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T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty.

Emery Tiu Page | 1

June 15, 2010 Tuesday

What do you understand of the power of the government to impose taxes? This is simply Constitutional law. Russel answers. So youre
saying that the existence of the Constitution is not to grant the power of taxation because it is already inherent in every sovereignty?

What is taxation?

- Taxation is the inherent power of every sovereign government exercised through the legislative body or the Congress to impose
or exact burdens, which we call as taxes, upon not only persons but upon subjects or objects of taxation for the purpose of
raising revenues in order to address the legitimate needs of the government.
- It is a symbiotic relationship between the people and the government. The government cannot exist without the people and the
people cannot exist without the government protecting to help them.

The nature of the power of taxation is:

1. It is legislative in character.

- Who can actually exercise the power to impose tax?

o Only Congress
- How about the President?
o As a rule, no.

2. It is inherent.

- Even the Constitution does not grant the power to tax because the power to tax is already a right in itself by the sovereign.

3. It is subject to inherent and constitutional limitations.

- So whenever you see the word tax or taxation in the Constitution, you will know that it is not a grant of power but simply it is a
limitation to the unlimited, plenary and supreme power of the government to impose taxation.

The inherent power to tax simply arose because there is a need of the government to raise revenues in order to support its activities.

- If you are reading the business section of the newspaper, it talks about budgets for the government to meet. The budget of the
Commissioner of the BIR to raise.

So taxation actually plays a major part or a big part in running the entire government. Its basis is the basis of necessity the need of the
government to protect the people and the need of the government to serve the people. And it is actually on what we call the famous
doctrine of taxation the lifeblood doctrine.

So, what is the lifeblood doctrine? Ryan answers. So without taxes, the government cannot exist?

- 99% of the countries or nations impose taxes in order to survive. Government cannot exist without taxes. But I think there is one
state which does not it mainly subsists in gambling activities. So that is an exception to the rule but most of us especially the
Philippines would survive on the generation of taxes in order to raise revenues and meet the needs of the government and its
- So whenever you have doubts, if there is a bar question asking if whether or not an object or a person or an activity is taxable,
you think of the lifeblood doctrine it should be taxable because the government needs taxes. But the lifeblood doctrine is only
the last recourse. You should not reach such point because you should know the answer beforehand. Otherwise, you would just
bet tackling legal ethics wherein youre last recourse answer would be good moral character. The lifeblood doctrine answer is
only to support your first answer, which should be the legal provision of the law.

Taxation as a theory, which we call as the symbiotic relationship between the government and its people. It is also called the benefits-
received theory or the compensation theory. These three theories are actually almost the same.

What do you know of the symbiotic relationship theory between the government and its people? What is the need of the government
and what is the need of the people in so far as taxation is concerned?

- When you say symbiotic relationship the one needs the other. In so far as taxation is concerned, what the government can
offer to the people is protection and general welfare while what the people can offer to the government is the funds to operate
the government. So taxes by the people to the government in exchange for the governments protection and regulation of the
entire nation. So it is symbiotic in the sense that one needs the other. It is a benefits-received theory because it is for the benefit
of both and compensation for the activity (compensation theory).
- There are three theories actually. It is a compensation theory for the people. It is a compensation to the government for the
support to the people.
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What is the main or primary objective of taxation?

- The primary purpose of the power of taxation is to raise revenues. Whenever there is a law for which the purpose is raising
revenue, then you have no doubt that it is in the exercise of the power of taxation.

But there are secondary purposes. What do you think are the secondary purposes of the power of taxation?

- To regulate businesses
o Speaking of gambling, are winnings from gambling taxable? Winnings from lotto (PCSO) are exempt. Let us say illegal
gambling or games from cockfighting? Even illegal winnings or gains from illegal gambling are as a rule taxable because
subject to income tax because the definition of income tax is a tax on any income from whatever source. Because of
the phrase whatever source, it includes both legal and illegal games. But then again since it is illegal, I dont expect
you to declare it. If you dont declare it, you become not subject to tax by virtue of your own decision.
o Are cigarettes subject to tax? Yes.
What kind of tax? Sin taxes or excise taxes. Excise taxes are those taxes which are imposed on items which
are not essential. Cigarettes are not essential, in fact, dominant is the phrase, cigarette smoking is dangerous
to your health. It is taxable not only to income tax but as well as to excise tax. If you notice in a pack of
cigarettes, there is a documentary stamp but it is actually a proof that it has been paid of excise taxes. It is
the same as liquors.
Whenever you withdraw non-essential items or goods from the warehouse, it is expected that at that point,
it will have to be paid of excise taxes or sin taxes. So that is proof that it has been paid.
If it is imported from abroad then that is another kind of tax and what tax is that? Customs tariffs and duties.
If there is a business which is rendering non-essential services, such as movie theaters whenever you
watch a movie, you expect that 30% of what you pay goes to amusement taxes payable to the local
government. So these are types of activities that are not really necessary therefore, in order to regulate and
at the same time raise revenues, the government imposes larger taxes.
So when you say that the power to tax is also used as the power to regulate, there comes in the famous
words that the power to tax also involves the power to destroy
What do you mean by the power to tax involves the power to destroy? Is it not that this phrase is in
conflict with the provisions on the Constitution regarding due process of law and no taking of life, liberty and
The power to tax involves the power to destroy is not necessarily an invalid premise. Therefore, it
is not invalid to say that. The power to tax involves the power to destroy if the purpose of taxation
is the secondary purpose which is the purpose for regulation such as trying to regulate an illegal
activity, it has to impose taxes but not really for the purpose of raising revenue but for the purpose
of regulating even to the extent of closing the business if it is illegal. But it (the closing or
destruction of the business or taking of the property through the imposition of taxes) becomes
only valid if there is compliance with substantive and procedural requirements as required by the
Constitution. That is why we said earlier that one of the nature of taxation is that it must always
follow the Constitutional and inherent limitations constitutional limitations as provided by the
Constitution and inherent limitations as provided by your conscience because the power to tax is

What are the other secondary purposes?

- To promote the general welfare, public health, public safety, public morals, and order in the community.
o This power of taxation is exercised hand-in-hand with the police power of the state.
- Another secondary purpose is to reduce social inequality. Reduction of social inequality means that we impose taxes with
escalating rates to those who are earning income more than the others. You notice a provision in the Constitution that Congress
shall evolve a progressive system of taxation. This simply means that we, as much as possible, should try to enact a law which
exacts taxes on those who have the ability to pay.
o Example: If you earn P5, youll be taxed of 5% income tax. If you earn 1M, you belong to that category of income
earners subject to an income tax of 32%. So it is based on your ability to pay.
o If you purchase an egg, raw meat that has not been processed, mango (not the dried mango) from the grocery store, it
is not subject to VAT. You notice the receipt you received from the grocery store, at the bottom, there is a breakdown
of what is vatable and what is not vatable.
o But if youre sosyal and you buy egg from the restaurant, even if it is just hard-boiled egg, it is imposed a VAT. So it is
based on the ability to pay principle. Why? Because if you cant afford, then why would you buy egg from the
o But we cannot achieve a perfect system of taxation. Even the Constitution does not require but only encourages
progressive system of taxation.
- Finally, another secondary purpose is to encourage economic growth by imposing tax or granting fiscal incentives or exceptions.
Notice that to encourage investors from abroad, we give them income tax holiday or exemption for the first four or six years of
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operation. Now, are we really giving an exemption in order to raise revenue? No, because we are actually giving up our right to
collect taxes but it encourages economic growth in the long run.

The scope of taxation is unlimited in scope. Even the amount and rate of taxes can be determined alone by Congress. But Congress is
voted as representatives of the people so it actually comes from the people indirectly.

Taxation is comprehensive, plenary and supreme. So what makes it comprehensive, unlimited, plenary and supreme? It is because when
the power of taxation is exercised by both the House and the Senate, they can determine who the subjects and objects of taxation are so
long as these objects and subjects are within its jurisdiction.

So are you class subject to US federal taxes? No because you are not within the jurisdiction of the US. But are you subject to Philippine
tax, even if you are not yet income earners? Yes example is VAT (such as when you purchase gasoline).

So you will notice that the power of Congress to enact tax law is unlimited because whatever they can think of, they can actually enact a
law and impose tax on it, which may be a person, a property or an activity.

Taxes are imposed not only in persons or properties but also activities. So more or less everything is covered. Congress has a leeway to
enact the law imposing tax on such activity so long as it is within its jurisdiction.

Scope of the Legislative Taxing Power:

1. Determination of Purposes

- Who determines the purpose of taxation? Is it Congress or the President?

o Congress then approved by the President.
o Every tax law must have for its purpose a public purpose. The absence of a public purpose makes the law invalid and
o Who determines whether the purpose is public or not?
It belongs to Congress.
o So whenever, a law is approved by Congress and the President and it comes out as a valid law and there is a doubt as
to its constitutionality, to whom do you go to?
o So remember the roles of the three branches of the government.
o Again, the scope of the Congress taxing power is to determine the purpose. Dont give it to the President. It is not
even for the SC to give. What the SC does is actually to know whether the law is constitutional or not according to the
substantive and procedural requirements.
o Determination of the public purpose is the wisdom alone of Congress. It belongs to Congress.

2. Determination of the subject and objects of taxation (within its jurisdiction)

- This is the determination of who the person will be, what property and what activity. It still belongs to Congress.

3. Determination of the amount and rate of tax to be collected

- You may notice that in the tax code and other tax laws, some of the taxes imposed are given in rates, of course in digits, some in
figures fixed amount. In more cases than not, we usually have percentages so it is easier to memorize than the fixed rates.
o Example: Youre income tax ranges from 5-32%. What I can think of as a fixed amount of tax under the Tax Code is for
common carriers tax, which includes shipping vessels, airplanes and jeepneys and taxis.
o So if you look at the Tax Code, jeepneys have different common carriers tax. It is fixed in amount depending on the
capacity of the vehicle. But as far as the shipping vessel is concerned and those aircrafts, it is not subject to a fixed
amount of tax, but rather it is subject to VAT, which is equivalent to common carriers tax. So if you travel by boat or by
plane, you pay 12% VAT. But whenever you travel by land, you only pay nothing in tax. You dont pay taxes in traveling
by land, but it is the operator of those vehicles who pay for common carriers tax.
o Why dont jeepney drivers impose tax? Because it is difficult to monitor or regulate jeepney drivers because for VAT
purposes, you have to have a receipt. So on their part, it is so difficult to issue a receipt.

4. Determination of the kind of tax to be collected

- At any point in this lifetime that you have, it may happen that Congress will always either increase the existing tax rate or enact
a new law imposing a new tax.
- Whenever the government cannot reach its budget to support all branches and departments of the government, their next
recourse if they dont go for borrowings and subsidies, they increase tax rates.

5. Determination of apportionment of the tax

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- This also belong to Congress

6. Determination of the situs of taxation

- The situs of taxation also belongs to Congress.

7. Determination of the manner and mode of enforcement and collection

- The other scope of the taxing power is left to the executive branch of the government, which is the enforcement the means,
manner and method of how to collect the tax.

There are two aspects of taxation:

1. Levy (impose the tax)

- So, the power of Congress is simply to enact a law it is the levying or the imposition of the tax law. But it stops there. They
cannot go forward to the point of collecting the tax themselves because the existence of Congress is simply to enact a law.

2. Administration of the tax

- Taxation would not be successful without the administration aspect.

- It is upon the executive branch on how to collect the taxes.
- The role of the SC as one of the three branches of the government is to know whether a law is constitutional or not.
- So the power of taxation is not solely in the exercise of Congress but other 2 branches play their own roles.
- To which department of the government does the BIR belong to?
o Executive branch under the Department of Finance
o The President has for his alter-egos the different secretaries of the departments.
o Under the department of Finance is the BIR and Bureau of Customs (BOC)
o Local treasuries belong to political subdivision units. Theyre not part of the Department of Finance.
- Who has more authority? Is it the Secretary of Finance or the Commissioner of the BIR?
o Secretary of Finance is the boss of the Commissioner of BIR.
o Under the Sec. of Finance is the Commissioners of both BIR and BOC.

How do we develop a sound tax system?

1. It must be equitable or in technical terms, there must be theoretical justice or equality.
- What it simply says is that taxation must be based on the ability of the people to pay the taxes vis--vis their income.
- You cannot actually impose taxes inequitably, oppressively. It is tantamount to confiscation of property.

2. To have your tax laws administratively feasible. (administrative feasibility)

- It is not enough to enact a tax law. The tax law must provide for means and methods which makes it effective and efficient for
management. Meaning, the collection of taxes must be made easier.

3. Fiscal adequacy
- Your collection of taxes must be reasonable in terms of how much you will spend for the entire nation.
- Tax collection and tax imposition must be so flexible as to expand and contract according to the needs of the government.
- Example:
o Can we say that our tax system is sound if the budget or the needed expense is 100B but the collection of tax is 60B,
short of 40B?
No, since fiscal adequacy is not satisfied.
o How about if the needs of the government is only 60B and the tax collected is 100B?
No, since theoretical justice is not satisfied.
- More or less, if there is a big disparity between the needs of the government and the services that it is giving to the people,
meaning, the expenses that it has incurred to provide the basic needs of the people. Then, we do not have a sound tax system
because in that case, if the collection is 100B and the services delivered is only 60B, then the government is underdelivering the
basic needs to the people. It is not a sound tax system.

- If we say that we dont have a sound tax system because it is not fiscally adequate, does that make all the tax laws invalid?
o No. If it is not fiscally adequate because both the budget and the collection do not meet, although we can say that it is
not a sound tax system, but it doesnt make the existing tax laws invalid. Having passed both the substantive and
procedural requirements, it is still a valid tax law. It is up to the government on how to make the tax system sound. All
that the government has to do is to create balance between the collection and expenses.

- If there is difficulty in collecting the taxes, the tax system becomes unsound (violation of administrative feasibility). Does that
make the law invalid?
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o No because tax law is made by Congress and the means and methods of collecting taxes is formulated by the
executive. So if there is a difficulty in the collection of taxes, it is not the fault of Congress. If you notice tax laws, at the
end of the law, you will find there rules and regulations will be drafted by the Secretary of Finance. So if there is
difficulty in collecting, it is the fault of the executive branch of the government. It does not make the tax law as invalid.
All it has to do is to loosen-up and formulate new rules and regulations or you can e-pay taxes (e-facility paying taxes
through the internet or online) or enhance the collection process or draft another manner, means and methods of
collecting tax.

- If the ability-to-pay principle is not followed, meaning (violation of theoretical justice or equality), the tax system is not
progressive, thus, not developing a sound tax system, does that make the tax laws existing at that point invalid?
o If the progressive system of taxation is reversed, it makes the tax law inequitable. Thus, it result to invalidity or
unconstitutionality of the law because it would result to confiscation of property in the form of taxes against the

Distinguish taxation from police power and eminent domain:

Taxation Eminent Domain Police Power

Authority which May be exercised May be: May be exercised
exercises the only by the 1)Exercised by only by the
power government or the government government or
its political or its political its political
subdivisions subdivisions subdivisions
(LGUs) (LGUs)
2)Granted to
public service
companies or
public utilities
Purpose The property The property is The use of the
(generally in the taken for property is
form of money) public use; it regulated for
is taken for the must be the purpose of
support of the compensated promoting the
government general welfare;
it is not
Persons affected Operates upon a: Operates on an Operates upon a:
individual as the
1)Community; or owner of a 1)Community; or
2)Class of property 2)Class of
individuals individuals
Effects The money There is a There is no
contributed transfer of the transfer of title
becomes part of right to property
the public funds At most, there is
restraint on the
injurious use of
Benefits It is assumed He receives the The person
received or that the market value of affected receives
compensation individual the property indirect benefits
receives the taken from him as may arise
equivalent of the from the
tax in the form of maintenance of a
protection and healthy
benefits he economic
receives from the standard of
government society
Amount of Generally, there No amount Amount imposed
imposition is no limit on the imposed but should not be
amount of tax rather the owner more than
that may be is paid the sufficient to
imposed market value of cover the cost of
property taken the license and
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Relationship to Is subject to Is subject to Relatively free
Constitution certain certain from
constitutional constitutional constitutional
and inherent limitations such limitations
limitations as due-process
clause and just Is superior to the
Including the compensation impairment of
prohibition contract
against Inferior to the provision
impairment of impairment
the obligation of prohibition;
contracts government
private property,
which under a
contract it had
previously bound
itself to purchase
from the other
contracting party

- Can taxes be the subject of compensation or set-off or can the taxpayer refuse to pay taxes because it has an existing claim
against the government?
o No, because you cannot subject the government to uncertainty in the collection of taxes. Notwithstanding that you
have an existing claim for refunds of taxes against the government, you cannot offer to set-off or exchange your
payables with your receivables from the government because the lifeblood of the government, the existence of the
government and its survival rests on the collection of taxes.

- Note: Sometimes, the power of taxation is used as the power to destroy. In that case, you can close up a business so long as
your purpose is not for revenue-raising but only for regulation.
- Note: Even if we take out the Constitution, does that make the power of taxation limitless? No because there are also inherent
limitations which attach to the power of taxation. These inherent limitations always follow the power to tax. So whether or not
the Constitution is there, still the power to tax is limited in some sense.

- GR: Taxes are payable in money.

o Reason: Lifeblood doctrine Do you think the government can actually work and provide you with basic services if it
accepts property as payment? They have to liquidate it and sell it and if there is no takers or buyers, what will the
government do? Thus, their operations will be paralyzed because taxes are like blood which runs through the veins of
the government.

- So what are taxes?

o Taxes are enforced proportionate contributions, in money, levied on persons, property or activities of the persons and
levied by the State which has jurisdiction over the subject or object of taxation and which is actually exercised by the
lawmaking body of the government for the purpose of raising revenues to meet the needs of the government.

- If you dissect the definition of taxes, you will arrive at the characteristics or elements or attributes of taxes:
o It is an enforced contribution
If you have been paying taxes and you seek no concrete benefit from the government such as that you dont
use the roads, you have been living in the mountains, can you refuse to pay taxes considering that it is a
symbiotic relationship?
You cannot refuse to pay taxes simply because you do not get direct benefit from the government.
Otherwise stated, you cannot solely be the person to pay taxes simply because you get more
benefits than the rest. Purpose of taxation is public which is for the common good and general
welfare. So long as it addresses the common good of the people then taxation is proper.
o It is proportionate
This is based on the principle of ability-to-pay principle, which is actually the principle in equitable payment
of taxes following the progressive system of taxation the higher the ability to pay taxes, the more is
expected of you by the government
o Taxes are generally payable in money
Reason: It is only money that is the standard of measure. Everything else will rise and fall but not money.
When taxpayer becomes delinquent in paying taxes (distraining or levying properties). A lien is
created on every property of a taxpayer once he fails to settle his tax liability. But as much as
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possible, government is not interested in taking properties because its hard to dispose of them.
But up to the point wherein you cannot settle because you are not liquid, meaning no cash, it is
when the government will sell your properties in a public auction.
When you pay through tax credit certificates, which are certificates issued by the government
itself. These are tax certificates issued by the BIR.
o Example: If you overpaid your taxes, you ask for a refund from the government but the
government will only give you a certificate which is called the tax credit certificate or TCC
showing that you have overpaid taxes.
o Why does the government not pay you in cash? Again, lifeblood doctrine.
o So instead of giving back the money to you if the government realizes that indeed you
have overpaid the taxes then the government will simply give you certificates and you
use that as a taxpayer to pay out your other tax liabilities to that same agency of the
o So if you have the certificate, next year you can use that certificate to pay out your other
o So it is only this instance wherein government will not be receiving cash as tax payment
o It is levied on persons, properties or activities (these are subjects of taxation)
The privilege to transmit property upon death is subject to estate tax but the privilege to receive
property as an heir is no longer subject to inheritance tax.
In the same way that donors are subject to donors tax for giving something but donees for
receiving are no longer subject to donees tax.
Real Property tax tax imposed against the property itself and not against a person
Income tax is more of like a tax against an activity in earning or generating an income because if
you dont engage in an activity, you arent subject to income tax.
Community tax (cedula) is an example wherein tax is directed against a person himself with or
without an exercise of an activity.
o Levied by the state having jurisdiction over the subject matter or object of taxation
It simply means to say that the power to tax, although supreme and unlimited in nature supposedly, it only
extends until the boundary of the country. Somewhat physical in nature that when you go abroad, or you
are an immigrant abroad and not living in the Philippines physically, then your income abroad is not subject
to Philippine income tax.
So nurses abroad earning thousands of dollars are not expected to remit taxes to the Philippine government.
But if you are only a tourist abroad and still a resident in the Philippines, then you are subject to Philippine
income tax.
o It is exercised by the Congress or lawmaking body of the state
o Levied for a public purposes

- Taxes are divided into 4 categories:

o Internal revenue taxes are those taxes imposed by the NIRC
Example: income tax, donors tax, estate tax, VAT, percentage taxes, common carriers tax, gross receipts tax,
amusement taxes, documentary stamp tax, excise tax
So what is within the scope of the BIR? It is the enforcement of the taxes under the NIRC. In short, the tax
o Local/Municipal taxes taxes found in the LGC, which comes in 2 types:
Local taxes local transfer tax, amusement tax, franchise tax
Real property taxes
o Tariffs and Customs Duties those that are found in the Tariffs and Customs Code
Examples: anti-dumping duties, retaliatory duties
o Taxes and tax incentives under special laws taxed found in different special laws, such as special laws for sugar
industry and coconut industry

