ACT Class Workbook Student Edition (2.25.2016)

ACT Workbook
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2016 Revolution Prep, LLC. All rights reserved. Version 2-16.
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2 R E VOL U T I ON P REP ACT W O RK B O O K

Contents
Introduction
About the Course . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Test Overview . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Content Overview . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
The Test Zone . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21
Class 1
Science: Student as Scientist . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25
Math: Tricks and Traps . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33
Homework . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 47
Class 2
Reading: Determining Central Ideas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 67
English: Grammar & Punctuation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 79
Math: Arithmetic & Formulas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 91
Homework . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 105
Class 3
Writing: IBC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 129
Science: Charts & Graphs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 137
Math: Algebra . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 143
Homework . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 159
Class 4
Science: Multiple Experiments . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 185
English: Writing Style & Word Choice . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 191
Math: Planar Geometry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 201
Homework . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 219
R EVOL UTION PR EP ACT W O RK B O O K 3

Contents
Class 5
Reading: Analyzing Multiple Texts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 245
Science: Conflicting Viewpoints . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 253
English: Student as Editor . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 257
Math: Coordinate Geometry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 263
Math: Additional Topics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 271
Homework . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 279
Class 6
The Test Zone: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 311
English: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 315
Math: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 321
Reading: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 331
Science: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 335
Writing: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 339
Test Day Checklist . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 345
Appendix
Math: Advanced Concepts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 349
Common Math Formulas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 359

A b o ut the Cours e
About The Course

Weekly Classes and Tests
Each week, there will be at least one lecture session, one practice test, and a homework assignment.
To make the most of your Revolution Prep Program, a student must attend every class, take every
exam, and complete all assigned homework.
Course Materials You Must Bring to Class:

Revolution Prep Workbook
Revolution Prep practice exams and answer sheets
A Comfortable Learning Environment

Disrespectful behavior towards teachers or fellow students will not be tolerated and is grounds for
dismissal from the course without a refund of course tuition.
Revolution Prep Does NOT Register You for the ACT!

You must register through the College Board at http://www.collegeboard.com
Make sure you register before the deadline (~three weeks before your test day). Sign up sooner
rather than later: as the registration deadline approaches the test gets more expensive and nearby
testing locations may fill up.
Questions or Comments
Revolution Prep provides the best ACT course available. If you have any questions about the course,
including comments about your instructor, please dont hesitate to call 1-877-REV-PREP to speak
with a Revolution Prep representative.

Introduction:
Test Overview

In tr o d u c t io n
Why Does the ACT Matter?

What are the Main Factors in College Admission?
Big impact on admissions

relative to the time investment!
Application: 25% 25%

Essays Application ACT
Recommendations
Extra-curricular activities
--Sports/Clubs
--Volunteer work 50%
--Jobs Academic Transcript
Academic Transcript:
Grade Point Average (GPA)
Class rigor
What is a Good ACT Score?

An average score is roughly 21 points per section.
A good score depends on what colleges you want to apply to.
AVERAGE
TARGET UNIVERSITIES
ACT SCORE
Harvard, Yale, Stanford, Princeton, Univ. of Chicago, Columbia, Northwestern, Elite

Notre Dame 32+
Most Competitive
Georgetown, Emory, UCLA, USC, UC Berkeley, Rice, NYU, Univ. of Michigan
29-31
San Diego State, Syracuse, Univ. of Wisconsin, Univ. of Illinois, Ohio State Univ., Highly Competitive
UC Irvine 26-28
Very Competitive
SUNY Schools, Texas A&M, Oklahoma State, Loyola Marymount, Arizona State
23-25
Western Kentucky, California State Long Beach, Morehouse, Framingham State, Competitive
Jackson State 20-22

Te st O verview
Format of the ACT

Length
TEST TYPE LENGTH
1 English 45 minutes
2 Math 60 minutes
3 Reading 35 minutes
4 Science 35 minutes
5 Writing (Optional) 40 minutes
Total with Writing 3 hours 35 minutes
ACT Order of Difficulty

Math questions generally increase in difficulty as you move through a section.
Obvious answers are usually correct earlier in the section and incorrect later in the section.
English, Reading, and Science questions are of randomly varying difficulty throughout each section.
ACT Scoring
The four multiple choice sections are each scored from 1 to 36.
Your composite score is the rounded average of these four scores (1 to 36).
The Essay is scored from 1 to 36. The Essay does not factor into your composite score.

ACT Scoring Chart
RAW SCORES
SCALE SCORE SCALE SCORE
ENGLISH MATH READING SCIENCE
36 75 60 40 40 36
35 74 59 39 - 35
34 73 58 38 39 34
33 72 57 - - 33
32 71 55-56 37 38 32
31 70 54 36 - 31
30 68-69 52-53 35 37 30
29 67 50-51 34 36 29
28 65-66 48-49 32-33 35 28
27 63-64 45-47 31 34 27
26 61-62 43-44 30 33 26
25 58-60 41-42 28-29 31-32 25
24 56-57 38-40 27 30 24
23 54-55 36-37 25-26 28-29 23
22 52-53 34-35 24 27 22
21 49-51 32-33 23 25-26 21
20 46-48 30-31 21-22 23-24 20
19 43-45 28-29 20 21-22 19
18 40-42 25-27 19 19-20 18
17 38-39 21-24 18 17-18 17
16 36-37 18-20 17 15-16 16
15 33-35 15-17 15-16 14 15
14 30-32 12-14 14 13 14
13 28-29 9-11 12-13 11-12 13
12 26-27 7-8 10-11 10 12
11 24-25 6 8-9 9 11
10 21-23 5 7 7-8 10
9 18-20 4 6 6 9
8 15-17 3 5 5 8
7 12-14 - 4 4 7
6 10-11 2 - 3 6
5 8-9 - 3 2 5
4 6-7 1 2 - 4
3 4-5 - - 1 3
2 2-3 - 1 - 2
1 0-1 0 0 0 1

Te st O verview
What is Tested?
English
Whats scary: it measures your understanding of standard written English.
Whats not-so-scary: theres no spelling, no vocabulary, and no complicated terminology.
Math
All the math you were trying to forget: Pre-Algebra, Algebra, Coordinate & Plane Geometry, and
Trigonometry.
To get a great score, you dont even need to answer all of the Trigonometry questions!
Reading
If you are reading this, then its already clear you can read boring material. Now, you just need to
learn how to answer the questions correctly. This has a lot less to do with knowledge than with your
ability to survive mind-numbing reading passages.
Science
This is not your typical science test. In fact, it is not a science test at all. You do not need to
memorize facts. Instead, the questions require you to interpret charts and graphs and pull out the
necessary information.
Writing
Forty minutes, one writing prompt. Youll be asked to take a position and defend it. Its all about
structure; your essay score will not be affected by the position you take.
You will learn what the test will be like every time. No surprises on test day.

ACT FAQS
Can I take the ACT more than once?
If I take the ACT more than once, will colleges receive all my scores?
Which colleges receive my ACT results?
Can colleges view my ACT essay?
Are my ACT scores measures of my intelligence?

Te st O verview
Pacing and Guessing

Guessing on the ACT
There is no penalty for wrong answers on the ACT and every question is worth the same
point value.
-- First: Answer all the questions you know how to do.
-- Next: Make educated guesses on questions for which you can eliminate answers.
-- Last: Guess randomly on questions about which you have no clue.
Pacing on the ACT

DONT RUSH to answer every question.
-- If youre regularly making careless mistakes, you must slow down.
-- Spend test time working on the problems you know how to do.
-- Spend homework time working on the problems you dont know how to do.
DONT HESITATE to cut loose.
-- If youre unsure whether youve wasted a lot of time on a question, you already have!
-- If you stare at a question and cant figure out anything, move on!
-- The longer a question takes, the less it can help your score.
DONT WORRY about timing for every single question.
-- Good Move: Staying aware of how much time is left in a test.
-- Bad Move: Calculating how much time is left per question in a test.
-- Develop a sense of test pacing from your practice tests and homework.
-- Do the math on the test, not on the clock.

Introduction:
Content Overview
Key Points:
The ACT is testing stuff that you already know!
What makes the ACT challenging is that it
takes things that you know and tests them
slightly differently than high school!

Test 1: English
Section Structure
45 Minutes for 75 Questions Five single passages, 15 questions each.
ACT English Concepts

Basic Grammar and Syntax
-- Prepositions, punctuation, verbs, etc.
Main Idea Analysis
Words in Context
Quick English Tips

Read period to period.
Trust your grammar ear!
Stay confident you know all the grammar you need to know.
Identify the grammatical issue that is being tested.
Dont make a problem harder than it is.
Dont make stupid mistakes stay focused.

Co nte nt O verview
Test 2: Math
Section Structure
60 Minutes for 60 Questions
ACT Math Concepts

Algebra
-- Formulas, expressions, and equations
Data analysis
-- Ratios, proportions, and percentages
Advanced math
-- Quadratics and polynomials
Additional topics
-- Geometry and trigonometry
Quick Math Tips

Stay confident you know all the math you need to know!
Identify the concept that is being tested.

Test 3: Reading
Section Structure
35 Minutes for 40 Questions Four passages
Three single passages, one paired passage.
Fiction, Social Science, Humanities, and Natural Science
ACT Reading Concepts

Understanding main ideas and purpose
Analyzing characters
Defining words in context
Quick Reading Tips

Read for main ideas.
Save time by skimming details.
Always anticipate your answer.
Always eliminate choices to find the correct answer.
Dont spend too much time on any one question.

Co nte nt O verview
Test 4: Science
Section Structure
35 Minutes for 40 Questions Six passages, three types of passage.
Charts and graphs
Multiple experiments
Conflicting viewpoints
ACT Science Concepts

Reading charts
Understanding main ideas
Applying quantitative information
Drawing conclusions
Quick Science Tips

Work on your best passages first.
Dont get bogged down in details.
Look for trends in provided data.
Eliminate choices to find the correct answer.
Dont spend too much time on any one question.

Test 5: Writing
Section Structure
40 Minutes for 1 Prompt
ACT Essay Concepts

Reading Comprehension
Analyzing Arguments
Effective Writing Communication
Quick Essay Tips

Make sure your essay structure includes introduction, body, and conclusion paragraphs.
Make sure your essay content includes a thesis and supporting evidence.
Make sure your essay incorporates the provided perspectives.
Take time to brainstorm your ideas before writing your essay.

The Test Zone
Key Points:
Apply it on the ACT and every other test that
you ever take!
Figure out what techniques work best to get
you into the test zone.

THE DIFFERENCE
BETWEEN A GOOD DAY
AND A BAD DAY CAN BE
3 TO 5 POINTS
THE TEST ZONE IS ABOUT
MAKING SURE YOU HAVE
A GOOD DAY

The Tes t Zone
What is the Test Zone?

The Test Zone is a state in which you are in complete control of yourself and the exam, so you can
make the test work for you, not the test makers.
Losing focus on one Its easy to stop caring

question can throw about the test (its
you off for the next BORING!). You need
few questions. to remind yourself
why you have to
You need to work
care about every
through the test one
question, every time
question at time
(COLLEGE!).
and forget about
everything else!
Focus Motivation
Test
Zone
The ACT is a long test!

Over three hours of
sitting and pretending
to care about
Endurance pronouns, probability,
and passages. You
need to get your brain
used to THINKING
for the entire time,
so that you have the
necessary energy until
the last question.
Success on the ACT is as Much About Heart and Attitude as Intelligence

I t doesnt matter how much you know if you are not mentally and physically prepared to take the test.
Being prepared is about being in the Test Zone.
Make the Test Zone your new best friend.

Apply it on the ACT and every other test you take!

Endurance
Warning signs:
Your mind starts wandering.
You start thinking about what youre going to do after the exam.
Helpful remedies:
Make the effort to stay focused for the entirety of every class.
Take your practice tests seriously. Bring the intensity that you would bring to the official test.
Do your homework assignments in one sitting.
Motivation
Warning signs:
You miss a word or two in a question and miss the question.
You fall into careless and easy traps.
You dont try questions that you dont immediately know how to solve.
Helpful remedies:
Attack the exam aggressively, as though you were battling a mortal enemy.
Use the strategies and do not take shortcuts.
Always give it a shot, write things down, get your pencil moving.
Focus
Warning signs:
Your mind starts wandering.
You start thinking about what youre going to do after the exam.
You have a song lyric that you cant get out of your head.
Helpful remedies:
Practice outside of class in a public place to get used to dealing with distractions.
Develop a routine and follow it for the practice exams.

Class 1
Science:
Student as Scientist
Key Points:
ACT Science passages are very predictable
knowing what to expect is half the battle.
You must use your time wisely, so work on your
best passages first.

Cla s s 1
The Science Test 6 Passages / 40 Questions / 35 Minutes
WHAT A REAL SCIENCE TEST TESTS WHAT THE ACT SCIENCE TEST TESTS
Names of the parts of a plant cell Your ability to find stuff
Effects of gravity on planetary motion The stuff just happens to be science-

related
Subatomic structure of magnesium
Six Passages, Three Types

Charts & Graphs
-- Describes one experiment, using graphs, tables, diagrams, and figures.
-- Questions focus on finding specific data and drawing simple conclusions.
Multiple Experiments
-- Describes multiple experiments, using graphs, tables, diagrams, and figures.
-- Questions focus on understanding the differences between the experiments and

interpreting the results.
Conflicting Viewpoints
-- Contains descriptions of multiple hypotheses or viewpoints on a scientific topic.
-- Questions focus on understanding the differences between the viewpoints.
-- Do this passage last!
Pacing - Beat the ACT Clock

35 minutes, 6 passages
-- Look before you leap: Scan the passages and start with your best subjects and passage types.
-- Dont get bogged down in the details: you dont need to understand everything about the
experiment to answer the questions.

Sci e nce : Stud e nt as S c ient is t
Student as Scientist Strategy

Student as a Scientist
While we cant predict the specific science topics that will appear, we know that each passage will
follow the same format.
Every passage will have an Intro, Experiment(s) Set-up, and Data.
Problem Solving Strategy Steps

Scan the section and start with your best passages.
-- This should only take 1 minute.

Identify the type of passage.
-- You can anticipate the types of questions that will be asked based on the passage type.
Skim the charts and graphs, or the experiment descriptions/viewpoints.
-- Review the titles of the tables, and headings of the axes.
-- Look for clear trends.
-- Note any key differences between experiments or viewpoints.

Go to the questions.
-- Research the question using the passage.
-- Anticipate your answer.
-- Eliminate wrong answer choices.
Question Types
DRAWING ALTERING THE BASIC SCIENCE

READING CHARTS
CONCLUSIONS EXPERIMENT KNOWLEDGE

Cla s s 1
Practice
Passage 1
A simple alcohol is a hydrocarbon chain with an OH

functional group bonded to one of the carbon atoms. Within
simple alcohols, primary alcohols have an OH group
bonded to the end of the hydrocarbon chain, while
secondary alcohols have the OH group bonded to one of
the middle carbons in the chain. Table 1 below shows the
structures of several different primary and secondary
alcohols. The melting points of each alcohol are listed in
Table 2, and the density of each alcohol in Table 3.
Table 1
Number of Carbon Atoms Type of Alcohol Name Structure
Primary ethanol H 3C-CH 2-OH

2
Secondary (none) (none)
Primary 1 - propanol H 3C-CH 2-CH 2-OH
3 H 3C-CH 2-CH 3
Secondary 2 - propanol
OH
Primary 1 - butanol H 3C-CH 2-CH 2-CH 2-OH
4 H 3C-CH 2-CH 2-CH 3

Secondary 2- butanol
OH
Primary 1 - pentanol H 3C-CH 2-CH 2-CH 2-CH 2-OH
5 H 3C-CH 2-CH 2-CH 2-CH 3

Secondary 2 - pentanol
OH
Table 2 Table 3
Melting Point (C) Density (g/cm3)

Number of Number of
Carbon Atoms Primary Secondary Carbon Atoms Primary Secondary
alcohol alcohol alcohol alcohol
2 114 (none) 2 0.789 (none)
3 127 89 3 0.803 0.786
4 90 115 4 0.810 0.806
5 78 50 5 0.814 0.812

1. For each type of alcohol, what is the 4. How do the melting points of the primary
relationship between the number of carbon alcohols listed compare to those of the
atoms and the density? As the number of corresponding secondary alcohols?
carbon atoms in the alcohol increases, the
(F) The melting points of the primary alcohols
density:
are significantly greater than those of the
(A) increases for primary alcohols and
corresponding secondary alcohols.
increases for secondary alcohols.
(G) The melting points of the primary alcohols
(B) increases for primary alcohols and
are only slightly greater than those of the
decreases for secondary alcohols.
corresponding secondary alcohols.
(C) decreases for primary alcohols and
(H) The melting points of the primary alcohols
increases for secondary alcohols.
are less than those of the corresponding
(D) decreases for primary alcohols and
secondary alcohols.
decreases for secondary alcohols.
(J) The melting points of the primary
alcohols do not differ from those of the
2. Which alcohols would form solids at 80C?
corresponding secondary alcohols in any
(F) All of the alcohols listed would form predictable way.
solids.
(G) All alcohols with 4 or fewer carbon atoms 5. Based on the structures in Table 1, which of the
would form solids. following defines the structure of 1-heptanol
(H) Both 1-pentanol and 2-pentanol would (a primary alcohol with seven carbon atoms)?
form solids. (A) H3CCH2CH2CH2OH
(J) 2-propanol, 1-butanol, 1-pentanol, and (B) H3CCH2CH3
2-pentanol would form solids. OH
(C) H3CCH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
3. Based on the information in Table 3, what (D) H3CCH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
would you expect the density of 1-hexanol (a OH
primary alcohol with 6 carbon atoms) to be?
(A) 0.807 g/cm3
(B) 0.813 g/cm3
(C) 0.816 g/cm3
(D) 0.838 g/cm3

Cla s s 1
Experiment 1
Passage 2
In Trials 1-5, students used wooden blocks in
each of the five configurations, and applied the same
In 3 experiments, students investigated the factors voltage across the plates V1 and V2. They recorded the
affecting electrical resistance in a circuit. One or resulting current for each trial in Table 1.
more blocks of identical dimensions and varying
materials, was (were) placed between two metal plates
at voltages V1 and V2, in the five configurations shown Table 1
in Figure 1. Electric current then flowed from the plate V1 V2 I
with the higher voltage to the plate with the lower Trial Material Configuration
(Volts) (Volts) (Amperes)
voltage, with flow from the right plate to the left plate
1 wood 1 10 0 0.1
represented by a negative current.
2 wood 2 10 0 0.2
3 wood 3 10 0 0.3
plates
plates
VV11 V1
plates
VV22 V2 plates
plates
VV11 V1
plates
VV22 V2
plates
plates
VV11 V1
plates
VV22 V2 4 wood 4 10 0 0.05
5 wood 5 10 0 0.033
block
block
block
block block
Experiment 2
block
In Trials 6-7, the students applied the same

Configuration
Configuration
Configuration 11 1 Configuration
Configuration
Configuration
Configuration 33 3
voltage to blocks made of 2 other materials, using
only Configuration 1.
plates
plates
plates plates
plates
plates
VV11 V1 VV
VV22 V 211
V1 VV22 V2
Table 2
V1 V2 I
block block block block block Trial Material Configuration
(Volts) (Volts) (Amperes)
6 glass 1 20 10 0.001
7 rubber 1 20 10 0.0001
Configuration
Configuration
Configuration
Configuration 55 5
Figure 1 Experiment 3
In Trials 8-13, the students varied the applied
voltage on the all three materials, using only
Configuration 1.
The resistance of a circuit is defined by Ohms Law:

V1 - V2 = (I)(R) Table 3
V1 V2 I
Trial Material Configuration
I = Current, in amperes (Volts) (Volts) (Amperes)
R = Resistance, in ohms 8 wood 1 20 10 0.1
9 wood 1 0 10 0.1
10 glass 1 20 10 0.001
11 glass 1 0 10 0.001
12 rubber 1 20 10 0.0001
13 rubber 1 0 10 0.0001

6. According to data gathered, current flowed 10. If we tested a third material using the
from the right plate to the left plate in which of parameters in Experiment 2, and the resulting
the following trials? current was 0.1 A, what is the resulting
resistance of the block?
(A) Trial 2.
(B) Trial 7 (A) 1 Ohm
(C) Trial 11 (B) 10 Ohms
(D) Trial 12 (C) 100 Ohms
(D) 1000 Ohms
7. An insulator is any material that conducts
electric current relatively poorly. Based on the 11. Which of the following graphs represents a plot
experiments conducted by the students, which of the current versus the resistance, for Trials
material would be the best insulator with which 13?
to coat electrical cables?
(F) Wood (F) (H)
(G) Glass 100 100
R (ohms)
R (ohms)
80 80
(H) Rubber 60
40
60
40
(J) All three materials would work equally well 20

0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
20
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
I (amperes) I (amperes)
8. The results of Trials 1 and 8 would support the (G) (J)

hypothesis that the current flowing from one 100 100
R (ohms)
R (ohms)
80 80
metal plate to another is dependent on the: 60 60
40 40
(A) sum of the two plates voltages. 20

0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
20
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
(B) difference between the two plates I (amperes) I (amperes)
voltages.
(C) greater of the two plates voltages.
(D) lesser of the two plates voltages.
12. A reduction in the electrical resistance of a
circuit is caused by:
9. For any given configuration and voltage
difference between plates, the amount (A) a decrease in the ease of electron flow.
of current flowing through the blocks is (B) an increase in the ease of electron flow.
determined by that materials conductivity (C) a decrease in the number of electrons.
- the higher a materials conductivity, the
(D) an increase in the number of electrons.
more current will flow through it. Based on
Experiments 1 and 2, which of the following
statements regarding the blocks relative
conductivities is true?
(F) Glass has a higher conductivity than wood.
(G) Glass has the same conductivity as wood.
(H) Glass has a higher conductivity than rubber
(J) Glass has the same conductivity as rubber.

Class 1
Math:
Tricks & Traps
Key Points:
Dont fall for the ACT Maths Tricks & Traps
Apply the I-S-M-E Steps to solve every math
problem
Use plug & chug or backsolving whenever you
are stumped by problems

Cla s s 1
The Math Test 60 Questions / 60 Minutes
What Makes ACT Math Difficult?

ACT math is different from high school math:
High school tests difficult math in a straightforward way.
The ACT writers test (mostly) easy math in a tricky way . . .
. . . so doing well is all about being on the lookout for the ACTs tricks.

60 minutes, 60 questions = 1 minute per question
-- What is the best way for me to solve this problem?

As you practice questions, figure out your quickest and most effective approach to solve
the question (solving an equation, plugging in number, etc).
-- How long have I been staring at this question?

If you are asking yourself this question, move on to the next one.
Heres an Example of what an ACT Trick Looks Like:
1. The first term of a sequence is 2 and the second

term is 6. From the third term on, each term is
the average (arithmetic mean) of all preceding
terms. What is the 100th term of the sequence?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 102
(E) 104

M ath: Tr i ck s & Traps
Common Tricks & Traps

To make you answer incorrectly on relatively obvious math,
the ACT will often ask for a non-obvious value.
w=z
15w 8z = 35
2. In the system of equations above, what is the
value of 15w?
(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 40
(E) 75
While its primary weapon is numbers, the ACT isnt above fighting dirty
be equally wary of words.
3. A printing press produces 4,200 posters per

hour. At this rate, in how many minutes can the
printing press produce 840 posters?
(F) 0.2
(G) 1.5
(H) 5
(J) 12
(K) 70
Read carefully. Make sure to answer the question that they are asking.

Cla s s 1
Stay calm when first looking at a hard math question,

just because it looks tough doesnt mean it is tough.
2n 4
4. If = 2 what does n equal?
16 n
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8
(E) 16
Any question that seems to be testing a math concept you dont know
is simply a disguise for a math concept you do know.
G b H
2
a
I
F 3
4
J
Note: Figure not drawn to scale
5. In pentagon FGHIJ above, what is the value of

a2 + b2?
(F) 13
(G) 21
(H) 25
(J) 27
(K) 29

I-S-M-E Steps
Problem Solving Strategy Steps
Identify
-- Always begin by determining the problem type.
-- The most important step in solving a math problem on the ACT does not involve
your calculator.
Set Up
-- Write down what you know is true.
-- If theres a diagram, label anything you can.
-- Determine which equation(s) you will need to do the math.
Make Sure
-- What is the specific answer they are asking for?
-- Make sure youre not falling for one of the ACTs tricks.
Execute
-- Plug in the information from the problem, carefully write out all steps, and solve
the problem.
-- After youve got an answer, check your work, and make sure your answer makes sense.
M
x
y
L N
Note: Figure not drawn to scale
6. In the figure above, LM = MN. If x = 50, what

is the value of y?
(A) 65
(B) 115
(C) 125
(D) 130
(E) 150
Focus on the parts of the problem that you do know! Then proceed to solve
the question.

Cla s s 1
Translation Problems
Identify:
Look for word problems with no given equation.
Set Up:
Use the following chart to write the equation:
What Variable (x, y, etc.)
Is, the same as Equals
Of Times
Percent Divided by 100
More than Plus
Less than Minus
Make Sure:
Watch out for less than, the number you are subtracting is often written in the question before
the value you are subtracting it from.
Execute:
Solve the equation you have written.
7. What percent of 25 is 25 percent of 20?

(F) 120
(G) 100
(H) 50
(J) 25
(K) 20
In order to confuse you, the ACT writers often make an equation look
like a sentence. Just translate it.

Translation Practice
8. The sum of two positive integers is 9, while 10. If Pete eats 3 out of 8 slices of a pizza, then
the product of those integers is 18. What is the 3
Shelly eats of the remaining slices, and
larger of the two numbers? 5
1
finally Janice eats 2 of Shellys leftovers, how
(A) 1
(B) 2 many slices are left uneaten?
(C) 3 (A) 1
(D) 6 (B) 2
(E) 9 (C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
9. If 3a + b is 150 percent of 8a , what is the

b
value of a ?
(F) 1.5
(G) 3
(H) 6
(J) 8
(K) 9

Cla s s 1
Plug & Chug Problems

Identify:
Look for word problems with variables in the question and in the answer choices.
Set Up:
Plug: Pick simple numbers to plug in for each of the variables.
Make Sure:
Keep your numbers straight - write down which numbers go with which variables.
Execute:
Chug: Solve the situation described in the question using your numbers.
Plug: Then plug the numbers into each of the answer choices.
Chug: Eliminate answer choices that differ from the solution you got for the question.
11. Emily has $8 less than her sister, Kelsey, who

has d dollars. Emily does not spend any money
and earns $10. Which of the following is an
expression for the amount of money, in dollars,
Emily has?
(A) 2
(B) 2d + 2
(C) d 2
(D) d + 2
(E) d + 18

Plug & Chug Practice

12. If a and b are positive numbers and a + b = 9, 14. Coffee leaks out of a container at the rate of
9- b l liters every h hours. If the coffee costs 8
then a =
dollars per liter, how much money, in
(A) 1 dollars, will be lost in x hours?
(B) 0
8h
(C) 1 (A) lx
(D) a lx
(B) 8h
(E) b 9
8lx
(C) h
lh
(D) 8x
hx
(E) l
13. For all real numbers b and c such that the

product of c and 3 is b, which of the
following expressions represents the sum of c
and 3, in terms of b?
(F) b + 3
(G) 3b + 3
(H) 3(b + 3)
(J) b + 3
3
b
(K) 3 + 3

Cla s s 1
Backsolving Problems
Identify:
Look for variables in the question and only numbers in the answer choices.
Set Up:
Determine the value in the question that you want the correct answer to prove true.
Make Sure:
Keep your numbers straight write down what the correct answer represents.
Execute:
Pick the middle answer choice to stand in for the correct answer.
Solve the situation described in the question using this answer choice.
I f the solution doesnt match the Set-up value you need, pick a different answer choice and
try again.
AB
+B A
1A 1
15. In the correctly worked addition problem

above, A and B represent two different digits.
What digit does A represent?
(F) 1
(G) 2
(H) 4
(J) 7
(K) 9

Backsolving Practice
16. The numerator of a certain fraction is 2 more 18. If ax2 = ax for all values of x, what are all the
possible values of a?
than half the denominator. If the fraction
2 (A) 0 only
is equal to 3 , what is the value of the
(B) 1 only
denominator?
(C) 1 only
(A) 3 (D) 0 and 1 only
(B) 6 (E) 1, 0, and 1
(C) 12
(D) 18
(E) 24
17. A group of 8 people go out to eat at a local

restaurant. At the end of the meal, the group
realizes that their final bill includes a gratuity
equal to 18% of their total purchases. If their
final bill is $72.00, what was the total cost of
their purchases, in dollars, before the gratuity
was added?
(F) $12.96
(G) $35.06
(H) $54.00
(J) $61.02
(K) $84.96

Cla s s 1
Pattern (Pairing/Counting) Problems

Identify:
Any problem that seems like it would take a ridiculously long time to solve.
Set Up:
Work out the first 3 terms, and if possible, the last 3 terms.
Then, put down your pencil and look for patterns.
Make Sure:
Dont be intimidated.
Common patterns include: repeating numbers, numbers that can be paired (if adding), or
canceled (if subtracting).
Execute:
Once everything has been paired or canceled, see whats left over.
19. Let k j be defined by the sum of all integers

between k and j, inclusive. For example,
4 8 = 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8. What is the value of
(60 150) (61 149)?
(F) 60
(G) 150
(H) 210
(J) 250
(K) 340

Pattern Practice
20. The second term of an arithmetic 22. If the sum of all consecutive integers from 13
sequence is 16, and the third term is to y is 29, what is the value of y?
39. What is the first term?
(A) 12
(A) 23 (B) 14
(C) 15
(B) 1 (D) 16
16
(C) 7 (E) 20
(D) 16
(E) 23
2, 5, 11, x, 47,
21. In the sequence above, the first term is 2, and
each term after the first is 1 more than twice the
previous term. What is the value of x?
(F) 12
(G) 13
(H) 22
(J) 23
(K) 24

Class 1
Homework

Cla s s 1
Class 1 Homework
If your Science score was If your Math score was
between... between...
1-17 1-17
...then your Science ...then your Math
homework due for next homework due for next
class is: class is:
p. 49-52 #1-11 p. 58-60 #1-10
18-22 18-22
class is: class is:
p. 53-55 #12-22 p. 60-62 #11-20
23-36 23-36
class is: class is:
p. 55-57 #18-27 p. 62-64 #21-30

Hom ework
Science
Chemical weathering occurs when minerals in rock
Passage 1
are chemically altered. Table 2 shows some of the
factors that contribute to chemical weathering.
The term weathering refers to the processes that
cause surface rock to disintegrate into smaller
particles or dissolve in water. These processes are Table 2
often slow, taking place over thousands of years.
The amount of time that rock has been exposed to Chemical Weathering
the elements (primarily wind and water) influences
the degree to which the rock will weather. Weathering Mechanism Results
processes are divided into three categories: physical,
chemical, and biological. Water combines with carbon
dioxide to form carbonic acid.
Carbonation
The carbonic acid chemically
alters the rock, so that it dissolves.
Water, usually in the form of
rain, disrupts the chemical
Hydrolysis
composition of the minerals,
Table 1 shows some of the factors that contribute to destabilizing the rock.
physical weathering.
When water combines with
Hydration compounds in rock, the minerals
grain will be physically altered.
Table 1
Oxygen combines with compound
Physical Weathering Oxidation elements in rock to form oxides
and weaken the rock.
Mechanism Results
Animals burrow into the earth, Plants and bacteria contribute to biological
Animals and moving rock fragments and weathering. The ultimate product of biological
plants sediment. Plant roots have the
agents on rock is soil. Table 3 shows some factors of
same effect.
biological weathering.
Water evaporates from rock,
which leads to the development
Crystalliza-
of salt crystals. The crystals Table 3
tion
grow, eventually breaking apart
the rock. Biological Weathering
Minerals in rocks expand and
contract with temperature Mechanism Results
Temperature
changes. Repeated expansion and
variation Lichens are rich in chelating
contraction cracks and splits
agents, which trap elements of
the rocks. Lichens
the decomposing rock, resulting
Exfoliation occurs as slabs of in etching and grooving.
Exfoliation cracked rock slip off other rock, Alters the acidity of groundwater,
which leads to further erosion. Bacteria which can lead to erosion of
the rock.

Cla s s 1
1. According to Table 1, extreme temperature

changes can lead to:
(A) cracked and split rock.
(B) the development of salt crystals.
(C) the creation of carbonic acid.
(D) increased acidity in groundwater.
2. Based on the data in the passage, living things

contribute to which of the following types of
weathering?
(F) Physical only
(G) Biological only
(H) Both physical and biological
(J) Physical, chemical, and biological
3. Based on Table 2, the factor that contributes

most to the alteration of minerals and rock is:
(A) the presence of water.
(B) the availability of oxygen.
(C) the acidity level.
(D) the mineral composition of the rock.
4. A layer of fine sediment mixed with some

organic material is found surrounding a rock
formation. The most likely cause for this is:
(F) oxidation.
(G) exfoliation.
(H) chemical weathering.
(J) biological weathering.
5. Rainwater is slightly acidic, and it can dissolve

many minerals over time. This process is most
consistent with the mechanism of:
(A) exfoliation.
(B) oxidation.
(C) hydrolysis.
(D) etching.

Hom ework
Passage 2
The factors that affect the growth of microorganisms

include water availability (Aw), pH, and temperature.
Table 1 lists some microorganisms and their
respective pH range for growth. Figure 1 shows
a pH scale. Table 2 lists some microorganisms
and their optimum temperature range for growth.
Table 3 lists the minimum Aw necessary
for the growth of some microorganisms.
more acidic neutral less acidic
pH 1.0 7.0 14.0
Figure 1
Table 1
Microorganism Minimum pH Optimum pH Maximum pH
Sulfolobus acidocaldarius 1.0 2.0-3.0 5.0
Bacillus acidocaldarius 2.0 4.0 6.0
Lactobacillus acidophilus 4.04.6 5.8-6.6 6.8
Staphylococcus aureus 4.2 7.0-7.5 9.3
Escherichia coli 4.4 6.0-7.0 9.0
Pseudomonas aeruginosa 5.6 6.6-7.0 8.0
Thiobacillus novellus 5.7 7.0 9.0
Streptococcus pneumoniae 6.5 7.8 8.3
Table 2 Table 3
Optimum temperature Microorganism Minimum Aw
Microorganism
(C)
Caulobacter 1.00
Vibrio marinus 10
Spirillum 1.00
Thiobacillus novellus 25-30
Pseudomonas 0.91
Staphylococcus aureus 30-37
Salmonella/Escherichia coli 0.91
Escherichia coli 37
Streptococcus pneumoniae 37 Lactobacillus 0.90
Pseudomonas aeruginosa 37 Bacillus 0.90
Sulfolobus acidocaldarius 75-85 Staphylococcus 0.85
Note: Pure water has an Aw of 1.00.

Cla s s 1
6. According to Table 1, Escherichia coli will 10. According to Table 1, does Lactobacillus
experience optimum growth at which pH level? acidophilusor Thiobacillus novellus experience
more growth when the pH level is neutral?
(F) 4.4
(G) 6.5 (F) Lactobacillus acidophilus, because its
(H) 7.8 optimal growth occurs at a pH level less
(J) 12.3 than 7.0.
(G) Lactobacillus acidophilus, because its
7. Table 2 indicates that, compared to minimum pH level is less than 7.0.
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Escherichia coli (H) Thiobacillus novellus, because its optimal
has an optimum growth temperature that is: growth occurs at a pH level of 7.0.
(A) lower. (J) Thiobacillus novellus, because its
(B) higher. maximum pH level is greater than 7.0.
(C) the same.
(D) not measurable. 11. Based on Table 2, which of the following
figures best represents the optimum
temperatures for growth of the microorganisms
8. According to Table 3, which of the following
shown?
requires the least amount of water for optimum
growth? (A) 80
Vibrio marinus
temperature (C)
70
(F) Staphylococcus 60
50
Escherichia
(G) Pseuodomonas 40
30 coli
20
(H) Lactobacillus 10 Sulfolobus
0 acidocaldarius
(J) Caulobacter microorganism
9. Which of the following ranks the (B) 80

microorganisms from those requiring a more Vibrio marinus
temperature (C)
70
60
acidic growth medium to those requiring a less 50
40 Escherichia
acidic growth medium? 30 coli
20
Sulfolobus
(A) Sulfolobus acidocaldarius, Streptococcus 10
0 acidocaldarius
microorganism
pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Sulfolobus acidocaldarius, Staphylococcus
aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) 80
Vibrio marinus
temperature (C)
70
(C) Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus 60
50
40 Escherichia
pneumoniae, Sulfolobus acidocaldarius 30 coli
20
(D) Streptococcus pneumoniae, Sulfolobus 10 Sulfolobus
0 acidocaldarius
acidocaldarius, Staphylococcus aureus microorganism
(D) 80
Vibrio marinus
temperature (C)
70
60
50
40 Escherichia
30 coli
20
10 Sulfolobus
0 acidocaldarius
microorganism

Hom ework
Passage 3 12. Eggs from which fish species would most likely
not hatch if exposed to prolonged sunlight?
(F) Species A
Most fish eggs lack a hard outer shell; the eggs have a (G) Species C
jelly-like consistency. UV rays found in sunlight have (H) Species E
an increased ability to alter the DNA of the embryos (J) Species G
forming in these eggs due to the lack of protection.
Evolution has allowed for some species to possess the 13. Based on the results in Figure 1, which of
ability to alter the DNA damage caused by UV rays. the following species of fish showed the least
Table 1 displays the ability to repair DNA damage of variability between the percentage of eggs
7 fish species, as well as their egg laying locations. exposed to UV-filtered sunlight that hatched
and the percentage of eggs exposed
to unfiltered sunlight that hatched?
Table 1 (A) Species D
(B) Species E
Relative ability (C) Species F
Fish Egg-laying Eggs exposure
to repair (D) Species G
Species location to sunlight
damaged DNA
Laid undercover at 14. A marine biologist discovered a new species

A <0.05 None of fish, species H, which lays eggs at a depth
depth of 15 meters
of 10 meters. Using the data from Table 1,
Laid at depth of
B <0.05 Low the species relative ability to repair DNA is
15 meters
most likely:
Laid at depth of
C 0.05
10 meters
Moderate (F) less than 0.05.
(G) greater than 0.05 and less than 0.35.
Laid at depth of (H) greater than 0.35 and less than 0.6.
D 0.25 Moderate
10 meters (J) greater than 0.6.
Laid at depth of
E 0.35 High
5 meters
15. Based on the data in Table 1, as exposure to
F 0.6
Laid at depth of
High sunlight decreases, the relative ability to repair
5 meters damaged DNA:
Laid at depth of (A) decreases, then increases.
G 1.0 High
5 meters (B) increases, then decreases.
(C) decreases only.
Marine biologists gathered eggs from these 7 (D) increases only.
species. They compared eggs exposed to UV-filtered
sunlight to those exposed to unfiltered light in terms of 16. According to Table 1 and Figure 1, the lowest
hatching. The results are found in Figure 1. percentage of eggs hatched under unfiltered
sunlight belonged to the species that laid their
eggs at which location?
Figure 1 UV-filtered sunlight
(F) Undercover at a depth of 15 meters
Unfiltered sunlight (G) Uncovered at a depth of 15 meters
100
90
(H) At a depth of 10 meters
Percent of eggs hatched
80
(J) At a depth of 5 meters
70
60 17. Based on the information in the passage, one
50 could assume that, compared to fish eggs with a
40 jelly-like consistency, fish eggs with a hard outer
30 shell:
20
(A) have a higher relative ability to repair
10
damaged DNA.
0
(B) have a lower relative ability to repair
A B C D E F G
damaged DNA.
Fish species (C) are less likely to be laid at depths greater
than 15 meters.
(D) are more likely to be laid at depths greater
than 15 meters

Cla s s 1
Passage 4
Consider the following reaction:
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2 HCl (g)
The formation of hydrogen chloride gas (HCl)

occurs at the same rate as the formation of hydrogen
(H2) and chloride (Cl2) gases when the reaction is at
chemical equilibrium. At equilibrium, the equilibrium
constant (Keq) is expressed as the following: (Note:
[ ] indicates concentration)
[HCl] 2
K eq = [H ] [Cl ]
2 2
Experiment
College chemistry students performed 13 trials of
adding H2 to Cl2, varying the temperature or initial
reactant concentrations. The results are displayed in
Table 1.
Table 1
Tempera- Initial Initial Initial Final Final

K eq Final [H 2]
Trial ture (C) [H 2] [Cl 2] [HCl] [Cl 2] [HCl]
(mol/L)
(mol/L*) (mol/L) (mol/L) (mol/L) (mol/L)
1 340 70.8 0.50 0.50 0 0.096 0.096 0.808

2 360 60.9 0.50 0.50 0 0.102 0.102 0.796
3 380 56.6 0.50 0.50 0 0.105 0.105 0.790
4 400 52.7 0.50 0.50 0 0.108 0.108 0.784
5 420 48.0 0.50 0.50 0 0.112 0.112 0.776
6 440 45.9 0.50 0.50 0 0.114 0.114 0.772
7 380 56.6 1.00 1.00 0 0.206 0.206 1.588
8 400 52.7 1.00 1.00 0 0.212 0.212 1.576
9 380 56.6 1.00 0.50 0 0.531 0.031 0.938

10 380 56.6 0.50 1.00 0 0.031 0.531 0.938
11 380 56.6 0.25 0.75 0 0.008 0.504 0.476
12 380 56.6 0.75 0.25 0 0.008 0.504 0.476
13 380 56.6 0.15 0.85 0 0.002 0.716 0.282
*mol/L = moles/liter

Hom ework
18. Which of the following pairs of trials in 22. Based on the information in the table, if the
the table shows that reversing the initial scientist had repeated the experiment at 400C
concentrations of H2 and Cl2 at the same and started with 2.0 mol/L each of the H2 and
temperature gives the same final concentration Cl2, the final concentration of HCl would be
of HCl? closest to:
(F) Trials 1 and 2 (F) 0.35 mol/L.
(G) Trials 7 and 8 (G) 0.70 mol/L.
(H) Trials 8 and 11 (H) 1.50 mol/L.
(J) Trials 9 and 10 (J) 3.00 mol/L.
19. Based on the information in the table, as the

initial concentrations of H2 and Cl2 are both
doubled, the final concentration of HCl:
(A) decreases by one-half.
(B) decreases by one-fourth.
(C) increases by one-fourth.
(D) increases by two times.
20. According to the table, increasing the reaction

temperature, while keeping the total initial
concentration of reactants constant, would
result in which, if any, of the following
concentration changes?
(F) A decrease in the initial concentration of
H2 and Cl2
(G) A decrease in the final concentration
of HCl
(H) An increase in the initial concentration of
H2 and Cl2
(J) No changes in the final concentration of
the product
21. Based on the data in the table, which of the

following statements best represents the
relationship that exists between the Keq of a
reaction and the temperature of that reaction?
(A) The Keq value decreases as the temperature
is increased.
(B) The Keq value decreases then levels off as
the temperature is increased.
(C) The Keq value stays the same as the
temperature is increased.
(D) The Keq value increases as the temperature
is increased.

Cla s s 1
Pollen can be counted at research stations and

Passage 5
measured in terms of the number of pollen per cubic
meter of air. Table 2 shows the scale for determining
In the United States, 1 in 4 people suffers from some the intensity of allergen counts.
type of allergy. An allergy is an overreaction of the
bodys immune system to a foreign substance, which
is called an allergen. An allergen can be ingested Table 2
(eaten), injected, inhaled into the lungs, or absorbed
by the skin. Once an allergen has been introduced Allergen in Terms of Number
of Pollen or Spores per
to the body, the body can react by producing a
Intensity Cubic Meter of Air
variety of symptoms, including the following:
coughing and sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; a runny
nose; and a scratchy throat. In extreme cases, a Grass Tree Weed
person may experience a rash, hives, low blood pressure,
Not Present 0 0 0
difficulty in breathing, an asthma attack, or even
death. Although allergies and their symptoms can be Low 1-5 1-16 1-9
managed, there is no known cure.
Moderate 6-20 17-90 10-50
Allergies are characterized by the specific allergens High 21-200 91-1,500 51-500
that trigger symptoms, as well as the method by which
Very High >201 >1,500 >500
the allergen can be introduced. The most common
types of allergies, their method of introduction, and
their common triggers are listed in Table 1. A study was conducted to measure the allergen
counts for grass pollen, tree pollen, and weed pollen
Table 1 in an area over the course of one year. The results are
Allergy Type Method Common Triggers shown in Figure 1:
Pet dander, dust Key

Indoor Inhalation
mites, mold spores Grass Weed
Tree, grass, and Tree
Outdoor Inhalation weed pollen, mold 2000

spores
Allergies per cubic meter of air
1750
Peanuts, shellfish, 1500
Food and Ingestion
wheat, dairy 1250
Drug 1000
Injection Penicillin
750
Absorp- Latex, poison ivy/
Skin 500
tion oak/sumac
250
Hornets/wasps/bees,
Insect Injection
fire ants Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun July Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec
Month
Many people suffer from seasonal allergies,
which occur at specific times of the year. The most Figure 1
common seasonal allergies occur from outdoor
allergens such as tree, grass, and weed pollen. The
pollen and spores from these allergens all vary in
concentration throughout the year, thus making
reactions greater at certain times of the year than
at others.

