) 5 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
(a) diamagnetic material
(b) paramagnetic material 75. The ________ is defined as the time the output is active
(c) ferromagnetic material divided by the total period of the output signal.
(d) None of these (a) on time (b) off time
(c) duty cycle (d) active ratio
64. Capacitance of a network can be increased by putting
(a) Capacitor in Series 76. The operation of a JFET involves
(b) Capacitor in Parallel (a) A flow of minority carriers
(c) Capacitor Anywhere in the network (b) A flow of majority carriers
(d) Putting Resistor in Series (c) Recombination
(d) Negative Resistance
65. In Thevenin's Model the Resistance Rth is defined as
(a) Open circuit impedance between two points 77. A BJT is a ________controlled device and the JFET is
(b) Close Circuit impedance between two points a ________ controlled device
(c) Impedance calculated by replacing voltage/ current (a) voltage, voltage (b) voltage, current
source with their impedance (c) current, voltage (d) current, current
(d) None of these 78. An astable 555 timer has the following number of stable
66. The conductor used for High Quality surface to surface states
contacts is (a) 0 (b) 1
(a) Silver (b) Copper (c) 2 (d) 3
(c) Aluminium (d) Gold 79. The impurity commonly used for realizing the base
67. A circuit component that opposes the change in circuit region of a silicon NPN transistor is
voltage is (a) Silicon (b) Antimony
(a) resistance (b) capacitance (c) Germanium (d) Boron
(c) inductance (d) All of these 80. When a transistor is fully switched ON, it is said to be
68. In an R-L series circuit, the power factor is (a) shorted (b) saturated
(a) leading (b) lagging (c) open (d) cut-off
(c) zero (d) unity 81. The positive swing of the output signal in a transistor
69. If the atomic number of germanium is 32, the number circuit starts clipping first when Q-point of the circuit
of electrons in the outer most shell will be moves
72 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

(a) to the centre of the load line (b) more than


(b) two-third way up the load line (c) less than
(c) towards the saturation point (d) none of these
(d) towards the cut-off point 93. In the logic circuit of fig. the redundant gate is-
82. The common mode ratio of an ideal diff-amp is x
(a) zero (b) infinity y 1
(c) less than unity (d) greater than unity
z
83. The leakage current of a PN diode is cuased by
w
(a) heat energy (b) chemical energy
(c) barrier potential (d) majority carriers
x 2 X
z
84. Which of the following is Primary memory
(a) Hard disk (b) Pen Drive w
(c) On Board Memory (d) None of these y 3
z
85. Common Emitter Amplifier is also known as
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) Current Amplifier (b) Voltage Amplifier
(c) 3 (d) 4
(c) Power Amplifier (d) Frequency Modulator
94. Three Boolean opertors are
86. Which of the following Biasing is mostly used for BJT
(a) NOT, OR, AND (b) NOT, NAND, OR
(a) Fixed Biasing
(c) NOR, OR, NOT (d) NOR, NAND, NOT
(b) Voltage Divider
(c) Collector to Base Biasing 95. The full adder can be made out of-
(d) Fixed Biasing with Emitter Resistance (a) Two Half-adders
(b) Two Half-adders and a NOT gate
87. In a class-B amplifier the output current flows for
(c) Two Half-adders and an AND gate
______
(d) Two Half-adders and an OR gate
(a) 90
(b) 180 96. Sample-and-hold circuits in analog-to digital converters
(c) More than 180 and less than 270 (ADCs) are designed to:
(d) 360 (a) sample and hold the output of the binary counter
during the conversion process
88. In a multistage amplifier, the intermediate stages are
(b) stabilize the comparator's threshold voltage during
always in
the conversion process
(a) CB configuration
(c) stabilize the input analog signal during the
(b) CE configuration
conversion process
(c) CC configuration
(d) sample and hold the D/A converter staircase
(d) may have any configuration
waveform during the conversion process
89. At resonance, the impedance of a parallel tuned circuit
97. One application of a digital multiplexer is to facilitate:
formed by capacitor C (lossless) and inductor L (with
(a) Serial-to-parallel conversion
series resistance R) approximately equals
(b) Data generation
(a) L/CR (b) LC/R
(c) Parity checking
(c) LR/C (d) 1/LCR
(d) Data selector
90. The class B push-pull circuit can deliver 100 W ac
98. The binary numbers A = 1100 and B = 1001 are applied
output power. What should be the minimum power
to the inputs of a comparator. What are the output
rating of each transistor?
levels?
(a) 20 W (b) 40 W
(a) A > B = 1, A < B = 0, A < B = 1
(c) 10 W (d) 80 W
(b) A > B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 0
91. A relay is (c) A > B = 1, A < B = 0, A = B = 0
(a) A mechanical switch (d) A > B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 1
(b) An electronic switch
99. LCDs have response time of the order of
(c) An electromechanical switch
(a) is few ns
(d) none of these
(b) tens of ns
92. The dc resistance of a crystal diode is ________ its ac (c) a few milliseconds
resistance (d) hundred of milliseconds
(a) the same as
28 September, 2016 (First Sitting) Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 73

100. Popular application of flip-flop are (a) 1000 (b) 600


(a) counters (b) shift registers (c) 1500 (d) 3000
(c) transfer register (d) all of these 112. A rotary converter generally
101. The process of deliberately adding impurity to a (a) Combines the function of an induction motor and
semiconductor material is called a dc generator
(a) impurification (b) pollution (b) Has a set of slip rings at both ends
(c) deionisation (d) doping (c) Has one armature and 2 fields
102. Which of the following is a unit of memory (d) Is a synchronous motor and a dc generator
(a) RAM (b) KB combined
(c) Bit (d) Byte 113. In a 3-phase, 3-wire unbalanced load, power cannot be
measured by two wattmeters
103. Binary numbers can be converted into Hexadecimal
(a) TRUE (b) FALSE
numbers by grouping bits into group of ____ starting
(c) Cannot be said (d) None of these
from _________and represented each group as Hexa
decimal number 114. The insulation resistance test is performed with
(a) Three bits, Right Most bit (a) Ohm-meter (b) Megger
(b) Three bits, Left Most bit (c) Earth Tester (d) Wheaston Bridge
(c) Four bits, Right Most bit
115. In case of Circuit Breakers if the length of arc increases,
(d) Sixteen bits, Left Most bit
its resistance is
104. A 'n' bit flash type ADC requires maximum of ______ (a) decreases
to complete conversion (b) increases
(a) "n" Clock pulses (b) "2n+1" Clock pulses (c) remain same
(c) one clock pulse (d) "2n-1" Clock pulses (d) some times increases or decreases
105. Race around condition occur in JK Flip Flop is due to 116. One ton of refrigeration (1 TR) means that the heat
(a) The clock time period is less than propagation delay removing capacity is
(b) The clock time period is greater than propagation (a) 21kJ/min (b) 210kJ/min
delay (c) 420kJ/min (d) 210kJ/sec
(c) Due to triggering
117. Load saturation characteristics of a DC generator gives
(d) None
relation between
106. Divide by 78 counter can be realized using (a) V and Ia (b) E and Ia
(a) 6 number of mod-13 counters (c) Eo and If (d) V and If
(b) 13 number of mod-6 counters 118. Charger used to charge the Batteries of Car are
(c) 13 number of mod-13 counters (a) Fast Chargers (b) Trickle Chargers
(d) one mod-13 counter followed by one mod-6 counter (c) Pulse chargers (d) Inductive chargers
107. The circuit used for parallel to serial conversion of data 119. In a 3 phase balance star connected load, if one of the
is known as supply phases gets broken, the phase current & line
(a) decoder (b) de-multiplexer current will become______________ &
(c) multi-vibrator (d) multiplexer ____________times to the preveious value respectively
108. MOS logic gates have no current hogging problem
1
because the gate terminal has (a) 1, (b) 3, 3
(a) low input impedance (b) zero impedance 3
(c) compensating effect (d) high impedance
2 2 3 33
109. A flip-flop can store (c) , (d) ,
(a) 1 bit of data (b) 2 bits of data
3 33 2 2
(c) 3 bits of data (d) 4 bits of data 120. In a d.c. generator the generated e.m.f. is directly
110. Which one of the logic families has maximum fan-out proportional to the ______________
capacity? (a) field current
(a) RTL (b) ECL (b) number of armature parallel paths
(c) MOS (d) CMOS (c) number of dummy coils
(d) pole flux
111. The speed of a motor generator set consisting of 6-pole
induction motor and a 4-pole dc generator fed from a 3 121. In a d.c. motor which of the following can sustain the
phase 50 Hz supply is _____________ rpm. maximum temperature rise?
74 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

(a) armature winding (b) field winding 133. The height of the transmitting antenna is 225 m above
(c) commutator (d) slip ring ground level, its radio horizon will be ______________
122. The brushes in d.c. machines are made of carbon (a) 120 Km (b) 76 Km
(a) to reduce the size of brushes (c) 60 Km (d) 225 Km
(b) to reduce the wear and tear of commutator 134. In radio receivers tube EM 84 is used as ____________
(c) to increase the efficiency of the commutator (a) magic eye (b) full wave rectifier
(d) None of these (c) audio amplifier (d) none of these
123. Transmission lines are generally operated at 135. A transmission line has a VSWR of 2, the reflection
(a) 132 KV to 220 KV (b) 30 KV to 66 KV coefficient is __________
(c) upto 11 KV only (d) 0.415 KV to 11 KV (a) 0 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.333333333333333 (d) 0.5
124. When Microwave signals follow the curvature of the
earth, this is known as 136. Sound loudness is represented by
(a) the Faraday effect (b) ducting (a) Frequency of sound signal
(c) tropospheric scatter (d) ionospheric reflection (b) Magnitude of sound signal
125. In an FM system, if modulating voltage is constant and (c) Both frequency and magnitude of sound signal
modulation frequency is lowered (d) Phase difference of the signal
(a) Relative amplitude of distant sidebands increases 137. Which of the following is incorrect?
(b) Relative amplitude of distant sidebands decreases (a) SWR is a measure of mismatch between the load
(c) frequency deviation increases and the line
(d) frequency deviation decreases (b) When a complex load is connected to a
transmission line, standing waves result even if
126. In a circular waveguide the dominant mode is-
magnitude of load impedance is equal to
(a) TE01 (b) TE11
characteristic impedance of line.
(c) TE20 (d) TE21
(c) A short circuited line less than /4 long behaves as
127. The modulation index of an FM signal, having a carrier a pure inductance
swing of 100 KHZ with modulation signal frequency (d) None of these
is 8 KHZ is
138. The voltage wave in a lossless transmission line has
(a) 6.25 (b) 12.5
the maximum magnitude of 6 volt and minimum
(c) 16.8 (d) 2.85
magnitude of 2.4 volt. The reflection coefficient of the
128. Data rate supported by Standard Ethernet is transmission line is
(a) 10 Mbps (b) 100 Mbps (a) 0.43 (b) 2.33
(c) 1000 Mbps (d) 10 Gbps (c) 1.4 (d) 0.71
129. The number of channels available in MF band (300 139. A transmission line is distortionless if
kHz 3-MHz) for AM modulating signal of 20 kHz is (a) RL = 1/GC (b) RL = GC
(a) 135 (b) 67 (c) LG = RC (d) RG = LC
(c) 150 (d) 15
140. A transmission line has the characteristic impedance
130. In PCM, if the number of quantization levels is Z0 and the voltage standing wave ratio is S . The line
increased from 4 to 64, then the bandwidth requirement impedance on the transmission line at voltage
will approximately be increased __________ times maximum and minimum are respectively
(a) 8 (b) 16 (a) Z0S, Z0/S (b) Z0/S, Z0S
(c) 32 (d) 3 (c) Z0S, Z0S (d) Z0/S, Z0/S
131. The intermediate frequency of a superhet receiver in 141. If a transmission line of length less than / 4 is short
450 KHz. If it is tuned to 1200 KHz, the image circuited, it behaves as
frequency will be- (a) Pure capacitive reactance
(a) 750 KHz (b) 900 KHz (b) Pure inductive reactance
(c) 1650 KHz (d) 2100 KHz (c) Parallel resonant circuit
132. The thermal noise is due to random ______________ (d) Series resonant circuit
(a) motion of atoms and molecules 142. A two port network is symmetrical if
(b) vibration of atoms about their mean position inside (a) A'=B' (b) B'=C'
the conducting medium (c) A'C'=B'D' (d) A'=D'
(c) motion of free electrons
(d) none of these 143. A transducer converts
28 September, 2016 (First Sitting) Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 75

(a) mechanical energy into electrical energy 154. A volt meter has a resistance of 2000, When it is
(b) mechanichal displacement into electrical signal connected across a d.c. circuit its power consumption
(c) one form of energy into another form of energy is 2 MW. Suppose this voltmeter is replaced by a
(d) electrical energy into mechanical form voltmeter of 4000 resistance, the power consumption
144. For higher Voltage three phase transmission will be
(a) Thick Neutral Wire is used (a) 4 mw (b) 1 mw
(b) Thin Neutral Wire is used (c) 2 mw (d) none of these
(c) No Neutral wire is used 155. Which one of the following is an active transdeucer?
(d) None of these (a) Strain guage
145. The Length of IP Address in IPV6 is (b) Selsyn
(a) 128 Bits (b) 256 Biits (c) Photovotaic cell
(c) 64 Bits (d) 32 Bits (d) Photo emissive cell
156. Pirani gauge is useful for measurement of pressure
146. High pass T Filter has
between __________
(a) Low input impedance at low frequencies
(a) 101 to 103 mm of Hg
(b) High input impedance at high frequencies
(b) 101 to 106 mm of Hg
(c) High output impedance at low frequencies
(d) Low input impedance at high frequencies (c) 101 to 109 mm of Hg
(d) 101 to 1012 mm of Hg
147. Which of the following expression shows correct
157. When an amplifier is overdriven and clips the input
function for 'Y' parameter in a two port network?
signal, the type of distortion occurs is ______________
(a) (V1, V2) = f(I1, I2) (b) (I1, I2) = f(V1,V2) (a) frequency distrotion
(c) (V1, I1) = f(V2 I2) (d) (V1, I1) = f(V2, I2) (b) amplitude distrotion
(c) phase distortion
148. For a two port reciprocal network , the three
(d) cross-over distrotion
transmission parameters are given by, A=3/5, B=7/5,
C=4/5, what is the value of D? 158. A voltage using a 20 micro Amp meter movement has
(a) 1 (b) 3/5 a sensitivity of
(c) 53/15 (d) 1/2 (a) 20 micro ohm/volt
(b) 1000 ohm/volt
149. Effective impedance in parallel resonance is given by
(c) 20,000 ohm/volt
(a) R (b) L/RC
(d) 50,000 ohm/volt
(c) C/LR (d) LC/R
159. Lissajons pattern can be used for determining
150. Kelvin's double bridge is used to measure low
(a) Voltage amplitude (b) Amplitude distortion
resistances because-
(c) Frequency distortion (d) Phase shift
(a) it has high sensitivity
(b) there is no thermoelectric emf 160. The connecting probe in CRO causes
(c) resistance variation due to temperature (a) loading
(d) effect of contact and lead resistances is eliminated (b) distortion in the wave
(c) loading and distortion in the wave both
151. A substance that changes its MB_Electrical resistance
(d) None of these
when light falls on it, is known as
(a) Photo Voltaic substance 161. Energy meter is a
(b) Photo conductive substance (a) recording instrument
(c) Both (b) integrating instrument
(d) None of these (c) indicating instrument
(d) none of these
152. Which of the following is true?
(a) Accuracy can be achieved without precision 162. The pressure coil of an energy meter has
(b) Precision can be without accuracy (a) few turns of thin wire
(c) Both Accuracy can be achieved without precision (b) few turns of thick wire
& Precision can be without accuracy (c) many turns of thin wire
(d) None of these (d) many turns of thick wire
153. A set of readings has a wide range and therefore it has 163. The root locus plot for a system is given below. The
______ open loop transfer function G(s)H(s) corresponding to
(a) high precision (b) high accuracy this plot is given by
(c) low accuracy (d) low precision
76 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