June 22, 2010

Recap of Last Meetings Discussion starting of with is the definition of Taxation: It is an enforced contribution to the government.
We said that 1 of the nature of the taxation power is that it is legislative in nature. In relation to fiscal adequacy as one of the basic
principles to make the tax system sound, just in case the basic needs and expenses is not met by the tax collector under the present
taxing system, is it allowed that a tax or a fee will be collected without a law so as to meet the needs of the government?
o Without a law imposing a tax, no tax can be collected. Notwithstanding that there is a deficit in the budget or collection.
o When taxation or the power of taxation is inherent in every sovereignty it simply means to say that every government or
every sovereign country can actually tax its people but through the legislative body. That there is no need for the
Constitution or any law to grant the power to tax because it can tax but in order for it to be effective, collecting from the
people taxes, there must be a law imposed for the government to collect taxes.
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o The constitution is just there to limit the power of taxation which is otherwise inherent. At any point in time, the
government through the legislative body can enact a law imposing the tax. The law imposing the tax will be enforced or
executed by the executive branch of the government collecting the tax from the people. If we make a short cut, for the
government collecting directly from the people without the law, it is not possible.
o Cannot use the life blood doctrine cannot be used because this situation is the opposite.
o It will result in chaos and oppression. And it will be arbitrary for the government, exercised through government officials
that they collect the tax without any guidelines or without any law.
o Collection of taxes without any law will violate the basic provision of the Constitution- _________. That when the nature of
the power of taxation is legislative in character it simply means to say that taxation is statutory in nature. Without a statute
or law, no tax can be imposed or collected. Even if this is inherent, the power to tax, no collection can be made if no law is
made by Congress.
We discussed what taxation is all about, it is inherent in every society, it is legislative in character and it is limited by 2 types: inherent
and constitutional limitations.
We also discussed what is the basis why there is an inherent power to tax in every government because there is that need of the
government to protect its people and serve its people. Having these needs of the government, this can only be addressed by the
people supporting the government through the payment of taxes which is a symbiotic relationship between the government and its
people. Taxes will be in monetary form while the other one is through serving and protecting its people.
In life blood doctrine, we say the government has a need for it to survive will need taxes coming from its people.
o And we illustrated the life blood doctrine in an example, there can be no set off. Taxes can never be the subject of any set
off. No tax payer can offer can offer to set off his claimable against the government against his liability for taxes. For one,
the government and its people are not creditors and debtors of each other. In civil law, compensation or set off can only
happen if there is that creditor-debtor relationship but taxes are not debts of the people they are civil obligations that are
actually enforced upon the people.
If the tax payer will have a liability for taxes, the tax payer will have to settle that obligation and it cannot be off-
set against any right of the taxpayer, whether it be a right to be refunded of any tax, etc.
Only exception to the rule that there is no set off or compensation between taxes is the case of
Domingo v. Carlicos:
o There was a set off of the obligation of the tax payer and his claimable from the government.
But this will only hold true if the receivable from the government is already LIQUIDATED and
o A claim for refund from the government is not as yet liquidated, then it is not demandable. It
will have to be settled by the government and look into its validity. So there can be no set off
o Another illustration of the life blood doctrine, is when you cant enjoin the collection of taxes by filing a case in court. Say
for example the government filed a civil case for collection of your unpaid taxes for prior years, you cannot file an
injunction against the government or BIR against the case filed.
You will see in last part of the Tax Code that there can be no injunction filed against a collection made by the
government for taxes. This is the GENERAL RULE.
Exception: there is only 1 to be discussed in remedies.
Whenever the government undertakes a move to collect your taxes in any other type of remedy not only the tax
collection, administrative case, etc., whatever the remedy undertaken by the government, you cannot file an
injunction case as a general rule.
We also discussed last meeting the purposes of taxation, the scope of the power of the legislative department in which starts in
determining the purpose of the tax law down to the kind, amount, nature of tax, etc.
We also discussed the 2 aspects of taxation: the administration aspect and preceded by the levy aspect which is undertaken by the
legislative branch.
The 3 basic principles of the sound tax system and distinguished taxation from police power and eminent domain, the 2 other powers
of the government.
What is TAX? What are taxes? TAXES are enforced proportional contributions generally payable in money impose or levied against
persons, properties or objects of taxation within the taxing jurisdiction levied through the legislative law making body of the state for
purposes of raising revenues to meet the legitimate objectives and public needs of the government and the people.
o It is an enforced contribution. It can never be voluntary as nobody will voluntarily pay taxes.
o It is proportionate in contributions because it proportions the burden of taxes to those who are able to pay the taxes. It is
more based on the ability to pay principle.
o It is generally payable in money. However, TAX CREDIT CERTIFICATES (TCT) which are the certificates issued either by the
Bureau of Internal Revenue, Department of Finance or the Bureau of Customs, they are actually indications that you have a
receivable or overpaid taxes to the government and it symbolizes that you have advance payment to the government and
you can use this certificate to pay out your other tax liabilities. Thus, you are not paying in cash but through another item.
If TCT is issued by the BIR, it can only be used to pay taxes due to the BIR. So if its a TCT for income tax that you
overpaid, you can use that certificate to pay other taxes found in the IRC like documentary stamp taxes, donors
tax. But you cannot use this TCT to pay off your real property tax before the LGU or to pay customs duties or VAT
before the BOC. It must only be against a tax of the issuing authority.
o It is levied against persons, properties or objects of taxation so long as it is within the taxing jurisdiction.
o It is the levied by the law making body of the state for public purposes.
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Generally, for tax to be valid, it must have the following major requirements:
o 1. The tax should be for public purpose.
In the Constitution, any tax levied by the government should not be appropriated for any private purpose but
only for public purpose.
o 2. Taxation should be uniform in nature. When we say uniform in nature, then it must be applied to all persons within the
same class similarly situated.
To be expounded when we reach equal protection clause and uniformity and equity in taxation.
o 3. It must be within the jurisdiction of the taxing authority to be expounded when we reach citus of taxation.
o 4. There must be due process in the assessment and collection of taxes. So fair and reasonable methods of collection.
o 5. With porper observance of both inherent and constitutional limitations to the Power of Taxation (POT).
How are taxes classified? What are the classification of taxes?
o The subject matter or object against which it is taxed is directed can be classified into 3:
Personal Tax: tax imposed on a person who is a resident of a particular place without regard to his citizenship.
Maybe an alien national or without regard to the type of business or profession he is engaged in. He may be a
minimum wage earner or a president of a multi-national corporation, it does not matter. Personal tax is a tax
directed against a person who is a resident of a particular place.
When we say resident in a particular place, it means residence in the Philippines.
Why cant we impose a personal tax against a residence of the US? Because he is outside our
Property Tax: it is assessed on properties that lie within the jurisdiction of the taxing authority.
Example: Real property tax. Who is liable to pay the tax?
Example: This class formed a corporation, which can be incorporated by a minimum of 5 individuals.
The corporation owns various real properties.
o Since corporations have different personalities or distinct from the persons composing the
corporation or owning the corporation, the liability of the real property tax would actually call
on the corporation itself. Stockholders would not be liable.
Thats the reason why you only 3 types of businesses or organizations. It can be
corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.
For purposes of protection of individual assets, you go for corporation because you
create a separate and distinct personality and it cannot go after your personal
Now if the corporation has real properties, it is the corporation who pays for the real property tax
The only instance wherein the stockholders will be liable to pay the RPT of the corporation is when the
corporation dissolves and properties are distributed to the tax holders without the tax having been paid
because the tax follows the property being a property tax. Property tax attaches to the property itself
whoever the owner is.
Excise Tax: it is a kind of tax which does not fall within the meaning of personal or property tax. It is a tax based,
not on the persons residence or the persons property, but on the performance of an act or enjoyment of an
activity or privilege and the exercise or engaging of a particular profession. All others which do not fall under the
definition of a personal or property tax will have to be called an excise tax.
Example: Income tax an excise tax? Estate tax an excise tax?
o Second classification, under who is burdened by the tax: Direct and Indirect taxes.
What do you call a person who is liable for tax as provided under a law? STATUTORY TAX PAYER (STP).
o Is the STP always burdened by the tax imposed by the law? Not always. So we discuss, direct
and indirect taxes.
Direct: the burden falls directly on the tax payer who is mentioned in the law. We call every taxpayer or every
person mentioned in the law as the one liable to remit the tax to the government as a STP. He is a taxpayer as
provided by the law. He is the one required to remit.
Is remittance to the government requirement equivalent to being burdened by the tax itself? Not
necessarily. In some cases where the STP is required to remit the tax that he himself is burdened by it,
by which he can no longer pass the tax to anyone. We call the tax as the direct tax.
o Example: Income tax for your lawyer. And you received for your profession as a lawyer, you
will be liable, as a rule by income tax.
Can you shift income tax to your clients? No because income tax is only computed
at the end of the year when you realize your income. If your expenses is lower than
your receipts from your clients. Since you can no longer shift the burden to anyone
ellse, you are liable to pay the direct tax. Because you are burdened to pay the tax
which you are required to remit to the government.
Indirect: the STP is found in the law can shift on or pass the burden to another person may he be a direct
consumer or any other entity in the production chain.
Example: VAT. Under the law every person who sells, barters, exchanges goods, services, or properties
are liable 12% VAT on the gross selling price or gross receipts.
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o If you are a seller of a property, you will be liable to pay the 12% VAT. You are a STP under the
law. But the VAT of 12% is added on to the selling price of the property which the consumer
pays. So the consumer actually pays the 12% vat to you for which you only conduit and you
remit the 12% vat to the government.
o So VAT is an indirect tax because the burden is shifted by the STP down to the next person,
may he be an individual or an entity.
o It may be consumer like us or an entity.
o Example: if y have a mango and you sell it to someone who will convert it to a dried mango
chip. After which it is sold to a wholesaler, to a retailer sold to a hotel. Every chain, in every
transfer of property or goods, there will be a 12% added on. Everyone becomes burdened by
tax. The last person, someone ate it in the hotel. That hotel also becomes a STP required to
remit it to the government. But the burden was actually shifted to the one who ate it.
o That is why it is called VAT because it is a tax on every value added as it is distributed in a
production chain or chain of distribution, its tax is added up.
o Classification as how the amount of tax is determined:
Specific: tax imposed by the head or number, or by some standard of weight or measurement.
Excise taxes under the tax code imposed on non essential items, not totally though, that they are more
of specific taxes. Ad valorem taxes
Ad Valorem: are imposed on the value of the item or goods.
Example: real property tax. Estate tax. Donors tax. They are always imposed on how much is the value
of the property that is transferred or so.
o As to purpose:
Revenue raising, which is the general purpose of taxation.
Regulatory purpose: imposed for a special purpose.
o As to the scope
National: by national government
Local or Municipal: by municipal corporations or local governments.
o As to graduation or rate of taxation:
Progressive: taxes which escalate or increases as your income increase based on ability to pay principle. The tax
rate increase as the income increases.
This is more reasonable because you are imposing the buden of tax to those who are able to pay them.
Regressive: the tax rate decreases as the income increases.
No regressive taxes in the Philippines because these are discouraged. Otherwise it will be unfair to
those whose income is not so much.
What is only argued as a regressive tax is the VAT. But it is a proportional tax.
Proportional: it is neither regressive nor progressive. In between regressive and progressive taxes, is proportional
taxes which is a fixed percentage of tax based on the amount of the property subject or object to be taxed. What
is fixed is the tax rate. What is increasing or decreasing is the value of the property, object, subject or income.
Progressive: tax goes up, income goes up. Regressive: tax goes up, income goes down. Proportional:
stays as a fixed percentage whether the income is going up or income is going down.
Example: real property tax. Because RPT in cities and municipalities within the Metro Manila area is
imposed at 2% of the assessed value of the property. Whether the assessed value is 1M or 1peso, the
RPT pays fixed at 2%
o Corporate Income Tax: stays at 30% flat income tax even if the income of the corporation is at
1B or 1peso.
When you have progressive income taxation, it simply means that the tax laws of the country or system of taxation is placing
emphasis on more on direct taxes because equivalent to progressive system of taxation is the ability to pay principle. While
regressive system of taxation focuses more on the presence of indirect taxes as against direct taxes. What is encouraged by the
Constitution is for Congress to evolve a regressive system of taxation. This means, Congress would like to have as many direct taxes as
can be.
o But the Constitution does not prohibit indirect taxes. It only encourages a progressive system of taxation.
o That is why when a case was field in the SC, on the Constitutionality of the EVAT law as being regressive in nature. The SC
upheld its constitutionality. The constitution does not prohibit the imposition of indirect taxes. Long ago, sales taxes were
there, indirect taxes were already present. The argument that VAT being regressive is that if you compute 12% as a fixed
amount against the purchases of a high income earner as against a VAT on low income earner, there would be a big
difference of the take home pay of the individual.
Example: Mr. A is earning 100,000 per month, if he uses 30% of that 100% for purchases imposed with VAT. And
Mr. B whose income is and he uses 30% for purchases subject to VAT. His purchases per month is Php50,000 plus
VAT of 12% which is equivalent 6000 as against the income component of Php 100,000. He actually paid VAT of
6% only.
If Mr. B earning only 10,000 in a month and spends 80% of his income to purchase in order to subsist in his living
expenses since we cannot say 5000 is enough. He will have to pay 8000 purchases plus VAT. VAT is Php 916. So he
actually spent for 9.6%.
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Although both of them are subjected to a proportional tax of 12% because VAT belongs to the proportional tax
being fixed in amount imposed in varying degrees of the property bought or sold, but in effect the burden of the
tax is different as to Mr. A and Mr. B. There was a difference of 3.6%. Thus, argument is that it is regressive
because the burden decreases as your income increases.
SC: upheld the VAT as valid:
1. Indirect taxes is not prohibited by the Constitution.
2. Indirect taxes or sales tax, which VAT is a sales tax, has been there for a long time. It is impossible to
take it out.
3. Because low income earners are expected to purchase items which are not vatable. As provided for
in Section 109 of your tax code, it lists down from A to Z items which are now exempt. It provides there
that items, which are original in stake or which has not been processed as yet are exempt from VAT. The
SC is actually saying that this group of income earners will not spend on VAT because they will only
purchasing items which are not vatable. Therefore VAT is still a valid tax.
Distinguish Taxes from License or Permit Fees. (If to distinguish, the best answer is to answer as to every distinction you can think of;
Enumeration as to bullet points or numbers).
o As to source of power: Police Power for license and power of taxation for taxes.
o As to purpose: License for regulation; Taxes for revenue.
o As to amount: As to taxes, it is unlimited. It is for Congress to determine so long as provided under the law, you follow the
law. If its 50% tax, then its 50% tax. But for licenses, it is only to recover the cost of regulation. But sometimes if it is
exercised in consonance with the power of taxation, this may exceed the cost of regulation.
o As to when paid: Because every business before it starts would have to be licensed in order for it to be operative, thus it is
paid in the beginning. Taxes are only imposed if an income is earned or for other taxes, such as community tax, if there is
capital, etc.
o As to legal effect: Non-payment of licenses will make the business illegal while non-payment of taxes makes the business
still valid but subject to civil and criminal liability.
Toll Fees vs. Taxes: Toll fees are payments for the use of property. It is not exercised in the power of taxation.
o Toll fees are imposed for the use of the property for purposes of recovering the construction cost. It is not only the
government who has the right to collect toll fees but any private entity as well. The reason there being is that in some cases
the government of the Philippines cannot afford to have these kinds of structures. It will have another foreign company to
do the Construction and the spending and allow the private entity or corporation to recover the cost of construction
through told fees. In some cases, the government will enter into a BOT Agreement, Bill-Operate-Transfer, wherein a private
entity will build something, operate it and after recovering the full cost will transfer the entire property to the government.
o Toll fees is a demand fo the government or private entity for purposes other than governmental purposes.
o As to demand: Tolls fees are a demand for ownership while taxes are a demand of the sovereignty.
Special Assessment vs. Taxes
o Special Assessment is a levy on a parcel of land that has been directly benefited by the public.
Example: If a flyover, BTC flyover, can the government actually claim a levy against BTC? Can they say that that
particular piece of land was benefited by the public improvement? Not all public improvements will entitle the
government to levy a special assesedment against the land surrounding the improvement.
SA is not personal in nature. It is directed against the parcel of land, directly benefited by the public
improvement. It is more a property tax. When we said that thtere is only 1 kind of property tax, which is real
property tax. You will notice that SA is a real property tax under the local government code. It is a property tax
against a land benefited directly by the public improivement wherein the government can directly collect to up to
60% of the cost of the improvement from all surrounding properties. If no benefit is given, no special levy can be
o Tax is collected on a regular basis while SL is collected only after an ordinance has been passed by the LGU imposing such
levy. And there can be no public improvement every now and then in the same area. For purposes of observance of due
process, public hearing is necessary so that all property owners is given the chance to object on whether or not they will be
Compromise Penalty
o Compromise Penalties are those granted by the government in lieu of a prosecution for the violation of the tax law. It is still
in relation to taxes. You will see in the tax code that for every violation of tax law, you will be subjected to fines,
imprisonments, surcharges, and interests. But if you want to escape criminal prosecution, if the government will offer to
impose and collect from you the compromise penalty in lieu of a criminal prosecution for the violation of the tax law. It is
Example: you have a business and you earn 1M in income and spend 1M in sales, and 1M in expenses. You are at
a lost of 1M. You were advised by your advisor that there is no need to file an income tax return because you did
not earn any income and thus not liable for any tax. Is this correct? NO.
As a rule, the tax code provides that every business has to file his income tax return whether it earned
income or did not perform well. In this example, if you did not file an income tax return and its found
that out, you will be liable for the non-filing of tax return which is criminal prosecution, violation of the
tax code but in lieu of this the government will offer you a compromise penalty of Php 10,000 for that
failure to file the tax return. But you will not be liable for interest or surcharge because you did not earn
income. Surcharge is only based on the tax that has not been paid, you are losing. You will not be liable
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for interest because you did not earn income thus you are not liable for tax, no interest which to base
o So, the compromise penalty is monetary in nature. The government is not really interest in prosecuting tax payers but
rather as much as possible into entering into compromise because taxes are the life blood of the state.
o Compromise penalty is for the government to determine and offer. There is another type of compromise which is not a
penalty. The tax payer of the government wishes into compromise meeting and middle ground in the assessment and in
the capability of the tax payer to settle his past obligations. This is a compromise which must be decided upon by both
parties. But this compromise penalty here is the sole prerogative and offer of the government. If accepted, then taxpayer
has only to pay. But the government cannot force the tax payer to pay the compromise penalty. The only recourse left for
the government is to criminally prosecute the tax payer.
Debt vs. Taxes
o Debt is assignable but tax is not generally assignable. Taxes are generally not assignable tax. If you are the statutory tax
payer, it is only against you with whom the government will collect from, whether its direct or not. Say for example, in VAT,
there is a different statutory tax payer and the tax payer burdened by the tax. If the purchaser of the property that you sold
did not pay VAT. You are still liable to pay the 12% VAT because you are the STP whether its a direct tax or not. The liability
to remit the tax falls on the statutory tax payer.
Only in very few exceptional cases, wherein another person is liable for the tax of someone else.
Example: estate tax. If a person Mr. A dies, he leaves an estate. The tax payer is the estate, the person
who died has no more personality. The estate left will be liable to pay the estate tax. If the peroperty is
distributed to the heirs before settling the estate tax, the government can actually proceed to run after
the heirs not anymore against the estate because of the violation of the law that distribution can only
be made after payment or settlement.
o Debts can be paid other in money. While tax is generally paid in money.
o In debtedness, as provided in the Civil Code, there can be no interest collected if it is not stipulated. Unless the promissory
note or written agreement or loan contract provides for interest, it cannot collect interest. But in taxation, interest would
only come in after you failed to your tax on due date. In every regular interval, if you are very prompt in paying taxes, you
dont have to pay interest.
If you are very early in paying your taxes, for NIR taxes, no incentive because of the life blood doctrine, you are
not given any discount. But for LCG and real property taxes, you are given discount of 10% or 20% for real
property tax discount but not to exceed these rates.
o Debts can be compensated or offsetted against each other but not taxes because in taxes, the relationship of the
government and the tax payer is not that of a creditor-debtor. While in debts it can be compensated or offsetted.
(Philex Mining Corp. Case): Philex actually offered its VAT claims for refund in lieu of the governments liability on
excise taxes on mineral extracted. SC said no there can be no offset or compensation between the vat refund filed
and the excise tax due. Excise tax due is already a civil obligation of Philex mining while the claims for VAT refund
are simply inchoate or yet to be proven and is not yet liquidated and thus not yet demandable by the corporation
so there can be no offset.
(Another Case) There was allowed an offsetting. Between the salary of a government employee as against an
estate tax liability.
Subsidy vs. Taxes:
o Subsidies are those which is given or bounties given by the government to the Philippines while taxes are.
o Revenue is the more general term. Revenue is that which is earned by the government through the tax imposition,
subsidies from other nations and tariffs.
o Whiles taxes and subsidies are part of the revenue of every government, taxes are actually imposed against its constituents
while subsidies are voluntary received by the government.
o Revenue, that which enters the coffers of the government. It is more encompassing than taxes and subsidies.
o Internal revenues are the revenues of taxes imposed by the BIR which is part under the NIRC or tax code.
o Customs, duties and tariffs are those taxes imposed on goods coming in or out of the country. But, the tariff and customs
code focuses more on taxes on importation because these are the types of activities wherein we give up foreign exchanges
or currencies. Under economics, the Bangko Central cannot arbitrarily issue legal tenders of the Philippines without foreign
currencies. Therefore, we favor exportations rather than importations. As much as possible we utilize local products than
importing from abroad.
o Tariffs is a table of rates which is synonymously used with customs duties. Its like customs duties as well.
Limitations to the power of taxation:
o Inherent Limitations
o Constitutional Limitations
o First: For public purpose
When you say the purpose is public, it means that it affects the inhabitants of the state not merely the individual.
It is more of directed to the common good of the people.
But there can be indirect benefits to particular individuals.
It can only be appropriated for public purpose. But it can happen that incidentally or a few individuals who can be
benefited. So long as the main objective is for the common good of the people it is still for a purpose. The
wisdom of the tax law is for Congress to decide. The motive behind every law is also for Congress to determine.
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So once a tax law is levied by Congress not for public purpose it violates not only the Constitutional limitation
that it must be for public purpose but the inherent nature as well of taxation that always it must be made for a
public purpose.
A violation would actually result to a violation of the due process clause which is taking of property from the
Example: Congress enacted a law which provides that there shall be levied Php1 for every sack of fertilizer
produced by every fertilizer producer. Proceeds of which is to rehabilitate Company B an ailing fertilizer company.
Lets say it is a private corporation. Is this valid?
The law enacted by Congress, according to a SC decision, levying tax of every sack of fertilizer produced
for the purpose of funding and rehabilitating an ailing company which is a private company is invalid
because the purpose is not public. The tax collected or the tax levied is directed to rehabilitate a private
corporation which is actually a direct benefit on a particular entity which is not for the common good.
It made the law void and unconstitutional because of violating the inherent limitation that every tax
law must be for a public purpose.
But it is not so general as to say that a law cannot be enacted to impose a tax in order to fund a particular
industry of the country. Example, the levying of fees and taxes to support the sugar industry is valid because it
was for the common good of the entire industry. It is for public purpose to support that industry, to support the
entire government.
But if it is only for 1 entity or a few individuals or few entities and so it is not for public purpose. You identify
someone to be directly benefited from the tax it is invalid.
To test whether a tax law is for public purpose or not determine whether the proceeds will be used for the
support of the government or any of the government activities which is governmental in character and whether
or not its proceeds is used to promote the general welfare of the government. Other than that, if the main
purpose is not any of those, then it becomes for private purpose and an invalid tax law.
If you are a tax payer, as a student of a class, if you realize that a law has been enacted imposing a tax but the
proceeds is used by the public official or the government to fund private purposes, your recourse is through a
taxpayers suit.
To be able to file a tax payers suit, the requisites are:
A taxpayers suit is for the discretion of the courts. The courts may not at all times grant you to file a
taxpayers suit. But the basis of filing that case is generally because public funds are illegally disbursed
for purposes other than for public purpose.
Public purpose should be determined at(2:01:00) We said that the scope of the taxing power of every legislative
department of a country is that they have this exclusive power of determining the wisdom of the law, the motive,
and the expediency and necessity of enacting that tax law. So courts in that point have no power to inquire into
the law, unless, a tax payer comes in to question the wisdom or purpose of the law.
In determining whether a law is valid or not or having violated the inherent limitation that a tax law must be for a
public purpose, public purpose must exist at the time that the law is enacted. If at the time the law is enacted, it
will be there in the deliberations in Congress and it is for public purpose then the law is valid at that point.
If at the time of the implementation of the law, we dont have any control over that. But if and when it
is actually proven that the proceeds of the imposition of that law is not utilized for the public purpose
determined at the time of the enactment of the law, that is when the taxpayer comes in. You question
the illegal disbursement.
o Second: Non-delegation by the taxing authority: As a general rule, the power of taxation cannot be delegated. The power
to impose a tax law remains exclusive to the legislative branch of the government as a general rule. The tax law cannot be
delegated by Congress except in 3 instances:
1. The president who does not belong to the legislative branch is also given the power to do something with the
tarrif rates. Like increase, decrease, or remove protective tariff rates, impose bonds on imports or increase the
customs duty rates by not more than 10%, which are exceptions as provided for in the Constitution.
When it allows the executive branch of the government to enforce the law through revenue regulation
making. It is the Secretary of Finance who makes a revenue regulation enforced in a tax law with the
recommending approval of the Commissioner of Internal Revenue. Since certain regulations as we said
forms part of the law therefore it is as if Congress is delegating that power to the executive part of the
government. But very limited because the executive branch can only execute rules and regulations
within the bounds and parameters provided for and already identified by Congress in the law.
Flexible Tariff Clause in the Constitution provides: Wherein the president can actually, under this tariff
clause, in the Constitution it provides the Congress may authorize by virtue of a law the president to fix
the tariff rates whether to remove existing protective tariff duties, to increase it, to reduce it, according
to the needs of the country and to impose import or export quota bands, and to impose additional
custom duties by not more than 10%. The constitution itself says that Congress can delegate through
the president, the law making power not only in so far as tariff or custom duties is concerned.
This provision is not self-executing. By the first phrase it says, Congress may
authorize by law. As provided, Congress can authorize but it has to make a law first
before the President can actually exercise the right.
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Congress already enacted a law with the Tariff and Customs Code and its part of the
Tariff and Customs Code.
WHY: The president is delegated with such power because:
The primary reason being, the president is actually involved in everything,
not only in importation and exportation but also with the budget, the
annual budgets that we have.
Can the president actually say that VAT should be 100% or 50%? No.
Because there is no law providing the president such delegated power.
The reason why this was delegated is for EXPEDIENCY purposes.
Importation will cause a major change in our economy vis a vis wqorld
trade. If many goods will come in without proper regulation, local
industries will be affected. If we do not impose import bands or quotas in
importation, automatically by will of the president, for us to be waiting by
Congress to enact a law, 3 separate readings, etc, then our economy will
be greatly affected like the influx of China made items, the influx of Ukay-
ukay which is not actually taxed cannot be regulated properly. Its for the
president, and only 1 person who decides, you can say that anti-dumping
duties or retaliatory duties will be 100% more than what is existing in
order to prevent the flow of that particular item that we do not like in the
The word flexible is so flexible as to this matter so long as the president will follow
the rule that the protective rates can be increased or reduced by not more than
100% additional duties on top of the existing may be increased by not more than
10%. These are the guidelines Congress has provided the president and the
president is so flexible as to move within these limits and boundaries.
The reason is for expediency, necessity and flexibility. But this can only be done
with NEDA recommendation for purposes of national economy, general welfare and
national security.
Info: We have custom duties which we impose normally. If we have importations that we do not like
coming from a country which discriminates against our products or anything about the Philippines, we
can impose on top of the regular custom duties, a discriminatory tax as well. This is where the
president can move about.
2. LGU. The local government unit has been given by the Constitution as well the power to raise its own sources
of revenue.
Every local government unit has the power to raise its own right to raise its own source of revenue by
imposing taxes, fees and charges against its constituents as provided under the Constitution.
This is NOT self-executory. Just like the power of the president to do something with the custom duties
and tariff rates by virtue of a law granted by Congress, then LGU as well, needs a law coming from
Congress so it can fully execute that provision in the Constitution.
Congress has made a law granting this power through the Local Government Code of 1991. This is the
law enacted by Congress granting the local government units its power to raise all sources of revenue.
Municipal corporations are mere creatures of the Congress so as the inherent power to tax. If Congress
decides to take away this power from the municipalities or cities and do with centralized and national
taxing system, then LGUs will be left without recourse but to simply surrender its power to tax and let
the BIR do the collection of taxes. But we are for local autonomy. So still, we have the LGUs taxing.
3. Exemption of government agencies. If the government will tax itself for the purpose of of using it to fund its
operations, it is superfluous and circuitry wherein you simply remove money from 1 pocket and transfer it to
another. It will also encourage or allow an opportunity for corruption during the transfer. Also, immunity from tax
for the government is necessary so as not to impede the normal operations of the government.
When are government agencies or corporations exempt?
o National government is exempt from tax.
o Municipal governments, as a rule are exempt from tax, because they are political subdivisions
which are provinces, cities, municipalities and barangay. They are taxable, if and when a
government agency is performing proprietary functions it removes the exemption away from
o GOCCs, as a rule are taxable just like any other corporation. In the income tax chapter in the
tax code, there are 4 GOCCS which are exempt from income tax, all others are subject to
income tax:
The 4 GOCCs exempt are: SSS, GSIS(Government Service Insurance System);
PhilHealth and PCSO.
Before PAGCOR is exempt but this has been removed from the exemption.
Those other GOCCs not mentioned, they are subject to income tax unless their
charter provides for exemption.
o Fourth inherent limitation: International Comity.
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The grounds for exempting foreign government from taxes, etc. on the income that they have is the sovereign
equality of the states which is actually based on traditions, customs, and duties that we dont tax a state which
we recognize as co-equal to us. Besides, every state is immuned from suit. In case, they do not pay if we require
them to pay, our suit will not prosper. So there is no use. We do not tax them actually because of the sovereign
equality of states and the immunity from suit included customs, duties and traditions.
o Fifth, territorial jurisdiction:
If you go abroad tomorrow, you perform an activity or do some concerts in the US for 1 month and paid 1M USD,
you did that outside the taxing jurisdiction of the state. You taxable? Yes.
It does not only mean to say that you will only be taxable if you are within the territorial boundaries. When you
say within the taxing jurisdiction, there are many things to consider including of course the situs of taxation
because the first thing that comes to mind when we say that the power of taxation is limited by the territorial
jurisdiction of the state is that we only tax what is inside the Philippines. This only holds true for real property tax
or taxes on property because we follow the rule wherever the property is situated.
But for people who can move about freely in and out of the country, we not only determine whether they are in
the Philippines or abroad but also where they earned the income, etc. As of now, the limitation is territorial in
nature. If the income is earned here, the property is here, general rule, you will be taxable.
1. If your parcel of land is in the Philippines, it is subject to tax.
2. If you are in the Philippines working, it is subject to tax.
3. If you are a foreigner earning income in the Philippines, it is subject to tax because you are enclosed
in this territorial jurisdiction. If you are a foreigner earning income abroad, it is not within our power to
tax. He is beyond us. But if you are a Filipino earning income abroad, the answer is yes and no. It
depends on how long you have stayed abroad.
4. Properties abroad. As a rule, properties are taxable where they are located. This is only the general
rule because there are different rules for different types of tax.
Constitutional Limitations: There are many limitations provided in the Constitution, it may be directly said about taxation or it may be
indirectly and applicable to all other powers of the government.
o First, Concurrence of the majority of Congress is needed in order to pass a avalid law granting tax exemption, both Senate
and the House. When you say majority, it means plus 1.
When a tax exemption is granted by Congress there must be the concurrence of both the house and the Senate
with atleast majority both in each. They have to vote separately otherwise Senate will be absorbed by the
number of the House.
Does this hold true as well with passing a law granting tax amnesty?
Tax amnesty means the intentional overlooking of the state of its right to collect taxes which could have
been due to it. While exemption is the foregoing the collection of future taxes. While amnesty is for
taxed taxes. Because in amnesty you are forgiving past violations. In exemption, not yet, in the future,
you are supposed to be taxable but the government withheld its right to collect the tax.
This is the basic difference but bottom line, the government is not getting any money out of it.
Therefore, being a restriction on the governments part to collect. And the restriction that they are not
in consonance with the life blood doctrine, therefore they have to have a strict majority vote.
Since tax amnesty is the same effect as tax exemption because bottom line is both is that the
government is actually forgoing the collection of amounts, therefore, coming up with a tax amnesty law
by Congress also needs the concurrence of majority vote of both Senate and the house for it to be a
valid law. For all others, may it be a law granting the refund of taxes for a particular period of payment
or any other amnesty, majority vote.
o Second, exemption of religious, charitable or education institutions (RCE), non-profit cemeteries, churches and parsonages
are exempt from property tax.
All lands, buildings and improvements, as real properties, of all RCE institutions are exempt from property tax? It
should be ACTUALLY, DIRECTLY, EXCLUSIVELY (ADE) used for the purpose of RCE.
Example: you have a parcel of land owned by you is this subject to real property tax (RPT)? Yes. You have it leased
and used by USC, a non-stock, non-profit educational institution, is it subject to real property tax? NO. because it
is ADE used for educational purpose.
If this is leased by USC and a chapel is built but not a school, it is not subject to RPT because the chapel is
incidental to the main purpose which is for educational purpose.
If USC makes a school, chapel and a dormitory, which is all used by the students, is the entire parcel of land
subject to RPT or partially subject to RPT? Constitution says that all lands, buildings and improvements should be
ADE used by a RCE, etc are exempt from real property taxes. Therefore, the whole land is exempted. What is
provided in the Constitution is only exemption from real property taxes. Whatever other income that will come
out with the use of the property, lands, buildings and improvements, will be subject to other kinds of taxes such
as income from the rent of the building, donors tax for the donations, tax for the transfer of the property in case
its sold.
The only exemption is for real property taxes in this provision of the law.
The exemption is not absolute. It requires that the use and not the ownership that matters but its the use. So
long as its actually ADE for RCE purposes, or any other purposes like cemetery, etc.
University of Cebu, is the parcel of land taxable or exempt from real property tax?
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Constitution says, ADE for RCE purposes does not require that the school must be a non-stock, non-
profit. So long as the purpose is education in nature, whoever that school is will be exempt from RPT.
Whether UC is a proprietary school or whether USC a non-stock, non-profit school, properties used for
education purposes will be exempt from real property tax.
Ex: School building. This is the parcel of land rented out by you from USC. There is a school building, dormitory, a
canteen was constructed off site. Will the canteen and garden be tax exempt?
Here is a canteen but operated by you. As a condition to USC that you will only allow to sell the parcel
of land if you will be operating the canteen attached to this building. Is the parcel of land exempt from
o Example: Styler (canteen in the main building),
General rule, if the parcel of land is used for educational purposes then it is exempt
from RPT so long as it is ADE. It does not matter whether the school is non-stock or
non-profit or proprietary or for profit. The religious institution is does not have to
be Catholic. So long as it is a charitable institution.
But for this incidental activities, like canteens, so long as the canteen is operated by
the school itself and within the campus, then it will be exempt from RPT. But if it is
operated by someone else, even if inside the school, it will no longer be exempt.
So if in USC, there is a bar, which is part of the school building. Only that portion of
the land will not be exempt. All others will be.
o Example, dormitory, which is open for the public, you cannot place exemption for this parcel
of land.
o If the school is operated by the school, and located outside the school: If it is accessible to the
public, then strictly speaking, it is taxable.
o If a hotel in the school and accessible to the public, for HRM students in USC, the income
from outside guests, being merely incidental, are subject to income tax. But the property
itself, RPT that will be exempt because having a hotel is part of the activities it will be having
for school purposes. For the RPT, they can ask for exemption.
o Third, all assets and revenues of a non-stock, non-profit educational institution is exempt from income tax, property tax,
donors tax and custom duties.
Because of the governments priority for education in the Philippines, it elevated the role of non-stock, non-profit
education to a very special class which it granted exemption to the 4 kinds of taxes. It will be exempt from
income tax from revenues derived from educational activities. Donors taxes on donations of properties related
to educational purposes. Custom duties on importations on equipments and items used for educational purposes
as well. Beyond that, NSNP will not be exempt if it is not for educational purpose. It must also be ADE used for
educational purposes.
June 29, 2010
Revenue bill must originate exclusively in the House but the senate may propose with amendments law making process
o In drafting of tax law, it must originate from the house of representatives. Does that mean the senate has to follow
what the house does? No.
o Just like the general ruling in making a law, for revenue laws or tax laws, every revenue must originate from the house
but it does not mean that everything has to originate from the house. The power of the senate is to amend whatever originated
from the house or actually have in advance a substitute bill already made in anticipation of the revenue bill which is to be
passed by the house. So it is just for formality purposes, but notwithstanding, it will have to follow the 3 readings in 3 separate
days wherein a panel form of such enactment is to be given 3 days before.
Exemption of religious, charitable and educational entities, non-profit cemeteries and churches from property taxation
o Provision: Charitable institutions, churches, parsonages, convents, mosques, nonprofit cemeteries and any
improvements actually, directly and exclusively used for religious, educational and charitable purposes shall be exempt from
o What is the exemption granted to religious institutions? It only covers the property tax.
o When you say property tax, what do you mean by that? If a religious institution has various properties, both real and
personal prop, would all these prop be exempt from tax under the constitution? Piano used by the choir, is it covered by
exemption? No. Piano is not a real prop.
o The coverage of exemption under this constitutional provision is only REAL prop tax exemption on real prop. Real prop
refers only to lands, buildings and improvements.
o Would the ownership of a parcel of land by a religious institution automatically grant it real property tax exemption?
No. The test of exemption is not ownership by the charitable institution, not the ownership by the religious institution, not
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ownership by educational institution. It is granted real prop tax exemption if it is actually, directly and exclusively used by such
institutions. When you say ADE, it refers to the use.
o Does it mean to say that incidental use of the property will strip off its right to be exempted from the real prop tax?
No. Incidental use of prop as long as it is main purpose is still covered by the exemption.
i.e. convents used by priests and nuns and canteen in school. When you say exclusively used, it does not mean that it
has to be used only for that religious purpose. It does not mean sole use but it must be used primarily for religious
i.e. a parcel of land owned by a private individual, leased out to a religious institution. 50% of the area is used as
parking space P10 per hour exclusively used for parishioners. ---- do not be confused with the exemption in so far as real
prop taxes is concerned as against the income tax on the income generated by the use of that prop. In that case, if it is
incidental, when the use of the free space to park the vehicles of those attending religious activities, the portion of that
parcel of land is still exempt from real prop tax because the use is incidental to the primary purpose of what the activity
is all about, but the income generated, the parking fees, is another matter. It is an income subject to income tax. The
provision of the constitution does not grant exemption from income tax to income generated by these religious
institutions. If we will move towards income taxation, what section 30 of the tax code provides for all those exempt
organizations, nonprofit cemeteries, nonstock nonprofit educational institution, government educ. Inst. they are
exempt from income tax but any use of their prop will be subject to income tax regardless of how the proceeds will be
used. In that case, religious institutions earning income from parking fees, can they say that they will be exempt from
income tax because the fees will be used to maintain the premises? It is not an exemption because what is granted by
the constitution is only real property tax exemption.
o Q: if parking space would also be used by outsiders and not merely parishioners? We have to determine what the
numbers are. If majority are outsiders, probably it is not already incidental to the existence of the church but will be a
commercial parking space for everyone so that will not be exempt from real prop tax.
i.e. San Carlos is non-stock non-profit, if it leases out a portion of its space (10%) for use to Jollibee, is it subject to tax?
We are still in real property exemption, it says charitable, religious and educational inst. is exempt from real prop tax
whether they own the prop or not so long as the prop is ADE used for the purpose. In this case, whether this parcel of
land is leased out by USC or owned by it. if it leases out or subleases out a portion to a commercial establishment, this is
taken out from the coverage of the exemption. A portion of this entire parcel of land would have to be paid of real prop
taxes. Jollibee space is to be paid of tax. Who is liable for this real prop tax? It depends on the agreement. The contract of
lease would have been entered into, real prop tax follows first whoever the owner is, if it is leased out to somebody else,
liability may be shifted to someone else.
o Would it differ if USC will be changed to UC? Would your answer still be the same? If we change this to UC, a
proprietary private educational inst. which is for profit, would your answer still be the same, 90% exempt, 10% taxable?
If the canteen is owned and operated by the school itself and it is located within the campus, it will be exempt from
real prop tax. Same holds true with operating dormitories, with operating bookstores, computer rent outs, so long as it
can be justified as related for the promotion of educational welfare of the students then you can say that the use of the
space is still ADE used.
i.e. USC has an idle parcel of land that it plans to sell to UC, is this parcel of land held by USC as an idle parcel of land
be exempt from real prop tax prior to its sale to UC? No. Prop held for future use or for speculation purposes are not
covered by the words ADE use for charitable, religious and education purposes.
o Let us say this parcel of land is fully used for educational purposes and is sold by USC to UC. Its exempt from real prop
tax because it is entirely for educational purposes. Will the sale to UC be subject to income tax? If the sale is not for educational
purposes it is not covered by the exemption.
o If it is donated to UC, will it be subject to donors tax? No.
Advance topic: Income taxation and donors taxation but nonetheless is preliminary to the discussion of the
exemptions granted to non-stock non-profit educational institution which we will expound later.
o Real prop tax exemption is that which is granted to the 3 major institutions - charitable, religious and educational. All
educational institutions are really exempt from real prop taxes so long as their assets, buildings, lands, improvements are used
for educational purposes. We do not distinguish. But the exemption stops there. Whatever they do to the prop, these religious,
charitable and educational institutions whether they transfer that, they donate that, etc, it will be subject normally to taxes
applicable to other institutions. But that is the general rule because we have not studied yet the next exemption granted to a
very special institution which we call the non-stock non-profit educational institution.
i.e. If a religious institution has a parcel of land which it wishes to donate to a school, to a private entity, to a charitable
institution, will it be subject to donors tax? Yes, because religious institutions are not exempt from donors tax as a rule.
Will it be subject to local transfer tax which is a liability to the local government units? Yes. Because local transfer taxes
are not real prop taxes therefore they are still liable for that.
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o But how about educational institutions? Will they be taxable as charitable and religious institutions are taxable? Not
necessarily. Non-stock non-profit educational institution has a very very large scope of exemption granted under the
constitution. What is it all about? The constitution provides that all revenues and assets of non-stock non-profit educational
institutions used ADE for educational purposes shall be exempt from taxes and duties.
Exemption of nonstock, nonprofit educational institutions from taxation
o i.e. if this is USC leasing out to Jollibee earning P100,000 monthly rent income, will the P100k be subject to income
tax? Yes it is taxable since income derived from leasing to Jollibee is not used ADE for educational purposes.
o Notwithstanding that the constitution says that all assets. When it says all assets and revenues, assets refer to
exemption from donors tax, real prop taxes. Revenues refer to exemption from income tax. All revenues of a non-stock non-
profit educational institution shall be exempt from taxes which is income tax so long as it is ADE used for educational purposes.
o What if USC raises the defense that P100k monthly income proceeds will be used to further the purposes of
education, meaning proceeds will be used for educational purposes, will they still be subject to income tax? The constitution
grants income tax exemption to revenues of the school so long as it is ADE used for educational purposes. It is somewhat vain in
saying that it is ADE use if we apply this argument that P100k income rent from Jollibee is to be used to buy books for school, to
maintain the premises, etc., meaning the argument that this will actually be devoted to the educational purposes of USC, can
they actually be exempt using this agreement? If you look at the constitution, it would seem that a non-stock non-profit
educational institution can get away with everything by saying that all proceeds will be used for educational purposes. Would it
run counter to the provision in Sec 30 last paragraph of the tax code which says all entities otherwise exempt from income tax
which includes non-stock non-profit educational institution are exempt from income tax. It is just but a repetition of what the
constitution provides, but in the last paragraph, it further went on to clarify that all income derived by these institutions
including non-stock non-profit educational institutions will be subject to income tax if it is an income derived from the use of
real or personal prop. Is 100K an income derived from the use of real prop of USC? Yes. Therefore the argument that these
proceeds will be used for educational purposes will not stand. It will still be subject to income tax.
o What it really means when it said that revenues are exempt from income tax of non-stock non-profit educational
institution is that revenues coming from its educational activities, the use of library if it has a fee, use of dormitories, the use of
canteens operated by the school, use of parking spaces which charges parking fees. These are proceeds incidental to activities
operated by the school itself in order to enhance the services to the students but Jollibee is entirely and distinctly operated by
another entity which is for profit therefore, it is as if USC is gaining profit out of the rental of this space. Of course, if you were
USC, all you have to do is do not charge rental fees. Therefore, no income, ask for donation from Jollibee. It is exempt from
donors tax if the donation is intended for educational purposes. Do not execute a contract of lease, execute a deed of donation.
1. Income tax exemption
2. Real prop tax exemption
3. Customs duties
4. Educational institutions are exempt from donors taxes.

o Donors tax exemption: On what kind of prop? Would all donations to and from the school be exempt from donors
tax? It has to be shown that it is ADE used for educational purposes.
i.e. If USC would import other equipments, would it be subject to customs duties? Customs duties are taxes you pay
upon claiming your imported items from the bureau of customs. No release of goods without the settlement of customs
duties. If the school orders and imports equipment from abroad, will they be liable for customs duties upon claiming the
items from the Bureau of customs? Yes if primarily for educational purposes? If importation of school bus? Yes. So long
as it is for ADE educational purposes.
Lets change USC to UC, importation of products, exempt from customs tax? Does UC have the same set of exemptions
granted to USC? Assuming UC is proprietary? Not the same level of exemption as nonstock, nonprofit.
o If you talk about the NIRC, this is not covering customs duties and exemptions because customs duties is part of tariff
and customs code. The exemptions granted to proprietary educational institutions or educational institutions other than non-
stock non-profit or government institutions, the constitution is not so direct as to say that they are exempt. What it actually says
is that congress may grant exemptions to these types of institutions because the constitution favors and supports education to
the constituents. What congress did when it enacted the national internal revenue code, it provided partial exemption granted
to these proprietary educational institutions.
o What do you mean by proprietary? In the nature business which has the end of obtaining profit. Sec 27B of tax code
provides partial exemption granted to proprietary institutions.
o What is this exemption? It is an exemption of income tax. Ordinarily, institutions or private entities are subject to 30%
corporate income tax. When you say corporate income tax, it does not mean tax only on corporations. It is a tax on all
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businesses or entities other than sole proprietorships or other than those ran only by 1 individual. Whether we say corporation,
strict corporation, entity, foundation, institution or a partnership that is taxable, it is subject to corporate rate of 30%.
Supposedly, educational institutions will be covered by this because it is not a sole proprietorship, it is an entity. But by virtue of
constitution, non-stock, non-profit educational institutions has been granted full exemption from 30% income tax while
proprietary educational institutions under section 27B of tax code provides for a partial exemption of 20%. It means to say that
proprietary educational institutions are subject only to a tax rate of 10% because the 20% is an exemption. Although it did not
say 20% but we presumed that the difference between 30% and 10% is 20%. Schools will be subject to 10% income tax.
o An easy scheme to get rich (1) organize a religious cult, (2) schools. Schools whether it is proprietary, you enjoy
privileges of 10% income tax. It is very much lower than the 30% when you make a business. So you make a business out of
o It is not in the tax code nor the constitution as well, educational institutions have went further in claiming their
exemption, non-stock non-profit educational institution also asks for exemption from withholding taxes on their deposits and
investments with financial institutions. If you have a deposit in a bank, the bank withholds 20% of interest income even before
you have actually received the interest.
o Schools (non-stock non-profit) because they have been granted income tax exemption also sought from the
department of finance an exemption from final withholding taxes on their interest from bank deposits. Because in some cases
they have extra money and they put in a bank. Their argument is interest earned will be used for educational purposes etc
luckily they have been granted exemption on many conditions:
1. They must submit financial statement showing the interest income earned.
2. They must show proof of how the proceeds of that income was spent for etc

o What if claiming for exemption is not an accredited educational institution? Even if it is charitable, even if it is non-
stock, non-profit foundation if its nature is not really an accredited school by the CHED or DECS it will not enjoy the exemption
granted to non-stock non-profit entities.
o When it says in 27b that it is exempt from taxable income, it only means income from operation. Customs duties is a
tax not on income but on the landed cost or value of the products coming in. so it is based on the total value of the product.
When you say subject to income tax, the tax is directed at the income or profit after deducting your costs from your proceeds.
Rule of uniformity and equity in taxation
o Are these 2 the same? No. uniformity and equity in taxation do not mean the same.
o Uniformity There is uniformity in taxation if subject matter whether persons, properties or particular activity
belonging to the same class is taxed at the same rate. You may take the que from uniformity of the rate of those belonging
within the same class and they will be accorded the same privileges and sameness of liabilities imposed. But equity in taxation
does mean uniformity.
o Equity Equity is the apportionment of the burden of taxes is distributed heavily on those who are better able to pay
the tax and lesser to those who cannot really pay the tax. So it is based more on ability to pay principle
o Which of the 2, uniformity as against equity, follows the directive or progressive system of taxation? This is the table of
individual income tax rates provided under section 24 applicable to Filipino citizens and resident aliens including non-resident
aliens engaged in trade or business:
Not over P10,000 ------------------------------------------- 5%
Over P10,000 but not over P30,000 ------------------- P500 + 10% of the excess over P10,000
Over P30,000 but not over P70,000 ------------------- P2,500 +15% of the excess over P30,000
Over P70,000 but not over P140,000 ----------------- P8500 + 20% of the excess over P70,000
Over P140,000 but not over 250,000 ----------------- P22,500 + 25% of the excess over p140,000
Over P250,000 but not over P500,000 --------------- P50,000 + 30% of the excess over P250,000
Over P500,00 ----------------------------------------------- P125,000 +32% of the excess over P500,000

i.e. If you belong to P1 until P10,000 it will be subject to 5%. Anything in excess of P10,000 up to P30000 is subject to
10% and so onif your income is more than P500,000, it will be subject to 32%. Is this uniformity in taxation or equity in
taxation? How can you apply the words uniformity as being applied to taxing the same class with the same rate and
equity based on the ability to pay principle. When you say uniformity, you are taxing persons, prop, or activities
belonging to the same class with the same uniform rate. Congress has deemed it proper to classify individuals belonging
to the P1 income earner up to P10,000 income earner while those P10001 to P30000 earner belongs to another bracket.
They are uniform. All those within the same bracket are taxed at a uniform rate. So uniformity would apply at every
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bracket. As to the wisdom as to how they have divided the income bracket is up to congress. When can you say there is
equity in taxation? Equity in taxation is taxing persons, prop and activities belonging to different classes with the
different rates according to their ability to shoulder the burden of tax. So this is vertical equity or equity in taxation.
Where is progressive system of taxation? Did congress really develop a progressive system of taxation in this individual
income tax rates? Progressive - Income tax rate increases as your income increases.
Equal protection clause (indirect constitutional limitation)
o Is equal protection clause related somehow in this equity? Yes.
o Do u think it is valid for congress to impose varying rates on individual income earners? Yes.
o Corporate income tax rate is 30% . Do you think it is valid for congress to have assigned varying and increasing rates to
income of individual persons as against the flat rate of 30% on corporate income? Congress can make valid classifications in
determination of tax rates, application of tax rates? Yes.
o How would congress make classification without violating equal protection clause? i.e. why would individuals earning
P10,000 be taxed only as such while individuals earning P500000 be taxed as 32%? If these groups of taxpayers would question
the rate they want to be applied 5% how would you defend the tax? Why did congress afford to tax all entities regardless of
income at the same rate? How would you defend the classification made by congress?
o Equal protection clause is violated when distinction is made by congress if no distinction is called for, on the other
hand, if no distinction is made by congress when distinction is necessary in the application of tax rates. In this case, there is no
violation of the equal protection clause because there is substantial distinction between those belonging to such income
brackets. There is as well no violation of the equal protection clause when congress decided to impose varying rates, lower rates
to those low income earners and a flat rate to corporate because corporations and individuals are not in the same footing.
Corporations are taxed at a flat rate of 30% despite a very low income in cases of low income earning corporation because
corporations can deduct expenses related to the business. While for us individuals if we are mere employees, can we deduct our
personal family living expenses before these tax rates can be applied? No. We cannot deduct the gasoline that we spent for, the
food that we bought, etc. So long as no violation of equal protection clause and there is:
1. Substantial distinction
2. Distinction is germane to the purpose of the law, ability to pay principle.
3. It will apply not only to present conditions but as well to future conditions.
4. Applies equally to all members of the same class - classification must apply to all those situated within the same
circle. Wherever that particular person is located, the same rate will be applied. This will apply even to an
individual who is not present in the Phils. at the time the income is earned. It applies to those who are situated
in the same scope.
Non-imprisonment or non-payment of poll tax
o A person cannot be imprisoned by nonpayment of community tax unless he falsifies such.
o What is your penalty to non-payment? Interest will be imposed, no imprisonment for nonpayment of poll tax.
o Poll tax a tax based on residence regardless of citizenship, nationality, income and property.
Non-impairment of the jurisdiction of the supreme court in tax cases:
o What is that limitation of the power of congress to impose taxes? The SC has the power to finally adjudicate tax cases.
If congress decides to amend the constitution, can it withhold form the SC this power to decide the finality tax cases. No. It
provided in the constitution.
o What is the role of the SC in so far as the power of congress to impose taxes is concerned ? The SC acts as
the final arbiter in tax cases. The consti provides that congress is so powerful as to withhold and take away the various powers
of the different courts that we have. But it withholds from congress the power to take away from the SC its role as the final
arbiter in tax cases, the power to review, revise, modify, affirm any issues on the legality of taxes, the constitutionality of tax
laws etc. Power of congress actually stops in the enactment of the law but the final determination whether it is constitutional or
not still belongs to the SC. The 3 branches of the government are still co-equal, each has a role to play.
Other provisions in the constitution which are directing so for as taxation is concerned but not necessary a limitation is :
o Flexible tariff clause the delegation made to the president in so far as customs duties and tariffs are concerned.
o Power to raise its own sources of revenues has been given to local government units.
No mention of specific mention of taxes but they might be applicable to taxation as well.
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1. Due process of law

No person shall not be deprived of life, liberty and prop without due process of law.
Does it mean to say that deprivation of prop can be made? Yes. So long it is in compliance with substantive due
process and procedural due process.
Compliance of 2 processes:
Substantive due process in relation to taxation- for due process to be satisfied, every enactment of a law must not
contradict the provisions of the consti and other tax laws.
Procedural due process - in the assessment and collection stage and how the tax law must be enforced, everything
must be fair and reasonable, nothing oppressive and arbitrary. With it comes the requirement that in the enactment of a
tax law and application of the proceeds of the tax law it must be for public purpose, otherwise, it is violative of due
process. It is like taking away property from the tax payer.
2. Non-impairment of obligations and contracts
When can say that a tax law enacted by congress is violative of the consti provision of non-impairment.
Contract must be between the government and a private person or entity. Does it include a franchise granted
exemption by the government? No. Congress can repeal, modify, revoke, amend franchise contracts.
What do you mean by impairment? Results when there is a change in the rights of the taxpayers.
When can a taxpayer invoke this? Can a taxpayer actually say that there has been a violation of this constitutional
provision if a new tax law is enacted impairing the exemption granted to them. Yes if the exemption is based on a
contract. Contract between the government and private entity/individual.
Would exemption granted under a law allow a tax payer to invoke nonimpairment clause? No. When an exemption is
taken away by a new law, can taxpayer raise nonimpairment clause? When you want to invoke nonimpairment clause,
do not base your argument on the exemption granted in a general law which is applicable to everyone. You can raise
nonimpairment clause violation wherein you have entered into a contract with the government granting you an
When you say contract, it means to say it is bilateral. The govt is as well receiving some benefits out of granting you
the exemption. so there is an agreement, there is a contract. Your liability under a tax law and the exemption granted
under general law is but a civil obligation, it is not a contract. We said that there is no set off because there is no contract
between the government and the taxpayer. If your exemption is fully dependent on the law, then congress repealed it,
you cannot say that you have a contract that has been repaired. But if you have an existing contract, the government
cannot impair it if the contract is bilateral and it is an onerous contract.
Will non-impairment clause apply to contracts not with the government for taxation? NO. Non-impairment clause is a
very general provision. That is why it is under indirect limitation. But if you apply it to taxation, we are thinking here of
some kind of exemption that has been granted to you as a taxpayer by the government. So whenever we are talking
about a contract that has been impaired in relation to the power of taxation, there is some kind of reprieve, exemption,
amnesty granted by the government and if it is taken out unilaterally by the government impairing your rights under a
contract, you can invoke non-impairment clause because the power of taxation is not supreme to the non-impairment
clause. A new law cannot supersede a very personal contract between the government and a taxpayer wherein the
taxpayer is granted an exemption in exchange for some consideration that the government is receiving. It is all about
exemption or anything which decreases collection of the government.
Franchises do not fall under the definition contracts in so far as this consti provision is concerned. Why? There is a
particular provision which says that franchises are withdrawable and revocable at any time without impairing the rights
of the franchise grantee.
3. Non-infringement of religious freedom
Taxes shall not be imposed which infringes the right to exercise religion.
i.e. Ayala and SM St. Paul store selling religious articles, is it free from taxes? No. Can they invoke this
provision? No.
When the consti says noninfringement of religious freedom, there shall be freedom to exercise your religion without
being subjected to taxation otherwise there will be a violation of the due process, deprivation of liberty to exercise your
religion. What it actually prohibits is taxing the activity itself including the free distribution of items which promotes your
religious activity and your religious freedom. But when you engage in selling, especially if it is for profit, you will be
subjected to sales taxes, value added taxes, even on your religious articles except bible because bible is literary. Statues,
rosaries etc., if it is sold by an outlet in ayala, sm it presumes an entity that is for profit. It is taxable to income tax, VAT, it
is even required to be licensed. What is a No-No in religious freedom is you do not require a license or permit fee from
religious activity or the distribution of religious articles which are not really intended for profit.
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Religious freedom shall not infringe by the rule that no taxes shall be imposed for any religious activity, no permit in
relation to taxes necessary, no license fees to distribute items, bibles etc, except if it is already sales and for profit.
4. No public money shall be appropriated for religious purposes
The congress cannot enact a law to give public funds to support a religious organization. Not even the predominantly
catholic religion can demand a share from the collection for the public funds that we have. There is an entire separation
of the church and state. No appropriation purposes not even to support a priest, an institution, a religious activity. But
the consti provides for exemptions:
1. Priests in govt orphanages
2. Penal institution
3. Leprosarium
4. Armed forces in the phils.