Hom ework
23. According to the study, which factor most

affects the presence of grass, weed, and tree
pollen?
(A) The method of introduction
(B) The symptoms produced
(C) The allergic reactions of people in the area
(D) The time of the year
24. According to the study, grass and tree pollen

are similar to each other in that:
(F) neither allergen is present from February
to May.
(G) all people experience the same symptoms
from both allergens.
(H) both experience elevated allergen counts
from May to August.
(J) tree and grass pollen produce no symptoms.
25. Based on the results of the study, one could

generalize that, compared to allergic reactions
to grass pollen, allergic reactions to weed
pollen:
(A) are greatest from mid-August to October.
(B) are greatest during summer months.
(C) remain constant throughout the year.
(D) are more difficult to measure.
26. Seasonal allergies most likely result from

allergens that are:
(F) inhaled into the lungs.
(G) ingested.
(H) injected.
(J) absorbed by the skin.
27. According to Table 2, a tree pollen count of

1,000 would be considered:
(A) low.
(B) moderate.
(C) high.
(D) very high.

Cla s s 1
Math
Directions: Solve each problem and choose the correct answer.
You are permitted to use a calculator. You may use your calculator for any problems you choose,
but some of the problems may best be done without using a calculator.
Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should be assumed.
1. Illustrative figures are not necessarily drawn to scale.
2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
3. The word line indicates a straight line.
4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.
1. If 2(a 50) = 3(a 50), what is the value of a? 3. If 2 more than 4 times a number is equal to 12,
what is 3 times the number?
(A) 2
(B) 3 1
(A) 2 2
(C) 6
(D) 25 (B) 5
(E) 50 1
(C) 7 2
(D) 10
1
(E) 12 2
2. An arts and crafts festival is held in a park

downtown. There are 2 sizes of display areas
artists can rent. It costs $75 for one of the 60
large areas and $35 for one of the 40 small 4. Three consecutive integers are listed from
areas. Which of the following expressions smallest to largest. If their sum is 102, what is
gives the total amount of money, in dollars, the second integer on the list?
collected from renting all of the small areas and
B of the large areas? (F) 35
(G) 34
(F) B + 40
(H) 33
(G) 75B + 1,400
(J) 29
(H) 75B + 3,000
(K) 28
(J) 110B
(K) 5,900B

Hom ework
5. Which of the following equations correctly 7. According to the graph below, which of the
represents the statement three less than twice following is the best estimate of government
a number is the same as eight more than half funding in 1990 ?
the number?
x
(A) 3 - 2x = 8 + 2
Millions of $
(B) 2 - 3x = x + 4
(C) 2x - 3 = 4 + x
1
(D) 3x - 2 = 2 x + 8
1
(E) 2x - 3 = 2 x + 8
(A) $60 million

(B) $55 million
(C) $45 million
(D) $35 million
(E) $30 million
6. A student must answer at least 80 percent of the

questions on a test correctly in order to pass his
class. If the test has 30 questions on it, at least
how many of the questions must the student 8. If 18x is forty percent of 180, then x =
answer correctly?
(F) 4
(F) 18 (G) 10
(G) 20 (H) 24
(H) 21 (J) 38
(J) 23 (K) 72
(K) 24

Cla s s 1
9. For a fiscal year, the profits (D dollars) A = {7, 8, 9}

for a company that produces and sells air
B = {3, 6, 9}
conditioners can be represented by the equation
D = a2 200a 30,000, where a is the number C = {5, 7, 9}
of air conditioners sold. What is the smallest
11. Three distinct numbers are selected, one from
number of air conditioners that must be made
each of the sets shown above. What is the
and sold in order for the company not to
greatest sum that these three numbers could
lose money?
have?
(A) 75
(A) 22
(B) 100
(B) 23
(C) 200
(C) 24
(D) 250
(D) 25
(E) 300
(E) 27
12. In a laboratory experiment, Bacteria X lives

5 hours longer than Bacteria Y, and Bacteria
Y lives twice as long as Bacteria Z. If n is the
10. If the sum of the consecutive integers from 17 lifespan of Bacteria Z in hours, what is the
to x, inclusive, is 147, what is the value of x? lifespan of Bacteria X, in terms of n?
(F) 17 (F) 5 + 2n
(G) 21 (G) 7 + n
(H) 24 (H) 7n
(J) 47 (J) 10n
(K) 130 (K) 2(5 + n)

Hom ework
13. For every house he sells, a realtor receives a 15. There are 20 chairs in a classroom that are
commission that is equal to p% of the houses arranged in a circle. The first student to walk
selling price. Which of the following represents into the classroom sits in a chair in the circle.
the total commission he receives, in dollars, if As students come into the classroom, they sit in
he sells two houses for $400,000 each? every nth chair, counting whether it is occupied
or not, until all seats are full. Which of the
following could be a value of n?
(A) 8, 000p
(A) 2
(B) 200, 000p (B) 3
(C) 4
(C) 800, 000p
(D) 5
800, 000 (E) 6
(D) p
400, 000
(E)
100 + 2p
16. The first 4 terms of a geometric sequence are

0.32, 1.6, 8, and 40. What is the 5th term?
(F) 200
(G) 49.6
(H) 30.4
(J) 49.6
14. Each of the following statements is true about (K) 200
the sequence 36, 18, 9, EXCEPT
(F) the fourth term is 4.5
(G) the sum of the first five terms is 69.75
(H) each consecutive term is half of the
previous term
(J) each consecutive term is evenly divided 17. If k is a positive even prime integer and n is a
by 3 negative odd integer, which of the following
(K) the common ratio of consecutive terms CANNOT be a positive integer?
is 2:1
(A) k + n
(B) k n
(C) nk
(D) kn
(E) 2k 2n

Cla s s 1
18. The marching band wants to raise money to 20. A convenience store is having a sale that offers
travel to a competition. The members decide a 50 cent discount on any size bottle of cola.
to wash cars for $3.00 per car. The band will For any given bottle, P is the price in cents, and
receive $1.20 for each of the first 50 cars S is the size of the bottle, in ounces. Which
washed. For each of the next 60 washed, the of the following formulas determines the price,
band will receive $1.50. For each additional per ounce of the cola, in cents, after
car washed, the band will receive $1.80. How the discount?
many cars must the band wash to reach its goal
of raising $285.00? 50P
(F) S
(F) 185
P - 50
(G) 245 (G) S
(H) 285 P
(H)
(J) 277 S - 50
(K) 393 P + 50
(J) S
S
(K)
50P
19. If z is an even integer less than zero, what is the 21. A woman buys a bottle of vitamins containing
greatest value of 2z z? between 90 and 100 capsules. She starts taking
(A) 1 the vitamins on a Sunday, and proceeds to take
exactly one vitamin every day. If the woman
(B) 2
runs out of capsules after taking her Monday
(C) 3 dose, which of the following could be the total
(D) 4 number of capsules originally in the bottle?
(E) 5 (A) 93
(B) 94
(C) 95
(D) 96
(E) 97

Hom ework
22. Sara and Josh are driving back to the same 24. When 5 consecutive odd integers greater than
college. Sara stops for gas while Josh continues 34 are added, what is the smallest possible
to drive and gets 10 miles ahead of Sara. Josh sum?
is driving at a constant rate of 60 miles per
(F) 195
hour, and Sara starts driving at a constant rate
of 65 miles per hour to catch up to Josh. Which (G) 210
of the following equations, when solved (H) 234
for t, gives the number of hours Sara will take (J) 247
to catch up to Josh?
(K) 341
(F) 60t + 10 = 65t
(G) 60t 10 = 65t
(H) 10 + 65t = 60t

65
(J) 60t = 10
(K) 65t = 10
23. Consider the exponential equation y = kan, 25. The sum of 4 consecutive negative integers
where k and a are positive real constants and is 42. If x represents the greatest of the four
n is a positive real number. The value of y integers, which of the following expressions
increases as the value of n decreases if and only represents the above statement?
if which of the following statements about a
(A) 4x 6 = 42
is true?
(B) 4x 3 = 42
(A) 1 < a
(C) 4x = 42
(B) 0 < a
(D) 4x + 3 = 42
(C) 0 < a < 1
(E) 4x + 6 = 42
(D) 1 < a < 2
(E) 1 < a

Cla s s 1
26. What is the total when the product of 57 and 28. Jack and David are both waiters at the same
0.22 is added to 7 percent of 57, rounded to the restaurant. Jacks compensation is $100 per
nearest tenth? week in salary plus 60 percent of all the tips
he receives. Davids compensation is $200 per
(F) 16
week in salary plus 40 percent of his tips. If
(G) 16.5 they both receive the same amount of tips and
(H) 17 the same total compensation for a given week,
(J) 17.5 what is that compensation, in dollars?
(K) 18 (F) 400
(G) 411
(H) 438
(J) 512
(K) 525
29. What is the greatest of 5 consecutive integers if

the sum of these integers equals 185?
(A) 5
(B) 35
(C) 37
(D) 39
27. For senior class pictures, a photographer (E) 185
charges x dollars to make a negative, 7x
10
x
dollars for each of the first 20 prints, and 10
dollars for each print in excess of 20 prints. If
$80 is the total charge to make a negative and
30 prints, what is the value of x? 30. A ball has been rolling at a constant rate of x
(A) 3 centimeters per minute. How many centimeters
has it rolled in the last y seconds?
(B) 4
(C) 5 xy
(F) 60
(D) 6
(E) 7 60x
(G) y
x
(H) 60y
60
(J) xy
(K) 60xy

Hom ework
Class 1 Answer key

Class 1 Answers Class 1 Homework Answers
Science Math Science Math
(Page 25) (Page 33) (Page 49) (Page 58)
1. A 1. B 1. A 1. E
2. H 2. E 2. H 2. G
3. C 3. J 3. A 3. C
4. J 4. B 4. J 4. G
5. C 5. G 5. C 5. E
6. C 6. B 6. G 6. K
7. H 7. K 7. C 7. C
8. B 8. D 8. F 8. F
9. H 9. K 9. B 9. E
10. C 10. A 10. H 10. H
11. F 11. D 11. D 11. C
12. B 12. C 12. F 12. F
13. K 13. D 13. A
14. C 14. G 14. J
15. G 15. C 15. B
16. C 16. F 16. F
17. J 17. B 17. D
18. A 18. J 18. F
19. H 19. D 19. B
20. C 20. G 20. G
21. J 21. A 21. A
22. C 22. J 22. F
23. D 23. C
24. H 24. F
25. A 25. A
26. F 26. G
27. C 27. C
28. F
29. D
30. F

Class 2
Reading:
Determining Central Ideas
Key Points:
Read with your two-track mind to break up
Critical Reading passages into bite-sized pieces.
Read for the main idea of the passage.
Always anticipate and eliminate when looking
at answer choices.

Cla s s 2
The Reading Test 4 Passages / 40 Questions / 35 Minutes
The ACT Reading Test has four different types of passages (examples below).
Passage 1 (Question 1-10): Prose Fiction/Literary Narrative

Prose Fiction: This passage is adapted from Jack Londons story Burning Daylight, 1910.
Passage 2 (Question 11-20): Social Science

Social Science: The Antikythera Mechanism: Changing Views of Ancient Technology
Passage 3 (Question 21-30): Humanities

Humanities: The Mona Lisa: A Portrait in Time
Passage 4 (Question 31-40): Natural Science

Natural Science: This passage discusses the scientific study of seashells, also known
as conchology.

Re ad i ng: De te r mi ni ng Ce ntral Ideas
Reading for Main Ideas

When reading on the ACT, it is important to read for an understanding of what the text is about
(as opposed to what happens).
We understand what a text is about through its main ideas:
-- Why did the author write this sentence, paragraph, or passage?
-- If I had to quickly describe this sentence, paragraph, or passage to someone else,

what would I say?
Facts, lists, and details are unimportant to your initial understanding of a text. Think big picture!
Paragraph Structure: Where Do Main Ideas Live?

Main ideas are usually located at the beginning and the end of a paragraph. Details tend to be
found in the middle of a paragraph.
Thesis/Topic Sentence: Main ideas are most likely to live here. Students must stop after the
opening sentence of a paragraph and actively note the idea/purpose.
Middle of Paragraph: This is where facts, details, and reiterations tend to be found. Readers
oftentimes get bogged down in this part of the paragraph.
Closing Sentence(s): Main ideas/paragraph summaries are frequently found here. Students must
not neglect the ends of paragraphs when they read.

Cla s s 2
Reading Strategy
Effective Reading: The Two-Track Mind
Whenever you read, there are two parts of your brain at work:
1. The part of your brain that reads the words on the page.
2. The part of your brain that thinks about other stuff.
These two parts of your brain do not necessarily work together!
To ensure focus, periodically stop and ask yourself questions while you read!
At the end of each paragraph, Stop! What is the main idea?
At the end of the passage, Stop!
-- Who was the author? Was the author part of the story or just telling the story?
-- What was the authors overall purpose in writing the passage?
-- How did the author feel about this topic? What is the tone of the passage?
Effective Reading: The Two-Speed Transmission

Once we know how to identify main ideas, we can focus our time and attention on the most
important parts of a text.
When to accelerate when reading a text:
When the author lists facts to support a main idea.
When the author repeats a point that has already been made.
When the author uses unfamiliar terms/phrases that are unrelated to a main idea.
When to slow down when reading a text:
At the beginning and the end of a paragraph.
Whenever the author introduces a new idea.
-- Watch out for transitional words/phrases that indicate a new or opposing idea
(however, therefore, for example, etc.).
When the author expresses his or her opinion.

Reading Practice
Effective Reading:
Sample Paragraph
Critics argue that since the Apollo

missions, little substantial progress has
been made in space exploration. NASA
Line missions have been criticized as ineffective
5 and costly, and more than one respected
pundit has suggested that the U.S.
government drastically reduce funding for
the International Space Station and other
NASA ventures. Against this backdrop of
10 hostility, policymakers would do well to
remember that trailblazing scientific
exploration has been the subject of
misplaced scrutiny throughout history.
Centuries before the founding of NASA,
15 Christopher Columbus faced similar
skepticism in funding his maiden and in
retrospect, historic voyage across the
Atlantic.

Cla s s 2
Effective Reading:
Sample Paragraph
Critics argue that since the Apollo New Main Idea (Slow Down):
missions, little substantial progress has NASA programs have recently
been made in space exploration. NASA been the subject of ridicule.
Line missions have been criticized as ineffective
5 and costly, and more than one respected Details (Speed Up):
pundit has suggested that the U.S. about the ridicule that NASA
government drastically reduce funding for has received.
the International Space Station and other
NASA ventures. Against this backdrop of
10 hostility, policymakers would do well to
remember that trailblazing scientific
exploration has been the subject of New Main Idea (Slow Down):
misplaced scrutiny throughout history. Columbus faced skepticism
Centuries before the founding of NASA, similar to what NASA is
15 Christopher Columbus faced similar currently facing.
skepticism in funding his maiden and in
retrospect, historic voyage across the
Atlantic.

Mitterand believed that the Chunnel would improve their

Passage 2
image worldwide and leave behind a legacy of their time in
Social Science: This passage discusses the Cross- office.
Channel Transit Tunnel, linking England and France.
50 Thatcher had long since left office and Mitterand was
soon to follow, when the Chunnel was officially inaugurated
In 1996, the American Society of Civil Engineers named
in 1994. By this time, the anticipated triumph had turned into
the recently completed cross-Channel transit tunnel linking
a costly comedy of errors caused mostly by gross
England to France one of the Seven Wonders of the Modern
mismanagement by the private company, Eurotunnel, who
World. The designation was a nod to the Seven Wonders of
55 owned the project. As Thatcher had wanted, the Chunnel was
5 the Ancient World, a category that included such marvels as
funded entirely by nongovernment sources. Unfortunately,
the Great Pyramid at Giza and the Colossus at Rhodes. Such a
this had not ensured anything close to efficiency. Cost
mlange of old and new was certainly apt for an engineering
overruns had increased the Chunnels price tag by 80%, and
feat completed nearly 280 years after its first serious
desperate financing forced the dilution of Eurotunnel stock to
conception, and one that sometimes leaves its spectators
60 the point where it was impossible for investors to recoup their
10 mystified by its ultimate utility.
investment, let alone make the promised profit. Not only were

investors misled about the costs, the anticipated traffic never
The English Channel is 21 miles across at its narrowest
materialized. While millions of people and tons of freight
point between Calais, France, and Dover, England. Until the
have used the Chunnel to cross between Britain and France,
proliferation of air transport, shipping was the only means to
65 revenues have fallen far short of expectations.
connect the island of Britain with its trading partners on the
15 European continent. So it is perhaps not surprising that cross-
In execution, the Channel Tunnel is actually three: two
channel tunneling schemes with bi-national support date back
transit rail tunnels with a service tunnel in between. One
to at least 1715. Nearly 100 years later, Napoleon Bonaparte
transit line is intended to carry passenger trains; the other
was said to be a proponent of the project (though one can
carries shuttles for individual vehicles that range from
imagine the British were less enthusiastic at that time).
70 passenger cars to freight trailers. Despite the technical
20 Digging even began in the 1870s, progressing at least a mile
difficulties and dangers implicit in a 31-mile tunnel that
on each side, despite British fears that a permanent crossing
passes under a large body of water, the Chunnel has a
of the English Channel would leave their country vulnerable
reasonable safety record. There have been three fires in the
to invasion by everything from Continental soldiers to rabies.
Channel Tunnel, all of which have involved freight vehicles.
Ultimately, technical difficulties and a lack of political will
75 While injuries and damage were reported with all three, no
25 defeated the tunnel.
one has been killed. With the introduction of high-speed

trains, the Chunnel currently allows persons and goods to
Then, in 1979, Margaret Thatcher was voted Prime
travel between London and Paris in approximately 2 hours 15
Minister of England. Her appointment was one of the most
minutes, while London to Brussels takes 1 hour 51 minutes.
important steps in finally making the cross-Channel tunnel, or
80 Despite this, the Chunnel has had relatively little impact on
Chunnel, a reality. She made it part of her political
the economies of either France or Britain.While the Chunnel
30 platform, and by so doing, breathed new life into the project.
is indeed the engineering marvel so admired by the American
Two years after her election, Thatcher met with French
Society of Civil Engineers, by every other benchmark, it has
President Franois Mitterand for one of their routine
failed to impress.
economic meetings. Together, they organized a privately
funded group that took a new and serious look at building the
35 Chunnel. Both felt that the underwater tunnel would be
advantageous to their respective countries. Thatcher wanted
proof that private enterprise could successfully complete the
type of monumental infrastructure projects that long had been
the domain of national government in socialist Britain.
40 Mitterand, on the other hand, had promised his people more
jobs in economically-blighted northern France. Of course,
self-reliant Thatcher wanted a tunnel that could be driven by
single-family cars, while Mitterand would have preferred a
bridge that could serve as a visually imposing monument to
45 government achievement. Neither was completely satisfied
with the final project. Nevertheless, both Thatcher and

Cla s s 2
Mitterand believed that the Chunnel would improve their

Passage 2
image worldwide and leave behind a legacy of their time in
Social Science: This passage discusses the Cross- office.
Channel Transit Tunnel, linking England and France.
50 Thatcher had long since left office and Mitterand was
soon to follow, when the Chunnel was officially inaugurated
In 1996, the American Society of Civil Engineers named
major in 1994. By this time, the anticipated triumph had turned into
the recently completed cross-Channel transit tunnel linking problems a costly comedy of errors caused mostly by gross
England to France one of the Seven Wonders of the Modern
mismanagement by the private company, Eurotunnel, who
World. The designation was a nod to the Seven Wonders of
55 owned the project.[As Thatcher had wanted, the Chunnel was
5 the Ancient World, a category that included such marvels as
funded entirely by nongovernment sources. Unfortunately,
really the Great Pyramid at Giza and the Colossus at Rhodes. Such a
this had not ensured anything close to efficiency. Cost
long time mlange of old and new was certainly apt for an engineering
overruns had increased the Chunnels price tag by 80%, and
to build feat completed nearly 280 years after its first serious
desperate financing forced the dilution of Eurotunnel stock to
conception, and [one that sometimes leaves its spectators
[ 60 the point where it was impossible for investors to recoup their
10 mystified by its ultimate utility. not as useful as they thought?
investment, let alone make the promised profit. Not only were

investors misled about the costs, the anticipated traffic never
The English Channel is 21 miles across at its narrowest
materialized. While millions of people and tons of freight
point between Calais, France, and Dover, England. Until the
have used the Chunnel to cross between Britain and France,
proliferation of air transport, shipping was the only means to [
65 revenues have fallen far short of expectations. lots of problem
connect the island of Britain with its trading partners on the
details
15 European continent. So it is perhaps not surprising that cross-
In execution, the Channel Tunnel is actually three: two
channel tunneling schemes with bi-national support date back
transit rail tunnels with a service tunnel in between. One
to at least 1715. Nearly 100 years later, Napoleon Bonaparte
transit line is intended to carry passenger trains; the other
was said to be a proponent of the project (though one can
carries shuttles for individual vehicles that range from
imagine the British were less enthusiastic at that time).
70 passenger cars to freight trailers. Despite the technical
20 Digging even began in the 1870s, progressing at least a mile
difficulties and dangers implicit in a 31-mile tunnel that
on each side, despite British fears that a permanent crossing
1715 to passes under a large body of water, the Chunnel has a
of the English Channel would leave their country vulnerable
1870s reasonable safety record. There have been three fires in the
to invasion by everything from Continental soldiers to rabies.
Channel Tunnel, all of which have involved freight vehicles.
Ultimately, technical difficulties and a lack of political will
75 While injuries and damage were reported with all three, no
25 defeated the tunnel. started but failed
one has been killed. With the introduction of high-speed

trains, the Chunnel currently allows persons and goods to
new Then, in 1979, Margaret Thatcher was voted Prime
travel between London and Paris in approximately 2 hours 15
start Minister of England. Her appointment was one of the most
minutes, while London to Brussels takes 1 hour 51 minutes.
finally important steps in finally making the cross-Channel tunnel, or
80 Despite this, the Chunnel has had relatively little impact on
built Chunnel, a reality. She made it part of her political
30 platform, and by so doing, breathed new life into the project.
[
the economies of either France or Britain.While the Chunnel
is indeed the engineering marvel so admired by the American
Two years after her election, Thatcher met with French
Society of Civil Engineers, by every other benchmark, it has
President Franois Mitterand for one of their routine
failed to impress. authors point
[
economic meetings. Together, they organized a privately
funded group that took a new and serious look at building the
35 Chunnel. Both felt that the underwater tunnel would be
advantageous to their respective countries. Thatcher wanted
proof that private enterprise could successfully complete the
type of monumental infrastructure projects that long had been
the domain of national government in socialist Britain. different
40 Mitterand, on the other hand, had promised his people more reasons
jobs in economically-blighted northern France. Of course, to build
self-reliant Thatcher wanted a tunnel that could be driven by
single-family cars, while Mitterand would have preferred a
bridge that could serve as a visually imposing monument to
45 government achievement. Neither was completely satisfied
with the final project. Nevertheless, both Thatcher and

Reading Questions
Solving Reading Questions on the ACT: There are four steps to solving reading questions
on the ACT.
1. Cover the answer choices. Do not look at the answer choices!
2. A
nticipate an answer to the question. How would you answer the question? Use the notes you
took while reading!
3. Reveal the answers and then eliminate answers that are clearly incorrect. Answers are clearly
incorrect because they do not align with your anticipation!
4. Make a decision among whatever choices remain. Avoid answers with absolute language and/
or non-relevant information.
Solving Reading Questions on the ACT: Out of Scope Answers

What makes wrong answers wrong can generally be reduced to a few words the words that make a
wrong answer Out of scope.
How to tell if an answer choice is Out of scope:

It brings in subjects that are not related to the passage.
It talks about something from a part of the passage outside of the part the question is referring to.
It is too extreme (unless the author is very extreme).
It assumes too much about the authors viewpoint.

Cla s s 2
1. The main idea of the fourth paragraph is that 5. The authors statement that Margaret Thatcher
the Chunnel project: breathed new life into the project most likely
means:
(A) was a triumph, with investors recouping
80% of their initial investment. (A) the Chunnel project had been stalled
(B) failed utterly due to technical problems. until Thatcher included it in her political
(C) was not a success because developers platform.
under-estimated cost and overestimated (B) Thatcher forced private companies to fund
profits. a public venture.
(D) was a fitting legacy for both Thatcher (C) Mitterands support was unnecessary for
and Mitterand. the success of the Chunnel project.
(D) Thatcher supported many types of
2. In the second paragraph, the author implies that infrastructure projects.
which of the following was the primary goal of
a land-link between England and Europe? 6. The author implies that Thatcher and Mitterand
(F) Cessation of shipping between France agreed that the Chunnel project was undertaken
in order to:
and England
(G) Improved transport of military troops (F) increase employment in France.
between France and England (G) highlight the effectiveness of private
(H) Decreased transport of livestock between enterprise.
France and England (H) leave a lasting reminder of their political
(J) Improved merchant trade between France terms.
and England (J) improve travel between Brussels and
London.
3. The tone of the passage could best be described
as:
(A) glib and humorous.
(B) informational and frank.
(C) antagonistic and misleading.
(D) technical and disrespectful.
4. By the statement in lines 9-10, the author most

nearly means that the Chunnel:
(F) leaves people in awe when they see it.
(G) makes people wonder if it was worth
the effort.
(H) is actually extremely old.
(J) was never considered a viable project.

Maria stared in disbelief as Mr. Wilson handed out the

Questions 7-12
test papers in small piles to each of the students in the front
Prose Fiction: This passage was adapted from a 45 row. Slowly, they made their way to the back. Finally, she
short story about The Predictable Mr. Wilson. took the lone, remaining copy from the boy in front of her.
She didnt dare to read it. Bravely, Abby raised her hand.
The day had begun just as the days always did: wake up,
Mr. Wilson, Abby began, I believe that, according to
shower, dress, head to school, sit down in first hour history
the syllabus, the next exam isnt scheduled for another two
class, open a book, and start to daydream. Maria never 50 weeks.
bothered to pay attention to her teacher, Mr. Wilson, as he
5 droned on in class. It wasnt worth the effort. She knew his
Mr. Wilson laughed, dryly. Why yes, Abby, thats true.
exams were always multiple-choice, lifted directly from the
And may I say Im very glad youve read the syllabus. This
chapter summaries. All she had to do was wait until the night
exam is covered under miscellaneous assignments. And I
before the test, memorize a few paragraphs, and crank out an
know I dont have to remind you these may comprise up to 30
easy A. 55 percent of your grade. Abby slumped back in her seat. Maria
felt sick. Miscellaneous assignments had always been small
10 Most of the school had long ago figured out the same
group projects passed around from year to year, with small
trick. In fact, Maria had heard from an older student that all
changes just to keep them current. Her easy A seemed far
of Mr. Wilsons tests were completely predictable. As a
out of reach. She wondered briefly if it was too late to drop
result, the grades in Mr. Wilsons classes had been climbing 60 German.
steadily for the past few years. It had made him a very
15 popular teacher at least with the students.
Mr. Wilson didnt say another word. Gradually, the
class realized resistance was futile. Charles carefully placed
Maria knew she wasnt the only one in her class banking
his crossword on one corner of his desk. Emma capped her
on Mr. Wilsons predictability. From her vantage point in the
nail polish, her face suddenly very pale. Maria dared to look
back row, she scanned the room. To her right was Charles, 65 down at the single piece of paper in front of her. It contained
working on his usual crossword puzzle. Charles insisted he
only one sentence, asking her to write a short essay
20 was a connoisseur he only did the New York Times. Two
explaining the objections that had been raised to the United
rows up, Abby was surreptitiously finishing a draft of her
States involvement in World War I.
Honors English paper. Every now and again, shed sneak a
glance at her paperback copy of Moby Dick, and write down
Maria drew a heavy sigh. She hadnt read the textbook;
another quotation. Emma, on the other hand, was shameless. 70 therefore, shed have to bluff. Carefully, she wrote in a
25 Every day, shed sit front and center, carefully applying that
column: 1,A; 2,B; 3,D; She hoped that Mr. Wilson would
days polish to her perfectly formed fingernails. Maria had
have a sense of humor about the whole thing. Judging from
heard that Emma always let the polish dry for a full hour, and
the look on his face, her chances were thin. Mr. Wilson was
then applied a topcoat during third period French.
sitting, silently, in his chair, looking out on his students with
75 grim determination. Whatever had happened to cause this
Maria was more discreet. She prided herself on
change, it clearly had not been pleasant for her teacher. Maria
30 pretending to take notes, but secretly she was planning her
suddenly realized that the year was not going to be pleasant
complete domination of Womens Singles tennis at
for her class, either. She would have to work hard to get back
Wimbledon. She had just imagined crushing Venus Williams
on track.
in straight sets when she was startled by an unexpected noise:
Mr. Wilson had dropped his own book on the desk. Put your
35 books away, he said, grimly. We are having an exam.
The class gasped. Maria herself stopped breathing as her

dreams of victory disappeared and fear choked up her throat.
She was counting on an A in History to make up for the C she
expected in German. Surrounded by the sound of shuffling
40 notebooks, she felt trapped. Not only had she completely
ignored Mr. Wilsons dry lectures, she had not even begun to
read the assigned chapters.

Cla s s 2
7. Which of the following best describes the 11. Which of the following statements most nearly
structure of the passage? captures the sentiment behind the comment
Maria knew she wasnt the only one in her
(A) A narration of a pivotal moment in a high
class banking on Mr. Wilsons predictability?
school history class
(A) Maria knew the other students had copies
(B) A dialogue between a teacher and his
of Mr. Wilsons past exams.
students
(B) Maria knew the other students only cared
(C) A character sketch of a teenage girl
about their other classes.
(D) An account of the dynamics in a modern
(C) Maria knew the other students were not
high school
studying for the history class, either.
(D) Maria knew the other students didnt care
8. It can be reasonably inferred from the
beginning of the passage that Maria views about their grades as much as she did.
Mr. Wilson as:
(F) difficult, but fiercely intelligent. 12. In terms of the development of Marias
character, the last paragraph primarily
(G) exciting and driven.
serves to:
(H) boring, but harmless.
(F) establish motivation for her actions.
(J) angry and vengeful.
(G) provide background details about her past.
(H) elaborate on her relationship with
9. The passage states that, prior to the days exam,
most of the school knew that Mr. Wilsons test Mr. Wilson.
questions were: (J) underscore her acceptance of her fate.
(A) difficult to understand.
(B) very popular.
(C) historically inaccurate.
(D) taken from the text.
10. In line 47, the sentence Bravely, Abby raised

her hand most strongly suggests that Abby:
(F) was trying to postpone the surprise exam.
(G) wanted to show off that she had read
the syllabus
(H) did not respect Mr. Wilson.
(J) was more prepared than the other students.

Class 2
English:
Grammar & Punctuation
Key Points:
Dont stop reading when you see an underlined
word or phrase read to the end of the
sentence.
Use your Grammar Ear to identify errors.
Know the most commonly tested punctuation
rules to make quick work of these questions.

Cla s s 2
The English Test 5 Passages / 75 Questions / 45 Minutes
The Strategy
1. Read period to period.
Even if there isnt an underlined portion in a sentence, read that sentence anyway.
2. Use your grammar ear.
If the underlined part is clearly right, mark answer choice A or F.
If the underlined part is clearly wrong, anticipate a correction, then find the answer choice that
most closely matches your anticipation.
If you cant tell whether the underlined part is right or wrong, immediately move on to the next
question.
3. Go back to the questions you skipped.
After youve done all the questions in the section that you know how to do, go back to the
questions you skipped and plug in answer choices to find the right one.
Question Types
WRITING STYLE &

GRAMMAR & PUNCTUATION STUDENT AS EDITOR
WORD CHOICE
~25% of the correct answers are no change!

Dont be afraid to pick this choice if youve eliminated all other choices.

E ngl i sh: G rammar & Punc t uat ion
Common Tricks & Traps

Dont stop reading as soon as you get to the underlined portion!
Keep reading to the end of the sentence.
Unable to attract immigrant workers, the plantation owners rely 1. (A) NO CHANGE
1 (B) will have relied
(C) have relied
(D) relied
Unable to attract immigrant workers, the plantation owners rely almost
1 1. (A) NO CHANGE
solely on slave labor, until slavery was abolished at the end of the (B) will have relied
(C) have relied
Civil War. (D) relied
Occasionally youll see 2 underlined parts within the same sentence.

How you answer one could influence how you answer the other.
Studies showing that hospitals using computer control systems 2. (F) NO CHANGE
2 (G) Studies, showing
have significantly fewer errors. This means better outcomes (H) Studies which show
3 (J) Studies show
for patients.
3. Which of the following
alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be
acceptable?
(A) errors; this
(B) errors, which
(C) errors this
(D) errors, and that
Sometimes key contextual clues will be in the sentence(s) before or after

the underlined part.
During this vacation, I am enjoying the beautiful beaches and the 4. (F) NO CHANGE
4 (G) enjoyed
delicious food. (H) have been enjoying
(J) will enjoy
4. (F) NO CHANGE
Last year, I took a vacation to Hawaii. During this vacation, I (G) enjoyed
(H) have been enjoying
am enjoying the beautiful beaches and the delicious food. (J) will enjoy
4

Cla s s 2
Grammar
Subject - Verb Agreement
Problem: The subject and verb dont go together.
Correction: Make them match (singular with singular, plural with plural).
While shopping offers perhaps the most visible sign of technological 5. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) has come
change, almost every industry, public or private, have come to depend (H) have came
5 (J) has came
on the generation, storage, and transmission of electronic information.
Verb Tense
Problem: The timeline of the actions in the sentence(s) doesnt make sense.
Correction: Use the context of the sentence(s) to figure out when the action is happening.
Change the appropriate verb tenses.
This group will be the sole producer of his plays. 6. (A) NO CHANGE
6 (B) being
(C) was
(D) is
In 1594, he helped form an acting company called The Lord
6. (A) NO CHANGE
Chamberlains Men. This group will be the sole producer of his plays. (B) being
6 (C) was
(D) is

Pronoun Number/Gender
Problem: A pronoun is used but is the wrong number or gender.
Correction: Find the word the pronoun replaces and determine the correct
pronoun needed.
My mother said rationing was important because they helped 7. (F) NO CHANGE
7 (G) she
guarantee supplies for the thousands of military troops overseas. (H) it
(J) one
Pronoun Case
Problem: The number and gender of a pronoun is right but the case is not.
Correction: Is the pronoun doing the action, or is the action being done to the pronoun? If two
pronouns are underlined, say them in context one at a time.
Do they sound right individually?
Both John and Laura wanted to go to the game, so he and her were 8. (A) NO CHANGE
8 (B) him and her were
willing to pay the exorbitant ticket price. (C) he and she were
(D) him and she were

Cla s s 2
Punctuation
Apostrophes
When to Use Apostrophes
-- A word should end in s when a singular noun owns something.

ex: Charlottes dress = the dress belongs to Charlotte
-- A word should end in s when a plural noun that ends in s already owns something.
ex: Wolves den = the den belongs to many wolves
-- Exception: When a plural noun does not end in s, you use s.

ex: Childrens toys = the toys belong to many children, but children does not end in s
Possessive VS Contraction
its its = it is
their theyre = they are
whose whos = who is
For example, a breakdown in a Federal Aviation Administration 9. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) regions
(FAA) computer can shut down an entire regions airspace and cause (H) regions
9 (J) region
countless flight delays.
The bloodiest single day of war in United States history came when 10. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) their
General Robert E. Lees Confederate Army undertook its first (C) its
10 (D) its
engagement on northern soil during the Civil War.
They were able to build theyre own theater, The Globe, which gave 11. (F) NO CHANGE
11 (G) their
them some independence. (H) there
(J) his

Commas
When to Use Commas
-- To separate a list of items
-- To separate descriptive or introductory phrases
-- To join two sentences as a conjunction
Individuals all over the world can tap into developments in the areas of 12. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) computing networking,
computing, networking, and software engineering. and software engineering
12 (C) computing, networking
and, software engineering.
(D) computing, networking,
and software, engineering.
Twenty years ago, most Americans paid for their groceries including 13. (F) NO CHANGE
13 (G) groceries, including food
food and other goods using cash or a check. and other goods
13 (H) groceries including, food
and other goods
(J) groceries, including food
and other goods,
The executives of the company treat the employees with respect and 14. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) warmth, with this
warmth, this camaraderie creates a pleasant work environment. camaraderie
14 (C) warmth and this
camaraderie
(D) warmth, and this
camaraderie
Gasoline and fuel oil were also, rationed, during this time. Gasoline 15. (F) NO CHANGE
15 (G) also rationed during
supplies were especially tight. (H) also, rationed during
(J) also rationed during,

Cla s s 2
Colons
When to Use Colons
-- To introduce a list
-- When the first part of a sentence introduces an idea and the second part of a sentence
provides the details
There are three branches of government executive, legislative, and 16. (A) NO CHANGE
16 (B) government executive:
judicial. legislative and
(C) government: executive,
legislative and
(D) government: executive,
legislative, and
His short-term plan was simple the vast farm fields of western Maryland 17. (F) NO CHANGE
17 (G) simple: the
were ready for harvest, and Lee saw in them an opportunity to feed his (H) simple, and the
(J) simple, the
soldiers, replenish his supplies, and turn the residents of the undecided
border state to his cause.
The three branches of government are executive, legislative, and 18. (A) NO CHANGE
18 (B) government are executive
judicial. legislative and
(C) government: are executive,
legislative, and
(D) government are: executive
legislative and
If the sentence makes sense without a colon, it doesnt need one.

Semicolons
When to Use Semicolons
-- To combine two complete sentences
In fact, applications for new tire purchases had to be submitted to a 19. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) approval: many
rationing board for approval, many people chose, instead, to have their (H) approval; many
19 (J) approval, many
tires repaired to avoid all the paper work and red tape.
Somehow this seemed to be a romantic notion; American ladies giving 20. (A) NO CHANGE
20 (B) notion, the American
up their coveted nylons so that their brothers, boyfriends, and husbands (C) notion: American
(D) notion, because American
might return home safely.
Comma, Colon, Semicolon Review
John liked Janice. He loved pickles.

Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
John liked Janice; he loved pickles. John, the pickle-lover, liked Janice.
John liked: Janice. He loved: pickles. John liked Janice, he loved pickles.
John liked Janice; loved pickles. John liked Janice, and he loved pickles.
John was about four things: John, liked Janice, and he loved pickles.
liking, loving, Janice, and pickles.

Cla s s 2
Summer Vacation 21. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) my mother and me
Last summer, me and my mother spent a month (C) my mother and I
21 (D) myself and my mother
at my grandmothers house. My grandmother lives in a small
22 22. (F) NO CHANGE
town in Illinois, and at first I thought it would be horrible (G) at my grandmothers house.
23 (H) by my grandmothers house.
to spend a month there. The town, located just a few miles (J) in my grandmothers house.
south of the Great Lakes, are a hundred miles away from 23. (A) NO CHANGE
24 (B) I think
the nearest major city. Less than five hundred people live (C) I am thinking
(D) I had been thinking
within city limits, and theyre only two restaurants in the
entire town. Having grown up in Chicago, I assumed that I (G) the Great Lakes are a hundred
(H) the Great Lakes, is a hundred
would be bored living in such a small town. (J) where the Great Lakes are
26 a hundred
25. (A) NO CHANGE

During the first week in my grandmothers, I (B) and they are
27 (C) and their are
spent most of my time watching movies. Neither my (D) and there are
grandmother nor my mother could convince me to join 26. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) to live
them when they went to town. Sometimes I went to the (H) to be living
28 (J) to have lived
beach alone in the afternoons, but these bored me.
29 27. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) at my grandmothers house,
(C) in the home that belongs to
my grandmother,
(D) by my grandmothers home,
28. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) her
(H) they
(J) my grandmother
29. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) but these bore me
(C) but this bored me
(D) but this bores me

To the start of the second week, I realized that I would 30. (F) NO CHANGE
30 (G) Starting
have more fun if I start changing my attitude. My grandmother (H) For the start
31 (J) At the start
and I started cooking dinners together, and I began to have
31. (A) NO CHANGE
a best time. Sometimes in the afternoon, my grandmother (B) start to change
32 (C) changed
and I would go shopping with my mother at her favorite stores. (D) had been changed
33
32. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) a better
During my trip to my grandmothers, I learned quick (H) a most best
34 (J) a more better
that if one wants to have fun on a vacation, you must
have a good attitude and make the most of your time. (B) its
(C) my grandmothers
(D) mine
34. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) quickly learned
(H) was a quick learner
(J) learned, quickly
35. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) one is wanting to have fun
(C) one wants to be having fun
(D) you want to have fun

Class 2
Math:
Arithmetic & Formulas
Key Points:
Know all of the basic concepts of arithmetic that
are tested on the ACT
Practice when to pick up your calculator and
when to crunch it out yourself
Memorize key formulas to efficiently work
through questions

Cla s s 2
Basic Terms
Basic Terms and Operations
Term Definition
All positive whole numbers (1, 2, 3, . . . ),

Integer
negative whole numbers (1, 2, 3, . . . ), and zero (0)
Factor An integer that divides evenly into another integer
Multiple An integer that can be divided by a smaller integer with no remainder
Even = Divisible by 2
Even/Odd
Odd = Not Divisible by 2
Distinct Different (e.g. distinct factors)
The set of integers 15 inclusive = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}

Inclusive/Exclusive
The set of integers 15 exclusive = {2, 3, 4}
Remainder The value left over when a number is not evenly divisible by another
1. Which of the following is NOT a factor of 52 + 5?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Math: A r i thme ti c & Form ulas
0 is positive? negative? neither?
0 is even? odd? neither?

The Number Zero
(0)
0 is an integer? not an integer?
Anything divided by 0 is _____________
2. How many even integers are there between 7 and

11, inclusive?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 10
1 is a prime number? not a prime num-

ber?
2 is the ___________ prime number

Prime Numbers
2 is the only ___________ prime number
List (and memorize) the first 6 primes:
3. Lin has 5 cards laid out in front of her. Each card is

numbered from one through five. If Lin randomly
chooses one of the cards, what is the probability that
the card she chooses will show a prime number?
(F) 1
5
(G) 2
5
(H) 1
2
(J) 3
5
(K) 2
3

Cla s s 2
Basic Terms Practice

4. When the integer x is divided by 8, the 6. If a and b are positive integers and
remainder is 3. What is the remainder when 6x 3a + 4b = 13, what is the value of a?
is divided by 8?
(A) 1
(A) 1 (B) 2
(B) 2 (C) 3
(C) 3 (D) 4
(D) 4 (E) 5
(E) 5
5. If n is an odd integer, then which of the

following could be the value of (n 1)(n + 1)?
(F) 20
(G) 40
(H) 60
(J) 80
(K) 100

Exponents
Exponent Types
Positive powersMultiply the base by itself as many times as the

exponent tells you to.
35 =
Negative powersA negative exponent means that you put a 1 over

the base and multiply the base by itself as many times as the exponent 35 =
tells you to.
0 as powerAny number raised to the power of 0 equals 1. 30 =
1 as powerAny number raised to the power of 1 equals itself. 31 =
1 and 0 with powersNo matter what power 1 is raised to, it remains 1.

No matter what power 0 is raised to, it remains 0.
16 = 014 =
S3X=
Powers on fractionsMultiply the fraction by itself as many times as 3
the exponent tells you to. 4
Negative numbers with powersIf a negative number is raised to an (3)2 =

even power, it becomes positive. If a negative number is raised to an
odd power, it stays negative. (3)3 =
Operations on powersThese operations work only when the bases 35 x 34 =

are
the same. 35
=
34
Raising a power to a power (35)3 =
Distributing an exponent (3x)5 =
Fractional powers (aka Roots)The numerator represents the 1 5

33 = 32 =
power and the denominator represents the root.

Cla s s 2
Exponent Practice
7. The product of (2x4y)(3x5y8) is equivalent to: 9. If m and n are positive integers such
that the greatest common factor of
(A) 5x y9 9
m2n2 and mn3 is 45, then which of the
(B) 6x9y8 following could n equal?
(C) 6x9y9
(A) 3
(D) 5x20y8
(B) 5
(E) 6x20y8
(C) 9
(D) 15
(E) 45
8. If (4x)(8y) = 2p, which of the following

expressions represents the value of p?
(F) x + y
(G) x + y + 5
(H) 6xy
(J) x + x
2 3
(K) 2x + 3y

Function Problems
Identify:
Any problem that includes function notation with numbers:
f(2) or g(15) or h Q 3 V
Set Up:
Plug: The number in the parentheses is the number to plug in to the function wherever you see
a variable.
Make Sure:
Dont be intimidated. Be sure you plug in the number for every instance of the variable.
Execute:
Chug: Work out the arithmetic, using the number in the parentheses.
10. A function F is defined as follows:
For x > 0, F(x) = x3 + x2 42x 29

For x < 0, F(x) = x3 + x2 + 42x 29
What is the value of F(2)?

(A) 101
(B) 51
(C) 0
(D) 51
(E) 101

Cla s s 2
Function Practice
11. If f(x) = 3x + 20, what is the value of f(4)? 13. Let the function h be defined by
h(x) = 7x 4k, where k is a constant. If
(A) 8
h(5) + h(6) = 21, what is the value of k?
(B) 12
(A) 7
(C) 27
(B) 4
(D) 32
(C) 4
(E) 34
(D) 7
(E) 28
12. If f(x) = x2 + x + 5 and g(x) = x ,

g (4)
then what is the value of ?
f (1)
(F) 2
7
(G) 25
7
(H) 2
25
(J) 2
(K) 4

Symbol Problems
Identify:
Any weird symbol problem asking you to solve for a number value, such as
3 ,5 7, or 6
Set Up:
Plug: The number in the question is the number to plug in to the operation defined in
the question.
Make Sure:
Dont be intimidated. Be sure you plug in the number for every instance of the variable from
the operation.
Execute:
Chug: Solve the operation by solving the math.
14. For all positive values of p, let p be defined as

p
2 . What is the value of 2?
p +1
(A) 2
5
(B) 1
2
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 4

Cla s s 2
Symbol Practice
15. For any number x, let rx be defined by 17. For all positive integers n, let Un be
defined by Un = n(n + 1). Which of the
rx = 3x 2- 1 . What is the value of r4?
following expressions is equal to U7 U5?
(A) 3 (A) U0 + U2
(B) U1 + U3
(B) 4 (C) U2 + U3
(D) U2 + U4
(C) 11 (E) U3 + U4
2
(D) 6
(E) 13
2
16. Let a b = (a + b)3 for all integers a and b.