j (a) high frequencies (b) low frequencies


(c) medium frequencies (d) all frequencies
170. The medium in pneumatic system is ____________
(a) liquied (b) helium
(c) oil (d) air
171. The node in the signal flow graph performs
(a) Addition of signals from all incoming branches
only
3 2 1 0
(b) Transmitting sum of all incoming signals to
outgoing branches
(c) All of these
(d) None of these
172. The transfer function of a system is used to calculate
s(s 1) s(s 1) ___
(a) k (b) k (a) Type of the system
(s 2)(s 3) s(s 2)(s 3) 2
(b) The output for a given input
1 (s 1) (c) Time constant
(c) s(s 1)(s 2)(s 3) (d) s(s 2)(s 3) (d) None of these
173. Nyquist stability test is a graphical method and its
164. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase advantages are
margin close to zero is (a) Applicable to experimental results or frequency
(a) highly stable (b) oscillatory response of open loop system
(c) relatively stable (d) unstable (b) Closed loop stability can be predicted from open
165. Determine type and order for the above transfer loop results
function. (c) It indicates how to stabilize an unstable system
5 (d) All of these
(s 3)(s 6) 174. A servo system is absolutely unstable if
(a) Type 0, Order 1 (b) Type 0, Order 2 (a) There are no stable components
(c) Type 1, Order 1 (d) Type 1, Order 0 (b) Feedback path becomes regenerative
(c) There is no feedback path
166. The frequency at which the magnitude of the open loop (d) None of these
transfer function is unity
(a) gain cross over frequency 175. Transient response in the system is basically because
(b) phase cross over frequency of
(c) corner frequency (a) coupling (b) forces
(d) phase frequency (c) friction (d) stored energy

167. In an open loop control system 176. An interrupt breaks the execution of instructions and
(a) control action is independent of the output diverts its execution to
(b) control action depends on human judgement (a) Interrupt service routine
(c) internal system changes are automatically taken (b) Counter word register
care of (c) Execution unit
(d) both control action is independent of the output (d) Control unit
and control action depends on human judgement 177. ALU of an 8085 MPU consists of
168. In a closed loop control system (a) Accumulator, tempory register, arthimitic and
(a) control action depends on the output and also on logical ckt
the input command (b) Accumulator, arthimitic, logical ckt, and five flags
(b) output signal is feedback to be compared with the (c) Accumulator, tempory register, arthimitic,logical,
reference signal arithmetic, ckt, five flages
(c) the accuracy is better than in open loop system (d) None of these
(d) All of these 178. Which interrupt has the highest priority
169. The unity circle of Nyquist plot corresponds to the 0db (a) RST 7.5 (b) RST 7
line for the Bode plot for ___________ (c) RST 6.5 (d) RST 3
28 September, 2016 (First Sitting) Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 77

179. The clock frequency of 8085 MUP is ______ MHz 191. Which are network layer devices and are particularly
(a) 6 (b) 4 identified as Layer-3 devices of the OSI Model.
(c) 3 (d) 2 (a) HUB (b) SWITCH
180. Which of the following does not constitute the minimum (c) MODEM (d) ROUTER
architectural unit of a microprocessor? 192. A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude 1 KV is amplitude
(a) ALU modulated by another sinusoidal voltage to produce
(b) Program Counter 30% modulation. The amplitude of each sideband term
(c) Programable Timers is
(d) BUS Buffer and Latches (a) 300 Volts (b) 150 Volts
181. Which type of RAM is easier to interface with a (c) 500 Volts (d) 100 Volts
microprocessor? 193. In a PCM system the number of quantization levels are
(a) static 16 and the maximum signal frequency is 4 KHz, the
(b) dynamic bit transmission rate is
(c) both static and dynamic (a) 64 kbits/sec (b) 32 kbits/sec
(d) none of these (c) 16 kbits/sec (d) 32 bits/sec
182. A complex device used to send and receive serial data 194. The number of first practical microprocessor was
over telephone lines is _________
(a) USART (b) SDLC (a) Intel 4004 (b) M 6800
(c) Modem (d) ASCII (c) Intel 8080 (d) Intel 4001
183. The speed at which serial data is transmitted is referred 195. In pushup list the item retrieved is the ___________
to (a) first item stored in last stack
(a) bps (b) baud rate (b) oldest stored item
(c) either (d) neither (c) most recently stored item
(d) None of these
184. Program is a
(a) combination of letters 196. A microprocessor with a 12 bit address bus will be able
(b) set of instructions to access ________
(c) a command in binary (a) 0.4 Kbytes memory (b) 8 Kbytes memory
(d) group of bits (c) 4 Kbytes memory (d) 1 Kbytes memory
185. The 8085 MPU has 197. Normally a microprocessor cycles between ________
(a) Three flags (b) Four flags (a) fetch and halt state
(c) Five flags (d) Six flags (b) fetch and interupt state
186. In 8085 MPU, sequencing the execution of instructions (c) fetch and execute state
is done by the (d) halt and execute state
(a) accumulator (b) flag 198. The processing of causing an unplanned branching
(c) stack pointer (d) program counter operation to occur usually initiated by external system
187. The order of priority for interrupts in 8085 MPU is is called __________
(a) RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, TRAP (a) debugging (b) interupt
(b) TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 (c) masking (d) iteration
(c) RST 5.5, RST 6.5, RST 7.5, TRAP 199. Compiler converts
(d) TRAP, RST 5.5, RST 6.5, RST 7.5 (a) Source code to Assembly language
(b) Object code to source code
188. The 8086 MPU permits a clock frequency of upto
(c) Source-codewnlachine code
(a) 1 MHz (b) 5 MHz
(d) One source code to another source, code
(c) 8 MHz (d) 10 MHz
189. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP 200. To store other operating systems (other than DOS), the
address 200.10.5.68/28? partition that can be made is
(a) 200.10.5.56 (b) 200.10.5.32 (a) Primary DOS partition
(c) 200.10.5.64 (d) 200.10.5.0 (b) Extended DOS partition
(c) NON-DOS partition
190. OSI has ______ layers (d) None of these
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
78 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (b)
81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (d)
101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (b) 106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (d)
111. (b) 112. (d) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (d) 120. (d)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (b) 125. (a) 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (b) 130. (d)
131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (a) 135. (c) 136. (c) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (c)
141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (c) 145. (a) 146. (d) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (d)
151. (b) 152. (b) 153. (d) 154. (b) 155. (c) 156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (c) 160. (b)
161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (b) 164. (c) 165. (b) 166. (a) 167. (d) 168. (d) 169. (d) 170. (a)
171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (d) 175. (d) 176. (a) 177. (c) 178. (a) 179. (c) 180. (c)
181. (b) 182. (a) 183. (c) 184. (b) 185. (b) 186. (b) 187. (b) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (c)
191. (d) 192. (b) 193. (d) 194. (d) 195. (b) 196. (d) 197. (c) 198. (d) 199. (a) 200. (a)
Examination held on 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)

1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
70 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

1. Pick the Antonym for the word "NASTY" 13. Union Telecom Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad
(a) sad (b) clean announced that a postal stamp would be released in
(c) filthy (d) challenging honour of erstwhile Indian emperor
2. A person who is an Incharge of a Museum or an Art (a) Akbar (b) Ashoka
Gallery (c) Bahadur Shah II (d) Shah Jahan
(a) Invigilator (b) Anarchist 14. Which of the following is a primary colour?
(c) Curator (d) Superintendent (a) pink (b) black
3. Mark the most appropriate substitute to fill the blanks (c) red (d) white
in the given description : He was caught by the teacher 15. Galvanized iron is iron coated with_______
for cheating ________________the exam. (a) zinc (b) gold
(a) During (b) After (c) silver (d) copper
(c) Near (d) Outside
16. Whose signature is found on the one rupee currency
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice : notes?
Darjeeling grows tea. (a) The President
(a) Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling. (b) The Finance Minister
(b) Tea is grown in Darjeeling. (c) The Governor of Reserve Bank
(c) Tea grows in Darjeeling. (d) The Finance Secretary
(d) Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
17. On which of the following plants did Gregor Mendal
5. The first two words are related in a particular manner. perform his classical experiment?
Select the word from given choices, which is related to (a) Maize (b) Pea
third one in the same manner : PAIN:SEDATIVE ::grief (c) Wheat (d) Gram
(a) consolation (b) ache
18. Which organ of the body is affected by Leucoderma?
(c) trance (d) stimulant
(a) Heart (b) Kidney
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the (c) Lungs (d) Skin
given words: PRECARIOUS
19. What is the present Loksabha Constituency of Sushma
(a) menacing (b) threatening
Swaraj?
(c) secured (d) unsafe
(a) Ambala (b) Delhi
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (c) Bellry (d) Vidisha
alternatives. " One should not be in different 20. The European Union adopted which of the following
__________ the suffering of others as common currency
(a) about (b) to (a) Dollar (b) Peso
(c) of (d) at (c) Euro (d) Yen
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Negro 21. The real part of sin (x + iy) is-
(a) Negries (b) Nigger (a) sin x cos y (b) sin x cosh x
(c) Negros (d) Negroes (c) cos x sinh y (d) cos x sin y
9. Choose the word /group of words which is similar in
22. Two or more vectors are said to be if -------------they
meaning to the word. Eulogize
are parallel to the same line, irrespective of their
(a) Harm (b) Praise
magnitudes and directions.
(c) Extract (d) Penalise
(a) EQUAL VECTORS
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the (b) COINITIAL VECTORS
sentences: ____________ drawings is different. (c) COLLINEAR VECTORS
(a) Each one of the (b) Very few (d) None of these
(c) Every (d) All of these 23. Then product of A and B matrix
11. Which Bank launched India's first MUDRA card under
Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana 1 2
1 2 3 3 4 then
(a) Corporation Bank (b) State Bank of India If A and B
3 0 2
(c) Central Bank (d) Reserve Bank of India 4 3
12. On which date, Telangana state Foundation Day is
observed? 3 2 3 8
(a) (b)
(a) 30-May (b) 31-May 3 4 4 1
(c) 2-Jun (d) 4-Jun
[Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 71

(c) Relative, Controllable.


1 2 1 (d) Controllable, Natural.
17 1
(c) (d) 2 0 5 34. The 2nd derivative of a function at point P is 0, and
5 0 3 1 6 concavity is positive for values to the right of P. What
must the concavity be to the left of P for P to be an
24. At what point on curve y = (cosx 1) in { o, 2n } is the inflection point?
tengnt close to x axis (a) The concavity must also be positive.
(a) (n/2, 1) (b) (n, 2) (b) The concavity must be negative.
(c) (2n/3, 3/2) (d) None of these (c) The concavity must be neutral (0).
25. In the equation of staright line y = mx + c, m is (d) The concavity must be imaginary.
(a) Gradient (b) Intercept 35. It has been determined that g(p) has a maximum at
(c) Variable (d) None of these p = 47.6. What can be said of the function's concavity
26. The area under a curve between two points can be found at that point?
by doing a ______________between the two points. (a) g ''(p) = 0
(a) Integration (b) definite integration (b) g ''(p) > 0
(c) differentiation (d) L Hospital Rule (c) g ''(p) < 0
(d) There's no way to tell without first knowing what
27. If the order of matrix A is m x p. And the order of B is
the specific function is.
p x n. Then the order of AB is
(a) n x p (b) n x m 36. The partial differential equation xy (z /x) = 5(2z/
(c) m x p (d) m x n y2) is classified as
(a) elliptic (b) parabolic
28. If x = rcos, y = rsin then z = x + iy (c) hyperbolic (d) none of these
(a) r(cose + sin) (b) r(cose + isin)
(c) r(cose sin) (d) r(cose sin) 37. The necessary condition for an admissible function to
x2
29. Find the derivative of xn have an extremum of I[y(x)] = x1 f(x, y, y1) dx are
(a) nxn1 (b) nx n+1
(a) y (x1) = y1, y (x2) = y2
(c) nxn1 (d) nxn2 (b) y'(x) must be continuous
(c) y''(x) must be continuous
cos x
30. 1 sin x (d) All of these
38. Let H = Z2 Z6 and K = Z3 Z4. Then
(a) log (secx tanx) + log cosx + c
(a) H K
(b) log (secx + tanx) + log cosx + c
(b) H K, since Z2, Z3, Z4 and Z6 are cyclic.
(c) log (secx + tan2x) + log cosx + c
(c) H and K are not isomorphic.
(d) none
(d) H and K are not isomorphic, since their identities
31. The distance between the parallel lines 4x + 6y + 4 = 0 are not equal.
and 4x + 6y + 5 = 0 is
39. How will the fundamental frequency of a wire change
1 if the tension is halved and the area of cross section
(a) (b) 52 doubled?
52
(a) It will be halved
1 (b) It will be doubled
(c) (d) 1 (c) It will remain same
2
(d) It will become one-fourth
x
32. a dx 40. Laser light is ______ emission.
(a) Coherent
ax (b) Stimulated
(a) c (b) ax + c
log a (c) Spontaneous
(d) Coherent and stimulated
log a
(c) log a + c (d) c 41. Isotopes are atoms that have
ax
(a) Same atomic number but different atomic mass
33. The two types of errors that are related to differentials (b) Same atomic mass but different atomic number
are: (c) Same Number of Protons but different number of
(a) Human, Absolute. (b) Absolute, Relative. electrons
(d) None
72 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