What is exempt from the rule that no public funds shall be appropriated for religious purposes? If a priest, minister,
pastor works in a leprosarium, govt orphanage, penal institution (priest is there to give final blessing)or the Armed
Forces etc. so this is exempt from the rule that no public funds shall be appropriated for religious purposes because what
is actually being given to these priests, ministers and pastors are in the form of compensation or salary for the service
rendered because it is not directly a religious activity for the entire country or parishioners but it is for a specific purpose.
It is exempt because it is not really to promote religion but address the needs of those who are in these institutions.
Is the compensation or salary of the priest working in a leprosarium exempt from income tax? No. The priest has to
pay income tax.
i.e. A parish priest or a priest assigned in a chapel far-off. He is receiving a monthly amount. He is working in
religious capacity. Will that monthly amount that he is receiving be exempt from income taxes? No. If he receives
the income while rendering services to parish he is subject to income tax.
Nuns are subject to income tax on any income they receive. What the consti provides is that no public funds
shall be appropriated to promote a particular religion. In order to promote any particular religion, no public fund
shall be used for religious purposes. Exception is when these priests, ministers and pastors are hired in these 4
institutions. What they are actually doing is not promoting religion but addressing the needs of those that belong
of the same region, the prisoners, the orphanage, etc. so this is not appropriating public money for religious
purpose. Going to the issue on whether what the priests are receiving whether in these 4 institutions them doing
the service, or those priests detailed in different parishes both are subject to income tax in their personal
What if we exempt them from income tax, would it violate any constitutional provision? Separation of church and
state, equal protection clause. They are still individuals earning income. They are subject to the same tax rates that we
are subjected to. It is not a lucrative practice, vow of poverty as well.
There is a BIR ruling that even SC justices are taxable on the honorarium that they are receiving for preparing bar
questions. Anything which is an income to anyone is taxable unless you fall under the exemption. Whomever you are,
whatever capacity you are doing, your service, in general rule, is subject. Anything which is an income to an individual or
entity is taxable unless it falls under the exception.
i.e. When Pope John Paul came to the Phils and billions was appropriated for that visit. Did it violate the rule that no
public funds will be appropriated for public purposes? No because he came here as head of state rather than as a
religious icon or as a pope.
5. Freedom of the press from taxation
No license fees, no permit fees can be collected to express your opinion or even the airing of news etc, but what is
taxable is the business of producing magazines, newpapers, etc. When it is already translated into printed materials that
is when it becomes taxable but to express your opinion is not taxable.
6. Power of the president to veto any particular item

It is the place of taxation a subject matter, object or person becomes taxable if it is within the taxing jurisdiction of the state in
question. Different subject matters of taxation which is person, property, exercise, business, transaction, activity, would have
different situs.
Which of the 5 inherent limitations closest to situs of taxation? Territorial jurisdiction.
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What are the factors that have to be considered whether a particular state has juris over that subject matter? the different subject
matters - person, property (real, personal, personal tangible, personal intangible), excise occupation, transaction, privilege, activity,
To determine whether subj matter is within the juris of the taxing state, how will we know? What factors do we have to use?
1. Source of income if it is an excise tax (occupation, activity, business, profession, privilege) where is the source of
income? You have to answer that. If it is in the phils, then phils has the juris to tax.
2. If it is a person is he a citizen of the phils? is he a resident of the phils?
3. Property tax subclassify if real, personal, tangible, intangible, where is the property located, etc.
it is the type of subj matter, what kind of tax has to be imposed, what is the citizenship or nationality, where
is the residence, where is it located etc. where is the source. We follow a very comprehensive situs of taxation.
One question will not be answered by one factor in determining whether the situs is here in the Phils or not.
i.e. If real prop, the situs is where it is located. Real prop are immovable prop. If prop is located in
the Phils even if the owner is abroad, the Phils has juris to subject it to tax. What kind of tax? Real prop
If excise tax, ask what is the use of the tax, is it for business, etc. since the source is in the phils, it is subject
to phil tax.
Real prop situs where prop is located
Personal tangible prop where prop located
Personal intangible prop GR: follows the owner/domicile of owner
In some cases, there is multiplicity of situs. One state claims that it is taxable and another state claims its
taxability as well. When does this happen? i.e. shares of stock if that share of stock is issued by a domestic
corporation but the owner of the stock is a non-resident alien individual an investor who is residing abroad, will
the dividends coming from the shares of stocks be subject to phil income tax if the owner is abroad, the
citizenship is nonfilipino and residence is not here? Subject to income tax? Yes. Even if domicile of owner is not
here? Why? What is the right of Phils to subject it to phil income tax? The privity of relationship, the benefit
received by that corporation. The domestic corp is located in the phils. and the shares of stocks issued by the
corp remains domestic wherever and whoever the owner is. The Phils is granting protection and benefits to that
corp resulting to it operating. If there is income coming out from the shares of stocks whoever the recipient is
whether he is here or not will be subject to income tax because of the privity of relation between the govt and
corporation and the benefit received theory.
GR: For intangible personal prop you just determine who the owner is and where he is domiciled.
E: 2 exceptions when domiciliary theory is not applicable 1. when the law provides that it will
have situs in another place and 2. if there is another basis that the benefit received theory etc on which
to base and we have to follow the exception to the rule.
i.e. example of intangible personal prop something which you cannot see, receivables
and payables. If you have a payable to a non-resident bank, the asset of the bank in the Phils is
actually receivable of interest, interest is intangible, is the interest you are paying from foreign
bank is tangible in the phils? GR: All intangibles, personal prop follow the domiciliary theory as a
rule therefore in interest it is the general rule. Wherever the domicile of the borrower is, it is the
state which has the taxing jurisdiction. If he is the borrower, despite that the income earner of the
interest is staying abroad, it will be subject to Phil. income tax. Basis: protection and benefits that
the government is giving to that borrower allowing him and enabling him to perform his duty in
complying his obligation abroad. The foreign bank abroad would be expecting that whatever
income he is earning in the Phils. would be subjected to tax.
A share of stock in a foreign corp. (intangible), usually a foreign corp does not have a domicile here
but if that corp has operation of more than 85% or more in the phils, then it acquires domicile in the
phils., any share of stock will be subjected to tax in the phils whoever the holder of the stock is. That is
why whenever a foreign individual who has a share holding in the phils corp or foreign corp operating
85% in the phils, wherever he dies, whatever his nationality is are always subject to estate tax in the
phils because of the benefits and protection received by the corp issuing the stock.
Another reason for multiplicity of situs different taxing authorities. Why would both have the
same interest on the same income? The primary reason why there could be multiplicity of situs in 1
same subject matter is that different states have different concepts of what domicile is. They have
different process of taxation for the type of use of the prop or subj matter and there is multiple distinct
relationships with respect to intangibles. In order to address the multiplicity of situs, because it can be
burdensomegoing back to interest:
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i.e. if mr. leal obtains a loan from a foreign bank, who is the income earner? The foreign
bank. Because mr. leal would have to be obligated to pay not only the principal but also the
interest. The foreign bank is earning income out on the loan that it had extended.
The Phils is interested in taxing the interest that he has to pay abroad because we follow the
domiciliary theory that wherever the borrower is domiciled, we tax the intangible. We tax the interest
that he remits abroad. Of course that foreign bank is a resident of that foreign state registered to their
tax authority. Whatever income he has earned including the interest that he has earned here would
have to be declared and taxed by that foreign state. Two taxing states on one same interest.
How do tax laws address multiplicity of situs of taxation? Whenever one subject matter and there are two or more states taxing the
interest there are remedies:
1. by granting tax exemptions
2. by allowing tax deductions are allowed for foreign tax payments i.e. if the tax that has been paid and remitted by mr.
leal on the interest here in the Phils., if that is a Japanese corp/Japanese bank, they may allow the taxes paid in the
Phils as a deduction from their income before tax is computed or the other way around. (sec 34 of tax code)
3. allowing foreign tax credit this is different from allowing tax deduction. Tax deduction is claimed as an expense.
Allowing foreign tax credit is deducting the tax that you have paid directly against the tax liability. Which is more
favorable? Foreign tax credit because you are offsetting the tax paid directly against your liability. Tax deduction is
different you are claiming as an expense only an item which you have paid.
4. Entering into bilateral tax treaties between 2 states we have 51 tax treaties entered into. i.e. whenever an income is
earned by a Japanese corporation here for 1 day service may be exempt from income tax in the Phils. it can only be
taxed in Japan.
2 types of double taxation
1. Direct double taxation/ double taxation in its strict sense
2. Indirect double taxation in its broad sense

Does the constitution prohibit double taxation? Does not outrightly prohibit double taxation but it indirectly prohibits direct double
taxation because it violates due process clause and equal protection of laws. Although there is no word double in the constitution,
once a person invokes that there is double taxation in the strict sense, it means to say that he is invoking the violation of equal
protection clause and the deprivation of his due process.
o Double taxation in its strict sense (direct) prohibited. Taxed twice by same taxing authority, same taxing period, same
subject matter and for the same purpose, within the same taxing year. This is violative of the constitution provision of due
process and equal protection clause.
o Indirect double taxation lacking any 1 of those items in direct double taxation. Can be same subject matter, same
purpose, same kind of tax but different taxing authority. i.e. if it is taxed by the national government and taxed by the local govt.
It is not indirect double taxation that is prohibited.
i.e. if a certain prop is subject to real prop tax, subject to local transfer tax when sold and subject to capital gains tax
when sold, is there double taxation?
1. real prop tax is imposed by LGU on existence of prop itself.
2. local transfer tax is imposed by the LGU on the sale, barter or exchange of the prop.
3. capital gains tax which is taxed together with local transfer tax is taxed by the National government on the sale,
barter or exchange of the prop.

Is there double taxation particularly between these local transfer tax and capital gains tax which is a tax on the same subject matter,
for the same purpose within same taxing year? No double taxation.
Parcel of land, you have it sold, you pay capital gains tax 6% to BIR based on the selling price or fair market value whichever is higher.
You have to pay documentary stamp tax of 1.5% to the BIR but basis is the contract that you have entered into. You have to pay local
transfer tax of of 1% sometimes of 1% (it depends) to the LGU all referring to the same prop, same year, same purpose because
you sold it. Is there direct double taxation? Why is it not direct double taxation? Why is it allowed? Why valid? It is not direct double
taxation because BIR, National government, LGU are different taxing authorities. One element is lacking.
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o When the burden of tax is shifted by a person who is required by the statute to pay a tax. Shifting is made to another
person. The impact of taxation, the shifting is the process of transferring the burden and the incidence.
o Impact of taxation is the point at which the tax is imposed as provided under law. It is shifted by that person required
by the law to pay to another person who is burdened by it, and incidence of taxation is when the burden finally falls or rest to
the consumer or the person willing to shoulder the tax.
i.e. VAT because shifting can only happen in indirect taxes. There can be no shifting in direct taxes because the
person on whom the law expects to pay is the person who is burdened by a direct tax, but in indirect tax there can be
passing on or shifting of the burden.
o Forward shifting when the tax burden is shifted from the factors of production down to the factors of distribution up
to the consumer. Every shift is forward.
o Backward shifting if it is from the consumer to the production.
o Onward shifting if it is more than 1 shift.
o i.e. If a fisherman (producer) fishing fish puhunan is P0.00, it will be put in a can and the manufacturer purchased it at
P100, section 105 of tax code says that every seller is subject to 12% VAT in value of goods sold. How much will he actually sell
it? P200 +12% VAT. So the wholesaler purchased it at P224 which is the selling price + VAT ( which goes to the govt.). It has been
shifted forward to the wholesaler. The wholesaler will sell it to the retailer at P300 + 12% VAT selling price, again tax goes to the
government but it is shifted on to the retailer at P336 which is the purchase price of the retailer. If the retailer of the hotel
serves it to the consumer at P400+12% VAT, 12% goes to the government, it is paid for by the consumer for P448. From P0,
consumer actually shouldered the entire burden of taxes as it is passed on from every chain of distribution.
o Form of escape of taxation. Someone else is passing on the burden of tax to another person. There is no actual
payment of tax. The reduction of the price of the subject matter, the reduction being equivalent to the future taxes the buyer is
expecting to pay. It is like backward shifting where consumer passing on the burden to the source or producer. Whenever a
buyer of a certain property expects that the property will have to pay will generate future taxes that he intends to recover from
the selling price. So he will offer a lower purchase price. The reduction in the offer between the seller and the acceptance
supposedly by the buyer is that which is equivalent more or less the future taxes that he needs to pay on the property that he is
purchasing. It is a form of shifting but in the end, just like shifting, the government does not lose anything. It is just that there is
some escape of taxation by one person but someone else has to bear it. In shifting, it is very obvious, it is the next person on
whom the tax has been shifted who will be burdened and shoulder. In capitalization, the seller is receiving a lower selling price
but it is still the buyer who has to shoulder the taxes. But then again he has recovered by offering a lower purchase a lower
purchase price.
o A form of escape of taxation wherein a person afraid that he will lose his market if he passes on the 12% VAT
or any other tax on the selling price, he instead shoulders paying the tax by giving out a lower price intending to recover himself
in turning out more units produced at a lower cost.
i.e. If he purchased the P100 fish and he intends to sell it at P200 + VAT but he is afraid that there is another supplier
who can actually sell at P210 not P224. What he does is simply shoulder the tax as a component of P200 but on the hope
that he can recover the tax that he is shouldering by selling more because he can produce more at a lower cost.
i.e. When you order a particular product like keychain, it has to have a hole. If you order 1 piece, you have to shoulder
the cost of the hole. If you order 100 pcs, the value of each piece would have to be way way lower than one piece that
you ordered. More sale for less cost.
o Illegal. You evade the payment of tax. Tax evaders (people who evades taxes). Tax dodging another word for tax
o RATE program of government to Run After Tax Evaders.
o Evasion is the employment of illegal and fraudulent means to defeat, lessen or do away with the payment of taxes. It is
illegal and fraudulent. It is a heavy charge to say that you are fraudulently evading the payment of tax. It is also a heavy charge
to say that you are a tax evader. When can you say that evasion took place?
o There are 3 factors of tax evasion. Evasion can only happen if all these factors take place:
1. End to be achieved - pay less tax than what is legally due. State of mind. You are thinking of lessening the
payment of your true tax or not paying the tax at all. But it is still conceived in your mind.
2. The accompanying state of mind which is evil or in bad faith, deliberate. Even if you have arrived at the first
factor of the end to be achieved, it is not total evasion but because you can still think that I want to lessen the
payment of taxes but second factor is not present if you would employ tax avoidance because tax avoidance is
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legal. If your end to be achieved is not to pay tax or lessen the payment of tax and the accompanying state of
mind is evil, deliberate, intent refusal to pay the tax, evasion will be perfected once you reach the 3 rd stage.
3. Course of action or failure of doing an action which is unlawful when it is translated into a deed i.e. that you
have not filed your tax return or you have filed but did not pay the correct tax.
i.e. an indication that you have evaded taxes the failure of declaring your income tax in ITR. Would one instance be
equivalent to evasion? It would point out to tax evasion when the failure is for 2 consecutive years. Since this is attended
by fraudulent intent which is all in the mind and you cannot prove at all times that there is actual fraud sometimes you
to have to consider the circumstances surrounding whether there is constructive fraud. If there is already a failure of 2
consecutive years that you have not truly reflected the income that you have earned or have overclaimed the deductions
or expenses than the true expense, then the circumstances would point out to fraud and evasion.
o Not the full amount goes to the government. Avoidance which is tax minimization is employment of legal and
permissible means of avoiding the payment of tax. In avoiding you have to avoid. There is a legal means to avoid. You use
another route, use another activity in order to avoid the payment of taxes. It is not evading the payment of taxes so this is legal
permissible tax rates methods and means of computing your income taxes or doing your activities.
o Tax avoidance and tax evasion does not at all tantamount to zero collection by the BIR. You can avoid in part, you can
evade in part, you can also evade the tax totally or not.
i.e. if there are 2 bridges, one is free, one has toll fee for passing through, you pass on to the free bridge not charging
for a fee. The same instance, if you have excess money and you want to invest it in a bank, avoidance can be to an extent
wherein you deposit your money not in the regular peso account but in a dollar account. Why? Your interest in peso
account is subject to 20% tax. It is withheld. If you deposit in a foreign currency unit system dollar, it is only subject to
7.5% income tax. So you are actually avoiding paying the 12.5% tax. Another instance is when you actually deposit your
money on a long-term basis with maturity of 5 years, totally exempt from tax. To avoid tax is legal because it is provided
by the law. It may not be the intent of congress to allow you to escape taxes but since it will not defeat the literal
provision of the law then it is simply called tax avoidance.
i.e. if this is company A owned by company B in US. Co. A is located in Cebu and the other is located in Lapu2. Both are
branches of the head office in US. You follow the single entity concept rule . if it is located in Cebu city whatever
remittances after earning income here you have to remit to your head office but provided by your tax code, it says that
whenever a branch locates within an economic zone, it is exempt from the 15%. So you transfer your branch inside an
ecozone. Whatever you give abroad is 0 tax. This is simply tax avoidance.
o A grant of immunity either express or implied to particular persons or corporations from the obligation to pay taxes
which generally they should have been liable to. An immunity granted for future taxes.
TAX AMNESTY intentional overlooking of your tax violations wherein the government actually foregoes the collection
of any. If you simply read the definition of amnesty in the book, it will come to mind that amnesty is totally not paying
any tax or any money because you have been pardoned. It is not the case.
In a recent amnesty law enacted by congress sometime 2005, amnesty law is to the point where you are actually
pardoned from paying penalties of your previous violations but you pay the basic tax. Amnesty can be in varied forms
although it will not be impossible in the future to have amnesty law actually pardoning everyone of us from paying past
taxes. The reason why amnesty law is not so popular is because it will only encourage violators. Why would you strictly
follow the provisions in the law when you know in the future an amnesty law will be enacted.
o What is the nature of tax exemption? It is personal. Generally revocable by the person granting it. Waiver on the part
of the government. Whenever an exemption is granted, only the one who actually falls under that exemption is personally free
from paying the tax. It cannot be shifted off.
i.e. if a corporation is granted tax exemption. The stockholders owning the corporation will not be free from taxes on
the dividends that they will earn from their investment. It is personal to the corp.
o Why do you think the government would grant exemptions when it needs taxes to run the government? The rationale
or basis for granting exemption is public policy. So long as it will subserve public interest for the good of all. So notwithstanding
that it becomes in part a waiver of collecting taxes by the government, it expects to receive taxes in some other forms. i.e. if this
is a corp which has been granted income tax holiday for 6 years. It means to say that for 6 years the government will not be
receiving income tax. The government is actually expecting other taxes in some other forms.
1. incentive fiscal is the influx of industry. 2. Employment of Filipinos. 3. Taxes from the salaries of employees. 4. VAT
5. Other forms of taxes like withholding of taxes.
o Every corporation in the first minimum 3 years is actually operating at a loss, it has to recover the investment first.
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1. EXEMPTION --- is the immunity granted to persons/ classes of persons or corporations who would otherwise been subject to tax
as other people belonging to the same situation
Does congress have the power to inherently grant tax exemption? Yes, it arises from Congress inherent power to tax
(the power comes with it)
But if Congress grants tax exemption, what is the constitutional limitation? In an enactment of a law granting
exemption, congress must vote by: Majority vote of both houses, voting separately
Insofar as the LGU is concerned do they have the inherent power to tax? No, it is not inherent
But can they grant tax exemption? Yes, if the LGU is delegated power to impose tax (bring its own sources of revenue)
it carries with it the power to grant exemption but not inherent
Example: in the LG Code, LGU can grant real property tax exemption, local business tax exemption, or
exemption in cases of natural calamity, disasters, etc. (Like what happened during Ondoy --- cities of
Marikina and Rizal could enact an ordinance granting exemption from real property taxes for those
properties destroyed by the typhoon)
It is an immunity of payment from future burden of taxation
If an exemption is granted, what is the nature of the exemption granted?
Note: when you want to avail of exemption, burden lies on you to prove you are exempt. It is not enough
that there is a law granting you exemption
The second requirement is that you must be able to fall under the conditions for the exemptions to apply. So
General exemption is not enough, you must prove that you satisfy all the privileges required
1st nature: Is its personal privilege granted to person/ class/ corporations
Does it mean to say exemption granted is not transferrable? General rule it is a personal privilege
and not transferrable ---- unless law expressly provides for its transferability because exemptions
are against the lifeblood doctrine
2nd nature: if it is founded on contract it cannot impair the non-impairment clause
General rule: all exemptions are generally revocable and withdrawable by the government like
when it needs funds. This includes franchises because constitution itself provides it is revocable.
Exception: when the exception is granted based on the contract the government entered into with
a private corporation or person --- it cannot be withdrawn because it will violate non-impairment
The only instance the exemption can be withdrawn even if it will violate the non-impairment
clause is when the government will exercise the police power of the state
3rd nature: it is a waiver on the part of the government
Moment congress passes a law it knows it is waiver
4th: it is not necessarily discriminatory from other persons
Because it is presumed there is substantial distinction of else it will violate the equal protection
What do you mean by equality in taxation, is that the same as equity in taxation? No. Equality in
taxation is simply the equal protection clause or uniformity clause (similarly situated taxed alike)
while Equity in taxation is taxation that apportions to those who are better able to pay the taxes
What is the reason/ rationale by tax exemption is granted despite the waiver/ absence of taxes?
Reason why tax exemption is granted is to subserve public interest and public benefit --- which is sufficient
to offset the monetary loss
Public benefit derived is Non-monetary in a sense
Grounds for tax exemption:
Contract --- law between parties
Public policy
Reciprocity --- created by treaties; to lessen burden of international taxation when 2 taxing jurisdictions are
interested in 1 and the same subject matter of taxation; this can be provided in a treaty or in a municipal law
of the Philippines or another country
Equity --- is not a ground for tax exemption because
What is equity?
Typhoon Ondoy resulted in many business at a loss, can they demand equity as an exemption and
demand release from income taxes?
Taxation and exemption is statutory in nature --- without a tax law there can be no tax. No
exemption can be availed without another law granting exemption
For the 3 grounds, there must be a law supporting the ground of tax exemption. Equity cannot be
a ground for exemption because it has no ground to stand on/ support it
Can the government arbitrarily enter into contracts granting tax exemption? There must be a basis for such
exemption. Government should receive full equivalent for the exemption
It must not be unilateral in a sense that only the tax payer is benefited by the terms of the contract. The
government should receive full equivalent in other aspects or benefits
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Public policy as a ground for tax exemption --- to help necessary industries, help newly created business, put
investments, when it wants to foster charitable institutions and non-stock non-profit institutions noble intentions
Public policy requires still a general or special law supporting it
example: foundations tax exemption are not granted In constitution itself. But Sec. 30 of tax code, congress
also granted exemption to these non-profit institutions. So there is a general law, tax code is a general law
Example: new investment in Philippines are exempted from first 4 years of income tax RA 7916 promote
eco-zone enterprises (a special law)
So must always pinpoint to a law and show that all conditions necessary are satisfied
Exemption may be either
Express --- clearly granted/ provided under the law
Is there exemption by implication? No there is no exemption by implication (this is different by
exempt from omission)
Taxation is statutory in nature --- if activity or person is not enumerated under the law then you
are exempt by omission
Exemption by omission --- those not enumerated under the law (because without a law, still cannot be
exempt; so use this term to be technically correct)
Total --- exempt from all types of taxes
Does it include exemption from indirect taxes (like VAT)? General rule: exemption from all taxes
covers only those which the taxpayer is generally liable for and does not include VAT.
Indirect tax are not easily granted as exemption, because these are taxes the burden of which are
shifted to another person
Take the case of San Carlos, exempt from income tax, real property tax, Sec. 109 of tax code
(tuition fees exempt from vat) --- but it is liable to pay VAT on its purchases
Is San Carlos exempted from paying withholding tax from salaries of its employees? San Carlos
cannot claim exemption, because the tax is actually somebody elses. San Carlos is actually a
conduit of the employee and the government. San Carlos is both the withholding agent of the
employee and the collecting agent of the government
Partial --- exempt from certain types of tax
Granted exemption partially
Example: corporations situated in economic zone are granted 5% preferential tax rates, and not be
liable for VAT or income tax
Personal --- granted to certain persons
Impersonal --- granted to certain classes
Examples of exemption --- give example of statutory, constitutional and special law exemption (see book)
How tax exemption laws are construed? Strictly against the tax payer --- because taxation is the rule, exemption is the
exception. All persons property and transaction, should bear a burden a share in the cost and expenses in running the
4 exceptions to the general rule:
Law expressly provides liberal construction in favor of Tax payer
Exemption granted to particular class of persons
When it concerns public property
Real property owned by the government, notwithstanding use in proprietary or governmental
functions ---- because only real property tax exemption (is different from income tax exemption)
That real property tax exemption is given in relation to use --- applies only to religious, charitable
and educational institutions
But when it comes to property owned by government --- use is immaterial, ownership is sufficient
to grant exemption from real property taxes
There are 2 kinds on exemption from Real property tax:
o Exemption based on use
o Exemption based on ownership --- example the government
Exception to exception: if the government allows 3rd persons to use the
property, it takes away exemption based on ownership
Exemption in favor of government and instrumentalities (specifically income taxes
Provision in constitution granting exemption to religious, charitable institutions

2. TAX AMNESTY --- are waiver on the part of the state of the penalties or delinquent taxes due
How construed? Strictly against tax payer --- because it is the same nature as tax exemption in the sense that it is a
waiver on the part of the government to connect penalties from violators
Tax remissions, conditions, refunds --- how construed? Strictly against tax payer
Tax remissions
Tax condonation
Tax refunds
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If tax code provides imprisonment for tax violators does it make tax laws penal in character? No, because it tax
penalties are only to encourage prompt payment of taxes; it is only to compel the timely payment and compliance of
taxpayers and only to punish tax evasion
Tax laws are civil in nature --- are laws of the territory and not of the occupying enemy. Tax laws will not
change with the change in government
Tax laws are not penal in nature --- ex post facto laws do not apply
Tax laws are not political in character


Taxation is statutory In nature. Without tax law, no taxes imposed
If there is a tax law that is clear (in imposing tax) then it must be carried out. IT will be strictly construed against the tax payer
because he is clearly liable under the law.
But once the provision is doubtful, it is only when it will be construed strictly against government --- only when there is doubt!
Because tax laws is purely statutory in nature, without a clear tax law, there can be no tax
Do tax laws have prescriptive period? Some are prescriptible some are not. Or else we will be at the mercy of the government
o Tax code and tariff and custom code provide for prescriptive periods. But there are also provision that provide for
o When it is all about tax evasion, a criminal case can be filed by the government within 5 years from the commission of
the crime OR if the commission is not known, from the discovery and institution of judicial proceeding
It can be made imprescriptible ---- because it can be filed 5 years from the time government has knowledge.
So if I were the government I would say I had no knowledge
Even if you discovered it now, if the government does not institute criminal proceedings, it does not
prescribe, so it is lifetime
o Another example of imprescriptibility: Fraudulent returns --- prescribes 10 years from the date of discovery. So long as
the government says that is did not discover your fraudulent returns, it does not prescribe.
o But general rule: right to assess you prescribes to give you peace of mind. In the absence of fraud --- the government
can assess you only within 3 years from the filing of the return. Under the local government code the LGU can only
assess you within 5 years from the payment
o Under the Tarriff and customs code --- once you have settled the final liquidation of customs duties and 3 years have
lapsed, the government cannot question your payment.
o These are the prescriptive periods in the absence of fraud. But fraudulent activities would result to imprescriptibility
General rule: prospective application of tax laws (but not an absolute rule)
o Why not retroactive? Because It will be applying taxes to back taxes or past transactions on which it had no
knowledge of the taxes so it will be absence of due process especially it is more burdensome to the taxpayer
o Law expressly provides for retroactive application --- but notwithstanding express provisions of retroactivity still it
there will not be retroactive application in all cases --- if it results to oppressive taxes and equates to lack of due
process, it will still be applied prospectively
o Example: RA 9204 took effect Jul. 6, 2008, it exempted from tax the minimum wage earners. With it there was also
increase in personal exemptions.
All income within the calendar year, will be totaled and exemptions are deducted to cover your living
Before: for every single, head of family is 20K or married is there is exemption AND additional exemption of
8K for every dependent child
Now: 50K each regardless of status and each child is 20K each. This compensates the transportation and
grocery expenses you use.
At the end of 2008, what did the BIR (Who is the exec. Branch of government) enforce these 2 laws? What
exemption was applied?
if you use 50K for the whole year, you would be using retroactive application for half (Jan Jun) but the law
did not provide for retroactive application --- so what happened, for 2008, for the 2st half of the year, apply
half of the old 20K exemption and half of the new 50K exemption so you have 35K as exemption
because the law did not provide for retroactive application. So on july 6, was the only time the new law took
had the law provide for retroactive application to Jan 1 2008, we could fully apply the new 50K exemption
This is lifeblood doctrine as well, exemption is strictly construed
Mandatory provision--- are those which we find in tax law or regulations implementing it
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Directory Provision --- provisions contained in circulars, orders issued by the head of office to its subordinates for the proper
implementation of the law

o What are revenue regulations? (see below, when differentiated with rules and regulations)
o purpose of revenue of regulations? Enforcement and execution of the law
o who issues revenue regulations? Secretary of Finance
o What is the role of the commissioner of internal revenue (his signature is still on the revenue regulation? Only
recommending approval by the commissioner
Is one of the powers not delegable by the commissioner
General rule: all of powers of the commissioner of international revenue are delegable
Exception: 4 powers not delegablewe will learn later
o For every revenue regulation, you will see 2 signatures: the one who issues and the one who recommends
o Enforcement actually falls with BIR for national revenue taxes that is why it is a recommendation coming from the BIR
What differentiates Revenue Reg from Rulings/ Opinions of commissioner?
Main difference: Revenue regulations (implementing rules and regulations- --- are the more general interpretation of the law, to
explain and carry effect the general provisions of the tax law for the purpose of properly implementing and executing it. It is a
clarification but on a general level
o When revenue regulations are issued it does not pinpoint to a particular tax payer, it does not provide for a specific
scenario that is actually experienced by the tax payer
Rulings/ opinions of commissioner
o Are issued by the commissioner of the BIR --- because these are the less general interpretations of the law, catering to
a specific situation presented by the taxpayer
o A taxpayer when In doubt of interpretation of the law, can seek a ruling or opinion of the commissioner but he has to
present the actual facts (no hypothetical questions is allowed to be basis of the ruling to be issued)
o Is the ruling of the BIR Comm. subject to review of Sec. of Fin.? Yes
Commissioner of Internal revenue has the power to issue rulings/ opinions but it is not a final. It can be
reviewed by the secretary of finance.
Other powers of commissioner not delegable (2 nd and 3rd)
Power to issue rulings of first impression --- those rulings that have no precedent as yet
Power to revoke, revise, modify existing rulings
o All other existing rulings and opinions (meaning those with precedent) can be issued by
the Deputy Commissioner or Asst. Commissioner
How do you make revenue reg. valid and effective? Requires publication --- this applies only to revenue regulations
o Not hold true for rulings and opinions
Do revenue regulations have the force and effect of tax law? It forms part of the law of the land
Can the current Sec. Fin or Comm. BIR revoke existing rulings issued by his predecessor? Yes
o Does it make rulings and opinions volatile? What happens is already in effect is reversed by the commissioner?
Example: Mr. X commissioner of 07-09. He granted exemption to a particular entity. In 2005 a new law
enacted where the exemption was no longer covered. When Mr. Y became commissioner, it came upon
ruling of Mr. X so he reversed the tax payer. Will the taxpayer be liable for taxes upon issuance and reversal?
Answer: as a rule, rulings are not applied retroactively . if there is a subsequent ruling reversing the previous
ruling it is applied prospectively. But there are exemptions to the rule: (in these instances reversal of the
ruling applies retroactively)
When the taxpayer seeking exemption applied it in bad faith and thus able to get the exemption
When the taxpayer seeking exemption deliberately omitted/ misstated material facts leading to
the grant of exemption
When the subsequent findings of the BIR are different from the facts present when the ruling was
*in all cases, it is about the data presented by the taxpayer
Towards the end of every ruling issued, there is a provision that this ruling was issued based on the facts
given, that any deviation would lead to a change of opinion would nullify the ruling issued. This gives BIR
area of aveue to reverse/ withdraw opinion given
o Constitution
o National law
o Local ordinances
o Executive orders
o Presidential decrees
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 31

o Treaties
o Judicial decisions
o Revenue regulations
o Rulings and decisions of the executive branch


What is income? All income/ wealth that flows into the hands of the taxpayer (including those from illegal activities) other than
he return of capital (example: finding yamashita)
o Capital --- is that which provides the income
o But in some cases you derive income without capital (if is given to you in silver plate; example: see money on the floor,
finding treasure in backyard)
o Example of capital: that which you invest, that you allow to produce an income
o Capital is the tree while fruit is the income.
o Example: deposit money (your capital), it earns interest (your income)
Income taxation is something else. It is taxing an income. And not all income are taxable. You have to satisfy the requisites of
when an income becomes taxable
3 requisites before income is taxable (to income tax)
o There must be a gain or profit
What is gain or profit? its the result from reducing the proceeds from the cost
The tax is only a tax on the profit or income (not capital/ puhunan)
The only exception where there is a tax on the capital is Sec. 24(d) or Sec. 27(d) --- capital gains tax on sale,
barter, exchange of real property located in the Philippines and classified as a capital asset
Example: parcel of land bought at 1 million sell at 2 million --- tax here is on the capital because basis of
capital against tax is the gross selling price. So regardless if you sold it at a profit, or sold it at a loss, you will
be taxed on your selling price. *this is the only exemption if you read through the income tax where there is
tax on capital and not the income
Had this not been a parcel of land (capital asset) bought at 1 million, sell at 2 million --- income tax is applied
only to the 1 million profit
Is income merely a tax on the difference at of the price and cost? (that tax only profit/ income) but what we
study in income tax is to study all the revenue, the cost and the income. Once you get gross income, this is
where you apply the tax rates.
Prizes winning from sports competitions --- are winnings taxable unless sanctioned by the PSA (Philippine
sports association) and approval Phil. Olympic committee
So Manny Pacquio is practicing it as a profession, his fights are not sanctions so his income is
subject to general rule that all income are subject to income tax

July 13, 2010 (2nd Part)

A. Definition of Terms
What is income?
In its broad senseall wealth which flows into the hands of the taxpayers other than as a mere return on capital.
Why? Everything which comes to the taxpayer as an addition to his asset except for those which are merely returns,
because it is his capital, are considered income already. It is the broad definition because it includes everything which
comes to the hands of the taxpayer.