Which of the following is the value of
1 (3)?
(F) 64
(G) 16
(H) 8
(J) 2
(K) 8

Ratios & Proportions

Identify:
Questions that define a proportional relationship between two or more things.
Set Up:
Two fractions equaling one another. The ratio of one thing to another thing is a fraction:
Ratio Formula Direct Proportional Relationship
One Part One Part One Part

Ratio = Another Part Whole Thing = Whole Thing
Make Sure:
Keep your units straight, and answer the question theyre asking.
Execute:
Cross-multiply.
18. The ratio of the side lengths for a triangle is

exactly 15:14:12. In a second triangle
similar to the first, the longest side is 10
inches long. To the nearest tenth of an inch,
what is the length of the shortest side of the
second triangle?
(A) 6.4
(B) 8.0
(C) 9.3
(D) 12.0
(E) Cannot be determined from the
given information.

Cla s s 2
Ratios & Proportions Practice

19. A recipe for fudge requires only three 21. For every 6,000 washing machines produced
ingredients: chocolate, butter, and by a factory, exactly 8 are faulty. At this rate,
marshmallows. According to the recipe, the how many total washing machines were
weight of chocolate added should be twice produced during a period in which exactly 20
that of butter, and the weight of butter added washing machines were faulty?
should be three times that of marshmallows.
(A) 600
How many ounces of butter are required to
make 45 ounces of this recipe? (B) 6,000
(C) 9,000
(A) 4.5
(D) 15,000
(B) 6
(E) 18,000
(C) 9
(D) 13.5
(E) 18
20. If c is directly proportional to k 2 and

c = 7 when k = 41 , what is the value of k
16
when c = 175?
(F) 2
(G) 3
(H) 4
(J) 5
(K) 6

Percent Change
Identify:
Questions that give before and after numbers or ask for an increase, decrease,
or total change.
Set Up:
List all the elements you know, and put them in the percent change formula:
Final - Original
Percent Change = Original x100%
Make Sure:
Be careful of the denominator:
Divide by the Original amount, not by the Final amount.
Execute:
Just do the math.
22. Since last year, the price of a certain

screwdriver has increased from $2
to $6. What is the percent increase in
the price of this screwdriver since
last year?
(A) 2%
(B) 10%
(C) 20%
(D) 100%
(E) 200%

Cla s s 2
Percent Change Practice

23. A number is increased by 40% and the 25. A used car dealer assigns an initial price to
resulting number is then decreased by 25%. every used car on the lot, and for every month
The final number is what percent of the that a certain car isnt sold, the current price
original number? on that car is lowered by 10%. If the current
price of a car is $3,645, and its price has been
(A) 130%
lowered three times by the dealer, what was the
(B) 115% initial price, in dollars that the dealer originally
(C) 105% assigned to the car?
(D) 90% (A) $4,500
(E) 85% (B) $4,739
(C) $4,851
(D) $5,000
(E) $5,207
24. On October 26, a sweater was priced at $50.

On November 26, the price was reduced by
10%. On December 26, the price was further
reduced by 30% of the November 26 price and
marked FINAL. What is the total discount on
the sweater?
(F) 37%
(G) 40%
(H) 60%
(J) 63%
(K) 80%

Class 2
Homework

Cla s s 2
Class 2 Homework
If your Reading score was If your English score was If your Math score was
between... between... between...
1-17 1-17 1-17

...then your Reading ...then your English ...then your Math
homework due for next homework due for next homework due for next
class is: class is: class is:
p. 110-112 p. 113-116 #1-15 p. 122-123 #1-10

#1-5 & #11-15
18-22 18-22 18-22

p. 110-112 p. 117-119 #16-30 p. 123-125 #11-20

#3-7 & #13-17
23-36 23-36 23-36

p. 110-112 p. 119-121 #31-45 p. 125-127 #21-30

#6-10 & #16-20

Hom ework
Score Report
Yes Issue Solution
Know when to cut loose

More than 3 wrong One hard problem
Dont get flustered by one ques-
answers/omits in a row? threw you off track
tion
Not ready at the start Warm up with a few questions

Worst Section 1?
of the exam Wake up earlier
Focus on your endurance

Eat a bigger breakfast and pack
Not staying in the Test
Worst Sections 2 & 3? a snack for the test
Zone for the entire test
Remind yourself halfway through
why the test is so important
Practice for longer periods of

Losing energy time
Worst Section 4?
and endurance Eat a snack at the break
Review your strategies
Use your calculator for

Missed early questions Rushing or careless- all computations
on the Math section? ness Pace yourself
Dont focus on finishing
Dont rush to finish

These questions are Take your time on these
Missed late questions
too hard; falling for hard questions
on the Math section?
traps Eliminate more answer choices
before guessing
Answered all questions, Overconfidence or Dont guess without eliminating

but with many errors? blindly guessing Slow down
Moving too slowly or Scan the passages to work on

Omits at the end of
getting bogged down the ones you like first
a section?
in a passage Eliminate answers more quickly
Scan section and select your

Missed many questions
Working linearly best passages to work on first
on a particular Reading
through each section Dont get bogged down on any
or Science passage?
one passage

Hom ework
Reading
Directions: There are two passages in this homework section. Each passage is followed by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question. You may refer to the passages as often
as necessary.
settle at the most equitable balance of resources for both

Questions 1-10 parties. An example would be the price per gallon of
Social Science: The following passage offers a brief 45 gasoline. In summer, when automobile travel is at its
annual height, the price of a gallon of gas is traditionally
discussion of economics. high. The price then drops in the autumn, when school
resumes and auto travel diminishes. This fluctuation
In its most basic form, economics is the study of illustrates the fundamental principles of supply and
production, allocation, and use of goods and services. 50 demand as it reflects the collective behavior of individual
Although some have disparaged it as more religion than consumers. As such, this example belongs to the realm of
science, economics is a critical part of modern society. microeconomics.
5 Because all resources are essentially finite, choices must
be made to maximize individual and collective benefits. However, the price of a gallon of gasoline is only
Consequently, it is important to understand the theories partially affected by demand of primary consumers. There
underlying optimum distribution of resources to meet the 55 are numerous other factors that influence the price of
needs of the greatest number of people. It is even more petroleum, including but not limited to currency markets,
10 important to understand how distribution works in real geopolitical instability, and various barriers to trade.
world economies and the ways in which distribution These collective issues inform the study of
methods succeed or fail. To achieve these complex goals, macroeconomics. Macroeconomists are not interested in
economics has developed numerous, occasionally 60 individual behavior. Instead, they study aggregate
conflicting, subspecialties generally separated into two indicators such as gross domestic product (GDP),
15 major philosophies of approach: microeconomics and unemployment rates, and pricing statistics to understand
macroeconomics. how the broader economy functions. While still working
within the general framework of supply and demand,
As their name suggests, microeconomists study 65 macroeconomists develop models that explain the
economic behavior on the level of individual agents, such relationships between such factors as national income,
as consumers or companies, and how this behavior affects output, consumption, unemployment, inflation, savings,
20 the market as a whole. Much of microeconomics is based investment, and international finance.
on the principle of supply and demand. Using this
principle, microeconomists analyze price points and While macroeconomics is a broad field of study, there
determine how prices will affect production, distribution, 70 are two areas of research that are at the heart of the
and use of goods and services. Under this principle, discipline: the attempt to understand the causes and
25 supply refers to how much of a certain good or service is consequences of short-term fluctuations in the business
available for people to consume, whereas demand refers cycle, and the attempt to understand the determinants of
to the amount of the good or service that people want to long-term economic growth. Macroeconomists have spent
consume. If consumers are willing and able to buy a 75 decades in the pursuit of a complete system of thought to
certain good or service, demand goes up. If consumers are reconcile these two areas. Some schools of thought have
30 unwilling or unable to buy, demand goes down. In an focused on demand; others have focused on supply. Still,
elastic market, supply will eventually meet demand. By no single theory has managed to fully explain, or predict,
charting the movements of supply and demand, market success or collapse.
microeconomists can predict price. If demand is high and
supply is limited, prices will be high. If supply is high and 80 The latest theories of economics have tried to marry
35 demand is limited, prices will be low. Microeconomists supply to demand. They also posit that macroeconomics
recognize that several factors can disrupt this balance and microeconomics are far more closely related than has
(monopolies for example), and that some situations, like been previously thought. This merging of theoretical
public infrastructure projects, are simply unsuited for approaches is apt, as global economies themselves
market solutions. 85 become more intertwined. Indeed, the worldwide nature of
the modern condition requires economists to develop an
40 Even when markets work, microeconomists approach compatible with the fact that, having become
understand that resources are limited, for both suppliers global, the economy is essentially a closed system, and
and consumers. Still, they predict that prices will generally that we are all ultimately dependent upon each other.

Cla s s 2
1. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage 6. The phrase, This merging of theoretical
that the author would most agree with which of approaches is apt (lines 83-84) refers to the:
the following remarks? (F) theory that economics is more religion
(A) Supply and demand are one and the same than science.
thing. (G) difficulty in predicting the future price of
(B) Economics is a developing field and is not gasoline to the consumer.
yet perfected. (H) overall differences in approach between
(C) Modern economic theory has led to business people and economists.
the global economy becoming a closed (J) fact that a useful theory needs to include
system. the interconnectedness of the world
(D) Microeconomics has made economy.
macroeconomics obsolete due to market
failures. 7. Which of the following most accurately
describes the way the sentence, An example
2. In terms of the passage as a whole, one of the would be the price per gallon of gasoline
main functions of the fifth paragraph (lines (lines 44-45) functions in the passage?
69-79) is to: (A) It concludes a summary of microeconomic
(F) argue for the superiority of macroeconomic theories.
theory over microeconomic theory. (B) It introduces a real world illustration of
(G) show that microeconomic theory has economic theories at work.
supplanted macroeconomic theory in the (C) It allows the author to diverge from the
modern world. main point of the passage and entertain the
(H) give a brief explanation of reader.
macroeconomics. (D) It serves to challenge a commonly held
(J) provide a real-world example of belief regarding economic theory.
microeconomic theory at work.
8. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage
3. The author makes all of the following points that:
EXCEPT: (F) microeconomics is better suited to
(A) macroeconomics is a broad theory. predicting market collapses than
(B) the price of a gallon of gasoline is only macroeconomics.
partially affected by demand of primary (G) some economists feel that the separation of
consumers. economics into subspecialties is artificial.
(C) microeconomists study economic behavior (H) economists are held in low regard by other
on the level of individual agents. social scientists.
(D) economic theory is a complete science (J) any theory that attempts to quantify the
with no detractors or skeptics. global economy is doomed to failure.
4. Based on the passage, macroeconomists: 9. According to the passage, supply is defined as:
(F) are not interested in individual behavior as (A) the total consumption of raw materials in
such. the production of goods.
(G) get involved in the study of religion and its (B) how much of a certain good or service is
impact on global markets. available for people to consume.
(H) have given up on the search for an (C) an unknown, elastic quantity of goods
overarching global economic theory. produced by companies.
(J) cannot solve any of the real world issues (D) the ability of the market to purchase goods
that are of concern to individuals. and services.
5. As used in line 31, the word elastic most nearly 10. According to the passage, the two concepts at
means: the core of macroeconomics are:
(A) strong. (F) supply and demand.
(B) predictable. (G) religion and the price of gasoline.
(C) flexible. (H) consumers and companies.
(D) voluntary. (J) the business cycle and long-term growth.

Hom ework
55 Bev produced watercolors portraying mountains, canyons,

Questions 11-20 woods, and wild animals. Bev was able to create a style
that began with an idea and, through her realistic
Humanities: The following passage discusses artist approach, bring that idea to completion. Up to this point,
Bev Doolittle and her unique paintings. most known western art had been done with oil paints.
60 Bev was successful in bringing her new watercolor
The practice of camouflage has always had a medium into classical western art, making a name for
functional application, whether it be hunters hiding from herself and commanding high prices for her original
their prey or soldiers hiding from their enemies. During works as well as prints of her paintings.
World War I, artists were put into service camouflaging
5 equipment and installations. Today, the concept of Doolittles art demands months of development,
blending into the environment to the point of becoming 65 research of terrain, and animal sketching. After
nearly invisible has become an art form unto itself, developing the concept, she creates thumbnail sketches,
moving from the pragmatic to the aesthetic. The sometimes as many as fifty, where she reworks the images
fascination may lie in the believed abstraction that we can until she has achieved her objective. She has a knack for
10 do by design what comes so naturally to creatures in the evoking emotion and thought when viewing her artwork.
wild. 70 Her compositions compel the audiences involvement.
Through the magic of her vision, she forges an interaction
It is this very concept that has inspired Bev Doolittle, a between the viewer and the art, rewarding the viewers
contemporary American artist who creates her own style attention with the excitement of discovery. As she says
of camouflage masterpieces. While not all of her artwork herself, I wantto have people think when they look at
15 incorporates this masquerading technique, the pieces that 75 my paintings. I regard myself as a visual storyteller
do are captivating and almost mystical. In one of her using camouflage as a technique to slow down the
earlier paintings, The Forest Has Eyes, the viewer at viewing process, but my meaning and message are never
first sees a beautiful rendering of a mountain man on his hidden. Bev Doolittle has created a unique niche in the
horse as he slowly works his way through a thick strand of genre of western art, and hopefully she will continue to
20 evergreens and pines. Soon, a large face appears in the 80 spark imaginations with her creative genius.
background, always there, but initially unseen. As the
viewer gazes at the watercolor, he realizes there are 11. The passage can best be summarized as:
several more faces of varying sizes throughout the
background, all of whom are watching the solitary figure (A) a discussion of the evolution of modern
25 on his horse. After seeing this painting, it would be American watercolor painting.
difficult to ever go into the woods again and not wonder if (B) an introduction to a unique American artist.
the forest does, indeed, have eyes. (C) a history of camouflage in the natural world.
Doolittle was born into a large family in California in (D) an argument for the expansion of camouflage in
1947. Early on she demonstrated a keen interest and military applications.
30 ability in artistic endeavors. As a young girl, she much
preferred to draw her own pictures rather than sit down 12. The authors attitude toward the work of Bev
with a coloring book and crayons filling in someone elses
renderings. Bev began to show an interest in the beauty of Doolittle can most appropriately be described as:
the American West at 11 years old. She won her first (F) appreciative.
35 award at age twelve in an art contest sponsored by the San (G) incredulous.
Gabriel Historical Society, and her first one-artist show
was held when she was fourteen. Her high school art (H) critical.
teacher suggested that she apply for the Saturday (J) accepting.
Scholarship at the Los Angeles Art Center College of
40 Design; she won the scholarship and began serious art 13. According to the passage, Bev Doolittle and her
study before graduating from high school.
husband left their jobs at an ad agency when:
Bevs work reflects her love of horses, passion for the (A) they decided to travel around the country on an
natural world, and her affinity for the Native Americans extended vacation.
45 spiritual relationship to the land. Much of the proceeds
from the sale of her vast body of work have gone toward (B) the company fell on hard economic times.
nature conservatories and foundations, demonstrating her (C) Bev began to incorporate camouflage techniques
great love and respect for all of nature. into her paintings.
(D) Bev felt that she was not reaching her potential.
After graduating from high school, she studied art full-
time at the Art Center College of Design where she met
50 her husband, Jay. Though Doolittle and her husband both
worked in graphic arts at an advertising agency in their
early years as a couple, Bev felt she wasnt reaching her
full potential as an artist in this capacity. The Doolittles
quit their jobs at the ad agency and took to the road where

Cla s s 2
14. Without the last paragraph, the passage would 19. According to the passage, which of the
contain few specific examples of: following people encouraged Bev to apply for
(F) Bev Doolittles initial exposure to art. an art scholarship?
(G) modern-day western artistic styles. (A) Her high school principal
(H) Bev Doolittles artistic process. (B) Her parents
(J) various camouflage techniques. (C) Her college art professor
(D) Her high school art teacher
15. According to the passage, fascination with
camouflage may be rooted in: 20. According to the passage, Bev Doolittles first
(A) the idea that human beings can do by one-artist show was held:
planning what nature has intrinsically (F) at the San Gabriel Historical Society.
evolved. (G) when she was 12 years old.
(B) the need to conceal prey from hunters. (H) when she was 14 years old.
(C) the military need to prevent enemies from (J) at the Art Center College of Design.
finding soldiers.
(D) the practical considerations surrounding
the use of watercolors instead of oils.
16. As it is used in line 18, rendering most nearly

means:
(F) concealment.
(G) depiction.
(H) aggrandizement.
(J) distillation.
17. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage

that the author describes the artists process in
order to:
(A) enhance the readers appreciation of the
complexity of Doolittles paintings.
(B) encourage the reader to undertake the
process.
(C) conflate the works of Bev Doolittle with
those of her husband.
(D) render any negative evaluation of
Doolittles work meaningless.
18. This passage would most likely be found in:

(F) a history of the American West.
(G) a technical manual on military camouflage.
(H) an article in a magazine focusing on art
and artists.
(J) a college textbook for a course on graphic
design in advertising.

Hom ework
English
Directions: In the three passages that follow, certain words and phrases are underlined and
numbered. In the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the underlined part. In most
cases, you are to choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate
for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the
passage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose NO CHANGE. In some
cases, you will find in the right-hand column a question about the underlined part.
You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole.
These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identified
by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider best. Read each passage through once
before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For many of the questions, you
must read several sentences beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure that you
have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.
Passage 1
Marian Anderson: Soulful Songstress
[1] 1. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) 1897, no one
When Marian Anderson was born in Philadelphia in 1897, no one, (C) 1897; no one
1 (D) 1897 no one
could have predicted the artistic success the world-famous contralto
2. (F) NO CHANGE
would achieve in her lifetime or the many barriers she would overcome. (G) Even though
(H) Until
While she is remembered both for her magnificent singing voice and for
(J) Today
2
her struggle on behalf of African American civil rights.
3. (A) NO CHANGE
[2] (B) gather
(C) seemed to gather
Anderson developed a love of singing early in her life. As a child, she (D) gathered
and her family often were gathering to sing spirituals and other beloved 4. (F) NO CHANGE
3 (G) Anderson was studying
songs. Anderson gave her first public concert at the age of six, and she (H) Anderson had been studied
(J) Anderson studies
was an ardent member of her church choir. The singer received a lot of
help from her church and community as she developed her vocal skills.
Many people contributed money for her education in Philadelphia, and
Anderson studied with several accomplished opera singers.

4

Cla s s 2

(B) Despite
Andersons manager found it difficult to book singing engagements (C) Since
(D) However
for her in the United States. Because of her enormous talent, many
5 6. (F) NO CHANGE
venues refused to hold concerts with her because of strict racial barriers. (G) she
(H) herself
Other African American musicians and athletes suffered under the same (J) they
constraints. As a result, Anderson traveled to Europe, where her and 7. Which of the alternatives provides
6 the most logical and succinct
other American minorities were able to perform and refine their skills conclusion for Paragraph 3?
(A) NO CHANGE
more freely. In 1939, Anderson was barred from performing in a concert (B) That concert drew an audience
of over 75,000 people.
at Washingtons Constitution Hall by the halls owners, the Daughters (C) Eleanor Roosevelt knew a
good thing when she heard
of the American Revolution. In response, Eleanor Roosevelt issued a it, because the concert drew a
crowd of over 75,000 people.
personal invitation for Anderson to perform from the front steps of the (D) 75,000 people crowded the
area in front of the Memorial
Lincoln Memorial in Washington, D.C. That personal invitation was in order to hear Anderson
7 singing her songs.
eventually shared with 75,000 other people who attended the concert as
7
8. Which of the following sequences
an audience. of paragraphs will make Paragraph
7 4 most logical?
[4]
(F) NO CHANGE
(G) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
8 Anderson worked hard to train her voice, and she entered a
(H) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3
(J) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
competition sponsored by the New York
9. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) In the end
(C) Although
Philharmonic Society. Since hundreds of vocalists competed, she was
(D) However
9
declared the winner. Her prize was a featured appearance with the
10. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) by continuing to sing
prestigious New York Philharmonic Orchestra. Her performance was
(H) to continue that song
(J) to continue singing
so stirring that the manager of the orchestra offered her a contract
continuing to sing professionally.

10

Hom ework

(B) that
Anderson did not let the racial prejudices of the time keep her (C) as
(D) OMIT the underline portion.
from entertaining her fans. Her talent which forced others to recognize
her abilities. In 1943, she gave a concert in the same Constitution Hall (G) Freedom, in 1963
(H) Freedom; in 1963
where she had been rejected four years earlier. In 1955, she became the (J) Freedom - in 1963
first African American performer to appear on stage at the Metropolitan 13. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) honoring her ability and its
Opera House in New York City. She also received the Presidential determination
(C) to honor her ability and her
Medal of Freedom in 1963. Anderson gave her last public concert in determination
12 (D) to honor her ability and that of
1965, but her legacy as a courageous and groundbreaking woman and her own determinedness
performer remains. Two years before her death in 1993, Anderson was
given a Grammy Lifetime Achievement Award in honor of her ability

13
and her own determinedness.
13

Cla s s 2
Questions 14 and 15 ask about the preceding

passage as a whole.
14. The writer wishes to add the following

sentence to the essay:
By the age of 20, she had performed in

many public concerts and was giving solo
performances.
If added, this sentence would best support and

most logically be placed:
(F) after the last sentence of Paragraph 2.
(G) before the first sentence of Paragraph 3.
(H) before the first sentence of Paragraph 4.
(J) before the first sentence of Paragraph 5.
15. The writer has been asked to write an essay

assessing the effectiveness of the Civil Rights
Movement in bettering social conditions for
African Americans. Would this essay fulfill that
assignment?
(A) Yes; the writer focuses exclusively on
the struggles and successes of an African
American singer before and after the Civil
Rights Movement.
(B) Yes; the writer focuses on the necessity
of the Civil Rights Movement to achieve
equal opportunities for African Americans.
(C) No; the writer focuses narrowly on the
struggles of just one person and fails to
connect her successes to the Civil Rights
Movement.
(D) No; the writer focuses narrowly on the
struggles of one vocalist and not on those
of African Americans in general.

Hom ework
Passage 2 16. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) chooses
(H) chosen
Reclaiming Our National Emblem (F) choosing
In a country where the bald eagle is an important icon, the U.S.

17. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) theyre
general population knows very little about this majestic bird. Declared
(C) its
(D) of the
in 1782 by the Second Continental Congress as the national emblem of
18. (F) NO CHANGE
the United States of America, the bird was chose because its a species
(G) being symbolic
16 17 (H) as a symbol
unique to North America. Representing the spirit of freedom and
(J) OMIT the underlined portion.
excellence in the United States symbolically, the bald eagle has played
19. Which of the following alternatives
18
to the underlined portion would
an important role in American art, music, and architecture.
NOT be acceptable?
(A) Even though
(B) Despite
While the bald eagle can be found in every U.S. state accept (C) Whereas
19 20 (D) Although
Hawaii, few Americans have actually seen a bald eagle. Because
20. (F) NO CHANGE
bald eagles prefer nesting in tall trees and feeding on fish, people (G) accepts
(H) except
have a better chance of spying the bird in a boat or along a lakeshore. (J) accepting
21
Unfortunately, bald eagle sightings are not as common as they were in 21. The best placement for the
underlined portion would be:
the countrys formative years. (A) where it is now.
(B) after the word nesting.
(C) after the word eagles.
(D) after the word people.
[1] Bald eagles were once common throughout the United States
22. (F) NO CHANGE
in the early 1700s, but there population fell dramatically as to human (G) theyre
22 23 (H) their
activity. [2] Hunting, habitat (J) its

would best replace the underlined
portion?
(A) apart from
(B) as a result of
(C) as for
(D) despite

Cla s s 2
destruction, waterway contamination, and the use of pesticides by 24. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) fewer than
humans caused the bald eagle population to fall from 500,000 in (H) less then
(J) fewer then
the 1700s to less than 1,000 birds by the 1960s. [3] In an effort to
counteract this decline, the United States government enacted strong (B) have
(C) had
endangered species and environmental protection laws. [4] Increased (D) having
public awareness of environmental quality issues has 26. Upon reviewing this paragraph, the
25 author notices that some information has
been left out. The author composes the
helped the process along. 26 following sentence, incorporating the
missing information:
Private conservation organizations have

also joined the effort to revive the bald
Unfortunately, some practices that pollute or alter the environment
eagle population, and through their efforts
and those of the national government, the
continues on harassing and threaten the bald eagle population, makes bald eagle population has increased to
27 28 over 55,000 birds.
preservation efforts even more important. Seeing the American spirit of
For the sake of logic, this sentence should
freedom and excellence embodied in the bird, politicians and citizens be placed before Sentence:
(F) 1
alike continue to work towards the protecting of the bald eagle. Maybe (G) 2
29 (H) 3
one day the bald eagle will be restored to its original majesty. (J) 4
27. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) continues harassing
(C) continue and harass
(D) continue to harass
28. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) population in order to make
(H) population. This makes
(J) population makes
29. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) towards a protection of
(C) protect
(D) towards protecting

Hom ework
Question 30 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.
30. Suppose the writers goal was to describe the

varying habitat and diet of the bald eagle in
different states. Does the essay meet this goal?
(F) Yes, because the essay addresses the
preferred habitat and diet of the bald eagle.
(G) Yes, because the essay indicates that the
bald eagle is present in every U.S. state
except one.
(H) No, because the essay never specifically
addresses variations in the habitat or diet
of the bald eagle.
(J) No, because the essay blames changes
to the environment on humans for
fluctuations in the bald eagle population.
Passage 3 31. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) a mixture best described
as eclectic
Salsa: More Than Just a Hot Sauce (C) an eclectic mix
(D) a mix which is eclectic
[1]
32. (F) NO CHANGE
Most people think salsa is another word for tomato and onion (G) spicy even frenzied
mixture
sauce with maybe a little cilantro and a few chilies thrown in. They (H) spicy which is to say
frenzied mixture
dont realize that it is also a mix that is eclectic of Cuban, Caribbean, (J) spicy, while even frenzied,
31
mixture
and Latin American music or even the dance style that this music
33. Which of the following sentences,
inspired. Like its namesake hot sauce, salsa music is a spicy even
if inserted at this point, would
32 provide the most effective
frenzied mixture of instruments and vocals that creates a sound that transition to the second paragraph?
32
(A) While everyone loves salsa
gets almost everyone up onto the dance floor!
music, it wasnt always so
very popular.
[2]
(B) Cubans play the best dance
music.
33
The style was created and played mostly by Cuban bands. In fact,
(C) Salsa is my favorite sauce
and my favorite music!
some Cuban musicians, like the master Tito
(D) Todays salsa music probably
began around the 1940s.

Cla s s 2
Puente, rejected the term salsa altogether, claiming the correct term 34. If the writer deletes the phrase
claiming the correct term was simply
was simply Cuban music. 34 Other musicians rejected that claim Cuban music from the preceding
sentence and also deletes in honor of
its early roots in African percussion
and called the style Afro-Cuban jazz, in honor of its early roots in from the next sentence, the essay
would lose details
African percussion. Puerto Rican musicians also focused in salsa music, that are:
35 (F) unnecessary opinions about the
in the end inspiring the popular dances the bomba and the plena. development of salsa.
36 (G) important to the tone of the essay.
(H) essential to understanding the
[3]
development of salsa.
(J) not relevant to the context of
During the 1980s, a new type of salsa music evolved, the essay.
known as salsa romantica. Lyrical compositions featuring love and 35. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) on
37 38
(C) with
absolute romance were the overwhelmingly primary emphasis of this (D) by
38
new type of music, along with the emerging importance of melody
36. (F) NO CHANGE
38 (G) eventually inspiring
over rhythm. In the next two decades, salsa musicians continued (H) by which inspired
(J) inspiring by this
by producing a huge variety of styles, eventually combining other types
(B) known to many by the name
of music, such as hip-hop and R&B. This created new interest, new
salsa romantica
(C) which was called by the new
audiences, and new excitement for the salsa sound. name salsa romantica
(D) OMIT the underlined portion.
[4]
38. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) The main emphasis being that
Salsa continued to evolve during the 1950s and 1960s, with this music was new was lyrics of
love and romance
many new Latin bands performing and recording their individual (H) Music like this of love and
40 romance
interpretations of the upbeat dance music. It was during this time that (J) Lyrics of love and romance were
the emphasis of this new music
the term salsa could replace Afro-Cuban. As salsa became more 39. (A) NO CHANGE
41 (B) the produce of
and more popular, (C) production by
(D) to produce
40. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) there
(H) its
(J) its
41. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) began to
(C) should
(D) will

Hom ework
the word was attached to an entire range of Latin American culture, not 42. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) (Begin new paragraph) Yet,
just a style of music. Yet, as Puerto Ricans and Cubans began to form (H) (Begin new paragraph) In fact,
42 (J) (Do NOT begin new
strong communities in places like New York City, salsa music emerged paragraph) Indeed,
as a true mix of different heritages and historical backgrounds. Artists 43. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) such as
like that Willie Colon and Hector Lavoe became masters at creating the (C) including the ones called
43 (D) especially like
new salsa sounds, while maintaining the history and roots of their
44. (F) NO CHANGE
own traditions. (G) name just
(H) name, just
[5] (J) name, being that it is just
Salsa music continues to evolve and gain popularity across the

Question 45 asks about the
preceding passage as a whole.
globe. Even in Europe and Japan, radio stations can be tuned in to salsa.
It is difficult to ignore salsas driving pulse and its invitation to get up 45. For the sake of the logic and
coherence of the essay, Paragraph
and move. And truly, this musical genre lives up to its name; just like 4 should be placed:
44 (A) where it is now.
a gourmet blend of tomatoes, peppers, and exotic spices, salsa music (B) after Paragraph 1.
(C) after Paragraph 2.
is a delicious mixture of Latin heritage, musical talent, and artistic (D) after Paragraph 5.
evolution.

Cla s s 2
Math
1. The table below shows the age distribution 4. What is the value of 3 2a + b when a = 5 and
of the graduating class from Staffordsville b = 2 ?
College.
(F) 256
Age, in years 21 22 23 24 25 (G) 216
(H) 47
Percent of students 26% 32% 22% 12% 8%
(J) 24
(K) 18
What percent of the students are at least 23
years old?
(A) 34%
(B) 42%
(C) 58%
(D) 66%
5. What value of x solves the following
(E) 80%
proportion?
10 x
8 = 6
2. What percent of 2 is 1 ?
5 5
(F) 20%
(A) 5 1
(G) 25% 3
(H) 40%
(B) 7 1
(J) 50% 2
(K) 200% (C) 10 1
2
(D) 11
3. Three pieces of rope, each 2.8 feet long, are cut
from the end of a rope 90 feet long. How many (E) 12
feet of rope are left?
(A) 81.6
(B) 82.6
(C) 83.2
(D) 83.6
(E) 87.2

Hom ework
6. If h represents the hundreds digit in the 4-digit 9. All swimsuits at a local clothing store are
number 6,h47, what is the smallest value of h on sale for 66% off the original price. If a
that will make 6,h47 larger than 6,437? swimsuit originally cost $48.00, how much is
the sale price, to the nearest cent?
(F) 3
(G) 4 (A) $5.00
(H) 5 (B) $16.32
(J) 6 (C) $24.00
(K) 7 (D) $31.68
(E) $47.33
7. How many different integer values of n satisfy 10. If f(x) = 3x2 8, then f(4) =
1
the inequality 14 2 1
< n < 11 ?
(F) 56
(G) 40
(A) 1
(H) 8
(B) 2
(J) 24
(C) 3
(K) 40
(D) 4
(E) 5
8. Each of the following is a factor of

90 EXCEPT
(F) 5 11. Which real number satisfies (2n)(8) = 163?
(G) 9 (A) 3
(H) 12 (B) 4
(J) 15 (C) 6
(K) 30 (D) 9
(E) 12

Cla s s 2
12. Which of the following contains ONLY 15. Two numbers have a greatest common factor of
divisors of 180? 6 and a least common multiple of 36. Which of
the following could be the pair of numbers?
(F) {15, 30, 45, 50}
(G) {6, 12, 20, 24, 36} (A) 6 and 12
(H) {3, 5, 15, 30, 120} (B) 6 and 18
(J) {2, 3, 5, 40, 90} (C) 12 and 18
(K) {2, 3, 5, 6, 15, 45} (D) 12 and 36
(E) 18 and 36
13. Mrs. Smith gave her students a 20-question

pop quiz on the weeks algebra lesson. Only
16. Let x U y = (x 2y)2 for all integers x and y.
one of the following percents is possible as the
percent of the 20 questions a student answered What is the value of 5 U 3?
correctly. Which one is it? (A) 121
(B) 130
(A) 71%
(C) 132
(B) 73% (D) 145
(C) 84% (E) 210
(D) 86%
(E) 90%
17. Which of the following is a factored form of

14. Given f(x) = 2x2 3x + 8, what is the value of 6x3y + 6xy3?
f(10)? (A) 6x3y3(y + x)
(F) 22 (B) 6xy(x2 + y2)
(G) 162 (C) 12xy(x2 + y2)
(H) 138 (D) 6x3y3
(J) 238 (E) 12x4y4
(K) 438

Hom ework
18. When D dollar bills are divided equally among 21. What is the largest possible product for 2 even
7 people, there is a remainder of $3. What is integers whose sum is 38?
the remainder when (D + 5) dollar bills are
(A) 72
divided equally among 7 people?
(B) 76
(F) $1
(C) 136
(G) $2
(D) 280
(H) $3
(E) 360
(J) $4
(K) $5
54 = 3 Q k 2 V , then k = ?
19. Candice is making a scale drawing of her
rectangular yard. The yard is 20 feet wide by 22. If k
30 feet long. She is using a scale of inch = (F) 1

1 foot for the scale drawing of the yard. What
(G) 2
will the dimensions be, in inches, of Candices
scaled drawing? (H) 3
(J) 4
(A) 5 by 7 1 (K) 5
2
(B) 6 1 by 10
3
(C) 10 by 14
(D) 60 by 90
(E) 80 by 120
23. Mr. Bowers gave his class a test on 40
vocabulary words. Only one of the following
percents is possible as the percent of the 40
words a student defined correctly. Which one
20. What is the greatest common factor of 18x2, is it?
27x4, and 30x3?
(A) 77%
(F) 3x2
(B) 85%
(G) 3x4
(C) 93%
(H) 9x2
(D) 96%
(J) 18x2
(E) 99%
(K) 30x3

Cla s s 2
24. The ratio of the length of rectangle X to a side 26. Frank buys a 64-ounce can of paint to use
of square Y is 2:3. The ratio of the width of
for two home improvement projects. He only
rectangle X to a side of square Y is 1:3. What is
the ratio of the area of rectangle X to the area needs 18 of the paint for the first project,
of square Y ?
but then uses 3
4 of the remaining paint on
(F) 2:1
the second project. If Frank can return the
(G) 2:3
remaining unused paint to the store for 20 cents
(H) 2:9
(J) 3:1 per ounce, how much money, in dollars, did
(K) 3:2 Frank receive for returning his unused paint?
(F) $1.20
(G) $2.80
(H) $3.80
(J) $4.00
(K) $8.40
27. A game of bowling at Lucky Lanes costs

$3.00. Jane gives her younger brother half of
her money, some of which he uses to purchase
25. For integers x and y such that xy = 12, which of 3 games of bowling. When he asks to play
the following is NOT a possible value of x? a video game, she gives him another $1.00.
That leaves Jane exactly enough money to buy
(A) 2 3 games of bowling for herself. How much
(B) 3 money did Jane bring with her?
(C) 4 (A) $18.00
(D) 8 (B) $19.00
(E) 12 (C) $20.00
(D) $21.00
(E) $22.00

Hom ework
28. For all integers n, let n be defined by follows: 30. If r = 2 and p < 0, which of the following has
the least value?
n = n2 if n is odd
(F) 4pr2
n = 0.5n if n is even. (G) 2pr3
(H) 2pr4
If 3 + 2 = m, what is the value of m3?
(J) 4pr5
(F) 871
(K) 6pr6
(G) 950
(H) 987
(J) 1000
(K) 1052
29. If the assets of a stock drop by $4.03 billion to

$74.02 billion, what was the percent decrease,
to the nearest tenth, in the stocks assets?
(A) 0.4%
(B) 4.1%
(C) 5.2%
(D) 25.3%
(E) 40.0%

Cla s s 2
Class 2 Answer key

Reading English Math Reading English Math
(Page 67) (Page 79) (Page 91) (Page 109) (Page 113) (Page 122)
1. C 1. D 31. C 1. C 1. B 1. B 31. C 1. B
2. J 2. J 32. G 2. D 2. H 2. J 32. F 2. J
3. B 3. C 33. C 3. J 3. D 3. D 33. D 3. A
4. G 4. G 34. G 4. B 4. F 4. F 34. H 4. J
5. A 5. G 35. D 5. J 5. C 5. B 35. B 5. B
6. H 6. C 6. C 6. J 6. G 36. G 6. G
7. A 7. H 7. C 7. B 7. B 37. A 7. E
8. H 8. C 8. K 8. G 8. J 38. J 8. H
9. D 9. H 9. A 9. B 9. C 39. D 9. B
10. F 10. C 10. E 10. J 10. J 40. F 10. F
11. C 11. G 11. D 11. B 11. D 41. B 11. D
12. J 12. A 12. F 12. F 12. F 42. J 12. K
13. J 13. D 13. D 13. C 43. B 13. E
14. D 14. A 14. H 14. F 44. F 14. J
15. G 15. C 15. A 15. D 45. C 15. C
16. D 16. K 16. G 16. H 16. F
17. G 17. D 17. A 17. C 17. B
18. A 18. B 18. H 18. J 18. F
19. H 19. D 19. D 19. B 19. A
20. C 20. J 20. H 20. H 20. F
21. C 21. D 21. D 21. E
22. G 22. E 22. H 22. H
23. A 23. C 23. B 23. B
24. H 24. F 24. G 24. H
25. D 25. D 25. A 25. D
26. F 26. J 26. G
27. B 27. D 27. C
28. F 28. H 28. J
29. C 29. D 29. C
30. J 30. H 30. J

Class 3
Writing:
IBC
Key Points:
Make sure your essay structure includes Intro,
Body, and Conclusion paragraphs
Make sure your essay content includes a Thesis
and Supporting Evidence
Take the time to brainstorm your ideas before
writing your essay
I-B-C Beyond the ACT: Writing for Effect

Use the I-B-C outline to write stronger essays in your academic subjects.
Having an introduction with a strong thesis statement, body paragraphs that use examples to
supports the thesis, and a conclusion are keys to any strong essay.

Cla s s 3
Test Introduction
The Optional Writing Test
Some colleges require the ACT Writing Test. Other colleges do not. Most colleges will accept scores
from the Writing Test even if they do not require it.
You should decide whether to take the Writing Test based on the requirements of the colleges youre
thinking about applying to. Colleges websites will tell you whether or not they require the ACT
Writing Test.
The Bad News About the ACT Essay

You only have 40 minutes.
The Good News About the ACT Essay

You only have 40 minutes.
You are not expected to write a masterpiece.
Each grader spends at most 2-3 minutes on your essay.
The grade is based on your ability to evaluate simple perspectives on a given topic and relate
your own perspective to the given arguments.
The ACT Essay Prompt

The ACT essay prompt will always relate to a modern, controversial issue, and it will provide you with
opposing perspectives on that issue. The prompt will ask the following:
Write a unified, coherent essay in which you evaluate multiple perspectives on the increasing
presence of genetically modified foods. In your essay, be sure to:
-- analyze and evaluate the perspectives given
-- state and develop your own perspective on the issue
-- explain the relationship between your perspective and those given
Your perspective may be in full agreement with any of the others, in partial agreement, or wholly
different. Whatever the case, support your ideas with logical reasoning and detailed, persuasive
examples.

Wr i ting: IBC
Test Scoring
ACT Essay Scoring
Students receive a score on a 1-36 scale which is based upon subscores in four domains. The ACT
writing score does not affect the 1-36 ACT Composite score.
Each of the four domains is scored on a 2-12 scale (two graders give each domain a score from 1 to 6).
The maximum raw score that a student can rec eive is 48. This number is then converted to the
1-36 scale.
The domains on the ACT Writing Test are:
Ideas and Analysis
-- Scores in this category represent a students ability to comprehend the rhetorical situation;
generate productive ideas in response; think critically about the task; evaluate and analyze
multiple perspectives; and employ effective rhetorical strategies.
Development and Support
-- Scores in this category reflect a students ability to illustrate, explain, and substantiate
claims and ideas. Strong writers discuss and explore their ideas, making clear their pertinence
by way of detailed, persuasive examples and sound reasoning. They bolster their claims by
marshaling evidentiary support, drawing from their knowledge and relevant experience.
Organization
-- Scores in this category indicate a students ability to structure an argument logically,

sequence ideas strategically, and organize writing clearly.
Language Use and Conventions
-- Scores in this category denote a students ability to use standard written English in service of
a persuasive purpose. Competent writers demonstrate control over the conventions of
grammar, syntax, word usage, and mechanics. Stronger writers make effective rhetorical
choices in voice and tone, and express nuanced ideas by way of precise word choice.

Cla s s 3
Test Example 40 Minutes / 1 Prompt
Arts in the Classroom

Some school districts have recently proposed reducing or eliminating time spent learning arts in
the classroom. While schools have traditionally included time during the day for music, painting, or
dance, the value of these minutes has recently come under increased scrutiny. Much of this analysis
has focused on whether time spent on the arts adequately develops the skills that students will need
to succeed as adults in the 21st century. Given how the subjects learned in elementary and high
school have a lifelong impact on students, it is worth examining the value of including the arts in a
schools curriculum.
Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking about the
importance of arts in the classroom.
Perspective One Perspective Two Perspective Three
It is predicted that jobs Developments in technology So much of the focus of

of the future will be will cause many current jobs current education is on
increasingly technical, and to not exist in five, ten, or developing students that
that these jobs will be more twenty years. Education are ready for the careers
difficult to come by due which includes the arts for the future. But what
to global competition. If will help develop the about life outside of work?
we want our students to critical thinking skills and Dont we want citizens that
succeed, it is critical that adaptability that will are well-rounded and can
time in school is only spent be necessary to thrive in this have a conversation about
learning math and science. future environment. something other than work?
Essay Task
Write a unified, coherent essay in which you evaluate multiple perspectives on funding arts in
the classroom. In your essay, be sure to:
analyze and evaluate the perspectives given
state and develop your own perspective on the issue
explain the relationship between your perspective and those given
Your perspective may be in full agreement with any of the others, in partial agreement, or
wholly different. Whatever the case, support your ideas with logical reasoning and detailed,
persuasive examples.

Wr i ting: IBC
Brainstorming
Essay Brainstorming
Consider the following as you think critically about the task:
Strengths and weaknesses of the three given perspectives
-- What insights do they offer, and what do they fail to consider?
-- Why might they be persuasive to others, or why might they fail to persuade?
Your own knowledge, experience, and values
-- What is your perspective on this issue, and what are its strengths and weaknesses?
-- How will you support your perspective in your essay?
What is the main idea of each perspective? What are the strengths and weaknesses of
each perspective? What do you believe?
Perspective One Perspective Two
Perspective Three Your Perspective
What if you do not have a strong opinion?
Use the perspectives provided to generate your own opinion on the topic.

Cla s s 3
I-B-C
Creating an I-B-C and Writing Your Essay
Use your brainstorming to assist in writing your essay. Create an I-B-C outline to organize
your thoughts.
I-B-C: Introduction, Body, Conclusion
Introduction
-- Include a hook (quote, story, rhetorical question, definition of a key term, etc.)
-- What is the controversy being addressed in the prompt?
-- What is your perspective on the issue? This is your thesis.
Body Paragraphs #1 and #2
In these paragraphs, you will provide and defend your thesis.
-- Begin each paragraph with a topic sentence that summarizes an argument supporting your
perspective on the given topic. Be sure to connect your topic sentences to your thesis.
-- Develop your arguments through the use of evidence.
-- Highlight any perspectives that support your arguments. What outside evidence further
supports these perspectives?
-- Include closing sentences which tie together each paragraph.
Body Paragraph #3
In this paragraph, you will highlight an argument that differs from your perspective.
-- Begin the paragraph with a topic sentence that summarizes an opposing opinion
represented by one, or more, of the provided perspectives.
-- Highlight any perspectives that support this argument. What outside evidence further
-- Defend your thesis by providing a counter-argument which highlights a flaw in this opinion.
What is the argument not taking into account?
-- Include a closing sentence which ties together the paragraph.
Conclusion
-- Summarize your perspective, the provided perspectives, and how your perspective agrees
with, or disagrees with, those perspectives.