42. Isotopes are atoms that have (d) intensity increases


(a) Same atomic number but different atomic mass 54. For an electron to be confined to a nucleus its speed
(b) Same atomic mass but different atomic number relative to speed of light would have to be
(c) Same Number of Protons but different number of (a) equal (b) less
electrons (c) greater (d) equal to infinity
(d) None
55. In history of earth, more coal has been used since
43. Sound cannot travel through (a) 1930 (b) 1935
(a) Gases (b) Vacuum (c) 1940 (d) 1945
(c) Solids (d) Liquids
56. If two vectors have same magnitude and are parallel to
44. Candela is the unit of
each other, then they are said to be
(a) Magnetic flux
(a) same (b) different
(b) Intensity of electric field
(c) negative (d) equal
(c) Luminous intensity
(d) Charge 57. The ability of a material to remain magnetized after
removal of the magnetizing force is known as-
45. Magnetic induction and magnetic flux differ in the (a) permeability (b) reluctance
dimensions of (c) hysteresis (d) retentivity
(a) Time (b) Mass
(c) Electric current (d) Length 58. Value of constant k (m/F) in Coloumb's law has value
of
46. Sum of these is unity
(a) 9 104 (b) 9 105
(a) Reflectivity 6
(c) 9 10 (d) 9 109
(b) Reflectivity + Refractivity
(c) Reflectivity + Refractivity + Transmitivity 59. Like a resonant R-L-C circuit,a parallel resonant circuit
(d) Any also
(a) has a power factor of unity
47. Refractive index of materials is approximately equal to
(b) offers minimum impedance
square root of
(c) draws maximum current
(a) electrical permittivity
(d) magnifies current
(b) magnetic permeability
(c) electrical permittivity magnetic permeability 60. The resistance of a 100 W, 200 V lamp is
(d) None (a) 100 ohm (b) 400 ohm
(c) 1600 ohm (d) 200 ohm
48. Quantity which does not changes during refraction is
(a) direction (b) speed 61. A constant current source supplies a electric current of
(c) frequency (d) wavelength 200 mA to a load of 2k. When the load changed to
100, the load current will be
49. Speed of light in water is (a) 9mA (b) 4A
(a) 3.0 108 (b) 2.3 108 (c) 4mA (d) 400mA
8
(c) 2.0 10 (d) 1.2 108
62. Two incandescent light bulbs of 40 W and 60 W rating
50. Smallest particle of an element which can take part in
are connected in series across the mains. Then
any chemical change.
(a) the bulbs together consume 100 W
(a) nucleus (b) atom
(b) the bulbs together consume 50 W
(c) proton (d) neutron
(c) the 60 W bulb glows brighter
51. An Electric field deflects beams of (d) the 40 bulb glows brighter
(a) protons 63. The magnetic flux density in an aircooled coils is 102
(b) electrons wb/m2. With a cast iron of relative permeability 100
(c) neutrons inserted, the flux density will become
(d) both protons and electrons (a) 104 wb/m2 (b) 10+4 wb/m2
2 2
52. Potential energy source for inducing fusion reaction is (c) 10 wb/m (d) 1 wb/m2
(a) x-ray (b) laser 64. If an electron enters a uniform magnetic field obliquely,
(c) ultraviolet (d) microwave the path of an electron will become
53. During x-ray formation, if voltage is increased then (a) an ellipse (b) a circle
(a) min wave length decreases (c) a spiral (d) None of these
(b) min wave length increases
65. A metallic ring is attached to the wall of a room. When
(c) intensity decreases
[Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 73

the north pole of a magnet is brought near the ring, the 1 k 1 k


induced current in the ring is 2V
(a) anticlockwise (b) clockwise +15V
+15V
(c) zero (d) infinite Vout
66. Differential Form of Gauss's Theorem can be
represented as 1 k 15V 15V
Q
(a) VE (b) E(r)
0 4r 2 0 +1V 1 k 1 k
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
(a) 4 (b) 8
67. Ohm's Law is applicable to
(c) 6 (d) 10
(a) Resistive Circuits
(b) Reactive Circuits 76. In the MOSFET amplifier of the figure, the signal
(c) Both Resistive Circuits & Reactive Circuits output V1 and V2 obey the relationship-
(d) None of these
68. Jule/ Coloumb is the unit of
(a) electric field potential
(b) potential RD
(c) charge
(d) none of these +
69. Kirchoff's current law at a junction deals with
(a) conservation of energy V1
(b) conservation of momentum
+
(c) conservation of angular momentum
(d) conservation of charge + V2
V1
70. Thereni's theorem is ___________ form of an RD
equivalent circuit 2
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) both voltage and current
(d) None of these V2 V2
(a) V1 (b) V1
71. A capacitor opposes 2 2
(a) charge in current (c) V1 = 2V2 (d) V1 = 2V2
(b) charge in voltage 77. The capacitor of a CE amplifier appears to be
(c) both charge in current and voltage (a) Open to ac
(d) none (b) Shorted to dc
72. The main advantage of a temporary magnet is that we (c) Open to supply voltage
can (d) Shorted to ac
(a) change the magnetic flux 78. At room temperature, the current in an intrinsic
(b) use any magnetic material semiconductor is due to
(c) decrease in hysteresis loss (a) holes (b) electrons
(d) none (c) holes and electrons (d) ions
73. The emf induced in a coil of N turns is given by 79. If Thyristor is reverse biased, number of blocked P-N
(a) d / dt (b) N d / dt Junctions are
(c) N d / dt (d) N dt / d (a) 1 (b) 2
74. In a step-up transformer, the turn's ratio is 1:2. A (c) 3 (d) 4
Leclancge cell (emf 1.5V) is connected across the 80. A UJT exhibits negative resistance characteristics when
primary. The voltage across the secondary is (a) Current is less than valley current
(a) 3.0 V (b) 0.75 V (b) Current is less than Peak current
(c) 0 V (d) 1.5 V (c) Current is more than peak current but less than
75. In the circuit shown below, the op-amps are ideal. Then valley current
Vout in Volts is (d) None of these
74 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

81. The smallest of the four h-parameter of transistor is 93. The noise margin of a TTL gate is about-
(a) hi (b) hr (a) 0.2 V (b) 0.4 V
(c) ho (d) hf (c) 0.6 V (d) 0.8 V
94. Bistable multivibrator is also known as-
(a) Binary
82. Symbol represents (b) Flip-flop
(c) Eceless Jordan Circuit
(d) All of these
(a) Voltage Source (b) Capacitor
(c) Current Source (d) Resistance 95. The minimum number of two input NAND Gates
required to implement two input NOR Gate is
83. Base of Bipolar Junction Transistor is (a) 2 (b) 3
(a) Larger than Emitter (c) 4 (d) 5
(b) Larger than Collector
(c) Smaller than Emitter and Collector 96. How is a J-K flip-flop made to toggle?
(d) Larger than emitter but smaller than Collector (a) J = 1, K = 1 (b) J = 0, K = 1
(c) J = 1, K = 0 (d) J = 0, K = 0
84. LED gives off visible light from :
(a) region off depletion layer 97. The minimum number of two input NOR & NAND
(b) p region alone gates required to implement a "Buffer function is _____
(c) n region alone (a) 2 NOR Gates
(d) both p and n regions (b) 2 NAND Gates
(c) 1 NAND & 1 NOR Gate
85. In a common base transistor circuit IC = 0.97 A, IB = (d) All of these
30A the circuit gain a is
(a) 0.97 (b) 0.097 98. A Shift register is operating/connected with 100 KHz
(c) 95 (d) 500 clock. The time taken to feed the 2 Bytes of data serially
in to it is ____
86. The loop gain of a Schmitt Trigger is always (a) 2 sec (b) 80 sec
(a) 0 (b) Less than 1 (c) 160 sec (d) 16 sec
(c) Greater than 1 (d) None
99. A 12 MHz clock frequency is applied to a cascaded
87. The capacitive effects of a reverse biased PN Junction counter containing a modulus-5 counter, a modulus-8
are described by counter, and two modulus-10 counters. The lowest
(a) Storage capacitance (b) Diffusion capacitance output frequency possible is ________
(c) Junction capacitance (d) All of these (a) 30 kHz (b) 3 kHz
88. In Insulators, the energy gap between valence and (c) 363.6 KHz (d) None of these
conduction bands is overlapped 100. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a
(a) very small (b) very large reference of 5 volts. What is the analog output for the
(c) overlapped (d) 1 eV input code 1010.
89. A field-effect transistor (FET) (a) 0.3125 V (b) 3.125 V
(a) has three pn junction (c) 1.5625 V (d) 3.75 V
(b) uses a forward biased junction 101. Signals from 4 channel sources are to be transmitted
(c) depends on the variation of a reverse voltage for through a single transmission channel. The circuit that
its operation can be used is
(d) depends on the variation of magnetic field for its (a) code converter (b) decoder
operation (c) multiplexer (d) all of these
90. In a feedback amplifier, d-esensitivity D equals 102. In differential amplifier, CMRR can be improved by
(a) A (b) 1 A using an increased
(c) 1 + A (d) 1/1 + A (a) emitter resistance
91. The costliest coupling is (b) collector resistance
(a) RC coupling (b) Direct coupling (c) power supply voltages
(c) Impedance coupling (d) Transformer coupling (d) source resistance
92. A Zener diode is used as 103. Quantization error occurs in __________ Systems
(a) an amplifier (b) a voltage regulator (a) Analog to Digital Conversion
(c) a rectifier (d) a multivibrator (b) Digital to Analog Conversion
[Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 75

(c) Both Analog to Digital Conversion & Digital to 115. An electron having mass 'm' kg and charge 'e' coulomb
Analog Conversion travels from rest through a potential difference of 'V'
(d) None of these volts. It has a kinetic energy of ?
104. A flip-flop can store (a) mV joules (b) m eV joules
(a) 1 bit of data (b) 2 bits of data (c) eV joules (d) m/e joules
(c) 3 bits of data (d) 4 bits of data 116. The maximum flux density in the core of a 250/3000
105. Which of the following memories requires refreshing volts, 50-Hz single phase transformer is 1.2Wb/m2. If
cycle? the e.m.f per turn is 8 volt. Then what is the value of
(a) RAM (b) ROM primary and secondary turns
(c) dynamic MOS (d) All of these (a) 208 & 32 (b) 375 & 32
(c) 208 & 375 (d) 32 & 375
106. Unit distance codes are also called as
117. In synchronous motor, damper winding is provided in
(a) Cyclic Codes (b) Non Cyclic codes
order to
(c) Error codes (d) All of these
(a) stabilize rotor motion
107. The number of NAND Gates required to implement (b) suppress rotor oscillation
Ex-OR and Ex-NOR gates are______respectively (c) develop necessary starting torque
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 2 (d) both stabilize rotor motion and develop necessary
(c) 4 and 5 (d) 4 and 3 starting torque
108. The device which selects one of the several inputs and 118. Circuit turn- off time of an SCR is defined as the time
transmits it to a single output is (a) taken by the SCR turn to be off
(a) decoder (b) multiplexer (b) required for the SCR current to become zero
(c) de-multiplexer (d) counter (c) for which the SCR is reverse biased by the
109. Which out of the following logic families is most commutation circuit
expensive? (d) for which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce its
(a) RTL (b) TTL current below the holding current
(c) DTL (d) ECL 119. Capacitors with solid dielectric materials are used
110. Switching speed of ECL logic is very high because because
(a) it uses positive logic (a) they give a reduced dielectric loss
(b) it uses negative logic (b) they are smaller in size as compared with air
(c) it uses high speed transistors capacitors
(d) its transistors remain unsaturated (c) they have a lower capacitance value as compared
with air capacitors
111. As the load is increased, the speed of a dc shunt motor (d) none of these
(a) Increases proportionately
(b) Remains constant 120. The output of three Phase simple half wave rectifier is
(c) Increases slightly also called as
(d) Reduces slightly (a) Pulse number six (b) Pulse number three
(c) Pulse number four (d) Pulse number two
112. At relatively light loads, transformer efficiency is low
because 121. One TR (Unit of Refrigeration) is equal to
(a) Secondary output is low (a) 3.157 KW (b) 5.317 KW
(b) Transformer losses are high (c) 3.715 KW (d) 3.517 KW
(c) Fixed loss is high in proportion to the output 122. For extra high voltage lines which circuit breaker is
(d) Cu loss is small preferred?
113. The function of a cycloconverter is to convert (a) SF6 gas circuit breaker
(a) AC power into DC power (b) Bulk oil circuit breaker
(b) Direct current to alternating current (c) Vacuum circuit breaker
(c) High ac frequency directly to low ac frequency (d) Minimum oil circuit breaker
(d) A sine wave into a rectangular wave 123. In single phase full converter, for load current I ripple
114. In pulse width modulation of chopper free, average thyristor current is
(a) T is kept constant and Ton is varied (a) 1/4 I (b) 1/2 I
(b) Ton is kept constant T is varied (c) 3/4 I (d) I
(c) both T and Ton are varied 124. A carrier is simultaneously amplitude modulated by two
(d) either T or Ton is varied sine waves with modulation indices of 0.4 and 0.3. The
resultant modulation index will be:
76 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

(a) 0.1 (b) 0.5 (b) channel capacity


(c) 0.7 (d) 0.35 (c) bandwidth-capacity product
125. Indicate the wrong statement regarding modulation (d) none of these
(a) Ensure that intelligence is transmitted over long 136. ISDN facility is available in following switching
distance technologies'
(b) Separate differing transmission (a) E-10B (b) Cross-bar'
(c) Reduce the bandwidth used (c) Strowger (d) OCB
(d) Allows the use of practical antennas 137. Which one of the following statement is not correct for
126. Which one of the following modulation techniques has a transmission line?
got maximum SNR A. Attenuation constant of a lossless line is always
(a) AM-SSB (b) AM-DSB zero
(c) FM (d) AM-SC B. Characteristic impedance of both lossless and
distortionless line is real
127. The number of symbols in Quadrature phase shift
C. Attenuation constant of a distortionless line is
keying is
always zero.
(a) Two (b) Four
(a) A (b) B
(c) Eight (d) Sixteen
(c) C (d) Both A and C
128. During amplitude modulation, the phase angle of the
138. In electrical circuits states that for a response (voltage
modulation voltage changes _______
or current) in any branch of a bilateral linear circuit
(a) 45 degree (b) 180 degree
having more than one independent source equals the
(c) 90 degree (d) zero degree
algebraic sum of the responses caused by each
129. The modulation index of a phase modulated wave is independent source acting alone
__________ (a) Norton Theorm
(a) same as in frequency modulation (b) Thevnin Therom
(b) proportional to the modulating frequency (c) Superposition Theorm
(c) proportional to the reciprocal of modulating (d) Duality Theorm
frequency
139. In a certain parallel resonant band-pass filter, the
(d) proportional to the phase of modulating signal
resonant frequency is 14 kHz. If the bandwidth is 4
130. Which of the following circuits transmits two messages kHz, the lower frequency
simultaneously in one direction? (a) is 12 kHz (b) is 7 kHz
(a) Duplex (b) Simplex (c) is 10 kHz (d) cannot be determined
(c) Quadruplex (d) Diplex
140. At a certain frequency, the output voltage of a filter is 6
131. The signals contaminated with large noise are V and the input is 12 V. The voltage ratio in decibels is
demodulated by ______________ (a) 12.04 dB (b) 12.04 dB
(a) envelop detector (c) 6.02 dB (d) 6.02 dB
(b) synchronous detector
(c) envelop detector followed by low pass filter 141. A 26 dBm output in watts equals to
(a) 2.4W (b) 0.26W
(d) envelop detector followed by high pass filter
(c) 0.156W (d) 0.4W
132. The beat frequency between 1500 KHz and 1955 KHz
will be ______________ 142. The length of Physical Address (MAC) in IPV6 is
(a) 455 KHz (b) 100 KHz (a) Same as that in IPV 4
(c) 150 KHz (d) 195.5 KHz (b) More than that in IPV 4
(c) Less than that in IPV 4
133. A trimmer is basically, a ______________ (d) None of these
(a) insulator (b) inductor
143. Capacitance, Voltage and Charge are related as:
(c) capacitor (d) variable resistor
(a) Q = CV (b) C = QV
134. The quality factor Q of a cavity resonator at a given (c) V = QC (d) None of these
frequency for higher mode orders _____________
(a) decreases (b) remains unaffected 144. A network having a battery source in one of its arms is
(c) increases (d) none of these termed as ______________
(a) Linear network (b) bilateral network
135. The total information transmitted is proportional to (c) active network (d) passive network
___________
(a) bandwidth-time product 145. A mderived LPF has f position ______________
[Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 77