In its strict/ more specific meaning senseit is an amount of money coming to the taxpayer for the service performed, for an
activity which he engaged in, or for an investment he has made but it is not all inclusive because as we have said, anything that
is seen without anybody owning that income or wealth can be considered as income insofar as the finder is concerned.

So, if you file for illegal dismissal, aside from back wages because that is compensation income, and you are awarded damages
(exemplary and moral damages), is this subject to income tax? Is it an income?
Yes, it is income because it increases your patrimony or your asset. All damages that you receive are considered
income except actual damages.
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As to moral, exemplary damages, arising from various reasons such as breach of promise to marry, accidents, physical
injury, illegal termination, illegal dismissal is considered income. WON it is taxable, it is a different story. It has to
satisfy all the other requirements in order to be taxable.

How about actual damages, is that an income? Youre driving your car and you met an accident, and you were awarded
damages? The actual damages was paid as a breach of a promise to marry, is that an income?
No, it is not considered income because it is an actual loss awarded to the person who suffered actual damages. So
long as the actual damages is equivalent to the actual loss suffered by the recipient, then, that is not an income. It
does not increase your asset or wealth. It simply to recover the value of the property that was lost. So, it is not
income. But once the actual damages has been miscomputed and it is more than the actual damages that you have
suffered, then it is considered as part of your income.

If you find treasure in your backyard, is it considered income?

Yes, it is income.

Are all kinds of dividend considered income?

(this was answered in the later part of the lecture)

How about illegal gains, is that an income?

Yes, it is income.
What is capital?
It is a fund or property existing at one point of time.
What is income tax?
Tax on income
Simply, a tax on income or on amount which increases the net worth or net value of the taxpayer
This definition is included because it is not in all cases where the BIR can determine the income tax of a person based
on his income alone. In some cases, taxpayers do not reflect their true sales or income, and they overstate or over
claim their expenses in order to arrive at a lower taxable base or taxable income as against which the income tax rates
are to be computed. So, what the BIR does in order to assess taxpayers of their true income and collect the true tax, is
to simply determine the net worth of a taxpayer.
What is net worth? Simply stated, it is your value. Assets less liabilities, this is your net value. What the BIR does when
it does not have books on which to audit or no reliable books. Some taxpayers have at least two sets of books. They
maintain two books of account. (refer to the illustration below) So, what they do is determine the net worth of the
taxpayer from one point in time to another point in time, any increase, so if this is 2007 to 2009, no taxes are paid in
between, would the BIR simply agree on no tax payment? What they will do is compare the value. If this is 1 million
and this is 10 million, there is an increase in the net worth of the taxpayer which is 9 million. 9 million is an income
although not fully declared as an income.

Net Worth 2007: 1 Million

No Taxes Paid 9 MILLION

Net Worth 2009: 10 Million

So, income tax is a tax on declared income and those which is reflected from an increase in the net worth or net value of the
taxpayer because it will reflect the sources of the income by the taxpayer which is actually undeclared.

Tax on all yearly profits arising from property, profession, trade or business, or as a tax on a persons income, emoluments,
profits and the like. It is generally regarded as an excise tax. It is not levied upon persons, property, funds or profits but upon the
right of a person to receive income or profits
What is gross income?
Means all income derived from whatever source, including but not limited to the following, see Sec. 32 (A). It is defined in
various ways, depending on what context presented.
This is the entire formula (refer to the illustration below). Your first revenue is your sales. Assume that you are selling siopao,
how much did you buy the siopao for? Any difference is your gross income but you deduct the salary of your salespersons and
transportation (to and fro your source; then to your buyers). You get the taxable income. The tax rate is not multiplied against
the revenue nor directly against the gross income. You are allowed certain deductions.
Less: Cost
Gross Income
Less: Deductions
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 33

Taxable Income
X Tax Rate
Tax Due

Gross income is all income derived from whatever source, whether it is from illegal sources or from found treasure. It all forms
part of your gross income, if you truly declare all wealth which flows into your hands.

B. Purposes of Income Taxation

All taxes are for the purpose of raising revenue save for the case of secondary purposes such as to offset the effects of sales and
consumption taxes which are seen as regressive taxes by some proponents and in order to mitigate the effects of the
inequitable distribution of wealth between different income earners. Of course, this is made together with the imposition of
estate taxes because we are taking about wealth and income distribution.

C. Systems of Income Taxation

What are the systems of income taxation in the Philippines?
Schedular systemfollows a schedule of rates. The Tax Code or Congress treats differently every category of income earners.
Global systema uniform rate or proportional rate for all types of income so long as it is classified within the same class. If it is
corporate taxpayer, all the income of the corporations regardless of value is taxed at a flat rate of 30%
D. The Philippine law is following what kind of income taxation system?
The Philippine law is following the semi-global and semi-schedular system of taxation because this is what is provided in the Tax
Why is it semi-schedular? Give me an example of a scheduler tax rate.
-----Because the income is treated differently according to a taxpayers ability to pay. An example is Income tax
on individuals.
A global income tax system views indifferently the tax base and treats all the categories of income the same
which is a uniform tax rate applied to the income of corporate taxpayers.
What are the income tax methods followed by the Philippine tax laws? What are the methods of taxing the income of an individual?
If you go into business, all that flows into you is revenue. But that is not taxable because a portion of that is simply a return of
capital. If you buy siomai at 5 peso each and sell it at 10 peso each. You have revenue of 10 pesos. But you have a capital of 5, so
what is taxable is the difference of 5 plus all your other expenses.

There are 2 kinds of tax methods followed in the Philippines but in different occasionsgross income taxation and net income

The basic difference is the deductions (expenses that you are allowed to claim).

Gross income taxationincome is taxed at gross without the benefit of deductions and expenses found under
Sec. 34 of the Tax Code. Sometimes, it could even mean that it is taxed at a revenue.

Net income taxationas the word net implied, is taxation based on net income after you are allowed to deduct
some items.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of gross income taxation?

If we follow gross income taxation and your income is sourced from service, service income (i.e. working in Junquera), what is
your concrete source that you can deduct? If we follow the gross income of taxation, you will be taxed directly with the amount
paid by your customers. No deductions allowed.
Advantageous to the government:
More revenue going to the coffers of the government
Simplified method of taxation. There is nothing to determine whether the expenses is allowable or not.
Inequitable to the taxpayer. It is unjust. Why are they not allowed to deduct the costs incurred in order to get that
income of revenue?
It will not encourage taxpayers to earn more because everything goes to the government. And would lead mainly to
tax evasion because taxpayers would not declare their true income due to high tax rate. WON the tax rate is high, it is
still high because it is directly computed against your gross income without the benefit of gross deductions.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of net income taxation?
Advantageous more on the taxpayer because he is given the chance to deduct all the expenses and deductions there is so long
as it is applicable in the business for which he is engaged in or the profession he is practicing.
Disadvantageous on the part of the government because of the allowance for deduction, it will be more tedious for the
government to determine whether the expenses or deductions claimed are valid or not; legal or not. It becomes an avenue for
over claiming expenses especially in family owned corporations. There is no 3 rd person investor who is interested whether the
income you are declaring is the true net income. In one actual case, for example, part of a cost of a service company was the
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 34

cost of the motor vehicle, which is personal, owned by one of the owners children. Can the BIR plug that loophole? Of course it
is very difficult unless we demand for the gross income taxation. But then again, applying gross income taxation is not equitable
in all cases.
E. Features of Our Present Income of Taxation

What are the features of individual income taxation?

Schedular system of taxation
As your income increases, your tax rate also increases. 5% to 32% tax rate for individual taxpayers.
Would the sole proprietorship business be covered by the scheduler system of taxation or the global system of
taxation? Sole proprietorship is owned by one owner. Hence, it is covered by the scheduler system of taxation. In fact,
when you sue a sole proprietorship, you have to include the owner of the sole proprietorship. It is like taxing an
individual. It follows still the rate of 5% to 32%. It does not follow the 30% flat rate because it is not a corporation.

Tax rates are progressive in character

As income increases, your tax rate also increases.

Modified gross income as regards pure compensation earner

If you are a pure compensation income earner in the Philippines, meaning all your income is derived from pure
employment, then, you will be subjected to gross income taxation although modified. Modified in the sense that you
will be allowed to deduct personal and additional exemptions, remember, the 15k exemption and the 25k exemption.
For every child, 25k exemption. Thats what makes it modified but it is still gross. It is still gross because you are not
allowed to deduct expenses like transportation expenses to and fro your office, or your food during office hours. No
deductions, like depreciation to your car etc.
So, it is gross but modified. There are a few, one or two, deductions that you can make.

But as regards those individual taxpayers that derive business, trade or professional income, we adopt the net income system
For example, you are the president of a multi-national company but at night you perform services. You have two
incomes, two typescompensation income from employment and compensation income that you have at night but
not thru employment (from your profession). By the time that you pay your income tax, you have to consolidate
everything at the end of the year. Will you be subjected to gross income taxation or net income taxation? Are you
allowed to make deductions(net income taxation)?
--You are subjected to net income taxation. By the process of elimination, your modified gross income taxation will
only be applicable if you are a pure compensation income earner. Once you cross that boundary, meaning you are a
pure business income earner, pure profession income earner or modified (both income and employment), you will
now be allowed to claim deductions. You will be covered by net income taxation. But in all cases, the schedular rates
will have to be applied for individuals.
!!! Let us go to rates. This is a backgrounder for individual income taxation.
1. Always, always the rates will be schedular.
2. WON an individual is allowed deductions. The rules would be:
If you are a pure compensation income earner, your deductions would only be personal additional
exemptions which will subject you to modified gross income taxation.
If you earn compensation PLUS business or profession or trade, you are now shifted to the other type
of taxing your income which is net income taxation. You will be allowed deductions. Logic behind this is
once you earn income other than from employment, you will be expected to have incurred expenses
for your business, trade or profession.

Pay as you file system

Whenever you file for your return, you are expected to pay within the same day.
Under certain cases, pay as you earn system, as applicable to income subject to withholding tax
Individuals are also subjected to the rule that they pay the taxes as they earn. It is covered by the withholding tax
system because you are expected to be withheld of your taxes the moment you earn it. When you receive your salary,
it is already net of withholding taxes. The moment you receive interest from bank deposits, it is already net of taxes.
Pay as you earn.
What are the features of corporate income taxation?
Global concept of taxation
Because you are taxed at the same rate. Example is that of corporations. It is taxed at the same rate regardless of what
type of corporation it is (whether domestic, foreign resident, or non-resident foreign corporation) and regardless of
the amount of income that it has earned. So, it is global.

Corporate taxpayer, particularly domestic corporations are entitled to deductions insofar as domestic corporations and resident
foreign corporations are concerned, we adopt the net income tax system.
Corporations, as a rule, are following net income taxation (Ex. SM deducting from its gross income the salary of its
employees) because they are allowed to deduct business expenses. But this is not absolute. A resident foreign
corporation is subject to gross income taxation.
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Non-resident foreign corporations are not allowed to deduct business expenses because they are not doing business
here in the Philippines. For every income that they earn they are subjected to gross income taxation. The concept of a
corporation is to do business and earn profit or income. Therefore, only domestic corporations which are engaged in
business are subject to net income taxation. Resident foreign corporations which registered itself in the Philippines is
registered outside as well. The registration starts outside.

Difference between domestic and resident foreign corporation

99% owned by Filipinos 99% owned by Germans
Registered in British Virgin Islands Registered in the Philippines
(resident foreign corporation) (domestic corporation)

Company B is a domestic corporation because it is registered in the Philippines. Company A is foreign. It

becomes resident when it also registers in the Philippines. If it is not registered, it remains a non-resident
foreign corporation.
Only those corporations doing business in the Philippines are allowed to claim exemptions. When you do
business in the Philippines, you incur expenses which are deductible.

Pay as you file system (except insofar as the electronic filing system is applied)
If you file the return, you are expected to pay unless they avail of electronic filing system which gives them 5 days
thereafter to pay the taxes.
What are the criteria used in our present income taxation?
This is only for income. Do not consider real property.

As a criteria, you have to know whether the he is a resident or not.
Nationality or Citizenship
You have to know whether the resident is a citizen or not.
Source/ Place
Whether the income has been earned in the Philippines or abroad.
Sometimes the execution of the document, the finality of the transaction etc. doesnt even matter, it is where the
source of income is. (well learn this in letter J, situs of taxation)
F. Sources of Income
What are the 4 sources of income?
Is the source of income a place? it is not a place. it is a property, activity or service that produces the income. To
be considered as an income coming from the Philippines, it is enough that the income is derived from within. You
would know that there is a source within and without the Philippines (letter J, situs of taxation).
Fund or property existing at one point of time. It can be an investment or capital in order for it to grow.
Without any tangible capital, you can derive income out from labor performed.
Both capital and labor
Like constructions
Sale of property
Dealings in real property (sale, barter etc.)
G. Criteria to Determine if Income is Taxable
In summary:
1. There is Gain or Profit
In determining the profit from the sale of property, the formula is
2. The gain or profit is realized or received (either actually or constructively received)
3. Such gain or profit is not exempt under any law or treaty.

When can we say that the income which flows into our hands are taxable?
There is a gain or profit
The gain or profit is realized or received (either actually or constructively received) during the taxable year
Such gain or profit is not exempt under any law or treaty

Illustration: You purchased a parcel of land in 1961 for 1 million. Today, its value is 100 million. Do you have an income? Do you have a 99
million income that is taxable?
A. Parcel of Land
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Purchased in 1961 Php 1,000,000.00

Today Php 100,000,000.00

Do you consider Php 99 Million as taxable income based on the criteria that you have just mentioned? So its not taxable because it
has not yet been sold? What if nobody buys the property? Will you pay the tax on the Php99M if no one is buying the property?
Therefore, it is not taxable. Because it failed to follow number 2 criteria. Its not an income that you have realized or you have
What the difference from realizing and income or receiving?
o So you own this one and has the power to dispose it, is it not realizing an income? Not all economic gains constitute
taxable income. Mere increase in the value of the property without such value having been actually realized does not
constitute an income but is merely an unrealized income or unrealized gain. In this case, until and unless you dispose of this
property and actually sell it for the value that you expect. It is not a realized income and not being realized, with more
reason it is not a received income.
o There is a big difference between receiving an income and realizing it. Which comes first? Whats the difference between
constructive receipt of an income and realizing it? You must know what comprises of profit. The formula as provided in
your outline is simple:
Proceeds or the revenues less the cost is equals your gain or profit. So if you were able to sell it at Php 100M for a
cost of Php1M, your profit is Php 99M. Is it taxable or not? Depends whether the income is received or realized.
When you say its received, there are 2 connotations there:
Actual Receipt of Income
o Example is there is a general professional partnership which you created, 48 lawyers. You
decided that at the end of every month, each of you will get Php 100,000.00. That is actual
receipt of income when you get it.
Second, it could be constructive receipt.
o It is constructive if after distributing the Php 100,000 each, there still remains at the end of
the year, Php 1B in income of the general professional partnership. Even if the share is
undistributed, it is considered constructive receipt of income in so far as the partners are
concerned because it will be now taxable on the individual partners. It is upon your free
disposal to get hold of your share of the Php 1B. Its constructive receipt. You can get it
anytime. Its just that it is not with you yet.



How about realized? You say that income is realized when your right to have it has already ripened in simple
Example: You have an apartment. You entered into a contract of lease for 1 year. All rents payable at the
end of the 1 year contract. Say for example, you started out the rent or leasing out of your apartment
July 1, 2010. Ending June 30, 2011, midway for the calendar year. At the end of the calendar year,
December 31, 2010. Are you expected to declare a taxable income from leasing your apartment as
owner? YES.
The mere fact that you are able to lease out 6 months over 12 months, the activity has been finished
from July 1 to December 31, 2010, your right to collect has already ripened. It is already due. So you
should at the end of the year declare it as a realized income.
So if it taxable or not, should you end there? If you have answered whether it is realized or received. Can you at that point say
whether it is taxable or not? Can you say that after determining that the income has been realized or received, that is already
automatically subject to income tax? Not yet.
o You may say that it is a realized income but it is not taxable because there is a law exempting it.
Given an example. Look into Section 32B on compensation for injuries. A bank for example, if you have been
awarded moral and exemplary damages for physical injuries inflicted upon you, will the damages awarded be
subject to income tax? If you have received Php1M in cash? You have been awarded moral and exemplary
damages plus actual damages. Awarded Php 6M, received Php 1M as actual and Php5M for mental damages. You
received it and it was wired to your account. Thats actual receipt because your account. Can we now say that this
income actually received is subject to income tax?

1 Million ACTUAL
Awarded Php 6M
5 Million Mental (Moral, Exemplary, etc)
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 37

ANSWER: In outline no. 2, letter K number 4. It is compensation for injuries or sickness. This will be exempt to
income tax. If you are awarded damages as compensation for physical injuries or sickness, the damages, whether
its actual or moral, exemplary, nominal, temperate, liquidated damages, are all exclusions from gross income. It
is not subject to income tax. Despite the fact that you have actually received it. Its a wealth which is given to
your hands.
So you cannot exclusively pick 1 or 2 of these criteria.
o 1. Determine whether there is income or profit. Meaning your revenues less the cost to get those revenues, do you have
anet gain or profit?
o 2. Have you realized the income? Or have you received actually or constructively the income. If yes, proceed down to the
o 3. Is there a law or a tax treaty granting exemption? If none, which we always actually construe strictly against the tax payer
in exemption, if there is none, proceed on to compute for the income tax.

H. Kinds of Taxable Income or Gain

1. Capital gains: gains or income from the sale or exchange of capital assets including:
a. Income from dealings in shares of stock of domestic corporation whether or not through the stock exchange
b. Income from dealings in real property located in the Philippines and
c. Income from dealings in other capital assets other than (a) and (b).
2. Ordinary gains: gains or income from the sale or exchange of property which are not capital assets:
a. Business Income
b. Compensation Income
c. Passive Income
d. Other income from whatever source
Last meeting as mentioned, Is income tax always a tax on income alone? No capital can even be subjected to tax? Capital gains.
Proceeds Cost = Income / Profit
Proceeds - Cost = Income/Profit
FT 100Million - 0 = 100Million Taxable
Parcel of Land 1Million - 5Million = (4Million) Not Taxable
Siomai Business 1Million - 500K = 500K Taxable

o If you found Php100M in treasures at zero cost, everything is taxable.

o If you have a real property sold for 1M, put purchased it for Php5M, you lost Php4M, is this transaction taxable?
o If you have siomai business, at a cost of Php500k, taxable.
o There is an exemption to the rule that income tax is a tax on income not tariff. All taxes that you will see in the chapter of
income tax, is income tax. Differently named, differently collected. Meaning the mode of collection is different, the manner
of how it is paid is different. But everything you see in the chapter is an income tax.
o So capital gain stocks is an income tax. It is the exemption to the rule that income tax is only a tax on income because in
cases of sale of real properties classified as capital assets located in the Philippines, you may be taxed on that capital.
Capital is actually the cost. You may be taxed because it is not dependent on the rule proceeds less cost equals profit. It is
based on the gross selling price or fair market value whichever is higher.
o If the gross selling price is 1M but the fair market value is Php10M, then you are taxed at Php10M, a portion of that
Php10M is the cost of Php5M in buying that property before hand. It is the exemption to the rule that income tax is a tax
on income.
What about capital asset. We said that it must be a capital asset. Because if this is not a capital asset, it does not
become subject to capital gain stock.
We move on to the kinds of taxable income for gain. 2 kinds:
Capital Gains
Ordinary Gains
o In a car rental business, is the car a capital asset or an ordinary asset? Because only capital
asset produces capital gains and only ordinary asset produces ordinary gains. Why is it an
ordinary asset? In capital gains, be careful with letter C, it is a catch-all-provision, that which is
not in A or B, means all others. So is it in letter C? It is under the 3 rd classification of an
ordinary asset, which is used in business and subject to depreciation.

(A short recap after break) We all know the possible sources of income is. But not all income would be a source of tax by the
government. Upon knowing that there is a flow of wealth, following the life-blood theory, it has come upon you. Your next step is to
determine whether you have received the income or realized it which means the REALIZATION TEST, if it is realized income then it
may be taxable. Then move on to the next, if there is a law exempting it. If none, proceed to subject it to tax.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 38

o If there is no income, no realized income, such as the example of Php1M parcel of land valued at Php100M now, as long as
it is not sold, there is no realized income. No tax. You can only subject it to tax once there is a close and completed
transaction of selling it, bartering it, with something else.
o Now, it is not enough, if you want to move through the formula above, it is not enough to know whether there is an
income, whether it has been realized, whether there is a law exempting it, we also have to distinguish whether the income
is an ordinary income or a capital income. Why? There are different rules for taxing ordinary income or ordinary gains. And
there are different rules for capital gains or capital income. But both for income taxation, even for the bar is more on
ordinary income.
Even part, on corporate taxation part 4 of our outline, is more on ordinary income. Say for letter A and B in capital
gains. We will discuss capital gains after we are done with the 3 outlines for income taxation.
When we start discussing individual and corporate taxation, we will be discussing together with that capital gains
A and B.

To know what are ordinary gains and capital gains, we have to know what are those assets which produces capital gains and what are
those assets which produces ordinary gains.
o What is a capital asset? What is an ordinary asset? In Section 39 of your tax code, you will see the negative definition of
what a capital asset is. There is no definition of what an ordinary asset is but it is enumerated in Section 39. It says a capital
asset is an asset that is not among the following. So it simply means that what is enumerating is an ordinary asset. If it does
not fall in the ordinary assets, the four categories of ordinary assets, then all else will have to considered capital asset.
What are the four ordinary assets, we will know what is not covered by an ordinary asset is a capital asset:
o Taxation for ordinary assets and ordinary income is much more simple than capital assets and capital gains. But what are
the ordinary assets and capital assets? So you will know if the ordinary rates will apply or the special rates.
o Ordinary assets are those assets enumerated in Section 39, which comprises the negative definition of what capital asset
Stock in trade of the taxpayer or other property of a kind which would properly be included in the inventory of
the taxpayer if on hand at the close of the taxable year. Stock in trade or those assets that remain as inventory at
the end of the year of the tax payer. So goods, merchandise, inventories.
T: Inventory commonly known as the stocks if you will look at SM at the end of the year, December 31.
Anything remaining is the stock in trade or inventory which is considered as an ordinary asset of SM.
Second, assets which are primarily held for sale.
Example if you are a real estate company, house and lot are considered assets primarily held for sale. It
is somewhat an inventory but bigger in a sense.
Third, are those assets which are subjected to depreciation and use in business.
Example, is the example given above on the car rental business. The motor vehicles are assets used in
business subjected to depreciation. It depreciates in value as time goes by.
Finally, even real property can be considered as ordinary asset if used as business.
A parcel of land can be considered as ordinary asset if it is used in trade or business. Example if it is
where your condominium unit is for selling condominium units or condominium building, then that is
an ordinary asset. If it is sold, then it calls for a taxation of ordinary gains.
Is a manufacturing building a capital asset or an ordinary asset? And if sold, will it be subject to tax on
capital gains or ordinary gains? Parcel of land which the building stands, capital asset or ordinary asset?
o Obnimaga answers: Ordinary asset for both.
o For all others, it falls under capital assets.
Example, as a student, if you have a motor vehicle, that is a capital asset. Unless you use it as a taxi cab. Or your
house, as long as you are not renting it out. Your rings, your jewelries, etc, so long as you are not into jewelry
But majorly, there are 3 classes or capital assets for taxation purposes.
No. 1 category is stocks. If you buy stocks. If you are in stock trading, the stocks that you are buying and
selling are capital assets unless you are a broker.
No. 2, real properties located in the Philippines which are not used for trade or business.
No. 3, all others. It can be as many as 3000, all other assets not related to business is capital and we
have a special taxation for that.
I. Gross Income
1. Inclusions Section 32A
The enumeration is NOT EXCLUSIVE.
Treatment of some special items:
a. Forgiveness of Indebtedness
b. Recovery of amounts previously written off.
2. Exclusions Section 32B
Gross Income, in Section 32A, is all income derived from whatever source. By the phrase whatever source, it means legal or illegal,
whatever type of income that is. Including but not limited to the following to those enumerated in Section 32 (A).
o Those list in Section 32 in not an all in exclusive list. There can be as many sources of income except those enumerated.
What is enumerated in Section 32A is simply a list of the major items we classify as income.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 39

o So the simplest way is to memorize Section 32B which is exclusions from gross income. Exclusions are a quick list of what
are those not considered as income. We cannot consider Section 32 as exclusions from gross income as including but not
limited to the following because we cannot arbitrarily declare an income as an exclusion. What is the list as exclusion is an
exclusive list according to the tax code.
o If you meet encounter a problem you run through the list of Section 32B. If it is not among Section 32B as an exclusion,
probably that is an inclusion. But you still have to answer all those other criteria enumerated above.
o Give an example of income, part of a business that is taxable but not enumerated in Section 32A:
1. In outline, forgiveness of an indebtedness.


Creditor Debtor

Lets illustrate. 1 million loan, Company A forgives the debt and Company B, as debtor earns income. If
the reason for the forgiveness or condonation of debt is for services that have been performed or will
be performed, it will be considered as income subject to income tax because it is tax for compensation
for service.
But if the reason for the forgiveness or condonation of debt is gratuitous or liberal, it is not subject to
income tax but it is subject to donors tax.
2. Second item, is recovery of amounts previously written off. (Has always come out of the bar and in review
notes in Manila) To be discussed in later outines.
Take note, donation is an exclusion because it is already to donors tax.

J. Situs of Income
Exclusions are those types of income that are considered as income, profit, realized, received but because of a provision of the law,
Section 32b, they are not considered as not part to the taxable income. It is not subject to income tax, which is to be discussed
thoroughly after discussing situs of income.
o Again, situs of income under general principles, it is the place of taxation where the state has a right to subject it for taxes
or it is fully within its taxing jurisdiction.
o When we proceed and have answered the following criteria:
1. Is there an income or profit?
2. Is it realized or received?
3. Is there a law exempting it?
If the answer here is there is no law exempting it, therefore, it is taxable. But it is not complete at this
point, we have to answer situs of taxation.
Where is the situs is it in the Philippines?
Example, when we are talking about the non-resident foreign corporation doing business abroad and
earning income abroad, are we interested in the income?
The situs of income is discussed in your outline according to how it is presented in Section 32. Section 32A is the enumeration,
although not an exclusive list, of what may comprise gross income. For every income, let us know whether it has situs in the
Philippines or not.
1. First, compensation income,
The situs is the place where the services are rendered.
Example, if you are a resident alien and you perform. If you are Usher and perform a 1 night concert here.
Subject to income tax? The service is rendered in the Philippines or was conducted in the Philippine, therefore
there is Situs in the Philippines. So Philippines has the right to tax that income.
For compensation or any service that you performed, always it is where always the service is performed.
Same holds true for example if a Filipino celebrity performs a concert abroad, the question of whether it is
taxable or not is not fully captured in this situs. The service performed abroad, will we automatically say it is
subject to tax only abroad? No because he is still a national or a resident of the Philippines. But for compensation
per se lang, it is where the service is rendered.
2. Gross Income from business.
Situs is the place where the business is undertaken.
Merchandising, mining, farming or agricultural business, the situs is more stable. It has definite place, thus
the situs is where the business is undertaken. Therefore, it is taxable in the Philippines. We cannot bring the
actual mining from abroad here. It can only be an extension office which is not the actual mining.
Manufacturing business, takes into consideration where the products are manufactures and where the
products are sold. If the products are manufactured here, sold here, entirely we have jurisdiction over it.
Everything is 100% taxable.
If it is manufactured abroad, sold abroad, we dont tax it, it is beyond our jurisdiction.
But if it is manufactured abroad, and sold in the Philippines, we have the right to tax it. The
business of selling is here.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 40

If manufactured here, sold abroad, we have the right to tax it. The situs is partly within and partly
without. Partly within because the manufacturing here and if the contract of sale, before it is
shipped abroad is perfected here, then we have situs here.
3. Income from Sale or Exchange of Property. Distinguish from real or personal property

(1) If it involves personal property the place of sale

(2) In the case of sale of transport documents the place where the transport document is sold.
(3) If it involves real property the place or location of the real property

- For real property in so far as income taxation is concerned. Its easy. It is immobilized by nature therefore wherever the real
property is situated, it is the state exercising jurisdiction over it which has the power to tax. So if its in the Philippines then it is
taxable to Phil. income tax.
- How about personal property? The goods that cross boarders? Will the Phil. have jurisdiction over a personal property that is
sold like motor vehicle, equipments, machineries? Its not easy to answer because it is the place of sale. Where could be the
place of sale?
o For example: Company A would like to purchase machineries and equipments from Japan. Its a personal property that
is movable, where is the place of sale? Is it in Japan or in the Philippines?
It depends with the arrangement. If the contract is perfected abroad and ownership is actually relinquished
at the point of delivering it to the carrier abroad, then the sale has been consummated abroad. But if
ownership is retained by the seller until it reaches Philippine ports and if its consummated here, then the
sale is undertaken in the Philippines, then it will be subject to Phil. income tax.

4. Interest Income

Tax Situs: residence of the debtor

- Interest Income is something that cannot really be seen except payment of money.
o So if a domestic corporation, needing capital for its operations, obtains a loan from a non-resident foreign bank in
Japan. Of course, domestic has to pay the principal and interest. The payment of principal or the loan amount is mere
return of capital while the payment of interest is the income. There is here a territorial boarder. So who has the right
to tax the interest, the Phil. or Japan?
Territorial Border

In Japan (Income Earner)

Obtained a loan



Note: There is a difference between a domestic corporation and a Filipino corporation. Domestic is that
which is incorporated in the Phil. Filipino is at least owned 60% by Filipinos.
Phil. because the domestic corporation, who is the debtor, resides in the Phil. Benefits-received theory for
the Phil. government who have protected domestic corporation and allowing it to raise money in order for it
to pay interest to bank Japan abroad, it will have jurisdiction. The situs is where the debtor is residing. So no
matter who the creditor is, always, the Philippines has taxing jurisdiction over such interest income.
Remember that the income-interest earner here is bank Japan, thus, technically, it should be Japan who will
be taxing the interest income because such bank is residing in Japan but because we have our own situs rule
here in the Phil. which says that any interest income where the debtor is a resident of the Phil. will be
covered by the Phil. taxing jurisdiction. Therefore, the Phil. will also have to tax it.
How will the Phil. government get the tax of such interest income? Will it require bank Japan to declare the
income, remit the tax or some other arrangement?
For payments to a non-resident foreign corporation who is not registered in the Phil., it will have
to be withheld by the paying company.
o So payments to Usher concert, will have to be withheld by the production team, before
it is given to the non-resident foreign corporation as net.
o Such non-resident foreign corporation or individual, is not within the hold of the Phil. tax
authorities. They cannot be required to actually pay because they are not registered tax
payers in the Phil.

5. Rent Income
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 41

Tax Situs: place where the property subject of the contract of lease is located

6. Royalties
Tax Situs: place where the intangible property is used

- Royalties are fees you pay for the use of intangible property such as intellectual property rights.
o Example: McDonalds is originally a non-resident foreign corporation the actual source. If we obtain a franchise from
McDonalds, the monthly payment for the franchise is called a royalty fee. So does the Phil. have taxing jurisdiction
over the royalty income that is remitted by a franchisee to the franchisor abroad?
Yes since McDonalds, the intangible property, is used in the Phil. then it is the Phil. who has taxing
jurisdiction over such royalty income.
o Another example: In manufacturing companies wherein they have to get technical knowledge and technical know-
how in creating microchips, etc. They have to pay royalty fees, lets say, 3% for the annual revenues here in the Phil.
so that any payment to the non-resident foreign corporation abroad would have to be withheld of the tax because the
situs of the royalty income is in the Phil. The technical know-how is exercised and being used in the Phil. So although it
is intangible, you will see the effects of where it is actually used and who is benefiting.

7. Dividend
a. received from domestic corporation income purely within
b. received from foreign corporation consider the income of the foreign corporation in the Philippines during the last
preceding 3 taxable years:
(1) The income is purely within if the income derived from the Philippine sources is more than 85%
(2) It is purely without if the proportion of its Phil. income to the total income is less than 50%
(3) There should be an allocation if it is more than 50% but not exceeding 85% (partly within and partly without)

- Dividends are company profits paid pro rata to stockholders. It is a fruit out of the stockholders investment in a corporation.
Dividends come in many forms.
- Kinds of Dividends:
o Cash Dividends you receive cash out of the profits of the business
Example: If youre a 10% owner of PLDT, you get 10% out of the entire dividends that will be declared to the
owner so if its 1B dividends then you will get 100M share because youre a 10% owner.
o Sometimes what the corporation gives if its not so liquid, meaning no cash, is property dividends if its a subdivision
company, you may be given a house and lot. Its property dividend; its property; its income because it is a wealth it
is an increase in your assets.
o Sometimes it can be stock dividends
- The dividend referred to here is cash &/or property dividend because both of them are considered income while stock dividend
is not included since stock dividend is not considered income as a rule because it is not yet a realized income, it is inchoate.

10 Years After
Assets 47Million 100Million
Liabilities 0Million 10Million
Net Worth 47Million 90Million = Increased to 43Million

o Illustration: Tiu makes a corporation. You all contribute 1M each so you get 47M since the class consists of 47 students
and no loans so net worth is 47M. But after 10 years of operation, youre assets became 100M and liabilities 10M so
you will have a net worth of 90M. Did the net worth increase? Yes the net worth increase to 43M. This 43M is your
earnings from the start-up of your business and your cut-off point, which is 10 years of operation. You would actually
would want to distribute the 43M as dividends if you have cash. Say for example, the 43M is in real estate property
(you invested it in real estate valued at 100M) so you dont have cash. What you will do is that you will simply say that
youre ownership becomes 1.5M already, thus, Tiu will increase your investment from 1M to 1.5M to each of you but
it is not given in cash, it will simply increase your investment in the corporation. That is stock dividend your
ownership is increased but nothing is given to you, its inchoate. Until and unless it will be given to you and you have
free disposal of that, it remains a non-taxable stock dividend because its unrealized income. Who knows by next year
the corporation will be losing so that there is negative net worth.
- The reason why dividend is taxable in the Phil. if it is issued by a domestic corporation or paid by a domestic corporation without
regard to where and who the owner of the dividend is its because the domestic corporation receives protection from the
government such that being an intangible property, it does not follow the general rule where the domicile of the owner is since
its receiving benefits and protection from the government, the Phil. government has the right to fully tax a dividend that is
given by a domestic corporation wherever and whoever the recipient of the dividend is (100%).
- If its a foreign corporation abroad such as for example, Ms. Dumagad owns a share in a mining corporation in Africa and she
gets millions out of it annually, the situs of the dividend for Africa is where the corporation is issuing the dividend but thats a
separate issue as to being her a resident citizen. But the point is, it follows where the issuing corporation is except that if a
foreign corporation performs business 85% or more. Why? If its operation amounts to 85% or more located in the Philippines, it
is as if it acquired situs already in the Phil. It is receiving, at most, the benefits and protection from the Phil. government,
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 42

therefore, it will have full situs here in the Phil. But if its less than 50% operation in the Phil., it will have situs abroad where the
domicile of that foreign corporation is. If its in between 50% and 85%, it is partly within and partly without according to the
percentage of the operation in the Phil.

8. Annuities
Tax Situs: place where the contract was made

9. Prizes and Winnings

- given on account of services rendered place where the services were rendered
- not given on account of services rendered place where the same was given

- Winnings are those not given on account of services rendered while Prizes maybe given on account of services rendered or not
given on account of services rendered.
- Every time you receive something and it is attached to a service that you have rendered, its like a compensation for services you
have rendered so you back to the first rule, a compensation given is taxable where the service has been rendered. So prizes
given for services rendered is taxable on the place where such services were rendered while prizes and winnings not for services
rendered is taxable on the place where the same was given.
o Example: Lets say Mr. Pelinio went to the U.S on March 31 and he has his bet and he won $100M lotto there. Where
is the situs?
The situs is in the U.S. because Mr. Pelinio did not render any service so situs is in the place where the
winnings was given, which is in this case, it is in the U.S.
But is it taxable in the Phil.? Knowing where the situs is does not totally equate whether its taxable or not. Is
it taxable in the Phil.?
Yes, because Mr. Pelinio is a resident citizen and he is taxable for all his income within and without
the Phil.
So what should Mr. Pelinio do so that his $100M winnings will not be subject to tax?
o Mr. Pelinio will not come back for a certain period. Sec. 22E of the Tax Code provides
that if youre a citizen who will qualify as non-resident because you have stayed for the
most part of the year abroad, meaning more than 183 days abroad or more, then all
your income abroad will not be subject to Phil. income tax. So if Mr. Pelinio will just stay
after winning plus 183 days or more then you come back after that, then the winnings
will not be subject to Phil. tax. So Mr. Pelinio earn it abroad, for the year he is considered
non-resident citizen.

10. Pension
Tax Situs: place where this may be given on account of services rendered

- Since pension is something that is more related to a service such as that you have rendered in the past and youre given
retirement or pension pay then the situs is the place to where the services were rendered.

11. Professional income of professional partners

Tax Situs: place where the exercise of profession is undertaken

- Since it is more on the exercise of a profession, its an activitiy, so its where the activity or the profession is undertaken. It
follows the place where such profession is exercised.

K. Exclusions from gross income

- For all the enumerations in gross income Sec. 32A, all income from whatever including but not limited to the following, from
compensation income down to partners distributive share, you now know where the situs is. But is situs enough for you to be
able to answer whether its taxable to Phil. income tax? Not yet because we have yet to discuss individual income taxation and
corporate income taxation. But at least we now know whether it has Phil. situs or not.
- But in order to complete the formula, we start-off with revenues or income but there are items which we do not need to
include in the formula for income. We call them exclusions to gross income. It is not included in the formula instead it is
excluded from the listings of gross income.