Wr i ting: IBC
Sample Essay
Remember this Essay Prompt?
Arts in the Classroom
Some school districts have recently proposed reducing or eliminating time spent learning arts in
the classroom. While schools have traditionally included time during the day for music, painting, or
dance, the value of these minutes has recently come under increased scrutiny. Much of this analysis
has focused on whether time spent on the arts adequately develops the skills that students will need
to succeed as adults in the 21st century. Given how the subjects learned in elementary and high
school have a lifelong impact on students, it is worth examining the value of including the arts in a
schools curriculum.
Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking about the
importance of arts in the classroom.
It is predicted that jobs Developments in technology So much of the focus of

of the future will be will cause many current jobs current education is on
increasingly technical, and to not exist in five, ten, or developing students that
that these jobs will be more twenty years. Education are ready for the careers
difficult to come by due which includes the arts for the future. But what
to global competition. If will help develop the about life outside of work?
we want our students to critical thinking skills and Dont we want citizens that
succeed, it is critical that adaptability that will are well-rounded and can
time in school is only spent be necessary to thrive in this have a conversation about
learning math and science. future environment. something other than work?
I think that whether or not we teach arts in the classroom is an important topic. I think that both sides
of the argument are interesting. There are definitely many jobs that require a lot of math and science
knowledge. My older brother works for an IT company and he could not have gotten that job without
studying engineering in college. However, when I was in middle school I played the saxophone in the
band. I made a lot of friends and now I can read sheet music, which is pretty neat. So Im not sure if
one side of the argument is better, but it seems like there are good points to both, so I believe that it
is worth having a debate on the topic.
What do you think?

Cla s s 3
Sample Essay
Same Prompt, Different Results
It is no secret that more jobs have become reliant on technical know-how. Whether it is manufacturing, sports,
or even automobile repair, math and science knowledge, particularly computer science knowledge, permeate
what were once non-technical fields. Many people have responded to this reality by calling for a significant
increase in the percentage of school curricula that is made up by physics, calculus, and computer programming,
often at the expense of arts and music studies. However, others are wary of this focus on the hard sciences,
arguing that an education infused with the arts has important benefits within and beyond the current and future
occupational landscape. A closer look does show that an education which includes the arts will continue to play
an important role in student success and its presence in a school curriculum is well-justified.
A curriculum that includes the arts fosters skills that will be essential as we move further into the 21st century.
For example, studies have shown that due to rapid technological change, current students, on average,
could have upwards of 10 jobs during their lifetimes. This reality will reward not just technical competency,
but workplace skills like adaptability, communication, and critical thinking the types of skills that an early
involvement in arts and music has been shown to produce. Take the example of an engineer who has made
a living building desktop computers. With the rise in tablets and smart phones, there is no guarantee that
traditional desktop computers will still exist in 10 years. Will that engineer be able to adapt his or her skills
to the new technology? An education which includes the arts will be more likely to make the answer to that
question yes. Studying only the harder sciences at the expense of the arts is shortsighted and will not fully
prepare students for the future.
Looking beyond the workplace also highlights the need for a education that has an arts component. It is
important to remember that even if a person works 50 hours a week, there are still over 100 hours where that
person is out in the world encountering the challenges of day-to-day life. Learning to play the piano, dance the
waltz, or paint a beautiful landscape helps to develop a mindset which relishes challenges and understands the
value of trial and error. This is the same mentality that will serve students well when as adults they are bouncing
back from a break up or trying to learn a new hobby. Simply learning facts and figures does not adequately
prepare a person to encounter the rigors that he or she will face outside of the work setting.
This argument for dedicating time to arts study is countered by futurists who believe that society is entering an
age where a persons success in the economic marketplace will be largely, or even solely, dictated by his or her
technical knowledge. A microcosm of this worldview is the field of automobile mechanics. Whereas car repair
once only required replacing a sparkplug or attaching a new fan belt, fixing a car today requires a mechanic to
be familiar with the intricate computer systems that power a cars internal workings. However, it is too simple
to say that going from repairing cars without computers to fixing cars with computers was just a challenge
of technical know-how for mechanics. Instead, the mechanics that survived the change were those who were
most willing to accept the change in their roles with confidence, to alter their habits, and to fundamentally
view themselves as able to do more than turn a wrench or change an oil filter. These are the types of skills that
will become even more important in future years, and these are the skills developed when a school curriculum
includes time for the arts.
Whether we like it or not, the maths and science are becoming more important in the workplace. This has lead
to students needing greater knowledge in these areas to thrive in the 21st century marketplace. However,
significantly reducing or completely eliminating arts in the curriculum is a shortsighted response to this reality.
Finding a way to have arts and sciences co-exist with the sciences is what will best prepare students for the
challenges they face in the future.
What do you think?

Class 3
Science:
Charts & Graphs
Key Points:
Charts & Graphs passages only involve
one experiment, so do them first.
The questions test your ability to find data
from the charts and graphs and draw
simple conclusions.

Cla s s 3
Overview
Charts & Graphs
The passage will describe ONE experiment, using a variety of charts, tables, and/or graphs.
The majority of questions will involve Reading Charts and Interpreting Data.
The Strategy

Skim the charts and graphs.
-- Review the titles of the tables and headings of the axes.
-- Look for clear trends in the charts.
-- Note how the various charts and graphs are connected to each other.

These passages are great ones to work on first, since you are only dealing with one experiment,
and the fewest number of questions/passage.
Most charts and graphs questions will refer to charts or graphs, not text!

Sci e nce : Char ts & Graphs
Practice
Passage 1
The use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) as refrigerants

and propellants has decreased precipitously since it
was discovered that they are responsible for depleting
the ozone layer. Figure 1 shows the ratio of the
concentration of each CFC at different altitudes to
their respective concentrations at the Earths surface.
Figure 2 shows the concentrations of two types

of CFCs, CFC-11 and CFC-12, in the lower
troposphere over the last two decades.
Troposphere Stratosphere Mesosphere
1.0
540
CFC12 CFC12
concentration at surface
0.8 515
CFC concentration (ppt)
490
Ratio of CFS to
0.6 270
CFC11 CFC11
0.4 260
250
0.2
240
10 20 30 40 50 60 1992 1996 2000 2004 2008

Altitude (km)
Year
Figure 1 Figure 2

Cla s s 3
1. During what year did the concentration of 5. If the concentrations of CFC-11 and CFC-12 in
CFC11 in the lower troposphere peak? the lower troposphere were again measured in
2012 and compared to their concentrations in
(A) 1994
2008, their 2012 levels would most likely be:
(B) 1998
(A) less than the 2008 levels for both CFCs.
(C) 2002
(B) greater than the 2008 levels for both CFCs.
(D) 2006
(C) less than the 2008 level for CFC-11, and
greater than the 2008 level for CFC-12.
2. Based on the data in Figure 1, it can be inferred
that which of the following atmospheric layers (D) greater than the 2008 level for CFC-11,
would have the lowest concentration of CFCs? and less than the 2008 level for CFC-12.
(F) Biosphere
(G) Stratosphere
(H) Troposphere
(J) Mesosphere
3. According to Figure 1, which of the following

statements about the concentrations of the two
CFCs is true?
(A) The concentration of CFC-12 in the
stratosphere is less than that of CFC-11.
(B) The concentration of CFC-12 in the
mesosphere is greater than that of CFC-11.
(C) There are negligible amounts of both CFCs
in the stratosphere.
(D) There are negligible amounts of both CFCs
in the mesosphere.
4. According to Figure 2, what was the

approximate difference between the
concentrations of CFC-12 and CFC-11 in the
lower troposphere in 1992?
(F) 30 ppt
(G) 230 ppt
(H) 270 ppt
(J) 500 ppt

Sci e nce : Char ts & Graphs
Passage 2
Astronomers have observed that many neutron

stars accrete (gradually add) different gases from a
companion star. Hydrogen (H) that is accreted onto
the neutron star is continually fused into helium (He).
When there is enough helium present on the surface of
the star, the helium quickly fuses into carbon (C), and
a nuclear reaction ignites and triggers an explosion
known as an x-ray burst. These bursts generally
last about 10 seconds (s). As accretion continues,
additional x-ray bursts can be seen. Thermally
unstable H/He burning occurs when the accretion rate
is less than 2 x 1010 M/yr. Figure 1 illustrates the H/
He ignition temperature required to initiate the first
x-ray burst at low accretion rates. Figure 2 shows the
intensity of the same x-ray burst over time.
Astronomers predicted that the sedimentation

(accumulation) of isotopes such as carbon and
oxygen (O) will affect the fuel required for
the x-ray bursts. Over time, the heavier nuclei -
carbon and oxygen - in the accumulated fuel layer
settle downwards and the lightest nuclei - hydrogen
- float upwards. Occasionally, a superburst is
seen that lasts for approximately one hour and is
likely caused by unstable C burning in the deepest
accretion layers.
109
Temperature (K)
3000
Temperature(K)
Intensity (cts/s)
2000
1000
108
20 40 60 22.5 45.0 67.5

Time (s)
Time (s) Time (s)
Figure 1
Figure 1 Figure 2

Cla s s 3
6. According to information presented, in the 30 10. Which of the following, if true, would most
seconds following the first x-ray burst at low weaken the theory presented in the passage
accretion rates, temperature: regarding the cause of superbursts?
(F) decreases only. (F) Astronomers have observed superbursts
(G) increases only. resulting from the burning of large
(H) increases, then decreases. quantities of C in the accretion layer.
(J) decreases, then increases. (G) Approximately half of the neutron stars
observed show x-ray bursts.
7. According to Figures 1 and 2, at approximately (H) Astronomers have recorded large
what intensity did the x-ray burst reach a reservoirs of accumulated He in the
temperature of 109 K?
accretion layer, which may be the source
(A) 1,500 cts/s of the observed superbursts.
(B) 2,000 cts/s (J) Sedimentation plays an important role in
(C) 3,500 cts/s the ignition of x-ray bursts.
(D) 4,000 cts/s
8. Compared to the stars temperature and

intensity before the x-ray burst, which of
the following accurately describes the stars
temperature and intensity at 60 seconds after
the x-ray burst?
(F) The temperature and intensity are
both higher.
(G) The temperature and intensity both return
to normal.
(H) The temperature is higher, but intensity
returned to normal.
(J) The temperature returned to normal, but
intensity is higher.
9. According to Figure 2, approximately 60

seconds after the x-ray burst its intensity was
closest to:
(A) 4,500 cts/s.
(B) 3,000 cts/s.
(C) 1,000 cts/s.
(D) 250 cts/s.

Class 3
Math:
Algebra
Key Points:
Be careful to answer the question asked (you are
not always solving for x)
Quadratic equations and absolute value
equations can often have two values for the
variable
Use plugging & backsolving whenever you get
stumped on problems involving variables

Cla s s 3
Simplifying Equations
1. For all nonzero f and g, 3. If A B 7A + 2B and A, B, and x are
30 + 105 = x
integers greater than 1, then what must x equal?
(f x 10 5) (g x 0.01)
=
(f x 100, 000) (g x 10 -2) (A) 9
(B) 135
f2
(A) (C) 210
g
(D) 630
f
(B) (E) 3,150
g
(C) 107
(D) 10
(E) 1
2. What is the coefficient of x11 in the

product of the 2 polynomials below?
(2x7 5x6 + 7x5 + 2x4 x3 + 9x2 x)

(4x4 6x3 + x2 + 8x 2)
(F) 11
(G) 8
(H) 6
(J) 4
(K) 2
The ACT makes questions look complicated so that youll give up without even trying!

M ath: Algebra
Simultaneous Equation Problems

Identify:
You will see more than one equation containing more than one variable (often x and y).
Set Up:
First, try to add or subtract the equations. If thats not possible, solve for one of the variables and
plug it into the other equation.
Make Sure:
Look for easy substitutions and cancellations.
Execute:
Answer the question theyre asking. Be careful: they may not be asking for x or y, but (x y) or x2.
4. If x y = 3 and z = 9x 8 9y, then z = ?

(A) 8
(B) 5
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) 35

Cla s s 3
Simultaneous Equation Practice

5. When x = 7, x2 42y2 =? 7. A museum charges different rates for adult
y and child tickets. If 2 adult tickets and 1
(A) 28y2 child ticket cost $18.50, while 1 adult ticket
(B) 7y2 and 2 child tickets cost $16.00, what is the total
cost of 3 adult tickets?
(C) 0
(D) 7y2 (A) $4.50
(E) 28y2 (B) $7.00
(C) $13.50
(D) $21.00
(E) $34.50
6. If the equations below are true, what is the

value of b c?
5a + 3b 3c = 24
5a + 2b 2c = 18
(F) 2
(G) 3
(H) 5
(J) 6
(K) 8

M ath: Algebra
Foil Problems
Identify:
Look for a quadratic equation or binomials (two things in parentheses being multiplied together).
Set Up:
Keep the Foil rules in mind:
-- F - First
-- O - Outer
-- I - Inner
-- L - Last
Make Sure:
Watch out for positives and negatives!
Look for patterns, like these three commonly tested quadratics.
(x + y) 2 = (x + y)(x + y) = x 2 + 2xy + y 2
(x y) 2 = (x y)(x y) = x 2 2xy + y 2
(x + y)(x y) = x 2 y 2
Execute:
Foil forwards then simplify if given binomials.
Foil backwards if given a quadratic equation.
8. For all x, (4x 5)2 = ?

(A) 8x 10
(B) 8x2 10
(C) 16x2 25
(D) 16x2 20x + 25
(E) 16x2 40x + 25

Cla s s 3
Foil Practice
9. For all n in the domain of the function 11. If p and q are constants and x2 + px + 12
n-2 is equivalent to (x + 3) (x + q), what is
n 3 - 4n , this function is equivalent to: the value of p?
(A) 13 (A) 3
n (B) 4
1 (C) 7
(B)
(n 2 + 2)
(D) 12
(C) 12 - 13 (E) Cannot be determined from the
n n
given information.
(D) 13 - 1
n n
(E) 2 1
(n + 2n)
10. Which of the following is a factored

form of the expression 3x2 13x 10?
(F) (x + 5)(3x 2)
(G) (x + 2)(3x 5)
(H) (x 2)(3x + 5)
(J) (x 2)(3x 5)
(K) (x 5)(3x + 2)

M ath: Algebra
Absolute Value Problems

Identify:
Any problem that uses the | | absolute value bars.
Set Up:
-- Create two equations: | x + 3 | = 7
x+3=7 x + 3 = 7
x=4 x = 7 + 3
x = 10
Make Sure:
Be careful with negatives.
I f the question is an inequality, dont forget to flip the direction of the inequality sign for the
negative case.
Execute:
Solve the two equations for the variable.
12. What are all values of x for which |2x 3| < 7?

(A) x < 2 or x > 5
(B) x < 2
(C) x > 5
(D) 5 < x < 2
(E) 2 < x < 5

Cla s s 3
Absolute Value Practice

13. What is one possible value of y for which 15. If 1 x 1, then which of the following
| 4y + 7 | = 5 ? must be true?
(A) 5 (A) 0 | x 1| 1
(B) 3
(B) 0 | x | 1
(C) 0
(C) 0 | x + 1 | 1
(D) 2
(E) 3 (D) x 0
(E) 1 $ 1
x

14. If a, b, c, and d are the coordinates of

the indicated points on the number line
below, which of the following is
the smallest?
a b c d
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
(F) | a + d |
(G) | d a |
(H) | a + b |
(J) | c b |
(K) | c + a |

M ath: Algebra
Function Problems
Identify:
When they give you more than one function, and you have to combine them.
Set Up:
Find the function, then find the quantity being plugged in.
Make Sure:
Be careful to solve the functions one at a time, beginning with the innermost parentheses.
Execute:
Plug the quantity into the function.
Solve by combining simultaneous equations.
1
16. Let the function f be defined by f (x) = 3 x 2 + 4 .
If f (3p) = 8p, what is one possible value of p?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

Cla s s 3
Function Practice
17. If h(x) = x2 4x 7, then h(x 1) = ? 19. If g (x) = x + 2 and 4g(t) = 16, what is the
value of g (2t)?
(A) x 4x 2
2
(B) x2 4x 10 (A) 2
(C) x2 5x 8 (B) 6
(D) x2 6x 2 (C) 18
(E) x2 6x 10 (D) 32
(E) 34
18. If f (x) = x2 3x + 1, and g(x) = x 2, which of

the following gives an expression for f ( g (x))?
(F) f (x) = x2 7x + 11
(G) f (x) = x2 5x 1
(H) f (x) = x2 3x + 11
(J) f (x) = x2 + x 1
(K) f (x) = x2 + 6x 2

M ath: Algebra
Average Problems
Identify:
Look for the words average (arithmetic mean).
Set Up:
-- List the elements you know, and plug them into the average formula:
Sum
Average = Total Number
Make Sure:
Make sure you include all the elements. For some average problems, youll need to work
backwards using this formula!
Execute:
Just do the math.
20. The average score for six golfers is 80. If the average
score of four of the golfers is 75, then what is the
average score for the other two golfers?
(A) 80
(B) 85
(C) 90
(D) 93
(E) 100

Cla s s 3
Statistic Problems
Identify:
Look for words such as median, mode, or standard deviation.
Set Up:
Make a list of all of the values in increasing order, then apply the appropriate definition(s):
-- Median Pick the value in the middle of the list
-- Mode Pick the value(s) that appear most often.
-- Standard Deviation The more spread out the data is, the larger the standard deviation
Make Sure:
Be sure that you have included all of the values in the set, and in the correct order.
Execute:
Solve for the question.
21. The chart below shows the number of pets owned by

each of the 24 students in a certain class. What is the
median number of pets that each student in the class
owns?
Number of pets 0 1 2 3 4
Number of students with that number of pets 8 7 5 3 1
(F) 0
(G) 1
(H) 1.25
(J) 1.5
(K) 2

M ath: Algebra
Statistics Practice
22. To determine a students overall bowling 24. Keanas test average after 5 tests was 82. Her
score for the tournament, Coach Nunez score on the 6th test was 91. If all 6 tests were
throws out the lowest score and takes the equally weighted, which of the following is
average of the remaining scores. Vince closest to her test average after 6 tests?
earned the following bowling scores during
(A) 91
the tournament: 165, 177, 184, 188, and
195. What overall score did Vince earn (B) 86.5
during the bowling tournament? (C) 85
(A) 149 (D) 83.5
(B) 182 (E) 82
(C) 186
(D) 188
(E) 227
23. For a set of 7 numbers, the average and the

median of the set are found. The highest and
lowest numbers in the set are then removed.
Which of the following must be true about the
remaining set of 5 numbers?
(F) The median is the same as it was in the
original set.
(G) The average is the same as it was in the
original set.
(H) The median is equal to the average of the 2
middle numbers in the set.
(J) The average and the median are both
greater than they were in the original set.
(K) The average and the median are both less
than they were in the original set.

Cla s s 3
Probability Problems
Identify:
They will usually mention probability, often in reference to containers of items.
Set Up:
-- List the elements you know, and plug them into the average formula:
Desired Outcomes
Probability = Total Outcomes
Make Sure:
Make sure you dont forget any possibilities. Answer the question they are asking.
Execute:
Just do the math.
25. A bag contains 72 chips, all solid colored. Each

chip is either purple, blue, or orange. A chip is
randomly removed from the bag, and then returned
to the bag. The probability that this chip is purple is
5 1
9 . The probability that this chip is blue is 4 . How
many orange chips are in the bag?
(A) 40
(B) 28
(C) 18
(D) 14
(E) 8

M ath: Algebra
Probability Practice
26. In a survey of 1,000 drivers, all but 350 28. Two four-sided dice with the numbers 1
claimed that they always wear a seat belt while through 4 on each of the faces are thrown. On
driving. If one of the surveys participants is every throw, each of the numbered faces has
randomly chosen, what is the probability that an equal probability of being the bottom face.
this person claimed to always wear a seat belt What is the probability that the product of the
while driving? numbers on the bottom face of each die will be
greater than 8?
(A) 2
(A) 1
7
4
(B) 7
20
(B) 3
8
(C) 7
13
(C) 3
16
(D) 13
20
(D) 5
16
(E) 5
7
(E) 3
4

27. A bowl is filled with jellybeans of three colors:

orange, purple, and green. Suppose that if John
reaches into the bowl and picks a jellybean at
random, the probability that he chooses a green
jellybean is 1 . Which of the following could
4
NOT be the total number of jellybeans in
the bowl?
(F) 20
(G) 36
(H) 42
(J) 56
(K) 84

Class 3
Homework

Cla s s 3
Class 3 Homework
If your Writing score was If your Science score was If your Math score was
1-17 1-17 1-17

...then your Writing ...then your Science ...then your Math
p. 163-167 p. 168-170 #1-11 p. 176-178 #1-10
18-22 18-22 18-22

p. 163-167 p. 171-173 #12-21 p. 178-180 #11-20
23-36 23-36 23-36

p. 163-167 p. 173-175 #17-26 p. 180-182 #21-30

Hom ework
Score Report
Yes Issue Solution

tion

Worst Section 1?


Losing energy time
Worst Section 4?

Dont rush to finish

before guessing


Omits at the end of
a section?

or Science passage?
one passage

Hom ework
Writing
Directions: This is a test of your writing skills. You will have forty (40) minutes to write an essay
in English. Before you begin planning and writing your essay, read the writing prompt carefully
to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Your essay will be evaluated on the
evidence it provides of your ability to express judgments by taking a position on the issue in the
writing prompt; to maintain a focus on the topic throughout the essay; to develop a position by
using logical reasoning and by supporting your ideas; to organize ideas in a logical way; and to
use language clearly and effectively according to the conventions of standard written English.
You may use scratch paper to plan your essay. You must write your essay on the lined pages
in the Revolution Prep workbook. You may not need all four of the lined pages, but to ensure
you have enough room to finish, do not skip lines. You may write corrections or additions neatly
between the lines of your essay, but do not write in the margins of the lined pages.
Writing Prompt
Compensating College Athletes
The amount of money in college athletics has increased significantly in recent years. Billion dollar
television contracts, rising ticket costs, and increased merchandise sales have have all factored into
this revenue growth. With this increase in available money, a debate has risen about whether or not
college athletes should receive a larger piece of the profits. While many of these athletes receive
scholarships, is that fair compensation for their role in the revenue generating process?
Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking about
whether not college athletes should receive compensation beyond their scholarships.
The issue of paying college College athletes receive It is a travesty that while
athletes beyond their the most important college coaches and
scholarships has received a compensation of all administrators make millions
lot of recent attention in the a free education. Very few of dollars, the athletes are
news. It is critical that we young men and woman limited to earning the value
conduct additional research receive such an incredible of their scholarships. People
before deciding the proper opportunity, and it is pay to see the players,
compensation for these hard upsetting that these students and the athletes should
working men and women. would ask for even more. be compensated as such.

Cla s s 3
PLEASE PRINT YOUR NAME IN THIS BOX
Essay Page 1 Essay Page 1 Essay Page 1 Essay Page 1

Hom ework

Cla s s 3

Hom ework

Cla s s 3
Science
Directions: There are five passages in this homework section. Each passage is followed by
several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question. You may
refer to the passages as often as necessary.
You are not permitted to use a calculator.
2. According to Table 1, soil sample 2 was

Passage 1
composed primarily of:
Some students in a science class collected soil (F) sand and clay.
samples from various locations in order to analyze the (G) clay and silt.
composition of the soil. They measured the percentage (H) silt and sand.
of the three types of soil minerals - sand, clay, and
(J) clay.
silt - in each sample. Their data is presented in Table
1. The students also measured the size of the mineral
particles found in the soil samples. The particle size 3. The students collected a sixth soil sample from
ranges are listed in Table 2. a location near the location from which they
collected sample 5. Based on information in
the passage, this sixth sample would contain
Table 1 mineral particles that were predominantly:
Soil (A) smaller than 0.002 mm.

% Sand % Clay % Slit
Sample (B) smaller than 0.06 mm.
1 75 10 15 (C) larger than 0.06 mm.
2 15 70 15 (D) larger than 2.0 mm.
3 20 30 50
4. Which soil sample is most likely to have an
4 60 20 20 average mineral particle size of 1.3 mm?
5 60 25 15
(F) Sample 1
(G) Sample 2
Table 2 (H) Sample 3
(J) Sample 5
Type of Mineral Size Range of Particles (mm)
Sand 2.0 - 0.06 millimeters 5. Soil sample 2 would most likely, if measured,
have a median mineral particle size of:
Silt 0.06 - 0.002 millimeters
(A) 1.5 mm.
Clay < 0.002 millimeters (B) 1.0 mm.
(C) 0.06 mm.
(D) 0.001 mm.
1. Based on the data in Table 1, soil sample 4
contained:
(A) more sand than silt.
(B) more clay than sand.
(C) less clay than silt.
(D) less sand than silt.

Hom ework
Experiment 2
Passage 2
Students took a plastic eyedropper and labeled it
with two marks that were 3 cm apart (see
A group of students designed the following Figure 2). Students then filled the dropper with
experiments to study the viscosity of different types liquid A at 20C until it was at the level of the top line.
of liquids. Viscosity is defined as a fluids resistance Students measured the time it took for the liquid
to flow. to reach the end point when the liquid was allowed
to flow freely out of the dropper. Students repeated
Experiment 1 the procedure for a total of 4 different liquids at 3
At a temperature of 20C, the density of water (H2O) different temperatures. The results were recorded
was determined using the following equation: in Table 2.
mass (g)
Density = volume (mL)

A 10.0 mL sample of H2O was placed in a viscometer.
The viscometer was positioned to allow the H2O to pinhole
flow through the capillary tubing, as shown in Figure
1. The time it took for all of the liquid to flow through bulb starting point
the capillary tubing was measured. Students tested 3 cm
a total of 4 types of liquids. Results are displayed in
end point
Table 1.
liquid
Seal after
filling
0.7 mm inside FigureFigure
2 2
diameter capillary
tubing
15 mm inside
diameter glass
tubing
Figure 1 Table 2
Figure 1
Flow time Flow time Flow time
Liquid
(sec) at 5C (sec) at 20C (sec) at 40C
A 46.8 21.9 10.8

Table 1 B 30.3 15.6 8.1
C 65.4 31.5 14.7
Density Flow time D 111.8 47.6 17.7
Liquid
(g/mL) (sec)
Water 1.01 30
Methanol 0.79 80
Pentane 0.63 20
Sunflower oil 0.92 2,190

Cla s s 3
6. If Experiment 2 were repeated at a temperature 10. Which of the following lists the 4 liquids
of 30C, the flow time for Liquid A in the measured in Experiment 1 in order of
eyedropper would be closest to: increasing viscosity?
(F) 10 sec. (F) Water, pentane, methanol, sunflower oil
(G) 15 sec. (G) Sunflower oil, methanol, water, pentane
(H) 20 sec. (H) Pentane, water, methanol, sunflower oil
(J) 30 sec. (J) Water, methanol, pentane, sunflower oil
7. One of the students tested an additional 11. How would the flow times measured in
substance in Experiment 1. She found that 10.0 Experiment 1 differ, if at all, if the capillary
mL of the liquid had a mass of 20.0 g. What is tubing in the viscometer had an inside diameter
the density of this liquid? of 1.7 mm? The measured flow times would:
(A) 0.5 g/mL (A) be less.
(B) 2.0 g/mL (B) be greater.
(C) 10.0 g/mL (C) remain the same.
(D) 20.0 g/mL (D) be greater or less, depending on the liquid.
8. According to Table 2, as temperature increases,

flow time:
(F) increases for all liquids.
(G) decreases for all liquids.
(H) remains constant for all liquids.
(J) increases for some liquids, and decreases
for others.
9. In which of the following ways are the designs

of Experiment 1 and 2 different? In Experiment 1:
(A) only oils were tested, while in Experiment
2 other substances were tested.
(B) the effect of density on viscosity was
investigated, while in Experiment 2
the effect of temperature on viscosity
was investigated.
(C) more samples were tested than were tested
in Experiment 2.
(D) the same instrument was used to measure
the viscosity than was used in Experiment 2.

Hom ework
12. A new research project is proposed to investigate the fluoride

Passage 3 concentration due to F2 exposure in popcorn. Based on
the data from the original research study, which sample of
Fluoride gas (F2), is an air pollutant commonly popcorn would most likely show the greatest difference in
emitted by steel mills. It has been linked to fluoride concentrations between popcorn exposed to F2 and
reduction of growth and damage to surrounding popcorn not exposed?
vegetation. The increased demand for steel products (F) Base of immature ears of corn
has created a need for further investigation of the (G) Tips of immature ears of corn
effects F2 on local agriculture in areas surrounding (H) Base of mature ears of corn
steel mills. (J) Tips of mature ears of corn
In the United States, sweet corn is grown in large
quantities in the Midwest, in states such as Iowa, 13. A general assumption is that the length of exposure time
Illinois, and Indiana. Local researchers designed to F2 is important in determining the amount of damage
a study to determine if F2 caused damage to corn. caused by the air pollutant. According to the results from the
They compared sweet corn grown in an F2 free site research study, if sweet corn were exposed to F2 for about
in natural fields (Group 1) to sweet corn grown one month, it would most likely result in:
in areas near steel mills with high atmospheric F2 (A) distinct injury to the corn.
levels (Group 2). Figure 1 shows the effect of F2 (B) no noticeable injury, but a level of fluoride
on the number of ears of sweet corn per plant in concentration between 246 and 298 micrograms/gram.
each group. The concentration of fluoride found (C) no noticeable injury, but a level of fluoride
in the tissues of the corn plants in each group concentration below 246 micrograms/gram.
is displayed in Table 1. Table 2 displays the (D) stunted corn growth.
fluoride concentration in immature and mature ears of
sweet corn for each group. 14. Which of the following conclusions best supports the
hypothesis that the increase in fluoride concentration in
Figure 1 1
Figure sweet corn is due to increased levels of F2 in the atmosphere?
6 (F) The tips of ears of corn have a greater concentration
ears of corn (average number per plant)
of fluoride than the bases of ears of corn in plants not

5
exposed to F2.
4 (G) Mature ears of corn have higher concentrations of
with F2 exposure fluoride compared to immature ears of corn in plants
3 not exposed to F2.
no F2 exposure
2
(H) Ears of corn exposed to F2 have higher concentrations
of fluoride compared to ears of corn not exposed to F2.
1 (J) The tips of ears of corn exposed to F2 have higher
concentrations than the bases of ears of corn not
0
May June July exposed to F2.
15. The number of ears of corn present on each plant changes

Table 1 during the growing season. Which of the following
hypotheses is supported by the data from Figure 1?
Fluoride concentration
(micrograms/gram of corn) (A) F2 has little to no apparent effect on the production of
ears of corn during May, June, and July.
(B) F2 exposure causes ears of corn to die during May and
Group 1 246 June.
Group 2 298 (C) F2 exposure causes a decline in the production of ears of
corn in June and July.
Table 2 (D) F2 exposure causes a decline in the production of ears
of corn in May and June.
Fluoride concentration
(micrograms/gram of corn) 16. Researchers want to change the studys design
in order to increase the likelihood for detection
of sweet corn injury due to F2 exposure.
Immature Mature ears
Which of the following would best accomplish
ears of corn of corn this objective?
(F) Comparing the damage to leaves and stalks of sweet
Base Tip Base Tip corn exposed to F2 to sweet corn not exposed to F2.
(G) Increasing the number of plant species in
Group 1 218 253 235 269 the study.
(H) Exposing sweet corn to another pollutant instead of
F2, and measuring the number of ears produced over 2
Group 2 268 314 299 340
months.
(J) Exposing sweet corn to another pollutant during F2
exposure.

Cla s s 3
Passage 4 DNA
Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. They A C T G C T A C G base

transcription sequence
are formed together based on DNA and its interaction
with RNA. The process first starts with transcription,
where the base sequence of DNA is copied to
mRNA U G A C G A U G C base
form messenger RNA (mRNA). It then travels to a sequence
ribosome, where transfer RNA (tRNA) finds and
delivers amino acids that match the base sequence
translation
of the mRNA, a process called translation. The
amino acids then bond together to form peptide codon codon codon
strands. These strands fold and bond together to form
polypeptide amino amino amino
proteins. This process is depicted in Figure 1.
acid acid acid
protein Figure 1
Figure 1
Each 3-base unit of the mRNA forms a codon, which

corresponds to a specific amino acid. Table 1 displays
the sixty-four codons scientists have identified.
Table 1
AAU CAU GAU UAU

Asparagine Histidine Aspartic acid Tyrosine
AAC CAC GAC UAC
AAA CAA GAA UAA
Lysine Glutamine Glutamic acid Stop**
AAG CAG GAG UAG
ACU CCU GCU UCU
ACC CCC GCC UCC
Threonine Proline Alanine Serine
ACA CCA GCA UCA
ACG CCG GCG UCG
UGU
AGU CGU GGU Cysteine
Serine UGC
AGC CGC GGC
Arginine Glycine UGA Stop**
CGA GGA
AGA CGG GGG
Arginine UGG Tryptophan
AGG
AUU CUU GUU UUU
Phenylalanine
AUC Isoleucine CUC GUC UUC
AUA Leucine Valine
CUA GUA UUA
CUG GUG Leucine
AUG Isoleucine UUG
**Stop codons specify the end of the polypeptide chain.

Hom ework
17. According to Table 1, the mRNA strand shown 20. A strand of mRNA must have a minimum of
below, when read from left to right, encodes for how many base pairs in order to produce a
which amino acids? polypeptide chain of 7 amino acids long, if
there is no stop codon?
C U G A G A U G G (F) 7
(G) 14
(H) 21
(J) 28
(A) Arginine, glutamic acid , methionine
(B) Leucine, arginine, tryptophan 21. How many amino acids are encoded by more
(C) Leucine, serine, cysteine than four different codons?
(D) Lysine, isoleucine, tyrosine (A) None
(B) 1
18. Based on the information in Table 1, all of the (C) 2
following codons encode for the same amino (D) 3
acid EXCEPT:
(F) AGA
(G) AGG
(H) AGU
(J) CGU
19. If the codon labeled A, shown below in an

mRNA strand, was changed to CCA, what
would the effect be on the translation of this
mRNA strand?
U U G A C C G G A
(A) The amino acid specified by codon A

would be the only variation.
(B) The amino acid specified by codon A and
the amino acids specified by the following
codons would be altered.
(C) The original polypetide strand would be
identical to the new polypetide strand.
(D) Translation would stop because CCA is a
stop codon.

Cla s s 3
Experiment 2
Passage 5
Students used the same top from Experiment 1, but
used different lengths of light-weight stems. The
new stems varied the distance from the tops center
Precession is defined as a tops revolution around an of gravity to the surface (r). The electric motor was
imaginary line that is perpendicular to the surface at used to achieve the same spin rate for each trial. The
the point of contact. Figure 1 illustrates precession. number of precessions for each trial was counted and
Students designed 2 experiments to study precession. recorded in Table 2.
Table 2
Precession rate
r (inches)
(rpm)
1 3.5
2 7
3 10
4 14
Figure 1
Experiment 1
To achieve a specified spin rate (revolutions per
minute, or rpm), students attached an electric motor
to the top. Once the top reached the specified spin
rate, the motor was removed. Students then counted
the number of precessions per minute. The procedure
was repeated for different spin rates, and results were
recorded in Table 1.
Table 1
Spin rate Precession rate

(rpm) (rpm)
450 15
550 10
750 7
1,150 4

Hom ework
22. Based on the results of Experiment 2, one 24. According to Table 1, if a spin rate of 900 had
can conclude that the precession rate of a top been recorded, the precession rate would most
increases as the stem: likely have been closest to:
(F) decreases in length. (F) 0 rpm.
(G) increases in length. (G) 3 rpm.
(H) remains the same length. (H) 5.5 rpm.
(J) doubles in mass. (J) 12.5 rpm.
23. Which of the following graphs best represents 25. If the spin rate used in Experiment 2 was
the change in the precession rate with 500 rpm, what is most likely the value of r in
increasing spin rate as shown in Experiment 1? Experiment 1?
(A) 3 inches
(B) 4 inches
(A)
(C) 5 inches
(D) 6 inches
precession rate
26. How would one best investigate the effect of a

tops mass on the precession rate if the spin rate
spin is constant?
(B) (F) Use tops of different colors.
(G) Use tops that are the same size, have
precession rate the same shape, and are made from
different metals.
(H) Try different tops and test them on both
spin
the Earth and Moon.
(C) (J) Try tops with equal mass but stems of
different lengths.
precession rate
spin
(D)
precession rate
spin

Cla s s 3
Math
1. What is the solution to the equation 3. If the following system has a solution, what is
4x (2x + 5) = 3 ? value of x?
(A) - 1 4x + 5y = 53
2
x + 5y = 26
(B) - 1
3
(A) 15
(C) 1
4 (B) 9
(D) 1 (C) 5
3 (D) 0
(E) 1 (E) The system has no solution.
2. For each of 3 years, the table below gives

the number of days Kevin spent fishing, the
number of hours Kevin spent fishing, and the
total number of fish Kevin caught.
Days Hours Total # of

Year
Fishing Fishing fish caught
1997 36 144 377
1998 36 176 564
1999 28 123 641
To the nearest tenth of a fish, what is the

average number of fish caught by Kevin per
hour in 1998 ?
(F) 2.1
(G) 2.6
(H) 3.2
(J) 3.5
(K) 5.2

Hom ework
4. Which of the following is NOT a possible 6. Which of the following is an equivalent

value for a probability?
expression for a in terms of B and c whenever
ac + 5
1 a, B, and c are all distinct and B = a - c ?
(F)
100
(G) 3 (F) Bc + 5
12 B-c
(H) 5 (G) B + 5
9 B -1
(J) 7 (H) B - c
10 B+5
(K) 23 (J) Bc + 5
20 B+c
(K) 5
c- B
7. (3x 4y)2 is equivalent to:

5. Which of the following is a simplified form of (A) 9x2 24xy + 16y2
3a 3b + 2a ?
(B) 9x2 14xy + 16y2
(A) 3(a b + 2) (C) 9x2 16y2
(B) (a b)(3 + 2a) (D) 9x2 + 16y2
(C) a5 3b (E) 9x 12y
(D) a 3b
(E) 5a 3b

Cla s s 3
8. |4 3| |3 4| = ? 11. Which of the following defines the solution set

for the system of inequalities below?
(F) 1
x4
(G) 0 9 + 3x 0
(A) x -3
(H) 1
7 (B) x 4
(J) 1 (C) 18 x 4
(D) 3 x 4
(K) 7 (E) 3 x 4
9. Jordan went for a 3.5-mile jog on Monday that

took him 40 minutes. If on Tuesday Jordan jogs
at the same speed, how far will he jog in 12. In a bike race, John posted a time of 4 minutes
60 minutes? and 48 seconds for a course 1.2 miles long.
(A) 3.5 miles About how many miles per hour did he average
for the race?
(B) 4.0 miles
(C) 5.25 miles (F) 24
(D) 7.0 miles (G) 20
(E) 7.25 miles (H) 15
(J) 7
(K) 3
10. If a2 3 13, what is the smallest real value a

can have?
(F) 0
(G) 3
(H) 4
(J) 16
(K) There is no smallest real value of a.

Hom ework
13. (4x2 3x +7) (3 + 6x +2x2 ) is equivalent to: 16. Which of the following is a complete
factorization of the expression
(A) 2x2 9x + 10
3y + 3xy + 12xy3 ?
(B) 2x2 + 3x + 10
(F) 3y(y + 4xy2)
(C) 2x4 + 3x2 + 4
(G) 3y + 3xy(1 + 4y2)
(D) 6x2 9x + 4
(H) 3y(1 + y + 9xy)
(E) 6x4 9x2 + 4
(J) 12y 3x = 14
(K) 3y (1 + x + 4xy2)
14. If 3 a 6 and 3 b 2, what is the

maximum value of b 2a?
(F) 21
17. A score was given on a 3-point scale by a
(G) 15
teacher. A score of 1 was given 30% of the
(H) 14 time, a score of 2 was given 60% of the time,
(J) 9 and a score of 3 was given 10% of the time.
(K) 8 To the nearest tenth, what was the average of
the scores?
(A) 1.2
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.8
(D) 2.0
(E) 2.2
15. Daniel is living in a house with 11 other people,

and each person gets his own room. There are 3
bedrooms on the first floor, 5 on the second, and
4 on the third. The housemates are deciding who
gets what room by drawing numbers out of a hat.
If Daniel draws first, what is the probability that
he will get a room on the third floor?
(A) 1
12
(B) 1
6
(C) 1
4
(D) 1
3
(E) 5
12

Cla s s 3
18. The function f is defined by f (x) = (x 1)2. If 21. If c + d = 3, and c d = 4, then c 2 d 2 = ?

f (a) = a2, what is the value of a?
(A) 18
(B) 12
(F) 1
(C) 7
(G) - 1 (D) 6
2
(E) 7
(H) 0
(J) 1
2
(K) 1
19. Given that y x2 and 3 x 4, what is the

maximum value of y? 22. Mark has an empty bag and puts in 4 yellow
(A) 3 tiles. He now wants to put in enough purple
(B) 4
tiles so the probability of drawing a yellow
(C) 16
tile at random from the bag is 1 . How many
(D) 24 5
(E) There is no maximum value. purple tiles should he put in?
(F) 1
(G) 5
(H) 12
(J) 16
(K) 20
20. If Jason traveled 30 miles in 6 hours and Katie

traveled three times as far in half the time, what
was Katies average speed, in miles per hour?
(F) 5
(G) 15
(H) 30
(J) 45
(K) 90

Hom ework
23. The equation x2 12x + c = 0 has only one 26. For which of the following values of
solution for x. What is the value of c ? 4x + 3
x is undefined?
2x 2 + 5x - 12
(A) 0
(B) 6 (F) 4
(C) 12
(D) 24 (G) - 3
2
(E) 36
(H) - 1
3
(J) 0
(K) 14
24. When the average of a list of course grades is

multiplied by the number of course grades, the
result is n. What does n represent?
(F) Half the number of courses
(G) Half the sum of course grades 27. A group of 10 male students has an average
height of 71 inches, and a group of 16 female
(H) The number of courses
students has an average height of 62 inches.
(J) The average of the course grades What is the average height, in inches, of all
(K) The sum of the course grades 26 students?
(A) 62
(B) 64
(C) 65.5
(D) 66.5
(E) 67.5
25. Let the function f (x) = 2x2 4x + 3. If q is a

positive number such that f (2q 1) = f (q), what
is the value of q?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

Cla s s 3
28. If | 7a 10| > 4, then which of the following 30. For what value of a would the following
CANNOT be a value of a? system of equations have an infinite number of
solutions?
(F) 5
(G) 3 2x y = 8
6x 3y = 2a
(H) 2
(J) 4 (F) 2
(K) 6 (G) 8
(H) 12
(J) 16
(K) 24
29. The cost of using wireless internet at an airport

is $1.00 for the first 15 minutes, and $0.05 per
minute thereafter. The cost of using your own
wireless internet card is $0.06 per minute for
any amount of time. For a session that lasts m
minutes, the cost of using your own minutes is
the same as using the airports wireless access.
If m is a positive integer greater than 15, what
is the value of m?
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 27
(E) 30

Hom ework
Class 3 Answer key

Science Math Science Math
1. A 1. E 1. A 1. D
2. G 2. G 2. J 2. H
3. D 3. C 3. C 3. B
4. G 4. C 4. F 4. K
5. A 5. D 5. D 5. E
6. H 6. J 6. G 6. F
7. C 7. D 7. B 7. A
8. G 8. E 8. G 8. J
9. D 9. E 9. B 9. C
10. H 10. K 10. H 10. H
11. C 11. A 11. D
12. E 12. J 12. H
13. B 13. B 13. A
14. F 14. H 14. G
15. B 15. C 15. D
16. B 16. F 16. K
17. D 17. B 17. C
18. F 18. H 18. J
19. B 19. A 19. C
20. C 20. H 20. H
21. G 21. D 21. B
22. C 22. G 22. J
23. F 23. B 23. E
24. D 24. H 24. K
25. D 25. A 25. B
26. D 26. G 26. F
27. H 27. C
28. A 28. H
29. C
30. H

Class 4
Science:
Key Points:
Read for the main idea of each experiment.
Pay attention to the differences between the
experiments.
Anticipate your answers for the Altering
Experiments questions.

Cla s s 4
Science Strategy
The passage will have headings that split the passage into separate Experiments or Studies.
You need to understand the differences between the experiments.
The Strategy
Read to get the main idea of each experiment.
-- What changed from Experiment 1 to Experiment 2?
-- What did the scientist add/subtract/alter?
-- Anticipate the answer before looking at the answer choices.
-- Work on the Altering Experiment questions last.
Altering the Experiment Questions

1. At higher elevations, measurements of air pressure are generally lower than those made at sea
level. If you measured the air pressure in an area whose elevation was below sea level, how would
you expect your measurements to compare to those taken at sea level?
Anticipate: _________________________________________________
2. It is likely that air resistance played a role in decreasing Scientist 1s measurements

below the expected values. If he repeated the experiment in an evacuated chamber
(where no air molecules were present), his measurements would likely be
Anticipate: _________________________________________________

Sci e nce : Mul ti p l e E x p erim ent s
Muliple Experiments Practice

Experiment 2
Passage 1
The students repeated the previous experiment but
used only three pans (one of each type of sand) and
A group of students wanted to test the absorbency added 4 ounces of baking soda (sodium bicarbonate)
of several types of sand to determine which to each pan. The students mixed the sand and baking
absorbed the most water the fastest. The students soda thoroughly before adding 100 mL of water to
conducted two experiments to test the sand. each pan. The room had a constant relative humidity
of 40% during the experiment. Results are shown in
Experiment 1 Table 2.
The students filled three 8-inch x 12-inch metal
pans 2 inches deep with one of three types of sand
(A, B, or C), for a total of nine pans. The students
placed each type of sand in three areas with different
relative humidity levels. The students then poured
100 mL of water into each pan, and recorded the Table 2
time it took for each pan of sand to absorb the water.
Sand Time (min)
Results are shown in Table 1.
A 15
B 10
C 3
Table 1
Relative
Time for A Time for B Time for C
humidity
(min) (min) (min)
(%)
40 12 8 5
60 21 15 9
80 48 18 15

Cla s s 4
1. Based on the experiments, which type of sand 5. How did adding baking soda affect the water
absorbs water fastest at 40% relative humidity? absorption times of the sand?
(A) Sand A + baking soda (A) It decreased the absorption time for Sand
(B) Sand C A only.
(C) Sand B (B) It increased the absorption time for Sand A
(D) Sand C + baking soda and Sand B.
(C) It decreased the absorption time for Sand
2. If the relative humidity was increased to 90%, B only.
how long might Sand B take to absorb all of
(D) It increased the absorption time for Sand B
the water?
and Sand C.
(F) 5 min
(G) 12 min 6. If the students were to repeat Experiment 2, but
(H) 17 min reduced the quantity of water added by 50%,
(J) Greater than 19 min how would the absorption time most likely be
affected?
3. Based on the results of Experiment 1, which of (F) It would stay the same for all sand types.
the following is true of Sand A? (G) It would decrease for Sand A only.
(A) It took more than twice as long as Sand (H) It would increase for all sand types.
B and more than three times as long as (J) It would decrease for all sand types.
Sand C to absorb the water at 80% relative
humidity. 7. According to the results of the experiments,
which of the following conclusions can
(B) It absorbed the water almost twice as fast
be reached?
as Sand B and almost three times as fast as
(A) Relative humidity levels have no effect on
Sand C at 80% humidity.
absorption rates.
(C) It absorbed the water faster than both Sand
(B) Absorption rates will decrease at higher
B and Sand C.
relative humidity levels for all sand types.
(D) It absorbed the water faster than Sand B at
(C) The type of sand has the greatest effect
60% relative humidity.
on absorption rates at all relative
humidity levels.
4. How does Experiment 1 differ from
Experiment 2? (D) Adding baking soda to sand increases the
absorption rate for all sand types.
(F) Baking soda was added to the sand in
Experiment 1.
(G) The amount of water varied in Experiment 2.
(H) Relative humidity is constant in
Experiment 2 but varies in Experiment 1.
(J) Relative humidity is constant in
Experiment 1 but varies in Experiment 2.