(a) above fc (b) below fc (c) Use of Parity bits for error check
(c) at zero (d) at infinity (d) Simultaneous Transmission of Signals
146. Condition for minimum distortion at all frequencies 157. The minimum standing waves occur where reflection
for a transmission line is coefficient is _________
(a) LR = CG (b) LC = GR (a) zero (b) 1
(c) LG = CR (d) None (c) 1 (d) none of these
147. If four 80 micro farad capacitors are connected in series, 158. Attenuator have _____
the net capacitance is (a) attenuation constant
(a) 20 micro farads (b) 40 micro farads (b) phase constant
(c) 160 micro farads (d) 320 microfarads (c) gain and phase constant
(d) attenuation and phase constant
148. The Kirchoffs laws fail in
(a) lumped parameters circuit 159. The quality factor 'Q' of aninductance coil is improved
(b) distributed parameter circuit (a) by reducing coil resistance to minimum
(c) non linear circuits (b) by increasing coil inductance
(d) linear circuits (c) by increasing coil resistance to the maximum
149. A coil has an inductance of 1 henry if a current changing (d) by reducing coil inductance
at the rate of 1 amp/sec 160. Moving coil meter is used to measure only ___
(a) induces 1 volt in another coil (a) D.C. (b) A.C.
(b) causes a back emf of 1 volt (c) D.C. and A.C. (d) None of these
(c) causes an aiding emf of 1 volt
161. Energy is given by the product of
(d) causes transformer action.
(a) force and time (b) time and power
150. The current through the coil of an electromagnet is (c) power and distance (d) force and distance
doubled. The magnetic field around the coil-
162. The frequency range of vibrating reed frequency meter
(a) is halved (b) is doubled
is ____
(c) becomes four times (d) remains the same
(a) 67 Hz to 83 Hz (b) 50 Hz to 100 Hz
151. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be (c) 47 Hz to 53 Hz (d) 60 Hz to 100 Hz
used as _____ by using a low resistance shunt 163. A feedback control system is shown in fig. The transfer
(a) voltmeters function for this system is
(b) ammeters
(c) ohmmeters and resistance bridges R 1 C
G2 G3
(d) All of these G1
152. Standard resistor is made from
(a) platinum (b) manganin H2
(c) silver (d) nichrome
153. Which of the following voltmeters would you use for G1G 2 G 2G3
measuring voltage across 20 k resistance (a) (1 H G G G ) (b) G (1 H G G )
1 1 2 3 1 1 2 3
(a) Voltmeter having a resistance of 5 k
(b) Voltmeter having a sensitivity of 1 kW/V G 2G3 G1G 3
(c) Voltmeter having sensitivity of 10 kW/V (c) (1 H G G G ) (d) (1 H G G G )
1 1 2 3 1 1 2 3
(d) None of these
164. If the gain of the loop system is doubled the gain margin
154. In a measurement systems, which of the following static
of the system is
characteristic are desirable.
(a) Not Affected
(a) accuracy (b) sensitivity
(b) Doubled
(c) reproducibility (d) All of these
(c) Halved
155. PSK is ______________ type of modulation (d) One fourth of original value
(a) Analog (b) Digital
165. G(s) = 1/s(1 + 6s) the system is
(c) Amplitude (d) Angle
(a) Stable (b) Unstable
156. The Speed of the Modems could be increased from 9.6 (c) Marginally Stable (d) Conditionally Stable
Kbps to Higher by
166. Sinusoidal oscillator are
(a) Increasing the Compression rate
(a) stable (b) Unstable
(b) Using High Class decoding
(c) marginally Stable (d) Conditionally Stable
78 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

167. With respect to root locus technique for construction of 176. The contents of register (B) and accumulator (A) of
root locus, identify the false statement 8085 microprocessor are 49H and 3AH respectively. The
(a) The root locus is symmetrical about the real axis contents of A and status of carry (CY) and sign (S)
(b) The root locus technique is powerful tool for after execution SUB B instructions are
adjusting the location of closed loop poles to (a) A = F1, CY = 1, S = 1
achieve the desired system performance by varying (b) A = 0F, CY = 1, S = 1
one or more system parametres. (c) A = F0, CY = 0, S = 0
(c) segments of the real axis having an odd number of (d) A = 1F, CY = 1, S = 1
real axis open-loop poles plus zeros to their right 177. If CS = A15A14A13 is used as the chip select logic of a
are parts of the root locus. 4 K RAM in an 8085 system, then its memory range
(d) None of these will be-
168. In the standard form of closed loop transfer function of (a) 3000 H 3 FFF H
second order system is given by C(s)/R(s)= 2n/ (b) 7000 H 7 FFF H
s2 + 2ns + 2n The damping ratio =1 then the roots (c) 5000 H 5 FFF H and 6000 H 6 FFF H
are (d) 6000 H 6 FFF H and 7000 H 7 FFF H
(a) purely imaginary (b) real and equal 178. Which interrupt has the highest priority?
(c) real and unequal (d) None of these
(a) INTR (b) TRAP
169. The statements that holds good for relative stability (c) RST6.5 (d) none of these
analysis is 179. For which of the following devices, is DMA the most
(a) Routh array method can not be used suitable
(b) graphical methods can not be used (a) Hard disk (b) Key board
(c) graphical method can be used but Routh array can (c) Mouse (d) Joy Stick
not be used
(d) both graphical as well as Routh array can be used 180. The 8085 MUP is available in _______ pin DIP
(a) 60 (b) 40
170. A servo system must have
(c) 24 (d) 14
(a) feedback system
(b) power amplifier to amplify error 181. HOLD & HLDA pair provides the handshaking signals
(c) capacity to control position or its derivative required for ____________operation
(d) all of these (a) UART (b) USART
(c) DMA (d) All
171. For the characteristic equation 2s3 + 4s2 + 4s + 12 = 0
the number of roots with positive real parts is 182. "Cycle steal" operation is with
__________ (a) DMA controller
(a) none (b) one (b) Interrupt Controller
(c) two (d) three (c) Keyboard Display Controller
(d) Microcontroller
172. The transfer function is applicable to ___________
(a) linear system only 183. Thyristor chopper circuits are emplyed for
(b) non linear system only (a) lowering the level of a d.c. voltage
(c) linear and time invariant system (b) rectifying the a.c. voltage
(d) linear and time variant system (c) frequency conversion
(d) providing commutating circuitry
173. For a system having transfer function P(s) = 2/(s + 2),
the phase shift will be 184. Find the incorrect pascal reserved word
(a) tan1 (1/3) (b) 1/tan1 (2/3) (a) AND (b) END
1
(c) tan (3/4) (d) tan1 (1/2) (c) VAR (d) ELSEIF
174. The temperature of a thermal system is analog of ___ 185. Microprocessor is
(a) Voltage (b) Current (a) ALU and memory on a single chip
(c) Capacitance (d) Inductance (b) ALU and I/O devices on a single chip
(c) ALU and control unit on a single chip
175. Choose the non-linear systems from the following
(d) ALU, register unit and control unit on a single chip
(a) Servo motors under saturation range operation
(b) Temperature controlled furnace 186. Stack pointer ________ bit register.
(c) Automatic voltage stabilizers (a) 4 (b) 8
(d) All of these (c) 16 (d) 32
187. 8085 operates with
[Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 79

(a) 1 MHz single phase clock (a) 3 only (b) 1 only


(b) 2 MHz single phase clock (c) 2 only (d) more than 2
(c) 2 MHz two phase clock 199. The standard punched card is divided into ___________
(d) 3 MHz single phase clock columns and __________rows.
188. The address bus of 8085 MPU is (a) 12, 40 (b) 40, 20
(a) multi directional (b) bi-directional (c) 80, 12 (d) 80, 20
(c) unidirectional (d) None of these 200. The third generation computers could perform
189. You can add a row using SQL in a database with which calculations in ______________
of the following? (a) milliseconds (b) microseconds
(a) ADD (b) CREATE (c) nanoseconds (d) pecoseconds
(c) INSERT (d) MAKE
190. SQL stands for ________ .
(a) Structured Query Language
(b) Sequential Query Language
(c) Structured Question Language
(d) Sequential Question Language
191. Window is _______________
(a) GUI based free OS
(b) Non-GUI based free OS
(c) GUI based not free OS
(d) Non-GUI based not free OS
192. Windows OS is
(a) Open Source OS
(b) Closed Source OS
(c) Open Source but with restrictions
(d) None of these
193. Printer is
(a) Input device
(b) Output device
(c) Memory Device
(d) It is not a device
194. In database, Data manipulation language (DML) is not
to
(a) Create information table in the Database
(b) Insertion of new information in to the database
(c) Deletion of information in the database
(d) Updation of information in the database
195. An active element in a circuit is one
(a) receives energy
(b) supplies energy
(c) both receives and supplies energy
(d) none of these
196. One Giga Byte is equal to
(a) 220 Bytes (b) 230 Bytes
2
(c) 20 Bytes (d) 102 Bytes
197. DMA 8237 provides _____________ DMA channel.
(a) 8 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 1
198. The number of flow lines leaving a decision box is
__________
80 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (b) 100. (b)
101. (c) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (d) 105. (c) 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (d)
111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (c) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (d) 122. (a) 123. (b) 124. (b) 125. (c) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (a) 130. (d)
131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139. (a) 140. (c)
141. (d) 142. (a) 143. (a) 144. (c) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (b)
151. (b) 152. (b) 153. (c) 154. (d) 155. (b) 156. (c) 157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (c)
161. (c) 162. (d) 163. (b) 164. (c) 165. (c) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (b) 169. (d) 170. (d)
171. (c) 172. (c) 173. (d) 174. (a) 175. (d) 176. (b) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (b)
181. (c) 182. (a) 183. (a) 184. (d) 185. (d) 186. (b) 187. (c) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (c)
191. (c) 192. (b) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (b) 197. (b) 198. (c) 199. (c) 200. (d)
Examination held on 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)

1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
82 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

1. Pick the Synonym for the word MAWKISH (c) being given/to expand
(a) silly (b) foolish (d) having given/having expanded
(c) disgusting (d) crooked 11. The Global Navigation Satellite System GLONASS is
2. Pick the most suitable one word substitute for A person a space-based satellite navigation system operated by
who loves mankind and works for their well-being. (a) USA (b) India
(a) Trustee (b) Philanthropist (c) Russian Federation (d) France
(c) Devotee (d) Anthropologist 12. Which country is hosting the 16th World Sanskrit
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the Conference?
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make (a) Thailand (b) Bangladesh
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. A (c) China (d) Sri Lanka
more developed model of this car may be showing in
13. Who became the first fielder in Test Cricket history to
the showroom soon.
take eight catches in a match?
(a) had shown (b) will be shown
(a) Ajinkya Rahane (b) Wasim Akram
(c) was shown (d) is going to show
(c) Anil Kumble (d) Javagal Srinath
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice: 14. Who wrote the famous book Malgudi Days?
A child could not have done this mischief. (a) V.S. Naipaul (b) Deepak Chopra
(a) This mischief could not been done by a child. (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) R.K.Narayan
(b) This mischief could not have been done by a child.
15. If there is 10:30 in India what will be the time in
(c) This mischief a child could not have been done.
Pakistan?
(d) This mischief could not be done by a child.
(a) 11:00 (b) 10:30
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given: (c) 10:00 (d) 10:00
(a) Occassionally (b) Occasionaly
16. How many numbers are there from 5 to 100, which are
(c) Occasionally (d) Occassionali
divisible by 3 and either unit or tenth digit or both
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the include 3?
given words: Gainsay (a) 10 (b) 8
(a) agree (b) oppose (c) 6 (d) Less than 6
(c) disapprove (d) minimize 17. Kaziranga is known for
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (a) Rhinoceros (b) Tiger
alternatives. Mother Teresa was_____honest women. (c) Birds (d) Lion
(a) a (b) an 18. Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by:
(c) the (d) no article required (a) Dry hot summers and cool wet winters
8. Change the direct narration to indirect narration: He (b) Wet hot summers and cool dry winters
said to his father, Please increase my pocket-money. (c) Dry hot winters and dry cool winters
(a) He pleaded his father to please increase my pocket (d) Wet hot summers and wet cool winters
money.
19. The commercial silk is obtained from cocoons secreted
(b) He requested his father to increase his pocket-
by salivary glands of:
money.
(a) Spider (b) Bombyx Mori
(c) he asked his father to increase his pocket-money.
(c) Corcyra Cephalonica (d) Hypera
(d) he told his father,Please increase the pocket-
money 20. Radiocarbon dating technique is used to estimate the
age of
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the (a) rocks (b) monuments
statement in the question: A general pardon of political (c) soil (d) fossils
offenders
(a) Mercy (b) Charity 3 4i
(c) Forbearance (d) Amnesty 21. The modulus of the complex number is-
1 2i
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the
(a) 5 (b) 5
sentences: After introducing himself briefly, mr. Singh
went on______information on how______our market 1 1
through effective advertising strategy. (c) (d)
5 5
(a) to give/to expand
(b) giving/to expand
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 83

22. i37 = ? 33. What are the values of C0 and C1 in d(t) = C1 + C0t
(a) i (b) 1 16t2, if d(1) = 4 and v(2) = 65?
(c) I2 (d) None of these (a) C0 = 1, C1 = 21 (b) C0 = 1, C1
23. Find the Laplace transform of the function F(t) = sin at (c) C0 = 1, C1 (d) C0 = 0, C1 = 1
(a) a / (p2 a2), p > |a| (b) a / (p2 + a2), p > 0 34. G (d) was determined to be 3d + C; here C is called:
2 2
(c) p / (p + a ), p > 0 (d) p / (p2 a2), p > |a| (a) the constant of differentiation
24. If 5x + 3y 2 = 0 and 4x + ky 2 = 0 are parallel then (b) the constant of anti-differentiation.
k=? (c) the constant of integration.
(a) k = 5/12 (b) k = 12/5 (d) the constant of death and taxes.
(c) k = 5 (d) k = 12 35. Does f(c) = (c + 2)3 2 have an inflection point? If so,
where is it located?
25. Sin(x2 + 1) differentiate the above with respect to x
(a) Yes, at (2, 2) (b) Yes, at (2, 2)
(a) 2xcos(x2 + 1) (b) 3sin2x.cosx
(c) yes, at (8, 2) (d) No
(c) 5cot 5x (d) ex sinx
26. If x = r cosq, y = r sinq then the value of d2q/dx2 + d2q/ 36. The following is true for the following partial
dx2 is differential equation used in nonlinear mechanics
(a) 0 (b) 1 known as the Korteweg-de Vries equation.
(c) dr/dx (d) dr/dy (w / t) ( 3 w / x 3 ) 6w(w / x) 0
(a) linear; 3rd order
1 at bt (b) nonlinear; 3rd order
27. The laplace transform of (a b) (ae be ) is
(c) linear; 1st order
(d) nonlinear; 1st order
1 s
(a) (s a)(s b) (a b) (b) (s a)(s b) (a b) 37. The system of linear equations 2x + 2y 3z = 1, 4x +
4y + z = 2, 6x + 6y z = 3 has
s (a) a unique solution
(c) (s a)(s b) (a b) (d) None of these (b) infinite solutions
(c) no solution
(d) two solutions
s
28. The function, whose laplace transform is (s 2 w 2 ) is 38. x vector space is isomorphic to Cn.
(iii) Any n-dimensional vector space over the field F is
1 isomorphic to Fn. Then
(a) Cos(wt) (b) cos(wt)
w (a) Only i and ii are true
(c) sin(wt) (d) wsin(wt) (b) i is true, but ii and iii are not true
(c) None of them is true
d x (d) All of them are true.
29. (e )
dx 39. The increasing order for the value of e/m for electron
(a) ex (b) xex (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and a particle is
(c) xex (d) xex (a) e, p, n, a (b) n, p, e, a
(c) n, p, e, a (d) n, a, p, e
1 3 4 40. 1 neper is equal to
30. Evaluate 2 6 2 (a) 0.08686 db (b) 0.8686 db
4 12 1 (c) 8.686 db (d) 86.86 db