1. Proceeds of Life Insurance Policy

Subject to tax if:
a) Insurer and insured agreed that the amount of the proceeds shall be withheld by the insurer with the obligation to pay interest in
the same, the interest is the one subject to tax.
b) there is transfer of the insurance policy

- What is referred to here is the proceeds of life insurance given to the beneficiary once the insured dies.
- Reason: since it is a contract of indemnity; not a profit or gain
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 43

- Proceed of life insurance policy is receivable by the beneficiary, not the insured one who already died. Will it be taxable in the
hands of the beneficiary?
o No, because it is paid by reason of death and is considered an indemnity rather than a gain or profit on those who are
COMPANY A For the life of
Premium: Insurance Details:
1. 400,000 1. 1 Million: Beneficiary Company A
2. 400,000 2. 1 Million: Beneficiary Heirs of B

Example: Company A took out a life insurance policy on the life of its President, Mr. B, in order to protect
itself from the sudden loss of its chief operating officer. Say for example, there are 2 life insurance policies
taken by company A with different insurance companies. The insurance was for 1M each. The beneficiary of
the first insurance policy is Company A. The beneficiary of the second insurance policy is the heirs of Mr. B.
Mr. B died. 2M was released, one by one insurance company and the other one by the second insurance
company. Will the 1M proceeds received by company A be subject to income tax or an exclusion to income
tax? Will the 1M received by the heirs of B subject to income tax or an exclusion to income tax? Will they be
subject to estate tax?
For income tax, the 1M each received by company A and the heirs of B are exempted because the
provision in Sec. 32B (1) does not distinguish the kind of beneficiaries who will receive the
proceeds of a life insurance policy, therefore, proceeds of life insurance policy, regardless of who
the beneficiary is (whether it be a juridical or natural person), as a rule, are exempted from income
tax or excluded from gross income.
Lets say, company A has to pay a total of 400,000 premiums for each policy. Will the premiums be
part of the compensation or salary on the part of Mr. B who is actually indirectly benefited (his life
is insured) and thus subject to income tax?
o For the 400,000 premiums paid by company A in order to secure the second insurance
policy wherein the beneficiary is the heirs of Mr. B, such premiums are subject to income
tax for they form part of Mr. Bs salary as an indirect benefit on Mr. Bs part. So the
400,000 premiums for the second insurance policy is subject to the tax on Mr. Bs salary.
However, for the 400,000 premiums paid by company A in order to secure the first
insurance policy wherein the beneficiary is company A itself, such premiums is not
subject to tax because it is merely a return on capital of company A. Therefore, its not
subject to tax on the part of Mr. Bs salary.
The 1M received by company A will never form part of the estate of Mr. B and a juridical person
has no estate, thus it is not subject to estate tax. However, the 1M received by the heirs of B will
form part of the estate of B, and thus, it may be subject to estate tax. But can estate tax and
income tax co-exist in one and the same 1M?
o No, because in exclusions from gross income, once an income is subject to estate tax, it
will never be subject to income tax.
But if there is a third person, lets say, in the life insurance policy, C, a very close friend of Mr. B,
was designated as a beneficiary. Will the proceeds received by C upon Bs death form part of the
estate of B?
o If the designation is revocable, which is the default, it goes to the estate of B, thus it will
be subject to estate tax. If the designation is irrevocable, it will never form part of the
estate of B, thus it will not be subject to estate tax.

July 20, 2010

- Transcription from room 403 for July 24, 2010 class
- Were now with exclusions from gross income.
o The enumeration sec32b are substantive exclusion from gross income. So it is by law an exclusion regardless of the
point of realization.
o There is what we call a temporary exclusion from gross income from gross income.
The word temporary means that in some point in time, the income is excluded from the gross income because either
it has not been realized or it has not yet been perfected.
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Ex. although there is a gain or profit, so long as it has not yet been realized, it is not a taxable income as yet.
It is excluded.
But once it is realized, it ripens into an income that is taxable.
o Those are the types of income that is listed in 32b.
o Those that are listed in 32b whether it is received, realized, unrealized, etc, these are already exclusions from gross
o And we started off discussing number 1 last meeting.
- 1. PROCEEDS FROM LIFE INSURANCE and 2. Amount Received by Insured as Return of Premium
o What is the reason why proceeds from life insurance are excluded?
It is to indemnify the beneficiary of the death of the person.
o So there must be somebody who will die?
o There are insurance policies which are life insurance policies but are the other type. At the point of maturity of that
insurance policy, even life insurance policy, the insured has the option of receiving the proceeds from the insurance company.
Is that the same type that is not taxable?
To be totally free from income tax, the proceeds of the life insurance policy must result to the death of the insured?
o True or False. The proceeds from life insurance policy regardless of the designated beneficiary is not subject to income
A. As an exception to the rule, if and when the insurance proceeds are withheld by the insurance company
on the condition that interest will be paid upon release, the interest or any income derived from the withholding,
meaning the point of not yet releasing the insurance proceeds will be subject to income tax. It is already an income of
insurance proceeds.
o But the life insurance proceeds, the reason why its not subject to income tax or is an exclusion from gross
income is because its simply a payment or an indemnity for a loss or a death of a person.
o We are looking here at somebody who died. The person who is insured will never get the chance to receive
the insurance proceeds.
Otherwise, if he does so receive it, it will only be covered by exclusion number 2.
o We have another exception to the rule why it is false. Since we are talking about exception to the rule, this
means to say that there will be tax implication or some form of taxes that needs to be paid. Just like number 1,
we said any interest derived from withholding the release of the life insurance proceeds is already an inclusion
from gross income which is taxable.

B. Second exception is when there is a transfer to life insurance policy.

o What do you mean by that one?
If an insurance policy is subsequently sold or transferred to another person, what will happen is that any
difference between the amount paid to get the insurance policy versus the proceeds will already be subject to
income tax.
Ex. if the face value of the insurance policy is 10m and you are required to pay 5m in premiums over a
period of 5 years, that means to say over five years you have to pay 1m per year. And it will produce face
value or face amount of 10m. So half diba?
If along the way, second year of the insurance policy, you have already paid 2m, and you sell it to
your friend for 3m, how much is your friend going to pay to the insurance company to finish off the
policy? 3m pa diba.
Because the seller sold it at a point after the point of paying the premium which is 2m.
Although the seller paid 2m in premiums but sold it for 3m, transfree paid 3m to seller and 3m
remaining premiums since the insurance company is expected to receive total of 5m.
How much did the buyer paid for the contract? 6m
If he receives the insurance policy face value of 10m, is the 10m exclusion from gross income?
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o Not anymore because it is an exception to the rule.

o Therefore, is 10m taxable?
The insurance policy has a face value of 10m. How much do you expect to receive upon
maturity or upon death?
But you dont pay 10m premiums just to get the face value of 10m. Otherwise theres no
sense of getting the insurance policy.
o So if the insurance policy says 5m of premiums in 5 years, that means to say 1m per year.
If the first insured sells it for 3m after paying 2m, the buyer actually has a capital of 3m. If he
decides to finish by paying off the remaining 3m which is unpaid, he actually paid for 6m.
o So if the beneficiary receives the 10m in proceeds, this is not anymore covered in the
exclusion number 1 because there is already a subsequent transfer of the policy.
But the entire 10m is not taxable because we also have to apply the exclusion number two which
says that if the part of the proceeds is a return on premium payments or cost, then it has to be
exclusion from gross income or nontaxable.
o How much of the 10m is premium and cost?
The 3m and 3m=6m
So only 4m is taxable in the hands of the recipient.
So again, true or false. All proceeds from the life insurance policy regardless of the designated
beneficiary is not subject to income tax.
o Because not all proceeds will have to be, except if it falls under the exception 1 and 2.
o The statement regardless of the beneficiary, is that correct?
So would the designation of the beneficiary matter insofar as considering the income as exclusion?
Whoever is the beneficiary of the life insurance proceeds would enjoy the exemption from income
tax because the law does not distinguish.
But it does not mean to say that if the proceeds or life insurance proceeds is an exclusion from life
insurance program, totally there would be no other tax applicable.
o What are the applicable tax, just in case? Lets talk about the beneficiary.
Life insurance proceeds; if the beneficiary is any of the relations of the insured: heirs,
estate, administrator executive, is it subject to income tax? Is it an inclusion to gross
Yes. Therefore it is not subject to tax.
If the beneficiary is a third person other than those related to the estate of the decedent
or the insured. Ex. the company who took the life insurance policy of the insured or any
other friend, would it be an exclusion from gross income of the beneficiary? Is the
recipient beneficiary be subject to income tax or would that life insurance proceeds be
part of his gross income?
It is one of the exclusions because its regardless of who the beneficiary is.
Its no longer taxable insofar as the beneficiary whether he is beneficiary class
number and number 2; he is not required to pay income tax on the proceeds.
But would the estate of the decedent be liable for estate tax by the mere
transfer? Or would it be liable for estate tax because it is part of his estate
upon death?
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Because if the beneficiary is the estate itself, then it goes to the

estate. If the heirs, it goes still to the estate. If the executor or
administrator, it goes still to the estate.
Therefore it just goes to show that its part of the property of the
decedent upon death.
Remember estate taxation is taxing the decedent on all properties
existing at the point of death.
How about life insurance proceeds, when does it accrue?
Upon death of the insured.
Beneficiaries would not have to pay the income tax but the estate
itself is liable for estate tax.
Remember an estate if the decedent is a separate entity. Its an
individual for tax purposes.
If the beneficiary is a third person; the company who took the insurance policy,
a friend, a relative who is not near the heirs, is the estate liable? At the point
of computing the estate tax, will the BIR include the proceeds as part of the
estate and be liable for estate tax?
Mr. A, the insured is the president of company B who took out the
insurance company in favor of the prior. There are two scenarios.
One, beneficiary is in relation of Mr. A which can be the estate of Mr.
A itself, heir, administrator or executor.
Second scenario is the company made itself the beneficiary.
Insofar as recipient beneficiary is concerned, we dont
have any problem. Its never subject to income tax.
But how about estate tax? Will it be subject to estate tax if the
beneficiary of the policy is the third person, the company itself?
Because ownership of the proceeds belongs to the
company who is not part of the estate of the decedent.
Therefore it is not subject to the estate tax.
Estate tax refers only to the estate of the dead person.
And if its now the ownership of the company who has designated itself as the
beneficiary, of course you do not co-mingle the company with the estate.
So there is the irrevocable designation of the company as the
beneficiary, no way is it subject to income tax.
But if in default, the company is the designated beneficiary, then it
o And what is default of insurance policy?
The designation is revocable.
Only if the designated beneficiary is irrevocably designated that it not belong to the estate of the decedent.
So as a general rule, you will see that majority, it will always form part of the estate of the decedent, relations or third
party revocably designated.
It will only be excluded from the estate of the decedent if it is irrevocably designated.
And irrevocable designation must be clear from the policy itself. Otherwise, default is revocable.
Mr.A took out a life insurance policy wherein the terms of the contract is 10 years payment of premium and on the
20th, it will mature.
o A. If he outlives the policy he gets the insurance proceeds.
o B. If he dies before the 20 year period, his beneficiaries or heirs will get the life insurance proceeds.
What is the tax if he outlives the policy and if he has not?
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o If he outlives the policy, meaning he himself outlives the policy, it will be taxable except for the portion
which represents the return of the premium payments that he has made.
If he gets 100m after outliving the policy after it has matured on the 20 th year, and by computation he was
only able to pay 5m in premiums, then the 95m difference will have to be declared as part of his gross income
taxable to 32%.
o If he dies before maturity of the policy, then we will follow exclusion number 1.
o Why is it excluded from gross income?
o If X gives a gift to D, who is subject to tax? What tax?
X, for donors tax.
Will D be liable for tax on the amount received?
The taxability of income tax would have to be on the part of recipient.
The taxability of donors tax would have to be on the part of the donor.
o So there are 2 exceptions to the rule that gifts are not subject to income tax because they are exclusions from gross
1. Any income or fruit derived from the gift is not covered by the exclusion. Its subject to income tax.
Naturally. Its like exclusion number 1, if life insurance proceeds is withheld and it bears interest, the interest
as a fruit will have to be subjected to income tax.
2. if you require the done to perform some services in exchange for the gift.
Who here will be taxable?
o Whichever way, the amount given is always subject to tax. It might be on his part, if its purely gratuitous,
the entire donation will be subject to donors tax.
If its for compensation as a whole because services are to be performed, he will be free from taxes but the
done will be taxed for income.
If its half-half or partly, the donor will pay the donors tax and the done will pay the income tax.
o What injury are we talking about? Would all types of injury be covered in the exclusion? What type of compensation
do you get out of a physical injury case? What are the sources wherein you derive compensation for physical injury?
Compensation for injuries, do you agree that it refers only to physical injuries?
As discussed by some of the authors, when you say compensation for sickness and injuries, it would have to refer to
physical injuries and sickness.
And when you say compensation for physical injuries, its related to sickness. You have to take it with the other.
The law itself says that, for compensation maybe by virtue of a suit or a case or paid by virtue of a health insurance,
personal heath insurance, accident insurance, and workmans compensation act.
It simply boils down with there being something wrong with the physical body or physical disability.
o Would the damages received as part of the compensation for injuries and sickness be subject to income tax?
No. Its not subject to income tax because it is derived not from labor, capital, labor or capital and properties.
And again, its exclusion is not stemmed from the other laws but because of this 32b which actually says that any
compensation received including damages on account of such injury or sickness is not part of the gross income subject to
income tax.
The only gray area there is the compensation for loss for future earnings.
If you have studied torts, somewhere along the way you will come across SC granting compensation for the
loss of the future earnings which could have been derived by the person who met the accident.
So whatever is derived from that; EX. if the dead or injured is expected to receive 50k a month times the
number of years of his life expectancy. That will be awarded by SC.
o As to whether it is taxable or not, there are conflicting views.
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Some of the authors would say that it is subject to income tax because it is compensation for future services
which could have been rendered.
But some of the authors would also say that it is not subject to income tax because it is part of the
compensation for the injury or sickness.
We can say that it is not taxable.
We use the word compensation. And it means all types of awards given by either the SC or insurance
o Since the doctrine of incorporation, any agreement we have entered into with the other countries that there are
exemption to be granted to the taxpayers earning income here, the principle of reciprocity will be respected.
We consider those as exclusions from gross income.
o But mind you, this is not even self executing.
Whatever the provisions of the tax treaties are, we have to seek confirmation from the national office of the bureau of
internal revenue in Quezon City.
Otherwise, if we dont seek for a confirmation ruling, even if youre situation falls squarely with what the treaty
provides, you will not be allowed to avail of the exemption or the preferential treatment of the treaty.
o So again, its like lifeblood doctrine that in construing exemptions, it has to be strictly construed against the tax payer.
o What retirement benefits are subject to tax?
1. If it falls under RA 7641 which actually is part of the labor code, art 287 on retirement benefits.
2. If it is part of the private retirement fund.
o So, what are the conditions for excluding from income the benefits received under retirement benefits plan?
1. recipient must be at least 50 years old
2. at least 10 years of services
3. retirement plan is reasonable
4. in nature of pension, stock option or profit sharing
5. availed once
6. approved by BIR
7. employer must contribute and for the common benefit
o How many situations are the in 6a, how many retirement benefits are we referring?
If you are 48 years old and you have rendered 48 years with the company, can you retire with the retirement pay tax
If you retire at the age of 51 and have rendered 8 years of service, can you retire tax free? Should both (age, years of
service) requirements co exist in all cases?
This matters. Because most of the companies I know, most of the employees will wait until the point that
they can get the retirement benefit free of tax. Otherwise they will have to pay 30%.
When can you say that 60 year old rule will apply rather than the 50 year old rule? Can both requirement co
o Can we expect the two types of benefits under the 7641 and the reasonable retirement benefit plan to be
applied in one and the same company? So that some can retire at 60 tax free while others can retire at 50?
Would the two situations mentioned before co exist in one company?
o This rule is under the tax code reasonable private benefit plan.
If the company sets up a reasonable retirement benefit plan, retirements for it to be exempt from tax must
be by a person at least 50 years old, having rendered service for at least 10 years and it is his first availment of
When will the 60 year old, 5 years of service apply?
o A. In the absence of a reasonable private benefit plan established by the company,
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o B. In the absence of collective bargaining agreement,

o C. In the absence of the employment contract designating when the retirement is.
So it is a catch all rule.
If there is no reasonable private benefit plan, there is no collective bargaining agreement, no employment
contract, no other agreement entered into by the employee and employer, then use this.
He gets to retire tax free at the age of 60, having rendered five years of service.
But in more cases than not, companies, since they are encouraged to establish a reasonable retirement
benefit plan, then the default is the retiree should at least be 50 years old with at least 10 years of service.
So if there is a reasonable private benefit plan, to be tax free, it should be:

1. duly approved by the BIR

2. gratuity plan

3. employer established the fund, contributing to the fund itself

4. fund will be for the sole benefit of employees

What are the requirement of private benefit plans proceeds to be tax free?
o 1. employee is at least 50 years old

o 2. has rendered at least

o 3. first availment of retirement

For you to be exempt, not only must you be at least 50 years old and had at least 10 years of service. It must be the first
time that you have availed of a tax free retirement, exclusive of the government retirement.

Of course if its a government retirement, its totally tax free.

So in this case, for example, you have reached 50 years old and have rendered 5 years of service with company A. This is the first time you
have availed of the retirement.
Are you tax free?
Then you got yourself hired with the government at age 51. You rendered 10 years of service with the government and retired at the age
of 60. Is the retirement pay that you will receive from the government exempt from tax?
The rule is to exclude retirements from government.
So if the second retirement is from the government institution, it will have to be exempt from tax.
But if your second retirement after you first private institution retirement, is still with another private institution, regardless of how old
you are, it is already taxable.
Even if you rely on the law itself, it says there retirement benefit plan of a private institution or private corporation
So if its not a private institution, its government, its not availing twice with the private.
So if its private-government, both are exempt.
If its private-private, that is taxable.
This will apply if there is a reasonable private benefit plan.
Let us say there is no private benefit plan. A collective bargaining agreement is in effect. And it says that an employee can retire at the age
of 60 or after rendering 20 years of service.
A, 40 years old, wants to retire after rendering 21 years of service.
Taxable or not?
Not taxable.
Another case, no collective bargaining agreement, no employment policy, no reasonable private benefit plan.
A, 60 years old, wants to retire after rendering 4 years of service in the company.
Taxable or not?
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Theres an existing retirement benefit plan, 50 years old, ten years of service.
Taxable or not?
Not taxable
You always consider if there is an existing retirement benefit plan with the company. Because the law says; retirement benefits derived are
exempt if its derived from RA 7641 or a reasonable private benefit plan RPBP.
But the law also says that for the benefits derived in RPBP would only be exempt if it satisfies the requirements: 50 years old, 10 years
of service, and first availment of in a private institution. Well of course the RPBP would also be duly approved with all the requirements.
But would that 10 years- 50 years old apply to 7641?
No. because this is a different law. This is the tax code itself.
If there is no retirement benefit plan, you have to apply the retirement benefits derived from 7641.
But 7641 is not exclusive to 60 years old or 5 years.
It says that it will only be applicable if there is no CBA, employer policy, etc..
Now if there is a CBA, do not use this as yet.
If the CBA says you can retire at the age of 60 plus 20 years of service, then it must be PLUS. Both conditions must exist.
If the CBA says 60 years old or more than 20 years of service, if you can satisfy just 1, then it is exempt.
So long as the CBA is not more burdensome than the 60-5 year rule.
It says in 641, any CBA or policy that is not more burdensome than the 60-5 year rule can be acceptable.
The 60-5 year rule will be applied if there are no agreements existing.
So in the case of 60 years old or at least 20 years of service, and the employee has been working for 21 years, this is exempt. Because the
CBA says OR. So even if you are still young at the age of 40, you can still retire if you have rendered at least 20 .
**If there is a CBA and RPBP at the same time, it has to be well defined in the CBA to whom and to what extent it will be applied.
I dont really know if it can co-exist
But in this ruling in BIR, an employee retired at less than 50, and rendered 21 years of service. His retirement benefits are granted with
exempt by BIR. Why?
Because the CBA itself which is duly approved, says than employee may be retired at the option of the company upon reaching the age
of 60 years or upon having completed more than 20 years of service.
So it can even be more than 10 years of service. At the age of 30 he can retire. And that is exempt.
But then again, if you get yourself rehired in a private institution, and you get again your retirement, that is taxable na.
You retired and got the retirement pay of 10m. Because of your excellent service, you receive a gratuity pay of 4m. Plus 15 days of work,
50k. Your vacation leave and sick leave credits that have not been used are 500k and 500k respectively. You are 50 years old with 10
years of service.
In total, you receive 15,050k.
Which of the items are subject to tax if the you are under the RPBP?
If the company has a retirement fund, and you retire, your retirement pay will not be taken out of the retirement funds. It will be taken
out from a plan, which plan is a separate entity itself. It is usually handled by insurance companies or banks.
If you did your job well, you can be given gratuity pay which is outside of the fund. It is bonus
Is the gratuity pay subject to tax?
Is the 50k taxable?
Yes because it is compensation for the service rendered.
How about the leave credits?
If you work and you are given vacation leave and you dont utilize them, in some companies it can be converted to cash and can be
accumulated for as long as you want.
Are they subject to tax?
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If you have plans of retiring, do not compute or convert your leave credits before retiring. Because usually if you convert your leave credits
on a regular basis without being connected to any retirement, they are taxable in excess of ten days.
But if you retire and its the only time that you convert all leave credits, it becomes a terminal leave pay, everything is taxable.
Everything given during retirement if your retirement is qualified, tax free, is exempt.
So even the gratuity pay is not taxable.
Only the 15 day salary is taxable.
But all the rest, retirement pay, bonuses, gratuity pay, leave credits, whatever it is named, basta lang the basic is exempt, everything that
follows will also be exempt.
Separation pay. Is it subject to tax? What are the rules for it to be exempt from tax?
Is separation pay taxable if it is given out of pity?
You were hired by the government as one of the midnight appointees of GMA. When Aquino came in you will be separated from work.
You got 100k separation pay. Is that taxable?
Quizer question: if you are given separation pay at the age of 48 years old after rendering 9 years of service due to occupying a redundant
position, is it an inclusion to gross income?
For separation pay, there is no age requirement, no years of service rendered requirement for the payment to be tax free.
All that it requires is that your separation from the company must be due to death, sickness, physical disability or indury and those other
causes beyond your control.
For example, redundant position, or those that you find in you LC, labor saving device, retrenchment, occupying a co terminus position.
How about social security benefits? Is that an exclusion from gross income?
Social security benefits for us Filipinos receiving from our Philippine social security system is not taxable. Even from the GSIS as well as
social security benefits from abroad.
Ex. you have been a citizen or a resident in the US and you retired here, you will get your pension and social security benefits, its also tax
Probably thats the reason why there are so many retirees here.
Thats self explanatory
Quizer Question: Mr. A received a 100k cash prize after his cell number was automatically included in the electronic draw effected by the
service provider. He did not perform any act to enter the contest nor is he ever required to render future services as a condition to
getting the prize.
Is the 100k part of the exclusion?
How about joining the raffle in SM. If the prize is motor vehicle. Is it subject to tax?
There is an on going restoration project of the church. In order to encourage people to donate, they sell raffle tickets and if they win its
tax free?
What are the requirements?
What about buying the ticket itself, is that not active part of joining the contest?
Its taxable. Even if the purpose is religious.
So long as you do some or theres an action on your part in order to join the contest and win it, it is taxable.
If youre a taxicab driver and you are given money for returning the money left in your cab as an award.
Educational naman, you join whos smarter than a fifth grader, thats taxable because there is active participation.
So both requirements should be satisfied.
1. without any action on the part of the recipient to enter the contest
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2. not required to render substantial future services

Prize given to Pacqiao by the government is not because he was not expecting that. It was given for giving honor to the country.
Is Pacqiaos last tournament winning taxable?
In sports competitions, for your awards to be tax free or excluded in gross income, the competition must have been duly approved by the
national sports associaltion and approved as well by the Philippine Olympic committee, whether it may be an international competition
or neld in the Philippines or not.
What it means to say is that the exclusion from gross income would never include a professional fight.
Many is a professional boxer. He is not representing any sports in the Olympics. Everything that he earns is taxable.
In one of the BIR rulings, there is this one boxer who sought for exemption. He was granted an exemption on the ground of bringing glory
to the Philippines.
But if it granted to that boxer, no other boxer can avail or use that ruling for an exemption.
Why do you think other boxers cannot avail of the exemption if the exemption is granted by BIR to one of them?
Exemptions are personal.
So whenever rulings or SC says that this person is exempt, then no other person can use that provision unless the law is general.
In any case, if and when prizes and award granted in sports competition or if any literary, religious, charitable educational achievements
that you get, if it does not satisfy the condition, therefore it is taxed; it will now be with held of tax. Because the nature of prizes and
awards is that it will be given to the recipient net of taxes.
Now if you happen to win in SM 1m, do not expect to get 1m. its only 800k because the tax withheld is 20%.
If in the posters it is said to be tax free, will you receive 1m?
Yes. But do not be misled. There is tax but the burden of tax is shifted to the one giving the price. SM will pay 1250k. the 1m you received
is as if it is the 80% of the price.
If it is not tax free, the price (motor vehicle) will not be given unless the winner pays the tax.
In this exclusion, whose income is exempt?
Whats a government entity? Does it include government agencies?
You have to strictly construe it.
In this case, this is exclusions are only the income of the government of the Philippines or the income of political subdivisions.
And you know political subdivisions as composing of the provinces, cities, municipalities and barangays.
It does not include government instrumentalities nor entities nor GOCCs.
If you have seen from your readings that here is exemption granted to agencies, instrumentalities or GOCCs, that basis is not 32b but
some other provision of the law.
What were talking about here is the income from the exercise of the essential governmental function of the government of the
Philippines and its political subdivisions as well.
The basis here is that we cannot tax the government who is taxing us.
How about income derived by foreign government? Is that subject to income tax?
If there is income received by a non resident foreign bank fully owned by the Japanese government, is that taxable?
So when we say income derived from investment in the Philippines, would it include extending a loan to the corporations in the
Philippines or the Philippine government itself?
If a domestic corporation of the Philippines is obtaining a loan from a bank in Japan fully owned by the Japanese government, is that
You get 1b loan and will have interest of 100k monthly. Is this covered by the exclusion that investments made by a foreign government
or a financial institution fully owned by the government are exempt from tax?
If the 1b is claimed in the Philippines, it is a domestic corporation, the operation is expectedly in the Philippines.
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The SC has already included granting of loans by foreign banks to domestic corporations, investment not only in stock, bonds and also
extending loans.
So any income derived from money extended to the Philippines by a foreign government or even if it is a financial institution so long as
its fully owned by the foreign government is already exempt from tax.
So in the Philippines, it also works the other way around. There is already a tax treaty.
If we extend a loan as well to foreign government, the income derived from that loan is also exempt.
But not all banks are considered as covered in this exclusion. In Japan there are only two banks. In the Philippines are Land bank of the
Philippines and Development bank in the Philippines.
When it says income from investment, it does not mean to say lang investment in the business. It includes and it has expanded the
meaning to those extending a loan to domestic corporation.
But if the extension of the loan is to a foreign corporation or not a domestic corporation, then its not income having situs here. Thats
another issue.
It should be the mutual fund company. If not, no exclsions, no exemptions.
You will notice that your salary is already deducted with these contributions. Its your share. Because the share of you employer is not
reflected in the pay slips.
In the computation of you tax, those items are deducted from your income because of the provision of the law.
After the law made in 1997, they were already made as deductions.
If your have monthly salary, you will give PAGIBIG 100. Your employer will also give 100. Your PAGIBIG account will be added 200.
But if you have a housing loan and you want to contribute to PAGIBIG 1100 and your taxable income if 8900, this will actually benefit
you. This will reduce your taxable income.
July 27, 2010 Tuesday
L. Allowable Deductions

All Income
Less: Exclusions from Gross Income / Exemption
Gross Income
Less: Deductions
Taxable Income

Distinguish deduction from exemption and deduction from exclusion. Or are they the same?
o First off, we have to know that all wealth which flows to our hands to know whether its an income or a capital. If its an
income, you list down all your income but you exclude those which are listed as exclusions from gross income or any item
which the law exempts from taxation to arrive at gross income because this is income. In order to arrive at a taxable
income in which the income tax rate will be computed, we have to know the deductions allowed.
o She said that the difference between a exemption and deductions is that deductions are those items allowed by law to
reduce the gross income in order to arrive at a taxable income. Exclusions are these items are already, off-hand, already
identified by law as an exempt income whether it be included in the list of exclusions of gross income under Section 32b or
in separate special laws. Diba what did we say about exemptions, these are immunities from future taxes to which you
could have been liable had there been no law granting its exclusion.
o Now, if you identified all income, you exclude all the exclusions, this is the one which we were asked to memorize, the
exclusions from gross income are those exemptions granted so that you will know which are covered by gross income. But
not all gross income are subject because there are deductions allowed.
o Is deduction an income that is not taxable? The distinction there really is when you say exemption, its an income that is
not taxable. There is an inflow towards you, but there is a law saying that that income which flew into your hands is not
taxable. But deduction, although it reduces the income, in order to arrive at a taxable income, is not an income. Deduction
is an expense. Its an outflow of your wealth. Thats why you are allowed to deduct expenses.
When you engage in a business, you have income, you have proceeds but you are not entirely taxable on the
proceeds, you are allowed to deduct expenses which you have incurred.
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In the same way, that deduction is not the same as exclusion. Exclusions are just like exemptions, they are income or inflows to the
tax payer. But because of the provision of the tax code, it is not subject to income see. Now, you will see that in order to arrive at a
taxable income, you always deduct exclusions and exemptions. It is the act of deduction but it is not an expense, its an income.
Now there are principles that you need to know to guide you whether you can deduct a certain item from your gross income. What
are these?
o The basic principles that would guide you in determining whether an item is allowed to be deducted is:
1. The taxpayer or you seeking for deduction must be able to pin point some specific provision of the law
authorizing you to deduct and
2. Prove that you are entitled to the deduction authorized because you satisfy all the conditions required.
3. All deductions are always strictly construed against the tax payer. That is the 3 rd principle.
4. An additional requirement for the deductibility of an expense is not when a tax is required to be withheld by
you, as the payer of the expense, you should have withheld the tax, otherwise, you cannot deduct the expense.
Let me put it in simple terms. If you have a business and you rent a place, a boutique perhaps in ayala
at Php100k per month, per space. The law requires you to withhold 5% oif your rental payments and
remit it to the government. So you will only pay or give ayala Php 100k less 5% or less Php 5000. Where
does the Php5000 go? To the government. Ayala will only receive 95%. If you failed to deduct even if
you have given Ayala the full Php100k, you forgot to deduct the 5%, you will not be allowed to deduct
entirely the Php100k rent expense. Thats what will happen if you wont satisfy the requirement of the
deductibility of taxes on expenses.
What are the deductions that may be allowed or what are the different kinds of deductions that may be allowed on the different
kinds of tax payers?
o a. Personal and Additional Deductions/Exemptions Section 35
o b. Itemized Deductions Section 34A K and 34M
o c. Optional Standard Deduction of 40% of the Gross income is the deduction which an individual other than a non-
resident alien, or a corporation, subject to income tax, may elect in an amount not exceeding 40% of his gross sales or gross
receipts, as the case may be, on a corporation, in an amount not exceeding 40% of its gross income, in lieu of taking
itemized deductions.
Itemized deductions, these are expenses incurred in line with your business or profession. Optional standard deductions, which is in
view of itemized deductions and number 3, that you can deduct in order to arrive at your taxable income is the personal and
additional deductions.
I am not saying that for you as a taxpayer, everything will be applicable. But these are (shes saying about number 4, then does not
continue here.)

25,000 /child
2. 50,000

All Income
Less: Exclusions from Gross Income / Exemption / Personal and Additional Exemption
Gross Income
1. expense in lieu 2. 4.
Any ofLess:
the deductions
Deductionsclaimed bydeductions
(itemized a tax payer/will fall under
Optional any ofDeduction
Standard these categories. It may
/ Premiums be an
on HIH itemized deduction or expenses or
in lieu _________________________________________
of that an optional standard deduction at a fixed rate of 40% of your gross income. Or you can claim, if you are an individual
tax payer, you Income
Taxable can also claim the personal and additional exemptions in lieu of family and living expenses.
o What are the personal and additional exemptions as mentioned before? Php 50,000 for Single, head of the family or
married, the personal exemption. Php 25,000 additional exemption for every dependent child that you have, legitimate,
illegitimate, acknowledged or legally adopted. So if you compute your income tax due, you may be able to claim anyone of
these, but not all of these. Because optional standard deduction is only in lieu of itemized.
o We will discuss this fully in outline number 3 and 4. After we have the deductible expenses, you can now have your taxable
income multiplied by your tax rate.
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L. Non-deductible Items
Would all your expenses incurred be deductible? If you engage in business and you had incurred expenses of Php1M but your sales
proceeds is only Php500,000. Are you guaranteed that you can claim your Php1M expenses? There are non-deductible items
identified by the Tax Code.

Sale Php 500,000.00

Expenses (Php 1,000,000.00)

What are the non-deductible items? Not all expenses that you paid for or have incurred may be allowed as deduction in the
computation of your taxable income. Let us identify what are the items that you have spent for but are totally non-deductible items.
1. Personal living or family expenses
2. Amount paid for new buildings or permanent improvements, or betterment to increase the value of any property or estate;
3. Any amount expended in restoring property or in making good the exhaustion thereof for which an allowance is or has been
4. Premiums paid on any life insurance policy covering the life of any officer or employee, or of any person financially interested
in any trade or business carried on by the taxpayer, individual or corporate, when the taxpayer is directly or indirectly a
beneficiary under such policy
5. Losses from sales or exchanges of property directly or indirectly
a) Between members of a family (brother, sister of half or full blood, spouse, ascendant, lineal descendants)
b) Except in case of distributions in liquidation, between an individual and a corporation more than 50% in value of
the outstanding stock of which is owned directly, by or for such an individual
c) Except in case of distributions in liquidation, between 2 corporations more than 50% in value of the outstanding
stock of each of which is owned directly or indirectly, by or for same individual, if either one of such corporation is a
personal holding company or a foreign personal holding company
d) Between the grantor and a fiduciary of any trust
e) Between fiduciary of a trust and the fiduciary of another trust, if the same person is a grantor with respect to each
f) Between a fiduciary of trust and a beneficiary of such trust
(1) Personal living or family expenses
o Why non-deductible?
1. Its not related to the business. It is personal and for the family.
2. The personal exemption of Php 50,000 for single and married individual and additional exemption for every
child already child already approximates your personal and family living expenses for the entire year. That is why
personal and family living expenses are non-deductible items.
(2) Amount paid for new buildings or permanent improvements, or betterment to increase the value of any property or estate;
o This simply means to say that when you spend for something as a property or estate for the business, it is not deductible in
the year that you have spent for it or paid for it.
o Give me an example. Amount paid for new building or permanent improvements are non-deductible items period.
Example, if you open up a business and you purchased a new building used to house your operations, is that
expense not deductible from your income? It is not deductible in the year you spent for it.
o If you spent Php100M in purchasing a building, you are not allowed to deduct the full Php100M in the year of purchase, or
in the year of construction but it will deductible as an allowance over the years of its estimated time. So if a building is
constructed costing PHp100M and it is expected to have a life, useful for another 100 years from the time that it is finished
from construction, then it is just but proper and reasonable to spread out the value of Php100M over the useful years of
100. So it is deductible based on depreciating effect or the value of depreciation for years. So it will diminish its value,
Php1M every year. Because after every year, its estimated life reduces by 1 year so the effect is to deduct it not 1 time but
over the estimated life of that property or asset or even if its not a new building, so long as its a major improvement, a
betterment, which increases the life of an existing asset, it will not be deductible outright but only deductible over its life.
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o It is reasonable because if you deduct in the first year that you bought it, you deduct Php100M. And your sales is only
PHp2M, you lose Php98M. Whereas, if you spread out the expense over 100 years, you will benefit each and every Php1M
every year as an expense.
o If we will come across an exemption wherein non-stock, non-profit education institutions like San Carlos can actually
deduct in the 1st year of purchasing building the entire Php1M. Why does the BIR allow this? Because schools are not
taxable. Even if we deduct the entire Php100M of purchasing it, nothing will ever change. Even if we deduct it the next
year. Schools are not, non-stock, non-profit educational institutions, are not taxable. So the effect is different. IN normal
businesses and abnormal businesses.
(3) Any amount expended in restoring property or in making good the exhaustion thereof for which an allowance is or has been
o No. 3 is it the same as No. 2? If you have a motor vehicle or delivery van in your business to deliver your items and you
change the headlight or you change the mirror, can you deduct the expense outright or should you spread out the value of
the repair? You can deduct outright.
o No. 3 are major repairs which extends the life of an existing asset which requires an apportionment of the expenses over
the number of years that the assets life has been extended or the propertys life has been extended.
(4) Premiums paid on any life insurance policy covering the life of any officer or employee, or of any person financially interested in
any trade or business carried on by the taxpayer, individual or corporate, when the taxpayer is directly or indirectly a beneficiary
under such policy
o The company took out a life insurance policy over your life as its most important employee. Every year the company pays
premiums amounting to PHp100,000 over the life insurance policy. Is the Php100,000 premium a deductible business
expense? You are the president of the company.
Lets have an illustration: Company A gets a life insurance policy over your life, Php100,000 premiums over a year.
The Php100,000 premium is used to satisfy the requirement of the life insurance taken by the company over your
life and it is paid to an insurance company, Company B. This is an expense of the company. The assets of the
company is decreased by Php100,000 every year just to pay the premiums of your life insurance policy. Can we
claim this as an expense deductible from income of Company A who spent for it?

Premium Beneficiary Deductible?