Sci e nce : Mul ti p l e E x p erim ent s
Experiment 3
Passage 2
Ten spiders were placed in each of 2 clear plastic
dishes. Four different habitats were created in each
A biologist researched some of the environmental dish dry/darkened, dry/lighted, damp/darkened,
factors that could influence habitat selection in a and damp/lighted. After 1 hour, the locations of the
certain species of spider. The following experiments spiders in each dish were recorded (Table 3).
were conducted at a constant temperature. No
spider was tested more than once.
Table 3
Experiment 1
Dry/ Dry/ Damp/ Damp/
Ten spiders were placed in each of 2 clear plastic Darkened Lighted Darkened Lighted
dishes, the bottoms of which were covered with
a piece of cotton fabric. One-half of each fabric Dish 1 2 0 6 2
piece was moistened with water, creating half-dry,
half-damp compartments. The dishes were covered
with lids. Dish 1 was placed in a lighted area and Dish Dish 2 1 0 7 2
2 was placed in a darkened area. After 1 hour, the
location of the spiders in each dish was recorded
(Table 1).
Table 1
Damp Side Dry Side
Dish 1
9 1
(in light)
Dish 2
7 3
(in dark)
Experiment 2
Ten spiders were placed in each of 2 clear plastic
dishes. One-half of the lid of each dish was covered
by opaque black paper. Each dish was placed under a
40-watt fluorescent light, which created half-lighted,
half-darkened compartments. After 1 hour, the
location of the spiders in each dish was recorded
(Table 2).
Table 2
Darkened Side Lighted Side
Dish 1 10 0
Dish 2 8 2

Cla s s 4
8. In nature, one reason spiders might prefer 12. In the 3 experiments, habitat preference was
darkened habitats is that such habitats: determined by recording the location of spiders
after 1 hour. Spiders were often moving during
(F) are likely to be moist.
the course of the experiment. The rate of
(G) are likely to be warm. selection of the habitat would be best measured
(H) contain more green plants on which the by recording the location of the spiders:
spiders could feed. (F) after 1 hour.
(J) have better air circulation, which allows (G) after 30 minutes.
for more efficient respiration. (H) after 15 minutes.
(J) at 10-minute intervals for 1 hour.
9. On the basis of the experimental results, the
best of the following explanations for the origin
of this species of spider is that its ancestors:
(A) lived on the surface of rocks.
(B) lived near the surface of freshwater lakes.
(C) lived on the sunlit surfaces of leaves.
(D) lived in the sand and mud of the shore of
an ocean.
10. Animals often exhibit social behavior they

follow the behavior patterns they observe in
other animals. Which of the following changes
in the experimental design could be made to
minimize this effect on habitat selection?
(F) Use only spiders of one sex in each test.
(G) Place all of the spiders together in one
clear plastic dish.
(H) Use only spiders that have been raised
in captivity.
(J) Place each spider in a separate clear
plastic dish.
11. Some spiders are known to inhabit gardens.

On the basis of the experimental results, which
of the following locations will the spiders
probably inhabit?
(A) The underside of garden rocks
(B) The surface of leaves
(C) The surface of the ground
(D) The top of garden rocks

Class 4
English:
Writing Style & Word Choice
Key Points:
Remember to use your grammar ear and
anticipate the correction.
The simplest and most direct phrasing of a
sentence is always the best answer choice.

Cla s s 4
Conjunctions
Conjunctions
Problem:
-- A word is used to connect two halves of a sentence, but the sentence doesnt make
sense logically.
Correction:
-- Ask yourself:
1. Do the halves agree or disagree?
2. Is there a cause-and-effect relationship OR do the two parts contradict each other?
Antarctica is isolated from human pollutants, but any dark speck of 1. (A) NO CHANGE
1 (B) human pollutants, because any
dust on the clean ice is more likely to have come from space than from (C) human pollutants, so any
(D) human pollutants;
Earth. nevertheless any
2. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) so
Many people think rutabagas taste bad, since I think they are delicious. (H) yet
2 (J) OMIT the underlined portion
Sometimes the conjunction is placed at the beginning of a sentence.
Although computers are also used to store confidential data 3. (A) NO CHANGE
3 (B) Because
of a political, social, or economic nature, our dependence on computer (C) Despite the fact that
(D) It is true that
technology may signal new risks to match
new possibilities.
Due to the significance of the agricultural industry, notwithstanding the 4. (F) NO CHANGE
4 (G) Despite
significance of his invention, he struggled to make a profit from it. (H) As a result of
(J) Although

E ngl i sh: Wr i ti ng Styl e & Wo r d Choic e
Parallelism & Logical Comparisons

Parallelism
Problem:
-- Multiple items are listed but are in different forms (verbs, nouns, etc.).
Correction:
-- Rewrite each item in the list is in the same form (all verbs, all nouns, etc.).
Lee decided that his forces would divide to take western Maryland 5. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) then reform
and then reforming to proceed along the railroad toward Harrisburg, (C) than reform
5 (D) than by reforming
Pennsylvania, a crucial Union transport hub.
Logical Comparisons
Problem:
-- The sentence compares two items that cant be compared or are in different formats.
Correction:
-- Make all of the items being compared the same type.
6. Leonardo DiCaprios performance in The

Departed, in which he plays an undercover
police informant, illustrates his growth as an
actor and is much more impressive than some
of his earlier films.
(F) NO CHANGE
(G) is much more impressive than some of his
performances in earlier films.
(H) it impresses people more than some of his
earlier films.
(J) is impressive, it is much more so than
some of his performances in earlier films.
Remember to use your grammar ear to eliminate wrong answers!

Cla s s 4
Wordiness & Redundancy

Wordiness
Problem:
-- The sentence uses too many words to convey a simple idea.
Correction:
-- Re-state the underlined portion in the clearest, most straightforward way.
Despite the cotton gins positive effect on American industry, the gin 7. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) the causation of
also played a role in having the effect of causing the continuance of the continuance
7 (C) the continuation of
slavery. prolonged duration
(D) the continuation
Redundancy
Problem:
-- A word repeats an idea that is already in the sentence.
Correction:
-- Remove the repetition.
He believed that machines ought to be used to speed up basic tasks once 8. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) with ones hands
done manually by hand. (H) using the hands

Modifying Words & Phrases

Adverbs vs Adjectives
Problem:
-- An adjective is describing a verb or an adverb is describing a noun.
Correction:
-- Pair an adjective with a noun, or an adverb with a verb (or an adjective).
Today, people have moved so easy from paper to paperless transactions 9. (A) NO CHANGE
9 (B) so easiest
that swiping a card is the norm. (C) so easily
(D) so easier
Misplaced Modifiers
Problem:
-- A descriptive phrase set off by a comma isnt next to what its describing.
Correction:
-- Figure out what is being described, and make sure it is the subject of the phrase that follows.
Sometimes adopting the tone of foreign correspondents, the London 10. (F) NO CHANGE
10 (G) correspondents, commentators
theatre experience was seen by commentators as redemptive, and they who saw the London theatre
10 experience as redemptive
painted a largely positive picture of what transpired there. (H) correspondents, commentators
saw the London theatre
experience as redemptive
(J) correspondents, the London
theatre experience, by
commentators, was seen as
redemptive

Cla s s 4
Word Choice & Tone

Proper Word Choice
Problem:
-- A question will ask you to define a word/phrase within the context of a sentence. No prior
knowledge of the word/phrase is necessary.
Correction:
-- Define the meaning of the underlined word in context and eliminate the three answer
choices that are most similar to your definition.
Farmers who produced other crops were displaced as large cotton 11. (A) came to light
(B) burst forth
plantations sprung up throughout the southern states. (C) emerged
11 (D) dried up
Tone
Problem:
-- The question will ask for the best re-phrasing of the underlined section.
Correction:
-- Identify the authors tone (casual, formal, objective, etc), then select the choice that best
matches this tone and style.
It had always been Sidneys modest dream to someday own 12. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) a really, really awesome and
a fancy sports car. sporty car.
12 (H) a sports car that would surely
be deemed estimable by society.
(J) a sports car that was also
really fancy.
If an answer choice sounds like something a caveman, snob, or pirate might

say, it is probably wrong.

Idioms
Idioms
Problem:
-- A verb is paired with the wrong preposition.
Correction:
-- Say the phrase out loud to yourself. Trust your grammar ear!
Below are a few common idioms:
abide by believe in hide from

participate in differ from
arrive at succeed in protect from
stare at escape from
care about recover from
accuse of complain about [a thing] different from
consist of
approve of agree to discriminate against
opinion of respond to
in charge of prefer [item 1] to [item 2] insist upon
introduction of subscribe to
compare to rely on
hope for complain to [a person] count on
apologize for object to depend on
blame for equal to
excuse for argue with
pray for provide with
In Shakespeares time, young women were often married in their 13. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) to
mid-twenties, frequently with younger men. (C) by
13 (D) for
Lee issued the Proclamation to the People of Maryland to invite the 14. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) by joining
citizens in joining the Southern movement. (H) to join
14 (J) that will be joining
Idioms are just the way you say it.

Cla s s 4
Other Rules
More Versus Most
Problem:
-- The sentence uses the wrong adjective to define the degree between two items.
Correction:
-- Think about how you would say the phrase. Trust your grammar ear!
-- For more than two items, use most, or the suffix -est.
Of the two candidates, I think Senator Smith is the more humble. 15. (A) NO CHANGE
15 (B) a really, really awesome and
the more humble.
(C) humblest.
(D) having the more humility.
Who, When, Where

Problem:
-- The sentence uses who, when, or where incorrectly.
Correction:
-- Who must refer to a person.
-- When must refer to a time.
-- Where must refer to a location.
Rationing was a sacrifice that most people gladly made during the war 16. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) who
because so many of them had relatives overseas that were in constant (H) than
16 (J) OMIT the underlined portion.
peril.
Advanced Grammar: Take Your Writing to the Next Level

Now that you have learned how to properly use modifiers, logical comparisons, and idioms, include
them in your academic writing to make it more dynamic.
The use of varied sentence structure will lead to better grades on homework and essay assignments.

Leonardo da Vinci 17. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) in 1452; many
Leonardo da Vinci was born in Florence in 1452, many people say (C) in 1452, because many
17 (D) in 1452. And many
he defined the Renaissance man. Da Vinci was a talented painter,
18. (F) NO CHANGE
sculptor, mathematician, architect and he wrote many books. (G) architect, and he wrote
18 many books.
Da Vincis work was extremely influential. He is considered by many to be (H) architect, and writer.
19 (J) architect that has also written
one of the most talented men in history. many books.
19. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) He is considered by many as
For most people, regard da Vinci primarily as a painter. Da Vincis (C) To many, he is considered
20 (D) Many consider him
artwork is among the most well-known in the world. His fresco
20. (F) NO CHANGE
The Last Supper is universally recognizable, to modern art viewers. (G) For most people, regarding
21 (H) Most people regard
His most famous painting, da Vinci painted the Mona Lisa, shortly (J) Most people, regard
22
before he died. 21. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) recognizable to
(C) recognizable to,
(D) recognizable, for
While most people recognize da Vincis artwork, few understand
23 22. The underlined portion would
the immensity of his contributions to the field of science. Da Vinci fit best:
23 (F) NO CHANGE
conceptualized a helicopter, a tank, and drew plans for a calculator. The (G) after shortly
24 (H) after painted
technology of the time prevented da (J) after died
23. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) da Vincis artwork; few
understand the immensity
(C) da Vincis artwork, few
understand the immensity,
(D) da Vincis artwork, the
immensity is understood by few
24. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) a helicopter, a tank and drew
plans for a calculator
(H) a helicopter and a tank, and
made plans for a calculator
(J) a helicopter, a tank, and a
calculator

Cla s s 4
Vinci from creating these inventions, his ideas were never realized during 25. (A) NO CHANGE
25 (B) inventions, but his ideas were
his lifetime. Many of da Vincis sketches, still existing today, evidence never realized
26 (C) inventions. His ideas were
of his brilliance. never realized
(D) inventions, he never realized
his ideas
26. (F) NO CHANGE

Though da Vinci died, nearly five centuries ago, his works continue (G) sketches, still in existence
27 today, evidence
to influence modern society. The Mona Lisa continues to affect the (H) sketches, that still exist today,
are evidence
artistic world and now hangs in the Louvre, subject of countless modern (J) sketches that still exist today
28 are evidence
parodies. His drawing of the Vitruvian Man, is a cultural icon. The plans
28 29 30 27. (A) NO CHANGE
once conceptualized by da Vinci have now been realized by scientists. (B) died nearly five centuries ago,
30 (C) died; nearly five centuries ago
(D) died nearly five centuries ago;
Making indispensable contributions to the fields of art, anatomy, math,
31
and machinery, da Vinci was truly a renaissance man. 28. The underlined portion would
fit best:
31
(F) NO CHANGE
(G) before The Mona Lisa
(H) after world
(J) before affect
29. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) drawing of the Vitruvian Man;
(C) drawing of the Vitruvian Man
(D) drawing; of the Vitruvian Man
30. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) The plans that were once
conceptualized by da Vinci
have now been realized by
scientists.
(H) The plans that da Vinci once
conceptualized have now been
realized by scientists.
(J) Scientists have realized the
plans that da Vinci once
conceptualized.
31. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) art, anatomy, math, and
building of machinery
(C) art, the science of anatomy,
math, and machinery
(D) artists, anatomists,
mathematicians, and
machinists

Class 4
Math:
Planar Geometry
Key Points:
Practice translating geometry terms into figures
and equations.
Apply the rule of 180 on problems involving
lines and triangles.
Memorize the area formulas for all of your
basic shapes.

Cla s s 4
Translating
Translating Geometry
Wordy definitions are boring but important. For Geometry questions, know how to translate the
words into figures and equations.
Term Definition
Line One-dimensional representation of length
Line Segments Represent fixed, numerical distances
Midpoint The exact middle of a line segment
Collinear Three or more points that are on or connected by a straight line
One line segment intersects another at the segments midpoint

Bisect A line segment divides a figure into symmetrical halves
A line segment divides an angle into equal halves
Parallel Lines in the same plane that never intersect
Perpendicular Lines that intersect to form right (90) angles
A line that intersects a line segment at the segments midpoint to form

Perpendicular Bisector
right angles
1. In the figure below, point U lies on line m, and line m

bisects SVQ. What is the measure of RVU?
P Q
U 55 V
m
R S
(A) 45
(B) 55
(C) 65
(D) 70
(E) 75

Math: Pl anar G eom et ry
Line and Angle Problems

Identify:
Look for questions defining points on a line, or parallel lines being intersected by a third line.
Set Up:
Draw the figure and/or write down which angles are equal.
Make Sure:
Be careful! The ACT likes to use points that dont go in alphabetical order along the line, and
figures that are not drawn to scale
Execute:
Solve for the question being asked.
2. In the figure below, m || n and f = 125. What is the

value of g?
g
m
f
n
(F) 40
(G) 55
(H) 60
(J) 72
(K) 180

Cla s s 4
Line and Angle Problem

3. In the figure below, E, H, F, and M are 5. In the figure below, line p is parallel to line
collinear. If GEH measures 64, FGH q. Lines v and w intersect at point F on p and
measures 54, and GFM measures 132, intersect q at points G and H, respectively.
what is the degree measure of EGH? Point Y is on q, the measure of FHY is 122,
and the measure of GFH is 64. How many
G of the angles formed by lines p, q, v, and w
have a measure of 58?
G H Y q
E H F M 122
64
p
(A) 102
F
(B) 48 v w
(C) 36
(A) 4
(D) 14
(B) 5
(E) 12
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8
4. The points V, W, Y, and Z lie on a line, though

not necessarily in that order. Point Y is the
midpoint of VW, and VW = 16. If YZ = 4, what
are all the possible distances between the points
V and Z along this line?
(F) 4
(G) 8
(H) 12
(J) 4 and 8
(K) 4 and 12

Triangles
Triangle Basics
1. In all triangles, the biggest side is opposite the biggest angle. The same is true for the smallest
side being opposite the smallest angle.
2. The sum of the interior angles of a triangle always equal 180.
3. The sum of any two sides of a triangle must be greater that the third side.
4. The area of any triangle is 1 (base)(height).

2
height
base
SCALENE ISOSCELES EQUILATERAL

TWO equal sides, TWO equal angles THREE equal sides, THREE equal angles
NO equal sides, NO equal angles
a 60 Each angle
The EQUAL ANGLES
is always
are always opposite the
60
EQUAL SIDES
b c
60 60
x x
Similar Triangles
Similar triangles have the same angle measures, which means that corresponding side lengths
are proportional.
b If: Then:
a=d
b=e A B C
a c d f D = E = F
c=f

Cla s s 4
Rule of 180 Problems

Identify:
If you see a triangle or intersecting lines, and theyre asking for an angle measurement.
Set Up:
They will give you some of the angles. Use the Rule of 180 to fill in the angles that you dont know.
Sum of the angles in any triangle = 180 degrees

Total number of degrees in a straight line = 180 degrees
Make Sure:
Stay with the problem; dont give up.
Execute:
Keep using the rule of 180 to figure out more angles until you get the answer.
6. If x = 20, and AB = BC = CD then what is the value

of y?
(A) 60
D
(B) 76
(C) 85
B
(D) 90
xo yo
(E) 100 A
C

Rule of 180 Practice

7. In ABC, if ABC = 70, BCA = 60, and 9. In the figure below, side LN of triangle LMN is
CAB = 50, which of the following must on line O. What is x in terms of a?
be true?
M
(A) AB is the shortest side of ABC
x
(B) AB is the longest side of ABC
(C) AC is the shortest side of ABC
(D) AC is the longest side of ABC (100 a) 100
O
L N
(E) ABC is an isosceles triangle
(A) 20 a
(B) a
(C) 20 + a
(D) 100 a
(E) 100 2a
8. If segment BE is parallel to segment CD,

BAE = 45, and ACD = 80, what is the
value of AEB?
C
B
A E D
(F) 35
(G) 42
(H) 55
(J) 76
(K) 84

Cla s s 4
Pythagorean Theorem Problems

Identify:
If you see a right triangle, and you have to solve for one of the sides, then its probably a
Pythagorean theorem question.
If you need to find the length of any diagonal line, you will probably need the
Pythagorean theorem.
Set Up:
Use the Pythagorean theorem:
a2 + b2 = c2
Make Sure:
Make sure you know which angle is the right angle and which side is the long side (hypotenuse).
lso, check that it actually is a right triangle (just because it looks like a right triangle doesnt
A
mean it is!).
Execute:
Just do the math.
10. Consider a right triangle with a hypotenuse of length

13, and legs (9 x) and 12. What is the value of x ?
2
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

Special Right Triangle Problems

Identify:
You will see a right triangle with the angles 306090 or 454590.
Set Up:
Use the special right triangle diagrams in your ACT exam:
306090 454590
60 2x
2x 45
x 2
xx xx
30 45
x 3 xx
Make Sure:
In the 306090 triangle, make sure you have the sides labeled correctly.
Execute:
Just do the math.
11. In the figure below, RSTV is a square and UV = 7.

What is the area of RSTV?
S T
60
R V U
(F) 120
(G) 137
(H) 147
(J) 196
(K) 441

Cla s s 4
Right Triangle Problems

12. To get to Penelopes house, Sarah must ride her 14. Mandy has a yard that is shaped like a right
bicycle 8 miles south and then 6 miles west. triangle, as shown below. A bag of fertilizer
What is the shortest distance, in miles, between costs $8.25 and will cover approximately 300
the two houses? square feet. Which of the following is closest to
the cost, in dollars, of fertilizing Mandys yard?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
36 ft
(D) 10
(E) 14
48 ft
(A) $20.00
(B) $25.00
(C) $30.00
(D) $40.00
(E) $50.00
13. The figure below shows a right triangle whose

hypotenuse is 26 centimeters long. How many
centimeters long is the shorter leg of this
triangle?
26 60
52 3
(F) 3
13 3
(G)
3
(H) 13 3
(J) 52
(K) 13

Circles Problems
Identify:
Look for problems with a circle diagram, radius, or diameter.
Set Up:
You can always use the following formulas:
Area and Circumference Formulas
Area = r 2
Circumference = 2r
Make Sure:
When calculating area, be sure you use the radius, not the diameter.
Execute:
Just do the math.
15. The area of a circle is 81 inches. What is the diameter

of the circle?
(A) 9
(B) 9
(C) 18
(D) 18
(E) 81

Cla s s 4
Arc & Sector Problems

Identify:
Look for problems with a sector, a central angle, or an arc.
Set Up:
You can always use the following formulas:
central
angle
Arc Formula Sector Formula
Arc = Circumference S Central Angle X Sector = Area S Central Angle X

360 360
Make Sure:
Check your proportions! The elements from the sector should be on top of the fractions and the
elements from the circle on the bottom.
Execute:
Cross multiply and solve.
16. In a circle with a radius of 8 inches, what is the length,

in inches, of an arc on the circle with a central angle
measure of 90?
(F) 4
(G) 8
(H) 16
(J) 32
(K) 64

Circles Practice
33 19. In the circle below, C is the center. Chord XY is
17. The radius of a circle is
centimeters. How 24 meters long and is 5 meters from C. What is
many centimeters long is its circumference? the circumference, in meters, of the circle?
(A) 132
C
(B) 66
X Y
(C) 33
(D) 1089 (A) 10

(B) 13
(E) 66 (C) 24

(D) 26
(E) 48
18. The length of arc XY is equal to one-third of

the circumference of the circle. The length of
the arc is 6 centimeters. What is the area, in
square centimeters, of the circle?
(F) 9
(G) 18
(H) 27
(J) 36
(K) 81

Cla s s 4
Quadrilateral Problems
Identify:
Look for shapes with 4 sides.
Set Up:
Use the following area equations:
Rectangles Trapezoids Parallelograms
Perimeter = 2b + 2h
(In a square, b and h are equal) One pair of parallel sides Two pairs of parallel sides
Area = bh Sum of Angles = 360 Area = bh

(In a square, b and h are equal)
b1 + b2
Area = ( 2 )h Sum of Angles = 360
Sum of Angles = 360
Make Sure:
Be careful when selecting the base and height of a parallelogram. They must be perpendicular to
each other.
Execute:
Just solve the equation.
20. If ABCD is a parallelogram, then it is always true that

the measures of ABC and ADC:
(A) add up to 90
(B) add up to 180
(C) are equal to each other
(D) are both greater than 90
(E) are both greater than 180

Quadrilateral Practice
21. What is the area, in square centimeters, of a 23. A 12-foot square box of cardboard used to hold
trapezoid with a height of 4 cm and parallel 4 cans is shown below. Each can is tangent to 2
bases of 9 cm and 6 cm, respectively? other cans and tangent to 2 of the edges of the
box. What is the approximate area, in square
(A) 19
feet, of the bottom of the cardboard box that
(B) 30 is not covered by a can, as indicated by the
(C) 45 shaded region below?
(D) 60
12
(E) 65
12 12
12
(A) 30.9
(B) 68.6
(C) 106.3
(D) 113.1
(E) 115.7
22. In the 8-sided figure below, adjacent sides meet

at right angles and the lengths given are in
yards. What is the perimeter of the figure,
in yards?
10
5
15
(F) 225
(G) 150
(H) 60
(J) 55
(K) 30

Cla s s 4
Solids Problems
Identify:
Look for shapes with 4 sides.
Set Up:
Use the following area equations:
Rectangular Solids Cylinders
Volume = lwh Volume = r 2h

Surface Area = 2wl + 2hl +
Surface Area = 2r 2 + 2rh
2hw
Make Sure:
For Surface Area questions, be sure to add all of the individual sides of the solid.
Execute:
24. The height h of a certain cylinder is equal to its

diameter. If h = 6, then what is the volume of
this cylinder?
(A) 18
(B) 18
(C) 36
(D) 54
(E) 54

Solids Practice
25. The edges of a cube are each 2 feet long. What 27. A large cube has edges that are three times as
is the surface area, in square feet, of this cube? long as those of a small cube. The volume of
the large cube is how many times the volume
(A) 4
of the small cube?
(B) 8
(A) 3
(C) 16
(B) 9
(D) 24
(C) 18
(E) 32
(D) 27
(E) 81
26. Josh installed a ladder on level ground next

to his above-ground pool. The pool is a right
circular cylinder with a diameter of 20 feet and
a height of 5 feet. A diagram of the pool and its
ladder is shown below.
5 ft
45
20 ft
To the nearest cubic foot, what is the volume

of water that will be in the tank when it is filled
with water to a depth of 3.5 feet?
(Note: The volume of a cylinder is given by

r2h, where r is the radius and h is the height.)
(F) 99
(G) 198
(H) 396
(J) 1,100
(K) 1,245

Class 4
Homework

Cla s s 4
Class 4 Homework
If your Science score was If your English score was If your Math score was
1-17 1-17 1-17

...then your Science ...then your English ...then your Math
p. 223-224 #1-6 p. 229-230 #1-15 p. 236-238 #1-10
18-22 18-22 18-22

p. 225-226 #7-12 p. 231-232 #16-30 p. 238-240 #11-20
23-36 23-36 23-36

p. 227-228 #13-17 p. 233-235 #31-45 p. 240-242 #21-30

Hom ework
Score Report
Yes Issue Solution

tion

Worst Section 1?


Losing energy time
Worst Section 4?

Dont rush to finish

before guessing


Omits at the end of
a section?

or Science passage?
one passage

Hom ework
Science
Directions: There are three passages in this homework section. Each passage is followed by
several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question. You may
refer to the passages as often as necessary.
Passage 1 Figure 2
45
To investigate cricket chirps, high school biology 40

35
average chirp rate

students developed the following field studies.
(chirps/minute)
30
25
20
Study 1 15
10
Students placed tape-recorders at outdoor sites to 5
record cricket chirps for 1 hour on 1 day. Students 0
used the recordings to estimate the cricket population
00
30
00
30
00
30
0
:0
:3
:0
7:
7:
8:
8:
9:
9:
10
10
11
and the chirp rate (chirps/minute) of individual tim e of day (P.M.)
crickets. Students then ranked the volume of each

chirp on a scale of 1 to 10 (1 signifying a very soft Figure 1
chirp and a 10 signifying a very loud chirp). The Study 3
results are displayed in Table 1. Students studied populations of greater than 20
crickets, using the same procedure as in Study 1.
Table 1 Chirps were recorded between 9 and 10 P.M. for 30
Average days. Air temperatures were also recorded. The results
Population Average
chirp rate are displayed in Table 3.
size chirp volume
(chirps/minute)
<10 28.3 3.4 Table 3
10 -15 20.9 3.5 Air Average
16 - 20 32.4 3.7 Average
temperature chirp rate
>20 39.1 3.3 chirp volume
(C) (chirps/minute)
15 - 17 0.0 0.0
Study 2 18 - 20 5.1 0.5
For 4 hours, cricket populations with greater than 21 - 23 16.3 2.1
20 crickets were studied following the procedure 24 - 26 39.7 3.4
described in Study 1. Average chirp rates and chirp
volumes are displayed in Table 2. Figure 1 displays
the average chirp rates, broken down into 15 minute
1. Study 3 was designed to investigate how
increments.
average chirp rate and average chirp volume
vary with respect to which of the following
Table 2 factors?
Average
Time of day
chirp rate
Average (A) Time of day
(P.M.) chirp volume
(chirps/minute) (B) Population size
7-8 24.3 3.2 (C) Air temperature
8-9 38.4 3.5 (D) Predator presence
9 - 10 38.9 3.7
10 - 11 38.9 3.9

Cla s s 4
2. Based on the results of Studies 1 and 3, one 6. Based on Studies 1, 2, and 3, the average
would predict that crickets exposed to which volume of cricket chirps is most strongly
of the following sets of conditions would chirp affected by which of the following factors?
most frequently?
(F) Air temperature
(F) A cricket population of 10 and an air (G) Time of day
temperature of 15C (H) Average chirp rate
(G) A cricket population of 10 and an air (J) Population size
temperature of 19C
(H) A cricket population 20 and an air
temperature of 21C
(J) A cricket population of 20 and an air
temperature of 25C
3. After further research, the students learned that

in the species studied, only male crickets chirp.
Based on this finding, the students should
reevaluate which of the following conclusions
from the data?
(A) The time during which crickets are most
likely to chirp
(B) The number of male crickets in each
population
(C) The temperature at which crickets are most
likely to chirp
(D) The volume at which crickets generally chirp
4. Based on the data in Table 3, one would

conclude that at 8:30 P.M. on the day that
Study 2 was performed the air temperature at
the study sites was approximately:
(F) 16C
(G) 19C
(H) 22C
(J) 24C
5. Do the data support the hypothesis that crickets

in small populations chirp more frequently than
crickets in large populations?
(A) No; the data in Table 1 contradict
this hypothesis.
(B) No; the data in Table 2 contradict
this hypothesis.
(C) Yes; the data in Table 1 support
this hypothesis.
(D) Yes; the data in Table 2 support
this hypothesis.

Hom ework
During the month of May, researchers inspected

Passage 2
each plot to determine the number of prairie dogs
living there. Population density, defined as number
The following experiments were designed to study of prairie dogs per hectare, was calculated. A hectare
the changes in a prairie dog population in an area of is 10,000 m2. The average population density of
grassland over a 7-year period. the plots assigned to Treatment E is displayed
in Table 2.
Experiment
A group of researchers studied a section of grassland
measuring 12 km by 12 km. Researchers then mapped Table 2
out 20 plots, each measuring 2 km by 2 km, so that
none of the plots was directly contacting another. The Population density
plots were then randomly assigned to a treatment, as Year (prairie dogs/hectare)
shown in Table 1. of Treatment E plots
1 0.15
Table 1 2 0.91
3 0.68
Number 4 1.53
Treatment Procedure
of plots 5 0.84
Fertilizer was added
6 0.35
A 4 7 0.1
to the plots for plants
Extra food sources

B were added for 4
prairie dogs Figure 1 shows the population density ratio for
Treatments A-D for all 7 years of the experiment.
Mammals that prey
on prairie dogs were
Population density ratio is represented by the
C removed from the 4 following expression:
plots, and the plots
were then fenced off average population density of the 4 plots assigned to the treatment
average population density of the 4 plots assigned to Treatment E
Procedures from
Treatments B and
D 4
C were performed
together Figure 1
E None 4 15
14
13
population density ratio
12
11 Treatment A
10
9 Treatment B
8
7 Treatment C
6
5 Treatment D
4
3
2
1
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Year
Figure 1

Cla s s 4
7. Which of the following most likely explains 10. Prior to performing the experiment, each of
why the researchers included Treatment E in the researchers proposed 1 of the following
the experiment? hypotheses. Which hypothesis is best supported
by the results?
(A) Treatment E acted as a standard of
comparison to determine how the (F) Adding food to the plots will not affect the
other experimental treatments affected population density of the prairie dogs.
population density. (G) Adding food to the plots will increase
(B) Treatment E provided a means of estimating prairie dog populations more than will
the maximum number of prairie dogs that adding fertilizer to the plots.
can survive on a 12 km by 12 km plot. (H) Excluding predators from the plots will not
(C) Treatment E was designed to determine the affect the population density of the prairie
amount of food that should be added to the dogs.
plots that were assigned to Treatment A. (J) Excluding predators from the plots will
(D) Treatment E helped the researchers increase prairie dog populations less than
determine the types of food eaten by will adding fertilizer to the plots.
prairie dogs over the course of one year.
11. During which of the following years was the
8. Which of the following most likely identifies a population density highest for plots assigned to
group of animals that the researchers attempted to Treatment E?
exclude from the plots assigned to Treatment C? (A) Year 4
(F) Snakes (B) Year 5
(G) Coyotes (C) Year 6
(H) Prairie dogs (D) Year 7
(J) Hawks
12. During which of the following years was the
9. Treatment A was most likely included in population density ratio for plots assigned to
the experiment to investigate which of the Treatment B higher than the population density
following questions? ratio for plots assigned to Treatment D?
(A) What types of organisms compete with (F) Year 1

prairie dogs for vegetation? (G) Year 2
(B) Does the application of fertilizer increase (H) Year 3
the growth rate of vegetation in plots (J) Year 4
containing prairie dogs?
(C) Does an increase in the mass of vegetation
in a plot affect the population density of
prairie dogs?
(D) What types of plants do prairie dogs
typically consume in natural environments?

Hom ework
Experiment 2
Passage 3
The procedure from Experiment 1 was repeated at
an external temperature of 20C. The results were
Benzene gas is carcinogenic; it has been linked to recorded in Table 2.
causing cancer, such as leukemia and lymphoma.
Cars are a major source of atmospheric benzene gas in
urban areas. A group of researchers hypothesize that Table 2
cars emit more benzene gas at colder temperatures,
compared to warmer temperatures, during the first 15
minutes a car is running. The following experiments Percent of benzene in the exhaust at 20C:
Time
were designed to test this hypothesis. after
starting
(min) 1976 1976 1995 1995
Model A Model B Model A Model B
Experiment 1
To collect car exhaust, researchers attached a hose
from the tailpipe of a car to a plastic bag. The 1 1.0 0.4 0.1 0.1
3 1.4 1.0 0.2 0.5
engine was started, and researchers used a syringe to
5 1.7 3.0 0.3 0.7
extract 1 mL samples of exhaust at 2-minute intervals. 7 0.8 3.5 0.1 0.4
The samples were injected in a gas chromatograph, 9 0.7 3.5 0.1 0.3
an instrument used to separate a mixture of gases 11 0.5 3.2 0.1 0.2
into individual components. Researchers determined 13 0.5 2.5 0.1 0.1
15 0.4 2.4 0.1 0.1
the percent by volume of benzene in the exhaust by
comparing the exhaust with mixtures of known
benzene concentrations. Samples of exhaust were
taken from 4 cars tested at an external temperature of
10C. The results were recorded in Table 1.
13. In Experiment 1, which of the following
factors varied?
(F) The temperature at which the engine
Table 1
was started
(G) The year in which the cars were made
Percent of benzene in the exhaust at 10C:
Time (H) The volume of exhaust that was collected
after
(J) The method of collecting samples
starting
(min) 1976 1976 1995 1995
Model A Model B Model A Model B
14. Do the results of Experiment 1 support
the hypothesis that, at a given time and
1 1.7 1.6 0.6 0.1 temperature, the exhaust of newer cars contains
3 2.0 1.9 0.5 0.6 less benzene gas than the exhaust of older cars?
5 4.3 3.8 0.7 1.2
7 1.8 5.0 0.5 1.5 (A) Yes; the highest percent of benzene was in
9 1.6 4.5 0.3 1.3 the exhaust of the 1995 Model B.
11 1.5 4.0 0.3 1.0
13 1.4 3.5 0.3 1.0 (B) Yes; both 1995 models had percents of
15 1.2 3.5 0.2 0.9 benzene that were lower than those of
either 1976 model.
(C) No; the highest percent of benzene was in
the exhaust of the 1976 Model B.
(D) No; both 1976 models had percents of
benzene that were lower than those of
either 1995 model.

Cla s s 4
15. Based on the results of the experiments and

the information in the table below, cars in
which of the following cities would most likely
contribute to the greatest amount of benzene to
the atmosphere in January? (Assume that the
types, numbers, and ages of cars used in each
city are approximately equal.)
Avg. temperature (F)

City
in January
Detroit 22.2
Chicago 28.9
Denver 39.8
Pasadena 67.5
(F) Detroit
(G) Chicago
(H) Denver
(J) Pasadena
16. Assume that the 1976 Model A car was left

running for another 2 minutes at 20C. What
would the percent benzene in the exhaust most
likely be?
(A) greater than 0.4
(B) between 0.4 and 0.3
(C) between 0.2 and 0.1
(D) less than 0.1
17. Experiment 1 and Experiment 2 differ in that in

Experiment 1:
(F) older cars were used.
(G) the temperature was lower.
(H) the starting times were adjusted.
(J) more exhaust was collected.

Hom ework
English
for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the
passage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose NO CHANGE. In some
cases, you will find in the right-hand column a question about the underlined part. You are to
choose the best answer to the question.
These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identified by
a number or numbers in a box.
before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For many of the questions, you
must read several sentences beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure that you have
read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.

(B) would be claiming
The Ginkgo Biloba Tree: A Living Fossil (C) would of claimed
(D) would claim
Have you ever seen a living fossil? Some would, by claiming the
1 2. (F) obscure
term is an oxymoron, but it is really a scientific term for any living (G) routine
(H) mutual
species of organism that has existed long enough to have a fossil record (J) extraordinary
yet has no close living relatives. Some living fossils are quite common.
3. (A) NO CHANGE
2
If you have seen a Ginkgo Biloba tree, then you have seen a living (B) (its even older than ferns
and fungi)
fossil. (C) (and many ancient plants
grow from seeds)
(D) OMIT the underlined portion.
The Ginkgo tree is believed to be the oldest kind of plant on 4. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) fossil remain
earth to grow from a seed (thus removing plants like ferns and fungi). (H) fossils remains
3 (J) fossils remains
Scientists have discovered fossil remains of the Ginkgo tree from the
4
Permian era, which, at roughly 270 million years ago, place the tree 5. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) Before it happened
well before the dinosaurs. Prior to this, Ginkgo trees grew in many parts (C) During this time
5 (D) While this was going on
of the world. They grew well where temperatures were moderate, soil
6. (F) NO CHANGE
was sandy, and there was sufficient rainfall. However, the same forces (G) rainfall was sufficient
6 (H) rainfall, being that it
that caused the extinction of the dinosaurs also placed was sufficient
(J) sufficient rainfall

Cla s s 4
great stress on the Ginkgo tree, and their numbers and range were 7. (A) NO CHANGE
7 (B) there
greatly reduced. (C) theyre
(D) its

For a long time, Europeans believed that the Ginkgo tree was 8. Which of the following alternatives
extinct, as they only saw it in fossils. Then, in 1690, the German NOT be acceptable?
8 (F) extinct, because they
botanist Engelbert Kaempfer observed the trees growing in Japanese (G) extinct; they
(H) extinct, they
temple gardens. The trees were far from being extinct; in fact,
(J) extinct, due to the fact that they
9
Kaempfer learned that Ginkgo trees were common in China and had
9. (A) NO CHANGE
been widely transplanted in Korea and Japan. The tree has long been (B) far from
10 (C) being so far from
closely associated with Buddhism and Confucianism. Indeed, some of (D) OMIT the underlined portion.
the trees planted at temples and monasteries are 1,500 years old. 10. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) by
11 While there is no proof, some scientists believe that all Ginkgo (H) for
trees currently alive originally came from the seeds of the trees
cultivated by Chinese monks. 11. The writer is considering deleting

the preceding sentence. If the
writer were to delete this sentence,
the essay would primarily lose:
Apart from its documented lifespan of up to 3,000 years, an
(A) an unimportant detail.
12
unusual fact about the Ginkgo tree is that it can live, and even thrive, in (B) descriptive language that helps
to set the tone of the essay.
very polluted air. This has made it a superior landscape tree for urban (C) the writers opinion about why
Gingko trees are so popular.
areas. While the Ginkgos unique ability to involve carbon monoxide (D) an indication of the longevity
13 of the Gingko tree.
has made it a popular choice for city roadsides, the trees great height
12. (F) NO CHANGE
at maturity discourages this use. Interestingly, however, with proper (G) its
(H) its
horticultural care, the tree is an excellent species for bonsai. Left to
(J) ones
their own devices; Ginkgo trees will normally exceed 100 feet in height.
They have solid, strong, dark branches and clusters of fan-shaped (B) incorporate
(C) assimilate
leaves. The leaves turn a brilliant yellow in autumn and drop from the (D) absorb
tree in late October. Female trees are producing by fruits the size of 14. (F) NO CHANGE
15 (G) devices Ginko
large cherries or small plums. The fruit is messy and malodorous, which (H) devices, Ginko
(J) devices. Ginko
is why male trees are generally preferred for landscaping.
15. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) in the production of
(C) producing
(D) produce

Hom ework
Passage 2 16. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) concept, when it comes, to
their beloved Tiger
The Detroit Tigers: From Tiger Stadium to Comerica Park
(H) concept, when it comes to
their beloved, Tiger
Out with the old, in with the new! Nearly a decade later, some
(J) concept; when it comes to
their beloved, Tiger
Detroit Tigers fans are still disgruntled over this concept when it comes
16
17. (A) NO CHANGE
to their beloved Tiger Stadium. In reality, Tiger Stadium is no more. Only
(B) existence,
16
(C) existence, although
a photograph or memory preserves its existence, despite the 90% of the
(D) existence, where
17
structure itself will eventually be recycled being needed elsewhere.
18. (F) NO CHANGE
18
(G) for other uses.
(H) like paper.
Their extremely happy with the new and improved Comerica
Park, mainly because of its comfort, entertainment value, and multiple (B) There
(C) Theyre
amenities. The new park was designed by which every seat in the house got (D) Most fans are
20 21
a clear view of the action, even though the view may be relatively far 20. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) hence
off in the distance. There are rides for the children, displays of baseball (H) despite that
(J) so that
history, and a slew of choices to slake both hunger and thirst. Finally,
21. (A) NO CHANGE
a grand production of fountain fireworks explodes for every home run, (B) house has
(C) houses got
delighting the crowd every time. (D) house has got
22
22. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) it is a delight for
Clearly, Comerica Park is a huge improvement over the ancient (H) causing delight to
(J) which will have delighted
Tiger Stadium. Huge, however, is the operative word. Comerica Parks
23. (A) NO CHANGE
large size is probably the biggest, which those fans know, complaint by (B) being the biggest complaint by
23 those that
them who continue to lament Tiger Stadiums demise. In the old stadium, (C) what they know to be biggest
23 when they
spectators who were sitting so close to the players, they felt as if they (D) the biggest complaint of those
24 fans who
could almost touch their idols.
24. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) had since sat
(H) sat
(J) were so far sitting

Cla s s 4
At the very least, fans could see their favorite players facial expressions, 25. (A) NO CHANGE
25 (B) favorite players
observe their physical techniques, and, at dramatic moments, almost (C) favorite players
(D) favorite player
feel their emotions. It was easier to make a connection with the guys on
26. (F) NO CHANGE
the field back then, and now it is difficult at times to determine who is (G) to be blind
(H) thereby thus unable to see that
actually on base or at bat. (J) thus unable to see
27. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) that
Other criticisms of the Tigers new home include the angle at which it (C) from which
(D) that which
was built, which causes spectators to be blinded by the setting sun during
26 28. The way in which the phrase,
evening games. Also, while the upper deck seats are certainly cheap literally falling apart, functions
in the preceding sentence might
enough, those ticket-holders might as well have stayed home to watch the best be described as being:
(F) accuracy working on behalf
game on television. Spectators are seated so far away from the game of humor.
(G) understatement acting to
with the result being they feel they are watching little white dots moving restrict the essays dramatic
27 impact.
on a green background. (H) exaggeration intended
to highlight the writers
disillusionment with the old
Tiger Stadium.
(J) nonsense working to
However, the bottom line is that Tiger Stadium was literally falling further the writers strongly
impassioned style.
apart. 28 Its infrastructure was no longer safe for its thousands of
29. (A) NO CHANGE
visitors, and even its restrooms were way past being acceptable. Spending (B) However
(C) For
several hours watching a baseball game requires a certain amount of (D) Yet
comfort, cleanliness, and convenience for it to be an enjoyable experience. 30. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) boasts
Comerica Park is more than just a baseball diamond surrounded by rows (H) was boasting
(J) had bragging rights to
and tiers of comfortable seats. Despite $360 million, the beleaguered city
29
of Detroit now boasted one of the finest baseball parks in the world, while
30
offering the best baseball experience a fan could imagine.