(a) = 0 (b) = 1 41. A potentiometer may be used for


(c) = 1 (d) None (a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
31. If AT = A1, where A is real matrix, then A is (c) calibration of ammeter
(a) Normal (b) Symmetric (d) All of these
(c) Hermitian (d) Orthogonal
42. What is the size of stack pointer in an 8085 micro
32. What is the slope of the line passing through the points processor
(4,6) and (1, 2)? (a) 32 bit (b) 16 bit
(a) 4/3 (b) 3/4 (c) 8 bit (d) 4 bit
(c) 8/5 (d) 5/8
84 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

43. One Watt hour contains______Joules 55. A vector having magnitude only is called
(a) 3.6 108 (b) 3.6 105 (a) scalar (b) resultant
3
(c) 3.6 10 (d) 3.6 101 (c) unit vector (d) temperature
44. The three fundamental particles of the atom are 56. Physical quantities having magnitude only are called
(a) Nucleus, Proton and Electrons (a) vector quantities (b) scalar quantities
(b) Proton, Neutron and Electron (c) mental quantities
(c) Positron, NeutriPhyno and Gamma Rays (d) both vector quantities and scalar quantities
(d) Positron, Neutrino and Gamma Rays 57. If 120 C of charge passes through a conductor in 60
45. One Angstron unit is equal to sec, the current in the conductor is
(a) 1010 m (b) 1008 cm (a) 3.33 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1007 mm (d) All of these (c) 2 A (d) 0.3 A
46. Which of the following is an application of Echo 58. In a charging RC circuit with supply voltage = Vs, the
(a) Height of an Aeroplane value voltage at time t = RC will be-
(b) Stethoscope (a) 0.5 V (b) 0.63 Vs
(c) in SONAR system to detect the presence of (c) 0.86 Vs (d) 0.95 Vs
submarine 59. The induced voltage across a coil with 250 turns that is
(d) All of these
located in a magnetic field that is changing at a rate of
47. Which among the following quantity have neither units 8 Wb/s is-
nor the dimensions (a) 1000 V (b) 2000 V
(a) Relative permeabiolity (c) 31.25 V (d) 63 V
(b) Plane angle
60. Two positive charges q1 = 16 and q2 = 4 are seperated
(c) Solid Angle
by a diameter of 3m will produce force of
(d) Radian
(a) 40N (b) 41.1N
48. The natural element whose atomic no. is greater (c) 43.2N (d) 42.7N
than........are radioactive
61. Kirchoffs second law is based on law of conservation of
(a) 52 (b) 62
(a) charge (b) energy
(c) 72 (d) 82
(c) momentum (d) mass
49. Which of the following is a common unit of a physical 62. In the circuit shown, maximum power will be
quantity in M.K.S & S.I systems. transferred when
(a) ampere (b) kelvin
(c) mole (d) joule/sec 4.5 + j6.5
50. Bougguers law relates____________.
(a) Light reflection (b) Light refraction
(c) Light transmission (d) Light Absorption
ZL
51. Luminescence is because of
(a) Photons emitted while excited electrons drops down E = (10 + j15) V
(b) Knocking out of electrons by photons
(c) Photons stimulated by photons
(d) All
(a) ZL = (6.5 + j4.5)W (b) ZL = (4.5 + j6.5)W
52. Atomic number is number of (c) ZL = (4.5 j6.5)W (d) ZL = (6.5 j4.5)W
(a) protons (p+) (b) electrons (e)
(c) neutrons (n0) (d) nucleons (p+ and n0) 63. Magnetic flux intensity is a
(a) scalar quantity (b) vector quantity
53. Series that lies in infrared region of electromagnetic (c) phasor (d) None of these
spectrum is
(a) Lyman series 64. At low frequencies, the material used for transformer
(b) ballmer series cores is
(c) Bracket series (a) copper (b) silicon iron
(d) both Lyman series and Ballmer series (c) soft iron (d) None of these

54. Gravitational potential energy is product of 65. The relative permeability of air is
(a) gh (b) mgh (a) zero (b) 1
(c) mg (d) mgf (c) infinity (d) None of these
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 85

66. The force of attraction between two charge particles is (a) Zero (b) Infinite
(a) Directly proportional to the amount of Charge Vin1 Vin 2
(b) Inversely proportional to amount of charge (c) Indeterminate (d) 2VT
(c) Directly proportional to size of the charged particles
(d) None of these 76. A 741type op-amp has a gainbandwidth product of 1
MHz. A noninverting amplifier using this opamp and
67. Ratio of the voltage and electric current in a closed circuit:
having a voltage gain of 20 dB will exhibit a-3 dB
(a) remains constant (b) varies
bandwidth of
(c) increases (d) decreases
(a) 50 kHz (b) 100 kHz
68. A 220V, 100W Bulb is connected to a 110V source. (c) 1000/17 kHz (d) 1000/7.07 kHz
Calculate the power consumed by the bulb?
77. When two amplifer each of bandwidth fH = 10 kHz are
(a) 20 W (b) 15 W
cascaded, the overall bandwidth becomes (in kHz)
(c) 10 W (d) 25 W
(a) 10 (b) 6.4
69. Cells are connected in seris in order to increase the (c) 5 (d) 20
(a) current capacity (b) life of the cells
78. When SCR starts conducting, then________loses all
(c) voltage rating (d) terminal voltage
control
70. An electric circuit contains (a) Gate (b) Cathode
(a) active elements only (c) Anode (d) None of these
(b) passive elements only
79. If a circuit has to switch between two power sources
(c) both active and passive elements
then which type of switch is required
(d) None of these
(a) SPST (b) DPST
71. A kilowatt hour is the unit of (c) DPDT (d) All of these
(a) energy (b) power
80. Consider the following two statements:
(c) electrolyte (d) electric current
Statement 1: Astable Multivibrator can be used for
72. A constant voltage is applied across the ends of a generating square wave.
conductor, the heat produced is Statement 2: Bistable Multivibrator can be used for
(a) directly proportional to length storing binary information.
(b) inversly proportional to length (a) Only statement 1 is correct
(c) directly proportional to square of length (b) Only statement 2 is correct
(d) None (c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct
73. Two long parallel conductors carrying currents in (d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are Incorrect.
opposite directions___________each other 81. The Ebers - Moll model is applicable to
(a) Attract (b) Repel (a) Bipolar junction transistors
(c) Noeffect on (d) No of these (b) NMOS transistors
74. The power consumed by a pure capacitor is (c) Unipolar Junction transistors
(a) 1W (b) 0.5W (d) Junction field effect transistors
(c) W (d) 0 W 82. As compared to voltage regulators made up of discrete
75. In the differential amplifier of the figure, if the source components, IC regulators have the inherent advantages
resistance of the current source IEE is infinite, then of
the commonmode gain is (a) self protection against over temperature
(b) remote control
VCC (c) current limiting
(d) All of these
83. Technology used for manufacturing of RAM for
R R computing devices is
(a) NMOS (b) PMOS
Vm2 Vm1 (c) CMOS (d) FET
84. While transisting from one level to another level an
electron
IEE (a) Emits or absorbs Proton
(b) Emits or Absorbs Photon
VEE (c) Emits or Absorb Neutron
(d) None of these
86 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

85. Crystal oscillator uses 94. The output Y in the circuit below is always 1 when
(a) silicon crystal
(b) germanium crystal P
(c) crystal diode
(d) piezo-electric quartz crystal
Q
86. The reason for expressing the output of audio amplifier Y
in decible is that
R
(a) it is more convenient to express
(b) human ear hears sound on a linear scale
(c) human ear hears on logarithmic scale (a) two or more of the inputs P, Q, R are 0
(d) None of these (b) two or more of the inputs P, Q, R are 1
87. When the relative permiability of a material is slightly (c) any odd number of the inputs P, Q, R is 0
less than 1, it is called a (d) any odd number of the inputs P, Q, R is 1
(a) diamagnetic material 95. A Darlington emitter follower circuit is sometimes used
(b) para magnetic material in the output stage of a TTL gate in order to
(c) ferro magnetic material (a) increase its IOL
(d) None (b) reduce its IOH
88. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure (c) increase its speed of operation
semiconductor, it becomes (d) reduce power dissipation
(a) Intrinsic semiconductor 96. The parity bit is added for_____purpose
(b) An insulator (a) Coding (b) Indexing
(c) N type semiconductor (c) Error Correction (d) Controlling
(d) P type semiconductor
97. A mod -(n-1/2) counter is to be built. It will need
89. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is (a) mod-n counter
about__________ (b) mod-n counter plus flip-flop
(a) 7.0V (b) 1.4V (c) mod-n counter, FF and an EX-OR gate
(c) 0.7V (d) 3.3V (d) None of these
90. In a silicon diode, the reverse saturation current is of 98. A demultiplexer can be used to realize a
the order of (a) counter (b) shift register
(a) 1 mA (b) 1 nA (c) combinational circuit (d) display system
(c) 1 pA (d) 1 A
99. Which of the 74 series of TTL-IC has the best figure of
91. A monostable multivibrator has merit
(a) two stable states (b) one stable state (a) 74H (b) 74L
(c) no stable state (d) two quasi-stable states (c) 74LS (d) 74ALS
92. The output transformer used in a power amplifier is a 100. Which of the following is a temporary memory?
(a) 1:1 ratio transformer (a) RAM (b) ROM
(b) Step-up transformer (c) Both RAM & ROM (d) None of these
(c) Step-down transformer 101. How many flip-flop are needed for a 4 bit counter?
(d) None of these (a) two (b) three
93. For the logic circuit shown in the figure, the required (c) four (d) six
input condition (A,B,C) to make the output (X) = 1 is
102. Insulators have:
(a) a large energy gap
A (b) an empty conduction band
(c) a full valence band
B (d) None of these
X 103. In a capacitor, the electric charges is stored in
C (a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) Both metal plates & dielectric
(a) 1, 0, 1 (b) 0, 0, 1 (d) None of these
(c) 1, 1, 1 (d) 0, 1, 1
104. Main advantage of hexadecimal number system is
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 87

(a) ease of conversion from hexadecimal to decimal (c) energy is transferred both inductively and
and vice-versa conductively
(b) ease of conversion from hexadecimal to binary and (d) energy is transferred inductively
vice-versa 115. Consider the star network shown in Figure. The
(c) ease of conversion from hexadecimal to gray code resistance between terminals A and B with C open is
and vice-versa 6, between terminals B and C with A open is 11,
(d) use of number and alphabets and between terminals C and A with B open is 9.
105. Binary coded decimal BC number are useful whenever Then
(a) binary to BCD conversion is desired
A
(b) binary to hexadecimal conversion is desired
(c) decimal information is transferred into or out of RA
digital system
(d) None of these
RB RC
106. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of
(a) OR gates (b) NOT gates B
(c) NAND gates (d) None of these
C
107. Popular applications of flip-flop are
(a) counters (b) shift registers (a) RA = 4, RB = 2, RC = 5
(c) transfer register (d) all of these (b) RA = 2, RB = 4, RC = 7
(c) RA = 3, RB = 3, RC = 4
108. A de-multiplexer is used to (d) RA = 5, RB = 1, RC = 15
(a) route the data from single input to one of many
outputs 116. Figure shows a chopper operating from a 100V dc input.
(b) select data from several inputs and route it to single The duty ratio of the main switch S is 0.8. The load is
output sufficiently inductive so that the load current is ripple
(c) perform serial to parallel conversion free. The average current through the diode D under
(d) All of these steady ripple free. The average current through the
diode D under steady state is
109. Number of flip-flop needed to divide the input frequency
by 32 is S L
(a) 2 (b) 4 +
(c) 5 (d) 8
110. Which of the following logic gates dissipates minimum 100 V D 10
power?
(a) RTL (b) TTL

(c) MOS (d) ECL
(a) 8A
111. The______generator has poorest voltage regulation. (b) 1.6A
(a) Series (b) Shunt (c) 10A
(c) Compound (d) Over-compound (d) 6.4A
112. The effect of increasing the length of air gap in an 117. In a series R-L-C circuit the power factor under
induction motor will be to increase the resonance condition will be___________
(a) Power factor (b) Speed (a) 1 (b) 0
(c) Magnetising current (d) Air-gap flux
1
113. The most efficient form of damping employed in (c) 2 (d)
2
electrical instruments is
(a) Air friction (b) Fluid friction 118. Transformers are rated in KVA instead of KW
(c) Eddy currents (d) None of these because___________
114. The Kva Rating of an ordinary 2-winding transformer (a) load power factor is often not known
is increased when connected as an autotransformer is (b) KVA is fixed whereas KW depends on load of
due to (c) total transformer loss depends on volt-ampere
(a) transformation ratio is increased (d) it has become customary
(b) secondary voltage is increased
88 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