Php 100,000 Company A X
Php 100,000 Estate of U as employee

If a company takes out an insurance policy over the life of its employees, take note of who the
beneficiary is. Its only here that the one spending for the premium is the company itself, so its losing
money because its paying for something.
Can this be a deductible expense? So it can be a tax benefit in the payment of taxes, so the tax liability
of Company A will be reduced, you have to know who the beneficiary is. Now if the company made
itself as the beneficiary, it is not deductible because the law says it is not deductible if the taxpayer is
directly or indirectly the beneficiary under the policy.
o Who is the taxpayer referred to in this section? Company A. The tax payer who took the life
insurance policy is the beneficiary itself, not deductible.
The principle behind that because it is merely transferring money from Company A to the insurance
company and go back to Company A when the employee dies. It is merely transfer of money but will
revert back to the company upon the happening of the event insured.
But if the beneficiary is another person other than the tax payer himself, it is deductible, because the
proceeds will not revert to the coffers of the company.
But take note, the designation of the company may be direct designation or indirect. If its traceable then it is a
indirect designation in favor of the company, still it is not taxable.
5. Losses from sales or exchanges of property directly or indirectly
First, we have to know whether losses are deductible expenses? Yes.
Example, if you engage in the buy and sell of motor vehicles. If you have sold 10 motor vehicles in a year, 7 were
sold at a profit, 3 were sold at a loss, the losses incurred by the 3 transactions can be offsetted against the gains
out from the 7 transactions. So generally losses are deductible items.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 57

If the 7 motor vehicles were sold for Php7M, your capital was only Php4M, Php3M is taxable income. If
the 3 other vehicles were sold for were sold for Php1M, and puhunan is Php3M, you lost Php2M, since
you own this 1 business, you will only be liable for tax for Php 1M, losses are deductible expenses so
long as it is incurred in relation to your business.
Example, if you are in the manufacture of milk or production of milk, along the way some will evaporate, losses
are incurred. From the cows milk, if it directly spills. But losses are deductible except for losses found in Section
36, and it says losses from sales or exchanges of property between members of a family.
o a) Between members of a family (brother, sister of half or full blood, spouse, ascendant, lineal descendants),
Example: This motor vehicle, you sold it to your sister. Puhunan is Php3M, but the 7 you sold it to your
classmates, if you sold this to your sister, is the Php2M, deductible as an expense? No.
Why are losses or exchanges of sales between you and your sister not deductible losses? Because transactions
between family members are for the most part not entered into an honest transaction unlike entering into a
transaction with a 3rd person or 3rd party, you may sell this one for Php10 to someone else but you can actually
dispose it to your sister for Php1M.
So losses are not real in cases between family members. And even if it is real losses but because you entered it
with a family member, it is not deductible.
o b) Except in case of distributions in liquidation, between an individual and a corporation more than 50% in value of the
outstanding stock of which is owned directly, by or for such an individual

Company A U

Loss: Php 2M


Company A sold a parcel of land to you, selling price is Php1M, cost to the company is Php 3M, the company lost
Php2M from the transaction entered with you. Is the transaction PHp2M deductible from the income of
Company A? Yes. Because in this case there is no mention if you are a stockholder of the company and for what

60% 10%
U V 10%
Company A U

Loss: Php 2M

Not Deductible

Company A is owned by a 5 stockholders (Corporation must be atleast 5 stockholders). You are the owner of 60%
of Company A. V, W, X, Y are owners of 10% of the shares. If you are an owner of Company A by 60%, can the
company deduct the Php2M from its income? No.
Why? Because if a company wishes to avoid paying taxes, it can actually enter into simulated losses or
transactions by selling properties to any of its controlling stockholders. But in order for it to be a non-deductible
sale class, the individual with whom the company entered into with a transaction must be a controlling stock
holder, meaning he owns more than half or more than 50% of the business itself.
If Company A sold the land for Php1M costing PHp3M to any of V, W, X and Y, it is still deductible loss. Why?
Because these stockholders are not controlling stockholders.
When the transaction that we are looking into is between a company and an individual, the requirement is that
the individual must be a direct stockholder.
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o c) Except in case of distributions in liquidation, between 2 corporations more than 50% in value of the outstanding stock
of each of which is owned directly or indirectly, by or for same individual, if either one of such corporation is a personal
holding company or a foreign personal holding company
How about corporation to corporation?
Give me an illustration for number 3.
What does no. 3 prohibit? Transactions between corporations.

Company A Company B

Loss: Php 2M

Corporation A sold a land for Php1M costing Php3M, suffering a loss of Php2M. To whom was it sold?
Corporation B. Is the loss of Php2M deductible? As a rule, if you have no other fact, these are the only facts given
the general rule is losses incurred are deductible losses.
But if we dig into the ownership, say for example:

60% 10% 60% 10%

U V 10% U V 10%
10% 10%
10% 10%
Company A Company B

Land GSP Php 1,000,000

Cost 3,000,000
Loss Php 2,000,000


U, V, W, X and Y, and Company B is also owned by U, V, W, X and Y, and the shares are given as shown, still
deductible? No. Because the ownership is more than 50%. The law provides that if for example that this
transaction is entered into between 2 corporations whereby ownership is held directly or indirectly by more than
50% for the same individual is not deductible loss.
So Company A is owned by more than 50% by U, Company B is owned more than 60% by the same individual, so
the controlling interest in both corporations is U, the same individual, therefore, it is covered by non-deductible
Let me change the facts:
60% 10% 10% 10%
U V 10% U V 10%
10% 10%
10% 60%
Company A Company B

Land GSP Php 1,000,000

Cost 3,000,000
Loss Php 2,000,000

T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 59

Deductible or not? U owns 60%, Y owns 60% on the other company. Is the loss deductible? Yes. In this case, it is
not the same individual who is owning both corporations or controlling both corporations, the loss is deductible.
Let me change again the facts:

60% 10% 10% 10%

U V 10% U V 10%
10% 10%
10% 10%
Company A Company B 50%
Company Z
99.99% owned by U
Land GSP Php 1,000,000
Cost 3,000,000
Loss Php 2,000,000

In this case, if I put in there are 5 owners, individual owners and the 6 th owner is Z Corporation, but Z Corporation
is owned 100% by U, deductible or not? Okay, lets go to your first corporation, we retained ownership 60%
controlled by U, Company B, the buyer of the land is owned by 10% by U, V, W, X, Y. The remaining 50% is owned
by a corporation, Corporation Z. If a corporation owns a corporation, there is ultimately an individual owning it.
You have to key in the ownership of all levels of the corporation. It so happened that Z corporation is 99.99%
owned by U.
Is the loss deductible or not? Is this covered by transactions which are not arms length? Arms length
because the law says owned by individual directly or indirectly. This is a case of 2 corporations entering
into a sale transaction of a real property but both corporations are owned by the same individual
although indirectly. The other one indirectly.
More than 50% is held by the same individual directly or indirectly. You say U owns this majority; its
more than 50%. Is U owning or controlling this corporation? Yes, indirectly. How indirectly? U owns
10%. U owns the entire 50% through another corporation, therefore, Us ownership is: 10% + 50% =
60%. More than 50% of both corporations is owned by the same individual. Therefore, we can say that
the transaction is not entered into an arms length.
Let me change the facts again:

60% 10% 10% 10%

U V 10% U V 10%
10% 10%
10% 10%
Company A Company B 50%
Company Z
60% owned by U
Land GSP Php 1,000,000
Cost 3,000,000 40% owned by A
Loss Php 2,000,000 Therefore, Us share is:

60% of the 50% share= 30%
Plus: share in Co. B = 10%

Z Corporation owns 50% of Company is owned by U and A. 60% for U, 40% for A. IS the loss deductible? Does U
control corporation B? No. But then U has more than 60% of Company Z? Diba this is a corporation owned by a
corporation. But you know that this corporation is owned by other stockholders. So how much of the share does
U own? 60% of 50% is 30% plus 10%, U owns only 40%.
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The ownership of U here is more than 50% direct control over Z Corporation. But in Company B, U only
directly control Company B by 10%. U owns 10% directly and indirectly by 30% of Company B through
owning B by 60%. 60% of 50% if 30%. So the 30% of Company B is owned by U through this corporation
and another 10% that is a total of 40%
Does it satisfy the requirement for non-deductibility? NO, therefore the loss is deductible.
This is what you call a grandfather rule in determining ownership of the corporation. It is grandfather in
a sense because you with start with Company A here and its owned by another Company C, owned by
another Company C, to the extent that you determine the ownership, the vast ownership of the
individual, that is the grandfather rule in Corporation Code.
If its family-owned, there are still distribution of interest and control. You still use the number of ownership that
he has in his corporation. That is based on SEC because there is an annual report that needs to be submitted to
the SEC, stating who the owners are and what percentages of the stocks they are holding.
o d) Between the grantor and a fiduciary of any trust
o e) Between fiduciary of a trust and the fiduciary of another trust, if the same person is a grantor with respect to each trust
o f) Between a fiduciary of trust and a beneficiary of such trust
The other non-deductible losses from sales or exchanges of property, the reason why it is non-deductible
because it refers to one and the same, it simply a temporary transfer. The grantor of the trust and the fiduciary of
the trust, these are second transfers so it refers to one and the same.
N. General Principles of Income Taxation in the Philippines Section 23.
This is a very important provision for income tax.
What are the general principles of income taxation?
1. A resident citizen is taxable on all income derived from sources within and without the Philippines.
2. A non-resident citizen is taxable only on income derived from sources within the Philippines.
Sec. 22(E) enumerates who are non-resident citizens
3. An overseas contract worker is taxable only on income from sources within the Philippines; a seaman who is a citizen of the
Philippines and who receives compensation for services rendered abroad as a member of the complement of a vessel engaged
exclusively in the international trade shall be treated as an overseas contract worker.
4. An alien individual, whether a resident or not of the Philippines, is taxable only on income derived from sources within the
5. A domestic corporation is taxable on all income derived from sources within and without the Philippines
6. A foreign corporation, whether engaged or not in trade or business in the Philippines, is taxable only on income derived from
sources within the Philippines.
Individuals are classified into resident citizens, taxable for income within and without. Second classification, is non-resident citizen
taxable only for income within. Third classification, they are taxable only for income derived within. For non-resident aliens engaged
in trade or business, are taxable only for income within the Philippines.
How about overseas contract workers? Taxable for income derived within the Philippines.
o Why are they not taxable within and without?
When they are non-residents for the year, they are only taxable within.
All of those taxpayers are taxable only from income within EXCEPT for 2 types which are taxable on their worldwide income.
What are the 2 taxpayers which are taxable from income within and income without?
Only resident citizens and domestic corporations are taxable on income within and income without, while all the rest
are taxable only if they earn income having situs within the Philippines.
So bottom line is determining the situs of the income important for all types of taxpayers? What is the purpose why
do we have to determine the situs of the income?
o Purpose: so that we will know if we have taxing jurisdiction over that income. Determining the situs of
income is important because we would want to know if the income of those taxpayers that we have
just mentioned are income within, and definitely, taxable in the Philippines.
o But not all taxpayers would the situs of income really matter. What type of taxpayer is situs irrelevant?
Resident citizen and domestic corporation because they are taxable on income within and without. So,
situs of income is not important in so far as domestic corporations and resident citizens are concerned,
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they are taxable wherever their income has situs. Therefore, if you have a question before you that
says, the individual taxpayer is a resident citizen or a domestic corporation it is actually taxable on
income within and without. So, situs is irrelevant unless we make it more complicated in applying
exemptions in tax treaties.
o But as a rule, situs is only important in so far as determining whether the income of non-resident
citizens, aliens and foreign corporations are concerned because these types of taxpayers are taxable on
income within the Philippines.
Is an immigrant a resident citizen? What is his classification as a taxpayer, resident citizen or non-resident citizen? (not answered
by Atty. Tiu)
What are the general principles of income taxation in the Philippines?
A resident citizen is taxable on all income derived from sources within and without the Philippines
A non-resident citizen is taxable only on income derived from sources within the Philippines.
An overseas contract worker is taxable only on income from sources within the Philippines; a seaman who is a citizen
of the Philippines and who receives compensation for services rendered abroad as a member of the complement of a
vessel engaged exclusively in the international trade shall be treated as an overseas contract worker.
An alien individual whether a resident or not of the Philippines is taxable only on income derived from sources within
the Philippines
A domestic corporation is taxable on all income derived from sources within and without the Philippines
A foreign corporation whether engaged or not in trade or business in the Philippines is taxable only on income derived
from sources within the Philippines.

Individual Income Taxation

Taxable Individuals
A. Resident Citizen
Who is a resident citizen? What is the taxability of a resident citizen?
Resident citizens are citizens of the Philippines residing therein.
They are subject to the schedular rates of 5%-32% tax on income derived from sources within and without the
Prime example: all of us are citizens here unless you claim otherwise.
B. Non-resident Citizen
Who is a non-resident citizen? Assuming you are working and your company sent you off abroad under an assignment contract
for 2 years. He left today, will he be considered a non-resident citizen for tax purposes? He is still a citizen, yes. His employer is a
domestic corporation. He was sent to Korea for 2 years, he left this morning. Is he a resident citizen or non-resident citizen?
When is a citizen considered a non-resident citizen? (Ms. Tiu said she wants the enumeration found in Sec. 22 of the Tax Code,
she said that we have to memorize this Sec. re who are non-resident citizen)
Sec. 22(E), the term nonresident citizen means:
o (1) A citizen of the Phils. who establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner the fact of is physical
presence abroad with a definite intention to reside therein
o (2) A citizen of the Philippines who leaves the Philippines during the taxable year to reside abroad, either as
an immigrant or for employment on a permanent basis.
o (3) A citizen of the Philippines who works and derives income from abroad and whose employment thereat
requires him to be physically present abroad most of the time during the taxable year.
o (4) A citizen who has been previously considered as nonresident citizen and who arrives in the Philippines at
any time during the taxable year to reside permanently in the Philippines shall likewise be treated as a
nonresident citizen for the taxable year in which he arrives in the Philippines with respect to his income
derived from sources abroad until the date of his arrival in the Philippines.
o (5) The taxpayer shall submit proof to the Commissioner to show his intention of leaving the Philippines to
reside permanently abroad or to return to and reside in the Philippines as the case may be for purpose of
this Section.
o Illustration (1st scenario):
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5 months and 4 days

Less than 183 days ABROAD

January 1, 2010 July 27, 2010 December 31, 2010 December 31, 2011 July 26, 2012 December 2012


He does not qualify under No. 1 and No. 2.

Let us go to No. 3. A citizen of the Phils. who works and derives income from abroad and whose
employment requires him to be physically present abroad most of the time during the taxable
Most of the time is interpreted to mean 183 days abroad or more physically
Did he go abroad for employment? Yes but not on a permanent basis because his
contract is fixed for 2 years, January 1, 2010. He left this morning, July 27, 2010. By
December 31, 2010, he spent 5 months and 4 days, which is definitely less than 183
days. He is not abroad most of the time, so for 2010, he is considered a resident
For December 31, 2011, he is abroad. He is a non-resident citizen.
Now, this is established that he is a resident citizen for the entire 2010. Why? He was
not abroad most of the time during year. So, his salary from January to July has situs
within. His salary from July to December has situs without because he is abroad. Is
this taxable for 2010? Yes, both income is taxable. As a resident citizen, regardless
where your income is earned whether it has situs within or without, definitely, it is
taxable in the Philippines.
Now for 2011, he is a non-resident citizen because his employment requires him to be
physically present most of the time during the year. Is this an income within or
without? It is income without, hence, not taxable in the Philippines. A non-resident
citizen is only taxable for income within, so, in this case, this is not taxable.
How about 2012? He came back and continued employment with his local company,
December 31, 2012. Is this income within or without? Is this taxable? He is considered
non-resident, under category no. 4.
o 2nd scenario:

5 months and 4 days

Less than 183 days ABROAD

January 1, 2010 July 27, 2010 December 31, 2010 December 31, 2011 June 26, 2012 December 2012

LESS THAN 183 days



He is still considered non-resident citizen (from Dec. 31, 2011 to June 26, 2012). As a returning non-
resident citizen, from the start of the year to the date of arrival, any income earned without or outside
the Philippines is not taxable. Because for this period, he is considered as a non-resident citizen. This is
where he is a considered as a hybrid non-resident citizen, half and half. You cannot consider him as
entirely as non-resident nor as resident citizen for the entire year but the requirement there to apply
the rules of hybrid personality, he must have returned as a non-resident the year before. If he is a
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resident citizen the year before. So, lets cut this short, wala ni nga year, what is the year immediately
before this one, the rule will not apply because he must be a returning non-resident citizen.
Diba the first type of non-resident is easymust be able to establish the fact of his physical presence
abroad to the Commissioner of Internal Revenue and he has a definite intention to reside therein.
No. 2 is also easyhe must be an immigrant or permanently employed abroad.
No. 3 is much more complicated because his employment abroad requires him to be physically present
most of the time during the year which requires 183 days or more.
The 4th only applies to a citizen who was previously, the year before, is considered as non-resident
whether 1st, 2nd, or 3rd category. Any of those 1st 3 categories non-resident citizen comes back to the
Philippines to reside permanently here, then, he will have a portion of the year as non-resident citizen
and, after the date of arrival, resident citizen. Any income during that time from without is already
Remember the rules, this is important that he be considered non-resident here because all his income
from abroad during this time will always be considered as non-taxable in the Philippines because his
classification is a returning non-resident. But, from the day of arrival until Dec. 31, he is already
classified as resident citizen, and if he has income in any day or any month during this period, he goes
abroad to perform, to sing, or whatever, even if it is income without but he is already classified as
resident citizen, it means to say that everything here is taxable. But on the other hand, only those
income within is taxable.
As a returning non-resident the year before, even if he returns January 3 here, not most of the time
during the year, his income from January 1 to January 3 abroad is non-resident citizen, income without,
therefore exempt.
(Atty Tiu was asked what returning is?) His coming back, definitely, to reside in the Philippines. But
for him to avail for the 4 th category of non-resident citizen tax-free, he must have been a non-resident
the previous year or years.
Say, if you have a relative who stayed abroad for many years, comes back to the Philippines as
balikbayan and stayed here for 6 months, went back to the US for 1 month then came back again for
the rest year. If you take the entire year he stayed here for more than 183 days, is he resident citizen
because he stayed here most of the time? NO because he is not returning back to reside here, only on a
vacation. So, it does not take his status as a non-resident for staying here most of the time. An
immigrant is an immigrant, unless he decides to come back, he will not be considered as a resident
(Q: asked what if the employee is asked to go abroad near the end of the taxable year) If you are
required to go abroad on a 2 year contract, make sure that you leave the Philippines before June 30, so
that you will be considered as non-resident citizen so that you income abroad will not be taxable.
(Q: what is our measure of most of the time?) 183 days or more in a given year whether continuous, in
succession, or in the aggregate. You add out the days. Basta, you have a definite purpose of going there
but not for permanent stay.
(Q: in the 1st category, when is the reckoning point?) for category 1 and 2, the day that you left.
How about a seaman who is working in a vessel? Would all of them be considered as non-resident
A seaman is not categorized as non-resident (1) although he is physically present abroad, he
does not intend to reside in the vessel for his entire life; (2) he is not an immigrant and his
employment is not permanent, its per contract basis. So, he is under category no. 3.
In order that they be classified non-resident citizen under category no. 3, 2 requirements
must be complied with, (1) they must stay abroad most of the time abroad during the year,
meaning 183 days or more; and (2) the vessel within which they are working must be
engaged exclusively in international trade. Otherwise, they do not qualify as non-resident
citizen and their income, even if they earn it working in the vessel, it will be considered as
taxable within and without as resident citizens. Why again? They dont qualify as immigrants
or permanent employees abroad. All overseas contract workers including seaman, its
contractual. Its not a permanent employment.
C. Resident Alien
Who is a resident alien?
A resident alien is an individual whose residence is here in the Philippines but is not a citizen of the Philippines.
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When can you be considered a resident? If you marry a Filipina?

You will be considered a resident if you are not considered as a mere transient or if he lives in the Philippines and has
no definite intention of his stay here.
There is no number of days as a benchmark, or number of months, number of years to say whether an alien here in
the Philippines is definitely considered as resident or not. Unlike in non-resident citizen, theres a number of days.
Resident(?mao ni iyang giingon pero murag non-resident alien iyang pasabot. Check lang ) alien engaged in trade or
not engaged in trade, you have 183 day rule but for an alien to be considered as resident, there is no exact measure or
length of stay that he has to establish in the Philippines.
So long as he is not a mere visitor, transient, or sojourner in the Philippines and so long as he has definite intention to
reside here or his visit requires an extended stay in order to establish or satisfy a purpose for which he is coming to
the Philippines, making the Philippines as a temporary home country, he will be considered as a resident alien. In
some part of the discussions in the book, you will see there one year but that one year has not been established by
any law. It is just a discussion of an opinion or ruling by a SC decision but in more cases than not, the SC does not
really give a number of years for length of stay. It just says, so long as he has a definite purpose of staying in the
Philippines, and making the Philippines as his home country, then, he can be considered a resident alien. In one case,
it says that the length of stay is indicative of the intention of an alien. If he had stayed here in the Phils. for more than
a year, he may already be considered as a resident alien.
D. Non-resident alien
What about a non-resident alien? Definitely not a citizen, not even a resident alien. But for some purpose he happens to be in
the Philippines earning some form of money or income. Who is a non-resident alien?
There are two classifications of non-resident alien:
o (1) one that is engaged in trade or business
o (2) one that is not engaged in trade of business
If there is an alien or foreigner, say, you went to Boracay alone and youve met a foreigner. During your conversation, you learn
that he has been in Boracay for half of the year. He came to Boracay, January 1 and you met him yesterday (July 26; stayed
around 204 days already in the Philippines, almost 7 months), can you consider him a non-resident alien not engaged in trade or
business. So, his stay is more than half of the year. He did nothing in Boracay except surf and dive. Is he of the 1 st type or the 2nd
type? During almost those 7 months, he earned a minimum amount in teaching how to scuba dive.
Those non-resident aliens who stayed in the Philippines continuously or in the aggregate for more than 180 days
regardless of what they are doing in the Philippines, they are considered as non-resident aliens engaged in trade or
business. The number of days is used to classify whether the non-resident alien is engaged in trade or business or
not. The reason why we have to qualify or distinguish them, although both of them have really no definite purpose in
staying in the Philippines if you have a definite purpose of staying, you may already be categorized as resident alien,
for those having no definite intention or purpose of staying here, you use the 180 day rule.
And using the 180 day rule is for purposes of what? Why do we have to distinguish not engage or engage when both
of them have are non-resident aliens with no intention for staying here? Why is there a need?
o Both of them are taxable only on income within. Insofar as their income are earning, there is no
difference. If Mr. A who stayed here 180 days and Mr. B who stayed here 179 days, they both earn the
same income, they are both taxable on income earned within the Philippines. Why do we have distinguish
They are subject to different tax rates.
A resident citizen and a non-resident citizen, a resident alien and a non-resident alien engaged
in trade or business, otherwise those staying more than 180 days in a given year, aggregate or
continuous, would be taxed at the same rate of 5%-32%. Only non-resident aliens who have
stayed 180 days or less will be taxed at a different rate of 25% and without the benefit of
deductions because they are taxed on all incomes.
So in our example before whenever a performing artist does a concert here in the Philippines
for 1 night, the entire income that they earn is taxed at a fixed rate of 25% without the benefit
of any deductions not even his plane ticket cost, but it is shouldered by the producer.
E. Special Employees
Who are special employees?
Special employees are those employees employed in special corporations and special corporations are the following:
o (1) Regional Area Headquarters (RAHQ) of multinational corporations, defined in Sec. 22
o (2) Regional Operating Headquarters (ROHQ) of Multinational Corporations, defined in Sec. 22
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 65

o (3) Offshore banking units

o (4) Petroleum service contractors
What is the difference between the two, (1) and (2)?
o RAHQ is established for the purpose of overseeing. They do not earn income. They do not operate to earn
income while ROHQ may be performing services and activities in favor of the other corporations related to
the multinational companies located within the Asia-Pacific region.
o For example, Chevron is related to Caltex. Chevron established a ROHQ wherein employees of that
headquarters will perform services (accounting, auditing, financing, administration services) for and in
behalf of all other Caltex located within the Asia-Pacific region. Its operational and it is earning income but
would all employees of Chevron be considered as special employees? What makes them special? Why are
they called special employees?
No, not all would be considered special employees. They are special because they are subject to a
preferential tax rate of 15% on their salaries, honorarium, wages, emolument, remunerations and
other similar income.
o Can a Filipino be a special employee?
The general rule is only alien employees occupying managerial, supervisory, technical positions
can be special employees. Only in cases where no alien individual can fill up that requirement
would a Filipino individual be allowed to become a special employee subject to the preferential,
special tax rate of only 15%.
That is so special because, normally, Filipino individuals or alien individuals employed in
corporations not among those special corporations will be taxed at a rate of 5%-32%, and you
know that managerial positions already demand a higher salary where you would be covered a
bracket of 32%. Indeed, 15% is special.
We have RAHQ, ROHQ of multinational corporations, offshore banking units in the Philippines and
petroleum service contractors. These are the only corporations who can employ special
If you are a special employee, you are a Filipino, and you have and income on the side, will all your income from employment
and other income, say for example, from business be subject to the preferential rate of 15%?
No. If you are a Filipino individual, the rule is special employees would only be allowed preferential treatment of
salaries, honorarium, wages, emolument, remunerations, those entirely related to the employment of the special
corporation. If he has earned income as an employee of a special corporation occupying managerial and technical
position, then, any income which he earned from selling sandwiches, coffee etc. during break time will not be covered
by the 15%, it will be taxed 5%-32%.
But what is the special rule for Filipinos occupying technical/ managerial positions in these special corporations? Do
they have the option to be taxed at 5%-32% instead of 15%?
o A circular (Revenue Memorandum 41-2009) has been issued by the BIR, if in case we talk about of Filipinos
employed in these special corporations availing of the special rate of 15%, their positions must be
managerial and highly technical position, not OR, in order for them to be entitle to 15% or at a regular rates
of 5%-32%.
o While normally we employ expatriate employees, these are alien individuals employed in managerial
confidential or highly technical positions.
F. Estates and Trusts
Is an estate an individual? Why is it included in taxable individuals? When a natural person dies, how many taxable persons do
we have? Diba, persons, it can be juridical or natural? At the point of death, if you are the BIR, how many taxable persons do you
There are twothe dead person or his income during his lifetime, during the calendar year. If a person dies today, he
is supposed to have income January 1 until yesterday. From today, he will have estate as a taxable individual. You have
two separate taxable persons at the time of death.

August 3, 2010

1. Alien individuals employed in multinational corporations are subject to the preferential rate of 15% on compensation income so long
as they are occupying managerial and technical positions. True or False?
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False. Multinational Corporation is generic. Multinational Corporation is simply a foreign corporation or entity engaged in
international trade. When you say regional operating headquarters, regional area headquarters of a multinational corporation, thats
what makes an employee a special employee given a preferential rate of 15%.
We said that there are only four corporations who can hire special employees subject to the special rate of 15% and they
are regional operating headquarters of multinational corporations, regional area headquarters of multinational corporations,
petroleum service contractors and subcontractors and lastly, the offshore banking units. If we simply say alien individuals employed
in a multinational corporation, its as if they are simply employed in a resident foreign corporation engaged in international trade or
as simple as that. To become a regional area headquarter or regional operating headquarter, it requires a special registration.

2. How about estates, trusts, are they considered as individual tax payers for tax purposes? Yes.

3. If youre saying that they shall be treated the same as individuals, so what are the tax rates applicable to these estates and trusts?
How about the estate itself? Is it subject to income tax?
This is not the cemetery class. Mr. X died, he left an estate, a set of property. While the property is under judicial
settlement, it will bear income or fruits. To which amount, is it the estate or the fruits that the estate is subject to income tax? It is
the fruits that are subject to income tax. Okay, only the outer layer is subject to estate income tax.
What about the estate itself left by the decedent, is it subject to income tax? No. Why? Because its not an income, it is a
capital and subject to estate tax. There is a difference between the estate tax of 5-20% and estate income tax of 5-32%. Income tax as
we have learned is always subject to an income. Only one instance is income tax subject to capital and what is that again? On the
capital gains or rather the presumed gains on a sale of a capital asset which is a real property located in the Philippines. So do not tax
the estate left by the decedent, simply tax the income generated by the estate during settlement. Whenever a person dies, there are
two persons subjected to tax: (1) the decedent himself his income from January up to his income is subject to income tax. Upon
death and until the settlement is finished, it will be the income generated unless distributed is subject to estate income tax.

4. Is the estate allowed personal exemption? Say for example this is 2010, Mr. X died August 3, today, can the income tax return of Mr. X
claim the personal exemption? How about the estate? Can the estate claim during the same year personal exemption?
The individual person can claim the personal exemption on his income from January until the point of death. The estate
under settlement from the point of death until the end of the same year is another personality, distinct from the person himself who
died. Therefore, personal exemption is as well allowed to the estate. But of course, the following year, if the estate is not yet settled,
still under judicial settlement, the following year, you dont speak of Mr. X anymore. His personality has ceased at the time of death.
He could no longer earn income, only the estate will be considered as a tax payer, the year after death and years after that.

August 3, 2010
MR. X X Estate of Mr. X. X ESTATE PER SE:
Subject to Estate Tax
Subject to Income Tax
as an individual FRUITS:
Subject to Income Tax

PHP 50,000 during time alive Php 20,000 as an estate

5. Personal exemption is how much?


6. Can the estate claim additional exemption for a dependent amounting to P25,000 the additional exemption?
The P25,000 is only in reference to a dependent child or children. Exemption is P50,000 basic class, I think I placed there
last page of this outline, estates and trusts number 3, exemption allowed to estate and trust fifty (P50,000) right? But the problem is
that when I looked into the tax code, that section 62 using RA 8424, its only P20,000 because in 1998 when 8424 took effect,
personal exemption was only P20,000. When was it raised again to P50,000? Only in 2008, RA 9504, remember the illustration I gave
you in retroactive application? Its just that, that same law, RA 9504 did not amend section 62 which is the personal exemption
allowed to estates and trusts. So, I think since this is an exemption and strictly construed against the estate tax payer, we still retain
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the P20,000 exemption although it is not reconcilable. Still, we maintain the P20,000 not the P50,000 which replaces this. Again, for
the reason that Section 62 of the tax code has not been specifically amended by RA 9504 which increase the personal exemption
from P20,000 to P50,000.
Lets go to different types or categories of income that individual taxpayer may earn.
7. What is compensation income?
(Cant hear Ms. Tans voice) Based on Dimaampaos book, it is defined as all remuneration for services rendered by an
employee for his employer unless specifically excluded under the Tax Code.
8. When is there employee-employer relationship?
Apply the four-fold test
9. For tax purposes, can a compensation in kind be subject to income tax? Or is it always compensation in cash? Or does the labor code
allow compensation to be given in kind?
Under the labor code its not allowed but for tax purposes class, compensation may be given in cash or in kind. Lifeblood
doctrine, the government does not only look at cash compensation to be taxed but in any form that the person employee is
benefited from his employment or services that he has rendered. Everything will be taxable as a rule.
10. Give me an example of a compensation in kind.
Promissory notes.
How can an employee have a promissory note as an income?
Even if its not in cash yet, it can be considered as realized on the part of the employee as he has already rendered services,
then it will be subject to tax.
What else?
What about stocks? What is a Stock option?
Instead of giving salary, they are given with stocks, shares of stocks.
What do you think why the company would give an employee a share of stock? What would that make the employee if he gets hold
of stocks of the company?
In some cases, companies in order to build loyalty and in order to retain the employees in its employ would be offering
stock options to its employees. Now, if the offer of the stock option is not more favorable than that offered to third persons not
employees to the company, so if its offered at 100 and sold to outsiders at 100 as well, theres no income to speak of. The only time
that the employee will be subjected to income tax is when the stock option is more favorable than 3 rd person. Say for example, the
fair market value per share of the company is 1000 and it is sold to the employee at 100. The 900 difference is simply an income
which can be connected to the services that has been rendered by the employee to the employer.
What other compensation in kind do we have?
Cancellation of indebtedness weve discussed that already before.
What else?
Tax liability of the employee paid by the employer.
Can you illustrate?
Lets say for example, you were hired P10,000 a month. Do you expect to get P10,000 a month? No. because this P10,000 is
entirely subject to income tax because its her income.
In the example that she has given, tax liability of the employee being shouldered or payed by the employer is when the
example is when the employer promised to give her clean P10,000 without any tax deduction. It may so happens that she may get
P10,000 without any deduction, the employer is actually shouldering the tax of the entire income. So, the tax of the entire income is
somewhere, let say, P2,500 to the BIR, P10,000 to the pocket of the employee.
The employee does not concern himself with how much the employer will be paying so long as he gets free of tax. You will
learn later how to gross this tax, how to compute the tax. Anyway, so long as the employer promises the employee of a salary that is
already free of tax, the employer is actually shouldering the tax, its as if the portion shouldered by the employer is still net income of
the employee.
In fact, in this case, how much is really the compensation of the employee?
Is it P10,000 or P12,500? Its P12,500. Its just that P2,500 went directly to the tax authority. And I think we have also
in our outline, premiums paid by the employer to life insurance policy of the employee weve discussed this, right?
(Class: yes)
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PHP 10,000.00
PHP 2,500.00


11. If a property is given to the employee, what is the taxable base?

If you are given a parcel of land by your employer class, the basis for taxation is the fair market value of the property given.

12. Now, what is the doctrine of cash equivalent? How is this related to what we have discussed a while ago?
For tax purposes class, were looking at the fixed amount on which the tax will be imposed. If the income goes to the tax
payer or employee in the form of property or any other kind other than the standard of measure of value which is cash, then there
must be equivalent to every property that is given. For every value received by the tax payer or employee as a benefit for being hired
or as compensation for service rendered, there will be an equivalent tax on that income, even if it is received in kind. So, the
equivalent value of the property of the property or benefit received will be taxable as a rule. Thats as a rule because we will
encounter some exceptions to the rule.

13. Now if youre an employee Ms. Gingoyon and you are allowed to stay in the condominium units, for which you actually dont get
housing allowance in cash. You only have free stay in that condominium unit. Is that an income?
Yes. If you will be allowed to stay free of charge in a particular, like residential place, apartment, etc. Regardless whether
you received something in cash or not for that stay, it will be taxable because you are benefited. In your own person, you dont need
to shell out money in order to stay in that place. Therefore, how will it be taxed if your stay in the condominium unit which is a value
of P50,000 the leasing rate which is per month, then the P50,000 value will be subject to tax, regardless of your status in the
company whether you are the janitor or president of the company, it will be subject to tax. But, who pays is something else.
You mentioned of fringe benefit, what is it?
Fringe benefit is any good or services or benefits given by the employer to the employee, except for rank and file
So, bottom line, who gets fringe benefits? Say for example, this is ABC Corporation, everyone of us here are employees of ABC
Corporation, rank-and-file and not rank-and-file. Everyone is given a chance to stay in the condominium unit, 1 unit each. Is
everybody earning income here?
Yes. It is settled class that everyone is actually earning income in some form. Although it is not in cash, it is the free stay
valued at P50,000/month had they stayed in another area.
My question is since it is settled that everyone is earning income in some form, would we, all of us, be subject to tax on the income
that we have earned in kind?
Non rank-and file that side and rank-and file, P50,000/month in kind - free stay, P15,000/month in kind. If you want to ask how much
is the cash compensation, P10,000 lang in cash because youre rank and file. P100,000 in cash because youre not rank-and-file. Now
this is taxable, taxable. Is this taxable?
This will be given, the cash from the cash compensation will be given through you ATM account or in cash, net of your
taxes. But how will this be regulated? So, youre saying this is taxable for the rank-and-files here, if the tax of this amount is P10,000,
you will receive nothing na, because the P10,000 will be collected from you, agree?
This level, the cash that is received both rank-and-file and not rank-file is considered as salary. This level naman beyond
your salary, we call that benefit in kind. Some benefits are in cash if youre given Christmas bonuses. But benefits in kind are treated
differently if received by a rank-and-file and benefit by a not rank-and-file, this is specifically called fringe benefit.
These are ordinary benefits. Both are income, differently termed, these are benefits received by the rank-and-file
employee. These are specifically called fringed benefits received by non rank-and-file employees. Now, usually you couldnt imagine
rank-and-file, getting of these, di ba? But for illustration purpose, lets say they are also given that kind of benefit. Now, will this be
subject to tax?
Doctrine of cash equivalent, will it be subject to tax? Yes. This salary will be subject to tax of which we call as withholding
tax on wages, salary or compensation. Its the ordinary tax on the salary. This one will be subject to the ordinary tax on salary as well
but how about this? Is this subject to ordinary tax on the salary? No. Subject to what? Fringe benfits tax. And fringe benefits tax is
what? Final tax. What is the effect if its a final tax? Ms. Cuevas answers.
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Fringe benefits tax works this way. Ill show how this is really unfair to this line. Fringe benefits are perks given to those
given occupying managerial and supervisory positions. And for that whatever benefit is given to them which is usually not available
to rank-and-file, it is subject to final tax which we call as the tax on fringe benefit. Being subject to final tax, the word final means that
the benefit itself is already taxed with finality. And if it is taxed with finality, it is no longer considered in the income of the non rank-
and-file to be subjected to the ordinary withholding tax on salaries. So, this is separately taxed. But because its a perk or benefit to
those occupying higher positions, it is the employer who shoulders the tax. Whatever benefit is given to the employee, a
corresponding is paid by the employer to the government.
How about those given to rank-and-file? Sige its an apartment lang at P5,000 not a condominium unit, is this a fringe benefit?
No. there will never be a fringe benefit if the recipient is a rank-and-file employee. They dont receive perks. Not being a
fringe benefit, it is not subject to the final tax which we call as fringe benefits tax. Not being subject to tax with finality, it simply
means that the compensation in kind given to rank-and-file will be considered in his salary it will be considered as a part of the
salary of the rank-of-file subject to the ordinary withholding tax on wage. So, in this case class, P15,000 will be subject to withholding
tax instead of the P10,000 because the employees as well receiving P5,000 in kind.
In this case naman, the basic only is subject to tax by the will be shouldered by the employee while the P50,000 perk will
be covered by the employer. The tax at P15,000 is higher than the taxed at P10,000. The non rank-and-file is actually enjoying this
kind of benefit free from tax. It is really best to be a non rank-and-file employee. You can receive different kinds of fringe benefit.