Hom ework

(B) knows
The Legend of Robin Hood: Fact or Fiction? (C) know
People who would of known Robin Hood only through Hollywood (D) are knowing
31
movies might be a little surprised to discover that the original stories are 32. (F) NO CHANGE
markedly more complicated. Robin Hood may have robbed from the (G) (while they were in their
expensive houses)
rich, (as they were the ones with the money, after all) but did he give to (H) (who made up the wealthy
32
the poor? Not necessarily. There are other differences to reconcile, people in medieval England)
as well.
33. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) the
The first records of Robin Hood are from the early 13th century,
(C) his
a few years after the reign of King John (called Prince John in the (D) their
legends). While it is possible that there was a real historical figure at the
34. (F) NO CHANGE
heart of the Robin Hood stories, many historians believe its existence (G) legends borrowed
33 (H) legends, borrowing
is unlikely. By 1261, Robin Hood became just a generic term used
(J) legends having borrowed
to describe thieves and other common criminals. By the 14th century,
35. (A) NO CHANGE
more detailed legends were being written down. Since then, Robin
(B) take from
has been portrayed in various lights: as a relentless do-gooder, a pious (C) took
gentleman, and even a treasonous murderer. Some of these later legends, (D) take on
34
borrowed events from the lives of documented historical figures, but 36. (F) NO CHANGE
34
only beginning in the 19th century does Robin Hood taking on the role (G) Moreover, such characters as
35 (H) However, such characters as
of savior of the poor and defender of righteousness. (J) Even though such characters as
[1] Robin Hoods companions were not always who we
would expect, either. [2] As such characters as Will Scarlet and

36
Little John appear early, a female companion would not have been
socially acceptable considering Robin Hoods outlaw lifestyle. [3]
Consequently, Robin Hood had no romantic interest in the original
tales. [4] Maid Marian did not appear with him until the 16th century.

Cla s s 4
[5] Marian, was derived from a very old legend in which she is a 37. (A) NO CHANGE
37 (B) had been derived
shepherdess, was a late borrowing from the May Day festivals. [6] May (C) derives
(D) derived
Day, a popular holiday in England, celebrates the beginning of spring. [7] 38. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) united by being tied together.
Eventually, though, the two were tied together and united. (H) united.
38 (J) united as if tied together.
39. For the sake of logic and coherence

of this paragraph, Sentence 7
39 [8] Robin Hood and his men celebrated the day, as did Maid Marian
should be placed:
(A) where it is now.
in disparate works of literature. [9] This notion of Robin Hood sustaining (B) before Sentence 2.
(C) before Sentence 5.
an inclusive, nearly democratic society friendly to the poor and women is (D) before Sentence 9.
an adaptation to modern times. 40. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) So
(H) By the time
(J) Although
In due time Marian entered the legend, the character of Robin Hood 41. (A) NO CHANGE
40 (B) tyrannically despotic
had already changed dramatically. He gained an aristocratic title, Earl of (C) tyrannical despotism
(D) tyrants with despots
Huntingdon, and began to represent legitimate kingship battling tyranny 42. (F) NO CHANGE
41 (G) charmed charisma of the
despotism with a good measure of violence. Over generations, however, (H) charming charisma
41 (J) charming
the savagery was shed, and what resulted was the charmingly charismatic
43. (A) NO CHANGE
42 (B) Middle Ages resist
outlaw so popular today. Robin Hood is, after all, a literary creation, so (C) Middle Ages, resisting
(D) Middle Ages. Resisting
the reader must accept him and his exploits as fiction. Considering the
44. Given that all are true, which of
real history of the Middle Ages resisting the ruling class would have been the following sentences, if inserted
here, would best conclude this
43
paragraph?
forbiddingly difficult and bloody, and certainly not fodder for childrens
(F) Robin Hood has always been a
popular character.
stories. 44 (G) Robin Hoods stories have had
a lasting impact on English
literature.
(H) While critics, citing the plots
predictability, have not always
valued Robin Hoods legends,
the character remains a staple
of English culture.
(J) In reality, Robin Hoods best
modern incarnations retain
many of his fearsome qualities
found in early legends.

Hom ework

45. Suppose the writers goal had been

to write a brief descriptive essay
about the evolution of the Robin
Hood tales. Would this essay fulfill
that goal?
(A) No, because the essay focuses
on how Robin Hood may
never have existed.
(B) No, because the essay focuses
on how the Hollywood movies
about Robin Hood have been
adapted over many centuries.
(C) Yes, because the essay
objectively describes how
changing times affect the plot
and characterization of the
Robin Hood tales.
(D) Yes, because the essay fails
to show whether Robin Hood
actually stole from the rich to
give to the poor.

Cla s s 4
Math
1. For the polygon below, the lengths of 2 sides 3. In the figure below, W, X, and Y are collinear,
are not given. Each angle between adjacent the measure of YXZ is 7x, and the measure
sides measures 90. What is the polygons of WXZ is 3x. What is the measure of
perimeter? WXZ?
Z
5 in
12 in
8 in W X Y
25 in
(A) 50 (A) 252

(B) 63 (B) 126
(C) 74 (C) 108
(D) 220 (D) 54
(E) 300 (E) 18
2. What is the volume, in cubic units, of a cube

whose edges each measure 5 units in length?
(F) 15 4. The circumference of each tire on a motorcycle
(G) 25 is 60 inches. About how many revolutions does
(H) 30 one of these motorcycle tires make traveling
300 feet (3,600 inches) without slipping?
(J) 125
(K) 243 (F) 6
(G) 18
(H) 60
(J) 360
(K) 864

Hom ework
5. Which of the following is closest to, in inches, 7. In XYZ below, angle Y is a right angle. If
of the remaining side of a right triangle if one XY is 4 units long and YZ is 8 units long, how
side is 5 inches long and the hypotenuse is 12 many units long is XZ ?
inches long?
X
(A) 7 4
(B) 119 Z
Y 8
(C) 11
(D) 13 (A) 4 4
(E) 119
(B) 4 5
(C) 16
(D) 40
(E) 80
8. What is the area of the parallelogram shown in

6. In the figure below, lines j and k are parallel, the diagram below?
lines m and n are parallel, and the measures of
two angles are shown. What is the measure of
angle x?
k m
j n
2 5 4
45
x 100
3
(F) 45
(G) 55 (F) 29
(H) 65 (G) 6
(J) 75 (H) 3 5
(K) 80 (J) 12
(K) 6 5

Cla s s 4
9. A certain circle has an area of 4 square inches. 12. In the parallelogram below, what is the measure
How many inches long is its radius? of angle JFH ?
(A) 21 J H
20
50
(B) 2
F G
(C) 4
(F) 20
(G) 30
(D)
4
(H) 40
(E) (J) 50
(K) 70
10. If the surface area of a certain cube has the same

value as the volume of that cube, then what is the
length of each of the cubes sides?
(F) 2
(G) 3
(H) 4
(J) 5
(K) 6 13. Line l is parallel to line m. Lines n and o both
intersect line m at the same point. The measure
of angle a equals 70 and the measure of angle
b equals 50. What is the measure of angle c?
n o
b c
l
a
m
11. A square has sides that are the same length as
the radius of a circle. If the circle has an area
of 64 square units, how many units long is the
(A) 60
perimeter of the square?
(B) 70
(A) 16
(C) 110
(B) 32
(D) 120
(C) 64
(E) 130
(D) 128
(E) 256

Hom ework
14. A triangle has sides of length 2.5 inches and 4 16. The area of ABD below is 28 square inches.
inches. Which of the following CANNOT be If AD is 7 inches long, how long is altitude CB,
the length of the third side, in inches? in inches?
(F) 1 B
(G) 2
(H) 3
(J) 4
(K) 5
A C D
(F) 10
(G) 8
(H) 6
(J) 4
(K) 2
15. As shown in the figure below, Anna, who is

standing at point A, needs to determine the
distance from point C on the ground to point E
at the top of the flagpole. She places a mirror
on the ground at point B so that when she looks
in the mirror she can see the top of the flagpole.
Annas eye level, at point D, is 5 ft above the
ground. She notes that AB = 2 ft and BC = 8 17. In a certain isosceles triangle, the measure
ft. Assuming ABD = CBE, approximately of each of the base angles is four times the
how many feet above the ground is the top of measure of the vertex angle. What is the
the flagpole? measure, in degrees, of each of the base angles?
(A) 20
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 120
(E) 160
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 11
(E) 20

Cla s s 4
18. In an isosceles right triangle, the hypotenuse is 21. In the diagram below, both circles have the
12. What is the length of one of the sides? same center. Let A be the area of the smaller
circle. If the area of the shaded region is also
(F) 6 2 equal to A, then what is the total area of the
(G) 2 6 larger circle, in terms of A?
(H) 2 4
(J) 2 3
(K) 3
(A) A
(B) 2A
(C) 3A
(D) 4A
19. If circle A has a circumference of 60, and circle (E) 5A
B has a circumference equal to the length of a
72 arc of circle A, what is the area of circle B?
(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 49
(D) 64
(E) 100
22. The length of the base of a rectangular prism is

8 cm, and the width is 6 cm. If the height of the
rectangular prism is 4 cm, what is its volume in
cubic cm?
(F) 192
20. If point Z bisects line segment XY, then which of (G) 124
the following congruences must hold? (H) 86
(F) ZX , XY (J) 48
(G) ZY , XY (K) 24
(H) XZ , YX
(J) YZ , YX
(K) XZ , ZY

Hom ework
24. What is the length of the imaginary line

Use the following information to connecting points L and Q?
answer Questions 23-25.
(F) 86
(G) 95
(H) 6, 925
In the figure below, R and Q are on SP, and L
(J) 7, 400
and M are on SN. The measurements given are
(K) 13, 925
in centimeters. Both LMQR and MNPQ are
trapezoids. The area, A, of a trapezoid is given by
1
A = 2 h (b 1 + b 2) , where h is the height and b1 and
b2 are the lengths of the 2 parallel sides.
L 45 R
70
M 95 Q
70 25. What is the radius, in centimeters, of the largest
circle that can be drawn so that no point of the
N P circle is outside of MNPQ?
(A) 35
(B) 45
(C) 55
(D) 65
(E) 75
23. What is the area of LMQR, in square centimeters?
(A) 1,750
(B) 3,712
(C) 4,900
(D) 5,462
(E) 9,800

Cla s s 4
26. The length of a rectangle is (p + 4) units and its 29. What is the radius of the largest sphere that can
width is (p + 6) units. Which of the following be inscribed inside a cube of volume 64?
expresses the remaining area of the rectangle,
(A) 1
in square units, if a square, p units in length, is
removed from the interior of the rectangle? (B) 2
(C) 4
(F) 10
(D) 8
(G) 24
(E) 16
(H) 2p + 10
(J) 10p + 24
(K) p2 + 10p + 24
27. If the area of a given right triangle is 30 square

meters and one leg is 5 meters in length, how
long, in meters, is the hypotenuse? (Note: the
hypotenuse is not a leg of the triangle.)
30. In the figure below, ABC is similar to XYZ,
(A) 22 with angles A, B, and C corresponding to
(B) 34 angles X, Y, and Z, respectively. If the indicated
(C) 61 lengths are all based on the same unit of
(D) 6 measure, then s = ?
(E) 13
B Y
6 5 s 4
A C X Z
7
(F) 5
28. The measure of each interior angle of a regular 24
n-sided polygon is 180 (n - 2) . A regular (G) 10
n 3
hexagon is shown below. What is the measure
(H) 24
5
of the designated angle?
(J) 5
(K)
11
? 2
(F) 120
(G) 156
(H) 210
(J) 240
(K) 300

Hom ework
Class 4 Answer key

Science English Math Science English Math
1. D 1. C 31. A 1. B 1. C 1. D 31. C 1. C
2. J 2. H 2. G 2. J 2. G 32. J 2. J
3. A 3. B 3. D 3. B 3. D 33. C 3. D
4. H 4. G 4. K 4. J 4. F 34. G 4. H
5. B 5. B 5. E 5. A 5. C 35. D 5. B
6. J 6. G 6. E 6. F 6. G 36. J 6. G
7. B 7. D 7. D 7. A 7. D 37. D 7. B
8. F 8. J 8. H 8. G 8. H 38. H 8. J
9. D 9. C 9. A 9. C 9. B 39. D 9. B
10. J 10. H 10. B 10. G 10. F 40. H 10. K
11. A 11. C 11. H 11. A 11. D 41. C 11. B
12. J 12. F 12. D 12. J 12. G 42. J 12. J
13. B 13. K 13. G 13. D 43. C 13. A
14. H 14. B 14. B 14. H 44. H 14. F
15. A 15. C 15. F 15. D 45. C 15. E
16. G 16. F 16. B 16. F 16. G
17. B 17. B 17. G 17. C 17. C
18. H 18. K 18. J 18. F
19. D 19. D 19. D 19. B
20. H 20. C 20. J 20. K
21. B 21. B 21. B 21. E
22. J 22. H 22. F 22. F
23. A 23. A 23. D 23. C
24. J 24. E 24. H 24. K
25. C 25. D 25. A 25. A
26. J 26. J 26. F 26. J
27. B 27. D 27. B 27. E
28. G 28. H 28. J
29. C 29. C 29. B
30. J 30. G 30. H

Class 5
Reading:
Analyzing Multiple Texts
Key Points:
Divide & Conquer the Two-Passage
Critical Reading.
Read with your Two-Track Mind to break up
Critical Reading passages into bite-sized pieces.
Read for the main idea of the passage.
Always anticipate and eliminate when looking
at answer choices.

Cla s s 5

Approaching Multiple Texts
Identifying Analyzing Multiple Texts Questions on the ACT: One ACT reading portion is
comprised of two passages which are followed by questions that relate to both passages.
Approaching Multiple Texts on the ACT: Multiple text selections always share a common theme/
topic, with each passage having a different perspective on that theme/topic. A Venn Diagram
can help to organize this information for making anticipations.
Passage 1 Passage 2
Passage 1s Passage 2s
perspective Shared perspective
on shared theme/topic on shared
theme/topic theme/topic
Solving Multiple Texts Questions on the ACT: There are four steps to solving Multiple Texts
questions on the ACT.
1. Cover the answer choices. Do not look at the answer choices!
2. Anticipate an answer to the question. How would you answer the question? Use the notes you
took while reading!
3. Eliminate answers that are clearly incorrect. Answers are clearly incorrect because they do not
align with your anticipation!
4. Make a decision among whatever choices remain. Avoid answers with absolute language and/
or non-relevant information.

Re ad i ng: A nal yzi ng M ul tp ile Text s

Identifying Analyzing Multiple Texts Questions on the ACT: One ACT reading portion is
comprised of two passages which are followed by questions that relate to the passages.
Approaching Multiple Texts on the ACT: After reading each individual passage, stop and answer
only the questions that relate to that passage. After answering all questions that relate to one
passage, then answer the questions that refer to multiple passages.
1. The author of Passage A compares Lewis and Clark

Passage A
to Christopher Columbus (lines 1-5) primarily in
order to
Before Lewis and Clark, the territory west of the
(A) help the reader understand their methods.
Mississippi River was about as well understood as outer
(B) characterize them as oppressors.
space almost as mysterious as the Americas were to
(C) highlight their fearlessness.
Christopher Columbus the day he dropped anchor off El
5 Salvador. It was home to the red nations, yet an enigma (D) emphasize how little is known about their
expedition.
to recently arrived whites. French and Spanish traders
made inroads along the major waterways, yet little was
known of this vast slice of continent other than what 2. Both passages are concerned with
could be gleaned from rumors that blended a dash of (F) understanding the truth surrounding Lewis and
10 speculation with boundless exaggeration. It was our Clarks discoveries.
very own African heart of darkness, with a handful of (G) links between the past and the future.
men proceeding cautiously upriver to obtain furs from (H) specific discoveries made during Lewis and
the various native tribes and courting death in the Clarks expedition.
process. (J) perceptions of the regions explored by Lewis
and Clark.
Passage B 3. The author of Passage B would most likely

characterize the other histories (lines 23-24) as
15 In many histories of the American West, the Lewis (A) essential to a complete understanding of the
and Clark expedition marks the beginning of recorded American West.
history; earlier history of the region is relegated to (B) intentional falsifications of Native American
prelude. The Lewis and Clark expedition was a history.
momentous event and a heroic achievement, but it was (C) accurate records based on the journals of Lewis
20 only a subplot in a historical drama of time, place, and and Clark.
people that had been playing for thousands of years. The (D) one-sided.
new lands Lewis and Clark explored were in fact very
old. The West they saw had been shaped by many other
4. The two passages differ in their views of the Lewis
histories and ways of understanding history
and Clark expedition in that Passage A regards it
25 involving other peoples and recorded not only in writing
but in song and story and earth and memory. Lewis and (F) through the eyes of a foreigner, while Passage B
Clark did not bring the West into U.S. history, they assumes a distinctly American outlook.
brought the United States into western history. (G) as a major discovery, while Passage B diminishes
its importance.
(H) from the perspective of Lewis and Clarks era,
while Passage B views it in a broader historical
context.
(J) with complete ignorance of the facts, while
Passage B approaches it with an informed
understanding.

Cla s s 5
Social Science: The first passage below is an excerpt during the 1920s, the Stock Market crash (1929) and the
35 Great Depression (1929-1935) took it away. Suddenly, the
from a historical survey of early twentieth-century
money that had supported African-American artists dried
American society; the second is an excerpt from a up. The cultural life of Harlem seemed to fade slowly into
1997 article about the Harlem Renaissance. increasing poverty and bleakness. We were no longer in
vogue, wrote Jervis Anderson in This Was Harlem.
Passage A from a historical survey
40 Nevertheless, the great legacy of the Harlem
Renaissance has continued to enrich and influence
Hot nights and cool jazz . . . steamy sidewalks and
American life. The artists who made Harlem their home in
fancy dressers . . . songs of the soul and songs of the body .
the 1920s continue to inspire Americans of all colors
. . the lilt of laughter and the wail of the blues . . . .
today.
That was Harlem in the 1920s a place that vibrated
5 with excitement, promise, glitter, and joy. If you had Passage B from a 1997 article
visited Harlem in those days, you might have heard
bandleader Duke Ellington playing Take the A Train at 45 For some, the Harlem Renaissance evokes the
the Cotton Club, or Louis Satchmo Armstrong shaking flourishing of intellectual and artistic output exemplified
up the jazz world with his trumpet at Connies Inn. Harlem by writers such as Langston Hughes and Zora Neale
10 was also the home of African-American poets, novelists, Hurston. For others, it conjures images of bacchanalia: the
actors, and philosophers. So great was the cultural long-legged beauties of the Cotton Club and those dark,
explosion of Harlem during the 1920s that the period has 50 seedy speakeasies such as the Clam Bake and the Hot Feet.
since been called the Harlem Renaissance. Harlem has
always been measured by a spirit and way of life that have In that postwar environment of social and sexual
15 touched all of America and have created a legacy that adventure, Harlem symbolized liberation for black and
continues to inspire today. white alike. In the great migration of African-Americans
from the rural South to the cities, the district became a
Tens of thousands of black people flocked to Harlem 55 Mecca for streams of black writers, musicians, performers,
looking for a better life in the 1920s, among them a star- and filmmakers, a refuge from the all-pervasive racism of
studded group of artists. All were eager to bask in the American society.
20 freedom of city life and the growing excitement of Harlem.
Unlike the Souths cities and towns, New York City made But those few city blocks were also a playground for
African-Americans feel free to express themselves, to affluent whites. Emboldened by bootleg liquor, they turned
create, to fully tell the story of the African-American 60 this little hamlet of New York into their own exotic
experience in words, pictures, paintings, and, most laboratory, where they could experiment with what was
25 popularly, music. forbidden in their own world, enjoy what they saw as
primal and erotic, then leave it behind a few hours later.
In the 1920s, African-American music was all the rage.
Every night, white people took taxis and subways uptown The Harlem Renaissance has become so emblematic
to Harlem to listen and dance to music by black musicians 65 that it can be hard to separate the myth from the reality.
and singers. White publishers went to Harlem to find black Was this Harlem a place or just a state of mind? Did it
30 writers and poets. Black people, in Harlem at least, began really change black cultural life forever, as some historians
to feel that they were an important part of the nations claim? Or was it simply a handful of privileged black
cultural life. artists patronized by rich, white Afrophiles?
But whatever Harlem did for black people

70 Certainly todays black artists are keen to claim a Questions 58 ask about Passage A.
cultural legacy bridging their work to the heroes of
5. The opening paragraph of Passage A relies on
Harlem. But it has also been argued that the Renaissance
represented nothing more than a bourgeois playpen, (A) historical facts.
retrospectively endowed with cultural legitimacy by (B) personal anecdotes.
75 academia and the black middle class. Perhaps we celebrate
(C) sensory details.
Harlem at the expense of more radical periods, for
example, the labor movement of the 1930s that spawned (D) an extended metaphor.
Richard Wright, arguably the greatest African-American
novelist. Langston Hughes, one of the luminaries of the 6. As it is used in lines 36-37, the words dried up
80 Harlem Renaissance, admitted at the time: The ordinary most nearly means:
Negro hasnt heard of the Negro Renaissance. And if they
(F) ran out.
had it didnt raise their wages any.
(G) hardened.
Indeed, skeptics argue that the plunging rates of literacy (H) withered.
and increasing sense of crisis in Americas black (J) grew brittle.
85 underclass prove the Harlem Renaissances influence has
been only one class deep. Great novels may have come
7. The statement by Jervis Anderson in lines
from Harlem, but how many there now can read them?
38-39 implies that
Part of the energy that fueled the Harlem Renaissance (A) whites stopped frequenting Harlem
was the belief that black cultural achievement in the altogether.
90 high arts would socially and spiritually uplift the race.
(B) the later figures of the Harlem Renaissance
Manifestly this has not happened. Where the legacy of the
Harlem Renaissance remains a profoundly romantic one were less talented than the earlier ones.
for the black bourgeoisie, on the streets, where the great (C) another, more exciting cultural movement
majority of black culture is made, its echoes are only supplanted the Harlem Renaissance.
95 faintly heard.
(D) the Harlem Renaissance was ultimately
a fad.
8. According to Passage A, whites

(F) took unfair advantage of the talents of
Harlem artists.
(G) offered Harlem artists additional channels
for their art.
(H) were solely responsible for the mainstream
success of Harlem artists.
(J) were opposed to the goals of the Harlem
Renaissance.

Cla s s 5
Questions 911 ask about Passage B.

9. The sentence beginning Emboldened by
bootleg liquor (line 59) suggests that
(A) Harlem provided whites a temporary
refuge from traditional social restrictions.
(B) social norms were too limiting for
most whites.
(C) whites preferred African-American culture
to their own.
(D) whites did not enjoy themselves in Harlem.
10. As it is used in line 70, the word keen most

nearly means:
(F) intelligent.
(G) sharp.
(H) intense.
(J) eager.
11. Langston Hughess quote in Passage B (lines

80-82) supports the authors argument by
(A) revealing Hughess belief that the Harlem
Renaissance had little cultural impact.
(B) suggesting that most African-Americans
were not interested in the art of the Harlem
Renaissance.
(C) pointing out the Harlem Renaissances
insignificance in comparison to economic
issues.
(D) demonstrating the need for better education
in African-American communities.

Questions 1214 ask about both passages.

12. Passage B differs from Passage A in that
(F) Passage B ignores the racial aspect of the
Harlem Renaissance; Passage A focuses
on it.
(G) Passage B considers the relevance of the
Harlem Renaissance today; Passage A
centers on the actual experience of the
Harlem Renaissance.
(H) Passage B underscores the social
and historical context of the Harlem
Renaissance; Passage A assumes the reader
has full knowledge of this context.
(J) Passage B praises the legacy of the
Harlem Renaissance; Passage A examines
it critically.
13. Both passages suggest which of the following

about the major figures of the Harlem
Renaissance?
(A) Many of them were not from Harlem.
(B) They resented whites encroaching on
their territory.
(C) They wanted to help elevate the
black underclass.
(D) Their art had an immediate impact on
all people.
14. The author of Passage B would most likely

respond to the authors view in Passage A of
Harlems spirit and way of life (line 14) by
(F) praising the authors historical insight.
(G) criticizing the authors oversimplification.
(H) lamenting the authors misinterpretation of
Harlems spirit and way of life.
(J) mocking the authors attempts at flattery.

Class 5
Science:
Conflicting Viewpoints
Key Points:
Pay attention to the differences between
viewpoints.
Work on this passage last, since it is the most
challenging.

Cla s s 5
Conflicting Viewpoints Strategy

Conflicting Viewpoints Passages
This passage will present opposing arguments to a hypothesis or question. The viewpoints may be
scientists, students, or some other human beings.
The objective is similar to Multiple Experiments You must understand the differences between
the viewpoints.
The Strategy
Read to get the main idea of each person.
-- How do the peoples points-of-view differ?
-- Do the people agree on any points?
-- The question will usually tell you exactly where to look (e.g., According to Table 2...)
-- If not, which chart/graph contains the terms in the question?
Work on this passage last, since it is typically the most challenging, and has the
most questions.

Sci e nce : Co nf l i cti ng V i ewpoint s
Conflicting Viewpoints Practice

Scientist 2
Passage 1
A meteorite the size of the one that caused the
Chicxulub Crater would have been a major stressor
The K-T (Cretaceous-Tertiary) boundary is a on contemporary life forms. However, it is not the
geological marker dated to approximately 65.5 0.3 only possible cause of the K-T boundary extinctions.
mya (million years ago). The boundary is associated The Deccan Traps hypothesis suggests that volcanic
with the CretaceousTertiary mass extinction event activity in the Deccan Plateau of west-central India
that resulted in significant species loss, including that may have caused atmospheric conditions similar
of all non-avian dinosaurs. Two scientists discuss to those implicated in the Alvarez hypothesis. The
their theories about the cause of this mass extinction. massive volcanic activity, which lasted over 800,000
years, would have caused greenhouse/global-warming
Scientist 1 conditions sufficient to result in cataclysmic
The K-T boundary extinction is best explained by species loss. Moreover, research indicates that the
the Alvarez hypothesis. This theory, propounded by eruptions occurred during the K-T boundary, but
Luiz and Walter Alvarez, suggests that an extremely prior to the Chicxulub meteorite. Even Walter Alvarez
large extraterrestrial body (i.e. meteor) crashed into acknowledges that other factors, like the Deccan
Earth, causing tsunamis and dust clouds that killed off Traps, may have irrevocably weakened Earth species
most photosynthesizing life forms within a very short before the Chicxulub event.
time period.
Primary support for the meteor impact theory lies

in measurements of REE (Rare Earth Elements) taken
at the K-T boundary layer. Specifically, the Alvarez
team found an abundance of Iridium (Ir) hundreds of
times higher than would be expected on the surface
of Earth. This elevated level of Ir has been found at
K-T boundary sites across the planet. Not only is Ir
relatively abundant in meteorites, these particular
Ir samples have an isotopic composition typical of
extraterrestrial bodies, not of Earths crust. Further
support for the Alvarez hypothesis is found in the
meteor impact site at Chicxulub in the Yucatan
Peninsula. The Chicxulub crater is the correct age,
as it has been dated to 65 mya. It is large enough to
account for the world-wide layer of Ir and the mass
extinctions.

Cla s s 5
1. If the K-T boundary Iridium (Ir) layer comes 4. Scientists estimate that the K-T mass
from a meteorite, which of the following extinctions occurred between 65.2 and 65.8
conclusions could be drawn about the million years ago. Based on this information,
characteristics of meteorites? which of the following new observations
would most seriously challenge the Alvarez
(A) Meteorites usually contain Ir levels similar
hypothesis?
to those found on Earth.
(F) Some smaller species were found to have
(B) The isotopic composition of Ir in
survived the mass extinctions.
meteorites is similar to that found in Ir in
(G) Recent core samples from Chicxulub
Earths crust.
prove the impact occurred about 300,000
(C) The isotopic composition of Ir at Earths
years before the mass extinction.
surface is different from that found in Ir in
(H) The Deccan Traps volcanic activity was
Earths core.
much stronger than initially believed.
(D) Meteorites contain an isotope of Ir not
(J) Other meteorite craters have been found
commonly found in Earths crust.
that are contemporaneous to the Chicxulub
2. Supporters of both hypotheses would agree crater.
with which of the following conclusions about
meteoric impacts? 5. According to the Alvarez hypothesis, which of
the following hypothetical observations would
(F) The Ir measurements at the K-T boundary
best support the theory that a meteorite caused
are too low to indicate a sufficiently large the K-T mass extinctions?
meteoric impact.
(A) Physical evidence of a meteorite causing
(G) The Chicxulub meteorite was the only
large tsunamis and dust clouds.
prehistoric impact large enough to have
(B) Physical evidence of periodic extinctions
caused mass extinctions.
in several different paleontological eras.
(H) A meteoric impact the size of Chicxulub
(C) Fossil evidence of large predators
could have resulted in massive species
surviving the Chicxulub impact.
deaths.
(D) Fossil evidence of omnivores surviving
(J) Both the Chicxulub impact and Deccan
the extinctions.
Traps contributed to the K-T boundary
mass extinctions. 6. Which of the following discoveries would
weaken Scientist 2s argument?
3. Which of the following statements would
(F) Finding that massive volcanic eruptions
most likely contradict the view that Ir found
in the K-T boundary layer originated from the can have a long-term environmental
Chicxulub meteorite? impact
(A) Ir has been detected in the K-T boundary (G) Finding that there is no evidence of
layer on the Yucatan peninsula. volcanic activity prior to the time of the
(B) The amount of Ir in Earths surface is Chicxulub meteorite
similar to the amount of Ir at Earths core. (H) Finding that extinctions were gradual, not
(C) The Ir isotope in the K-T boundary layer the result of a sudden event
is the most commonly found Ir isotope in (J) Finding that most dinosaur species had
meteorites. already been weakened by global warming
(D) The Chicxulub impact occurred 5 million at the time of the Chicxulub meteorite
years before the K-T boundary.

Class 5
English:
Student as Editor
Key Points:
When reading the passage, pay close attention
to the authors main ideas & tone.
Make sure to read period to period for these
questions.

Cla s s 5
Transitions & Irrelevance

Student as Editor
These questions are your chance to pull out a snarky red pen and pretend youre the teacher.
They require extra attention to the main ideas, details, and tone of paragraphs and passages.
Question:
-- The transition from one sentence to the next does not make sense logically.
Edit Needed:
-- Determine if there is a sense of agreement or disagreement between the sentences,

and correct the transition word (or eliminate it).
Gandhi told all his followers that they must be prepared to take 1. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) Indeed,
beatings and even be thrown in jail. He himself was not afraid. (C) Contrastingly,
(D) Surely,
However, he spent seven years inside a prison.
1
According to the National Park Service at the Antietam National 2. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) after
Battlefield, if the fighting had subsided, more than 23,000 soldiers lay (H) because
dead or wounded.
Irrelevance
Question:
-- The underlined portion has nothing to do with the rest of the sentence.
Edit Needed:
-- Delete anything that is irrelevant.
Brian could not fall asleep because he drank too much 3. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) coffee.
coffee, which can be made from grounds or beans. (C) coffee (typically made from
3 either grounds or beans).
(D) coffee, of which grounds and
beans are the primary forms.
Make sure you continue to read period to period even if there isnt an
underlined portion!

E ngl i sh: Stud e nt as Edit or
Function
Question:
-- These questions will ask about how a phrase or sentence functions in the context of the
passage, or if it is needed at all.
Edit Needed:
-- Think about how the writer uses the sentence in the context of the passage.
Anticipate how you think the sentence fits, then find the choice that best matches.
William Shakespeare has long been considered the greatest English 4. If the writer deletes the phrase
though there is no proof to
playwright and poet of all time. While most of his fame is due to support it from the preceding
sentence, ending the sentence
criticism he received in the 18th century, he was actually highly after time, the essay would lose
details that:
regarded in his lifetime. Still, despite his reputation, very few detailed (A) are unsubstantiated by any
evidence.
records exist about his life, and most of those refer to his career in (B) reiterate a point made earlier
in the paragraph.
London. The little information we have suggests that Shakespeare grew (C) are related to anti-Catholic
sentiment in 16th-century
up in somewhat prosperous conditions. His father was a glove maker England.
(D) are not relevant to the context
and town official, while his mother came from an affluent family of of the paragraph.
farmers. There is some indication that his family was Catholic, a crime
in England at that time, though there is no proof to support it. 4

Cla s s 5
Intent
Question:
-- These questions will ask whether or not the author was able to successfully convey his or her
intent/purpose.
Edit Needed:
-- Think about the authors purpose for writing this passage.
-- The answer is always yes or no, so anticipate your answer, then find the choice that
best matches.
My mother was born during the Great Depression, when the United 5. Suppose the writers goal had been
to write a brief essay focusing on
States economy was in a major slump and grew up during World War planting Victory Gardens during
World War II. Would this essay
II. She would often tell my sister and me about the rationing required by successfully fulfill that goal?
(F) No, because there is no
the government during the war. My mother said rationing was important mention in the essay of
planting Victory Gardens.
because it helped guarantee supplies for the thousands of military troops (G) No, because the essay
focuses on rationing and only
overseas. Almost everything was restricted in some way. Ration books mentions Victory Gardens as
one means of self reliance.
were good only for a set time, then they were reissued (like todays (H) Yes, because the primary focus
of the essay is on the efforts
supermarket coupons) to discourage people from hoarding. My mother made during World War II to
end rationing.
remembered her own mother tearing up the sandbox in the backyard (J) Yes, because the essay
mentions that Victory Gardens
in order to plant a Victory Garden to grow fresh produce. She said her were the primary way to
promote rationing.
little brother cried and cried, until he discovered that digging seed holes
in dirt was almost as much fun as shoveling sand. 5
Two of the answer choices will always be yes, and the other two will be no.
By anticipating your answer, you can eliminate two choices without ever reading them!

E ngl i sh: Stud e nt as Edit or
Additional Statements
Question:
-- These questions will ask you about adding a new statement to the passage.
Edit Needed:
-- Think about how the new statement would function in the passage, and whether or not it
would help the author convey his or her point.
Some controversy has long existed regarding the true authorship of 6. At this point, the writer is
considering adding the following
Shakespeares works. Many other, better-connected men have been true statement:
identified by various critics as the real Shakespeare. 6 His works appear in quartos and
folios.
Should the writer make this

addition here?
(A) Yes, because it provides
important background
information relevant to the
essay.
(B) Yes, because it helps the
reader to more clearly
visualize Shakespeares plays.
(C) No, because it disturbs the
flow of personal impressions
in this paragraph.
(D) No, because it distracts the
reader from the main idea of
the paragraph.
Computers are not only used extensively for many things, but they are 7. Given that all the choices are
7 true, which one provides the
also used to provide many of the services that keep us safe. most effective evidence of
the convenience provided by
computers?
(F) NO CHANGE
(G) by millions of people all over
the world
(H) to help people pay bills, keep
in touch with friends, and take
college courses
(J) to make life easier in many
convenient ways

Cla s s 5
Sequencing
Question:
-- These questions will ask you to order sentences within a paragraph.
Edit Needed:
-- Think about any sentences that seemed out of place when you read the paragraph.
Rearrange these sentences so that each statement logically follows the next.
[ 1 ] Some of Gandhis nonviolent actions included hunger strikes and 8. Which of the following sequences
of sentences makes this paragraph
quiet movements. [ 2 ] He felt that all people were equal; he himself most logical?
(F) NO CHANGE
was Indian and knew how it felt to be treated badly. [ 3 ] With these (G) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
(H) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
actions he protested the fact that certain groups of people were treated (J) 1, 3, 2, 4 ,5
worse than others. [ 4 ] He stood up for the lowest class and lived like
the rest of his people. [ 5 ] He lived in a hut, made his own clothes,
and tended to fruit trees.

Class 5
Math:
Coordinate Geometry
Key Points:
Apply the distance, midpoint, and slope
formula on coordinate geometry problems.
Memorize the equations of special curves.

Cla s s 5
Pacing & Accuracy

A Friendly Reminder...
SLOW DOWN &

WRITE OUT YOUR WORK!
We now know what the ACT math WANTS you to do
So how do we counter this?
Avoiding Tricks and Traps Review

Stay confident you know all the math you need to know.
Identify the concept that is being tested.
Answer the question that is being asked (variables/units/etc.).
If ever you feel lost, let your pencil show the way:
Write down what you know is true!

M ath: Co o r d i nate G eom et ry
Coordinate Planes
Coordinate Plane Basics
The coordinate plane (or the x-y plane) looks like this:
The vertical arrow is called the y-axis. The horizontal arrow is called the x-axis.
The point where the two arrows cross is called the origin.
Quadrants
There are 4 quadrants in the coordinate plane. Quadrant I is the top right quadrant, and the other
quadrants are numbered counterclockwise from the top right.
y
Quadrant II Quadrant I
x-values are negative x-values are positive
y-values are positive y-values are positive
(, +) (+, +)
Quadrant III Quadrant IV

x-values are negative x-values are positive
y-values are negative y-values are negative
(, ) (+, )

Cla s s 5
Distance & Midpoint Problems

Identify:
You are asked to find the distance between two points, or the midpoint.
Set Up:
Use the Distance and Midpoint Formulas:
The Distance Formula The Midpoint Formula
x + x2 y1 + y2
Distance=
Dis tan ce = (x 2 - x 1) 2 + (y 2 - y 1) 2 Midpoint=
Midpo int = ( 1 ,
2 2 )
Make Sure:
Keep your ordered pairs straight! Be careful plugging in the coordinates into the formulas.
Execute:
1. What is the distance, in units, between the points with

standard (x, y) coordinates (2, 3) and (6, 6)?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 5 3

Distance & Midpoint Practice

2. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, what 4. As shown below, the diagonals of rectangle
is the distance between the points (2, 3) and ABCD intersect at point (4, 3) in the standard
(4, 1)? (x, y) coordinate plane. Point A is at (9, 1).
Which of the following are the coordinates of C ?
(F) 2
(G) 2 2
(H) 2 10
(J) 4 2 B C
(K) 8 (4, 3)
A(9,1)
D
(F) (9, 5)
(G) (6, 2)
(H) (1, 1)
(J) (1, 5)
(K) (3, 5)
3. The graph of the line with the equation

5x + 3y = 15 does NOT have points in which
quadrant(s) of the standard (x, y) coordinate
plane below?
II I
quadrants of the
standard (x, y)
III IV coordinate plane
(A) Quadrant I only

(B) Quadrant II only
(C) Quadrant III only
(D) Quadrant IV only
(E) Quadrant III and IV only

Cla s s 5
Slope Problems
Identify:
You will be given two points on a line in the xy-coordinate plane and you will be asked to find
the slope.
Set Up:
Use the slope formula:
change in y (rise) y2 - y1
Slope(m)=
change in x (run) = x 2 - x 1
Make Sure:
Dont mix up the x and y coordinates. And remember that the y-values go on top of the fraction.
Execute:
Do the math!
5. What is the slope of the line shown in this graph?
0 x
4 2 0 2 4
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.66
(D) 0.75
(E) 0.8

Slope-Intercept Problems
Identify:
You will be given the equation of a line in the xy-coordinate plane.
Set Up:
Use slope-intercept form to identify the slope (m) and y-intercept (b).
Slope-Intercept Formula
y = mx+b
m = slope
b = y-intercept
Make Sure:
If the problem asks for a parallel line, slopes are equal.
If the problem asks for a perpendicular line, slopes are negative reciprocals.
Execute:
6. Which of the following could be the equation of

the line that passes through the two points in the
xy-plane above?
x
O
(F) y = 2x + 5
(G) y = 2x 5
(H) y = x
(J) y = 1 x - 5
2
(K) y = - 1 x + 5
2

Cla s s 5
Coordinate Geometry Practice

7. What is the slope of a line parallel to the 9. Stacey must graph two functions on a
line that passes through (4, 7) and (2, 9) standard (x, y) coordinate plane. Function
in the standard (x, y) coordinate plane? f (x) is equal to x3 + 6x2 6x 1 and
function g(x) must pass through (1, 0) and
(1, 10). What is the value of g(x)?
(A) 8
3
(B) 3 (A) 5x + 5
8
(C) - 1 (B) 5x 5
3
(D) - 3 (C) - 2 x + 2
8 5 5
(E) - 8 (D) 2 - 5x - 2
3 5
(E) 5x 5
8. What is the x-intercept of the line that

contains the points (2, 7) and (4, 3) in the
standard (x, y) coordinate plane?
(F) S - 11 , 0 X
2
(G) S 0, - 11 X
2
(H) (0, 2)
(J) (0, 11)
(K) (2, 0)

Class 5
Math:
Additional Topics
Key Points:
Dont fall for the ACT Maths tricks & traps.
Apply the I-S-M-E steps to solve every
math problem.
Use Plug & Chug or Backsolving whenever you
are stumped by problems.

Cla s s 5
Complex Numbers (i)

Identify:
The question will include the complex number i.
Set Up:
Use i = -1 to solve the question.
Make Sure:
Be careful to answer the question you are asked.
Execute:
Just do the math.
10. Which of the following is equal to

(5 - 2i) (7 + 4) ? (Note: i = -1)
(F) 27
(G) 43
(H) 27 + 6i
(J) 43 + 6i
(K) 64 + 6i
11. Which of the following complex numbers is

4 - 6i
equivalent to 6 - 3i (Note: i = -1)
(A) 14 + 8i
15 15
(B) 14 - 8i
15 15
(C) 2 + 24i
3 33
(D) 2 - 24i
3 33
(E) 2 + 24i
3 15

Math: Ad d i ti o nal Topic s
Graphing Problems
Identify:
Look for questions asking about curves in the coordinate plane.
Set Up:
Plug in the elements from the question into these equations:
Parabola Circle
y = ax 2 + bx + c
(x h) 2 + (y k) 2 = r 2
a > 0: opens up
Center: (h, k)
a < 0: opens down
x coordinate of the vertex:
-b Radius r
2a
Make Sure:
Be careful to answer the question you are asked: Domain = xvalues, Range = yvalues
Execute:
Just do the math.
12. Which of the following systems of inequalities 13. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, the
is represented by the shaded region of the center of the circle shown below lies on the
graph below? x-axis at x = 4. If the circle is tangent to the
y-axis, which of the following is an equation of
y
the circle?
y
(3, 0)
x
(3, 6) O 4 x
(F) y 2x and x>3

(A) (x + 4)2 + y2 = 4
(G) y 2x or x3
(B) (x 4)2 + y2 = 16
(H) y 2x and x3
(C) (x 4)2 y2 = 16
(J) y 2x and x>3
(D) (x 4)2 + y2 = 4
(K) y 2x and x3
(E) x2 + (y 4)2 = 16

Cla s s 5
Logarithms
Identify:
Look for logarithms, usually represented by log.
Set Up:
Use the rules of logarithms to solve the question.
Rules of Logarithms
log 2c = k 2k = c
log a(u) + log a(v) = log a(uv)
log a(u) log a(v) = log a( u )

v
Make Sure:
Execute:
Just do the math.
14. What is the value of log381 ?

(F) 3
(G) 4
(H) 9
(J) 18
(K) 27
15. What is the real value of x in the equation

log36 + log39 = log3x ?
(A) 6
9
(B) 9
6
(C) 15
(D) 36
(E) 54

Reflection Problems
Identify:
Look for questions with a figure being transformed across an axis.
Set Up:
Sketch the reflected figure by applying these rules:
Reflecting a point
Reflecting a pointacross
across the
the y- Reflecting
Reflectinga apoint
pointacross the x-
across the
axis means
y-axis thethesign
means signofofthe
the x- axis means
x-axis meansthe
thesign
signof
ofthe
the y-
coordinate
x-coordinatechanges
changes coordinate
y-coordinate changes
changes
y y
x x
Make Sure:
Be careful not to mix up the x and y reflections.
Execute:
Eliminate the answer choices that dont match your sketch.
16. A triangle, RST, is reflected across the 17. Which of the following are the coordinates
x-axis to have the image RST, in the of A after a 90 clockwise rotation around
standard (x, y) coordinate plane; thus R the origin?
y
reflects to R. The coordinates of point R are
(A) (3, 5) A(3, 5) C(3, 5)
(a, b). What are the coordinates of point R ?
(B) (3, 5)
(F) (a, b) x
(C) (3, 5) B(3, 0)
(G) (a, b)
(D) (5, 3) D(3, 4)
(H) (a, b)
(E) (5, 3)
(J) (b, a)
(K) Cannot be determined from the
given information.

Cla s s 5
Sets
Identify:
The question will mention things (numbers, letters, vegetables, etc.) that go with one group and
things that go with another group.
Set Up:
Make a Venn Diagram (two or more overlapping circles that represent all the elements that are in
all the sets):
Set A Set B
all the things in

all the things BOTH all the things
ONLY in Set A Set A and Set B ONLY in Set B
(the intersection
of A and B)
Total = All Set A + Set B - BOTH + Neither
Make Sure:
Subtract things that go with both groups from the things in one group.
Execute:
Just apply the equation and solve for whichever value you need.
18. In a class of 36 students, 16 of the students 19. A survey of 500 restaurants revealed that 300
play basketball, 12 students play soccer, and 4 of the restaurants served meat, 150 served fruit,
students play both sports. How many students 255 served vegetables, 20 served only meat and
in the class play neither basketball nor soccer? fruit, 60 served only meat and vegetables, 35
served only fruit and vegetables, and 45 served
(F) 0
all three. How many of the restaurants served
(G) 4 only meat or vegetables?
(H) 8
(A) 60
(J) 12
(B) 160
(K) 16
(C) 205
(D) 225
(E) 290

Sine, Cosine, & Tangent Problems

Identify:
Look for references to sine, cosine, or tangent in the question.
Set Up:
Use the phrase SOH-CAH-TOA to recall the trig formulas:
SOH-CAH-TOA
opposite adjacent opposite

sin = hypotenuse cos = hypotenuse tan = adjacent
hypotenuse
opposite
Inverse SOH-CAH-TOA
sin 1 T hypotenuse Y = cos 1 T hypotenuse Y = tan 1 T adjacent Y =

opposite adjacent opposite
adjacent
Make Sure:
Dont mix up the opposite and adjacent sides. Keep track of your work!
Execute:
20. In the right triangle below, the measure of 21. Paco is resting a ladder against the top of a
C is 90, AB = 5 units, and CB = 2 units. shed. The base of the ladder is five feet from
What is tan B ? the shed and the shed stands 12 feet tall.
Which of the following expressions represents
A
the measure of the angle the ladder makes
(F) 21
2 against the ground?
(G) 3
2 5
(A) tan1 S 12 X
5
(H) 21
5 (B) tan1 S 13 X
5
C 2 B
(J) 3
5 (C) tan1 S 5 X
12
(K) 2
5 (D) tan1 S 12 X
13
(E) tan1 S 13 X
12
At most, youll see four questions involving trigonometry on the test.