119. The frequency of sinusoidal alternating voltage having (c) telephony


periodic time of 40m, sec is (d) All of these
(a) 0.025 Hz (b) 25 Hz 128. The function of de-emphasis circuit in an FM receiver
(c) 2.5 103 Hz (d) 0.25 Hz is__________
120. In D.C. generators, supply to external load is tapped (a) to control the amplitude of FM wave
through_______ (b) to restore the various frequency components to their
(a) brush and springs (b) brush and commutator original levels
(c) solid connection (d) helical springs (c) to reduce the high frequency components
121. When a current carrying conductor is placed (d) None of these
perpendicular to a magnetic field, it tends to move 129. The intended frequency of operation of dipole antenna
(a) perpendicular to itself of cutoff wavelength of 3.5 m is
(b) perpendicular to the field (a) 21.45 MHz (b) 85.8 MHz
(c) perpendicular to the field as well as itself (c) 100.5 MHz (d) 42.9 MHz
(d) in any direction
130. The dimension specified by the manufacturers for the
122. Direction of the alternating e.m.f. produced in the stator TV screen is__________
conductors of an alternator is given by (a) width (b) diagonal
(a) Lenzs law (c) height (d) None of these
(b) Flemings left hand rule
131. A carrier voltage frequency is 1 MHz and modulating
(c) Flemings right hand rule
signal frequency is 5 KHz. Calculate the frequency of
(d) Kirchoffs law
lower side band and upper side band in case of
123. In which of the following type of relay, solenoid is used Amplitude modulation.
to move in iron core or plunger (a) 990 KHz and 1005 KHz
(a) electrodynamic type (b) 995 KHz & 1110 KHz
(b) solenoid type (c) 1000 KHz & 1005 KHz
(c) induction type (d) 995 KHz & 1005 KHz
(d) attracted armature type
132. Armstrong modulator generates
124. A rectangular waveguide having TE 10 mode as (a) AM Signal
dominant mode is having a cut off frequency 18 GHz (b) FM Signal
for the mode TE30. The inner broad-wall dimension of (c) PM Signal
the waveguide is (d) Both FM Signal & PM Signal
(a) 5/3 cm (b) 5 cm
133. Telephone traffic is measured________
(c) 5/2 cm (d) 10 cm
(a) with echo cancellers
125. What is the difference of UART and USART (b) by the relative congestion
communication (c) In terms of the grade of service
(a) they are the names of the same particular thing, (d) in Erlangs
just the difference of A and S is there in it 134. A super group pilot is
(b) one uses asynchronous means of communication
(a) applied at each multiplexing bay
and the other uses synchronous means of
(b) used to regulate the gain of individual repeaters
communication
(c) applied at each adjustable equalizer
(c) one uses asynchronous means of communication
(d) fed in at a GTE
and the other uses synchronous and asynchronous
means of communication 135. The disadvantage of optical fiber cable technology
(d) one uses angular means of communication and the compare with microwave technology is
other uses linear means of communication (a) Laying and protection of OFC cable
(b) Their inadequate channel capacity
126. The maximum range of a transmitter depends on (c) The high crosstalk from which they suffer
(a) Its Frequency (d) The magnetic fields affect them too easily
(b) Its Power
(c) Both Frequency and Power 136. Which of the following microwave tube is based on the
(d) None of these principle of velocity modulation
(a) Magnetron
127. Vestigial side band is most commonly used in_______
(b) Klystron
(a) radio transmission
(c) TWT
(b) television transmission
(d) Pencil Triode
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 89

137. Indicate the false option. If SWR on a transmission 147. Cut off frequencies of constant K filters of all types are
line is infinity~ the line is terminated in given by_______
1. a short circuit (a) Z1/4Z2 = 0 (b) Z1/4Z2 = 1
2. a complex impedance (c) Z1/4Z2 = 1 (d) None of these
3. an open circuit 148. The pass band of HPF is________
4. a pure reactance (a) above DC (b) above 5 KHz
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) below 5 KHz (d) between 5-10 KHz
(c) 3 (d) 4
149. If the average value of a sine wave is 6 Volts, its effective
138. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, it is best value is
to use a (a) 3.53 volts (b) 3.18 volts
(a) slotted line (c) 66.6 volts (d) 6.66 volts
(b) Balun
(c) directional coupler 150. In a CRO which of the following is not a part of electron
(d) quarter wave transformer gun?
(a) cathode (b) grid
139. The reflection coefficient of a line is - 1. The line is
(c) accelerating anode (d) XY plates
(a) Open circuited. (b) Short circuited
(c) Terminated in Z0 (d) None of these 151. Which of the following is not true about a voltmeter?
(a) loading causes the meter to indicate less than the
140. What is the expected VSWR for a transmission line
true voltage with no meter connected.
with reflection coefficient of 0.5
(b) the higher the voltmeter resistance, the more
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.5
loading of the circuit under test
(c) 2 (d) 3
(c) ideal voltmeter has infinite internal resistance
141. For an mderived high pass filter, the cut off frequency (d) Voltmeters with electromechanical movements are
is 4KHz and the filter has an infinite attenuation at 4 typically given ratings in ohms per volt
KHz, the value of m is 152. Which bridge can be used to measure frequency?
(a) 1 (b) zero (a) Maxwell (b) Kelvin
(c) 2 (d) 0.5 (c) Schering (d) Wein
142. Impedance matching is used to 153. Which of the following effects is used in measurement
(a) Maximize power transfer to the load of magnetic flux?
(b) Minimize the reflection loss (a) Hall effect (b) Seeback effect
(c) Both Maximize power transfer to the load & (c) Piezo electric effect (d) Photoelectric effect
Minimize the reflection loss
154. The Y plates of a CRO are excited by a voltage 2 sin
(d) None of these
100 t and the X plates are not connected. The display
143. The reflection coefficient on loss less transmission would be
line__________ (a) a vertical line (b) a horizontal line
(a) is always purely imaginary (c) sline wave (d) a big dot
(b) is always purely real 155. One neper is equal to_______
(c) is always complex
(a) 0.8686 db (b) 8.686 db
(d) can be any way
(c) 0.1151 db (d) 1.151 db
144. VSWR is defined as___________ 156. The input resistance of a cathode ray oscilloscope is of
(a) VSWR = Vmin/Vmax the order of_________
(b) VSWR = Vmax/Vmin (a) mega ohm (b) tens of ohm
(c) VSWR = Vmax+Vmin/2 (c) kilo ohm (d) fraction of an ohm
(d) VSWR = Vmin.Vmax
157. A CRO can display________
145. The predominant primary constituents of a telephone
(a) A.C. signal
cable are________
(b) D.C. signal
(a) L and G (b) L and C
(c) time invariant
(c) G and C (d) R and C
(d) both A.C. and D.C. signal
146. VSWR in a transmission line lies between________ 158. Which meter has the highest accuracy in the prescribed
(a) 0 and limit of frequency range
(b) 0 and 1 (a) rectifier (b) electrodynamic meter
(c) 1 and (c) PMMC (d) Moving iron
(d) 0 and Z0
90 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

159. A thermistor exhibits________ 167. The Fulx, In Force-Current analogy, is analogous to


(a) only a negative change of resistance with increase (a) velocity (b) mass
in temperature (c) displacement (d) None of these
(b) only positive change of resistance with increase in 168. A PLL can be used to demodultate
temperature (a) PAM signals (b) PCM signals
(c) can exhibit either a negative or positive change of (c) FM signals (d) DSB-SC signals
resistance with increase in temperature depending
on the type of material used 169. In Force-Voltage analogy, spring constant is analogous
(d) None of these to ___________ in electrical system
(a) reciprocal of inductance
160. How many windings does a simple resolver have? (b) reciprocal of resistance
(a) one stator and two rotor winding (c) ratio of inductance and resistance
(b) one rotor and two stator windings (d) reciprocal of capacitance
(c) two stator and two rotor windings
(d) one stator and one rotor windings 170. In control system we have:
I) Nyquist criterion,
161. Rectifier instrument indicate
II) Bode plot
(a) RMS value (b) Peak value
III) Root locus plot,
(c) Average value (d) None of these IV) Routh hurwitz criterion.
162. If we leave the secondary winding of current transformer Which of the above are in time domain?
open (a) I) & II) only (b) III) & IV) only
(a) Nothing will happen (c) I) & III) only (d) II) & IV) only
(b) CT will blast
171. The potentiometer should have resolution
(c) There will be only magnetizing component of the
(a) Infinite (b) Very high
current flowing in the primary
(c) Medium (d) Zero
(d) There will not be any current in primary
172. The bandwidth can be increased by the use of
163. The transfer function Y(s)/R9s) of the system shown
(a) Phase lead network (b) Phase lag network
is
(c) All of these (d) None of these
+ 1 173. Spring stiffness K is analogous to
R(s) s+1
Y(s)
(a) Capacitance in force voltage analogy

(b) Reciprocal of inductance in force current analogy
(c) Inductance in forcecurrent analogy
+ (d) Reciprocal of capacitance in force-current analogy
1
s+1 174. In Nyquist criteria, the roots of characteristic equation
are given by
(a) poles of the open loop transfer function
1
(a) 0 (b) (b) zeroes of open loop transfer function
s 1 (c) poles of the closed loop transfer function
2 2 (d) zeroes of the closed loop transfer function
(c) (d) 175. In a sampled data control system if the band width is 2
s 1 s3
Hz than the lowest sampling frequency is
164. A leg network for compensation normally consist of (a) 2 Hz (b) 3 Hz
(a) R only (b) R and C elements (c) 4 Hz (d) 3/2 Hz
(c) R and L Elements (d) R, L and C Element
176. If the processor is executing a main program that calls
165. The number of roots of s3 + 5s2 + 7s + 3 =0 a subroutine, then after executing the main program
(a) 0 (b) 1 up to the CALL instruction, the control will be
(c) 2 (d) 3 transferred to
166. In a control system integral error compensation (a) address of main program
_______ steady state error (b) subroutine address
(a) increases (c) address of CALL instruction
(b) minimizes (d) none of the mentioned
(c) does not have any effect on 177. Which of the following memories needs refresh?
(d) any of the these (a) SRAM (b) DRAM
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(c) ROM (d) All of these 189. FTP runs exclusively over
178. A memory system of size 26 K bytes is required to be (a) HTTP (b) TCP
designed using memory chips which have 12 address (c) SMTP (d) HTML
lines and 4 data lines each. The number of such chips 190. SMTP refers to
required to design the memory system is- (a) Simple mail transfer protocol
(a) 2 (b) 4 (b) Small mail transfer protocol
(c) 8 (d) 13 (c) Simple mass transfer protocol
179. A microprocessor is capable of addressing 64 K bytes (d) Small mass transfer protocol
of memory. Its address bus width is 191. What is the name of the technique in which the
(a) 8 (b) 12 operating system of a computer executes several
(c) 16 (d) 20 programs concurrently by switching back and forth
between them?
180. Which one of the following instructions ia 3-byte
(a) Partitioning (b) Multitasking
instruction
(c) Windowing (d) Paging
(a) MVI A (b) LDA XB
(c) JMP 2050 (d) MOV A,M 192. Python is
181. The execution time of a computer program requiring (a) OS
(b) Programming Language
negligible I/O operations depends primarily on the
(c) Software pakage
speed of
(d) Networking Software
(a) memory (b) CPU
(c) I/O device (d) All of these 193. Second generation of MB_Computers consist of
_________
182. When the output of a particular system depends on
(a) Vaccum Tubes (b) Diodes
current as well as previous input the property is called:
(c) VLSI Microprocessor (d) Transistors
(a) Magnetism (b) Eccentricity
(c) Hysteresis (d) Elasticity 194. In an Entity-Relation ship diagram "Diamonds"
represents
183. Nyquist Criterion is used to study the ______________
(a) attributes (b) multi-valued attributes
Of Control System
(c) weak entity set (d) relationship sets
(a) Responsiveness (b) Stability
(c) Scalability (d) All of these 195. In C language, the comments can be included using
184. Which of the following data transfer technique is (a) * (b) _
slower? (c) /* and */ (d) { }
(a) Serial Transfer 196. A mircorprocessor, on arrival of RESET signal returns
(b) Parallel Transfer from HALT state to _____________
(c) Serial-Parallel transfer (a) fetch state (b) execute state
(d) Parallel-Serial Transfer (c) interupt state (d) none of these
185. Normal timer Circuit has 197. ROM is a
(a) Resistor, Inductor and Capacitor (a) Volatile memory (b) Non-volatile memory
(b) Inductor and Capacitor (c) Either of these (d) None of these
(c) Resistor and Inductor
198. Which of the following memories normally has highest
(d) Resistor and Capacitor
storage capacity?
186. Adder circuits are widely used in the ____ section of a (a) magnetic disk
microprocessor. (b) magnetic tape
(a) input device (b) memory (c) semiconductor memory
(c) control unit (d) ALU (d) core memory
187. Electronic devices are most reliable when designed for 199. Loader in a computer
____ operation. (a) software (b) firmware
(a) decimal (b) hexadecimal (c) hardware (d) None of these
(c) binary (d) ASCII 200. Compact disc (CD) is ____ type of memory
188. Intel 8086 is a ________ bit microprocessor (a) RAM (b) ROM
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) volatile (d) non volatile
(c) 16 (d) 32
92 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]

Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (a)
101. (c) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (c) 124. (c) 125. (c) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (b)
131. (b) 132. (d) 133. (b) 134. (a) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (b) 139. (b) 140. (d)
141. (b) 142. (c) 143. (d) 144. (b) 145. (d) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (d)
151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (d) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (c)
161. (c) 162. (d) 163. (b) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (b) 167. (c) 168. (c) 169. (d) 170. (b)
171. (a) 172. (c) 173. (b) 174. (b) 175. (b) 176. (b) 177. (b) 178. (d) 179. (c) 180. (c)
181. (b) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (d) 186. (d) 187. (b) 188. (c) 189. (b) 190. (a)
191. (b) 192. (b) 193. (d) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (a) 197. (d) 198. (c) 199. (a) 200. (c)
Examination held on 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)

1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
94 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

1. Pick the Synonym for the word "Commence" (a) only Group "A" (b) Any Group
(a) To End (b) To Begin (c) Group "A" & AB (d) Group "A", Group "O"
(c) Nearing Finish (d) To Run 13. Which of the following is the longest river in the world?
2. A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out (a) Indus (b) Amazon
of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which (c) Nile (d) Missouri-Mississippi
best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active 14. Which scheme was recently launched by Union Ministry
Voice. Everyone loves him. of Urban Development for 12 cities to preserve the rich
(a) He is loved by everyone. heritage of the country
(b) He was loved by everyone. (a) JYOTI (b) HRIDAY
(c) Love for him is by everyone. (c) SWABHIMAN (d) HERITAGE
(d) His love is for everyone.
15. Which panel has suspended the IPL franchises Chennai
3. Mark the most appropriate substitute to fill the blanks
Super Kings and Rajasthan Royals for a period of two
in the given description: Do you think it is a good idea
years?
to ban smoking ____ public places?
(a) Justice Mukesh Moudgil Panel
(a) At (b) In
(b) Justice Lodha Panel
(c) On (d) For
(c) Justice Dattu Panel
4. Choose the odd one from given four choices : (d) Justice Krishna Panel
(a) College (b) Office
16. Who is the Champion of IPL (Indian Premier League)
(c) University (d) School
season-6
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given: (a) Chennai Super Kings (b) Mumbai Indians
(a) Sponteneous (b) Spontanious (c) Delhi Daredevils (d) Rajasthan Royals
(c) Spontaneous (d) Spontaneuse
17. Which number system we use in our daily life :
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the (a) Binary (b) Octal
given words: (c) Decimal (d) None of these
(a) conformity (b) disagreement
18. Bonsai'is Japanese art of :
(c) combat (d) manifest
(a) Painting (b) Growing small trees
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (c) Making Dolls (d) Arranging flowers
alternatives. He had a ______________ shave when 19. The creator of 'Sherlock Holmes' was
his car narrowly missed hitting the truck. (a) Arthur Conan Doyle (b) Ian Fleming
(a) Clean (b) Close (c) Dr.Watson (d) Shakespeare
(c) Bad (d) Near
20. Pulses are a good source of
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Ox (a) carbohydrates (b) fats
(a) Oxes (b) Oxen (c) proteins (d) vitamins
(c) Oxs (d) Many Ox
21. The locus of a point that is at equal distance from a
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
fixed point and a fixed straight line is-
statement in the question : Words inscribed on tomb
(a) Parabola (b) Ellipse
(a) Epitome (b) Epistle
(c) Circle (d) Hyperbola
(c) Epilogue (d) Epitaph
10. Four parts of a sentence (P/Q/R/S) are given. Arrange d 2 y dy
22. The solution of 2y 0 is
them in the right order to produce a correct sentence : dx 2 dx
there is only one way/the world can be/ in which/made (a) c1e2x + c2ex (b) c1e2x + c2ex
safe from war P/ Q/ R/ S (c) c1e2x + c2xex (d) c1e2x + c2ex
(a) RQSP (b) PRQS
(c) PQSR (d) SPRQ 23. (XP) .dS where P is a vector is equal to-
11. Which aircraft carrier of Indian Navy was preserved as (a) P.dL (b) P.dL
a museum ship till 2012 after being decommissioned (c) P.dL (d) .Pdv
in 1997?
(a) INS Viraat (b) INS Vikrant 24. Every digonal element of a Hermitian matrix is
(c) INS Vikramaditya (d) INS Veer (a) purely real (b) 0
(c) Purely imaginary (d) 1
12. A man with blood Group "A" can receive blood from
persons having blood groups 25. The product of even and odd function is
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 95