SALARY Subject to WTW/C/S Cash Php 10,000 Cash Php 100,000 Subject to WTW/C/S
BENEFIT Subject to WTW/C/S Kind Php 50,000 Kind Php 50,000 Subject to FBT


14. What are the different kinds of fringe benefits?

Housing, expense account, vehicle of any kind, household personnel, interest on loan at less than market rate, membership
fees, dues and other expenses borne by the employer in social and athletic clubs or other similar organizations, expenses for foreign
travel, holiday and vacation expenses, educational assistance to the employee or his dependents, and life or health insurance and
other non-life insurance premiums or similar accounts in excess of the law allows.

15. If you are an employee, non rank-and-file and you are allowed to stay at a staff house within the company premises. Example in
Ormoc, is it Ormoc wherein theres Californian Energy Plant the powerplant. Theres an administration building, dispensed in
territory there are staff house. If you are allowed to stay in of the staff houses, is it considered as fringe benefits subject to fringe
benefits tax?
Housing benefits as a rule is subject to fringe benefits tax if the recipient is a non rank-and-file employee but there are
1. If the housing allowance or benefit is for the convenience of the employer. Example, if youre a doctor and your work is 24hrs.
call of duty. You hired a driver which you housed, you dont want him to stay inside your house. You simply rented out the place
beside your house. Is that for the convenience of the employer? Yes. But the driver is not a rank-and-file but it is just for
2. When your place rented out is within 50meters from company premises. Now, if your place of stay is within 50meters from
company premises, then it is exempt from fringe benefits tax. So, if ever you get to be an employer years from now and you
want to give housing allowances or housing benefits of your staff or manager, make sure that you get something that is near.
If its 50meters whether it is for convenience or not. For the convenience, no meters required or no standards. But the
50meter whether or not for the convenience but bottom line its usually for the convenience why he is required to stay near the
But there is an exemption to that by virtue of the BIR Ruling the taxpayer requested an exemption from fringe benefits
tax despite the distance longer than 50meters is when the place is hazardous to health of the employees, so it can be
3. Youre on travel and you are allowed or given housing benefit for 3 months or less in the area wherein you are assigned.

16. Now, the listings here Ms. Cuevas, is it exclusive or are there other benefits that can be subject to fringe benefits tax not listed in this
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Yes. Primarily because it says but not limited to the following. Although there are two views class, there are some
discussions which says these are their only benefits subject to fringe benefits tax but there has already been a BIR Ruling saying that
the stock options given by Globe Telecom to its officers are subject to fringe benefits tax to the extent of the difference between the
fair market value of the stocks and the offer price to its officers.
17. Give me an example wherein you will be subject to fringe benefits tax on a vehicle assistance or motor vehicle in relation to motor
vehicle benefits.
For example if the manager lives away from the workplace, for example Lapu-Lapu and then the place of work is in
Minglanilla. So, the employer has given the employee or issued the employee a vehicle for the benefit of the employee so that it
would be easy for the employee to travel.
18. In that case, is that subject to fringe benefits tax?
Yes. In that case, it will be subject to fringe benefit tax.
19. Is it necessary that the ownership of the vehicle be given to the employee so that there will be fringe benefits tax due on the
assistance given.
I think it is not necessary that the ownership is given to his employee as long as the employee is having or is enjoying the
benefit of that vehicle which can be subject o fringe benefits tax. Okay. There are many types of benefits in so far as vehicle is
concerned. The company may give the employee directly a motor vehicle is entirely fringe benefits. Sometimes, the company may
subsidize 50% of the purchase price of the vehicle and 50% is the fringe benefit. In some case, the company allows only not transfer
of ownership, only allows the employee to use the vehicle exclusively still it is subject to fringe benefits tax. How will it be
computed? Of course the monthly amortization or the monthly depreciation value of the vehicles or in case where there may be
fringe benefits in the vehicle assistance where the employer leases or rents out the motor vehicle for the use of the employee
himself, for his own. Exception to that rule even if he is using the motor vehicle of your employer, it is not subject to fringe benefits
tax, if you use it for car pooling or you allow others to use it as well. So what you have to do class, if ever you will be assigned a motor
vehicle, as if lang others may use it.
If it is for the use as if for everyone, its for the convenience for the employer necessary for the business. Ang shifting lang
for this one to this one is the status of the employee.

How do they declare such.. that its for own use lang or departments use?
Through the policy of the company, so long as you have documentation of the company that this is for the everyone, that
would suffice. The BIR will not be following your car around if its park outside your house at night, etc.

How about the gasoline?

It is still subject to fringe benefits tax under the expense account. If youre given transportation allowance as a president,
gasoline allowance, cellular phone allowances, etc. it will fall under expense account unless class, you are required to liquidate that
by submitting receipts at the end of the year. A cellular would require the listing of the calls that you made whether its for business
and personal. Ang gasoline naman I dont know lang how will you make charges that this is personal, this is business. Probably, the
best way is 50% is business, 50% is taxable nalang. But I know you can secure receipts from your friends.
For expenses usually you are given by your employer transporation allowances, gasoline allowance, call allowances,
representation and meal allowances like P100,000 a month. Now it will be taxable except if:
1. You will be required to liquidate the amount by submitting receipts, issued in the name of the company, not in your name.

20. What about household personnel subject to fringe benefits tax?.

So apart from given a free stay in the condominium unit, a free motor vehicle will be given, a driver, a helper. The amount
paid to those helpers, drivers, etc. will be subject to fringe benefits tax. Youre being given a good life, its a perk. But if the drivers,
the maid, if the driver example falls under the payroll of the company itself na, the amount given is not subject to fringe benefit tax
because his salary is already subject to withholding tax. Whatever you get from the company, the BIR can always says its taxable.

21. If the company grants you a loan at 0% interest, now the 12% will be assumed by the BIR as the legal not charged by the company to
you, 12% of the loan value of the principal will be subject to fringe benefits even if you did receive nothing. If the rate is lower than
12%, say perhaps at 2%, is there fringe benefit?
Yes. If theres a difference in the interest rate granted to the employer against the legal rate of 12%, it has not been
changed - the 12% for tax purposes remains the same. So the difference between the 12% and the 2% granted lowered 2% granted
by your company, the 10% even if it is theoretical interest will be subject to fringe benefits tax. Say for example, you made a loan, a
loan from the company so that you can buy a motor vehicle, 50% of the motor vehicle has been subsidized by the company. There
are actually 2 kinds of benefits there, the fringe benefit on the subsidized portion of the vehicle and the fringe benefit on the interest
for gone by your company granting you 0% loan or a loan at a lower interest.
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22. If the company, youre the manager of the company and the company enrolled you in a masteral class Ateneo, will the tuition fee
paid by the company be subject to fringe benefits tax? It was in your favor, you were the one enrolled.
As a rule, the assistance granted by the employer to the employee will be subject to fringe benefits tax if the employee is
not rank-and-file. But there are exceptions, if it is in relation or in line with the position held by the employee himself or would
actually redound to the benefit of the employer and it has to be supported by a contract wherein the employee will stay in the
company for a number of years, its what you call as lock in contract.
I have experienced this before when I was in SGV and I gave them the idea that I will be studying while working, they
offered to shoulder the expenses for schooling but on the condition that I will stay in the company for 7 years after graduation - 7
years in Cebu or 4 years in Manila. SO if thats the case, when you will still be required by the employer to stay with the company and
the assistance really education is in support of the.. is in favor of the company because it is in line of the position you are holding,
its not subject to fringe benefits tax.

23. But what about like schools are granting the teachers or professors free education for their children, the dependents of the
employees, up to lets say three children, okay lang if San Carlos, but what if Cebu International School, tuition fee is this much, is it
subject to fringe benefit tax?
Remember that the burden on taxes of fringe benefits falls on the employer class not employee. The employees, non rank-
and-file, receiving actually a benefit free of tax.
In order for them to avoid paying fringe benefits tax on educational assistance granted to the dependents, not the
1. Getting the assistance must be competitive in nature so it should not be given arbitrary to all dependents of the non-rank-and-
file employees. It must go through stages, competition between the dependents.
2. The dependents must actually maintain a grade required by the corporation employer otherwise if those two conditions does
not existence in an educational assistance granted to dependents, it will be subject to fringe benefits tax.

In our quiz, which of the benefits are subject to fringe benefits tax: a.) group health insurance taken by the employer in favor of the
employees. Is it subject to fringe benefit tax? Life or health insurance?
All group life insurances, all hospitalization insurance will not give rise to fringe benefit tax nor ordinary tax on rank and file
employees because for the reason that these group life insurance or health insurances are never directed specifically to one
employee. The insurance is for free for all to those who will become covered by the insurance because when given like a disability

And we have other kinds of benefit as well: Membership fees in a golf club, etc. those in social, health or athletic clubs as well as
foreign travels and vacation expenses.
24. How will we compute the fringe benefits tax? For illustration I found in some reviewers they put emphasis on grossed up
monetary value. Did you happen to chance upon what grossed up monetary value is? In ordinary salaries or compensation or
wage that you received, whatever is stated in the employment contract thats your salary, you dont expect to get everything
because the component of that is for taxes based actually on the 5 to 32 percent tax that youre paying. SO this is your basic

32% of GMV of Fringe Benefit

32% of ___________________

If youre given a fringe benefit as a non rank and file employee, the fringe benefit that you received is already net of the tax.
Why? Because it will be the employer who will shoulder the tax. So your entire benefit, if ever a fringe benefit is given you, is
not only that which you have received but as well the value of the tax that is shouldered by your employer.

Its just like your salary, your salarys 100,000 a month, you get 85,000 net, 15,000 goes to the BIR. How much is really your
salary? Your benefit? 100,000. The same with fringe benefit. If you received 50,000 and youre no longer required to pay tax on
the 50,000, your benefit is something bigger than the 50,000. And that is fringe benefits plus the tax shouldered by the
employer equals your entire benefit or entire compensation or perk that you received.

Salary Php 100,000.00 LESS Tax (5%-32%) = Net Pay

Fringe Benefit 50,000.00 tax at 32% of GMV of Php 50,000 (net pay is Php 50,000)
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25. So how would the employer compute the fringe benefits tax? The fringe benefits tax is a 32 percent tax on the grossed up
monetary value of your fringe benefit. So applying this formula to this fringe benefit, it will be 32 percent on the grossed up
value of 50,000. Your grossed up value is simply fringe benefit plus tax. So grossed up value.

Again. So if you get hired and under your contract you will be paid 100,000 a month salary, it will be reduced of tax on the
100,000 computed at 5-32 % based on your agreed compensation. You will only get net. So if youre already covered by the
highest bracket of 32% so now you will only get 70,000 a month. But if youre given a fringe benefit of free stay in a
condominium unit valued at 50,000 per month, you will not be taxed at 50,000. You will not be subjected to tax on the 50,000
with the BIR deducting 32% of 30 days stay. The BIR cannot get tax in kind, its always monetary. So whatever the benefit youre
receiving as fringe benefit, its entirely net na. so this is net already. This is the reverse.

26. So how does the employer compute for the tax on the 50,000 by grossing it up. Grossing it up means to say that the net is
brought to the gross. Simply the net pay brought to the gross by adding the tax. So how is grossing up done?

There is already a formula. 50,000 divided by 68% equals grossed up monetary value times 32% fringe benefit equals your
fringe benefit tax. The 50,000 free stay is already free of tax on your part. But someone else is paying for that tax. How will the
employer pay the tax? The employer will simply compute the fringe benefits tax at the rate of 32%, not 5-32 %. 32% because
you are already assumed to be occupying the highest bracket being a manager or supervisor. Automatically it is 32 % of the
grossed up value.
So if you are receiving net and you want to gross it up, simply divide by 68% , which is the gross less the tax . Its as if, if you
divide a value at the amount by 68%, its as if that value is only 68 percent (???). You will arrive at 100%.

How to compute Gross Marked Up Value:

GMV Formula : Php 50,000 (Example Above)

X 32%

Example, you have a deposit of 1million. In the passbook, you saw that there is an interest of 1000 for one month. Youre given
interest income. Then beside there is tax of 20% which is 200. How much did you receive? 800 only. 800 is 80 % after the tax has
been deducted. If you want to gross up the 800 net interest, how do you do the grossing up? Simply divide it by 80%. What did
you receive in percentage, its 80% so divide it by 80%.

In this example, when you receive a fringe benefit, its only 68% so in order to get the full 100% value of what youre receiving
including the tax that has been shouldered by your employer, divide it by 68%. Its as if 50.000 is only 60% of the whole picture.
How much if you divide 50,000 by 68%? (I dont know the answer)You get the full value. How much will your employer pay to
the BIR? 32% of the grossed up value.

27. Ill illustrate that in simpler terms. If youre given a household helper, to live with you in the condominium unit, and the
company is paying the household helper for 6,800 a month, how much is your fringe benefit?

GMV Formula : Php 6,800

68% How much did you really get:
_________ Php 6,800
Php 10,000 (Fringe Benefit plus Tax) + 3,200
X 32% (Fringe Benefit Tax)
________ _________
Php 3,200.00 Php 10,000

What is your fringe benefit is the 6800 net. How will the employer pay the tax? Will the employer simply compute the 32%
directly on the 6800? No, because this is net. You gross it up by dividing it by 68%. 6800 is only 68% of the entire value of the
benefit you are getting. So if you gross it up, it is 10,000. So you received this benefit plus the tax. This is what you are really
getting from the company. 6800 worth of services per month plus the tax that the BIR is collecting from the employer.
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Since fringe benefit is computed at 32%, how much is the tax paid to the government every month? 32% of the GMV? 3,200.
Double check, how much benefit did you really get from the employer? 6800, the presence of your maid plus the tax that is paid
, total of 10,000. Its simple algebra (??). This is really more burdensome. Why? Its computed by grossing up. What you received
is grossed up.

Question: Are we going to compute in the exam?

Tiu: If therell be computation, it is for illustration lang.

28. The reason why its 32% is because the highest rate that is imposed on employees is 32%. What happens if the employee is a
special alien employee subject to 15%? And that special employee is given a housing benefit of 85,000 rates per month? Do we
use the 32% fringe benefits tax on a special employee?

NO. for special employees, income derived by special employees, what is used is 15%.

If its a special employee, the fringe benefits tax is 15% of the GMV. For ordinary mortals just like us, our fringe benefit will be
computed at 32% of the GMV by our employer. But if we belong to special employees, since your special, get special rate. 15%.
Special employees are subject to 15% preferential rate on their income. Only insofar as its related to their employment, not
other income. But because they are subject to special rate of 15%, the FBT on their benefits is also computed at 15%, not the

29. Therefore, if the special employee is getting a monthly housing benefit, free stay in a 10 bedroom unit, what is the GMV of
85,000 for special employee? How do you gross it up?


GMV Formula : Php 85,000 Housing Benefit True Value:
85% Php 85,000 (Net Free Stay)
__________ + 15,000 (FBT)
Php 100,000 _________
X 15% Php 100,000
Php 15,000

85,000 times 85%. 85% because the 15% there is the fringe benefit tax. The GMV is 100,000. How much will the government
pay? If youre a special employee, the FB that youll be receiving is only subject to a lower rate of 15%.if you want to know what
is the true value of the benefit received, you have to gross it up by adding the tax component of the benefit. You should use
85%, not 68%. 68% is the difference between the full benefit minus the tax. This is only 85% of what youre getting because 15%
is the tax. Therefore you gross it up by 85%, youll get the full benefit of 100,000 which is actually the 15% tax plus the free stay
in the condominium unit.

30. That is not all. There is another alien individual subject to special rate to a flat rate of 25%. Who are these individuals?

Non resident aliens who are not engaged in business or trade are subject to a flat rate of 25%. Who are non resident aliens who
are not engaged? Those who are transient or sojourners and they stay here for 180 days or less. I love days, so in the exam, you
should know 180 days or less.

Non resident aliens not engaged in trade or business, their FBT is not 32%, not 15%, but 25% of the GMV. If youre computing
for the grossed up of a non resident alien not engaged in trade or business, what is your divisor? 75% here. And 25% here.


GMV Formula : Php 75,000 Housing Benefit True Value:
75% Php 75,000 (Net Free Stay)
__________ + 25,000 (FBT)
Php 100,000 _________
X 25% Php 100,000
Php 25,000

Whenever you are given a benefit that qualifies as FB, never mind the tax. Its the employer who computes for the tax. You will
not be concerned of being deducted of any tax, not even your basic salary will be deducted of FBT. But for bar purposes and this
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class, you should know whos liable and whos not. When you should liable for the payment of tax, etc, and who are these
concerned people.

31. Now, not all benefits are taxable. There are benefits which are exempt from tax. What are these?

Rank and file employees benefits Why are these not subject to FBT? For rank and file, it will be included in their computation
of their ordinary income. FBT applies only to non rank and file employees.

32. de minimis benefits What are de minimis benefits? They are those benefits that are small amount/value and given to promote
goodwill. Example. Rice allowance. Clothing allowance. If youre given a clothing allowance, without limit, for Prada clothing
brand, is that de minimis? Not anymore, does not fall within the definition that it should be in small amount. When you say de
minimis, these are benefits of relatively small value. So you will know that when you are given a rice allowance, its your basic
need. But if the rice given to you is jasmine rice, its no longer exempt, because its no longer a small value. What is de minimis
in so far as rice allowance is concerned? only 1500 in value, whether given in cash or kind. Only to the extent of 1500. Clothing
allowance, de minimis would only be up to the extent of 4000 per year. You dont expect to change wardrobe every month.

Rice as De Minimis Benefit

Php 2,000 (Value of the Rice)

Less 1,500 (Allowed De Minimis Benefit)
Php 500 (Taxable) Note if excess is taxable:
If NRF: subject to fringe benefit tax
If RF: subject to ordinary income tax

Take Note can still use exclusions on benefits worth at least Php 30,000:

Php 10,000 - Php 30,000 = Php 20,000

13th Month Pay Exclusions allowed (So include the Php 500 under this exclusion to be exempted)

Example, rice allowance per month is 2000. What is considered de minimis is only 1500 per month. So the 500 per month is
actually taxable, not the entire 2000. But you remember in exclusions from gross income, wherein it says there , 13 th month pay
and other benefits not exceeding 30,000 during the entire year, will be exempt. So if your salary is only 10,000, your 13 th month
pay is 10,000. Usually thats how its computed, if its 20,000 thats the 14 th month. So if your 13th month pay is 10,000, the free
space is 20,000 - to use for exemption- for other allowances which does not qualify under de minimis.

If a rank and file employee receives this benefit, he has to pay the tax on the excess. If the employee who receives is non rank
and file, it is the company who will shoulder the tax by grossing this up.

When you say de minimis, its defined as benefits of small value. Benefits of relatively small value it has already been put into
writing. So if its rice allowance, its 1500 per month. If its uniform, 4000 per annum. Laundry allowance, 300 per month.
Medical allowance to the dependents of the employees, its 1500 per year in cash. Dependents. But medical benefits to the
employee himself which should not be in cash is 10,000 per annum, to be de minimis. See the disparity. If its the dependent,
medical allowance its 1500 per year, if its the employee its 10,000 per year in kind. He has to submit official receipts for
medicines and it does not include vitamins. Christmas bonus of 5000 per annum is exempt and it is not included in the 30,000
package. Achievement, loyalty awards may be exempt to the extent of 10,000 so long as its given in kind. What youll have to do
is if you are to be awarded for not being late the entire year- no tardiness award- 10,000 because the maximum is 10,000, if
its given in cash to you, its taxable. If rank and file- taxable, youll receive only around 7000. If youre non rank and file, you may
get the 10,000, the company will gross it up and pay FBT. What youll have to do is to not receive it in 10,000 cash. Negotiate
with the employer that you want this item from a store, valued at 10,000, let the company buy it for you and give it to you as an
award. The law says tangible property, not including tax.

Benefits given to non rank and file are exempt fringe benefits. Theyre exempt from FBT, but it does not mean that its not
subject to the ordinary tax on rank and file employees. Because the nature of the exemption in number one is the recipient, the
type of tax. The tax is still there but it cannot be FBT because their status is non rank and file. But for de minimis benefits, the
exemption goes into the benefit itself, whoever the recipient is. So its exempt whether received by rank and file or non rank and
file employees. It depends on the exemption.
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33. Another exempt fringe benefit : Contributions of the employer for the benefit of the employee to retirement, insurance and
hospitalization benefits plan- So what is this really? Does it include the premiums paid by the employer on a life insurance
policy on the life of its president?


What does it refer to? What type of plans?

We have mentioned before, whenever a company takes out a life insurance policy over the life of its president or key personnel,
we have to know who the beneficiary is for purposes of knowing whether it becomes income on the part of the insured.

Probably youll remember this. Two sides of the spectrum. Premiums as income and premiums as exempt. Same type of
privilege. Two insurance policies taken out by one company over the same person. But the first company beneficiary is the
company itself. In the second one the administrator of the estate. 100K premiums per year (first insurance), 50K premiums per
year (second insurance). How much was paid every year? 150,000 as premiums. Premiums may or may not be considered as
income on whose part? The employee. Can it be considered as an expense or not an expense on whose part? The employer.

Number one, is the 100K premium paid by the employer an income on the part of the employee if the beneficiary is the
company itself? Simple recall. Theres always logic in the principle behind why its subject to tax. The company took out two
insurance companies. Beneficiaries different, two premium payments. This same premium is something to the employee and
something to the employer. This is a benefit to the one who was insured and an expense because it is an outflow for the one
who insured it. Question, is it deductible expense on the employer and is it a taxable income on employee? This was discussed
in Section 32 B, life insurance proceeds in section 36, non-deductible. Since the employee was insured, but it was the company
who was the beneficiary, is it really an income on the employee that is taxable? No, because it will redound to the company

If the beneficiary is the administrator, it is taxable income on the part of the employee.

BEN = Company = Php 100,000 / year PREMIUM

BEN = Employee or Administrator = Php 50,000 / year


Employee Employer
Amount Taxable? Amount TAXABLE?
COMPANY Php 100,000 Not Taxable Php 100,000 Not deductible

EMPLOYEE / ADMINISTRATOR Php 100,000 Taxable Php 100,000 Deductible

Is this what is meant by the 3rd exemption on fringe benefit? NO.

This is not meant by the 3rd Exemption in the outline under fringe benefit.
What is meant by the 3rd exemption is the exemption on the group insurance.

There were outflows of cash, 150,000, is it deductible expense on the part of the company if the beneficiary is the company
itself? 100,000 is not deductible. Why? It is the return of capital. If the beneficiary is the administrator, can the company deduct
the premiums as expense? Yes, deductible.
If its not an income that is taxable on the part of the employee, it is not an expense deductible on the part of the employer. If it
is taxable as income on the part of the employee, it is deductible on the part of the employer.
In relation to exempt fringe benefits, this is what we are looking. Premium payments are income to the employee- If the
beneficiary is the employee himself. Is this the one that is exempt in our outline? Premium contributions by the employer for
the benefit of the employee in a life insurance policy? Is it exempt? Taxable. Not the one referred to.

Our discussion before did not really distinguish what type of tax will be collected by the BIR if this taxable. Now we know, If he is
non rank and file, he is subjected to FBT. But if he is rank and file, subjected to ordinary tax rates. So this is exempt. What is
exempt is, this was in the quiz, contributions made by the employer on insurance policies, whether for retirement, insurance,
health, hospitalization for the group of employees. The reason is why it is not taxable the outflows of the employer does not
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(Student: does not directly benefit the specific employee) There is no specific benefit received by the employee because the
policy taken is a group retirement, group insurance or health or group hospitalization insurance.

34. Next item. Employers convenience rule. Exempt because it is required by the nature of the trade, business or profession of
the company or employer. It is for the convenience of the employer, it just part of the expenses of the company. Therefore it is
not really redounding to the benefit of the employee- rank and file or non rank and file.

35. And there is another item, FB which are authorized or exempted from tax under special laws. The catch all provision. (Student):
there is a law which specifies that such benefit may not be subject to FBT.

Were done with fringe benefits.

36. Expenses for foreign travel becomes subject to FBT only if it is not for business purposes. And for you to be able to prove that its
for business purposes and for the company to avoid the FBT, the company should present a letter of invitation from abroad. Its
the requirement under the regulations, a letter of invitation. So that if you have an employee and he wants to go abroad for
vacation, just make sure he makes some side trip for business purposes. The airfare, allowances are exempt. The round trip
tickets for abroad is not really that cheap, its expensive if not Asia. Its entirely exempt from FBT if its for business purposes,
unless the flight taken is first class. So even if its for business purpose, if the flight is first class, its taxable to the extent of 30%.
Why? You dont really travel first class for business.

Were done with the first category, compensation income. We said that all types of compensation for service rendered whether
given in cash or in kind are as a rule subject to tax, unless if it is exempt.

37. Second type is Business/Professional Income.

So, if an employee can earn compensation from working, an employee can also earn business or professional income from an
activity and it is also subject to 5-32%. It is not really interesting it will become interesting when we come to corporate taxation.

BUSINESS TAX: 5% - 32%

38. Lets go to the third. What is the third of income that can be earned by an individual? Passive income. What is passive income?
Whats opposite of passive? Active. Is this active income? (Compensation income) Yes. Is this active income? (Professional
income) Yes.
What is passive income as opposed to active income? When you come across an income wherein there is no active participation
on the part of income earner to generate the fund, like interest income on bank deposit, thats passive income. You put the
money there and you let it grow. You dont really engage in a business, trade or profession and you dont get employed to get
that interest. That is an example of a passive income. There are many kinds of passive income. Opposite of course is active,
those that you really venture into regular activities to come up with the money.

We said that compensation income and business income is subject to the regular rates of 5-32% applicable to individuals as a
rule. Is passive income covered by the 5-32% rate? Passive income is not covered by the same rate. What is the method of
taxing a passive income? Passive income, is subjected to final tax.

Passive incomes are subjected to final taxes. What is a final tax? Sometimes its called final withholding tax, sometimes final
income tax. There is always the word final. Final is always attached to the word (tax?) PASSIVE. What is final income tax? Final
income tax is a (Final tax is a particular tax made separately from the income tax) you have no idea? Next question.

39. Give me a passive income. Royalties. Give me an example of a royalty that derives royalty income. Software. When you purchase
a software that is not off-shelf but rather customized and there is a transfer of technical know-how or technical knowledge, it
will require the payment of royalty fees. If you pass on some technical knowledge for the manufacture of this microchip or item,
it will be subject to royalty fees. Being a royalty fee, royalty income that is passive income, just pass on the knowledge and it will
generate royalty fee. Its a passive income subject to final tax.

Now, how will it be taxed?

Technical Knowledge (TKH)
Earns Income
HE Royalty Income
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 77

This is U. This is HE. HE transferred technical know-how. You are to pay royalty fees for the knowledge he transferred to you
where you can generate iPud. Who is earning income here? HE. He has royalty income. Its a passive income. After he
transferred the knowledge, he generates funds royalty fees based on a certain percentage of the sales you generated from
selling it.

Who will pay the tax?

What did we say of passive incomes? Passive incomes are subject to final tax. And final tax is remember taxation at source?
There are two types of taxation at source. Creditable withholding tax and final withholding tax. Final withholding tax is only
imposed on passive incomes. Now, there is what we call as withholding mechanism. The income earner is no longer required to
reflect the passive income as part of his income at the end of the year, because it has already been subjected with finality
through the final tax withheld by the who will withhold the tax?

Passive incomes are those incomes generated from inactivity, those you dont venture into as a business, etc. passive incomes
are incomes which are not considered as part of your business at the end of the year or as part of compensation income.
Whenever a passive income is generated and earned by U, it is expected that it will be withheld of final tax by the payor. When
the final tax is withheld by the payor, example, royalty is subject to 20% if the income earner is RC, NRC, RA. When a passive
income has been withheld of tax, the effect is it is already taxed with finality. The tax withheld is constituted as the full and
final payment , forget about the income after it is earned. You dont have to consider it as part of the other income and
recomputed the tax again. Its not part of the income at the end of the year, not part of your withholding tax of your income tax
return. Because it is taxed at every time the income is earned. Remember pay as you earn system, remember taxation at
source? The source of the income itself at the time it is earned, is subject to tax.

40. You sought for a franchise of Julies bakeshop. You pay a franchise fee, just like royalty fees based on the sales that you generate
for selling. The fee payments that you made on a regular basis to Julies bakeshop for the franchise that you got- is it subject to
withholding tax as a passive income?


Sought for Julies Bakeshop Franchise HE Reports such

income as income
HE subject to 5% -
You pay FRANCHISE FEES 32% income tax.

Not all realties are subject to passive income tax.

Why not? Is Julies bakeshop engaged in a business extending franchises? Yes. Therefore, if any royalties are paid to Julies is that
a royalty income that is passive on the part of Julies or active income? Active income. Being an active income, will it be subject
to the final tax of 20%? No. Are you required to withhold the tax? No. so what will Julies do with the payments that you made?
It will form part of the 5-32% tax of Julies. Point is, not all royalties are passive income. If the income earner of a royalty is really
engaged in extending royalties, franchises and other intangible assets, then it is no longer passive. Its not inactivity. The
business itself is extending franchises, it will not be considered as passive income, therefore no final taxes, therefore the one
paying the royalty is not expected to withhold equivalent to at the end of the year, the payment simply forms part of business
income subject to 5-32%.

41. This is a royalty payment that you are making for a technical know-how. Really passive. But you are a NRA. You obtain 1 million
in royalties every year. Passive income. Is it subject to 20% final tax?

Non resident foreign corporation-NETB, you got technical know-how from a domestic corporation. Is it subject to the final
withholding tax of 20%? Youre engaged in business abroad but you are classified in the Philippines as not engaged in trade and
business. Is your payment to the domestic corporation subject to 20% withholding tax?
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 78

NRFC Domestic Corp.

Technical Knowledge Domestic Corp.
declares it as
HE income subject to
iPUD Royaltee Fees income tax.

Not an income within for the Non-Resident Foreign Corp.

A. Can you really do the withholding from abroad? If the one paying who is expected to withhold is not from here, is abroad, not
registered with the BIR, there can be no withholding. The government of the Philippines cannot compel this one to withhold.
Even if passive income, no withholding because there is no withholding agent. What the domestic corporation will do is simply
declare by itself the income and be subjected to (rates).

So it simply means that the passive income subject to final tax must be an income that is paid by one who can be considered a
withholding agent in the Philippines. Payment in the Philippines, in short.

AUG. 10, 2010 Tuesday

- Situation: Mr. X is a legal consultant of A corporation. He was given as part of his compensation package housing allowance. Is
that subject to fringe benefits tax (FBT)?
o NO, since FBT would only be applicable to fringe benefits granted to managerial or supervisory employees.
o Can FBT arise in a non-employer-employee relationship?
FBT can only arise in a fringe benefit which is granted in an ER-EE relationship. If no ER-EE relationship exists,
no FBT would be due but whatever is the benefit received by that independent contractor would be taxable
on the part of the contractor by declaring it as part of his gross income.

- How do we compute FBT?

o 32% final tax of the grossed-up monetary value (GMV)
o And how is GMV derived?
Refer to last-meetings discussion

- Is FBT a final tax?

o YES.
o What is a final tax? Is there a relation between a final tax and passive income?
YES, since passive income is subject to final tax.
Is fringe benefit subject to FBT, which is a final tax? YES.
Therefore, fringe benefit is a passive income?
Fringe benefit is not a passive income because its earned through continuous activity or services
rendered by the employee, who is a non-rank-and-file employee
Passive income is an income derived from an activity in which the taxpayer does not materially
participate or an income from inactivity and passive income is subject to final tax.
As we have said also, a final tax constitutes as the full and final settlement or payment of the tax
due from the payee on such particular income.
So whenever a passive income is earned by the person, whom we call as payee of that passive
income, any final tax that has been imposed already on that income is considered as the full and
final settlement. No need for that payee-taxpayer to declare that passive income as part of his
gross income at the end of the year in filing the ITR (income tax return) because its already paid of
final taxes.
How is the final tax collected by the government on a passive income?
o By a withholding agent final tax is withheld
o Is final tax the same as final withholding tax?
Final income tax is the tax itself that is imposed on a passive income. But when
you say that its a final withholding tax, it is the mode and manner of collecting
the taxes.
Whose obligation is it to withhold the taxes?
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 79

The payor is the one obligated to withhold the final tax on the
passive income that is paid to the payee.
Payee is the one who is going to receive the passive income
So the obligation to withhold the tax, the one constituted as the
withholding agent by the government, is the payor and in case he
fails to withhold the taxes, who has a liability to the government?
Against whom can the government run after?
o Example: If there is A and B. B is the one earning the
passive income and A is the withholding agent. A paid
100K royalties to B. Whose obligation is it to withhold? A.
But the income-earner is? B. In case no withholding is
made, the 20% is not withheld on the gross, (Remember:
the final tax is imposed based on the gross amount
without benefit of any deduction for personal exemption,
even if B is an individual no deduction for passive
income). Now in case A forgets to withhold the 20% final
tax on the royalty payments to B, from whom can the BIR
seek collection of taxes, surcharges, penalties?

as Php 100,000 Passive
withholdin Income
g agent Earner

If A failed to withhold 20% of the royalty, A will pay:

20% + 25% surcharge+20% interest per annum

Under the Tax Code, every person paying a

passive income that needs to be withheld of tax
is designated as a withholding agent by the
government and is imposed with personal
liability for the payment of taxes in cases of non-
So the consequences for non-withholding is that
the withholding agent becomes liable for
surcharge and interests and liable for conviction
to a penalty equal to the amount of taxes not
So in this case, if Mr. A failed to withhold the
20% final tax on the 100K, how much is A liable
to the government? 20% of 100K, which is 20K
plus surcharge of 25% plus interest running from
the date he should have withheld the tax until
the date he settles it with the BIR. So if its like 3
years from now, 3 years of 20% interest per
When does the obligation to withhold the tax arise?
At the point when the income is earned
Example: Based on the royalty contract, the 100K is payable on Dec.
31, 2010. But effectivity of the contract and the transfer of technical
knowledge started Aug. 10, 2010. But the 100K is actually paid on
January 31, 2011, when should Mr. A, the payor, withhold the tax
and remit it to the government? When is it earned? When is the
withholding tax due? If the contract be terminated tomorrow and
you have remitted the tax already, do you think BIR will refund you
for that?
o Withholding of final taxes on passive income shall be made
at the time the passive income is paid or payable
whichever comes first.
o When you say payable, it must be due and demandable.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 80

1 Year:
Payable on December 31, 2010 A B
Effective: August 10, 2010 as Php 100,000 Passive
Paid: January 31, 2011 withholdin Income
g agent Earner
Therefore, it must be paid on
December 31, 2010

- What is taxation at source? What are the 2 types of taxation at source?

o Taxation at source is taxing it from the source of income from the point it is earned
o 2 types of taxation at source or manners of collecting taxes:
Final withholding tax (FWT)
Creditable withholding tax (CWT)
Both are withholding taxes, the payor, who pays the income to the payee, has the obligation to
o 1. Its just that if its a FWT, the income that must be withheld of tax is passive income
while a CWT, its ordinary income ordinary in the sense that its part of business, trade
or profession.
o 2. In a FWT, the amount of tax withheld is constituted as the full and final payment of tax
so that the passive income will never form part of the gross income of the taxpayer at
the end of the year. (Remember: In passive income, you simply forget about it right after
it has been withheld of tax because it has been fully paid and finally paid of taxes; no
longer part of the gross income at the end of the year; final settlement of taxes happen
at the point where income is paid or payable, whichever comes first). While in CWT,
whatever taxes withheld under the CWT system is a tax which equals or approximates
the tax due on the ordinary income earned by the payee.
Example: Whenever a deduction is required to be withheld of tax, the payor
should withhold, otherwise, he is not allowed to claim it as a deduction, such
as rent expense. Rent expense should be withheld of 5% CWT. So the rent
expense of the payor is the rent income of the payee and the rent income of
the payee is simply an ordinary income. Is an ordinary income of rent by the
payee part of his gross income at the end of the year? YES. Is he liable for tax
to 5-32% as an individual at the end of the year? YES. But can the BIR wait at
the end of the year for the payee to declare the tax and pay the tax? NO.
CWT and FWT are simply collection schemes or the manner of how the BIR
collects the taxes. In CWT, it simply means to say that the BIR is advancing the
collection of taxes from the ordinary income for which the final settlement of
taxes will happen at the end of the year. In FWT, the full and final settlement of
the taxes happened at the point where the income is paid or payable,
whichever comes first.
At the end of the year, the tax, which has been withheld under the CWT
system applicable to ordinary income, will simply be off-setted against the
total tax due.
Example: 100K monthly rent. His income at the end of the year is 1.2M.
Assuming, the tax due is 350K. How much was withheld under the CWT
mechanism of 5% per month? 5% of 100K is 5,000 over a period of 12 months,
which is 60K. The BIR already got 60K through the CWT mechanism. Every
month, 5,000. But the word creditable means it will be credited against the tax
due at the end of the year, which is 60K. So, you only have to pay 290K at the
end of the year.
However, in passive income, this type of income, do not include
them in your ordinary income because its already collected fully and
its already finally settled at the time that the income is paid or
In the FWT system, there is no need to include the passive income as part of
the ITR of the taxpayer and no need to pay taxes at the end of the year.
Whatever was withheld is already the final taxes. No other approximation or
computation at the end of the year.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 81

Taxation At Source 2 Kinds:

Final Withholding Tax Creditable Withholding Tax

1. Passive Income 1. Ordinary Income

2. Full and Final Settlement 2. Tax which equals or approximates with the ordinary

3. No longer part of gross income 3. Part of Gross Income End of the Year, the tax withheld
will simply be offsetted against the total tax due.