Dont sweat this topic until youve mastered the earlier chapters.

Cla s s 5
Unit Circle
Identify:
Look for trigonometric functions (sine, cosine, or tangent) and radian measures in the question.
radians is equal to 180 degrees.
First number: Cosine

Second number: Sine
Tangent = sine/cosine
Set Up:
Use unit circle values or draw a unit circle and graph the information provided in the question
to solve the question.
Cosine and sine are co-functions of each other. This means that complementary angles of cosine
and sine are equal.
Make Sure:
Execute:
Just do the math.
23. In the xy-plane below, O is the center of the

22. What is the value of cos T 4 Y ?
circle, and the measure of AOB is radians.
b
(F) 0 What is the value of b?
(A) 1
(G) 1
(B) 2
(H) 2 (C) 4
2 (D)
(J) (E) 2 2
(K) 2 2

Class 5
Homework

Cla s s 5
Class 5 Homework
If your If your If your If your
Reading score Science score English score Math score
was between... was between... was between... was between...
1-17 1-17 1-17 1-17

...then your ...then your ...then your ...then your
Reading Science English Math
homework due for homework due for homework due for homework due for
next class is: next class is: next class is: next class is:
p. 283-289 p. 291-293 p. 293-295 p. 301-303

#1-5 #1-12 #1-15 #1-10
#11-15
#21-30
18-22 18-22 18-22 1-17

p. 283-289 p. 291-293 p. 295-297 p. 303-305

#3-7 #1-12 #16-30 #11-20
#13-17
#21-30
23-36 23-36 23-36 1-17

p. 283-289 p. 291-293 p. 297-299 p. 305-307

#6-10 #1-12 #31-45 #21-34
#16-20
#21-30

Hom ework
Score Report
Yes Issue Solution

tion

Worst Section 1?


Losing energy time
Worst Section 4?

Dont rush to finish

before guessing


Omits at the end of
a section?

or Science passage?
one passage

Hom ework
Reading
Directions: There are two passages in this homework section. Each passage is followed by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question. You may refer to the passages as often
as necessary.
Well? And what then?

Questions 1-10
35 She looked at me.
Prose Fiction: The following passage is adapted
from Mrs. Zant and the Ghost, from Little Novels There, Lucy found herself at a loss for how to express
by Wilkie Collins, 1887. what she had to say nextand took refuge in silence.
Nothing very wonderful, so far, her father

Playing with her ball, the child ran on to the southern suggested.
limit of the Gardens, at that part of it which still remains
nearest to the old Palace of Kensington. Observing close 40 Yes, papabut she didnt seem to see me when she
at hand one of those spacious covered seats, called in looked.
5 England alcoves, Mr. Rayburn was reminded that he
had the mornings newspaper in his pocket, and that he Well, and what happened then?
might do well to rest and read. At that early hour the place
was solitude. The lady was frightenedand that frightened me. I
think, the child repeated positively, shes mad.
Go on playing, my dear, he said, but take care to
10 keep where I can see you. 45 It occurred to Mr. Rayburn that the lady might be
blind. He rose at once to set the doubt at rest. Wait here,
Lucy tossed up her ball, and Lucys father opened his he said, and Ill come back to you.
newspaper. He had not been reading for more than ten
minutes when he felt a familiar little hand laid on his knee. But Lucy clung to him with both hands; Lucy declared
that she was afraid to be by herself. They left the alcove
Tired of playing? he inquiredwith his eyes still on 50 together. The new point of view at once revealed the
15 the newspaper. stranger, leaning against the trunk of a tree. She was
dressed in the deep mourning of a widow. The pallor of
Im frightened, papa. her face, the glassy stare in her eyes, more than accounted
for the childs terrorit excused the alarming conclusion
He looked up directly. The childs pale face startled 55 at which she had arrived.
him. He took her on his knee and kissed her.
Go nearer to her, Lucy whispered.
You oughtnt to be frightened, Lucy, when I am with
20 you, he said, gently. What is it? He looked out of the They advanced a few steps. It was now easy to see that
alcove as he spoke, and saw a little dog among the trees. the lady was young, and wasted by illness, but apparently
Is it the dog? he asked. possessed of rare personal attractions in happier days. As
60 the father and daughter advanced a little, she discovered
Its not the dogits the lady. them. After some hesitation, she left the tree; approached
with an evident intention of speaking; and suddenly
The lady was not visible from the alcove. Has she paused. A change to astonishment and fear animated her
25 said anything to you? Mr. Rayburn inquired. vacant eyes. If it had not been plain before, it was now
65 beyond all doubt that she was not a poor blind creature,
No. deserted and helpless. At the same time, the expression of
her face was not easy to understand. She could hardly
What has she done to frighten you? have looked more amazed and bewildered, if the two
strangers who were observing her had suddenly vanished
The child put her arms round her fathers neck. 70 from the place in which they stood.
Whisper, papa, she said; Im afraid of her hearing us. I
30 think shes mad. Mr. Rayburn spoke to her with the utmost kindness of
voice and manner. I am afraid you are not well, he said.
Why do you think so, Lucy? Is there anything that I can do...
She came near to me. I thought she was going to say
something. She seemed to be ill.

Cla s s 5
The next words were suspended on his lips. It was 6. The primary emotion felt by Mr. Rayburn when Lucy
75 impossible to realize such a state of things; but the strange interrupts his reading can best be described as:
impression that she had already produced on him was now
confirmed. If he could believe his senses, her face did (F) exasperated.
certainly tell him that he was invisible and inaudible to the (G) protective.
woman whom he had just addressed! She moved slowly
(H) impatient.
80 away with a heavy sigh, like a person disappointed and
distressed. Following her with his eyes, he saw the dog (J) disappointed.
once morea little smooth-coated terrier of the ordinary
English breed. The dog showed none of the restless 7. It can be inferred from information in the passage
activity of his race. With his head down and his tail that the dog is:
85 depressed, he crouched like a creature paralyzed by fear.
His mistress roused him by a call. He followed her (A) a ghost.
listlessly as she turned away. (B) hungry.
(C) a figment of Mr. Rayburns imagination.
1. Which of the following questions was NOT answered
by the information in the passage? (D) Lucys pet.
(A) What is the relationship between Mr. Rayburn

8. Which of the following would be most likely to
and Lucy? follow the passage?
(B) What was Mr. Rayburn reading?
(F) A detailed description of English castles
(C) How old is Lucy?
(G) A discussion of encounters with ghosts through
(D) What kind of dog does the lady have?
the ages
(H) A comparison of various breeds of dogs
2. As used in line 30, the word mad most nearly means:
(J) A description of Mr. Rayburns attempts to find
(F) angry.
out who the lady is
(G) frightened.
(H) insane. 9. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that
(J) upset. Mr. Rayburn and Lucy:
(A) are experienced ghost hunters.
3. It can be inferred from information in the passage
(B) were planning to meet the lady and her dog.
that English Terriers are usually:
(C) do not yet realize that they are dealing with
(A) lethargic.
a ghost.
(B) indolent.
(D) have had previous dealings with supernatural
(C) subdued.
phenomena.
(D) energetic.
10. In terms of the entire novel from which the passage is
4. This passage is mainly about: excerpted, this passage is most probably:
(F) a young girl and her father meeting a ghost. (F) the conclusion of a detective story.
(G) a widow in mourning. (G) the set of clues that will solve the mystery.
(H) the death of a young widow. (H) the background description that helps the reader
(J) the ghost of a little girl playing with a ball. understand the action.
(J) the introduction to the tale.
5. According to the passage, the story takes place in:
(A) a haunted castle.
(B) an American farm community.
(C) an English garden.
(D) an alcove.

Hom ework
although the anemone fish receives significant benefit.

Questions 11-20 Commensalism usually occurs between a species that is
60 either vulnerable to predation or unable to move easily,
Natural Science: The following passage discusses and another species with a relatively effective system of
the concept of symbiosis among certain species. defense or motion. Hermit crabs that use abandoned
gastropod shells for protection are a commonly cited
example of commensal symbiosis.
Symbiosis is a scientific term that commonly describes
close and long-term interrelationships between species. 65 Some insects also survive through commensal
The exact meaning has long been in flux, with some symbiosis. While the pitcher plant is generally an
scientists choosing to define the term narrowly, and others insectivore, there is one type of mosquito that uses the
5 using it to describe a wider range of behaviors. When plant during its larval life stage. The tubular flower of the
defined broadly, symbiotic relationships can be divided pitcher plant leads to a bowl that contains liquid that kills
into three main categories: mutualism, where both species 70 and digests most flying insects. However, the larvae of
involved benefit from the relationship; commensalism, this particular species of mosquito are able to swim freely
where one species benefits and the other isnt affected; in this liquid without harm. The larvae also take their food
10 and parasitism, where one species benefits, and the other from the same decaying insects as the plant. The plant
is harmed in the process. There is a fourth, less intimate itself is neither benefited nor harmed by the actions of the
category of symbiosis known as mimicry, which involves 75 larvae.
one species imitating another to gain the benefits enjoyed
by that species. An example would be a Banded Snake Eel Finally, there is parasitic symbiosis. Parasites that live
15 mimicking a venomous sea snake in order to deter inside the host are called endoparasites, while those that
predators. However, within the three main categories are live on its surface are called ectoparasites. Tapeworms
two further groupings. First, symbiotic relationships may would be an example of the former, while mites and fleas
be endosymbiotic, where an organism lives within the 80 would be examples of the latter. There are even parasites
tissues of the host; or second, they may be ectosymbiotic, that feed upon other parasites. This relationship is also
20 where one partner simply lives with or on the other. sometimes referred to as hyperparasitism.
Finally, symbiosis may be necessary for the survival of
one or both parties, or simply beneficial but not essential. Parasitoids are organisms that cause the host to die as a
Note that symbiosis is always inter-specific. Intra-specific result of parasitism. Malaria is an occasionally fatal
behavior (i.e. that between members of the same species) 85 infectious disease caused by a parasite. Between one and
25 cannot be described as symbiotic. three million people, mostly young children, die each year
from malaria. Millions more contract the disease, making
As stated above, mutual symbiosis occurs when both it one of the most serious world health problems today.
organisms benefit from the interaction. Mutualism is the
most commonly considered form of symbiosis and Symbiosis is a wonderfully complex phenomenon and,
provides the narrowest scientific definition of the term. It 90 as such, has captured the human imagination for
30 is also extraordinarily common. For example, thousands of years. One of its earliest descriptions comes
approximately 70 percent of terrestrial plant life is from the Greek writer, Herodotus, who published his
dependent for survival upon mutual symbiosis with root Histories in the mid-5th century BC. Herodotus tells of the
fungi. In many cases, the plant provides carbohydrates to strange, mutualistic behavior exhibited by the Egyptian
the fungus in return for phosphate and nitrogen 95 plover bird and the Nile River crocodile. The eating habits
35 compounds. Another example of mutual symbiosis occurs of crocodiles was thought to have left them with decaying
with pollination. In this act, the plant relies upon a food trapped between their teeth, leaving them vulnerable
pollinator to transfer genetic information, while the to infection. According to Herodotus, crocodiles were
pollinator depends upon the plant for nourishment. witnessed lying on the shore with their mouths open for
100 plovers to remove food particles, parasites, and the like
Another form of mutualism takes place between sea from between their teeth. The plovers were never harmed
40 anemone and anemone fish, such as clownfish. Sea and were evidently unafraid of the crocodiles. While the
anemones look like plants, but are actually animals armed story may be apocryphal, it continues to be told to this
with poisonous tentacles. The anemone uses the tentacles day, demonstrating the power of mutual symbiosis in the
as defense and to trap food. Anemone fish are coated with 105 popular imagination.
a special mucus that makes them immune to the sea
45 anemones poison. The poison serves as a protection from
predation for the anemone fish. In return, the highly 11. The main purpose of this passage is to:
territorial anemone fish defends its home from anemone-
eating fish. It has been hypothesized that this particular (A) discuss the significance of historical examples
relationship is heavily weighted in favor of the fish. of symbiosis.
50 Anemone fish require anemone to breed and survive, (B) describe a significant natural phenomenon,
whereas the anemone can survive without an anemone including subcategories and examples.
fish inhabiting it.
(C) challenge a questionable historical reference
The questionable benefit of anemone fish to their regarding an interspecies relationship.
anemone hosts has led some scientists to consider their (D) show that common beliefs regarding symbiosis are
55 form of symbiosis to be commensal. In other words, the often mistaken.
anemone is seen by these scientists to be neither
advantaged nor disadvantaged in the relationship,

Cla s s 5
12. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that 17. The main point of the last paragraph is that:
malaria:
(A) symbiosis is apocryphal.
(F) does not affect humans beings who (B) human beings tend to be fascinated
bathe regularly. with symbiosis.
(G) can be controlled through a regimen of diet (C) symbiosis was invented by Greek philosophers
and exercise. to encourage cooperation among humans.
(H) never results in increased mortality for infants. (D) parasitism is not a new phenomenon.
(J) does not affect human beings who are not hosts
to a parasite. 18. As it is used in the passage, the word insectivore
(line 67) most nearly means:
13. It can be logically inferred that the Banded Snake Eel
(F) organism that feeds on insects.
mentioned in line 14 is:
(G) beneficial parasite.
(A) venomous.
(H) insect colony.
(B) non-venomous.
(J) commensal parasite.
(C) poisonous when eaten.
(D) very rare. 19. When the author notes that symbiosis is always
inter-specific (line 23) he means that:
14. As used in the passage, the phrase in flux (line 3)
(A) it is not vague or confusing.
most nearly means:
(B) symbiosis can be confusing for beginners.
(F) extended. (C) it is a relationship between members of two
(G) organized. different species.
(H) changing. (D) symbiosis is a recognized category of parasitism
(J) hyperparasitic. according to most scientists.
15. According to the passage, the story of the crocodiles 20. Which of the following conclusions about symbiosis
told by Herodotus: can reasonably be drawn from the passage?
(A) may not be true. (F) Symbiosis is generally only found under
(B) is a clear example of hyperbole. laboratory conditions.
(C) is an example of endosymbiotic parasitism. (G) Symbiosis is exclusively the domain of aquatic
(D) has been verified by contemporary observers. life forms.
(H) Scientists are certain that they have successfully
16. The author uses the example of anemone fish to:
categorized all of the forms of symbiosis that
(F) challenge the notion that symbiosis is always exist in nature.
harmful to the host. (J) Symbiosis is found in varied forms across
(G) illustrate the futility of attempting to categorize many species.
the various types of symbiosis.
(H) distract the reader from logical inconsistencies in
the passage.
(J) provide an example of mutualism.

Hom ework
Questions 21-30 Passage B

Social Science: The following passages discuss the
Ernest Hemingways novel The Sun Also Rises has
life of Ernest Hemingway. frequently been treated as a novel of the Lost Generation;
a group of young American expatriate writers living in
Paris who came of age during World War I and established
Passage A 45 their reputations in the 1920s. They considered
themselves lost because their inherited values could not
Ernest Hemingway is one of those rare authors most operate in the postwar world and they felt spiritually
people know about, whether they have read him or not, alienated from a country that they considered hopelessly
because of his sensational publicity and personal invective. provincial and emotionally barren. More broadly, the Lost
With his image of ruggedness, confidence, virility, and 50 Generation represented the World War I American
5 bravery, he has the distinction of being one of the most generation. This approach to The Sun Also Rises has
famous twentieth-century American writers. He has been become something of a critical clich. Hemingway
regarded less as a writer dedicated to his craft than as a described the novel as less about the life of postwar
man of action who happened to be afflicted with genius. expatriates than about the rhythms of nature as an
When he won the Nobel Prize in 1954, Time magazine 55 expression of eternity.
10 reported the news under Heroes rather than Books. He
wrote about what he knew best: traveling, bullfights, Despite its concern with interrogating literary
libations, women, wars, big game hunting, deep-sea depictions of the relationship between humanity and the
fishing, and courage. He acquired his expertise through natural world, Hemingways novel has received little eco-
well-reported acts of participation as well as observation, critical attention. The Sun Also Rises is profoundly
15 by going to all of the wars of his time, hunting and fishing 60 concerned with ecological considerations, as the biblical
for great beasts, marrying four times, occasionally getting passage of Ecclesiastes echoed in its title would suggest. It
into fistfights, and drinking to excess. presents the main characters as aimless, displaced people
without a secure sense of meaning or value and suggests
To a considerable degree, Hemingway was complicit in that the characters could find that meaning and value in
the formation of his public persona. As a young man living 65 cultivating a more intimate connection with the natural
20 in Chicago and bored by vainglorious drawing room talk environment. The novel criticizes conventional depictions
about arts and artists, he rejected out of hand the role of the of nature and calls for a literature that offers a more
indoor aesthete. If he were to become a writer, it was complex picture of the connection between humanity and
going to be at the opposite pole from Proust and his cork- the natural world. It invokes the central elements of
lined room! Hemingway had grown up in close contact 70 pastoral convention: the presentation of city life as
25 with the outdoors, and throughout his life he pursued the complex and of city people as corrupt, the presentation of
hunting and fishing sports that he had learned from his rural life (and of nature) as somehow more real and
father. In doing so, Hemingway assuredly took some more simple than life in the city, and the presentation of
amusement in confounding public expectations of how a rural folk as more honest, direct, and virtuous than city
writer should dress and conduct himself. After his fathers 75 dwellers. Literary rural tradition posits a natural world, a
30 suicide, he took on the persona of Papa Hemingway. It green world, to which sophisticated urbanites withdraw in
served as a defense, protecting the more complicated search of the lessons of simplicity that only nature can
person behind the mask. But once the persona took hold, it teach. There, amid sylvan groves and meadows and rural
did not let go, and as a consequence Hemingway dwindled characters idealized images of countryside existence
into a celebrity a person who is famous for being famous 80 the sophisticates attain a critical vision of the good, simple
35 whose personality has been narrowed down to a few life. The novel pushes the limits of pastoral convention by
instantly recognizable trademarks. The process had the testing its vision, acknowledging its enduring attraction,
unpropitious effect of confusing Hemingways work with and questioning its very construct.
his life, or rather those components of his life that were
lived in open view; it subordinated his literary
40 accomplishment to his personal renown.

Cla s s 5
Questions 21-25 ask about passage A.

21. Passage A suggests that Hemingways image
(line 4) and genius (line 8) were both
(A) easy to achieve.
(B) the sole causes of his success as a writer.
(C) essential to making him happy.
(D) important components that helped shape the
publics perception of him.
22. Lines 18-19 (To persona.) suggest that

Hemingway
(F) was guilty of overstating his qualifications as
a writer.
(G) paid particular attention to the publics
perception of him.
(H) had wanted to be a writer since he was a child.
(J) understood that the public would not accept him
if he followed a more traditional path.
23. The author of Passage A describes Hemingways

feelings toward being an indoor aesthete (line 22)
in order to
(A) highlight his great sensitivity to the beauty of art
and nature.
(B) emphasize his dislike for a particular social
group.
(C) describe the forces that caused him to rebel
against standard conventions.
(D) contrast the way he felt about his own persona
after his fathers suicide.
24. All of the following elements of Hemingways fame

are mentioned in Passage A EXCEPT his
(F) innate genius.
(G) acquisition of a fatherly persona.
(H) Nobel Prize-winning achievements.
(J) membership in an expatriate group.
25. Which of the following statements about Hemingway,

if true, would most directly support the statements in
lines 36-40?
(A) Twentieth-century authors were more focused on
their public lives than they were on their private
lives.
(B) During this time period, revelations about an
authors private life could very well influence
perceptions of his work.
(C) In the twentieth century, male authors were
required to hold two jobs simultaneously.
(D) The practice of combining ones private life with
work was common during this era.

Hom ework
Questions 26-27 ask about passage B.

26. According to Passage B, Hemingways novel
The Sun Also Rises has been interpreted most
commonly in which of the following contexts?
I. Traditional pastoral conventions

II. Ecological values
III. Postwar sentiments
(F) I only
(G) III only
(H) I and III only
(J) I, II, and III
27. In Passage B, the authors attitude toward

conventional interpretations of The Sun Also Rises
(lines 51-55) suggests that
(A) there are alternative approaches to interpreting
Hemingways novel that are also valid.
(B) literary critics have unfairly rejected
nontraditional analyses of the novel.
(C) there is a link between the natural world and the
themes found in Hemingways novel.
(D) the post-World War I generation felt that it
could not function in society as it was.
Questions 28-30 ask about both passages.

28. The close contact (line 24) described in Passage A
is most closely associated with which consideration
addressed in Passage B?
(F) The description of lives of people living in the
countryside.
(G) The relationship Hemingways characters had
with urban life.
(H) An intimate connection (line 65).
(J) The presentation of rural life (lines 71-72) in
Hemingways novel.
29. Passage A and Passage B share a general tone of

(A) open hostility
(B) personal attachment
(C) affectionate nostalgia
(D) analytical objectivity
30. The information in Passage A supports which

assumption about The Sun Also Rises in Passage B?
(F) Hemingways novel suggested that people who
live in rural areas attain a better vision of life.
(G) The novels underlying theme is rooted in
conventional pastoral ideologies.
(H) The novel was heavily influenced by
Hemingways connection to nature and the
environment.
(J) The symbolism found in the novel is explicitly
derived from nature and avoids any connection
to urban life.

Cla s s 5
Science
Directions: There are two passages in this homework section. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question. You may refer to the
passages as often as necessary.
White Syndrome
Passage 1
White syndrome is a disease among coral that
leaves these beautiful sea creatures completely
The destruction of coral reefs along coastlines colorless and often lifeless as well. Some scientists
worldwide presents a scientific challenge. Researchers believe that white syndrome is triggered
have postulated various theories to explain it. The within the coral itself and is not representative of an
following are two theories that have found support attack from an outside enemy. For some unknown
among some members of the scientific community, reason, the infected corals immune system attacks not
but oceanographers are not unanimous in supporting only the pathogenic cells that cause the disease, but
either one. destroys healthy cells as well. Curiously, studies have
shown that very dense populations of coral colonies
Coral Bleaching are more susceptible to this disease than are more
Coral bleaching is a phenomenon that occurs isolated groupings. Additionally, the white syndrome
when coral has lost its symbiotic algae, called pathogens seem to move from one coral to the next,
zooxanthellae, that live within the corals tissue and attacking healthy coral colonies in methodical strips,
help it acquire energy. As the name suggests, bleaching similar to humans passing cold or flu germs from one
causes the coral to lose its color, becoming either person to the next. Attempts at understanding this
lighter or completely white. When coral is stressed, coral killer point to global changes in ocean
the zooxanthellae (which are responsible for temperature in combination with high coral density.
giving the coral its color in the first place) will be
expelled. Many factors can stress coral, not the least
of which is water temperature changes. Also, changes
in the oceans acidity, overfishing, pathogens present
in the water, and contaminated run-off can produce
situations that affect the growth of the corals
necessary algae. Coral can survive this bleaching
occurrence and may eventually be recolonized by
either the same zooxanthellae species as before, or by
a new species. Generally, coral bleaching affects an
entire colony of coral at one time. Scientists continue
to study coral bleaching in an effort to understand
its cause.

Hom ework
1. Scientists who subscribe to the two theories 5. Proponents of the Coral Bleaching Theory
above would most likely agree that: would most likely agree with which of the
following statements?
(A) loss of color in coral reefs is the result of
pathogens. (A) Coral bleaching can change the level of
(B) coral reefs that have lost their color will pathogens in seawater.
bounce back once conditions return to (B) Entire coral colonies can be decimated by
normal. one episode of coral bleaching.
(C) increases in ocean temperature are likely to (C) Dense coral populations are least affected
affect coral adversely. by coral bleaching.
(D) a concerted effort can reverse the effects of (D) Water temperature has little to no effect
global warming on ocean temperatures. on the pathogens responsible for coral
bleaching.
2. As it is used in the passage, symbiotic most
nearly means:
6. The White Syndrome Theory states that
(F) colorless.
pathogens methodically attack coral reefs,
(G) beneficial. moving from one coral to another. Which of
(H) pathogenic. the following findings, if true, could be used to
(J) speculative. counter this argument?
(F) Dense populations of coral are frequently
3. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage attacked by known pathogens.
that most scientists would support:
(G) Isolated groups of coral are more healthy
(A) further research into the causes of loss of than dense populations of coral.
color in coral reefs. (H) Global changes in ocean temperatures
(B) a larger overall budget for oceanographic adversely impact large groups of healthy
research. coral.
(C) a concerted, international effort to halt (J) Healthy coral are found thriving next to
coral fishing altogether. completely colorless and lifeless coral.
(D) an increase in zooxanthellae cultivation in
the worlds oceans. 7. The information in the passage indicates that
when a coral loses its color, the coral is most
likely:
4. According to the information provided, healthy
coral tissue will expel zooxanthellae when: (A) healthy.
(F) the algae becomes acidic. (B) hibernating.
(G) the coral turns white. (C) infected with algae.
(H) the coral is under stress. (D) in a dense colony.
(J) the algae attacks the coral.

Cla s s 5
Hypothesis 4
Passage 2 The asteroids could not once have been a planet,
because there is not enough material within the entire
Some science students debate 4 hypotheses regarding belt to form a planet-sized object. The lack of material,
the origin of the asteroid belt located between Mars shown by the total diameter and mass of the objects
and Jupiter, based on the following observations: within the belt, is proof that the asteroids are no more
than large particles left over from the formation of the
Observations terrestrial planets from a single cloud of material.
Observation 1 - If all of the asteroids were
gathered together, the diameter of the object formed
8. According to Hypothesis 1, most of the matter
would be less than half the diameter of Earths Moon.
composing the asteroids in the belt came from:
Observation 2 - The total mass of the asteroid belt
is only 4% that of the Moon. One asteroid alone, Ceres, (F) Earths moon.
contains 1/3 of the total mass of the asteroid belt. (G) a partially formed planet between Mars
Observation 3 - Asteroids are largely composed and Jupiter.
of silicate, with some deposits of iron and nickel, a (H) the same material that composes the
composition proportionately similar to that of the planets most similar to Earth.
terrestrial planets. Some asteroids also contain carbon (J) a planet outside of Earths Solar System.
and other elements.
Observation 4 - There is a strong orbital 9. Hypothesis 4 includes the assertion that
resonance (overlapping gravity) with Jupiter in the the asteroids are made up of particles left
region of the asteroid belt, which keeps the asteroids over from a singular cloud of material. This
in an orbit around the sun. assertion explains which of the following
Observation 5 - In reality, asteroids within the observations?
belt are very far apart, not clustered together. (A) Observations 1 and 2
Observation 6 - Within the early solar system, the (B) Observation 4 only
velocity of collisions within the region of the asteroid (C) Observations 5 and 6
belt was much higher than it is currently. (D) Observation 3 only
Hypothesis 1
The material that composes the asteroids is 10. Supporters of Hypothesis 2 would most likely
similar to that of the terrestrial planets. The belt likely agree that, at the time the asteroid belt formed,
formed during the same time that the planets were the planets were:
forming, and due to the strong orbital resonance with (F) still in the process of forming.
the gas giant Jupiter and high velocity collisions, (G) completely formed as they are seen today.
chunks of material were pulled away from various (H) no more than a cloud of material in space.
planets and trapped within orbit. This also explains (J) all the size of asteroids.
the varying composition of the asteroids throughout
the belt. 11. Which of the following assumptions regarding
the asteroid belts origins is implicit in
Hypothesis 2 Hypothesis 2?
All of the material that makes up the asteroids (A) The asteroids composition is identical to
in the asteroid belt is similar to that of the material that of the Moon.
that makes up the terrestrial planets. The velocity of (B) The asteroids have several different
collisions in the early solar system was at one time sources of origin.
high enough to break apart planets as they formed. (C) The asteroid belt is older than Jupiter.
Since one asteroid has 1/3 the total mass of the belt, (D) The asteroid belt is younger than Jupiter.
the asteroids are most likely the result of a partially
formed planet that broke apart and became trapped in
an orbit between Mars and Jupiter. 12. With which of the following statements would
supporters of all four hypotheses agree?
Hypothesis 3 (F) There is not enough scientific data to prove
The asteroids most likely came from somewhere the existence of asteroids.
outside the solar system. As they passed through (G) Asteroids are composed of the same material
space at varying intervals, they were trapped by the as that which comprises Mars.
large orbital resonance of Jupiter and formed a belt. (H) The asteroid belt lies entirely outside of the
The vast distances between most of the asteroids in solar system.
the belt are evidence that they did not come from a (J) The objects currently in an orbit between
singular source, but arrived at different points in the Mars and Jupiter are asteroids.
belts development.

Hom ework
English
for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose NO CHANGE. In some cases, you
will find in the right-hand column a question about the underlined part. You are to choose the
best answer to the question.
These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identified by
a number or numbers in a box.
before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For many of the questions, you must
read several sentences beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure that you have read
far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.
1. (A) NO CHANGE
Passage 1
(B) of
(C) with
Michael Nyman: Classical Minimalist
(D) for
[1]
2. (F) NO CHANGE
Many people understand classical music to belong to the limited (G) faltering
(H) defaulting
realm into symphony orchestra or smaller ensembles of orchestral (J) insufficient
1
instruments. Even more restrictive is the mainstream definition of 3. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) experimenting
classical, the music of the distant past seemingly pushed aside by (C) experimentation
(D) experimental
more popular contemporary forms, such as jazz, rock, and rap. In spite
of its waning limelight, however, classical music still lives. Indeed, it 4. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) remains
2
occupies an enduring niche in western culture where it is the subject of (H) remaining
(J) it remains
experiment on the part of composers and performers.
3 5. (A) NO CHANGE
[2] (B) Nyman who
(C) Nyman, who
Of the various schools of 20th century classical composition, (D) Nyman; who
minimalism remain one of the most influential. And minimalisms

4
best advocate has been English composer Michael Nyman. Who has
5
emerged as one of the great writers, conductors, and performers of

Cla s s 5
experimental and minimalist pieces of music. In fact, it was he who 6. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) Nymans compositions
coined the term minimalism in a review of another composers work. (H) H. Nymans compositions
(J) J. Nymans compositions
Nymans compositions vary greatly in mood and orchestration, but
6 7. (A) NO CHANGE
generally reflect the characteristic tenets of minimalist fare: silence,
(B) to, form what
conceptual forms, brevity, continuity, and strong patterns. (C) to form what,
(D) to form what
[3]
8. (F) NO CHANGE
A 1976 commission inspired Nyman to form, what he once called (G) the group
7 (H) there group
the loudest unamplified street band possible. Eventually called the (J) their group
Michael Nyman Band, theyre group was comprised of saxophonists 9. Which of the following, if added
8 here (replacing the period), would
and banjo players, combined with players of various medieval string and provide the most relevant details
about Nymans band?
woodwind instruments. When Nyman set to develop material for his
(A) and other parts for various
band, he added in piano segments for himself. 9 In this setting, the band members.
(B) as well as different musicians
composer honed his style of deliberate melodies, malleable rhythms, and and instruments.
(C) , a rich string section, and
precise ensemble playing to much critical praise. eventually, amplification of all
the instruments.
[4] (D) so that the other members
could play their own
Despite Nymans popularity within classical circles, he will be best
instruments.
10
remembered for his stunning film scores. His most famous achievement
10. (F) NO CHANGE
was the music for The Piano, winner of the 1993 Cannes Film Festivals (G) better
(H) the best
prestigious Palme dOr award for best picture. In the U.S., the film (J) all the better
it was nominated for six Academy Awards and won three. Surprisingly, 11. (A) NO CHANGE
11 (B) was nominated
a nomination was not granted to Nymans soundtrack for the Best (C) in that it was nominated
(D) for nominating
Score award. Despite this oversight, the soundtrack remains among the
12. (F) NO CHANGE
bestselling film music recordings out of them all. Its grace is achieved
(G) to ever be recorded
12
through skillful use of the piano to replace the female leading her voice, (H) of all time
which is absent throughout the film.
13. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) leads voice
(C) leading voice
(D) leads voice

Hom ework
[5] 14. Which of the following offers the

best transition from Paragraph 4?
14 Gattaca is a film about a world obsessed with sophisticated (F) Nyman worked on another
film as well.
bioengineering that creates a society stratified according to genetic purity. (G) Similarly emotive is Nymans
composition for Gattaca.
Nyman layers repetitive melodies to create an atmosphere of soaring (H) Another of Nymans films
was Gattaca.
highs tempered with sorrow, evoking hopeless melancholy to finish on an (J) Gattaca is a film for which
15 Nyman wrote the score.
uplifting note. The austere blues and greens of the films cinematography
blend with Nymans round melodies to impose a trance on the audience,
to the underlined portion would be
LEAST acceptable?
infusing a cold future with vivid romance.
(A) modified
(B) disposed
(C) curbed
(D) moderated
Passage 2
Dancing through the Water 16. (F) a conclusion

(G) a realization
Have you ever done a handstand, somersault, or pirouette in a (H) an execution
(J) a trick
swimming pool? Chances are that you have, or at the very least, youve
17. (A) NO CHANGE
seen someone else attempt such a feat. For synchronized swimmers, (B) were
16 (C) are
handstands, somersaults, and pirouettes is just the beginning of a long (D) was
17
list of moves performed in their sport.
18. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) who
(H) that
A hybrid of swimming, ballet, and gymnastics, synchronized (J) it
swimming is a sport and it often goes unappreciated. Still most other 19. (A) NO CHANGE
18 19 (B) But
people have a hard time figuring out how to dive into a pool without (C) If
(D) Whereas
getting water up their noses, synchronized swimmers manage to spin
20. (F) NO CHANGE
and kick for the duration of their routine, all of this while (G) during
20 (H) at times during
(J) some times in

Cla s s 5
they are upside down underwater. These athletes exhibit an impressive 21. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) grace and agility
display of endurance, flexibility, strength, grace, and, agility. (C) grace, and agility
21 (D) grace and, agility
22. (F) NO CHANGE

Unlike many other team sports, synchronized swimming involves no
(G) sports synchronized
22
physical contact with competitors. Instead, teams perform their routines (H) sports; synchronized
(J) sports. Synchronized
before a panel of judges who critique them individually, rather then by
how they perform in physical contact against their rivals. The teams are (B) if
(C) than
scored on a scale of ten, with points awarded for both technical merit (D) OMIT the underlined portion.
24
and artistic expression. Technical merit includes the correct of the figures 24. (F) NO CHANGE
25 (G) On an incremental scale of one
presented and the synchronization of the piece, while artistic expression to ten the teams are scored,
(H) The teams performing are
includes the choreography, music, involvement of the swimmer, and
scored by the judges on a scale
presentation. The team with the highest score wins. of ten,
(J) Scored on a scale of ten are
the teams,
[1] Although they can be found at such a variety of levels, 25. (A) NO CHANGE
26 (B) correction
synchronized swimming still lags behind many other sports in the race for (C) correctly
27 (D) correctness
acknowledgment and respect. [2] Perhaps if more people were aware, of
the dedication and talent required for success in the sport, it would be
(G) it
(H) some
27. (A) delays

(B) trails
(C) stops
(D) holds up
28. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) aware of
(H) aware

Hom ework
taken more seriously. [3] Synchronized swimming teams can 29. Which of the following sentence
sequences will make the preceding
be found at the elementary, secondary, collegiate, and paragraph more logical?
(A) NO CHANGE
Olympic levels. 29 (B) 1, 3, 2
(C) 2, 3, 1
(D) 3, 1, 2

30. Suppose the writers goal was to describe

the difficulties experienced by athletes
participating in under-recognized sports.
Does the essay meet this goal?
(F) Yes, because the essay highlights how
synchronized swimming is under-
recognized.
(G) Yes, because the essay explains
how people dont take synchronized
swimming seriously.
(H) No, because the essay shows support
for only one under-recognized sport.
(J) No, because the essay doesnt identify
synchronized swimming as an under-
recognized sport.

(B) successfully prosperous
(C) successful, prosperous
Gardening for Victory! (D) successful
Perhaps one of the most prosperous and successful home-front 32. (F) NO CHANGE
31 (G) government as
efforts of World War II was the Victory Garden program. Initially (H) government: as
(J) government; as
criticized by the government, as a poor use of labor and resources,
33. (A) NO CHANGE
32 (B) increased
civilian-managed Victory Gardens became increasing popular as more (C) increasingly
33 (D) to increase
and more farmers left their farms to fight overseas. This loss of farmers
34. Given that all of the choices are true, which
led to a dramatic decrease in the domestically produced food supply. one would most effectively conclude this
paragraph while leading into the next?
Many Americans found themselves without the day-to-day necessities (F) NO CHANGE
34 (G) The government hoped to cater to this
of life. shortage with various programs.
(H) In response to this decrease, the
34 government began to ration food
staples such as vegetables, fruit, meat,
eggs, and dairy products.
(J) Living conditions were quite difficult
for many Americans.

Cla s s 5
As food rations tightened, the U.S. government foresaw both the nutritive 35. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) the resources,
necessity and ancillary social benefits of Victory Gardens. In the mid- (C) resources, and
(D) resources:
1940s, the government appealed to the public to take an active role in
36. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) vegetables, and then
supporting the nation at war. With the help of government, business
(H) vegetables, thus
(J) vegetables, so that in
programs, and resources, millions of Americans joined the effort. The
government hoped that Americans would be able to provide many of their (B) By the end of
(C) Concluding
own fruits and vegetables, for leaving the bulk of mass-produced crops (D) After the end of
36
for the troops. 38. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) are transforming
(H) had been transforming
(J) had transformed
[1] Following after World War II, more than 20 million 39. (A) NO CHANGE
37 (B) Gardens that
Americans have transformed backyards, empty lots, baseball fields, (C) Gardens,
38 (D) Gardens:
schoolyards, and apartment rooftops into over 20 million Victory
40. (F) NO CHANGE
Gardens; which yielded between 9 and 10 million tons of produce. [2] It (G) it
39 (H) these
wasnt uncommon for them to say My food is fighting! [3] Distributed (J) people
40
small-scale agriculture provided sustenance to American troops and 41. If the author were to delete the
phrase, For Americans young and
civilians alike; the summer and fall crops were eaten fresh or dutifully old alike, the sentence would lose:
(A) valuable information about
canned for the winter and spring by amateur gardeners. [4] For Americans who was eligible to participate
in the Victory Gardens
41
program.
young and old alike, Victory Gardens were their way of taking the fight
(B) an explanation of how easy
41 42 it was to maintain a Victory
to the Garden.
(C) an explanation of how Victory
Gardens allowed people of all
ages to work together in the
war effort.
(D) a logical connection to
civilians in the preceding
sentence.
42. (F) NO CHANGE

(G) theyre
(H) there
(J) its

Hom ework
enemy. 43 43. For the sake of logic and coherence,

the order of the sentences in this
Victory Gardens were a resounding success. Thanks to the millions paragraph should be:
(A) NO CHANGE
of green-thumbed Americans that answered the governments call for (B) 1, 3, 2, 4
44 (C) 3, 2, 1, 4
action, a serious domestic food crisis was averted. Although Victory (D) 2, 1, 4, 3
Gardens are no longer necessary when Americas armed forces are 44. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) whom
fighting, their memory survives as a testament to the patriotism and (H) who
resourcefulness so characteristic of this nation.
45. Suppose the writer had decided to

write an essay that illustrates one
way civilians actively supported
the American cause during World
War II. Would this essay fulfill the
writers goal?
(A) Yes, because the essay makes
the point that Victory Gardens
maintained by civilians were
crucial for feeding both
civilians and deployed armed
forces personnel.
(B) Yes, because the essay
indicates that many farm
laborers had to leave their land
to fight in the war.
(C) No, because the essay limits
its focus to the Victory Garden
program, only one of many that
the U.S. government developed
to support the war effort.
(D) No, because the essay implies
that Victory Gardens were
easily maintained by amateur
and expert gardeners alike.

Cla s s 5
Math
1. Which of the following inequalities represents 3. What is the distance, in coordinate units,
the graph shown below on the real number between the points M (5, 3) and N (2, 1) in
line? the standard (x, y) coordinate plane?
(A) 5
(B) 7
6 5 4 3 2 1 0 1 x (C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 7
(A) 6 x < 1
(B) 5 x < 0
(C) 5 < x 1
(D) 5 < x 0
(E) 4 x < 1
4. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, (15, 3)

2. Which of the following is an equation of the is halfway between (8a, a + 2) and (2a, a 6).
line that passes through the points (3, 2) and What is the value of a?
(4, 12) in the standard (x, y) coordinate
plane? (F) 2
(G) 3
(F) x + y = 4
(H) 4
(G) 2x y = 4
(J) 5
(H) 4x y = 4
(K) 6
(J) 6x 2y = 8
(K) 7x y = 2

Hom ework
5. What are the values of the slope, m, and the 8. The equation of line n below is y = mx b.
y-intercept, b, for the line whose equation is Which of the following could be an equation
2x 4y = 28 ? for line l ?
(A) m = - 1 ; b = -7
2
(B) m = 1 ; b = -7
2
(C) m = 1 ; b = 7
2
(D) m = -2 ; b = -7
(F) y = 2mx
(E) m = 2 ; b = 7
(G) y = 2mx + b
(H) y = 2mx b
(J) y = 2mx + b
(K) y = 2mx b
6. In the (x, y) coordinate plane, what is the

y-intercept of the line 8x 2y = 8?
(F) 4
(G) 2
(H) 0
(J) 4
(K) 8
9. Which of the following lines has the smallest
slope?
(A) y = 2x + 1
(B) y = 3x 5
(C) y = x + 2
(D) 4y = 2x + 3
(E) 2y = 3x
7. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plan, if the
distance between points (9, b) and (b, 2) is 5
coordinate units, which of the following could be
the value of b ?
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6

Cla s s 5
10. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, 3 12. What is the slope of any line parallel to the line
corners of a rectangle are (1, 1), (5, 1), and 3x + 5y = 8?
(1, 5). Where is the rectangles fourth corner?
(F) (1, 5) (F) 3
(G) (1, 5)
(G) 8
(H) (1, 1)
(J) (1, 5)
(H) 3
(K) (5, 5) 8
(J) - 3
5
(K) 8
13. If two lines in the standard (x, y) coordinate

plane are perpendicular and the slope of one
11. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, what
of the lines is 4, what is the slope of the
is the slope of the line that passes through the other line?
origin and the point S 3 , 4 X ?
1 3
(A) 4
(A) 1
4 (B) 1
1
(B) 3
(C) - 41
1
(C) 2
(D) 41
(D) 3
4 (E) 4
(E) 9
4

Hom ework
14. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, if the 17. Which of the following radian measures is
x-coordinate of each point on a line is 4 less than equivalent to 810?
three times its y-coordinate, the slope of the
(A) 2.5
line is:
(B) 3
(C) 4.5
(F) 4
(D) 5.2
(G) 3 (E) 6
(H) 1
3
(J) 3
(K) 4
15. The sides of a triangle are 12, 16, and 20 inches

long. What is the angle between the 2 shortest
sides?
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
18. In the triangle below, what is the value of s?
(D) 90
(E) 120
12
s
30
(F) 12 cos 30
16. Given in the diagram below, what is sec ()? (G) 12 sin 30
(H) 12 tan 30
3 (J) 12 sin 60
(F)
13 (K) 12 tan 60
4
(G) 2
13
(H) 3
2 3
13
(J)
3
13
(K)
2

Cla s s 5
19. Which of the following degree measures is 21. As shown in the figure below, a wheelchair
equivalent to 9.4 radians? ramp leading to the entrance of a building is 20
(A) 940 feet long and forms a 10 angle with the
(B) 1,200 level ground.
(C) 1,692
(D) 1,880 building entrance
(E) 3,384 20
10
ground
Given the trigonometric approximations in

the table below, what is the height above the
ground of the building entrance, rounded to the
nearest 0.01 foot?
cos 10 0.985
sin 10 0.174
tan 10 0.176
(A) 1.74
(B) 1.76
(C) 2.61
(D) 3.48
(E) 3.52
20. If the equation y = x2 12 were graphed in

the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, the graph
would be which of the following? 22. If 9x 3y = 10 and 3x 2y = 6 are equations
(F) Circle that represent adjacent sides LM and LP
(G) Ellipse of quadrilateral LMNP, what are the (x, y)
(H) Parabola coordinates of vertex L?
(J) Straight Line
(K) Two rays forming a V (F) S -2, 28 X
3
(G) S 2 , - 8 X
9 3
(H) S 4 , 2 X
9
(J) S 2 , - 4 X
3 3
(K) S 2, - 8 X
3

Hom ework
25. Line segments WX, XY, and YZ, which

23. If sin a = 12 , and cos a = 5 , then tan a = ?
13 13 represent the 3 dimensions of the rectangular
5 box shown below, have lengths of 8 inches, 6
(A) 12 inches, and 10 inches, respectively. What is the
cosine of ZWY ?
(B) 7
13
(A) 1
(C) 17 Z
13
(B) 2
(D) 12 2
5
(C) 3
(E) 60 5
13
3 2
(D)
10 Y
W X
(E) 4
5
24. From a hot air balloon, the angle between a

tree straight below and the base of a house is
55, as shown below. If the distance between
the tree and the house is 0.75 miles, how many
miles high is the balloon?
balloon
house
tree
0.75 miles
(F) 0.75
tan 55 o
(G) 0.75 o
cos 55
(H) 0.75 o
sin 55
(J) 0.75tan 55
(K) 0.75sin 55

Cla s s 5
26. As shown in the (x, y, z) coordinate space below, 28. In the figure below, DE and FG are perpendicular
the cube with vertices P through W has edges to EH, angle D and angle G are 30 angles, DF
that are 2 coordinate units long. The coordinates is 6 units long, and DF is half as long as FG,
of U are (0, 0, 0), and V is on the positive y-axis. what is the cosine of G ?
What are the coordinates of S ?
D E
(F) (0, 2, 2) z
(G) (0, 8 , 0) Q R G
F
P
(H) (0, 8 , 2) S
y H
(J) (2, 2, 8 ) T V
W
(K) (2, 2, 2) x
(F) 1
2
(G) 3
2
(H) 12
(J) 35o
(K) 70o
27. In the figure below, angle B is a right angle, and

the measure of angle C is . What is the value of
sin ?
(A) 3 3
5 A B
(B) 4
5
5 4
(C) 5
4
(D) 4 C
3
(E) 5
3

Hom ework
29. An angle in standard position in the standard

(x, y) coordinate plane has its vertex at the origin
and its initial side on the positive x-axis. If the
measure of an angle in standard position is
1,223, it has the same terminal side as an angle
of each of the following measures EXCEPT:
(A) 577
(B) 217
(C) 143
(D) 503
(E) 583
30. One cycle of the cosine curve shown below

represents 14 seconds, after which the same
values begin to repeat. The curve has height a at
0 and 14 seconds; b at 4 and 12 seconds; c at 5
and 11 seconds; d at 6 and 10 seconds; and e at 8
seconds. What will the height of the curve be at
38 seconds?
b
c
d 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
(F) a
(G) b
(H) c
(J) d
(K) e

Cla s s 5
Extra Advanced Topics

31. In a triangle, one angle measures 90, and the 33. Lauren asked 200 students whether or not they
2 play at least one instrument. 100 of the students
other angles measure x and y. If sin x = 3 ,
indicated that they play at least one instrument.
What is cos y? Of the 100 students that play at least one
instrument, 55 reported that they play guitar
and 75 reported that they play drums. How
(A) 0
many of the students polled indicated that they
play both guitar and drums ?
(B)
(A) 55
(B) 30
(C) 1
3 (C) 20
(D) 15
(D) 2 (E) 5
3
(E) 1
34. What is the value of log264?