(a) odd (b) even (d) non-increasing, but not bounded


(c) constant (d) none of these 36. The moment of inertia of a cube of edge 2a and mass
26. Determinant of a matrix having two columns same is M about a line through its centre is
(a) Equal to the determinant of matrix having two rows (a) 2/5 Ma2 (b) 2/3 Ma2
2
same (c) 1/3 Ma (d) 1/2 Ma2
(b) Always zero 37. Kinematics is concerned with
(c) Both Equal to the determinant of matrix having (a) the physical causes of the motion.
two rows same & Always zero (b) the condition under which no motion is apparent
(d) None of these (c) the geometry of the motion
27. The partial differentiation of 2tx + 3t2x3 (d) none of these
(a) 2t + 9t2x2 (b) 2t + 6tx3
38. Following are two statements:
(c) 2tx + 9tx (d) 2xt + 6t
(i) Two finite dimensional vector spaces over the same
field are isomorphic.
d 23 (ii) Two finite dimensional vector spaces over the same
28. x
dx field and of the same dimension are isomorphic.
(a) 2/3 x(2/31) (b) 3/2 x(2/31) Then
(c) 2/3 x(3/21) (d) 2/3 x(2/3+1) (a) i is true but ii is not true.
(b) ii is true, but i is not true.
d2 5 (c) None of them is true
29. (x 7x 2 4x 6) (d) All of them are true.
dx 2
(a) 20 x3 14 (b) 20 x3 + 14 39. The critical angle for a medium is 45. What will be
2
(c) 20 x 14 (d) 20 x2 + 14 the value of refractive index?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.414
30. The sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector. The (c) 1.3 (d) 1.2
magnitude of their difference is
40. Two waves of equal amplitude 'a' and of equal
(a) 2 (b) 3 frequencies pass through a point in a medium with a
(c) 2 (d) 1 phase difference of 270. What is the amplitude of the
resultant wave at that point ?
2
31. sin x dx (a) a (b) 2a
1 1 1 1 (c) 3a (d) 2a
(a) x sin 2x c (b) x sin 2x c
2 2 2 2 41. What is the velocity of light in water given that its
velocity in vacuum is 3108 m/sec and refractive index
1 1
(c) x sin 2x c (d) x cos 2x c of water is 1.33?
2 2 (a) 3 108 m/sec (b) 3.99 108 m/sec
8
32. What is the center of a circle whose equation is (c) 2.26 10 m/sec (d) 2 108 m/sec
(x 1)2 + (y + 3)2 = 25? 42. The power of a n-phase circuit can be measured by using
(a) (1, 3) (b) (3, 1) a minimum of
(c) (1, 3) (d) (3, 1) (a) r elements
33. Using substitution, which of the following equations (b) 2n wattmeter elements
are solutions to the partial differential equation? (c) (n 1) wattmeter elements
(d) (n +1) wattmeter elements
2u / x2 = 9 (2u / y2)
(a) cos (3x y) (b) x2 + y2 43. The SI is a globally agreed system of units, with
(c) sin (3x 3y) (d) e3x sin (ny) _______ base units
(a) 5 (b) 6
34. The units digit of the number 171983 + 111983 71983 is (c) 7 (d) 8
(a) 3 (b) 1
(c) 9 (d) 2 44. The mass of electron is
(a) 9.1 1026 g (b) 9.1 1027 g
35. The sequence 1/2, 2/3, 3/4,n/n+1 is (c) 9.1 1028 g (d) 9.1 1029 g
(a) monotonically increasing
(b) increasing and bounded 45. The atomic number of silicon is
(c) non-increasing and bounded (a) 6 (b) 14
96 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

(c) 22 (d) 30 (a) length (b) charge


46. The waves having highest speed of propagation is (c) flux (d) momentum
(a) Electromagnetic Waves 59. Law stated as flux is 1/E0 times total charge is
(b) Audio Waves (a) Ohms law (b) Newton's law
(c) Ultrasonic Waves (c) Gauss's law (d) Coulomb's law
(d) Water Waves 60. The charge of an electron is known to be 1.6 1019
47. Echo is heard due to coulomb. In a circuit the current flowing is 1A. How
(a) Refraction (b) Scattering many electrons will be flowing through the circuit in a
(c) Reflection (d) Interference second?
(a) 1.5 1019 (b) 1.6 1019
48. Kg m2 per sec is the unit of
(c) 0.625 1019 (d) 0.625 1019
(a) energy (b) Momentum
(c) Angular Momentum (d) Power 61. According to KCL as applied to a junction in a network
49. In a stationary wave the distance between a node and of conductors
its successive antinode is (a) total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero
(a) l/2 (b) l/4 (b) no current can leave the junction without some
(c) l/8 (d) l current entering it
(c) net current flow at the junction is positive
50. Which one of the following units is a fundamental unit? (d) algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the
(a) watt (b) joule/sec junction is zero
(c) ampere (d) newton
62. With respect to phasor algebra operator j has a value of
51. Planck's constant (a) 1 (b) 1
(a) 6.62 10 34 J.sec
(c) 1 (d) 1
(b) 6.62 10 34 J.sec
(c) 6.62 10 34 Cal.sec 63. When a battery of 1.5V is connected to wire of 5m,
(d) 6.62 10 34 Cal.min having cross sectional area 2.5 107 m2, the current
52. Number of times a p+ is heavier than an e is passing through wire is 0.75A. Then the resistivity of
(a) 18 times (b) 184 times the wire is ohm meter
(c) 200 times (d) 1840 times (a) 1 107 (b) 1.1 107
7
(c) 2 10 (d) 2.1 107
53. Chemical elements are represented by Greek or Latin
(a) alphabets (b) symbols 64. A 100 mH coil carries a current of 1A. Energy stored
(c) gods (d) illusions in the magnetic field
(a) 1 J (b) 0.05 J
54. Ionization energy of hydrogen atom in ground state is (c) 1.5 J (d) 2.5 J
(a) 13.5 J (b) 13.6 eV
(c) 14 eV (d) 13.6 MeV 65. Kirchoff's Law states that sum of ____________ at a
point in the circuit is Zero.
55. Quantities that are used to describe laws of physics are (a) Potential (b) Charge
called (c) Current (d) Capacitance
(a) atomic quantities (b) nuclear quantities
(c) mechanical quantities (d) physical quantities 66. Electron Volt is the unit of
(a) charge (b) potential
56. A vector whose magnitude is zero has a (c) energy (d) electric power
(a) positive direction
(b) arbitrary direction 67. An AC generator running at 1000 rpm produced emf
(c) negative direction of 50 Hertz. The no. of poles on the generator is
(d) both positive direction and arbitrary direction (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
57. Which of the following is true about RC Integrator and
RC differentiator circuits? 68. Energy stored in the magnetic field of inductor L
(a) RC integrator is low pass filter carrying current is
(b) RC differentiator is low pass filter (a) LT 2 (b) 1/2 LT 2
(c) RC integrator is high pass filter (c) 2 LT (d) 1/2 LT
(d) RC integrator is a band pass filter 69. Farad is the unit of
58. Electric field is defined as the electric force per unit (a) inductance (b) voltage
__________ (c) current (d) capacitance
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70. The e.m.f. of a cell depends upon 78. Metal used in metaliztion of CMOS circuit is
(a) the internal resistance (a) Gold (b) Silver
(b) external resistance (c) Iron (d) Aluminium
(c) electrolyte and electrodes of the cell 79. A semiconductor has a band gap of 2 eV. The wave-
(d) none of the factors length of radiation emitted from the semiconductor
71. Two individual heater coils are connected to parallel when electron and hole recombine is
across the mains. If one of the coil break, the other coil (a) 625 nm (b) 625 m
(a) develops lower temperature (c) 625 mm (d) 625 cm
(b) develops same temperature as before 80. Which one of the following is a trivalent material
(c) develops higher temperature (a) Antimony (b) Phosphourus
(d) will also not be heated (c) Arsenic (d) Boron
72. As frequency increases, the magnetic flux inside a
81. The total energy of a revolving electron in an atom can
conductor
(a) have any value above zero
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(b) never be positive
(c) Remains constant (d) None of these
(c) never be negative
73. The induction coil works on the principle of (d) not be calculated
(a) Self-Induction
82. Capacitor is
(b) Mutual Induction
(a) Active Component
(c) Ampere's Rule
(b) Passive Component
(d) Flemings Right Hand rule
(c) Both Active Component & Passive Component
74. "The direction of an induced emf is such that it will (d) None of these
always opposes the change that is causing" This law is
83. Current always flow in direction
called as
(a) Opposite to that of Electron
(a) Kirchoffs Laws (b) Lenzs Law
(b) Direction same as of Electron
(c) Faradays Law (d) None
(c) Independent of Electron flow
75. Assume that the op-amp of the figure is ideal. If Vi is a (d) None of these
triangular wave, then Vo will be
84. In FET, the current flow is mainly due to
(a) Majority carriers
R (b) Minority Carriers
(c) Both Majority carriers & Minority Carriers
(d) None of these
85. The most common semiconductor used for
Vi manufacturing of FET is
Vo (a) Gallium arsenide
(b) Indium Arsenide
+ (c) Indium Gallium Arsenide
(d) Silicon
86. IC-555 Timer is
(a) square wave (b) triangular wave (a) Dual timer (b) Single timer
(c) parabolic wave (d) sine wave (c) Quad Timer (d) All of these
76. A zener-diode regulator is a- 87. An oscillator is an electronic device which counts
(a) Shunt regulator (b) Series regulator (a) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) Switching regulator (d) Zener follower (b) electrical power into mechanical power
(c) dc power into ac power
77. An amplifier will generate stable sinusoidal oscillation
(d) ac power into dc power and vice versa
if we provide feedback such that
(a) its pole lie close to j-axis in the right half of 88. Whether conductivity of a semiconductor is only due
s-plan to breaking of covalent bonds, the semi conductor is
(b) its pole lie close to j-axis in the left half of s-plan called
(c) its pole lie on +ive real axis in s-plan (a) intrinsic (b) extrinsic
(d) its pole lie anywhere in s-plan (c) p type (d) n type
98 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

89. Three amplifier stages each with a gain of 10 are (a) 16 (b) 15
cascaded, the net gain will be (c) 4 (d) 8
(a) 30 (b) 130 101. Oscillators have
(c) 200 (d) 1000 (a) no feedback
90. UJT may be better used as (b) negative feedback
(a) Amplifier (c) positive feedback
(b) Clamper (d) either positive or negative feedback
(c) Rectifier 102. The central processing unit of a digital computer
(d) Saw-Tooth wave Generator consists of
91. For active region operation of npn transistor (a) main memory
(a) Emitter is positive with respect to base (b) arithmetic and logic unit
(b) Emitter is negative with respect to base (c) count unit
(c) Emitter is at the same voltage as base (d) all
(d) base is at the same voltage as collector
103. Which of the following device does not have negative
92. The bandwidth of a doubled tuned transformer coupled characteristic
amplifier can be adjusted by varying (a) UJT (b) Tunnel Diode
(a) value of the inductance (c) SCR (d) FET
(b) the coefficient of coupling
104. The Odd Parity is generated by
(c) value of emitter circuit biasing resistor
(a) Ex-OR Gate (b) Ex-NOR Gate
(d) none of these
(c) NOT Gate (d) All of these
93. X = 01110 and Y = 11001 are two 5-bit binary numbers
105. An equivalent decimal number of (234.55)8 is
represented in two's complement format. The sum of X
(a) (106.703)10 (b) (156.703)10
and Y represented in two's complement format using 6
(c) (146.703)10 (d) (308.703)10
bits is
(a) 100111 (b) 10000 106. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together.
(c) 111 (d) 101001 The resulting circuit is
(a) OR gate (b) AND gate
94. A transistor is operated as a saturated switch to eliminate
(c) NOT gate (d) None of these
(a) storage time (b) turn-off time
(c) turn-on time (d) delay time 107. What is the minimum number of two-input NAND gates
used to perform the function of two-input OR gate
95. As far as speed is concerned, the fastest type of logic is (a) one (b) two
(a) TTL (b) RTC (c) three (d) four
(c) Schottky TTL (d) ECL
108. The dynamic hazard problem occurs in
96. The resolution a D/A converter is approximately 0.4% (a) combinational circuits alone
of its full scale range. It is (b) sequential circuit alone
(a) a 8-bit converter (b) a 10-bit converter (c) both sequential and combinational circuits
(c) a 12-bit converter (d) a 16-bit converter (d) none of these
97. Most common error in analog to digital converter is
109. A simple flip-flop is
(a) Linear Error
(a) a 2-bit memory
(b) Qunatization Error
(b) a 1-bit memory
(c) Random Noise Error
(c) a four state device
(d) Linear and Qunatization Error
(d) obtained by cross coupling of two NAND gates
98. NAND Gate is equal to 110. The race hazard problem occurs due to
(a) NOR gate with negated output (a) faulty design of logic circuits
(b) NOR gate with negated input (b) non-redundant form of the circuit
(c) AND gate with negated input (c) time-delay in circuits due to high speed logic
(d) None of these (d) All of these
99. Half-adder is also known as 111. In a 3 phase induction motor, the relative speed of stator
(a) AND circuit (b) NAND circuit flux with respect to ______ is zero.
(c) NOR circuit (d) EX-OR circuit (a) Stator winding (b) Rotor
100. The number of comparison carried out in 4-bit flash (c) Rotor flux (d) Space
type A/D converter is
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112. Transformers are rated in kVA instead of kW because- 122. The efficiency of a transformer is
(a) Load power factor is often not known (a) independent of load
(b) kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load pf (b) maximum at no load
(c) Total transformer loss depends on load pf (c) maximum at a given load such that variable losses
(d) It has become customary equals constant losses
113. At higher frequencies , the value of capacitive reactance (d) maximum when copper losses are zero
(a) increases (b) decreases 123. Almost 90% of the induction motors are squirrel cage
(c) remain constant (d) None of these type because
114. The ideal value of power factor is (a) they have better starting torque
(a) 0 (b) 1 (b) their speed can be controlled very smoothly over a
(c) infinity (d) 10 wide range
(c) they can run both at lagging and leading power
115. A good refrigerant should have factors
(a) High latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing (d) they have the simplest and most rugged
point construction
(b) High operating pressures and low freezing point
124. The baud rate-
(c) High specific volume and high latent heat of
vaporisation (a) is always equal to the bit transfer rate
(d) Low C.O.P. and low freezing point (b) is equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel
(c) is not equal to the signaling rate
116. Current chopping mainly occurs in ___________ (d) is equal to one-half the bandwidth of an ideal
Circuit Breakers channel
(a) Oil Circuit Breakers
125. A 3,000 Hz bandwidth channel has a capacity of 30
(b) Vacuum Circuit Breakers
kbps. The signal to noise ratio is
(c) SF6 Circuit Breakers
(a) 20 DB (b) 25 dB
(d) Air Blast Circuit Breakers
(c) 30 dB (d) 40 dB
117. Which class of induction motor will be well suited for
126. A multicavity Klystron
large refrigerates?
(a) is not a microwave device
(a) class E (b) class B
(b) is not a good low level amplifier because of noise
(c) class F (d) class C
(c) is not suited for pulse operation
118. If a neutral Wire of 3 Phase supply is broken then (d) has a high repeller voltage to ensure small transit
(a) The voltage of less loaded Phase will increase time
(b) The voltage of more loaded phase will reduce
127. Antennas commonly used for microwave links are
(c) Nothing will happen
(a) loop antenna (b) log periodic antennas
(d) Both The voltage of less loaded Phase will increase
(c) paraboloidal antennas (d) rhombic antennas
& The voltage of more loaded phase will reduce
119. Capacitors used for improvement of power factor of a 128. For a standard telephone circuit with a signal tonoise
system ____________ power ratio of 1000 (30 dB) and a bandwidth of 2.7
kHz, the Shannon limit for information capacity is
(a) draws lagging power and supply leading power
(a) 27 Mbps (b) 27 Kbps
(b) draws lagging power and supply lagging power
(c) 2.7 Kbps (d) 2.7 Mbps
(c) draws leading power and supply lagging power
(d) draws leading power and supply leading power 129. From bandwidth point of view, narrow band FM is
120. A d.c. shunt motor is running at light load. What will equivalent to ______________
happen if the field winding gets opened ? (a) AM (b) PM
(a) Motor will pick up high speed (c) SSB (d) DSB suppressed carrier
(b) Motor will stop 130. In case a station is tuned to 1455 KHz, the local
(c) Motor will make noise oscillator frequency will be _______________
(d) Motor will burn (a) 1000 KHz (b) 1910 KHz
(c) 1455 KHz (d) 2100 KHz
121. In dc choppers, the waveforms for input and output
voltage are respectively ______________ 131. Quantization noise occurs in
(a) both discontinuous (a) Time division-multiplex
(b) both continuous (b) Frequency division multiplex
(c) continuous, discontinuous (c) Pulse position modulation
(d) discontinuous, continuous (d) Pulse code modulation
100 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