Example shown below

Computation of Tax Withheld: Example:

Rent Income per month Php 100,000.00 Rent Income per month Php 100,000
x 12
5% of 100,000 (amount withheld) 5,000.00
X 12 months x 12 Tax Due 350,000.00
Amount Withheld Yearly 60,000.00 Less: Tax Withheld 60,000.00

- In CWT system, the withholding agent is still liable in case of failure to withhold taxes since he is statutory taxpayer. However,
the ordinary income earner will declare it at the end of the year. If the withholding agent can prove to the BIR that the ordinary
income earner fully declared the income and paid the tax without deducting any withholding tax (because there was really no
credits no withholding made), the withholding agent can escape paying the basic withholding tax that he failed to withhold.
What he only needs to pay is the interest. Why interest? Because the BIR failed to get hold the money on the monthly basis. Tax
payment was only made by the ordinary income earner at the end of the year, which is different from FWT system since a
passive income earner is not required to file an ITR and make a part of his gross income the passive income. The CWT system is
much tedious since you have to get the records of the ordinary income earner just so to prove that he actually and fully paid the
taxes thereon.

- Question: If the rent payment is 100K, how much must the payee declare in his gross income? The full 100K or the 95K net
already of the 5% withholding tax?
o Another distinction between CWT and FWT is that any income earned by an ordinary income earner has to declare it
as part of his gross income at the end of the year when he files his ITR.
o Must he declare the full income of 100K or the net after tax withheld, meaning 100K or 95K only after the 5% had
been withheld of tax?
In all cases, an ordinary income earner must declare the full amount, whether there has been withholding or
not because the BIR has to determine the correct tax at the end of the year. The question will be did he have
any credits for which a CWT has been withheld.
- Is your salary or compensation subject to FWT or CWT?
o It is still a form of CWT since as you earn income monthly, the taxes that have been withheld would be accumulated
and considered as part of annualizing your total income for the calendar year.
- Royalties
o Are all royalties subject to final tax of 20%? What is covered by royalties subject to final tax?
Royalties is subject to 20% final tax except in the case of literary works, books and musical compositions,
which are subject to 10% final tax.
Lets say there is a royalty income earned by Mr. A. It did not arise from literary works nor books and musical
compositions. Is it automatically subject to 20% final tax?
Criteria is:
o 1. It must not be among those special royalties earned (literary works, books and musical
o 2. It must be a passive income
o 3. It must be derived from sources within the Philippines
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 82

Otherwise, if royalty income, is derived from sources abroad, regardless of

who the payee is, the Philippines has no control over the withholding agent,
thus, it is not covered by the FWT.
So the first thing we have to look into is that:
Is the royalty income a passive income? We can only say its passive income if the income-earner
or payee is not in the business of extending royalties.
o Example of a business in the habit of extending royalties: JULIES BAKESHOP you pay
franchise fee upfront but your sales will be covered by royalty payments, a certain
percentage of your sales you will have to pay it to JULIES or even MCDONALDS or
JOLLIBEE. They are in the habit of extending franchises, therefore, it becomes an
ordinary income for their part. We dont have to withhold the final tax since JOLLIBEE,
MCDONALDS and JULIES BAKESHOP will simply declare it as part of its gross income at
the end of the year subject to the ordinary income tax rates.
Second thing to consider is that passive income of royalties must be derived from sources within
the Philippines, which it has jurisdiction over the withholding agent.
o REASON: If there is no jurisdiction over the withholding agent, the Philippines cannot
enforce him to withhold the tax and cannot run after him in case of non-withholding.
o If that happens, even if the royalty income is categorized as a passive income, if the
withholding agent is from outside and the income earner is a resident citizen
(Remember: a resident citizen as income earner is taxable from sources within and
without), so if its a resident citizen who is the one earning the royalty income but it so
happens that the payor is NRA-NETB, a person over which the Philippines has no
jurisdiction, then no need for that NRA to withhold the FWT. Simply, the taxpayer will
have to declare as part of his income.
- NOTE: A RA is taxed similarly as a RC while a NRA-ETB is taxed similarly as a RC and as a RA. You will see that they have the same
withholding tax rates if these persons (RA and NRA-ETB) earn the royalty income within the Philippines.
- NOTE: NRA-NETB is subject to a flat rate of 25% on all its income except:
o Gain on sale of shares of stock in any domestic corporation
o Gain on sale of real property located in the Philippines (Sec. 25)

RC (within or without) NRC (within) RA (within) NRA-ETB (within) NRA-NETB (within)

Royalties, all others 20% 20% 20% 20% 25%
Royalties, LW, B, MC 10% 10% 10% 10% 25%
Prizes 20% 20% 20% 20% 25%
Winnings, exc PCSO and 20% 20% 20% 20% 25%
Interest, Regular 20% 20% 20% 20% 25%
Interest, FCDU 7.5% - 7.5% - -
Interest, LT, TF, DS - - - - 25%
Dividends 10% 10% 10% 20% 25%
Shares in a TP 10% 10% 10% 20% 25%

- Prizes
o Are prizes passive income?
REMEMBER: In exclusions from gross income, we have two types of prizes and awards:
1. Those given in recognition of education, literary, civic, religious, charitable achievements so long
as you did not actively participate and that no future services that have to be rendered
2. Those given in sports competitions duly sanctioned by the National Sports Association of the
Philippines and the Philippine Olympic Committee
o These are exclusions from gross income and becomes only taxable if you do not satisfy
all the requisites and if you do not satisfy all the requisites, you fall under this passive
income while you are not in a habit of joining contests unless you make it a business.
o Example: You joined Mr. Pogi in USC. You won 20K, subject to final tax?
Is that passive income? YES
Subject to final tax? YES
If your prize is only 10K? Not subject to final tax but subject to income tax
If your prize is exceeding 10K, it will be subject to final tax of 20%, whoever the payor is will withhold the
tax. So that SM, if you win 100K, you only expect to receive 80K because it will be withheld of 20% final tax.
But for smaller prizes, 10K and below, no tax shall be withheld but since it still an income, an inflow of
wealth, you have to consider this as part of your gross income at the end of the year computed of the 5-32%
tax. You do not say that it is not taxable since everything is taxable as prizes and awards unless it falls under
the exclusions from gross income.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 83

20% Final Withholding Tax

Php 10,000 5% - 32% Income Tax

- Winnings
o Situation: You won 1M abroad, subject to final tax?
Not subject to final tax. So long as prizes and winning are not given on account of services rendered (future
or past; since it is already considered as compensation income where situs is where the services are
rendered), it will be considered as having situs in the place where it is given. If its given in the US, it will
have situs abroad. If youre the recipient and a resident citizen, it is taxable actually but since the
withholding agent is not within the Philippines, the income is derived from sources outside the Philippines,
there is no final tax to be withheld. It would only be subject to the ordinary tax in the Philippines. It will form
part of the gross income of the taxpayer at the end of the year, not final tax.
Are all winnings having situs in the Philippines subject to final tax? NO, since winnings from PCSO and Lotto
are not subject to any tax
If you win super lotto, 100M, you will be free of taxes.

- Interests
o If you have a bank deposit in Sweden and it is earning interest, is it subject to final tax in the Philippines?
NO since only sources from within the Philippines interest having situs in the Philippines.
We have what we call interest income coming from the expanded foreign currency deposit unit system (FCD)
in foreign currency. Is it subject to the same rate as 20% and 25% for NRA-NETB?
NO. Foreign currency deposit unit system (FCDU), example: You invest and you deposit in dollars
under the FCDU system (RA 8424). RC and RA will be subjected to FWT of 7.5% but for those non-
residents, whether citizen or aliens, will be considered as exempt because the expanded foreign
currency deposit unit system is considered as an extension from outside.
Interest from long-term deposits, trust funds and deposit substitutes
Since its long term, it will be exempt. (Remember: In exclusions from gross income, when it has a
maturity period of 5 years or more, it will not be subject to any withholding tax by the financial
institution) but this will be taxable if preterminated time deposits.
o Example: If 5-year time deposit. Youre not going to be withheld of the 20% final tax no
tax. Whatever promise of interest, you will get in full. But once you preterminate it along
the way before it matures 5 years, you will be withheld of tax. Correspondingly, if its less
than 3 years at the time you preterminated it, it will be subject to 20% FWT, just like a
regular withholding tax. If you preterminate it 3 years to less than 4 years, 12%. If you
preterminate it more than 4 years but less than 5 years, only 5%.

RC (within or without) NRC (within) RA (within) NRA-ETB (within) NRA-NETB (within)

Interest, LT, TF, DS - - - - 25%

If Preterminated:
4 less than 5 years: 5%
3 less than 4 years: 12%
Less than 3 years: 20%

- Dividends
o Example: There is a company who is going to declare the profits to its stockholders 5 stockholders of different status.
Is the dividend going to be declared by Company B subject to final tax?
Would all dividends declared by a corporation, cash or property, be subject to final tax in the Philippines?
YES, but the corporation or Company B must be a domestic corporation since the dividends will have
Philippine situs and will have a Philippine withholding agent.
Why can we not subject to final tax the dividends declared by a foreign corporation as a rule?
What dividends will be subject to final tax?
1. Dividends declared by a domestic corporation since domestic corporations declaring dividends,
the dividends will have Philippine situs and will have a Philippines withholding agent.
2. Taxable partnerships which are domestic
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 84

3. Joint stock companies, joint consortiums which are considered as corporations and domestic
o You do not restrict yourself to looking at domestic corporations only but you have as well
taxable partnerships, other corporations, associations, which declare dividends so long
as it is domestic, the dividend having situs in the Philippines will be subject to Philippine
final tax.
Having situs in the Philippines and having a domestic Philippine withholding agent, is the dividends of the 5
stockholders subject to final tax? YES.
NRA-NETB is subject to 25% final tax on all income derived from sources within the Philippines except capital
gains from sale of shares of stock in a domestic corporation and capital gains from sale of real property
located in the Philippines.
NRA-ETB is subject to 20% final tax
Dividends paid by a domestic corporation is subject to final tax in the Philippines.
How about dividends paid by a foreign corporation? Is that subject to Philippine final tax?
Remember: Situs of income taxation as regards dividends
As a rule, dividends given by a foreign corporation, if its really foreign (not operational in the
Philippines), will not be covered by Philippine final tax. But if the foreign corporations operations
is more than 85% in the Philippines, it is considered as a domestic corporation. If more than 50%,
partly taxable in the Philippines. If it is less than 50%, situs is abroad, therefore, not covered of
Philippine final tax.
1 Resident Citizen: 10%

Company B 2 Non- Resident Citizen 10%

Must be a domestic

5 Resident Alien: 10 %

4 Non-Resident Alien Not 3 Non-Resident Alien Engaged in

Engaged in Trade or Business: 25% Trade or Business: 20%

1 Resident Corporation

Comp. B Now a 2 Non- Resident Citizen

foreign corp.
Follow the rule on
situs on dividend
5 Resident Alien

4 Non- Resident Alien Not 3 Non- Resident Alien Engaged in

Engaged in Trade or Business Trade or Business
- Share in a Partnership
o Is the partnership obligated to withhold final tax?
Any income that will be distributed or to be distributed by a partnership other than a general professional
partnership, it will be treated as a profit distributed by a corporation.
For tax purposes, a taxable partnership is taxed similarly as a corporation so any profit distribution by the
partnership will be taxed similarly as a corporation.
Taxable partnership does not include general professional partnership.
Therefore, the share in a taxable partnership will be considered as dividend, thus, such partnership is
considered a corporate taxpayer.
- Is a capital gains tax a final tax?
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 85

o Capital gains derived from sale of shares of stock and capital gains derived from the sale of real property are subject to
capital gains tax (CGT). You do not call it withholding tax.
o What are the 3 types of capital assets?
1. Sale of shares of stock subject to CGT
2. Sale of real property not used in trade or business subject to CGT
3. All others which are not considered as ordinary assets subject to ordinary tax
o Is capital gains an ordinary income, meaning, is that an income derived from an ordinary activity?
NO, so that CGT is a final tax. Every time that it is collected by the government, no withholding involved just
like fringe benefits. But its a final tax in the sense that the capital gains from the shares of stock sold and
real property sold is an activity that is not made often. Its capital asset its not in relation to any business.
o Example: Corporation B. You are a stockholder. You have 1K shares, which you bought at 1.00/share. The total value of
the shares is 1K. You sold it to your seatmate for 2.00/share. Did you earn income? YES, 1K, and such income is called
capital gains. Is it subject to CGT? YES.
What if the corporation issuing the shares is a foreign corporation? Sec. 24 (c) of the Tax Code. Since it does
not come within the ambit of capital gains tax all shares issued by a domestic corporation, thus, shares of
stock in a foreign corporation will not be covered by the 5% CGT in the first 100K nor 10% on any excess but
will still be considered an income because its an inflow of wealth, it will be taxable at the end of the year
using the ordinary tax rate of 5-32%.
So automatically, every time its not an exclusion from gross income, such income is always taxable. The
question will be is it final tax, CGT, or ordinary tax.
Lets say Corporation B is a domestic corporation. For the 5% CGT and 10% CGT to apply, it must be shares
sold by a stockholder to another person and the shares must be issued by a domestic corporation. The
manner of selling is also important. The share must not be listed through local stock exchange and must not
be traded through local stock exchange (local stock exchange Philippine stock exchange). If both exist,
listed in the stock exchange and traded in the stock exchange, it will be covered by Sec. 127 on the stock
transaction tax (STT) of of 1% of the gross selling price.
For the 5% or 10% to apply, the stocks sold must not be listed and traded in the stock exchange because if it
is listed and traded, it will be covered by another provision of the Tax Code, which is Sec. 127 on stock
transaction tax.
What happens if the stocks that you sold to your seatmate is listed in the stock exchange but you did not sell
it in the stock exchange, instead, you sold it personally to her? Is it covered by STT or CGT? Listed but not
sold through the stock exchange? CGT. STT of of 1% of the gross selling price is very restrictive. It will only
apply if it is both listed and traded in the stock exchange. If its listed but not traded in the stock exchange
(over-the-counter sale), automatically, the CGT of 5% or 10% will apply.
In CGT, if no gains derived, no tax. However, in STT, whether or not you derived a gain/profit, since the basis
is the gross selling price, it will be subject to STT.

Stockholder 1000 @ 1.00/share= Php 1,000.00

2.00/share= 2,000.00
Company B Php 1,000.00 Capital Gains

- If both traded and listed through the local stock exchange, follow Section 127 STT: of 1% of GSP.
- If listed but sold personally (meaning not either listed or traded), follow the rule on capital gains.

- The provision of 5 and 10% CGT is different from STT. The of 1% STT on the gross selling price would only apply if the shares
being sold by you as the stockholder to another person is both listed and traded in stock exchange. Absent any of the
requirements of listed and traded, even if its listed but not traded or totally not listed in the stock exchange, meaning its not a
public corporation, with more reason not traded in the stock exchange, you apply the 5% and 10%.

- Corporation means domestic corporation. No foreign corporation.

- 5% if the CG is 100K or less and 10% if more than 100K
- When you say capital gain, that is only the gain after you deduct the cost of the shares that you have sold.

- Example: 1M shares at 1.00/share so you actually bought it at 1M and you sold it to your seatmate at 2.00/share so you have
2M gross selling price, not listed, not traded. How much is the CG? 1M. How much is the tax due to the government?
o The law provides that the CG of 100K or less is subject to 5% CGT. Any excess over 100K CG is subject to 10%.
Therefore, first 100K (5%) 5K. The excess of 900K (10%) 90K. Thus, the tax due is 95K.
o You dont categorize your income automatically to 10% if the CG is more than 100K. Always, its 5% for the first 100K.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 86

Stockholder 1,000,000 @ 1.00/share= Php 1,000,000.00 Cost

2.00/share= 2,000,000.00 Sold it to seatmate
Company B Php 1,000,000.00 Capital Gains

Tax Due on Php 1,000,000:

Rule on Capital Gains: 1st Php 100,000 = Php 5,000
5% (100,000 or less Capital Gains) Excess Php 900,000 = Php 90,000
10% (Over 100,000 Capital Gains) Tax Due Php 95,000.00

- Now, change of facts. You own 200K shares. You bought it at 1.00/share. Cost is 200K. You sold it at 2.00/share so youre gross
selling price if 400K. So that the CG is 200K. How much is the tax due?
o First 100K (5%) 5K plus excess of 100K (10%) 10K = a total of 15K

Stockholder 200,000 @ 1.00/share= Php 200,000.00 Cost

2.00/share= 400,000.00 Gross Selling Price
Company B Php 200,000.00 Capital Gains

Tax Due on Php 200,000:

1st Php 100,000 = Php 5,000
Excess Php 100,000 = Php 10,000
Tax Due Php 15,000.00

- You sold the preceding transaction today, Aug. 10. Tomorrow, Aug. 11, you had another transaction. You sold 300K shares at
1.00 each. So cost is 300K. You sold it at 2.00 so the gross selling price is 600K, not listed, not traded. CG is 300K. What is your
liability to the government? This is your transaction no. 2 during the calendar year.

o The 5%-10% rule is made to apply to all capital gains transaction on sale of shares of stock during the calendar year
by.. So he can only avail one time of the first 5% on the first 100K. Any subsequent sales, if its already beyond the
100K, automatically 10%. But you dont have to tell the BIR that that is your second transaction.
o The point is, during the calendar year, avail of the 5%-10% only one time. If your first transaction has only 50K CG,
automatically 5%. 2nd transaction, you still have free 50K for 5% and the rest is 10% until the end of the year.

ON AUGUST 10, 2010: You traded:

Stockholder 200,000 @ 1.00/share= Php 200,000.00 Cost

2.00/share= 400,000.00 Gross Selling Price
Company B Php 200,000.00 Capital Gains

Tax Due on Php 200,000:

1st Php 100,000 = Php 5,000
Excess Php 100,000 = Php 10,000
Tax Due Php 15,000.00
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 87

Then, ON AUGUST 11, 2010: You traded again:

Stockholder 300,000 @ 1.00/share= Php 300,000.00 Cost

2.00/share= 600,000.00 Gross Selling Price
Company B Php 300,000.00 Capital Gains

Tax Due on Php 300,000:

Total Php 300,000 = Php 300,000
X 10%
Tax Due Php 30,000

- If youre a broker of shares, will you be covered by 5 and 10%?

o NO, since a broker is engaging in business of trading shares of stock, therefore, his taxability would be covered by
ordinary tax rates of 5-32%
o If you are in the business of selling shares of stock, its no longer passive income, its no longer capital income because
it becomes youre ordinary transaction subject to the ordinary tax rates of 5-32% as an individual.

- What if Corporation B issuing the shares as a foreign corporation, will it be subject to Philippine tax of 5 and 10%?
o NO since it is not a domestic corporation. Not being a domestic corporation, foreign corporations have situs outside
the Philippines and only resident citizens are taxable within and without. Therefore, resident citizens receiving gains
from sale of shares of stock issued by a foreign corporation would be taxable at the rate, not 5 and 10%, but 5-32%. All
others, RA, NRA-ETB, NRA-NETB, no tax on shares sold by a foreign corporation because situs is without, as a rule.

Capital gains on sales of real property

Capital Gains on Real Property Considered as CAPITAL ASSETS

- Would all sale of real property be subject to the CGT of 6%?

o NO, since if the sale of real property is part of his real estate business then it will never be subject to CGT since a
person or corporation engaged in real estate business is ordinarily engaged in real estate transactions, therefore, their
real properties shall be considered as ordinary assets not subject to CGT. What is subject to CGT is only capital gains
from capital assets.
- If you are in a manufacturing business and you sell your parcel of land in which you utilized it for manufacturing plant or factory,
is it subject to CGT of 6% or is it subject to the ordinary rate of 5-32%?
o The subject parcel of land is an ordinary asset. Being an ordinary asset, it does not satisfy the requirement that for 6%
CGT to apply, it must be imposed on the sale of real property considered as capital asset. Capital assets are those
which are not ordinary assets. Real properties used in business are considered as ordinary assets. Therefore, the sale
of the subject parcel of land is subject to the ordinary rate of 5-32%.
- Example of real property, that is considered as a capital asset subject to the 6% CGT
o Residential lot is a capital asset. If he decides to sell it, it will be subject to the 6% CGT on the gross selling price or the
zonal value, whichever is higher.
o Zonal value can be derived by the (found in Sec. 6 of the Tax Code) BIR or Local Assessor
o There are 3 choices, whichever is higher:
1. Gross selling price as decided by the parties
2. Fair market value (FMV), may be the zonal value by the Local Assessor
3. FMV by the BIR Commissioner
Whichever is higher of these three, it will be the basis of the 6% CGT, regardless of any income
earned, meaning, even if you sell your capital asset of real property at a loss, because the basis is
the gross selling price or FMV, whichever is higher. There is at all times a basis on which the tax will
be imposed on. There could be no 0 gross selling price or no 0 FMV, otherwise, it becomes a
donation if its 0 gross selling price.
o The FMV the price at which the seller is not obligated to sell and the buyer is not obligated to buy. This type of FMW
is not part of the choices.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 88

Basis of Capital Gains Tax:

Gross Selling Price - Decided by the parties

Local Assessor
Section 6 Capital Gains Tax
Fair Market Value
Local Assessor

Fair Market Value This is the price you are not obligated to sell and not obligated to buy

Fair Market Value

- Situation: You have a residential lot in the US. You also have a principal residence with a house (home) in the Philippines. You
sold both properties. Will you be subject to the 6% CGT on both properties?
o Residence assumes that you have a family inside. (home)
Requirements to be exempt from CGT on sale of principal residence:
1. Proceeds are fully utilized in acquiring or constructing a new principal residence within 18
months from the date of sale or disposition
o What happens if you dont utilize the entire proceeds from the sale of the residential
home to construct another house?
If the proceeds of the sale of your principal residence is not fully utilized to
construct or acquire another principal residence within 18 months, the
difference or the excess will be subject to the CGT.
2. Historical cost or adjusted basis of the real property sold or disposed shall be carried over to the
new principal residence built or acquired
o This simply means that whatever the value of the principal residence that you sold, it
will still be the value of the new house constructed. So subsequently, your new house
that you constructed, the cost is the old cost or the historical cost of your new house. It
will have a bearing because if you sell it subsequently, the cost will still be way below
because its based on the old property.
3. Notice to the Commissioner of Internal Revenue shall be given within 30 days from the date of
sale or disposition
4. This exemption can only be availed of once every 10 years
5. If the proceeds of the sale were not fully utilized, the portion of the gain presumed to have been
realized from the sale or disposition shall be subject to CGT
o If you intend to sell your principal residence, it will be exempted from the 6% CGT on the following conditions:
1. Your principal residence is certified to as your principal residence by the barangay in your area
2. It must be located in the Philippines
3. The proceeds derived in the sale must be used to acquire or construct a new principal residence within 18
4. Notify the Bureau within 30 days that you are availing of the exemption
Reasonable because in every capital gains sale of real property or shares of stock, you have to file
the CGT return within 30 days
5. Historical cost or adjusted basis of the real property sold or disposed shall be carried over to the new
principal residence built or acquired
6. Availed of only once every 10 years
o How about the residential lot sold abroad? Subject to 6% CGT or 5-32% ordinary tax rates?
Subject to the ordinary tax rates of 5-32%
For 6% CGT to apply:
1. It must be a real property
2. The real property must be classified as a capital asset (not used in trade or business; not
primarily sold)
3. It must be located in the Philippines
Anything that is located abroad and is sold, even if its a real property considered as a capital asset, will be
subject to 5-32% if the seller is a RC.
But if the residential lot is located abroad and the seller is NRA, not subject to any Philippine tax since he is
only taxed from sources within.
What if its a RA selling residential lot located in his home country? NO, since situs of real property
is where such property is located so if its a real property located abroad, only resident citizens will
be taxable for its sale. All other taxpayers, who are only taxable for sources within the Philippines,
would not be taxable on a residential lot sold and located abroad.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 89

o GR: All real properties considered as capital assets located in the Philippines is subject to 6% CGT on the gross selling
price or FMV, whichever is higher.
1. Sale involves principal residence provided the requisites are complied with
2. Property is located abroad
3. If the buyer of the real property is the government, political subdivisions or GOCCs, in which
case, the seller will have the option of being taxed at 6% or the graduated rates of 5-32% as an
individual taxpayer.
o Which do you prefer? Based on the 6% CGT of gross selling price or FMV or graduated rates of 5-32%?
Example: Gross selling price or FMV is 10M. Cost is 9M. You have 1M profit. Do you want to be taxed at 6%
or 5-32% if you are given an option when the buyer is the government?
If you are selling at a loss, then go to 5-32% because such tax rate is based on the profit (net
taxable income)
But if you are selling at a higher gain, go for 6% CGT.
But if youre gain is just minimal, you compute. 6% of 1M, you are expected to pay 600K. 5-32% of
1M, you are expected to pay 285K.

FMV = Php 10,000,000.00 If based on the CGT of 6%:

Cost = 9,000,000.00 10,000,000 @ 6% = 600,000
Php 1,000,000.00
If Based on the graduated rate:
Php FIRST 500,000 @ 32% = 160,000
EXCESS OF 500,000 @ 25% = 125,000
- Categories of income that an individual taxpayer may earn:
o 1. Compensation income for services rendered
o 2. Income from business, trade or profession
o 3. Passive income due to material inactivity of the taxpayer
o 4. Capital gains on sales of shares of stock which is not listed in the local stock exchange or even if listed, so long as its
not traded through the local stock exchange
o 5. Capital gains on sales of real property considered as capital assets and located in the Philippines
o 6. Other income
a. Rent income other than royalties
b. Interest income other than interest income on bank deposit
c. Dividend income
d. Income from other sources and this may include:
d.1. Bad debts recovered
d.2. Illegal gains derived from gambling
d.3. Tax refunds
d.4. Compensation for private property expropriated by the government for public use
d.5. Damages
d.6. cancellation of indebtedness

- Cancellation of indebtedness
o If it must be without rendition for services, past or future, it may be considered as a donation or gifts subjected to
donors tax, thus excluded from gross income, thus, not subject to income tax.
o If service will be rendered, it will be considered as a compensation and subject to income tax

- Bad debts recovered and tax refunds

o They may be subject to income tax.
o If the bad debts, at the time that it was claimed as an expense, has benefited the taxpayer by paying less due to the
availment of the expense, the recovery of that will be considered as an income to offset the expense that you have
claimed prior.
o If at the time of claiming the bad debts as an expense did not benefit tax wise the taxpayer, when it is subsequently
recovered, the bad debts will not be taxable.
o BAD DEBTS unpaid debts
o Example: Lets say that youre Mr. A. You have extended a loan of 100K to Mr. B. Mr. B failed to pay. You are in the
business of selling cosmetics. Mr. B was judicially declared insolvent so that Mr. A could no longer collect. In 2009, you
had 1M net income before deducting the credit that you have extended to Mr. A. Cosmetics you delivered to Mr. B to
sell, he failed to pay. So you considered bad debts as an expense. If you 100K as an expense, you actually will be
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 90

paying tax only on the 900K. But your tax was reduced to the extent of the tax on the 100K expense for the unpaid
debts. In 2011, Mr. B won the lotto so that he paid you 100K. You receive 100K. Is that 100K that you recovered from
Mr. B taxable or not?
Taxable because at the time you decided that you can no longer collect the 100K, you deducted it as an
expense benefiting you from being taxed on the 100K. Instead of being taxed of 1M, it is only 900K because
you claimed the 100K as an expense.
When the bad debts was recovered, it will be considered as taxable because it benefited you at the time you
deducted the expense.
What are the requirements to be able to deduct bad debts as an expense?
1. The indebtedness must be entirely worthless.
2. The indebtedness must no longer be collectible after taking legal steps to recover it.

MR. A MR. B (Declared Insolvent)

Php 100,000.00

Failed to pay

2009: Mr. A decided to deduct it as bad debt: 2011: MR. B PAID:

Net Income Php 1,000,000 Paid Php 100,000

Bad Debt Deduction (100,000)
X 5% - 32%

o If you have only 100K net income, then you deducted the bad debts of 100K as an expense, will the subsequent
recovery of the bad debts be taxable?
YES, since you benefited. Youre net income before the bad debts is 100K but because you deducted the bad
debts of 100K, you did not pay any tax. Instead of paying tax on the 100K net income, you deducted the
100K bad debts, you did not pay any tax. You were benefited to the extent of the tax on the 100K, therefore,
any subsequent recovery is taxable.
o But if you are actually operating at a negative loss, you will deduct the bad debts which was worthless and
uncollectible. Will the subsequent recovery be taxable?
NO, since you were not benefited. Whether or not you deducted the 100K bad debts, still you will not be
paying any tax because you were at a loss prior to you availing the expense deduction on bad debts.
A subsequently recovered bad debts can only be made taxable at the time of recovery if such bad debts
benefited the individual at the time of payment as an expense.

Next Scenario: Same as Mr. A as creditor and Mr. B as declared insolvent:

2009: Mr. A decided to deduct it as bad debt: 2011: MR. B PAID:

Net Income Php (100,000) Paid Php 100,000

Bad Debt Deduction (100,000)
--- 0 ---
X 5% - 32%

o Say for example: Your net income is 50K. At this time, you decided to deduct the bad debts because its already
worthless and uncollectible. Will the subsequent recovery of 100K be taxable?
YES, but only partial because the benefit was also partial. You wipe out only 50K for the year so youll only
be taxable 50K when its recovered.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 91

Next Scenario: Same as Mr. A as creditor and Mr. B as declared insolvent:

2009: Mr. A decided to deduct it as bad debt: 2011: MR. B PAID:

Net Income Php 50,000 Paid Php 100,000

Bad Debt Deduction (100,000)
--- 0 ---
X 5% - 32%
NO TAX DUE FIRST Php 500,000: 2nd Php 500,000:

Entitlement to deductions
- Taxpayers, the 4 of them (RC, NRC, RA, NRA-ETB), they are all allowed to claim deductions.
- The NRA-NETB is subject to the flat rate of 25% on gross income without the benefit of any deductions.
- How about special employees?
o Special employees are subject to the flat rate of 15% - no business income, otherwise, if they have business income,
they will still be covered to the 5-32% or the 25% flat rate.

- What are the deductions allowed to the individuals if an individual is simply working without earning business income,
o Personal and additional exemptions

o Kinds of personal exemption:

1. Basic personal exemption 50K

What status do you have to be if you want to claim 50K personal exemption? Is it regardless of
being single or married? YES. Do we still have head of the family? NO.
Every individual taxpayer, whether hes actually working as an employee or engaged in business,
every one of us is entitled to basic personal exemption of 50K, regardless of our status whether
single or married.

2. Additional exemption 25K for every qualified dependent, but not to exceed 4
Who is allowed to claim additional exemption? Those taxpayers who have qualified dependents
but not to exceed 4
Qualified dependents refers only to the legitimate, illegitimate or legally adopted children of the
o The child is:
i. living with the taxpayer
ii. Chiefly dependent upon the taxpayer for support
iii. Not more than 21 years of age
iv. Not married
v. not gainfully employed or, even though over 21 years old, incapable of self
support because of mental or physical defect
If you are 21 years of age, is there by any chance he be considered as a qualified dependent?
o YES if you are incapable of self-support because of mental or physical defect.
Every person having a qualified dependent is allowed to claim additional exemption of 25K up to
the maximum of 4.
A qualified dependent is a child, whether legitimate, illegitimate or legally adopted, who must not
be more than 21 years of age, living with the taxpayer claiming the exemption, chiefly dependent
on the latter for support, not gainfully employed (he can be employed but if its not gainful
employment, he can still qualify as a dependent), not married.
If you lack any of the above requirements, you will be taken out from the list of qualified

Can a senior citizen being taken cared of by a taxpayer be considered a dependent?

o Senior citizen someone who is at least 60 years old and earning along the poverty line
of not more than 60K.
o Senior citizens cannot be treated as a qualified dependent since dependents only pertain
to children. So additional exemption would only refer to children.

o SEE TABLE: refer to outline

T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 92


Basic Personal X
Additional Exemption (Only to Children) X X

Only these 3 are allowed to claim additional exemption!

- A NRA-ETB can only claim basic personal exemption of 50K if his home country allows Filipinos not residing in that home country
to also claim personal exemption. But in so far as the amount of exemption is concerned, how much will the NRA-ETB be
o Lifeblood doctrine. If the home country of the NRA-ETB grants similar personal exemptions to Filipinos not residing in
that home country in an amount of not more than 50K, lets say for example 20K only for Filipinos there, then the
NRA-ETB can only claim 20K as personal exemption. If the Filipino can claim 100K, then the NRA-ETB can only claim
50K. All in favor of the government.

- Situation: You have a child who was born on January 1, 1989. If you file your ITR for 2010, can you claim your child as a qualified
o Here the child is almost 22 by the end of December 2010. Taking into consideration your income from Jan. 1 to Dec.
31, 2010, can you claim your child as 25K additional exemption? YES. Status-at-the-end-of-the-year rule. Whatever
changes in the status of the child at the end of the year, whether it be a death, a birth or marriage, everything in favor
of the taxpayer will have to be construed. Everything is made as if he was born earlier or later.

You have a child born on: January 1, 1989

Can claim on 2010?
Note: By the end of December 2010 almost 22 years old.

January 1 ------------------------- December 31, 2010

Covered as Additional Dependent

o If such child got married on Dec. 31, 2010, can you still claim for the additional exemption?
YES. There wouldnt be any difference. All in favor of the taxpayer. But the subsequent year 2011,
automatically, such child is no longer part of the qualified dependent since he is more than 21 and hes
already married.

January 1 ------------------------- December 31, 2010 (Your child got Married on Dec. 31, 2010)

Covered as Additional Dependent

- NOTE: The requirement for you to be able to claim as qualified dependent, he must be living with you, not necessarily everyday
in your house. He may stay away during the course of studying law, for example. You are still considered as living with your
parents. AND chiefly dependent so that your allowances would have to come from them.
o So if there is a slight deviation such as when youre living with them but chiefly dependent from someone else, then
you will not be covered by the qualified dependents.

- Who can claim the deduction of 25K? Both spouses?

o The default for claiming the deduction is the husband in case both are working.
o But if only one is working, automatically claiming the additional exemption belongs to the working spouse.
o But can the husband waive his right to claim the additional exemption in case both are working? YES
Is it automatic waiver? Or what are the requirements for waiving?
For a husband to relinquish his right in claiming the additional exemption against his gross income,
the husband must explicitly put into writing his waiver and inform the BIR and his employer and
the wifes employer in order for the wife to validly claim the additional exemption.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 93

- What is the other deduction allowed to a purely employed individual?

o Premiums on health and hospital insurance
o Here, who took the insurance?
Employee, not employer
For the premium payments deductible, the insurance should be taken by the employee himself. So if youre
the employee right now, you have an insurance policy on health and hospitalization. You took it out on your
own. Inform your employer that you will deduct 2,400 so long as your family income is not more than 250K.
o Can all individuals claim as deduction the premium payments on health and hospital insurance?
o So I am an employee and I take out a health and hospital insurance for which I am paying 100K annual premiums, can I
deduct it from my gross compensation income in USC?
NO, since we must have to consider the limitations:
i. premium payments deducted must not be more than 2,400 a year (i.e. 200 a month)
ii. The immediate family of the taxpayer must have an income of not more than 250K a year
o This refers to minimum wage income earners
o If you have still your father, mother and youre single, and your father is earning 100K a
year, your mother is earning 100K a year, and youre earning 100K a year, thats a total of
300K. You can no longer qualify deducting the 2,400 premiums a year
iii. The claimant must be the spouse claiming the additional exemption
o What spouse?
In default, the husband if both are working but if only one is working, the
employee-spouse. If husband validly waives, then its the wife.

- The deductions of personal and additional exemptions plus the premiums on health and hospital insurance are deductible from
the compensation income of an individual who is purely employed
o What if he engages in business having purely business income and/or engaged in business and still employed (mixed
income), can he avail of the said deductions?
Personal and additional exemptions
Premiums on health and hospital insurance
Itemized deductions
Say for example youre a businesswoman. You have a sole proprietorship. What deductions can you avail of?
Personal and additional exemptions
Premiums on health and hospital insurance
Itemized deductions those expenses incurred in relation to trade, business or profession
o Is the itemized deductions available to all types of classes of individual taxpayers
engaged in business?
So long as the individual is engaged in trade or business, he can claim itemized
deductions but only to the extent of the expenses incurred in relation to trade,
business or profession and incurred in the Philippines for those taxable of
income from sources within.
If your taxable as a RC on global income, then it is rightful that you also claim
the global expense as well. But if youre a RA or a NRA-ETB, who is taxable
from income only within, then only the expenses incurred within the
Philippines is offsettable against such income.
Exceptions to claiming itemized deductions:
Individual taxpayers earning purely compensation income since
personal and family living expenses are non-deductible items
NRA-NETB since they are taxed on their gross income without
benefit of deduction
Aliens employed by Regional Area HQs, Regional Operating HQs,
Offshore Banking Units, Petroleum Service Contractors &
Subcontractors because they are only taxable on their compensation
income except when they are engaged in business

- What is optional standard deduction (OSD)?

o A standard deduction available to individuals except NRA, in an amount not exceeding 40% of the gross income, in lieu
of itemized deductions.
o It is a fixed percentage at 40% allowed as a deduction against the gross income of certain taxpayers without any
regard of whether actually expenses have been incurred or not. Its arbitrary rate of 40%.
o Proof of substantiation for such expense of 40% deduction is not necessary. So automatically, 40% of your gross
income is deductible if you opt for OSD.
T A X A T I O N I T R A N S C R I P T I O N S 2010 2011 of Atty. Emery Tiu Page | 94

o If you are a taxpayer having a business, sole proprietorship. You opted for OSD in filing your 1 st quarter ITR. You
realized 2nd quarter or 3rd quarter or annual, when you try to consolidate everything, that your actual expenses
supported by official receipts and invoices is way higher than the 40% OSD. Can you choose itemized deduction at the
end of the year?

1st 2nd 3rd 4th

40% OSD Revocable?

NO. The OSD of 40%, once you opt to go for OSD during the 1 st quarter, it becomes irrevocable during the
entire year, regardless of whether you actually incurred expenses at the end of the year 90% of your gross
income, you can no longer change your option.
Although, the default is always itemized deduction. Without indicating that you choose OSD of 40%,
automatically the BIR will go for itemized deduction.
Who are allowed to claim OSD?
RC, NRC and RA.
NRA are not allowed to claim OSD.
Itemized Deduction X
Optional Standard Deduction X X
Corporations, can they claim OSD?
YES, except non-resident corporations