(F) 3
32. For i 2 = 1, (3 i)2 = ? (G) 4
(H) 6
(F) 3i
(J) 32
(G) 10i
(K) 128
(H) 15i
(J) 8 6i
(K) 10 6i

Hom ework
Class 5 Answer key

Reading English Reading Science English Math
1. C 1. B 1. C 1. C 1. B 31. D 1. D 31. D
2. J 2. G 2. H 2. G 2. F 32. G 2. G 32. J
3. A 3. B 3. D 3. A 3. C 33. C 3. D 33. B
4. H 4. B 4. F 4. H 4. G 34. H 4. J 34. H
5. C 5. G 5. C 5. B 5. C 35. A 5. B
6. F 6. D 6. G 6. J 6. F 36. H 6. F
7. D 7. H 7. A 7. D 7. D 37. B 7. A
8. G 8. J 8. J 8. C 8. G 38. J 8. K
9. A 9. C 9. J 9. C 39. B 9. E
Math
10. J (Page 263) 10. J 10. A 10. F 40. J 10. K
11. C 1. D 21. A 11. B 11. J 11. B 41. C 11. E
12. G 2. C 22. C 12. J 12. D 12. H 42. F 12. J
13. A 3. H 23. C 13. B 13. D 43. A 13. C
14. G 4. D 14. H 14. G 44. H 14. H
5. G 15. A 15. B 45. A 15. D

Science
(Page 253) 6. E 16. J 16. J 16. J
1. D 7. E 17. B 17. C 17. C
2. H 8. F 18. F 18. H 18. G
3. D 9. A 19. C 19. D 19. C
4. G 10. J 20. J 20. G 20. H
5. A 11. B 21. D 21. C 21. D
6. G 12. E 22. G 22. F 22. G
13. G 23. C 23. C 23. D
14. B 24. J 24. F 24. F
15. K 25. B 25. D 25. B
16. A 26. J 26. G 26. K
17. E 27. A 27. B 27. A
18. D 28. H 28. G 28. G
19. K 29. D 29. D 29. E
20. A 30. H 30. H 30. J

Class 6
Test Zone Review

Cla s s 6
THE DIFFERENCE
BETWEEN A GOOD DAY
AND A BAD DAY CAN BE
3 TO 5 POINTS
THE TEST ZONE IS ABOUT
MAKING SURE YOU HAVE
A GOOD DAY

Te st Zo ne : Review
Have a Good Day

Endurance
Warning signs:
-- Your mind starts wandering.
-- You start thinking about what youre going to do after the exam.
Helpful remedies:
-- Make the effort to stay focused for the entirety of every class.
-- Take your practice tests seriously. Bring the intensity that you would bring to the official test.
-- Do your homework assignments in one sitting.
Motivation
Warning signs:
-- You miss a word or two in a question and miss the question.
-- You fall into careless and easy traps.
-- You dont try questions that you dont immediately know how to solve.
Helpful remedies:
-- Attack the exam aggressively, as though you were battling a mortal enemy.
-- Use the strategies and do not take shortcuts.
-- Always give it a shot, write things down, get your pencil moving.
Focus
Warning signs:
-- Your mind starts wandering.
-- You start thinking about what youre going to do after the exam.
-- You have a song lyric that you cant get out of your head.
Helpful remedies:
-- Practice outside of class in a public place to get used to dealing with distractions.
-- Develop a routine and follow it for the practice exams.

Class 6
English Review

Cla s s 6
The English Test 5 Passages / 75 Questions / 45 Minutes
The Strategy
1. Read period to period.
Even if there isnt an underlined portion in a sentence, read that sentence anyway.
2. Use your grammar ear.
If the underlined part is clearly right, mark answer choice A or F.
If the underlined part is clearly wrong, anticipate a correction, then find the answer choice that
most closely matches your anticipation.
If you cant tell whether the underlined part is right or wrong, immediately move on to the next
question.
3. Go back to the questions you skipped.
After youve done all the questions in the section that you know how to do, go back to the
questions you skipped and plug in answer choices to find the right one.
Key Points
Dont stop reading when you see an underlined word or phrase read to the end of
the sentence.
Use your grammar ear to identify errors.
The simplest and most direct phrasing of a sentence is always the best answer choice.

E ngl i sh: Review

(B) had fell
(C) had to of fallen
The Battle of Antietam
(D) fell
Nine times as many Americans would of fallen in the farmlands

2. (F) NO CHANGE
1
(G) had engaged
near Antietam Creek as fell on the beaches of Normandy on D-Day, the
(H) have first engaged
(J) first engaged
so-called longest day of World War II. It was in 1862, during the Civil
3. (A) NO CHANGE
War, that General Robert E. Lees Confederate Armys had first engaged
(B) in the Revolutionary War, War
2
of 1812, Mexican War, and
Union forces on northern soil. According to historians, when fighting
(C) in the Revolutionary War; War
of 1812; Mexican War; and
had subsided, over 23,000 soldiers lay dead or wounded. This was more
(D) at the Revolutionary War; War
of 1812; Mexican War; and
than all the dead or wounded Americans in the: Revolutionary War; War
3
4. At this point, the writer is
of 1812; Mexican War; and Spanish-American War combined. 4
considering adding the following
3 true statement:
Approximately 4,000 American
By 1862, the Unions military leadership had proven itself soldiers died in combat during the
Revolutionary War.
no match for the Confederacys brilliant generals. By September, Should the writer make this
5 addition here?
seemingly perfect timing for the South to press its advantage. Just a (F) Yes, because it reinforces the
6 point that Americans suffered
week after his armys victory in the Second Battle of Bull Run, Lee many casualties during the
Civil War.
resolved to advance the front (G) Yes, because it provides a
logical transition to the rest of
the paragraph.
(H) No, because it is irrelevant to the
focus of the essay to this point.
(J) No, because it does not
support the statements made in
the previous sentence.

NOT be acceptable?
(A) capable
(B) astute
(C) shimmering
(D) outstanding
6. (F) NO CHANGE
(G) perfect seemed the timing
(H) the timing seemed perfect
(J) with timing that seemed perfect

Cla s s 6
into Northern territory. His short-term plan was simple: the vast farm 7. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) and turning
fields of western Maryland were ready for harvest and Lee saw in them (C) and to turn
(D) and to turning
an opportunity to feed his soldiers, to replenish his supplies, and turn the
7 8. (F) NO CHANGE
residents of the undecided border state to his cause. (G) whom
(H) for
(J) this
The Confederacys grander vision sought a victory in the 9. (A) NO CHANGE

(B) requesting the calls for
North to legitimize its army in the eyes of France and England, that they (C) calling for the request of
8 (D) calls for
could subsequently solicit for aid. European pressure could turn public
10. (F) NO CHANGE
opinion against President Lincoln and intensify (G) directly straight to
(H) directly, straight through,
calls and requests for peace, solidifying the division between the Union (J) straight through
9
and the Confederacy. 11. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) pleasant; the
(C) pleasant, the
(D) pleasant, but the
[ 1 ] So, with great fanfare, Lee and fellow General Stonewall
12. Which of the following sequences
Jackson marched their ragged Army of Northern Virginia across the of sentences makes this paragraph
most logical?
Potomac River and directly straight through the Frederick town square. (F) NO CHANGE
10 (G) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
(H) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
[ 2 ] Lee issued the Proclamation to the People of Maryland to invite
(J) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
the citizens to join the Southern movement. [ 3 ] Soldiers obeyed Lees
order to refrain from violence and pillaging for several days, and the
townspeople maintained tacit compliance and sold food, clothes, and
shoes to Southern troops. [ 4 ] Lee keenly observed, however, that while
pleasant. The people of Maryland had no sympathy for the Confederate

11
side. [ 5 ] He needed a revised plan.

E ngl i sh: Review
Lee decided that his forces would divide to take western Maryland 13. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) Harrisburg, Pennsylvania
and then reform to proceed along the railroad toward Harrisburg (C) Harrisburg, Pennsylvania,
13 (D) Harrisburg, Pennsylvania;
Pennsylvania, a crucial Union transport hub. General Jackson led 22,000
troops southwest to Harpers Ferry to engage the 12,000-man Federal (G) between
(H) at
(J) for
fortification. Lees remaining 18,000 soldiers would advance over the
mountains 25 miles to Hagerstown and wait there among the others. On Question 15 asks about the
14 preceding passage as a whole.
September 10, 1862, the march began. No one knew how fateful it
15. Suppose the writers goal had been
would be. to write a biographical sketch of
the generals of the Civil War. Does
this essay successfully accomplish
that goal?
(A) Yes, because it names several
generals who participated in
the Battle of Antietam.
(B) Yes, because it explains the
actions taken by the Southern
generals to win the battle.
(C) No, because it doesnt
sufficiently describe the
generals, and only focuses on
one specific battle.
(D) No, because it fails to make
any connection between the
generals and the outcome of
the Battle of Antietam.

Class 6
Math Review

Cla s s 6
The Math Test 60 Questions / 60 Minutes
The Strategy
1. Identify ALWAYS begin by determining the problem type.
-- The most important step in solving a math problem on the ACT does not involve
your calculator.
2. Set Up - WRITE DOWN WHAT YOU KNOW IS TRUE
-- If theres a diagram, label anything you can. Determine which equation(s) you will need to
do the math.
3. Make Sure - What is the SPECIFIC answer they are asking for?
-- Make sure youre not falling for one of the ACTs tricks.
4. Execute - Plug in the information from the problem, carefully write out ALL STEPS, and solve
the problem.
-- After youve got an answer, check your work, and make sure your answer makes sense.
Key Points
All ACT math questions are worth the same point value slow down & write down your work!
Use Plugging & Backsolving whenever you get stumped on problems involving variables.
I-S-M-E will help you to be organized and to avoid making careless mistakes.

Math: Review
Formulas
Dont Forget:
Make sure you have these formulas memorized on Test Day.
Average =
1. If the average (arithmetic mean) of 2n, 7n,
and 3n is 16, what is the value of n?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 16
Percent Change =
2. An automobile factory made 4,500 cars in
January. The factory then hired more workers,
which caused its production to increase by
14% in February. How many cars did the
factory make in February?
(F) 9630
(G) 5130
(H) 3870
(J) 2050
(K) 630
Probability =
3. A high school principal forgot his coat in one
of his schools 180 classrooms. It is equally
likely that his coat is in any of these 180 rooms.
If exactly 30 of these 180 classrooms are used
for math classes, what is the probability that
his coat is in a math classroom?
(A) 1
3
(B) 1
6
(C) 1
9
(D) 1
12
(E) 1
18

Cla s s 6
Slope:
4. Line b has a negative slope and passes through
the point (0, 0). If line c is parallel to line b,
which of the following must be true?
(F) Line c passes though the point (0, 0)
(G) Line c has a positive slope
(H) Line c has a negative slope
(J) Line c has a positive x-intercept
(K) Line c has a negative y-intercept
Slope-Intercept Form:
5. The equation of line m in the xy-plane is
y = 4x 2. If line n is the reflection of line m
over the x-axis, what is the equation of line n?
(A) y = 4x + 2
(B) y = 4x + 2
(C) y = 4x 2
(D) y = 0.25x + 2
(E) y = 0.25x 2
Distance Formula:
Midpoint Formula:
6. In the standard coordinate plane, the coordinates
of one endpoint of a line segment are (5, 7),
while the midpoint of this line segment has
coordinates (3, 2). What are the coordinates
of the other endpoint of this line segment?
(F) (1, 3)
(G) (6, 14)
(H) (4, 4.5)
(J) (1, 2.5)
(K) (2, 5)

Math: Review
Triangles
Triangles, Triangles, Triangles!
A large chunk of the geometry problems on the ACT require you to work with triangles. When
you see a triangle, you should automatically think of the following concepts, and apply the
relevant one(s):
If Youre Trying To FInd... What Do You Do?
the measure of an angle
the length of a diagonal line
the area
Always look for special right triangles to help you find angle measures or side lengths
more quickly:
When You See A... What Are The Side Lengths?
60
30-degree angle or 60-degree angle
30
45
45-degree angle
45
If you dont see a special right triangle, try to create one:
When You See A... What Can You Create?
120-degree angle
120

Cla s s 6
Circles
Circle Properties
Why are circles awesome?
Because if you know just one of the properties, you can figure out the rest!
What is the radius?
What is the diameter?
Area of Circle = 16
What is the circumference?
What is the maximum distance between 2

points on the circle?
central
angle
Arc Formula Sector Formula
Arc = Circumference S X Sector = Area S X

Central Angle Central Angle
360 360

Math: Review
Practice
7. If the average (arithmetic mean) of the 9. If x 2 y 2 = 32, and x y = 4, what is the value
measures of two angles in a triangle is 65, of xy?
then which of the following MUST be the
(A) 5
measure of one of the angles in this triangle?
(B) 12
(A) 40
(C) 18
(B) 50
(D) 21
(C) 60
(E) 32
(D) 70
(E) 80
10. Each term in a sequence is found by doubling

the previous term and adding 1. If a term n
immediately follows a term m in this sequence,
which of the following expresses the value of n
8. Jane has a bag that contains 5 marbles, 2 of in terms of m?
which are green and 3 of which are blue. If she
reaches in and randomly pulls out one of the
(F) n = m + 1
marbles, what is the probability that the marble 2
she chooses is green?
(G) n = 2(m + 1)
(F) 1 (H) n = m2 + 1
5
(G) 2 (J) n = m + 1
5 2
(H) 1 (K) n = 2m + 1
2
(J) 3
5
(K) 2
3

Cla s s 6
11. The surface area of a cube is given by the 13. In the diagram below, ABE is an isosceles
formula A = 6s 2, where s is the length of one of right triangle with an area of 2. If the sides of
the edges of the cube. If s is doubled, then the the parallelogram BCDE all have equal length,
new cubes surface area is what percent of the what is the area of BCDE?
original surface area?
(A) 25% B C
(B) 50%
(C) 200%
(D) 400%
(E) 800% A E D
(A) 2
(B) 2 2
(C) 4
(D) 4 2
(E) 8
14. A gas station stores all its gasoline waiting to

12. If p is a positive integer, and 2p-1 + 2p+1 = n,
be sold in an underground tank. The tank can
what is the value of 2p in terms of n?
hold a maximum of 3,000 gallons of gasoline,
and it is currently half-full. If the station owner
(F) n - 2 pays a fuel supplier P dollars for enough
2
gasoline to exactly fill the storage tank, which
(G) 2n of the following expressions represents the cost
5
per gallon, in dollars, that the station owner
(H) 2n paid for the extra gasoline?
(J) 2n 2 (F) 1500P
(K) n2 1 (G) 1500

P
(H) P
1500
(J) 3000P
(K) P
3000

Math: Review
15. In the standard coordinate plane, if l is a line

that is perpendicular to the y-axis, then what is
the slope of line l?
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) Undefined
(E) Cannot be determined from the
given information
16. The hour hand on a clock moves through an

angle of 30 every hour. At 8:00, what is the
measure of the shortest angle between the hour
and minute hands?
12
11 1
10 2
9 3
8 4
7 5
6
(F) 60
(G) 120
(H) 180
(J) 240
(K) 300

Class 6
Reading Review

Cla s s 6
The Strategy
The Passage
1. Read - Read the introductory blurb and the passage using your 2-Track Mind.
2. Ask - Ask yourself questions that help you focus on the authors argument. Do this for each
sentence and for each paragraph.
3. Reflect - Pause before answering the questions and try to BRIEFLY describe the author, the
subject of the passage, and the main points.
The Questions - Take CARE
1. Cover - Cover the answer choices with your hand, then read the question.
2. Anticipate - Figure out how YOU would answer the question. Use any line references that may be
provided to help.
3. Reveal - Once you have your answer in mind, uncover the answer choices.
4. Eliminate - Compare their answer choices with your answer, and ELIMINATE WRONG ANSWERS.
Key Points
Read for Whats it about? not What happens?
Anticipate your own answers before looking at the answer choices.
Eliminate wrong answers, especially Out of Scope ones.

Re ad i ng: Review
45 signs of the zodiac. Looking to the east is the

Passage 2
Commemorative Arch, which frames the entry to the Main
Social Science: The following passage describes the Reading Room. The frieze above the arch is inscribed with
Library of Congress. the words Library of Congress, and above that is a tablet
that lists the names of the architects and engineers who
50 designed and constructed the building. Two majestic
The predominant feature of the Library of Congress,
staircases border the Great Hall, both exhibiting detailed
located in Washington D.C., is unequivocally the grandeur of
artwork and elaborate characters. The staircase railings
its entryway. Scaling the staircase from either side of this
contain carved putti, or little children, each holding
massive structure can create a dizzying effect as one looks
representative implements, which portray particular trades or
5 upward at the numerous pairs of Ionic columns extending
55 occupations. One figure holds a lyre and music book, while
across the second level. Influenced by the Beaux-Arts
another depicts an entomologist carrying a specimen box and
tradition, a common architectural style in the 19th century, the
butterfly net, along with many other professions illustrated.
double staircase spills into an arcaded entrance, becoming the
piano nobile. At ground level, three double bronze doors,
The east corridor of the library honors American
10 weighing a ton apiece, are impressive works of art in
achievements through mosaics, which are presented on its
themselves. Symbolizing Tradition, Printing, and
60 vaulted ceiling. It is also here where John White Alexanders
Writing, these functional monuments represent how man
paintings display The Evolution of the Book, illustrating
has preserved History, Religion, Science, and Literature
the span of human history from memory, to the spoken word,
through the ages.
to the printed word. Here, also, are displayed the librarys
prized possessions: the Gutenberg Bible and the Giant Bible
15 Busts of nine famous writers can be seen in the exterior
65 of the Mainz. Both written in Germany in the 1450s, one is
upper windows, with Benjamin Franklin as the centerpiece.
written by hand while the other is the first text ever to be
Accompanying Franklin are Goethe, the German poet, and
written with moveable metal type. The north and south
Thomas Macauley, famed British historian. Also included are
corridors of the congressional library continue the artistry of
Nathaniel Hawthorne, Washington Irving, Ralph Waldo
the entire building, with original paintings by Charles
20 Emerson, Sir Walter Scott, Dante, and Demosthenes; all of
70 Sprague Pearce and Henry Oliver Walker, as well as tributes
these sculptures epitomize the importance of safeguarding the
to American poets and former congressmen.
written word. Other symbolic figures appearing on the front
of the congressional library are granite spandrel figures,
Completed in 1897, the Library of Congress was
which, in pairs, denote Literature, Science, and the Arts.
initially designed by architects John L. Smithmeyer and Paul
25 Above the main portal are two more statues, one holding a
J. Pelz, and the work itself was undertaken by approximately
celestial orb and the other the torch of knowledge. The outer
75 40 artists, including painters and sculptors. While at its
dome of the library consists of 23-karat gold, and caps the
inception this was to be a library strictly for congressional
interior of the librarys main reading room.
use, it now welcomes the public to peruse the 90 million
items on 540 miles of shelving. Truly, the Library of
Entering through the front doors at the second story
Congress is one of Americas national treasures.
30 level brings a visitor into the west corridor vestibule of the
Great Hall. Here the stucco ceiling is beautifully adorned with
23-karat gold leaf and eight pairs of statues symbolizing the
goddess Minerva. Sculptor Henry Adams created these
impressive images of both the Minerva of War, carrying a
35 falchion, or small sword, in one hand, and the torch of
learning in the other and the Minerva of Peace, holding a
globe and a scroll, both of which signify the universality of
knowledge and learning.
Into the Great Hall, the ceiling rises to an impressive 75

40 feet with intricate stained glass skylights. The beams that
support these skylights are finished in aluminum leaf, once
again producing an awe-inspiring effect. The marble floor in
this area contains a large brass inlay of the sun, and
surrounding this are twelve more brass inlays depicting the

Cla s s 6
1. Which of the following describes the main theme of 6. The passage states that the original intended use of
the passage? the Library of Congress was:
(A) A comprehensive catalog of Americas national (F) as a facility for use by members of Congress.
treasures. (G) as a museum and art collection.
(B) A history of Congresss efforts to preserve (H) as a repository of knowledge for use by the
knowledge and philosophy. public.
(C) A description of the architecture and symbolism (J) as a public works project to put unemployed
of a national treasure. Americans to work.
(D) The evolution of government, science, and
literature through the ages. 7. The authors attitude toward the Library of Congress
can best be described as:
2. The passage does NOT answer which of the (A) skeptical regarding the motivations of those who
following questions? planned and built it.
(F) Who were the primary architects responsible for (B) appreciative of the scale and attention to detail
the design of the Library of Congress? that went into its construction.
(G) How much money was spent on the construction (C) dismissive of critics who question the wisdom of
of the Library of Congress? keeping it open to the public.
(H) What is the total weight of the massive bronze (D) adamant that it should be renovated and
doors leading into the Library of Congress? modernized despite the expense.
(J) In what year was the Library of Congress
completed? 8. In the context of the passage, the statement that the
Library of Congress, is one of Americas national
3. The passage states that Benjamin Franklin: treasures (line 79) most nearly means that:
(A) is represented by a bust, which is the centerpiece (F) the gold used in the Library of Congress is very
of a collection. valuable.
(B) originally conceived the Library of Congress as a (G) the Library of Congress houses some very
public library. valuable art work.
(C) was responsible for the overall design of the (H) the Library of Congress is better than similar
Library of Congress. institutions in other countries.
(D) opposed the massive expenditure of money and (J) the Library of Congress is an institution that all
time required in the construction of the Library Americans can be proud of.
of Congress.
9. According to the last paragraph of the passage,
4. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that: which of the following probably best describes the
(F) the Library of Congress has been made irrelevant authors attitude toward the change from allowing
by the Internet. only members of Congress to access the Library of
(G) the Library of Congress will soon require major Congress, to allowing the public to make use of
renovations. the facility?
(H) the construction of the Library of Congress (A) Approval
required a large amount of money. (B) Disdain
(J) the designers of the Library of Congress would (C) Unqualified derision
not recognize it today. (D) Overwhelming ambivalence
5. The passage states that the interior of the Library of 10. This passage would mostly likely be found in:
Congress contains: (F) a biography of Benjamin Franklin.
(A) the largest collection of art in the United States. (G) a treatise on the philosophy and architecture of
(B) the sum total of all accumulated human the 19th century.
knowledge. (H) a guidebook of significant places in the United
(C) all existing Gutenberg Bibles. States.
(D) more than five hundred miles of shelving. (J) a history of the District of Columbia.

Class 6
Science Review

Cla s s 6
The Science Test 6 Passages / 40 Questions / 35 Minutes
The Strategy
1. Scan the section and start with your best passages.
2. Identify the type of passage.
3. Skim the charts and graphs, or the experiment descriptions/viewpoints.
-- Review the titles of the tables, and headings of the axes.
-- Look for clear trends.
-- Note any key differences between experiments or viewpoints.
4. Go to the questions.

Sci e nce : Review
Scientists typically use two techniques to

Passage 1
determine the age of a fossil. The first method is
called relative dating, which considers the positions
The geologic timescale follows the evolution of of the different rocks in sequence (in relation to each
life on earth. It began with the Precambrian Era and other) and the different types of fossils that are found
continues through the current Cenozoic Era. Each era in the rocks. The second method is called absolute
is divided into one or more periods. The periods are dating, which analyzes the amount of radioactive
often described by the life forms that evolved during decay in the minerals of the rocks. The principle of
each period. Table 1 lists the eras, periods, some lateral continuity is applied to dating fossils when
representative life forms, and the duration of each fossils of the same species have previously been
period. found and it is possible to establish accurately the
age of those fossils. Likewise, a fossil will always
The creation of fossils allows us to determine be younger than any fossils found in the rock beds
which animals lived during each period. The process beneath it; this is called the principle of superposition.
of fossil creation begins when an organism dies. After
an organism dies, its body decays over time and only
the hard parts such as teeth and bones are left.
Sediment settles over top of the organisms skeleton.
As time goes by, more and more layers of sediment
are deposited on the remains. This causes great
pressure on the underlying layers and compresses
them. When the compacted sediment is changed into
sedimentary rock, a fossil is formed.

Cla s s 6
1. Using relative dating, a scientist has 6. Suppose that a fossil is found in a layer of rock
determined that a fossil is approximately 150 below another layer of rock that is 200 million
million years old. The fossil could be the years old. According to the passage, the fossil:
remains of a: (F) will be less than 200 million years old.
(A) primate. (G) will be exactly 200 million years old.
(H) will be more than 200 million years old.
(B) mammoth.
(J) will be too old to accurately date using the
(C) frog. principle of superposition.
(D) whale.
2. According to Table 1, which of the following

periods lasted the longest?
(F) Proterozoic
(G) Permian
(H) Jurassic
(J) Tertiary
3. Periods can be further divided into epochs.

The Pleistocene Epoch is known as The
Great Ice Age, and lasted from about 1.8
mya to about 10,000 years ago. Based on the
information presented, during which era was
the Pleistocene Epoch?
(A) Precambrian
(B) Paleozoic
(C) Mesozoic
(D) Cenozoic
4. According to the passage, which of the

following places the organisms in order from
earliest evolution to most recent evolution?
(F) humans, sea urchins, sharks, algae
(G) sea urchins, sharks, algae, humans
(H) algae, sharks, sea urchins, humans
(J) algae, sea urchins, sharks, humans
5. During the Devonian Period, the ozone layer

formed and the first air-breathing arthropods
evolved on land. Is this statement supported by
the data presented in Table 1?
(A) Yes, because the representative life of
the Devonian Period includes spiders and
mites, which are air-breathing arthropods.
(B) Yes, because, prior to the Devonian Period,
spiders and mites did not breathe air.
(C) No, because the representative life of the
Devonian Period does not include any air-
breathing organisms.
(D) No, because air-breathing arthropods did
not evolve until 417 354 mya.

Class 6
Writing Review

Cla s s 6
The Writing Test 40 Minutes / 1 Prompt

Civil Disobedience
In his Letter from a Birmingham Jail, Martin Luther King wrote that One has not only a legal but a
moral responsibility to obey just laws. Conversely, one has a moral responsibility to disobey unjust
laws. In a time of sharp political divisions, there has been an increasing willingness of individuals and
groups to disregard laws that go against their personal beliefs. Given the deep divisions that exist
in contemporary societies, it is important to discuss the merits of disobeying laws that individuals or
groups believe to be unjust.
Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking about
civil disobedience.
The law is the law and it is It is necessary to resist

If there are unjust laws
necessary that we all abide laws that are unjust.
worth overturning, then they
by it. Sure, it may seem Consider the examples of
should be reversed through
like some laws are unjust, Martin Luther King and
legal means. If you want to
but once we start making Gandhi. They resisted
change a law, you should
exceptions, how can we unjust laws, brought about
obey the rules while also
then tell a bank robber not social change, and became
organizing protests or other
to steal money or a litterer revered for their actions. It is
actions to help bring
not to throw trash out the important to follow
about change.
window? their leads.
Essay Task
Write a unified, coherent essay in which you evaluate multiple perspectives on funding arts in
the classroom. In your essay, be sure to:
analyze and evaluate the perspectives given
state and develop your own perspective on the issue
explain the relationship between your perspective and those given
Your perspective may be in full agreement with any of the others, in partial agreement, or
wholly different. Whatever the case, support your ideas with logical reasoning and detailed,
persuasive examples.

Wr i ti ng: Review
Essay Brainstorming
Consider the following as you think critically about the task:
Strengths and weaknesses of the three given perspectives
-- What insights do they offer, and what do they fail to consider?
-- Why might they be persuasive to others, or why might they fail to persuade?
Your own knowledge, experience, and values
-- What is your perspective on this issue, and what are its strengths and weaknesses?
-- How will you support your perspective in your essay?
What is the main idea of each perspective? What are the strengths and weaknesses of
each perspective? What do you believe?
Perspective One Perspective Two
Perspective Three Your Perspective

Cla s s 6
Creating an I-B-C and Writing Your Essay

Use your brainstorming to assist in writing your essay. Create an I-B-C outline to organize
your thoughts.
I-B-C: Introduction, Body, Conclusion
Introduction
-- Include a hook (quote, story, rhetorical question, definition of a key term, etc.)
-- What is the controversy being addressed in the prompt?
-- What is your perspective on the issue? This is your thesis.
Body Paragraphs #1 and #2
In these paragraphs, you will provide and defend your thesis.
-- Begin each paragraph with a topic sentence that summarizes an argument supporting your
perspective on the given topic. Be sure to connect your topic sentences to your thesis.
-- Develop your arguments through the use of evidence.
-- Highlight any perspectives that support your arguments. What outside evidence further
-- Include closing sentences which tie together each paragraph.
Body Paragraph #3
In this paragraph, you will highlight an argument that differs from your perspective.
-- Begin the paragraph with a topic sentence that summarizes an opposing opinion
represented by one, or more, of the provided perspectives.
-- Highlight any perspectives that support this argument. What outside evidence further
-- Defend your thesis by providing a counter-argument which highlights a flaw in this opinion.
What is the argument not taking into account?
-- Include a closing sentence which ties together the paragraph.
Conclusion
-- Summarize your perspective, the provided perspectives, and how your perspective agrees
with, or disagrees with, those perspectives.

Tes t Day
The Ramp-up to the Test

Thursday
Minimize school studying that night (this means dont procrastinate earlier in the week).
Friday
No thinking once school gets out (no homework or ACT).
Relax. Have fun but still get a good nights sleep - no concerts or late parties.
Saturday
Wake up with plenty of time so that you arent in a rush and stressed out.
Eat the right kinds of food, enough for energy but not too much.
Bring a snack.
Drink enough, but not too much, and be careful of the effects of sugar and caffeine.
You Must Bring:

-- Test Center Admission Ticket
-- ID
-- #2 Pencils (sharpened, good erasers)
-- Calculator
Bring layers so that you wont get too hot or too cold.
Use the same techniques you perfected during your practice ACT tests to get into the
Test Zone!
Stay in the Test Zone - Suggestions for the Break

1. Follow these suggestions during the break:
2. Dont worry about past questions.
3. Relax and breathe.
4. Stretch.
5. Relax your eyes.
6. Use the restroom. Wash your hands and put cold water on your face.
7. Eat a small snack to give you energy.
8. Drink some water.

Class 6
Test Day Checklist

Cla s s 6
Test Day
The Test Day Routine Checklist Before The Test
OO Eat:
-- Enough for energy, but not too much.
-- The right kinds of food.
-- Pack a snack to eat during the exam break.
OO Drink:
-- Enough but not too much.
-- Be careful of the effects of sugar and caffeine - they can make you crash during the test.
-- Pack a bottle of water for the test.
OO Do:
-- Pack your bag the night before:

Pencils with erasers
Calculator
Water
ID
Admission Ticket
Layers
-- Wake up early enough so that you are sharp and not in a rush.
-- Exercise a little in the morning if it helps you wake up.
-- Try mental warm-ups (reading and math) so that you dont make mistakes early in the test.

Te st Day Chec klis t
Class 6 Answer Key

English Math Reading Science
1. D 1. C 1. C 1. C
2. J 2. G 2. G 2. F
3. B 3. B 3. A 3. D
4. F 4. H 4. H 4. H
5. C 5. B 5. D 5. A
6. H 6. F 6. F 6. H
7. C 7. B 7. B
8. G 8. G 8. J
9. D 9. B 9. A
10. J 10. K 10. H
11. C 11. D
12. F 12. G
13. C 13. D
14. J 14. H
15. C 15. B
16. G

Appendix
Math:
Advanced Concepts

Ap p en d ix
Asymptotes
Identify:
The question will ask for the horizontal or vertical asymptote(s) of a given equation.
Set Up:
Use the definitions of asymptotes to solve the question:
Horizontal asymptotes occur according to the following rules:
ax n + ...
f (x) = bx m + ...
-- When n is less than m, the horizontal asymptote is y = 0 or the x-axis.
-- When n is equal to m, then the horizontal asymptote is equal to y = a/b.
-- When n is greater than m, there is no horizontal asymptote.
Vertical asymptotes occur when the denominator of the given equation equals 0.
-- Exception: If the numerator and denominator each equal zero, then the graph has a hole
rather than a vertical asymptote at that x value.
Make Sure:
Do not confuse horizontal and vertical asymptotes when doing your calculations.
Execute:
1. Which of the following is a vertical asymptote 2. Which of the following is a horizontal

2
9x - 4
of the equation y = x - 4 ? asymptote of the function f (x) = 8x + 4 ?
x +1
(A) x = 1
1
(B) x = 0 (F) y = 2
(C) x = 1 1
(G) y = - 2
(D) x = 2
(E) x = 4 (H) y = 0
(J) y = 8
9
9
(K) y = 8

Math: Ad vance d Conc ept s
Compound Interest
Identify:
The question will ask about compound interest.
Set Up:
Use the compound interest formula to solve the question.
Compound Interest Formula
Compound Interest: A = P R 1 + n W
r nt
A = Amount accumulated
P = Principal
r = Interest rate
n = Compounding per period
t = Number of periods
Make Sure:
Check that you are plugging in the correct numbers for the correct variables.
Execute:
3. Erics friend Nathan found an account that 4. If you deposit $1500 into an account paying
earns 8 percent interest compounded annually. 12% annual interest compounded quarterly,
Nathan made an initial deposit of $350 into how much money will be in the account after
his account and at the same time Eric made 8 years?
a deposit of $250 into his account. After five
(F) $3,862.62
years, how much more money will Nathans
initial deposit have earned than Erics initial (G) $8,271.12
deposit? (H) $18,123.32
(A) $88.45 (J) $27,008.23
(B) $108.76 (K) $65,956.25
(C) $146.93
(D) $179.70
(E) $312.24

Ap p en d ix
Cosecant, Secant, & Contangent Problems

Identify:
Look for references to cosecant, secant, or cotangent in the question.
Set Up:
Cosecant, secant, and cotangent are simply the inverse of sine, cosine, and tangent.
CSC-SEC-COT hypotenuse
opposite
hypotenuse hypotenuse adjacent
csc = opposite sec = adjacent cot = opposite

adjacent
Make Sure:
Dont mix up the opposite and adjacent sides. Keep track of your work!
Execute:
5. Which of the following trigonometric equations

is valid for the side measurement a inches,
diagonal measurement b inches, and angle
measurement c in the rectangle shown below?
c
a
(A) sin c = b/a

(B) cot c = b/a
(C) sec c = b/a
(D) cos c = b/a
(E) tan c = b/a

Law of Sines and Law of Cosines

Identify:
Look for relationships between sides and angles of non-right triangles in the question.
Set Up:
Use the relevant Law of Sines or Law of Cosines to solve the question.
Law of Sines Law of Cosines
sin (A) sin (B) sin (C) c 2 = a 2 + b 2 2ab cos C

a = b = c
Make Sure:
Check that you are using the correct formula for the given situation.
Execute:
6. In ABC, shown below, the measure of B 7. In the figure below, a radar screen shows 2
is 21, the measure of C is 20, and AB is planes. Plane A is located at a distance of 25
30 units long. Which of the following is an miles and bearing 160, and Plane B is located
expression for the length, in units, of BC? at a distance of 40 miles and bearing 285.
Which of the following is an expression for the
straight-line distance, in miles, between
the 2 planes?
(F) sin 139

30 sin 21 o
(G)
30 sin 21 o
sin 20
o
(H)
sin 21 o (A) 25 2 + 40 2 - 2 (25) (40) cos 85 o
30 sin 20
o
(B) 25 2 + 40 2 - 2 (25) (40) cos 125 o

(J)
30 sin 139 o
sin 20
o
(C) 25 2 + 40 2 - 2 (25) (40) cos 165 o

(K)
30 sin 21 o
sin 139
o
(D) 25 2 + 40 2 - 2 (25) (40) cos 225 o
(E) 25 2 + 40 2 - 2 (25) (40) cos 285 o

Ap p en d ix
Matrix Problems
Identify:
Look for numbers in matrices.
Set Up:
Apply the rules for matrices operations:
Addition and Subtraction:
" ac db % + " wy xz % = # ac ++ wy b+x&

d+z
Multiplication and Division. Multiplication of two matrices is defined if and only if the number of
columns of the left matrix is the same as the number of rows of the right matrix:
" ab %! x y$ = # ax &
ay
bx by
Make Sure:
Slow down and carefully work through each term in the matrices. Its very easy to miss one.
Execute:
## 22aa &&
aa
What is the matrix product 33aa !!11 00 -
- 11$$ ?
9. A certain bakery bakes 3 types of pies daily.
8.
The number of pies baked every day is shown
by the matrix below:
# 2a &
a 0 -a Apple Cherry Pumpkin
(F) 0 -2a [ 25 15 10 ]
3a 0 -3a
The owner of the bakery uses the following
(G) # 0 0 &
a 2a 3a ratio to calculate how many pies he will sell.
0 Apple RS 0.8 VW
-a -2a -3a SS W
Cherry SS 0.6 WWW
(H) !2a 0 - 2a $ Pumpkin
SS 0.4 WW
T X
How many pies does the owner estimate he
(J) !6a 0 - 6a$ will sell tomorrow?
(K) !0$ (A) 29

(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 44
(E) 45

Polar Coordinates
Identify:
The question will ask about polar coordinates.
Set Up:
In a coordinate plane, any angle measure is equivalent to that angle 360 (2 radians).
Make Sure:
Check that you are setting 2 equals to 360.
Execute:
10. Which of the following polar coordinates 11. Which of the following polar coordinates
represents the same location as (4, 30)? represents the same location as (12, 120)?
(F) (4, 300) (A) (12, 480)
(G) (8, 120) (B) (12, 360)
(H) (4, 30) (C) (6, 30)
(J) (8, 120) (D) (12, 120)
(K) (4, 390) (E) (6, 240)

Ap p en d ix
Sequence Problems
Identify:
Look for references to arithmetic sequence or geometric sequence in the question.
Set Up:
Use the appropriate formula to solve the question:
Arithmetic Sequence
t n = t 1 + (n 1)d
t n is the nth term, t 1 is the first term, and d is the common difference.
Geometric Sequence
t n = t 1 r (n 1)
t n is the nth term, t 1 is the first term, and r is the common ratio.
Make Sure:
Dont mix up the your terms. Keep track of your work!
Execute:
12. What is the first term of the arithmetic 13. What is the seventh term of the geometric
sequence whose sixth term is 36 and whose sequence whose second term is 6 and whose
tenth term is 52? fifth term is 162?
(F) 4 (A) 1,458
(G) 8 (B) 486
(H) 12 (C) 486
(J) 16 (D) 1,458
(K) 24 (E) 4,374

Appendix Answer Key

Math
(Page 349)
1. A
2. K
3. D
4. F
5. C
6. J
7. B
8. F
9. C
10. K
11. A
12. J
13. D

Appendix
Common Math Formulas

Ap p en d ix
Common Math Formulas

Average Graphing
Sum
Average = Total Number Circle
(x h) + (y k) 2 = r 2
2
Circles (Non-Graphing) Center: (h, k)

Radius: r
Area Circumference
Parabola
Area = r 2
Circumference = 2r
Graphing Formula: y = ax2 + bx + c
Arc Vertex form: y = a(x h) 2 + k, where (h, k) is the vertex
Arc = Circumference S X
Central Angle
360
Quadractics and Polynominals
Sector
Quadratic Formula
Sector = Area S X
Central Angle
360 -b + b 2 - 4ac
x= 2a
Compound Interest
Quadractics and Polygons
Compound Interest: A = P R 1 + n W
r nt
Rhombus Area Rhombus Perimeter
A = Amount accumulated Area = bh Perimeter = 2b + 2h

(In a square, b and h are equal) (In a square, b and h are equal)
P = Principal
r = Interest rate expressed as a decimal Trapezoid Area
n = Compounding per period
Area = S
b1 + b2 X
t = Number of Periods 2 h
Polygon Interior Angles

Exponential Growth Exponential Decay
Sum of Interior Angles: 180o (n 2)
y = C (1 + r)t y = C (1 r)t n = number of sides
y = Final Amount y = Final Amount
C = Initial amount C = Initial amount Ratio, Probability, and Unit Conversion
r = Rate of Change r = Rate of Change
t = Time t = Time Ratio Formula Direct Proportional Relationship
One Part One Part One Part
Ratio = Another Part Whole Part = Whole Part
Geometry in Three Dimensions
Trapezoid Area
Cone Volume
Desired Outcomes
Probability = Total Outcomes
Volume = 1 r 2h
3
Cylinder Volume Cylinder Surface Area Triangles
Volume = r h 2
Surface Area = 2r + 2rh 2
Area Pythagorean Theorem
Rectangular Prism Volume Rectangular Prism Surface Area 1 a2 + b2 = c2

Area = 2 bh
Volume = lwh Surface Area = 2wl + 2hl + 2hw
Rectangular Pyramid Volume Sphere Volume Trigonometry
4 opposite adjacent opposite

Volume = 1 lwh Volume = 3 r 3 sin = hypotenuse cos = hypotenuse tan = adjacent
3

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ACT Workbook

2 R E VOL U T I ON P REP ACT W O RK B O O K

The Test Zone . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21

Math: Tricks and Traps . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33

English: Grammar & Punctuation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 79

Math: Arithmetic & Formulas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 91

Science: Charts & Graphs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 137

Math: Algebra . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 143

English: Writing Style & Word Choice . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 191

Math: Planar Geometry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 201

R EVOL UTION PR EP ACT W O RK B O O K 3

Science: Conflicting Viewpoints . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 253

English: Student as Editor . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 257

Math: Coordinate Geometry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 263

Math: Additional Topics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 271

English: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 315

Math: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 321

Reading: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 331

Science: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 335

Writing: Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 339

Test Day Checklist . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 345

Common Math Formulas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 359

About The Course

Course Materials You Must Bring to Class:

Revolution Prep practice exams and answer sheets

A Comfortable Learning Environment

Revolution Prep Does NOT Register You for the ACT!

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Why Does the ACT Matter?

Big impact on admissions

Application: 25% 25%

What is a Good ACT Score?

Harvard, Yale, Stanford, Princeton, Univ. of Chicago, Columbia, Northwestern, Elite

8 R E VOL U T I ON P REP ACT W O RK B O O K

Format of the ACT

5 Writing (Optional) 40 minutes

Total with Writing 3 hours 35 minutes

ACT Order of Difficulty

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ACT Scoring Chart

SCALE SCORE SCALE SCORE

ENGLISH MATH READING SCIENCE

10 R E VOL U T I ON P REP ACT W O RK B O O K

Whats not-so-scary: theres no spelling, no vocabulary, and no complicated terminology.

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Which colleges receive my ACT results?

Can colleges view my ACT essay?

Are my ACT scores measures of my intelligence?

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Pacing and Guessing

-- First: Answer all the questions you know how to do.

-- Last: Guess randomly on questions about which you have no clue.

Pacing on the ACT

-- If youre regularly making careless mistakes, you must slow down.

DONT HESITATE to cut loose.

DONT WORRY about timing for every single question.

-- Good Move: Staying aware of how much time is left in a test.

-- Do the math on the test, not on the clock.

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ACT English Concepts

-- Prepositions, punctuation, verbs, etc.

Main Idea Analysis