132. Fosters relay discriminator uses a (c) Protect from High Frequency Noise
(a) Double tuned circuit in which primary and (d) Provide Physical Support to Line
secondary are tuned to same frequency 143. The Data Rate for PRI in ISDN is
(b) Double tuned circuit in which primary and (a) Same as that of E1 (b) 64 Kbps
secondary are tuned to different frequencies (c) 10 Mbps (d) 100 Mbps
(c) Single tuned circuit
(d) Three diodes in series 144. Waveguides for Microwaves are made of
(a) Semiconductor Material
133. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from (b) Conductor Material
0 to 1. The transmitted power is (c) Insulator material
(a) Unchanged (b) Halved (d) Ferromagnetic Material
(c) Doubled (d) increased by 50%
145. h21 in terms of Z parameters can be expressed as
134. (i) PCM is imperently most noise resistant (ii) PCM
____________
requires small BW. Indicate the right answer:
(a) Z/Z22 (b) Z/Z12
(a) True, False (b) False, False
(c) Z12/Z (d) Z21/Z22
(c) True, False (d) True, True
146. A quartz crystal in the filter has_______________
135. An online, real time data transmission system is most (a) the property of series resonance
likely to require a connection that is____
(b) the property of parallel resonance
(a) Duplex (b) Semi/duplex
(c) the property of series as well as parallel resonance
(c) Time shared (d) None of these
(d) lower frequency of parallel resonance than the
136. Wave guide are generally made of frequency of series resonance
(a) copper (b) bronze or aluminum
147. A battery is connected across the series combination of
(c) PVC (d) HDPE
the resistors of value 5 Ohms and 30 Ohms. The
137. One end of a loss-less transmission line having the voltage-across 5 ohms resistor is 20V The battery
characteristic impedance of 75 and length of 1 cm is voltage will be
short-circuited. At 3 GHz, the input impedance at the (a) 105 V (b) 140 V
other end of transmission line is (c) 175 V (d) 200 V
(a) 0 (b) Resistive
148. Inverter us a circuit which transforms
(c) Capacitive (d) Inductive
(a) AC to DC (b) DC to AC
138. In a transmission line terminated by characteristic (c) AC to AC (d) DC to DC
impedance, Zo 149. At resonance in a series RCL circuit, the applied voltage
(a) There is no reflection of the incident wave equals the ____ voltage drop
(b) The reflection is maximum due to termination (a) resistance (b) inductive
(c) There are a large number of maximum and (c) capacitive (d) reactive
minimum on the line
(d) The incident current is zero for any applied signal. 150. Two resistance R1 and R2 are connected in series R1 =
528 5 and R2 = 325 3. The total resistance will
139. If the open and short circuit Impedence of a be
transmission line are 144 and 100 respectively what is (a) 853 2 (b) 853 5
the charactersistic impedance (c) 853 3 (d) 853 8
(a) 12 (b) 1200
(c) 144 (d) 120 151. Which of the following is not a transducer
(a) Strain Guage (b) Microphone
140. A 2-port resistive network satisfy the condition
(c) Potentiometer (d) Thermocouple
A = D=(3/2)B=(4/3)C. The z11 of the network is
(a) 4/3 (b) 3/4 152. In _____________ Instruments the deflecting Torque
(c) 2/3 (d) 2/3 depends on the frequency
(a) Induction Type Instruments
141. SQL is a language which supports (b) Hot wire instruments
(a) Data Definition (b) Data Manipulation (c) Moving Iron Instruments
(c) Data Query (d) All of these (d) Moving Coil Instruments
142. The Ground Conductor in case of High Power 153. A voltmeter with a broad bandwidth has
Transmission Lines is used to (a) low noise level and high sensitivity
(a) Provide Neutral connection (b) high noise level and high sensitivity
(b) Protect the lines from Lightning
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 101

(c) high noise level and low sensitivity (c) The cost of controller becomes low
(d) low noise level and low sensitivity (d) Systems error reduced to optimum levels
154. The resistance of a voltmeter and ameter is respectively 165. The transfer function of a system is 1/(1+sT), the input
(a) Low and High (b) High and High to the system is u(t), the output will track the system
(c) High and Low (d) Low and Low but the error would be
155. The distance between consecutive maxima and minima (a) 0 (b) 2T
is given by ___________ (c) T (d) T/2
(a) (b) /4 166. The network has a pole at s = 1 and zero at s = 2 if this
(c) /2 (d) 2 network is existed by sinusoidal input , the output
(a) leads the input
156. Attenuator have applications _____
(b) legs the input
(a) in d.c. circuits only
(c) is in phase with input
(b) in a.c. circuits only
(d) decays exponentially to zero
(c) in d.c. and a.c. circuits
(d) in 10 W frequency circuits only 167. The radius of constant M circle for M = 1 is
157. A null type of instrument as compared to a deflection (a) 1 (b) 2
type instrument has __________ (c) 3 (d) Infinite
(a) a faster response (b) a lower sensitivity 168. The Laplace transform of i(t) is given by I(s) = 3/ [s(1
(c) a higher accuracy (d) all of these + s)]. As t , the value of i(t) tends to
(a) 0 (b) 1
158. Simon is a unit for measuring ___________
(c) 3 (d)
(a) conductance (b) resistance
(c) flux density (d) electric field 169. In a control system with respect to "BLOCK
DIAGRAM" identify the false statement
159. Piezoelectric transducers are ______________
(a) A block diagram of a system is pictorial
(a) passive transducers
representation of the functions performed by each
(b) active transducers
component and flow of signals
(c) inverse transducers
(b) the elements of a block diagram are block ,branch
(d) both active transducers and inverse transducers
point and summing point
160. Hall effect transducers can be used for measurement of (c) The block diagram can not be reduced to find the
_____________ over all transfer function of a system
(a) power (b) current (d) None of these
(c) displacement (d) all of these
170. The root loci
161. For a rectifier type instrument, with sinusoidal input (a) starts from zeros and end at ploes
and with full wave rectifier, the a.c. sensitivity (Sac) is (b) start from poles and end at zeros to infinity
(a) Sac = 0.45 Sdc (b) Sac = Sdc (c) start from zeros and end at poles and infinity
(c) Sac = 0.9 Sdc (d) Sac = 2 Sdc (d) None of these
162. Creeping is the phenomenon which occurs in 171. For a bounded input signal, if the output has constant
(a) Voltmeter (b) Energy meter amplitude oscillations then the system may be stable or
(c) Wattmeter (d) Ammeter unstable under some limited constraints such system is
163. A ufb control system has a forward path transfer called
(a) absolutely stable system
10(1 4a) (b) conditionally stable system
function G(s) = s 2 (1 a) . if the system is subjected
(c) limitedly stable system
(d) un stable system
1
to an input r(t) = 1 + t + the steady state error of 172. Which of the following can be magnified by magnetic
2t 2
amplifiers?
the system will be- (a) voltage (b) current
(a) 0 (b) 0.1 (c) power (d) any of these
(c) 10 (d)
173. A servomechanism consists of
164. While designing controller, the advantage of polezero (a) An error actuated signal
cancellation is- (b) Power amplifier
(a) The system order is increased (c) Generally a mechanical output
(b) The system order is reduced (d) All of these
102 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

174. The output of a thermocouple is (a) 0A


(a) DC current (b) DC voltage (b) 0A and carry flag is set
(c) AC current (d) AC voltage (c) 6A and carry flag is set
175. In a feedback system, output is a function of (d) 6A and the carry flag is reset
(a) output and input 184. For a clock frequency of 2 MHz, the maximum delay
(b) Input and feedback-signal that can be produced by any timer 8253 is
(c) Reference and output (a) 8.192 ns (b) 16.384 ns
(d) None of these (c) 32.768 ns (d) 2.765 ns
176. The language that the computer can understand and 185. In a PASCAL procedure, the parameters are seperated
execute is called- by
(a) Machine language (a) semicolon (b) comma
(b) Application software (c) colon (d) blank space
(c) System program
186. A string of 8 bits is known as
(d) All of these
(a) nibble (b) byte
177. In a microprocessor, the service routine for a certain (c) word (d) none
interrupt starts from a fixed location of memory which 187. Which of the following are called peripheral of a
cannot be externally set, but the interrupt can be delayed
computer?
or rejected Such an interrupt is-
(a) ALU and control unit
(a) non-maskable and non-vectored
(b) Input and output units
(b) maskable and non-vectored
(c) Memory and data bus
(c) non-maskable and vectored
(d) All of these
(d) maskable and vectored
188. In most microcomputers, the keyboard is
178. In how many different modes a universal shift register
(a) Hexadecimal (b) ASCII
operates
(c) Excess-3 coded (d) BCD coded
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 2 189. Which class of IP address has the most host addresses
available by default?
179. What us the function of the comparators in the 555
(a) A (b) B
timer circuit?
(c) C (d) A and B
(a) to compare the output voltage to internal voltage
divider 190. In case of modems ADSL stands for
(b) to compare the input voltage to internal voltage (a) Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line
divider (b) Asymmetrical Dynamic Subscriber Link
(c) to compare the output voltage to external voltage (c) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
divider (d) Asynchronous Data Service Line
(d) to compare the input voltage to external voltage 191. CSMA/CD stands for
divider (a) Collision Sense Multiple Access/Carrier Detection
180. Bit set / Reset mode is in (b) Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection
(a) 8251 (b) 8255 (c) Collision Sense Media Access/Carrier Detection
(c) 8257 (d) 8051 (d) Carrier Sense Media Access/Collision Detection
181. The Non-Maskable Interrupt pointer of 8086 is stored 192. The technique used to store programs larger than the
at memory is ______ .
(a) 00000H (b) 000FFH (a) Overlays
(c) 00000 - 00008H (d) 00000 - 003FFH (b) Extension registers
(c) Buffers
182. If DS = 7FA2H and offsety is 438EH, then calculate the
(d) both Extension registers and Buffers
upper range of the Data segment
(a) 83DAEH (b) 7FA20H 193. An electric circuit contains
(c) 8FA1FH (d) 7FFFFH (a) active elements only
(b) passive elements only
183. What will be the contents of register AL after the (c) both active and passive elements
following has been executed (d) none of these
MOV BL, 8C
MOV AL, 7E 194. EPROM can be used for
ADD AL, BL (a) erasing the contents ROM
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 103

(b) reconstructing the contents of ROM


(c) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(d) Duplicating ROM
195. Which of the following is not a DMA transfer?
(a) Duplicate transfer (b) Block transfer
(c) Single transfer (d) Demand transfer
196. Which program has the task of allocating a storage area
in the main memory to a program and of locating the
program into this area?
(a) Executive program
(b) Relocation program
(c) Standard operating program
(d) Loader
197. Which of the following does not belong to network
support layer?
(a) session layer (b) physical layer
(c) data link layer (d) network layer
198. BASIC is
(a) Assembly language (b) High level language
(c) Binary code (d) Machine language
199. Assembler converts
(a) Assembly language to machine code
(b) machine code to assembly language
(c) source code to object code
(d) None of these
200. The name of a directory in MSDOS must have ___ to
___ characters
(a) 2, 6 (b) 1, 8
(c) 1, 2 (d) 2, 8
104 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]

Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (b)
101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (c) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (d) 119. (c) 120. (a)
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (c) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (b)
131. (a) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (b) 136. (b) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (a) 144. (b) 145. (d) 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (d)
151. (c) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (b) 156. (c) 157. (c) 158. (a) 159. (d) 160. (d)
161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (b) 165. (a) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (c) 169. (c) 170. (b)
171. (c) 172. (c) 173. (c) 174. (c) 175. (d) 176. (a) 177. (d) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (c) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (b) 185. (b) 186. (c) 187. (b) 188. (d) 189. (a) 190. (c)
191. (b) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (c) 195. (a) 196. (d) 197. (a) 198. (b) 199. (b) 200. (d)

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